Rahul’s

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Delhi Judicial Services (Preliminary) Examination-2014

Negative marking: 0. 25 marks per question

1. An international commercial arbitration is an arbitration where at least one of

the par-ties is
(a) a body corporate incorporated in any country other than India.
(b) a body of individuals whose central management and control is
exercised in any country other than India.
(c) the Government of a foreign country.
(d) All these
2. As per Section 3(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a
communication is deemed to have been received on the day when
(a) it is dispatched to the addressee.
(b) it is delivered to the addressee.
(c) written acknowledgement of the receipt is sent to "the sender.
(d) written acknowledgement of the receipt is received by the sender.
3. Which of the following is not an essential condition for an arbitration
agreement as per Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(a) The agreement must be registered.
(b) The agreement must be to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes
which have arisen or which may arise in respect of a defined legal
relationship whether contractual or not.
(c) The arbitration agreement must be in writing.
(d) None of these
4. Which of the following is not a ground for setting aside an arbitration award
under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(a) incapacity of a party.
(b) arbitration agreement not being valid under the law in force.
(c) award contains decisions on matters beyond the scope of the
submission to arbitration.
(d) None of these
5. In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that Part I of
the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would have no application to

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 International commercial arbitrations held outside India and therefore such
awards would only be subject to the Jurisdiction of Indian courts when the
same are sought to be enforced In India in accordance with Part II of the said
Act?
(a) Bharat Aluminium Company etc. v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical
Service Inc. etc. (Balco) 2012 (9) SCC 552.
(b) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading SA and Anr. 2002 (4) SCC 105.
(c) Sachin Gupta and Anr. v. K.S. Forge Metal Pvt. Ltd. (2013) 10 SCC
540.
(d) Kanpur Jal Sansthan and Anr. v. Bapu Construction 2014 (1) SCALE
207.
6. The term consensus ad idem means
(a) no agreement can have more than one meaning.
(b) to agree the same way.
(c) to agree on the same thing with same sense.
(d) to agree for different objects in the same sense.
7. In which case it was held that a contract through telephone is concluded at
the place where acceptance is heard?
(a) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) XL ALJR489 (AH).
(b) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1981-4) All ER Rep. 127.
(c) Bhagwandas Goverdhandas Kedia v. M/s Girdhari Lai Parshottamdas
& Co. AIR 1966 SC 543.
(d) Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. AIR 1954 SC 44.
8. 'A' saves 'B's property from fire, the circumstances indicated that he had done
so gratuitously. Whether 'A' is entitled to
(a) compensation from 'B'.
(b) no compensation.
(c) compensation from the Government.
(d) compensation from heirs of 'B'.
9. The doctrine of privity of contract means that
(a) a contract is a private affair between the parties.
(b) consideration can be supplied only by the parties to contract.
(c) the contract can be enforced only by a civil and private action.
(d) only parties to contract can sue and be sued upon the contract.

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10. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of performance of a contract being void,
is based on
(a) the theory of implied term.
(b) the theory of just and reasonable solution.
(c) supervening impossibility or illegality as laid down in Section 56 of the
Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(d) the principle of unjust enrichment.
11. An agreement is void if its object or consideration is
(a) forbidden by law.
(b) of such nature that if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of law or
is fraudulent.
(c) the Court regards it as immoral or against public policy.
(d) All these are correct.
12. Which of the following is not a quasi- contract?
(a) Obligation of a person enjoying benefit of non-gratuitous act.
(b) Responsibility of finder of goods.
(c) Quantum meriut.
(d) Novation.
13. 'A' applies to a banker for a loan at a time when there is stringency in the
money market. The banker declines to make the loan except at an unusually
high rate of interest. 'A' accepts the loan on these terms. In this case the
contract Is
(a) vitiated by undue influence.
(b) valid because this is a transaction in the ordinary cause of business.
(c) void because the banker took unfair advantage of stringency in the
money market.
(d) voidable at the option of 'A' who was deceived by the banker.
14. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of
(a) fraud
(b) misrepresentation
(c) undue influence
(d) free consent
15. 'P' a wholesale dealer in sugar, sells sugar to 'Q' with a condition that 'Q' shall
not sell the sugar beyond one kilometer of 'P's godown. The agreement is

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 (a) valid
(b) without free consent
(c) in restraint of trade and thus void
(d) voidable at the option of 'P'.
16. While determining damages for breach of contract, which of the following are
taken into account?
(a) Motive
(b) Indirect loss
(c) Means or remedying the inconvenience caused by non-performance.
(d) All of these
17. In case of acceptance by post, at what point the acceptance is complete as
against the proposer?
(a) When the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission so
as to be out of power of the acceptor.
(b) When the letter of acceptance has been written.
(c) When the letter of acceptance has been received.
(d) When the letter of acceptance has been read by the proposer.
18. A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his
custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a/an
(a) bailor
(b) indemnitee
(c) agent
(d) bailee
19. 'A' contract to sing for 'B' at a concert for Rs. 50,000/- which are paid in
advance. 'A' is too ill to sing on the day of the concert. The consequence is
(a) 'A' is bound to make compensation to 'B' for the loss of the profits
which 'B' would have made if 'A' had been able to sing.
(b) 'A' is bound to refund to 'B' Rs. 50,000/- paid in advance.
(c) 'A' can be forced to sing at the concert.
(d) 'A' is bound to refund only that money out of Rs. 50,000/- that he has
not spent.
20. Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal
and secondly, under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which
are illegal the

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 (a) first set of promise is a contract, but the second is a void agreement.
(b) first et of promise is voidable but the second set is a void agreement.
(c) entire set of promises is void.
(d) entire set of promises is valid.
21. If the compensation to be paid on breach of contract is the genuine pre-
estimate of the prospective damages, it is known as
(a) special damages
(b) penalty
(c) un-liquidated damages
(d) liquidated damages
22. Mark the correct answer in respect of Contract of Guarantee.
(a) It may be in writing
(b) It may be oral
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
23. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the
parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a
(a) valid contract
(b) unenforceable contract
(c) voidable contract
(d) quasi-contract
24. An agency can be terminated by
(a) the principle revoking his authority.
(b) the agent renouncing the business of agency
(c) either the principle or agent dying
(d) All of these
25. If the time of performance of contract is the essence of contract and the
promisor fails to perform the contract by the specified time, the contract is
(a) void
(b) valid
(c) voidable at the option of the promise
(d) infructuous
26. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?

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 (a) Evidence excluded by the Evidence Act is inadmissible even if it seems
essential for ascertainment of truth.
(b) Parties cannot contract themselves out of the provisions of the
Evidence Act.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
27. Which of the following qualities to be treated as "Fact" within the meaning
assigned to it under the Evidence Act?
(a) That a man heard or saw something
(b) That a man holds a certain opinion
(c) That a man acts in good faith
(d) All of these
28. According to the Evidence Act, a fact is said to be "not proved", when the
(a) court believes that the fact does not exist
(b) fact is vague
(c) fact is neither proved nor disproved
(d) All of these
29. 'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with 'C', wife of 'A'. 'B' contested by denying the
allegation. 'B' was found guilty and convicted in said case. Subsequently, 'C'
was prosecuted on charge of bigamy on allegations that she had married 'B'
during subsistence of her marriage with 'A'. 'C' contested by denying that she
was ever married to 'A'. In the case against 'C', the judgment in the first case
against 'B' is
(a) relevant
(b) irrelevant
(c) binding
(d) None of these
30. Mark the incorrect statement.
A court may take the assistance of expert for forming opinion on point of
(a) foreign law
(b) art
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
31. Which of the statements given below Is/are correct?

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 (a) In civil cases, the character to prove the conduct imputed to a party is
not relevant.
(b) In criminal proceedings bad character of the accused is not relevant,
unless evidence of good character has been given.
(c) In criminal proceedings previous conviction of accused is relevant as
evidence of bad character.
(d) All these.
32. 'A' is on trial for the murder of 'C'. There is evidence to show that 'C' was
murdered by 'A' and 'B’ and that 'B' said— 'A' and I murdered 'C’ As against
'A', this evidence is
(a) not to be taken into consideration as the evidence is hearsay.
(b) to be taken into consideration as it is direct.
(c) not to be taken into consideration as 'A' and 'B' are not being jointly
tried.
(d) to be taken into consideration as 'A' and 'B' are accomplices.
33. The essential conditions for the dying declaration to be relevant include the
(i) statement is made by a person as to the cause of his death.
(ii) statement is made by a person as to any of the circumstances of the
transaction which resulted in his death.
(iii) person must have been under expectation of death at the time of
making the statement.
Which of the above propositions is/ are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii)and(iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) All these
34. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise flowing from
person in authority, giving reasonable impression to the accused that
he would thereby avoid punishment is relevant.
(b) Confession by accused while in custody of police, even if made in the
immediate presence of a magistrate, shall not be proved.

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 (c) The confession of the accused made while in custody of police may be
proved if as a consequence of information received thereby a relevant
fact is discovered.
(d) None of these
35. 'A' is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. He offers
to prove that he refused to sell them below their value.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 'A' may prove the statements, though in the nature of admission,
because they are explanatory of conduct influenced by facts in issue.
(b) 'A' may not prove the statements because they are self-serving
admissions.
(c) 'A' may not prove the statements because as accused he cannot be a
witness in his own defence.
(d) All these are incorrect.
36. Which of the following is incorrect under the Evidence Act?
(a) In a case where 'A' is charged with receiving a particular stolen
wristwatch knowing the same to be stolen—The fact that at the same
time he was in possession of other such stolen articles is relevant.
(b) In a case where 'A' is tried for the murder of 'B' by intentionally shooting
him to death—The fact that 'A' was in the habit of shooting at people
with intent to murder them is relevant.
(c) In a case where 'A' is sued for damages for bite injury caused by his
dog to 'B', 'A' having known the dog to be ferocious—The fact that the
dog had previously bitten 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' is relevant.
(d) In a case where 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an
imputation intended to harm the reputation of 'B'—The fact of previous
publications by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A'
towards 'B' is relevant.
37. 'C' is employed as cashier by a firm to receive money at Its sale counter. It is
his duty to make entries in the ledger showing the amounts received by him.
He is prosecuted on the charge of criminal breach of trust in respect of rupees
ninety thousand on the basis of evidence showing he made an entry showing
that he had received rupees ten thousand only whereas he had actually
received rupees one lakh. 'C' has taken the plea that the wrong entry was
accidental and unintentional. The fact that other entries made in the same
ledger are false, each showing receipt of less amount by 'C' is

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 (a) relevant as it has a bearing on the question of intention.
(b) not relevant as the other entries are not basis of charge.
(c) not relevant as the evidence is extraneous.
(d) not relevant as other entries are not in issue.
38. Mark what is not a 'public document' within the meaning of the expression
used in the Evidence Act?
(a) The records of Motor Accident Claims Tribunal.
(b) The register of private documents maintained in the office of Sub-
Registrar under the Registration Act.
(c) The record of proceedings of the House of the People maintained in
the Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) Pronote executed by 'A' while taking loan from a money lender.
39. Which of the following is correct?
(a) There is a presumption that maps of various States and Union
Territories made by the Survey of India are accurate.
(b) There is a presumption that map prepared by a registered architect for
the purpose of a civil dispute is accurate.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
40. The evidence of contents of the information recorded or stored in a computer
may be given through computer output, without production of the original,
provided certain conditions are satisfied. The said conditions include that
(a) if the computer was not operating properly during the material part of
the period over which it was used to store or process the information
for purposes of the relevant activities, it was not such as to affect the
electronic record or the accuracy of its content.
(b) the information contained in the electronic record is derived from such
information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of such
activities.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
41. In which case oral evidence cannot be given?

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 (a) 'A' hired lodgings of 'B' and gives to 'B' a card on which he wrote
"Rooms, Rs. 2000/- a month". 'A' in a suit wants to prove verbal
agreement that the terms included partial board.
(b) 'A' hired lodgings of 'B' for a year. A regularly stamped agreement was
drawn up by an attorney and signed by both of them. The document is
silent on the subject of board. 'A' in a suit wants to prove verbal
agreement that the terms included partial board.
(c) Both in (a) and in (b)
(d) Neither in (a) and nor in (b)
42. The burden of proving that the case of the accused comes within any of the
General Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code is upon the
(a) prosecution
(b) court
(c) accused
(d) investigating police officer
43. The facts of which the court must take judicial notice include the
(a) Gazetted Holidays observed by the Government of India.
(b) rules of road.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
44. Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief
(a) with permission of the court as to matters which are introductory.
(b) If in the opinion of the court the matter involved has been already
sufficiently proved.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
45. For deciding whether or not a witness shall be compelled to answer
questions, the court shall have regard to considerations which include as to
whether such questions are
(a) proper if the truth of imputation conveyed thereby would seriously
affect the opinion of the court as to the credibility of the witness on the
subject matter of his deposition.

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 (b) improper if the truth of imputation conveyed thereby would affect in a
slight degree the opinion of the court as to the credibility of the witness
on the subject matter of his deposition.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
46. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is alive if it is shown that he
was alive within thirty years.
(b) Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is dead if it is proved that he
has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally
have heard from him if he had been alive.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
47. The court may presume that
(a) when a document creating an obligation is in the hands of the obligor,
the obligation has been discharged.
(b) judicial and official acts have not been regularly performed.
(c) a bill of exchange, accepted or endorsed, was accepted or endorsed
for deficient consideration.
(d) All these are incorrect.
48. 'A' intentionally and falsely led 'B' to believe that a plot of land belonged to
him. On that basis, he induced 'B' to buy and pay for it. Afterwards the plot of
land became the property of 'A'. 'A' brought a suit to set aside the sale in
favour of 'B' on the ground that, at the time of sale, he had no title. In such suit
(a) 'A' may prove want of title at the time of sale.
(b) 'A' cannot be allowed to prove want of his title.
(c) It depends on the value of the property.
(d) All these are incorrect-
49. All persons are competent to testify unless the court considers that they are
prevented from understanding the questions put to them because of
(a) tender years
(b) extreme old age
(c) mental disease
(d) All these

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50. The Judge's power to put questions or order production of documents does
not include authorization to
(a) compel a witness to answer any question which such witness is entitled
to refuse to answer if the question were asked by the adverse party.
(b) to ask a question which would be proper for any other person to ask.
(c) to elicit clarity on a point.
(d) None of these
51. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to
(a) suits
(b) execution petitions under Order 21 CPC.
(c) petitions for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1956
(d) All these
52. Which of the following is not a disability under Section 6 (legal disability) of the
Limitation Act, 1963?
(a) Minority
(b) Insanity
(c) Insolvency
(d) Idiocy
53. In case of a suit for property which the plaintiff has conveyed while Insane, the
time from which the period of limitation (three years under Article 102 of the
Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is
(a) when the plaintiff is restored to sanity.
(b) the date the property was conveyed.
(c) when the plaintiff has knowledge of the conveyance.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
54. A suit to set aside a transfer of property made by the guardian of a ward, by
the ward who has attained majority, can be filed within three years (Article
60(1) of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) from when the
(a) transfer of the property was made.
(b) person in possession is served notice.
(c) ward attains majority.
(d) person in possession refuses to hand over possession

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55. In case of a suit by a person excluded from a joint family property to enforce a
right to share therein, the time from which the period of limitation (12 years
under Article 110 of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is
(a) from the date of exclusion.
(b) when the exclusion becomes known to the plaintiff.
(c) when the plaintiff makes known his intention to recover possession.
(d) the date of refusal to hand over possession to the plaintiff.
56. The Supreme Court in Collector Land Acquisition, Anantnag v. Katijl, AIR
1987 SC 1353 laid down the
(a) guiding principles for deciding an application under Section 5 of
Limitation Act, 1963.
(b) principles governing the nature of acknowledgement under Section 18
of the Limitation Act, 1963.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of these
57. The period of limitation for preferring an appeal from a decree passed by a
court subordinate to the High Court to a High Court from the date of the
decree is
(a) 90 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 30 days
(d) One year
50. Section 21 (Effect of substituting or adding new plaintiff or defendant) of the
Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply in case of which of the following?
(a) Addition of a new defendant for the first time.
(b) Substitution of a new plaintiff for the first time. .
(c) Transposition of parties.
(d) Addition of a new plaintiff for the first time.
59. Which of the following is correct with regard to acknowledgement of liability
under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963?
(a) Acknowledgement cannot be undated.
(b) Acknowledgement can be made to a person other than the person
entitled to the property.
(c) Acknowledgement need not be in writing.

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 (d) Acknowledgement can be made after the expiry of the period of
limitation.
60. Under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 fresh period of limitation has to
be computed from the date of
(a) expiry of half of the extended period of limitation
(b) delivering the acknowledgement
(c) signing of the acknowledgement
(d) expiry of the initial period of limitation
61. The relation of partnership according to Section 5 of Indian Partnership Act,
1932 arises from
(a) status
(b) contract
(c) friendship
(d) None of these
62. The authority of a partner to bind the firm by his acts one in the usual course
of business is called his 'implied authority'. Such authority does not include
(a) selling the firm's goods.
(b) to borrow in a trading firm.
(c) settling accounts with the persons dealing with the firm.
(d) withdraw a suit or proceeding filed on the firm's behalf.
63. A partnership firm may be dissolved
(a) with the consent of all partners.
(b) in accordance with a contract between the partners.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
64. When a minor elects to become a partner he becomes personally liable to
third parties for all acts of the firm done since
(a) he was admitted to be benefits of partnership.
(b) from the date of his attaining majority.
(c) from the date of his becoming a partner.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
65. In which of the following cases, a partner may cease to be a partner without
the dissolution of the firm?

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 (a) Retirement
(b) Insolvency
(c) Death
(d) All of these
66. A court may deny specific performance of an agreement to sell an immovable
property If
(a) it is of the option that the consideration is inadequate.
(b) the court feels that the contract is onerous to the defendant.
(c) the performance of the contract would involve hardship on the
defendant which he did not foresee and non-performance would
involve no such hardship on the plaintiff.
(d) All of these
67. The relief of injunction cannot be granted
(a) when equally efficacious relief can be obtained by any other usual
mode of proceeding.
(b) the plaintiff has not come to the court with clean hands.
(c) to prevent nuisance when it is not reasonably clear.
(d) All of these
68. 'S' a shopkeeper has kept the goods for sale on the pavement outside the
shop and constructed temporary overhead shed. Flying squad of NCT of Delhi
demolished the temporary construction and seized the goods from the
payment, without giving him any notice. After one year, 'S' filed a suit for
recovery of possession of pavement against NCT of Delhi under Section 6 of
Specific Relief Act, 1963. The suit is barred as filed
(a) against the Government
(b) after the period prescribed
(c) without the title over the pavement
(d) Both (a) and (b)
69. The engagement diamond ring of 'N' was stolen by 'V, a thief who sold it to 'J'
a jeweller. 'N' filed a suit for recovery of ring against 'J'. 'J' contended that he
is ready to pay the price of the ring. Whether the decree for recovery of
diamond ring can be refused on the ground that
(a) compensation in terms of money would be adequate relief for the loss
of ring.

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 (b) 'J' is bonafide purchaser of ring for consideration.
(c) there is no jural relation between 'N' & 'J'.
(d) None of these
70. It is the principle of law that a person who has been in long and continuous
possession can protect the same by seeking injunction against any person in
the whole world other than the true owner.
The above Statement is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
71. Which of the fallowing statements is/are correct in the light of provisions of
Article 356?
(a) President must proclaim emergency, only on-the basis of a report from
the Governor of-the State.
(b) Governor can recommend President to proclaim emergency on the
basis of personal information suggesting large scale defection of
legislators.
(c) President can proclaim emergency only on the advice of Council of
Ministers.
(d) All of these
72. In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that—'Delay in deciding
mercy petition is a sufficient ground for commuting the death sentence to life
imprisonment'?
(a) Shatrughan Chouhan v. Union of India
(b) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
(c) Rajat Prasad v.CBI
(d) Uday Gupta v.Aysha
73. Which of the following is correct about the preamble to the Constitution of
India?
(a) It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution.
(b) It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights.
(c) It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.
(d) It is not a part of the Constitution.

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74. Which of the following is true about Supreme Court of India?
(a) Supreme Court shall sit in such places, as are approved by the Chief
Justice of India under intimation to the President of India.
(b) No judgment shall be delivered by the Supreme Court save in open
Court.
(c) President of India can enlarge the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme
Court
(d) All authorities including armed forces in the territory of India shall act in
aid of the Supreme Court.
75. Which of the following writ is not amenable to the principle of 'res judicata'?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo-Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
76. 'Curative Petition' may be entertained by the Supreme Court in the following
situation/ situations
(a) when a Judge on the Bench having heard the matter did not disclose
his connection with the subject matter.
(b) the petitioner filing the petition was not a party before the Court but has
suffered a grave prejudice by the decision.
(c) the grounds mentioned in the Curative Petition had been agitated in the
Review Petition which was dismissed in circulation.
(d) All these
77. The President shall have the power under Article 72 of the Constitution of
India where
(a) punishment or sentence is by a Court Marshal.
(b) punishment or sentence is for an offence against law relating to a
matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
(c) sentences is a sentence of death.
(d) All these.
78. Which of the following is not a requirement under Article 311 of the
Constitution while dealing with disciplinary proceedings for dismissal, removal
or reduction in rank of a civil servant?

17
 (a) A departmental inquiry is held against the delinquent employee after
serving him with the charge-sheet,
(b) A reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges.
(c) A reasonable opportunity of making representation on the penalty
proposed.
(d) None of these.
79. Amendment to which of the following provisions of Constitution require
ratification by the state?
(a) Article 242
(b) List-I of Seventh Schedule
(c) Chapter V of Part IV
(d) Chapter II of Part XI
80. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes
(a) Right to strike
(b) Right to collective bargaining
(c) Right to lockout
(d) None of these
81. Which of the following is not a Fundamental duty under Article 51 A?
(a) To abide by the Constitution and 'respect its ideals and institutions.
(b) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
(c) To provide opportunity of education to the child below the age of six by
his parent or guardian. -
(d) To have compassion for living 1 creatures.
82. Which of the following is a Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) To provide paternity leave.
(b) To organize Gram Sabhas:
(c) To provide for participation of workers in management of industries.
(d) To take steps for separation of judiciary from legislature.
83. Which of the following is a Fundamental Right?
(a) To assemble with arms.
(b) To form co-operative societies.
(c) Right to employment.

18
 (d) Right of religious denominations to own immovable property only for
charitable purpose
84. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?
(a) National Council of Educational Research and Training.
(b) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies.
(c) Indian Oil Corporation.
(d) High Court of Delhi.
85. Which of the following Articles was amended by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act?
(a) Article 330
(b) Article 13
(c) Article 131
(d) Article 354
86. Which of the following writs can be sought to be issued to quash
unconstitutional appointment to a public office?
(a) Quo-Warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
87. Parliament of India shall consist of
(a) two Houses
(b) two Houses and Ministers.
(c) two Houses, Ministers and Attorney General.
(d) two Houses and the President.
88. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General
89. Which of the following is not a requirement to be satisfied by the State to
exercise their discretion while providing for reservations in promotions In
favour of SCs & STs?
(a) Backwardness of the class.

19
 (b) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a particular year.
(c) Inadequacy of representation in Public Employment.
(d) Efficiency in administration.
90. Which of the following Articles was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth
Amendment) Act, 2012?
(a) 371-J
(b) 19(1)(h)
(c) 243-P
(d) 396
91. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code
is that
(a) whereas in Section 34 there must be at least five persons, Section 149
requires only two persons.
(b) Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a
specific offence.
(c) Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149
requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
92. 'A' is carried off by a tiger. 'Z' fires at the tiger in good faith intending to rescue
'A', knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill 'A'. The shot fired by 'Z' gives
'A' a mortal wound. 'Z' has committed
(a) no offence
(b) culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(c) offence of causing death by negligence.
(d) murder.
93. Which is not the 'stolen property'?
(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating.
(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery.
(c) Possession whereof was obtained by extortion.
(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust.
94. In which of the following cases, the offence of 'house-breaking' is committed?
(a) A commits house-trespass by entering Z's house through the door,
having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door.

20
 (b) A finds the key of Z's house-door, which Z had lost, and commits
house- trespass, by entering Z's house through that key.
(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y's doorway. A commits house-
trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him
by threatening to beat him.
(d) All of these
95. P is found in possession of a document purporting to be a will of 'Q' In favour
of 'P' bearing forged signatures of 'Q' Intending that the will shall be
fraudulently used as genuine after the death of 'Q' 'P' has committed
(a) no offence as it is mere preparatory to lay a claim.
(b) no offence till the will is used.
(c) has committed an offence as mere possession of such document in
such circumstances is penal.
(d) None of these.
96. 'A', finds a gold ring on the road, knowing It be the property of T, he having
unknowingly lost it there 'A' picks up the ring and pledges it with a money-
lender to raise a loan. 'A' has committed
(a) dishonest misappropriation of property
(b) criminal breach of trust
(c) theft
(d) no offence
97. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between principal and accessory.
(b) In conspiracy, principal and accessory are distinct.
(c) There has to be a distinction between principal and accessory in all
offences.
(d) None of these
98. If a person sitting across to a girl in public transport deliberately shows a
pornographic picture to her, it amounts to the offence of
(a) voyeurism
(b) sexual assault
(c) sexual harassment
(d) None of these

21
99. 'B' and his girlfriend 'G', both adults, engage in consensual sexual intercourse
in the privacy of the bedroom of the latter and 'B' with her consent prepares a
video clip on his mobile camera and later shows it in total privacy to his friend
'F', it amounts to
(a) stalking
(b) voyeurism
(c) rape
(d) None of these
100. A woman approaches 'X', an officer in charge of a police station and alleges
that her boyfriend tried to forcibly remove her shirt in a dress shop, seeking
legal action to be taken, but 'X' refuses to take note of the Incident and asked
her to file a criminal complaint before a magistrate. Here, 'X' committed a
(a) misconduct but not any penal offence
(b) cognizable offence
(c) non-cognizable offence'
(d) None of these
101. 'S' is found in possession of property reasonably suspected to be stolen by
him and is arrested by 'P', a police officer. 'S' is excited to sudden and violent
passion by the arrest and fires at him but kills 'D' who was standing near 'P',
neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill 'D\ This is
(a) culpable homicide not amounting to murder, because 'S' had been
deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation.
(b) murder, because provocation was given by a thing done by a public
servant in lawful discharge of his powers.
(c) culpable Homicide not amounting to murder, because the death of 'D'
occurred by mistake or accident.
(d) None of these
102. 'A' was sentenced to fine of rupees one thousand and in case of default to
suffer simple imprisonment for six months. He did not pay the fine and was
taken in custody. After six weeks, an amount of rupees one hundred was
realised through warrant for recovery and he further deposited rupees four
hundred the balance remaining unpaid. 'A' would be
(a) entitled to immediate release from custody.
(b) entitled to release as soon as three months elapse.
(c) liable to undergo imprisonment for the period of six months.

22
 (d) entitled to release after such period as the. court may further direct on
such realisation or deposit.
103. The right of private defence of property extends to causing death of the
wrongdoer undei1 certain descriptions. Which one of the following
descriptions is not included in those?
(a) Robbery
(b) House-breaking by night.
(c) Lurking house trespass.
(d) Mischief by fire on any human dwelling.
104. Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is
(a) necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
(b) not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
(c) necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or
knowledge as that of the abettor.
Which of the statements given above represent(s) the correct position of law?
(a) Only (A)
(b) Both (B) and (C)
(c) Only (A)
(d) Only (C)
105. Consider the following statements:
(a) every murder is culpable homicide.
(b) every culpable homicide is murder.
(c) every robbery is either theft or extortion.
(d) every extortion is robbery.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (B) and (D)
106. With respect to the difference between kidnapping from lawful guardianship
and abduction which of the following statements Is correct?
(a) Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a minor or a person of
unsound mind. Abduction is committed in respect of a person of any
age.

23
 (b) In former, the person kidnapped is removed out of lawful guardianship.
Abduction has reference exclusively to the person abducted.
(c) In kidnapping, consent of the person kidnapped or entitled is
immaterial. In abduction, consent of the person moved, if freely and
voluntarily given, condones abduction.
(d) All of these.
107. 'X' along with four other armed associates seizes the child of *Y' and
threatens to kill him unless 'Y' parts with his watch and diamond ring
compelling him to do so. 'X' has committed the offence of
(a) robbery
(b) dacoity
(c) attempt to murder
(d) extortion
108. For the offence of cheating
(a) the person deceived must have been fraudulently or dishonestly
induced to deliver property.
(b) as a consequence of the intentional inducement, damage or harm in
body, mind, reputation or property is caused or likely to be caused to
the person deceived.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) None of these
109. 'A' and 'Z', both adults, agree to engage each other in fencing for amusement.
In course of such fencing, without any foul play, 'A' causes a superficial hurt to
T. Here, 'X'
(a) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon as he attacked 'Z'.
(b) is not guilty as there is an implied consent on the part of '2! to suffer
such harm.
(c) is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
110. In answer to the charge of defamation, which of the following is/are good
defence(s)?
(a) Imputation which is true and published for the public good.
(b) Opinion respecting the conduct of a public servant concerning
discharge of duties of office expressed in good faith.

24
 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
111. Consider the following statement(s).
A police officer has the power to arrest any person without an order from a
magistrate or warrant of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his complicity In a
cognizable offence publishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven
years, provided that he is satisfied for reasons in writing that such arrest is
necessary
(i) to prevent such person from committing any further offence.
(ii) for proper investigation of the offence.
(iii) to prevent such person from tampering with or causing the evidence of
the offence to disappear.
(iv) to compel the absconding co-accused to surrender.
Which of the statements given above are correct? '
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii),(ii), (iii) and(iv)
112. What is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence
which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding three years?
(a) Three years
(b) Five years
(c) Seven years
(d) No limitation
113. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial conducted under the Code
of Criminal Procedure by a magistrate or court.
(b) Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial conducted under the
Code of Criminal Procedure by a magistrate or court
(c) Investigation includes all the proceedings under the Code of Criminal
Procedure for the collection of evidence conducted by a magistrate.
(d) All of these
114. Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of an arrestee.
A person arrested without warrant has the; right to

25
 (i) be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is arrested.
(ii) have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest.
(iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout
interrogation.
(iv) be medically examined by a medical officer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
115. In order to compel appearance of a person who is absconding in spite of a
warrant of arrest being issued against him, his property may be ordered to be
attached simultaneously with issuance of a proclamation under Section 82 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, provided that the court is satisfied that such
person is
(a) about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property.
(b) about to remove the whole or any part , of property from the local
jurisdiction of the Court.
(c) Either condition in (a) or (b) exists.
(d) Both conditions in (a) and (b) co-exist.
116. Which of the following is not an essential search-procedure under Section 100
of Code of Criminal Procedure?
(a) Calling upon two independent and respectable inhabitants of the
locality to witness the search.
(b) Signing of search-memo by the witnesses to search.
(c) Attendance of occupant of the place during the search.
(d) Signature of the accused on the search- list.
117. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under
Section 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure if she
(a) has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried.
(b) is unable to maintain herself.
(c) refused to live with her husband on the ground that he keeps a
mistress.
(d) is living in adultery

26
118. On the non-completion of Investigation, I.e., failure of the prosecution to file
charge sheet within the prescribed period of 90 or 60 days, as given in
Section 167 of Code of Criminal Procedure, the
(a) accused person is to be discharged unconditionally. .
(b) accused person shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does
furnish bail.
(c) right of the accused person to be released on bail could be defeated by
the subsequent filling of the charge sheet under any circumstance.
(d) None of these
119. 'G' a 17 years old girl, was married to 'H' 'H' during the subsistence of the said
marriage entered into another marriage with 'P' The court may take
cognizance for the offence of bigamy, if the complaint brought by
(a) her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her father's or
mother's brother or sister.
(b) any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption, with the
leave of the court.
(c) some other person on her behalf, with leave of court, but where there is
a guardian appointed in her respect, then only after such guardian has
been heard.
(d) All of these
120. 'A' is accused of an act which may amount to theft, or receiving stolen
property or criminal breach trust or cheating. At trial, formal charge is framed
only for the offence of theft. The evidence adduced at trial shows that he
committed the offence of criminal breach of trust. He may be convicted
(a) for the offence of theft only for which formal charge was framed.
(b) for the offence of criminal breach of trust though he was not charged
with such offence.
(c) the trial is vitiated.
(d) None of these.
121. The categories of persons who may, without their consent, be charged and
tried together include persons accused of
(a) different offences committed in the course of the same transaction.
(b) more than one offence of the same kind committed by them within the
period of twelvemonths.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)

27
 (d) Both (a) and (b)
122. 'F', a French National on a tourist visa to India was raped by a group of four
boys, two days prior to her scheduled departure from India. FIR was
registered on her statement and the offfenders were charge-sheeted. On
being summoned by the Court to depose as a, witness during trial, she
refused to come to India on the ground of fear and inconvenience. Which of
the following options is most appropriate for the Trial Court?
(a) Issue non-bailable warrant against 'F' though Ministry of Home Affairs
to compel appearance.
(b) Initiate proceedings for punishment for non-attendance by 'F' under
Section 350, Cr.P.C.
(c) Drop 'F' as a witness and acquit the accused persons.
(d) Issue a Commission for examination of 'F'.
123. 'A' was acquitted of the charge for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by
throwing acid on 'X', as the victim did not support the police version about
involvement of 'A' in the incident, through grievous hurt by acid was proved.
'X' seeks compensation from the Trial Court. The Trial Court may
(a) dismiss the claim because the accused was acquitted.
(b) dismiss the claim because the victim turned hostile during trial.
(c) consider making recommendation to the State Legal Services Authority
for compensation to victim.
(d) direct the accused to pay compensation to the victim on humanitarian
grounds.
124. 'A' faced trial for cheating 'Z' by dishonestly inducing him to lend money by
knowingly pledging fake diamonds. 'Z' died during trial and was survived by a
son 'X'. 'X' moved an application in the Trial Court to compound the offence.
Which of the following is the correct legal preposition?
(a) 'X' is not competent to compound the offence.
(b) On the death of complainant 'Z', the trial proceedings shall abate.
(c) Court cannot entertain such an application after death of the
complainant.
(d) 'X' can compound the offence with the consent of the Court.
125. Who can file an application for Plea- Bargaining in the court in which an
offence is pending for trial?
(a) The Public Prosecutor

28
 (b) The victim of the offence
(c) The Investigating Officer
(d) None of these
126. A criminal court, at conclusion of trial, may order
(a) restoration of possession of immovable property to the person who had
been dispossessed therefrom by use of criminal force or by criminal
intimation by the person convicted.
(b) the destruction of pornographic material in respect of which conviction
was recorded.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
127. A Metropolitan Magistrate may release an accused on bail in non-bailable
offence except in following case(s) if
(a) there are reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of
an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life.
(b) there are reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of a
cognizable offence and he has been previously convicted of an offence
punishable with imprisonment for seven years.
(c) he had been previously convicted on two or more occasions of a
cognisable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years.
(d) All of these
128. In computing the period of limitation, the period which may be excluded
includes the
(a) time during which any person has been prosecuting with due diligence
another prosecution on the same facts, in good faith and in a court
without jurisdiction.
(b) period for which the prosecution in respect of such offence has been
stayed by an injunction or order.
(c) period during which the application of the accused for release on bail
was pending.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
129. The proceedings before a criminal court are vitiated if the presiding magistrate
who is not empowered by law to do so
(a) issues search warrant erroneously but in good faith.

29
 (b) holds inquest under section 176 of Code of Criminal Procedure
erroneously but in good faith.
(c) tries an offender summarily.
(d) All of these
130. Prosecution of a case involving misappropriation of property belonging to the
Central Government can be withdrawn by
(a) any public Prosecutor on the direction of the State Government.
(b) the Public Prosecutor appointed by the Central Government on the
direction of the State Government.
(c) the Public Prosecutor appointed by the State Government on
permission granted by the Central Government.
(d) any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the Central Government.
131. Consider the following statement(s): A 'decree' means and includes
(i) formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the court
expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with
regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit.
(ii) any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.
(iii) any order of dismissal of suit for default.
(iv) rejection of plaint.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii)and(iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) All these
132. Which is the correct essential conditions for applicability of the rule of sub
judice?
(a) The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and
substantially in issue in the previous suit.
(b) The parties must be litigating under the same title in both the suits.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
133. The expression 'former suit' in the context of rule of res judicata means a suit
which has been
(a) instituted prior to the suit in question.

30
 (b) decided prior to the suit in question.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
134. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) A suit for recovery of immovable property shall be instituted in the court
in whose jurisdiction the property is situated.
(b) A suit for partition of immovable property shall be instituted in the court
in whose jurisdiction the defendant resides or works for gain.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
135. Consider the following statement(s).
(i) A defendant may set up, by way of a counter-claim against the claim of
the plaintiff any right or claim in respect of the cause of action accruing to him.
(ii) The counter-claim may be submitted by the defendant even after he
has delivered his defence.
(iii) The counter-claim shall not exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the
court. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) All these
136. Which of the following statements (s) incorrect?
(a) A representative suit may be instituted by one or more persons for the
benefit of all interested persons with the permission of the court.
(b) Notice of the institution of a representative suit must be given by public
advertisement at the plaintiff's expense to all interested persons
whereby reason of their number, personal service is not reasonably
practicable.
(c) Any person for whose benefit a representative suit has been instituted
may apply to join as a party thereto.
(d) The person(s) who instituted the suit or person(s) who joined as party
have unrestricted right to compromise with the defendant.
137. Where the defendant is absent at the time when service of summons is
sought to be effected on him at his residence, there being no likelihood of his

31
 availability within reasonable time and in absence of an empowered agent,
the service may be made on
(a) any adult male member of his family.
(b) any adult female member of his family.
(c) a servant engaged by the defendant at his residence.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
138. A suit may be dismissed where
(a) summons are not served on the defendant in consequence of the
failure of the plaintiff to take proper steps like filing of court fee, postal
charges or requisite number of copies of plaint.
(b) neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing.
(c) plaintiff, after summons to defendant has returned unserved, fails to
apply for fresh summons for seven days.
(d) All these
139. Consider the following statements.
Admissions for forming the basis of judgment may be secured from the
opposite party to a civil suit by way of notice
(i) of admission of the case
(ii) to admit documents
(iii) to admit facts Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) None of these
(b) All these
(c) Only (i) and (ii)
(d) Only (ii) and (iii)
140. When a civil suit reaches the stage of hearing and examination of witnesses
(a) the plaintiff has the right to begin.
(b) if the defendant admits the facts alleged by the plaintiff and contends
that on some additional facts alleged by the defendant, the plaintiff is
not entitled to any relief, the defendant has the right to begin.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Where issues both of law and of fact arise and if the court is of opinion
that the case may be disposed of on an issue relating to jurisdiction, it

32
 may postpone the settlement of other issues until after the issue of
jurisdiction has been determined.
(b) Where a suit may be disposed of on preliminary issue, the court need
not pronounce judgment on other issues settled in the case.
(c) The preliminary issue may relate to a bar to the suit created and law for
the time being in force.
(d) None of these
142. Which of the following statements Is correct?
The court which passed the decree may transfer it to another competent court
if the
(a) judgment debtor carries on business within the jurisdiction of the latter
court.
(b) judgment debtor has no property within the jurisdiction of the former
court sufficient to satisfy such decree but has property within the
jurisdiction of the latter court.
(c) decree directs the sale of immovable property situated outside the local
jurisdiction of the former court.
(d) All these.
143. A money decree may be executed by
(a) attachment and sale of any property of the judgment debtor.
(b) arrest and detention in prison of the judgment debtor for indefinite
period.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
144. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) No suit, not involving urgent or immediate relief, may be instituted
against the Central Government except after serving a notice of two
months.
(b) A decree against the Union of India may not be executed unless it
remains unsatisfied for a period of three months.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.
145. Which of the following statements is correct?

33
 (a) Where on the death of a defendant the right to sue survivors against
the other surviving defendant alone, the case may proceed against the
surviving defendant.
(b) Where on the death of a defendant the right to sue does not survive
against the other surviving defendant alone, the case (shall abate
against the deceased defendant if no application is made within the
time limited by law for the legal representative of the deceased
defendant to be made a party.
(c) There shall be no abatement by reason of death of either party
between the conclusion of the hearing and the pronouncing of the
judgment.
(d) All these.
146. In the context of withdrawal of suit, which is the correct statement?
(a) If the Court is satisfied that a Suit must fail by reason of some formal
defect, the plaintiff may be allowed to ; withdraw the suit with liberty to
institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter.
(b) If the plaintiff withdraws from a suit without permission of the court he
may bring fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter.
(c) If there are more than one plaintiffs, one of them may withdraw the suit
without the consent of other plaintiffs.
(d) All these.
147. Which is the correct statement in context of summary procedure for civil suits?
(a) May be invoked for recovery of a liquidated demand in money payable
by the defendant arising out a written contract.
(b) May be applied suo motu by any civil court in its discretion in the
interest of expeditious adjudication.
(c) Requires the defendant to seek leave to defend which, if granted, must
be unconditional.
(d) All these statements are not correct.
148. In case of breach of any of the terms on which temporary injunction was
granted, the court may order
(a) the person in breach to be detained in civil prison for indefinite period
but not after the breach has ceased.

34
 (b) attachment of the property of the person in breach and, if the breach
continues for more than one year, sell the attached property and award
the entire sale proceeds to the injured party as compensation.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
149. The leave may be granted by the civil court to deliver interrogatories
(a) only to the defendant since the plaintiff is the master of the suit.
(b) even if they relate to matters not in question in the suit.
(c) notwithstanding the objection taken by the opposite party.
(d) if it considers the same necessary for disposing of the case fairly.
150. A decree becomes final when
(a) it conclusively determined the right of the parties.
(b) no appeal has been preferred against the decree.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Directions (Questions 151-153): In each of these questions, choose the pair
from the options that is similar in relationship to the one expressed in the
given pair.
151. SCULPTOR : CHISEL ::
(a) Time: Seconds
(b) Tailor: Needle
(c) Pathology: Disease
(d) Engineer: Site
152. WRIST:WATCH ::
(a) Buckle: Belt
(b) Shoes: Socks
(c) Neck: Chain
(d) Cuff: Cufflinks
153. CONSTELLATION: STAR ::
(a) Center: Circle
(b) Earth: Moon
(c) Rain: Water
(d) Archipelago: Islands

35
 Directions (Questions 154-156): In each of these questions, choose the
meaning of the idioms and phrases.
154. Stand on ceremony
(a) Casual approach
(b) Act with reserve
(c) Lead from front
(d) None of these
155. Show a clean pair of heals to run away
(b) To confront
(c) Obsessed with cleanliness
(d) Ready to serve
156. The gift of the gab
(a) Beyond control
(b) To blunder
(c) A talent for speaking
(d) Lovable
Directions (Question 157-159): Choose the word that is similar in meaning to
the word given.
157. INUNDATE
(a) Invite
(b) To flood
(c) Immediate
(d) Fragile
158. QUIBBLE
(a) Surrender
(b) Play
(c) Petty objection
(d) Fidget
159. ZANY
(a) Imitator
(b) Intelligent
(c) Thinker
(d) Enthusiastic

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 Directions (Questions 160-162): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning
to the word given.
160. PROBITY
(a) Trust
(b) Deception
(c) Permit
(d) Support
161. INTOLERABLE
(a) Extreme
(b) Offensive
(c) Bearable
(d) Impossible
162. LUSTROUS
(a) Slippery
(b) Bright
(c) Lopsided
(d) Dreary Directions
(Questions 163-165): Fill in the blank(s) with appropriate pronoun(s).
163. Ritu has eaten her lunch already, but I am saving............until later.
(a) her
(b) hers
(c) mine
(d) my
164. We gave them............telephone number, and they gave us............
(a) our, theirs
(b) ours, theirs
(c) our, their
(d) ours, their
165. ............ pen is broken. ............Can I borrow
(a) Mine, yours
(b) My, yours
(c) Your, mine
(d) Yours, mine

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 Directions (Questions 166-168): Complete the sentence with the most
appropriate word from the given choices.
166. Outgoing and............by nature, Kavita became even more gregarious at the
school party.
(a) affable
(b) reclusive
(c) solitary
(d) withdrawn
167. The Health Ministry rejected the drug because the tests conducted for toxicity
showed............result on the patients.
(a) non-toxic
(b) harmful
(c) healthy
(d) toxic
168. The District Collector............the Minister about the flood situation.
(a) appraised
(b) acquainted
(c) apprised
(d) provided
Directions (Questions 169-171): Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.
169. Don't loiter............the street.
(a) over
(b) about
(c) across
(d) above
170. He rules............a vast empire.
(a) over
(b) about
(c) across
(d) above
171. The noise comes from............the river.
(a) over
(b) about

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 (c) across
(d) above
Directions (Questions 172-175): Complete the sentence with the correct
adjective from the given choices.
172. I have not heard the ............ news.
(a) later
(b) latter
(c) latest
(d) last
173. He is............than I expected.
(a) later
(b) latter
(c) latest
(d) last
174. The............chapters are lacking in interest.
(a) later
(b) latter
(c) latest
(d) last
175. Ours is the............house in the street.
(a) later
(b) latter
(c) latest
(d) last
176. The first cellular phone service in India was introduced by
(a) Bharti Airtel
(b) Modi Telstra
(c) Motorola
(d) Reliance Telecommunications
177. Rapid Action Force, a Central Armed Force was raised on October 7,1992 to
(a) suppress communal and. inter-caste riots anywhere in India.
(b) protect public property.
(c) rescue human lives in the time of natural calamities.

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 (d) All these.
178. The first indigenously built submarine to join the Indian Navy was
(a) INS Vikrant
(b) Shaktimaan
(c) INS Shalki
(d) Vajra
179. The US whistle blower Edward Snowden has been granted asylum by
(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) Pakistan
180. Who is known as the Iron Lady of Manipur?
(a) MaryKom
(b) Binalakshami Nepram
(c) Nalini Bala Devi
(d) Irom Sharmila
181. The first Indian to receive the Grammy Life Time Achievement Award is
(a) A.R. Rehman
(b) SatyajitRay
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(d) Anoushka Shankar
182. Human hair is made of the same substance as
(a) finger nails
(b) teeth
(c) bones
(d) muscles
183. The thyroid cartilage is commonly known as
(a) Window's peak.
(b) Adam's apple.
(c) Newton's apple.
(d) None of these
184. The smallest particle of an element which is capable of taking part in a
chemical reaction is

40
 (a) molecule
(b) nucleus
(c) atom
(d) matter
185. The year 2014 is observed by the United Nations as the International Year of
(a) Small Island Developing States
(b) Crystallography
(c) Family Farming
(d) All these
186. India's National Coral Reef Research Centre Is located at
(a) Kavaratti
(b) Port Blair
(c) Minicoy
(d) Calicut
187. Kaziranga National Park famous for one- horned rhinos is situated in
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
188. The planet with largest moon is
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
189. Mariana Trench, the deepest part of the ocean lies in the
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
190. The Imaginary lines drawn out on the global map, from poles to poles and
perpendicular to the equator are called
(a) Latitudes
(b) Tropics

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 (c) Longitudes
(d) Meridians
191. Which is the only country in the world that won its independence because of a
slave revolt?
(a) America
(b) South Africa
(c) Haiti
(d) Italy
192. Which is the first state to achieve 100% sanitation in rural and urban
households?
(a) Kerala
(b) Sikkim
(c) Gujarat
(d) Madhya Pradesh
193. Which book was withdrawn by Penguin India from the Indian market following
an out of court settlement?
(a) Hinduism: Beliefs & Practices
(b) The Hindu Mind
(c) Hindutva: Exploring the Idea of Hindu Nationalism
(d) The Hindus: An Alternative History
194. 2013 All India Football Federation (AIFF) Award for "The Player of the Year"
was given to
(a) Jeje Lalpekhlua
(b) Pratap Singh
(c) Biplab Poddar
(d) SunilChhetri
195. Who is the Chairperson of the 20th Law Commission of India?
(a) Justice D.K.Jain
(b) Justice A.R. Lakshmanan
(c) Justice A.P. Shah
(d) Justice Santosh Hegde
196. The Supreme Court dismissed the petition filed by the Swiss Firm Novartis for
protection of patent of

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 (a) Cancer fighting drug
(b) Diabetes fighting drug
(c) AIDS fighting drug
(d) Tuberculosis fighting drug.
197. Name the sport with which Calcutta Cup Trophy is associated.
(a) Football
(b) Rugby Union
(c) Cricket
(d) Badminton
198. The fastest super computer of the world is
(a) K computers
(b) Cray XK7
(c) Sequoia
(d) Tianhe-2
199. Who was the first woman Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(a) Puneeta Arora
(b) Kanchan Chaudhary
(c) Deepak Sandhu
(d) Harita Kaur Dayal
200. The 61st National Film Award for the "Best Feature Film" was given to
(a) Shahid
(b) Ship of Theseus
(c) Fandry
(d) Bhaag Milkha Bhaag

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