CHAPTER 3 MCQs Pending

CHAPTER 1

1. A study of human behavior in organizational settings is

A. Individual behavior
B. Group behavior
C. Organizational behavior
D. None of these

2. The three levels of organizational behavior are?

A. Organizational level, Individual level , group level
B. Society, organization, nation
C. Employee, employer, management
D. Individual, Organization, study

3. OB is the study of ______________in the organization

A. Human
B. Human behavior
C. Employer
D. Employees

4. The majority of work takes place in ________

A. Un-structured organization
B. Structured organization
C. Semi-structured organization
D. None

5. Features of organization are

A. People, structure, sociology, economics
B. Psychology, social psychology, industrial psychology, semantics
C. Cultural anthropology, political science, economics, physiology
D. People, structure, technology, environment

6. People as elements of organization includes

A. Framework of organization
B. Technological advancement
C. Employees of organization
D. Internal and external environment

7. Approaches of OB includes which of the following?

A. Classical approach
B. Neo-classical approach
C. Modern approach
D. All of the above
8. Classical approach includes?
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic management
C. Administrative management
D. All

9. Neo-classical approach includes which of the following?

A. Scientific management
B. Human resource approach
C. System approach
D. Administrative approach

10. Which of these approaches argues that there is no single best way to manage behavior?
A. Hawthorne
B. Scientific management
C. System approach
D. contingency

11. Which of the following is not an influence on behavior in work organization?

A. The individual
B. The building
C. The group
D. The environment

12. Which of these leads to the human revolution movement in the evolution of OB?
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic management
C. Administrative management
D. Hawthorne experiments

13. Scientific Management approach is developed by

A. Elton Mayo
B. Henry Fayol
C. F.W. Taylor
D. A. Maslow

14. Who proposed “ bureaucratic structure” is suitable for all organization

A. Elton Mayo
B. Henry Fayol
C. F.W. Taylor
D. Max webber
15. “Hawthrone experiment” which was a real beginning of applied research in OB was conducted by
A. Elton Mayo
B. Henry Fayol
C. F.W. Taylor
D. A. Maslow

16. Process or administrative theory of organization is being given by

A. Elton Mayo
B. Henry Fayol
C. F.W. Taylor
D. A. Maslow

17. Whose concept states that interpersonal and human relations may lead to productivity
A. Elton Mayo
B. Henry Fayol
C. F.W. Taylor
D. A. Maslow

18. Which organization theory can be understood by IF and THEN relationship

A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic management
C. Systems approach
D. Contingency approach

19. ___________ principle emphasizes on the hierarchical structure of an organization and represents the
line of authority at all levels of management .
ANS. Scalar chain

20. Which of these approaches to organizational behavior views the organization as a system of consciously
coordinated activities of various individuals in an organization?
A. System approach
B. Contingency approach
C. Classical approach
D. Neo-classical approach

21. Internal environment of organization NOT include which of the following

A. Employee
B. Customers
C. Management
D. Corporate culture

22. External environment of the organization NOT include which of the following
A. Employee
B. Suppliers
C. Demographic factors
D. Political and legal systems

23. Organizations are becoming more homogeneous in their human resources due to
globalization.______(true/false)
ANS. False

24. Constant change leading to the problem of coping with temporariness require organizations to
continuously update the knowledge and skills of employees.______(TRUE /FALSE)
ANS. True

25. Reorganization, readjustments and employee training to enhance compatibility among employees helps
managers to overcome which of these issues?
A. Employee selection and retention
B. Employees trust on the organization
C. Diversity at workplace
D. Quality and flexibility at work

26. Which of the following factors decreases the trust of the employees on organization?
A. Downsizing
B. Restructuring
C. Reengineering techniques
D. All of the above
 CHAPTER 2

1. Which are the various components of individual behaviour?

a. biological attribute
b. ability
c. personality
d. all of the above

2. Individual behaviour is the response of an individual towards an.

a. Action
b. Environment
c. Person/stimulus
d. All of the above

3. What is the factor affecting individual behaviour?

a. Personal factors
b. Environmental factors
c. Political factors
d. A and c

4. What are the different types of biographical attributes.

a. Marital status
b. Action
c. Work
d. Behaviour

5. Which of the following ability of an individual to exert force against external object?
a. Explosive strength
b. Trunk strength
c. Static strength
d. None of the above

6. Extend flexibility it is the ability of an individual to

a. Exert and expand force
b. To bend trunk and back muscles
c. Perform flexible movement
d. To exert force against external object

7. What is dynamic flexibility.

a. Perform flexible movement
b. Exert muscular force
c. Maintain equilibrium
d. Coordinate the simultaneous movement
8. What is ability?
a. Number aptitude
b. Capacity of a person to perform job
c. Perceptual speed
d. Physical ability

9. What is body coordination?

a. Stamina
b. Balance
c. Flexibility
d. Ability to coordinate the simultaneous movement

10. Which of the following ability does an architect require most?

a. Static strength
b. Number aptitude
c. Spatial visualisation
d. Balance

11. The value of an individual are built on the basis of.

a. Family background
b. Culture/ ethical standards
c. Past experiences
d. All of the above

12. How many different types of values are as per RVS?

a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6

13. Which of the following are the terminal values

a. True friendship
b. Ambition
c. Wisdom
d. a and c

14. A person requires instrumental values such as.

a. Ambition
b. Intellect
c. Capability
d. All of the above

15. Instrumental values are?

a. Self control
b. Happiness
c. Salvation
d. Self respect
16. Which of the following is the basis for the value of an individual?
a. Genetics
b. Biological factors
c. Past experience
d. Perceptual standards

17. Who face the World War II?

a. X generation
b. Y generation
c. Z generation
d. The builders

18. What are the 3 component of attitude?

a. Cognitive component
b. Affective component
c. Behavioural component
d. All of the above
19. Which of the following element account for the affective component in an individual’s attitude?
a. Past experience
b. Emotional thoughts
c. Memories
d. None of the above

20. Which of the following can job satisfaction lead to at the workplace?
a. Improved brainstorming
b. Better decision making
c. Improved problem solving
d. All of the above
 CHAPTER 4

1. Which of these sub processes involves attaching a certain meaning of the registered stimulus?
a. Stimulus
b. Registration
c. Interpretation
d. Reaction

2. _____________________ refers to the tendency of an individual to select certain objects in the

environment and ignore the others.
Answer: Perceptual selectivity

3. Unique, motions, sound, size and other characteristics of a target do not affect the way in which it is
perceived by individual (True / False)
Answer: False

4. When employees secretly attempt to justify themselves to their seniors, which impression construction
strategy do they use?
Answer: Demotion preventative strategy

5. _____________________ includes groups that individuals associate them with.

Answer: Social Identity

6. Halo effect is the process of judging objects, people, etc, based on the popular impressions about them
with little heed to reality (True / False)
Answer: False

7. _____________________ creates biases in the mind of individuals and interference in a normal

perceptual process.
Answer: Perceptual distortions

8. What is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give
meaning to their environment?
a. Interpretation
b. environmental analysis
c. Outlook
d. Perception

9. What do we call it when we judge someone on the basis of our perception?

a. Stereotyping
b. Categorizing
c. Halo effect
d. Prototyping

10. The cognitive process through which an individual selects, organizes but misinterprets environmental
stimuli is known as_________
a. Perception
b. Projection
c. Selective Perception
d. Mis-Perception

11. What is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give
meaning to their environment?
a. Interpretation
b. environmental analysis
c. Outlook
d. Perception

12. Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors that
operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside?
a. the perceivers
b. the target
c. the timing
d. the context

13. What is the most relevant application of perception concepts to OB?

a. the perceptions people form about each other
b. the perceptions people form about their employer
c. the perceptions people form about their culture
d. the perceptions people form about society

14. _____________________is once view of reality

a. Attitude
b. Perception
c. Outlook
d. Personality

15. ______________________ is the process of screening out information that we are uncomfortable with or
that contradict to our beliefs
a. Perceptual context
b. Selective perception
c. Halo effect
d. Stereotyping

16. A Process of receiving, selecting, organizing, interpreting, checking and reacting to sensory stimuli or
data so as to form a meaningful and coherent picture of the world is
a. Attitude
b. thinking
c. Perception
d. Communication

17. The__________________ theory states that human mind will receive or accept only those information
which it feels that it is relevant.
a. Perception theory
b. Selective Perception
c. relevance Theory
d. none of the above

18. Which of the following is not a step in perceptual Process?

a. Object
b. selection
c. Perception
d. Response

19. Putting people in to a convenient group on basis of some characteristics and make an assumption to
perceive is called as
a. Stereotyping
b. Perception
c. Perceiving
d. Group perception

20. _______________ is our perception of one personality trait influences how we view a person’s entire
personality.
a. Perception
b. Halo effect
c. Stereotyping
d. Individual Personality

21. Psychological process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to
give meaning to their environment is definition of
a. Attitude
b. thinking
c. Perception
d. Personality

22. ______________is the process of screening out information that we are uncomfortable with or that
contradict to our beliefs
a. Perceptual context
b. Selective perception
c. Halo effect
d. Stereotyping

23. ______________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in
order to give meaning to their environment.
a. Interpretation
b. Environmental analysis
c. Perception
d. Personality

24. Which one of the following is NOT a factor that influences perception?
a. Target
b. Medium
c. Perceiver
d. Situation

25. Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see, we engage in _____.

a. Selective perception
b. memorization
c. mental desensitization
d. periodic listening

26. The reality of a situation is what is behaviourally important.

a. True
b. False

27. Expectations can distort your perceptions in that you will see what you expect to see.
a. True
b. False

28. Projection is the idea that people selectively interpret what they see based on their interests, background,
experience, and attitudes.
a. True
b. False

29. If you expect to see that older workers can't learn a new job skill, you will probably perceive that,
whether it is accurate or not.
a. True
b. False

30. Interviewers can make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate during an employment interview.
a. True
b. False

31. What is the relationship between what one perceives and objective reality?
a. they are the same
b. they can be substantially different
c. They should be the same
d. They cannot be the same

32. The time at which an object or event is seen as an example of what type of factor influencing the
perceptual process.
a. perceiver
b. social
c. reality
d. situation

33. What is the name of the theory that deals with how we explain behavior differently depending on the
meaning we assign to actor?
a. Behavioural Theory
b. Judgement Theory
c. Selective perception Theory
d. Attribution Theory

34. When F. Scott Fitzgerald said, “The very rich are different from you and me” and Hemingway replied “
Yes, they have more money” Hemingway refused to engage in what shortcut to judge others?
a. projection
b. halo effect
c. stereotyping
d. prototyping

35. Which is not one of the steps in the rational decision making model?
a. defining the problem
b. identifying the decision criteria
c. computing the decision alternatives
d. selecting the best alternative

36. What are the three classes of factors that influence perception?
a. factors in the setting, factors in the environment and factors in the motives
b. factors in perceiver, factors in the target, and factors in the situation
c. factors in character, factors in knowledge and factors in experience
d. factors in personality, factors in character and factors in values

37. When individuals observe another person’s behavior, the attempt to determine whether its internally or
externally caused. This phenomenon is most directly relevant to the following:
a. projection theory
b. attribution theory
c. selective perception theory
d. expectancy theory

38. The more consistent a behavior, the more the observer is inclined to _______________
a. attribute it to interpretation
b. attribute it to internal causes
c. attribute it to consensus
d. attribute it to external causes

39. If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows
____________
a. distinctiveness
b. consistency
c. continuity
d. stability

40. Shortcuts in judging other include all of the following, except _______________
a. stereotyping
b. halo effect
c. projection
d. self-serving bias

41. What do we call when we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he / she
belongs?
a. grouping
b. stereotyping
c. categorizing
d. assimilating

42. Perception refers to the way we organize and interpret the world around us. (True / False)
Answer: True

43. Individuals involved in the same situation will usually perceive the situation similarly (True / False)
Answer: False

44. An individual’s expectation have little effect on the perception. (True / False)
Answer: False

45. The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception to that target. (True / False)
Answer: True

46. Attribution theory looks at the internal and external causes of behavior. (True / False)
Answer: True

47. In attribution theory, distinctiveness refers to whether an individual displays different behavior in
different situations. (True / False)
Answer: True

48. Selective perception allows us to “speed read” others. (True / False)

Answer: True

49. When managers see their employees as more homogeneous than they really are, the managers probably
engaging in projection. (True / False)
Answer: True

50. Interviewers make perceptual judgements that are generally accurate during an employment interview.
(True / False)
Answer: False

51. Another name for self-serving bias is the Pygmalion effect. (True / False)
Answer: False

CHAPTER 5
1. If a permanent change occurs in the behaviour of an individual after experience, it is called_________.
A. Learning
B. Development
C. Transformation
D. None of the above

2. Learning is any relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of_________?
A. Outcomes
B. Nature
C. Self-Realization
D. Experience

3. Learning is relatively permanent change which includes _________changes in the behaviour of an

individual as a result of direct or indirect experience
A. Cognitive
B. Emotional
C. Psychological and environmental
D. All of the Above

4. The change in individual behaviour should be a result of an experience OR practice and not due to
________
A. Environmental changes
B. Biological maturation
C. Psychological factors
D. None of the Above

5. Effective learning occurs only when whatever is learned is retained in the memory of the learner and is
carried to the workplace. (TRUE / FALSE).

6. An Organization facilitates learning to develop a knowledgeable workforce. (TRUE / FALSE).

7. The aim of organizational learning is to instill a desire among all the members of the organization to
determine new methods of improving their effectiveness. (TRUE / FALSE).

8. Which of the below is not a theory of learning?

A. Social Learning Theory
B. Cognitive Learning Theory
C. Organizational theory
D. Classical Conditioning Theory

9. Organizational learning helps employees to change their behaviour as a result bringing efficiency in their
work. (TRUE / FALSE).

10. The primary objective of an organizational learning is to instill a desire among all the members of the
organization to find new ways to improve effectiveness (TRUE / FALSE).

11. Which of the following theory defines a process through which individuals learn voluntary behaviour
A. Social Learning Theory
B. Cognitive Learning Theory
C. Operant or Instrumental Conditioning Theory
D. Classical Conditioning Theory

12. Which of the following theory by Ivan Pavlov studies the relationship between the stimulus and response
A. Cognitive Learning Theory
B. Social Learning Theory
C. Operant or Instrumental Conditioning Theory
D. Classical Conditioning Theory

13. In the classical conditioning theory, ________ is used as a stimulus to make the dog salivate without
showing the bone
A. Food
B. Bell
C. Meat
D. None of the above

14. Involuntary and uncontrolled reactions of an individual are called ________

A. Stimulus
B. Actions
C. Reflex
D. Response

15. According to ________ theory, learning occurs when the perception of knowledge changes
A. Cognitive Learning Theory
B. Social Learning Theory
C. Operant or Instrumental Conditioning Theory
D. Classical Conditioning Theory

16. Cognitive, behavioural and environmental influences are included in the _______ learning theory
A. Cognitive Learning Theory
B. Social Learning Theory
C. Operant or Instrumental Conditioning Theory
D. Classical Conditioning Theory

17. Which of the following is not a factor influencing social learning of an individual?

A. Attention
B. Reproduction
C. Read
D. Retention

18. _______ refers to strengthening a particular behaviour in an individual.

A. Punishment
B. Reinforcement
C. Extinction
D. Retention

19. Reinforcement helps in motivating and retaining employees. (TRUE / FALSE).

20. A _______system executes the complete reward process in an effective manner

A. Administering
B. Recognition
C. Reward
D. Benefit
21. Intermittent schedules can be classified as a ratio schedule and a _______schedule.

A. Variable
B. Regular
C. Average
D. Interval

22. Punishment often impacts employee behaviour negatively (TRUE / FALSE).

23. _______ are the events that occur before the behaviour depicted by an individual.

A. Antecedents
B. Precedents
C. Contingencies
D. None of the Above

24. _______ increases the frequency of a particular behaviour in a person due to addition of a particular
stimulus.

A. Punishment
B. Extinction
C. Positive Reinforcement
D. Negative Reinforcement

25. _______ increases the frequency of a particular behaviour in a person due to removal of a particular
stimulus.

A. Punishment
B. Extinction
C. Positive Reinforcement
D. Negative Reinforcement

26. _______involves creating circumstances that do not allow any scope for occurrence of any undesirable
behaviour or result.

A. Positive Reinforcement
B. Punishment
C. Extinction
D. Negative Reinforcement

27. _______ is the complete absence of reinforcements either positive or negative for lowering the
probability of occurrence of undesirable behaviour of results.

A. Positive Reinforcement
B. Punishment
C. Extinction
D. Negative Reinforcement

28. _______ is the response of the individual to the antecedent.

A. Contingencies
B. Antecedents
C. Consequences
D. Behaviour

29. _______ is the result of the response/action taken by the individual in behaviour modification.

A. Contingencies
B. Antecedents
C. Consequences
D. Behaviour

30. _______ represents the first stage of information processing by human brain.

A. Sensory Memory
B. Pattern Recognition
C. Short term memory
D. Encoding

31. _______ is the ability of the individual to select and process a certain part of the information in the
sensory memory and ignore irrelevant information.

A. Long Term Memory

B. Pattern Recognition
C. Selection Attention
D. Encoding

32. _______ is the process in which an individual tries to connect with the information gathered by relating it
with the information he/she already stores in the memory

A. Long Term Memory

B. Sensory Memorty
C. Selection Attention
D. Pattern Recognition

33. _______ is the process of relating new information from the short-term memory with the information
already existing in the long term memory to make information more memorable

A. Encoding
B. Sensory Memory
C. Selection Attention
D. Pattern Recognition

34. _______ retains information for a relatively longer period of time

A. Sensory Memory
B. Pattern Recognition
C. Long term memory
D. Short Term Memory

35. _______ is the interest an individual pays to factors such as distinctiveness, simplicity , prevalence,
functional value and complexity

A. Attention
B. Retention
C. Reproduction
D. Motivation

36. _______ involves remembering the subject or object to which an individual pays attention.

A. Attention
B. Retention
C. Reproduction
D. Motivation

37. _______ involves reproducing or projecting the image through physical capabilities and self-observation.

A. Attention
B. Retention
C. Reproduction
D. Motivation

38. _______ depicts the positive influence of remembering a positive event leading to a desirable outcome.

A. Attention
B. Retention
C. Reproduction
D. Motivation

39. A _______ system provides a mixed element of monetary and non-monetary benefit to match the
requirements of individual employees.

A. Administering
B. Reward
C. Financial
D. Benefit
40. ______ reduces initiative taking and ability for flexibility in employees.

A. Positive Reinforcement
B. Motivation
C. Punishment
D. Negative Reinforcement

CHAPTER 6
Q1) _____ includes monetary as well as non - monetary benefits.
A) Encouragement
B) Persuasion
C) Motivation
D) Inducement

Q2) _____ is one of the leading examples of companies that derive a competitive advantage out of
employee advantage.
A) Infosys
B) Google
C) Reliance Industries
D) Tata

Q3) The term 'motivation' is derived from the Latin word _____ meaning ' to move '.
A) Magna
B) Antiqua
C) Motus
D) Movere

Q4) Motivation consists of three interacting and independent elements.

A) Needs, drives and incentives
B) Drives, wants and incentives
C) Remuneration, drives and needs
D) Appraisal , drives and wants

Q5) According to _____ " motivation can be defined as a willingness to expand energy to achieve a goal or a
reward ".
A) Dubin
B) Dale S. Beach
C) Vance
D) W.G. Scott

Q6) Motivation leads to an urge to move in a particular direction and reach _____.
A) Post-set Goals
B) Target
C) Pre-set Goals
D) Destination

Q7) Motivation reduces _____ in organisations.

A) Competition
B) Absenteeism
C) Achievements
D) Performance

Q8) The cause of doing something or exibiting certain type of behaviour is known as _____.
A) Thinking
B) Assumption
C) Perception
D) Motive

Q9) Which of the following is not a type of motive?

A) Seconday
B) Tertiary
C) Primary
D) General

Q10) Which of the following is not termed as a primary motive?

A) Stimulus
B) Biological
C) Unlearned
D) Physiological

Q11) Primary motives originate from the _____ system of a human being.
A) Organic
B) Nervous
C) Biological
D) Muscular

Q12) _____ is an example of primary motive.

A) Curiosity
B) Affection
C) Power
D) Thirst

Q13) _____ motives are unlearned, but they are not physiologically based.
A) Tertiary
B) Secondary
C) General
D) Primary

Q14) _____ is an example of general motive

A) Affiliation
B) Manipulation
C) Hunger
D) Security

Q15) Secondary motives are the _____ motives.

A) Learned
B) Partially learned
C) Biological
D) Unlearned

Q16) _____ is an example of secondary motives.

A) Sleep
B) Avoidance of pain
C) Curiosity
D) Status

Q17) The _____ approach successfully explains the food-seeking and mate-seeking behaviour of individuals.
A) Cognitive
B) Instant
C) Incentive
D) Drive-Reduction
Q18) Drive-Reduction Approach was proposed by _____.
A)Vance
B) Michael J. Jucius
C) Clark C. Hull
D) Hodge and Johnson

Q19) According to _____ approach, every living organism experiences certain drives or arousals that create a
feeling of anxiety and tension.
A) Drive-Reduction
B) Incentive
C) Instant
D) Cognitive

Q20) According to Incentive approach, motivation originates from the desire to achieve ______ or incentives.
A) Time-based Goals
B) External Goals
C) Internal Goals
D) Long Term Goals

Q21) Cognitive Approach is a relatively _____ approach.

A) Visual
B) Ancient
C) Contact
D) Modern

Q22) The main focus of Cognitive approach does not remain on the individuals _____.
A) Anxiety
B) Morals
C) Beliefs
D) Perception

Q23) The _____ theory of motivation was given by Edward C. Tolman.

A) Instant
B) Drive-Reduction Approach
C) Cognitive
D) Incentive

Q24) _____ theories deal with the "what" aspects of motivation.

A) Equity
B) Content
C) ERG
D) Process

Q25) The process theories deal with the _____ of motivation.

A) What
B) Where
C) When
D) How

Q26) Vroom, Porter and Lawler, Adams and Locke studied motivation from a _____ perspective.
A) Cognitive
B) Instant
C) Process
D) Content

Q27) The most famous need hierarcy theory of motivation has been given by psychologist _____.
A) Abraham Maslow
B) William James
C) Herzberg
D) Albert Bandura

Q28) Maslow considered psychological and safety needs as _____ needs.

A) Higher-order
B) Esteem
C) Social
D) Lower-order

Q29) Social esteem and _____ needs are considered as higher-order needs.
A) Self-discovery
B) Self-actualisation
C) Self-realization
D) Self-esteem

Q30) The physiological, safety and social needs are considered as _____ needs whereas esteem and self-
actualisation needs are considered as _____ needs.
A) Deficiency, Stagnation
B) Excessive, Growth
C) Deficiency, Growth
D) Primary, Secondary

Q31) Herzberg Two-Factor Theory was proposed by psychologist _____.

A) Frederick Herzberg
B) Leon festinger
C) Alderfer ERG Theory
D) Mcclelland Needs Theory

Q32) _____ factors represent people's perceptions about their jobs.

A) Culture
B) Intrinsic Factors/ Motivators
C) Extrinsic Factors/ Hygiene
D) Abstract

Q33) Extrinsic Factors are the factors in the absence of which _____ is created among employees.
A) Curiosity
B) Comfort
C) Anxiety
D) Dissatisfaction

Q34) According to ALDERFER ERG THEORY, ERG stands for _____.

A) Existence , Relationship and Growth
B) Excellence, Relatedness and Growth
C) Existence, Relatedness and Growth
D) Existence, Relationship and Greed

Q35) Unlike Maslow's model, the ERG Theory includes a _____ process.
A) Frustration-Weakening
B) Frustration-Regression
C) Irritation-Regression
D) Irritaion-Weakening

Q36) According to Mc-Clelland's needs theory, _____ is not a motivator.

A) Achievement
B) Power
C) Affiliation
D) Incentive

Q37) _____ theories explain the mechanism through which human needs change.
A) Process
B) Content
C) Goal Setting
D) Vroom Expectancy

Q38) The goal setting is propounded by _____.

A) Frederick Herzberg
B) Edwin Locke
C) Victor Vroom
D) Clayton Alderfer

Q39) According to the _____ theory, feedback and commitment lead to higher performance and bridge the
gap between the actual and expected performance of individuals.
A) Reinforcement
B) Content
C) Goal Setting
D) Equity

Q40) Vroom Theory does not focus on the following relationship.

A) Valence
B) Expectancy
C) Instrumentality
D) Task Complexity

Q41) Porter's performance satisfaction theory is an extension of _____.

A) Vroom's Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Mcclelland Needs Theory
D) Content Theory
Q42) Poster's Performance Satisfaction Theory postulates that motivation does not equate with ______ and
______.
A) Satisfaction and Targets
B) Inputs and Outputs
C) Satisfaction and Performance
D) Inputs and Performance

Q43) According to the _____ theory, a balance between the inputs and outputs creats a strong and
productive relationship between the employees and employers.
A) Equity
B) Porter and Lawler's Expectancy
C) Process
D) Argyris's Theory

Q44) Equity Theory was proposed by _____.

A) B.F.Skinner
B) John Stacey Adams
C) Maslow
D) Herzberg

Q45) Reinforcement Theory proposes that an individual's behaviour is a function of its _____.
A) Repercussions
B) Aftermaths
C) Commencement
D) Consequences

Q46) _____ involves rewarding an employeeby removing negetive or undesirable consequences.

A) Punishment
B) Extinction
C) Negative Reinforcement
D) Positive Reinforcement

Q47) _____ is the absence of any kind of Reinforcement.

A) Positive Reinforcement
B) Punishment
C) Eradication
D) Extinction

Q48) _____ is not one of the common motivational techniques in practise.

A) Job Enrichment
B) Job Rotation
C) Unclear Goals
D) Monetary and Non-monetary Benefits
Q49) _____ involves making a job more competitive by asking employees to share some responsibilites to
employees at different times to increase their interest in their jobs.
A) Job Enrichment
B) Alternative Working Schedule
C) Job Rotation
D) Goal Setting

Q50) _____ refers to assigning different roles and responsibilities to employees at different times to increase
their interest in their jobs.
A) Monetary Benefits
B) Job Rotation
C) Employees' Skills Up-gradation
D) Job Enrichment

CHAPTER 7
1. What are the personality traits of leadership?
Ans: Dominance, self-confidence, high energy

2. What are the leadership skills?

Ans: Assertive skills, communication skills, inter-personal skills & adaptive skills

3. What is the role of the leader in an organisation?

Ans: To plan, delegate, coordinate, and motivate employee to accomplish organisational goals.

4. Define Leadership
Ans: Leadership is the ability of an individual to persuade other individuals to behave in a
particular way, willingly.

5. Which leadership skills helps in maintaining a positive professional relationship with other individual?
Ans: Assertive skills

6. Why communication skills required?

Ans: Communication skills helps in exchange ideas that lead to problem solving & decision
making.

7. Before starting new project what manager have to present to his employee
Ans: The goals and organisational benefits of the project.

8. Leaders provide_________________ to generate a plan of action to achive organisational goals.

Ans: Structured approach

9. High-employee morale signifies_________________ of employees towards their work.

Ans: Wilful dedication

10. What manager have to do before launching a new project.

Ans: Hold Brainstorming session with team member.

11. Which relationship crates a sense of ownership among employees?

Ans: Employee-organisation relationship.

12. Which skills individual required to be an efficient manager?

Ans: Leadership skills

13. Which are the main theories of leadership?

Ans: Trait theories, Behavioural theories, Contingency theories

14. What trait theories explain

Ans: Trait theories explain distinctive characteristics accounting for leadership effectiveness.

15. Trait theories based on….

Ans: Basic assumption that people are born with special traits that make them leader.

16. When trait theory popular?

Ans: In 1940s and 1950s

17. When Behavioural theory popular?

Ans: In 1950s.
18. Behavioural theories of leadership developed by
Ans: Kurt Lewin and Dr. Rensis Likert

19. Behavioural theories focuses on...

Ans: The action of leaders and not their cognitive abilities or personal attributes.

20. What are the two categories of behavioural theories?

Ans: 1) Production oriented 2)employee oriented

21. Who proposed the contingency theories?

Ans: Fred Fielder in 1960s

22. Which is the major pitfalls faced by a leader?

Ans: Criticism.

23. Pitfalls in leadership can be categorised into____________, ___________and__________.

Ans: Personal, organisational and environmental.

24. What is the assertive skills?

Ans: Ability to assert how individual behave

25. What is the objective of communication skills?

Ans: To help in exchange ideas

26. Motivation skills help in _____________

Ans: Highlighting the incentives of task.

27. Adaptive skills means____________

Ans: Adjust according to employee behaviour.

28. Employee-oriented leadership behaviour focuses on __________

Ans: Supporting employee to getting their task done.

29. ____________ scale is used by managers to rate the least preferred co-worker in the organisation.
Ans: Least preferred co-worker.

30. ____________ leaders usually see their LPCs more negatively, resulting in lower scores.
Ans: Task-oriented leaders.

31. Emotional intelligence is also called as ___________.

Ans: Emotional Quotient.

32. ____________ is the ability of individuals to recognise one’s emotions.

Ans: Self-awareness.

33. ____________ is the ability of individuals to control impulsive feelings and behaviours.
Ans: Self-management.

34. ____________ is the ability to understand emotions.

Ans: Social awareness.

35. _____________is the ability to develop and maintain relationships.

 Ans: Relationship management.

36. ____________ possesses higher degree of emotional intelligence and the ability to connect with their
followers.
Ans: Resonant leaders.

37. Who introduced the concept of emotional intelligence?

Ans: Peter Salovey and John Mayer in 1990.

38. Who are the most valued and productive leaders in organisation?
Ans: Leaders who have strong traits of emotional intelligence.

39. Which are the qualities required in leaders concluded by Goleman?

Ans: Intelligence, determination and vision

40. Emotional intelligence in leadership gives birth to____________.

Ans: Resonant leadership.

41. Define leadership definition by Hersey and Blanchard.

Ans: Leadership style is defined as the pattern of behaviours that leaders display during their
work with and through others.

42. Which leadership style is referred to as authoritarian leadership?

Ans: Autocratic leadership.

43. Autocratic leaders make decisions with ___________or___________.

Ans: Little or no involvement of employees.

44. Qualities of leaders who follow autocratic style.

Ans: Leaders who follow autocratic style are extremely confident of their decision making
ability. Organisational ability and capacity to formulate strategies and plans.

45. Autocratic leaders are generally ________________ as compared to other leaders.

Ans: Less creative.

46. Disadvantages of bureaucratic leadership.

Ans: They generally ignore motivation and development of employees.

47. Characteristics of bureaucratic leadership.

Ans: Leaders often do not empathise with people and lack creativity and innovation at work.

48. Democratic leadership is also referred to as____________ style of leadership.

Ans: Participative style.

49. Limitations of democratic leadership.

Ans: Increase chances of poor decision-making and implementation, slow processing of
strategies, and greater efforts to bring out workable results.

50. Charismatic leadership offers opportunities for ____________ and __________.

Ans: Creativity and innovation.

51. What charismatic leadership theory states?

 Ans: Charismatic style of leadership have a vision and personality that motivate people to
execute the vision.

52. What situational leadership theory states?

Ans: Situational leadership theory states that there is no ideal style of leadership to suit every
situation.

53. What are the disadvantages of transactional leadership?

Ans: In this style employee may not feel content of this style because they are not encouraged.
they feel less motivated to work towards a goal if the reward do not appeal to them.

54. What transactional leadership style referred?

Ans: This style tend to adopt a system of rewards and punishment for employees.

55. Explain transformational leadership.

Ans: Transformational leaders develop people. Employees are offered fair opportunities to
change, transform and develop themselves as contributors.

56. Explain Laissez faire leadership.

Ans: This style suitable for organisation where employees are highly skilled and motivated to
work on their own.

57. Skills of resonant leadership.

Ans: Resonant leadership apply emotional and social intelligence skills to create positive
relationship and engage others to achieve a common goal.

58. Ability of resonant leadership.

Ans: Resonant leaders have ability to connect with their followers and their challenges.

59. Experienced and seasoned leaders, who are aware of organisational and employee needs, tend to adopt
which leadership style?
Ans: Situational leadership style.

60. Leaders following the __________________ leadership style extend the least possible guidance to
employees and attempt to control them through less obvious means.
Ans: Laissez faire leadership.

CHAPTER 8
1) A group refers to a collection of ___ individuals who come together to accomplish their common
objectives.
a. Three or more
b. Two or more
c. Only two
d. All of the above

Ans. B

2) Helps in the decision-making process in an organization?

a. Teams
b. Groups
c. Individuals
d. Both a and b

Ans. D

3) A team refers to a set of ___ individuals who come together to realize their pre-determined goals.
a. One
b. Two
c. Two or more
d. All of the above

Ans. C

4) Group Dynamics is a process in which people interact ___ in small groups.

a. Face-to-face
b. Virtual
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. A

5) Which of the following is not an advantage of a group for N organization?

a. Group provides a sense of becomingness to the employees
b. Group helps in increasing the productivity of employees
c. Group helps in getting a competitive advantage over competitors
d. Group helps in developing feeling of security among the employees

Ans. C

6) Which of the following is not a type of Formal groups?

a. Primary Group
b. Secondary Group
c. Task Group
d. Committee

Ans. A
7) Which of the communication model is followed by Informal group?
a. Chain model
b. Wheel model
c. Cluster model
d. Free flow model

Ans. C

8) In which model, the group members are not allowed to communicate among themselves?
a. Chain model
b. Wheel model
c. Circular model
d. Inverted V model

Ans. B

9) A degree to which group members feel connected to one another and be a part of the group as a whole
is called ___.
a. Free rider tendency
b. Perception
c. Ambiguity
d. Group Cohesiveness

Ans. D

10) What is the name of first stage of a group formation?

a. Adjourning
b. Forming
c. Performing
d. Norming

Ans. B

11) Which theory is based on the social exchange theory?

a. Exchange
b. Balance
c. Propinquity
d. Homan’s

Ans. A

12) The word propinquity is derived from the Latin word propinquitas, which means ___.
a. Interaction
b. Spatial
c. Nearness
d. Balance

Ans. C

13) Homan’s theory is based on the principles of ___?

a. Rewards
b. Relationship
c. Imbalance
d. Sentiments

Ans. D

14) Which of the following are not the concept of teams?

a. Quality assessment team
b. Functional team
c. Testing team
d. Production team

Ans. B

15) ___ team not exist physically, yet works with the help of teleconferencing and videoconferencing.
a. Virtual team
b. Face-to-face team
c. Problem solving team
d. Self managed team

Ans. A

16) ___ focuses on mutual accountability.

a. Groups
b. Managers
c. Teams
d. Individuals

Ans. C

17) Which of these are the problems faced in teamwork?

a. Communication
b. Change
c. Ideas
d. Both a and b

Ans. D
18) The model which facilitates faster communication is called ___?
a. Inverted V model
b. Circular model
c. Free flow model
d. Wheel model

Ans. C

19) The ___ is an example of creating effective and teams.

a. Mutual trust
b. Appropriate Leader
c. Unified commitment
d. All of the above

Ans. D

20) Which of the following is not a problem in teamwork?

a. Communication gap
b. Unrealistic goals and expectations
c. Team members sitting in different locations
d. Goal conflict

Ans. C

21) The model that facilitates the communication of a group member, not only with his/her own superior,
but also with his/her superiors superior.
a. Inverted V Model
b. Chain Model
c. Free Flow Model
d. Circular Model

Ans. A

22) Groups mainly focus on ___ changes instead of personality changes.

a. Physical
b. Behavioural
c. Mental
d. All of the above

Ans. B

23) The Chain model is followed in ___ and ___ organization.

a. Modern and Managerial
b. Regulatory and Official
c. Executive and Top level
d. Traditional and Bureaucratic

Ans. D

24) Which model does generally the communication among the group takes a lot of time?
a. Free Flow model
b. Wheel model
c. Circular model
d. Chain Model

Ans. C

25) A group wherein intimate interaction, Information communication, and cooperation among members
takes place.
a. Secondary Group
b. Primary Group
c. Friendship Group
d. Reference Group

Ans. B

26) A group of individuals who share some common characteristics, such as age or religion.
a. Friendship Group
b. Task Group
c. Interest Group
d. Command Group

Ans. A

27) Confusion between the perceived role and actual role of any member of the group is due to___.
a. Conflict
b. Expectations
c. Ambiguity
d. Trust

Ans. C

28) Identity of an individual may change according to the ___.

a. Character
b. Role
c. Status
d. Behavior

Ans. B

29) The stage where power struggle can also occur wherein the members decide the informal leader of the
group is also called as ___ stage.
a. Performing
b. Forming
c. Norming
d. Confrontation

Ans. D

30) The Balance theory has proposed by ___.

a. Theodore M. Newcomb
b. John W. Thaibaut
c. Harold H. Kelly
d. Stephen P. Robins

Ans. A

31) Individuals or Groups might be resistant to adapt to any new ___ in an organization.
a. Change
b. Behavior
c. Norms
d. Variables

Ans. A

32) A process wherein an individual tends to compromise on his/her idea and agrees to the idea of the
group.
a. Groups
b. Group Dynamics
c. Groupthink
d. Group Cohesiveness

Ans. C

33) The Exchange Theory was proposed by ___ and ___.

a. Homan
b. John W. Thaibaut
c. Harold H. Kelley
d. Both b and c

Ans. D
34) Manager and his/her Subordinate who belongs to the same area such as the finance department or the
marketing department.
a. Self-Managed Team
b. Functional Team
c. Cross Functional Team
d. Problem-Solving Team

Ans. B

35) ___ Groups are the groups that people form to satisfy their social needs.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Informal
d. Formal

Ans. C
 CHAPTER 9

1. External manifestation of threat

A. increased heart rat
B. Increased respiration
C. Increased blood pressure
D. All of the above
Ans D

2. Techniques of stress management

A. Deep meditation
B. Isolate self
C. Self training
D. None of the above
Ans. A

3. Social Stress is due to

A. Environment
B. Economics
C. Family
D. Universal
Ans. A

4. Blue collar workers who are stressed are

A. Healthy
B. Productive
C. Poorly motivated
D. Safe at work
Ans. C

5. Stress is
A. Anatomical stimulus
B. Social stimulus
C. Psychological stimulus
D. None of the above
Ans. C

6. Stress as a dependable variable has which concepts

A. Results in diseases
B. Attack mechanism
C. Defensive mechanism
D. Back up mechanism
Ans A and C

7 stress is based on
A. Response based
B. External stimulus
C. Variable factors
D. All of the above.
Ans. A
8. Response based stress is not due to external stimulators
True or false
Ans. True

9. Stimulus based stress is caused by internal factors

Ans. False

10. Following are the models of stress

A. Response based
B. Stimulus based
C. Transaction based
D. All of the above
Ans. D

11. Workplace stress is defined by

A. Mallows
B. Hawthorne
C. Mint berg
D WHO
Ans. D

12. Anxiety pertains to

A. Psychological
B. Anatomical
C. Physiological
D. Nervous tension
Ans. A

13. Responses to stress are

A. Physiological
B. Emotional
C. Cognitive
D. All of the above
Ans. D
14. Sympathetic nervous system is active in stress true/ false
Ans. True

15. Glucose provides energy during stress to

A. Muscle
B. Liver
C. Legs
D. Kidneys
Ans. A

16. Cortisol is secreted by

A. Pituitary gland
B. Adrenal cortex.
C. Hypothalamus
D. None of the above.
Ans. Adrenal

17. Emotional response does not involve

A. Anger
B. Hostility
C. Confusion
D. Depression.
Ans. C

18. Prolonged workplace stress cannot lead to depression true/ false

Ans. False.

19. Process involved In job demand resource model

A. Health impairment
B. Motivational process
C. Job stress
D. all of the above
Ans. A and B

20. Demand control model does not involve workplace demands T\ F

Ans. False

21. Work place stress types includes

A. Passive
B. Low strain
C. Active
D. High strain.
E. All of the above
Ans. E

22. Effort reward model will not include recognition T/ F

Ans. False

23. An employee having increasing sales faces job related stress fitting in which model
A. JD resources model
B. Demand control model
C. Efforts rewards imbalance model
D. None of the above
Ans. A

24 An hard working employee faces job dissatisfaction after some time due to
A. JD resources model
B. Demand control model
C. Efforts rewards imbalance model
D. None of the above
Ans. C

25. An employee has no discretion in selling products but his sales figures are monitored causing stress due to
A. JD resources model
B. Demand control model
C. Efforts rewards imbalance model
D. None of the above
Ans. B

26. Which of the following is not a stressor

A. Role ambiguity
B. Organizational culture
C. Management style
D. Personality type of a person
Ans. D

27. Stressors at work place includes

A. Resource inadequacy
B. Job insecurity.
C. Personality type.
D. External factors.
Ans. A and B

28. Sources of stressors are not

A. Environmental
B. Organizational
C. Personal
D. Internal.
Ans. D

29. Environmental sources of stress are

A. Demanding boss
B. Unfriendly management.
C. Work load.
D. None of the above.
Ans. D

30. Organizational causes of stress are

A. Work overload.
B. Political.
C. Technological.
D. All of the above
Ans. A

31. Environmental sources of stress are

A. Political
B. Economic.
C. Technological.
D. All of the above
Ans. D

32. Personal factors of stress does not include

A. Work load
B. Work family balance
C. Personal economic problems.
D. Demanding boss.
Ans. D

33. High stress prone organization has which sources of stress

A. Personality trait
B. Job experience.
C. Perception.
D. All of the above.
Ans. D

34. Stress affects these personalities

A. Type A
B. Type D
C. Type B.
D. All of the above
Ans A and C

35. These is not the level of stress

A. Organizational.
B. Individual.
C. Group.
D. Sectoral.
Ans. D

36. ————- is lacking within the group , it increases stress

Ans. Social support.

37. Group stress is categorized into two areas ——- and ———-
Ans. Lack of group support and lack of group cohesiveness.

38. Out come of workplace stress is

A. Organizational.
B. Behavioural
C. Psychological.
D. None of the above.
Ans. A

39. Consequences of workplace stress are

A. Organizational.
B. Behavioural
C. Psychological.
D. Psychological
E. All of the above.
Ans. E

40. Psychological stress manifests as

A. Anger.
B. Headaches
C. High blood pressure
D. None of the above
Ans. A

41. Relationship between stress and job performance is

A. Directly related
B. Indirectly related.
C. U shaped curve
D. Inverted u shaped curve.
Ans. D

42. Tertiary level stress management includes—— and ——

Ans. Health care programmes and stress rehabilitation.
43. Stress management includes
A. Primary level management.
B. Secondary level management
C. Tertiary level management.
D. All of the above.
Ans All of the above.

44. Primary level stress management does not include.

A. Micro level strategies
B. Macro level strategies.
C. Hiring a counsellor.
D. Employee level strategies.
Ans. C

45. Secondary level stress management will address

A. Psychological
B. Physiological
C. Behavioural
D. All of the above
Ans. D

46. Macro level organizational changes will include tackling —— and ——

Ans. Management style and work condition.

47. Call centre hires psychologist for managing stress level.

A. Primary level.
B. Secondary level
C. Tertiary level.
D. None of the above
Ans. D.
 CHAPTER 10

1) Conflict is the struggle between incompatible or opposing needs, wishes, ideas, interests, or people by
whom this definition is given? :-
a) Pondy
b) Chung & Meggison
c) Stephen P. Robbin
d) None of these

2) Who gave the definition, “The condition of the objective incompatibility between values and goals as the
behavior of deliberately interfering with another’s goal achievement; and emotionally in term of hostility
conflict.
a) Pondy
b) Chung & Meggison
c) Stephen P. Robbin
d) None of these

3) According to the which view, all types of conflicts are harmful to an organization.
a) Human Relations Views Of Conflicts
b) Traditional View
c) Interactionist View of Conflicts

4) In which View, conflict is necessary for a group?

a) Human Relations Views Of Conflicts
b) Traditional View
c) Interactionist View of Conflicts

5) In which View, Conflict is a natural phenomenon.

a) Human Relations Views Of Conflicts
b) Traditional View
c) Interactionist View of Conflicts

6) The harmonious, passive groups are porn to become stagnant and non-responsive towards the needs for
change and innovation, in which can be major hindarance in the progress of the organization, by whom this
definition is given :-
a) Pondy
b) Chung & Meggison
c) Stephen P. Robbin
d) None of these

7) How many aspects of conflict.

a) 1
b) 2(Positive and Negative)
c) 3
d) 4
8) “Performance Degradation and low employees retention” which aspect is represented by?
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Both

9) Which can be defined as the friction, which results from perceived or actual differences that exist among
individuals or groups :- Conflict

10) Which conflicts refer to constructive conflicts that support that the goals of the organizations and improve
its performance.
a) functional conflicts
b) Dysfunctional conflicts
c) None of these

11) In which conflict, A great way to improve team’s performance is stimulating and hence generating
innovative ideas.
a) Dysfunctional conflicts
b) Functional conflict

12) Which method involves the conducting a debate of opposing views before taking any decision.
:- Dialectic method

13) It involves assigning the team member a roll of a critic, what advocacy does it come in?
:- Devil’s Advocacy

14) Conflict consists of various disputes and disagreements that hinder the performance of the company,
which conflict does it come in?
a) Functional conflict
b) Dysfunctional conflict

15) In which method, it involves encouraging opposing parties to face the issue collectively, generate the
solution and, and select the most appropriate action.
a) Obliging
b) Dominating
c) Integrating(Problem solving method)

16) A party neglects their own concern to satisfy the concern of the opposing, what approach does it come
in?
a) Obliging
b) Dominating
c) Integrating (Problem solving method)

17) People with an I-win-you-lose mentality, which approach do people of this mentality follow?
a) Obliging
b) Dominating
c) Integrating (Problem solving method)
18) How many types of conflicts?
:- 2( Inter- personal conflicts, inter group conflict)

19) Which type of conflict considered to be a major level conflict that can occur between two individuals like
co-worker, siblings, spouses etc.
a) inter group conflict
b) inter personal conflict
c) intra individual conflicts
d) none of these

20) Transactional Analysis is given by whom and when?

:- Dr. Eric Berne in 1960s (Based on two nation)

21) On what method transactional analysis done for improving communication?

:- Social psychological method

22) Which and when this concept refers to communication model used to improve understanding among
individuals.
:Johari window in 1955

23) Where the “Johari” word derived from?

:- The name of Joseph Luft and Hari Ingham

24) How many grid in The Johari window?

:- Four quadrant grid (Open area, Blind area, Hidden area, Unknown area)

25) Which quadrant includes behavior, knowledge, skills, attitude and public history?
a) Hidden area
b) Blind area
c) Open area
d) Unknown area

26) Which quadrant includes information that we are not aware ourselves but others know about us for ex:-
feelings of inadequacy, incompetence, unworthiness or rejection?
a) Hidden area
b) Blind area
c) Open area
d) Unknown area

27) Which quadrant represents information that we know about ourselves, but others don’t know about us?
a) Hidden area
b) Blind area
c) Open area
d) Unknown area

28) Which quadrant represents information that is unknown by us and others

a) Hidden area
b) Blind area
c) Open area
d) Unknown area

29) How many generic steps in resolving inter-personal conflicts?

a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

30) Which conflict occur between two or more groups

a) inter group conflict
b) inter personal conflict
c) intra-individual conflicts
d) none of these

31) What is the very effective way to resolve inter group conflict?
:- Face to face meeting

32) Which conflict occur within an individual argues with himself/herself about an issue?
a) inter group conflict
b) inter personal conflict
c) intra-individual conflicts
d) none of these

33) In which conflict is this arise out of approach - approach, approach – avoidance, avoidance – avoidance
situations.
a) Frustration
b) Role – conflict
c) Goal - conflict

34) Which conflict occurs when an individual has to choose between to equally attractive alternatives?
a) approach – avoidance
b) approach – approach
c) avoidance – avoidance
d) None of these

35) Which conflict occurs when an alternative has both positive and negative consequences?
a) approach – avoidance
b) approach – approach c
c) avoidance – avoidance
d) None of these

36) which situation occurs when a person has to choose between competing and alternatives, both of which
have negative consequences
a) approach – avoidance
b) approach – approach
c) avoidance – avoidance
d) None of these

37) which approach is a direct approach of resolving conflict in which the source of the conflict is removed?
a) Compromise
b) increasing resources
c) avoidance
d) problem solving

38) Which source is refers to a technique in which both of conflicting parties are require to give up their
personal motives and thinks collectively to resolve a conflict.
a) Compromise
b) increasing resources
c) avoidance
d) problem solving

39) Which approach is an indirect approach of resolving conflicts, in this approach, the cause of conflict is
avoided?
a) Compromise
b) increasing resources
c) avoidance
d) problem solving

40) Which source in involves various techniques, such as training to change the human behavior or attitude
to deal with conflict in a better manner.
a) Compromise
b) increasing resources
c) avoidance
d) Altering the human variable

41) In which concept this idea comes in” The manager, who can initiate arguments and oppose the already
set-ideas to induce the conflict in the organization”
:-Devil’s advocate

42) Which source of positive consequences of conflict?

:- organizational culture, competition and creativity

43) Which conflict indicate that human behavior is led by needs, which guide the activities of an individual?
:- Individual-level conflict
 CHAPTER 11

1. According to Max Weber, a principal architect of modern sociology “Power is the probability that one
actor within a social relationship will be in a position to carry out his own will despite resistance ”. True/ False
Answer-True

2. According to Abraham Lincoln “ If you want to test a man’s character, give him power”. True/ False
Answer-True

3. refers to influencing people with or without the advantage of a formal position or role,
whereas power refers to getting people to do things owing to the formal platform or charter an individual
holds in an organisation.
A) Leadership
B) Team Work
C) Managing
D) Conflicts

4. Who Invented five Sources of Power?

A) John French and Bertram Raven
B) Chung and Meggison
C) Pondy
D) D. H. Smith

5. Which one is not a source of power?

A) Reward Power
B) Coercive Power
C) Legitimate Power
D) Influence Power

6. Which one is a influencing behavior by punishing undesirable behaviors?

A) Reward Power
B) Coercive Power
C) Legitimate Power
D) Expert Power

7. is an individual’s ability to influence the behavior of other individuals owing to

his/her competencies, talents, or specialized knowledge and skills.

A) Reward Power
B) Coercive Power
C) Legitimate Power
D) Expert Power

8. is an individual’s ability to influence the behavior of other individuals as a consequence of

being respected, admired, or liked by others.

A) Reward Power
B) Referent Power
C) Legitimate Power
D) Expert Power

9. Which one is not a structural source of power?

A) Knowledge as power
B) Resources as power
C) Decision making as power
D) Behaviour as power

10. Individuals, who can control information about existing operations, develop information regarding
alternatives, or acquire knowledge about future events, possess massive power to influence the behavior of
other individuals in the organization is known as?

A) Knowledge as power
B) Resources as power
C) Decision making as power
D) Networks as power

11. is a common observation that managers in an organization possess greater power if

they have links with other influential individuals in the organization.

A) Knowledge as power
B) Resources as power
C) Decision making as power
D) Networks as power

12. Individuals use certain strategies to gain power and manipulate the bases of power for specific actions
such as influencing the behaviour of other individuals, gaining a particular advantage is known as?

A) Power Tactics
B) Power Strategies
C) Power Goals
D) Power Attainment

13. Which one is not an Individual and Intra group tactics?

A) Assertiveness
B) Friendliness
C) Rationality
D) Substitutability

14. Which one is not an Individual and Intra group tactics?

A) Integrative importance
B) Bargaining
C) Coalition
D) Higher Authority
15. Which one is not an Inter group tactics?
A) Uncertainty Absorption
B) Substitutability
C) Sanctions
D) Integrative Importance

16. Power is a fundamental need within groups to influence the behaviour of other individuals and make
important group decisions. Unfortunately, sometimes members of a group express their need for power in
inappropriate and socially unacceptable ways. True/False
Answer-True
17. Negative politics has been identified as one of the major sources of stress within existing organisations. It
includes the use of destabilising methods to promote personal agendas, distract other individuals; and
compromise the interests, welfare, and goals of other employees. True/False
Answer-True

18. Which one is not an individual factors contributing to organisational politics?

A) Need for Power
B) Machiavellianism
C) Locus of control
D) Uncertainty in decision making

19. Which one is not an individual factors contributing to organisational politics?

A) Limited resources
B) Performance pressure
C) Risk-seeking tendency
D) Uncertainty in decision making

20. of an organisation has a direct impact on its culture. Positive aspects of politics, such
as strategy and decision making, conflict management, employee recognition and support, etc., may improve
the organisational culture, but negative politics may ruin it.
Answer- The Political Environment

21. According to a study conducted by Talent Scout (Surviving Office Politics), “18% of an administrator's
time (more than nine weeks out of every year) is spent resolving conflicts among employees”. Such conflicts
are usually caused due to workplace politics leading to problems for employees to work together. True/False
Answer-True

22. Personality is an outcome of the basic personal values and personality traits of an individual, which also
determines the political behaviour of the individual. Does Personality of an individual helps to overcome
politics or play politics in any Organisation. . True/False
Answer-True

23. refer to the characteristics or qualities that distinguish one individual from another. For
example, being ambitious, persistent, courageous, etc. are personality traits of individuals.
Answer- Personality Traits

24. refer to the broad goals that act as guiding principles for individuals such as honesty,
dignity, etc. Basic values differ for each individual, which explains the reason for the different personality
individuals possess.
Answer- Personal Values

25. Which one in not in Five traits of personality based on OCEAN?

A) Openness
B) Conscientiousness
C) Extroversion
D) Activeness

26. Which one in not in Five traits of personality based on OCEAN?

A) Agreeableness
B) Neuroticism
C) Extroversion
D) Charm

27. Focussing on the Big Five Model of Personality helps to reshape political attitude and thus the political
behaviour of individuals in an organisation. True/False
Answer-True

28. This dimension defines the extent of an individual’s reliability. An individual with high is
usually responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent.
Answer- Conscientiousness

29. implies using facts and figures in a logical manner such that the request being made is
detailed and prepared well
Answer- Rationality

30. implies making requests, along with a promise of rewards, on the completion of work.
Managers may promise a promotion or increment to individuals on accomplishing a task or threaten to
withhold promotion and rule out salary increments on non-completion of tasks.
Answer- Sanctions

31. This implies getting help from other individuals in the organization through alliances and coalitions with
co-workers and subordinates.
Answer- Coalition

32. There are specialized groups within organizations that perform a variety of functions such as industrial
relationships, bargaining, vendor decisions, etc. At times, when complex situations arise in an organization,
the guidance and advice of specialized groups are sought by other departments is known as .
Answer- Uncertainty Absorption

33. When organizations have to deal with complex situations, if the guidance of the specialized group is
substituted with the guidance and advice of an external agency or consultant, the power of the specialized
group is reduced or eliminated is known as .
Answer- Substitutability

34. implies that the department may exert power over other departments owing to its
importance in the functioning of other departments
 Answer- Integrative Importance

CHAPTER 12

1. The cultural perspective that gives predominant important culture of the parent organisation is termed
a. Ethnocentricism
b. Polycentricism
c. Geocentricism
d. None of the above

2. Global MNCs like McDonald's were successful because they were able to replicate their time-tested home
country culture across their subsidiaries in different countries.
a. True
b. False

3. Which of the following statements is correct with regard in cultural differences?

a. Companies should focus on the best culture applicable for all their businesses in different countries as
globalization can, in future, lead to global cultural convergence resulting in single universal corporate culture
applicable across several countries.
b. Companies should be sensitive to the culture of the country they are operating in, explicitly
recognizing the differences and valuing them, and incorporating them into their corporate
culture.
c. Organisational culture and national culture are different and independent of each other. Companies
should focus on their organisational culture which is best suited for success when making forays into different
countries.
d. All of the above.

4. Which of the following statements best describes a cultural difference that is relevant for global MNCs
operating in several national cultures?
a. Simple things like handshake and greetings in different cultures can make or mar the success of business
communication.
b. Some countries have societies that value individualism while others value collectivism.
c. In some countries, the role of the manager is seen as one of expert while in others, a manager is only
expected to facilitate problem-solving.
d. All of the above

5. Geert Hofstede did a pioneering work on cultural value differences across countries in the 1970s. He
did a survey on work-related values with the IBM and its subsidiaries in 40 countries. Around 116,000 IBM
employees participated in the survey.

6. In 1991 called Global Leadership and Organisational Behaviour Effectiveness (GLOBE).

7. GLOBE was a transnational project with a research team consisting of 170 researchers from around 60
countries.

8. GLOBE study expanded the Hofstede five cultural dimensions into eight dimensions, viz.
institutional collectivism, in-group collectivism, uncertainty avoidance, power distance, gender
egalitarianism, assertiveness, performance orientation and human orientation.

9. Societal culture has a direct impact on the organisational culture.

10. As per GLOBE study, leadership acceptance is a function of interaction between culturally endorsed
implicit leadership theories (CLTS) and leadership attributes and behaviours.

11. In Hofstede's classification and definition of cultural dimensions, lower power distance means the
societies stress equality and opportunity.
a. True
b. False

12. Hofstede's study found that national cultures have no relevance to the IBM's organisational culture in
different subsidiaries owing to its strong parent cultural values.
a. True
b. False

13. The cultural dimension of Feminity refers to a cultural orientation that values preferences for life
quality, modesty and interpersonal relationships in Hofstede's six cultural dimensions.

14. Research shows that content theories of motivation like Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory can
generally be considered universally applicable across different cultures.
a. True
b. False

15. When dealing with interpersonal behaviours in a multicultural setting, it is advisable to promote a unique
organisational culture based on similarities.
a. True
b. False

16. With respect to OB theories on leadership, which of following statements is correct?

a. Cultural values largely influence the predominant leadership styles in different national
cultures.
b. In western countries like the USA, authoritarian leadership is highly preferred in tune with the value of
individualism.
c. National culture could be different from leadership styles followed in different national cultures.
d. None of the above.

17. The reason for difficulties in communication between professionals from countries like the USA and Japan
can be attributed to the following:
a. Verbal styles do not match in any context between the US and Japan.
b. Verbal styles do not matter in business communication.
c. Different countries follow different verbal styles and interaction focus.
d. Both (a) and (c)

18. Which of the following statements is true with regard to multicultural teams?
a. Multicultural teams are difficult to manage due to cultural diversity.
b. Multicultural teams can lead to productivity loss if not properly managed.
c. Multicultural teams have potential to provide superior performance compared to homogeneous teams.
d. All of the above.

19. While managing multicultural teams, the best way to tackle cultural differences is to
a. Emphasis the similarities between cultures and ignore the differences
b. Recognize the differences and value them
c. Leverage the differences and ignore the similarities
d. None of the above

20. Technology can be a great driver for global convergence of national cultures.
a. True
b. False

21. International HRM has additional three dimensions, viz. cross-cultural dimension, international
HRM policies and international industrial relations.

22. Since IHRM is largely differentiated by cross-cultural aspects, the field of organisational behaviour in its
international perspective becomes crucial.

23. The trend of globalization has made domestic companies to evolve from multi-domestic to
multinational to transnational or global firms as their focus expands beyond domestic markets.

24. Cultural perspectives evolve from ethnocentricism to polycentricism to geocentricism as companies

transform into global corporations.

25. Culture plays an important role in organisational strategies. As companies move beyond their countries,
they need to understand cultural variations across countries starting from basic social values to leadership
styles.

26. National cultures can vary in every basic aspect of cultural dimensions and these differences could be
of great importance to corporate strategies of MNCs.

27. It is important for HR managers to understand the significance national cultures when implementing
HR policies. These HR policies should consider the international aspects of OB. OB theories and
concepts should be evaluated from an international perspective for their universal applicability.

28. Communication is the most visible differentiator in terms of the impact of cross-cultural variations on
OB concepts. Communication barriers increase in international transactions due to cultural variations starting
from the use of language, verbal style, non-verbal communication, and perception-based on
cultural values, etc.
29. Multicultural teams have become a normal feature with global corporations. These teams are difficult to
manage but offer higher potential for superior performance if properly managed.

30. Technological developments can lead to global convergence of cultures. Technology can be used to
reinforce cultural values leading to divergence of cultures or to promote convergence towards a global
culture. Organisations should take cognizance of such implications of technology in their international
strategies.

31. Collectivism: A social orientation or cultural value where the emphasis is on the good of the group,
community or society rather than the good of the individual.

32. Content theories: The type of motivation theories that are based on what actuates, energizes or
initiates the worker Behaviour.

33. Expatriate: An employee who is working and temporarily residing in a foreign country.

34. Host country: The country where an MNC is operating and has established a foreign subsidiary.

35. Individualism: The extent to which the individual initiative and caring for oneself is preferred by
society.

36. Low-context communication: A type of communication style where players tend to communicate
more to the point and verbalize all important information.

37. Paternalistic: The manner of managing or governing individuals, groups, or businesses that
characterizes a fatherly and sometimes intrusive attitude that may restrict the freedom and
responsibilities of the dependents or subordinates in their supposed larger interest.