De Thi HSG Lien Truong Tâm

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SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI HSG KHỐI 9

NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020


Đề số 9
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi gồm 16 trang) Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

SECTION A – LISTENING
Part 1: You are going to hear Jessica, giving a speech about her father , For questions 1-13,
complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER in the
spaces provided. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Good evening everybody. My name is Jessica Talbot and I am here to talk a little about my father, to
share some memories. We have heard some great people speaking tonight on the tenth (1)___________
of his death: his agent, movie directors, film critics and many others worked in the movie business with
him and recognized what a fantastic (2) __________ he was. My mother will be speaking
(3)__________and I hope, between us, we can give you some flavor of what he was like not on the
stage or in front of a camera, but as a father, a husband, a family(4)___________, because that is what
we most remember about him. My father didn't win any Oscars for being a father, but for me it was his
greatest (5)__________.My first memory of my father, when I was (6)________ more than three or four
years old, was when he took me out onto the Pacific in his beloved (7)_______.It is something that he
would do quite often especially during the warmer (8)__________when his filming schedule allowed it.
I was fascinated by (9)_________things that day: the huge size of the ocean, something I hadn't been
aware of standing on a (10)_________, and the second thing was my father's enormously hairy chest,
which I could see through his unbuttoned navy (11)_________. I don't remember anything he said to me
that day, but on future occasions on that (12)_________, he used to tell me that the world was mine if I
wanted it, that I could do anything I wanted to, he would tell me the only limit was the limit of my
(13)_________. I have my father to thank for the belief that he gave me even from my youngest days
Part 2: You will hear Diana to tell her friend about how her new job is going. Listen to the
conversation between Diana and Alan, then complete the True/False exercise below.
14. Diana and the tourists traveled to the canyon by bus.
15. Diana had many people with her to the crayon.
16. Some of the tourists stayed at the hotel today because they were tired.
17. Diana worked as a guide.
18. Mark is Diana’s manager
19. Diana didn't have time for lunch
20. Diana’s job is very hard
21. Diana likes her work although the wage is not good
22. Diana arrived back in the hotel to speak to the head of the tourist group about tomorrow
23. The programs for tomorrow are Aquarium in the morning and museum in the afternoon
Part 3: You are going to listen to a conversation between a tutor and two students: Steve and
Frances. For questions 24-30, choose the answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what
you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
24. Steve's mark could have been better if he had
A not made mistakes in his project.
B done a better book review.
C written more words.
  D chosen a different topic for his project.
25. Steve's book review was
A too long.
B not as good as his

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project.
C excellent.
  D fairly good.
 Steve's tutor criticizes which aspect of his
26.
project?
A the beginning
B the argument about road pricing
C the end
  D the length
 The tutor recommends that Frances should
27.
do
A a PhD but not an MPhil.
B an MPhil or a PhD.
C another project.
  D her work more carefully.
 As regards getting funding, the tutor thinks
28.
Frances's
A chances are slim.
B chances are greater than many other students'.
  C exam results will be decisive.
  D chances are better now than in the past.
 The last time a student in the department achieved a first in their exams
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was
A three years ago.
B thirty years ago.
  C last year.
  D in the first three years the college was open.
 Steve does not plan to go on to do research because he wants
30.
to
A stop studying.
  B do lots of really exciting things.
C earn some money to do the things he would like to do.
  D return to his job.
SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D in
the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. " There’s no point in telephoning him. He’s certain__________ by now .".
A.to leave B. to have left C. left D. having left
2. It is essential to be on the _________for any signs of movement in the undergrowth since there are
poisonous snakes in the sea .
A. guard B.care C. alarm D. alert

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3. _________, he remained optimistic..
A. Though badly wounded he was B. Badly wounded as he was
C. As he was badly wounded D. As badly wounded he was
4. Choose the most suitable response to the following exchange
Laura : "Help yourselves to the beef and chicken, children!"
Steve: “_________________________”
A. Yes.why not? B. just feel at home
C. Really? D. Oh, thank you!
5. I need to ______________ how to fit the piano and the bookshelf in this room.
A. make for B. figure out C. take up D. get on
6. She’s more interested in job______________than in making a lot of money.
A. contentment B. satisfaction C. enjoyment D. pleasure
7. Many married woman in the survey said they lacked time to ______________ an interest.
A. chase B. conduct C. pursue D. proceed
8. He has a very ______________ career ahead of him.
A. prospective B. promising C.provided D. proficient
9. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following question
“This computer is $5000. Doesn’t sound right. I think they’re trying to rip people off.”
A. to try to sell something at too high price
B. to try to tear up people’s wallets
C. to sell something by illegal price fixing
D. to think someone is a fool
10. Jo was shocked when I disgreed with her. She‘s so used to getting her own_______.
A. mind B. way C. opinion D. views
Part 2. Read the passage below, which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes
1 Motorists who find themselves driving along the alone roads through Sweden’s
2 extensive pine forests were more relaxed these days. Small plastic bottles which have
3 been hung from roadside trees have calmed its deepest fear – colliding with an elk!
4 Each bottle contain a pungent blend of animal fat and wolf’s urine. The idea is simple –
5 because wolves are hunt elks the smell makes the elks to avoid the roads like the
6 plague. ‘It really works, we’re very excited with it,’ said spokesman Lars Olofson,
7 added that 25,000 accidents are caused by elks every year, according to
8 research he’s just completed. The cost of protecting the roads will be cut for the new
9 potion, that costs only 2 krona per metre compared with 40 krona per metre for the
10 traditional metal fences using before. The wolf cocktail was invented two years ago by
Mr Olofson’s father, who used it to stop elks eating his onions.

SECTION C – READING
Part 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers A, B, C or D in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be
consulted to answer the questions and provide both general and (1)_______pieces of information. One
of the most (2) _______-used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words.
It lists meanings and spellings, (3) _______ how a word is pronounced, gives (4) _______of how it is
used, may reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and (5) _______. To help you find the
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words(6)_______, there are guide words at the (7)_______ of each page showing the first and last words
on that page and of course it (8) _______ to know the alphabet! There may be numerous special sections
at the back with (9) _______ about famous people and places, lists of dates and scientific names, etc.
There is usually a section at the front (10) _______ how to use the dictionary, which includes the special
abbreviations or signs. An atlas is also a reference book and (11) _______ charts, tables and
geographical facts, as well as maps. Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps
(12)_______the formation of the land with its mountains and valleys, and economic maps show
industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the (13) _______ at the back of
the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (14) _______ that you need to
know in order to be able to read a map-almost like a special language-and these are explained
(15)_______the front of the atlas.
1. A. specific B. special C. comon D. main
2. A. greatly B. mainly C. widely D. largely
3. A. speaks B. tells C. says D. gives
4. A. evidence B. roof C. examples D. cases
5. A. antonyms B. closest C. opposite D. controversies
6. A.quick B.quicker C.fast D. faster
7. A. back B.top C. bottom D. front
8. A. assists B. pays C. helps D. works
9. A. events B. stories C. facts D. materials
10. A. explaining B. interpreting C. suggesting D. presenting
11. A. composes B. includes C. consists D. contains
12. A. point B. draw C. show D. describe
13. A. foreword B. preface C. complement D. index
14. A. marks B. signs C. signals D. symbols
15. A. at B. in C.of D. on
Part 2: Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. Write the answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes.
Man probably could not live without the help of animals. The (16) _____ of animals in the balance of
nature ranks as their most important service to man.
Animals also (17) _____ man by supplying him with many foods and other useful products.
(18)_____ animals, man would have no meat, milk, eggs, or honey, or wool, fur, or silk.
For thousands of years, man has caused changes in the animal kingdom. He has tamed many
kinds of animals and used them for food and clothing. He has killed and driven (19) _____ animals
that once attacked him or interfered with his use of land. Today, he tries to (20)_____ many kinds of
animals that are in danger of dying out. (21)____ man, most plants depend on animals for many of
their basic needs. Without animals, many plants could not (22)______reproduce. For example, many
plants with flowers depend on bees and other insects to (23)_____ their pollen from plant to plant.
Many oak trees grow from acorns that squirrels burry and then forget, or from acorns that deer step on
an push deep into the soil. Birds often fly from one place to (24) _____ with seeds clinging to their
feet. The seeds may sprout a great (25)_____ from the parent plant.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. Write
your answers A, B, C or D in the corresponding numbered boxes.
While many nineteenth-century reformers hoped to bring about reform through education or by eliminating
specific social evils, some thinkers wanted to start over and remake society by founding ideal, cooperative
communities. The United States seemed to them a spacious and unencumbered country where models of a
perfect society could succeed . These communitarian thinkers hoped their success would lead to imitation,
until communities free of crime, poverty, and other social ills would cover the land . A number of religious
groups, notably the Shakers, practiced communal living, but the main impetus to found model communities
came from nonreligious, rationalistic thinkers.

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Among the communitarian philosophers, three of the most influential were Robert Owen, Charles Fourier
and John Humphrey Noyes Owen, famous for his humanitarian policies as owner of several thriving textile
mills in Scotland, believed that faulty environment was to blame for human problems and that these
problems could be eliminated in a rationally planned society. In 1825 he put his principles into practice at
New Harmony, Indiana . The community failed economically after a few years but not before achieving a
number of social successes. Fourier, a commercial employee in France, never visited the United States.
However, his theories of cooperative living influenced many Americans through the writings of Albert
Brisbane, whose Social Destiny of Man explained Fourier-ism and its self-sufficient associations or
“phalanxes”. One or more of these phalanxes was organized in every Northern state. The most famous were
Red Bank, New Jersey, and Brook Farm, Massachusetts. An early member of the latter was the author
Nathaniel Hawthorne. Noyes founded the most enduring and probably the oddest of the utopian
communities, the Oneida Community of upstate New York. Needless to say, none of these experiments had
any lasting effects on the patterns of American society.
Question 26: The main topic of the passage is _______.
A. nineteenth-century schools
B. model communities in the nineteenth century
C. the philosophy of Fourierism
D. American reformers
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the general goals of
communitarian philosophers?
A. To establish ideal communities
B. To spread their ideas throughout the United States
C. To create opportunities through education
D. To remake society
Question 28: The Shakers are mentioned in line 6 as an example of_______.
A. rationalistic thinkers B. radical reformers
C. an influential group of writers D. a communal religious group
Question 29: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word impetus in line 6?
A. Drawback B. Commitment C. Stimulus D. Foundation
Question 30: The “phalanxes” described in the second paragraph were an idea originally conceived
by_______.
A. Robert Owen B. Charles Fourier
C. John Humphrey Noyes D. Albert Brisbane
Question 31: Why does the author mention Nathaniel Hawthorne in line 18?
A. He was a critic of Charles Fourier
B. He wrote a book that led to the establishment of model communities
C. He founded Brook Farm in Massachu-setts
D. He was at one time a member of the Brook Farm community
Question 32: Which of the following communities lasted longest?
A. Brook Farm B. Red Bank
C. The Oneida Community D. New Harmony
Question 33: The word oddest in line 18 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Largest B. Earliest C. Most unusual D. Most independent
Question 34: The author implies that, for readers, the conclusion of the passage is
A. practical B. absurd C. obvious D. surprising
Question 35: Why did the author probably divide the passage into two paragraphs?
A. To compare nineteenth-century reforms with twentieth-century reforms
B. To contrast the work of utopian thinkers with that of practical reformers
C. To give the causes for a phenomenon quenches in the second

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D. To present an overview of a concept in the first paragraph and specific examples in the second
Part 4: Read the following passage about four people who took part in producing a school
newspaper and answer the questions from 36 to 50. The options may be chosen more than once.
Write your answers A, B, C or D in the corresponding numbered boxes.
A. Veronique Tadjo
Tae Kwon Do is a martial art which has become popular as a sporting activity in recent years. I started
learning it in the Ivory Coast in Africa when I was about 13, and later became the country’s first black
belt. My teacher, Kim Young Tae, had been sent by the Tae Kwon Do federation in Korea to open a
club. It was very successful. When he arrived he didn’t know a word of French so he used to
demonstrate rather than explain. At the time my brother and I started learning Tae Kwon Do, we were
fighting like mad. But we quickly understood we had to stop fighting because we realised that fighting
was about self-defence, not aggression. Tae Kwon Do teaches you to control your anger and control
your body. It is very good for your memory, co-ordination and self-discipline. And you are acquiring a
philosophy. Later on, Kim opened a restaurant and then moved back to Korea. We had a very friendly
relationship, but somehow I feel like I was a disappointment to him. He thought I had a future in the
sport. But when I was 17 I decided it was not what I wanted to do.
B. Helen Mirren
Everyone loved Miss Welding. She taught me between the ages of 13 and 17 and was instrumental in
my becoming an actress. She knew I was interested in acting, but it just wasn’t an option in my world.
My father was a driving examiner and I wasn’t exposed to acting as a career. It was Miss Welding who
told me about the National Youth Theatre, which was an organisation I was unaware of. She suggested I
look into it and think about going there. About ten years after I left school, when I was with the Royal
Shakespeare Company and playing fairly high-profile parts, I got a letter from Miss Welding saying she
was following my career with interest, but as far as I know, she never came to see me perform. She
certainly never came to see me backstage.
C. Nisha Ishtiak
My father was editor of Pakistan’s largest newspaper and he knew and liked its librarian, Atif Burkhi.
Atif was well-educated and when I was about 12 my father decided I should learn more about the
region’s history and he chose Atif as my tutor. It turned out to be an inspired move. He would come to
our house once a week to teach me, from the end of school until supper. He took me through a lot of
history, but after a few lessons I got bored. ‘I know you’re being paid by my parents to teach me this
stuff,’ I said, ‘but there are other things in the world.’ He burst out laughing as he so often did and
asked: ‘What do you want to talk about then?’ And so we would discuss global issues and world
literature.
D. Suzanne Terry
Brian Earle, my English teacher was a very intense man with thick glasses, and the fact that he taught a
lot of his classes standing on his head was also seen as extremely peculiar. He taught me for just one
year and it was probably one of the most creative years of my life. He didn’t believe in giving marks for
grammar or punctuation; he implied that the mechanics of writing were not important if you had
something to say. When I wrote a short story for him called ‘Army’, he simply wrote across the bottom:
'You’ve just got to keep on writing.’ Those few words of support had a fantastic effect on me in terms of
wanting to write and be involved in writing. Brian Earle had a love of teaching and his subject.
A. Veronique Tadjo B. Helen Mirren C. Nisha Ishtiak D. Suzanne Terry
Which person ____________________________
Your answers:
36. had a teacher who taught more than one member of the same family? 36
37. had a teacher who might have preferred their pupil to choose a different career? 37
38. had a teacher who was popular with all the pupils? 38
39. had a teacher who had to overcome a disadvantage when teaching? 39

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40. had a teacher who made contact after their pupil left school? 40
41. had a teacher who taught in an unusual physical position? 41
42. had a teacher who changed their pupils’ behaviour? 42
43. had a teacher who became their teacher as a result of a personal contact? 43
44. had a teacher who developed their pupils’ physical and mental skills? 44
45. had a teacher who pointed their pupil in the direction of a successful career? 45
46. had a teacher who demonstrated a sense of humour? 46
47. had a teacher who decided what to teach by responding to their pupil’s interests? 47
48. had a teacher who showed what was necessary instead of talking about it? 48
49. had a teacher who was also doing another job? 49
50. had a teacher who put an emphasis on what pupils expressed, not the way they
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expressed it?
Part 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 51 to 60.
Leisure time
A. A raft of forecasts has been made in recent decade, predicting the decline in the number of working
hours coupled with a consequent increase in leisure time. It was estimated that the Leisure revolution
would take place by the turn of the last cent my with hours devoted to work railing to 25-30 per week,
This reduction hits failed to materialise, but the revolution has, nonetheless, arrived.
B. Over the past 30 to 41 years, spending on leisure has witnessed strong increase, According to the
annual family expenditure survey published in 1935 by the Office for National Statistics, the average
household in the United Kingdom spent more on leisure than food, housing und transport for the very
first time, and the trend is also set to continue upwards well into the present century.
C. The survey, based an a sample of 6,500 households showed, that the days are long gone when the
average family struggled to buy basic foods. As recently as 19fiQ, family spending on food was
approximately one third compared to 17% now. Twelve years later, there was a noticeable shift towards
leisure with the percentage of household spending on Leisure increasing to 9%, and that on food
declining to 26%.
D.  Among the professional and managerial classes, working hours have increased and, overall in the
economy, record numbers of people are in employment. As people work more, the appetite for leisure
activities has grown to compensate for the greater stress in life. The past 5 years alone have seen the
leisure business expand by 25% with a change in emphasis to short domestic weekend breaks, and long-
haul short breaks to exotic destinations in place of long holidays. In the future, it is expected that people
will jump from one leisure activity to another in complexes catering for everyone’s needs with gyms,
cinemas, cafes, restaurants, bars and internet facilities all under one roof. The leisure complexes of
today will expand to house all the leisure facilities required for the leisure age.
E.  Other factors fueling demand for leisure activities are rising prosperity, increasing longevity and a
more active elderly population. Hence, at the forefront of leisure spending are not just the young or the
professional classes. The 1999 family expenditure survey showed that the 64 to 75 year-old group spend
a higher proportion of their income on leisure than any other age group. The strength of the “grey
pound” now means that elderly people are able to command more respect and, thus, attention in the
leisure market.
F.  And the future? It is anticipated that, in the years to come, leisure spending will account for between
a third to a half of all household spending. Whilst it is difficult to give exact figures, the leisure industry
will certainly experience a long period of sustained growth. Working hours are not expected to decrease,
partly because the 24-hour society will need to be serviced; and secondly, because more people will be
needed to keep the service / leisure industries running.
The reading passage above has five paragraphs A-F. For questions 51-56, choose the most suitable
heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-vii) in
the corresponding numbered boxes. The headings are more than the paragraphs, so you will not use
all of them.
Your answers
51. Paragraph A_________ 52. Paragraph B________ 53. Paragraph C_________
54. Paragraph D_________ 55. Paragraph E_________ 56. Paragraph F_________

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LIST OF HEADINGS
i. Leisure spending goes up strongly
ii. False forecasts
iii. Spending trends - leisure v food
iv. More affordable food
v. Looking forward
vi. The elderly leisure market
vii. Work, stress, and leisure all on the up
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in the reading passage? For questions 57-
60, write Y (YES), N (NO) or NG (NOT GIVEN) in the corresponding numbered boxes
YES if the statement reflect the opinion of the writer
NO if the statement contracdicts the opinion of the writer
NOT GIVEN if the statement is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.
57. At the turn of the last century, weekly work hours dropped to 25.
58. Spending on leisure has gone up over the past three decades.
59. Long holidays have taken the place of long-haul short breaks.
60. In future, people will pay less for the leisure facilities they use than they do today.
SECTION D – WRITING
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Use the word
given in capital letters and the word mustn’t be altered in any way.
1. I’m going to eat less chocolate this year. (CUT)
I’m going to____________________________ chocolate I eat this year.
2. Tom completely ignored his parents’ advice on his career choice. (NOTICE)
Tom ________________________________________ parents’ advice on his career choice.
3. The match will be held indoors if it rains. (EVENT)
In _____________________________________ ,the match will be held indoors.
4. This dispute is likely to lead to a strike. (RESULT)
This _______________________________________________________ a strike.
5. They were never awake at any moment that something was wrong. (TIME)
At__________________________________ that something was wrong.
Part 2: You have recently gone to live in a new city.
Write a letter to your English-speaking friend. In your letter:
·         Explain why you have gone to live in the new city
·         Describe the place where you are living
·         Invite your friend to come and see you
·         You do NOT need to write any addresses.,
Write a letter about 80-100 words. Begin your letter as follows: Dear Anna, and use your name and
address as Hannah.
Part 3: “Modern technology has increased our material wealth, but not our happiness.”
In about 350 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the issue. Use reasons and examples to
support your position.
______ THE END ______

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