PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ KIỂM TRA CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

HƯNG HÀ Môn: Tiếng Anh 6

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
( Đề kiểm tra này gồm 4 trang)

A. LISTENING COMPREHENSION.
Listen and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
Mai: Mum, (1)………. we buy a branch of peach blossoms?
Mum: Yes, dear. We’ll buy a beautiful one.
Mai: And how many Banh Chung shall we buy?
Mum: We (2)………….. buy Banh Chung, dear. This year, we’ll make them at home.
Mai: Wow… I like cooking Banh Chung. I will help you with that.
Mum: Yes, sure. And I’ll buy some new clothes for you and your brother.
Mai: Thank you, Mum. Shall we buy (3) ………………. for Dad, too?
Mum: Yes, we’ll buy a new tie for him.
Mai: Should we buy something for grandma and grandpa? Mum: Yes, of course, dear. We
will get them some (4) ………..and… Mai: And some fruit…
Mum: No dear, we shouldn’t buy fruit. It’s too early. We should wait until the (5) ……
Mai: Yeah, Mum. And don’t forget to buy some chocolate biscuits for us.
Mum: No, I won’t, dear. I will buy you the most delicious biscuits.
Listen to a girl talking about a preson and choose the correct answer.
6.Who is the author talking about?
A. Her friends B. Her neighbour C. Her best friend
7. Which of these sentences describes Mai?
A. Mai is short with long straight hair and a round face.
B. Mai is tall with short straight hair and a long face.
C. Mai is tall with long straight hair and a round face.
8. Which clothing does Mai like wearing?
A. T-shirts and skirts B.T-shirts and jeans C. Skirts and dresses
9. Which of the signs is Mai's sign?
A. Virgo B. Libra C. Pisces
10.Why does the author like Mai?
A. Because she’s interesting B. Because she’s friendly C. Because she’s talkative.
B. PHONETICS.
Find the word which has a different sound in the underlined part.
11. A. tables B. fridges C. phones D. pictures
12. A. agree B. coffee C. see D. free
13. A. wanted B. closed C. raised D. pleased
14. A. knee B. knife C. know D. market
15. A. album B. use C. amusement D. united
Find the word which the stress pattern pronounced differently from others.
16. A. surprise B. sugar C. repaint D. success
17. A. advance B. around C. industry D. imperial
18. A. natural B. national C. literature D. suggestion
19. A. charming B. champagne C. children D. charity
20. A. decide B. around C. popular D. enjoy
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C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY.
Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences.
21. Janet is not happy because her results in the competition are ………. than her sister’s.
A. bad B. good C. better D. worse
22. It’s …… to live far from the market and the supermarket.
A. easy B. inconvenient C. convenient D. comfortable
23. The Imperial City in Hue is one of the greatest ……….
A. tour attraction B. tourist attractions C. tourist attraction D. attraction tourist
24. ……... the newsreader on BBC1 reads very fast, I can hear everything in the news.
A. Although B. But C. So D. As
25. “……….. do you go to the library?” – “Every two weeks.”
A. How long B. When C. How often D. What time
26. Pelé is widely regarded ………. the best football player of all time.
A. with B. for C. about D. as
27. Ba : “ Can you turn on the lights, please? ” Lan: “……….”
A. No, I can’t. B. Yes, I’d love to. C. Yes, sure. D. Yes, please.
28. Sports and games ………….. an important part in our lives.
A. play B. do C. make D. take
29. The people in Hoi An are incredibly …..… and ………..
A. friendly- help B. friendly- helpful C. friendly-helpless D. friendly-helpfully
30. My brother has …………. hair.
A. short black curly B. curly short black C. short curly black D. black short curly
Put the following verbs into the correct tense and form.
31. The house is clean. Someone (clean) it?
32. You (save) a lot of trees if you (33. not waste) paper.
34.Don’t talk so loudly,please!My son(sleep)
35. It’s such a long time since we (hear) from him.
36. When he lived in London, he often (go) to the parks there.
37. They hope that throwing water (bring) a lot of rain in the New Year.
38. The flight “VS103” to Sydney (depart) at 8p.m tonight.
39. He together with his friends (collect) garbage around their school every day.
40. In my opinion, (speak) a language fluently is very difficult.
Give the corect forms of the words in the brackets to complete the sentences.
41. Mrs Lien plays music for the national orchestra. She is also a ______. (MUSIC)
42. We live in a _____ house on the foot of a mountain. (BEAUTY)
43. This city is very ________. I can’t live here. (NOISE)
44. Mr Hung lives in this apartment. He lives on the ______ floor. (NINE)
45. There are a lot of modern _______ in Ho Chi Minh City. (BUILD)
46. Look! Our children are _____ their bicycles to school. (RIDE)
47. There are many _____ in our school yard for us to sit and relax. (BENCH)
48. There are some books on the ______ . (BOOK)
49. I like the fried chicken in our school canteen: it’s really _____. (TASTE)
50. Hong is much ________ than my sister. (FAT)
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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
51. If we (A) recycle and (B) use recycled materials,(C) we save (D) energy.
52. Last week,(A) Son had (B) an accident so (C) he drove (D) carelessly.
53. What (A) are you do (B) tomorrow evening? - I am going (C) to the cinema (D).
54. Do you (A) tell me (B) the way to (C) the art gallery, (D) please?
55. Although (A) the football game was (B) over, but (C) the fans stayed (D) in their seats
cheering.
Put one suitable preposition in the blanks to complete the sentences.
56. Reusable bags are friendly ………. the environment.
57. My dog jumped over the hedge, into the road to chase …………… the ball.
58. We will take part ……… a campaign to clean up the streets in our neighbourhood.
59. To get to the Super Fit Club, you should take Bus 16 and get ……….. at Hoa Binh park.
60. Vi and Phong are very excited ……………………. the English festival next Friday.
61. The “tiger” is ………………….. the bathroom door and the window.
62. Very few people can catch the rolling cheese because it can travel ….to 112 km an hour.
63. You must be well- prepared ……… the trip you are going to have in Son Doong cave.
64. In the future, robots will look …………….our children.
65. Since he was a child he has dreamt …………… becoming a famous footballer.
D. READING COMPREHENSION.
Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each blank .
Paper can be recycled by reducing it to pulp and (66) …….. it with pulp from newly
harvested wood. As the recycling process (67) ……. the paper fibers to breakdown, each
time paper is recycled its quality decreases. This means that (68) ….. a higher percentage of
new fibers must be added, or the paper down cycled (69) ……… lower quality products.
Any writing or coloration of the paper must first be removed by deinking, which (70) ……..
removes fillers, clays, and fibers fragments.
Almost (71) …… paper can be recycled today, but some types are harder to recycle (72) ….
others. Papers coated with plastic or aluminum foil, and papers (73) …… are waxed,
pasted, or gummed are usually not recycled (74) ……. the process is too expensive. Gift
wrap paper also cannot be recycled (75) ……. to its already poor quality.
66. A. including B. combing C. gathering D. joining
67. A. makes B. forces C. results D. causes
68. A. either B. neither C. both D. between
69. A. out B. within C. into D. above
70. A. only B. also C. even D. as well
71. A. all B. some C. a lot D. much
72. A. as B. like C. than D. more
73. A. they B. these C. those D. that
74. A. but B. because C. so that D. though
75. A. due B. apart C. together D. in addition
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
One of the most popular quiz programmes on television in the world is called Who
Wants To Be A Millionaire? In Britain, the quiz master is Chris Tarrant. He asks the
contestants fifteen questions. The first questions are easy but later they are more difficult. If

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you answer the fourteenth question correctly, you can win £500,000. You can win a million
pounds if you can answer the last question. Of course, it is very difficult to come to the last
question.
All the questions on Who Wants To Be A Millionaire? are multiple-choice questions.
After you hear the question, you see four answers. Only one answer is correct. You have to
choose the correct answer. If you don’t know the answer to a question, there are three ways
you can get help: you can ask the quizmaster to take away two wrong answers; you can ask
the studio audience which answer is right; or you can telephone a friend and ask for help.
You can only do these things once. Very few people win the million pounds. The first
person won a million pounds one year after the programme started.
Today “Who Wants To Be A Millionaire?” can be seen in more than 100 countries and is
now the world’s most popular quiz programme.
76. Who is the quizmaster in Britain?
77. How many questions do you have to answer?
78. How much do you win for the fourteenth question?
79. How many ways can you get help?
80. In how many countries can you watch the quiz show?
E. WRITING.
Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed
before them. Use the words given at the beginning of the sentences.
81. Do you have a cheaper computer than this? => Is …………..……?
82. Mr. Mike started teaching us English in 2018. =>Mr.Mike has ….….
83. There are a lot of green trees in my school. => My school ……..…
84. You should do morning exercises to have good health. => If ………………….
85. I spend two hours a day doing my washing. =>It takes ……….……
86. “Let’s learn” is a programme for small children, but a lot of parents and teenagers like it.
=>Although ……….
87. We plan to do a project on interesting TV programmes for teenagers tonight.=> We are
88. Mr. Black was the most careful worker in the factory. => No one …...............
89. Get up now or you’ll be late for school. => Unless …..…..…
90. We took many pictures of her bed room because of its amazing decorations.
=> Because …..
Reorder the following words to make meaningful sentences.
91. There/ on / good restaurant/ a/ is/ that/ a/ street/so / often/ my friends / I/ eat/ there/
and ./
92. My sister/ going/ enjoys/ the/ with/ cinema/ her/ friends / to./
93. Which/ a/ activity/ uses/ more/ calories/ walking/ or/ bicycle / riding/?/, /
94. You/ not/ for/ better / eat /too / ‘d/ candies /because /much/ they / aren’t/ good / of/ your
teeth /./
95. was/ performance/ gave/ she/ last night/ marvellous / The/./
Write a paragraph.
Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100 words ) to tell about our Tet holiday.
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 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM BÀI KIỂM TRA CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
Năm học: 2020- 2021
Môn kiểm tra: Tiếng Anh

A. LISTENING COMPREHENSION (2,0 points)

I. Listen and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word ( 1,0 point)

1. Shall 2. won’t 3. something 4. sweets 5. 30th

II. Listen to a girl talking about a preson and choose the correct answer for each of the
following questions ( 1,0 point)

6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A

B. PHONETICS (2,0 points).

I. Find the word which has a different sound in the underlined part. (1,0 point)

11. B 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. A

II. Find the word which the stress pattern pronounced differently from others. (1,0 point)

16. B 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C

C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY ( 8,0 points)

I. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answer
(A,B,C or D) on your answer sheet.( 2,0 points)

21. D 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. C

26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. C

II. Put the following verbs into the correct tense and form. (2,0 points)

31. has cleaned 32. will save 33. don’t waste 34. is raining 35. heard
36. went 37.will bring 38. departs 39. collects 40. speaking

III. Give the corect forms of the words in the brackets to complete the sentences.(2,0 points)

41. musician 42. beautiful 43. noisy 44. ninth 45. buildings
46. riding 47. benches 48. bookshelf/ bookcase 49. tasty 50. fatter

IV. Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.(1,0 point)

Mistake 51. D 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C

Correction will save because doing Can you 0

V. Put one suitable preposition in the blanks to complete the sentences. (1,0 point)

56. to 57. after 58. in 59. off 60. about

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 61. between 62. up 63. for 64. after 65. of

D. READING COMPREHENSION (3,0 points)

I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each blank . Write your answer (A,B,C
or D) on your answer sheet. ( 2,0 points)

66. B 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. B 71. A 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. A

II. Read the passage and answer the following questions.Write your answers on your answer
sheet. (1,0 point)

76. In Britain, the quiz master is Chris Tarrant.

77. Fifteen questions/ I have to answer fifteen questions.
78. If you answer the fourteenth question correctly, you can win £500,000.
79. There are three ways you can get help.
80. I can be seen in more than 100 countries.

E. WRITING ( 5,0 points)

I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before
them. Use the words given at the beginning of the sentences. ( 2,0 points)

81.Is this the cheapest computer (that) you have?

82.Mr. Mike has taught us English since 2018.
83.My school has a lot of green trees.
84.If you do morning exercises, you will have good health.
If you want to have good health, you should do morning exercises.
85. It takes me two hours a day to do my washing.
86. Although “Let’s learn” is a programme for small children, a lot of parents and teenagers like it.
87. We aredoing/ going to do a project on interesting TV programmes for teenagers tonight.
88. No one in the factory worked as carefully as Mr. Black.
89. Unless you get up now, you’ll be late for school.
90. Because its decorations were amazing, we took many pictures of her bed room.
Because her bed room’s decorations were amazing, we took many pictures of it.

II. Reorder the following words to make meaningful sentences. (1,0 point)
91. There is a good restaurant on that street, so my friends and I often eat there.
92. My sister enjoys going to the cinema with her friends.
93. Which activity uses more calories, walking or riding a bicycle?
94. You’d better not eat too much of candies because they aren’t good for your teeth.
95. The performance she gave last night was marvellous.

III. Write a paragraph. ( 2,0 points)

Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100 words ) to tell aboutour Tet holiday.
Yêu cầu học sinh phải viết đúng ngữ pháp, đúng chính tả. hành văn rõ ràng, dấu câu đúng, đủ.
Tối thiểu học sinh phải viết được 10 câu.
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