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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM


C L A SS ROOM T ES T S ERIES
BOOKLET SERIES

GENERAL STUDIES &


ENGINEERING APTITUDE
Test No. 21
Full Syllabus Test-5
Duration: 2 : 00 hrs. Maximum Marks: 200
Read the following instructions carefully
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You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.1 The rank of the matrix 1 1


(a) (b)
0 1 3 1 10 20
1 0 1 1 1 1
A   is (c) (d)
3 1 0 2 40 5
 
 1 1 2 0  4  4
Q.6 The harmonic conjugate of u = x3 – 3xy2 is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) y3 – 3xy2 (b) 3x2y – y3
2
(c) 3xy – y 3 (d) 3xy2 – x3
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q.7 Fifteen coupons are numbered from 1 to
n n n n 
Q.2 lim  2  2  2  .....  2  15. Seven coupons are selected at random,
2 2 2
n  n n 1 n 2 n   n  1 
one at a time with replacement. The
is equal to probability that the largest number
 appearing on a selected coupon is 9,
(a)  (b) 0
4 9 7
C  8
  (a) 15 7 (b)  
(c) (d) C7  15 
4 3
7 6
Q.3 The solution of the differential equation  3  9
(c)   (d)  
 5  16 
dy
 x sin 2 y  x 3 cos2 y is
dx
2
2 2 6 
 
(a) tan y  x 2  1  ce  x Q.8
 
Consider the matrix A   2 10 2  . If it
2  6 2 2 
1 2
(b) tan y 
2
 
x  1  ce  x
has the eigen value p, q, r. Then the value
1 2 x 2
3
 
(c) tan y  x  1  ce of pq + qr + rp – pqr is
(a) 288 (b) –288
1 2 2
(d) tan y   x  1  ce
x (c) 392 (d) –392
2
Q.9 The average salary per head all the
Q.4 The solution of the equation
workers in a company is Rs. 95. The
x 3  3x  P  0 (where P is a constant) is average salary of 15 officers is Rs. 525 and
determined by Newton-Rapson method the average salary per head of the rest is
and if the value of initial guess x0 is 1 and Rs. 85. Then the total number of workers
after one iteration the root is obtained as in the workshop is
x1 = 1.5, then the value of P is (a) 660 (b) 580
(a) –7 (b) 7 (c) 650 (d) 460
(c) 11 (d) –11
Q.10 In an examination, 48% students failed in
2 Hindi and 32% students in History, 20%
Q.5 The value of  x dxdy , where R is two
R students failed in both the subjects. If the
number of students who passed the
dimensional region bounded by the curve
examination was 880, then the number of
y = x and y = x2.
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General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 3

students who appeared for the


examination, if the examination consisted
only of these two subjected. P B Q
(a) 2000 (b) 2200
(c) 2500 (d) 1800

Q.11 A sells a car priced at Rs. 36000. He gives A C


O
a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 20000 and
5% on the remaining Rs. 16000. His
competitor B sells a car of the same R
S D
marked, priced at Rs. 36000. If the want to
be competitive, what percent discount
should B offer on the marked price.
4 2
(a) 5% (b) 5.5% (a) (b)
 3
(c) 6.67% (d) 8.83%
2 1
(c) (d)
Q.12 There are three taps A, B and C in a tank.  
They can fill the tank in 10 hrs, 20 hrs and
Q.15 If the roots of the equation x2 + bx + c = 0,
25 hrs respectively. At first, all of them are
differ by 2, then which of the following is
opened simultaneously. Then after a
true?
2 hours, tap C, is closed and A and B are
(a) a2c2 = 4(1 + c) (b) 4b + c = 1
kept running. After the 4th hour from
(c) c2 = 4 + b (d) b2 = 4(c + 1)
beginning, tap B is also closed. The
remaining tank is filled by A alone. Then, Q.16 Parth went from his office to his project
the percentage of tank filled by tap A itself. site. He started his Journey facing north,
(a) 32% (b) 52% first he went 2 km straight. Then he turned
(c) 75% (d) 72% to his right and went 3 km, finally he
Q.13 Two motorist met at 10 am at railway turned left and walked 2 km to reach the
station. After their meeting, one of them project site. In which direction is Parth’s
proceeded in the East direction while the office located with respect to his project
other proceeded in North direction. site?
Exactly at noon they were 60 km apart. (a) North-West (b) North-East
Then the speed of slower motorist if the (c) South-West (d) South-East
difference of their speeds is 6 km/hr. Q.17 Six person A, B, C, D, E and F are seated
(a) 28 km/h (b) 18 km/h in a circle facing the center. A and C are
(c) 9 km/h (d) 24 km/h
seated adjacent to each other and E and B
Q.14 The figure below shows two concentric are also seated adjacent to each other. B is
circle with center O. PQRS is a square to the immediate left of F. There are
inscribed in the outer circle. It is also 2 person between D and E and A is not
circumscribes the inner circle, touching it seated adjacent to E. Who is to the
at points B, C, D and A. Then the ratio of immediate left of E?
the perimeter of the polygon ABCD to that (a) C (b) B
of the outer circle. (c) F (d) Can’t be determined

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4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.18 In a family of six person, A, B, C, D, E and (c) Both 1 and 2


F. C is the father of B, A is the mother of F, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
D is the son of B, E is the mother in law of
Q.22 Consider the following statements:
B’s wife. F is the sister of D. How is C
1. According to new Foreign Direct
related to E?
Investment (FDI) Policy, there is 100%
(a) Father (b) Mother
FDI allowed under automatic route in
(c) Husband (d) Wife greenfield pharmaceuticals.
Q.19 Seven years hence the age of Arjun will be 2. Greenfield project are those projects in
same as the age of Bidan four years ago. which an entity purchases an existing
Charan was born two year ago. After facility to begin new production.
10 years, the average age of Arjun, Bidan 3. Brownfield projects are those projects
and Charan’s age will be 33. Then the in which a parent entity begins a new
current age of Arjun is venture by constructing new facilities
(a) 28 years (b) 30 years in a country outside their
headquartered country.
(c) 29 years (d) 31 years
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
Q.20 Which of the following are NOT correct?
considered as tax revenue for the Union (a) 1 only
Government? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Excise Duty (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Income Tax (d) All of the above
3. Dividends on investments
Q.23 In which type of economic recovery, the
4. Income through Spectrum Auctions
economy quickly recoups lost ground and
Select the correct answer using the codes
gets back to the normal growth trend-line?
given below:
(a) W-shaped economic recovery
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) U-shaped economic recovery
(b) 3 and 4 only (c) V-shaped economic recovery
(c) 4 only (d) Z-shaped economic recovery
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.24 With reference to Devaluation of currency,
Q.21 Consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. Certificates of Deposit is a long-term 1. Devaluation decreases the prices of
financial instrument issued by imports purchased in the home
scheduled commercial banks to country.
individuals, companies and 2. Devaluation can be employed to
corporations. eliminate balance-of-payments deficits.
2. Call money is the short-term finance Which of the above statements is/are
used for inter-bank transactions. correct?
Which of the above statements is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 5

Q.25 Open Acreage Licensing, recently seen in Q.29 Consider the following statements:
the news, is related to: 1. Law guides even in situations which
(a) Banking-sector reforms are not covered by conscience.
(b) Hydrocarbon exploration 2. Regulations are much broader in scope
(c) COVID-19 vaccine development than law.
(d) None of the above 3. Codes are meant for guiding
interpersonal behaviour.
Q.26 Consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are
1. Ease of Doing Business is an index
correct?
published by the International
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
Monetary Fund.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Reverse repo rate is the rate at which
the RBI borrows money from Q.30 Which one of the following statements is
commercial banks. correct regarding Active responsibility?
3. Exchange rate is the price of the (a) Active responsibility is about realizing
currency in terms of another currency. certain negative effects.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (b) It comes into picture after occurrence
correct? of consequence of an action.
(a) 1 only (c) Active responsibility is not only
(b) 1 and 2 only preventing negative effects of
(c) 2 and 3 only technology but also about realizing
(d) All of the above certain positive effects.
(d) None of the above
Q.27 Which of the following motivate engineers
for excellence in profession? Q.31 Consider the following statements
1. Desire for meaningful work regarding values:
2. Care for other human beings 1. When two or more parties have
3. Concern to make a living conflicting values, or assign different
Select the correct answer using the codes level of importance to values, a value
given below: conflict occurs.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Values are type of beliefs more basic
(b) 2 and 3 only than other beliefs, which get organized
(c) 1 and 3 only into one’s attitude.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q.28 Moral reasoning refers as:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) placing moral values above competing
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
nonmoral values.
(b) the ability to apply general moral Q.32 Dedication to service from public service
principles to value conflicts. perspective implies:
(c) an awareness of how our actions affect 1. Being committed to social cause.
others. 2. Being committed to communal
(d) the ability to make critical calculations interest.
involving value conflicts. 3. Being there for citizen’s convenience.

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6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Select the correct answer using the codes Q.36 Which of the statements is/are incorrect
given below: regarding ‘Biomagnifications’?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 1. It is the process of a build up of certain
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 chemical substances or toxins at the
higher trophic levels of a food chain.
Q.33 Which of the following statements is/are
2. In order for biomagnification to occur,
correct about Ecotone?
the pollutants must be short-lived.
(a) Ecotone is a transitional zone between
Select the correct answer using the codes
land and ocean ecosystems.
given below.
(b) Ecotone has a very high value of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
species richness.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Ecotones are only found at tropical and
subtropical latitudes because they Q.37 Which of the following statements is/are
require high solar radiations. incorrect regarding agents causing
(d) All of the above environmental pollution?
(a) Excessive Sulphur bearing coal burning
Q.34 Consider the following statements with
such as lignite and peat can result in
reference to Ecological Pyramids:
the formation of classical smog.
1. The pyramid of productivity is more
(b) Photochemical smog is a resultant of
accurate than the pyramid of numbers
the reaction among NO 2 , O 3 and
and a pyramid of biomass.
Peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of
2. The pyramid of biomass in the sea is
sunlight.
always upright because the biomass of
(c) O3 that participates in Photochemical
phytoplankton far exceeds that of
smog formation is contributed by the
fishes.
‘Good Ozone’ of the stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/
(d) All are correct
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Q.38 With reference to hydrogen as a fuel,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements:
1. Hydrogen has the highest energy
Q.35 Consider the following statements:
content of any common fuel by weight.
1. Biomass is considered as a Renewable
2. Hydrogen fuel cells produce water as
Energy resource derived from the
the by-product.
carbonaceous waste to various human
Which of the statements given above is/
and natural activities.
are correct?
2. Biomass does not add carbon dioxide
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
to the atmosphere as it absorbs the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
same amount of carbon is growing as
it releases when consumed as a fuel. Q.39 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/ 1. Green building is the essence of which
are correct? would be to address all the pollution
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only related issues of a building in an
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 integrated and scientific manner.

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General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 7

2. Green Rating for Integrated Habitat regulations is in the minimization of which


Assessment (GRIHA) aims to help of the following substances?
design green buildings and to evaluate (a) Sulphur
the “greenness” of the buildings. (b) Carbon dioxide
Which of the statements given above is/ (c) Arsenic
are correct? (d) Lead
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Q.43 Biogas is an environmentally friendly and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
renewable fuel which can help in reduction
Q.40 Consider the following statements: of pollution. Which of the following are
1. The main difference between the most important components of biogas?
Comprehensive Environment Impact (a) Methane and sulphur dioxide
Assessment (EIA) and Rapid EIA is in (b) Methane and carbon dioxide
the form of a time-scale of the data (c) Methane and hydrogen
supplied. (d) Methane and nitric oxide
2. Rapid EIA collects data of only one Q.44 Which one of the following is called Spread
season to reduce the time required Spectrum technology?
whereas comprehensive EIA collects (a) FDMA (b) SDMA
data from all four seasons. (c) TDMA (d) CDMA
Which of the statements given above is/
Q.45 Consider the following statements
are correct?
regareding .in domain:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. It has been created by NIXI, the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Internet Exchange of India.
Q.41 Consider the following statements with 2. The registry does not carry out
reference to the ‘Cartagena Protocol’: registration itself. It accredited
1. Cartagena Protocol seeks to protect registrars through an open process of
biological diversity from the potential selection on the basis of transparent
risks posed by the transboundary eligibility criteria.
movements of the living modified Which of the statements given above is/
organisms resulting from modern are correct?
biotechnology. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It is a legally binding protocol even
altering the rights and obligations of Q.46 Consider the following statements:
governments under the World Trade 1. Flash Memory is a type of volatile
Organization. memory that erases data in units called
Which of the statements given above is/ blocks.
are correct? 2. NAND and NOR are the two types of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only flash memory.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
Q.42 The most significant difference between the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
present BS-IV and the new BS-VI fuel
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.47 Consider the following statements about (c) Mobile application


‘e-Taal’: (d) All of the Above
1. It is to provide an analysis of pollution
Q.51 In TCP/IP model which among the
in India online.
following layers can’t be found?
2. It provides an aggregate view of
(a) Data Link Layer
e-transaction performed through
(b) Presentation Layer
e-governance applications.
(c) Transport Layer
Which of the statements given above is/
(d) Network Layer
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Q.52 One of the initial project documents, issued
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 by senior management. Which outlines the
authority of the project manager is called
Q.48 The Universal Mobile Telecommunications
project charter. As a seller, what other
System (UMTS) is a third generation
document can be used in this place?
mobile cellular system for networks.
(a) Work breakdown structure
Which of the following techniques is used
(b) Project scope
by UMTS?
(c) Contract
(a) SDMA (b) CDMA
(d) Internal memo
(c) TDMA (d) FDMA
Q.53 Which of the following processes are
Q.49 Which among the following statements is/
performed in the closing process group
are correct?
and in what order?
1. e-Governance’s objective is to support
(a) Contract closure and then close project.
and simplify the governance system
(b) Scope verification and then close
for citizen, government and
project.
businesses.
(c) Contract closure and then scope
2. GST on-line payment is G2B process.
verification.
3. SVAMITVA scheme was launched on
(d) Close project and then contract closure.
25th December i.e., good governance
day. Q.54 For the given project network, the numbers
4. Aarogya Setu App uses bluetooth, GPS along various activities represent normal
and Digital Signature together. duration (in days).
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: 3
C(2)
(a) 1 and 2 only B(6)
(b) 2 and 3 only D (9)
2 4
(c) 2 and 4 only A(4) G(1)
(d) 1 and 4 only F(9) H (2)
1 5 6
Q.50 Which of the following are the different
categories that application software is The expected project completion time (Te)
divided into? is
(a) General purpose application (a) 16 days (b) 15 days
(b) Specialized application (c) 11 days (d) 17 days

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General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 9

Q.55 A critical activity in a CPM network has Q.60 Consider the following statements with
1. The longest duration of all activities. reference to project versus process:
2. Zero total float. 1. Managing a project is less challenging
3. Zero free float. task involving low degree of novelty
4. The shortest duration of all activities. and uncertainty.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. Managing a process is less challenging
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 task wherein the things to be done are
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 more or less-defined and
standardized.
Q.56 Consider the following statements Which of the above statements is/are
regarding S-curve. correct?
1. It is graphical display of cumulative (a) 1 only
costs, labour hours, and other (b) 2 only
quantities plotted against time. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. At the start, this curve grows rapidly. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above statements is/are
Q.61 A equipment has been purchased at an
incorrect?
initial cost of Rs. 1100, and has an
(a) 1 only
estimated salvage value of Rs. 100. The
(b) 2 only
equipment has an estimated life of 5 years.
(c) Both 1 and 2
The depreciation at the end of 3rd year by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
sum of year’s digit method will be
Q.57 If the earned value is Rs. 8000, actual cost (a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 150
is 6500 and planned value is 12000. (c) Rs. 200 (d) Rs. 250
Calculate the value of cost performance
Q.62 Consider the following statements
index? regarding A-O-N network diagram:
(a) 0.81 (b) 1.23 1. These diagrams facilitates efficient
(c) 0.67 (d) 1.50 scheduling and control.
Q.58 Which of the following is not the attribute 2. Pre-operations and post operation of
of a good project manager? the activity consideration are distinctly
(a) Planning and organizational skills. visible.
(b) Initiative and risk taking ability. 3. When number of activities starts
(c) Setting up of joint ventures abroad. simultaneously, ‘DEBUT” activity is
(d) Capacity to relate current events to the used.
4. Few activities have to be altered only
projects.
to incorporate changes in duration,
Q.59 The second best way to resolve a conflict logic and activity sequence.
in a project is by Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Collaborative (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Confronting (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
(c) Compromising
Q.63 Which of the given features correctly
(d) Smoothing
represent perfect conductor?

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10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

1. Infinite resistivity (a) Metallic bonds


2. Infinite conductivity (b) Ionic bonds
3. Zero resistivity (c) Covalent bonds
4. Zero conductivity (d) Dipole bonds
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.69 Which of the following is the correct
(b) 1 and 4 only
ascending order of packing density for the
(c) 2 and 3 only
given crystal structure of metals?
(d) 2 and 4 only
1. Simple cubic
Q.64 The kinetic energy of an unbounded 2. Face centered cubic
electron is 3. Body centered cubic
(a) less than that of bounded electron 4. Diamond cubic structure
(b) more than that of bounded electron Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) equal to that of bounded electron given below:
(d) always zero (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-4-3-2
(c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 4-1-3-2
Q.65 A good conductor material for
construction of electrical wires inherits Q.70 The heat treatment process spheroidising
which of the below given attributes: is mainly carried out on
1. Easy solderable and drawable quality. (a) low carbon steels
2. Good corrosion resistance (b) stainless steels
3. Good mechanical strength (c) alloy steels
4. Lowest temperature coefficient (d) high carbon steels
Select the correct answer using the codes
Q.71 Defects which can be completely
given below:
eliminated from a crystalline solids are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Vacancies
(b) 1 and 4 only
(b) Dislocations
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Grain boundaries
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Stacking faults
Q.66 Superconductors are being broadly used
Q.72 Failure criteria for ductile materials is
for
generally considered by their
(a) generating electrostatic field.
1. Elastic deformation
(b) manufacturer of bubble memories.
2. Plastic deformation
(c) measurement of high resistance.
3. Fracture of component
(d) generating very strong magnetic field.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Q.67 By puddling process which material is given below:
obtained from pig iron? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Cast iron (b) Cast steel (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(c) Steel (d) Wrought iron
Q.73 When acceptance number of a single
Q.68 Which types of bonds are formed when sample plan under attribute category is
elements having small numbers of valance zero with sample size less than or equal to
electrons which are loosely held and can 10, the Operating Characteristic (OC)
be released to a common pool? curve is

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General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 11

(a) Horizontal line converts the temperature data into


(b) Vertical line video or audio signals.
(c) Convex function 2. By this technique it produces colour or
(d) An inverted S-shaped curve gray-scale images that identify
temperature differences on the surface
Q.74 An in-control process has an estimated
being examined.
standard deviation of 2 mm. The
Select the correct answer using the codes
specification limits of the component being
given below:
processed are 120 ± 8 mm. When the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
process mean shift to 118 mm, the value of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
process capability indices, Cp and Cpk ,
respectively are: Q.79 Annual demand of product is 50000 units
(a) 1.000, 1.667 (b) 1.333, 1.667 and the ordering cost is Rs. 7000 per order.
(c) 1.333, 1.000 (d) 1.000, 1.000 Considering the basic economic order
quantity model, the economic order
Q.75 Which one of the following statement is
quantity of 10000 units, when the annual
the major purpose of control phase in
DMAIC? inventory cost is minimized, the annual
(a) Identify the root cause inventory holding cost (in Rs.) is
(b) Calculate the values of process (a) Rs. 15000 (b) Rs. 20000
capability index (c) Rs. 30000 (d) Rs. 35000
(c) Determine the long term solution Q.80 Consider the following statements with
(d) Maintain the gain made with respect to reverse engineering:
implemented solution 1. It gives the embodiment design of the
Q.76 The Statistical Quality Control (SQC) chart product.
on binomial distribution is 2. It is not performed with the intention
(a) P-chart (b) C-chart of identifying the underlying principles
(c) x -chart (d) R-chart of the product and its subsystems.
3. Reverse engineering starts with the
Q.77 A computer has two independent and description of the process or the
identical central processing units (CPUs)
performing of the functions by the
operating simultaneously. At least one CPU
product.
must operate normally for the computer
Which of the statements given above is/
to function successfully. If the CPU
are correct?
reliability is 0.96. What will be computer
(a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
reliability with respect to CPU’s?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 0.9924 (b) 0.9984
(c) 0.9994 (d) 0.9999 Q.81 Consider the following statements
regarding objectives of the Occupational
Q.78 Consider the following statements
Safety and Health Administration
regarding the infrared thermography:
(OSHA):
1. In this technique, camera measures
temperature variation on the surface 1. Providing appropriate medical
of the object being monitored and treatment for injured or ill workers.

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12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

2. Regularly examining workers who are 1. It focuses mainly on quantity of ideas.


exposed to toxic substances. 2. Not to criticize own ideas as well as
3. Having a qualified first-aid person other’s ideas.
available during all working hours. 3. Sentence structure, spelling mistakes
Which of the statements given above is/ and grammar matters.
are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 2 only given below:
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.85 Consider the following statement
Q.82 Consider the following according to the regarding isometric projection:
epidemiological theory of accident 1. Projectors from an object are parallel
causation: to each other and inclined to the plane
1. It is used to study causal relationships of projection.
between environmental factors and 2. The object is kept in such a way that
accidents. its three mutual perpendicular edges
2. It is not used for studying and (axes) make equal angles with the plane
determining the relationships between of projection. The object stands on one
environmental factors and disease. of its corners.
3. It can be viewing any situation in 3. The object is drawn with the actual
which an accident may occur as a dimensions.
system with three components: person Which of the above statements is/are
(host), machine (agency), and correct?
environment. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/ (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
are correct?
Q.86 A straight line AB of 40 mm length rotates
(a) 2 only
about its one end A in the clockwise
(b) 1, 2 and 3
direction for one complete revolution
(c) 1 and 3 only
meanwhile, a point P moves from A and
(d) 2 and 3 only
reaches B and returns back to A. If both
Q.83 A small fire breaks in some electrical the motions are uniform then what will be
equipment. Which of these items is the best path of P?
available option to minimize damage to the (a) Archimedian spiral
component? (b) Logarithmic spiral
(a) Foam (c) Involute
(b) Water (d) None of the above
(c) Carbon dioxide Q.87 Consider the following statements
(d) Powdered graphite regarding the curve traced by a point on a
Q.84 Which of the following statements are circle which rolls without slipping along a
correct as a guideline of Brainstorming? fixed horizontal line as shown:

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General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 21 13

conduct investment transactions without


b
any constraints.
c Statement (II): It means that the Indian
a rupee can be exchanged for any major
currency for the purpose of trading in
financial assets.
1. The curve generated by point ‘a’ is Q.90 Statement (I): Inflation targeting refers to
cycloid. the monetary policy strategy where policy
2. The curve generated by point ‘b’ is formulation is done in such a way so as to
superior trochoid. achieve specified target of inflation.
3. The curve generated by point ‘c’ is Statement (II): The inflation target is to
interior trochoid. be revisited every year.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct? Q.91 Statement (I): The Interest Coverage Ratio
(a) 2 only (ICR) helps to determine how easily a
(b) 1 and 2 only company can pay interest on its
(c) 1 and 3 only outstanding debt.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement (II): The higher a borrowing
company’s level of Interest Coverage
Q.88 If a right circular cone is cut parallel to the Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its
base then the conic will be debt.
(a) Ellipse (b) Parabola
(c) Hyperbola (d) Circle Q.92 Statement (I): Workers should be
delegated upon tasks by the managers, as
Direction (Q.89 to Q.100): The following items much as they like.
consist of two statements, one labelled as Statement (II): Delegation of tasks expands
Statement (I) and th e oth er labelled as
workers expertise and growth.
Statement (II). You have to examine these two
statements carefully and select your answers Q.93 Statement (I): Engineers are responsible
to these items using the codes given below: for systemic accidents.
Codes: Statement (II): Engineers should design a
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) product to avert as many mistakes by
are true and Statement (II) is the people using the technology as possible.
correct explanation of Statement (I).
Q.94 Statement (I): The carbon fertilization
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
effect suggests that the increase of carbon
are true but Statement (II) is not a
dioxide in the atmosphere increases the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
rate of photosynthesis in plants.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
Statement (II): Carbon fertilization effects
is false.
vary depending on the plant species, the
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
temperature, and the availability of water
is true.
and nutrients.
Q.89 Statement (I): Capital account
Q.95 Statement (I): A harmful algal bloom
convertibility means the freedom to
causes negative impacts to other organisms
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14 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

via production of natural toxins, Q.98 Statement (I): Fibre glass is a polymer
mechanical damage to other organisms composite having matrix of plastic and
and by other means. reinforcement of glass.
Statement (II): Nitrogen, Phosphate and Statement (II): Reinforcement provides
warm water provide a conducive condition flexibility and matrix provides strength to
for growth of algae. the composite.
Q.96 Statement (I): Digital signature is a private Q.99 Statement (I): Ductile materials generally
key cryptography which is also known as absorb more impact energy than brittle
asymmetric cryptography. materials.
Statement (II): Digital signature Statement (II): Ductile materials generally
certificates can be used to access have higher ultimate strength than brittle
information or services on the internet or material.
to sign certain documents digitally.
Q.100 Statement (I): External customer are the
Q.97 Statement (I): Majority charge carriers driving forces behind an organization
define the nature of intrinsic business.
semiconductors. Statement (II): External customer is one
Statement (II): Excess of unpaired who purchases a commodity or service.
electrons or lack of unpaired electrons in
semiconductor is deciding factor for 
majority charge carrier.

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