Hema-Samplex 211217 075025
Hema-Samplex 211217 075025
C. Antipyrine A. Promyelocyte
D. Chloramphenicol B. Band neutrophils
E. Pituitrin C. Myelocytes
Vasodilation and bronchoconstriction would D. Metamyelocyte
be associated with which blood cells?
E. Myeloblast
A. Eosinophils
What is the anticoagulant of choice if there
B. Monocytes is pseudoleukocytosis?
C. Neutrophils A. EDTA
D. Basophils B. Sodium citrate
E. Lymphocytes C. Double oxalate
D. Heparin
E. Acid citrate dextrose Hgb F determination
In the myeloid series, the first appearance of Diagnose H spherocytosis
cytoplasmic granules is seen in what cell?
E Test for PNH
A. Myelocyte
A. Dithionite solubility
B. Metamyelocyte
B. Singer test
C. Promyelocyte
C. EOFT
D. Myeloblast
D. Schilling’s test
E. Band cell
E. Sucrose hemolysis test
Which of the following diluting fluids contain
Which of the following is true regarding
substances that will NOT lyse RBCs?
erythrocyte maturation?
A. Turk’s fluid
A. These are four cell division takes places
B. 2% acetic acid place from blast to mature RBC
C. Hayem’s B. RBC maturation takes place approximately
72 hours
D. 3% HCl
C. Multiple nucleoli are present in rubriblast
E. C and D
D. A and B
Basophils contain large amounts of which of
the following secretory products? E. A,B,C
A. Histamine Which of the following maturing red cell is
capable of hemoglobin synthesis?
B. Acid phosphatase
A. Basophilic normoblast
C. Immunoglobulins
B. Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte
D. Myeloperoxidase
C. Metarubricyte
E. A and B
D. A and B
This abnormal RBC shape develops from
excess cell membrane or a decrease in Hgb E. A,B,C
that results in a relative membrane increase
Extrusion of nuclear material occurs in what
A. Acanthocyte stage of maturing RBC?
B. Codocyte A. Rubriblast
C. Spherocyte B. Metarubricyte
D. Schistocytes C. Basophilic rubricyte
Which of the following RBC abnormalities What is the actiom oh phloxine in the diluting
are seen in the blood smear of a patient with fluid for direct eosinophil count?
megaloblastic anemia?
A. Acts as accentuator
A. Schistocyte
B. Stains eosinophils red
B. Macroovalocyte
C. Lyses RBC
C. Microcyte
D. Prevents clumping of cells
D. Spherocyte
In the HiCN method, these forms of
What is the anticoagulant of choice for hemoglobin are converted to
platelet counting? hemoglobincyanide?
A. EDTA A. Hgb
D. Heparin D. HbCO
Which of the following conditions is E. ALL
associated with the presence of
Which of the following is NOT a diluent in
hypersegmented neutrophils in the
manual WBC count?
peripheral blood smear?
A. Glacial acetic acid
A. Severe infection
B. Drabkin’s reagent
B. Allergy
C. Turk’s fluid
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. 1% HCl
D. Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid Deficiency
Total WBC count times % of each type of
Red blood cells in hereditary spherocytosis
leukocyte in the differential count is for the
are
A. Corrected cell count
A. Normocytic
B. Direct relative cell count
B. Microcytic
C. Absolute count
C. Hyperchromic
D. Indirect relative count
D. Normochromic
Which of these will shift the oxygen curve to B. Protein Band 4.1
the right?
C. Glycophorin A
A. Acidosis
D. Glycophorin B
B. Alkalosis
E. Protein Band 3
C. Hypothermia
Which of the following integral proteins
D. Decrease 23DPG Level transports the negatively charged
neuraminic acid within the red cell
C Pelger huet
membrane?
B Alder relly
A. Alpha and Beta spectrin
A Chediak Higashi
B. Protein band 3
E Dohle bodies
C. Glycophorins
D May Heglin Anomaly
D. RH antigens
A. With giant lysosomal inclusion
E. ICAM-4
B. Associated with mucopolysaccharidoses
Which of the following membrane protein if
C. Neutrophilic inclusion caused by injury defective is associated with paroxysman
nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
D. Blue spindle inclusion with >5um in diameter
A. Spectrin
E. Halted nuclear lobulation
B. Protein band 4.1
Which of the following statement/s is/are
TRUE regarding RBC metabolic system? C. Protein band 3
B. vWD A. 1:9
C. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia B. 4:1
C. Heparin C. Culling
D. Potassium Lithium Oxalate D. Transit
Which of the following is the effect in a Process of replacing the active marrow by
patient who some 5 cigarette sticks before adipose tissue during development:
blood collection:
A. Kinetics
A. Increase WBC and cortisol level
B. Progression
B. Increase potassium and sodium level
C. Retrogression
C. Increase RBC and cortisol level
D. Culling
D. Decrease hemoglobin and RBC level
All of the following are compositions of
Muscle activity such as exercise elevates yellow marrow EXCEPT:
which of the following values:
A. Fat cells
A. Hemoglobin and RBC count
B. Differentiated mesenchymal cells
B. Creatinine and protein
C. Macrophages
C. Protein and glucose level
D. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
D. Platelet and sodium level
Macrophages that remove cellular and
Change from supine position to sitting foreign debris from the blood that circulates
position results in; through the liver:
D. Promyelocyte A. Promyelocyt
This stimulates the granulocyte release from B. Promonocyte
the bone marrow
C. Myelocyte
A. GM-CSF
D. Myeloblast
B. IL-3
High nuclear to cytoplasm ratio, with
C. G-CSF prominent nucleoli and presence of 20
visible azurophilic granules:
D. HSC
A. Promyelocyte
This is used to differentiate HSC from CMP:
B. Neutrophil
A. Wright’s stain
C. Type I myeloblast
B. Giemsa stain
D. Type II myeloblast
C. Romanowsky stain
Measures 14-16um, 20-30% in the bone
D. Flow cytometry
marrow, with indented kidney-bean shaped
All of the following are present in the primary nucleus, and more clumpled chromatin:
azurophilic granules EXCEPT:
A. Promyelocyte
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Myelocyte
B. Cathepsins
C. Metamyelocyte
C. Elastase
D. Band
D. Beta-2-microglobulin
32% in the bone marrow, no cytoplasmic
Contains secondary specific granules: basophilia, highly clumped nucleus with
indentation greater than ½ of its diameter
A. Myeloblast and promyelocyte
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte D. 18 hours
C. Metamyelocyte Monocytic series from the earliest
progenitor:
D. Band
A. Monoblast-monocyte
Round nucleus with immature chromatin
containing charcot-leyden crystals: B. Promyelocyte-metamyelocyte-myelocyte-
band-monocyte
A. Neutrophilic promyelocyte
C. Monoblast-promyelocyte-metamyelocyte-
B. Eosinophilic promyelocyte
monocyte
C. Basophilic myelocyte
D. Monoblast-promonocyte-monocyte
D. Neutrophilic myeloblast
Macrophage found in the skin:
Absolute normal value of neutrophils found
A. Type A cell
in the peripheral blood:
B. Dendritic cells
A. 50-75%
C. Langerhan cells
B. 45-60%
D. Microglia
C. 2.3-8.7 x 109/L
Spleen filters how many mL of blood:
D. 1.3-5.7 x 109/L
A. 100 mL blood/minute
The transit time for myeloblast to become
myelocyte: B. 350 mL blood/hour
A. 1 day C. 100 mL blood/hour
D. Hb A1 A. Fibronectin
A. Alpha2beta2 C. Laminin
B. Alpha2gamma2 D. Collagen
A Which of the following is part of the first C. Ferrochelatase reduce and inserts iron in the
phase of glucose metabolism under EMP PIX ring
pathway?
D. ALA synthetase is located in the cytosol of a
E Which of the following statement is FALSE developing RBC
regarding EMP pathway?
E. Protophorhyrinogen oxidase is responsible
D Which of the following is part of the for forming the heme ring
second phase of glucose metabolism in the
C Which of the following curves represents
EMP pathway?
the gamma globin chain production
C Which among reactions below where
D Which curve is for beta globin chain?
lactate dehydrogenase will react to
eventually form lactic acid B Which of the curves represents the alpha
polypeptide chain?
B Which of the following is part of the third
phase of glucose metabolism in the EMP E Which of these curves represents the delta
pathway? polypeptide chain?
A. Hexokinase catabolizes glucose forming G6P Timeline of globin chain production from
and ADP intrauterine to adulthood (graph)
C. Phosphoenol pyruvate is acted upon by A. An increase of H+ ion in the plasma may lead
pyruvate kinase forming pyruvate and ADP to increase binding of 2,3DPG to the globin
chain to favour T-formation
D. Biphosphoglycerate phosphatase is the
enzyme responsible for forming 3PG and G3P B. A decrease in the plasma pH may
consequently increase the release of oxygen to
E. Enolase converts 2-PG to PEP
the tissue
The glycolipids of the RBC membrane:
C. Shifting of the curve to the left may happen if
A. Provides flexibility the blood pH reaches 7.6
A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. MCHC
B. Carbaminohemoglobin C. MCV
C. Sulfhemoglobin D. RDW
C. Cell number
D. Antigenic identification
A WBC count is done on an automated The demarcating membrane system (DMS)
impedance cell counter from a patient with begins to form in what stage of platelet
leukoerythroblastosis. The WBC count is maturation?
most likely:
A. Megakaryoblast
A. Falsely increased due to nRBCs
B. Promegakaryocyte
B. Falsely increased due to RBC fragments
C. Megakaryocyte
C. Falsely decreased due to nRBCs
D. Metamegakaryocyte
D. Accurate; no error with this methodology
Stem cell marker:
Automated cell counters should be
A. CD16
calibrated:
B. CD56
A. At least every 6 months
C. CD34
B. After replacement of any major part
D. CD10
C. Using commercially available controls
A well-defined hof and a cart-wheel like
D. All of the above
pattern of chromatin are characteristics of:
On automated hematology analyzers,
A. Macrophages
marked red blood cell fragments will cause
an abnormal histogram and/or scatterplots B. Plasma cells
for:
C. Megakaryocytes
A. WBCs and RBCs
D. Mast cells
B. RBCs and Platelets
A single megakaryocyte can produce how
C. WBCs and Platelets many platelets?
A. 0-18mm C. May-Grunwald
B. 0-50mm D. Giemsa
C. 10-20/OIO A. 4:1
D. 20-50/OIO B. 1:5
D. TIBC C. Drepanocyte
In which of the following conditions does D. Dacryocyte
LAP show the least activity?
According to FAB, to establish the diagnosis
1. Leukemoid reaction for leukemia, the percentage of blasts found
in the bone marrow should be:
2. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
A. ≥ 20%
3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B. ≥ 30%
4. Polycythemia vera
C. ≥ 15%
A. 1, 2, and 4
D. ≥ 40%
B. 2, 3, and 4
Stage in the myelocytic series wherein a
C. 3 only
given granulocyte can be identified:
D. 1 only
A. Promyelocyte
Cells exhibiting a positive stain with tartrate-
B. Myeloblast
resistant acid phosphatase are
characteristically seen in: C. Metamyelocyte
A. Infectious mononucleosis D. Myelocyte
B. Hairy cell leukemia A term that describes a plasma cell with red
to pink cytoplasm is known as:
C. Sezary syndrome
A. Grape cell
D. Gaucher’s disease
B. Morula cell
Auer rods may be seen in which of the
following: C. Flame cell
1. Acute myeloblastic leukemia D. Plasmacytoid lymphocyte
2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia Faggot cells are predominantly seen in
which type of leukemia?
3. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
A. M1
4. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
B. M2
A. 1, 2, and 3
C. M3
B. 2, 3, and 4
D. M4 Hemoglobin configuration characteristic of
Hemoglobin H:
Which of these tests will determine the
inability of phagocyte to kill ingested A. Gamma4
microorganisms?
B. Alpha2-Gamma2
A. LAP score
C. Beta4
B. NBT dye test
D. Alpha2-Delta2
C. Boyden chamber assay
Which of the following match(es) is/are
D. All of these incorrect?
Oval macrocytes, Howell-Jolly bodies and 1. Stomatocyte- Mouth cell
hypersegmented neutrophils are associated
2. Spherocyte- Bronze cell
with what condition?
3. Schistocyte- Fragmented cell
A. Broadfish tapeworm infection
4. Elliptocyte- Pear shaped cell
B. Cyanocobalamin deficiency
5. Acanthocyte- Burr cell
C. Pteroylglutamic acid deficiency
6. Ovalocyte- Mexican hat cell
D. All of these
A. 1, 2, and, 3
Which of the following stains are most often
positive in ALL but are negative in AML? B. 4, 5, and 6
D. Sulfhemoglobin
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Ehler- Danlos, von Willebrand and Bernard
aplastic anemia? Soulier are all qualitative platelet disorders
that have abnormalities of:
A. May be due to drugs such as
chloramphenicol, or chemicals such as benzene A. Adhesion
D. Cyclooxygenase
Contents of platelet dense granules: A. Prolonged PT
1. Serotonin B. Prolonged APTT
B. Endothelial cells C. V
C. Thrombocytes D. X
B. Values are outside the numerical limits preset B. Hairy cell leukemia
by the user
C. Burkitt type
C. Analysis error
D. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Distribution error
Anemia is a feature in this/these leukemia(s)
The size threshold range used by electrical in its early stage(s):
impedance methods to count particles as
A. CML
platelets is:
B. AML
A. 0-10 fL
C. CLL
B. 2-20 fL
D. A and B only
C. 15-40 fL
Auer bodies are seen in the following:
D. 35-90 fL
A. M1
High levels of basophils is seen in this type
of leukemia: B. M2
C. M3 Blast cell with irregular cytoplasm and slight
indentation of nucleus:
D. All
A. Rubriblast
This WBC has the capacity of destroying
helminthic larvas: B. Myeloblast
A. Neutron C. Lymphoblast
B. Eo D. Monoblast
A. May-Hegglin A. CML
B. Promyelocyte B. Eo
C. Myelocyte C. Monocyte
A. Coagulation A. Embolus
B. Hemostasis B. Thrombus
C. Vasoconstriction C. Platelet
C. Heparin D. Earlobe
The bleeding time test measures: The PTT test is a good measure of quantity
and function of which of the following
A. The ability of platelets to stick together
factors except:
B. Platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally
A. VIII and IX
injured vascular subendothelium
B. VII and XIII
C. The quantity and quality of platelets
C. I and II
D. Antibodies against platelets
D. V and X
If a protime or PTT cannot be run
immediately, it is best to:
A. Wait to centrifuge the whole blood Thrombine test measures:
B. Clotting time A. BT
C. Clot Retraction time B. Ristocetin assay
A. S, A, F C. nRBC
B. A, A2, C D. Reticulocytes
C. A2, F The cyanmethemoglobin procedure
measures all hemoglobins except:
D. A, A2
A. Methemoglobin
In the improved Neubauer ruling, the 400 sm
sqs are composed of: B. Sulfhemoglobin
A. 25 grps of 16 sqs C. Deoxyhemoglobin
93. What hemoglobin is NOT present during 100. What is the rationale why the blue tube is
the adult stage? filled first with blood before the green tube?
a. Hgb A1 a. To prevent hemodilution of blood
b. Hgb A2 sample
c. Hgb F b. To ensure that hemolysis
d. A and B c. To prevent the possible error in
e. None of the choices coagulation studies
d. To prevent the possible error in gas
94. The stage of the red cell maturation where analysis
the Hgb is admixed with the basophilic
property of the cytoplasm, giving a red-blue 101. The reason why should a phlebotomist
color: not to prolong the application of the torniquet:
a. Rubricyte a. Prevent possible increase WBC ct
b. Prorubriblast b. Prevent RBC lysis
c. Metarubricyte c. To ensure blood will be free from
d. None possible tissue fluid contamination
d. All of the above
95. The reticulocyte resides for how many
days in the marrow before it will gain exit and 102. Anticoagulant that prevents clotting by
goes to circulation? chelation process
a. 3-4 days a. EDTA
b. 3 days b. Sodium citrate
c. 5 days c. Heparin
d. 2 days d. Double oxalate
96. The RBC precursor cell that is usually 103. Anticoagulant ideal to prevent platelet
mistaken with myeloblast stage satellitism
a. Rubriblast a. Anticoagulant in a black tube
b. Prorubricyte b. Heparin
c. Metarubricyte c. Anticoagulant in a yellow tube
d. Sodium citrate c. Protein rich in arginine and lysine
d. A and B
104. The following statements are true e. A, B, C
regarding venipuncture except
a. Avoid areas with hematomas, burns, 110. A positive acid elution slide test indicates
scars, amd edema the presence of:
b. Cephalic vein is the ideal site for a. Hemoglobin A1
puncture b. Hemoglobin A2
c. Draw blood below IV sites after the c. Hemoglobin F
infusion was stopped for 120 secs. d. Hemoglobin 5
d. torniquet application should be applied
no longer than 2 mins, 111. Which of the following is only
demonstrated by supravital staining?
105. Rearrange the order of draw if multiple a. Heinz bodies
tests such as CBC, FBS, PTT, and serum b. Hemoglobin H
enzyme test should be done c. Reticulocytes
a. Red, gray, lavender, blue, green top d. A and B
b. Red, blue, lavender, gray top
c. Blue, red, green, lavender, gray top 112. This is the characteristic red cell
d. Red, blue, green, gray top abnormality associated with G6DP deficiency
a. Acanthocyte
106. True regarding EDTA as anticoagulant b. Echinocyte
I. The optimal concentration is c. Heinz bodies
1.25mg/ml d. A and B
II. Preserves cellular morphology
when blood smears are made 113. Imerslund Grasbek Syndrome results to
within 2 hrs an anemia with a ____ blood picture.
III. Inhibits ccoagulatiiion by chelation a. Macrocytic hypochromic
IV. Prevents platelet aggregation, b. Macrocytic normochromic
thus it is preferred for platelet ct c. Microcytic hypochromic
a. I, II, III d. Normocytic hypochromic
b. II, III, IV e. Normocytic normochromic
c. I, III, IV
d. II, IV 114. Which of the following can help
distinguish between anemia of chronic
107. Hemolysis is not corrected after adding disease and iron deficiency anemia?
ATP and glucose in autohemolysis test is a. Serum ferritin
indicative of: b. TIBC
a. PNH c. Serum iron
b. G6PD deficiency d. A and B
c. PK deficiency e. A,B,C
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
115. Washington monument crystals are seen
108. Which of the following is not an antigen in
presenting cell? a. Hemoglobin CC disease
a. B-cell b. Hemoglobin SC disease
b. Kupffer cell c. Sickle cell disease
c. Dendritic cell d. A and B
d. PMN e. A, B, C
109. The inner core of eosinophilic granules 116. Which of the following is associated with
contains the following dehydration?
a. Melanin a. Primary absolute erythrocytosis
b. MBP b. Relative erythrocytosis
c. Secondary absolute appropriate b. Hereditary spherocytosis
erythrocytosis c. PK deficiency
d. Secondary absolute inappropriate d. A and B
erythocytosis
e. A and D only
B. Target cell
C. Codocyte
D. Elliptocyte
46. A non-cellular defect of the RBC
A. Sickle cell
B. Microangiopathic syndrome
C. G-6PD deficiency
D. Thallsemia
47. Which of the following abnormalities are
seen in patients with HIV/AIDS?
A. Neutropenia
B. Lymphopenia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Eosinophenia
48. Macrocytic anemia is not seen in which of
the following conditions?
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. latum infection
C. Thalassemia
D. Vit. B12 deficiency
49. Which of the following stains will
demonstrate ringed sideroblasts in a bone
marrow?
A. Wright’s
B. Peroxidase
C. Sudan Black
D. Prussian blue
C. Schilling’s test
D. Hb electrophoresis