Fiitjee All India Test Series: Concept Recapitulation Test - Ii JEE (Advanced) - 2019

FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
 The test consists of total 54 questions.
 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. In the given circuit, initially the charge on capacitor is Q 0 . At C

t = 0 switch S is closed. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
Q0 
(A) Maximum current through the inductor is L S
LC

(B) Charge on the capacitor is zero at t  LC
2

(C) Current through the inductor is maximum at t  LC
2
Q20
(D) Maximum magnetic energy can be stored in the inductor is
2C
2. The positive charge Q is placed in the cavity of the spherical

conductor.
(A) the induced charge at the surface 1 is Q and on the surface 2 + Q
is +Q
1
(B) the surface charge density at inner surface is uniform
(C) the surface charge density at the outer surface is uniform
(D) the charge Q does not experience electric force if it is placed at
2
the centre of the spherical cavity.
3. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity
Space for Rough work
3 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. In the given figure, the block is attached with a system of three ideal
A
springs A, B, C. The block is displaced by a small distance x from its
equilibrium position vertically downwards and released. T represents k
the time period of small vertical oscillations of the block. Then (pulleys
are ideal)
11m
(A) T  2 B k
2k
(B) the deformation of the spring A is (2/11) times the displacement of
the block.
(C) the deformation of the spring C is (1/11) times the displacement of C
the block. 2k
(D) the deformation of the spring B is (4/11) times the displacement of m
the block.
5. In an interference arrangement, similar to Young’s double slit S1
experiment, the slits S1 and S2 are illuminated with coherent
microwave sources, each of frequency 106 Hz. The sources d/2

are synchronized to have zero phase difference. The slits are
separated by distance d = 150.0 m. The intensity I() is d/2
measured as a function of , where  is defined as shown in S2
the figure. If I0 is maximum intensity, then I() for 0    90 is
given by
(A) I( )  I0 for  = 0° (B) I( )  (I0 / 2) for  = 30°
(C) I( )  (I0 / 4) for  = 90° (D) I() is constant for all values of 
6. A particle is projected from origin with velocity y  ˆj 


 
u  ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ m/s. Horizontal surface lies in X – Y plane,
then (take g = 10 m/sec2)
2
(A) Time of flight = sec
5 0 X ˆi
 
2
(B) horizontal range = m
5
1 z  kˆ 
(C) Maximum height m
10
1
(D) Maximum height = m
5
(Matching List Type)

This section contains FOUR questions. Each question has TWO matching lists: LIST‐I and
LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and
LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
7. List-I shows four situations of standard young’s double slit arrangement with screen
placed far away from the slits S1 and S2. In each of these cases S1P0 = S2P0, S1P1 -
S2P1 = /4 and S1P2 – S2P2 = /3, where  is the wavelength of the light used. In the
cases B, C and D, a transparent sheet of refractive index  and thickness t is pasted on
slit S2. The thickness of the sheets are different in different cases. The phase difference
between the light waves reaching a point P on the screen from the two slits is denoted
by (p) and the intensity by I(p). Match each situation given in List-I with the statement(s)
in List-II
List - I List - II
(P) S2 P2 (1)  P0   0
P1
P0
S1
(Q) S2 (2)
   1 t   / 4 P2  P1   0
P1
P0
S1
(R) S2 (3)
   1 t   / 2 P2 I P1   0
P1
P0
S1
(S) S2 (4)
   1 t  3 / 4 P2 I P0   I P1 
P1
P0
S1
(5) I P2   I P1 

The correct option is:
(A) P→1,4 ; Q→3 ; R→5 ; S→3,5 (B) P→1,3 ; Q→4 ; R→5 ; S→3,4,5
(C) P→1,4 ; Q→2 ; R→3 ; S→3,4,5 (D) P→1,2 ; Q→5 ; R→4 ; S→1,5
8. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is

taken through a cycle ABCDA as shown in
the P-V diagram. Column II gives the
characteristics involved in the cycle. Match
them with each of the processes given in
Column I.
List – I List – II
(P) Process A  B (1) Internal energy decreases
(Q) Process B  C (2) Internal energy increases
(R) Process C  D (3) Heat is lost
(S) Process D  A (4) Heat is gained
(5) Work is done on the gas
(A) P→1,3,5 ; Q→1,3 ; R→2,4 ; S→3,5 (B) P→1,2,5 ; Q→1,2 ; R→4 ; S→3,5
(C) P→1,5 ; Q→1,3 ; R→2,4 ; S→4,5 (D) P→3,5 ; Q→1,4 ; R→2,3 ; S→2,4
9. Average speed of a bus measured by six different students is given as follows:

Student
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th
number
Speed
12.5 m/s 12.3 m/s 11.8 m/s 12.4 m/s 12.2 m/s 12.6 m/s
(m/s)
List -I List -II
(P) Mean absolute error (1)  0.2
(Q) Mean value (2) 12.3 m/s
(R) Relative error (3)  0.0163
(S) Percentage error (4)  1.63 %
(A) P→3 ; Q→1 ; R→2 ; S→4 (B) P→1 ; Q→2 ; R→3 ; S→4
(C) P→1 ; Q→3 ; R→4 ; S→2 (D) P→1 ; Q→4 ; R→3 ; S→2
10. In the circuit shown in figure A B

two coils are arranged as
shown. In List-I, some
operation which is carried
out in circuit I is mentioned
and in List-II
X Y
S
R E R1
about its effect. Match the entries of List  I with the entries of List–II.
List  I List  II
(P) Switch S is closed (exclude small (1) Current in R1 is form X to Y.
switching time)
(Q) Switch S is closed for long time then it (2) Current in R1 is form Y to X
opened for this transition time.
(R) If coil A is move, perpendicular to B, (3) No current is flowing through R1.
switch S is closed.
(S) The battery of constant emf is replaced (4) Current in R1 can be from X to Y
by a varying emf and switch S is closed. or form Y to X.
(5) Coil B will attract coil A
(A) P→2 ; Q→1, 3 ; R→5 ; S→4 (B) P→3 ; Q→2 ; R→2, 5 ; S→3,4
(C) P→3 ; Q→4 ; R→1, 2 ; S→4 (D) P→1 ; Q→2, 5 ; R→2, 5 ; S→4
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. Two blocks of masses 2kg and 5kg are connected by a light string passing over
a frictionless pulley. Find the tension (in Newton) in the cord connecting the masses. (G
= 9.8 M/S2)
12. A bullet losses 19% of its kinetic energy when passes through an obstacle. Find the
fractional change in its speed
13. A 10 m wide spacecraft moves through the interstellar space at a speed 3 × 10 6 m/s.
A magnetic field B = 3 × 10–9 T exists in the space in a direction perpendicular to the
plane of motion. Treating the spacecraft as a conductor, calculate the emf induced
across its width. (in volt)
14. The refractive index for water w.r.t. air for a sound wave if the velocities of sound in
water and air are 1440 ms-1 and 340ms-1, is approximately,
15. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dynes per cm
and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is
0.12 mm, then the force (in newton) applied to separate the two plates is
16. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2
open at the both ends vibrating in its third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning
3
fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is then n = ?
n

17.  
Gravitational filed in a region is given by E  3iˆ  4 ˆj N/kg. Find out the work done (in J)
in displacing a particle of mass 1 unit by 1m along the line 4y = 3x + 9?
18. Figure shows a uniform disc of radius R from which a hole Y

of radius R/2 has been cut out from left of the centre and is
placed on right of the centre of disc. The centre of mass of
resulting disc is at a distance R/n from centre of uniform
disc. Find the value of n
(-R/2,0) (-R/2,0)
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. The paramagnetic species out of the following is/are

(A) O 2 (B) N2
(C) O 22 (D) N22
20. The following data are given for the reaction

X  g   Y  g  
 Product
No. of Initial concentration of Initial concentration of Rate of reaction in
expt. ‘X’ in ‘M’ ‘Y’ in ‘M’ M s–1 unit
1. 0.1 0.1 2  10–8
2. 0.2 0.2 4  10–8
3. 0.4 0.2 8  10–8
Choose the correct statement(s) from the following
(A) The order of reaction w.r.t X is one
(B) The overall order of reaction is one
(C) The rate constant of the reaction is 2  10–7 s–1
(D) The half-life of ‘Y’ does not depend on its concentration
21. In which of the following compound(s) the C – Cl bond is shorter than that in C2H5Cl?
Cl
(A) (B) CH2 = CH – Cl
NO2
Cl
CH3 CH3
(C) H3C C Cl (D)
CH3
NO2
22. CH3
CH3 C O - CH3
CH3
Which of the following reaction(s) form the above compound?
CH3 CH3
CH2N2
(A) CH3 C Cl  NaOCH3  (B) CH3 C OH 


CH3 CH3
CH3
 3 2 Hg OCOCH ,CH OH
CH3 - C = CH2  3

(C) CH3Cl CH3 C OK (D) NaBH4
CH3
CH3
23. Which of the following statements is/are true about an azeotropic mixture?
(A) An azeotropic mixture boils at constant temperature
(B) The composition of an azeotropic mixture changes on distillation
(C) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than that of either of
them when it shows positive deviation from the Raoult’s law
(D) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point higher than that of either of
them if it shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
24. Which of the following statements is / are correct

(A) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl crystal is 8
(B) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12
(C) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(D) Length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm ( rNa  95pm;rCl  181pm)

25. Match the bases mentioned in List - I with their properties mentioned in List - II.
(P) LiOH (1) Undergoes dehydration on heating to
produce normal oxide
(Q) NaOH (2) Used as an antacid
(R) KOH (3) Used to prepare soft soaps
(S) Mg(OH)2 (4) Absorbs CO2 to form a compound
which hydrated form is called
washing soda
The correct option is
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 (B) P  1; Q  3,4; R  3; S  1, 2
(C) P → 2,3; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4 (D) P → 1; Q → 3,4; R → 2; S → 2,4
26. Match the alkyl chlorides mentioned in List-I with the nature of their elimination reaction
products mentioned in List- II.
(P) C2H 5 (1) One product shows geometrical
isomerism if formed through E2
CH3 - CH - CH - CH 3 mechanism
Cl
(Q) C2H5 (2) One product shows geometrical
CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH2 - Cl mechanism
(R) C2H5 (3) One product shows optical
CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3 mechanism
Cl
(S) C2 H5 (4) One product shows optical
isomerism if produced through E1
Cl - CH2 - CH - CH 2 - CH3 mechanism
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2, 3, 4
(B) P  2,3; Q  1,4; R  3; S  1, 2
(C) P → 1,2,3,4; Q → 2,3,4; R → 1,2; S → 2
(D) P → 1; Q → 3,4; R → 2; S → 2,4
27. Match the compounds mentioned in List -I with their characteristics mentioned in List-II
(P) CH3COCl (1) Forms CH3COOH as only or one of
the products on hydrolysis
(Q) CH3COOC2H5 (2) Forms two organic compounds on
hydrolysis
(R) (CH3CO)2O (3) Hydrolysis is irreversible in both
acidic and basic medium
(S) CH3CONH2 (4) Undergoes the easiest nucleophilic
substitution reaction among the four
compounds
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 (B) P  2,3; Q  3,4; R  3; S  1, 2
(C) P → 1,3,; Q → 1,,4; R → 1,2; S → 2 (D) P → 1, 4; Q → 1,2; R → 1; S → 1,3
28. Match the precipitates of the compounds listed in List -I with the solvent(s) listed in
List-II.
(P) Zn(OH)2 precipitate dissolves in (1) Potassium cyanide
(Q) Cr(OH)3 precipitate dissolves in (2) Ammonia solution
(R) AgCl precipitate dissolves in (3) Sodium hydroxide
(S) CuS precipitate dissolves in (4) Hydrochloric acid
(A) P → 1, 2, 3, 4; Q → 2, 3, 4; R → 1, 2; S → 1
(B) P  2,3; Q  1, 2; R  3; S  1, 2
(C) P → 1,3,; Q → 1,,4; R → 1,2; S → 2
(D) P → 2, 3, 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
SECTION – D
29. The following two reactions attain equilibrium in a container by taking in initially only
FeSO4, and O2 gas is passed then


2FeSO 4  s   2
 Fe 2O3  s   SO2  g  SO3  g  ;K P  900 cm of Hg1


2 SO2  g  O2  g  1
 2SO3  g  ;K P2  25  10 cm of Hg
4
What is the equilibrium partial pressure of O2(g) in cm of Hg unit?
30. The molar mass of the salt MX2 is 208.3 g. The solubility product of MX2 is 4  10-3. How
many gram of the salt should be dissolved in water to form 10 litre saturated solution?
31. KO2  s   CO 2  g  
 P  s   Q  g
H2O
 R  soln  S  so ln  Q  g
KI  soln  /H
 Blue solution
Starch
What is the molar mass in g of the heaviest unknown product (out of P, Q, R and S) in
above reactions?
32. KOH
P   Br /CCl
  Q   2
 R 
4
Alcohol, 
(Alkyl chloride)
  KOH 1 eq   KOH 1 eq
CH3  CH  CH2 
 Br 
 S  
H2 O, SN 1
O
How many grams of (P) is required to form one mole of 2, 3-dimethylbutane upon
treatment with sodium metal in dry ether?
33. 2 
HO  CH2  CH  CH2COOH   Product
SOCl excess
OH
What will be the molar mass in gram of the organic product of above reaction?
34. Cr(III) forms an octahedral complex with NH3 and Cl ligands. The van’t Hoff factor of the
complex is 2 when it is 100% ionized in water. The complex ion shows geometrical
isomerism. What is the molar mass of the complex in gram unit?
35. Calculate the reversible work done at 5000 K in joule unit by compressing one mole of
 1
an ideal gas to one-tenth   of its original volume in an isothermal process?
 10 
36. The molar conductance at infinite dilution of CaCl2, Ca(CH3COO)2 and HCl are
respectively 271.6, 200.8 and 425.95 S cm2 mol–1. What will be the molar conductance
of CH3COOH in S cm2 mol–1 unit?
Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
 2 4 8
37. The value of the expression tan  2 tan  4 tan  8cot is equal to:
7 7 7 7
2 2  
(A) cos ec  cot (B) tan  cot
7 7 14 14
2  2
sin 1  cos  cos
(C) 7 (D) 7 7
2  2
1  cos sin  sin
7 7 7
38. Which of the following pair(s) of function have same graphs?

sec x tan x cos x sin x
(A) f  x    ,g  x   
cos x cot x sec x cos ec x
   
 
(B) f  x   sgn x 2  4x  5 , g  x   sgn  cos2 x  sin2  x    where sgn denotes
 3 

signum function.
(C) f  x   e

ln x2  3 x  3  ,g x  x 2  3x  3
 
sin x cos x 2cos2 x
(D) f  x    ,g  x  
sec x cos ec x cot x
39. 
Let f  x   cos1 2x 2  1 then: 
(A) f  x  is continuous in  1, 1
(B) f  x  is derivable in (–1, 1)
(C) range of f  x  is 0, 
1
(D) derivative of f  x  w.r.t. sin1 x at x  is 2
2
 /2  /2  /2
 cos   sin x  dx; I  cos  2 sin x  dx

2 2
40. Suppose I1 
0
2 
0
and I3   cos   sin x  dx, then
0
(A) I1  0 (B) I2  I3  0
(C) I1  I2  I3  0 (D) I2  I3
2
41.
 
Consider the function f  x   cos tan1 sin cot 1 x      . Which of the following is

correct?
(A) Range of f is (0, 1)
(B) f is even
(C) f '  0   0
(D) The line y = 1 is asymptotes to the graph y  f  x 
dy sin2 x
42. A function y  f  x  satisfying the differential equation
 sin x   y cos x  2  0 is
dx x
such that, y  0 as x   then the statement which is correct is:
 /2

(A) lim f  x   1
x 0
(B)  f  x  dx
0
is less than
2
 /2
(C)  f  x  dx
0
is greater than unity (D) f  x  is an odd function

43. Match the following

List-I List-II
(P) If m and n are positive integers satisfying (1) 9
1  cos 2  cos 4  cos 6  cos 8  cos10
cosm .sin n
 , then  m  n  is equal to
sin 
(Q) 9x 2  sin2 x  4 (2) 10
The minimum value of the expression
x sin x
for x   0,   is
(R) Let f  x   11  8 sin x  2 cos2 x . If the maximum and (3) 11
minimum value of f  x  are denoted by M and m
M8
respectively, then has the value equal to
m
(S) 3  (4) 12
If tan 9  (where 0    ), then the value of
4 18
 3 cos ec 3   4 sec 3   is equal to
(5) 13
(6) 10
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 (B) P  1; Q 4; R 3; S  4
(C) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 6 (D) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 4

List-I List-II
(P) Let f be a real valued differentiable function on f such (1) 4
that f ' 1  6 and f '  2   2 . Then
f  3 cosh  4 sin h  2   f 1
lim is equal to
h 0
 
f 3eh  5 sec h  4  f  2 
(Q) For a  0 , let f :  4a, 4a  R be an even function (2) 5
such that f  x   f  4a  x   x   2a, 4a  and
f  2a  h   f  2a  f h  2a   f  2a 
lim  4 then lim is
h 0 h h 0 2h
equal to
(R) Suppose f is a differentiable function on R. Let (3) 3
F  x   f e x and G  x   ef  x  . If f ' 1  e3 and
 
G'  0 
f  0   f '  0   3, then is equal to
F ' 0 
(S) Let f  x   Max.  cos x, x,2x  1 where x  0 . Then (4) 2
number of points of non – differentiability
(5) 1
(6) 0
(A) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 6 (B) P  1; Q 4; R 3; S  4
(C) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 6 (D) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 6; S → 2
45. Consider f  x   ln x  kx 2 , x  0 . Match the column – I with the value of k in column – II

List-I List-II
(P) f  x   0 has two distinct solutions (1) k=0
(Q) f  x   0 has four distinct solutions (2) 1
k
2e
(R) f  x   0 has six distinct solutions (3)  1 
k  , 
 2e 
(S) f  x   has no solution (4) k   , 0 
(5)  1 
k   0, 
 2e 
(6) 1
k
e
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 4 (B) P  3; Q 5; R 4; S  5
(C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 4 (D) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 2

List-I List-II
(P) Let f :R  R defined as f  x   e
sgn  x  x2
 e , where sgn (1) Odd
x denotes signum function of x, then f  x  is

(Q) 1 (2) Even
Let f :  1, 1  R defined as f  x   x  x 4  
2
1 x
where [x] denotes greatest integer less than or equal
to x, then f  x  is
(R) Let f :R  R defined as (3) Neither odd nor
even
f  x 
 4

x  x  1 x  1  2x  x  2 4 2
, then f  x  is
2
x  x 1
(S) Let f :R  R defined as (4) One – One
3 5 101
f  x   x  3x  5x  .....  101x then f  x  is
(5) Many – one
(6) Constant
(A) P → 2, 3; Q → 3,4; R → 5,1; S → 4, 2 (B) P  3, 2; Q 5. 4; R 3, 4; S 5, 6
(C) P → 1, 2; Q → 2, 6; R → 5, 4; S → 2, 4 (D) P → 3, 5; Q → 2, 5; R → 3, 5; S → 1, 4
SECTION – D
47. If solution of  x cos y  y sin y  dy   x sin y  y cos y  dx  0 is

n  x sin y  y cos y  sin y   4kx  c then k is
48. Given sequence of numbers x1, x 2 , x 3 ,......x 2005 which satisfy,

x1 x2 x3 x 2005 1005
  ........ where x1  x 2  .......x1005  2010 then x 21
x1  1 x 2  3 x 3  5 x 2005  2009 164
is
1 121
49. If roots of x 3  ax 2  bx 
9
 0 are in A.P. the
64

2a3  9ab  1 is _______. 
50. A bag contain N marbles (N < 200) of 4 colours: Red, White and Green. Following
events are equally likely
(i) Selection of 4 Red marbles
(ii) Selection of 1 White and 3 Red marbles
(iii) Selection of 1 White, 1 Blue and 2 Red marbles
(iv) Selection of 1 marble of each color
7S
If S is sum of digits of maximum possible value of N then is
500
51. Let A and B be two non singular matrices of order 2 such that
  2 3   3 0  10 A
9A 2B  6AB  B  9 B     . If B    and Trace (A)  A   then is
  2 1    1 1 3 4
100
 k  100 
a 2100  b  a  b  c  .
52. If   
k 0  k  1
C k 
c
where a,b,c  N, then find the least value of
670
53. If the sum of an infinite geometric series, whose first term is the limit of the function
 9 7 
f  x   9
  as x  1 and the common ratio is the limit of function
 1 x 1  x7 
tan x  sin x 7S
g x  3
as x  0 , is S then is
ln 1  x  100
54. If f :R  R be an injective mapping and p, q, r are non – zero distinct real quantities
p p  q  q r
satisfying f    f   and f    f  
r  qr  r p
q
If the graph of g  x   px 2  qx  r passes through M (1, 6) then find the value of .
32

Fiitjee All India Test Series: Concept Recapitulation Test - Ii JEE (Advanced) - 2019

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Fiitjee All India Test Series: Concept Recapitulation Test - Ii JEE (Advanced) - 2019

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FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

1. In the given circuit, initially the charge on capacitor is Q 0 . At C

2. The positive charge Q is placed in the cavity of the spherical

6. A particle is projected from origin with velocity y  ˆj 

(Matching List Type)

(5) I P2   I P1 

8. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is

9. Average speed of a bus measured by six different students is given as follows:

10. In the circuit shown in figure A B

Space for Rough work

18. Figure shows a uniform disc of radius R from which a hole Y

Space for Rough work

19. The paramagnetic species out of the following is/are

20. The following data are given for the reaction

(A) (B) CH2 = CH – Cl

Space for Rough work

24. Which of the following statements is / are correct

Space for Rough work

(Matching List Type)

Space for Rough work

Space for Rough work

What is the equilibrium partial pressure of O2(g) in cm of Hg unit?

Space for Rough work

Space for Rough work

Mathematics PART – III

38. Which of the following pair(s) of function have same graphs?

 cos   sin x  dx; I  cos  2 sin x  dx

Space for Rough work

(Matching List Type)

43. Match the following

44. Match the following

Space for Rough work

45. Consider f  x   ln x  kx 2 , x  0 . Match the column – I with the value of k in column – II

46. Match the following

x denotes signum function of x, then f  x  is

Space for Rough work

47. If solution of  x cos y  y sin y  dy   x sin y  y cos y  dx  0 is

48. Given sequence of numbers x1, x 2 , x 3 ,......x 2005 which satisfy,

Space for Rough work

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