Psychological Assessment

1. Which is the most widely accepted significance level for demonstrating

significance (rejecting null hypothesis) in research results?
(A) .5
(B) .05
(C) 95%
(D) 5%
(E) .1
2. If you record the heights and weights of a group of students, the data
collected is
(A) Ordinal
(B) Discrete
(C) Continuous
(D) Modal
(E) Random
3. The probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected when it is in fact true
is called a (an)
(A) Type II error
(B) Type I error
(C) Systematic error
(D) Experimental error
(E) Random error
4. Intelligence tests are not Considered reliable
(A) Not standardized
(B) Before seven years of age
(C) Before puberty
(D) Before twenty years of age
(E) None of the above
5. A "positively skewed" distribution is
(A) A Distribution that has a few extremely high value
(B) A distribution that has a few extremely low value
(C) A flat distribution, with wide dispersion of value
(D) A distribution that is very peaked and leptokurtic
(E) A distribution that is both flat and leptokurtic
6. Which of the following is no longer considered a scientific method
appropriate for psychology?
(A) Non-parametric statistics
(B) introspection
(C) Multiple case study
(D) Parametric statistics
(E) Hypothesis testing
7. A clinical psychologist wants to study language acquisition and
development. He studies five children over a 5-year period. This psychologist
is performing a
(A) Longitudinal study
(B) Case study
(C) Factor analysis
(D) Correlation study
(E) Duration study
8. By obtaining two scores with just one test administered in 10-day interval, a
researcher achieves
(A) Test-retest reliability
03) Alternate reliability
(C) Split-half reliability
(p) parallel reliability
(E) Internal consistency
9. A psychologist wants to determine if there is a significant difference in the
L.Q. sores of first year and second year students. He would use
(A) A t-test for independent means
(B) A t-test for dependent means
(C) Chi-square
(D) A factorial design
(E) The Pearson
10. A between-subjects design is less efficient than a within-subjects design
because
(A) it has more subjects
(B) It has less validity
(C) It is reliable
(D) It can test an assumption or hypothesis
(E) It must deal with differences among subjects
11. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) A factorial design is not based on analysis of variance.
(B) Analysis of covariance is not related to correlation.
(C) Correlation is related to predictability in methodology.
(D) The range of correlation coefficients is -.04 to +.04.
(E) Both (B) and (C).
12. The publication of which psychological test served as a catalyst for the
earl, international growth of the field of psychological measurement?
(A) The WISC a
(B) The Binet Test of Intelligence
(C) The Rorschach Inkblot Test
(D) The MMPI
(E) The DAPT
13. The biggest boost to the new assessment enterprise in the United States
arose from the need to identify:
(A) School children who were underachieving in Paris.
(B) The selection of immigrants from Europe.
(C) Entrepreneurial talent for the industrial Revolution.
(D) Apprentices for workers in the building and construction industry.
(E) Competent recruits for the military during World War I.
14. Testing is to assessment as is to
(A) Blood test; physical exam
(B) Blood test; X-ray
(C) WISC; intelligence
(D) Selection; placement
(E) Test-retest; Reliability
15. Dynamic assessment
(A) Is designed to explore unconscious motivational mechanisms that affect the
personality.
(B) Is used effectively in selecting possible managerial position.
(C) Was first introduced in Sigmund Freud's Interpretation of Dreams.
(D) Can be used an alternative to dream analysis in patients Who report
hallucination.
(E) Can provide information about an assessee's ability to gain from intervention.
16. Which is an example of biofeedback instrumentation that can be used as a
tool of psychological assessment?
(A) The stress ball
(B) The adjustable light beam apparatus
(C) The memory drum
(D) The penile plethysmograph
(E) A pin light
17. A psychologist, wishing to study the behaviour of prisoners, arranges to
dress up as a prison guard so that he can stand in the recreation area and
study unobtrusively the actions and interactions of the inmates. The
psychologist is employing which of the following research tools?
(A) Quasi-experimental
(B) Naturalistic observation
(C) Correlational research
(D) Random Sampling
(E) Case study
18. An educational psychologist is administering a basic skills exam to
second-graders of two students' performance. The researcher different
schools in order to compare the student administers the exam to the students
of Sasa Elementary School on a Wednesday morning, and then administers
the same exam in exactly the same fashion on that same Wednesday
afternoon to the second-graders of the Crossing Bayabas Elementary school
following best identifies Elementary School. Which of the followings a
confounding variable in this research?
(A) The psychologist is comparing two different school’s performance using two
different scoring system.
(B) The psychologist is comparing the same grade in each school.
(C) psychologist is testing the students in the two schools at two different times.
(D) The psychologist is testing the students in the two schools on the same day.
(E) The psychologist is administering a basic skills exam with two different test
administrators.
19. The primary method of research employed by scientist adopting a
behaviorist perspective
(A) clinical observation
(B) case study
(C) naturalistic observation
(D) cross-cultural comparison
(E) experimentation

20. In the Harlow study of emotional attachment, infant monkeys were placed
in a cage and given both a "wire" mother and a "cloth" mother. Researchers
then moved a bottle of milk from one mother to the other while introducing
various stimuli to see if the monkeys would form an attachment to either of the
"mothers". In this experiment the independent variable is
(A) the placement of the bottle of milk
(B) the "wire" mother versus the "cloth" mother
(C) the preference of the infants for the source of milk
(D) the preference of the infants for the "wire" mother
(E) the preference of the infants for the "cloth" mother
21. Which BEST describes the purpose of the inquiry stage of the
administration of the Rorschach test?
(A) to encourage subjects to change responses that are unacceptable
(B) to give the examiner the opportunity for verbal interaction with the subject
(C) to provide extended time for observing the subject under the stress of having to
recall initial responses
(D) to obtain additional information about stimuli that played a role in formulating the
percept
(E) None of these
22. Which of the following is the best example of a categorical variable?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Monthly income
(C) Optimism
(D) Sex
(E) Personality
23. A researcher wished to study the impact of classical music on memory in
children. She therefore randomly selected two groups of children. One group
was asked to read and later to recall lists of words while soft classical music
played in the background. The second group «as asked to read and recall list
of words with no background music playing.
The control group in this experiment is the group that
(A) the researcher expected to demonstrate greater memory
(B) demonstrated greater memory though recalling more words
(C) demonstrated lesser memory through recalling fewer words
(D) read the lists of words while classical music played in the background
(E) read the lists of words with no background music playing

24. Rey's IQ score is in the 97th percentile. Of the following, which score is
more likely his?
(A) 85
(B) 100
(C) 130
(D) 150
(E) 170
25, Informed consent
(A) Every adult person has the right to decide what can and cannot be done to his or
her n body.
(B) Assumes a person can make informed decisions about own health.
(C) Hay e a right to information about their treatment and any procedures to be
performed.
(D) Know, the inherent risks and benefits.
(E) all of the above
26, Dr. Key es, a psychologist, wants to determine whether one group of 12-
year-old girls' I.Q score differ significantly from that of a second group of 12-
year-old boys. He would use
(A) A t-test for two independent means.
(B) A t-test for sample and population means.
(C) Chi-square.
(D) A factorial design.
(E) The Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient.
27. In drug research, a control group, consisting of subjects administered a
"fake" drug with no active ingredients, is usually included. This "fake" drug is
known as a
(A) Intervention
(B) Null drug
(C) Blind drug
(D) Experimental drug
(E) None of the above
28. A reliable test
(A) is always valid
(B) measures what it purports to measure
(C) correlates positively with its validity
(E) determines the appropriateness of the instrument
(D) yields consistent results
29. test that can accurately and effectively divide extraverts from introverts is
said to have
(A) test-retest reliability
(B) internal consistency
(C) divergent validity
(D) convergent validity
(E) discriminant validity
30. The diagnostic criteria for intellectual development disorder emphasize the
need for an assessment of both
(A) Adaptive functioning & Cognitive Capacity
(B) Language Skills & Adaptive Functioning
(C) Cognitive Capacity & Social Skills
(D) Interpersonal skills & Cognitive Capacity (E) Abstract reasoning
31. Performance assessments
(A) provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their strengths
and weaknesses.
(B) involve a thorough background check with previous employers.
(C) provide a job-related sample of behavior.
(D) are usually not standardized
(E) all of the above
32. It is a procedure of adjusting test scores to reflect individual's level of
performance within a group is referred to as
(A) racial bias
(B) reverse discrimination
(C) norming
(D)) intercept bias
(E) validity
33. Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?
(A) Myers
(B) Strong
(C) Bray
(D) Mooney
(E) Binet
34. An individual being evaluated for employment as a forklift operator is
asked to put himself in a situation where he needs to maneuver the vehicle
and place big boxes in its proper places. This sort of evaluation is best
described as:
(A) role play
(B) portfolio analysis
(C) an interview
(D) behavioral observation
(E) Internet testing
35. A panel interview is a tool of assessment most likely to be employed by:
(A) clinical psychologists
(B) educators
(C) human resource professionals
(D) entry-level neuropsychologists
(E) psychiatrists
36. How did the work of Wundt differ from that of Galton, Binet, and James
McKeen Cattell?
(A) Wundt used standardized psychological tests.
(B) Wundt utilized humans and not animal research subjects.
(C) Wundt focused on how individuals were the same rather than different.
(D)) Wundt focused on how individuals were different rather than the same.
(E) All of the above
36. How did the work of Wundt differ from that of Galton, Binet, and James
McKeen Cattell?
(A) Wundt used standardized psychological tests.
(B) Wundt utilized humans and not animal research subjects.
(C) Wundt focused on how individuals were the same rather than different.
(D) Wundt focused on how individuals were different rather than the same. (E) All of
the above
37. Which statistic Conveys the LEAST precise measure of dispersion?
(A) range
(B) variance
(C) standard deviation
(D) semi-interquartile range
(E) all of the above
38. If the standard deviation of a set of test scores is equal to 25, the variance
is equal to:
(A) 625
(B) 5
(C) 5
(D) 123
(E) 125
39. A histogram is a
(A) graph with vertical lines drawn at each class interval.
(B) frequency distribution with horizontal lines at each class interval.
(C) a graphic illustration from history with ratio level data.
(D) graph that describes the distribution of the raw scores and the standard
deviation.
(E) graph that displays the skewness of the distribution.
40. There are 100 scores in a distribution of test scores and the average
deviation (AD) is 12, The AD of 12 tells us that the 100 scores in this
distribution varied, on average:
(A) 12 points from the mean.
(B) 12 points from each other.
(C) 12 points from 100.
(D) 12 points less from 100
(E) None of these
41. Thinking about people in history who are credited with the development of
what is no called "the normal curve," which name does NOT belong?
(A) Abraham DeMoivre
(B) Marquis de Laplace
(C) W. A. McCall
(D) Karl Friedrich Gauss
(E) all of the above
42. The purpose of the "Q-technique" is
(A) to measure accurate norms of population.
(B) item analysis in factorial designs.
(C) to measure the correlation between language and behavior.
(D) to measure a person's opinion of himself.
(E) to measure correlation between X and Y variables.
43. In a cross-sectional study, the researcher examines
(A) Subjects over extended periods of time.
(B) Different subjects at different developments levels.
(C) Different cultural groups of comparison.
(D) The dynamics of relationships with family members'
(E) Both A and B
44. The distribution of scores for "Math Test" scores results in a meant of 75
and a standard deviation of8. Here, a score equal to 2 standard deviations
above the mean would be:
(A) 72
(B) 82
(C) 84
(D) 91
(E) 100
45. Approximately what percentage of scores in a normal distribution falls
between the mean and 1 standard deviation above and below the mean?
(A) 34%
(B) 68%
(C) 95%
(D) less than 1%
(E) 14%
46. T scores have a mean of __________ and a standard deviation
of____________
(A) 20; 10
(B) 50; 10
(C) 100; 15
(D) 100; 10
(E) 500; 100
47. Joy received a z score of 0.5 on an exam. Sarah received a T score of 60 on
that same exam. What can be said about their relative performance on the
exam?
(A) There is not enough information to Compare Joy's and Sarah's exam scores.
(B) Sarah received a higher raw score than Joy on the exam.
(C) Joy received a higher raw score than Sarah on the exam.
(D) The two test-takers actually received the same score on the exam.
(E) All of the above
48. Which of the following is an advantage of the stanine score over oilier
standard scores?
(A) It It has greater reliability because it is a single digit.
(B) has greater validity because of its three decimal places.
(C) It is easily manipulated because it is a single digit.
(D) It has greater precision because of its three decimal places.
(E) all of the above
49. Which of the following is TRUE about error in psychological measurement?
(A) As with other fields, error is synonymous with "mistake."
(B) Error only refers to deliberate misrepresentation of results rather than careless in
measurement.
(C) Error is an expected component of measurement.
(D) Err or can be eliminated only by care and vigilance.
(E) Error is the intentional use of inappropriate measurement.
50. One scale at the local supermarket consistently, without fail, measures
everything that is placed on it exactly one gram more than its actual weight. As
a tool of measurement, it can be said that this scale is:
(A) valid
(B) reliable
(C) unreliable
(D) acceptable
(E) standardized
51. When "doing a pilot test" and asking whether or not a particular instrument
should be used for a particular objective, questions to be asked include:
(A) What is the objective in using this test?
(B) Who is this test designed for use with?
(C) What variable the test measures?
(D) How is the variable which the test measures defined?
(E) All of the above
52. Factors affecting the generalizability of findings from a particular test
include:
(A) the wording of items on the test.
(B) the norm group used in the development of a test.
(C) the degree to which the experts agree to the directions provided in the test
manual.
(D) the reliability and validity indices.
(E) all of these
53. Which of the following is TRUE of the Pearson r?
(A) It has a distribution that approximates the tetrachoric r if the data are not linear.
(B)It is legitimately used only when the two variables are linear.
(C) Pearson actually had very little to do with its development. It can never be larger
than the Spearman rho if the data represent two true dichotomies.
(E) It can be positive or negative.
54. If an outlier exists in graphed test-related data it may signal:
(A) a problem in the wording of one of the test questions.
(B) the need to re-administer the test.
(C) it's a serious mistake in the test's design.
(D) need to review the factors of the test
(E) Both and C
55. the Stanford-Binet test of intelligence would assign an IQ to a child -who is
chronologically years old and mentally 10 years old?
(A) 50
(13) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
(E) 250
56, Which of the following is NOT a projective test?
(A) Inkblot
(B) TAT
(C) Draw-a-Person
(D) MMPI
(E) Rorschach
57. Test-retest and ________________test are techniques for assessing the
_________________of the psychological.
(A) Split-half, reliability
(B) Split-half, validity
(C) Item analysis
(D) Item analysis, validity
(E) Correlation, significance
58. Which of the following is an argument against the use of multiple-choice
tests?
(A) They rarely have predictive validity.
(B) Only creative people do well on multiple choice tests.
(C) When asked to explain their choices, people give odd and incorrect reasons for
why they selected the correct choice.
(D) Recognition of the correct answer is often harder than recalling it.
(E) They are more expensive to administer than alternative formats.
59. Which of the following is NOT a way to detect or prevent lying or cheating
on the MMPI?
(A) Empirically keyed scoring
(B) Forced choice techniques
(C) Use bizarre questions as lures
(D) Use of psychopathic deviance scale
(E) All of the above detect lying
60. Relating to Lawshe's Content Validity Ratio (CVR), if half of the panelists
rated a given. item on a test as representing an essential skill required on the
job, the item would be s to possess:
(A) Empirically keyed scoring
(B) Forced choice techniques
(C) Use bizarre questions as lures
(D) Use of psychopathic deviance scale
(E) All of the above detect lying
60. Relating to Lawshe's Content Validity Ratio (CVR), if half of the panelists
rated a given item on a test as representing an essential skill required on the
job, the item would be said to possess:
(A) negative CVR.
(B) zero CVR.
(C) positive CVR.
(D) it depends on how many panelists there are.
(E) all of the above
61. A rater systematically assigns ratings in the middle range, thus avoiding
extremely positive and negative ratings. Which type of error best characterizes
this rater's ratings?
(A) leniency error
(B) central tendency error
(C) severity error
(D) halo effect
(E) type 2 error
62. Which term is used to refer to the tendency of a rater to evaluate ratees
higher than they objectively deserve because of the rater's inability to
discriminate between aspects of the ratee's behavior?
(A) halo effect
(B) random error
(C) generosity error
(D) severity error
(E) systematic error
63. A statistically insignificant correlation between scores on a new test of
depression and a well-established measure of satisfaction with life may be
construed as which type of validity evidence for the test of depression?
(A) criterion-related validity
(B) content validity
(C) convergent evidence of construct validity
(D) discriminant evidence of construct validity
(E) none of these
64.If a test is a valid measure of a particular construct, we would expect that:
(A) groups of people who differ %lilt' respect to the construct will obtain different test
scores
(B) groups of people who differ with respect to the construct obtain similar test
scores.
(C) groups of people who obtain similar scores will have similar personalities.
(D) both A and 13
(E) none of these
65. Which is an example of a false positive in the context of employee
selection?
(A) hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the employment test
went on to fail on the job
(B) hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the employment test
went on to succeed on the job
(C) rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the employment test
were rejected but would have gone on to succeed on the job had they been given a
chance
(D) rejected applicants who scored below the, cut-off score on the employment test
were rejected but went on to succeed at another, totally different job.
(E) none of the above
66. The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the degree to which a test
score is correlated with a criterion measure obtained at the same time that the
test score Was obtained is known as:
(A) predictive validity
(B) construct validity
(C) concurrent validity
(D) content validity
(E) face a validity
67. Predict-he and concurrent validity can be subsumed under:
(A) content validity.
(B) criterion-related validity.
(C) face validity
(D) true score validity
(E) none of these
68. Which) is NOT a method of evaluating the validity of a test?
(A) evaluating scores on the test to scores obtained on other tests
(B) evaluating the content of the test
(C) evaluating the percentage of passing and failing grades on the test
(D) evaluating test scores as they relate to predictions from a particular theory
(E) all of the above
69. Describing what you see in a series of inkblots represents a (an)
______________ personality test.
(A) Structured
(B) Trait
(C) MMPI
(D) Objective
(E) Projective
70. Dr. Ramos wants to study how I.Q., age and sex affect reading speed. be
subjects will he equal numbers of males and females, ages thirty or sixty, and
either have an 1.Q of average and above average. The statistical design for this
study is
(A) Two factor.
(B) Six factor.
(C) Three factor.
(D) Nine factor.
(E) Eight factor.
71. Gordon Allport preferred which of the following methods in his personality
research?
(A) Factorial design
(B) Nomothetic method
(C) Phenomenological approach
(D) Ideographic method
(E) Both B and C
72.in a positively skewed distribution, which of the following gives the correct
relative sequence from left to right of central tendency measures?
(A) Mode, median, mean
(B) Mean, median, mode
(C) Mean, median, and mode are all the same point.
(D)) Median, mode, mean
(E) Not enough information is given to determine the sequence.
73.0f the following projective tests, which is the MOST widely used?
(A) the Rorschach Inkblot Test
(B) the Holtzman Inkblot Test
C) the Thematic Apperception Test
(D) the Draw- A-Person Test
(E) the Children's Apperception Test
74. In order to produce effects in experiments, researchers manipulate
(A) Subjects
(B) Dependent variables
(C) independent variables
(D) Test variables
(E) Statistics
75. Which of the following correlation values is the best predictor for a
relationship between? X and Y?
(A) -.70
(B) +.60
(C) +30
(D) .10
(E) +7,0
76. A measure of variability based upon the differences between each score
and the mean is the
(A) Standard deviation
(B) Sampling error
(C) Z-score
(D) Range
(E) T-score
77. Which of the following is the correct formula for a measure of intelligence
quotient in Children? [note: C.A. --- Chronological Age, M.A. = Mental Age]
 C.A
(A) I.Q. = *10
M.A
C.A
(B) I.Q. = *50
M.A
CA
(C) I.Q. = * 100
M.A
C.A
(D) I.Q. = * 50
M.A
MA
(E) I.Q. = * 100
C.A
78. Which of the following is not characteristic of MMPI?
(A) It was developed within a specific theoretical framework
(B) It consists of ten clinical scales
(C) It contains validity scales
(D) It employs a self-report method of answering questions
(E) It is a type of personality test
79. A psychologist is studying the relationship between verbal learning and
mode of presentation. Upon analyzing the data, the psychologist finds a
correlation of +1.50. on the basis of this correlation, he would conclude that
there is a
(A) Strong positive correlation
(B) Strong negative correlation
(C) Computational error
(D) Low negative correlation
(E) Low positive correlation
80. To Convert a standard deviation into a variance, one must
(A) Take the square root of the standard deviation.
(B) Multiply the standard deviation by 1/X.
(C) Divide the standard deviation by X.
(D) Square the standard deviation.
(E) Multiply the standard deviation by 1/X
81. Performance =7 Expectancy x value is the symbolic representation of 11
which theorist
(A) C. Hull
(B) E. Tolman
(C) D McClelland
(D). Miller
(E) L. Festinger
82. One type of test validity is
(A) The extent to which a test measures theoretical construct
(B) The degree of thoroughness in a test
(C) The extent to which repetitions of a test results in the same score
(D) The degree to Which subjects find a test valid
(E) The effectiveness of a test
83. Extreme scores in a distribution most dramatically affect the
(A) T-score
(B) Mode
(C) Mean
(D) Median
(E) Z-score
84. What percent of the SAT scores fall between 500 and 600?
(A) 50
(B) 68%
(C) 14%
(D) 34%
(E) 98%
85. Which researcher developed the Culture Fair Intelligence Test?
(A) Spearman
(B) Raven
(C) Cattell
(D) Wechsler
(E) Rorschach
86. All of the following are example of popularly administered cross-cuttL1rat
tests EXCEPT the
(A) Leiter International Performance Scale
(B) Culture Fair Test
(C) Progressive Matrices
(D) Good enough Draw-A-Man Test
(E) All of the above
86. All of the following are example of popularly administered cross-cultural
tests EXCEPT the
(A) Leiter International Performance Scale
(B) Culture Fair Test
(C) Progressive Matrices
(D) Good enough Draw-A-Man Test
(E) All of the above
87. According to the Central Limit Theorem, which of the following is true?
(A) A frequency distribution may have two modes.
(B) A different chi-square distribution exists for each number of df
(C) A statistical analysis involving comparison of variance is incomplete.
(D) Sampling distribution of the mean approaches the normal distribution in shape as
sample size increases.
(E) There must be a standard deviation of -1.0 or +1.0.
88. An I.Q. range of 20-35 would indicate what degree of retardation
(A) Mild
(B) Moderate
(C) Severe
(D) Profound
(E) None of the above
89. A psychological theoretician in the process of developing a theory would
be most interested in test measures in terms of their.
(A) Construct validity
(B) Face validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) Concurrent validity
(E) Theoretical validity
90. Which of the following is the most widely used and widely taught scoring
system for the Rorschach?
(A) the Rorschach system
(B) the Piotrowski system
(C) the Klopfer system
(D) the Exner system
(E) none of these
91. What conclusion can reasonably be made about the Rorschach test and its
contribution to psychological assessment?
(A) Rorschach-based interpretations represent the essence of "scientifically informed
psychological assessment."
(B) Rorschach-based interpretations have little reliability and even less validity.
(C) There exists a mixture of favorable and unfavorable reviews of the Rorschach's
contributions to psychological assessment.
(D) It is the most widely used clinical tool None of these
(E) None of these
92. A total of how many Rorschach cards are initially presented to the test-
taker?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) 3
93. The projective technique that is most frequently taught in counselling
Psychology programs is the:
(A) TAT
(B) Rorschach
(C) Sentence Completion Test
(D) Word Association Test
(E) MMPI
94. Which group probably holds the LEAST favorable view of the Rorschach?
(A) clinical and counselling psychology graduate students
(B) clinicians
(C) academicians
(D) psychiatrists
(E) special education teachers
95. Which of the following is TRUE of the reliability of the TAT?
(A) Inter-rater reliability has ranged from adequate to very high.
(B) Split-half reliability has been found to be adequate.
(C) Test-retest reliability has been found to be adequate.
(D)Inter-item consistency has ranged from moderately acceptable to acceptable.
(E) All of the above
(D) psychiatrists (E) special education teachers
96. Which of the following types of reliability is appropriate for the TAT?
(A) inter-scorer
(B) internal consistency
(C) test-retest
(D) split-half
(E) all of the above
97. Which of the following personality tests is LEAST recommended by
training directors of approved programs in clinical psychology?
(A) the MMP1-2
(B) the TAT
(C) the Rorschach
(D) the MMP1-2-RF
(E) the Basic Personality Inventory
98. Which of the following uses cartoon figures as its projective stimuli?
(A) the Thematic Apperception Test
(B) the Roberts Apperception Test
(C) the Rosenzweig Picture Frustration Study
(D) the Hand Test
(E) Rorschach
99. An actuarial approach to personality assessment relies on:
(A) norms
(B) standardization
(C) preset, uniformly applied rules and procedures
(D) all of these
(E) A and B only
100. The major advantage of clinical prediction is:
(A) its adaptability to computer usage.
(B) its reliance on correlational research.
(C) its applicability to research settings.
(D) its flexibility and potential for using novel data.
(E) all of the above
101. The integration of data from statistical procedures, empirical methods,
and formal rules to formulate descriptions and make predictions is referred to
as:
(A) actuarial prediction
(B) clinical prediction
(C) empirical prediction
(D) formal prediction
(E) all of the above
102. Comparing the TAT and the Apperceptive Personality Test (APT), which of
the following is TRUE?
(A) The emotional tone of the cards of both tests is negative.
(B) The APT cards require more reasoning.
(C) The APT has an objective scoring system.
(D) Both tests have high split-half reliabilities.
(E) None of these
103. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the evaluation of the
Psychometric adequacy of behavioral assessment methods?
(A) Traditional psychometric standards related to reliability and validity should be
applied to behavioral assessment methods.
(B) Traditional psychometric standards such as reliability and validity do not apply.
(C) This remains a controversial topic, but most experts argue against the use of
traditional psychometric standards to evaluate behavioral assessment methods.
(D) This remains a controversial topic, but most experts support the use of traditional
psychometric standards to evaluate behavioral assessment methods.
(E) all of the above
104. Which of the following is TRUE of polygraph tests?
(A) They can be physically painful.
(B) They are accurate enough to be considered good evidence in legal settings.
(C) They are standardized on convicted offenders.
(D) They typically yield more false positives than false negatives.
(E) none of these
105. Which of the following is a step toward a solution to the problem or
contrast effects in ratings?
(A) use of modified rating scales
(B) use of a composite judge
(C) use of same gender raters
(D) all of these
(E) A and B only
106. Which of the following is most appropriate for determining the
psychometric soundness of behavioral assessment?
(A) classical test theory
(B) generalizability theory
(C) empirical methods
(D) the experimental analysis of behavior
(E) all of the above
107, Situational performance measures:
(A) take place in the actual environment being evaluated or in a simulated
environment
(B) are limited to a small range of variables that may be targeted for assessment
intervention.
(C) are ineffective in measuring elusive personality traits such as honesty or altruism.
(D) have been used extensively to research the psychological and physical
consequences of a "mosh pit" experience.
(E) both A and B
108. A situational stress test differs from other situational measures in that:
(A) a problem must be solved.
(B) performance is observed and evaluated.
(C) the tasks presented are typically different.
(D) frustrating obstacles are introduced.
(E) all obstacles must be resolved
109. Dr. Jose counts how many times a child is throw a tantrum in class and
on the Playground. Which assessment approach is the psychologist most
likely to be using?
(A) projective
(B) behavioral
(C) sign
(D) unobtrusive
(E) role play
110. A problem associated with behavioral observation as a tool of
assessment is:
(A) reactivity.
(B) observer bias.
(C) equipment bias.
(D) all of these
(E) A and B only
111. The type of research that attempts to replicate a real-world problem in a
research or clinical setting is called:
(A) research with unobtrusive measures.
(B) a case history approach to research.
(C) the sign approach to research.
(D) analogue research.
(E) phenomenological approach
112. Which of the following represents a problem with self-monitoring?
(A) The person who is self-monitoring must be competent, consistent, and «ell
motivated.
(B) The phenomenon of reactivity may confound the outcomes.
(C) Both a and b
(D) It is unreliable
(E) It is not valid
113. Which of the following is TRUE of self-monitoring?
(A) It is a tool of psychological assessment.
(B) It is a tool for intervention.
(C) It has limited reliability and validity.
(D) Both a and b
(E) None of these
114. Ronald improves his attention span while self-monitoring his attention
span. This phenomenon could BEST be cited as an example of:
(A) impression management
(B) dissonance
(C) reactivity
(D) transference
(E) mindfulness
115. Gina improves her ability to attend to her instructor's lecture as a result of
recording whether or not she is paying attention to the instructor. This
phenomenon could BEST be cited as an example of the effectiveness of self-
monitoring as:
(A) a tool of psychological assessment
(B) a tool for intervention
(C) a technique for remediation
(C) a diagnostic methodology
(E) all of the above
116. A difference between self-monitoring and self-report is that:
(A) self-report assesses the behavior at a time other than when it is occurring while
self-monitoring assesses the behavior at the time of occurrence.
(B) self-monitoring assesses the behavior at a time other than when it is occurring
self-report assesses the behavior at the time of occurrence.
(C) self-monitoring is subject 10 1110IT problems than self-report,
(D) Self-report is Subject to more problems than self-monitor
(E) all of the above
117. Which of the following is NOT a situational performance measure?
(A) a typing test for a secretarial position
(B) an IQ test for the position of CEO in a major corporation
(C) a road test for a driver's license
(D) a rocket simulation test in a laboratory mock-up for a would-be astronaut
(E) all of the above
118. Behavioral assessment tends to focus on:
(A) the individual.
(B) small groups.
(C) large groups.
(D) both A and C
(E) both A and B
119. Which of the following is TRUE of behavioral assessment?
(A) Groups of people are generally observed in order to obtain normative data,
(B) More traditional psychological tests are typically administered before and after
behavioral assessment.
(C) The frequency, intensity, or duration of the behavior is generally specified.
(D) Assessments are typically preceded by in-depth interviews designed to explore
relevant aspects of motivation.
(E) done of these
120. NN hie!' is NOT a quantifiable definition of a target behavior?
(A) the number of times Johnny is aggressive toward his peers during recess.
(B) the number of seconds Johnny spends out of his seat.
(C) the number of seconds Johnny spends daydreaming during his social studies
class.
(D) the number of times Johnny raises his hand during math class.
(E) all of the above
121. A behaviorist may use all of the following for assessment purposes EXCE
PT:
(A) case-study material.
(B) observation.
(C) a standardized checklist
(D) a projective technique.
(E) use of reward and punishment
122. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the behavioral approach to
assessment?
(A) It seeks to identify traits or motives that can be inferred from behavior.
(B) It seeks to reveal underlying motivations regarding personality.
(C) It focuses on what a person actually does in certain situations.
(D) It focuses primarily on what a person actually thinks while engaging in specific
behaviors.
(E) all of the above
123. The phenomenon of reactivity can be reduced in behavioral observation
by which method?
(A) having one or more observers observe all of the action from many different
vantage points
(B) having several video cameras record all of the action from many different
vantage points
(C) having an adaptation period in which the person being observed is given time to
adjust to the situation
(D) using physiological techniques such as the poll Graph to supplement more
traditional methods
(E)none of these
124. The plethysmograph is perhaps MOST useful in the assessment and
treatment of:
(A) people with headaches.
(B) sexual offenders.
(C) agitated depression.
(D) cardiac arrest.
(E) all of the above
125. The procedure whereby a written record of multiple physiological
changes is obtained in response to a specifically devised interview is
associated with which of the fallowing.
(A) biofeedback
(B) the plethysmograph
(C) face to face interview
(D) the polygraph
(E) all of the above
126. Which of the following exemplifies an unobtrusive measure?
(A) the amount of sweat on one's hands
(B) self-report verbalizations before asking for date
(C) a diary of thoughts and feelings g for a date
(D) a story told in response to a TAT card
(E) all of the above
(E) both A and 13
127. The problem with role playing as a diagnostic technique is that:
(A) it is expensive and not highly flexible in most situations.
(B) it is inconvenient and time-consuming.
(C) the desired behavior may not be reliably elicited in the actual situation.
(D) Few assesses come to the assessment situation with sufficient training and
experience in theatre arts.
(E) it is not effective in assessing the cognitive processes of the test taker.
128. Which of the following is TRUE of the reliability of the Rorschach using
the Exner scoring system?
(A) It has a high degree of internal consistency reliability
(B) It has a high degree of test- retest reliability
(C) It has a high degree of interscorer reliability
(D) None of the above is true; all types of reliability are low
(E) Both A and B
129. Role-play can be used:
(A) for diagnostic purposes
(B) for evaluating the effectiveness of therapy
(C) to prepare candidates for debates
(D) all of these
(E) both A and B
(E) both A and 13
130. A researcher notes that a behavior is observed by a subject at school. The
researcher wonders if same behavior would also be observed in the laboratory
if the laboratory were modified to be like the school in key respects. This
researcher wishes to explore the issue of:
(A) reactivity.
(B) contrast effects.
(C) generalizability.
(D) how valid unobtrusive measures really are.
(E) replication
130. A researcher notes that a behavior is observed by a subject at school. The
researcher wonders if same behavior would also be observed in the laboratory
if the laboratory were modified to be like the school in key respects. This
researcher wishes to explore the issue of:
(A) reactivity.
(B) contrast effects.
(C) generalizability.
(D) how valid unobtrusive measures really are.
(E) replication
131. Determining a musician's popularity by assessing the length of time it
takes to sell all of that artist's concert tickets is an example of:
(A) an unobtrusive measure.
(B) a reactive measure.
(C) an aesthetic measure.
(D) an obtrusive behavioral measure.
(E) record sales
132. Which is one group of people with whom plethysmography has been used
for purposes of diagnosis and treatment?
(A) members of the armed forces suffering from post-traumatic stress syndrome
(B) children who have been sexually abused
(C) sex offenders
(D) OCD patients
(E) depressed individuals
133. Type A Personality and Type B Personality are two terms closely
associated with:
(A) Self-Directed Search
(B) Jenkins Activity Survey
(C) MMPI-2
(D) Businessmen
(E) Types of workers
134. The Self-Directed Search Tests are based on six personality
(A) mood.
(B) states
(C) types
(D) dispositions
(E) character
135. On the Self-Directed Search, terms such as Artistic, Enterprising. and
Investigative e examples of:
(A) personality types
(B) personality states
(C) inclinations
(D) careers
(E) aptitude
136. A personality profile based on psychological test results typically
represents the extent to which a person has provided evidence of the
existence of certain Personality:
(A) traits.
(B) states.
(C) tendencies.
(D) both A and B
(E) none of these
137. The history of personality types dates at least as far back as the days of:
(A) Hippocrates.
(B) Jung.
(C) Freud.
(D) McCain.
(E) Confucius
138. Which of the following is TRUE of personality traits?
(A) They tend to stabilize in adulthood after age 40.
(B) They decrease in consistency after age 30.
(C) Consistency first begins at 18.
(D) None of these
(E) Both A and B
139. The lower test-retest reliability coefficients found to exist for state anxiety
when compared with higher test-retest reliability coefficients obtained for trait
anxiety support which premise?
(A) Traits are more enduring personality characteristics than states.
(B) States are more enduring personality characteristics than traits.
(C) Exhibition of anxiety is very situation-dependent.
(D) None of these
(E) Both A and B
140. Asking test-takers to indicate how they feel "at this moment" versus how
they feel "in general" is an attempt to:
(A) obtain as much information about the test-takers as possible
(B) determine if the test-takers are responding truthfully
(C) to distinguish between various traits and states.
(D) evaluate subject areas listed in the song Feelings.
(E) to compare their different states
141. in which test are the subjects alternately instructed to indicate how they
feel how they feel “right now” and how they feel "generally"?
(A) Mooney Problem Checklist
(B) MMP I
(C) WISC-IV
(D) STAI
(E) Rorschach
142. For a heterogeneous test, measures of internal-consistency reliability will
tend to be compared with other methods of estimating reliability.
(A) higher
(B) lower
(C) very similar or higher
(D) more robust
(E) equal
143. Typically, adding items to a test will have what effect on the test's
reliability?
(A) Reliability will decrease.
(B) Reliability will increase.
(C) Reliability will stay the same.
(D) Both B and C
(E) A, B, and C
144. Using estimates of internal consistency, which of the following tests
would like yield the highest reliability coefficients?
(A) a test of general intelligence
(B) a test of achievement in a basic skill such as mathematics
(C) a test of reading comprehension a test of vocational interest
(E) aptitude test
145. Error variance for measures (Winter-item consistency comes from:
(A) fatigue
(B) motivation
(C) a test-taker practice effect
(D) heterogeneity of the content
(E) all of the above
146. II items from a test are measuring the same trait, estimates of reliability
yielded from split-half methods will typically be____________ as compared to
estimates from KR-20.
(A) higher
(B) lower
(C) Similar
(D) approximately the same
(E) equal
147. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to divide a test when
using the split-half reliability method?
(A) Randomly assign items to each half of the test.
(B) Assign odd-numbered items to one half and even-numbered items to the other
half of test
(C) Assign the first-half of the items to one half of the test and the second half of the
items to the other half of the test.
(D) Assign easy items to one half of the test and difficult items to the other half
(E) All of the above
148. KR-20 is the statistic of choice for tests with which types of items?
(A) multiple-choice
(B) true-false
C) All of these
(D) None of these
(E) Both A and B