Final Examination

B. “Administer 2 puffs with each inhalation.”

(Pharmacology)
through your nose.”
7.7. Which variable will decrease the absorption
1.1. The volume of SC medications must be no of an oral drug?
more than: (1 Point)
A. Increased surface area of the small intestine
(1 Point)
B. Reduced surface area of the small intestine
A. 0.5 ml
C. Reduced stress
B. 1.0 ml
D. Increased splanchnic blood flow
C. 1.5 ml
D. 3.0 ml 8.8. A client is currently maintained on a
2.2. When deciding on what time of the day to medication that is protein bound. A second drug
give medications, the nurse pays closest attention that is more highly protein bound has been
to the client’s habits regarding: prescribed. What is likely to be the effect if these
medications are administered?
(1 Point)
(1 Point) A. The second drug will produce a greater effect than
A. Sleeping the first
B. Eating B. The first medication will be inactivated
C. Elimination C. Toxic effect may be occur from the first drug
D. Activity D. The second drug will have a synergistic effect on the
3.3. A pregnant client takes an over-the-counter first
(OTC) iron preparation. Drug data lists the drug 9.9. A client has had most of the small intestine
as Pregnancy Category A. The nurse teaches the removed. The nurse would be most concerned
client which of the following information? about drug:
(1 Point) (1 Point)
A. To stop the medication during pregnancy A. Excretion
B. To immediately report to the physician that she has B. Absorption
taken the drug while she is pregnant C. Metabolism
C. That this medication is classified as safe to use D. Distribution
during pregnancy 10.10. The nurse is caring for a client who has
D. There maybe staining on the baby’s first teeth from hypoalbuminemia. The nurse is concerned for
this medication
which of the following reason:
4.4. The mother of the pediatric client asks the
(1 Point)
nurse “What’s difference between Advil and A. There may be difficulty with elimination of a drug
ibuprofen? I can buy ibuprofen at a cheaper price, B. Excess free drug may result in toxicity
but the instruction from the clinic says to use C. A reduction in a drug effect may occur
Children’s Advil liquid.” The nurse responds to D. Excess bound drug may result in toxicity

this question using which of the following 11.11. Passive immunization involves;
statements? (1 Point)
A. Live immunogens
(1 Point)
B. Polysaccharides vaccines
A. “The instructions from the clinic should be followed
C. Use of antigens
exactly without substitutions.”
D. Use of preformed antibodies
B. “There is no difference between Advil and ibuprofen.”
C. “Advil and ibuprofen are two different drugs with
12.12. Which of the following statements about
similar effects.” passive immunization is LEAST accurate?
D. “The question should be referred to the prescribing (1 Point)
physician.” A. Rabies immunoglobulin is recommended only in
Option 2 patients who demonstrate an antibody response from
5.5. It is necessary for a nurse in the long term pre-exposure prophylaxis.
care facility to take telephone orders from a B. Patients with IgA deficiency may develop
hypersensitivity reactions to immune globulin.
physician. Which of the following nursing actions
C. Passive immunization is useful in the treatment of
would be considered incorrect in this situation? certain diseases that are normally prevented by active
(1 Point) immunization (e.g. tetanus)
A. Repeating the full order back to the physician D. Cytomegalovirus immune globulin is useful in bone
B. Calling the pharmacy to question a dosage the marrow transplantation.
physician has ordered 13.13. A nurse has an order to administer
C. Asking the physician to repeat an order that is not
Amphotericin B (Fungizone) IV to the client with
clear
D. Using full words when writing the order instead of
histoplasmosis. The nurse plans to do which of
abbreviations the following during administration of the
6.6. A nurse is instructing a client about the medication?
correct use of a metered dose inhaler. Which of (1 Point)
the following instructions should the nurse stress? A. Monitor for hypothermia
B. Administer a concurrent fluid challenge
(1 Point)
C. Assess the intravenous infusion rate
A. “Hold your breath for 10 seconds after administering
D. Monitor for an excessive urine output
a dose.”
14.14. A nurse is visiting a client who has been A. Normalization of fever beginning 96 hours after
therapy starts
started on therapy with clotrimazole (Lotrimin).
B. No clinical manifestations of hypersensitivity
The nurse tells the client that this medication will C. Resolution of orthostatic hypotension
alleviate: D. Pulse oximetry of 98%
(1 Point) 21.21. The prescriber has ordered cefdinir
A. Sneezing (Omnicef), a third generation cephalosporin for a
B. Rash
client with a staphylococcal infection. The nurse
C. Fever
D. Pain collaborates with the prescriber about which of
15.15. All of the following drugs are active against the following data related to the client?
nematodes. Which one causes muscle paralysis (1 Point)
A. BUN 14 mg/dL
by activating receptors for the inhibitory
B. Elevated granulocyte count
transmitter GABA? C. Culture and sensitivity (C & S) results not yet
(1 Point) available
A. Albendazole D. History of Type I hypersensitivity to penicillin
B. Pyrantel pamoate 22.22. A 27-year old pregnant patient with a
C. Ivermectin
history of pyelonephritis has developed a severe
D. Mebendazole
16.16. An 18 month-old HIV positive child has just upper respiratory tract infection that appears to
received age-appropriate immunizations. The be due to a bacteria pathogen. The woman is
child receives monthly IV gamma globulin hospitalized and an antibacterial agent is to be
therapy. The mother asks the nurse what the next selected for treatment. Assuming that the
immunization will be. The most appropriate physician is concerned about the effects of renal
response by the nurse is: impairment on drug dosage in this patient, which
(1 Point) of the following drugs is LEAST likely to require
A. DPT and OPV at two years of age dosage reduction?
B. DPT & MMR and prior to entering school (1 Point)
C. Hib vaccine yearly if the child in day care A. Amikacin
D. Only the Hep B vaccine (HBV) since the child is B. Ciprofloxacin
receiving gamma globulin C. Clindamycin
17.17. A nurse has provided instructions to a 31- D. Vancomycin
year-old female client taking tetracycline 23.23. The nurse teaches a client taking a
(Sumycin) for treatment of Lyme disease. Which tetracycline or a sulfonamide to do which of the
statement by the client indicates to the nurse that following?
the client understands the instructions? (1 Point)
A. Have regular evaluation of the prothrombin time (PT)
(1 Point)
and international rationalized ratio (INR).
A. “I will take this drug with an antacid to prevent an
B. Wear long sleeves and long-legged pants, hat, and
upset stomach.”
sunglasses when in the sunlight.
B. “I will take this drug with meals to enhance
C. Take with milk or food to minimize gastrointestinal
absorption of the drug.”
disturbances.
C. “I take oral contraceptives and will use an additional
D. Change position slowly to avoid orthostatic
form of contraception.”
hypotension.
D. “Since I tan easily, I will not need to use sunscreen
while in the sun.” 24.24. The physician has written a medication
18.18. Which of the following statements about order for a client. The nurse believes the dose to
sulfonamides is false? be above the usual dosage range. Which of the
(1 Point) following actions is best for the nurse to take?
A. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate (1 Point)
reductase A. Ask another nurse about the dosage order.
B. Dysfunction of the basal ganglia may occur in the B. Withhold the drug and question the physician about
newborn if sulfonamides are administered the dose.
in the late pregnancy C. Administer the drug as ordered and question the
C. Cross-allergenicity may occur between sulfonamides physician later that day at rounds.
and thiazides D. Document the concern in the client's record
19.19. Which of the following adverse effects is 25.25. A client with advanced liver disease is
most likely to occur with sulfonamides? being treated with antibiotics for a respiratory
(1 Point) infection. The nurse should assess the client for
A. Neurologic effects, including headache, dizziness which of the following?
and lethargy
(1 Point)
B. Hematuria
A. High risk for allergy to drugs
C. Kernicterus in newborn
B. Teratogenic effects of antibiotics
D. Skin reactions
C. Symptoms of drug toxicity
20.20. The client with pneumonia is being treated D. Drug dependence
with amoxicillin (Amoxil). The nurse monitors for 26.26. Cherie is diagnosed with uncomplicated
therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the urinary tract infection. The first line therapy is:
following? (1 Point)
(1 Point) A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) The nurse monitors the client for which side
C. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
effect of the medication?
D. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
(1 Point)
27.27. The nurse has provided instructions on the
A. Hypertension
use of penicillin V (Beepen-VK). Which statement B. Polycythemia
by the client indicates a need for further teaching? C. Nausea and vomiting
(1 Point) D. Hypovolemia
A. “I will complete the prescription even if my 34.34. A home care nurse is assisting a client in
symptoms go away before I finish the prescription.” managing cancer pain. To ensure that the client
B. “I will contact my health care provider if I develop a
has adequate and safe pain control, the nurse
fever and diarrhea.”
C. “I am taking this drug because I am allergic to
plans to:
cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)”. (1 Point)
D. “I will small, frequent meals while taking this drug.” A. Try multiple medication modalities for pain relief to
28.28. A client with renal failure is receiving get the maximum pain relief effect.
B. Start with low doses of medication and gradually
epoetin alfa ( Epogen) to support erythropoiesis.
increase to a dose that relieves pain not exceeding the
The nurse questions the client about compliance maximal daily dose
with taking which of the following medications C. Rely totally on prescription and over-the-counter
that supports red blood cell ( RBC ) production? medications to relieve pain
D. Keep a baseline level of pain so that the client does
(1 Point)
not become sedated or addicted
A. Calcium supplement
B. Iron supplement 35.35. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for
C. Magnesium supplement a client receiving methotrexate sodium (Folex,
D. Zinc supplement Rheumatrex) for treatment of lung cancer. Which
29.29. A nurse is caring for a client with active of the following instructions will the nurse include
tuberculosis who has started medication therapy in the client's teaching plan?
that includes rifampin (Rifadin). The nurse (1 Point)
instructs the client to expect which side effect of A. Sit in the sun to treat dermatitis
this medication? B. Encourage the client to receive a flu vaccine
C. Take aspirin for headache
(1 Point)
D. Use a soft toothbrush to brush teeth
A. Orange secretions
B. Biliuos urine 36.36. An oncology nurse is caring for a client
C. Yellow sclera undergoing chemotherapy. The client is to
D. Clay-colored stools receive IV metoclopramide (Reglan). For the most
30.30. A hospitalized client with active pulmonary therapeutic effects, the nurse plans to administer
tuberculosis has been receiving multi-drug this medication:
therapy for the past month and is being prepared (1 Point)
for discharge to home. The nurse determines that A. 20 minutes after chemotherapy has started
respiratory isolation is no longer required and B. 30 minutes before chemotherapy
C. The evening before chemotherapy has started.
that medication therapy has been effective when:
D. When the client request the medication.
(1 Point)
37.37. The oncology nurse is preparing to
A. Nausea and vomiting has stopped
B. The Mantoux test (PPD)is negative administer interleukin-2 (Aldesleukin, Proleukin)
C. Sputum cultures are negative intravenously for a client with metastatic renal cell
D. Stools are clay-colored carcinoma. The oncology nurse is preparing the
31.31. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed medication for administration. The oncology
with a skin infection who is receiving tobramycin nurse plans to administer interleukin-2 by:
sulfate (Nebcin) IV every 8 hours. Which of the (1 Point)
following would indicate to the nurse that the A. Infusing the medication over 15 minutes.
client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the B. Diluting the dose in 100 ml of 0.9% NaCl.
C. Reconstituting the mediction vial with a
medication?
bacteriostatic water.
(1 Point) D. Using an in-line filter to infuse the medication.
A. A BUN of 30mg/dL
38.Many antihistamines (H1 blockers) have
B. A WBC of 6000/ul
C. A sedimentation rate of 15mm/hour additional non-histamine-related effects; these
D. A total bilirubin of 0.5 mg/dL are likely to include all of the following, EXCEPT:
32.32. A client with cancer is receiving cisplatin (1 Point)
(Platinol). On assessment of the client, which of A. Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injected
(blockers are potent local anesthetics)
the following findings indicates that the client is
B. Anti-motion sickness effect (Autonomic effects)
having an adverse reaction to the medication? C. Increased in total peripheral resistance
(1 Point) D. Sedation
A. Excessive urination 39.Phenylephrine causes
B. Tinnitus
(1 Point)
C. Increased appetite
A. Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa
D. Yellow halos in front of the eyes
B. Increased gastric secretion and motility
33.33. A nurse is caring for a client with cancer C. Increased temperature
who is receiving daunorubicin (Cerubidiene) IV.
D. All of the above attack. Which of the following drugs would the
40.40. You are on your way to take an nurse expect to give to combat the inflammatory
examination and you suddenly get an attack of process?
diarrhea. If you stop at the nearby drugstore for (1 Point)
an over-the-counter opioid with antidiarrheal A. Theophylline
action, you will be asking for: B. Prednisone
C. Metoprolol
(1 Point)
D. Albuterol
A. Codeine
B. Dextromethorphan 47.47. Which of the following is a prophylactic
C. Loperamide agent that appears to stabilize mast cells?
D. Nalbuphine (1 Point)
41.41. Which of the following drugs is the drug of A. Aminophylline
choice in anaphylaxis associated with B. Cromolyn
C. Metoprolol
bronchospasm and hypotension?
D. Prednisone
(1 Point)
48.48. This medication controls chest pain by
A. Cortisone
B. Epinephrine opening up the coronary arteries and reducing
C. Phenylephrine the heart’s demand for blood.
D. Terbutaline (1 Point)
42.42. One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerine, A. ACE inhibitors
isoproterenol, and histamine have in common: B. Aspirin
C. Nitroglycerin
(1 Point)
D. Calcium channel blockers
A. Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile force
B. Tachycardia 49.49. The nurse is planning discharge teaching
C. Increased gastric acid secretion for a client who was treated for a new onset of
D. Postural hypotension and throbbing headache angina. The physician has written the following
43.43. A client is admitted with an acute asthma prescriptions for the client. Which medication
attack. The provider orders an aminophylline should the nurse question?
bolus to be given IV STAT and a maintenance rate (1 Point)
through peripheral infusion of 2 mg/kg/hr. One A. Viagra (sildenafil)
hour later, the client becomes irritable, nauseous, B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
C. Lopressor (metaprolol)
tachycardic, and then begins to vomit. The
D. Transderm (nitroglycerin)
nurse's best interpretation of these findings is:
50.50. A nurse should understand that a patient
(1 Point)
who has supraventricular tachycardia is receiving
A. Hypoxemia
B. Respirstory alkalosis propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) in order to:
C. Dehydration (1 Point)
D. Theophylline toxicity A. diminish the stroke volume of the left ventricle.
44.44. A client with asthma is receiving a B. reduce peripheral vascular resistance.
C. decrease cardiac electrical activity.
theophylline preparation to promote
D. inhibit venous return to the right atrium.
bronchodilation. Because of the risk of drug
51.51. Which of the following responses should a
toxicity, the nurse must monitor the client’s
nurse expect in a patient who is receiving
serum theophylline level closely. The nurse knows
nifedipine (Procardia), if the medication is having
that the therapeutic theophylline concentration
the desired effect?
falls which range?
(1 Point)
(1 Point) A. Decreased blood pressure
A, 21-25 mcg/ml B. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
B. 295 mcg/ml C. Improved cardiac contractility
C. 5-10 mcg/ml D. Diminished premature ventricular contractions
D. 10-20 mcg/ml
52.52. Competitive antagonism of which of the
45.45. A client who weighs 79.4 kg is receiving
following occurs at β-receptor sites?
aminophylline of 400 mg in 500 ml at 50 ml/hr.
(1 Point)
the theophylline level is reported as 6 mcg/ml. A. Catecholamines
The nurse calls the physician who instructed the B. Adrenergic sites
nurse to change the dosage to 0.45 mg/kg/hr. C. Acetylcholine
the nurse should: D. Norepinephrine
(1 Point) 53.53. β-blockers should be avoided in the
A. question the order because the dosage is too low following conditions?
B. question the order because the dosage is too high (1 Point)
C. set the pump at 45 ml/hr A. Bronchoconstriction
D. stop the infusion and have the lab repeat the B. HPN
theophylline measurement. C. Angina
46.46. Alex, a 24-year old factory worker with a D. MI
history of asthma went to the emergency 54.54. Nursing assessment of a client taking β-
department with difficulty of breathing. A severe blockers should include all of the ff. except:
inflammatory response triggered Alex asthma (1 Point)
A. Pulmonary function test 64.64. Hypokalemia induced by so many diuretic
B. Baseline ECG
agents may:
C. Glucose level
D. blood pressure
(1 Point)
A. decreased the action of digitalis
55.55. Which of the ff indicate an action of
B. increase the risk of digitalis toxicity
nitrates? C. reduce the effectiveness of uricosuric drugs
(1 Point) D. decrease absorption of tricyclic antidepressant
A. smooth muscle contraction agents
B. Vasoconstriction 65.65. A client has developed neprogenic
C. Smooth muscle relaxation
diabetes insipidus. Which of the ff drugs would
D. Iincreased preload
likely be prescribed for this client?
56.56. The result of nitrate administration is:
(1 Point)
(1 Point)
A. hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
A. decreased myocardial oxygen demand
B. spironolactone (Aldactone)
B. increased myocardial oxygen demand
C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C. increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume
D. bumetanide (Bumex)
D. increased atrial pressure
66.66. Aldosterone antagonists:
57.57. When nitrates are administered early to the
(1 Point)
acute MI client, the effect is:
A. create an osmotic agent
(1 Point) B. Inhibit the exchange of sodium for potassium
A. Hypotension C. Cause metabolic acidosis
B. Bradycardia D. Work poorly in the presence of endogenous
C. reduced mortality aldosterone.
D. reduced morbidity
67.67. A client who had a myocardial infarction
58.58. (ACE) Inhibitors participate in the renin- has an order for digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg po
angiotensin-aldosterone system to have which of daily and furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg intravenously,
the following physiologic effects? stat. Because the client is receiving these
(1 Point) medications, the client should be assessed for
A. Inhibit conversion of angiotension II to angiotensin I
B. Vasoconstriction and sodium depletion
which of the following manifestations?
C. Promote sodium and water retention (1 Point)
D. Stimulate vasodilation and inhibit sodium depletion A. Oliguria
59.59. Before ambulating a client for the first time B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
after administering an (ACE) Inhibitors, the nurse
D. Hypokalemia
monitors the client for: 68.68. Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias
(1 Point) needs to be treated with anticoagulants?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Irregular heartbeat
(1 Point)
C. edema A. Right bundle branch block
D. hypotension B. Second degree AV Block
C. Wandering atrial pacemaker
60.60. The action of ACE inhibitors interrupts the
D. atrial fibrillation
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system 69.69. The half-life of heparin is:
mechanism, thereby producing which of the ff? (1 Point)
(1 Point) A. 10 minutes
A. reduced renal blood flow C. 8-12 hours
B. reduced sodium and water retention D. 1-2 days
C. Increased peripheral resistance
70.70. Heparin therapy is evaluated as effective if
D. Increased sodium excretion and potassium
reabsorption
the coagulation profiles are:
61.61. Vasodilators are agent that (1 Point)
Option 1
(1 Point)
A. Within the baseline
A. Relax smooth muscle
B. Lower than the baseline
B. Are used to treat hypotention
C. 1.5 times the baseline
C. stimulate the adrenergic receptors of peripheral
D. over 2.5 times the baseline
sympathetic nerves
D. cause respiratory depression
71.71. Which drug is used to stop bleeding
62.62. Vasodilators are used to treat: associated with heparin overdose?
(1 Point) (1 Point)
A. DM A. Urokinase (Abbokinase)
B. HPN B. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
C. Atrial fibrillation C. Vit. K (Aquamephyton)
D. Hypotension D. Protamine Sulfate (Protamine)

63.63. A xanthine derivative frequently used to 72.72. Streptokinase (Streptase) lyses clots by:
treat intermittent claudication is: (1 Point)
A. Increasing plasmin levels
(1 Point)
B. Inactivating plasminogen
A. nifedipine (Adalat)
C. Decreasing plasmin levels
B. pentoxyfylline ( Trental)
D. Increasing erythrocytes aggregation.
C. Hydralazine ( Apresoline)
D. Captopril (Capoten)
73.73. A nurse has an order to administer 20mEq 81.81. Which of the following is not a potassium-
of potassium to a client with a potassium level of sparing diuretics?
3.0mEq/L. The nurse draws up this medication (1 Point)
knowing it will be administered: A. Aldactone
B. Amiloride (Midamor)
(1 Point)
C. Triamterene
A. After dilution in an IV solution
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Directly by IV push
C. Intramuscularly 82.82. Carlo’s history was taken upon admission.
D. Subcutaneously Impression is peptic ulcer disease (P.U.D.). Carlo
74.74. An adult patient with a very high was prescribed with antacids. The rationale for
potassium level has received sodium polysterene. prescribing antacids to Carlo is to:
The nurse evaluates that the medication was (1 Point)
most effective if the client repeat serum A. Aid in the digestion process
B. Decrease gastric motility
potassium level is:
C. Neutralize gastric acid
(1 Point) D. Prevent constipation
A. 6.2 mEq/L
83.83. An elderly client says, ‘I take Milk of
B. 5.8 mEq/L
C. 5.4 mEq/L Magnesia every day so I will be regular. Is there
D. 4.9 mEq/L anything else I should do? What should the nurse
75.75. A nurse reviews the electrolyte values of a include in the discussion?
client with CHF notes the potassium level is low (1 Point)
and notifies the physician. The physician A. A gentle laxative such as Milk of magnesia is a good
way to promote regular bowels
prescribed an IV KCl (Potassium chloride). When
B. Eating more fruits and vegetables and fiber-
administering this drug, the nurse plans to: containing foods helps to keep bowels regular.
(1 Point) C. Limiting fluid intake will help with bowel regularity
A. Inject it as a bolus D. Getting adequate rest promotes good intestinal
B. Dilute it per medication instruction function
C. Use a filter in the IV line 84.84. A client is taking cascara sagrada. The
D. Apply cool compress to the IV site during
nurse tells the client that which of the following
administration
76.76 Hypokalemia induced by many diuretic may be experienced as a side effects of the
agents may: medication?
(1 Point) (1 Point)
A.GI bleeding
A. decrease the action of digitalis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
B. increase the risk of digitalis toxicity
C. Abdominal cramps
C. reduce the effectiveness of uricosuric drugs
D. Partial bowel obstruction
D. decrease absorption of tricyclic antidepressants
77.77. Which of the following is the potential side 85.85. A physician tells the nurse that a client can
effect of IV furosemide? be given droperidol (Inapsine) for the relief of
(1 Point) post operative nausea. The nurse anticipates that
A. drowsiness the physician will order the medication by which
B. diarrhea of the following routes?
C. Cystitis (1 Point)
D. Hearing loss A. Oral
78.78. Which of the following is considered as B. Intravenous
high ceiling diuretics? C. Subcutaneuos
D. Intranasal
(1 Point)
A. Loop diuretics 86.86. Antacids differ mainly in their absorption
B. Osmotic diuretics and stool consistency. Which of the following has
C. Potassium sparing diuretics a strong laxative effect?
D. All of the above
(1 Point)
79.79. What is the normal range of serum A. Mg hydroxide
potassium? B. Aluminum hydroxide
(1 Point) C. Calcium carbonate
A. 3.5-5.1 mEq/L D. Sodium carbonate
B. 135-145 mEq/L 87.87. When choosing antacids, which of the
C. 98-107 mEq/L following assessment parameters is most
D. 1.5-2.5 mEq/L
important for the nurse to keep in mind?
80.80. Which of the following clients is more likely (1 Point)
to experience adverse effects from treatment with A. Determine fluid composition of the antacid
diuretics? B. Assess food intake
(1 Point) C. Determine electrolyte composition
A. A 21 year old client D. Identify pain patterns
B. A 40 year old client 88.88. This is a lubricating laxative and is not very
C. A 60 year old client effective if bowel tone is absent or severely
D. A 75 year old client
reduced.
(1 Point)
A. Aluminum hydroxide (1 Point)
B. Castor oil A. The ht of the child is under 4 ft
C. Mineral oil B. The child age is between 5-6 years old
D. Omeprazole C. The epiphyseal shaft is often
89.89. Which of the following OTC agents should D. The epiphyseal shaft is closed
the client on uricosuric drugs be instructed to 97.97. A 54-year old obese patient with type 2
avoid? diabetes and a history of alcoholism probably
(1 Point) should not receive metformin because it can
A. Tylenol increase the risk of:
B. Ibuprofen
(1 Point)
C. Aspirin
A. A disulfiram-like reaction
D. Naproxen
B. Excessive weight gain
90.90. In the early treatment of Rheumatoid C. Hypoglycemia
arthritis (RA), which of the following drugs would D. Lactic acidosis
the nurse expect to be included in the client’s 98.98. Amphetamines are included in the
drug regimen? category of drugs of abuse because of their
(1 Point) ability to:
A. NSAIDs (1 Point)
B. Systemic corticosteroids A. Cause nervousness
C. Disease modifying anti-rheumatoidal drugs B. Decreased weight
(DMARDs) C. Raised BP
D. NSAIDs and DMARDs D. Enhanced performance
91.91. What type of opioid that act like opioid 99.99. Antiepileptic act to suppress seizure
and relieve pain when given to the client who has activity by all of the following mechanisms,
not taken any pure opioids except:
(1 Point) (1 Point)
A. Full agonist A. Altering ionic conductance
B. Mixed agonist-antagonist B. Altering neuronal membrane potentials
C. Partial agonist C. Altering levels of neurotransmitters
D. none of the above. D. Eliminating the epileptogenic focus
92.92. The aim of pain management is to alleviate 100.100. What is the therapeutic level of lithium
pain or reduce pain to a level of comfort that is carbonate for acute manic phase?
acceptable to the client. One of the basic types (1 Point)
includes pharmacological pain management. A. 0.5-1.5 mEq/L (Maintenance level)
What drug that controls pain by temporarily B. 1.0-1.5 mEq/L
C. 2.0 -2.5 mEq/L
deadens the nerves that transmit pain signal?
D. none of the above
(1 Point)
A. Non-opioid/NSAIDs
B. Opioid Analgesics
C. Adjuvant analgesics
D. Anesthesia
93.93. Opioids relieve pain and provide a sense of
euphoria. Examples of opioid derivatives include:
(1 Point)
A. Aspirin and Ibuprofen
B. Tranquilizers
C. Procaine
D. Morphine and Codeine
94.94. General principles of analgesic
administration include all of the following, except:
(1 Point)
A. Analgesic appropriate to type and level of pain
B. Select the easiest and most cost effective
administration route
C. Schedule administration frequency
D. Schedule placebo use
95.95. A client with DM receives Humulin Regular
Insulin 8 units subcutaneous (SC) at 7:30 am. The
nurse would be most alert to signs of
hypoglycemia at what time during the day?
(1 Point)
A. 9:30-11:30 am
B. 11:30-1:30 pm
C. 1:30-3:30pm
D. 3:30-5:30 pm
96.96. Which of the following is contraindicated
in the administration of growth hormone?