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March 2020 SAT QAS Full Test With Answers and Scoring
March 2020 SAT QAS Full Test With Answers and Scoring
March 2020
Question-
and-Answer
Service
Use this with your QAS Student Guide
and personalized QAS Report.
What's inside:
The SAT and SAT Essay administered on your test day
DIRECTIONS
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following had held her Nigerian naming ceremony. Wuraola
passage. means gold.
She knew all this . . .
This passage is adapted from Helen Oyeyemi, The Icarus Girl.
©2005 by Helen Oyeyemi. After a long journey from her But nobody had ever called her Wuraola, not even
home in England, eight-year-old Jessamy is meeting her 30 her mother, whom she could now see from the
mother’s family in Nigeria for the first time. corner of her eye making anxious, silent gestures for
her to go to her grandfather.
There they all stood, an uncertain circle, and then Here, in this stone-walled corridor where the
her grandfather came forward, greeted her mother, sunlight came in through enormous, stiff mosquito
shook hands with her father. Although he seemed 35 screens over every window and her clothes clung to
Line mellower and smaller than the picture that her her like another skin, Wuraola sounded like another
5 mother had painted for her over the years, Jess had a person. Not her at all.
sudden and irrational fear that he might start Should she answer to this name, and by doing so
shouting at her. steal the identity of someone who belonged here?
He looked at her, put his hands on his hips in 40 Should she . . . become Wuraola?
mock consternation, and her cousins and her mother But how?
10 laughed. Her father, standing slightly outside the She could not make herself move forward, so she
circle, smiled encouragingly at her. Her grandfather stayed where she was, avoided his touch, looked up
held out a hand. His hands were big and square, into her grandfather’s face, smiled and said quietly,
spadelike, the palms deeply etched and callused. She 45 but firmly, in her most polite voice “Hello,
took a step towards him, smiling a wobbly, nervous Grandfather.”
15 smile that she could not feel on her face. After they had taken baths and Jess had been
She did not know what was expected of her. made to eat a little, her mother disappeared with her
She had nearly reached him when suddenly, on an youngest sister, Aunty Biola, and her father
outward gust of air, he half said, half announced a 50 befriended Uncle Kunle, who was clearly as
name. newspaper-minded as he was, and wanted to talk
20 “Wuraola.” about politics. Swiftly dropping a kiss onto her
Who? forehead, her father released her into her
She froze, not knowing what to say or do. grandfather’s clutches before mounting the stairs that
Of course, she knew that Wuraola was her 55 led up to the roof balcony of the house.
Yoruba1 name, the name that her grandfather had So her grandfather did have a face. It was a broad,
25 asked in a letter for her to be called when her mother lined face; the smile and frown lines ran deep into his
of micronucleated erythrocytes
without UVB exposure
Salamanders
Plethodon dunni < 0.1 hidden/unexposed Altitude of naturally occurring
in logs or rock crevices/ population (meters above sea level)
Aneides ferreus 0.4
unexposed
Adapted from Andrew R. Blaustein and Lisa K. Belden, “Amphibian
Batrachoseps in or under logs/ Defenses against Ultraviolet-B Radiation.” ©2003 by Blackwell
0.7
wrighti unexposed Publishing, Inc.
Ambystoma in open water/
1.0
gracile some exposure
30
32
Which statement is best supported by the data in
figure 1? Which data from figure 2 appear to be inconsistent
with the researchers’ observations about the frog
A) Only those amphibian species with photolyase
populations in the French Alps as presented in the
activity less than or equal to 0.7 lay their eggs
passage?
where there is no exposure to sunlight.
B) All amphibian species with photolyase activity A) The population at 800 meters above sea level
greater than 3.5 lay their eggs in locations with without UVB exposure experienced less DNA
high exposure to sunlight. damage than did the population at 450 meters
above sea level without UVB exposure.
C) Only those amphibian species with photolyase
activity of 7.5 or greater lay their eggs in areas B) The population at 410 meters above sea level
with variable exposure to sunlight. without UVB exposure experienced less DNA
damage than did the population at 410 meters
D) All amphibian species with photolyase activity of above sea level with UVB exposure.
1.0 or greater lay their eggs in open shallow
water. C) The population at 800 meters above sea level
with UVB exposure experienced more DNA
damage than did the population at 294 meters
above sea level with UVB exposure.
D) The population at 450 meters above sea level
with UVB exposure experienced more DNA
damage than did the population at 2,450 meters
above sea level with UVB exposure.
35
Warren implies that after Americans won 39
independence, they questioned whether they would Warren claims that there is a historical pattern of
be governance that should serve as a warning to
A) forced to rejoin with Great Britain to secure their Americans, in that the most successful governments
financial future. are
B) able to return to the occupations they held before A) reluctant to impose constraints on their citizens
the war. but actively censor any public criticism.
C) able to create a political system that appeases all B) unable to discontinue policies enforced by their
citizens. previous leaders.
D) beholden to other countries because of their C) enabled by their citizens’ blind trust to act
amassed debt. without oversight.
D) willing to use treachery or intimidation to
maintain their position of power.
41
As used in line 48, “secure” most nearly means
A) guarantee.
B) fasten.
C) promise.
D) control.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
DIRECTIONS
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.
part of the country to another took days or even weeks, Which choice provides the most appropriate context
for the discussion that follows in the passage?
and the dangers wild animals posed were not to be
A) NO CHANGE
underestimated. B) Settlers from Kentucky, Tennessee, and Missouri
The most popular destination was Kansas, in part were part of the Great Exodus.
C) The Great Exodus has parallels to large-scale
because of its role as an early stronghold of the migrations that occurred in the United States
during the twentieth century.
movement to abolish slavery. One settlement in that state
D) Drawn by the promise of farming on their own
was Nicodemus, a town in northwestern Kansas that land rather than sharecropping for a landlord,
exodusters founded dozens of communities in
drew more than 300 settlers to make the long journey
the West in the 1870s and 1880s.
from Kentucky in 1877. 4 Real estate agents
5 mentioned Nicodemus in brochures and newspapers, 4
but the reality that exodusters confronted on arrival was At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
less appealing. For one early settler of Nicodemus,
Between 1870 and 1879, approximately 10,000
Willianna Hickman, the flat, empty landscape contrasted exodusters entered Kansas.
starkly with the forested hills where she grew up— Should the writer make this addition here?
Hickman recalled bursting into tears when she first saw A) Yes, because it sheds light on an aspect of the
settlers’ backgrounds.
her new home.
B) Yes, because it provides a historical context for
the discussion of the Great Exodus.
C) No, because it contradicts information in the
previous paragraph.
D) No, because it digresses from the discussion of
the settlement of Nicodemus.
5
Which choice most effectively sets up the
information that follows in the paragraph?
A) NO CHANGE
B) wrote songs and slogans to attract settlers,
C) advertised the location and characteristics of
Nicodemus,
D) promised plentiful harvests and abundant
wildlife,
cucullatus), a large, flightless 12 bird. This was a bird D) bird endemic to the Indian Ocean island of
Mauritius—one that on this island
that was endemic to the Indian Ocean island of Mauritius
and likely went extinct by the year 1693. 13
13 Consequently, the dodo has been depicted as an A) NO CHANGE
unintelligent, oddly shaped animal with tiny wings and a B) Traditionally,
for their future careers. A 2015 study asked VISTA Which choice provides the most effective
introduction to the paragraph?
alumni to rate the program’s success in helping them
A) NO CHANGE
build various career-specific skills. Five of these skills— B) learning to meet deadlines.
communicating in writing, conducting oneself C) determining what they want to do for a living.
also allowed him to “take away any pieces of stone with Should the writer make this revision here?
A) Yes, because it clarifies the opinions of the public
inscriptions or figures.” After finding that many of the
figures in a way that helps establish the focus of
Parthenon sculptures had been harmed and that others the passage.
B) Yes, because it suggests that Greek culture was
were being sold to tourists, Elgin decided to take full
able to thrive within the Ottoman Empire.
advantage of the permit and arranged to take many of the C) No, because it disrupts the passage’s narrative
about the Parthenon sculptures by giving loosely
sculptures to Britain. Some public figures—including the related information.
poet Lord Byron and the politician Sir John Newport— D) No, because it merely records uncredited hearsay
about the actions of Elgin.
immediately questioned the legitimacy of Elgin’s
seemingly good 35 intentions.
committee concluded in 1816 that Britain should give Which choice provides the most effective transition
between the discussion of the committee’s
“asylum” to the sculptures. 36 In 1823 Lord Byron sailed investigation and the next event in the narrative?
to Greece to support the Greek quest for independence A) NO CHANGE
from the Ottoman Empire. After Greece gained B) The concept of asylum typically applies to
situations involving political refugees.
independence in 1832, however, some argued that the C) They were installed in the British Museum that
same year.
agreement Elgin had made with the Ottoman
D) They no longer had the vivid colors applied by
government was 37 now totally bogus and that the ancient Greek artisans.
sculptures should be returned. In 1925 a series of
newspaper debates brought the issue to popular 37
attention, and Greece has 38 razed the question of the A) NO CHANGE
B) no longer valid
sculptures’ repatriation with almost every British
C) not OK anymore
ambassador ever since.
D) henceforth bereft of legitimacy
38
A) NO CHANGE
B) appraised
C) upraised
D) raised
41
A) NO CHANGE
B) museum’s facilities
C) museum facilities
D) museums’ facility
sculptures deserve a wide audience. Some argue that Which choice most effectively introduces the
sentence that follows in the paragraph?
cultural artifacts belong in the country where they were
A) NO CHANGE
created, while others still say that a large international B) The debate over the ultimate fate of the
institution like the British Museum is best suited to house Parthenon sculptures continues to this day.
C) Many questions remain about the construction
objects that are significant to human history. In 2015 the of the Parthenon sculptures.
Greek government decided not to pursue legal action D) The argument about the Parthenon sculptures is
one of many arts-related controversies.
against 43 Britain. It opted instead for continued
diplomatic efforts. As of 2018, it remains uncertain where
43
44 the Parthenon sculptures in the British Museum will
Which choice most effectively combines the
ultimately reside? sentences at the underlined portion?
A) Britain instead of opting
B) Britain; instead, the Greek government opted
C) Britain, which opted instead
D) Britain, opting instead
44
A) NO CHANGE
B) the Parthenon sculptures in the British Museum
will ultimately reside.
C) will the Parthenon sculptures in the British
Museum ultimately reside?
D) will the Parthenon sculptures in the British
Museum ultimately reside.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. ,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
!
r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = !w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w
! !
V = !wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 !wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
CONVERSION TABLES
0 200 10 10 30 530 27 29
1 200 10 10 31 530 27 29
2 210 10 10 32 540 28 30
3 230 11 11 33 550 28 31
4 240 12 12 34 550 29 31
5 250 13 13 35 560 30 32
6 270 14 13 36 570 30 33
7 280 14 14 37 580 31 33
8 290 15 15 38 580 31 34
9 310 16 16 39 590 32 35
10 320 17 16 40 600 32 36
11 330 17 17 41 600 33 37
12 340 18 18 42 610 34 38
13 350 18 18 43 620 34 39
14 360 19 19 44 630 35 40
15 380 19 20 45 640 36
16 390 20 20 46 650 37
17 400 20 21 47 660 38
18 410 21 21 48 670 38
19 420 21 22 49 680 39
20 440 21 23 50 690 39
21 450 22 23 51 700 40
22 460 23 24 52 710 40
23 470 23 24 53 720
24 480 24 25 54 740
25 490 24 26 55 750
26 500 25 26 56 770
27 510 25 27 57 780
28 510 26 28 58 800
29 520 26 28
CONVERT
CONVERT
+ = × 10 =
WRITING AND WRITING AND READING TEST READING AND EVIDENCE-BASED
LANGUAGE TEST LANGUAGE SCORE WRITING READING AND WRITING
RAW SCORE TEST SCORE (10-40) TEST SCORE SECTION SCORE
(0-44) (10-40) (20-80) (200-800)
CONVERT
+ = + =
MATH TEST – MATH TEST – MATH SECTION MATH SECTION EVIDENCE-BASED TOTAL SAT
NO CALCULATOR CALCULATOR RAW SCORE SCORE READING AND WRITING SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0-58) (200-800) SECTION SCORE (400-1600)
(0-20) (0-38) (200-800)
5PSA05 11
Question-and-Answer Service Student Guide
Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer
1 B 14 B 27 A 40 B
2 D 15 D 28 D 41 A
3 B 16 A 29 C 42 D
4 D 17 D 30 A 43 B
5 D 18 C 31 C 44 A
6 A 19 D 32 C 45 C
7 B 20 D 33 A 46 C
8 C 21 C 34 B 47 D
9 A 22 B 35 C 48 A
Reading Test Answers 1(a-d)
10 C 23 C 36 B 49 A
11 B 24 D 37 A 50 B
12 D 25 B 38 C 51 D
Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer
13 C 26 A 39 D 52 D
1 B 14 B 27 A 40 B
2 D 15 D 28 D 41 A
3 B 16 A 29 C 42 D
4 D 17 D 30 A 43 B
5 D 18 C 31 C 44 A
Writing and
6 Language Answers 2(a-d)
A 19 D 32 C 45 C
Reading
7 Test Raw Score
B 20 D 33 A 46 C
(Number
8 of Correct Answers)
C 21 C 34 B 47 D
Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer
19 BA 22
12 BA 35
23 CD 48
34 AB
210 CC 23
13 CB 36
24 BA 49
35 AA
311 DB 24
14 DA 37
25 AC 50
36 BC
412 DD 25
15 BD 38
26 CD 51
37 DB
513 DC 26
16 AB 39
27 DC 52
38 DD
6 B 17 C 28 C 39 A
7 D 18 B 29 D 40 C
8 C 19 C 30 A 41 B
11 C 22 A 33 B 44 B
Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer
1 B 12 A 23 D 34 B
2 C 13 B 24 A 35 A
3 D 14 A 25 C 36 C
4 D 15 D 26 D 37 B
5 D 16 B 27 C 38 D
6 B 17 C 28 C 39 A
7 D 18 B 29 D 40 C
8 C 19 C 30 A 41 B
9 A 20 A 31 B 42 B
10 A 21 D 32 A 43 D
11 C 22 A 33 B 44 B
4 5PSA05
Question-and-Answer Service Student Guide
Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer Question # Correct Answer
1 A 5 D 9 A 13 D
2 A 6 C 10 D 14 A
3 B 7 D 11 B 15 D
4 B 8 B 12 C
5PSA05 5