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The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
ASSURANCE
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Assurance
The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
ISBN: 978-1-50972-728-5
Previous ISBN: 978-1-50971-993-8
First edition 2007
Thirteenth edition 2019
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced,

stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any
means, graphic, electronic or mechanical including photocopying,
recording, scanning or otherwise, without the prior written permission
of the publisher.
The content of this publication is intended to prepare students for
the ICAEW examinations, and should not be used as professional
advice.
British Library Cataloguing-in-Publication Data
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library
Contains public sector information licensed under the Open

Government Licence v3.0
Originally printed in the United Kingdom on paper obtained from
traceable, sustainable sources.
© ICAEW 2019
ii ICAEW 2020
Contents
The following questions are exam-standard. Unless told otherwise, these questions are the style,
content and format that you can expect in your exam.
Title Page
Question Answer
1 Concept of and need for assurance 3 127
2 Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 8 130
3 Process of assurance: planning the assignment 11 132
4 Process of assurance: evidence and reporting 20 135
5 Introduction to internal control 25 137
6 Revenue system 36 141
41 143
Lear
7 Purchases system
in
8 Employee costs 46 145
9 Internal audit 51 147
10 Documentation 55 148
11 Evidence and sampling 59 150
12 Written representations 69 154
13
14
o
p
Cies
Substantive procedures – key financial statement figures
Codes of professional ethics

72
84
155
160
15
16 PartnerVi
Integrity, objectivity and independence
Confidentiality
Mock Exam guidance notes

88
102
177
162
166
CAEW
ICAEW Conte i
Exam
This exam will consist of 50 questions with equal marks, adding up to 100
marks. The questions are of the following types:
 Multiple choice – select 1 from 4 options A, B, C or D (see Chapter 1 Q5)
 Multi-part multiple choice – select 1 from 2, 3 or 4 options, for two or more
question parts (see Chapter 1 Q4)
 Multiple response – select 2 or more responses from 4 or more options (see Chapter 1
Q1) In this Question Bank you should select only one option per question unless told
otherwise. The exam is 1.5 hours long and at least 55 marks are required to pass this exam
Our website has the latest information, guidance and exclusive resources to help you prepare
for this exam. Find everything you need, from exam webinars, sample assessments, errata sheets
and the syllabus to advice from the examiners at icaew.com/exams if you're studying the ACA
and icaew.com/cfabstudents if you're studying ICAEW CFAB.
i Assuran ICAEW
Question
Bank
2 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2020
Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance
1 Which three of the following are key elements of a general assurance
engagement? A A user
B A subject
matter C
Suitable
criteria
D An assurance file LO 1a
2 Which three of the following describe aspects of the expectations gap with respect to
the external audit?
A Users do not understand the meaning of the audit
opinion B Users are not aware of the limitations of the
audit process
C Users do not appreciate that reasonable assurance is a low level of assurance
D Users do not understand what the audit process involves LO 1e
3 Which two of the following are limitations of the provision of

assurance? A Assurance work is carried out by people
independent of the entity B Sampling is used in assurance
work
C Client systems have inherent limitations
D Unqualified staff may be used on assurance engagements LO 1e
4 In any assurance engagement there are three parties involved: the responsible party, the
practitioner and the user.
In respect of given subject matter state which party:
determines the suitable
criteria? A User
B Practitioner
C Responsible party
provides an opinion on whether the subject matter complies with the
criteria? D User
E Practitioner
F Responsible party LO 1c
ICAEW Chapter 1: Concept of and need for 3

5 Which one of the following statements best describes the evidence obtained and
the opinion given in a reasonable assurance engagement?
A Sufficient appropriate evidence and a negatively worded
opinion B Sufficient appropriate evidence and a positively
worded opinion C A lower level of evidence and a negatively
worded opinion
D A lower level of evidence and a positively worded opinion LO 1h
6 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false.
A statutory audit gives reasonable assurance that the financial statements give a true and
fair view.
A True
B False
A negative assurance conclusion gives a limited level of
assurance. C True
D False
Reasonable assurance is absolute assurance of the correctness of the subject matter.
E True
F False LO 1d
7 Jones LLP is the external auditor of Blue plc, a listed company. The directors of Blue plc
have requested that Jones LLP carry out a review engagement assessing the effectiveness
of its corporate governance policies against the UK Corporate Governance Code.
For the above review engagement, select which part of the engagement description
constitutes the subject matter, which describes the suitable criteria and which party is
the responsible party.
The subject matter
A Blue plc's corporate governance
policies B The UK Corporate Governance
Code The suitable criteria
C Blue plc's corporate governance
policies D The UK Corporate Governance
Code The responsible party
E Jones LLP
F The directors of Blue plc LO 1a/c
4 Assurance: Question ICAEW

8 For each of the following statements relating to the provisions of the Companies Act 2006,
select whether they are true or false.
An individual or firm is eligible for appointment as statutory auditor if the individual
or firm is a member of a recognised supervisory body and is eligible for appointment
under the rules of that body.
A True
B False
A person may not act as a statutory auditor of a company if that person is an
officer or employee of the company.
C True
D False LO 1f
9 Which one of the following best describes the concept of

assurance? Assurance refers to:
A an assurance firm's high level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion
being made by one party for the use of another party
B an assurance firm's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by
one party for the use of another party
C a user's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by another party
D an assurance firm's limited level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being
made by one party for the use of another party LO 1a
10 Which three of the following are benefits of an assurance report on financial

information? An assurance report:
A enhances the credibility of the information being reported on
B reduces the risk of management bias in the information being reported
on Cattests to the correctness of the information being reported on
D draws the attention of the user to deficiencies in the information being reported on
LO 1b

11 In any assurance engagement there are three parties involved: the responsible party, the
practitioner and the user.
For each of the following select which party:
prepares the subject
matter? A Responsible
party
B Practitioner
C User
gathers evidence on the subject
matter? D Responsible party
E Practitioner
F User LO 1c
12 The following is an extract from an independent accountant's unmodified report on a

profit forecast:
'Based on our examination of the evidence supporting the assumptions, nothing has come
to our attention which causes us to believe that these assumptions do not provide a
reasonable basis for the forecast.'
Which one of the following best describes the type of assurance provided by this
statement?
A Positive assurance expressed
negatively B Negative assurance expressed
positively
C High level of assurance expressed negatively
D Limited level of assurance expressed negatively LO 1d
13 In the context of a statutory audit which three of the following are commonly cited
examples of misunderstandings that contribute to the expectation gap?
The belief that:
A the auditor's report certifies the financial statements as
correct B the auditor's principal duty is to detect fraud
C the auditor is employed by the directors
D the auditor checks all transactions LO 1e

14 The level of assurance provided by an assurance engagement will depend on the type
of engagement.
For each of the following examples, select the level of assurance which would be given.
Statutory audit
A Absolute
B Reasonable
Review of financial
information C
Reasonable
D Limited
Report on profit and cash flow
forecasts E Reasonable
F Limited LO 1d
15 The Companies Act 2006 requires all companies to be audited, but allows small companies
an exemption from this requirement where they meet certain criteria.
Small Ltd has an annual turnover of £10 million, total assets of £5.1
million, and 101 employees.
Assuming no special circumstances exist, is Small Ltd required to have an audit in the UK?
A Yes
B No
Tiny Ltd has an annual turnover of £15 million, total assets of £5.2
Assuming no special circumstances exist, is Tiny Ltd required to have an audit in the UK?
C Yes
D No
Little Ltd has an annual turnover of £5 million, total assets of £4.9
Assuming no special circumstances exist, is Little Ltd required to have an audit in the UK?
E Yes
F No LO 1f

Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an
engagement
1 Which two of the following are auditors always required to do on being invited to
accept an audit engagement?
A Ensure they are professionally qualified to act
B Ensure they have adequate existing resources to carry out the audit
C Obtain references for key personnel within the entity to be audited
D Communicate with the predecessor auditors to discover any reasons they should not
accept appointment LO 1f
2 Which two of the following might indicate that an assurance client could have higher
than normal inherent or control risk?
A Poor recent
performance B Strong
internal controls C Unusual
transactions
D The existence of an internal audit department LO 1f
3 Claret LLP, an assurance firm, has the following two clients among its client portfolio.
For each client, select whether inherent risk is high or low.
Tulip Ltd is planning to list on the local stock exchange within the next two
years. A High risk
B Low risk
Dhalia Ltd is currently facing financial difficulties and is seeking alternative forms of
finance. C High risk
D Low risk LO 1f
4 Which three of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of

assurance services?
A Clearly defines the extent of the assurance provider's
responsibilities B Provides written confirmation of the acceptance
of the engagement C Confirms the scope of the engagement
D Certifies the assurance provider's opinion LO 1f

5 Which three of the following procedures should be carried out after the audit
firm has decided to accept appointment as auditor?
A Ensure that the outgoing auditors' removal/resignation has been properly
conducted BEnsure that a resolution has been passed at the general meeting to
appoint the new
auditors
C Perform checks to ensure that there are no legal or ethical reasons why the new
audit firm cannot act as auditor
D Submit a letter of engagement to the directors LO 1f
6 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in respect of
the audit engagement letter.
The engagement letter should be sent before acceptance of appointment.
A True
B False
The engagement letter should be sent after the appointment of the auditor but
before the commencement of the audit.
C True
D False
The engagement letter should be sent after the commencement of the audit but before
the signing of the auditor's report.
E True
F False
An engagement letter should be sent to all new
clients. G True
H False LO 1f
7 Which one of the following correctly describes the period for which client
identification documents must be kept under money laundering regulations?
A For a minimum of five years and until five years have elapsed since the
relationship with the client has ceased
B For a minimum of seven years and until seven years have elapsed since the relationship
with the client has ceased
C For a minimum of five years and until seven years have elapsed since the relationship
with the client has ceased
D For a minimum of seven years and until five years have elapsed since the relationship
with the client has ceased LO 1f
ICAEW Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an 9

8 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement letter?
A The responsibilities of the auditor
B Arrangements regarding the planning and performance of the
audit C The form of any reports
D Basis on which fees are computed LO 1f
9 Which three of the following are purposes of a letter of engagement?

A Setting out the form of any report to be issued
B Providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements in
internal control
C Documenting and confirming acceptance of the
appointment D Narrowing the expectations gap
E Providing evidence on matters where other evidence is not expected to exist LO 1f
10 Which one of the following best describes professional

scepticism? The assurance provider should:
A not believe anything that management tells him
B not believe anything that management tells him, without obtaining
supporting evidence
C apply a questioning mind to the information and evidence he obtains
D always assume the worst outcome in cases of uncertainty LO 1g
11 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement

letter? A The scope of the audit
B The reporting framework that is applicable for the financial statements being prepared
C Details of client identification procedures to be performed in relation to
Money Laundering Regulations
D A statement that, in accordance with the Companies Act 2006, the auditor's
liability cannot be restricted LO 1f

Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the
assignment
1 Which three of the following are objectives of audit
planning? A To determine the scope of the engagement
B To ensure appropriate attention is devoted to the important areas of the
audit C To identify potential problems and resolve them on a timely basis
D To assign work to members of the audit team LO 1f
2 With respect to ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material
Misstatement Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment, which three
of the following procedures must be used in understanding the entity and its
environment?
A Inquiries of management and others within the
entity B Inquiries of third parties
C Analytical procedures
D Observation and inspection LO 1f
3 Which three of the following constitute analytical

procedures? A Consideration of comparable
information for prior periods
B Consideration of relationships between elements of financial information that are
expected to conform to a predicted pattern
C Consideration of whether a balance has been calculated correctly
D Consideration of similar industry information LO 1f
4 Which three of the following are auditors helped to decide by setting a preliminary
materiality threshold?
A What audit staff to assign to the
audit B How many items to
examine
C Whether to use sampling
D What level of misstatement is likely to lead to the auditor not being able to give an
unmodified opinion LO 1f
ICAEW Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the 1

5 Which three of the following would normally be included in the overall audit
strategy? A Details of economic factors and industry conditions
B The results of initial analytical procedures
C Confirmation of management's responsibility for the financial statements
D Identification of specific audit risks LO 1f
6 In each of the following cases, select whether inherent risk is higher or lower than
normal. The company operates a profit-related pay scheme.
A Inherent risk higher than
normal B Inherent risk lower
than normal
The business of the company is cash-
based. C Inherent risk higher than
normal
D Inherent risk lower than normal
Financial statements contain balances with straightforward financial accounting
requirements.
E Inherent risk higher than normal
F Inherent risk lower than normal LO 1f
7 For each of the following statements about materiality, select whether they are true or false.
Materiality may depend on the size of the error in the context of its omission or
misstatement.
A True
B False
Materiality should be considered when planning audit procedures and when evaluating
discovered misstatements.
C True
D False
Materiality is always expressed as a proportion of
profits. E True
F False LO 1f

8 Audit risk can be split into three components: inherent risk, control risk and detection
risk. For each of the following examples, select the type of risk illustrated.
The organisation is seeking to raise finance for a new
venture. A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
The organisation has a number of estimates in its financial
statements. D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f
The organisation has a high turnover of staff in the accounts
department. A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
The auditor will be using samples in
testing. D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f
10 Which two of the following would be used in understanding the entity in accordance
with ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement
Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment?
A Industry, regulatory and other external
factors B A preliminary review of internal
controls
C The results of tests of details
D The results of a review of events after the date of the financial statements LO 1f

the concept of materiality.
Materiality should be calculated at the planning stage of all
audits. A True
B False
Once established, the materiality level initially set cannot be revised during the course of
the audit.
C True
D False
Materiality will influence the audit opinion
given. E True
F False LO 1f
Senior management regularly override the system of
controls. A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
Directors' pay is related to company
profitability. D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f
13 Which three of the following would increase inherent risk?

A Sample sizes have been calculated incorrectly by the auditor and are too
small B A significant number of balances are based on estimates
C The financial statements include complex
transactions D Audit staff are inexperienced
E The company is seeking to raise finance LO 1f

14 As part of his overall risk assessment an auditor has concluded that detection risk
must be low.
For each of the following, select the appropriate consequence of this.
Materiality
A Higher
B Lower
Sample sizes
C Bigger
D Smaller LO 1f
15 For each of the following situations, select the most appropriate approach which
should be used by the assurance firm.
The audit of a new client, recently started up, with few employees in its accounting
department
A Tests of control only
B Substantive procedures only
C A mix of tests of control and substantive procedures
The audit of a long-standing client with a sophisticated IT system and an internal
audit department
D Tests of control only
E Substantive procedures only
F A mix of tests of control and substantive procedures LO 3f
16 As part of your analytical procedures on the financial statements of Dreamy Desserts

Ltd you have identified that the gross profit margin has fallen from 27% to 24%.
Which two of the following could be a valid explanation for this decrease?
A Unusually high sales at the end of the year resulted in lower levels of closing
inventory as compared to the previous year
B Increased competition resulted in sales prices being cut
C A bank overdraft resulted in a higher interest expense than in previous years
D There was a significant change in the mix of products sold LO 1f/3g

17 In each of the following cases, select whether inherent risk is higher or lower than normal.
The company has recently listed on the local stock exchange with high profit expectations
from analysts.
A Inherent risk higher than
normal B Inherent risk lower
than normal
Inventory is the largest balance on the statement of financial
position. C Inherent risk higher than normal
D Inherent risk lower than normal
The company operates in a slow-moving, stable
industry. E Inherent risk higher than normal
F Inherent risk lower than normal LO 1f
the concept of materiality.
Materiality depends only on the monetary amount of an
item. A True
B False
Materiality may depend on either the nature of an item or its monetary
amount. C True
D False
Materiality is a matter of professional
judgement. E True
F False LO 1f
The organisation has few employees in its accounting
department. A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
The organisation operates in a fast-moving, high-tech
environment. D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f

20 Which two of the following options are signs of
overtrading? A Inventory decreasing
B Cash decreasing
C Payables decreasing
D Receivables increasing LO 1f
21 Deteriora Ltd's quick ratio has fallen from 1.9:1 to 1.6:1.

Which one of the following might help to explain this decline?
A The allowance for receivables has been reduced
B Credit control has been poor
C The entity has purchased a property for cash
D Inventory levels have fallen LO 1f
22 An electrical store and a cake shop have the same mark-up on cost. However, the gross
profit margin of the electrical store is significantly higher than that of the cake shop.
Which one of the following is a possible reason for this?
A The cake shop's revenue is increasing, while that of the electrical shop is
decreasing. B The cake shop has a higher level of wastage of inventory than the
electrical store.
C The electrical shop takes advantage of trade discounts for bulk buying.
D The cake shop has a higher turnover of inventory than the electrical store. LO 1f
23 Thatch plc's current ratio this year is 1.33:1 compared with 1.25:1 last
year. Which two of the following would be possible explanations of
this?
A Thatch paid its payables earlier than usual out of a bank overdraft
B Thatch made an unusually large sale immediately before the year end
C Thatch made an unusually large purchase of goods for cash immediately before the
year end, and these goods remain in inventory
D Thatch paid its payables earlier than usual out of a positive cash balance LO 1f

24 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the principal purpose of an
external audit of a limited company?
A To help in the preparation of the company's financial
statements B To prevent fraud within the company
C To examine and express an opinion on the company's financial statements
D To help the directors in improving the company's financial reporting process LO 1i
25 Which one of the following best describes the principal difference between fraud
and error?
A Fraud may result in the financial statements being material
misstated B Fraud is an intentional act whereas error is unintentional
C A misstatement can be material whether it is caused by fraud or by error
D Fraud may be the result of negligence whereas error is unintentional LO 1i
26 Which two of the following are true in respect of related party

transactions? A Related party transactions tend to be low-risk to the
auditor
B Disclosure of related party transactions is unlikely to be material to the
financial statements
C Related party transactions must be completely disclosed in the financial statements
D There may be a significant control risk in relation to related party transactions LO 1f
27 Rasvi LLP has been informed by its client, Wilson Ltd, that it has discovered that a
payroll fraud was in operation during the previous financial year, a year in respect of
which Rasvi LLP gave a 'clean' auditor's opinion.
Wilson Ltd says that Rasvi LLP was responsible for preventing the fraud. A review of the
previous year's audit working papers shows that Rasvi LLP failed to perform any
procedures at all in relation to the payroll.
For each of the following statements, select whether the statement is true or false.
Rasvi LLP was responsible for preventing the fraud
A True
B False
Rasvi LLP failed to discharge its responsibilities as auditor
C True
D False LO 1f, i

28 Which two of the following are true of the auditor's objectives in relation to fraud, in
line with ISA (UK) 240, The Auditor's Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of
Financial Statements?
A The auditor performs the audit with the aim of deterring fraud.
B The auditor must identify and assess the risks of material misstatement due to fraud.
C The auditor must obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement due to
fraud.
D The auditor must only obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement
due to error. LO1i

Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and
reporting
1 Which three of the following are procedures that could be used by assurance providers to
provide evidence relating to a balance in the financial statements?
A Walk-through
procedure B Test of control
C Test of detail
D Analytical procedure LO 3b
2 Which two of the following are valid comments about the quality of assurance evidence?
A Evidence from external sources is more reliable than evidence obtained from the
entity's records.
B Evidence from internal sources is more reliable when related internal controls operate
effectively.
C Evidence from internal sources is more reliable than evidence created by the assurance
provider.
D Photocopies are more reliable than facsimiles. LO 3e
3 Which three of the following are assertions used by the auditor about classes of
transactions?
A Occurrence
B Existence
C Completeness
D Cut-off
E Rights and obligations LO 3f
4 Which three of the following statements are valid?

A Positive (reasonable) assurance will be given on a statutory audit assignment.
B Positive (reasonable) assurance requires more rigorous work to be undertaken
than negative assurance does.
C Positive (reasonable) assurance will be given on a review assignment.
D Negative assurance is assurance given in the absence of any indications to the
contrary. LO 1d

5 Which two of the following describe manifestations of the expectations gap?
A Users blaming the auditors for a fraud discovered in a company subsequent to an
audit B Users discovering that the directors refuse to cooperate in providing the
auditor with
the evidence he requests
C Shareholders approving the appointment of the auditor at an annual general
meeting D Users relying on the audited financial statements as a fair valuation of the
company
LO 1e
6 The level of assurance given by an assurance engagement will depend on the type
of engagement.
For each of the following examples, select the level of assurance you would expect to be
given.
Statutory
audit A
Absolute
B Reasonable
C Limited
Report on prospective financial
information D Absolute
E Reasonable
F Limited
Report on review of interim financial
information G Absolute
H Reasonable
I Limited LO 1d
7 For each of the following situations, select the most appropriate approach which should be
used by the assurance firm in the given circumstances.
The audit of a client where controls have been assessed as
deficient A Tests of controls only
B Substantive procedures only
C A mix of tests of controls and substantive procedures
The audit of a client where controls have been assessed as
strong D Tests of controls only
E Substantive procedures only
F A mix of tests of controls and substantive procedures LO 3f
ICAEW Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and 2

8 The following are types of test that might be carried out by an assurance provider. For
each example, select the financial statement assertion that is being tested.
Review of the financial statements using a Companies Act
checklist A Existence
B Completeness
C Classification
Tracing non-current assets which have been observed in use back to the non-current asset
register
D Existence
E Completeness
F Classification LO 3d
9 Which three of the following are assertions used by the auditor about account
balances at the period end?
A Existence
B Accuracy, valuation and
allocation C Cut-off
D Completeness LO 3f
10 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in respect
of substantive procedures.
The auditor must carry out substantive procedures on all material
items. A True
B False
The auditor only carries out substantive procedures if the results of tests of controls are
inconclusive.
C True
D False
Substantive procedures include both analytical procedures and tests of details.
E True
F False LO 3d

11 Two types of procedures used in gathering evidence are tests of controls and
substantive procedures.
For each of the following examples, select the type of procedure
illustrated. Observation of opening the post
A Test of control
B Substantive procedure
Calculation of the gross profit margin and comparison with that of the previous accounting
period
C Test of control
D Substantive procedure
Reviewing invoices paid for evidence of authorisation
E Test of control
F Substantive procedure LO 3b
For each of the following examples, select the type of procedure illustrated.
Observation of inventory counting at the year end
A Test of control
Calculation of the quick ratio and comparison with that of the previous accounting period
C Test of control
Inquiring into the operation of the purchases transaction cycle
E Test of control
13 Smith plc is required to apply ISA 701, Communicating Key Audit Matters in
the Independent Auditor's Report.
Which two of the following could be key audit
matters? A Areas of high audit risk
B Areas in relation to which the auditor expresses a separate
opinion C Areas of significant auditor judgement
D Significant transactions or events LO 1f

14 Which two of the following describe manifestations of the expectations gap?
A Potential shareholders using the statement of financial position as a fair valuation
of the entity
B Users discovering that the audit firm relies on the audited entity for its fee
C Users believing that the audit firm must not sell other services to the audited entity
D Users believing that the amounts in the financial statements are stated precisely LO 1e
15 Which two of the following would be included in an assurance

report? A Statement of directors' responsibilities
B Identification of the
criteria C Auditor's opinion
D Title LO 1f
16 The following are items that might be included in an auditor's report. For each item,
select whether it is reported on explicitly, or only by exception.
Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and
returns A Explicit
B By exception
Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company's
affairs at the end of the financial year
C Explicit
D By exception
Whether details of directors' emoluments and other benefits have been correctly
disclosed in the financial statements
E Explicit
F By exception LO 1f

Chapter 5: Introduction to internal control
1 ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement Through
Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment states that an internal control system in
an organisation consists of five components: the control environment, the entity's risk
assessment process, the information system, control activities and monitoring of controls.
For each of the following examples, select the component which it illustrates.
The process of preparing the financial statements
A Control
environment B
Information system
C Control activities
Locking the inventory
storeroom D Control
environment
E Information system
F Control activities LO 2d
2 In each of the following three cases, select whether control risk is higher or lower
than normal.
The company has an established and well-resourced internal audit function.
A Control risk is higher than normal
B Control risk is lower than normal
The company has a history of reviewing financial performance on a regular basis at
board level.
C Control risk is higher than
normal D Control risk is lower
than normal
Purchase invoices are not authorised before
payment. E Control risk is higher than normal
F Control risk is lower than normal LO 2b
3 Which three of the following statements about audit committees are correct?
A At least 50% of the members of an audit committee must be non-executive directors
B Listed companies are required to have an audit committee
C Audit committees are considered to be good practice for all large companies
D If a company has an internal audit function, the chief internal auditor should sit on
the audit committee
E Audit committees are an important aspect of a company's control environment
ICAEW Chapter 5: Introduction to internal 2

LO 2d

4 According to ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material
Misstatement Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment, which three
of the following are aspects of an entity's control environment?
A The attitude of the directors to internal
controls B The attitude of staff to internal
controls
C The awareness of internal control issues in the company
D The actions of senior management in relation to internal controls LO 2d
5 Which one of the following is not part of an entity's risk assessment

process? A Identify relevant business risks
B Estimate the impact of risks
C Assess the likelihood of occurrence
D Decide upon actions to manage the risks
E Report the process to the auditors LO 2b
6 For each of the following statements about the information system in a company,
The information system comprises only the IT system of a company.
A True
B False
The information system includes the process of preparing the financial statements, such as
the production of journals.
C True
D False LO 2b
7 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Badweather

plc. For each example, select the type of control activity which it illustrates.
The financial controller counts petty cash on a monthly
basis. A Authorisation
B Information processing
C Physical control
There are two keys to the locked finance department safe: one held by the finance director
and the other by the managing director.
D Authorisation
E Information processing
F Physical control LO 2e

8 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Castle
Ltd. For each example, select the type of control activity which it
illustrates.
The financial controller conducts a monthly review of authorisation controls over dispatch
notes.
A Performance review
B Information
processing CSegregation of
duties
The receivables ledger clerk posts invoices to the receivables ledger. The cash clerk posts
cash receipts to the receivables ledger.
D Performance review
E Information processing
F Segregation of duties LO 2e
9 The following are examples of computer controls which operate at Goody plc.
For each example, select the type of computer control which it illustrates.
Storing extra copies of programs and data files off-site
A General
B Application
Programmes to check data fields on input
transactions C General
D Application
Manual checks to ensure that input data were
authorised EGeneral
F Application LO 2e
10 Which one of the following would be the simplest way of recording a straightforward
system not subject to a great deal of change annually?
A Flowchart
B Narrative
notes C
Questionnaire
D Family tree LO 2i

11 Which three of the following would be the best sources of information about a company's
systems?
A The company's procedures manual
B The internal audit function's system
notes C The prior year audit file
D Inquiries made of company staff
E The company's website LO 2i
12 Most entities make use of IT systems for financial reporting and operational purposes.
Controls operating in an IT environment can be split into general controls and application
controls.
Which one of the following is an application control?
A Training staff in new IT procedures
B Taking back-up copies of programs
C Maintenance agreements over IT equipment
D Cyclical reviews of all master files LO 2e
13 Which two of the following represent inherent limitations of a system of internal

controls? A Lack of controls over the purchases system
B Lack of understanding of the purposes of
controls C Lack of staff to ensure segregation of
duties
D The possibility that staff members will collude in fraud LO 2f
14 Which two of the following are authorisation control

activities? A A bank reconciliation signed by the finance
director
B A cheque payment run approved by the finance
director C A review of the sales ledger clerk by the
finance director
D A trial balance compiled by the finance director LO 2e

15 With regards to internal control systems in small entities, select whether each of
the following statements is true or false.
Smaller companies are more likely to be successful in the implementation of segregation of
duties controls.
A True
B False
Management override is more likely to take place in smaller
companies. C True
D False LO 2f
16 ISA (UK) 315 states that an internal control system in an organisation consists of five
components: the control environment, the entity's risk assessment process, the information
system, control activities and monitoring of controls.
For each of the following examples, select the component which it illustrates.
Training programme for all staff
A Control
environment B
Control activity
C Monitoring of controls
Review of actual performance against
budget D Control environment
E Control activity
F Monitoring of controls LO 2d
the limitations of any system of internal control.
The cost of implementing controls may be more expensive than the cost of any
potential risk arising.
A True
B False
The effectiveness of many controls rely on the integrity of those applying
them. C True
D False
Internal controls are only applied to material
items. E True
F False
Standard controls may not be designed to deal with unusual transactions.
G True
H False LO 2f

of business risk.
Business risk is the risk inherent to the company in its
operations. A True
B False
Business risk is of no relevance to the auditor. The auditor is only concerned with audit
risk. C True
D False
Management are responsible for identifying and controlling business
risks. E True
F False LO 2b
19 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Elm

plc. For each example, select the type of control activity which it
illustrates.
The financial controller reconciles the payables ledger with supplier statements on a
monthly basis.
A Performance review
B Information processing
The payables ledger clerk posts invoices to the payables ledger. The cash clerk posts
cash payments to the payables ledger.
C Segregation of duties
D Performance review LO 2e
20 The following are examples of computer controls which operate in the payroll
system at Dobson Ltd.
Password protection limiting access to data
A General
B Application
Range checks on payroll
processing C General
D Application
Manual checks to ensure that timesheets are authorised before details are
processed E General
F Application LO 2e

21 Which three of the following are general
controls? A Disaster recovery procedures
B Back-up copies of programs stored at an alternative safe
location C Procedures for resubmission of rejected data
D Staff training in the use of new/revised programs LO 2e
22 Peach plc is a large organisation with a complex accounting and information system.
Critical to an understanding of the system are the reporting lines and relationships between
different departments.
In this situation which one of the following methods is most likely to be used by the
auditor to record the system of document flow?
A Narrative notes
B Flowcharts
C Questionnaires
D Organisational charts LO 2i
23 Which two of the following are reasons why organisations need to have effective
systems of control?
To help the organisation in:
A minimising business risks
B maximising its
profitability
C managing its assets and liabilities
D cutting down the time needed for the audit
E complying with laws and regulations LO 2a
24 An effective system of internal control requires segregation of basic

functions. Which three of the following functions should ideally be
segregated?
A Authorisation of transactions
B Preparation of financial
statements C Custody or
handling of assets
D Budgetary control
E Recording of transactions LO 2b

25 An audit committee is a committee with responsibility for audit-related
matters. Which one of the following could be members of an effective audit
committee? A Executive directors only
B Non-executive directors only
C Non-executive directors and internal auditors
D Non-executive directors and external auditors LO 2d
For each of the following examples, select which component is illustrated.
The entity's organisational structure
A Control
environment B
Control activity
Review by management of monthly bank reconciliations
D Control environment
E Control activity
27 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Fairweather plc. In
each example select which control activity is illustrated.
The financial accountant signs the bank reconciliation, which was prepared by a member of
his staff.
A Authorisation
B Performance review
The finance director compares monthly expenditure on consumables to budgeted
expenditure.
C Authorisation
D Performance review LO 2e

28 Most entities make use of IT systems for financial reporting and operational purposes.
Controls operating in an IT environment can be split into general controls and application
controls.
Which one of the following is an application control?
A Use of passwords
B Testing of new systems
C Authorisation of data for input
D Disaster recovery plan LO 2e
29 Which two of the following reduce password

effectiveness? A Frequent changes of passwords
B User selection of passwords
C Automatic disconnection after failed attempts to access
system D Disciplinary offence if passwords revealed
E Displaying the password on screen LO 2f
For each of the following examples, select which component is illustrated.
The entity's internal audit function
A Control
environment B
Control activity
The audit committee
D Control
environment E
Control activity
31 For each of the following internal controls, which is the principal

limitation? The preparation of an accounts payable reconciliation
A Human
error B
Collusion
Authorisation of new starters in a wages system in which duties are
segregated C Human error

D Collusion LO 2f

32 For each of the following statements about audit committees, select whether the
statement is true or false.
Audit committees are responsible for recommending the appointment of the external
auditor
A True
B False
One of the roles of the audit committee is to review the integrity of formal
announcements relating to the company's performance
C True
D False LO 2d
33 Which two of the following are controls over input

completeness? A Document counts
B Manual check to ensure input was by authorised personnel
C Screen warning to prevent logout before processing is complete
D Programmed matching of input to an expected input control file LO 2e
34 For each of the following internal controls, select whether a preventive or a

detective control is being described.
Segregation of duties between raising and authorisation of purchase
orders A Preventive
B Detective
Monthly reconciliation of payables ledger with supplier
statements C Preventive
D Detective
Restricting users to read-only access of key folders on internal
network E Preventive
F Detective LO 2d

35 The following are examples of computer controls which operate at Mesa plc.
Approval of new applications by a sample of users and by management
A General
B Application
Virus checks on software on employees'
computers C General
D Application
A check that all data entered in a field contains the correct number of
digits E General
F Application LO 2e

Chapter 6: Revenue system
1 Which three of the following are risks associated with the sales
system? A Orders may be taken from customers who are not able
to pay
B Goods may be despatched but not invoiced
C The full credit period offered might not be taken
D Money might be received at the premises but not banked LO 2c
2 Which two of the following controls best mitigate the risk that customers might not be
able to pay?
A Authorisation of credit terms to customers
B Obtaining customers' signatures on delivery
documentation C Regular preparation of trade receivables
statements
D Checking the ageing of the current receivables ledger balance before to accepting
orders LO 2f
3 The following describes the processes which make up the sales system in
operation at Sheraton and Co.
For each process, select whether it represents a strength or a deficiency of the system.
Orders are placed by telephone. When a call is received, the person receiving the order
checks the customer's credit status and that the customer's current balance is below the
maximum level, checks that the item is in inventory, and then immediately inputs the order
into the system.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The order automatically generates a message to the distribution centre which despatches
the goods and to the accounts department, which immediately raises an invoice and sends
it to the customer.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Customer queries are dealt with by reception
staff. E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2g/h

4 Select whether each of the following statements is true or
false. In the sales system, the following duties should be
segregated:
Recording sales and access to remittances from
customers A True
B False
Credit control and
invoicing C True
D False LO 2b
5 The external auditor at Reading Ltd has identified the following deficiencies within
that organisation's sales system.
For each deficiency, select the most likely consequence which might arise as a result of that
deficiency.
Overdue accounts are not followed up.
A Invoiced sales might not be properly
recorded B Credit notes might not be properly
recorded
C Debts might be included on the receivables ledger that are not collectable
Invoices are not in numerical sequence.
D Invoiced sales might not be properly
recorded E Credit notes might not be properly
recorded
F Debts might be included on the receivables ledger that are not collectable LO 2f/h
6 Which two of the following are risks associated with the sales
system? A Orders may be taken from customers who are not able
to pay
B Invoices may be cancelled by valid credit
notes C Goods may be received but not
invoiced
D Sales might be recorded in the wrong customer accounts LO 2c
7 Bourne Ltd operates a number of control procedures in its sales system.

Assuming that all controls are operating effectively, which one of the following control
procedures is most likely to ensure that customers are invoiced for goods despatched?
A Use of pre-printed sequentially numbered sales order
ICAEW Chapter 6: Revenue 3

documentation B Matching of sales orders with despatch records
C Matching of despatch records with sales invoices
D Requiring customers to sign for goods received LO 2f

8 The following deficiencies have been identified in two separate sales systems.
deficiency.
Despatch documentation is not sequentially pre-
numbered. A Sales may be made to customers who
cannot pay
B Invoices may not be raised for all goods
despatched C Customers may not pay promptly
Customers are not required to evidence receipt of
goods. D Sales may be made to customers who
cannot pay
E Invoices may not be raised for all goods despatched
F Customers may not pay promptly LO 2f/h
9 Which two of the following are objectives of the sales ordering part of the sales system?
A Sales are only made to credit worthy customers
B Goods are correctly invoiced
C Cut-off is correct
D Orders can be fulfilled LO 2c
10 The following describes processes which make up the sales system at Raffles Ltd.
Orders are placed by telephone. On receipt of a call, following credit checks and checks of
the inventory level, the order is immediately entered onto the system.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The order generates a despatch record which is sent to the warehouse, and an invoice
which is sent to accounts receivable. Goods in inventory are despatched immediately and
the despatch record is amended manually for unavailable goods.
C Strength
D Deficiency
A copy of any despatch records with incomplete orders is placed in an 'unfulfilled orders'
file. This file is reviewed daily and the order filled as soon as inventory is available.
E Strength

11 Which one of the following is a control objective relating to the sales system?
A Credit notes are only issued for valid reasons.

B Sales invoices are checked to goods despatched records by accounts staff.
C Customer accounts are scrutinised to see if credit limits have been observed.
D Orders are made only to authorised suppliers. LO 2g
12 Which one of the following controls would provide the most positive assurance regarding
the completeness of the sales figure recorded in the financial statements of a
manufacturing company?
A Segregation of duties between the preparation of goods despatched records and
the preparation of the sales invoices
B The issue of pre-numbered sales invoices for every sales transaction and
internal checking for completion of processing
C The use of a pre-numbered goods despatched record for every sales transaction
and internal checking for completeness of processing
D Authorisation of all sales invoices by the sales manager before processing LO 2g
13 Which one of the following populations should the auditor start from when testing for the
completeness of reported sales of a manufacturing company?
A Sales
receipts B Sales
invoices
C Goods despatch records
D Receipts from customers LO 2g
14 Which one of the following is a control objective relating to the revenue

system? A Credit notes are only issued for valid reasons
B Sales invoices are checked to Goods Despatched Notes by accounts staff
C Customer accounts are scrutinised to determine whether credit limits have been
observed
D Orders are made only from authorised suppliers LO 2e

15 Which one of the following controls would provide the most assurance regarding the
completeness of the revenue figure in the financial statements of a manufacturing
company?
A Segregation of duties between the preparation of goods despatched notes and
the preparation of the sales invoices
B The issue of pre-numbered sales invoices for every sales transaction and
internal checking for completion of processing
C The use of a pre-numbered goods despatched note for every sales transaction
and internal checking for completeness of processing
D Authorisation of all sales invoices by the sales manager prior to processing LO 2g
16 Which two of the following are risks directly associated with recording in the
revenue system?
A Sales are included in the wrong customer
accounts B Goods are recorded incorrectly
C Goods may be despatched but not invoiced for
D Credit notes might not be properly recorded LO 2c

Chapter 7: Purchases system
1 For each of the following examples, select the type of internal control activity which
it represents.
Monthly management accounts are compared to budget and differences
investigated. A Authorisation
B Performance review
C Information processing
Numerical sequence checks are undertaken on goods received
records. D Authorisation
E Performance review
F Information processing LO 2e
2 The auditor of Twickenham Ltd has identified the following deficiencies within
that organisation's accounting system.
deficiency.
Goods inwards are not checked.
A Accepting inferior quality
goods B False invoices could be
paid
C Services received are not accurately recorded
Invoices are not checked to original orders.
D Accepting inferior quality
goods E False invoices could be
paid
F Services received are not accurately recorded LO 2f/h
3 The following describes processes which make up the purchases system at Hawthorns
and Co.
Orders are placed by department heads, usually by telephone, when they
determine a service is required.
A Strength
B Deficiency
Invoices for services are checked against the service provider's proof of delivery of service,
which is requested from every service provider.
C Strength
D Deficiency
ICAEW Chapter 7: Purchases 4

Payments are made by direct transfer. The direct transfer list is authorised by the
financial controller, who checks the payments to supporting documents, such as the
invoice or service agreement.
E Strength
4 Redesign Ltd is a large property management company which makes use of the
services of many different contractors for building, design and decorating services.
Which two of the following internal controls are most likely to prevent services being used
for the private purposes of employees?
A Purchase orders are processed by the buying department following authorisation by
the production director
B Purchase requisitions must be signed by two team members for any given
project C Purchase orders should only be placed with authorised contractors
D Purchase invoices are matched to authorised purchase orders LO 2f
5 The organisational structure at Molyneux Ltd is as follows.

The production department is headed by Jack Frost, whose deputy is Tiny Tim. Jack
Frost reports to the managing director, Nicholas Clause. There are several other
departments (sales and marketing, accounting, purchasing, human resources and
internal audit).
Which one of the following statements reflects the ideal situation with regard to purchase
ordering?
A Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should make purchase orders as production needs dictate.
B Jack Frost should make purchase orders, although Tiny Tim could make requisitions
as production needs dictate.
C Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should requisition materials as production needs dictate,
but orders should be placed by the purchasing department, having been
authorised by the purchasing director.
D Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should requisition materials as production needs dictate
but orders should be placed by the purchasing department, having been authorised
by Nicholas Clause. LO 2g
6 Grey Ltd has recently discovered that it has been paying invoices in respect of goods which
had been returned as faulty before acceptance. It is company policy to record goods only if
they have been accepted.
Which one of the following controls would have prevented this from
occurring? A Matching of purchase invoices with goods received records
B Matching of purchase invoices with orders
C Comparison of supplier statements with payables ledger accounts
D Date stamping purchase invoices on receipt LO 2f

7 The following are examples of deficiencies in the purchases system of Burns Ltd.
For each example, select the type of internal control activity which would improve the
system.
Errors have been made in the calculation of discounts
receivable. A Authorisation
B Physical controls
C Information processing
There has been increasing levels of theft from the main distribution
centre. D Authorisation
E Physical controls
F Information processing LO 2f
8 The auditor has identified the following deficiencies within Rainer Ltd's accounting system.
deficiency.
Purchase of goods from unauthorised
suppliers A Payment to fictitious suppliers
B Purchase of inferior goods
C Prompt payment discounts not obtained
Purchase ledger clerks permitted to amend standing data on the payables master file
D Payment to fictitious suppliers
E Purchase of inferior goods
F Prompt payment discounts not obtained LO 2f/h
9 Which three of the following are control activities relating to the purchases system?
A All orders are authorised by a senior staff member

B Blank order forms are kept in a secure location with restricted
access C All goods and services received are accurately recorded
D Order forms are sequentially pre-numbered LO 2g
10 The following describes processes in the purchases system at Woggle Ltd.

New inventory is ordered over the telephone by the company buyer, who initiates
orders herself and maintains a record of telephone orders.
A Strength
B Deficiency

When goods are subsequently received, the buyer has sole responsibility for checking the
quantity of goods received to the record of telephone orders.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Invoices from suppliers are sent to the buyer for authorisation, before being forwarded to
the Accounts Department for entry into the accounting records and subsequent payment.
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2g
11 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of Pogo Ltd's purchases system.
For each deficiency, select the risk which is most likely to arise.
A lack of segregation of duties in relation to the ordering
process A Unauthorised purchases may be made for personal
use
B The company may not take advantage of the full period of credit
extended Records of goods received are not kept.
C Goods may be misappropriated for private use
D Goods and services might not be obtained on the most advantageous terms
The payment listing produced by the accounting system is only read by the payments
clerk. E Invoices may not be recorded resulting in non-payment
F Invoices are paid at the wrong time LO 2f
12 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of Loot Ltd's purchases system.
For each deficiency, select the risk which arises most immediately.
Comparisons are not made of goods received notes with purchase
orders A Unauthorised purchases may be made for personal use
B Entries to the payables ledger are not made to the correct accounts
Supplier terms are not regularly monitored
C Goods and services may be obtained from unauthorised suppliers
D Goods and services may not be obtained on the most advantageous terms
Pre-numbered goods received notes are not used to record the arrival and
acceptance of goods.
E Goods and services received may not be accurately recorded
F Goods and services received may not result in liabilities being recorded correctly
LO 2f

13 The following are descriptions of processes in the purchases system at Pontipines
plc. For each process, select whether it represents a strength or a deficiency of
the system. Blank order forms are readily available from a tray in the finance
department
A Strength
B Deficiency
Buyers have a free choice of suppliers, in order to obtain the best
terms C Strength
D Deficiency
Order forms are prepared only when a pre-numbered purchase requisition has been
received
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2g
14 Which two of the following describe control activities in the purchases

system of Wottinger Ltd?
A A purchase ledger clerk checks all supplier invoices against the order and the
goods received record
B All orders for goods and services are properly authorised and duly
processed C All goods and services received are accurately recorded
D All purchase order forms are sequentially pre-numbered LO 2g

Chapter 8: Employee costs
1 Hire Company Ltd uses a lot of temporary employees.
Which one of the following controls would best ensure that employees are only
paid for work they have performed?
A Temporary staff records should be maintained for each member of temporary staff.
B Temporary staff should complete work schedules, authorised by their supervisor.
C Temporary staff pay should be authorised by the human resources manager.
D Temporary staff should be paid by direct transfers to their bank accounts. LO 2f
2 Tulips Ltd has a number of staff on maternity leave claiming statutory maternity pay.
Which three of the following controls would best ensure that the correct payments are
made to employees?
A The payroll should be checked back to individual employee personnel
records B Payroll totals should be compared to adjusted budgets on a
monthly basis
C Total tax deductions should be reconciled with tax returns
D BACS transfer lists should be authorised by the head of personnel LO 2f
of internal controls over payroll.
Requiring employees to clock in and out of work helps to ensure that they are paid at the
correct rate.
A True
B False
Reviewing wages paid against wages budgeted helps to ensure that employees are
being paid the correct amounts.
C True
D False
Changes in pay rates should be authorised by senior
management. E True
F False LO 2f

4 Stamford plc employs a number of trainee staff, at six monthly intervals. All trainees
must complete a probationary period of six months before progressing to the next level
of traineeship. The accountant providing assurance on the efficiency of the operation of
controls has identified the following deficiencies within Stamford Ltd's payroll system.
deficiency.
Employees are not given a personnel file until they have completed their six
month probationary period.
A Employees may be paid the wrong amounts
B The computerised payroll may contain miscalculations
Many employees work overtime but there is no system for authorising the levels of
overtime claimed.
C Employees may be paid the wrong amounts
D The computerised payroll may contain miscalculations LO 2f/h
5 The following describes the processes in the payroll system at Wembley Ltd.
Employees are given individual security codes to punch into the main door key pad.
This key pad also monitors the hours worked by employees, a sample of which are
checked against data from headcounts during the day.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The payroll is prepared by a payroll clerk from hours worked information on a standard
payroll IT package. The payroll is checked to individual records automatically by the system.
The payroll is approved by the financial controller.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Wages are paid by bank transfer, which is authorised by the financial
controller. E Strength
ICAEW Chapter 8: Employee 4

6 Workworld Ltd has a computerised payroll system. All employees are paid by BACS
directly into their bank account.
Which two of the following controls will be most effective at ensuring that payment is made
to the correct employee?
A Authorisation of overtime worked
B A sample of calculations performed by the payroll package are manually
reperformed each month
C The BACS list is reviewed by the chief accountant together with supporting
payroll documentation
D The print out from the bank is agreed to the BACS list and any discrepancies
investigated LO 2f
7 Which two of the following features in the payroll system of Tyne plc could result in
the employee costs figure in the financial statements being misstated?
A Rates of pay are negotiated at a local level, there is no central control
B The payroll clerk can amend standing data on the payroll system without authorisation
of a senior member of staff
C Personnel records are not kept up to date
D The payroll department receives confirmation of new employees in writing LO 2h
8 For each of the following statements about internal controls over payroll, select
whether they are true or false.
The payroll should be checked back to individual employee personnel records on a regular
basis.
A True
B False
Leavers and joiners should be authorised by a senior member of
staff. C True
D False
Reperformance of calculations is unnecessary where the payroll system is computerised.
E True
F False LO 2f

9 Spoon Ltd is a company that is expanding rapidly and is regularly taking on new
employees. The payroll is processed in-house in the accounts department using a PC.
The financial controller is worried that fictitious employees could be included on the
payroll by a dishonest employee from the accounts department.
Which one of the following internal controls is most likely to prevent fictitious
employees from being added to the payroll?
A Payroll standing data periodically printed out and checked on a line-by-line
basis to independently held employee details
B Use of hierarchical passwords over standing data files
C Pre-authorisation of all amendments to payroll standing data by an independent
official
D Supervision of the wages payout by an independent official LO 2f
10 Which two of the following control procedures will reduce the risk of
unauthorised disclosure of payroll data?
A Exception reporting of high amounts of net
pay B Access controls
C Back-up
procedures D
Encryption of data
E Independent review of payroll LO 2f
11 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of a company's wages system.
Details of wages are not regularly checked to the personnel
file. A Pay might not be recorded correctly in the
general ledger B The company may pay employees who
have left
Regular reconciliations of the payroll to timesheets are not
performed. C Pay might not be recorded correctly in the
general ledger
D The various elements of pay might not be calculated correctly
Regular reconciliations of the wages and salaries control account are not performed.
E Payments might be made incorrectly
F The various elements of pay might not be calculated correctly LO 2f

whether each is true or false.
The payroll master file should contain details of the employee's cumulative statutory
deductions to date.
A True
B False
Reviewing changes to statutory deductions helps to ensure that changes to the calculation
of gross pay are processed correctly.
C True
D False
Reviewing wages paid against budgets and timesheets helps to ensure that employees are
only paid for the work that they have done.
E True
F False LO 2f
13 Which two of the following control activities will reduce the risk that the different
elements of pay might not be recorded correctly in the payroll?
A One for one checking of payroll details back to independently maintained
personnel records
B Segregation of duties throughout the payroll department
C Reconciliation of total pay and deductions between one pay day and the next
D Encryption of data LO 2f
14 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of a company's wages system.
No central records are kept of changes in personnel and pay
rates. A Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general
ledger
B The company may pay employees who have left
There are no procedures for dealing with non-routine
matters. C Pay might not be recorded correctly in the
general ledger D The company may pay employees who
have left
There is no segregation of duties between the preparation and the authorisation of the
payroll.
E Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general ledger
F The company may pay employees who have left LO 2f

Chapter 9: Internal audit
1 The scope and objectives of the internal audit function vary widely and depend on the size
and structure of the entity and the requirements of its management.
Which two of the following functions could internal audit perform and still operate
effectively?
A Examination of financial and operating information
B Review of the company's compliance with laws and
regulations C Authorisation of unusual transactions
D Development of internal control systems LO 2d
2 Which two of the following roles could internal audit carry out in respect of
risk management and still operate effectively?
A Monitoring the company's overall risk strategy
B Designing an internal control system in a production department
C Testing internal controls in the purchasing department
D Implementing internal controls in the sales department LO 2d
3 Which three of the following roles could the internal audit function take on to help
the board in its management of the company and still operate effectively?
A Carrying out the statutory audit
B Giving expert advice on technical accounting
matters C Liaising with the external auditors
D Auditing board reports not audited by the external auditors LO 2d
4 Internal audit helps in achieving corporate objectives.

For each of the following statements, select whether or not they are true or false.
Having an internal audit function is a requirement of the UK Corporate Governance Code.
A True
B False
Internal audit can be seen as an internal control in a
company. C True
D False
Internal auditors should not get involved in operational matters.
E True
F False LO 2d
ICAEW Chapter 9: Internal 5

5 For each of the following statements, concerning internal audit, select whether they are
true or false.
Internal audit can never be independent of those on whom they are reporting,
because they are employees of the company.
A True
B False
The UK Corporate Governance Code requires all listed companies in the UK to have an
internal audit function.
C True
D False
Internal audit focuses on the efficiency and effectiveness of a company's operations by
testing its internal controls. They do not carry out substantive testing.
E True
F False LO 2d
6 Hiltson Hotels is a global group of hotels. The parent company, Hiltson Holdings plc,
employs an internal audit function which carries out audits and investigations on the
individual hotels in the group.
Which two of the following could the internal audit function carry out and still
operate effectively?
A Secondment to the accounts department of the Singapore Hiltson to cover the
maternity leave of the financial controller
B Special investigation into the profits of the New York Hiltson where the group directors
suspect a fraud may have been carried out
C Tests of the controls at the Edinburgh Hiltson as part of a routine internal audit
cycle D Identification of risks at the proposed Nairobi Hiltson, which is due to open
in nine
months' time LO 2d
7 Many of the procedures undertaken by the internal auditor are very similar to
those performed by the external auditor.
Which three of the following may be performed by the internal auditor if he is to operate
effectively?
A Monitoring of internal controls
B Making recommendations regarding improvements to
controls C Examining and testing financial information
D Expressing an opinion on the truth and fairness of the financial statements LO 2d

8 Which one of the following best describes the term 'operational
audit'? A Any audit performed by the internal auditor
B An audit of the operational processes of the
organisation C An audit performed by the operations
director
D A statutory audit LO 2d
9 To which two of the following parties would the internal auditor

report? A Board of directors
B Shareholders
C Audit committee
D External auditors LO 2d
10 Which three of the following activities would typically be performed by both the
internal and external auditor?
A Review of compliance with laws and regulations
B Assessment of the effectiveness of internal
controls C Review of the efficiency of operations
D Carrying out tests of details on transactions and balances LO 2d
11 The scope and objectives of the internal audit function vary widely and depend on the size
and structure of the entity and the requirements of its management.
Which three of the following functions could internal audit perform and still operate
effectively?
A Examination of financial and operational information for
management B Authorisation of transactions in excess of limits set
by management
C Review of accounting systems and related controls
D Advising management on cost effective controls for systems and activities
E Routinely preparing bank reconciliations LO 2d
ICAEW Chapter 9: Internal 5

12 There are many similarities between the internal auditor and the external auditor.
However, there are some crucial differences that are important to note.
Which two of the following usually only relate to the internal
auditor? A They provide an opinion on the financial statements
B Their work is focused on the operations of the entire
business C The role can be carried out by employees of the
entity
D They are appointed by the shareholders of an entity LO 2d

Chapter 10: Documentation
1 Which three of the following are reasons why assurance providers record their
work? A To confirm the terms of the engagement
B To help the assurance team to plan and perform the engagement
C To retain a record of matters of continuing significance to the engagement
D To enable an experienced assurance provider to carry out quality control reviews
LO 3a
2 Which three of the following should working papers

show? A The name of the client
B The date the work was planned
C The date the work was carried
out D The date the work was
reviewed
E The initials of the person supervising the work LO 1f
3 Which two of the following are likely to be kept on a permanent audit

file? A Engagement letter
B Planning memorandum
C Review notes
D Previous year's signed financial statements
E Current year's draft financial statements LO 1f
4 Many auditors use two types of audit file: a current audit file and a permanent audit file.
For each of the following documents, select whether it is most likely to be included in the
current audit file, permanent audit file or in both.
Engagement letter
A Current audit file
B Permanent audit
file C Both
Audit plan
D Current audit file
E Permanent audit
file FBoth
ICAEW Chapter 10: 5

Manager review
notes G Current
audit file
H Permanent audit file
I Both LO 1f
5 Which three of the following documents would be held on a current audit

file? A Details of the history of the client's business
B Communications with
experts C Audit file review
notes
D Copies of management accounts
E Lease agreements LO 1f
6 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or
false. Working papers should be stored in locked premises.
A True
B False
An auditor can destroy the audit plan relating to Jacobs Ltd for the year
ended 30 June 20X3 in 20Y0.
C True
D False
Working papers belong to the client and may be stored at their premises.
E True
F False LO 1f
7 For each of the following, select whether or not they are valid reasons for preparing
audit working papers.
To help the audit team to plan and perform the
audit A Valid
B Not valid
To enable the auditor to charge a higher fee
C Valid
D Not valid
To prove adherence to
ISAs E Valid
F Not valid LO 3a

8 The assurance provider will prepare documentation in relation to the fieldwork
carried out on an assurance engagement.
For each of the following, select whether or not they are valid reasons for the preparation of
such documentation.
To help in establishing this year's overall audit
strategy A Valid
B Not valid
To help in this year's review
process C Valid
D Not valid
To provide a record of evidence gathered to support the conclusions
reached E Valid
F Not valid LO 3a
9 Which three of the following are advantages of automated working papers?

A They may result in substantial time-savings
B The risk of errors is reduced
C The auditor does not need to apply judgement in assessing the results
D They will be easier to review LO 1f
10 Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the minimum

period, as required by ICAEW, for which audit working papers must be retained by
the auditor?
A Five years from the date of completion of the audit
work B Six years from the date of the auditor's report
C Six years from the end of the accounting period to which they relate
D Five years from the date of approval of the financial statements by the shareholders
LO 1f
11 Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the safe custody of
audit documentation?
A While audit documentation is held on the client's premises it is the responsibility of the
client to ensure its safe custody
B The auditor need only ensure the safe custody of audit documentation for the duration
of the audit
C The auditor must ensure the safe custody of audit documentation for at least six
years from the end of the accounting period to which it relates
D All audit documentation must be destroyed within five years of the end of the
accounting period to which it relates LO 1f
ICAEW Chapter 10: 5

12 The auditor may choose to include a number of items within their working papers.
For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false.
Auditors may include a summary of all significant matters arising during the audit and how
they were addressed.
A True
B False
In cases where significant judgement is required, the auditor can choose to delay the
preparation of working papers in order to allow for suitable reflection.
C True
D False
Audit working papers will record matters of continuing significance to future audits.
E True
F False LO 3a, 1f

Chapter 11: Evidence and sampling
1 Which two of the following statements are correct?
A Inspection of assets confirms rights and obligations
B Inspection of a purchase invoice confirms the cost of inventory
C Observation gives strong ongoing evidence of the matter being observed
D Inquiry of third parties gives better evidence than inquiries of entity insiders LO 3d
2 In which three of the following situations could audit software appropriately be used?
A When checking calculations on a selection of invoices
B When extracting a sample of invoices over a certain
value C When extracting all invoices to specific
customers
D When testing controls over invoice processing LO 3d
3 Which three of the following statements are correct?

When using analytical procedures, assurance providers should:
A consider whether the information they might require will be available.
B consider the knowledge gained during previous assurance
engagements. C consider the source of the information and whether it
is reliable.
D not use information that has been internally generated at the entity. LO 3e
4 Which one of the following procedures would be the most appropriate for verifying
the interest accrued on borrowings?
A Confirming the interest rate with the
lender B Vouching to the interest paid
C Testing internal controls over cash payments
D Recalculating the interest accrued on the basis of outstanding amount, interest rate
and period to which it relates LO 3d
ICAEW Chapter 11: Evidence and 5

A When testing for overstatement, the assurance provider will test items from
the accounting records to the supporting documents.
B When testing for understatement, the assurance provider will test items from
the accounting records to the supporting documents.
C When testing for overstatement, the assurance provider will select items from
outside the accounting records and trace to the records.
D When testing for understatement, the assurance provider will select items from outside
the accounting records and trace to the records. LO 3f
6 Which two of the following are factors that an assurance provider should take into
account when determining the sample size for a test of details?
A The time available to complete the test
B The skill of the team member assigned to carry out the test
C A decrease in the assurance provider's assessment of the risk of material
misstatement D An
increase in the level of expected misstatement LO 3g
7 The assurance provider is using statistical sampling.

Which three of the following methods would be most appropriate to use to select a
sample of accounts receivable?
A Random selection
B Systematic selection
C Haphazard selection
D Sequence selection
E Monetary unit selection LO 3f
8 Assurance providers obtain evidence using procedures set out in ISA 500.
For each of the following tests, select the type of procedure which is being used.
The assurance provider writes to a sample of customers asking them to inform him of
the balance they owe the company at the year end.
A Inspection
B Observation
C Confirmation

The assurance provider looks at a share certificate to confirm that the company has an
investment in Company A.
D Inspection
E Observation
F Confirmation
The assurance provider attends the inventory count and ensures that it is being carried out
in accordance with the issued instructions.
G Inspection
H Observation
I Confirmation LO 3f
9 For each of the following statements concerning computer–assisted audit techniques

(CAATs), select whether they are true or false.
CAATs can be used to perform the assurance procedure of
'reperformance'. A True
B False
Test data can be used to ensure that controls in the client's system are operating
as the assurance provider expects them to.
C True
D False
Audit software makes use of the client's specialised software to run audit
procedures. E True
F False LO 3b
10 In respect of an assurance engagement, which one of the following is the least

persuasive method of gathering evidence?
A Inspection of a supplier's invoice
B Reperformance of a client's supplier statement
reconciliation C Reperformance of a depreciation
calculation
D Inspection of a sales invoice LO 3e
11 When determining a sample size for tests of controls, there are a number of factors
which an auditor should take into account.
For each of the following factors, select whether it would cause the sample size to increase,
decrease, or to have negligible effect.
An increase in tolerable
misstatement A Increase
B Decrease
C Negligible effect

An increase in the number of invoices in the
population D Increase
E Decrease
F Negligible effect
A decrease in the auditor's required confidence
level G Increase
H Decrease
I Negligible effect LO 3g
12 Which two of the following statements are correct regarding factors which influence sample
sizes for tests of controls?
A An increase in the number of sampling units within the population will increase
the sample size.
B A decrease in the expected misstatement will decrease the sample
size. C A decrease in the tolerable misstatement will decrease the
sample size.
D An increase in the extent to which the risk of material misstatement is reduced by
the operating effectiveness of controls will decrease the sample size. LO 3g
13 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in
respect of procedures to obtain evidence.
Physical examination of property, plant and equipment confirms ownership.
A True
B False
Recalculation is a strong form of evidence as it is created by the assurance
provider. C True
D False
Inquiry is always an unreliable means of obtaining evidence.
E True
F False LO 3d
14 For each of the following pieces of evidence, select whether it is more reliable or
less reliable than the piece of evidence it is paired with.
A sales invoice is more reliable/less reliable than a purchase
invoice. A More reliable
B Less reliable
An original copy of a lease agreement is more reliable/less reliable than a
photocopy. C More reliable
D Less reliable

A bank statement is more reliable/less reliable than the cash at bank nominal
ledger account.
E More reliable
F Less reliable LO 3e
15 All methods of obtaining evidence have deficiencies. Examples of these are listed below.
For each deficiency, select the method of obtaining evidence which is most likely to result in
that deficiency.
Limited to the point in time it takes
place A Analytical review
B Observation of a procedure
Limited by the underlying accounting
system C Analytical review
D Observation of a procedure
A balance which is overstated may be agreed because it favours the respondent
E Direct confirmation of a receivables balance
F Direct confirmation of a payables balance LO 3c
16 In accordance with ISAs 315 and 520, select whether analytical procedures are compulsory
or optional in each of the following circumstances.
At the risk assessment stage of the
audit A Compulsory
B Optional
As a substantive
procedure C Compulsory
D Optional
At the overall review stage of the
audit E Compulsory
F Optional LO 3d
17 Which two of the following circumstances would reduce the reliability of the results
of analytical procedures?
A Detailed information is available analysed by department
B Budgeted figures in the past have proved to be highly optimistic
C Reliable industry data are available
D Significant deficiencies in the internal control system have been identified in the past
LO 3e

18 Which two of the following procedures describe tests for understatement?
A Selecting a sample of despatch records and tracing these to a matching sales
invoice and entry in the sales account
B Selecting a sample of sales invoices and tracing these to a matching despatch
record C Selecting a sample of items of plant physically verified by the assurance
provider and
tracing these to an entry in the asset register
D Selecting a sample of items of plant from the asset register and physically verifying
their existence LO 3f
19 The auditor of Frost Ltd has carried out a test on a sample of receivables and
has discovered a higher than expected number of misstatements.
Which three of the following steps would be an appropriate response to this?
A Investigate the nature and cause of the misstatements
B Consider the effect of the misstatements on other parts of the audit
C Estimate the probable overall misstatement by extrapolating the results
D Increase the tolerable misstatement LO 3g
20 When determining a sample size for tests of details there are a number of factors
For each of the following factors, select whether it would cause the sample size to increase
or to decrease.
An increase in the auditor's assessment of the risk of material
misstatement A Increase
B Decrease
An increase in the use of analytical procedures to test the same
assertion C Increase
D Decrease
An increase in the level of misstatements that the auditor expects to find when testing the
assertion
E Increase
F Decrease LO 3g

test data.
Test data are a type of substantive
procedure. ATrue
B False
Test data can include real data and dummy
data. C True
D False
Test data can be used to help in the calculation of
ratios. E True
F False LO 3b
22 Which one of the following is the definition of an anomaly?

A A misstatement or deviation that is demonstrably not representative of
misstatements or deviations in a population
B The misstatement that the auditor expects to be present in the population
C Control deviations, when performing tests of control, or misstatements, when
performing substantive procedures
D The maximum misstatement in the population that the auditor would be willing to
accept LO 3g
23 For each of the following descriptions, select whether they describe monetary unit
sampling, block selection or systematic selection.
Peter is auditing trade accounts receivable. Materiality is £25,000. The sample is
selected on the basis of choosing the balances containing each 25,000th £1 on a
cumulative basis.
A Monetary unit
sampling B Block
selection
C Systematic selection
Paul is checking whether purchase invoices have been authorised for payment. He has
selected all the November purchase invoices as his sample and has reviewed them for an
authorisation signature.
D Monetary unit
sampling E Block
selection
F Systematic selection LO 3b

24 In order to gather sufficient, appropriate evidence, the auditor may make use of
external confirmation requests.
For each of the following statements with regards to external confirmation requests, select
whether it is true or false.
A positive confirmation request always asks the respondents to reply to the auditor
indicating whether or not they agree with the information provided.
A True
B False
A sample of confirmation requests drawn from the client's list of balances is more
appropriate for receivables balances than for payables balances.
C True
D False
A positive confirmation request ordinarily provides more reliable audit evidence than a
negative confirmation request.
E True
F False LO 3c
25 Which one of the following procedures would provide the most reliable source of evidence
where a company receives an invoice after the year end which relates to a period that
straddles the year end?
A Confirming the purchase amount to a supplier statement at the year
end B Vouching the payment of the invoice
C Testing internal controls over accruals
D Recalculating the portion of the invoice amount which relates to the reporting period
LO 3d
26 For each of the procedures below, select the option which best describes the auditor's
test when performing the procedure.
Reviewing post year-end invoices for amounts which relate to the reporting
period A Testing primarily for existence of accruals
B Testing primarily for completeness of accruals
Reviewing the payments made to suppliers after the year
end C Not a relevant procedure for payables
D Testing primarily for completeness of payables
The auditor calculating for herself the amount accrued where an invoice straddles the year
end
E Testing primarily for cut-off of accruals
F Testing primarily for completeness of accruals LO 3f

27 For each of the following statements about audit data analytics, select whether it is true
or false.
Data analytics allows auditors to investigate complex data using simple visualisation
techniques.
A True
B False
Significant time must be always spent tailoring data analytics procedures to the individual
audit client to achieve good results.
C True
D False
Data analytics allows auditors to test large quantities of transactions very
quickly. E True
F False LO 3b
28 Assurance providers obtain evidence using procedures, as set out in ISA (UK) 500,
Audit Evidence.
For each of the following statements about specific audit procedures, select whether they
are true or false.
When attempting to verify controls over petty cash, inquiry is likely to be strong evidence
when assessing the risk of fraud from poor segregation of duties.
A True
B False
Recalculation of a depreciation expense by the auditor using the client's stated
estimation techniques is regarded as strong audit evidence.
C True
D False
Observing an employee of the client re-performing a particular control is usually sufficient
to determine that it is operating satisfactorily.
E True
F False LO 3c
29 Which one of the following is not an example of a specific area where audit data
analytics may now be used?
A Comparing entity data to externally obtained data
B Three-way matching between sales orders, goods despatched records and
invoices C Extracting samples of transactions for further examination
D Re-performing calculations relevant to the financial statements LO 3b

30 ISA (UK) 450, Evaluation of Misstatements Identified During the Audit requires the auditor
to evaluate the effect of any uncorrected misstatements on the financial statements. This
includes determining whether any uncorrected misstatements are material.
Which three of the following factors will the auditor use to determine whether uncorrected
misstatements are material?
A The materiality level for the financial statements as a
whole B The size of the misstatement
C The circumstances of the occurrence of the misstatement
D The nature of the misstatement LO 3g

Chapter 12: Written representations
1 According to ISA (UK) 580, Written Representations which three of the following is
an auditor required to confirm in writing with management?
A Management's belief that it has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation of
B All transactions have been reflected in the financial statements
C The fact that management has provided the auditor with all relevant information
D Management's agreement of the level of materiality used during the audit LO 3h
2 According to ISA (UK) 580, Written Representations which two of the following must
auditors obtain written representations about?
A Material matters where other evidence cannot reasonably be expected to exist
B Material matters where other evidence is missing due to an emergency such as a fire
C Management's belief that it has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation of the
D That the financial statements record and reflect all transactions LO 3h
3 For each of the following statements concerning written representations, select

The auditor should evaluate whether the representations appear reliable and are consistent
with other evidence obtained before they are relied on as audit evidence.
A True
B False
Written representations are appropriate evidence when evidence the auditors expected to
be available is unavailable.
C True
D False
If written representations given do not agree with other evidence, auditors should not trust
any other representations made by management during the course of the audit.
E True
F False LO 3h
ICAEW Chapter 12: Written 6

4 Auditors seek written representations from management to support oral representations
that have been made during the course of the audit.
For each of the following in relation to a statutory audit, select whether a written
representation is required or not required.
The directors have fulfilled their responsibility for the preparation of the
financial statements.
A Required
B Not required
The accounting policies selected and applied by management are
appropriate. C Required
D Not required
A material item, subject to management judgement, for which no other evidence
could reasonably be expected to exist.
E Required
F Not required LO 3h
5 Written representations may be sought as audit evidence.

Which two of the following are valid circumstances in which written representations may be
required?
A To support other evidence about the suitability of accounting policies
B Where information which would normally be expected to be available is
unavailable C To support inspection of a board minute introducing the
directors' intention to sell a
material investment
D When the alternative audit procedure would be too time consuming LO 3h
6 On which two of the following matters should an auditor seek written representations?
A Whether there are plans to abandon product lines that will result in obsolete
inventory B Whether plant and equipment held on the client's premises exists
C The existence (or not) of reconciling items between the cash balance in the
accounts and the bank statement balance
D Whether there are any undisclosed subsequent events LO 3h

7 For each of the following statements concerning written representation letters,
Written confirmations are required from all client staff who have made oral
representations. A True
B False
The matters to be referred to in the written representation letter shall be discussed by
the auditor with senior management.
C True
D False
Written representations can be used as a substitute for evidence which would be available
to the auditor by other means.
E True
F False LO 3h
8 Which two of the following are purposes of a written representation letter?

A Acknowledgement that management has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation
of the financial statements
B Provision of evidence in respect of material items where other evidence is
available C Acknowledgement by management of its belief that the aggregate of
uncorrected
misstatements are immaterial to the financial statements
D Confirmation by management of the scope of the work to be carried out by the
assurance firm
E Provision of details of proposed modifications to the auditor's report LO 3h
9 Which one of the following ISAs (UK) is not normally referred to in a standard
written representation letter from management?
A ISA (UK) 240, The Auditor's Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of
Financial Statements
B ISA (UK) 300, Planning an Audit of Financial Statements
C ISA (UK) 550, Related Parties
D ISA (UK) 560, Subsequent Events LO 3h
ICAEW Chapter 12: Written 7

Chapter 13: Substantive procedures – key financial
statement figures
1 Which three of the following provide evidence to support the rights and obligations
assertion in relation to non-current assets?
A Title deeds
B Purchase invoices
C Vehicle registration documents
D Sales invoices LO 3d
2 Which one of the following assertions is the assurance provider least concerned with when
testing a non-current asset balance?
A Existence
B Rights and
obligations C
Completeness
D Cut-off LO 3d
3 Which two of the following constitute the best quality evidence concerning the
net realisable value of inventory?
A Company's controls over inventory
counting B Post year-end sales invoices
C Post year-end sales orders
D Post year-end sales price list LO 3e
4 Which one of the following is the reason why the positive method of confirming receivables
balances with customers is generally preferred?
A It is carried out in the auditor's name
B It requires the customer to reply giving or confirming or disagreeing with the balance
C It only requires the customer to reply if he disagrees with the balance
D It requires replies to be sent to the client LO 3e

5 Which two of the following procedures are most appropriate to confirm the valuation of
trade receivables?
A Review of the receivables ledger
B Direct confirmations with customers
C Review of cash paid after date
D Review of sales invoices LO 3d
6 In which two of the following situations should an auditor carry out a cash count?
A An individual cash float is material
B A client has a large number of cash floats, which are immaterial in total
C A client has poor controls over cash floats, which are immaterial in total
D The auditor suspects that a fraud has been committed in relation to immaterial cash
floats LO 3d
7 Which one of the following is the key assertion with which auditors are concerned in
relation to payables?
A Completeness
B Existence
C Accuracy
D Classification LO 3d
8 Which three of the following are reasons why the auditors might seek direct confirmation
of balances due from suppliers?
A To obtain third party evidence
B The auditors suspect that the client is deliberately understating
payables C The internal controls relating to purchases are weak
D Supplier statements are unavailable LO 3d
9 Which two of the following are reasons why sales are often verified by testing the
internal controls in place over sales?
A There are usually too many individual transactions to test them individually
B Sales constitute a high volume of similar transactions which are suitable for
controls testing
C Controls over sales in a company are often strong
D Because there are so many individual transactions, there is a significant risk that sales
are misstated LO 3b
ICAEW Chapter 13: Substantive procedures – key financial statement 7

10 Which three of the following relationships/ratios are reasons why analytical procedures
can give strong evidence in relation to the accuracy of purchases?
A Operating margin
B Purchases and payables
C Purchases and
inventories
D Gross margin LO 3g
11 The results of substantive tests on trade payables at Fulham Ltd are set out below.
The materiality threshold set for these tests was £17,000.
For each of the following results, select the action which should be taken by the audit
senior.
Three goods inwards records dated before the year end relating to goods worth £16,000
were traced to purchase invoices which have been included in the subsequent year and
not provided for this year.
A Draw conclusion
B Refer to senior
colleague C Extend sample
In a sample of 20 supplier statement reconciliations, statements were unavailable for
10 suppliers. Statements were available for seven of these 10 suppliers in the previous
year. D Draw conclusion
E Refer to senior colleague
F Extend sample LO 3i
12 The auditor of Barnett plc carried out an external confirmation of receivables at the year
end to confirm the accuracy of total trade receivables in the statement of financial position
at that date. Two of the replies to the confirmations disagreed with the balance.
For each of these two disagreements, select whether the disagreement would or would
not be considered a misstatement for the purposes of evaluating the accuracy of total
trade receivables in the statement of financial position at the year end.
Watford Ltd disagreed with the balance because they had made a payment two days
before the year end. The auditor has confirmed that the cheque cleared the bank two
days after the year end.
A Misstatement
B Not misstatement
Radlet Ltd disagreed with the balance because their records did not contain invoice
number SI 00492. This invoice and associated goods were despatched by Barnett plc
on the last day of the year. The auditor has verified that the despatch record and
cut-off with inventory are correct.
C Misstatement
D Not misstatement LO 3g

13 Hayley, an audit junior, has carried out the following tests to verify the valuation of
inventory in the financial statements of Cobham plc.
In each case, select whether the test proves the assertion of valuation or not.
Attending the inventory count and carrying out sample counts on a number of items
A Proves valuation
B Does not prove valuation
Comparing cost on a number of inventory items to sales invoices subsequent to the
year end
C Proves valuation
D Does not prove valuation LO 3d
14 Lisa has obtained a list of items which make up the cash and cash equivalents balance
(£3,556) in the financial statements of Baker Ltd. Materiality has been set at £4,000.
For each item, select whether or not Lisa should test the item.
Current account balance (overdrawn) £5,600
A Test
B Not test
Petty cash float £750
C Test
D Not test
Special directors' cash account
£1,294 E Test
F Not test LO 3g
15 Which two of the following assertions is the auditor most concerned with when testing
property, plant and equipment?
A Occurrence
B Existence
C Rights and obligations
D Cut-off LO 3d

16 The auditor of Mondays Ltd is performing a test to ensure that there are no omissions from
the non-current asset register.
In respect of which one of the following assertions will this procedure provide audit
evidence?
A Cut-off
allocation C Completeness
D Existence
E Classification LO 3d
17 Which two of the following procedures would provide evidence of rights and obligations
of motor vehicles?
A Vouching a sample of motor vehicles in the asset register to registration documents
B Physical inspection of motor vehicles
C Review of purchase invoices for motor vehicles acquired in the period
D Confirmation that calculations on the non-current asset schedule are correct in
respect of motor vehicles LO 3d
18 For each of the following circumstances in respect of inventory, select which

financial statement assertion would be affected.
Inventory which had been sold by the end of the period has been included in
inventory. A Completeness
allocation C Cut-off
Damaged items of inventory have not been written down to net realisable
value. D Completeness
E Accuracy, valuation and allocation
F Cut-off LO 3d

19 For each of the following circumstances in respect of inventory, select which
financial statement assertion would be affected.
Inventory items were excluded from the total in the financial statements in
error. A Completeness
B Accuracy, valuation and allocation
C Cut-off
Due to the miscalculation of cost, some inventory items have been included at cost when
net realisable value is lower.
D Completeness
E Accuracy, valuation and allocation
F Cut-off LO 3d
20 The following describes a number of features of the inventory count instructions of

Sydney Ltd.
For each feature, select whether it represents a strength or a deficiency.
The inventory count is performed by warehouse staff and supervised by the
warehouse manager.
A Strength
B Deficiency
Inventory sheets are completed in
pencil. C Strength
D Deficiency
There are two teams of counters, one counting and one
checking. E Strength
F Deficiency LO 3g
21 For each of the following statements concerning perpetual inventory counts, select whether
they are true or false.
Adequate inventory records must be kept up to
date. A True
B False
All inventory lines must be counted at least once per month.
C True
D False
Material differences between book inventory and actual inventory must be investigated and
corrected.
E True
F False LO 3g

22 Management should compare cost and net realisable value for each item of inventory.
Which three of the following circumstances could result in net realisable value being lower
than cost?
A An increase in the cost of raw materials which cannot be passed on to the
customer B An increase in selling price
C Errors in production
D An increase in production overheads
E Trade discounts from suppliers LO 3g
23 Direct confirmation of trade receivables provides evidence in respect of which two of the
following assertions?
A Existence
allocation C Rights and obligations
D Completeness
E Occurrence LO 3d
24 Which one of the following is the most reliable evidence of the valuation of
trade receivables?
A A comparison of current year-end total with previous
year B Analysis of after-date receipts
C Checking a sample of customers on the customer list against the receivables ledger
accounts
D Reconstruction of receivables balance by tracing individual amounts invoiced to
despatch records LO 3e

For each of the following examples, select the type of procedure illustrated.
Examining the instructions issued for a year-end physical inventory count
A Test of control
Observing despatch procedures
C Test of control
Comparing this year's sales figures to those of previous
years E Test of control
26 The following are examples of tests which an assurance firm might use at the
gathering evidence stage of an assignment.
For each example, select the type of procedure that test illustrates.
Adding the list of year-end receivables
A Confirmation
B Recalculation
C Reperformance
Using computer–assisted audit techniques (CAATs) to check the ageing of the year-end
list of aged receivables
D Confirmation
E Recalculation
F Reperformance LO 3b
27 In order to gather sufficient, appropriate evidence, the auditor may make use of
external confirmation requests.
For each of the following statements, select true or false.
A positive confirmation request always asks the respondents to reply to the auditor
indicating whether or not they agree with the information provided.
A True
B False
A sample of confirmation requests drawn from the client's list of balances is more
appropriate for receivables balances than for payables balances.
C True
D False

A positive confirmation request usually provides more reliable audit evidence than a
negative confirmation request.
E True
F False LO 3c
28 Which one of the following financial statement assertions will be supported by a

sample check on the numerical sequence of despatch records and invoices?
A Cut-off
B Occurrence
C Completeness
D Accuracy, valuation and allocation LO 3d
29 Which one of the following procedures should be undertaken to confirm the

existence of cash at bank?
A Inspecting the bank reconciliation statement prepared by the client
B Agreeing the figures on the bank reconciliation to the cash at bank nominal ledger
account
C Obtaining direct confirmation of the bank balance from the client's bank
D Reperforming the additions on the bank reconciliation LO 3d
30 The auditor of Raindrop Ltd carried out a direct confirmation at the year end to confirm
the accuracy of total trade receivables in the statement of financial position at that date.
Two of the replies to the circularisation disagreed with the balance.
For each of these two disagreements, select whether the disagreement would
be considered a misstatement for the purpose of evaluating the accuracy of
total trade receivables.
Jones LLP disagreed with the balance because their records indicated that the amount had
been paid a few days before the year end. The auditor's enquiries revealed that the cheque
was cleared shortly after the year end.
A Misstatement
B Not a misstatement
Sunny plc disagreed with the balance because its records indicated that it had paid the
balance two weeks before the year end. The auditor's enquiries revealed that the amount
had been received and credited to another customer's account before the year end.
C Misstatement
D Not a misstatement LO 3g

31 The external auditor of Aaron Ltd has set materiality thresholds such that items under
£40,000 are not generally considered material.
For each of the following items in Aaron Ltd's financial statements select whether the
auditor would usually test it for overstatement or for understatement, or whether the
item would not be tested at all.
£1,000 due from Harry, a director of Aaron
Ltd A Overstatement
B Understatement
C Not test
Sundry income £35,000
D Overstatement
E Understatement
F Not test LO 3f/g
32 Gamma Ltd has a head office and several branches. The head office operates a continuous
inventory counting system. The system ensures that all items are counted at least twice a
year and checked against inventory records.
During the interim audit, an examination of the counts undertaken by head office staff
showed that differences between inventory records and the physical count frequently arise.
Usually, actual inventory levels at branches are found to be higher than book inventory.
Which one of the following explains this difference?
A Unrecorded write offs of scrapped inventory
B Unrecorded purchase returns
C Unrecorded branch requisitions
D Unrecorded branch returns LO 3g
33 The results of substantive audit tests at Errata plc are set out below. The
materiality threshold set for these tests was £1,000.
senior.
No misstatements
found A Draw
conclusion
B Refer to senior

An arithmetical misstatement of £5,000
found D Draw conclusion
E Refer to senior
colleague F Extend sample
A misstatement of £10 found, sanctioned by the finance
director G Draw conclusion
H Refer to senior colleague
I Extend sample LO 3i
34 Which one of the following describes how an assurance provider would check the existence
assertion for a non-current asset?
A Trace the physical item to the non-current asset
register B Trace the physical item to the financial
statements
C Trace an entry in the non-current asset register to the physical item
D Trace an entry in the non-current asset register to the financial statements
E Trace an entry in the financial statements to the physical item LO 3f
35 Which two of the following statements identify an appropriate source of information for
audit work directed towards the stated risk associated with tangible non-current assets?
A Purchase invoices for assets purchased within the year may contain evidence in
relation to the risk of omission of assets owned by the company.
B Physical inspection of the assets themselves by the auditor may generate evidence in
relation to the risk of the company not actually owning the assets.
C Valuations carried out by third party valuers may contain evidence in relation to the
risk of the assets being incorrectly presented in the financial statements.
D Sales invoices for assets sold within the year may contain evidence in relation to
the risk of the company not actually owning the assets. LO 3f

36 Assurance providers obtain evidence using procedures, as set out in ISA (UK) 500,
Audit Evidence.
For each of the following statements, select whether they are most likely to be true or false.
A major risk of misstatement of the receivables balance in the financial statements is of
debts not being complete.
A True
B False
The principal risk of misstatement of long-term liabilities in the financial statements is
of non-existent liabilities being declared.
C True
D False
A major risk of misstatement of the inventory balance in the financial statements is of
inventory being included in the financial statements at full value when it is obsolete or
damaged.
E True
F False LO 3f
37 At which two of the following business locations should auditors be particularly alert
to the risk of money laundering?
A Car wash
B Manufacturer of
upholstery C Surveyors'
offices
D Pawn shop LO 3f

Chapter 14: Codes of professional ethics
1 Which three of the following are reasons why the accounting profession needs
ethical codes?
A Accountants have access to confidential information
B Assurance providers claim to give an independent
view C The financial community relies on
accountants
D The law requires it LO 4a/c/l
2 ICAEW qualified auditors acting in the UK are subject to which two of the
following? A IESBA Code of Ethics
B ICAEW Code of Ethics
C FRC's Ethical Standard
D The Code of Ethics set by the Government LO 4d
3 Which three of the following are stated fundamental principles of the IESBA
Code? A Integrity
B Objectivity
C Independence
D Confidentiality
E Courtesy LO 4e
4 For each of the following statements concerning professional ethics, select whether they
are true or false.
Prescriptive rules of ethical guidance are beneficial because they place the onus on the
accountant to actively consider independence in every given situation.
A True
B False
A framework of ethical guidance allows principles to be applied to different situations,
and is therefore effective in a situation that is changing rapidly.
C True
D False
A framework of ethical guidance prevents accountants interpreting legalistic requirements
narrowly, in order to circumvent ethical requirements.
E True
F False LO 4b

5 Which three of the following bodies issue ethical
guidance? A ICAEW
B IESBA
C IAASB
D FRC LO 4d
6 Which one of the following statements best describes ethical guidance in the UK?
A Ethical guidance provides a set of rules which must be followed in all circumstances.
B Ethical guidance is a framework containing a combination of rules and principles the
application of which is dependent on the professional judgement of the assurance
provider based on the specific circumstances.
C Ethical guidance provides a set of principles which can be applied at the discretion of
the assurance provider.
D Ethical guidance is a series of legal requirements. LO 4d
7 For each of the following threats, select whether they are identified by the IESBA Code
only, the FRC's Ethical Standard only or both the IESBA Code and the FRC's Ethical
Standard.
Self-interest threat
A IESBA Code only
B FRC's Ethical Standard
only C Both
Management threat
D IESBA Code
only
E FRC's Ethical Standard
only F Both
Familiarity threat
G IESBA Code only
H FRC's Ethical Standard only
I Both
Self-review threat
J IESBA Code only
K FRC's Ethical Standard only
L Both LO 4f
ICAEW Chapter 14: Codes of professional 8

8 Which three of the following are valid reasons why independence and objectivity
are important to the assurance profession?
A The public's expectations of
accountants B Public interest in
financial information
C Tradition
D Credibility of published financial information LO 4f
9 There are two main approaches to a code of professional ethics: a rules-based ethical
code and a principles-based code.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
A principles-based code requires a professional accountant to comply with a set of
specific rules.
A True
B False
A rules-based code requires a professional accountant to identify, evaluate and
address threats to compliance with fundamental ethical principles.
C True
D False
ICAEW uses a rules-based
approach. E True
F False LO 4b/d
10 The ICAEW Code of Ethics provides guidance for members regarding their
independence. For each of the following statements, select whether they are most
likely to be true or false. If guidance is principles-based then it does not contain rules
prohibiting certain activities
A True
B False
If guidance is based on general principles then it does not allow for particular or unique
situations.
C True
D False
Principles-based guidance may permit multiple correct responses in a given
situation. E True
F False LO 4b

11 The FRC's Ethical Standard gives examples of threats in its six classificatory categories.
For each threat below, select the category into which they would most likely be
placed. Auditing financial statements prepared by the firm
A Familiarity threat
B Self-review
threat
An audit team member having family at the
client C Familiarity threat
D Self-review threat
Making a loan to an audit client
E Familiarity threat
F Self-interest threat LO 4e

Chapter 15: Integrity, objectivity and independence
1 Which three of the following should an auditor consider if there is a threat
to independence?
A Withdrawing from the
engagement B Applying specific
safeguards
C Making disclosures to the client
D Making disclosures to ICAEW LO 4g
2 Which three of the following should not own a material financial interest in an audit
client? A A member of the audit team
B A minor child of a member of the audit
team C A parent of a member of the audit
team
D A spouse of a member of the audit team LO 4f
3 Which three of the following threats to independence might arise on the current audit when
an audit team member is involved in employment negotiations with an audit client during
the course of the audit?
A Self-interest
B Self-review
C Intimidation
D Familiarity LO 4m
4 Allisons LLP is a firm of chartered accountants. It has a reputation for excellence in the
banking and insurance industry and has been invited to accept engagements by various
institutions as follows.
(1) The audit of Nationally plc, the leading building society in the UK. 40% of staff
members of Allisons LLP who have mortgages have mortgaged their home with
Nationally.
(2) The audit of Cash It Ltd, a large business which banks cheques and cash items for
the general public and also advances loans. A member of the proposed audit team
was impressed by the loan rate offered to the team during the tendering process
and took out a loan with Cash It Ltd to buy a car.

Which, if any, of the above companies present a major threat to the independence of
Allisons LLP, if the engagement were to be accepted?
A Nationally plc and Cash It
Ltd B Cash It Ltd only
C Nationally plc only
D Neither Nationally plc nor Cash It Ltd LO 4f
5 Which one of the following is correct in relation to the presumption of dependence

for a non-listed client?
A There is a presumption of dependence when annual fee income from all services to
the client will regularly exceed 15% of gross practice income.
B There is a presumption of dependence when annual fee income from all services to
the client will regularly exceed 5% of gross practice income.
C There is a presumption of dependence when annual assurance fee income from
all services to the client will regularly exceed 15% of gross practice income.
D There is a presumption of dependence when annual assurance fee income from all
services to the client will regularly exceed 5% of gross practice income. LO 4f
6 Majors LLP, a firm of chartered accountants, offers the following additional services
to various audit clients.
In which three of the following situations is an insurmountable self-review threat most
likely to arise?
A Preparing the financial statements for Power Group plc, a listed company, on a regular
basis
B Carrying out valuations of various non-current property assets for Tower Investments
Ltd, a property investment company
C Promoting tax structures to Haven Ltd, where there is scope for doubt about
the appropriateness of the accounting treatments involved to achieve the tax
benefits
D Helping Craven plc in defining its corporate strategies and identifying possible sources
of finance for a potential new venture LO 4f
ICAEW Chapter 15: Integrity, objectivity and 8

7 In accordance with FRC's Ethical Standard, in which three of the following engagements is
there a significant threat to independence?
A Alan Johnson has been the audit engagement partner of Domino Ltd for 11 years.
B Barry Thomson has been the audit engagement partner of Beetle Group plc, a
listed company, for seven years.
C Having been the audit engagement partner of Risk Group plc, a listed company, for
five years, Colin Jackson resigned as audit engagement partner three years ago;
following a reshuffle in the firm, he has just been assigned as a key partner involved
in the audit of Risk Group plc.
D Don Matthewson has recently been appointed as the audit engagement partner of
Scrabble plc, a listed company; he previously held this position six years ago. LO 4f
8 The ethics partner at Juleyson Co, a firm of chartered accountants, is trying to resolve
an ethical conflict in respect of two clients of the firm.
Which two of the following are appropriate actions for him to take?
A Do nothing because the situation is likely to resolve itself over time
B Refer the matter to the management board of partners because he cannot
determine a solution himself
C Solicit advice from the ICAEW ethics helpline
D Seek the opinion of an ethics partner at a different firm LO 4o
9 Julia is a member of ICAEW who works in industry at KiwiCorp plc, a listed company. The
company is experiencing difficulty meeting the expectations of the market, and Julia has
been told by the board of directors that the company must meet its optimistic profit
targets at the year end, regardless of what accounting is required to achieve this.
Which two of the following are the most appropriate initial courses of action for Julia to take
in these circumstances?
A Report her concerns to the audit
committee B Resign
C Take legal advice
D Obtain advice from the human resources department at KiwiCorp plc LO 4o

10 There are various general threats to independence recognised by ethical codes.
For the following two examples, select the type of threat which might arise in that situation.
The audit senior assigned to the audit of Loesdon Ltd has recently become engaged to
the finance director's daughter.
A Self-interest
B Management
C Advocacy
The finance director of Litten Ltd has recently informed the audit engagement partner that
Litten Ltd will be seeking a stock exchange listing. The finance director has implied that
Litten Ltd will want to use the firm for significant amounts of advisory work in relation to
the listing, but joked at the same time that 'clean bills of health' would be crucial from now
on.
D Self-interest
E Management
F Self-review LO 4m
11 Estelle LLP is a 10-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on the
audit of the financial statements of two separate companies. The following potential
issues have been identified before acceptance of any such appointments.
For each of the following clients, select the basis on which the engagement could be
accepted, if at all.
Othello Ltd, which will also require you to provide routine tax compliance work and
advice A Do not accept
B Accept with safeguards
C Accept with no safeguards
Desdemona Ltd, the finance director of which worked at Estelle LLP two years ago, but who
does not know any of the members of the proposed audit team personally
D Do not accept
E Accept with safeguards
F Accept with no safeguards LO 4g

12 The following are examples of situations in which an audit firm might be faced with
threats to its independence.
For each example, select the type of threat which that situation best illustrates.
The finance director of Fussy Ltd has requested that the audit team for the
current year audit be the same as the team which performed last year's audit.
A Self-review
B Familiarity
C Intimidation
The finance director of Pernickety Ltd has told the audit manager that he is not happy with
the proposed audit opinion and is likely to seek a second opinion.
D Self-review
E Familiarity
F Intimidation LO 4m
13 The following are examples of situations in which Carnation LLP, an audit firm
with 50 similar medium-sized audit clients, which are non-listed, might need to
implement safeguards in order to protect its independence.
For each situation, select the most appropriate safeguard in accordance with Ethical
Standards, or state that there are no safeguards that could reduce the risk to an
appropriate level.
Carnation LLP has been invited to accept the audit of a major listed company. The fee
income from this engagement would represent 5% of the gross fee income of the firm.
A Separate personnel
B Discuss the issues with the audit
committee C No safeguards possible
Carnation LLP has been invited to accept the audit of a major competitor of an existing
client and has obtained consent from both to act.
D Separate personnel
E Discuss the issues with the audit committee
F No safeguards possible LO 4n
14 Which three of the following are areas in which a self-interest threat might arise?
A Where there is a close business relationship between the auditor and the client
B Where the auditor prepares and audits the financial statements
C Where the auditor has a financial interest in the
client D Where there are a significant amount of
overdue fees
E Where the audit firm provides internal audit services and significant reliance is to be
placed on the internal audit work for the purposes of the external audit LO 4m

15 Monty LLP, an audit firm, has a number of medium-sized audit clients which are non-
listed. It has a current gross practice income of £500,000.
For each of the following prospective clients taken separately, select whether
there are safeguards which could reduce any risk to independence to an
acceptable level in accordance with Ethical Standards.
Marty Ltd has insisted that the audit fee be based on 5% of reported profit after
tax. A Safeguards possible
B No safeguards possible
Fee income in respect of Andrews Ltd is expected to be
£95,000. C Safeguards possible
D No safeguards possible
Fee income in respect of Borne Ltd is expected to be
£65,000. E Safeguards possible
F No safeguards possible LO 4f
16 Wright LLP, a firm of auditors, has the following employees who previously
worked for current audit clients.
Name Previous employer Position held Date of resignation
Sam Brown Hastle Ltd Finance director 31 January 20X6
r ies
James Hastle Ltd Office junior 30 June 20X7
p
Sanderson
e
Sally Jones Morgan Ltd
Co
Chief accountant 1 June 20X4
For the audit of Hastle Ltd and Morgan Ltd for the year ended 31 December 20X7, for
nPaViet
which, if either, could all three members of staff be used on the audit team if the
engagement is to be conducted in accordance with Ethical Standards?
A Both Hastle Ltd and Morgan
t Ltd B
C
D
Hastle Ltd only
Morgan Ltd only
Neither Hastle Ltd nor Morgan Ltd LO 4f

17 Edward is an audit trainee working on the audit of Trekker Trailers Ltd. It is the day before
the audit manager is coming out to the client to review the files. Edward has been asked
to perform some additional tests on inventory valuation by his supervisor. These tests have
revealed a number of problems which Edward has highlighted to the supervisor. The
supervisor has told Edward that it is too late to deal with these and has asked him to
falsify the working papers.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate course of action for Edward to
take? A Falsify the results as instructed
B Inform the audit
manager C Seek legal
advice
D Inform the client LO 4o
18 Morgan LLP, an audit firm, has a number of prospective clients: Masons Ltd, Burton Ltd
and Dewburry Ltd.
For each of these following prospective clients, select whether the holding of the
stated financial interest should result in the firm declining the engagement or the
individual being excluded from the audit team in accordance with Ethical Standards.
(Assume that the interests are not disposed of.)
Bill Brown, a partner in Morgan LLP, owns 10% of the shares in Masons
Ltd. A Firm must decline
B Individual excluded
Sam Larson's wife owns 5% of the shares in Burton Ltd. Sam Larson is an audit manager at
Morgan LLP.
C Firm must decline
D Individual
excluded
Jane Smith's husband owns 15% of the shares in Dewburry Ltd. Jane Smith is a partner in
Morgan LLP.
E Firm must decline
F Individual excluded LO 4f

19 Panama LLP is an audit firm with 30 similar, non-listed, medium-sized audit
clients. The following are examples of situations in which Panama LLP might need
to implement safeguards in order to protect its independence.
For each situation, select the most appropriate safeguard or state that there are no
safeguards which could reduce the risk to an acceptable level in accordance with the
FRC's Ethical Standard.
One of Panama LLP's clients is a competitor of one of its other
clients. A Separate personnel
B Fee threshold not
exceeded C No safeguards
possible
Panama LLP has been asked to take on the role of internal auditor at one of its
clients and would be responsible for implementing its own recommendations.
D Separate personnel
E Fee threshold not exceeded
F No safeguards possible LO 4n
20 Jane Stanley is a qualified accountant working for a small catering company. The directors
of the company are looking to expand and have approached a number of potential
investors. Jane has been asked to produce management accounts for the investors to
review. The managing director has specifically told her that they must show a gross profit
margin of 30% and he "doesn't care how she achieves it." The gross profit margin is
normally approximately 20%. There is no internal complaints procedure.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial course of action for Jane to
take? A Resign
B Seek legal advice
C Contact the ICAEW telephone helpline
D Comply with her employer's request LO 4o

21 Richard Richardson LLP is a multi-national audit firm responsible for the audit of a
high street bank, Barkers Bank.
For each example below of loans provided to members of the audit team by Barkers Bank,
select whether the loan gives rise to a threat to Richard Richardson LLP's independence in
accordance with ethical standards.
The audit junior's student
loan A Threat
B No threat
The audit partner's mortgage, negotiated on normal commercial
terms C Threat
D No threat
The audit manager has recently taken out a car loan. He is being charged an interest
rate of 2% below the standard rate applied to this product
E Threat
F No threat LO 4f
22 The following are examples of situations in which an audit firm might be faced with
threats to its independence.
For each example, select the type of threat which that situation illustrates.
The audit firm has been asked to underwrite its client's shares in relation to a proposed
flotation.
A Self-review
B Advocacy
The board of directors does not contain a qualified finance professional and the
company has asked the audit firm to prepare the financial statements.
C Self-review
D Advocacy LO 4m
23 Talland LLP is the external auditor of Huntley Ltd, a retailer. The managing partner has
been called to a meeting with the board of directors of Huntley Ltd. At that meeting the
firm has been asked if it can provide the following non-audit services.
Huntley Ltd would like to implement a new sales system. They have asked Talland LLP to
take on a consultancy project whereby the firm will evaluate several possible systems,
advise on which system should be selected, and oversee the installation of the new system.
Which one of the following sets of threats would arise from the above scenario, if the
project was accepted by Talland LLP?
A Advocacy and management
B Management and familiarity
C Management and self-review
D Advocacy and familiarity LO 4m

24 Hammers LLP is a firm of chartered accountants. It has been invited to accept engagements
by various institutions as follows.
(1) Advisers to New Generation Insurance and Co, a small group of insurers seeking to
buy out the home insurance business of Insurance Plus, a major UK insurer. The
partner in charge of the advice team has made certain guarantees to New
Generation Insurance and Co's bank in respect of one of the members of New
Generation Insurance and Co, whom he knows personally. Hammers LLP has been
promised the audit of New Generation Insurance and Co if the buy out is successful.
(2) A review of banking procedures at NatEast plc, a major high street bank. Hammers
LLP has a modest business loan from NatEast plc.
Which, if any, of the above companies presents a major threat to the independence of
Hammers LLP, if the engagement were to be accepted?
A New Generation Insurance and Co and NatEast
plc BNatEast plc only
C New Generation Insurance and Co only
D Neither New Generation Insurance and Co nor NatEast plc LO 4f
25 The following are examples of situations in which Bouldry LLP, an audit firm, might
need to implement safeguards to protect its independence. Bouldry LLP has 75 small,
non-listed audit clients and has been asked to provide additional services to three of
these clients.
For each situation, select whether the additional services could be accepted with
appropriate safeguards, in accordance with Ethical Standards, or state that there
are no safeguards that could reduce the risk to an appropriate level.
Bouldry LLP has been asked to carry out a valuation service. The valuation is material to the
financial statements but does not involve a significant degree of subjectivity.
A Accept with
safeguards B No
safeguards possible
Bouldry LLP has been asked to provide accounts preparation
assistance. C Accept with safeguards
D No safeguards possible
Bouldry LLP has been asked to design and implement an IT system which will significantly
impact on the accounting system. Historically, Bouldry LLP has placed reliance on the
accounting system as part of the audit.
F No safeguards possible LO 4g

26 Brown LLP has been invited by Alpha plc, a listed company, and Beta Ltd, a non-listed
company, to provide audit and non-audit services. If accepted, the fees for Alpha plc would
represent 11% of the firm's gross fee income, and the fees for Beta Ltd would represent
12%.
Assuming Brown LLP would like to take on as many clients as is permitted by
ethical standards, which one of the following is the most appropriate course of
action?
A Accept both Alpha plc and Beta Ltd as clients
B Accept Alpha plc as a client and refuse Beta
Ltd C Accept Beta Ltd as a client and
refuse Alpha plc
D Refuse to take on either Alpha plc or Beta Ltd as clients LO 4f
27 Helena LLP is an eight-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on
the statutory audit of two separate companies. The following potential issues have been
identified.
For each of the following potential clients, select on what basis the engagement could
be accepted or state that the engagement should not be accepted, in accordance with
the FRC's Ethical Standard.
Titania plc, a listed company, will also require Helena LLP to prepare the
financial statements.
A Do not accept
Puck Ltd, whose finance director is the brother of one of the partners at the assurance
firm. D Do not accept
28 Two different audit juniors have been asked to carry out the following tasks. For each of
the tasks you should select the action that the audit junior should take.
An audit junior at Oberon LLP, a large assurance firm, has been asked to join the audit team
at a major client to carry out the receivables section of the audit. The junior has not carried
out this section of the audit before but has covered it in his training.
A Perform the work
B Refer to training partner
C Contact the ICAEW telephone helpline

An audit junior at Lear LLP, a sole practitioner audit firm, has been asked to commence the
audit of a small manufacturing client. The junior has expressed reservation about this but
the practitioner has insisted that he should go out to the client unsupervised at the
beginning of the following week.
D Perform the work
E Refer to training partner
F Contact the ICAEW telephone helpline LO 4h
29 David, a recently qualified ICAEW Chartered Accountant, is the newly-appointed financial

controller of Hartpury Ltd. Hartpury Ltd is a relatively small company, which is likely to
be taken over in the near future.
As one of his first assignments, David has been asked to prepare the financial
statements for the year ended 31 December 20X6. David has now been called into the
last part of a board meeting where the directors have given him a profit target which
must be met in those financial statements. They have stressed that this profit target
must be met, even if it means that accounting standards are not followed.
Which two of the following describe possible appropriate courses of action which David
could consider taking?
A Report his concerns to the audit
committee B Resign his post
C Report his concerns to the finance
director D Take legal advice
E Use Hartpury Ltd's formal dispute resolution process to resolve the issue LO 4o
30 The following are examples of situations in which an audit firm might be faced with a
threat to its independence.
For each example, select the main type of threat that situation illustrates.
The finance director has a very strong personality and insists on the audit team working in
his office.
A Familiarity
B Intimidation
C Management
The audit team and the management team at the client have remained unchanged
for several years.
D Familiarity
E Intimidation
F Management LO 4m

31 Dudley & Partners is a large assurance firm. They have acted as the external
auditors to Birmingham Ltd, a small owner-managed company, for two years.
The managing director and major shareholder of Birmingham Ltd, Mr Black, has now asked
the firm to represent the company's interests in a legal case which has been brought
against it. Mr Black has indicated that if the firm refuse to do this they will not be
reappointed as external auditor. He is also making matters difficult for those members of
the audit team carrying out the interim audit.
Which one of the following sets of threats arises from the above scenario?
A Intimidation, self-review and management
B Advocacy, self-interest and
management C Intimidation, advocacy
and self-interest
D Intimidation, advocacy and management LO 4m
32 Callinicos LLP is a 12-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on the
audit of the financial statements of two separate companies. The following potential issues
have been identified before acceptance of any such appointments.
For each of the following clients, select the basis on which the engagement could be
Luxemburg Ltd, which will also require Callinicos LLP to provide a valuation service in
relation to some immaterial financial assets
A Do not accept
Cliff plc, a listed company which will also require you to provide routine bookkeeping
work D Do not accept

33 You are a trainee in the audit department of Termite LLP. You have been working in
the department for 18 months and have experience of completing audit testing under
supervision, but are yet to work independently.
Several months ago, you had worked on the audit of Cioran Ltd. You have just received a
call from the audit manager, asking you to address a review point in relation to some
accruals testing that you did. The manager said that the audit report is to be signed
tomorrow, and that you need to resolve the point immediately. You are finding it difficult
to understand what was wrong with your testing, and do not know how to resolve the
review point.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for you to
take? A Perform the work
B Refer to training
partner C Contact ICAEW
You have also been assigned to the upcoming audit of Schopenhauer Ltd, in which you
are to be allocated the non-current assets section of the audit. You have not carried
out this section of the audit before, but you have covered it in his training.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for you to
take? D Perform the work
E Refer to training partner
F Contact ICAEW LO 4h

Chapter 16: Confidentiality
1 Which two of the following are the principal reasons why confidentiality is so important
to accountants?
A It is a fundamental principle of all the major ethical codes
B Failure to keep information confidential reflects badly on the accountant
C Accountants need their clients to be comfortable to make full disclosure of company
affairs to them
D It means that accountants can work for competitors LO 4i
2 Which three of the following should an accountant take care not to do, in order
to safeguard confidentiality?
A Discuss client matters with third parties
B Discuss client matters with colleagues in public places
C Discuss client matters with colleagues in non-public places
D Leave working papers in the car LO 4j
3 In which three of the following situations is it appropriate to disclose

confidential information?
A When the client has granted permission
B In order to obtain audit evidence about an amount in the financial
statements C When there is a public duty to make disclosure
D When there is a legal duty to make disclosure LO 4k
4 Which three of the following are situations where there is a legal duty to
disclose confidential information?
A When a fraud has taken place, it should be reported to the police
B When terrorist activity has taken place, it should be reported to the police
C When regulatory breaches have taken place at a charity, it should be reported to the
Charities Commission
D When money laundering is suspected, it should be reported to the National
Crime Agency (NCA)
LO 4k

5 Emma is faced with the following situations as part of her
work. For each situation, select the action Emma should take.
As part of her routine assurance work on revenue at Dodgy Ltd, Emma discovers that
the company accepts cash payments for sales that are never recorded in the
accounting records.
A Make no external
report B Report to the
police
C Report to the firm's money laundering nominated officer
As part of her routine payables testing at Risky Ltd, Emma discovers that
controls are deficient and some payments have been made to suppliers twice in
error.
D Make no external
report E Report to the
police
F Report to the firm's money laundering nominated officer LO 4k
6 For each of the following situations, select whether the assurance provider may disclose
confidential information or must disclose confidential information.
The assurance provider is being sued for negligence and is trying to establish a
defence. A May make disclosure
B Must make disclosure
The assurance provider has discovered a fraud at the client, which the client has
agreed should be referred to the police.
C May make
disclosure D Must
make disclosure
The assurance provider believes that the client is saving money by breaching environmental
clean up requirements.
E May make disclosure
F Must make disclosure LO 4k
7 If an assurance provider suspects that money laundering is taking place, to which one
of the following should the details be reported in the first instance?
A The police
B The Department of Trade and
Industry C The board of directors
D The firm's money laundering nominated officer LO 4k
ICAEW Chapter 16: 1

8 In respect of conflicts of interest, select whether each of the following statements is true
or false.
Where a conflict of interest exists between two audit clients, the auditor must cease to
act for one party.
A True
B False
If the effects of a conflict of interest can be mitigated by safeguards these should be
recorded.
C True
D False
Where adequate safeguards are available the parties involved do not need to be
informed of the conflict of interest.
E True
F False LO 4n
9 Which two of the following would be an appropriate use of confidential

information? A On a change of employment, using experience gained in a
previous position
B Encouraging others to buy shares in a company on the basis of information obtained
during the course of the audit
C Providing a prospective auditor with information required by him in order for
him to decide whether or not to accept the appointment
D Using information obtained on the audit of one client to influence the audit opinion
given in respect of another client LO 4k
10 In which one of the following situations may confidential information in respect of a client
only be disclosed if the permission of the client has first been granted?
A As a defence in a negligence claim
B In order to avoid giving an incorrect auditor's report to another
client C Where money laundering is suspected
D Where terrorism is suspected LO 4k

11 During the course of an assurance engagement, a member of the assurance team
from Endeavour LLP discovers that the owner of the business regularly collects cash
received from customers and does not include any details relating to the
transaction in the accounting records of the business.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate action for him to take in respect of this
matter?
A Discuss the matter with the client and advise him of the legal position
B Report the matter to the manager of the assurance engagement so that she can discuss
it with the client
C Obtain the client's permission to report the matter to a designated officer within
your firm
D Report the matter to a designated officer within your firm without the
client's permission
LO 4k
12 Lilac Ltd is currently in a dispute with the tax authorities, and ask asked Lilly LLP to
represent it. Lilly LLP is concerned that doing so may breach its duty of confidentiality.
Which of the following statements best reflects the auditor's duty of confidentiality?
A Auditors must never, under any circumstances, disclose any matters of which they
become aware during the course of the audit to third parties, without the permission of
the client.
B Auditors may disclose any matters in relation to criminal activities to the police
or taxation authorities, if requested to do so by the police or a tax inspector.
C Auditors may disclose matters to third parties without their client's consent if it is in
the public interest, and they must do so if there is a statutory duty to do so.
D Auditors may only disclose matters to third parties without their client's consent if the
public interest or national security is involved. LO 4k
ICAEW Chapter 16: 1

13 You are an audit manager in Leaf LLP, a large audit firm which specialises in the
audit of insurance companies. The firm currently audits Caterpillar Ltd, a car
insurer, but Caterpillar's main competitor, Snail Ltd, has approached the audit firm
to act as auditors. Caterpillar is concerned that if Leaf LLP audits both companies
then confidential information could pass across to Snail.
Which two of the following actions should Leaf LLP take regarding the potential
confidentiality issue?
A Inform the audit committees of both Caterpillar and Snail of the potential conflict
of interest and obtain their consent to act for both parties
B Use separate audit teams for each audit with a common independent review partner to
determine whether confidentiality has been maintained
C Draw up confidentiality agreements to be signed by the board of directors
of Caterpillar and Snail
D Prevent unauthorised physical access to the information relating to both company
audits LO 4k
14 For each of the following statements about data protection, select whether the statement
is true or false.
The GDPR obliges auditors to secure any data held on an audit client
company A True
B False
Upon returning home from working at an audit client’s site, you discover that you
have misplaced a memory stick that contained personal data on individuals working at
the audit client. This is a breach of the GDPR
C True
D False
The auditor has the primary responsibility for reporting any breaches of the GDPR by audit
clients to the Information Commissioner’s Office
E True
F False
LO 4i, 4j

Sample of an exam: questions
1 Which one of the following qualifications is required for individuals working on audits in the
UK?
A University degree
B Professional qualification
C Membership of a recognised supervisory body
D Employment by a firm controlled by qualified persons LO 1f
2 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in
respect of suitable criteria used in an assurance engagement.
The criteria for all assurance engagements will be the
same. A True
B False
Suitable criteria can only be identified for assurance engagements relating to financial
statements.
C True
D False
Relevant criteria for assurance engagements relating to financial statements are likely to be
accounting standards.
E True
F False LO 1d
3 There are two types of assurance engagement: reasonable assurance engagements and
limited assurance engagements. There are also two types of assurance conclusion:
positive and negative.
For each type of assurance engagement, select the appropriate conclusion
given. Reasonable assurance
A Positive form of words
B Negative form of
words Limited assurance
C Positive form of words
D Negative form of words LO 1d
ICAEW Sample of an exam: 1

4 For each of the following factors present at a prospective client, select whether that
factor indicates that that client is high risk or low risk.
Company has prudent accounting
policies A High risk
B Low risk
Company carries out unusual
transactions C High risk
D Low risk
Company currently has no finance
director E High risk
F Low risk LO 1f
5 Ferenczi LLP is in the process of being appointed as auditor of two clients, Klein Ltd and
Breuer Ltd.
The predecessor auditor of Klein Ltd has gone into liquidation and cannot be
contacted. Can Ferenczi LLP accept the appointment as auditor of Klein Ltd?
A Yes
B No
The managing director of Breuer Ltd was not previously known to Ferenczi LLP. An
enquiry with Companies House has shown that she has a bankruptcy order.
Can Ferenczi LLP accept the appointment as auditor of Breuer
Ltd? C Yes
D No LO 1f
6 Adam has been given the following draft figures for Imperious Ltd for the year ended
30 June 20X7 to analyse. Materiality has been set at £35,000 and the finance director has
told Adam in a planning meeting that there have been few changes in the year. Budgets
were set at 20X6 levels and there have been no major movements in non-current assets.
20X7 20X6
£ £
Revenue 3,497,284 3,487,286

Cost of sales 1,867,294 2,008,967
Salaries 467,900 420,975
Repairs and renewals 3,645 3,800
Depreciation 4,598 4,365
Advertising 37,945 37,283
For each item identified below, state whether it warrants further testing to
analytical procedures or not.

Cost of sales
A Warrants further testing
B No further testing
required Repairs and renewals
C Warrants further testing
D No further testing
required Advertising
E Warrants further testing
F No further testing required LO 1f
7 Which one of the following is normally designed to detect possible material monetary
errors in the figures in financial statements?
A Test of control
B Walk-through test
C Analytical procedure
D Observation of a procedure LO 3f
8 ISA (UK) 300, Planning an Audit of Financial Statements distinguishes the audit strategy
from the audit plan.
For each of the following examples, select the document in which the information would be
found.
Understanding of the entity's accounting
policies A Audit strategy
B Audit plan
Assessment of the principal risks of material
misstatement C Audit strategy
D Audit plan
Planned timetable for the financial statements to be ready for discussion with
client E Audit strategy
F Audit plan LO 1f

9 An auditor's report prepared in accordance with ISA (UK) 700, Forming an Opinion
and Reporting on Financial Statements expresses an opinion on a number of matters.
Some of these matters are required by the Companies Act 2006 to be reported on by
exception only.
Which two of the following are reported on by exception only?
A The financial statements have been prepared in accordance with the
requirements of the Companies Act 2006
B Adequate accounting records have been kept
C Directors' remuneration has been disclosed correctly
D Information in the strategic report and the directors' report is consistent with the
financial statements LO 1f
10 The following are types of test that might be carried out by an assurance provider. For
each example, select the financial statement assertion that is being tested.
Tracing a sample of transactions selected from sales orders back to the nominal ledger
A Occurrence
B Completeness
C Classification
Reviewing the financial statements disclosure note for non-current assets, using a
checklist based on IFRS requirements
D Existence
E Completeness
F Valuation LO 3d
11 For each of the following internal controls, which is the principal

limitation? The preparation of a bank reconciliation
A Human
error B
Collusion
Segregation of duties in a sales
system C Human error
D Collusion LO 2f

12 One of the five elements of internal control is monitoring of controls.
Which two of the following are activities which would be used to monitor controls?
A Management's review of whether bank reconciliations are being prepared on a timely
basis
B Internal auditors' evaluation of whether the sales team are following company policy
regarding customer discounts
C Authorisation of purchase invoices before they are paid
D Authorisation of purchase orders by the department manager LO 2e
13 In each of the following three cases, select whether control risk is higher or lower
than normal.
Payables balances are not regularly reconciled with supplier
statements. A Control risk is higher than normal
B Control risk is lower than normal
Management often override internal
controls. C Control risk is higher than
normal
D Control risk is lower than normal
Entry to the inventory storeroom is only for authorised
personnel. EControl risk is higher than normal
F Control risk is lower than normal LO 2b
14 One of the emerging operational issues that internal auditors need to be involved with is
cyber security (defined as the protection of systems, networks and data in cyberspace).
Which three of the following internal audit activities are most likely to feature in relation
to an entity's cyber security?
A Reviewing the password protocols in place for employees with access to information
systems
B Testing the operating effectiveness of an entity's firewall and anti-virus
software C Monitoring the entity's website for signs of unauthorised
modification
D Comparing the costs and benefits of the entity's online social media presence LO 2d
15 Which three of the following controls best prevent misappropriation of

customers' remittances?
A Segregation of duties between cash handling and
recording B Post opening by two people
C Investigation of differences between till records and cash collected
D Regular banking LO 2f

16 The internal auditor at Windsor Ltd has identified the following deficiencies within
that organisation's sales system.
deficiency.
Invoices are matched to orders but not warehouse
records. A Customers may not pay promptly
B Invoices may be raised in error
C Orders may be accepted from customers who are unable to
pay Receivables statements are not sent to customers.
D Customers may not pay
promptly E Invoices may be raised
in error
F Orders may be accepted from customers who are unable to pay LO 2f/h
17 The following describes aspects of the sales system in operation at Barrow plc.
Sales invoices are matched to despatch records and sales orders. The calculations on the
invoices are checked by the accounts clerk.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The accounts clerk is authorised to amend the invoicing system standing data regarding the
credit terms offered to customers.
C Strength
D Deficiency
The condition of goods returned is checked and a goods returned record is produced. A
copy of this is sent to the accounts department and a credit note is raised by the chief
accountant.
E Strength
18 Which two of the following deficiencies identified in the purchases system of Harrow Ltd
could result in a misstatement of liabilities?
A The buying department does not always use authorised suppliers
B Harrow Ltd does not always take advantage of prompt payment
discounts C Purchase invoices are not matched with goods received
records
D Comparisons are not made between monthly statements of account and payables
ledger balances LO
2f/h

19 The following describes processes in the payment system at Tombliboo Ltd.
The responsibility for preparing and signing cheques is delegated to a dedicated cashier.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The company keeps all securities and title deeds in a safe, to which only the cashier and the
managing director hold keys.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Set limits are placed on any cash advances that can be paid to subcontractors.
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2f
20 At Disastora Ltd, potential employees are interviewed by the production manager, who
then forwards successful candidates' details, the job title and the rate of pay to the
company's personnel manager for an employment offer to be made.
Which two of the following controls could be most effective at ensuring that wages are paid
accurately?
A Payments should be authorised by a director before being submitted for
processing BEmployees should be interviewed by the production manager and a
responsible
personnel official
C Hours paid should be reconciled to timesheets
D Reconciliations should be performed between the payroll and the company's
cash records
LO 2f
Approving the wages and salary summary for payment helps to ensure that
there is adequate segregation of duties.
A True
B False
Agreeing gross earnings and total tax deducted with taxation returns helps to ensure that
employees are being paid the correct amounts.
C True
D False

Reconciling this month's payroll with the previous month's payroll, without performing
any other procedures, ensures that starters and leavers are accounted for correctly.
E True
F False LO 2f
22 Internal and external auditors provide different services to companies.

For each of the following examples, select whether it is a service which would be provided
by internal auditors only, by external auditors only or by either.
Statutory audit
A Internal auditors
B External auditors
C Either
Monitoring of internal
controls D Internal auditors
E External auditors
F Either LO 2d
23 One of the emerging operational issues that internal auditors need to be involved with is
cyber security (defined as the protection of systems, networks and data in cyberspace).
Which three of the following internal audit activities are most likely to feature in relation
to an entity's cyber security?
A Reviewing the password protocols in place for employees with access to information
systems
B Testing the operating effectiveness of an entity's firewall and anti-virus
software C Monitoring the entity's website for signs of unauthorised
modification
D Comparing the costs and benefits of the entity's online social media presence LO 2d

A Working papers belong to the assurance provider
B Working papers should be kept for the current and previous year only
C Working papers should not be made available to third parties without
client permission
D Working papers should be made available to third parties at the request of the client
LO 1f

25 The assurance provider will prepare documentation in relation to the fieldwork
carried out on an assurance engagement.
For each of the following, select whether or not they are valid reasons for preparing this
documentation.
To retain a record of matters of continuing significance to future
engagements A Valid
B Not valid
To fulfil legal requirements covering assurance
providers C Valid
D Not valid
To enable quality control reviews to be carried out
E Valid
F Not valid LO 3a
26 Many auditors use two types of audit file: a permanent audit file and a current audit file.
For each of the following types of information, select the appropriate file in which it will
be contained.
Audit strategy document
A Permanent audit file
B Current audit file
Written representation from management
C Permanent audit file
D Current audit file
Accounting systems
notes E Permanent
audit file
F Current audit file LO 1f
27 Which one of the following statements is correct when describing automated and
electronic working papers?
A Electronic working papers do not involve any automatic calculations.
B Both electronic and automated working papers never involve any automatic
calculations.
C Automated working papers do not involve any automatic calculations.
D Both electronic and automated working papers always involve automatic calculations.
LO 3a, 1f

28 According to ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material
Misstatement Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment and ISA
(UK) 520, Analytical Procedures which two of the following statements are correct?
A Analytical procedures must be used as risk assessment
procedures. B Analytical procedures must be used as
C Analytical procedures must be used during the overall review stage of an audit.
D Analytical procedures must be carried out by senior level assurance staff. LO 3d
29 Which two of the following constitute

sampling? A Testing 100% of the items in a
population
B Testing less than 100% of the items in a population
C Testing all items with a certain characteristic
D Testing items selected randomly from the population LO 3b
30 Which two of the following misstatements discovered in a sample would not generally be
extrapolated against the total population?
A A misposting between customer
accounts B A misstatement in invoice value
C An invoice omitted in error
D An invoice disputed by a customer
E A timing difference between customer records and client records LO 3g
31 When determining a sample size for tests of details there are a number of factors
For each of the following factors, select whether it would cause the sample size to increase
or to decrease.
The auditor's required confidence level
increases. A Increase
B Decrease
The assessed risk of a material misstatement in respect of a balance has been reappraised
and has increased.
C Increase
D Decrease
The population has been
stratified. E Increase
F Decrease LO 3g

32 For each of the procedures below, select whether the auditor will be testing primarily
for overstatement or primarily for understatement.
Communicating with the client's legal advisers for details about outstanding legal
claims A Primarily for overstatement of provisions
B Primarily for understatement of provisions
Reviewing the aged inventory analysis to identify old/obsolete inventory
C Primarily for overstatement of inventory
D Primarily for understatement of inventory
The auditor calculating for himself the warranty provision and comparing their figure to the
balance stated in the statement of financial position
E Primarily for overstatement of warranty provision
F Primarily for understatement of warranty provision LO 3f
33 For each of the following statements concerning written representation letters,

A written representation letter is only required for new
clients. A True
B False
The written representation letter must be dated before the auditor's
report. C True
D False
The written representation letter must include a list of all uncorrected
misstatements. E True
F False LO 3h
34 ISA (UK) 580, Written Representations deals with the auditor's responsibility to obtain
written representations from management and, where appropriate, those charged with
governance of an audited entity.
Which three of the following are included in the definition of management in this
context? A Persons with executive responsibility for the conduct of the entity's
operations
B An owner-manager
C Executive members of a governance board
D Majority shareholders LO 3h

35 Which three of the following are the more significant risks in relation to an
inventory balance in the financial statements?
A Inventory exists but has not been included in the financial
statements BInventory has been valued at cost when net realisable value
is lower C Inventory has been valued when it is obsolete and has no
value
D Inventory has not been disclosed properly in the financial statements LO 3d
36 Which one of the following procedures which could be undertaken to confirm the
valuation of a client's bank balance is the most reliable?
A Inspection of the bank
reconciliation B Inspection of the
bank statement
C Inspection of the bank letter
D Inspection of the cash at bank nominal ledger account LO 3e
37 The results of substantive tests in relation to non-current assets at Hammersmith plc are
set out below. The materiality threshold set for these tests was £5,000.
senior.
A sample of three assets worth £2,000 in total had been excluded from the non-current
asset register and the financial statements.
A Draw conclusion
B Refer to senior
A building revalued to £100,000 during the year was vouched to an expert valuation carried
out by a firm of chartered surveyors.
D Draw conclusion
E Refer to senior colleague
F Extend sample LO 3i
38 Kamran, an audit junior, has been asked to test the completeness of certain items
in the income statement. He has carried out the following tests.
For each test carried out, select whether that test proves the assertion of completeness or
not.
Analytical procedures on revenue figures, budget v actual and actual current year v actual
previous year
A Proves completeness
B Does not prove completeness

Tracing a sample of goods received records to payables ledger and financial
statements C Proves completeness
D Does not prove completeness
Tracing a sample of entries on the payroll to individual HR
records E Proves completeness
F Does not prove completeness LO 3d
39 The following statements apply to the use of the positive or negative method of direct
confirmation of receivables.
For each statement, select whether it applies to a situation where the positive method
should be used or to a situation where the negative method could be used.
The assessed risk of material misstatement is high.
A Positive method
B Negative method
A small number of large balances is
involved. C Positive method
D Negative method
A substantial number of misstatements is not expected.
E Positive method
F Negative method
There is no reason to believe that respondents will disregard the
requests. G Positive method
H Negative method LO 3d
40 Smith LLP is considering the preliminary audit strategy for the following two new
audit clients whose principal characteristics are set out below.
For each client, select whether Smith LLP would be likely to rely on internal controls or
to rely completely on substantive procedures.
Client AX has recently been incorporated and is experiencing rapid growth. It is in
the process of recruiting a financial controller.
A Rely on internal controls
B Rely completely on substantive procedures
Client BF is an established company with well-documented systems and controls. It
has an internal audit function whose principal activity is to monitor the
implementation and effectiveness of existing controls.
C Rely on internal controls
D Rely completely on substantive procedures LO 3f

41 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members only.
B The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members and employees of member
firms only.
C The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members, employees of member firms
and ICAEW students.
D The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members, employees of member firms,
ICAEW students and all other members of UK accountancy bodies. LO 4d
42 The ICAEW Code of Ethics provides guidance for members regarding their
independence. For each of the following statements, select whether they are most
likely to be true or false. The auditor should completely eliminate all threats to their
independence.
A True
B False
The degree of required independence is higher for a non-audit engagement than for an
audit engagement.
C True
D False
If safeguards do not allow a threat to be sufficiently mitigated, then the auditor
should decline the engagement.
E True
F False LO 4d
43 Threats to independence can be placed into six general categories of

threat. For each of the following statements, select whether they are
true or false.
Having a close business relationship, including a common financial interest with an audit
client, can cause self-interest and intimidation threats.
A True
B False
A partner should not serve on an audit client's board as this can constitute a
management threat.
C True
D False
Contingent fees for audit work cause a self-interest
threat. E True
F False LO 4m

44 Fagin LLP, a large assurance firm, has been asked to carry out recruitment services for
its client, Claret plc, by recruiting senior accounting staff.
Which two of the following threats to independence would arise if Fagin LLP agree to
provide such services?
A Self-review
B Management
C Advocacy
D Familiarity LO 4m
45 Hermione LLP is a 12-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on
the statutory audit of two separate companies. The following potential issues have been
identified before acceptance of any such appointments.
For each of the following potential clients, select on what basis the engagement could be
Snowman Ltd, which has just grown to the point where a statutory audit is required;
Snowman Ltd is already a client of Hermione LLP, which prepares the financial statements
for the company
A Do not accept
Snowball Ltd, which is a competitor of an existing client of Hermione
LLP D Do not accept
46 Cairns LLP, a small assurance firm, has been asked to provide two of its audit clients
with the following additional services. For each of the companies, select on what basis
the additional services could be provided, if at all, in accordance with Ethical
Standards.
Leyton Ltd has had to employ a new accountant who is unsure of the correct treatment of a
number of transactions. Cairns LLP has been asked to provide advice and help in the
preparation of the financial statements.
A Do not provide
B Provide with safeguards
C Provide with no safeguards
Blacks Ltd has asked Cairns LLP to provide some tax planning advice and has suggested
that the fee could be based on a percentage of the tax saving. The total fee from this
client is material to Cairns LLP.
D Do not provide
E Provide with safeguards
F Provide with no safeguards LO 4g

47 In each of the following cases, select the principal threat that the audit firm is
facing. Polly Nunn, a partner in an audit firm, has just inherited some shares in an
audit client. A Self-interest
B Familiarity
Golf World Ltd is so pleased with the way that the audit has been conducted that it has
offered the members of the audit team two free golf lessons each.
C Self-interest
D Familiarity
Tobin LLP, an audit firm, has been asked to provide internal audit services to an audit
client. E Self-interest
F Self-review LO 4m
48 The following are examples of situations in which Habermas LLP, an audit firm, might
need to implement safeguards to protect its independence. Habermas LLP has 50 small,
non-listed audit clients and has been asked to provide additional services to three of
these clients.
For each situation, select whether the additional services could be accepted with
appropriate safeguards, in accordance with the ICAEW Code of Ethics and the FRC's
Ethical Standard, or state that there are no safeguards that could reduce the risk to an
appropriate level.
Habermas LLP has been asked to provide tax planning advice. The efficacy of the advice
depends on balances included within the financial statements, but the outcome of the
advice would not be material to them.
A Accept with
safeguards B No
safeguards possible
Habermas LLP has been asked to draw up a shortlist of candidates for the
position of finance director, using criteria determined by the client in advance.
C Accept with
safeguards D No
safeguards possible
Habermas LLP has been informed that an audit client to whom other assurance
services were provided last year, is bringing legal proceedings against Habermas
LLP for negligence in its performance of those services.
F No safeguards possible LO 4g

49 In which one of the following instances would the client's permission be required
before disclosure is made to a third party?
A The client is involved in tax evasion
B The receivables ledger clerk at a client has committed a theft by teeming and lading
C An employee of a client is involved in terrorist activities
D There has been an industrial accident at one of the client's factories which has not
been reported to the relevant licensing authorities LO 4k
50 For each of the following statements about the principle of confidentiality, select
whether the statement is true or false.
It is appropriate for a member of the audit team to discuss a client's financial statements
with a member of the tax team in the firm's reception area.
A True
B False
The auditor must disclose a client's breach of environmental law as soon as is practicable
after it is discovered.
C True
D False LO 4i, 4k

Answer Bank
Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance
1 A,B,C
A key element of an assurance engagement is sufficient appropriate evidence,
but is not generally mandatory that this evidence is recorded in an assurance
file. (It is mandatory to record audit evidence, however.)
2 A,B,D
Reasonable assurance is a high, but not absolute, level of assurance. The other options
available represent various aspects of the expectations gap which is the gap between
what the assurance provider understands he is doing and what the user of the
information believes he is doing.
3 B,C The answer is not option A as the fact that assurance work is carried out by
independent people is a strength of assurance provision. Option D is also incorrect
as the use of unqualified staff increases the detection risk of the auditor as
opposed to being an inherent limitation of the provision of assurance. Work
carried out by less qualified staff should always be supervised, directed and
reviewed by more senior personnel.
4 C,E It is the responsible party who will determine the suitable criteria (in response to the
obligations it has) against which the practitioner will test the subject matter and on
which the practitioner will report to the users.
It is the practitioner who will provide the opinion on whether the subject matter
complies with the criteria after the evidence has been gathered and evaluated
accordingly. The opinion prepared will be issued to the user.
5 B Sufficient appropriate audit evidence is gathered and a positively worded opinion
issued in a reasonable assurance engagement. A lower level of evidence coupled
with a negatively worded opinion applies to a limited assurance engagement.
6 A,C,F
Whereas the statutory audit provides reasonable assurance through a positively
worded assurance conclusion, in a review engagement, limited assurance is provided
with the issue of the negatively worded assurance conclusion. This can be seen in the
wording of the two conclusions. The positively worded assurance conclusion includes
wording 'the financial statements give a true and fair view', whereas the negatively
worded assurance conclusion includes the wording 'nothing has come to our
attention', emphasising the limited nature of the assignment.
Reasonable assurance is high assurance provided on the truth and fairness of the
subject matter as opposed to absolute assurance of the correctness of the subject
matter.
7 A,D,F
The subject matter under examination are the company's corporate governance
policies. These policies are to be assessed against the UK Corporate Governance
Code, which is the suitable criteria. The responsible party is Blue plc, the party
commissioning the report, who has the responsibility to apply the UK Corporate
Governance Code. Jones LLP is the practitioner, responsible for gathering the
appropriate evidence and issuing an appropriate opinion.
8 A,C As per Companies Act, 2006, a statutory auditor must be a member of a
recognised supervisory body and an officer or employee of the client is
ineligible as auditor.

9 B Assurance refers to an assurance firm's satisfaction as to the reliability of an
assertion being made by one party for the use of another party. This assurance is
then expressed in an assurance report with a negative or positive conclusion given
as appropriate to that particular engagement. SAMPLE EXAM
10 A,B,D
An assurance report does not 'attest(s) to the correctness of the information
being reported upon'. Even a reasonable assurance engagement (which gives
more assurance than a limited assurance engagement) does not provide a
guarantee that the information being reported on is correct. Assurance can never
be absolute as this statement implies.
SAMPLE EXAM
11 A,E It is the responsible party that prepares the subject matter and the practitioner who is
responsible for gathering evidence. The user is the party who receives the final
report.
SAMPLE EXAM
12 D There are two types of conclusion which can be given: a conclusion expressed in
positive terms and a conclusion expressed in negative terms. A conclusion expressed
in negative terms is indicated by the phrase 'nothing has come to our attention' which
indicates the restricted work carried out and hence the fact that the assurance is
limited, as opposed to reasonable. Hence this type of assurance is limited level of
assurance expressed negatively.
SAMPLE EXAM
13 A,B,D
The expectation gap is the gap between what users of financial statements believe the
auditor does and what the auditor actually does. The following three are common
manifestations of the expectation gap:
 The auditor's report certifies the financial statements as correct
 The auditor's principal duty is to detect fraud
 The auditor checks all transactions
The belief that the auditor is employed by the directors is a common misconception
but not a manifestation of the expectation gap. (The company employs the auditor,
who is appointed by the shareholders in a general meeting.) SAMPLE EXAM
14 B,D,F
A statutory audit provides reasonable assurance, which reflects the
comprehensiveness of the audit procedures carried out. No assurance engagement,
not even a statutory audit, can give absolute assurance.
A review of financial information gives limited assurance, which is a lower level of
assurance than a statutory audit. Its conclusion would be worded negatively.
A report on profit and cash flow forecasts gives limited assurance. Forecasts are by
nature about uncertain future events, and so cannot be made with enough
certainty to give a 'reasonable' level of assurance. SAMPLE EXAM
1 Assurance: Answer ICAEW

15 B,C,F
Small Ltd meets the requirements of a small company in relation to turnover and total
assets (it has no more than £5.1 million total assets), which is the two out of three
required for the company to be exempted from having an audit even though it has
more than 50 employees.
Tiny Ltd does not meet any of the requirements to be a small company, and must have
an audit.
Little Ltd meets all three of the requirements, and is therefore exempted from
having an audit.

Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an
engagement
1 A,B The answer is not option C as it will not be necessary to obtain references when the
entity is already known to the firm. It will not be necessary to contact previous
auditors in the case of a company's first audit.
2 A,C Poor recent performance may indicate a high risk that the company may misstate
its financial statements in order to show improved recent performance. A company
carrying out unusual transactions would also be a high risk, as each transaction
would require a separate understanding leading to a higher risk of error. Strong
internal controls and the existence of an internal audit department would be low
risk indicators.
3 A,C Given its intention to list on the stock exchange, Tulip Ltd may be motivated to show a
better picture of itself than that which exists, hence it is a high risk client. Dhalia Ltd
is also a high risk client given that it is seeking alternative forms of finance. It has the
incentive to show itself as a more healthy company than it actually is in order to
attract the finance it requires. There is also a risk of misstatement if the financial
statements do not properly reflect any going concern problems which the company
may have.
4 A,B,C
The engagement letter does not contain any certification of the assurance
provider's opinion. An engagement letter does serve the other purposes listed.
5 A,B,D
Checks on legal and ethical restrictions should be performed before the
appointment is accepted. Once the appointment is accepted, legal and
professional obligations need to addressed, options A and B (as per Companies Act
2006) and option D as per ISA 210, Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements.
6 B,C,F,G
The engagement letter is essentially the contract between the client and the
auditor and therefore should be sent to all clients. It confirms acceptance of the
appointment by the auditor so must be issued after acceptance but before work
is commenced.
7 A The Money Laundering Regulations state that client identification documents must be
kept for a minimum of five years and until five years since the relationship elapses.
8 A,C Arrangements regarding the planning and performance and the basis of the fee
calculation are not essential to be included in the engagement letter, whereas
the responsibilities of the auditor and the form of any reports must be included in
the engagement letter.
9 A,C,D
The following are not purposes of an engagement letter:
 Providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements
to internal control
 Providing evidence on matters where other evidence is not expected to exist (eg,
on management plans for the future of the entity) – this is the purpose of a written
representation SAMPLE EXAM
10 C Apply a questioning mind to the information and evidence he obtains would
indicate professional scepticism. The alternative options offered are all a step
too far.

SAMPLE EXAM

11 A,B Verifying the client's identity would be performed before the engagement
letter is prepared and signed.
The Companies Act 2006 does not stop auditors from making agreements with clients
to restrict their liability, so it would be incorrect to state this is in the engagement
letter.
ICAEW Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an 1

Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the
assignment
1 B,C,D
The answer is not option A as to determine the scope of the engagement should
have been done in the engagement letter.
2 A,C,D
The standard states that inquiries of third parties may be carried out if useful,
but lists options A, C and D as procedures that shall be carried out.
3 A,B,D
The answer is not option C as consideration of whether a balance has been
correctly calculated will require a procedure of recalculation as opposed to
analytical procedure.
4 B,C,D
What audit staff to assign to the audit would depend more on the risks associated
with the engagement than the level of materiality.
5 A,B,D
Option C is incorrect as confirmation of management's responsibility for the financial
statements is contained in the letter of engagement.
6 A,C,F
A profit-related scheme means that directors have the incentive to overstate profit and
hence the accounts are susceptible to material fraud/error. Therefore inherent risk is
higher than normal. A cash-based business is more inherently risky than a non-cash-
based business, as cash is susceptible by its nature to theft and omission. Where
balances in the financial statements have straightforward financial accounting
requirements, the susceptibility to material error or misinterpretation is reduced.
7 A,C,F
Option A is correct as the concept of materiality does not exist in a void, but depends
on the context of the omission or misstatement. Option C is correct as materiality acts
as a form of guidance in the amount of work required to be performed, and so when
planning audit procedures. It is also made reference to in evaluating discovered
misstatements (both individual misstatements and in aggregate). Option F is correct as
materiality is not a fixed percentage of profits or other measure but depends on the
audit risks faced for the particular client. Further, materiality is not only measured
quantitatively but also qualitatively.
8 A,D Both the examples increase the susceptibility of the accounts to material fraud and
error. The fact the organisation is seeking to raise finance for a new venture
represents a risk at the company level, whereas the estimates present a risk at the
individual account level where those estimates are found.
9 B,F High staff turnover increases the risk that the internal controls in place will not be
effective. The use of samples in testing, represents a sampling risk: that the sample
tested will not represent the population as a whole. Sampling risk is part of
detection risk.

10 A,B Options C and D are incorrect as tests of details and review of events after the date of
the financial statements are normally performed after the initial planning stage of
the audit.
11 A,D,E
Option A is correct as materiality needs to be calculated at the audit planning stage to
provide a guide as to the extent of audit procedures required. Option D is correct as
materiality can be revised during the course of the audit, as the assessment of audit
risk changes. With regards to option E, the materiality level set will have an impact on
the audit opinion as the existence of material unadjusted errors and misstatements will
lead to a qualified audit opinion.
12 B,D The existence of management override increases control risk as controls may be
ignored leading to an increased risk of material fraud or error. Profit related pay
may motivate the directors to distort the financial information, so constituting an
inherent risk.
13 B,C,E
Options A and D are incorrect as sample sizes and inexperienced audit staff will
affect detection risk.
14 B,C If detection risk is low this means that the auditor must have a higher expectation of
identifying errors and misstatements. Materiality is lower as the financial statements
are more sensitive and sample sizes are increased so that more work is performed.
15 B,F Substantive procedures only – a new client with few employees implies a lack of
segregation of duties and hence high control risk. Therefore reliance should not
be placed on the internal control system. Audit evidence should be gathered
using substantive procedures.
A mix of tests of control and substantive procedures may be used for the audit of a
long-standing client with a sophisticated IT system and an internal audit
department as it will be possible to rely on internal controls and then perform
reduced substantive procedures.
16 B,D If sales prices are cut but costs remain the same gross profit margins will fall. If the
company sells a greater proportion of goods with a lower margin than in previous
years the overall margin will be reduced. Increased levels of sales (and therefore lower
closing inventory) will not affect gross profit margins provided selling prices are
maintained. Interest expense is not deducted in arriving at gross profit, therefore it
can have no effect on gross profit margins.
17 A,C,F
With a recent listing on the stock exchange and high profit expectations, inherent risk
is higher than normal as accounts are more susceptible to material fraud and error.
Inventory is by its nature more inherently risky as it is susceptible to theft, omission and
misstatement. The fact that the company operates in a slow-moving, stable industry,
decreases the susceptibility of the financial statements to material fraud and error.
18 B,C,E
False – materiality can be both quantitative and qualitative.
True – materiality may depend on either the nature of an item or its monetary amount.
True – materiality is determined by the external auditor and he will use his
professional judgement in setting a level of materiality which best addresses the
audit risk.
SAMPLE EXAM

19 B,D Control – few employees indicates limited segregation of duties, which is a control
deficiency.
Inherent – a fast-moving, high-tech environment presents inherent risks both at the
company level but also at individual account levels (eg, inventory). SAMPLE EXAM
20 B,D Cash would be decreasing in a situation of overtrading as cash flows out to fund
the increases in working capital.
Receivables would be increasing as the company expands without the resources
to support the expansion.
21 C If the entity has purchased a property for cash, this would reduce current assets
without any corresponding reduction in current liabilities.
22 B If the cake shop has a higher level of wastage of inventory than the electrical shop,
then the cost of wasted inventory will be treated as an expense in cost of sales.
This will reduce its cost of sales independently of the mark-up applied. Cost of
sales will therefore be high in relation to revenue, so the cake shop's gross margin
will be lower.
23 B,D An unusually large sale would increase receivables and the current ratio.
If payables are paid out of a positive cash balance then this will reduce both cash
(assets) and payables by the same absolute amount. However, since the current ratio is
positive (assets are greater than liabilities), the ratio will increase.
24 C It is management's responsibility to prevent fraud within a company (option B). There
are auditor independence issues with regard to external auditors being involved in the
preparation of financial statements and in helping management to improve reporting
processes (options A and D). It should therefore be apparent that option C is correct.
25 B It is true that fraud may result in a material misstatement, but this is also true of error
so option A is incorrect. It is also true that a misstatement can be material whether it
is caused by fraud or by error, but this does not help us to distinguish between them
(option B). Option D is incorrect, since fraud is an intentional act. Option B is correct –
fraud is an intentional act but error is not.
26 C,D Option A is incorrect, as related party transactions tend to be a high-risk area. Option B
is incorrect because misstatements of disclosure may well be material, especially if
they relate to eg, directors' remuneration. Option C is correct – disclosure should be
complete. Option D is correct, because it is commonly the case that management has
not put in place reliable internal controls to identify related party transactions.
27 B,C The prevention of fraud is the responsibility of management, not the auditor. However,
the auditor is responsible for obtaining evidence to address the risks of material
misstatement, which it failed to do in relation to payroll.
28 B,C Although deterrence of fraud may be a consequence of the audit, the auditor does not
perform the audit with this aim – their aim is to obtain evidence regarding the truth
and fairness of the financial statements.
The auditor is responsible for assessing the risks of material misstatement, which
includes the risk of misstatements resulting from fraud, and for obtaining evidence in
relation to this risk.

Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and
reporting
1 B,C,D
A walk-through procedure does not provide evidence relating to a specific balance on
the financial statements, but is used instead to ensure that the systems operate as the
assurance provider believes that they do.
2 A,B Option C and D are incorrect as evidence from internal sources is not more reliable
than evidence created by the assurance provider (in fact, the reverse is true).
Furthermore, the statement that photocopies are more reliable than facsimiles is
not true as the assurance provider should exercise professional caution with both.
3 A,C,D
Options B and E are incorrect as existence and rights and obligations would be used
in respect of a balance, not a class of transactions.
4 A,B,D
Option C is incorrect as positive (or reasonable) assurance will be given on an
audit assignment, whereas negative (or limited) assurance is given on a review
assignment, reflecting the limited procedures carried out.
5 A,D Directors refusing to cooperate with the auditor constitute an inability to obtain
sufficient appropriate audit evidence – the fact that users discover this has nothing to
do with the expectations gap. Shareholders approving the auditor's appointment at a
general meeting is a legal obligation of the company.
6 B,F,I
It is only the statutory audit that provides reasonable assurance. The review
engagements provide limited assurance. None of the engagements provides absolute
assurance.
7 B,F Option B is correct as where the controls have been assessed as deficient, this
means that reliance can not be put on these controls. Option F is correct as
where controls have been assessed as strong, this means that they can be relied
upon. In this way, tests of controls are carried out coupled with limited
8 C,E The Companies Act checklist ensures that all classification issues are addressed.
Tracing non-current assets observed back to the non-current asset register ensures that
this balance is recorded completely.
9 A,B,D
Option C is incorrect because cut-off relates to classes of transactions (ISA (UK) 315:
para. A129).
10 A,D,E
Option A is correct as material items must be tested with substantive procedures,
although the extent of these procedures will depend on whether reliance can be
placed on the related internal controls. Option D is correct as while results from
tests of controls may affect the extent of substantive procedures they will not
eliminate the need for them completely.

11 A,D,E
Observing the opening of the post is a test of control as it is the observation of a
control taking place. Calculation of the gross profit margin and comparison with that of
the previous accounting period is an analytical procedure (which is, in turn, a
substantive procedure). Reviewing for authorisation is also testing that a control has
been applied (option E).
12 A,D,E
Observing inventory counting is a test of control as it is the observation of a
control taking place (ie, the year end inventory count).
Calculation of the quick ratio and comparison with that of the previous accounting
period is an analytical procedure (which is, in turn, a substantive procedure).
Inquiring into the systems used to process purchases is a test of control (option E).
13 A,C Key audit matters are the matters that are of most significance to the audit.
The auditor does not express a separate opinion on any of the key audit matters,
rather; the auditor expresses a single opinion on the financial statements as a
whole, and then communicates the key audit matters that relate to that
opinion.
14 A, D The statement of financial position is based on a mixture of fair values and amounts
stated at historical cost; this would not usually represent a suitable basis for valuing
a business.
The amounts in the financial statements are not stated precisely – rather, they
are prepared using the concept of materiality.
It is standard practice for the audit firm to be paid by the audited entity.
Ethical standards do not consider this to impair the auditor's independence.
Auditors are allowed to sell other services to the audited entity, provided that this
does not create an unacceptable threat to the auditor's independence.
15 B,D A statement of directors' responsibilities and an auditor's opinion are included within
an auditor's report, not an assurance report.
16 B,C,F
Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and
returns is reported only by exception (an implied opinion only).
Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the
company's affairs at the end of the financial year is an explicit opinion, relating to the
statement of financial position.
Whether details of directors' emoluments and other benefits have been correctly
disclosed in the financial statements is reported only by exception (an implied
opinion only).

Chapter 5: Introduction to internal control
1 B,F The process of preparing the financial statements forms part of the information
processing system.
Locking the inventory storeroom is a specific control activity.
None of the above relate to the control environment, which refers to the management
style and philosophy towards controls.
2 B,D,E
Control risk is lower than normal (ie, internal controls are stronger) where the
company has an established internal audit function (which strengthens the control
environment by monitoring the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls in
place) and where the board has a track record of performance review, monitoring
and investigating deviations from expected performance. Control risk is higher
than normal where purchase invoices are not authorised (control deficiency).
3 B,C,E
Option A is incorrect as all members of an audit committee must be non-executive
directors. Option D therefore is also incorrect. The chief internal auditor does not sit on
the audit committee, but should ideally report directly to this committee.
4 A,C,D
Option B is not correct as it is the attitude of management and senior staff that
will shape the entity's control environment and not that of the ordinary staff.
5 E Reporting the process to the auditors is part of the external audit process and not
part of the internal risk assessment process.
6 B,C The information system comprises all the information (be it in hardcopy or electronic
form) that flows into the financial statements and does include the whole process of
financial statement preparation.
7 C,F Both are physical controls.
8 B,F Reviewing whether authorisation controls have been properly applied is an information
processing control, ie, to check the authorisation of transactions.
Having separate clerks recording sales invoices and posting cash receipts in the
sales ledger reduces the risk of fraud and error (is therefore a segregation of
duties control).
9 A,D,F
Option A is a general control as it supports the effective functioning of application
controls. Options D and F are correct as they relate specifically to the processing of
individual applications.
10 B Narrative notes would be the simplest way of recording a straightforward system that
was is not subject to a great amount of change annually. It is, however, the least
effective way in terms of readily identifying the system in operation and the
deficiencies of the system.
11 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as while the prior year audit file will be useful, the system may
have changed in the intervening period. The company's website is very unlikely to
contain details on the internal control system. SAMPLE EXAM
12 D Cyclical reviews of the master files is an application control. The remainder of
the options available are general controls.

13 B,D Options A and C are incorrect as they are control deficiencies, rather than inherent
limitations of an internal control system as such.
14 A,B Appraising the sales ledger constitutes performance review and compiling the
trial balance are information processing control activities.
15 B,C Small companies are less likely to be successful in the implementation of segregation
of duties controls due to the limited number of employees available to segregate
specific tasks within the various cycles. Given the limited number of staff in small
companies and the dominance of management, controls are more likely to be
overridden in smaller companies than larger ones.
16 A,E Training programme for all staff is part of the control environment. Review of
actual performance versus budget is a control activity.
17 A,C,F,G
Option F is the only false item in the question as internal controls should be applied
equally to all transactions, whether material or not.
18 A,D,E
Business risk is of relevance to the auditor as business risks may impact on the
financial statements. Management are responsible for identifying and controlling
business risks although the auditor will assess business risk as part of the audit.
19 B,C Information processing, segregation of duties.
Reconciliations are information processing as they are undertaken to check the
completeness and accuracy of information.
Having separate clerks recording purchase invoices and posting cash payments in
the payables ledger reduces the risk of fraud and error (so this is therefore a
segregation of duties control).
20 A,D,F
Password protection constitutes a general control. The remaining controls are
application controls.
21 A,B,D
Procedures for resubmission of rejected data are an application control.
22 B Narrative notes are more suitable for smaller businesses. Questionnaires do not
show relationships and reporting lines as clearly. Although the organisational
chart would show the structure of the organisation and general reporting lines, it
would not document the system in operation.
23 A,E Minimising business risks and complying with laws and regulations are the primary
reasons why organisations need effective systems of control. The others may result
from that effective internal control system. SAMPLE EXAM
24 A,C,E
Authorisation of transactions, custody or handling of assets and recording of
transactions are the three functions which should ideally be separated such that
no-one person can initiate the transaction, record that transaction in the
accounting records and have custody of assets which arise from that transaction.
For fraud to take place, with such segregation of duties, there would have to be
significant collusion. Preparing financial statements is a function which follows
from the recording of transactions and effective budgetary control can only take
place once there is confidence on the integrity of data coming from effective
internal control systems. SAMPLE EXAM

25 B An audit committee is made up of non-executive directors only. SAMPLE EXAM
26 A,F The entity's organisational structure is part of the entity's control environment.
Monitoring of controls involves a review of the effectiveness of controls and whether
they need improving – hence a review by management of monthly bank reconciliations
is part of that monitoring system. SAMPLE EXAM
27 A,D Authorisation showing that the accountant has reviewed the reconciliation.
Performance review includes reviews and analyses of actual performance against
budgets (as here), forecasts and prior period performance. SAMPLE EXAM
28 C Application controls apply to the processing of individual applications (eg, sales,
purchases, inventory), hence authorisation of data for input (say of purchase orders)
is the application control. The remaining options are general controls, which relate to
many applications and support the operation of the whole IT environment.
SAMPLE EXAM
29 B,E User selection of passwords and displaying the password on screen would reduce
password effectiveness. The existence of frequent changes of passwords, automatic
disconnection after failed attempts and disciplinary offences if passwords are
revealed would all increase password effectiveness. SAMPLE EXAM
30 C,D The internal audit function monitors controls that are already in operation.
The audit committee is part of the control environment as it contributes to the status
of internal controls within an organisation.
31 A,D For the preparation of reconciliations where calculations are involved, the inherent
limitation is that these reconciliations are susceptible to human error.
Even where duties are segregated, this control can be overridden by the collusion
of the parties involved.
32 A,C The external auditor is appointed by shareholders, but the audit committee
makes recommendations in relation to this.
The audit committee reviews the integrity of the financial statements of the
company and formal announcements relating to the company's performance.
33 A,D All options are examples of application controls. Document counts ensure that the
expected number of documents is submitted, and hence that the documents are
complete.
A manual check to ensure input was by authorised personnel is a control over
input authorisation, not completeness.
A screen warning to prevent logout before processing is complete is a control
over input processing.
A programmed matching of input to an expected input control file is a control
over input completeness (this is similar in principle to a document count).
34 A,D,E
Segregation of duties is a preventive control here because its aim is to
prevent unauthorised purchases from being made.
Reconciliation of the payables ledger with supplier statements aims to detect any
misstatements that have already been made – it is therefore a detective control.
Restricting users to read-only access of key folders on internal network aims to
prevent unauthorised changes being made to the files in these folders.

35 A,C,F
Approval of applications by a sample of users and by management is a general
control related to the development of computer applications.
Virus checks on software on employees' computers is a general control.
A check that all data entered in a field contains the correct number of digits is an
application control, since it relates to a particular field in a particular application.

Chapter 6: Revenue system
1 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as it is a benefit to the company if its customers do not take the
full credit period and pay sooner. This would be a risk in the purchases system as it
would benefit the company to take the full credit period extended to it by its suppliers.
2 A,D Authorisations of credit terms to customers and checking the ageing of current
receivables ledger balance before accepting orders in order to assess the
creditworthiness and history of payments. Options B and C are not correct as they are
procedures that take place after the customer has made the purchase.
3 A,D,F
Option D applies as there is no link between despatch and invoice (goods could be
invoiced without being despatched), and there is no link between order and despatch
(orders may not be fulfilled). Option F is correct as reception staff are unconnected
with any of the departments with whom customers might have a query – ordering,
warehouse or accounts.
4 A,C The duties of authorisation, recording and custody of assets should be segregated.
5 C,D If overdue accounts are not followed up, debts might be included on the
receivables ledger that are not collectable. Where invoices are not in numerical
sequence, invoiced sales might not be properly recorded.
6 A,D If credit notes are valid then the related invoice is cancelled. Goods received are
part of the purchases system. As such, options B and C are not risks associated
with the sales system.
7 C Despatch records are evidence of goods delivered. If there are sales invoices for
each of these all sales will be invoiced. Options A and B are incorrect as they
relate to the completeness of sales orders and ensure that all orders are
subsequently despatched respectively. Option D is also incorrect as requiring
customers to sign for goods confirms delivery only.
8 B,F If despatch records are not pre-numbered they may be lost and therefore no
invoice raised. If customers do not evidence receipt of goods disputes may arise
leading to slow payment.
9 A,D Correct invoicing is an objective of the invoicing stage of the sales system. Cut-off
affects the recording stage of the sales cycle.
10 A,D,E
Strength – that orders placed by telephone, once credit checked, are entered into the
system is a strength as it ensures the prompt recording of an order. Also the customer
is checked for creditworthiness before the order being generated – indicating that the
company is protecting itself from loss.
Deficiency – the order should only be accepted once it has been confirmed that the
goods ordered are available. The invoice should be generated once it is confirmed
that the goods have reached the customer (as evidenced by the customer signing the
despatch record).
Strength – a copy of any despatch records with incomplete orders filed and
reviewed daily will ensure that orders are filled at a later date. SAMPLE EXAM

11 A Statement B is a control activity, not a control objective. Statement C is a test of
controls, not a control objective. Statement D is a control objective relating to
the purchases system, not the sales system.
12 C A sale should be recognised as soon as goods have been safely despatched to a
customer and every despatch should be accompanied with a goods despatched
record. Consequently to obtain assurance about the completeness of sales, the
auditor needs to be confident that all despatch records have been recorded in the
accounting system (option C). Checking that all sales invoices have been processed
merely confirms that 'all sales invoices have been processed' (option B) and
similarly the existence of authorisation controls merely provides assurance as to
whether transactions have been authorised (option D). The existence of
segregation of duty controls (option A) does not in itself provide assurance as to
completeness of recording of sales transactions.
13 C Revenue is usually recognised when goods have been despatched to the customer
as this is the point at which control transfers to the customer. In order to test for
completeness of sales, auditors should therefore start from the goods despatched
records.
14 A Credit notes are only issued for valid reasons – this is a control objective relating
to the revenue system which will ensure that credit notes are not issued without
appropriate reasons.
Checking sales invoices to despatch records is a control, not an objective.
Scrutinising customer accounts is a control, not an objective.
Orders are made only from authorised suppliers – this is a control objective
relating to the purchases system.
15 C Only option C provides evidence of sales completeness.
Segregation of duties does not principally provide assurance of sales completeness.
Issuing pre-numbered sales invoices just confirms that all the invoices have
been processed through the invoicing system – this does not mean that the
invoices tie in with goods actually despatched.
Authorisation controls provide assurance only that the transactions have
been authorised, and do not help with the completeness assertion.
16 A,D If sales are included in the wrong customer accounts, or credit notes are not
properly recorded, then this comes as a result of an error in recording.
Goods being recorded incorrectly is, logically, not a risk associated with recording. It
might result from deficiencies with sales ordering, for example.
Goods being despatched but not invoiced for would be more likely to result from
an error in despatching and invoicing than from recording.

Chapter 7: Purchases system
1 B,F Analysis of actual performance against budget is performance review.
Checking numerical sequences helps ensure completeness of records.
2 A,E Option B is incorrect as does not relate to the goods inwards stage of the purchase
system. Option C is also incorrect as the question refers to goods and not
services. The checking of invoices to orders will reduce the risk of accepting
invoices for goods or services which were not ordered.
3 B,C,E
Deficiency – there is no authorisation of payment orders
Strength – company only recognises liability for services received
Strength – payments authorised SAMPLE EXAM
4 A,B The answer is not option C as inappropriate orders could still be made with
authorised suppliers. The answer is not option D as once inappropriate orders have
been authorised, matching the order with the invoice will not prevent that act
having taken place. SAMPLE EXAM
5 C Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should requisition materials as production needs dictate,
but orders should be placed (and by implication authorised) by the purchasing
department. The managing director would not be involved in authorising normal
purchasing transactions in a company with a purchasing department. Someone
other than the production department leaders should authorise purchases.
6 A As it is company policy to record goods only if accepted then a comparison of
invoices with goods received records would identify if the goods had not been
accepted – as there is no goods received record, the goods must have been faulty
(or rejected for some other reason). This would then prevent the invoice from
being processed.
7 C,E Checking arithmetical accuracy is an information processing control. Physical security
measures should reduce risk of theft.
8 B,D Purchase of goods from unauthorised suppliers is likely to lead to inferior goods
being purchased. By having access to the payables master file, purchase ledger
clerks are in a position to create fictitious suppliers and so then enable payments
to them.
9 A,B,D
Statement C is not a control activity, it is a control objective relating to the purchases
system. The others are all control activities.
10 B,D,F
Deficiency – although a record of orders is kept, there is a lack of segregation of duties
as the buyer both places and authorises the order. A director should authorise
purchases (particularly those above a certain cost limit) rather than the buyer.
Deficiency – The buyer only checks the goods received to ensure that the quantities are
the same as was ordered.
Deficiency – The buyer appears to have complete control over what is purchased by
Woggle Ltd. There does not appear to be any kind of purchase limit placed upon him,
or any reference made to the sales department for what they want to sell. There is a
risk that the buyer could purchase items for personal use.

11 A,C,F
The risk of not taking full advantage of a period of credit would be a
consequence of problems with goods received or payments.
The risk of goods and services not being obtained on the most advantageous
terms would be more likely to arise at the ordering stage.
The risk of invoices not being recorded would arise at the goods received/invoicing
stage, before the production of a payment listing.
12 A,D,E
Comparing goods received records with purchase orders is mainly a check on
whether the purchases have been authorised and are bona fide purchases.
Monitoring supplier terms helps ensure that the terms obtained are the
most advantageous ones available.
Although it is true that pre-numbered goods received records would help to ensure
that liabilities are recorded correctly, this is only as a consequence of the goods or
services first having been recorded accurately.
13 B,D,E
Blank order forms should not be readily available, but should be secured; if they were
readily available then anyone with access to them could place an order.
Instead of allowing buyers a free choice of suppliers, there should be a central policy
for the choice of suppliers so that only authorised suppliers are used. Such suppliers
should have been vetted to verify that they give the best value for money.
Preparing order forms only when a pre-numbered purchase requisition has been
received is a strength, as goods will only be ordered once the need for such goods has
been approved.
14 A,D The remaining options describe control objectives rather than control activities.

Chapter 8: Employee costs
1 B It is the temporary staff's work schedules that document the hours worked. As
such they require control to ensure that it is only the hours authorised that are
subsequently paid.
2 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as it does not relate directly to the employees' payments
but to their tax deductions.
3 B,C,E
With regards to option B, clocking in and out of work ensures correct recording of
the hours clocked in and out, but has no bearing on the rate of pay.
4 A,C Both cases lead to the possibility that employees are paid the wrong amounts.
5 A,C,E
All three processes represent strengths. Process 1 involves physical security as a
control. Process 2 has elements of performance review and authorisation. Process 3 is
also a strength as an authorisation control features.
6 C,D Options A and B are not correct as authorisation of overtime ensures that the correct
number of hours are paid for and reperformance of payroll calculations ensures the
accuracy of the deductions etc.
7 B,C Unauthorised amendments could result in the creation of bogus employees or
overpayment of existing employees. Personnel records contain details of pay
rates. If these are not kept up to date standing data in the payroll system may
also be invalid. Options A and D would not lead to misstatement in the financial
statements.
8 A,C,F
Process 3 is false (option F) as while the risk of errors is reduced in a
computerised payroll system, a sample of calculations should still be checked.
This may also bring to light errors with standing data and input.
9 B In order to prevent this from happening, the key is that fictitious employees
never make it onto the payroll. The financial controller is concerned that an
employee from the accounts department, who has the right to access the payroll
system, might be so unscrupulous as to add a fictitious employee and gain access
to the wages.
 Payroll standing data periodically printed out and checked on a line-by-line
basis to independently held employee details – this will detect fictitious
employees added but will not prevent fictitious employees from being
added.
 Use of hierarchical passwords over standing data files – this will allow the company
to restrict access to standing data files to a responsible official, yet still allow
other employees to process the wages. This means that an unscrupulous employee
cannot access the part of the system where new employees would be added and
hence will prevent the fraud. This is therefore the correct answer.
 Pre-authorisation of all amendments to payroll standing data by an independent
official – an unscrupulous employee will not ask for authorisation – he will simply
add the fictitious details if the system allows him to do this.
 Supervision of the wages payout by an independent official – again, this
might detect dummy employees but would be unlikely to prevent the
fraud.

SAMPLE EXAM

10 B,D Access controls and encryption of data will reduce the risk of unauthorised
disclosure. Exception reporting and an independent review of the payroll, would
help identify unauthorised changes to payroll information. Back-up procedures
would help in the protection of company data. SAMPLE EXAM
11 B,D,E
The deficiency arises when calculating wages and salaries: a failure to check wages to
the personnel file could result in an employee who has left (which would be recorded
on the file) being included on the payroll. The recording of pay in the general ledger
would not be directly affected by this.
The deficiency arises when calculating pay (ie, ensuring that the amounts on the payroll
reflect the amount recorded on the timesheets), so would not directly affect the
general ledger.
The deficiency arises after the calculation of the payroll, so although it might expose
errors in that calculation it is more likely to expose errors in the amount
paid/general ledger.
12 B,D,E
The payroll master file would not contain details of cumulative statutory deductions
to date – these would be included on the monthly payroll instead.
Statutory deductions do not affect gross pay.
13 A,C Segregation of duties would not help ensure that the elements of pay are
recorded correctly (although it may help eg, to prevent unauthorised payments
from being made).
Encryption of data would help to safeguard the payroll data.
14 B,C,F
Not keeping adequate records of changes in personnel and pay rates would not
in itself affect the entries to the general ledger.
Having no procedures for dealing with non-routine matters would not cause
employees to be paid too much money in itself, but is more likely to affect the
entries to the general ledger.
A lack of segregation of duties would be more likely to result in making the
wrong payment than in an error making entries to the ledger.

Chapter 9: Internal audit
1 A,B Authorising unusual transactions and developing internal control systems are part of
the accounting function in an entity. In order for the internal audit function to
operate objectively and independently, it should not be involved in these activities.
2 A,C Options B and D are not correct as they are too operational and would
compromise internal audit's monitoring role.
3 B,C,D
Option A is not correct as it is the external auditors who have the legal duty to
carry out the statutory audit. It is, however, usually encouraged that there is some
cooperation between the internal and external auditors where this is possible.
4 B,C,E
Having an internal audit function is not a requirement of the UK Corporate Governance
Code but the need for directors to review the need for one annually is. The other
statements are both true.
5 B,D,F
All of the statements are false. Because independence is a concern, internal audit
report to the board of directors or the audit committee. The UK Corporate Governance
Code does not require listed companies to have an internal audit function per se, but
requires companies to consider the need for one annually, in order to maintain an
adequate system of internal controls. Internal audit uses both testing of internal
controls and substantive testing, as appropriate to the task in hand.
6 B,C Secondment to the financial controller role and being involved in the identification
of risks should not be carried out by the internal auditor. This is because these
roles are operational and would compromise the ability of internal audit to provide
a monitoring role. The risk assessment should be undertaken by the risk assessment
committee or whomever is responsible for risk assessment.
7 A,B,C
Expressing an opinion on the truth and fairness of the financial statements is done by
the external auditor only.
8 B An operational audit is just one type of work carried out by the internal auditor. Other
audit work might include, for example, investigation into a suspected fraud.
Therefore the term does not apply to all internal audit work.
9 A,C Options B and D are incorrect as external auditors report to the shareholders
and, although internal auditors will normally provide information to the
external auditors, they do not formally report to them.
10 A,B,D
The external auditor may identify efficiency issues during the course of the
statutory audit but audit work is not specifically planned with this objective.
11 A,C,D
Internal audit should not have operational responsibilities so should not authorise
transactions or routinely prepare bank reconciliations. SAMPLE EXAM
12 B,C External auditors do not focus on operations, as their prime focus is providing an
opinion on the financial statements.
External auditors are appointed by the shareholders of an entity and cannot
be employees of the entity in order to maintain their objectivity and
independence.
ICAEW 2020 Chapter 9: Internal audit 147

Chapter 10: Documentation
1 B,C,D
Confirming the terms of the engagement is done in the engagement letter and
does not constitute a reason for assurance providers to record their work.
2 A,C,D
The answer is not option B as the details relating to the planning of the work will
be included in the planning memorandum. The answer is not option E as the
initials of the person supervising the work are not necessary, but the reviewer
would initial the working paper. The supervisor and the reviewer might be the
same person, but not necessarily.
3 A,D Options B, C and E will be kept on the current year audit file.
4 B,D,G
The engagement letter will be held on the permanent audit file. The audit plan and
manager review notes will be on the current file only.
5 B,C,D
Details of the history of the client's business and lease agreements would be held
on the permanent audit file.
6 A,C,F
Working papers belong to the auditor and should be stored securely by the auditor
in locked premises. Although ISA 230 requires documentation to be kept for a
minimum of five years from the date of the auditor's report, ICAEW requires
registered auditors to keep all audit working papers required by auditing standards
for a period of at least six years from the end of the accounting period to which
they relate.
7 A,D,E
The second statement is not valid as there is no direct correlation between the number
of working papers produced and the audit fee charged. The other two statements are
valid.
8 B,C,E
Not valid – fieldwork documentation does not help in establishing the audit
strategy. Valid – fieldwork documentation helps in an effective review process.
Valid – the fieldwork documentation provides a record of evidence gathered.
SAMPLE EXAM
9 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as computerised audit processes cannot replace the
exercise of judgement by the auditor.
10 C Six years from the end of the accounting period to which they relate is the ICAEW
requirement.
11 C The auditor must ensure the safe custody of audit documentation for at least six
years from the end of the accounting period to which it relates.

12 A,D,E
Matters of significance should be documented for both current and future audits.
However, documentation must be prepared on a timely basis, as any delay could lead
to inaccurate working papers. The need for reflection is unlikely to benefit the
auditor's judgement in such cases! Working papers can also be updated as and when
subsequent information/evidence is obtained.
ICAEW Chapter 10: 1

Chapter 11: Evidence and sampling
1 B,D Inspection of assets does not confirm rights and obligations as the asset might be
possessed wrongfully or leased and inspection will not show that. Observation
gives only weak evidence of the matter being observed and only at the moment
the matter was being observed, not the next time it is done, unobserved.
2 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as test data, as opposed to audit software, is used to
test controls over processing.
3 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as the assurance provider may use information that has been
internally generated at the entity, provided he is satisfied that information has been
properly prepared.
4 D Recalculating the interest accrued on the basis of outstanding amount, interest rate
and period to which it relates would be the most appropriate for verification of the
interest accrued on borrowings. Confirming the interest rate with the lender would not
verify the total interest accrued balance (as the interest rate is only one component of
the calculation) nor would vouching the interest payment (as interest paid is not the
same as interest accrued). Testing the internal controls over cash payments would not
lead to direct verification of the interest accrued. SAMPLE EXAM
5 A,D When testing for overstatement (ie, seeking to discover errors), the assurance provider
will test items from the accounting records to the supporting documents. When testing
for understatement (ie, seeking to discover omissions), the assurance provider will
select items from outside the accounting records and trace to the records.
6 C,D The time available to complete the test and the skill of the team member assigned to
carry out the test will not affect the number of items to be tested, whereas risk
assessment and expected misstatement will.
7 A,B,E
Sequence sampling would more commonly be used in testing controls. Haphazard
selection should not be used when the assurance provider is using statistical
sampling.
8 C,D,H
Documents and other pieces of evidence are inspected. Processes are observed.
External confirmations involve seeking evidence from a third party.
9 A,C,F
Audit software makes use of the assurance provider's own specialised software. It can
extract and analyse information from the client's system. Test data are used to test
controls by inputting data which should activate a control and checking that it does so.
10 D Inspection of a sales invoice produced by the client would constitute the least
persuasive method of gathering evidence as it is the least reliable of all the options.
The supplier's invoice is more reliable as it comes from a third party and
reperformance of calculations and reconciliations is also more reliable as this evidence
is generated by the assurance provider/reporting accountant. SAMPLE EXAM

11 B,F,H
For tests of controls:
 an increase in tolerable misstatement will cause a decrease in sample size as an
increase in the amount of 'acceptable misstatements' (or audit risk acceptable)
will reduce the extent of the work necessary to be performed (as there is a
corresponding acceptable increase in detection risk).
 an increase in the population will have a negligible effect on sample size as
it is not a factor that determines the sample size.
 a decrease in the auditor's required confidence level will lead to a
decrease in sample size.
12 B,D Per ISA 530, regarding factors influencing sample sizes for tests of controls:
 an increase in the number of sampling units will have a negligible effect on the
sample size.
 a decrease in the tolerable misstatement will increase sample size.
13 B,C,F
Physical examination of property, plant and equipment confirms existence (it may
belong to a third party). The reliability of inquiry depends on who is providing the
information. A third party eg, a bank would normally be a reliable source.
14 B,C,E
A sales invoice is less reliable than a purchase invoice as it is internally generated.
Original documents are more reliable than copies. A bank statement is more reliable
than the cash at bank nominal ledger account as it is generated by a third party.
15 B,C,F
The weakness of observation of a procedure is that the conclusion drawn as a
result only applies to the system at the time the observation took place – hence it
is limited to the point in time it takes place.
The usefulness of analytical review is limited by the underlying accounting
system which generates the balances under review.
A respondent will agree to an overstated balance if that is direct confirmation in
respect of a payables balance (he would disagree if the amount he owed – ie, a
receivables balance – were overstated). SAMPLE EXAM
16 A,D,E
Per ISA 315, analytical procedures must be used at the risk assessment stage of
an audit. Per ISA 520, they must also be used at the overall review stages of an
audit and may be used as a substantive procedure.
17 B,D If budgets are not realistic they will not provide a reasonable basis for comparison with
actual. Deficiencies in internal controls reduce the reliability of the basic accounting
information which will be used in the analytical procedures.
18 A,C Tests for understatement (ie, omission) cannot start from the source being tested for
understatement/omission. They must start from some other source and trace through
to the accounting records, to prove that nothing has been omitted (ie, the entity's
transactions or balances are not understated).
19 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as tolerable misstatement is related to the auditor's judgement
about materiality.

20
An increase in the auditor's assessment of the risk of material misstatement would
cause the sample size to increase as an increase in audit risk can only be addressed
and reduced by an increase in the work carried out.
An increase in the use of analytical procedures to test the same assertion would
decrease the sample size, so that the area is not over-audited.
An increase in the expected misstatements would lead to an increase in the sample
size. SAMPLE EXAM
21 B,C,F
Test data are used to test controls. Audit software (not test data) can be used to help
in the calculation of ratios.
22 A The misstatement that the auditor expects to be present in the population =
expected misstatement. Control deviations, when performing tests of control, or
misstatements, when performing substantive procedures = misstatement. The
maximum error in the population that the auditor would be willing to accept =
tolerable misstatement.
23 A,E Systematic selection involves selecting items using a constant interval between
selections, the first interval having a random start.
24 B,C,E
Positive confirmations may request that the respondent provides the balance owing as
opposed to simply confirming the balance stated. A sample taken from a list of
receivables is more effective than for payables, as in this way testing the balance for
overstatement is carried out directly. For payables, the auditor's key concern is that of
understatement and testing a sample from the payables listed will not test
understatement. A positive confirmation is more reliable than a negative confirmation
as in the first case, a response is always sought.
25 D A supplier statement would not include this invoice, as it was dated after the year end.
Vouching the payment would not help to determine whether the expense and
the payable were included correctly.
Testing internal controls would provide evidence over accruals in general, but would
not be relevant to this invoice specifically.
Only by recalculating the prorating of the invoice can the auditor be confident that the
correct amount has been included.
26 B, C, E
Reviewing post year-end invoices begins with the invoices and traces them back to
the accounting system. This is an attempt to find expenses which have been
omitted from the system.
Reviewing post year-end supplier payments is a test not often conducted – all it could
really tell the auditor is whether the entity has the cash to pay its suppliers. This
procedure is not to be confused with post year-end receipts from receivables, which is
an important test of debt recoverability.
Recalculating the amount accrued is primarily a test of cut-off because it focuses on the
split between the period before and after the year end. It does also, therefore, test
completeness, but this is not its primary aim.

27 A, D,
A key element of data analytics is the ability to process very large and complex data
into simple visual representations, which can help auditors to spot trends they might
otherwise have missed.
Data analytics is not about spending time tailoring the procedures to the client (as
was the case with the older computer–assisted audit techniques). A major
advantage of data analytics is that they are standardised.
Data analytics makes it possible not just to test large quantities of transactions very
quickly, but also to test whole populations of transactions and so, potentiality and in
the future, to revolutionise the whole basis of auditing!
28 B,C,F
Inquiring about controls over petty cash will not be strong evidence on its own as
employees could misrepresent the facts in their responses (especially if
attempting to conceal a fraud they may be involved in).
Recalculation by the auditor of amounts used by the client do provide strong evidence
as there is no influence from the client.
Re-performance of an internal control can be strong evidence as long as the auditor
has completed some or all of this re-performance – otherwise, it is less likely to be
considered strong evidence as the employee may have deliberately avoided certain
conditions that would have provided audit evidence of poor operation.
29 C Computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs) have been used by auditors to
extract samples of transactions for many years, but the advent of computers
that can handle such 'big data' now means that entire populations can be tested,
rather than just samples.
The remaining options are all recommended by the FRC (2017) as areas where
audit data analytics can be used to streamline the audit.
30 B,C,D
It is possible that a misstatement below the materiality level for the financial
statements as a whole may still be considered material if it remains uncorrected –
examples of the reasons given include the extent to which the misstatement affects
compliance with regulatory requirements or debt covenants, masks a change in
earnings or other trends or even increases management compensation and triggers
the payment of a bonus.
The remaining options (size, nature and circumstances) are all used by the auditor to
determine whether an uncorrected misstatement is material.

Chapter 12: Written
1 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as the level of materiality used during the audit is the
responsibility of the auditors.
2 C,D Auditors may only obtain written representations to support other audit evidence
(ISA 580 paragraph 13).
Where evidence is missing due to a fire, this is not a matter to obtain a written
representation on but is an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
3 A,D,F
Statement 2 is false as this is an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
Statement 3 is also false because if written representations are inconsistent with other
audit evidence, the auditor shall perform audit procedures to attempt to resolve the
matter. If the matter remains unresolved, the auditor shall reconsider the assessment of
management.
4 A,D,F
Specific written representations may include confirmation from management that
accounting policies selected are appropriate, but this is not compulsory.
Auditors may only obtain written representations to support other audit evidence
(ISA 580 paragraph 13).
5 A,C The other two options would not be valid circumstances in which to seek written
representations. If information normally expected to be available is unavailable, this
would indicate an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence. The fact
that an alternative audit procedure is time-consuming is not a reason to seek a written
representation – a written representation cannot act as a substitute for other evidence
which is expected to exist.
6 A,D The auditor should be able to obtain sufficient alternative evidence regarding the
existence of plant and equipment and reconciling items on the cash at bank
account.
7 B,C,F
It is usually only of senior management that auditors request written representations as
they are responsible for matters of judgement, cooperating with the auditors etc.
Written representations cannot be used as a substitute for other evidence that is
expected to be available.
8 A,C Acknowledgement that management has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation
of the financial statements and acknowledgement by management of its belief that
the aggregate of uncorrected misstatements are immaterial to the financial
statements are the two purposes of the written representation letter from the list
provided.
Where other evidence is available on a matter, the written representation letter does
not serve to provide evidence. Management's confirmation of the scope of the work to
be carried out is included in an engagement letter. SAMPLE EXAM
9 B ISA (UK) 300, Planning an Audit of Financial Statements is not referred to in a written
representation letter as it relates to how the auditor plans the audit, which is
beyond the scope of management and those charged with governance of an audited
entity.
Fraud, related parties and subsequent events are all areas where the auditor has a
responsibility to receive representations from management regarding specific aspects
of the audit.
Chapter 12: Written
154 Assurance: Answer Bank ICAEW 2020
Chapter 13: Substantive procedures – key financial
statement figures
1 A,B,C
The rights and obligations assertion means that the entity holds or controls the rights
to assets. Although vehicle registration documents show registered keeper, not owner,
the keeper is likely to have control of the asset. Both title deeds and purchase invoices
give evidence of ownership (which gives control). Sales invoices give evidence of no
longer having ownership of something and do not therefore support the rights and
obligations assertion.
2 D Cut-off is a financial statement assertion that affects classes of transactions, not
account balances.
3 B,C Post year-end sales invoices and orders. The controls over counting relate to
existence, not valuation. A post year-end sales price list gives evidence of
management intention in relation to inventory, but not evidence of the price that
customers are genuinely prepared to pay (in the way that invoices and orders do).
4 B The fact that a positive confirmation requires the customer to reply to confirm or deny
the balance (or to reply giving the balance) is the reason why this method is generally
preferred in preference to a negative confirmation. This is because a negative
confirmation only requires a reply if the balance is not agreed – thereby giving poorer
quality evidence as if there is no reply the auditor cannot be sure that the customer
has not just ignored the letter (or whether he has even received it). The answer is not
option A as negative confirmations are also carried out in the auditor's name. Option C
describes a negative confirmation and so is not correct. Option D does not apply to
any type of confirmation.
5 B,C Direct confirmations with customers and review of cash paid after date are most
appropriate as these provide independent confirmation of the year-end trade
receivables balance, whereas the receivables ledger and sales invoices are part of the
client's own records.
6 A,D The auditor should count an individual cash float which is material because he should
test all material items. He should also count immaterial cash floats where he suspects
that a fraud has been committed as although the individual floats are immaterial, the
overall impact of such a fraud could be material to the financial statements if
repeated over time.
7 A Completeness (ie, understatement): liabilities are generally tested for
understatement, as they are more likely to be understated than overstated.
Existence (overstatement): a higher-risk assertion for assets, as opposed to liabilities.
Presentation and classification are generally less risky assertions in this case.
8 B,C,D
Although a payables circularisation does provide third party evidence, it is unnecessary
on those grounds alone, because supplier statements provide third party evidence as
well. Therefore a payables circularisation will only be needed where there is some
problem, such as those described in options B, C and D.

9 B,C Option B is correct – that sales constitute a high volume of similar transactions and are
hence suitable to controls testing. Regarding option C – where controls are expected
to be strong, ISA 330 requires that the auditors test them so this is also correct.
Option A cannot be used as a reason for testing internal controls over sales – however
many transactions there are, if controls appear to be deficient, then those
transactions will need to be subjected to tests of detail. Option D is incorrect as
where there is a high risk of misstatement, substantive procedures should be used.
10 B,C,D
Applying analytical procedures to the operating margin which contains the effect of all
expenses, not just purchases, will not provide direct evidence as to the accuracy of
purchases.
11 C,E For the misstatement in cut-off, the sample should be extended to measure the full
extent of the cut-off misstatement.
Missing supplier statements (which should make the auditor suspicious) should be
referred to a senior colleague, so that this is investigated and alternative procedures
designed if necessary.
12 B,D Both disagreements are due to timing differences and hence do not constitute
misstatements in the accuracy of total trade receivables.
13 B,C The first statement represents a test of control over inventory counting procedures
and therefore the completeness or existence of the quantity of inventory. It is not
a test of valuation. Checking inventory items against sales invoices tests for net
realisable value (NRV) and hence valuation of the inventory.
14 A,D,E
The current account balance should be tested as it is over the materiality threshold.
The petty cash float is not material and hence need not be tested.
The special directors' cash account should be tested whatever its monetary value.
Strict materiality thresholds do not apply to directors' emoluments which need to be
disclosed whatever their amount. In any case the auditor needs to ascertain what this
balance represents.
15 B,C Only existence and rights and obligations are assertions about account balances.
Occurrence and cut-off are assertions in respect of classes of transactions and events
for the period.
16 C Testing for omissions is the same as testing for completeness (ie, saying that
nothing has been omitted from the register means the same as saying the register
is complete).
17 A,C Physical inspection and confirmation of calculations provide evidence of existence
and valuation respectively as opposed to rights and obligations.
The rights and obligations assertion means that the entity holds or controls the rights
to assets. Although registration documents show registered keeper, not owner, the
keeper is likely to have control of the asset. Purchase invoices give evidence of
ownership (which gives control).
18 C,E The cut-off assertion is affected by including inventory sold in inventory at the end of
the period (ie, cut-off is incorrect). Where damaged items have not been written
down to NRV, then the accuracy, valuation and allocation assertion is directly
affected (ie, inventory is incorrectly valued).

19 A,E The completeness assertion is affected by the omission of inventory items (ie,
inventory is not complete).
The accuracy, valuation and allocation assertion is affected by miscalculations of cost
and the not writing down of damaged items (ie, inventory is incorrectly valued).
20 B,D,E
The inventory count should involve personnel who are independent of the
warehouse staff. Count sheets should be completed in pen so that there is a
permanent record. By having two teams of counters involved in the inventory
count, there is a check within the inventory counting process that the count is
being carried out correctly.
21 A,D,E
All inventory lines must be counted at least once per year, not once per month.
22 A,C,D
An increase in selling price increases net realisable value. Trade discounts from
suppliers reduce cost.
23 A,C Accuracy, valuation and allocation is not supported as we have no evidence that these
receivables intend to pay. Completeness is not supported as it is the list of receivables
provided by the client that is subject to direct confirmation (ie, the test is for
existence and ownership (= rights and obligations) from that list). Occurrence is a
financial statement assertion that affects classes of transactions and not account
balances.
24 B Whereas the procedures described in A and D are helpful with respect to the
valuation assertion, subsequent receipt of cash confirms absolutely that the
balance was recoverable at the year end. Checking that customers on the
customer list have receivables ledger accounts is a test of completeness, not
valuation.
25 A,C,F
Test of control – that the instructions are likely to lead to an accurate
count Test of control – that despatch procedures are being properly
followed
Substantive procedure – remembering that substantive procedures include
analytical procedures, which is what this describes SAMPLE EXAM
26 B,F Recalculation consists of checking the mathematical accuracy of documents or records,
therefore casting the list of year-end receivables is a recalculation procedure.
Reperformance is the auditor's independent execution of procedures or controls
which were originally performed as part of the entity's internal control, therefore
using CAATs to check the ageing of the year-end list of aged receivables is a
reperformance of that ageing analysis, which is itself a control over the
recoverability of receivables.
SAMPLE EXAM
27 B,C,E
False – a positive confirmation may take two forms: requesting a response indicating
whether they agree or disagree with the information provided, or requesting the
recipient to state the amount owed by/to them.
True – receivables are tested for overstatement therefore it is acceptable to select the
sample from the client's list of balances. The direct confirmation would be likely to
elicit a response (even if negative confirmation is used) if the balance is indeed

overstated. However, payables are tested for understatement and the auditor is looking
for balances which are not on the client's list, but should be. Therefore this sample
should be drawn from a list of all possible payables, not from the client's list, which
may already be understated.

True – with a positive confirmation, a response is expected whether there is
agreement or disagreement. With a negative confirmation, there is an element of
uncertainty as to the reasons for non-response. Hence the former is ordinarily more
reliable than the latter. SAMPLE EXAM
28 C Completeness – a sequence check will highlight missing documents which may
indicate unrecorded transactions – ie, test the completeness of sales. SAMPLE
EXAM
29 C Obtaining direct confirmation of the bank balance from the client's bank will confirm
the existence of the cash at bank with a third party (ie, the bank).
SAMPLE EXAM (amended)
30 B,D Not misstatement – this disagreement stems from a timing difference and, as
such, does not indicate a misstatement in the receivables balance.
Not misstatement – this disagreement stems from a misposting which does not
affect the total receivables balance in the financial statements. SAMPLE EXAM
31 A,F Overstatement – the amount is an asset so we test primarily for overstatement. The
amount owed is considered irrespective of the materiality threshold due to the nature
of the item (director loan).
Not test – the amount is below the materiality threshold. The likelihood of material
fraud or misstatement within the balance is very low. SAMPLE EXAM
32 C Actual inventory levels at branches are higher than book inventory – ie, there must
be unrecorded goods inwards. Only unrecorded branch requisitions (goods coming
in from head office) would explain this. All the others would lean to book inventory
higher than actual inventory. SAMPLE EXAM
33 A,F, H
No misstatements are found; therefore, the appropriate action would be to draw a
conclusion.
An arithmetic misstatement of £5,000 found would be above the materiality threshold
and so the auditor should extend his sample.
A misstatement of £10 found, sanctioned by the finance director (FD) should lead to
the auditor to refer the matter to a senior colleague due to the FD's sanctioning.
SAMPLE EXAM
34 C To test for existence the reporting accountant should work from the financial
statements to the physical item. However, the financial statements themselves do not
contain an analysis of the individual items that make up non-current assets so the
reporting accountant will need to select his sample from the non-current asset register
(having checked that this record agrees to the financial statements). SAMPLE EXAM
35 A,D Purchase invoices for assets purchased within the year may contain evidence in
relation to the risk of omission of assets owned by the company.
Physical inspection of the assets themselves by the auditor would not generate
evidence in relation to the risk of the company not actually owning the assets. The
mere existence of the physical assets does not tell us that the company has the rights
and obligations that relate to them.
Valuations carried out by third party valuers would not generate evidence in relation to
the risk of the assets being incorrectly presented in the financial statements. Although
the assets may be valued correctly, this does not necessarily mean that they have been
presented in line with IFRSs.

Sales invoices for assets sold within the year may contain evidence in relation to
the risk of the company not actually owning the assets. This helps address the risk
that the assets do not exist.
36 B,D,E
Completeness of debts receivable is not usually considered a major risk (ie,
understatement of assets) – the opposite is usually the case ie, existence is a major
risk.
Although existence of long-term liabilities is indeed a risk, it is not the principal risk.
Incorrect valuation of inventory – particularly obsolete or damaged inventory – is a
major risk of misstatement.
37 A,D A car wash or a pawn shop is likely to have a large number of cash transactions, which
makes it a suitable front business for a money laundering operation.

Chapter 14: Codes of professional ethics
1 A,B,C
There is no legal requirement for ethical codes.
2 B,C ICAEW qualified auditors acting in the UK are subject to the ICAEW Code and the
FRC's Ethical Standard. The principles of the IESBA Code are incorporated within
the ICAEW code, but ICAEW members are not bound by it directly.
3 A,B,D
Independence and Courtesy (options C and E) are not fundamental principles of
the IESBA Code.
4 B,C,E
The first statement is false as following prescriptive rules of ethical guidance may
become a mechanical process without due consideration given to the ethical
principles of each case. The other statements are true.
5 A,B,D
The IAASB issues ISAs, but not ethical guidance.
6 B Although there are some specific 'rules', the majority of ethical guidance is in the form
of principles, the spirit of which should be followed by the assurance provider.
7 C,E,I,L
Both the IESBA Code of Ethics and the FRC's Ethical Standard identify the following five
threats: self-interest, self-review, advocacy, familiarity and intimidation. The
FRC's Ethical Standard also identifies the management threat in addition; the
IESBA Code of Ethics does not specify a 'management threat' as such, but notes
that the assumption of 'management responsibilities' would create other
threats.
8 A,B,D
Tradition (option C) is not a valid reason why objectivity and independence matter.
9 B,D,F
A principles-based code does not contain specific rules for auditor
compliance. A rules-based code does not require auditor adherence to a set
of principles.
ICAEW uses a principles-based approach. SAMPLE EXAM
10 B,D,E
Principles-based guidance may contain rules for prohibitions, although its
substantial content would be based on general principles.
It is a major strength of principles-based guidance that its general principles may
be applied to unique situations, eg, situations for which a specific rule may not
have been created under a rules-based approach.
Principles-based guidance may permit multiple correct responses in a given
situation. Advocates of rules-based approaches see this as one of its principal
defects.

11 B,C,F
Auditing financial statements prepared by the firm represents a self-review threat – the
firm would be auditing ('reviewing') material that it had itself produced, and may be
inclined to trust it more than if it had been produced by an entity that was independent
of it.
An audit team member having family at the client represents a familiarity threat – the
audit team would be overly familiar with the client. This is related to a self-review
threat in the sense that both threats involve proximity to the information being
audited; where the familiarity threat differs is that the information is prepared by
someone else but with whom the auditor has a close relationship.
Making a loan to an audit client represents a self-interest threat because the auditor
may have an incentive not to do anything that could imperil the client's financial
position (such as modifying the audit opinion) lest this prejudice their ability to repay
the loan.

Chapter 15: Integrity, objectivity and independence
1 A,B,C
Making disclosures to ICAEW (option D) is no substitute to the other options A,B,C.
2 A,B,D
Option C is not correct here as a parent of a member of an audit team may own a
material financial interest in an audit client – provided they are not a dependant,
which would not normally be assumed to be the case.
3 A,C,D
Option B does not apply as given the staff member does not yet work for the audit
client, there is no risk of self-review at this stage.
4 B Cash It Ltd is a threat as it is implied that an audit team member took advantage
of the loan rate mentioned in the audit tendering process.
Nationally plc is not a threat as it is acceptable for staff to have mortgages on
commercial terms with an audit client who is a mortgage provider, especially if it is the
leading building society.
5 A For non-listed companies, there is a presumption of dependence when annual
fee income from all services to the client will regularly exceed 15% of gross
practice income.
6 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as it is assistance that is provided as opposed to
management or operational decisions being taken.
7 A,B,C
There is no significant threat to the independence of the audit engagement of
Scrabble plc, as the partner had previously rotated off the client six years ago
and is allowed to return to the same position after five years.
8 B,C Doing nothing is not an option available to the ethics partner. It is best to seek to
resolve this matter internally by discussing it with the management board of partners
while at the same time, soliciting advice from ICAEW to ensure that an acceptable
resolution is reached. Seeking the opinion of another ethics partner would probably
not be deemed appropriate as the specifics of the case are probably confidential and
ICAEW would be the authority in this area as to the appropriate course of action to be
taken.
9 A,D Before seeking legal advice or even resigning (options B and C), Julia should initially
try to resolve this issue internally by reporting concerns to the audit committee
(which will exist in a listed company) and by obtaining advice from the human
resources department at KiwiCorp plc (as to the official internal mechanisms that she
can use to make her complaint).
10 A,D Loesdon Ltd: Self-interest and intimidation threats arise, therefore select self-
interest (intimidation is not available as an option). Litten Ltd: Self-interest and
intimidation threats arise, therefore select self-interest (intimidation is not
available as an option). Management and self-review threats would only arise if the
advisory work was accepted.

11 B,E Othello Ltd: Accept with safeguards (as there are self-interest and self-review threats.
There may also be a management threat with regards to the advice provided, so care
must be taken not to take management decisions). Desdemona Ltd: Accept with
safeguards (despite the time lag, the finance director may have too good a knowledge
of the firm's procedures).
12 B,F Fussy Ltd: a familiarity threat is possibly present as the prior year audit team may
have developed personal relationships with client staff which may threaten their
objectivity. Pernickety Ltd: by expressing his dissatisfaction, the finance director is
posing an intimidation threat – effectively seeking a different audit opinion or
threatening the auditors with replacement.
13 B,D Where there is a high proportion of fee income derived from a particular client (the 5%
and 10% rules), if the amount is not prohibitive (the 10% and 15% rules), then
safeguards should be put in place. One safeguard would be to discuss the issues with
the audit committee, if there is one (which there would be for a major listed
company).
Having separate personnel assigned where there are competing clients is the most
appropriate safeguard to protect independence.
14 A,C,D
Both B and E present a self-review threat as opposed to a self-interest threat.
15 B,D,E
A firm should not accept a fee calculated on a contingency basis. Where total fees
exceed 15% (10% for a listed entity) of the annual fee income of the firm there is a
presumption of dependence and the firm should resign. Where total fees exceed
10% (5% for a listed entity) safeguards should be applied as necessary.
16 C Sam Brown has been a director of Hastle Ltd within the last two years and therefore
cannot be used on the audit. James Andersen had the role of office junior and as such
was not in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter
of the audit; therefore, he can be used on the audit of Hastle Ltd, even though it is
only six months since he resigned. Sally Jones' position, while one where she would
have been able to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the
audit, falls outside the two-year period, therefore she could be used on the audit of
Morgan Ltd.
17 B Resolving ethical conflicts should be kept in-house where possible.
18 A,D,E
If a partner, a person in a position to influence the outcome of that engagement (eg,
the audit manager), or an immediate family member of either of these (eg, spouse) has
a financial interest in a company the firm cannot accept appointment unless the
interest is disposed of. As long as Sam Larson is excluded from the audit of Burton Ltd,
the firm can accept the appointment.
19 A,F By assigning separate personnel to each assignment the confidentiality of each client
and hence the auditor's independence will be protected.
An internal audit role cannot be taken on per FRC's Ethical Standard where the
audit firm would need to rely on their own work (self-review threat) or where the
audit firm would take on part of the role of management (Panama LLP would be
responsible for implementing their own recommendations – a management threat).
Hence there are no safeguards possible. SAMPLE EXAM
20 C Jane should initially seek advice from ICAEW before deciding on her next steps.
The general approach to resolving conflicts should be firstly to resolve within the
employer if possible, then seek advice from ICAEW, then take legal advice, then
resign (perhaps on legal advice, but, in any case, as a last resort).

21 B,D,E
The car loan has been given at a special rate and is likely to be material to the
audit manager. All other loans are in the normal course of business on commercial
terms.
22 B,C Advocacy threat as the auditor is taking the part of the client in underwriting the
client's shares in a flotation.
Self-review threat as the audit firm will be preparing the financial statements and
will then review them (though the use of separate teams would reduce this threat).
23 C Management threat – selection of systems should be carried out by management. If
the auditor undertakes this role he becomes too closely aligned with management
and this threatens his independence.
Self-review threat – the audit firm will audit the system it has implemented.
There are no indications of a familiarity threat, as no indication is given of the length
of the relationship nor of any family or close personal relationships between audit firm
and client. SAMPLE EXAM
24 C New Generation Insurance is a threat as a personal guarantee appears to have been
given by the auditor in favour of the company, in return for the audit should the
buy out take place. Hence there is a dependency that threatens the independence
of the assurance provider.
NatEast plc is not a threat as the loan to Hammers LLP is modest and in the
normal course of business for a major high street bank.
25 A,C,F
Valuations are only prohibited for non-listed companies where the item to be valued is
material to the financial statements and involves a significant degree of subjectivity
(for listed companies, any material valuation is prohibited). However, safeguards must
be implemented to minimise self-review (eg, the valuation should be carried out by a
different team). Helping a non-listed company with accounts preparation is acceptable
with safeguards to ensure that the role of management is not assumed by the audit
firm. No safeguards are possible with the design and implementation of the IT system
as the very same system is relied upon for the purposes of the external audit.
26 C Accept Beta Ltd as 12% is below the 15% threshold for private companies. Refuse
Alpha plc as 11% is above the 10% threshold for listed companies. SAMPLE EXAM
27 A,E Do not accept Titania plc as it is not acceptable to prepare and audit the financial
statements of a listed company.
The audit of Puck Ltd can be accepted with safeguards – such as not letting the FD's
brother take any part in the audit. SAMPLE EXAM
28 A,F At Oberon LLP, the junior can go ahead and perform the work, given the low risk
nature of the receivables balance, and the fact that the junior has covered this in
his training. The junior is also to join an audit team, where resources for guidance,
supervision and review will also be available.
With regards to Lear LLP, the junior should contact the ICAEW telephone helpline.
Commencing the audit of a client unsupervised, may lead to exposure of both the
junior and the firm to risks. In a larger firm the junior could refer to his training
partner, but since this is a sole practitioner firm the practitioner himself must also
be the training partner. SAMPLE EXAM
29 B,D David has no other option in this case but to resign his post and take legal advice.
Given that these instructions have come from the board of directors, it would seem
fruitless to pursue this issue internally. SAMPLE EXAM

30 B,D The FD having a very strong personality may lead to an intimidation threat.
The audit and client team remaining unchanged for many years is likely to lead to a
familiarity threat. SAMPLE EXAM
31 C An intimidation threat arises because of Mr Black's attitude. There is an advocacy
threat if the firm acts in the company's defence. A self-interest threat arises because
the firm will be afraid of losing the audit fee.
32 B,D Since the assets of Luxemburg Ltd are immaterial, it is possible to accept both
engagements subject to safeguards (if Luxemburg Ltd had been a public interest entity
then the valuation service should have been declined).
Auditors are prohibited from providing bookkeeping services to listed clients, so the
work for Cliff plc may not be accepted.
33 B,D In relation to Cioran Ltd, this point should be referred to the training partner. It
appears that the audit trainee in question does not have sufficient knowledge or
experience to perform the work being asked of them.
In relation to Schopenhauer Ltd, you can go ahead and perform the work, given
the low risk nature of the non-current assets balance, and the fact that you have
covered this in your training. You are also to join an audit team, where resources
for guidance, supervision and review will also be available.

Chapter 16: Confidentiality
1 A,C Options B and D are not the principal reasons for the importance of confidentiality.
2 A,B,D
Option C does not apply as accountants may discuss client matters with colleagues in
non-public places.
3 A,C,D
Option B is not correct as it is not acceptable to disclose confidential information in a
bid to secure further audit evidence.
4 B,C,D
Where a fraud has been identified, this is usually reported to the client unless the
fraud has been carried out by senior management/directors, in which case, great care
should be taken in the steps taken.
5 C,D In the first case, report to the firm's money laundering nominated officer as the
case is suspicious. In the second case, make no external report as there is no
public or legal duty to disclose an internal control deficiency.
6 A,C,F
In the first case the assurance provider may make disclosure. In case 2, he may make
disclosure if the client does not. In the final case, the auditor has a duty to make
disclosure as this constitutes money laundering.
7 D The money laundering nominated officer will then decide on the appropriate
course of action.
8 B,C,F
If the audit firm believes that the conflict of interest can be managed through
safeguards the firm can continue to act for both parties (option B). The clients involved,
however, should be informed of the situation (option F).
9 A,C Encouraging others to buy shares in a company on the basis of information obtained
during the course of the audit is known as insider dealing and is a criminal offence.
Where audit evidence obtained in the audit of one client affects the audit of another
client, procedures must be performed so that the same evidence is obtained from
another source.
10 B In order to avoid giving an incorrect auditor's report to another client is the only option
where permission must first be granted (otherwise the assurance provider will be
breaking his duty of confidentiality to that client). For the other options, client
permission is not required (and indeed to seek this could be regarded as 'tipping off'
the client) but disclosure is necessary by law or the auditor is protected by the court
(eg, in a negligence claim). SAMPLE EXAM
11 D Report the matter to a designated officer within your firm without the client's
permission. Discussing or mentioning the matter with the client would only serve to tip
him off about the transactions identified. SAMPLE EXAM
12 C There is no blanket prohibition on disclosure, nor is there any general right of the
police or taxation authorities to demand information. Auditors have an implied
contractual duty of confidentiality. There is no statutory duty of confidentiality.

13 A,D Separate audit teams should be used including audit partners and independent
review partners.
Confidentiality agreements should be signed by Leaf LLP's staff, not by the client.
14 B,C,F
The GDPR applies to any data held on individuals, not companies. It would, however,
apply to data held on an audit client’s staff.
Losing client staff personal information is a clear breach of the GDPR and
should be reported to the Information Commissioner’s Office (ICO).
If an audit client breaches the GDPR then it is the client’s responsibility to report the
breach to the ICO. The auditor owes the client a duty of confidentiality regarding
breaches of laws and regulations (such as this), but should consider disclosure to the
ICO if this is in the public interest.
ICAEW Chapter 16: 1

Sample of an exam: answers
1 D Employment by a firm controlled by qualified persons. Membership of a recognised
supervisory body cannot be obtained until exams have been passed, but provided
that the person is employed by a qualifying person/firm, work can be carried out
on audits.
2 B,D,E
Criteria used will depend on the type of engagement conducted. Suitable
criteria should be available for other engagements eg, health and safety can
be measured against health and safety legislation.
3 A,D Reasonable assurance engagements include the statutory audit. The auditor's
report is phrased using a positive form of words but does not give absolute
assurance. Limited assurance indicates that nothing has come to light which would
cast doubt on the subject matter being reviewed, and is expressed using a
negative form of words.
4 B,C,E
Prudent accounting policies would constitute a low risk indicator as directors would
appear not to be aggressive in interpreting accounting policies in order to enhance the
performance portrayed by the financial statements.
A company carrying out unusual transactions would be high risk, as each
transaction would require a separate understanding leading to a higher risk of
error.
Having no finance director is a high risk indicator – the staff in the function may
not be supervised and they may not have the skills or the knowledge to apply
accounting standards and address the key risks in the systems of the company.
5 A,D This is not an indication that there is anything that would prevent Ferenczi LLP
from acting as auditor, so the appointment may be accepted.
Being an undischarged bankrupt would prevent her from being a company director,
so the appointment should be declined.
6 A,D,E
Warrants further testing – both the balance in the Cost of Sales account and the annual
decrease of 7% are significant and therefore further work is required to explain the
movement in the gross margin.
No further testing – the balance of repairs and renewals and the year on year decrease
of 4% is not significant (immaterial).
Warrants further testing – although an increase of 2% is not significant, the
balance in the advertising account is material and so further testing to analytical
procedures is warranted.
7 C Analytical procedures help identify material monetary errors in the financial
statements (which could be due to changes in account balances or key ratios as a
result of mispostings, misclassification errors or under/overstatements). The other
techniques are all concerned with systems assessment or testing of controls.
8 A,C,E
Understanding of the entity's accounting policies is included in the audit
strategy document.
The assessment of the principal risks would be included in the audit strategy
document.

The planned timetable would be included in the audit strategy document.

9 B,C As per Companies Act 2006, 'That adequate accounting records have been kept'
and 'Directors' remuneration has been disclosed correctly' are reported on by
exception.
10 B, E By selecting items from sales orders and tracing them back to the nominal ledger,
the auditor is beginning outside of the accounting system (with the sales orders),
and then testing whether these orders have been reflected in the accounts. The
aim is therefore to test whether all of the sales orders have been included in the
accounts (it will be discovered in the course of testing whether all of the orders
resulted in sales). This is therefore a test of whether the accounts are complete.
Reviewing the non-current assets disclosure note is not testing for existence or
classification, because no test is being performed here of the underlying assets.
From the information given in the question, this could either be a test of
completeness (completeness of disclosures in line with IFRS), or a test of
presentation (that disclosures are relevant and understandable in line with IFRS).
Only completeness is offered as an option here.
11 A,D For the preparation of reconciliations where calculations are involved, the inherent
limitation is that these reconciliations are susceptible to human error. Even where
duties are segregated, this control can be overridden by the collusion of the parties
involved.
12 A,B Options C and D are specific control activities (relating to authorisation).
13 A,C,F
A lack of regular reconciliations and management overriding internal controls lead to
an increase in control risk (higher than normal). The safeguarding of the physical
security of the inventories is a strength which renders control risk lower than normal.
14 A,B,C
Cyber security is all about protecting data, systems and networks – firewalls and
password protocols address this at source, while monitoring the website helps to
identify any instances of breaches from other means.
Appraising the success or otherwise of an online social media presence does operate
in the same cyber context, but is more commercial than security driven.
15 A,B,D
Option C, investigation of differences between till records and cash collected, is not a
preventative control activity but a detective activity ie, it happens after the fact.
16 B,D If invoices are matched to orders but not warehouse records, invoices may be raised in
error. If receivables statements are not sent to customers, customers may not pay
promptly.
17 A,D,E
Amendment of credit terms should be authorised by senior staff – not by an
accounts clerk.
18 C,D Where goods received records are not matched to purchase invoices, goods may
have been received and not invoiced; or, where invoices not matched to goods
received records, invoices could be posted without having received goods, leading
to a misstatement of liabilities. Reconciling payables ledger balances with supplier
statements helps to identify discrepancies and hence misstated liabilities.
Options A and B are control deficiencies that do not result directly in the misstatement
of liabilities.

19 B,D,E
The responsibilities for preparing and signing cheques should be separated.
The cashier should not have access to the company's securities and title deeds.
Cash advances are not in themselves problematic, provided that proper controls exist
in relation to them (eg, over their authorisation).
20 B,C The key problem here is a lack of segregation of duties: the production manager
may be tempted to introduce non-existent employees into the system, leading to
the misappropriation of company funds by way of wages payments for non-
existent employees.
Controls to curb this would therefore seek to verify that the employees being paid do
in fact exist and have done work for the company. Authorisation by a director would
not help because the director would not know whether or not the employees were
legitimate. Reconciliation of payroll to cash records would not control the amounts
included on the payroll in the first place.
21 B,D,F
This is an authorisation control, rather than segregation of duties specifically.
This helps ensure that the correct amounts are paid to HMRC, rather than employees.
Performing this reconciliation would flag up changes from the previous month's
payroll, which would then need to be verified.
22 B,D External auditors are responsible for carrying out the statutory audit. Internal auditors
are responsible for the monitoring of internal controls. External auditors, as part of
their external audit, will not monitor internal controls but must at least ascertain the
controls in place and document them. They may then choose to test them for purposes
of reliance.
23 A,B,C
Cyber security is all about protecting data, systems and networks – firewalls and
password protocols address this at source, while monitoring the website helps to
identify any instances of breaches from other means.
Appraising the success or otherwise of an online social media presence does operate
in the same cyber context, but is more commercial than security driven.
24 A,C Option B is incorrect as ICAEW requires all firms should keep all audit working
papers for at least six years from the end of the accounting period to which they
relate, so more than the current and previous year will be kept.
Option D is incorrect as working papers belong to the assurance provider so this
decision does not belong to the client.
25 A,D,E
The second statement is not valid as documenting fieldwork is a professional and not a
legal requirement. The other two statements are valid.
26 B,D,E
The permanent audit file contains documents of ongoing relevance, whereas the
current audit file contains documents and working papers that relate directly to the
audit of the current year end.
27 A In contrast to automated working papers, electronic working papers do not involve any
automatic calculations (although these can be made use of if desired).

28 A,C While analytical procedures must be used at the risk assessment and overall review
stages, they need not be used as substantive procedures as tests of details and other
procedures may be more appropriate. Although it may be advisable for analytical
procedures to be carried out by senior level assurance staff, this is not a requirement
of ISA 520.
29 B,D Testing 100% of items in a population and testing all items with a certain characteristic
is not sampling, as in the former case the whole population is tested, and in the latter
case the 'sample' is not representative of the whole population.
30 A,E A misposting between customer accounts and a timing difference between customer
records and client records are errors which would not generally be extrapolated
against the total value of the population.
31 A,C,F
For tests of details:
 when the required confidence level increases the sample size increases (ie,
the auditor needs to do more work to be more confident).
 when the assessed risk of material misstatement for a balance is increased,
the sample size increases (ie, more work is needed for higher risk balances).
 stratifying the population decreases the sample size (as testing is more efficient).
32 B,C,F
The auditor's main concern in testing assets is that they might be overstated, whereas
he or she will be concerned that liabilities might be understated. Communicating with
the company's legal advisers about outstanding legal claims is testing for
understatement in liabilities. Reviewing the aged inventory analysis is testing for
overstatement in the valuation of inventories, as the existence of old/obsolete
inventory may require a write-down to net realisable value. Performing the calculation
on the warranty provision and then comparing that figure with the balance stated, is
testing a liability and therefore testing for understatement.
33 B,C,E
Written representation letters are required on an annual basis so that representations
are valid for each specific audit. They should be dated before (although not much
before) the auditor's report as they form part of the audit evidence on which the
auditor is relying to reach his opinion. The written representation letter must include a
list of all uncorrected misstatements as per ISA 450. It shall also include a statement
that the directors believe the total of uncorrected misstatements to be immaterial to
the financial statements as a whole.
34 A,B,C
Majority shareholders may have some executive responsibility, but this is expected
to be considered in the same category as an owner-manager. The remaining options
are all included in the category of management or those charged with governance.
Shareholders are usually excluded from this as they have no executive responsibility.
35 A,B,C
Inventory has not been disclosed properly in the financial statements constitutes the
lowest risk, as the disclosure requirements in relation to inventory are not onerous. In
contrast, inventory is often easy to conceal or omit from records or count wrongly, and,
as it usually consists of a large number of items, valuation can be tricky also.

36 C Inspection of the bank letter gives the most reliable evidence as this is received by
the auditor directly from the bank. Bank statements have been sent via the client, so
there is scope for them to have been tampered with in some way. Bank reconciliations
and the cash at bank nominal ledger account are client-generated documents and are,
therefore, less reliable.
37 C,D Extending the sample of assets inspected will test if the misstatement found to date is
an anomaly or represents a larger misstatement.
Vouching the revalued building to a valuer's report is sufficient to enable a
conclusion to be drawn.
38 A,C,F
Analytical procedures are useful for detecting incomplete figures (ie, the auditor
can calculate what figure he expects and then compare the actual to it).
Tracing from goods received records to the payables ledger and financial
statements proves the completeness of purchases/payables (ie, that all goods
received have been recorded as purchase/payables).
Tracing a sample of entries on the payroll to human resources records does not test
completeness as the direction of testing is from the payroll balance to the source
documentation.
39 A,C,F,H
The negative method of direct confirmation of receivables (ie, only receiving responses
by exception) could be used when a substantial amount of misstatements is not
expected and there is no need to believe that respondents will disregard these
requests. In other circumstances the positive method should be used.
40 B,C If the auditor cannot rely on the internal controls in place, because they are deficient,
he will need to rely completely on substantive procedures. Client AX, a newly formed
company without a financial controller, will be unlikely to have effective internal
controls; therefore, the auditor will need to rely completely on substantive
procedures. Client BF is an established company with apparent controls in place so the
auditor should be able to test and rely on those controls.
41 C As per the ICAEW Code of Ethics, the Code applies to its members, employees
of member firms and ICAEW students.
42 B,D,E
The aim is not to completely eliminate all threats, but to either reduce them to
an acceptable level or to eliminate them.
The degree of required independence is higher for an audit engagement.
If safeguards do not allow a threat to be sufficiently mitigated, then the auditor should
decline the engagement (or the interest/activity giving rise to the threat).
43 A,C,E
All three cases are examples of the stated threats to auditor independence.
44 B,D Per FRC's Ethical Standard, familiarity and management are the main threats to
independence created by the provision of recruitment services. A familiarity threat
arises from a close long-standing relationship between the assurance provider and the
client (which may start at the point of recruitment). A management threat arises
because the assurance provider is acting in a management role. Option A, self-review,
is not correct as the assurance provider will not subsequently review the work from
the recruitment process. Option C, advocacy, is also incorrect as the assurance
provider is not representing the interests of the client in a bid to secure or protect a
particular interest.

45 B,E Snowman Ltd: Assuming that this is not a listed company, then provided
certain safeguards are applied (such as different teams), the auditor can
provide both accounting and auditing services.
Snowball Ltd: Where a client's competitor is also prospectively to be audited by the
same auditor, the auditor may accept the appointment with safeguards (such as
separate personnel).
46 B,D For non-listed companies, assurance providers can provide accounts
preparation assistance provided that adequate safeguards are in place (eg, the
use of separate teams). Tax advice may be provided but the fee charged
cannot be calculated on a contingency basis.
47 A,C,F
Inheriting shares in an audit client immediately creates a financial interest on the part
of the auditor.
The audit client providing two free golf lessons to audit staff may create a self-
interest threat, as audit staff may be eager to please their client to gain such
benefits, than be truly objective in carrying out their audit.
The external auditor providing internal audit services to a client creates a self-
review threat, as the external auditor is then likely to review his own work.
48 B,C,F
Tax planning may only be provided where the advice is clearly supported by a tax
authority or other precedent, and where eg, the efficacy of the advice does not depend
on a particular accounting treatment or presentation in the financial statements.
Provided that the entity is not listed (as here), it is possible to provide recruitment
advice as long as the auditor does not take on a management role. Drawing up a
shortlist of candidates is acceptable if the client has drawn up the criteria by which
they are to be selected, and makes the final decision in respect of who to hire.
Given that the client is already bringing legal proceedings, this is actual litigation
rather than merely the threat of it. This creates an intimidation threat, whereby
Habermas LLP may be pressurised into inappropriately issuing an unmodified auditor's
report. In this case, the proceedings are for negligence against Habermas LLP, so this is
a serious issue; the threat is therefore serious enough that Habermas LLP should resign
from the audit.
49 D Terrorist activities should be reported to the police. Tax evasion should be
reported to the National Crime Agency (NCA). The theft involves money laundering
and should be reported to the money laundering nominated officer, who would
report it onto the NCA.
Where a licence is required but is not applied for, disclosure is not required unless
there is a legal requirement to do so. Since this does not appear to be the case here,
the client's permission is required.
50 B,D The reception area is likely to be open to the public, so to discuss a client's affairs
there would be to breach the duty of confidentiality.
Where an auditor discovers non-compliance with laws and regulations, they must
first inform the client's management (or the directors) of the breach and ask them
to report it. The auditor would only report the breach to the authorities if the
client refuses to do so, and if there is either a legal obligation to report it, or the
auditor considers it to be in the public interest to do so.

174 Assurance: Answer Bank ICAEW 2020
Mock Exam guidance
notes
176 Assurance ICAEW 2020
Suggested structure for Mock Exams in 2020
Exam standard
The Mock Exam should be set at the same level of difficulty as that represented by the
2020 sample exam.
Exam format
The Mock Exam should consist of 50 questions worth two marks each.
Style of exam questions
1 Each question should conform to the style used in the sample exam ie:
 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) (1 from 4);
 Multi-part Multiple Choice MPMC (eg, 2 or 3  true or false or other choice); or
 Multiple Response Question (MRQ) (more than 1 from 4 or more).
Note that there are no partial marks awarded. All parts of a question must be answered correctly
to attain the marks.
Exam coverage and balance
A Mock Exam should reflect the weightings in the syllabus specification grid as follows:
Syllabus Area Weighting Number of questions

%
1 The concept, process 20 10 10

and need for assurance
oCpie
2 Internal controls 25 12 13
3 Gathering evidence on 35 18 17
rt tenam
an assurance
engagement
4 Professional ethics 20 10 10
a Vi
Total 100 50 50
ICAEW Mock Exam guidance 1

The following matrix contains two sets of questions, selected from within this Question
Bank. Each one contains an appropriate balance of questions which form a 'sample exam'
for you to attempt. Note that the question topics listed here are only examples of the
nature of questions which may be included -- the actual exam questions may be on
different topics.
Question Sample exam 1 Sample exam 2
1 Ch1; Q7 Ch1; Q2
2 Ch1; Q3 Ch1; Q5
3 Ch1; Q4 Ch1; Q6
4 Ch2; Q1 Ch2; Q7
5 Ch2; Q6 Ch2; Q3
6 Ch2; Q2 Ch3; Q1
7 Ch3; Q13 Ch3; Q11
8
rnin
Ch3; Q23
a
Ch3; Q12
Le
9 Ch4; Q1 Ch4; Q2
in
10 Ch4; Q11 Ch4; Q12
11 Ch5; Q1 Ch5; Q8
12 Ch5; Q8 Ch5; Q17
13 Ch5; Q9 Ch5; Q25
14 Ch5; Q31 Ch5; Q34
15
o
Cpies Ch6; Q1 Ch6; Q2
ner
16 Ch6; Q4 Ch6; Q5
at r Vietna
17 Ch6; Q7 Ch6; Q8
18
19
20
P Ch7; Q5
Ch7; Q13
Ch8; Q4
Ch7; Q6
Ch7; Q14
Ch8; Q6
21 Ch8; Q14 Ch8; Q11
22 Ch9; Q2 Ch9; Q5
CAE Referen
23 Ch9; Q4 Ch9; Q12
24 Ch10; Q1 Ch10; Q3
25 Ch10; Q2 Ch10; Q6
1 Assuran ICAEW
Question Sample exam 1 Sample exam 2
26 Ch10; Q4 Ch10; Q7
27 Ch10; Q10 Ch10; Q12
28 Ch11; Q1 Ch11; Q2
29 Ch11; Q3 Ch11; Q5
30 Ch11; Q6 Ch11; Q7
31 Ch11; Q8 Ch11; Q9
32 Ch11; Q13 Ch11; Q16
33 Ch12; Q3 Ch12; Q5
34 Ch12; Q7 Ch12; Q9
35 Ch13; Q1 Ch13; Q2
rnin
36 Ch13; Q3 Ch13; Q4
a
37 Ch13; Q9 Ch13; Q10
Le
38 Ch13; Q11 Ch13; Q12
39
40
41
in
Ch13; Q25
Ch13; Q37
Ch14; Q6
Ch13; Q13
Ch13; Q21
Ch14; Q7
42 Ch14; Q10 Ch14; Q11
pies
43 Ch15; Q4 Ch15; Q5
o
C
44 Ch15; Q8 Ch15; Q9
ner
45 Ch15; Q10 Ch15; Q13
at r Vietna
P
46 Ch15; Q12 Ch15; Q18
47 Ch15; Q16 Ch15; Q32
48 Ch15; Q31 Ch15; Q33
49 Ch16; Q5 Ch16; Q6
50 Ch16; Q9 Ch16; Q12
CAE Referen
ICAEW 2020 Mock Exam guidance notes 179

180 Assurance ICAEW 2020
ICAEW 2020 Notes
Notes ICAEW 2020
ICAEW 2020 Notes
Notes ICAEW 2020
ICAEW 2020 Notes
Notes ICAEW 2020
ICAEW 2020 Notes
Notes ICAEW 2020

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1 Concept of and need for assurance 3 127

2 Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 8 130

3 Process of assurance: planning the assignment 11 132

4 Process of assurance: evidence and reporting 20 135

5 Introduction to internal control 25 137

6 Revenue system 36 141

9 Internal audit 51 147

11 Evidence and sampling 59 150

12 Written representations 69 154

Codes of professional ethics

Mock Exam guidance notes

3 Which two of the following are limitations of the provision of

ICAEW Chapter 1: Concept of and need for 3

4 Assurance: Question ICAEW

9 Which one of the following best describes the concept of

10 Which three of the following are benefits of an assurance report on financial

ICAEW Chapter 1: Concept of and need for 5

12 The following is an extract from an independent accountant's unmodified report on a

6 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 1: Concept of and need for 7

4 Which three of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of

8 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an 9

9 Which three of the following are purposes of a letter of engagement?

10 Which one of the following best describes professional

11 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement

1 Assurance: Question ICAEW

3 Which three of the following constitute analytical

ICAEW Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the 1

1 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the 1

13 Which three of the following would increase inherent risk?

1 Assurance: Question ICAEW

16 As part of your analytical procedures on the financial statements of Dreamy Desserts

ICAEW Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the 1

1 Assurance: Question ICAEW

21 Deteriora Ltd's quick ratio has fallen from 1.9:1 to 1.6:1.

ICAEW Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the 1

26 Which two of the following are true in respect of related party

1 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the 1

4 Which three of the following statements are valid?

2 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and 2

2 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and 2

15 Which two of the following would be included in an assurance

2 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 5: Introduction to internal 2

ICAEW Chapter 5: Introduction to internal 2

5 Which one of the following is not part of an entity's risk assessment

7 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Badweather

2 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 5: Introduction to internal 2

13 Which two of the following represent inherent limitations of a system of internal

14 Which two of the following are authorisation control

2 Assurance: Question ICAEW

ICAEW Chapter 5: Introduction to internal 2

19 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Elm

3 Assurance: Question ICAEW