Aakash Cbse Term-Ii - Amtp (Class Xii) - 2021-22

Aakash Model Test Papers (AMTP)
Term-II Examination
Class
Physics
12
Chemistry
Biology
Mathematics
Process:
1. A student must go through the instructions carefully and adhere
strictly to them.
2. A student must finish answering the question paper of each subject

in stipulated time.
Benefits:
1. This booklet will help students to prepare for school examinations
as it comprises of most relevant questions as per guidelines and
paper pattern provided by CBSE for Term-II Exam.
2. These model test papers will help students to analyze where they
stand and what additional efforts are required for further
improvement in Term-II Exam.
Solutions:
After attempting the papers, a student must refer to the answers and
solutions available on our website www.aakash.ac.in. To get the text
solution, students are required to sign in their account with their log in
credentials.
Contents
S.No. Subject Page No.
1. Physics ...........................................................01 – 12
2. Chemistry ........................................................13 – 26
3. Biology ............................................................27 – 40
4. Mathematics ....................................................41 – 50
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Edition: 2021-22
Aakash Educational Services Limited [AESL]

Model Test Papers
PHYSICS
Model Test Paper-1 Physics (Class XII)
Time : 2 Hours Model Test Paper-1 M.M. : 35

for
School/Board Exams (Term-II)
PHYSICS
Topics: Electromagnetic wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instrument, Wave Optics, Dual
nature of Radiation and Matter, Atom and Nuclei, Semiconductor.
General Instructions:
1. There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has three sections: Section A, Section B and Section C.
3. Section A contains three questions of two marks each, Section B contains eight
questions of three marks each, Section C contains one case study-based question of
five marks.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one
question of two marks and two questions of three marks. You have to attempt only
one of the choices in such questions.
5. You may use log tables if necessary but use of calculator is not allowed.
SECTION-A
1. (a) What is the difference between conduction current and displacement

current? [1]
(b) A capacitor is being charged with a current of 3 A. What is the
displacement current in capacitor? [1]
2. (a) What do you mean by total internal Reflection? [1]
(b) Light rays are incident on a glass-air interface. What is the maximum
possible incidence angle for light rays which can get refracted into air if
refractive index of glass is 1.414? [1]
3. (a) Dopplers effect of light has been widely used to study the universe.
Explain. [1]
(b) Write any two uses of polarized light. [1]
OR
Explain Huygen’s principle. Also plot incident and refracted wavefronts
for refraction through a convex lens. [1 + 1]
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
(1)
Physics (Class XII) Model Test Paper-1
SECTION-B
4. Make a ray diagram for a telescope under normal adjustment and deduce the
expression for magnification. Also comment on its tube length. [3]
5. (a) Explain interference. [1]
(b) What are the conditions for two point sources to obtain a sustained
interference pattern on screen? [1]
(c) If two waves of intensities I and 4I interfere, what will be ratio of maximum
to minimum intensity? [1]
6. An electron at rest is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 volt. Find
(a) Speed [1]
(b) Linear momentum and [1]
(c) De Broglie wavelength of electron [1]
7. (a) Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency
of radiation incident on a photosensitive metal plate. [1½]
(b) How the slope of graph will change from one metal to another metal? [1]
(c) How can the value of Planck's constant be determined from this graph?
[½]
8. (a) What do you understand by Emission spectrum? [1]
(b) Compute the wavelength of series start and series limit of Lyman series
in Hydrogen spectrum. [2]
OR
(a) What do you mean by stable orbits? Is it possible for an electron to
revolve around a hydrogen nucleus and have angular momentum equal
3h
to ? [2]
4
(b) Why the model proposed by Rutherford was not stable? [1]
9. (a) In a heavy nuclei the number of neutrons are found to be more than the
number of protons. Explain. [1½]
(b) If the activity of a radioactive sample reduces by 75% in 6 hours. What is
its half-life? [1½]
OR
(a) A nuclear fission is often accompanied by emission of ,  and -rays.
Which of these are electromagnetic waves? [1]
(2)
(b) What is the SI unit of radioactivity? How is it related to curie? [1]

(c) What is the effect of temperature and pressure on radioactivity? [1]
10. (a) Briefly explain the working of solar cells. [2]
(b) Draw I–V characteristics of a solar cell. [1]
11. (a) What do you mean by intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor? [1½]
(b) An intrinsic semiconductor has carrier concentration of 109/m3.
If 1015
Aluminium atoms are added per m , find the concentration of free
3
electrons. [1½]
SECTION-C
12. When white light is incident on prism we can observe multiple optical
phenomenons such as TIR, refraction, dispersion and deviation. In all these
phenomenons, deviation is the angle between emergent ray and the direction
of incident ray while separation of visible light into its component colours
(VIBGYOR) is called as dispersion.
Answer following questions on the basis of information given.
(a) If deviation of red light is 35° and that of violet light is 40°, the angular
dispersion is [1]
(i) 5° (ii) 75°
(iii) 2.5° (iv) 37.5°
(3)
(b) A light ray is incident normally on a glass prism of refracting angle 45°. It
is found that the ray suffers TIR at the 2nd face. Refractive index of glass
can be [1]
(i) 1.21 (ii) 1.415
(iii) 1.732 (iv) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) For an equilateral prism if a light ray is incident at 60°, it emerges out at
60°. Refractive index of prism medium is [1]
(i) 3 (ii) 4
(iii) 5 (iv) 6
(d) For a light ray undergoing minimum deviation through an equilateral prism
[1]
(i) Incident ray will always be parallel to the base of prism
(ii) Refracted ray inside prism will always be parallel to the base of prism
(iii) Emergent ray will always be parallel to the base of prism
(iv) None of these
(e) Consider an arrangement of two prisms A and B. For a light ray incident
on A
[1]
(i) A will bend it clockwise and B will bend it anticlockwise
(ii) A will bend it anticlockwise and B will bend it clockwise
(iii) Both A and B will bend the ray clockwise
(iv) Both A and B will bend the ray anticlockwise
❑ ❑ ❑
(4)

for
PHYSICS
Topics: Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instrument, Wave Optics, Dual
Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atom and Nuclei, Semiconductor.
five marks.
SECTION-A
1. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly the three salient features
observed in photoelectric effect, which can explained on the basis of the above
equation. [2]
2. How does a light emitting diode (LED) work? Give two advantage of LED’s
over the conventional incandescent lamps. [2]
OR
Assuming that the two ideal diodes D1 and D2 used in the electric circuit shown
in the figure are ideal. Find out the value of the current flowing through 1 
resistor.
(5)
3. Distinguish between a metal and an insulator on the basis of energy band

diagrams. [2]
SECTION-B
4. How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred as heat wave?
Write their one important use. [3]
5. With the help of a suitable ray diagram, derive a relation between the object
distance (u), image distance (v) and radius of curvature (R) for the convex
spherical surface when a ray of light travels from rarer to denser medium. [3]
6. In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits 0.15 mm apart are illuminated
by monochromatic light of wavelength 450 nm. The screen is 1.0 m away from
the slits.
(i) Find the distance of the second (a) bright fringe (b) dark fringe from the
central maximum. [2]
(ii) How will the fringe pattern change if the screen is moved away from the
slits? [1]
OR
(i) State the essential conditions for the phenomenon of total internal
reflection to take place. [2]
(ii) Draw a graph to show the variation of angle of deviation () with that of
angle of incidence (i) for a monochromatic ray of light passing through a
glass prism. [1]
7. Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Deduce
an expression for total magnification when the final image formed at the near
point. [3]
8. Using the relevant Bohr’s postulates, derive the expressions for the speed of
the electron in the nth orbit and radius of nth orbit of the electron, in hydrogen
atom. [3]
OR
The second line of Lyman series in hydrogen spectrum has wavelength
5400 Å. Find the wavelength of the first line.
(6)
9. (a) Define the term ‘activity’ of a sample of a radioactive nucleus. Write its S.I.
unit. [1]
92
(b) The life of 238 U undergoing -decay is 4.5 × 109 year. Determine the
238 238
activity of 10 g sample of 92 U . Given that 1 g of 92 U contains
25.3 × 1020 atoms [2]
2 2 3 1
10. (a) In a typical nuclear reaction, eg 1 H + 1H → 1He
+ 0n+ 3.27 MeV
, although
number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain.
[2]
22
(b) Write the equation of + decay of 11 Na [1]
11. Draw the circuit diagram of half wave rectifier and explain its working [3]
SECTION-C
12. Young’s double slit experiment: (YDSE) S1 and S2 are two monochromatic
coherent sources separated by distance d placed at a distance D from the
screen. P is the point of observation at a distance y from the central bright
fringe as shown in figure. Fringe at point P will be bright or dark depends on
path difference for bright fringe path difference (n) and for dark fringe path

difference ( 2n − 1)
2
(a) In the Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width depends upon [1]
(i) Distance between two slits
(ii) Distance between the slits and the screen
(iii) Wavelength of light
(iv) All the above
(7)
(b) In Young’s double slits experiment if one of the slit is closed [1]
(i) The contrast between the bright and dark band decreases
(ii) The width of the bands decreases
(iii) The central bands becomes dark
(iv) The interference bands disappear
(c) In Young’s double slit interference experiment the wavelength of light used
is 6000 Å. If the path difference between wave reaching at a point P on
the screen is 1.5 microns, then the point P [1]
(i) Second bright band occur (ii) Second dark band occur
(iii) Third dark band occurs (iv) Third bright band occurs
(d) Two light waves are represented by S1 = asint and S2 = asin(t – ) when
the overlap at point P. If at point dark fringe occurs, then the possible value
of  may be [1]

(i)  (ii)
3
 
(iii) (iv)
4 6
(e) If Young’s double slit apparatus is shifted from air to water, then [1]
(i) Fringe width decreases (ii) Fringe width increases
(iii) Fringe width remains same (iv) Fringe system disappears
❑ ❑ ❑
(8)

for
PHYSICS
Topics: Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instrument, Wave Optics, Dual
Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atom and Nuclei, Semiconductor.
five marks.
SECTION-A
1. In a pure semiconductor crystal of Si, if aluminium is added then what type of

extrinsic semiconductor is obtained. Draw the energy band diagram of this
extrinsic semiconductor. [2]
2. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are separated by a distance of
0.28 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m away. If the wavelength of light used
is 600 nm, then find the distance between central bright fringe and fourth bright
fringe. [2]
OR
What is the de Broglie wavelength and momentum of an electron with kinetic
energy of 130 eV. [2]
3. Explain briefly the formation of a primary rainbow. [2]
SECTION-B
4. Explain in brief why the wave picture of light was unable to explain the features
of photoelectric emission. [3]
(9)
5. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of

90 cm. Find out the area through which light bulb can emerge out. The water
is having a refractive index of 1.33 and consider bulb as a point source. [3]
6. Determine the Q value and the net kinetic energy gained in the following
reaction [assuming initially the nucleus is at rest] [3]
12
6
C + 12
6
C 20
→ 10 Ne + 24He
Atomic masses given to be
m  12
6
20
C  = 12 u, m  10 Ne  = 19.992439 u
7. Explain what is Brewster’s law and how it is related to refractive index of a

medium. [3]
8. A thin convex lens made of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium
of refractive index n2.
A parallel beam of light is incident on lens. Discuss the path of rays of light
emerging from convex lens if
(i) n1 > n2 (ii) n1 = n2 [3]
OR
Draw the graph to explain the variation of angle of deviation ‘’ with variation
in the angle of incidence, for a monochromatic ray of light, passing through a
prism of refracting angle A. Deduce the relation. [3]
sin m + A 
=
 A
sin  
2
9. If the speed of photoelectron is 105 m/s
(a) What should be the incident light frequency if  = 2.3 eV? [3]
(b) Calculate the stopping potential
(c) Does metal show photoelectric effect for  = 6000 Å.
(10)
10. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 6 for

distant objects. The separation between objective and eyepiece is 36 cm and
the final image is formed at infinity. Determine focal length of objective and
eyepiece. [3]
11. (a) Mention the part of electromagnetic spectrum whose wavelength lies in
the range of 10–10 m. Mention it’s application [1]
(b) A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z direction. Discuss
about the directions of its electric and magnetic field. [1]
(c) If the amplitude of electric part of electromagnetic wave travelling in
x-direction is 300 Vm–1 and an electron is constrained to move along
y-direction then What is the maximum electric force on the electrons? [1]
OR
(a) Mention the conditions that must be fulfilled to obtain a sustained and
observable interference pattern [1½]
(b) Why does the sun and full moon appear reddish near horizon? [1½]
SECTION-C
Case Study: Junction Diode

12. A semiconductor diode is basically a P-N junction with metallic contacts
provided at the ends for an application of external voltage. When external
voltage is applied such that P-side connected to positive terminal of battery
and n-side to negative terminal it is said to be forward biased and when
external voltage applied such that n-side is positive and p side is negative is
called reverse biased.
(a) In a p-n junction diode under reverse biasing, electron flow takes place
mainly from [1]
(i) p-side to n-side (ii) n-side to p-side
(iii) p to n then n to p (iv) n to p then p to n
(b) A potential barrier of 0.3 V exists across a p-n junction. If the depletion
region is 1 m wide, then the intensity of electric field in this region is [1]
(i) 2 × 105 V/m (ii) 3 × 105 V/m
(iii) 4 × 105 V/m (iv) 5 × 105 V/m
(11)
(c) Potential barrier developed in a junction diode opposes the flow of [1]
(i) Minority carriers in both region only
(ii) Majority carriers only
(iii) Electrons in P-region
(iv) Holes in P-region
(d) When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, then it [1]
(i) Raises the potential barrier
(ii) Reduces the majority carrier current to zero
(iii) Lowers the potential barrier
(iv) No effect on the potential barrier
(e) The typical V-I characteristics of a silicon diode is best represented by [1]
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
❑ ❑ ❑
(12)
Solutions of Model Test Paper-1 Physics (Class XII)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-1
For School/Board Exams (Term-II)
PHYSICS
Topics: Electromagnetic waves, Ray optics and optical instruments, wave optics, Dual nature of radiation and matter, Atoms,
Nuclei, Semi conductor electronics-materials, Devices and simple circuits.
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. (a) Conduction current is due to flow of free electrons but displacement current is due to time varying
electric flux. [1]
(b) Id = IC = 3 A [1]
Ans. 2. (a) TIR is the optical phenomenon in which waves arriving at an interface are reflected back into the
1st medium and no light is refracted into the 2nd medium. [1]
(b) [1]
air
sin C =
glass
1
 sinC =
1.414
 C 45°
Ans. 3. (a) We can estimate the velocity of stars and galaxies by applying dopplers effect of light. [1]
(b) (1) It is useful in making holograms. [1]
(2) Useful to improve colour contrast in old oil paintings.
OR
According to Huygen’s principle, each point on a wavefront is a source of secondary wavelets and
wavelets emanating from these points spreads out in all directions with the speed of wave. The common
envelope over the wavelets in same phase gives new wavefront. [1]
[1]
(1)
Physics (Class XII) Solutions of Model Test Paper-1
SECTION-B
Ans. 4. [1]
OI = focal length of objective (Fo)

EI = focal length of eyepiece (Fe)

Magnification of telescope =

h
= EI (tan  for small angles)
h
OI
OI
=
EI
F0
m= [1½]
Fe
Tube length = OE = Fo + Fe [½]
Ans. 5. (a) The superimposition of two waves to form a new wave, such that the displacement of new wave at
any instant is equal to vector sum of displacements of individual waves, is called as Interference. [1]
(b) To obtain sustained interference pattern on screen, interfering waves should be coherent i.e., having
same frequency and constant phase difference. [1]
2
Imax  I + I 
(c) = 1 2
 [1]
Imin  I − I 
 1 2 
9
=
1
Imax : Imin  9 : 1
Ans. 6. K.E. attained by electron = eV
= 1.6 × 10–19 J
2K 2  1.6  10−19
(a) Speed. v = = [1]
m 9.1 10−31
= 5.93 × 105 m/s
(b) Momentum, p = 2mK [1]
= 2  9.1 10−31  1.6  10−19

= 5.4 × 10–25 Kg m/s
h
(c) De Broglie wavelength  = [1]
p
= 1.23 nm
(2)
Ans. 7. (a) eV0 = h – [1½]
h 
V0 = −
e e
V0 : Stopping potential
 = Incident frequency
(b) Slope of graph is constant and will be same for all metals. [1]
h
(c) Slope = [½]
e
 Planck's constant (h) = (Slope of graph) × e
Ans. 8. (a) Emission spectrum is the spectrum of electromagnetic radiation emitted due to an electron making a
transition from high to low energy state. [1]
1 1 1
(b) For series start = R 2 − 2  [1]
s 1 2 
 s = 1216 Å
For series limit
1 1 1 
= R 2 − 2  [1]
L  1  
 L = 911.3 Å
OR
h
(a) Orbits in which angular momentum of electron is an integral multiple of are called stable orbits.
2
3h h
Given L = = 1.5
4 2
Here 1.5 is not an integer, so it is not possible. [2]
(b) As per the Maxwell equations, in Rutherford model the electrons would radiate energy continuously
and eventually spiral into nucleus.
Hence, it failed to explain the stability of electrons. [1]
Ans. 9. (a) Protons, being charged particles, repel each other. As we go to heavier elements, with many protons,
there will be large repulsive force to add any new proton. Although nuclear force is stronger than
electrostatic force but it has short range. Therefore extra neutrons add extra attractive force in order
to keep nucleus bounded. [1½]
(b) Let No = 100 [1½]
Then, N = 25
(3)
N0
Using, N = and putting t = 6
2t /T
We get, Half life T = 3
OR
(a) Only -rays are EM waves [1]
(b) SI unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (1 Bq = 1 decay/s) [1]
1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq
(c) Radioactivity is Independent of temperature and pressure [1]
Ans. 10. (a) Solar cell is a p-n junction diode which converts solar energy into electrical energy. When photons
with energy greater than band gap falls at the junction, electron-hole pairs are generated. Electrons
are swept to n-side and holes to p-side due to electric field of depletion region which are collected by
contacts on both the sides. Thus p-side becomes positive and n-side becomes negative giving rise
to photovoltage. [2]
(b) [1]
Ans. 11. (a) The semiconductors like Ge and Si without any impurity added to them are called intrinsic
semiconductor. When a suitable impurity is added to them in order to increase the conductivity, they
are then called extrinsic semiconductors like Ga-As. CuInSe2. [1½]
(b) We know, ne nh = ni2 [1½]
( ) ( )
2
ne 1015 = 109
 ne = 103
SECTION-C
Ans. 12. (a) Answer (i)
Angular dispersion  = V –R
= 40° – 35°
= 5° [1]
(b) Answer (iv)
For TIR
(4)
1
sin i 

1
  ( i = 45)
sin i
  2 [1]
(c) Answer (i)

sin i
If i = e then  = = 3 [1]
 A
sin  
2
(d) Answer (ii)
Refracted ray will be parallel to base of prism in given condition. [1]
(e) Answer (iii)
Prism bends light ray towards its base. So, A will bend it clockwise and B will bend it anticlockwise.
[1]
❑ ❑ ❑
(5)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-2
PHYSICS
Topics: Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instrument, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and
Matter, Atom and Nuclei, Semiconductor.
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given below.
1
h = 2
mvmax + W0
2
where  = frequency of incident radiation
1 2
mvmax = Maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photon
2
W0 = work function of the target metal [½]
Three salient features observed are
(i) Below threshold frequency 0 corresponding to W0, no emission of photoelectrons takes place [½]
(ii) As energy of a photon depends on the frequency of light, so maximum kinetic energy with which
photoelectron is emitted depends only on energy of photon or on frequency of incident radiation. [½]
(iii) For given frequency of incident radiation, intensity of light depends on the number of photons per unit
area per unit time so number of photoelectrons depends only on intensity and hence saturation
photoelectric current. [½]
Ans. 2. Light emitting diode is simply a forward biased p-n junction which emits spontaneous light radiation. When
diode is forward biased, electrons are sent from n to p and holes are sent from p to n. At the junction,
energy is released in the form of photon due to recombination of the excess minority charge carrier with
the majority charge carrier. [1]
Advantages:
(i) Low operational voltage and less power. [½]
(ii) Fast action and no warm up time required [½]
OR
(6)
In the given circuit D1 is in forward biased and D2 will be in reversed biased [1]
So, current through 1  resistor

V
I=
Reff
8
I=
3 +1
=2A [1]
Ans. 3. In metals two types of situations are possible. In first case, the conduction band is partially filled and
valence band is partially empty. In second case, conduction band overlaps with valence band.
On applying even an small electric field, metals can conduct electricity [1]
Insulator:- For insulator, the energy gap between the conduction and valance band is large (Eg > 3 eV).
Also the conduction band is practically empty as shown below.
When an electric field is applied across such a solid, the electrons find it difficult so acquire such a large
amount of energy to reach the conduction band. Thus the conduction band continues to be empty that’s
why no current flows through insulator. [1]
(7)
Ans. 4. Infra-red waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules. [1]
Intra-red waves are referred to as heat waves, because water molecules present in most material readily
absorb intra-red waves (many other molecules for example, CO2, NH3 also absorb intra-red waves). After
absorption their thermal motion increases, that is they heat up and heat their surroundings [1]
Infra-red radiation play an important role in maintaining the earth’s warmth or average temperature
through green house effect. [1]
Ans. 5. Let an object O is placed at a distance u from convex spherical refracting surface.
In ONC, i =  +  [1]
In INC, r =  + 
From Snell’s law
sin i  2
=  1sini = 2sinr [½]
sin r 1
1(i) = 2(r) [since angles are small]
1( + ) = 2( + ) [½]
1 − 2 =  (2 − 1 )
1 tan  − 2 tan = (2 − 1 ) tan 
MN MN MN
1 − 2 = (2 − 1 ) [½]
OP IP PC
Applying cartesian sign convention

OP = −u, IP = −v , PC = +R
2 1 2 − 1
− = [½]
v u R
Ans. 6. Given d = 0.15 mm = 0.15 × 10–3 m

 = 450 nm = 450 × 10–9 m, D = 1.0 m
(i) (a) Distance of second bright fringe from central maximum (n = 2) is
nD 2  1 450  10−9

y 2b = = −3
= 6  10−3 m = 6 mm [1]
d 0.15  10
(8)
(b) Distance of second dark fringe from central maximum (n = 2) is
 1  D
y 2d =  n − 
 2 d
 1  1 450  10−9
= 2 − 
 2  0.15  10−3
= 4.5 × 10–3 m
= 4.5 mm [1]
D
(ii) If screen is moved away from the slit D increases, so fringe width  = increases [1]
d
OR
(i) Essential condition for TIR are:
(a) The ray should pass from optically denser medium into a optically rarer medium [1]
(b) Angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle for the given pair of medium. [1]
(ii) [1]
Ans. 7. A compound microscope consist of two convex lenses. The lens towards the object is called objective
and lens toward the observer is called eyepiece. This combination of lenses forms a magnified lens which
form a magnified image of object. [½]
[1]
Magnification due to objective
h v 0
m0 = = [½]
h u0
 D
When final image is formed at near point angular magnification due to equal piece is m0 =  1 +  [½]
 fe 
Total magnification M = m0me

(9)
v  D
= 0 1 +  [½]
u0  fe 
where v0 = distance of image produced by objective lens.
u0 = object distance from objective lens
fe = focal length of the eyepiece
D = Least distance for distinct vision
Ans. 8. Speed of the electron in the nth orbit. The centripetal force required for revolution is provided by the
electrostatic force of attraction between the electron and the nucleus.
mv 2 Ke 2
= 2 …(i)
r r
 1 
 where K = 4  [1]
 0
The angular momentum for any permitted orbit is

nh
mvr =
2
nh
r = …(ii) [1]
2mv
On putting the value of r in equation (i)
nh
Mv 2  = Ke2
2Mv
2Ke 2
v= [½]
nh
On putting the value of v in equation (ii)
n 2 h2
r =
42mKe2
r  n2 [½]
OR
For Lyman series
1 1 1
= R 2 − 2
 1 n 
Let 1 and 2 be the wavelength of the first and second line respectively, then
1 1 1  1
= R  2 − 2  = R 1 −  [1]
1 1 2   4
1 3R
 = …(i)
1 4
1 1 1   1
And = R  2 − 2  = R 1 − 
2 1 3   9
1 8R
 = …(ii) [1]
2 9
(10)
Dividing (ii) by (i) we get
1 8R
2
= 9
1 3R
1 4
1 8 4 32
 =  =
 2 9 3 27
32 32
2 =  2 =  5400 [1]
27 27
= 6400 Å
Ans. 9. (a) The rate of decay of a radioactive substance is called the activity of that substance
dN
R=− [½]
dt
S.I. Unit:- becquerel (Bq) which is one disintegrations per second [½]
(b) T1 = 4.5  109 year
2
= 4.5 × 109 × 3.15 × 107 s

238
Number of atom in 10 g sample 92 U is N
= 253 × 1020 atom [1]

Activity of sample A = N
ln2
= N [½]
T1
2
 0.6931 
= 7
 253  1020
 4.5  10  3.15  10 
9
= 1.237 × 105 becquerel [½]
Ans. 10. (a) In a nuclear reaction, the sum of masses of the target nucleus ( 12 H) and the bombarding particle
( 12 H) may be greater than the product nucleus ( 32 He) and the outgoing neutron 10 n . So from the law
of conservation of mass-energy (3.27 MeV) is released due to mass defect in nuclear reaction. This
energy is called Q-value of the nuclear reaction [2]
+
11 Na → 10Ne+ e +
22 22
(b) [1]
Ans. 11. Half wave rectifier
[1]
(11)
It consist of a diode D connected in series with load resistor RL across the secondary winding of a step-
down transformer. Primary of transformer is connected to ac supply. During positive half cycle of input ac
end A of secondary winding becomes positive and B negative. Thus diodes becomes forward biased and
conducts the current through it. So, current in the circuit flow from A to B through load resistor RL [½]
[1]
During negative half cycle of input ac end A of the secondary winding becomes negative and end B
positive. Thus diode D becomes reversed biased and does not conduct any current. So no current will
flow in the circuit. Since electric current through load RL flow only during positive half cycle, in one direction
only i.e. from A to B so D.C is obtained across RL. [½]
Ans. 12. (a) Answer (iv)
D
= [1]
d
(b) Answer (iv)
Interference will not takes place. [1]
(c) Answer (iii)
(2n − 1)
= 1.5  10−6
2
(2n − 1)6  10−7 3

=  10−6
2 2
(2n – 1)6 = 30
n = 3 for third dark band. [1]
(d) Answer (i)
At dark fringe intensity will be zero.

I = 4I0 cos2
2
 = [1]
(e) Answer (i)

 = , so fringe width decreases. [1]

❑ ❑ ❑
(12)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-3
PHYSICS
Topics: Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instrument, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atom
and Nuclei, Semiconductor.
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. When aluminium is added to Si crystal, then a P-type extrinsic semiconductor would be obtained. It is
because of the fact that aluminium is a trivalent impurity. [1]
Energy level diagram of P-type semiconductor
[1]
nD
Ans. 2. In YDSE the distance between the central bright fringe and nth order bright fringe is given by y =
d
for fourth order bright fringe, n = 4 [½]
4D
 y= [½]
d
4  600  10−9  1.4

= = 1.2 cm [1]
0.28  10−3
OR
Momentum, p = mv = 2meV
= 2  9.1 10−31  1.6  10−19  130 = 6.15  10−24 kg m s –1 [1]
h 6.62  10−34
= = = 1.07 Å [1]
p 6.15  10−24
(13)
Ans. 3. Sunlight is first refracted as it enters a raindrop which causes the different wavelengths of white light to
separate. Longer wavelength of light are bent the least while the shorter wavelength are bent the most.
After this these component rays strike the inner surface of water drop and get internally reflected if the
angle between the refracted ray and normal to the drop surface is greater than critical angle. The reflected
light is refracted again when it comes out of the drop. The primary rainbow is a result of three-step
processes, that is refraction, reflection and refraction. [2]
SECTION-B
Ans. 4. According to wave picture of light, the free electrons at the surface of metal absorb the radiant energy
continuously. The greater the intensity of radiation, the greater are the amplitude of electric and magnetic
fields. Consequently the greater the intensity, the greater should be energy absorbed by each electron.
In this picture, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons on surface is expected to increase with
intensity. Also, no matter what frequency of radiation is a sufficiently intense beam of radiation should be
able to impart enough energy to electron so they exceed minimum energy needed to escape, from metal
surface. A threshold frequency should not exist. These expectations of wave theory directly contradicts
observations of photoelectric emission. [3]
Ans. 5. [½]
From Snell’s law [½]
1 sini = 2 sinr
 1.33 sini = 1 sin 90°
1
 sin i = [½]
1.33
 1 
 i = sin–1   = 48.75 [½]
1.33 
Also from ABC
r
tan i =
0.9
 r = 0.9 tan (48.75)
 r = 1.026 m [½]
Area = r2 = (1.026)2 = 3.3 m2 [½]
(14)
Ans. 6. Value of the reaction is given as Q = [mC + mC – mNe – mHe] × c2 [1]
 [12 u + 12 u – 19.992439 u – 4.00260 u] × C2 [1]
MeV
 Q = 4.961 × 10–3 u × 931.5
u
= 4.62 MeV [½]

Q is also the net kinetic energy gained in the process.
 K.E gained = Q = 4.62 MeV [½]
Ans. 7. When unpolarised light is incident on the boundary between two transparent medium, for an angle of
incidence in which reflected wave travels at right angle to refracted wave, the reflected light is polarized
while the refracted light is partially polarised [1]
By, Snell's law
sin i
=
sin r
Reflected ray perpendicular to refracted ray
i + 90° + r = 180°
 i + r = 90°
 r = 90° – i
sin i sin i
= = tan i = 
sin r cos i
 i = tan–1 () [1]

This is called Brewster’s law
[1]
Ans. 8. From the lens maker’s formula
1  n1  1 1
=  – 1  – 
f  n2   R1 R2 
 1 1 
For a converging lens R1 is positive and R2 is negative hence  −  comes out to be positive. [1]
 R1 R2 
(15)
n1
(i) When n1  n2  1
n2
lens would behave as a converging lens only
[1]
(ii) When n1 = n2 then there is no change in medium hence there would be no refraction.
[1]
OR
[1]
[½]
For the case of minimum deviation

A
r1 = r2 = r  r =
2
 = m = (i + i)–A [½]
(16)
A + m
 i= [½]
2
From Snell’s law
 A + m 
sin  
=
sin i
=  2  [½]
sin r  A
sin  
2
Ans. 9. (a) K.Emax = h – 
1
mv 2 = h – 
2
1
(9.1 10−31)  1010 = h – [2.3 × 1.6 × 10–19]
2
 h = 4.5 × 10–21 + 3.68 × 10–19 [½]
  = 0.564 × 1015 Hz [½]
1 4.5  10−21
(b) eVs = mv 2  Vs = −
= 2.81 10−2 V [1]
2 1.6  10 19
(c) Threshold wavelength [1]
hc 6.6  10−34  3  108

 0 = = = 5380 Å
0 2.3  1.6  10−19
6000 Å > 5380 Å
So, photoelectric emission does not takes place
Ans. 10. For final image at infinity
f0
M= and L = f0 + fe [1]
fe
f0
 6= and 36 = f0 + fe [½]
fe
 f0 = 6fe and 36 = fe + 6fe [½]
36
 7fe = = 36  fe = = 5.142 cm [½]
7
f0 = 30.85 cm [½]
(17)
Ans. 11. (a) X rays cover wavelength from about 10–8 m to 10–13 m. X-rays are used as diagnostic tool in medicine
and as treatment for certain forms of cancer. [1]
(b) The wave is travelling along z-direction so the electric and magnetic fields can be in x and y – direction
as both electric fields and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and simultaneously
perpendicular to direction of propagation of wave [1]
(c) Maximum electric field = 300 V/m
 Maximum electric force = 1.6 × 10–19 × 300
= 4.8 × 10–17 N [1]
OR
(a) The conditions that must be fulfilled to obtain a sustained and observable interference pattern are
(i) Sources must be coherent to obtain sustained pattern.
(ii) Amplitudes should be nearly equal for observable pattern. [1½]
(b) At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s ray have to pass through a larger distance in the atmosphere. Most of
the blue and other shorter wavelength are removed by scattering. The least scattered light reaching
our eyes, therefore the sun looks reddish. [1½]
Ans. 12. (a) Answer (i) [1]
Under reverse biasing the electron flow takes place from P-side to N-side.
(b) Answer (ii) [1]
Potential Difference 0.3
Electric field = = = 3 × 105 V/m
Width of Depletion Region 1 10−6
(c) Answer (ii) [1]

Potential barrier develop in a junction diode opposes the flow of majority carriers only.
(d) Answer (iii) [1]
Under the forward biasing the potential barrier is lowered down.
(e) Answer (ii) [1]
The correct representation of typical V-I characteristics is represented by
❑ ❑ ❑
(18)
Model Test Papers
CHEMISTRY
Model Test Paper-1 Chemistry (Class XII)

for
CHEMISTRY
Topics: Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, d- and f-block Elements,
Coordination Compounds, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acid, Amines.
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. There are 12 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
2. Section A - Q. No. 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
3. Section B - Q. No. 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
4. Section C - Q. No. 12 is case based question carrying 5 marks.
5. All questions are compulsory.
6. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
SECTION-A
1. If 100 ml 0.1 M KI is mixed with 80 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 then explain the charge of
colloid solution obtained and write name of process followed for colloid
formation. [2]
2. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated. (Any
two)
(a) Ethanoic acid, 2-chloroethanoic acid, 2-nitroethanoic acid (order of

decarboxylation)
(b) p-methoxybenzoic acid, benzoic acid, p-nitrobenzoic acid (ka value)
(c) Propanal, propanol, 2-propanone (Boiling point) [1 × 2 = 2]
3. Calculate pH of electrolyte solution of hydrogen electrode having oxidation

potential of 0.1182 V. [2]
(13)
Chemistry (Class XII) Model Test Paper-1
SECTION-B
4. Account for the following

(a) Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
(b) Benzaldehyde does not give Fehling reagent test.
(c) Mn3+ is oxidising in nature. [1 × 3 = 3]
OR
Convert the following.
(a) Ethanamine to ethanol
(b) 1-propanol to propanal
(c) Toluene to Benzaldehyde [1 × 3 = 3]
5. Answer the following
(a) [NiCl4]2–(aq) is blue in colour while [Ni(CO)4] is colourless. Give reason.
(b) Write IUPAC name and hybridisation of compound [PtCl2en(NH3)2]SO4.
[2 + 1 = 3]
OR
Draw the crystal field splitting diagram for K 4[Fe(CN)6] and explain it’s
hybridisation and magnetic behaviour. [3]
6. Account for the following.
(a) Chromium exhibit 3d54s1 configuration.
(b) Transition element exhibit high enthalpy of atomisation.
(c) Which 3d series transition element exhibits maximum number of oxidation
states and why? [1 × 3 = 3]
7. A compound X with molar mass 106 g/mol, reduces Tollens reagent but does
not react with Fehling reagent. On reaction with 50% KOH followed by
hydrolysis gives compounds ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Compound Y on reaction with LiAlH 4
gives compound ‘Z’. Write down structure of compound X, Y and Z and also
reactions mentioned. [3]
(14)
8. Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow.
(a) How given cell will be represented?
(b) Calculate cell potential for given cell. (Given: Ecell = 1.1 V)
(c) How much mass (in mg) will be lost by Zn(s) if cell works for 10 seconds
and with 1 A current? (atomic mass of Zn = 65.3 g/mol) [1 × 3 = 3]
9. Answer the following,
(a) IUPAC name of amide that will give 2, 3-dimethylbutan-1-amine on
reaction with Br2 and alc.KOH.
(b) Order of basic strength of C6H5NH2, C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N, NH3
(c) Product(s) formed on reaction of isopropyl amine and excess ethyl
chloride [1 × 3 = 3]
OR
(a) Complete the following reaction
(b) Write IUPAC name of following compound [2 + 1 = 3]
10. What is micelle? Explain micelle formation by using example of soap. [3]
(15)
11. Answer the following.

(a) Arrange following complex in increasing order to their metal carbon bond
length.
[Cr(CO)6], [Mn(CO)6]+, [V(CO)6]–
(b) Arrange following complex in increasing order of their absorbed
wavelength of light.
[Fe(H2O)6]Cl3, [Ru(H2O)6]Cl3, [Os(H2O)6]Cl3
(c) Calculate the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M2+(aq) ion (Z = 26)
[1 × 3 = 3]
OR
Answer the following.
(a) Why Zn, Cd and Hg are not called typical transition elements?
(b) Mn show minimum heat of atomisation among all 3d series transition
elements why?
(c) Why [Ni(dmg)2] provides more stability than [Ni(en) 2]2+ despite having
same number of didentate ligand? [1 × 3 = 3]
SECTION-C
12. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Age of fossil is estimated by carbon dating also known as Radiocarbon dating,
it is a method to determine the age of an object containing organic material by
using radioactivity of 14C (radioactive isotope of carbon).
It is based on the fact that radiocarbon (14C) is constantly being created in the
Earth's atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric
nitrogen. The resulting 14C combines with atmospheric oxygen to form
radioactive carbon dioxide, which is incorporated into plants by
photosynthesis; animals then acquire 14C by eating the plants. When the
animal or plant dies, it stops exchanging carbon with its environment, and
thereafter the amount of 14C it contains begins to decrease as the 14C
undergoes radioactive decay. Measuring the amount of 14C in a sample from
a dead plant or animal, such as a piece of wood or a fragment of bone,
(16)
provides information that can be used to calculate when the animal or plant
died. The older a sample is, the less 14C there is to be detected, and because
the half-life of 14C (the period of time after which half of a given sample will
have decayed) is about 5,730 years, the oldest dates that can be reliably
measured by this process date to approximately 50,000 years ago.
Radioactive decay is based on first order kinetics in which rate of decay will be
directly proportional to the concentration of material present.
And for first order kinetics
2.303  a0 
t= log  
k  a0 − x 
Where t  time taken
k  Rate constant
a0  Initial concentrations of 14C in sample
x  Amount of 14C consumed after time ‘t’
(a) Calculate rate constant for 14C decay in year–1 [1]
(b) If a sample contains 1/16th of initial concentration of 14C then calculate
age of sample. [1]
(c) If a radioactive substance ‘X’ with decay constant 10 –3 year–1 is 2303
years old then calculate ratio of concentration of element ‘X’ at initial state
to present. [1]
(d) Plot a graph between concentration of 14C at time (at) v/s time (t). [2]
OR
Slope of graph between log(at) v/s time(t) will be. [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(17)

for
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
1. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated

[Any 2]
(a) Benzoic acid, 4-nitrobenzoic acid, 4-methoxy benzoic acid (pKa values)
(b) n-C4H9OH, n-C4H9NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5CH(CH3)2 (boiling point)
(c) CH3NH2, NH3, (CH3)3N, (CH3)2NH (basic nature in aqueous solution)
[1 × 2 = 2]
2. Explain why with dilution, m increases slowly for KCl solution whereas m
increases steeply for CH3COOH solution. Graphically show the behaviour on
dilution for both electrolytes. [2]
3. Give reason to support the answer.
(a) Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(b) -hydrogen atoms of acetaldehyde is acidic in nature. [1 × 2 = 2]
(18)
SECTION-B
4. Account for the following:

(a) During nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium, significant amount of
meta derivative is also obtained.
(b) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
(c) Benzaldehyde is less reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions than
propanal. [1 × 3 = 3]
OR
Convert the following:
(a) Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
(b) Propanone to propene
(c) Ethanol to propanoic acid [1 × 3 = 3]
5. Answer the following questions:
(a) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is violet in colour.
(b) Write the formula and hybridization of the following compound:
Potassium trioxalatocobaltate (III) [1 + 2]
OR
(a) What are homoleptic and heteroleptic complexes?
(b) Draw the crystal field splitting diagram in tetrahedral coordination entities
and give relation between t and o for the same metal, the same ligands
and metal-ligand distances. [1 + 2]
6. Account for the following:
(a) The transition metals form a large number of complex compounds.
(b) Zn is not regarded as transition metal.
(c) The melting points of transition metals are generally high. [1 × 3 = 3]
7. An organic compound with molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP
derivative, reduces Tollen’s reagent and undergoes cannizzaro reaction. On
vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid. Identify the
compound and write the reactions involved. [3]
(19)
8. Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow
(a) Which process is represented in the figure?

(b) What is the use of process?
(c) How the process can be made faster? [1 × 3 = 3]
9. What happens when?
(a) Methanamine reacts with benzoyl chloride.
(b) Aniline is treated with acetic anhydride in pyridine followed by Br 2 in acetic
acid and finally hydrolysed in basic medium.
(c) Ethylamine reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium
hydroxide. [1 × 3 = 3]
OR
(a) Write the IUPAC name for the following organic compound:
C2H5 − N− CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
|
C2H5
(b) Complete the following sequence of reactions:
− NaOH+Br
NaCN OH
CH3CH2I ⎯⎯⎯ → A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
partial hydrolysis
2
→C [1 + 2 = 3]
10. Consider the following reaction,

2Fe3+ (aq.) + 2I− (aq.) → 2Fe2+ (aq.) + I2 (s), Ecell

= 0.24 V at 298 K
(a) Represent the cell in which above reaction take place.
(b) Calculate standard Gibb’s energy of the cell.
(c) Calculate log KC for the cell reaction. [1 × 3 = 3]
(20)
11. (a) Which one of the following is diamagnetic in nature?

Ti3+, Ni2+, Sc3+, Mn2+.
(b) Why are Mn2+ compounds are more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to
their +3 state?
(c) Write any two characteristics of interstitial compounds. [1 × 3 = 3]
OR
(a) Which among the following is a negatively charged sol?
Haemoglobin (blood), TiO2 sol, methylene blue sol, starch sol.
(b) Define zeta potential.
(c) Write any two characteristics of physisorption. [1 × 3 = 3]
SECTION-C
12. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Zero order reaction means that the rate of the reaction is proportional to zero
power of the concentration of reactants.
Consider the reaction, R → P
−d[R]
rate = = k[R]0 = k
dt
on integrating we get,
[R]0 − [R]
k=
t
where [R]0 is the initial concentration of reactant whereas [R] is the
concentration of reactant at time t.
Zero order reactions are relatively uncommon but they occur under special
conditions. Some enzyme catalysed reactions and reactions which occur on
metal surface are few example of zero order reactions.
(a) Draw a graph between concentration of reactant R vs time for zero order
reaction. [1]
(b) Give one example of zero order reaction. [1]
(21)
(c) What is the unit of rate constant for zero order reaction? [1]
(d) The rate of a zero order reaction is 10–2 mol L–1 s–1, starting with 10 M
concentration of reactant, calculate time in which concentration of reactant
decreases to 4 M. [2]
OR
Derive a relation for t50% and t100% for a zero order reaction. [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(22)

for
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
1. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated.

(Any 2) [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Formic acid, acetic acid, propanoic acid, Trichloro acetic acid (K a values).
(b) Formaldehyde, benzaldehyde, acetone (reactivity towards NaHSO 3).
(c) Propylamine, N-methylethanamine, N, N-dimethylmethanamine. (Extent
of H-bonding in water)
2. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place. [2]
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.001 M) → Ni2+(0.16 M) + 2Ag(s)
(Given that Ecell = 1.05 V )
3. Give reasons to support the answer. [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Benzaldehyde when undergoes electrophilic substitution with HNO3/H2SO4
at (273-283 K) gives m-nitrobenzaldehyde.
(b) Acidic hydrolysis of ethyl benzoate gives benzoic acid as one of the
product.
(23)
SECTION-B
4. Account for the following. [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(b) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated
ferric oxide.
(c) Aniline when reacts with bromine water at room temperature gives white
precipitate.
OR
Convert the following. [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) Benzene to phenylacetic acid
(b) Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
(c) Propanoic acid to ethanamine
5. Consider the complex compound [Cr(H2O)6]Cl2.
(a) Is the co-ordination compound a high spin or low spin complex? [1]
(b) Calculate the CFSE of the complex compound. [2]
OR
Answer the following questions.
(a) Write the IUPAC name of the complex compound of [Co(en) 2ClBr]I [1]
(b) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2 is colourless while [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 is of violet colour. Why? [2]
6. Account for the following. [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) Mn2O7 is most acidic among known oxides of manganese.
(b) VF5 is only the stable pentahalide of vanadium.
(c) Manganate ion undergoes disproportionation in acidic medium.
7. An alkene ‘A’ (molecular formula C 7H12) on reductive ozonolysis gives a
mixture of two compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound ‘B’ gives positive Fehling’s
test but does not respond iodoform test. Compound C on reaction with
Zn – HCl gives cyclohexane and can give aldol condensation but does not give
positive Tollen’s test. Identify compounds A, B and C and write the reaction of
aldol condensation product of compound ‘C’. [3]
(24)
8. Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow.
[1 × 3 = 3]
(a) Which phenomena is represented in the figure?

(b) How these systems are formed in given solution?
(c) What about the necessary conditions of concentration and temperature for
such phenomena to occur?
9. What happens when reactions? [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) Ethanamide undergoes acidic hydrolysis followed by heating.
(b) Ethylamine reacts with benzene sulphonyl chloride.
(c) Ethanamine reacts with ethanoyl chloride in basic medium.
OR
(a) Write the possible resonating structures of anilinium ion. [1]
(b) Complete the following. [2]
Fe/HCl CHCl /KOH/ 
C6H5NO2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3
→B
10. Represent the cell in which the following reaction take place.
2+ +
Cu (0.2 M) + H2 (1 atm) → Cu(s) + 2H (0.1 M) . The value of E° for the cell is
0.34 V. What is the value of Gcell? [3]
11. (a) Why transition metals show catalytic properties? [1 × 3 = 3]
(b) Which one of the following has highest number of unpaired electrons in its
aqueous solution?
V2+, Cr2+, Mn4+, Fe3+
(c) Why low oxidation states of transition metals found in complexes
containing -acid ligands?
(25)
OR
(a) Copper atom has completely filled d-orbitals (3d10) in its ground state. How
can you say that it is a transition element? [1 × 3 = 3]
(b) In 4d series elements how many element(s) is/are of 5s0 configuration in
ground state.
(c) Number of 5d electrons in ground state electronic configuration of Hafnium
(Atomic number : 72).
SECTION-C
12. Chemical kinetics is the study of chemical reactions with respect to reaction
rates, effect of various variables rearrangement of atoms and formation of
intermediates. The rate of reaction is concerned with decrease in
concentration of reactant or increase in the concentration of products per unit
time. It can be expressed as instantaneous rate at a particular instant of time
and average rate over a large interval of time. A number of factors such as
temperature, concentration of reactants, catalyst, affect the rate of a reaction.
The integrated rate equations are different for the reactions of different
reactions order. We shall determine these equations only for zero and first
order chemical reaction.
The half life of a reaction is the time in which the concentration of the reactant
is reduced to one half of its initial concentration. It is represented as t 1 .
2
(a) What is the unit of rate of reaction for first order reaction? [1]
(b) What is the slope of concentration of reactant vs time graph for zero order
reaction. [1]
(c) Give one example of pseudo first order reaction. [1]
(d) A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant, K = 5.5 × 10 –14 s–1.
Find the half-life of the reaction. [2]
OR
A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10 –1 s–1. How much
time will it take for 10 g of the reaction to reduce to 1 g? [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(26)
Solutions of Model Test Paper-1 Chemistry (Class XII)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-1
CHEMISTRY
Topics: Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, d- and f-block Elements, Coordination Compounds,
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acid, Amines
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. Process is called peptization since AgNO3(aq) and KI(aq) will give precipitate of AgI on mixing which will
further converted to colloid solution on adsorption of excess common ion on AgI surface. [1]
AgNO3 (aq) + Kl(aq) ⎯⎯

→ AgI(s)  +KNO3 (aq)
t = 0; 8 mmol 10 mmol 0
t = t; 0 2 mmol 8 mmol
Since excess common ion is ‘I–’ it will form negatively charged colloid. [1]
Ans. 2. (a) 2-nitroethanoic acid > 2-chloroethanoic acid > Ethanoic acid (order of decarboxylation)
(b) p-nitrobenzoic acid > benzoic acid > p-methoxybenzoic acid (ka value)
(c) Propanol > Propanal > 2-propanone (Boiling point) [1 × 2]
Ans. 3. For hydrogen electrode oxidation reaction is as following
H2 (g) → 2H+ + 2e −
According to Nernst equation
0.0591 [H+ ]2
EH+ /H = EH+ /H − log
2 2
n PH2
 PH2 = 1 atm [1]
EH + =0
2 /H
EH + = 0.1182 V
2 /H
−0.0591
0.1182 = log[H+ ]2
2
log[H+] = – 2 [1]
pH = –log[H+] = 2
(19)
Chemistry (Class XII) Solutions of Model Test Paper-1
SECTION-B
Ans. 4. (a) Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis because nucleophilic substitution
reaction for C6H5Cl will be very difficult due to partial double bond nature of carbon chlorine bond.
[1]
(b) Benzaldehyde does not give Fehling reagent test since it is less reactive than aliphatic aldehyde
hence it cannot get oxidised by very mild oxidising agent. [1]
(c) Mn3+ has d4 configuration while Mn2+ has d5 configuration that is half filled configuration which has
extra stability so Mn3+ is oxidising in nature. [1]
OR
(a) Ethanamine to ethanol [1]
NaNO2 +HCl/H2O
C2H5 − NH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
0 −5C
→ C2H5OH
(b) 1-propanol to propanal [1]
(c) Toluene to Benzaldehyde [1]
Ans. 5. (a) [NiCl4]2–

O·S· of Ni = +2
Since it does not has d0 or d10 configuration d-d transition is possible and it may exhibit colour. [1]
[Ni(CO)4]
O·S· of Ni = 0
Since it has d10 configuration d-d transition is not possible and it will not exhibit colour. [1]
(b) IUPAC name of compound [PtCl2en(NH3)2]SO4: diaminedichloridoethylenediamineplatinum(IV)
sulphate and hybridisation is d2sp3. [1]
(20)
OR
K4[Fe(CN)6]
O·S· of Fe = +2
Since strong field ligand is present pairing will take place.
[1]
• Since compound does not has unpaired electron it will be diamagnetic
Crystal field splitting diagram [1]
[1]
Ans. 6. (a) Chromium exhibit 3d54s1 configuration since d subshell attains half-filled stable electronic
configuration. [1]
(b) Transition element exhibit high enthalpy atomisation due to their strong metallic bond which is formed
by ns and (n–1)d unpaired electrons. [1]
(c) Mn from 3d series transition element exhibits maximum number of variable oxidation states due to
maximum number of valency electron. [1]
Ans. 7. Since compound ‘X’ with molar mass 106 reacts with tollen’s reagent but not Fehling reagent so it will be
benzaldehyde. [1]
Reactions will be as following
[1]
[1]
Ans. 8. (a) Given cell will be represented as [1]
Zn(s) | Zn2 + (10 −3 M) || Cu2 + (10 −1M) | Cu(s)
(b) Cell reaction [1]
Zn(s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)
According to Nernst equation
0.0591 [Zn2+ ]
Ecell = Ecell − log
n [Cu2+ ]
0.0591 10−3
= 1.1 − log −1
2 10
Ecell = 1.1591 V
(21)
(c) According to Faraday’s law to electrolysis [1]
Eit
W=
96500
65.3  1 10
=
96500  2
= 0.00339 g = 3.39 mg
Ans. 9. (a) IUPAC name of amide that will give 2, 3-dimethylbutan-1-amine on reaction with Br2 and alc·KOH
is [1]
(b) Order of basic strength [1]

(C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3 > C6H5NH2
(c) Product formed on reaction of isopropylamine and aqueous C2H5Cl are [1]
OR
(a) [2]
(b) [1]
N-ethyl-3-chloro-2-methylbutanamine
Ans. 10. Associated colloids (Micelles): There are some substances which at low concentrations behave as normal
strong electrolytes, but at higher concentrations exhibit colloidal behaviour due to the formation of
aggregates. The aggregated particles thus formed are called micelles. These are also known as
associated colloids. [1]
Mechanism of micelle formation
Let us take the example of soap solutions. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of a higher fatty acid and
may be represented as RCOO–Na+ (e.g., sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COO–Na+, which is a major
component of many bar soaps). When dissolved in water, it dissociates into RCOO – and Na+ ions. The
RCOO– ions, however, consist of two parts - a long hydrocarbon chain R (also called non-polar tail') which
is hydrophobic (water repelling), and a polar group COO – (also called polar-ionic 'head'), which is
hydrophilic (water loving).
The RCOO– ions are, therefore, present on the surface with their COO – groups in water and the
hydrocarbon chains R staying away from it and remain at the surface. But at critical micelle concentration,
the anions are pulled into the bulk of the solution and aggregate to form a spherical shape with their
hydrocarbon chains pointing towards the centre of the sphere with COO – part remaining outward on the
surface of the sphere. An aggregate thus formed is known as, ionic micelle'. These micelles may contain
as many as 100 such ions. [2]
(22)
Ans. 11. (a) [V(CO)6]– < [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+ [1]

Order of metal carbon bond length.
(b) [Os (H2O)6]Cl3 < [Ru(H2O)6]Cl3 < [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 [1]
(c) M2+(Z = 26): [Ar]3d64s°
Number of unpaired electrons (n) = 4 [½]
Magnetic moment = 4(4 + 2)
= 4.9 BM [½]
OR
(a) Zn, Cd and Hg are not called typical transition elements because they have completely filled (n-1)d
orbital in their atomic or most stable ionic state. [1]
(b) Mn show minimum heat of atomisation among 3d series transition elements since it forms weakest
metallic bond due to half-filled stable electronic configuration of 3d subshell. [1]
(c) [Ni(dmg)2] provides more stability than [Ni(en)2]2+ despite having same number of bidentate due to
symmetric intramolecular hydrogen bonding. [1]
SECTION-C
0.693
Ans. 12. (a) Rate constant K = [1]
tt
2
( 0.693 )
=
5730
= 1.2 × 10–4 year–1
(23)
1
(b) part of initial sample will be left after four t 1 [1]
16 th 2
Hence time t = 4  t t
2
= 4 × 5730
= 22920 years.
2.303  a 
(c) t = log  0  [1]
k  a0 − x 
2.303 a 
2303 = −3
log  0 
10  at 
a 
log  0  =1
 at 
a0
= 10
at
2.303 a 
(d) Since t = log  0 
k  at 
a0 
 a  a 

kt = ln  2.303log  0  = ln  0  [2]
at 
  at   at 

at
Taking antilog = ekt
a0
a t = a0 e −kt
OR
2.303  a0 
(d) Since t = log   [2]
k  at 
a  kt
log  0  =
 at  2.303
kt
log ( a0 ) − log(at ) =
2.303
k
log(at ) = log(a0 ) − (t)
2.303
Comparing with y = mx + c
−k
Slope m =
2.303
❑ ❑ ❑
(24)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. (a) 4-nitrobenzoic acid, benzoic acid, 4-methoxybenzoic acid

pKa = 3.41 pKa = 4.19 pKa = 4.46 [1]
(b) C2H5CH(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH, n-C4H9NH2, n-C4H9OH
BP = 300.8 K BP = 329.3 K BP = 350.8 K BP = 390.3 K [1]
(c) NH3, (CH3)3N, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH [1]
Ans. 2. CH3COOH is a weak electrolyte hence has a low degree of dissociation at higher concentration. On dilution
its degree of dissociation increases so total number of ions in solution containing 1 mole of electrolyte also
increases hence m increases steeply for CH3COOH on dilution. [½ + ½]
KCl is a strong electrolyte so on dilution number of ions increases marginally so m increases slowly upon
dilution
[1]
Ans. 3. (a) Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Craft reaction because the –COOH group is deactivating and
the catalyst AlCl3 (Lewis acid) get bonded to the carboxyl group. [1]
(b) The acidity of -H atoms of acetaldehyde is due to the strong electron withdrawing effect of the
carbonyl group and resonance stabilisation of the conjugate base. [1]
(25)
SECTION-B
Ans. 4. (a) In strong acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form the anilinium ion which is meta directing. That
is why during nitration of aniline besides the ortho and para derivatives, significant amount of meta
derivative is also formed. [1]
(b) Ethylamine is soluble in water because it can form hydrogen bond with water molecules. However,
aniline is insoluble in water due to higher molar mass which increase in the size of hydrophobic aryl
part. [1]
(c) The carbon atom of carbonyl group of benzaldehyde is less electrophilic than carbon atom of carbonyl
group present in propanal due to the resonance effect, so benzaldehyde is less reactive towards
electrophilic addition reaction than propanal. [1]
OR
Ans. 4. (a) [1]
(b) [1]
PCl H O+
(c) CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯
5
→ CH3CH2Cl ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ CH3CH2CN ⎯⎯⎯→
3
CH3CH2COOH [1]
Ethanol propanoic acid
Ans. 5. (a) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is octahedral complex where the single electron (Ti 3+ is a 3d1 system) in the metal d
orbital is in the t2g level in ground state of the complex. The next higher state available for the electron
is the empty eg level. If light corresponding to the energy of blue-green region is absorbed by the
( )
complex, it would excite the electron from t2g level to eg level t12geg0 → t 02ge1g . Consequently, the
complex appears violet in colour. [1]
(b) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate (III): K3[Co(C2O4)3]
Co3+: [Ar]3d64s04p0 [1]
[1]
d2sp3 hybridized
OR
(26)
Ans. 5. (a) • Homoleptic complexes: Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups.
e.g., [Co(NH3)6]3+ [½ + ½]
• Heteroleptic complexes: Complexes in which a metal is bound to more than one kind of donor
groups. e.g.: [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(b) [1]
4
• t =  . [1]
9 o
Ans. 6. (a) The transition metals form a large number of complex compounds due to the comparatively smaller
sizes of the metal ions, their high ionic charges and the availability of d-orbitals for bond formation.
[1]
(b) Zn has full d10 configuration in its ground state as well as in its common oxidation state +2, hence it
is not regarded as transition metal. [1]
(c) The high melting point of transition metals are due to the involvement of greater number of electrons
from (n-1)d in the addition to ns electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding. [1]
Ans. 7. • Since compound C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative and reduces Tollen’s reagent so it should be an
aldehyde.
• Since compound C9H10O undergoes Cannizaro reaction so it should not have any - H atom.
• Since on vigorous oxidation compound C9H10O gives 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid so it should be
ortho substituted benzaldehyde means [1]
[2]
(27)
Ans. 8. (a) Dialysis [1]
(b) Dialysis process is used for removing a dissolved substance (impurities) from a colloidal solution by
means of diffusion through a suitable membrane. [1]
(c) Dialysis process can be made faster by applying an electric field if the dissolved substance in the
impure colloidal solution is only an electrolyte. [1]
Ans. 9. (a) CH3 − NH2 + C6H5COCl → CH3NHCOC6H5 + HCl [1]
Methanamin e Benzoyl chloride N−Methyl benzamide
(b) [1]

(c) C2H5NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ⎯⎯ → C2H5NC + 3KCl + 3H2O [1]
Ethylamine Ethyl isocyanide
OR
1 2 3 4
Ans. 9. (a) C2H5 − N− CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 : N,N-Diethylbutan-1-amine [1]
|
C2H5
− NaOH+Br
(b) CH3 CH2I ⎯⎯⎯
NaCN
⎯→ CH3 CH2CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ OH
partial hydrolysis
→ CH3 CH2CONH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ CH3 CH2NH2 [2]
(A) (B) (C)
Ans. 10. (a) Cell representation: I− (aq.) |I2 (s) ||Fe3+ (aq.) |Fe2+ (aq.) [1]
(b) G° = –nE°F = –2 × 0.24 × 96500 = –46320 J = –46.32 kJ [1]
nEcell 2  0.24
(c) log KC = = = 8.12 [1]
0.0591 0.0591
Ans. 11. (a) Sc3+ has no unpaired electron so diamagnetic in nature and repelled by the applied magnetic field.
[1]
(b) Mn2+ has the configuration [Ar]3d5 which is stable configuration in accordance to Hund’s rule of
maximum multiplicity where as Fe2+ has the configuration [Ar]3d6 which is not so stable as it is
unsymmetrical in nature. [1]
(c) (i) Interstitial compounds are chemically inert. [½]
(ii) Interstitial compounds have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals. [½]
OR
Ans. 11. (a) Starch sol is negatively charged sol. [1]
(b) The potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges is called
zeta potential. [1]
(c) (i) Physisorption is not specific in nature. [½]
(ii) physisorption is reversible in nature. [½]
(28)
SECTION-C
[R]0 − [R]
Ans. 12. (a) k=
t
[R] = [R]0 –kt
[1]
(b) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is an example of zero order reaction.
2HI(g) ⎯⎯⎯
Gold

→ H2 (g) + I2 (g) [1]
(c) For zero order reaction,

rate = k
 Unit of k = unit of rate
= mol L–1 s–1 [1]
(d) Given: [R]0 = 10 M, [R] = 4 M, rate = k = 10–2 mol L–1 s–1
[R]0 − [R]
for zero order reaction k =
t
[R]0 − [R] 10 − 4
 t= = = 600 s [2]
k 10−2
OR
[R]0 − [R]
(d) For zero order reaction: k =
t
[R]0
Case-I: When [R] = , t = t50%
2
[R]0
[R]0 − [R]0
 k= 2 = [1]
t 50% 2  t 50%
[R]0
 t 50% =
2k
Case-II: When [R] = 0, t = t100%
[R]0 − 0
 k=
t100%
[R]0
t100% = [1]
k
t100% [R]0 2 k
 =  =2
t 50% k [R]0
 t100% = 2 t50%
❑ ❑ ❑
(29)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. (a) Propanoic acid < Acetic acid < Formic acid < Trichloro acetic acid. [1 × 2 = 2 Any Two]
(b) Acetone < Benzaldehyde < Formaldehyde.
(c) N,N-dimethylmethanamine < N-methylethanamine < Propylamine (Due to increase of alkyl group
acorss nitrogen atom, extent of H-bonding decreases)
 0.0591  Ni2 +  
Ans. 2. Ecell = Ecell − log   [1]
2   Ag+  2 
  
0.0591  0.16 
Ecell = 1.05 − log  2
2  (0.001) 
= 0.896 V [1]
Ans. 3. (a) Benzaldehyde has –CHO group (Attached with benzene) which causes –R effect that guides
electrophile at meta position. Hence when benzaldehyde undergoes electrophilic substitution with
HNO3/H2SO4 gives m-Nitrobenzaldehyde. [1]
(b) Esters on acidic hydrolysis give alcohols and carboxylic acid as products. [1]
SECTION-A
Ans. 4. (a) Due to formation of salt with aluminium chloride, the Lewis acid, which is used as a catalyst of
Friedel-Crafts reaction, nitrogen of aniline acquires positive charge and hence acts as a strong
deactivating group for further reaction. [1]
(b) The +I effect of methyl group makes methylamine more basic than water and it produces OH – during
its reaction with water.
+
CH3NH2 + H2O → CH3 NH3 + OH− [½]
OH– releases and react with FeCl3 to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
2FeCl3 + 6OH− → Fe2O3  3H2O + 6Cl− [½]

(30)
(c) Aniline reacts with bromine water at room temperature to give a white precipitate of
2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline. [1]
OR
(a) [1]
(b) [1]
(c) [1]
Ans. 5. (a) Since water is a weak field ligand with Cr2+, so pairing of unpaired electron(s) not occur. So it will be
of high spin complex. [1]
(b) [1]
CFSE = [3(–0.4) + 1(0.6)]0

= (–1.2 + 0.6)0 = – 0.60 [1]
(31)
OR
(a) IUPAC name of [Co(en)2ClBr]I is [1]
Bromidochloridobis (ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) iodide.
(b) ⚫ Colour of co-ordination compounds can be explained on the basis of d-d transition. [1]
⚫ In [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3, Ti3+ has d1 configuration which can undergo d-d transition and shows violet
colour while in [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2, Zn2+ has d10 configuration which does not has d-d transition so will
be colourless. [1]
Ans. 6. (a) Higher is the oxidation state of metal, greater will be the acidic strength of its oxide. [1]
Since Mn can show maximum +7 oxidation state so Mn2O7 will be of highest acidic strength.
(b) Except VF5, the other halides undergo hydrolysis to give oxohalides, VOX3. [1]
+6 +7 +4
(c) 3MnO24− + 4H+ → 2MnO−4 + MnO2 + 2H2O [1]
(Manganate ion) (Permanganate ion) (Manganese dioxide)
Ans. 7.
Ans. 8. (a) Micelles formation [1]

(b) Substances containing both hydrophobic (hydrocarbon chain) and hydrophilic (polar group) parts, at
higher concentrations form aggregates of spherical shape in which hydrocarbon parts pointing
towards the centre of the sphere and polar part remaining outward on the surface of the sphere, form
micelles. [1]
(c) Micelles formation only possible at concentration above than critical micelle concentration (CMC) and
temperature above than Kraft temperature (TK). [1]
+ −

Ans. 9. (a) CH3CONH2 + HOH + HCl ⎯⎯ → CH3COOH+ NH4Cl [1]
(Ethanamide) (Ethanoic acid)
(b) [1]
(32)
(c) [1]
OR
(a) [1]
(b) [2]
Ans. 10. Cell representation: Pt H2 (1atm) H+ (0.1M) Cu2+ (0.2 M) Cu(s)
Cu2+ (aq) + H2 (g) → Cu(s) + 2H+ (aq) [½]
0.0591  [H+ ]2 
Ecell = Ecell − log   [½]
2  [Cu ] ( pH ) 
2 +
 2 
0.0591  0.12 
= 0.34 − log   [½]
2  0.2  1
= 0.38 V [½]
Gcell = −nFEcell = −2  96500  0.38 [½]
= – 73.34 kJ [½]
Ans. 11. (a) Due to its ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes, transition metals show
catalytic properties. [1]
(b) V2+ : [Ar]3d3, 3 unpaired electrons
Cr2+ : [Ar]3d4, 4 unpaired electrons
Mn4+ : [Ar]3d3, 3 unpaired electrons
Fe3+ : [Ar]3d5, 5 unpaired electrons
 Fe3+ has the maximum number of unpaired electrons in its aqueous solution. [1]
(c) In the case of low oxidation states, backbonding from metals to -acid ligands is more which
strengthen the interaction of metal and ligands. [1]
OR
(a) Copper has partially filled d-orbitals (d9) in its ionic form (i.e. Cu2+), hence it behaves as transition
element. [1]
(b) In 4d series Pd (atomic no. : 46) has 4d105s0 configuration. [1]
(c) Hafnium (Hf): [Xe]4f145d26s2 [1]
So, number of 5d electrons are 2.
(33)
SECTION-A
Ans. 12. (a) Unit of rate of reaction is mol L–1 s–1 [1]
(b) For a zero order reaction
[R] = –kt + [R]0 [½]
[½]
(c) Hydrolysis of esters in acidic medium is an example of pseudo first order reaction. [½]
+
CH3 COOC2H3 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯
H
→ CH3 COOH + C2H5 OH [½]
(d) Half life for a first order reaction is [1]

0.693
t1 =
2
k
0.693
t1 = −14 −1
= 1.26  1013 s [1]
2
5.5  10 s
OR
(d) For first order reaction
2.303 [R]
t= log 0 [1]
k [R]t
2.303 10
= −1
log
10 1
= 2.303 × 10
= 23.03 seconds [1]
❑ ❑ ❑
(34)
Model Test Papers
BIOLOGY
Model Test Paper-1 Biology (Class XII)

for
BIOLOGY
Topics: Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations, Biodiversity and
Conservation; Human Health and Disease, Biotechnology: Principles and Processes,
Biotechnology and its Applications
2. The question paper has three sections (A, B & C) and 13 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
3. Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks
each and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION-A
1. Humans have innate immunity for controlling viral diseases but they do not kill
the virus. Name the barrier and mechanism involved in controlling viral
infection. [2]
2. The diagram given below represents a typical biogas plant. Identify the parts
labelled as A and B, also mention the name of institutes involved in
development of technology of biogas production. [2]
(27)
Biology (Class XII) Model Test Paper-1
OR
Name the organism which is involved in the production of ‘Swiss cheese’.
Provide the reason for the formation of large holes in this cheese.
3. Identify the skeletal structure given below. State any five characteristics of the
given compound.
[2]
4. Mention any two significant roles that predators plays in the ecosystem. [2]
5. List any two adaptations that can be seen in a person going for a short trip to
Rohtang pass from Delhi. What are these type of adaptations called? [2]
6. Briefly describe about BOD. What will be the BOD of polluted water discharged
from industries? [2]
OR
Define ‘antibiotics’. Who was the first one to discover antibiotics? Name the
first antibiotic discovered.
SECTION-B
7. Explain cancer and how cancerous cell is different from the normal cell?
Elaborate the methods of cancer detection. [3]
OR
With the help of flow chart, represents the life cycle of a malarial parasite.
8. Ram complains of headache and cough. On the basis of diagnosis and certain
symptoms, the doctor confirms that he is suffering from pneumonia and not
from common cold. List some of the symptoms observed by doctor and its
mode of transmission. Name the causative agent of pneumonia as well as
common cold. [3]
9. Name the technique which is carried out in a single test tube simply by mixing
DNA with a set of reagents and placing the tube in a thermal cycler that
enables amplification of gene of interest. Describe the basic steps involved in
the amplification of gene of interest with the help of a diagram. [3]
(28)
10. (a) Hotspots are a type of in-situ conservation, write any two key criteria for
determining a hotspot?
(b) Name any two hot spots found in India.
(c) Why are the hot spots placed under in-situ conservation? [3]
11. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of organismic response
(a) What are the organisms called that are represented by ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C; in
the graph?
(b) Majority of animals and mammals show differences with each other on the
basis of responses towards fluctuating environmental condition. Briefly
explain how do these organisms respond to the abiotic factor? [3]
12. Consider the figure of a typical agarose gel electrophoresis. [3]
(a) Mention the cathode and anode terminals.

(b) What is the charge carried by a DNA molecule and how does this help in
its separation?
(c) Identify the lane 1 to lane 4 and how is lane 1 different from lane 2, 3, 4 in
gel electrophoresis set up?
(d) How do one visualise the DNA in a gel and if after following each step DNA
bands are not observed, then enumerate some of the reasons behind this.
(29)
SECTION-C
13. A farmer used to cultivate tobacco plants. During harvestation, he suffered
from huge loss due to nematode parasitization. He came across to a
transgenic variety of tobacco plants and cultivated them. He found the big
difference in its yield and its reduced reliance on chemical pesticides. [5]
(a) Identify the novel strategy adopted to prevent infestation as well as to
produce transgenic variety of tobacco plants. Explain the process involved
in formation of transgenic tobacco plant.
(b) Name a nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plant and causes a
great reduction in yield.
OR
A geneticist used a plasmid for cloning that has a tetracycline resistance gene
and the lac Z gene. The lac Z gene codes for enzyme -galactosidase. The
geneticist inserts a piece of foreign DNA into a restriction site that is located
within the lac Z gene and transforms the bacteria with the plasmid.
Then, he plated those bacterial culture on a agar medium and obtained the
following scenario.
(a) Explain how the geneticist can identify bacteria that contain a copy of a
plasmid with the foreign DNA.
(b) Suppose that this geneticist discovers a new restriction enzyme in the
bacterium Aeromonas ranidae. This restriction enzyme is the first to be
isolated from this bacterial species. Using the standard convention for
abbreviating restriction enzymes, give this new restriction enzyme a name.
❑ ❑ ❑
(30)

for
BIOLOGY
compulsory.
SECTION-A
1. Name the type of immunity a child is born with. How does it differ from the
immunity he/she receives from its mother’s milk? [2]
2. Identify the interaction in the given figure and briefly discuss the benefit
obtained by the plant and wasp. [2]
OR
Name the bio-active molecule that act as blood- cholesterol lowering agent
and organism involved in production of this bio-active compound.
(31)
3. Name the group of chemicals obtained from the plant to which the part shown
in the diagram belongs.
State the location of its receptors in the human body and one mode of
consumption of these drugs. [2]
4. Write down the two strategies by which kangaroo rat from North American
desert meets its all water requirement. [2]
5. At which stage of sewage treatment agitation and pumping of air is required
and why? [2]
6. We should save our threatened plant and animal species to conserve our
biodiversity.
Mention any two approaches for the same and their examples. [2]
OR
Briefly describe two microbes used as biocontrol agents to control pest and
pathogen.
SECTION-B
7. How is AIDS transferred from one person to another? Name a diagnostic test
for it and state its underlying principle. [3]
OR
A person is suffering from an infectious disease caused by helminths. Name
any two helminthic diseases he/she may be suffering from, its causative
organism and mode of transmission.
(32)
8. A person shows a strong hypersensitivity reaction when exposed to certain

substances present in air. Identify the condition. Specify its cause, symptoms
and drugs used to reduce its symptoms. [3]
9. If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at PvuI site of pBR322 vector then what
will happen to recombinants? How will you select recombinants from a colony
of bacteria containing both transformants and non-transformants? [3]
10. (a) Who gave species-area relationship? What does the slope of line
represents?
(b) According to Rivet Popper hypothesis, what will happen if rivets are
removed from the wings of the plane?
(c) “Loss of one species leads to the extinction of another species”. Which evil
quartet is defined by the above line? Explain with help of an example. [3]
11. (a) In a given diagrammatic representation of organismic response to abiotic

factor, write one characteristic about organisms showing response A. [3]
(b) Explain the Verhulst Pearl Logistic growth and write down the correct
mathematical expression for this type of growth pattern.
(33)
12. The image below depicts a technique for amplification of gene of interest. [3]
(a) Which bonds are broken while moving from step-1 to step-2 in the given
technique?
(b) How many molecules of gene of interest will be generated after 10 cycles
of this technique?
(c) Name the step in which DNA polymerase and deoxyribonucleotides are
required.
(34)
SECTION-C
13. In recombinant DNA technology, the cutting of DNA by restriction

endonucleases results in the fragmentation of DNA. These fragments can be
separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis.
(a) What is the basis of this technique? [2]
(b) Name the most commonly used matrix and its source. [1]
(c) A DNA molecule was treated with a restriction endonuclease and three
fragments of size (i) 430 Kb, (ii) 130 Kb and (iii) 50 Kb were obtained. Write
the order in which these fragments will arrange themselves in the gel plate
from cathode to anode after gel electrophoresis is complete. [1]
(d) How do we isolate the desired DNA fragment from the gel? [1]
OR
A girl named Riya is of 15 years and suffers from Type-1 diabetes. This type
of diabetes develops in people younger than age 20, though it persists
throughout life. This is the most common type of diabetes in northern Europe,
especially in Finland where nearly 1% of the population develops this diabetes
by 15 years of age. In the U.S., it is 1.5-2 times more common in whites than
in African American or Asian populations.
A doctor prescribed Riya to get regular injections of insulin. Riya read about it
and came to know that insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from
pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs, but now RDT i.e., recombinant DNA
technology is used.
(a) Why did the doctor prescribe Riya insulin injections instead of insulin
tablets? [1]
(b) Why is insulin not extracted from pancreas of slaughtered animals
anymore? [1]
(c) Describe the maturation of insulin with the help of a diagram. [1½]
(d) Explain the process of formation of humulin by an American company Eli
Lilly in 1983. [1½]
❑ ❑ ❑
(35)

for
BIOLOGY
compulsory.
SECTION-A
1. How is active acquired immunity different from passive acquired immunity?

Explain with the help of an example of each. [2]
2. The bacteria shown in the below given diagram is used to produce a product
by genetic engineering and is given to patients having myocardial infarction.
Identify the bacteria and the product. How does this product help the patients?
[2]
OR
One such type of bacterium was also involved in the discovery of the first
antibiotic. Which was that bacterium and the antibiotic discovered? How
had this discovery made? [2]
(36)
3. Identify the compound given in the diagram below.

This compound is obtained from which plant and how are the drugs derived
from this compound generally consumed? [2]
4. What are flocs? How do these help in biological treatment of sewage water?
[2]
5. Small animals are rarely found in polar regions. Explain the reason. [2]
6. What are birth and death rates? A pond had 20 lotus plants. 8 new plants were
added through reproduction in one year. Calculate birth rate. [2]
OR
What is endemism? Mention two spots in India rich in endemic species. [2]
SECTION-B
7. Name and describe any three methods of detection and diagnosis of cancer.
[3]
OR
Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium in the human host.
8. Explain the principle of vaccination and how it helps in providing protection
against fatal diseases like diphtheria, tuberculosis, etc. [3]
9. For the purpose of a DNA experiment, amplification of a gene of interest is
required.
Describe the steps or make a flow chart showing the process of amplification
of this gene of interest. [3]
10. (a) Define stenothermal organisms. [1]
(b) How is Kangaroo rat in North American deserts able to meet its all water
requirements? Give its two adaptations. [1]
(c) What is Allen’s rule? [1]
(37)
11. The figure given below depicts a graph between species richness and area
explored.
(a) Name the scientist who gave this graph and explain his observations.
[1½]
(b) Write the equation that describes the straight line in this graph. Under what
conditions, the slope of line becomes steeper? [1½]
12. The image below depicts the plasmid cloning vector pBR322.
(a) If a foreign gene is ligated at the BamHI site, then which antibiotic
resistance will be lost and which antibiotic resistance will be retained by
the plasmid. [1]
(b) This plasmid is cleaved using PstI and gene encoding the enzyme
-galactosidase is ligated at this site. This rDNA is introduced in the
bacteria and made to grow on a medium containing chromogenic
substrate. What will be the colour of the colony of recombinants? [2]
(38)
SECTION-C
13. Given below is a plasmid pABCD. The restriction sites and the size of the
plasmid are given.
Answer the given questions based on the figure.
(a) pABCD is digested using EcoRI. What is the recognition sequence of

EcoRI? [1]
(b) Hind II enzyme is used to digest pABCD and a gene of interest is ligated
at this site. The recombinant plasmids are then introduced in a
heterologous host. This recombinant will not be able to survive in the
presence of which antibiotic? [1]
(c) If this plasmid is digested using EcoRI, HindII and PvuII, how many
fragments will be obtained after complete digestion? [1]
(d) A desirable gene is ligated at the EcoRI site of pABCD, and the
recombinant plasmid is introduced in the bacteria. Double plating is then
carried out.
The _______ will grow on the medium containing both the antibiotics,
tetracycline and kanamycin.
The recombinants will grow in _______ containing medium but not on that
containing _______. [2]
(39)
OR
A modern pathology laboratory uses non-conventional methods of
diagnosis for detecting a disease early.
(a) Which method that they use is based on the principle of antigen-antibody
interaction? [1]
(b) Describe the procedure of using ssDNA or RNA probes. [1]
(c) Name any 2 conventional methods of diagnosis which are not as helpful
for the early detection of diseases. [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(40)
Solutions of Model Test Paper-1 Biology (Class XII)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-1
BIOLOGY
Topics: Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations, Biodiversity and Conservation; Human Health and Disease,
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and its Applications
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. Cytokine barriers include interferons, a type of protein secreted by virus infected cells which protect non-
infected cells from further viral infection. So, they help in controlling viral diseases but they do not kill the
virus. [2]
Ans. 2. [½ + ½ + ½ + ½]
The parts labelled as, A and B are digester and sludge respectively.
The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of Indian Agricultural
Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries commission (KVIC).
OR
The bacterium named Propionibacterium sharmanii is involved in the formation of ‘Swiss cheese’.
The large holes formed in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to the production of a large amount of CO2 by these
bacteria. [1 + 1]
Ans. 3. The given structure depicts the skeletal structure of cannabinoid molecule. Characteristics of
cannabinoids are:
(i) These are a group of chemicals, which interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the
brain.
(ii) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
(iii) The flower tops, leaves and the resin, of Cannabis plant are used in various combinations to produce
marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja.
(iv) Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.
(v) They are known for their effects on cardiovascular system of the body. [2]
(35)
Biology (Class XI) Solutions of Model Test Paper-1
Ans. 4. The significant role that predations plays in the ecosystem are as follow: (Mention any two) [1 + 1]
(a) They help in transfer of energy across trophic levels.
(b) They maintain species diversity in a community.
(c) They keep the prey population under control.
Ans. 5. The person going to high altitude from plains experiences ‘altitude sickness’. Their body does not get
enough oxygen due to low atmospheric pressure. [½ + ½ + 1]
The body acclimatise to high altitude by
(a) Increasing RBCs production
(b) Decreasing binding capacity of haemoglobin
(c) Increasing breathing rate.
These are ‘physiological adaptations’ that allow organisms to respond quickly to stressful condition.
Ans. 6. BOD or biochemical oxygen demand refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all
the organic matter in one liter of water were oxidised by bacteria. [1 + 1]
Indirectly, BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
The water which are highly polluted will have greater BOD and vice versa.
OR
‘Antibiotics’ term is derived from a greak word where ‘anti’ means against and ‘bio’ means life. These are
the chemical substances which are produced by some microbes and can kill or retard the growth of other
disease-causing microbes.
Antibiotics are ‘pro-life’ with reference to humans.
The first antibiotic discovered was a chance discovery by Alexander Fleming. He for the first time
discovered Penicillin produced by Penicillium notatum. [1 + ½ + ½]
SECTION-B
Ans. 7. An abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells is termed as cancer. The cancerous cells are different from
the normal cells in many ways. [3]
Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition, in which the dividing cells when in contact with
other cells, inhibit their uncontrolled growth but cancer cells do not have this property. Therefore,
cancerous cells continue to divide giving rise to a mass of cells called neoplasm or tumors. The life span
of cancerous cells is indefinite while that of normal cells is definite.
Early detection of cancer is essential as it allows the disease to be treated successfully in many cases.
The diagnosis of cancer is usually done by:-
(i) Biopsy and histopathological studies of the suspected tissue-In this a piece of suspected tissue is cut
into thin sections, stained and examined under a microscope by a pathologist for detection of
cancerous cells.
(ii) Blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukaemia.
(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT(Computed tomography) and MRI (Magnetic
Resonance Imaging) are useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.
(iv) Antibodies against cancer specific antigens are also used for detection of certain cancers.
(v) Techniques of molecular biology can be used to detect genes in individuals with inherited
susceptibility of certain cancers. After detection or identification of these genes in any individual, they
may be advised to avoid exposure to particular carcinogens to which they are susceptible.
(36)
OR
Ans. 8. In pneumonia, infection occurs in the alveoli of the lungs. As a result of the infection, the alveoli get filled
with the fluid leading to severe problems in respiration. The symptoms of pneumonia are fever, chills,
cough and headache. In severe cases, the lips and finger nails may turn grey to bluish in colour.
A healthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person
or even by sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for the disease
pneumonia. Rhino viruses are responsible for common cold. [3]
Ans. 9. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) is carried out in a single test tube simply by mixing DNA with a set of
reagents and placing the tube in a thermal cycler, a piece of equipment that enables the mixture to be
incubated at a series of temperatures that are varied in a programmed manner. The basic steps in a PCR
are as follows: [3]
(37)
Biology (Class XI) Solutions of Model Test Paper-1
Ans. 10. (a) The key criteria for determining a hotspot are
(i) There should be very high levels of species richness.
(ii) High degree of endemism.
(iii) Degree of threat to the species in terms of habitat loss. [½ + ½]
(b) Three hotspots are present in India and they are also extended into the neighbouring countries.
These hotspots are as follow: [½ + ½]
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Indo-Burma
(iii) Himalaya
(c) Hotspots are example of in-situ type of conservation because it protects the species either plants or
animals in its natural habitat. [1]
Ans. 11. (a) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the graph represents conformers, regulators and partial regulators respectively.
[½ × 3]
(b) All mammals are regulators, which means that they are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological
as well as behavioural means. The ensure thermoregulation and osmoregulation as well.
Whereas, on the other hand majority of animals cannot maintain a constant internal environment.
They are called as conformers as their body temperature changes with the ambient temperature.
[1½]
Ans. 12. [3]
(a) ‘A’ is the cathode (negative) terminal and ‘B’ is the anode (positive) terminal.
(b) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to move
towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.
(c) Lane 1 represents undigested DNA while lane 2, 3 and 4 represents digested set of DNA fragments.
(d) A compound called ethidium bromide stains DNA, which on irradiating with UV light gives orange
coloured bands.
If after staining, no DNA bands are observed then the reasons could be:
(i) DNA sample that was loaded on gel may have got contaminated with nuclease and have got
completely degraded.
(ii) Electrodes were put in opposite orientation in the gel assembly i.e., anode towards the wells
(where DNA sample is loaded). Since, DNA molecules are negatively charged, they move
towards anode and hence move out of gel instead of moving into the matrix of gel.
(iii) Insufficient addition of ethidium bromide at the staining step.
SECTION-C
Ans. 13. (a) A novel strategy that was adopted to prevent infestation as well as to produce transgenic variety of
tobacco plants was RNA interference. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defense. This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA
molecule that binds to and prevent translation of the mRNA.
The source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection by viruses having RNA genomes
or transposons that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
The process involved in formation of transgenic tobacco plants are:- [5]
(i) Nematode-specific genes were introduced in the host plant (tobacco), using Agrobacterium
vectors.
(ii) This DNA produce, both sense and antisense RNA in the host cells.
(iii) These two RNA’s being complementary to each other forms a double stranded RNA (dsRNA)
that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced mRNA of the nematode.
(iv) Consequently, parasite cannot survive in a transgenic host plant expressing specific interfering
RNA and thereby plant gets protected from the nematode.
(38)
(b) Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield.
OR
(a) Geneticist can identify bacteria that contain a copy of plasmid with the foreign DNA as follows:
When foreign DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, -galactosidase, this results
into inactivation of the gene for synthesis of this enzyme, which is referred to as insertional
inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid in
the bacteria does not have an insert. Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the -
galactosidase gene and the colonies do not produce any colour, these are identified as recombinant
colonies.
Thus, B → Recombinant colonies
A → Non-recombinant colonies
(b) According to standard convention for abbreviating restriction enzymes the first three letters refers to
the bacterial species from the enzyme was isolated. Roman numerals that follow the letters allow
different enzymes from the same species to be identified. Thus, the name of restriction enzyme
isolated from Aeromonas ranidae is AraI.
❑ ❑ ❑
(39)
Biology (Class XII) Solutions of Model Test Paper-2
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-2
BIOLOGY
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth. [½ + ½]
The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. It is a type of natural passive immunity. [½]
Passive immunity is a type of acquired immunity which is pathogen specific and characterised by memory.
[½]
Ans. 2. The given figure shows mutual relationship between fruit of fig tree and wasp where wasp is laying egg
in fig fruit. [1 + ½ + ½]
Fig tree is pollinated by wasp.
Female wasp uses fig fruit for oviposition and uses developing seeds within fruit for nourishment of larvae
and it return wasp favour pollination for the fig tree.
OR
Statin is a bioactive molecule produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus which have been
commercialized as blood cholesterol lowering agent and it acts by competetively inhibiting the enzyme
responsible for synthesis of cholesterol. [1 + 1]
Ans. 3. Cannabinoids [1]
Its receptors are present principally in the brain. [½]
They are generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion. (Any 1) [½]
Ans. 4. Kangaroo rat from North American desert meets all its water requirement through: [1 + 1]
1. Internal fat oxidation in which water is a by-product.
2. By concentrating its urine so that minimal volume of water is used to remove excretory products.
Ans. 5. In biological or secondary treatment process the primary effluent is constantly agitated mechanically and
air is pumped into it. Constant agitation and pumping of air ensures growth and activity of aerobic
heterotrophic bacteria present in sewage. [1 + 1]
Ans. 6. Conservation of Biodiversity is very important for maintenance of our ecosystem.
There are two basic strategies for conservation of biodiversity:
(1) In-situ - In this strategy protection is emphasised on conservation of whole ecosystem at its all
level of biodiversity.
eg- Biosphere reserve, National park, Wildlife sanctuaries, Hotspot, sacred groves, etc. (Write and
two)
(2) Ex-situ conservation - In this strategy threatened plants and animals taken out from their natural
habitat and protected in special setting under protected environment.
eg. - Zoological park, Botanical garden, seed bank, wildlife safari, etc. (Write and two)
[½ + ½ + ½ + ½]
(40)
OR
Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant disease and pest.
For example-
(1) Ladybird are useful to get rid of aphids.
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis introduced in cotton field to control butterfly caterpillar.
(3) Dragonflies are used to get rid of mosquitoes.
(4) Free living fungi Trichoderma are very common in root ecosystem are effective against several
plant pathogens. (Write and two) [1 + 1]
SECTION-B
Ans. 7. Transmission of HIV infections generally occurs by

(a) Sexual contact with infected person
(b) By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
(c) By sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers
(d) From infected mother to her child through placenta [1½]
A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay). It is based on
the principle of antigen – antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of
antigen or by detecting antibodies synthesised against the pathogen. [1½]
OR
Diseases caused by helminths:
(i) Ascariasis [½]
Pathogen: Ascaris lumbricoides [½]
Mode of transmission: Through contaminated water, vegetables, fruits etc. [½]
(ii) Filariasis [½]
Pathogen: Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi) [½]
Mode of transmission: Through bite of an infected female Culex mosquito. [½]
Ans. 8. Allergy [½]
Cause: It is due to release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast cells. [½]
Symptoms: Sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing. [1]
Treatment: Drugs like anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
[1]
Ans. 9. • If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at PvuI site of pBR322 vector then the recombinants will
become ampicillin sensitive due to insertional inactivation of ampicillin resistance gene but they will
be tetracycline resistant. [1]
• Selection using antibiotic resistance:
(i) Transformants will grow on tetracycline containing medium.
(ii) They are then transferred on medium containing ampicillin.
(iii) The recombinants will grow in tetracycline containing medium but not on that containing
ampicillin.
But, non-recombinants will grow on medium containing both the antibiotics.
(41)
• One antibiotic resistant gene helps in selecting the transformants, whereas the other antibiotic
resistance gene gets inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA and helps in selection of recombinants.
[2]
Ans. 10. a. Species area relationship curve was proposed by Alexander von Humboldt. The slope of line
represents regression coefficient. [½ + ½]
b. Rivets on wings are considered as key species that drives major ecosystem functions and loss of
key species can cause major threat to ecosystem than other species. [1]
c. One of the evil quartet Co-extinction suggests that “a species becomes extinct when it is in an
obligate relationship with another species that is now about to become extinct”. [½ + ½]
For example in plant pollinator mutualism where extinction of one species will lead to eventual
extinction of other
Ans. 11. (a) In diagrammatic representation of organismic response, line A is representing conformers [1½]
Conformers are the organisms that cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their body
temperature changes with ambient temperature.
(b) Verhulst Pearl Logistic growth describes the type of growth which occur in nature with limiting
resources. [1½]
• This pattern of growth is described by equation.
dN K −N
= rN  
dt  K 
where, N = Population density
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = Carrying capacity.
Ans. 12. (a) Hydrogen bonds [1]
(b) It is possible to generate 2n molecules after ‘n’ number of cycles. [1]
2n = 210 = 1024
(c) Step 3 : Extension [1]
SECTION-C
Ans. 13. (a) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules that can be separated by forcing them to move
towards the anode under an electric field through a matrix.
The DNA fragments separate according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose
gel.
Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves. [2]
(b) Agarose, which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds. [½ + ½]
(c) Cathode: (i) → (ii) → (iii): Anode [1]
(d) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the gel piece. This step is known as elution. [1]
OR
(a) Insulin cannot be orally administered to diabetic persons because it will get digested in the alimentary
canal as it is a protein. [1]
(b) Administration of insulin from an animal source caused some patients to develop allergy or other side
effects. [1]
(42)
(c) [1½]
(d) In 1983, Eli Lilly prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin
and introduced them in plasmids of E.coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced
separately, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin. [1½]
❑ ❑ ❑
(43)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-3
BIOLOGY
SECTION-A
Ans. 1. When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or other proteins,
antibodies are produced in the host body whereas, when ready-made antibodies are directly given to
protect the body against foreign agents, it is called passive immunity. [1]
e.g., when we are recovering from a disease due to a naturally acquired infection, it is an example of
active immunity.
The antibodies received by a new-born through the colostrum is an example of passive immunity. [1]
Ans. 2. The bacteria shown in the given figure is Streptococcus and the product is streptokinase. [½ + ½]
It is modified by genetic engineering and used as ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from blood vessels of
patients who have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack. [1]
OR
The bacterium was Staphylococci and first antibiotic which was discovered was Penicillin. [½ + ½]
Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci bacteria, once observed a mould growing in one of
his unwashed culture plates around which Staphylococci could not grow. He found it was due to chemical
produced by mould Penicillium notatum and named it Penicillin. [1]
Ans. 3.
• The chemical structure given is of cannabinoid molecule. [½]
• It is obtained from the plant Cannabis sativa. [½]
• It is generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion. [1]
Ans. 4. Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures. [1]
Flocs, while growing consume major part of organic matter in effluent and significantly reduces BOD
(biological oxygen demand) of the effluent. [1]
Ans. 5. Small animals have a large surface area relative to their volume, so they tend to lose body heat very fast
when it is cold outside. They have to spend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism. This
is the main reason why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions. [2]
Ans. 6. Birth rate and death rate refers to per capita births and deaths in a population respectively. [1]
Population at time t0 = 20
Change in population at time t1 = 8
Change in Population 8
Birth rate = = = 0.4 offspring per lotus per year [1]
Population at time t 0 20
(44)
OR
Endemism is the state when species are confined to a range of a particular region only and not found
anywhere else. Such species are called endemic species. [1]
Endemic species are found at biodiversity hotspots.
These hotspots in India are:
(1) Western Ghats and Sri-Lanka
(2) Indo-Burma
(3) Himalaya Any two [½ + ½]
SECTION-B
Ans. 7. Some of the methods of detection and diagnosis of cancer are:

(1) Biopsy – A piece of suspected tissue is cut into thin sections and is stained and examined under a
microscope by a pathologist. [1]
(2) MRI – This method uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect
pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue. [1]
(3) Computed Tomography – CT uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internals of
an object. [1]
OR
Life cycle of Plasmodium inside a human host:
• When a female Anopheles mosquito bites a healthy individual and if sporozoites of Plasmodium enter
this person from the mosquito, then the person gets infected. [1]
• The sporozoites reach the liver and infect the liver cells. They then reproduce asexually in the liver
cells, bursting the cells and releasing parasites into the blood. [½]
• The parasites then reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the RBCs and causing cycles of fever and
other symptoms. Released parasites infect new RBCs. [1]
• Gametocytes (sexual stages) develop in RBCs. [½]
Ans. 8. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of memory of the immune system. [1]
Vaccine is a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened pathogen. When a
person gets vaccinated, antibodies are produced in the body against these antigens, which neutralise the
pathogenic agents during actual infection. The vaccines also generate memory B and T-cells that
recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive
production of antibodies. Vaccines hence help in providing protection against fatal diseases. [2]
Ans. 9. The flow chart shows the three steps involved in the process of PCR.
• Denaturation – The DNA strands are treated with a temperature of 94°C and the strands separate.
[1]
• Annealing – The primers anneal to the complementary sequences on template DNA strands. [1]
• Extension – The thermostable DNA polymerase facilitates the extension of the primers using the
nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. [1]
(45)
OR
Ans. 10. (a) The organisms which can tolerate and are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures are called
stenothermal organisms. [1]
(b) Kangaroo rat in North American deserts is capable of meeting its water requirement through internal
oxidation of fat. [½]
It also has ability to concentrate its urine so that minimal volume of water is used to remove excretory
products. [½]
(c) Allen’s Rule states that mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to
minimise heat loss. [1]
Ans. 11. (a) Species – Area relationship was given by Alexander von Humboldt. [½]
He observed that within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only
upto a limit. [1]
(b) On logarithmic scale, species area relationship is a straight line described by equation
log S = log C + Z log A
where S = Species richness
A = Area
Z = Slope of line (regression coefficient)
C = Y-intercept [1]
If we analyse species-area relationship among very large areas like entire continents, slope of line
becomes much steeper (Z value ranges between 0.6 to 1.2). [½]
(46)
Ans. 12. (a) The bacteria with this rDNA will lose tetracycline resistance but retain ampicillin resistance. [1]
(b) The rDNA has -galactosidase gene inserted at the PstI site.
When these rDNA–bearing bacteria are cultured on a medium containing chromogenic substrate, the
colonies produced will be blue in colour. [2]
SECTION-C
Ans. 13. (a) Recognition sequence for EcoRI is [1]
5 – G A A T T C – 3
3 – C T T A A G – 5
(b) The recombinants will lose kanamycin resistance, hence will not survive in its presence. [1]
(c) pABCD has one recognition site each for EcoRI, HindII and PvuII respectively. [1]
If pABCD is completely digested by these enzymes, 3 fragments will be formed.
(d) The non-recombinants will grow on the medium containing both the antibiotics, tetracycline and
kanamycin. [2]
The recombinants will grow in kanamycin containing medium but not on that containing tetracycline.
OR
(a) ELISA – Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay. [1]
(b) A ssDNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detections using autoradiography. The clone
having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not
have complementarity with the mutated gene. [2]
(c) Conventional methods – [2]
(1) Serum analysis
(2) Urine analysis
❑ ❑ ❑
(47)
Model Test Papers
MATHEMATICS
Model Test Paper-1 Mathematics (Class XII)

for
MATHEMATICS
Topics: Integrals, Application of Integrals, Differential equations, Vector Algebra, Three-
Dimensional Geometry, Probability
1. This question paper contains three sections - A, B and C. Each part is
compulsory.
2. Section - A has 6 short answer type (SA1) questions of 2 marks each.
3. Section - B has 4 short answer type (SA2) questions of 3 marks each.
4. Section - C has 4 long answer type questions (LA) of 4 marks each.
5. There is an internal choice in some of the questions.
6. Q14 is a case-based problem having 2 sub parts of 2 marks each.
SECTION-A
−1 1 − cos 2 x
1. Evaluate  tan 1 + cos 2 x
dx [2]
OR
(1 − x )2
Evaluate e
x
dx
(1 + x 2 )2
 e −2 x y  dx
2. Find the integrating factor of  −  =1 [2]
 x x  dy

3. Find a vector of magnitude 9, which is perpendicular to both the vectors

4iˆ − ˆj + 3kˆ and −2iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ . [2]
(41)
Mathematics (Class XII) Model Test Paper-1
4. Find the cartesian equation of line passing through the point having position
vector iˆ − 2 jˆ − 3kˆ and parallel to the line joining the points having position
vector iˆ − jˆ + 4kˆ and 2iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ . [2]
5. From a lot of 10 items containing 3 defective, a sample of 4 items is drawn

at random. Let the random variable x denote the number of defective item in
sample. If sample is drawn randomly find the probability distribution of x. [2]
6. A bag contains 6 Red and 5 Blue balls and another bag contains 5 Red and
8 Blue balls. A ball is drawn at random from first bag without noticing the
colour, is put in the second bag. A ball is then drawn from the second bag.
Find the probability that the ball drawn is blue in colour. [2]
SECTION-B
tan x + tan3 x
7. Evaluate  1 + tan3 x dx [3]
dy
8. Solve the following differential equation = x sec 2 y [3]
dx
OR
dy
Show that the differential equation ( x − y ) = x + 2y is homogeneous and
dx
hence find the general solution of this differential equation.
9. For any non-zero a, prove that | a  iˆ |2 + | a  jˆ |2 + | a  kˆ |2 = 2 | a |2 [3]
x +1 y + 3 z + 5 x −2 y −4 z−6
10. Show that the lines = = and = =
3 5 7 1 3 5
intersect. Also, find their point of intersection. [3]
OR
Find the vector equation of the line passing through (1, 2, 3) and parallel to
the planes r  (iˆ − jˆ + 2kˆ ) = 5 and r  (3iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) = 6 . Hence find the
cartesian equation also.
(42)
SECTION-C
3/2
11. Evaluate  | x cos x | dx [4]
0
12. Find the area of the following region. [4]

{(x, y), x2 + y2 ≤ 2ax, y2 ≤ ax, x ≥ 0}
OR
Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2 + 2, y = x, x = 0
and x = 3.
13. Let a = i + j + kˆ, b = 4iˆ − 2iˆ + 3kˆ and c = iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ . Find a vector of
magnitude 6 units, which is parallel to the vector 2a − b + 3c . [4]
CASE-BASED/DATA-BASED
14. A milk producing company produces packed litre of milk. The company has
three different machines A, B, C producing 2000, 4000 and 6000 packed
litre of milk per day respectively. In the survey on an average, machine A
produces 1%, B produces 1.5% and C produces 2.5% defective packets of
milk.
Based on the given information, answer the following questions.

(a) What is the probability the packet drawn is not defective? [2]
(b) A packet is drawn at random and found to be defective. What is the
probability that it is produced by machine B. [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(43)

for
MATHEMATICS
compulsory.
SECTION-A
2
1. Evaluate  log(2 + x ) dx. [2]
OR
1 + cot x
Evaluate  x + log(sin x ) dx. [2]
2 3
 2 
2. Find the order & degree of the differential equation  d y  + 3  dy  = 5 x 2 . [2]
 dx 2   dx 
 
3. If a = iˆ + 2 jˆ − 3kˆ and b = 3iˆ − jˆ + 2kˆ, then find the angle between

(2a + b) and (a + 2b). [2]
4. Find the vector joining the points P(2, 3, 0) and Q(–1, –2, –4) directed from P
to Q. Also find direction ratios and direction cosines. [2]
(44)
5. A fair die is tossed twice. If the number appearing on the top is less than 3, it
is a success. Find the probability distribution of successes. [2]
6. A coin is biased so that the head is 3 times as likely to occur as a tail. Coin is
tossed twice. Find probability of getting head both the time. [2]
SECTION-B
2x − 3
7. Evaluate  ( x 2 − 1)(2x + 3) dx. [3]
dy
8. Solve (1 − x 2 ) + xy = ax [3]
dx
OR
dy x + y
Find the general solution of differential equation = . [3]
dx x − y
9. Find a vector whose magnitude is 3 units and which is perpendicular to each
of the vectors a = 3iˆ + jˆ − 4kˆ and b = 6iˆ + 5 ˆj − 2kˆ. [3]
x +1 y +1 z +1
10. Find the shortest distance between the lines = = and
7 −6 1
x −3 y −5 z −7
= = . [3]
1 −2 1
OR
Find the vector and Cartesian equation of the plane which passes through the
point (5, 2, –4) and which is perpendicular to the line with direction ratios
(2, 3, –1). [3]
SECTION-C
 x sin x
11. Evaluate the integral 0 1 + cos2 x dx [4]
(45)
12. Find the area of the region {(x, y) : y2  4x, 4x2 + 4y2  9}. [4]
OR
Find the area of the circle x2 + y2 = 16 interior to the parabola y2 = 6x. [4]
13. Find the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (6, –2, 5) to the straight
line passing through the point (4, –1, 2) and having direction ratios
<1, 4, –3>. [4]
14. A laboratory blood test is 99% effective in detecting Covid-19 when it is in
fact, present. However, the test also yields a false positive result for 0.5% of
the healthy person tested (i.e. if a healthy person is tested, then, with
probability 0.005, the test will imply he has the disease). If 0.1% of the
population actually has the disease, then
(a) What is the probability that a person has COVID-19 given that his test
result is positive? [2]
(b) What is the probability that a person does not have COVID-19 given that
his test result is positive? [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(46)

for
MATHEMATICS
compulsory.
SECTION-A
3log x 4
1. Evaluate e ( x ) dx . [2]
OR
Evaluate  sin7x  sin x dx.

2. Solve the differential equation :
dy
cos3 x + y cos x = sin x . [2]
dx
3. If a, b, c are unit vectors such that a + b + c = 0, then find the value of
a·b + b ·c + c ·a . [2]
4. Find the vector joining the points P(2, 3, 0) and Q(–1, –2, –4) directed from
P to Q. Also find direction cosines of line segment PQ. [2]
(47)
5. Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled

pack of 52 cards. Find the mean for the number of aces. [2]
6. A pair of dice is thrown 200 times. If getting a sum of 9 is considered a
success, find the mean and variance of the number of success. [2]
SECTION-B
dx
7. Evaluate  x +3 − x +2
. [3]
8. Find the particular solution of differential equation
dy 
+ y cot x = 2x + x 2 cot x , given that y = 0 when x = . [3]
dx 2
OR
dy y y 2
Solve the differential equation = + . [3]
dx x x 2
9. Find a vector of magnitude 15, which is perpendicular to both the vectors
(4iˆ − jˆ + 8kˆ ) and (− ˆj + kˆ ). [3]
10. Find the shortest distance between the lines l1 and l2 given by [3]
r = (iˆ + 2 jˆ − 4kˆ ) +  (2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 6kˆ )
r = (3iˆ + 3 jˆ − 5kˆ ) +  (2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 6kˆ ) .
OR
Find the vector and Cartesian equation of the plane which passes through
the point (5, 2, –4) and perpendicular to the line with direction ratios
< 2, 3, –1 >. [3]
(48)
SECTION-C
 x
11. Evaluate the value of 0 1 + sin x dx [4]
12. Find area bounded by curve y = x2 and y = x3. [4]

OR
Find the area enclosed between the parabola y2 = 4ax and the line
y = mx. [4]
13 Find the foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P(2, –3, 4) to the plane
x + 2y + 2z = 13. [4]
14. Two groups are competing for the position on the Board of directors of a
corporation. The probabilities that the first and the second groups will win
are 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. Further, if the first group wins, the probability of
introducing a new product is 0.7 and the corresponding probability is 0.3 if
the second group wins.
(49)
Based on the given information, answer the following questions.

(i) If new product is introduced then find probability that the new product is
launched by first group. [2]
(ii) If new product is introduced then find probability that the new product is
launched by second group. [2]
❑ ❑ ❑
(50)
Mathematics (Class XII) Solutions of Model Test Paper-1
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-1
MATHEMATICS
Topics: Integrals, Application of Integrals, Differential equations, Vector Algebra, Three-Dimensional Geometry,
Probability
SECTION-A
−1 1 − cos 2 x
Ans. 1.  tan 1 + cos 2 x
dx
−1 2sin2 x
=  tan 2cos2 x
dx [1]
−1
=  tan tan x dx
x2
=  xdx = 2
+c [1]
OR
(1 + x 2 − 2x )
e
x
dx
(1 + x 2 )2
 1 2x 
e −
x
 2 2
dx [1]
 (1 + x ) (1 + x ) 
2
ex
= +c [1]
1+ x2
dy e −2 x y 1
Ans. 2. = − , coefficient of y i.e. P = [1]
dx x x x
dy y e −2 x
+ =
dx x x
dx

I.F = e  = e +2
Pdx
=e x x
[1]
Ans. 3. a = 4iˆ − jˆ + 3kˆ
b = −2iˆ + jˆ − 2kˆ
a  b is ⊥ to both a and b
(48)
Solutions of Model Test Paper-1 Mathematics (Class XII)
iˆ ˆj kˆ
ab = 4 −1 3 = −iˆ + 2 jˆ + 2kˆ [1]
−2 1 −2
| ab | = 3
Required vector = 
3
(
9 ˆ
−i + 2 jˆ + 2kˆ )
= −3iˆ + 6 ˆj + 6kˆ or 3iˆ − 6 jˆ − 6kˆ [1]
Ans. 4. a = iˆ − 2 jˆ − 3kˆ
b = (2 − 1)iˆ + (1− (−1)) ˆj + (2 − 4)kˆ
b = iˆ + 2 jˆ − 2kˆ
r = (iˆ − 2 jˆ − 3kˆ ) + (iˆ + 2 jˆ − 2kˆ ) [1]
Cartesian equation of the line
x −1 y + 2 z + 3
= = = [1]
1 2 −2
Ans. 5. X = 0, 1, 2, 3
7
C4 1
P ( x = 0) = 10
=
C4 6
3
C1  7C3 1
P ( X = 1) = 10
= [1]
C4 2
3
C2  7C2 3
P ( X = 2) = 10
=
C4 10
3
C3  7C1 1
P ( X = 3) = 10
=
C4 30
X 0 1 2 3
[1]
P( X ) 1/ 6 1/ 2 3 / 10 1/ 30
Ans. 6. Let A = drawing blue ball from second bag

E1 = Ball drawn from first bag is blue
E2 = Ball drawn from first bag is red
P(A) = P (E1)  P ( A/E1) + P (E2 )  P ( A/E2 ) [1]
5 9 6 8 93
=  +  = [1]
11 14 11 14 154
(49)
SECTION-B
tan x  sec x2
Ans. 7.  1 + tan3 x
dx
Let tanx = t, sec2x dx = dt [1]
tdt
 1+ t 3
t A Bt + C
 = +
1+ t 3 1+ t 1+ t 2 − t
−1 1 1
A= , B = ,C = [1]
3 3 3
−1 dt 1 t +1
3  1+ t 3  1+ t 2 − t
= + dt
−1  1 (2t − 1)dt 3 dt 1
= log(1 + t ) +   2 +  2
3 2 t − t +1 2 1  3   3
2
 
  t − 2  +  2  
     
−1 1 3  2t − 1 
= log(1 + t ) + (1 + t 2 − t ) + tan−1  +c
3 6 3  3 
−1 1 1  2tan x − 1
= log(1 + tan x ) + (1 + tan2 x − tan x ) + tan−1  +c [1]
3 6 3  3 
dy
Ans. 8. = xdx
sec 2 y
cos2y = xdx
Integrating both sides
1 + cos2y
 2
dy = xdx [1]
y sin2y x2
+ +c = [1]
2 4 2
2y + sin2y – 2x2 = c [1]
OR
dy x + 2y
=
dx x−y
x + 2y
f ( x, y ) =
x−y
 ( x + 2y )
f (x, y ) = = 0 (f ( x, y )) so homogeneous with degree 0. [1]
 (x − y )
Let y = vx
dy xdv
=v +
dx dx
(50)
xdv 1 + 2v
v+ = [1]
dx 1− v
v −1 −dx
 v 2 + v + 1 dv =  x
1 2v + 1 3 dv
2  v2 + v +1
dv −  2 dv = –log|x| + c
2 v +v +1
1  2v + 1
log | v 2 + v + 1| − 3 tan−1   = − log | x | + c
2  3 
1   y2 y   −1  2 y + x 
log  2 + + 1 + log x  = 3 tan  +c
2
2   x x    3x 
 2y + x 
log | x 2 + xy + y 2 | = 2 3 tan−1  +c [1]
 3x 
Ans. 9. Let a = a1iˆ + a2 ˆj + a3kˆ
a  iˆ = (a1iˆ + a2 jˆ + a3kˆ )  iˆ
= a2 ( jˆ  iˆ) + a3 (kˆ  iˆ)
= a2 (−kˆ ) + a3 jˆ
= −a2kˆ + a3 jˆ [1]
| a  iˆ |2 = a22 + a32 …(1)
a  ˆj = (a1iˆ + a2 ˆj + a3kˆ )  jˆ
= a1kˆ − a3iˆ
| a  jˆ |2 = a12 + a32 …(2) [1]
a  k = (a1 iˆ + a2 jˆ + a3kˆ )  kˆ
= −a1 jˆ + a2iˆ
| a  kˆ |2 = a12 + a22 ...(3)
Add (1), (2) and (3)

(
| a  iˆ |2 + | a  jˆ |2 + | a  kˆ |2 = 2 a12 + a22 + a32 )
= 2 | a |2 [1]
Ans. 10. The given lines are

x +1 y + 3 z + 5
= = = [let …(i)
3 5 7
(51)
x −2 y −4 z−6
And = = = [let] …(ii)
1 3 5
Then, any point on line (i) is
P(3 – 1, 5 – 3, 7 – 5) …(iii) [1]
And any point on line (ii) is
Q( + 2, 3 + 4, 5 + 6) …(iv)
If lines (i) and (ii) intersect, then these points must coincide.
 3 – 1 =  + 2
5 – 3 = 3 + 4
7 – 5 = 5 + 6
 3 –  = 3 …(v)
5 – 3 = 7 …(vi)
7 – 5 = 11 …(vii)
On multiplying Eq. (v) by 3 and then subtracting Eq. (vi) from it, we get
9 – 3 – 5 + 3 = 9 – 7
1
 4 = 2   = [1]
2
On putting the value of  in Eq. (v), we get
1
3 − = 3
2
3 3
 − = 3   = −
2 2
On putting the values of  and  in Eq. (vii), we get
1  3
7 − 5  −  = 11
2  2
7 15 22
 + = 11  = 11
2 2 2
 11 = 11, which is true
Hence, lines (i) and (ii) intersect and their point of intersection is
 1 1 1 
P  3  − 1, 5  − 3, 7  − 5 
 2 2 2 
1
[put  = in Eq. (iii)]
2
1 1 3
i.e., P ,− ,−  [1]
2 2 2
(52)
OR
( ) (
r  iˆ − jˆ + 2kˆ = 5 and r  3iˆ + ˆj + kˆ = 6 )
Let the direction ratio of the line be b
b is perpendicular to both n1 and n2
b =  n1  n2 ( ) [1]
iˆ ˆj kˆ
b= 1 −1 2 = −3iˆ + 5 jˆ + 4kˆ [1]
3 1 1
 Equation of the line is

r = a + b
( ) (
r = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ +  −3iˆ + 5 ˆj + 4kˆ )
Cartesian equation
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
= = = [1]
−3 5 4
SECTION-C
3/2
Ans. 11.  | x cos x | dx
0
1 3
For 0 < x < 1/2 x [1]
2 2
xcosx > 0 xcosx < 0 [1]
1/2 3/2
 x cos xdx −  x cos x dx

0 1/2
1/2 3/2
 x sin x cos x   x sin x cos x 
= +  − + [1]
   0
2
  2 1/2
5 2
= − 2
2 2
5 − 2
= sq. units [1]
22
Ans. 12. x2 + y2 ≤ 2ax

(x – a)2 + y2 ≤ a2 ….(1)
Required region is inside the circle
y2 ≤ ax …(2)
Required region is inside the parabola
(53)
[1]
On solving (1) and (2)
x = 0, x = a
a 2a 
Area = 2   ax +  a 2 − ( x − a )2 dx  [1]
 0 a 
2a
 2
a
x −a a2  x − a 
= 2  ax 3/2   + 2  a2 − ( x − a)2 + sin−1   [1]
 3 0  2 2  a  a
4 2 a2   4   2
= a + =  +  a sq. units [1]
3 2 3 2
OR
3
Area =  ( y1 − y 2 ) dx
0
The parabola y = x2 + 2 and the line.
y = x will not intersect. [1]
[1]
3
=  ( x 2 + 2 − x ) dx [1]
0
3
x3 x2 
= + 2x − 
3 2 
0
9 21
= 9+6– = sq. units [1]
2 2
(54)
Ans. 13. Given, a = iˆ + jˆ + kˆ; b = 4iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3kˆ
and c = iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ
 2a − b + 3c
= 2 ( iˆ + jˆ + kˆ ) − ( 4iˆ − 2 jˆ + 3kˆ ) + 3 ( iˆ − 2 jˆ + kˆ )
= 2iˆ + 2 jˆ + 2kˆ − 4iˆ + 2 jˆ − 3kˆ + 3iˆ − 6 jˆ + 3kˆ
 2a − b + 3c = iˆ − 2 ˆj + 2kˆ [1]
Now, a unit vector in the direction of vector
2a − b + 3c
2a − b + 3c = [1]
2a − b + 3c
iˆ − 2 jˆ + 2kˆ iˆ − 2 jˆ + 2kˆ
= =
(1)2 + ( −2)2 + (2)2 9
iˆ − 2 ˆj + 2kˆ 1 ˆ 2 ˆ 2 ˆ
= = i − j+ k [1]
3 3 3 3
Hence, vector of magnitude 6 units parallel to the vector
1 2 2 
2a − b + 3c = 6  iˆ − j + kˆ 
3 3 3 
= 2iˆ − 4 jˆ + 4kˆ or −2iˆ + 4 ˆj − 4kˆ [1]

Ans. 14. Let E : packet drawn is defective
A : packet drawn is from machine A
B : packet drawn is from machine B
C : packet drawn is from machine C
(a) P(E) = P(A)  P(E/A) + P(B)  P(E/B) + P(C)  P(E/C) [1]
1 1 1
=  0.01 +  0.015 +  0.025
6 3 2
= 0.019
P(E ) = 0.98 [1]
P (B )  P (E / B )
(b) P(B/E) = [1]
P ( A)  P (E / A) + P (B )  P (E / B ) + P (C )  P (E / C )
1
 0.015
= 3
1 1 1
 0.01 +  0.015 +  0.025
6 3 2
= 0.263 [1]
❑ ❑ ❑
(55)
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-2
MATHEMATICS
Probability
SECTION-A
 log(2 + x ) dx =  1 log(2 + x ) dx [Using By parts]

2 2
Ans. 1.
2x
= x log(2 + x 2 ) −  x  dx
2 + x2
( x 2 + 2) − 2
= x log(2 + x 2 ) − 2 dx [1]
(2 + x 2 )
 2 
= x log(2 + x 2 ) − 2 1 −  dx
 2 + x2 
 1  x 
= x log(2 + x 2 ) − 2  x − 2  tan−1   + c
 2  2 
 x 
= x log(2 + x 2 ) − 2x + 2 2 tan−1  +c [1]
 2
OR
1 + cot x
Let I =  x + log(sin x ) dx
Put x + log (sin x) = t [1]
 {1 + cot x} dx = dt
dt
I =
t
= log (t) + c [1]
= log (x + log {sin x}) + c
Ans.2. Order is 2 and degree is 2 [1]
Ans.3. 2a + b = (5iˆ + 3 jˆ − 4kˆ ) and a + 2b = 7iˆ + 0 jˆ + kˆ
(2a + b )·(a + 2b)

 cos = [1]
2a + b · a + 2b
(56)
(5  7 + 3  0 − 4  1)
 cos =
50  50
31
 cos =
50
 31 
  = cos−1   [1]
 50 
Ans.4. PQ 3iˆ 5 jˆ 4kˆ
Direction ratios are < –3, –5, –4 > [1]
3 1 4
Direction cosines are , , [1]
5 2 2 5 2
Ans.5. Let X denote the random variable “number of success”
Then X can take three value 0, 1 or 2
2 1
Also, P = P (getting a number < 3) = =
6 3
1 2
 q = 1− = [1]
3 3
 The probability distribution of X is [1]
X 0 1 2
P(x) 4 4 1
9 9 9
3
Ans.6. Probability of getting head = [1]
4
3 3
 Probability of getting head both times = .
4 4
9
= [1]
16
SECTION-B
2x − 3
Ans. 7. Let I =  ( x 2 − 1)(2x + 3) dx
2x − 3 1 5 24
Now, = − + − [1]
( x 2 − 1)(2x + 3) 10( x + 1) 2( x + 1) 5(2 x + 3)
[On resolving into partial fraction]

1 dx 5 dx 24 dx
 I=− 
10 x − 1 2  x + 1 5  2x + 3
+ − [1]
1 5 12
 I=− log | x − 1| + log | x + 1| − log | 2x + 3 | + c [1]
10 2 5
dy x ax
Ans. 8. + y=
dx 1 − x 2 1− x2
x
 1− x 2 dx 1
I.F. = e = [1]
1− x2
(57)
1 a 1
y =  +c
1− x 2 2 1
− 1− x2
2
y = a + c 1− x2 [1]
OR
Put y = v x we get
dy dv
v x
dx dx
dv 1 v
 v x [1]
dx 1– v
xdv 1 v – v v2

dx 1– v
1– v dv dx
 2
[1]
1 v x
1
 tan–1 v – ln 1 v 2 ln x c
2
y 1 1 y2
 tan–1 – ln = lnx + c [1]
x 2 x2
Ans. 9. Let the required vector be c = c1iˆ + c2 jˆ + c3kˆ.
Then c = c12 + c22 + c32 = 3
 c12 + c2 + c32 = 9 …(i) [1]
also c is perpendicular to
 c ·a = 0
 (c1iˆ + c2 jˆ + c3kˆ )·(3iˆ + ˆj − 4kˆ ) = 0

 3c1 + c2 – 4c3 = 0 …(ii)
and c is perpendicular to b
 c ·b = 0
 (c1iˆ + c2 jˆ + c3kˆ )·(6iˆ + 5 jˆ − 2kˆ ) = 0
 6c1 + 5c2 – 2c3 = 0 …(iii)
Solving (ii) and (iii), by cross multiplication method, we get
c1 c2 c3
 = = =k (say)
−2 + 20 −24 + 6 15 − 6
 c1 = 2k, c2 = –2k, c3 = k [1]
(58)
Substituting these values in (i), we get
4k2 + 4k2 + k2 = 9
 k2 = 1
 k = ±1
 c1 = 2, c2 = –2, c3 = 1 or c1 = –2, c2 = 2, c3 = –1
Hence c = (2iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ ) is the required vector. [1]
Alternate method :
Vector perpendicular to both a & b is obtained by ± a b [1]
iˆ ˆj kˆ
i.e. = ± 3 1 –4 18iˆ – 18 jˆ 9kˆ [1]
6 5 –2
(
If magnitude is 3, then required vector is  2iˆ – 2 jˆ + kˆ . ) [1]
(a2 a1 ) (b1 b2 )
Ans. 10. Shortest distance = [1]
| b1 b2 |
(4iˆ 6 ˆj 8kˆ ) ( 4iˆ 6 ˆj 8kˆ )

= [1]
42 62 82
42 62 82
= [1]
42 62 82
= 2 29 [1]
OR
[r (5iˆ 2 jˆ 4kˆ )] [2iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ] 0
r (2iˆ 3 jˆ kˆ ] 20 [Vector equation] [2]
2x 3y z 20 [Cartesian equation] [2]
SECTION-C
 x sin x
Ans. 11 Let I = 0 1 + cos2 x dx
 ( − x )sin x
I= dx [1]
0 1 + cos2 x
On adding,
 sin x
2I =  dx [1]
0 1 + cos2 x
(59)
  sin x
2 0 1 + cos2 x
I= dx
Let cosx = t  –sinxdx = dt [1]
 1 1
2 −11 + t 2
I= dt
2
I= [1]
4
1  1 
Ans. 12. The points of intersection of the curves are  , 2  and  , − 2 
2  2 
so, required area = area ABCO
[2]
= 2{area(OMC) + area(MCB)}
 1/2 3/2 1 
= 2   2 x dx +  9 − 4 x 2 dx  [1]
 0 1/2 2 
  x 9 − x2 9  
3
4
  1 −1 x  
1/2
= 2  x 3/2 +  + sin  
3 0 4

2 2 3 
1 

2 2 1  9 9  1 
= +  − 2 − sin−1  
3 2 4 2  3 
9 9 −1  1  1
= − sin   + sq. units [1]
8 4 3 3 2
OR
Solving the curves, we get
A(2, − 2 3) and C(2, 2 3) as the points of intersection.
So, required area
=2 0
2
6 x dx + 
2
4
16 − x 2 dx 
   4
x
   x 16 − x
2
 2 2 16  
= 2  6  x 3/2 + + sin−1  
 3 0
 2 2 4 
  2 
4
= (4 + 3)
3
(60)
x 4 y 1 z 2
Ans. 13. 
1 4 3
Any general point on line is ( + 4, 4 – 1, –3 + 2) [1]
Direction ratios of line ( – 2, 4 + 1, –3 – 3) [1]
As this is perpendicular to first line
( – 2) + 4(4 + 1) + 3(3 + 3) = 0
26 + 11 = 0
11
 [1]
26
93 35 85
Point (foot of perpendicular) is = , , [1]
26 13 26
Ans. 14. Let E1 be the event that tested person has disease
Let E2 be the event that tested person doesn’t have disease
and A be the event blood test result is positive.
(a) Applying Baye’s theorem
 A
P ( E1 ) P  
 E1 
P ( E1 / A ) = [1]
 A  A 
P ( E1 ) P   + P ( E2 ) P  
E
 1  E2 
0.001× 0.99 22
= = [1]
(0.001× 0.99) + (0.999 × 0.005) 133
P ( E2 ) .P ( A / E2 )
(b) Similarly P ( E2 / A ) = [1]
 A   A
P ( E2 ) P   + P ( E1 ) P  
 E2   E1 
0.999 × 0.005 111
= = [1]
(0.001× 0.99) + (0.999 × 0.005) 133
❑ ❑ ❑
(61)
Mathematics (Class XI) Solutions of Model Test Paper-3
Solutions AY2021-22
of
Model Test Paper-3
MATHEMATICS
Probability
SECTION-A
e
3log x
Ans. 1. Let I = ( x 4 ) dx
log( x3 )
= e  ( x 4 ) dx
x  x 4 dx
3
= [1]
x
7
= dx
x8
= + c. [1]
8
OR
1
 sin7x  sin x dx =
2
2sin7 x  sin x dx
1
2
= {cos(7x − x ) − cos(7 x + x )} dx [1]
1
2
= (cos6 x − cos8 x ) dx
=
2 
1 sin6 x sin8 x
6
−
8
+c  [1]
dy
Ans. 2. + y sec 2 x = sec 2 x tan x
dx
I.F. = e 
sec 2 xdx
= etan x [1]
 d (ye ) =  etan x sec 2 x tan xdx

tan x

 yetanx = etanx tanx – etanx + c
 y = tanx – 1 + ce–tanx
y = tan x − 1+ Ce− tan x [1]
(62)
OR
Ans. 3. (a + b + c )·(a + b + c ) = 0
2 2 2
 a + b + c + 2(a ·b + b ·c + c ·a ) = 0 [1]
 1+ 1+ 1+ 2(a·b + b ·c + c ·a) = 0
−3
 a ·b + b ·c + c ·a = [1]
2
Ans. 4. PQ 3iˆ 5 jˆ 4kˆ
Direction ratio is < –3, –5, –4 > [1]

3 1 4 3 1 4
Direction cosine is , , or , , [1]
5 2 2 5 2 5 2 2 5 2
Ans. 5. The probability distribution of the number of aces is
X 0 1 2
48 48 144 4 48 4 48 24 4 4 1 [1]
P(X)  =  +  =  =
52 52 169 52 52 52 52 169 52 52 169
144 24 1 26 2
Mean =  =  pi xi = +
169 169
 1+
169
2 = =
169 13
[1]
Ans. 6. P = getting a sum of 9 on a pair of dice

4 1
= =
36 9
1 8
q = 1− = . Here n = 200 [1]
9 9
1 200
Now, mean = np = 200  =
9 9
1 8 1600
Variance = npq = 200   = [1]
9 9 81
SECTION-B
dx 1 x +3 + x +2
Ans. 7.  x +3 − x +2
=  x +3 − x +2

x +3 + x +2
dx
x +3 + x +2
=  ( x + 3) − ( x + 2) dx [1]
1 1
=  ( x + 3)2 dx +  ( x + 2)2 dx [1]
=
2
3 ( 
x + 3)
3 3
2 + ( x + 2) 2 + c  [1]
(63)
Ans. 8. I.F. = elogsinx = sinx [1]
y.sin x =  2x sin xdx +  x 2 cos xdx
=  2x sin xdx + x 2 sin x −  2x sin xdx
ysinx = x2sinx + c [1]

2
c=−
4
2
y = x2 − cosecx [1]
4
OR
dy dv
Put y = vx we get =v +x [1]
dx dx
dv
 v+x = v + v2
dx
dv dx 1
 2
=  − = ln x + c [1]
v x v
x
 ln x + =c [1]
y
Ans. 9. Let a = (4iˆ − jˆ + 8kˆ ) and b = (− jˆ + kˆ )
(a  b)
A unit vector perpendicular to both a and b = 
ab
iˆ jˆ kˆ
Now, a  b = 4 −1 8 [1]
0 −1 1
= (−1+ 8)iˆ − (4 − 0) jˆ + (−4 − 0)kˆ
= 7iˆ − 4 jˆ − 4kˆ
 ab = 72 + ( −4)2 + ( −4)2
= 81
=9 [1]
So, a unit vector which is perpendicular to both
(a  b) 7iˆ − 4 jˆ − 4kˆ
a and b =  =
ab 9
15(7iˆ − 4 ˆj − 4kˆ )
The required vector = ±
9
5 ˆ
=± (7i − 4 jˆ − 4kˆ ). [1]
3
(64)
(a2 a1 ) b
Ans. 10. Shortest distance = [1]
|b|
ˆ jˆ kˆ ) (2iˆ 3 jˆ 6kˆ )
= (2i [1]
7
ˆ ˆ ˆ
= 9i 14 j 4k
7
293
= [1]
7
OR
[r (5iˆ 2 jˆ 4kˆ )] (2iˆ 3 jˆ kˆ ) 0 [1]
r (2iˆ 3 jˆ kˆ ) 20 [Vector form] [1]
2x + 3y – z = 20 [Cartesian form] [1]
 x
Ans. 11. Let I =  dx
0 1 + sin x
 −x
I= dx [1]
0 1 + sin x
 dx
Adding, 2I =  dx [1]
0 1 + sin x
  1 − sin x
2 0 1 − sin2 x
I= dx
  1 sin x 
=  −
2  cos x cos2 x 
0  2
dx [1]
 
2 0
= (sec 2 x − tan x sec x ) dx

= [tan x − sec x ]0
2
I = . [1]
(65)
1
 (x − x 3 ) dx
2
Ans. 12. Required area = [1]
0
1
 x3 x2 
=  −  [1]
 3 4 
0
1 1
= − [1]
3 4
1
= [1]
12
OR
 4a 4a 
The points of intersection of both the curves are (0, 0) and  2 , .
m m 
so, required area
4a / m2
= (2 ax − mx ) dx
0
4a / m2

 2 
mx 2 
= 2 a  x 3/2 − 

 3 2 
0
3/2 2
4  4a  m  4a 
= a 2  −
3 m  2  m2 
32  a 2  8a 2
=   − 3
3  m 3  m
8a2
= sq. units
3 m3
(66)
SECTION-C
Ans. 13. P(2, –3, 4) to plane x + 2y + 2z = 13 [1]
Direction ratio perpendicular to plane are < 1, 2, 2 >
Let Q be perpendicular to plane (x, y, z)
x 2 y 3 z 4
 [1]
1 2 2
Any general point on line is ( + 2, 2 – 3, 2 + 4)
This satisfy the plane x + 2y + 2z = 13
 + 2 + 2(2 – 3) + 2(2 + 4) = 13
9 + 4 = 13
 1 [1]
x = 3, y = –1, z = 6
Point Q be (3, –1, 6) [1]
Ans. 14. Let L be the event of product being launched P(G1) be the probability it is launched by group 1 and P(G2)
be the probability it is launched by group 2
(i) By Bayes’ Theorem
 L 
P   P (G1)
 G1   G1 
P  = [1]
 L   L   L 
P   P (G1) + P   P (G2)
 G1   G2 
0.7  0.6 7
= = [1]
(0.7  0.6) + (0.3  0.4) 9
(ii) Similarly by Bayes’ Theorem
 L 
P  P (G2)
 G2   G2 
P  = [1]
 L   L   L 
P   P (G1) + P   P (G2)
 G1   G2 
0.3  0.4 2
= = [1]
(0.7  0.6) + (0.3  0.4) 9
❑ ❑ ❑
(67)
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Aakash Cbse Term-Ii - Amtp (Class Xii) - 2021-22

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Aakash Model Test Papers (AMTP)

2. A student must finish answering the question paper of each subject

Aakash Educational Services Limited [AESL]

Time : 2 Hours Model Test Paper-1 M.M. : 35

1. (a) What is the difference between conduction current and displacement

(b) What is the SI unit of radioactivity? How is it related to curie? [1]

Answer following questions on the basis of information given.

Time : 2 Hours Model Test Paper-2 M.M. : 35

3. Distinguish between a metal and an insulator on the basis of energy band

Time : 2 Hours Model Test Paper-3 M.M. : 35

1. In a pure semiconductor crystal of Si, if aluminium is added then what type of

5. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of

Atomic masses given to be

7. Explain what is Brewster’s law and how it is related to refractive index of a

10. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 6 for

Case Study: Junction Diode

OI = focal length of objective (Fo)

= 2  9.1 10−31  1.6  10−19

(b) We know, ne nh = ni2 [1½]

(c) Answer (i)

So, current through 1  resistor

1(i) = 2(r) [since angles are small]

1( + ) = 2( + ) [½]

1 − 2 =  (2 − 1 )

1 tan  − 2 tan = (2 − 1 ) tan 

Applying cartesian sign convention

Ans. 6. Given d = 0.15 mm = 0.15 × 10–3 m

nD 2  1 450  10−9

Total magnification M = m0me

The angular momentum for any permitted orbit is

= 4.5 × 109 × 3.15 × 107 s

= 253 × 1020 atom [1]

= 1.237 × 105 becquerel [½]

(2n − 1)6  10−7 3

4  600  10−9  1.4

= 2  9.1 10−31  1.6  10−19  130 = 6.15  10−24 kg m s –1 [1]

From Snell’s law [½]

 1.33 sini = 1 sin 90°

Also from ABC

 r = 0.9 tan (48.75)

Area = r2 = (1.026)2 = 3.3 m2 [½]

 [12 u + 12 u – 19.992439 u – 4.00260 u] × C2 [1]

= 4.62 MeV [½]

 i = tan–1 () [1]

lens would behave as a converging lens only

For the case of minimum deviation

From Snell’s law

Ans. 9. (a) K.Emax = h – 

 h = 4.5 × 10–21 + 3.68 × 10–19 [½]

  = 0.564 × 1015 Hz [½]

(c) Threshold wavelength [1]

hc 6.6  10−34  3  108

6000 Å > 5380 Å

So, photoelectric emission does not takes place

Ans. 10. For final image at infinity

 f0 = 6fe and 36 = fe + 6fe [½]

(c) Answer (ii) [1]

Time : 2 Hours Model Test Paper-1 M.M. : 35

(a) Ethanoic acid, 2-chloroethanoic acid, 2-nitroethanoic acid (order of

(b) p-methoxybenzoic acid, benzoic acid, p-nitrobenzoic acid (ka value)

(c) Propanal, propanol, 2-propanone (Boiling point) [1 × 2 = 2]

3. Calculate pH of electrolyte solution of hydrogen electrode having oxidation

4. Account for the following