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PHẦN II: CÁC ĐỀ LUYỆN THI

PRACTICE TEST 1
I, Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
1. A. introduce B. huge C. flute D. cute
2. A. kicked B. fixed C. pleased D. missed
3. A. mistakes B. heads C. dates D. hats
4. A. shower B. allow C. bellow D. down
5. A. valentine B. examine C. determine D. heroine
II, Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences:
6. I‘d rather you _______________ home now.
A. go B. went C. will go D. would go
7. By the end of next month, we ___________ this assignment.
A. will finish B. will be finishing C. will have finished D. have finished
8. Don‘t try too hard. Don‘t ______ off more than you can ______
A. eat – swallow B. eat – chew C. bite – swallow D. bite - chew
9. There‘s no _______________ in going to school if you are not willing to learn.
A. reason B. point C. aim D. purpose
10. Their migration may be halted if fog, clouds, or rain hides the stars.
A. postponed B. spoiled C. stopped D. endangered
11. ―Can you wait while I run into the library?‖ ―- Ok, _______________ you hurry‖
A. so B. therefore C. unless D. as long as
12. The government should do more for ___________ people.
A. usual B. ordinary C. everyday D. typical
13. - You must be Jane's sister. Glad to meet you.
+ __________
A. I am, either B. So I am. I'm glad C. What do you do D. Me too
14. The sign says that all shoplifters will be ________.
A. persecuted B. disproved C. prosecuted D. prohibited
15. - Goodbye, Susie!
+ ____________!
A. So so B. The same C. Yeah D. So long
16. Moving to a new town brought about many changes in his life.
A. resulted in B. speeded up C. resulted from D. prevented
17. We _________ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. had checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. were checked our homework D. have our homework checking
18. Flatboats ferry cars on the Great Lakes between the United States and Canada.
A. transport B. pursue C. inspected D. detain
19. One _____ of public transport is its unreliability.
A. benefit B. disadvantage C. harm D. drawback
20. Tornadoes left several Midwestern towns in a state of chaos.

A. confusion B. crumb C. deterioration D. defect
21. The girl _____ is my neighbor.
A. talks to the lady over there. B. is talking to the lady over there
C. was talking to the lady over there D. talking to the lady over there
22. My daughter often says that she won't get married until she _____ 25 years old.
A. is B. will be C. will have been D. has been
23. Everyone in both cars _____ injured in the accident last night, ______?
A. were/weren't they B. was/weren't they C. was/wasn't he? D. were/were they
24. Not only _____ us light, but it also gives us heat.
A. the sun gives B. the sun has given C. has the sun given D. does the sun give
25. If you hadn't stayed up so late last night, you ______ sleepy now.
A. wouldn't have felt B. wouldn't feel C. wouldn't fell D. wouldn't have fallen
26. Increasing ______ of fruit in the diet may help to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. the amount B. an amount C. the number D. a number
27. "Is that a new coat?" "Yes, what _____ it?‖
A. are you thinking of B. do you think of
C. is your idea about D. did you think about
28. The room needs ______ for the wedding.
A. decorating B. to decorate C. decorate D. be decorated
29. When the old school friends met, a lot of happy memories ______ back.
A. had brought B. were brought C. brought D. had been brought
30. The price of fruit has increased recently, ______ the price of vegetables has gone down.
A. whereas B. whether C. when D. otherwise
31. Man‘s use of colors _____ back to the time when men first used red and yellow clays to paint their
bodies.
A. had dated B. dating C. dated D. dates
32. They were fortune ______ from the fire before the building collapsed.
A. to rescue B. to have rescued C. rescuing D. to have been rescued
33. These days women are not expected to stay at home ______ their mothers did in the past.
A. such as B. like C. as if D. as
34. The twins look so much alike that almost no one can ______ them ______.
A. tell – away B. take – on C. tell – apart D. take – apart
35. - How lovely your pets are!
+ ___________
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say no B. Really? They are
C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too
III, Read the passage and choose one word or phrase marked A, B, C or D that best fits each of the gaps:
When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently come across words you do not (36)______
understand. Sometimes you (37)______ the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you guess. The strategy
you adopt depends very much upon the (38)______ of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.
If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is (39)______ remembering
that every dictionary has its limitations. Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an
accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (40)______ of contexts. It is also
important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into your native
language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (41)______ an English-
English dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (42)______ you are allowed to use one, it is very
time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, (43)______, forced to
guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.
When you come across unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop
efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (44)______ a number of possible problems and help
yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.
Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both within
the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (45)______ from the formation of the word.
36: A. wholly B. fully C. totally D. completely
37: A. inspect B. control C. check D. examine
38: A. extent B. level C. degree D. range
39: A. worth B. essential C. valuable D. vital
40: A. multiple B. variation C. variety D. diversity
41: A. survey B. consult C. refer D. inquire
42: A. In case B. Provided C. Although D. Even if
43: A. therefore B. so C. however D. so that
44: A. go over B. overcome C. get over D. surpass

45: A. coming B. extracted C. derived D. originated
IV, Read the passage and choose the best answer:

Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or
have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast
numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost
entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in
personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of
extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the
world‘s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival –
and the survival of our planet. Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various
ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to
animals reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and
they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in
equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an
international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it
will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
46. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Endangered species B. Problems with industrialization
C. The Bengal tiger D. International boycotts
47. The word “poachers” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Concerned scientists B. Enterprising researchers
C. Illegal hunters D. Trained hunters
48. The word ―callousness‖ could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence
49. The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast:
A. A comparison and a contrast B. A problem and a solution
C. A statement and an illustration D. Specific and general information
50. What does the word “this” refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
51. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?
A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 7-9 C. Lines 10-16 D. Lines 1-3
52. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated”?
A. set aside B. combined C. taken D. organized
53. The word “defray” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. make a payment on B. raise
C. lower D. make an investment toward
54. What does the term “international boycott” refer to?
A. A global increase in animal survival
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
D. Buying and selling of animal products overseas
55. Which of the following best describes the author‘s attitude?
A. indifferent B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised
V, Circle one option A, B, C or D that best rewrites each of the following sentences:
56. The robbers made the bank manager hand over the money.
A. The bank manager was forced to hand over the money by the robbers.
B. The bank manager was allowed to hand over the money by the robbers.
C. The bank manager was made hand over the money by the robbers.
D. The robbers helped the bank manager to hand over the money.
57. "I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,‖ Tom said to Janet.
A. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the week.
B. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
58. He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.
A. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.
B. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn‘t survived the operation
C. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.
D. He wouldn‘t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.
59. People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.
A. People are believed that 13 is an unlucky number.
B. 13 are believed to be an unlucky number.
C. It‘s believed that 13 is an unlucky number.
D. It‘s believed 13 to be an unlucky number.
60. Much as he loved her, he couldn‘t forgive her for what she had done.
A. He didn‘t forgive her for what she had done despite loving her very much.
B. He loved her so much, that‘s why he forgave her for what she had done.
C. He didn‘t forgive her for what she had done as he loved her very much.
D. She loved him very much, so he forgave her for what she had done.
61. Le: ―I can‘t understand how you missed the exit. ‖
Linh: ―Well, it was so dark that ______. ‖
A. we could see hardly the road signs B. we could see the road signs hardly
C. hardly could we see the road signs D. we could hardly see the road signs
62. ―Sorry, Madam. Looking after the garden is not my duty. ‖
A. He apologized for not looking after the garden.
B. He not promised to look after the garden.
C. He said that he was not responsible for looking after the garden.
D. He asked if looking after the garden was his duty.
63. You/ should/ doctor/ see/ that cut.
A. You should have a doctor seen to that cut.
B. You should get a doctor seen to that cut.
C. You should have a doctor see to that cut.
D. You should ask a doctor see to that cut.
64. I only called the police when I had tried everything else.
A. I didn‘t call the police because I had tried everything else.
B. I only called the police after I have tried everything else.
C. I only called the police as a last resort.
D. Because I had tried everything else, I called the police.
65. She/ urge/ her husband/ accept/ post.
A. She urged that her husband accept the post.
B. She urged her husband accept the post.
C. She urged her husband accepted the post.
D. She urged her husband should be accepted the post.
VI, Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following questions or
statements:
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert
hydrogen to helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about four billion six hundred million years
and is thousands of times larger than the Earth. By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the
rest of the Sun‘s life will be like. About five billion years from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and
become hotter. The surface temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the center will increase the rate
of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about
the distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun. The Sun will then be a red giant star.
Temperatures on the Earth will become too high for life to exist. Once the Sun has used up its
thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth, it will
become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova
explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf. After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun
will have used up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is called a black dwarf. After the Sun
has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere remains there, it will have
frozen over the Earth‘s surface.
66. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun ______.
A. is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
B. will continue to be a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
C. has been in existence for 10 billion years
D. is rapidly changing in size and brightness
67. What will probably be the first stage of change for the Sun to become a red giant?
A. Its surface will become hotter and shrink.
B. It will throw off huge amounts of gases.
C. Its central part will grow smaller and hotter.
D. Its core will cool off and use less fuel.
68. When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will the atmosphere be like on the Earth?
A. It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the sun.
B. It will become too hot for life to exist.
C. It will be almost destroyed by nova explosions.
D. It will freeze and become solid.
69. When the Sun has used up its energy as a red giant, it will ______.
A. get frozen B. cease to exist C. stop to expand D. become smaller
70. Large amounts of gases may be released from the Sun at the end of its life as a ______.
A. black dwarf B. white dwarf C. red giant D. yellow dwarf
71. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be ______.
A. the same size as the planet Mercury B. around 35 million miles in diameter
C. a cool and habitable planet D. thousands of times smaller than it is today
72. The Sun will become a black dwarf when ______.
A. the Sun moves nearer to the Earth B. it has used up all its fuel as a white dwarf
C. the core of the Sun becomes hotter D. the outer regions of the Sun expand
73. The word ―there‖ in the last sentence of paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the planet Mercury B. the core of a black dwarf
C. our own planet D. the outer surface of the Sun
74. This passage is intended to ______.
A. describe the changes that the Sun will go through
B. present a theory about red giant stars
C. alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
D. discuss conditions on the Earth in the far future
75. The passage has probably been taken from ______.
A. a scientific journal B. a news report
C. a work of science fiction D. a scientific chronicle
VII, Identify one underlined part that is incorrect in each of the following sentences by circling the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D:
76. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been
A B C
forced to alter their eating habits.
D
77. Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual labourers.
A B C D
78. Educated in the UK, his abilities are widely recognized in the world of professionals.
A B C D
79. Unlike many writings of her time, she was not preoccupied with morality.
A B C D
80. Justice is often personified as a blindfolded woman to hold a pair of scales.
A B C D
……………….. The end………………
KEY TO PRACTICE 1
QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

1 C 21 D 41 B 61 D
2 C 22 A 42 D 62 C
3 B 23 B 43 A 63 C
4 C 24 D 44 B 64 C
5 A 25 B 45 C 65 A
6 B 26 A 46 A 66 A
7 C 27 B 47 C 67 C
8 D 28 A 48 C 68 B
9 B 29 B 49 B 69 D
10 C 30 A 50 C 70 C
11 D 31 D 51 A 71 D
12 B 32 D 52 A 72 B
13 D 33 D 53 A 73 C
14 C 34 C 54 B 74 A
15 D 35 A 55 C 75 A
16 A 36 B 56 A 76 A
17 B 37 C 57 B 77 A
18 A 38 C 58 D 78 B
19 B 39 A 59 C 79 A
20 A 40 C 60 A 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 2
Pick out the words whose underlined and bold part is pronounced differently from that of the other
words.
1. A. bound B. sound C. county D. poultry
2. A. examine B. determine C. valentine D. heroine
Mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. conference B. announcement C. arrival D. reception
4. A. argument B. define C. museum D. permanent
5. A. decision B. reference C. refusal D. important
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
6. My employer‘s…….. of my work doesn‘t matter to me at all.
A. opinion B. belief C. meaning D. expression
7. ―Those students study a lot‖ ― Yes,……students are very serious. ‖
A. almost of B. almost C. most of D. most
8. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful……. smile.
A. childlike B. childish C. childless D. childhood
9. She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her……because of her poor eyesight.
A. down B. up C. over D. back

10. She had no……. of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grandfather.
A. intention B. meaning C. interest D. opinion
11. ―Can you wait while I run into the library?‖ – ―Ok,…………you harry‖
A. even though B. when C. as long as D. unless
12. ― I couldn‘t take the history class I wanted last semester. ‖
- ― Why didn‘t you talk to your advisor? She……able to help you get in. ‖
A. might have been B. wasn‘t C. might be D. couldn‘t have been
13. Working as volunteer gives her a chance to develop her interpersonal skills, promote friendship,
and…………her own talent.
A. discover B. discovered C. discovering D. to discover
14. The tourist guide walked so…….. that most of the party could not keep up with him
A. lively B. quick C. rapid D. fast
15. The more you pull on it,……. it gets.
A. the tightest B. the tighter C. the more tightest D. the most tightest
16. English is a…………easy language to learn.
A. compared B. comparable C. comparative D. comparatively
17. The……. about travelling by train rather than by car is that you can sleep or read during of the journey.
A. enjoyable B. enjoyed C. enjoying D. enjoyment
18. By the time you receive this letter, I…………for Japan.
A. will leave B. will have left C. could have left D. have left
19. ………………, but it also filters harmful sun ray.
A. The atmosphere gives us air to breathe.
B. Not only does the atmosphere give us air to breathe.
C. Not only the atmosphere gives us air to breathe.
D. The atmosphere which gives us air to breathe.
20. ― Did you finally paint your house?‖ – ― Yes, It should…….. a long time ago. ‖
A. have done B. be done C. have been done D. been done.
21. I wish you…………stop interrupting me whenever I speak.
A. will B. did C. would D. might
22. I don‘t think he‘ll ever……. the shock of his wife‘s death.
A. get through B. get by C. get over D. get off
23. In the newspaper today, there…………a lot of news about the food.
A. was B. were C. is D. are
24. They always kept on good………with their next-door neighbors for the children‘s sake.
A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations.
25. He has always looked……his elder brother.
A. up to B. back on C. into D. up and down
26. ― Would you mind closing the window?‖ - ―…………………….. ‖
A. Not at all. I‘ll close it now. B. Yes, very soon C. Yes,certainly D. Yes,I would. Go ahead
27. ― Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?‖ – ―……………………‖
A. yes,I‘m so glad. B. No, thanks C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes,yes,you can sit here
28. ― Do you mind if I ask you one or two questions?‖ – ―……………………. ‖
A. Not at all. Fire away. B. That‘s quite all right C. Why not D. I‘m sorry I have no idea
29. ― More coffee? Anybody? – ―…………………………‖
A. I don‘t agree, I‘m afraid. B. Yes, I‘d love to C. Yes, please D. It‘s right. I think
30. John: ― Would you like to have a get-together with us next weekend?
Mickey: ―………………………………‖
A. Yes, I‘d love to B. No, I wouldn‘t C. Yes, let‘s D. No, I won‘t
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 31 to 40.
If you are an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or snarl. It has become a
symbol of our wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the truth is,
of course, that plastic has brought enormous (31)…………even environmental ones. It‘s not really the
plastic themselves that are the environmental evil- it‘s the way the society chooses to use and
(32)…………. them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal - non-
renewable natural (33)…………We (34)…….. well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each
year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (35)……. of our annual consumption is in the
form of packaging, and this (36)………….. about seven percent by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost
all of it could be replaced, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (37)…………is growing fast.
The plastic themselves are extremely energy-rich- they have a higher calorific (38)…….. than coal and
one (39)……. of ―recovery‖ strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the (40)……of waste plastic
into a fuel.
31. A. savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits
32. A. abuse B. endanger C. store D. dispose
33. A. processes B. resources C. products D. fuels
34. A. import B. consign C. remove D. consume
35. A. amount B. proportion C. portion D. rate
36. A. makes B. carries C. takes D. constitutes
37. A. industry B. manufacture C. plant D. factory
38. A. demand B. effect C. value D. degree
39. A. medium B. method C. measure D. mechanics
40. A. melting B. conversion C. change D. replacement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underline part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
41. Alike other forms of energy, natural gas may be used to heat homes, cook food, and
A B C
even run automobiles.
D
42. The earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in its atmosphere.
A B C D
43. A five-thousand- dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped criminals.
A B C D
44. In order to do a profit, the new leisure centre needs at least 2000 visitors a month.
A B C D
45. In very early times, people around the fire were entertained by storytellers with stories of
A B C
heroes‘ wonderful actions and victory.
D
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal species
that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed
the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2300 and by the year 2025, their population is
estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the Belgan tiger is that this extinction will
have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in
material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of what is
causing the problem of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are a
valuable part of the world‘s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to
ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in varios way. Some countries, in
order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They, then
charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, they often must also depend on world
organizations for support. With the money they get, they can invest equipment and patrols to protect the
animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott
of products made from endangered species. This seems fairy effective, but will not by itself, prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott C. endangered species D. problem with industrialization
47. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ―alarming‖ in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
48. The word ―callousness‖ in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
49. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast………………
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and a contrast D. a specific and general information
50. What does the word ―this‖ in the first paragraph refer to ?
A. endangered species that are increasing B. Bengal tigers that are decreasing
C. poachers who seek personal gratification D. sources that may not be accurate
51. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?
A. Since the world……. down to zero. B. What is alarming……personal gratification
C. Countries around……. for support D. With the money……. endangered species
52. Which of the following could best replace the word ―allocated‖ in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
53. The word ―defray‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the folowing?
A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
54. The author uses the phrase ―stem the tide‖ in the second paragraph to mean………….
A. touch B. stop C. tax D. save
55. Which of the following best describes the author‘s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
56. I was very tired. I sat in an armchair and fell asleep.
A. felt sleepy B. dozed off C. slept D. went to sleep
57. The weather is horrible at the moment, isn‘t it? I hope it clears up later.
A. becomes brighter B. shines C. is not cloudy D. clean
58. There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.
A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
59. Cancer is becoming one of the common diseases.
A. usual B. rare C ordinary D. universal
60. Digital watches that display time electronically are swiftly replacing analog watches.
A. slowly B. eventually C. quickly D. rapidly
Baseball has been dubbed ― America‘s favorite sport‖, and many fans contend that there is no greater
thrill than watching a good pitcher throw the ball skillfully in a series of expertly delivered ―fast‖ and
―curve‖ balls. Two such pitches, the ―rising fastball‖ and the ―breaking curveball‖ are particularly
exasperating to batters because these balls tend to veer in one direction or the other just as they reach home
plate. The ―rising fastball‖ zooms forward only to jump up and over the bat as batter swings. The ―breaking
curveball‖ curves toward home plate, but plunges downward unexpectedly at the last moment. Batters
attempt to anticipate these pitches, and respond accordingly, while pitchers work at perfecting their ―fast‖
and ―curve‖ ball deliveries.
But according to studies conducted by a team of engineers and psychologists, the ―rising fastball‖ and
―breaking curveball‖ do not actually exist, they are merely optical illusions. The studies revealed that
batters preceive the ball as approaching more slowly or falling more quickly than it actually is, and it is this
misperception that produces the visual illusion. Batters tend to have difficulty tracking a ball continuously
as it approaches and will briefly divert their to the spot where they think the ball will cross the plate. When
abatter has misjudged the speed or angle of a pitch, and shifts his or her gaze in this way, the ball will
appear to suddenly rise or dip and the batter will often miss.
How will this finding affect ― American favorite pastime‖? No doubt some will vehemently reject the
notion that the ― rising fastball‖ and the ―breaking curveball‖ are mere illusions. But for others, the findings
may imbue the game with a new level of intrigue as batters attempt to respond to pitches that don‘t exist.
61. What does this passage mainly discuss?
the difference between fastball and curveball.
American‘s favorite pastime
Illusions about the movements of pitches ball
Perceptional problems among baseball players
62. Which of the following words could best replace the word ― thrill‖ in the first paragraph?
A. activity B. excitement C. remedy D. issue
63. The word ―exasperating‖ in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. challenging B. exhausting C. exciting D. frustrating
64. The word ― zooms‖ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. falls B. rolls C. speeds D. bounces
65. Which of the following words could best replace the word ―plunges‖ in the first paragraph?
A. drops B. withdraws C. emerges D. tips
66. According to the author, why is it difficult for the batter to hit the ―rising fastball‖ and the ―breaking
curveball‖?
A. because the ball approaches too quickly
B. because the ball veers just before reaching home plate
C. because the batter misjudges the pitcher‘s intention
D. because the batter misjudges the speed and angle of the ball
67. What does the word ―they‖ in the second paragraph refer to?
A. the ―rising fastball‖ and ―breaking curveball‖
B. the engineers and psychologists
C. the research studies
D. the optical illusions
68. According to the passage, how is the illusion of the ―rising fastball‖ and ―breaking curveball‖
produced?
A. by the pitcher‘s delivery
B. by the batter‘s failing to track the ball accurately
C. by the seed and angle of the ball
D. by the studies of engineers and psychologists
69. Which of the following could best replace the word ―vehemently‖ in the third paragraph?
A. certainly B. impassively C. socially D. furiously
70. The word ―imbue‖ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. fill B. spoil C. affect D. change
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
71. ― Leave my house now or I‘ll call the police!‖ shouted the lady to the man. ‖
A. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn‘t leave her house
B. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn‘t leave her house.
C. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn‘t leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn‘t leave her hou se.
72. ― You should have finished the report by now. ‖ John tol his secretary.
A. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
B. John approached his secretary for not having finished the report.
C. John said that his secretary had not finished the report on time
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report
73. ―I‘m sorry, I was rude to you yesterday,‖ I said to Tom.
A. I apologized of being rude to you yesterday
B. I apologized Tom for having been rude to him the day before.
C. I apologize for my rude to you yesterday
D. I apologize to you as I was rude to you yesterday
74. ― You should learn English instead of any other language,Tom‖ said Tim.
A. Tim encouraged Tom learn English instead of any other language.
B. Tim encouraged Tom to learn English instead of any other language
C. Tim encouraged Tom learn any other language but English
D. Tim encouraged Tom learn any other language including English
75. The moon doesn‘t have the atmosphere, neither does the planet Mars.
A. Neither the moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere
B. Either the moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere
C. Neither the moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere
D. Either the moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
76. I like Robinson Crusoe. He is the main character in a book by daniel Defoe.
A. I like Robinson Crusoe because he is the main character in a book by daniel Defoe
B. I like Robinson Crusoe, who is the main character in a book by daniel Defoe
C. I like Robinson Crusoe and who is the main character in a book by daniel Defoe
D. I like Robinson Crusoe because he is the main character in a book by daniel Defoe
77. The children couldn‘t go swimming. The sea was too rough.
A. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming
B. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
C. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in
D. The sea was too rough to the children‘s swimming
78. There are a lot of people. The people like to do things together.
A. There are a lot of people whom like to do things together
B. There are a lot of people who like to do things together
C. There are a lot of people who like do things together
D. There are a lot of people like to do things together
79. We didn‘t want to swim in the river. It looked very dirty
A. We didn‘t want to swim in the river, where looked very dirty
B. We didn‘t want to swim in the river, which looked very dirty
C. We didn‘t want to swim in the river, in which looked very dirty
D. We didn‘t want to swim in the river, that looked very dirty
80. Ngoc couldn‘t speak English. She decided to settle in Manchester.
A. Despite of speaking no English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester
B. Although no speaking English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester
C. In spite of her disability to speak English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester
D. Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester even she didn‘t speak English.
KEY TO PRACTICE 2

1 D 21 C 41 A 61 C
2 C 22 C 42 B 62 B
3 A 23 C 43 B 63 D
4 C 24 C 44 A 64 C
5 B 25 A 45 D 65 A
6 A 26 A 46 C 66 D
7 D 27 C 47 D 67 A
8 A 28 B 48 D 68 B
9 B 29 C 49 A 69 D
10 A 30 A 50 C 70 A
11 C 31 C 51 B 71 B
12 A 32 A 52 A 72 D
13 A 33 B 53 C 73 B
14 D 34 A 54 B 74 B
15 B 35 B 55 B 75 C
16 D 36 D 56 B 76 B
17 D 37 A 57 A 77 A
18 B 38 C 58 C 78 B
19 B 39 B 59 B 79 B
20 C 40 B 60 A 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined part
pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.
1. A. grapes B. chairs C. hats D. roofs
2. A. moon B. food C. good D. noodle
3. A. worked B. caused C. forced D. stopped
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the stress differently from
that of the other words.
4. A. admiration B. enthusiast C. discriminate D. minority
5. A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. control
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
6. Mrs Thanh is bored with doing the_____chores.
a. homework b. household c. housework d. a & c
7. My sister______for you since yesterday.
a. is looking b. has been looking c. looked d. was looking
8. Doctors do not always have good communication______.
a. things b. skills c. talent d. means
9. Yesterday was the day ______ they celebrated their 21st wedding anniversary.
A. when B. which C. what D. then
10. I................................. the sales manager now if I............................. such a terrible mistake.
A. will be / haven‘t made B. would be / had not made
C. would be / didn‘t make D. would have been / had not made
11. I must take this watch to be repaired; It......................... over 20 minutes a day.
A. progresses B. accelerates C. gains D. increases
12......................... high school, Nam attended a university in the city centre.
A. To finish B. Having finished C. Having been finished D. To have
finished
13. She built a high wall round her garden................................
A. in order that her fruit not be stolen B. to enable people not taking her fruit
C. so that her fruit would be stolen D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen
14. Learning English is not easy.
A. It is not easy to learning English. B. It is easy learning English.
C. It is not easy to learn English. D. It is not difficult to learn English.

5. He had his car................................. this morning.
A. repair B. to repair C. repaired D. repairing
16. It‘s raining outside, and Tom brought his umbrella with him.................... he wouldn‘t get wet.
A. In order to B. so as to C. so that D. in order
17. The water was so cold that the children could not swim in it.
A. The water was not warm enough for the children to swim in it.
B. The water was not warm enough for the children to swim in.
C. The water was not enough warm for the children to swim in.
D. The water was not warm enough for the children to swim in.
18. A/an …………….. species is a population of an organism which is at risk of becoming extinct.
A. dangerous B. endanger C. endangered D. endangerment
19. Only a few of the many species at risk of extinction actually make it to the lists and obtain
legal………..
A. protect B. protection c. protective d. protector
20. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species‘declines and habitat………and
degradation are the leading threats.
a. destroy b. destructive c. destructor d. destruction
21………. speaking,I do not really like my present job.
a. Honest b. Honesty c. Honestly d. Dishonest
22. I try to be friendly but it is hard to………. some of my colleagues.
a. get on with b. watch out for c. come up with d. stand in for
23. The twins are so alike that it is difficult to........................
a. take them apart b. tell them apart c. bring them up d. break them off
24. On the day I left, some of my friends……………….. at the airport.
a. showed me up b. took me up c. saw me off d. got me through
25. If you need any support, you can rely on me to………….
A back you up b. face you up c. set you down d. put you through
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the word / sentence given or to the underlied part in each of the following question:
26. Childbearing is the women‘s most wonderful role.
a. bring up a child b. giving birth to a baby c. educating a child d. having no child
27. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting
in May.
a. politeness b. rudeness c. encouragement d. measurement
28. Ralph Nader was the most prominent leader of the U. S consumer protection movement.
A. discriminating B. significant C. aggressive D. promiscuous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in meaning to
the word / sentence given or to the underlied part in each of the following question
29. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation
30. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. excess B. sufficiency C. small quantity D. large quantity
questions.
31. Shop assistant: ― ………………‖
Customer: ― Yes, I want to send some flowers to my wife in Italy. ‖
a. Do you like flowers b. What do you like c. Can you help me d. Can I help you
32. Student: ― Have a nice weekend‖.
Teacher: ― …………………………‖
a. You are the same b. The same to you c. so to you d. Will you?
33. Guest: ― Would you mind if I smoke?‖
Host: ― …………….. ‖
a. Never mind b. Yes, please don‘t c. Not at all d. Yes, please do

34. Barry: Were you involved in the accident?
Daniel: Yes, but I wasn‘t to ………………for it.
a. charge b. accuse c. blame d. apologize
35. ―Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?‖ – ―………………‖
a. No, thanks b. Yes, I am so glad c. Sorry, the seat is taken d. Yes, yes. You
can sit here
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase for each of the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future
because they have been (36) _______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are
found nowhere else in the world but they are (37) _______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs,
rodents and (38) _______ plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (39) _______ the extinction of the 182 rare
Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (40) _______. Since 1990, (41) _______ a
result of their "Plant Extinction Prevention Program", sixteen species have been brought into (42) _______
and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up
in order to (43) _______ plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (44) _______ collecting genetic
material from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to
manage wild populations and where possible reintroduce species into (45) _______.
36. A. disappeared B. reduced C. increased D. developed
37. A. guarded B. invested C. conserved D. threatened
38. A. national B. native C. international D. non-native
39. A. prevent B. encourage C. stimulate D. influence
40. A. wild B. atmosphere C. hole D. sky
41. A. so B. due C. as D. but
42. A. contamination B. production C. cultivation D. generation
43. A. derive B. vary C. remain D. protect
44. A. at B. for C. with D. on
45. A. shelters B. reserves C. gardens D. halls
answer to each of the questions.
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is the big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be
sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of
the recycling movement is ―Reduce, Reuse, Recycle‖.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes
and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging:
usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that
are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality
products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss
of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be
easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a
product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles,
wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some
parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps
have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and
used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one
aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum
(for new cans), they help save one of the world‘s precious resources.
46. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America B. Middle East C. Europe D. Asia
47. What does the word ―sensitive‖ means?
A. cautious B. logical C. responding D. friendly
48. The word ―motto‖ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference
49. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they have to be repaired many times. B. they will soon throw them away
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap. .
50. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to live sensitively to the environment. B. How to reduce garbage disposal.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term ―recycle‖
51. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy more hamburgers
52. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
53. The word ―practice‖ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. deed D. belief
54. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. each returned bottle is paid D. few bottles are made of glass or plastic
55. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. TV sets and aluminum cans. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.
Read the following passage and mark the letter a, b, c or d on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech.
A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human
beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they
have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even
today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before
we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to
talk; a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort
to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and
even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who
learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage
writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization
must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
56. We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ______________.
a. people have been writing since there have been human beings
b. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
c. it has become very important in our culture
d. writing is secondary to language

57. The author of the passage argues that _____________.
a. speech is more basic to language than writing
b. all languages should have a written form
c. writing has become too important in today‘s society
d. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
58. Normal human beings ____________.
a. learn to talk after learning to write b. learn to write after learning to talk
c. learn to talk before learning to write d. learn to write and talk at the same time
59. According to the passage, writing _____________.
a. is represented perfectly by speech b. represents speech, but not perfectly
c. is imperfect, but less so than speech d. developed from imperfect speech
60. Learning to write is _______________.
a. too difficult b. easy c. not easy d. very easy
61. In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of __________.
a. severely handicapped children b. people who learn the rudiments of speech
c. people who speak many languages d. intelligent people who couldn‘t write
62. In the author‘s judgement, _____________.
a. writing is more real than speech
b. writing has more advantages than speech
c. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
d. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
63. According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it _____________.
a. affirms the primacy of writing over speech
b. affirms the primacy of speech over writing
c. keeps written records
d. teaches its children to speak perfectly
64. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits.
b. Writing has become so important in our culture.
c. It is easy to acquire the writing skill.
d. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly.
65. The word ― advantage ‖ in the last paragraph most closely means _____________.
a. benefit b. skill c. rudiments d. domination
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs corection in each of
the questions from 66 to 70.
66. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that follow in case of an emergence.
A B C D
67. We should have played much better than we do.
A B C D
68. Sue‘s mother is a hairdresser, but Sue is not interested in becoming it.
A B C D
69. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high- rise apartment
A B C
block in Kuala Lumpur last week.
D
70. The effects of wind and water in rock surfaces can often cause erosion.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
71. I did not come to your party due to the rain.
a. If it did not rained, I would come to your party.
b. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.

c. Even though it rained, I came to your party.
d. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.
72. They got success since they took my advice.
a. They took my advice, and failed.
b. If they did not take my advice, they would not get success.
c. But for taking my advice, they would not have got success.
d. My advice stopped them took my advice.
73. Unless you come on time, we will go without you.
a. Come on time or we will go without you.
b. Come on time, we will go without you.
c. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you.
d. Without your coming on time, we will go.
74. Thanks to her high grades at university, she is offered the position.
a. If she had not got high grades at university, she would not be offered the position.
b. It was her high grades at university which offer her the position.
c. If she had not got high grades at university, she would not have been offered the position.
d. Without her high grades at university, she is not offered the position.
75. I am very interesting in the book you lent me last week.
a. The book is interesting enough for you to lent me last week.
b. It was the interesting book which you lent me last week.
c. The book which you lent me last week is too interesting to read.
d. The book that you lent me last week interests me a lot.
76. Because they erected a barn, the cattle couldn‘t get out into the wheat field.
A. They erected a barn, and as a result, the cattle couldn‘t get out into the wheat field.
B. In order not to keep the cattle away from the wheat field, they erected a ban.
C. They erected a barn so that the cattle would get into the wheat field.
D. They erected a barn in case the cattle couldn‘t get out into the wheat field.
77. They couldn‘t climb up the mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
B. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
C. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
D. The storm made it not capable of climbing up the mountain.
78. Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy.
A. They were not happy as they were wealthy. B. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy.
C. They were as wealthy as they were happy. D. Even if they were wealthy, they were not happy.
79. The woman was too weak to lift the suitcase.
A. The woman wasn‘t able to lift the suitcase, so she was very weak.
B. The woman shouldn‘t have lifted the suitcase as she was weak.
C. So weak was the woman that she couldn‘t lift the suitcase.
D. The woman, though weak, could lift the suitcase.
80. ― We‘re having a reunion this weekend. Why don‘t you come?‖ John said to us.
A. John cordially invited us to a reunion this weekend.
B. John didn‘t understand why we came to a reunion.
C. John simply asked us why we wouldn‘t come to a reunion.
D. John asked why we didn‘t come to reunion this weekend
KEY TO PRACTICE 3

1 B 21 C 41 C 61 D
2 C 22 42 C 62 C
3 B 23 B 43 D 63 C
4 A 24 C 44 A 64 C
5 C 25 A 45 B 65 A
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 B
7 B 27 B 47 D 67 D
8 B 28 B 48 C 68 D
9 A 29 A 49 B 69 A
10 B 30 C 50 A 70 B
11 C 31 D 51 D 71 B
12 B 32 B 52 A 72 C
13 C 33 A 53 C 73 A
14 C 34 C 54 C 74 A
15 C 35 C 55 D 75 D
16 C 36 B 56 C 76 A
17 B 37 D 57 A 77 A
18 C 38 D 58 C 78 B
19 B 39 A 59 B 79 B
20 D 40 A 60 C 80 A
PRACTICE TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest
1: A. position B. consider C. visit D. president
2: A. curriculum B. character C. careful D. cease
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress is different from that of
the rest
3: A. collect B. relate C. origin D. preserve
4: A. industrial B. recommend C. involvement D. community
5: A. furniture B. instrument C. equipment D. production
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
6: - John: "This dish is really nice!" - Mary: "________ It's called yakitori, and it's made with chicken
livers. "
A. It's my pleasure. B. I'm glad you like it. C. I guess you're right. D. Sure, I'll be glad to.
7: - "Where have you been?" - "I was caught in the traffic, ________ I would have been here sooner. "
A. however B. although C. anyway D. otherwise
8: His father left New York. The doctor suggested he ________there.
A. not stayed B. won't stay C. not stay D. not to stay
9: We talked for hours of things and persons ________ we remembered in the school.
A. which B. that C. who D. whom
10: Only when the ground is kept moist ________ germinate.
A. grass seeds will B. grass seeds does C. does grass seeds D. will grass seeds
11: - Nancy: "Excuse me. Is it the math class?" - Jenny: "________. "
A. Yes, they are your math teachers B. Yes, it is. And I‘m your teacher
C. Not really, he's the man over there D. No, he isn‘t here
12: The room was noisy and not very ________ for studying.
A. suited B. fitted C. proper D. suitable
13: No one died in the accident, ________?
A. didn‘t they B. did he C. didn‘t he D. did they
14: ________ she entered the house than the phone started to ring.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer had D. Scarcely had
15: He worked hard ________ everything would be ready by 5 o'clock.
A. because B. so that C. when D. until
16: The child hurt himself badly when he fell ________ the bedroom window.
A. out from B. out of C. down D. over

17: Tom: "What a lovely house you have!" - Jack: " ________. "
A. I think so B. Of course C. Thank you D. You're welcome
18: Those books deal mainly ________ tropical plants.
A. with B. in C. for D. up
19: ________ Daisy didn't like to swim, she played on the beach with her sister.
A. Since B. After C. However D. When
20: My new glasses cost me ________ the last pair that I bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as
C. more three times than D. as much three times as
21: The motorbike was badly smashed up but the rider escaped without any________
A. injury B. wound C. destruction D. damage
22: I'm feeling sick. I ________ so much chocolate last night.
A. needn't to eat B. did not eat
C. mustn't eat D. shouldn't have eaten
23: My girlfriend arrived after I ________ for her about half an hour.
A. was waiting B. had been waiting C. have been waiting D. have waited
24: By the end of this year, Tom ________ English for three years.
A. will be studying B. has studied C. will have studied D. has been studying
25: Mary: "Do you think it will rain?" - Jenny: "Oh! ________. "
26: The rotten oranges should be ________ so as not to affect the others in the basket.
A. thrown out B. thrown over C. thrown back D. thrown in
27: Nowadays almost no one speaks Latin, __________ is the reason why it is called a dead language.
A. so B. that C. which D. what
28: If you _________ that job, would you have to move to another city.
A. offer B. offered C. are offered D. were offered
29: I applied for the job that I saw _________ in the paper.
A. advertised B. advertising C. being advertising D. be advertised
30: - "Oh no! I completely forgot we were supposed to pick Jenny up at the airport this morning. " - "She
_______ there waiting for us. "
A. needn't sit B. might still sit C. must still be sitting D. should have sat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
If there is a building which symbolizes a country, such as the Eiffel Tower for France and Sydney Opera
House for Australia, then it has to be the Taj Mahal for India.
It was set up by Emperor Shah Jahan in 1653 in memory of his wife, Mumtaz Mahal. From the time they
got married, they wouldn‘t be separated. She followed him to wars, advised him on affairs of state, and was
loved by his people for her good work. But she died in 1631 during her childbirth. The emperor was
heartbroken and had the Taj Mahal built as a sign of his love.
It took more than 20 years for the Taj Mahal to be built. Workers were brought in, not only from all over
India, but from central Asia too. A total of 20,000 people worked on the building.
In 1657, Shah Jahan fell ill and in 1658 his son, Aurangzeb, imprisoned his father and seized power. Shah
Jahan stayed in prison until his death in 1666. He was finally buried there with his wife, who he could
never forget.
The Taj Mahal is definitely worth more than a single visit. As it is built with white marble stones, its
character changes in different lights. It looks more beautiful at sunrise and sunset. At sunset, for example,
the color of the Taj Mahal changes from white to yellow, then to pink. As the moon rises, it turns a silvery white.
To show respect to the Taj Mahal, tourists are asked to take off their shoes during their visit.
31: Which of the following about the Taj Mahal is not true?
A. All workers building the Tai Mahal came from central Asia.
B. As being told, it is a symbol of India.
C. It took over 20 years to set up the Taj Mahal.
D. The Taj Mahal was built with white marble stones.
32: Why did Emperpor Shah Jahan build the Taj Mahal?
A. To show his great power. B. To memorize his wife.
C. To give his wife great honour. D. To make more world wonders.
33: What does the underlined word "definitely" here probably mean?
A. certainly B. uncertainly C. wrongly D. doubtedly
34: Which of the following sentences is true?
A. Shah Jahan lived a hard life in his last years.
B. Shah Jahan lost his life just because of old age.
C. Shah Jahan was not popular with his people at that time.
D. Shah Jahan treated his son badly when he was young.
35: Which of the following is true about the writer of the passage?
A. He doesn't think the Taj Mahal worth a visit.
B. He thinks the Taj Mahal is the grandest building in the world.
C. He thinks highly of the Taj Mahal.
D. He has never visited the Taj Mahal.
36: How long did it take them to build the Taj Mahal?
A. over 20 years B. 20 years C. less than 20 years D. 20 months
37: What kind of stones is used to build the Taj Mahal?
A. yellow marble stones B. red marble stones
C. marble stones D. white marble stones
38: Where is the Taj Mahal situated?
A. in India B. in Paris C. in Australia D. in Cambodia
39: How long did Emperor Shah Jahan stay in prison?
A. 7 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. 9 years
40: What should tourists do show respect to the Taj Mahal?
A. each person visits it at a time B. put on their shoes during their visit.
C. take off their shoes during their visit. D. take off their hats during their visit.
word (s) for each of the blanks
In the United it is not customary to telephone someone very early in the morning. If you telephone him
early in the day, while he is shaving or having breakfast, the time of the (11) _______ shows that the matter
is very important and requires immediate attention. The same meaning is (12) _______ to telephone call
(13) _______ after 11:00 p. m. If someone receives a call during (14) _______ hours, he assumes it is a
matter of life and death. The time chosen for the call communicates (15) _______ importance.
In social life, time plays a very important part. In the USA guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded
if the invitation (16) _______ a dinner party is extended only three or four days before the party date. But it
is not true in all countries. In other areas of the world, (17) _______ may be considered foolish to make an
appointment too far in advance (18) _______ plans which are made for a date more than a week tend to be
forgotten. The meaning of time differs in different parts of the world. (19) _______, misunderstandings
arise between people from cultures that treat time (20) _______.
41: A. talk B. phone C. call D. conversation
42: A. attached B. taken C. shown D. drawn
43: A. made B. done C. sent D. dialed
44: A. sleep B. sleepy C. slept D. sleeping
45: A. the B. its C. it's D. it
46: A. for B. about C. of D. to
47: A. he B. that C. they D. it
48: A. though B. except C. even D. because
49: A. In contrast B. Thus C. Otherwise D. However
50: A. variously B. opposite C. alike D. differently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting
51: Having punished twice this week, Kate feels ashamed of her bad behaviour.
A B C D
52: So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world.
A B C D
53: Many disabled children cannot derive full enjoyment from toys make for non-disabled children.
A B C D
54: He has done a valuable contribution to the independence of the country.
A B C D
55: The air that surrounds our planet is both odourless, colourless, and invisible.
A B C D
When the first white men came to America, they found vast amounts of natural resources of tremendous
value. Forests covered a large part of the nation; later gas, oil and minerals were found in unbelievable
amounts. There was a great abundance of very fertile soil. Forests, prairies, streams and rivers abounded
with wildlife. So vast were these resources that it seemed that they could never be used up. So forests were
destroyed to make way for farmland. Grass lands and prairies were plowed and harrowed. Minerals and oil
were used in great quantities to supply a young industrial nation. Almost every river became the scene of
factories, mills and power companies. Mammals and birds were slaughtered for food and sport.
Within a short time, the results were obvious. Floods caused millions of dollars worth of damage yearly.
The very fertile soil was washed away or blown up in great clouds. The seemingly inexhaustible oil and
minerals showed signs of depletion. Rivers were filled with silt from eroding farms and wastes from
factories. Many of the rivers were made unfit for fish. Several species of birds disappeared, and some
mammals seemed on the verge of going. Future timber shortages were predicted. In short, Americans soon
became to realize that some sort of conservation program must be set up, if future as well as present
Americans were to share in the resources that are the heritage of every American.
56: The title that best expresses the main theme or subject of this selection is ________.
A. The loss of topsoil B. The cause of timber shortage
C. The story of America's natural resources D. What the first white men found in America
57: It seemed to the early American settlers that ________.
A. there was a shortage of minerals. B. fertile soil was scarce
C. the natural resources were inexhaustible D. forests should not be cut
58: The use of America's natural resources by the early settlers was ________.
A. careless B. predicted C. scientific D. unbelievable
59: Much of the fertile soil of America has ________.
A. been covered by lakes B. been eroded by wind and water
C. sunk deep into the earth D. become the scene of factories
60: According to the passage, the false sentence is that _________.
A. they killed animals for food and sport.
B. the early American settlers used a lot of minerals and oil.
C. they plowed and harrowed grasslands and prairies.
D. they grew different kinds of plants in prairies.
61: The word "abounded with" could best replaced by ________.
A. were plentiful of B. were abundant in C. were rich with D. were a lot of
62: The word "silt" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. dust B. soil C. land D. mud
63: One reason why many of our rivers are no longer suitable living places for fish is that ________.
A. too many fish have been caught B. floods have caused much damage
C. a conservation program has been set up D. factories have dumped waste into the rivers
64: Some species of birds and mammals seemed ________.
A. to become extinct B. to be killed C. to be slaughtered D. to die
65: Americans soon came to realize that ________.
A. They should stop killing animals for food.
B. They must establish a conservation program
C. They shouldn't reclaim the land

D. They must give up exploiting minerals
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
66: Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money.
A. fearsome B. expected C. excited D. optimistic
67: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time C. again and again D. very rapidly
68: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat.
sky B. land C. forest D. home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is opposite in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
69: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. sufficiency B. large quantity
C. small quantity D. excess
70: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. attraction B. consideration
C. speculation D. ease
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
71: "Let's go to the cinema tonight," he suggested.
A. He suggested that let's them to go to the cinema that night.
B. He suggested them to go to the cinema that night.
C. He suggested their going to the cinema that night.
D. He suggested they went to the cinema that night.
72: I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to.
A. He hadn't expected it was so easy to talk to me.
B. I hadn't expected him to be such an easy person to talk to.
C. I hadn't expected him be so easy to talk to.
D. I hadn't expected talk to him would be so easy.
73: It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the
epidemic.
A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
B. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the
epidemic.
C. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have made a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the
epidemic.
74: "Don‘t come home late, Jenny, it is dangerous!" her father said.
A. Jenny's father advised her to come home early.
B. Jenny's father told her not to come home late because it was dangerous.
C. Jenny's father asked her against being home late because it may be dangerous.
D. Jenny's father told her not to come home late and it was dangerous.
75: Sam is twenty-two years old, and his sister is eleven.
A. He is two times as older as his sister. B. His sister is twice as young as him.
C. Sam is older than his sister two times. D. He is twice as old as his sister.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best way to complete each of the
following questions
76: ___________ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all age.
A. Having exercised B. For exercising
C. Those who exercise D. Exercising
77: It is a fact that________________ form of energy.
A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity is the most useful
C. electricity the most useful D. the most useful in electricity

78: When ________ is not known.
A. was the wheel invented B. the invention of the wheel
C. the wheel was invented D. it was invented the wheel
79: Especially important to many people ____________.
A. is legislation against pollution B. it is legislation against pollution
C. there is legislation against pollution D. legislation against pollution is
80: Once known as the ―Golden State‖ because of its gold mines, _________.
A. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined
B. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today
C. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today
D. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals
KEY TO PRACTICE 4

1 B 21 A 41 C 61 B
2 D 22 D 42 A 62 D
3 C 23 B 43 A 63 D
4 B 24 C 44 D 64 A
5 C 25 C 45 B 65 B
6 B 26 A 46 D 66 D
7 D 27 C 47 D 67 D
8 C 28 D 48 D 68 D
9 B 29 A 49 B 69 C
10 D 30 C 50 D 70 D
11 B 31 A 51 A 71 C
12 D 32 B 52 A 72 B
13 D 33 A 53 D 73 C
14 B 34 A 54 A 74 B
15 B 35 C 55 B 75 D
16 B 36 A 56 C 76 D
17 C 37 D 57 C 77 B
18 A 38 A 58 A 78 C
19 A 39 B 59 B 79 A
20 B 40 C 60 D 80 D
PRACTICE TEST 5
Choose the word that has the underlined part stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. project B. profit C. protest D. progress 2
2. A. satellite B. astronaut C. deliver D. applicant 2
3. A. family B. father C. brother D. believe 1
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
4. A. stopped B. looked C. needed D. laughed 1
5. A. secret B. season C. serious D. sugar 4
Choose the best word or phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
6. I did not get the job____________ 1
A. in spite of I had some qualifications B. despite I had some qualifications
C. although my qualifications D. despite my qualification
7. The more books you read, ____________ 1
A. the knowledge more you get B. the most knowledge you get
C. more and more knowledge you get D. the more knowledge you get
8. ― Why don‘t we go out for a drink?‖ 2

Indirect: Chris ____________for a drink.
A. asked to go out B. told us to go out
C. suggested going out D. invited us to go out
9. ____________ the door, he was very surprised at what he saw. 2
A. Have opened B. When opened C. To opening D. Opening
10. We don‘t feel ______ although we have walked three miles. 1
A. tiring B. tiredly C. tired D. tire
11. Please stop looking at me like that! It‘s very __________ to stare.
A. courteous B. polite C. inconvenience D. rude 2
12. By the end of next month, we _______ our English course. 1
a. have completed b. will be completed c. will have completed d. completed
13. It was ______that everyone answered it correctly. 2
A. so simple question B. such a simple question
C. too simple question D. a more simple question
14. We haven‘t had a holiday together______________.
A. since several years B. for several years ago 1
C. for several years D. since a long time
15. ______________, she wouldn‘t have failed the exam. 2
A. If Lan studied hard B. Unless Lan had studied hard
C. If Lan had studied hard D. If Lan studied hard
16. During the school year I‘m not allowed_______T. V until I have finished my homework. 2
A. watched B. watch C. to watch D. watches
17. It‘s essential that every student …………the exam before attending the course. 3
A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed
18. ……………….. in the street yesterday was very friendly. 1
A. The police, who I saw B. The police I saw whom
C. Who is the police I saw D. The police whom I saw
19. _______ if a war happened? 1
A. What you would do B. What would you do C. What will you do D. What will you do
20. A: This grammar test is the hardest one we‘ve ever had this semester! 3
B: …………………but I think it‘s quite easy.
A. I couldn‘t agree more. B. I understand what you‘re saying.
C. You‘re right. D. I don‘t see in that way.
21. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to………. what she missed while she was away. 4
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
22. I feel terrible, I didn‘t sleep ___________ last night. 4
A. an eye B. a wink C. a jot D. an inch
23. Margaret: ―Could you give me the salt, please?‖ Henry: "______" 4
A. I am, of course B. Yes, with pleasure C. I feel sorry D. Yes, I can
24. _― What are you going to buy in this store?‖
_ ― Nothing, _________ want is too much expensive‖ 2
A. That I B. What I C. That what I D. What do I
25. I‘m sorry I opened your handbag, but I _________ it for mine. 4
A. took B. confused C. recognized D. imagined
26. You will be surprised at how _____________ Joe is in French after a year. 1
A. fluently B. fluent C. fluency D. influence
27. Politicians often __________not to raise taxes, especially before an election . 2
A. keep B. tell C. promise D. avoid
28. It was quite cold ____________ it was very sunny. 2
A. although B. because C. so that D. as
29. There were two small rooms in the beach house, ______ served as a kitchen.
A. the smaller of them B. the smaller of which
C. the smallest of which D. smallest of that

30. I don‘t understand what this means. Can you __________ it to me?
A. talk B. answer C. say D. explain 2
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
31. The more you practise your English, the fastest you will learn 1
A B C D
32. The last person leaving the room must turn off the lights 2
A B C D
33. In spite of the fact that he had been warned, he still got an electric shocked 2
A B C D
34. Different from they are, all advertisements are alike in one important way. 3
A B C D
35. Dresses, skirts, shoes, and the children‘s clothing is advertised at reduced prices this weekend. 3
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
36. This woman has devoted her whole life to help others 3
A. dedicated B. appealed C. resulted D. appalled
37. ―Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You‘re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back‖, the teacher
said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible 3
38. The choice of a particular career is influenced by a number of factors. 2
A. usefulness B. success C. desire D. selection
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
39. That afternoon at the railway station I was surprised and made happy by the unexpected arrival of Miss
Margaret and her mother, from Oakland.
A. anticipated B. presumed C. supposed D. informed 2
40. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. married B. divorced C. separated D. single 4
Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one
41. Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer. 4
More people have summer colds than winter colds.
People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
The winter is much colder than the summer.
42. Nobody told us anything about the incident. 3
A. We were told anything about the accident. B. We weren‘t told anything about the accident.
C. Anything weren‘t told us about the accident. D. Anything were told to us about the accident.
43. I‘ll finish this job and then I‘ll phone you back. 2
A. I‘ll phone you back as soon I‘ll finish this job.
B. I‘ll phone you back as soon I finished this job.
C. I‘ll phone you back as soon I finish this job.
D. I‘ll phone you back as soon I‘m finished this job.
44. The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end. 4
A. Their picnic didn‘t end in the heavy downpour.
B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.
C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.
D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.
45. Jane hardly ever enjoys eating vegetables. 2
A. She enjoys eating vegetables. B. She is fond of eating vegetables.
C. She almost never eats vegetables. D. She sells vegetables for living.
46. You drink too much coffee ; that‘s why you can‘t sleep. 2
A. If you didn‘t drink too much coffee, you could sleep.
B. You couldn‘t sleep although you drank too much coffee.
C. If you hadn‘t drunk too much coffee, you could have slept.
D. If you don‘t drink too much coffee, you can sleep.
47. The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks. 4
The hostess tried hard to please her guests.
The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.
48. I‘m sorry that he won‘t accept the job he‘s been offered. 3
A. I wish he would accept the job he‘s been offered
B. I wish he had accept the job he‘s been offered
C. I wish he would have accepted the job he‘s been offered
D. I wish he will accept the job he‘s been offered
49.. The reforms will not succeed unless they are carefully planned. 4
A. The reforms will succeed unless they are not carefully planned.
B. The reforms will not succeed provided that they are carefully planned.
C. Careful planning is crucial to the success of the reforms.
D. The success of the reforms result in careful planning.
50. He acts as though nothing matters to him. 3
A. He acts when there‘s no matter for him. B. He acts although nothing matters to him.
C. He seems not to care about anything. D. Nothing matters to him when he acts.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase to fill in the blank in
the following passage.
People in many countries grow fresh water fish from eggs. They move the small fish into lakes and rivers.
The fish live and (21) ___________ there. People go (22) ___________ in these lakes and rivers. They
enjoy catching fish because fish is also good food. Now the Japanese grow salt water fish. Most of them are
yellow tail fish. Workers grow the fish from eggs. Every time they feed the fish, they play (23)
___________ of piano music. The fish (24) ___________that piano music means food. When the fish are
small, the Japanese put them into the ocean near the land. The fish find some of their (25) ___________
food. Workers also feed them. They play the same piano music. The fish (26) ___________know the
music. They swim toward it and (27) ___________ the food. In (28) ___________months the fish are
large. The Japanese play the same music. The fish swim toward it and the workers (29) ___________ them.
The Japanese get about 15 percent of their seafood (30) ___________farms in the ocean.
51. A. bread B. born C. grow D. develop 2
52. A. enjoying B. fishing C. shopping D. catching 1
53. A. songs B. films C. tapes D. lot 4
54. A. think B. recognize C. realize D. learn 2
55. A. own B. own‘s C. self D. self‘s 3
56. A. recently B. mostly C. nearly D. already 4
57. A. see B. find C. bite D. hold 3
58. A. few B. a few C. couple D. many 4
59. A. grasp B. catch C. seize D. hold 4
60. A. on B. of C. from D. in 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of
energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods. Carbohydrates range from simple
sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that
carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person's diet. This translates to about 75-
100 grams of carbohydrates per day.
A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health. When the body
lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called
gluconeogenesis. This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may
occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones in the body that causes
fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.
61. What is the main idea of this passage? 1
A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health. B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.
C. Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis. D. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.
62. The word "range" as used in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following? 3
A. probe B. proceed C. hail D. extend
63. According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest? 2
A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.
B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.
C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet.
D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.
64. Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do? 4
A. prevent ketosis B. cause gluconeogenesis
C. provide energy for the body D. flavor and sweeten food
65. Which of the following words could best replace "deficient" as used in line 6 ? 4
A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal
66. What does the word "this" refer to in line 8 ? 3
A. using protein supplies for energy B. converting carbohydrates to energy
C. having a deficiency in carbohydrates D. having an insufficient amount of protein
67. According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates? 3
A. a protein supply B. a necessity C. a range of sugars D. an energy source
68. The word ―lack‖ in line 13 is most similar to which of the following? 1
A. plethora B. shortage C. derivation D. commission
69. Which of the following best describes the author's tone? 4
A. sensitive B. emotional C. informative D. regretful
70. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage? 4
A. Cause and result B. Comparison and contrast
C. Specific to general D. Definition and example
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In early civilizations, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant
simply learning to live. As civilizations became more complex, however, education became more formal,
structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated
solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato
was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would
have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic
philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal
education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught
separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex
schools for the privileged classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however, education
for women on a separate but equal basis to that provided for men was becoming a clear responsibility of
society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. At the Council of Trent in the
16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for
children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it
was still in the realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of
educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the
same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have
also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co-education has
been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both
primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions.
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular in
single-sex classes: during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles
may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental
work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in
girls' schools. Some educationalists therefore suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly
in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
71. Ancient education generally focused its efforts on ____. 1
A. on male learners B. both sexes C. female learners D. young people only
72. Education in early times was mostly aimed at ____. 1
A. teaching skills B. learning to live
C. learning new lifestyles D. imparting survival skills
73. The first to support the equality of the sexes was ____. 2
A. the Chinese B. the Greek C. Plato D. the Jews
74: The word "informally" in this context mostly refers to an education occurring____. 3
A. in classrooms B. outside the school C. in a department D. ability
75: When education first reached women, they were ____. 4
A. locked up in a place with men B. isolated from normal life
C. deprived of opportunities D. separated from men
76: When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education____. 4
A. was given free to all B. was intended for all the sexes
C. focused on imparting skills D. was intended to leave out female learners
77: The word "espouse" is contextually closest in meaning to "____". 4
A. to introduce B. to put off C. to give D. to induce
78: Co-ed was negatively responded to in ____. 3
A. Japan B. the Scandinavian countries
C. South American countries D. conservative countries
79: The word "tables" is closest in meaning to "____". 4
A. shapes B. meeting tables C. personalities D. figures
80: The word "segregation" may be understood as "____". 4
A. grouping B. mixture C. separation D. extraction
KEY TO PRACTICE 5

1 C 21 A 41 A 61 A
2 C 22 B 42 B 62 D
3 D 23 B 43 C 63 C
4 C 24 B 44 D 64 B
5 D 25 A 45 C 65 C
6 D 26 B 46 A 66 A
7 D 27 C 47 B 67 A
8 C 28 A 48 A 68 B
9 D 29 B 49 C 69 C
10 C 30 D 50 C 70 B
11 D 31 C 51 D 71 A
12 C 32 A 52 B 72 B
13 B 33 D 53 C 73 C
14 C 34 A 54 C 74 B
15 C 35 B 55 A 75 D
16 C 36 A 56 D 76 B
17 A 37 B 57 B 77 A
18 D 38 D 58 B 78 C
19 B 39 D 59 B 79 C
20 B 40 A 60 A 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently.
Câu 1: A. knowledge B. comfort C. popular D. college
Câu 2: A. orchestra B. scholarchip C. chemistry D. charity
Câu 3: A. announced B. struggled C. observed D. repaired
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 4: A. understanding B. anniversary C. experience D. celebration
Câu 5: A. invite B. intimate C. divorce D. imagine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Câu 6: I didn‘t see anyone but I felt as though I ______.
A. have been watched B. was being watched C. being watched D. am watched
Câu 7: This shirt is ______ that one.
A. much far expensive than B. a bit less expensive
C. not nearly as expensive as D. as much expensive as
Câu 8: Mary is unhappy that she hasn't ______ for the next round in the tennis tournament.
A. qualifying B. qualification C. quality D. qualified
Câu 9: - "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?" - "______"
A. I wouldn't. Thank you. B. Do you think I would?
C. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks. D. Yes, you're a good friend.
Câu 10: - ―Today‘s my 20th birthday. ‖ - ―______‖
A. Have a good time! B. Take care! C. I don‘t understand. D. Many happy returns!
Câu 11: I accidentally ______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. paid attention to B. kept an eye on C. caught sight of D. lost touch with
Câu 12: The factory is said ________ in a fire two years ago.
A. being destroyed B. to have been destroyed
C. to destroy C. to have destroyed
Câu 13: I ________ with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.
A. will have been staying B. will have stayed
C. stay D. will be staying
Câu 14: To solve this problem, it is advisable that a drastic measure _________.
A. to be adopted B. adopt C. be adopted D. is adopted
Câu 15: _________from Bill, all the students said they would go to the party.
A. Except B. Only C. Apart D. Separate
Câu 16: Had the drought not lowered, the reservoir of the ancient village__________.
A. wouldn't be discovered B. wouldn't have been discovered
C. can't have been discovered D. can't be discovered
Câu 17: There's someone at the door. _________them.
A. I'm answering B. I answer C. I answered D. I'll answer
Câu 18: I remember ________ to Paris when I was a very small child.
A. to be taken B. to take C. being taken D. taking
Câu 19: The party starts at 8 o'clock so I'll ________ at 7. 45.
A. look for you B. pick you up C. bring you along D. take you out
Câu 20: ________ happened, I didn't want to lose Sarah's friendship.
A. Whatever B. Wherever C. However D. Whenever
Câu 21: I believe that everyone has had ________ experiences in their life.
A. memorable B. observable C. acceptable D. reflexible

Câu 22: At present we are ______ an anti-drug campaign.
A. setting up B. carrying out C. taking part in D. joining with
Câu 23: No sooner ______ the corner than the wheel came off.
A. the van turned B. did the van turned C. the van had turned D. had the van turned
Câu 24: They were fortunate ______ from the fire before the building collapsed.
A. rescuing B. to have rescued C. to rescue D. to have been rescued
Câu 25: I remember ________ to Paris when I was a very small child.
A. to be taken B. to take C. being taken D. taking
Câu 26: The boys were taken ______ a fishing trip last weekend.
A. in B. to C. on D. for
Câu 27: We managed to ______ over $4,000 through donations and other events.
A. deposit B. donate C. raise D. exchange
Câu 28: If you _______ to my advice in the first place, you wouldn't be in this mess now.
A. had listened B. will listen C. listen D. listened
Câu 29: The rapid growth of population led to an acute _______ of housing.
A. shortfall B. shortcut C. shortcoming D. shortage
Câu 30: Our school has managed to collect a lot of books to _______ to the children in a village school.
A. publish B. distribute C. employ D. depart
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Câu 31: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
Câu 32: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSET in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 33: I had a glance at the article, but I haven't read it yet.
A. close look B. quick look C. direct look D. furtive look
Câu 34: These anniversaries mark the milestones of a happy and lasting relationship between married
couples.
A. signs B. achievements C. landmarks D. progresses
Câu 35: Teachers have been asked to concentrate on literacy and numeracy.
A. the ability to read and write B. basic skills in mathematics
C. good knowledge of literature D. the ability to write books
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Câu 36: It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer.
A B C D
Câu 37: Despite modern medical technology, many diseases causing by viruses I are still not curable.
A B C D
Câu 38: Members of high school clubs learn to participation in teams through their involvement in
A B C
community projects.
D
Câu 39: We have heard so many news about recent developments in computer technology.
A B C D
Câu 40: Fifteen hundred dollars a year were the per capita income in the United States in 1950.
A B C D
Read the following passage carefully and then choose best option to fit each space. Identify your choice by
circling letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
The reality of an interview is never as bad as your fears. For some (41) _____ people imagine the
interviewer is going to jump on over tiny mistake they (42) _____. In truth, the interviewer is as keen for
the meeting to go well as you are. It is what (43) _____ his or her job enjoyable.
The secret of a good interview is preparing for it. What you wear is always important as it creates the first
impression. So (44) _____ neatly, but comfortably. Make (45) _____ that you can deal with anything you
are (46) _____. Prepare for questions that are certain to come up, for example: Why do you become a
nurse? What is the most important quality a good nurse should have? Apart from nursing, what other
careers have you considered? What are your interest and hobbies?
Answer the questions fully and precisely. For instance, if one of your interests is reading, be prepared to
(47) _____ about the sort of books you like. (48) _____, do not learn all answers off (49) _____ heart. He
interviewer wants to meet a human being, not a robot. Remember, the interviewer is genuinely interested in
you, so the more you relax and are yourself, the more (50) _____ you are succeed.
Câu 41: A. idea B. reason C. explanation D. excuse
Câu 42: A. perform B. do C. make D. have
Câu 43: A. does B. happens C. causes D. makes
Câu 44: A. have on B. wear C. put on D. dress
Câu 45: A. evident B. sure C. definite D. clear
Câu 46: A. asked B. enquired C. questioned D. requested
Câu 47: A. say B. talk C. discuss D. chat
Câu 48: A. Therefore B. Although C. Despite D. However
Câu 49: A. at B. by C. on D. in
Câu 50: A. easy B. possible C. likely D. probable
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so
hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and
older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his
town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was
able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a
state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to
become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period
of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the
older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was
increased to a minimum of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other
important reforms included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-
service teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries
for teachers and creating school libraries.
Mann‘s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports
to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite
radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized
as the father of public education.
Câu 51: Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage ?
A. The Father of American Public Education B. Philosophy of Education
C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education. D. Politics of Educational Institutions
Câu 52: Which of the following describes Horace Mann‘s early life ?
A. He attended school six months a year. B. He had to study alone, without help.
C. He supported his family after his father died. D. He was an only child.
Câu 53: The word ―struggles‖ in line 5 could best be replaced by
A. valuable experiences B. happy situations C. influential people D. difficult times
Câu 54: The word ―regret‖ in line 7 could best be replaced by
A. consideration B. feeling sorry C. limitation D. acceptance

Câu 55: What did Horace Mann advocate ?
A. The state board school system. B. The district school system.
C. The substitute school system. D. The graded school system.
Câu 56: The word ―mandatory‖ in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic
Câu 57: How were Mann‘s educational reforms distributed ?
A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts
B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution.
C. In speeches that he made throughout the country.
D. In books that could be found in school libraries.
Câu 58: The reforms that Horace Mann achieved were
A. not radical for the time. B. used only by the state of Massachusetts
C. adopted by the nation as a model. D. enforced by the Massachusetts bar.
Câu 59: Among Mann‘s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned ?
A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training
C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums
Câu 60: Which of the following statements best represents Mann‘s philosophy ?
A. Think in new way B. Help others C. Study very hard D. Work hard
Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times, made in
1936. Charlie Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing him,
happened to describe the working conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm
boys were lured to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or five years, these young
men‘s health was destroyed by the stress of work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp.
Abruptly, the film shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory.
However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a
gentle note of satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.
Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain some of the
most pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has seen the film can
ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his mind
in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic feeding machine brought to the assembly line
so that workers need not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions, hurling food at
Chaplin, who is strapped in his position on the assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate
people‘s utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a social
context. It does not offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of many who
feel they are victims of an over-mechanised world.
Câu 61: According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from ______.
A. a movie B. a conversation C. a newspaper D. fieldwork
Câu 62: The young farm boys went to the city because they were ______.
A. promised better accommodation B. driven out of their sheep farm
C. attracted by the prospect of a better life D. forced to leave their sheep farm
Câu 63: The phrase ―jostling one another‖ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ―______‖.
A. jogging side by side B. pushing one another
C. hurrying up together D. running against each other
Câu 64: According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended ______.
A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers B. to introduce the main characters of the film
C. to produce a tacit association D. to give the setting for the entire plot later
Câu 65: The word ―vainly‖ in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ―______‖.
A. recklessly B. carelessly C. hopelessly D. effortlessly
Câu 66: The word ―This‖ in the fourth paragraph refers to ______.
A. the scene of an assembly line in operation
B. the scene of the malfunction of the feeding machine
C. the malfunction of the twentieth-century technology
D. the situation of young workers in a factory
Câu 67: According to the author, about two-thirds of Modern Times ______.
A. entertains the audience most B. is rather discouraging
C. was shot outside a factory D. is more critical than the rest
Câu 68: The author refers to all of the following notions to describe Modern Times EXCEPT ―______‖.
A. satire B. entertainment C. criticism D. revolution
Câu 69: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The working conditions in the car factories of the 1930s were very stressful.
B. In Modern Times, the factory workers‘ basic needs are well met.
C. The author does not consider Modern Times as a perfect film.
D. Modern Times depicts the over-mechanised world from a social viewpoint.
Câu 70: The passage was written to ______.
A. criticize the factory system of the 1930s B. explain Chaplin‘s style of acting
C. review one of Chaplin‘s popular films D. discuss the disadvantages of technology
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
sentences.
Câu 71: ―You should have finished the report by now,‖ John told his secretary.
A. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
B. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
C. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Câu 72: There is absolutely no truth in that rumour.
A. That rumour is absolutely true. B. That rumour is absolutely false.
C. There is some absolutely true rumour. D. That rumour is true to some extent.
Câu 73: Without skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. Had it been for skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
B. He wouldn't have survived the operation if he hadn't had skilful surgery.
C. But for skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
D. With skilful surgery he would have survived the operation.
Câu 74: He is determined to continue working when he is 65.
A. There is a determination of him to continue working when he is 65.
B. Not until he is 65, he is determined to continue working.
C. He has no intention of stopping working when he is 65.
D. His determination to continue working only when he is 65.
Câu 75: He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
Câu 76: I regret going to his party last night.
A. I didn‘t go to his party last night. B. I refused to go to his party last night.
C. I wish I didn‘t go to his party last night. D. I wish I hadn‘t gone to his party last night.
Câu 77: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Câu 78: His car has just been stolen.
A. He has just had his car stolen. B. He has his car stolen.
C. He has got someone steal his car. D. He had had his car stolen.
Câu 79: "Don‘t be so disappointed, Bill. You can take the driving test again," said Helen.
A. Helen told Bill not to be disappointed and not to take the driving test again.
B. Helen told Bill to be disappointed because of the driving test again.
C. Helen said Bill not to be disappointed in order to take the driving test again.
D. Helen encouraged Bill to take the driving test again.
Câu 80: The film didn‘t come up to my expectations.
A. The film was as good as I expected. B. I expected the film to end more abruptly.
C. The film fell short of my expectations. D. I expected the film to be more boring.
KEY TO PRACTICE 6

1 B 21 A 41 B 61 B
2 D 22 B 42 C 62 C
3 A 23 D 43 D 63 B
4 C 24 D 44 D 64 C
5 B 25 C 45 B 65 C
6 B 26 C 46 A 66 B
7 C 27 C 47 B 67 C
8 D 28 A 48 D 68 D
9 C 29 D 49 B 69 B
10 D 30 B 50 C 70 C
11 C 31 B 51 A 71 B
12 B 32 B 52 C 72 B
13 D 33 B 53 D 73 B
14 C 34 C 54 B 74 C
15 C 35 A 55 D 75 C
16 B 36 D 56 A 76 D
17 D 37 B 57 A 77 A
18 C 38 B 58 C 78 A
19 B 39 B 59 D 79 D
20 A 40 B 60 B 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 7
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Identify your answer by circling the
corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
1. A. opened B. played C. proved D. regarded
2. A. cook B. fool C. moon D. tool
3. A. eats B. gains C. signs D. sings
4. A. study B. ready C. puppy D. occupy
5. A. event B. lend C. even D. dentist
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding
letter A, B, C, or D.
6. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic
7. A. discover B. difficult C. invention D. important
8. A. acceptance B. explorer C. possibly D. refusal
9. A. report B. master C. foreign D. private
10. A. automatic B. conversation C. disadvantage D. reasonable
III. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each
sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
11. You are going to come to the party_____?

A. aren‘t you B. do you C. will you D. won‘t you
12. The plane crashed into the bridge because it was flying too _____
A. deep B. shallow C. low D. narrow
13. Her parents were very _____ because she was out so late that night.
A. responsible B. Sorry C. worried D. overcome
14. From the hotel there is a good _____ of the mountains
A. vision B. view C. sight D. picture
15. Since he was a boy, one of his _____ has been stamp collecting
A. hobbies B. cares C. sports D. professions
16. Most people were no longer listening to his long _____ story
A. irritable B. boring C. tiring D. annoying
17. There ‗s someone at the door _____ it
A. I‘m answering B. I answer C. I‘ll answer D. I answered
18. If I‘m tired in the evening _____ to bed early
A. I‘d go B. I‘d have gone C. I went D. I‘ll go
19. if you require any more _____ about the holiday, please telephone us.
A. description B. information C. news D. fact
20. You will become ill _____ you stop working so hard
A. until B. when C. unless D. if
21. Oh, no ! My wallet has been _____
A. robbed B. picked C. stolen D. theft
22. We watched the cat _____ the tree.
A. climbed B. climb C. had climbed D. was climbing
23. I wish you _____ stop interrupting me whenever I speak
A. will B. would C. did D. might
24_____ the time you get to the theater, the play will have finished
A. Until B. In C. By D. on
25. He lost the race because he _____ petrol on the last lap
A. got out of B. ran out of C. made out of D. put out of
26. Is there a bank where I can _____ these pounds for dollars?
A. exchange B. turn C. alter D. arrange
27. Traveling to Paris _____ air is quicker than driving
A. by B. on C. over D. through
28. I think Sally is quite _____ her sister
A. as pretty B. as pretty than C. as pretty as D. prettier
29. Four people were seriously ______ in an accident on the motorway
A. injured B. damaged C. spoiled D. wounded
30. Would you be _____ to hold the door open?
A. too kind B. kind enough C. as kind D. so kind
31. I am not sure _____ the green coat is
A. who‘s B. who C. whose D. whom
32. It was _____ a simple question that everyone answered it correctly
A. so B. such C. much D. too
33. That lesson was much too difficult_____ understand
A. for me to B. me to C. for I to D. that
34. She warned me _____
A. to not do it B. not to do it C. I should do it D. about to do it
35. He completely _____ with what you said.
A. admitted B. agreed C. accepted D. argued
36 _____ he had no money for a bus, he had to walk all the way home.
A. for B. thus C. so D. as
37. The _____ were all invited to the school.
A. boys parents B. boys‘ parents‘ C. boys parents‘ D. boys‘ parents

38. It took him ages to _____ living in the new town.
A. used to B. accustomed C. get used to D. use to
39 _____ his advice, I would never have got a job
A. Except B. Apart from C. But for D. As for
40. The world Cup is a football _____ which is open to all countries.
A. participation B. involvement C. occasion D. competition
IV. Choose from the four underlined parts of each sentence (marked A, B, C, and D) one that needs
correcting. Identify tour answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
41. The reason why he‗s not feeling very well is simple – he‗s ate too much as usual.
A. he‘s not feeling B. is simple C. he‘s ate D. as usual
42. Mary found it hard to concentrate on her work because the noise.
A. it hard B. to concentrate C. work D. because the noise
43. Where I am living now is convenient for work because I don‘t have travel far.
A. Where I am B. is convenient C. for work because I don‘t D. have travel far
44. She washes her hair at least six time a week
A. washes her hair B. at least six C. time D. a week
45. I‘ll make some sandwiches before I‗ll leave for work.
A. I‘ll make B. some sandwiches before C. I‘ll leave D. for work
IV. Read the following text then answer the questions that follow by circling its corresponding letter
marked A, B, C, or D.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling
is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the
environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling
movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and
expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually
paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are
wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils đồ dùng, dụng cụ. Another way to reduce waste is to buy
high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new
ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example. if a customer buys a high-quality appliance
that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way. if a customer
chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To
reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers.
empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash
them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of
the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have
relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used
again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum
can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new
cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources.
A. how to reduce garbage disposal B. what people often understand about the term 'recycle'
C. what is involved in the recycling movement D. how to live sensitively to the environment.
47. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Europe B. Asia C. Middle East D. South America
48. t does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean?
A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding
49. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
50. Why is it a waste and customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away.

B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because they produce less energy.
51. What does it mean 'Customers can vote with their wallets'?
A. they can choose the cheapest products
B. they can cast a lot to praise a producer.
C. they can ask people to choose products with less packaging
D. they can tell the producers which products are good for environment by buying them.
52. The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to_________
A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference
53. What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. he bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
54. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
55. The word 'precious' is closest in meaning to_________
A. natural B. substantial C. first D. invaluable
III. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each of
the gaps below by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
Without transportation, our modern society could not (51) ______. We would have no metal, no coal and
no oil nor would we have any (52) ______ Make from these materials (53) ______ We would have to
spend most of our time (54) ______ food and food would be (55) ______ To the kinds that could grow in
the climate and soil of our neighborhoods. Transportation also (56) ______ our lives in other ways.
Transportation can speed a doctor to the (57) ______ Of a sick person, even if the patient lives on an
isolated farm. It can take police to the (58) ______ of a crime within moments of being notified.
Transportation (59) ______ teams of athletes to compete in national and international sports contests. In
time of (60) ______ transportation can rush aid to person in areas stricken by floods, famines and
earthquakes.
56. A. happen B. exist C. take place D. establish
57. A. production B. producers C. productivity D. product
58. A. Besides B. However C. Although D. Even
59. A. buying B. taking C. raising D. paying
60. A. related B. limited C. focused D. connected
61. A. makes B. influences C. affects D. effects
62. A. side B. way C. body D. part
63. A. location B. scene C. place D. site
64. A. brings B. gets C. fetches D. enables
65. A. disasters B. wars C. accidents D. problems
III. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each
sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
66. She always gets the right answer.
A. She never answers right B. She is always right.
C. She never fails to get the right answer D. She fails to get the right answer all the time.
67. I regret not booking the seats in advance
A. I wish I booked the seats in advance B. I wish I have booked the seats in advance
C. If only I booked the seats in advance D. If only I had booked the seats in advance.
68. The carpets were so expensive that we didn‘t buy them
A. The carpets were such expensive for us to buy them
B. The carpets were too expensive for us to buy them
C. The carpets were too expensive for us to buy

D. The carpets were very expensive for us to buy
69. No one has seen Linda since the day of the party
A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party
C. The party is going on without Linda D. No one has seen Linda for ages
70 Sarah didn‘t attend the history lecture, and neither did George?
A. Sarah and George didn‘t go to the history lecture B. Did George attend the history lecture with Sarah?
C. Did Sarah see George at the history lecture? D. Either Sarah or George attended the history lecture.
71. I haven‘t got money, so I‘m not going on holiday
A. Having no money made me go on holiday. B. Not having money on my holiday got me down
C. If I have money, I‘ll go on holiday D. If I had money, I would go on holiday.
72. The older he grew the more forgetful he became.
A. He grew older when he became more forgetful B. He became more forgetful and older
C. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful D. He grew older and more and more forgetful
73. ‖John left here an hour ago,‖ said Jane.
A. Jane told me that John had left there an hour before
B. Jane said John left there an hour before
C. Jane told John to have left there an hour before
D. Jane told me that John to leave there an hour before
74. ‖Why didn‘t you follow my advice?‖ he said
A. He asked me to follow his advice B. He asked me not to follow his advice
C. He asked me why I did follow his advice D. He asked me why I hadn‘t followed his advice
75. They had seen the man in a parking lot.
A. The man was seen in a parking lot B. The man has been seen in a parking lot
C. The man were seen in a parking lot D. The man fad been seen in a parking lot.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 13 to 15:
76: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
77: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skilful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
78. Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations should be discontinued, an innovation I heartily support.
A. inner part B. test C. entrance D. change
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 11 to 12:
79: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
80: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of
wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss
-----------------HẾT-----------------
KEY TO PRACTICE 7

1 D 21 C 41 C 61 C
2 A 22 B 42 D 62 A
3 A 23 B 43 D 63 B
4 D 24 C 44 C 64 D
5 C 25 B 45 C 65 A
6 B 26 A 46 C 66 C
7 B 27 A 47 A 67 D
8 C 28 C 48 C 68 C
9 A 29 A 49 D 69 A
10 D 30 B 50 A 70 A
11 A 31 C 51 D 71 D
12 C 32 B 52 C 72 C
13 C 33 A 53 B 73 A
14 B 34 B 54 D 74 D
15 A 35 B 55 D 75 D
16 B 36 D 56 B 76 A
17 C 37 D 57 D 77 A
18 D 38 C 58 A 78 D
19 B 39 C 59 C 79 B
20 C 40 D 60 B 80 A
PRACTICE TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
1. She was ______ angry that she could not say a word.
A. so B. too much C. so many D. such
2. Susan, remember to apply this sun cream ______ two hours.
A. some B. several C. every D. each
3. There is a good film ______ TV tonight. Will you watch it?
A. at B. from C. on D. in
4. If Nam had studied harder, he...... the last entrance examination.
A. would have passed B. will pass C. would pass D. passed
5. That cannot be a true story. He ______ it up.
A. can have made B. must have made C. would have made D. should have made
6. Spain has won the championship, ______ is not surprising.
A. that B. how C. which D. what
7. Sarah: ―Oh my God, I‘ve missed my bus. ‖
Christ: ―______. Another will come here in ten minutes. ‖
A. I hope so B. Don‘t mention it C. Don‘t worry D. Thank you
8. Instead of staying around the house all day, you should be out there looking____ a job.
A. for B. after C. into D. at
9. ______ he was tired, he still watched the final match on TV.
A. However B. Though C. Because D. Despite
10. If I had more money, I..... a bigger house.
A. bought B. will buy C. would have bought D. would buy
11. Ann: "Would you like some more tea?" → Daisy: "........................ "
A. Here you are B. It doesn't matter C. I'm OK D. Yes, please
12. How long ago ______ to learn French?
A. have you started B. were you starting C. would you start D. did you start
13. The teacher said that I would be able to speak English fluently ______ six months.
A. in B. by C. since D. till
14. No sooner ______ my car than the alarm went off.
A. the thief had touched B. had the thief touched
C. touched the thief D. the thief touched
15. The police have begun an ______ into the accident which happened this afternoon.
A. investigation B. investigatory C. investigate D. investigating
16. Nowadays, most students use ______ calculators in their studies and examinations.
A. electrical B. electronic C. electricity D. electric
17. Peter: "Thanks a lot for your wonderful gift. " → Mary: "........................ "
A. I'm glad you enjoy it. B. I don't hope so.
C. Me too D. You've got to be kidding.
18. This carpet really needs ______. Can you do it for me, son?
A. being cleaned B. cleaned C. clean D. cleaning
19. Jack: ―What‘s wrong with you?‖ Jill: ―______. ‖
A. Thank you very much B. I‘m having a slight headache
C. No, I don‘t care D. Yes, I was tired yesterday
20. College students are becoming less dependent ______ their teachers.
A. on B. with C. of D. to
21. I hope you will ______ notice of what I am going to tell you.
A. gain B. keep C. get D. take
22. My teacher reminded me ______ my essay carefully before handing it in.
A. checked B. checking C. to have checked D. to check
23. He gave ______ his job in order to go back to university.
A. up B. in C. away D. out
24. Mary: ―Do you mind if I sit here?‖ Laura: ―______‖
A. Don‘t mention it. B. My pleasure. C. No, not at all. D. Yes, why not?
25. Neither Tom nor his brothers ______ willing to help their mother with the housework.
A. are B. was C. has been D. is
26. ______, the less polluted the environment will be.
A. The more polluted landfills will be B. The more landfills are there
C. The less landfills are polluted D. The fewer landfills we have
27. Switch off all the lights ______.
A. by the time you enter the room B. until you enter the room
C. after you will leave the room D. before you leave the room
28. that she does not want to stay any longer.
A. A little homesick does Beth feel B. Beth feels such homesick
C. Homesick though Beth may feel D. So homesick does Beth feel
29. It is believed ______.
A. when Alice to become a talented ballet dancer
B. how is Alice a talented ballet dancer
C. why is Alice such a talented ballet dancer
D. that Alice is a talented ballet dancer
30. I have two sisters, ______.
A. both of whom are nurses B. most of whom are nurses
C. one of them are nurses D. most of them are nurses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
31. A special exhibition of Indian art will be opened at the National Museum next month.
A. painting B. programme C. music D. show
32. Traffic began to flow normally again after the accident.
A. with the same speed B. in the usual or ordinary way
C. strangely and irregularly D. repeatedly in different modes
33. Don‘t be concerned about your mother‘s illness; she‘ll recover soon.
A. surprised at B. worried about
C. embarrassed at D. angry with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
34. His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn't want to hire him any more.
A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement
35. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.
A. made room for B. lost control of C. put in charge of D. got in touch with
One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual exposure
to media – particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news, you are far from
alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to an extreme degree.
The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and the less
news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all that, as did
every subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.
When television came along, it proliferated like a population of rabbits. In 1950, there were 100,000
television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more than a million. Today, it‘s not
unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to perhaps over a hundred
channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of them it runs 24 hours a day.
What‘s more, after the traumatic events of September 11, 2001, live newscasts were paired with perennial
text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay abreast of every story all the time.
Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and sound
bytes alluding to disaster (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like.
Compounding the problem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with scare
stories about things that possibly might threaten our health, safety, finances, relationships, waistline,
hairline, or very existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially
lethal flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that over- promises smooth skin.
Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown anticipation
of potential trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into alarm mode when
danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing ourselves to such input
without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a source of chronic stress.
(Extracted from The Complete Idiot‘s Guide to Beating Stress by Arlene Matthews Uhl - Penguin Group
2006)
36. According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of
twenty-first-century stress?
A. The degree to which stress affects our life B. Our inability to control ourselves
C. An overabundance of special news D. Our continual exposure to the media
37. In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because ______.
A. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed
B. means of communication and transportation were not yet invented
C. most people lived in distant towns and villages
D. the printing press changed the situation too slowly
38. The pronoun ―them‖ in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. TV channels B. TV news C. television sets D. cable access
39. The word ―traumatic‖ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fascinating B. upsetting C. exciting D. boring
40. According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts ______.
A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu
B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen
C. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime
D. send out frightening stories about potential dangers
41. As stated in the passage, a flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream tend to______.
A. be scarce breaking news B. involve natural and man-made disasters
C. be treated with equal alarm D. be warmly welcomed by the public
42. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.
B. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news.
C. Many people are under stress caused by the media.
D. The news that is reported to us is not good news.
43. The word ―slip‖ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fail B. bring C. release D. fall

44. According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is obviously ____.
A. the result of an overabundance of good news
B. the result of human brain‘s switch to alarm mode
C. a source of defects in human brain
D. a source of chronic stress
45. What is probably the best title for this passage?
A. Developments in Telecommunications B. The Media – A Major Cause of Stress
C. More Modern Life – More Stress D. Effective Ways to Beat Stress
correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 46 to 55.
The popular image of student life is of young people with few responsibilities enjoying themselves and
(46)______ very little work. This is often not true. Many older people now study at college or university,
sometimes (47)______ a part-time basis while having a job and looking after a family. These students are
often (48)______ motivated and work very hard.
Younger students are often thought to be lazy and careless about money but this (49)______ is
changing. In Britain reduced government support for higher education means that students can no longer
rely on having their expenses (50)______ for them. Formerly, students received a grant towards their living
expenses. Now most can only get a loan (51)______ has to be paid back. Since 1999 they have paid over £1
000 towards tuition (52)______ and this amount will increase up to a maximum of £3 000. In the US
students already (53)______ pay for tuition and room and board. Many get a financial aid package which
may (54)______ grants, scholarships and loans. The fear of having large debts places (55)______ pressure
on students and many take part-time jobs during the term and work full-time in the vacations.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture – Oxford Advanced Learner‘s Compass)
46. A. producing B. carrying C. doing D. making
47. A. for B. with C. on D. at
48. A. highly B. mainly C. absolutely D. adequately
49. A. position B. state C. situation D. condition
50. A. paying B. paid C. pay D. to pay
51. A. whether B. what C. which D. who
52. A. money B. fees C. allowances D. charge
53. A. had better B. should C. may D. have to
54. A. include B. consist C. compose D. belong
55. A. large B. generous C. considerate D. considerable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined
part pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.
56. A. plain B. certain C. faithful D. attain
57. A. survived B. maintained C. started D. determined
58. A. documentary B. population C. stimulate D. maximum
Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in each group
59. A. impressive B. composition C. international D. competition
60. A. instrument B. inflation C. regional D. satellite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction .
61. In spite of the heavy rain, all we enjoyed the excursion.
A B C D
62. It‘s the first time I saw this film.
A B C D
63. The children wish that they have more free time to play football.
A B C D
64. Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A B C D
65. Wood is an excellent resource for heating homes, cooking food, and build houses.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
66. I have never used a more fascinating MP3 player than this one.
A. This is the most fascinating MP3 player I have ever used.
B. Like the other MP3 players, this one is fascinating to me.
C. This MP3 player does not fascinate me much.
D. I am very fascinated by the MP3 player I am using.
67. Barbara didn't wear the raincoat, so she got wet.
A. If Barbara had worn the raincoat, she wouldn't get wet.
B. If Barbara hadn't got wet, she would have worn the raincoat.
C. If Barbara had worn the raincoat, she wouldn't have got wet.
D. If Barbara wore the raincoat, she wouldn't get wet.
68. The question was so difficult that no one could answer it.
A. The question was so difficult for anyone to answer.
B. It was such a difficult question that no one could answer it.
C. The question was too difficult for no one to answer.
D. The question wasn't easy enough for no one to answer
69. I think it is more enjoyable to play a sport than to watch it on TV.
A. In my view, playing a sport is as enjoyable as watching it on TV.
B. As far as I know, more people watch a sport on TV than they play it.
C. In my opinion, to play a sport is more enjoyable than to watch it on TV.
D. I think watching a sport on TV is more enjoyable than playing it.
70. ―May I see your passport, Mrs Scott?‖ said the customs officer.
A. The customs officer asked to see Mrs Scott‘s passport.
B. The customs officer suggested seeing Mrs Scott‘s passport.
C. The customs officer asked Mrs Scott to see his passport.
D. The customs officer promised to show Mrs Scott his passport.
Read the following passage on climate change, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the changes to our
climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our planet before. For
example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they occurred gradually and,
as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to be the result not of natural
causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid. The major
problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts, this warming process,
known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The implications
for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological disasters as
extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts. These in turn could have a harmful
effect on agriculture. It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called
greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and modern
industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but also
create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the
planet. Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on the
subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world's industrialized countries. Of these
summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that the most
industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets
for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb greenhouse
gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate changes are often still
being regarded as scaremongering.
(From Read and Understand 2 by Betty Kirkpatrick & Rebecca Mok - Learners Publishing Pte Ltd 2005)
71. According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ from the modern
ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time.
B. They were fully monitored by humans.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were partly intended.
72. The word ―alarmingly‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disapprovingly B. worryingly C. surprisingly D. disappointingly
73. According to the passage, agriculture could ______.
A. give rise to many ecological disasters
B. make the global warming more serious
C. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
74. Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ______.
A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
75. According to the passage, 1997 witnessed ______.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialised countries
C. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
D. widespread concern about climate change
76. It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for global warming
are ______.
A. developed countries B. the most industrialised countries
C. countries with the warmest climate D. developing countries
77. The word ―There‖ in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. regular summits on climate change B. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
C. the world‘s industrialised countries D. the most industrialised countries
78. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
B. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
D. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
79. The word ―drastic‖ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. severe B. hard C. obvious D. widespread
80. What is probably the writer‘s attitude toward global warming?
A. Optimistic B. Neutral C. Positive D. Pessimistic
The end
KEY TO PRACTICE 8

1 A 21 D 41 C 61 C
2 C 22 D 42 A 62 C
3 C 23 A 43 D 63 B
4 A 24 C 44 D 64 A
5 B 25 A 45 B 65 D
6 C 26 D 46 C 66 A
7 C 27 D 47 C 67 C
8 A 28 D 48 A 68 B
9 B 29 D 49 C 69 C
10 A 30 A 50 B 70 A
11 D 31 D 51 C 71 A
12 D 32 B 52 B 72 B
13 A 33 B 53 D 73 C
14 B 34 A 54 A 74 B
15 A 35 D 55 C 75 C
16 B 36 D 56 B 76 B
17 D 37 A 57 C 77 B
18 D 38 A 58 D 78 C
19 B 39 B 59 A 79 A
20 A 40 D 60 B 80 D
PRACTICE TEST 9
Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence or has the closest meaning
Question 1: I was angry when you saw me because I________ with my sister.
Have been arguing B. Argued C. had been arguing D. would argue
Question 2: Frankly, I‘d rather you________ anything about it for the time being.
Don‘t do B. hadn‘t do C. didn‘t do D. haven‘t done
Question 3: Luckily, I________ a new a pair of sunglasses as I found mine at the bottom of a bag.
Needn‘t have bought B. needed not to buy C. didn‘t need to buy D. hadn‘t to buy
Question 4: She has just bought ____________.
A. an old interesting painting French B. a French interesting old painting
C. a French old interesting painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 5: The letter to the Prime Minister needs________.
Rewording B. to reword C. reword D. be reworded
Question 6: The speed of light is_______the speed of sound.
A. faster B. much faster than C. the fastest D. as fast
Question 7: An earlier typewriter produced letters quickly and neatly, the typist,_______ couldn‘t see his
work on this machine.
Therefore B. however C. yet D. although
Question 8: Not until late 1960s ____________on the Moon.
A. did Americans walk B. Americans walked
C. when Americans walked D. when did Americans walked
Question 9: She couldn't decide ____________to dive ____________ jump into water.
A. both/ or B. not only/ but also C. neither/ or D. whether/ or
Question 10: ____________ he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. If B. That C. Unless D. What
Question 11: Many lists of ―Wonders of the World‖ ___________ during the Middle Ages.
A. are said to have existed B. said to be existed C. are said to existing D. said to exist
Question 12: The book would have been perfect_________ the ending.
Had it not been for B. It hadn‘t been for C. it had not been for D. hadn‘t it been for
Question 13: I heard that your father runs an_______ company.
industrial B. industrialized C. industry D. industrious
Question 14: Do you think English is a________ easy language to learn?
Comparable B. comparably C. comparative D. comparatively
Question 15: Nowadays it is not easy to find a________ job.
good-pay B. well-paid C. good-paid D. well-pay
Question 16: The judge _______the truck driver for the accident.
charged B. sued C. accused D. blamed
Question 17: When he realized the police had spotted him, the man _______ the exit as quickly as possible.
A. made for B. made up C. made out D. made off
Question 18:: ________ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would
improve.
A. In the end B. On the top C. At the height D. At the bottom
Question 19: The new manager laid down very strict rules as soon as he had ____________ the position.
A. taken up B. taken over C. taken off D. come over
Question 20: It is difficult to ___________ identical twins ___________.
A. speak/ over B. speak/ out C. tell/ apart D. tell/ on
Question 21: "Would you like to order now?" -"____________. "
A. Yes, a table for five B. Yes, not now C. Yes, I like beef salad D. It's excellent
Question 22: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" -"____________. "
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
Question 23: ―I‘m sorry to be so difficult‖. – ―______________‖
A. Yes, you‘re OK B. That‘s quite alright C. Thank you very much D. No, thank you
Question 24: ―Enjoy your weekend, John. ‖ – ―_________, Jane. ‖
A. Yes B. You too C. Me too D. you do
Question 25: ―Thank you for your valuable assistance. ‖ – ―______________‖
A. It‘s my pleasure B. Nice meeting you C. It‘s quite OK D. No
mentioning it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 26: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. explain B. complain C. exchange D. arrange
Question 27: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. symptoms B. effects C. demonstrations D. hints
Question 28: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect
them.
A. at ease B. in advance C. on purpose D. at stake
Question 29: As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.
A. secretly B. overseas C. widely D. alone
Question 30: My mom is always bad-tempered when I leave my room untidy.
A. easily annoyed or irritated B. very happy and satisfied
C. talking too much D. feeling embarrassed
Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each group
Question 31: A. proficiency B. importance C. afternoon D. Canadian
Question 32: A. return B. subscribe C. student D. attend
Question 33: A. economy B. phonetics C. geometry D. politics
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
Question 34: A. experiment B. precious C. respect D. definitely
Question 35: A. language B. attraction C. aviation D. applicant
Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. In May, 1966,
the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations was authorized to initiate a global
campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one decade. At the time, the
disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations. Because similar projects for malaria and
yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the
initial organization of the campaign no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with active
smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission.
Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one each
smallpox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire
village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.
By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of the disease but
health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be completely sure. In May, 1980,
a formal statement was made to the global community. Today, smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity.
Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Infectious Disease B. The World Health Organization
C. Smallpox Vaccination D. The Eradication of smallpox
Question 37: The word “ threat”" in bold in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by________..
A. humiliation B. danger C. debate D. bother
Question 38: What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox?
A. to eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years.
B. to decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide.
C. to provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide.
D. to initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time
Question 39: According to the passage, what was the strategy used to eliminate the smallpox?
A. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations. B. Vaccinations of entire villages.
C. Treatment of individual victims. D. Extensive reporting of outbreak.
Question 40: The word “isolated” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______
A. separated B. attended C. restored D. located
Question 41: How was the public motivated to help the health workers?
A. by rewarding them for reporting cases B. by isolating them from others
C. by educating them D. by giving them vaccinations
Question 42: The word „they” in bold in the last paragraph refers to ______
A. cases B. health workers C. victims D. officials
Question 43: Which statement does not refer to smallpox ?
A. The WHO mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease. B. Previous projects had failed.
C. People are no longer vaccinated for it. D. It was serious threat.
Question 44: It can be inferred that ________.
A. small victims no long die when they contract the disease
B. no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
C. malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated
D. smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another
Question 45: When was the former announcement made that smallpox had been eradicated ?
A. 1978 B. 1966 C. 1980 D. 1976
In 776 B. C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greek‘s chief
god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle
caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later
the games were opened to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized
physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, javelin
throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed
every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on their
heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as games of friendship
and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen
bonds among competitors and the different cities presented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles
called ―Olympiads‖, dating from 776 B. C. The contest coincided with religious festivities and constituted
an all-out effort on the part of participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed
and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the cities they
represented.
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
B. The games were held in Greek every four years.
C. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
D. Poems glorified the winners in songs.
Question 47: The word ―elite‖ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. brave B. intellectual C. aristocracy D. muscular
Question 48: Why were the Olympic Games held?
A. To stop wars. B. To honor Zeus.
C. To crown the best athletes. D. To sing songs about the athletes.
Question 49: Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?
A. 800 years. B. 2,300 years. C. 1,200 years. D. 2,800 years.
Question 50: What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks?
A. They were very simple.
B. They couldn‘t count so they used ―Olympiads‖ for dates.
C. They believed athletic events were important.
D. They were pacifists.
Question 51: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The Greeks severely punished those who didn‘t participate in physical fitness programs.
B. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war when the
games were over.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
D. Physical fitness was an integral part of the life of ancient Greeks.
Question 52: The word ―deeds‖ is closest in meaning to _________.
A. documents B. accomplishments C. ancestors D. properties
Question 53: Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the Olympics?
A. They had to be very religious. B. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record.
C. They must have completed military service. D. They had to attend special training sessions.
Question 54: The word ―halted‖ means mostly nearly the same as ________.
A. fixed B. started C. curtailed D. encouraged
Question 55: What is an ―Olympiad‖?
A. The time between games. B. The time it took to finish a war.
C. The time it took the athletes to train. D. The time it took to finish the games.
Choose the best answer for each blank in the passage
Earth Day is on April 22nd every year. Earth Day is a day to (56) …………to take care of our planet, Earth.
We can take care of our planet by keeping it clean. We can keep Earth clean by (57) ………….. the rule of
"reduce, reuse, recycle". Reduce means use (58)………... We can reduce our use of resources like water or
gasoline. Reuse means use again, rather than (59)………….. things away. We can reuse many things, such
as jars, plastic bags, and boxes. Recycle means make something (60) ………….. from something old. We
can keep Earth clean by recycling materials such as aluminum, paper, and plastic. If we (61) …………..
these materials to a recycling center, they can be used again in a(n) (62)………… way. On Earth Day, we
remind (63)……….. and everyone on Earth that we must do these things. We must do these things every
day, not just on Earth Day. We (64)……….. all do our part, and we can make a (65)……….. On April
2200, remind everyone you know that Earth Day is every day!
Question 56: A. miss B. remember C. imagine D. memorize

Question 57: A. following B. saying C. understanding D. breaking
Question 58: A. least B. most C. more D. less
Question 59: A. discard B. blow C. throw D. get
Question 60: A. beautiful B. new C. fashionable D. complete
Question 61: A. leave B. throw C. take D. move
Question 62: A. different B. difficult C. immediate D. quick
Question 63: A. us B. ourselves C. ourself D. ours
Question 64: A. ought B. may C. might D. must
Question 65: A. day B. world C. difference D. heart
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original one
Question 66: She asked Janet to repeat what she had said.
A. ―Please repeat what you said, Janet. ‖, she said B. ―Will you please repeat what Janet said?‖, she asked.
C. ―Please repeat what Janet had said. ‖, she asked. D. ―Please repeat what you say, Janet. ‖, she said.
Question 67: Jenny denied breaking the window.
A. Jenny was determined not to break the window. B. Jenny refused to break the window.
C. Jenny didn‘t break the window. D. Jenny said that she hadn‘t broken the window.
Question 68: I hardly know the truth about Jean‘s success in the institute.
A. Jean‘s success in the institute was not to be known.
B. It is difficult for Jean to be successful in the institute.
C. I do not know much about Jean‘s success in the institute.
D. Jean hardly become known and successful in the institute.
Question 69: After Louie had written his composition, he handed it to his teacher.
A. Handed the composition to his teacher, Louie wrote it.
B. Handing the composition, Louie had written his composition.
C. Writing the composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
D. Having written his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
Question 70: It is certain that the suspect committed the crime.
A. The suspect might have committed the crime.
B. The suspect must have committed the crime.
C. Certain commitment of the crime was that of the suspect.
D. The suspect was certain to commit the crime.
Question 71: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous. B. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast and was very dangerous. D. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
Question 72: People believed that the boys started the fire.
A. It is believed that the boys started the fire. B. The boys were believed to have started the fire.
C. That the boys started the fire was believed. D. It is believed that the fire was started by the boys.
Question 73: I had no problems at all during my trip to France.
A. My trip to France was not at all went as planned.
B. No problems were there during my trip to Franc eat all.
C. Everything went according to plan during my trip to France.
D. No problems during my trip had I at all in France.
Question 74: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 75: She heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her mother‘s death, she fainted.
B. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.
C. She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother.
D. On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted.
From the four underlined words or phrases (A, B, C, D), identify the one that is not correct
Question 76: The Spanish introduced not only horses and also cattle to the North American continent.
A B C D
Question 77: After writing it, the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed in to the
A B C
department secretary before the end of the month.
D
Question 78: Could you tell me how can I get to the arts gallery, please?
A B C D
Question 79: Before the invention of the printing press, books have been all printed by hand.
A B C D
Question 80: There were too many books on the shelves that I did not know which one to choose.
A B C D
---------- THE END ---------
ANSWER KEY
D D D D C
C C C C D
A A C D D
D C D B C
A A B B D
B A A C B
B B A A D
A B A B B
D A A A C
B A D D C
A D B C A
A D B B B
A B C C A
D A C A C
B C C B C
D C B D B
PRACTICE TEST 10
Choose the best answer.
Question 1. Two players __ off the field during last Sunday match.
a. were being sent b. were sent c. were sending d. had been sent
Question 2. Don‘t __ to conclusion; we don‘t yet know all the relevant facts.
a. run b. rush c. jump d. hurry
Question 3. ―Would you like me to get you a taxi?‖ ―___. ‖
a. That would be delightful. Thanks. b. Well, let‘s see
c. Yes, please, if it‘s no bother. d. Yes, I see.
Question 4. James: ―What‘s the matter?‖
Anne: ―___‖
a. Nothing. b. Not at all. c. That‘s all right. d. It‘s no trouble.
Question 5. Psychologists have found that the number of social contacts we have__ only reason for
loneliness
a. are not the b. is not the c. are not an d. is not an
Question 6. __ pack can have as big an impact on your holiday as your destination.
a. How do you b. How you c. However you d. How did you
Question 7. It is often said that knowledge is the __ power, and I can not disagree with this.
a. way to b. key to c. success of d. aim at
Question 8. __ the young woman was visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
a. Despite tired b. Though tired c. Tired although she was d. She was tired
Question 9. Jim‘s father agreed to buy him a new bike __ he took lessons.
a. in case b. supposing that c. as long as d. unless
Question 10. __ of the two restaurants provides facilities for the handicapped.
a. Both b. Neither c. None d. Not either
Question 11. Tom __ things round the house, which is annoying.
a. always leaves b. has always left c. Is always leaving d. is leaving
Question 12. __ had he finished his dinner when he realized he had forgotten his wallet.
a. No sooner b. Not until c. No longer d. Scarcely
Question 13. Only three of the students in my class are girls; __ are all boys.
a. others b. other students c. the others d. the other
Question 14. Laurence was born in Australia, but she has spent __ of her life there.
a. a little b. very little c. only a few d. a few
Question 15. You may find doing this job very __. Try it!
a. relaxed b. relaxing c. relax d. relaxation
Question 16. The concert didn‘t come__ our expectations.
a. up against b. up with c. up to d. round
Question 17. Any opposition to the rules is __.
a. tolerable b. tolerant c. intolerable d. intolerant
Question 18. So difficult __ it to live in an English- speaking country that I was determined to learn
English well.
a. I felt b. did I feel c. I did feel d. I felt
Question 19. Please move the chairs __ the aisle. They‘re __ my way.
a. out of – in b. under – of c. from – of d. away from – on
Question 20. __ you feel thirsty, please help yourself to the drinks over there.
a. Do b. Shall c. Should d. Would
Question 21. ―Sorry, I‘m late, Mike. ‖ - ―___‖
a. Well, it‘s worth a try. b. Not on my account. c. No, I wouldn‘t mind it at all. d. That‘s all right.
Question 22. It‘s too late now that the holiday‘s over, but I wish we __ somewhere else.
a. went b. have gone c. were going d. had gone
Question 23. After visiting several areas, he realized that __ hunger was not __ only problem in that
country.
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a. the – the b. the – a c. x – the d. x – x

Question 24. I would advise you __ this young man despite his charming manner.
a. to trust b. not trust c. not to trust d. don‘t trust
Question 25. As far as I know, as a student of English you must study regularly. The more you review__
a. the more meaningful the content will be b. the more the content will be meaningful
c. the content will be meaningful d. the more meaning will be the content
Find the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 26. The photochemical reactions transform the light into electrical impulses.
a. conserve b. conflict c. converse d. convert
Question 27. You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day.
a. at most b. at all c. at least d. at ease
Question 28. He seems to make the same mistake over and over again.
a. for good b. in vain c. by the way d. repeatedly
Find the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. Nancy concurred with her boss about the new direction the company was taking.
a. disagreed b. agreed c. surrendered d. confessed
Question 30. "We strongly believe that he's innocent of the crime. We do not think that he did it. "
a. clean b. guilty c. faultless d. crimeless
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 31. a. hope b. stop c. slope d. cope
Question 32. a. conserve b. preserve c. reserve d. observe
Question 33. a. associate b. section c. can d. clean
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
Question 34. a. tremendous b. enormous c. serious d. describe
Question 35. a. technique b. absolute c. requirement d. accomplish
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
Question 36. The effects of wind and water in rock surfaces can often cause erosion.
a b c d
Question 37. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group
a b c d
Question 38. In order to do a profit the new leisure centre needs at least 2,000 visitors a month
a b c d
Question 39. The police have been looking for a man of medium high for three days.
a b c d
Question 40. Some people prefer classical music, because others prefer rock music.
a b c d
Read the passage and then decide which word (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, but do you know what an ―intranet‖ is? It is this: just as the
Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (41) __ company. In fact,
intranets make use of the same software programs as the Internet to (42) __ computers and people. This
(43) __ that you do not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your
intranets is working properly, it can link together a huge amount of (44) __which is stored in different
places in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless (45) __ where it
comes from. A company intranet can, of course, be used for unimportant information like office memos
and canteen menus. But an intranet should (46) __ important information which people need to make
decision about new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (47) __ to share their information with other
people. (48) __, many departments don‘t want to share their specialists knowledge with others. Another
problem which often occurs is (49) __ top managers like to use the intranet to ―communicate down‖ rather
than to ―communicate across‖. That is, they use the intranet to give orders, not to (50) __ information
between themselves and others working in the same organization.
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Question 41. a. large b. jointed c. single d. branch

Question 42. a. contact b. introduce c. distinguish d. compare
Question 43. a. is b. is said c. indicates d. means
Question 44. a. parts b. information c. elements d. properties
Question 45. a. on b. with c. of d. to
Question 46. a. bring b. provide c. give d. take
Question 47. a. likely b. willing c. going d. happened
Question 48. a. Luckily b. Consequently c. Therefore d. Unfortunately
Question 49. a. that b. which c. what d. it
Question 50. a. change b. exchange c. transform d. transit
Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage.
According to the best evidence gathered by space probes and astronomers, Mars is an inhospitable
planet, more similar to Earth‘s Moon than to Earth itself – a dry, stark, seemingly lifeless world. Mars‘air
pressure is equal to Earth‘s at an altitude of 100,000 feet. The air there is 95 percent carbon dioxide.
Mars has no ozone layer to screen out the sun‘s lethal radiation. Daytime temperatures may reach above
freezing, but because the planet is blanketed by the mere wisp of an atmosphere, the heat radiates back
into space. Even at the equato, the temperature drops to -50C (-60F) at night. Today there is no liquid
water, although valleys and channels on the surface show evidence of having been carved by running
water. The polar ice caps are made of frozen water and carbon dioxide, and water may be frozen in the
ground as permafrost.
Despite these difficult conditions, certain scientists believe that there is a possibility of transforming
Mars into a more Earth-like planet. Nuclear reactors might be used to melt frozen gases and eventually
build up the atmosphere. This in turn could create a ―greenhouse effect‖ that would stop heat from
radiating back into space. Liquid water could be thawed to form a polar ocean. Once enough ice has
melted, suitable plants could be introduced to build up the level of oxygen in the atmosphere so that, in
time, the planet would support animal life from Earth and even permanent human colonies. ―This was
once thought to be so far in the future as to be irrelevant,‖ said Christopher McKay, a reseach scientist at
NASA. ―But now it‘s starting to look practical. We could begin work in four or five decades. ‖
The idea of ―terra-forming‖ Mars, as enthusiasts call it, has its roots in science fiction. But as reseachers
develop a more profound understanding of how Earth‘s ecology supports life, they have begun to see how
it may be possible to create similar conditions on Mars. Don‘t plan on homesteading on Mars any time
soon, though. The process could take hundreds or even thousands of years to complete and the cost would
be staggering.
Question 51. With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
a. The possibility of changing the Martian environment.
b. The challenge of interplanetary travel.
c. The advantages of establishing colonies on Mars.
d. The need to study the Martian ecology.
Question 52. The word ―stark‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
a. harsh b. unknown c. dark d. distant
Question 53. The word ―there‖ in paragraph 2 refers to
a. a point 100 miles above the Earth b. the Earth‘s Moon
c. Mars d. outer space
Question 54. Which of the following does the author NOT list as a characteristic of the planet Mars that
would make colonization difficult?
a. The is little liquid water. b. Daytime temperatures are dangerously high.
c. The sun‘s rays are deadly. d. Night time temperatures are extremely low.
Question 55. According to the passage, the Martian atmosphere today consists mainly of
a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. ozone d. water vapour
Question 56. It can be inferred from the passage that the ―greenhouse effect‖ mentioned in paragraph 3 is
a. the direct result of nuclear reactions b. the cause of low temperatures on Mars.
c. caused by the introduction of green plants. d. a possible means of warming Mars.
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Question 57. The word ―suitable‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

a. resistant b. altered c. appropriate d. native.
Question 58. According to Christopher McKay, the possibility of transforming Mars
a. could only occur in science fiction stories. b. is completely impractical.
c. will not begin for hundreds, even thousands of years. d. could be started in forty to fifty years
Question 59. The phrase ―more profound‖ in paragraph 4 is closed in meaning to
a. deeper b. more practical c. brighter d. more up-to-date
Question 60. According to the article, the basic knowledge needed to transform Mars comes from
a. the science of astronomy b. a knowledge of Earth‘s ecology
c. data from space probes d. science fiction stories
Green land is the largest island in the world. It covers more than two million square kilometers.
Imagine that a map of Greenland is on top of a map of Europe and Africa. Greenland would stretch from
London to the middle of the Sahara Desert. Most of the island lies in the Artic Circle, and a huge sheet of
ice covers 85 percent of it.
The ice sheet is more than 1,500 meters thick, and it never melts. Probably only rock lies under this
ice, but no one knows for sure. Along the coast, mountains rise from the sea. Huge pieces of ice, called
glaciers, float in the sea between the mountains. Some of them are as tall as ten – storey buildings.
Because Greenland is so cold, it is not very green. There are a few low trees in the southwest, but no
real forests. In the winter, snow covers everything. In the summer, very low plants cover the ground
between the sea and the ice sheet.
The first people to live in Greenland were probably Eskimos who came from Canada anout 3,000 years
ago. Norwegian Vikings were the first Europeans to see the island. They came in 875, but they did not
build towns and live there until 982. At the same time. Another group of Eskimos came to Greenland from
Alaska. In 1261, the people in Greenland decided to join the country of Norway. Then, in 1380, Norway
united with Denmark. This union ended in 1814, and Greenland stayed with Denmark. Today this huge
island is part of the kingdom of Denmark. Greenland is about fifty times as large as Denmark, but
Denmark has about ninety times as many people.
About 62,000 people live in Greenland. Most of them are part Eskimo and part Danish. They call
themselves Greelanders and speak Greenlandic language (which has many Danish words). Almost all of
them live in towns and villages along the southwestern coast because that is the wamest part of the island.
Life in Green land is difficult because the weather is very cold. Temperatures average -29. 5 degrees
Celsius in January, -10 degrees Celsius in July. It is dark 24 hours a day in the winter, but in the summer
the Sun shines all day and night. This is the time of the midnight Sun.
The island has very few natural resources. The people raise a few kinds of vegetables and sheep. The
most important industry is fishing. In southwest Greenland there are many fish staions and processing
plants where fish are cleaned, dried, salted, or frozen. Much of the processing fish is exported to other
countries.
Life in Greenland is changing fast. For ceturies, people there had no communication with the rest of
the world. They had very traditional lives. Today Greenland is much more modern. Many changes are
taking place, and some of them difficult for the Greenlanders. It is not easy to move from a traditional life
to a mordern life.
Today Greenland is important to the world because scientists study the weather there. They can tell
when storms are developing over the North Atlantic Ocean. This weather information is important
because the North Atlantic is a busy shipping area. Greenland welcomes scientists from many countries of
the world. Together these scientists are making important discoveries about how the weather on our planet
is changing. Because of the work that scientists do in Greenland, people all over the world are learning
more about the weather and the environment.
Question 61. Most of Greenland lies in…
a. north of the Arctic Circle b. Europe c. Denmark d. the Sahara Desert.
Question 62. The huge ice sheet covers……..
a. almost all of the area of Greenland b. more than two- thirds of Greenland
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c. from London to the northern part of the Sahara Desert. d. Approximately 1. 7 million square kilometers
Question 63. The ice sheet……….
a. melts in the summer b. is three kilometers thick
c. is always there d. has a few green plants under it
Question 64. What is the population of Denmark?
a. 6. 2 million
b. About 5. 6 million
c. It is fifty times the population of Greenland
d. Denmark has fifty times as many people as Norway does
Question 65. When did the Norwegian Vikings first settle in Greenland?
a. In the ninth century.
b. In the tenth century
c. In 1261, when Greenland joined the country of Norway.
d. 3000 years ago.
Question 66. Greenland ……….
a. is flat b. has warm winter
c. is rich in natural resources d. has mountain near the sea.
Question 67. the first people to live in Greenland were….
a. Danes b. Norwegians c. Eskimos d. scientists
Question 68. When the union of Norway and Denmark ended, Greenland ………….
a. joined the country of Norway. b. choose to stay with the kingdom of Denmark
c. united with the Vikings d. became independent.
Question 69. Greenland is important to the world because ……..
a. scientists study the weather there b. a huge sheet of ice covers it
c. it is part if of Denmark d. It has many trees and natural resources
Question 70. Which of the following is true of the people of Greenland?
a. All of them are in favor of a more modern Greenland.
b. They still don‘t have much communication with the rest of the world.
c. All of them resist the changes that are taking place there.
d. Some of them find it difficult to adapt to mordern life
Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one.
Question 71. An aspirin may help you feel better.
a. Try to take an aspirin; it may help you feel better.
b. Try taking an aspirin; you‘ll feel better.
c. You will feel better after you take an aspirin.
d. You should try an aspirin when you feel better.
Question72. Tom couldn‟t say a word as he was so shocked at what he heard.
a. Tom who was so shocked at what he heard couldn‘t say a word.
b. Tom was so shocked at what he heard to say a word.
c. Tom so shocked at what he heard couldn‘t say a word.
d. So shocked at what he heard, Tom couldn‘t say a word.
Question 73. Paul fell ill, so he didn‟t attend the conference.
a. Paul was supposed to have gone to the conference, but he fell ill.
b. Although Paul fell ill, he didn‘t attend the conference.
c. Because of he was ill, Paul didn‘t attend the conference.
d. Paul didn‘t attend the conference as a result of his ill.
Question 74. The news surprised everyone in the family.
a. Everyone was surprised by the news in the family.
b. The news made everyone surprised in the family.
c. The news made everyone in the family surprise.
d. Everyone in the family found the news surprising.
Question 75. "You stole my best cassette, Bob!" said Willy.
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a. Willy accused Bob for having stolen his best cassette.

b. Willy accused Bob of having stolen his best cassette.
c. Willy accused Bob on having stolen his best cassette.
d. Willy accused Bob to have stolen his best cassette.
Choose A,B,C or D to complete the sentence.
Question 76 _____________ did Jane accept the job.
a. Only because it was interesting work b. The work was interesting
c. Only because it was interested work d. Because it was interesting work
Question 77 Harry would certainly have attended the proceedings _________.
a. if he didn‘t get a flat tyre b. had he not had a flat tyre
c. had the tyre not flattened itself d. if the flat tyre didn‘t happen
Question 78. We‘d better start early _____.
a. in case there is less traffic b. so that there is a lot of traffic.
c. in order to avoid heavy traffic d. therefore there is less traffic
Question 79. _____ learn foreign language very fast.
a. It is young children who b. Young children that
c. It is young that people d. It is young age that
Question 80. _____, Sir Isaac Newton described the law of gravitation.
a. Was a seventeenth-century scientist b. Who was a seventeenth-century scientist
c. When was a seventeenth-century scientist d. A seventeenth-century scientist
THE END.
KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 10

1 B 21 D 41 C 61 A
2 C 22 D 42 A 62 D
3 C 23 C 43 D 63 C
4 A 24 C 44 B 64 B
5 B 25 A 45 C 65 A
6 B 26 D 46 B 66 D
7 B 27 C 47 B 67 C
8 B 28 D 48 D 68 B
9 C 29 A 49 A 69 A
10 B 30 B 50 B 70 D
11 D 31 B 51 A 71 B
12 D 32 A 52 A 72 D
13 C 33 A 53 C 73 A
14 B 34 C 54 B 74 D
15 B 35 B 55 A 75 B
16 C 36 B 56 D 76 A
17 C 37 B 57 C 77 B
18 B 38 A 58 D 78 C
19 A 39 C 59 A 79 A
20 C 40 C 60 B 80 D
PRACTICE TEST 11
1. a. firm b. term c. purpose d. familiar
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2. a. tongue b. young c. monkey d. tone

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3. a. justify b. enquiry c. argument d. medicine
4. a. particular b. distinction c. material d. specialize
5. a. innocent b. criminal c. reaction d. specialist
Choose the best answer.
6. __, which had been brought to Europe from China in the 15 th century, helped seamen to navigate.
a. The compass b. It is the compass c. With the compass d. That the compass
7. I __ my best suit ;everyone else was very casually dressed.
a. needn‘t wear b. needn‘t have worn c. mustn‘t wear d. mustn‘t have worn
8. Everyone thought he was asleep, but when they looked closely at him, he was __
a. widely awake b. wide-awake c. wide open d. full awake
9. Fossil fuels like coal, oil and gas produce carbon dioxide when __.
a. are burned b. they burned c. burned d. are they burned
10. Dinosaurs are thought to __ millions of years ago.
a. die out b. have died out c. having died out d. dying out
11. It costs about sixty dollars to have a tooth __.
a. filling b. to fill c. filled d. fill
12. The report would have been accepted __ in checking its accuracy.
a. if more care b. more care had been taken c. had more care been taken d. had taken more care
13. How do you speak the fraction 2/5?
a. two-five b. two-fifths c. second-fifths d. two-fifth
14. Experiments __ represent a giant step into the medicine of the future.
a. using gene therapy b. they use c. use gene therapy d. gene therapy uses
15. I met __ at Julia‘s birthday party.
a. some of Joe‘s friend b. some of Joe friends c. some friends of Joe d. some of Joe‘s friends
16. __ we drove the horses into the stable.
a. Aware that a tornado was brewing b. Because a tornado brewing
c. Although a tornado was brewing d. A tornado was brewing
17. __ single person can be said to have invented the automobile.
a. There was not a b. Nor a c. Not one of d. No
18. Tom had a lucky escape. He __ killed.
a. could have been b. must have been c. should have been d. had been
19. It was __ he had gone to bed that he remembered he had some homework to do.
a. not until b. only before c. until d. not after
20. I‘d rather you __ too much time surfing the Internet.
a. not spend b. not to spend c. didn‘t spend d. don‘t spend
21. Marie Curie was the first woman __ two Nobel prizes.
a. who awarded b. to be awarded c. awarding d. that was awarding
22. The house was __ badly damaged in the fire to be repaired.
a. very b. extremely c. so d. too
23. Tony pretended __ me when I waved to him.
a. not seeing b. not to see c. not see d. to not see
24. __ advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.
a. If he had b. Had he been c. Were he to be d. Unless he had been
25. By the time Sam got home from school, his brother __ all the cake.
a. had eaten b. has been eating c. was eating d. have eaten
26. I‘ve got an idea! I __ that tree trunk to make logs for the fire.
a. am going to use b. am using c. will use d. am used to
27. The manager asked his secretary to put all the contracts in different folders and order all the bills __ date.
a. to b. up c. by d. in
28. The boundary between Canada and the United States has been unfortified for over one hundred years.
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a. border b. bride c. diplomatic relation d. water

29. ―Is it very hot in summer here?‖ - ―______‖
a. Yes, we have high rainfall. b. Well, it‘s too late for the weather forecast.
c. I‘m sorry. I missed the weather forecast. d. Well, it depends on rainfall.
30. __ we‘ve been having.
a. What a dreadful weather b. What dreadful weather c. How dreadful is the weather d. How dreadful
the weather
31. ―Do you like rock music?‖ - ―______‖
a. Not quite so b. It‘s not quite well c. That‘s understandable d. I am not interested in them
32. __ water in this glass is not good.
a. An b. A c. __ d. The
33. It is imperative that they arrive on time for the lecture.
a. necessary b. suggested c. hoped d. intended
34. Don‘t make up your mind at once; __ it over with your lawyer first.
a. discuss b. debate c. argue d. talk
35. I don‘t like the look of the men __ around outside my gate.
a. going b. hanging c. wandering d. running
Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting.
36. Among the world‘s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
a b c d
37. All data in computer are changed into electronic pulses by an input unit.
a b c d
38. Despite of the pills which are available, many people still have trouble sleeping.
a b c d
39. The more I got to know Tom, the fewer I liked him.
a b c d
40. I was sad when I sold my car. I have been running it for a very long time.
a b c d
Choose the most suitable option to complete the passage.
Meeting old school friends again can be a strange experience. Some have changed so much that you can
hardly recognize them; they speak with a different (41) __, are interested in different things, and all you
can do is to make (42)__ talk and hope they‘ll go soon. Others, though you might have been out of (43)__
with them for years, are just the same as they always were – it‘s (44) __ if you last saw them yesterday.
Before you know it, you‘re exchanging (45) __ about your families and friends, and setting out the
(46)__ for another game of chess. A few change for the better. There‘s one person that I get (47)__ with
very well now, though we weren‘t on speaking (48)__ for out last two years at school. One day, we met at
a party and made it (49) __ and (50) __ engaged the same evening.
41. a. language b. accent c. way d. tongue
42. a. small b. little c. silly d. gossip
43. a. sight b. touch c. sound d. feel
44. a. just b. like c. so d. as
45. a. words b. speech c. talk d. gossip
46. a. counters b. draughts c. squares d. pieces
47. a. on b. off c. up d. down
48. a. relations b. terms c. situation d. condition
49. a. on b. off c. up d. down
50. a. came b. went c. got d. made
Lake Baikal, the world‘s largest lake, is located in southern Siberia, in Russia. It measures 395 miles of
coastline. The lake‘s rocky basin consists of three depressions, which hold a total volume of 14,656 cubic
miles of water, 20 percent of the freshwater in the world. The lake is also very deep, with its deepest point
at over 1 mile and an average depth of 2,066 feet. Furthermore, scientists have determined that Lake
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Baikal is the oldest lake in the world. From sediment obtained by drilling deep down below the lake,
researchers estimate it to be at least 25 million years old.
To scientists, Lake Baikal is of particular interest because of its unique and isolated ecosystem. More
than 1,000 species of plants and animals found at Lake Baikal exist nowhere else on earth and some can
be dated to prehistoric times. Among its unique fauna is the Baikal freshwater seal. This creature, which
local people call nerpa, is the only mammal which inhabits the lake. Researchers speculate that these
seals, which have been breeding at Lake Baikal for 22 million years, are the descendents of ocean-
dwelling seals which migrated inland in search of food, when the lake was still connected to the sea.
Another creature that is unique to this Siberian Lake is the omu, a fish, which is caught by local fisherman
and is considered a great delicacy.
For centuries, the water in Lake Baikal was so clear that it was possible to see down to depths of 40 to
60 feet. First, the lake contained certain small zooplankton and small crustaceans that consumed
waterweeds, bacteria, and other material that would otherwise cloud the water. Furthermore, the water in
the lake consisted of rainwater and melted snow that flowed down from a mountain range in about 300
streams and through uninhabited forest. Finally, most of the watershed has a rocky surface, so the water
flowing into the lake did not accumulate mud or organic matter and had little mineral or chemical content.
51. The word ―which‖ in line 2 of the first paragraph refers to __.
a. three depressions b. the lake c. the rocky basin d. the total water volume
52. All of the following is mentioned EXCEPT that __
a. Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world b. Lake Baikal is the deepest lake in the world
c. Lake Baikal is the world‘s largest lake d. Lake Baikal is located in Russia
53. All of the following are true about Lake Baikal EXCEPT that __
a. it is near the sea b. it has the biggest amount of freshwater in the world
c. it is about 25 million years old d. it has a great variety of fish
54. Scientists are particularly interested in Lake Baikal because __
a. its ecosystem is special b. it has more species of plants than anywhere else
c. it is isolated d. the animals there are similar to elsewhere
55. Baikal fresh seal is __
a. has been breeding at the lake for 32 million years b. a species of plant
c. the only habitants of the lake Baikal d. only found in the lake Baikal
56. Omu is mentioned in the passage as __.
a. descendents of ocean-dwelling seals b. an animal unique to the lake
c. an animal migrating inland from the sea d. a local fisherman
57. The water of the lake Baikal is __
a. transparent b. made of crystal c. toxic d. used to make crystal
58. According to the passage, there are __ factors contributing to the clarity of the water in Lake Baikal.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
59. The word cloud in the final paragraph can be best replaced by __
a. cold b. muddy c. clean d. dirty
60. The water in the lake is from all of the following EXCEPT __
a. rainwater b. snow c. streams d. forests
Choose from A, B, C or D which shows the best way of building the sentence from the words or phrases
given.
61. I / regret / inform / you / your application / be / refused.
a. I regret to inform you that your application has been refused.
b. I regret informing you that your application has been refused.
c. I regret to inform you that your application had been refused.
d. I regret to inform you that your application was refused.
62. He / wondered / teaching methods / vary / considerably / not.
a. He wondered teaching methods vary considerably or not.
b. He wondered whether teaching methods varies considerably or not.
c. He wondered whether teaching methods vary considerably not.
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d. He wondered whether teaching methods vary considerably or not.

63. I / advised / him / ask / bus conductor / tell / him / where / get off.
a. I advise him to ask a bus conductor to tell him where he gets off.
b. I advised him to ask bus conductor to tell him where he gets off.
c. I advised him to ask the bus conductor to tell him where to get off.
d. I advised him to ask the bus conductor to tell about him where to get off.
64. He / help / his friend / get / good marks / telling him / more careful.
a. He helps his friend to get good marks telling him more careful.
b. He helps his friend getting good marks telling him more careful.
c. He helps his friend get good marks by telling him more careful.
d. He helps his friend get good marks by telling him to be more careful.
65. Constant worries / his secret / be / reveal / take / heavy / toll / his health.
a. Constant worries about his secret being revealed have taken a heavy toll on his health.
b. Constant worries by his secret is revealed to taken a heavy toll on his health.
c. Constant worries about his secret to revealed to taken a heavy toll on his health.
d. Constant worries about his secret being revealed has taken a heavy toll on his health.
Choose the sentence that has the same meaning with the given one.
66. It was such a big meal that we couldn‟t finish it.
a. The meal was too very big for us to finish. bThe meal was too big for us to finish it.
c. The meal was too big for us to finish. d. The meal was such big that we couldn‘t finish it.
67. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test.
a. Only by keeping calm you can pass your driving test.
b. As long as you don‘t get nervous, you won‘t fail your driving test.
c. What you simply needn‘t do to pass your driving test is to keep calm.
d. Just remain nervous, or you‘ll pass your driving test.
68. They needn‟t have got up so early.
a. They did not have to get up early so they did not. b. They needed to get up very early.
c. They got up early because they had to. d. They didn‘t have to get up early but they did.
69. Nothing has ever embarrassed me this much.
a. I‘ve never been embarrassed before. b. I‘ve never been so embarrassed before.
c. Many things have embarrassed me this much. d. I have felt embarrassed this much many times.
70. I‟m sure it wasn‟t Mr Pike you saw because he is in London.
a. It couldn‘t be Mr Pike you saw because he is in London.
b. It can‘t have been Mr Pike you saw because he is in London.
c. It mustn‘t have been Mr Pike you saw because he is in London.
d. It mightn‘t be Mr Pike you saw because he is in London.
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is
very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective
and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to
higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as
a by-product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the
quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is,
therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the
hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal
danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and
respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general
increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of
these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound
has ceased.
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Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same
way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response
may be more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-
being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long
known that hearing loss is America‘s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are lear ning that
some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to
be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In
addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety
increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as
well as the way that we interact with each other.
71. Which of the following is the author‘s main point?
a. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
b. Loud noises signal danger.
c. Hearing loss is America‘s number one nonfatal health problem.
d. The ear is not like the eye.
72. According to the passage, what is noise?
a. Unwanted sound b. A by-product of technology
c. Physical and psychological harm d. Congestion
73. Why is noise difficult to measure?
a. It causes hearing loss b. All people do not respond to it in the same way
c. It is unwanted d. People become accustomed to it
74. The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
a. hazardous b. crowded c. rushed d. polluted
75. It can be inferred from the passage that the eye
a. responds to fear b. enjoys greater protection than the ear
c. increases functions d. is damaged by noise
76. According to the passage, people respond to loud noise in the same way that they respond to
a. annoyance b. disease c. danger d. damage
77. The word accelerate in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
a. decrease b. increase c. alter d. release
78. The word it in the first paragraph refers to
a. the noise b. the quality of life c. advancing technology d. a by-product
79. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?
a. Noise is not a serious problem today
b. Noise is America‘s number one problem
c. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society
d. Noise is a complex problem
80. The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
a. after all b. also c. instead d. regardless
The end.
KEY TO PRACTICE 11
1 D 21 B 41 B 61 A
2 D 22 D 42 A 62 D
3 B 23 B 43 B 63 C
4 D 24 B 44 D 64 D
5 C 25 A 45 A 65 A
6 A 26 C 46 D 66 C
7 B 27 C 47 A 67 B
8 B 28 A 48 B 68 D
9 C 29 D 49 C 69 B
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10 B 30 B 50 C 70 B
11 C 31 A 51 A 71 A
12 C 32 D 52 B 72 A
13 B 33 A 53 D 73 B
14 A 34 D 54 A 74 B
15 D 35 B 55 D 75 B
16 A 36 D 56 B 76 C
17 D 37 A 57 A 77 B
18 A 38 A 58 C 78 A
19 A 39 C 59 D 79 C
20 C 40 B 60 D 80 B
PRACTICE TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. sugar B. stumble C. cushion D. butcher
Question 2: A. war B. water C. warm D. bank
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. distribute B. infiltrate C. dehydrate D. persecute
Question 4: A. efficient B. attendance C. independence D. librarian
Question 5: A. economics B. consolidate C. economise D. imaginary
questions.
Question 6: It is advisable that _________ a career objective at the start of his/her resume.
A. every applicants write B. an applicant writes
C. an applicant must be writing D. every applicant write
Question 7: __________ with being so busy both at work and at home, she became increasingly tired and
bad-tempered.
A. How B. Which C. Where D. What
Question 8: _______ they are not fully booked up, we can stay at the campsite on the island.
A. Unless B. Providing C. In case D. Whether
Question 9: The collision occurred about two miles __________ the Spanish coast and the rescue
operation was mounted by helicopters of the Spanish coastguard.
A. out of B. off C. from D. of
Question 10: We need a meeting to clear _________ and get these issues down on paper.
A. the issues B. the air C. the earth D. the problem
Question 11: I suggest adopting Mark‘s proposal as it seems to be the _________ risky of the two.
A. least B. most C. less D. fewest
Question 12: The gangsters avoided arrest for several weeks because they __________ the state.
A. thought about leaving B. were thought to have left
C. were thinking to leave D. were thought to be leaving
Question 13: I always wear a seat-belt ________ I have an accident.
A. in case B. if C. unless D. when
Question 14: __________ the newspapers have revealed so far can justify the action taken by the army.
A. Nothing as B. Nothing what C. Nothing that D. Nothing of that
Question 15: The two trains collided with ________ loud a crash that it woke everyone in the station
hotel.
A. such B. very C. so D. too
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Question 16: I do wish Mr. Swan __________ so aggressive in discussions. Every time we have a
meeting, he tries to pick an argument with someone.
A. couldn‘t be B. isn‘t C. might not be D. weren‘t
Question 17: You'll become an alcoholic if you don't ___________.
A. watch off B. watch over C. watch on D. watch out
Question 18: He kept shifting awkwardly from one foot to _________.
A. others B. the other C. other D. the others
Question 19: __________, I was still able to get to the top of the mountain.
A. Unfit as I was B. Much as I‘m unfit
C. Even though unfit D. while ever out of condition
Question 20: By next week, they ___________ resurfacing the road.
A. will finish B. will have finished C. will be finishing D. are finishing
Question 21: Which shirt do you want? ~ I am not sure I can ___________ a choice. I like all of them.
A. do B. make C. get D. take
Question 22: The professor instructed the students __________ the essay without preparing an outline
first.
A. to no write B. not to write C. to not write D. do not write
Question 23: In Michigan, _________ over 600 feet deep.
A. salt deposits B. there are salt deposits
C. where salt deposits are D. having salt deposits
Question 24: Scientists are predicting that the volcano might erupt so people have been ___________
from the area.
A. evacuated B. emigrated C. exported D. escaped
Question 25: They are ____________ some fascinating research into the language of dolphins.
A. doing B. carrying C. solving D. making
Question 26: New evidence proving Evans was innocent was uncovered at the eleventh hour.
A. just in time B. too late
C. at eleven o‘clock D. at the eleventh hour of the day
Question 27: Now, for the time being, she is living with her father in Tijuana.
A. for the present B. in the near future C. up to now D. up to date
Question 28: She's always moaning. It really gets on my nerves.
A. stretches my nerves B. makes my nerve stressful
C. annoys me D. make me angry
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPOSITE in
Question 29: Thousands of years ago the surface was barren desert.
A. unleveled B. fertile C. marshy D. uncultivated
Question 30: The body was found hidden in dense undergrowth.
A. crowed B. transparent C. dark D. sparse
questions.
Question 31: ―Thank you for showing around the city. ‖ ~ ― ___________. ‖
A. Any time B. That‘s right C. No problem D. My excitement
Question 32: ―He is such a nice man. ‖ ~ ―__________. ‖
A. You are telling lie. B. Can you say that again
C. I can‘t agree with you more D. Total
Question 33: ―Andrew won‘t like it, you know. ‖ – ―_____________. I don‘t care what Andrew thinks. "
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A. So what? B. Come what may.

C. What is the damage? D. What‘s cooking?
Question 34: ―How about a trip to the beach?‖ _ ―_______________. ‖
A. Rather you than me C. Rather
B. I begin to see your true colours D. Long time no see
Question 35: ―Does he eat a lot?‖ _ ― _____________‖
A. Don‘t say boo. C. A bitter pill for him to swallow
B. I‘ll say. D. What‘s with you?
word or phrase for each of the blank.
COCOA MIGHT PREVENT MEMORY DECLINE
Drinking cocoa every day may help older people keep their brains healthy, research suggests. A study of
60 elderly people with no dementia found two cups of cocoa a day ___________ (36) blood flow to the
brain in those who had problems to start with. Those participants whose blood flow improved also did
better on memory tests at the end of the study, the journal Neurology reported. Experts said more research
was needed before conclusions could be _____________ (37). It is not the first time cocoa has been
linked with vascular health and researchers believe that this is in part __________ (38) its being rich in
flavanols, which are thought to have an important role. In the latest study, researchers asked 60 people
with an average age of 73 to drink two cups of cocoa a day - one group given high-flavanol cocoa and
another a low-flavanol cocoa - and consume no other chocolate.
Ultrasound tests at the start of the study showed 17 of them had impaired blood flow to the brain. There
was no difference between _________ (39) who drank flavanol-rich cocoa and those who had flavanol-
poor cocoa. But whichever drink they were given, 88% of those with impaired blood flow at the start of
the study saw improvements in blood flow and some _________ (40) tests, compared with 37% of people
whose blood flow was normal at the beginning of the study. MRI scans in 24 participants found that
people with impaired blood flow were also more likely to have tiny areas of brain ____________ (41).
The researchers said the lack of difference between the flavanol-rich and flavanol-poor cocoa could be
because another component of the drink was having an __________ (42) or because only small
__________ (43) were needed. Dr Simon Ridley, head of research at Alzheimer's Research UK, said this
was a small study but that it added to a wealth __________ (44) evidence. "A cocoa-based treatment
would likely be very popular, but it's too soon to draw any conclusions about its effects. One drawback of
this study is the lack of a control group for comparison, and we can't tell whether the results would have
been different if the participants drank no cocoa at all. ". But he added: "Poor vascular health is a known
risk factor for dementia, and understanding more about the links between vascular problems and declining
brain health could help the search for new treatments and _______ (45). "
Question 36: A. made B. improved C. rose D. supported

Question 37: A. drawn B. jumped C. leapt D. made
Question 38: A. however B. due to C. in spite of D. in addition to
Question 39: A. that B. the researchers C. those D. researchers
Question 40: A. understanding B. concern C. cognitive D. relating
Question 41: A. damage B. tissue C. activity D. function
Question 42: A. effects B. effect C. affects D. affect
Question 43: A. quantity B. quality C. amounts D. numbers
Question 44: A. of B. in C. on D. at
Question 45: A. protection B. defence C. cure D. prevention
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Read the following passage on commuting and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it became an
increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland. Market days saw
the crowded city even more crowded, as farmers from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought
their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High
Street Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front
street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next
year the Callowhill Market began operation. Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs
persisted in Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The
fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city.
Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items.
Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail merchants
opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were
less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as
increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became differentiated
from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in addition to general stores selling
a variety of goods.
One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally prospered was because the surrounding area was
undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth. They did their business, after all, in the
capital city of the province. Not only did they cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all
over the colony came to the capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and meetings of
the courts of justice.
Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Philadelphia's agriculture importance
B. Philadelphia's development as a marketing center
C. The administration of the city of Philadelphia
D. The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that new markets opened in Philadelphia because
______________.
A. existing markets were unable to serve the growing population.
B. farmers wanted markets that were closer to the farmers.
C. they provided more modern facilities than older markets.
D. the High Street Market was forced to close.
Question 48: The word "hinterland" is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. region B. association C. produce D. tradition
Question 49: The word "it" refers to __________.
A. a radius B. the period
C. the High Street Market D. the crowded city
Question 50: The word "persisted" is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. declined B. started C. returned D. continued
Question 51: According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held ___________.
A. as often as possible B. a couple of times a year
C. on the same day as market says D. whenever the government allowed it
Question 52: It can be inferred that the author mentions "Linens and stockings" to show that they were
items that ____________.
A. retail merchants were not willing to sell
B. were not available in the stores in Philadelphia
C. were more popular in Germantown than in Philadelphia
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D. could easily be transported

Question 53: The word "eradicate" is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. exploit B. organize C. operate D. eliminate
Question 54: What does the author mean by stating that "economic development was on the merchants'
side"?
A. Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence.
B. Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion.
C. Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful.
D. Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper.
Question 55: The word "undergoing" is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. requesting B. including C. experiencing D. repeating
Read the following passage on commuting and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Nineteenth-century writers in the United States, whether they wrote novels, short stories, poems, or plays,
were powerfully drawn to the railroad in its golden year. In fact, writers responded to the railroads as soon
as the first were built in the 1830's. By the 1850's, the railroad was a major presence in the life of the
nation. Writers such as Ralph Waldo Emerson and Henry David Thoreau saw the railroad both as a boon
to democracy and as an object of suspicion. The railroad could be and was a despoiler of nature;
furthermore, in its manifestation of speed and noise, it might be a despoiler of human nature as well. By
the 1850's and 1860's, there was a great distrust among writer and intellectuals of the rapid
industrialization of which the railroad was a leading force. Deeply philosophical historians such as Henry
Adams lamented the role that the new frenzy for business was playing in eroding traditional values. A
distrust of industry and business continued among writers throughout the rest of the nineteenth century
and into the twentieth.
For the most part, the literature in which the railroad plays an important role belong to popular culture
rather than to the realm of serious art. One thinks of melodramas, boys' books, thrillers, romances, and the
like rather than novels of the first rank. In the railroads' prime years, between 1890 and 1920, there were a
few individuals in the United States, most of them with solid railroading experience behind them, who
made a profession of writing about railroading-works offering the ambience of stations, yards, and
locomotive cabs. These writers, who can genuinely be said to have created a genre, the "railroad novel. "
are now mostly forgotten, their names having faded from memory. But anyone who takes the time to
consult their fertile writings will still find a treasure trove of information about the place of the railroad in
the lift of the United States.
Question 56: With which of the following topics is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The role of the railroad in the economy of the United States.
B. Major nineteenth-century writers.
C. The conflict between expanding industry and preserving nature.
D. The railroad as a subject for literature.
Question 57: The word "it" refers to ___________.
A. manifestation B. nature C. railroad D. speed
Question 58: In the first paragraph, the author implies that writers' reactions to the development of
railroads were ___________.
A. unchanging B. both positive and negative
C. highly enthusiastic D. disinterested
Question 59: The word "lamented" is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. analyzed B. complained about C. explained D. reflected on
Question 60: According to the passage, the railroad played a significant role in literature in all of the
following kinds of books EXCEPT ___________.
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A. romances B. important novels C. boys' books . thrillers

Question 61: The phrase "first rank" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. highest quality B. earliest writers
C. most difficult language D. largest category
Question 62: The word "them" refers to _____________.
A. novels B. individuals C. works D. years
Question 63: The author mentions all of the following as being true about the literature of railroads
EXCEPT that _____________.
A. quite a few of the books are still popular today.
B. the books were well known during the railroads' prime years.
C. many of the books were set in railroad stations and yards
D. many of its writers had experience working on railroads
Question 64: The words "faded from" are closest in meaning to ___________.
A. disappeared from B. grew in
C. remained in D. developed from
Question 65: What is the author's attitude toward the "railroad novels" and other books about railroads
written between 1890 and 1920?
A. They have as much literary importance as the books written by Emerson, Thoreau, and Adams.
B. They contributed to the weakening of traditional values.
C. They are good examples of the effects industry and business had on the literature of the United States.
D. They are worth reading as sources of knowledge about the impact of railroads on life in the United States.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 66: (A) Until the 1840s, (B) practically the only pioneers who had (C) ventured to the western
United States were trappers and (D) a little explorers.
Question 67: The progress (A) done in the (B) field of urban planning (C) over recent years has resulted
in a different view taken of (D) downtown areas.
Question 68: He impressed (A) the audience (B) by the (C) profound of his (D) knowledge.
Question 69: (A) Among Thomas Jefferson's many (B) accomplishment was (C) his work (D) to establish
the University of Virginia.
Question 70: (A) Sodium, usually a metal, and chlorine, usually a gas, (B) they react (C) to form the solid
sodium chloride, or (D) table salt.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the
following pairs of sentences in each of the questions.
Question 71: It was an interesting novel. I, therefore, stayed up all night to finish it.
A. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
B. Unless it was an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it.
C. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting.
D. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 72: How lucky! You called me, because I tried to call you a few minutes ago and got a busy
signal.
A. I was not lucky enough to call you a few minutes ago because I was busy.
B. The busy signal prevented me from calling you a few minutes ago, so please call me back.
C. You luckily called me, so I didn‘t have to call you for a few minutes because the signal was busy.
D. Luckily, you called me in time, for I failed to call you a few minutes ago.
Question 73: We stayed out all night. We wanted to watch a meteor storm.
A. We stayed out all night in order to watching a meteor storm.
B. We stayed out all night because we had been able to watch a meteor storm.
C. We stayed out all night in order for watching a meteor storm.
D. We stayed out all night so that we could watch a meteor storm.
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Question 74: They are my two sisters. They aren‟t teachers like me.
A. Like me, neither of my two sisters aren‘t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters both of those are teachers like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Question 75: Anne and Alex are very graceful dancers. Also, they have years of experience dancing
together.
A. Not only are Anne and Alex very graceful dancers but they also have years of experience dancing
together.
B. Not only Anne and Alex are very graceful dancers and they also have years of experience dancing
together.
C. Not only Anne and Alex are very graceful dancers but they also have years of experience dancing
together.
D. Not only are Anne and Alex very graceful dancers but they also have years of experience dancing
together as well.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 76: This supermarket sells products at prices suitable for people from all walks of life.
A. Those from the lower class, in particular, shop at this supermarket because of its reasonable prices.
B. Only those who can't afford the prices elsewhere prefer to shop at this supermarket.
C. The products sold at this supermarket are desired by people of all social classes.
D. People from any social class can afford the prices at this supermarket.
Question 77: As I didn‟t want to disappoint my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.
A. Not wanting to let down my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.
B. To my disappointment, my parents made me go to medical school.
C. My parents are no longer disappointed in me now that I have agreed to go to medical school.
D. If I didn‘t agree to go to medical school, my parents would be disappointed.
Question 78: Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
A. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
B. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we‘d do at night.
C. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
D. We chose to find a place for the night once the bad weather had really begun.
Question 79: It was a mistake for you to insult Mike.
A. You shouldn‘t have insulted Mike.
B. You couldn‘t have insulted Mike.
C. You wouldn‘t have insulted Mike.
D. You mightn‘t have insulted Mike.
Question 80: Of the people interviewed, all were in favour of the government‟s proposal.
A. Everyone who was interviewed thought that the government‘s proposal was a good idea.
B. Only the people who weren‘t interviewed were against the government‘s proposal.
C. No one was interviewed unless they thought the government‘s proposal was advantageous.
D. They only interviewed people who were positive about the government‘s proposal.
------- THE END ------
KEY TO PRACTICE 12

1 B 21 B 41 A 61 A
2 D 22 B 42 B 62 B
3 D 23 B 43 C 63 A
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4 C 24 A 44 A 64 A
5 A 25 A 45 D 65 D
6 D 26 A 46 B 66 D
7 D 27 A 47 A 67 A
8 B 28 C 48 A 68 C
9 B 29 B 49 C 69 B
10 B 30 D 50 D 70 B
11 C 31 C 51 B 71 A
12 B 32 C 52 B 72 D
13 A 33 A 53 D 73 D
14 C 34 C 54 D 74 B
15 C 35 B 55 C 75 A
16 D 36 B 56 D 76 D
17 D 37 A 57 C 77 A
18 B 38 B 58 B 78 D
19 A 39 C 59 B 79 A
20 B 40 C 60 B 80 A
PRACTICE TEST 13
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of others in each group.
Question 1: A. thumb B. supply C. fungus D. suppose
Question 2: A. own B. bone C. groan D. shone
Choose the word that has the main stress placed differently from that of the others.
Question 3: A. circumstances B. environment C. advertisement D. particular
Question 4: A. commitment B. museum C. position D. recommend
Question 5: A. electric B. contagious C. periodic D. suspicious
Choose the word or phrase -A, B, C or D- that best completes the sentence.
Question 6: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very _______.
A. kind-hearted B. open-minded
C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded
Question 7: Please cut my hair __________ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as B. the same long like
C. the same long as D. the same length like
Question 8: The temperature_____ takes place varies widely from material to material.
A. which melting and freezing B. at which melting and freezing
C. which they melt and freeze D. at which they melt and freeze
Question 9: Stop _________ about the bush, James! Just tell me exactly what the problem is.
A. hiding B. rushing C. beating D. moving
Question 10: We thought we might have trouble finding your house but it was ___________, thanks to
your directions.
A. a cake B. a piece of bread
C. a piece of chalk D. a piece of cake
Question 11: He‘s ___________ work and cannot possibly see you now.
A. very interested in B. concerned with
C. not involved with D. up to his ears in
Question 12: It suddenly _______ on me that he was deceiving me.
A. dawned B. struck C. occurred D. seemed
Question 13: Such ___________ the play that the theater is likely to be full every night.
A. is the popularity of B. is popular
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C. the popularity is D. popular is

Question 14: Good medicine ____________ to the mouth.
A. often tastes bitter B. often tastes bitterly
C. is often tastes bitter D. is often tastes bitterly
Question 15: It was with a ______ heart that she said goodbye to all her classmates.
A. heavy B. grim C. dismal D. solemn
Question 16: These are my ________ three children.
A. brother Tim B. brother is Tim C. brother Tim's D. Tim's brother
Question 17: We propose that he __________ early.
A. will start B. starts C. started D. start
Question 18: Neither of them will be treated preferentially,__________?
A. will they B. will them C. won‘t them D. won‘t they
Question 19: In bacteria and other organisms,_______.
A. it is the DNA that provides the genetic information
B. which is the DNA that provides the genes
C. the DNA providing the genetic information
D. the DNA that provides the genetic information
Question 20: By 2050, medical technology _________ many diseases.
A. will conquer B. is conquering
C. has conquered D. will have conquered
Question 21: In the United States ________ is the most concentrated is New Orleans.
A. French influence the city B. the city where French influence
C. where the city influences French D. where the city influences French
Question 22: Having read the passage three times, _______.
A. the main idea of it was not clear to me
B. it was difficult for me to understand
C. I still couldn‘t understand its main idea
D. it made me confused about its main idea
Question 23: Civil rights are the freedoms and rights ________________ as a member of a community,
state, or nation.
A. a person may have B. may have a person who
C. and a person may have D. may have a person
Question 24: Declared an endangered species in the United States, ___________.
A. gathering the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
B. people have gathered the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
C. the ginseng root has been gathered almost to the point of extinction
D. the near extinction of the ginseng root is due to excessive gathering
Question 25: Ancient mountains have worn away by rain, wind, and _______.
A. for agents of erosion B. to other agents of erosion
C. other agents of erosion D. with agents of erosion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
Question 26: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
A. not as childlike as before B. not as sympathetic as before
C. not as serious as before D. not as friendly as before
Question 27: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. wiped out B. run on C. set up D. taken over
Question 28: The wind was beginning to pick up and we decided to come back home.
A. become stronger B. blow
C. blow the leaves away D. become heavy
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
Question 29: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be confident B. be pessimistic C. be smart D. be optimistic
Question 30: My first impression of her was her impassive face
A. emotional B. fractious C. respectful D. solid
Choose the word or phrase -A, B, C or D- that best suitable for each of the following situation.
Question 31: "What do you think of football?" - "_________. "
A. I am crazy about it
B. It's none of my business
C. Well, it's beyond my expectation
D. Of course, football players are excellent
Question 32: ―I will write a letter for you. ‖ ―___________. ‖
A. Let me post it B. That will be fine
C. I haven‘t got it D. It hasn‘t come yet
Question 33: ―Be careful‖ ―__________. ‖
A. Thank you B. Yes, I am C. What a pity! D. I will
Question 34: ―Would you like a pizza?‖ ~ ―___________. ‖
No, I would like B. Yes, I‘m full.
C. I wouldn‘t say no D. I would say yes.
Question 35: ‗‗They left without us. ‘‘ ~ ‗__________. ‘
A. You‘re welcome B. Quite
C. You don‘t say C. Let‘s discuss about it
word or phrase for each of the blanks.
In an age when technology is developing faster than ever before, many people are being …. (36). …. to
the idea of looking back into the past. One way they can do this is by investigating their own family
history. They can try to find out more about where their family came from and what they did. This is now
a fast-growing hobby, especial in countries with a …. (37). …. short history, like Australia and the
United States.
It is one thing to spend some time …. (38). …. through a book on family history and to take the …. (39).
…. to investigate your own family‘s past. It is …. (40). …. another to carry out the research work
successfully. It is easy to set about it in a disorganized way and …. (41). …. yourself many problems
which could have been …. (42). …. with a little forward planning.
If your own family stories tell you that you are connected with a famous character, whether hero or
criminal, do not let this idea take over your research. Just …. (43). …. it as an interesting possibility. A
simple system for collecting and storing your way. The most important thing, though, is to …. (44). ….
started. Who knows what you …. (45). …. find?
Question 36: A. attracted B. brought C. fetched D. pushed

Question 37: A. widely B. mostly C. greatly D. fairly
Question 38: A. living B. seeing C. going D. moving
Question 39: A. purpose B. decision C. idea D. plan
Question 40: A. even B. quite C. just D. more
Question 41: A. cause B. build C. produce D. create
Question 42: A. missed B. escaped C. lost D. avoided
Question 43: A. direct B. contract C. treat D. control
Question 44: A. get B. be C. appear D. feel
Question 45: A. should B. ought C. must D. might
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It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January
and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The
female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a 5 body length of twenty-two to twenty-four
inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He
bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to
limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the
repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of
an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted
nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves
and feathers. Sometimes owls nest 20 on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two
or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts
about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.
It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds
feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for
food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season
baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It
is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary
of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls ______.
A. takes place on the ground B. is an active process
C. involves the male alone D. happens in the fall
Question 47: The phrase precious charges‖ refers to ____________.
A. the nest B. the eggs
C. the hawks and crows D. other nesting owls
Question 48: The phrase weary of‖ in line 19 is closest in meaning to________________.
A. become sad about B. tire of
C. are attracted to D. support
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A. To feed the young B. To sit on the nest
C. To initiate the courtship ritual D. To build the nest
Question 50: According to the passage, great horned owls ______.
A. are discriminate nest builders B. may inhabit a previously used nest
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs D. build nests on tree limbs
Question 51: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
A. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
B. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
C. They probably don't see their young after November.
D. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
Question 52: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ____________.
A. small mammals B. nuts and seeds C. insects D. other small birds
Question 53: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Nest building of great horned owls.
B. Habits of young great horned owls.
C. Mating rituals of great horned owls.
D. Raising a family of great horned owls.
Question 54: The word they‖ refers to _______________.
A. the prey B. the adult birds C. the young birds D. the wise old men
Question 55: The phrase a resonant hoot‖ is closest in meaning to__________.
A. a sound B. a movement
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C. an instrument D. an offering of food

Insects' lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to
breed and perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To look
"inedible" by resembling or imitating plants is a deception widely practiced by insects. Mammals rarely
use this type of camouflage, but many fish and invertebrates do.
The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This
caterpillar is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called
"measuring worm" or "inchworm. " It walks by arching its body, than stretching out and grasping the
branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind feet forward. When danger
threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and
still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection;
they look like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size form
the few inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot long. When
at rest their front legs are stretched out. Heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical species are
adorned with spines or ridges. Imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live.
Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly
disappear from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the foliage that they resemble.
Question 56: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How some insects imitates plants to survive. B. The feeding habits of insects.
C. Insects that are threatened with extinction. D. Caterpillars that live in trees.
Question 57: Which of the following does the word "enemies" refer to?
A. creatures that eat insects B. plants looking like insects
C. extreme weather conditions D. insects looking like plants
Question 58: According to the passage, how does the stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By changing the color of its skin. B. By looping itself around a stick.
C. By laying its body flat against a branch. D. By holding its body stiff and motionless.
Question 59: Which of the following is true of stick insects?
A. They resemble their surroundings all the time. B. They make themselves look like other insects.
C. They change color to make themselves in visible. D. They are camouflaged only when walking.
Question60,
Which of the following are NOT mentioned in the passage as objects that are imitated as a means of prote
ction?
A. Flowers B. Thorns C. Leaves D. Stick
Question 61: In which paragraph does the author describe the way in which stick caterpillars move?
A. Paragraph one B. Paragraph four
C. Paragraph three D. Paragraph two
Question 62: Which of the following is the antonym of the word "inedible" in paragraph 3?
A. moving B. beautiful C. eatable D. colourful
Question 63: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT True about the stick caterpillar?
A. It is not popular in North America.
B. The tropical stick caterpillars can have parts of their body looking like thorns.
C. It changes its colour to avoid danger
D. It can have different sizes.
Question 64: How can butterflies make themselves invisible?
A. By hiding under the leaves.
B. By disappearing from the view.
C. By folding wings and sitting still among the leaves with similar colours.
D. By flying among colourful flowers.
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Question 65: Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence in italics? The stick caterpillar is
well named.
A. The caterpillar is stuck to a popular name. B. The caterpillar is named after a well known name.
C. The caterpillar has a good name. D. The caterpillar is named just like the way it looks.
Identify the words or phrases that need correcting.
Question 66: It was her(A), Elizabeth I, not her father(B) King Henry, who led(C) England into(D) the
Age of Empire.
Question 67: Bacteria are one of the most abundant(A) life forms(B) on Earth, growing on and inside
another(C) living things, in every type of environment(D).
Question 68: Drying (A) food by means of(B) solar energy is an ancient process applying(C) wherever
climatic conditions make it possible(D).
Question 69: Supposed that (A) you failed(B) your driving test(C), would you take(D) it again?
Question 70: Neither (A) Jane nor (B) Sarah explained me (C) why they were (D) so late.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best meaning
formed by the given words
Question 71: way / protect / all the wildlife / must / find/ many species / in danger of extinction.
A. A way of protecting all the wildlife must be found as many species are in danger of extinction
B. A way protects all the wildlife that are found among many species in danger of extinction.
C. A way to protect all the wildlife must find as many species are in danger of extinction.
D. A way is protected for all the wildlife, finding any species which are in danger of extinction.
Question 72: Leave/ home/ first/ time/difficult/us/.
A. The first home for leaving is always difficult time
B. The first difficult time is always for home leaving.
C. Home leaving is always difficult for the first time.
D. Leaving home for the first time is always difficult.
Question 73: Excite/ exam result/ she/rush home/ tell/ family/ good news.
A. To excite over the exam results, she rushed quickly home to tell her family the good news.
B. Excited over the exam results, she rushed home to tell her family the good news.
C. Exciting over the exam results, she rushed home to tell her family the good news.
D. Excited over the exam results, she rushed to home telling her family the good news.
Question 74: How/ ungrateful/ you/ not/ greet/ former/ teacher/ meet/ him.
A. How ungrateful to you not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
B. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
C. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher to met him.
D. How ungrateful you are not greet your former teacher when you met him.
Question 75: pass/ she/ church/ work/ way/ everyday/ walk.
A. She walks to work past the church on her way everyday.
B. She walks on her way past the church to work everyday.
C. She walks the church on her past way to work everyday.
D. She walks past the church on her way to work everyday.
Question 76: He‟s been studying for so many years that he should have realized sooner that his grammar
was incorrect.
A. The student would have known that his grammar was incorrect if he‘d had more experience.
B. The grammar wouldn‘t have been so problematic if the student had been aware of it sooner.
C. He has been a student for so long that he could quickly tell when his grammar was incorrect.
D. A student of his experience ought to have noticed his incorrect grammar earlier.
Question 77: Jennifer hadn‟t expected the concert to be so good.
A. The concert was not good at all.
B. The concert was worse than Jennifer had expected.
C. Jennifer thought that the concert would be so good.
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D. The concert was better than Jennifer had expected.

Question 78: She has offered me a job, but I am still sleeping on it.
A. I will get the job if I do not sleep on.
B. I am still thinking whether to take the job she has offered or not.
C. Given the job by her, I am so happy about it.
D. After thinking carefully, she has offered me a job.
Question 79: The number of tourists visiting this area rose last year.
A. Last year there was a rise number of tourists visiting this area last year.
B. Last year there was the number of tourists visiting this area rose last year.
C. Last year there was rose in the number of tourists visiting this area.
D. Last year there was a rise in the number of tourist visiting this area.
Question 80: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears
B. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
C. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
D. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
------- THE END ------
KEY TO PRACTICE 13

1 A 21 B 41 A 61 D
2 D 22 C 42 D 62 C
3 A 23 A 43 C 63 A
4 D 24 C 44 A 64 C
5 C 25 C 45 D 65 D
6 C 26 D 46 B 66 A
7 A 27 A 47 B 67 C
8 B 28 A 48 B 68 C
9 C 29 B 49 B 69 A
10 D 30 A 50 B 70 C
11 D 31 A 51 C 71 A
12 A 32 B 52 B 72 D
13 A 33 D 53 D 73 B
14 A 34 54 C 74 B
15 A 35 55 A 75 D
16 C 36 A 56 A 76 D
17 D 37 D 57 A 77 D
18 A 38 C 58 D 78 B
19 A 39 B 59 A 79 D
20 D 40 B 60 A 80 D
PRACTICE TEST 14
Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 1: A. good B. cool C. look D. wool
Question 2: A. missed B. laughed C. stopped D. closed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. environmental B. conservatively C. approximately D. considerable
Question 4: A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual
Question 5: A. respectable B. affectionate C. occasional D. kindergarten
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Question 6: Too many factories dispose _______their waste by pumping it into rivers and the sea.
A. out B. of C. away D. off
Question 7: Research has shown that there is no difference at all between the brain of the average woman
and _______of the average man.
A. what B. which C. one D. that
Question 8: Unfortunately, your letter arrived after the final date for application. _______, we cannot
consider you for the post.
A. As result B. That is because C. Consequently D. To this
Question 9: He ran ____ fast ____ I couldn‘t catch him.
A. such/that B. very/that C. too/to D. so/that
Question 10: We took many pictures ___________ the cloudy sky.
A. despite of B. even though C. despite D. because
Question 11: A number of students ____ volunteered to the job.
A. have B. has C. to have D. having
Question 12: Mike is playing chess. How long ____ he ____?
A. did/play B. is/playing C. has/play D. has/been playing
Question 13: She‘s angry about……………. to the farewell party last night.
A. not having invited B. not to have invited
C. not having been invited D. not to have been invited
Question 14: The last student ____ was John.
A. for interviewed B. who was interviewed
C. to be interviewed D. B and C are correct
Question 15: The _______north we go, the less likely we are to meet high temperatures.
A. far B. furthest C. farther D. farthest
Question 16: I regret going to the cinema. I wish I ____________ there.
A. didn't go B. haven't gone C. hadn't gone D. would not go
Question 17: The judge ________the pedestrian for the accident.
A. blamed B. accused C. charged D. sued
Question 18: The sports event was _______and successfully organized.
A. good preparation B. good job C. well-done D. well-prepared
Question 19: The _______polluted atmosphere in some industrial regions is called "smog".
A. much B. largely C. fully D. heavily
Question 20: Scientists and engineers have invented devices to remove_____from industrial wastes.
A. pollutions B. pollute C. polluting D. pollutants
Question 21: The child who was caught ______ was made to stand in the corner of the classroom.
A. behaving B. misbehave C. misbehavior D. misbehaving
Question 22: After her illness, Lam had to work hard to _______ his classmates.
A. catch sight of B. keep pace with C. get in touch with D. make allowance for
Question 23: Michael could hardly wait to _______his new motorbike.
A. sit down B. turn back C. try out D. put on
Question 24: Although the patient's condition is serious, she seems to be out of ______.
A. place B. control C. danger D. order
Question 25: They are conducting a wide ______ of surveys throughout Vietnam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 26: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.
A. guilty B. naive C. innovative D. benevolent
Question 27: Vietnam‘s admission to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) has promoted its trade
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relations with other countries.

A. boosted B. expanded C. restricted D. balanced
Question 28: The life boat was launched at once to rescue the four fishermen.
A. quickly B. immediately C. carefully D. excitedly
Question 29: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence
A. openly criticised B. publicly said C. publicly supported D. strongly condemned
Question 30: The President expressed his deep sorrow over the bombing deaths.
A. sadness B. anxiety C. disappointment D. interest
Question 31: -Teacher: "Jon, you've written a much better essay this time. "
- Jon: " _______"
A. Writing? Why? B. Thank you. It's really encouraging.
C. You're welcome. D. What did you say? I'm so shy.
Question 32: -John: "Do you feel like going to the stadium this afternoon?"
- Mary: ― ______ ______‖
A. I don't agree. I'm afraid. B. I feel very bored.
C. You're welcomed. D. That would be great.
Question 33: - Tom: "Make yourself at home. "
- Jane: ―___________‖
A. Not at all. Don't mention it. B. Thanks. Same to you.
C. That's very nice. Thank you. D. Yes, can I help you?
Question 34: - Mary: "That's a very nice skirt you're wearing. "
- Cindy: ― ___________‖
A. How a compliment! B. That's all right.
C. It's nice of you to say so. D. I like you said so.
Question 35: - Jack: " ____________"
- Peter: "Yes, of course. "
A. You won't help me this time B. You'd better give me one hand.
C. I don't think I'll need your help. D. Could you give me a hand?
answer for each of the blanks from 36 to 45.
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are __(36)_more
than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counter-productive
if she
isn't ready. Wise parents will have a __(37)_attitude and take the lead from their child. What they should
provide is a selection of __(38)_toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good
__(39)_available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also
__(40)_them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range of
videos, which can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are __(41)_valuable in
helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad review as far as children are
concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programmes not intended for their
age __(42)_. Too many television programmes induce an incurious, uncritical attitude that is going to
make learning much more difficult. However, __(43)_ viewing of programmes designed for young
children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book after seeing it serialised on television, so
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children will pounce on books which __(44)_their favourite television characters, and videos can add a
new __(45)_to a story known from a book.
Question 36: A. scarcely B. rarely C. slightly D. really

Question 37: A. cheerful B. contented C. relaxed D. hopeful
Question 38: A. bright B. thrilling C. energetic D. stimulating
Question 39: A. material B. sense C. produce D. amusement
Question 40: A. provoke B. encourage C. provide D. attract
Question 41: A. properly B. worthily C. perfectly D. equally
Question 42: A. set B. band C. group D. limit
Question 43: A. cautious B. choice C. approved D. discriminating
Question 44: A. illustrate B. extend C. feature D. possess
Question 45: A. revival B. dimension C. option D. existence
answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more
popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge
gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed
as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England.
His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841, Melville set out on a
whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of
Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three
years away from home, Melville joined up with a U. S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern
United States around Cape Horn. The novel White Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy
seaman.
With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following
among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication
of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for
the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the
universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to
philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his
lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.
Question 46: The main subject of the passage is ____________.
A. Melville's travels B. the popularity of Melville's novels
C. Melville's personal background D. Moby Dick
Question 47: According to the passage, Melville's early novels were ____________.
A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional
C. all about his work on whaling ships D. based on his travel experience
Question 48: In what year did Melville's book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
A. 1837 B. 1841 C. 1847 D. 1849
Question 49: The word "basis" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______
A. background B. message C. bottom D. dissertation
Question 50: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ______
A. he had unofficially left his ship B. he was on leave while his ship was in port
C. he had finished his term of duty D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti
Question 51: A "frigate" in paragraph 1 is probably_ ___________.
A. an office B. a ship C. a troop D. a fishing boat
Question 52: How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
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Question 53: According to the passage, Moby Dick is _______.

A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work
C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the universe
Question 54: The word "metamorphosis" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. circle B. change C. mysticism D. descent
Question 55: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on ____________.
A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history
C. oceanography D. modem American literature
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's
largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge
body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its
unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's
core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the
area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of
indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists
aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where
the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific
community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for
thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet
light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in
the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated
with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to
contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.
Question 56: The word "hidden" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. undrinkable B. untouched C. unexploitable D. undiscovered
Question 57: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen. B. It is a saltwater lake.
C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice. D. It is heated by the sun.
Question 58: Which of the following is closest in meaning to "frigid" in paragraph 1?
A. Extremely cold B. Easily broken C. Quite harsh D. Lukewarm
Question 59: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it ______
A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves
C. could not determine the lake's exact size D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 60: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if _______.
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 61: The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light
Question 62: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it
A. can be studied using radio waves B. may contain uncontaminated microbes
C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated
Question 63: The word "downside" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______
A. bottom level B. negative aspect C. underside D. buried section
Question 64: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment
C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
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D. the harsh climate of Antarctica

Question 65: The purpose of the passage is to______
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 66: Not until he got home he realised he had forgotten to give her the present.
A B C D
Question 67: A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their health will be affected and
A B C
early death.
D
68: The road used to be narrow in the past but now it has widened.
A B C D
69: She kept the children amusing for hours by telling them funny stories.
A B C D
70: It is time the government helped the unemploy to find some jobs.
A B C D
questions.
71: The cyclist _______he crossed the main street.
A. looked with caution after B. had looked with caution before
C. was looked with caution when D. looks with caution when
72: The facilities of the older hospital are as good______.
A. or better than the new hospital B. as or better that the new hospital
C. as or better than those of the new hospital D. as or better than the new hospital
73: A study has been done to determine how the recent change in government policies_ ______.
A. has affected the small business sector B. have affected the small business sector
C. the small business sector was affected D. affecting the small business sector
Question 74: _______, we would be rich by now.
A. If we invest in the telecommunications industry
B. Unless we had investment in the telecommunications industry
C. Had we invested in the telecommunications industry
D. Did we invest in the telecommunications industry
Question 75: When the personnel director realized______, he immediately added two more staff to the
project.
A. what a formidable task it was B. what it was a formidable task
C. it was what a formidable task D. how formidable was it a task
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct and natural combination of
each pair of sentences given.
Question 76: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
Question 77: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are
the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors
of air pollution.
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B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the
pollution of air.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest contributor of
air pollution.
D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
Question 78: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 79: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 80: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
_____________ THE END_____________
KEYS FOR PRACTICE 14

1 B 21 D 41 D 61 C
2 D 22 B 42 C 62 B
3 A 23 C 43 D 63 B
4 A 24 C 44 C 64 C
5 D 25 B 45 B 65 D
6 B 26 A 46 B 66 B
7 D 27 C 47 D 67 D
8 C 28 B 48 D 68 D
9 D 29 C 49 A 69 B
10 C 30 A 50 A 70 C
11 A 31 B 51 B 71 B
12 D 32 D 52 C 72 C
13 C 33 C 53 D 73 A
14 D 34 C 54 B 74 C
15 C 35 D 55 A 75 A
16 C 36 C 56 B 76 B
17 A 37 D 57 C 77 C
18 D 38 D 58 A 78 D
19 D 39 A 59 D 79 B
20 D 40 B 60 A 80 A
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PRACTICE TEST 15
Pronunciation and stress
1. A. prohibit B. pollute C. protect D. cultivate
2. A. endanger B. geometry C. geography D. opposite
3. A. dismiss B. destroy C. relax D. invitation
4. A. country B. cover C. economical D. ceiling
5. A. lose B. chose C. close D. dose
Grammar and vocabulary
6. By the time the boss comes back from England, the work _______.
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing C. will have been finished D. will be finished
7. She had changed so much that _______ anyone recognised her.
A. almost B. not C. hardly D. some
8. Laura reminded her room mate.................... her alarm clock for 6:00
A. of setting B. to be set C. setting D. to set
9. Susan‘s doctor insists........................... for a few days.
A. that she rest B. that she is resting C. her resting D. her to rest
10. Natural resources should be safeguarded and preserved _____ they can continue to be used and
enjoyed.
A. so as to B. since C. therefore D. so that
11. The number of learners _________ not large; therefore, a number of headphones _________ available
to them in the lab.
A. is - is B. are - are C. are - is D. is – are
12......................... a hotel, we looked for somewhere to have dinner.
A. Having found B. found C. Finding D. we found
13. Hardly........................ to the bus stop when the bus suddenly pulled away.
A. had they got B. they had got C. did they get D. they got
14. I am wrong, _______?
A. am I B. are I C. are not I D. aren't I
15. People tend to ________________ a lot of shopping at Xmas time.
A. make B. take C. do D. get
16. She‘d rather ________ a hot beverage during a meal.
A. me not to have B. me did not have C. I did not have D. I do not have
17. _________________, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. Whatever it seems remarkable how B. No matter how seems it remarkable
C. No matter how it seems remarkable D. No matter how remarkable it seems
18. I find it quite _______ to talk in front of a group of people.
A. embarrassing B. embarrassed C. embarrassedly D. embarrassingly
19. _______ is increasing, which results from economic crisis.
A. Employment B. Employ C. Unemployed D. Unemployment
20. When there are small children around, it is better to put breakable ornaments out of _______.
A. hold B. hand C. reach D. place
21. He passed the National High School Graduation Exam with _______ colours.
A. true B. red C. bright D. flying
22. The football match had to be _________ because of the bad weather.
A. put out B. put off C. put up D. put away
23. I'm afraid a rise in salary is _________ just now.
A. out of sight B. out of control C. out of date D. out of the question
24. Many of the pictures sent from outer space are presently on ______ in the public library.
A. duty B. exchange C. display D. account
25....................... everyone working here, I would like to thank you for your generous donation.
A. with regard to B. On the whole C. On behalf of D. In view of
synonym
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26. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.

A. busy B. comfortable C. relaxed D. free
27. In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are made at
generalassemblies in schools and churches.
A. gatherings B. public libraries C. concerts D. prayer services
28. My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
antonym
29. She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization.
A. attractive B. kind C. mean D. hospitable
30. In England, the national examination is compulsory for all children at the age 16
A. obliged B. optional C. caring D. free
‘
31. Peter: ―Are you ready, Mary? There s not much time left. ‖
Mary: ―Yes, just a minute. ________!‖
A. No longer B. I won‘t finish C. I‘d be OK D. I ‘m coming
32. Mark: ―How long have you been here?‖ – Vera: ―……………….. ‖
A. About two and a half years B. I‘m fine. How about you?
C. I don‘t live very far from here. D. It took me two hours by bus.
33. ―You look nice today. I like your new hairstyle‖ ...............................
‘
A. It s nice of you to say so B. shall I. Thanks
C. Oh, well done D. I feel interesting to hear that
34. Maria: ― I‘m taking my end-of-term examination tomorrow. ‖ Sarah: ― ______________ ―
A. Good luck‖ B. Good day C. Good time D. Good chance
35. Laura: ―What a lovely house you have!‖
Mary: ―__________‖
A. Of course not, it ‘s not costly B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. I think so D. No problem
Reading 1
In the western customs (1) _____ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the head
or (2) _____ bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are
often (3) _____ and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more
respectful to present your card or a gift or -any other article using (4) _____ hands. The Chinese are (5)
_____ applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children. When a person is
applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause or a "thank you. " When
walking in public places, direct eye (6) _____. and staring is uncommon in the larger cities, especially in
those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. (7) _____, in smaller communities, visitors may be the subject
of much curiosity and therefore you may notice some stares. (8) _____ speaking, the Chinese are not a
touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors. So, avoid (9) _____ or any prolonged form of body
contact. Public displays of affection are very rare. On the other hand, you may note people of the same sex
walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship. Do not worry about a bit of pushing and
shoving in stores or when groups board public buses or trains. In this case, (10) _____ are neither offered
or expected. The Chinese will stand much closer than Westerners.
36. a. taking b. shaking c. grasping d. hugging
37. a. small b. bit c. slight d. light
38. a. exchanged b. changed c. transferred d. converted
39. a. pair b. couple c. double d. both
40. a. enthusiast b. enthusiastic c. enthusiasm d. enthusiastically
41. a. contact b. look c. stare d. watch
42. a. Moreover b. Furthermore c. However d. Whatever
43. a. Generally b. Successfully c. Fortunately d. Expectedly
44. a. touch b. to touch c. touched d. touching
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45. a. Contacts b. Apologies c. Gestures d. Saying goodbye
Reading 2
Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in the fall
and spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and summer quarters.
The academic year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven weeks each beginning in
September, January, and March: the summer quarter, June to August, is composed of shorter sessions of
vary length.
There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students who
wish to complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of the
opportunity to study year round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most students begin
their programs in the fall quarter, they may enter at the beginning of any other quarters. Finally, since the
physical facilities are kept in operation year round, the resources are used effectively to serve the greatest
number of students. But there are several disadvantages as well. Many faculty complain that eleven-week
term is simply not enough for them to cover the material required by most college coursed. Students also
find it difficult to complete the assignments in such a short period of time.
In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some
colleges and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty and
students have more time to cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional term provides
options for admission during the year and accelerates the degree programs for those students who wish to
graduate early.
46. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Universities in the United States C. The Quarter System
B. The Academic Year D. The Semester System
47. A semester system……………………
A. has eleven-week sessions C. gives students the opportunity to study year round
B. Isn‘t very popular in the United States D. has two major sessions a year
48. How many terms are there in a quarter system?
A. Four regular terms and one summer term B. Three regular terms and one summer term
C. Two regular terms and two summer terms D. One regular term and four summer terms
49. When is the academic year?
A. September to August B. June to August C. August to June D. September to June
50. The word ― customary‖ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by……………….
A. agreeable B. traditional C. length D. limited
51. When may students begin studying in a school that uses a quarter system?
A. September B. Summer semester only
C. at the beginning of any quarter D. at the beginning of the academic year
52. The word ―them‖ in paragraph 2 refers to……………………..
A. faculty B. weeks C. courses D. material
53. The word ―instituted‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to……………………
A. established B. considered C. recommended D. attempted
54. Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to trimesters?
A. They allow students to graduate early C. They are long enough to cover the course material
B. they provide more options for admission D. they last eleven weeks
55. Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a college catalog for a university in the United States
B. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States
C. In a American newspaper
D. In a dictionary published in the United States
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Reading 3
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me as
emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
refects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course
they also affect anyone who comes in contract with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all
day ! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on
the color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that
you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest wau to be
healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your
emotions.
56. What is the main edea of the passage?
A. Colorful clothes can change your mood B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
C. Colors can help you become healthy. D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
57. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. your friend's feelings C. your appetite D. your mood
58 Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced B. neither A nor C
C. You are more influenced D. Both A and C
59. According to the passage, what do color, sound, and emotion all have in common?
A. They all affect the cells of the body B. They are all forms of motion
C. They are all related to health D. none of the above
60. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black B. exposing yourself to bright colors
C. being open to your emotions D. ignoring your emotions
61. The term "intimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. clearly B. closely C. obviously D. simply
62. The term "they" in paragraph 3 refers to
A. emotions B. people C. colors D. none of the above
63. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. to show how color can affect energy levels in the body. B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. to prove the relationship between emotions and color. D. Because vibrations make you healthy.
64 The phrase "saturated with" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. bored with B. in need of C. covered with D. lacking in
65. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to persuade the reader that colors can influence emotions and give a person more energy
B. to show that colors are important for a healthy life
C. to give an objective account of how colors affect emotions
D. to prove the relationship between color and emotion
Identify error
66. Because the heavy flood, many people are homeless.
A B C D
67. The high the rate of inflation, the higher the price of things.
A B C D
68. In order no money would be wasted, we had to account for every penny we spent.
A B C D
69. Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home.
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A B C D
70. Being that he was a good swimmer, John managed to rescue the child
A B C D
Writing
71. If only I had taken his advice
A. I wish I followed his advice B. I wish I have taken his advice
C. I regret not having taken his advice D. I regret not to take his advice
72. No sooner had we arrived than the performance began
A. The performance had started before we arrived
B. The performance started sooner than we arrived
C. Hardly had we arrived when the performance began
D. When we arrived the performance had already started
73. Had I known more about computer programming, I would have worked for a computer company.
A. I didn‟t know much about computer programming so I didn‟t work for a computer company
B. A better knowledge of computer programming will help me find a job in a computer company
C. I wish I knew more about computer programming and could work for a computer company
D. Knowing more about computer programming, I would find a job in a computer company.
74. “ If you don‟t apologize immediately, I‟m leaving” She told him
A. She told him not to apologize immediately
B. She asked him to apologize immediately because she was leaving
C. She threatened to leave unless he apologized immediately
D. She told him she was leaving if he apologized immediately
75. He acts as though nothing matters to him
A. He acts when there‘s no matter for him
B. he acts although nothing matters to him
C. He seems not to care about anything
D. Nothing matters to him when he acts
76. If only you had told me the truth about the theft
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft
B. Only if you had told me the truth about the theft
C. Had you told me the truth, there wouldn‘t have been the theft
D. You only told me the truth if there was a theft
77. I can‟t stand it when people criticize me in public
A. People can‘t criticize me in public
B. When people criticize me in public I don‘t stand there
C. I can‘t stand in public when people criticize me
D. I hate being criticized in public
78. Friendly though he may seem, he‟s not to be trusted
A. However he seems friendly, he‘s not to be trusted
B. However friendly he seems, he‟s not to be trusted
C. He may have friends, but he‘s not to be trusted
D. he‘s too friendly to be trusted
79. Someone has run off with our ticket
A. Our tickets have been stolen
B. Someone has run off to get out tickets
C. Our tickets has been picked up by someone
D. Someone has destroyed our tickets
80. The woman was too weak to lift the suitcase.
A. The woman wasn‘t able to lift the suitcase, so she was very weak.
B. The woman shouldn't have lifted the suitcase as she was weak.
C. So weak was the woman that she couldn't lift the suitcase.
D. The woman, though weak, could lift the suitcase.
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KEY TO PRACTICE 15

1 D 21 D 41 A 61 B
2 D 22 B 42 C 62 C
3 D 23 D 43 A 63 A
4 D 24 C 44 D 64 C
5 A 25 C 45 B 65 A
6 C 26 A 46 B 66 A
7 C 27 A 47 D 67 A
8 D 28 A 48 B 68 A
9 A 29 C 49 D 69 C
10 D 30 B 50 B 70 A
11 D 31 D 51 C 71 C
12 A 32 A 52 A 72 C
13 A 33 A 53 A 73 A
14 D 34 A 54 D 74 C
15 C 35 B 55 B 75 C
16 C 36 B 56 B 76 A
17 D 37 C 57 D 77 D
18 A 38 A 58 C 78 B
19 D 39 D 59 D 79 A
20 C 40 B 60 D 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 16
Question 1: Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently
A. considered B. travelled C. allowed D. expressed
A. roofs B. leftovers C. depths D. tricks
A. uniform B. universal C. curriculum D. university
Question 4: Choose the word that has the main stress put differently from that of the others.
A. academic B. physical C. primary D. chemistry
Question 5: Choose the word that has the main stress put differently from that of the others.
A. apply B. supply C. deny D. scary
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
He started playing the guitar when he was 5 years old.
A. He has been playing the guitar since he was 5 years old.
B. He has played the guitar when he was 5 years old.
C. He played the guitar since he was 5 years old.
D. The guitar he played was 5 years ago.
“Remember to bring your books,” he said.
A. He reminded me to bring my books.
B. He warned me against bringing my books.
C. He asked me if I remembered to bring my books.
D. He said I remembered to bring my books.
Many people think Steve stole the money.
A. It was not Steve who stole the money.
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B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money.

C. Many people think the money is stolen by Steve.
D. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve.
"Why don't you ask the teacher for help?" Peter asked me.
A. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help
B. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.
C. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help.
D. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.
Question 10: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have often seen her for the last three years.
B. I have not seen her for three years.
C. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.
D. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
Question 11: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
She / selected /just / has / been / to / take /part / in / the / competition
A. She just been has selected to take part in the competition.
B. She just has been selected to take part in the competition.
C. She has just been selected to take part in the competition.
D. She has been just selected to take part in the competition.
I/ grateful/ kindness/ visit/ your/ farm/ last summer holiday//
A. I‘m grateful with your kindness when I visit your farm last summer holiday.
B. I‘m grateful to your being kind when I visit your farm last summer holiday.
C. I‘m grateful of your kind when I visited your farm last summer holiday.
D. I‘m grateful for your kindness when I visited your farm last summer holiday.
I / study / a school / found / nineteen century.
A. I'm studying at a school which found in the nineteen century.
B. I study at a school that founded in the nineteen century.
C. I'm studying at a school which was founded in the nineteen century.
D. I'm studying in a school which was found in nineteen century.
The football/ cancelled/ was/ why/ match/ yesterday?
A. Why the football match was cancelled yesterday?
B. Why was yesterday the football match cancelled?
C. Why was the football match cancelled yesterday?
D. Yesterday why the football match was cancelled ?
The storm/prevent/ us/ go/ school/ on time/ last week.
A. The storm prevented us from going to school on time last week.
B. The storm prevented us going to school on time last week.
C. The storm prevented us going to school on time last week.
D. The storm prevent us to go to school on time last week.
Question 16: Choose the best answer for each blank.
The theory of relativity _____ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. is developed B. develops C. was developed D. developed
The girl was used ________ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to receive B. to receiving C. to being received D. to be receiving
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I could hear voices but I couldn‘t ________what they were saying.

A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out
Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?
A. once offering B. to offer C. you offer D. being offered
A holiday in America can be ____________cheap.
A. surprisingly B. surprising C. surprised D. surprise
The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains
Having traveled to different parts of our country,______.
A. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs
B. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs
C. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs
D. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us
The government was finally _______ by a minor scandal.
A. take on B. put back C. pulled down D. brought down
There __________ a big increase in the market for mobile phones recently.
A. has had B. has been C. is D. was
Peter asked me ______
A. what time does the film start. B. what time the film starts.
C. what time did the film start. D. what time the film started.
A new school___________ in the area lately.
A. was built B. has built C. was being built D. has been built
A woman has to_________ more in marriage than men.
A. sacrifice B. determine C. apologize D. admit
Gestures such as waving and handshaking are ________ forms of communication.
A. direct B. non-verbal C. verbal D. regular

If I _______ it was a formal party, I wouldn't have gone wearing jeans and a jumper.
A. have known B. know C. had known D. knew
Michael‘s father, _______________is 65 years old, goes jogging in the park very morning.
A. whose B. who C. that D. he
After his death, she took the responsibility _______________ running the company.
A. up B. on C. for D. into
English is one of____ subjects in Viet Nam.
A. useful B. educational C. compulsory D. national
I ______Tom since I _____a little child.
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A. have known/ have been B. have known/ was

C. knew/ was D. knew/ have been
We have had our car……….. so we need a lift.
A. was stolen B. to be stolen C. stolen D. have been stolen
The……………. …year in Viet Nam runs from September to May and is divided into two terms.
A. academic B. academically C. academical D. academy
When I came home, my father ___________a magazine.
A. reads B. has read C. read D. was reading
Mary was the last applicant __________ by that interviewer.
A. to interview B. to be interviewed C. to be interviewing D. to have interviewed
Question 38: Choose the best answer that has the same meaning to the underlined word.
Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. happen B. clean C. encounter D. arrive
Question 39: Choose the best answer that has the same meaning to the underlined word(s).
He paid a visit to Ha Long bay last week.
A. protected B. visited C. decided D. obliged
Question 40: Choose the best answer that has the same meaning to the underlined word(s).
He said that he ___________his bicycle.
A. loses B. has lost C. will lose D. had lost
Question 41: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
It is suggested that smoking should to be banned in pubs, restaurants, and other public places
A. B. C. D.
correction.
They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
A. B. C. D.
correction.
Last year my little brother got lost when we had gone shopping.
A. B. C. D.
The students who they cheated in the examination had to leave the room.
A. B. C. D.
I haven‘t come back to Hanoi for my brother last visited me.
A. B. C. D.
Question 46: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
Alice: Thank you for a lovely evening. Carol: _______________
A. Don‘t mention it. B. I‘m glad you enjoyed it.
C. Yes, I‘d like that. D. Yes, that would be very nice.
Wendy: ―Why don‘t we get together next week?‖ Cindy: ―_______________‖
A. I didn‘t have the time B. Not again C. That‘s a good idea D. It‘ll take three hours
Marie: ―I‘ve passed the final exam!‖ → Tony: ―…………………….. ‖
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Yes, that‘s right. C. I hope not. D. Congratulation!
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Tom. ''Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary" -Mary: ―__________________. "

A. Thanks. That's a nice compliment B. I think so
C. Why do you say so? D. Sorry, I don't like it
- Hung: "Thank you very much for a lovely party"
- Hoa: "___________________. "
A. Thanks B. You are welcome C. Cheers D. Have a good day
Read the following passage taken from Microsoft Encarta and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks from 51 to 60.
Some students at the Open University left school 20 years old. Others are younger but ___51___ must be
at least 21 years old. This is one example of how the Open University is ___52___ from all other
universities. Its students must either work full-time ___53___ be at home all day, For instance mothers of
families. They do not ___54___ to pass any examinations before they are accepted as students. This is
why the university is called ‗open‘. The university was started in ___55___ to help a group of people who
missed having a university education when they were young.
The first name for the Open University was ‗The University of the ___56___‘. The idea was to teach ‗on
the air‘, in other words on radio and television. Most of the teaching is done like this. Radio and television
___57___ brought the classroom into people‘s families. But this, on its own, is not ___58___ for a
university education. The Open University student also receives advice at one of 283 study centers in the
country. 36 weeks of the year he has to send ___59___ work to a ‗tutor‘, the person who guides his
studies. He must also spend 3 weeks every summer ___60___ a full-time student. The tutors and students
meet and study together, as in other universities. At the end, of the Open University‘s first year, the results
were good. 3 out of every 4 students passed their examinations. If they do this every year, they will finish
their studies in 4 or 5 years.
Question 51:
A. all B. others C. the others D. another
Question 52:
A. away B. different C. run D. developed
Question 53:
A. and B. the C. neither D. or
Question 54:
A. have B. want C. fail D. go
Question 55:
A. way B. order C. reason D. time
Question 56:
A. Air B. Radio C. Television D. Open
Question 57:
A. are B. is C. have D. has
Question 58:
A. good B. bad C. much D. enough
Question 59:
A. writing B. written C. lost D. missing
Question 60:
A. on B. for C. as D. to
answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains and
moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas
are national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of the countryside they
think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges
or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a
network of public footpaths.
317
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time
walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit
farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms.
Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they
would have a better and healthier lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the
use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an
area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly
opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least
delay, the building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the
West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states, such as
Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In
Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there
are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who
live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean
driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their
mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country say that they like
the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can.
As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or
fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.
Question 61: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______.
A. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another B. only a few farms are publicly owned
C. none of the areas faces the sea D. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
Question 62: The word ―enclosed‖ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. embraced B. surrounded C. blocked D. rotated
Question 63:
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of Britain?
A. Going swimming B. Going for a walk C. Riding a bicycle D. Picking fruit
Question 64: What does the word ―they‖ in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Those who go to fruit farms in summer B. Those who go to the country for a picnic
C. Those who commute to work in towns D. Those who dream of living in the country
Question 65: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. Protests against the building work. B. Plants and wildlife.
C. Modern farming practices D. The green belt around cities
Question 66: The phrase ―associated with‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. separated from B. supported by C. related to D. referred to
Question 67: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction
B. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside
C. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work
D. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land
Question 68: The phrase ―reach to the horizon‖ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. are varied B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are limited
Question 69: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because ______.
A. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there
B. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there
C. their children enjoy country life
D. life there may be easier for them
Question 70: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.
318
B. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by long distances.

C. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.
D. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.
MICKEY MANTLE
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York
Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last year
in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized
the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a ―switch-hitter‖ who could bat both right-handed and left-
handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a
wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain America‘s fascination with him.
Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from
Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale
version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always loves a ―natural‖: a person
who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey
Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played
without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father‘s dreams and drank to
forget his father‘s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and
accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and
warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a
liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey
Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
Question 71: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
B. Mickey Mantle‘s success and private life full of problems
C. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
D. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
Question 72: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle ______.
A. earned a lot of money from baseball B. played for New York Yankees all his life.
C. introduced baseball into the US D. had to try hard to be a professional player.
Question 73: According to the passage, Mantle could ______.
A. hit the ball to score from a long distance B. hit with the bat on either side of his body
C. bat better with his left hand than with his right hand D. give the most powerful hit in his team
Question 74: The word ―this‖ in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Mantle‘s being a fast and powerful player. B. Mantle‘s being a wonderful athlete.
C. Mantle‘s being fascinated by many people. D. Mantle‘s being a ―switch-hitter‖.
Question 75: It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans ______.
A. success in Mantle‘s career was difficult to believe
B. success in Mantle‘s career was unnatural
C. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player
D. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
Question 76: The author uses the word ―But‖ in paragraph 4 to ______.
A. give an argument in favor of Mantle‘s success and fame
B. give an example of the trouble in Mantle‘s private life
C. explain how Mantle got into trouble
D. change the topic of the passage
Question 77: The word ―fulfill‖ in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
319
B. do something in the way that you have been told

C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 78: The word ―accelerated‖ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. worsened B. bettered C. delayed D. quickened
Question 79: Question 79: We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father‘s death, Mantle ______.
A. played even better B. forgot his father‘s dream
C. led a happier life D. suffered a lot of pain
Question 80: Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle‘s body?
A. His loneliness B. His way of life
C. His liver transplant operation D. His own dream
-----------------The end----------------
KEY TO PRACTICE TEST 16

1. D 11. C 21. A 31. C 41. C 51. A 61. B 71. B
2. B 12. D 22. B 32. C 42. A 52. B 62. B 72. A
3. C 13. C 23. C 33. B 43. D 53. D 63. A 73. B
4. A 14. C 24. B 34. C 44. A 54. A 64. D 74. B
5. D 15. A 25. D 35. A 45. C 55. B 65. C 75. A
6. A 16. C 26. D 36. D 46. B 56. A 66. C 76. D
7. A 17. B 27. A 37. B 47. C 57. C 67. A 77. A
8. B 18. C 28. B 38. A 48. D 58. D 68. B 78. D
9. B 19. D 29. C 39. B 49. A 59. B 69. A 79. D
10. B 20. A 30. B 40. D 50. B 60. C 70. A 80. B
PRACTICE TEST 17
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
Question 1: A. eleven B. history C. nursery D. different
Question 2: A. certain B. couple C. decide D. Equal
Question 3. A. Canadian B. Vegetarian C. pedestrian D. incredible
Question 4: A. booked B. looked C. naked D. hooked
Question 5: A. hands B. parents C. chores D. boys
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
question.
Question 6:If it _____ fine tomorrow, we'll go shopping.
A. was B. were C. will be D. is
Question 7: I said that I had met her _________.
A. yesterday B. the previous day C. the day D. the before day
Question 8: Put the raincoat on. It________.
A. had rained B. will be raining C. is raining D. has rained
Question 9: At this time yesterday, everyone ________. in the room.
A. is dancing B. was dancing C. dances D. Danced
Question 10: Who _____?
A. was this book written B. wrote this book by
C. was this book written by D. this book was written by
Question 11: The mother told her son _______ so impolitely.
A. not behave B. not behaving C. did not behave D. not to behave
Question 12: The _____ of this city has increased rapidly in the recent years.
A. number B. population C. crowd D. total
320
Question 13: John asked me _______ interested in any kind of sports.

A. if I were B. if were I C. if was I D. if I was
Question 14:Small children are often told that it is rude to point _______ other people.
A. on B. with C. at D. for
Question 15: Each of you ________ a share in the work
A. have B. having C. has D. going to have
Question 16: Your last job was a bank manager, _____ it?
A. doesn‘t B. isn‘t C. wasn‘t D. didn‘t
Question 17:He is a _______ boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.
A. frank B. lovely C. obedient D. caring
Question 18: He went to work as a driver on the Italian front where he was _____ wounded.
A. bad B. badly C. worse D. Badder
Question 19: ‗‘ Would you mind turning down your stereo ?‘‘ - ―______‖
A. I‘m really sorry! I ‗m not paying attention B. Oh! I‘m sorry! I didn‘t realize that
C. No. I don‘t D. Yes, I do
Question 20: We would _____ lung cancer if people give up smoking.
A. finish B. get rid of C. kill D. cancel
Question 21: ―Hello, I‘d like to speak to Mr. Green, please ― – ―______‖
A. Sorry, can you say that again? B. I‘m sorry, I‘ll call again later
C. I‘m afraid I don‘t know D. Let‘s wait
Question 22:It is _______ not to say "Thank you" when you are given something.
A. small B. rude C. slight D. formal
Question 23:Mary: ― That‘s a very nice skirt you are wearing. ‖ Julia: ― ………….. ‖
A. That‘s nice B. I like it C. That‘s all right D. I‘m glad you like it
Question 24:Jim:‖Do you agree that doing physical exercises can keep our body fit?‖ Laura:‖You‘re
right…‖
A. Of course not C. That‘s very surprising
B. I‘m not with you there. D. There‘s no doubt about that
Question 25:My responsibility is to wash dishes and _______the garbage.
A. take off B. take out C. take care of D. take over
Question 26: It is in this house _____ he was born
A. that B. where C. which D. what
Question 27: Do you mind _____ up?
A. wash B. washing C. washed D. to wash.
Question 28: I am not used _____ up early.
A. get B. to get C. getting D. to getting
Question 29: Paster, whose _____ of a cure for a rabies made him _____ was a French scientist .
A. discover/ famous B. discovery/ fame
C. discovery/famous D. discovered/ famous
Question 30: - Helen: ― Congratulation ! You did great. ‖ - Jane : ―_______‖
A. It‘s my pleasure. B. You‘re welcome.
C. It‘s nice of you to say so. Thanks. D. That‘s okay.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. frightened B. jolted C. saddened D. astonished
Question 32:Maria will take charge of the advertising for the play.
A. spend time B. be irresponsible for C. account for D. spend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that has the CLOSEST
meaning to replace the underlined part without changing the meaning of the sentence
Question 33: Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous diseases
A. colossal B. popular C. common D. scattered
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Question 34: The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries

A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
Question 35:Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. prepared B. be busy C. attempt D. help
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (36)__of options open
today‘s youngster – or even ― oldster‖ for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant
visit. No longer is it (37)__sufficient to invite your friends round, buy some food and get a barker to
produce a cake. No, today‘s birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary, ranging
from the (38)__ expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is unusual and
impressive.
Top of this year ‗s popular (39)__are as follows: taking some friends rally driving, helicopter lessons,
plane trip and parachuting, and hot air ballooning. Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking
your buddies on a stomach – churning, while water rafting (40)__down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the (41)__. I recently met an octogenarian who
celebrated (42)__the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his
friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a
(43)__relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to (44)__the less extravagant or less
adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to
a weekend in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can (45)__dream. Perhaps by the time I‘m eighty I‘ll
be able to afford it.
Question 36: A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance
Question 37: A. hoped B. decided C. marked D. considered
Question 38: A. perfectly B. dearly C. outrageously D. explicitly
Question 39: A. experiments B. extravagances. C. exposures D. expenses
Question 40: A. ride B. travel C. voyage D. crossing
Question 41: A. adolescents B. teenagers C. youth D. young
Question 42: A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting
Question 43: A. distant B. remote C. faraway D. slight
Question 44: A. pacify B. satisfy C. distract D. absorb
Question 45:A. however B. but C. nevertheless D. anyway
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat,
rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that
troops played ―baseball‖ in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers‘ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers
– you‘re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine man team. ―The New York Game‖
spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of
satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was
played by and for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening‘s entertainments for the winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging
admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of
games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine,
and their‖ muffins ― (the gently duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first openly all –
salaried team (Cincinnati‘s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete
professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball
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players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by
business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League
Baseball‘s ―Golden Age‖. Profits soared, player‘s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became
one of 132, a weekly periodical ― The sporting News‖ came into being, wooden stadiums with double-
deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In
1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American
League.
Question 46: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball
B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the ―New York Game‖ on baseball
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 47: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity
if they did not want to mix with other or become a ―muffin‖
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that develop in baseball
C. the ―New York ―spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
Question 48: The word ― inception‖ in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
Question 49: The word ― lavish ― in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
Question 50: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its
inception?
A. a team might consist of 40 members
B. the president would choose teams from among the members
C. they didn‘t play on weekend
D. they might be called ―duffers‖ if they didn‘t make the first nine
Question 51: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except____.
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s ― Golden Age‖?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
D. profits soared
Question 53: The word‖ somewhat‖ in line 21 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
Question 54: The word ―itself‖ in line 24 refers to____.
A. the Western League
B. growing cities
C. the Midwest
D. the American League
Question 55: Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players?
A. lines 4-7 B. lines 8-10 C. lines 11-14 D. 15- 18
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
I was born in Newcastle, a city in the North East of England. Newcastle is on the bank of the River Tyne.
It is quite big, with a population of about 200,000 people. There is a cathedral and a university. There are
five bridges over the River Tyne, which link Newcastle to the next town, Gateshead, where there is one of
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the biggest shopping centers in the world. A few years ago, the main industries were shipbuilding and
coalmining, but now the chemical and soap industries are important.
I moved to London ten years ago but I often return to Newcastle. I miss the people, who are very friendly,
and I miss the beautiful countryside near the city, where there are so many hills and streams.
People who are born near the River Tyne have a special name. They are called ―Geodies‖. I am
vary pleased to be called a ―Geodies‖.
Question 56. The writer was born:
A. in Newcastle near the North East of England
B. in a town in the North East of England
C. in a city near Newcastle
D. in Newcastle, a city in the North East of England
Question 57. What is on the bank of the River Tyne
A. North East of England B. Newcastle city C. A cathedral D. A university
Question 58. What is quite big?
A. Newcastle city B. The river Tyne C. The next town, Gateshead D. the university
Question 59. Newcastle city has a population of........
A. 200,000 people B. less than 200,000 people
C. more than 200,000 people D. about 200,000 people
Question 60. What link Newcastle to the next town?
A. One bridge B. Gateshead C. Five bridges D. a shopping center
Question 61. Where there is one of the biggest shopping centers in the world?
A. North East of England B. Newcastle C. River Tyne D. Gateshead
Question 62. What are the main industries in Newcastle now?
A. shipbuilding B. coalmining
C. soap industry D. chemical and soap industry
Question 63. Where does the writer lives now?
A. Newcastle B. Gateshead C. North East of England D. London
Question 64. What does the writer miss?
A. the people B. the beautiful countries
C. the hills and the streams D. the people and the beautiful countries
Question 65. Who are called ―Geodies‖?
A. people who are born in Newcastle B. people who are born in England
C. people who are born near the River Tyne D. people who are born in London
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 66. When I was a little boy, I prefered playing volleyball to read books
A B C D
Question 67. Once a week, my mother have to work on a night shift at hospital.
A B C D
Question 68. His eel soup is the best one I have ever eat.
A B C D
Question 69: Automobile began to be equipped by built-in radios around 1930
A B C D
Question 70: The Oxford University Publisher has just published a new series of readers for students of
English
A B C D
Question 71. They don't use this room very often.
A. This room is very often used. B. This room isn't very often used.
C. This room is used not very often. D. This room isn't used very often.
Question 72. Caroline asked me what time the meeting would end.
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A. Caroline said, ‗‗what time will the meeting end?‖

B. Caroline said, ‗‗what time would the meeting end?‖
C. Caroline said, ‗‗what time the meeting will end?‖
D. Caroline said, ‗‗what time the meeting would end?‖
Question 73. I whispered as I didnt want anybody to hear our conversation.
A. So as not to hear our conversation I whispered.
B. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation I whispered.
C. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldnt be heard.
D. Because I whispered, nobody heard our conversation.
Question 74. I haven‟t gone to the cinema for 10 years.
A. It‘s ten years I haven‘t gone to the cinema. B. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema.
C. The last time I went to the cinema was 10 years. D. I last went to the cinema 10 years ago.
Question 75. "You'd better not lend Mark any more money, Elizabeth", said John.
A. Johns tells Elizabeth that she would better not lend Mark any more money.
B. Johns advised Elizabeth not to lend Mark any more money.
C. Johns advised Elizabeth that she had better not lend Mark any more money.
D. Johns said to Elizabeth that she would better lend Mark any money.
Question 76. "You stole my best cassette, Bob!" said Willy.
A. Willy accused Bob for having stolen his best cassette.
B. Willy accused Bob of having stolen his best cassette.
C. Willy accused Bob on having stolen his best cassette.
D. Willy accused Bob to have stolen his best cassette.
Question 77. It is more than one hundred years since the birth o f Charles Dicken, the famous
Novelist.
A. It is more than one hundred years when Charles Dicken, the famou s novelist, born.
B. More than one hundred years ago, Charles Dicken, the famous born .
C. Since Charles Dicken is a famous novelist, he was born mo re than a hundred years ago.
D. Charles Dicken, the famous novelist, was born more than one hundred years ago.
Question 78. Although she couldn't speak English, Ngo decided to settle in Manchester.
A. Despite of speaking no English, Ngo decided to settle in Manchester.
B. Although no speaking English, Ngo decided to settle in Manchester.
C. In spite of her disability to speak English, Ngo decided to settle in Manchester.
D. Ngo decided to settle in Manchester even she did not speak English.
Question 79. The bread is so stale that we can't eat it.
A. The bread such stale that we can't eat it.
B. We can't eat the bread because of its stale.
C. The bread isn't fresh enough to be eaten.
D. The bread isn't enough fresh for us to eat.
Question 80: She has lost her appetite recently
A. She hasn‘t had any food recently B. Her appetite has been very good
C. She has gone off food recently D. She hasn‘t eaten a lot of food recently
KEY TO PRACTICE 17

1 A 21 A 41 D 61 D
2 C 22 B 42 C 62 D
3 B 23 D 43 A 63 A
4 C 24 D 44 B 64 A
5 B 25 B 45 B 65 C
6 D 26 B 46 D 66 D
7 B 27 B 47 C 67 B
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8 C 28 D 48 B 68 D
9 B 29 D 49 B 69 B
10 C 30 C 50 C 70 D
11 D 31 A 51 C 71 D
12 B 32 B 52 C 72 A
13 D 33 C 53 D 73 C
14 C 34 B 54 A 74 D
15 C 35 D 55 C 75 B
16 C 36 C 56 D 76 B
17 D 37 D 57 B 77 D
18 B 38 C 58 A 78 C
19 B 39 B 59 D 79 C
20 B 40 A 60 C 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following groups.
1. A. authority B. particular C. mathematics D. community
2. A. receive B. factor C. process D. proper
3. A. refusal B. decision C. politics D. possession
4. A. illegally B. contaminate C. rhinoceros D. apparatus
5. A. introduce B. committee C. interfere D. referee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction .
6. My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
A. giving B. whenever C. a problem D. some good
7. The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international organizations.
A. better B. more chance C. are at D. a job
8. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A. is park B. of whom C. a famous pop star D. front of
9. It was a six-hours journey; we were completely exhausted when we arrived.
A. a six-hours B. exhausted C. we arrived D. completely
10. Turn on the light, I was surprised at what I saw.
A. Turn on B. was C. what D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following
questions:
11. You should wash your shirt right now before that stain dries.
A. Your shirt needs washing right now before that stain dries.
B. Before that stain dry, don't wash your shirt right now.
C. No sooner does the stain dry so you should wash the shirt before it dry.
D. You should wash your shirt in order for the stain to dry right now.
12. " No, I didn't tell Jim our plan," said Tom.
A. Tom denied to tell Jim their plan. B. Tom didn't agree to tell Jim their plan.
C. Tom refused to tell Jim their plan. D. Tom denied having told Jim their plan.
13. Thieves stole all her priceless jewels.
A. She was stolen all her priceless jewels.
B. All her priceless jewels were stolen by thieves
C. All her priceless jewels are stolen by thieves.
D. She was robbed of all her priceless jewels.
14. "Sorry madam, looking after the garden is not my duty. "
A. He promised to look after the garden.
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B. He said that he was not responsible for looking after the garden.
C. He asked me if looking after the garden was his duty.
D. He apologized for not looking after the garden.
15. You're not to blame for what happened.
A. What happened is not your fault. B. You're not accused for what happened.
C. We blame you for what happened. D. You're responsible for what happened.
16. Unless someone has a key, we cannot get into the house.
A. If someone does not have a key, we can only get into the house.
B. We could not get into the house if someone had a key.
C. We can only get into the house if someone has a key.
D. If someone did not have a key, we could not get into the house.
17. She knows a lot more about it than I do.
A. I do not know as much about it as she does. B. I know as much about it as she does.
C. I know much more about it than she does. D. She does not know so much about it as I do.
18. We were all surprised when she suddenly came back.
A. All of us found it surprising that she suddenly came back.
B. She was surprised, coming back suddenly.
C. All of us were amazing to see her come back.
D. The fact that we were surprised made her come back.
19. She usually drinks a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
A. She gets accustomed to a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
B. She is used to drinking a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
C. She is used to going to bed before drinking a glass of milk every night.
D. She used to drink a glass of milk before going to bed every night.
20. Because she was irritated by her husband‘s lack of punctuality, she left him.
A. Being irritating by her husband‘s lack of punctuality, she left him.
B. Irritating with her husband‘s lack of punctuality, she left him.
C. She left her husband because of her irritation with his lack of punctuality
D. Irritated by her husband, she punctually left him.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part:
21. Mr. Smith's new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. mean B. pleasant C. hostile D. easy-going
22. China has become the third country in the world which can independently carry out the manned space
activities.
A. put up B. put in C. put on D. put off
. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part:
23. The sale of drugs is controlled by law in most countries.
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
24. We are very anxious about the result of the exam.
A. careful B. excited C. careless D. worried
25. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. respect B. discourage C. detest D. dislike
questions:
26. She won the award for _______ her whole life to looking after the poor.
A. spending B. paying C. using D. devoting
27. I ………very well with my roommate now; we never have any arguments
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A. go on B. carry on C. get on D. put on

28. "No Parking. " This sign means _______
A. You are not allowed to park your car here.
B. There's not enough space for parking here.
C. You can't go to the park here.
D. There is no park here.
29. Minh and Cuong were badly injured in the last match, so _______ can play in this match.
A. either of them B. none of them C. both of them D. neither of them
30. I ……………. Much of you lately. We ………three months ago
A. have‘t seen – last met B. didn‘t see –met
C. haven‘t seen – have met D. didn‘t see- have met
31. The climate of China is similar in many ways to _______.
A. the United States B. that of the United States
C. which of the United States D. this of the United States
32. Laura: "What a great hair cut, Maria!" Maria: "_______ "
A. Thanks. It's very kind of you to do this. B. It's my pleasure.
C. You think so? I think it's a bit too short. D. Oh, yes. That's right.
33. There's plenty of time for you to _______ your mind. You needn't decide now.
A. bear in B. keep in C. make up D. give up
34. She is a _______ girl with _______.
A. clear-eye/ a black hair B. clear-eyes/ black hair
C. clear-eyed/ black hairs D. clear-eyed/ black hair
35. _______ did I realize that the burglar was still in the house.
A. Only after B. Only then
C. Under no circumstances D. Seldom
36. Twenty workers are reported………. in the explosion
A. to injure B. to have injured C. to have been injured D. to be injure
37. Chemistry is my ______ subject at school.
A. popular B. favourite C. wanted D. liking
38. Preparing for a job interview can be very ______.
A. stressing B. stress C. stressful D. stressed
39. Don‘t worry. He‘ll do the job as _______ as possible.
A. economically B. uneconomically C. economizing D. economic
40. The doctor said that he ……me in twenty minutes
A. will see B. would see C. saw D. could see
41. - "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?" - "______"
A. Yes, you're a good friend. B. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks. C. Do you think I would? D. I wouldn't.
Thank you.
42. The window was so high up that ______ I could see was the sky.
A. just B. all C. thus D. only
43. You are going to come to the party_____?
A. will you B. aren‘t you C. do you D. won‘t you
44. - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" - "______"
A. I like you to say that. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
45. He runs a business, ______ he proves to have managerial skills.
A. otherwise B. despite C. however D. and
46. From the hotel there is a good _____ of the mountains.
A. view B. vision C. sight D. picture
47. ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. On B. During C. At D. With
48. Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ______ a cigar to calm his nerves.
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A. would light B. would have lit C. had lit D. would be lighting

49. My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I ______ last week.
A. must have done B. should have done C. need to have done D. may have done
50. He arrived late, ______ was annoying.
A. what B. it C. that D. which
ENVIRONMENTAL ACTIVISTS
Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something, not
just talk about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them in
controversial ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much. Other people
think that he is a criminal.
On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd.
Watson and the people who work on the Sea Shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near Portugal.
However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the Sierra. The
Sea Shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result, the Sierra never returned to the sea. The
Sea Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in Canada. Paul Watson and his workers thought
that they had been successful.
The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and the crew of the
Sierra did not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as many whales
as they could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it
is eaten.
Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra. However,
the commission did very little, and Paul became impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other
whaling ships in any way that he could. He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal
whaling ship, and he sank the Sierra. He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still,
he acted without the approval of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.
Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to
protect the Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like
Watson, they have become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to
protect it.
Question 51: According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who ____
A. runs into whaling ship B. does something to protect the Earth
C. talks about protecting endangered species D. is a hero, like Paul Watson
Question 52: When something is controversial, ____
A. everyone agrees with it B. everyone disagrees with it
C. people have different ideas about it D. people protect it
Question 53: The members of a ship‘s crew are ____.
A. the men and women who work on the ship
B. the people who work on the airplanes
C. all of the people on a ship, including the passengers
D. the people who own the ship
Question 54: The main idea of paragraph one is that ____
A. Paul Watson is a hero to some people
B. activists are people who do something
C. Paul Watson is a controversial environmental activist
D. Paul Watson does not believe in talking
Question 55: The Sea Shepherd was hunting ____
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. whales C. the Sierra D. Portugal
Question 56: The author implies that Paul Watson lives in ____
A. Portugal B. a ship on the Atlantic C. the Sierra D. Canada
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Question 57: The captain and the crew of the Sierra were acting illegally because ____.
A. they were not obeying international laws B. they were whaling
C. they were killing and selling whales D. All of the above are correct
Question 58: In paragraph 3 the phrase ―and froze it‖ refers to ____.
A. whale meat B. the Sierra C. whales D. the Sierra crew
Question 59: The main idea of paragraph 3 is that ____.
A. the Sierra sold whale meat in some countries
B. the people on the Sierra didn‘t obey international laws.
C. the people on the Sierra killed as many whales as they could.
D. whaling is illegal according to international law.
Question 60: Watson ran into the Sierra because ____.
A. he wanted to stop the ship‘s crew from whaling
B. he was impatient with the government‘s actions
C. he wanted to protect the whales from the whalers
D. All of the above are correct
It‘s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of
work because they‘re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano
practice because it‘s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or
have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you‘re older.
Over the years, I‘ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in History
and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason to be late – I
was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if I
could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn‘t frightened
to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me
and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brain shave got rusty. But the joy is
that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were
young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another.
What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you‘re older, you get less frustrated. Experience
has told you that, if you‘re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you‘ll get
the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means
that if you can‘t, say, build a chair instantly, you don‘t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic
attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who could
explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age often, I could never
grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I‘d played for my school
exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I‘d had all those years before.
But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could
understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 61: It is implied in paragraph 1 that ______.

A. young learners are usually lazy in their class
B. teachers should give young learners less homework
C. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning
D. parents should encourage young learners to study more
Question 62: The writer‘s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, ______.
A. they cannot learn as well as younger learners
B. they have a more positive attitude towards learning
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C. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged

D. they get more impatient with their teachers
Question 63: The phrase ―For starters‖ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ―______‖.
A. For beginners B. First and foremost
C. At the starting point D. At the beginning
Question 64: While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised ______.
A. to have more time to learn B. to be able to learn more quickly
C. to feel learning more enjoyable D. to get on better with the tutor
Question 65: In paragraph 3, the word ―rusty‖ means ______.
A. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice
B. impatient because of having nothing to do
C. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
D. staying alive and becoming more active
Question 66: The phrase ―get there‖ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ―______‖.
A. have the things you have long desired B. achieve your aim with hard work
C. arrive at an intended place with difficulty D. receive a school or college degree
Question 67: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______.
A. experience in doing other things can help one‘s learning
B. young people usually feel less patient than adults
C. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
D. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
Question 68: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process
because adult learners ______.
A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B. have become more patient than younger learners
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners
D. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
Question 69: It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you ______.
A. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
B. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
C. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
D. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
Question 70: What is the writer‘s main purpose in the passage?
A. To show how fast adult learning is. B. To describe adult learning methods.
C. To encourage adult learning. D. To explain reasons for learning.
correct word for each of the blanks from 71 to 80.
Face-to-face conversation is two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way
(71)______depends on having a coding system that is understood by both (72)______ and receiver, and an
agreed convention about (73)______ the beginning and end of the (74) ______. In speech, the coding
system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem
too obvious to (75)______. In fact, the (76)______ that people use in conversations and meetings are often
non-verbal. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence; a sharp intake of
breath may signal the desire to (77)______, catching the chairman‘s (78)______may indicate the desire to
speak in a formal setting like a (79)______, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When these (80)______
signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed.
Question 71: A. interchange B. exchange C. correspondence D. communication
Question 72: A. announcer B. transmitter C. messenger D. sender
Question 73: A. signing B. symbolizing C. signalling D. showing
Question 74: A. message B. topic C. idea D. theme
Question 75: A. judge B. mention C. recognize D. notice
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Question 76: A. signals B. symptoms C. symbols D. signs

Question 77: A. interchange
B. interfere C. interrupt D. intercept
Question 78: A. elbow B. eye C. shoulder D. hand
Question 79: A. chat B. debate C. broadcast D. lecture
Question 80: A. visual B. auditory C. verbal D. sensory
KEYS TO PRACTICE 18
1C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. B
15. A 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. C
28. A 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. A
36. C 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. B 42. B 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. A
49. B 50. D 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. C 55. C 56. D 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. D 61. C 62. B 63. B 64.
C 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. B 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. D 73. C 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. C 78. B 79. B
80. A
PRACTICE TEST 19
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the other words.
Question 1 A. salt B. slope C. water D. short
Question 2 A. school B. ooze C. raccoon D. cooking
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has different stress from the
rest.
Question 3 A. polite B. struggle C. visual D. physics
Question 4 A. comprehend B. religion C. understand D. engineer
Question 5 A. suppose B. attract C. forecast D. prefer
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following
questions.
Question 6. ―Why wasn‘t your boyfriend at the party last night?‖
― He _________________ the lecture at Show Hall. I know he very much wanted to hear the speaker‖.
A. should have attended B. can have attend C. was to attend D. may have attended
Question 7. It was not until she had arrived home _____________ remembered her appointment with the
doctor.
A. that she B. and she C. she D. when she had
Question 8. By Christmas, I _______________ for the BBC for five years.
A. was working B. would work C. have been working D. worked
Question 9. The order must be delivered by Tuesday; ___________we will have to look for another
supplier
A. unless B. excepting C. maybe D. otherwise
Question 10. The ____________ carefully you write, the fewer mistakes you will make.
A. much B. most C. more D. many
Question 11. They sat down to a __________meal.
A. five-coursed B. five courses C. five-course D. five course‘s
Question12. A species that faces ________ is one that may become severely endangered or even extinct.
A. exploit B. exploitation C. exploiter D. overexploitation
Question 13. We talked about __________books. Charles had just finished _________ last volume of
Proust.
A. the-the B. - the C. D. the - a
Question 14. Only when we heard the good news of Patrick _________ relieved
A. we felt B. that we felt C. had we felt D. did we feel
Question 15. They didn‘t find __________ in a foreign country.
A. it easy to live B. it easy live C. it to live easy D. easy to live
Question 16. _________ about the company‘s future meant that few people wanted to invest money in it.
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A. Certainly B. Uncertainly C. Uncertain D. Certain

Question 17. Hemingway used the experience and knowledge ________ during World War I as the
material for his best-known novel For Whom the Bell Tolls
A gain B. gaining C. gained D. to gain
Question 18. I lost the keys to my house and had to climb in __________ the window.
A. by B. to C. through D. with
Question 19. There were a few small villages____________, but no major city for miles around.
A. on and off B. here and there C. back and forth D. up and down
Question 20. Her training in accountancy provided a sound ___________ for work in the financial world.
A. footing B. base C. ground d. basis.
Question 21. If a match has extra time, a single goal decides the result – this is called a _____goal.
A. gold B. golden C. silver D. bronze
Question 22. I‘ m not going to take the car to a garage because I think I can ________ it myself.
A. renew B. repair C. do up d. renovate
Question 23. When both parents went to prison, social workers took the children ________ care.
A. into B. for C. with D. to
Question 24. Some people don‘t like curry from India or Thailand; they say it‘s too _____________ - but
I love it.
A. sweet and sour B. spicy and hot C. hot and spicy D. sour and sweet.
Question 25. I need an assistant – I‘m up to my _______with work.
A. my eyes B. my ears C. here D. All are correct.
Question 26. When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he ________ his mother for help.
A. fell behind B. fell back on C. fell upon D. fell in with
Question 27. We ___ _____ a lovely three weeks holiday in the south of Spain last year
A. passed B. took C. did D. spent
Question 28. She ___________ with her brother when he broke her favorite toy
A. got out B. fell in C. got on D. fell out
Question 29. ___________ you tell me the truth, I ______________- to help you.
A. When / can‘t be able C. Unless/ won‘t be
B. In case/ should be able
able D. If/ will be able.
Question 30. This is the man________________ paintings are being talked about.
A. whoever B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 31. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in
May.
A. rudeness B. measurement C. encouragement D. politeness
Question 32. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. clean B. happen C. arrive D. encounter
Question 33. Each time I sneezed, everyone said: ― ________-you!‖
A. Cough B. Bless C. Cold D. Thank
Question 34. A: Will you come to our party tonight?
B: __________, but I‘ll have an important meeting.
A. I‘ll come B. I‘d like coming C. I‘d love to D. I like it.
Question 35. ―Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?‖ _ ― _____________. ‖
A. Yes, I am so glad B. Yes, yes. You can sit here
C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. No, thanks
Read the text below and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to decide which answer best
fits each space from 36 to 45.
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You have heard people say, ―It makes my mouth water‖. They mean, of course, that the sight, taste, or
smell of food (36)____ ___the mouth to have something like water in it. This pleasant feeling is brought
(37) _______ by thousands of tiny glands in your mouth. These glands
(38) _______ a liquid into your mouth when you are hungry and see, taste or smell good food. The liquid
is called saliva. The glands are called the salivary glands.
In an older person these glands (39) ______ ___ about a quart of saliva daily. The amount for children is
a little (40) _______ ___, depending upon the age.
The saliva is valuable in helping people digest their meals. It helps (41) ____ ___ two ways. It contains
(42) ______ ___ having the power to destroy certain germs and to change starch into sugar. It also (43)
_____ ___ to keep the lining of the mouth and throat wet and to reduce the friction which chewing dry
food could create. This liquid softens the food taken into the mouth, by getting it (44) ______ ___. You
can help your digestion if you chew your food well, keeping it in the mouth and chewing it long enough
(45) ______ ___the saliva can reach all parts of it.
Question 36: A. makes B. causes C. encourages D. urges

Question 37: A. out B. give C. fill D. pour
Question 39: A. make B. create C. contain D. consist
Question 40: A.. fewer B less C. bit D. smaller
Question 41: A. with B. by C. in D. from
Question 42: A. elements B. mixtures C. matters D. substances
Question 43: A. serves B. tries C. tends D. acts
Question 44: A. tender B. soft C. moist D. wet
Question 45: A. so that B. as if C. when D. even if
Psychologist have debated a long time about whether a child‘s upbringing can give it the ability to
do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply
something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be
develop. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a
child‘s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and
opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel. ”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins
that were separated shortly birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was
based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child‘s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal
upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive
parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with
the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child‘s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between
intelligence and socioeconomic level of a child‘s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or
how rich a family is, as this does not affect the intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One
professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary
performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least
ten years‘ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
Marry an intelligent person.
Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
Start a child‘s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
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Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instrument is essential for a child who
wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 46: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ______.
A. ability depends both on intelligence and environment
B. different twins generally have different levels of ability
C. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
D. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
Question 47: Scientists chose twins for their study because ______.
A. each twin has the same environment as his/ her twin
B. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
Question 48: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas
B. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic
C. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured
D. They practice playing their instruments for many years
Question 49: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow ______.
A. their own interests B. only their interests in musical instruments
C. only their interests in computer games D. their parents‘ interests
Question 50: When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid ______.
A. starting their education at an early age B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their own interests D. pushing their children too hard
Question 51: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel. ‖ in the passage
means that in order to become a genius, ______.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you should try to move quickly and efficiently.
C. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
D. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
Question 52: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly mean ______.
A. ―helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to the other people‖
B. ―good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful‖
C. ―of high quality or an acceptable standard‖
D. ―under the control or in the power of somebody else‖
Question 53: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
B. studying different twins is useful scientific procedure
C. to become successful, a child need both native intelligence and development
D. a child‘s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
Question 54: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ______.
A. parental support and encouragement B. wealthy and loving parents
C. good musical instruments D. an expensive education
Question 55: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. other people B. other geniuses C. other children D. other scientists
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since
man‘s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely
comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found.
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The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is
open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is
largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word.
The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if,
like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes.
So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging
to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18
inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 56: The title for this passage could be .
A. ―Desert Plants‖ B. ―Life Underground‖
C. ―Animal Life in a Desert Environment‖ D. ―Man‘s Life in a Desert Environment‖
Question 57: The word ―tissues‖ in the passage mostly means .
A. ―the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own‖
B. ―collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants‖
C. ―very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants‖
D. ―the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants‖
Question 58: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as .
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
D. very few lager animals are found in the desert
Question 59: The phrase ―those forms‖ in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals
Question 60: According to the passage, creatures in the desert .
A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest
B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 61: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT .
A. they sleep during the day B. they dig home underground
C. they are noisy and aggressive D. they are watchful and quiet
Question 62: The word ―emaciated‖ in the passage mostly means .
A. ―living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm‖
B. ―able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating‖
C. ―large and strong, difficult to control or deal with ‖
D. ―thin and weak because of lack of food and water‖
Question 63: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
C. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
D. they live in an accommodating environment
Question 64: The word ―burrows‖ in the passage mostly means .
A. ―places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young‖
B. ―holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in‖
C. ―structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept‖
D. ―places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found‖
Question 65: We can infer from the passage that .
A. living things adjust to their environment B. water is the basis of desert life
C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. healthy animals live longer lives
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to identify the underlined part that is not correct.
Question 66. Buying clothes are often a very time-consuming practice because those clothes
A B C
that a person likes are rarely the ones that fit him or her.
D
Question 67. The next important question we have to decide is when do we have to submit the
A B C D
proposal.
Question 68. A five-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped criminal
A B C D
Question 69. My parents were always busy on the farming, so we didn‘t get the help with school work
A B C
any things like that that children get today
. D
Question 70. The amount of books in the Library of Congress is more than 58 million volumes.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to
Question 71. The box was too heavy for John to carry on his back.
A. John didn‘t carry the box on his back due to its heavy.
B. John was strong enough to carry the box on his back
C. Because of the weight, John couldn‘t carry the box on his back.
D. Despite of the box‘s weight, John carried it on his back.
Question 72. I can‘t find my shoes.
A. My shoes can‘t have been found. B. If I could have my shoes found.
C. I hope someone will know the place of my shoes. D. I wish I knew where my shoes were
Question 73: Tom told his girlfriend, ―Let me tell him if you can‘t‖.
A. Tom volunteered to tell him if his girlfriend couldn‘t.
B. Tom advised his girlfriend to tell him if you couldn‘t.
C. Tom suggested that I should tell him if his girlfriend couldn‘t.
D. Tom asked his girlfriend to tell him if you couldn‘t.
Question 74: To be quite honest, I can‘t stand the taste of cigarettes.
A. Honestly, cigarettes make me ill.
B. In fact, I strongly dislike the taste of cigarettes.
C. Frankly, the taste of cigarettes doesn‘t bother me.
D. As a matter of fact, I prefer to be seated while smoking.
Question 75. The error on my taxes was made by my accountant.
A. My tax accountant found the mistake that I make.
B. I made an error because I did not have a tax accountant.
C. Tax accountants always make errors.
D. My accountant made a mistake.
Question 76. I wish I had gone there with her.
A. I hadn‘t gone there with her which makes me feel bad.
B. If only I went there with her.
C. I regret not having gone there with her.
D. If I had gone there with her, I wouldn‘t have felt bad now.
Choose one option A, B, C or D corresponding to the best sentence which is made up from the given
words
Question 77: imagine/ who/ happen/ run into/ yesterday/ just.
A. Just imagine who I happened to run into yesterday!
B. Could you imagine who just happened to run into us yesterday?
C. You imagine just who happened to run into us yesterday!
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D. Have you just imagined who happened to run into me yesterday?

Question 78: students/ deserve/ severe/ punish/ riotous behavior.
A. The students deserve to be severely punishing for their riotous behavior.
B. The students were deserved severe punishment for their riotous behavior.
C. The students deserved to be severely punishment for their riotous behavior.
D. The students deserved severe punishment for their riotous behavior.
Question 79: switches/ turn off/ leave/ workshop.
A. All the switches must be turned off before leaving the workshop.
B. All the switches have got to be turned off before we leave the workshop.
C. We should be turned off all the switches before we leave the workshop.
D. All the switches have to be turned off before leaving the workshop.
Question 80: It/ until/ father/ home/ children/ dinner.
A. It was not until when the father got home that the children had had dinner.
B. It was not until the father got home that the children had dinner.
C. It is not until the father gets home than the children had dinner.
D. It was until the father got home that the children have dinner.
............ THE END...........
KEY TO PRACTICE 19

1 B 21 A 41 C 61 C
2 D 22 B 42 D 62 D
3 A 23 A 43 A 63 A
4 B 24 C 44 D 64 B
5 C 25 D 45 A 65 A
6 D 26 B 46 A 66 A
7 A 27 D 47 B 67 C
8 C 28 D 48 C 68 B
9 D 29 C 49 A 69 A
10 C 30 D 50 D 70 A
11 C 31 D 51 D 71 C
12 D 32 B 52 B 72 D
13 B 33 B 53 A 73 A
14 D 34 C 54 A 74 B
15 A 35 C 55 D 75 D
16 C 36 B 56 C 76 C
17 C 37 C 57 B 77 A
18 C 38 D 58 B 78 D
19 B 39 A 59 D 79 B
20 D 40 B 60 A 80 B
PRACTICE TEST 20
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has different stress from the
rest.
Question 1: A. interrogate B. efficiency C. committee D. entertain
Question 2: A. manufacture B. apologize C. diagnosis D. preferential
pronounced differently from that of the other words.
Question 3: A. measure B. decision C. pressure D. pleasure
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Question 4: A. wicked B. booked C. laughed D. glanced

Question 5: A. application B. pharmacy C. photography D. extracurricular
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following
questions.
Question 6: Mr. Hopkins is going to have his old family mansion _______. The building lost its glamour
after his ancestors died several years ago.
A. recovered B. resumed C. restored D. revived
Question 7: James had, ________, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house.
A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least
Question 8: Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ________that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations
Question 9: Helium is not inflammable, ________therefore safer than hydrogen.
A. that is B. and is C. but is D. and it
Question 10: Is Jane getting married to Korean? - _______
A. I think B. I think not C. I don‘t think so D. I don‘t think that
Question 11: ― Is this sweater easy to care for?‖ – ―Being made of cashmere, ___ only. ‖
A. to be dry cleaned B. you can dry clean it C. being dry cleaned D. it can be dry cleaned
Question 12: A: ―A motorbike knocked Ted down. ‖ B: ― _________‖
A. What is it now? B. Poor Ted! C. How terrific! D. What a motorbike!
Question 13: A: ―How‘s life?‖ –B: ― ______‖
A. Sure B. Not too bad, but very busy C. Very well, thank you D. Pleased to meet you
Question 14: A: ―_________‖ B: ―Oh, It‘s great!‖
A. How is the music of the film like ? B. Would you like the music of the film?
C. What do you like the music of the film ? D. What do you think of the music of the film?
Question 15: It‘s a shame they didn‘t pick you, but it doesn‘t __________out the possibility that you
might get a job in a different department.
A. cancel B. strike C. rule D. draw
Question 16: He sat there with his arms __________doing nothing, waiting for us.
A. flapped B. folded C. turned D. twisted
Question 17: ______that increasing numbers of compact-disc players will be bought by consumers in the
years to come.
A. They are anticipated B. In anticipation C. Anticipating D. It is anticipated
Question 18: He opened the letter without __________to read the address on the envelope.
A. worrying B. caring C. fearing D. bothering
Question 19: The widely- publicized demonstration did not after all __________________
A. come off B. go off C. get on D. break out
Question 20: The floor was so rotten that it almost ___________ under his weight.
A. gave up B. gave away C. gave back D. gave way
Question 21: You ___ out yesterday without a coat. No wonder you caught cold.
A. shouldn‘t have gone B. haven‘t gone C. hadn‘t gone D. mustn‘t have gone
Question 22: On no account ____ in the office be used for personal materials.
A. the photocopy machines B. the photocopy machines should
C. should the photocopy machines D. does the photocopy machines
Question 23: He works for UNESCO in a purely ___________ role.
A. advisable B. advising C. advisory D. advice
Question 24: They showed a total __________for the local wildlife.
A. danger B. ignorance C. destruction D. disregard
Question 25: Such ………………. that we didn‘t want to go home.
A. a beautiful flower display B. a beautiful flower display was
C. beautiful the flower display was D. was a beautiful flower display
Question 26: She is not a teenager any more. She looks quite ______ now.
A. grown-up B. grown through C. overgrown D. outgrown
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Question 27: ______ in astronomy, the discovery of Uranus was by accident.

A. It was like many finds B. Like many finds C. Alike many finds D. Many alike finds
Question 28: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _____ it is at night, _____ he plays his music!
A. the less / the more loud B. the less / less
C. the more late / the more loudlier D. the later / the louder
Question 29: The chairman requested that .
A. The members studied more carefully the problem
B. The problem was more carefully studied
C. The members study the problem more carefully
D. With more carefulness the problem could be studied
Question 30: , ―Alice in the wonderland‖ appeals to many adult readers, too.
A. Though written for children B. It was written for children
C. Though for children written D. Though it written for children.
Question 31: Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for
physicists it bordered on the miraculous.
A. agility B. inflexibility C. adjustment D. flexibility
Question 32:The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnished D. renovated
Question 33: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital
Question 34: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
Question 35: There were so many members of the political party who had gone against the leader that he
resigned.
A. apposed B. insisted C. invited D. opposed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 36: It is essential that vitamins are supplied either by foods or by supplementary tablets for
A B C
normal growth to occur.
D
Question 37: Bacteria lives in the soil play a vital role in recycling the carbon and nitrogen needed by
plants
A B C D
Question 38: When the Panic of 1857, some US citizens who had been rich or comfortable became poor
A B
while a few others, capitalizing on economic shifts, became richer.
C D
Question 39: Every year, tornadoes cause a lot of damages to property and a tremendous loss of human
and animal life.
A B C
D
Question 40: Migrant workers live in substandard unsanitary and dilapidated housing and often are lacking
medical care. A B C D
word for each of the blanks from 41 to 50.
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these
radio waves might (41) _____ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence
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does not (42) _____ us to say with certainty that mobile phones are categorically (43) _____. On the other
hand, current research has not yet (44) _____ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of
mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (45) _____ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory
but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (46) _____, these studies are
preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.
(47) _____ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for
long (48) _____ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research
is in fact showing the (49) _____ and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people
(50) _____ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
Question 41: A. bring B. lead C. produce D. cause
Question 42: A. enable B. able C. let D. make
Question 43: A. unhealthy B. secure C. safe D. risky
Question 44: A. created B. demonstrated C. proved D. caused
Question 45: A. by B. on C. through D. about
Question 46: A. While B. Additionally C. However D. Though
Question 47: A. Until B. Provide C. When D. As
Question 48: A. quantities B. amounts C. periods D. intervals
Question 49: A. fact B. truth C. way D. opposite
Question 50: A. with B. that C. whose D. as
The development of genetically modified (GM) plants and animals had led to a huge global
controversy. Opponents say that GM ―Frankenfoods‖ are a threat to our well-being, and proponents say
that the risks are minimal. There is one aspect of the war over GM that is often overlooked. Anyone who
wears a cotton shirt these days is using a GM crop. Cotton is the only major non-food GM crop at present,
but others are coming.
GM cotton plants that is not food has not stopped the most passionate GM opponents from
objecting. If GM cotton is grown in a field next to fields of non-GM cotton, they argue, then how to keep
genes from being transferred from field to field. This danger, however, is not as compelling to the public
as possible health hazards in food, so there is no great fury over GM cotton.
GM cotton seeds produce higher yields, and they do without the need for pesticides. Planting of
GM cotton has increased fivefold since 1997; three-quarter of cotton in America, and over half in China,
is now GM. Farmers like it because it increases their profits.
Other options for non-food GM include new variety of flowers with different colors or scents,
tougher grasses for lawns, and plants designed to soak up pollutants from the soil. The paper industry
provides another example of potential for GM to help produce better and cheaper products. Paper is made
from pulp, and pulp is generally made from trees. Researchers in New Zealand and Chile have been
working on insect-resistant pines, and a Japanese firm has combined carrot genes with tree genes to make
them grow better in poor soil.
Another interesting case is that of tobacco. It is not food crop, but it is consumed, and GM tobacco
plants with both more and less nicotine have been created. The tobacco plant, however, is an ideal target
for GM, since its genetics are very well understood and it produces a lot of leaves. The value of the drugs
that could be produced by GM tobacco is so high, many farmers could switch from growing tobacco for
cigarettes to growing it for medicine. Since medical cost is rising, consumers would also be happy to use
drugs produced in bulk by GM tobacco.
Question 51: Why does the author mention a cotton shirt in paragraph 1?
A. To show that cotton is one of the most popular materials for clothing.
B. To give an example of a common GM product that is not a food.
C. To give an example of a controversy surrounding GM products.
D. To show that the risk of GM products are minimal.
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Question 52: The word ―that‖ in line 3 refers to ______

A. war B. aspect C. GM D. risk
Question 53: The word ―compelling‖ in line 10 is closest in meaning to ______
A. interesting B. annoying C. dangerous D. obvious
Question 54: Which country plants the most GM cotton mentioned in the passage?
A. America B. Japan C. Chile D. China
Question 55: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. GM cotton is less controversial than other GM products.
B. There are several major non-food GM products at present.
C. There have been no objection to GM cotton.
D. GM cotton has no significant advantage over controversial cotton.
Question 56: Which options for non-food GM is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. flowers B. grass C. tobacco D. rubber
Question 57: According to the passage, why are researchers developing GM trees?
A. To improve or make paper less expensive.
B. To produce more fruit.
C. To find a way to make paper without pulp.
D. To replace trees cut down for paper.
Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that GM tobacco ______
A. is already in the market.
B. produces drugs that are very expensive.
C. makes cigarettes harmless to smokers.
D. can have lower or higher levels of nicotine.
Question 59: What is the topic of the paragraph?
A. Controversial GM products. B. The hazards of GM products.
C. Non-food GM products. D. GM cotton and tobacco.
Question 60: The word ‖switch‖ in the last paragraph can best be replaced by _______
A. select B. plant C. change D. replace
answer to each of the questions from 61to 70.
Long ago prehistoric man began to domesticate a number of wild plants and animals for his own
use. This not only provided more abundant food but also allowed more people to live on a smaller plot of
ground. We tend to forget that all of our present-day pets, livestock, and food plants were taken from the
wild and developed into the forms we know today.
As centuries passed and human cultures evolved and blossomed, humans began to organize their
knowledge of nature into the broad field of natural history. One aspect of early natural history concerned
the use of plants for drugs and medicine. The early herbalists sometimes overworked their imaginations in
this respect. For example, it was widely believed that a plant or part of a plant that resembles an internal
organ would cure ailments of that organ, Thus, an extract made from a heart-shaped leaf might be
prescribed for a person suffering from heart problems.
Nevertheless, the overall contributions of these early observers provided the rudiments of our
present knowledge of drugs and their uses.
Question 61: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Cures from plants. B. The beginning of natural history.
C. Prehistoric man. D. Early plants and animals.
Question 62: Domestication of plants and animals probably occurred because of ______.
A. need for more readily available food B. lack of wild animals and plants
C. early mans power as a hunter D. the desire of prehistoric man to be nomadic
Question 63: The word ―This‖ in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. providing food for man
B. man‘s domestication of plants and animals
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C. mans ability to live on a small plot of land

D. the earliest condition of prehistoric man
Question 64: The word ―blossomed‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. produced flowers B. changed C. learned D. flourished
Question 65: An herbalist is which of the following?
A. A dreamer. B. An early historian.
C. Someone who uses plants in medicine. D. A farmer.
Question 66: The phrase ―in this respect‖ in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. the development of human culture B. the development of the field of natural history
C. the use of plants for drugs and medicine D. the origin of knowledge of nature
Question 67: The word ―extract‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. design B. substance C. flavour D. ailment
Question 68: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The shape of a plant is indicative of its ability to cure ailments of a similarly shaped organ.
B. There is little relation between a cure for illness and the physical shape of a plant.
C. The work of early herbalists has nothing to do with present day medicine.
D. Early herbalists were unimaginative.
Question 69: The word ―rudiments‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. beginnings B. history C. requirements D. proofs
Question 70: The passage would most likely lead to a more specific discussion in the field of _____.
A. zoology B. biology C. anatomy D. astrology
Choose one option A, B, C or D corresponding to the sentence which has the same meaning as the original
one.
Question 71: Peter is very different from what he used to be.
A. Peter has changed a lot. B. Peter changes a lot.
C. Peter looks very different. D. Peter has been very different.
Question 72: The accident wasn't her fault because her car was stationary at the time.
A. You can't blame her for not moving when the accident occurred.
B. She wasn't responsible for the accident since it took place after she'd stopped.
C. She was too slow at stopping the car in time to avoid the accident.
D. As her car wasn't moving when the accident happened, she wasn't to blame for it.
Question 73: In Japan, as in Turkey, it is unthinkable to enter a house wearing shoes.
A. The Japanese and the Turks are culturally very similar, an example of which is not wearing shoes
inside.
B. Nobody even considers going into a home with shoes on in Japan, and this custom is the same in
Turkey.
C. What the Turks appreciate about the Japanese is that, like them, they too don't like wearing shoes in the
house.
D. Japan and Turkey are exactly the same, even to the point that shoes are not worn in the house.
Question 74: Taking photographs inside the museum is strictly forbidden.
A. We were only able to take photos of the museum's exterior.
B. It's not advisable to try to bring a camera into the museum.
C. People are not allowed to photograph the interior of the museum.
D. No one has ever taken a photo inside the museum.
Question 75: Of the people interviewed, all were in favour of the government proposal.
A. No one was interviewed unless they thought the government's proposal was advantageous.
B. They only interviewed people who were positive about the government's proposal.
C. Only the people who weren't interviewed were against the government's proposal.
D. Everyone who was interviewed thought that the government's proposal was a good idea.
Question 76: There had been prior warning of the flood; nevertheless, it came as a shock to the people
living in remote villages.
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A. Even though the flood had been predicted, inhabitants of isolated villages were taken by surprise by it.
B. There had been warnings about the flood, so the people in isolated villages must not have been
surprised by it.
C. The flood had been predicted, so even those people living in isolated villages were prepared for it.
D. The flood had been predicted, yet the people in isolated villages were struck before they received the
warnings.
Question 77: It isn't just that the level of education of this school is high, it's that it's also been consistent
for years.
A. The level of education in this school, which is usually quite high, shows only slight variations from
year to year.
B. The standard of education is not high in this school, but at least all the students are at the same level.
C. Not only are the standards of education good in this school, but it has maintained those standards over
the years.
D. It isn't fair to deny that this school is successful, as it has had the same high standards for many years
now.
Question 78: As opposed to being beneficial, too much sleep can actually lower a person's performance.
A. Sleeping a little more than necessary can greatly improve one's health.
B. An excess of sleep may be worse for a person rather than better.
C. People who are very active feel the benefit of rest more than those who aren't.
D. If a person is really tired, it is better for him to sleep a little more than he really needs.
Question 79: So far, thanks to the fine weather, the project has gone according to schedule.
A. There hasn't yet been any bad weather to cause a change in the project's schedule.
B. Unless the weather turns in our favour, trying to keep to the schedule is far from being realistic.
C. The plans could not have gone ahead so quickly if they hadn't been helped by good weather.
D. The project can only proceed as scheduled if the climate permits.
Question 80: I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
B. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
KEY TO PRACTICE 20

1 D 21 A 41 B 61 D
2 B 22 C 42 A 62 A
3 C 23 C 43 C 63 B
4 A 24 D 44 C 64 D
5 A 25 D 45 B 65 C
6 C 26 A 46 C 66 C
7 D 27 B 47 A 67 B
8 C 28 D 48 C 68 B
9 B 29 C 49 D 69 A
10 C 30 A 50 C 70 B
11 D 31 C 51 B 71 A
12 B 32 D 52 B 72 D
13 B 33 D 53 A 73 B
14 D 34 D 54 A 74 C
15 C 35 D 55 B 75 D
16 B 36 A 56 D 76 A
17 D 37 A 57 A 77 C
18 B 38 A 58 D 78 B
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19 A 39 B 59 C 79 A
20 D 40 D 60 C 80 A
PRACTICE TEST 21
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. faces B. horses C. houses D. places
Câu 2: A. leisure B. measure C. pleasure D. failure
Câu 3: A. mysterious B. historical C. heritage D. particular
Câu 4:A. applicant B. category C. eventually D. shortcoming
Câu 5: A. inhabitant B. compulsory C. interview D. contribute
questions.
Câu 6: They gave ___________ an application form and asked us to fill it.
A. we each B. each of we C. each us D. us each
Câu 7: ___________ improperly, the device doesn‘t work.
A. Installing B. Being installed C. Installed D. Having installed
Câu 8: I won‘t change my mind _________ what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Câu 9: (Mrs. Brown to her neighbor): I'm very happy because my daughter, who is studying abroad,
___________ me next weekend. She has just phoned me.
A. is going to visit B. will visit C. is visiting D. visits
Câu 10: The number of the people who __________ cars __________ increasing.
A. own/are B. owns/ are C. owns/is D. own/is
Câu 11: These ___________ boots belong to Jim.
A. leather riding red B. red leather riding C. red riding leather D. leather red riding
Câu 12: Consequently, 12-year-old Charles was sent to work in a factory.
“Consequently” means ___________.
A. Of course B. As a result C. In the end D. Unfortunately
Câu 13: ___________ that I could hardly hear her.
A. succeed B. So quietly did she speak
C. So quietly she speak D. She spoke so quiet
Câu 14: Scientists believe the first inhabitants of the Americans arrived by crossing the land bridge that
connected Siberia and __________ more than 10,000 years ago.
A. Alaska is now B. what is now Alaska C. is now Alaska D. this is Alaska now
Câu 15: Tuition fees in public schools are often __________ those in state schools.
A. twice as higher as B. twice as high as
C. higher twice than B. as high as twice
Câu 16: In front of us _________ with a beard and blue eyes.
A. is standing a big man B. a big man is standing
C. is a big man standing D. stand a big man
Câu 17: __________ today, we would put off the match till next Monday.
A. Were it rained B. Were it to rain C. If it would rain D. Had it rained.
Câu 18: Employers are not allowed to discriminate against an applicant because of their social or financial
_________.
A. past B. history C. precedent D. background
Câu 19: His sister was full of ___________ for the way in which he so quickly learned to drive a car.
A. jealousy B. surprise C. admiration D. pride
Câu 20: It was very __________ of him to leave his little son alone at home.
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A. responsible B. irresponsible C. responsibility D. unresponsible

Câu 21: Money is the main cause of many ___________ in his family.
A. compliment B. disputes C. arguments D. leftovers
Câu 22: Doctors and nurses have to work ___________a night shift at least once a week.
A. in B. on C. for D. of
Câu 23: It is a ___________ ruler.
A. two-feet-long B. two-foot-long C. two feet long D. two long foot
Câu 24: I was just walking across the street when I ___________ someone I hadn‘t seen for years.
A. came off B. came by C. came across D. came over
Câu 25. While Tom is traveling around the world, he often………. enough local languages to get by.
gets in B. takes off C. puts up D. picks up
Câu 26: A: ―Shall we go out tonight?‖ B: ___________‖
A. You are welcome. B. What a great idea!
C. That‘s understandable. D. No, we shan‘t.
Câu 27: A: ―May you have all the happiness in your marriage!‖ B: ―__________‖
A. That‘s a good idea. B. Thanks. It is very kind of you to say so.
C. I think so. D. You are welcome.
Câu 28: A: " Thanks for your help, Judy. " B: " ___________. "
A. Never remind me B. With all my heart C. Wish you D. It‘s my pleasure
Câu 29. ―Do you know that this house is haunted?‖ ―…………. ‖
Who was haunted? C. Where on earth have you been?
Yes I would. Go ahead. D. Haunted? You are pulling my leg!
Câu 30. ―Why did you leave the dog outside last night?‖ ―…………………. ‖
For a good answer
To fill in the gaps
I was not going to but I think it enjoyed it
Because our neighbor complained this morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in
Câu 31. Crime frequently increases during periods of social upheaval
A. ruin B. unrest C. havoc D. trends
Câu 32. Around 150 B. C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify
Câu 33. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. congratulate B. respect C. welcome D. encourage
Câu 34. The classroom was chaotic once the teacher left the room.
A. Confused B. messy C. Entertaining D. orderly
Câu 35. There are substantial differences between two spies
A. slight B. amazing C. considerable D. difficult to explain
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blank.
An American professor who studied the Mayas has come up with a new theory about the sudden end of
their empire. (36)_____ to Professor Richard Hansen, an archaeologist at the University of California, the
(37)_____ of the Mayan civilization in central American was (38)_____ about by the Mayans themselves.
Their object was to display their (39)_____ and power by making their buildings and decoration as
beautiful as possible. This involved using large quantities of lime, which they put on the walls to make
them smooth. (40)_____, the creation of lime is a process which requires intense heat, and they therefore
had to cut down huge numbers of trees. This (41)_____ the quality of the soil, and it became almost
impossible to farm.
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Professor Hansen, who has just returned from an excavation in the El Mirador region of northern
Guatemala, told a meeting of archaeologists in Philadelphia that the Mayas, having made this mistake in
the 3rd century, repeated it 600 years later, at which time it proved fatal. Increasing food (42)_____ among
the Mayas created a Central American equivalent of the Peloponnesian War which ravaged (43)_____
Greece. However, (44____ the Greek civil war, which only lasted for 27 years, the Mayas wars went on
for many centuries and left many of their great cities and temples in (45)___
Câu 36. A. Respecting B. Referring C. Relating D. According
Câu 37. A. stop B. crash C. collapse D. drop
Câu 38. A. made B. turned C. came D. brought
Câu 39. A. wealth B. cash C. fortune D. salary
Câu 40. A. suddenly B. Unfortunately C. particularly D. gradually
Câu 41. A. influenced B. poisoned C. affected D. effected
Câu 42. A. failures B. droughts C. lack D. shortages
Câu 43. A. past B. ancient C. old D. antique
Câu 44. A. unless B. apart C. without D. unlike
Câu 45. A. spoils B. ruins C. injuries D. damaged
With a GPS receiver, you need never be lost again. Whether you are driving in a new city or
climbing a mountain path, you can use GPS (Global Positioning System) to find out exactly where you
are. In recent years, the development of very small and inexpensive receivers has made possible all kinds
of other uses. Many cars now come equipped with GPS receivers and computerized maps to show where
you are. Parents or pet owners put receivers on their children or their dogs so they cannot be lost.
However, what makes GPS so useful – the way it allows us to keep track of people and things – could also
make it dangerous if it is used for the wrong purposes. Some organizations that are concerned about rights
to privacy have argued that there should be limits to who can use GPS and for what purpose. In the United
States, several cases have been brought to court to question the right of the government or private
companies to track people ―without their knowledge‖.
One important case came up in 2003 before the Supreme Court in the state of Washington. Under
American laws protecting the right to privacy, the government or the police are not allowed to investigate
a person‘s private life if there is no evidence that he or she has committed a crime. In the Washington
case, the police had wanted to learn more about the habits of a man they suspected, so they hid a GPS
receiver in his car. Lawyers for the suspect argued that this was illegal because it went against his right to
privacy. The Washington Supreme Court agreed. In their view, hiding a GPS receiver in a car was like
putting an invisible police officer in the back seat. This was acceptable practice only if the police already
had evidence that the suspect had been involved in a crime and if they had permission from a judge.
Otherwise, it could not be used.
In 2005, another interesting case involving GPS was brought before the Supreme Court in
Connecticut. This vase involved a rental car company that decided to use GPS technology to prevent
customers from driving their cars too fast. They hid GPS receivers in all their rental cars, which allowed
them to know where each car was at any time. The receivers could also be used to calculate the speed at
which a car moved from one place to another. If the car was driven faster than 80 miles per hour (120
km/hour), the driver was charged an extra $150. Though the rental contract did mention GPS in very small
print, customers were not told about it or about the extra charge. One customer who was charged $450 for
speeding three times became very angry and he decided to bring the rental company to court. In his view,
the rental company had used GPS to spy on him illegally and the charges were unfair. The Connecticut
Supreme Court agreed that this use of GPS was not acceptable and told the rental company to return the
$450. According to the judges, the rental company should have informed the driver about the existence of
a GPS receiver in the car and about the speeding charge.
Câu 46. The passage is written to…………
advertise GPS
describe the use of GPS and its controversial issues
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explain how GPS works

describe the development of GPS
Câu 48. GPS is used to locate………..
people B. things C. moving objects D. A & B
Câu 49. According to the passage, the wrong use of GPS is………
expensive B. dangerous C. concerned D. lost
Câu 50. Some of organizations are concerned that the use of GPS in some cases may violate……….
privacy B. limits C. human rights D. legal purpose
Câu 51. The phrase ―without their knowledge‖ means…………
they don‘t have knowledge about it
they don‘t understand it
they are not informed of its existence
they are thankful to it
Câu 52. The word ―case‖ in the first line of the second paragraph refers to…………
a container B. a court case C. a pillow case D. a situation
Câu 53. According to the passage, the word ―privacy‖ can be used interchangeably with…………
public life C. private life
personal problems D. criminal life
Câu 54. According to the Washington Supreme Court, hiding a GPS receiver to investigate a person‘s
habit without prior evidence that he had been involved in a crime is…………
useful B. hard C. acceptable D. illegal
Câu 55. The Connecticut Supreme Court thought that hiding a GPS receiver in the car without the
customer‘s knowing it is………
understandable B. informal C. unfair D. unacceptable
Câu 56. The word ―they‖ in line 4 of the last paragraph refers to………..
customers C. police
rental car company D. the Supreme court Connecticut
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in
the United Stases before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American
homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit
with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome- a dish of fish oil or other animal or
vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal
underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was
expensive. In 1830 a new substance called ―camphene‖ was patented, and it proved to be an remained
expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850 it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States
was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for
producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high that
until mid- century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public buildings for the
wealthy. In 1854 a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like mineral
found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil that he called
―kerosene‖ (from ―keros‖, the Greek word for wax, and ―ene‖ because it resembled camphene). Kerosene,
though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But
Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of North American
mines.
Câu 57. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become necessary
by the mind- nineteenth century?
A. development of railroads B. demand for better medical facilities
C. increases in the number of new factories D. growth of cities
Câu 58. The phrase “served as” inline 5 is closest meaning to __________.
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A. differed from B. functioned as C. rested upon D. reacted to

Câu 59. The word “this” in line 7 refers to __________.
A. lard B. charcoal C. wick D. oil
Câu 60. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of camphene?
A. high cost B. bad smell C. potential to explode D. greasy texture
Câu 61. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the paragraph?
A. It was first developed in the United States.
B. It was not allowed to be used in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid- century.
D. It had an unpleasant smell.
Câu 62. The word “resembled” in line 16 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. was similar to B. cost the same as C. was made from D. sounded like
Câu 63. According to the passage, what advantage did the kerosene patented by Gesner have over
camphene?
A. Kerosene had a more pleasant smell. B. Kerosene was less expensive.
C. Kerosene burned more brightly. D. Kerosene was safer to use.
Câu 64. The word “it” in line 17 refers to__________.
A. fortune B. odor C. camphene D. kerosene
Câu 65. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order
B. a comparison of two events
C. an analysis of scientific findings
D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
Câu 66. Where in the passage does the author mention the origin of a word?
A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 7-8 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 13-16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Câu 67. A number of novelists submitted their manuscripts under pseudonyms to conceal the fact that
A B C
there were women.
D
Câu 68. Although a doctor may be able to diagnose a problem perfectly, he still may not be able to
A B C
find a drug which the patient will respond.
D
Câu 69. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and
A B C
policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.
D
Câu 70. It is essential that vitamins are supplied either by foods or by supplementary tablets for
A B C
normal growth to occur.
D
Câu 71. Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.
A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.
B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.
C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.
Câu 72. You won‘t be allowed in until your identity has been checked.
A. It is not until your identity has been checked will you be allowed in.
B. Not until your identity has been checked that you will be allowed in
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C. You will be allowed in unless your identity has been checked.

D. Only when your identity has been checked will you be allowed in.
Câu 73. You‘d be welcome to join us if you changed your mind.
A. You didn‘t change your mind, so we weren‘t welcome to join you.
B. If it were not for your mind, you had been welcome to join us.
C. We are welcome to join you unless you change your mind.
D. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcome to join us
Câu 74. The thing that impressed me more than anything else was your generosity.
A. Your generosity impresssed me more than anything else.
B. It is your generosity that I impressed more than anything else.
C. All what I impressed more than anything else was your generosity.
D. Your generosity makes me impressed more than anything else.
Câu 75. She said ―How pleasant! Jane comes to dinner with us‖
A. She said with joyfully that Jane came to dinner with us.
B. She cried joyfully that Jane came to dinner with them.
C. She was very delightedly that Jane came to dinner with them.
D. She said that it is pleasant because Jane comes to dinner with them.
Câu 76. He applied for the job abroad because he wanted to earn more money.
A. With a view of earning more money, he applied for the job abroad.
B. He applied for a job abroad in order to he could earn more money.
C. So as to earn more money, he applies for a job abroad.
D. To earn more money was the reason why he applied for a job abroad.
Câu 77. I had an irresistible urge to buy the painting because it was very impressive.
A. The painting was too impressive for me to buy it.
B. It was so impressive a painting that I had an irresistible urge to buy it.
C. So impressive was the painting that I had an irresistible urge to buy.
D. It was such an impressive painting that I had an irresistible urge to buy.
Câu 78. It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow‘s budget.
A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow‘s budget.
B. They expected that tax will be increased in tomorrow‘s budget.
C. Tax increases is expected to announced in tomorrow‘s budget.
D. They expect that tax increases are announced in tomorrow‘s budget
Câu 79. The college was closed for a month. It was the the summer holidays.
A. The college was closed for a month as a result of the summer holidays.
B. The college was closed for a month as a result of that it was the summer holidays.
C. The college was closed for a month owing the fact of the summer holidays.
D. The college was closed for a month because the summer holidays.
Câu 80. We hadn't been out all day. We decided to go to the cinema.
A. As a result of that we hadn't been out all day, we decided to go to the cinema.
B. Owing to the fact we hadn't been out all day, we decided to go to the cinema.
C. Owing to the fact that we hadn't been out all day, we decided to go to the cinema.
D. Because the fact we hadn't been out all day, we decided to go to the cinema.
KEY TO PRACTICE 21

1 C 21 C 41 C 61 C
2 D 22 B 42 D 62 A
3 C 23 B 43 B 63 B
4 C 24 C 44 D 64 D
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5 C 25 D 45 B 65 A
6 D 26 B 46 B 66 D
7 C 27 B 47 D 67 D
8 B 28 D 48 B 68 D
9 C 29 D 49 B 69 B
10 D 30 C 50 A 70 A
11 B 31 B 51 C 71 C
12 B 32 C 52 B 72 D
13 B 33 B 53 C 73 D
14 B 34 D 54 D 74 A
15 B 35 A 55 D 75 B
16 A 36 D 56 B 76 D
17 B 37 C 57 B 77 B
18 D 38 D 58 B 78 A
19 C 39 A 59 D 79 A
20 B 40 B 60 D 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 22
position of the main stress in each of the following questions
1. A. support B. satisfied C. concern D. religious
2. A. chemical B. comfortable C. resistant D. champion
3. A. effective B. impressive C. luxury D. foundation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced
differently from that of the other three words in each of the following questions
4. A. expression B. assure C. success D. reassure
5. A. cheeky B. parachute C. chocolate D. chopstick
questions
6. Over the last few months garages _________ the price of petrol three times.
A. have risen B. have put up C. raised D. have gone up
7. I‘m sorry, but the director ______the office.
A. already left B. has left C. had left D. is leaving
8. The children are so looking forward to the holiday, they can _______ wait.
A. never B. hardly C. rarely D. seldom
9. He fells that his book may make people more aware _______ the role our emotions play in everyday
life.
A. of B. with C. about D. in
10. If it_________ their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for B. hadn‘t been C. hadn‘t been for D. would have been for
11. It is probably impossible for life to ever exist on Venus_________ its intense surface heat.
A. because B. in spite of C. although D. because of
12. It‘s your own fault. You_________ them to go out on their own; they are still new here.
A. mustn‘t have allowed B. can‘t allow C. shouldn‘t allow D. shouldn‘t have allowed
13. ______, the young woman was visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Despite tired B. Though tired C. Tired although she was D. She was tired
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14. Before anyone steps on that stage, you _________ make sure it‘s secure.
A. would better B. had better C. would rather D would prefer to
15. Part-time workers at the company are the first_______.
A. that is laid off B. who lay off C. being laid off D. to be laid off
16. A man in his forties often begins to think about________ the would and not just about himself.
A. making a contribution to B. contribution C. contributing D. making contribution
17. Some learners of English have_______ ideas in writing.
A. trouble expressing B. difficult in expressing C. problems with D. difficulty to express
18. Corporations have been donating more and more to________
A. the needy B. the need C. the needy people D. the needed
19. Don‘t________ to conclusions, we don‘t yet know all the relevant facts.
A. run B. rush C. jump D. hurry
20. I wasn‘t properly dressed for the party and felt________ about my appearance
A. embarrass B. embarrassment C. embarrassing D. embarrassed
21. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ___________ of his crime
A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance
22. It was so foggy that the drivers couldn‘t ________ the traffic signs
A. make out B. break out C. keep out D. take out
23. The Smiths are not very responsible parents, they don‘t _________ their children very well.
A. take care B. take after C. look after D. look for
24. Peter and Julie had to_______ their farewell party until next weekend because of the awful weather.
A. put off B. pick up C. put aside D. cancel
25. What my grandfather said 10 years ago about my future career _________to be true.
A. turned down to B. turning in to C. turned out to D. turned up
26. ―Could I speak to Alex, please?‖ - ―________‖
A. This is Joe speaking B. Can I take a message?
C. Just a moment. I‘m coming D. I‘m sorry, Alex is not in
27. ―It was very kind of you to help me out, John‖ – ―________‖
A. You can say that again B. I‘m glad you like it
C. That was the least I could do D. Thanks a million
28. Tom: ―Have you decided when you‘ll leave?‖ Jerry: ―Not exactly, but I think the
sooner,_________‖
A. the better B. is better C. is the better D. the best
29. –―________‖ - ―Unfortunately, I didn‘t‖
A. Did you forget to lock the door this morning? B. Can you pick me up from the airport?
C. Did you install any anti-virus software? D. Have you bought any anti-virus software?
30. –―Would you mind closing the window?‖ - ―______‖
A. Yes, certainly B. yes, I would do. Go ahead C. Not at all. I will close it now D. Yes, very
soon
31. New York is a very unusual city
A. common B. nice C. good D. famous
32. French people wanted to show their friendship with American people
A. enmity B. antagonism C. disloyalty D. detachment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
33. We offer a very competitive rate for parcels of under 15kg.
A. effective B. emulative C. adjective D. active
34. Every woman who has enough criteria can join the beauty contest irrespective of their background.
A. regardless of B. must have gone C. was D. can have gone
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35. The abominable custom of women sacrificing themselves with the pyres of their dead husbands was
abolished during the right of William Bentinck.
A. social B. sacred C. disgusting D. moral
British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time glued to the telly and not
enough time on other activities ___(36)__ sports and reading. A survey recently ___(37)__ on people‘s
viewing habits does not disprove this. It shows that young people in Britain spend on average 23 hours a
week in front of the television ___(38)__ works out at over hours everyday.
___(39)__ is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even more: an incredible 28
hours a week. We ___(40)__ to have become a nation of addicts. Just about every household in the
country has a television and over half have two or more. According to the survey, people nowadays don‘t
just watch television sitting in their living-rooms, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed ___(41)__
The Education Minister said a few weeks ago that Britain‘s pupils ___(42)__ spend more time reading.
Unfortunately, parents are not setting a good example: adults do___(43)__ reading than young people. In
fact, reading is at the ___(44)__ of their list of favoring pastimes. They would ___(45)__ listen to the
radio, go to the cinema or hire a video to watch on their televisions at home
36. A. such B. like C. as D. alike
37. A. investigate B. researched C. carried D. carried out
38. A. that B. which C. this D. it
39. A. What B. It C. The thing D. This
40. A. seem B. ought C. used D. would like
41. A. in addition B. as well C. more D. moreover
42. A. might B. could C. should D. would
43. A. more B. less C. little D. fewer
44. A. tail B. top C. beginning D. bottom
45. A. better B. rather C. prefer D. like
word for each of the questions from 46 to 55
Life on mars: Does it exist?
In 1976, two American spacecraft landed on Mars in order to search for signs of life. The tests that the
Viking landers performed had negative results. However, scientists still have questions about our close
neighbour in space. They want to investigate further into the possibility of life on Mars.
Scientists‘ interest in the Red Planet is based on an assumption. They believe that 4. 5 billion years
ago, Mars and Earth began their existence under similar conditions. During the first billion years, liquid
water – in contrast to ice – was abundant on the surface of Mars. This is an indication that Mars was much
warmer at that time. Mars also had a thicker atmosphere of carbon dioxide (CO2). Many scientists think it
is possible that life began under these favourable conditions. After all, Earth had the same conditions
during its first billion years, when life arose. At some point in time, Earth developed an atmosphere which
is rich in oxygen and an ozone layer. Ozone (O3) is a form of oxygen. The ozone layer protects the Earth
from harmful ultraviolet light from the sun. While life not only began on Earth, it also survived and
became more complex. In contrast, Mars lost its thick atmosphere of carbon dioxide. Ultraviolet radiation
intensified. The planet eventually grew colder and its water froze)…)
Scientist believe there are other areas on mars that are similar to specific places on Earth which
support life. For example, an area in Antarctica, southern Victoria Land, which is not covered by ice,
resembles an area on mars. In its dry valleys, the temperature in southern Victoria land averages below
zero, yet biologists found simple life forms (microorganisms) in rocks and frozen lakes. Perhaps this is
also true of places on Mars.
Scientists want another investigation of Mars. They want to search for fossils, the ancient remains
of life. if life ever existed on mars, future missions may find records of it under sand or in the ice.
Even if future missions discover no evidence of past or present life on mars, the new missions may
clarify our understanding of how life begins. Scientists will better understand the conditions that are
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necessary for the survival of life – on earth or in the universe. They will look for the answers to other
intriguing questions. How is the Earth different from mars? How can we explain the development of life
here on our planet and not on Mars, our close neighbor? Are we alone in the universe?
46. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Two spacecraft looked for evidence of life on mars, but they were unsuccessful
B. Scientists are interested in the possibility that there is or wad life on Mars.
C. Mars is quite similar to Earth but there is no form of life on it.
D. Scientists are interested in how Mars is different from the Earth.
47. The phrase ― our close neighbour in space‖ refers to_______
A. the Viking spacecraft B. the Sun C. Mars D. people living on Mars
48. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Mars is much older than Earth
B. The Earth is much older than Mars
C. Mars and the Earth are the same age
D. Mars was much warmer than Earth during the first billion years
49. According to paragraph 2, what form does the water on Mars have today?
A. liquid B. solid C. gas D. we don‘t know
50. What do CO2 and O3 in paragraph present?
A. chemical symbols B. abbreviations C. amount of gases D. the elements of the atmosphere
51. According to paragraph 4, what are fossils?
A. a source of fuel B. a part of natural resources
C. the ancient remains of life D. the ancient remains of Martians
52. What is the purpose of the dash (--) as used in the last paragraph?
A. to add extra information B. to give a definition
C. to give an explanation or example D. to connect two sentences
53. In the beginning, Earth and Mars were similar in that_________
A. liquid water was abundant on their surface B. their atmosphere was rich in oxygen
C. simple forms of life arose on both planets D. they both lost their thick atmosphere of carbon
dioxide
54. Which of the following is true?
A. American spacecraft discovered life on Mars in 1976.
B. Scientists do not want to investigate life on Mars any more
C. Scientists believe there is liquid water on mars now
D. Scientist believe they may find ancient remains of life on mars under sand or ice.
55. According to the passage, in the future scientists want to look for_____
A. evidence of past and present life on Mars
B. the conditions necessary for the survival of life on Mars
C. the explanation for the development of life on earth but not on Mars
D. the answers to the environment problems
word for each of the questions from 56 to 65
Dissociative identity disorder is a psychological condition in which a person‘s identity dissociated, or
fragments, thereby creating distinct independent identities within one individual. Each separate
personality can e distinction from the other personalities in a number of ways, including posture, manner
of moving, tone and pitch of voice, gestures, facial expressions and use of language. A person suffering
from dissociative identity disorder may have a large number of independent personalities or perhaps only
two or three.
Two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder have been extensively
recounted in books and films that are familiar to the public. One of them is the story of a woman with 22
separate personalities know as Eve. In the 1950s, a book by Corbett Thigpen and a motion picture starring
Joanne Woodward, each of which was titled The three faces of Eve, presented her story; the title referred
to three faces, when the woman known as Eve actually experienced 22 different personalities, because
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only 3 of the personalities could exist at one time. Two decades later, Carolyn Sizemore, Eve‘s 22 nd
personalities, wrote about her experiences in a book entitled I‟m Eve. The second well-known story of a
woman suffering from dissociative identity disorder is the story of Sybil, a woman whose 16 distinct
personalities emerged over a period of 40 years. A book describing Sybil‘s experiences was written by
Flora Rreta Schreiber and was published in 1973; a motion picture based on the book and tarring Sally
Field followed.
56. It is NNT stated in paragraph 1 that someone suffering from dissociative identity disorder
has________
A. a psychological condition B. a fragmented identity
C. a number of independent identities D. some violent and some nonviolent identities
57. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that distinct personalities can differ in all of the following ways
except_______
A manner of dressing B. manner of moving C. manner of speaking D. manner of gesturing
58. The word recounted in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to________
A. told about B. counted again C. explained clearly D. illustrated
59. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to_____________
A the two women suffering from dissociative identity disorder
B. the two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder
C. a book and a film about the women
D. the personalities that the two women have
60. It is indicated in paragraph 2 that it is NOT true that Eve_______
A. suffered from dissociative identity disorder B. starred in the movie about her life
C. had 22 distinct personalities D. had only 3 distinct personalities at any one time
61. It is NOT stated in paragraph that The three Faces of Eve___________
A. was based on the life of a real girl B. was the title of a book
C. was the title of a movie D. was made into a movie in 1950
62. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about Carolyn Sizemore EXCEPT that
she____________
A. wrote I‟m Eve B. was one of Eve‘s personalities
C. wrote the book in the 1970s D. was familiar with all 22 personalities
63. According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that Sybil_________
A. was a real person
B. suffered from dissociative identity disorder
C. developed all her personalities over 16 years
D. developed 16 distinctive personalities over a long period of time
64. It is NOT indicated in paragraph 2 that the book describing Sybil‘s experiences_____
A. took 40 years to write B. was written by Flora Rheta Schreiber
C. appeared in the 1970s D. was made into a movie
65. Which of the following is true about Eve and Sybil?
A. One of them wrote a book about their own experiences during one of their many personalities
B. I‟m Eve is a book written about Sybil‘s story
C. All the books about Eve‘s and Sybil‘s stories were made into films
D. They were the only two women who suffered from dissociative identity disorder
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions
66. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group
A B C D
67. If they took their language lessons seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now
A B C D
68.. Science with its invention and discoveries have revolutionized man‘s life
A B C D
69. If someone feels faint, you should have him lied flat, keep his head low, make you him breathe deeply.
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A B C D
70. Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home
A B C D
position of the main stress in each of the following questions
71. The plane couldn‘t take off because of the heavy rain.
A. The heavy rain prevented the plane from landing
B. It is impossible for the plane to take off in the heavy rain.
C. The heavy rain made impossible for the plane to take off
D. The heavy rain stopped the plane from taking off
72. As he earned more money, Mike bought more clothes.
A. When Mike earned a lot of money, he bought more and more clothes.
B. The more money Mike earned, the better clothes he bought.
C. The most money Mike earned, the most clothes he bought.
D. The more money Mike earned, the more clothes he bought.
73.. ―Why don‘t you reply to the offer of the Microsoft cooperation right now?‖ said Joanne to her
husband.
A. Joanne ordered her husband to accept the offer of the Microsoft cooperation right away.
B. Joanne suggested to her husband that he should respond to the offer of the Microsoft cooperation
without delay.
C. Joanne complained about her husband because he didn‘t reply to the offer of the Microsoft cooperation
early.
D. Joanne wondered why her husband responded to the offer of the Microsoft cooperation so late.
74.. The driver survived the car crash because he was wearing a seatbelt when the accident happened
A. The accident occurred because the driver was trying to wear the seat belt while driving
B. When the car crashed, the driver was going to wear the seatbelt.
C. The driver would not have survived if he hadn‘t worn the seatbelt.
D. The driver didn‘t wear the seatbelt until the accident happened
75. ―If I were you, I would try to finish the pre- lab report before carrying out the experiment‖ said the
professor to his research student.
A. The professor advised his student to try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the experiment.
B. The professor complained that his student didn‘t finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.
C. The professor told his student that he wished he could finish the pre-lab report before carrying out his
experiment.
D. The professor regretted that his student didn‘t try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out his
experiment.
76. If I had known about their wedding plan earlier, I would have been able to make time to attend the
reception party.
A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the reception party
B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the reception party.
C. I don‘t know their wedding plan earlier so I can‘t make time to attend their reception party.
D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the reception party.
77. Neither Sherwin nor we like the Green brothers.
A. The Green brothers like neither us nor Sherwin.
B. The Greens don‘t like Sherwin and us.
C. We like the Green brothers but Sherwin doesn‘t
D. Sherwin and we all dislike the Green brothers.
78. When they arrived at the railway station, the train had left.
A. They got the railway station while the train was leaving
B. The train left earlier than scheduled
C. They were late for the train
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D. The train left as soon as they got to the station

79. I have painted my bedroom wall three times, but I can still see the old color underneath.
A. The original color of my bedroom wall is still visible despite 3 times of painting.
B. Can you see the first color of the bedroom wall after I painted it the third time?
C. The original color of my bedroom wall is invisible after I painted it the third time.
D. Three times of painting makes my bedroom wall come back to its color underneath
80. They have been trying to sell their house before, but no one is interested.
A. They don‘t want to sell the house any more
B. No one in the family is interested in buying and selling houses.
C. No one wants to buy their house
D. No one in the family really wanted to sell the house
KEYS TO PRACTICE 22
1 B 21 A 41 B 61 D
2 C 22 A 42 C 62 D
3 C 23 C 43 B 63 C
4 C 24 A 44 D 64 A
5 B 25 C 45 B 65 A
6 B 26 D 46 B 66 B
7 B 27 C 47 C 67 A
8 B 28 A 48 C 68 B
9 A 29 C 49 B 69 C
10 C 30 C 50 A 70 C
11 D 31 A 51 C 71 D
12 D 32 A 52 A 72 D
13 B 33 B 53 A 73 B
14 B 34 A 54 D 74 C
15 D 35 C 55 C 75 A
16 A 36 B 56 D 76 B
17 A 37 D 57 A 77 D
18 A 38 B 58 A 78 C
19 C 39 A 59 B 79 A
20 D 40 A 60 B 80 C
PRACTICE TEST 23
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronouned differently from the other three in each question.
Question 1: A. tables B. books C. roots D. roofs
Question 2: A. stopped B. packed C. parked D. wicked
Question 3: A. teacher B. chore C. children D. school
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word with the main stress different
from that of the other three words in each question.
Question 4: A. whenever B. family C. obedient D. solution
Question 5: A. attractiveness B. generation C. traditional D. American
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 6: I ________ there once a long time ago and ________ back since.
A. went/have not been B. go/am not
C. have gone/was D. was going/had not been
Question 7: The students __________ by Mrs. Monty. However, this week they _______ by Mr. Tanzer.
A. have usually been taught / have been teaching
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B. usually teach / are teaching

C. are usually taught / are being taught
D. were usually teaching / are teaching
Question 8: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ____________ something terrible.
A. must experience B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 9: Thousand of antibiotics _______, but only about thirty are in common use today.
A. are developing B. have been developed
C. have been developing D. have developed
Question 10: Most children enjoy _____ with their parents and siblings.
A. play B. to play C. playing D. played
Question 11: Doctors are supposed to _______ responsibility for humman life.
A. take B. do C. rush D. join
Question 12: Many young people have objected to ________ marriage, which is decided by the parents
of the bride and groom.
A. agreed B. shared C. sacrificed D. contractual
Question 13: Are you sure you can do it on_______?
A. youself B. secret C. your own D. date
Question 14: He spent __________ dollars on food and drinks.
A. very a few B. only a few C. only a little D. only few
Question 15: It‘s essential that every student ____ the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. pass C. would pass D. passed
Question 16: Most of the computers in the laboratory are ____________ now.
A. out of work B. out of order C. out of function D. out of working
Question 17: _______ she was watering the flowers, it began to rain.
A. Besause B. While C. For D. Since
Question 18: His bad behaviour was put ………….. his upbringing.
A. with B. down to C. up D. off
Question 19: Mary always takes great care…………. her children.
A. for B. to C. of D. with
Question 20: From the hotel there is a good ___________ of the mountain.
A. picture B. sight C. view D. vision
Question 21: This is the first time I………….. Japanese food.
A. am eating B. had eaten C. ate D. have eaten
Question 22: Not until a monkey is several years old _____ to exhibit signs of independence from its
mother.
A. is it begin B. and begin C. does it begin D. it begins
Question 23: _______ was caused by breathing impure air over was once a common belief.
A. Why malaria B. That malaria C. The reason malaria D. Malaria
Question 24:. I am very …………. for what I said to her yesterday.
A. regretted B. regretful C. regrettable D. regretting
Question 25: Frized for centuries for their beauty, roses are probably the world‘s…………….. plants.
A. cultivated ornamental most widely B. ornamental widely cultivated most
C. most widely cultivated ornamental D. widely ornamental most cultivated
Question26: ―Are you free this coming Sunday?‖ ―____________‖
A. I think so. Why? B. Yes, I can C. Yes, I will D. No, thank you
Question27: ―Would you like some more tea?‖ ―____________‖
A. It doesn‘t matter B. I‘m OK C. Yes, please D. Here you are
Question 28: ―Hello, I‘d like to speak to Mr. Green, please. ‖ ―________________‖
A. I‘m sorry. I‘ll call again later. B. I‘m afraid I don‘t know
C. Sorry. Can you take the message? D. Sorry. Can you say that again?
Question 29: ―Anything else?‖ ―_____________________‖
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A. No, it isn‘t B. Right now C. Not at all. D. Not today, thanks

Question30: ― Thank you very much for the wonderful gift. ‖ – ― …………………………‖
A. Oh, no B. Congratulations C. Good luck D. You are welcome
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
Question 31: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking
A. attempt B. help C. prepared D. be busy
Question 32: Unless I miss my guess, your computer needs a new hard drive.
A. you are my guess B. I break the soft drive
C. I make a mistake D. you lack money
Question 33: Relaxation therapy teaches one not to fret over small problems.
A. worry about B. look for C. get involved in D. get angry about
Question 34: He‘s up to his ears in work and can‘t possible see you now.
A. fully occupied with B. concerned with C. very interested in D. not involved with
Question 35: As he is new to the job I would ask you to keep an eye on her for the time being.
A. look at B. consider C. check D. observe
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks in the following question.
Cultural diversity can be such a cool thing. I gew up in a predominantly white private school, (36)
_______ teaching in a place that is extremely diverse has been a joy. I can stand in the hall and (37)
_______ Spanish, Russian, Polish, Korean, Mandarin, Hindu, etc. the list can go on and on. What we
need to be careful of is not to make (38) _______ a big deal out of cutural diversity. I think that when we
place too much (39) _______ on the diversity it can become a polarizing act. Many students are very
aware (40) _______ their differences, and most just don‘t care.
I think that cultural diversity is something that needs (41) _______ addressed be teachers in the schools
as something that is possitive. Often in rural areas there is not a lot of cultural diversity. (42) _______ a
result, when a student is from a different culture there is a question of what do I do to (43) _______ their
learning needs. It is important before a teacher can teach diverse population they need to (44) _______
that they are also multicultural. In addition, how much of a role will these beliefs (45) _______ within
the education on the child.
Question 36: A. however B. therefore C. but D. so
Question37: A. see B. look C. listen D. hear
Question 38: A. such B. too C. so D. much
Question39: A. stress B. emphasis C. concern D. focus
Question 40: A. of B. at C. about D. on
Question 41: A. be B. being C. are D. to be
Question 42: A. Like B. As C. With D. More
Question 43: A. push B. rise C. comment D. support
Question 44: A. recognize B. receive C. observe D. expect
Question 45: A. make B. do C. create D. play
The organisation that today is known as the Bank of America did start out in America, but under quite a
different name. Italian American A. P. Giannini estabished this bank on October 17 1904, in a renovated
saloon in San Francisco‘s Italian community of North Beach under the name Bank of Italy, with
immigrants and first – time bank customers comprising the majority of his first customers. During its
development, Giannini‘s bank survived major crises in the form of a natural disaster and a major
economic upheaval that not all other banks were able to overcome.
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One major test for Giannini‘s bank occurred on April 18,1906, when a massive earthquake struck San
Francisco, followed by a raging fire that destroyed much of the city. Giannini obtained two wagons and
teams of horses, filled the wagons with the bank‘s reserves, mostly in the form of gold, covered the
reserves with crates of oranges, and escaped from the chaos of the city with his clients‘ funds protected.
In the aftermath of the disaster, Giannini‘s bank was the first to resume operations. Unable to install the
bank in a proper office setting, Giannini opened up shop on the Washington Street Wharf on a makeshift
desk created from boards and barrels.
In the period following the 1906 fire, the Bank of Italy continued to prosper and expand. By 1918 there
were twenty –four branches of the Bank of Italy, and by 1928 Giannini had acquired numerous other
banks, including a Bank of America located in New York City. In 1930 he consolidated all the branches
of the Bank of Italy, the Bank of America in New York City, and another bank of America that had
formed in California into the Bank of America National Trust and Savings Association.
A second major crisis for the bank occurred during the Great Depression of the 1930s. Although Giannini
had already retired prior to the darkest days of Depression, he became incensed when his successor
began selling off banks during the bad economic times. Giannini resumed leadership of the bank at the
age of sixty-two. Under Giannini‘s leadership, the bank weathered the storm of the Depression and
subsequently moved into a phase of overseas development.
Question 46: According to the passage, Giannini……….
A. worked in a bank in Italy
B. set up the Bank of America prior to setting up the Bank of Italy
C. opened the Bank of America in 1904
D. later changed the name of the Bank of Italy
Question47: Where did Giannini open his first bank?
A. In what used to be a bar B. On Washington Street wharf
C. In New York City D. On a makeshift desk
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the San Francisco
earthquake?
A It happened in 1906 B. It occurred in the aftermath of a fire
C. It caused problems for Giannini‘s bank D. It was a tremendous earthquake
Question49: The word ― raging‖ replaced by….
A. feeble B. intense C. localized D. angered
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Giannini used crates of oranges after the earthquake
A. to hide the gold B. to provide nourishment for his customers
C. to protect the gold from the fire D. to fill up the wagons
Question 51: The word ― chaos‖ is closest in meaning to
A. overdevelopment B. legal system C. total confusion D. extreme heat
Question 52: The word ― consolidated‖ is closest in meaning to
A. sold B. hardened C. moved D. merged
Question 53: The expression ― weathered the storm‖ could best be replaced by
A. blew its stack at B. found a cure for
C. survived the ordeal of D. rained on the parade of
Question 54: How is the information in the passage presented?
A. Classifications with examples B. In chronological order
C. A cause followed by an effect D. In order of importance
Question 55: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. bank failures during the Great Depression
B. the international development of the Bank of America
C. a third major crisis of the Bank of America
D. how Giannini spent his retirement
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to the following questions.
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In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did
not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received
permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to keep
money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England if
it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre-revolutionary
period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and
tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of any foreign
coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American
colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual states
and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the
end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still
flourished during this period.
By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system was in
a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States, approved in
1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their own money
supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United
States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were
legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 56: The passage mainly discusses
A. the effect of the Revolution on American money.
B. American money from past to present.
C. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
D. the English monetary policies in colonial America.
Question 57: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was
A. used extensively for trade. B. scarce. C. supplied by England. D. coined by colonists.
Question 58: The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins
A. for a short time during one year. B. throughout the seventeenth century.
C. continuously from the inception of the colonies. D. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War.
Question59: The expression ―a means of‖ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by.
A. a result of B. a method of C. a punishment for D. an example of
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during
the colonial period?
A. Wampum B. Cotton C. Beaver furs D. Tobacco
Question 61: The pronoun ―it‖ in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following
A. The Continental Congress B. Trade in goods
C. The War D. Paper money
Question 62: It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was
worth
A. exactly one dollar B. just over one dollar
C. just under one dollar D. almost nothing
Question 63: The word ―remedy‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. resolve B. medicate C. renew D. understand
Question 64: How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?
A. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
B. The dollar was made official currency of the US.
C. Only the US Congress could issue money.
D. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.
Question 65: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary
system?
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. It was established in 1792.
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C. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.

D. The monetary system was based on two matters.
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction .
Question 66: I didn‘t see Marry since she went to live in the capital.
A B C D
Question 67: Ice always melts if the air temperature will be warm enough.
A B C D
Question 68: Even on the most careful prepared trip, problems will sometimes happen.
A B C D
Question 69: People today use aspirin to relieve pain, alike past genaretions, who used the bark of the
A B C
White willow tree in powder form.
D
Question 70: Our supervisor advised to take a course in reseach methods.
A B C D
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 71: You‟re not to blame for what happened.
A. You are not accused of what happened.
B. What happened is not your fault.
C. You‘re responsible for what happened.
D. We blame you for what happened.
Question 72: Tom acts as if he knew every thing.
A. Tom knows every thing so he acts that way.
B. The way Tom acts shows that he knows every thing.
C. Tom acts like that he knew every thing.
D. Tom doesn‘t know every thing but he wants to appear he does.
Question 73: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend.
C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
Question 74: Tim is likely to fail if he takes the exam without studying.
A. Tim will fail if he takes the exam without studying.
B. It‘s probable that Tim will fail the exam if he doesn‘t study.
C. It‘s certain that Tim will pass the exam if he studies.
D. It‘s certain that Tim will fail because he doesn‘t studies.
Question75: At this time tomorrow, hopefully, I'll be relaxing at home rather than working this hard.
A. Tomorrow, rather than relaxing at home as I'd hoped to do, I'll be working quite hard.
B. I hope that, instead of working so hard at this time tomorrow, I'll be at home resting.
C. I'm planning to relax at home tomorrow, instead of working so hard.
D. Resting at home is something I hope to be doing at this time tomorrow, but I'll probably be working
quite hard instead.
Question 76: I‟ve been here for two hours, and I‟m still waiting.
A. I‘m still waiting here in two hours.
B. I was still here waiting two hours.
C. I still waited here tow hours ago.
D. I‘ve been waiting here for two hours.
Question77: In spite of doing well in the contest, Jane didn‟t win.
A. Jane did well in the contest, but she didn‘t win so.
B. Jane did well in the contest. However, she didn‘t win.
C. Jane did well in the contest. Therefore, she didn‘t win.
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D. Jane didn‘t win because she did well in the contest.

Question 78: “Where were you last night, Mr. Jenkins?” he said.
A. He asked Mr. Jenkins where was he last night.
B. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins was the night before.
C. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins had been the following night.
D. He asked Mr. Jenkins where he had been the previous night
Question79: I think you should revise for the exam.
A. If I were you, I would revise for the exam.
B. If I am you, I will revise for the exam.
C. If I would be you, I revised for the exam.
D. If I will be you, I revise for the exam.
Question 80: No sooner had gold been discovered in California than thousands of people set out for the
west coast of North America.
A. It was not soon after the time that gold had been uncovered in California that thousands of people
departed for North America‘s west coast.
B. The west coast of North America became the destination of thousands of people the moment that gold
was found in California.
C. Thousands of people had already begun their journey to the west coast of North America by the time
gold was found in California.
D. Thousands of people were heading for California on the west coast of North America when the news of
the discovery of gold there reached them.
KEY TO PRACTICE 23
1. A 11. A 21. D 31. B 41. D 51. C 61. D 71. B

2. D 12. D 22. C 32. C 42. B 52. D 62. D 72. D
3. D 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. D 53. C 63. A 73. A
4. B 14. B 24. B 34. A 44. A 54. B 64. C 74. B
5. B 15. B 25. C 35. D 45. D 55. B 65. C 75. B
6. A 16. B 26. A 36. D 46. D 56. C 66. A 76. D
7. C 17. B 27. C 37. D 47. A 57. B 67. C 77. B
8. D 18. B 28. D 38. A 48. B 58. A 68. C 78. D
9. B 19. C 29. D 39. B 49. B 59. B 69. A 79. A
10. C 20. C 30. D 40. A 50. A 60. B 70. B 80. B
PRACTICE TEST 24
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined part
pronounced differently from the others.
Question 1: A. flood B. good C. foot D. look
Question 2: A. handicapped B. advantaged C. organized D. raised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 6 to 10.
Question 3: A. particular B. accidental C. outnumber D. analysis
Question 4:. A. librarian B. experiment C. historial D. entertain
Question 5: A. intention B. business C. endangered D. extinction
questions from 21 to 50.
Question 6: Are there enough apples for us to have one…………?
A. self B. individually C. every D. each
Question 7: If I had another $25,00 a year, I would consider myself…………
A. well-made B. well- deserved C. well-done D. well-off
Question 8: This car was the most expensive purchase I have ever…….
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A. done B. taken C. made D. bought

Question 9: Of the two boys overthere, Tom is …………..
A. the best B. better C. more hard-working D. the more hard-working
Question 10: The concert didn‘t come…….. our expectations.
A. up with B. up against C. round D. up to
Question 11: The gymnasium facilities of this public school…………….. of the finest private school in
the county.
A. second after those B. first except for that
C. second only to those D. second place from that
Question 12: This is Henry, ____ works for your father.
A. that B. whom C. A & B are correct D. who
Question 13: The baby can‘t even walk,…………run
A. little more B. more less C. much less D. much more
Question 14: He always did well at school…………having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. even though. B. on account of C. in addition to D. in spite of
Question 15: The assistant director recommended that Kenichi…………to the New York office.
A. transferring B. to transfer C. be transferred D. is transferred
Question 16: Don‘t put Graham in charge of arranging the theatre trip; he is too………..
A. inorganized B. organized C. disorganized D. unorganized
Question 17: Out …………. from its tiny cage.
A. does the bird fly B. fly the bird C. did the bird fly D. flew the bird
Question 18: As………in Greek and Roman mythology, harpies were frightful monsters that were half
woman and half bird.
A. description B. described C. describing D. to describe
Question 19: The quantum theory states…………., such as light, is given off and absorbed in tiny definite
units called quanta or photons.
A. energy that B. that energy C. it is energy D. that it is energy
Question 20: Armed terrorists are reported to have…………. the Embassy.
A. taken to B. taken over C. taken into D. taken up
Question 21: Corporations have been donating more and more to………..
A. the needy B. the need C. the needy people D. the needed
Question 22: No one is indifferent to praise,…………….. ?
A. is one B. isn‘t one C. are they D. is he
Question 23: During the Precambrian period, the Earth‘s crust formed, and life……. in the seas.
A. the first to appeared B. first appeared C. the first apprearance D. apprearing first
Question24: …………….. to occur in the Earth‘s crust, push pull and shake waves………….
simultaneously.
A. If a break/ would be generated B. If broken/ would generate
C. A break was / would have been generated D. Were a break/ would be generated
Question 25: ………….. of precious gems is determined by their hardness, color and brilliance.
A. It is valuable B. It is the value C. The value D. The valuable
Question 26: ― There aren‘t many people here yet, are there?‖ ―……. ‖
A. Yes, I think so B. No, but it‘s still early
C. Yes, not many yet D. No, there are
Question 27: ― Want me to turn up the heater?‖ ―…………‖
A. No, go right ahead B. It‘s my pleasure
C. Thanks, I‘ll be right back D. Please don‘t. It‘s quite warm here
Question 28: ― I wonder if you could help me?‖ ―…………‖
A. I‘ll do my best. What‘s the problem? B. Don‘t mention it
C. No, what is it? D. Really? How nice
Question 29: ― Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?‖ ―…….. ‖
A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I am afraid not
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Question 30: ―…………………‖

―Yes, there is plenty of room‖
A. What is the new wardrobe like? B. How much is the new wardrobe?
C. It‘s a big wardrobe, isn‘t it? D. How big is the new wardrobe
Question 31: I prefer to talk to people face to face rather than to talk on the phone
A. looking at them B. facing them C. in person D. seeing them
Question 32: Many movies receive disparaging reviews from film experts and yet become extremely
successful.
A. lengthy B. uninteresting C. authoritative D. negative
Question 33: She simply took it for granted that the check was good and did not ask him any questions
about it.
A. looked it over B. accepted it without investigation
C. objected to it D. permitted it
Question 34: He is one of the most discourteous bosses I have ever worked with.
A. polite B. rude C. impolite D. unpleasant
Câu 35: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. rich B. poor C. full D. hungry
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
The number of hungry people in the world is rising geometrically even though food production has (36)
___ considerably. The basic problem, that (37) ___ countries have (38) ___ and developing countries too
little food, looks easy to resolve – the developed countries simply need to trade surpluses with countries
that need them.
But the (39) ___ is not that simple. The developing countries (40) ___ purchasing power and a country‘
food imports are directly (41) ___ to its ability to pay. A country‘s (42) ___ to pay depends on the number
of productive jobs in the country that generate goods and services that can be traded. Developing countries
are essentially (43) ___ and present trends show they will remain so. Agriculture accounts for 35 to 40
percent of the gross domestic product and employs between 60 and 80 percent of the work force in
developing countries.
Because it is so important, these countries must look to their own food production to 44) ___ their
poverty. Increased food production would lead to growth of higher personal income which, in turn, would
lead to growth of national (45) ___. This wealth can then be used to increase food imports to provide a
better diet and thus improve the health of the total community.
Question 36: A. hopped B. augmented C. enlarged D. increased
Question 37: A. rural B. southern C. rich D. industrialized
Question 38: A. too much B. abundant C. too many D. much
Question 39: A. resolution B. solution C. reply D. solving
Question 40: A. want B. lack C. need D. miss
Question 41: A. linked B. attached C. chained D. joined
Question 42: A. chance B. willingness C. ability D. need
Question 43: A. industrial B. fish-producing C. rural D. urban
Question 44: A. overcome B. deny C. fix D. solve
Question 45: A. riches B. money C. prestige D. wealth
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example,
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rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to
them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the
substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive
to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy,
since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems.
You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The
most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and
tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his
intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off
by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common
foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken
livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some
people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6
and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially
colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers,
peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book ―Why
your Child is Hyperactive‖. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is
effective.
Question 46: The topic of this passage is
A. reactions to foods B. infants and allergies
C. food and nutrition D. a good diet
Question 47: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
A. lack of a proper treatment plan
B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
C. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
D. the vast number of different foods we eat
Question 48: The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to
A. diagnosis B. diet C. prescriptions D. indications
Question 49: The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to
A. identified B. relieved C. avoided D. triggered
Question 50: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
B. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
C. They can eat almost anything.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 51: The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to
A. unusually low activity B. excited
C. overly active D. inquisitive
Question 52: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant's ______
A. lack of teeth B. underdeveloped intestinal tract
C. inability to swallow solid foods D. poor metabolism
Question 53: The word "these" refers to:
A. food colorings B. food additives
C. unnutritious foods . D. foods high in sacilates
Question 54: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Avoiding all Oriental foods
B. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Eating more ripe bananas
Question 55: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
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B. available in book form

beneficial for hyperactive children
designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Niagara Falls, one of the most famous North american natural wonders,has long been a popular tourist
destination. Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara Falls: the 173-foot
Horseshoe Fall on the Canadian side of the Niagara River in the Canadian province of Ontario and the
182-foot high American Falls on the U. S. side of the river in the state of New York. Approximately 85
percent of the water that goes over the falls actually goes over Horseshoe Falls, with the rest going over
American Falls.
Most visitors come between April and October, and it is quite a popular activity to take a steamer out
onto the river and right up to the base of the falls for a close-up view. It is also possible to get a
spectacular view of the falls from the strategic locations along the Niagara River, such as Prospect
Point or Table Rock, or from one of the four observation towers which have heights up to 500 feet.
Tourists have been visiting Niagara Falls in large numters since the1800s; annual visitation now
averages above l0 million visitors per year. Because of concern that all these tourists would
inadvertently destroy the natural beauty of this scenic wonder, the state of New York in 1885 created
Niagara Falls Park in order to protect the land surrounding American Falls. A year later Canada created
Queen Victoria Park on the Canadian side of the Niagara, around Horseshoe Falls. With the area
surrounding the falls under the jurisdiction of govemment agencies, appropriate steps could be taken to
preserve the pristine beauty of the area.
Question 56. What is the major point that the author is making in this passage?
A. Niagara Falls can be viewed from either the American side or the Canadian side.
B. A hip to the United States isn't complete without a visit to Niagara Falls.
C. Niagara Falls has had an interesting history.
D. It has been necessary to protect Niagara Falls from the many tourists who go there.
Question 57. The word "flock" in the first paragraph could best be replaced by
A. come by plane B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom D. come without knowing what they will see
Question 58. According to the passage, what which of the following best describes Niagara Falls?
A. Niagara Falls consists of two rivers, one Canadian and the other American-
B. American Falls is considerably higher that Horseshoe Falls.
C. The Niagara River has two falls, one in Canada and one in the United States.
D. Although the Niagara River flows through the United States and Canada, the falls are only in the
United States.
Question 59. A "steamer" in the seconl paragraph is probably
A. a bus B. a boat C. a walkway D. a park
Question 60. The expression "right up" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by
A. turn to the right B. follow correct procedures
C. travel upstream D. all the way up
Question 61. The passage implies that tourists prefer to
A. visit Niagara Falls during warmer weather
B. see the falls from a great distance
C. take a ride over the falls
D. come to Niagara Falls for a winter vacation
Question 62. According to the passage, why was Niagara park created?
A. To encourage tourists to visit Niagara Falls
B. To show off the natural beauty of Niagara Falls
C. To protect the area around Niagara Falls-
D. To force Canada to open Queen Victoria Park
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Question 63. The word' Jurisdiction" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. view B. assistance C. taxation D. control
Question 64. The word "pristine" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. pure and nafural B. highly developed C. well-regulated D. overused
Question 65. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses?
A. additional ways to observe the falls
B. steps taken by government agencies to protect the falls
C. a detailed description of the division of the falls between the United States and Canada
D. further problems that are destroying the area around the falls
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 66:. Almost medical doctors have had some training in psychology and psychiatry
A B C D
Question 67: Alike many finds in astrology, the discovery of Uranus was by accident.
A B C D
Question 68:. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people
A B C
stopped attending movies.
D
Question 69: The residence of Greenville, Texas hold an annual Cotton Jubilee to remember
A B
the crop that caused their city to prosper.
C D
Question 70:. Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even
A
a small amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines.
B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 71: You can rely on Pat to give you any help you may need.
A. If you need help of any knid, be sure to let Pat know.
B. Let Pat know if you need any help with this.
C. Pat is the one to ask if you find you require any assistance.
D. Should you require any assistance, you can count on Pat for it.
Question 72: Domestic violence is a touchy topic.
We are not interested in the topic of domestic violence
Domestic violence id not our concern.
We should not touch the topic of domestic violence.
D. The topic of domestic violence is quite sensitive.
Question 73: I couldn‟t help admiring the way he managed to finish the programme even after such a bad
fall.
A. In spite of the fall, he should have finished the programme and we could have admired him for that.
B. It was really a very bad fall, but somehow he was still able to finish the programme and I had to admire
him for that.
C. The way he finished the programme was certainly admirable, as the fall had shaken him up badly.
D. I really admire the way he got up after the fall and completed the programme.
Question 74: I just can‟t understand why so few people are interested in this camping holiday.
A. I find it surprising that there aren‘t fewer people interested in such a camping holiday.
B. Hardly anyone wants to go on this camping holiday, which I find strange.
C. It‘s hardly surprising that so few people are interested in this camping holiday.
D. To my surprise almost no one was interested in such a camping holiday.
Question 75: Mary felt quite certain that her sister would stand by her, but in the end she didn‟t.
A. Mary had hoped that her sister would come to her aid, but she never did.
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B. Mary didn‘t expect her own sister to let her down like that.
C. Mary was confident that she would have her sister‘s support, but as it turned out she let her down.
D. It came as a terrible shock to Mary when her own sister turned against her like that.
questions.
Question 76: , United would have lost the match yesterday.
A. If it hadn‘t been for their goalkeeper B. If their goalkeeper didn‘t play so well
C. Hadn‘t their goalkeeper played so well D. Were their goalkeeper not to play so well
Question 77: , but he often gives me a hand with the housework.
A. However busy my husband is at work B. No matter how busy is my husband at work
C. My husband is very busy at work D. Although my husband is very busy at work
Question 78: that I tore up the letter.
A. I was so annoying B. I was such an annoyed
C. So was I annoyed D. Such was my annoyance
Question 79: for running a red light, Jane decided it was not in her best interest to argue since
she was not wearing her seat belt.
A. The police stopped her B. When stopping by the police
C. Having been stopped by the police D. Being stopped by the police
Question 80: in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced B. What is frost produced
C. What produces frost D. Frost
KEY TO PRACTICE TEST 24
1. A 11. C 21. A 31. C 41. A 51. C 61. A 71. D

2. A 12. B 22. C 32. D 42. C 52. B 62. C 72. D
3. B 13. C 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. D 63. D 73. B
4. D 14. D 24. D 34. A 44. A 54. B 64. A 74. B
5. B 15. C 25. C 35. C 45. D 55. A 65. B 75. C
6. D 16. C 26. B 36. D 46. A 56. D 66. A 76. A
7. D 17. D 27. D 37. D 47. B 57. B 67. A 77. C
8. C 18. B 28. A 38. A 48. D 58. C 68. C 78. D
9. D 19. B 29. A 39. B 49. D 59. B 69. A 79. C
10. D 20. B 30. C 40. B 50. A 60. D 70. D 80. C
PRACTICE TEST 25
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group
Question 1: A. chemists B. laughs C. days D. books
Question 2: A. blessed B. demolished C. wretched D. played
Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from other words in the group (circle A, B, C or D)
Question 3: A. promote B. diverse C. language D. combine
Question 4: A. improve B. justice C. adopt D. admit
Question 5: A. understand B. geography C. engineer D. disappearance
Choose from the four options given (circle A, B, C or D) one best answer to complete each sentence.
Question 6: Most doctors and nurses have to work on a _______ once or twice a week at the hospital.
A. solution B. special dishes C. household chores D. night shift
Question 7: This is the first time we ______ this kind of food in this restaurant.
A. had eaten B. ate C. eat D. have eaten
Question 8: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate, to _______ her
attention.
A. tempt B. attract C. pull D. follow
Question 9: You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done.
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A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible

Question 10: Small children are often told that it is rude to point _______ other people.
A. to B. for C. on D. at
Question 11: She told me she _____ her mother for ages.
A. hasn't met B. didn't meet C. hadn't met D. wouldn't meet
Question 12: Peter: ―You look great in this new dress. ‖ Barbara: ―________. ‖
A. With pleasure B. Not at all
C. I am glad you like it D. Do not say anything about it
Question 13: ‖_______‖ ―No, Thank you, that‘ll be all. ‖
A. What would you like? B. It‘s very kind of you to help me.
C. Would you like anything else? D. what kind of food do you like?
Question 14: Our teacher often said, "Who knows the answer? _______ your hand. "
A. Raise B. Lift C. Heighten D. Rise
Question 15: Ann ______ and left.
A. said goodbye to me B. says goodbye to me
C. tell me goodbye D. told me goodbye
Question 16: The ______ to success is to be ready from the start.
A. key B. demand C. agreement D. response
Question 17: My father phoned me to say that he would come _______ home late.
A. a B. Ø C. the D. an
Question 18: Our parents _____ hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.
A. join B. shake C. share D. give
Question 19: Emily said that her teacher _______ to London _______.
A. would go / the next day B. will go / tomorrow
C. had gone / the next day D. went / tomorrow
Question 20: John is _______ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot.
A. a B. no article C. an D. the
Question 21: In the 19th century, it _______ two or three months to cross North America by covered
wagon.
A. had taken B. had taken C. took D. was taking
Question 22: ―Can I try your new camera?‖ ―_______‖.
A. I‘m sorry. I‘m home late. B. I‘m sorry, I can‘t. Let‘s go now.
C. Sure. I‘d love to it. D. Sure. But please careful with it.
Question 23: The lights _______ out because we _______ the electricity bill.
A. have gone / did not pay B. will go / did not paid
C. go / would not pay D. went / had not paid
Question 24: Jack asked me _____.
A. where do you come from? B. where I had come from
C. where I came from D. where did I come from?
Question 25: The Americans are _____ than the Indians and the Chinese with physical attractiveness
when choosing a wife or a husband.
A. much more concerned B. more concerning
C. much concerned D. concerned
Question 26: My mother used to be a woman of great _______, but now she gets old and looks pale.
A. beautify B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beauty
Question 27: John asked me _______ in English.
A. what that word means B. what did this word mean
C. what does this word mean D. what that word meant
Question 28: Sometimes she does not agree _______ her husband about child rearing but they soon find
the solutions.
A. for B. with C. of D. on
Question 29: A woman can never have a happy married life without _______ her husband.
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A. demanding B. agreeing C. trusting D. determining

Question 30: He isn't used to _____ with sticks.
A. eating B. eat C. ate D. eats
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Many of us have ambivalent feelings about our politicians, admiring but also distrusting them.
A. mixed B. critical C. approving D. indifferent
Question 32: She got up late and rushed to the bus stop.
A. went leisurely B. came into C. dropped by D. went quickly
Question 33: The reason why Aurora is dressed to the nines is because she's got a date tonight.
A. dressed too casually for the occasion B. dressed in a size nine
C. dressed up and looking great D. dressed in a plain-looking suit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 34: The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. frightened B. saddened C. jolted D. astonished
Question 35: Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction
A. enriched B. contaminated C. purified D. strengthened
Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the sentence given (circle the letter A, B, C or D)
Question 36: We are a very close-knit family.
A. Members of our family are never close to each other.
B. Members of our family have a very close relationship with each other.
C. Members of our family need each other.
D. Members of our family need to help each other
Question 37: " You broke my computer, Lan" Nam said.
A. Lan told Nam he broke his computer.
B. Nam accused Lan of breaking his computer.
C. Lan told Nam that he had broken her computer.
D. Nam said that Lan broke her computer.
Question 38: " Don't worry about your problem" she told me.
A. She wanted me not to worry about her problem.
B. She told me not to worry about your problem.
C. She advised me not to worry about my problem
D. She advised me not to worry about her problem.
Question 39: They haven't signed the contract yet.
A. The contract wouldn't be signed. B. The contract hasn't been signed.
C. The contract isn't signed. D. The contract wasn't signed.
Question 40: They have been working in this factory since 2004.
A. They had been working in this factory before 2004.
B. They have started working in this factory since 2004.
C. They were working in this factory in 2004.
D. They started working in this factory in 2004.
Question 41: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad.
A. John doesn‘t now write home once a week any longer.
B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad.
C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad.
D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week.
Question 42: His friends never forgave his betrayal.
A. His betrayal was never forgiven by his friends.
B. His betrayal were never forgiven by his friends.
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C. His betrayal was never forgave by his friends

D. His betrayal never forgave by his friends.
Question 43: My father is tired of seeing any violent films.
A. My father hasn‘t seen a violent film.
B. My father has enjoyed all the violent films he has ever seen.
C. My father is worried about missing the next violent film.
D. My father never wants to see another violent film.
Question 44: Mr. Brown bought this car five years ago.
A. It is five years ago since Mr. Brown bought this car.
B. Mr. Brown started to buy this car five years ago.
C. Mr. Brown has had this car for five years.
D. It has been five years when Mr. Brown bought this car.
Question 45: Eight years ago we started writing to each other.
A. We wrote to each other eight years ago.
B. We have rarely written to each other for eight years.
C. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other.
D. We have been writing to each other for eight years.
Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence

Question 46: Marriage is a life-long journey together, which is not simply a boat you
A B C
get on together and getting off when it does not work out.
D
Question 47: Tom was very tired because he runs for an hour.
A B C D
Question 48: Would you like a few salt in your vegetables?
A B C D
Question 49: I finish my book before my next birthday.
A B C D
Question 50: The car whose quality is very good has been used a long time ago.
A B C D
It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first record
fail to produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it
requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a
representative of a company‘s Artist and Repertoire (A &R) department visits bars and night clubs,
scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will
work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A
company will spend a long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music.
During this period, it is important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as
much as possible about the record company and making personal connections within the different
departments that will handle their recordings. Once a band has signed the contract and, has finished
recording an album, the Publicity and Promotions department takes over. This department decides
whether or not to mass produce and market the band‘s album. Most bands fail to make personal contacts
in this second department, thus losing their voice in the important final process of producing and
marketing their album. This loss of nice often contributes to the band‘s failure as a recording group.
Question 51: Which word can be best replaced for „release‟?
A. distribute B. pay for C. overturn D. itemize
Question 52: Which word can be best replaced for ‗takes over‘?
A. takes charge B. take pleasure C. take advice D. takes blame
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Question 53: What will a recording company investigate once they have identified a band at a bar or a
night club?
A. the Publicity Promotions
B. the band itself and current trends in popular music
C. the singers‘ personal relationship
D. the signing of this recording contract
Question 54: According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company is
made by_______
A. the band‘s manager. B. a band member.
C. an A&R representative. D. the Publicity Promotions department.
Question 55: The author mentions that a band‘s success is dependent on all of the following factors
EXCEPT
A. having patience.
B. making personal contacts with people in the company.
C. understanding how a record company functions.
D. playing music that sounds like music of famous bands.
Question 56: According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department
A. has the final decision in producing an album.
B. handles the recording arrangements for the band.
C. sends representatives to look for new talented bands.
D. visits bars and night clubs.
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that_______
A. the music industry is full of opportunities for young band.
B. the A& R department has a large staff.
C. most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate.
D. the cost of recording an album is very expensive.
Question 58: The phrase „this period‟ refers to……..
A. waiting for the signing of a recording contract
B. scouting for young, talented bands
C. waiting to represent the A & R department
D. preparing to have the second album
Question 59: Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to ‗handle‘?
A. touch B. control C. manipulate D. protect
Question 60: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Nine out of ten bands fail to produce a second record.
B. It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company functions.
C. Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their
album.
D. The main factors in a band‘s success are luck and patience.
Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from (61) __________ sugar cane or sugar beet.
These (62) __________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found
in fruit some of which, such as dates and grapes, (63) __________ very high amounts of sugar. To be a
little more (64) __________, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances,
glucose, which (65) __________ for instant energy, and fructose, which lasts longer as a source of energy.
The sugar in fruit is mainly fructose. So when we eat fruit, we (66) __________ quite large amounts of
natural sugar. Some scientists believe that too much sugar (67) __________ in sweets, cakes, and biscuits.
It is said to be generally bad for the health, although nothing (68) __________ so far. However, it (69)
__________ that sugar causes tooth decay. As one expert said that ―If other foods damaged our body as
much as sugar (70) __________ our teeth, they would be banned immediately. ‖
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Question 61: A. both B. some C. either D. mainly

Question 62: A. productions B. products C. producers D. producing
Question 63: A. contain B. are containing C. are contained D. contains
Question 64: A. scientists B. scientific C. Science D. non-science
Question 65: A. used B. are using C. use D. is used
Question 66: A. are also eaten B. have been eaten C. also eat D. will be eaten
Question 67: A. is eaten B. eats C. has eaten D. will eat
Question 68: A. is proving B. has proved C. has been proved D. were proved
Question 69: A. knows B. has known C. is knowing D. is known
Question 70: A. damages B. did C. decayed D. effect
Read the passage below and choose the best answers that follow.
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use
one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for
your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile
phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss.
He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used
to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of
years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there
is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use
your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need
it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile
phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use
your mobile phone too often.
Question 71: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people
because....................
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
B. they make them look more stylish.
C. they keep the users alert all the time.
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
Question 72: The word "means" in the passage most closely means....................
A. ―meanings‖ B. ―expression‖ C. ―transmission‖ D. ―method‖
Question 73: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may....................
A. cause some mental malfunction C. change their users‘ temperament.
B. change their users‘ social behaviours. D. damage their users‘ emotions.
Question 74: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means....................
A. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.
C. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
D. the negative public use of cell phones.
Question 75: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with....................
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A. the smallest units of the brain. C. the mobility of the mind and the body.
B. the resident memory. D. the arteries of the brain.
Question 76: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often,....................
A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family.
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly.
Question 77: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means....................
A. ―certainly‖ B. ―obviously‖ C. ―privately‖ D. ―possibly‖
Question 78: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is......
A. their radiant light. B. their raiding power.
C. their power of attraction. D. their invisible rays.
Question 79: According to the writer, people should....................
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases. B. keep off mobile phones regularly.
C. never use mobile phones in all cases. D. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
Question 80: The most suitable title for the passage could be....................
A. ―Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time‖ B. ―Technological Innovations and Their Price‖.
C. ―The Way Mobile Phones Work‖. D. ―The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are
Popular‖.

1C 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7D 8B 9B 10D
11C 12C 13C 14A 15A 16A 17B 18A 19A 20D
21C 22D 23D 24B 25A 26D 27D 28B 29C 30A
31A 32D 33C 34B 35C 36B 37B 38C 39B 40D
41A 42A 43D 44C 45D 46D 47C 48C 49A 50D
51A 52A 53B 54C 55D 56A 57C 58A 59B 60B
61C 62B 63A 64B 65D 66C 67A 68C 69D 70A
71B 72D 73A 74B 75A 76A 77D 78D 79A 80B
PRACTICE TEST 26
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from
that of the other words.
Question 1: A. dine B. determine C. undermine D. mine
Question 2: A. peach B. heaven C. tease D. feasible
Question 3: A. imagine B. enormous C. permission D. possible
Question 4: A. under B. toward C. above D. behind
Question 5: A. mysteriously B. originally C. necessarily D. elaborately
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the
following sentences.
Question 6: When he heard the joke, he burst into loud ___________.
A. amusement B. laughter C. smile D. laughing
Question 7: The boss ______ to his secretary using the office phone for personal calls.
A. disagrees B. objects C. criticizes D. disapproves.
Question 8: Hardly ______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
A. had he been appointed B. was he being appointed
C. did he appoint D. was he appointing
Question 9: _____ Columbus was one of ______ first people to cross ______ Atlantic.
A. _ /the/ _ B. The/ the/ the C. _ / the/ an D. _ / the / the
Question 10: By 2050, medical technology ________ many diseases.
A. has conquered B. will conquer
C. will have conquered D. is conquering
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Question 11: Neither of them will be treated preferentially, _________?

A. won‘t they B. will they C. won‘t them D. will them
Question 12: The Red List is a special book that provides names of _______ animals.
A. vulnerable and endangered B. vulnerable and dangerous
C. endangered and hunted D. extinct and killed
Question 13: The ______ of the pagoda in the water was very clear and beautiful.
A. sight B. mirror C. reflection D. shadow
Question 14: During the starvation, we used to keep a ______ of dried food in the factory.
A. conserve B. substitute C. reserve D. preserve
Question 15: As I won‘t be able to attend the meeting, I‘d like you to sign _____.
A. on my account B. on my name C. on my place D. on my behalf
Question 16: ―What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!‖ – ―_______. ‖
A. Thank you very much. I‘m afraid B. Thank you for your compliment
C. You are telling lie D. I don‘t like your saying
Question 17: Tony is so _______ that his friends tend to tell him all their problems.
A. confidential B. critical C. optimistic D. sympathetic
Question 18: ―Hello, I‘d like to speak with Mrs Smith. ‖ – ―________‖
A. Sure B. Who are you
C. Hang on, please, I will put you through D. Of course you can
Question 19: A university education is of course important but it is essential that all employees undergo a
period of intensive ________.
A. preparation B. learning C. training D. concentration
Question 20: Anne: ―Make yourself at home‖ John: ―_______‖
A. Not at all. Don‘t mention it. B. Yes, Can I help you?
C. That‘s very kind. Thank you D. Thanks! Same to you.
Question 21: The member of the Red Cross were dedicated their whole life to _______ the suffering of
human beings.
A. reducing B. reductive C. reduction D. reduce
Question 22: Now that they have read it in _____, They believe me.
A. white and black B. black and white C. red and blue D. blue and red
Question 23: It is _____ that I can‘t put it down.
A. so interesting a book B. so interesting book
C. such interesting book D. too interesting book
Question 24: They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong, I could _______.
A. see them off B. see off them
C. see through them D. see them through
Question 25: I couldn‘t believe that they were brothers. They were as different as ______.
A. Mars and Jupiter B. chalk and cheese
C. dogs and cats D. milk from honey
Question 26: The rumors go that Jason will be arrested. He is said ______ a bloody robbery.
A. to have taken part in B. to have joined in
C. to join in D. to take part in
Question 27: My tooth is painful. I must go t o see the dentist and get it _______.
A. pull out B. pulled out C. to pull out D. pulling out
Question 28: Please move along to make __________ the new computer.
A. seat for B. room for C. a room for D. place for
Question 29: They are accustomed ________ up late at weekends.
A. with getting B. to get C. by getting D. to getting
Question 30: ________ of all these changes in the society is that women have more freedom.
As a result B. A result C. The results D. The result
Question 31: He says a full time teacher doesn‘t earn ________ a part - time salesman.
A. As many as B. as more than C. as much as D. as more as
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Question 32: They ______ for more than five miles but they didn‘t stop to rest.
A. were walking B. have walked
C. had been walking D. have been walking
Question 33: _________ things about learning is communicating with people from around the world.
A. One best B. one of best C. The best D. One of the best
Question 34: ______ they are tropical birds, parrots can live in temperate or even cold climates.
A. Despite B. Even though C. Nevertheless D. Because
Question 35: _________, the results couldn‘t be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried
Question 36: According to a journalist‘s report, there was a heavy loss of lives in the disaster.
It is reported that there was a heavy loss of lives in the disaster.
There reported to have a heavy loss of lives in the disaster.
A journalist reports that the lives were lost heavily in the disaster.
A heavy loss of lives is reported to be in the disaster.
Question 37: When did you start playing chess?
A. How long have you started playing chess?
B. Since when have you been playing chess?
C. How long did you start playing chess?
D. How long ago have you played chess?
Question 38: Apparently the car did not sustain some damage.
The car seems to have sustained some damage
The car appears not to have sustained any damage.
It looks as if the car did not sustain any apparent damage.
It is apparent that the damage to the car was not sustainable.
Question 39: If I were you, I would take a rest.
I think you should take a rest B. You would better take a rest
C. Why didn‘t you take a rest? D. Let‘s take a rest, shall we?
Question 40: Neil Armstrong stepped on the moon first.
Neil Armstrong was the first step on the moon.
It was Neil Armstrong who stepping on the moon first.
Neil Armstrong was the first to step on the moon.
Neil Armstrong was the first stepping on the moon.
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase.
Question 41: As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.
widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas
Question 42: American poet James Merrily received critical acclaim for his work entitled Jim‘s Book.
advice B. disapproval C. praise D. attention
Question 43: A revolution in women‘s fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made
trousers acceptable for almost all activities.
A. available B. permissible C. attractive D. ideal
Question 44: No fan, electric or otherwise, actually cools the air.
truly B. haphazardly C. persistently D. continuouslly
Question 45: The climate of Chicago is subject to abrupt changes of weather.
sudden B. extreme C. adverse D. disruptive
Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence.
Question 46: New laws (A) should be introduced (B) to reduce the number (C) of traffic in the city
center(D).
Laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center
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Question 47: Since (A)fireworks are dangerous(B), many countries have laws preventing (C) business to
sell (D) them.
Since B. are dangerous C. preventing D. to sell
Question 48: A majority (A) students in this (B) university are (C) from overseas(D).
A majority B. in this C. are D. overseas
Question 49: You should (A) stop to smoke (B) because it is (C) very harmful for (D) your health.
Should B. to smoke C. it is D. for
Question 50: One of (A) the students who are being (B)considered for the (C) scholarship are (D) from
this university.
One of B. are being C. for the D. are
Read the passage below and choose one correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local government. Arriving
immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late
19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a
movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the
ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could
find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the
programs – Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by deduction from the
paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly
income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who
need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when
the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not
have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans
is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makes have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated
deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These
include Medical and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public
housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons with low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than government for help. A broad spectrum of private
charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States,
especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do
volunteer work, and nearly 75 percen of U. S. households contribute money to charity.
Question 51: New immigrants to the U. S. could seek help from _____.
A. the U. S. government agencies B. volunteer organizations
C. the people who came earlier D. only charity organizations
Question 52: Public-welfare programs were unable to take firm root in the U. S. due to the fast growth of
_____.
A. population B. urbanization
C. modernization D. industrialization
Question 53: The word ―instituted‖ in the first paragraph mostly means _____.
A. enforced B. introduced C. carried out D. studied
Question 54: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to _____.
A. people‘s willingness to word B. enforcement laws
C. deductions from wages D. donations from companies
Question 55: Most of the public assistance programs _____ after the severe conomic crisis.
A. did not become institutionalized B. did not work in institutions
C. were introduced into institutions D. functioned fruitfully in institutions
Question 56: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that _____.
A. the program discourages working people
B. younger people do not want to work
C. elderly people ask for more money
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D. the number of elderly people is growing

Question 57: Persons with low incomes can access public housing through _____.
A. state spending B. federal expenditure
C. low rents D. donations
Question 58: Americans with low incomes can seek help from _____.
A. government agencies B. federak government
C. non- government agencies D. state government
Question 59: Purlic assistance has become more and more popular due to _____.
A. people‘s growing commitment to charity
B. taxpayers;s increasing commitment pay
C. young people‘s volunteerism
D. volunteer organizations
Question 60: The passage mainly discusses _____.
A. immigration into America B. public assistance in America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America
Read the text and then decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.
Women nowadays have more (61) _____ than those in the past. For example, our great
grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (62) _____, they had
to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have
their own careers, and (63) _____ their interests. They can even take good positions in politics if they are
competent (64) _____ it. However, women living in our modern society have their (65) _____, too.
Today‘s women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (66) _____ between
working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (67) _____ positions at work will be
taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will have more (68) _____ life because, (69) _____ in a
very modern society, the women can‘t (70) _____ their role in the family.
Question 61: A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D. conveniences
Question 62: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
Question 63: A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
Question 64: A. to B. at C. with D. of
Question 65: A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
Question 66: A. equality B. stable C. balance D. steadiness
Question 67: A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
Question 68: A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
Question 69: A. though B. even C. ever D. never
Question 70: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
There are desert plants which survive the dry season un the form of inactive seeds. There are also
desert insects which servive as inactive larvae or pupae. In addition, difficult as it is to believe, there are
desert fish which can survive through years of drought in the form of inactive eggs. These are shrimps that
live in the Mojave Desert, an intensely dry region in the southwest of the United States where shade
temperatures of over 500C are often recorded.
The eggs are in the size and have the appearance of grains of sand. When sufficient spring rain
falls to form a lake, once every two to five years, these eggs hatch. Then the water soon swarms with
millions of tiny shrimps about a millimeter long which feed on microscopic plant and animal: organisms
which grow in the temporary desert lake. Within a week, the shrimps grow from their original 1
millimeter to a length of about 1 ½ centimeters.
Throught the time that the shrimps are rapidly maturing, the water in the lake equally rapidly
evorporates. Therefore, it is a race against time. By the twelfth day, when they are about 3 centimeters
long, hundreds of tiny eggs form on the underbodies of the females, Usually, by this time, all that remains
of the lake is a large, muddy patch of wet soil. On the thirteenth day and the next, during the final hours of
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their brief lives, the females lay their eggs in the mud. Then, having ensured that their species will
survive, the shrimps die as the last of the water evaporates.
If sufficient rain falls the following year to form another lake, the eggs hatch, and once again cycle
of growth, adulthood, egg-laying, and death is rapidly passed through. If there is unsufficient rain to form
a lake, the eggs lie dormant for a year, or even longer if necessary. Occasionally, prehaps twice in a
hundred years, sufficient rain falls to form a deep lake that lasts a month or more. In this case, the species
passes through two cycles of growth, egg-laying and death. Thus the species multiplies considerably,
which further ensures its survival.
Question 71: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of drought in the desert
B. The lifespan of fish eggs in desert conditions
C. The survival of insects in a desert climate
D. The importance of deep lakes in the desert
Question 72: The word ―form‖ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. style B. shape C. nature D. design
Question 73: From the passage, it can be inferred that the Mojave Desert is unusual because _____.
A. it is hit even in the shade B. rain rarely falls there
C. it shelters inactive life D. very little survives there
Question 74: The author compares inactive eggs to _____.
A. shrimps B. sand C. larvae D. seeds
Question 75: The word ―These‖ in the first paragraph refers to _____.
A. plans B. eggs C. insects D. fish
Question 76: According to passage, the eggs originate _____.
A. in the sand B. on the female C. in the mud D. in the lake
Question 77: The word ―swarms‖ in the second paragraph could best be replaced by _____.
A. abounds B. grows C. crowd D. supports
Question 78: According to passage, approximately how long does a shrimps live?
A. 1 week B. 12 days C. 13 days D. 14 days plus
Question 79: The word ―dormant‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. dead B. asleep C. passive D. empty
Question 80: What does the author mean by the phrase ―a race against time‖ in the second paragraph?
A. The shrimps are in intense competition to reproduce.
B. The shrimps must reproduce before the waters recede.
C. The shrimps do not have enough time to reproduce.
D. Death occurs before the shrimps can reproduce.

1B 2B 3D 4A 5C 6B 7B 8A 9D 10C
11B 12A 13C 14C 15D 16B 17D 18C 19C 20B
21A 22B 23A 24D 25B 26A 27B 28B 29D 30D
31C 32C 33D 34B 35B 36A 37B 38B 39A 40C
41D 42C 43B 44A 45A 46D 47D 48A 49B 50D
51C 52D 53B 54C 55A 56D 57B 58C 59A 60B
61B 62C 63A 64B 65D 66C 67A 68C 69B 70D
71B 72A 73C 74B 75D 76B 77A 78C 79C 80B
PRACTICE TEST 27
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. conventional B. preservative C. reliable D. intellectual
Question 2: A. environment B. superstition C. technology D. predominance
Question 3: A. computer B. customer C. property D. energy
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Question 4: A. decisive B. popular C. impatient D. observant

Question 5: A. occur B. struggle C. enlarge D. survive
questions.
Question 6: I could hear voices but I couldn‘t ______ what they were saying.
A. bring about B. turn up C. make out D. try out
Question 7: ______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Nevertheless B. Despite C. Although D. Meanwhile
th
Question 8: Applications _____ in after 30 April will not be considered.
A. send B. sent C. which sent D. that is sent
Question 9: Sammy had worked in England for a year ______ moving to Scotland.
A. until B. once C. before D. while
Question 10: The girl was used ______ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to being received B. to receiving C. to be receiving D. to receive
Question 11: ______ always gives me real pleasure.
A. While arranging flowers B. Arranging flowers
C. The flowers are arranged D. I arrange flowers
Question 12: The theory of relativity ______ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed B. developed C. is developed D. develops
Question 13: ______ was the tea that we couldn‘t drink it.
A. So strong B. No longer C. How strong D. Hardly ever
Question 14: Kay: ―I wouldn‘t do that if I were you. ‖
John: ―______‖
A. Wouldn‘t you? Why? B. It‘s out of the question.
C. Would you, really? D. I‘d rather you didn‘t.
Question 15: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains
Question 16: Be sure not to rely too ______ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign
language.
A. heavily B. numerously C. severely D. abundantly
Question 17: Mary: ―The hat‘s so beautiful. Thanks. "
Tony: ―________‖
A. The same to you! B. Great idea! C. Lucky you! D. I‘m glad you like it.
Question 18: In our team, no person ______ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.
A. including B. other than C. outside D. rather than
Question 19: ―It‘s about time you ______ your homework, Mary. ‖
A. will do B. do C. must do D. did
Question 20: ______ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task.
A. If we had B. Unless we had C. If we have D. If we had had
Question 21: Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?
A. once offering B. to offer C. being offered D. you offer
Question 22: Lucy: ―You look really nice in that red sweater!‖
Sue: ―______‖
A. How dare you? B. I‘m afraid so. C. Thank you. D. Don‘t mention it.
Question 23: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.
A. vulnerable B. disappointed C. defenseless D. helpless
Question 24: Tom hasn't completed the work yet and Maria hasn't ______.
A. neither B. either C. also D. too
Question 25: We could have caught the last train, but we ______ five minutes late.
A. would be B. have been C. are D. were
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Question 26: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the band, ______ to visit our school
next week.
A. are going B. has had C. are D. is going
Question 27: We received a call from the teacher ______ charge of our course.
A. to B. in C. at D. on
Question 28: In my apartment there are two rooms, ______ is used as the living-room.
A. the largest one B. the large one C. the largest of which D. the larger of which
Question 29: Mrs. Chau has managed the department ______ that she‘ll be promoted next month.
A. very successful B. so successfully C. too successful D. too successfully
Question 30: We hoped ______ they would come and give us new lectures.
A. what B. that C. which D. when
Question 31: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much
more likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage.
A. harmful to health B. full of preservatives C. beneficial to health D. convenient to prepare
Question 32: Thanks to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature
of the human cell.
A. far-sighted views B. spectacular sightings C. in-depth studies D. deep understanding
Question 33: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were
shortlisted for the interview.
A. small number B. class C. small amount D. hand
Question 34: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several adventurous
tourists managed to reach the top.
A. bringing excitement B. resulting in depression
C. costing a lot of money D. causing a lot of risks
Question 35: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables
together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.
A. obedient to parents B. physically abnormal C. hard of hearing D. able to hear
Đọc bài văn, chọn đáp án điền vào chỗ trống:

Many of the things we do (26)……… on receiving information from other people. Catching a train,
making a phone call and going to the cinema all involve information (27)……. stored, processed and
communicated. In the past this information had to be kept on paper (28)……….., for example, books,
newspapers and timetables. Now more and more information is put (29)………. computers.
Computers play a role in our everyday lives, sometimes without us even realising it. (30) …. the use of
computers in both shops and offices. Big shops have to deal with very large (31)….. of information. They
have to make sure that there are enough goods on the shelves for customers to buy, they need to be able to
reorder before (32)…… run out. A lot of office work in the past involved information on paper. Once it
had been dealt with by people, the paper was (33)…… for future reference. This way of working was
never (34)….. easy or fast. A computer system is much more (35)……..
36. A. to depend B. depending C. depended D. depend
37. A. that has B. has C. is D. that is
38. A. in the case of B. in the form of C. in preparation for D. in search of
39. A. on B. in C. by D. with
40. A. To be considered B. To consider C. Consider D. Be considered
41. A. amount B. number C. numbers D. amounts
42. A. stocks B. items C. purchases D. cargoes
43. A. thrown away B. torn off C. put aside D. recycled
44. A. particularized B. particular C. particularly D. particularity
45. A. effective B. skillful C. capable D. formal
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The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as
silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as
salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to
conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose
at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are
now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the
electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they
can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to
the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such
good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are
likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‗lead‘ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and
again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an
electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged
ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a
liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its
charged ions cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no
charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a
water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter
does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the
problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that
is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
Question 46: Electrical conductivity is ______.
A. completely impossible for silicon
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. one of the most important properties of metals
Question 47: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ______.
A. the absence of free electrons
B. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
C. the way its atoms bond together
D. its atoms with a positive charge
Question 48: The word ―outermost‖ in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. nearest to the inside B. furthest from the inside
C. the heaviest D. the lightest
Question 49: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ______.
A. electrons can flow in a single direction
B. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
C. they lose all of their electrons
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 50: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ______.
A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions are not free to move
C. its charged ions can flow easily D. it cannot create any charged ions
Question 51: The word ―they‖ in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. electrical insulators B. electric currents
C. charged particles D. charged ions
Question 52: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.
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A. only a small amount of fully charged particles

B. only a positive electric charge
C. no positive or negative electric charge
D. only a negative electric charge
Question 53: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ______.
A. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
B. the water contains too many neutral molecules
C. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
D. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
B. Some materials are more conductive than others.
C. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
D. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
Question 55: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Devices B. Electrical Energy
C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical Conductivity
A radio telescope is a radio receiver that "sees" radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which sees light,
a radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect radio waves that are
emitted by celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects, can be things such as hot gas,
electrons, and wavelengths given off by different atoms and molecules.
The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who graduated with a
degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and later decided to try to build
his own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber's first two radio receivers failed to pick up any signals
from outer space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope successfully picked up radio waves from space.
A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic-shaped dish antenna or a combination of two or more. The
significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be concentrated on one focal
point, allowing the signals to be picked up as strongly as possible. A larger dish means that more signals
can be received and focalized.
In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a seventy-six-
meter telescope although larger telescopes have been made since then. The largest current radio telescope
in the world is the RATAN-600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576 meters. It has provided valuable
feedback of the sun's radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100-
meter diameter telescope in Germany, and the largest radio telescope in the United States is the Big Ear in
the state of Ohio. The largest array of telescopes is the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India.
Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One of the most
important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track different space probes,
the unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescopes allow for the travel of space probes into
places like the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men to explore. Without radio wave technology,
scientists would not know much of what inhabits the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio
waves are our eyes and ears in outer space.
Question 56: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of ______.
A. creatures that inhabit celestial objects B. shapes and sizes of celestial objects
C. normal light of celestial objects D. radio waves sent out by celestial objects
Question 57:
According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber EXCEPT that ______.
A. he was an inventor B. he was an amateur radio operator
C. he was an engineer D. he was an astronomer
Question 58: Grote Reber‘s idea to develop a radio telescope was not successful until ______.
A. he picked up signals from outer space B. he graduated from an engineering school
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C. he experimented on the third one D. he first built one in his backyard

Question 59: The verb ―pick up‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. send B. lift C. receive D. select
Question 60: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results.
B. The Big Ear in the United States produces the largest array of telescopes.
C. The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescopes is significant.
D. The largest radio telescope of all time is the one with a seventy-six-meter diameter.
Question 61: The word ―current‖ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. existing B. moving C. electricity flow D. water movement
Question 62: The word ―they‖ in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. places B. radio waves C. scientists D. eyes and ears
Question 63: Radio waves are scientists‘ eyes and ears in outer space because ______.
A. they can recognize who dominates the universe
B. they help to track only manned space missions in space
C. they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars
D. they can help them understand more about the universe
Question 64: The focus of discussion in the passage is ______.
A. radio waves B. radio telescopes C. radio operators D. atoms and molecules
Question 65: Originally, this passage was probably published in ______.
A. a business journal B. a fashion magazine
C. a scientific journal D. a book on environment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 66: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A B C D
Question 67: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A B CD
Question 68: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight and so that we could spend more time
A B C D
with the clients.
Question 69: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A B C D
Question 70: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.
A B C D
Question 71: It‘s difficult for me to understand what he implies.
A. What he implies is not very difficult to understand.
B. Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
C. I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
D. To understand what he really means is difficult to find.
Question 72: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.
A. Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.
B. I certainly won‘t change my mind about resigning.
C. They asked me no question about resigning.
D. I should have changed my mind about resigning.
Question 73: John said, ―You‘d better not lend them any money, Daisy. ‖
A. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.
B. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.
C. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.
D. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.
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Question 74: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my qualifications.
A. Though I wasn't qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
B. The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn‘t suit my qualifications.
C. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications.
D. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.
Question 75: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.
A. I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.
B. I didn‘t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.
C. I left without remembering to lock the door.
D. I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.
Question 76: They arrived too late to get good seats.
A. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
B. They got good seats some time after they arrived.
C. As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
D. They had to stand for the whole show.
Question 77: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
B. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.
C. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
D. I left home and didn‘t realize how meaningful my family was.
Question 78: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.
A. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
B. During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.
C. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.
D. The traffic is always so heavy that you‘d better walk to work; it‘s quicker.
Question 79: "Get out of my car or I'll call the police!" Jane shouted to the strange man.
A. Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn‘t leave her car.
B. Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.
C. Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn‘t leave her car.
D. Jane plainly said that she would call the police.
Question 80: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow.
A. Nobody likes to come to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
B. We have no difficulty reaching this village in winter because of heavy snow.
C. We cannot gain permission to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
D. Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach the village in winter.
1. D 21. A 41. A 61. A

2. B 22. C 42. D 62. C
3. A 23. A 43. C 63. D
4. B 24. B 44. C 64. B
5. B 25. D 45. A 65. C
6. C 26. D 46. D 66. C
7. C 27. B 47. C 67. A
8. B 28. D 48. B 68. C
9. C 29. B 49. D 69. D
10. B 30. B 50. B 70. A
11. B 31. C 51. A 71. C
12. A 32. D 52. A 72. B
13. A 33. A 53. A 73. C
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14. A 34. D 54. D 74. B

15. A 35. D 55. D 75. C
16. A 36. C 56. D 76. C
17. D 37. D 57. D 77. C
18. B 38. B 58. C 78. A
19. D 39. A 59. C 79. C
20 D 40. C 60. A 80. D
PRACTICE TEST 28
Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word that is pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. days B. says C. ways D. plays
2. A. compared B. shared C. hatred D. repaired
3. A. architect B. scholarship C. character D. champagne
position of the main stress in each of the following words
4. A. character B. institute C. courageous D. internet
5. A. certificate B. compulsory C. eradicate D. automatic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, from 6 to 8
6. She agreed to collaborate with him in writing her biography
A. resist B. fight C. confront D. cooperate
7. The builder‘s conservative estimate of the time required to remodel the kitchen was six weeks
A. reactionary B. cautious C. protective D. traditional
8. The notice was declared such a long time ago that it can't be seen now.
A. is blind B. is unnoticed C. is invisible D. is unvisible
questions, from 9 to 38
9. I suggest that the doctor _________ up his mind without delay.
A. makes B. make C. made D. is to make
10. I can‘t _________ sense of a word he is saying.
A. comprehend B. understand C. grasp D. make sense
11. The UN has demanded that all troops_____ withdrawn
A. be B. will be C. shall be D. were
12. I'm feeling sick. I ________ so much chocolate last night.
A. needn't to eat B. did not eat C. mustn't eat D. shouldn't have eaten
13. Young people __________ to succeed in life should work hard.
A. who wanting B. want C. wanting D. wanted
14. One approach to the study of stress is to identify events that cause psychological............ .
A. disrupting B. disrupts C. disrupt D. disruption
15. So little_____ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
16. Mr. Goldsmith ____ in his office when somebody threw a stone through the window.
A. worked B. is working C. has worked D was working
17. ……of the students know the answer to that question.
A. Most B. Almost C. Mostly D. The most
18. Only in Japan …the high levels of western countries.
A. industrialization has reached B. industrialization is reached
C. has industrialization reached D. is industrialization reached
19. If the students……….. on time, they'd have enjoyed the pictures.
387
A. had come B. came C. have come D. come

20. _____ so aggressive, we‘d get on much better.
A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren‘t she D. If she weren‘t
21. It‘s essential that every student _____ the exam before attending the course.
A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed
22. ________ in Paris before, he didn't know his way around when he took his family there.
A. Not be living B.. His not living C. Because he has livedD. Never having lived
23. Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.
- Liz: ____________
A. OK, see you later. B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too
C. Yes, It was. D. Thanks! I will stop now.
24. The factory is said _______ in a fire two years ago.
A. being destroyed B. to destroy C. to have destroyed D. to have been destroyed
25. ―Would you mind giving me a hand with this bag?‖
B - ― _____________________. ‖
A. Yes, I‘ll do it now. B. No, not at all. C. Yes, I am. D. Well, I‘d love to
26. Forget all and try your best next time - Lightning never _______ twice in the same place.
A. hits B. Attacks C. Beats D. strikes
27. I must go to the dentist and ___________.
A. have my teeth taken care of B. my teeth be taken care of
C. have my teeth to take care of D. take care of my teeth
28. -"I'm sorry. I won't be able to come".
- Mary: ―_______‖.
A. Sounds like fun B. Well, never mind C. Oh, that's annoying D. Great
29. I‘m so tired that I can‘t take ________ what you‗re saying
A. over B. out C. in D. on
30. The greater the demand, ______ the price.
A. the higher B. the high C. Higher D. the highest
31. I just can‘t________that noise any longer!
A. sit out B. stand in for C. put up with D. stand up for
32. - ……. his dangerous driving, Barry has never been caught by the police.
A. In spite B. Although C. Despite D. However
33. ________ seemed a miracle to us.
A. When he had recovered so soon B. That he recovered so soon
C. His recover after so soon D. His being recovered so soon
34. It is very difficult to_____ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.
A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer
each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to each of them, from 35 to 44
35. I didn't listen to him, and I didn't succeed.
A. If I listened to him, I would succeed.
B. If I had listened to him, I would succeed.
C. If I listened to him, I would have succeed.
D. If I had listened to him, I would have succeeded.
36. Though he tried hard, he didn't succeed
A. However hard he tried, he didn't succeed.
B. However he tried hard, he didn't succeed.
c. However he didn't succeed, he tried hard
388
D. However he tried hard, but he didn't succeed.

37. I like to play tennis in the summer.
A I am very interested on playing tennis in the summer.
B. I am very keen in playing tennis in the summer.
C. I am very interested to playing tennis in the summer.
D. I am very fond of playing tennis in the summer.
38. They usually have quite a big meal at lunch time.
A. They are used to having a big meal at lunch time.
B. They are used to have a big meal at lunch time.
C. They are used to have a big meal at lunch time.
D. They used to having a big meal at lunch time.
39. Despite feeling cold we kept walking.
A. Although we felt cold, but we kept walking.
B. Cold as we felt, we kept walking.
C. However cold we felt, but we kept walking.
D. However we felt cold, we kept walking.
40. "I'm sorry I have to leave so early," he said.
A. He apologized for having to leave early.
B. He apologized to have to leave early.
C. He apologized that he has to leave early.
D. He apologized to have left early.
41. He talked about nothing except the weather.
A. He talked about everything including the weather.
B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.
C. He said that he had no interest in the weather.
D. He had nothing to say about the weather.
42. The boy was not allowed to have any friends, so he felt lonely.
A. Having no friends, the boy felt so lonely.
B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely.
C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely.
D. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely.
43. Unless someone has a key, we cannot get into the house.
A. We could not get into the house if someone had a key.
B. If someone does not have a key, we can only get into the house.
C. We can only get into the house if someone has a key.
D. If someone did not have a key, we could not get into the house.
44. Conan said to me, "If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways. "
A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.
B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.
C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.
D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, from 45 to 51
45. There should be new measures to discourage car use in favour of public transport.
A. prevent B. encourage C. disapprove D. disconnect
46. I don‘t like the way he refers to his problems obliquely.
A. directly B. indirectly C. politely D. impolitely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction, from
47 to 51
389
47. The British labor movement developed as a means of improve working conditions through
group efforts. A B C D
48. Poverty in the United States is noticeably different from that in the others countries.
A B C D
49. Five-credits-hour courses are approved for the student's work in the major field of interest.
A B C D
50. The basic law of addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are taught to all elementary
A B C
school students
D
51. On Aprial 14, 1865, an actor named John Wilkes Booth, angered by the South‘s defeat in the
A B C
Civil War, shot and had killed Precident Abraham Lincoln
D
answer to each of the questions, from 52 to 60
The Works Progress Administration (WPA) was formed in 1935 during the height of the Great
Depression as part of President Franklin Delano Roosevelt's New Deal package to bring the
economy around and provide relief for the millions of unemployed throughout the country; the goal
of the program was to maintain peoples' skills and respect by providing work to as many as possible
during this period of massive unemployment. For the eight years that the WPA was in existence
from 1935 to 1943, the WPA was responsible for providing jobs to approximately eight million
people at a cost of more than eleven billion dollars.
One of the more controversial programs of the WPA was the Federal Arts Project, a program to
employ artists full-time at such tasks as painting murals in libraries, theaters, train stations, and
airports; teaching various techniques of art; and preparing a comprehensive study of American
crafts. Criticism of the program centered on what was perceived as the frivolity of supporting the
arts at a time when millions were starving, industry was sagging, farms were barren, and all that
could flourish were bankruptcy courts and soup kitchens.
52. This passage mainly discusses
A. the Great Depression
B. the benefits of Franklin Delano Roosevelt's New Deal
C. the New Deal and one of its controversies
D. bankruptcy courts and soup kitchens
53. The word "package" could best be replaced by
A. carton B. secret gift C. box D. bundle of ralated items
54. According to the passage, the stated purpose of the WPA was to
A. create new American masterpieces
B. raise the standard of American art
C. introduce new art techniques to the American public
D. improve the economy
55. The word "massive" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
A. tremendous B. rocky C. clustered D. dangerous
56 The word "controversial" is closest in meaning to
A. disputed B. successful C. creative D. comprehensive
57. All the following probably helped to make the Federal Arts Project controversial EXCEPT that
A. the Federal Arts Project employed many who would otherwise have been out of work
B. train stations and airports were decorated with murals
C. the Federal Arts Project commissioned art works
D. a tremendous study of American crafts was produced
58. The expression "centered on" could best be replaced by
A. encircled B. located on C. focused on D. surrounded
390
59. When the author states that "... all that could flourish were bankruptcy courts and soup
kitchens," he or she probably means that
A. banks and restaurants did well during the Depression
B. the poor could not afford to use banks or eat soup
C. the only organizations to thrive were those that dealt with the poor
D. many restaurants declared bankruptcy during the Depression
60. Where in the passage does the author give examples of artistic jobs?
A. lines 1-6 B. lines 6-8 C. lines 9-12 D. lines 12-15
The invention of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry. Although Samuel B.
Morse succeeded in making the invention useful in 1837, It was not until 1843 that the first telegraph line
of consequence was contributed. By 1860, more than 50,000 miles of lines had connected people east of
the Rockies. The following year, San Francisco was added to the network.
The national telegraph network fortified the ties between East and West and contributed to the rapid
expansion of the railroads by providing and efficient means to monitors schedules and routes.
Furthermore, the extension of the telegraph, combined with the invention of the steam-driven rotary
printing press by Richard M. Hoe in 1846, revolutionized the world of Journalism. Where the business of
news gathering had been dependent upon the mail and on hand -operated presses, the telegraph expanded
the amount of information a newspaper could supply and allowed for timelier reporting. The
establishment of the Associated Press as a central wire service in 1846 marked the advent of a new ers in
journalism.
61. The main topic of the passage is______.
A. the history of journalism
B. the origin of the national telegraph network
C. how the telegraph network contributed to the expansion of railroads
D. the contributions and development of the telegraph network
62. according to the passage, how did the telegraph enhance the business of news gathering?
A. By allowing for timelier reporting
B. By adding San Francisco t the network
C. By expanding the railroads
D. By monitoring schedules and routes for the railroads
63. The author‘s main purpose in this passage is to________.
A. compare the invention of the telegraph with the invention of the steam-driven rotary press
B. propose new ways to develop the communications industry
C. show how the electric telegraph affected the communications industry
D. criticize Samuel B. Morse
64. The phrase ―the Rockies‖ in the first paragraph refers to______.
A. a telephone company B. the West Coast
C. a mountain range D. a railroad company
65. It can be inferred from the passage that______.
A. Samuel Morse did not make a significant contribution to the communications industry
B. Morse‘s invention immediately achieved its full potential
C. The extension of the telegraph was more important than its invention
D. Journalists have the Associated Press to thank for the birth of the communications industry
66. The word ― revolutionized‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_____.
A. destroyed B. revolved C gathered D. transformed
67. According to the passage, which of the following is Not true about the growth of the
communications industry?
A. Morse invented the telegraph in 1837.
B. People could use the telegraph in San Francisco in 1861.
391
C. The telegraph led to the invention of the rotary printing press.

D. The telegraph helped connect the entire nation.
68. The word ―gathering ―in the second paragraph refers to.
A). people B. information C. objects D. computer magazine
69. This passage would most likely be found in a_____.
A U. S. history book B. book on trains C. science textbook D. computer magazine
70. How does the author feel about the invention of the electric telegraph?
A. indifferent B. admiring C. neutral D. uninterested
word for each of the blanks, from 71 to 80
At 19, Ben Way was already a millionaire, and one of a number of teenagers who_____(71) their fortune
through the Internet. _____(72) makes Ben‘s story all the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and
was_____ (73)by teachers at his junior school that he would never be able to read or write properly. ‖ I
wanted to prove them_____ (74)―, says Ben, creator and director of Waysearch engine which can be used
to find goods in online shopping malls.
When he was eight, his local authorities_____(75) him with a PC to help with school work. Althrough he
was_____ (76)to read the manuals, he had a natural ability with the computer, and encouraged by his
father, he soon began_____(77) people $ 10 an hour for his knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he
_____(78) up his own computer consultancy, Quad Computer, which he ran from his bedroom, and two
years later he left school to_____(79) all his time to business.
―By this time the company had grown and needed to take_____(80) a couple of employees to
help me‖, says Ben. That enabled me to start doing business with bigger companies. It was his ability to
consistently overcome difficult challenges that led him to win the ―Young Entrepreneur of the year‖
award in the same year that he formed Waysearch.
71. A. taken B. made C. put D. done
72. A. This B. That C. Something D. What
73. A. said B. told C. suggested D. reported
74. A. wrong B. false C. untrue D. unfair
75. A. provided B. gave C. offered D. got
76. A. imppossible B. incapable C. disabled D. unable
77. A. owing B. charging C. lending D. borrowing
78. A. put B. ran C. made D. set
79. A. pay B. spend C. devote D. invest
80. A. on B. up C. out D. over
KEY TO PRACTICE 28
392
1 B 21 A 41 B 61 D
2 C 22 D 42 D 62 A
3 D 23 A 43 C 63 C
4 C 24 D 44 D 64 C
5 D 25 B 45 B 65 B
6 D 26 D 46 A 66 D
7 B 27 A 47 C 67 C
8 28 B 48 D 68 B
9 B 29 C 49 A 69 A
10 D 30 A 50 C 70 B
11 A 31 C 51 D 71 B
12 B 32 B 52 C 72 D
13 C 33 B 53 D 73 B
14 D 34 B 54 D 74 A
15 D 35 D 55 A 75 A
16 D 36 A 56 A 76 D
17 A 37 D 57 A 77 B
18 C 38 A 58 C 78 D
19 A 39 B 59 C 79 C
20 D 40 A 60 C 80 A
393

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PHẦN II: CÁC ĐỀ LUYỆN THI

20. Tornadoes left several Midwestern towns in a state of chaos.

44: A. go over B. overcome C. get over D. surpass

IV, Read the passage and choose the best answer:

……………….. The end………………

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

A. down B. up C. over D. back

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

C. It is not easy to learn English. D. It is not difficult to learn English.

a. Never mind b. Yes, please don‘t c. Not at all d. Yes, please do

d. writing is secondary to language

b. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

A. out from B. out of C. down D. over

C. They shouldn't reclaim the land

C. electricity the most useful D. the most useful in electricity

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

8. ― Why don‘t we go out for a drink?‖ 2

C. the smallest of which D. smallest of that

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

A. memorable B. observable C. acceptable D. reflexible

A. consideration B. feeling sorry C. limitation D. acceptance

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

11. You are going to come to the party_____?

A. boys parents B. boys‘ parents‘ C. boys parents‘ D. boys‘ parents

A. Because people will soon throw them away.

C. The carpets were too expensive for us to buy

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 45.

A. fail B. bring C. release D. fall

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

Question 56: A. miss B. remember C. imagine D. memorize

---------- THE END ---------

a. the – the b. the – a c. x – the d. x – x

Question 41. a. large b. jointed c. single d. branch

Question 57. The word ―suitable‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

a. Willy accused Bob for having stolen his best cassette.

KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 10

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

2. a. tongue b. young c. monkey d. tone

a. border b. bride c. diplomatic relation d. water

d. He wondered whether teaching methods vary considerably or not.

A. So what? B. Come what may.

COCOA MIGHT PREVENT MEMORY DECLINE

Question 36: A. made B. improved C. rose D. supported

Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss?

D. could easily be transported

A. romances B. important novels C. boys' books . thrillers

------- THE END ------

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

C. the popularity is D. popular is

Question 36: A. attracted B. brought C. fetched D. pushed

C. an instrument D. an offering of food

D. The concert was better than Jennifer had expected.

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

relations with other countries.

Question 36: A. scarcely B. rarely C. slightly D. really

Question 53: According to the passage, Moby Dick is _______.

D. the harsh climate of Antarctica

_____________ THE END_____________

KEYS FOR PRACTICE 14

26. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.

_ THE END_