LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS

FINAL COACHING ON CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (15%)

BY DEAN RODOLFO V. CASTILLO JR, Ph.D.
COVERAGE:
4. Crime Detection and Investigation (15%)
4.1 Fund. of Criminal Investigation (2.7%=18)
4.3 Special Crime Investigation (2.7%=18)
4.2 Traffic Mngt. & Accident Inv.(2.4%=16)
4.4 Organized Crime Investigation (2.4%=16)
4.5 Drug Education and Vice Control (2.4%=16)
4.6 Fire Tech. and Arson Investigation (2.4%=16)

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. Criminal investigation deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who
commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence about the
suspect. Its ultimate objective is -
A. punish criminal offender C. bring criminal offender to justice
B. give justice to victim D. control commission of crime
2. After identifying, collecting and preserving information gathered about the crime, the
investigator shall __________ such information to determine whether it can stand prosecution
and trial.
A. analyze C. interpret
B. integrate D. evaluate
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the form of information the investigator obtained
from regular, cultivated or grapevine sources?
A. Sensory C. Concrete
B. Written D. Physical forms
4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things can be used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the
objectives of criminal investigation. This refers to which Three I’s of criminal
investigation?
A. Information C. Instrumentation
B. Criminalistics D. Interview/Interrogation
5. In which phase of criminal Investigation that a lawmen are required to apprise the person
of his right under Republic Act 7438?
A. During the identification of criminal offender
B. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
C. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
D. During police line-up
6. This essentially answers the specific offense or offenses committed, person or persons who
committed, including the time and place of its commission and the circumstances surrounding to
its commission. Which is being referred?
A. Cardinal points of investigation
B. Three I’s of criminal investigation
C. Exchange principle
D. Bridges burn in homicide investigation
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can
be done in any or a combination of the following, EXCEPT.
A. By confession or admission by the criminal C. By circumstantial evidence
B. By corpus delicti D. By eyewitness
8. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession which
are usually a/ an___.
A. judicial C. prosecutorial
B. extra judicial D. admission
9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited and
interrogated for the crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his
guilt to the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to him or his indictment?
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 A. It can be used as evidence against him
B. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
C. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
D. His case will prosper
10. Establishing corpus delicti is indespinsable in any criminal investigation. Its elements
are?
i. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
ii. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
iii. Additional evidence of a different character to the same point
iv. Cadaver of the dead victim or evidence of the stolen property
A. i and iii C. i and ii
B. ii an iv D. iv only
11. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a
party who does or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if
comment is not true.Which is being referred?
A. Admission by Silence C. Admission
B. Res inter alios acta D. Negative pregnant
12. Which process in the prosecution of criminal cases that a written confession of the
accused is used as a script in describing events of the crime, which strengthens the
prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the accused was not maltreated nor
affected by sinister psychological influence?
A. Mental reconstruction C. Reconstruction
B. Crime reenactment D. Physical reconstruction
13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a
person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission
of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied, it should be direct and positive acknowledgment of
guilt. Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to
the crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s
guilt. It can be implied.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
14. Which of the following need NOT be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by
means of confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delicti must be established separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
15. Assume that you are a prober who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown
suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing
to identify the latter. Which of the following is NOT one of the methods available for you
to utilize?
A. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
B. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite
Artist]
C. Police Line-up
D. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
16. You are lawman, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly witnessed
by a certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. Factors
that you should consider in determining the accuracy of identifying the suspect are:
1. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
2. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
3. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
4. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4

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17. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce
the conviction of the accused if the following requisites are present, EXCEPT:
A. There are more than one circumstances present
B. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
C. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond
reasonable doubt
D. If credibility of the witnesses who testify are established
18. You are an investigator who inquired on the alleged robbery with homicide case
perpetrated by an unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime. One of the
following is the LEAST factor that may give you a hint about identify the suspect.
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and
possession of fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use
by the suspect
19. An informant who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information
of continuing interest, and willingly provides information to the police either in response to
a specific request or his own initiative is known as -
A. incidental C. automatic
B. casual D. recruited
20. In this tracing of fugitive, covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or
technical means to acquire information is employed? Which is described?
A. Surveillance C. Mobile
B. Stationary surveillance D. Technical
21. Which method of shadowing that surveillants were stationed at a fixed point, with the
assumption that the target follows the same general route each day?
A. ABC Method C. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
B. Leap Frog Method D. Fixed surveillance
22. SPO1 Dar concealed his true identity and assumed role as a drug peddler to obtain
information about the identity of drug lords in the Visayas Region. Which investigation
technique is being described?
A. Undercover assignment C. Work assignment and social assignment
B. Dwelling assignment D. Personal contact assignment
23. Physical evidence that may lead you, a police investigator, to the identity of the suspect could be
found in:
a. The crime scene d. The SOCO
b. The witness e. The suspect
c. The victim
A. a, b, c, d C. a, c, e
B. a, b, c, d, e D. Only a
24. In crime scene reconstruction, you have to analyze the following, EXCEPT:
A. Suspect’s arrival at the crime scene and his place of entry
B. Suspect’s movement from point of entry and his contact with the victim
C. Suspect’ place of exit from the scene
D. Suspect’s modus operandi and method of concealment to avoid detection
25. A Police Investigator who carefully analyzed a collected information before developing a theory
of the crime is using what type of reasoning?
A. Inductive C. Systematic
B. Deductive D. Logical
25-A. SPO2 Florenz Santos is examining a crime scene, which a dead victim sustained a gunshot wound
in the head with a handgun near his hand. He was informed that the victim had a painful terminal
illness. SPO2 Santos concluded that the wound is self inflicted. This is an example which the
investigator use what kind of reasoning?
A. Deductive C. Reasonable
B. Logical D. Inductive
26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime
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may begins with deductive logic and later on inductive logic; Statement no. 2. A rational theory of
crime is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very high order of probability.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is
reconstructed from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.
Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions are made about the
consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting
evidence.
A. Statement no. 1 is correct C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
B. Statement no. 2 is incorrect D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimal requirements to be observed by
the investigator to insure admissibility of photographs in court, EXCEPT:
A. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevant
B. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathy
C. The photograph should be free from distortion
D. The photograph should be clearly developed
29. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its removal from
the crime scene?
A. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
B. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
C. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
D. Any of them
3O. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime, EXCEPT:
A. Over-All and environment’s photograph
B. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
C. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
D. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
31. Crime scene sketch is necessary:
i. To supplement photographs of the crime scene
ii. Because it is the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual measurements of the
crime scene
iii. To point out the exact location of important evidence
iv. To identify significant items of evidence in their location at the scene
A. i, ii, iii and iv C. ii, iii and iv
B. i, ii and iii D. i, ii and iv
32. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the following types of search could
be used depending upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed
desired, EXCEPT:
A. Strip and double strip or grid search C. Rectangular and circular search
B. Zone search D. Spiral and wheel search
33. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged C. Maintain its chain of custody
B Evidence must be properly documented D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
34. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be properly documented C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
B. Maintain its chain of custody D. Photographed and packaged the
evidence
35. Chain of custody covers the methodology involving the systematic:
1. Searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence found at the crime
scene
2. Documenting of every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the
scene, to its collection and transport to the point of examination
3. Temporary storage and final disposal of evidence
4. Presentation and identification of evidence by the witness/s in court
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
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 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4
36. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated EXCEPT:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
37. Which of the following is NOT one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in
interrogation?
A. Chronological C. Going backward
B. General to specific D. Going upward
38. In interviewing a witness, question-and-answer type is preferable written statement
because:
A. It is easier to profound questions and answer will be brief and concise
B. It is easier to develop or prove the essential elements of an offense
C. It is objective and reflects of what he actually perceived
D. It is convenient
39. Jessie was invited by the CIDG operatives to answer questions pertinent to the murder
case investigated. After the questioning at the headquarters however, he was held for further
questioning and considered him a suspect already. Persons who can visit him are as follows,
EXCEPT:
A. Lovers, friends and countrymen
B. Immediate member of his family
C. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
D. Personnel of the C.H.R.
40. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
B. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
C. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
D. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
41. Homicide investigation’ s “Golden Rule” is/are?
i. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured
and photographed
ii. Every contact leaves a trace
iii. When a body or article has been move it can never be restored to its original
position
A. I C. i and iii
B. i and ii D. i, ii and iii
42. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
43. One important source of physical evidence is the crime scene, which should be recorded in
any of the following means, EXCEPT -
A. By photographs C. By sketches
B. By notes D. Surveying
44.In criminal invstigation, it refers to the application of all procedures for the search of
missing persons. Which of these?
A. Rogues gallery C. manhunt
B. Tracing D. order of battle
45. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of:
A. Improper packaging and non-maintenance of chain of custody
B. Corruption of investigator
C. Carelessness of the evidence custodian
D. Incompetence and ineptness of the SOCO personnel
46. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a short
period of visual observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2-Description of police
characters which a witness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references
is Rogue’s Gallery
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 A. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect
B. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect
C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
47. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be made
immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian; Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling of
physical evidence should be made at the crime scene upon collection.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
48. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence,
hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which
cannot be waived?
A. At the time of custodial investigation
B. During the actual questioning
C. During the announcement that he is under arrest
D. At the moment that he is invited for questioning
49. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful interrogation?
A. Privacy
B. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
C. Legality
D. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
50. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchers gather at the center and
proceed outward along radius or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers
follow each other along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward
the center.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct C. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect D. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
51. In crime scene investigation, “eavesdropping the crime scene” means –
A. extent the estimate of the scene
B. search physical evidence at the scene
C. playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the crowd to listen to their
conversation
D. listening upon the conversation of the suspects
52. According to a known author, criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:
A. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical
forms
B. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the regular, cultivated
and grapevine sources
C. Persons and things
D. Searching and arresting criminals
53. Crimes involving destruction of life, EXCEPT:
A. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape C. Homicide and murder
B. Duel, abortion and infanticide D. Parricide
54. Vincent killed his adopter after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. Vincent should be
charged with -

A. parricide C. homicide
B. murder D. the crime of murder qualified by obvious ungratefulness
55. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide
investigator cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which
he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?
A. When the dead person has been moved
B. When the dead body has been embalmed
C. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted
D. When the body is burned or cremated
56. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is the process of determining -
A. the accurate cause of death C. how the victim was killed
B. who is responsible for the death D. when the victim was killed

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57. In a case which death of a person is involved, autopsy should be performed -
A. when it has been caused by violence
B. at once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide
C. upon request of the dead person’s family
D. in all cases involving death
58. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
A. Verification of death
B. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
C. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
D. Secure the scene
59. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?
1. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
2. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
3. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
60. You are a police officer responded in a violent crime just recently occurred. How will you
determine signs of death?
A. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movement
B. By hearing heart sounds
C. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
D. Any of them
61. Physical evidence is any article found at the crime scene, small or large which, in one way or
another connected with the crime under investigation. Its uses are as follows EXCEPT:
A. Determine the cause of crime C. Identify the participants
B. Reconstruct the crime D. Confirm or discredit an alibi
62. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors may be
considered. Which is NOT?
A. The article must be properly identified
B. Continuity or chain of custody
C. Legality of the procurement
D. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and relevant
63 Which of the following wounds that are characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial
layer of the skin brought about by the friction against a hard rough surface?
A. Contusions C. Patterned wounds
B. Abrasions D. Hematoma
64. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying
declaration from him. Which of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?
A. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
B. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his statements
C. Attempt to save the life of the victim
D. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.
65 Statement no. 1-Admissibility of dying declaration is not dependent on their being made in any
particular form. Statement no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form required and need not be
under oath.
A. Statement no. 1 is true C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
B. Statement no. 2 is false D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
66. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the
following had already been performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position
of the body was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide
investigator was established.
A. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by sexual assault. Pursuant to Republic Act
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8353, which of the following is NOT a rape by sexual assault?
A. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth
B. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice
C. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
D. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another
person.
68. Which of the following that manifests the presence of livor mortis?
A. Discoloration of the dead body C. Cooling of the dead body
B. Hardening of the muscles D. Rising of the cadaver
69. What injury would a person sustain if hit in the head with a hard object?
A. lacerated wound C. hematoma
B. incised wound D. abrasions
70. Republic Act 7877 pertains to:
A. Hazing Regulation Act C. Anti-Rape Law of 1997
B. Anti-Sexual Harassment Act of 1995 D. Anti-Plunder Law
71. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of a
person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
B. respiratory D. digestive
72. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth is_____.
A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
73. Presidential Decree No. 1612 is the law that define and punishes the crime of ______.
A. Highway robbery C. Carnapping
B. Cattle rustling D. Fencing
74. Which of the following is NOT a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
75. Batas Pambansa Blg. 22 is –
A. the anti-bouncing check law C. the highway robbery law
B. the anti-brigandage law D. the anti-swindling law
76. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as basis
of the investigator in determining -
A. criminal behavior C. nature of the crime
B. modus operandi D. criminal intent
77. What is the first act that a police officer must do upon his arrival at the scene of the
crime?
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
78. Forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb constitute a crime of -
A. infanticide C. abortion
B. parricide D. no crime because fetus has no juridical capacity
yet
79. In the crime of ______, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the
victim.
A. homicide C. terrorism
B. kidnapping for ransom D. murder
80. Of the following methods of suspect identification,one is considered as the oldest.
Which one?
A. Cartographic sketch C. Rouge’s gallery
B. Composite D. Police lineup
81. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer who leads the execution of a valid
search warrant. Who must be present when a valid search warrant is conducted on a domicile?
A. The house owner
B. Any member of the house owner’s family
C. Two witnesses residing in the same community
D. Any of them
82. Which of the following is not one of the acts of committing violation of domicile?
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 A. Searching domicile without witness
B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse in the service of search warrant
C. Search of the domicile without warrant
D. Entering a dwelling against the will of the owner, searching documents, papers and
effects without the previous consent of the owner or refusing to leave having surreptitiously
entered a dwelling when required by the owner
83. Senior Police Officer 3 Judean and Police Officer 2 Castro arrested and detained Pedro
Yengco without warrant for the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest prosecutor, the
latter issued release order for further investigation. What crime if any do the dou commits?
A. Arbitrary detention C. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
proper judicial authorities
B. Delaying release D. Illegal detention
84. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or
any of his ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
A. Homicide C. Parricide
B. Murder D. Any of the choices
85. A and B are husband and wife. While working as security guard, A felt sick one night and
decided to go home around midnight and saw B having sex with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and
hacked the latter to death. As officer on case you will charge A with -
A. a crime of homicide
B. a crime of murder
C. a crime of parricide
D. none because A will be punished with destierro only according to the provision of
the RPC
86. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have tthe intent to kill the
victim. If there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for-
A. Physical injury C. Serious physical injury
B. Homicide D. Consummated physical injury
87. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the commission of a crime is not considered
as a separate crime but shall be appreciated as a-
A. Mere alternative circumstance C. Qualifying circumstance
B. Mere aggravating circumstance D. Generic aggravating circumstance
88. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and there, through threat and intimidation
succeeds in copulating with Y through the latter's anus. As prober handling the complaint of
Y, you will charged X -
A. with the crime of sexual assault C. with the crime of acts of lasciviousness
B. with the crime of rape D. with the crime of forcible abduction
89. Presidential Decree No. 1613 pertains to –
A. the law on arson C. the law on anti-trafficking on person
B. the law on anti-terrorism D. the law on anti-drug trafficking
90. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an
evidential cigarette butt?
1. Making sketch 2. Photographing 3. Recording
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3
91. What is the first action of a Police Officer upon arrival at a homicide scene?
A. Bring the dying victim in the hospital C. Witness interviewing
B. Crime scene search D. Identification of witness
92. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to
be bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die
were both cut their identities need to be established through the bloodstains. How will the
police collect the stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol

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93. Experience shown that many mistakes committed in the collection of evidence, take
place -
1. during periods of transportation 3. a contaminated sampling
2. in the collection of samples 4. the wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4
B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3
94. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted,
the collection process begins and will usually starts with_________.
A. the point of exit C. the fragile evidence
B. the large objects D. the removal of cadaver
95. Of the following stages of crime scene investigation, which is considered as the final
phase?
A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
96. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging
97. Which among the five human senses is considered the MOST objective?
A. Sense of hearing C. Sense of taste
B. Sense of smell D. Sense of seeing
98. You were a police officer who responded in a shooting incident. Upon arrival at the scene,
the suspect flee while shooting at you. What actions would you take?
A. Attend to the injured victim C. Shoot back at the suspect
B. Save life D. Call a back up
99. You are the first responder in the crime scene. How will you protect an outdoor crime
scene?
A. Establish a command center C. Lock the door of the crime scene
B. Barricade and guard the crime scene D. Wait for the arrival of the SOCO
100. The Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian Law, Genocide, and
other Crimes against Humanity is -
A. RA 9208 C. RA 9262
B. RA 9851 D. RA 8049
101. Called “ Exclusionary Rules on Evidence” whereby evidence obtained in violation of any of
this is inadmissible, EXCEPT:
A. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
B. Right to privacy and communication and correspondence
C. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incrimination
D. Right to counsel
102. Known as “Rape Victim Assistance and protection Act of 1998”
A. RA 9745 C. RA 6539
B. RA 8505 D. RA 8353
103. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353 can be committed either among the choices
EXCEPT one.
A. Promise to marry
B. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
C. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex with the latter with the
promise of release from custody
D. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
104. Criminal investigation process include the following activities:
1. Photographing, measuring, sketching and searching crime scene
2. Identification, collection and examination of evidence
3. Questioning victims, if alive, witnesses and suspects and recording statements
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
105. Method of search where the operatives follow each other in the path of a circle that
commence from the outside, approaching towards the center is –
A. spiral C. strip
B. wheel D. grid

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106. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime, EXCEPT:
A. Over-all and environment’s photograph
B. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
C. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
D. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
107. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for_____.
A. scale and proportion C. accuracy and clarity
B. future use D. courtroom presentation
108. Physical Evidence is important in criminal investigation to:
1. Reconstruct the crime 2. Identify the participants 3. Confirm or discredit an
alibi
A. 1 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
109. Which of the following is not one of the factors for the introduction of physical
evidence in trial?
A. Proper identification C. Legality of collection and preservation
B. Continuity of chain of custody D. Proof of competency and relevancy 
110. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful
interrogation?
A. Privacy
B. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
C. Legality
D. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
111. Which of the following is the correct chronology of interviewing a witness or a
suspect?
1. Opening Statement 4. Rapport
2. Identity 5. Narration
3. Inquiry 6. Conclusion
A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6 and 4 C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 and 6
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 D. 2, 4, 1, 4, 3 and 6
112. Mere invitation of a suspect is already considered____________pursuant to Republic Act
7438.
A. beginning of arrest C. beginning of detention
B. beginning of custody D. beginning of informing him his right
113. What are the matters that the suspect must be understood before subjecting to
interrogation?
1. He has the absolute right to remain silent and anything he does may be used against
him in court.
2. He has the right to have a competent and independent counsel of his own choice,
present during questioning
3. He has the right against self-incrimination
4. If he cannot afford an attorney one will appointed for him free of charge.
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1 , 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4
114. Situation/s that the Miranda Rule does not apply is/are:
1. Interview of suspect who are not under custody, and in custody, but are not
considered a suspect and not questioned
2. Questioning initiated by the police after a person has been taken into custody
3. Volunteered statements of a person in custody and general on-the-scene questioning
4. Statements made by the suspect to a private party
A. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
114-A. Circumstantial evidence refers to facts or circumstances from which, either alone or in
connection with other facts, the identity of the person can be inferred. Which must be
inferred to prove person's identity by circumstantial evidence?
1. Motive that induces the person to act
2. Intent the result or accomplishment of the act
3. Opportunity, the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed
the crime
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 4. Capacity,the intellectual and physical ability to execute the crime
A. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 2 only
115. Which of the following are/is correct in so far as the crime of parricide is concerned?
1. Proof of legitimacy is not required if the deceased is either the father, mother or
the child of the offender
2. The spouse must be legitimate
3. There is no crime of parricide thru reckless imprudence
4. The relationship, except the spouse, must be in direct line and by blood
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. Only 3
116. Criminal Investigator is a person who is in charged with the duty of carrying the
objectives of the investigation such as to identify the guilty party, to locate the guilty
party and to provide evidence his guilt. Thus, he performed the following role, except:
1. Determine that the crime has been committed
2. Identify the victim and the offender
3. Locate and apprehend the suspect and present evidence of his guilt
4. Ensure that the criminal offender are punished
A.1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
117. When there is a slightest reason to suspect that a dead body has been poisoned____.
A. It should be subjected to autopsy
B. The organs should be removed before embalming
C. Secure authorization from the dead body’s family for appropriate disposition
D. A and C
118. Assume that you are a Criminologist-Police Investigator. You suspected that a case of a
dead body which was indorse to you for investigation is homicidal. What should be your first
action to establish the cause of death?
A. Interview the victim’s relatives
B. Thoroughly examine the dead body
C. Conduct post mortem examination of the dead body
D. Call a medico legal officer
119. When does autopsy should always be performed?
A. When death is uncertain C. When death is apparently caused by violence
B. When death is suspicious D. When homicide is certain
120. You are a Criminologist- Police Officer who come upon a body and not sure that death has
taken place. Your first action should be:
A. To call a priest to save the soul of the victim
B. Pray for the soul of the victim
C. Summon medical assistance
D. Determine whether the person is still alive
121. What is the easiest way to tell whether a person is still breathing, so that you can
reliably and accurately determines his death?
A. By observing his chest closely for a few seconds
B. By placing the tips of the fingers on the under surface of the radius
C. By touching the eyeball with the finger
D. None of them
122. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cessation of the vital functions of the
body is known as-
A. death C. coma
B. state of suspended animation D. rigor mortis
123. Decomposed cadaver can be identified through__________.
1. Study of bones 2. Study of dentures 3. Study of skull
A. 1 C. 2
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
124. Sex of fire victims can be determined_______.
1. Through bones and long bones 2. Through skulls 3. Through Pelves
A. 1 C. 1 and 3

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 B. 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
125. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his fundamental duty?
A. preserve human life C. summon emergency personnel
B. cordon the area D. apprehend the criminal
126. Which of the following evidence obtained from the Crime Scene which maybe subjected to
scientific analysis?
1. Weapons, marks of tools used to gain access to locked premises or containers
2. Blood stains, impression, dust, and dirt traces
3. Questioned documents and miscellaneous trace
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. None of them
127. Determination of what actually occurred and the circumstances of the crime through
the appearance of the place and objects at the crime scene which is done after the completion
of the search is called:
A. Reconstruction of crime C. Crime profiling
B. Crime analysis D. Physical reconstruction
128. Sketch effectively exhibits the actual measurements and of identify significant items of
evidence in their location at the scene. Hence it_____.
A. supplements photographic evidence C. should be diligently prepared
B. is a strong documentary evidence D. is indispensable skill that an investigator
possess
129. SPO2 Cruz has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his office to
prepare a finished sketch. At this point it is most important that -
A. proper scale and proportion must be observed
B. a high grade of paper and ink be used
C. no changes be made on the sketch
D. the sketch must be refined, improved and made presentable

130. Physical evidence must be protected from accidental, intentional and even from natural
alterations to:
A. Maintain its legal integrity
B. Maintain its physical integrity
C. Present it in court in the same substantial condition as it is at the time the
offense was committed
D. Avoid casting doubts as to its authenticity

Sketching Methods
1. Station method- good way to measure a long distances on a highway.
2. Triangulation method-good way to measure irregular areas on unpaved roads that do not have
clean-cut edges or curves or on very sharp curves where things cannot be easily located from the
edges.
3. Cross-projection- method for making a sketch of the inside of a room. It is done by drawing
th walls as if they were folded down flat on the floor. Very good where there are bullet holes
or bloodstains on the wall or ceilings.

131. Introduction of physical evidence in trial requires that -

1. the evidence must be properly identified 3. the admissibility must be proved
2. the chain of custody must be established 4. it must be relevant and competent
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
132. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of discovery until presentation in
court must take certain safeguards. This total processed is called______.
A. integrity of evidence C. physical disposition
B. standards of comparison D. chain of custody
133. Majority of mistakes committed relative to evidence take place:
1. During periods of transportation 3. A contaminated sampling
2. In the collection of samples 4. The wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 2 and 3
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134. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of death.
What is that condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain group of muscles?
A. heat stiffening C. livor mortis
B. cold stiffening D. cadaveric spasm
135. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the
dependent portion of the body.
A. rigor mortis C. algor mortis
B. livor mortis D. cadaveric spasm
136. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, cadaveric spasm will
suggest -
A. duration of death C. cause of death
B. age of the victim D. none of the above
137. A wound resulting from instinctive reaction of self protection is what special type of
wound?
A. defense C. self inflicted wound
B. offensive D. patterned
138. What type of an instrument will cause an incised wound?
A. blunt C. sharp edge
B. sharp edge and sharp pointed D. sharp pointed instrument
139. Points to be considered in reporting of wound is/are______.
1. character and number of wound 3. measurement of wound
2. location of wound 4. distance of the wound
A. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
140. One important characteristic of the gunshot wound of exit is_____.
A. that the edge is everted C. that the size is smaller than the missile.
B. that the edge is inverted D. that the shape is round or oval
141. You are a Criminologist-Police Investigator who investigates a fatal shooting. It
appears that the victim bear a lone fatal shot at the back hitting his lungs which cause his
death. What would be your conclusion?
A. It is a suicide C. It is murder
B. It is accidental D. It is euthanasia
142. Produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is tightened by a force
other than the weight of the body. Which is being described
A. Strangulation by ligature C. Hanging
B. Throttling D. Gagging
143. You are assigned to investigate a homicide case where the victim is found hanging in his
room bearing an inverted v-shape ligature mark in his neck. Which of the following facts which
make you believe that death is homicide?
1. Blood stains and other injuries to the body of the victim
2. History of desperation in life
3. Testimony of the witness
4. Defense wound
A. 1 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
144. You are in charge with crime scene processing involving a dead body. Which of the
following tasks you need performed before removing the dead body from the crime scene?
1. Crime scene have been sketched
2. Photographs have been taken
3. Initial reports have been prepared
4. Notes were properly taken
5. Evidence were identified, collected and preserved.
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
145. While on the state of dying Oca told you, a police officer, that he and his friend
Domeng whose dead body is lying nearby was shot by Jethro. Oca died later on. Which of the
following statements is correct?
A. All the statements of Oca are to be considered as dying declarations.
B. Only that part as to who shot Domeng is a dying declaration.
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 C. Only that part as to who shot Oca is a dying declaration
D. All the statements are not admissible because they are hearsay if repeated in court
by the officer.
146. Physical evidence like DNA is a potent evidence that will lead to the conviction of the
perpetrator of a crime of violence if the following critical points will be strictly observed:
1.Documentation of Physical Evidence at the Crime Scene
2.Proper Collection of Evidence for Examination
3.Preservation
4.Marking of Evidence
5.Individual Packaging and Sealing
6.Proper Chain of Custody
A. 1,3 and 5 only C. 1 and 6 only
B. 2, 4 and 6 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
147. Through study of bones, skull and dentures___________ can be identified.
A. Decomposed cadaver C. Dead body
B. Charred dead body D. Burned cadaver
148. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009 is________.
A. RA 9775 C. RA 9194
B. RA 8484 D. RA 9995
149. Suicide gunshot wound is manifested by _______, as shown by the presence of burning,
singeing and tattooing of the area around the gunshot wound.
A. contact of a barrel C. contact or near contact
B. approximately 5 inches D. near distance

150. Called “ Exclusionary Rules” whereby evidence obtained in violation of thereof is

inadmissible.
1. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
2. Right to privacy of communication and correspondence
3. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incrimination
4. Right to counsel
A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only
151. Known as “Rape Victim Assistance and protection Act of 1998” is___.
A. RA 9745 C. RA 6539
B. RA 8505 D. RA 8353
152. Rape by fraudulent machinations under Republic Act 8353 can be committed either among
the choices except one.
A. Promise to marry
B. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
C. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex with the latter with the
promise of release from custody
D. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
153. You are a Criminologist-Police Officer who arrested a suspected criminal who happened
to be a lawyer. Which of the following rights that you should not allow him to waive?
A. Right to be informed of the provisions of RA 7438 C. Right to counsel
B. Right to remain silent D. Miranda rights
154. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just been unearthed or discovered
and the suspect and witness are still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
A. Hot case C. In flagrate delicto case
B. Cold case D. Hot pursuit case
155. The essence of this crime is the taking and transporting of a person against his will
from one place to another.
A. Kidnapping C. Abduction
B. Illegal detention D. Coercion
156. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic congestion or where “build up” usually
occurs is called___.
A. gridlock C. traffic jam
B. congestion D. bottleneck
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157. Republic Act 8750 is__________.
A. Clean Air Act C. Seatbelt Law
B. Philippine Land Transportation Code D. Anti-Carnapping Law
158. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report to the nearest police
station -
A. within 48 hours C. after 3 hours
B. within 72 hours D. at once
159. One important aspects of traffic management is the detection, apprehension and
penalization of traffic violators which are performed by the police officers or other agencies
charged by law to maintain order. This is known as traffic -
A. engineering C. economy
B. enforcement D. ecology
160. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the
DPWH, City Engineer’s Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Traffic Education D. Traffic Economy
161. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
1. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
2. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
3. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. Only 1
162. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by the
following, EXCEPT -
A. poor legislative activities
B. slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
D. presence of traffic officers
163. This refers to the entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which
any part is open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of
right or custom. Which of these?
A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
B. Road way D. Subway
164. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is under the___________, and part of
traffic_____________:
A. DILG-engineering C. DPWH-engineering
B. DOTC-enforcement D. DEPED-traffic education
165. Which is known as Clean Air Act?
A. RA 8749 C. RA 8750
B. LOI No. 22 D. PPD 1181
166. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety because a person can
avoid accident -
A. by hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain day
B. by knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. by knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. by ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
167. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because it -
A. is designed to make road users behave more safely
B. informs the public of any updates in traffic
C. focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
D. can prevent accident
168. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driving license
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and regulations
169. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic -
A. to instill safety consciousness among the children
B. in order to cope up with the demands of time
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 C. to lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. because the learn easier than adults
170. Land Transportation Code of the Philippines is ___.
A. Republic Act 4136 C. Republic Act 6975
B. Presidential Decree 4136 D. Republic Act 9708
171. Bruno is a jeepney driver who is habitually unloads passengers on the middle of the
road. As a police officer tasked to enforce traffic laws you will accost him for -
A. illegal unloading C. unlawful unloading
B. traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
172. How will you classify a motor vehicle traffic accident which an unidentified road user
flees immediately thereafter?
A. Hit and Run cases C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. Non motor vehicle none traffic accident
Chain of Events in Vehicular Accidents
1. Perception of hazards- the discernment and understanding of the usual or unexpected
movement or condition that could lead to accident.
2. Start of Evasive action- the initial action taken by traffic unit to escape collision
3. Initial contact- the immediate physical contact or collision of two vehicles.
4. Maximum engagement- stage which full forces of two vehicles are at its peak.
5. Disengagement- separation of traffic units from collision as result of opposing momentum
6. Stopping- absence of movement of the colliding vehicles due to reduction and loss of force or
power.
7. Injury- the incurring of harm to the persons involved.

173. In the chronological events of traffic accident, separation of traffic units involved in
a vehicular accident is referred to as -
A. final position C. hazards
B. disengagement D. stopping
174. Which stage of the chain of events of motor vehicle traffic accident that the driver/s
involved sees, feels or hears and understands the unusual or unexpected condition indicative
of a sign that the accident might takes place?
A. perception of hazards C. starts of evasive action
B. initial contact D. maximum engagement
175. Which type of traffic enforcement action that the traffic enforcer used when a violator
is commanded to appear in court without detaining him?
A. traffic arrest C. traffic citation
B. traffic warning D. dogwatch
176. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the
wheels locked, and not free to rotate. Which is described?
A. Skid marks C. Scuff marks
B. Key event D. Debris
177. Done when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but preoccupied at a moment. This
refers to which traffic enforcement action?
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning
178. Which of the following are considered emergency vehicle, hence must be given preference
in the road?
1. Police car on call 3. Ambulance on call
2. Fire truck on call 4. Physician’s car
A. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 only D. Only 4
179. Motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore is called ____.
A. government C. diplomatic
B. foreign D. official
180. Based on statistical records, the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines
is -
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving
181. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?

Page 17 of 42
 A. “keep to the left” C. none of these
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”
182. Which term that refers to the movement of persons, goods, and vehicles, powered either
by animal or animal-drawn, or by combustion system?
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction
183. Systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision. Which is being referred?
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
184. Which traffic devices that are mounted on a portable support where a message to the road
users is conveyed by means of words or symbols?
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement marking
185. It warn road users of the danger that lies ahead of the road and its nature.
A. informative signs C. warning signs
B. regulatory signs D. apprehension sign
186. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the
following?
A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
B. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
187. When you combine verbal warning and citations in the traffic enforcement you are
performing -
A. traffic rules implementation C. citation warnings
B. traffic consultation D. written warnings
188. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to drive.
What is the evidence that you will ask him to show that he is allowed by the Land
Transportation Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license
189. Who among the following driver correctly approach in an intersection?
A. Bogart who at the right of way
B. Geny who gave a signal
C. Ben who is at the full stop
D. Dino who suddenly overtakes other vehicles
190. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
1. Spare tire 3. Unusual odor
2. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle 4. Driver’s license
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4
191. In analyzing the chain of events of the motor vehicular traffic accident you will assume
that the first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision or avoid hazard is -
A. start of evasive action C. point of no escape
B. point of possible perception D. final position
192. What is that painted marks on the pavement placed at intersections and other places to
provide pedestrians with safety zone when crossing called?
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines
193. What is that device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of
words or symbols, officially erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or
guiding traffic?
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs
194. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on a highway is considered as -
A. motor vehicle non-traffic accident C. motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non-motor vehicle traffic accident D. motor vehicle accident

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195. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating a slipping is called:
A. centrifugal skid C. scuff mark
B. centrifugal force D. skid mark
196. What is the nature of motor vehicular accident that resulted to the death of a puppy?
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident
197. Frontal collision of the vehicles is known as___________.
A. full impact collision C. frontal collision
B. head on collision D. collision

198. You were instructed by your supervisor to conduct accident investigation of a collision
between two vehicles. You are now trying to reconstruct the chain of events of the said
accident. Which should be the chronological arrangement of events?
A. (1) maximum engagement(2) stopping or resting (3) perception of the hazard (4)
initial contact (5) start of evasive action- (6) disengagement
B. (1) initial contact (2) maximum engagement(3) stopping or resting (4) perception of
the hazard (5) start of evasive action- (6) disengagement
C. (1) start of evasive (2) initial contact (3) maximum engagement (4)stopping or
resting (5) perception of the hazard action (6) disengagement
D. (1) perception of the hazard (2) start of evasive action (3) initial contact (4)
maximum engagement (5) disengagement (6) stopping or resting

199. In the actual traffic accident investigation, preliminary questioning to the drivers,
gathering clues for hit-and-run case and questioning other witnesses are done -
A. when urgent data collections are already finished or completed
B. when an emergency is already under control
C. on the arrival at the scene of the accident
D. when the tasks at the scene were already finished
200. Assume that you are a traffic a traffic accident investigator. On gathering facts by
interviewing drivers and witnesses, you should:
1. identify drivers and witnesses
2. take them into custody to prevent them from escaping
3. reduced statements into writing
4. informed them of their Miranda rights and avoid asking questions that may
incriminate them without first providing them competent and independent counsel, preferrably
of their choice
5. verify the statements based on other facts such as physical evidence and personal
observation
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 5 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only
201. One of the objectives of traffic engineering is to achieve efficient, free, and rapid
flow of traffic, which means -
A. motorists and other road users can avoid accidents
B. motorists and other road users will enjoy their ride
C. motorists and other road users can reach their destination on time
D. providing convenient traffic way to road users
202. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education , therefore it should
be intensified to -
A. make road users behave more safely
B. inform the public of any updates in traffic
C. ensure strict compliance to traffic signs
D. prevent accident
203. Land Transportation Office is part of which pillar of traffic management?
A. Engineering C. Education
B. Enforcement D. Ecology
204. A professional driver is one who operates a motor vehicle___.
A. for private or public use
B. who is skilled and has broad experience in handling any type of motor vehicle

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 C. for hire or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle, whether for private use
for hire to the public
D. which is strictly for hire
205. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
A. immunity C. right of way
B. leniency D. giving way
206. When two vehicles approach an intersection at approximately the same time, which shall
give the right of way?
A. The vehicle coming from the right C. The vehicle coming from the center
B. The vehicle coming from the left D. The one which arrives there first
207. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist should
-
A. stop and proceed with caution
B. slow down and proceed with caution
C. reduce speed
D. give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction
208. Traffic officers who are tasked to direct traffic should do it -
A. in the right side of the intersection so that he will not be sideswiped
B. in the left side of the intersection for clearer view of the traffic volume
C. either on the left or right side of the intersection so that he can adjust to the
situation
D . in the center of the intersection
209. To ensure a deterrent effect of traffic patrolling, which of the following should NOT be
done?
1. Make sure that you are seen by other motorists
2. Be in full view while patrolling/inspecting moving vehicles
3. Spend more time where motorists or drivers fail to be aware of their common bad
driving habits
4. Delay enforcement actions against habitual violators
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4
210. Law that provides power of the Metro Manila Development Authority to manage traffic in
metropolitan Manila area is -
A. Republic Act 4136 C. Republic Act 7924
B. Republic Act 6539 D. Republic Act 8551
211. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if
any of the circumstances below are present, EXCEPT-
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
212. The expiry period of student driver’s permit is not beyond_________.
A. 12 months C. 6 months
B. 18 months D. 3 years
213. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant is________.
A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21
214. What is the minimum age for non-professional driver’s license applicant?
A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21
215. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is between 16-18 years old, the most
important document he should submit is________.
A . Birth certificate C. Voter’s I.D.
B. Passport D. Parent’s consent
216. What the chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the TOP?
A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, green
B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red

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217. While approaching an intersection , the green traffic light is on, however, a police
officer suddenly proceed to the center and signals a motorist to stop. What should the
motorist do?
A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal is made
218. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist
should___.
A. stop and proceed with caution
B. slow down and proceed with caution
C. reduce speed
D. give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction
219. Overtly violent organized crime group whose members are known to be los hampones (the
hoodlums) and controller of coca cultivation in Bolivia and Peru; production-drug labs in
Colombia, Nicaragua, and Panama; smuggling operations- Bahamas, Turks, and Caicos, and later
in Mexico. Which of these?
A. Colombian Drug Cartels C. The Cali Cartel
B. Medellin Cartel D. Northern Valle Del Cauca
220. Guzmán-Loera Organization  called,  La Alianza de Sangre ("Blood Alliance"), is
considered by the United States Intelligence community as the "the most powerful drug
trafficking organization in the world”, and believed to be operating now in the Philippines.
Which is being referred?
A. The Gulf Cartel C. Tijuana Cartel
B. The Juarez Cartel D. Sinaloa Cartel
221. The uninitiated member of the Hung Secret Society is called______.
A. Dragon Head C. Red Pole
B. Mountain Lord D. Blue Lanterns
222. The Yakuza is organized into families which adopts a relationship known as_____.
A. Oyabun-Kobun C. Yubitsume
B. Kabuki-mono D. Bakuto
223. Which of the following is NOT one of the motorcycle gangs that are active in selling
drugs [they control 75% North American methamphetamine market], prostitution, extortion,
theft, arson, robbery, bombings, and contract murders in the US, Canada and Australia?
A. Hells Angels C. Tongs
B. Outlaws D. Pagans and Bandidos
224. A member of a Cosa Nostra who operates at least one specific criminal enterprise and
constantly search for a new sources of revenue for the crime family based in the United states
is labeled -
1. wise guys 3. button men
2. made guys 4. saviour
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
225. In Joseph Albini’s Patron-Client Model. Organized crime group is consists of
syndicates in a loose system of power relationship. At the center of each organized crime
unit or crime family is/are:
A. Capo, Sottocapo and Consigliere C. Mafioso
B. Caporegime D. Soldati
226. Considered to be the most powerful Mafia family in the US which was established in 1930
A. Gambino, founded Carlo Gambino and Paul Castellano and engaged in drug trafficking,
gambling and car theft
B. Colombo, founded by Joseph Profaci an engaged in narcotics, gambling, Loan-
sharking, cigarette smuggling, pornography, counterfeiting, hijacking bankruptcy fraud, etc
C. Lucchese, founded Tom Gagliano engaged in narcotics trafficking, gambling, loan
sharking, waste management, construction, and garment industry; and Bonnano, foundedby Joe
Bonnano engaged in narcotics trafficking, home video pornography, pizza parlors and espresso
cafés.

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 D. Genovese, founded by Charles “Lucky” Luciano engaged in narcotics trafficking,
loan sharking, extortion rackets, pornography, labor-union, racketeering, restaurants, seafood
distribution, and vending machines.
227. These are the conditions exist which lend cohesiveness to modern-day drug trafficking
organizations, EXCEPT:
A. Vertical integration and alternative sources of supply
B. Exploiting social and political conditions
C. Insulation of leaders
D. Corrupt government official and society indifference
228. An inception, prevention and direct or indirect effects of these crimes involved more
than one country. Which of these?
A. Drug trafficking and human smuggling C. Transnational crimes
B. Terrorism, piracy and cyber crimes D. Global crimes
229. Unlawful activities of the members of a highly organized, disciplined association
engaged in supplying illegal goods and services.
A. Enterprise Crime C. White collar crime
B. Organized Crime D. Economic crime
230. Organized crime is an enterprise of group of persons engaged in a continuing illegal
activity which has as its primary purpose is -
A. the generation of profits irrespective of national boundaries
B. the control of certain illegal activities in a specific territory
C. the creation of fear among its enemies
D. the domination of a certain community
231. Where does the concept of organized crime emerged?
A. In China, when the Triad was established
B. In Japan, when Yakuza was founded
C. In Sicily Italy, when the Mafia was first to emerged
D. In the US, when Al Capone ran Chicago with blood and guns
232. Founders of organized crime in the US like Alphonse Capone, Charles “Lucky” Luciano,
Meyer Lansky and Benjamin “Bugsy” Siegel, are notably, members of a small street gang in New
York called:
A. Five Points Gang C. Outlaws
B. Tongs D. Hells Angels
233. Structural group of three or more persons existing for the period of time and acting in
concert, with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses established in
accordance with this conviction in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or
other material benefit.
A. Crime syndicate C. Criminal gang
B. Organized criminal group D. Fraternity
234. Which of the following is NOT one of the attributes of organized criminal group?
A. Non-Ideological, hierarchical and exclusive Membership
B. Dominating, witty, influential and generous contributor to the church, politicians
etc.
C. Self-perpetuating, violent, involvement in bribery and constitutes a unique
subculture
D. Monopolistic, governed by rules and regulations and has specialization/ division of
labor.
235. One of the organized criminal group's attributes is division of labor, wherein tasks of
each member are divided according to specialization. Difficult assignments involving the use
of violence in a rational manner is performed -
A. by the money mover C. by the fixer and executor
B. by the enforcer D. by the intelligence analyst and assasin

236. Commission of transnational crimes are motivated by the following, EXCEPT one:
A. political influence C. Hate and revenge
B. Economic gain D. Social control in a global scope.
237. The Mafia is believed to be originated from:
A. Morte Alla Francia, Italia Anela

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 B. the practice of the criminals to seal a black handprint at the scene of the crime
C. Italian’s beauty, perfection, grace, and excellence
D. the Sicilian struggle in the 13 th Century against French Rule
238. The Mafioso connotes:
1. Pride, self confidence, and vainglorious behavior
2. Brave and self reliant
3. Man of honor or man of respect
4. Man of action, and one not to be taken lightly
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2 and 4
239. Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of organized crime behaviour?
A. Violence and strong commitment and determination to get what they what
B. Provision of illicit goods and services
C. Conspiracy and penetration of legitimate business
D. Extortion and corruption
240. Membership in organized crime group requires -
A loyalty C. lifetime commitment
B. obedience to the boss D. specialized criminal skills
241. Criminality of an organized crime group is directed by -
A. the pursuit of profit along well-defined lines
B. violence, when the interests of the organization are threatened
C. the boss
D. the pursuit of eliminating competitors
242. How does organized crime groups maintain their power and profit?
A. Through violence
B. Through corruption
C. Through the silence and attitude of non-cooperation of law abiding citizens
D. Through continuous association with criminal protectors
243. These are persons and organizations which grant power and the perception of
legitimacy to organized crime groups.
A. The Protectors composed of a network of corrupt officials who protect them from the
criminal justice system
B. The specialized supporter who provide them contract services such as pilots,
chemists, arsonists and hijackers.
C. Audience of consumers of illegal goods and services
D. Social supporters such as civic organizations, influential citizens etc.
244. Donald Cressey’s Cosa Nostra model or organized crime group is characterized by,
EXCEPT one.
A. Italian-dominated crime families who control crime in distinct geographic areas
B. Extremely violent, dangerous and highly disciplined
C. Its primary unit is the family which embodies male members of Italian ancestry.
D. The family is protected by a code of conduct for members which prohibits them from
revealing
organizational secrets.
245. The boss of the Cosa Nostra is/are:
1. Is its supreme leader
2. Is the older members of the crime family
3. Oversees all organizational endeavors and has a final word on decisions involving
virtually all
aspects of crime family business
4. Respected by the members of the crime family
5. Overall leader
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 5
246. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as a buffer between the lowest-level
members and the upper-level members of the crime family.
A. The Consigliere C. The Capos
B. The Underboss D. Soldiers
247. Known as “Big Six” transnational organized crime group ARE:
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 A. Sicilian and American Mafia Families; Russian Mafiya; Yakuza; Triads; Colombian
Cartels; and Mexican Federation.
B Nigeria; Panama; Jamaica; Puerto Rico, Dominican Republic, Colombia
C. Red Army; Shining Path; Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia; People’s Irish
Republican Army; Al Qaeda; and ISIS
D. Gambino, Colombo, Profaci, Lucchese, Bonnano, Genovese Crime Families
248. Members of the Mafia are bound by an oath of five basic principles. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
A. Omerta, or code of silence and total obedience to the “Don” or “Boss”
B. Assistance to any befriended Mafia faction, no question asked and to avenge any
attack on members of the family
C. Avoid any and all contact with law enforcement authorities
D. Avoid killing police officer
249. Considered to be the one who first to master money laundering is -
A. Al Capone In Chicago C. Meyer Lansky
B. Salvatore “Lucky” Luciano D. Bugsy Seigel
250. Which of the following is NOT one of the Italian criminal enterprise?
A. The Camorra C. La Cosa Nostra
B. ‘Ndrangheta D. Sacred Crown
251. The United Nations defines terrorism as -
A. the use or threatened use of force designed to bring about a political change
B. an illegitimate use of force to achieve a political objective by targeting innocent
people
C. socially and politically unacceptable violence aimed at an innocent target to
achieve psychological effect .
D. sny act intended to cause death or serious bodily harm to civilians or non-
combatants with the purpose of intimidating a population of serious bodily harm and
compelling a government or an international organization to do or abstain doing any act
252. Terrorist Act is an any act that is unlawful, involves the use or threatened use of
violence or force against individuals or property which designed to coerce a government or
society and supports any of the following, EXCEPT -
A. political objectives C. barbaric objectives
B. ideological objectives D. religious objectives
253. Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing and hijacking C. Arson and Assault
B. Rape or any form of sexual assault D. Kidnapping and taking hostages
254. The origin of terrorism can be traced from:
A. The French Revolution which describe the actions of the French government.
B. After World War II, when the world’s nationalist groups revolted from European
domination
C. Year 1960 to early 1980, when it was applied to violent left-wing groups, as well as
nationalist.
D. A large groups who are independent from a state, violent religious fanatics, and
violent groups who terrorize for a particular cause such as the environment
255. Use of lethal force by the state government against its own civilian population with the
purpose of repressing the people, making them apolitical or politically malleable, and/or
weakening the population’s willingness to support revolutionary or other anti-government
forces.
A. Apolitical terrorism C. State terrorism
B. Revolutionary terrorism D. State sponsored terrorism
256. In state sponsored terrorism, the state’s regime -
A. instills fear against elements of its own population to create conditions sufficient
to remain in political control.
B. uses its military instrument against the civilian population of an enemy nation for
the purpose of undermining the population’s will to support its own government, or shattering
the cohesion of the population making it unable to support its government.
C. employs lethal force across international borders for the purpose of destroying or
weakening the political cohesion of a targeted political entity without using its own military

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instrument to deliver the lethal force, but harness social elements within the targeted entity
to do so.
D. None of them
257. Which of the following may NOT be a target for terrorist attack?
A. Structures which have a symbolic or practical significance and propaganda value
B. Places where the terrorists have an easy access to the target area and security
C. Structures which are vulnerable for destruction and persons of importance to the
enemy
D. Places where weapons, transportation needs, and support network are available
258. Which of the following is considered terrorist’s safe haven?
A. An area of relative security exploited by terrorists to indoctrinate, recruit,
train, and regroup, as well as prepare and support their operations.
B. A place where terrorists hide and coddled by their symphatizers
C. Global media, and satellite communications that allow terrorists to fulfill many of
their functions
D. An area which is difficult to track and control.
259. The giving of alms for the poor and needy as prescribed by the Quran which is the
primary means within the Muslim world for terror organizations to “legitimately” receive money
is__.
A. Zakat C. Hawala
B. Islamic Banking D. Money Laundering
260. The leader of Al Qaeda is CALLED___.
A The Base C. Jihad
B. The Emir D. Bearer of the Sword
261. In its self-proclaimed status as a caliphate, it claims religious authority over
all Muslims worldwide, and aims to bring most traditionally Muslim-inhabited regions of the
world under its political control.
A. Jimaah Islamiya C. Abu Sayyaf
B. Daesh D. Al Qaeda
262. What is the law that defines and penalizes crime of terrorism in the Philippines?
A. Act No. 3815 C. RA 10175
B. RA 9372 D. RA 9208
263. Core elements of the concept of trafficking, EXCEPT:
A. The action of trafficking which means the recruitment, transportation, transfer,
harboring or receipt of persons
B. The means of trafficking which includes threat of or the use of force, deception,
coercion, abuse of power or position of vulnerability
C. The motive which for profit or financial gain
D. The purpose which is always exploitation
264. Which of the following are the commonly identified forms of human trafficking?
1. Drug courier, forced membership in syndicate
2. Sexual exploitation and organ removal
3. Exploitation of children in begging, sex trade and warfare
4. Forced labor, domestic servitude and forced marriage
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4
265. Money laundering’s main objective is ___.
A. to conceal the beneficial ownership or audit trail of illegally obtained money or
valuable so that it appears to have originated from a legitimate source.
B. to keep the money hidden from the authorities
C. to gain interest from the money
D. to buy expensive jewelry
266. Placement in money laundering process means _____.
A. merging of money into legitimate economic and financial systems

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 B. separating illicit proceeds from their source by creating complex layers of
financial transactions designed to disguise the source of money, subvert the audit trail and
provide anonymity
C. disposal of cash proceeds derived from the unlawful activity
D. investing dirty money to legitimate business
267. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to devise international standards and policies
to combat money laundering. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. France, Germany and Italy
B. Japan
C. United Kingdom of Great Britain, United States of America, and Canada
D. China, South Korea and Russia
268. In 2000 the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime extended the
legal definition of money laundering to include all serious crimes. This is known as:
A. Palermo Convention C. Transnational Organized Crime Convention
B. United Nations Convention D. Organized Crime Convention
269. Republic Act No. 9160 as amended by RA 9194 , RA10167 and RA10365 defines money
laundering as a crime whereby the proceeds of an unlawful activity (predicate crime) are
transacted, thereby making them appear to have originated from legitimate sources. It is
committed by any person who:
1. transacts or attempts to transact with any monetary instrument knowing that it
involves or relates to the proceed of an unlawful activity.
2. facilitates the commission of money-laundering as defined in no.1 by knowingly
performing or failing to perform an act.
3. fails to disclose and file a report with AMLC of any instrument or property as
required under the law
A. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
270. The Philippine Center on Transnational Crime which is created by virtue of Executive
Order No. 62, is under what office or agency?
A. Office of the President C. Department of Justice
B. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Philippine National Police
271. What is the primary mandate of the Philippine Center on Transnational Crime?
A. To formulate and implement a concerted program of action of all law enforcement,
intelligence and other government agencies for the prevention and control of transnational
crime.
B. To establish through the use of modern information and telecommunication a shared
central data base among government agencies for information on criminals, methodologies,
arrest and convictions on transnational crimes.
C. To establish a center for strategic research on the structure and dynamics of
transnational crimes in all its forms, and predict trends and analyze relationships of given
factors for the formulation of individual and collective strategies for the prevention and
detection of transnational and organized crime and for the apprehension of the criminals
involved.
D. None of them
272. Conceptualized in the 1920's and had its initial headquarters in Vienna. This
organization was established to promote international criminal police cooperation.
A. International Police
B. International Criminal Police Organization
C. International Association of the Chiefs of Police
D. Asian National Police
273. Three Core Services of the INTERPOL, EXCEPT -
A. Unique global police communication system
B. Range of criminal data bases and analytical services
C. Proactive support for police operations throughout the world.
D. Arrest of international terrorist
274. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism is/are:
1. Prevent acts of international terrorism

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 2. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that the perpetrators are brought to
justice which could be achieved by exchanging information with its member countries through
its source messaging system and by arranging meetings of expert to address the subject.
3. Arrest the terrorist
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3

INTERPOL Notice System:

1. Red Notice – based on the national arrest warrants, are used to seek the
arrest and extradition of suspects.
2. Blue Notice – used to seek information on the identity of persons or on their
illegal activities related to criminal matters.
3. Green Notice – are used to provide warning and criminal intelligence about
persons who have committed criminal offenses and who are likely to repeat these
crimes in other countries.
4. Yellow Notice – used to locate missing persons
5. Black Notice – used to determine the identity of deceased person.
6. Orange Notice – to warn of an event, a person, an object or a process
representing an imminent
threat and danger to persons or property.
7. Purple Notice – issued to provide information on modus operandi, objects,
devices and concealment methods used by criminals.
8. INTERPOL–United Nations Security Council Special Notice – is issued for
individuals and entities that are subject to UN sanctions.

275. INTERPOL’s notice on planned terrorist attack to one of its member-countries.

A. Blue Notice C. Yellow Notice
B. Green Notice D. Orange Notice
276. Red Notice is INTERPOL’s Notice System:
A. To seek information on the identity of persons or on their illegal activities
related to criminal matters
B. To provide warning and criminal intelligence about persons who have committed
criminal offenses and who are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries.
C. To locate missing persons
D. To seek the arrest and extradition of suspects
277. Black is INTERPOL’s notice to______.
A. Determine the identity of deceased person
B. Provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used
by criminals.
C. Individuals and entities that are subject to UN sanctions.
D. Any of the above
278. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police- Special Action Force Commandos
that led to the killing of the international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the Mamasapano,
Maguindanao.
A. Oplan Wolverine C. Oplan Neptune Spear
B. Joint Task Force Ranao D. Oplan Exodus
279. Which terrorist group lead by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic
state in the world?
A. Al Qaeda C. Islamic State
B. Abu Sayyaf D. Jemaah Islamiyah
280. Among the following, which is the most intractable safe havens of terrorist groups
worldwide?
A. Internet
B. Global media
C. Regions where ineffective governance allows their presence
D. Those created by electronic infrastructure
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281. Core elements of trafficking, EXCEPT-
A. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
B. Entry of the victims to the country of destination
C. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power or position of
vulnerability
D. Exploitation
282. Investigation, prosecution and trial of the crime of trafficking in person is done in-
A. Open and public C. Closed-door
B. Personal D. Official capacity
283. When does the government lost its power to prosecute persons engaged in syndicated or
large scale human trafficking?
A. 10 years C. 15 years
B. 20 years D. 40 years
284. In the investigation of cybercrime, “VES” approach is used. Among the following, which
should be excluded as literal meaning of VES?
A. Victim C. Evidence
B. Violation D. Suspect
285. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo C. Operation Neptune Spear
B. Operation Jabbidah D. Operation Merdeka
286. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous drug to the body by one
person to another is _.
A. drug use C. taking
B. administer D. addict
287. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him elsewhere he ceased from
using it. Diego’s act is called -
A. abstinence C. self medication
B. rehabilitation D. dependence
288. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit,
manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer
of medicine to the drug trafficker is called -
A. drug trafficking C. shemical diversion
B. sale D. chemical smuggling
289. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called -
A. drug den C. laboratory equipment
B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
290. Offenses that constitute drug trafficking, according to the Comprehensive Drug Act of
2002 are the following, EXCEPT -
A. cultivation, culture and delivery of illegal drugs
B. administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading of illegal drugs
C. use, consumption, addiction and tolerance of illegal drugs
D. transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession of illegal
drugs
291. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol is -
A. mescaline C. marijuana
B. LSD D. ecstacy
292. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical
form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
B. Papaver somniferum D. Cannabis sativa
293. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended offender within 24 hours if the
person arrested has -
1. visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
2. physical sign of drug abuse
3. psychological manifestation of drug addiction
4. symptoms of drug abuse
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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294. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which was
cultivated by the Summerrians during 7000 BC.
A. Hippocrates C. Confucious
B. Morpreus D. Socrates
295. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in China by the British Indies that
lead to the Opium War of 1840.
A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen
B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong
296. Which drug that is considered as the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
297. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is
considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Coca Plant
B. Cannabis Sativa D. Ephedrine
298. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, EXCEPT:
A. Indian hemp C. Coca bush
B. Opium poppy D. Ephedra
299. Of the following components of drug trafficking organization, which furnishes drugs to
the users?
A. Core organization C. Cartel
B. Secondary organization D. Local organization
300. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market is/are:
I. heroin and cocaine
II. shabu and ecstacy
III. marijuana and methamphetamine
IV. narcotics, hallucinogens, stimulants and depressants
A. I and II only C. II and III only
B. I and III only D. IV only
301. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and
other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates B. Narcotics
C. Heroine D. Hallucinogens
302. Amphetamine users manifest which of the following symptoms?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
303. Which kind of drug that excite the central nervous system, increasing alertness,
decreasing fatigue and delaying sleep?
A. Narcotic C. Shabu
B. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant
304. Which of the following is NOT one of the means of the taking methamphetamine
hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon C. Smoking
B. Snorting D. Oral
305. In which of the following statements will you agree with?
I. Drug addicts can be detected by means of observation of the person suspected to be
addicted of drugs.
II. Drug addicts can be detected through laboratory examination.
III. Drug addicts can be detected through psychological examinations such as
intelligence, personality, aptitude, interest and psychiatric examinations.
A. I, II and III C. I and II only
B. II only D. II and III only
306. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which are through law
enforcement, prosecution and judicial actions. Which of these?
A. Demand reduction C. Inter-agency coordination
B. Supply reduction D. International cooperation

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307. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of
dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above
308. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished with
-
A. imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. imprisonment of at least 6 months
309. Solvents, paints, gasoline and other substances sniffed to obtain intoxication are
classified as -
A. depressants C. energizers
B. tranquilizers D. inhalants
310. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
311. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden
Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. Thailand –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
312. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relives pain and
induces sleep.
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
313. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
B. Marijuana D. Ecstacy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
314. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its
control becomes difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that it is -
A. easy to smoke it secretly C. easy to cultivate
B. sellable in the market D. in demand
315. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking, self-awareness and emotion -
A. are classified as hallucinogens C. are categorized as sedatives
B. are considered as stimulants D. are classified as narcotics
316. Which drug that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina
and/or energy?
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic steroid
317. The Dangerous Drug Board is consist of 17 members, 12 are in ex officio capacity, 3 are
permanent, 2 are regular, and 2 permanent consultants. Who are the permanent consultants?
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General D. PNP Director and PDEA Director
318. Physical dependence, severe craving for the drug even to the point of interfering with
the person’s ability to function normally is termed ______ on the drug literature.
A. tolerance C. habituation
B. addiction D. psychological dependence
319. Process of removing toxic substances from the the human body as a result of abusing
drugs is known as -
A. cleansing process C. abstinence

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 B. aversion treatment D. detoxification
320. Which drug that is predominantly use as a legitimate veterinary anesthetic, and is
emerging subject of abused?
A. Ketamine C. Anesthesia
B. Codeine D. Sleeping pills
321. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics
substance. Which of these?
A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy
322. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence.
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies.
D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an
imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) days.
323. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as
to prevent its members from being hook to addiction?
A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family D. School
324. What quantity of alcohol blood you may conclude that a person is under the influence
of the liquor?
A. 0.05 percent C. 1.5 percent
B. 0.15 percent D. 0.50 percent
325. Which group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke
326. The source/s of most analgesic narcotic is/are:
1. Opium 4. Heroine
2. Morphine 5. Ephedrine
3. Cocaine 6. Cannabis
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 3,4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
327. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. Poor environment C. Domestic violence
B. Experimental thrill D. Peer pressure
328. If cocaine is a stimulant, LSD -
A. is a solvent C. is a hallucinogen
B. is a narcotic drug D. is a depressant
329. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by its -
A. stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
330. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they -
A. are violently insane C. flagrantly immoral
B. ruin their life/health D. feel no restraint in committing crimes .
331. Which of the following is commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
332. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is
usually prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression. Which
of these?
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
333. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbing taste and said to be one of the
strongest derivatives of opium poppy is -
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 A. morphine C. codeine
B. heroin D. cocaine
334. This is referred to as immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the minds and body.
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction
B. Gambling D. Vice

335. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from___.

A. The Golden Crescent C. Hongkong
B. The Golden Triangle D. Silver Triangle
336. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world is in -
A. Japan C. Philippines
B. Hongkong D. Burma
337. Cocaine has originated from Colombia; Shabu is known to have originated from -
A. Japan C. Mexico
B. China D. India
338. Habituation is a condition resulting from the repeated administration or use of drug
which is characterize by__
1. a desire (but not compulsion) to continue taking drug.
2. little or no tendency to increase the dosage.
3. some degree of physiological dependence
4. intensified physical dependence and withdrawal syndrome
A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only
339. A person addicted to drugs is characterized by one or more attribute/s, EXCEPT one.
A. Uncontrollable craving to take drugs
B. Physical and psychological dependence to drugs
C. Habituation and hallucination
D. Drug tolerance and withdrawal syndrome
340. 340.The presence of any controlled precursor and essential chemical or laboratory
equipment in the clandestine laboratory is -
A. a prima facie proof of manufacture of any dangerous drug
B. a prima facie evidence of possession of dangerous drugs
C. a probable cause of manufacture of dangerous drugs
D. a prima facie evidence of drug trafficking
341. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called___.
A. drug den C. laboratory equipment
B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
342. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate about law enforcement interest on
vices?
A. It cannot be totally eliminated but only at most controlled or regulated
B. It is connected with other forms of criminal activities.
C. Vice dens are often time the scene of frequent fights that disturbs the peace of the
Community.
D. Continued police action of sincere and honest law enforcement officers can eliminate
the existence of vices.
343. Under Republic Act 9165, selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately
imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals,
by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker constitutes -
A. drug trafficking C. chemical diversion
B. sale D. chemical smuggling
344. Vices present varied social problems affecting morality, health, economy, criminality and
efficiency of the government. As a social problem therefore, vice control must be a
coordinated effort of the following, EXCEPT-
A.The home, school, and the church whoh must campaign for the eradication of vices.
B.The government and the police as an agency of control who must embarked on a
repressive measures against vice maintainers.
C.The citizenry who must endeavor to achieve moral education and economic upliftment
through their voluntary participation.
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 D. The mass media who must condemn the evil and wicked nature of vices
345. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical
form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is ___.
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
B. Papaver somniferum D. Cannabis sativa
346. To administer illegal drug means_______
A. to introduce any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with or without
his/her knowledge
B. to use drug through injection
C. to consume dangerous drug through inhalation
D. to introduce any illegal drug into the body through snorting
347. Vices are difficult to control by the police because of any of the following factors,
EXCEPT -
A. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts and lack of cooperation from
players, customers, and victims of vices,
B. Corruption of the law enforcement officers particularly, the country's national
police force
C. Enjoyment of goodwill by vice operators and public apathy and indifference
D. Unwilling government officials to work against vice existence
348. As a rule, only a physician can prescribe a medicinal drugs. The practice of taking
drugs without proper medicinal supervision is called non-medicinal use of drugs or____.
A. drug misuse C. drug misadministration
B. drug Abuse D. drug addiction
349. What is the safest, most convenient and economical route of drug administration?
A. Topical C. Oral
B. Iontophoresis D. Inhalation
350. Known as the “Father of Medicine”, ____________ prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery
which was cultivated by the Summerrians during 7000 BC.
A. Hippocrates C. Confucious
B. Morpreus D. Socrates
351. What is the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
352. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is
considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Coca Plant
B. Cannabis Sativa D. Ephedrine
353. A very drunk person is the one who -
A. has reddening of the face, but there is no sign of mental impairment
B. is argumentative and overconfident and face is flushed with digested eyeball
C. is confused, his behavior is irregular and the movement is uncontrolled
D. is confused and disoriented
354. Which alcoholism treatment method that the alcoholics are administered with a nauseating
drug to be followed by a drink of liquor, and thus develops a dislike of alcohol?
A.The Aversion Treatment C. Fellowsip Method
B.The Psychotherapy Method D.The Program of Alcoholics Anonymous

355. This is characterized by a continuous desire for drug and that the user believes that it
is needed to function at work or home because it often produces an elated/ excited emotional
state. Which is being referred?
A. Tolerance C. Addiction
B. Habituation D. Withdrawal symptoms
356. 356. Under the Republic Act 9165 possession of equipment, instrument, apparatus and
other paraphernalia fit or intended for its purpose/s is a -
A. prima facie evidence that the possessor has consumed or administered drugs for
himself hence violated Section 11 of comprehensive drug law
B. ground for the possessor's indictment

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 C. ground for the possessor's arrest for violating Section 5 of the comprehensive drug
law
D. prima facie evidence that the possessor has consumed or administered drugs for
himself hence violated Section 15 of comprehensive drug law

357. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and
other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates C. Narcotics
B. Heroine D. Hallucinogens
358. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
359. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous system, increasing alertness, decreasing
fatigue and delaying sleep is -
A. Narcotic C. Shabu
B. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant
360. Which of the following is NOT one of the means of the taking methamphetamine
hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon C. Smoking
B. Snorting D. Oral
361. Mind altering drugs that gives the general effect of mood distortion are -
A. hallucinogens C. hypnotic
B. sedatives D. narcotics
362. Max took a stimulant drug. What would be its effect to him?
A. Max will be relieved of his pain and feel stupor
B. Max will be relaxed or calmed
C. Max will be mentally alert and wakeful
D. Max will feel intoxicated
363. Heroin is five times more powerful among the derivative of which natural drug?
A. Marijuana C. Shabu
B. Coca Bush D. Opium
364. Person apprehended or arrested for violation of Republic Act 9165 shall be subjected to
screening laboratory examination or test within 24 hours, and if found to be positive, the
results can be challenged -
A. within 15 days after receipt of the result through a confirmatory test
B. within 10 days from receipt of the result through gas chromatograph/mass
spectrometry equipment or some such modern and accepted method
C. within 15 days after receipt of the result through any accredited analytical
laboratory equipment
D. within 3 days after receipt of the result through a confirmatory test

365. Pursuant to the implementing Rules and Regulations of Republic Act 9165, and consistent
with the chain of custody rule, it requires that the marking of seized illegal drug items
should be done by the seizing officers:
A. In the presence of the apprehended violator C. Immediately upon confiscation
B. Immediately upon arrival at the police office D. A and C
366. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of
dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. the minor shall serve his sentence at DSWD
367. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished with
-
A. imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. imprisonment of at least 6 months
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368. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the Colombian and Peruvian drug
trafficking was controlled by -
A. The Mafia C. Medellin Cartel
B. La Cosa Nostra D. Chinese Mafia
369. Principal source of all forms of cocaine is in _______
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South America D. South West Asia
370. The major transshipment point for international drug traffickers in Europe and known to
be the “Paradise of Drug Users” in this continent is -
A. Portugal C. Germany
B. Spain D. Turkey
371. In the Middle East, ______ is known as the biggest producer of cannabis sativa.
A. Lebanon C. Kuwait
B. Iraq D. Afhganistan
372. The Golden Triangle produces ___ percent of opium in the world?
A. 60 C. 80
B. 70 D. 90
373. The Golden Crescent is located in the South West Asia composed of -
A. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan C. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
B. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan D. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey
374. Sources of dangerous drugs particularly opium poppy is cultivated and harvested mostly
in the areas of which part of the globe?
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South West Asia D. Europe
375. How many amount of shabu does a person possess to render him ineligible to post bail?
A. 100 grams C. less than 50 gram
B. Half of a kilogram D. 50 grams or more
376. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the commercial trade marijuana, it is -
A. concentrated resin extracted from marijuana
B. dried flower of marijuana
C. fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
D. finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant
377. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is -
A. buttons C. brain eaters
B. dope D. herbals
378. Heroin is blanco; codeine is school boy; psilocybin is magic mushroom; cocaine is:
A. hearts C. uppers
B. crack D. speed
379. Which of the following does NOT carry a capital punishment?
A. Possession of 20 grams morphine C. Possession of 15 grams of MDMA
B. Possession of 100 grams of marijuana D. Possession of 60 grams of shabu
380. Which of the following is NOT FALSE?
A. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition to dangerous drug
B. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between regulated and prohibited drug
C. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drug to prohibited drug
D. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drug as dangerous drug
381. Which of the following is NOT UNTRUE?
A. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated
B. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action for violation of RA 9165 while
the PDEA takes care to criminal aspects
C. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related to drugs which are usually
implemented by PDEA
D. The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory
provisions of RA 9165
382. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related cases?
A. Public Attorney’s Office C. National Prosecution Service
B. Ombudsman D. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ
383. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug cases?
A. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
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 B. Special Court designated by the SC
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Special Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
384. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be destroyed _______ after the promulgation
of judgment.
A. 2 days C. 24 hours
B. 1 day D. 48 hours
385. Decision of the court whether the person is guilty or not guilty for drug trafficking
shall be rendred within the period of ________ after the trial.
A. 15 days C. 10 days
B. 30 days D. 6 days
386. Preliminary investigation of drug case is being terminated within the period of how
many days from the date of filing?
A. 30 C. 10
B. 15 D. 4
387. How many hours that the information shall be filed in court after the termination of the
preliminary investigation?
A. 24 C. 72
B. 48 D. 36
388. After the filing of the criminal case, the courts conducts ocular inspection of seized
drugs within -
A. 48 hours C. 72 hours
B. 24 hours` D. 36 hours
389. Republic Act 9165 was enacted on June 7, 2002 and took effect on July 4, 2002.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false
390. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress destructive fires, implements the
fire code and investigates all fires cases in the Philippines
A. the Bureau of Fire Protection
B. the PNP’s Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
C. the Anti-Arson Investigation Task Force of the PNP
D. The Bureau of Fire of the Philippines
391. Product of combustion which combustible materials and oxidizing agents react to heat is
known as-
A. fire C. smoke
B. ashes D. flame
392. The means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire is referred to as_____.
A. fire suppression C. fire inspection
B. fire control D. fire prevention
393. Which classification of fire is produced when the combustion is sustained by
flammable fuel?
A. Class C C. Class D
B. Class B D. Class A
394. Which type of fire caused by volcanic eruption or humidity?
A. Providential C. Unnatural
B. Intentional D. Accidental

Phases of Fire
1. Initial /Incipient Phase: BA400 to 800F; CA 200F
2. Free Burning Phase: BA 800 to 1,000F; CA 1,200-1,600F
3. Smoldering Phase: BA 460; CA 1,000-1,300 F

395. Fire occurrences are divided into three stages. Which stage has the highest rate of
intensity?
A. Incipient C. Smoldering
B. Free burning D. Initial

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396. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat is known as______.
A. thermal balance C. burning
B. oxidation D. pyrolysis
397. Fire or combustion produces elements and substances that are both beneficial and
destructive to humans. Which product of combustion composed of tiny solid particles, which
blocked the eyes when conflagration arise?
A. Fire gases C. Smoke
B. Flames D. Heat
398. The means employed by the fire fighters to pacify the fire is known as____.
A. Fire prevention C. Fire control
B. Fire safety D. Fire suppression
399. How is the rate of temperature of fire can be measured?
A. By its heat C. By its magnitude
B. By its intensity D. By its ignition point
400. Which process is performed by government authorities such as the Bureau of Fire
Protection to assess the safety of an installation from destructive fires?
A. Fire control C. Fire prevention
A. Fire safety D. Fire inspection
401. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines” is_____.
A. Republic Act 6975 C. Republic Act 9514
B. Republic Act 9263 D. Presidential Decree 1613
402. Basically, fire has three important elements for its sustenance. Authorities however
established what is known as the 4 th element of fire? This refers to___.
A. fuel
B. heat which is responsible for the spreading of fire
C. uninhibited chemical reaction
D. oxygen
403. Fire spreads in various buildings or installation due to heat, which is responsible to
the spread of combustion. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids is known as___.
A. convection C. conduction
B. radiation D. electrolysis
404. Which term is used to refer the means employed by the fire fighters to keep the blaze
to a minimum or manageable level?
A. Fire control C. Fire suppression
B. Fire prevention D. Fire inspection
405. When you refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the
area of fuel that is burning, you mean_____.
A. fire temperature C. intensity of burning
B. measurement of heat D. fire magnitude
406. Upon inspection the Bureau of Fire Protection recommended the removal of material in
the building that may accelerate the burning during the fire. Compliance to such
recommendation by building occupants is termed____.
A. lien C. inspection
B. abatement D. renovation
407. Normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure ,
or simply natural condition created by fire is known?
A. Thermal balance C. Fire turbulence
B. Thermal imbalance D. Fire direction
408. Which Office at the Bureau of Fire Protection that facilitates the implementation of the
Fire Code of the Philippines?
A. Fire Investigation Section C. Fire Safety inspection Section
B. Fire Safety Enforcement Branch D. Arson Investigation Branch
409. When fire occurred, the process of determining its cause is known as -
A. fire safety investigation C. criminal investigation
B. fire investigation D. criminal justice system
410. When fire occurs, the first thing to be observed in ascertaining its cause is -
A. the point of origin C. the room of origin
B. the burnt pattern of ceiling D. the color of smoke and flame

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411. One of the most important aspect in arson investigation is the determination of the
exact place where the fire started, which is known as -
A. the kitchen C. electrical wire
B. The point of origin D. fire scene
412. What is the term used that refers to the burnt pattern in woods indicating the
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred?
A. Alligatoring C. Collapse
B. Discoloration D. Charring
413. Which of the following should be performed first in conducting fire investigation?
A. Secure the fire scene C. Pacify the fire
B. Photograph the facade D. Conduct search
414. A fire which there are human casualties is classified as____.
A. deadly fire C. spot fire
B. fatal fire D. arson
415. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who among the following is the probable
perpetrator?
A. Jolted lover C. Terrorist
B. Rebel D. Pyromaniac
416. Which of the following will NOT cause the investigator to hypothesize that the series of
fires were NOT performed by a serial arsonist?
A. Modus operandi in all series of fire are different
B. The time of the commission of arson varies
C. The manner of commission of an offenses are similar
D. Devices used to propagate the fire are the same

417. If the investigator did not found any trace of incendiarism, which of the following
will be the assumption?
A. The fire was intentional C. The fire was providential
B. The fire was accidental D. The fire might be an arsonn
418. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to assume that the victim died of
direct contact with flame?
A. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract
B. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab
C. Intense charring of the whole body
D. Absence of carbon monoxide in the hemoglobin

419. What is that system of interconnected pipe that supplies water for fire suppression
installed in the building?
A. Wet pipe C. Stand pipe
B. Dry pipe D. Sprinkler
420. Which product of fire that can be detected by gas chromatogram and ion spectrometer?
A. Flames C. Soot
B. Heat D. Fire gases
421. To point out the difference between the incendiary cause of fire and natural cause the
fire investigator must photograph the natural fire pattern and -
A. arson fire pattern C. providential fire pattern
B. accidental fire pattern D. suspicious fire pattern
422. Most arson cases are proved by________ evidence rather than that direct evidence.
A. circumstantial C. testimonial
B. documentary D. physical
423. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the
building and/or goals is more than ____ of the value of such building and/or goods at the time
of the fire.
A. 60% C. 80%
B. 50% D. 90%
424. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the dead body found in a burned structure,
this will be a strong circumstantial evidence that the person -
A. was dead when the fire began C. was still alive before the fire
B. was killed by someone else during the blaze D. died due to suffocation
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425. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids is
-
A. sulfides C. sulfur
B. nitrates D. ammonia
426. When fire occurs, your first action upon its discovery is ____.
A. to run for life C. to pack up personal belongings
B. to raise the alarm D. to call an ambulance
427. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the design and erection of a
complete building but also the various specialist engineers who may be concerned with the
structure, the electrical installation, the heating ventilation system and so on. Which is
being referred?
A. Building contractors C. Office of building permits
B. Designers D. Building planners
428. Which of the following is a primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire
protection?
A. To see to it that the building is insured
B. To safeguard life
C. To insure that the building is hazard-free
D. To generate income for the government
429. It helps the the arson investigator solve the fire mystery. The fact that fire feeds or
combustible while propagating itself. It will indicate generally the deepest from where the
fire originated. Which of these?
A. Charring C. Burning
B. Allegatoring D. Trailer
430. Preparation to set a building to fire, which is design to feed the combustion as
rapidly as possible when ignition device is lighted. Which is being referred?
A. Plants C. Accelarants
B. Trailers D. Fuel
431. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to
produce ___.
A. explosion C. conflagration
B. detonation D. big fire
432. Which term is used that refers to the chemical decomposition of matter through the
action of heat?
A. Flash over C. Ignition
B. Pyrolysis D. Combustion
433. As the product of combustion rises in a building or flows out of an opening an equal
volume of air replaces them. If during extinguishment, water is distributed in such a manner
as to upset the thermal balance, a condition will appear known as____.
A. explosion of steam C. thermal imbalance
B. thermostat D. sudden burst of fire
434. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from
the base to the top of the building?
A. Vertical shaft C. Standpipe
B. Sprinkler system D. Fash point
435. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves.
This heat transfer is known as -
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection 
436. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally
to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. Rope C. Hydrant
B. Ladder D. Nozzle 
437. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as______.
A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
438. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise
building?
A. Attic C. Extension
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 B. Aerial D. Hook
439. It refers to the law on arson. Which of these?
A. Presidential Decree 1612 C. Revised Penal Code
B. Presidential Decree 1613 D. Republic Act 7659
440. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and Jean quarreled. Because of anger,
Jessie put the clothes of Jean in a luggage and burned them.
A. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable
B. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from criminal liability
C. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable
D. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from criminal liability under Article 332 of
the Revised Penal Code
441. Fire has three elements known as the fire triangle. The most important of which is____.
A. heat because it is what starts the fire
B. oxygen because it makes the fire alive
C. fuel because it is what burns
D. uninhabited chain reaction because it expedite the spread of fire
442. If the investigator did not found any trace of incendiarism, his assumption will be____.
A. the fire was intentional C. the fire was accidental
B. the fire was providential D. the fire was not accidental
443. Out of anger because his younger brother was mauled by a neighbor Judah, Mad Max burned
the house of Judah who, unknown to him was sleeping in the said house during that time. As
Criminologist-Arson Investigator you will charge Mad Max with____.
A. arson with homicide C. destructive Arson
B. murder D. arson only
444. Feeling unjustly treated by his landlord Mang Kanor burned five warehouses owned by his
landlord, where farm products are stored. Mang Kanor committed a crime of___
A. malicious mischief C. five counts of arson
B. burning of farm products D. destructive arson
445. You are prober who investigates Dindo who have intentionally burned the house of Floro,
but the latter’s house was not completely gutted by the fire will charge Dindo with___.
A. arson, because it is enough that a portion thereof is shown to have been destroye d
B. frustrated arson because the destruction of the house due to fire is not completed
C. attempted arson because Dindo commenced the commission of arson through overt acts
and burning ensued
D. consummated arson because bare occurrence of fire is enough to consummate the crime
of arson.
446. OPLAN TOKHANG, which literally means “Katok Hangyo” is considred practical and realistic
means of accelerating the government’s drive against illegal drugs in the Philippines. Its
main objective is -
A. to clean the Philippine society from illegal drugs
B. to eliminate illegal drugs within the first six months of President Duterte’s term
C. to eliminate drug users, pushers, dealers, drug lords and their protectors
D. to encourage people involved in illegal drugs to surrender or else they will be
exterminated
447. Which are the four stages in the conduct of OPLAN KATOK SA DROGA?
1. Coordination 4. Monitoring and evaluation
2. House visitation 5. Arrest and seizure
3. Collection and validation of information
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and C. 1, 2, 4 and 3
B. 2, 1, 4, 3 and 5 D. 3, 1, 2, 4 and 5
448. In OPLAN TOKHANG, when does visitation of the reported drug personality is conducted?
A. After receiving a report
B. Upon validation of collected information
C. Upon complaint by the Barangay officials
D. Upon proper documentation and verification of all possible sources of information

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449. OPLAN TOKHANG is and an anti- illegal drug operation plan of which law enforcement
agency?
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Philippine National Police Anti-Illegal Drug Task Force
C. Philippine National Police
D. Coordinated operations against illegal drugs by the PNP, PDEA and NBI
450. OPLAN TOKHANG is an interagency operation against illegal drugs, mainly by the following:
i. Local government units
ii. Barangay Anti-Drug Abuse Council
iii. Philippine Drug enforcement Agency
iv. Dangerous Drug Board
v. National Bureau of Investigation
vi. Philippine National Police
A. iii, iv, v and vi C. iv, v and vi
B. ii, iii, iv, v and vi D. i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi

****END***

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