Biology Vol 1 Master The Ncert WWW - Examsakha.in

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Complete Practice of NCERT for
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ASTER THE CERT

BIOLOGY-I
Thousands of MCQs Based on
Each & Every Topic of Latest NCERT
Complete Practice of NCERT for
NEET 11& 12
ASTER THE CERT

BIOLOGY-I
Thousands of MCQs Based on
Each & Every Topic of Latest NCERT
Class-XI
SANJAY SHARMA
Co-authored by
Sanubia
Abhishek Sharma
ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (Series), MEERUT

Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut
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PREFACE
In the present dynamic scenario of competitions, NCERT Books are gaining importance day
by day. On an average about 30% questions asked in various competitions are from NCERT.
Similarly with the incorporation of Board weightage in competitions the necessity of dual
synchronous preparation i.e., to study NCERT for School Exams and for Competitive Exams,
is increasing day by day. Arihant’s Master the NCERT Series is framed with the philosophy
of such synchronous preparation in mind.
The book consists of 22 chapters, in each of which questions are framed on each & every
line of NCERT text. Some special features of Master the NCERT books which make these
books stand apart from other NCERT based books are
— Each chapter has a NEET Key Notes for quick revision of whole NCERT content.
— Each chapter has topically divided objective questions based on NCERT content to
cover all the topics of NCERT text.
— Separate section in each chapter having special types questions for NEET.
— Complete coverage of NCERT Exemplar objective questions in each chapter.
— Detailed explanations for selected questions.
— Appendix given at the end contains some Important Multicolored Diagrams from the
whole NCERT curriculum.
The variety in types of questions framed will be helpful in analysis of self-performance and
exposures to face tough problems of competitions. Previous Years' Medical Entrance
Questions have also been incorporated at appropriate places so that the students get the
exposure of type of questions asked in various competitions on the same topic.
Huge efforts have been made from our side to keep this book error free, but inspite of that
if any error or whatsoever is skipped in the book then that is purely incidental, apology for
the same, please write to us about that so that it can be corrected in the further edition of
the book. Suggestions for further improvement of the book will also be welcomed &
incorporated in further editions.
Publisher
CONTENTS
1. THE LIVING WORLD 1-16

NEET Key Notes 1-2
Mastering NCERT with MCQs
— What is Living ? 3-4
— Diversity and Classification 4-5
— Taxonomic Categories 5-6
— Taxonomic Aids 7
NEET Special Types Questions 8-11
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 11-12
Answers & Explanations 12-16
2. BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION 17-43

NEET Key Notes 17-20
— Introduction and Kingdom–Monera 20-22
— Kingdom–Protista 22-24
— Kingdom–Fungi 24-26
— Kingdom–Plantae and Animalia 26
— Viruses, Viroids, Prions and Lichens 27-28
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 35
3. PLANT KINGDOM 44-73

— Introduction about Plants 48
— Algae 48-51
— Bryophytes 51-53
— Pteridophytes 54-55
— Gymnosperms 55-56
— Angiosperms 56-57
— Plant Life Cycles and Alternation of Generations 58
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BIOLOGY-I Class-XI
4. ANIMAL KINGDOM 74-103

— Basis of Classification 79-81
— Classification of Animals - Porifera to Aschelminthes 81-83
— Classification of Animals - Annelida to Hemichordata 83-85
— Classification of Animals - Chordata 85-88
NCERT Exemplar Questions 95-96
5. MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS 104-129

— The Root 109-110
— The Stem 110
— The Leaf 111-112
— Inflorescence and The Flower 112-114
— Fruit and Seed 114-115
— Semi-Technical Description of a Typical Flowering Plant 116
— Description of Some Important Families 116-117
6. ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS 130-155

— The Tissues 134-137
— Tissue System 137-138
— Anatomy of Dicotyledonous and Monocotyledonous Plants 138-141
— Secondary Growth 141-143
7. STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS 156-186

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BIOLOGY-I Class-XI

— Animal Tissues 160-163
— Earthworm 164-167
— Cockroach 167-170
— Frog 171-173
8. CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE 187-210

— Cell Theory 190-191
— Prokaryotic Cell 191-192
— Eukaryotic Cell 192-197
9. BIOMOLECULES 211-235
— Biomicromolecules 216-218
— Primary and Secondary Metabolites 219
— Biomacromolecules and their Structures 219-222
— Metabolism 222-223
— Enzymes 223-225
10. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION 236-252

— Cell Cycle 238-239
— Mitosis 239-241
— Meiosis 241-243
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11. TRANSPORT IN PLANTS 253-279

— Means of Transport 257-259
— Plant-Water Relation 259-261
— Long Distance Transport of water 261-263
— Transpiration 263-264
— Uptake and Transport of Mineral Nutrients 265
— Phloem Transport : Flow from Source to Sink 265-266
12. MINERAL NUTRITION 280-299

— Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of Plants 284
— Essential Mineral Elements 285-287
— Mechanism of Absorption of Elements 287
— Metabolism of Nitrogen 288-289
13. PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS 300-324

— Photosynthesis : Introduction and Early Experiments 304-305
— Sites and Pigment of Photosynthesis 305-306
— Light Reaction 306-307
— The Electron Transport 307-309
— Where are the ATP and NADPH used? 309
— The Calvin Cycle (C3) and C4-Pathway 310-311
— Photorespiration 312
— Factors Affecting Photosynthesis 312-313
NCERT Exemplar Questions 317
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BIOLOGY-I Class-XI
14. RESPIRATION IN PLANTS 325-345

— Do Plants Breathe? 328
— Glycolysis 328-329
— Fermentation 330-331
— Aerobic Respiration and Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle 331-332
— Electron Transport System (ETS) and Oxidative Phosphorylation 333-334
— Respiratory Balance Sheet and Amphibolic Pathway 334-335
— Respiratory Quotient 335-336
15. PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT 346-370

— Growth 350-352
— Differentiation, Dedifferentiation and Redifferentiation 353
— Development 353-354
— Plant Growth Regulators 354-357
— Photoperiodism 357-358
— Vernalisation and Seed Dormancy 358
16. DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION 371-393

— Digestive System (Alimentary canal and Digestive glands) 374-377
— Digestion of Food 377-379
— Absorption of Digested Products 379-380
— Disorders of Digestive System 380-381
ASTER THE CERT
BIOLOGY-I Class-XI
17. BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES 394-414

— Respiratory Organs 397-398
— Mechanism of Breathing and Pulmonary Volumes 398-399
— Exchange of Gases 399-401
— Transport of Gases 401-402
— Regulation of Respiration and Disorders of Respiratory System 402-403
18. BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION 415-441

— Blood and Lymph 419-421
— Circulatory Pathways and Human Circulatory System 422-423
— Cardiac Cycle and ECG 424-425
— Double Circulation and Regulation of Cardiac Activity 425-426
— Disorders of Circulatory System 426-427
19. EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION 442-463

— Human Excretory System 446-448
— Urine Formation and Functions of Tubules 448-449
— Mechanism of Concentration of the Filtrate 450
— Regulation of Kidney Function 450-451
— Micturition 451
— Role of other Organs in Excretion and Disorders of Excretory System 452
ASTER THE CERT
BIOLOGY-I Class-XI
20. LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT 464-483

— Types of Movement, Muscles and Mechanism of Muscle Contraction 467-470
— Skeletal System 470-472
— Joints 473
— Disorders of Muscular and Skeletal System 473
21. NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION 484-507

— Human Neural System 488-489
— Neuron as Structural and Functional Unit of Neural System 489-491
— Central Nervous System and Reflex Arc 491-493
— Sensory Reception and Processing 493-496
22. CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION 508-532

— Human Endocrine System : Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal, Thyroid, Parathyroid,
Thymus, Adrenal and Pancreas Gland 512-516
— Human Endocrine System : Testes, Ovary and Hormones of Heart,
Kidney and Gastrointestinal Tract 516-517
— Mechanism of Hormone Action 517-518
Some Important Diagrams of NCERT (Multicolored Diagrams) 1-8

CHAPTER > 01
The Living World

NEET KEY NOTES
Biology is the science, which deals with the study of living Å Certain rules and principles have been formulated for the
organisms and their life processes. The term ‘Biology’ was identification, nomenclature and classification of organisms,
first introduced by GR Treviranus and Jean Baptiste de which facilitate the study of vast diversity of organisms present
Lamarck (1802). on earth.
Å Identification involves the process of finding the correct name
What is Living? and place of an organism. The morphological and anatomical
Living organisms show certain key characteristics which characters are examined for proper identification.
distinguish them from non-living things. These are Å Nomenclature involves standardising appropriate naming of
Å Growth is shown by living organism by an increase in living organisms, so that they can be recognised and
mass and an increase in the number of individuals. A differentiated from others easily across the world.
multicellular organism grows by cell division. Å To ease the process of studying different organisms, a scientific
Å Reproduction is the process of producing offspring name is assigned to each organism.
possessing features similar to those of their parents. It The principles of naming have been established by International
takes place by sexual or asexual mode. Code for Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN) and International
Å Metabolism comprises of both constructive reactions Code for Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN) for plants and
(anabolism) and destructive reactions (catabolism), animals, respectively.
continuously occurring in the body. Å Organisms are identified on the basis of their resemblance and
Å Cellular organisation The cells are the building blocks of distinct differences from others. They are assigned a correct
all living organisms may it be plants, animals or humans. scientific/biological name.
Thus, organisms can be unicellular or multicellular. Å Binomial System of Nomenclature was developed by Carolus
Å Consciousness is the ability of living organisms to sense Linnaeus in 1751 and was published in his book Species Plantarum
their surroundings or environment and respond to these (1753). As per this system, a biological name comprises of two
words namely, generic name and the specific epithet.
environmental stimuli, which could be physical, chemical
and biological. Å Nomenclature of organisms follows certain universal rules,
which are as follows
Diversity in the Living World n
Biological names are generally in Latin and are written in
Å Biodiversity refers to the number and types of organisms Italics. These are latinised or derived from Latin irrespective
present on earth. Our earth possesses a wide range of of their origin.
living organisms. A number of plants and animals have n
Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten are
been identified and described. However, a large number separately underlined or printed in Italics to indicate their
of organisms are still unknown to us. Latin origin.
Å A rich diversity among organisms or biodiversity in n
The first letter of the generic name is written in capital letter
terms of size, colour, habitat, physiological and while that of specific epithet is written in small letter, e.g.
morphological features can be observed on earth. Mangifera indica.
Therefore, it is necessary to standardise the methods to n
Name of the author appears after the specific epithet at the
identify and classify them on the basis of their defining end of the biological name and is written in an abbreviated
characteristics. form, e.g. Mangifera indica Linn, where Linn is for Linnaeus.
2 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-I )
Å Classification is the process by which organisms are In plants, classes with few similar characters are placed
grouped into convenient categories based on some easily under higher category called division, e.g. the
observable characters. The scientific term used for different division–Angiospermae includes wheat, onion, etc.
categories is taxa. n
Kingdom It is the highest taxonomic category. All
Å Taxonomy is the branch of science which deals with animals belong to the kingdom–Animalia, while all
different aspects of identification, nomenclature and plants belong to the kingdom–Plantae.
classification of organisms. Linnaeus is known as the Father
of Taxonomy. Taxonomical Aids
Å Systematics is the study of systematic arrangement of Biologists have established certain procedures and
organisms and the evolutionary relationships amongst techniques to store and preserve information as well as the
them. specimens which are useful in identification and
classification of organisms. These techniques stored
Taxonomic Categories information and procedures are called taxonomic tools or
Å The system of arranging different categories or ranks, which taxonomic aids. Following are some of the main
are referred to as taxonomic categories in a proper taxonomical aids used to study taxonomy
ascending or descending order is called as taxonomic Å Herbarium is the storehouse of collected plant specimens
hierarchy. Every organism occupies a distinct position in a that are dried, pressed and presserved on herbarium
taxonomic hierarchy. sheets. The biggest herbarium of the world is the Royal
Å Each category in taxonomical hierarchy is commonly Botanical Garden in Kew (England), while the biggest
called taxon. The term ‘taxon’ was first introduced by herbarium of India is the Central National Herbarium at
ICBN during 1956 and it is the basic unit of classification. Shibpur (Kolkata).
Å Taxonomic hierarchy was first proposed by Linnaeus and Å Botanical garden is essentially a collection of living
thus it is also called as Linnaeus hierarchy. This hierarchy plants maintained for both pure and applied studies. The
constitutes the following components in an ascending order. famous botanical gardens are Royal Botanical Garden in
Kew (England), Indian Botanical Garden, Howrah
n
Species It is the smallest unit of taxonomic hierarchy
(India) and National Botanical Research Institute,
consisting of groups of morphologically similar
Lucknow (India).
individuals which can interbreed to produce offspring,
e.g. nigrum and melongena are the two species of Å Museums have a collection of preserved plants and
genus–Solanum. animals for study and reference purposes. Specimens
are preserved in containers or jars in preservative
n
Genus It comprises of a group of related species having
solutions. Insects are preserved in insect boxes after
more characters in common in comparison to species of
collecting, killing and pinning them. Larger animals
other genera, e.g. lion, leopard and tiger are all species of
like birds and mammals are usually stuffed and
the genus–Panthera, while cats belong to the genus–Felis. preserved.
n
Family It is a group of related genera with a few Å Zoological parks are the places where wild animals are
common features but less number of similarities as kept in protected environments under human care. This
compared to genus and species. Plant families are enables us to learn about their food habits and
categorised on the basis of both vegetative and behaviour.
reproductive features of species, e.g. family–Solanaceae
Å Keys are used for identification of plants and animals
possesses different genera like Solanum, Petunia and
Datura. Similarly, in animals, cats and dogs belong to based on similarities and dissimilarities. The keys are
two different families–Felidae and Canidae, respectively. based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair
called couplet. Each statement in the key is called a lead.
n
Order It is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few Keys are generally analytical in nature.
similar characters, e.g. order–Polymoniales contains
Å Monograph contains information on any one taxon.
different plant families like Solanaceae and
Convolvulaceae. In animals, order–Carnivora includes Å Manuals are useful in providing information for
families Felidae and Canidae. identification of names of species found in an area.
n
Class It includes one or more related orders, e.g.
Å Flora contains the actual account of habitat and
class–Mammalia includes order–Primata and Carnivora. distribution of plants of a given area.
n
Phylum or Division It includes classes with a few Å Catalogue is a list that enumerates methodically all the
similar characters, e.g. phylum–Chordata includes species found in an area with brief description aiding
animals possessing notochord and dorsal neural system. identification.
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 01 > The Living World 3
Mastering NCERT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
TOPIC 1 ~ What is Living?
1 The characteristics of growth include 8 Which of the following set of organisms reproduce by
(a) increase in mass fragmentation (asexual mode of reproduction)?
(b) increase in number of individuals (a) Amoeba, fungi and earthworm
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses
(d) ability to reproduce (c) Hydra, fungi, Amoeba and bacteria
2 Plants grow throughout life by which method? (d) Earthworm, bacteria and fungi
(a) Cell dedifferentiation 9 Reproduction is synonymous with growth in which of
(b) Cell differentiation the following set of organisms?
(c) Cell division (a) Bacteria, unicellular algae and Amoeba
(d) None of the above (b) Bacteria, Amoeba and fungi
3 Growth in unicellular organisms can be observed by (c) Unicellular algae and fungi
(a) counting the mass of cultured cells (d) Unicellular algae and filamentous algae
(b) analysing the amount of nutrients absorbed by living 10 Why reproduction cannot be considered as an
organism inclusive defining characteristic of all living
(c) growth cannot be observed organisms?
(d) simply counting the number of cells under microscope (a) Non-living organisms also reproduce
during in vitro culture
(b) Many living organisms are sterile
4 In majority of higher animals and plants, reproduction (c) Reproduction is synonym to growth in all organisms
and growth are (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) mutually exclusive events
11 Which of the following characteristics is not a
(b) synonymous events
defining character of living organisms?
(c) synonymous events during in vitro culture
(a) Growth
(d) None of the above
(b) Growth and reproduction
5 Among the following, which is a common (c) Reproduction
phenomenon exhibited by living and non-living (d) Growth and metabolism
organisms to show the feature of growth?
12 Metabolism can be best defined as
(a) Increase in mass
(a) the process in which a chemical is formed inside the
(b) Cell division body
(c) Increase in replication rate (b) the process in which a chemical is destroyed inside
(d) Cell differentiation the body
6 What kind of growth is exhibited by non-living (c) the sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in
organisms? the body
(a) Accumulation of material on surface (d) a complex construction process only
(b) Accumulation of material inside 13 In which of the following, metabolic reactions
(c) Growth from inside take place?
(d) None of the above (a) In living organisms only
7 A true regeneration was observed in (b) Both in living and non-living organisms
(a) Hydra (b) Planaria (c) In cell-free systems
(c) Sponges (d) Amoeba (d) Both (a) and (c)
14 Consciousness is the defining property of living (c) molecular constituent of an organelle

organisms because (d) None of the above
(a) photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders in 16 Hierarchy of biological organisation in living beings
both plants and animals can be represented as
(b) plants respond to external factors like temperature and (a) Subcellular → Cellular → Individual → Population
light
(b) Atomic → Molecular → Cellular → Tissue → Organ
(c) human is aware of himself → Organ system → Individual
(d) All of the above
(c) Organ system → Tissue → Cellular → Molecular →
15 Higher level of organisation emerges from Atomic
(a) a tissue itself (d) Individual → Molecular → Tissue → Organ system
(b) interactions among organelles → Population
TOPIC 2 ~ Diversity and Classification

17 Biodiversity can be best defined as 25 The bionomial nomenclature system was given by
(a) occurrence of the number and types of organisms (a) Carol Linnaeus
(b) species and ecosystem of a region (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) variety of life in an ecosystem (c) Aristotle
(d) totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a given region (d) Whittaker
18 The number of species that are known and described 26 In Mangifera indica, the word Mangifera is a
ranges between (a) genus (b) species
(c) variety (d) order
(a) 1.7-1.8 million (b) 1 million
(c) 50 million (d) 2 million 27 Scientific names are printed in …… and are
19 Standardising the name of living organism is known as
derived from …… .
(a) Bold and English
(a) classification (b) identification
(b) Italics and Latin
(c) nomenclature (d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) Italics and German
20 Which is first step in taxonomy? (d) Italics and French
(a) Description of the organism
28 Which of the following is against the rules of
(b) Identification of the organism
(c) Nomenclature of the organism
ICBN? NEET (Odisha) 2019, NEET 2016
(d) Classification of the organism (a) Handwritten scientific names should be underlined
(b) Every species should have a generic name and a
21 ICBN stands for CBSE-AIPMT 2011 specific epithet
(a) Indian Congress of Biological Name (c) Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicised
(b) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (d) Generic and specific names should be written starting
(c) International Congress of Biological Name with small letters
(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
29 Which one is the incorrectly written scientific
22 Expand ICZN name?
(a) International Code for Zoological Nomenclature (a) Panthera tigris (b) Mangifera indica
(b) Intranational Code for Zoological Nomenclature (c) Panthera leo (d) Columba LIVEA
(c) International Code for Zoological Naming 30 In binomial nomenclature, the name of author
(d) Interregional Code for Zoological Naming appears after the
23 Organisms are given scientific names because (a) genus (b) family
(a) it ensures that each organism has only one name (c) species (d) taxa
(b) it ensures that no name is used twice 31 Select the correctly written scientific name of
(c) it ensures desired name for the organisms mango which was first described by Carolus
(d) Both (a) and (b) Linnaeus.
24 According to the binomial nomenclature, scientific (a) Mangifera indica Linn. NEET 2019
name of an organism consists of (b) Mangifera indica
(a) generic name (b) specific epithet (c) Mangifera Indica
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (d) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
32 The process by which anything is grouped into 35 Earliest classifications were based on
convenient categories based on some easily (a) ‘uses’ or basic amenities of organisms
observable characters is (b) morphological features of organisms
(a) identification (c) ecological interactions of organisms
(b) classification (d) phylogenetic relations of organisms
(c) sorting 36 All the given options respresent the basic process of
(d) grouping taxonomy except
33 The scientific term for different categories like plants (a) nomenclature (b) identification
and mammals is (c) speciation (d) classification
(a) phylum (b) taxa 37 Diversity of organisms and their evolutionary
(c) genus (d) epithet relationship is studied scientifically under
34 What are the basis of modern taxonomic studies? (a) morphology (b) anatomy
(a) Internal structure (c) taxonomy (d) systematics
(b) Ecological information 38 Who had written Systema Naturae?
(c) Structure of cell (a) Ernst Mayr (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) All of the above (c) RH Whittaker (d) WM Stanley
TOPIC 3 ~ Taxonomic Categories

39 Ascending or descending arrangement of taxonomic 46 In Solanum tuberosum, first and second words stand
categories is known as for, respectively
(a) classification (b) key (a) genus, generic name
(c) taxonomy (d) hierarchy (b) specific epithet, species
(c) specific name and generic name
40 A taxon is a
(d) genus and species
(a) group of related species
(b) group of related families 47 Solanum and Panthera are
(c) type of living organisms (a) genus and species
(d) taxonomic group of any ranking (b) genus and genus
41 A ‘taxa’ differs from ‘taxon’ due to (c) species and species
(a) being a higher taxonomic category than taxon (d) only species
(b) being a lower taxonomic category than taxon 48 Choose the organism which does not belong to genus
(c) being plural of taxon Solanum.
(d) being singular of taxon (a) Potato
42 What is the basic unit of classification? (b) Tomato
(a) Family (b) Order (c) Brinjal
(c) Species (d) Genus (d) Bottle gourd
43 Species is considered as 49 A group of related genera is called a
(a) the largest taxon of taxonomy/classification (a) family (b) class
(b) the smallest taxon of taxonomy/classification (c) phylum (d) order
(c) Both smallest and the largest unit of 50 For naming different families in taxonomy.
taxonomy/classification (a) Animal families ends with suffix – idea
(d) None of the above (b) Plant families ends with suffix – aceae
44 Individuals of which taxa can interbreed freely? (c) both vegetative and reproductive features are taken as
(a) Genus (b) Species the basis of plant classification
(c) Family (d) Order (d) All of the above
45 Which one is species? 51 Which is not a taxonomic category?
(a) Cannis (b) Pisum (a) Asteraceae/Fabaceae (b) Species
(c) leo (d) Carnivora (c) Phylum (d) Class
52 The plant family–Solanaceae is included in which 62 Arrange the following in ascending order of similar
order? characteristics.
(a) Felidae (b) Conidae I. Family II. Genus
(c) Polymoniales (d) Dimoniales III. Class IV. Species
53 The order–Carnivora includes family (a) Class < Family < Genus < Species
(a) Felidae (b) Family < Class < Genus < Species
(b) Convolvulaceae (c) Species < Order < Family < Class
(c) Felidae and Canidae (d) Class < Genus < Species < Family
(d) Canidae 63 Sapindales represents one of the taxonomic category
54 In hierarchical classification, class is placed between of mango. The similar taxonomic categroy of man is
(a) kingdom and phylum (a) Mammalia (b) Chordata
(b) order and family (c) Primata (d) Eutheria
(c) phylum and order 64 The scientific name of wheat is
(d) family and genus (a) Mangifera indica (b) Triticum aestivum
55 The taxonomic category assigned to Mammalia is (c) Triticum poales (d) None of these
(a) Family (b) Genus 65 The housefly belongs to which family in taxonomical
(c) Class (d) Order classification?
56 Which of the following taxonomic categories includes (a) Musca (b) Diptera
all the other categories? (c) Muscidae (d) Insecta
(a) Class (b) Order 66 Which taxonomic category of mango and wheat is
(c) Family (d) Genus similar?
57 Higher taxa share (a) Order and Family (b) Only Division
(a) least common characters (c) Division and Class (d) Division, Class and Order
(b) maximum common characters
67 The odd taxonomic category among the given options is
(c) no common characters
(d) exactly similar common characters (a) Triticum (b) Homo
(c) Musca (d) Poaceae
58 Which one of the following taxonomic categories top
the hierarchy of categories? 68 Why hierarchical taxonomic system is used?
(a) Order (b) Division (a) As each higher taxonomic category contains
(c) Class (d) Family groups/categories below it
(b) It is helpful to establish classifications
59 In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters
(c) All taxonomic categories reflect common habitats
are assigned to higher category called
(d) Taxonomic groups show similar characters and have no
(a) division (b) phylum
evolutionary relationship
(c) order (d) family
69 Which one of the following features is shared by all
60 Which one of the following categories contains the
the living organisms at all the hierarchical levels?
least similar characteristics?
(a) Mode of nutrition
(a) Class (b) Order
(b) Cellular organisation
(c) Family (d) Division
(c) Nature of protoplasmic composition
61 Choose the incorrect match. (d) Growth by cell division
(a) Order – a group of related families
70 Poales and Sapindales represent
(b) Genus – a group of related species
(c) Class – a group of related orders (a) Genus (b) Class
(d) Division – a group of related phyla (c) Order (d) Species
TOPIC 4~ Taxonomic Aids

71 What is the prime source of taxonomic studies? 81 Insects are preserved in museums
(a) Collection of actual specimen of organism (a) in preservative solutions
(b) Identification of actual specimen of organism (b) as dry specimens
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) by collecting, killing and pinning
(d) None of the above (d) Both (b) and (c)
72 The taxonomical aids in which dried pressed plant 82 Zoological park is a place
specimens are preserved is (a) where wild animals are kept in protected environment
(a) botanical garden (b) herbarium under human care
(c) sheets (d) specimen sheets (b) which enable us to learn about the food habits and
73 The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry behaviour of wild animals
information on NEET 2016 (c) where conditions similar to natural habitat of wild
(a) date of collection (b) name of collector animal is provided
(c) local names (d) height of plant (d) All of the above
74 Largest herbarium in India is 83 The taxonomical aid used for identification of plants
(a) Madras Herbarium, Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu) and animals by applying diagnostic features is
(b) Central National Herbarium (Indian Botanical Garden) (a) herbarium
Shibpur, Kolkata (WB) (b) key
(c) Herbarium of National Botanical Research Institute, (c) museum
Lucknow (UP) (d) monograph
(d) Forest Research Institute, Dehradun (UK) 84 The contrasting characteristics generally in a pair
75 A taxonomical aid having collection of living plants used for identification of animals in a taxonomic key
for reference is are referred to as NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) herbarium (b) zoological park (a) lead (b) couplet (c) doublet (d) alternate
(c) botanical garden (d) museum 85 Statement in the key is referred to as
76 In a botanical garden, labelling of plants indicates (a) lead (b) clue
(a) scientific name only (c) proof (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) scientific name and family 86 A book containing information about the habitat,
(c) common name, scientific name and order climate, description and index of plants found in a
(d) common name only specific area is
77 Which of the following is an advantage of (a) flora (b) key
establishing botanical gardens? (c) manual (d) monograph
(a) These have collections of living plants for reference 87 What is true about manual?
(b) These are ex situ conservation strategy (a) It is a list that enumerates all species
(c) These contain labelled plants indicating its (b) It is a book containing information for identification of
botanical/scientific name and family names of species in a particular area
(d) All of the above (c) It is based on similarities and dissimilarities
78 The Indian Botanical Garden is located at (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Howrah (b) London (c) Lucknow (d) Kew 88 Which taxonomical aid provides all information about
79 Largest botanical garden in the world is a particular taxon like order or family?
(a) Conservatory and Botanical Garden, Geneva CBSE-AIPMT 2011
(b) New York Botanical Garden (a) Herbarium (b) Catalogue
(c) Royal Botanical Garden, Kew (London) (c) Taxonomic key (d) Monograph
(d) British Museum of Natural History 89 List containing names of all the species found in a
80 Museums have the collection of particular area is referred to as
(a) living plants (a) monograph
(b) living animals and plants (b) herbarium
(c) dead plant and animal remains (c) catalogue
(d) preserved plant and animal specimens (d) couple
NEET
SPECIAL TYPES QUESTIONS
I. Assertion and Reason 97 Assertion (A) Hierarchical system of classification
Direction (Q. No. 90-99) In each of the following is useful to reduce volume’s description in a
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by catalogue of organisms.
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Reason (R) Characters of a larger category (like
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as division) are not repeated for smaller/ lower
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct categories (family and order).
explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 98 Assertion (A) Taxonomic studies require correct
explanation of A. classification and identification of organisms.
(c) If A is true, but R is false. Reason (R) Taxonomic studies are useful in
(d) If A is false, but R is true. knowing our bioresources and their diversity.
90 Assertion (A) Death is considered as the regulatory 99 Assertion (A) Museums are places/institutions,
process on earth. where preserved plants and animals as well as
Reason (R) It prevents an increase in population artistic and educational materials are exhibited to the
caused by continuous reproduction. public.
91 Assertion (A) Consciousness or response to stimuli is Reason (R) Museums are of different kinds, like art,
a defining property of living organism. history, science and general museum, which exhibit
Reason (R) Human being is the only creature to their material for public awareness.
possess self-consciousness.
92 Assertion (A) Metabolism is the sum total of
II. Statement Based Questions
anabolism and catabolism. 100 Which of the following statements are correct
Reason (R) Diverse types of metabolic reactions occur regarding the response of living beings to any
simultaneously in a living organism. external stimuli?
I. All organisms from most simple to the most complex,
93 Assertion (A) The living organisms are
sense and respond to the external stimuli.
self-replicating, evolving and self-regulating
interactive systems capable of responding to external II. The external stimuli can be physical, chemical or a
biological entity.
stimuli.
III. Responding to an external stimulus is the
Reason (R) Hierarchy of organisational complexity is characteristic feature of living beings.
shown at all levels.
IV. Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving and
94 Assertion (A) Alpha taxonomy and omega taxonomy self-regulating interactive systems capable of
are the modern approaches of taxonomy. responding to external stimuli.
Reason (R) Alpha taxonomy is based on morphology (a) Only I (b) Only II
and omega taxonomy is multidisciplinary. (c) I and II (d) I, II, III and IV
95 Assertion (A) Linnaeus' binomial system of animal 101 Consider the following statements.
classification is essentially an artificial system, yet it I. Along with conciousness, growth and reproduction
has become a natural system. are the defining characteristics of living organisms.
Reason (R) Similarities forming the basis of Linnaeus II. Reproduction is an all inclusive characteristics of
living organisms.
system are indicative of genetic relationship.
Select the correct option.
96 Assertion (A) There are seven obligate categories in
(a) I is true, II is false
hierarchy of taxonomy. (b) Both I and II are false
Reason (R) Other categories of similar type can be (c) I is false, II is true
called as intermediate categories. (d) Both I and II are true
Kingdom
102 Select the correct statement from the following. 108 Observe the gradation of taxonomic
I. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals categories and identify the missing
Division
are twin characteristics of growth. categories according to the statement
II. Metabolic reactions can also be demonstrated outside given below.
Y
the body in isolated cell-free systems. I. X is a group of related species.
III. ‘Response to stimuli’ is a defining property of living II. Y is a group of related divisions.
Order
organisms. III. X is a group of related genera.
(a) I and II (b) II and III IV. Y is a group of related kingdoms. X
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III V. Y is a group of related orders.
103 Identify the correct statement given below. The correct options are Genus
(a) Cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature (a) II and IV
of non-living forms (b) I and II Species
(b) Consciousness is the property shared by non-living (c) I, II, IV and V
organisms (d) III and V
(c) A patient with dead brain has no self-consciousness yet 109 Two different genera are classified in the same
it is alive
taxonomic category, family. Which of the following
(d) Human beings are the only organisms, who is aware of
himself, i.e. self-conscious statement is correct about their classification?
(a) The same class but different species
104 Select the correct statement from the following. (b) A different class and different order
(a) Mules can reproduce (c) The same phylum but different class
(b) Worker bee undergoes reproduction to generate new (d) A different kingdom and different phylum
progeny
(c) Mule and worker bees are both sterile 110 Which one of the following is not a correct
(d) None of the above statement? NEET 2013
(a) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant
105 Consider the following statements. specimens
I. In binomial nomenclature, the name of an organism (b) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for
consists of two components. reference
II. The first name of organism represents the specific (c) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and
name and the second name is generic name. animals
Choose the correct option. (d) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens
(a) I is true, but II is false 111 Read the following statements about various
(b) Both I and II are false taxonomic aids.
(c) I is false, but II is true I. Herbaria serve as quick referral system in taxonomical
(d) Both I and II are true studies.
106 The scientific name of mango is written as Mangifera II. In museums, large animal like birds and mammals are
indica L. Which of the following statements is correct usually stuffed and preserved.
regarding this ? III. Museums have dry specimens of plants and animals as
(a) Letter L signifies Latin language well as some specimens are preserved in solutions in
(b) The name should be written reverse with Indica jars or containers.
preceding Mangifera IV. Herbarium sheets are arranged according to
(c) Letter L signifies the author Linnaeus universally accepted system of classification and these
(d) Indica is the generic name serve as a repository for future use.
Choose the correct statements.
107 Which one of the following statement has organism (a) I and II (b) III and IV
scientifically correctly named, correctly printed (c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
according to the International Rules of Nomenclature
and correctly described? 112 Consider the following statements.
(a) Musca domestica, the common lizard is a reptile I. Couplet in a key represents a pair of similar characters
(b) Plasmodium falciparum is a protozoan pathogen among organisms.
causing the most serious type of malaria II. Keys are generally analytical in nature.
(c) tigris is the Indian tiger, well-protected in Gir forests Select the correct option.
(d) E. coli, full name Entamoeba coli, is a commonly (a) I is true, but II is false (b) Both I and II are false
occurring bacterium in human intestine (c) I is false, but II is true (d) Both I and II are true
113 Select true statements from the following and choose 117 Match the following columns. NEET 2016
the right answer from the options given below. Column I Column II
I. Human’s scientific name is Homo sapiens. (Taxonomic hierarchy) (Examples)
II. Genera Plantarum is written by John Ray. A. Family 1. Diptera
III. Highest taxonomic category is division. B. Order 2. Arthropoda
IV. Taxonomic group of any rank is taxon. C. Class 3. Muscidae
V. A group of closely related species of an organism D. Phylum 4. Insecta
represents genus.
Codes
VI. The term ‘Systematics’ was coined by de Candolle. A B C D A B C D
(a) II, III, IV and VI (b) I, III, V and VI (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) I, IV and V (d) II, III and VI (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
114 Select true and false statements and choose the 118 Match the following columns.
correct answer from the options given below. Column I Column II
I. Taxon is a group of related organisms. (Designation) (Scientists)
II. Royal Botanical Garden is located in Bristol (England). A. Father of Taxonomy 1. Hippocrates
III. Dudhwa National Park is located at Lakhimpur in UP. B. Father of Zoology 2. Theophrastus
IV. There are about 89 Wildlife Sanctuaries and C. Father of Botany 3. Aristotle
492 National Parks in India. D. Father of Medicine 4. Carolus Linnaeus
V. When specific name is identical to generic name, it is
Codes
an example of tautonym. A B C D A B C D
(a) True–I, II, IV False–III, V (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(b) True–I, II False–III, IV, V (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 2 4
(c) True–III, V False–I, II, IV
119 Match the following columns.
(d) True–III, VI, V False–I, II
Column I Column II
(Taxonomical aids) (Features)
III. Matching Type Questions A. Monograph 1. Information for identification of name of
115 Match the following columns. species found in an area.
B. Botanical 2. Living wild animals in their natural
Column I Column II
garden habitat.
A. Ex situ conservation 1. Central National
C. Zoological park 3. Information on any one taxon.
Herbarium
B. Quick referral system 2. Flora D. Manual 4. Place having diversity of living plants.
C. Actual account of habitat 3. Royal Botanical Codes

and distribution of plants Garden A B C D A B C D
of a given area (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
Codes (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
A B C 120 Match the items given in Column I with those in
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2
Column II and select the correct option given below.
(c) 2 3 1 Column I Column II
(d) 3 2 1 (Taxonomical aids) (Features)
A. Herbarium 1. It is a place having a collection of
116 Match the following columns. preserved plants and animals.
Column I Column II B. Key 2. A list that enumerates methodically
all the species found in an area with
A. Introduced binomial nomenclature 1. Ernst Mayr
brief description aiding identification.
B. The Darwin of the 20th century 2. Carolus Linnaeus
C. Museum 3. It is a place where dried and pressed
C. Gave the concept of new systematics 3. John Ray plant specimens mounted on sheets
D. First described species as a unit of 4. Julian Huxley are kept.
classification D. Catalogue 4. A booklet containing a list of
Codes characters and their alternates which
are helpful in identification of
A B C D A B C D various taxa.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 NEET 2018
Codes 122 Match the following columns.

A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 Column I Column II
(A group of specimens) (Description)
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
A. Holotype 1. A specimen cited with original
121 Match the following columns. description other than the
Column I Column II holotype or isotype
(Botanical gardens/Institutes) (Places) B. Isotype 2. A duplicate of the holotype
A. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew 1. Darjeeling C. Paratype 3. A specimen designated in the
B. National Botanical Research Institute 2. Kolkata original description
C. Indian Botanical Garden 3. Lucknow D. Lectotype 4. A specimen selected from

original material to serve as
D. Forest Research Institute 4. Dehradun nomenclature type when the
E. Lloyd’s Botanical Garden 5. England holotype was not designated
Codes Codes
A B C D E A B C D
(a) 5 3 2 4 1 (a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 3 2 4 5 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 5 3 4 1 (c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 3 2 5 (d) 3 4 1 2
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar

NCERT 127 As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic
123 Given below is the scientific name of mango, identify hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
the correctly written name. (a) will decrease
(a) Mangifera Indica (b) Mangifera indica (b) will increase
(c) mangifera Indica (d) mangifera indica (c) remain same
(d) may increase or decrease
124 Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical
categories? 128 The term ‘Systematics’ refers to
(a) Species → Order → Phylum → Kingdom (a) identification and study of organ systems
(b) Genus → Species → Order → Kingdom (b) identification and preservation of plants and animals
(c) Species → Genus → Order → Phylum (c) diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
(d) Genus → Order → Family → Kingdom (d) study of habitats of organisms and their classification
129 Genus represents
NCERT Exemplar (a) an individual plant or animal
(b) a collection of plants or animals
125 Which of the following is a defining characteristic of
(c) group of closely related species of plants or animals
living organisms? (d) None of the above
(a) Growth
(b) Ability to make sound 130 Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for units of
(c) Reproduction classification in plants indicates a taxonomic category
(d) Response to external stimuli of ‘family’?
(a) − ales (b) − onae
126 All living organisms are linked to one another
(c) − aceae (d) − ae
because
(a) they have common genetic material of the same type 131 The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of
(b) they share common genetic material, but to varying animals is equivalent to which hierarchical level in
degrees classification of plants?
(c) All have common cellular organisation (a) Class (b) Order
(d) All of the above (c) Division (d) Family
132 Botanical gardens and Zoological parks have 134 Match the following columns.
(a) collection of endemic living species only Column I Column II
(b) collection of exotic living species only A. Family 1. tuberosum
(c) collection of endemic and exotic living species B. Kingdom 2. Polymoniales
(d) collection of only local plants and animals C. Order 3. Solanum
D. Species 4. Plantae
133 Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the
E. Genus 5. Solanaceae
identification and classification of plants and animals.
It is used in the preparation of Codes
(a) monograph A B C D E
(b) flora (a) 5 4 2 1 3
(b) 5 4 1 3 2
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) 1 2 3 5 4
(d) None of the above (d) 2 1 3 4 5
Answers
> Mastering NCERT with MCQs
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47 (b) 48 (d) 49 (a) 50 (d)
51 (a) 52 (c) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (c) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (d)
61 (d) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (d) 68 (a) 69 (c) 70 (c)
71 (a) 72 (b) 73 (d) 74 (b) 75 (c) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (a) 79 (c) 80 (d)
81 (d) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (b) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (d) 89 (c)
> NEET Special Types Questions

90 (a) 91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (b) 94 (b) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (a) 98 (b) 99 (a)
100 (d) 101 (b) 102 (d) 103 (d) 104 (c) 105 (a) 106 (c) 107 (b) 108 (d) 109 (a)
110 (c) 111 (d) 112 (c) 113 (c) 114 (c) 115 (b) 116 (b) 117 (a) 118 (b) 119 (a)
120 (d) 121 (a) 122 (a)
> NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

123 (b) 124 (c) 125 (d) 126 (b) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (c) 130 (c) 131 (c) 132 (c)
133 (c) 134 (a)
Answers & Explanations

3 (d) Growth occurs in unicellular organisms by cell division. However, in living organisms, growth is from inside (i.e.
It can be observed in in vitro culture by counting the number cell division in the body).
of cells under microscope. 7 (b) Planaria shows true regeneration in which Planaria
4 (a) In majority of the higher organisms (plants and regenerates the lost part of its body and becomes, a new
animals), reproduction and growth are mutually exclusive organism.
events as increase in the body size of living beings do not
8 (b) Reproduction by fragmentation can be best observed in
alter the rate of reproduction or vice-versa.
protonema of mosses, filamentous algae and in fungi.
5 (a) Increase in the body mass is a common feature of
non-living and living objects to represent growth. 9 (a) In unicellular organisms like bacteria, algae (unicellular)
and Amoeba, reproduction involves increase in number of
6 (a) Non-living objects like mountains, boulders and sand
cells and thus, it is synonymous with growth.
mounds grow by accumulation of material on their surface.
10 (b) Reproduction cannot be considered as an inclusive i.e. at the end of the biological name and is written in an
defining characteristic of life as many living organisms abbreviated form.
are sterile, i.e. they do not reproduce, e.g. mules, worker 31 (a) The correct form of writing the scientific name of
bee, etc. mango as described by Carolus Linnaeus is Mangifera
11 (b) Both growth and reproduction are not the defining indica Linn.
characteristics of living organisms. Growth is exhibited 32 (b) Classification is the process by which anything is
by non-living matter in terms of increase in mass due to grouped into convenient categories based on some
the accumulation of material. Similarly, reproduction is easily observable characters. It is important for
not exhibited by all living organisms and is not essential establishing relationships amongst organisms.
for the survival of an individual.
34 (d) External and internal structure of an organism along
12 (c) Metabolism is the sum total of all the metabolic with the structure of its cells, developmental process
activities (chemical reactions) occurring in the body, i.e. and ecological information of an organism form the
anabolism and catabolism. Anabolism is a constructive basis of modern taxonomic studies.
process, while catabolism is a destructive process.
35 (a) Earliest classifications were based on ‘uses’ or
13 (d) Metabolic reactions occur in living organisms and basic amenities of organisms. This is because earlier
can also be performed outside the body in a cell free animals and plants were superficially classified due to
system, e.g. isolated metabolic reactions can be carried lack of advanced technologies.
out in in vitro conditions also.
37 (d) Systematics is the branch of biology that deals with
14 (d) Consciousness is the defining property of living the kind of diversity of organisms and existing
organisms because all living organisms show response relationship among them.
to external or internal stimuli. For example, photoperiod Systematics is derived from Latin word Systema which
affects breeding in plants and animals. Plants respond to means systematic arrangement.
external factors like light, water, temperature,
pollutants, etc. Human being is aware of himself, i.e. 38 (b) Carolus Linnaeus used the term systematics for the
show self-consciousness. first time in his book Systema Naturae, which was
published in 1758.
15 (b) A higher level of organisation emerges due to the
interactions among various organelles and their 40 (d) Taxon is used to represent any rank in taxonomic
constituents. A molecular constituent, a tissue or an hierarchy, i.e. any level of grouping of organisms based
organelle itself does not play a significant role in on observable features.
hierarchical organisation unless there is no interaction 42 (c) Species is the smallest taxon of
among them. taxonomy/classification. According to Ernst Mayr,
16 (b) Organisational levels starts from submicroscopic species is group of interbreeding natural populations. It
level and leads to population level. Hence, the correct, contains organisms which resemble each other in
biological organisation in living organism can be morphological, physiological and biochemical
represented as behavioural characteristics.
Atomic Molecular Cellular Tissue 45 (c) Panthera leo is the scientific name of lion. In which
Panthera is the genus name and leo is the specific
epithet or species name.
Individual Organ system Organ Cannis is a genus of cat. Pisum is the generic name of
19 (c) Nomenclature is the process of standardising the sweet pea, while Carnivora is order containing cat, dog,
name of living organisms such that a particular lion, etc.
organism is known by same name all over the world. 46 (d) In a scientific name, first name indicates the generic
20 (b) In taxonomy, nomenclature of organisms is possible name of an organism, while the second name represents
only when their correct place and correct names are the specific epithet or species name.
known, i.e. when organism is described correctly. This 47 (b) Solanum and Panthera are genera (genus name) of
is known as identification. Thus, identificaiton of an family–Solanaceae and Felidae, respectively.
organism is the first step in taxonomy.
48 (d) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to the genus
29 (d) Binomial nomenclature consists of two words, i.e. a Solanum. Bottle gourd belongs to the genus–Lagenaria.
generic name and a specific name. The first word
49 (a) A family is a group of related genera with less
denoting the genus starts with capital letter, while
number of similarities as compared to genus and
specific epithets start with small letter. In the scientific
species.
name Columba LIVIA, Columba is written correctly,
while LIVIA is incorrect because species names are 51 (a) Asteraceae/Fabaceae are not taxonomic categories
written in small letters. Thus, the correct form would as these are the names of plant families.
Columba livia. Species, phylum and class are all taxonomic categories.
30 (c) According to binomial nomenclature, name of the 55 (c) Mammalia is a class which comprises of orders like
author appears after the specific epithet (species name), Primata, Carnivora, etc.
56 (a) Class is the highest taxonomic category among the 73 (d) The label of a herbarium sheet provide information
given options as it includes order, family and genus. about date and place of collection, English, local and
58 (b) Out of the four options, Division occupies the botanical names, family, collector’s name, etc. It does
highest or top most position in taxonomic hierarchy. It not provide information about the height of a plant.
can be represented by the following sequence 75 (c) Botanical gardens are specialised gardens having
Kingdom → Division/Phylum → Class → Order → collections of living plants for reference. Plant species
Family → Genus → Species. in these gardens are grown for identification purposes.
59 (a) In classification of plants, classes with a few similar 76 (b) In botanical garden, each plant is labelled indicating
characters are assigned to a higher category called its botanical/scientific name and its family.
division, e.g. angiospermae. In animals, phylum is used 79 (c) The largest botanical garden in the world is the
in place of division. herbarium of Royal Botanical Garden, Kew (London),
60 (d) In taxonomical hierarchy, similarity increases from which contains more than 6,000,000 plant specimens.
highest/largest category to lowest category. Therefore, 86 (a) Flora is the book containing information about the
among the given options, division comprises organisms habitat, climate, description and index of plants. It helps
with least similar features, as it is the highest taxonomic in correct identification of plants, founds in a specific
category. area.
61 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as 89 (c) Catalogue is the list that enumerates methodically
Division is a group of related classes (not phyla). all the species found in an area with brief description
62 (a) The taxonomic categories in ascending order of aiding identification.
similar characteristics are seen as follows 90 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
Class < Family < Genus < Species is the correct explanation of Assertion.
63 (c) The order of mango is Sapindales, similarly the Death is considered as the regulatory process on earth.
order of man is Primata. It occurs when there is an increase in entropy and
degeneration of body parts of an organism.
66 (b) Both mango and wheat belong to the
Reproduction is an important characteristic of living
division-Angiospermae. Other taxonomic categories of
organism in order to continue living on earth. But
mango and wheat are as follows
reproduction can cause overcrowding. Thus, to balance
Category Mango Wheat reproduction, death checks the population size.
Class Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae 91 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
Order Sapindales Poales is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
All living organisms have the ability to sense their
Family Anacardiaceae Poaceae
surroundings or environment and respond to these
67 (d) Among the given options, Poaceae is the odd term environmental stimuli which could be physical,
as it represents a family of angiosperms. chemical or biological. All organisms, therefore are
Triticum, Homo and Musca are the genus of wheat, aware of their surroundings. Human beings also show
human and housefly, respectively. self-consciousness. Consciousness therefore becomes
the defining property of living organisms.
68 (a) Hierarchical taxonomic system is used in
classification by majority of biologist because each 92 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
higher taxonomic category contains lower groups below is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
it. Thus, it reduces the volume of description in a All living organisms are made up of chemicals. These
catalogue of animals and plants. chemicals, small and big belonging to various classes,
69 (c) Nature of protoplasmic composition is shared by all sizes, functions, etc., are constantly being created (i.e.
anabolism) or either broken down into other/smaller
living organisms in all taxonomic categories.

biomolecules (i.e. catabolism). These reactions are
Mode of nutrition and cellular organisation are the collectively called as metabolic reactions or
peculiar features of the five kingdom system of metabolism.
classification.
93 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
70 (c) Poales and Sapindales represent the order of dicot not the correct explanation of Assertion.
and monocot classes, respectively. Both these classes
belong to the the division–Angiospermae. Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving and
self-regulating interactive systems capable of
71 (a) The prime source of taxonomic studies is the responding to external stimuli. Properties of tissues are
collection of actual specimens of plant and animal not present in the constituent cells but arise as a result
species. of interactions among the constituent cells.
72 (b) Herbarium is the storehouse of collected plant Similarly properties of cellular organelles are not
specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on present in the molecular constituents of the organelle
sheets. These specimens along with their description on but arise as a result of interactions among the molecular
herbarium sheets become a storehouse or repository for components comprising the organelle.
future use.
These interactions result in emergent properties at 101 (b) Both statements I and II are false. These can be
higher levels of organisation. This phenomenon is corrected as
true in the hierarchy of organisational complexity at l Reproduction and growth are not the defining
all levels. characteristics of living organisms because non-living
94 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is organisms also grow due to the accumulation of material
not the correct explanation of Assertion. and many living organisms are unable to reproduce.
Alpha (α) taxonomy involves the collection and l Reproduction is not an all inclusive characteristics of
identification of organisms on the basis of gross living organisms because many living organisms cannot
morphology, compilcation of flora and monographs. It reproduce.
is classical taxonomy, whereas omega (ω ) taxonomy 103 (d) The statement in option (d) is correct. Rest statements
is modern biosystematics or new systematics which are incorrect and can be corrected as
brings out taxonomic affinities on the basis of
l Cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature
evolutionary and genetic traits.
of living forms.
95 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be
l All living organisms have the ability to sense their
corrected as
surroundings and respond to various stimuli and are thus
The binomial system of animal classification given by aware of their surroundings, i.e. show consciousness.
Linnaeus is an artificial system, as it is based on
locomotion type and the absence of chlorophyll. l A patient with dead brain has no consciousness (as brain
Linnaeus system does not show genetic relationship or is the main controlling organ of the body) and hence is
phylogeny. considered to be dead.
96 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is 104 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct. Rest statements
not the correct explanation of Assertion. are incorrect and can be corrected as
The obligate categories used in the classification are l Mule is a result of outbreeding interspecific
species, genus, family, order, class, division/phylum, hybridisation.
kingdom. Inspite of these seven major categories, l Worker bees lack primary sex organs. So, they are unable
sometimes subcategories like, subspecies or varieties to perform reproduction.
are added for clear distinction. These are called
105 (a) Statement I is true, but II is false and can be
intermediate categories. Generally, intermediate
corrected as
categories are added in classification of plants.
In binomial nomenclature, the first name represents the
97 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is generic name and the second name represents the species
the correct explanation of Assertion. name or the specific epithet of that organism.
Hierarchical system of classification helps to reduce 106 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct. Rest statements
description of volume in catalogue of plants and are incorrect and can be corrected as
animals. This is because characters for higher Mangifera indica L is the scientific name of mango with
categories are not repeated for lower categories. It can ‘L’ as the name of the author Linnaeus. Mangifera
be illustrated by an example like Cannis familiaris is represents the genus and indica represents the species
common dog, belong to family–Canidae. name.
Genus–Cannis are applied to wolf, jackal of same
107 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct.
family.
Rest statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
l Panthera tigris is the Indian tiger, well-protected in the
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Bandhavgarh National Park.
Taxonomic studies of various species of plants, l Musca domestica, the housefly, belongs to the
animals and other organisms are useful in various
class–Insecta (Phylum–Arthropoda).
industries like agricultural and forest industry and in l E. coli, full name Escherichia coli, is a commonly
general in knowing our bioresources and their occurring bacterium in the human intestine.
diversity. These studies would require correct
108 (d) Statements III and V are correct as X represents
classification and identification of organisms. family (group of related genera) and Y represents class
These are fundamental and essential for training in group of related orders.
systematics. The information gathered is stored along
109 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct.
with the specimens for future studies.
In taxonomic categories, family occupies the position
99 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is between class and species (lowest). It means two different
the correct explanation of Assertion. families can have same class. But a family can
Museums are a source of ancient and present accommodate different genera which in turn possess
information of plants, animals, art, history, science, different species. Different species like dog, wolf, jackal
etc. These are helpful in keeping preserved plants and belong to same genera Cannis and class–Carnivora. Thus,
animals as well as artistic and educational materials so two different genera classified into the same family
as to be displaced for creating public awareness. belong to the same class, but contain different species.
110 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be 126 (b) All living organisms share common genetic material,
corrected as i.e. DNA and RNA but to varying degrees. Due to this,
Museums have collection of preserved plant and living organisms are linked to one another.
animals specimens which are kept in jars containing 127 (a) Common characteristics among organisms decreases
preservative solutions. as we move towards higher taxonomic hierarchy. Thus,
Rest statements are correct. on moving from species to kingdom in a taxonomic
hierarchy, the number of common characteristics will
112 (c) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
decrease.
Statement I can be corrected as
In a taxonomic key, couplet represents the pair of 130 (c) The name of a family in plants always ends with the
contrasting characters. While identifying an organism, suffix –aceae, e.g. Solanaceae, Cannaceae and Poaceae.
one character is selected and the other is discarded. The suffix–ales is used for taxon ‘order’ while suffix–ae
113 (c) Statements I, IV and V are correct. Statements II, III is used for taxon ‘class’ and suffix–onae is not used in
and VI are incorrect and can be corrected as any of the taxon.
l Genera Plantarum was written by Bentham and Hooker. 131 (c) In case of plants, the taxonomic category ‘Division’
l The highest taxonomic category is kingdom. includes classes of plants with members having a few
l The term ‘Systematics’ was first coined by Linnaeus. similar characters.
114 (c) Statements III and V are true. Statements I, II and It is equivalent to the category ‘Phylum’ which is used
IV are false and can be corrected as in case of animals.
l Taxon is used to represent any rank in taxonomic 132 (c) Botanical garden and zoological parks are
hierarchy. specialised places where plants and animals,
l Royal Botanical Garden is located at Kew (London). respectively are grown bred and kept for analytical
l There are about 492 (approximately 504) Wildlife purposes. Both endemic (local) as well as exotic
Sanctuaries and 89 National Parks in India. (foreign) species are kept in these places.
125 (d) Consciousness or response to external stimuli is the 133 (c) Taxonomic keys help in the identification of
defining property of living organisms. All organisms organisms on the basis of paired contrasting characters
from the prokaryotes to the most complex eukaryotes called couplets. These keys are used to prepare both
can sense and respond to various environmental cues. monograph and flora.
CHAPTER > 02
Biological
Classification
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Biological classification refers to the scientific procedure in which living organisms are classified and arranged into groups
and sub-groups in a hierarchial manner on the basis of their similarities and dissimilarities.
Å Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a scientific basis for classification. Later Linnaeus gave the two kingdom system of
classification with Plantae and Animalia kingdoms.
Å This system though used till very recently, but was unable to distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular
and multicellular organisms and photosynthetic (plants) and non-photosynthetic organisms (fungi).
Å In 1969, RH Whittaker proposed a five kingdom system of classification. He divided all living organisms into Monera,
Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia as summarised in table below.
Characters Kingdom–Monera Kingdom–Protista Kingdom–Fungi Kingdom–Plantae Kingdom–Animalia
Cell type Prokaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
Complexity of body Unicellular to multicellular Unicellular Unicellular to multicellular Multicellular Multicellular
Cell wall Non-cellulosic and Present or Absent Chitinous Cellulosic Absent
peptidoglycan
Nutrition Autotrophic or Autotrophic or Heterotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic
Heterotrophic Heterotrophic (saprophytic/parasitic) (photosynthetic) (holozoic or parasitic)
Å Earlier classification systems considered bacteria, BGA (Blue-Green Algae), fungi, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms and
angiosperms as plants due to the presence of cell wall in them. This classification system placed prokaryotic bacteria and BGA
with other eukaryotic groups.
Å It also grouped unicellular and multicellular, organisms together, e.g. Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra (in algae).
Å This system did not consider the differences in mode of nutrition and cell wall composition, so grouped fungi (heterotroph,
chitinous cell wall) with plants (autotroph, cellulosic cell wall).
Å Five kingdom classification considered such characteristics and segregated prokaryotic organism under Monera, unicellular
eukaryotes in Protista (this united Chlamydomonas and Chlorella with Paramecium and Amoeba earlier placed in plants and
animals, respectively).
These reproduce asexually by binary fission.

Kingdom–Monera
Å
Å During unfavourable conditions, these form spores.

Å Bacteria are the sole members of this kingdom. Å These also show conjugation, a type of sexual
Å Bacteria are the most abundant microorganisms occurring in reproduction in which DNA is transferred from one
air, water, soil as well as in extreme habitats like deserts, bacteria to another through a conjugal tube.
snow, hot springs, etc. Å Pleomorphic bacteria, which lack cell wall is known as
Å Bacteria have been grouped under four categories based on mycoplasma. They are pathogenic and the smallest
their shape microorganism known.
n
Coccus (cocci) – Spherical
n
Bacillus (bacilli) – Rod-shaped Kingdom–Protista
n
Vibrium (vibrio) – Comma-shaped Å All single-celled eukaryotes are placed under Protista.
n
Spirillum (spirilla) – Spiral-shaped. Å Members of kingdom–Protista are the connecting link
between prokaryotic monerans and complex
Å Bacteria show a wide range of mode of nutrition. They may
multicellular kingdoms–Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
be autotrophic (synthesise their own food from inorganic
substrates), chemotrophic (photosynthetic autotrophic),
Å These include chrysophytes, dinoflagellates, euglenoids,
saprophytic or heterotrophic (depend on other organisms for slime moulds and protozoans.
food). Å These show a well-defined nucleus and membrane
bound organelles.
Å Bacteria are further divided into Archaebacteria and
Eubacteria. Å They reproduce asexually and sexually by a process
involving cell fusion and zygote formation.
Archaebacteria Å Kingdom–Protista has been further divided into the
Å Archaebacteria live in extreme environmental conditions. following groups
These include Å Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae known
n
Halophiles Bacteria residing in salty areas. as desmids. They are found in marine environment.
n
Thermoacidophiles Bacteria residing in hot springs. n
The cell wall of diatoms is embedded with silica and
n
Methanogens Bacteria which survive in marshy areas forms two thin overlapping sheath as in soap box.
(these are present in gut of many ruminant animals like n
Diatomaceous earth is the large amount of cell wall
cows and buffaloes). deposits of diatoms in their habitat. These are used in
polishing, filtration of oils and syrups.
Å Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having different
cell wall structure. Their cell wall is made up of murein and Å Dinoflagellates are marine and photosynthetic
contains high amount of unsaturated fatty acids, which is microorganisms.
responsible for ensuring their survival in extreme conditions. n
Due to the presence of different pigments, they
appear yellow, green, brown and red.
Eubacteria n
As the name suggest they have two flagella one lies
Å Another class–Eubacteria is also known as ‘true bacteria’. longitudinally and other transversely in furrow
Å These have rigid cell wall made up of peptidoglycan. between wall plates.
n
Gonyaulax is a red dinoflagellate, which undergoes
Å They could be photosynthetic autotrophs, chemosynthetic,
rapid multiplication and forms red tides. Toxins
autotrophs and heterotrophic bacteria.
released by these microorganisms when present in
Å Photosynthetic autotrophs include blue-green algae, which such large numbers may even kill other marine
have chlorophyll-a similar to green plants. Also known as animals such as fishes.
cyanobacteria. Å Euglenoids are freshwater organism found in stagnant
Å These could be unicellular, colonial or filamentous, water.
freshwater/marine or terrestrial algae. n
Cell wall is absent, a protein rich layer called pellicle
Å Some bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised is present over the surface.
cells known as heterocyst, e.g. in Nostoc and Anabaena. n
In the presence of sunlight, they behave as
Å Some bacteria utilise inorganic substances like nitrate, nitrite, autotrophs, while in its absence they behave as
ammonia, etc., for oxidation and release of energy for ATP heterotrophs, e.g. Euglena.
production. These are known as chemosynthetic autotrophic Å Slime moulds are saprophyte, which are dependent on
bacteria. dead and decaying organic matter.
Å Heterotrophic bacteria (most abundant in nature) are n
They form an aggregation called plasmodium.
dependent on other organisms for nutrition. These include n
During unfavourable conditions, they form spores,
N2 -fixing bacteria, pathogens, etc. which are highly resistant.
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 02 > Biological Classification 19
Å Protozoans are heterotrophs and live as parasites or n

Basidiomycetes are club fungi, their mycelium is
predators. These are grouped into branched and septate, reproduce asexually by
n
Amoeboid protozoans found in fresh or marine water or fragmentation and their vegetative cells fuse to form
moist soil. They have pseudopodia (false feet) to capture dikaryotic structure (plasmogamy), e.g. mushrooms,
prey as in Amoeba. bracket fungi, etc.
n
Flagellated protozoans either free-living or parasitic n
Deuteromycetes are imperfect fungi, reproduce
having flagella. The parasitic forms cause diseases, e.g. asexually by conidia and sexual forms absent in these
sleeping sickness by Trypanosoma. e.g. Alternaria, Trichoderma, etc.
n
Ciliated protozoans are aquatic, actively moving Å Heterothallism is the condition in fungal organisms
organisms due to thousands of cilia present on them. The where different thalli exist within a single genus of
coordinated ciliary movement drives food into cavity fungus.
called gullet, e.g. Paramecium.
n
Sporozoans are non-motile forms with an infectious spore Kingdom–Plantae
like stage in their life cycle, e.g. malaria causing parasite Å These include chlorophyllous organisms with cellulosic
Plasmodium. cell wall.
Å Life cycle consists of a dominant sporophyte and a
Kingdom–Fungi highly reduced gametophyte showing alternation of
Å These are heterotrophic organisms with their cell wall made generations.
up of chitin. Å Few members are insectivorous plants, e.g. Cuscuta,
Å These have cosmopolitan distribution and are found in bladderwort, etc.
warm and humid places. Å Plants are classified into algae, bryophytes,
Å Fungal body consists of long, thread-like structures called pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
hyphae, which together form a network called mycelium. In
certain organisms, hyphae are continuous tube with Kingdom–Animalia
multinucleated cytoplasm (coenocytic), while others have
Å Animals are motile organisms showing holozoic
septae or cross walls.
nutrition. They follow a definite growth pattern.
Å Their mode of nutrition is saprophytic and parasitic. They
Å They directly or indirectly depend on plants for food.
can also live as symbionts in association with algae as lichen
and with roots of higher plants as mycorrhiza. Å Sexual reproduction is by copulation of male and female
Å Reproduction in fungi occurring by vegetative means, gametes followed by embryo development.
includes fragmentation, fission and budding, asexually by
zoospore production conidia, etc., and sexually by oospores, Viruses, Viroids, Prions
ascospores and basidiospores. and Lichens
Å Sexual cycle involves plasmogamy (fusion of two Å Viruses and viroids are the non-cellular organisms,
protoplasts), karyogamy (fusion of two haploid nuclei) and which are not characterised in the system of
meiosis. classification given by Whittaker.
Å In some fungi, two haploid cells result in diploid cells. In
Å They have both living and non-living characteristics.
some cases, dikaryon stage occurs in which two nuclei are
present within a cell. This phase is known as dikaryophase Å They form inert crystalline structure outside the living
of fungus. cell, but inside the host cell they can multiply easily.
Å Production of dikaryon (n + n, i.e. two nuclei per cell) is a Å They take over the host machinery and replicate
characteristic of the classes–Ascomycetes and themselves.
Basidiomycetes. Å Pasteur and DJ Ivanowsky gave the name virus, which
Å Fungi are classified into classes–Phycomycetes, means venom or poisonous fluid.
Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes. Å MW Beijerinck in 1898, called fluid obtained from
n
Phycomycetes are lower fungi or algal fungi, their infected tobacco plant as Contagium vivum fluidum
mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic, reproduce asexually (infectious living fluid).
through zoospores or aplanospores and sexually through Å Viruses are obligate parasite. These are inert outside
isogamy or anisogamy, e.g. Rhizopus, Mucor, etc.
specific host cell and exist in crystalline form as
n
Ascomycetes are sac fungi, their mycelium is branched
demonstrated by WM Stanley.
and septate, asexual spores are conidia and sexual spores
are ascospores, e.g. Aspergillus, Neurospora, etc. Å Genetic material of viruses could be DNA or RNA.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å Virus contain a protein coat called capsid, which is made up Å Viruses which infect plants have ssRNA, while which infect
of capsomeres. Capsomeres are arranged in a helical or animals are either ssDNA/RNA or dsDNA/RNA.
polyhedral geometric form. Å Viruses which infect bacteria are known as bacteriophage.
These are usually dsDNA viruses.
Head Å Viroids, discovered by TO Diener are the smallest known
Sheath Collar agents of infectious disease. These are only naked nucleic
acid without a protein coat.
Å Prions are abnormally folded proteins with cause infectious
neurological diseases, e.g. mad cow disease in cattle.
Å Lichens are the symbiotic association of algae (phycobiont)
Tail fibres
and fungi (mycobiont). They are also not included in five
Bacteriophage virus kingdom system.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Introduction and Kingdom–Monera

1 Aristotle classified the plants on the basis of their 5 In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas
morphological characters and categorised them into and Chlorella are included in
(a) trees, shrubs and herbs (a) Plantae (b) Algae
(b) algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and (c) Protista (d) Monera
angiosperms
6. Cyanobacteria are classified under which of the
(c) embryophytes and tracheophytes following kingdom?
(d) algae and embryophytes (a) Protista (b) Monera
2 Who proposed two kingdom system of classification (c) Algae (d) Plantae
and named kingdoms as Plantae and Animalia? 7 Among the following, which one is the most abundant
(a) Carolus Linnaeus (b) RH Whittaker group of microorganisms?
(c) Carl Woese (d) Herbert Copeland (a) Algae (b) Viruses
3 Which of the following characters served as the (c) Protists (d) Bacteria
criteria for five kingdom system of classification 8 Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on
proposed by Whittaker? their shape. Refer to the given figure. Identify A, B , C
(a) Cell structure and D.
(b) Body organisation and mode of nutrition
(c) Reproduction and phylogenetic relationships
Spore
A B
4 In five kingdom system of classification of
RH Whittaker, how many kingdoms contain
eukaryotes? Flagellum
(a) Four kingdoms
(b) One kingdom
(c) Two kingdoms
(d) Three kingdoms C D
(a) A–Vibrio, B–Cocci, C–Bacilli, D–Spirilla 19 …… include blue-green algae, which have
(b) A–Cocci, B–Bacilli, C–Spirilla, D–Vibrio chlorophyll-a similar to green plants.
(c) A–Bacilli, B–Spirilla, C–Vibrio, D–Cocci Complete the given sentence with an appropriate
(d) A–Spirilla, B–Vibrio, C–Cocci, D–Bacilli option.
9 Some bacteria thrive in extreme environmental (a) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
conditions such as the absence of oxygen, high salt (b) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
concentration, high temperature and acidic pH. (c) Protista
Identify the type of bacteria. (d) Saprophytic
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Eubacteria
(c) Archaebacteria (d) Mycobacteria 20 Specialised cells called heterocysts are present in
(a) dinoflagellates
10 Which of the following conditions would be favoured (b) chrysophytes
by thermoacidophiles? (c) archaebacteria
(a) Hot and alkaline (b) Snow and acidic (d) cyanobacteria
(c) Hot and sulphur spring (d) Gut of cows
21 Some of the cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric
11 Which of the following are found in extreme saline nitrogen in their specialised cells called
conditions? NEET 2017 (a) akinetes (b) heterocyst
(a) Archaebacteria (b) Eubacteria (c) endospores (d) homocyst
(c) Cyanobacteria (d) Mycobacteria
22 Identify the diagram of heterocyst. JIPMER 2019
12 The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the
production of biogas from the dung of ruminant
animals, include the NEET 2016
(a) thermoacidophiles (b) methanogens (a) (b)
(c) eubacteria (d) halophiles
13 Methanogens belong to NEET 2016
(a) eubacteria (b) archaebacteria
(c) dinoflagellates (d) slime moulds
14 Thermococcus, Methanococcus and (c) (d)
Methanobacterium are
(a) archaebacteria having eukaryotic histone homologue
(b) bacteria with cytoskeleton
(c) archaebacteria with negatively supercoiled DNA as
eukaryotes, but lack histones 23 Given figure is of a filamentous blue-green algae.
(d) bacteria having positively coiled DNA, cytoskeleton, Identify the algae and choose the option that is correct
mitochondria for A, B and C in the figure.
15 Eubacteria include
(a) blue-green algae and bacteria
(b) archaebacteria and blue-green algae B
(c) cyanobacteria and eukaryotes
(d) bacteria and eukaryotes C
16 Pigment containing membranous extensions in some
cyanobacteria are CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) heterocysts (b) basal bodies
(c) pneumatophores (d) chromatophores
17 The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) protists (b) golden algae A
(c) slime moulds (d) blue-green algae (a) A–Gelidium, B–Vegetative cell, C–Heterocyst
18 In cyanobacteria, which of the following is present? (b) A–Volvox, B–Somatic cell, C–Mucilaginous sheath
(a) Chlorophyll-c (b) Chlorophyll-b (c) A–Chara, B–Mucilaginous sheath, C–Heterocyst
(c) Chlorophyll-a (d) Chlorophyll-c1 (d) A–Nostoc, B–Heterocyst, C–Mucilaginous sheath
24 Nostoc and Anabaena belong to 27 Which of the following bacteria play an important
(a) parasitic bacteria (b) archaebacteria role in the recycling of nutrients like nitrogen,
(c) cyanobacteria (d) coccibacteria phosphorus, iron and sulphur?
25 Which of the following is photoautotrophic bacteria? (a) Chemoheterotrophic bacteria
(b) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(a) Nostoc (b) Clostridium
(c) Parasitic bacteria
(c) Salmonella (d) Escherichia coli
(d) Saprophytic bacteria
26 Identify the label A, B, C and D in the following
28 Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
figure.
NEET 2018
A B
(a) Cycas (b) Nostoc
(c) Green sulphur bacteria (d) Chara
C
29 Citrus canker is a
(a) viral disease (b) bacterial disease
(c) fungal disease (d) protozoan disease
30 Which among the following are the smallest living
D cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
to plants as well as animals and can survive without
(a) A–Plasma membrane, B–Cell wall, C–RNA, D–Spore oxygen? NEET 2017
formation (a) Bacillus (b) Pseudomonas
(b) A–Cell wall, B–Cell membrane, C–DNA, D–Binary (c) Mycoplasma (d) Nostoc
fission
(c) A–Mucilaginous sheath, B–Cell membrane, C–RNA, 31 Mycoplasma are classified under which of the
D–Conjugation following kingdoms?
(d) A–Plasma membrane, B–Mucilaginous sheath, (a) Animalia (b) Protista
C–DNA, D–Transformation (c) Monera (d) Fungi
TOPIC 2~ Kingdom–Protista
32 Which of the following is not a feature of Protista? 37 Diatoms and desmids are found in
(a) Protists are prokaryotic (a) freshwater (b) marine water
(b) Some protists have cell walls (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) terrestrial habitat
(c) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic 38 Chrysophytes are
(d) Body organisation is cellular (a) planktons
33 Which of the following kingdoms have no well- (b) nektons
defined boundaries? (c) benthic organisms
(a) Plantae (b) Protista (d) active organisms
(c) Monera (d) Algae 39 Silica gel is obtained by
34 Members of Protista are primarily (a) red algae
(a) terrestrial (b) aquatic (b) diatoms
(c) pathogenic (d) photosynthetic (c) Euglena
(d) mycoplasma
35 Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime
moulds are included in the kingdom NEET 2016
40 In which of the following organisms the cell wall is
(a) Protista (b) Fungi composed of two thin overlapping shells, which fit
(c) Animalia (d) Monera together like a soap-case?
(a) Diatoms (b) Golden algae
36 Which of the following groups of organisms is/are (c) Slime moulds (d) Gonyaulax
placed under the group–Chrysophyta?
41 Diatomaceous earth is used for all except
(a) Diatoms only
(a) filtration of oils
(b) Desmids only
(b) filtration of syrups
(c) Diatoms and golden algae (c) cleaning agent in metal polishes
(d) Desmids and Paramecium (d) gobar gas production
42 Which one of the following is a characteristic feature 50 Plant-like nutrition is present in

of the group–Chrysophyta? (a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium
(a) They are parasitic forms, which cause diseases in animals (c) Euglena (d) Plasmodium
(b) They have a protein rich layer called pellicle 51 Slime moulds are
(c) They have indestructible wall layer deposited with silica (a) pathogenic (b) parasite
(d) They are commonly called dinoflagellates (c) saprophytic protists (d) autotrophic
43 Which of the following organisms are known as chief 52 The free-living thalloid body of the slime mould is
producers in the oceans? NEET 2018 known as
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Diatoms (a) protonema (b) plasmodium
(c) Dinoflagellates (d) Euglenoids (c) fruiting body (d) mycelium
44 Dinoflagellates have 53 Under favourable conditions slime moulds form
(a) two flagella, which lie longitudinally (a) protonema (b) plasmodium
(b) only one flagellum in the transverse groove between the (c) mycelium (d) fruiting bodies
cell plates 54 Identify the given figure and select the correct option.
(c) only one flagellum in the longitudinal groove between
the cell plates
(d) one flagellum lies longitudinally and the other
transversely in a furrow between the wall plates
45 In which of the following groups, the cell wall has
stiff cellulose plate on the outer surface?
(a) Diatoms (b) Red algae
(c) Dinoflagellates (d) Slime moulds
46 Refer to diagram given along side and
select the incorrect option regarding it. (a) It is marine water plankton
(a) It belongs to kingdom–Protista and is a (b) It is a saprophytic protist
dinoflagellate (c) It is parasitic predator believed to but primary relative
(b) It is mostly marine, photosynthetic with of animals
colour depending on main pigment present (d) Ciliated protozoan
in its cells 55 Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in NEET 2018
(c) They have two flagella, a short and a long (a) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
one
(b) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
(d) These organisms release toxins in large number which
(c) using flagella for locomotion
kill other marine animals
(d) having two types of nuclei
47 Red tides in warm coastal water develop due to the
presence of 56 Protozoans are
(a) dinoflagellates (b) euglenoid forms (a) heterotrophs (b) autotrophs
(c) diatoms and desmids (d) slime moulds (c) producers (d) saprophytes
48 Which of the following protists releases toxins that 57 Which of the following group is considered as
may even kill fishes and other marine animals? primitive relatives of animals?
(a) Euglena (b) Gonyaulax (a) Chrysophytes (b) Protozoans
(c) Paramecium (d) Plasmodium (c) Euglenoids (d) Slime moulds
49 Which group of organisms is represented by the given 58 Protozoans are divided into ……… groups. Most
figure? suitable word to fill the blank is
(a) three (b) four
(c) two (d) eight
59 Which of the following groups belong to protozoans?
(a) Amoeboid, flagellates, ciliates, sporozoans
(b) Diatoms, amoeboid, ciliates, sporozoans
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Protozoans (c) Desmids, ciliates, flagellates, amoebiod
(c) Slime mould (d) Euglenoids (d) Dinoflagellates, ciliates, Plasmodium, amoeboid
60 Flagellate protozoans are 64 Which of the following groups always produce an

(a) free-living only infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle?
(b) parasites only (a) Amoeboid protozoans
(c) either free-living or parasites (b) Ciliated protozoans
(d) saprophytes (c) Flagellated protozoans
61 Which of the following is a flagellated protozoan? (d) Sporozoans
(a) Amoeba (b) Entamoeba 65 Plasmodium is a
(c) Plasmodium (d) Trypanosoma (a) ciliated protozoan (b) sporozoan
62 Trypanosoma causes (c) flagellated protozoan (d) amoeboid protozoan
(a) sleeping sickness (b) cholera 66 Which one of the following organisms is scientifically
(c) malaria (d) food poisoning incorrectly named and incorrectly described?
(a) Plasmodium falciparum–A protozoan pathogen causing
63 Paramecium is an aquatic and actively moving the most serious type of malaria
organism due to the presence of (b) Trypanosoma gambiense–The parasite of sleeping
(a) pseudopodia sickness
(b) false feet (c) Diatoms–Very good pollution indicators
(c) thousands of cilia (d) Noctiluca–A chrysophyte, which shows
(d) flagella bioluminescence
TOPIC 3~ Kingdom–Fungi
67 The body of a fungus is made up of a number of 73 Fungi that absorb nutrients directly from the
elongated, tubular filaments called cytoplasm of living host are called
(a) hyphae (b) Woronin bodies (a) saprophytes (b) parasites
(c) mycelium (d) thallus (c) symbionts (d) mycorrhiza
68 Cell wall of fungi is composed of JIMPER 2018 74 Mycorrhizae are mutualistic and symbiotic
(a) chitin (b) pectin associations between
(c) cellulose (d) mannans (a) fungi and vascular plants
69 Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? (b) fungi and non-vascular plants
NEET 2016 (c) fungi and roots of higher plants
(a) They are eukaryotic (d) fungi and bryophytes
(b) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall 75 Mycorrhiza promotes the plant growth by
(c) They are heterotrophic (a) absorbing inorganic ions from soil
(d) They are both unicellular and multicellular (b) helping the plant in utilising atmospheric nitrogen
70 Which of the following is a non-hyphal unicellular (c) protecting the plant from infection
fungus? (d) serving as plant growth regulator
(a) Yeast (b) Puccinia 76 Fungi show vegetative reproduction by all of the
(c) Ustilago (d) Alternaria following methods except
71 Which of the following options describe the (a) by fragmentation (b) by fission
coenocytic condition in fungus? (c) by budding (d) by protonema
(a) Uninucleate hypha without septum 77 Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of the
(b) Multinucleate hypha without septum following kinds of spores except
(c) Multicellular hypha (a) conidia (b) oospores
(d) Multiciliate hypha (c) sporangiospores (d) zoospores
72 Fungi that absorb soluble organic matter from dead 78 Fungi show sexual reproduction by all of the
substrates are called following processes except
(a) saprophytes (a) oospores
(b) parasites (b) ascospores
(c) obligate parasite (c) basidiospores
(d) lichens (d) zoospores
79 In fungi, the various types of spores are produced in 90 Isogamous means gametes
distinct structures known as (a) similar in morphology
(a) fruiting body (b) spore sac (b) similar in anatomy
(c) peristome (d) pollen sac (c) female gamete is bigger than male gamete
80 In fungi, the fusion of protoplasms between two (d) male gamete is bigger than female gamete
motile or non-motile gametes is called 91 Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on
(a) plasmogamy (b) plasmokinesis mustard?
(c) karyogamy (d) cytokinesis (a) Rhizopus (b) Albugo
81 In fungi, karyogamy is the fusion of two (c) Agaricus (d) Neurospora
(a) gametes (b) nuclei (c) cells (d) cytoplasm 92 All of the following fungi belong to Phycomycetes,
82 Which of the following is the correct sequence of except
Class → Mycelium→ Fruiting body observed in the (a) Rhizopus (b) Mucor (c) Albugo (d) Agaricus
kingdom–Fungi? 93 The hyphae of Rhizopus are
(a) Phycomycetes → Septate, coenocytic → Not present (a) unbranched, aseptate and uninucleate
(b) Ascomycetes → Aseptate and branched → Ascocarp (b) branched, aseptate and multinucleate
(c) Basidiomycetes → Aseptate and branched (c) branched, septate and uninucleate
→ Basidiocarp (d) unbranched, septate and coenocytic
(d) Deuteromycetes → Septate and branched
94 Ascomycetes are commonly known as
→ Not present
(a) toad stool (b) sac fungi
83 In some fungi, two haploid cells result in a diploid (c) imperfect fungi (d) bracket fungi
cell. In some cases, dikaryon stage occurs in which
95 Yeast and Penicillium are the examples of class
two nuclei are present within a cell. This phase is
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
known as
(c) Deuteromycetes (d) Basidiomycetes
(a) monokaryophase (b) dikaryophase
(c) plasmogamy (d) karyogamy 96 Members of Ascomycetes are
84 Dikaryophase of fungus occurs in (a) saprophytic (b) decomposers
(a) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes (c) parasitic or coprophilous (d) All of these
(b) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes 97 Claviceps is a member of
(c) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes (a) Ascomycetes (b) Basidiomycetes
(d) Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes (c) Zygomycetes (d) Phycomycetes
85 Fungi are divided into four classes on the basis of 98 Which of the following fungus is used extensively in
(a) morphology of the mycelium biochemical and genetic work?
(b) mode of spore formation (a) Neurospora (b) Mucor
(c) fruiting bodies (c) Rhizopus (d) Aspergillus
(d) All of the above 99 Identify the edible and delicate Ascomycetes
86 Rhizopus is included in the class members.
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes (a) Agaricus and Puccinia (b) Morels and truffles
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes (c) Puffball and Agaricus (d) Puffball and mushrooms
87 Which of the following classes consists of coenocytic, 100 Which of the following are the commonly known
multinucleate and aseptate mycelium? forms of Basidiomycetes?
(a) Basidiomycetes (b) Ascomycetes (a) Mushrooms (b) Puffball
(c) Phycomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes (c) Bracket fungi (d) All of these
88 Phycomycetes are most commonly found as 101 Where the members of Basidiomycetes occur?
(a) obligate parasite (a) Soil
(b) obligate saprophyte (b) Logs
(c) coprophilous component (c) Tree stumps and living plant bodies
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) All of the above
89 In Phycomycetes, asexual reproduction occurs by 102 In Basidiomycetes, the mycelium is
(a) zoospores (b) aplanospores (a) branched and aseptate (b) branched and septate
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) conidia (c) unbranched and septate (d) coenocytic
103 In Basidiomycetes, vegetative reproduction occurs by 109 Deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual spores
(a) endospores (b) conidia known as
(c) akinetes (d) fragmentation (a) conidia (b) endospores
104 Among rust, smut and mushroom, all the three (c) zoospores (d) heterocyst
(a) are pathogens (b) are saprobes 110 Sexual reproduction is present in all fungi classes,
(c) bear ascocarps (d) bear basidiocarps except
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes
105 All of the following fungi belong to Basidiomycetes, (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
except
(a) Agaricus (b) Ustilago (c) Puccinia (d) Alternaria 111 All the given fungi belong to Deuteromycetes, except
(a) Alternaria
106 Which of the following are the common parasites of (b) Colletotrichum
class–Basidiomycetes? (c) Trichoderma
(a) Ustilago and Puccinia (d) Ustilago
(b) Agaricus and Trichoderma 112 Which one of the following matches is correct?
(c) Alternaria and Colletotrichum CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(d) Colletotrichum and Puccinia
(a) Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes
107 In Deuteromycetes, the mycelium is (b) Alternaria Sexual reproduction absent Deuteromycetes
(a) septate and branched (b) septate and unbranched (c) Mucor Reproduction by conjugation Ascomycetes
(c) coenocytic (d) multinucleated (d) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes
108 The imperfect fungi, which are decomposers of litter 113 Select the incorrect match.
and help in mineral cycling belong to (a) Morels and truffles — Phycomycetes
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (b) Mushrooms and puffballs — Basidiomycetes
(a) Deuteromycetes (b) Basidiomycetes (c) Smut and rust — Basidiomycetes
(c) Phycomycetes (d) Ascomycetes (d) Bread mould — Phycomycetes
TOPIC 4 ~ Kingdom–Plantae and Animalia

114 Insectivorous plants are 119 Which of these best describe the sporophytic
(a) autotrophic (b) partially heterotrophic generation in plant’s life cycle?
(c) parasitic (d) pathogenic (a) The haploid generation
115 Which of the following are the examples of (b) Generation that produces gametes
insectivorous plant? (c) Generation that produces spores
(a) Bladderwort (b) Venus flytrap (d) Generation that has xylem and phloem
(c) Nepenthes (d) All of these 120 Kingdom–Animalia includes
116 Cuscuta is a/an (a) heterotrophic organisms
(a) parasite (b) pathogen (b) eukaryotic organisms
(c) saprophyte (d) autotroph (c) multicellular organisms
117 Plants show ............ in their life cycle. (d) All of the above
(a) only sexual phase (b) only asexual phase 121 The reserve food material of animals is
(c) alternation of generations (d) None of these (a) glycogen or animal fat (b) glucose
118 Which of the given options best describes the (c) cellulose (d) chitin
gametophyte in the alternation of generations of a 122 Which of the following is not a feature of
plant’s life cycle? kingdom–Animalia?
(a) Generation that produces gametes (a) Lack cell wall
(b) Generation that produces spores (b) Holozoic mode of nutrition
(c) Generation that has xylem and phloem (c) A definite growth pattern
(d) The diploid generation (d) Chlorophyllous
TOPIC 5 ~ Viruses, Viroids, Prions and Lichens

123 Viruses and viroids are the non-cellular organisms, 133 The latest view for the origin of viruses is
which are not characterised in the classification of (a) they have arisen from nucleic acid and proteins found in
(a) Whittaker (b) Aristotle (c) Linnaeus (d) Watson primitive soup
(b) they arose from bacteria as a result of the loss of cell
124 Viruses did not find a place in classification since
wall, ribosome, etc.
(a) they are not truely living (b) they are non-cellular
(c) they arose from some bacteria, which had developed a
(c) they are obligate parasite (d) they are pathogenic nucleus only
125 Viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate (d) they are modified plasmids, which are infect the
themselves once they infect the host cell. To which of fragments of the nucleic acids of the host
the following kindgom viruses belong to? 134 The genetic material of rabies virus is
(a) Monera (b) Protista (c) Fungi (d) None of these (a) double-stranded RNA (b) single-stranded RNA
126 Which of the following phenomenon proves that (c) double-stranded DNA (d) single-stranded DNA
viruses are living? 135 The non-living characteristic of viruses is
(a) They carry metabolic activity (a) ability to multiply only inside the host
(b) They carry anaerobic respiration (b) ability to cause diseases in the host
(c) They multiply in host cells (c) ability to undergo mutation
(d) They cause infection (d) ability of crystallisation
127 Tobacco mosaic virus is 136 Which of the following groups of diseases is caused
(a) spherical (b) rod-shaped by viruses?
(c) cuboidal (d) oval
(a) Mumps, smallpox, herpes, influenza
128 Given below is the diagram of a virus. In which one (b) AIDS, diabetes, herpes, tuberculosis
of the options, all the three A, B and C (name of the (c) Anthrax, cholera, tetanus, tuberculosis
virus) are correct? (d) Cholera, tetanus, smallpox, influenza
A 137 In plants, mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling,
yellowing and vein clearing are the symptoms of
B (a) viral diseases (b) bacterial diseases
(c) protozoan diseases (d) fungal diseases
138 Which of the following plant viruses has DNA?
(a) Tobacco mosaic virus (b) Potato mosaic virus
C (c) Tomato mosaic virus (d) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(a) A–RNA, B–Capsomere, C–Tobacco mosaic virus
(b) A–DNA, B–Capsid, C–Bacteriophage 139 Bacteriophages are
(c) A–RNA, B–Capsid, C–Tobacco mosaic virus (a) bacteria that attack viruses
(d) A–DNA, B–Capsid, C–Bacteriophage (b) viruses that attack bacteria
129 The genetic material of viruses consists of (c) free-living viruses
(a) ds or ssDNA only (d) free-living bacteria
(b) ds or ssRNA only 140 Identify the label A, B, C and D in the following
(c) DNA or RNA (Both ds and ss) figure.
(d) ssDNA or ssRNA
130 The protein coat of a virus is known as A
(a) nucleoid (b) capsid
(c) capsomere (d) outer envelope C B
131 The subunit of capsid is called
(a) capsomere (b) core
(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide
132 Viruses are also known as
(a) nucleoprotein particles (b) virion D
(c) lipoprotein particles (d) core
(a) A–Head, B–Collar, C–Sheath, D–Tail fibres 144 The advantage of fungus in lichen is
(b) A–Collar, B–Head, C–Sheath, D–Tail fibres (a) food
(c) A–Head, B–Collar, C–Tail fibres, D–Sheath (b) anchoring
(d) A–Collar, B–Tail fibres, C–Head, D–Sheath (c) mineral absorption
141 A new infectious agent that is smaller than virus is (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) prion (b) viroid (c) bacteria (d) mycoplasma 145 The benefit given by algae in lichen is
142 Viroids differ from viruses in having NEET 2017 (a) food for fungi
(a) DNA molecules with protein coat (b) shelter
(b) DNA molecules without protein coat (c) mineral absorption
(c) RNA molecules with protein coat (d) protection
(d) RNA molecules without protein coat 146 Which of the following are most suitable indicators of
143 Lichens are mutualistic and symbiotic associations SO 2 pollution in the environment? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
between (a) Lichens (b) Conifers (c) Algae (d) Fungi
(a) mycobiont and virus 147 Which of the following would appear as the pioneer
(b) mycobiont and phycobiont organisms on bare rocks? NEET 2016
(c) mycobiont and root of higher plants (a) Liverworts (b) Mosses
(d) mycobiont and mosses (c) Green algae (d) Lichens
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 150 Assertion (A) Euglena is a plant due to the presence
■ Direction (Q. 148-157) In each of the following of chlorophyll.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by Reason (R) Euglena cannot be classified on the basis
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, of two kingdom system.
mark the correct answer as
151 Assertion (A) Fungi are wide spread in distribution
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
and they can even live on or inside other plants and
explanation of A
animals.
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A Reason (R) Fungi are able to grow anywhere on
(c) If A is true, but R is false land, water or on other organisms because they have
(d) If A is false, but R is true variety of pigments including chlorophyll,
carotenoids, fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin.
148 Assertion (A) The two kingdom classification, used 152 Assertion (A) In fungi, sexual apparatus decreases in
for a long time, was found to be inadequate. complexity from lower to higher forms.
Reason (R) Two kingdom system of classification did Reason (R) In algae, sexual apparatus increases in
not distinguish between the eukaryotes and complexity from simple to higher forms.
prokaryotes, unicellular and multicellular organisms 153 Assertion (A) Viruses cause diseases and replicate
and green algae and fungi. when they are in the host cell.
149 Assertion (A) Five kingdom system of classification Reason (R) Viruses do not replicate outside the host,
did not differentiated between the heterotrophic but they survive in environment.
group, fungi and the autotrophic green plants. Though 154 Assertion (A) Polluted water bodies have high
they showed a characteristic difference in their cell abundance of Nostoc and Oscillatoria.
wall composition. Reason (R) These blue-green bacteria can tolerate
Reason (R) Fungal cell wall contains chitin, while adverse conditions very well compared to other
green plants have a cellulosic cell wall. aquatic plants.
155 Assertion (A) Slime moulds are called as fungus like 162 Which of the following statements about methanogens
animals. is not correct? NEET (Odisha) 2019
Reason (R) These do not have cell wall. (a) They can be used to produce biogas
(b) They are found in the rumen of cattle and their excreta
156 Assertion (A) Kingdom–Plantae includes all
(c) They grow aerobically and breakdown cellulose rich
eukaryotic, chlorophyll containing organisms. food
Reason (R) Few of its members are partially (d) They produce methane gas
heterotrophic.
163 In the light of recent classification of living organisms
157 Assertion (A) Three domains system classifies into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and
organisms based on cellular characteristics. eukarya), which one of the following statements is
Reason (R) The three domains are, i.e. archaea, true about archaea?
bacteria and eukarya. (a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(b) Archaea have some noble features that are absent in
II. Statement Based Questions other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(c) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and
158 Which of the statements given below is correct? eukaryotes
(a) Biological classification is the scientific ordering of (d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
organisms in a hierarchial series of groups on the basis
of their relationships, i.e. morphological, evolutionary 164 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
and others (a) Bacteria reproduce only by binary fission
(b) Under unfavourable conditions, bacteria produce several
(b) Whittaker classified organisms on the basis of
types of spores
autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(c) Bacteria reproduce by a sort of sexual reproduction by
(c) In five kingdom system of classification, living adopting a primitive type of RNA transfer from one
organisms can be divided into prokaryotic and bacterium to other
eukaryotic cells on the basis of cell structure (d) Both (a) and (b)
165 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
159 Consider the following statements. Which of the (a) Golden algae are also called desmids NEET 2016
statements given below is incorrect? (b) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(a) All prokaryotic organisms were grouped together under (c) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
kingdom–Monera (d) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
(b) The unicellular eukaryotic organisms were placed in
kingdom–Protista 166 Which statement is correct? AIIMS 2019
(c) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas, both lack cell walls (a) Mycoplasma is smallest and wall less living organism
(d) Paramecium and Amoeba lack cell walls (b) Influenza and herpes are caused by virus having DNA
and RNA
160 Choose the incorrect statement about members of (c) Nostoc and Anabaena are important decomposers
kingdom–Monera. (d) Methanogen are methane producing bacteria in wheat
(a) Many of them live in or on other organisms as parasites crops
(b) Some synthesise their own food from inorganic solutes 167 Select the incorrect statement. NEET 2016
(c) Bacterial structure is very complex though they have (a) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
very simple behaviour (b) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
(d) Hundreds of bacteria are present in handful of soil bacterial cells
161 Read the following statements about bacteria and (c) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
select the correct option. (d) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
(a) Bacteria are simple in structure, but complex in 168 Consider the following statements about mycoplasma.
behaviour Which of the statement given below is incorrect?
(b) Bacteria are complex in structure, but simple in (a) They are pleomorphic bacteria, which lack cell wall
behaviour (b) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism
(c) Bacteria are simple in both structure and behaviour (c) They cannot survive without oxygen
(d) Bacteria are complex in both structure and behaviour (d) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants
169 Select the incorrect statement. NEET 2016 176 Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible NEET (Odisha) 2019
(b) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of (a) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas
diatoms (b) Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont
(c) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans (c) Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont
(d) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water (d) Lichens are not good pollution indicators
170 Which of the following following statement about 177 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Euglena is/are true? (a) Protistan body includes a well-defined nucleus, and all
(a) Euglenoids bear flagella cellular organelles
(b) Euglena when placed in continuous darkness, loose (b) Protists have nucleus along with flagella and cilia
their photosynthetic activity and die (c) Protist cells have no nucleus but have some cellular
organelles to perform basic functions
(c) The pigments of Euglena are quite different from those
of green plants (d) All of the above
(d) Euglena is a marine protist 178 Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct?
171 Which of the following statement(s) given below (a) Kingdom–Protista forms a link between monerans and
the other organisms like plants, animal and fungi
is/are incorrect?
(b) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a process
(a) Diatomite is porous and chemically inert. It is therefore, involving cell fusion and zygote formation
used in filtration of sugars, alcohols, oils, syrups and
(c) Being eukaryotes, the protistan cell body contains a
antibiotics
well-defined nucleus and other membrane bound
(b) Diatomite deposits are often accompanied by petroleum organelles
fields (d) All of the above
(c) Both (a) and (b)
179 Which of the following statement about plant is false?
(d) Desmids are mainly found in dirty water and are usually
indication of polluted water (a) Plants are heterotrophs
(b) Plants show alternation of generations during their life
172 Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct cycle
for amoeboid protozoans? (c) Plants are multicellular eukaryotes
(a) Live in freshwater, sea water or moist soil (d) Plants are non-motile
(b) Has pseudopodia for locomotion and capturing prey
(c) Have silica shells on their surface in marine forms 180 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(d) All of the above (a) Viruses are obligate parasites NEET (National) 2019
(b) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
173 Which of the following statements is correct? (c) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
(a) Slime moulds are haploid (d) Viroids lack a protein coat
(b) Protozoans lack cell wall
181 Select incorrect statement. CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) Dinoflagellates are immotile
(a) The viroids were discovered by DJ Ivanowsky
(d) Pellicle is absent in Euglena
(b) WM Stanley showed that viruses could be
174 Consider the following statements about crystallised
Ascomycetes. Which one of the statement given (c) The term ‘Contagium vivum fluidum’ was coined by
below is false? MW Beijerinck
(a) They are saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and (d) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being
parasitic are caused by viruses
(b) Include unicellular and multicellular forms 182 State whether the given statements are true or false.
(c) Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate I. Bacteria show both autotrophic and heterotrophic
(d) Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important nutrition.
examples of Ascomycetes II. Some of the bacteria are autotrophic. They may be
175 Which of the following statement is incorrect? photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic
NEET (National) 2019 autotrophic.
(a) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD III. Heterotrophic nutrition involves obtaining of
(b) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores readymade organic food from outside sources.
endogenously (a) I and II are true
(c) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like (b) I is true, II and III are false
hyphae (c) I, II and III are true
(d) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies (d) Only I is true
183 Read the following statements regarding 187 Consider the following statements.
archaebacteria and select the correct option. I. In this group, the plasmodium differentiates and forms
I. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having fruiting bodies, bearing spores at their tips.
different cell wall structure. II. Spores possess true walls.
II. Their cell wall is made up of cellulose and contains III. The spores are dispersed by air currents.
high amount of unsaturated fatty acid, which is IV. The spores are extremely resistant and survive for many
responsible for their survival in extreme years even under adverse conditions.
conditions. The above statements are assigned to
III. Thermoacidophiles have dual ability to tolerate high (a) euglenoids (b) slime moulds
temperature as well as high acidity. (c) dinoflagellates (d) chrysophytes
Which of the statements given above are correct? 188 Consider the following statements.
(a) I and II I. Bruce discovered that the parasite of sleeping sickness
(b) I and III is transmitted by tse-tse fly.
(c) II and III II. Sleeping sickness of Trypanosoma gambiens is also
(d) All of the above called gambian trypanosomiasis, which is found in
184 Analyse the following statements and identify the Western and central parts of Africa.
correct option given below. III. Trichomonas vaginalis inhabits vagina of women and
causes the disease leucorrhoea.
I. In diatoms the walls are embedded with silica and thus
the walls are indestructible. IV. Entamoeba histolytica resides in the upper part of the
human’s large intestine and causes the disease known as
II. Diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall amoebic dysentery.
deposits in their habitat, this accumulation over
billions of years is referred to as diatomaceous Which of the statements given above are correct?
deposition or diatomaceous earth. (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(a) I is true, but II is false (c) I, II and IV (d) All of these
(b) I is false, but II is true 189 Consider the following statements and place them into
(c) I and II are true true and false category.
(d) I and II are false I. The fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic
185 The given statements describe a group of organisms. organisms.
I. Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein rich layer II. The common mushroom and toad stools are fungi.
called pellicle which makes their body flexible. III. White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to the
II. They have two flagella, a short and a long one. presence of parasitic fungus.
III. They are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, IV. Some unicellular fungi (Ustilago) are used to make
when deprived of sunlight they behave like bread and beer.
heterotrophs by predating on other smaller V. Puccinia graminis tritici is responsible for yellow rust
organisms. of wheat.
IV. They are connecting link between plants and animals. VI. Penicillium yields the antibiotic penicillin.
True False
Which of the following group is referred to here by
(a) I, II, III IV, V, VI
the above statements?
(b) I, II, III, VI IV, V
(a) Slime moulds (c) II, III, VI I, IV, V
(b) Dinoflagellates (d) IV, V I, II, III, VI
(c) Euglenoids
190 In Phycomycetes, asexual reproduction takes place by
(d) Protozoans
zoospores or by aplanospores. Regarding these spores,
186 Consider the following statements about slime consider the following statements and choose the
moulds. correct option.
I. Plasmodium is found in acellular slime moulds. I. Zoospores are motile and aplanospores are non-motile
II. Pseudoplasmodium is found in cellular slime moulds. in nature.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? II. These spores are endogenously produced in
(a) I is true, but II is false sporangium.
(b) Both I and II are false Which of the statements are true and false?
(c) I is false, but II is true (a) I is true, but II is false (b) I is false, but II is true
(d) Both I and II are true (c) I and II are true (d) I and II are false
191 Consider the following statements about sexual 196 Organisms of kingdom–Animalia
reproduction. I. are capable of locomotion.
I. In class–Phycomycetes, sexual reproduction produces II. have specialised sensory and neuromotor system.
a resting diploid spore called zygospore. III. show sexual reproduction by copulation of male and
II. Zygospores are formed by the fusion of two gametes. female followed by embryological development.
III. All zygospores are of isogamous type. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II (b) I and III
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) All of these (c) Only I (d) All of these
192 Analyse the following statements about 197 I. DJ Ivanowsky (1892) recognised certain microbes as
class–Ascomycetes. causal organisms of the mosaic disease of tobacco.
I. Mycelium is branched and septate. II. MW Beijerinck (1898) demonstrated that the extract
II. The asexual spores are conidia, produced on the special of infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in
mycelium called conidiophores. healthy plants and called the fluid as Contagium
III. Sexual spores are called ascospores, which are vivum fluidum.
produced in sac-like asci. III. WM Stanley (1935) showed that these microbes could
be crystallised and crystals consist largely of protein.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) All of these The above statements are assigned to
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
193 Consider the following statements.
(c) Prions (d) Lichens
I. Mycelium is branched and septate.
II. The asexual spores are generally not formed. 198 Which of the following statements are false about
III. Vegetative reproduction takes place by viruses?
fragmentation. I. Viruses are facultative parasites.
IV. Sex organs are absent, but sexual reproduction takes II. Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the
place by somatogamy. living cells.
V. Karyogamy and meiosis take place in basidium to form III. Viruses cannot pass bacterial proof filters.
four haploid basidiospores. IV. Viruses do not contain proteins, DNA and RNA.
VI. Basidia are arranged in fruiting bodies called (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
basidiocarp. (c) I, III and IV (d) All of these
The above statements are assigned to 199 TO Diener (1971) discovered a new infectious agent
(a) sac fungi (b) bracket fungi that was smaller than viruses.
(c) imperfecti fungi (d) club fungi
Consider the following statements about this
194 Consider the following statements about infectious agent.
Deuteromycetes. I. It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
I. Some members are saprophytes or parasites. II. These are infectious RNA particles.
II. A large number of members are decomposers of litter III. It lacks a protein coat.
and help in mineral cycling.
IV. The molecular weight of its RNA is low.
III. Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Cercospora and
Trichoderma are examples of Deuteromycetes. The above statements are assigned to
(a) viruses (b) viroids
(c) prions (d) lichen
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) All of these
200 Study the following statements and identify the
195 Consider the following statements about plants.
correct option given below.
I. Kingdom–Plantae includes eukaryotic, autotrophic,
I. Viruses that infect plants have single-stranded RNA
chlorophyll containing organisms.
and viruses that infect animals have either single or
II. It includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, double-stranded RNA or double-stranded DNA.
gymnosperms, but not angiosperms.
II. Bacterial viruses or Bacteriophages are usually
III. Plants show alternation of generation [between haploid single-stranded RNA viruses.
gametophytic (n) phase and diploid sporophytic (2n) (a) I is true, but II is false
phase]. (b) I is false, but II is true
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) I and II are true
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) All of these (d) I and II are false
201 Which of the following statements correctly describe 205 Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in
viruses? Column II and choose the correct option from the
I. Simple and unicellular organisms. codes given below. NEET (Odisha) 2019
II. Contain DNA or RNA and enclosed by protein coat. Column I Column II
III. Possess own metabolic system and respond to stimuli.
A. Halophiles 1. Hot springs
IV. Maintain genetic continuity and undergo mutations.
B. Thermoacidophiles 2. Aquatic environment
The correct combination is
C. Methanogens 3. Guts of ruminants
(a) I and II (b) II and IV (c) II and III (d) I and III
D. Cyanobacteria 4. Salty area
III. Matching Type Questions Codes

A B C D A B C D
202 Match the following columns. (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 4 3 1
(Systems of classification) (Given by) 206 Match the following columns.
A. Two kingdom system of 1. RH Whittaker
classification Column I Column II
(Features) (Protista)
B. Five kingdom system of 2. Carl Woese
A. Chief producer in the oceans 1. Diatoms
classification
B. Red tide 2. Dinoflagellates
C. Six kingdom system of 3. Carolus Linnaeus
classification C. Connecting link between 3. Euglenoids
plants and animals
Codes D. Fungus animals 4. Slime moulds
A B C A B C
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 4 Codes
(c) 4 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Column I Column II
(Names) (Shape)
A. Coccus 1. Rod-shaped Column I Column II
(Types) (Examples)
B. Bacillus 2. Spherical
A. Amoeboid protozoans 1. Plasmodium
C. Vibrio 3. Spiral-shaped
B. Flagellated protozoans 2. Paramecium
D. Spirillum 4. Comma-shaped
C. Ciliated protozoans 3. Trypanosoma
Codes D. Sporozoans 4. Entamoeba histolytica
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 Codes
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2 A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
204 Match the following bacterial nutrition with their (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
representative organisms.
208 Match the following columns and choose the correct
Column I Column II option from the codes given below. AIIMS 2019
(Types of bacteria) (Examples)
A. Chemoautotrophic 1. Nitrifying bacteria Column I Column II
bacteria (Categories) (Examples)
B. Photoautotrophic 2. Purple bacteria, green sulphur A. Chrysophyte 1. Gonyaulax
bacteria bacteria B. Dinoflagellate 2. Euglena
C. Symbiotic bacteria 3. Rhizobium, Frankia C. Euglenoids 3. Diatoms
D. Parasitic bacteria 4. Vibrio cholerae D. Slime moulds 4. Plasmodium
Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
209 Match the following columns. 213 Match Column I with Column II.
NEET (National) 2019
Column I Column II
(Categories) (Examples) Column I Column II
A. Phycomycetes 1. Alternaria and Trichoderma A. Saprophyte 1. Symbiotic association of fungi
B. Ascomycetes 2. Agaricus and Ustilago with plant roots
B. Parasite 2. Decomposition of dead organic
C. Basidiomycetes 3. Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora
materials
D. Deuteromycetes 4. Mucor, Rhizopus and Pythium C. Lichens 3. Living on living plants or animals
D. Mycorrhiza 4. Symbiotic association of algae and
Codes fungi
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 Codes
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II
(Categories) (Common names) 214 Match the following columns.
A. Phycomycetes 1. Algal fungi Column I Column II
B. Ascomycetes 2. Imperfect fungi (Scientists) (Related to)
C. Basidiomycetes 3. Bracket fungi A. DJ Ivanowsky (1892) 1. Viroids
D. Deuteromycetes 4. Sac fungi B. MW Beijerinck (1898) 2. First crystallised TMV
C. WM Stanley (1935) 3. Contagium vivum fluidum
Codes
A B C D A B C D D. TO Diener (1971) 4. Mosaic disease of tobacco
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 Codes
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 2 1 4 A B C D A B C D
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Column I Column II
(Features) (Related to) 215 Match the following columns.
A. Parasitic fungi on mustard 1. Neurospora Column I Column II
B. Rust and smut disease 2. Puccinia and Ustilago (Viruses) (Genetic materials)
C. Used in genetic work 3. Morels and truffles A. M-13 bacteriophage 1. dsRNA
D. Edible delicacies 4. Albugo B. Rice dwarf virus 2. ssRNA
E. Bread mould 5. Rhizopus C. Cauliflower mosaic virus 3. ssDNA
D. Polio virus 4. dsDNA
Codes
A B C D E Codes
(a) 3 5 4 2 1 A B C D A B C D
(b) 1 3 5 4 2 (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 3 5 4 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 2 1 3 5 216 Match the following columns and choose the correct
212 Match the following columns. combination from the given options.
Column I Column II Column I Column II
(Names of fungi) (Categories) (Kingdoms) (Classes)
A. Rhizopus 1. Eurotiomycetes A. Plantae 1. Archaebacteria
B. Penicillium 2. Ustilagomycetes B. Fungi 2. Euglenoids
C. Ustilago 3. Deuteromycetes C. Protista 3. Phycomycetes
D. Alternaria 4. Zygomycetes D. Monera 4. Algae
Codes Codes
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 3 4 1 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1

NCERT 223 The five kingdom classification was proposed by

217 Choose the incorrect statement amongst the (a) RH Whittaker (b) C Linnaeus
following. (c) A Roxberg (d) Virchow
(a) Alternation of generations is well-marked in 224 Organisms living in salty areas are called as
angiosperms (a) methanogens (b) halophiles
(b) Kingdom–Plantae includes prokaryotic photosynthetic (c) heliophytes (d) thermoacidophiles
organisms
(c) Mycoplasma is the smallest cellular organism, which. 225 Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by
does not contain cell wall (a) DJ Ivanowsky
(d) Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by viroid (b) MW Beijerinck
(c) Stanley Miller
NCERT Exemplar (d) Robert Hooke
218 All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to 226 A dikaryon is formed when
(a) Monera (b) Protista (c) Fungi (d) Bacteria (a) meiosis is arrested
(b) the two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
219 Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic are
(c) cytoplasm does not fuse
the characteristics of
(a) Monera (b) Protista (d) None of the above
(c) Fungi (d) Slime mould 227 Association between mycobiont and phycobiont is
220 Difference between virus and viroid is found in
(a) the absence of protein coat in viroid, but present in (a) mycorrhiza (b) root (c) lichens (d) BGA
virus 228 With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the
(b) the presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus, but correct sequence of events.
absent in viroid (a) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
(c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
221 Viruses are non-cellular organisms, but replicate (d) Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy
themselves once they infect the host cell. To which of
229 Members of Phycomycetes are found in
the following kingdom do viruses belong to?
(a) Monera (b) Protista I. aquatic habitats.
(c) Fungi (d) None of these II. on decaying wood.
222 An association between roots of higher plants and III. moist and damp places.
fungi is called IV. as obligate parasites on plants.
(a) lichen Choose the correct answer from the following
(b) fern options.
(c) mycorrhiza (a) I and IV (b) Only III
(d) BGA (c) Only II (d) All of these
Answers
1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c) 11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a)
16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (d) 21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (a) 41 (d) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (c)
46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (d) 50 (c) 51 (c) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (b) 55 (d) 56 (a) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (c)
61 (d) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (a) 68 (a) 69 (b) 70 (a) 71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (a)
76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (d) 79 (a) 80 (a) 81 (b) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (a) 85 (d) 86 (b) 87 (c) 88 (d) 89 (c) 90 (a)
91 (b) 92 (d) 93 (b) 94 (b) 95 (b) 96 (d) 97 (a) 98 (a) 99 (b) 100 (d) 101 (d) 102 (b) 103 (d) 104 (d) 105 (d)
106 (a) 107 (a) 108 (a) 109 (a) 110 (d) 111 (d) 112 (b) 113 (a) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (a) 117 (c) 118 (a) 119 (c) 120 (d)
121 (a) 122 (d) 123 (a) 124 (a) 125 (d) 126 (c) 127 (b) 128 (c) 129 (c) 130 (b) 131 (a) 132 (a) 133 (d) 134 (b) 135 (d)
136 (a) 137 (a) 138 (d) 139 (b) 140 (a) 141 (b) 142 (d) 143 (b) 144 (d) 145 (a) 146 (a) 147 (d)

148 (a) 149 (d) 150 (d) 151 (c) 152 (b) 153 (b) 154 (a) 155 (c) 156 (b) 157 (b) 158 (d) 159 (c) 160 (c) 161 (a) 162 (c)
163 (b) 164 (a) 165 (b) 166 (a) 167 (b) 168 (c) 169 (a) 170 (a) 171 (d) 172 (d) 173 (b) 174 (c) 175 (c) 176 (a) 177 (c)
178 (d) 179 (a) 180 (b) 181 (a) 182 (c) 183 (b) 184 (c) 185 (c) 186 (d) 187 (b) 188 (d) 189 (b) 190 (c) 191 (d) 192 (d)
193 (b) 194 (d) 195 (b) 196 (d) 197 (b) 198 (c) 199 (b) 200 (a) 201 (b) 202 (d) 203 (c) 204 (a) 205 (a) 206 (b) 207 (b)
208 (d) 209 (c) 210 (c) 211 (d) 212 (c) 213 (c) 214 (c) 215 (a) 216 (a)

217 (b) 218 (b) 219 (d) 220 (a) 221 (d) 222 (c) 223 (a) 224 (b) 225 (b) 226 (b) 227 (c) 228 (c) 229 (d)

1 (a) Aristotle classified plants into trees, shrubs and B represents the rod-shaped bacteria generally called as
herbs. He used simple morphological characters as a tool bacilli.
for his classification. He also divided animals into two C represents the spiral-shaped bacteria (with flagella
groups those which have red blood and those that did not. ranging from one to multiple) generally called as spirilla.
2 (a) Earlier, all the organisms of the world had been D represents the comma-shaped bacteria called as vibrio.
divided into two kingdoms, i.e. plant kingdom and 9 (c) Archaebacteria are a primitive group of bacteria.
animal kingdom. These bacteria can survive in extreme habitats such as
This system of classification was given by Carolus marshes, hot springs, deserts, snow, etc.
Linnaeus in the book Systema Naturae (1735). Archaebacteria have a unique cell wall structure and
4 (a) The five kingdom classification proposed by composition which is responsible for their survival in
Whittaker includes Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and such extreme conditions. Thus, the type of bacteria which
Animalia. corresponds to the features given is archaebacteria.

Out of which four kingdoms, i.e. Protista, Fungi, 10 (c) Thermoacidophiles belong to archaebacteria and
Plantae and Animalia contain eukaryotes. have dual ability to tolerate high temperature as well as
5 (c) In the five kingdom classification, high acidity. They often live in hot sulphur springs
Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included where the temperature may be as high as 80°C and pH
in kingdom–Protista as they are autotrophic, as low as 2.
eukaryotic organisms with cell wall. 11 (a) Saline bacteria are called halophiles (e.g.
6 (b) Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes. In five kingdom Halobacterium, Halococcus). It is a group that belongs
system of classification (by RH Whittaker), all archaebacteria which can tolerate high salinity and is
prokaryotes are included in the kingdom–Monera. commonly found in salt rich substrata.
8 (b) The given figures 12 (b) The primitive prokaryotes are methanogens.
A represents spherical-shaped bacteria generally called Methanogens are present in the gut of several ruminant
as cocci. animals such as cows and buffaloes.
These are responsible for the production of biogas from 31 (c) Mycoplasma are classified under kingdom-Monera.
the dung of ruminants. There are two major groups of monerans, archaebacteria
16 (d) Cyanobacteria contain photosynthetic pigments and eubacteria. Some other groups of monerans are
found in chromatophores, which are the infoldings of mycoplasma, rickettsiae and actinomycetes.
the plasma membrane. In these, photosynthesis is Mycoplasma are the simplest and the smallest
carried out. free-living prokaryotes.
17 (d) Cyanobacteria, also known as Blue-Green Algae 32 (a) Option (a) is not a feature of protists. It can be
(BGA), are most primitive prokaryotic organisms. corrected as
These are considered to be the most ancient of all the Kingdom–Protista includes all unicellular eukaryotic
chlorophyll bearing organisms on earth. organisms like diatoms, dinoflagellates, slime moulds,
18 (c) Cyanobacteria are Gram + ve photosynthetic sarcodine, etc. Rest of the options are features of
prokaryotes, which perform oxygenic photosynthesis. protists.
Their photosynthetic pigments include chlorophyll-a, 33 (b) Although all single-celled eukaryotes are placed in
carotenoids and phycobilins. kingdom–Protista, yet its boundaries are not
21 (b) Heterocyst is a large sized, pale-coloured, well-defined.
thick-walled cell, specialised for nitrogen-fixation which 35 (a) All single-celled eukaryotic organisms like
occurs in terminal, intercalary or lateral position in chrysophytes (diatoms and desmids), euglenoids
filamentous cyanobacteria, e.g. Nostoc and Anabaena. (Euglena), dinoflagellates and slime moulds are
22 (a) The diagram in option (a) is a filamentous blue- included in the kingdom–Protista.
green algae (Nostoc), which possesses specialised cells 36 (c) Chrysophytes include diatoms and desmids (golden
called heterocysts. algae). These belong to the division–Chrysophyta/
23 (d) The parts labelled in the figure are identified as Bacillariophyta.
(A) Nostoc, a genus of cyanobacteria capable of 37 (c) Diatoms and desmids are found in freshwater as
nitrogen-fixation, due to the presence of heterocyst (B), well as in marine environment. These are microscopic
in them. C is mucilaginous sheath which increases the and float passively in water currents.
water holding capacity of cell. 38 (a) Chrysophytes are planktons which float passively in
26 (b) The diagram represents a bacterial cell. A water current. Chrysophytes (diatoms) constitute an
represents the cell wall which contains peptidoglycan. B important producer (first trophic level) in the form of
represents the cell membrane. phytoplanktons in aquatic ecosystem. These are the
C represents the genetic material (DNA) present as main source of food for aquatic animals.
nucleoid. 39 (b) The siliceous cell walls of diatoms are
Part D indicates the process of binary fission, by which indestructible (i.e. do not decay easily). These were
a mature cell divides into two equal daughter cells. collected over millions of years on the sea floors, called
27 (b) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise diatomite or diatomaceous earth or silica gel.
various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites These deposits may extend for several hundred metres in
and ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP certain areas. Thus, silica gel is obtained from diatoms.
production. They play an important role in the recycling 41 (d) Diatomite or diatomaceous earth is used as a cleaning
of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur. agent in metal polishes, filtration of oil and syrup, etc.
28 (c) Green sulphur bacteria are anaerobic bacteria. They It has no role in biogas production.
do not produce oxygen during photosynthesis. Such 42 (c) In chrysophytes, the cell wall forms two thin
type of photosynthesis is known as anoxygenic overlapping shells, which fit together as in case of a
photosynthesis. These bacteria do not use water as a soap box.
source of reducing power. Instead, hydrogen is obtained
from hydrogen sulphide. The entire photosynthetic These walls are embedded with silica and thus, are
process of a green sulphur bacteria can be represented indestructible.
by the following reactions 43 (b) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans and they
H2 S → 2[H] + S contribute 40% of marine primary productivity. They
Hydrogen constitute a major group of unicellular eukaryotic
sulphide microalgae and are among the most common types of
Light phytoplanktons.
6CO2 + 12H2  → C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O
Enzymes 44 (d) In dinoflagellates, the two flagella are dissimilar
29 (b) Citrus canker is a disease, which affects citrus (heterodont), one is transverse flagellum and other is
plants. It is caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas citri. longitudinal flagellum. The longitudinal flagellum is
30 (c) Mycoplasma is the triple layered smallest living narrow, smooth, directed posteriorly and lies in the
cells. It does not have definite cell wall. It is an sulcus.
anaerobic organism. It cause diseases in plants (little The transverse flagellum is ribbon-like and lies in
leaf of brinjal) as well as in animals (pleuromorphic annulus. The two types of flagella beat in different
pneumonia in man). directions.
45 (c) In dinoflagellates, cells are generally covered by a 67 (a) The body of a fungus (except yeast) is made up of
rigid coat, the theca or lorica of articulated and a number of elongated , tubular filaments known as
sculptured plates formed of cellulose. Because of the hyphae. The network of hyphae is called mycelium.
presence of sculptured plates, these protists are often
68 (a) The cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin, the
known as armoured dinoflagellates.
second most abundant carbohydrate. It is a
46 (c) The given figure is of a dinoflagellate. For these, homopolymer of N-Acetyl Glucosamine (NAG) joined
option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as with β 1-4 linkages. NAG is a modification of glucose
Dinoflagellates have two flagella, one lying molecule.
longitudinally and other transversally in a furrow 69 (b) Option (b) is wrong for fungi and can be
between wall plates. corrected as
48 (b) Some dinoflagellates (e.g. Gonyaulax catenella) are In fungi, cell wall contains chitin or cellulose along
poisonous to vertebrates. When they are present in large with other polysaccharides, proteins and lipids. Only in
numbers, they produce a toxin called saxitoxin into the some fungi, e.g. Phytophthora or other oomycetes a
sea water, which kills fishes and other marine animals. purely cellulosic cell wall is present. Rest of the
50 (c) Plant-like nutrition is present in Euglena. In options are correct.
euglenoids, the nutrition is holophytic 70 (a) Yeasts are unicellular, degenerated, non-mycelial,
(photoautotrophic), saprozoic or holozoic. The saprophytic fungi possessing no hyphae. But
photoautotrophs or holophytic forms possess chloroplasts sometimes, chain of buds is formed during rapid
with or without pyrenoids. In Euglena, photosynthetic growth, which may give false appearance of a
pigments include chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b.
mycelium and is called as pseudomycelium.
51 (c) Slime moulds lack chlorophyll and are heterotrophic.
71 (b) The coenocytic condition of hyphae arises due to
These generally, live as saprotrophs except a few, which
continued nuclear division without undergoing
are parasites on algae, other fungi and flowering plants.
cytokinesis which makes the hyphae multinucleate. If
52 (b) The free-living thalloid body of the acellular slime the whole mycelium is without septum, the name is
moulds is called plasmodium. It is the wall less mass of called coenocytic.
multinucleate protoplasm, covered by slime.
74 (c) The symbiotic association of a fungus with the root
53 (b) Under favourable conditions slime moulds form an of a higher plant is known as mycorrhiza. The fungus
aggregation called plasmodium, which may grow and is dependent upon the higher plants for shelter and
spread over several feet. During unfavourable conditions, food and in turn fixes phosphorus for the host plant.
the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies
75 (a) The fungal mycelium of mycorrhiza in soil plays a
bearing spores at their tips. These spores are extremely
highly important role in absorbing and transferring
resistant and survive for many years.
inorganic (mineral) ions, especially, phosphorus and
54 (b) The figure represents a saprophytic protist organism, nitrogen from the soil to the plant, it is associated with
i.e. slime mould. These occur over dead and decomposed helping in its proper growth.
matter engulfing organic matter.
76 (d) In fungi, vegetative reproduction occurs by
55 (d) Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in having fragmentation, budding, fission, sclerotia and
two types of nuclei. rhizomorphs but not through protonema. Protonema
These two nuclei are usually of different size, i.e. one is refers to the earliest stage of life cycle in moss.
meganucleus and the other is micronucleus. The former 77 (b) In fungi, asexual reproduction occurs through the
controls metabolism whereas the latter is concerned with formation of spores, e.g. zoospores, sporangiospores,
reproduction, e.g. Paramecium. chlamydospores, oidia, conidia, etc. Oospore is a
62 (a) Trypanosoma gambiense causes gambian sleeping sexual structure.
sickness. It was first observed by Forde in 1901. Bruce 78 (d) Fungi show sexual reproduction by oospores,
discovered that the parasite of sleeping sickness is ascospores and basidiospores. These various spores are
transmitted by tse-tse fly. produced in distinct sturctures called fruiting bodies.
63 (c) The most characteristic feature of Paramecium is the 80 (a) Plasmogamy is the first stage of sexual
presence of large number of cilia on its entire body reproduction in which the cytoplasm of two sex cells
surface. Paramecium uses these cilia for locomotion and fuse with each other.
capturing of food.
81 (b) Karyogamy is the fusion of two compatible nuclei
64 (d) Sporozoans include diverse organisms which have brought together as a result of plasmogamy.
an infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle.
82 (d) Only option (d) represents the correct sequence of
66 (d) Option (d) contains the incorrectly named and Class → Mycelium → Fruiting body.
described organism. Noctiluca is a colourless Other options can be corrected as
dinoflagellate famous for bioluminescence and is called
as sea tinkle. Rest are correctly matched.
l
Phycomycetes → Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
→ Fruiting bodies are not reported
l
Ascomycetes → Branched and septate mycelium 104 (d) Basidiomycetes includes not only mushrooms, toad
→ Ascocarps stools, puffballs, jelly fungi and shelf fungi, but also
l
Basidiomycetes → Branched and septate mycelium many important plant pathogens, like rusts and smuts.
→ Basidiocarp. All these fungi bear characteristic fruiting bodies called
83 (b) In some fungi, during sexual reproduction, the basidiocarps.
cytoplasm of two cells fuses, but the two nuclei per cell 105 (d) The Alternaria sp., are imperfect filamentous fungi
do not. This results in the formation of an intervening belonging to the class–Deuteromycetes.
dikaryon or binucleate condition and the phase is called 106 (a) Ustilago and Puccinia are the common parasites
dikaryophase of fungus. included in Basidiomycetes. Puccinia graminis tritici
85 (d) The morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore causes black rust of wheat, while Ustilago causes
formation and type of fruiting bodies are the basis for destructive smut diseases in most of the cereal plants.
the division of the kingdom–Fungi into four classes, i.e. 107 (a) In Deuteromycetes, the mycelium is septate and
(i) Phycomycetes (ii) Ascomycetes branched. Coenocytic forms are not known in
(iii) Basidiomycetes (iv) Deuteromycetes Deuteromycetes.
86 (b) Rhizopus (black bread mould) is included in the 108 (a) The imperfecti fungi, which are decomposers of
class–Phycomycetes. It is the common saprotrophic litter and help in mineral cycling belong to the class
fungi that attack a variety of food stuffs. Deuteromycetes.
87 (c) Coenocytic, multinucleate and aseptate mycelium is They are fungi, which do not fit into the commonly
found in class–Phycomycetes, e.g. Albugo. established taxonomic classification of fungi. They
include all those fungi in which the perfect stage (sexual
89 (c) In Phycomycetes asexual reproduction occurs stage) is not reported.
through motile zoospores or through non-motile
aplanospores, endogenously produced in the respective 109 (a) Deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual spores
sporangium. known as conidia. These are non-motile fungal
mitospores, which are produced exogenously from the
92 (d) Agaricus belongs to the class–Basidiomycetes. tips and sides of the hyphae called conidiophores.
Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms containing both
edible and poisonous species. Rest all belong to the 112 (b) Option (b) is the correct match. Rest of incorrect
Phycomycetes. matches can be corrected as
93 (b) The mycelium of the Rhizopus is distinguishable (i) Phytophthora belongs to Phycomycetes (algal
into three types of hyphae namely, rhizoidal hyphae, fungi). They contain either unicellular thallus or
stolons and sporangiophores. The mycelium is aseptate, non-septate coenocytic mycelium.
branched and multinucleate (coenocytic). They are mostly plant damaging oomycetes (water
94 (b) Ascomycetes are commonly known as sac fungi, molds).
due to their sac-like appendage which holds the spores. (iii) Mucor also belong to Phycomycetes. They have
95 (b) Ascomycetes can be unicellular, e.g. yeast or mycelium which is coenocytic (multinucleate)
multicellular, e.g. Penicillium. and profusely branched. They reproduce
vegetatively via conjugation.
96 (d) Members of Ascomycetes are saprophytic,
decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous (growing on (iv) Agaricus belongs to Basidiomycetes (where
dung). karyogamy and meiosis occur). They contain
well-developed filaments, branched and septate
98 (a) Neurospora is widely used in genetics as a model mycelium. They are saprophytic, but not parasitic.
organism because it reproduces quickly, is easy to
culture and can survive on minimal media. 113 (a) Option (a) contains the incorrect match and can be
corrected as
99 (b) Morels and truffles differ widely in their form and

behaviour. The morels resemble mushrooms to the Morels and truffles are belong to class–Ascomycetes.
extent that they have a cap borne upon a central stem, Rest of the matches are correct.
while the truffles form solid, round balls, which grow 114 (b) In plants, nutrition is typically autotrophic. A few
underground. These are the edible Ascomycetes plants, such as Drocera and Nepenthes, are
members. Both morels and truffles, represent some of insectivorous to get additional nitrogen and hence are
the most highly priced edible mushrooms in the world. partially heterotrophic.
102 (b) The class–Basidiomycetes include those members 115 (d) Insectivorous plants can capture and digest live
that produce their basidia and basidiospores on or in a prey, to obtain nitrogen compounds that are lacking in
basidiocarp. In Basidiomycetes, the mycelium is their usual marshy habitat, e.g. bladderwort, Venus
branched and septate. flytrap, Nepenthes.
103 (d) In Basidiomycetes, vegetative reproduction takes 116 (a) Cuscuta is a parasitic plant. It has no chlorophyll
place by fragmentation. It is a form of asexual and cannot make its own food by photosynthesis.
reproduction, where a new organism grows from a Instead, it grows on other plants using their nutrients for
fragment of the parent. its growth.
117 (c) Plants show alternation of generation, i.e. life cycle proteins that encapsulate a DNA or RNA genome and
of plants has two distinct phase, the haploid may have relatively simple or elaborated structure.
gametophytic and diploid sporophytic that alternate 141 (b) Viroids were discovered by TO Diener in 1971 as a
with each other. new infectious agents which were smaller than viruses.
120 (d) The kingdom–Animalia includes sponges, corals, Viroids lack capsid and does not have proteins
worms, insects, snails, starfishes, bony fishes, frogs, associated with them.
lizards, snakes, crocodiles, birds and mammals. 142 (d) Viroids differ from viruses in having RNA
These organisms are heterotrophic, multicellular, molecules without protein coat. Viruses on the other
eukaryotes without chlorophyll. Heterotrophic hand posses DNA or RNA with a protein coat as their
organisms cannot synthesise their own food. genetic material.
121 (a) Glycogen is the storage form of carbohydrates in Viruses can infect a wide range of organisms including
animals and humans. Glycogen is synthesised and plants, animals or bacteria, while viroids infect only
stored mainly in the liver and the muscles in body. plants.
Excess amount of glucose in blood is converted into fat. 143 (b) Lichen is a structurally organised entity consisting
Hence, glycogen is the reserve food material in animals. of a permanent association of a fungus and an alga. The
122 (d) Option (d) is not a feature of the animal kingdom. fungal component of a lichen is called mycobiont and
Kingdom–Animalia consists of achlorophyllous the algal component is called phycobiont.
organisms. Members of kingdom–Plantae are 144 (d) The fungal partner protects the alga by retaining
chlorophyllous. water. It provides a large surface area for the absorption
125 (d) Viruses and viroids are the non-cellular organisms, of mineral nutrients and also helps in anchorage.
which are not characterised or classified under any of 145 (a) The algal or cyanobacterial cells are photosynthetic
the classes described by Whittaker. and possess the green pigment, chlorophyll enabling
126 (c) Viruses are considered as living or alive by some them to use sunlight’s energy to make their own food
biologists because they have the capability to utilise the from water and CO2 through photosynthesis. They also
host cell machinery for multiplying their numbers or provide vitamins to the fungus.
reproducing. In the process, they affect the normal 146 (a) Lichens are useful bioindicators for air pollution,
stable condition of their host (i.e. they cause disease). especially sulphur dioxide pollution, since they derive
127 (b) The tobacco mosaic virus is a long, slender and their water and essential nutrients mainly from the
rod-shaped. It is a complex structure made up of atmosphere rather than from soil.
nucleoprotein (the protein and nucleic acid). The central 147 (d) In primary succession on rocks, lichens secrete
core of ribonucleic acid is surrounded by virus protein. acids to dissolve rock, help in weathering and soil
129 (c) The genetic material of viruses could be either RNA formation. Thus, lichens are pioneer species to colonise
the bare rock.
or DNA (both ds and ss). No virus contains both RNA
and DNA. In general, viruses that infects plants have 148 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
ssRNA and viruses that infect animals have either the correct explanation of Assertion.
single or double-stranded RNA or ds DNA. The two kingdom system of classification was used till
132 (a) Viruses are also known as nucleoprotein particles. very recently. This system did not distinguish between
The nucleic acid of virus is surrounded by a protein the eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and
shell called capsid. multicellular organisms and photosynthetic (green
algae) and non-photosynthetic (fungi) organisms.
133 (d) The latest view for the origin of virus is that many Classification of organisms into plants and animals was
scientists believe that viruses are modified plasmids, easily done and was easy to understand, inspite of the
which are the fragments of the nucleic acids of the host. fact that, a large number of organisms did not fall into
Their genome fractions escaped and got inducted into
either category. Hence, the two kindgom classification,

new host cells. was found to be inadequate.
135 (d) Viruses are known as the connecting link between 149 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
non-living and living beings. They are thought to be be corrected as
non-living as they do not show any sign of life outside
Five kingdom classification has proposed by RH
the host and are able to get crystallised.
Whittaker. The classification differentiated between the
136 (a) In humans, viruses cause various diseases like heterotrophic group, fungi and the autotrophic green
AIDS (HIV virus), mumps (paramyxovirus), smallpox plants, as they showed a characteristic difference in
(variola virus), herpes (HSVI) and influenza (RNA their wall composition–the fungi had chitin, while the
viruses of the family–Orthomyxoviridae). Thus, option green plants had cellulose in their cell walls. Thus, he
(a) depicts the correct group of viral diseases. placed them in separate kingdoms.
138 (d) Cauliflower mosaic virus is one of only a few 150 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
double-stranded DNA plant viruses. be corrected as
139 (b) Bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates Euglena is a green-coloured, single-celled organism,
within a bacteria. Bacteriophages are composed of which moves like animals . Some taxonomists
considered it as a plant and included it in the plant association between archaebacteria and eubacteria, i.e.
kingdom on the basis of the presence of chlorophyll, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia).
while others, included it in the animal kingdom along 159 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
with the flagellated protozoans because of the corrected as
occurrence of locomotion by flagella. It was classified Chlorella and Chlamydomonas both have cell walls.
as a protist later by RH Whittaker in his five kingdom Rest statements are correct.
classification.
160 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
151 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be corrected as
corrected as
Bacteria occur almost everywhere. They have a very
Fungi are wide spread in distribution. These may be simple structure, but a very complex behaviour. Rest of
epiphytic, saprophytic, symbiotic and parasitic. Fungi the statements are correct.
lack chlorophyll pigments and hence do not have
162 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect about
autotrophic mode of nutrition. These are heterotrophs.
methanogens and can be corrected as
not the correct explanation of Assertion. The bacteria, which grow anaerobically, on cellulosic
material and produce large amount of methane along
In fungi, there is gradual and progressive simplification with CO2 and H2 are collectively called as
and ultimate elimination of the sexual apparatus from methanogens. Rest of the statements are correct.
the lower to higher forms of fungi. In case of algae, the
sexual apparatus increases in complexity from simple to 163 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct. All
higher forms. archaebacteria share certain key characteristics like
(i) Their cell wall lacks peptidoglycans (important
component of cell wall of eubacteria).
(ii) Archaebacteria have distinct ribosomal RNA
Viruses are active only when they are inside the living
sequence.
host cells as viruses do not possess any replicating
property and require a host to replicate its genetic (iii) Some genes of archaebacteria possess introns,
material. Outside the host, they are as good as chemical unlike other bacteria.
substances. Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
154 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
Archaea neither completely resembles prokarya and
the correct explanation of Assertion.
eukarya nor it completely differs from them.
Polluted water bodies have high abundance of Nostoc
and Oscillatoria. This is because cyanobacteria or 164 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
blue-green bacteria such as Nostoc and Oscillatoria can corrected as
tolerate adverse conditions due to the presence of Binary fission is the common method of bacterial
mucilage covering, resistant proteins and the absence of multiplication under favourable conditions. In this
sap vacoules. method, a mature bacterial cell divides equally form two
daughter cells. They show sexual reproduction also.
155 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
Rest of the statements are correct.
corrected as
Slime moulds are called as fungus like animals because 165 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
they possess characters of both the animals and fungi. corrected as
Their spores possess a true cell wall. Eubacteria are also called true bacteria.
156 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is Rest of the statements are correct.
not the correct explanation of Assertion. 166 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Rest of the
Kingdom–Plantae consists of autotrophic organisms, i.e. statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
those which are capable of manufacturing their own Influenza and herpes are caused by virus having RNA
food. Thus, all the members contain chlorophyll and are and DNA, respectively.
eukaryotic. Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of free-living
However, certain insectivores additionally depend on nitrogen-fixers.
insect for meeting their nitrogen requirement. Such Methanogens are methane producing bacteria found in
plants are called insectivorous and are partially marshy areas and paddy fields not in wheat crops.
heterotrophic. 167 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
157 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is corrected as
not the correct explanation of Assertion. Fimbriae and pili are fine hair-like appendages used by
Three domain system or six kingdom system of bacteria for attachment rather than motility.
classification is a biological system of classification Rest of the statements are correct.
which divides organisms based on cellular 168 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect about
characteristics. The three domains are, archaea mycoplasma and can be corrected as
(primitive prokaryotes), bacteria and eukarya
They can survive without oxygen.
(eukaryotic organisms originating from endosymbiotic
169 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be and produce chemicals required for their own
corrected as multiplication. Rest of the statements are correct.
Diatoms are single-celled, plant-like protists that 181 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
produce intricately structured cell walls made up of corrected as
silica (SiO2 ). Thus, their walls are indestructible. Viroids were discovered by TO Diener in 1971 as a new
Rest of the statements are correct. infectious agent that was smaller than virus.
170 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct about Rest of the statements are correct.
euglenoid. Rest of the statements are incorrect and can 183 (b) Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is
be corrected as incorrect and can be corrected as
Euglenoids occur in freshwater habitats. Archaebacteria are characterised by the absence of
They contain the photosynthetic pigments, peptidoglycan in their wall. Instead, their cell wall
chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b like plants. contains proteins and non-cellulosic polysaccharides.
Euglena when placed in continuous darkness, behaves, 187 (b) The statements given correspond to slime moulds.
as heterotroph by predating on other smaller organisms Slime moulds are saprophytic protists. In slime moulds,
to survive. spores possess true walls. The spores are dispersed by
171 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be air. They are extremely resistant and survive for many
corrected as years even under adverse conditions.
Desmids are mainly found in freshwater and are usually 189 (b) Statements I, II, III and VI are correct. Statements
indication of clean (unpolluted) water. IV and V are incorrect and can be corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. l
Some unicellular fungi like yeast, are used to make
173 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct. Rest of the bread and beer. Ustilago is responsible for smut
statements are incorrect and can be corrected as disease.
l
Slime moulds are diploid, e.g. Physarum. l
Puccinia graminis tritici is responsible for black rust of
l
Dinoflagellates are motile, e.g. Noctiluca, wheat.
Peridinium, etc. 195 (b) Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is
l
The body of Euglena is covered with pellicle. incorrect and can be corrected as
174 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be Kingdom–Plantae includes algae, bryophytes,
corrected as pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
In Ascomycetes, the mycelium is well-developed and 198 (c) Statement II is correct about virus. Statements I, III
branched. The hyphae are septate and multicellular. and IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. Viruses are obligate parasites and cannot be cultured on
175 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and it can be an arificial medium. If a mixture of viruses and bacteria
corrected as is filtered through a bacterial proof filter, the viruses
Yeast is a unicellular sac fungus which lacks will pass through into the filtrate in the flask as they
filamentous structures or hyphae. However, they may are smaller than bacteria. Viruses are made up of
form short temporary filamentous structure called proteins and DNA or RNA.
pseudomycelium. 200 (a) Statement I is true, but II is false and it can be
Rest of the statements are correct. corrected as
176 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Bacterial viruses or Bacteriophages have commonly
double-stranded DNA, but all the other genome types
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
can also occur in them.
corrected as
217 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and it can be
l
Algal component of lichens is called phycobiont.
corrected as
l
Fungal component of lichens is called mycobiont.
l
Lichens are good pollution indicators. Thus, their The kindgom–Plantae includes eukaryotic, mainly
population reduces in highly polluted area. multicellular photosynthetic organisms.
179 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect about plants.
It can be corrected as 218 (b) Protista is the group of containing unicellular
Plants are autotrophic and make their own food through eukaryotic plants and animals. The organisms included
photosynthesis. Rest other statements are correct. in this group are either photoautotrophs, heterotrophs or
parasites.
180 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
corrected as 219 (d) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists, which move
The infective constituent in virus is their genetic along the dead leaves and engulf organic material.
material, i.e. either DNA or RNA and not protein. They These are multinucleated and do not possess cell wall
take over the biosynthetic machinery of the host cell and have naked cytoplasm.
220 (a) The difference between a virus and a viroid is that a 225 (b) MW Beijerinck proposed contagium vivum fluidum
virus contains DNA or RNA as genetic material and a means contagious living fluid. This phrase was first
protein coat, whereas viroids have no protein coat and used to describe virus, characteristic in escaping from
contain only RNA as their nucleic acid. the finest mesh available.
221 (d) In the five kingdom system of classification of DJ Ivanowsky was a Russian botanist who discovered
Whittaker, non-cellular organisms like viruses and the filterable nature of viruses and one of the founder of
viroids are not mentioned. Viruses did not find a place virology.
in any system of classification since, they are Stanley Miller was a Jewish American chemist
non-cellular and not truly ‘living’. experimented on origin of life.
222 (c) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association between a Robert Hooke was the first to study and record cells
fungus and the roots of a higher plants like using his primitive microscope.
gymnosperms and angiosperms. 226 (b) Dikaryon is a cell containing two nucleus. This
Whereas lichens are the symbiotic association between results when two somatic cells fuse, but their nucleus
algae and fungi. Ferns are group of plants, belong to does not fuse immediately. These are found in
pteridophytes like other vascular plants and BGA is Basidiomycetes.
blue-green algae with a prokaryotic cell. 227 (c) Lichens are dual organisms, which has a permanent
223 (a) RH Whittaker (1969) an American taxonomist in symbiotic association of fungus and an alga. The fungal
order to develop phylogenetic classification divided partner is called mycobiont and the algal partner is
organisms into five kingdoms, i.e. called phycobiont.
(i) Monera (ii) Protista Mycorrhiza is association of fungus with roots, but not
(iii) Fungi (iv) Plantae with an algae, while BGA or blue-green alga is a
(v) Animalia member of Monera having a prokaryotic cell.
Thus, RH Whittaker proposed the five kingdom system 228 (c) Plasmogamy means fusion of protoplasm and
of classification. karyogamy means fusion of nucleus. These two events
l
Whereas, C Linnaeus developed two kingdom system of lead to the formation of zygote (2n) which is a diploid
classification, i.e. structure where meiosis takes place. Thus, option (c)
gives the correct sequence of events with respect to
(i) kingdom–Plantae fungal sexual cycle.
(ii) kingdom–Animalia
229 (d) Phycomycetes are the members of fungi that can
l
Virchow is associated with the discovery of cell theory. thrive well on dead and decaying wood as saprophytes.
224 (b) Halophiles are organisms that live in areas of high These prefer to live in moist and damp places and need
concentration of salts. The name halophiles is originated water for the movement of zoospores and sexual
from the greek word that means ‘salt loving’. gametes.
Heliophytes are the plants that grow best in sunlight Few members of Phycomycetes are obligate parasites
and cannot survive in salty conditions. like Phytophthora infestans causing late blight of potato
Methanogens are the bacteria that produces methane as and Peronospora viticola causing downy mildew of
a metabolic byproducts in anaerobic conditions. grapes.
Thermoacidophiles are archaebacteria striving under Thus, Phycomycetes are found in aquatic habitats, on
strong acidic environments and high temperatures, but decaying wood, in moist and damp places and also as
cannot tolerate high salt concentrations around them. obligate parasite, on plants.
CHAPTER > 03
Plant Kingdom
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Plant kingdom includes all multicellular, eukaryotic, Å Sexual reproduction in algae occurs through fusion of two
photosynthesising organisms, grouped as algae, gametes. These gametes could be
bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. n
Isogamous Both gametes are similar in size and
Å Plants were classified on the basis of different characters. non-motile, e.g. Spirogyra.
Å The various systems used in classification of plants are n
Anisogamous Both gametes dissimilar in size, e.g.
n
Artificial system of classification It was given by Chlamydomonas.
Linnaeus and based on morphological characters. n
Oogamous Fusion between one large female gamete and a
n
Natural system of classification It was developed by smaller motile male gamete, e.g. Volvox and Fucus.
Bentham and Hooker and based on natural affinities Å Algae play an important role in carbon dioxide fixation on
among the organisms. It was based on both external and
earth through photosynthesis thereby increasing the level of
internal features like anatomy, structure and
O2 in the environment. They are chief primary producers.
embryology. It is the most common system of
classification followed. Å About 70 species of marine algae like Porphyra, Laminaria and
Sargassum are used as food.
n
Phylogenetic system of classification It was given by
Engler and Prantl and based on evolutionary Å Algae are used commercially for various products like
relationships of an organism. It is also known as n
Algin from brown algae.
Hutchinson’s system. n
Carrageenan from red algae.
Å Classification done on the basis of chemical constituents of n
Agar from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
plant is known as chemotaxonomy.
Å Spirulina and Chlorella are used by space travellers.
Å Numerical taxonomy includes classification on the basis of
observed characters. The algae are divided into three main classes which are as follows
Å Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological information like Class–Chlorophyceae (Green Algae)
chromosome number, structure, behaviour and types of
chromosomes. Å Members of Chlorophyceae are unicellular, colonial or
filamentous.
Algae Å They are green due to the presence of chlorophyll-a and b
pigments localised in definite chloroplast.
Å These are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid, autotrophic
and mostly aquatic organisms (both freshwater and marine Å Shape of the chloroplast varies like discoid, plate-like,
water). reticulate, cup-shaped, spiral or ribbon-shaped.
Å These include unicellular forms like Chlamydomonas, Å Algae store food in the form of starch in a specialised
colonial forms like Volvox, filamentous like Ulothrix and structures called pyrenoids located in chloroplast. Food may
Spirogyra. be stored in the form of oil droplets in some algae.
Å Algae reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation and Å Inner layer of cell wall is made up of cellulose, while outer
asexually by zoospores, aplanospores, akinetes, etc. layer is made up of pectose.
CHAPTER 03 > Plant Kingdom 45
Vegetative reproduction occurs through fragmentation. Asexual

Bryophytes
Å
reproduction is done by zoospores by zoosporangia.

Å Sexual reproduction occurs through different modes like Å They are commonly found in moist shaded areas in
isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous, e.g. Volvox, Ulothrix, the hills.
Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas and Chara. Å These are known as amphibians of plant kingdom
as they can live in soil as well as water and are
Class–Phaeophyceae (Brown Algae) dependent on water for sexual reproduction (for
Å Members of Phaeophyceae are brown in colour due to the movement of gametes).
presence of fucoxanthin pigment. Å In bryophytes, the main plant body is gametophyte,
Å They range from simple branched, filamentous forms to which produces gametes. It is thalloid (i.e. lacks
profusely branched forms like kelps, which reach up to a height roots, stems and leaves) and prostrate or erect and
of 100 metres. attached to the substratum by rhizoids.
Å Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed. The male
Å They have gelatinous coating outside the, cellulosic cell wall
sex organ is antheridium, while female sex organ is
called algin.
archegonium.
Å Cell contains chloroplast (plastid), centrally located vacuole and Å Antheridium produces biflagellate antherozoids.
nucleus.
Female sex organ produces one egg.
Å Plant body is differentiated into holdfast (substratum), stripe Å Antherozoids are released in water where they come
(stalk) and frond (photosynthetic organ). in contact of archegonium and egg cell. It fuses with
Å Asexual reproduction occurs through biflagellate zoospores egg cell to produce the zygote.
(having unequal laterally attached flagella). Å Zygote undergoes mitotic division and gives rise to
Å Sexual reproduction may be oogamous, isogamous or sporophyte (2n). Sporophyte remains attached to the
anisogamous. Union of gametes takes place in water within gametophyte and takes nourishment from it.
oogonium in case of oogamous species, e.g. Sargassum, Fucus, Å Sporophyte undergoes reductional division or
Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Laminaria. meiosis to produce haploid spores. These later
germinate and give rise to haploid gametophyte.
Class–Rhodophyceae (Red Algae) Å Bryophytes are used as food source. These are
Å Members of Rhodophyceae are red due to the presence of capable of preventing soil erosion and also form
pigment r-phycoerythrin. These are usually marine, occur close ecological succession links.
to the surface of water as well as in deep oceans. Å Bryophytes are divided into liverworts and mosses.
Å They reproduce vegetatively through fragmentation. Liverworts
Å They reproduce sexually and asexually through non-motile Å The plant body is thalloid, e.g. Marchantia.
spores/gametes. Sexual reproduction is oogamous.
Å Leafy members have tiny appendages usually grown
Divisions of Algae and their Main Characteristics in moist, damp, shady habitats.
Characteristics Class– Class– Class– Å They reproduce asexually by the formation of
Chlorophyceae Phaeophyceae Rhodophyceae
specialised structure called gemmae or through
Common name Green algae Brown algae Red algae
fragmentation of thalli.
Major pigments Chlorophyll-a, b Chlorophyll-a, c, Chlorophyll-a, d,
fucoxanthin r-phycoerythrin
Å Gemmae are asexual buds, which originate from
small receptacles called gemma cups.
Stored food Starch Mannitol, Floridean starch
laminarin Å Sexual reproduction occurs by the fusion of
Cell wall Cellulose Cellulose and Cellulose, pectin antherozoids and egg, which are produced in
algin and polysulphate antheridium and archegonium, respectively.
esters
Å Both male and female sex organs may be present on
Flagellar number 2-8, equal, 2, unequal, lateral Absent same thalli or different thalli.
and position of apical
insertions Å Zygote gives rise to sporophyte, which is
Habitat Freshwater, Freshwater (rare), Freshwater (some), differentiated into foot, seta and capsule. Some cells
brackish water, brackish water, brackish water, salt of capsule undergo meiosis and give rise to haploid
salt water salt water water (most) spores. These spores give rise to gametophyte (n).
NEET KEY NOTES

Mosses Å The male gamete of pteridophyte swims to archegonium,

where zygote is formed after fertilisation. The zygote
Å The predominant stage in the life cycle of a moss is the produces a sporophyte (dominant phase).
gametophyte, which consists of two substages, i.e.
Å The zygote develops into young embryo within female
protonema and leafy stage.
gametophyte. This event is called a precursor to seed
Å Juvenile stage of moss is protonema. It consist of slender, habit and is considered an important step in evolution.
green, branching system of filaments.
Å Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as
Å Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as
soil-binders. They are also grown as ornamentals.
lateral bud. It bears the sex organs.
Å Pteridophytes are divided into four classes, i.e. Psilopsida
Å Vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation and
(Psilotum), Lycopsida (Selaginella, Lycopodium),
budding in the secondary protonema.
Sphenopsida (Equisetum) and Pteropsida (Dryopteris,
Å Mosses provide food for herbivores, used as packing Pteris, Adiantum).
material, fuel (e.g. Sphagnum), they decompose rocks and
colonies them along with lichens, etc.
Gymnosperms
Capsule
Gametophyte Sporophyte
Å In gymnosperms, the ovules are not enclosed by any

Archegoniophore
ovary wall and remain exposed both before and after
Seta fertilisation. Thus, naked seeds are formed
Leaves post-fertilisation and no fruit formation occurs.
Gemma cup
Å Plants possess tap root system but in some forms,
coralloid roots (plant roots associated with endosymbionts
Main axis such as blue-green alga, e.g. Cycas) or mycorrhiza (e.g.
Rhizoids Pinus). The stems are aerial, erect, woody, branched or
Rhizoids
Moss (Funaria)
unbranched.
Liverwort (Marchantia)
Å Leaves are usually dimorphic, i.e. leaves are of two types
viz, large green foliage leaves and small brown scale
Pteridophytes leaves.
Å Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams, also known Å The gymnosperms are heterosporous, i.e. produce
as seedless vascular plants. microspores and megaspores in a compact strobili or
Å They produce spores rather than seeds, e.g. horsetails cones.
(Equisetum), ferns (Selaginella) and club moss (Lycopodium). Å The strobili bearing microsporophylls and
Å These are found near the marshy, cool and damp places. microsporangia are called microsporangiate or male
Å In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a sporophyte strobili. These develop into a highly reduced male
(2n), which is differentiated into true root, stem and gametophyte which produce pollen grains.
leaves. Å The cones bearing megasporophylls with ovules or
Å Leaves may be small (microphylls) as in Selaginella or large megasporangia are called macrosporangiate or female
(macrophylls) as in ferns. strobili.
Å Sporophyte bears sporangia which consist of leaf-like Å Ovules or megasporangia borne on megasporophylls
appendages called sporophylls. These sporophylls may be consist of nucellus from which a megaspore mother cell
widely scattered in a plant or may be clustered in definite develops.
areas and structures called strobili or cones, e.g. Å One megaspore out of four develops into female
Selaginella. gametophyte bearing two or more archegonia (female sex
Å The spores produced can be of similar kind (homosporous) organs).
or can be of two kinds (heterosporous), i.e. macro (large) Å The pollen grains of gymnosperms germinate and release
and micro (small). male gamete into the ovule, where it forms zygote after
Å The spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small fertilisation . The zygote develops into embryo and ovules
but multicellular free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid into seeds (naked).
gametophyte called prothallus.
Å Gametophyte can grow only in cool, damp and shady Angiosperms
places which has restricted the spread of pteriodphytes to Å Unlike the gymnosperms where the ovules are naked, in
a narrow geographical range. the angiosperms or flowering plants, the pollen grains and
Å The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called ovules are developed in specialised structures called
antheridia and archegonia, respectively. flowers.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å The flower consists of the male sex organs, called the exceptions such as Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, kelps
stamen and female sex organ, called the pistil or carpel. (haplo-diplontic) and Fucus (diplontic).
Å Each stamen consists of a filament and an anther Zygote
Sy (2n) Meiosis
(produces pollen grain). The pistil consists of an ovary ng
enclosing one to many ovules, a long slender style and a am Spores
y
stigma (structure where pollen grain lands after A (n )
pollination). B
Gametogenesis
Å Each ovule has a megaspore mother cell which forms
Haplontic
four haploid megaspores by meiosis. Out of which, one
divides to form an embryo sac and others degenerate.
Å The pollens reach the stigma of a flower through
agencies such as wind, water, insects, etc. This is known
as pollination. Gametophyte
(n)
Å Each embryo sac has 3-celled egg apparatus having
1-egg cell, 2-synergids, 3-antipodal cells and 2-polar Haplontic life cycle
nuclei. 2. Diplontic life cycle is followed by seed bearing plants,
Å The pollen tube carrying the microspore (pollen grains) i.e. gymnosperms and angiosperms.
enters the embryo sac. One male gamete fuses with egg Dominant phase is sporophyte, gametophytic phase is
cell (syngamy) and other fuses with diploid secondary represented by the single to few-celled gametophyte.
nucleus (triple fusion) forming primary endosperm Sporophyte
nucleus. Due to the occurrence of two processes (2n)
simultaneously, this is called double fertilisation.
Å The zygote develops into embryo and primary
endosperm nucleus provides nourishment to the Diplontic
growing embryo.
Å The synergids and antipodals develop after fertilisation. A
Zygote (2n) y
Also, the ovaries develop into fruit and ovules develop Meiosis
am
into seeds. ng
Sy
Å The angiosperms are classified into two B
(n )
classes–Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons. Gametogenesis
Gametophyte
Å Dicotyledons have two cotyledons in their seed, Diplontic life cycle
reticulate venation in leaves and flowers with 4 or 5
members in each whorl. 3. Haplo-diplontic life cycle is followed by bryophytes
and pteridophytes. In this case, sporophytic as well as
Å Monocotyledons have one cotyledon, parallel venation
gametophytic phase is multicellular. In bryophytes,
in leaves and flowers with 3 members in each whorl.
gametophytic phase is dominant, which alternates with
short-lived sporophyte partially or totally dependent on
Plant Life Cycle and gametophytes for anchorage and nutrition, while in
Alternation of Generations pteridophytes, sporophytic phase is dominant and
alternates with short-lived gametophytic phase.
Å Sexually reproducing plants show alternation of
generations between haploid gametophyte and diploid Sporophyte
Zygote (2n)
sporophyte. However, different plant groups as well as (2n)
individuals may show different patterns of life cycles, Syn
haplontic, diplontic and intermediate (haplo-diplontic). gam
y A
These can be explained as Meiosis
1. Haplontic life cycle is followed by algae such as
Gametogenesis
Spirogyra, Volvox, etc. In this cycle, gametophyte is Haplo-diplontic
Spores
dominant and sporophyte is represented by (n )
single-celled zygote. Zygote undergoes meiosis to B
form haploid spores. These spores give rise to
haploid gametophyte after a mitotic cell division. Gametophyte
(n)
Most algal generas are haplontic with a few
Haplo-diplontic life cycle
NEET KEY NOTES

Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Introduction about Plants

1 Kingdom–Plantae includes 6 Phylogenetic system of classification is also
(a) algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes known as
(b) algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and (a) Artificial system of classification
angiosperms (b) Hutchinson’s system of classification
(c) algae, fungi, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and (c) Natural system of classification
angiosperms (d) Whittaker’s system of classification
(d) algae, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
7 Classification done on the basis of cytological
2 The earliest system of classification given by …A…, information, chromosome structure and their
based on gross superficial morphological traits was behaviour, is known as
called …B…. Here, A and B are (a) molecular classification
(a) Linnaeus, natural classification (b) cytotaxonomy
(b) Whittaker, natural classification (c) chemotaxonomy
(c) Linnaeus, artificial classification (d) karyotaxonomy
(d) Whittaker, artificial classification
8 Classification on the basis of chemical constituents of
3 Natural system of classification was based upon plants is known as
(a) structural embryology (b) phytochemistry (a) molecular taxonomy
(c) anatomy (d) All of these (b) chemical taxonomy
4 Phylogenetic system of classification is based upon (c) chemotaxonomy
(a) evolutionary relationship of organisms (d) chemosynthetic classification
(b) cytological information 9 Classification on the basis of all observed characters
(c) structural embryology is known as
(d) All of the above (a) number and codes taxonomy
5 Phylogenetic system of classification was given by (b) numerical taxonomy
(a) Engler and Prantl (b) Aristotle (c) countable taxonomy
(c) Linnaeus (d) Bentham and Hooker (d) numerical information taxonomy
TOPIC 2 ~ Algae
10 Algae are (a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Volvox, C–Ulothrix
(a) chlorophyll bearing autotrophs (b) A–Ulothrix, B–Volvox, C–Chlamydomonas
(b) simple and thalloid (c) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Chlamydomonas
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Ulothrix, C–Volvox
(d) heterotroph 14 In algae, vegetative reproduction mainly takes place
11 Algae occur in/on by
(a) fresh and marine water (b) moist stones (a) budding (b) akinetes
(c) moist soil and wood (d) All of these (c) fragmentation (d) heterocyst
12 An example of colonial alga is NEET 2017 15 In algae, asexual reproduction occurs by the
(a) Chlorella (b) Volvox (c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra production of different types of spores. The most
13 Algae include unicellular forms like ...A..., common type of spore is
filamentous forms like ...B... and colonial forms like (a) aplanospore (b) endospore
...C... . Here, A, B and C refer to (c) zoospore (d) oospore
16 Which of the following type(s) of sexual reproduction (a) A–Volvox, B–Chlamydomonas, C–Chara, D–Porphyra
is/are present in algae? (b) A–Fucus, B–Polysiphonia, C–Porphyra, D–Dictyota
(a) Isogamy (b) Anisogamy (c) A–Fucus, B–Dictyota, C–Porphyra, D–Polysiphonia
(c) Oogamy (d) All of these (d) A–Dictyota, B–Porphyra, C–Fucus, D–Polysiphonia
17 Anisogamous means both gametes are 21 Which of the following groups of marine algae is
(a) similar in size and non-motile used as food?
(b) dissimilar in size (a) Chlamydomonas, Volvox and Gracilaria
(c) similar in size and motile (b) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum
(d) dissimilar in morphology (c) Laminaria and Gracilaria
18 Oogamous means (d) Porphyra and Chlamydomonas
(a) fusion between female and male gametes of similar size 22 Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from
(b) fusion between one large female gamete and a smaller red algae is used
non-motile male gamete (a) to grow microbes
(c) fusion between one large female gamete and a smaller (b) in preparations of ice-creams and jellies
motile male gamete (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) fusion between one smaller female gamete and a large (d) in sizing textiles and papers
motile male gamete
23 Agar-agar is obtained from
19 Identify the given figures of algae and select the
correct option. (a) Chlorella (b) Spirogyra
(c) Ulothrix (d) Gelidium
24 An alga, which can be employed as food for human
being is CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(a) Ulothrix (b) Chlorella
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia
Daughter Frond
colony 25 The alga used in space research is
Parent (a) Cephaleuros (b) Gelidium
colony Stipe (c) Chlorella (d) Gracilaria
Holdfast
C 26 People recovering from long illness are often advised
A B
to include the alga Spirulina in their diet because it
(a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Chara, C–Volvox (a) makes the food easy to digest
(b) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Laminaria (b) is rich in proteins
(c) A–Chara, B–Laminaria, C–Volvox (c) has antibiotic properties
(d) A–Porphyra, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus (d) restores the intestinal microflora
20 Identify the given figures of algae and select the 27 The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called
correct option. (a) red algae (b) brown algae
(c) green algae (d) blue-green algae
Air bladder 28 The members of Chlorophyceae are usually green due

Frond to the presence of pigments
Midrib (a) chlorophyll-a (b) chlorophyll-b
Main axis
(c) chlorophyll-a and b (d) chlorophyll-c
Branches 29 Which type of chloroplasts are present in the
Holdfast
members of class–Chlorophyceae?
(a) Discoid and plate-like
A B
(b) Reticulate and cup-shaped
Frond Frond (c) Spiral or ribbon-shaped
30 Shape of chloroplast of Ulothrix is JIPMER 2018
(a) star-shaped (b) band-shaped
Stipe
(c) girdle-shaped (d) spiral-shaped
C D
31 Storage bodies, pyrenoids in the chloroplast contain 43 In brown algae, brown colour is due to the presence of
(a) protein and starch (a) carotenoids (b) fucoxanthin
(b) carbohydrate and protein (c) phycoerythrin (d) chlorophyll
(c) polysaccharide and protein 44 In brown algae, food is stored in the form of
(d) starch and lipid (a) mannitol (b) laminarian starch
32 How many pyrenoids are present in the members of (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) algin
class–Chlorophyceae? 45 If you are asked to classify the various algae into
(a) One (b) Two distinct groups, which of the following characters you
(c) One to many (d) Pyrenoids are absent should choose?
33 Pyrenoids are made up of (a) Types of pigments present in the cell
(a) core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein (b) Nature of stored food materials in the cell
(b) core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath (c) Structural organisation of thallus
(c) proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath (d) Chemical composition of the cell wall
(d) core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
46 The cells of brown algae contain plastids with
34 The members of Chlorophyceae usually have a rigid centrally located ...A... and ...B... .
cell wall made up of
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option for A
(a) cellulose (outer layer) and algin (inner layer)
and B.
(b) pectose (inner layer) and peptidoglycan (outer layer)
(a) A–vacuole; B–nucleus
(c) cellulose (inner layer) and pectose (outer layer)
(b) A–Golgi body; B–nucleoid
(d) chitin (inner layer) and pectose (outer layer)
(c) A–pyrenoid; B–carrageen
35 In green algae, vegetative reproduction takes place by (d) A–pyrenoid; B–nucleus
(a) fragmentation (b) different types of spores
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) conidia 47 Holdfast, stipe and frond constitute the plant body in
case of
36 Which one of the following shows isogamy with (a) Volvox (b) Chara
non-flagellated gametes? (c) Laminaria (d) Chlamydomonas
(a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus
(c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra 48 In brown algae, asexual reproduction takes place by
(a) aplanospores (apple-shaped and non-motile)
37 Eyespot is seen in JIPMER 2018
(b) biflagellated gametes (pear-shaped and have two
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Ulothrix unequal flagella)
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia (c) endospores (round and have one flagellum)
38 Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of NEET 2017 (d) multiflagellate gametes and are sickle-shaped
(a) Marchantia (b) Fucus 49 Heterotrichous thallus is shown by which organism?
(c) Funaria (d) Chlamydomonas JIPMER 2018
39 Palmella stage is present in JIPMER 2018 (a) Chlamydomonas (b) Ectrocarpus
(a) Aspergillus (b) Cystopus (c) Spirogyra (d) Volvax
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) None of these 50 Photosynthetic pigment(s) of class–Rhodophyceae
40 The members of brown algae are found primarily in (red algae) is/are
(a) freshwater habitat (b) marine habitat (a) chlorophyll-a and b
(c) terrestrial habitat (d) on moist rock (b) chlorophyll-a and c
41 Kelp (branched form) and Ectocarpus (filamentous (c) chlorophyll-a only
form) belong to (d) chlorophyll-a and d
(a) green algae (b) brown algae 51 Members of class–Rhodophyceae are known as red
(c) red algae (d) blue-green algae algae due to the presence of red pigment
42 The members of brown algae have (a) r-phycoerythrin (b) r-xanthophyll
(a) chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-b and xanthophylls (c) chlorophyll-a (d) fucoxanthin
(b) chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-c and xanthophylls 52 Phycoerythrin is present in
(c) fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin (a) Polysiphonia (b) Laminaria
(d) chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-d (c) Kelps (d) Chlamydomonas
53 Floridean starch is reserve food in 57 Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks.
(a) Phaeophyceae Flagellar
(b) Chlorophyceae Major Stored Number and
Classes Cell Wall
Pigments Food Position of
(c) Rhodophyceae Insertions
(d) Cyanophyceae Chlorophyceae A Starch Cellulose 2-8, equal,
54 Which one is wrongly matched? apical
(a) Gemma cups – Marchantia NEET (National) 2018 Phaeophyceae Chlorophyll- Mannitol, C 2, unequal,
a and c, laminarin lateral
(b) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae fucoxanthin
(c) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
Rhodophyceae Chlorophyll- B Cellulose D
(d) Unicellular organism – Chlorella a and d,
phycoerythrin
55 Which one is a parasitic agla? JIMPER 2018
(a) Oedogonium A, B, C and D in the above table refers to
(b) Cephaleuros A B C D
(c) Spirogyra (a) Chlorophyll- a and d Starch and Cellulose 2-10,
(d) Cladophora laminarin equal,
apical
56 Which of the following is not matched?
(b) Chlorophyll-a and c Mannitol and Cellulose 2-8, equal,
(a) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular flagellated starch and algin lateral
(b) Laminaria – Flattened leaf-like thallus
(c) Chlorophyll-a and b Floridean Cellulose Not
(c) Chlorella – Unicellular non-flagellated starch and algin present
(d) Volvox – Colonial form, non-flagellated (d) Chlorophyll-a and b Mannitol and Cellulose Not
floridean starch present
TOPIC 3 ~ Bryophytes
58 Bryophytes are the oldest (most primitive) plant type 62 The plant body of bryophytes is thallus-like, prostrate
in terms of evolution, these include or erect and attached to substratum with the help of
(a) liverworts and mosses (a) unicellular or multicellular root
(b) lycopods and mosses (b) unicellular or multicellular rhizoids
(c) lycopods and liverworts (c) multicellular roots
(d) liverworts and Volvox (d) unicellular roots
59 Bryophytes mostly occur in 63 Which of the following plant groups lacks true roots,
(a) dry area stem and leaves?
(b) terrestrial area (a) Angiosperms (b) Gymnosperms
(c) humid, damp and shaded localities (c) Pteridophytes (d) Bryophytes
(d) in water 64 The main plant body of bryophytes is ...A... .
60 Bryophytes are also called ‘amphibians of the plant It produces ...B..., hence is called a ...C... .
kingdom’ because
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option for
(a) water is essential for reproduction
A, B and C.
(b) they occur only in water
(a) A–diploid, B–spores, C–sporophyte
(c) these plants can live in soil, but are dependent on water
for sexual reproduction (b) A–haploid, B–gametes, C–gametophyte
(d) water is essential for spore formation (c) A–diploid, B–endospores, C–sporophyte
(d) A–haploid, B–conidia, C–gametophyte
61 Mosses (Bryophytes) occur in moist places because
(a) they cannot grow on land 65 Bryophytes reproduce by
(b) their gametes fuse in water (a) vegetative reproduction
(c) they lack vascular tissue (b) sexual reproduction
(d) they lack root and stomata (c) asexual reproduction
(d) Both (a) and (b)
66 Gametophytic generation is dominant stage in the life (a) A–Apophysis, B–Capsule, C–Sporophyte,
cycle of D–Gametophyte
(a) pteridophytes (b) angiosperms (b) A–Capsule, B–Seta, C–Sporophyte, D–Gametophyte
(c) gymnosperms (d) bryophytes (c) A–Apophysis, B–Seta, C–Gametophyte, D–Sporophyte
(d) A–Apophysis, B–Capsule, C–Gametophyte,
67 In bryophytes, antheridium produces ...A... and female D–Sporophyte
sex organ archegonium produces ...B... . Here A and B
refer to 75 A and B in given figure represent
(a) A–uniflagellate antherozoids; B–two eggs
(b) A–biflagellate antherozoids; B–one egg A
Branches
(c) A–non-motile antherozoids; B–one egg
(d) A–non-motile antherozoids; B–two eggs
68 The only positive evidence of aquatic ancestry of
byrophyte is
(a) thread-like protonema
(b) green colour B
(c) some forms are still aquatic
(d) ciliated sperms
69 Choose the incorrect option for bryophytes.
(a) Archegonium – Flask-shaped female sex organ
(b) Antheridium – Unicellular female gametes (a) A–Gametophyte branch, B–Sporophyte branch
(c) Antherozoids – Biflagellate male gamete (b) A–Antheridial branch, B–Archegonial branch
(d) All of the above (c) A–Archegonial branch, B–Antheridial branch
(d) A–Sporophyte branch, B–Gametophyte branch
70 Peat moss is
(a) Funaria (b) fern (c) algae (d) Sphagnum 76 Observe the diagrams given below and choose the
correct option for A, B and C.
71 The plant having capacity of absorbing water, used to
replace cotton and used as a fuel is B
(a) Marchantia (b) Riccia A
(c) Sphagnum (d) Funaria
72 Mosses along with lichen are of great ecological
C
importance because
(a) they colonise barren rocks and decompose rock
(b) of their contribution to prevent soil erosion
(c) of their contribution in ecological succession
73 In which way, mosses affect the quality of soil? (a) A–Antheridiophore, B–Archegoniophore, C–Endospore
(a) Prevent soil erosion (b) A–Archegoniophore, B–Antheridiophore,
(b) Add nutrients to the soil C–Gemma cup
(c) Promotes soil degradation (c) A–Antheridiophore, B–Archegoniophore,
(d) They do not affect soil in any way C–Gemma cup
(d) A–Archegoniophore, B–Antheridiophore, C–Seta cup
74 In given figure A, B, C and D represent
77 Which of the following is showing the correct ploidy
A
level of labelled organs of plant in the given figure?
C Sporophyte
B
Leaves
Antheridia
D
Rhizoids
Main axis
Rhizoids (a) Sporophyte – Diploid (2n) (b) Antheridia – Haploid (n)
(c) Rhizoids – Haploid (n) (d) All of these
78 Which group of plants constitute the lower 89 In moss, the sporophyte is differentiated into
bryophytes? (a) seta and capsule
(a) Liverworts (b) Mosses (b) foot and seta
(c) Anthocerotales (d) Jungermanniales (c) foot, seta and capsule
79 Which of the following liverworts has thalloid plant (d) protonema, foot and capsule
body? 90 In which of the following, the gametangia surrounded
(a) Marchantia (b) Funaria by a sterile jacket will be found?
(c) Sphagnum (d) Pogonatum (a) Fungi (b) Angiosperms
80 In liverworts, asexual reproduction takes place by (c) Bryophytes (d) Algae
(a) gemmae and fragmentation of thalli 91 Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum are the
(b) fragmentation and zoospores examples of
(c) gemmae formation and spores formation (a) liverworts (b) ferns
(d) isogamy and anisogamy (c) mosses (d) pteridophytes
81 Gemmae are asexual buds, which originate from 92 In a moss, the sporophyte
small receptacles called gemma cups. These are (a) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
found in (b) produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
(a) Funaria (b) Marchantia (c) arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
(c) Fern (d) Sphagnum (d) manufactures food for itself, as well as for the
gametophyte
82 In the life cycle of mosses, the gametophyte has two
stages (A and B). These stages can be called 93 The moss plant is
(a) A – Protonema; B – Leafy stage (a) sometimes gametophyte and sometimes sporophyte
(b) A – Protonema; B – Sporogonium (b) predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte attached
(c) A – Sporophyte; B – Gametophyte to it
(d) A – Zygote; B – Spore mother cell (c) gametophyte
(d) sporophyte
83 The protonema is a stage in the life cycle of
(a) Riccia (b) Funaria 94 Buxbaumia aphylla is a classical example of
(c) All bryophytes (d) Pinus (a) parasitic bryophyte
(b) saprophytic bryophyte
84 Secondary protonema
(c) symbiotic bryophyte
(a) formed by spore germination
(d) nitrogen-fixing form
(b) formed by other vegetative part of plant
(c) develops into leafy gametophyte 95 The unique feature of bryophytes in comparison to
(d) Both (b) and (c) other green plant groups is that
(a) they produce spores
85 If the leaf of Funaria has 5 chromosomes, the primary
(b) they lack vascular tissue
protonema will have (c) they lack roots
(a) 10 chromosomes (b) 5 chromosomes
(d) their sporophyte is attached to the gametophyte
(c) 15 chromosomes (d) 20 chromosomes
96 Which one is wrong in respect to bryophytes?
86 Mosses are highly developed among all the
(a) Water is essential for sexual reproduction
bryophytes. These are (b) The presence of antheridium
(a) green
(c) The presence of ciliated sperms
(b) leafy
(d) The presence of autotrophic, independent sporophyte
(c) upright and radial in symmetry
(d) All of the above 97 Which of the following is true about bryophytes?
(a) They are thalloid
87 Mosses are attached to substratum by
(b) They contain chloroplast
(a) roots (b) capsule
(c) They possess archegonia
(c) rhizoids (d) main axis
88 In mosses, vegetative reproduction takes place by
(a) fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema 98 If the chromosome number in the leaf of Funaria is
(b) gemmae formation and endospore formation 20, what will be the chromosome number in the
(c) gemmae and tubers formation spores?
(d) protonema (a) 10 (b) 40
(c) 20 (d) 5
TOPIC 4~ Pteridophytes
99 Horsetails and ferns belong to 111 Which of the following are homosporous? AIIMS 2019
(a) gymnosperms (b) bryophytes (a) Salvinia, Equisetum (b) Salvinia, Lycopodium
(c) mosses (d) pteridophytes (c) Selaginella, Salvinia (d) Lycopodium, Equisetum
100 Pteridophytes mostly occur in 112 In homosporous pteridophyte, the gametophyte is
(a) cool, damp and shady places (a) vascular
(b) hot and sunny places (b) monoecious
(c) dry and humid areas (c) dioecious
(d) water (d) may be monoecious or dioecious
101 Which of the following plant group is considered as 113 Which of the following pteridophytes is
first terrestrial plant to possess vascular tissues xylem heterosporous in nature?
and phloem? (a) Selaginella and Salvinia (b) Adiantum and Equisetum
(a) Bryophytes (b) Pteridophytes (c) Psilotum and Lycopodium (d) Adiantum and Psilotum
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms
114 Heterospory is the production of
102 Pteridophytes are also known as (a) sexual and asexual spores
(a) cryptogams (b) vascular cryptogams (b) large and small spores
(c) amphibious plants (d) phanerogams
(c) haploid and diploid alike spores
103 Sporophytic generation is dominant phase in the life (d) diploid and tetraploid alike spores
cycle of 115 Seed habit is linked to
(a) Marchantia (b) ferns (c) mosses (d) liverworts
(a) homospory (b) heterospory
104 In pteridophyte, the sporophyte consists of leaf-like (c) parthenocarpy (d) parthenogenesis
appendages called 116 From evolutionary point of view, retention of the
(a) megaphylls (b) sporophylls female gametophyte with developing young embryo
(c) thalli (d) sporangia
on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first
105 The leaves in pteridophytes are small as in observed in NEET (National) 2019
(a) Volvox (b) Marsilia (c) Selaginella (d) Azolla (a) mosses (b) pteridophytes
106 Select the correct sequential arrangement of (c) gymnosperms (d) liverworts
reproductive structures in pteridophytes. 117 Which of the following group of pteridophytes belong
(a) Sporophyll → Strobili → Sporangia → Spore mother to class–Pteropsida?
cell → Spores (a) Equisetum and Psilotum (b) Lycopodium and Adiantum
(b) Strobili → Sporophyll → Sporangia → Spores (c) Selaginella and Pteris (d) Pteris and Adiantum
(c) Spores → Sporophyll → Sporangia → Strobili
(d) Spores → Sporangia → Sporophyll → Strobili 118 Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophyte. This
statement is true for
107 In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male
(a) pteridophytes (b) algae
gametes requires NEET 2016
(c) byrophytes (d) gymnosperms
(a) insects (b) birds (c) water (d) wind
119 Identify A, B and C in the following figure and choose
108 In pteridophytes, spore germinates to give rise to
the correct option.
(a) thalloid gametophyte called prothallus
A
(b) thalloid sporophyte called prothallus
(c) thalloid sporocarp
(d) thalloid, photosynthetic sporophyte B
109 Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady places
because both C
(a) require the presence of water for fertilisation
(b) do not need sunlight for photosynthesis
(c) depend for their nutrition on microorganisms, which
can survive only at low temperature Rhizome
(d) cannot compete with sun-loving plants (a) A–Strobilus, B–Node, C–Leaves
110 Prothallus of the fern produces (b) A–Strobilus, B–Node, C–Branch
(a) spores (b) gametes (c) A–Sporophyll, B–Node, C–Internode
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) cones (d) A–Sporophyll, B–Internode, C–Node
120 Go through the following figures and identify these (a) A–Equisetum, B–Selaginella, C–Fern
plants (A, B and C). (b) A–Selaginella, B–Fern, C–Salvinia
(c) A–Fern, B–Salvinia, C–Equisetum
Leaves (d) A–Salvinia, B–Equisetum, C–Fern
121 Two very distinct generations are found in the life
Stem
cycle of
Roots (a) bacteria (b) Spirogyra
(c) Volvox (d) ferns
A B
122 Which plant group has vascular tissue, produces
spores, but does not have seeds?
(a) Bryophyta (b) Pteridophyta
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms
123 ……… a pteridophyte is also known as the walking
fern. CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(a) Equisetum (b) Psilotum
(c) Adiantum (d) Lycopodium
C
TOPIC 5 ~ Gymnosperms
124 Gymnosperms are characterised by 130 In gymnosperms, the leaves are well-adapted to
(a) multiflagellate sperms (b) naked seeds withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and
(c) winged seeds (d) seeds inside fruits wind. Which is/are the xeric character(s) of conifers?
125 Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme (a) Needle-like leaves
environmental conditions because of NEET 2016 (b) Thick cuticle
(a) broad hardy leaves (b) superficial stomata (c) Sunken stomata
(c) thick cuticle (d) the presence of vessels (d) All of the above
126 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents 131 Cycads are
(a) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are (a) homosporous and dioecious
formed (b) homosporous and monoecious
(b) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored (c) heterosporous and dioecious
after pollination (d) heterosporous and monoecious
(c) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the 132 Zooidogamy is found in JIPMER 2019
pollen tube approaches the egg
(a) Cedrus (b) Pinus
(d) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
(c) Cycas (d) Both (b) and (c)
127 In which of the following gametophyte is not
133 Select the mismatch. NEET 2017
independent and free-living? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(a) Pinus – Dioecious
(a) Funaria (b) Marchantia
(b) Cycas – Dioecious
(c) Pteris (d) Pinus
(c) Salvinia – Heterosporous
128 Which of the following gymnosperm has coralloid (d) Equisetum – Homosporous
roots associated with N 2 -fixing cyanobacteria?
134 In Pinus, male cone bears a large number of
(a) Pinus (b) Cycas
(a) ligules (b) anthers
(c) Cedrus (d) Ginkgo
(c) microsporophylls (d) megasporophylls
129 Which one is not the feature of Cycas?
(a) Unbranched stem 135 Microsporangia in gymnosperms are produced
(b) Pinnate leaves (a) on the middle portion of microsporophyll
(c) The male or female cones may be borne on the different (b) on the lowerside of microsporophyll
trees (c) on the middle portion of megasporophyll
(d) Archegonium is absent (d) at the extreme tip of microsporophyll
136 In gymnosperms, the microspores develop into a male 143 In gymnosperms, the multicellular female
gametophyte generation, which gametophyte is retained within
(a) is highly reduced and confined to only a limited number (a) microsporangium (b) megasporangium
of cells (c) male gametophyte (d) archegonia
(b) is highly developed 144 Choose the correct pattern of arrangement of
(c) has an independent life reproductive structures of gymnosperms.
(d) Both (a) and (c) (a) Spores → Sporophylls → Sporangia → Strobili
137 In gymnosperms, the reduced gametophyte is called (b) Spores → Sporangia → Sporophylls → Strobili
(c) Sporangia → Sporophylls → Spores → Strobili
(a) endospore (b) pollen grain
(d) Spores → Sporangia → Strobili → Sporophylls
(c) ovule (d) aplanospore
145 In gymnosperms, pollination takes place by
138 Megasporophyll is the term used in gymnosperm to (a) water (b) air
denote (c) insects (d) animals
(a) carpel (b) leaves 146 In gymnosperms, dominant phase is
(c) female cone (d) stamens (a) sporophyte (b) gametophyte
139 The cones bearing megasporophylls with ovules are (c) haploid (d) triploid
called 147 Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the correct
(a) male strobili (b) female strobili option.
(c) megasporangia (d) microsporangia
140 In gymnosperms, the nucellus is protected by
envelops and this composite structure is known as
(a) ovule (b) ovary (c) anther (d) strobili A B C
141 Megaspore mother cell divides ...A... to give rise (a) A–Cycas, B–Ginkgo, C–Pinus
...B... megaspores. (b) A–Cycas, B–Pinus, C–Ginkgo
(c) A–Ginkgo, B–Cycas, C–Pinus
Identify A and B and choose the correct option. (d) A–Pinus, B–Cycas, C–Ginkgo
(a) A–mitotically; B–two (b) A–meiotically; B–four
(c) A–amitotically; B–four (d) A–dinomitotically; B–two
148 ‘Chilgoza’ a gymnospermic seed that is eaten as dry
fruit is produced by
142 In gymnosperms, one of the megaspores develops into (a) Pinus roxburghii (b) Pinus gerardiana
multicellular structure called ……… that bears two or (c) Ginkgo biloba (d) Cedrus deodara
more archegonia.
149 Sago starch is obtained from
(a) male gametophyte (b) female gamete
(a) Cedrus (b) Taxus (c) Pinus (d) Cycas
(c) female gametophyte (d) male gamete
TOPIC 6~ Angiosperms
150 Angiosperms are also called 154 Smallest flowering plant is
(a) seedless plants (b) fruitless plants (a) Ginkgo (b) Wolffia (c) tulip (d) sweet bay
(c) flowering plants (d) All of these 155 The tallest tree species is
151 In angiosperms, the pollen grains and ovules are (a) Pinus (b) Cedrus
produced in a special structure called (c) Sequoia (d) Eucalyptus
(a) fruit (b) seed 156 Angiospermic plants are divided into
(c) flower (d) lamina (a) dicot
152 In angiosperms, seeds are enclosed by (b) monocot
(a) flowers (b) fruits (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) ovule (d) perianth (d) heartwood plants and sapwood plants
153 Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having 157 Reproductive parts of an angiospermic plant are
(a) fruits (b) cotyledons (a) stamen (b) pistil
(c) tracheids (d) broad leaves (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) shoot
158 Stamen consists of 171 Endosperm formation begins with

(a) filament and anther (b) style and stigma (a) the establishment of the suspensor
(c) filament and pistil (d) anther and pistil (b) the fusion of the antipodals
159 Carpel consists of (c) the fertilisation of the polar nuclei
(a) style and ovary (b) style, stigma and ovary (d) the syncytial development of the embryo
(c) style, anther and pistil (d) anther, style and stigma 172 The endosperm in angiosperms develops from
160 Eight nucleated female gametophyte is found in (a) zygote (b) secondary nucleus
(a) bryophytes (b) gymnosperms (c) chalazal polar nucleus (d) micropylar polar nucleus
(c) angiosperms (d) pteridophytes 173 In the angiosperm ovule, central cell of the embryo
161 Embryo sac consists of angiosperm has sac prior to the triple fusion, contains
(a) one egg cell (a) a single haploid nucleus
(b) two synergids (b) one diploid nucleus
(c) three antipodal and two polar nuclei (c) two haploid polar nuclei
(d) All of the above (d) one diploid and one haploid nuclei
162 Egg apparatus of angiosperms consists of 174 After fertilisation, the ovary and ovules, respectively
(a) one synergid and two egg cells develop into
(b) two synergids and one egg cell (a) fruit, seed coat (b) seed coat, integuments
(c) one central cell, two polar nuclei and three antipodal cells (c) fruit and seeds (d) seeds and fruit
(d) one egg cell, two polar nuclei and three antipodal cells
175 In angiosperms, endosperm is
163 Which of the following is incorrect with respect to
(a) haploid (b) diploid
angiosperms?
(c) triploid (d) None of these
(a) Endosperm — Triploid (b) Megaspore — Diploid
(c) Pollen grain — Haploid (d) Synergid — Haploid 176 The diagram represents the life cycle of angiosperm.
Choose the correct combination for labellings (A-E).
164 Each cell of angiospermic embryo sac is
B
(a) diploid (b) triploid (c) tetraploid (d) haploid
A
165 Transfer of pollen grain from anther to the stigma of
Filament
ovary is called Style Microsporangium
Megaspore
(a) autogamy (b) pollination mother cell
(c) syngamy (d) allogamy Sporophyte
Ovary
166 Pollen tube carries Microspores
(a) two male gametes (b) one male gamete Megasporangium
(c) three sperms (d) four sperms Gametophytic
Sporophytic
(n)
(2n)
167 In flowering plants, meiosis occurs at the time of generation
generation
(a) formation of buds
(b) germination of seeds Microspore
(c) formation of root primordia Embryo (pollen grain)
E
(d) formation of pollen grains
C
168 Double fertilisation occurs among
Zygote
(a) algae (b) bryophytes D Gametes
(c) angiosperms (d) gymnosperms
(a) A–Anther, B–Stigma, C–Egg, D–Male gametophyte,
169 Double fertilisation is NEET 2018
E–Ovule
(a) fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(b) A–Ovule, B–Stigma, C–Male gametophyte, D–Anther,
(b) fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
E–Ovule
(c) fusion of two male gametes of pollen tube with two
different eggs (c) A–Male gametophyte, B–Stigma, C–Anther, D–Egg,
(d) syngamy and triple fusion E–Ovule
(d) A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Male gametophyte, D–Egg,
170 Triple fusion in angiosperm is the fusion of second E–Ovule
male gamete with
177 Male gametophyte with least number of cells is
(a) two polar nuclei (secondary nucleus)
(b) two antipodal cells
present in CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(c) one antipodal cell (a) Pteris (b) Funaria
(d) antipodal cell and one synergid cell (c) Lilium (d) Pinus
TOPIC 7~ Plant Life Cycles and Alternation of Generations
178 In the alternation of generations, the sporophytic 184 Which of the following correctly represents the type of life
generation is ...A... and the gametophytic cycle patterns from the options given?
generation is ...B... . Here, A and B refer to
Zygote
(a) A–2n; B–n Sy Meiosis
ng (2n)
(b) A–n; B–2n a my
Spores
(c) A–n; B–n I (n)
(d) A–2n; B–2n II
Gametogenesis
179 The dominant photosynthetic, free-living phase
in haplontic life cycle is A
(a) sporophyte
(b) gametophyte
(d) None of the above Gametophyte
180 Choose the incorrect option for haplontic life (n)
cycle Sporophyte
(2n)
(a) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the
one-celled zygote
(b) There are no free-living sporophytes
(c) Mitosis in the zygote results in the formation of B
haploid spores
(d) The haploid spores divide mitotically and form I
the gametophyte Zygote (2n)
y Meiosis
am
181 Choose the correct option about diplontic life ng
Sy II
cycle. (n )
(a) It occurs in seed bearing plants like gymnosperms Gemetogenesis
and angiosperms Gemetophyte
(b) The diploid sporophyte is dominant,
photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant Sporophyte
(2n)
(c) The gametophytic, phase is represented by the Zygote (2n)
single to few-celled haploid gametophyte
Syn
(d) All of the above ga m I
y
182 Haplo-diplontic life cycle is followed by Meiosis
(a) bryophytes and pteridophytes Gametogenesis
(b) algae and bryophytes II
C Spores
(c) angiosperms and gymnosperms (n )
(d) bryophytes and gymnosperms
183 Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus, respectively Gametophyte
are NEET 2017 (n)
(a) haplontic, diplontic (a) A–Haplontic, B–Diplontic, C–Haplo-diplontic
(b) diplontic, haplo-diplontic (b) A–Diplontic, B–Haplontic, C–Haplo-diplontic
(c) haplo-diplontic, diplontic (c) A–Haplo-diplontic, B–Diplontic, C–Haplontic
(d) haplo-diplontic, haplontic (d) A–Diplontic, B–Haplo-diplontic, C–Haplontic
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 192 Assertion (A) Production of two types of spores is a
Direction (Q. No. 185-194) In each of the following pre-requisite of seed habit. AIIMS 2019
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Reason (R) In pteridophytes, Lycopodium is precursor
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). of seed habit.
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
193 Assertion (A) Heterospory and retention of female
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct gametophyte are responsible for origin of seed habit in
explanation of A.
Selaginella. AIIMS 2019
explanation of A. Reason (R) Psilotum is a living fossil.
(c) If A is true, but R is false. 194 Assertion (A) Fertilisation in Cycas is called
(d) If A is false, but R is true. zooidogamy.
185 Assertion (A) Artificial system of classification
Reason (R) Fertilisation in Cycas takes place by the
separated closely related species. formation of pollen tube.
Reason (R) Artificial system gave equal weightage
to vegetative and sexual characteristics.
II. Statement Type Questions
195 Identify the correct statement for artificial system of
186 Assertion (A) Algae are the primary producers of
many food cycles. classification.
(a) Artificial system was based on natural affinities present
Reason (R) Half of the total carbon among the organisms
dioxide-fixation on earth is carried out by algae. (b) It was proposed by Engler and Prantl
187 Assertion (A) Red algae contributes in (c) The artificial system gave equal weightage to the
development of coral reefs. vegetative and sexual characteristics
Reason (R) Red algae secrete and deposit calcium (d) It considers both the external features and internal features
like anatomy, embryology, etc.
carbonate over their walls.
196 Read carefully the given statements about algae and
188 Assertion (A) Bryophytes are the amphibians of
identify the incorrect option.
plant kingdom.
(a) The plant body is simple and thalloid
Reason (R) They are found in swamps and the (b) Mainly aquatic, i.e. both freshwater and marine
areas, where water and land meet. (c) Reproduction may be vegetative, asexual and sexual
189 Assertion (A) Bryophytes are a class of (d) Volvox and Ulothrix are the colonial form of algae
kingdom–Plantae. 197 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Reason (R) Algae, fungi, lichens and mosses are NEET 2016
included in bryophytes. (a) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the
190 Assertion (A) The life cycle of Funaria is called immediate environment
diplo-haplontic. (b) Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenan from
brown algae
Reason (R) In Funaria, there is alternation of (c) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
haploid gametophytic and diploid sporophytic (d) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
phases, one becoming parent of the other.
191 Assertion (A) Lycopodium and Selaginella are CBSE-AIPMT 2015
heterosporous. (a) Algin and carrageenan are products of algae
Reason (R) In heterosporous condition, two kinds (b) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
of spores are produced by the plant. (c) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
(d) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
199 Which of the statements given below are correct 205 Which one of the following is a correct statement?
about green algae? NEET 2013
(a) Green algae are green due to the presence of (a) Pteridophyte’s gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy
chlorophyll-a and b pigments localised in chloroplast stage
(b) Algae store food in the form of starch in a specialised (b) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living
structure called pyrenoids located in chloroplast. Food (c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in
may be stored in the form of oil droplets pteridophytes
(c) Vegetative reproduction occurs through cell division, (d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
fragmentation, stolons and tubers 206 Which of the statements given below are incorrect
(d) All of the above about pteridophytes?
200 Identify the statement that correctly explains why (a) They are called vascular cryptogams
rhodophytes exhibit a red colour. (b) They produce seeds rather than spores
(a) Most rhodophytes grow at great depths, chlorophyll can (c) They are used for medicinal purposes
only absorb light specifically in the red area of the (d) They are used as soil binders
spectrum 207 Identify the incorrect statement with regards to the
(b) The wavelengths of light that are absorbed by gymnosperms.
chlorophyll are passed to phycoerythrin (a red pigment) (a) In gymnosperms, ovules remain exposed, before and
present in algae after fertilisation
(c) Phycoerythrin absorbs all the light waves (b) The giant redwood tree Sequoia is tallest
(d) Light reaching the greatest depth in water is in the blue- gymnospermic tree
green region of the spectrum, which is absorbed by (c) The gymnosperms are homosporous
phycoerythrin (d) Leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand
extreme environmental conditions
201 Which of the statements given below are correct
about brown algae? 208 Select the correct statement. NEET 2016
(a) The largest kelps are Nereocystis and Macrocystis (a) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(b) Brown algae have gelatinous coating outside the (b) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
cellulosic cell wall called algin (c) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well-adapted to
(c) Food obtained from Laminaria saccharina is known as extremes of climate
‘kombu’ (d) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
(d) All of the above 209 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
202 Which of the following statements about bryophytes NEET 2018
are incorrect? (a) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(a) The sperms are biflagellate (b) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is
homosporous
(b) The sperms are released into water and fuse with the
(c) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms
egg to produce the zygote outside the body
(d) Stems are usually unbrancned in both Cycas and Cedrus
(c) Zygotes undergo reduction division immediately
(d) Both (b) and (c) 210 Read the following statements (I-IV) and answer the
203 Which of the statements is incorrect about question, which follows them.
Marchantia? I. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are
(a) Plant body is a thallus-like structure, closely attached to
free-living.
substrate II. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
(b) Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is
(c) Gemma cup located on the thalli oogamous.
(d) None of the above IV. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than
that in mosses.
204 Which of the statements given below are correct
How many of the above statements are correct?
about protonema?
NEET 2013
(a) Juvenile stage of moss is protonema
(a) One
(b) It consists of slender, green, branching system of
filaments (b) Two
(c) Develops directly from a spore (c) Three
(d) All of the above (d) Four
211 Consider the following statements. III. The common members are Polysiphonia, Porphyra,
I. Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from Gracilaria and Gelidium.
Gelidium and Gracilaria is used to grow microbes and The above characteristics belong to which class of
in preparations of ice-creams and jellies. algae?
II. Chlorella and Chlamydomonas are used in sewage (a) Chlorophyceae (b) Phaeophyceae
disposal ponds. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Rhodophyceae
III. Some species of marine algae like Porphyra, 216 Choose the correct statements for the sporophyte of
Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food. bryophytes.
IV. Volvox forms spherical colonies made of non-motile I. Sporophyte is multicellular, not free-living, but
cells. attached to the gametophyte for nourishment.
Which of the statements given above are correct? II. Some cells of the sporophyte undergo meiosis to
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III produce haploid spores.
212 Consider the following statements regarding III. These spores germinate to produce gametophyte.
reproduction in class–Chlorophyceae. (a) I and II (b) I and III
I. Asexual reproduction is mainly by flagellated (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
zoospores produced in zoosporangia. 217 Consider the following statements.
II. The sexual reproduction shows considerable variation I. The liverworts grow usually in moist, shady habitats
in the type and formation of sex cells and it may be such as banks of streams, marshy ground, damp soil,
isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous. bark of trees and deep in the woods.
Choose the correct option. II. The leafy members of liverworts have tiny leaf-like
(a) I is true, but II is false (b) I is false, but II is true appendages in two rows on the stem-like structures.
(c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false Choose the correct option.
213 Consider the following statements about sexual (a) I is true, but II is false (b) I is false, but II is true
reproduction in brown algae. (c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
I. Sexual reproduction may be oogamous, isogamous or 218 Choose the correct statements about liverworts.
anisogamous. I. In liverworts, sexual reproduction occurs by the fusion
II. Union of gametes takes place in water or within the of antherozoids and egg, which are produced in
oogonium. antheridium and archegonium, respectively.
III. The gametes are pear-shaped and bear two laterally II. Both male and female sex organs may be present on
attached flagella. same thallus or different thalli.
Which of the statements given above are correct? III. Zygote gives rise to sporophyte, which is
(a) I and II (b) I and III differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III IV. Some cells of capsule undergo meiosis and give rise to
214 Consider the following statements. haploid spores.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
I. In red algae, vegetative reproduction takes place by
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
fragmentation.
II. In red algae, the food is stored as floridean starch, 219 In mosses, the second gametophytic stage is leafy
which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in stage. Consider the following statements about leafy
structure. stage.
III. Cell wall of red algae consists of chitin. I. Leafy stage is produced from the secondary protonema
as a lateral bud.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) All of these II. They consist of upright, slender axis bearing spirally
arranged leaves.
215 Consider the following statements. III. They are attached to the soil through multicellular
I. They reproduce asexually by non-motile spores and rhizoids.
sexually by non-motile gametes. IV. This leafy stage bears the sex organ.
II. In this class, sexual reproduction is oogamous and
accompanied by complex post-fertilisation
developments. (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
220 Read the following five statements (I-V) and select 224 Consider the following statements regarding
the option with all correct statements. heterospory.
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 I. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia, which produce
I. Mosses and lichens are the first organisms to colonise a two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small)
bare rock. spores, are known as heterosporous.
II. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte. II. The megaspores and microspores germinate and give
III. Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM. rise to female and male gametophyte, respectively.
IV. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, III. The female gametophytes in these plants are retained
whereas in pteridophytes, it is sporophytic. on the parent sporophytes for variable periods.
V. In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are IV. The development of the zygotes into young embryos
present within sporangia located on sporophyte. takes place within the female gametophytes.
(a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV V. This event is a precursor to the seed habit and is
(c) I, IV and V (d) II, III and V considered an important step in evolution.
221 Read the following statements carefully. Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Funaria possesses unicellular and unbranched (a) I, II and III (b) II, IV and V
rhizoids. (c) III, IV and V (d) I, II, III, IV and V
II. Gemmae are asexual buds, which originate from small 225 Consider the following statements regarding
receptacles called gemma cups. gymnosperms and choose the correct statements.
III. The Sphagnum plants have magnificant property of I. In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes
retaining water. have an independent existence.
Which of the statements given above are correct? II. The multicellular female gametophyte is retained
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III within the megasporangium.
(c) II and III (d) I and II III. The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
222 Consider the following statements. Of these statements
I. The plants have magnificant property of retaining (a) I and II are true, but III is false
water. They can withhold water two hundred times (b) I and III are true, but II is false
more than their own weight. Hence, they are widely (c) II and III are false, but I is true
used by gardeners to keep cut plant parts moist during (d) II and III are true, but I is false
transportation and propagation. 226 Angiospermic plants are characterised by
II. They grow as semiaquatic or submerged plants in I. Double fertilisation
acidic marshes. The older portions of plants die, but do
II. Triploid endosperm
not decay due to peculiar germicidal properties.
III. Diploid endosperm
The above statements belong to which of the
following bryophytic plant? Choose the correct option from the following
(a) Pogonatum (b) Funaria regarding above statements.
(c) Sphagnum (d) Marchantia (a) I and II are correct
(b) I and III are correct
223 Consider the following statements about bryophytes. (c) II and III are correct
I. The tea prepared from Polytrichum commune is used (d) I, II and III are correct
to dissolve kidney and gall bladder stones.
227 Consider the following statements about the
II. Many chemical products such as alcohol, ammonium
gametophytic stage.
sulphate, paraffin, brown dye, etc., can be obtained
from peat. I. Generation that produces the gametes.
II. Generation that produces the spores.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I is true, but II is false III. Generation that produces vascular tissue.
(b) I is false, but, II is true IV. The diploid generation.
(c) Both I and II are true Choose the correct statements given above.
(d) Both I and II are false (a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
III. Matching Type Questions 232 Match the following columns.

228 Match the following columns. Column I Column II
(Types of chloroplast) (Algae)
Column I Column II A. Cup-shaped 1. Ulothrix
(Classification system) (Given by)
B. Girdle-shaped 2. Oedogonium
A. Natural system of classification 1. Bentham and Hooker
C. Stellate 3. Chlamydomonas
B. Artificial system of classification 2. Linnaeus
D. Reticulate 4. Zygnema
C. Phylogenetic system of 3. Englar and Prantl
classification Codes
A B C D A B C D
Codes
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 1 4 2
A B C A B C
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 1 2 3 233 Match the following columns about classification of
229 Match the following columns. Pteridophyta.
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
(Pteridophyte class) (Examples)
(Algae) (Body structure)
A. Ulothrix 1. Kelp A. Psilopsida 1. Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum
B. Volvox 2. Filamentous B. Lycopsida 2. Equisetum

C. Chlamydomonas 3. Colonial form C. Sphenopsida 3. Selaginella
D. Some giant marine forms 4. Unicellular D. Pteropsida 4. Psilotum
Codes Codes
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 2 4
230 Match the following columns. 234 Match the following columns.
(Reproduction type) (Characteristics) (Products) (Gymnosperm)
A. Isogamous 1. Fusion between male (small) and A. Sagopalm 1. Ephedra
female gamete (large)
B. Chilgoza 2. Pinus gerardiana
B. Anisogamous 2. Both gametes are dissimilar in size
C. Ephedrine drug 3. Cycas revoluta
C. Oogamous 3. Both gametes are similar in size and
non-motile D. Cedar wood oil 4. Juniperus virginiana
Codes Codes
A B C A B C A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
(Products) (Algae) (Plant group) (Examples)
A. Algin 1. Chlorella A. Red algae 1. Marchantia
B. Carrageenan 2. Gracilaria B. Liverwort 2. Pinus
C. Agar 3. Red algae C. Walking fern 3. Polysiphonia
D. Protein supplement 4. Brown algae D. Gymnosperm 4. Adiantum
Codes Codes
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
(Plant life cycle) (Plant groups)
A. Polar nuclei + male gamete 1. Double fertilisation
A. Haplontic life cycle 1. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
B. Ovule 2. Fruits
B. Diplontic life cycle 2. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
C. Ovary 3. Seed C. Haplo-diplontic life 3. Volvox, Spirogyra and
cycle Chlamydomonas
D. Syngamy + triple fusion 4. Endosperm
Codes
Codes
A B C A B C
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 (b) 1 2 3
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 1 2

NCERT 242 The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of
238 The group of plants that bear archegonia is /are (a) 8 cells (b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
(a) mosses (b) liverworts (c) 8 nuclei (d) 7 cells and 7 nuclei
(c) pteridophytes (d) All of these 243 If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What
239 Match the following columns and choose the correct would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
option. (a) 36 (b) 18 (c) 54 (d) 72
Column I Column II
244 Fusion of two motile gametes, which are dissimilar in
(Plants) (Categories) size is termed as
A. Chlamydomonas 1. Moss (a) oogamy (b) isogamy (c) anisogamy (d) zoogamy
B. Cycas 2. Pteridophyte 245 Identify the correct statements from those given
C. Selaginella 3. Algae
below.
I. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than
D. Sphagnum 4. Gymnosperm
that in mosses.
Codes II. Life cycle of all seed bearing plants is diplontic.
A B C D A B C D III. Life cycle of any sexually reproducing plant has
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1 alternation of generations between haplontic, diplontic
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 or intermediate.
IV. In angiosperms, male sex organ (stamen) and female
NCERT Exemplar sex organ (pistil) are borne in a flower.
(a) I and II (b) II, III and IV
240 Holdfast, stipe and frond constitute the plant body in
(c) I, III and IV (d) All are correct
case of
(a) Rhodophyceae (b) Chlorophyceae 246 A prothallus is
(c) Phaeophyceae (d) All of these (a) a structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus
develops
241 Plant shows thallus level of organisation. It shows (b) a sporophytic free-living structure formed in
rhizoids and is haploid. It needs water to complete its pteridophytes
life cycle because the male gametes are motile. (c) a gametophytic free-living structure formed in
Identify the group to which it belongs. pteridophytes
(a) Pteridophyta (b) Gymnospermae (d) a primitive structure formed after fertilisation in
(c) Monocotyledonae (d) Bryophyta pteridophytes
247 Plants of this group are diploid and well-adapted to 248 Protonema is
extreme conditions. They grow bearing sporophylls in (a) haploid and is found in mosses
compact structures called cones. The group in (b) diploid and is found in liverworts
reference is (c) diploid and is found in pteridophytes
(a) monocots (d) haploid and is found in pteridophytes
(b) dicots 249 The giant redwood tree (Sequoia sempervirens) is a/an
(c) pteridophytes (a) angiosperm (b) free fern
(d) gymnosperms (c) pteridophyte (d) gymnosperm
Answers
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (a) 47 (c) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (d)
51 (a) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (d) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (c)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (b) 65 (d) 66 (d) 67 (b) 68 (d) 69 (b) 70 (d)
71 (c) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (b) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (a) 79 (a) 80 (a)
81 (b) 82 (a) 83 (b) 84 (d) 85 (b) 86 (d) 87 (c) 88 (a) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (c) 92 (a) 93 (b) 94 (b) 95 (d) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (a)
101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (b) 104 (b) 105 (c) 106 (a) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (a) 110 (b)
111 (d) 112 (b) 113 (a) 114 (b) 115 (b) 116 (b) 117 (d) 118 (a) 119 (b) 120 (b)
121 (d) 122 (b) 123 (c) 124 (b) 125 (c) 126 (b) 127 (d) 128 (b) 129 (d) 130 (d)
131 (c) 132 (c) 133 (a) 134 (c) 135 (d) 136 (a) 137 (b) 138 (a) 139 (b) 140 (a)
141 (b) 142 (c) 143 (b) 144 (b) 145 (b) 146 (a) 147 (b) 148 (b) 149 (d) 150 (c)
151 (c) 152 (b) 153 (a) 154 (b) 155 (d) 156 (c) 157 (c) 158 (a) 159 (b) 160 (c)
161 (d) 162 (b) 163 (b) 164 (d) 165 (b) 166 (a) 167 (d) 168 (c) 169 (d) 170 (a)
171 (c) 172 (b) 173 (c) 174 (c) 175 (c) 176 (d) 177 (c) 178 (a) 179 (b) 180 (c)
181 (d) 182 (a) 183 (c) 184 (a)
NEET Special Types Questions

185 (a) 186 (b) 187 (a) 188 (a) 189 (c) 190 (a) 191 (d) 192 (c) 193 (b) 194 (b)
195 (c) 196 (d) 197 (b) 198 (d) 199 (d) 200 (b) 201 (d) 202 (d) 203 (d) 204 (d)
205 (d) 206 (b) 207 (c) 208 (b) 209 (c) 210 (c) 211 (d) 212 (c) 213 (d) 214 (a)
215 (d) 216 (d) 217 (c) 218 (d) 219 (d) 220 (c) 221 (c) 222 (c) 223 (c) 224 (d)
225 (d) 226 (a) 227 (a) 228 (d) 229 (d) 230 (a) 231 (c) 232 (b) 233 (a) 234 (b)
235 (d) 236 (b) 237 (d)
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
238 (d) 239 (b) 240 (c) 241 (d) 242 (b) 243 (c) 244 (c) 245 (b) 246 (c) 247 (d)
248 (a) 249 (d)

2 (c) Carolus Linnaeus proposed the artificial system of 6 (b) Phylogenetic system of classification is also known as
classification. It was based on assessment of only gross Hutchinson’s system of classification. John Hutchinson was
superficial morphological characters like habit, colour, a botanist in Kew Botanical Garden. He gave more detailed
shape, etc., and vegetative characters. phylogenetic system of classification after Engler and
5 (a) Phylogenetic system of classification was given by Prantl, thus this system of classification is also known
Engler and Prantl for the first time. It was based on Hutchinson’s system of classification (1926-1934).
evolutionary and genetic relationships of organisms.
9 (b) Numerical taxonomy, is based on all observable 20% carbohydrate, 5% fibres and 10% minerals and
characteristics of an organism. Number and codes are vitamins.
assigned to all the characters and then the data is 25 (c) Chlorella is used for purifying air in space ships. It is
processed using computers. also used as food supplements by space travellers.
In this way, each character is given equal importance 26 (b) Spirulina (a blue-green alga) is a rich source of
and at the same time hundreds of characters can be protein, many vitamins, especially B-complex and
considered together. minerals. Hence, doctors often advise the patients to take
10 (c) Algae are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid and Spirulina in their diet for recovery.
autotrophic organism. Their body is thalloid, i.e. it is 27 (c) The members of class–Chlorophyceae are commonly
not differentiated into root, stems or leaves. Algae are called green algae due to the dominance of chlorophyll
photoautotrophic, i.e. perform autotrophic mode of pigment localised in chloroplast in their cells which
nutrition by performing photosynthesis due to the gives them greenish appearance.
presence of chlorophyll in their chloroplast.
29 (d) In class–Chlorophyceae, the cells possess one or
11 (d) Option (d) is correct. Algae are predominantly more chloroplasts. The shape of chloroplasts may be
aquatic and occur in both marine as well as freshwater Cup-shaped — Chlamydomonas
habitats. Some are terrestrial and grow in moist places
Spiral — Spirogyra
like moist stones, soils and wood. Some of them also
occur in association with fungi (lichen) and animals Reticulate — Chlamydomonas reticulata
(e.g. on sloth bear). Disc-shaped — Chara
12 (b) Volvox is a freshwater, green, hollow ball-like 30 (c) The chloroplast of Ulothrix is girdle-shaped,
colonial alga. Its colony has a fixed number of cells containing one or more pyrenoids. Ulothrix is a
(500-60,000) and is called coenobium. freshwater alga growing on substratum like rocks, sand,
14 (c) In algae, vegetative reproduction mainly takes place
etc.
by fragmentation where the parent body breaks into 32 (c) Most of the members of Chlorophyceae have one to
multiple, small-sized fragments. Each of these many storage bodies called pyrenoids located in the
fragments then grows and develops into new chloroplasts. Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch.
organisms. Algae also perform asexual and sexual 33 (c) Pyrenoids are proteinaceous bodies present within
modes of reproduction. Asexually algae reproduce by the chloroplast. These mainly synthesise and store
means of motile or non-motile spores. Sexual starch. In members of Chlorophyceae, pyrenoid has a
reproduction occurs through fusion of two gametes. central protein and a surrounding starch sheath.
15 (c) Algae produce different types of spores, the most 34 (c) The members of class–Chlorophyceae usually have a
common being the zoospores. These are motile, two layered rigid cell wall made up of cellulose and
flagellated and give rise to new plants on germination. pectose. Inner layer of cell wall is made up of cellulose,
17 (b) Anisogamous means fusion of two morphologically while outer layer is made up of pectose.
dissimilar gametes, which may be motile or non-motile, 36 (d) Isogamy with non-flagellated gametes is seen in
e.g. in Eudorina. Spirogyra. It can reproduce both by sexual and asexual
18 (c) Oogamous means fusion of a large non-motile (vegetative) means.
(static) female gamete or ovum with a smaller motile 37 (a) Eyespot is seen in Chlamydomonas. It is a
gamete (except in Rhodophyceae), e.g. in microscopic, eukaryotic, unicellular, pyriform,
Chlamydomonas, Fucus, Chara and Volvox. biflagellate alga. The alga possesses a cup-shaped
19 (b) The correct option is (b). chloroplast with a red eyespot or stigma and a pyrenoid
for storing starch.
A– Volvox– Colonial algae with parent and daughter
colony. 38 (d) Zygotic meiosis is represented in the haplontic life
B– Ulothrix–Filamentous algae. cycle of many algae including Chlamydomonas. In such

a life cycle, all cells are haploid except zygote. This is
C– Laminaria–Brown algae having frond, stipe and because meiosis occurs in the zygote itself, resulting into
holdfast. four haploid cells that give rise to haploid plants.
20 (b) The correct option is (b). As A and B are Fucus and Other options like Fucus exhibit diplontic cycle, while
Polysiphonia, respectively. These are brown algae. C Marchantia and Funaria both exhibit haplo-diplontic
and D are Porphyra and Dictyota, respectively. These cycle.
are red algae.
39 (c) Plamella stage is present in Chlamydomonas, as a
22 (c) Agar is a jelly-like substance, commercially means of asexual reproduction. During adverse
obtained from algal species, like Gelidium and condition, parent Chlamydomonas forms a colony of
Gracilaria. Agar is used to grow microbes in vitro and hundreds and thousands of daughter cells in an
in the preparation of ice-creams and jellies. aggregate, which are immobile and non-flagellated. All
24 (b) Chlorella is a potential food source because it is cells of such palmella stage develop flagella and become
high in protein and other essential nutrients. When mobile and escape from the colonial aggregate when
dried, it contains about 45% protein, 20% fat, favourable conditions arise.
40 (b) Most of the members of brown algae are marine, 55 (b) Cephaleuros is a parasitic thalloid green alga. Its
except three–Pleurocladia, Heribaudiella and common name is red rust. This alga is parasitic on some
Bodanella, which are found in freshwater habitats. economic important plants of the tropics and subtropics,
41 (b) Brown algae show great variation in size and form. e.g. tea, guava, mango, coffee, etc. It damages the area
They range from simple branched, filamentous forms with algal growth on leaves, kills the new shoots and
(Ectocarpus) to profusely branched forms as disfigure fruit.
represented by kelps, which may reach a height of 56 (d) Option (d) is wrongly matched and this can be
100 metres. corrected as
43 (b) Brown algae vary in colour from olive green to Volvox is a freshwater green alga. It occurs in colonies or
various shades of brown depending upon the amount of coenobium (in definite number or group), surrounded by
the xanthophyll pigment, fucoxanthin present in them. a pellicle (gelatinous glycoprotein) layer. Each pyriform-
shaped cell has two long, similar and smooth flagella, i.e.
44 (c) In brown algae, food is stored as complex
flagellated.
carbohydrates, which may be in the form of laminarin
or mannitol. 58 (a) Bryophytes are the oldest (most primitive) plant type
in terms of evolution, these include liverworts and
45 (a) Types of pigments present in the cell impart distinct
mosses. The fossil records of these plants, so far been
colours to the algal body hence, it is the most important
found dated back to almost 500 million years ago.
character for classification of algae.
Among bryophytes liverworts appeared first and mosses
47 (c) Laminaria is an example of class–Phaeophyceae appeared later.
(brown algae). Their plant body is usually attached to
61 (b) Mosses grow in moist and humid places because
the substratum by a holdfast and has a stalk, the stipe
they require water for fertilisation. The antherozoids
and leaf-like photosynthetic organ, the frond. Other
(male gametes) are released into water where they swim
examples, i.e. Volvox, Chara and Chlamydomonas are
and reach the archegonium (female sex organ). An
green algae.
antherozoid then fuses with the egg to produce the
49 (b) A heterotrichous thallus is one which is zygote which later forms a multicellular body called
differentiated into a well-developed prostrate and an sporophyte.
upright (erect) regions. It is shown by Ectocarpus, a
62 (b) The plant body of bryophytes is multicellular,
filamentous marine brown alga.
thallus- like, prostate or erect and fixed to soil by
Unilocular sporangium unicellular or muticellular rhizoids. These rhizoids are
extensions of lower epidermal cells and are similar in
function like of root hairs in vascular plants.
Plurilocular 63 (d) True roots, stem and leaves having vascular supply
sporangium are absent in bryophytes, but root-like, non-vascular
rhizoids leaf-like and stem-like structures are present.
65 (d) Bryophytes show vegetative and sexual
reproductions. Vegetatively, they reproduce by
fragmentation of thallus and sexually by gametes.
66 (d) The life cycle of bryophytes consists of two distinct
Erect system
phases.
(i) The gametophytic phase (n)
(ii) The sporophytic phase (2n)
Prostate system
The haploid gametophyte is dominant, long lived green
and independent, whereas the diploid sporophyte is
short lived and dependent upon the gametophyte.

Rhizoid 68 (d) The only positive evidence for aquatic ancestry of
Ectocarpus bryophyte is ciliated sperms. Each sperm usually
consists of minute, slender, spirally curved body
52 (a) Phycoerythrin is present in Polysiphonia (red algae), furnished with two long, terminal whiplash type
which is the characteristic red colour pigment present in flagella.
them. Laminaria is brown algae, kelps and
69 (b) Option (b) is incorrect and can be corrected as
Chlamydomonas are green algae.
Antheridium is multicellular male sex organ in
54 (c) Option (c) is wrongly matched. This can be bryophytes. It produces biflagellated male gametes, i.e.
corrected as antherozoids.
Polysiphonia is a red algae. There gametes are
70 (d) The older dead parts of Sphagnum are slowly
non-motile, i.e. without flagella.
carbonised, compressed and fossilised over thousands of
Rest of the options are correct. years to produce a dark spongy moss called peat.
71 (c) Sphagnum, a moss, provides peat that has been long which originate from small receptacles called gemma
used as fuel. It is also used as packing material for trans cups located on the thalli.
shipment of living material, because of its capacity to 82 (a) The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is
hold water. the gametophyte, which consists of two stages. The first
72 (d) Bryophytes show considerable economic stage is (A) protonema stage, which develops directly
importance. They colonise barren rocks along with from a spore. The second stage is (B) leafy stage, which
lichens and decompose rocks (ecological succession). develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud.
When they grow on rocks, they help in soil formation. 83 (b) The protonema is a stage in the life cycle of
Some bryophytes also work as soil binders when they Funaria. Protonema is the creeping green branched and
grow in aggregations forming dense mats on the soil. frequently filamentous juvenile stage of moss. It results
This reduces the impact of rainfail thus, preventing soil from the germination of spores. Other options like
erosion. Pinus is a gymnosperm and all bryophytes do not show
73 (a) Mosses prevent soil erosion. Mosses are protonema. This stage is only found in mosses. Thus,
ecologically important as they serve as significant soil Riccia (liverwort) does not have protonema stage.
cover and prevent soil erosion by binding soil with their 84 (d) Primary protonema is formed by spore germination
tiny rhizoids. Their carpet like growth particularly in whereas secondary protonema is formed by other
slopy areas also facilitate easier percolation of water. vegetative part of plant like leaf, stem, rhizoids rather
74 (b) In the given figure, the labels are as follows than spores. The secondary protonema is developed into
A–Capsule–It is a pear-shaped structure situated at the the leafy gametophytes as the part of vegetative
top of seta. Its function is production and dispersal of reproduction in mosses.
spores. 85 (b) The main plant body of Funaria is gametophyte
B–Seta–It is a long slender stalk-like structure bearing which is haploid. The leafy stage and protonema stage
capsule at top. are the part of gametophytic plant body, therefore will
C–Sporophyte–It is the plant body bearing spores have same ploidy. Thus, if the leaf of Funaria has
producing structure. 5 chromosomes, the primary protonema will also have 5
chromosomes.
D–Gametophyte–It is the plant body on which male and
female gametes producing structures are borne. 87 (c) Rhizoids are meant for the purpose of attachment or
anchorage to the substratum in mosses. On the lower
76 (b) The given figure is of Marchantia (thallus). portion of leafy gametophore of moss, numerous
The correct labels are as follows branched multicellular rhizoids with oblique septa are
A–Archegoniophore–A stalk-like structure on which present.
archegonium are borne. 89 (c) In moss, the sporophyte is differentiated into foot,
B–Antheridiophore–A stalk-like structure seta and capsule. Capsule bears spores, which give rise
(gametophore) that bears antheridia. to gametophyte after meiosis, e.g. Funaria, Polytrichum
C–Gemma cup–These are special vegetative, small cup and Sphagnum.
shaped structures borne along the midrib on the dorsal 90 (c) In bryophytes, the sex organs (gametangia) are
surface of gametophyte of some bryophytes. multicellular and jacketed. The jacket constituted by
77 (d) The given plant body with antheridia, rhizoids and sterile cells around the sex cells (i.e. sperm and an egg)
stalk-like sporophyte shows that it is a bryophyte. In a is an adaptation towards the life on land.
bryophyte, sporophyte is diploid (2n) formed from 92 (a) In mosses, the sporophyte developing from the
zygote. Antheridium is male sex organ which is haploid embryo is a simple structure without rhizoids and is
(n). It produces haploid male gametes. Rhizoids are differentiated into foot, seta and capsule. It is parasitic
haploid as they are the part of main plant body which is (partially or wholly) on the gametophyte as it is
haploid in bryophytes.
attached and is nutritionally dependent upon the

78 (a) Liverworts constitute lower bryophytes. Bryophytes gametophyte.
include liverworts and mosses. Out of these two 93 (b) In mosses, the haploid gametophyte is dominant,
liverworts are very small plants. The body is thallus-like long lived, green and independent, whereas the diploid
dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substratum. sporophyte is short lived and attached to the
Whereas, mosses are also small plants, but are have gametophyte as it is dependent on it for nutrition.
creeping and branched.
94 (b) Buxbaumia aphylla is a saprophytic bryophyte as it
Thus, liverworts are called lower bryophytes not
does not produce abundant chlorophyll for
mosses.
photosynthesis. Its nutritional needs are met by fungi
79 (a) Marchantia is a liverwort with dorsiventral lobed that grow within the plant.
thallus-like plant body. Rest options are mosses.
96 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as
80 (a) Liverworts reproduce asexually by the formation of Bryophytes are autotrophic, but their sporophyte is
specialised structure called gemmae or through dependent on gametophyte.
fragmentation of thalli. Gemmae are asexual buds,
97 (d) All the statements are true. Bryophyta is a group of 114 (b) Heterospory is the production of two kinds of
embryo producing plants, which do not bear fruits, seeds spores, large (mega) and small (micro) spores in some
and any vascular tissue. Plant body is thalloid and green pteridophytes.
(due to the presence of chloroplast). Male sex organ is 116 (b) From the evolutionary point of view, pteridophytes
antheridium and female sex organ is archegonium. were the first to show the retention of female
98 (c) Cells of sporophyte undergo meiosis to produce gametophyte with young embryo on the parent
haploid cells called spores. As these spores are haploid sporophyte for some time. It also represents the origin
in nature, it means each spore further divides to develop of seed habit during the course of evolution of seed
into the multicellular haploid generation of a plant. plants.
Thus, the number of chromosomes in leaf as well as in 119 (b) The given figure is of Equisetum. Its correct labels
the spore will be same, i.e. n = 20. are as follows
100 (a) Pteridophytes mostly occur in cool, damp and shady A–Strobilus–Reproductive structure bearing many
places. Pteridophytes are fundamentally terrestrial sporophylls.
plants, but they are dependent on an external source of B–Node–The place on which branches arises.
water for completion of their life cycle.
C-–Branch
101 (b) Pteridophytes are considered as first terrestrial plants
121 (d) Ferns exhibit alternation of dominant sporophyte
to possess vascular tissues, xylem and phloem. All their
vegetative parts possess vascular tissues (i.e. xylem and generation with an inconspicuous gametophyte
phloem) organised in definite groups. generation (heteromorphic).
102 (b) Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams 122 (b) Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams. They
because among cryptogams, (i.e. the non-seed bearing generally produce spores, but do not produce seeds or
plants) the vascular strands are present only in flowers.
pteridophytes. 123 (c) Adiantum is called walking fern. The name is
103 (b) Dominant phase in ferns is sporophyte ( 2n ), which is derived from the fact that new plantlets grow wherever
the arching leaves of the parent plant body touch the
differentiated into root, stem and leaf. ground, creating a walking effect.
104 (b) In pteridophytes, the sporophyte consists of leaf-like 124 (b) Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not
appendages called sporophylls. Sporophylls in cluster enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed. Thus,
forms a distinct compact structure called strobili or the seeds that develop post-fertilisation are not covered
cones, e.g. Selaginella and Equisetum. or are naked. This is a characteristic feature of
105 (c) The leaves in pteridophytes are small (microphylls) gymnospermic plants.
as in Selaginella or large (macrophylls) as in ferns. 125 (c) Conifers are gymnosperms. Their leaves show
107 (c) In several primitive simple plants–like algae, xerophytic adaptations. The leaves are like needle with
bryophytes and pteridophytes, water is the medium thick-walled, single-layered epidermal cells covered
through which male gametes are transferred to the with thick cuticle. This enables them to tolerate extreme
female reproductive organ or gamete to bring about climatic conditions.
fertilisation. 127 (d) In Pinus (Gymnosperms), the gametophyte does
108 (a) In pteridophytes (ferns), the haploid spores not have an independent free-living existence. They
germinate to form an inconspicuous, small but remain within the sporangia retained on the
multicellular, free-living and mostly photosynthetic sporophytes.
prothallus. It is monoecious, i.e. bears both the 128 (b) Coralloid roots are developed in Cycas. It contains
antheridia or male sex organ ( O ) and archegonia or an algal zone in the cortex region of roots. This algal
female sex organ (O+ ) . zone contains N2 - fixing cyanobacteria like Nostoc,
110 (b) Prothallus of the fern produces gametes. In ferns, Anabaena, which grow in symbiotic association with
spores germinate to give rise to thalloid gametophyte the coralloid roots.
called prothallus. These gametophytes bear sex organs 129 (d) The stems are unbranched in Cycas. In Cycas,
which produce gametes. Therefore, prothallus produces leaves are reduced and pinnate, the male or female
gametes. cones or strobili are borne on different trees. In Cycas,
111 (d) Lycopodium, Equisetum, Psilotum are homosporous. the archegonia are embedded in the female
Those plants which produce only one kind of spores are gametophytes and open into the archegonial chamber.
called homosporous. 130 (d) The leaves of gymnosperms are well-adapted to
112 (b)The spores are homosporous and germinate to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.
produce independent cushion-like monoecious Their xeric adaptations include a thick cuticle,
gametophyte. sclerified epidermal cells, needle-like leaves, sunken
113 (a) Salvinia and Selaginella are example of stomata, a sclerotic hypodermis, tightly packed
heterosporous plants that produce two kinds of spores, mesophyll, an endodermis, few or no lateral veins and
i.e. a macrospore and microspore. centrally located vascular tissue.
131 (c) Cycads are heterosporous and dioecious. Dioecious Wood of Taxus is heaviest amongst softwood and is
plants are unisexual, having male and female used in making bows of archery. Resins are obtained
reproductive organs on different individuals (plants). from many species of Pinus. Essential oils are obtained
from Cedrus, Tsugo, Juniperus, Dicea, etc.
132 (c) Zooidogamy is found in Cycas. It is a type of plant
reproduction in which male gametes called 150 (c) Division/Phylum–Angiospermae is sometimes called
antherozoids, reach the female gametes called division–Anthophyta (Anthe–flower; phyto–plant)
archegonium, by swimming in a path of water. It is also because the common name for this group is the
found in algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes and some ‘flowering plants’.
gymnosperms. 153 (a) Angiosperm seeds are enclosed by fruits whereas
133 (a) Among the given options, option (a) is mismatched. gymnosperms have naked seeds. Thus, angiosperms
Pinus is a monoecious plant as it bears male and female differ from gymnosperms in having fruits.
cones on the same plant. 154 (b) The smallest flowering plant in the plant kingdom is
134 (c) In Pinus, each male cone consists of an elongated aquatic plant called Wolffia. It is commonly known as
axis, bearing a number of spirally arranged watermeal or duckweed.
microsporophylls. On the underside of which two 155 (d) The tallest tree species among the given is
microsporangia develop and get filled with microspores Eucalyptus, which is approximately 100 metres high.
(pollen grains).
156 (c) Angiosperms are divided into two classes
135 (d) Microsporangia are produced at the extreme tip of Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons based on the number
microsporophyll. Microsporangia is a sporangium that of cotyledons in their seeds. Dicotyledons have two
produces spores that give rise to male gametophyte. cotyledons in their seed and monocotyledons have one.
136 (a) In gymnosperms, microspores develop into a male 157 (c) In angiosperms, flower bears male and female sex
gametophytic generation, which is highly reduced and organs. Male sex organ is stamen. Anther produces
is confined to only a limited number of cell. This pollen grains. Female sex organ is carpel, also known as
reduced gametophyte is called a pollen grain. Its pistil/gynoecium.
development takes place in microsporangia.
160 (c) Embryo sac is the female gametophyte in the
139 (b) The cones bearing megasporophylls with ovules are angiosperms. It is 7-celled and 8-nucleate structure.
called female strobili or megasporangia or
161 (d) An ideal embryo sac contains 7-celled and 8-nuclei.
macrosporangiate.
3 cells are present at the micropylar end and form egg
140 (a) In gymnosperms, the nucellus is protected by apparatus, middle cell forms egg cell and rest two
envelops and this composite structure is called ovule. laterally occurring cells forms the synergids. One cell is
Each ovule is actually the female spore-producing present in the centre of embryo sac, known as central
organ surrounded by a protective envelope called cell and contains two nuclei. The rest three cells are
integuments. present at chalazal end and known as antipodal cells.
142 (c) In gymnosperms, megaspores develop into 163 (b) Option (b) is incorrect. This can be corrected as
multicellular structure called female gametophyte that Megaspore also called macrospores, are a type of spore
bears two or more archegonia or female sex organs. that is present in heterosporous plant. Megaspores are
144 (b) Option (b) is correct. Gymnosperms are haploid cells which produce female gametophyte after
heterosporous, i.e. they produce haploid microspores division.
and megaspores. The two kinds of spores are produced 165 (b) Pollen grains from anther after dispersal reach to the
within sporangia that are borne on sporophylls which stigma of ovary with the help of various agents like
are arranged spirally along an axis to form lax or wind, insects, etc. This process is known as pollination.
compact strobili or cones. Two types of sporophylls,
microsporophylls and megasporophylls are usually 166 (a) Pollen tube carries two male gametes and discharges
aggregated to form distinct cones or strobili, pollen them into the embryo sac. In angiosperms, pollen grain
cones (male cones) and seed cones (female cones), reaches to embryo sac through pollen tube after its
respectively. Thus, option (b) correctly represents the germination on stigma.
arrangement of reproductive structures in gymnosperm. 167 (d) As the anther in angiosperm grows each of its cell
145 (b) In gymnosperms, pollen grains are released from goes through meiotic divisions, forming a tetrad. These
microsporangium and carried with the help of air cells are called microspores. Each one of these
currents. It comes in contact with opening of ovule microspores eventually becomes a pollen grain.
borne on megasporophylls. 169 (d) Double fertilisation is the fusion of two male
146 (a) In gymnosperms, the dominant phase is sporophyte. gametes to two different cells of the same female
Gymnosperms are heterosporous plants that produce gametophyte. It consists of following two events
haploid megaspores and microspores. These spore (i) Syngamy Fusion of the egg nucleus with one male
bearing plants are called sporophytes. gamete is called syngamy.
149 (d) Sago is a kind of starch obtained from cortex and (ii) Triple fusion It is the fusion of second male gamete
pith of stem and seeds of Cycas. and secondary nucleus.
172 (b) Endosperm in angiosperms develops as a fusion 186 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not
product of secondary nucleus with male gamete. the correct explanation of Assertion.
Secondary nucleus is a diploid structure formed by the Algae are of paramount important as primary producers
fusion of haploid chalazal polar nucleus and haploid of energy rich compounds which form the basis of the
micropylar polar nucleus. Zygote is formed by the food cycles of all aquatic animals. Many species of
fusion of a male gamete with egg. Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are among the 70
173 (c) In the angiosperm ovule, central cell of the embryo species of marine algae used as food.
sac prior to the triple fusion, contains two haploid Algae also perform CO2 -fixation on earth through
polar nuclei. Triple fusion in angiosperm is the fusion photosynthesis. They increase the level of dissolved
of second sperm with two polar nuclei or the oxygen in their immediate environment.
secondary nucleus, which results in the formation of a 187 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
triploid primary endosperm nucleus. correct explanation of Assertion.
174 (c) After fertilisation, the ovules develops into seeds Coral reefs are formed by the accumulation of calcareous
while ovary develops into fruits. exoskeletons of coral animals, calcareous red algae and
177 (c) Lilium (angiosperm) possesses the male molluscs. In some species of red algae (coralline algae),
gametophyte with least number of cells. cell walls become hardened with calcium carbonate.
The number of cells in male gametophyte shows the These are important for coral reef formation.
pattern of reduction from bryophytes to angiosperms. 188 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
In angiosperms, it is reduced to about 2-3 celled and correct explanation of Assertion.
called as pollen grains. The number of cells in male Bryophytes are the dwellers of transitional habitat
gametophyte decreases in the following order between the aquatic and terrestrial habitats. It is
Funaria > Pteris > Pinus > Lilium represented by the swamps and the areas where water and
178 (a) In the alternation of generations, the sporophytic land meet. It is also called as amphibious zone where
generation is 2n (diploid) and the gametophytic mosses, liverworts and hornworts collectively called
generation is n (haploid). bryophytes are inhabiting. Since, bryophytes usually
grow in amphibious situation and cannot complete their
179 (b) In plants with haplontic life cycle, the dominant, life cycle without external water, are called the
photosynthetic phase is represented by the free-living amphibians of plant kingdom.
gametophyte while sporophyte generation is
represented by a single-celled zygote only. 189 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
180 (c) Option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as Bryophytes are a class of kingdom–Plantae. It includes
various mosses and liverworts, that are found in moist
Meiosis in the zygote results in the formation of shaded areas in hilly regions.
haploid spores.
Reason can be corrected as
182 (a) Haplo-diplontic life cycle is an intermediate Algae, fungi, lichens are not included in bryophytes.
condition followed by bryophytes and pteridophytes.
In this case, sporophytic as well as gametophytic 190 (a) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
phase are multicellular. correct explanation of Assertion.
184 (a) A–Haplontic–The dominant multicellular phase is In the life cycle of Funaria, two distinct phases occur.
gametophytic or haploid. One of these is represented by a haploid, independent,
leafy moss plant (gametophyte) which alternates with the
B–Diplontic–The dominant multicellular phase is other, represented by diploid, leafless sporogonium
diploid or sporophytic. (short-lived sporophyte), which is totally or partially
C–Haplo-diplontic–The gametophytic (multicellular) dependent on the leafy gametophyte for its nutrition.
and sporophytic (multicellular) both phases are
191 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can be
dominant.
corrected as
185 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is Lycopodium is homosporous pteridophyte, i.e. they
the correct explanation of Assertion. produce similar kind of spores, while Selaginella, Stylies,
Artificial system separated the closely related species Isoetes, Salvinia, Azolla, Pilularia, Regnellidium and
since they were based on a few characteristics like Marsilia are heterosporous pteridophytes, i.e. the spores
habit, colour, number and shape of leaves. They were produced by them one of two kinds macro (large) and
based mainly on vegetative characters or on the micro (small) spores.
androecium structure.
192 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
It gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual corrected as
characterstics of an organism. This is not acceptable
Production of two different types of spores is called
since we know that often the vegetative characters are
heterospory. It is an important pre-requisite of
more easily affected by environment.
evolutionary development in the vascular plants. It
ultimately leads to seed development. In pteridophytes, 202 (d) Statements in options (b) and (c) are incorrect
Selaginella plant (not Lycopodium) is the precursor of the with respect to bryophytes. These statements can be
seed habit, as it is well-marked in them. In Lycopodium, corrected as
homosporous spores are produced, i.e. all spores are of l
In bryophytes, each sperm usually consists of
similar kind. minute, slender, spirally curved body furnished
193 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not with two long, terminal whiplash type flagella.
the correct explanation of Assertion. The sperms are liberated from antheridia, swim in
Selaginella is a pteridophyte. In them two kinds of spores, a film of water and attracted towards the
macro (large) and micro (small) spores are produced. This archegonium.
phenomenon is called heterospory. The megaspores and l
They enter into the archegonia and fertilise the
microspores germinate and give rise to female and male egg and form zygote. Zygotes do not undergo
gametes, respectively. The female gametophytes in these reduction division immediately. They produce a
plants are retained on the parent sporophytes for variable
multicellular body called a sporophyte in which
periods. The development of the zygotes into young
meiosis occurs to form haploid spores.
embryos take place within the female gametophytes. This
event is a precursor to the seed habit and considered an Rest of the statements are correct.
important step in evolution. 205 (d) Statement in option (d) is correct. Other
Psilotum is a pteridophytic plant also known for having statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
primitive pteridophytic characters, so is known as living l
In mosses (bryophytes), protonema and leafy
fossil. stage is present.
194 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not l
In gymnosperms, gametophytes are not
the correct explanation of Assertion. free-living.
Cycas is a gymnospermic plant in which fertilisation l
Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are
process is called zooidogamy as male gemetes or sperms present in bryophytes.
swim through thin film of water to reach egg cell. 206 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
Fertilisation in Cycas may also take place by corrected as
siphonogamy, i.e. pollen tube is formed through which Pteridophytes are spore forming, non-seed bearing,
male nucleus passes. non-flowering vascular plants.
195 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Other options are Rest of the statements are correct.
incorrect and can be corrected as
207 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be
l
Artificial system of classification was given by corrected as
Linnaeus.
The gymnosperms are heterosporous, they produce
l
It was based on only gross superficial morphological haploid microspores and megaspores.
characters such as habit, colour, number and shape of Rest of the statements are correct.
leaves, etc.
208 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct. Sequoia is one
l
Natural system was based on natural affinities present
of the tallest tree species, known as red wood tree. It
among organisms also considering both external and is a gymnospermic plant.
internal features.
Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
196 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be Salvinia is an angiosperm, but Ginkgo and Pinus are
corrected as gymnosperms. Gymnosperms leaves are well-adapted
Ulothrix is a filamentous alga and Volvox is a colonial to extremes of climate and are heterosporous.
form.
209 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Other
statements are incorrect and can be corrected as

197 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be l
Horsetail is the common name of Equisetum.
corrected as l
Pteridophytes like Selaginella and Salvinia are
Algin is extracted from brown algae, e.g. Laminaria, etc., heterosporous and possess two types of spores, i.e.
is a hydrocolloid used in shaving creams, jellies, microspores and megaspores.
flameproof plastic, etc. Carrageenan is extracted from red
algae like Chondrus and used as emulsifier and clearing
l
Cycas has an unbranched columnar stem while
agent. Cedrus possess branched stem.
Rest of the statements are correct. 210 (c) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV
is incorrect and can be corrected as
198 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
corrected as The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than in
liverworts.
Mannitol is stored food in Phaeophyceae (not in
Rhodophyceae). The floridean starch is stored 211 (d) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV
carbohydrate of red algae. is incorrect and can be corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. Volvox is a colonial green alga with motile cells.
214 (a) Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is 240 (c) Option (c) is correct as
incorrect and can be corrected as In the members of class–Phaeophyceae, the plant body is
In red algae, the cell wall is made up of cellulose, usually attached to the substratum by a holdfast and has a
pectic compounds and certain mucopolysaccharides stalk called stipe and a leaf-like photosynthetic organ
called phycocolloids. called frond.
220 (c) Statements I, IV and V are correct. Other 241 (d) Bryophyta is a group of plants, which have
statements are incorrect and can be corrected as gametophytic haploid thalloid body. The motile male
l
Selaginella species are creeping or ascendant gametes are produced in special male reproductive
plants and produce heterospores (megaspores and structure called antheridia.
microspores). These gametes need thin film of water to move and reach
to the female reproductive organ called archegonia.
l
Coralloid roots are developed in Cycas. It
Whereas, pteridophytes, gymnosperm and monocots
develops as cluster at base of stem. It is
show division of labour and their body shows higher level
dichotomously branched and greenish-brown in of organisation.
colour. It contains Nostoc and Anabaena, which
grow in symbiotic association with coralloid root. 242 (b) The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of
7 cells and 8 nuclei. These 7 cells include two synergids,
221 (c) Statements II and III are correct. Statement I is three antipodal cells, one egg cell and one central cell.
incorrect and can be corrected as The 8 nuclei are of each mentioned cell except two polar
The rhizoids in Funaria arise from the basal region of nuclei of central cell.
the stem, which function as roots. These are
243 (c) Endosperm is a product of triple fusion. One male
multicellular and branched.
nucleus ( n =18 ) fuses with diploid secondary nucleus
225 (d) Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected as ( 2n = 36 ), so it becomes triploid structure ( 3n = 54 ). So,
In gymnosperms, the sporophytic phase is dominant ploidy of endosperm is ( 3n ) and chromosomes will be 54.
and the gametophytic phase is dependent on 245 (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct. Statement I is
sporophyte. incorrect and can be corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in
226 (a) Angiospermic plants are characterised by double liverworts.
fertilisation and triploid endosperm. This can be
explained as 246 (c) Prothallus is a gametophytic free-living structure in
the life of a pteridophytes. Spores of pteridophyte
In angiosperms, one male gamete fuses with ovum to germinates to give rise to a short-lived inconspicuous,
form diploid zygote and the second male gamete fuses small but multicellular, heart-shaped, free-living, mostly
with diploid secondary nucleus to form the triploid photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes called prothallus.
primary endosperm nucleus, which develops into
endosperm. This process is called double fertilisation. 247 (d) Gymnosperms include medium sized trees or tall trees
The endosperm provides nutrition to the developing and shrubs. Leaves of these plants are well-adapted to
embryo. withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.
Reproductive organs are usually in the form of cones or
227 (a) Statement I is correct. Gametophyte is gamete strobili.
bearing, haploid, multicelled stage of many plants.
The plant body is diploid with dominant sporophytic
Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as phase. They show diplontic life cycle.
l
Gametophytic stage is haploid generation. 248 (a) A protonema is a thread-like chain of cells that forms
l
Sporophytic stage produces spores. the first stage (the haploid phase) of the life cycle of
l
Gametophytic stage is not related with vascular mosses.
tissue production. 249 (d) Sequoia sempervirens is a gymnospermic plant. It is a

238 (d) All the three groups of plants, i.e. mosses, group of giant redwood trees having thick, woody,
liverworts and pteridophytes bear archegonia as their branched stems. These plants also have some xeric
female sex organ. adaptations, which help them to survive in adverse
climatic conditions.
CHAPTER > 04
Animal Kingdom
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Animals are multicellular, heterotrophic, eukaryotes who
exhibit different patterns of organisation of several types of Å Diploblastic and Triploblastic Organisation On the basis
cells. of germ layers, animals are classified as
Diploblastic (cells arranged in two embryonic layers,
Basis of Classification i.e. external ectoderm and internal endoderm), e.g.
The fundamental features common to various individuals that coelenterates and triploblastic (cells arranged in three germ
are used as the basis of animal classification have been given layers, i.e. ectoderm and endoderm and an undifferentiated
below layer mesoderm between them), e.g. phylum– Platyhelminthes
to Chordata.
Å Levels of Organisation Though all the members of
kingdom–Animalia are multicellular, yet all of them do not Å Coelom It is the body cavity (present between body wall and
exhibit the same pattern of cellular organisation. gut wall), which is lined by mesoderm. Animals are also
Different levels of organisation are discussed below classified on the basis of the presence or absence of coelom
as given below
n
Cellular level (cell aggregates) found in sponges.
n
Coelomates Animals which possess coelom. They are
n
Tissue level (cell performing same function are further classified into schizocoelomates (e.g. annelids,
arranged into tissues) found in coelenterates and molluscs and arthropods) and enterocoelomates
ctenophores. (e.g. echinoderms and chordates).
n
Organ level (tissues grouped together to form organs) n
Acoelomates The animal in which body cavity is absent
found in phylum–Platyhelminthes and other higher are called acoelomates, e.g. Porifera to Platyhelminthes
phyla. (true acoelomates).
n
Organ system level (association of organs to n
Pseudocoelomates Mesoderm does not line the body
form functional systems) found in annelids to cavity and is present between ectoderm and endoderm as
chordates. scattered pouches, e.g. Aschelminthes.
Å Symmetry On the basis of symmetry, animals can be Å Segmentation In some animals, the body is externally and
asymmetrical, i.e. body cannot be divided into equal halves internally divided into segments or somites with a serial
by any plane (e.g. sponges), radially symmetrical, i.e. body repetition of at least some organs. In earthworm, this
can be divided into equal halves by any plane passing phenomenon is known as metamerism.
through the central axis (e.g. coelenterates, ctenophores and
echinoderms) and bilaterally symmetrical, i.e. body can be
Å Notochord It is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure
divided into two identical halves (left and right) only along formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development in
one plane (e.g. annelids and arthropods). some animals. Animals with notochord are called chordates
and without notochord are non-chordates, e.g. Porifera to
Echinodermata.
CHAPTER 04 > Animal Kingdom 75
Eight external rows or ciliated comb plates help in

Classification of Animals
l
locomotion.
Broadly kingdom–Animalia is classified as follows l
Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
I. Non-chordates l
These are sexually reproducing, monoecious
organisms with external fertilisation and indirect
The non-chordates include the following phyla development, e.g. Ctenophora and Pleurobrachia.
1. Phylum–Porifera includes sponges, which are usually 4. Phylum–Platyhelminthes (Flatworms)
marine and mostly asymmetrical animals with canal l
These are dorsoventrally flattened, bilaterally
system as most important features.
symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animals.
l
Central cavity present in sponges is known as They are mostly endoparasites and show organ system
spongocoel, it is lined by collar cells or choanocytes level of organisation.
and it opens to outside by osculum. l
They have specialised cells for excretion and
l
Water enters the spongocoel through minute pores osmoregulation called flame cells.
called ostia and moves out through osculum. l
They possess a high regeneration capacity.
l
The body is supported by spicules or spongin and Fertilisation is internal and development is through
protein fibres, which form skeletal system. many larval stages, e.g. Planaria, Taenia (tapeworm)
l
They are hermaphrodites, i.e. both male and female and Fasciola (liver fluke).
gametes are produced within same individual. 5. Phylum–Aschelminthes (Roundworms)
Fertilisation is internal and development is indirect. l
They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and
l
Sponges reproduce asexually by fragmentation and pseudocoelomate animals with the body being circular
sexually by gamete formation. Larval forms are in cross-section.
morphologically distinct form adults, e.g. Sycon, l
They are free-living, aquatic, terrestrial or parasitic
Spongilla and Euspongia.
forms.
2. Phylum–Cnidaria (Coelenterata) consists of aquatic l
They are dioecious (separate sexes) and show internal
marine, sessile, radially symmetrical animals.
fertilisation with indirect development. Females are
l
Tentacles are either present over the mouth or around often longer than males.
their body edges. Cells called cnidoblasts or l
Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed
cnidocytes are present on the tentacles and the body.
muscular pharynx.
These cells are used for anchorage, defence and
capture of prey.
l
Excretion is through excretory pore. Fertilisation is
internal and development may be direct or indirect.
l
A central gastrovascular cavity (coelenteron) with a
e.g. Ascaris (roundworm), Wuchereria (filaria worm)
single opening, mouth on hypostome is present.
and Ancylostoma (hookworm).
l
Some cnidarians, e.g. corals, have skeleton composed
6. Phylum–Annelida (Segmented worms)
of CaCO3 .
l
They are triploblastic show organ level of body
l
They show polymorphism with two basic body plans,
organisation and are bilaterally symmetrical.
i.e. polyps are fixed, sessile, cylindrical, e.g. Hydra,
Adamsia, etc., and medusae are umbrella-shaped and
l
They show metameric segmentation, i.e. body surface
free-swimming, e.g. Aurelia. is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres.
l
The cnidarians exist in both forms and exhibit
l
Locomotion is aided by longitudinal and circular
alternation of generation (metagenesis), i.e. polyps muscles. In Nereis, swimming is achieved by lateral
produce medusae asexually and medusae produce appendages called parapodia.
polyps sexually (e.g. Obelia). l
Respiration is through skin or gills, circulatory system
3. Phylum–Ctenophora (Comb jellies or Sea walnuts) is closed and digestive system is complete.
l
These are exclusively marine, diploblastic, radially
l
Excretion is through nephridia. Both monoecious, e.g.
symmetrical, acoelomate organisms with tissue level Nereis and dioecious forms, e.g. Pheretima (earthworm)
of organisation. and Hirudinaria (leech) occur.
l
Body is soft, transparent and gelatinous with
l
Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by
well-marked bioluminescence (the property of a lateral nerve to a double ventral nerve cord.
living organism to emit light). l
They reproduce sexually.
NEET KEY NOTES

7. Phylum–Arthropoda Largest phylum of kingdom– l

Sexes are separate and reproduction is sexual with
Animalia, includes insects. indirect development and free-swimming larvae, e.g.
l
They are triploblastic, segmented, bilaterally Asterias (starfish), Echinus (sea urchin), Cucumaria (sea
symmetrical coelomate animals. Body is covered by cucumber).
chitinous exoskeleton. 10. Phylum–Hemichordata (Half chordates)
l
Body consists of head, thorax and abdomen. l
These are bilaterally symmetrical, tripoblastic and
l
They possess jointed appendages. coelomate worm-like marine animals.
l
Circulatory system is open type, forming a
l
Body is cylindrical and divided into proboscis, collar
haemocoel. and trunk. Notochord is absent.
l
Sensory organs like antennae, eyes, statocysts or
l
Excretion occurs through proboscis gland, circulation
balancing organs are present. is open type and respiration occurs through gill slit
pairs.
l
Respiratory system shows diverse range, e.g. gills,
trachea, book lungs, general body surface and book
l
Sexes are separate, fertilisation is external and
gills, e.g. Apis, Culex, Limulus (a living fossil), etc. development is indirect.
l
Excretion takes place through Malpighian tubules.
l
Connecting link between echinoderms and chordates,
e.g. Balanoglossus, etc.
l
Fertilisation is internal with direct or indirect
development. Mostly dioecious. II. Phylum–Chordata
8. Phylum–Mollusca It is the second largest phylum. These have notochord, dorsal hollow nerve chord, paired
l
These are terrestrial or aquatic, mostly marine and pharyngeal gill slits and post-anal tail at some stages of life.
some are freshwater. They are divided into following subphyla
l
These are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and 1. Urochordata (tunicates) Notochord is present only in
coelomate animals. larval tail, e.g. Herdmania.
l
Body is unsegmented and covered by a calcareous 2. Cephalochordata (lancelets) Notochord persists
shell but consists of a distinct head, muscular foot throughout life and extends from head to tail, e.g.
and visceral hump. The space between hump and Branchiostoma.
mantle is called mantle cavity in which feather like Note Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to
gills are present. as protochordata.
l
They have respiratory and excretory functions. The 3. Vertebrata (vertebrates) Notochord replaced by vertebral
anterior head region has sensory tentacles. column in adults.
l
Feeding is performed through radula. Circulation is
open type, excretion through organ of Bojanus or Subphylum–Vertebrata
metanephridia pair. Divisions
l
Sexes are separate and are mostly oviparous, e.g.
Octopus, Pila, Sepia. Agnatha Gnathostomata
l
They are usually dioecious and oviparous with (jawless vertebrates) (jawed vertebrates)
indirect development. Superclass
Class
9. Phylum–Echinodermata have an endoskeleton of
calcareous ossicles. Cyclostomata,
e.g. Petromyzon Pisces Tetrapoda
l
They are radially (pentamerous) symmetrical at adult (true fishes) (typically four limbs)
stage and bilaterally symmetrical at larval stage.
Amphibia,
l
They are triploblastic and coelomate animals. Class
Class e.g. frog
l
Water vascular system is present, which helps in Reptilia,
locomotion, capture and transport of food and Placodermi Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes e.g. snake
(all fossils), e.g. Scoliodon e.g. Labeo
respiration. Aves, e.g. parrot
e.g. Climatius
l
Complete digestive system is present and an Mammalia,
excretory system is absent. e.g. humans
NEET KEY NOTES

Å Some Major Classes of Vertebrates Characteristic features l

Heart is three-chambered. These have mesonephric
of some major classes of subphylum– Vertebrata are as kidneys and mostly are ureotelic.
follows l
Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts
1. Class–Cyclostomata open into cloaca.
l
These are ectoparasites on some fishes, have 6-15 pairs of l
Respiration occurs by gills, lungs, lining of
gill slits. buccopharyngeal cavity and moist skin, either,
l
Sucking and circular mouth without jaws. These possess separately or in combination.
sucktorial tongue that bears horny teeth. l
Tympanum represents the ear.
l
Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous. l
The eyes have eyelids and inner and middle ears
l
They die after spawing and their larvae return to ocean represent the ear. Fertilisation is external. These are
after metamorphosis, e.g. lamprey, hagfish. oviparous and the development is direct, e.g.
2. Class–Chondrichthyes Salamandra, Rana (Frog).
l
These are cartilaginous fishes. 5. Class–Reptilia
l
Notochord is well-developed and persists throughout l
They show creeping or crawling movements and
life. are mostly terrestrial.
l
Mouth is on the ventral side and teeth are modified l
They are poikilothermic, exothermal or
placoid scales. cold-blooded animals.
l
Heart two-chambered, ureotelic animals, sexes are l
Body covered by dry epidermal and cornified
separate, males usually have claspers for copulation, e.g. scutes or scales and their skin lacks glands.
sharks (Carcharodon and Sphyrna), sting rays (Trygon), l
Kidney is metanephric. Crocodiles are ammonotelic,
etc. turtles and alligators are ureotelic and lizards and
l
Some have electric organs (e.g. Torpedo) and others have snakes are uricotelic.
poison sting (e.g. Trygon). They are poikilothermous l
Bony endoskeleton, well-developed digestive
(cold blooded, i.e. they lack the capacity to regulate their system, respiration through lungs (in turtles
body temperature) animals. Possess uncovered gills and through cloaca), heart is three-chambered (except in
five pairs of gill slits and tough skin containing minute crocodiles that have four-chambered heart).
placoid scales. l
Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal. They
l
Some are predaceous (e.g. sharks). are oviparous and show direct development, e.g.
l
Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal. Many are Chameleon, Gavialis.
viviparous, e.g. Carcharodon, Sphyrna, etc. 6. Class–Aves
3. Class–Osteichthyes l
These animals are characterised by the presence of
l
These are marine as well as freshwater bony fishes. feathers that act as insulator and help in flight.
l
Four pairs of filamentous gills, covered by operculum Body is streamlined.
(gill cover) are present. Exoskeleton with cycloid or l
They possess beak and forelimbs that are modified
ctenoid scales. into wings.
l
They contain air bladder that regulates buoyancy. l
They are endothermal and warm-blooded
l
Heart is two-chambered and mostly of these are (homeothermous) animals.
ammonotelic. l
Bony endoskeleton, feathery exoskeleton
l
Sexes are separate and development is direct. Mostly metanephric kidneys and have pneumatic bones
they are oviparous. (with air cavities).
l
Fertilisation external, e.g. Labeo, Catla, Clarias, etc. l
Digestive tract contains crop and gizzard. Heart is
4. Class–Amphibia four-chambered and respiration occurs through
lungs. These are uricotelic and have a special voice
l
These are the first terrestrial organisms and can live in
producing organ called syrinx.
both aquatic and terrestrial habitats. These are
poikilothermic, ectothermic or cold-blooded.
l
Sexes are separate. Fertilisation is internal. They are
oviparous and show direct development, e.g. crow,
l
Body is divided into head and trunk. Tail may be
pigeon.
present in some.
NEET KEY NOTES

7. Class–Mammalia l
They are homeothermal and the skin is covered with
l
These are characterised by the presence of milk hairs and have external ears or pinnae.
producing mammary glands and give birth to l
Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. The
young ones, i.e. show viviparity. heart is four-chambered and respiration occurs through
l
They have two pairs of limbs and are adapted to fly lungs.
(bat) or live in water (whale) or are terrestrial l
Sexes are separate, fertilisation is internal and
(horse, camel and human). developmnent is direct, e.g. platypus, kangaroo, camel, etc.
Salient Features of Different Phyla in the Animal Kingdom

Phylum Level of Body Symmetry Coelom Distinctive Features Special Features
Organisation Respiratory Circulatory
Digestive System
System System
Porifera Cellular Asymmetrical Acoelomate Absent Absent Absent
Presence of choanocytes.

Presence of water transport
or water canal system.
Coelenterata Tissues Radial Acoelomate Incomplete Absent Absent
Presence of cnidoblasts.
(Cnidaria)
Exhibition of two body
forms, i.e. polyp and
medusa.
Ctenophora Tissues Radial Acoelomate Incomplete Absent Absent
Presence of comb plates for
locomotion.

Bioluminescence.
Platyhelminthes Organ and Bilateral Acoelomate Incomplete Absent Absent
Dorsoventrally flattened
organ system body.

Presence of hooks and
suckers.
Aschelminthes Organ system Bilateral Pseudocoelomate Complete Absent Absent
Body is circular in cross-
section.
Annelida Organ system Bilateral Schizocoelomate Complete Present Absent
Show metamerism.

Presence of nephridia for
excretion and
osmoregulation.
Arthropoda Organ system Bilateral Schizocoelomate Complete Present Present
Chitinous exoskeleton

Jointed appendages

Body divided into head,
thorax and abdomen.

Presence of Malpighian
tubules for excretion.
Mollusca Organ system Bilateral Schizocoelomate Complete Present Present
Body covered by calcareous
(mouth contains shell.
radula for
Body is unsegmented with
feeding) distinct head, muscular foot
and visceral hump.
Echinodermata Organ system Radial Enterocoelomate Complete Present Present
Water vascular system for
(pentamerous) locomotion, capture and
transport of food and
respiration.
Hemichordata Organ system Bilateral Enterocoelomate Complete Present Present
Worm like marine organisms.

Body consists of proboscis,
collar and trunk.
Chordata Organ system Bilateral Enterocoelomate Complete Present Present
Presence of notochord,
dorsal hollow nerve chord
and paired pharyngeal gill
slits.
NEET KEY NOTES

Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 Basis of Classification
1 Cellular level of organisation is 8 Choose the correct type of symmetry for the animals,
(a) seen in sponges A and B.
(b) when cells shows division of labour
(c) when cells are arranged in loose cell aggregates
2 In tissue level of organisation the
(a) cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates A B
(b) tissues are grouped to form organs
(a) Bilateral, Asymmetrical, respectively
(c) cells performing the same function are arranged into
(b) Bilateral, Radial, respectively
groups
(c) Radial, Bilateral, respectively
(d) tissues are grouped to form systems
(d) Radial, Radial, respectively
3 Organ system level of organisation is observed in 9 The diagram below shows the diploblastic and
(a) chordates (b) annelids triploblastic germ layers in the animals. Identify the
(c) molluscs (d) All of these correct option in which they are found.
4 Choose the incorrect option. Ectoderm
Mesoglea
(a) Complete digestive system – Two openings, Endoderm
mouth and anus
(b) Incomplete digestive system – Single opening
(c) Open circulatory system – Blood is circulated
through tube system
(d) Closed circulatory system – Arteries, veins and
capillaries are present Mesoderm
Diploblastic Triploblastic
A B
5 Phylum(s) that exhibit radial or radial-like symmetry
is/are (a) A–Molluscs, B–Chordates
(a) Coelenterata (b) Echinodermata (b) A–Annelida, B–Porifera
(c) Ctenophora (d) All of these (c) A–Coelenterates, B–Platyhelminthes
(d) A–Porifera, B–Cnidaria
6 The term ‘bilateral symmetry’ refers
10 Diploblastic animals belong to the phylum
(a) when the body can be divided into two unequal halves
(a) Protista (b) Protozoa
on passing central axis through it
(c) Ctenophora (d) Platyhelminthes
(b) to any plane passing through centre, which does not
divide the body into equal halves 11 Higher phylum like echinoderms include
(c) when the body can be divided into identical left and (a) triploblastic animals
right halves only in one plane (b) quadroblastic animals
(d) any plane passing through the central axis of the body (c) diploblastic animals
dividing the organism into two equal halves (d) uniblastic animals
7 The response to external stimulus is maximally 12 Differentiated embryonic layers are called
quicker and more precise in which of the following I. ectoderm II. endoderm
symmetry? III. mesoderm IV. mesoglea
(a) Radial (b) Bilateral (a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) Spherical (d) Biradial (c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV
13 A coelom is a 21 Fill in the blanks with the correct options.

(a) cavity between body wall and gut wall I. …A… have cellular level of organisation.
(b) body cavity lined by mesoderm II. Coelom is not seen in …B…. .
(c) body cavity not lined by mesoderm III. Radial symmetry is seen in phylum–Coelenterata, Ctenophora
(d) body cavity lined by endoderm and …C…. .
14 Which one of the following diagram shows IV. Notochord is lacking in …D…
coelomate condition? V. …E… are bilaterally symmetrical.
Here A to E refers to
(a) A–Platyhelminthes, B–Echinodermata, C–Arthropoda,
D–Mollusca, E–Porifera
(b) A–Porifera, B–Platyhelminthes, C–Echinodermata,
D–Mollusca, E–Arthropoda
A B C
(c) A–Porifera, B–Echinodermata, C–Mollusca, D–Arthropoda,
E–Platyhelminthes
(a) A (b) B (d) A–Echinodermata, B–Arthropoda, C–Platyhelminthes,
(c) C (d) None of these D–Mollusca, E–Porifera
15 The pseudocoelomate animals are included in 22 Choose the false option.
the plylum (a) Amoeba – Asymmetrical
(a) Porifera (b) Annelida (b) Coelenterates – Diploblastic, radial symmetry, non-chordates
(c) Aschelminthes (d) Mollusca (c) Chordates – Petromyzon, Ornithorhynchus, Equus
16 The cross-section of the body of an (d) Annelid – Pseudocoelomate
invertebrate is given below. Identify the 23 Study the flow chart given below and identify the missing
animal, which has this body plan. parts A, B, C, D, E.
Body wall Levels of Body cavity Phylum
Kingdom Symmetry
Parenchyma Organisation or Coelom
Alimentary canal A Mostly Acoelomata Porifera

(multicellular)
asymmetrical
Coelenterata
Animalia
(Cnidaria)
Radial B
Tissue/Organ/
Organ system
(a) Cockroach (b) Roundworm

Ctenophora
(c) Planaria (d) Earthworm Without body cavity
Platyhelminthes
17 True segmentation is also called (acoelomates)
(a) metagenesis (b) metamorphosis C With false coelom
D
(c) metamerism (d) metastasis (pseudocoelomates)
Annelida
18 The notochord is derived from which of the Arthropoda
following layers? E Mollusca
(a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm *Echinodermata
Hemichordata
(c) Endoderm (d) Placoderm Chordata
19 Which of the following is/are correct?
A B C D E
(a) Notochord is ectodermal in origin present in
some animals (a) Cellular Acoelomata Bilateral Aschelminthes Coelomates
(b) Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like (b) Cellular Coelomata Radial Aves Pseudocoelomates
structure formed on the dorsal side during (c) Cellular Acoelomata Radial Mammalia Pseudocoelomates
embryonic development in some animals (d) Cellular Coelomata Radial Aschelminthes Coelomates
(c) Arthropods are non-chordates
(d) Both (b) and (c) 24 Triploblastic, unsegmented, acoelomate exhibiting bilateral
symmetry and reproducing both asexually and sexually, with
20 Tube-within-tube body plan is found in which some parasitic forms.
animal?
The above description is the characteristic of phylum
(a) Euspongia (b) Fasciola
(a) Annelida (b) Ctenophora
(c) Hydra (d) None of these
(c) Cnidaria (d) Platyhelminthes
25 The animal with bilateral symmetry in young stage 26 Which one of the following option is incorrect about
and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage the occurrence of notochord?
belongs to the phylum (a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian
(a) Annelida (b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(b) Mollusca (c) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very
(c) Cnidaria beginning
(d) Echinodermata (d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
TOPIC 2 ~ Classification of Animals–Porifera to Aschelminthes

27 Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one of the 34 Sponges are
four options all the animals (poriferans) are correct? (a) with water canal system
(b) sexually reproducing by formation of gametes
(d) sessile or free-swimming
35 Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities
lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
A B C development are the characteristics of phylum
(a) A–Sycon, B–Euspongia, C–Spongilla CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(b) A–Euspongia, B–Spongilla, C–Sycon (a) Coelenterata (b) Porifera
(c) A–Spongilla, B–Sycon, C–Euspongia (c) Mollusca (d) Protozoa
(d) A–Euspongia, B–Sycon, C–Spongilla
36 Which one of the following is not a poriferan?
28 In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with (a) Sycon (b) Spirulina
flagellated cells called NEET 2017 (c) Euspongia (d) Spongilla
(a) ostia
(b) oscula 37 Which of the following is not true regarding phylum–
(c) choanocytes Coelenterata?
(d) mesenchymal cells (a) They are diploblastic animals
(b) They have cellular level of organisation
29 In phylum–Porifera, opening through which water
(c) They have nematocyte cells present on the tentacles
leaves the spongocoel is called
(d) The gastrovascular opening is called the hypostome
(a) ostia (b) ommatidia
(c) osculum (d) choanocytes 38 Cnidarians are divided into the following classes.
(a) Hydrozoa, Desmospongia and Scyphozoa
30 The body wall of a common sponge consists of
(b) Actinozoa, Scyphozoa and Anthozoa
(a) pinacoderm (b) choanoderm
(c) Scyphozoa, Anthozoa and Hydrozoa
(c) mesophyll layer (d) All of these
31 In most simple type of canal system of Porifera, water
39 The animal(s) that never perform(s) locomotion
flows through which one of the following ways?
voluntarily is/are
(a) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum → Exterior
(b) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum → Exterior (a) Ascaris (b) Leucosolenia
(c) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia → Exterior (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Hydra
(d) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel → Exterior 40 Body forms present in cnidarians are
32 The skeleton of animals belonging to phylum– (a) cylindrical and umbrella-shaped
Porifera are made up of (b) corals and coral reefs
(a) spicules (b) spiracles (c) polyp and medusa
(c) spines (d) spongocytes (d) cnidoblasts and nematocysts
33 Asexual reproduction in sponges takes place by 41 Alternation of generations is also called
(a) binary fission (b) multiple fission (a) metamorphosis (b) metastasis
(c) fragmentation (d) encystment (c) metazoan (d) metagenesis
42 Here two basic body forms of cnidarians are given 52 Reproduction in Ctenoplana takes place by
(a) budding
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) binary fission
(d) multiple fission
53 Animal of which phylum have hooks and suckers and
are endoparasite on other animals? AIIMS 2019
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida
A B
(c) Aschelminthes (d) Arthropoda
(a) A and B are free-swimming forms 54 Flame cells are present in JIPMER 2019
(b) A and B are sessile form (a) Aschelminthes (b) Platyhelminthes
(c) A produce B asexually and B form the ‘A’ sexually (c) Annelida (d) Cephalochordata
(d) B produce A asexually and A form the ‘B’ sexually
55 The cells that help in excretion in Fasciola are called
43 Medusa is the sexually reproductive structure of (a) choanocytes (b) nematocysts
(a) Hydra (b) Obelia (c) nephridia (d) flame cells
(c) Sea anemone (d) None of these
56 The level of organisation in Platyhelminthes is
44 What is the symmetry of medusa? JIPMER 2018 (a) cellular level (b) tissue level
(a) Bilateral (b) Radial (c) organ level (d) organ system level
(c) Asymmetrical (d) Biradial
57 Which of the following does not belong to
45 Metagenesis is seen in phylum–Platyhelminthes?
(a) Hydra (b) Aurelia (a) Fasciola (b) Taenia
(c) Obelia (d) Adamsia (c) Ascaris (d) Planaria
46 The skeleton of corals is composed of 58 Which of the following is true about phylum–
(a) siliceous spicules Platyhelminthes?
(b) calcium sulphate (a) Presence of sucking mouth
(c) calcium carbonate (b) Mostly free-living in nature
(d) potassium sulphate (c) Presence of complete digestive tract
(d) Polyembryony seen in some forms
47 The type of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is
(a) multiple fission (b) budding 59 If Hydra and Planaria are cut transversely in three
(c) sporulation (d) binary fission equal parts, then
(a) all three parts will die
48 Choose the correct options for the following
(b) regeneration will occur in all the three parts
diagram.
(c) regeneration will occur only in anterior part
(a) It represents choanocyte in Porifera (d) regeneration occurs only in middle part
(b) It represent cnidoblasts in Platyhelminthes
60 Trichocyst and nematocyst are meant for
(c) It represent cnidoblast in Coelenterata (a) defence (b) nutrition
(d) It represent choanocyte in Coelenterata (c) respiration (d) excretion
49 Select the taxon mentioned that represents 61 The first phylum to have a complete alimentary canal is
both marine and freshwater species. CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Ascaris
(a) Echinodermata (b) Ctenophora (c) Aschelminthes (d) Annelida
(c) Cephalochordata (d) Cnidaria
62 Aschelminthes are usually
50 Identifying feature of phylum–Ctenophora is (a) dioecious (b) hermaphrodites
(a) the presence of comb plates and appearance like jellies (c) metagenic (d) coelomates
(b) the presence of comb plates only
63 Which one of the following endoparasites of humans
(c) the presence of tentacles only
does show viviparity? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(d) alternation of generations only (a) Ancylostoma duodenale
51 Phylum–Ctenophora shows affinities with (b) Enterobius spiralis
(a) Cnidaria (b) Aschelminthes (c) Trichinella spiralis
(c) Cephalopoda (d) Turbellaria (d) Ascaris lumbricoides
64 Wuchereria bancrofti is a common filarial worm. It 67 Identify the correct option specifying the names of the
belongs to phylum animals A, B,C and D.
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Aschelminthes
(c) Annelida (d) Coelenterata
65 A triploblastic pseudocoelomate, bilaterally
symmetrical human parasite, which is oviparous and
the transmission is by contaminated soil. It is
(a) filarial worm (b) hookworm
(c) Palaloworm (d) tapeworm
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66 Ascaris is characterised by
(a) the absence of true coelom, but presence of A B C D
metamerism
(a) Pleurobrachia Tapeworm Taenia Aurelia
(b) the presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
(b) Fasciola Tapeworm Liver fluke Aurelia
(c) the presence of true coelom, but the absence of
metamerism (c) Pleurobrachia Roundworm Taenia Liver fluke
(d) the presence of true coelom and metamerism (d) Fasciola Roundworm Liver fluke Adamsia
TOPIC 3 ~ Classification of Animals–Annelida to Hemichordata

68 The phylum–Annelida is named so because of 74 Which of the following contain all members of the
(a) more organs are placed towards anterior part of the body phylum–Annelida?
(b) the presence of antenna (a) Hirudinaria, Nereis and Wuchereria
(c) anteriorly placed neural system (b) Earthworms, Aphrodite and Pila
(d) the presence of metameres (c) Pheretima, Tubifex and Nereis
69 Which of the following animals are true coelomates (d) Aplysia, Nereis and Dentalium
with bilateral symmetry? NEET (Odisha) 2019 75 Bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, true
(a) Adult echinoderms (b) Aschelminthes coelom and open circulatory system are the features
(c) Platyhelminthes (d) Annelids of
70 The animals belonging to phylum–Annelida use the (a) Annelida (b) Arthropoda
following in locomotion. (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
(a) Nephridia and nephridial pores 76 Which one of the following features is not present in
(b) Longitudinal and circular muscles the phylum–Arthropoda? NEET 2016
(c) Organs of bursa (a) Metameric segmentation (b) Parapodia
(d) Spicules and ostia (c) Jointed appendages (d) Chitinous exoskeleton
71 Earliest occurrence of metamerism is witnessed in 77 Which one of the following characteristics is mainly
phylum responsible for diversification of insects on land?
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Coelenterata CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida (a) Segmentation (b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) Exoskeleton (d) Eyes
72 Members of phylum–Annelida have
(a) Nephridia – Excretion 78 The members of phylum–Arthropoda have balancing
(b) Parapodia – Swimming organ named as
(c) Double ventral nerve cord – Neural system (a) radula (b) statocysts
(d) All of the above (c) choanocyte (d) comb plates
73 Which of the following groups is formed of only the 79 Choose the respiratory organs that are present in
hermaphrodite organisms? phylum–Arthropoda.
(a) Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog (a) Tracheal system or Book lungs
(b) Earthworm, tapeworm, sea horse, housefly (b) Book gills
(c) Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm (c) Gills
(d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge (d) All of the above
80 Mark the incorrect option for the 91 Development of Mollusca is similar to annelids. This
phylum–Arthropoda. can be concluded as both have
(a) Sensory organs like antennae present (a) larvae named trochophore
(b) Only compound eyes present (b) direct development without larval stages
(c) Body with head, thorax and abdomen (c) larval stage called glochidium only
(d) The presence of Malpighian tubules for excretion (d) larval stage called wriggler
81 Which of the following groups includes only 92 Most advanced invertebrates are JIPMER 2019
arthropods? (a) arthropods (b) annelids
(a) Prawn, Neopilina and Pila (c) molluscs (d) cephalopods
(b) Cockroach, scorpion and prawn
93 Which of the following phyla has no freshwater
(c) Chiton, Neopilina and scorpion
forms?
(d) Chiton, prawn and cockroach
(a) Echinodermata (b) Mollusca
82 Which one of the following animals is called a living (c) Chordata (d) Porifera
fossil?
94 Excretory organs in echinoderms is
(a) King locust (b) Limulus
(a) nephridia (b) green glands
(c) Bombyx (d) Balanoglossus
(c) flame cells (d) None of these
83 Which one of the following insects is not of any
95 Characteristic feature of phylum–Echinodermata is
economic benefit?
(a) radial symmetry (b) water vascular system
(a) Silkworm (b) Lac insect
(c) mantle cavity (d) All of these
(c) Locust (d) Honeybee
96 Which of the following is/are function(s) of water
84 The second largest number of species containing
vascular system in echinoderms?
phylum after phylum–Arthropoda in the animal
(a) Locomotion
kingdom is
(b) Respiration
(a) Annelida (b) Cnidaria
(c) Capture and transport of food
(c) Mollusca (d) Chordata
85 What is true about Mollusca?
97 Scientific name of starfish is
(a) The presence of metameric segmentation
(a) Echinus (b) Limulus (c) Echidna (d) Asterias
(b) The presence of mantle cavity and coelom cavity
(c) The presence of tissue level of organisation 98 Choose the animals that belongs to phylum–
(d) The presence of chitinous exoskeleton Echinodermata from the options.
(a) Sea urchin, cuttlefish and sea lily
86 The animal’s body belonging to phylum–Mollusca is
(b) Echinus, sea hare and sea cucumber
divided into
(c) Antedon, Ophiura and Echinus
(a) head, thorax and abdomen
(d) Ophiura, Chaetopleura and Echinus
(b) head, muscular foot and abdomen
(c) head, thorax and visceral hump 99 Find the odd one.
(d) head, muscular foot and visceral hump (a) Sea lily (Antedon) (b) Sea hare (Aplysia)
(c) Sea cucumber (Cucumaria) (d) Sea urchin (Echinus)
87 The feeding organ in phylum–Mollusca is
(a) ctenedia (b) undulating membrane 100 Choose the correct names for the following.
(c) sucker (d) radula
88 Radula is a part of which animal? JIPMER 2019
(a) Loligo (b) Merceneria
(c) Oyesters (d) Angopecten
89 Choose the incorrect option for phylum–Mollusca.
(a) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and unsegmented
(b) Feather-like gills present for excretion and respiration (A ) (B) (C) (D)
(c) The anterior head region has sensory tentacles
A B C D
(d) Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and acoelomates
(a) Scorpion Prawn Loligo Asterias
90 Which of the following is incorrect match? (b) Scorpion Prawn Octopus Ophiura
(a) Dentalium – Tusk shell (b) Sepia – Cuttle fish (c) Locust Butterfly Loligo Asterias
(c) Chiton – Pila (d) Loligo – Squid
(d) Locust Prawn Squid Ophiura
101 Which one of the following animals does not undergo 104 Excretory organ in phylum–Hemichordata is
metamorphosis? NEET 2018 (a) proboscis gland (b) gills
(a) Moth (b) Tunicate (c) collar cells (d) None of these
(c) Earthworm (d) Starfish 105 The correct classification of given animal is
102 In which one of the following, the genus name, its
two characters and its phylum are not correctly
matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?
CBSE-AIPMT 2012
Genus Name Two Characters Phylum
(a) Pila (i) Body segmented Mollusca
(ii) Mouth with radula
(b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinned Echinodermata (a) Chordata – Vertebrata – Craniata
(ii) Water vascular
(b) Chordata – Craniata
system (c) Chordata – Acraniata
(c) Sycon (i) Pore bearing Porifera (d) Non-chordata – Hemichordata
(ii) Canal system 106 The body of Balanoglossus is divisible into

(a) proboscis, tunic and trunk
(d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages Arthropoda
(b) collar, trunk and tunic
(ii) Chitinous (c) proboscis, collar and trunk
exoskeleton
(d) proboscis, stomochord and trunk
103 An important characteristic that hemichordates share 107 Select the feature(s) which is/are present in
with chordates is NEET 2017 hemichordates.
(a) absence of notochord (b) ventral tubular nerve cord (a) Stomochord (b) Worm-like body
(c) pharynx with gill slits (d) pharynx without gill slits (c) Gills (d) All of these
TOPIC 4~ Classification of Animals–Chordata

108 Which of the following is not found in the 112 Which animals belong to subphylum–Urochordata?
phylum–Chordata? (a) Branchiostoma and Lancelet
(a) A dorsal hollow nerve cord (b) Salpa and Lancelet
(b) Lateral paired gill slits during development (c) Ascidia and Doliolum
(c) A notochord at some stage of development (d) Salpa and Amphioxus
(d) An external skeleton 113 Animals belonging to phylum–Chordata are
109 All chordates have the following characteristics. fundamentally characterised by the presence of
(a) Bilaterally symmetrical, presence of coelom, structure noted as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C
triploblastic, open circulatory system and D.
(b) Bilaterally symmetrical, presence of coelom, A C B
diploblastic or triploblastic
(c) Open circulatory system, diploblastic or triploblastic,
coelom and bilaterally symmetrical
(d) Bilaterally symmetrical, coelom present, triploblastic
with closed circulatory system D
110 Phylum–Chordata is divided into subphyla namely
(a) Vertebrata, Protochordata and Urochordata
(b) Urochordata, Gnathochordata and Vertebrata (a) A–Notochord, B–Nerve cord, C–Gill slits, D–Post-anal
part
(c) Urochordata, Tunicata and Vertebrata
(d) Tunicata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata (b) A–Nerve cord, B–Notochord, C–Gill slits, D–Post-anal
part
111 The members of which of the following are often (c) A–Nerve cord, B–Notochord, C–Post-anal part, D–Gill
referred as protochordates? slits
(a) Urochordata (b) Cephalochordata (d) A–Nerve cord, B–Gill slits, C–Notochord, D–Post-anal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these part
114 Select the correct difference between the notochord in 119 A jawless fish, which lays eggs (spawning) in
the following. freshwater and whose ammocoetes larvae after
Urochordata Cephalochordata metamorphosis return to the ocean is
(a) Present only in larval tail – Extend from head to tail CBSE-AIPMT 2015
throughout life (a) Eptatretus (b) Myxine
(b) Present only in adult – Present only in larval tail (c) Neomyxine (d) Petromyzon
(c) Persistent throughout their life – Present only in adult 120 Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one
(d) Extend from head to tail – Present only in larval tail characteristic (Column II) and the phylum/class
throughout life (Column III) to which it belongs. NEET 2013
115 Choose the incorrect vertebrate character. Column I Column II Column III
(a) Ventral muscular heart (a) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata
(b) Kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
(c) Paired appendages which may be fins or limbs (b) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia
(d) None of the above (c) Limulus Body covered by Pisces
116 The following is the flow chart depicting the divisions chitinous exoskeleton
of the subphylum–Vertebrata. Fill in the parts A, B, C (d) Adamsia Radially symmetrical Porifera
and D and choose the correct option.
Vertebrata 121 Chondrichthyes is characterised by tooth shaped
(a) placoid scale with dorsal mouth
Division
(b) ctenoid scale with dorsal mouth
(c) ctenoid scale with ventral mouth
Agnatha Gnathostomata (d) placoid scale with ventral mouth
(lacks jaw) (bears jaw)
122 Which one is not cartilaginous fish?
Super class (a) Carcharodon (Great white shark), Trygon (sting ray)
(b) Exocoetus (flying fish), Catla (katla), Clarias (magur)
B C (c) Scoliodon (dog fish)
Class (d) Pristis (saw fish)
Class Class
A 123 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature
1. Chondrichthyes 1. Amphibia
2. Osterichthyes 2. Reptilia of class–Chondrichthyes?
3. Aves (a) Gill slits are separate and without operculum
4. Mammals (b) Predaceous with powerful jaws
A B C (c) Notochord is persistent throughout life
(a) Ostracodermi Pisces Tetrapoda (d) Air bladder present
(b) Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda 124 Choose the incorrect option for the given figure.
(c) Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces
(d) Pisces Tetrapoda Cyclostomata
117 Which of the following options about the

class–Cyclostomata is incorrect?
(a) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous
(b) Elongated body bearing scales and paired fins
(c) Gill slits for respiration
(d) Sucking and circular mouth
118 Myxine (Hagfish) has
(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits
(b) closed type circulation
(c) jaws (a) Operculum present (b) Bony fish
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Poisonous sting at tail (d) Sexes separate
125 Following are few examples of bony fishes. Choose 134 Dry skin with scales or scutes without gland is a
the odd one out as marine bony fish. characteristic of
(a) Flying fish (a) Fishes (b) Reptilia
(b) Hippocampus (Sea horse) (c) Amphibia (d) Aves
(c) Both (a) and (b) 135 The class name–Reptilia refers to
(d) Labeo (Rohu), Catla, Clarias (a) presence of scales or scutes on their body
126 Bony fishes (b) presence of dry and cornified skin
(a) have external fertilisation (c) their creeping or crawling mode of locomotion
(b) are mostly oviparous (d) None of the above
(c) show direct development
(d) All of the above 136 Syndactyly, prehensile tail and long protrusible
tongue are the unique features of
127 Bony fishes can stay at any particular depth in water (a) rhesus monkey (b) Archaeopteryx
without spending energy due to (c) horsefish (d) Chameleon
(a) operculum (b) neuromuscles
(c) pneumatic bones (d) swim bladder 137 In which of the following reptiles four-chambered
heart is present?
128 The number of gills present in Osteichthyes is (a) Lizard (b) Snake
(a) 2 pairs (b) 6 pairs (c) Scorpion (d) Crocodile
(c) 5 pairs (d) 4 pairs
138 Which one of the following animals have both
129 Air bladder occurs in exoskeletal and endoskeletal structures?
(a) Torpedo (b) Clarias
(a) Freshwater mussel (b) Tortoise
(c) Scoliodon (d) Elasmobranch
(c) Frog (d) Jellyfish
130 Choose the incorrect option for the following animal.
139 Choose the correct option for the given figures.
(a) Cloaca present (A ) (B)
(b) Dioecious, external fertilisation, oviparous, indirect (a) Animal A is Salamandra and B is Chameleon
development
(b) Both A and B belong to class–Reptilia
(c) Body divisible into head and trunk (c) Fertilisation is external in both
(d) Eyes are without eyelids (d) Animal A has 2-chambered heart and B has
131 Which features are common to the animals belonging 3-chambered heart
to class–Amphibia and class–Reptilia? 140 Which one of the following pairs of animals are
(a) The presence of scales with internal fertilisation and similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated
usually four-chambered heart against them?
(b) The presence of tympanum, poikilotherms and usually (a) Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus – viviparity
three-chambered heart (b) Garden lizard and crocodile – three-chambered heart
(c) The presence of cloaca, oviparous and external (c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma – metameric segmentation
fertilisation (d) Sea horse and flying fish – cold-blooded
(d) Skin is moist (poikilothermal)
132 Reptiles are different from amphibians in 141 Which one of the following is incorrect for Aves?
(a) the skin (b) structure of the heart (a) Heart is four-chambered and animals are oviparous
(c) development stages (d) All of these (b) The presence of air cavities in bones and the presence
133 The presence of which structure is common to frog of feathers on the body
and snake with respect to respiration? (c) Digestive tract has additional chambers and animals are
(a) Diaphragm (b) Skin homeothermous
(c) Buccal cavity (d) Lungs (d) The forelimbs are not modified into wings
142 Which of the following sets of derivatives of 151 Which of the following animals is not viviparous?
integumentary structures characterise birds, as CBSE-AIPMT 2015
glorified reptiles? (a) Flying fox (bat) (b) Elephant
(a) Scales and claws (c) Platypus (d) Whale
(b) Syrinx and uropygial gland 152 Select the correct set of animals of true mammals.
(c) Claws and uropygial gland (a) Lion, Hippopotamus, penguin, bat
(d) Syrinx and scales (b) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich
143 Which of the following groups of animals shares (c) Hippopotamus, penguin, whale, Chelone
similarly regarding maintenance of constant body (d) Whale, flying fox, kangaroo, Hippopotamus
temperature with mammals? 153 Vivipary is characteristically found in
(a) Reptiles (b) Amphibians (a) Coelenterata (b) Protozoa
(c) Aves (d) Fishes (c) Rabbit (d) Pisces
144 Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in 154 Which one of the following is an exclusive character
(a) house lizard
of class–Mammalia?
(b) flying fish
(a) Homeothermy
(c) pigeon
(b) Internal fertilisation
(d) tadpole of frog
(c) The presence of a four-chambered heart
145 Which of the following is/are flightless bird? (d) The presence of a muscular diaphragm
(a) Ostrich (b) Emu
155 Which one of the following is not a mammalian
(c) Kiwi (d) All of these
character without exception?
146 The character of birds without exception is (a) The presence of milk producing gland
(a) deuterostome development (b) They have two pairs of limbs
(b) flying wings (c) Skin is unique in possessing hairs
(c) beak without teeth (d) Heterodont type of dentition
(d) lay eggs with calcareous shell
156 Which animals have well-developed echolocation
147 Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised system like that of bats?
by crop and gizzard in its digestive system. NEET 2018 (a) Wild cats (b) Beavers only
(a) Aves (c) Primates (d) Dolphins
(b) Reptilia
157 Choose the odd pair amongst the following.
(c) Amphibia
(a) Ornithorhynchus–Platypus
(d) Osteichthyes
(b) Pteropus–Flying fox
148 Phenomenon seen in certain amphibians, but not in
(c) Neophron–Vulture
mammals is
(d) Delphinus–Common dolphin
(a) ability to undergo transformation
(b) ability to change according to season 158 Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
(c) ability to change colour NEET 2018
(d) ability to stay still for long periods of time (a) Camelus (b) Chelone
149 Which of the following is a correct sequence of (c) Macropus (d) Psittacula
decreasing order of number of species? 159 Which of the following represents order of ‘Horse’?
(a) Aves, pisces, reptiles, amphibians, mammals NEET 2017
(b) Pisces, aves, reptiles, mammals, amphibians (a) Equidae (b) Perissodactyla
(c) Pisces, mammals, reptiles amphibians, aves (c) Caballus (d) Ferus
(d) Amphibians, aves, pisces, mammals, reptiles 160 Which among these is the correct combination of
150 The unique character of animals belonging to aquatic mammals?
class–Mammalia is (a) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
(a) bipedal locomotion (b) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(b) completely four-chambered heart (c) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(c) the presence of mammary glands (d) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(d) fertilisation is internal
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 168 Assertion (A) Duck-bill platypus is not a true
■ Direction (Q. 161-168) In each of the following mammal.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by Reason (R) True mammals are all viviparous, while
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, platypus lays eggs.
mark the correct answers as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation II. Statement Based Questions
of A
169 Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Phylum–Porifera – Presence of choanocytes and
explanation of A nematocysts
(c) If A is true, but R is false (b) Phylum–Coelenterata – Meandrina belongs to this
(d) If A is false, but R is true phylum
161 Assertion (A) Radial symmetry in animals is (c) Phylum–Ctenophora – All exhibit bilateral symmetry
advantageous in detecting food and danger. only
Reason (R) It allows the animal to be able to respond (d) Phylum–Platyhelminthes – Wuchereria belongs to this
phylum
to stimulus from any direction.
170 Which statement is incorrect about Pleurobrachia?
162 Assertion (A) Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm
(a) They are diploblastic
are endoparasites of human intestine.
(b) They have tissue level organisation
Reason (R) Contaminated food is the main cause of
(c) They have comb plates
intestinal infections by Aschelminthes.
(d) They show asexual and sexual reproduction
163 Assertion (A) Taenia solium and Dugesia belong to
Platyhelminthes. AIIMS 2018 171 Which one of the following statements about certain
given animals is correct?
Reason (R) Platyhelminthes are coelomates.
(a) Roundworms are pseudocoelomates
164 Assertion (A) In many gastropods, the anus and the (b) Molluscs are acoelomates
mantle cavity are placed anteriorly above the head. (c) Insects are pseudocoelomates
Reason (R) During embryonic development in many (d) Flatworms are coelomates
gastropods, one side of the visceral mass grows faster 172 Mark the false statement for the phylum–Annelida.
than the other side. This uneven growth rotates the (a) They are bilaterally symmetrical coelomate animals
visceral organs up to 180° in many gastropods. (b) They have both monoecious and dioecious animal
165 Assertion (A) Amphibians cannot survive in sea representatives
water. (c) Excretory system consists of flame cells
Reason (R) Amphibians have lungs for breathing on (d) They do not show asexual reproduction generally
land which would collapse under the water pressure 173 Which of the following statements is false?
of the sea. (a) Male roundworm is smaller than female
166 Assertion (A) Animals that have an exoskeleton, (b) Earthworms are hermaphrodites
always lack an endoskeleton. (c) Echinoderms are protostomous coelomates
Reason (R) Skeleton cells in the embryonic stage (d) Human teeth are anatomically comparable to scales of
shark
migrate to produce exoskeleton and endoskeleton.
174 Which of the following statements represents the
167 Assertion (A) Aves must feed more often than
incorrect feature of Echinodermata?
reptiles.
(a) They are triploblastic and coelomate animals
Reason (R) Birds are homeotherms and this (b) All are marine with cellular level of organisation
consumes more energy than reptiles that are (c) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicle
poikilotherms. (d) None of the above
175 Choose the correct statement for the following 180 Choose the correct statement for the animals given in
animals. the figure below.
(a) Its skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales

(b) It has four pairs of gills which are covered by air
bladder
(c) Fertilisation is external and is oviparous
(A ) (B) (d) Mouth is located ventrally and jaws are very powerful
181 Which one of the following statement for animals, is
correctly described with no exception in it?
(a) All reptiles possess scales, have a three-chambered
heart and are cold-blooded (poikilothermal)
(b) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an
operculum on each side
(c) All sponges are marine and have collared cells
(d) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for
(C) (D) breathing
(a) All these animals are aquatic, free-living 182 Consider the following features. NEET (National) 2019
(b) All are true coelomates A. Organ system level of organisation
(c) ‘A’ has radial symmetry, but remaining have bilateral B. Bilateral symmetry
symmetry C. True coelomates with segmentation of body
(d) ‘A’ is monoecious, but remaining are dioecious
Select the correct option of animal groups which
176 Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) for possess all the above characteristics.
Hemichordata? (a) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(a) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and (b) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
coelomate
(c) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
(b) Circulation is of open type
(d) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(c) Sexes are separate, fertilisation is external and
development is indirect 183 Which of the following statements are true/false?
(d) All of the above I. In higher phyla, cellular level of organisation is seen.
177 Choose the correct statement. NEET 2016 II. Phylum–Platyhelminthes have cellular level of
(a) All mammals are viviparous organisation.
(b) All cyclostomes do not possess jaw and paired fins III. Cellular level of organisation is seen when the cells are
(c) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart not arranged as loose cell aggregates.
(d) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum IV. Molluscs exhibit tissue level of organisation.
178 Which statement is incorrect for animals belonging to Choose the correct option from the following.
the class–Osteichthyes? (a) I and II are true, but III and IV are false
(a) The presence of cycloid/ctenoid scales (b) All statements are false
(b) Both marine and freshwater forms with bony (c) All statements are true
endoskeleton (d) III and IV are true, but I and II are false
(c) Mouth terminal and gills covered by operculum 184 Which of the following statements are true/false?
(d) Notochord is persistent only at larval stage, after that it
I. Cell aggregate body plan is found in phylum–
disappears
Platyhelminthes.
179 Choose the incorrect statement. II. Radial symmetry is the most common symmetry found
(a) Both cartilaginous and bony fishes are dioecious in animals.
(b) Cartilaginous fishes show sexual dimorphism
III. Pseudocoelom is found only in phylum–
(c) Male cartilaginous fish have claspers Aschelminthes.
(d) Female cartilaginous fish have claspers
IV. All triploblastic animals have a true coelom.
V. Haemocoel is sometimes observed in animals belong 189 Choose the correct statement for starfish.
to phylum–Platyhelminthes. I. Sexes are separate and reproduction is sexual.
(a) I and V are true and II, III and IV are false II. Development is indirect with free-swimming larva.
(b) II, III and V are true and I and IV are false
III. Mouth is present on the upper (dorsal) side and anus on
(c) I, II and III are true and IV and V are false the lower (ventral) side.
(d) I, II, IV and V are false, Only III is true IV. Their body bears jaw-like structure which are called
185 Some of the statements are given below. oral arms.
I. Porifera to Echinodermata lack a notochord. (a) I and III (b) I, II and IV
II. Platyhelminthes display tissue level organisation. (c) I, II and III (d) III and IV
III. Mesoglea is present in coelenterates during 190 Choose the correct option for Wuchereria?
development. I. Triploblastic with the presence of an excretory pore.
IV. Aschelminthes are coelomates (pseudocoelomates). II. The presence of a muscular pharynx.
Choose the option containing the correct statements. III. Males longer than females.
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I and II IV. Cellular level of organisation.
(c) I, III and IV (d) II and III (a) II and III (b) I and IV
186 Which of the following is not a characteristic of (c) I and II (d) III and IV
phylum–Porifera? 191 Which of the following statements are true?
I. Developoment is indirect (larval stage is present). I. Molluscs possess cellular level of organisation.
II. Mostly asymmetrical and usually marine. II. Arthropods are true coelomates.
III. Primitive multicellular animals with cellular level of III. Platyhelminths are pseudocoelomates.
organisation. IV. Ctenophores have bilateral symmetry.
IV. Choanocytes lines the spongocoel and the canals.
V. Sexes are separate.
(a) I and II (b) Only II
(a) I and IV (b) Only II (c) Only V (d) III and IV
(c) I and IV (d) II, III and IV
187 Which of the option is correct for the statements
192 Consider the following statements about arthropods.
given below?
I. Open circulatroy system is found in most arthropods.
I. Commonly called sea walnuts or comb jellies.
II. Bioluminescence is well-marked. II. Arthropods contain haemolymph which directly
bathes the internal tissues and organs.
III. Body bear eight external rows of ciliated comb plates.
(a) I is true, but II is false
IV. Have flame cells for osmoregulation and excretion.
(b) I is false, but II is true
V. Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed (c) Both I and II are true
muscular pharynx. (d) Both I and II are false
Ctenophores Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
(a) I, II, III IV V
I. Lancelets are jawless, primitive fish-like vertebrates.
(b) IV I, II III, V II. In lancelets, notochord, tubular nerve cord and
(c) I, II III, IV V pharyngeal gill slits are present throughout their life.
(d) IV, V II, III I (a) I is true, but II is false
(b) I is false, but II is true
188 Consider the following statements. (c) Both I and II are true
I. Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry. (d) Both I and II are false
II. Metamerically segmented and coelomate
194 Choose the correct option for the following
animals.
statements.
III. Dioecious
IV. Closed circulatory system. I. All vertebrates are chordates.
V. Lateral appendages. II. Vertebrates possess notochord during embryonic
VI. Annelida period.
(a) I is true, but II is false
Which of the following information
(b) II is true, but I is false
belongs to the given figure?
(c) Both I and II are true
(a) I, II, IV and VI (b) I, III, IV and V
(c) I, III, IV and V (d) III, IV, V and VI (d) Both I and II are false
195 Which of the following statements are true/false? 198 Match the following columns.
I. In Torpedo, the electric organs are capable of
Column I Column II
generating strong electric shock to paralyse the prey.
(Mammals) (Scientific names)
II. Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal, anal and
caudal fins in swimming. A. 1. Ornithorhynchus
III. Amphibian skin is moist and has thick scales.
IV. Birds are poikilothermous animals.
V. The most unique mammalian characteristic is the
presence of milk producing mammary glands by which B. 2. Oryctolagus cuniculus
the young ones are nourished.
(a) I, II and III are true; IV and V are false
(b) I, II and V are true; III and IV are false
(c) I, II and III are false; IV and V are true C. 3. Pteropus
(d) I, II and IV are false; III, and V are true
III. Matching Type Questions D. 4. Macropus

5. Balaenoptera
Column I Column II
(Level of organisation) (Animal phyla) Codes
A B C D
A. Cellular level of organisation 1. Cnidarians
(a) 3 4 5 2
B. Organ level of organisation 2. Platyhelminthes (b) 3 4 5 1
C. Organ system level of organisation 3. Chordates (c) 1 2 5 4
(d) 5 4 3 2
D. Tissue level of organisation 4. Porifera
199 Match the following organisms with their respective
Codes characteristics. NEET (National) 2019
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 1 4 3 Column I Column II
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 2 1 3 A. Pila 1. Flame cells
197 Match the following columns. B. Bombyx 2. Comb plates
Column I Column II C. Pleurobrachia 3. Radula
(Animals) (Scientific names) D. Taenia 4. Malpighian tubules
1. Scoliodon Codes
A. A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
2. Pristis (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
B.
200 Match the following genera with their respective
phylum NEET (Odisha) 2019
C. 3. Myxine
Column I Column II
D. 4. Catla A. Ophiura 1. Mollusca

B. Physalia 2. Platyhelminthes
5. Petromyzon
C. Pinctada 3. Echinodermata
Codes D. Planaria 4. Coelenterata
A B C D
(a) 4 2 5 1 Codes
(b) 4 2 3 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 1 3 5 2 (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 4 5 3 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
201 Match the items in Column I with those in Column II 205 Match the following columns.
and choose the correct option from the codes given Column I Column II
below. NEET (Odisha) 2019 (Common name of arthropodes) (Scientific names)
Column I Column II A. Honeybee 1. Aedes
A. Podocytes 1. Crystallised oxalates B. Mosquito 2. Apis
B. Protonephridia 2. Annelids C. Lac insect 3. Laccifer
C. Nephridia 3. Amphioxus D. Silkworm 4. Bombyx
D. Renal calculi 4. Filtration slits
Codes
Codes A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 1 3 2
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 206 Match the following columns.
(Scientific names) (Common names)
Column I Column II
(Specialised cell or part) (Animal phylum) A. Ancylostoma 1. Hookworm
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes B. Wuchereria 2. Filaria worm
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora C. Ascaris 3. Roundworm
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera D. Fasciola 4. Liver fluke
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata 5. Flatworms
E. Comb plates 5. Annelida Codes
Codes A B C D A B C D
A B C D E (a) 1 4 3 5 (b) 2 5 1 3
(a) 2 1 4 5 3 (c) 4 1 5 3 (d) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 5 3 207 Match the following columns.
(c) 5 1 3 2 4 Column I Column II
(d) 3 4 1 5 2 (Scientific names) (Common names)
203 Match the following columns. A. Branchiostoma 1. Hagfish
Column I Column II B. Petromyzon 2. Lamprey
(Cnidarian) (Common names) C. Trygon 3. Sting ray
A. Pennatula 1. Brain coral D. Myxine 4. Ascidia
B. Meandrina 2. Sea fan 5. Amphioxus
C. Gorgonia 3. Sea pen Codes
D. Adamsia 4. Sea anemone A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 5 2 4 (b) 3 1 2 5
Codes
(c) 5 4 1 2 (d) 5 2 3 1
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 208 Match the following columns.
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 Column I Column II
204 Match the following columns. (Parts/organs) (Functions)
Column I Column II A. Statocysts 1. Radiating plates

(Scientific names) (Common names) B. Radula 2. Respiratory function
A. Physalia 1. Liver fluke C. Gills 3. Organs of balance
B. Taenia 2. Scypha D. Tentacles 4. Sensory organs
C. Fasciola 3. Tapeworm 5. Organs of feeding
D. Sycon 4. Portuguese man of war 6. Organs of locomotion
Codes Codes
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 (a) 4 1 3 6 (b) 3 5 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 1 5 6 (d) 2 3 5 4
209 Match the following columns. 212. Match the following columns.
(Animals) (Common names) (Animals) (Common names)
A. Loligo 1. Cuttlefish A. Hippocampus 1. Fighting fish
B. Aplysia 2. Chiton B. Betta 2. Great white shark
C. Sepia 3. Pearl oyster C. Clarias 3. Sea horse
D. Chaetopleura 4. Tusk shell D. Labeo 4. Angelfish
E. Pinctada 5. Squid 5. Rohu
6. Sea hare 6. Magur
Codes Codes
A B C D E A B C D A B C D
(a) 6 3 1 4 5 (a) 3 1 6 5 (b) 6 2 4 1
(b) 5 4 6 2 3 (c) 3 2 6 4 (d) 4 1 6 5
(c) 4 5 3 1 6 213 Match the following columns.
(d) 5 6 1 2 3 Column I Column II
210 Match the following columns. (Parts/cells) (Features)
Column I Column II A. Thesocytes 1. Spongin fibres

(Features) (Animals) B. Gemmules 2. Food storing cells
A. These possess electric organs 1. Trygon C. Osculum 3. Involved in reproduction
B. Animals of this class are 2. Cyclostomata D. Spicules 4. Collar cells
poikilothermous
5. Water exits the spongocoel
C. These possess poison sting 3. Torpedo through this structure
D. These migrate for spawning to 4. Chondrichthyes Codes
freshwater
A B C D
5. Lamprey (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 4 5
6. Exocoetus
(c) 2 3 4 1
Codes (d) 2 3 5 1
A B C D 214 Match the following columns.
(a) 6 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 6 5 Column I Column II
(Characteristics) (Animals)
(c) 3 4 1 5
(d) 3 4 6 2 A. Diploblastic, radial symmetry and 1. Wuchereria
tissue level organisation
B. Triploblastic, pseudocoelomates and 2. Dugesia
Column I Column II complete digestive system
(Animals) (Common names)
C. Bilateral symmetry, incomplete 3. Cucumaria
A. Chelone 1. Wall lizard digestive system, organ and
organ system level of organisation
B. Bungarus 2. Viper
D. Triploblastic, coelomate, radial 4. Balanoglossus
C. Calotes 3. Krait
symmetry
D. Hemidactylus 4. Garden lizard
5. Hydra
5. Turtle
6. Tortoise Codes
A B C D
Codes (a) 2 1 4 5
A B C D A B C D (b) 3 2 1 5
(a) 3 2 1 6 (b) 5 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 2 5
(c) 5 4 1 6 (d) 2 5 1 6 (d) 5 1 2 3
Column I Column II Column II Column I Column II
(Animal phyla) (Development) (Fertilisation) (Parts) (Description)
A. Porifera (i) Direct (1) External A. Hypostome or 1. The oral tip surrounded by
B. Ctenophora (ii) Indirect (2) Internal manubrium tentacles in Hydra
B. Muscular pharynx 2. Present in Aschelminthes to ingest
C. Aschelminthes (iii) Both direct (3) Both external and
food.
and indirect internal
C. Radula 3. Rasping organ for feeding in
D. Arthropoda Pinctada
E. Echinodermata D. Malpighian 4. Excretory organ in cockroach
F. Hemichordata tubules
Codes Codes
A B C D E F A B C D
(a) ii, 2 ii, 1 iii, 2 iii, 2 ii, 1 ii, 1 (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) i, 1 ii, 2 iii, 2 iii, 2 iii, 1 iii, 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) ii, 1 ii, 1 iii, 2 iii, 2 ii, 1 ii, 1 (c) 2 1 4 3
(d) iii, 1 ii, 2 ii, 3 iii, 2 i, 2 i, 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
NCERT Exemplar
217 In some animal groups, the body is found divided into 221 Birds and mammals share one of the following
compartments with at least some organs. This characteristics as a common feature.
characteristic feature is called (a) Pigmented skin
(a) segmentation (b) metamerism (b) Pneumatic bones
(c) metagenesis (d) metamorphosis (c) Viviparity
(d) Warm-blooded body
218 Given below are types of cells present in some
animals. Which of the following cells can 222 Which one of the following sets of animals belongs to
differentiate to perform different functions? a single taxonomic group?
(a) Choanocytes (a) Cuttlefish, jellyfish, silverfish, dogfish, starfish
(b) Interstitial cells (b) Bat, pigeon, butterfly
(c) Monkey, chimpanzee, man
(c) Gastrodermal cells
(d) Silkworm, tapeworm, earthworm
(d) Nematocysts
219 Which one of the following sets of animals share a (a) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm
four-chambered heart? in Obelia
(a) Amphibian, reptiles, birds (b) Asterias exhibits radial symmetry
(b) Crocodiles, birds, mammals (c) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal
(c) Crocodiles, lizards, turtles (d) Taenia is a triploblastic animal
(d) Lizards, mammals, birds
220 Which of the following pairs of animals has (a) In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste material
non-glandular skin? occurs through Malpighian tubules
(a) Snake and frog (b) In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates
(b) Chameleon and turtle (c) In Fasciola flame cells take part in excretion
(c) Frog and pigeon (d) Earthworms are hermaphrodites and yet cross
(d) Crocodile and tiger fertilisation takes place among them
225 Which one of the following is not a poisonous snake? 228 Match the following columns.
(a) Cobra (b) Viper
Column I Column II
(c) Python (d) Krait (Phylum) (Characteristic features)
226 Match the following list of animals with their level of A. Porifera 1. Canal system
organisation. B. Aschelminthes 2. Water vascular system
Level of Organisation Animal C. Annelida 3. Muscular pharynx
A. Organ level 1. Pheretima D. Arthropoda 4. Jointed appendages
B. Cellular aggregate level 2. Fasciola E. Echinodermata 5. Metameres
C. Tissue level 3. Spongilla
D. Organ system level 4. Obelia Codes
A B C D E
Codes (a) 2 3 5 4 1
A B C D A B C D (b) 2 5 3 4 1
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 3 5 4 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 5 3 4 2
227 Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall 229 Which one of the following is oviparous?
and gut wall. In some animals the body cavity is not (a) Platypus
lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called (b) Flying fox (bat)
(a) acoelomate (b) pseudocoelomate (c) Elephant
(c) coelomate (d) haemocoelomate (d) Whale
Answers
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c) 11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (c)
16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (d) 20 (d) 21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (c) 41 (d) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (c)
46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (d) 50 (a) 51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (a) 54 (b) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (b) 60 (a)
61 (c) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (b) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (d) 70 (b) 71 (d) 72 (d) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (b)
76 (b) 77 (c) 78 (b) 79 (d) 80 (b) 81 (b) 82 (b) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (d) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (c)
91 (a) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (d) 95 (b) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (c) 99 (b) 100 (b) 101 (c) 102 (a) 103 (c) 104 (a) 105 (d)
106 (c) 107 (d) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (d) 111 (c) 112 (c) 113 (b) 114 (a) 115 (d) 116 (b) 117 (b) 118 (d) 119 (d) 120 (a)
121 (d) 122 (b) 123 (d) 124 (c) 125 (c) 126 (d) 127 (d) 128 (d) 129 (b) 130 (d) 131 (b) 132 (d) 133 (d) 134 (b) 135 (c)
136 (d) 137 (d) 138 (b) 139 (a) 140 (d) 141 (d) 142 (a) 143 (c) 144 (c) 145 (d) 146 (c) 147 (a) 148 (c) 149 (b) 150 (c)
151 (c) 152 (d) 153 (c) 154 (d) 155 (c) 156 (d) 157 (c) 158 (b) 159 (b) 160 (c)
161 (a) 162 (b) 163 (c) 164 (a) 165 (c) 166 (d) 167 (a) 168 (a) 169 (b) 170 (d) 171 (a) 172 (c) 173 (c) 174 (d) 175 (d)
176 (d) 177 (b) 178 (d) 179 (d) 180 (c) 181 (b) 182 (d) 183 (b) 184 (d) 185 (c) 186 (c) 187 (a) 188 (a) 189 (b) 190 (c)
191 (b) 192 (c) 193 (c) 194 (c) 195 (b) 196 (a) 197 (a) 198 (b) 199 (a) 200 (b) 201 (c) 202 (d) 203 (a) 204 (b) 205 (c)
206 (d) 207 (d) 208 (b) 209 (d) 210 (c) 211 (b) 212 (a) 213 (d) 214 (d) 215 (a) 216 (a)
NCERT Exemplar Questions
217 (b) 218 (b) 219 (b) 220 (b) 221 (d) 222 (c) 223 (c) 224 (a) 225 (c) 226 (a) 227 (b) 228 (c) 229 (a)

2 (c) In order to attain complexity, the cells performing 22 (d) The match in option (d) is false. It can be
the same function are arranged into groups, knows as corrected as
tissues. This leads to the formation of tissue level of Annelids are coelomates.
organisation, e.g. ctenophores and cnidarians. Rest of the matches are correct.
4 (c) Option (c) is incorrect and it can be corrected as 25 (d) Echinoderms are triploblastic animals with organ
Open type of circulatory system is the one in which the system level of organisation in which, the larval forms
blood is pumped out of the heart and the cells and exhibit bilateral symmetry, while the adults show radial
tissues are directly bathed in it. pentamerous symmetry.
5 (d) Phylum–Coelenterata, Echinodermata and 26 (c) The option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as
Ctenophora are the only phyla, which exhibit radial Notochord is formed during embryonic development.
symmetry. However, one must remember that But it does not persist throughout life in human as it
echinoderms look like radially symmetrical, but their gets replaced by the vertebral column in adult stage.
original symmetry is bilateral. This type of symmetry is 28 (c) Choanocytes are the flagellated cells lining the
called pentamerous symmetry. spongocoel (central cavity) in poriferans or sponges.
7 (b) In bilaterally symmetrical animals, the response to The function of a choanocyte is to create water flow
external stimulus is quicker and more precise. through the body of a sponge. This allow nutrients to
filter through and feed the sponge.
10 (c) Poriferans, coelenterates and ctenophores are
diploblastic animals, while all animals included in 29 (c) Water exits the spongocoel (central cavity) in
phylum–Platyhelminthes to phylum–Chordata are sponges through the osculum. Ostia are the minute
triploblastic animals. Protozoans are single-celled pores on the body, through which water enters the
animals and do not form any germ layers. spongocoel. Ommatidia are present in insect eye.
Choanocytes are flagellated cells in sponges.
11 (a) Echinoderms include triploblastic animals,
i.e. those animals which form three germ layers during 30 (d) The body wall of a common sponge consists of
embryonic development. three layers, i.e. pinacoderm, choanoderm and
mesophyll layer. Choanoderm is the inner cellular layer
12 (b) Ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm are the which consists of choanocytes.
differentiated embryonic layers in animals. Mesoglea is
the undifferentiated layer present in between the 31 (a) The ascon type is the simplest type of canal system
ectoderm and endoderm in sponges. found in asconoid sponges like Leucosolenia. The
course of water current is ascon type of canal system
13 (b) Body cavity lined by mesoderm is referred to as looks like
coelom. It is absent in acoelomate animals. When the Through
mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between Ingressing water → Spongocoel
Ostia
ectoderm and endoderm, such animals are called Through osculum
pseudocoelomates. → Exterior
15 (c) Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate (false coelom
derived from embryonic blastocoel), triploblastic, 32 (a) Bodies of the animals belonging to the
bilaterally symmetrical and unsegmented organisms. phylum–Porifera are made up of spicules or spongin
fibres.
16 (c) The given cross-section is of Planaria an
33 (c) Asexual reproduction in sponges takes place by
acoelomate flatworm. Flatworms are devoid of cavities
in between the alimentary canal and body wall and fragmentation. Encystment occurs in cnidarians.
hence are called acoelomate. Multiple fission and binary fission occurs in protozoans.
35 (b) In Porifera (sponges), bodies are asymmetrical.

18 (b) Notochord is derived from mesoderm and is formed
on the dorsal side of chordate animals during their Body lacks tissue or organs, but forms a meshwork of
embryonic development. cells surrounding channels that open to the outside
through pores and that expand into internal cavities
20 (d) Euspongia, Fasciola and Hydra belongs to lined with food filtering flagellated cells (choanocytes).
phylum–Porifera, Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata, Development is indirect having a larval stage which is
respectively. These do not contain the tube-within-tube morphologically distinct from adult.
body plan.
36 (b) Spirulina is an alga and not a poriferan which
Tube-within-tube is a body plan in which digestive serves as a food source for protein used by astronaut.
canal is present inside the body cavity have appears Rest three animals belong to Porifera.
tube with in a tube. All animals from the
37 (b) Option (b) is not correct for coelenterates as the
phylum–Aschelminthes to Chordata have Phylum–Coelenterata or Cnidaria have tissue level of
tube-within-tube body plan and may be either organisation. Cellular level of organisation is only
protostomous or deuterostomous. present in phylum–Porifera. Rest options are correct.
38 (c) Phylum–Coelenterata or Cnidaria are divided into 55 (d) Fasciola belong to Phylum–Platyhelminthes.
class–Scyphozoa, Anthozoa and Hydrozoa. Actinozoa Animals of these phyla have flame cells which helps in
is another name for class–Anthozoa. excretion.
Class–Desmospongia belongs to phylum–Porifera. 57 (c) Fasciola or liverfluke, Planaria and Taenia or
39 (b) Leucosolenia never performs locomotion, because tapeworm are examples of animals that belong to
they are sessile. Ascaris is a parasite. Hydra locomotes phylum–Platyhelminthes. Ascaris or round worm is an
by contracting its body muscles. example of phylum–Aschelminthes.
42 (d) Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called 58 (a) Option (a) is correct for Platyhelminthes. Rest are
medusa (A) and polyp (B). Polyp is sessile form and incorrect and can be corrected as
medusa is a free-swimming umbrella-shaped forms. l
These are mostly endoparasites found in animals
Polyp (B) produce medusa (A) asexually and medusa (including humans).
(A) form the polyp (B) sexually. l
These contain an incomplete digestive system.
44 (b) The medusa of Obelia shows radial symmetry. It is l
Polyembryony is the development of two or more
a free-swimming, umbrella-like sexual generation. It is
embryos from a single fertilised egg. This phenomenon
formed by blastostyle. It brings about sexual
occurs commonly in vertebrates, invertebrates and
reproduction and dispersal of species.
plants (not in Platyhelminthes).
45 (c) Metagenesis is seen in those forms of phylum–
Coelenterata that exist in both body forms, i.e. polyp 59 (b) If a living Hydra and Planaria is cut into two, three
and medusa, e.g. Obelia. or more pieces, every piece develops into a new
individual as Hydra and Planaria reproduces asexually
46 (c) Skeleton of corals is composed of calcium by regeneration.
carbonate. Siliceous spicules and calcareous spicules are
present in phylum–Porifera. 60 (a) Trichocyst and nematocyst release toxins, which is
used to kill prey and thus used in defence mechanism by
47 (b) In Hydra, the asexual reproduction mainly occurs the organism.
through external budding in the middle and basal part of
the body. The bud initially seen as a protuberance, 61 (c) Members of the phylum – Aschelminthes have both
which gradually grows as a diverticulum. Soon, it mouth and anus. Thus, this phylum is said to be the first
develops gastrovascular cavity, tentacles, hypostome to have a complete digestive system (alimentary canal).
and mouth. The cavity of bud later on separates off 62 (a) Aschelminthes are dioecious with separate sexes
from the parent body. Thus, forming a young Hydra. and females are usually longer than males.
48 (c) The figure represents cnidoblast or cnidocyte, found 63 (c) Trichinella spiralis shows viviparity. It is a parasitic
in animals of the phylum–Coelenterata. nematode which copulate in human intestine, after
Cnidoblasts contain stinging capsule, which releases the which male dies and female produces larvae, which
toxin, thus used in the defence mechanism by the enter into the human blood circulation to reach the
animals belonging to phylum–Coelenterata. muscles. The production of larvae indicates vivipary.
49 (d) Cnidarian members are found both in freshwater 65 (b) Hookworm or Ancyclostomata belongs to
and marine environments, while members of phylum–Aschelminthes. It is a triploblastic
Ctenophora, Cephalochordata and Echinodermata are pseudocoelomate, bilaterally symmetrical human
found exclusively in marine environment. parasite, which is oviparous and causes an
ancylostomiasis disease through contaminated soil.
50 (a) The members of the phylum – Ctenophora appear
like jellies and have eight external rows of ciliated 66 (b) Ascaris is characterised by the presence of neither
comb plates. true coelom nor metamerism. Body of Ascaris is
elongated, cylindrical gradually tapering at both ends.
51 (a) Phylum–Ctenophora shows similarities (affinities) There is no metameric segmentation. The cavity
with phylum–Cnidaria. The similarities are lack of between body wall and visceral organs is a spacious
coelom, presence of radial symmetry, diploblastic body fluid filled cavity.
wall, absence of organ systems, presence of statocyst,
presence of tentacles, etc. This cavity is not true coelom as it is not lined by
coelomate epithelium, has no relation with reproductive
52 (b) Ctenoplana belongs to phylum–Ctenophora. and excretory organs and develops from blastocoel.
Reproduction in all the animals belonging to phylum–
Ctenophora takes place by sexual reproduction only. 68 (d) Phylum–Annelida is named, so because the animals
belonging to this phylum has the body, which is marked
53 (a) Animals of phylum–Platyhelminthes have hooks into distinct segments or metameres.
and suckers and are endoparasite of other animals.
69 (d) Annelids are true coelomates with bilateral
These are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, symmetry. Platyhelminthes are acoelomates,
acoelomate animals with blind sac body plan. They live Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates and adult
as endoparasites in intestine of other animals. For this echinoderms show radial symmetry.
purpose, they bear hooks or suckers near their mouth
region which help them to cling on the intestinal walls 70 (b) Longitudinal and circular muscles are useful in
of the host and obtain nutrition. locomotion in animals of the phylum–Annelida.
Nephridia are the part of the excretory and used for tearing plant material by rubbing it against the
osmoregulatory system. Organs of bursa are copulatory hardened surface of the mouth. Suckers are present in
organs present in male hookworms. Spicules are present parasitic platyhelminthes to enable them to absorb
in animals belonging to phylum–Porifera. nutrients from the host.
71 (d) Metamerism first appeared in members of Undulating membrane and sucktorial organs are
phylum – Annelida. Metamerism refers to the present in ciliated protozoans. Ctenidia are the gills of
phenomenon in which there is a serial repetition of aquatic molluscs.
atleast some organs with external and internal division of 88 (a) Out of the given options, radula, the rasping organ
the body. used for feed is found in Loligo (squid).
73 (d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech and sponge are all Merceneria, Argopecten and oysters do not possess
hermaphrodite animals. These animals do not have radula.
separate sexes. But animals like housefly, frog, sea horse 89 (d) Option (d) is incorrect. It can be corrected as
and roundworm (Ascaris) are dioecious, i.e. male and
Molluscs are terrestrial or aquatic (marine or
female sexes are present in distinct organism.
freshwater) having an organ system level of
74 (c) Pheretima (earthworm), Tubifex and Nereis belong organisation. They are bilaterally symmetrical,
to phylum–Annelida. Aphrodite, Pila, Dentalium and triploblastic and coelomate, e.g. Pila.
Aplysia belong to Mollusca. Wuchereria belongs to
Aschelminthes and Hirudinaria is also an annelid. 90 (c) Option (c) is incorrect match. It can be corrected as
Pila is apple snail. Chiton is Chaetopleura. Rest all are
76 (b) Parapodia are present in aquatic annelids like Nereis,
correct.
which help them in swimming. Other three features, i.e.
metameric segmentation, jointed appendages and 91 (a) Development of Mollusca is similar to annelids in
chitinous exoskeleton are present in a way that their indirect development is with
phylum–Arthropoda. Out of these, metameric trochopore larvae. Molluscs also show direct
segmentation is visible as tagmetisation. development in some forms.
77 (c) Exoskeleton of insects is primarily made up of 92 (d) Cephalopods such as Octopus, cuttlefish and squid
proteins and chitin (N-acetyl glucosamine) interwoven (coleoids) are the most advanced invertebrates among
and linked together to form strong flexible bundles. The the given options. They belong to class–Cephalopoda
rigid and strong nature of exoskeleton allows insects to of phylum–Mollusca.
become complex and diversity with regards to size, These organisms have a prominent head and a set arms
shape, colour and show adaptable modifications. or tentacles. They are widely regarded as the most
80 (b) Option (b) is incorrect becasue arthropods can have intelligent of invertebrates and have well-developed
simple or compound eyes. senses and larger brains. Their nervous system is the
81 (b) Cockroach, scorpion and prawn belong to most complex of all invertebrates.
phylum–Arthropoda. Schistosoma and Planaria belongs 93 (a) Echinoderms are exclusively marine and have no
to Platyhelminthes. Chiton and Neopilina belongs to freshwater forms. The animals of this phylum are
Mollusca. largely bottom dwellers, enterocoelous coelomate and
83 (c) Locust are of no economic importance, instead are triploblastic.
gregarious pests that may even completely destroy crops. 94 (d) Echinoderms are ammonotelic and nitrogenous
84 (c) Phylum–Mollusca is the second largest phylum wastes are excreted via gills, bursae, respiratory trees
containing more than 1,00,000 species and probably the and tube feet.
most sophisticated of all invertebrates. 98 (c) Option (c) is correct. Antedon or sea lily,
Phylum–Arthropoda is the first largest phylum, having Cucumaria or sea cucumber, Echinus or sea urchins
most successful invertebrates, in terms of number of and Ophiura or brittle star belong to phylum–
species (about 9,00,000). Echinodermata. Cuttlefish or Sepia, Chaetopleura or

85 (b) Option (b) is correct. Other options can be chiton and Aplysea or sea hare belong to
corrected as phylum–Mollusca.
Phylum–Mollusca do not have metameric segmentation, 99 (b) Sea hare belongs to phylum–Mollusca, sea
they have a calcareous exoskeleton with organ system cucumber (Cucumaria), sea urchin (Echinus) and sea
level of organisation, but shows the presence of mantle lily (Antedon) belong to phylum–Echinodermata.
cavity and coelomic cavity during development. 101 (c) All the given animals except earthworm
86 (d) The body of animals belonging to phylum–Mollusca undergoes metamorphosis. Earthworm exhibits direct
are divided into head, muscular foot and visceral hump, development where no larval stage is involved.
while animals belonging to phylum–Arthropoda is Metamorphosis is usually seen in animals exhibiting
divided into head, thorax and abdomen. indirect development, involving a larval stage which
87 (d) Radula is present in animals belonging to later transformed into an adult.
phylum–Mollusca. It is a rasping organ of molluscs Larval form of moth is caterpillar and that of tunicates
situated in a sac on the underside of buccal cavity. It is is tadpole. In starfish, bipinneria larva occurs.
102 (a) Option (a) is incorrectly matched and can be Clarias, Catla and Labeo are freshwater fishes, i.e.
corrected as these are found in rivers, lakes, etc.
Pila has unsegmented body. It is a mollusc animal. 127 (d) Swim bladder/Air bladder in bony fishes regulates
Rest options are correct. buoyancy. This helps them to stay at any particular
depth in water without spending energy.
103 (c) The important characteristic that hemichordates
share with chordates is pharynx with gill slits. These gill 129 (b) Clarias, a bony fish contains an air/swim bladder.
slits are narrow openings in the pharynx. The position Torpedo, Scolidon and Elasmobranch come under the
of these pharyngeal gill slits is lateral in chordates, class–Chondrichthyes and hence do not possess an air
while dorsal in hemichordates. bladder.
106 (c) The body of Balanoglossus is cylindrical and 130 (d) The given figure is of a frog which is an amphibian.
composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar and a long Amphibians have a eyes with eyelids.
trunk. 131 (b) Option (b) is correct as
107 (d) Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in the Class–Amphibia and class–Reptilia share the following
collar region called stomochord, a structure similar to features.
notochord. They are worm-like marine animals. The presence of tympanum is seen in both classes,
Respiration takes place through gills. Thus, option (d) is which represents the ear.
correct.
Animals of both classes are cold-blooded or
114 (a) Option (a) contains the correct pair of difference poikilotherms and usually have a three-chambered heart
between notochord in Urochordata and (except crocodile).
Cephalochordata. In Urochordata, notochord is present
only in larval tail, while in Cephalochordata, it extends 132 (d) Option (d) is correct. Reptiles are different from
from head to tail region and is persistent throughout amphibians have a smooth moist skin, while the
their life. reptilian skin is scaly, rough and dry, and is periodically
shed off by a process of moulting.
117 (b) Option (b) is incorrect about the class– The amphibian heart is three-chambered, while the
Cyclostomata. It can be corrected as reptilian heart is four-chambered.
Cyclostomata have elongated body devoid of scales and The amphibian larva usually undergoes metamorphosis
paired fins. unlike the reptilian young one.
118 (d) Myxine is a member of the class–Cyclostomata that 133 (d) Both snakes and frogs (adults) respire through
has 6-15 pairs of gill slits and a closed circulatory lungs. Frog tadpoles breathe through gills under water,
system. They do not have jaws. but adult frogs breathe through lungs and moist skin.
119 (d) Petromyzon (the lamprey) belongs to the section Diaphragm is absent in both frogs and snakes. Only
Agnatha of class–Cyclostomata of the subphylum– frogs utilise their buccal cavity to carry out
Vertebrata. They lay eggs in freshwater, but their buccopharyngeal respiration.
ammocoete larvae (lower) after metamorphosis return to 135 (c) The class name Reptilia refers to their creeping or
the ocean. crawling mode of locomotion (Latin, repere or reptum
120 (a) Option (a) is correctly matched as Petromyzon to creep or crawl).
(lamprey) is an ectoparasite on fishes, which belongs to 136 (d) Chameleon belongs to suborder–Zacertilia includes
Cyclostomata. Other options can be corrected as lizards of order–Squamata. Syndactyly (refers to a
Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian. Limulus (king condition where two or more digits are fused together);
crab) is a living fossil, which belongs to Arthropoda. prehensile tail and long protrusible tongue are the
Adamsia having polyp body form is a coelenterates. unique features of Chameleon.
121 (d) Chondrichthyes is one of the class of 139 (a) Option (a) is correct as Animal ‘A’ is Salamandra
superclass–Pisces, subphylum–Vertebrata and and ‘B’ is Chameleon. Salamandra is an amphibian,

phylum–Chordata. The mouth of the members of with 3-chambered heart and shows external fertilisation.
class–Chondrichthyes is located ventrally and the teeth Chameleon on the other hand is a reptile with
are modified placoid scales, which are in backward 3-chambered heart and shows internal fertilisation.
direction. 140 (d) Option (d) is correct. Other options are incorrect
123 (d) Chondrichthyes are devoid of air bladder and thus and can be corrected as
they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking. Hence, l
Pteropus (flying fox) shows viviparity but not
the presence of air bladder is not a characteristic feature Ornithorhynchus (platypus).
of Chondrichthyes. l
Garden lizard have 3-chambered heart, but crocodile
124 (c) The given figure is that of Hippocampus (sea horse) have 4-chambered heart.
which is a bony fish. It does not have a poisonous sting l
Ancylostoma shows metamerism, but not Ascaris.
at tail and this feature is present in Trygon. 141 (d) Option (d) is incorrect for Aves and can be
125 (c) Out of the given examples of bony fishes, corrected as
Hippocampus (sea horse) and Exocoetus (flying fish) The forelimbs of Aves are modified into wings and have
are marine fishes, i.e. these are found in sea water. powerful flight muscles. Rest options are correct.
143 (c) Birds and mammals maintain constant body belong to Aschelminthes. All of these are endoparasites
temperature and hence are called homiothermous. and cause intestinal infection.
144 (c) Aves (e.g. pigeon) contain pneumatic bones. The main cause of the intestinal infection is improperly
Pneumatic bones contain air cavities to reduce body cooked food. However, tapeworm infection occurs by
weight and thus aid which in flying. Other options are eating improperly cooked food, Ascaris is transmitted
not example of Aves. by contaminated food and water and Enterobius
146 (c) Beak or bill of birds is formed due to prolonged vermicularis or pinworm may be transmitted through
growth in jaw bones. Beak of birds never bears teeths, food or improper sanitary conditions.
rest three options may be exception in birds. 163 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can
147 (a) Crop and gizzard are found in the digestive tract of be corrected as
birds (Aves). Crop helps in storage and softening of food Taenia and Dugesia both belong to Platyhelminthes.
particles whereas gizzard (muscular stomach) helps in Platyhelminthes are acoelomate animals.
crushing and churning of food. 164 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
148 (c) Certain amphibians like the Chameleon are able to correct explanation of Assertion.
change colour, this is known as metachrosis. In gastropods, the skin of visceral mass forms a thin
150 (c) Mammalia is the only class in which members delicate covering called mantle over the head.
contains mammary glands and hence is an unique The hindgut of alimentary canal is composed of rectum
characteristic among the members of this class. and anus. The anus is located at anterior end. Due to
153 (c) The group of animals in which females give birth to torsion during the developmental stages in most
young ones are called viviparous and this phenomenon gastropods, the visceral mass and the shell of embryo
as vivipary, e.g. rabbit, dog, humans, etc. become spirally coiled (due to unequal growth).
154 (d) The presence of muscular diaphragm is an exclusive 165 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
character of mammals. A complete muscular partition corrected as
separates the thoracic cavity housing the heart and the Amphibians cannot live in the sea water because their
lungs from the abdominal cavity containing all other body will lose water due to high salinity of sea water
viscera. This is called the diaphragm. Its function is to by exosmosis as their body lacks scales or an
increase the efficiency of breathing. impermeable exoskeleton.
155 (c) The character mentioned in option (c) is not a 166 (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. Assertion can
mammalian character without exception. be corrected as
Mammals such as doplhins, whales, elephants, mole, Many animals have both an endoskeleton and an
rats, etc., have little to no body hair. exoskeleton such as Chelon (turtle) or
Rest of the options contain characters that are present in Testudo-(tortoise). During embryonic stage, skeleton
all the mammals without exception. cells migrate to produce both exoskeleton and
157 (c) Option (c) is odd as endoskeleton.
Neophron–Vulture is a bird. Rest of the animals are all 167 (a) Both the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
mammals. is the correct explanation for Assertion.
158 (b) Among the given animals Chelone is not a Aves feed more often than reptiles because Aves are
homeotherm. It is green sea turtle belonging to endothermic (homeotherms) and need to produce heat
class–Reptilia which are ectotherms or cold-blooded and through various metabolic activities in order to
their internal body temperature varies according to the constantly maintain body temperature. Whereas
ambient environment. Rest all are homotherms. amphibians are poikilotherms thus do need more
energy because their body temperature changes with
160 (c) Among the given options, option (c) contains all respect to surrounding.
aquatic mammals. Whales are inhabitants of the open
sea, while seal (Phoca) is a marine carnivore. Dolphins 169 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct. Rest of the
are found in rivers. statement are incorrect and can be corrected as
Phylum–Porifera have choanocyte cells, but
Trygon and sharks are fishes, which belong to nematocyst is present in cnidoblasts cells and is seen
class–Chondrichthyes of superclass–Pisces. in animals that belong to phylum–Coelenterata. All
161 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is ctenophoras exhibit radial symmetry. Wuchereria
the correct explanation of Assertion. belongs to phylum–Aschelminthes.
Radial symmetry is advantageous as it allows the animal 170 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as
to respond to stimulus from any direction, allowing it to Pleurobrachia belongs to phylum–Ctenophora. There
detect food and danger easily. reproduction is only by sexual means. Ctenophora are
162 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason diploblastic, with tissue level of organisation and have
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. of comb plates. Comb plates are characteristic feature
Tapeworm (Taenia solium) belongs to Platyhelminthes of phylum–Ctenophora.
and roundworm (Ascaris), pinworm (Enterobius) 171 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Rest of the
Molluscs are coelomates, flatworms are acoelomates and 183 (b) All statements are false.
insects are coelomates. The corrected form of the statements are
172 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be l
In higher phyla, organ and organ system level of
corrected as organisation is seen.
The excretory system in Annelida consists of nephridia. l
Phylum–Platyhelminthes have organ level of body
Flame cells are part of the excretory system of animals organisation.
belonging to phylum–Platyhelminthes. Rest statements l
Cellular level of organisation is seen when the cells
are correct. are arranged as loose cell aggregates.
l
Molluscs exhibit organ level of body organisation.
corrected as 184 (d) Only the statement III is correct. Rest of the
Echinoderms are deuterostomous coelomates. These are statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
animals in which blastopore of gastrula becomes the anus l
Cell aggregate body plan is only found in
in the adult, e.g. Echinodermata and Chordata. phylum–Porifera.
Rest all statements are correct. l
Bilateral symmetry is the most common symmetry
175 (d) Option (d) is the correct statement. found in animals.
Animal A – Liver fluke (Fasciola), bilaterally l
Triploblastic animals like Platyhelminthes lack a
symmetrical, acoelomate, endoparasite, monoecious. coelom. Haemocoel is present in Mollusca and
Animal B – Nereis, free-living, aquatic, bilateral Arthropoda.
symmetry, coelomate, dioecious. 185 (c) Statements I, III and IV are correct. The incorrect
Animal C – Pila, aquatic, bilateral symmetry, coelomate, statement II can be corrected as
dioecious. Platyhelminthes exhibits organ level of organisation.
Animal D – Asterias, aquatic, radial symmatry, 186 (c) Statement V is incorrect for sponges. It can be
coelomate, dioecious. corrected as
177 (b) Option (b) is correct. Other statements can be Sexes are not separate in sponges. They are
corrected as hermaphrodite, i.e. eggs and sperms are produced by
l
Mammals can be oviparous or viviparous. the same individual.
l
Reptiles are with 3-chambered heart except crocodiles Rest statements are correct.
which are with 4-chambered heart. 188 (a) The animal given is Hirudinaria belonging to the
l
Pisces have gills covered by operculum in Osteichythes phylum–Annelida. It is a triploblastic, bilaterally
and without it in Chondrichthyes. symmetrical coelomate. It shows metameric
segmentation. It is monoecious animal without lateral
178 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
appendages. It possesses closed circulatory system.
corrected as
Lateral appendages are possessed by Nereis.
Notochord is persistent throughout life in Osteichthyes as
189 (b) Statements I, II and IV are correct for starfish
vertebral column.
(Asterias) which belongs to the
179 (d) The statement given in option (d) is incorrect. It can phylum–Echinodermata. Statement III is incorrect and
be corrected as can be corrected as
Female cartilaginous fishes do not have claspers. Claspers In starfish, digestive system is complete with mouth
are the special copulatory organs that are possessed only on the lower (ventral) side and anus on the upper
by the male cartilaginous fishes. (dorsal) side.
180 (c) The statement given in option (c) is correct for the 190 (c) Statements I and II are true for Wuchereria
figure of Catla given. Rest of the statements are incorrect (Filarialworm) and statements III and IV are false.
and can be corrected as The correct form of the wrong statements are
l
Its skin is covered with cycloid/ctenoid scales. In Wuchereria, as well as for all animals belonging to
l
Bony fishes have four pairs of gills covered by an phylum–Aschelminthes, females are longer than
operculum on each side. males and they have an organ system level of
l
Mouth is mostly terminal and jaws are not as powerful as organisation.
that of cartilaginous fishes. 191 (b) Only statement II is correct. Rest of the
181 (b) Option (b) is correct without exception. Other options statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
can be correctly described as l
Mollusca bear organ system level of organisation.
l
All reptiles have 3-chambered heart except crocodiles. l
Platyhelminthes are acoelomates.
l
Sponges are mostly marine, but freshwater forms also l
Ctenophores have radial symmetry.
exist. 192 (c) Both statements are true. Most arthropods, certain
l
Mammals can be oviparous or viviparous. molluscs and tunicates have open circulatory system.
In them, a fluid bathes the internal-tissue and and internally into segments with a serial repetition of at
organs directly. It oozes through spaces or cavities least some organs, e.g. in annelids (earthworm).
that surround the organs. This fluid is usually
218 (b) Interstitial cells are the totipotent cells present in the
referred to as haemolymph.
body of cnidarians that are capable of giving rise to different
193 (c) Both statement I and II are true. Lancelet or kinds of specialised cells which perform different functions.
Branchiostoma or Amphioxus (a jawless fish) is a
protochordate. It belongs to 219 (b) Crocodiles, birds, mammals have a four-chambered heart.
group-Cephalochordata. The general characters of Heart is usually three-chambered in reptiles with the
protochordates are the presence of dorsal tubular exception of crocodiles, which possess four-chambered
nerve cord, notochord and pharyngeal gill slits heart. The division in their heart is due to the incomplete
throughout their life. interventricular septum, in ventricles.
194 (c) Both statement I and II are true. The members 220 (b) Chameleon and turtle belong to the class–Reptilia and
of sub-phylum–Vertebrata possess notochord possess dry and non-glandular skin with scales.
during the embryonic period. The notochord is 221 (d) Warm-blooded body is the common characteristic feature
replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral in birds and mammals. Warm-blooded animals can maintain
column in adults. Thus, all vertebrates are constant body temperature, irrespective of the surrounding
chordates, but all chordates are not vertebrates. environment, i.e. their body temperature is fixed.
195 (b) Statements I, II and V are correct but III and IV
222 (c) Monkey, chimpanzee and man belong to a single
are incorrect. The correct form of the false
statements are taxonomic group, i.e. mammals because all of them possess
the following characters
l
Skin of amphibians is moist, but naked, i.e. scales
are absent. Glands are present on their skin which
(i) Milk producing mammary glands.
keep it moist. This moist skin aids in respiration (ii) Two pairs of limbs.
besides protection. (iii) The presence of external ears.
l
Birds (Aves) are warm-blooded or homeothermic (iv) Viviparity.
or endothermal tetrapods as the temperature of the (v) Skin possessing hairs.
body remains constant as compared to that of 223 (c) The statement, Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal, is
surrounding. incorrect as it does not possess body cavity and hence, is an
215 (a) The correct option is a acoelomate.
l
Porifera – Fertilisation is internal with indirect 224 (a) The statement (a) is incorrect because Malpighian tubules
development. are excretory structures in most of the insects, including
l
Ctenophora – Fertilisation is external with cockroach, but green glands perform excretory functions in
indirect
crustaceans like prawns.
development. 225 (c) Except Python, all other mentioned snakes are highly
l
Aschelminthes – Fertilisation is internal with poisonous in nature. Python is large in size and kills its
direct or indirect development.
prey by wrapping and constricting its body around its prey.
l
Arthropoda – Fertilisation is usually internal 227 (b) When body cavity is not completely lined by the
with direct or indirect development. mesoderm and instead is present in the form of scattered
pouches, in between ectoderm and endoderm, then this type
l
Echinodermata – Fertilisation is usually external of body cavity is called pseudocoelomate, e.g. roundworm.
with indirect development.
229 (a) Platypus is a primitive mammal and shows many
l
Hemichordata – Fertilisation external with characters of its reptilian descent, such as oviparity, i.e. it
indirect development. lays eggs.
217 (b) Metamerism is the pattern of segmentation in Rest all the three animals, i.e. flying fox, elephant and whale
which the animal body is divided both externally are viviparous mammals and give birth to young ones.
CHAPTER > 05
Morphology of
Flowering Plants
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Morphology deals with the study of external features, forms (ii) Adventitious root system Roots which are produced
and relative position of plant organs. from any other part of the plant, except the radicle or its
Å Plants adopt various morphological features according to the branches are called adventitious roots. These roots are
surrounding environment. The two main plant parts are the mainly found in monocots, e.g. grasses, cereals,
underground root system and the above ground shoot sugarcane, etc.
system. Adventitious roots are modified into fleshy roots (for
storage, e.g. Ipomoea), prop roots (e.g. Ficus benghalensis),
The Root stilt roots (e.g. Zea mays), climbing roots (e.g. Tecoma),
assimilatory roots (e.g. Trapa), haustorial roots (e.g.
Å It is the underground, non-green portion of the plant arising
Cuscuta), etc.
from the radicle of seed, mainly involved in absorption of
water and minerals from soil, providing proper anchorage to (iii) Fibrous root system In monocotyledonous plants, the
plant parts, storing reserve food and biosynthesis of plant primary root is short-lived and is replaced by large
growth regulators. number of roots. These roots originate from the base of
system and constitute the fibrous root system as seen
Å From seeds, radicle elongates and grows inside the soil to such as wheat, rice, corn, etc.
form primary root. In case of dicotyledonous plants, primary
root elongates and bears lateral root of several orders known
as secondary or tertiary roots.
Regions of the Root
A typical root consists of four regions namely
Å The root systems are generally of following types
Å Root cap Thimble-like structure which covers the root apex
(i) Tap root system The primary roots and its branches
and protects the tender apical part.
(secondary and tertiary roots) constitute the tap root
system. It is seen in dicot plants, e.g. mustard plant. Å Region of meristematic activity Contains actively dividing
cells which are small and thin-walled, with dense protoplasm.
In some plants, tap roots are modified for storage (fleshy
roots in carrot), respiration (pneumatophores in Å Region of elongation Cells of this region increase the length
Rhizophora) and for nitrogen-fixation (nodulated roots in of the roots by undergoing repeated elongation and
legumes). enlargement.
CHAPTER 05 > Morphology of Flowering Plants 105
Å Region of maturation Constitutes major portion of roots n

Cladode It is a type of phylloclade consisting of one
where cells gradually differentiate and mature. Some of the internode only. The stem is modified into leaf-like
epidermal cells bear root hairs. structure, e.g. Asparagus.
n
Bulbil A multicellular structure, functions as organ of
Root hairs
vegetative reproduction, e.g. Oxalis, Dioscorea, etc.
Å Sub-aerial stem These stems are recognised into four types
n
Offset This is a short horizontal branch with a bunch
Region of cell of leaves on the upper portion and bunch of roots on
maturation the lower portion, e.g. Pistia, Eichhornia, etc.
n
Stolon These stem modifications initially grow
upwards and then arch down to develop new
daughter plants, when come in contact with soil, e.g.
Region of cell elongation
Colocasia, strawberry, etc.
n
Runner It is a weak stem or branch that grows
Region of cell division horizontally above the soil surface and develops
(Meristematic zone) adventitious roots at each nodes, e.g. Cynodon, Oxalis,
Root cap
Hydrocotyle, etc.
Regions of the root tip n
Sucker It grows horizontally under the soil initially
and later grows obliquely upwards, e.g. rose, mint,
The Stem Chrysanthemum, etc.
Å It is the aerial part of plant arising from the plumule of
germinating seed. It bears nodes and internodes. Its main The Leaf
function is spreading out shoots bearing leaves, flowers and Å It is a green, flat lateral appendage, located on node of
fruits. It conducts water, minerals and photosynthates. stem, which is exogenous in origin. Leaves mainly
Å Some stems perform the function of storage of food, involved in photosynthesis and axillary buds are found
support, protection and vegetative propagation. in their axil. The buds later develops into a branch.
Å Stems are modified to perform different functions. These Å It consists of following parts
modifications are of three types n
Leaf base (Hypopodium) Through which leaf
Å Underground stem This type of modification occurs attaches to stem, may bear stipules. If it gets swollen,
generally for food storage and vegetative propagation. They it is known as pulvinus.
are of four types n
Petiole (Mesopodium) holds lamina with the base.
n
Bulb It is reduced, disc-shaped stem which bears Sessile leaves do not possess petiole.
adventitious roots on the lower side and scaly leaves on n
Lamina (Epipodium) or the Leaf blade Green,
the upper side, e.g. onion, garlic, etc. flattened part of leaf, which helps in photosynthesis,
n
Rhizome It forms a horizontally running stem and bears transpiration and respiration.
nodes, internodes, buds and scaly leaves, which are used
for vegetative propagation, e.g. ginger, turmeric, etc.
Venation
Distribution of vein and veinlets in the lamina of leaf is
n
Corm It is a condensed structure which grows vertically
called venation. It is of following types
into the soil and bears scale leaves, e.g. Colocasia, etc.
Å Reticulate venation The veinlets are irregularly
n
Tuber It swells up randomly and bears ‘eyes’, e.g. potato,
distributed to form a network, e.g. dicot plants.
etc.
Å Parallel venation The veins are arranged parallel to each
Å Aerial stem These stems are of following types
other, e.g. monocot plants.
n
Stem tendril In plants with weak stem, the apical bud is
modified into tendril for climbing, e.g. Passiflora, Types of Leaves
cucumber, etc. On the basis of incision of lamina, the leaves are of two
n
Phylloclade In this, the stem is modified into flat, fleshy types
and green leaf-like structure, e.g. Opuntia, Coccoloba, Å Simple leaves In this, there is a single lamina, which is
Ruscus, etc. usually entire, e.g. mango, guava, Cucurbita, etc.

n
Stem thorn Axil of the leaf or apex of the branch is Å Compound leaves In this type of leaf, the incision of
modified into pointed structure called thorn, e.g. Citrus, lamina, reach up to midrib or petiole, e.g. rose, neem,
Bougainvillea, etc. lemon, etc.
NEET KEY NOTES

These are of two types

Inflorescence
Å
n
Pinnately compound leaves A number of leaflets
It is the arrangement of flowers on the floral axis of stem.
are present on common axis, the rachis which
represents the midrib of the leaf as in neem. Å Racemose The main axis continues to grow; flowers are borne
laterally in acropetal or centripetal succession. Racemose
n
Palmately compound leaves The leaflets are
inflorescence further constitutes the following types
attached at a common point, i.e. as the tip of
petiole, as in silk cotton.
n
Raceme, e.g. mustard.
n
Panicle, e.g. gulmohur.
Phyllotaxy n
Corymb, e.g. candytuft.
It is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem n
Spike, e.g. bottle brush.
or branch. This is usually of three types n
Spikelet, e.g. wheat.
Å In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises n
Spadix, e.g. palm.
at each node in alternate manner, e.g. Mangifera n
Catkin, e.g. mulberry.
indica (mango), Hibiscus rosa-sinensis (China rose), n
Umbel, e.g. coriander.
Brassica campestris (mustard), Nicotiana tabacum n
Capitulum, e.g. sunflower.
(tobacco).
n
Capitate, e.g. Acacia.
Å In opposite type of phyllotaxy, each node gives
rise to two leaves lying opposite to each other, e.g. Å Cymose The main axis terminates in flower; flowers are borne in
Calotropis, guava. basipetal succession (e.g. Calotropis). Cymose inflorescence has
been further categorised as
Å In whorled phyllotaxy, more than two leaves arise
at a node and form a whorl, e.g. Alstonia, Nerium,
n
Monochasial, which constitutes
Vangueria, etc. u
Scorpioid, e.g. Ranunculus. u
Helicoid, e.g. Begonia.
n
Dichasial, e.g. Clerodendrum.
Modifications of Leaves n
Polychasial, e.g. Dianthus.
Leaves are often modified to perform functions other n
Cymose head, e.g. Anthocephallus.
than photosynthesis.
Å Mixed inflorescence It is formed when two or more types of
Å Leaf tendrils These are thread-like sensitive inflorescence get mixed up to form an inflorescence. It includes
structures, which can coil around a support to help n
Panicle of spikelets, e.g. oat, wheat
the plant in climbing, e.g. wild pea (Lathyrus
aphaca), Pisum sativum (sweet pea) and Gloriosa
n
Spike of spikelets, e.g. rice
superba (glory lily). n
Corymb of capitula, e.g. Ageratum
Å Phyllode It is a green, short-lived and flattened n
Thyrsus, e.g. grapvine
petiole or rachis of a leaf, which performs the Å Special type of inflorescence includes
function of photosynthesis, e.g. Australian Acacia. n
Cyathium, e.g. Euphorbia
Phyllodes develop usually vertically and possess n
Hypanthodium, e.g. fig, peepal
fewer stomata hence, reduce transpiration.
n
Verticillaster, e.g. Ocimum.
Å Bladder The segments of the leaf modify into
bladder-like structures, which trap small insects
for nutrition, e.g. bladderwort (Utricularia). The Flower
Flower is the reproductive unit in the angiosperms. It is meant for
Å Pitcher It is a petiole modified into a tendril to
sexual reproduction. Morphologically, it is considered as a shoot
hold the pitcher upright. The leaf base is expanded
bearing nodes and modified floral leaves.
to carry out photosynthesis. The leaf apex is
modified into a lid, e.g. Nepenthes, Dischidia and Å A flower arises in the axil of a leaf-like structure called bract.
Sarracenia. Flowers with bracts are called bracteate and those without bracts
are called ebracteate.
Å Leaf spines The entire leaf or a part of a leaf may
be modified into a pointed structure called a spine, Å The terminal part of the axis of the flower is the receptacle or
as in Opuntia or cacti. thalamus. The receptacle contains sepals, petals, stamens and
carpels. If the leaves are present on the pedicel, they are called
Å Scale leaves These are thin, membranous leaves
bracteoles.
found at the nodal region. Each scale leaf
contains an axillary bud in its axil, e.g. Zingiber Å A flower is either unisexual (having either stamen or pistil) or
officinale (ginger). bisexual (having both stamen and pistil).
NEET KEY NOTES

Å On the basis of the number of floral appendages 3. Androecium (stamen), male reproductive part of flower.
present, a flower may be trimerous, tetramerous or Each stamen consists of a filament and an anther. The
pentamerous. anther contains pollen sacs where pollen grains are
Å Insertion of floral parts (forms of thalamus) Based on the formed.
position of ovary with respect to other floral whorls (calyx, n
On the basis of cohesion and adhesion of their parts,
corolla and androecium), the flowers are of following three stamens may be monadelphous (filaments united to
types form one bundle, e.g. Hibiscus), diadelphous
n
Hypogynous flower Ovary is present at the top of (filaments united to form two bundles, e.g. Pisum),
thalamus. polyadelphous (filaments united to form more than
two bundles, e.g. Citrus), syngenesious (only anthers
n
Perigynous flower Margin of thalamus grows upwards are united in bundle, e.g. Helianthus), synandrous
forming a cup-like structure. (both anthers and filament united to form bundle, e.g.
n
Epigynous flower Having fused thalamus and ovary. Cucurbita).
Å Symmetry of a flower The symmetry of a flower depends n
When stamens are adhered to either tepals or petals
upon the shape, size and arrangement of the floral parts. the conditions are known as epiphyllous (e.g.
On the basis of this, it can be actinomorphic (radial Quisqualis) or epipetalous (e.g. Solanum), respectively.
symmetry, e.g. Datura) or zygomorphic (bilateral If stamens or anthers are attached to gynoecium
symmetry, e.g. Cassia). condition is known as gynandrous (e.g. Calotropis).
Å Placentation is the arrangement of ovules inside an ovary. 4. Gynoecium (pistils or carpels), female reproductive part
Placenta refers to the parenchymatous cushion present of flower consisting of the receptive and sticky stigma,
inside the ovary where ovules are borne. These may be the elongated stalk style and the enlarged base ovary
marginal (e.g. peas), axile (e.g. China rose), parietal that bears ovules. When more than one carpels are
(e.g. Cucurbita), free-central (e.g. Dianthus) and basal present they may be apocarpous (free) as in Viscum or
(e.g. Aster). syncarpous (united) as in Hibiscus.
Parts of a Flower Fruit

Å A typical flower consists of four distinct parts, i.e. the Å It is the mature ovary developed after fertilisation. It
calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium. The calyx and consists of pericarp and seeds.
coralla are accessory or non-essential parts and the Å True fruits develop from the ovary.
androecium and gynoecium are essential parts.
Å False fruits develop from other floral parts along with the
Å Different parts of flowers are as follows ovary.
1. Calyx is the outermost, green in colour, leaf-like whorl Å Parthenocarpic fruits develop from the ovary without
that protects the bud stage of flower. The individual fertilisation.
members are sepals. The calyx may be gamosepalous or Å Fruits have been broadly categorised into three types
polysepalous.
1. Simple fruits develop from a mono or multicarpellary
2. Corolla is the whorl of brightly coloured petals to attract syncarpous ovary. These have been further divided into
insects for pollination. Petals are also either fused two groups
(gamopetalous) or free (polypetalous). (i) Dry fruits, which further include
Å Aestivation It is the arrangement of sepals or petals in Dehiscent fruits constituting
l
relation to one another in a floral bud. Pod or Legume, e.g. pea

n
n
Valvate Units in a whorl just touch at margin, Follicle, e.g. Calotropis
n
without overlapping, e.g. Calotropis. Siliqua, e.g. mustard

n
n
Twisted One margin of unit overlaps that of the Silicula, e.g. Capsella
n
next one, e.g. Hibiscus. Capsule, e.g. poppy

n
n
Imbricate Both margins of one petal/sepal overlaps l
Indehiscent fruits constituting
and another petal/sepals are overlapped, rest other n
Achene, e.g. Ranunculus
are twisted, e.g. Cassia. n
Caryopsis, e.g. wheat
n
Vexillary Large petal (standard) overlaps the n
Cypsela, e.g. sunflower
two lateral petals (wings), which in turn overlap n
Nut, e.g. litchi
the two smallest anterior petals (keel), e.g. Pisum. n
Samara, e.g., Holoptelea
NEET KEY NOTES

l
Schizocarpic fruits constituting Å Monocotyledonous seeds are
n
Lomentum, e.g. Acacia n
Endospermic (except orchids).
n
Cremocarp, e.g. Cuminum n
Seed coat is membranous and fused with cell wall.
n
Regma, e.g. castor n
Outer covering of endosperm called aluerone layer is
n
Cacerulus, e.g. Ocimum present, which separates the embryo from endosperm.
n
Double samara, e.g. Acer pseudoplatanus n
Embryo is small and shield-shaped. Cotyledon present
(ii) Succulent fruits are further categorised into is called scutellum and has a short axis with a plumule
l
Drupe, e.g. mango and a radicle.
l
Berry, e.g. grape n
Coleoptile covers plumule, while radicle is enclosed by
l
Pome, e.g. apple coleorhiza.
l
Hesperidium, e.g. orange Semi-Technical Description
l
Pepo, e.g. Cucurbita
l
Balausta, e.g. pomegranate
of a Typical Flowering Plant
Å Flower is the distinct identifying feature of a plant. To
l
Amphisarca, e.g. wood apple
describe the characteristics of a flower in brief, floral
2. Aggregate fruits develop from multicarpellary formula and floral diagram are used. They use some
apocarpous ovary, e.g. raspberry, rose. specific symbols as
3. Composite fruits develop from a complete inflorescence,
Br – Bracteate P – Perianth
e.g. pineapple, banyan.
(Unit-tepals)
Seed Ebr – Ebracteate A – Androecium

(Unit-stamens)
Å It is developed from fertilised ovules. These may be
⊕ – Actinomorphic or regular G – Gynoecium
monocotyledonous (e.g. wheat) or dicotyledonous (e.g. flower (Unit-carpels)
gram) and endospermic (e.g. coconut) or non-endospermic
% – Zygomorphic or irregular G – Superior ovary
(e.g. beans).
flower
Å Dicotyledonous seeds possess % – Bisexual flower G – Inferior ovary
&
n
Two seed coats, i.e. the outer testa and inner tegmen.
– Female flower 1, 2, 3, – Number of units
n
Seed is attached to fruit through hilum and has a small & 4, … ∞
pore called micropyle. – Male flower () – Fused
%
n
Two cotyledons present are fleshy.
K – Calyx (Unit-sepals)
n
Endosperm is formed as a result of double fertilisation.
C – Corolla (Unit-petals) CA – Epipetalous
n
Seeds of bean, gram and pea are non-endospermic. condition
Description of Some Important Families
Characteristics Fabaceae Solanaceae Liliaceae

General description The family also termed as pea family. Commonly known as potato family. Commonly called as lily family. It is a
It is distributed all over the world. It is distributed in tropics and representative of monocots.
subtropics.
Plant structure Tree, shrub and herb. Herb, shrub and small trees. Perennial herb.
Stem structure Erect or Climber. Herbaceous, rarely woody, hairy, Stem may be underground partially.
hollow, underground (potato).
Inflorescence Racemose. Solitary, axillary or cymose. Solitary/cymose often umbellate clusters.
Flower Bisexual and zygomorphic. Bisexual and actinomorphic, rarely Bisexual and actinomorphic.
zygomorphic.
Calyx Five, gamosepalous imbricate. Five united, persistent, valvate. Perianth [6 tepals arranged in two whorls
(3 + 3). Free or rarely united, valvate].
NEET KEY NOTES

Characteristics Fabaceae Solanaceae Liliaceae

Corolla Five, polypetalous, papilionaceous. Five united, valvate. —
Androecium Ten, diadelphous, anther dithecous. Stamens five, epipetalous. Stamens 6 (3 + 3), epipetalous
Gynoecium Ovary superior, monocarpellary and Bicarpellary, syncarpous and superior. Tricarpellary, syncarpous and superior.
unilocular.
Fruit Legume. Berry or Capsule. Capsule and rarely berry.
Seed One to many non-endospermic. Many and endospermic. Endospermic.
Floral formula % % K C A G ⊕ % K C A G Br⊕ % P A G
+ (5) 1+ 2+ ( 2) (9) + 1 1 + (5) (5) (5) (2) + (3+ 3) 3+ 3 (3)
Economic Plants of this family are source of Plants of this family are source of Plants of this family are used as ornament and
importance pulses (e.g. gram, arhar, sem, moong food (potato underground stem), medicines Aloe, vegetable (Asparagus) and
and soybean) and edible oil (e.g. tomato and brinjal, spices (chilli), colichicine (Colchicum autumnale).
soybean and groundnut). Dye is medicines (Belladonna), fumigatory
extracted from Indigofera. (tobacco).
Floral diagram
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ The Root
1 Roots formed from prolongation of radicle is 5 Which amongst the following options contains
(a) primary root (b) secondary root mismatched pair?
(c) tertiary root (d) seminal root (a) Direct elongation of radicle – Primary roots
2 Primary roots and its branches constitute (b) Root system originating from the stem’s base–Fibrous
(a) adventitious root system roots
(b) tap root system (c) Roots not arising from the radicle–Stilt roots
(c) fibrous roots (d) Constitution of primary root and its branches – Tap
(d) seminal roots root system
3 In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is 6 Which of the following is incorrect?
short-lived and is replaced by a large number of roots. (a) Roots help in water and mineral absorption from soil
These roots originate from the base of the stem and (b) Roots provide a proper anchorage
constitute the (c) Roots store food material and synthesise plant growth
regulators
(a) prop roots
(b) pneumatophores (d) Roots lack meristematic activity
(c) napiform 7 Which of the following is the smallest region of the
(d) fibrous roots root?
4 Which plant amongst following bears fibrous root (a) Root cap
system? (b) Region of elongation
(a) Mustard plant (b) Wheat plant (c) Region of meristematic activity
(c) Monstera (d) Banyan tree (d) Region of maturation
8 Root hairs develop from the region of NEET 2017 10 Tap roots of which of the following get swollen and
(a) maturation (b) elongation store food?
(c) root cap (d) meristematic activity (a) Daucus carota (b) Brassica rapa
9 Which of the following options is correct with respect (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Ipomoea batatas
to the given figure showing different zones of a 11 Select the group of plants that possess stilt roots.
typical root? (a) Zea mays, Saccharum officinarum
(b) Pandanus odoratissimus, Ficus benghalensis
(c) Rhizophora mangle, Hedera helix
(d) Ficus benghalensis, Pisum sativum
Region of maturation (A) 12 Identify the mismatched pair.
(a) Prop roots — Provide support
Root hair (b) Stilt roots — Originate from stem’s nodal part
(c) Pneumatophores — Help in storing food
(d) Edible roots — Sweet potato
Region of elongation (B)
13 A type of modified …A… root that arises from the
internode of stem, grows and becomes fleshy and
Region of meristematic activity (C) tuberous, serving as storage for reserve food material
Root cap is observed in …B… .
A B
(a) Part B mainly helps in absorption of water (a) Adventitious sweet potato
(b) Quiescent centre is present in part B (b) Tap sweet potato
(c) Part A is most suitable for anatomical studies of root (c) Adventitious ginger
(d) Differentiation of cells can be observed in part C (d) Tap turmeric
TOPIC 2 ~ The Stem

14 The stem is the …A… part of the axis, which bears 19 In plants like mint and jasmine, a slender lateral
branches, leaves, flowers and fruits. It develops from branch arises from the base of the main axis and
the …B… part of the embryo of a germinating seed. after growing aerially for some time, arch
Appropriate options for A and B is downwards to touch the ground. This slender branch
(a) A–descending; B–radicle (b) A–radicle; B–descending is called
(c) A–ascending; B–plumule (d) A–plumule; B–ascending (a) sucker (b) stolon (c) offset (d) scramblers
15 Nodes are the region of stem where 20 Lateral branches with short internodes and each node
(a) food is stored by plants bearing a rosette of leaves above and a tuft of roots
(b) leaves are borne below is found in aquatic plants like Pistia and
(c) xylem and phloem are present Eichhornia. These lateral branches are called
(d) axillary buds develop (a) suckers (b) offsets
16 Which of the following options represents the (c) stolons (d) rhizome
functions of stem in plants? 21 In banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the lateral
(a) To bear leaves and branches branches originate from the basal and underground
(b) Conduction of water and minerals and photosynthates portion of main stem and then come obliquely upward
(c) Storage of food, protection and vegetative propagation
giving rise to leafy shoots
(a) runner (b) corm (c) bulb (d) sucker
17 In Bougainvillea, thorns are the modifications of
22 Stem modification seen in Opuntia and Euphorbia is
NEET 2017
(a) phylloclades (b) thorns
(a) stipules (b) adventitious root (c) tendrils (d) runners
(c) stem (d) leaf
23 Identify which of them is the modification of axillary
18 In which plant the underground stem spreads to new
buds into tendrils and thorns.
niches and when older parts die new plants are
formed? I. Hugonia II. Duranta III. Passiflora IV. Dioscorea
(a) grasses (b) strawberry (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) Pistia (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) III and I (d) IV and I
TOPIC 3 ~ The Leaf

24 In plants, leaves 30 Leaf having single or undivided lamina is called
(a) originate from shoot apical meristem (a) compound leaf
(b) are arranged in an acropetal order (b) simple leaf
(c) are the most important vegetative organs for (c) Either (a) or (b)
photosynthesis (d) general leaf
31 Leaf having completely divided lamina with distinct
25 Given below is the diagram of a typical leaf. In which segments or leaflets is called
of the following all the four parts labelled as A, B, C (a) petiole (b) phyllotaxy
and D are correctly identified? (c) compound leaf (d) simple leaf
A
32 In a pinnately compound leaf (as seen in neem), a
B number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the
rachis. The rachis represents the
(a) vein (b) midrib
(c) petiole (d) axillary bud
petiole
D C
33 Identify the types of leaves given in the diagram
A and B.
A B C D
(a) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule Leaf base
(b) Lamina Stipule Axillary bud Leaf base
(c) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule Pedicel
(d) Leaflet Axillary bud Stipule Leaf base
26 Leaf base expands into sheath covering the stem

B
partially or wholly. This is the characteristic of
A
(a) dicot (b) monocot
(a) A–Pinnately compound leaf (neem); B–Palmately
(c) pteridophytes (d) gymnosperm compound leaf (silk cotton)
27 Swollen leaf base is called (b) A–Pinnately compound leaf (silk cotton); B–Palmately
(a) lamina (b) petiole (c) pulvinus (d) leaf blade compound leaf (neem)
(c) A–Palmately compound leaf (silk cotton); B–Pinnately
28 Petiole
compound leaf (neem)
(a) helps to hold the leaf blade
(d) A–Palmately compound leaf (neem); B–Pinnately
(b) allows leaf blades to flutter wind compound leaf (silk cotton)
(c) helps in cooling the leaf
(d) All of the above 34 Stems modified into flat green organs performing the
function of leaves are known as NEET 2016
29 Identify the type of venation in the given diagram
(a) phyllode (b) phylloclade
(A and B).
(c) scales (d) cladodes
35 Study the given figures and identify the kind of
phyllotaxy.
A B
(a) A–Reticulate (dicotyledons); B–Parallel (monocots)

(b) A–Reticulate (monocots); B–Parallel (dicots)
(c) A–Parallel (dicots); B–Reticulate (monocots)
A B C
(d) A–Parallel (monocots); B–Reticulate (dicots)
A B C 38 Identify the type of leaf modification in the given

(a) Alternate Opposite superposed Opposite diagram (A to C).
decussate
(b) Alternate Opposite decussate Opposite
superposed
(c) Opposite decussate Alternate Whorled
(d) Opposite decussate Whorled Alternate
36 Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy? A B C

NEET (Odisha) 2017
(a) A–Support (spines), B–Protection (tendril), C–Storage
(a) Mustard (fleshy leaves)
(b) China rose (b) A–Support (tendril), B–Protection (spine), C–Storage
(c) Alstonia (fleshy leaves)
(d) Calotropis (c) A–Protection (tendril), B–Support (spine), C–Storage
37 Which of the following is an incorrect pair? (fleshy leaves)
(a) Tendrils – Peas (d) A–Protection (spine), B–Support (tendril), C–Storage
(fleshy leaves)
(b) Phylloclade – Australian Acacia
(c) Spines – Cacti 39 Leaf tendrils are found in AIIMS 2018
(d) Fleshy leaves – Garlic (a) grapevine (b) peas (c) cucumber (d) All of these
TOPIC 4~ Inflorescence and The Flower

40 In …A… type of inflorescence, main axis terminates 43 Find odd one out. JIPMER 2019
in a flower, hence is limited in growth and flowers are (a) stamen (b) stigma
borne in …B… succession. Choose the correct (c) style (d) ovary
option to replace A and B. 44 The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also
A B called NEET 2016
(a) racemose acropetal
(a) pappus (b) vexillum
(b) racemose basipetal
(c) corona (d) carina
(c) cymose acropetal
(d) cymose basipetal 45 Perianth is the condition in which
(a) calyx and corolla are not distinct
41 Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figure (b) calyx is present, but corolla is absent
and select the correct option for A and B. (c) corolla is present, but calyx is absent
(d) calyx and corolla are not present
46 Keel is the characteristic feature of the flower of
CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(a) tomato (b) tulip
(c) Indigofera (d) Aloe
47 Which of the following represent zygomorphic
B symmetry? AIIMS 2019
A
(a) Canna, Mustard, Chilli, Datura
A B (b) Mustard, Canna, Pea, Datura
(a) Cymose Racemose (c) Pea, Bean, Cassia, Gulmohar
(b) Racemose Cymose (d) Pea, Bean, Canna, Chilli
(c) Racemose Racemose
(d) Cymose Cymose 48 Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
NEET 2016
42 Verticillaster inflorescence is found in JIPMER 2019
(a) Brassica (b) Trifolium
(a) mustard (b) Ocimum (c) Pisum (d) Cassia
(c) China rose (d) sunflower
49 On the basis of relative position of different floral 53 Choose the incorrect pair.
parts on the thalamus, a flower can be hypogynous, (a) Aestivation–Arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral
perigynous or epigynous. With respect to the given bud
figures (A, B, C and D), select the correct option. (b) Valvate–No overlapping of sepals or petals; Calotropis
(c) Imbricate aestivation–Overlapping margins, but in
particular direction; Cotton
(d) Vexillary aestivation – Also called papilionaceous
aestivation; Pea
54 Arrange in correct order according to the given
figures. AIIMS 2018
A B C D
A B C D
(a) Hypogynous Perigynous Perigynous Epigynous A B C D E
(b) Hypogynous Epigynous Epigynous Perigynous (a) A – Imbricate, B – Quincuncial, C – Valvate,
(c) Epigynous Hypogynous Hypogynous Perigynous D – Twisted, E – Vexillary
(d) Hypogynous Hypogynous Hypogynous Epigynous (b) A – Vexillary, B – Valvate, C – Twisted, D – Imbricate,
E – Quincuncial
50 Which of the following is correct? AIIMS 2019 (c) A – Quincuncial, B – Twisted, C – Vexillary
(a) Perigynous–Plum, peach, rose D – Imbricate, E – Valvate
(b) Epigynous–Guava and cucumber (d) A – Valvate, B – Twisted, C – Imbricate,
(c) Hypogynous–Mustard and rose D – Quincuncial, E – Vexillary
(d) Both (a) and (b) 55 Complete the paragraph given below by replacing
A and B with correct terms.
51 Identify the flower parts A to E in the given diagram.
Androecium is composed of A, which represents
the male reproductive organ. It consists of a stalk
and B, which is usually bilobed and each lobe has
A two chambers, the pollen sacs. The pollen grains
B are produced in pollen sacs.
C (a) A – stamens; B – anther (b) A – stigma; B – filament
D (c) A – axile; B – anther (d) A – stamens; B – filament
E
56 Select the incorrect pair out of the following.
(a) Monadelphous – Hibiscus
(a) A–Androecium, B–Gynoecium, C–Corolla, D–Calyx,
E–Pedicel (b) Diadelphous – Cucurbita
(b) A–Androecium, B–Gynoecium, C–Corolla, D–Pedicel, (c) Polyadelphous – Citrus
E–Calyx (d) Epiphyllous – Lily
(c) A–Androecium, B–Gynoecium, C–Pedicel, D–Corolla, 57 The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to NEET 2016
E–Calyx (a) gynoecium (b) androecium
(d) A–Androecium, B–Gynoecium, C–Calyx, D–Corolla, (c) corolla (d) calyx
E–Pedicel
58 Identify the incorrect match.
52 Identify flower parts A to D in the given diagrams (a) Stamens attached to petals – Epipetalous
correctly. (b) Stamens attached to perianth – Episepalous
(c) Free stamens – Polyandrous
(d) Sterile stamen – Staminode
59 I. When carpels are free, they are called …A… as in lotus
and rose.
II. When carpels are fused, they are called …B…as in
A B C D mustard and tomato.
(a) A–Corolla, B–Calyx, C–Androecium, D–Gynoecium Here, A and B refer to
(b) A–Calyx, B–Corolla, C–Androecium, D–Gynoecium (a) A–syncarpous; B–apocarpous
(c) A–Calyx, B–Corolla, C–Gynoecium, D–Androecium (b) A–apocarpous; B–syncarpous
(d) A–Corolla, B–Calyx, C–Gynoecium, D–Androecium (c) A–monocarpous; B–multicarpous
(d) A–multicarpous; B–monocarpous
60 How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, 65 Free-central placentation is found in NEET 2016
Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, (a) Dianthus (b) Argemone
gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths (c) Brassica (d) Citrus
in their flowers? NEET 2016 66 Basal placentation develops when the ovary has
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six (a) single ovule
61 Placentation can be defined as an arrangement of (b) many ovules
(a) ovules within the ovary (c) many locules
(d) single ovules in each locule
(b) synergids within the ovary
(c) carpels in a flower 67 Identify the types of placentation in the given
(d) pistils in a flower diagrams ( A to E ).
62 In marginal placentation, the ovules are arranged
(a) along the inner wall of carpel in a syncarpous ovary
(b) along the margin of single carpel
(c) in the middle of the ovary
(d) to the base of the ovary A B C
63 Axile placentation is found in syncarpous ovaries. In
this placentation, the ovules are arranged along the
(a) base of the ovary
(b) margin of the ovary
(c) axis in the centre of the ovary
D E
(a) A–Marginal, B–Axile, C–Parietal, D–Free-central,
64 In a multicarpellary syncarpous unilocular ovary, if
E–Basal
the ovules are borne on the central axis and septa are (b) A–Marginal, B–Basal, C–Parietal, D–Free-central,
absent this is defined as E–Axile
(a) marginal placentation (c) A–Parietal, B–Basal, C–Marginal, D–Free-central,
(b) parietal placentation E–Axile
(c) axile placentation (d) A–Parietal, B–Axile, C–Marginal, D–Free-central,
(d) free-central placentation E–Basal
TOPIC 5 ~ Fruit and Seed
68 The fruit is a characteristic of … A… and the 71 Identify A to D in the given diagram.

formation of fruit from ovary without fertilisation is
called …B… .
(a) A–Gymnosperms, B–Parthenogenesis
(b) A– Dicots, B–Apomixis A
(c) A–Flowering plants, B–Parthenocarpy B
(d) A– Angiosperms, B–Amphimixis
C
69 Choose the incorrect match. D
(a) Parthenocarpic fruit –Seedless fruit
(b) Wall of fruit – Epicarp
(c) Edible part of apple and pear – Thalamus
(d) Dry or fleshy part of fruit – Pericarp (a) A–Epicarp, B–Mesocarp, C–Seed, D–Endocrap
(b) A–Mesocarp, B–Epicarp, C–Seed, D–Endocarp
70 Thick and fleshy pericarp is differentiated into
(c) A–Mesocarp, B–Epicarp, C–Endocarp, D–Seed
(a) epicarp and endocarp
(d) A–Epicarp, B–Mesocarp, C–Endocarp, D–Seed
(b) epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp
(c) epicarp and sporocarp 72 Coconut fruit is a NEET 2017
(d) sporocarp and cystocarp (a) drupe (b) berry (c) nut (d) capsule
73 In mango and coconut, the fruit develops from 80 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
CBSE-AIPMT 2012 A
(a) monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded
(b) monocarpellary superior ovaries and are many seeded
(c) polycarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded
(d) polycarpellary superior ovaries and are many seeded
74 An aggregate fruit is one which develops from
CBSE-AIPMT 2014 B
(a) multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
C
(b) multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(c) complete inflorescence (a) A–Seed coat, B–Micropyle, C–Hilum
(d) multicarpellary superior ovary (b) A–Seed coat, B–Hilum, C–Micropyle
75 How many plants in the list given below have (c) A–Hilum, B–Seed coat, C–Micropyle
composite fruits that develop from an (d) A–Micropyle, B–Seed coat, C–Hilum
inflorescence ?
81 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple,
A B
tommato, mulberry CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Two (d) Three
76 Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Seed – contains an embryo
(b) Monocotyledonous seed – wheat C
(c) Dicotyledonous seed – maize (a) A–Plumule, B–Cotyledon, C–Radicle
(d) Seed coat – outermost covering (b) A–Radicle, B–Cotyledon, C–Plumule
77 The seed coat has two layers, i.e. the outer .... A.... (c) A–Cotyledon, B–Plumule, C–Radicle
and the inner ……B……. . The ……C…… is scar (d) A–Cotyledon, B–Radicle, C–Plumule
on the seed coat through which the developing seeds 82 Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.
are attached to the fruit. Above the ……D…… is a
small pore called the ……E…… .
B
(a) A-Testa, B–Tegmen, C–Hilum, D–Hilum, A
E–Micropyle C
(b) A–Tegmen, B–Testa, C–Hilum, D–Hilum,
E– Micropyle
(c) A–Testa, B–Tegmen, C–Micropyle, D–Micropyle, D
E–Hilum
(d) A–Tegmen, B–Testa, C–Micropyle, D–Micropyle, (a) A–Aleurone layer, B–Endosperm, C–Coleoptile,
E–Hilum
D–Coleorhiza
78 Which of the following structures is present in a (b) A–Aleurone layer, B–Coleoptile, C–Endosperm,
dicot seed at the two ends of the embryonal axis ? D–Coleorhiza
(a) Endosperm (b) Coleorhiza and cleoptile (c) A–Coleoptile, B–Aleurone layer, C–Endosperm,
(c) Radicle and plumule (d) Epicarp D–Coleorhiza
(d) A–Coleoptile, B–Aleurone layer, C–Coleorhiza,
79 In the seed of X plant, the endosperm formed as a
D–Endosperm
result of double fertilisation whereas seeds of
Y plant are non-endospermous. 83 The wheat grain has an embryo with one large,
shield-shaped cotyledon known as
Identify X and Y and select the correct option.
CBSE-AIPMT 2015
X Y (a) epiblast (b) coleorhiza
(a) Pea Bean (c) scutellum (d) coleoptile
(b) Bean Castor
84 Cotyledon of maize grain is called NEET 2016
(c) Castor Gram
(a) coleorhiza (b) coleoptile
(d) Gram Pea (c) scutellum (d) plumule
TOPIC 6~ Semi-Technical Description

of a Typical Flowering Plant
85 What would we interpret if % is given for a flower in 89 Choose the correct option denoting the symbols used
its floral formula? for the presence of tepals and epitepalous stamens in
(a) Any vertical section passing through its centre divides a flower.
it into two equal vertical halves
(a) K A (b) P A
(b) Only one vertical section divides it into equal vertical
halves (c) C A (d) G A
(c) Cannot be divided into equal vertical halves by any
vertical section 90 The partial floral formula of a flower is
(d) Only one vertical section passing through its centre K ( 5) C 5 A ( ∞ ) G ( 5) . Which of the following sets of
divides it into two equal vertical halves information is conveyed here?
(a) Gamosepalous, polypetalous, syncarpous and superior
86 When both essential floral organs (stamens and ovary
carpels) are present in a flower, we write …… in its (b) Polysepalous, polypetalous, syncarpous and inferior ovary
floral formula. (c) Gamosepalous, gamopetalous, polycarpous and superior
%
(a) & (b) % ovary
(c) & (d) ⊕ (d) Gamosepalous, polypetalous, syncarpous and inferior
ovary
87 Give the symbol of bicarpellary syncarpous, inferior
91 From the options given below, find out the correct
ovary
floral formula for a flower having the following
(a) G(2) (b) G0 characters namely actinomorphic bisexual, five united
(c) G2 (d) G(2) sepals, five united petals, stamens five and
88 Give symbol for actinomorphic flower with 6 tepals, epipetalous, bicarpellary, syncarpous with superior
gamotepalous. ovary.
(a) ⊕ &
% K (5) C (5) A G (b) ⊕ & % K (5) C(5) A (5) G
(a) ⊕ P3 + 3 (b) % P(6) (5) (2) (2)
(c) ⊕ P(3) + P(3) (d) % P6 (c) ⊕ & K (5) C(5) A (5) G(2) (d) ⊕ &
% % K (5) C(5) A (5) G(2)
TOPIC 7 ~ Description of Some Important Families

92 Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family % K(5)C(5)A5G(2) is the floral formula of
CBSE-AIPMT 2012
96 r &
(a) Poaceae (b) Solanaceae (c) Asteraceae (d) Musaceae
(a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
(c) Solanaceae (d) Brassicaceae 97 Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in
flowers of NEET 2016
93 Add the missing floral organs in the given floral
formula of family–Fabaceae. (a) Solanaceae (b) Fabaceae (c) Poaceae (d) Liliaceae
% K(5)—A1+ (9)G1
%& 98 Identify the missing words ( A, B , C and D) and select
the correct option.
(a) C1 + 2 + 2 (b) C1 + 2 + (2) Family Inflorescence Flower Stamens Gynoecium
(c) C1 + 2 + 3 (d) C5 Fabaceae A B 10 D
Solanaceae Solitary, Actino- 5 Bicarpellary
94 Which floral family has (9) + 1 arrangement of anthers axillary or morphic
in the androecium? cymose
(a) Malvaceae (b) Rutaceae Liliaceae Solitary, Actino- C Tricarpellary
cymose or morphic
(c) Fabaceae (d) Caesalpiniaceae racemose
% K(5)C(5) A5G(2) is the floral formula of A B C D

95 r &
(a) Racemose Zygomorphic 3 + 3 Monocarpellary
CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(b) Racemose Actinomorphic 5 Bicarpellary
(a) Brassica (b) Allium (c) Cymose Zygomorphic 3+ 3 Tricarpellary
(c) Sesbania (d) Petunia (d) Cymose Actinomorphic 5 Multicarpellary
99 Study carefully the given floral diagram and % P(3+3)A3+3G(3)

(a) r & % P6A6G(3)
(b) r &
select the option, which correctly represents the
related Floral Formula (FF). % P5+5 A(5)G(2)
(c) r & % K(5)C(5) A5G(2)
(d) r &
r
% K(5)C1+2+(2)A5G(2)
(a) % & 102 Choose the incorrect match about Fabaceae.
% K(5)C(5) A5G(2)
(b) r & (a) Dye – Indigofera (b) Fibres – Sunhemp
(c) Medicine – Muliathi (d) Edible oil – Sesbania, Trifolium
% P5+5 A(5)G(2)
(c) r &
103 Choose the correct option.
% K(5)C(5) A5G(2)
(d) r & (a) Members of Solanaceae family are used as spices (chilli),
medicine (Belladonna, ashwagandha)
100 Which of the following is a correct combination (b) Members of Liliaceae include Aloe, Asparagus
of family and its respective members? (c) Members of Fabaceae like Lupin, sweet pea are used in
(a) Fabaceae–Tomato, Chilli ornamental purposes
(b) Solanaceae–Tobacco, Brinjal (d) All of the above
(c) Liliaceae–Petunia, Potato 104 I. Plants belonging to the family…A… possesses a persistent
(d) None of the above calyx.
101 Study carefully the given floral diagram and II. The family …B… mainly contains monocotyledonous
select the option, which correctly represents the plants.
related Floral Formula (FF). Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks ‘A’ and‘B’.
A B
(a) Fabaceae Poaceae
(b) Solanaceae Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae Liliaceae
(d) Asteraceae Solanaceae
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 106 Assertion (A) Fibrous root system consists of large
■ Direction (Q. 105-123) In each of the following number of fine, fibrous roots developing from the
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by base of the stem.
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, Reason (R) Fibrous root system is found in dicots only.
mark the correct answers as 107 Assertion (A) Stems of some plants protect them
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation from browsing animals.
of A
Reason (R) Axillary buds of stems of these plants are
explanation of A modified into thorns.
(c) If A is true, but R is false 108 Assertion (A) Stem tubers are the swollen ends of
(d) If A is false, but R is true specialised underground stem branches, which help in
105 Assertion (A) Root cap protects the root meristem vegetative propagation of the plant.
from the friction of the soil and its outer cells are Reason (R) Solanum tuberosum is an example of a
continuously replaced by newer ones. stem tuber, which stores inulin as the main reserve
Reason (R) Effect of the soil friction damages the food material.
outer cells of root cap, which are peeled off and 109 Assertion (A) In bamboo, modified form of stem
replaced by new cells produced by root meristem. called culm is seen.
Reason (R) Culm possesses swollen nodes giving a 121 Assertion (A) The floral formula of
jointed appearance. family–Solanaceae is
110 Assertion (A) In some leguminous plants, the leaf % K(5)C(5) A5G(2)
r&
base is swollen.
Reason (R) This floral formula tells that flower is
Reason (R) The swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.
bisexual, sepals five, petals five, stamens five and
111 Assertion (A) Leaves of both monocot and dicot gynoecium tricarpellary, trilocular with many ovules.
plants generally possess parallel venation.
122 Assertion (A) Seeds of most of the members of
Reason (R) Parallel venation is the characteristic Solanaceae are endospermic.
feature of monocot plants.
Reason (R) Endosperm is found in mature seeds.
112 Assertion (A) Alternate type of phyllotaxy is seen in
China rose and mustard plant. 123 Assertion (A) Some dicotyledonous plant bears
flowers but never produces fruits and seeds.
Reason (R) Alternate type of phyllotaxy is the
arrangement of leaves in which a single leaf arises at Reason (R) Some dicotyledonous plants are
each node in alternate manner. monoecious.
113 Assertion (A) Type of inflorescence in Sphaeranthus
is cyathium.
124 Refer to the given figure and select the incorrect
Reason (R) In cyathium type inflorescence, the
flowers are achlamydeous. statement regarding this.
Secondary root
114 Assertion (A) In racemose type of inflorescence the
main axis grows indefinitely. Primary root Tertiary root
Reason (R) Main axis is not terminated by flower.

115 Assertion (A) Monoadelphous stamens are found in
China rose.
Reason (R) When the stamens are united into one
bunch or bundle the condition is said to be
monoadelphous.
(a) This type of root system develops from radicle of embryo
116 Assertion (R) Parietal placentation is observed in
(b) Lateral roots arising from the main root are exogenous
pea plant. in origin
Reason (R) In pea plant, the placenta forms a ridge (c) Rootlets are the ultimate root branches that bear root
along the ventral suture of ovary and ovules are borne hairs for absorption
on this ridge forming two rows. (d) Secondary and tertiary roots are borne in acropetal
succession
117 Assertion (A) A dicot seed is always unitegmic.
Reason (R) Unitegmic seeds consist of single 125 Select the incorrect statement with respect to
integuments. underground stems.
(a) Both bulb and bulbil are underground stem
118 Assertion (A) Fruit is the mature or ripened ovary modification in onion
developed after fertilisation. (b) Rhizome of ginger is fleshy horizontal underground
Reason (R) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed without stem possessing nodes and internodes
fertilisation of the ovary. (c) Tuber of potato is an underground stem having
depressions called eyes
119 Assertion (A) Caryopsis fruits differ from typical
(d) The corm bears buds at nodes and adventitious roots at
achenes with respect to the fusion of pericarp with the the base
seed-coat (testa). AIIMS 2018
126 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Reason (R) Caryopsis fruits commonly occur in the (a) Underground stems of turmeric, zaminkand and
members of family–Poaceae. Colocasia modifies to store food
120 Assertion (A) G 2 is the symbol for inferior ovary. (b) Stem tendrils develop from the internodes of stem
(c) Thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea are modified
Reason (R) Fusion is indicated by enclosing the
axillary buds
number within bracket.
(d) Stem tendrils help cucumber and watermelon plants to
climb
127 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for a 134 Read the following statements.
leaf ? I. In Curcuma, fasciculated roots are found.
(a) It is a lateral, flattened structure borne on stem II. Moniliform roots are found in Momordica.
(b) Stipule is a lateral appendage of leaf base III. Epiphytic roots of Vanda possess well-developed root
(c) Leaves develop from node and bear axillary bud in its caps and root hairs.
axil
Choose the option with correct statement(s).
(a) I and II (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) Only III
135 Read the following statements.
(a) Arrangement of veins in leaf lamina is called venation
(b) In reticulate venation, veinlets form a network I. Bougainvillea is a scrambler as its weak stems rise up
(c) In parallel venation, veins run parallel to each other
with the help of curved thorns.
within a lamina II. In Opuntia, function of photosynthesis is carried out
(d) Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess parallel by phylloclade.
venation III. Zingiber is an example of corm.
129 Find the incorrect statement with respect to flower. Choose the option with incorrect statement(s).
(a) A flower is modified shoot wherein the shoot apical (a) I and II (b) Only III (c) II and III (d) Only I
meristem changes into floral meristem 136 Study the following statements.
(b) Flower is always solitary when shoot bud transforms
I. Food is stored in the leaf bases.
into flower
(c) The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is called II. Buds develop in the leaf bases.
inflorescence III. The presence of tunicated bulb.
(d) The apex produces different floral appendages Identify the correct combination of statements with
horizontally and internodes elongates reference to Scilla.
130 Choose the incorrect statement. (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
(a) Stamens when attached to petals, they are epipetalous (c) I and III (d) II and III
(b) Stamens when attached to sepals, they are epiphyllous 137 Read the following statements.
(c) If one margin of the appendage overlaps that of the I. The corolla is the outermost whorl of the flowers.
next one like in China rose, it is called twisted
II. Calyx is composed of sepals.
aestivation
(d) If there are five petals, the largest overlap the two lateral III. Corolla may be tubular, bell-shaped, funnel-shaped or
petals, which in turn overlap the two smallest petals it is wheel-shaped.
vexillary aestivation IV. A sterile stamen is called staminode.
131 Which one of the following statement is correct? Choose the correct option.
CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (a) Statements I and II are correct
(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic (b) Statements III and IV are correct
(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit (c) Statements II and III are incorrect
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain (d) Statements I and IV are incorrect
(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode 138 Consider the following statements.
132 Which of the following statement is incorrect for I. Petals are usually brightly coloured and can be united
floral formula? or free in a flower.
(a) Br stands for bracteate and K stands for calyx II. Petals protect the flower in the bud stage.
(b) Superior ovary is represented as G (a) I is true, but II is false (b) I is false, but II is true
(c) r represents actinomorphic and % represents (c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
zygomorphic nature of flower
139 Read the following statements for floral formula of
(d) Fusion is indicated by enclosing the figure with bracket
flower.
133 Identify the correct order (roots) from base to root apex. I. The position of the mother axis with regard to flower is
I. Mineral absorption zone. represented by a dot on the top of floral diagram.
II. Soil penetration zone. II. Outermost whorl represents the calyx.
III. Cell number increasement zone. III. Floral formula shows cohesion and adhesion within
IV. Area of root apex protection. parts of whorls.
(a) II, I, IV, III (b) I, II, III, IV Choose the option with correct statements.
(c) IV, III, II, I (d) III, IV, I, II (a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) I and III
III. Matching Type Questions 144 Match the Column I with Column II and select the
correct option.
Column I Column II
Column I Column II (Types of buds) (Features)
(Regions of root tip) (Features)
A. Vegetative buds 1. Buds develop in axils of leaves
A. Root cap 1. Lengthwise growth
B. Floral buds 2. Buds produce leafy shoots
B. Meristematic zone 2. Root hairs
C. Axillary buds 3. Reproductive buds that produce
C. Elongation zone 3. Fast cell division flowers
D. Maturation zone 4. Thimble-like structure D. Accessory buds 4. Additional buds borne at leaf bases
Codes Codes
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2 (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
Column I Column II
(Type of fleshy taproot) (Examples) Column I Column II
(Modification in leaves) (Examples)
A. Conical 1. Brassica rapa
A. Leaf tip tendrils 1. Pitcher plant and
B. Fusiform 2. Daucus carota
Venus flytrap
C. Napiform 3. Raphanus sativus
B. Bud is absent in the axil of leaflets 2. Cacti
D. Tuberous 4. Mirabilis jalapa
C. Spines (modified leaves) 3. Compound leaf
Codes
D. Leaves modified to catch insects 4. Gloriosa
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 E. Fleshy leaves with stored food 5. Garlic and onion
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 4 1
Codes
142 Match the following columns. A B C D E
Column I Column II (a) 1 2 3 4 5
(Stem modification) (Found in) (b) 5 4 3 2 1
A. Underground stem 1. Euphorbia (c) 4 3 2 1 5
(d) 4 2 3 1 5
B. Stem tendril 2. Opuntia
C. Stem thorn 3. Potato 146 Match the following columns.
D. Flattened stem 4. Citrus Column I Column II
E. Fleshy cylindrical stem 5. Cucumber (Leaf modifications) (Examples)
A. Pinnately compound leaf 1. Silk cotton
Codes B. Stem thorns 2. Rose
A B C D E
C. Palmately compound leaves 3. Duranta
(a) 1 2 3 5 4
D. Prickles 4. Bombax
(b) 2 3 4 5 1
(c) 3 4 5 1 2 Codes
(d) 3 5 4 2 1 A B C D A B C D
143 Match the following columns and choose the correct (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
option from the codes given below. AIIMS 2019
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
Column I Column II 147 Match the following columns.

(Modifications in plants) (Examples)
Column I Column II
A. Tap root 1. Sweet potato (Characteristics) (Types of phyllotaxy)
B. Adventitious root 2. Turnip
A. Single leaf arises at each 1. Whorled phyllotaxy
C. Stem 3. Wheat node in alternate manner
D. Fibrous root 4. Potato
B. Pair of leaf arises at each 2. Opposite phyllotaxy
Codes node and arranged
A B C D A B C D opposite to each other
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 C. More than two leaves arise 3. Alternate phyllotaxy
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 at each node

A B C A B C
Column I Column II
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 1 3 2 A. Coleorhiza 1. Grapes
B. Food storing tissue 2. Mango
C. Parthenocarpic fruit 3. Maize
Column I Column II D. Single-seeded fruit developing from 4. Radicle
(Inflorescence types) (Examples) monocarpellary superior ovary
A. Racemose 1. Euphorbia E. Membranous seed coat 5. Endosperm
B. Cyathium 2. Jasmine Codes
C. Cymose 3. Peepal A B C D E
D. Hypanthodium 4. Calotropis (a) 3 1 4 2 5
Codes (b) 4 5 1 2 3
A B C D A B C D (c) 5 1 3 4 2
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 3 2 5 4
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 153 Match the following columns.
149 Match the following columns. NEET (Odisha) 2019 Column I Column II
Column I Column II A. Edible mesocarp 1. Coconut
(Placentation) (Examples) B. Endospermous seed 2. Mango
A. Basal 1. Mustard C. Fibrous mesocarp 3. Bean
B. Axile 2. China rose D. Non-endospermous seed 4. Castor
C. Parietal 3. Dianthus E. Ovules 5. Future fruit
F. Ovary 6. Future seed
D. Free-central 4. Sunflower
Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D E F
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 2 3 4 5 6
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 (b) 6 5 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 1 3 6 5
150 Match the following columns. (d) 5 6 3 1 4 2
(Parts of flower) (Description)
Column I Column II
A. Calyx 1. Female reproductive part (Symbols of floral formula) (Description)
B. Corolla 2. Male reproductive part A. ⊕ 1. Zygomorphic
C. Androecium 3. Outermost whorl of flower B. % 2. Actinomorphic
D. Gynoecium 4. Composed of petals C. K 3. Calyx
D. C 4. Corolla
Codes
A B C D A B C D Codes
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3 2 1 4 A B C D A B C D
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II
(Terms) (Used for) Column I Column II
(Members of Fabaceae) (Economic importance)
A. Pedicel 1. Reduced leaf
A. Dalbergia sisso 1. Fibres
B. Peduncle 2. Stalk of the flower
B. Moong 2. Fodder
C. Bract 3. Stalk of the leaf
C. Sesbania 3. Timber
D. Petiole 4. Infloresence axis
D. Sunhemp 4. Pulses
Codes Codes
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1

NCERT 163 In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally
156 In swampy areas like the sunderbans in West Bengal in an acropetal succession, the position of the
plants bear special kind of roots called ……… . youngest floral bud shall be
(a) prop roots (b) stilt roots (a) proximal (b) distal
(c) nodular roots (d) pneumatophores (c) intercalary (d) any where
157 In aquatic plants like Pistia and Eichhornia, leaves 164 Endosperm, a product of double fertilisation in
and roots are found near ………… . angiosperms is absent in the seeds of
(a) the deep region of a water surface (a) coconut (b) orchids
(b) the surface of water (c) maize (d) castor
(c) the base of water body 165 The mature seed of plants such as gram and peas
(d) None of the above possess no endosperm, because
158 Which parts in ginger and onion are edible? (a) these plants are not angiosperms
(a) Leaves, roots (b) Roots, stem (b) there is no double fertilisation in them
(c) Stem, leaves (d) Roots, leaves (c) endosperm is not formed in them
159 Name the body part modified for food storage in the (d) endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo
following. during seed development
I. Gladiolus II. Portulaca 166 Which of the following plants is used to extract the
III. Asparagus blue dye?
Choose the correct option. (a) Trifolium (b) Indigofera
(a) I. Stem; II. Root; III. Root (c) Lupin (d) Cassia
(b) I. Root; II. Stem; III. Leaf 167 Match the following columns.
(c) I. Leaf; II. Stem; III. Root
Column I Column II
(d) I. Root; II. Leaf; III. Stem
A. Aleurone layer 1. Nutrition
160 In epigynous flower, position of ovary is …. . B. Parthenocarpic fruit 2. Without fertilisation
(a) higher than other floral whorls
C. Ovule 3. Seed
(b) lower than other floral whorls
D. Endosperm 4. Double fertilisation
(c) same as the other floral whorls
(d) None of the above Codes
A B C D A B C D
NCERT Exemplar (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
161 Roots developed from part of the plant other than
radicle are called 168 Many pulses of daily use belongs to one of the
(a) tap roots (b) fibrous roots families below.
(c) adventitious roots (d) nodular roots (a) Solanaceae (b) Fabaceae
(c) Liliaceae (d) Poaceae
162 Rearrange the following zones from the base to apex
as seen in the root in vertical section and choose the 169 Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of
correct option. arrangement of
I. Root hair zone (a) floral organs
II. Zone of meristems (b) flower in inflorescence
III. Root cap zone (c) veins and veinlets in a lamina
IV. Zone of maturation (d) All of the above
V. Zone of elongation 170 The placenta is attached to the developing seed near
Codes the
(a) III, II, V, I, IV (b) I, IV, V, II, III (a) testa (b) hilum
(c) IV, V, I, III, II (d) V, IV, III, II, I (c) micropyle (d) chalaza
Answers
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (a) 50 (d)
51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (d) 55 (a) 56 (b) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (b) 60 (b)
61 (a) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (a) 66 (a) 67 (a) 68 (d) 69 (b) 70 (b)
71 (a) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (c) 79 (c) 80 (b)
81 (c) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (a) 87 (d) 88 (c) 89 (b) 90 (a)
91 (b) 92 (a) 93 (b) 94 (c) 95 (d) 96 (b) 97 (d) 98 (a) 99 (d) 100 (b)
101 (a) 102 (d) 103 (d) 104 (c)
105 (a) 106 (c) 107 (a) 108 (c) 109 (b) 110 (b) 111 (d) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (a)
115 (a) 116 (d) 117 (d) 118 (b) 119 (b) 120 (d) 121 (c) 122 (a) 123 (c) 124 (b)
125 (a) 126 (b) 127 (d) 128 (d) 129 (d) 130 (b) 131 (c) 132 (b) 133 (c) 134 (b)
135 (b) 136 (a) 137 (b) 138 (a) 139 (a) 140 (b) 141 (a) 142 (d) 143 (c) 144 (a)
145 (c) 146 (b) 147 (a) 148 (a) 149 (c) 150 (c) 151 (a) 152 (b) 153 (c) 154 (b)
155 (d)
156 (d) 157 (b) 158 (c) 159 (a) 160 (b) 161 (c) 162 (b) 163 (b) 164 (b) 165 (d)
166 (b) 167 (a) 168 (b) 169 (c) 170 (b)

4 (b) Fibrous roots are large number of roots that in this region. Xylem, phloem, pericycle, endodermis,
originates from the base of stem after replacing the cortex and epiblema are clearly visible in this region.
short-lived primary root. These can be seen in 10 (c) The tap roots of carrot and (Daucus carota), turnip
monocotyledonous plants like wheat plant. (Brassica rapa) get swollen and store food.
5 (c) Option (c) contains the mismatched pair and can be In case of Ipomoea batatas (sweet potato), the
corrected as adventitious roots get modified to store food.
Roots arising from the radicle do not form stilt roots, 11 (a) Stilt roots are the supporting roots coming out of
which are a modification of adventitious root system. the lower nodes of the stem. They can be seen in
Roots arising from any part of the plant other than the Zea mays (maize), Saccharum officinarum (sugarcane),
radicle are called adventitious roots. These roots can be etc.
seen in plants like grass, Monstera and the banyan tree.
12 (c) Option (c) contains the mismatched pair that can be
6 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as corrected as

A few millimetres above the root cap is the region of In some plants such as Rhizophora (growing in swampy
meristematic activity possessing very small, repeatedly areas), many roots came out of the ground and grow
dividing thin-walled cells with dense protoplasm. This vertically upwards. Such roots are called
region shows that meristematic activity is present in pneumatophores, which help to get oxygen for
roots. respiration, i.e. respiratory roots.
7 (c) Smallest region of root is meristematic or growing 15 (b) The region of the stem where leaves are borne are
point as the cells in this region are very small, actively called nodes, while internodes are the portions, between
dividing and having a dense cytoplasm. two nodes. Axillary buds develop in the axil of leaf.
9 (c) Part A is the root hair zone which represents the 17 (c) In Bougainvillea and Citrus, thorns are found which
zone of differentiation or maturation. This is the most are the modifications of stem. These are the stiff, sharp
suitable part for anatomical studies of root, because structures, that have lost their growing capability and
different types of primary tissues differentiate or mature become hard.
In other words, axillary buds of stems in some plants Figure C represents opposite superposed phyllotaxy –
get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns. In this, opposite leaves of two successive nodes lie in
They protect the plants from browsing animals. the same plane in superposed position.
19 (b) Plants like mint, jasmine, wild strawberry 36 (c) Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy. In whorled
(Fragaria), etc., contain elongated horizontal or arched phyllotaxy, more than two leaves arise at a node and
runners, which arise from the base of the main axis, form a whorl. Other options are
which are called stolon. These grow aerially for some l
Mustard and China rose show alternate phyllotaxy.
time and after that arch downwards, touching the l
Calotropis shows opposite phyllotaxy.
ground.
37 (b) Option (b) contains the incorrect pair. It can be
20 (b) Aquatic plants like Pistia (water lettuce),
corrected as
Eichhornia (water hyacinth) contain offsets. These are
one internode long small runners common in aquatic In some plants, such as Australian Acacia, the leaves are
plants, each node bear, a rosette of leaves and tuft of short-lived and small. The petiole expands to form
roots. phyllode (not phylloclade) and becomes green to
synthesise food.
21 (d) Plants like banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum
contain sucker. It is a special non-green slender 38 (b) Figure A represents leaf tendrils, which provides
subaerial stem, which arises from the underground base support to the plant in climbing around other plant.
of an erect shoot or crown. It grows obliquely upward in Figure B represents leaves modified into spines, which
the soil and ultimately comes out to form a new aerial protect the plant.
shoot or crown.
Figure C represents fleshy leaves which store the food.
22 (a) Some plants of arid regions modify their stems into
flattened (Opuntia) or fleshy cylindrical ( Euphorbia) 41 (b) Figure A represents racemose inflorescence in
structures called phylloclades. They contain chlorophyll which the main axis continues to grow and the flowers
and carry out photosynthesis. are borne laterally in an acropetal succession.
23 (b) In Passiflora, axillary bud is modified into tendril Figure B represents cymose inflorescence in which the
and in Duranta into stem thorn. main axis terminates in a flower, limiting the growth
and the flowers are arranged in a basipetal order.
25 (b) ‘A’ represents lamina which is the green expanded
part of the leaf with veins and veinlets. 42 (b) Verticillaster inflorescence is the characteristic
feature of tulsi (Ocimum) belonging to
‘B’ represents the stipule which is the lateral small
family-Lamiaceae or Labiatae. Here, flowers are
leaf-like structure of the leaf.
arranged in two opposite cymose groups on each node.
‘C’ represents the axillary bud of the leaf.
Other options are
‘D’ represents the leaf base by which a leaf gets l
In mustard, raceme and in sunflower, capitulum or
attached to the stem.
head type of racemose inflorescence are found,
27 (c) In some leguminous plants, the leaf base may respectively.
become swollen and is called the pulvinus. l
China rose has solitary axillary flower.
29 (a) A– represents reticulate venation that is generally
seen in dicot plants (exception Calophyllum) , 43 (a) Stamen is the odd one out among the given options.
B–represents parallel venation that is generally seen in Stamen represents the male reproductive part of a
monocot plants (exception : Smilax). flower, whereas stigma, style and ovary are the parts of
a carpel or pistil which represents the female
33 (a) ‘A’ represents a pinnately compound leaf in which reproductive part of flower.
a number of leaflets occur around a common axis, e.g.
neem. 44 (b) Papilionaceous refers to a butterfly-like flower. It
consists of a large upper petal, called the standard or
‘B’ represents a palmately compound leaf in which vexillum.

leaflets are attached to a common point, e.g. silk cotton.
45 (a) In some flowers like lily, the calyx and corolla are
34 (b) Phylloclades are the flattened (e.g. Opuntia) or not distinct and hence, termed as perianth.
cylindrical (e.g. Casuarina) green, fleshy structures,
which help in performing photosynthetic functions. It is 46 (c) Keel is the characteristic feature of the flower of
an aerial modification of stem. Indigofera. It is the term used for the petals (enclosing
stamens and pistil) of Indigofera in which their petals
35 (b) Figure A represents alternate phyllotaxy–In this,
resemble keel of the boat.
one leaf is borne on the node and the leaves of the
adjacent nodes roughly lie towards the opposite side. 47 (c) Pea, bean, Cassia, gulmohar flowers show
Figure B represents opposite decussate phyllotaxy – In zygomorphic symmetry.
this, two leaves are borne on the opposite sides of a In this, the flower is bilaterally symmetrical, i.e.
single node at right angles so that four rows of leaves divisible into only two equal halves by a single veritcal
are formed on the stem. plane.
Other options are In cucurbits, synandrous condition of stamens is present

Datura, mustard, chilli, Canna show actinomorphic in which stamens are fused by both their filaments as
symmetry in which the flower can be divided into two well as anthers.
equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through 57 (b) The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to androecium.
the centre, which show regular of radial symmetry. In this condition, stamens are present in more than two
49 (a) Figure A represents a hypogynous flower. In this, groups, which are separated from each other.
the sepals, petals and stamens are successively and 58 (b) The incorrect match is present in option (b). It can be
separately inserted below the ovary in the flowers and corrected as
the ovary is said to be superior. The condition in which stamens are attached to perianth
Figure B and C shows a perigynous flower. In this, the is called epiphyllous.
sepals, petals and stamens are inserted at the same plane
60 (b) Only four plants that are Salvia, mustard, radish and
as the ovary and the ovary in such condition is half
turnip out of the given list have stamens of different
superior, subinferior or partially inferior ovary.
length in their flowers.
Figura D shows an epigynous flower. In this, the sepals,
petals and stamens are successively and separately 65 (a) The plant Dianthus has free-central placentation. In
inserted above the ovary in the flower, the ovary in this this type of placentation, the ovules are attached on the
situation is said to be inferior. main axis of the placenta.
50 (d) Options (a) and (b) are the correct match, while 66 (a) Basal placentation develops when the ovary has
option (c) is incorrect match. It can be corrected as single ovule. In this, the placenta develops at the base of
Hypogynous ovary is found in mustard and China rose ovary with a single ovary attached to it as in sunflower,
(not in rose). marigold, etc.
51 (a) A represents androecium, which is the male 69 (b) The incorrect match is present in option (b). It can be
reproductive part of a flower. corrected as
B represents gynoecium, which is the female The wall of fruit is pericarp.
reproductive part of a flower. 72 (a) Coconut fruit is a drupe. It has a membranous
C represents corolla, the part composed of brightly epicarp, fibrous mesocarp and a stony endocarp.
coloured petals. Other options are
D represents calyx which is the outermost whorl of the Tomato is a berry, litchi is a nut and capsular fruits are
flower consisting of green coloured sepals. found in cotton.
E represents the pedicel of a flower which is the stalk 74 (b) Aggregate or etario fruits develop from a
that bears individual flowers. multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium (ovary).
53 (c) Option (c) contains the incorrect pair. It can be Aggregate fruit may also be called accessory fruit in
corrected as which part of the flower other than the ovary becomes
fleshy and forms part of the fruit, e.g. raspberry, etc.
When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
another, but not in any particular direction as in Cassia 75 (d) Fig, pineapple and mulberry are composite fruits.
and gulmohar, that type aestivation is called imbricate.
Plants Botanical name Fruits Inflorescence
54 (d) Figure A shows valvate aestivation in which the
sepals or petals lie very close to each other with out Fig Ficus carica Syconus Hypanthodium
overlapping. Pineapple Annanas sativus Sorosis Spike
Figure B shows twisted aestivation in which one Mulberry Morus sp. Sorosis Catkin
margin of the sepal or petal overlaps the next one which
then overlaps the third one and so on. 76 (c) Option (c) contains the incorrect pair. It can be
Figure C shows imbricate aestivation in which the corrected as

margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not Dicotyledonous seeds have two cotyledons such as
in a particular direction. seeds of pea plant, castor plant, etc. Maize plant has
Figure D represents quincuncial aestivation in which monocotyledonous seed (not dicot).
the two petals are inner, two are outer and one is partly 79 (c) In seeds of some plant such as castor, the endosperm
outer and partly inner. formed as a result of double fertilisation, is a food
Figure E represents vexillary aestivation in which the storing tissue such seeds are hence called endospermic.
largest petal (out of five) overlaps the two smallest In plants, such as bean, gram and pea, the endosperm is
anterior petals. not present in mature seeds and such seeds are called
56 (b) Option (b) is incorrect and can be corrected as non-endospermic.
Diadelphous kind of arrangement, i.e. ( 9 ) + 1 or 82 (a) A represents aleurone layer which is a
( 5 ) + (5), in which fusion of filaments produces two proteinaceous layer that separates the embryo from the
groups is seen in members of family–Fabaceae. outer seed coat.
B represents the endosperm. 97 (d) Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found in

C represents coleoptile, a sheath which encloses the family–Liliaceae. Bicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is
plumule. found in family–Solanaceae. Monocarpellary
D represents coleorhiza, a sheath which encloses the gynoecium is found in family–Fabaceae and
radicle. family–Poaceae.
83 (c) The embryo of the seeds of plants such as wheat 100 (b) Option (b) is correct combination. Other options
maize or rice consist of an upper large, shield-shaped can be corrected as
cotyledon known as scutellum. The scutellum is closely Tomato, chilli, potato and Petunia all belong to
pressed against the endosperm and helps in the family–Solanaceae.
translocation of nutrients from endosperm to the 101 (a) The floral formula given in option (a) is correct for
growing embryo at the time of germination and seedling the floral diagram that is of family–Liliaceae. Flowers
growth. of the family are bracteate or ebracteate, actinomorphic
85 (d) The symbol (%) indicates that the flower is bisexual, trimerous, hypogynous and pentacyclic. Calyx
zygomorphic, i.e. it is a term used for a bilaterally and corolla are undifferentiated and called perianth.
symmetrical flower. Such a flower can be divided into Perianth 6, in two alternate whorls ( 3 + 3) .
two equal halves only in a single vertical plane through Androecium 6, polyandrous, arranged in two whorls,
its centre, e.g. pea, etc. antitepalous, often epitepalous. Gynoecium is
86 (a) Bisexual or Hermaphrodite are the terms used for tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovary trilocular with axile
flowers when both male and female reproductive placentation. The option (a) denotes the correct floral
(floral) organs are present in the same flower. Thus, the formula.
symbol O , denotes a bisexual flower. 102 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as
89 (b) P denotes tepals and A is stamens. Soybean and groundnut are the members of
When the symbol given is P A, it represents family–Fabaceae from which edible oil being is
epitepalous condition of stamens in a flower. extracted. Fodder is obtained from Sesbania, Trifolium.
90 (a) The partial floral formula K (5) C5 A (∞) G(5) of a 105 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
flower denotes the following information
Outer layer of root cap is cast away from the tip by the
K (5) – 5 sepals, gamosepalous (sepal fused) process called sloughing. The cap protects the meristem
C5 – 5 petals, polypetalous (petals free) from the damage due to friction as the root passes
A (∞) – stamens indefinite fused through the soil.
G(5) – 5 carpels, syncarpous, superior ovary
92 (a) Vexillary aestivation of corolla is a characteristic corrected as
feature of the family–Fabaceae. In corolla, the posterior In fibrous root system, a number of thin, thread-like
petal called vexillum is the largest, two lateral, curved branched roots develops from the base of the stem. The
petals are called wings and the two anterior, roots are nearly equal in size. They form a bunch, which
boat-shaped petals are called keels. helps in holding the soil firmly. It gives good anchorage
93 (b) %& % K(5)C1+2+(2)A1+(9)G1 to the plant, helps in proper absorption of water and
The missing floral organ would be represented as minerals. This root system is found in many monocots.
C1 + 2 + (2) Examples of plants having fibrous root system are
wheat and barley.
This floral formula is of family – Fabaceae
(Papilionaceae). The corolla of this flower has five 107 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
petals in polypetalous condition consisting of one the correct explanation for Assertion.
standard, two lateral wings and two anterior ones Stems are modified to perform different functions like
forming keel. storage, protection, mechanical support and

94 (c) The members of family – Fabaceae are diadelphous, photosynthesis, etc.
i.e. ( 9 ) + 1, in which out of total 10 stamens, nine are Axillary buds of stems may also get modified into
united by the lower half of their filaments to form an woody, straight and pointed thorns. Thorns are found in
incomplete tube around the pistil. Tenth posterior many plants such as Citrus, Bougainvillea, etc. They
stamen is free. protect plants from browsing animals and also reduce
transpiration.
95 (d) Petunia is an ornamental plant of
family– Solanaceae. Standard floral formula of this 108 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be
family is corrected as
r&% K(5)C(5) A5G(2). Stem tuber is an oval or spherical underground swollen
stem structure, which does not bear adventitious roots,
Other plants, i.e. Brassica belongs to e.g. potato (Solanum tuberosum), Jerusalem artichoke
family–Brassicaceae, Allium belongs to (Helianthus tuberosus). Food reserve is starch in potato
family–Amaryllidaceae and Sesbania belongs to and inulin in artichoke.
family– Fabaceae.
109 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason Ovary is unilocular. Marginal placentation is found in
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. monocarpellary pistils of Leguminosae (e.g. pea,
In bamboo, erect, unbranched stems with distinct nodes Cassia, Acacia) and other plants (e.g. Larkspur).
and internodes are called culms. Usually, bamboos have 117 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and Assertion
hollow culms but some species have solid culms also. can be corrected as
Each culm segment begins and ends with nodes. A dicot seed is either unitegmic (single integument) or
Internodes are also present between nodes. Due to the bitegmic (two integuments).
presence of nodes and internodes in the culm, it is said Unitegmic seeds are those which are covered by a single
to be the stem of a bamboo plant. The nodes of culm are integument. Bitegmic seeds are those are covered by
swollen giving a jointed appearance to bamboo. two integuments an outer testa and an inner tegmen.
110 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason 118 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Leaf base is the lowermost part of the leaf by which the True fruit or eucarp is a ripened ovary, which develops
leaf is joined to the node of the stem. It protects the under the influence of ripening ovules and is meant for
young axillary bud. protecting the seeds. It consists of a pericarp formed
The leaf base becomes swollen due to the deposition of from the wall of ovary and seeds developed from
sugar. In many legumes, leaf base is swollen. The ovules.
swollen leaf base is known as pulvinus. It is responsible A fruit, in which other floral parts like thalamus, base of
for sleep and shock movements of certain leaves, e.g. sepals, petals, etc., fuse with the pericarp is called false
Mimosa pudica and Cassia. fruit or accessory fruit or pseudocarp, e.g. apple,
111 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can mulberry and strawberry, etc. A fruit formed without
be corrected as fertilisation, i.e. seedless fruit is called parthenocarpic
The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina fruit, e.g. banana.
of leaf is termed as venation. Leaves of dicotyledonous 119 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
plants generally possess reticulate venation, while not the correct explanation of Assertion.
parallel venation is the characteristic feature of most Caryopsis and achenes develop from monocarpellary
monocotyledons. unilocular, one-seeded and superior ovaries. The only
112 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is difference in them is that in caryopsis pericarp and seed
the correct explanation of Assertion. coat are fused. Caryopsis is common in the members of
In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at family–Poaceae.
each node in alternate manner. Only one leaf is borne 120 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and Assertion
on a node and the leaves of the adjacent nodes roughly can be corrected as
lie towards the opposite sides, e.g. China rose. A flower is represented by a floral diagram and floral
113 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can formula. The floral formula is represented by various
be corrected as symbols. G (2) is the symbol for superior ovary. Fusion
Sphaeranthus belongs to family–Asteraceae, in which is indicated by enclosing the number within bracket.
head capitulum inflorescence is found. Cyathium 121 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be
inflorescence represents the neuter or sterile flower, corrected as
which are pedicellate achlamydeous. The floral formula of family–Solanaceae is
114 (a) Both Assertion and Resson are correct and Reason
% K(5)C(5) A5G(2).
r&
In racemose inflorescence, the peduncle never ends in a Family–Solanaceae is commonly called potato family.
flower, but continues to grow indefinitely and bears This floral formula tells that flower is bisexual,
flower laterally. actinomorphic, sepals are five and united, petals are five
115 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason and united, stamens are five, epipetalous and gynoecium
is the correct explanation of Assertion. is bicarpellary and syncarpous, ovary is superior,
bilocular and placenta is swollen with many ovules.
Androecium is composed of stamens. The adelphous
stamens are fused by their filaments only. The anthers 122 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
are free. When fusion of filaments produces one bunch the correct explanation of Assertion.
or bundle it is called monadelphous, e.g. China rose. Seeds of Solanaceae, e.g. tomato, brinjal, etc. are mostly
116 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can endospermous. This is because their endosperm remains
be corrected as in the mature seed even after embryo development.
In marginal placentation, one or two alternate rows of 123 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
the ovules occur longitudinally along the ridge in the corrected as
wall of the ovary in the area of fusion of its two margins Some dicot plant bears flowers but never produces fruits
or ventral suture. A true placenta is believed to be and seeds because these plants are dioecious (unisexual)
absent. and bears only staminate flowers.
124 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect for the given Rest all statements are incorrect and can be corrected
figure of tap root system. This can be corrected as as
Lateral branches of the roots develop from interior l
Fasciculated fleshy roots are modified adventitious
(usually pericycle) of the parent root. Such an origin is roots, in which swollen roots or root tubers occur
called endogenous. in clusters from lower nodes of stem, e.g. Dahlia
and Asparagus. In Curcuma, nodulose roots are
125 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
found, where the swellings occur only near the
corrected as
tips.
Bulb is underground stem modification, while bulbil is an l
Aerial or Epiphytic roots hang down in air, they do
aerial stem modifications, both present in onion. not possess root caps and root hairs instead they
126 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be possess a covering of dead spongy tissue called
corrected as velamen.
Stem tendrils develop from axillary buds of stem. They 135 (b) Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as
are slender and spirally coiled and help the plant to climb Zingiber officinale (ginger) is a straggling sympodial
such as in gourds (cucumber, pumpkins, watermelon) and rhizome, which is a perennial, fleshy, dorsiventral,
grapevines. horizontal, usually branched, underground stem
128 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be growing beneath the surface of soil. It possesses nodes
corrected as and internodes scaly leaves, axillary buds and roots at
Leaves of dicotyledonous plants, generally possess their nodes.
reticulate venation, while parallel venation is the 137 (b) Statements III and IV are correct. Other statements
characteristic of most monocotyledons. are incorrect and can be corrected as
129 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be l
Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and the
corrected as members are called sepals.
A flower is a modified shoot where in the shoot apical l
Corolla is composed of petals.
meristem changes to floral meristem. Internodes do not 138 (a) Statement I is true, but statement II is false. It can
elongate and the axis gets condensed. The apex produces be corrected as
different kinds of floral appendages laterally at
successive nodes instead of leaves. Petals are brightly coloured in order to attract
pollinators (i.e. insects) for pollination. Sepals protect
130 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be the flower in the bud stage.
corrected as
156 (d) Option (d) is correct as
Epiphyllous condition is when stamens are attached to the
perianth as in the flowers of lily. Epipetalous condition In swampy areas (like Sunderbans), soil does not have
occurs when stamens are attached to petals. air, so no O2 is available to them.
In such cases, roots come out of the soil shows
131 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct.
negative geotropism and breathe after coming in
Rest statements are incorrect and can be corrected as contact with air, e.g. Rhizophora. Such roots are called
l
Seed in grasses is endospermic. pneumatophores respiratory roots.
l
Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit, but mango is not a 157 (b) Pistia and Eichhornia are floating plants, where
parthenocarpic fruit. the stem is like a runner, which branches to form
l
Sterile pistil is called pistillode. leaves at the apex and roots below. The roots are
132 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be found near the surface of water as both the plants are
corrected as hydrophytes.
Superior ovary is represented as G and inferior ovary is 158 (c) The edible part of ginger is the modified stem
shown as G. rhizome, which stores food material whereas in onion

133 (c) Option (c) represents the correct sequence. The root the edible part constitutes of fleshy leaves. In this
cap (area of root apex protection) is present at the base of case, the internode becomes shortened, leaves get
the root above which there is present an area of new cell condensed to form a tunic and store food material.
formation is called meristematic zone. Thus, cell number 159 (a) Option (a) is correct and can be explained as,
increases in this zone. Gladiolus is an underground stem modification
Below this zone is soil penetration zone followed by the forming corm.
absorption of water and then mineral takes place. This Portulaca is a modification of adventitious root
water and mineral absorption comes under the zone of forming moniliform roots (i.e. swollen root) having
maturation. bead-like appearance). Asparagus is also an
134 (b) Only statement II is correct about moniliform roots, adventitious root modification forming fasciculated
that these are swollen roots at regular intervals imparting roots (i.e. roots forming a tuft or cluster) at the base of
bead-like appearance of necklace, e.g. Momordica. the stem.
160 (b) In epigynous flower, position of ovary is inferior succession. Thus, the position of youngest flower
(lower) while the other whorl of flower like sepals, would be distal.
petals and androecium grow above the ovary 164 (b) Orchid seed is non-endospermic seed, i.e. endosperm
(superior), e.g. carrot, guava, Cucurbita, sunflower, is absent in it.
etc. Endosperm is a nourishing tissue present in the seed,
161 (c) Roots developed from parts of the plant other than which nourishes the developing embryo. In orchid seed,
radicle are called adventitious roots. endosperm is absent because, it is used up during the
These branch like tap roots and may be underground or time of seed development.
aerial and may develop from nodes, internodes or Nourishment for germinating seed is provided by the
leaves, etc. food material present in cotyledons.
162 (b) The correct sequence of the zones seen in the 166 (b) Indigofera tintoria and Tidestromia suffruticosa are
vertical section in a root would be as follows the two plants belonging to the family–Fabaceae that
Root hairs zone (I) is present at the base of a root to produce blue indigo dye.
absorb water and minerals. Above this region their is Other options are
zone of maturation (IV), where the cells differentiate l
Trifolium is used as fodder.
and mature gradually. l
Lupin is an ornamental plant.
After this the region or zone of elongation (V) occurs, l
Cassia is a shrub usually grown on the roadside as an
where the cells undergo rapid elongation and ornamental plant.
enlargement. 168 (b) Fabaceae is a subfamily of Leguminosae, which was
Then, the region or zone of meristematic activity earlier called Papilionoideae. Plants of this family are
(II) is present where the cells are very small, the source of pulses and edible oils. Pulses are rich in
thin-walled and with dense protoplasm, dividing protein contents.
repeatedly. At the apex, a thimble structure root cap 170 (b) The placenta is attached to the developing seed near
(III) covers the root. the hilum.
163 (b) In racemose inflorescence, younger flowers are It is the scar located near the edge, where seed breaks
borne at the apex or distal end, while older flowers from stalk of funiculus, i.e. connecting the seed with
are at the base, this type of succession is acropetal fruit wall and placenta.

CHAPTER > 06
Anatomy of
Flowering Plants
NEET KEY NOTES
Anatomy deals with the study of the internal structures of Å Following divisions of cells in both primary and as well as
living organisms. Anatomically, a plant is made up of different secondary meristems, the newly formed cell becomes
kinds of tissues. structurally and functionally specialised and loses the ability
to divide. Such cells are termed as permanent or mature
The Tissues cells and constitute the permanent tissues.
Å A tissue is a group of cells having a common origin and
usually performing a common function. Permanent Tissue
Å The tissues which are incapable of dividing and become
Å Plant tissues are broadly classified into meristematic tissue
structurally and functionally specialised are known as
and permanent tissue based on whether their cells are
permanent tissues.
capable of dividing or not.
Å These can be simple (made up of one type of cells) or
Meristematic Tissue complex (made up of more than one type of cells).
Å Growth in plants is restricted to specialised regions of active
Å Simple permanent tissue consists of parenchyma,
cell division called meristems. On the basis of position, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
meristems are of three types n
Parenchyma forms major components within organs.
n
Apical meristem which occurs at tips of roots and shoots. These cells are isodiametric and thin-walled, having
This tissue is responsible for the growth in length of plant. cellulosic cell walls with small or no intercellular spaces. It
performs functions like photosynthesis, storage and
n
Intercalary meristem which lies in between secretion.
mature/permanent tissue. It adds to the length of the
plant or its organs. Commonly found in grasses.
n
Collenchyma occurs in layer below the epidermis in most
dicot plants. These have cells with thickened corners due to
n
Lateral or secondary meristem which occurs in mature the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin. These
region of roots and shoots and responsible for growth in assimilate food (when contain chloroplast) and provide
girth of a plant. Fascicular vascular cambium, mechanical support to young stem and leaf petiole.
interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are its
examples.
n
Sclerenchyma have thick, long cells with lignified cell
walls. These are dead cells and lack protoplast. These can
Å Apical and intercalary meristems form the primary plant be either fibres or sclereids. These are commonly found
body and appear early in life of plant. Hence, these are in the fruit walls of nuts, pulps of fruits like guava, etc.
known as primary meristem. Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to organs.
Å During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some Å Complex permanent tissue is made up of more than one type
cells are left behind from shoot apical meristem, thereby of cell and work together as a unit. The complex permanent
forming the axillary bud. tissues in plants are mainly xylem and phloem.
CHAPTER 06 > Anatomy of Flowering Plants 131
1. Xylem is a complex tissue that conducts water and Å Guard cells in dicot are kidney (bean) shaped and
minerals. It also provides mechanical strength to the plant. monocots contain dumb-bell-shaped guard cells. The
Å It is composed of four types of cells–tracheids, vessels guard cells are further surrounded by two or more
(both for conducting water and dissolved salts), xylem epidermal cells called subsidiary cells.
parenchyma (stores food and conducts water radially) Å The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the
and xylem fibres (mechanical strength). surrounding subsidiary cells are together called the
Å On the basis of time of origin with respect to the growth stomatal apparatus.
of the plant body. Xylem is classified into protoxylem
(formed first) and metaxylem (formed later). 2. Ground Tissue System
Å Xylem is further classified depending upon the position
Å It consists of simple tissues and includes all tissues
of protoxylem with respect to metaxylem as follows except epidermis and vascular bundles. It forms the
n
Exarch Xylem in which protoxylem lying outside the main bulk of plant body thus, called the fundamental
metaxylem, e.g. in roots. tissue system.
n
Endarch Xylem in which protoxylem lying inside the Å It is of two types, i.e. extrastelar (cortex) and
metaxylem, e.g. in stems. intrastelar (includes pericylce, pith and medullary
rays). In leaves, it consists of thin-walled chloroplast
2. Phloem is also a complex tissue and transports food
containing cells and is called mesophyll.
materials usually from leaves to other parts of the plants.
Å It comprises of sieve tubes/cells (conducting channels 3. Vascular Tissue
formed of several enucleated cells; due to the presence of Å It consists of complex tissues, i.e. xylem and phloem
sieve pits and end walls are commonly called sieve plates), which together form vascular bundles, embedded in
companion cells (thin-walled living cells on the sides of the ground tissue.
the sieve tubes), phloem parenchyma (stores resins, latex
and mucilage) and phloem fibres (bast fibres). It conducts
n
Depending upon the relative position of xylem and
food from the source (leaves) to all parts of plant. phloem, vascular bundles are classified as radial
and conjoint.
Å The first formed primary phloem consists of narrow sieve
tubes and is referred to as protophloem and the phloem
n
When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle
formed later has bigger sieve tubes and is referred to as are arranged in an alternate manner on different
metaphloem. radii, these are known as radial vascular bundles,
e.g. in roots.
Tissue System Xylem
Phloem
Phloem
Å It is based on the type of cells present in a plant. On the basis Cambium
of their structure and location, there are three types of tissue
Xylem
system, i.e. epidermal tissue, ground tissue and vascular tissue
systems.
1. Epidermal Tissue System

Å It consists of epidermis (the outermost layer of the primary (a) (b) (c)
plant body) and epidermal appendages. Various types of vascular bundles
Å Epidermis includes epidermal cells and stomata. Epidermal (a) Radial, (b) Conjoint closed and (c) Conjoint open
appendages include trichomes (present on stem and prevents
water loss), root hairs (present on root to enable absorption of Å In conjoint type, vascular bundles are present on the
water and minerals from soil), etc. same radius of vascular bundles, e.g. in stem and leaf.
Å Epidermal cells are parenchymatous (living) with a small Å A lateral meristem called cambium is present in
amount of cytoplasm lining the cell wall and a large vacuole. between xylem and phloem of vascular bundle, known
The outside of the epidermis is often covered with a waxy as vascular cambium and such vascular bundles are
thick layer called cuticle which prevents the loss of water. known as open vascular bundles. These have the
Cuticle is absent in roots. ability to form secondary xylem and phloem is present
in dicotyledons.
Å Stomata are the minute apertures or openings on epidermis of
green aerial parts of plants. These regulate transpiration and Å When cambium is absent in between xylem and
gaseous exchange. The specialised green epidermal cells phloem, the condition is called closed vascular
which are present around the stomata are called guard cells bundle, which is unable to form secondary xylem and
and the regulate stomatal opening. phloem, e.g. in monocots.
NEET KEY NOTES

Anatomy of Dicot and Monocot Plants

Å The primary anatomical structures of root, stem and leaves of dicot and monocot plants can be studied by examining the
transverse sections of these structures.
Å A comprehensive detail of these structures is given below
Anatomy of Root
Å The outermost layer of root is called epiblema, having unicellular root hairs. The endodermal cells have a deposition of
suberin (water-impermeable waxy material) in the form of Casparian strips. Stele constitutes of all the tissues on the inner
side of endodermis such as pericycle, vascular bundles and pith.
Å The differences in anatomy of dicot and monocot roots are tabulated below
Characters Dicot root Monocot root Root hair
Pericycle Gives rise to secondary roots, Gives rise to lateral or Cortex

(inner to vascular cambium and cork secondary roots only.
endodermis) cambium Protoxylem
Vascular bundles Diarch to hexarch Polyarch (more than 6 in Phloem

(2 to 5 in number) number)
Metaxylem
Cambium Develops at the time of Cambium formation is absent
secondary growth
Pith
Pith Absent or poorly developed Abundant and fully developed
Pericycle
Secondary Takes place Does not take place
growth
Endodermis
Cortex and Narrow cortex. Endodermis is Cortex wide. Casparian strips
endodermis less thickened and Casparian are visible only in young root. Epiblema
(inner layer) strips are more prominent. Later on endodermal cells
become highly thickened. Monocot root Dicot root
Comparison of TS of dicot root and monocot root
Anatomy of Stem
Å The differences in the anatomy of dicot and monocot stems are tabulated below
Characters Dicot stem Monocot stem
Epidermis Cells are larger and with Cells are comparatively smaller Multicellular hair
multicellular trichomes. and without trichomes. Cuticle
Hypodermis Collenchymatous (green). Sclerenchymatous (non-green). Epidermis
Cortex Made up of several layers of Absent, but parenchymatous Hypodermis
parenchymatous tissue. ground tissue is present from Cortex
hypodermis to the centre of stem. Pericycle
Endodermis Single-layered, starchy sheath Absent Phloem
which is usually not well
differentiated. Xylem
Pericycle Made up of one or more layers Absent Pith
of parenchymatous and
sclerenchymatous cells. Medullary ray
Medullary Found in between vascular Absent Cambium
rays bundles. Endodermis
Pith (medulla) Abundant, made up of Absent
parenchymatous cells situated in Hypodermis
the centre of stem. Found Epidermis
between the vascular bundles. Cuticle
Vascular Vascular bundles in a ring. Scattered circular in outline Monocot stem Dicot stem
bundles Angular in outline conjoint, conjoint, collateral and closed. Comparison of the TS of dicot stem and monocot stem
collateral and open. All of same Larger towards centre. Oval
size. Wedge-shaped. Bundle bundle sheath present. Phloem
sheath absent. Phloem parenchyma absent. Xylem
parenchyma present. Xylem vessels either Y or V-shaped.
vessels more radial.
Schizolysigenous cavity absent.
NEET KEY NOTES

Anatomy of Leaf
The various characteristic features of monocot and dicot leaves are tabulated below
Characters Dicot leaf Monocot leaf
Epidermis The upper epidermis has larger and thick-walled cells The epidermal cells are similar on both the surfaces (upper
as compared to those of lower epidermis. and lower) of the leaf.
Epidermal cells These possess sinuous walls and silica deposition that These have straight walls and silica deposition is common
does not occur on the outer wall of epidermal cells. on the outer wall of epidermal cells.
Number of More stomata occur on the lower surface as An equal number of stomata occurs on both the surfaces.
stomata compared to the upper surface.
Guard cells These are bean-shaped. These are dumb bell-shaped.
Mesophyll cells The mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and There is no such differentiation.
spongy tissues.
Veins These are in reticulate venation. These are in parallel venation.
Bundle sheath It is formed of colourless cells and the extensions of Bundle sheath cells usually possess chloroplasts and the
bundle sheaths are parenchymatous. extensions of bundle sheaths are sclerenchymatous.
Protoxylem It is not differentiated. It is differentiated into larger vascular bundles.
Adaxial epidermis Adaxial epidermis
Palisade
mesophyll
Xylem
Bundle sheath
Air cavity Mesophyll
Xylem
Phloem Spongy
mesophyll Sub-stomatal cavity
Sub-stomatal
cavity Abaxial
Stoma epidermis
Abaxial
Phloem Stoma
epidermis
Comparison of the TS of dicot leaf Comparison of the TS of monocot leaf
Secondary Growth Å Formation of secondary xylem and phloem occurs due to

activity in the newly formed cambial ring. The cells of
It refers to the increase in girth (diameter) and thickness of a
cambium divide periclinally to form secondary xylem
plant. It is absent in monocots. The tissues involved in this are
towards the pith and secondary phloem towards the
the two lateral meristems, i.e. vascular cambium and cork
periphery.
cambium.
Å Cambium at some places forms a narrow band of
Secondary Growth in Dicot Stem parenchyma cells, which passes through the secondary
xylem and secondary phloem in radial directions. These
It takes place in the stelar (region by vascular cambium) and
are called secondary medullary rays.
extrastelar regions (by cork cambium) as follows
Å The activity of cambium is controlled by physiological
Å Formation of combium ring Vascular cambium cells consist
and environmental factors. During spring season,
of fusiform initials and ray initials. Fusiform initials give rise
cambium is very active and produces plenty of xylem
to secondary xylem and secondary phloem. Ray initials give
vessels, with wider cavities. The wood formed during
rise to medullary rays. The cambium cells present in between
this season is called spring wood or early wood. In
primary phloem and primary xylem is the intrafascicular
winter, cambial activity slows down and gives rise to
cambium. The cells of medullary rays adjoining these
narrower xylem elements. The wood thus formed is
intrafascicular cambium start dividing to form
called autumn wood or late wood.
interfascicular cambium thereby, forming a complete ring.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å As the growth continues, two types of wood produced year to give rise to cork or phellem on the outer side and
after year and appear together as a concentric ring in a secondary cortex or phelloderm on the inner side.
transverse section. This ring is known as annual ring or Å Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are collectively called
growth ring. periderm. Bark includes all the tissues lying outside the
Å In old trees, the region which consists of dead elements and vascular cambium. Bark that forms early in the season is
does not conduct water but provides mechanical support is called early or soft bark and which forms later is called late
called heartwood (duramen). The heartwood is hard, or hard bark.
durable and resistant to the attacks of microorganisms and Å At certain regions, phellogen cuts off and ruptures the
insects. epidermis, forming lens-shaped openings called lenticels.
Å The peripheral outer portion is soft and lighter in colour These permit exchange of gases and occur in most woody
consisting of living cells. It is called sapwood (alburnum) trees.
and helps in conduction of water and minerals from root to
tip. Wood of gymnosperms is called non-porous or Secondary Growth in Dicot Root
softwood (absence of vessels and fewer fibres) and that of It does not lead to wood formation. In dicot root, the vascular
dicots is called porous or hardwood (contains vessels and cambium is completely secondary in origin. It originates from
abundant fibres). the tissue located below the phellogen bundles, a portion of
Å Cork cambium or Phellogen formation occurs as a new pericycle tissue above the protoxylem forming a complete and
protective layer due to continuous increase girth of stem. It continuous wavy ring which later becomes circular. Further
develops in the cortex region. Further phellogen cells divide events are similar to those occurring in dicot stem.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ The Tissues

1 Choose the correct option. 4 Identify A, B and C indicated in the diagram of root
(a) Study of internal structure of plant is called anatomy apex given below.
(b) Plants have cells as the basic unit which are organised
into tissues
(c) Tissues are organised into organs A
B
2 Specialised regions of plant having active cell
division are called
(a) tissues C
(b) organs
(c) meristems
3 Apical meristems are present at the (a) A–Vascular bundle, B–Epidermis, C–Root apical
(a) tips of roots meristem
(b) tips of shoots (b) A–Cortex, B–Epidermis, C–Root apical meristem
(c) lateral sides of roots and shoots (c) A–Cortex, B–Protoderm, C–Root apical meristem
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) A–Cortex, B–Epidermis, C–Protoderm
5 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of shoot 13 Example of secondary meristem is/are
apical meristem. (a) intrafascicular cambium
(b) interfascicular cambium
A (c) cork cambium
14 Permanent or mature cells are formed by
(a) cell division in the primary meristem
(b) cell division in the secondary meristem
B
C (d) specialisation of secondary meristem
15 During the formation of primary plant body specific
regions of apical meristem produce
(a) A–Leaf primordium, B–Axillary bud, C–Vascular bud (a) dermal tissue (b) ground tissue
(b) A–Leaf primordium, B–Axillary bud, C–Differentiating (c) vascular tissue (d) All of these
vascular tissue
16 Cells having no power of cell division are found in
(c) A–Shoot primordium, B–Axillary bud,
(a) primary meristem (b) secondary meristem
C–Differentiating vascular tissue
(c) permanent tissue (d) All of these
(d) A–Shoot primordium, B–Apical bud, C–Differentiating
vascular tissue 17 Identify the permanent tissues shown in the following
6 The root apical meristem occupies the …A… of roots, figures. AIIMS 2018
Primary wall
while shoot apical meristem occupies the distant most
Nucleus
region of the …B… apex.
Thin primary wall
Complete the above sentence by replacing A and B
with correct option. Intercellular space
(a) A–tip; B–stem (b) A–side; B–stem
A B
(c) A–laterally; B–root (d) A–tip; B–meristematic
Thick secondary wall
7 A branch or a flower develops in the axis of the
leaves by the activity of Pointed end wall
(a) axillary bud (b) apical bud Primary wall
(c) apical meristem (d) tissue
C
8 Axillary bud originates from
(a) meristem (b) shoot apical meristem (a) A–Collenchyma, B–Parenchyma, C–Sclerenchyma
(c) root apical meristem (d) secondary meristem (b) A– Sclerenchyma, B–Collenchyma, C–Parenchyma
(c) A–Collenchyma, B–Sclerenchyma, C–Parenchyma
9 Intercalary meristem is found between the (d) A–Parenchyma, B–Collenchyma, C–Sclerenchyma
(a) mature tissue (b) apical root meristem
(c) shoot meristem (d) two nodes 18 Simple permanent living tissue, which is made up of
thin-walled isodiametric cells is called
10 Regeneration of damaged growing grass following (a) parenchyma tissue (b) collenchyma tissue
grazing is largely due to NEET (Odisha) 2019 (c) sclerenchyma tissue (d) meristematic tissue
(a) lateral meristem (b) apical meristem
(c) intercalary meristem (d) secondary meristem
19 Simple tissue, which constitutes few layers below the
epidermis in dicotyledonous plants are
11 Apical meristem and intercalary meristem are called (a) simple parenchyma (b) complex parenchyma
primary meristem because (c) collenchyma (d) simple tissue
(a) they appear early in plant and contribute to the
formation of primary plant body 20 Cells of collenchyma have thickened corners due to
(b) they make secondary tissue the deposition of
(c) they make whole plant body (a) cellulose (b) hemicellulose
(d) All of the above (c) pectin (d) All of these
12 Meristem, which is particularly present in the mature 21 Sclerenchyma fibres are
regions of root and shoot and produces woody axis (a) narrow and thick-walled
and appears later than the primary meristem is called (b) elongated with numerous pits
(a) secondary meristem (b) intercalary meristem (c) dead without protoplast
(c) apical meristem (d) tertiary meristem (d) All of the above
22 Sclerenchyma mainly provides 31 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.

(a) storage tissue to the plants
(b) mechanical support to the organs of plants (a) A–Tracheid, B–Tracheid,
C–Vessels
(c) secretory tissue to the plants
(d) strength to monocot plants, specially their abundance in (b) A–Vessels, B–Tracheid,
the layers below the epidermis C–Companion cell
(c) A–Companion cell, B–Vessels,
23 Which of the following is not a feature of sclereids
C–Tracheid
(stone cells)?
(d) A–Xylem fibre, B–Vessels, A B C
(a) Variously shaped
C–Vessels
(b) Highly thickended with lignified cell wall and narrow
lumen 32 Choose the incorrect match.
(c) Commonly found in the fruits, wall of nuts, sead coats (a) Vessels – Cells are dead with thick chitinous cell walls
of legumes and leaves (b) Tracheids – Elongated tube-like cells with-thick,
(d) They are a type of parenchyma lignified walls and tapering ends
24 Angiospermic xylem consists of (c) Xylem fibres – Cells possess highly thickened walls
with obliterated central lumen.
(a) vessels and tracheids only
(d) Xylem parenchyma – Cells are living with thin
(b) Triacheids and fibres only cellulosic cell walls
(c) Vessels, tracheids, fibres and parenchyma
(d) Parenchyma and fibres only 33 The first formed primary xylem is called …… and the
later formed primary xylem is called …… .
25 Xylem translocates NEET (National) 2019
(a) metaxylem, protoxylem
(a) water and mineral salts only
(b) protoxylem, xylem fibres
(b) water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only
(c) metaxylem, xylem parenchyma
(c) water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and
(d) protoxylem, metaxylem
hormoens
(d) water only 34 You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a
dicot root. Which of the following anatomical
26 In pteridophytes and gymnosperms, xylem consists of
structures will you use to distinguish between the
all except
two? CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(a) vessel (b) tracheid
(a) Secondary xylem
(c) fibre (d) parenchyma
(b) Secondary pholem
27 Tracheids, vessels and sclereids are similar in a way (c) Protoxylem
that, they all (d) Cortical cells
(a) lack secondary walls (b) conduct water and minerals
35 Food translocating tissue is phloem in angiosperms
(c) function when dead (d) have open ends
comprises of all except
28 Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in (a) sieve tube elements (b) companion cells
CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (c) parenchyma (d) sclerenchyma
(a) having Casparian strips
36 Phloem in gymnosperms lacks NEET 2019
(b) being imperforated
(c) lacking nucleus (a) sieve tubes only
(d) being lignified (b) companion cells only
(c) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
29 The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
(d) Both albuminous cells and sieve cells
NEET 2016
(a) originate in the lumen of vessels 37 Long, tube-like structures arranged longitudinally
(b) characterise the sapwood with perforated end walls are
(c) are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels (a) companion cells (b) sieve tube element
(d) are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessel (c) vessels (d) bast fibres
30 Choose the incorrect pair. 38 Sieve tubes are best suited for translocation of solutes
(a) Main water transporting – Tracheids and because
elements in flowering plants vessels (a) they are much broader than long
(b) Characteristic feature of angiosperms – Xylem fibre (b) they possess no end wall
(c) First formed xylem elements – Protoxylem (c) they have higher number of pits
(d) Later formed primary xylem elements – Metaxylem (d) they possess interconnected lumen
39 Companion cells are closely associated with 43 In the given diagram of phloem tissue, identify A, B and C.
CBSE-AIPMT 2012
A
(a) sieve elements
(b) vessel elements
(c) trichomes B
(d) guard cells
C
40 In angiosperm phloem,
(a) Both the sieve tube elements and companion cells
have nuclei
(b) sieve tube elements have nuclei but companion (a) A–Sieve tube cells, B–Xylem parenchyma, C–Companion
cells do not cell
(c) the companion cells have nuclei but the sieve tube (b) A–Seive tube cells, B–Phloem parenchyma, C–Companion
elements do not cell
(d) Neither the companion cells nor sieve tube (c) A–Sieve pore, B–Xylem parenchyma, C–Companion cell
elements have nuclei (d) A–Sieve pore, B–Phloem parenchyma, C–Companion cell
41 Phloem parenchyma is made up of 44 I. Sclerenchymatous cells
(a) elongated, tapering cylindrical cells II.Much elongated, unbranched and tapering ends
(b) circular thick-walled cells III.Needle-like shape
(c) elongated, non-tapering cylindrical cells IV. Cell wall thick
(d) circular thin-walled cells
V. Dead cells
VI. Found in secondary phloem
42 Which of the following is not a feature of phloem
Which of the following cells are defined by the above
parenchyma?
characters?
(a) Absent in most monocotyledons
(a) Sieve tube
(b) Stores resins, latex and mucilage (b) Phloem parenchyma
(c) Have plasmodesmatal connection between cells (c) Phloem fibre/ bast fibre
(d) Cell wall is with non-cellulosic material (d) Companion or Albuminous cell
TOPIC 2~ Tissue System

45 The tissue system in plants is divisible into three 49 Guard cells are not
types on the basis of (a) modified ground tissue
(a) their structure (b) chlorophyllous
(b) their function (c) with thin outer wall and thick inner wall
(c) their location in plant body (d) helpful in transpiration and gaseous exchange
(d) Both (a) and (c) 50 Subsidiary cells are the specialised cell in the
46 Choose the incorrect option for epidermis. (a) vicinity of guard cells
(a) Derived from protoderm (b) vicinity of stomatal cells
(b) Functions in protection (c) absence of stomatal cells
(c) Consists of sclerenchyma and is multilayered (d) absence of guard cells
(d) Cells with large vacuole 51 Choose the correct option for identification of A to D in
47 Choose the incorrect pair. the given diagram.
(a) Cuticle is absent – Roots A
(b) Primary function of epidermis – Protection B
(c) Present on epidermis – Stomata C
(d) Bean-shaped stomatal cells – Subsidiary cells D
48 Stomata in grass leaf are NEET 2018

(a) rectangular (b) kidney-shaped (a) A–Epidermal cell, B–Guard cell, C–Subsidiary cell,
(c) dumb-bell-shaped (d) barrel-shaped D–Chloroplast
(b) A–Epidermal cell, B–Subsidiary cell, C–Chloroplast, 57 Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered
D–Guard cell closed because CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) A–Epidermal cell, B–Chloroplast, C–Subsidiary cell, (a) a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
D–Guard cell
(b) cambium is absent
(d) A–Guard cell, B–Chloroplast, C–Subsidiary cell,
(c) there are no vessels with perforations
D–Epidermal cell
(d) xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
52 Trichomes are epidermal hairs of
58 Choose the incorrrect pair.
(a) primary root
(a) Vascular bundle without cambium – Closed
(b) primary stem
(b) Vascular bundle with cambium in between xylem and
(c) primary leaves
phloem – Open
(d) secondary root
(c) Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate
53 Choose the incorrect match. manner – Radial
(a) Stomata – Transpiration (d) Xylem and phloem are situated at different
(b) Guard cells – Possess chloroplast radius – Conjoint
(c) Root hairs – Multicellular 59 Identify type of vascular bundle with respect to A, B
(d) Trichomes – Shoot system and C figure.
54 Ground tissue does not include
Phloem
I. epidermis II. vascular bundle
III. sclerenchyma IV. collenchyma
Xylem
V. parenchyma
Select the right combination from the above given
options. A
(a) I and II (b) III and IV B
(c) I and V (d) I and IV Phloem
Cambium
55 In leaves, the ground tissues consist of thin-walled
chloroplast containing cells called as Xylem
(a) epidermal cells (b) trichomes
(c) mesophyll cells (d) medullary rays
56 Radial vascular bundles characteristically occur in C
(a) monocot and dicot stems (a) A–Conjoint closed, B–Conjoint open, C–Radial
(b) monocot and dicot leaves (b) A–Radial, B–Conjoint open, C–Conjoint closed
(c) monocot and dicot roots (c) A–Radial, B–Conjoint closed , C–Conjoint open
(d) All of the above (d) A–Conjoint open, B–Conjoint closed, C–Radial
TOPIC 3~ Anatomy of Dicotyledonous and

Monocotyledonous Plants
60 Choose the correct pair. 63 Water impermeable, waxy material secreted by
(a) Outer layer of dicot root – Epidermis endodermal cells in the form of Casparian strip is
(b) Cortex of dicot root – Parenchymatous tissue (a) lignin (b) suberin
(c) Innermost cortical layer of dicot root – Endodermis (c) conjunctive tissue (d) pectin
(d) All of the above 64 Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium
61 Cortex is the region found between NEET 2016 during secondary growth occurs in the
(a) epidermis and stele (a) endodermis (b) pericycle
(b) pericycle and endodermis (c) Casparian strip (d) periderm
(c) endodermis and pith 65 Central part of root occupied by parenchymatous (thin
(d) endodermis and vascular bundle or thick-walled) cells is called
62 Casparian strips occur in NEET 2018 (a) pith (b) endodermis
(a) cortex (b) pericycle (c) epidermis (d) endodermis (c) pericycle (d) meristem
66 Conjunctive tissue is made up of (a) A–Epidermis, B–Cortex, C–Endodermis, D–Pericycle,

(a) parenchymatous cells, which lie between the xylem E–Metaxylem
and phloem (b) A–Endodermis, B–Cortex, C–Epidermis, D–Pericycle,
(b) sclerenchymatous cells, which lie between the xylem E–Metaxylem
and phloem (c) A–Epidermis, B–Pith, C–Endodermis, D–Pericycle,
(c) collenchymatous cells, which lie between the xylem E–Protoxylem
and phloem (d) A–Endodermis, B–Pith, C–Epidermis, D–Phloem,
(d) meristematic cells, which lie between the xylem and E–Protoxylem
phloem 70 Choose the incorrect pair for dicot stems.
67 Identify A to E in the given diagram of dicot root. (a) Hypodermis – Provides mechanical strength to young
stems
(b) Starch grains – Present in cells of endodermis
(c) Pericycle – Presents above phloem in the form of
semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
A
71 Medullary rays are formed by the
B D
(a) radially placed parenchymatous cells between vascular
C
bundles
(b) longitudinally placed parenchymatous cells between
E
vascular bundles
(c) laterally placed parenchymatous cells between vascular
(a) A–Endodermis, B–Pericycle, C–Protoxylem, bundles
D–Metaxylem, E–Pith (d) obliquely placed parenchymatous cells between
(b) A–Endodermis, B–Pericycle, C–Protoxylem, D–Pith vascular bundles
E–Metaxylem 72 Choose the correct option for
(c) A–Endodermis, B–Pericycle, C–Pith, D–Protoxylem, identification of A to E in the given A
E–Metaxylem B
diagram of a portion of TS of dicot
(d) A–Endodermis, B–Pith, C–Pericycle, D–Protoxylem,
E–Metaxylem stem.
(a) A–Collenchyma, B–Sclerenchyma,
68 Choose the correct option for monocotyledonous root. C–Cambium, D–Protoxylem, E–Pith C
(a) Pith is large and well-developed
(b) A–Sclerenchyma, B–Collenchyma,
(b) No secondary growth C–Cambium, D–Protoxylem, E–Pith
(c) Polyarch condition D
(c) A–Parenchyma, B–Collenchyma,
(d) All of the above C–Cambium, D–Protoxylem, E–Pith E
69 Transverse section of a part of a typical monocot root (d) A–Collenchyma, B–Parenchyma,
has been shown in the given figure. Identify the C–Cambium, D–Protoxylem, E–Pith
different parts (from A to E) and select the correct 73 Choose the correct option for identification of A to E
option. in the given TS of dicot stem.
A
A B
C
D
B
C
(a) A–Hypodermis, B–Chlorenchyma, C–Endodermis,
E
D–Pericycle, E–Medullary rays
(b) A–Hypodermis, B–Parenchyma, C–Endodermis,
D D–Pericycle, E–Medullary rays
(c) A–Hypodermis, B–Sclerenchyma, C–Endodermis,
D–Pericycle, E–Medullary rays
(d) A–Hypodermis, B–Sclerenchyma, C–Endodermis,
D–Pericycle, E–Parenchyma
74 Vascular bundle is enclosed within a well-developed 80 Vascular bundles in the leaves of dicots are
sclerenchymatous sheath in surrounded by
(a) monocot stem (b) dicot stem (a) epidermis (b) bundle sheath cells
(c) monocot root (d) dicot root (c) pericycle (d) Both (a) and (c)
75 Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are 81 Choose the correct pair.
found in CBSE-AIPMT 2012 (a) Isobilateral leaf – Stomata are present on both surfaces
(a) sunflower (b) maize (c) Cycas (d) Pinus (b) Bulliform cells – Modified adaxial epidermal cells
76 Choose the correct option for identification of A to D (c) Sunflower stem – Sclerenchymatous
in the given diagram of monocot stem. (d) Both (a) and (b)
82 Bundle sheath extensions in a dicot leaf and in a
A
monocot leaf are ……… and ………, respectively.
(a) parenchymatous, sclerenchymatous
(b) parenchymatous, collenchymatous
(c) sclerenchymatous, parenchymatous
(d) collenchymatous, sclerenchymatous
83 Choose the correct option in the given diagram of TS
C
B of dicot leaf to identify A to E.
D
C
(a) A–Hypodermis, B–Xylem, C–Phloem, D–Ground tissue A
(b) A–Hypodermis, B–Phloem, C–Xylem, D–Ground tissue B
(c) A–Endodermis, B–Phloem, C–Xylem, D–Ground tissue D
(d) A–Endodermis, B–Xylem, C–Phloem, E–Ground tissue
77 The vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf through the E
lamina shows three main parts namely, epidermis,
(a) A–Phloem, B–Xylem, C–Palisade mesophyll,
…A… and vascular system. The epidermis, which
D–Spongy mesophyll, E–Stomata
covers the upper surface is …B… and lower surface
(b) A–Phloem, B–Xylem, C–Palisade mesophyll,
is covered by …C… of the leaf. D–Spongy mesophyll, E–Hydathodes
Choose the correct option to replace A, B and C. (c) A–Xylem, B–Phloem, C–Palisade mesophyll,
(a) A–mesophyll, B–adaxial epidermis, C–abaxial D–Spongy mesophyll, E–Stomata
epidermis (d) A–Xylem, B–Phloem, C–Palisade mesophyll,
(b) A–endodermis, B–adaxial epidermis, C–abaxial D–Spongy mesophyll, E–Hydathodes
epidermis
84 Choose the correct option in the given diagram of TS
(c) A–endodermis, B–abaxial epidermis, C–adaxial
epidermis of monocot leaf to identify A to E.
(d) A–mesophyll, B–abaxial epidermis, C–adaxial A
epidermis
78 In a dorsiventral leaf, location of palisade tissue and B
phloem is respectively on the ……… surfaces. C
(a) adaxial and abaxial (b) adaxial and adaxial
(c) abaxial and adaxial (d) abaxial and abaxial
D
79 Vascular system includes…A… bundles, which can E
be seen in the veins and the…B…. . The size of
vascular bundles are dependent on the size of …C… . (a) A–Abaxial epidermis, B–Xylem, C–Mesophyll,
The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation D–Adaxial epidermis, E–Phloem
of the …D…leaves. (b) A–Abaxial epidermis, B–Phloem, C–Mesophyll,
Choose the correct option to replace A to D. D–Adaxial epidermis, E–Xylem
(a) A–phloem, B–midrib, C–veins, D–dicot (c) A–Adaxial epidermis, B–Phloem, C–Mesophyll,
(b) A–xylem, B–midrib, C–veins, D–dicot D–Abaxial epidermis, E–Xylem
(c) A–vascular, B–midrib, C–veins, D–dicot (d) A–Adaxial epidermis, B–Xylem, C–Mesophyll,
(d) A–vascular, B–midrib, C–veins, D–monocot D–Abaxial epidermis, E–Phloem
85 Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. 86 I. Monocot root.
Select the most appropriate reason from the II. Dicot stem.
following. III. Monocot stem and dicot root.
(a) Flaccidity of bulliform cells IV. Dicot stem and dicot root.
(b) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll V. Dicot root.
(c) Tyloses in vessels Which of the above have well-developed pith?
(d) Closure of stomata (a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) IV and V (d) II and III
TOPIC 4 ~ Secondary Growth

87 Secondary growth refers to ……… in plant. 94 During secondary growth in dicot stem, the fusiform
(a) increase in girth initials of vascular cambium give rise to which of the
(b) formation of secondary tissue following given labelled part?
(c) formation of lateral meristems
C
88 The meristematic tissue responsible for the cutting off B
vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) is called
A
(a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium
(c) lateral meristem (d) endodermis
(a) A (b) B
89 Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are (c) C (d) Both (a) and (b)
produced by NEET 2018, 17
95 Parenchymatous cells are usually present in the
(a) phellogen (b) vascular cambium
I. pericycle II. pith
(c) apical meristems (d) axillary meristems
III. medullary rays IV. primary root
90 In young stem, the vascular cambium is V. secondary root VI. primary stem
(a) single layered (b) bilayered VII. secondary stem
(c) trilayered (d) does not exist
Select the correct combinations from the given
91 Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of options.
NEET 2013 (a) All except I and III (b) All except V and VII
(a) medullary rays (b) xylem parenchyma (c) All except II and IV (d) All except VI and III
(c) endodermis (d) pericycle
92 Cambium activity is (a) Early wood – Spring season
(a) more active towards periphery of stem (b) Spring wood – Large number of xylary elements
(b) more active towards lateral sides of stem
(c) more active towards innerside of stem (c) Autumn wood – Fewer xylary elements
(d) Same on both sides (d) Autumn wood – Lower density
93 Given below the diagram of TS of dicot stem showing 97 When cut horizontally, both spring wood and autumn
secondary growth. Identify A to D. wood appear in concentric rings known as
(a) heartwood (b) late wood
A
B (c) sapwood (d) annual ring
C 98 Estimation of the age of the tree is done by
D (a) counting the epidermal rings
(b) measuring the pith diameter
(c) counting the annual rings
(a) A–Cortex, B–Secondary xylem, C–Secondary phloem,
D–Vascular cambium (d) counting the late woods only
(b) A–Cortex, B–Primary phloem, C–Vascular cambium, 99 In old trees, the greater part of secondary xylem is
D–Primary xylem dark brown due to the
(c) A–Cortex, B–Primary xylem, C–Vascular cambium, (a) deposition of inorganic material
D–Primary phloem (b) deposition of organic material
(d) A–Cortex, B–Primary xylem, C–Vascular cambium, (c) activity of cambium
D–Primary phloem (d) activity of secondary xylem
100 In perennial trees, the secondary xylem which is hard, 109 Choose the odd one out with respect to components
durable and resistant to the attack of microorganisms of bark.
and insects is (a) Phellogen
(a) heartwood (b) sapwood (b) Phellem
(c) soft wood (d) hard wood (c) Secondary xylem
101 The peripheral region of the secondary xylem, which (d) Secondary phloem
is light in colour and conducts water and minerals in 110 Bark formed early in the season is called as ………
old trees is bark and bark formed towards the end of the season is
(a) heartwood (b) sapwood called as ……… bark.
(c) soft wood (d) hard wood (a) hard, soft (b) soft, hard
102 During secondary growth, new meristematic tissues (c) scaly, ring (d) ring, scaly
arising in the cortical region of the stem are called 111 Aerating pores on cork cambium through which
(a) phellem (b) phelloderm gaseous exchange occurs in dicot stem are
(c) secondary cortex (d) phellogen (a) hydathodes (b) lenticels
103 During secondary growth of plants, stem phellogen (c) stomata (d) pneumatophores
cuts of cells on both sides. The outer cells get 112 Choose the correct option to label A, B and C in the
differentiated into …A… and the inner cells get given diagram of lenticel.
differentiated into …B… .
Choose the correct option to replace A and B with A
reference to above statement.
(a) A–cork, B–phellem
(b) A–secondary cortex, B–phelloderm
(c) A–secondary cortex, B–primary cortex B
(d) A–cork/phellem, B–secondary cortex
104 The cork is impervious to water due to
C
(a) lignin deposition in the cell wall
(b) compactness of cell
(c) suberin deposition in the cell wall
(d) All of the above (a) A–Epidermis, B–Cork cambium, C–Secondary cortex
105 Which of the following is made up of dead cells? (b) A–Stomata, B–Cork cambium, C–Secondary cortex
NEET 2017 (c) A–Stomata, B–Cork cambium, C–Endodermis
(a) Xylem parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (d) A–Epidermis, B–Cork cambium, C–Endodermis
(c) Phellem (d) Phloem 113 In dicot root, the vascular cambium is
106 New protective layers formed after the crushing or (a) completely secondary in origin
breaking of cortical and epidermal layers due to (b) completely primary in origin
increase in the girth of stem by vascular cambium. (c) secondary as well as primary in origin
These new layers are collectively called (d) does not exist
(a) phellogen (b) cork cambium 114 Read the different components from I to IV in the list
(c) periderm (d) phelloderm given below and tell the correct order of the components
107 Which of the following options correctly shows the with reference to their arrangement from outer side to
sequence of different tissues of the periderm starting inner side in a woody dicot stem. CBSE-AIPMT 2015
from periphery? I. Secondary cortex
(a) Phellogen → Phellem → Phelloderm II. Wood
(b) Phellem → Phelloderm → Phellogen III. Secondary phloem
(c) Phellem → Phellogen → Phelloderm
IV. Phellem
(d) Phelloderm → Phellogen → Phellem
108 Bark is the non-technical term which refers to
(a) III, IV, II, I
(a) a few tissues exterior to the vascular cambium
(b) I, II, IV, III
(b) a few tissues interior to the vascular cambium
(c) IV, I, III, II
(c) all the tissues interior to the vascular cambium
(d) IV, III, I, II
(d) all the tissues exterior to the vascular cambium
115 In dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from 118 Choose the correct option for A-D in the given
NEET (Odisha) 2019 diagram of secondary growth of dicot root.
(a) tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion
of pericycle tissue above protoxylem
(b) cortical region A
B
(c) parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle C
(d) intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring
D
116 In dicot root, the cork cambium is formed with the
help of
(a) A–Cortex, B–Primary phloem, C–Cambial ring,
(a) cortex (b) pericycle
D–Protoxylem
(c) epidermis (d) endodermis
(b) A–Cortex, B–Primary phloem, C–Cambial ring,
117 Plants having little or no secondary growth are D–Pericycle
(a) conifers (c) A–Cortex, B–Primary phloem, C–Primary xylem,
(b) deciduous angiosperms D–Pericycle
(c) grasses (d) A–Cortex, B–Primary phloem, C–Primary xylem,
(d) cycads D–Protoxylem
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 122 Assertion (A) The meristem which occurs in the
■ Direction (Q. No. 119-129) In each of the following
mature regions of roots and shoots is called secondary
meristem.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given
followed by corresponding statement of Reason (R). Reason (A) Intrafascicular cambium, interfascicular
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as cambium and cork cambium are examples of
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct secondary meristems.
explanation of A. 123 Assertion (A) A simple permanent tissue have cells
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct performing simple function.
explanation of A.
Reason (R) Various simple tissues in plants are
(c) A is true, but R is false. parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
124 Assertion (A) Sclereids are found in fruit walls of
119 Assertion (A) Apical meristem, intercalary meristem nuts, pulp of fruits like guava, pear and sapota and
and lateral meristem, all contribute to the growth in seed coats of legumes.
maize plant.
Reason (R) Sclereids are spherical, oval or
Reason (R) Apical and intercalary meristems always cylindrical, highly thickened dead cells with narrow
increase the height of plant. lumen.
120 Assertion (A) The quiescent centre acts as a reservoir 125 Assertion (A) Xylem vessel is a long cylindrical tube
of relatively resistant cells, which constitute a like structure made up of many cells each with
permanent source of active initials. lignified walls.
Reason (R) The cells of the inactive region of Reason (R) The presence of vessels is a characteristic
quiescent centre become active when the previous feature of gymnosperms.
active initials get damaged.
126 Assertion (A) Vascular bundles in monocots are
121 Assertion (A) All the endodermal cells of root do not considered closed.
contain Casparian thickening on their radial and Reason (R) A bundle sheath surrounds each vascular
transverse walls. bundle in monocots.
Reason (R) Passage cells are formed in the root 127 Assertion (A) Root hairs are uinicellular and
endodermis. trichomes are usually multicellular.
Reason (R) Root hairs are found in root epidermis 134 Which of the following statements is correct?
and trichomes are found in stem epidermis. (a) The protoxylem and metaxylem in stem lie towards pith
128 Assertion (A) Phloem fibres or bast fibres are made and periphery, respectively (endarch)
(b) The protoxylem and metaxylem in roots lie towards
up of collenchymatous cells.
periphery and pith, respectively (exarch)
Reason (R) Phloem fibres are generally found in (c) Both (a) and (b)
secondary pholem.
129 Assertion (A) Annual rings are distinct in plants
growing in temperate regions. 135 Consider the following statements.
I. Sieve tube members have sieve plates where they join
Reason (R) In temperate regions, the climatic
with other sieve tube members.
conditions are not uniform throughout the year.
II. Sieve plates are necessary to allow conduction between
sieve tube cells.
II. Statement Based Questions (a) I is true, but II is false
130 Choose the correct statement. (b) II is true, but I is false
(a) A group of cells having common origin generally (c) Both I and II are true
performs common function (d) Both I and II are false
(b) All the cells in a plant body are capable of dividing
(c) Permanent tissues have all cells same in function, but 136 Mark the incorrect statement.
different in structure I. Companion cells are specialised parenchymatous
(d) None of the above cells.
131 Select the correct statement from the following. II. The sieve tube elements and companion cells are
(a) Generally the cells of the permanent tissue do not connected by pit fields present between their common
divide logitudinal walls.
(b) Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure III. The functions of sieve tubes are controlled by
and function are called simple tissues cytoplasm of sieve tube cells.
(c) Permanent tissues having different type of cells are IV. Companion cells lie adjacent to sieve tube cells.
called complex tissues V. Companion cells help in maintaining the pressure
(d) All of the above gradient in sieve tube.
132 Identify the type of plant tissue being represented by (a) I and II (b) III, IV and V
the set of statements given below. (c) IV and V (d) Only III
I. Their cells are isodiametric (they may be spherical, 137 Which of the statements given below is incorrect?
oval, round, etc). (a) Epidermal tissue system forms the outermost covering of
II. Their cell walls are thin and made up of cellulose. the whole plant body
III. They may either be closely packed or have small (b) Epidermal tissue gives rise to epidermal cells, root hairs,
intercellular spaces. trichomes and stomata
IV. They perform functions like photosynthesis, storage, (c) Epidermis is parenchymatous and possesses a large
secretion, etc. vacuole
(a) Sclerenchyma (b) Parenchyma (d) Waxy thick layer over epidermis is suberin
(c) Collenchyma (d) Meristem
138 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
133 Identify the type of plant tissue being represented by (a) Guard cells are dumble-shaped in grasses
the set of statements given below. (b) Outer wall of guard cells is thin and inner wall is thick
I. These tissues are found as layers or patches. (c) Guard cells possess chloroplast
II. It consists of cells, which are thickened at the corners. (d) None of the above
III. It often contains chloroplast.
139 Select the incorrect statements.
IV. Intercellular spaces are absent.
I. Excessive loss of water is prevented by epidermis.
V. They provide mechanical support to growing parts of
plant. II. Stomata develop from epidermal tissue.
The above characters are attributed to III. Photosynthesis is one of the primary function of leaf
(a) vascular tissue ground tissue.
(b) collenchyma IV. Ground tissue constitutes bulk of the plant body.
(c) parenchyma (a) I and II (b) II and III
(d) simple sclerenchyma (c) III and IV (d) None of these
140 Select the correct statements. 144 I. Peripheral vascular bundles are smaller than
I. Epidermal cells have small amount of cytoplasm and a the centrally located vascular bundles.
large vacuole. II. Phloem parenchyma is absent.
II. Waxy layer cuticle is absent in roots. III. Water containing cavities are present within the
III. Root hairs are unicellular, while stem hairs/trichomes vascular bundles.
are multicellular. Which of the above statements belong to the
IV. Trichomes are branched/unbranched, soft/stiff and monocotyledonous stem?
secretory or transpiration preventive. (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and I (d) I, II and III
V. Guard cells are dumb-bell-shaped in dicots and 145 Which of the following statements is correct for stem
bean-shaped in monocots. (dicot/monocot)?
(a) All except I and II (b) All except III (a) Ring arrangement of vascular bundle is found in dicot
(c) All except II and IV (d) All except V stem
141 The statements below refers to which of the following? (b) Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in monocot
stem
I. Unicellular hair for absorption of water and minerals.
(c) Hypodermis is parenchymatous in monocot stem
II. Endodermis consists of single layer bassel-shaped
cells without intercellular spaces.
III. Pith small and inconspicuous. 146 Identify the correct statement for dicot leaf.
(a) Abaxial surface of leaf bears more stomata than adaxial
IV. Radial vascular bundle.
epidermis
V. 2-4 xylem and phloem patches. (b) Mesophyll is present between upper and lower epidermis
VI. Cambium ring develops between xylem and phloem. (c) Palisade and spongy parenchyma are found in
(a) Monocot root (b) Dicot root mesophyll of leaves
(c) Monocot stem (d) Dicot stem (d) All of the above
142 Identify the figure and choose the incorrect option 147 Read the following statements for anatomy of leaf
related to it. and choose the incorrect statement.
Epidermis
I. In dicot leaf, xylem is towards adaxial epidermis.
Hypodermis II. Stomata are distributed more on the lower surface than
Vascular on the upper surface on equifacial/bifacial leaf.
bundles III. Stomata are equally distributed on both the surfaces in
Ground isobilateral leaf.
tissue
IV. Certain adaxial epidermal cells are modified into
bulliform cells in grasses in monocot leaf.
V. The vascular bundles are radial and phloem is
(a) Hypodermis is made up of selerenchymatous cells adaxially place in monocot leaf.
(b) Vascular bundles are scattered, conjoint and closed (a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) Epidermis has stomata and root hairs are absent (c) Only V (d) I and V
(d) Ground tissue is differentiated into cortex, endodermis, 148 Identify the correct statement for secondary growth.
pericycle and pith (a) Intrafascicular cambium is present in between primary
143 Study the following characteristics. xylem and primary phloem
(b) Interfascicular cambium is formed by joining medullary
I. Epidermis with cuticle, trichomes and few stomata.
rays to intrafascicular cambium
II. Parenchymatous cells with large intercellular spaces (c) Continuous ring of cambium is formed by inter and
form the pith in the centre. intrafascicular cambium
III. Pericycle presents in the inner side of endodermis and (d) All of the above
above phloem in semilunar patches of sclerenchyma.
IV. Vascular bundle conjoint, open, in a ring with endarch (a) Medullary ray is radial strip of parenchyma present
protoxylem. between vascular bundles
Above given features describe which of the following (b) Primary and secondary phloem gets crushed during
plant part? secondary growth
(a) Monocot stem (b) Monocot root (c) During secondary growth, primary xylem remains more
(c) Dicot stem (d) Dicot root or less intact in or around the centre
150 Identify the incorrect statement in context of Select the combination of correct statements from the
heartwood. NEET 2017 options given below.
(a) Organic compounds are deposited in it (a) I and II (b) II and IV
(b) It is highly durable (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
(c) It conducts water and minerals efficiently 155 I. Usually cortex of stem is formed during the secondary
(d) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls growth of the stem.
151 Which of the statements given below is not true about II. Cortex is couple of layer thick and is made up of
formation of annual rings in trees? NEET 2019 thin-walled rectangular cells.
(a) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark Choose the correct option.
bands of tissue early and late wood, respectively (a) I is true, but II is false (b) II is true, but I is false
(b) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate (c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
(c) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate
region 156 Select the correct set of statements.
(d) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and I. Vascular cambium form xylem on the inside and
autumn wood produced in a year phloem on the outside due to differential action of
152 Study the following characteristics and choose the phytohormones.
correct option. II. The terms ‘wood’ and ‘bast’ refer to xylem and
phloem, respectively.
I. Cambium is very active.
III. Secondary growth does not occur in stems and roots of
II. Cambium is less active.
gymnosperms and monocots.
III. Large number of xylary elements present. (a) I and II (b) II and III
IV. Fewer xylary elements present. (c) Only III (d) I and III
V. Vessels have wider cavities.
VI. Vessels have narrow cavities. III. Matching Type Questions
VII. Light in colour with low density. 157 Match the following columns.
VIII. Dark in colour with high density.
Column I
Column II
Spring wood Autumn wood (Layers of
(Features)
dicot/monocot stem)
(a) I, IV, V, VII II, III, VI, VIII
A. Hypodermis 1. Collenchymatous cells
(b) I, III, V, VII II, IV, VI, VIII
B. Cortical layers 2. Parenchymatous cells
(c) II, IV, VI, VIII I, III, V, VIII C. Endodermis 3. Rich in starch
(d) II, III, VI, VIII I, IV, V, VII
Codes
I. Youngest secondary phloem is just outside the A B C A B C
153
cambium, while youngest secondary xylem is present (a) 3 2 1 (b) 3 1 2
inside the cambium. (c) 1 2 3 (d) 1 3 2
II. Oldest secondary phloem is towards periphery, while 158 Match the following columns.
oldest secondary xylem is towards pith. Column I
Column II
III. Secondary medullary ray passes through both (Layers of dicot/monocot
(Found in)
secondary xylem and secondary phloem. leaf)
A. Endodermis 1. Companion cells
Select the incorrect statements from above.
(a) I and II (b) II and III B. Stomata 2. Lenticels
(c) III and I (d) None of these C. Sieve tube 3. Palisade cells
D. Periderm 4. Passage cells
154 I. Annual rings are formed as a result of seasonal
environmental conditions. E. Mesophyll 5. Accessory cells
II. Tracheids/vessel elements are larger during periods Codes
when water is abundant. A B C D E
III. Tracheids/vessel elements have thicker wall during (a) 4 5 2 1 3
periods of water deprivation. (b) 5 3 1 2 4
IV. Wood formed in the previous years is lighter than (c) 4 5 1 2 3
newer wood. (d) 2 5 3 4 1
159 Match the following columns. Codes

A B C D
Column I Column II
(Cells) (Functions)
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
A. Bulliform cells 1. Regulate opening and closing of
stomata
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
B. Guard cells 2. Aerating pores in the bark of
plant 163 Match the following columns.
C. Lenticels 3. Rolling in and out of leaves
Column I
D. Subsidiary cells 4. Accessory cells Column II
(Layers of
(Features)
monocot/dicot root)
Codes
A. Stele 1. Innermost layer of cortex
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 B. Endodermis 2. Suberin
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 4 3 1 C. Casparian strips 3. Secondary growth in extrasteler
160 Match the following columns. region
Column II D. Bark 4. All the tissues inner to endodermis

Column I
(Anatomical parts of
(Botanists) Codes
plants discovered)
A. N Grew 1. Hadrome and leptome A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 4
B. Nageli 2. Tissue
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 2 1 3
C. Haberlandt 3. Quiescent centre
D. Clowes 4. Xylem and phloem
Column I Column II
Codes (Types of woods) (Names/features)
A B C D A B C D A. Hardwood 1. Duramen
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 4 1 3 B. Softwood 2. Alburnum
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
C. Heartwood 3. Non-porous wood
D. Sapwood 4. Porous wood
Column I Column II
(Meristematic tissue) (Layers of periderm) Codes
A B C D A B C D
A. Cork 1. Phellogen
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
B. Secondary cortex 2. Phellem (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
C. Cork cambium 3. Phelloderm 165 Match the following columns.
Codes Column I Column II

(Plant products) (Sources)
A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 A. Bhojpatra 1. Bark of Cinchona
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 B. Quinine 2. Cork of Quercus suber
162 Match the following columns. C. Insulators 3. Bark of Betula
(sound proofing)
Column I Column II
D. Dalchini 4. Bark of Cinnamomum
A. Bean-shaped guard cell 1. Dicot stem
B. Dumb-bell-shaped guard 2. Monocot leaf Codes
cell A B C D A B C D
C. Trichome 3. Dicot leaf (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
D. Exarch xylem 4. Dicot and monocot roots
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 1 4 2

NCERT 172 Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are

166 Cut a transverse section of young stem of a plant from formed due to
your school garden and observe it under the (a) cell division (b) cell differentiation
microscope. How would you ascertain whether it is a (c) cell dedifferentiation (d) redifferentiation
monocot stem or a dicot stem? 173 Phellogen and phellem, respectively denote
(a) By observing colour of stem (a) cork and cork cambium
(b) By observing arrangement of vascular bundles (b) cork cambium and cork
(c) secondary cortex and cork
(c) By observing apical meristems
(d) cork and secondary cortex
174 In conifers, fibres are likely to be absent in
167 The transverse section of a plant material shows the (a) secondary phloem (b) secondary xylem
following anatomical features. (c) primary phloem (d) leaves
I. The vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and 175 A vessel-less piece of stem possessing prominent
surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath. sieve tubes would belong to
II. Phloem parenchyma is absent. (a) Pinus (b) Eucalyptus
What will you identify it as? (c) Grass (d) Trochodendron
(a) Dicot stem (b) Monocot root 176 How many shoot apical meristems are likely to be
(c) Dicot root (d) Monocot stem present in a twig of a plant possessing 4 branches and
168 Why are xylem and phloem called complex 26 leaves?
permanent tissues? (a) 26 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 30
(a) Due to the presence of a tissue namely complex tissue 177 In which of the following pairs of parts of a flowering
(b) Due to the presence of different elements performing plant is epidermis absent?
similar functions (a) Root tip and shoot tip
(c) Due to the presence of different elements which (b) Shoot bud and floral bud
coordinate to perform specific function (c) Ovule and seed
(d) None of the above (d) Petiole and pedicel
169 How is study of plant anatomy useful to us? 178 A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of
(a) To understand plant functions hemicellulose and pectin in cell walls. The tissue
(b) To understand the adaptations to diverse conditions represents
(c) To predict the strength of wood and utilise its potential (a) collenchyma (b) sclerenchyma
(d) All of the above (c) xylem (d) meristem
NCERT Exemplar
Column I Column II
170 What is the fate of primary xylem in a dicot root
showing extensive secondary growth? A. Meristem 1. Photosynthesis, storage
(a) It is retained in the centre mostly B. Parenchyma 2. Mechanical support
(b) It gets crushed C. Collenchyma 3. Actively dividing cells
(c) May or may not get crushed D. Sclerenchyma 4. Stomata
(d) It gets surrounded by primary phloem E. Epidermal tissue 5. Sclereids
171 A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be observed
in the transverse section of Codes
(a) monocot root A B C D E
(a) 1 3 5 2 4
(b) monocot stem
(b) 3 1 2 5 4
(c) dicot root
(c) 2 4 5 1 3
(d) dicot stem (d) 5 4 3 2 1
180 A transverse section of stem is stained first with 184 Match the following columns.
safranin and then with fast green following the usual
Column I Column II
schedule of double staining for the preparation of a
permanent slide. What would be the colour of the A. Cuticle 1. Guard cells
stained xylem and phloem? B. Bulliform cells 2. Single layer
(a) Red and green C. Stomata 3. Waxy layer
(b) Green and red D. Epidermis 4. Empty colourless cell
(c) Orange and yellow
(d) Purple and orange Codes
181 Cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall A B C D A B C D
thickening. They also provide mechanical support. (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
The tissue is
(a) xylem (b) sclerenchyma 185 When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove
(c) collenchyma (d) epidermis (a) periderm (b) root cap
(c) protoderm (d) phellogen
182 A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea) must
belong to 186 Which one of the following cell types always divides
(a) teak (b) mango (c) pine (d) palm by anticlinal cell division?
(a) Fusiform initial cells (b) Root cap
183 Which of the following constitutes a tissue system?
(c) Protoderm (d) Phellogen
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Xylem 187 Epiblema of roots is equivalent to
(c) Epidermis (a) pericycle (b) endodermis
(d) Phloem (c) epidermis (d) stele
Answers
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c) 11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (d)
16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (c) 35 (d) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (c) 41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (d)
46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (a) 51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (d) 59 (c) 60 (d)
61 (a) 62 (d) 63 (b) 64 (b) 65 (a) 66 (a) 67 (a) 68 (d) 69 (a) 70 (d) 71 (a) 72 (d) 73 (b) 74 (a) 75 (b)
76 (a) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (c) 80 (b) 81 (d) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (d) 88 (b) 89 (b) 90 (a)
91 (a) 92 (c) 93 (b) 94 (d) 95 (b) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (c) 99 (b) 100 (a) 101 (b) 102 (d) 103 (d) 104 (c) 105 (c)
106 (c) 107 (c) 108 (d) 109 (c) 110 (b) 111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (a) 114 (c) 115 (a) 116 (b) 117 (c) 118 (b)
119 (d) 120 (a) 121 (a) 122 (b) 123 (d) 124 (b) 125 (c) 126 (c) 127 (b) 128 (d) 129 (a) 130 (a) 131 (d) 132 (b) 133 (b)
134 (c) 135 (c) 136 (d) 137 (d) 138 (d) 139 (d) 140 (d) 141 (b) 142 (d) 143 (c) 144 (d) 145 (a) 146 (d) 147 (c) 148 (d)
149 (d) 150 (c) 151 (c) 152 (b) 153 (d) 154 (c) 155 (d) 156 (a) 157 (c) 158 (c) 159 (a) 160 (b) 161 (d) 162 (b) 163 (a)
164 (b) 165 (a)
166 (b) 167 (d) 168 (c) 169 (d) 170 (a) 171 (d) 172 (c) 173 (b) 174 (d) 175 (d) 176 (c) 177 (a) 178 (a) 179 (b) 180 (a)
181 (c) 182 (c) 183 (c) 184 (a) 185 (a) 186 (d) 187 (c)

2 (c) Meristem is the specialised region of active cell 27 (c) Tracheids, vessels and sclereids are similar as they
division in plants. Growth in plants is largely function when dead. These are the lignified, dead cells
restricted to this region. without protoplasm.
8 (b) Axillary bud originates from shoot apical 28 (b) Tracheids and vessels both are called tracheary
meristem. elements because their main function is conduction of
During the formation of leaves and elongation of sap. They differ from each other in being imperforated.
stem, some cells are ‘left behind’ from shoot apical Tracheids are the specific cells which have pits to support
meristem. These constitute the axillary buds. These upwards and lateral conduction of water sap.
buds are present in the axil of leaves and are capable 29 (c) The tyloses are the structures found in the woody
of forming a branch or a flower. tissues of dicot stems. These are the extensions of xylem
10 (c) Regeneration of damaged growing grass following parenchyma cells into the vessel elements.
grazing is largely due to the activity of intercalary
meristem. It is the meristem which occurs between
mature tissues.
It is found in grasses and regenerates parts damaged Parenchyma (a)
by the grazing herbivores.
13 (d) Intrafascicular cambium, interfascicular cambium
and cork cambium all are examples of secondary or
lateral meristems and are responsible for producing
secondary tissue.
Tyloses
14 (c) Division of cells in both primary and secondary
meristem results in the formation of new cells called
(b)
permanent or mature cells. Which become structurally
and functionally specialised and loose the ability to
divide.
Structure of tyloses in woody tissue
15 (d) During the formation of primary plant body,
(a) In longitudinal section (b) In cross-section
specific regions of apical meristem produce dermal
tissue for hardening, vascular tissue for transport and 30 (b) Option (b) is incorrect pair. It can be corrected as
ground tissue for photosynthesis, storage, Presence of vessels in xylem is a characteristic feature
regeneration, support and protection. of angiosperms. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube-like
18 (a) Parenchyma tissue comprises of cells which are structure made up of many cells called vessel members.
thin-walled and isodiametric. These may be spherical, Rest all options are correct pairs.
oval, round, polygonal or elongated in shape.
32 (a) Option (a) is the incorrect match and can be corrected
19 (c) Collenchyma occurs in layers below the epidermis as
in dicotyledonous plants. It is found either as a Vessels are cells with lignified cell wall. Mature vessels
homogeneous layer or in patches. are dead and without nucleus.
22 (b) Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to the These long cylindrical tube-like structures made up of
organs of plants and consists of thick, lignified cell many cells called vessel members and a large central
wall with few or numerous pits. Sclerenchymatous cavity. The vessel cells are also devoid of protoplasm.
cells are commonly found in fruit wall of nuts, pulp of Vessel members are interconnected through perforations
fruits like guava, pear and sapota; seed coat of in their common walls.
legumes and leaves of tea. Rest options contain correctly matched pairs.
23 (d) Option (d) is not a feature of sclereids. It can be 33 (d) Primary xylems are of two types, i.e. protoxylem
corrected as metaxylem. The first formed primary xylem elements are
Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells. called protoxylem and the primary xylem elements
Rest other options are features of sclereids. formed later is called metaxylem.
25 (c) Xylem in plants functions as a conducting tissue 34 (c) We will observe the protoxylem of the dicot stem and
and helps in the translocation of water, mineral salts, dicot root to distinguish between them. In dicot stem, the
some organic nitrogen and hormones from the soil to protoxylem is present towards centre (pith) and
the aerial parts of the plant. metaxylem is present towards the periphery of the organ.
This type of xylem is known as endarch. In dicot root,
26 (a) Vessels are not present in the xylem of
protoxylem is present towards periphery and metaxylem
pteridophytes and gymnosperms. Vessels are a present towards centre, forming the of type of
characteristic feature of the xylem of angiosperms. arrangement called exarch.
35 (d) Sclerenchyma is not a part of phloem tissue in walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are
angiosperm. Phloem is a complex tissue, which thin and inner wall (towards the stomatal pore) are
transports food materials usually from leaves to other highly thickened.
parts of the plants. 50 (a) Sometimes, a few epidermal cells in the vicinity of
Phloem in angiosperms is composed of sieve tube the guard cells become specialised in their shape and
elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and size they are known as subsidiary cells.
phloem fibres. 52 (b) The cells of epidermis bear a number of hairs. On
36 (c) Phloem in gymnosperms lacks both sieve tube and the primary stem, these epidermal hairs are called
companion cells. In gymnosperms, the phloem has trichomes.
albuminous cells and sieve cells only. On the other These may be branched or unbranched and soft or stiff
hand, the phloem of angiosperms is composed of four and even secretory. Trichomes help in preventing water
elements namely, sieve tube, companion cells, phloem loss due to transpiration.
parenchyma and phloem fibres.
53 (c) Option (c) is the incorrect match and can be
37 (b) Sieve tube elements are long, tube-like structures corrected as
arranged longitudinally and with perforated end walls in Root hairs are unicellular elongations of the epidermal
a sieve-like manner to form sieve plates. cells and help in absorption of water and mineral from
38 (d) Sieve tubes are best suited for translocation of food the soil.
(solutes) because they possess interconnected lumen Rest other options contain correct matches.
and perforated cross walls. Sieve tubes are elongated
tubular conducting channels of phloem. The end walls 54 (a) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
possess many small pores and have a thin cellulosic constitute ground tissue. It consists of simple tissues
wall. such as parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
55 (c) Ground tissue system of leaves consists of
39 (a) Companion cells are characteristic elements of
phloem tissue associated with the sieve tubes (sieve thin-walled chloroplast containing cells called
elements) in the angiosperms. The sieve tubes and mesophyll cells. Mesophyll cells are made up of two
companion cells are related ontogenically as they types of cells, i.e. palisade and spongy.
develop from the same mother cell. The companion 57 (b) The vascular bundles of monocots do not contain a
cells and sieve tubes maintain close cytoplasmic layer of meristematic tissue, i.e. cambium. Due to the
connections through plasmodesmata. absence of meristematic tissue or cambium near the
42 (d) The statement in option (d) is not a feature of vascular bundles, monocot plants are considered to
phloem parenchyma. It can be corrected as possess closed vascular bundles. Consequently,
secondary growth is not seen in them.
Phloem parenchyma cells have cell wall which
composed of cellulose and have pits through which 58 (d) Option (d) contains the incorrect pair. It can be
plasmodesmatal connection exists between the cells. corrected as
Rest options are the correct features of phloem In conjoint type of vascular bundles, the xylem and
parenchyma. phloem are situated at the same radius of the vascular
44 (c) The characters mentioned above are that of phloem bundle. Such vascular bundles are common in stems and
fibres or bast fibres. These are made up of leaves. The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the
sclerenchymatous cells and are generally absent in phloem located only on the outer side of xylem.
primary phloem but are present in secondary phloem. Rest other pairs are correct.
These are much elongated, unbranched with pointed 61 (a) Cortex tissue is found in between the epidermis and
needle-like apices thick cell wall. At maturity, however, stele. It is multilayered and is made up of
these fibres lose their protoplasm and die. parenchymatous cells with big intercellular spaces.
45 (d) The tissue system in plants is divisible into three 62 (d) Casparian strips are found in the endodermis of
types on the basis of their structure and location. These roots. It is a band of thickening which runs along the
are the epidermal tissue system, the ground or radial and tangential walls of endodermal cells. It is
fundamental tissue system and the vascular or made up of suberin and lignin. Casparian strips prevent
conducting tissue system. plasmolysis of endodermal cells.
46 (c) Option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as 64 (b) Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium
Epidermis consists of parenchyma and is single-layered. during secondary growth takes place in the cells of
Rest other options are correct for epidermis. pericycle. These are present next to endodermis as a few
47 (d) Option (d) is incorrect. It can be corrected as layered thin/thick-walled parenchymatous cells.
Bean-shaped cells are present in dicots known as guard 65 (a) The centre of a monocot or dicot root is occupied by
cells. pith. It consists of parenchymatous (thin-walled or
thick-walled) cells, which may be round or angular.
Rest other pairs are correct.
Intercellular spaces are present. The pith cells store
49 (a) Guard cells are modified epidermal cells. These cells food. Pith is small or inconspicuous in dicots and large
have chlorophyll and perform photosynthesis. The outer or conspicuous in monocots.
71 (a) In dicot stem, between the vascular bundles, there In leaves, the ground tissue consists of thin-walled
are few layers of radially placed parenchymatous cells. chloroplast containing cells called mesophyll cells.
These constitute the medullary rays. Secondary root and secondary stem are formed of dead
75 (b) In maize (monocot) stem, water containing cells which are not parenchymatous.
lysigenous cavities are present in the vascular bundle. 96 (d) Option (d) is the incorrect pair and can be corrected
These are formed by the dissolution of the inner as
protoxylem vessel and the parenchyma. The spring wood is lighter in colour and has a lower
80 (b) The vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of density whereas the autumnwood is darker and has a
thick-walled bundle sheath cells. These cells contain higher density.
chloroplasts and are the site of photosynthesis. Rest other pairs are correct.
81 (d) Option (d) is correct as both the pairs in options 97 (d) The two kinds of woods (i.e. spring wood and
(a) and (b) are correct. autumn wood) that appear as alternate concentric rings,
The incorrect pair in option (c) can be corrected as constitute an annual ring. Annual rings seen in a cut
Hypodermis is collenchymatous in sunflower stem stem give an estimate of the age of the tree.
(dicot) and it is sclerenchymatous in maize stem 99 (b) In old trees, the greater part of secondary xylem is
(monocot). dark brown due to the deposition of organic compounds
85 (a) Flaccidity of bulliform cells is the most appropriate like tannins, resins, oils, gums, aromatic substances and
reason for the curling of grass leaves during dry essential oils in the central or innermost layer of the
weather. stem.
Bulliform cells are present between the epidermal cells 100 (a) Heartwood is the dark coloured secondary xylem in
of the leaf and they help to minimise the water loss due perennial trees which is hard, durable and resistant to
to the transpiration during water stress period. When the the attack of microorganisms and insects. This region
bulliform cells have absorbed water and are turgid, the consists of elements with highly lignified cell walls.
leaf surface is exposed. When these are flaccid due to 102 (d) Phellogen or cork cambium is the meristematic
water stress, they make the leaves curl inwards to tissue, which arises in the cortical region during
minimise water loss. secondary growth in dicot stems. Phellogen formed
87 (d) Secondary growth refers to increase in girth of plant when a portion of cortex undergoes differentiation is a
due to the formation of secondary tissues by the two meristematic tissue which is a couple of thick layer. It is
lateral meristems, i.e. vascular cambium and cork made up of narrow, thin-walled and nearly rectangular
cambium. cells.
89 (b) Secondary vascular tissues, i.e. secondary xylem and 104 (c) The thin walls of cork cells are saturated with a fatty
phloem are formed by the vascular cambium. Vascular waxy substance called suberin which makes the cell
cambium produced by two types of meristems, i.e. wall of the cork thick and almost impervious to water.
fascicular or intrafascicular and interfascicular 105 (c) Phellem or cork is a tissue formed on the outer side
cambium. cork cambium. It is composed of dead cells and
When its cells cut off towards pith, it matures into develops a thick and impermeable cell wall due to
secondary xylem. When its cells cut of towards the suberisation.
periphery it matures to secondary phloem. 106 (c) As the stem continues to increase in girth due to the
90 (a) In young stem, vascular cambium is present in activity of vascular cambium, the outer cortical and
patches as a single layer between the xylem and epidermal layer get broken and need to be replaced to
phloem. Later, it forms a complete ring. provide new protective cell layers. Hence, sooner or
91 (a) The cells of medullary rays, adjoining intrafascicular later, another meristematic tissue called cork cambium
or phellogen develops, usually in the cortex region,
cambium become meristematic and form the

interfascicular cambium. which forms new layers, outer phellem and inner
phelloderm which are collectively called as periderm.
92 (c) Cambium is generally more active on the in nerside
of stem than the outer. As a result, the amount of 108 (d) Bark is the non-technical term that refers to all dead
secondary xylem produced is more than the secondary tissues exterior to the vascular cambium.
phloem and soon forms a compact mass. 109 (c) Secondary xylem is not the part of bark. Bark is a
94 (d) In the given diagram, the fusiform initials of non-technical term that refers to all the tissues exterior
vascular cambium will give rise to, both A (secondary to the vascular cambium. Consisting of periderm (i.e.
xylem) and B (secondary phloem). phellem, phellogen and phelloderm) and secondary
phloem.
The part labelled C is medullary rays, which are not
formed from fusiform initials. 111 (b) Lenticels permit the exchange of gases between the
outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of the stem.
95 (b) Parenchymatous cells are usually present in the
These occur in stems of most woody trees.
cortex, pericycle, pith and medullary rays, in the
primary stems and roots. At certain regions, the phellogen cuts off closely
arranged parenchymatous cells on the outer side instead
of cork cells. These parenchymatous cells soon rupture function (not simple function) or have same structure.
the epidermis, forming a lens-shaped openings called Simple permanent tissues are of three types, i.e.
lenticels. parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
113 (a) In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is 124 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
completely secondary in origin. It originates from the is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
tissue located just below the phloem bundles, i.e. Sclereids are highly thickened dead sclerenchymatous
portion of pericycle tissue. cells with very narrow cavities as these are lignified.
114 (c) The correct order of arrangement of the given These are found in hard parts of the plant.
components from outer side to inner side in a woody Sclereids are broader and are isodiametric polyhedral,
dicot stem is as follows spherical, oval, short or cylindrical. These may also be
Phellem → Secondary cortex → Secondary phloem → branched. Sclereids are found in grit of guava, sapota,
Wood. apple, pear, epidermal covering of some legumes, seeds,
etc.
115 (a) In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates
from tissues located below the phloem bundles and a 125 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
portion of pericycle tissue above the protoxylem. corrected as
Vascular cambium is the meristematic layer that is Vessels are absent in gymnosperms and pteridophytes
responsible for cutting off vascular tissues (xylem and with the exceptions of a few (e.g. Selaginella species,
phloem). In young stem, it is present in patches as a Gnetum). The presence of vessels is a characteristic
single layer between the xylem and phloem. feature of angiosperms.
119 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can Xylem is a complex tissue, which consists of four types
be corrected as of cells, namely tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and
xylem parenchyma. Vessels are much elongated tubes
Apical and intercalary meristems increase the height of
(3-6 metres in Eucalyptus), which are closed at either
maize plant. But lateral meristems which is responsible
ends and are formed by the union of several short, wide
for promoting secondary growth (increases in girth) does
and thickened cells called vessel elements or members.
not contribute to growth in maize plant as secondary
growth does not occur in monocots, e.g. maize. 126 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
120 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is corrected as
the correct explanation of Assertion. Bundle sheath surrounds only vascular bundles of
Quiescent centre is present between root cap and active monocot leaf not in root and stem. The vascular bundles
meristematic region of root. The cells of this region containing cambium are said to be open, but if no
remain arrested in G 0 -phase of cell cycle and are not cambium develops, they are referred to as closed. In
dividing. It is thus, the inactive region, which monocots, closed vascular bundles are found because of
constitutes a permanent source of active initials. During the absence of cambium.
damage to active plant cells, the cells of quiescent 127 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
centre become active. is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
121 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is Root hairs are elongations of epidermal cells of roots.
the correct explanation of Assertion. These are unicellular and help to absorb water and
The characteristic feature of endodermal cells of roots is minerals from the soil. Trichomes are usually
the presence of Casparian thickenings on their radial multicellular extensions present on the stem which
and transverse walls. But all cells of endodermis do not prevent water loss from transpiration.
have Casparian thickenings instead, they have simple 128 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
permeable cell wall. Those cells are called passage be corrected as
cells, which face opposite to the protoxylem cells.
Phloem fibres or bast fibres are made up of
122 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is sclerenchymatous cells.
not the correct explanation of Assertion. These are generally absent in primary phloem, but are
The meristem that occurs in the mature regions of roots quite common in secondary phloem. Phloem fibres
and shoots of many plants, particularly those that provide mechanical strength. The textile fibres of flax
produce woody axis is called secondary meristem. It is (Linum usitatissimum), hemp (Cannabis) and jute
named, so because it appears later than primary (Corchorus species) are phloem fibres, which are used
meristem and forms the secondary plant body. for making ropes and coarse textiles.
Intrafascicular cambium, interfascicular cambium and 129 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
cork cambium are examples of secondary or lateral the correct explanation of Assertion.
meristems. In temperate regions, cambium is very active in the
123 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can spring season and produces a large number of xylary
be corrected as elements having vessels with wider cavities. The wood
A simple permanent tissue is that tissue, which is made formed during this season is called spring wood or early
up of similar permanent cells that carry out the same wood. In winter, the cambium is less active and forms
fewer xylary elements that have narrow vessels, and this conduction of water and minerals is carried out by
wood is called autumn wood or late wood. The spring sapwood, because it contains living cells.
wood is lighter in colour and has a lower density, Rest of the statements are correct.
whereas the autumn wood is darker and has a higher
151 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect. Correct
density.
information about its statement is as follows
Two kinds of woods that appear as alternate concentric
Annual rings are formed due to the seasonal activity of
rings, constitute an annual ring.
cambium. In the plants of temperate region, cambium is
130 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. highly active in spring and less active in autumn season.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected Hence, prominent rings are formed in these plants
as having light and dark bands of tissue.
l Only meristematic cells of a plant are capable of Rest of the statements are correct.
dividing. 152 (b) In the spring season, cambium is very active and
l Permanent tissues have all cells with similar structure produces a large number of xylary elements having
and function. vessels with wider cavities. The wood formed is called
136 (d) Only statement III is incorrect and can be corrected spring wood or early wood. It is lighter in colour and
as has a lower density.
Functions of sieve tubes are controlled by the nucleus of In winter, the cambium is less active and forms fewer
companion cells. xylary elements that have narrow vessels, and this wood
is called autumn wood or late wood. It is dark in colour
Rest of the statements are correct. with higher density.
137 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be Thus, option (b) is correct
corrected as
154 (c) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
The outside of the epidermis is often covered with waxy incorrect and can be corrected as
thick layer called cuticle, which prevents the loss of
water. In the formation of heartwood and sapwood, it is not
necessary that the wood formed in previous years is
Rest of the statements are correct. lighter than newer wood.
140 (d) Statements I, II, III and IV are correct. 155 (d) Both statements I and II are false and can be
Statement V is incorrect and can be corrected as corrected as
Guard cells are dumb-bell-shaped in monocots and l Cortex is not formed during secondary growth.
bean-shaped in dicots.
l Cork cambium or phellogen (not cortex) is a couple of
142 (d) The given diagram is of monocot stem and the layers thick and made up of narrow, thin-walled and
statement in option (d) is incorrect in regard to it. It can nearly rectangular cells.
be corrected as
156 (a) Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is
Ground tissue is a mass of similar cells which does not incorrect and can be corrected as
show distinction into cortex, endodermis, pericycle,
pith, etc. Entire ground tissue is a mass of Secondary growth does not occur monocots but occurs
parenchymatous cells. in stems and roots of gymnosperms.
Rest of the statements are correct. 166 (b) On observing a transverse section under the
microscope we can ascertain, whether it is a young
145 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Rest of the monocot stem or dicot stem by observing arrangement
statements are incorrect and can be corrected as of vascular bundles. In dicot stem, vascular bundles are
l The vascular bundles of monocot stem are conjoint and arranged in a ring, while in monocot stem, vascular
closed. bundles are scattered.
l The monocot stem has sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a 168 (c) Parmanent tissues are specialised to perform specific
large number of scattered vascular bundles, each functions. These can be simple or complex. Xylem and
surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath and phloem are made up of more than one type of cells and
large, conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. work in a coordinated manner, as a unit, to perform
147 (c) Statement V is incorrect and can be corrected as specific functions. Thus, xylem and phloem are called
In an isobilateral leaf, vascular bundles are conjoint and complex permanent tissues.
collateral. Xylem lies towards the adaxial (upper) side 170 (a) Primary xylem is present in the centre of the root.
and phloem lies towards abaxial (lower) side of leaf. As secondary growth occurs in the root, the primary
Rest of the statements are correct. phloem is pushed outside whereas, primary xylem
remains towards the inside of the root.
corrected as 172 (c) Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are
formed due to cell dedifferentiation. When, the fully
Heartwood does not conduct water and minerals
differentiated parenchymatous cells regain their
because of the presence of dead elements. The
capacity for cell division under certain conditions,
formation of interfascicular cambium and cork Whereas teak, mango and palm are angiospermic trees.
cambium takes place. Angiospermic xylem contains vessels, tracheids,
174 (d) Fibres are absent in leaves. The leaves of plants are parenchyma and fibres.
main photosynthetic organs. These cells are specialised 183 (c) Epidermis is the outermost layer of the primary plant
parenchymatous cells having chlorophyll. Fibres are body and constitutes a tissue system. It is usually a
sclerenchymatous cells thus absent in leaves of all single-layered structure made up of elongated,
plants. compactly arranged cells. The remaining options like
175 (d) The species of genus–Trochodendron have unique xylem, phloem and parenchyma are types of cells found
feature of the angiosperms, i.e. presence of prominent in plant.
sieve tube cells. 185 (a) Potato is an underground stem. The outer epidermal
176 (c) Apical meristem is always present at the growing layer of the stem is known as periderm. So, when we
apices. Plants having 4 branches and 26 leaves will remove the skin of potato, we are actually removing its
have 5 growing shoot apices (4 growing apex of the periderm.
branches + one growing apex of the main plant axis). 186 (d) Phellogen is the secondary meristematic tissue,
177 (a) Root and shoot tips (apical meristem) of plant lack which develops from the cells of cortical region of dicot
epidermis. Epidermis is outermost layer of stem.
differentiated cells. Apical meristem have actively It is responsible for secondary growth in dicot stem.
dividing cells thus epidermis is not present. Its cells divide on both sides, i.e. anticlinal division
occurs.
178 (a) Collenchyma cells show the presence of
hemicellulose and pectin in their cell walls. These are a On the outer side of stem, it gives rise to cork or
group of specialised cells meant for providing phellem and on inner side, it produces phelloderm or
mechanical support. In these cells, thickening at the secondary cortex.
corners are seen, which is mainly due to the deposition 187 (c) Epidermis is usually a single-layered structure,
of pectin and hemicellulose. present all over the body surface of the plant. In case of
180 (a) Xylem would be coloured red with safranin and roots, it is called epiblema instead of epidermis. Thus,
phloem would be green with fast green. This is because epiblema of roots is equivalent to the epidermis.
safranin is used to stain nucleus and fast green stains l Whereas stele is a collective term for vascular tissues in
cellulosic part, cytoplasm, collagen, etc., in a cell and case of vascular plants (pteridophytes, gymnosperms
these are present in phloem not in xylem. and angiosperms).
182 (c) Pine is a gymnosperm and vessels are absent in l Endodermis and pericycle are the part of root or stem
gymnosperms. encircling vascular strands.

CHAPTER > 07
Structural
Organisation
in Animals
NEET KEY NOTES
Å In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells having the Å Epithelial tissue is broadly classified into two categories
same origin and performing a specific function form an n
Simple epithelium composed of single layer of cells,
organisation called tissue. which lines body cavities, ducts and tubes.
Å Cells, tissues, organs and organ system exhibit division of n
Compound epithelium composed of two or more layers
labour and contribute to the survival of an organism. of cell, which is protective in function.
Based on structural modifications, simple epithelium is
Animal Tissues
Å
further divided into the following types

The structure of cells vary according to their functions. n
Squamous epithelium is formed of single thin layer of
Therefore, animal tissues can be classified broadly as
flat cells with irregular boundaries. It forms diffusion
Animal Tissues boundaries in the air sacs of lungs and the walls of blood
vessels.
Epithelial Tissue Connective Tissue
n
Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of
cube-like cells. It performs secretion and absorption in
Simple epithelium Loose connective tissue tubular portion of nephron and glandular ducts. The
Dense connective tissue cuboidal epithelium of Proximal Convoluted Tubule
Compound epithelium
Specialised connective tissue (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has microvilli.
Reticular connective tissue n
Columnar epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall
Pigmented connective tissue and slender cells with nuclei located at the base and
Mucoid connective tissue microvilli at the free surface and is called brush bordered
columnar epithelium. It helps in absorption and secretion
Muscular Tissue Neural / Nervous Tissue
in stomach and intestine.
Striated muscle n
Ciliated epithelium is derived from columnar or
Non-striated muscle
cuboidal cells which bear cilia on the free surface. Its
Cardiac muscle
function is to move particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium. It is found in the inner
Epithelial Tissue surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and Fallopian
Å It possesses free surface and its cells are compactly packed tubes.
with little intercellular matrix. It lines the body surfaces n
Glandular epithelium is formed by the modification of
facing lumen, cavities, ducts, etc. columnar or cuboidal cells, which become specialised for
CHAPTER 07 > Structural Organisation in Animals 157
secretion. Cells are mainly of two types, unicellular (e.g. n

Adipose tissue located mainly beneath the skin and
goblet cells) and multicellular (e.g. salivary gland). Based is specialised to store fats.
on the mode of pouring of secretions, glands are either 2. Dense connective tissue contains compactly packed
exocrine (pour secretions into ducts) or endocrine fibres and fibroblasts. It also contain two sub-types
(ductless glands pour secretions directly into the fluid n
Dense regular tissue in which collagen fibres are
bathing glands).
found in rows between parallel bundles of fibres,
n
Pseudostratified epithelium It is one cell thick, yet it e.g. tendons (attach skeletal muscles to bones) and
appears to be multilayered. It is of two types, i.e. ligaments (attach one bone to another).
pseudostratified columnar epithelium (in the large ducts n
Dense irregular tissue in which collagen fibres and
of parotid glands) and pseudostratified columnar fibroblasts are oriented differently, e.g. in deeper
ciliated epithelium (in the large bronchi and trachea). skin layers and sclera of eyes.
Å Based on structural modifications, compound epithelium is 3. Specialised connective tissue comprises of cartilage,
of following types bones and blood.
n
Stratified squamous epithelium its cells in the deepest n
Cartilage Intercellular material is solid and pliable.
layer are columnar or cuboidal with oval nuclei. It is of The cells, chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities.
two types, i.e. keratinised stratified squamous Cartilage is found in nose tip, outer ear joints and
epithelium (in skin epidermis) and non-keratinised between adjacent bones of vertebral column.
stratified squamous epithelium (in pharynx, vagina, n
Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
etc.) substance, rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
n
Stratified cuboidal epithelium its outer cells are cuboidal The osteoblasts (bone forming cells), osteocytes
and basal cells are columnar. It lines the sweat gland (bone maintaining cells and osteoclasts (bone
ducts and large salivary ducts. cleaning cells) are found in lacunae. The Osteon or
n
Stratified columnar epithelium has columnar cells in Haversian system is the cylindrical functional unit
both superficial and basal layer. It lines mammary consisting of lamellae that surrounds the Haversian
glands, ducts and parts of urethra. canal. Bone marrow in some long bones is the site of
blood cell production.
n
Stratified ciliated columnar epithelium whose outer
layer has ciliated columnar cells and the basal layer
n
Blood is a fluid connective tissue, consisting of
consists of columnar cells. It lines the larynx and upper plasma, RBCs, WBCs and platelets. It is the main
part of the soft palate. circulating fluid which enables transport of various
substances.
n
Transitional epithelium appears stratified and consists of
fewer layers of less flattened surface cells with remarkable Muscle Tissue
flexibility. It is found in ureters, urinary bladder and
It is made up of fibres which are composed of myofibrils.
urethra.
The three types of muscles are
Å Epithelium cells are structurally and functionally linked
Å Skeletal muscles are striated in appearance, voluntary in
through cell junctions. The three types of cell junctions are
action and are closely attached to the skeletal bones.
n
Tight junctions stop leakage of substances across a tissue. Å Smooth muscles are non-striated, involuntary muscles,
n
Adhering junctions cement the neighbouring cells found in the wall of internal organs such as blood
together. vessels, stomach and intestine.
n
Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate by Å Cardiac muscles are contractile tissues present only in
connecting cytoplasm of adjoining cells. the heart. The cell junctions of cardiac muscle cells fuse
the plasma membrane and make them stick together.
Connective Tissue Intercalated discs act as the communication junctions
It is the most abundant tissue and it helps in binding or linking, allowing the cells to contract as a unit.
supporting and protecting other tissues in the body.
Å The three types of connective tissues are
Nervous/Neural Tissue
It exerts the greatest control over body’s response to
1. Loose connective tissue contains loosely arranged cells various stimuli. Neurons the basic unit of neural tissue, are
and fibres in a semi-fluid ground substance. It consists of excitable cells that show conductivity. There are also
two sub-types neuroglial cells that support the neurons structurally. Each
n
Areolar tissue contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast neuron consists of cyton (cell body), dendrites and axon
cells. It supports the epithelium and is present beneath (processes of neuron).
the skin.
NEET KEY NOTES

Organ and Organ System

Å The basic tissues organise to form organs which then associate to form organ system in multicellular organisms.
Å Morphology (study of externally visible features) and anatomy (study of morphology of internal organs) of earthworm,
cockroach and frog are discussed below in brief.
Earthworm (Pheretima posthuma) Cockroach (Periplaneta americana) Frog (Rana tigrina)
Colour Glistening reddish brown Brown/Black Olive green with dark irreugular spots
Body
Metamerically segmented, first body
Externally segmented into head, thorax
Divisible into head and trunk (neck and
segment is peristomium and prostomium and abdomen. tail are absent).
overhangs upon it dorsally.
Mouth parts consist of labrum (upper lip),
Cold-blooded or Poikilothermous;

Clitellum (glandular tissue) present in a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae, a become metabolically inactive during
14th-16th segments, divides the body in labium (lower lip) and the hypopharynx. summer sleep (aestivation) and winter
3 regions, i.e. preclitellar, clitellar and
Thorax consists of prothorax, mesothorax sleep (hibernation).
post-clitellar segments. and metathorax.

Abdomen in both males and females
consists of 10 segments enclosed by four
sclerites, i.e. one dorsal tergum, one
ventral sternum and two lateral pleura.

Chitinous exoskeleton covers the body.
Body wall
4-layered (i.e. cuticle, epidermis, muscle
3-layered (i.e. cuticle, hypodermis and
Smooth moist and scaleless, 2-layered
layer and parietal or coelomic layer). basement membrane). (epidermis and dermis) skin.
Locomotion
Rows of S-shaped setae found in each
Two pairs of wings, mesothoracic and
Four digits in forelimbs and five digits in
segment except at first, last and metathoracic, the latter help in flight. hindlimbs, help in swimming, walking,
clitellum, help in locomotion. leaping and burrowing.
Sexual
Hermaphrodite, protandrous animal with
Dioecious, 7th sternum of female is
Dioecious, males possess vocal sacs, and
dimorphism cross-fertilisation. boat-shaped and together with 8th and 9th copulatory pad on the first digit of
sterna, forms a genital pouch, males forelimb.
possesses anal styles and absent in females.
Digestive
Alimentary canal is complete.
Alimentary canal is subdivided into
Complete alimentary canal opens into
system foregut, midgut and hindgut. cloaca.

Main grinding organ is the muscular
gizzard (8th-9th segments).

Crop serves for food storage.
The main digestive glands are liver and

Typhosole (a median fold of dorsal wall)

Gizzard contains 6 chitinous plates called pancreas.
in intestine increases absorptive surface teeth, which enable grinding of food
(26th segment onwards). particle.

Hepatic caeca secrete digestive enzyme
1
and is present at the junction of foregut
2
3 Mouth and midgut.
4
5
Pharynx

Calciferous glands present in the stomach,
6
7 neutralise the humic acid present in humus.
8 Pharynx
9
10 Salivary gland Heart Oesophagus
11 Oesophagus
12 Salivary
13 Gizzard reservoir
14
15 Stomach Gall
16 Oesophagus bladder Liver
17
18
19 Pre-typhlosolar Crop
20
21 part of intestine Lung
22 Gizzard Stomach
23 Fat bodies
24 Intestinal caecum
25 Hepatic caeca
26 Kidney
27
Lymph gland
28
Typhlosolar part Mesenteron Ureter
29
30 of intestine or Midgut Urinary
31 bladder
32 Malpighian
33 Intestinal lumen tubules Cloaca
34
Typhlosole IIeum Intestine
Cloacal aperture
Colon Rectum Rectum
Digestive system of earthworm Digestive system of cockroach Digestive system of frog
NEET KEY NOTES


Respiratory
Cutaneous (through moist skin)
Tracheal (opening through 10 pairs of
Cutaneous (skin), buccopharyngeal and
system spiracles). pulmonary (lungs).
Circulatory
Closed with heart and valves, blood
Open, with an open space, haemocoel
Closed, with single circulation, well-
system glands present on the 4th-6th segments, containing haemolymph; pumping of heart developed hepatic and renal portal
phagocytic blood cells are present. is assisted by alary muscles. system.
Excretory Through nephridia

Uricotelic, excretion through Malpighian
Through well-developed excretory
system
Septal nephridia (15th to last segment), tubules, fat body, nephrocytes and urecose system (kidneys, ureters, a urinary
enteronephric glands. bladder and cloaca).

Integumentary nephridia (3rd to last
segment).

Pharyngeal nephridia (4th to 6th
segment), enteronephric
Nervous
Ganglia arranged segmentwise on
Fused, segmentally arranged ganglia;
Well-defined CNS, PNS and ANS.
system ventral paired nerve cord. three lie in the thorax and six in the
Ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from

Nerve cord bifurcates in the anterior abdomen. Ganglia joined by paired the brain; brain divided into forebrain,
region, laterally encircling the pharynx longitudinal connectives on the ventral midbrain and hindbrain.
and joins the cerebral ganglia dorsally to side.
form nerve ring.
Sense organs Three sensory receptors, i.e.
Photoreceptors (light) in compound eye
Tangoreceptors (touch)

Epidermal (touch) containing ommatidia
Gustatoreceptors

Chemoreceptors (taste)

Thigmoreceptors (touch) on antennae
Olfactoreceptors

Photoreceptors (light).

Chemoreceptors (taste) in mouthparts
Organs of vision and hearing

Auditory receptors (sound). (tympanum).
Reproductive 1
2 Oviduct
system 3
4
5 Spermathecae
Testis
6 Ovary
Spermiducal Phallic gland
7 Small tubules Ova
funnels
Long tubules
8 Testis sac
Seminal vesicle
9 with testes Ureter
Vas deferens
10 Testes Ejaculatory duct
Right phallomere
11 Seminal Ventral phallomere
vesicles Anal cercus
12 Cloaca
Caudal style
Ovary
Left phallomere Pseudopenis Cloacal aperture
13
Titillator Urinary bladder
Ovarian
14 (a)
funnel Reproductive system of female frog
Clitellum
Reproductive system of male cockroach

15
Oviduct Vasa efferentia
16
Vasa Fat
17
Accessory glands
deferentia bodies
Testis
18 Kidney
Spermatheca
Ovary
Oviduct Adrenal
19
gland
Prostate Common oviduct
20 gland or Vagina
Urinogenital
Collaterial glands Rectum duct
Genital chamber Cloaca
Common prostatic Gonapophyses
and spermatic duct (b) Vestibulum Urinary Cloacal
bladder aperture
Reproductive system of earthworm Reproductive system of female cockroach Reproductive system of male frog
NEET KEY NOTES


Testis and
Two pairs of testis present in the 10-11th
Paired testes on lateral sides in the
Male reproductive system consists of a pair
ovaries segments; male genital pores on the 4th-6th abdominal segments. testes, vasa efferentia (which opens into
ventro-lateral side of the 18th segment.
Ovaries lying laterally in the 2nd-6th Bidder’s canal), urinogenital duct and cloaca.

One pair of ovaries at the segment.
Female reproductive system consists of a pair
inter-segmental septum of the 12th and
Accessory reproductive glands called of ovaries, oviduct and cloaca.
13th segments, female genital pore on mushroom glands in males in 6-7th
14th segment. abdominal segments.

Four pairs of spermathecae are located in
6-9th segments.
Fertilisation
External (in a cocoon)
Internal (within genital pouch)
External (in water)
Development
Direct, i.e. without any larval stage.
Paurometabolous, i.e. development
Indirect (through metamorphosis of tadpole to
through nymphal stage inside the ootheca adult frog).
(egg case).
Economic
Process of increasing fertility of soil by
Considered as pests and transmit a variety
Maintains ecological balance, i.e. serve as an
importance earthworms (vermicomposting) make the of bacterial diseases. important link of food chain and food web in
soil porous hence, earthworms are called the ecosystem.
‘Friends of Farmers’.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Animal Tissues
1 Tissue is 5 Lining of body cavities, ducts and tubes are made up of

(a) a group of similar cells together with their intercellular (a) compound epithelium
substances, which perform a specific function (b) simple epithelium
(b) a single specialised cell with specified functions (c) cuboidal epithelium
(c) composed of a single layer of cuboidal cells (d) keratinised epithelium
(d) Both (a) and (c)
6 Which of the following is not a function of
2 In a tissue, the structure of cells varies according to epithelium?
their (a) Protection
(a) origin (b) function (b) Connection
(c) gene content (d) None of these (c) Secretion or Excretion
3 Which of the following tissues provide a covering (d) Absorption
layer for some of the body parts? 7 The cells of squamous epithelium are
(a) Connective tissue (b) Muscular tissue (a) multilayered and thick
(c) Epithelial tissue (d) Neural tissue (b) flat and thick
4 Which one of the following options is associated with (c) thin with rigid boundaries
epithelium? (d) flat with irregular boundaries
(a) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular 8 The endothelium of blood vessels is made up of simple
matrix (a) cuboidal epithelium
(b) Cells are loosely packed with large intercellular matrix (b) squamous epithelium
(c) It is highly vascularised (c) columnar epithelium
(d) It is a supporting tissue (d) non-ciliated columnar epithelium
9 The cavities of alveoli of human lungs are lined by 18 Categorisation of secretory glands can be done on the
(a) cuboidal epithelium basis of
(b) columnar epithelium (a) mode of pouring of their secretion
(c) stratified cuboidal epithelium (b) mode of breaking down of molecules
(d) squamous epithelium (c) mode of segregation of products
10 Choose the correctly matched pair. CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (d) None of the above
(a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium 19 Which of the following secretions are released
(b) Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium through ducts in human body ?
(c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium (a) Oil and milk (b) Mucus and ear wax
(d) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous epithelium (c) Digestive enzymes (d) All of these
11 Identify the given diagram of tissue performing the 20 In humans, compound squamous epithelium is found in
functions like secretion and absorption. AIIMS 2019 (a) stomach (b) intestine
(c) trachea (d) pharynx
21 Compound epithelium
(a) plays major role in secretion and absorption
(b) provides protection against chemical and mechanical
Cube-like cell
stresses
(c) covers only dry surface of skin
(a) Simple cuboidal epithelium (d) All of the above
(b) Simple columnar epithelium 22 Cell junctions are formed by
(c) Stratified cuboidal epithelium (a) epithelial tissue (b) connective tissue
(d) Stratified columnar epithelium (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) muscular tissue
12 The columnar epithelium in human body is found in 23 The function of adhering junction is to
(a) stomach (b) lungs (a) prevent leakage of substances across tissues
(c) kidney (d) Fallopian tube (b) connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cells
13 Which of the following epithelium types helps in the (c) diffuse small ions across tissues
secretion and absorption of nutrients? (d) cement the neighbouring cells together
(a) Cuboidal (b) Stratified squamous 24 The function of the gap junction is to NEET 2016
(c) Squamous (d) Columnar (a) perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
14 The type of tissue lining in the nasal passage and the (b) facilitate communication between adjoining cells by
bronchioles is connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions,
(a) columnar ciliated epithelium small molecules and some large molecules
(b) cuboidal epithelium (c) separate two cells from each other
(c) neurosensory epithelium (d) stop substance from leaking across a tissue
(d) germinal epithelium 25 A, B and C in given figures and choose the correct
15 The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move combination of option.
particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans,
these cells are mainly present in NEET 2019
(a) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
(b) eustachian tube and salivary duct A B
(c) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(d) bile duct and bronchioles
16 The tissue, which forms the glands in humans is
(a) muscular tissue
(b) nervous tissue
(c) epithelial tissue C
(d) connective tissue
17 Goblet cells of alimentary canal are a type of (a) A–Ciliated columnar, B–Squamous, C–Cuboidal
(a) intercellular gland (b) multicellular gland (b) A–Cuboidal, B–Squamous, C–Ciliated columnar
(c) A–Squamous, B–Ciliated columnar, C–Cuboidal
(c) unicellular gland (d) None of these
(d) A–Ciliated columnar, B–Cuboidal, C–Squamous
26 Identify A, B and C in given figures and choose the Part A Part B Part C Part D
correct combination of options. (a) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell
fibres
(b) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres
(c) Macrophage Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell
A fibres
(d) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macrophage
B fibres
31 Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in animal

body is
(a) epithelium tissue (b) connective tissue
C (c) skeletal muscle tissue (d) smooth muscle tissue
32 Examples of specialised connective tissue is/are
(a) bone (b) cartilage (c) blood (d) All of these
(a) A–Unicellular gland, B–Multicellular glands,
C–Pseudocolumnar cells 33 Which of the following cells is/are contained in
(b) A–Multicellular gland, B–Unicellular glands, areolar connective tissue?
C–Squamous epithelium (a) Mast cells (b) Fibroblasts
(c) A–Unicellular gland, B–Multicellular glands, (c) Macrophages (d) All of these
C–Multilayered cells
34 Cells of areolar tissues that produce or secrete fibres
(d) A–Flattened cell, B–Multilayered cells,
C–Transitional epithelium
are called
(a) fibroblasts (b) mast cells
27 Which of the following tissues performs the function (c) macrophages (d) adipocytes
of linking and supporting other tissues of the body?
(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Muscular tissue
35 Adipose tissue is a type of
(c) Connective tissue (d) Nervous tissue (a) loose connective tissue
(b) dense connective tissue
28 Find the incorrect match between columns I and II. (c) specialised connective tissue
Column I Column II (d) None of the above
(a) Minimum regeneration power – Nervous tissue 36 Adipose tissue performs which of the following
(b) Keratinised epithelial tissue – Pharynx, vagina, functions?
urethra
(a) Producing fat (b) Dissolving fat
(c) Galea and lacinia are part of maxilla – Periplaneta (c) Storing fat (d) All of these
(d) Plasma cells – Produce antibodies
37 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of adipose
29 Choose the correctly matched pair. CBSE-AIPMT 2014 tissue.
(a) Tendon – Specialised connective tissue (a) A–Cytoplasm, B–Nucleus,
(b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue C–Cell wall
A
(c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue (b) A–Fat storage area, B–Mast cell,
(d) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue C–Plasma membrane B
(c) A–Cell fluid, B–Collagen fibres,
30 Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain C–Plasmalemma C
type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled (d) A–Fat storage area, B–Nucleus,
A, B, C and D and select the right option about them. C–Plasma membrane
CBSE-AIPMT 2012
38 Tendon is an example of which of the following
A connective tissue?
(a) Loose connective tissue
B (b) Dense connective tissue
(c) Specialised connective tissue
C (d) All of the above
39 Tendons help in connecting
(a) muscles to bones (b) bone to bone
(c) bone to cartilage (d) cartilage to muscle
D
40 Matrix secreting cells of cartilage are known as 48 Each muscle is made up of long, cylindrical fibres
(a) chondrocytes (b) osteoblasts arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are composed
(c) fibroblasts (d) mast cells of numerous fine fibrils called
41 Which of the following type of connective tissues is (a) myofibrils (b) microfilament
present at the tip of human nose? (c) fibroblast (d) None of these
(a) Cartilage (b) Bone 49 Examine the following figures, identify A, B and C
(c) Adipose tissue (d) None of these and choose the correct option.
Smooth muscle
42 In the given diagram of TS of fibres
cartilage, identify A and B. Striations
Striations
(a) A–Collagen; B–Chondrocyte A
(b) A–Osteocyte; B–Collagen Nucleus
B
(c) A–Microtubule; B–Osteocyte Junction
(d) A–Chondrocyte; B–Collagen Nucleus between
adjacent
43 In humans, the cartilage cells
(a) contains solid and pliable intercellular material
(b) in vertebrate embryo gets replaced by bones in adults A B C
(c) is found in between the bones of vertebral coloumn (a) A–Skeletal muscle, B–Voluntary muscle, C–Cardiac
(d) All of the above muscle
44 Cells, which help in the formation of bones are called (b) A–Skeletal muscle, B–Smooth muscle, C–Cardiac
(a) chondroblasts (b) osteoblasts muscle
(c) A–Cardiac muscle, B–Skeletal muscle, C–Smooth
(c) osteoclasts (d) chondroclasts
muscle
45 In the given diagram of TS of bone, identify A, B, C (d) A–Smooth muscle, B–Cardiac muscle, C–Skeletal
and D. muscle
B 50 Skeletal muscles are found in
(a) heart (b) blood vessels
(c) biceps (d) intestine
D 51 Smooth muscles are NEET 2016
A (a) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(b) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(c) involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(d) voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
C 52 Which type of tissue correctly matches with its
(a) A–Haversian canal, B–Interstitial lamella, location? NEET 2016
C–Endosteum, D–Osteocytes Tissue Location
(b) A–Interstitial lamella, B–Haversian canal, (a) Areolar tissue Tendons
C–Osteocytes, D–Endosteum
(b) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
(c) A–Haversian canal, B–Canaliculi, C–Periosteum,
D–Osteocytes (c) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
(d) A–Interstitial lamella, B–Endosteum, C–Canaliculi, (d) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
D–Osteocytes
53 In the cardiac muscles,
46 Bone marrow of long bones is the sites of (a) cell junctions fuse the plasma membrane of adjacent
(a) production of WBCs cells
(b) production of RBCs (b) contraction of one cell does not affect the other cells
(c) production of blood cells (c) intercalated discs prevent the communication among
(d) breakdown of RBCs cardiac cells
47 Bones in human body perform all the listed functions
except 54 What is the function of neuroglial cells ?
(a) weight-bearing function (a) Formation of neurons
(b) destruction of worn-out blood cells (b) Destruction of neurons
(c) provide site for the attachment of skeletal muscles (c) Protection of neurons
(d) protect soft tissues and organs (d) Transmission of impulse along the neurons
TOPIC 2 ~ Earthworm
55 Earthworm lives in the burrows made by boring and 63 Which of the following intersegmental grooves
swallowing the soil to/for contains four pairs of spermathecal apertures on the
(a) uptake food (b) get moisture ventrolateral sides of the earthworm?
(c) procreation (d) avoid opponents (a) 4th-8 th (b) 5 th-9 th
56 Faecal deposits of earthworm are known as (c) 6 th-10 th (d) 7 th-11th
(a) organic matter (b) castings 64 In earthworm, a single female genital pore is present
(c) dung (d) manure in the midventral line of the segment number
57 The body of earthworm is divided into (a) 14th (b) 16 th
(a) 100-120 metamers (b) 150-200 metamers (c) 15th (d) 17th
(c) 250-300 metamers (d) 300-350 metamers 65 In earthworm, a pair of male genital pores is present
58 The ventral surface of the body of earthworm is on the ventrolateral side of the segment
distinguished by (a) 20 th (b) 19 th
(a) blood vessels (b) mouth (c) 18 th (d) 17 th
(c) genital pores (d) segment size 66 Numerous minute pores open on the surface of the
59 The dorsal surface of the earthworm's body is marked body of earthworm are called
by (a) setae (b) nephridiopores
(a) genital pores (b) mouth (c) spermatospore (d) None of these
(c) heart (d) blood vessel 67 Which of the following segments in the earthworm's
60 The first segment of earthworm's body, which body have no setae?
contains mouth is called (a) First (b) Last
(a) prostomium (b) peristomium (c) Clitellum (d) All of these
(c) coelom (d) protractor 68 The principal role of setae in earthworm is
61 In earthworm Pheretima, a prominent dark band of (a) respiration (b) excretion
glandular tissue (clitellum) is present in the segment (c) locomotion (d) assimilation
numbers 69 The body wall of the earthworm is covered by which
(a) 10, 11 and 12 (b) 13, 14 and 15 of the following layers (externally-internally)?
(c) 14, 15 and 16 (d) 15, 16 and 17 (a) Epidermis, cuticle, coelomic epithelium, longitudinal
62 Given below is the diagram of the ventral view of muscle, circular muscles
earthworm's body. Identify A-F and choose the (b) Cuticle, epidermis, circular muscles, coelomic
correct combination of options. epithelium, longitudinal muscles
(c) Non-cellular cuticle, epidermis, circular muscles,
A
longitudinal muscles, coelomic epithelium
E (d) Coelomic epithelium, epidermis, cuticle, circular
B
D C
muscles, longitudinal muscles
70 Which is the outermost layer in earthworm's body?
(a) Cuticle
F
(b) Epidermis
(c) Muscles
(d) Epithelium
71 Epidermis of the earthworm's body is made up of a
single layer of
(a) cuboidal epithelium
(a) A–Setae, B–Female genital aperture, C–Male genital
(b) columnar epithelium
aperture, D–Genital papillae, E–Clitellum, F–Anus
(c) squamous epithelium
(b) A–Anus, B–Setae, C–Male genital aperture, D–Female
genital aperture, E–Genital papillae, F–Clitellum (d) compound epithelium
(c) A–Setae, B–Male genital aperture, C–Female genital 72 In earthworms, secretory gland cells are present on
aperture, D–Genital papillae, E–Clitellum, F–Anus (a) epidermis (b) nephridiopores
(d) A–Nephridiopores, B–Setae, C–Nuclei, D–Metamers, (c) metamers (d) clitellum
E–Prostomium, F–Anus
73 Observe the following figure of alimentary canal of 77 The function of typhlosole in earthworm is
earthworm and identify A, B, C, D, E and F. (a) grinding soil particles (b) increasing absorptive area
(c) purifying blood (d) storing fats
1 78 On which segment of earthworm, a pair of short and
2 Mouth
3
4 conical caeca projects from the intestine?
5 A
6 (a) 28th (b) 30th (c) 20th (d) 26th
7
79 The blood vascular system of earthworm is
8
B (a) portal (b) closed
9
10
C (c) open (d) double circulatory
11
12 80 Blood vascular system of Pheretima consists of
13 D
(a) vessels, capillaries and heart
14
15 (b) nerves, veins and heart
16 (c) lymphs, heart and blood
17 Pre-typhlosolar
18 part of intestine (d) visceral organ, lymph and blood
19
20 81 Blood glands are present on which segments of the
21 earthworm?
22
23 E (a) 4th, 5th and 6th (b) 3rd, 4th and 5th
24
25
(c) 2nd, 3rd and 4th (d) 5th, 6th and 7th
26 82 Which of the following metalloproteins is found in
F
27
28 the blood of earthworm?
29 (a) Haemoglobin (b) Haemerythrin
30 Intestinal lumen
31 (c) Haemocyanin (d) Myoglobin
32
33 83 Blood cells of the earthworm are …… in nature.
34 (a) exocytotic (b) endocytotic
(c) phagocytotic (d) osmotic
The correct option is 84 Observe the given figure of closed circulatory system
(a) A–Oesophagus, B–Pharynx, C–Stomach, D–Gizzard, of earthworm and identify A, B, C and D.
E–Typhlosole, F–Intestine Lateral oesophageal
(b) A–Pharynx, B–Oesophagus, C–Gizzard, D–Stomach, A Lateral hearts hearts
E–Intestinal caecum, F–Lymph gland 14 15 16
4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
(c) A–Gizzard, B–Pharynx, C–Oesophagus, D–Lymph 2 3 B
gland, E–Stomach, F–Typhlosole 1
(d) A–Typhlosole, B–Gizzard, C–Pharynx, D–Typhlosole,

E–Lymph gland, F–Stomach
C
74 Earthworm feeds upon
(a) small animals
Lateral oesophageal D Anterior loops
(b) small plants vessel
(c) organic matter and decaying leaves
(a) A–Ventral vessel, B–Subneural vessel, C–Commissural
vessel, D–Dorsal vessel
75 Gizzard in earthworm helps in (b) A–Subneural vessel, B–Ventral vessel, C–Dorsal
(a) emulsifying fat vessel, D–Commissural vessel
(b) releasing digestive juice (c) A–Dorsal vessel, B–Commissural vessel, C–Subneural
(c) crushing or grinding food vessel, D–Ventral vessel
(d) excretion of waste material (d) A–Commissural vessel, B–Dorsal vessel, C–Ventral
vessel, D–Subneural vessel
76 The main role of calciferous glands present in
85 Find out the pair in reference to the earthworm, which
stomach of earthworm is
is not correctly matched.
(a) secreting mucus
(b) breaking food particles (a) Clitellum — Secretes cocoon
(b) Blood plasma — Contains haemoglobin
(c) absorption of nutrients
(c) Blood glands — Filter blood
(d) neutralising the humic acid present in humus
(d) Typhlosole — Absorption
86 In which of the following segments of earthworm, (c) A–Ducts of pharyngeal nephridia, B–Tufts of
septal nephridia is present? pharyngeal nephridia, C–Integumentary nephridia,
D–Forests of integumentary nephridia, E–Septal
(a) 15-last (b) 8-15 (c) 18-last (d) 15-17
nephridia, F–Blood glands
87 Septal nephridia of earthworm open into the (d) A–Blood vessels, B–Blood gland, C–Septal nephridia,
(a) stomach (b) lining of body wall D–Dorsal nephridia, E–Pharyngeal nephridia,
(c) intestine (d) coelomic chamber F–Integumentary nephridia
88 Which of the following nephridia in earthworm 94 In earthworm, a nerve cord is
remains attached to the lining of the body wall of (a) single, spongy and posterior
segment 3 to the last? (b) paired, solid and ventral
(a) Integumentary (b) Pharyngeal (c) paired, hollow and dorsal
(c) Septal (d) Dorsal (d) single, solid and ventral
89 In earthworm, pharyngeal nephridia are present as 95 Which of the following segments in the body of
three paired tufts in the segments earthworms is the cerebral ganglion present?
(a) 3rd, 4th and 5th (b) 4th, 5th and 6th (a) 7th (b) 5th (c) 6th (d) 3rd
(c) 5th, 6th and 7th (d) 6th, 7th and 8th 96 In which part of the earthworm, sense organs are most
90 Which of the following organs regulates the volume concentrated?
and composition of the body fluids of earthworm? (a) Posterior part (b) Anterior part
(a) Stomach (b) Nephridia (c) Heart (d) Intestine (c) Middle part (d) None of these
91 In earthworm, nephridium collects the excess of fluid 97 Earthworm can distinguish the light intensities and
from the feel the vibration in the ground through
(a) septal chamber (b) nephridial chamber (a) eyes (b) mechanical receptor
(c) coelomic chamber (d) gizzard chamber (c) receptor cells (d) chemoreceptors
92 The waste collected by nephridium is poured into 98 How many pairs of testis are present in earthworm?
(a) anus (b) clitellum (a) Five (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
(c) digestive tube (d) pharynx 99 In earthworm, the testes are present in the segments
93 Examine the given figure of nephridial system in (a) 10th-11th (b) 11th-12th
earthworm and identify A, B, C, D, E and F. (c) 12th-13th (d) 13th-14th
Mouth 100 Up to which body segment, vasa deferentia run after
Buccal cavity
being emerged from the testis of earthworm ?
A (a) 17th segement (b) 18th segement
Pharynx (c) 19th segement (d) 20th segement
F B 101 Which one of the following is the function of the
spermathecae in the earthworm?
(a) They receive eggs during copulation
(b) They receive and store spermatozoa during copulation
C (c) They help in the formation of sperms
(d) They receive spermatogonia for maturation
102 In female earthworms,
D (a) one pair of ovary is present
(b) ovary is attached at intersegmental septum of 8th-9th
E segment
(c) ovarian funnels are present instead of ovary
(a) A–Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, B–Forest of
integumentary nephridia, C–Septal nephridia, 103 In Pheretima, cocoon is produced by the gland cells of
D–Integumentary nephridia, E–Blood glands, F–Ducts (a) stomach (b) clitellum
of pharyngeal nephridia (c) prostate gland (d) spermatophores
(b) A–Forest of integumentary nephridia, B–Septal 104 Fertilisation and development in earthworms occur
nephridia, C–Integumentary nephridia, D–Blood within the
glands, E–Ducts of pharyngeal nephridia, F–Tufts of (a) spermathecae (b) cocoon
pharyngeal nephridia
(c) prostate gland (d) seminal vesicles
105 Go through the given figure of reproductive system of (a) A–Ovary, B–Spermathecae, C–Spermiducal funnels,
earthworm and label A-G. D–Prostate gland, E–Accessory gland, F– Ovarian
2
1 funnel, G– Seminal vesicles
3
5
4 (b) A–Spermathecae, B–Testes, C–Seminal vesicles,
6 D–Ovary, E–Ovarian funnel, F–Accessory gland,
7 A G–Prostate gland
8
(c) A–Ovarian funnel, B–Ovary, C–Spermathecae,
9 Testes sac with testes D–Seminal vesicles, E–Prostate gland, F–Spermiducal
10 B funnel, G–Accessory gland
11
12 C (d) A–Seminal vesicles, B–Ovarian funnel, C–Ovaries,
13 D
D–Accessory gland, E–Spermiducal funnel, F–Prostate
gland, G–Spermathecae
14 E
15 Vasa differentia 106 The process of increasing fertility of the soil by the
16 F earthworms is known as
17 Common prostatic (a) composting
18 and spermatic duct (b) vermicomposting
19 G (c) manuring
20 (d) green manuring
TOPIC 3 ~ Cockroach
107 Cockroaches are 114 A complete set of the mouthparts of the cockroach
(a) diurnal and carnivores (b) nocturnal and herbivores consists of
(c) diurnal and herbivores (d) nocturnal and omnivores (a) labrum and labium
108 The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible (b) labium, labrum and tongue
into (c) labrum, mandibles, maxillae and labium
(a) head and tail (b) head and thorax (d) labrum, maxillae and labium
(c) head and abdomen (d) head, thorax and abdomen 115 Hypopharynx of the cockroach acts as
109 The entire body of the cockroach is covered by (a) mouth (b) lips
(a) skin (c) tongue (d) jaws
(b) shell 116 The given figure is related to the head region of
(c) hard chitinous exoskeleton cockroach. Identify A to F with the correct
(d) keratin combination of options.
110 In the exoskeleton of the cockroach, sclerites are
joined to each other by A
B
(a) ossicles (b) arthrodial membrane
(c) amino acids (d) chitin
111 The head of the cockroach shows great mobility in all
C
the directions due to
(a) flexible neck (b) absence of neck F
(c) small size of head (d) arthrodial membrane E
112 The head capsule of the cockroach bears D

(a) no eyes (b) one eye (a) A–Maxilla, B–Compound eye, C–Ocellus, D–Labrum,
(c) two eyes (d) many eyes E–Labium, F–Mandible
113 The mouthparts of a cockroach are said to be (b) A–Ocellus, B–Compound eye, C–Maxilla, D–Labium,
(a) absorbing type E–Labrum, F–Mandible
(b) biting and absorbing type (c) A–Ocellus, B–Compound eye, C–Maxilla, D–Labrum,
E–Labium, F–Mandible
(c) biting and chewing type
(d) A–Mandible, B–Compound eye, C–Maxilla,
(d) biting and sucking type D–Ocellus, E–Labrum, F–Labium
117 Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given figure related 121 The number of abdominal segments in male and
with mouthparts of the cockroach. famale cockroach is
(a) 9 and 10, respectively (b) 10 and 9, respectively
(c) 10 in both (d) 9 in both
122 The given figure represents posterior region of male
cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C
A B C and D.
A
B
C
D
A B C D
(a) 9th sternum Anal style 10th tergum Anal cercus
(b) Anal style Anal cercus 10th tergum 9th sternum
D E
(c) 9th sternum Anal cercus 10th tergum Anal style
(a) A–Mandible, B–Labium, C–Labrum, D–Maxilla, (d) 9th sternum Anal style 10th tergum Anal cercus
E–Hypopharynx
(b) A–Labium, B–Labrum, C–Mandible, D–Hypopharynx, 123 In female cockroach, shape of the 7th sternum is
E–Maxilla (a) oval (b) circular
(c) A–Labrum, B–Mandible, C–Hypopharynx, D–Maxilla, (c) boat-shaped (d) spiral
E–Labium
(d) A–Hypopharynx, B–Maxilla, C–Labium, D–Labrum, 124 In female cockroach, the 7th sternum together with
E–Mandible the 8th and 9th sterna forms a
(a) collaterial gland (b) gonopore
118 Observe the following figure of leg of a cockroach
(c) genital pouch (d) anal cerci
and identify A, B, C, D and E.
125 In female cockroach, anterior part of the genital
D E pouch contains
(a) gonopore (b) spermathecal pores
A (c) collaterial glands (d) All of these
B 126 In both the sexes of cockroaches, the 10th segment
bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure called
(a) anal style (b) anal cerci
C
(c) gonapophysis (d) spermathecal pores
127 Which of the following features is used to identify a
A B C D E male cockroach from a female cockroach ? NEET 2018
(a) Forewings with darker tegmina
(a) Femur Tibia Trochenter Torsus Coxa
(b) Presence of caudal styles
(b) Coxa Femur Trochenter Torsus Tibia (c) Presence of a boat-shaped sternum on the 9th
(c) Trochenter Tibia Torsus Coxa Femur abdominal segment
(d) Tibia Femur Trochenter Torsus Coxa (d) Presence of anal cerci
128 Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal
119 The first and second pair of wings in cockroach arises of cockroach is used for storing food?
from (a) Crop (b) Gastric caeca
(a) prothorax and mesothorax, respectively (c) Gizzard (d) Oesophagus
(b) mesothorax and metathorax, respectively
129 In the digestive system of cockroach, gastric caeca is
(c) metathorax and mesothorax, respectively
present at the junction of
(d) mesothorax and prothorax, respectively
(a) midgut and hindgut
120 Forewings of the cockroach are known as (b) hindgut and foregut
(a) tegmina (b) spiracles (c) foregut and mouth
(c) tergia (d) coxa (d) foregut and midgut
130 Given below is the figure of alimentary canal of 134 Given below is the figure of open circulatory system
cockroach. Identify A to E and choose the correct of cockroach. Identify A, B, C and choose the correct
combination of A to E. option.
Pharynx B
A C
A
Salivary reservoir
Oesophagus
C
Hepatic caeca (a) A–Lateral aorta, B–Ciliary muscles, C–Chambers of
heart
Mesenteron or midgut (b) A–Internal aorta, B–Alary muscles, C–Chambers of
heart
D
(c) A–Anterior aorta, B–Alary muscles, C–Chambers of
Rectum heart
E
(d) A–Posterior aorta, B–Fibrous muscles, C–Chambers of
Colon heart
(a) A–Salivary gland, B–Gizzard, C–Crop, D–Villi, 135 Blood of a cockroach contains
E–Caecum (a) plasma and haemocytes
(b) A–Salivary gland, B–Crop, C–Gizzard, D–Malpighian (b) erythrocytes and plasma
tubules, E–Ileum (c) erythrocytes and platelets
(c) A–Salivary gland, B–Gizzard, C–Malpighian tubule, (d) All of the above
D–Cilia, E–Ileum
(d) A–Salivary gland, B–Crop, C–Malpighian tubule,
136 The respiratory system of the cockroach consists of
D–Gizzard, E–Ileum (a) a pair of lungs
(b) a pair of bronchioles
131 Select the correct sequence of organs in the
(c) a network of trachea
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth (d) a network of alveoli
NEET 2019
(a) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum 137 The number of spiracles present in cockroaches are
→ Colon → Rectum (a) 9 pairs (b) 10 pairs
(b) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop (c) 12 pairs (d) 14 pairs
→ Colon → Rectum 138 Exchange of gases takes place in cockroaches by the
(c) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard process of
→ Colon → Rectum (a) diffusion (b) osmosis
(d) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum (c) expiration (d) None of these
→ Colon → Rectum
139 Malpighian tubules in the cockroach are lined by
132 Thin Malpighian tubules in cockroach are present at
(a) glandular and ciliated cells
the junction of
(b) cuboidal and ciliated cells
(a) foregut and midgut
(c) columnar and glandular cells
(b) midgut and hindgut (d) glandular and cuboidal cells
(c) foregut and hindgut
140 In addition to the Malpighian tubules, excretion of
(d) midgut and gizzard
waste products in cockroach occurs by
133 Which of the following parts of the cockroach helps (a) fat bodies (b) nephrocytes
in the removal of excretory products from the (c) urecose glands (d) All of these
haemolymph? 141 The body cells in cockroach discharge their
(a) Rectum
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the
(b) Malpighian tubules
form of CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) Ileum
(a) ammonia (b) potassium urate
(d) Cloaca
(c) urea (d) calcium carbonate
142 In the head region of the cockroach, brain is 152 In a cockroach, spermatheca is present in the
represented by (a) 7th segment (b) 6th segment
(a) supraoesophageal ganglion (c) 5th segment (d) 4th segment
(b) ganglia 153 Characteristic of female cockroach is AIIMS 2019
(c) nerve cord (a) presence of anal style
(d) sub-oesophageal ganglion (b) each ovary is made up of ‘6’ ovarioles
143 Which of the following is a sense organ pair in (c) one pair of spermatheca present in the 6th segment and
cockroach? open in genital chamber
(a) Antennae and eyes (d) genital pouch is made up of 9th, 10th tergum and 9th
(b) Maxillary palp and labial palps sternum
(c) Antennae and anal cerci 154 In cockroach, fertilised eggs are stored in
(d) All of the above (a) oothecae (b) cocoon
(c) genital pouch of female (d) gonapophysis
144 The position of compound eyes of cockroaches with
respect to head is 155 How many fertilised eggs are present in the oothecae
(a) dorsal (b) ventral of cockroach?
(c) lateral (d) dorso-lateral (a) 14 - 16 (b) 19 - 24
(c) 20 - 25 (d) 25 - 30
145 The compound eyes of cockroaches consist of about
(a) 200 hexagonal ommatidia 156 The development of Periplaneta americana is
(b) 2000 hexagonal ommatidia (a) holometabolous
(c) 20 hexagonal ommatidia (b) paurometabolous
(d) 20000 hexagonal ommatidia (c) ametabolous
(d) hemimetabolous
146 The vision of cockroach is
(a) more sensitive with less resolution 157 The number of moultings in which the nymphs of
(b) very poor during night cockroaches reach the adult form is
(c) less sensitive with high resolution (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 13
(d) high resolution during night 158 What external changes are visible after the last moult
147 Mushroom glands are of a cockroach nymph? NEET 2013
(a) accessory glands in 6-7th abdominal segments of male (a) Mandibles become harder
cockroach (b) Anal cerci develop
(b) helpful in storing sperms (c) Both forewings and hindwings develop
(c) glands which secrete chemicals to make egg capsules, (d) Labium develops
i.e. oothecae 159 Identify A to E in the given diagram of female
(d) non-functional glands in 8-9th segments of female reproductive system of cockroach.
cockroach
148 The external genitalia of cockroach is
(a) gonapophysis
(b) pseudopenis
(c) spermatophore Ovary
(d) rudimentary penis Oviduct
D
149 In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part Common oviduct
of the reproductive system? NEET 2016 or Vagina
(a) Seminal vesicles (b) Mushroom glands A
(c) Testes (d) Vas deferens E B
C
150 The female reproductive system of the cockroach
(a) A–Collaterial glands, B–Vestibulum, C–Genital
consists of
chamber D–Spermatheca, E–Gonapophysis
(a) two large ovaries (b) three large ovaries
(b) A–Vestibulum, B–Collaterial gland, C–Gonapophysis,
(c) one large ovary (d) four large ovaries D–Spermatheca, E–Genital chamber
151 In the female reproductive system of cockroach, (c) A–Collaterial gland, B–Genital chamber,
ovaries are located in which of the following C–Vestibulum, D–Spermatheca E–Gonapophysis
abdominal segments? (d) A–Genital chamber, B–Spermatheca, C–Collaterial
(a) 2nd-6th (b) 4th-8th (c) 6th-12th (d) 1st-2nd gland, D–Gonapophysis, E–Vestibulum
TOPIC 4~ Frog
160 Rana tigrina displays all of the following habits except 170 Given below is the diagram of internal organs of frog.
(a) camouflage (b) aestivation Identify A to F.
(c) hibernation (d) endothermy
Heart Oesophagus
161 The frogs have the ability to change its colour to hide
them from their enemies. This protective colouration Liver
is called A
(a) hibernation (b) aestivation
B
(c) mimicry (d) camouflage Stomach
C
162 The skin of frog is slippery and smooth due to the
presence of D
(a) mucus (b) gelatin
Ureter Intestine
(c) waxy skin (d) mucilage
163 Body of a frog is divisible into F E
(a) head and trunk (b) head, neck and trunk Cloaca
(c) trunk and tail (d) head, neck, trunk and tail
Cloacal aperture
164 The forelimbs and hindlimbs of frogs are
(a) four digits (a) A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Testis, D–Kidney,
E–Urethra, F–Urinary bladder
(b) five digits
(b) A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Fat bodies, D–Kidney,
(c) four and five digits, respectively
E–Rectum, F–Urinary bladder
(d) five and four digits, respectively
(c) A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Ovary, D–Kidney,
165 Male frog can be distinguished from female frog by E–Ileum, F–Urinary bladder
the presence of (d) A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Fat bodies, D–Kidney,
(a) vocal sacs and copulatory pad on the first digit of the E–Colon, F–Urinary bladder
forelimb 171 The respiration by lungs in frog is called
(b) a neck and tail is absent
(a) pulmonary respiration (b) pericardial respiration
(c) the hindlimb ends in the five digits
(c) alveolar respiration (d) None of these
(d) eyes are bulged and covered by the nictitating membrane
172 During aestivation and hibernation in frogs, gaseous
166 The alimentary canal of frog is short because frogs exchange takes place through
are (a) skin (b) nose (c) lungs (d) scales
(a) herbivores (b) carnivores
(c) omnivores (d) heterotrophs 173 The vascular system of the frog is
(a) open type (b) closed type
167 In frog, excess of the bile juice secreted by the liver is
(c) double circulatory (d) portal
stored in
(a) intestine (b) pancreas 174 The blood vascular system of the frog consists of
(c) gall bladder (d) rectum (a) heart, blood vessels and blood without haemoglobin
(b) blood vessels, capillaries and neurogenic heart
168 In frog, for the digestion of food, walls of the stomach
(c) haemolymph, blood vessels and heart
secrete (d) arteries, veins, capillaries, heart and blood containing
(a) pepsin and renin RBCs and WBCs
(b) amylase and tryptophanase
175 Three-chambered heart of the frog contains
(c) HCl and gastric juices
(a) two ventricles and one atrium
(d) HCl and pepsin (b) two atria and one ventricle
169 In frogs, digested food is absorbed by (c) one auricle and two ventricles
(a) villi and microvilli in intestine (d) one auricle, one ventricle and one atrium
(b) villi in cloaca 176 Heart of the frog is covered by a membrane called
(c) microvilli in cloaca (a) pericardium (b) plasma membrane
(d) villi and microvilli in stomach and intestine (c) pleuromembrane (d) duramater
177 The lymph of frog lacks 189 In frogs, sensory papillae, taste buds and nasal
(a) plasma proteins only (b) WBCs and RBCs epithelium are ……, while eyes and internal ears are
(c) RBCs and few proteins (d) RBCs, WBCs and proteins well-organised structures.
178 In male frog, ureters act as (a) cellular aggregations around muscular tissue
(a) urinogenital ducts (b) cloaca (b) cellular aggregations around nerve endings
(c) urinary bladder (d) genital ducts (c) cellular aggregations around fatty tissue
(d) cellular aggregations around heart
179 Which of the following is the structural and
functional unit of kidney in the frog? 190 The number of vasa efferentia that arises from testes
(a) Ureters (b) Cloaca
in frog’s male reproductive system is
(a) 9 - 12
(c) Nephrons (d) Bidder’s canal
(b) 10 - 12
180 In frogs, cloaca is an opening of (c) 13 - 16
(a) excretory ducts (b) reproductive ducts (d) 16 - 19
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
191 In male frogs, cloaca is a small median chamber that
181 The frog is a/an is used to pass
(a) ureotelic animal (b) ammonotelic animal
(a) sperms
(c) uricotelic animal (d) None of these
(b) urine
182 Excretory system of the frog consists of (c) faecal matter
(a) pair of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, cloaca (d) All of the above
(b) single kidney, urinary bladder and cloaca
192 Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in
(c) kidney and cloaca
male frogs. NEET 2017
(d) urethra and cloaca
(a) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia
183 The system for control and coordination in frogs → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
comprises (b) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle
(a) highly evolved neural system and endocrine glands → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(b) highly evolved exocrine glands and least developed
(c) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s canal → Ureter
nervous system
→ Cloaca
(c) least developed endocrine system and nervous system
(d) endocrine and exocrine glands (d) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder’s canal
→ Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
184 The number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the
brain of frog is 193 Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of male
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 7 reproductive system of frog.
185 The forebrain of frog consists of A
(a) optic and olfactory lobes
D
(b) paired diencephalon
(c) olfactory lobes and unpaired diencephalon B
(d) Both (a) and (b) E
186 The midbrain of the frog is characterised by a pair of
C
(a) cerebral hemisphere (b) cerebellum
(c) optic lobes (d) olfactory lobes Urinogenital duct
187 Hindbrain of a frog consists of Rectum

(a) cerebellum and medulla oblongata Cloaca
(b) olfactory lobes and cerebral hemispheres Urinary bladder Cloacal aperture
(c) a pair of optic lobes
(d) cerebrum and cranium
(a) A–Fat bodies, B–Testis, C–Ureters, D–Vasa efferentia,
188 Find out the pair in reference to the frog which is not E–Kidney
correctly matched. (b) A–Nephrons, B–Testis, C–Ureters, D–Villi, E–Kidney
(a) Hearing – Tympanum with external ears (c) A–Vasa efferentia, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland, D–Fat
(b) Touch – Sensory papillae bodies, E–Kidney
(c) Smell – Nasal epithelium (d) A–Mesorchium, B–Testis, C–Adrenal gland, D–Fat
(d) Vision – Simple eyes bodies, E–Kidney
194 Observe the following figure of female reproductive (a) A–Urinary duct, B–Ova, C–Ovary,
system of earthworm and identify A to D. D–Cloaca, E–Urethra
(b) A–Oviduct, B–Ovary, C–Ova, D–Cloaca, E–Urinary
A bladder
(c) A–Oviduct, B–Ovary, C–Ova, D–Rectum, E–Adrenal
B gland
C (d) A–Urinogenital duct, B–Ovary, C–Ovum, D–Coelom,
E–Urethra
Ureter 195 In female frogs,
(a) ovaries are absent
(b) ovaries are functionally connected with kidneys
D
(c) ovaries are not connected with kidney functionally
Cloacal aperture
E (d) ovaries and oviducts are rudimentary
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 201 Assertion (A) Earthworm moves by crawling.
Direction (Q. No. 196-208) In each of the following Reason (R) Crawling in earthworm occurs by the
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed muscular contraction and extension of the body.
by corresponding statement of Reason (R).
202 Assertion (A) Earthworms are known as ‘friends of
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
farmers’.
explanation of A. Reason (R) These help in increasing soil fertility by
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct the process of vermicomposting.
explanation of A. 203 Assertion (A) Respiratory gaseous exchange in
(c) If A is true, but R is false. earthworm occurs through the moist body surfaces
(d) If A is false, but R is true. into their bloodstream.
196 Assertion (A) Columnar epithelium is also known as Reason (R) Earthworms lack specialised breathing
glandular epithelium. structures.
Reason (R) Cells of columnar epithelium form the 204 Assertion (A) Blood of the earthworm is red in colour.
lining of the stomach. Reason (R) Earthworm contains haemoglobin
197 Assertion (A) Compound epithelium plays major role dissolved in the plasma.
in absorption, secretion and excretion. 205 Assertion (A) Earthworm is a hermaphrodite.
Reason (R) Compound epithelium is not found in the Reason (R) Hermaphroditism compensates for the
stomach lining. lack of asexual reproduction by increasing the rate of
198 Assertion (A) Bone is the hardest tissue of the body. multiplication.
Reason (R) Hardness of the bone is due to the 206 Assertion (A) If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it
calcification of its matrix. will remain alive for as long as one week.
199 Assertion (A) Adipose tissues are specialised to store Reason (R) The head of cockroach holds only a bit of
fats. nervous system.
Reason (R) The extra nutrients, which are not used 207 Assertion (A) In frog’s vascular system, the
immediately by the body get converted into fats. composition of lymph is same as that of the blood.
200 Assertion (A) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile Reason (R) In frog, lymph lacks RBCs and few
tissue present only in heart. proteins.
Reason (R) Cardiac muscle tissue provides rhythmic 208 Assertion (A) Frogs have webbed feets.
contraction to the heart. Reason (R) Degree of webbing is directly proportional
to the amount of time they spend in water.
(b) A mushroom-shaped glands is present in the 6th-7th

II. Statement Based Questions abdominal segments of male cockroach
209 Which of the following statements is incorrect about (c) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segments of
squamous epithelium? female cockroach
(a) It consists of a single thin layer of flattened cells with (d) Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in the
irregular boundaries ovaries
(b) It is present on secretory and absorptive surfaces 216 Which of the following statements is incorrect about
(c) It is found on the walls of the kidney Periplaneta americana?
(d) It is involved in many functions like forming a diffusion (a) They are nocturnal omnivores that live in the damp
boundary
places
210 Which of the following statements is incorrect with (b) Its body is segmented and divisible in two regions, i.e.
reference to the columnar epithelium? head and abdomen
(a) It is composed of single layer of tall and slender cells (c) Antennae have sensory receptor to monitor the
(b) Nucleus of the cell is located at its base environment
(c) Free surface may have microvilli (d) Head can move in all directions due to the presence of
(d) It is commonly found in kidneys of mammals movable neck
211 Which of the following statements is incorrect? 217 Which of the following statements are incorrect
(a) Cells are compactly packed in the epithelial tissues with regarding ciliated epithelium?
little intercellular matrix I. Cells possess cilia on their free surface.
(b) The cells secrete fibres of structural protein in all the II. They bear microvilli at the free ends to increase surface
connective tissues
area of the organ.
(c) Neuroglia is made up of more than one half the volume
of neural tissue in our body III. Mucus spreads over the epithelium as a thin layer.
(d) Muscles are made up of fibres IV. It is found only in the lining of the small intestine.
(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
212 Which of the following statements is incorrect with
reference to earthworm? 218 Choose the incorrect statements about skeletal
(a) Nephridia are segmentally arranged coiled tubule muscles.
(b) Nephridia regulate the volume and composition of the I. Tissues are closely attached to bones.
body fluids II. A sheath of tough connective tissue encloses several
(c) There are three types of nephridia found in the bundles of muscle fibres.
earthworm III. These are involuntary in their action.
(d) Pharyngeal nephridia are present as three paired tufts in
the 3rd, 5th and 6th segments IV. These are present in the blood vessels.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
213 Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding cockroach (Periplaneta americana)? 219 Which of the following statements(s) is/are incorrect
(a) Cockroaches belong to the phylum– Arthropoda
with reference to the blood vascular system of the
(b) Cockroaches are nocturnal animals earthworm?
(c) Cockroaches are carnivorous animals I. Blood vascular system is of open type.
(d) Cockroaches have long antenna and legs II. Smaller blood vessels supply the gut , nerve cord and
214 Select the correct statement from the given below the body wall.
with respect to Periplaneta americana. III. Blood glands are present on 6th, 7th and 8th segments.
CBSE-AIPMT 2012 IV. Blood cells are phagocytotic in nature.
(a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of (a) Only I (b) I and IV
segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of (c) I and III (d) II and III
longitudinal connectives
(b) Males bear a pair of short thread-like anal styles
(c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the
I. The thorax of cockroach contains 6 ganglia, while
junctions of midgut and hindgut abdomen contains 3 ganglia.
(d) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts II. The next to last nymphal stage of cockroach possess
wings.
215 Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) I is true, II is false (b) I is false, II is true
(a) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity
and more resolution (c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
221 Consider the following statements. 226 Read the given statements about blood vascular
I. The RBCs, WBCs and platelets are nucleated in frogs. system of cockroach.
II. In frogs, there is a special venous connection between I. Circulatory system of cockroach is of closed type.
liver and intestine called hepatic portal system. II. There are 12 pairs of alary muscles connected to heart.
Select the correct option. III. Heart is 6-chambered, lies along mid-dorsal line of
(a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true thorax and abdomen.
(c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false IV. The haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma
222 Given below are the statements depicting functions of and haemocytes.
different parts of the alimentary canal of cockroach. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Correlate these functions with their respective organs. incorrect?
I. Grinding of food particles. (a) Only I (b) I, II, and III
II. Secretion of digestive juices. (c) I and III (d) Only IV
III. Clearing of haemolymph. 227 Consider the following statements.
The correct set of organs is I. Malpighian tubules help in the removal of excretory
(a) I. Malpighian tubule II. Proventriculus products from the haemolymph in cockroach.
III. Hepatic caeca II. Female cockroach bears mushroom glands, while male
(b) I. Gizzard II. Gastric caeca cockroach bears collaterial glands.
III. Malpighian tubule Select the correct option.
(c) I. Gastric caeca II. Gizzard (a) Both I and II are true
III. Malpighian tubule (b) I is true, II is false
(d) I. Gizzard II. Crop (c) Both I and II are false
III. Malpighian tubule (d) I is false, II is true
223 Consider the following statements. 228 Which of the following statements are correct in
I. External ears are absent in frog, only tympanum with reference with the frog?
internal ears aids in hearing . I. Eyes are bulged and covered by nictitating
II. The eyes of frog possess single unit hence, are simple. membrane.
Select the correct option. II. Membranous tympanum receives the sound signals.
(a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false III. The frog never drinks water.
(c) Both I and II are false (d) I is false, II is true IV. Heart possesses sinus venosus.
224 Consider the following statements about the hind (a) I and II (b) III and IV
wings of cockroach. (c) I and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
I. They are broad and thin. 229 Consider the following statements about frog.
II. They are not used in flying. I. Skin acts as a respiratory organ only in water.
III. They are also known as mesothoracic wings. II. Development is indirect through tadpole larva.
IV. They are transparent and delicate. III. Bidder canal is present in kidneys into which vasa
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect? efferentia opens in male frog.
(a) Only I (b) II and III IV. They possess well- developed renal portal system.
(c) I and IV (d) I,II, III and IV Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
225 Read the given statements in reference to the (a) Only I (b) I and III
digestive system of cockroach. (c) I, II, and III (d) II and IV
I. Except foregut entire alimentary canal is lined by 230 Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to
cuticle. beat for some time.
II. Oesophagus opens into a sac-like structure called crop. Select the option containing the correct statements.
III. The hindgut is broader than midgut. I. Frog is not a poikilotherm.
IV. The gizzard possesses 6 cuticular teeth. II. Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are III. Heart is ‘myogenic’ in nature.
incorrect? IV. Heart is autoexcitable.
(a) I and IV (b) II and III (a) Only III (b) Only IV
(c) III and IV (d) Only I (c) I and II (d) III and IV
231 Consider the following statements. 235 Match the following columns.
I. All connective tissues except blood contain cells Column I Column II
which secrete fibres of collagen or elastin. (Connective tissues) (Location)
II. The matrix of connective tissues in formed by the A. Smooth muscles 1. Biceps
modified polysaccharides. B. Cardiac muscles 2. Gall bladder
Select the correct option. C. Skeletal muscles 3. Osseous tissue
D. Bones 4. Myocardium
(b) I is false, II is true
(c) Both I and II are true Codes
(d) Both I and II are false A B C D A B C D
232 Consider the following statements. (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
I. The prostomium is the first body segment in
earthworm and it is sensory in function. 236 Match the following columns with reference to
II. Earthworm possesses two pairs of accessory glands, earthworm.
one pair each in 17th and 19th segments. Column I Column II
Select the correct option. (Body parts of earthworm) (Position in the body)
(a) I is true, II is false A. Buccal cavity 1. 9th-14th segments
(b) I is false, II is true B. Oesophagus 2. 8th-9th segments
(c) Both I and II are true
C. Gizzard 3. 5th-7th segments
(d) Both I and II are false
D. Stomach 4. 1st-3th segments
233 Match the following columns. A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
(Tissues) (Location)
A. Squamous epithelium 1. Presents in bronchioles
B. Cuboidal epithelium 2. Presents in lungs Column I Column II
(Body parts of earthworm) (Location)
C. Columnar epithelium 3. Presents in stomach
A. Clitellar region 1. Intestine
D. Ciliated epithelium 4. Presents in kidneys
B. Septal nephridia 2. Ectodermal
Codes
C. Origin of nephridia 3. 13 segments
A B C D
D. Dorsal blood vessel 4. Forest of nephridia
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1 Codes
(c) 3 2 1 4 A B C D A B C D
(d) 1 2 3 4 (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
234 Match the following columns. (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
(Tissues) (Composition)
Column I
Column II
A. Areolar tissue 1. Fat cells (Parts of reproductive system of
(Respective segments)
earthworm)
B. Adipose tissue 2. Osteocytes
A. Testes 1. 10th-11th segments
C. Ligament 3. Loose connective tissue
B. Seminal vesicles 2. 11th-12th segments
D. Bone 4. Dense regular connective tissue
C. Accessory gland 3. 17th-19th segments
Codes D. Spermathecae 4. 6th-9th segments
A B C D
Codes
(a) 3 1 4 2
A B C D A B C D
(b) 1 2 3 4
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
239 With reference to cockroach, match the following 241 Match the following cell structures with their
columns. characteristic features. NEET (Odisha) 2019

(Body parts of cockroach) (Location in the body)
A. Tight junctions 1. Cement neighbouring cells together to
A. Anal cerci 1. 4th and 6th segments form sheet
B. Tegmina 2. 10th segment
B. Adhering 2. Transmit information through
C. Testes 3. Forewings junctions chemical to another cells
D. Ommatidia 4. Sclerites C. Gap junctions 3. Establish a barrier to prevent leakage
E. Exoskeleton 5. Visual unit of fluid across epithelial cells
Codes D. Synaptic 4. Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate

junctions communication between adjacent cells
A B C D E
(a) 2 3 1 5 4 Codes
(b) 4 3 2 5 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 3 4 5 2 1 (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(d) 5 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
240 Match the following columns with reference to frog. 242 Match the following with reference to cockroach and
Column I Column II choose the correct option.
(Body parts in frog) (Location in the body)
Column I Column II
A. Respiratory organ 1. Endocrine gland (Body parts of cockroach) (Position in the body)
B. Excretory system 2. Skin
A. Mushroom gland 1. 6 in number
C. Thymus 3. Cloaca
B. Abdominal ganglion 2. 9th sternum
D. Brain box 4. Cranium
C. Phallomeres 3. 6th -7th segment
E. Nasal epithelium 5. Smell
D. Total abdominal segments 4. 10th segments
Codes
A B C D E Codes
(a) 2 3 1 4 5 A B C D A B C D
(b) 1 2 3 4 5 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 5 4 3 2 1 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 2 1 5
NCERT Exemplar
243 Which one of the following types of cells is involved 247 Which one of the following statements is true for
in making of the inner walls of large blood vessels? cockroach?
(a) Cuboidal epithelium (b) Columnar epithelium (a) The number of ovarioles in each ovary are ten
(c) Squamous epithelium (d) Stratified epithelium (b) The larval stage is called caterpillar
(c) Anal styles are absent in females
244 Which one of the following categories does adipose (d) They are ureotelic
tissue belong?
(a) Epithelial (b) Connective
(c) Muscular (d) Neural Column I Column II
A. Adipose tissue 1. Nose
245 Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?
(a) Bone (b) Cartilage (c) Blood (d) Muscles B. Stratified epithelium 2. Blood
C. Hyaline cartilage 3. Skin
246 Setae help in locomotion in earthworm, but are not
uniformly present in all the segments. They are D. Fluid connective tissue 4. Fat storage
present in Codes
(a) 1st segment (b) last segment A B C D A B C D
(c) clitellar segment (d) 20th - 22nd segments (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
249 Match the following columns with reference to Codes

earthworm. A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
Column I Column II
(b) 4 3 2 1
A. Hermaphrodite 1. Produces blood cells and (c) 4 2 3 1
haemoglobin
(d) 2 4 3 1
B. Direct development 2. Testis and ovary in the
same animal 251 Match the following columns with reference to frog.
C. Chemoreceptor 3. Larval form absent Column I Column II
D. Blood gland in 4. Sense chemical stimuli
earthworm A. Touch 1. Nasal epithelium
Codes B. Smell 2. Foramen magnum

A B C D A B C D
C. Cranial nerves 3. Sensory papillae
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1 D. Medulla oblongata 4. Peripheral nervous
system
250 Match the following with reference to cockroach and
choose the correct option. Codes
Column I Column II A B C D
A. Phallomere 1. Chain of developing ova (a) 3 1 2 4
B. Gonopore 2. Bundles of sperm (b) 2 1 4 3
C. Spermatophore 3. Opening of the ejaculatory duct (c) 3 4 2 1
D. Ovarioles 4. The external genitalia (d) 3 1 4 2
Answers
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (d) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (a)
41 (a) 42 (a) 43 (d) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (a) 52 (d) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (a) 56 (b) 57 (a) 58 (c) 59 (d) 60 (b)
61 (c) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (a) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (d) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (a)
71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (c) 76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (d) 79 (b) 80 (a)
81 (a) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (c) 86 (a) 87 (c) 88 (a) 89 (b) 90 (b)
91 (c) 92 (c) 93 (c) 94 (b) 95 (d) 96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (a) 100 (b)
101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (b) 104 (b) 105 (b) 106 (b) 107 (d) 108 (d) 109 (c) 110 (b)
111 (a) 112 (c) 113 (c) 114 (c) 115 (c) 116 (b) 117 (c) 118 (c) 119 (b) 120 (a)
121 (c) 122 (c) 123 (c) 124 (c) 125 (d) 126 (b) 127 (b) 128 (a) 129 (d) 130 (b)
131 (d) 132 (b) 133 (b) 134 (c) 135 (a) 136 (c) 137 (b) 138 (a) 139 (a) 140 (d)
141 (b) 142 (a) 143 (d) 144 (a) 145 (b) 146 (a) 147 (a) 148 (a) 149 (a) 150 (a)
151 (a) 152 (b) 153 (c) 154 (a) 155 (a) 156 (b) 157 (d) 158 (c) 159 (c) 160 (d)
161 (c) 162 (a) 163 (a) 164 (c) 165 (a) 166 (b) 167 (c) 168 (c) 169 (a) 170 (b)
171 (a) 172 (a) 173 (b) 174 (d) 175 (b) 176 (a) 177 (c) 178 (a) 179 (c) 180 (c)
181 (a) 182 (a) 183 (a) 184 (a) 185 (c) 186 (c) 187 (a) 188 (a) 189 (b) 190 (b)
191 (d) 192 (d) 193 (c) 194 (b) 195 (c)

196 (b) 197 (d) 198 (a) 199 (b) 200 (a) 201 (b) 202 (a) 203 (a) 204 (a) 205 (b)
206 (a) 207 (d) 208 (b) 209 (c) 210 (d) 211 (b) 212 (d) 213 (c) 214 (b) 215 (a)
216 (b) 217 (c) 218 (c) 219 (c) 220 (d) 221 (b) 222 (b) 223 (a) 224 (b) 225 (d)
226 (c) 227 (b) 228 (d) 229 (a) 230 (d) 231 (c) 232 (b) 233 (a) 234 (a) 235 (a)
236 (a) 237 (a) 238 (a) 239 (a) 240 (a) 241 (c) 242 (b)
> NCERT Exemplar Questions

243 (c) 244 (b) 245 (d) 246 (d) 247 (c) 248 (b) 249 (a) 250 (b) 251 (d)

2 (b) The structure of the cells varies according to their 15 (c) In humans, ciliated epithelial cells are present in the
function. Based on their functional activity, tissues are bronchioles and Fallopian tubes. In bronchioles, these
broadly classified into four types, i.e. epithelial, cells help in the movement of mucus and in Fallopian
connective, muscular and neural. tube, these help to move the egg or ovum towards the
3 (c) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces uterus.
either inside the body, in vicinity with body fluid or the 17 (c) Goblet cells are a type of unicellular gland. Some of
outside environment. Thus, it provides a covering layer the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for
for some parts of the body. secretion and are called glandular epithelium. They may
be unicellular, e.g. goblet cells of alimentary canal or
5 (b) Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of
multicellular, e.g. salivary glands.
cells and it forms the lining of the body cavities, ducts
and tubes. 18 (a) On the basis of pouring of secretions, glands are
classified into two categories, i.e. endocrine and
6 (b) Providing connection between adjacent cells is not
exocrine. Endocrine glands do not have ducts and their
the function of epithelium tissue. It is the function of products called hormones are secreted directly into the
connective tissue. fluid bathing the gland. Exocrine glands release their
7 (d) The squamous epithelium is made up of single, thin products through ducts or tubes.
layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. 19 (d) Exocrine glands release their products through
8 (b) The simple squamous epithelium is present at the ducts or tubes. The secretions of exocrine glands
pericardial, perineural and peritoneal cavities, terminal include ear wax, mucus, saliva, oil, milk, digestive
bronchioles, air sacs, etc. In cavities like blood vessels enzymes, etc.
and lymph vessels, it is called endothelium. 20 (d) Compound squamous epithelium is made up of
Thus, the endothelium of blood vessels is made up of multilayered cells and their main function is to provide
simple squamous epithelium. protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
9 (d) The cavities of alveoli of human lungs are lined by This epithelium is found in pharynx, mouth, oesophagus
squamous epithelium. This epithelium is involved in and vagina.
functions like excretion, gaseous exchange and 24 (b) Gap junctions enable communication between
secretion by forming a diffusion boundary. neighbouring or adjoining cells by joining the
10 (c) The pair in option (c) is correctly matched. cytoplasm of the two adjacent cells, thereby, allowing
the exchange or transfer of ions, small molecules and
Other pairs are incorrect and can be corrected as some large molecules.
l
Inner lining of salivary ducts is lined by compound
27 (c) Connective tissues are the most abundant and
epithelium.
widely distributed tissues in the body. These perform
l
Moist surface of buccal cavity is lined by compound the function of linking and supporting other
epithelium. tissues/organs of the body. These range from soft
l
Inner surface of bronchioles is lined by ciliated connective tissues to specialised types, which include
epithelium. cartilage, bone, adipose and blood.
11 (a) The given diagram is that of simple cuboidal 28 (b) Option (b) represents the incorrect match. It can be
epithelium as it has a free surface and is composed of a corrected as
single layer of cube-like cells resting on the basement Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is
membrane. These are compactly packed with little present in the pharynx and vagina. Pseudostratified
intercellular spaces. epithelium is present in the urethra.
12 (a) The columnar epithelium is composed of a single Rest of the options contain correct matches.
layer of tall and slender cells which possess microvilli 29 (c) Option (c) represents the correctly matched pair.
on their free surfaces. These are found in the lining of Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue which
the stomach and intestine and help in secretion and provides flexibility and cushioning to organs.
absorption.
Rest of the pairs are incorrect and can be corrected as
14 (a) Columnar ciliated epithelium comprises of l
Adipose tissue is also loose connective tissue.
columnar cells, which have cilia on the free surfaces.
This epithelium lines most of the respiratory tract like
l
Tendon is a dense connective tissue, which connects
nasal passage and bronchioles and Fallopian tubes the muscles with the bone.
(oviducts). It also lines the ventricles of the brain and l
Cartilage is composed of specialised cells called
the central canal of the spinal cord. It is also present in chondrocytes that produce a large amount of
tympanic cavity of the middle ear and auditory tube. extracellular matrix composed of collagen fibre.
30 (a) The figure represents areolar tissue. It is a loose These do not exhibit any striation and are smooth in
connective tissue comprising of the following parts appearance. Their activities are under autonomic and
Macrophage labelled by A, Collagen fibres labelled by C, hormonal control and thus, these are also known as
involuntary muscles.
Fibroblast labelled by B, Mast cells labelled by D.
52 (d) Option (d) contains the correct match. The other
33 (d) Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin and serves
pairs are incorrect and can be corrected as
as a support framework for the epithelium. It contains
fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells.
l
Columnar epithelium is present in the lining of stomach.
34 (a) Fibroblasts are the principal cells of the areolar
l
Tendon is dense connective tissue which connects
tissue. These are large, flat, stellate cells with long muscle to bone.
processes and oval nucleus. These secrete matrix and the l
Tip of nose consists of elastic cartilage.
material of which the fibres are formed. l
Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin. Cuboidal
35 (a) Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue epithelium is present in ducts of glands and tubular
located mainly beneath the skin. The cells of this tissue parts in nephrons of kidneys. Transitional epithelium
are specialised to store fats. occurs in walls of urinary bladder, ducts of gall
36 (c) The cells of adipose tissue are specialised to store bladder, etc.
fats. The excess of nutrients, which are not used 54 (c) Neuroglia or Neuroglial cells are specialised cells
immediately by the body are converted into fats and get found in the brain and spinal cord, which support the
stored in this tissue. neurons and their fibres. These cells come in different
shapes and help to protect the neurons.
38 (b) Tendons are the example of dense regular
connective tissue which attach muscles to bones. In this, 56 (b) The worm feeds on soil. The organic particles of
collagen fibres are present in rows between many the soil are used up and the undigested matter along
parallel bundles of fibres. with soil is passed out as small pills, called ‘worm
castings’. Thus, the faecal deposits of earthworm is
40 (a) Cartilage is solid pliable and resists compression.
known as castings.
Intercellular material cells, i.e. chondrocytes are
enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by 57 (a) Earthworms have long cylindrical body. The body
them. Thus, matrix secreting cells of cartilage are known is divided into more than hundred short and similar
as chondrocytes. segments (metamers) about 100-120 in number.
41 (a) Cartilage is the specialised connective tissue, 58 (c) The ventral and dorsal surface of earthworm can be
which is solid, pliable and resists compression. It is distinguished morphologically. The ventral surface is
found at the tip of human nose. Outer ear joints, marked by the presence of genital pores. The dorsal
between adjacent bones of the vertebral column, limbs surface of the body is marked by a dark median
and hands in adults. mid-dorsal line, which appears due to the presence of
44 (b) Osteoblasts are the cells which help in the formation dorsal blood vessels along the longitudinal axis of the
of bones and are present in the spaces called lacunae. body.
46 (c) The bone morrow is present in the bone marrow 60 (b) The first body segment of earthworms is called the
cavity of long bones. It is the site of production of blood peristomium (buccal segment), which contains the
cells, i.e. red blood corpuscles, white blood corpuscles mouth. The mouth is covered by the sensory
(monocytes, eosinophils, basophils and neutrophils) and prostomium.
platelets. 61 (c) In Pheretima, a prominent dark band of glandular
47 (b) Bones in the human body perform weight bearing tissue called clitellum is present in the segment
function, provide site for the attachment of skeletal numbers 14, 15 and 16. The gland cells of clitellum
muscles, protect soft tissues and organs, but is not produce cocoons during breeding season.
involved in the destruction of worn-out blood cells. 63 (b) Four pairs of spermathecal apertures are situated on
Instead, bone marrow in some bones serves as the site of the ventrolateral sides of the intersegmental grooves,
production of blood cells. Spleen is the organ where i.e. the 5th-9th segments, or 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9
worn-out blood cells are destroyed.
segments. These lead into the spermathecae and help to
48 (a) Muscles are composed of many long, cylindrical receive the sperms from another worm during
fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are copulation.
composed of numerous fine fibrils called myofibrils.
Muscles play an important role in the movement and 64 (a) A single female genital pore is present in the
locomotion of the body. midventral line of 14th segment in the body of a female
earthworm.
51 (a) Smooth muscles are involuntary, fusiform (taped at
both ends) and non-striated. These muscles are located 65 (c) A pair of male genital pores is present on the
in the inner walls of hollow visceral organs of the body ventrolateral sides of the 18th segment. These serve for
like alimentary canal, reproductive tract, etc. the exit of the sperms during copulation.
66 (b) Numerous minute pores called nephridiopores open intestine via septal excretory ducts and supraintestinal
on the surface of the earthworm's body. These are excretory duct. Thus, these are enteronephric in nature.
scattered, occurring irregularly in all the segments, 88 (a) In excretory system of the earthworms,
except the first two. integumentary nephridia are found attached to the
67 (d) Each body segment, except the first, last and the lining of the body wall from the 3rd segment to the last.
clitellum, bears rows of small chitinous S-shaped These open on the body surface discharge body waste
bristles called setae. These helps in locomotion. to the exterior by nephridiopores.
68 (c) The principal role of setae in earthworm is 89 (b) Pharyngeal nephridia are present as three paired
locomotion. These are S-shaped structures, which tufts in the segments 4th, 5th and 6th. The ducts of 4th
remain embedded in the epidermal pits in the middle of and 5th nephridia open into pharynx, while that of 6th
each segment except first, last and clitellum. nephridia open into buccal cavity.
69 (c) The body wall of the earthworm is covered by a thin 92 (c) A nephridium begins as a funnel that collects excess
non-cellular cuticle which is the epidermis, two muscle fluid from the coelomic chamber. This funnel connects
layers which are the circular and longitudinal muscles with the tubular part of the nephridium, which delivers
and the innermost coelomic epithelium.
the wastes through a pore into the digestive tube. This
71 (b) The epidermis of the earthworm is made up of a is how the nephridium regulates the volume and the
single layer of columnar epithelial cells, which contain composition of body fluids.
secretory glands.
95 (d) Nervous system of the earthworms comprises of a
74 (c) The food of the earthworm is decaying leaves and pair of cerebral ganglia, located on the pharynx in the
organic matter mixed with the soil. 3rd segment.
75 (c) Gizzard is a muscular oval sac present in the 8-9 96 (b) The sense organs of the earthworms are most
segments of the body of the earthworm. It helps in concentrated at the anterior part of its body. They do
crushing or grinding the soil particles and decaying not have eyes, but possess the light and touch sensitive
leaves, which the earthworm consumes. organs to distinguish the light intensities and feel the
76 (d) The main role of calciferous glands, present in the vibrations on the ground. Worms also have specialised
stomach in earthworms is to neutralise the humic acid chemoreceptors which react to chemical stimuli.
present in humus. These glands secrete calcium and 100 (b) From the testis of earthworms, vasa deferentia run
carbon dioxide. Calcium neutralises acidic food and up to the 18th segment, where they join the prostatic
CO2 combines with calcium to form calcite which duct.
gets excreted out with the humus through the anus.
102 (a) In female earthworms, one pair of ovaries is found
77 (b) Typhlosole is present as internal median folds on the attached at intersegmental septum of 12th and 13th
dorsal wall of the small intestine between the 26th-35th segements. Ovarian funnels are present beneath the
segments. These folds increase the effective area of ovaries which continue into the oviduct join together
absorption in the intestine.
and open on the ventral side as a single female genital
78 (d) Earthworm's intestine starts from the 15th segment pore on the 14th segment.
and continues till the last segment. A pair of short
103 (b) In Pheretima, the gland cells of the clitellum form
conical intestinal caeca project from the intestine on the
cocoon in which the mature sperms, egg cells and
26th segment.
nutritive fluid get deposited.
79 (b) Pheretima (earthworm) exhibits closed type of
104 (b) Fertilisation and development in earthworms occur
vascular system, consisting of blood vessels, capillaries
within the cocoon. These are hard shell-like structures
and heart. Due to the circulatory system being closed,
containing mature sperms, egg cells and nutritive fluid.
blood is confined to the heart and blood vessels.
These structures develope due to hardening of clitellar
81 (a) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th secretions.
segments of the earthworm. These produce blood cells The ova (eggs) are fertilised by the sperm cells within
and haemoglobin, which are dissolved in blood plasma.
the cocoon, which then slips off the worm and gets
82 (a) Haemoglobin is the metalloprotein found in the deposited on the soil. These cocoons hold the worm
blood of earthworm. It is dissolved in the blood plasma embryo. After three weeks, each cocoon produces two
in which blood cells are also suspended. to twenty baby worms with an average of four.
85 (c) The pair in the option (c) is not correctly matched 106 (b) Earthworms are also known as ‘friends of farmers’
with reference to the earthworm. It can be corrected as because they make burrows in the soil and make it
Blood glands are the production of blood cells. porous.
Rest pairs are correctly matched. It helps in the respiration and penetration of the roots of
87 (c) Septal nephridia occur on the posterior and anterior developing plants. This process of increasing the
surfaces of all the septa behind the segment 15 and open fertility of the soil by using earthworm is called
into the intestine. These discharge waste matter into the vermicomposting.
109 (c) The entire body of a cockroach is covered by a 131 (d) The correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal
hard chitinous exoskeleton or cuticle, which is brown of cockroach starting from mouth is
in colour. The main function of the exoskeleton is to Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum →
prevent the loss of water from the body and provide Colon → Rectum.
protection from predators. In a cockroach, the mouth opens into the short tubular
110 (b) In the exoskeleton of the cockroach, sclerites pharynx which leads to the narrow tubular passage,
(tergites dorsally and sternites ventrally) are joined to oesophagus. This opens into the sac-like crop which stores
each other by the arthrodial membrane. It is a thin the food. It is followed by gizzard. Both crop and gizzard
and flexible articular membrane. are structures of the foregut. At the junction of foregut and
111 (a) The head of a cockroach shows great mobility in midgut hepatic caeca is present. Malpighian tubules occur
all the directions due to the presence of a flexible at the junction of midgut and hindgut. The food then
neck. The neck is slender, flexible and articulats the moves into the hindgut, which is differentiated to ileum,
head with the thorax. It is supported by a few colon and rectum.
ring-like sclerites. 132 (b) Thin Malpighian tubules in cockroaches are present at
112 (c) The head capsule of a cockroach bears a pair of the junction of midgut and hindgut. These are 100-150
compound eyes. These are a pair of large, black, yellow coloured thin filamentous tubules which help in the
kidney-shaped organs situated dorsolaterally on the removal of excretory products from the haemolymph.
head, with one on either side of the head. 136 (c) In the respiratory system of cockroach, trachea is a
113 (c) The mouthparts of a cockroach are of biting and network of tubules which opens through 10 pairs of small
chewing type because they are used for masticating holes called spiracles present on the lateral side of the
the food. The mouthparts consist of labrum, a pair of body. Thin branching tubes (tracheal tubes subdivided into
mandibles, a pair of maxillae and a labium. tracheoles) carry oxygen from the air to all the parts.
Hypopharynx which acts as the tongue, lies within 138 (a) In cockroach exchange of gases occurs at tracheoles by
the cavity enclosed by the mouthparts. diffusion. Trachea comprises a network of white, shining
119 (b) The first pair of wings of a cockroach arises tubes called trachea, which opens out by
from the mesothorax and the second pair from 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles, which are present
metathorax. The mesothoracic wings or forewing on the lateral sides of the body.
(also called tegmina) are opaque and leathery, while 139 (a) Malpighian tubules in the cockroaches are lined by
metathoracic wings or hindwings are transparent and glandular and ciliated cells. These absorb nitrogenous
membranous. The forewings cover the hindwings waste products and convert them into uric acid.
when at rest, while the hindwings are used for flight. 140 (d) Fat bodies, nephrocytes and uricose glands are the
123 (c) In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is additional structures alongwith the Malpighian tubules in
boat-shaped and together with 8th and 9th sterna, it cockroach. Which enable excretion of nitrogenous wastes.
forms the genital pouch, whose anterior part contains Nephrocytes are present in the lateral wall of heart, fat
female gonopore, spermathecal pores and collateral bodies are found in the hemocoel and uricose glands are
glands. found in male cockroaches on the periphery of mushroom
126 (b) In both the sexes of cockroaches, the 10th glands.
segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure 141 (b) The body cells in cockroach discharge their
called anal cerci.This structure is sensory in function. nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form
127 (b) In male cockroach, the 9th sternite bears a pair of potassium urate and also sodium urate. These crystals
of small, spine-like free caudal or anal styles which are first converted into uric acid and are then eliminated
are absent in female cockroach. The anal styles are with faecal matter as cockroaches are uricotelic.
believed to function as motion detector. Thus, the 142 (a) In the head region of cockroach, brain is represented
presence of caudal styles differentiates a male by supraoesophageal ganglion, which supplies the nerves
cockroach from a female one. to the antennae and compound eyes.
The other three characters, i.e. anal cerci, 144 (a) The compound eyes of cockroaches are situated at the
boat-shaped sternum on 9th abdominal segment and dorsal surface of the head. These contain several ommatidia.
forewings with darker tegmina are found in both
male and female cockroaches. 145 (b) Ommatidia of cockroach are the visual units. Each eye
consists of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia with the help
128 (a) Crop is a sac-like structure present in the of which, a cockroach can receive several images of an
alimentary canal of cockroaches and is used for object.
storing food.
146 (a) Cockroach vision is very sensitive, but provides less
129 (d) In the digestive system of a cockroach, a ring of resolution. Such vision is called mosaic vision and is
6-8 blind tubules called gastric caeca is present at the common during night (hence also termed as nocturnal
junction of foregut and midgut, which secrete vision).
digestive juices, to aid digestion of food.
149 (a) In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in the 168 (c) In frogs, digestion of the food takes place by the
seminal vesicles of the reproductive system. These are action of HCl and gastric juices secreted from the walls
small sacs present on the ventral surface of the anterior of the stomach. Then, the partially digested food is
of the ejaculatory duct. passed from the stomach to the first part of intestine.
The seminal vesicles in male and the seminal 169 (a) In frogs, the final stage of digestion is accomplished
receptacles in females are the organs of sperm storage in in the intestine. The digested food is absorbed by
cockroaches. numerous finger-like folds, i.e. villi and microvilli,
150 (a) The female reproductive system of cockroach found in the inner wall of intestine.
consists of two large ovaries, which are present laterally 172 (a) Since, frogs are poikilotherms, in winters, the body
in the 2nd-6th abdominal segments. Each ovary is temperature of frog falls considerably.
formed of a group of eight ovarian tubules or ovarioles. This makes the frog inactive and may cause its death.
152 (b) In the reproductive system of a female cockroach, a To avoid this, during the winter period frogs do not
pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment, which show any movement and respire through their skin. This
opens into the genital pouch. winter sleep is called hibernation.
153 (c) Option (c) represents the correct characteristic of a In hot summers, frog burries itself in the mud at the
female cockroach. bottom of ponds and respires through skin. This summer
Other options can be corrected as sleep is called aestivation. When water recollects in the
l
Presence of anal style is the characteristic feature of a
pond, frogs again become active.
male cockroach. Thus, during both hibernation and aestivation, frogs
l
Each ovary in a female cockroach is made up of ‘8’
respire through their skin.
ovarioles or ovarian tubules. 173 (b) The vascular system of a frog is well-developed and
l
Genital pouch is a large boat-shaped structure formed of closed type. The blood vascular system comprises of
by 7th sternum with 8th and 9th sterna. the heart, blood vessels and blood containing
haemoglobin. Frogs also have a lymphatic system and
154 (a) In cockroach, fertilised eggs are stored in the dark heart is myogenic type.
reddish to blackish-brown capsule, about 3/8" (8 mm
long) called oothecae. On an average, female produces 178 (a) In male frogs, ureters act as urinogenital duct
9-10 oothecae, each containing 14-16 eggs. because it carries urine as well as spermatozoa. This
urinogenital duct opens into the cloaca.
156 (b) The development of Periplaneta americana is
paurometabolous, which means that in cockroaches, 179 (c) The elimination of nitrogenous wastes in frog is
development is through nymphal stage. The nymphs carried out by a well-developed excretory system. The
look very much like adults and grow by moulting about excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, ureters,
13 times to reach the adult form. cloaca and urinary bladder. Each kidney is composed of
several structural and functional units called nephrons
158 (c) In cockroach, development is paurometabolous. The or uriniferous tubules.
nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the
adult form. The next to last nymphal stage has wing 180 (c) In frogs, the cloaca is a single opening of both the
pads, but only adult cockroaches have wings. Thus, the excretory and reproductive ducts. The undigested solid
external changes visible after the last moult of a waste moves into the rectum and passes out through
cockroach nymph is the development of both forewings cloaca. Further, the two ureters which emerge from the
and hindwings. kidneys act as urinogenital duct and also open into the
cloaca.
160 (d) Frogs are not endotherms, i.e. they cannot regulate
their body temperature, and as such are called cold 181 (a) The frog is a ureotelic animal because it excretes
blooded or poikilotherms. urea. The excretory wastes in frogs are carried by blood
into the kidney, where it is separated and excreted out
162 (a) The skin of frog is naked, i.e. without scales or through cloaca.
feathers, smooth and slippery due to the presence of
sac-like mucus gland that discharges slimy mucus onto 185 (c) The forebrain of frog comprises of olfactory lobes,
the epidermis. paired cerebral hemispheres and unpaired
diencephalon.
165 (a) Frog exhibits sexual dimorphism. Male frog can be
187 (a) The hindbrain of a frog consists of a cerebellum and
distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal
sacs and a copulatory pad which is present on the first medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata passes out
digit of the forelimbs. These two structural features are through the foramen magnum and continues into the
absent in female frogs. spinal cord, which is enclosed by vertebral column.
188 (a) Pair in option (a) is not correctly matched. It can be
166 (b) The alimentary canal of frogs is short because they
are carnivores and hence, the length of the intestine is corrected as
reduced. Hearing in frogs is associated with tympanum with
internal ears. External ear is absent in frogs and only
167 (c) A small spherical gall bladder lies between the two tympanum can be seen externally. Rest of the options
main lobes of the liver. It stores the bile juice secreted contain correctly matched pairs.
by the liver before releasing it into the duodenum.
190 (b) The number of vasa efferentia that arise from the 199 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
testes in the reproductive system of a male frog is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
10-12. These enter the kidneys and open into the The adipose tissue is a fat storing loose connective
Bidder's canal and finally communicate with the tissue. It is mainly located beneath the skin. The cells of
urinogenital duct that comes out of the kidneys and this tissue are specialised to store fats. The excess of
opens into the cloaca. nutrients, which are not used immediately by the body
191 (d) In male frogs, cloaca is a small median chamber gets converted into fats and are stored in this tissue.
that is used to pass sperms, faecal matter and urine to 200 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
the exterior. the correct explanation of Assertion.
Therefore, the term urinogenital system is used, so as to Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only
represent a connection between the kidneys and the in the heart. Cell junctions present in the plasma
genital system. membranes of cardiac muscle cells get fused and make
192 (d) In male frogs, germinal epithelium of seminiferous them stick together. Communication junctions or
tubules in the testes produce sperms, which are intercalated discs at some points allow the cells to
transferred to kidney via vasa efferentia, from the contract as a unit, i.e. when one cell receives a signal to
kidney, these enter into Bidder’s canal from where the contract, its neighbours are also stimulated.
sperms are carried to the transverse collecting tubules, 201 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
longitudinal collecting tubules and then to the not the correct explanation of Assertion.
urinogenital duct. The sperms are further carried to the Earthworm moves by crawling (creeping) as they lack
seminal vesicle where they are stored temporarily. special locomotary appendages. Crawling occurs by the
From here, sperms are carried to cloaca and then these muscular contraction and extension of the body, aided
shed into water. by chitinous bristles, called setae of the skin.
Thus, the correct route of the passage of sperms in
frogs is
Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney Earthworms improve the soil by dragging leaf fragments
 down into their burrows and thus, add organic matter to
↓ the soil. This organic matter (vermi compost) forms the
Cloaca ← Urinogenital duct ← Bidder’s canal humus and increases the soil fertility. This process is
195 (c) In female frogs, the ovaries are not functionally called vermicomposting.
concerned with kidneys. The oviducts arise from Vermicompost is an excellent nutrient rich organic
ovaries and open into cloaca separately unlike in male fertiliser and soil conditioner. This activity makes the
frogs where a common urinogenital duct open into earthworm ‘friends of farmers’.
cloaca. 203 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
196 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason the correct explanation of Assertion.
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. Earthworms lack specialised breathing devices. Thus,
Columnar epithelium is also known as glandular exchange of the respiratory gases in earthworm occurs
epithelium because some of the columnar cells get through the body surface.
specialised to perform the functions of secretion. They The skin of the earthworm is thin, moist and highly
are of two types, i.e. unicellular and multicellular. vascular. It is kept moist by the moisture of the soil, the
Cells of columnar epithelium form lining of the mucus secreted by the gland cells of the epidermis and
stomach and help in the secretion and absorption of the coelomic fluid oozing out of the dorsal pores.
nutrients. Oxygen from the air dissolves in these fluids and then
diffuses into the blood through the thin skin of
197
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can

earthworm.
be corrected as
Compound epithelium provides protection against 204 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
chemical and mechanical stresses as it is a multilayered the correct explanation of Assertion.
tissue. Thus, it has limited role in absorption, secretion Blood of the earthworm is red in colour as it has
and excretion. This epithelium is found in the moist haemoglobin dissolved in the plasma. It contains
surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of duct leucocytes only.
of salivary glands, but not in stomach lining. 205 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
198 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
the correct explanation of Assertion. Earthworm is hermaphrodite (bisexual), as both the
Bone is the hardest tissue in the body. Its hardness is testes and the ovaries are present within the same
due to the calcification of its matrix. It has hard and individual.
non-pliable ground substances rich in calcium salts and Hermaphroditism compensates for the lack of asexual
collagen fibres, which give strength to the bones. reproduction by increasing the rate of multiplication.
206 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is 214 (b) Statement in option (c) is correct.
the correct explanation of Assertion. Rest statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
The nervous system of the cockroach is spread l
Nervous system of cockroach is present on the ventral
throughout the body. The head holds a bit of nervous side.
system, while rest is situated along the ventral parts of l
Malpighian tubules are around 100-150 in number.
its body. Thus, if the head region of the cockroach is cut l
Grinding of food in cockroach is carried out by gizzard.
off, it will still survive for as long as one week.
215 (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect. Its correct
207 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
explanation is as follows
be corrected as
Cockroach exhibits mosaic vision with high sensitivity
In frog‘s vascular system, the composition of lymph is
and less resolution.
different from that of blood. Blood consists of fluid,
plasma and three types of corpuscles (RBCs, WBCs and Rest of the statements are correct.
platelets) dissolved in it. 216 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect about
However, lymph is a fluid filtered out from the blood Periplaneta americana. It can be corrected as
through capillaries and does not contain RBCs and The body of Periplaneta americana is segmented and
some proteins. Thus, it differs from blood in divisible into three distinct regions, i.e. head, thorax
composition. and abdomen.
208 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is Rest of the statements are correct.
the correct explanation of Assertion. 217 (c) Statements II and IV are incorrect. Their corrected
Frogs have webbed feet as it helps in swimming. The forms are as follows
degree of webbing is directly proportional to the amount l
Ciliated epithelium consists of the cells that bear cilia
of time a frog spends in water, e.g. the completely on their free surface . Their function is to move the
aquatic African dwarf frog (Hymenochirus sp.) has fully particles or mucus over the epithelium in a specific
webbed toes, whereas those of white tree frogs (Litoria direction.
cairulea), arboreal species, have quarterly webbed toes. l
They are mainly found in the inner surface of the
209 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be hollow organs like bronchioles and Fallopian tubes.
corrected as Rest of the statements are correct.
Squamous epithelium is found on the walls of lungs, 218 (c) Statements III and IV are incorrect. Their corrected
and it helps in diffusion of gases. forms are as follows
Skeletal muscles are voluntary in their action.
210 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect about columnar l
Walls of the blood vessels are lined by smooth muscles
epithelium. It can be corrected as and not skeletal muscles.
Columnar epithelium is found in the lining of stomach Rest of the statements are correct.
and intestine, where it helps in the secretion and
219 (c) Statements I and III are incorrect. Their corrected
absorption of nutrients.
Rest of the statements are correct. forms are as follows
l
Blood vascular system of the earthworm is of closed
211 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can be
type, consisting of blood vessels, capillaries and heart.
corrected as
l
Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th
The cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
segments of earthworm.
collagen or elastin in all connective tissues except
blood. The fibres provide strength, elasticity and Rest of the statements are correct.
flexibility to the tissue. 220 (d) Both statements I and II are false. Their corrected
Rest of the statements are correct. forms are as follows

212 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect. It can be l
The thorax of cockroach contains 3 ganglia, while the
corrected as abdomen contains 6 ganglia.
Pharyngeal nephridia are present as three paired tufts in l
No nymphal stage of cockroach bear wings. These are
the 4th, 5th and 6th segment. present only in adults. Next to last nymphal stage bear
Rest of the statements are correct. wing pads.
213 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect regarding 224 (b) Statements II and III are incorrect regarding hind
cockroach (Periplaneta americana). It can be wings of cockroach. The correct information is as
corrected as follows
Cockroaches are omnivorous animals. They feed on In cockroach, hindwings form the real organs of flight
almost all kinds of food matter including human food, and are used for flying. These are also known as
paper, leather and prefer starch containing food. metathoracic wings.
Rest of the statements are correct. Rest of the statements are correct.
225 (d) Statement I is incorrect in reference to the digestive 232 (b) Statement I is false, but II is true. The corrrect
system of cockroach. It can be corrected as information about statement I is as follows
The entire foregut is lined by cuticle. The first segment of earthworm is known as
Rest of the statements are correct. peristomium which contains mouth covered by
prostomium. The latter is sensory in function. It also
226 (c) Statements I and III are incorrect regarding blood
helps to crack open the soil during burrowing.
varcular system of cockroach. These can be corrected as
243 (c) Being thin, squamous epithelium permits easy
l
The circulatory system of the cockroach is of open type.
diffusion of substances across its surface. Thus, it is
l
Heart of the cockroach is 13-chambered. involved in making of the inner walls of large blood
Rest of the statements are correct. vessels and in such case it is called endothelium.
227 (b) Statement I is true and II is false. The correct 244 (b) Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective
information about statement II is as follows Cockroaches tissue. It forms a protective covering around organs
are dioecious and both sexes have well-developed such as kidneys and eyeball, where it acts as a shock
reproductive organs and accessory glands. Female bears absorber.
collaterial glands, while mushroom glands are present in
245 (d) Muscle is not a connective tissue, but it is
males.
composed of long, cylindrical, numerous fine fibrils
229 (a) Statement I is incorrect about frog. It can be called myofibrils. Muscles form the muscular tissue.
corrected as Rest of the given tissues are all connective tissues.
Frog respires on land and in water differently. In water,
246 (d) Setae help in locomotion in earthworm, but are
skin acts as respiratory organs. On land, inspite of skin, the
not uniformly present in all the segments. These are
buccal cavity and lungs majorly act as respiratory organs.
present in each segment, except for the lst, last and
Pulmonary respiration occurs on land through lungs.
the clitellar segment.
247 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct about
230 (d) Statements III and IV are true. cockroach. Rest statements are incorrect and can be
Statements I and II are are incorrect and can be corrected as follows
corrected as l
The number of ovarioles in each ovary are eight.
l
Frogs are poikilotherms or cold-blooded. l
The larval stage is called nymph.
l
Frogs possess coronary circulation. l
Cockroaches are uricotelic.
CHAPTER > 08
Cell : The Unit of Life
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Cell is the fundamental, structural and functional unit of all Prokaryotic Cells
living organisms. The term cell was coined by Robert Hooke Å These are represented by bacteria, blue-green algae,
in the year 1665. mycoplasma, etc.
Å A living cell was first seen and described by Antonie van Å All prokaryotic cells are bound by a plasma membrane
Leeuwenhoek. The nucleus was discovered by Robert enclosing a gel or fluid-like cytoplasm. Except mycoplasma,
Brown. all prokaryotic cells have a cell wall.
Å Cell theory was proposed by Schleiden and Schwann in 1838. Å These lack a well-defined nucleus. The genetic material, i.e
Å This theory was modified by Rudolf Virchow (1855) to DNA is naked and circular, not enveloped by a nuclear
explain the formation of new cells. The cell theory can be membrane. Many prokaryotic cells possess
summarised as extrachromosomal small circular DNA called plasmids. It
n
All living organisms are made up of one or more cells. confers unique phenotype to the cell.
n
The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. Å Cell envelope is chemically complex and the manner in
n
All cells arise from pre-existing cells (Omnis which it responds to Gram staining procedure, classified
cellula-e-cellula). bacteria as Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. The
cell envelope of former take up the stain, while that of later
Å The cells exhibit high variation in size, lifespan and cellular
does not take up the stain.
activities, e.g. mycoplasmas (smallest cell) or PPLOs
(Pleuro-Pneumonia Like Organisms) is only 0.3 µm in length Å Cell envelope consist of three tightly bound layers,
and bacterial cells are approximately 3-5 µm in size. n
Glycocalyx Present either as slime layer or as capsule in
Å An ostrich egg, which is known to be the largest isolated different bacteria.
single cell measures about 170 × 135 mm. Human Red Blood n
Cell wall Made up of peptidoglycan provides structural
Cells (RBCs) are about 7 µm in diameter and the nerve cell of support and integrity to the bacterial cell.
human being is the longest cell having a length of 90-100 cm. n
Plasma membrane Selectively permeable in nature.
Å The cells also vary in their shapes and may be polygonal, Å Mesosomes are the membranous structures which are
disc-like, amoeboid, thread-like, cuboid or irregular. The formed by the extensions of plasma membrane as vesicles,
shape of the cell is may varies with the function they tubules and lamellae. These are involved in cell wall
performs. formation, DNA replication, respiration, secretion, increase
Å On the basis of organisation, complexity and variety, all cells in surface area, etc.
can be grouped into two types, i.e. prokaryotic and Å Chromatophores are pigment containing membranous
eukaryotic cells. extensions present in cyanobacteria.
Å Flagella are thin filamentous extensions, arising from the Å Studies on human RBCs concluded that the cell membrane
cell wall of a bacterial cell. A flagellum in a prokaryotic is composed of lipid which forms a bilayer with protein
cell is composed of three parts–filament (longest portion), molecules embedded in it at different places.
hook and basal body. n
Lipids Majorly cholesterol and phospholipids are
Å Pili are proteinaceous, elongated and tubular structures arranged in a bilayer with polar hydrophilic heads
found on the surface of bacterial cell. facing outwards and non-polar, hydrophobic tails
Å Fimbriae are small, bristle-like fibres like pili, which help facing inwards the cell.
the bacteria to attach to the substratum or host tissue. Both n
Proteins These include, peripheral proteins and
pili and fimbriae do not play role in the motility of bacteria. integral proteins. The former lies on the surface, while
the latter are partially or totally embedded in the
Å Prokaryotes contain 70 S ribosomes [50 S + 30 S] in the
membrane.
cytoplasm and these are the site of protein synthesis.
Å Fluid mosaic model is the most accepted model of the cell
Å Polysome or Polyribosomes are formed by the association
membrane structure. It was proposed by Singer and
of several ribosomes to a single mRNA.
Nicolson in 1972. They proposed that the quasi-fluid
Å Inclusion bodies, e.g. phosphates granules, glycogen nature of lipids in plasma membrane allow the lateral
granules, gas vacuoles, etc., found in the cytoplasm of movement to proteins within the bilayer. It also
prokaryotic cells store reserve food material. These are not contributes to cell growth, division, secretion, endocytosis
bound by any membrane system. and formation of plasmodesmata.
Å The selectively permeable plasma membrane allow the
Eukaryotic Cells movement of various substances across it through
Å It includes protists, plants, animals and fungi. different mechanisms which have been tabulated below
Å These possess membrane bound organelles, including an Mode of Transport Characteristics/Type of Molecules
organised nucleus bound by a double-layered nuclear
Passive transport
Does not require energy while
envelope. The nucleus contains genetic material organised
transporting molecules along the
into chromosomes. concentration gradient.
Å All eukaryotic cells are not identical. Plant cells and
animal cells differ significantly due to the presence or

Simple diffusion
Neutral solutes are transported along the
concentration gradient.
absence of certain organelles.

Osmosis
Movement of water along the
Å The difference between plant and animal cells can be concentration gradient.
tabulated as
Carrier proteins
Transport of polar molecules is
facilitated.
Structure/Organelles Plant Cell Animal Cell
Active transport
Molecules are transported against the
Cell wall Present Absent (Na + /K + pump) concentration gradient by utilising ATP.
Plastids Present Absent
Centrioles Absent Present Cell Wall
Vacuoles Present as a large Either very small Å It is the outer covering of plasma membrane in plants and
central vacuole or absent fungi. It is differentiated into
n
Middle lamella composed of calcium pectate which
Å An eukaryotic cell is composed of various cell
keep the different neighbouring cells intact.
components as cell membrane, cell wall (only in plants),
mitochondria, chloroplast, Golgi bodies, ribosomes,
n
Primary wall capable of growth and thus, found in
centrioles (only in animals), etc. young plant cells.
n
Secondary wall formed on the inner side of the mature
Cell Membrane cell.
Å Every living cell is covered by a thin, elastic, transparent, Å Occasionally, a tertiary cell wall may also be present.
semi-permeable and regenerative membrane called cell Å Algal cell wall contains galactans, mannans, cellulose and
membrane also called plasma membrane or minerals, while plant cell wall contains cellulose,
plasmalemma. hemicellulose, pectins and proteins. Fungal cell wall
Å In 1950s with the advancement of electron microscope the consists mainly of chitin.
detailed structure of the membrane was studied. Most of
the initial studies on cell membrane structure, i.e. Endomembrane System
especially on the human Red Blood Cells (RBCs), which Å It consists of four membranous organelles whose functions
enabled the scientists to deduce the possible structure of are coordinated. These include ER, Golgi complex,
plasma membrane. lysosomes and vacuoles.
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 08 > Cell : The Unit of Life 189
Å The structural and functional details of the organelles of n

Leucoplasts are the colourless plastids which store
the endomembrane system are tabulated below nutrients. These include
Organelles Structure Functions n
Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (starch).
Endoplasmic
Network of tubular
RER involved in
n
Elaioplasts store oil and fats.
Reticulum (ER) structures. protein synthesis n
Aleuroplasts store proteins.

Rough ER possess and secretion.
ribosomes on surface,
Å Chloroplasts are found abundantly in the mesophyll cells

SER involved in
continuous with nuclear synthesis of lipids. of the leaves of most photosynthesising plants.
membrane. Å These are double membrane bound organelles containing

Smooth ER does not small double-stranded circular DNA and 70 S ribosomes.
possess ribosomes.
Å The sectional view of chloroplast shows that the inner
Golgi
Flat, disc-shaped, parallely
Packaging and
apparatus
membrane encloses stroma which contain flat
stacked cisternae, possess secretion.
membranous sacs called thylakoids.
cis (forming) and trans
Formation of
(maturation) faces. glycoproteins and Å The latter are arranged in piles to form grana and these
glycolipids. are connected by stroma lamellae. These two unit
Lysosomes membranes are separated by periplastidial or

Single membrane bound
Digestion of
(Suicidal bags) vesicular structures proteins, lipids, intermembrane space.
containing hydrolytic nucleic acids and
enzymes. carbohydrates. Ribosomes

Exhibit polymorphism and Å These are the granular structures first observed under the
occur as primary electron microscope as dense particle by George Palade
lysosomes (contain (1953).
inactive enzymes),
secondary lysosomes
Å These are composed of Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) and
(digestive vacuoles), proteins and are not surrounded by any membrane.
residual bodies and Å Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, while prokaryotic
autophagic vacuoles. ribosomes are 70 S. Here, ‘S’ stands for sedimentation
Vacuoles
Single membrane
Osmoregulation and coefficient.
(tonoplast) bound sacs in excretion by Å Both 70 S and 80 S ribosomes are composed of two
cytoplasm which contain contractile vacuole
subunits.
water, sap, excretory in Amoeba.
products, etc. Food vacuole engulf
Cytoskeleton

Food vacuole is formed by food particles, as in
fusion of phagosome and protists. Å Network of interconnected proteinaceous microtubules ,
lysosome. microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the
cytoplasm is collectively referred to as the cytoskeleton.
Mitochondria Å It maintains the shape of the cell, provides mechanical
Å These are enveloped by two unit membranes filled with support, etc.
dense, homogenous matrix. The inner membrane folds into
the matrix to form cristae (bear F1 -particles or oxysomes). Cilia and Flagella
Å Mitochondria are cylindrical bodies with an average
Å These are hair-like outgrowths of cell membrane which
diameter of 0.2-1 µ and are ordinarily 3-10 µ in length. provide motility to the cells.
Å These are the site of aerobic respiration and produce
Å Their core called axoneme is composed of microtubules
energy in the form of ATP. These possess single circular exhibiting 9 + 2 arrangement. The nine peripheral tubules
DNA, 70 S ribosomes and RNA. Mitochondria divide by are doublets and are joined by nine radial spokes. The
fission. two central microtubules are bound by a central sheath.
Å Both cilia and flagella emerges from the basal body which
Plastids is a centriole-like structure.
Å These are found in all plant cells and in euglenoids. Based
on the type of pigments present, plastids are of three types Centrosome and Centrioles
n
Chloroplasts which contain chlorophyll and Å Centrosome contains two perpendicularly arranged
carotenoid pigments. cylindrical structures called centrioles.
n
Chromoplasts which contain fat soluble carotenoid Å Centrioles are made up of nine peripheral fibrils of tubulin
pigments like carotene and xanthophyll. protein and a central proteinaceous core called hub.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å The peripheral tubules are triplets and each peripheral tubule Å Chromatin material condenses to form chromosomes
is connected to hub through radial spokes made up of protein. in the nucleus during cell division.
Å Centriole form basal body of cilia and flagella. Å Each chromosome posseses two chromatids which
Å It also forms spindle fibres during cell division in animal cells. remain attached to the centromere or primary
constriction. The latter posseses a disc-shaped structure
Nucleus called kinetochore on its surface.
Å It is a structure bound by a nuclear envelope of double unit Å Based on the position of centromere, chromosomes are
membrane. It consists of
metacentric (middle centromere), sub-metacentric
n
Chromatin Flemming described it as nucleoprotein fibres (centromere slightly away from middle), acrocentric
formed when the nucleus of the cell is not dividing, i.e. during (centromere near the end) and telocentric (terminal
interphase. centromere).
n
Chromatin consists of DNA, basic proteins called histones, Å Few chromosomes possess secondary constrictions
non-histone proteins and RNA. called satellite at constant locations.
n
Nuclear envelope surrounds the nucleus and bears numerous
small nuclear pores that allow movement of RNA and protein Microbodies
between nucleus and cytoplasm. The space between its two Å Many membrane bound minute vesicles called
parallel membrane is called perinuclear space. microbodies containing various enzymes are present in
n
Nucleolus is found in the nuclear matrix or nucleoplasm. It is both plant and animal cells.
not bound by a membrane and acts as the site for active rRNA Å A few examples are peroxisomes in both plant cell and
synthesis. It was discovered by Fontana in 1774. animal cell and glyoxysomes in plant cell only.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Cell Theory

1 Name the scientist, who saw a live cell first time. 4 Schwann proposed cell theory according to
(a) Robert Brown which
(b) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (a) each cell of the body possesses the same genetic
(c) Robert White information
(d) Schleiden (b) all life activities of the organisms are present in
2 The most likely method, used to determine the miniature form in each and every cell of its body
ultrastructure of a cell organelle is (c) bodies of animals and plants are made up of cells
(a) autoradiography (d) a new cell always develops by the division of
(b) microdissection pre-existing cells
(c) electron microscopy
5 Schleiden and Schwann’s cell theory could not
(d) phase contrast microscopy
explain
3 Cell theory was formulated by (a) cell formed from pre-existing cell
(a) Schleiden and Schwann (b) how new cells were formed
(b) Rudolf Virchow (c) body of animals are composed of cells
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Robert Hooke
6 ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula, (all cells arise from 10 Which of the following represents the incorrect pair?
pre-existing cells). Who gave this concept and
modified the cell theory? (a)
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Virchow = Mesophyll cells
(c) Robert Brown
(d) Leeuwenhoek
7 The genetic material is naked in Round and oval
(a) prokaryotic cells
(b) eukaryotic cells (b)
(c) multicellular cell = Red blood cells
8 Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells contain (Round and biconcave)
(a) mitochondria
(b) ribosome (c)
(c) chloroplast = Platelets
(d) Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)
(Amoeboid)
9 The largest isolated single cell is
(a) egg of ostrich (d)
(b) egg of peacock = Columnar epithelial cells
(c) egg of duck
(d) None of the above (Long and narrow)
TOPIC 2 ~ Prokaryotic Cell

11 Which of the following represents prokaryotic cells? 16 Which of the following components provides sticky
(a) PPLO (b) Mycoplasma character to the bacterial cell? NEET 2017
(c) Bacteria (d) All of these (a) Cell wall (b) Nuclear membrane
12 The genetic material of prokaryotic cell (c) Plasma membrane (d) Glycocalyx
(a) possess small circular DNA called plasmids 17 Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness
(b) is not enveloped by nuclear membrane among different bacteria. It could be a loose sheath
(c) composed of a single circular DNA molecule
called the …… or it may be thick and tough, called
the …… .
13 Plasmids of bacterial cell possess all the following (a) capsule; slime layer
characteristics except (b) slime layer; capsule
(a) these are extrachromosomal DNA (c) mesosome, slime layer
(b) these are used in genetic engineering (d) capsule, mesosome
(c) these help in the replication of nucleoid 18 The cell envelope of bacteria is composed of
(d) these are small, circular and confer unique phenotypic (a) outermost cell wall followed by glycocalyx and plasma
characters to some bacteria membrane
14 Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an (b) plasma membrane and cell wall
organism having 70S ribosomes only? NEET 2019 (c) outermost glycocalyx followed by cell wall and plasma
(a) Single-stranded DNA with protein coat membrane
(b) Double-stranded circular naked DNA (d) plasma membrane
(c) Double-stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane 19 Which one of the following does not differ in E. coli
(d) Double-stranded circular DNA with histone proteins and Chlamydomonas? NEET 2013
15 A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane of (a) Ribosomes
prokaryotes is (b) Chromosomal organisation
(a) ribosome (b) mesosome (c) Cell wall
(c) microvilli (d) vacuoles (d) Cell membrane
20 What is true about mesosomes? (a) The bacteria could no longer swim
(a) Help in cell wall formation (b) The bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue
(b) Help in cellular respiration (c) Transportation of molecules across the membrane
(c) Help in DNA replication would stop
(d) All of the above (d) The shape of bacteria would change
21 The longest portion in a bacterial flagellum is 24 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA
(a) hook (b) basal body (c) filament (d) pili to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such string of ribosomes are
22 Choose the incorrect pair. termed as NEET 2018
(a) Gram-positive bacteria–Take up the Gram stain (a) plastidome (b) polyhedral bodies
(b) Cell wall–Prevents bacterium from collapsing (c) polysome (d) nucleosome
(c) Capsule–Thick and tough glycocalyx 25 Which one of the following is not an inclusion body
(d) Pili– Locomotory structure in bacteria found in prokaryotes? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
23 If you remove the fimbriae from the bacterial cell, (a) Cyanophycean granule (b) Glycogen granule
which of the following would you expect to happen? (c) Polysome (d) Phosphate granule
TOPIC 3 ~ Eukaryotic Cell

26 Eukaryotes make the entire body of 30 The following diagram shows some of the missing
(a) protists (b) fungi (c) plants (d) All of these structures in an animal cell (A-E).
27 Which one of the following differentiates plant cells Identify the structures.
from animal cells? Microvilli
(a) Large vacuole, plastid and cell wall
(b) Cell wall, plastid and centriole A
E
(c) Cell wall, plastid and mitochondria Centriole
(d) Cell membrane, plastid and cell wall
28 Select the mismatch. NEET 2016
Lysosome
(a) Gas vacuoles — Green bacteria cells
(b) Large central vacuoles — Animal cells C
Nuclear
(c) Protists — Eukaryotes envelope B
(d) Methanogens — Prokaryotes Nucleolus
29 The following diagram shows some of the missing D
structures in a plant cell (A-E). Identify the structures. Nucleus
Lysosome Cytoplasm
B (a) A–Plasma membrane, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum,
A Nucleus C–Ribosomes, D–Mitochondrion, E–Golgi apparatus
Nucleolus (b) A–Plasma membrane, B–Mitochondrion, C–Ribosomes,
C D–Rough endoplamic reticulum, E–Golgi apparatus.
Microtubule
Nuclear envelope (c) A–Plasma membrane, B–Mitochondria, C–Ribosomes,
Plasma membrane D–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, E–Golgi apparatus
Vacuole (d) A–Plasma membrane, B–Mitochondria, C–Golgi
Middle lamella apparatus, D–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum,
E–Ribosomes
Peroxisome D Cell wall
Cytoplasm E 31 Choose the incorrect pair.
Chloroplast
(a) Best material to study cell — RBC of human
(a) A–Plasmodesmata, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, membrane structure
C–Golgi apparatus, D–Mitochondrion, E–Ribosomes
(b) Arrangement of lipids in cell — Bilayer
(b) A–Desmosome, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, membrane
(c) Abundant lipid in cell — Phospholipid
(c) A–Plasmodesmata, B–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum,
membrane
(d) A–Tight junction, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (d) Cell membrane composition — Carbohydrates
C–Golgi apparatus, D–Mitochondrion, E–Ribosomes + Lipids
32 Lipids are arranged within the membrane with 40 Cell membrane is selectively permeable. This means
(a) polar heads towards innerside and the hydrophobic tails that it
towards outerside (a) allows all materials to pass through
(b) Both heads and tails towards outerside (b) allows only water to pass through
(c) heads towards outerside and tails towards inside (c) allows only certain materials to pass through
(d) Both heads and tails towards innerside (d) allows only ions to pass through
33 Why tails of lipids in the membrane are towards inner 41 The main difference between active and passive
part? transport across cell membrane is NEET 2019
(a) The tail is non-polar hydrocarbon and so, protected (a) passive transport is non-selective whereas active
with an aqueous environment transport is selective
(b) The tail is polar hydrocarbon and so, is protected from (b) passive transport requires a concentration gradient
aqueous environment across a biological membrane whereas active transport
requires energy to move solutes
(c) The non-polar or hydrophobic hydrocarbon tails of
lipid, being on innerside ensure their protection from (c) passive transport is confined to anionic carrier proteins
aqueous environment whereas active transport is confined to cationic channel
proteins
(d) The tail is hydrophilic so, it tends to be located in the
aqueous innerside of membrane (d) active transport occurs more rapidly than passive
transport
34 The lipid component of cell membrane consists of
42 Na + / K + pump represents
(a) lipolipids (b) phospholipids
(c) hydrophobic lipids (d) None of these (a) active transport (b) passive transport
(c) osmosis (d) simple diffusion
35 What is the role of sterol in cell membrane?
43 One of the major components of cell wall of most
JIPMER 2018
(a) Stability fungi is NEET 2016
(a) peptidoglycan (b) cellulose
(b) Communication with other cells
(c) hemicellulose (d) chitin
(c) Secretion
(d) Transport 44 The cell wall of plant cells
(a) provides protection
36 Identify the component labelled as A in the given (b) helps in cell to cell interaction
diagram of cell membrane? (c) provides a barrier to undesirable macromolecules
A
45 Choose the odd one out with respect to the
composition of plant cell wall.
(a) Cellulose (b) Galactans
(c) Pectins and proteins (d) Hemicellulose
46 The innermost portion of a mature plant cell wall
possesses
(a) External protein (b) Integral protein (a) primary cell wall (b) plasma membrane
(c) Sugar (d) Lipid (c) secondary cell wall (d) plasmodesmata
37 According to Singer and Nicolson concept, cell 47 The cell wall and middle lamellae are transversed by
membrane is (a) plasmodesmata (b) primary wall
(a) solid (b) quasifluid (c) cytoplasm (d) cortex
(c) fluid (d) solidified sheath
48 Why endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, lysosome
38 The fluid mosaic model explains and vacuoles are components of endomembranous
(a) Only structural aspects of cell membrane system?
(b) Only functional aspects of cell membrane (a) Their structures are distinct
(c) Both structural and functional aspects of cell membrane (b) Their functions are distinct
(d) Only fluidity of membrane (c) Their functions are coordinated
39 Fluid nature of membrane is able to explain
(a) cell growth, cell division 49 The main organelle involved in modification and
(b) formation of intercellular junctions routing of newly synthesised proteins to their
(c) secretion and permeation of various substances across destination is
the membrane (a) mitochondria (b) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) All of the above (c) lysosome (d) chloroplast
50 What does ‘B’ represent in the figure? 58 Which one of the following is the correct labelling of
given structure of Golgi apparatus?
A
D A
B
E (a) A–Cisternae, B–Vesicle, C–cis face, D–trans face

(b) A–Cisternae, B–Vesicle, C–trans face, D–cis face
(a) Ribosome (b) Rough ER (c) A–Tubules, B–Vesicle, C–trans face, D–cis face
(c) Smooth ER (d) Nuclear pore (d) A–Vesicle, B–Cisternae, C–cis face, D–trans face
51 Which one of the following events does not occur in 59 The Golgi complex participates in NEET 2018
rough endoplasmic reticulum? NEET 2018
(a) respiration in bacteria
(a) Cleavage of signal peptide (b) formation of secretory vesicles
(b) Protein glycosylation (c) fatty acid breakdown
(c) Protein folding (d) activation of amino acid
(d) Phospholipid synthesis
60 Which of the following cell organelles is present in
52 Nuclear envelope is a derivative of CBSE-AIPMT 2015 the highest number in secretory cells?
(a) membrane of Golgi complex NEET (Odisha) 2019
(b) microtubules (a) Mitochondria
(c) rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi complex
(d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
53 Select the correct matching in the following pairs. (d) Lysosomes
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 61 Important site for the formation of glycoprotein and
(a) Smooth ER — Synthesis of lipids
glycolipid is
(b) Rough ER — Synthesis of glycogen (a) lysosomes (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Rough ER — Oxidation of fatty acids (c) vacuoles (d) plastids
(d) Smooth ER — Oxidation of phospholipids
62 Which is the correct sequence of modification and
54 Smooth endoplasmic reticulum acts as a major site for transport of secretory vesicles? JIPMER 2019
the synthesis of (a) RER → Cell membrane → Golgi body → Secretory
(a) lipids and steroids (b) proteins vesicles
(c) ribosomes (d) DNA (b) RER → Secretory vesicles → Cell membrane
55 The scientist, who first observed densely stained (c) RER → Cell membrane → Secretory vesicles → Golgi
body
reticular structures near the nucleus is
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Robert Brown (d) SER → Golgi body → Cell membrane → Secretory
vesicles
(c) Strasburger (d) Camillo Golgi
63 Which one of the following cell organelles is
56 Cisternae of Golgi apparatus has diameter of enclosed by a single membrane? NEET 2016
(a) 0.1-0.01 µm (b) 0.5-1.0 µm (a) Chloroplasts (b) Lysosomes
(c) 5-1 µm (d) None of these (c) Nuclei (d) Mitochondria
57 Choose the incorrect pair. 64 Which of the following is correct regarding the origin
(a) Golgi bodies – Densely stained reticular structure of lysosome?
near the nucleus (a) Endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi bodies → Lysosomes
(b) Cisternae – Circular, fixed in number (b) Golgi bodies → Endoplasmic reticulum → Lysosomes
(c) Forming face – Convex cis (c) Nucleus → Golgi bodies → Lysosomes
(d) Mitochondria → Endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi
(d) Maturing face – Concave trans
bodies → Lysosomes
65 Which of the following pairs of organelles does not 73 Go through the sectional view of a mitochondrion
contain DNA? NEET 2019 showing the different parts and identify the structures
(a) Chloroplast and vacuoles A to E.
(b) Lysosomes and vacuoles A
(c) Nuclear envelope and mitochondria B
(d) Mitochondria and lysosomes C D E
66 In a eukaryotic cell, vacuoles
(a) contains water, sap and excretory product
(b) is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast
(c maintains turgor pressure
(d) All of the above (a) A–Outer membrane, B–Inner membrane, C–Matrix,
67 The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is D–Inter membrane space, E–Crista
chiefly regulated by CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (b) A–Outer membrane, B–Inner membrane,
C–Inter membrane space, D–Matrix, E–Crista
(a) mitochondria
(b) vacuoles (c) A–Outer membrane, B–Inner membrane, C–Matrix,
D–Crista, E–Inter membrane space
(c) plastids
(d) A–Outer membrane, B–Inner membrane, C–Crista,
(d) ribosomes
D–Matrix, E–Inter membrane space
68 Why the concentration of a number of ions and other 74 Choose the incorrect pair.
materials is higher in vacuoles than those in (a) Chloroplast — Traps light energy
cytoplasm? (b) Chromoplast — Imparts colours to the plant
(a) Tonoplast has a number of active transport system that (c) Leucoplast — Stores nutrients
pumps ions into vacuole from cytoplasm
(b) Through osmosis, a large amount of ions goes
continuously to vacuole from cytoplasm 75 Chromoplasts have fat soluble pigments called
(c) Cytoplasmic ions enter the vacuole through osmotic (a) chlorophyll (b) carotenoid
flow of water (c) chloroplast (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Vacuole is always engaged in the hydrolysis of salts
76 The colourless plastids are
into their ions
(a) chloroplasts (b) chromoplasts
69 Both the membranes of a mitochondrion are (c) leucoplasts (d) lymphoplasts
(a) structurally different, but functionally similar
(b) structurally as well as functionally different
77 The leucoplasts, that store oils and fats
(c) structurally similars, but functionally different (a) amyloplasts (b) elaioplasts
(d) structurally as well as functionally similar (c) aleuroplasts (d) glyceroplasts
70 All the listed characteristics are true about 78 Chloroplasts found in plant cells
mitochondria, except (a) are single membranous structures
(b) contain ds circular DNA
(a) unless specifically stained it is not easily visible under
the microscope (c) contain 80 S ribosomes
(b) physiological activity of cells determines its number per cell (d) are colourless plastids
(c) it divide by fission 79 Flattened membranous sacs present in the stroma of
(d) their outer membrane forms number of infoldings chloroplast are
called cristae (a) thylakoids (b) grana
71 The cristae in mitochondria is important because (c) mesophyll (d) stroma lamella
(a) increases surface area 80 The stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes required
(b) decreases surface area for synthesis of
(c) have fluid in it (a) carbohydrates (b) proteins
(d) None of the above (c) fats (d) Both (a) and (b)
72 Cytochromes are found in CBSE-AIPMT 2015 81 Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) outer wall of mitochondria (a) Stromal lamellae— Interconnects the grana
(b) cristae of mitochondria (b) Thylakoid—Singular unit of grana
(c) lysosomes (c) Stroma of chloroplast — Contains small ds circular DNA
(d) matrix of mitochondria (d) Ribosomes of chloroplast — 80S
82 Identify A to F in the sectional view of a chloroplast 87 The sectional view of cilia/flagella shows
showing the different parts. Central
Peripheral microtubules Radial Central
E A microtubules
(Doublet) spoke sheath
B (Singlet)
F (a) 9+0 2 8 1
(b) 9+0 9+0 9 1
(c) 9 2 9 1
(d) 3 6 9 1
C
D 88 Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Cilium or Flagellum − 9 + 2 morphology
(a) A–Inner membrane, B–Granum, C–Outer membrane, (b) Axonema – Core of cilium or flagellum
D–Stroma lamella, E–Stroma, F–Thylakoid
(c) Basal body – Centriole-like structure
(b) A–Outer membrane, B–Inner membrane, C–Granum,
(d) Radial spokes – Connect two central microtubules
D–Thylakoid, E–Stroma lamella, F–Stroma
(c) A–Thylakoid, B–Outer membrane, C–Stroma, 89 What is common between a eukaryotic and
D–Stroma lamella, E–Granum, F–Inner membrane prokaryotic flagella? JIPMER 2018
(d) A–Outer membrane, B–Stroma, C–Inner membrane, (a) Same structure
D–Granum, E–Thylakoid, F–Stroma lamella (b) Both are used for locomotion
83 Who discovered ribosomes as dense particles under (c) Composed of same proteins
the electron microscope? (d) Both are extension of cell membrane
(a) George Palade (b) Kolliker 90 The cross section view of a centriole shows
(c) Boveri (d) Strasburger Peripheral Central Inter
84 The sedimentation coefficient of ribosome is a microtubules microtubules Hub Spokes triplet
(Triplet) (Singlet) bridge
measure of
(a) 9 2 1 9 9
(a) density (b) number
(c) structure (d) None of these (b) 9 2 9 9 9
(c) 9 2 1 2 2
85 The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a
diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of (d) 9 0 1 9 9
monomer are known as CBSE-AIPMT 2014 91 The central part of the proximal region of the
(a) microtubules
centriole is
(b) microfilaments
(a) spokes (b) hub
(c) intermediate filaments
(c) centrosome (d) axonema
(d) lamins
92 Which one of the following options represent the
86 Identify A to D in the diagrammatic representation of
sequence of formation of spindle fibres correctly?
internal structure of cilia.
(a) Basal body → Cilium/flagellum → Centriole
A (b) Cilium/flagellum → Basal body → Centriole
(c) Centriole → Basal body → Cilium/flagellum
(d) Basal body → Centriole → Flagellum/cilium
93 The nucleus in a eukaryotic cell
B
(a) was first described by Robert Brown
(b) was called chromatin by Flemming
(c) contain nucleoli in nucleoplasm
C (d) All of the above
D
94 Material of the nucleus is stained by
(a) A–Interdoublet bridge, B–Central microtubule,
C–Plasma membrane, D–Radial spoke (a) acidic dye (b) basic dye
(c) neutral dye (d) iodine
(b) A–Plasma membrane, B–Central microtubule,
C–Interdoublet bridge, D–Radial spoke 95 For the study of structure of nucleus, the best cell is
(c) A–Plasma membrane, B–Interdoublet bridge, (a) cell in the interphase
C–Central microtubule, D–Radial spoke (b) cell in the late prophase
(d) A–Plasma membrane, B–Interdoublet bridge, (c) cell in the divisional phase
C–Radial spoke, D–Central microtubule (d) cell in the meiotic phase
96 The nuclear pores in the nuclear membrane allows the 102 The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric
passage of chromosome are referred to as NEET 2019
(a) proteins, enzymes into the nucleus (a) p-arm and q-arm, respectively
(b) ribosomal components out of the nucleus (b) q-arm and p-arm, respectively
(c) mRNA out of the nucleus (c) m-arm and n-arm, respectively
(d) All of the above (d) s-arm and l-arm, respectively
97 The cells that lack nucleus are 103 The below diagram represents chromosome. Identify
(a) erythrocytes of many mammals the structures A, B and type of chromosome C.
(b) tube cells of vascular plants
(c) lymphocytes of mammals A
(d) Both (a) and (b) B
98 Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus

are the site for active synthesis of NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) protein synthesis (b) mRNA
(c) rRNA (d) tRNA
(a) Histones — Basic proteins
Type of chromosome-C
(b) Centromere — Primary constriction
(c) Kinetochore — Disc-shaped structure (a) A–Satellite, B–Primary constriction, C–Acrocentric
(d) None of the above (b) A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction, C–Metacentric
100 The chromosomes are divided into how many types (c) A–Satellite, B–Centromere, C–Telocentric
on the basis of position of centromere? (d) A–Satellite, B–Centromere, C–Submetacentric
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
104 The below diagram shows a chromosome.
101 In the given diagram of types of chromosomes,
identify A-D.
Satellite
Secondary
Shorter constriction
Short arm arm
Centromere Centromere
Centromere Which of the following table refers correctly to the
Long
arm
Longer chromosome?
arm
A B
Number of Number of Number of
C D Centromere Kinetochore Arms
(a) A–Telocentric chromosome, B–Acrocentric (a) 2 1 4
chromosome, C–Submetacentric chromosome, (b) 1 2 4
D–Metacentric chromosome
(c) 2 2 4
(b) A–Acrocentric chromosome, B–Telocentric
chromosome, C–Metacentric chromosome, (d) 1 2 2
D–Submetacentric chromosome
(c) A–Submetacentric chromosome, B–Metacentric 105 Which one is only found in plant? JIPMER 2019
chromosome, C–Telocentric chromosome, (a) Ribosome
D–Acrocentric chromosome (b) Mitochondria
(d) A–Metacentric chromosome, B–Submetacentric (c) Glyoxysomes
chromosome, C–Acrocentric chromosome,
D–Telocentric chromosome (d) Lysosome
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 114 Assertion (A) Mitochondria and chloroplast have
■ Direction (Q. No. 106-115) In each of the following their own genome.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Reason (R) ER and Golgi body are the cell organelles
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the which have their own DNA.
statements, mark the correct answer as
115 Assertion (A) The chromoplasts contain fat soluble
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation carotenoid pigments.
of A
Reason (R) These pigments provide colour to plant
parts other than green.
explanation of A
(c) If A is true, but R is false
(d) If A is false, but R is true II. Statement Based Questions
106 Assertion (A) Smaller cells are usually 116 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
metabolically active cells. (a) Unicellular oganisms are capable of independent
existence
Reason (R) Smaller cells have higher
(b) Any structure less than a complete structure of a cell
nucleocytoplasmic ratio and higher surface volume does not ensure independent living
ratio. (c) Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist discovered the
107 Assertion (A) Every cell behaves as a compartment. nucleus
Reason (R) Cells are partially covered over by a (d) Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell
membrane. 117 Choose the incorrect statement.
108 Assertion (A) Chloroplast is a cell organelle. (a) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 µm in length)
Reason (R) An organelle is a distinct part of cell (b) Bacteria are 3-5 µm in length
which has a particular structure and function. (c) The largest cell is the egg of an ostrich
(d) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells
109 Assertion (A) Cell is an open system.
118 Select the incorrect statement. NEET 2016
Reason (R) Cell receives a number of materials
including energy containing nutrients from outside and (a) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
also release metabolic wastes into its surroundings. (b) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
bacterial cells
110 Assertion (A) The cisternae in Golgi complex have (c) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
cis face and trans face. (d) Mycoplasma is a wall less microorganism
Reason (R) The cis face is also called forming face 119 Select the incorrect statement about prokaryotic
and trans face is also called maturing face. ribosomes.
111 Assertion (A) In prokaryotes, mitochondria are (a) 50S and 30S subunits unite to form 70S ribosomes
absent. (b) Polysome consists of many ribosomes attached to tRNA
Reason (R) In prokaryotes, mesosomes are present (c) Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis
which help in respiration. (d) Polysomes indicate the synthesis of identical
112 Assertion (A) Mitochondria and chloroplast are polypeptides in multiple copies
semiautonomous organelles. 120 Which of the following statements is incorrect for
Reason (R) These are formed by the division of prokaryotic inclusion bodies?
pre-existing organelles as well as they contain DNA, (a) These are storage granules in the cytoplasm
but lack protein synthesising machinery. (b) They are membrane bound structures
113 Assertion (A) Peroxisomes are involved in (c) Phosphate granules, cyanophycean granules and
photorespiration of the plant cells and help in lipid glycogen granules are the examples of cell inclusions
metabolism in animal cells. (d) Gas vacuole is found in BGA and purple and green
Reason (R) These are the cell garbage disposal system. photosynthetic bacteria
121 Which of the following statements is incorrect about 128 Which is incorrect with reference to chloroplast?
the plasma membrane? JIPMER 2018
(a) The ratio of proteins and lipid varies considerably in (a) Presence in algae and plants
different cell types (b) Releases O2
(b) 52% protein and 40% lipids are in the membrane of (c) Occurs only in cells with aerobic respiration
human RBCs
(c) Integral proteins are found on the intracellular surface
of cell membrane 129 Identify the incorrect statement about plastids.
(d) Head of lipid is hydrophilic (a) Found in all plant cells and euglenoids
122 Choose the incorrect statement regarding cell (b) These are large in size
membrane. (c) Bear some specific pigments
(a) Generally smaller molecules pass easily without energy (d) None of the above
requirement by passive transport 130 Choose the incorrect statement for ribosomes.
(b) Water soluble substances pass through it less rapidly (a) Granular, not surrounded by any membrane
than lipid soluble substances (b) Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic
(c) Neutral solutes move across it by simple diffusion ribosomes are 70S
(d) None of the above (c) ‘S’ stands for sedimentation coefficient
123 Which one is incorrect about osmosis? (d) None of the above
(a) It is a specific form of diffusion 131 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(b) It refers to the movement of water along its (a) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to
concentration gradient each other
(c) It is a passive movement of water (b) Centrioles form the basal body of spindle fibres only
(d) It occurs through a carrier protein and needs ATP (c) Each centriole has an organisation like that of a
124 Which of the following is the correct statement for cartwheel
middle lamella of eukaryotic cell? (d) Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical centrioles
(a) It is formed as a cell plate during cytokinesis 132 Choose the incorrect statement.
(b) It mainly consists of Ca-pectate (a) Centrosome is cytoplasmic structure of animal cells
(c) It holds different neighbouring cells together (b) Centrioles form spindle poles
(d) All of the above (c) Centriole is membrane less, but surrounded by
amorphous pericentriolar bodies
125 Which of the following statements is incorrect about
(d) Centrosome occurs in all eukaryotic cells
lysosomes? NEET 2019
(a) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under 133 Which of the following statements is not correct?
acidic pH (a) Human cheek cells have an outer membrane as the
(b) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures delimiting structure
(c) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in (b) Genetic material is contained in the nucleus of the
the endoplasmic reticulum eukaryotes cells
(d) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes (c) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in
both plant and animal cells
126 Which of the following statements is correct?
(d) Centriole is non-membranous and commonly found in
(a) In Amoeba, contractile vacuole is important for plant cells
excretion and osmoregulation
(b) In many cells as in protists, food vacuoles are formed 134 Which of the following is incorrect about the
by engulfing the food particles microbodies?
(c) Vacuole is always small sized in all cells of plant (a) These are present in bacteria
(d) Both (a) and (b) (b) Minute membranous vesicles
127 Which of the following statements regarding (c) These are present in plants and animals
mitochondria is incorrect? NEET 2019 (d) These have various enzymes
(a) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer
membrane 135 Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(b) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings NEET 2018
(c) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA (a) It takes part in spindle formation
molecules and ribosomes (b) It is a membrane-bound structure
(d) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of (c) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells
carbohydrates, fats and proteins (d) It is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
136 Which one is correct about the Nuclear Membranes 141 Ribosomes are
(NMs)? I. Non-membrane bound.
(a) Both the NMs never fuse II. Absent in plastids and mitochondria.
(b) Both the NMs are always parallel to each other and III. Present in the cytoplasm and RER.
never fuse
(c) Both NMs are parallel to each other and fuse to form
IV. Take part in protein synthesis.
nuclear pores at a number of places Which of the following option is most appropriate?
(d) Inner NM is attached with ribosomes (a) Only II is correct
137 Which of the following statements is not correct? (b) I and II are correct
(a) A single human cell has 2 m long thread of DNA (c) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) Part of chromosomes after second constriction is called (d) I, III and IV are correct
telomere 142 Mitochondria and chloroplasts are
(c) Centromere forms first site of constriction I. Semiautonomous organelles.
(d) Chromatin consists of DNA, RNA, histones and
II. Formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they
non-histones
contain DNA, but lack protein synthesising
138 Select the right option, which relates to Schwann machinery.
regarding the following statements. Which one of the following options is correct?
I. He reported that cells have a thin outer layer, which is NEET 2016
today known as plasma membrane. (a) II is true, but I is false
II. Cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell only. (b) I is true, but II is false
III. Body of plants and animals are composed of cells and (c) Both I and II are false
product of cells. (d) Both I and II are correct
Choose the correct option from below. 143 Consider following features. NEET 2019
(a) All are incorrect I. Double membrane bound organelle.
(b) Only III is correct II. Contain 70S ribosomes and RNA.
(c) All are correct III. Possess small circular DNA.
(d) II and III are correct Select the correct option of organelle groups which
139 Choose the correct statements from the codes given possess all the above characteristics.
below. (a) Nucleus, centrosome, mitochondria
I. Schleiden studies were based on different kinds of (b) Nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplast
plant cells and tissues. (c) Mitochondria and chloroplast
II. An incomplete cell structure does not ensure (d) Chloroplast and vacuole
independent living. 144 Consider the following statements and choose the
III. Cells of plant tissues are often connected with one option containing the correct statements.
another through cytoplasmic bridges called I. The endomembrane system includes plasma membrane,
plasmodesmata. ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles.
IV. Human check cells do not possess a cell wall. II. ER helps in the transport of substances, synthesis of
Codes proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen.
(a) II and III (b) I and II III. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV IV. Mitochondria helps in oxidative phosphorylation and
140 Mesosomes are the infoldings of cell membrane, generation of ATP.
which (a) I, II, III and IV (b) Only I
I. help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and (c) Only II (d) Only III
respiration. 145 Which of the following statements are true about
II. increase the surface area of plasma membrane. endoplasmic reticulum?
III. are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. I. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) makes lipids.
Which of the following option is most appropriate? II. It is also called the control centre of the cell.
(a) II and III are correct III. It processes carbohydrates.
(b) I and II are correct IV. It modifies chemicals that are toxic to the cell.
(c) I and III are correct (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III are correct (c) I and IV (d) All of these
146 Which of the following statements depict the function 149 I. Cilium/flagellum contains an outer ring of nine
of cell wall? doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet
I. Provides shape to the cell. microtubules.
II. Cilia are smaller, which work like oars, causing the
II. Protects the cell from mechanical damage and
movement of either the cells or surrounding fluid.
infection.
III. Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible for
III. Helps in cell to cell interaction.
cell movement.
IV. Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.
IV. Cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma
V. Imbibes water. membrane.
(a) Only V (b) Only IV
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) II, IV and V (d) All of these
(a) I and II (b) I, II, III and IV
147 A student made a pictorial representation of a (c) I and IV (d) II and III
eukaryotic cell membrane and labelled the
components as follows. 150 Consider the following statements.
Protein A
I. Inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells are bound by a
Sugar Glycolipid
(integral protein) single membrane.
II. Gas vacuoles are inclusion bodies in purple and green
Lipid bilayer photosynthetic bacteria.
Select the correct option
(a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are false
(c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are true
151 Consider the following statements
Protein B I. Mesosomes and chromatophores are membranous
(Peripheral protein) structures in the prokaryotic cells.
The student has made errors while labelling the II. Chromatophores are pigment containing structures in
components of membrane. Which of the following cyanobacteria.
statements hold true regarding the error? Select the correct option.
I. Protein A should be labelled as trans-membrane (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are false
protein only and not as integral protein. (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are true
II. The polarity of the protein A should be reversed 152 Consider the following statements.
because the cytosolic phase always shows reducing I. In the plasma membrane of human erythrocytes, lipids
environment. are present in negligible amount.
III. Glycolipid should be labelled as glycoprotein. II. The fluidity of plasma membrane ensures mobility of
IV. Protein B should be labelled as integral membrane lipid molecules across the bilayer.
protein and not as peripheral glycoprotein. Select the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) II and III (d) I and IV (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are false
148 Consider the given statements. (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are true
I. The surface area available for cellular functions in a
prokaryotic cell is less than that in an eukaryotic cell. III. Matching Type Questions
II. The total genome size of a prokaryotic cell is always 153 Match the following columns.
less than that of a eukaryotic cell.
Column I Column II
III. Unlike eukaryotes, no respiratory structures are found (Scientists) (Discoveries/Proposed theories)
in prokaryotes. Hence, they respire at a much lesser A. Leeuwenhoek 1. First saw and described a living cell
rate than eukaryotes. B. Robert Brown 2. Presence of cell wall is unique to plant
IV. Eukaryotic cells show various membrane bound cells
organelles such as chloroplasts and nucleus, while C. Schleiden 3. Discovered the nucleus
ribosomes are the only membrane bound organelles D. Schwann 4. All plants are composed of different kind
found in prokaryotes. of cells
Which of these statements is/are true? Codes

(a) I and II (b) Only IV A B C D A B C D
(c) Only III (d) I, II and IV (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 4 2 3

A B C D A B C D
Column I Column II (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 4 3
(Cells) (Features)
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1
A. RBCs 1. Branched and long
B. WBCs 2. Long and narrow
Column I Column II
(Cell organelles) (Functions)
C. Columnar epithelial cell 3. Amoeboid
A. Lysosomes 1. Hydrolytic activity
D. Nerve cell 4. Round and biconcave
B. Ribosomes 2. Formation of spindle
Codes C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 3. Protein synthesis
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 D. Centriole 4. Steroid synthesis
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
Codes
155 Match the following columns. CBSE-AIPMT 2014 A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
Column I Column II
(b) 1 3 4 2
A. Centriole 1. Infoldings in mitochondria
(c) 1 4 3 2
B. Chlorophyll 2. Thylakoids (d) 4 3 1 2
C. Cristae 3. Nucleic acids 159 Match the following columns.
D. Ribozymes 4. Basal body of cilia or flagella
Column I Column II
Codes (Cell organelles) (Functions)
A B C D A B C D A. RER 1. Intracellular and extracellular
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 digestion
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
B. SER 2. Lipid synthesis
C. Golgi complex 3. Protein synthesis and secretion
Column I Column II
D. Lysosomes 4. Moves materials out of the cells
(Cell organelles) (Functions)
A. Sphaerosomes 1. Glycolate metabolism Codes
B. Peroxisomes 2. Transport of macromolecules A B C D A B C D
C. Plasmodesmata 3. RNA synthesis (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
D. Nucleolus 4. Lipid storage (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
160 Match the following columns. NEET (Odisha) 2019
Codes
A B C D Column I Column II
(a) 2 3 4 1 (Cell organelles) (Functions)
(b) 3 4 1 2 A. Golgi apparatus 1. Synthesis of protein
(c) 1 2 3 4 B. Lysosomes 2. Trap waste and excretory
(d) 4 1 2 3 products
C. Vacuoles 3. Formation of glycoproteins
157 Match the following columns. and glycolipids
Column I Column II D. Ribosomes 4. Digesting biomolecules
(Cell organelles) (Functions) Codes
A. Endoplasmic reticulum 1. Take part in cellular respiration A B C D
B. Free-ribosome 2. Take part in osmoregulation and (a) 3 4 2 1
excretion (b) 4 3 1 2
C. Mitochondrion 3. Synthesis of lipids (c) 3 2 4 1
D. Contractile vacuole 4. Synthesise non-secretory proteins (d) 1 2 4 3

NCERT 168 What is the function of polysome ?
161 Which of the following is not correct? (a) Active protein synthesis
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell (b) Formation of multiple copies of same polypeptide
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from (d) None of the above
pre-existing cells
(d) An unicellular organism carries out its life activities
within a single cell
NCERT Exemplar
169 Which one of these is not an eukaryote?
162 New cells generate from (a) Euglena
(a) bacterial fermentation (b) Anabaena
(b) regeneration of old cells (c) Spirogyra
(c) pre-existing cells (d) Agaricus
(d) abiotic materials
170 Which of the following features is common to
163 Which of the following is correct? prokaryotes and many eukaryotes?
(a) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus (a) Chromatin material present
(b) Both animal and plant cells have well-defined cell wall (b) Cell wall present
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound (c) Nuclear membrane present
organelles
(d) Membrane bound subcellular organelles present
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials
171 Which of the following is not true for an eukaryotic
cell?
Column I Column II (a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans
A. Cristae 1. Flat membranous sacs in stroma (b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
B. Cisternae 2. Infolding in mitochondria
(d) Membrane bound organelles are present
C. Thylakoid 3. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
172 Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the
Codes following cells in an ascending order of their size.
A B C A B C Choose the correct option among the followings.
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 I. Mycoplasma
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 II. Ostrich eggs
165 Identify the functions performed by mesosome in III. Human RBC
prokaryotic cell. IV. Bacteria
(a) Helps in cell wall formation (a) I, IV, III, II (b) I, II, III, IV
(b) Increases the surface area of plasma membrane (c) II, I, III, IV (d) III, II, I, IV
(c) Helps in DNA replication 173 Which one of the following statements is not true for
(d) All of the above plasma membrane?
166 Name two cell organelles that are double membrane (a) It is present in both plant and animal cells
bound. (b) Lipid is present as a bilayer in it
(a) Mitochondria and ribosomes (c) Proteins are present integrated as well as loosely
(b) Mitochondria and chloroplasts associated with the lipid bilayer
(c) Chloroplasts and ribosomes (d) Carbohydrate is never found in it
(d) Lysosomes and mitochondria 174 Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma
167 What are gas vacuoles? membrane?
(a) Pseudovacuoles (a) Camillo Golgi
(b) Characteristic feature of certain cells (b) Schleiden and Schwann
(c) Take part in buoyancy regulation (c) Singer and Nicolson
(d) All of the above (d) Robert Brown
175 Which of the following statements is true for a 179 Select one, which is not true for ribosomes.
secretory cell? (a) Made up of two subunits
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent (b) Form polysome
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily (c) May attach to mRNA
observed in the cell (d) Have no role in protein synthesis
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present
180 Which of the following is not a function of
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus
cytoskeleton in a cell ?
176 What is a tonoplast? (a) Intracellular transport
(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria (b) Maintenance of cell shape and structure
(b) Inner membrane of chloroplast (c) Support of the organelle
(c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells (d) Cell motility
(d) Cell membrane of a plant cell
181 A common characteristic feature of plant sieve tube
177 The stain used to visualise mitochondria is cells and most of mammalian erythrocytes is
(a) fast green (b) safranin (a) the absence of mitochondria
(c) acetocarmine (d) janus green (b) the presence of cell wall
178 Plastid differs from mitochondria on the basis of one (c) the presence of haemoglobin
of the following features. Mark the right answer. (d) the absence of nucleus
(a) The presence of two layers of membrane 182 Which of the following stains is not used for staining
(b) The presence of ribosomes chromosomes?
(c) The presence of thylakoids (a) Basic fuschsin (b) Safranin
(d) The presence of DNA (c) Methylene blue (d) Carmine
Answers
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (d)
21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (d) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (c)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (c) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (d) 56 (b) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (b) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (a) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (b) 68 (a) 69 (b) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (d) 75 (b) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (b) 79 (a) 80 (d)
81 (d) 82 (b) 83 (a) 84 (a) 85 (b) 86 (c) 87 (c) 88 (d) 89 (b) 90 (d)
91 (b) 92 (c) 93 (d) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (b)
101 (a) 102 (a) 103 (b) 104 (b) 105 (c)

106 (a) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (a) 110 (b) 111 (b) 112 (c) 113 (c) 114 (c) 115 (b)
116 (c) 117 (d) 118 (b) 119 (b) 120 (b) 121 (c) 122 (d) 123 (d) 124 (d) 125 (c)
126 (d) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (d) 130 (d) 131 (b) 132 (d) 133 (d) 134 (a) 135 (d)
136 (c) 137 (b) 138 (c) 139 (d) 140 (b) 141 (d) 142 (b) 143 (c) 144 (a) 145 (b)
146 (d) 147 (b) 148 (a) 149 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 152 (b) 153 (a) 154 (c) 155 (a)
156 (d) 157 (a) 158 (b) 159 (a) 160 (a)

161 (a) 162 (c) 163 (c) 164 (b) 165 (d) 166 (b) 167 (d) 168 (c) 169 (b) 170 (b)
171 (a) 172 (a) 173 (d) 174 (c) 175 (b) 176 (c) 177 (d) 178 (c) 179 (d) 180 (a)
181 (d) 182 (b)

2 (c) Electron microscope is the best device that is used 19 (d) Cell membrane does not differ in E. coli and
to determine the ultrastructure of a cell organelle. It can Chlamydomonas. It is structurally similar in eukaryotes
magnify objects up to 250000-400000 times. Its and prokaryotes.
resolving power is 1000 times more than the light 21 (c) Filament is the longest portion in a bacterial
microscope. flagellum. It constitutes of three parts, i.e. filament,
3 (a) Cell theory was formulated by Schleiden and hook and basal body. Bacteria show a wide range in the
Schwann in the year 1839 based on their studies on number and arrangement of flagella.
plants and animal cells and their products. 22 (d) The pair in option (d) is incorrect. It can be
4 (c) Schwann proposed cell theory according to which corrected as
bodies of animals and plants are made up of cells and Pili are not involved in locomotion. Actually, pili are
their products. He studied different types of animal cells longer, fewer in number and thicker tubular outgrowths,
and plant cells and hypothesised about the postulate of which develop in response to F+ or fertility factor in
cell theory. Gram-negative bacteria. These help in sexual
6 (b) Rudolf Virchow modified the cell theory and gave reproduction in bacteria.
the theory ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula’ which means that Rest of the options contain correctly matched pairs.
new cells are formed by the division of the pre-existing 23 (b) Fimbriae are hair-like structures present in large
cell. This is called theory of cell lineage or common number in bacteria. These help in attaching bacteria to
ancestry. substratum or host tissues. Thus, the bacteria would not
7 (a) The genetic material is naked in prokaryotic cells, adhere to the host tissue, if the fimbrae are removed
i.e. it is not bound by any membrane. However, the from the bacterial cell.
genetic material in eukaryotes is well enclosed within 24 (c) Polysome is a string of ribosomes associated with a
the nucleus. single mRNA. It helps to produce a number of copies of
10 (c) Out of the given pairs, option (c) is incorrectly the same polypeptide.
matched. It can be corrected as Nucleosome is the unit of eukaryotic DNA that consists
Amoeboid-shaped, nucleus containing cells are WBCs of a DNA segment wrapped around a core of eight
not platelets. histone proteins.
Rest of the options contain correctly matched pairs. Plastidome refers to all the plastids of a cell which work
11 (d) The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria, as a functional unit.
blue-green algae, mycoplasma and PPLO. All these Polyhedral bodies or carboxysomes are present in
cells contain naked DNA and lack well-defined nucleus. several groups of autotrophic bacteria that assimilate
13 (c) Plasmids of bacterial cells do not help in the inorganic carbon via Calvin cycle, e.g. cyanobacteria.
replication of nucleoid. In prokaryotes, these are 26 (d) Except Monera, the cells of the members all the
additional small circular DNA entities. Plasmids carry other kingdoms have eukaryotic organisation, e.g.
additional specific factors like nitrogen-fixation, protists, fungi and plants. A eukaryotic cell is the one,
resistance, fertility, etc. DNA present as genetic which has an organised nucleus and several membrane
material is naked and also called genophore, nuclear bound cell organelles.
body or nucleoid. 27 (a) Plant and animal cells are different as plant cells
14 (b) Double-stranded circular naked DNA is present in possess cell wall, plastids and a large vacuole, which
an organism having 70 S ribosomes only. These are are absent in animal cells. On the other hand, animal
present in prokaryotic organisms. All prokaryotic cells cells have centrioles, which are absent in almost all
plant cells.
have a double-stranded (double helix), circular DNA
molecule as their genetic material, which is not bound 28 (b) The pair in option (b) is mismatched. The correct
by a nuclear membrane. explanation for the mismatched pair is as follows
15 (b) A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane Animal cells do not have large central vacuole. Instead,
called mesosome is the characteristic feature of these have 2-3 small vacuoles. The presence of such
prokaryotes. These are the infoldings of cell membrane large central vacuole is the characteristic feature of
into the cell. plant cells.
16 (d) Glycocalyx gives sticky characteristic to the Rest of the pairs are correctly matched.
bacterial cell. It is the outermost mucilage layer of the 31 (d) Pair in option (d) is incorrectly matched. Its correct
cell envelope. explanation is as follows
18 (c) The cell envelope of bacteria consists of a tightly Cell membrane consists of carbohydrates, lipids and
bound three-layered structure viz., outermost proteins. The ratio of lipids and proteins varies in
glycocalyx, followed by cell wall and plasma different cell types.
membrane. All these layers act as a single protective Rest of the pairs are correctly matched.
unit.
32 (c) The lipids are arranged within the membrane in 47 (a) Plasmodesmata are the microscopic channels which
such a way that the polar head is faced towards the transverse the cell wall and middle lamellae and connect
outerside and the hydrophobic tails is faced towards the the cytoplasm of two neighbouring cells.
inner part. Such arrangement ensures that non-polar 49 (b) Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the
tails of saturated hydrocarbons remain protected from modification and routing of newly synthesised proteins
the aqueous environment. to their destinations. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
34 (b) The major lipids components of the cell membrane possesses ribosomes on its surface and serves as the site
are phospholipids and they are arranged in a bilayer. In of protein synthesis and modification.
addition to phospholipids, the cell membrane also 51 (d) Phospholipid synthesis does not occur in Rough
contains cholesterol. Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER). It occurs inside Smooth
35 (a) The role of sterol in a cell membrane is to provide Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER). A signal peptide is a
stability. Sterols are steroids with 8-10 carbon long short peptide present at the N-terminus of the newly
aliphatic side chain at carbon 17 and at least one synthesised proteins. It targets them to the Endoplasmic
alcoholic hydroxyl. Reticulum and is then cleaved off. RER synthesises
Cholesterol (C27 H45 OH) is a common sterol found in proteins. It bears enzymes for modifying polypeptides
many animal cell membranes. synthesised by attached ribosomes, e.g. glycosylation.
37 (b) According to the fluid mosaic model proposed by 52 (c) Nuclear envelope arise from the rough endoplasmic
Singer and Nicolson, cell membrane has quasifluid reticulum during the late prophase stage. Thus, nuclear
nature. It enables lateral movement of proteins within envelope is a derivative of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
the overall bilayer. This ability of proteins to move 57 (b) The pair in option (b) is incorrect. Its correct
within the lipid bilayer membrane is measured as its explanation is as follows
fluidity. Golgi bodies consist of many fat, disc-shaped sacs or
41 (b) The main difference between active and passive cisternae of varied number. These are stacked parallel to
transport across the cell membrane is that passive each other. The Golgi cisternae are concentrically
transport requires a concentration gradient across the arranged near the nucleus.
biological membrane to facilitate movements of Rest of the pairs are correctly matched.
molecules. 59 (b) Golgi complex participates in the formation of
Whereas during active transport, the movement of secretory vesicles. It is a cytoplasmic structure found in
molecules occurs from the region of high concentration eukaryotic cells. It is made up of four parts, i.e.
to low concentration, i.e. the molecules move against cisternae, tubules, vesicles and vacuoles.
the concentration gradient by using ATP (energy). In bacteria, respiration occurs with the help of
42 (a) Na + / K + pump represents active transport. This is mesosomes. The breakdown of fatty acid occurs in
because sodium and potassium ions are transported peroxisomes and mitochondria. Activation of amino
across the membrane against their concentration acid is an important step of protein synthesis and it
gradient, i.e. from lower to the higher concentration occurs in the cytoplasm. In this process, amino acids get
with the help of ATPase complex, which utilises ATP. attached to tRNA molecules.
43 (d) One of the major components of the fungal cell wall 60 (b) Golgi complex (Golgi apparatus) is present in the
is chitin. It is the second most abundant carbohydrate highest number in secretory cells. It is the sites of
and is a homopolymer of N-Acetyl Glucosamine (NAG) modification, packaging and secretions of secretory
joined with β 1-4 linkages. NAG is a modification of proteins and glycoproteins outside the cell.
glucose molecule. 61 (b) Golgi apparatus is involved in the glycosylation of
44 (d) The cell wall in a plant cell performs various proteins and lipids, so as to form glycoproteins and
functions. It gives shape to the cell and protects the cell glycolipids. It is also involved in protein trafficking. It
from mechanical damage and infections. It also helps in packages materials and delivers them to various cell
cell to cell interaction and provides barrier to targets.
undesirable macromolecules. 62 (c) The correct sequence of modification and transport
45 (b) Galactans is the odd one out with respect to the of secretory vesicles is as follows
composition of plant cell wall. Galactans are present in RER → Cell membrane → Secretory vesicles → Golgi
the algal cell wall. The algal cell wall is made up of body
cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium Protein destined for secretion are synthesised on
carbonate. On the other hand plant cell wall consists of ribosomes bound to the RER. The proteins move
cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins. through the endomembrane system and are dispatched
46 (c) The innermost portion of a mature plant cell wall from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus in transport
possesses secondary cell wall. The cell wall of a young vesicles. The latter move through the cytoplasm and
plant cell is the primary cell wall which is capable of then fuse with the plasma membrane thus, releasing the
growth. It gradually diminishes as the cell matures and protein to the outside of the cell.
the secondary cell wall is formed on the inner (towards 63 (b) Lysosomes are enclosed by a single membrane.
membrane) side of the cell. These store hydrolysing enzymes to digest proteins,
lipids, etc. Mitochondria, chloroplast and nuclei are all microscope as dense granular structures consisting of
double membrane bound organelles. RNA and proteins.
64 (a) The correct sequence of origin of lysosome is 88 (d) The pair in option (d) is incorrect. Its correct
represented by option (a) and can be described as follows explanation is as follows
Lysosomes are believed to be formed by the joint activity In cilium, the central tubules are connected by bridges
of endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi complex. The and they are connected to peripheral doublets by
precursors of hydrolytic enzymes are mostly synthesised radial spokes. Thus, there are nine radial spokes. The
at the rough endoplasmic reticulum. peripheral doublets are also interconnected by linkers.
The latter transfers them to the forming face of Golgi 89 (b) The common feature between eukaryotic and
complex. In Golgi complex, the precursors are changed to prokaryotic flagella is that both are used in
enzymes. The enzymes are then packed in larger vesicles, locomotion. Eukaryotic flagellum has two parts, i.e.
which are further modified into lysosomes. basal body and shaft, while prokaryotic flagellum
65 (b) Lysosomes and vacuoles do not contain DNA. consists of three parts, i.e. basal body, hook and
Lysosomes are single membrane bound small vesicles filament. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are
which contain hydrolytic enzymes. made up of flagellin and tubulin proteins,
Vacuoles are large membranous sacs found in the respectively.
cytoplasm. These contain substances that are not 92 (c) Option (c) gives the correct sequence of the
essentially useful for the cell like water, sap, excretory formation of spindle fibres.
products and other materials. The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella
67 (b) The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus
chiefly regulated by vacuoles. The vacuoles usually during cell division in animal cells.
possess high solute concentration. During osmosis, the 95 (a) During interphase, the nucleus contains loose and
water moves from the region of high concentration of indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres called
solvent to that of lower concentration. Thus, the water chromatin. Thus, it is the best phase to study the
enters into the vacuole and the cell expands. structure of nucleus.
68 (a) In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the active transport 97 (d) Erythrocytes of many mammals and tube cells of
of a number of ions and other materials against vascular plants lack nucleus, so as to carry out
concentration gradients into the vacuole. Hence, the ions specialised functions. Absence of nucleus in human
and other materials are present in a concentration which is RBCs help them to transport maximum amount of O 2
significantly higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm. and CO 2 across body tissues. Absence of nucleus in
69 (b) The two membranes of mitochondria are structurally tube cells of vascular plants allow maximum
and functionally different. These have their own specific movement of food (mostly sugar). Lymphocytes of
enzymes associated with mitochondrial function. mammals are nucleated cells.
Structurally the inner membrane possesses several 98 (c) Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in the
infoldings cristae which are absent in the outer membrane. nucleus of the cell are the site for active synthesis of
75 (b) Chromoplasts have fat soluble pigments called rRNA. These structures are called nucleoli. Larger
carotenoids. They protect the chlorophyll molecule from and more numerous nucleoli are present in the cell
oxidation in the presence of light. actively carrying out the protein synthesis.
77 (b) The leucoplasts which store oils and fats are 100 (b) Based on the position of centromere or primary
elaioplasts. Amyloplasts store carbohydrates and constriction in a chromosome, they are of 4 types
aleuroplasts store proteins. namely, metacentric (centrally placed centromere),
submetacentric (centromere lies a little away from
78 (b) Chloroplasts found in plant cells contain
centre), acrocentric (centromere near one end) and
double-stranded circular DNA due to which they are
telocentric (terminal centromere).
known as semiautonomous organelles. These are double
membrane bounded, green-colour plastids which contain 102 (a) The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric
70S ribosomes. chromosome are designated as p-arm and q-arm,
respectively. Here, ‘p’ signifies petite or short. In a
79 (a) Chloroplast contains flat membranous sacs called
submetacentric chromosome, centromere is located
thylakoids in the stroma. These get stacked over one
near the centre due to which the two arms have an
another to form grana and different grana are connected to
unequal length.
one another through stroma lamellae.
105 (c) Out of the given options, glyoxysomes are
81 (d) Pair in option (d) is incorrect. The correct form is as
exclusively found in plant cells. These were
follows
discovered by Brewers (1919) in the endosperm of
Ribosomes of chloroplast are 70S type and they are germinating seeds. These are involved in fat
smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes, 80S. metabolism through glyoxylate cycle.
Rest of the pairs are correct. 106 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
83 (a) George Palade (1953) was the first to discover the correct explanation of Assertion.
ribosomes. He observed ribosomes under the electron
Metabolically active cells are usually smaller as such 114 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and its correct
cells have a higher nucleocytoplasmic ratio and explanation is as follows
higher surface volume ratio. Chloroplasts and mitochondria are endosymbionts in
107 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and its eukaryotic cells, having their own DNA. ER and Golgi
correct explanation is as follows bodies do not contain their own DNA.
Every cell behaves as a compartment because it is 115 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not
completely enclosed by a membrane known as the correct explanation of Assertion.
plasma membrane or plasmalemma. Chromoplasts are yellow or reddish in colour because of
108 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason the presence of fat soluble carotenoid pigments. In some
is the correct explanation of Assertion. plants chlorophylls is absent and hence, the carotenoid
pigments provide a colour to plant parts other than green,
A cell organelle is a distinct part of a cell which also e.g. orange colour of carrot roots, etc.
has a particular structure and function.
Since, chloroplast possesses a specific membrane
corrected as
bound structure and plays an important role in
photosynthesis, it is said to be a cell organelle. Nucleus was first described by Robert Brown.
109 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
117 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect. The correct
information is as follows
An open system is the one, which is separated from
Longest cells of human body are the nerve cells, which
its surroundings by a boundary that allows the may reach up to 90 cm length.
transfer of materials and energy across it. Cell is an
open system because it receives a number of
materials including energy containing nutrients from 118 (b) The statement in opion (b) is incorrect. The correct
outside. It liberates energy as heat and excretes information is as follows
metabolic wastes from inside. Fimbriae and pili are fine hair-like appendages used by
bacteria for attachment rather than motility. These are
110 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason formed of a protein called pilin.
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. Rest of the statements are correct.
Golgi complex consists of a stack of cisternae, which
119 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect about
are curved to give definite polarity to the Golgi
prokaryotic ribosomes. It can be corrected as
apparatus.
In prokaryotes, polysome consists of many ribosomes
The convex side (forming/cis face) receives vesicles
attached to mRNA and not to tRNA. Prokaryotic ribosomes
from endoplasmic reticulum. The concave side
are associated with the plasma membrane of the cell.
(maturing/trans face) buds off vesicles as secretion.
These are of about 15 nm by 20 nm in size and are made up
111 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason of two subunits–50S and 30S, which when present together
is not true correct explanation of Assertion . form 70S prokaryotic ribosomes.
Mitochondria are absent in prokaryotes. Mesosomes Rest of the statements are correct.
are characteristic, circular to villiform shaped 120 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect for prokaryotic
specialisation of cell membrane of bacteria that inclusion bodies. The corrected form is as follows
develop as ingrowths from the plasma membrane. Prokaryotic inclusion bodies are not bound by any
It contains respiratory enzymes and is, therefore, membrane system and lie free in the cytoplasm. Reserve
often called chondroid. It is believed to be equal to material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in
mitochondrion of eukaryotes. However, respiratory the form of inclusion bodies.
enzymes are also present over the plasma membrane Rest of the statements are correct for prokaryotic
in prokaryotic cell. inclusion bodies.
112 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and its 121 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect about the
correct explanation is as follows plasma membrane. It can be corrected as
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semiautonomous Integral proteins are found partially or totally buried in the
cell organelles, which contain their own DNA and cell membrane. Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of
protein synthesising machinery. These arise from membrane.
pre-existing organelles and their functions are Rest of the statements are correct.
partially controlled by nucleus of the cells and 123 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect about osmosis.
partially by themselves (semiautonomous). It can be corrected as
113 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and its Osmosis is the movement of water across cell membrane
correct explanation is as follows and it does not require ATP. It is a type of passive transport
Peroxisomes are found in photosynthetic cells and which occurs from the region of higher concentration to
perform photorespiration. They also take part in lipid that of lower concentration. ATP is required in case of
metabolism. Lysosomes are the cell garbage disposal active transport.
system. Rest of the statements are correct.
125 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect about 136 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct about the
lysosomes. It can be corrected as Nuclear Membranes (NMs). Rest of the statements are
Lysosomes are actually formed by budding off from the incorrect and can be corrected as
trans-face of Golgi bodies. These membrane bound l
Electron microscopy has revealed that the nuclear
structures contain hydrolytic enzymes whose precursors envelope, consists of two parallel membranes with a
are synthesised by rough endoplasmic reticulum. space between (10-50 nm) called the perinuclear
Rest of the statements are correct. space.
l
At a number of places, the nuclear envelope is
126 (d) Option (d) is correct because statements in both
interrupted by minute pores, which are formed by
options (a) and (b) are correct. The incorrect statement
the fusion of its two membranes. These nuclear
in option (c) can be corrected as follows
pores are the passages through which movement of
Plants contain a single large vacuole, which can occupy RNA and protein molecules takes place in both
up to 90 per cent of the volume of the cell. directions between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
127 (a) The statement in option (a) regarding mitochondria 137 (b) The statement in option (b) is not correct. Its
is incorrect. The correct form of the incorrect statement corrected form is as follows
is as follows Part of chromosomes after second constriction is called
Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in the satellite. It cannot be stained and is found at a constant
inner membrane of mitochondria. location.
128 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect about
140 (b) Statements I and II are correct, but III is incorrect
chloroplasts. The correct information is as follows
about mesosomes. Its corrected form is as follows
These are not associated with any type of respiration,
i.e. aerobic and anaerobic. Chloroplasts are involved in Mesosomes are present in prokaryotes and not in
photosynthesis due to the presence of chlorophyll in eukaryotes. Mesosomes help in cell respiration and the
them. same function is carried out by mitochondria in
eukaryotic cells.
141 (d) Statements I, III and IV are correct and II is
131 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and its
corrected form is as follows
Ribosomes are present in mitochondria and chloroplast
The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella
(plastids). Both of these organelles contain 70S
and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus
ribosomes.
during cell division in animal cells.
Rest of the statements are correct. 142 (b) Statement I is true, but II is false. Its corrected form
is as follows
132 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect. It can be
Both mitochondria and chloroplast are semiautonomous
corrected as
organelles as they contain their own circular DNA and
Centrosomes do not occur in all eukaryotic cells. Plants protein synthesising machinery including 70S
cells being eukaryotic cells lack centrosomes. But these ribosomes and RNA.
are present in animal cells.
Rest of the statements are correct. 145 (b) Statements I, III and IV are correct, while II is
incorrect. Its corrected form is as follows
133 (d) The statement in option (d) is not correct. Its
corrected form is as follows Endoplasmic reticulum is not the control centre of the
cell. Nucleus controls all the activites occurring within
Non-membranous organelle called centriole is found in
the cell and is hence called as the control centre of a cell.
animal cells and not in plant cells. It helps in cell division.
Rest of the statements are correct. 147 (b) Statements III and IV hold true regarding the error
made by student, while labelling different components
134 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect about
of plasma membrane. The correct information regarding
microbodies. Its corrected from is as follows
the statements is as follows
Many membrane bound minute vesicles called l
Glycolipids are found directly attached to lipid
microbodies which contain various enzymes, are present
in both plant and animal cells, but not in bacteria. bilayer whereas carbohydrate moiety attached to the
membrane proteins is glycoprotein.
Protein B is embedded in the plasma membrane and
135 (d) The statement in option (d) is true for nucleolus as therefore, it should be labelled as integral protein.
it is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. Peripheral proteins are present on the surface of lipid
Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as bilayer.
l
Microtubules take part in spindle formation. 148 (a) Statements I and II are correct, while III and IV are
l
Mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, etc., are membrane incorrect and can be corrected as
bound structures. l
Prokaryotes contain mesosomes which perform
l
Larger and numerous nucleoli are present in cells similar function like eukaryotic mitochondria, i.e.
which actively carry out protein synthesis. respiration.
l
Prokaryotes do not contain any membrane bound 172 (a) Option (a) represents the correct arrangement of
organelles and ribosomes are non-membranous cells in an ascending order of their size. Cells in
organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organism vary greatly in their size, shapes and
cells. activities.
150 (c) Statement I is false and II is true. The incorrect I. Mycoplasmas are the smallest cell with size only
statement can be corrected as 0.3 µm.
Inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells are not bound by IV. Bacterial cells are of size 30-5 µm.
any membrane. No membrane bound organelle is found III. In human, red blood cells are of about 7.0 µm in
in prokaryotic cells. diameter.
152 (b) Both I and II are false and can be corrected as II. Ostrich eggs are among the largest cells with size
l
The plasma membrane of human erythrocyte (15 × 13 cm).
contains approximately 52% protein and 40% lipids 173 (d) The statement in option (d) is not true for plasma
along with few carbohydrates about 48%. membrane. The correct form of this statement is as
l
The fluidity of plasma membrane ensures that the follows
proteins can easily move within the lipid bilayer and The biochemical investigation done on cell membrane
not lipid molecules. clearly demonstrates that the cell membrane possesses
161 (a) Option (a) is incorrect and can be corrected as lipids, protein and carbohydrates as biochemical
Robert Brown discovered the nucleus. components.
Rest of the options are correct. Rest of the statements are correct.
163 (c) Option (c) is correct. Rest of the options are 175 (b) Statement in option (b) is true for secretory cell.
incorrect and can be corrected as Rest of the options are incorrect and can be corrected as
l
Only eukaryotic cells have a nucleus. l
Both Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) and
l
A well-defined cell wall is present only in plant cells. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) are observed
It is absent in animal cells. in secretory cells.
l
Cells arise from pre-existing cells.
l
The secretory cells contain large amount of Golgi
apparatus.
167 (d) Gas vacuoles are also known as pseudovacuoles or l
Secretory granules are formed outside the nucleus.
air vacuoles. These are the characteristic feature of
prokaryotes. These store metabolic gases and take part 176 (c) In plant cell, the vacuole is bound by a single
in buoyancy regulation. membrane called tonoplast. It facilitates the transport of
ions and other material against the concentration
168 (c) A polysome consists of a cluster of ribosomes that
gradient into the vacuole.
are held simultaneously by a strand of messenger RNA
(mRNA) in rosette or helical group. These contain a 177 (d) Janus green is the stain used to visualise
portion of the genetic code that each ribosome is mitochondria. It acts as an indicator and changes colour
translating and are used in the formation of multiple according to the amount of oxygen present. It oxidises
copies of same polypeptide. to blue colour in the presence of oxygen and in the
169 (b) Out of the given options, Anabaena is not an absence of O2 , it changes its colour to pink.
eukaryote as it is a prokaryote and a cyanobacteria 178 (c) The presence of thylakoids, the structural elements
belonging to the group, eubacteria. It possesses of chloroplast, differentiates them (plastids) from
prokaryotic characteristic features, i.e. the absence of mitochondria.
membrane bound organelles and undefined nucleus.
Thylakoids are flattened sacs stacked one above the
170 (b) Presence of cell wall is the common feature that is other to form grana. They perform specific functions in
observed in both prokaryotic and in some eukaryotic photosynthesis.
cells.
179 (d) The statement in option (d) is not true.

Cell wall is present in bacteria (prokaryotes) and in Ribosomes are called as protein factory and they play a
plants (eukaryotes) however, cell wall is absent in vital role in protein synthesis.
animal cells.
Rest of the statements are true.
Cell wall acts as protection unit for cell and also
provides shape to the cell. Cell wall is made up of 180 (a) Cytoskeleton is not associated with intracellular
cellulose, hemicellulose or pectins in plants. transport. The microtubules and microfilaments are the
components of cytoskeleton and are responsible for
171 (a) Statement in option (a) is not true for an eukaryotic cellular and intercellular movements.
cell. The incorrect statement can be corrected as
Rest of the options are functions of cytoskeleton in a
A cell wall made up of peptidoglycan is found in cell.
bacteria and not in eukaryotes.
182 (b) Safranin is used as a counterstain in Gram staining
Eukaryotic plant cell wall is made up of cellulose,
and endospore staining. It can also be used for the
hemicellulose, pectin, chitin, etc.
detection of cartilage and mast cell granule. However, it
Rest of the statements are correct for an eukaryotic cell.
is not used to stain chromosomes.
CHAPTER 09 > Biomolecules 211
CHAPTER > 09
Biomolecules
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Although living organisms show a significant diversity These are of following types
among themselves, but their chemical composition and the
Carbohydrates
metabolic reactions occurring in them are remarkably
similar.
Å Living organisms are made up of elements like carbon, Monosaccharides Oligosaccharides Polysaccharides
hydrogen, oxygen and several others.
Å All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues
can be called as biomolecules.
Disaccharides Trisaccharides Tetrasaccharides
Å Living tissues also contain inorganic elements and (sucrose, maltose (raffinose) (stachyose)
compounds. If this tissue is fully burnt, all the carbon and lactose)
compounds will get oxidised to gaseous form (e.g. CO2 ,
Å Reducing sugars possess free aldehyde or ketone group and
water vapour) and are thus removed. The remaining is called
can reduce cupric ions of Benedict’s or Fehling’s solution to
‘ash’ which contains inorganic elements (like calcium,
cuprous ions, e.g. lactose.
magnesium, etc).
Å Non-reducing sugars do not possess free aldehyde or ketone
Å Water is the most abundant chemical, found in living
groups and cannot reduce cupric ions of Benedict’s or
organisms about 70-90% of total cellular mass.
Fehling’s solution to cuprous ions, e.g. sucrose.
Å The biomolecules are of two types, i.e. small micromolecules
with simple structures and large macromolecules with 2. Lipids
complex structures.
Å These are esters of fatty acids and alcohol, form 2% of the
cell contents. Important lipids are as follows
Biomicromolecules
Å These are with low molecular weight (18-800 Da), highly Lipids
soluble and have simple molecular conformation.
Å These include inorganic compounds, i.e. water, minerals and Simple Compound Derived
gases, as well as organic compounds, viz sugars
(monosaccharides and disaccharides), lipids, amino acids Hard fats
and nucleotides. Neutral or True fats Phospholipids Oils
Waxes Lipoproteins
1. Carbohydrates (Saccharides) Glycolipids
Å About 3% of the total cell content is made up of
carbohydrates. These are biomolecules consisting of C, H
and O atoms. Fatty Acids
Å The carbon forms chains or rings with two or more hydroxyl Å These are water insoluble long chain hydrocarbons (4-36
groups and an aldehyde or ketone group, forming aldoses or carbon long) with one carboxyl (—COOH) group. These are
ketoses. They have a general formula, C nH2 nOn. the simplest constituents of lipids.
Å There are two types of fatty acid chains as follows Å On the basis of side chain, amino acids are of following
n
Saturated fatty acids (C n H2 nO2 n) These do not types
possess any double bond in their hydrocarbon chain n
Sulphur containing, e.g. cysteine and methionine.
and are solid at room temperature. These have high n
Alcoholic, e.g. threonine, tyrosine and serine.
melting point, e.g. lauric acid (12 C), palmitic acid n
Aromatic, e.g. phenylalanine, tryptophan and tyrosine.
(16 C), stearic acid (18 C), arachidic acid (20 C), etc. n
Heterocyclic, e.g. histidine, proline and tryptophan.
n
Unsaturated fatty acids (C nH2 n − 2 xO2 ) These possess In a neutral solution, the amino acid molecules exist as a
one or more double bonds in their hydrocarbon chain dipolar zwitter ion, i.e. a molecule containing both positive
and are liquid at room temperature due to the and negative ionic groups.
presence of double bond in them. These have low
melting points, e.g. oleic acid (18 C), linoleic acid 4. Nucleotides and Nucleosides
(18 C), etc.
Å These are five types of nitrogenous bases, i.e. adenine,
guanine (both purines), cytosine, thymine and uracil
3. Amino Acids (pyrimidines). When these bases found attached to a sugar
Å These are organic compounds containing an amino they are called nucleosides. If a phosphate group is also
group and an acidic group as a substituent on the same found esterified to the sugar they are called nucleotides.
carbon, i.e. the α carbon. Hence, they are called α-amino
acids.
Å Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and cytidine are
nucleosides.
Å They are substituted methanes. There are four
substituent groups occupying the four valency positions
Å Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid
→ hydrogen, carboxyl group, amino group and a and cytidylic acid are nucleotides. Nucleic acids like DNA
variable group designated as R group. and RNA consist of nucleotides only.
Based on the nature of R group, there are many amino

Å
acids. However, 20 amino acids occur in protein.

Primary and Secondary
Å General formula is Metabolites
NH2  CH  COOH Metabolites are organic biomolecules present in cells and used
 in metabolic reactions.
R Å Primary metabolites These are found in animal tissue and
are directly involved in normal growth, reproduction and
Classification of Amino Acids development of animals, e.g. amino acids, proteins, etc.
Amino acids can be classified as follows Å Secondary metabolites These are generally found in plant,
Å On the basis of synthesis in living organism, amino fungal and microbial cells as a byproduct of major metabolic
acids are classified into following three categories reactions, e.g. rubber, essential oils, antibiotics, etc. These
n
Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised by any are ecologically important, but role or functions of all
organism in the body and are to be obtained from secondary metabolites are not known yet.
dietary sources.
n
Non-essential amino acids can be synthesised by an Biomacromolecules
organism and thus, is not required as dietary Å These are large in size with higher molecular weight, i.e.
component. above 10000 daltons.
n
Semi-essential amino acids required essentially by Å These molecules (i.e. polymers) are formed by linking
an organism during particular phase of body growth number of micromolecules called monomers, e.g. proteins,
and lactation period (in pregnant mothers). polysaccharides, nucleic acids and lipids (lipids are not
strictly macromolecules).
Å On the basis of chemical nature, amino acids are as
follows
1. Proteins
n
Neutral (contains one amino group and one carboxyl
Å These are polypeptides. These are long chain of amino acids
group), e.g. glycine (simple amino acid), alanine,
joined by peptide bond. Each protein is a heteropolymer of
valine, leucine and isoleucine.
amino acids.
n
Acidic (contains additional carboxylic group), e.g.
Å In a polypeptide, the first amino acid is called as N-terminal
aspartic acid, glutamic acid, aspargine and glutamine.
amino acid. The last amino acid is called the C-terminal
n
Basic (contains additional amino group), e.g. arginine amino acid.
and lysine.
NEET KEY NOTES

Some Proteins and their Functions disulphide bonds, e.g. keratin, fibroin, collagen and
myosin.
Proteins Functions
n
Globular proteins In these, polypeptide chains are
Collagen Intercellular ground substance
coiled about themselves which result in a spherical
Trypsin Enzyme
molecule, e.g. enzymes, hormones such as insulin and
Insulin Hormone haemoglobin, etc.
Antibody Fight infections against Å On the basis of components of molecules, proteins are
Receptors Sensory reception (smell, taste, hormone, etc.) classified into following three classes
GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells n
Simple proteins (made up of amino acids only), e.g.
Å Collagen is the most abundant protein in the animal collagen, albumin, etc.
world. n
Conjugated proteins (made up of protein molecules
Å Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase-Oxygenase joined to non-protein part), e.g. haemoglobin, casein,
(RuBisCO), is the most abundant protein in the whole of etc.
biosphere. n
Derived proteins (formed by partial breakdown of
natural proteins), e.g. peptones, insulin, fibrin, etc.
Structural Level of Proteins
There are four structural levels in proteins 2. Polysaccharides
Å Primary structure The sequence of amino acids, i.e. the Å Polysaccharides (Gr. Poly–many; saccharon–sugar) are
positional information in a protein, which is the first usually employed to polymers containing minimum of ten
amino acids, which is second and so on is called the monosaccharide units. Polysaccharides are of following
primary structure. two types
n
Protein is imagined as a line left end represented by the n
Homopolysaccharides or Homoglycans They have
first amino acid also called as N-terminal amino acid. only one type of monosaccharide units in them. Some of
n
Right end represented by last amino acid also called as the better known homoglycans are starch, cellulose,
C-terminal amino acid. chitin, etc.
n
A protein thread does not exist throughout as an
n
Heteropolysaccharides or Heteroglycans They have at
extended rigid rod. least two types of monosaccharide units in them, e.g.
chitin, pectin, peptidoglycan.
n
The thread is folded in the form of a helix.
Å Major polysaccharides are discussed below
n
Some portions are folded as helix.
n
Starch (C 6H10O5 ) n It is a polymer of D-glucopyranose
Å Secondary structure There are three types of secondary
units linked by α-1, 4-glycosidic linkages. It consists of a
structures, i.e. α-helix, β-pleated sheet and collagen helix.
mixture of amylose and amylopectin.
The turns of helices and sheets are attached by hydrogen
bond. n
Glycogen About 5000-15000 glucose units make up
glycogen (C 6H10O5 ) n.
Å Tertiary structure Long protein chain is folded upon itself
like a hollow woolen ball, giving rise to tertiary structure. n
Cellulose It is a linear polymer of β-D-glucose units
It is stabilised by several types of bonds, i.e. hydrogen connected through β -1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
bonds, ionic bonds, i.e. van der Waals interaction, covalent n
Chitin It is the second most abundant polysaccharide,
bonds and hydrophobic bonds. It gives 3 D conformation comprising of linear unbranched structural
to protein molecule. heteropolysaccharide of β-1,4-linked chains of
Å Quaternary structure Some proteins are an assembly of N-acetylglucosamine.
more than one polypeptide or subunits. The manner in
which these individuals folded polypeptides or sub-units 3. Nucleic Acids
are arranged with respect to each other is the architecture Å These are biomacromolecules and are polymeric
of protein, otherwise called quaternary structure of a compounds of nucleotides, i.e. polynucleotides.
protein.
Å A nucleic acid which contains deoxyribose sugar is DNA,
Classification of Proteins while that which contains ribose is called Ribonucleic Acid
Å On the basis of composition, proteins are classified into (RNA).
following two classes Å Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) is right-handed double
n
Fibrous proteins formed when the polypeptide chains helix model (structure) of two parallel polynucleotide
run parallel and are held together by hydrogen and chains given by Watson and Crick having a major and
NEET KEY NOTES

minor groove.The outline of Watson and Crick model of

DNA is as follows Concept of Metabolism
n
DNA molecule consists of two helically twisted strands
Å All biomolecules are constantly being changed into some
connected together by base pairs, which align other biomolecules and also made from some other
themselves in antiparallel or in opposite direction. A biomolecules, known as turnover.
DNA double helix is 20Å wide and its one complete Å The making and breaking is through chemical reactions
turn is 34Å wide, having 10 base pairs. constantly occurring in living organism. Together all these
n
The two strands are interwined in a clockwise chemical reactions are called metabolism, e.g. removal of
direction, i.e. in the form of a right-handed helix and CO2 from amino acid forms amine.
have antiparallel arrangement. Features of Metabolic Reactions
n
Each strand consists of a backbone made up of Å Each metabolic reaction results in the transformation of
alternating deoxyribose sugar and phosphate. The biomolecules. Majority of these reactions do not occur in
phosphate joins the two sugars through a isolation, but are linked to some other reaction and follows
phosphodiester bond. a certain metabolic pathway. These pathways are either
n
The nitrogenous bases are stacked inside the helix and linear or circular. They also criss-cross to each other, i.e.
paired with the base of the opposite strand through there are traffic junctions.
hydrogen bonds (H-bonds). There are two H-bonds Å An important feature of metabolic reactions is that they are
between A and T and three H-bonds between G and C. enzyme catalysed reactions.
Note The right-handed form of DNA is called B-DNA (found in These metabolic reactions can be categorised into two
humans) and left-handed form is called Z-DNA (found in types based on their metabolic pathways as follows
nucleosome). n
Anabolic pathway or biosynthetic pathway Formation
Å Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) The other nucleic acid present in of complex structure from a simpler structure, e.g.
the cell is RNA, i.e. ribose nucleic acid. acetic acid becomes cholesterol.
Å It is mostly present in single-stranded form though some
n
Catabolic pathway Degradation of a complex structure
viruses like retrovirus and wound tumour virus has to form a simpler structure, e.g. glucose becomes lactic
double-stranded RNA. acid in our skeletal muscles.
Å RNA can be of following three types
Å ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) Most important form of
energy currency in living systems is the bond energy in
n
Messenger RNA or mRNA or template RNA
ATP.
n
Ribosomal RNA or rRNA
n
Soluble-RNA or transfer-RNA (s or tRNA) Enzymes
Almost all enzymes are proteins. Some nucleic acids that
Nature of Bond Linking Å
behave like enzymes are called ribozymes.

Monomers in Polymer Å These are organic catalysts which catalyse biochemical
The polymers are formed by combination of one or more reactions without being utilised themselves.
types of monomer units via bonds. These are Å An enzyme like any protein has the secondary and tertiary
Å Peptide bonds These are formed when the carboxyl structures. This tertiary structure has backbone of the
(COOH) group of one amino acid reacts with the amino protein chain folded upon itself, also the chain criss-crosses
(NH2 ) group of the next amino acid with the itself and hence, many crevices or pockets are made. One
elimination of a water moiety (the process is called such pocket is the active site.
dehydration). Å An active site of an enzyme is a crevice or pocket into
Å Glycosidic bond This bond ions carbon atoms of two which the substrate fits. Thus, enzymes through their
adjacent monosaccharides with the removal of water active site, catalyse reactions at a high rate.
molecule.
Å Phosphodiester bond In a nucleic acid, a phosphate Working of Enzymes
moiety links the 3′-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide Å Substrate (S) Chemical which is converted into a product.
to the 5′-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide. Å Enzyme, i.e. Proteins with three dimensional structures
The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of including an active site convert a substrate ( S) into a
sugar is an ester bond. As there is one such ester bond on product ( P).
either sides, it is called phosphodiester bond. S→ P
NEET KEY NOTES

Å The substrate has to diffuse towards the ‘active site’. There is Å The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action can be described
thus, an obligatory formation of an ‘ES’ complex. This in the following steps
complex formation is a transient phenomenon. n
Substrate binds to the active sites of the enzyme.
Å During this state, a new structure of the substrate called n
Binding induces enzyme to alter its shape fitting
transition state structure is formed. more tightly around the substrate.
Å After bond making/breaking is completed, the product is n
Active site of enzyme breaks the chemical bonds of
released from the active site. the substrate and the new enzyme-product complex
Å There could be many more ‘altered structural states’ between is formed.
the stable substrate and the product. n
Enzyme releases products of the reaction and the free
enzyme is ready to bind to another molecule of the
Concept of Activation Energy substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once
Å Activation energy is the least possible energy required to again.
start a chemical reaction or the amount of energy available in
a chemical system for a reaction to take place. Factors Affecting Enzyme
Å It can be understood with the given graph as follows Activity
Y Transition state The activity of an enzyme can be affected by a change in
the conditions which can alter the tertiary structure of
Activation energy without enzyme the protein.
Å Substrate concentration Enzyme activity increases with
Potential energy
increase in concentration of the substrate to a maximum

Activation energy with enzyme and then its levels off.
Å Enzyme concentration In general, the rate of reaction
will increase with increasing enzyme concentration, due
Substrate (s)
to the availability of more active sites for reaction.
Å Temperature and pH In most of the enzymatic
reactions, rise of 10°C in the temperature doubles the
Product (P) rate of reaction between 5-40°C. Enzymes are denatured
X (secondary and above level of structures degraded) at
Progress of reaction
higher temperature due to their proteinaceous nature
and rate of reaction drops.
Y -axis = Potential energy
X-axis = Progression of the structural transformation or Enzyme Inhibition
states through transition state. Reduction or Stoppage of enzyme activity due to the
Å The features to notice certain adverse conditions or chemicals is called enzyme
n
If ‘P’ is at a lower level than ‘S’, the reaction is an inhibition and the chemicals which interfere or inhibit the
exothermic reaction (no supply of energy is needed to process are called inhibitor.
form the product). Enzyme inhibition can be of following types
n
The difference in average energy content of ‘S’ from that Å Competitive inhibition It is a reversible process due to
of the transition state is activation energy. the substrate or enzyme analogue in which K m increases,
but Vmax remains the same.
Nature of Enzyme Action
Å Non-competitive inhibition In this, inhibitor forms a
Å Each enzyme (E) has a substrate (S) binding site in its
complex with enzyme other than the active site and Vmax
molecule so that highly reactive enzyme-substrate complex
decreases.
(ES) is produced.
Å Feedback inhibition Where the end product or
E + S s ES → EP
Enzyme Substrate Enzyme - Enzyme - intermediates functions as temporary inhibitor which
Substrate Product combines with a regulatory site (also known as
complex complex allosteric site) of the enzyme and thus, functions as
→ E + P negative modulator. This is also called allosteric
Enzyme Product modulation.
NEET KEY NOTES

Ligases catalyse linking together of two compounds,

Classification and Nomenclature Å
e.g. enzymes which catalyse joining of C—O, C—S, C—N,

of Enzymes P—O, etc., bonds.
Å Oxidoreductases/Dehydrogenases catalyse oxidoreduction
between two substrates, i.e. S and S′,
Cofactors
e.g. S (reduced) + S′ (oxidised) → S (oxidised) + S′ (reduced)
Å In some cases, non-protein constituents called cofactors are
bound to the enzyme to make enzyme catalytically active.
Å Transferases catalyse transfer of a group G (other than Å Protein portion of an enzyme is called apoenzyme.
hydrogen) between a pair of substrate S and S′, e.g.
S − G + S′ → S + S′ − G Types of Cofactors
Å Hydrolases catalyse hydrolysis of ester, ether peptide These are as follows:
glycosidic C—C, C—halide or P—N. Å Prosthetic group Organic compound, e.g. peroxidase and
Å Lyases catalyse removal of groups from substrates catalase and haem is the prosthetic group.
mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds. Å Coenzymes Organic compound, but their association with
X Y the apoenzyme is only transient usually occurring during the
  course of catalysis, e.g. Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
C  C → X − Y + C == C (NAD and NADP).
Å Isomerases catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometric or Å Metal ions, e.g. zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme
positional isomers. carboxypeptidase.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Biomicromolecules
1 After doing the chemical analysis of organic 5 Identify the term ‘ash’ in terms of living tissue sample
compounds found in living organisms, two fractions analysis from the statements given below.
were observed namely (a) Organic compounds oxidised to gaseous form (CO2 and
(a) acid soluble pool and acid insoluble pool water vapour) after burning of the tissue
(b) carbon pool and hydrogen pool (b) The material left after burning the tissue, which
(c) inorganic pool and organic pool contains inorganic elements such as calcium,
(d) aqueous pool and non-aqueous pool magnesium, etc
2 Choose the element, which is negligible in living (c) Compounds removed in the form of gases
matter. (d) Compounds which may be soluble in intracellular fluid
(a) Si (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) S 6 The sum total composition of acid soluble and acid
3 Grinding of a living tissue in trichloroacetic acid insoluble fraction represents the entire composition of
shows the presence of the inorganic compounds like (a) dead cells (b) gene pool
sulphate, phosphate, etc., which are categorised as (c) cellular pool (d) gene library
(a) acid insoluble fraction 7 Amino acids are organic compounds and are called
(b) acid soluble fraction α-amino acids. Why?
(c) not found in cellular pool (a) Amino acids are organic compounds containing an
(d) Both (a) and (b) amino group and acidic group as substituents on two
different carbons
4 Biomolecules are (b) Amino acids are organic compounds containing an
(a) inorganic materials amino group and an acidic group as substituents on the
(b) organic materials same carbon
(c) all the carbon compounds obtained from the living (c) Amino acids are inorganic compounds containing an
tissue amino group and acidic group as substituents on two
(d) only DNA and RNA different carbons
(d) Amino acids are inorganic compounds containing an (a) A–Glycine, B–Serine, C–Alanine
amino group and acidic group as substituents on the (b) A–Alanine, B–Glycine, C–Serine
same carbon (c) A–Serine, B–Glycine, C–Alanine
8 Amino acids are substituted methanes. What are the (d) A–Serine, B–Alanine, C–Glycine
four substituent groups occupying the four valency 14 The aromatic amino acid (s) is/are
positions? (a) tyrosine (b) phenylalanine
(a) Hydrogen, carboxyl group, amino group and a variable (c) tryptophan (d) All of these
group (R)
(b) Two carboxyl groups, amino group and OH 15 Identify the zwitter ionic form in the given reversible
(c) Two hydrogen, one carboxyl group, amino group and a
reaction.
variable group (R) R
(d) Two amino groups, one hydrogen and one carboxyl 
group H +3 N  C H  COOH s
A
9 Variety of amino acids are formed on the basis of
R R
(a) position of hydroxyl group
(b) position of carboxyl group  
(c) position of hydrogen
H +3 N  C H  COO − s H 2 N  C H  COO −
(d) nature of R group B C
10 Types of amino acids found in proteins are Choose the correct option.
(a) 21 (b) 19 (a) A (b) C
(c) 20 (d) 23 (c) B (d) None of these
11 Based on the number of amino and carboxyl groups 16 A fatty acid has a carboxyl group attached to
amino acids are classified. Choose the correct option. R group. The R group could be a/an
(a) methyl
Acidic amino Basic amino Neutral amino
acid acid acid (b) ethyl
(a) Glutamic acid Lysine Valine (c) higher number of  CH2 groups (1 to 19 carbons)
(b) Lysine Valine Glutamic acid (d) All of the above
(c) Glutamic acid Valine Lysine 17 Arachidonic acid and palmitic acid have…… and
(d) Lysine Glutamic acid Valine …… carbon atoms, respectively including the
carboxyl carbon.
12 The amino acid, tryptophan is the precursor for the Complete the given statement by filling the most
synthesis of NEET 2016 appropriate option in the blank.
(a) thyroxine and triiodothyronine (a) 20, 16 (b) 22, 15
(b) oestrogen and progesterone
(c) 21, 4 (d) 23, 10
(c) cortisol and cortisone
(d) melatonin and serotonin 18 Identify the given structure and name the compound.
CH2OH
13 The R-group in proteinaceous amino acid makes them OHCH2 O
different. Name the amino acids A-C correctly O
according to the R groups given in each structure. OH OH
COOH COOH HO OH
  OH OH
OH
H  C NH2 H  C N H2 A B
 
CH 3 H (a) Ribose, Glucose
A B (b) Deoxyribose, Ribose
COOH (c) Glucose, Ribose
 (d) Ribose, Deoxyribose
H  C N H2 19 Saturated fatty acids possess ……… bond between
 carbon atoms and are ……… at room temperature.
CH 2  OH (a) single, solids (b) double, solids
C (c) single, liquids (d) double, liquids
20 Which of the following are not polymeric? NEET 2017 26 Identify, in which of the following carbon
(a) Nucleic acid (b) Proteins compounds, heterocyclic rings can be found?
(c) Polysaccharides (d) Lipids (a) Proteins (b) Amino acids
(c) Nitrogen bases (d) Lipids
21 Omega 3 fatty acid is present in JIPMER 2018
(a) sunflower oil (b) flax seed oil 27 A nucleoside having a phosphate group forms a
(c) groundnut oil (d) butter (a) nucleotides
(b) triglyceride
22 Which of the following is not a derivative of (c) lipids
cholesterol? JIPMER 2018 (d) nitrogen bases
(a) Vitamin-B (b) Vitamin-D
28 Refer to the given reactions.
(c) Bile salts (d) Steroid
I. Guanine + X → Guanosine
23 Which of the following structures represent the II. Guanosine + Y → Guanylic acid
structure of citrulline correctly? JIPMER 2019
Choose the correct option for X and Y.
(a) X–Phosphate group, Y–Sugar molecule
(a) H2N N (b) X–Sugar molecule, Y–Phosphate group
OH
NH2 (c) X–Sugar molecule, Y–Nitrogenous base
H (d) X–Nitrogenous base, Y–Sugar molecule
NH 29 Choose the correct option.

(a) DNA and RNA function as genetic material
(b) H2N N OH (b) Cytidine is a nucleotide
H NH2 (c) Phosphate is common in both nucleotides and
nucleosides
(d) DNA and RNA consist of nucleosides only
(c) H2N OH 30 Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine, cytidine

NH2 are all ........ but adenylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic
acid, cytidylic acid are ...... .
(a) nucleotides, nucleosides
(b) nucleosides, nucleotides
(d) H2N OH
(c) nucleotides, nucleic acids
NH2
(d) nucleosides, nucleic acids
24 Choose the correct option for the molecule given 31 Identify A and B.
below.
NH2 O
O
 N
O CH2  O  C  R1 N HN
 
R2  C O  CH O NH
N O N
 
CH2  O  P  O  CH2  CH2
  H
OH N A B

CH3  CH3

A B
CH3 (a) Cytosine Uracil
(a) Cholesterol – A component of animal cell membrane (b) Adenine Thymine
(b) Lecithin – A component of cell membrane (c) Adenine Uracil
(c) Triglyceride – An energy source (d) Guanine Thymine
(d) Adenosine – A component of nucleic acids 32 Name the four elements called ‘Big four’, which
25 Which of the following organic compounds is the make up 95% of all elements found in a living
main constituent of lecithin? NEET (Odisha) 2019 system.
(a) Arachidonic acid (b) Phospholipid (a) C, H, O, P (b) C, H, O, N
(c) Cholesterol (d) Phosphoprotein (c) C, N, O, K (d) C, H, O, S
TOPIC 2 ~ Primary and Secondary Metabolites

33 Secondary metabolites can be observed in 37 Choose the correct option.
(a) plant cells (a) Pigments – Carotenoids, anthocyanins
(b) fungal cells (b) Alkaloids – Monoterpenes
(c) microbial cells (c) Toxins – Morphine
(d) All of the above (d) Polymeric substances – Ricin
34 Which of the following is/are secondary metabolites? 38 Concanavalin A is NEET (National) 2019
(a) Rubber (b) Morphine (a) an essential oil (b) a lectin
(c) Curcumin (d) All of these (c) a pigment (d) an alkaloid
35 Primary metabolites 39 Select the secondary metabolites from the list given
(a) include glucose and fructose below.
(b) present in all living tissues I. Alkaloids II. Flavonoids
(c) plays known roles in all physiological process III. Rubber IV. Essential oils
V. Antibiotics VI. Coloured pigments
36 Which of the following secondary metabolites are VII. Scents VIII. Gums
used as drugs?
IX. Spices
(a) Vinblastin and curcumin
(b) Anthocyanin Choose the correct option.
(c) Gums and cellulose (a) I to IX (b) All except II and IX
(d) Abrin and ricin (c) I, III, IV and VI (d) All except I and VII
TOPIC 3 ~ Biomacromolecules and their Structure

40 Compounds found in acid soluble pool have 45 Which of the following is an essential amino acids?
molecular weight ranging from (a) Valine (b) Leucine
(a) 18-800 daltons (b) 100-800 daltons (c) Tryptophan (d) All of these
(c) more than 800 daltons (d) None of these 46 Non-essential amino acid is JIPMER 2018
41 Biomolecules having molecular weight less than one (a) valine (b) arginine
thousand dalton are (c) histidine (d) lysine
(a) macromolecules (b) biomacromolecules 47 Proteins are needed in diet because JIPMER 2018
(c) micromolecules (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) all amino acids are not available in body
42 After grinding a living tissue in trichloroacetic acid (b) during fasting, body utilises proteins
(c) proteins act as building blocks of our body
and then staining it, you would obtain two fractions,
i.e. acid soluble fraction and acid insoluble fraction.
Acid insoluble fraction does not contain 48 Which is the 21st amino acid? JIPMER 2018
(a) nucleic acids (b) polysaccharides (a) Pyrrolysine (b) Selenocysteine
(c) lipids (d) flavonoids and alkaloids (c) Cystine (d) Histidine
43 Why are lipids found in the acid insoluble fraction 49 ‘Ramachandran plot’ is used to confirm the structure
during the analysis of chemical composition of tissues? of NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) It has very high molecular weight (a) RNA (b) proteins
(b) It is polymer (c) triacylglycerides (d) DNA
(c) It has low molecular weight 50 Protein on reaction with which yields Ruhemann’s
(d) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken into pieces purple? AIIMS 2019
and form insoluble vesicles (a) Ninhydrin (b) Cu 2+
44 The least abundant chemical component in living (c) H2 O2 (d) Benedict’s solution
organisms is 51 Name the most abundant protein in animal world.
(a) lipids (b) ions (a) RuBisCO (b) Carboxylase-oxygenase
(c) nucleic acids (d) protein (c) Collagen (d) Cellulose
52 Which is the most abundant protein in whole of the 58 For nucleic acids, the building block is a
biosphere? (a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside
(a) Collagen (b) Trypsin (c) Insulin (d) RuBisCO (c) polynucleotide (d) sugar
53 Identify the correct pair. 59 Name the heterocyclic compounds, which are known
Proteins Functions as nitrogenous bases.
(a) Collagen Hormone Choose the most appropriate option.
(b) Antibody Fights infectious agents (a) Adenine, guanine, uracil, cytosine and thymine
(c) Insulin Intercellular ground substance (b) Adenine, guanine, uracil and thymine
(d) Trypsin Enables glucose transport in cell (c) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
54 Which two functional groups are characteristic of (d) None of the above
sugars? NEET 2018 60 Select the correct pair of substituted purines.
(a) Carbonyl and phosphate (b) Carbonyl and methyl (a) Cytosine and thymine (b) Adenine and guanine
(c) Hydroxyl and methyl (d) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (c) Uracil and cytosine (d) Guanine and uracil
55 Name the term given to the left and right ends of a 61 A nucleotide has three chemically distinct
polysaccharide. compounds, namely, A, B and C.
Left end Right end Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(a) A–Sugar, B–Carbonates, C–Chlorides
X Y (b) A–DNA, B–Cellulose, C–Chitin
(c) A–Heterocyclic compound, B–Monosaccharide,
(a) Left end– N-terminal end, Right end– C-terminal end
C–Phosphate
(b) Left end–Reducing end, Right end–Non-reducing end
(d) A–Phosphoric acid, B–Proteins, C–Acids
(c) Left end–Non-reducing end, Right end–Reducing end
(d) Left end– C-terminal end, Right end– N-terminal end 62 The sugars found in polynucleotides are
A B
56 Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic
(a) ribose sucrose
representation of a portion of glycogen.
(b) 2′ deoxyribose ribose
(c) ribose dextrose
(d) deoxyribose ribulose
63 Identify the structural formulae and select the correct
option.
O NH2 H2COH O Adenine
CH2OH CH2OH N
O N
O O O O
A N N
B CH OH OH
2 O O
O A B
OH OH O
OCH2 O Adenine
HO P
O O O O
OH
(a) A = 1, 6 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1, 4 α-glycosidic bonds
OH OH
(b) A = 1, 1α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1, 1α-glycosidic bonds C
(c) A = 1, 4 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1, 4 α-glycosidic bonds
(a) A–Adenine, B–Adenosine, C–Adenylic acid
(d) A = 1, 4 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1, 6 α-glycosidic bonds
(b) A–Guanine, B–Adenosine, C–Adenylic acid
57 Select the correct option, which represents the (c) A–Adenosine, B–Adenylic acid, C–Adenine
homopolysaccharides made up of glucose (d) A–Uracil, B–Adenosine, C–Adenylic acid
monomers. 64 Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Sucrose, lactose, maltose (a) DNA and RNA consist of nucleotides only
(b) Chitin, glycogen, starch (b) Adenylic acid is a nucleoside
(c) Starch, inulin, peptidoglycan (c) Uridine is a nucleoside
(d) Starch, glycogen, cellulose (d) N-bases (A, G, C, T, U) have heterocyclic rings
65 Primary structure of proteins is due to the presence of Formation of structures A, B, C and D is through
(a) peptide bond (b) covalent bond A B C D
(c) disulphide bond (d) ionic bonds (a) H-bonding in H-bonding in Further Both α-helix
single amino between two coiling in and β- sheet
66 In a protein structure, the first amino acid and the last acid chain only or more α-helix only joined and
amino acid are respectively called as polypeptide coiled
(a) N-terminal amino acid, C-terminal amino acid chains together
(b) C-terminal amino acid, N-terminal amino acid (b) H-bonding in H-bonding in Further Both α-helix
between two or single amino coiling in and β- sheet
(c) α-amino acid, β-amino acid more acid chain α-helix only joined and
(d) β-amino acid, α-amino acid polypeptide only coiled
67 Give the names of the structures of proteins as shown chains together
in the figures given below (c) H-bonding in H-bonding in Both α-helix Further
between two or single amino and β-sheet coiling in
more acid chain joined and α-helix only
polypeptide only coiled
chains together
(d) H-bonding in H-bonding in Further Further
N single amino between two folding of folding of a
N C acid chain only or more two or more number of
polypeptide secondary tertiary
C chains structures structures
A B C D
69 Adult human haemoglobin consists of
(a) A = 1° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° structure, (a) 2 subunits (b) 2 subunits (β , β )
D = 4° structure (c) 4 subunits ( 2α , 2β ) (d) 3 subunits (2α , β)
(b) A = 4° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° structure,
D = 1° structure 70 Acidic amino acids carry two COOH and one
(c) A = 1° structure, B = 4° structure, C = 3° structure,  NH 2 groups per molecule. Keeping this in mind,
D = 2° structure select the correct pair of acidic amino acid.
(d) A = 4° structure, B = 3° structure, C = 2° structure, (a) Lysine and arginine
D = 1° structure (b) Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
68 Refer to the given figure of various levels of protein (c) Glycine and alanine
structure. (d) Both (a) and (b)
71 In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides
Primary are linked by a
Polypeptide (a) glycosidic bond (b) peptide bond
(c) ester bond (d) phosphodiester bond
72 Which bonds are indicated by X and Y in the given
diagram.
Secondary
O
O
O
CH2 Thymine Adenine CH2
Alpha-helix Beta-pleated sheet O Y bond
(A ) (B) O
O–
P O
Hydrogen bond O–
Tertiary O
(C) Disulphide bond OH O
O–
O P
X bond
O
O
H2C Guanine ≡≡ Cytosine CH2
Quaternary O
(D)
O
(a) X–Glycosidic bond, Y–Hydrogen bond 76 In a DNA strand, nitrogenous bases pair with each
(b) X–Phosphodiester bond, Y–Hydrogen bond other with the help of
(c) X–Glycosidic bond, Y–Phosphodiester bond (a) hydrogen bond
(d) X–Phosphodiester bond, Y–Glycosidic bond (b) van der Waals’ interaction
73 In the given structure ‘A’ represents (c) covalent bond
OA (d) ionic bond
HO P 77 According to Watson and Crick model of DNA

OCH2 O N—base (a) DNA exists as a double helix
OH (b) The two strands of polynucleotide are antiparallel to
each other
(a) ester bond (b) ionic bond (c) The backbone is formed by sugar and nucleic base
(c) phosphate bond (d) glycosidic bond (d) Both (a) and (b)
74 The elimination of water moiety during the formation 78 The form of DNA with 34Å pitch with a rise per base
of peptide bond is pair of 3.4Å is called
(a) peptide hydration (b) dehydration (a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA (c) Z-DNA (d) C-DNA
(c) hydration (d) reduction 79 The pyrimidine base, which confers additional
75 Which of the following is the least likely to be stability to DNA over RNA is
involved in stabilising the three-dimensional (3D) (a) adenine
folding of most proteins? NEET 2016 (b) guanine
(a) Hydrogen bonds (b) Electrostatic interaction (c) cytosine
(c) Hydrophobic interaction (d) Ester bonds (d) thymine
TOPIC 4 ~ Metabolism
80 The term metabolism means 83 Identify, whether the given conditions are anabolic or
(a) sum of all the enzymatically catalysed chemical catabolic.
reactions constantly taking place in the cells and tissues I. Glucose → Lactic acid
of the living organisms II. Amino acids → Proteins
(b) processes that change the small molecules into larger
(a) I–Catabolic; II–Catabolic
ones
(c) processes that convert the large molecules into smaller (b) I–Anabolic; II–Catabolic
ones (c) I–Catabolic; II–Anabolic
(d) None of the above (d) I–Anabolic; II–Anabolic
81 Choose the incorrect option. 84 Catabolic and anabolic pathways are often coupled in
(a) Removal of CO 2 from amino acids converts an amino cell because
acid into an amine (a) Both the paths have the same energy
(b) All the biomolecules have a turnover (b) the free energy released from one pathway is used to
(c) Metabolic pathways are termed as transformation drive other
reactions (c) the intermediates of a catabolic pathway are used in the
(d) Metabolic pathways always follow a linear route anabolic pathway
82 One of the major feature of metabolic reactions is that (d) their enzymes are controlled by their same activators
they are … . and inhibitors
(a) elementary reactions 85 Biomolecules are constantly being changed into some
(b) non-linked reactions other biomolecules and are made from … .
(c) heat evolving reactions (a) amino acids (b) biomolecules
(d) catalysed reactions (c) monosaccharides (d) enzymes
86 The bond energy of which of the following chemicals 88 Choose the correct option.
is most important form of energy currency in living (a) The living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be
organisms? able to perform work
(a) Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) (b) The constant flow of materials for energy in and out of
(b) Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate (NADP) cell prevents the cell from reaching equilibrium
(c) Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide (FAD) (c) Living state and metabolism are synonyms
(d) None of the above (d) All are correct
87 The blood concentration of glucose and hormones in 89 Why living state cannot afford to reach
a normal healthy individual, respectively are equilibrium?
(a) 4.2-6.1 mM, nanograms/mL (a) Due to insufficiency of biomolecules
(b) nanograms/mL, 4.5-5.0 mM (b) To remain active all the time
(c) 5.0-5-5 mM, nanograms/mL (c) To save the energy
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
TOPIC 5 ~ Enzymes
90 Those nucleic acids, which behave like enzymes are 95 Which of the following describes the given graph
known as correctly? NEET 2016
(a) ribozymes (b) pepzymes
(c) ribose (d) Both (a) and (b)
91 The crevice or pocket of an enzyme in which the B
substrate bind is called
(a) active site (b) inactive site
(c) allotropic site (d) Both (a) and (b) A
Potential energy
92 Enzyme catalysts differ from inorganic catalysts in

Substrate
which way?
(a) Enzyme catalysts are smaller in size and lesser in
weight in comparison to that of inorganic catalysts
(b) Inorganic catalysts can work efficiently at high
temperature, but enzyme catalysts cannot (except few Product
enzymes)
(c) Inorganic catalysts can work efficiently at high Reaction
pressure, but enzyme catalysts cannot
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Endothermic reaction with energy–A in the presence of
enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme
93 A physical change during a chemical reaction refers to (b) Exothermic reaction with energy–A in the presence of
(a) change in shape without breaking of bonds enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme
(b) change in state matter (c) Endothermic reaction with energy–A in the absence of
(c) change in bond energy during the chemical reaction enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) Exothermic reaction with energy–A in the absence of
94 The rate of physical or chemical process can be enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme
defined as 96 Choose the correct option.
(a) the amount of reactant consumed per unit time (a) E + S → ES → E + P → EP
(b) the amount of product formed per unit time (b) E+S ES → E − P → E + P
e
(c) the bond energy released during bond formation per
(c) E + S → ES E − P → E + P
e
unit time
(d) All of the above (d) E+S ES E − P e eE+P e
97 Select the correct graph, which shows the effect of 102 The inhibitor, which inhibits the enzyme activity by
temperature on the velocity (V) of a typical enzymatic binding to the active site of the enzyme, due to the
reaction. close resemblance to the substrate in its molecular
structure is called
(a) non-competitive inhibitor (b) competitive inhibitor
(a) V (b) V
(c) allosteric modulator (d) feedback inhibitor
103 Which of the following acts as a competitive
Temp. Temp.
inhibitor?
(a) Penicillin (b) Malonate
(c) V (d) V (c) Relenza (d) Both (b) and (c)
104 In competitive inhibition, which of the following is
true?
Temp. Temp. (a) E + I s EI (b) E + I e EI + S eEIS
98 Choose the correct graph, showing the effect of pH on (c) S + I s SI (d) E S + I
e ESI
the velocity (V) of a typical enzymatic reaction. 105 How does radiation inactivate enzymes?
(a) By destroying tertiary structure
(a) V (b) V (b) By destroying primary structure
(c) By destroying secondary structure
pH pH
106 Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from
(c) V (d) V substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis,
addition of groups to double bonds are called
(a) lyases (b) ligases
pH pH (c) hydrolases (d) dehydrogenases
99 Select the correct graph, which shows the relationship 107 Which enzymes catalyse the breakdown of hydrogen
between the rate of an enzymatic activity and peroxide to water and oxygen?
substrate concentration. (a) A carbonic anhydrase and catalase
(b) Hydrolyase and oxidase
(a) V (b) V (c) Peroxidase and catalase
(d) Hydrolase and oxidase
108 What are proenzymes?
[S] [S]
(a) Inactive form of enzymes
Vmax
(b) Active form of enzymes
V V
2
(c) Neutral form of enzymes
(c) (d) (d) None of the above
Km [S] [S] 109 Transition state structure of the substrate formed
100 Michaelis-Menten constant (K m ) is equal to during an enzymatic reaction is NEET 2013
(a) the rate of enzymatic activity (a) transient, but stable

(b) the rate of reaction (b) permanent, but unstable
(c) substrate concentration at which the rate of the reaction (c) transient and unstable
attains half of its maximum velocity (d) permanent and stable
(d) substrate concentration at which the rate of reaction is 110 The inhibitor, which binds to the enzyme at site other
maximum
than the active site and does not resemble the
101 When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme substrate in structure is called
activity, the process and the chemical are respectively (a) activator (b) substrate analogue
called as (c) competitive inhibitor (d) non-competitive inhibitor
(a) inhibition, inhibitor
111 Enzymes that catalyse hydrolysis of ester bonds are
(b) competition, substrate
(a) hydrolases (b) lyases
(c) initiation, promoter
(d) None of the above (c) transferases (d) ligases
112 Select the option, which is not correct with respect to (a) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
enzyme action. CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (b) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(c) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(d) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
(b) Addition of a lot of succinate does not reverse the
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate 115 Non-protein constituents bound to enzyme, which
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site make enzymes catalytically more active are
distinct from that, which binds the substrate (a) cofactors (b) co-ions
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic (c) inhibitor (d) Both (a) and (b)
dehydrogenase
116 Apoenzymes are …… portion of the enzyme.
113 Prosthetic groups differ from coenzymes in that (a) acidic (b) non-protein
NEET (Odisha) 2019 (c) protein (d) basic
(a) they require metal ions for their activity
117 The cofactors that associate with the apoenzyme only
(b) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to
apoenzymes
during course of catalysis are called as
(c) their association with apoenzymes is transient (a) cofactors (b) coenzymes
(d) they can serve as cofactors in a number of enzyme (c) metal ions (d) prosthetic group
catalysed reactions 118 Zinc is a cofactor for which enzyme?
114 Which one of the following statements is correct, with (a) Trypsin (b) Peroxidase
reference to enzymes? NEET 2017 (c) Carboxypeptidase (d) Apoenzyme
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason Reason (R) There are one or more variable double
bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed 123 Assertion (A) Starch is a polymer of glucose.
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the Reason (R) It is made of several glucose units.
statements, mark the correct answer as 124 Assertion (A) Coenzyme is a non-protein group
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct without which certain enzymes are inactive or
explanation of A incomplete.
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Reason (R) Coenzymes not only provide a point of
explanation of A attachment of the chemical group being transformed,
(c) If A is true, but R is false but also influence the properties of the group.
(d) If A is false, but R is true
125 Assertion (A) Competitive inhibitor is also called
119 Assertion (A) In the solutions of different pH, substrate analogue.
structure of amino acids changes. Reason (R) It resembles the enzymes in structure.
Reason (R) It is because of the ionisable nature of 126 Assertion (A) Enzymes lower down the activation
 NH 2 and COOH groups. energy of the reactant molecule to make its transition
120 Assertion (A) Eight amino acids are referred to as into product easier.
essential amino acids for humans. Reason (R) Enzymes are highly substrate specific
Reason (R) These are synthesised in the human body. catalysts.
121 Assertion (A) Zinc is an apoenzyme for 127 Assertion (A) An example of non-competitive
carboxypeptidase. inhibitor is cyanide.
Reason (R) Cyanide kills animals by inhibiting
Reason (R) A complete catalytically active enzyme cytochrome oxidase.
together with its bound prosthetic group is called
128 Assertion (A) Enzymes are not divided into different
apoenzyme.
classes.
122 Assertion (A) Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty Reason (R) All enzymes catalyse the different
acid. reactions.
II. Statement Based Questions 136 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
NEET 2016
129 Which of the following option is incorrect?
(a) All the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust are (a) Cellulose is a polysaccharide
also present in a sample of living tissue (b) Uracil is a pyrimidine
(b) The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with (c) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
respect to other elements is higher in any living organism (d) Sucrose is a disaccharide
than in earth’s crust 137 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) The % weight of nitrogen in earth’s crust is very high in
(a) Living steady state has a self-regulatory mechanism
comparison to human body
called homeostasis
(d) The % weight of silicon in earth’s crust is very high in
comparison to human body (b) Energy flow and energy transformation of living
system follow law of thermodynamics
130 Which of the following option(s) is correct? (c) Metabolism is the release and gain of energy
(a) Palmitic acid has sixteen carbon atoms including carboxyl
carbon
(b) Arachidonic acid has twenty carbon atoms excluding 138 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
carboxyl carbon CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) Stearic acid has eighteen carbon atoms excluding carboxyl (a) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the
carbon enzyme to form an enzyme-inhibitor
(d) All are correct
(b) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is
131 Choose the incorrect statement with respect to not chemically changed by the enzyme
polysaccharides. (c) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of
(a) Inulin is a heteropolysaccharide breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex
(b) Cellulose given no colour with iodine solution (d) The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases
(c) Starch gives blue colour and glycogen gives red colour the K m of the enzyme for the substrate
with iodine solution
(d) Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose 139 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with
132 Select the incorrect statement. respect to other elements is higher in any living
(a) Adult haemoglobin molecule is composed of four organisms
polypeptide chains–two α-chains and two β-chains
(b) Living organisms have more nitrogen and oxygen
(b) Haemoglobin is a type of quaternary protein structure
per unit mass than inanimate objects (e.g. earth’s
(c) Fibrinogen and thrombin are blood clotting proteins
crust)
(d) In the primary structure of a protein, the first amino acid is
called C-terminal acid (c) All the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust
are also present in a sample of living tissue
133 Choose the correct statement(s) with respect to proteins. (d) All of the above
(a) In proteins, only right handed helices are observed
(b) Proteins cannot form quaternary structures 140 Choose the incorrect statement.
(c) Quaternary structures of proteins always involve two (a) Simple lipid is glycerol which is trihydroxy propane
polypeptide subunits (b) Many lipids have both glycerol and fatty acids
(d) All of the above (c) Oils have high melting point
134 Choose the incorrect statement. (d) Phospholipids have phosphorus and a
phosphorylated organic compound in them
(a) Cholesterol is the most abundant steroid in the animal tissue
(b) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the 141 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
carboxyl carbon I. Left end of a polysaccharide is called non-reducing
(c) Glycerides are esters of fatty acid with glycerol end, while right end is called reducing end.
(d) Prostaglandins are derived from steroids II. Starch and glycogen are branched molecules.
135 Identify the correct statement from those given below. III. Starch and glycogen are the reserve food materials
(a) Lipids with molecular weight not exceeding 800 Da comes of plants and animals, respectively.
under acid soluble fraction IV. Starch can hold iodine molecules in its helical
(b) The acid soluble fraction have four types of organic secondary structure, but cellulose being
compounds, i.e. proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
non-helical, cannot hold iodine.
and lipids
(c) The macromolecules from cytoplasm and organelles (a) I and II
become the acid insoluble fraction (b) All statements are incorrect
(d) The acid insoluble pool represents roughly the (c) Only IV
cytoplasmic composition of cells (d) None of the above
142 Which of the following statements is/are correct for III. The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is
polysaccharides? called activation energy.
I. The polysaccharides are found as a part of the acid IV. Enzymes are proteins whose three dimensional shape
insoluble pellet. is key to their functions.
II. These are long chains of sugars. (a) I and V (b) I, II and V
III. They are threads containing different (c) II and V (d) All of these
monosaccharides as building blocks. 147 Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in
IV. Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide consisting of order and choose the correct option.
only one type of monosaccharide, i.e. fructose. I. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and
V. Inulin is a polymer of fructose. gets free for another substrate.
(a) All are correct (b) All are correct except IV II. The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the
(c) III and IV (d) Only IV substrate and breaks chemical bonds of the substrate.
143 Consider the following statements. III. The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its
shape, fitting more tightly around the substrate.
I. Haemoglobin is an example of quaternary structure of
proteins. IV. The substrate binds to the active sites of the enzyme,
fitting into the active sites.
II. Haemoglobin molecule is composed of four
polypeptide chains-twoα- chains and twoβ-chains. (a) IV → III → II → I (b) III → II → I → IV
(a) I is true, but II is false (b) II is true, but I is false (c) IV → II → I → III (d) II → I → IV → III
(c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false 148 Consider the following statements.
144 Choose the correct statements. I. Most of the enzymes are proteins, which catalyse
biochemical reactions.
I. Bond energy (ATP) is utilised for biosynthesis,
osmotic and mechanical work that we perform. II. The enzyme itself is unchanged in the reaction, its
presence allows the reaction to take place.
II. When glucose is degraded into lactic acid in our
muscles, energy is liberated. Choose the correct option.
(a) I is true, but II is false (b) II is true, but I is false
III. Assembly of a protein from amino acid requires
(c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
energy.
IV. Majority of metabolic reactions can occur in 149 Consider the following statements.
isolation. I. Enzymes lower the activation energy of the reaction.
V. There are many examples of uncatalysed metabolic II. Higher activation energy helps the molecules to react
reactions. with greater rate.
(a) IV and V (b) I and III Choose the correct option.
(c) I, II and III (d) None of these (a) I is true, but II is false (b) II is true, but I is false
145 Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Acetic acid can form cholesterol. 150 Consider the following statements.
II. Flow of metabolites through metabolic pathway has a I. Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme
definite rate and direction. It is called dynamic state of protein is called prosthetic group.
body constituents. II. A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound
III. Anabolic pathway is endergonic, while catabolic prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
pathway is exergonic. Choose the correct option.
IV. All biomolecules have a turn over, i.e. they are
constantly being changed into some other
biomolecules and also made from other biomolecules. 151 Consider the following statements.
(a) I, II, III and IV I. Plant cell walls are made of cellulose.
(b) I and II II. Plant pulp and cotton fibre are cellulosic.
(c) III and IV III. Glucosamine and N-acetyl galactosamine are complex
(d) Only IV polysaccharides.
146 Which of the following statements about enzymes are IV. Chitin is present in exoskeleton of arthropods.
correct? V. Complex polysaccharides are mostly homopolymers.
I. Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy Choose the correct option.
for a reaction. (a) I and II are true (b) II and III are true
II. Enzymes are highly specific for reactions. (c) IV and V are false (d) All of these are true
152 Consider the following statements. 156 Match the following columns.
I. Cofactor plays a crucial role in the catalytic activity Column I Column II
of the enzyme. (Categories) (Examples of secondary metabolite)
II. Catalytic activity is lost when cofactor is removed A. Alkaloids 1. Lemon grass oil
from the enzyme.
B. Terpenoids 2. Ricin
C. Toxins 3. Diterpene
D. Essential oil 4. Codeine
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II
(Components) (% of the total cellular mass)
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4
A. Water 1. 10-15 157 Match the following columns.

B. Proteins 2. 70-90 Column I Column II
(Categories) (Features)
C. Carbohydrates 3. 5-7
A. Prosthetic group 1. Coordination bond with apoenzyme
D. Lipids 4. 3
E. Nucleic acids 5. 2 B. Coenzyme 2. Tightly bound to apoenzyme
C. Metal ions cofactor 3. Transient binding with apoenzyme
Codes
A B C D E Codes
(a) 1 3 2 4 5 A B C A B C
(b) 2 1 4 5 3 (a) 2 3 1 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 5 (c) 2 1 3 (d) 1 2 3
(d) 5 3 2 1 4
Column I Column II
Column I Column II (Categories) (Examples)
A. Fructose 1. Protein A. Prosthetic group 1. NAD
B. Galactose 2. Phospholipid B. Cofactor 2. Haem
C. Anticoagulant 3. Brain sugar C. Coenzyme 3. Zn ions
D Insulin 4. Heparin
Codes
5. Fruit sugar
A B C A B C
Codes (a) 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3
A B C D A B C D (c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3
(c) 5 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 5 1
Column I Column II
155 Match the following columns. (Enzymes) (Characteristics)
Column I Column II A. Dehydrogenases 1. Interconversion of optical, geometrical
positional isomers
A. Triglycerides 1. Galactose
B. Lactose 2. Glycerol B. Ligases 2. Group transfer
C. RNA 3. Palmitic acid C. Isomerases 3. Oxidoreduction between two substrates
D. β-pleated 4. Uracil D. Hydrolases 4. Linking together of two bonds

E. Beeswax 5. Secondary structure E. Transferases 5. Hydrolysis of bonds
Codes Codes
A B C D E A B C D E
(a) 4 1 5 2 3 (a) 5 4 1 2 3
(b) 5 1 4 2 3 (b) 4 3 5 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 5 2 (c) 5 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 1 4 5 3 (d) 3 4 1 5 2

NCERT 166 Many elements are found in living organisms either
160 Tertiary structure in a protein free or in the form of compounds. One of the
(a) defines amino acid sequence of a protein following is not found in living organisms.
(b) is formed by disulphide linkages and van der Waal’s (a) Silicon (b) Magnesium
forces (c) Iron (d) Sodium
(c) is responsible for the formation of catalytic site 167 When we homogenise any tissue in an acid, the acid
(d) All of the above soluble pool represents
161 Quantitative test for proteins includes (a) cytoplasm (b) cell membrane
(a) Sudan black test (c) nucleus (d) mitochondria
(b) Tollens test 168 The most abundant chemical in living organisms
(c) Xanthoproteic test could be
(d) Iodine test (a) protein (b) water
162 Triglycerides are composed of (c) sugar (d) nucleic acid
(a) glycerol 169 Glycogen is a homopolymer made of
(b) ester bonds (a) glucose units (b) galactose units
(c) unsaturated fatty acids (c) ribose units (d) amino acids
170 The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen molecule would be
163 Ribonucleic acid on rough endoplasmic reticulum
(a) equal to the number of branches plus one
shows the presence of
(b) equal to the number of branch points
(a) sugar phosphate bonds on both strands
(c) one
(b) o-glycosidic bonds
(d) two, one on the left side and another on the right side
(c) phosphodiester linkages
(d) peptide bonds from 5′ → 3′ end 171 Which of the following sugars have the same number
of carbon as present in glucose?
164 Properties defining enzyme activity include the
(a) Fructose (b) Erythrose
(a) correct folding at primary level of organisation
(c) Ribulose (d) Ribose
(b) presence or absence of optimum temperature and pH
(c) presence of substrate concentration that increases 172 Amino acids have both an amino group and a
initially and then attains V max carboxyl group in their structure. Which amongst the
(d) All of the above following is an amino acid?
(a) Formic acid (b) Glycerol
NCERT Exemplar (c) Glycolic acid (d) Glycine
165 It is said that elemental composition of living 173 An amino acid under certain conditions have both
organisms and that of inanimate objects (like earth’s positive and negative charges simultaneously in the
crust) are similar in the sense that all the major same molecule, such a form of amino acid is called
elements are present in both. Then what would be the (a) acidic form (b) basic form
difference between these two groups? (c) aromatic form (d) zwitter ion form
Choose the correct answer from the following. 174 A homopolymer has only one type of building block
(a) Living organisms have more gold in them than called monomer repeated ‘n’ number of times. A
inanimate objects heteropolymer has more than one type of monomer.
(b) Living organisms have more water in their body than Proteins are heteropolymers usually made of
inanimate objects (a) 20 types of monomers
(c) Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and (b) 40 types of monomers
hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate objects
(c) 30 types of monomers
(d) Living organisms have more calcium in them than
inanimate objects (d) Only one type of monomers
175 Proteins perform many physiological functions, e.g. 177 An acid soluble compound formed by
some functions as enzyme. One of the following phosphorylation of nucleoside is called
represents an additional function that some proteins (a) nitrogen base
discharge. (b) adenine
(a) Antibiotics (c) sugar phosphate
(b) Pigments conferring colour to skin (d) nucleotide
(c) Pigments making colour of flowers 178 Which of the following reactions is not enzyme
(d) Hormones mediated in biological system?
(a) Dissolving CO 2 in water
176 The primary structure of a protein molecule has (b) Unwinding the two strands of DNA
(a) two ends (b) one end (c) Hydrolysis of sucrose
(c) three ends (d) no ends (d) Formation of peptide bond
Answers
>Mastering NCERT with MCQs
1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (c) 11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (c)
16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (d) 21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (a) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (d) 36 (a) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (a) 41 (c) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (b) 45 (d)
46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (a) 51 (c) 52 (d) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (d) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (b) 65 (a) 66 (a) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (c) 70 (b) 71 (a) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (d)
76 (a) 77 (d) 78 (b) 79 (d) 80 (a) 81 (d) 82 (d) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (a) 87 (a) 88 (d) 89 (b) 90 (a)
91 (a) 92 (d) 93 (d) 94 (b) 95 (b) 96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (c) 99 (c) 100 (c) 101 (a) 102 (b) 103 (d) 104 (a) 105 (a)
106 (a) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (c) 110 (d) 111 (a) 112 (b) 113 (b) 114 (b) 115 (a) 116 (c) 117 (b) 118 (c)

119 (a) 120 (c) 121 (d) 122 (d) 123 (a) 124 (a) 125 (c) 126 (b) 127 (b) 128 (d) 129 (c) 130 (a) 131 (a) 132 (d) 133 (a)
134 (d) 135 (c) 136 (c) 137 (d) 138 (d) 139 (d) 140 (c) 141 (d) 142 (b) 143 (c) 144 (c) 145 (a) 146 (d) 147 (a) 148 (c)
149 (a) 150 (a) 151 (d) 152 (c) 153 (b) 154 (c) 155 (d) 156 (a) 157 (a) 158 (a) 159 (d)

160 (d) 161 (c) 162 (d) 163 (c) 164 (d) 165 (c) 166 (a) 167 (a) 168 (b) 169 (a) 170 (a) 171 (a) 172 (d) 173 (d) 174 (a)
175 (d) 176 (a) 177 (d) 178 (a)

1 (a) After performing the chemical analysis of organic 7 (b) Amino acids are said to be organic compounds which
compounds found in living organisms, two types of organic contain an amino group and an acidic group as
compounds were observed. They were the filtrate fraction or substituents on the same carbon, i.e. the α-carbon. Hence,
the acid soluble pool and the retentate fraction or the acid these are also called α-amino acids.
insoluble pool. 8 (a) The four substituent groups occupying the four
3 (b) After grinding a living tissue in trichloroacetic acid the valency positions in an amino acids are hydrogen,
inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc., are present carboxyl group, amino group and a variable group
in acid soluble fraction. This fraction consists of designated as R-group.
biomicromolecules (i.e. amino acids, nucleotides, etc.) and 13 (b) The given structures are as follows
inorganic compounds. The acid insoluble fraction consists of
A–Alanine–R-group is methane.
biomacromolecules (i.e. proteins, nucleic acids, etc).
B–Glycine–R-group is hydrogen.
5 (b) After burning the dry tissue, all the organic
compounds are oxidised to gaseous form (CO2 and water C–Serine–R-group is hydroxy methane.
vapour) and are removed. The material left which contains 15 (c) B is the zwitter ion form because a zwitter ion is a
inorganic elements (e.g. calcium, magnesium, etc) is termed dipolar ion with both positive and negative ion groups.
‘ash’.
19 (a) Saturated fatty acids possess single bond between Carbon − 18.5%
carbon atoms. They have a high melting point and are Hydrogen − 0.5%
solid at room temperature, e.g. palmitic acid, stearic Oxygen − 65%
acid. Whereas unsaturated fatty acids contain one or
more double bonds in between their carbon atoms. Nitrogen − 3.3%
They have a low melting point and are liquid at room 35 (d) Primary metabolites are present in all living tissues.
temperature, e.g. linoleic acid, oleic acid. These include amino acids, sugars (e.g. glucose,
20 (d) Lipids are not polymeric compounds. Polymers are fructose) etc. They play a major role in different
substances formed by the polymerisation of monomers. physiological processes of the body including growth,
But the basic unit of lipids are fatty acids and glycerol development and reproduction.
molecules that do not form repetitive chains. 36 (a) Vinblastin treat cancer and curcumin (haldi) has
Instead they form triglycerides from three fatty acids several medicinal property. Thus, these are secondary
and one glycerol molecule. Other options like metabolites used as drugs.
Proteins are polymers of amino acids, carbohydrates 37 (a) Option (a) contains the correct information. Rest are
are polymers of monosaccharides and nucleic acids are incorrect and can be corrected as
polymers of nucleotides. l
Alkaloids — Morphine
21 (b) Omega 3 fatty acids are present in flax seed oil. l
Toxins — Abrin, ricin
These are Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids (PUFAs). They l
Polymeric substances — Rubber, gums, cellulose
are important for normal metabolism. Mammals are
unable to synthesise omega 3 fatty acids. 38 (b) Concanavalin A is a lectin or a carbohydrate binding
protein. It is a T-cell mitogen that can activate the
22 (a) Vitamin-B is not a derivative of cholesterol. It is not immune system, recruit lymphocytes and elicit cytokine
a single vitamin, but a family of different vitamins production. It can also induce programmed cell death via
known as B-complex. These are water soluble and are mitochondria-mediated apoptosis.
derivative of amino acids not lipids.
42 (d) Flavonoids and alkaloids are secondary metabolites.
23 (a) Structure in option (a) is correct representation of These are with very less molecular weight (i.e. less than
citrulline. It is an α-amino acid with molecular formula 1000 dalton). Thus, are not found in acid insoluble
H2 NC( O ) NH ( CH2 )3 CH ( NH2 ) CO2 H . It is the part of fraction, as this fraction comprises of
urea cycle taking place in the body. biomacromolecules.
25 (b) Phospholipids are the main constituents of lecithin. 43 (d) Upon grinding a tissue, cell membrane and other
These molecules are composed of choline and inositole. membranes are broken into pieces and form vesicles,
It is found in all living cells and serves as a major which are not water soluble and get separated along with
component of cell membrane. the acid insoluble pool. Since, lipids are the constituents
26 (c) Living organisms have a number of carbon of cell membrane and are water unsoluble, these also
compound in which heterocyclic rings can be found. form vesicles and get separated in the acid insoluble
Some of these are the nitrogen bases, i.e. adenine, pool.
guanine, cytosine, uracil and thymine. 47 (d) Option (d) is correct.
27 (a) Nucleotides are formed when a phosphate group is Proteins are polymers of amino acids. These are divided
esterified to the sugar molecule of a nucleoside. In into two categories; essential and non-essential amino
simple words, a nucleoside with a phosphate group acids. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised in the
forms a nucleotide. body and therefore must be included in the diet. Proteins
28 (b) Option (b) is correct and can be explained as are used as structural components of tissues and also as
follows channels, transporters, regulatory molecules and
I. Guanine + 
→ Guanosine
enzymes. Proteins can also be utilised as energy sources.
X
(Nitrogen (Sugar (Nucleoside) Normally, this is a secondary function and becomes
base) molecule)
important only when there is not enough carbohydrate
II. Guanosine + Y 
→ Guanylic acid and fat in the body, e.g. during fasting.
(Nucleoside) (Phosphate (Nucleotide)
group) 48 (b) Selenocysteine (Sec) is the 21st amino acid in the
29 (a) Option (a) is correct. Other options are incorrect genetic code. This amino acid contains selenium. Its
and can be corrected as structure has been given below
l
Cytidine is a nucleoside. HSe
l
Sugar and nitrogenous base are common in both OH
nucleotides and nucleosides. H 2N
l
DNA and RNA consist of nucleotides only. O
32 (b) The four main elements termed as the ‘Big four’ 49 (b) Ramachandran plot is used to confirm the structure
and are found in a living system, which make 95% of of proteins. It is a plot of the angles-phi (φ ) and psi ( ψ )
all elements are of amino acids found in a peptide chain. This plot was
developed by GN Ramachandran, an Indian Scientist group of another amino acid located three or four
in 1963. residues earlier along the protein sequence.
50 (a) Protein on reaction with ninhydrin yields l
β-pleated sheet (B) is formed by the formation of at least
Ruhemann’s purple which is deep blue to purple in two to three hydrogen bonds between two or more
colour. Chemically it is 2-2 dihydroxy in dane-1, 3, protein strands laterally.
dion. It is used to detect ammonia, primary and l
Tertiary protein structure (C) is formed by the bending
secondary amines in a samples. and folding of two or more protein secondary structures.
53 (b) Option (b) contains the correct match. Rest of the l
Quarternary protein structure (D) consists of an assembly
matches are incorrect and can be corrected as of two or more polypeptides or subunits. It is formed by
Proteins Functions further folding in two or more tertiary protein structures.
Collagen Intercellular ground substance 72 (b) Given figure represents a part of DNA molecule in
which bond X represents the phosphodiester bond and Y
Trypsin Enzyme represents the hydrogen bond.
Insulin Hormone 73 (a) In the given structure, a represents the ester bond
formed by condensation reactions, involving elimination
54 (d) Sugars characteristically possess two functional
of water.
groups, i.e. carbonyl and hydroxyl. Sugars are
chemically carbohydrates. They are polyhydroxy 75 (d) Ester bond is formed between sugar and phosphate in
aldoses, ketoses and their condensation products. a nucleotide and is not involved in stabilising the three
Aldoses bear a terminal aldehyde or —CHO group dimensional (3D) folding of most proteins. The tertiary
while ketoses have an internal ketone or —CO group. protein structure is the 3D structure of protein. It is
stabilised by the use of hydrogen bond, ionic bond, van
56 (d) A represents 1, 4α-glycosidic bonds as the glucose
der Waals’ interactions, covalent bond and hydrophobic
residues in glycogen are linked by this bond. bond.
B represents 1, 6α-glycosidic bonds as this bond
creates branches in glycogen. 76 (a) In a DNA strand, nitrogenous bases pair with each
other with the help of hydrogen bonds. There are two
57 (d) Homopolysaccharides are composed of hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen
monosaccharide molecules of a single type. They bonds between G and C.
include three biologically important substances
glycogen, starch and cellulose. 77 (d) Both options (a) and (b) are correct with respect to
the structure of DNA elucidated by Watson and Crick.
58 (a) For nucleic acids, the building block is a
Option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as
nucleotide. A nucleotide has three chemically distinct
components, i.e. one is a heterocyclic nitrogenous The backbone of DNA is formed by the sugar phosphate
base compound, second is a pentose monosaccharide sugar chain.
and the third is a phosphoric acid or a phosphate 78 (b) In one form of DNA, each DNA strand appears like a
group. helical staircase and each step of ascent is represented by
60 (b) Adenine and guanine are substituted purines, while a pair of bases. At each ascent step, the pitch would be
the rest, i.e. uracil, cytosine and thymine, are 34 Å and the rise per base pair would be 3.4 Å. This
substituted pyrimidines. form of DNA is called the B-DNA.
63 (a) Structure ‘A’ represents adenine, which is a 79 (d) In DNA, thymine (5-methyl uracil) is present, which
substituted purine. provides extra stability to DNA as it does not contain
2′—OH group like uracil, which is present in RNA in
Structure ‘B’ represents adenosine, which is a
place of thymine.
nucleoside.
Structure ‘C’ represents adenylic acid, which is a 81 (d) The option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as
Metabolic pathways not always follow linear routes.
nucleotide.
They are circular sometimes. These pathways criss-cross
66 (a) In proteins, the left end represented by the first
each other.
amino acid is termed as the N-terminal amino acid due
to the presence of a free amino group. The right end 83 (c) Glucose is degraded into lactic acid in skeletal muscles
represented by the last amino acid is termed as the by a catabolic process through which energy is liberated.
C-terminal amino acid due to the presence of a free Assembly of a protein from amino acids requires energy
carboxyl group. and hence, it is an anabolic process.
67 (c) A represents the primary structure of proteins. 86 (a) The bond energy of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is
B represents the quarternary structure of proteins. the most important form of energy currency in living
C represents the tertiary structure of proteins. organisms.
D represents the secondary structure of proteins. On conversion of ADP into ADP and inorganic
phosphate there released 7.3 Kcal/mol of energy.
68 (d) Option (d) is correct.
l
Alpha helix (A) is formed by the formation of H-bond 89 (b) To remain active all the time is the ability of living
between the NH group of one amino acid and the CO state. As a system at equilibrium cannot perform work
thereby, beoming dead.
Therefore, as living organisms work continuously, they and proteins are found in our biological systems are
make a constant effort to prevent falling into equilibrium. tertiary proteins. Thus, if their structure is broken down
92 (d) Both options (b) and (c) are correct. they will be become inactive and functionless.
As inorganic catalyst works efficiently at high 112 (b) Option (b) is incorrect with respect to enzyme action
temperature and pressure, while enzymes gets damaged and can be corrected as
at high temperature (say above 40ºC). However few Addition of a lot of succinate reverses the inhibition of
enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms works at succinic dehydrogenase by malonate. Inhibition of
up to 80º-90ºC. Other incorrect statement can be succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of
corrected as competitive inhibition. Thus, both enzyme and inhibitor
Enzyme catalysts are larger in size and higher in weight compete for the active site of enzyme owing to
in comparison to that of inorganic catalyst. structural similarity resulting in the decrease of the
95 (b) The graph shows exothermic reaction. The reaction enzymatic activity.
graph depicted by A states its occurrence in the Rest of the options are correct.
presence of enzyme as it lowers down the activation 113 (b) Prosthetic groups are organic compounds and are
energy substantially. The B graph shows this reaction distinguished from other cofactors in that they are
occurring in the absence of enzyme when activation tightly bound to the apoenzyme. For example, in
energy is quite high. Thus, option (b) is correct. peroxidase and catalase, which catalyse the breakdown
96 (b) Each enzyme (E) has a substrate (S) binding site in of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, haem is the
its molecule, so that a highly reactive enzyme substrate prosthetic group and it is a part of the active site of the
complex (ES) is produced. This complex is short-lived enzyme.
and dissociates into its product and the unchanged Co-enzymes are also organic compounds, but their
enzyme with an intermediate formation of the enzyme association with the apoenzyme is only transient,
product complex (EP). usually occurring during the course of catalysis.
Thus, the correct representation is 114 (b) Option (b) gives the correct representation.
E+S s ES → E − P → E + P Holoenzyme It is a conjugate complete catalytically
active enzyme together with its coenzyme.
98 (c) Each enzyme shows its maximum activity at a
Apoenzyme The protein part of catabolically active
particular pH and temperature, known as optimum pH
enzyme is called apoenzyme.
and optimum temperature respectively. Before and
after, this optimum pH or temperature the enzyme Coenzyme Some enzymes require additional organic or
activity is less. metallo-organic molecules for their activity. These
Thus, graph in option (c) is correct showing the effect molecules are called coenzyme.
of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic reaction. So, holoenzyme is apoenzyme together with coenzyme
hence, option (b) is correct.
99 (c) When enzyme molecules are more in number than
substrate molecules, a progressive increase in the 119 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
substrate molecules ( S ), increases the rate or velocity the correct explanation of Assertion.
(V) of their conversion to products. Amino acids have a particular property, i.e. the
However, eventually the rate of reaction reaches a ionisable nature of —NH2 and  COOH groups. Hence,
maximum. At this stage, the active sites of all the in solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids
available enzyme molecules are occupied by the changes.
substrate molecules. Therefore, the substrate molecules In a neutral solution, the amino acid molecule exists as a
occupy the active sites vacated by the products and dipolar ion (zwitter ion) having both positive and
cannot increase the rate of reaction further. Thus, the negative ion groups. The charge on this ion changes
graph given in option (c) is correct. with the pH. In acid solutions (low pH), the amino
100 (c) Michaelis Menten constant (K m) is equal to the group of amino acid picks up H+ ions and becomes
substrate concentration at which the velocity of the positively charged. On the other hand, in alkaline
reaction is half of the maximum velocity. It is inversely solution (high pH), the amino acid donates H+ ions to
proportional to the enzyme activity. the medium and becomes negatively charged.
R
101 (a) The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to the
presence of specific chemicals that bind to the enzyme. 
When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme H+3 N  CH  COOH s
Cation
activity, the process is called inhibition and the (Low pH)
chemical involved is called as inhibitor.
103 (d) Both malonate and Relenza (synthetic drug) act as a R R
competitive inhibitors. Whereas penicillin (antibiotic) is  
a non-competitive inhibitor. H+3 N  CH  COO− s H2 N  CH  COO−
Zwitter ion Anion
105 (a) Radiation inactivate enzymes by destroying their (Isoelectric pH) (High pH)
tertiary structure. As mostly all enzymes are proteins
120 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be 129 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
corrected as corrected as
Eight amino acids are referred to as the essential The percentage weight of nitrogen in the earth’s crust is
amino acids for humans. These must be ingested very low as compared to that in the human body.
through diet, since they are not synthesised in the Rest of the options are correct.
human body.
130 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Rest of the
121 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
Assertion can be corrected as l
Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the
Zinc is the cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme, carboxyl carbon atom.
carboxypeptidase. l
Stearic acid has 18 carbon atoms including the carboxyl
122 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and carbon atom.
Assertion can be corrected as
131 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect with respect to
Arachidic acid is a saturated fatty acid found in polysaccharides. It can be corrected as
peanut oil. It is with 20 carbon chain.
Insulin is a homopolysaccharide. It is a polymer of fructose.
123 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason Rest of the statements are correct.
132 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect about proteins.
Starch is a homopolysaccharide made up of several
glucose monomer units. It can be corrected as
In the primary structure of a protein, the first amino acid is
124 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason called the N-terminal amino acid. The last amino acid is
is correct explanation of Assertion. termed as the C-terminal amino acid.
Coenzyme is a non-protein group that activates Rest of the statements are correct.
certain enzymes. This occurs as coenzymes provide
a point of attachment to the chemical group being 133 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct with respect to
transformed and also influences its properties. proteins. Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
corrected as
l
Proteins form quarternary structures.
Competitive inhibitor resembles the substrate in
l
Quarternary structures of proteins always involve two or
structure. more than two tertiary polypeptide units.
126 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason 134 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. corrected as
The correct explanation would be energy Prostaglandins are derived from the fatty acid, arachidonic
Enzymes are able to lower the activation of the acid.
reactant molecule by binding to and placing the Rest of the statements are correct.
substrate in close proximity to other substrates and 135 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct. Rest of the
catalytic groups, so that less energy is required to statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
enable interaction between them. l
Lipids with molecular weight not exceeding 800 Da, come
Another way is that enzymes may provide charged under acid insoluble fraction.
side groups in their amino acid structure to help l
The acid insoluble fraction has four types of organic
stabilise transition states between the initial and final
compounds, i.e. proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
products.
and lipids.
127 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason l
The acid soluble pool roughly represents the cytoplasmic
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
composition of the cell.

The correct explanation would be
Cyanide is an example of non-competitive inhibitor corrected as
as it can attach to the enzyme at a region other than
the active site and inhibits its activity. Glycine is the simplest amino acid in which functional
group ‘R’ is replaced by hydrogen atom (H). It does not
128 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion contain sulphur.
can be corrected as
Enzymes, mostly have been categorised into six
different classes on the basis of the reactions they 138 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
catalyse. corrected as
The six classes of enzymes are oxidoreductases, Competitive inhibitor resembles closely with the substrate
transferases, hydrolases, lyases, ligases and and binds to enzyme at a site, which binds to substrate. It
isomerases. increases K m constant.
140 (c) Only statement in option (c) is incorrect. In can be than in the earth’s crust (non-living or inanimate
corrected as matter).
Oils have lower melting point (e.g. gingelly oil). Whereas, the per cent composition of other inorganic
Rest of the statements are correct. molecules like calcium and gold is more in earth’s
crust as compared to living matter.
142 (b) Only statement IV is incorrect and can be corrected
as 166 (a) Silicon is not found freely in nature, but it does
occur as oxides and silicates, whereas magnesium, iron
Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide consisting of
and sodium are present in living organisms as ions.
only one type of monosaccharide, i.e. glucose.
Rest of the statements are correct. 167 (a) On homogenising any tissue in an acid, the acid
soluble pool represents cytoplasm. Homogenisation is
144 (c) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statements IV and a process whereby a biological sample is crushed
V are incorrect and can be corrected as thoroughly in a homogeniser. By this process, a
l
Majority of the metabolic reactions do not occur in biological sample is brought to a state such that all
isolation, they are always linked to some other reactions. fractions of the sample are equal in composition.
l
There are many examples of catalysed metabolic 168 (b) The most abundant chemical in living organisms is
reactions. water. It comprises of 70%-90% of the total cellular
147 (a) Option (a) represents the correct sequence for the mass.
steps involved in catalytic action of an enzyme. The 169 (a) Glycogen is a homopolymer made up of glucose
substrate binds to active sites of enzyme causing units. It consists of glucose molecules linked together
conformational change to fit properly. The enzyme with α (1 - 4 ) linkage with α (1 - 6 ) branch points
breaks bonds of substrate to release the product and free occurring every 8–12 residues.
itself for another molecule of substrate.
170 (a) The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen molecule
149 (a) Statement I is true but II is false. Correct information would be equal to the number of branches plus one.
about statement II is as follows This can be explained as in a glycogen there are many
Enzymes lower the activation energy of the reaction. branches plus one main branch on which other
Lower activation energy increases the rate of reaction. branches arise.
150 (a) Statement I is true, but II is false. The correct 171 (a) Fructose is a ketohexose with 6 carbons, but ketone
information about statement II is as follows as functional group whereas glucose is an aldohexose
A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound with 6-carbon and aldehyde as functional group. Thus,
prosthetic group is called holoenzyme. An apoenzyme is both have same number of carbon.
an inactive enzyme which gets activated by the binding 172 (d) Glycine is the simplest amino acid containing both
of an organic or inorganic cofactor. an amino group and a carboxyl group.
161 (c) Xanthoproteic test is used in the quantitative analysis COOH
of protein. Other options are 
Sudan black test is used in the quantitative analysis of H  C  NH2

fats. H
Tollen’s reagent and iodine are used in the quantitative Glycine
analysis test for starch.
173 (d) The zwitter ionic of an amino acid is a neutral
164 (d) Option (d) is correct as molecule having both the cationic and anionic charges
Enzyme activity is influenced by the presence or absence present simultaneously on the same molecule.
of optimum pH and temperature, substrate concentration
and the folding of their protein structure. Enzyme 174 (a) Proteins are heteropolymers made of about
activity increases in the presence of substrate whose 20 different kinds of monomers, i.e. amino acids.
concentration increases initially and then reaches V max 175 (d) Proteins can sometimes function as hormone, i.e.
and decreases in the absence of such substrate peptide hormones such as insulin.
concentration.
176 (a) Primary structure of a protein molecule has two
Further, enzyme activity is maximum at optimum pH and ends. These two ends of a polypeptide chain are
temperature and is minimum beyond or above the C-terminal and the N-terminal, based on the nature of
optimum value. Also, any misfolding at the primary level the free group on each extremity.
may generate a malfunctioning enzyme.
177 (d) Nucleoside on phosphorylation, forms a nucleotide,
165 (c) Option (c) is correct.
i.e. a molecule with nitrogenous base pentose sugar
All living organisms and non-living matter in our and three phosphate groups. A nucleoside is made up
biosphere are made up of similar elements and of cyclic nitrogenous base, purine or pyrimidine and a
compounds. Several researches performed on plants,
pentose sugar.
animals and microbes confirmed that the relative
abundance of organic compound, i.e. carbon, hydrogen 178 (a) CO 2 gets dissolved in water through a reaction
and oxygen in living organisms per unit mass is more which is not always catalysed by an enzyme.
CHAPTER > 10
Cell Cycle and

Cell Division
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Growth and reproduction are characteristics of cells of all
living organisms.
n
Synthesis or S-phase DNA replication and centriole
duplication take place without any changes in chromosome
Å All cells reproduce by undergoing cell division, i.e.
number. In animal cells, during the S-phase, DNA
division into two equal daughter cells. During the division replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole
of a cell, DNA replication and cell growth take place. duplicates in the cytoplasm.
n
Gap 2 or G 2 -phase Protein synthesis and cell growth occur.
Cell Cycle RNA and protein synthesis continue. Cell organelles like
Å The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its mitochondria and chloroplast increase in number by
genome, synthesises the other constituents of the cell and duplication.
then divides into two cells is called as cell cycle. Å Some cells in adult animals do not divide, e.g. heart cells and
Å An average duration of cell cycle in human cells is many cells divide occasionally, e.g. liver cells. These cells exit
24 hours, while that of yeast is 90 minutes. the cell cycle at G1 -phase and enter into quiescent stage (G 0),
where they remain metabolically active, but undividing unless
Phases of Cell Cycle required.
Å The cell cycle is divided into two phases–Interphase and
M-phase. Cell Division
Å During M-phase, the cell actually divides. The M-phase Å The phase of actual cell division is the M-phase.
starts with nuclear division, i.e. karyokinesis and ends Å M-phase represents the most dramatic period of cell cycle
with the division of cytoplasm, i.e. cytokinesis. involving major recognisation of virtually all components of
Å Interphase is the long, undividing phase between two the cell.
successive M-phase. It was initially known as resting Å Depending on the cell type in which division is occurring, it
phase. can be mitosis or meiosis.
Å During interphase, the cell prepares itself for cell division
by undergoing both cell growth and DNA replication.
Mitosis
It starts with the division of nucleus (karyokinesis ) followed by the
Å It is divided into three subphases separation of daughter chromosomes and terminates with
n
Gap 1 or G1 -phase The cell is metabolically active and cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis). It is called equational division
continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA. Cell as chromosome is equally divided between two daughter cells.
increases in size and cell organelles (except for
mitochondria, chloroplast and centriole) also increase in I. Karyokinesis
Å It involves the division of the nucleus. In karyokinesis, a nucleus
number.
can be divided either through mitosis or through meiosis.
CHAPTER 10 > Cell Cycle and Cell Division 237
Å Mitosis is further divided into four phases

Significance of Mitosis
Phases of Mitosis Å It is restricted to diploid cells only. However, in some
1. Prophase plants and social insects, haploid cells also divide by

Longest phase of division. mitosis.
Aster

Condensation of chromosomal
Centriole
Å It results in the production of diploid daughter cells
material starts. with identical genetic combination usually, resulting in

In animal cells, the centrioles Nuclear envelope
genetic stability.
move to opposite poles of the cell. Nucleolus

Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Å The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis.
Pair of
disappear. chromatids It also restores the nucleocytoplasmic ratio and surface

Microtubules are assembled to (chromosomes) volume ratio of cells.
form mitotic spindle. Centromere Å Mitosis in meristematic tissues like apical and lateral
2. Metaphase cambium, results in a continuous growth of plants

Arrangement of chromosomes at
throughout their life.
equator and aligns along Å It helps in cell repair and regeneration of injured and
the metaphase plate through lost body parts.
spindle fibres. Spindle fibres
(microtubules) Å It forms the basis of asexual reproduction in both plants

Attachment of spindle fibres to
kinetochores of chromosomes. Centromeres and animals.
on ‘equator’

Best stage to observe the shape, of spindle
size and number of Meiosis
chromosomes. Å It is the reductional cell division which results in the
3. Anaphase production of a haploid set of chromosomes.

Splitting of centromere. Å For example, haploid gametes (n) formed from

Movement of chromatids towards Chromatids specialised diploid (2n) cells. Diploid status of gametes
the opposite poles. are pulled is then restored at the time of fertilisation.
apart

Shortest duration phase, i.e. only of Å Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and
2-3 min and it is very rapid.
cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II, but only a
4. Telophase single cycle of DNA replication.

Chromosomes condense into long Pair of centrioles Å During meiosis, pairing of homologous chromosomes
fine filaments. Nucleolus and recombination between non-sister chromatids

Spindle fibres disappear and Chromatin threads occurs, so as to produce four haploid cells.
centriole replicate.
Nuclear envelope Å Meiosis - I is subdivided into four phases,

Nuclear envelope reforms around
Cytokinesis beginning i.e. prophase - I, metaphase - I, anaphase - I and telophase -
the chromosomes. (division of the cell)

Reappearance of nucleolus, Golgi I. Prophase - I is the longest phase and it is subdivided
complex and ER. into following five phases
II. Cytokinesis Phases of prophase – I Characteristic features

Å Mitosis is accomplished by the division of the parent cell into Leptotene Compaction of chromosomes
two daughter cells and by the separation of cytoplasm into Zygotene Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
each daughter cell via a process called cytokinesis. to form bivalents, formation of
Å In animal cells, it occurs by the appearance of a furrow in synaptonemal complex.
plasma membrane. The furrow deepens and joins in the Pachytene Bivalents appear as tetrad, crossing over
centre thus dividing the cell cytoplasm into two. occurs between non-sister chromatids of
Å In plant cells, due to the presence of inextensible cell wall, homologous chromosomes.
cytokinesis is achieved by cell plate formation (representing Diplotene Homologous chromosomes separate
the middle lamella between two adjacent cells). It begins to except at the sites of cross over, so as to
form X-shaped structure chiasmata.
form in the centre of the cell and grows outwards to meet the
Synaptonemal complex begins to
lateral walls. dissolve and disappears.
Å In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed by
Diakinesis Terminalisation of chiasmata,
cytokinesis and it results in the formation of multinucleate chromosomes are fully condensed,
condition called syncytium, e.g. liquid endosperm in nucleolus disappears and nuclear
coconut. membrane breaks down.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å During metaphase-I, the bivalent chromosomes align on the similar to mitosis except that these processes occur in two
equatorial plate. In anaphase-I, the homologous haploid cells.
chromosomes separate, while sister chormatids remain Å At the end of meiosis, tetrad of cells, i.e. four haploid cells
associated at their centromeres. are formed.
Å Telophase-I is marked by the appearance of nuclear
membrane and nucleolus, cytokinesis follows and dyad of Significance of Meiosis
cells is formed.
Å It is the machanism of conversion of specific chromosome
number of each species in sexually reproducing
Å The stage between two meiotic divisions is called organisms is achieved across generations.
interkinesis and is generally short-lived. DNA replication
Å It leads to the formation of gametes which is important for
does not occur during this stage.
sexual reproduction.
Å Meiosis - II is similar to mitosis as they both involve Å It provides chance for the appearance of new gene
equational division. The parental and progeny cells involved
combinations, owing to crossing over. It increases the
in meiosis - II are haploid. It also involves four substages, i.e.
genetic variability in the population of organisms from one
prophase - II, metaphase - II, anaphase - II and telophase - II,
generation to the next. Variations help in evolution.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Cell Cycle

1 The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its 6 The interphase is divided into three phases, namely
genome, synthesises the other constituents of the cell (a) G1 -phase, M-phase and G2 -phase
and eventually divides into two daughter cells is (b) M-phase, S-phase and divisional phase
termed as (c) G1 -phase, synthesis phase and G 2 -phase
(a) cell division (b) cell cycle (d) M-phase, G2 -phase and divisional phase
(c) cell growth (d) cell duplication 7 The phase between two succesive M-phase is called
2 During cell cycle, the DNA synthesis occurs how (a) S-phase (b) G1 -phase
many times? (c) G2 -phase (d) Interphase
(a) All the time (b) Once 8 What is the approximate percentage duration of cell
(c) Twice (d) Many times cycle that comes under interphase in humans?
3 Cell growth is a continuous process in terms of (a) 100% (b) 95% (c) 25% (d) 5%
(a) cytoplasmic increase
9 In M-phase, the division of nucleus is called as
(b) increase in DNA content
(a) cytokinesis (b) karyokinesis
(c) increase in protein content
(c) nucleokinesis (d) diakinesis
(d) increase in total cellular contents
10 In M-phase, the division of cytoplasm is
4 The cell cycle of mammalian cell and yeast,
(a) cytokinesis (b) cytodivision
respectively, takes about
(a) 24 hrs, 90 min (c) diakinesis (d) None of these
(b) 60 min each 11 Which of the following phases of cell cycle is also
(c) 30 min, 24 days known as the resting phase?
(d) 90 min, 24 hrs (a) G1 -phase (b) M-phase
5 Two basic stages of cell cycle are (c) S-Phase (d) Interphase
(a) interphase and M-phase/divisional phase 12 In which phase of cell cycle, DNA content gets
(b) karyokinesis and cytokinesis doubled?
(c) prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase (a) Interphase (b) Anaphase
(d) G1 , S and G2 -phases (c) Prophase (d) Telophase
13 The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is 20 During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA
NEET 2019 in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is
(a) G1 → G2 → S → M (b) S → G1 → G2 → M denoted as 2C? CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(c) G1 → S → G2 → M (d) M → G1 → G2 → S (a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S
14 Which of the following events occurs during (c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M
G1 -phase of the cell cycle? 21 The phase of cell cycle in which the centriole
(a) DNA replication duplicates in the cytoplasm?
(b) Growth and normal functioning of cell (a) S- phase (b) G1 - phase
(c) DNA transcription (c) G2 - phase (d) G0 - phase
(d) Elimination of unwanted cells
22 When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which
15 During the G1 -phase of cell division checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
(a) RNA and proteins are synthesised for cell growth and NEET 2016
subsequent DNA replication (a) G1 / S (b) G2 / M
(b) DNA and proteins are synthesised (c) M (d) Both G2 / M and M
(c) centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm 23 Which among the following cells of human body are
(d) cell undergoes duplication found in G 0 -phase of cell cycle?
16 During G1 -phase of cell cycle, (a) Epidermal cells (b) Red blood cells
(a) DNA content increases to double (c) Heart cells (d) None of these
(b) DNA content gets reduced to half 24 Cells in G 0 -phase NEET 2019
(c) Four folds increase in DNA content occur (a) enter the cell cycle (b) suspend the cell cycle
(d) No change in DNA content occurs (c) terminate the cell cycle (d) exit the cell cycle
17 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in 25 In the diagrammatic view of cell cycle, the G 0 -phase
NEET 2016 is represented as
(a) S-phase (b) G1 -phase (c) G2 -phase (d) M-phase
D
18 An onion root tip has 14 chromosomes in each cell.
How many chromosomes the cell would have at
G1 -phase? C A
(a) 28 (b) 14 (c) 62 (d) 7
B
19 What will be the DNA content and number of
chromosomes in a cell after S-phase as compared to
the gamete of the same organism? JIPMER 2019
(a) A (b) B
(a) Same DNA content, but double chromosome number
(c) C (d) D
(b) Four times DNA content, but double chromosome
number 26 The plant cells can show mitotic division in
(c) Same DNA content, but half chromosome number (a) diploid cells (b) haploid cells
(d) Half DNA content, but double chromosome number (c) polyploid cells (d) Both (a) and (b)
TOPIC 2 ~ Mitosis
27 Which of the following types of cell cycle is known 29 In which stage of cell cycle, initiation of condensation
as equational division? of chromosome takes place?
(a) Amitosis (b) Mitosis (a) Anaphase (b) Metaphase
(c) Meiosis (d) None of these (c) Telophase (d) Prophase
28 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature 30 The centriole moves to opposite poles of the cell in
during mitosis in somatic cells? NEET 2016 which stage?
(a) Disappearance of nucleolus (a) Prophase
(b) Chromosome movement (b) Metaphase
(c) Synapsis (c) Anaphase
(d) Spindle fibres (d) Telophase
31 The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope in a 40 A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select
cell cycle marks the the answer, which gives correct identification of the
(a) start of prophase of mitosis stage with its characteristics. NEET 2013
(b) start of metaphase of mitosis
(c) end of anaphase of mitosis
(d) start of telophase of mitosis
32 This is the best stage to count the number and study
the morphology of chromosomes.
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
33 Spindle fibres attach on to NEET 2016
(a) kinetochore of the chromosome (a) Telophase – Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex
reforms
(b) centromere of the chromosome
(b) Late anaphase – Chromosomes move away from equatorial
(c) kinetosome of the chromosome plate, Golgi complex not present
(d) telomere of the chromosome (c) Cytokinesis – Cell plate formed, mitochondria
34 The phase characterised by the alignment of distributed between two daughter cells
(d) Telophase – Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not
chromosome at the equator is reformed yet
(a) prophase (b) anaphase
(c) metaphase (d) telophase 41 Which of the following options gives the correct
sequences of events during mitosis ? NEET 2017
35 At which stage of mitosis, the two daughter
(a) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly →
chromatids separate from each other, migrate towards crossing over → segregation → telophase
the opposite poles and are now referred to as (b) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly →
chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei? arrangement at equator → centromere division →
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase segregation → telophase
(c) Anaphase (d) Telophase (c) Condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane
36 Given diagram indicates which of the disassembly → segregation → telophase
following phase of mitosis? Choose (d) Condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere
division → segregation → telophase
the correct option.
(a) Interphase 42 Mitotic poisons are chemicals or substances that
(b) Prophase interfere with normal mitotic division. One such
(c) Metaphase chemical is ……, which interferes with ……
(d) Anaphase formation during …… of mitosis cell division.
37 During anaphasic movements of chromosomes, The blanks are correctly filled by which of the
centromere of each chromosome is directed towards following options?
(a) pole (b) equatorial plate (a) colchicine, spindle, prophase
(c) spindle fibres (d) None of these (b) colchicine, centromere, anaphase
(c) colchicine, spindle, metaphase
38 Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein
(d) colchicine, centromere, telophase
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
of animals cells. If APC is defective in a human cells, 43 See the diagrams carefully and identify the different
which of the following is expected to occur? stages of mitosis (A-C ) by choosing appropriate
NEET 2017 options given below.
(a) Chromosomes will not condense
(b) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(c) Chromosomes will not segregate
(d) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
39 During which phase of mitosis the chromosomes may
appear in the V, L, J, or I-shaped structures? A B C
(a) Prophase
(a) A–Metaphase; B–Telophase; C–Interphase
(b) Metaphase
(b) A–Telophase; B–Metaphase; C–Prophase
(c) Anaphase (c) A–Anaphase; B–Telophase; C–Interphase
(d) Telophase (d) A–Telophase; B–Anaphase; C–Prophase
44 Cell furrow appears in the plasma membrane of 47 Mitosis usually results in the
animal cell during (a) production of diploid daughter cells
(a) cytokinesis (b) karyokinesis (b) growth of multicellular organisms
(c) interphase (d) interkinesis (c) cell repair
45 Cytoplasmic division occurs via cell plate formation in
(a) animal cells (b) plant cells 48 Which of the following is not a significance of
(c) bacterial cells (d) mammalian cells mitosis?
(a) Production of progeny having identical genetic
46 When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, it complement
results in the formation of (b) Restoration of nucleocytoplasmic ratio
(a) uninucleate cells (b) multinucleate cells (c) Replacement of dead tissue
(c) undifferentiated cells (d) diploid cells (d) Evolution
TOPIC 3 ~ Meiosis
49 The type of division that ensures the production of 58 During meiosis, the homologous chromosomes
haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing (a) pair up during pachytene
organisms is (b) are prepared for separation
(a) mitosis (b) meiosis (c) contain identical genetic information
(c) cytokinesis (d) interphase (d) None of the above
50 In meiosis, the chromosome number 59 Which one of the following events does not occur
(a) reduces by half during zygotene?
(b) increases by twice (a) Formation of synaptonemal complex
(c) increases by four times
(b) Pairing of chromosomes
(d) reduces by one-fourth
(c) Appearance of bivalents
51 The precursor cells of meiosis are (d) Involvement of recombinase
(a) somatic cells (b) diploid sex cells
(c) haploid sex cells (d) Both (a) and (c) 60 Given below is the representation of a certain event at
a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is
52 Meiosis involves two cycles of this stage? CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) Cell division (b) Nuclear divisions
(c) DNA replication (d) Both (a) and (b)
53 During meiosis, DNA replication occurs
(a) thrice, during interphase, M-phase and cytokinesis
(b) twice, i.e. during interphase and M-phase
(c) once during S-phase
(d) once during prophase
54 At the end of meiosis-II, number of haploid cells
formed are
(a) two (b) four (c) eight (d) one
(a) Prophase-I during meiosis
55 Longest phase of meiosis is
(b) Prophase-II during meiosis
(a) prophase-I (b) prophase-II
(c) Prophase of mitosis
(c) anaphase-I (d) metaphase-II
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
56 The compaction of chromosomes occurs during
(a) pachytene (b) anaphase-I 61 When paternal and maternal chromosomes exchange
(c) leptotene (d) telophase-I their genetic material with each other in cell division,
this event is called
57 Synaptonemal complex is formed JIPMER 2019
(a) bivalent forming
(a) during anaphase
(b) crossing over
(b) during metaphase
(c) synapsis
(c) during prophase-II
(d) during prophase- I of meiosis (d) dyad forming
62 The figure given below shows a cell undergoing 68 Which of the following events occurs during
meiosis. diplotene stage of cell cycle?
(a) Separation of synapsed homologous chromosomes
except at the site of cross overs
(b) degeneration of nucleolus
Bivalent
(c) degeneration of chiasmata
H omologous
chromosome (d) All of the above
Centromer es
69 The X-shaped structures observed during diplotene are
Identify the option which correctly indicates the stage (a) chiasmata (b) synaptonemal complex
next to this. (c) bivalent complex (d) None of these
70 Diakinesis is marked by
(a) terminalisation of chiasmata
(b) degeneration of nucleolus
(a) (b)
(c) fully condensed chromosomes
71 Splitting of centromere and hence separation of
chromatids occurs during
Cell
membr ane (a) prophase-II (b) anaphase-I
(c) anaphase-II (d) metaphase-II
(c) (d) 72
63 Crossing over takes place between which chromatids

and in which stage of the cell cycle? NEET 2019
(a) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
at zygotene stage of prophase-I
Above diagram represents JIPMER 2018
(b) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at
(a) anaphase-I (b) metaphase-I
pachytene stage of prophase-I
(c) telophase-I (d) prophase-I
(c) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at
zygotene stage of prophase-I 73
(d) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
chromosomes at pachytene stage of prophase-I
64 Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Animal cell — Persistent spindle
(b) Reductional division — Meiosis-I
(c) Equational division — Meiosis-II Above diagram represents JIPMER 2018
(a) metaphase-I (b) anaphase-I
(d) Crossing over — Non-homologous
chromosomes (c) metaphase-II (d) anaphase-II
65 The enzyme involed in the process of crossing over 74 Which of the following is correct for the figure given
(a) crossinase (b) DNA ligase below?
(c) recombinase (d) DNA polymerase
66 In diploid organisms, phenomenon of crossing over is
responsible for
(a) linkages between genes
(b) recombination between homologous genes
Number of
(c) segregation between genes homologous
Number of Phase of cell
(d) dominance of gene chromatids division
chromosomes
67 The stage during which separation of the paired (a) 2 4 Telophase-I
homologous chromosomes begins is NEET 2018 (b) 4 8 Telophase
(a) diakinesis (b) diplotene (c) 2 8 Telophase-II
(c) pachytene (d) zygotene (d) 4 2 Telophase
75 After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells have (a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
NEET (Odisha) 2019 (b) Required in all types of cells
(a) same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S-phase (c) S-phase occurs before initiation
(b) twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid (d) Separation of paired chromosomes
gamete
77 Significance of meiosis lies in
(c) same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(a) reduction of chromosome number to one-half
(d) four times the amount of DNA in comparison to (b) maintaining consistency of chromosome number during
haploid gamete sexual reproduction
76 Select the option which correctly identifies the (c) production of genetic variability
similarity between mitosis and meiosis cell division. (d) All of the above
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 83 Assertion (A) Mitosis restores the
■ Direction (Q. No. 78-90 ) In each of the following nucleocytoplasmic ratio.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by Reason (R) It is significant in the life of an organism,
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, especially in the growth of multicellular organism.
mark the correct answer as
84 Assertion (A) Meiotic division occurs in reproductive
cells.
explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Reason (R) As a result of meiosis, gametes are formed.
explanation of A 85 Assertion (A) Each pollen mother cell produces four
(c) If A is true, but R is false haploid pollen grains.
(d) If A is false, but R is true Reason (R) Meiosis takes place in pollen mother
78 Assertion (A) In mitosis, two identical cells are cells.
produced from a single cell and karyokinesis is
86 Assertion (A) Small disc-shaped structures at the
followed by cytokinesis.
surface of the centromeres are called kinetochores.
Reason (R) Cytokinesis is of two types, i.e. by
Reason (R) Kinetochores are proteinaceous
cell-furrow method and cell-plate method. AIIMS 2018
structures.
79 Assertion (A) Meiotic division occurs in
reproductive cells. 87 Assertion (A) In anaphase-II, chromosomes align at
the equator.
Reason (R) Synapsis occurs during zygotene of
meiosis. AIIMS 2018 Reason (R) The centromere of each chromosome
80 Assertion (A) Cell normally proceed to mitosis splits and chromatids separate.
without interruption, once it enters the G 2 -phase. 88 Assertion (A) A cell after telophase-II does not enter
Reason (R) Replicated chromosomes (DNA) are another interphase.
distributed to daughter nuclei by a complex series of Reason (R) Gametes or Spores are formed after
events under genetic control. telophase-II.
81 Assertion (A) Mitosis occurs in apical meristems and 89 Assertion (A) Diakinesis is the final stage of
lateral meristem. prophase-I.
Reason (R) Apical and lateral meristems are Reason (R) Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in
responsible for growth of plants. diakinesis.
82 Assertion (A) In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved 90 Assertion (A) Some cells undergo G 0 -phase due to
by the appearance of a furrow in plasma membrane. inactivation of cell cycle.
Reason (R) In plant cells, the formation of the new Reason (R) Cells at this stage remain metabolically
cell wall begins with the formation of simple active, but no longer proliferate.
precursor called cell plate.
(c) Both the divisions of nucleus and cytoplasm occurs at

II. Statement Based Questions the same time
91 Which of the following statements are correct for cell (d) None of the above
cycle? 98 Which of the following is incorrect for meiosis cell
(a) Cell cycle is the sequence of events involving growth division?
and division of a cell from the time of its formation to
division into daughter cells (a) In meiosis, daughter cells receive a mixture of
maternal and paternal chromosomes
(b) DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage in
the cell cycle (b) The cells undergoing the division may be haploid or
diploid in case of plants
(c) The replicated chromosomes (DNA) are distributed to
daughter nuclei during cell division (c) It usually represented as n → 2n
(d) All of the above (d) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place
during zygotene of prophase-I
92 Read the following statements and select the incorrect
one. 99 Choose the correct statements regarding cell cycle.
(a) M-phase represents the phase when the actual cell I. M-phase is also called the resting phase because DNA
division or mitosis occurs replication does not occur during this phase.
(b) Mitogens such as auxins inhibit the mitosis division II. Interphase is the time during which the cell is
(c) Mitosis can be best studied in lab using root tip material preparing for division.
(d) Spindle usually presents as phragmoplast during III. The interphase is divided into four prominent phases,
cytokinesis in plants i.e. G0 , G1 , S and G2 -phases.
93 Which one of the following statements is correct for IV. Interphase represents the phase between the two
cells in G 0 -stage of cell cycle? successive M-phases.
(a) Cells in G0 -stage proliferate excessively The option with correct statements is
(b) Cells are metabolically inactive (a) I and IV (b) II and III
(c) Cells are metabolically active, but no longer proliferate (c) I and III (d) II and IV
in normal condition
100 Which of the following statements are correct for
G1 -phase?
94 Select the incorrect statements regarding S-phase of I. It is the last substage of interphase.
interphase.
II. Cell organelles do not increase in number.
(a) Occurs between G1 and G2
III. Both cell and nucleus grow in size.
(b) DNA replication begins in the nucleus
IV. It synthesises RNAs, proteins and other biochemicals
(c) Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
for cell growth and subsequent replication of DNA.
(d) As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles
95 Select the incorrect statement for prophase.
(a) I and II (b) II and IV
(a) Chromosomal material condenses to form compact (c) I and III (d) II and III
mitotic chromosomes
(b) The assembly of mitotic spindle is initiated by the 101 The DNA content of individual cells and the number
microtubules of cells in each phase of a ‘cell cycle’ can be
(c) Cells at the end of prophase contain membrane bound determined using flow cytometry. Which of the
organelles when viewed under the prophase following combinations of ‘phase of a cell cycle and
(d) The nucleolus or nucleoli degenerates completely its corresponding DNA content’ can be considered
96 Which of the following statements (events) is/are true correct?
for mitotic telophase? I. Diploid cells found in the G0 or G1 -phase.
(a) Nucleolus, GB and ER reform II. Cell with twice the normal DNA content in the early
(b) Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome M-phase.
clusters III. Cells with intermediate amounts of DNA in the
(c) Arrival of chromosomes cluster at opposite poles and S-phase.
loss of their identity as discrete elements IV. Cells with twice the normal DNA content in the
(d) All of the above G2 -phase.
97 Select the correct statement. Codes
(a) Division of the cytoplasm occurs before the division of (a) I and II
the nucleus (b) II and III
(b) Division of the nucleus occurs before the division of the (c) III and IV
cytoplasm (d) I, II, III and IV
102 See the diagram carefully and sequentially arrange the Identify the different stages with respect to the
steps of amitosis given below. above given features and select the correct option.
(a) I–Leptotene, II–Zygotene, III–Pachytene,
Constriction
Nucleus
Cytoplasm IV–Diplotene, V–Diakinesis
(b) I–Leptotene, II–Zygotene, III–Pachytene,
IV–Diakinesis, V–Diplotene
(c) I–Leptotene, II–Pachytene, III–Zygotene,
IV–Diakinesis, V–Diplotene
(d) I–Leptotene, II–Pachytene, III–Diplotene,
Parent cell Parent cell Daughter cell IV–Zygotene, V–Diakinesis
dividing
I. The constriction appears in the cytoplasm. I. During meiosis, the chromosome number reduces
II. The nucleus of cell elongates and develops a constriction to half in anaphase-II stage.
round its middle. II. During anaphase-II stage, the amount of DNA in a
III. The constriction in nucleus gradually deepens and finally cell gets reduced to haploid state.
cuts the nucleus into two daughter nuclei. Select the correct option.
IV. The cytoplasmic constriction divides the parent cell into (a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false
two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
Option containing correct sequence of events is 107 Consider the following statements.
(a) I → III → II → IV I. A bivalent consists of four chromatids.
(b) I → II → III → IV II. Divisions of centromere do not occur during
(c) II → I → III → IV anaphase-I stage of meiosis.
(d) II → III → I → IV Select the correct option.
103 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about (a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false
meiosis? (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
I. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes 108 Consider the following statements.
and recombination between them. I. Cytokinesis in plants occur by cell plate method.
II. Two diploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II. II. Cell plate grows centrifugally in plant cells.
III. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell Select the correct option.
division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II, but only a single
(a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false
cycle of DNA replication.
(c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
IV. Meiosis-II is initiated after the parental chromosome
replication, which produces identical sister chromatids at 109 Consider the following statements.
the S-phase. I. Dyad of cells is formed during the telophase-II
(a) I and III (b) Only II stage of meiosis.
(c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV II. Interkinesis is the stage between meiosis-I and
104 Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct meiosis-II.
sequences. Select the correct option.
I. Crossing over. (a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false
II. Synapsis. (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
III. Terminalisation of chiasmata.
IV. Disappearance of nucleolus. CBSE-AIPMT 2015
III. Matching Type Questions
(a) II, I, IV and III 110 Match the following columns.
(b) II, I, III and IV Column I Column II
(c) I, II, III and IV (Features) (Phases of cell division)
(d) II, III, IV and I A. Separation of daughter 1. Interphase
105 I. Thin thread chromosomes with a beaded appearance. chromosomes
II. Appearance of recombination nodules. B. Division of cytoplasm 2. Karyokinesis
III. Formation of bivalents/tetrads. C. Phase between two 3. S-phase
IV. Terminalisation of chiasmata. successive M-phases
V. Appearance of chiasmata. D. Synthesis phase 4. Cytokinesis

A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 Column I Column II
(b) 4 1 3 2 A. Chromosomes in matching 1. metaphase plate
(c) 2 4 1 3 pairs
(d) 4 2 3 1 B. In mitosis, each chromosome is 2. homologous
copied and chromosomes
C. Precursor for cell wall formation 3. cell plate
Column I Column II that represents the middle
A. Division of nucleus 1. Undividing cells lamella between the walls of two
adjacent cells is called
B. Division of cytoplasm 2. Cytokinesis
D. The plane of alignment of the 4. cell divides to give
C. Quiescent stage 3. Formation of syncytium chromosomes at metaphase is two daughter cells
D. Karyokinesis not followed 4. Karyokinesis referred to as the
by cytokinesis
Codes
Codes A B C D
A B C D (a) 2 4 3 1
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
115 Select the correct option. CBSE-AIPMT 2015
Column I Column II
Column I Column II (Features) (Stages of cell division)
(Features) (Stages of cell division)
A. Synapsis aligns homologous 1. Pachytene
A. Disintegration of nuclear 1. Anaphase chromosomes
membrane
B. Synthesis of RNA and protein 2. Zygotene
B. Appearance of nucleolus 2. Prophase
C. Action of enzyme 3. G 2-phase
C. Division of centromere 3. Telophase recombinase
D. Synthesis of RNA and proteins 4. G1-phase D. Centromeres do not separate, 4. Anaphase-I
Codes but chromatids move towards
opposite poles
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 Codes
(b) 2 3 4 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 3 2 1 4 (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
113 Match the stages of meiosis in Column I to their 116 Match the following columns.
characteristic features in Column II and select the Column I Column II
correct option using the codes given below. (Features) (Stages of cell division)
NEET 2016, AIIMS 2018 A. Appearance of 1. Metaphase-I
recombination nodule
Column I Column II
(Phases) (Events) B. Histone synthesis 2. Anaphase-I
A. Pachytene 1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes C. Disjunction 3. Pachytene
B. Metaphase-I 2. Terminalisation of chiasmata D. Interkinesis 4. Meiosis-II
C. Diakinesis 3. Crossing over takes place E. Double equatorial plate 5. G1-phase
D. Zygotene 4. Chromosomes align at equatorial plate
Codes
Codes A B C D E
A B C D
(a) 5 2 1 3 4
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 5 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 5 4 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 5 2 4 1

NCERT 122 Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
117 Why is mitosis called equational division? (a) G1 -phase
(a) Because some equation method is used for dividing the (b) G2 -phase
cells (c) G0 -phase
(b) Because chromosome number of daughter cells remains
(d) S-phase
equal to parent cell
(c) Both (a) and (b) 123 Mitosis is characterised by
(d) None of the above (a) reduction division
(b) equal division
118 Name the phases of cell cycle at which one of the
following events occur. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) pairing of homologous chromosomes
I. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
II. Centromere splits and chromatids separate. 124 Which of the events listed below is not observed
during mitosis?
III. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes
(a) Chromatin condensation
place.
(b) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
IV. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes (c) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromosomes
takes place. joined together at the centromere
(a) I. Metaphase II. Anaphase (d) Crossing over
III. Zygotene IV. Pachytene 125 Identify the incorrect statement about meiosis.
(b) I. Metaphase-I II. Anaphase-II (a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
III. Diplotene IV. Diakinesis (b) Four haploid cells are formed
(c) I. Metaphase II. Anaphase (c) At the end of meiosis, the number of chromosomes is
III. Pachytene IV. Diplotene reduced to half
(d) I. Metaphase-II II. Anaphase-I (d) Two cycles of DNA replication occurs
III. Diakinesis IV. Diplotene
126 Meiosis occurs in organisms during
119 How does cytokinesis in plant cells (I) differ from (a) sexual reproduction
that in animal cells (II)? (b) vegetative reproduction
(a) I. Cytoplasm division by cleavage (c) asexual reproduction
II. Cytoplasm division by cell plate formation (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) I. Cytoplasm division by cell plate formation 127 Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
II. Cytoplasm division by cleavage (a) production of gametes
(c) I. Peripheral divison (b) reduction in the number of chromosomes
II. Central division (c) introduction of variation
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) All of the above
120 Find examples where the four daughter cells from 128 At which stage of meiosis is the genetic constitution
meiosis are equal in size (I) and where they are found of gametes is finally decided?
unequal is size (II). (a) Metaphase-I (b) Anaphase-II
(a) I. Microsporogenesis II. Megasporogenesis (c) Metaphase-II (d) Anaphase-I
(b) I. Spermatogenesis II. Oogenesis
129 During anaphase-I of meiosis,
(a) homologous chromosomes separate
(d) None of the above (b) non-homologous autosomes separate
(c) sister chromatids separate
NCERT Exemplar (d) non-sister chromatids separate
121 Select the correct statement about G1 -phase. 130 A bivalent in meiosis-I consists of
(a) Cell is metabolically inactive (a) two chromatids and one centromere
(b) DNA in the cell does not replicate (b) two chromatids and two centromeres
(c) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules (c) four chromatids and two centromeres
(d) Cell stops growing (d) four chromatids and four centromeres
Answers
1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (a) 11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (a)
16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (a) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (a) 41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (b)
46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (a) 51 (d) 52 (d) 53 (c) 54 (b) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (d) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (b) 64 (d) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (d) 71 (c) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (b)
76 (c) 77 (d)

78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (d) 81 (a) 82 (b) 83 (b) 84 (a) 85 (a) 86 (b) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (a) 90 (b) 91 (d) 92 (b)
93 (c) 94 (d) 95 (c) 96 (d) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (b) 101 (d) 102 (d) 103 (a) 104 (b) 105 (c) 106 (c) 107 (a)
108 (a) 109 (c) 110 (c) 111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (a) 114 (a) 115 (a) 116 (b)

117 (b) 118 (a) 119 (b) 120 (c) 121 (b) 122 (c) 123 (b) 124 (d) 125 (d) 126 (a) 127 (d) 128 (d) 129 (a) 130 (c)

2 (b) During cell cycle, DNA synthesis occurs only once, Here, G1 and G2 represent first and second growth
i.e. during synthetic (S) phase. In this phase, the amount phases, respectively. S-phase represents synthesis phase
of DNA per cell gets doubled. during which DNA replicates takes place between the
4 (a) Duration of the cell cycle, for mammalian cell is two growth phases. M-phase is mitotic phase during
24 hrs. The cell cycle of yeast occurs in about 90 min. It which a cell begins to divide.
is the period between two successive cell divisions and is 14 (b) In the G1 -phase, a cell remains metabolically active
called as generation time. It depends on the type of cell and continues to grow, i.e. there is an increase in its
and external factors such as temperature, food and cytoplasmic content and function normally. The
oxygen supplies. proteins required for DNA replication are synthesised
during this phase.
5 (a) Cell cycle consists of two basic stages. There is a
15 (a) During the G1 -phase of cell cycle (the longest phase
long non-dividing stage called interphase where the cell
of cell cycle), cell synthesises RNAs, proteins and other
prepares for division and a short dividing stage called biochemicals for cell growth and subsequent replication
M-phase/divisional phase. of DNA.
6 (c) Interphase is divided into three phases, namely first 16 (d) DNA replication does not occur in G1 -phase of cell
gap or G1 -phase, synthetic or S-phase and second gap or
cycle. Thus, the amount of DNA in the given cell
G2 -phase.
remains the same.
It involves series of changes which occur in a newly
18 (b) If the onion root tip cell has 14 chromosomes
formed cell and its nucleus, before it becomes capable
of dividing again. initially, the number would remain the same in G1 -phase
also, i.e. 14.
8 (b) In an average 24 hrs duration of cell cycle, During G1 -phase only cell growth occurs. Also, the
interphase lasts more than 95% of the total duration, number of chromosomes remain the same in a cell
while cell division (M-phase) completes in about an during this phase.
hour only.
19 (b) The DNA content will be four times and the
11 (d) The interphase is also called the resting phase. This chromosomes will be double in number in a cell after
is because it is the time during which the cell prepares S-phase as compared to the gamete of the same
for division by undergoing cell growth and DNA organism.
replication in an orderly manner. During S- phase of cell division, only the DNA content
12 (a) Interphase is divided into G1 , S and G2 -phases, out of cell gets doubled from 2C to 4C while number of
of which in S-phase, duplication of chromosomal chromosomes remains same in the dividing cell.
material occurs. Thus, DNA content gets doubled in the 20 (c) During G2 -phase of the cell cycle, the cell would
S-phase of interphase. contain 4C amount of DNA if the initial amount was
13 (c) The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is 2C. During M-phase, the cell divides into two daughter
G1 → S → G 2 → M cells and each cell will receive 2C amount of DNA.
22 (a) As the cell has stalled the DNA replication fork, transition from metaphase to anaphase by tagging
G1 / S-phase check point should be predominantly specific proteins for degradation.
activated. This check point ensures the entry of cells 39 (c) During the anaphase stage of mitosis, the
into S-phase for DNA replication. Which is essential for chromosomes may assume V, L, J or I-shaped
further division of cells. If this check point gets stalled a structures. During the migration of chromosomes, the
cell will not enter S-phase and no DNA replication will centromeres lead the path toward the poles, while the
occur. arms trail behind which results in different shapes of
these chromosomes.
23 (c) In human body, heart cells do not exhibit division.
Therefore, these cells exit the cell cycle at G1 -phase to 40 (a) Option (a) gives the correct identification of the
enter an inactive quiescent stage ( G0 ). stage with its characteristics. Telophase is reverse of
prophase. The chromosomes that have reached their
24 (d) G0 -phase is the stage in which the cells permanently
respective poles decondenses, nucleolus, nuclear
or temporarily exit the cell cycle. It is the resting or envelope and cell organelles including Golgi complex
quiescent phase in which the cells do not divide unless reforms.
needed. It is the permanent state for some cells, e.g.
41 (b) During mitosis following sequence of events occurs
neurons. condensation of chromosomal material, which takes
27 (b) Mitosis is called as the equational division because place at an early prophase stage. During late prophase
it divides the parent cell into two identical daughter nuclear membrane disintegrates. Then chromosomes get
cells, each with a nucleus having the same chromosomal arranged at equator in the metaphase stage. After that
content as in the parent cell. splitting of centromere and segregation of chromosomes
28 (c) Synapsis is not characteristic feature of mitosis. It is occur in the anaphase stage. In telophase stage,
described as the pairing of homologous chromosomes. chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. It is
It occurs during zygotene substage of prophase of last stage of mitosis. Thus, option (b) gives the correct
meiosis. sequence of events which occur during mitosis.
29 (d) Prophase is marked by the initiation of 42 (c) Option (c) is the series of that correctly fills the
condensation of chromosomal material. The given blanks. Colchicine is an alkaloid in a mitotic
chromosomal material becomes untangled during the division which interferes with the spindle formation by
process of chromatin condensation. preventing assembly of microtubules during the
metaphase of mitosis cell division.
31 (b) The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope
marks the initiation of the second phase of mitosis, 44 (a) In an animal cell, cell furrow occurs on the plasma
i.e. metaphase. By this stage, condensation of membrane during cytokinesis. This furrow gradually
chromosomes is completed and these can be observed deepens and ultimately joins the centre, thus dividing
clearly under the microscope. the cell cytoplasm into two.
32 (b) Metaphase is the best stage to count the total 45 (b) Cytoplasmic division or cytokinesis in plant cells
number of chromosomes and conduct a detailed study occurs via cell plate formation because these cells are
of the morphology of chromosomes. Idiogram enclosed by an inextensible or flexible cell wall.
(arrangement of chromosomes in a series of decreasing 46 (b) In some organisms, when karyokinesis is not
length) can be drawn in this stage as chromosomes are followed by cytokinesis, it results multinucleate
maximally condensed and aligned on the metaphasic condition which leads to the formation of syncytium.
plate. 47 (d) Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid
33 (a) Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores present on daughter cells with identical genetic complement. The
the surface of the chromosome. growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis. Cell
It is a disc-shaped structure made up of proteinaceous growth disturbed the ratio between the nucleus and the
microtubules. cytoplasm. It therefore, becomes essential for the cell to
35 (c) During anaphase, the centromeres of chromosomes divide to restore this disturbed nucleocytoplasmic ratio.
split into two to form daughter chromosomes. These A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell repair,
daughter chromosomes are repulsive and hence they i.e. upper epidermis, gut lining, etc., exposed to constant
migrate towards opposite poles. wear and tear.
Spindle fibres attached to the centromeres shorten and 48 (d) Mitosis does not contribute to evolution because the
pull the chromosomes to the opposite poles. genetic make up of organisms remains the same
throughout generations. Evolution mainly occurs due to
37 (a) During anaphasic movements, the centromeres are
the variations among individuals and these variations
directed towards the poles and thus, lead to the
occur through meiosis.
movement of chromosomes towards opposite poles of
the cell. 50 (a) During meiosis, the chromosome number gets
reduced by half. Thus, it leads to the production of
38 (c) If Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is defective haploid daughter cells. The sperm and the egg are
in a human cell, the chromosomes will not segregate haploid cells and when they fuse during fertilisation,
during the anaphase stage of mitosis. APC triggers the they produce a diploid cell called zygote.
52 (d) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear 72 (a) The figure given is showing anaphase-I of meiosis.
and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II, but It begins when the two chromosomes of each bivalent
only a single cycle of DNA replication (during S-phase separate and start moving towards opposite poles of the
of interphase). cell. Unlike the anaphase of mitosis, the sister
54 (b) Meiosis starts with one diploid cell containing chromatids remain attached at their centromeres and
copies of chromosomes, one from the female parent and move together toward the poles.
one from the male parent. The cell divides twice, so as 73 (a) The given diagram represents metaphase-I of
to produce four haploid cells containing one copy of meiosis. This stage is more or less similar to the
each chromosome. metaphase stage of mitosis. The only difference is
55 (a) Longest phase of meiosis is prophase-I because it appearance of paired homologous chromosomes at the
involves major events like synapsis and crossing over of metaphasic plate.
chromosomes. These events occur in five substages 75 (b) After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells contain
namely leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid
diakinesis. Prophase-I is more complex than mitotic gametes. Meiosis-I causes segregation of homologous
prophase stage. pairs of chromosomes. However, each chromosome is
57 (d) Synaptonemal complex is formed during zygotene double-stranded, having two sister chromatids due to
stage of prophase-I of meiosis. This is a complex DNA replication before the beginning of meiosis.
zipper-like nucleoprotein complex formed between 76 (c) Both the types of cell division, i.e. mitosis and
homologous chromosomes. It functions as mediator in meiosis are preceded by DNA replication which occurs
chromosome pairing, synapsis and recombination. in S-phase of interphase. Without replication of DNA,
59 (d) During zygotene stage, recombinase enzyme does cell division cannot proceed as equal distribution of
not play any role. This enzyme helps in crossing over DNA, is an essential function of cell division.
during the pachytene stage of prophase-I of meiosis-I. 78 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
62 (b) The figure given shows the zygotene substage of not the correct explanation of Assertion.
prophase-I of meiosis-I. During this stage, Mitosis is the process by which a cell nucleus divides
chromosomes start pairing together by the process (karyokinesis) to produce two daughter nuclei
called synapsis. In case of other options, (a) shows containing identical sets of chromosomes to the parent
leptotene, (c) is anaphase-I and (d) is telophase-I. cell. It is usually followed immediately by division of
cytoplasm (cytokinesis) to form two daughter cells. In
63 (b) Crossing over takes place between the non-sister
plants, cytokinesis occurs by cell-plate formation
chromatids of homologous chromosomes during the
whereas in animals, it occurs by cell furrow formation.
pachytene stage of prophase-I. This stage is
characterised by the appearance of recombination 79 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
nodules, the site at which crossing over occurs. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
66 (b) In diploid organisms, recombination of genes Meiotic division is a reductional division. It occurs in
present on the homologous chromosome is reproductive cells as it helps to maintain the fixed
accomplished by crossing over. It is the process by number of chromosomes in sexually reproducing
which parts of homologous chromosomes are organisms. Prophase-I of meiotic division is a long
interchanged leading to variations in progeny. Thus, phase, which is divided into five subphases, i.e.
crossing over is responsible for recombination between leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and
homologous genes. diakinesis. Synapsis or Pairing of chromosomes occurs
during the zygotene stage.
67 (b) The separation of the paired homologous
chromosomes begins in the diplotene stage. In this 80 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
phase, the dissolution of synaptonemal complex begins. be corrected as
The recombined homologous chromosomes of the Cells normally proceed to mitosis without any
bivalents separate from each other except at the sites of interruptions once, it enters to the S-phase. This is
cross overs. because in S-phase, DNA replication occurs which is an
70 (d) Diakinesis is the final stage of prophase-I of essential process, since parental DNA is equally
meiosis-I. It is characterised by the shortening and distributed into daughter cells at the end of division
thickening of the paired chromosomes so as to form process. If this step does not occur, parent cell cannot
fully condensed chromosomes. Formation of the spindle undergo division.
fibres, disappearance of the nucleolus, degeneration of 81 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
the nuclear membrane and terminalisation of chiasmata is the correct explanation of Assertion.
all occur during this stage. The apical and lateral meristems of a plants are the
71 (c) During anaphase-II, the centromere splits and the regions which contribute to the overall (primary and
sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes separate. secondary) growth of plants. This growth occurs by
This event is similar to the anaphase stage of mitosis. rapid mitotic division in these regions.
But during anaphase-I, the homologous chromosomes 82 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
separate without the splitting of centromere. is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the 90 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane. The is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
furrow gradually deepens and ultimately joins in the G0 -phase is the permanent or temporary exit from the
centre thus, dividing the cell cytoplasm into two. This G1 -phase. Cells in this phase remain metabolically
mode of cytokinesis is called cell-furrow method. active but do not proliferate unless called on to do so
Plants cells however, are enclosed by a relatively depending on the requirement of the organism.
inextensible cell wall, therefore they undergo 92 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can be
cytokinesis by a different mechanism. The formation of corrected as
the new cell wall begins with the formation of a simple Mitogens such as auxins, are mitosis promoting
precursor called the cell plate. It represents the middle substances.
lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells. This Rest of the statements are correct for G 0 stage of cell
mode of cytokinesis is called cell plate method. cycle.
83 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason 93 (c) Stataement in option (c) is correct.
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. During the G0 -phase of cell cycle, cells are
Cell growth in multicellular organisms disturbs the ratio metabolically active, but no longer proliferate in normal
between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. condition.
Since, mitosis is an equational division, it restores this 94 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
nucleocytoplasmic ratio and produces daughter cells corrected as
with genetic complement identical to their parents. The amount of DNA per cell doubles in the nucleus. If
84 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C, then it
is the correct explanation of Assertion. increases to 4C. However, no increase in the
chromosome number occurs during S-phase.
Meiotic division is a reductional division. It occurs in
reproductive cells and maintains a fixed number of Rest of the statements are correct.
chromosomes in sexually reproducing organisms. 95 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
During sexual reproduction, meiosis contributes to corrected as
gametogenesis, as a result of which haploid gametes are At the end of prophase, nucleolus, nuclear membrane
formed. and all membrane bound organelles disappear.
85 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason Thus, when cells at the end of prophase are observed
is the correct explanation of Assertion. under microscope, only highly condensed chromosomes
and centrioles would be seen.
Meiosis takes place in pollen mother cells. All pollen
mother cells are diploid and produce haploid pollen Rest of the statements are correct.
grains after meiosis. 97 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct.
86 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason During cell division, a parent cell first undergoes
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. karyokinesis, i.e. the division of nucleus which is then
Kinetochores are small disc-shaped proteinaceous followed by division of cytoplasm, i.e. cytokinesis to
structures at the surface of centromeres. These form two complete daughter cells.
structures serve as the sites of attachment of spindle 98 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect for meiosis cell
fibres to the chromosomes that are positioned at the division and it can be corrected as
centre of the cell. A meiosis is a reductional type of division, in which
87 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and Assertion diploid (2n ) parent cells divide to form haploid (n )
can be corrected as daughter cells, i.e. 2n → n.
In metaphase-II, the chromosomes align at the single Rest of the statements are correct.
equatorial plate. 99 (d) Statements II and IV are correct, while statements I

88 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
and III are incorrect. These statements can be corrected
is the correct explanation of Assertion. as
Ä M-phase is known as the dividing phase during which
Telophase-II results in the formation of two groups of
the DNA which was replicated in interphase
chromosome enveloped by a nuclear membrane. Since,
undergoes division so as to form new progeny cells.
gametes or spores are formed after telophase-II phase,
Ä The interphase consists of three stages viz., G1 , S and
the cell involved does not enter another interphase.
G2 . G0 represents the quiescent stage in which the
89 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason cell which do not undergo division are present. These
is the correct explanation of Assertion. cells exit the cell cycle at G1 -stage.
Prophase-I ends with terminalisation of chiasmata 100 (b) Statements II and IV are correct. Statements I and II
during diakinesis. It represents the transition of dividing are incorrect and can be corrected as
cells from prophase to metaphase. Ä G1 -phase, is the first stage of interphase during which
Thus, diakinesis is the final stage of prophase-I as cell organelles do not increase in number. Cell grows
terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in this stage. in size, but the growth of nucleus is negligible.
Ä It synthesises RNAs, proteins and other biochemicals While in megasporogenesis (plants) and oogenesis
required for cell growth and subsequent replication (human), four daughter cells formed are of unequal
of DNA during S-phase. size.
103 (a) Statements I and III are correct, while II and IV are 121 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct for G1 -phase.
incorrect. The correct form of these statements are Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected
Ä At the end of meiosis-II, four haploid daughter cells as
are formed from a single diploid cells. Ä Cell is metabolically active.
Ä Meiosis-I (not II) is intiated after the parental Ä It is the phase of synthesis of macromolecules.
chromosomes replication, which produces identical Ä It continuously grows.
sister chromatids at the S-phase.
123 (b) Mitosis is characterised by equal division because
106 (c) Statement I is false, but statement II is true. the chromosome numbers in the daughter cells remains
Statement I can be corrected as the same as that of parent cell. While reduction division
During anaphase-I stage the chromosomes become half is the characteristic of meiosis in which chromosomes
in number. Chromosomes split and move to opposite gets reduced to half in daughter cells.
poles of the cell, both in anaphase-I and anaphase-II.
The difference is that in anaphase-I, homologous pairs 124 (d) Crossing over is not observed during mitosis. It is
of chromosomes are separated and centromere splits the phenomenon of genetic exchange between
forming two separate chromatids, while in anaphase-II, homologous pair of chromosomes and it is a
sister chromatids are separated. characteristic feature of meiotic cell division.
109 (c) Statement I is false and II is true. Statement I can Rest of the options represent stages in mitosis.
be corrected as 125 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect for meiosis.
During telophase-II stage of meiosis, tetrad of haploid It can be corrected as
cells is formed. Dyad of cells is formed during the Two cycles of DNA replication do not occur in meiosis.
telophase-I stage of meiosis. DNA replication occurs only once during S-phase before
117 (b) Mitosis is called as an equational division, since, the meiosis-I starts.
the chromosome number of daughter cells remains Rest of the statements are correct for meiosis.
equal to that of parent cells.
126 (a) Meiosis occurs in sexually reproducing organisms to
119 (b) The difference between cytokinesis in plants and reduce the chromosome number to half before their
animal cells is that gametes unite, so as to maintain the constant
Cytokinesis in plant cell takes place by cell plate chromosome number (2n) in the progeny, i.e. zygote.
formation. The cell plate formation starts at the centre
128 (d) The genetics of gametes is decided at the anaphase-I
of the cell and grows outward, towards the lateral
walls. after which each cell receives half the initial
chromosome number.
Cytokinesis in animal cell takes place by cleavage or
cell furrowing. Cleavage starts at the periphery and 129 (a) During anaphase-I, homologous chromosomes
then moves inward, thus dividing the cell into two separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at
parts. their centromeres.
120 (c) Option (c) is correct. 130 (c) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
During microsporogenesis (plants) and homologous chromosome is called a bivalent or a tetrad.
spermatogenesis (human), four daughter cells are A bivalent chromosome in meiosis-I consists of two
formed from meiosis and they are equal in size. centromeres and four chromatids.
CHAPTER > 11
Transport in Plants
NEET KEY NOTES
Å In flowering plants, the substances that would need to be Å Carrier proteins are the proteins which attach to a particular
transported are water, mineral nutrients, organic nutrients substance and transfer it to other side of the membrane.
and plant growth regulators. Å In relation to facilitated diffusion, some carrier proteins
Å Over small distances, the substances move by diffusion and allow the movement of molecules only if two molecules
cytoplasmic streaming supplemented by active transport, moves together.
while transport over long distance takes place through xylem Å This type of movement is known as cotransport. It can be of
and phloem and is called translocation. following three types
Å In rooted plants, transport in xylem (of water and minerals) n
Uniport When a molecule moves across a membrane
is essentially unidirectional, from roots to the stems. Organic independent of other molecules.
and mineral nutrients however undergo multidirectional n
Antiport When the two types of molecules move in
transport. opposite directions.
n
Symport Allows diffusion only when two types of
Means of Transport molecules cross the membrane in the same direction.
Different materials in plants are transported through the Å Channel proteins These proteins form channels in the
various means given below membrane for molecules to pass through. The channel
proteins cause diffusion of solutes.
1. Diffusion Å Some channels are always open while the opening and
Å It is the physical process in which different solvent closing of others are controlled.
molecules or solute ions are transported passively without Å The large transporter proteins which create huge pores in the
the expenditure of energy.
outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and bacteria
Å During diffusion, the substances move from the region of to cross a variety of molecules up to the size of small
higher concentration to the region of lower concentration proteins are called porins, e.g. water channels are made up
and is affected by the permeability of the membrane of eight different types of aquaporins.
separating the two regions, temperature and pressure.
3. Active Transport
2. Facilitated Diffusion Å It uses energy in the form of ATP to pump molecules or ions
Å It is for those substances which have hydrophilic moiety. against a concentration gradient (i.e. uphill transport from a
These find it difficult to pass through the membrane and region of low concentration to a region of high
thus their movement is facilitated by special proteins present concentration).
across the membrane. Å This is carried out by membrane proteins or pumps in the
Å These transport proteins are very specific and allow the cell plasma membrane.
to select substance for uptake without the expenditure of Å When the transporters become saturated, the rate of
ATP. There are two types of transport proteins, i.e. the
transport reaches its maximum level. It is faster than passive
carrier proteins and the channel proteins.
transport.
Comparison of Different Transport Processes Pressure Potential (ψ p )

The table given below shows a comparison of the different Å The pressure which develops due to the entry or exit of
transport mechanisms.
water through osmosis in an osmotic system is called
Property Simple Facilitated Active pressure potential. It is expressed as ψ p .
Diffusion Transport Transport Å This pressure potential is usually positive, though in
Requires special No Yes Yes plants, negative potential or tension in the water column in
membrane proteins
the xylem plays a major role in water transport up a stem.
Highly selective No Yes Yes Å Water potential of a cell is affected by both solute and
Transport saturates No Yes Yes pressure potential. The relationship between them is as
Uphill transport No No Yes follows
Requires ATP No No Yes ψw = ψs + ψp
Plant-Water Relation 2. Osmosis

Å It is the diffusion of water across a differentially or
Å Water is essential for all physiological activities of plants
selectively-permeable membrane. It occurs from higher
and plays a very important role in all living organisms. It
diffusion pressure to lower diffusion pressure or free
provides the medium in which most substances are
energy region. It occurs spontaneously in response to a
dissolved.
driving force.
Å Terrestrial plants take up huge amount of water daily, but
most of it is lost to the air through evaporation from the
Å Net direction and rate of osmosis depends on pressure
leaves, i.e. transpiration. gradient and concentration gradient.
Å Because of high demand of water by plant, it is often the Å Water will move from its region of higher chemical
limiting factor for plant growth and productivity in both potential to its region of lower chemical potential until
agricultural and natural environment. equilibrium is reached.
Å The pressure needed to prevent osmosis is called osmotic
1. Water Potential (ψw ) pressure and it has a positive value.
Å The water molecules possess free energy. The difference
between the free energy of water molecules in pure water 3. Plasmolysis
and the free energy of water in solution is termed as water Å The behaviour of the plant cells (or tissues) with regard to
potential. water movement depends on the surrounding solution.
Å Water potential is denoted by ψ w and is expressed in Å Depending on the concentration of solute, the solution can
pressure units such as Pascal (Pa). It is a negative value. be
Å The water potential of pure water is zero at standard Isotonic Hypotonic Hypertonic
temperature and pressure. The external solution The external solution The external solution
balances the osmotic is more dilute than is more concentrated
Å The solutes decrease the free energy of water. pressure of cytoplasm. the cytoplasm. than cytoplasm.
Å The difference in water potential causes water molecules Cell swells Cell shrinks
to move from a region of its high water potential to its
lower water potential. Å Plasmolysis occurs when water moves out of the cell and
the cell membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell
Å The water potential (ψ w ) of a living cell has solute potential
wall. It occurs in hypertonic solution.
(ψ s) or osmotic potential and pressure potential (ψ p ).
Å Water moves out first from cytoplasm and then to vacuole
Solute Potential (ψ s ) which causes shrinkage of protoplast from cell wall. When
water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are in
Å This is due to the presence of solutes in a solution. The
equilibrium, the cells are said to flaccid.
presence of solutes in water lowers the value of water
potential. Å The process of plasmolysis is usually reversible. When
Å The value of solute potential is always negative. With cells are placed in hypotonic solution, water diffuses into
increase in solute concentration, the value of solute the cell causing the cytoplasm to build a pressure against
potential lowers (becomes more negative). the wall, that is called turgor pressure.
Å For a solution at atmospheric pressure Å As the cell becomes turgid, cell wall exerts an equal but
Water potential ( ψ w ) = Solute potential (ψ s ). opposite pressure to that of turgor pressure. This opposite
pressure is called wall pressure.
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 11 > Transport in Plants 255
4. Imbibition impervious to water because of a band of suberised matrix

called Casparian strip. Water molecules are unable to
Å It is a special type of diffusion when water is absorbed penetrate the layer, so they are directed to wall regions
by solids-colloids causing them to increase in volume. that are not suberised into the cells properly through the
Å For example, absorption of water by seeds and dry membranes and water then moves through symplast. This
wood causes swelling due to the imbibition. pathway is slower than apoplast pathway and is helped by
Å Imbibition is significantly important because cytoplasmic streaming of cells.
n
It helps seedlings to come out from the soil.
Plasmodesmata Plasma membrane
n
In older times, the imbibition pressure was used for
breaking the rocks and stones.
n
It acts as initial stage in germination of the seeds.
Long Distance Transport of Epidermis Cortex Endodermis Pericycle
Water
Å In large and complex organisms, the sites of production Xylem
or absorption are far away from the sites of storage. Apoplast Symplast
Casparian strip
Å Due to this, substances have to follow the long path and pathway pathway
have to move across very large distances to get Pathway of water movement
transferred.
Å Some plants have mycorrhiza (association of fungus with
Å The movement of water, minerals and food across long
roots of higher plants) which provide a large surface area for
distances is generally done by a mass or bulk flow
absorption of mineral ions and water, e.g. Pinus.
system, which operates due to the difference between
the pressure of two points (i.e. the source and the sink). Water Movement up a Plant
Å Bulk flow can be achieved either through a positive Plants absorb water from the soil and move it into the vascular
hydrostatic pressure gradient (e.g. a garden hose) or a tissues. Water is transported to various parts of the plant either
negative hydrostatic pressure gradient (e.g. suction through active transport or through passive transport.
through a straw).
Å The bulk movement of substances through the Root Pressure
conducting or vascular tissues of plants is called Å As various ions from the soil are actively transported into the
translocation. vascular tissues of the roots, water follows and increases the
pressure inside roots. This positive pressure is called root
How do Plants Abrsorb Water? pressure.
Å The absorption of water and minerals is the function of Å This pressure is responsible for pushing up water to small
root hairs, purely by diffusion. heights in the stem.
Å Root hairs are thin-walled slender extensions of root, Å Effect of root pressure or Guttation It is the loss of water in
epidermal cells and largely increase the surface area for liquid phase observable at night and early morning, when
absorption. Once entering root hair, water follows two evaporation is low, excess water collects in the form of
pathways droplets around special openings of veins near the tip of
n
Apoplast pathway It is the system of adjacent cell grass blades and leaves of many herbaceous plants.
wall that is continuous throughout the plant except
at Casparian strips of the endodermis in the roots. Transpiration Pull
The movement of water occurs exclusively through Å Most researchers agree that water is mainly ‘pulled’ through
intercellular spaces and the walls of the cells. This the plant and the driving force for this process is
movement is dependent on gradient (Apoplast transpiration from leaves.
pathway does not provide any barrier to water Å In the plant body, there is a continuous column of water. It
movement). occurs from root through stem and leaves.
n
Symplast pathway It is the system of interconnected Å This is referred to as the cohesion-tension-transpiration pull
protoplasts. Neighbouring cells are connected model of water transport.
through cytoplasmic strands that extend through
plasmodesmata.
Most water flow in the roots occurs through
Transpiration
apoplast as it offers no resistance to water however, Å It is the evaporative loss of water by plants and occurs mainly
the inner boundary of cortex, i.e. the endodermis, is through stomata in the leaves.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å Loss of water in the form of vapour occurs in Å Transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant.
transpiration. Å Cools leaf surfaces, sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by
Å As the stomata open in daytime and close during night, evaporative cooling.
this immediately causes opening or closing of stomata due Å Maintains the shape and structure of the plants by keeping
to change in the turgidity of guard cells. cells turgid.
Inner wall of each guard cell towards the pore or stomatal
Å Food in phloem sap can be transported in any required
aperture is thick and elastic.
direction as long as there is a source of sugar and a sink
Å 50-97% of transpiration occurs through stomata. which facilitates the use, storage or removal of the sugar.
Å The opening and closing of stomata can be understood by
the following flowchart Transpiration and Photosynthesis
When turgidity increases within the two guard cells Å Availability of water is necessary for photosynthesis
↓ though some water is consumed in transpiration.
Thin outer walls bulge out Å C 4 -plants are more efficient than C 3 -plants in
↓ photosynthesis.
Force inner walls into crescent shape Å In C 4 -plants, there is reduction in the level of water loss
↓ and thus, these plants are capable of fixing more carbon to
Stomata open make sugars.
↓
Guard cells loose turgor (due to water loss)
↓
Uptake and Transport of
Elastic inner walls regain original shape Mineral Nutrients
↓ Å The nutritional requirement of the plant is obtained from
Guard cells become flaccid water and minerals in the soil (except for carbon and
↓ oxygen which is taken from atmosphere).
Stomata close
Å Transpiration is affected by external factors which include Uptake of Mineral Ions
temperature, humidity, light and wind speed. Å This is done as minerals cannot be passively absorbed by
Plant factors which include roots because minerals are present in soil as charged
n
Number of stomata Dorsiventral leaves (dicots) have particles (ions) which cannot move across cell membranes
greater number of stomata on lower surface. and the concentration of minerals in the soil is usually
Isobilateral leaves (monocots) have equal number of lower than the concentration of minerals in roots.
stomata on both surfaces. Å Therefore, most minerals enter the root by active
n
Distribution of stomata n
Per cent of open stomata absorption into cytoplasm of epidermal cells, requiring
n
Water status of plant n
Canopy structure energy in the form of ATP.
Å Transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap depends mainly Å Ions are absorbed from soil by both passive and active
on the following physical properties of water. transport. Specific proteins in root hair cells actively pump
n
Cohesion Mutual attraction between water molecules. ions from soil into the cytoplasm of epidermal cells.
n
Adhesion Attraction of water molecules to polar Minerals are translocated with the help of xylem.
surfaces. Å Water potential gradient is developed in roots by active
n
Surface tension Water molecules are attracted to each uptake of ions which result in uptake of water by osmosis.
other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas
phase. It is responsible for capillarity in tracheids and Translocation of Mineral Ions
vessels. Å The quantity and types of solutes that enter xylem is
Å These properties give water regulated by transport proteins present in endodermal
n
High tensile strength Ability to resist a pulling force. cells.
n
High capillarity Ability to rise in thin tubes. Å Thus, endodermal cells act as control points. The apical
and lateral meristems, developing flowers, young leaves,
Advantages of Transpiration fruits and seeds, storage organs are chief sinks for mineral
Å Creates transpiration pull for absorption and transport in elements.
plants. Å The ions with the help of either active or passive uptake, or
Å Supplies water for photosynthesis. both reach the xylem of roots and are further transported
to the whole plant body via transpiration stream.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å The fine vein endings is where unloading of mineral Å This process of loading at the source produces a hypertonic
ions takes place by diffusion or active uptake. condition in the phloem.
Å Movement of sugars begins at source, where sugars are loaded
Phloem Transport : (actively transported) into a sieve tube. Loading of the phloem sets
up a water potential gradient that facilitates the mass movement in
Flow from Source to Sink the phloem.
Å The leaves act as source, since food is manufactured Å Osmotic pressure increases as water moves into phloem by
there. Food, primarily sucrose, is transported by the osmosis. The phloem sap starts moving to regions of lower
vascular tissue phloem from a source to a sink. pressure which are the sinks. Here, active transport comes into
Å Sugar stored in roots may be mobilised to become a action which moves sucrose out of phloem sap and finally into the
source of food in the early spring when the buds of cells. These cells would convert sugar to energy, starch or
trees act as sink (i.e. the part that needs energy for cellulose. This results in decrease in osmotic pressure of phloem
growth and development). which finally causes water to move out of phloem.
Å Phloem sap is mainly water and sucrose but other than Sugars leave sieve tubes;
sugars, hormones and amino acids are also transported water follows by osmosis
Leaf
or translocated through phloem.
Tip of
Å According to the season and plant’s need, source and
stem
sink areas get reversed and hence movement of
nutrients may be unidirectional or bidirectional. In
phloem, it is bidirectional while in xylem, it is always
unidirectional. Sugar solution flows to Sugars enter sieve tubes; High turgor
regions of low turgor
Pressure Flow or Mass Flow pressure
water follows by osmosis pressure
Phloem
Hypothesis
Sugars leave sieve tubes for metabolism
Å This is the most accepted hypothesis for the
and storage; water follows by osmosis
translocation of sugars from the source to sink.
Å Sugar is moved in the form of sucrose (a dissacharide)
into the companion cells and then into the living
phloem sieve tube cells by active transport. Root
Mechanism of translocation
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Means of Transport

1 Short distance transport of substances like nutrients, 3 Which of the following is responsible for the
water, etc., in plants occurs through transport of water and minerals from roots to stems,
(a) diffusion leaves, flowers and fruits in rooted plants?
(b) cytoplasmic streaming supplemented by active (a) Xylem
transport (b) Phloem
(c) active transport only (c) Cortex
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
2 In plants, long distance transport of organic and 4 Transport of gases, hormones and organic solutes in
inorganic substances occurs through plants is
(a) simple permanent tissues (a) multidirectional
(b) complex permanent tissues (b) unidirectional
(c) meristematic tissues (c) in two directions
(d) epithelial tissues (d) first unidirectional then divides to many directions
5 Movement of molecules, from a region of higher Identify A and B.

concentration to a region of lower concentration (a) A–Channel protein, B–Carrier protein
without expenditure of energy can be termed as (b) A–Carrier protein, B–Channel protein
(a) osmosis (b) passive transport (c) Both A and B are Channel proteins
(d) Both A and B are Carrier proteins
(c) diffusion (d) active transport
6 The rate of diffusion of any substance is not affected 13 Identify the following process and choose the correct
by option.
(a) electrical charges of diffusing substances
(b) the presence of other substances in the solution
(c) molecular size of substances in a solution Transport
(d) solubility to diffusing substance in lipids protein
7 What type of materials do not diffuse or find it Transported

difficult to pass through the membranes? molecule
Outer side Outer side Inner side
(a) Hydrophobic substances
of cell of cell of cells
(b) Hydrophilic substances
Membrane Membrane
(c) Inorganic solutes
(d) Both hydrophilic and hydrophobic substances (a) Simple diffusion (b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Osmosis (d) Deplasmolysis
8 Which of the following affects the transport of
molecules when carrier mediated facilitated diffusion 14 Which of the following criteria does not pertain to
is involved? facilitated transport? NEET 2013
(a) Solubility of molecule in lipids (a) Requirement of special membrane proteins
(b) Concentration gradient (b) High selectivity
(c) Availability of carrier molecule (c) Transport saturation
(d) All of the above (d) Uphill transport
9 What are the aquaporins in facilitated diffusion 15 Movement of two types of molecules in the same
process? direction is
(a) Lipids (b) Carrier proteins (a) symport (b) antiport
(c) Channel proteins (d) Carrier lipids (c) uniport (d) Both (a) and (b)
10 Water channels are possessed by a membrane to 16 The given diagram shows transport method of two
facilitate the movement of hydrophilic substances. molecules A and B together. Identify I, II and III and
These channels are made up of choose the correct option.
(a) eight similar types of aquaporin
(b) eight different types of aquaporin Carrier protein
(c) porin proteins I A A
11 Carrier molecules, involved in facilitated diffusion II A
B
(a) increase the speed of transport across a membrane
(b) undergoes conformational change upon binding of A
III
solutes B
(c) possess specific binding sites for the molecules to be
transported Facilitated diffusion
(a) I–Uniport, II–Symport, III–Antiport
12 Consider the figure given below.
(b) I–Uniport, II–Antiport, III–Symport
A B
(c) I–Symport, II–Uniport, III–Antiport
(d) I–Antiport, II–Uniport, III–Uniport
Membrane
17 What is required for the ‘uphill transport’ of

substances through a membrane?
(a) Input of energy (b) Output of energy
(c) Pigments (d) Nothing is required
18 Which of the following is not a feature of active (b) passive transport requires a concentration gradient
transport of solutes in plants? NEET (Odisha) 2019 across a biological membrane whereas active transport
(a) Occurs against concentration gradient requires energy to move solutes
(b) Non-selective (c) passive transport is confined to anionic carrier proteins
(c) Occurs through membranes whereas active transport is confined to cationic channel
(d) Requires ATP proteins
19 A group of students is studying transport of certain (d) active transport occurs more rapidly than passive
type of molecules in a cell and observe that transport transport
slows down when the cells are treated with poison, i.e. 22 Compare the following processes of transport and
a chemical which inhibits energy production. When choose the correct option.
under normal conditions, the process was repeated it
Facilitated Active Simple
was observed molecules are transported by S. No. Property
Diffusion Transport Diffusion
(a) osmosis (b) active transport
(c) facilitated diffusion (d) simple diffusion I. Highly specific Yes, it is Yes No
selective
20 Which of the following pairs is selective and specific
II. Use of energy as Yes Yes Yes
mode of transport? ATP
(a) Passive transport and active transport
III. Saturation point is Yes No Yes
(b) Passive transport and facilitated diffusion reached when all
(c) Facilitated diffusion and active transport carrier proteins
(d) Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are being used
21 The main difference between active and passive IV. Requires transport Yes No Yes
transport across cell membrane is proteins
NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) Only II (b) Only III
(a) passive transport is non-selective whereas active
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) Only I
transport is selective
TOPIC 2 ~ Plant-Water Relation

23 Two main components that determine water potential 28 Water potential increases due to
are (a) addition of solute
(a) pressure gradient minus water potential (b) evaporation
(b) solute potential and pressure potential (c) addition of inorganic substances
(c) evaporation of water from stem and leaves (d) increase in pressure
(d) the overall movement of solutes
29 Solute potential ( ψ s ) is always
24 The water potential of pure water is NEET 2017 (a) positive (b) equal
(a) zero (c) negative (d) None of these
(b) less than zero
(c) more than zero, but less than one 30 The pressure exerted by the protoplast due to the entry
(d) more than one of water against the rigid cell wall is termed as
(a) pressure potential (b) osmotic potential
25 The water potential of pure water decreases on (c) solute potential (d) water potential
addition of
(a) solute (b) solvent 31 The relationship between water potential, solute
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these potential and pressure potential is
(a) ψ w = ψ s – ψ p (b) ψ w + ψ s = ψ p
26 Solute particles tend to …… the diffusion pressure of (c) ψ w = ψ s + ψ p (d) ψ w + ψ p = ψ s
water.
(a) increase (b) decrease 32 Cell A has ψ w − 3 bars and cell B has ψ w − 8 bars.
(c) remain constant (d) become less than zero The movement of water will be from
(a) cell A to cell B
27 Water tends to move into a cell that has
(b) cell B to cell A
(a) high turgor pressure (b) high positive ψ w
(c) data insufficient
(c) more negative ψ w (d) low turgor pressure
(d) water cannot move in negative value of ψ w
33 The process of osmosis depends upon 40 The values of osmotic potential ( π ) and pressure
(a) concentration gradient (b) pressure gradient potential (ρ) of cells A, B, C and D are given below.
Cell π ρ
34 The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
chiefly regulated by A – 1.0 0.5
(a) mitochondria (b) vacuoles B – 0.6 0.3
(c) plastids (d) ribosomes C – 1.2 0.6
35 Identify the process taking place in the given D – 0.8 0.4
experimental setup and choose the correct option.
Identify the option, which shows correct sequence of
Pressure the path of movement of water.
(a) A → B → C → D (b) B → D → A → C
(c) B → C → D → A (d) D → A → B → C
41 Numerically osmotic pressure is equivalent to
(a) osmotic potential (b) pressure gradient
(c) water potential (d) None of these
Sucrose 42 If the osmotic pressure of cytoplasm in a cell is
solution
balanced by external solution, the solution must be
Membrane (a) hypotonic (b) hypertonic
(c) atonic (d) isotonic
Water
43 When the external solution is more …A…, it is called
A B …B… solution.
(a) Osmosis (b) Plasmolysis Fill in the blanks with appropriate pair from the
(c) Imbibition (d) Diffusion options given below.
(a) A–dilute; B–hypertonic
36 In the thistle funnel experiment, what will happen if (b) A–concentrated; B–hypotonic
sugar solution is added to a beaker after the process of (c) A–dilute; B–isotonic
osmosis stops? (d) A–concentrated; B–hypertonic
(a) The level of solution in thistle funnel will rise up 44 What will be the direction of flow of water when a
(b) The level of solution in thistle funnel will lower down plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?
(c) The level of solution in beaker will drop NEET (Odisha) 2019
(d) The level of solution will remain unaffected in beaker (a) Water will flow in both directions
37 Prolonged addition of urea to a flowering plant causes (b) Water will flow out of the cell
(a) endosmosis (b) exosmosis (c) Water will flow into the cell
(c) plasmolysis (d) diffusion (d) No flow of water in any direction
38 When a plant cell is placed in pure water, it 45 Cell placed in hypertonic solution is shown by
(a) expands until the osmotic pressure reaches that of JIPMER 2019
H 2O H 2O
water
(b) becomes less turgid until the osmotic potential reaches
that of pure water
(c) becomes more turgid until the pressure potential of cell (a) (b)
reaches its osmotic potential
(d) becomes more turgid until the osmotic potential reaches
that of pure water
39 Cell A has osmotic potential of – 20 bars and pressure H 2O
potential of 5 bars, whereas cell B has osmotic
potential of –18 bars and pressure potential of 2 bars. (c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
The direction of flow of water will be AIIMS 2018
(a) from cell B to cell A (b) from cell A to B
(c) no flow of water (d) in both the directions
46 RBC and a plant cell are kept in distilled water. The 52 If sugars are actively moving into a cell, what will
solute concentration is same in both the cells. happen to the turgor pressure of the cell?
Observe the change in both the cells. (a) TP increases due to the entry of water
(a) Both plant cell and RBC would not undergo any change (b) TP decreases because water exits
(b) The RBC would increase in size and burst, while the (c) TP increases as sugar concentration affects it directly
plant cell would remain about the same size (d) No effect of sugar concentration on turgidity hence, no
(c) The plant cell would increase in size and burst, while change
the RBC would remain about the same size 53 A special type of diffusion when water is absorbed by
(d) Both plant cell and RBC would decrease in size and solids-colloids causing them to increase in volume is
collapse
(a) absorption (b) imbibition
47 …A… occurs when the water moves out of the cell (c) active transport (d) osmosis and diffusion
and the …B… of a plant cell shrinks away from the 54 Study the following conditions.
cell wall. I. Wooden doors swell-up and get stuck during rainy
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct pair of season.
words from the options given below. II. Rocks and boulders were split using a phenomenon by
(a) A–Reverse osmosis; B–protoplasm prehistoric man.
(b) A–Imbibition; B–nucleus III. Pressure build-up which helps seedlings emerge out of
(c) A–Translocation; B–ER soil.
(d) A–Plasmolysis; B–cell membrane
Which one of the following phenomenon is
48 Which among the following represents the correct responsible for above condition?
relationship for a plasmolysed cell? (a) Imbibition (b) Osmosis
(a) ψ w = ψ s + ψ p (b) ψ s = ψ w + ψ p (c) Diffusion (d) Endosmosis
(c) ψ w = ψ s (d) ψ w = ψ p
55 Why seeds imbibe and swell after keeping in water?
49 The space between the plasma membrane and the cell (a) OP inside the seed is low
wall of plasmolysed cell surrounded by a hypertonic (b) OP of water is high
solution is occupied by (c) Water potential gradient develops between the seed
(a) hypertonic solution (b) hypotonic solution coat and water
(c) isotonic solution (d) water (d) Diffusion pressure deficit of seed is very high
50 A leaf peeling of Tradescantia is kept in a medium 56 The pre-requisite for any substance to imbibe any
having 10% NaCl. After a few minutes, if we observe liquid is
the leaf peel under the microscope, we are likely to see (a) affinity between absorbant and liquid
(a) entry of water into the cell (b) affinity between adsorbant and liquid
(b) the cells bursting out (c) affinity between absorbant and seed
(c) diffusion of NaCl into the cell (d) affinity between adsorbant and seed
(d) exit of water from the cell 57 Imbibition is always accompanied by swelling or
51 What will happen, if a large amount of water enters in increase in the volume of the imbibant. However, the
a plant cell? increase in the volume of the imbibant is
(a) TP of cell gets reduced (a) more than the volume of water imbibed
(b) TP opposes the entry of water (b) same as the volume of the water imbibed
(c) Water potential of the cell becomes more negative (c) less than the volume of the water imbibed
(d) Water potential of the cell increases simultaneously (d) depend upon the type of imbibant
TOPIC 3 ~ Long Distance Transport of Water

58 Transport of different types of solute 59 Examples of bulk flow by a positive hydrostatic pressure
substances over long distances takes place by gradient and a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient are
(a) bulk flow system (a) suction through straw and swelling of wood, respectively
(b) combined response (b) imbibition and a garden hose
(c) facilitated diffusion (c) garden hose and suction through a straw, respectively
(d) pressured transport (d) swelling of wood and imbibition, respectively
60 In the given flowchart, the pathway of water 65 A portion of transverse section of root is shown in the
movement is shown from soil to xylem. Identify A-E diagram. Identify A-H in the given diagram and
and choose the correct option. choose the correct option.
C D
Plasma membrane
A D
A
Cortex
Epidermis B Pericycle
E
Xylem
C H
E F G
B
(a) A–Stomatal pore, B–Endodermis, C–Casparian strip,
D–Symplast, E–Apoplast (a) A–Apoplastic path; B–Symplastic path; C–Endodermis;
D–Phloem; E–Cortex; F–Casparian strip; G–Pericycle;
(b) A–Plasmodesmata, B–Palisade, C–Medullary rays,
H–Xylem
D–Symplast, E–Apoplast
(c) A–Plasmodesmata, B–Endodermis, C–Casparian strip, (b) A–Symplastic path; B–Apoplastic path; C–Xylem;
D–Phloem; E–Endodermis; F–Cortex; G–Casparian
D–Apoplast, E–Symplast
strip; H–Pericycle
(d) A–Stomatal pore, B–Guard cell, C–Medullary rays,
(c) A–Symplastic path; B–Apoplastic path; C–Endodermis;
D–Apoplast, E–Symplast
D–Xylem; E–Cortex; F–Casparian strip; G–Pericycle;
61 In which of the following paths, flow of water occurs H–Phloem
from cell to cell through their protoplasm? (d) A–Apoplastic path; B–Symplastic path; C–Endodermis;
(a) Apoplast pathway D–Cortex; E–Casparian strip; F–Xylem; G–Phloem;
(b) Symplast pathway H–Stele
(c) Both (a) and (b) 66 Pathway of water conduction from soil to xylem is
(d) Transmembrane pathway (a) soil → root hair → cortex → pericycle → endodermis
62 Which of the following pathways occurs through cell → metaxylem → protoxylem
wall? AIIMS 2018
(b) soil → root hair → cortex → endodermis → pericycle
→ protoxylem → metaxylem
(a) Apoplast pathway
(c) soil → root hair → epidermis → endodermis → phloem
(b) Vascular pathway → xylem
(c) Symplast pathway (d) soil → root hair → epidermis → cortex → phloem
(d) Non-vacuolar pathway → xylem
63 Which one of the following acts as a barrier in the 67 The fungus part in mycorrhizal association provides
apoplastic pathway? to plant
(a) Epidermis (a) sugar (b) minerals and water
(b) Plasmodesmata (c) N-containing compounds (d) carbohydrates
(c) Casparian strips
(d) Metaxylem 68 Root hair zone in plants is a specialised structure for
water absorption. They do not perform photosynthesis
64 In the given schematic diagram, pathway of water and so are incapable of
movement inside the root is shown from soil to (a) mineral uptake (b) water uptake
xylem. Identify the tissue involved in the steps A-C (c) CO2 uptake (d) O2 uptake
and choose the correct option accordingly.
69 The positive pressure responsible for pushing up
Epidermis A Endodermis B water to small heights is called
(a) root pressure (b) stem pressure
C Protoxylem (c) guttation (d) osmosis
70 The pressure responsible for oozing of solution
(a) A–Hypodermis, B–Medullary rays, C–Metaxylem through cut stem near base of a soft stemmed plant on
(b) A–Cortex, B–Pericycle, C–Metaxylem early morning of a humid day is
(c) A–Pericycle, B–Cortex, C–Metaxylem (a) turgor pressure (b) root pressure
(d) A–Hypodermis, B–Cortex, C–Vascular tissues (c) osmotic pressure (d) None of these
71 Root pressure 76 During guttation

(a) is insufficient to rise water above ground level (a) water is driven out during night
(b) is positive in all except the tallest trees (b) water is excreted in impure form
(c) acts as the driving force for the mass flow of sugar (c) water is excreted in liquid phase
(d) is unable to push water up to small height in the stem (d) All of the above
72 Root hair absorbs water from soil with the help of 77 Loss of water in liquid phase by guttation takes place
(a) suction pressure (b) turgor pressure through a specialised structure called
(c) osmotic pressure (d) None of these (a) sunken stomata (b) cuticle
73 During water absorption from the soil, the water (c) hydathode (d) bark
potential of the root cell is .............. than the soil. 78 Which one is false about guttation?
(a) higher (b) lower (a) It occurs in herbaceous plants when root pressure is low
(c) slightly higher (d) slightly lower and transpiration is high
74 A thin layer of water held by the soil particles under (b) It occurs in plants growing under conditions of high soil
the influence of internal attractive force, is known as moisture and low humidity
(a) hygroscopic water (b) gravitational water (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) ground water (d) capillary water (d) Guttation is not related with transpiration
75 Loss of water in liquid phase (in form of droplets) 79 The force responsible for the water movement against
from the margin of leaves in many herbaceous plants is gravity even up to a 130 m of tall tree comes from
(a) guttation (b) root pressure (a) root pressure (b) transpiration pull
(c) transpiration (d) transpiration pull (c) diffusion pressure (d) pulsation
TOPIC 4~ Transpiration
80 Transpiration is the loss of water from aerial parts of 83 Cobalt chloride paper is used to study which
plants in the phenomenon in plants?
(a) solid form (b) liquid form (a) Osmosis (b) Diffusion
(c) vapour form (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) Transpiration (d) Guttation
81 Transpiration is important for plants as 84 The opening and closing of stomata is due to change
(a) it creates transpiration pull for transport in
(b) supplies water for photosynthesis (a) osmolarity (b) turgidity
(c) maintains shape of plant (c) transpiration (d) None of these
(d) All of the above 85 Which one gives the most valid and recent
explanation for stomatal movements?
82 What is depicted by the diagram given below?
CBSE-AIPMT 2015
Water droplets (a) Transpiration
(b) Potassium influx and efflux
Bell jar (c) Starch hydrolysis
(d) Guard cell photosynthesis
86 The given figure of stomata demonstrates which
Well-watered plant condition?
Pot covered
with oil cloth
Vaseline
Glass slab
(a) Measuring the rate of transpiration (a) Guard cell with higher water content
(b) Demonstration of ascent of sap (b) Guard cell with lower water content
(c) Demonstration of transpiration (c) Guard cell with no water content
(d) Both (a) and (c) (d) Guard cell with medium water content
87 If concentration of solute has decreased in guard 95 Adhesion is caused by

cells, what change can be observed in it? (a) formation of hydrogen bond between water molecules
(a) Osmotic pressure increases (b) transpiration pull
(b) Water potential increases (c) higher surface tension
(c) Water potential decreases (d) attraction of water molecules to polar surface
(d) Both (b) and (c) 96 Which theory is considered best to explain ascent of
88 Stomatal opening is affected by sap?
(a) nitrogen concentration, carbon dioxide concentration (a) Bulk flow system (b) Transpiration pull
and light (c) Transpiration (d) Root pressure theory
(b) carbon dioxide concentration, temperature and light 97 Ascent of sap is
(c) nitrogen concentration, light and temperature (a) active and requires energy expenditure by the soil
(d) carbon dioxide concentration, nitrogen concentration (b) passive and no requirement of energy by the plants
and temperature
(c) active and requires energy expenditure by the plants
89 Choose the correct option for label A-C in the given (d) passive unless soil is dry
diagram of stomatal apparatus. 98 According to the transpiration-cohesion theory, the
upward pull of water is transmitted to other water
molecules by cohesion, which is caused by
A (a) hydrogen bond (b) hydrophilic cell walls
B (c) turgor pressure (d) osmosis
C 99 No rupture and fraction occur in water column of
vessels and tracheids during ascent of sap. It is due to
A B C (a) they are lignified thick walls
(a) Stomatal aperture Subsidiary cell Guard cell (b) they have weak gravitational pull
(b) Microfibril Guard cell Stomatal aperture (c) cohesion and adhesion
(c) Stomatal aperture Guard cell Epidermal cell (d) transpiration pull
(d) Stomatal aperture Guard cell Cellulosic microfibril 100 Which one of the following does not play a major role
in upward movement of xylem sap in tall trees?
90 Isobilateral leaf is an (a) Transpiration
(a) amphistomatic leaf (b) monostomatic leaf (b) Tension
(c) bistomatic leaf (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) Cohesion and adhesion
91 Which of the following factors is most important in (d) Plasmodesmeta
the regulation of transpiration? 101 A student has taken a twig from a plant.
(a) Light (b) Temperature She/he observes a droplet of fluid exuding from the
(c) Relative humidity (d) Wind speed cut surface of twig. What is this fluid?
92 Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in (a) Plant latex (b) Phloem sap
plants by CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) Xylem sap (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) pulling it upward 102 The ability to resist a pulling force is
(b) pulling and pushing it, respectively (a) capillarity (b) cohesion
(c) pushing it upward (c) adhesion (d) tensile strength
(d) pushing and pulling it, respectively 103 Which is not the function of transpiration?
93 Plants growing on hills are likely to show (a) Cools leaf surface
(a) higher rates of transpiration (b) Maintains shape and structure of plant
(b) lower rates of transpiration (c) Helps in translocation of sugars from source to sink
(c) same rate of transpiration as in plains (d) Provides water for photosynthesis
(d) lower rates of transpiration provided by the sunken 104 A twig having fresh flower and buds is kept in minute
stomata amount of water containing salt. It remains fresh for a
94 Cohesion is longer period due to
(a) attraction between water and leaf surface (a) exosmosis
(b) attraction between water molecules (b) absorption of more water
(c) attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces (c) electrolyte balance
(d) attraction of water molecules to non-polar surfaces (d) decrease in transpiration rate
TOPIC 5 ~ Uptake and Transport of Mineral Nutrients

105 Choose the correct option for uptake of mineral 109 Xylem sap is made up of
ions. (a) water alone (b) water and minerals
(a) Unlike water, all minerals cannot be passively (c) minerals alone (d) sugar and water
absorbed by roots
110 Root pressure develops due to CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(b) Most of the minerals enter the root by active
transport (a) active absorption (b) low osmotic potential in soil
(c) Ions are absorbed from soil by both passive and (c) passive absorption (d) increase in transpiration
active transport 111 The chief sinks for the mineral elements are
(d) All of the above (a) the growing regions of the plants like apical meristem and
106 Which one of the following has a significant role in lateral meristem
solvent transport? (b) young leaves
(c) developing flowers, fruit and seeds
(a) Diffusion (b) Active transport
(c) Osmosis (d) Surface tension
107 The concentration of minerals in the soil is usually 112 During mineral translocation, elements most readily
…… than/to the concentration of minerals in the mobilised are
roots. (a) phosphorus and sulphur
(b) nitrogen and potassium
(a) greater (b) equal
(c) lower (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) oxygen and carbon
108 Transport of minerals through xylem is
(a) active and energy is provided by ATP 113 Some elements like calcium are not remobilised because
(b) passive and energy is not required they are
(c) active and no requirement of energy (a) structural components (b) heavy metals
(d) passive and energy is provided by ATP (c) less charged (d) macromolecules
TOPIC 6 ~ Phloem Transport : Flow from Source to Sink

114 Phloem sap is made up of 119 When sugars enter sieve tubes, water flows by osmosis,
(a) water and minerals (b) water and sucrose resulting in
(c) water and glucose (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) water potential
115 In plants, which of the following are translocated (b) osmotic gradient
through phloem? (c) turgor pressure
(a) Hormones (b) Amino acids (d) DPD
(c) Sugars (d) All of these 120 In the given diagram, identify the marked
116 Pressure flow hypothesis is for phenomenon/part and choose the correct option.
(a) translocation of sugars C
(b) translocation of water Water follows
(c) translocation of minerals by osmosis Leaf
(d) None of these Tip of
117 The accepted mechanism used for the translocation stem
of sugars from source to sink is
(a) root flow hypothesis (b) pressure flow hypothesis
Sugar solution flows B
(c) transpirational pull (d) stem flow hypothesis to regions of low Water follows by osmosis
118 Loading of phloem sets up a ……… that facilitates turgor pressure
A Sugars leave sieve tubes for
mass movement in phloem. metabolism and storage;
(a) concentration gradient water follows by osmosis
(b) pressure gradient
(c) water potential gradient
Root
(a) A–Phloem, B–Sugar leaves sieve tube, C–Sugar enters 124 The diagram given below represents the simple
sieve tube ringing or girdling experiment. Bark containing
(b) A–Xylem, B–Sugar leaves sieve tube, C–Sugar enters phloem is removed. This experiment proves and
sieve tube justify that phloem is the path for translocation of
(c) A–Phloem, B–Sugar enters sieve tube, C–Sugars leave food. In the given diagram, swollen part of stem has
sieve tubes
been indicated.
(d) A–Xylem, B–Sugar enters sieve tube, C–Sugars leave
sieve tubes
121 Sugar is loaded into sieve tube by
(a) simple diffusion (b) active transport Swollen
portion of stem
(c) facilitated transport (d) passive transport Bark + phloem
removed
122 If you are given a task to analyse phloem sap
chemical, which of the following will be present in
least concentration?
(a) Water (b) Sugar
(c) Minerals and nitrogen (d) Hormones Choose the correct option for the formation of the
123 Why the transport of organic food through phloem is swollen part of stem.
bidirectional? (a) Accumulation of food material just above the ringing
(a) Roots serve as source, while leaves are the sink region space
(b) Source and sink regions are irreversible (b) Accumulation of minerals and water just above the
ringing space
(c) The relationship between the two regions (source and
sink) is variable (c) Due to a repairing mechanism
(d) Translocation of organic solute is regulated by energy (d) Injured part undergoes turgor change
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason Reason (R) Membrane is not permeable to the
pigment β-cyanin.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by 127 Assertion (A) When dried seeds of pea are placed in
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, a tin and water is added up to their upper level and
mark the correct answer as then a lid is put tightly over it, within an hour, the lid
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation will blow off.
of A Reason (R) The lid of tin will blow due to rapid
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct division in pea seeds.
explanation of A
128 Assertion (A) During rainy season, wooden doors get
stuck and become difficult to open and shut properly.
Reason (R) Due to the process of imbibition volume
125 Assertion (A) No energy expenditure takes place in of wooden items increases, when they come in
the process of diffusion. contact of water.
Reason (R) Diffusion occurs along the concentration 129 Assertion (A) Unidirectional flow of water, mineral
gradient, i.e. from a region of higher concentration to and nitrogen occurs through xylem.
a region of lower concentration. Reason (R) Direction of flow of organic and
126 Assertion (A) In washed beet root slices, kept in cold inorganic substances is unidirectional and occurs
water, β-cyanin does not diffuse outside of the cell. through phloem.
130 Assertion (A) Cohesion force is also called as tensile Which statement best defines the mechanism of
strength. glucose transport in the cells?
Reason (R) Attraction of water molecules to polar (a) Transport of hydrophilic substances along the
surface or hydrophilic wall of the xylem tube causes concentration gradient through fixed membrane
transport protein without the involvement of energy
adhesion force.
expenditure
131 Assertion (A) Transpiration facilitates supply of (b) Transport of hydrophilic substances along and against
water for photosynthesis, maintains shape and the concentration gradient via carrier proteins
structure of plant and also transports minerals from (c) Active transport via transporter proteins
the soil to other parts of the plant. (d) Facilitated diffusion without carrier proteins
Reason (R) Process of transpiration helps in
translocation of inorganic and sugar molecules from 137 Following statements are related with the diffusion of
the source to sink. coloured molecules across a membrane. Select the
correct statement which shows the fastest rate of
132 Assertion (A) In phloem, sugar is translocated in diffusion.
non-reducing form. (a) An internal concentration of 15% and external
Reason (R) Non-reducing sugars are the most reactive concentration of 10%
sugars. (b) An internal concentration of 25% and external
133 Assertion (A) In the ringing experiment, a narrow concentration of 50%
continuous band of tissue external to the xylem is (c) An internal concentration of 50% and external
removed. concentration of 25%
(d) Both (b) and (c) show fastest rate of diffusion
Reason (R) Ringing experiment proves the transport
of solutes by phloem. 138 Choose true and false statements from the following
and select the correct option.
II. Statement Based Questions I. Diffusion is an important process of transport in plants
since, it is the only means for gaseous movement
134 Which of the following statements distinguish
within the plant body.
between the method of transport between xylem and
II. In active transport, pumps are proteins that use energy
phloem?
to carry substances across the cell membrane against
(a) Active transport moves xylem, but not phloem sap
concentration gradient.
(b) Transport in xylem is unidirectional and saps move
upward, while in phloem transport is bidirectional III. In facilitated diffusion, special proteins help
hydrophilic substances to be transported across the
(c) Transpiration does not move xylem sap, but it moves
membrane.
phloem sap
(d) Transport of substances takes place from source to sink IV. In diffusion, molecules move against concentration
by both the tissues gradient in a random manner.
V. Facilitated diffusion is faster than active transport.
135 Which of the following statements is incorrect for the
(a) I, II, III and IV all are true
movement of water? (b) I, II, III are true, while IV and V are false
(a) Water is pumped up in the plant by roots (c) IV and V are true, while I, II and III are false
(b) Water is pulled up the plant by evaporation of water (d) II, III, IV are true, while I and V are false
from the leaf surfaces
(c) Water has a strong tendency to be evaporated into 139 Read the following statements regarding porins and
the air select the correct option given below.
(d) Continuous column of water in xylem tissue resists I. Porins are transport proteins.
breaking even when exposed to the forces of II. Channel proteins are a type of transport protein, which
evaporation and gravity are usually gated.
136 Some cells are placed in a solution of glucose to III. Carrier protein binds the particular solute to be
measure the rate of diffusion. As the concentration of transported.
glucose solution is being increased, the diffusion rate IV. Particular solute is delivered to the other side of the
increases simultaneously. However, when the membrane by carrier proteins.
concentration of glucose solution reaches above 10 m, (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
the diffusion rate no longer increases. (c) I, II, III and IV (d) I and IV
140 Which statement can be shared by facilitated Which statement describes the movement of water
diffusion and active transport? between these cells and their environment?
(a) Both need carrier transporter, which are sensitive to (a) All three cells are turgid, so no water moves
inhibitors that react with protein’s side chains (b) Water moves from cell 1, cell 3 and the environment
(b) Energy is required by both the processes into cell 2
(c) No energy expenditure in these processes (c) Water moves from cell 3 to the environment and from
(d) Both use carbohydrates to move molecules across the the environment to cell 1
membrane (d) Water moves from the environment into cells 1, 2 and 3
141 Consider the following statements and choose the 144 Study the following picture and the statements given
correct statements. below and choose the incorrect option.
I. Carrier proteins are needed by both facilitated
diffusion and active transport and are sensitive to
inhibitors that react with protein’s side chain. Solute particles
II. Different types of proteins present in the membrane
play a major role in both active as well as passive
transport.
III. The carrier proteins needed by facilitated and active
transport are specific.
Semipermeable membrane
IV. There is no need of energy to pump molecule against a
concentration in active transport. (a) The above diagram shows the net movement of water
from the dilute to concentrated solution
V. Transport rate reaches to saturation point, when all the (b) The two solutions are separated by a differentially
active proteins are used. permeable membrane
Choose the correct option. (c) Water molecule strikes the membrane randomly on both
(a) I, II, II, IV and V the sides and passes through the same
(b) I, II and III (d) Diffusion of water does not occur from its lower
(c) V, IV and I chemical potential to higher chemical potential
(d) I, II, III and V 145 Choose the correct option for the following
142 Some statements are given regarding active transport statements.
in plants. I. Movement of substances through diffusion is active as
Choose the incorrect statement. well as passive.
(a) Active transport needs energy to pump molecules II. Water potential (Ψ w ) of a solution equals the solute
against the concentration gradient potential at the atmospheric pressure.
(b) It is carried out with the help of membrane proteins III. Inward movement of water makes the cell flaccid and
(c) Due to more concentration of charged particles in soil vice versa.
than the concentration in roots, active absorption of
(a) I, II are true, but III is false
minerals takes place
(d) All of the above (b) III, II are true, but I is false
(c) II is true, but I, III are false
143 The diagram shows the water potential (ψ w ) in some
(d) All are false statements
plant cells and their environment.
146 Choose the correct option in accordance to the
statements given below.
I. Wall pressure is exerted to prevent any increase in
protoplasm size.
Cell 2
Cell 1 ψw = −3kPa II. Osmosis is the movement of substances, which takes
ψw = −7kPa Cell 3 place along a diffusion gradient.
ψw = −4kPa
(a) Both statements I and II are correct
(b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
Environment ψw = −5kPa (d) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
147 Select the correct statement for net direction and rate 152 Read the following statements.
of osmosis from the following. I. Hydrilla leaf cells show the cytoplasmic streaming.
(a) Only the net direction of osmosis, not the rate of II. Mycorrhiza has fungal and algal association with
osmosis depends on both the pressure gradient and roots, which is found in the roots of Cycas and Pinus.
concentration gradient III. Innermost layer of cortex of root and stem is the layer
(b) The rate of osmosis depends only on pressure gradient called endodermis.
(c) The net direction and rate of osmosis depend upon both
the pressure gradient and concentration gradient
Select the appropriate option(s).
(a) Only statement I is true
(d) The net direction and rate of osmosis do not depend on
the pressure gradient and concentration gradient (b) Statements I and III are true
(c) All statements are true
148 Read the following statements and choose the correct (d) None of the statements is true
one from the codes given below.
153 Consider the following statements and choose the
I. The apoplastic movement of water takes place
correct answer from the options given below.
exclusively through intercellular spaces and cell wall
without crossing any membrane. I. A dry alive seed still contains water.
II. Symplastic movement occurs from cell to cell through II. A mature maize plant absorbs about 3 L water per day.
plasmodesmata, i.e. adjacent cells are connected III. A mustard plant takes up water equal to its weight in
through plasmodesmata. about five hours.
III. Permeability of a membrane depends on its IV. Water is not considered as the limiting factor for plant
composition and chemical nature of the solute. growth and productivity.
IV. Solutes present in a cell increase the free energy of the (a) I, II, III and IV (b) IV and II
water or water potential. (c) I, II and III (d) Only IV
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV 154 Choose the correct statements regarding guttation and
(c) II and IV (d) I and IV pick the correct option form the codes given below.
149 Choose the correct statement regarding Casparian I. It occurs through specialised pore called hydathode.
strips. II. Hydathodes can be located on margin and tips of
I. It surrounds pericycle. leaves.
II. It is made up of lignosuberin. III. It occurs in plants growing under condition of low soil
III. It limits the pathway available to water solutes, forcing moisture and high humidity.
them to enter the symplast. IV. It occurs in herbaceous plants when root presssure is
(a) I and III (b) I, II and III low and transpiration is high.
(c) I and II (d) None of these (a) I and II (b) III and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
I. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the 155 Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through
presence of mycorrhizae. the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal
II. Mycorrhizal association between fungus and root of opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during
plant (Pinus) is often obligate. photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements
using the following options. NEET 2016
Choose the correct option. (a) Both processes can happen together because the
(a) Statment I is true, but II is false diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
(b) Statement II is true, but I is false
(b) The above processes happen only during night time
(c) Both the statements I and II are true
(c) One process occurs during daytime and the other at
(d) Both the statements I and II are false night
151 Read the following statements and choose the correct (d) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
answer from the options given below. 156 Read the following statements and choose the correct
(a) In the absence of Casparian strips, plants are unable to option.
control amount of water and solute it absorbs
I. Most of the transpiration takes place through
(b) Guttation generally occurs during high atmospheric
surface/margin of leaves.
humidity and plentiful soil water
II. A little amount of water is lost through stem, this is
(c) Translocation of sugars from source to sink is called
pressure flow hypothesis referred to cauline transpiration.
(d) All statements are correct III. Transpiration is comparatively a slow process than
evaporation.
IV. Transpiration driven ascent of sap does not depend on 161 Choose the option for the correct statements.
cohesion, adhesion and surface tension properties of I. Ions are absorbed from the soil by both active and
water. passive transport.
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III II. Specific proteins in the membranes of root hair cells
(c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV actively pump ions from the soil into the cytoplasm of
157 Consider the following statements. epidermal cells.
III. Transport proteins of endodermal cells are control
I. Cohesion, adhesion and surface tension are the
points, where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of
physical properties of water.
solutes that reach the xylem.
II. These properties give water high tensile strength and
IV. Root endodermis because of the layer of suberin has
high capillarity.
the ability to actively transport ions in one direction
Choose the correct option. only.
(a) Statement I is true, but II is false (a) I, II and III (b) II and IV
(b) Statement I is false, but II is true (c) III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) Both statements I and II are true
162 Which of the following statements is/are correct
(d) Both statements I and II are false
regarding pressure flow model for translocation?
158 Read the following statements about the figure given I. Sugar is transported through phloem as glucose.
below and choose the correct statement. II. Movement of sugar is carried out through sieve tube
near the source region.
III. Concentration of sugar is always highest near the sink
Palisade region.
Xylem
IV. Water from the adjacent xylem moves into phloem by
osmosis.
Phloem (a) II and IV (b) II and III
(c) I, II and III (d) Only IV
Guard cell 163 Identify true and false statements and select the
Stomatal correct option from the codes given below.
Diffusion into surrounding air
pore I. As suction pressure increases, water absorption also
(a) The figure shows the movement of water in the leaf increases, which in turn increases the absorption of
(b) Stomatal transpiration causes the pulling of water ions.
molecules into the leaf from xylem II. Absorption of ions is affected by transpiration pull.
(c) Lower water vapour in the atmosphere causes III. Large amount of charged particles is absorbed along
transpiration pull with absorption of water.
(d) All of the above IV. Pressure flow hypothesis depends entirely on the
159 Consider the following statements. existence of mechanism for loading sugars into phloem
I. Most minerals enter the root by active transport. at the source region and unloading of it at the sink.
II. Minerals present in the soil are charged particles (ions). V. Contents in the sieve tube move unidirectionally.
(a) I, II, III and IV are true, while V is false
(b) I, III, IV and V are true, while II is false
(c) I, II, IV and V are true, while III is false
(d) II, III, IV and V are true, while I is false
160 Consider the following statements for analysis of the
164 Arrange the following events of mass flow of organic
xylem exudates. It indicates that
material in sequence.
I. Some of the inorganic nitrogen travel in the organic
I. Sugars are transported from cell to cell in the leaf.
form as amino acid and related organic compounds,
much of it is carried as inorganic ions. II. Food is synthesised in the form of glucose by leaf cells.
III. Movement of water takes place into sieve tube
II. Small amount of phosphorus and sulphur carried as
elements.
organic compound.
Choose the correct option. IV. Downward movement of sugar occurs in the stem.
(a) Statement I is true, but II is false V. Solutes are actively transported into the sieve
(b) Statement II is true, but I is false elements.
(c) Both statements I and II are true (a) I, II, III, V, IV (b) II, I, V, III, IV
(d) Both statements I and II are false (c) II, III, I, V, IV (d) I, II, V, IV, III
165 Choose the incorrect statement. Codes

(a) If bark of tree is girdled from main stem, the plant dies A B C A B C
because ascent of sap is stopped (a) 2 3 1 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 2 1 3
(b) If xylem is girdled from main stem, wilting of leaves
takes place 169 Match the following columns.
(c) In the flowering plant, food is transported in the form of
disaccharide sucrose Column I Column II
(d) In girdling experiment in a plant, root dies first A. Semipermeable membrane 1. Dixon and Jolly
B. Transpiration pull 2. Holard
III. Matching Type Questions C. Pulsation theory 3. JC Bose
166 Match the following columns. D. Whole water content in soil 4. Osmosis
Column I Column II
Codes
A. Water potential of 10% salt 1. Positive A B C D
solution (a) 2 1 4 3
B. Pressure potential in a 2. Negative (b) 4 1 3 2
normal cell (c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 5 2 4
C. Pressure potential in a 3. Zero
plasmolysed cell 170 Match the following columns.
D. Metric potential on the Column I Column II
surface of the wood (Cells) (Location)
Codes A. Bulliform cells 1. Stomata

A B C D B. Guard cells 2. Aerating pore
(a) 1 2 3 1
C. Lenticel 3. Accessory cells
(b) 3 2 1 2
(c) 2 3 2 1 D. Subsidiary cells 4. Isobilateral leaf
(d) 2 3 1 2
Codes
167 Match the following columns. A B C D
Column I Column II (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
A. Hypotonic 1. Water
(c) 4 2 3 1
B. Hypertonic 2. Sucrose (d) 4 1 2 3
C. Solute 3. Lower tonicity 171 Match the following columns.
D. Solvent 4. Higher tonicity
Column I Column II
Codes
A. Manometer 1. Transpiration
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 B. Potometer 2. Osmosis
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 C. Stomata 3. Root pressure
(d) 3 1 2 4 D. Leaves 4. Stomatal opening
168 Match the following columns. E. Porometer 5. Micrometry
Column I Column II
Codes
(Surrounding Medium) (Cells)
A B C D E
A. Hypotonic 1. No net flow of water (a) 4 1 1 2 3
B. Hypertonic 2. Water moves into the cell (b) 2 3 4 1 5
(c) 1 5 2 3 4
C. Isotonic 3. Water moves out of the cell (d) 3 2 1 5 4

NCERT 181 Water potential of pure water at standard temperature
172 What are the factors affecting the rate of diffusion? is equal to
(a) Permeability of membrane (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) zero (d) None of these
(b) Temperature 182 Choose the correct option.
(c) Pressure Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with
(d) All of the above root system which helps in
173 What are porins? I. absorption of water II. mineral nutrition
(a) Enzymes (b) Specialised cells III. translocation IV. gaseous exchange
(c) Proteins (d) None of these Codes
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) I and II (d) II and III
NCERT Exemplar 183 Mark the mismatched pair.
174 Which of the following statements does not apply to (a) Amyloplasts–Store protein granule
reverse osmosis? (b) Elaioplasts–Store oils or fats
(a) It is used for water purification (c) Chloroplasts–Contain chlorophyll pigments
(b) In this technique, pressure greater than osmotic pressure (d) Chromoplasts–Contain coloured pigments other than
is applied to the system chlorophyll
(c) It is a passive process 184 Based on the figure given below, which of the
(d) It is an active process following statements is not correct?
175 The lower surface of leaf will have more number of A B
stomata in a/an Solute
(a) dorsiventral leaf (b) isobilateral leaf molecule
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Water
176 When a plant undergoes senescence, the nutrients
may be Semipermeable membrane
(a) accumulated (b) bound to cell wall (a) Movement of solvent molecules will take place from
(c) translocated (d) None of these chamber A to B
177 Which one of the following will not directly affect (b) Movement of solute will take place from A to B
transpiration? (c) The presence of a semipermeable membrane is a
prerequisite for this process to occur
(a) Temperature (b) Light
(c) Wind speed (d) Chlorophyll content of leaves (d) The direction and rate of osmosis depend on both the
pressure gradient and concentration gradient
178 The form of sugar transported through phloem is
185 Match the following columns and choose the correct
(a) glucose (b) fructose
(c) sucrose (d) ribose option.
179 The process of guttation takes place Column I Column II

(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of A. Leaves 1. Antitranspirant
transpiration is low B. Seed 2. Transpiration
(b) when the root pressure is low and the rate of C. Roots 3. Negative osmotic potential
transpiration is high
D. Aspirin 4. Imbibition
(c) when the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration
(d) when the root pressure as well as rate of transpiration E. Plasmolysed cell 5. Absorption
are high
Codes
180 Which of the following is an example of imbibition? A B C D E
(a) Uptake of water by root hair (a) 2 4 5 1 3
(b) Exchange of gases in stomata (b) 3 2 4 1 5
(c) Swelling of seed when put in soil (c) 1 2 3 4 5
(d) Opening of stomata (d) 5 4 3 2 1
Answers
1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (b) 11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (a)
16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (b) 41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (a)
46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (d) 51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (c)
61 (b) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (c) 69 (a) 70 (b) 71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (a) 75 (a)
76 (d) 77 (c) 78 (a) 79 (b) 80 (c) 81 (d) 82 (c) 83 (c) 84 (b) 85 (b) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (b) 89 (b) 90 (a)
91 (c) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (d) 96 (b) 97 (b) 98 (a) 99 (c) 100 (d) 101 (b) 102 (d) 103 (c) 104 (d) 105 (d)
106 (c) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (b) 110 (a) 111 (d) 112 (d) 113 (a) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (a) 117 (b) 118 (c) 119 (a) 120 (c)
121 (b) 122 (c) 123 (c) 124 (a)

125 (b) 126 (a) 127 (c) 128 (a) 129 (c) 130 (b) 131 (c) 132 (c) 133 (a) 134 (b) 135 (a) 136 (a) 137 (d) 138 (b) 139 (c)
140 (a) 141 (d) 142 (c) 143 (c) 144 (c) 145 (c) 146 (a) 147 (c) 148 (a) 149 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 152 (b) 153 (c) 154 (a)
155 (a) 156 (b) 157 (c) 158 (d) 159 (c) 160 (b) 161 (d) 162 (d) 163 (a) 164 (b) 165 (a) 166 (c) 167 (c) 168 (a) 169 (b)
170 (d) 171 (d)
172 (d) 173 (c) 174 (d) 175 (a) 176 (c) 177 (d) 178 (c) 179 (a) 180 (c) 181 (c) 182 (c) 183 (a) 184 (b) 185 (a)

1 (d) Short distance transport of substances like nutrients, 8 (d) In facilitated diffusion, the rate of diffusion is
water, gases, minerals and hormones occurs through affected by the solubility of molecules in lipids,
diffusion and by cytoplasmic streaming supplemented concentration gradient, molecular size of the molecules,
by active transport. etc. Availability of carrier molecules also affects the
2 (b) Long distance transport of organic and inorganic rate of transport in facilitated diffusion.
substances in plants occurs through the vascular system 9 (c) Aquaporins are proteins present in cell membranes.
consisting of complex permanent tissues, i.e. xylem and They facilitate the transport of water soluble substances.
phloem. This is known as translocation. Aquaporins are also known as channel proteins.
3 (a) In rooted plants, transport of water and minerals 10 (b) For the transport of hydrophilic substances, cell
from roots to stem, leaves, flowers and fruits, occurs membranes possess aquaporins or water channels.
through xylem. These water channels are made up of eight different
types of aquaporins.
4 (a) The direction of translocation, i.e. transport of
organic substances and mineral nutrients is 11 (d) All options are correct for carrier proteins involved
multidirectional. However, it is unidirectional in case of in facilitated diffusion, as these facilitate the diffusion
water and minerals. of hydrophilic substances through biological membrane.
These are specific and allow the cells to select the solute
5 (c) Diffusion is the process in which movement of
of an appropriate size. Carrier proteins can increase the
molecules occurs along the concentration gradient, i.e.
rate of diffusion and may undergo changes on binding
movement of molecules takes place from its higher with solutes.
concentration to lower concentration without the
expenditure of energy. 13 (b) The given figure indicates facilitated diffusion. The
diffusion of hydrophilic substances along the
6 (b) The presence of other substances does not affect the concentration gradient through fixed membrane
rate of diffusion. In diffusion, electrical charges of transport proteins without involving energy expenditure,
diffusing substance, can affect the rate of diffusion. is called facilitated diffusion.
Channel protein allows diffusion of solute or substance
14 (d) Uphill transport criteria does not pertain to
of appropriate size, i.e. rate of diffusion is also affected
facilitated diffusion. Uphill transport is the process in
by molecular size of diffused materials and solubility of
which diffusion of a component occurs from a less
diffusing substances in lipids.
concentrated stream to a more concentrated permeable
7 (b) Lipid soluble molecules (hydrophobic) can easily stream. Facilitated transport is a form of passive
pass through the cell membranes, while hydrophilic transport in which materials are moved across the
(water loving) substances face difficulty to pass through plasma membrane by a transport protein down their
these membranes. concentration gradient.
15 (a) When carrier proteins allow movement of two types of 24 (a) Water potential of pure water at standard temperature,
molecules together, it is termed as cotransport. It can be which is not under any pressure is taken to be zero.
further divided into two types; symport and antiport. In 26 (b) Pure water has maximum diffusion pressure. If solute
symport, two types of molecules are transported in the particles are added in pure water, its diffusion pressure
same direction. decreases.
16 (b) In the given diagrams, I is uniport, II is antiport and III 27 (c) Water tends to move into a cell that has more negative
is symport. ψ w . Water potential of pure water is zero and it is negative
l
Uniport occurs when a molecule moves across a when the concentration of water in a solution is less.
membrane independent of other molecules. Therefore, movement of water is from an area of its higher
l
Antiport occurs when the two types of molecules move water potential (or less negative) to area where there is
in opposite directions. lower water potential (or more negative).
l
Symport occurs when the two types of molecules cross 28 (d) Water potential increases due to increase in pressure. If
the membrane in same direction. a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to
pure water or a solution, its water potential increases.
18 (b) Option (b) is not a feature of active transport of solutes
in plants. Active transport of solutes in plants is carried out 29 (c) Solute potential is always negative. The more the solute
by membrane proteins. Like enzymes, the carrier proteins molecules, the lower (more negative) is the solute
are very specific (i.e. selective) in what they carry across potential.
the membranes. Active transport, i.e. the uphill transport of 31 (c) Water potential of a cell is affected by both solute and
molecules uses energy (ATP) to pump molecules against a pressure potential. The relationship between water
concentration gradient. potential, solute potential and pressure potential is
19 (b) In active transport, the movement of solutes occurs ψw = ψs + ψp
against the concentration gradient or chemical potential 32 (a) The movement of water will be from cell A to cell B.
gradient with the expenditure of energy. Thus, the active We know that water moves from the area of its less
transport process will be slowed down when treated with a negative or high water potential to the area of its more
chemical that inhibits energy production. negative or less water potential.
20 (c) Facilitated diffusion and active transport are two Therefore water will move from
important processes for the movement of substances, into Cell A having a pressure potential of – 3 bars to cell B
and out of the cells are selective and specific. This is having a pressure potential of – 8 bars.
because both the processes enable the transport of only a
few selected materials which do not react with the side 34 (b) The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
chains of the protein transporters involved. chiefly regulated by vacuoles. This is because, vacuoles
have single membraned tonoplast and act as a
21 (b) The main difference between active and passive semipermeable membrane, allowing selective entry and
transport across the cell is that passive transport requires a exit of water.
concentration gradient across the biological membrane
involved. 35 (a) The process taking place in the given experimental
setup is osmosis. This is because it depicts the movement
Whereas during active transport, the movement of
of water molecules from the region of its high
molecules is from lower concentration to higher
concentration to lower concentration through a
concentration that means they move against the
semipermeable membrane.
concentration gradient by using ATP.
36 (b) In thistle funnel experiment, when sugar solution is
22 (d) Only option (d) is correct. Rest of the columns are
added to a beaker after the process of osmosis stops, the
solution of beaker will become hypertonic and as a result
Property Facilitated Active Simple exosmosis will occur. Hence, the level of solution in thistle
Transport Transport Diffusion funnel will get lowered.

Requires special Yes Yes No 38 (c) When a plant is placed in pure water, the water will
membrane proteins move into the cell due to endosmosis until the pressure
Saturation point is Yes Yes No potential and osmotic potential of the cell become equal.
reached when all Thus, as a result the cell will become more turgid.
carrier proteins are 39 (b) We know that, Water potential (ψ w ) = Solute or
being used
osmotic potential (ψ s ) + Pressure potential (ψ p ).
Use of energy ATP No Yes No The water potential (ψ w ) = ψ s + ψ p
∴ ψ w of cell A = −20 + 5 = −15
23 (b) Water potential is the free energy of one mole of water
ψ w of cell B = −18 + 2 = −16
at NTP. It is the fundamental concept to understand water
movement. Solute potential and pressure potential are two Since, water moves from higher water potential to lower
main components which determine water potential. potential thus, the flow of water will be from cell A to B.
51 (b) Being a positive force, turgor pressure opposes the

40 (b) entry of water if a large amount of water enters in a plant
Water Potential (osmotic potential +
Cell cell.
pressure potential)
A − 1 + 0.5 = − 0.5 52 (a) When sugars actively move into a cell, the turgor pressure
of the cell increases as the water moves into the cell.
B − 0.6 + 0.3 = − 0.3
C − 1.2 + 0.6 = − 0.6
53 (b) Imbibition is a special type of diffusion when water is
absorbed by solids-colloids causing them to increase in
D − 0.8 + 0.4 = − 0.4 volume. The classical examples of imbibition are
absorption of water by seeds and dry wood.
As water moves from higher ψ w to lower ψ w so, the
correct sequence of the path of movement of water is 55 (c) The seeds imbibe and swell after being kept in water as
B → D → A → C. water potential gradient develops between the seed coat
and water. The imbibants have negative water potential.
41 (a) Numerically osmotic pressure is equivalent to the As a result when they come in contact with water, a steep
osmotic potential, but with an opposite sign. Osmotic water potential is established between the imbibant (seed
pressure is positive, while osmotic potential is negative. coat) and imbibate (water).
42 (d) If an external solution balances the osmotic pressure of 58 (a) Transport of substances over longer distances through
the cytoplasm, then it is known as isotonic solution. When vascular tissue is termed as translocation. It occurs through
the cells are placed in isotonic solution, there is no net flow a mass or bulk flow system.
of water.
59 (c) A characteristic of mass flow is that substances,
44 (c) The behaviour of plant cells with regards to water whether in solution or in suspension, are swept along at the
movement depends on the surrounding solution. Thus, same pace, as in flowing river. Bulk flow can be achieved
when a plant cell is placed in hypotonic solution, the water either through a positive hydrostatic pressure gradient (e.g.
will flow into the cell and the cell will swell. a garden hose) or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient
45 (a) Cell placed in hypertonic solution is correctly shown by (e.g. suction through a straw).
figure (a). The figure given in option (a) depicts that the 61 (b) In symplastic movement, the flow of water occurs from
movement of water is outside the cell and the cell is cell to cell through their protoplasm. In this pathway, the
plasmolysed, i.e. the cell membrane has got shrinked, these adjacent cells are connected through plasmodesmata.
observations signify that the cell is placed in a hypertonic
solution. 62 (a) The apoplastic movement of water occurs exclusively
through the intercellular spaces and the walls of the cells.
46 (b) When RBC and a plant cell are placed in distilled Apoplast pathway, inside the roots provides the least
water, endosmosis takes place. Thus, as a result, RBC resistance to the movements of water.
would increase in size and burst, while the plant cell would
remain about the same size because of the presence of rigid 63 (c) Water molecules in apoplast pathway are unable to
cell wall made of cellulose and hemicellulose. penetrate the layer/bond of suberised matrix called the
Casparian strip. It occurs in the endodermis of the root and
48 (c) The equation of water potential is acts as a barrier in the apoplastic pathway.
ψw = ψs + ψp
66 (b) The pathway of water conduction from soil to xylem is
Where ψ s = Solute potential
Soil → root hair → cortex → endodermis → pericyle →
ψ p = Pressure potential protoxylem → metaxylem
ψ w = Water potential 68 (c) Root hair zone (cell differentiation zone) in plants is a
In a plasmolysed cell, pressure potential is zero, i.e. there is specialised structure for water absorption. It is the most
no movement of water outside due to the cell being in a efficient water absorption region in roots. Inspite of water
plasmolysed state. absorption, root hair zone or root cells are incapable for
Thus, the relationship for a plasmolysed cell can be given photosynthesis because of the absence of chlorophyll and
as, do not uptake CO2.
∴ ψw = ψs + 0 71 (b) Root pressure, a manifestation of active water
ψw = ψs absorption is a positive pressure, which develops in the sap
49 (a) When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the of xylem of root of small plant, but it is not applicable to
protoplasm shrinks and leaves the cell wall due to tall trees.
exosmosis and the cell becomes plasmolysed. The space 72 (a) The net force, which is responsible for water
between the plasma membrane and the cell wall of absorption into a cell or root hair is known as suction
plasmolysed cell is occupied by a hypertonic solution or pressure.
water. 73 (b) During water absorption from the soil, the water
50 (d) When a leaf peeling of Tradescantia is kept in a potential of the root cells is lower than that of the soil. The
medium having 10% NaCl solution, the cells shrink in size water movement between the two systems takes place
as water moves out of the cell. This is followed by the from the system having higher water potential or more
separation of protoplast from cell wall due to exosmosis. energy to the system containing lower water potential or
This phenomenon is called plasmolysis. low energy.
74 (a) The water held by the soil particles as thin films is 92 (b) Transpiration causes water to rise in plants by pulling
known as hygroscopic water. This is held between the soil through xylem elements. Root pressure causes water to rise
particles under influence of internal molecular attractive in plants by pushing water in xylem components. So, the
forces (cohesive forces). rise of water in plants is done by pulling and pushing via
76 (d) Guttation occurs usually from the tips and margin of transpiration and root pressure, respectively.
leaves during early morning or night time. It is the process 93 (a) Plants growing on hills show higher rates of
of excretion or loss of water in liquid phase (droplet) from transpiration because of low atmospheric pressure which
the tip of leaves and injured parts of plants. The droplets of permits more rapid diffusion of water.
water coming out through guttation is impure, consisting of 95 (d) Adhesion is caused by attraction of water molecules to
both organic and inorganic substances. Thus, all options the polar surfaces. Movement of water inside the roots
are correct. from soil to xylem and then in most of the plant parts takes
78 (a) Option (a) is incorrect about guttation and can be place by transpiration forces, which provide both energy
corrected as and necessary pull. Force between tracheary wall and
Guttation occurs when root pressure is high and water molecule produces surface tension, which accounts
transpiration is low. for high capillarity through tracheary elements, which is
Rest of the options are correct. called as adhesion force. These forces help to ensure the
continuity of water column in xylem.
82 (c) The diagram demonstrates the process of transpiration
by bell jar experiment. In this experiment, a potted plant is 96 (b) Transpiration pull theory is considered the best to
placed on a slab and a dry bell jar is inverted over it. The explain ascent of sap. Excessive loss of water from the
edge of jar is sealed with wax or vaseline and the whole aerial parts of plants causes a tension in whole water
apparatus is left undisturbed. After sometime the inner column of the plant. As this tension develops due to
surface of bell jar became misty due to transpiration by transpiration, it is also called as transpirational pull.
plant. 97 (b) Ascent of sap is passive and occurs along the
83 (c) Cobalt chloride paper is used to study the phenomenon concentration gradient. Hence, there is no need of energy
of transpiration in plants. Dry cobalt chloride paper that is in this process.
blue in colour turns pink when it comes in contact with 98 (a) According to the transpiration pull or transpiration
water. Using this property of cobalt chloride paper we can cohesion theory, the upward pull of water is transmitted to
demonstrate water loss during transpiration. We can other water molecules by cohesion, which is caused by
measure the rate of transpiration by using the time taken hydrogen bond. Water is a polar molecule and forms
for the paper to change its colour from blue to pink. hydrogen bonds between the positively charged hydrogen
84 (b) The opening and closing of stomata is due to change in atoms and negatively charged oxygen atom. Hydrogen
the turgidity of the guard cells. bonds make water molecules stick together.
85 (b) Levitt in 1954 proposed active potassium transport 99 (c) No rupture and fraction occur in water column of
theory, which is the most valid and recent explanation for vessels and tracheids during ascent of sap due to cohesion
stomatal movements. It proves that the accumulation of K+ and adhesion.
ion brings the opening of stomata and loss of K+ ions, the Conduction of water in vertical direction from root to
closing of stomata. aerial parts of the plant is known as ascent of sap.
The molecules remain joined to each other in water column
87 (b) If the concentration of solute decreases in guard cells of due to the force of cohesion. The force between the walls
stomata, the water potential will increase. This causes of tracheary elements and water molecule is called as
exosmosis, which in turn decreases the turgidity of guard adhesion force. These two forces ensure the continuity of
cells. Thus, closing of stomata takes place. water column in xylem.
88 (b) Stomatal opening can be affected by CO2 100 (d) Plasmodesmata does not play a major role in upward
concentration, light and temperature. Carbon dioxide is an water movement. These are bridge-like structures, which
effective antitranspirant. A little rise in CO2 concentration join adjacent cells in symplastic movement of water. While
induces partial closure of stomata. Its higher concentration transpiration pull, tension and cohesion and adhesion of
results in complete closure of stomata. water molecule are those factors which play an important
Light affects the rate of transpiration in two ways, firstly role in upward movement of xylem sap in plants.
by controlling the stomatal opening and secondly by
101 (b) A newly detached twig from a plant exudates a fluid of
affecting the temperature.
organic food of plant like sugar from the detached part/cut
Increase in temperature increases the rate of transpiration. part. The fluid is known as phloem sap.
90 (a) Amphistomatic leaves are those leaves which have 103 (c) Option (c) is not the function of transpiration. This
stomata on both surfaces and isobilateral leaves have equal process plays an important role in the cooling effect by
number of stomata on both surfaces. Thus, isobilateral leaf evaporating water, turgidity, which maintains the shape and
is an amphistomatic leaf. structure of the plant, supplies water for photosynthesis,
91 (c) Relative humidity is most important in the regulation of helps in absorption of water and mineral salts.
transpiration. Rate of transpiration is inversely proportional But translocation of organic food like sugar from source to
to relative humidity. sink is not facilitated by transpiration.
104 (d) On addition of little salt into water, the gradient of 126 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
water becomes more negative, which in turn decreases correct explanation of Assertion.
the rate of transpiration. Hence, the cut twig or flower Process of diffusion can be summarised easily as the
remains fresh for a longer period. movement of uncharged ions, atoms or molecules through a
106 (c) In osmosis, only solvents move from a higher biological membrane. It depends upon the permeability of the
concentration to lower concentration. So, osmosis has a biological membrane. Here, the membrane is impermeable to
significant role in solvent transportation. pigment β-cyanin. That is why pigment β-cyanin is unable to
colour the water.
108 (a) Transport of minerals through xylem from soil takes
place by active transport because the ions are transported 127 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
against concentration gradient. So, there is a requirement corrected as
of energy, which is provided by ATP. Air dried seeds of pea on coming in contact with water can
110 (a) Root pressure is the positive pressure that develops in develop an imbibition pressure. This leads to changes in the
the roots of plants by the active absorption of nutrients volume of each seed. Thus, the lid tightly put over a tin
from the soil. containing seeds with water will be blown off after a while
due to swelling of seeds.
111 (d) The chief sinks for the mineral elements are the
growing regions of the plant, such as the apical and 128 (a) Both Assertion are Reason are true and Reason is the
lateral meristems, young leaves, developing flowers, correct explanation of Assertion.
fruits and seeds and the storage organs. Unloading of Wooden doors get stuck and become difficult to open and
mineral ions occurs at the fine vein endings through shut as they swell up due to imbibition. Imbibition is a
diffusion and active uptake by the cells of these regions. process in which water is absorbed by solid (colloids)
causing them to enormously increase in volume.
113 (a) Mineral ions are frequently remobilised, particularly
from older, senescing parts to younger leaves. Elements 129 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
that are most readily mobilised are phosphorus, sulphur, corrected as
nitrogen and potassium. Some elements that are Unidirectional flow of water, mineral and nitrogen occurs
structural components, like calcium, are not remobilised. through xylem. The direction of flow of organic and
118 (c) The movement of sugars in the phloem begins at the inorganic substances is multidirectional, which occurs
source, where sugars are loaded (actively transported) through phloem.
into a sieve tube. Loading of the phloem sets up a water 130 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the
potential gradient that facilitates mass movement in the correct explanation of Assertion.
phloem. The force, which is responsible to join water molecules to
123 (c) Long distance transport of the substances takes place each other in water column is cohesion force. On the account
through bulk flow system. Organic nutrients are supplied of cohesion force, water column can bear a pull or tension up
over long distance transport by phloem tissue from to 100 atm.
source to sink region. The direction of transport of these Therefore, it is also known as tensile strength, while the force
organic nutrients can be upward or downward, i.e. between the wall of tracheary elements and water molecule is
bidirectional. This is due to the variable relationship called as adhesion force, which produces surface tension and
between synthesis region or source site and sink or accounts for high capillarity through tracheids and vessels.
utilisation region. 131 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
124 (a) Option (a) is correct. In girdling or ringing corrected as
experiment, the path of organic nutrients in the stem of Transpiration plays an important role in the supply of water
plant is represented, which is carried out by phloem. In during photosynthesis and is regarded as a price paid for
the experiment, a ring of bark along with phloem is cut photosynthesis. It also helps in maintaining the turgidity of
from the stem. cells and causes transpiration pull in the water column of
Due to the absence of phloem in the ringing part, xylem tissue. However, translocation of organic molecules
translocation of food does not take place and gets like sugar takes place through phloem.
accumulated above the ring. Bark also swells up and 132 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
may rise to adventitious roots. Ascent of sap in plants corrected as
can be demonstrated by girdling experiment.
Sucrose is a non-reducing and translocating form of sugar in
125 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is phloem. This is less reactive than other sugars.
133 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
Process of diffusion is the net transport of solute or correct explanation of Assertion.
solvent from a region of higher concentration to lower
concentration area where ion, atoms or molecules move In ringing experiment, a continuous band of tissue, external
randomly. to the xylem is removed. When such plant is placed in the
light, after some time, the tissue above the ring becomes
It is a passive process and does not require the swollen due to the accumulation of solutes. This experiment
expenditure of energy. proves that transport of solutes occurs by phloem.
134 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct method of 143 (c) The statement in option (c) describes the movement of
transport to distinguish between xylem and phloem. water with respect to water between these cells and their
Transport of water and minerals in xylem is unidirectional environment. Water potential (ψ w ) of pure water is zero.
and sap moves upwards due to transpirational pull, while As we add solute in water, the water potential decreases,
transport in phloem is bidirectional and multidirectional. i.e. becomes negative of the solution.
Transport of organic food by phloem takes place from the We know that movement of water takes place from its high
source to sink. concentration to low concentration.
135 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect. It can be Thus, the movement of water will be
corrected as Cell 2 → Cell 3 → Environment → Cell 1
ψ=-3kPa ψ=-4kPa ψ=-5kPa ψ=-7 kPa
The movement of water or pumping up of water is through
xylem tissue not by root. 144 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and it can be
The given diagram represents the process of osmosis,
136 (a) The statement in option (a) best defines the mechanism
i.e. the movement of water from its higher concentration to
of glucose transport occurring in the cell, i.e. facilitated
lower concentration through a selectively permeable
diffusion. When there is a gradient already present and
membrane.
there is a need to transport hydrophilic substance along the
concentration gradient. This is done through fixed Rest of the statements are correct.
membrane transport protein without the involvement of 145 (c) Statement II is true, but statements I and III are false. It
energy expenditure. can be corrected as
137 (d) Both options (b) and (c) are correct for the process of l
The movement of substances through diffusion is
diffusion of coloured molecules. This is because in both passive not active.
options (b) and (c), there is maximum difference in l
Inward movement of water makes the cell turgid and
concentration of molecules in between internal and external vice-versa.
solution. Thus, the rate of diffusion will be equally fast in 147 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct.
both are cases. We know that diffusion process takes place
between concentration of molecules of solution, i.e. the The net direction and rate of osmosis depends on both the
movement of molecules (solute) from their high pressure gradient and concentration gradient.
concentration to low concentration. 148 (a) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
138 (b) Statements I, II and III are true and statements IV and V incorrect and can be corrected as
are false. These can be corrected as Addition of solutes in a system or cell decreases the
energy of water. Pure water has the maximum diffusion
l
Facilitated diffusion is comparatively a slow process
pressure.
than active transport.
l
Transport of molecules occurs along the concentration 152 (b) Statement I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect
and can be corrected as
gradient in diffusion.
Mycorrhiza has fungal not algal association with roots of
140 (a) The statement in option (a) can be shown by facilitated Pinus and orchids.
diffusion and active transport.
153 (c) Statement I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
In both, facilitated diffusion and active transport, there is incorrect and can be corrected as
an involvement of carrier transporter or transporter
A dry alive seed contains around 10-15% water of its
proteins. These are highly specific and show sensitivity to
weight. Water is the major component of life, which is
inhibitors.
generally absorbed by plants in variable quantity
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected as according to their metabolic requirement. A mature maize
l
Facilitated (transport) diffusion does not involve plant absorbs about 3 L water/day, while a mustard plant
expenditure of energy. can absorb as the water equal to its weight in only 5 hrs.
l
Active transport involves energy expenditure. Hence, water is considered as the limiting factor for plant
life, growth and development.
l
Both processes use transport proteins to move
molecules across the membrane. 154 (a) Statements I and II are correct. Statements III and IV
are incorrect and can be corrected as
141 (d) Statements I, II, III and V are correct and statement IV l
It occurs in plants growing under conditions of high
is incorrect. It can be corrected as
soil moisture and high humidity.
In active transport, energy is required to pump molecule l
It occurs in herbaceous plants when root pressure and
against a concentration gradient.
transpiration both are high.
155 (a) The statement in option (a) is the correct reason. Rest
corrected as
of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
Due to more concentration of charged particles in soil than
The water vapour from the plant leaf is released through
the concentration in roots, facilitated diffusion of minerals
stomatal opening and diffusion of carbon dioxide into the
takes place.
plant through same stomatal opening can happen together
Rest of the statements are correct. bacause diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.
Normally, stomata are open during the day and closed 172 (d) Diffusion rates are affected by the concentration
during night. So, statements in options (b) and (c) are gradient, the permeability of the membrane separating
incorrect. Statement in option (d) is also incorrect because them, temperature and pressure.
both processes can happen together.
173 (c) The porins are proteins which form huge pores in the
156 (b) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and some
incorrect and can be corrected as bacteria allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins
Ascent of sap in conducting tissues of plant is affected by to pass through.
cohesion, adhesion and properties of water. 174 (d) Reverse osmosis is not an active process. A process
160 (b) Statement II is true, but I is false and it can be corrected (in organisms) is considered active when its completion
as requires energy in the form of ATP. And as reverse
An analysis of the xylem exudates shows that though some osmosis does not consume ATP and does not occurs along
of the nitrogen travels as inorganic ions, much of it is the concentration gradient, it is a passive process.
carried in the organic form as amino acids and related 175 (a) In dorsiventral leaf, the number of stomata will be more
compounds. Similarly, small amounts of phosphorus and on lower surface.
sulphur are carried as organic compounds. 176 (c) Senescence is the programmed death of a plant.
162 (d) Statement IV is correct. Other statements, statements I, Translocation of nutrients to different parts of the plant is
II and III are incorrect and can be corrected as done at the time of senescence.
l
Sugar is transported through phloem as sucrose. 178 (c) Sucrose, a disaccharide sugar is transported through
l
Movement of sugar is carried out through companion phloem.
cells. 179 (a) Guttation occurs when root pressure is high and rate of
l
Concentration of sugar is always highest near the transpiration is low and there is high humidity in the air.
source region. The other given conditions do not favour guttation.
163 (a) Statements I, II, III and IV are true. Statement V is 180 (c) Swelling of seed in soil is an example of imbibition.
false and it can be corrected as Imbibition is a type of diffusion process along the
Contents in the sieve tube move bidirectionally. concentration gradient enabling the solid to absorb water
and increase in volume.
164 (b) The sequence of events of mass flow of organic Out of the other options, i.e. uptake of water by root hair is
substances materials is II → I → V → III → IV. an example of absorption, exchange in/of gases, stomata is
According to Munch flow model or pressure flow an example of diffusion and opening of stomata is an
hypothesis, the correct sequence of transport of organic example of turgor pressure or turgidity.
nutrients from source to sink is that first of all food 181 (c) Water potential of pure water at standard temperature is
material synthesis takes place then it is transported from zero. It is the highest value of water potential.
cell to cell in the leaves (mesophyll cell). It is passed into
the sieve tube through their companion cells by an active 182 (c) Option (c) is correct. Mycorrhiza associated with roots
transport. of plants helps in both absorption of water and mineral
Now, sieve tube shows high osmotic concentration and nutrition from the soil. Mycorrhiza does not help in
absorbs water from the adjacent xylem. Having absorbed translocation and gaseous exchange.
water, they became turgid and organic nutrients are 183 (a) Option (a) is mismatched pair and it can be corrected as
transported from a region of higher turgor pressure to a Amyloplasts are the colourless plastids, which store starch,
region of lower turgor pressure. but not the protein granules.
165 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and it can be Other pairs are correctly matched.
corrected as 184 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and it can be
In a ringing or girdling experiment, the ring of bark along corrected as
with phloem is cut from the stem to represent the path of Movement of water will take place from chamber A to B. It
organic nutrients by phloem tissue. If phloem is not is not the solute, which will move from chamber A to B.
removed along with bark, supply of organic food will This is because osmosis is a process in which solvent
continue and plant will survive. If xylem is girdled from molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a
main stem, supply of minerals and salt is stopped in the region of lower concentration through a semipermeable
leaves and upper part of girdling site. membrane.
CHAPTER > 12
Mineral Nutrition
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Mineral nutrients are the various inorganic substances or Essential Mineral Nutrients
minerals which provide nourishment to living organisms or
raw materials for building the body structure and
(Elements)
maintaining its normal functions are called mineral Å Essential mineral elements are those elements which have
nutrients. structural or physiological role and are absolutely necessary
for plants to complete their life cycle.
Å Mineral nutrition is the mode of intake of all required
nutrients by plants. Plants generally derive their inorganic Å An element is considered essential, if it follows the given
nutrients from soil, water and atmosphere while, the organic criteria
nutrients are the products of photosynthesis. n
Element must be absolutely necessary to support the
normal growth and reproduction of plants.
Methods to Study the Mineral n
Requirement of the element must be specific and not
replaceable by another element.
Requirements of Plants n
The element must be directly involved in the metabolism
Å The German botanist Julius von Sachs in 1980 demonstrated
of the plant.
for the first time that plants could be grown to maturity in a
well-defined nutrient solution in the complete absence of soil.
Classification of Essential Elements
Å This technique of growing plants in a soil-free nutrient Å Plants require 17 essential elements, which are C, H, O, N, P,
solution is known as hydroponics. K, S, Mg, Ca, Fe, B, Mn, Cu, Zn, Mo, Cl and Ni.
Å This technique is used to identify essential elements Å On the basis of the amount of elements required by plants,
required for the plant growth as well as their deficiency these inorganic nutrients are broadly categorised into two
symptoms. It is also used for the commercial production categories, which are
of vegetables such as tomato, seedless cucumber and
I. Macronutrients
lettuce.
n
Generally present in plant tissues in large amount (in
excess of 10 m mole kg −1 of dry matter).
Funnel for adding water
Dacron (cotton)
n
Involved in synthesis of organic molecules and do not
and nutrients
become toxic in slight excess.

Aerating tube n
Include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen,
phosphorus, sulphur, potassium, calcium and
magnesium.
Nutrient solution n
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are obtained from CO2
and H2 O, while others are absorbed from soil.
II. Micronutrients
Diagram of a typical setup of nutrient solution culture Trace elements, needed in small amount (less than
n
10 m mole kg −1 of dry matter).

CHAPTER 12 > Mineral Nutrition 281
n
Involved in functioning of enzymes and become toxic in n
Energy related compounds include components of
slight excess. energy related chemical compound in plants (e.g. Mg in
n
Include iron, manganese, copper, molybdenum, zinc, chlorophyll and P in ATP).
boron, chlorine and nickel. n
Activators of enzyme constitute elements that activate or
Å On the basis of their diverse function, the mineral nutrients inhibit enzymes (e.g. Mg 2+ is an activator of RuBisCO
can also be categorised as follows enzyme).
n
Structural elements which include components of n
Maintenance of osmotic potential of cell includes elements
biomolecules (e.g. C, H, O and N). that alter osmotic potential of a cell (e.g. potassium).
Mineral Nutrients, their Functions and Deficiency Symptoms

Mineral Elements Obtained as Functions Deficiency symptoms
Nitrogen NO−3 , NO−2 , NH2−
4

Constituent of proteins, nucleic acids, vitamins and
Chlorosis, premature leaf fall
hormones.
Phosphorus H2 PO−4 ,
Constituent of cell membranes, proteins, nucleic acids and
Delay in seed germination.
H 2 PO 2− nucleotides. Required for all phosphorylation reactions.
Purple spots on older leaves.
4

Premature leaf fall.
2+
Magnesium Mg
Activates enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
Chlorosis and necrosis

Involved in synthesis of DNA and RNA.

Constituents of the ring structure of chlorophyll.

Maintains ribosome structure.
Calcium Ca 2 +
During cell division used in synthesis of cell wall.
Necrosis of young meristematic regions.

Formation of mitotic spindle.
Stunted growth.

Normal functioning of cell membranes.

Regulates metabolic activities.
+
Potassium K
Maintains ionic balance, involved in protein synthesis,
Scorched leaf tips.
activations of enzymes, opening and closing of stomata,
Loss of cambial activity loss of apical
maintains turgidity of cell. dominance.
Sulphur SO2−
4

Presents in two amino acids, i.e. cysteine and methionine.
Chlorosis, stunted growth.
(Sulphate)
Main constituents of several coenzymes, vitamins and
Anthocyanin accumulation.
ferredoxin.
Iron Fe3 +
Constituent of proteins involved in transfer of electrons
Interveinal chlorosis
(Ferric ions) like ferredoxin and cytochromes.

Activates catalase enzyme.

Formations of chlorophyll.
Manganese Mn 2 +
Activates enzyme involved in photosynthesis, respiration
Chlorosis
(Manganous ions) and nitrogen metabolism.
Grey spots on leaves

Splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis.
Zinc Zn 2 +
Activates various enzymes especially carboxylases.
Chlorosis

Synthesis of auxin.
Leaf malformation
Copper Cu 2 +
Overall metabolism.
Necrosis of tips of leaves.
(Cupric ions)

Associated with certain enzymes involved in redox
Dieback of shoots.
reactions.
Boron BO3− 2−
3 , B4 O 7

Uptake and utilisation of Ca 2 + .
Premature leaf abscission, stunted

Membrane functioning. growth.

Pollen germination
Disintegration of internal leaves.

Cell elongation and differentiation.

Carbohydrate metabolism.
Molybdenum MoO2−2

Component of several enzymes including nitrogenase and
Defective nitrogen metabolism.
(Molybdate ions) nitrate reductase.
Chlorosis.
Chlorine Cl −
Helps in determining the solute concentration.
Wilting of leaves, chlorosis, necrosis.
(Chloride anion)
Maintains ionic balance.

Essentials for water splitting reaction in photosynthesis.
NEET KEY NOTES

Deficiency Symptoms of Essential Soil as Reservoir of Essential

Elements Elements
Å The concentration of the essential elements below which Å Soil itself acts as a mineral nutrient reservoir in natural
plant growth is retarded is termed as critical
conditions, but it is not essential for the growth of plant.
concentration. An element is said to be deficient if it is
present below its critical concentration. The plants show Å The mineral elements become available to the roots of
certain morphological changes if an essential element is plants by the weathering and breakdown of rocks. Due to
deficient which are indicative of their deficiency and are which the soil becomes enriched with ions and inorganic
called deficiency symptoms. salts that are ultimately been taken up by the plants.
Å The elements which cannot move freely in the plants are Å Following functions are performed by the soil
called immobile elements, e.g. Ca, B, S and Fe. n
It contains a wide variety of substances essential for
Å The elements which can move from old leaves to young plants.
leaves and growing tips are called mobile elements, e.g. N, n
Soil supplies minerals to plant and also harbours
P, Cl and Mg. nitrogen-fixing bacteria and other microbes.
Å Deficiency symptoms of immobile elements first appear in n
It also acts as a matrix that helps in the stabilisation of
young leaves and that of mobile elements appear initially plants.
in old leaves. n
It holds water and supplies air to the roots.
Toxicity of Micronutrients Metabolism of Nitrogen

Absorption of minerals in a slightly higher amount causes
Nitrogen is one of the most prevalent elements in living
mineral toxicity in plants. Any mineral ion concentration in
organisms. It is the component of amino acid, proteins,
tissues that reduce the dry weight of tissues by about 10% is
hormones, chlorophyll and many vitamins. Thus, its uptake
considered toxic. The toxicity of one mineral may induce
by plants becomes important.
deficiency of other minerals, e.g. Mn toxicity results in
deficiency of Fe, Mg and Ca.
Nitrogen Cycle
Mechanism of Absorption It is the cyclic process by which free atmospheric nitrogen is
converted into its various chemical forms. The nitrogen
of Elements cycle consists of four important processes
Å Minerals can be absorbed in ionic form only and the most
Å Nitrogen-fixation In this process, atmospheric nitrogen is
important areas for mineral absorption are the elongation
fixed into a form which can be used by the plants and
zone and root hair zone. Mineral absorption by plants is
animals. In this step,the molecular nitrogen (N2 ) is
done in two different phases
converted into inorganic nitrogenous compounds like
n
The first phase involves passive absorption of mineral nitrate, nitrite and ammonia. Both physical factors like
ions in the outer free space of cell in the apoplast. It is a light, electric discharge, etc., and biological factors like
passive and rapid mechanism. The flow of ions of bacteria and cyanobacteria are included in this process.
elements is down a gradient of electrochemical potential Å Ammonification In this step, organic matter like proteins
energy.
and nucleic acids of the dead remains are decomposed in
n
In the second phase, ions are taken in the inner space of order to produce ammonia (NH3 ) by microorganisms (like
the cell, i.e. symplast at the expense of metabolic energy Actinomycetes, Clostridium, etc). Out of this ammonia
and hence is the active process. The movement of ions produced, some of the ammonia gets volatilised and
from cell to cell is called flux. It is influx (inward re-enters into the atmosphere while most of it undergoes
movement of ions into the cell) or efflux outward the process of nitrification by soil bacteria.
movement of ions from the cells). Å Nitrification It is the process where ammonia is first
oxidised to nitrite by the soil bacterium Nitrosomonas or
Translocation of Solutes Nitrococcus. This nitrite is then further oxidised to nitrate by
Å After absorption, the mineral salts pass readily with the another soil bacterium, i.e. Nitrobacter. The nitrate formed
ascending stream of water. by these nitrifying bacteria is then absorbed by plants.
Å The translocation of mineral elements to different parts of Å Denitrification It is the process in which the nitrate
the body is done through tracheary elements of the xylem to present in the soil is reduced back to free nitrogen (N2 ).
reach upwardly to the leaves and other parts. The process of denitrification is carried out by denitrifying
Å It is done through the plants by the process of bacteria like Thiobacillus denitrificans, Pseudomonas
transpirational pull. denitrificans, etc.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å The nodule contains all the necessary biochemical

Biological Nitrogen-Fixation components such as the enzyme nitrogenase (a Mo-Fe
Å Only a few living organisms can utilise the available protein) and leghaemoglobin (Fe containing protein).
atmospheric nitrogen readily. Thus, it has to be fixed into The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of
some absorbable form. This fixing can only be done by atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia as given in the
prokaryotic species. reaction below
Å The process of reducing atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia N2 + 8e− + 8 H+ +16 ATP  →
by living organisms is called biological nitrogen-fixation. The
2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
nitrogen-fixing enzyme is nitrogenase.
Importance of leghaemoglobin The enzyme nitrogenase is
Å The nitrogen-fixing microbes could be free-living or highly sensitive to molecular oxygen and thus requires
symbiotic. Free-living nitrogen-fixers are included anaerobic conditions.
Azotobacter and Beijerinckia while symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
To protect these enzymes, the nodule contains an oxygen
are Rhizobium and Frankia.
scavenger pigment called leghaemoglobin. It is a pink
1. Symbiotic Biological Nitrogen-Fixation coloured iron containing protein which traps molecular
Å The most prominent symbiotic biological nitrogen-fixing oxygen present in the nodule to create anaerobic
association is the legume-bacteria relationship. Rhizobium is conditions needed for nitrogenase activity.
the chief bacteria involved in symbiotic biological Fate of Ammonia
nitrogen-fixation and are associated with roots of
Two ways by which NH +4 is used to synthesise amino
leguminous plants and form root nodules.
acids in plants are given below
Å These nodules are small outgrowths on the roots. Frankia
also produces nitrogen-fixing nodules on the roots of Å Reductive amination Ammonia reacts with
non-leguminous plants (e.g. Alnus). α-ketoglutaric acid and forms glutamic acid as given in
the reaction below
2. Nodule Formation α-ketoglutaric acid + NH+4 + NADPH
It involves a sequence of multiple interactions between
 Glutamate dehydrogenase
Å
Rhizobium and roots of the host plant which have been ↓

summarised as
Glutamate + H2 O + NADP
n
Rhizobium multiplies and colonises the surroundings of
roots and gets attached to epidermal and root hair cells. Å Transamination It involves the transfer of amino
group from one amino acid to the keto group of a keto
n
Root hairs curl and the bacterium invades the root hair.
acid.
n
An infection thread is produced carrying the bacterium n
Glutamic acid is the main amino acid from which
into the cortex of the root, where it initiates nodule
the transfer of NH2 , the amino group takes place
formation in cortex of root.
and other amino acids are formed through
n
Bacterium is released from the thread into cells, which leads transamination.
to the differentiation of specialised nitrogen-fixing cells. n
Enzyme transaminase catalyses all such reactions.
n
Nodule established a direct vascular connection with the
host for exchange of nutrients. H

Soil Hook R1  C  COO− + R 2  C  COO−
particles  
NH3+ O
Root hair Amino donor Amino acceptor
H
Bacteria

Bacteria s R1  C  COO− + R 2  C  COO−
 
O NH3+
Å The amino acids are further converted into amides.
Asparagine and glutamine are the two most important
amides, which are a structural part of proteins.
Infection
thread Å These are formed from aspartic acid and glutamic acid.
containing Mature nodule Amides contain more nitrogen than amino acids and are
bacteria transported via xylem vessels in plant parts.
Inner cortex and pericycle cells

Development of root nodules in soybean NEET KEY NOTES
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Methods to Study the Mineral
Requirements of Plants
1 Growing plant in nutrient solution in complete
absence of soil was first demonstrated by (a) It shows hydroponic plant production
(a) Charles Darwin, 1858 (b) Julius von Sachs, 1860 (b) Plants are grown in a tube or through place on a slight
(c) Agnes Arber, 1938 (d) Hugo von Mohl, 1850 incline
(c) The solution flows down the tube and returns to the
2 What does the given experimental setup depict? reservoir due to the suction pressure created by pump
(d) The roots in this setup are continuously bathed in
aeration nutrient solution
6 In order to obtain the optimum growth through
Funnel for Cotton
hydroponics, nutrient solution must be
Aerating tube
adding water (a) poorly aerated
and nutrients
(b) adequately aerated
(c) diluted
Nutrient solution 7 By applying which of the following practices,
contamination of hydroponic culture medium can be
reduced?
Choose the correct option. (a) Change the medium every week
(a) O2 evolves during photosynthesis (b) Do not use tools from the outdoor garden
(b) CO2 is required during photosynthesis (c) Complete aeration in hydroponic tank
(c) Measurement of the growth of a plant (d) All of the above
(d) Plant grown in nutrient solution culture
8 In hydroponics, the nutrient solution
3 The technique of growing plants in a nutrient solution (a) is constantly recycled using a pump
in the complete absence of soil is called (b) flows back into the loam soil in which the plant grows
(a) plant tissue culture (b) hydroponics (c) is collected into a bucket for disposal
(c) plant breeding (d) Both (a) and (b)
4 Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a 9 Soilless culture helps in knowing
technique for which of the following vegetables? (a) toxicity caused by an element
(a) Seedless cucumber (b) Tomato
(b) deficiency symptoms caused by an element
(c) Lettuce (d) All of these
(c) essentiality of an element
5 Refer to the given experimental setup and choose the (d) All of the above
incorrect option.
10 Major disadvantages of hydroponics include
(a) expense to setup
(b) high technical knowledge
(c) conserve water
11 Which of the following methods is close to
hydroponics and has the same principle?
(a) Aeroponics
(b) Geoponics
Nutrient solution (c) Planting
Pump (d) None of the above
TOPIC 2 ~ Essential Mineral Elements

12 Most of the minerals present in soil can enter plants 21 Which of the following is not considered as a trace
through …… . element (micronutrient) in the plant?
(a) leaves (b) root hair (c) shoots (d) phloem (a) Mo (b) Cu (c) Mn (d) K
13 More than……elements, of the 105 discovered, so far 22 Which of the following pairs of elements are
are found in different plants. considered as beneficial elements in higher plants?
Fill in the blank to complete the given statement. (a) Sodium and iron
(a) 65 (b) 60 (c) 62 (d) 56 (b) Silicon and potassium
(c) Cobalt and selenium
14 The minerals can be detected even at the
concentration as low as
(a) 10−5 g/mL (b) 10−7 g/mL 23 In addition to the 17 essential elements, there are
some beneficial elements also. These are required by
(c) 10−8 g/mL (d) None of these
the
15 What effect can be seen on the plant growth and (a) small plants (b) very small plants
reproduction in the absence of essential mineral (c) higher plants (d) All of these
element?
24 Identify the element, which functions as a
(a) Plants will complete their life cycle normally
components of the biomolecules?
(b) Plants will not complete their life cycle
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) There will be no effect on the normal growth, but
reproduction in plants will suffer (c) Nitrogen (d) All of these
(d) Only growth will get affected not the reproduction 25 Macronutrients like carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are
16 An essential element is that, which obtained mainly from
(a) improves health of the plant (a) CO2 (b) H2 O
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for growth of plants (c) Soil (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) is found in plant ash 26 Which of the following is a component of ATP ?
(d) is available in the soil (a) Potassium (b) Magnesium
17 Maximum amount of macronutrients that is generally (c) Phosphorus (d) Manganese
present in plant tissue is 27 Name the essential element that is considered as the
(a) 10.5 m mole kg −1 of dry matter component of energy-related chemical compound in
(b) 9.5 m mole kg −1 of dry matter plant’s chlorophyll.
(c) 1.0 m mole kg −1 of dry matter (a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorus
(d) 10 m mole kg −1 of dry matter (c) Manganese (d) Potassium
18 In which of the following all three options are 28 Choose the correct option for the match given below
macronutrients? NEET 2016 about the element which acts as activator of certain
(a) Iron, copper, molybdenum enzymes.
(b) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese Activator element Enzyme
(c) Nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus (a) Mg 2+ − RuBisCO, PEPCase
(d) Boron, zinc, manganese
(b) Zn 2+
− Alcohol dehydrogenase
19 Which of the following is not a micronutrient? (c) Mo − Nitrate reductase
JIPMER 2019
(a) Molybdenum (b) Magnesium (d) All of the above
(c) Zinc (d) Boron 29 Mineral element, required by plants in the greatest
20 Minerals known to be required in large amounts for amount is
plant growth include CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (a) nitrogen (b) potassium
(c) phosphorus (d) zinc
(a) phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
(b) calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper 30 Nitrogen is absorbed by the plants in the form of
(c) potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron (a) NO−3 (b) NH4+
(d) magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc (c) NO− (d) Both (a) and (b)
31 Nitrogen is required mainly by which of the following 44 Enzymes involved in respiration are activated by
parts of the plants? which of the following pairs of elements?
(a) Meristematic tissues (b) Metabolically active cells (a) Sulphur and iron
(c) Permanent tissues (d) Both (a) and (b) (b) Potassium and calcium
32 Which among the following is the major constituent (c) Nitrogen and phosphorus
of proteins, nucleic acids, vitamins and hormones? (d) Magnesium and manganese
(a) K (b) N (c) P (d) S 45 The essential element for the synthesis of auxin
33 Phosphorus is absorbed by the plants as (a) zinc (b) sulphur
(c) potassium (d) phosphorus
(a) H2 PO4− (b) HPO4
(c) HPO2− (d) Both (a) and (c) 46 Minerals involved in redox reactions in plant cells are
4
(a) N, Cu (b) Fe, Cu (c) Ca, Fe (d) Na, Cu
34 Phosphorus is not a structural element in
47 The minerals responsible for maintaining cation-anion
(a) nucleic acids (b) proteins
balance in the plant cells are
(c) nucleotide (d) carbohydrate
(a) K + and Fe3+ (b) Cl − and K +
35 Potassium is required by which of the following (c) Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ (d) Cl − and Mg 2+
regions of plants?
(a) Meristematic tissues (b) Buds 48 The deficiencies of micronutrients not only affect the
(c) Leaves (d) All of these growth of the plants, but also its vital functions, such
as photosynthesis and mitochondrial electron flow.
36 Which one of the following elements is responsible
Among the list given below, which group of three
for maintaining turgor pressure in cells? NEET 2018
elements will mostly affect, both photosynthesis and
(a) Potassium (b) Sodium
mitochondrial electron transport?
(c) Magnesium (d) Calcium
(a) Cu, Mn and Fe (b) Co, Ni and Mo
37 The mineral element which helps in protein synthesis, (c) Mn, Co and Ca (d) Ca, K and Na
opening and closing of stomata and activation of 49 A small aquatic plant was put in three petri dishes
enzymes is labelled as X, Y and Z, containing different culture
(a) Ca 2+ (b) K + (c) Mg 2+ (d) Fe3+ solutions. After six weeks, the plants in dish X had the
38 Ca 2+ is an essential element of plants. Its major same number of leaves as it had previously and they
function is all were small and yellowish. Plant in dish Y had
(a) to provide selective permeability of the cell membrane leaves with purple-reddish spots on them. Plants in
(b) maintenance of the cell turgidity dish Z had leaves bearing scorched tips. Identify the
(c) organisation of mitotic spindle missing elements in all the three petridishes (X, Y, Z ).
(d) Both (a) and (c) (a) X–Magnesium, Y–Phosphorus, Z–Potassium
(b) X–Phosphorus, Y–Magnesium, Z–Nitrogen
39 Which is essential for the growth of root tip?
(c) X–Phosphorus, Y–Nitrogen, Z–Magnesium
NEET 2016
(d) X–Magnesium, Y–Nitrogen, Z–Phosphorus
(a) Zn (b) Fe (c) Ca (d) Mn
50 Farmers in a particular region were concerned that
40 Element present in middle lamella is premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might
(a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Ca (d) K cause decrease in the yield of crop. Which treatment
41 Sulphur is found as a constituent in which of the could be most beneficial to obtain the maximum seed
following amino acids? yield?
(a) Cysteine (b) Methionine (a) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(c) Alanine (d) Both (a) and (b) (b) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the
42 Choose the correct option. remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy
acetic acid
(a) Calcium accumulates in older leaves
(c) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a
(b) Magnesium helps maintain the ribosome structure small dose of nitrogenous fertiliser
(c) Sulphur is the constituent of ferredoxin (d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote the
(d) All of the above synthesis of chlorophyll
43 In which of the following forms, iron is absorbed by 51 Choose the correct option for the element required
plants? NEET 2018 during water-splitting reaction in photosynthesis.
(a) Free element (b) Ferrous (a) Fe, Cu (b) Mn, Cl
(c) Ferric (d) Both ferric and ferrous (c) Zn, Cu (d) Bo, Mo
52 Mineral, which is not essential for plants. 57 Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen, magnesium and
(a) Na (b) K (c) Zn (d) Fe potassium are visible first in CBSE-AIPMT 2014
53 Micronutrient, which is important in transport of (a) senescent leaves
sugar, utilisation of Ca 2+ and cell division is (b) young leaves
(c) roots
(a) phosphorus (b) boron
(d) buds
(c) potassium (d) sulphur
54 Which of the following is not caused by the 58 Which of the following elements cause necrosis due
deficiency of minerals? to their deficiency?
(a) Chlorosis (a) N, K and S (b) N, K, Mg and Fe
(b) Etiolation (c) Mn, Zn and Mo (d) Ca, Mg, Cu and K
(c) Shortening of internodes 59 Mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduce the
(d) Necrosis dry weight of tissues by about 10% is considered as
55 Premature leaf fall is a disease caused due to the (a) critical concentration (b) toxic concentration
deficiency of (c) optimum concentration (d) beneficial concentration
(a) phosphorus (b) iron 60 Which of the following is true regarding manganese
(c) calcium (d) potassium toxicity in plants?
(a) Induction of deficiency of iron, magnesium and
56 Necrosis is the term used for the calcium
(a) falling of leaves (b) Appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic
(b) delay in flowering veins
(c) death of plant tissues (c) Inhibition of Ca 2+ translocation in the shoot apex
(d) inhibition of cell division in plants (d) All of the above
TOPIC 3 ~ Mechanism of Absorption of Elements

61 In the initial phase of mineral absorption, ions are 66 In the final phase of mineral absorption, ions are
taken up rapidly into the …… space of cells. taken up
(a) outer (b) inner (a) slowly
(c) semiouter (d) None of these (b) rate of absorption depends upon the mineral ion
(c) very fast
62 In the initial phase of mineral absorption, ions are (d) None of the above
taken up
(a) slowly 67 During the uptake of ions in the second phase,
(b) rapidly absorption of minerals occurs
(c) rate of absorption depends upon the mineral ion (a) by passive movement of ions
(d) None of the above (b) with expenditure of energy
(c) without expenditure of energy
63 During the uptake of ions in the first phase, (d) None of the above
absorption of minerals occurs through
68 Efflux is the movement of ions
(a) active movement of ions
(a) out of the cell (b) within the cell
(b) passive movement of ions (c) into the cell (d) None of these
(d) None of the above 69 Mineral salts are translocated through ……… , which
is pulled up through the plants by transpirational pull.
64 In the final phase of mineral absorption, ions are The use of …… helps to confirm this.
taken up into the……space of cells. (a) phloem, staining technique
(a) outer (b) xylem, radioisotopes
(b) inner (c) shoot apex, staining technique
(c) extra inner membrane (d) root tip, radioisotopes
(d) None of the above 70 Why is soil considered essential for plants?
65 Active transport of ions by the cell requires (a) Inorganic nutrients are derived from rock minerals
(a) alkaline pH (b) salts (b) Soil harbours nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(c) high temperature (d) ATP (c) Soil acts as matrix that stabilises plants
TOPIC 4 ~ Metabolism of Nitrogen

71 Which of the following is a limiting nutrient for both
natural and agricultural ecosystems? (a) A–Nitrification, B–Ammonification, C–Nitrobacter,
D–Nitrosomonas
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen (c) Sulphur (d) Hydrogen
(b) A–Ammonification, B–Denitrification, C–Nitrification,
72 Two nitrogen atoms are joined by D–Nitrosomonas, E–Nitrobacter
(a) a double covalent bond (c) A–Denitrification, B–Nitrobacter, C–Nitrification,
(b) ionic bond D–Nitrosomonas, E–Ammonification
(c) a triple covalent bond (d) A–Nitrobacter, B–Denitrification, C–Nitrosomonas,
(d) None of the above D–Ammonification
79 Which of the following is a bacterium involved in
73 The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric
denitrification?
nitrogen in leguminous plants is NEET 2013
(a) Azotobacter (b) Nitrosomonas
(a) NO−2 (b) ammonia (c) NO−3 (d) glutamate (c) Pseudomonas (d) Nitrobacter
74 Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants and 80 Which of the following bacteria reduces nitrate in soil
animals into ammonia is called into nitrogen? NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) nitrification (b) denitrification (a) Nitrobacter (b) Nitrococcus
(c) ammonification (d) nitrogen-fixation (c) Thiobacillus (d) Nitrosomonas
75 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of 81 Which of the following diagrams correctly depicts
nitrifying bacteria? N 2 -cycle?
(a) Oxidise ammonia to nitrates Nitrogen in
Denitrification atmosphere Ammonification
(b) Convert proteins into ammonia
(c) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
(d) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (a) Nitrates Ammonia
76 The soil area around the plant roots associated with

Nitrification
the soil microorganisms is called
Nitrites
(a) phyllosphere (b) rhizosphere
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Nitrogen in
atmosphere Denitrification
77 Observe the steps given below for nitrification
2NH3 + 3O2 → 2NO2− + 2H+ + 2H2 O (b) Nitrites Nitrates
2NO−2 + O2 → 2NO−3
The steps given above are carried out by Ammonification
(a) Nitrobacter (b) Nitrosomonas Ammonia
(c) Nitrococcus (d) All of these Nitrogen in
atmosphere
78 Identify A to D in the given flow diagram which links Nitrification
the major nitrogen pools and choose the correct (c) Ammonification
combination from the options given below. Nitrates
Ammonia
Atmospheric N2
Nitrogen in
atmosphere
Nitrification
Biological Industrial Electrical (d) Ammonification
B
N2-fixation N2-fixation N2-fixation Nitrates
C Ammonia
NH3 NO2– NO3–
D E 82 Reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living
Soil ‘N’ Pool
organisms is called
A Uptake (a) biological nitrogen-fixation
(b) nitrification
Decaying biomass Plant biomass
(c) denitrification
Animal biomass (d) assimilation
83 Free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria is 89 The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of

(a) Bacillus polymixa (b) Pseudomonas legumes is
(c) E. coli (d) Anabaena (a) oxygen removal
84 Which one of the following organisms are added as (b) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
nitrogen-fixers in the rice field cultivation? (c) expression of nif gene
(a) Alnus (b) Azolla (c) Cycas (d) Marchantia (d) nodule differentiation
85 Identify the non-leguminous plant that forms nodules 90 During N 2 -fixation, reduction of one molecule of N 2
to fix nitrogen. into two molecules of NH 3 consumes……molecules
(a) Alnus (b) Pinus (c) Cycas (d) None of these of ATP.
86 I. Leghaemoglobin is a unique ...A... and is (a) 4 (b) 16
chemically similar to the ...B... found in animal system. (c) 56 (d) 38
II. ...C... is a very important constituent of ferredoxin, 91 Various factors affect biological nitrogen-fixation by
which plays an important role in biological microbes. Identify the one which greatly and
N2 -fixation. adversely affect the nitrogen-fixation.
III. In root nodules of leguminous plant, a red pigment, (a) light (b) soil pH
called ...D... is present, which is located in the (c) temperature (d) air
membrane.
92 Which one is the correct summarised equation for
Fill in the blanks (A-D). nitrogen-fixation?
(a) A–protein, B–haemoglobin, C–leghaemoglobin, D–iron
(b) A–iron, B–leghaemoglobin, C–protein, D–haemoglobin (a) N2 + 8e− + 8H+ + 8ATP 
→ NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
(c) A–protein B–leghaemoglobin, C–iron, D–haemoglobin (b) N2 + 8e− + 8H+ + 16ATP → 2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
(d) A–protein, B–haemoglobin, C–iron, D–leghaemoglobin → 2H+ + 2H2 O + 2NO−3
(c) 2NH3 + 4O2 
87 Identify the A to D correctly in the given diagram of (d) 2 NH3 + 3O2→ 2 NO−2 + 2 H+ + 2 H2 O
root nodule development and choose the correct
option accordingly. 93 The following reaction represents
α-ketoglutaric acid + NH+4 + NADPH →
Glutamate
Soil dehydrogenase
particles
Glutamate + H2 O + NADP
B (a) reductive amination (b) transamination
A (c) amination (d) nitrification
A
(b)
94 What does the given reaction show?
(a)
H

R1  C  COO − + R 2  C  COO − s
 
D
NH +3 O
Amino acceptor
Amino donor
Mature nodule
C H

(c) (d)
R1  C  COO − + R 2  C  COO −
(a) A–Rhizobium bacteria, B–Cortex cell, C–Outer cortex,  
D–Infection thread O NH 3+
(b) A–Rhizobium bacteria, B–Root hair, C–Inner cortex, Choose the correct option.
D–Infection thread (a) Oxidative deamination
(c) A–Rhizobium bacteria, B–Endodermal cell, C–Inner (b) Reductive amination
endodermis, D–Infection thread
(c) Transamination
(d) A–Nitrosomonas bacteria, B–Root hair, C–Inner cortex,
(d) Deamination
D–Infection thread
88 Enzyme involved in nitrogen metabolism is 95 The two most abundant amides found in plants are
(a) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase (a) asparagine and glutamine
(b) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase (b) lysine and asparagine
(c) nitrogenase (c) glutamine and lysine
(d) alcohol dehydrogenase (d) None of the above
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason Reason (R) Leguminous plants have the rod-shaped
■ Direction (Q. No. 96-104 ) In each of the following Rhizobium symbiotically associated with their roots.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by 104 Assertion (A) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria of legume
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, root nodules survive in oxygen depleted cells.
mark the correct answer as Reason (R) Leghaemoglobin completely removes
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A oxygen from nodule cells. AIIMS 2018
explanation of A
(c) If A is true, but R is false II. Statement Based Questions
(d) If A is false, but R is true 105 Choose the correct statement regarding essential
mineral elements of plants among the following.
96 Assertion (A) Every plant can grow in a suitable
(a) Minerals present in the soil cannot enter into the plants
mineral solution only (i.e. without soil).
(b) Gold is the only element, which cannot be accumulated
Reason (R) Hydroponics does not help in the by the plants
identification of essential elements and deficiency (c) Plants growing near the nuclear test sites take up the
symptoms of the plants. radioactive strontium
(d) Minerals present in very low concentration cannot be
97 Assertion (A) Hydroponics requires continuous
detected and hence they remain undiscovered
supply of purified water and mineral nutrient salts.
106 Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
Reason (R) Purified water and mineral salts are (a) More than 60 elements, out of 105 discovered are found
always not essential for the growth of plants in in plants
hydroponics. (b) Plants take carbon, hydrogen and oxygen mainly from
98 Assertion (A) Warm nutrient solution is better than CO2 and H2 O present in air and soil
cold solution for hydroponics. (c) The element, which is not directly involved in the
metabolism of plant is referred to as an essential
Reason (R) Cold solution can hold greater amount of
element
oxygen than warm solution.
(d) The elements like gold, selenium and strontium
99 Assertion (A) Some essential elements can alter the although can be absorbed by the plant, but have no role
osmotic potential of a cell. in them
Reason (R) Osmotic potential in plants can be 107 Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
regulated by potassium ions. (a) Nitrogenase enzyme is protected from O2 in the nodules
100 Assertion (A) Nitrate reduction requires manganese. of legume plants
Reason (R) Activator of the enzyme reductase (b) Nitrogenase enzyme is highly insensitive to the
involved in nitrate reduction is manganese. presence of moleuclar oxygen
(c) leghaemoglobin is oxygen scavenger and creates
101 Assertion (A) Magnesium is important in anaerobic conditions in the roots of leguminous plants
photosynthesis and carbohydrate metabolism. (d) Rhizobium is an aerobic bacterium in free-living
Reason (R) Mg 2+ is involved in the synthesis of conditions
nucleic acids. AIIMS 2018 108 Choose the correct option.
102 Assertion (A) Active absorption of minerals is (a) Amides are the transported forms of nitrogen as they
inhibited when the roots are deprived of oxygen. have more nitrogen
Reason (R) Active absorption of minerals requires (b) Legumes of tropical origin (e.g. soybean) transport
expenditure of metabolic energy, which comes from ureides
aerobic respiration. (c) The host produces globin part and bacterial symbiont
produces haem part of leghaemoglobin (N 2 -fixing
103 Assertion (A) Leguminous plants are symbiotic
pigment)
nitrogen-fixers.
109 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect 114 Mark the statements as true/false by choosing the
with respect to hydroponics? correct option from the codes given below.
I. Hydroponics involves the culture of plants in a I. Magnesium is a constituent of chlorophyll and helps to
soil-free mineral nutrient solution. maintain the ribosome structure.
II. Hydroponics requires purified water with non-defined II. Calcium is needed during the formation of mitotic
mineral nutrient salts. spindle.
III. In hydroponics technique, plants are grown in sandy III. Magnesium is essential for the photolysis of water.
soil with nutrient solution. IV. Zinc helps in sugar translocation.
IV. By this method, essential elements required for the Codes
growth of plants can be identified and their deficiency I II III IV
symptoms can also be discovered. (a) True True False False
(a) I, II and IV (b) II and IV (b) True True False True
(c) Only II (d) None of these (c) True False True False
110 Consider the following statements about hydroponics (d) False False True True
and choose the correct pair of statements from the 115 Consider the following statements.
given options. I. Soil provide plant with essential organic and inorganic
I. Hydroponics technique is useful in areas having salts.
infertile and dry soils. II. Majority of nutrients that are essential for growth and
II. Hydroponics can regulate pH, optimum for a particular development of plants become available to roots due to
crop. weathering and breakdown of rocks.
III. It reduces the labour cost of growing crops. (a) Statement I is true, but II is false
(b) Statement II is true, but I is false
IV. It increases the problem of weeding.
(c) Both statements I and II are true
(a) I and IV (b) I and II
(c) I and III (d) Only I
116 Which of the following statements are correct about
111 Read the following statements about essential
mineral absorption in plants?
elements and choose the correct option.
(a) In the initial phase, ions are taken up into the outer
I. The element is necessary for supporting normal space of cells, the apoplast, it is a passive process
growth and reproduction of the plants.
(b) In the final phase, ions are taken slowly into the inner
II. The deficiency of that particular element cannot be met space, the symplast of cells and it is an active process
by supplying some other elements. (c) Passive movement of the ions into the apoplast occurs
III. The element is directly involved in the metabolism of through ion channels, transmembrane proteins, which
the plants. act as selective pores
(a) I and III (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) I, II and III (d) All of the above
112 Read the following statements about the functions of 117 Nodule formation involves a sequence of multiple
essential elements. interactions between Rhizobium and roots of the host
I. Maintenance of permeability of the cell membrane. plant. The principal stages in the nodule formation are
II. Maintenance of osmotic concentration of the cell sap. given below.
III. Major constituents of macromolecules and I. A mature nodule establishes a direct vascular
coenzymes. connection with the host for exchange of nutrients.
IV. Buffering action. II. Root hair curls and the bacteria invade the root hair.
Choose the correct option. III. Rhizobia multiply and colonise the surrounding of
(a) Only III (b) I and III
roots and get attached to epidermal and root hair cells.
(c) Only I (d) I, II, III and IV IV. The infection thread is produced carring the bacteria
and grows into the cortex of the root.
113 Read the following statements about the essential
V. The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteroids
element, identify and choose the correct option. and cause inner cortical layer and pericycle to divide to
I. Activator of catalase. form nodule.
II. Important constituent of cytochrome. The correct sequence is
III. Important constituent of proteins involved in ETS. (a) III → II → IV → I → V
IV. Essential for chlorophyll synthesis. (b) III → II → IV → V → I
(a) Mo (b) Fe (c) IV → V → III → II → I
(c) Cu (d) Ca (d) I → III → V → II → IV
118 Choose the incorrect statement. 120 Study the following statements regarding
I. Plant obtains Mo in the form of MoO2+ 2 and it is the
leghaemoglobin and choose the option for incorrect
component of several enzymes including nitrogenase statement(s).
and nitrate reductase. I. The central portion of root nodule found in leguminous
II. The concentration of the essential elements above plant is white.
which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical II. Root nodule of leguminous plant contains both
concentration. enzyme nitrogenase and leghaemoglobin.
III. Deficiency symptoms are structural changes in the III. Leghaemoglobin traps molecular O 2 to create
plant due to certain element deficiency. anaerobic conditions need for activity of nitrogenase
IV. Deficiency symptoms disappear if the specific nutrient enzyme.
is provided to the plant, also if the deprivation (a) I is correct, II and III are incorrect
continues death of plant occurs. (b) I is incorrect, II and III are correct
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) Only II is incorrect
(c) II and III (d) I and IV (d) I and II are incorrect
119 Pick the correct set of statements for the given
diagram of N 2 -fixation and choose the correct option. III. Matching Type Questions
Substrate 121 Match the following columns.
[nitrogen gas (N2)]
Column I Column II
N (Elements) (Types/Functions)
N
A. Manganese 1. Macronutrient
N H N B. Magnesium 2. Component of biomolecules

H
N N C. Phosphorus 3. Micronutrient
D. Nitrogen 4. In the formation of ATP
Enzyme Binding +2 H +2 H
of substrate
Codes
Product H
A B C D
[ammonia (NH3)] H (a) 4 3 1 2
H N
H (b) 4 2 3 1
N H
H H (c) 1 3 4 2
H
H (d) 3 1 4 2
N H N Release of
H
H H products
N N
H H Column I Column II
H (Location) (Elements)
+2 H
Free nitrogenase
can bind another A. Found in some vitamins (thiamine, 1. Mg
molecule of N2 biotin, coenzyme-A)
B. Required for photolysis of water 2. I
I. Nitrogenase catalyses the reaction.
II. The formation of ammonia is a reductive process. C. Not important for plants 3. S
III. One molecule of nitrogen produces two molecules of D. Present at the centre of porphyrin 4. Mn
ammonia. ring in chlorophyll
IV. Formation of ammonia is an oxidative reductive
process. Codes
Select the option depicting the correct statement. A B C D
(a) I, II and III (a) 4 1 2 3
(b) I, II and IV (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) II, III and IV (c) 1 2 4 3
(d) I, III and IV (d) 3 4 2 1

A B C D E
Column I Column II
(Functions) (Elements) (a) 2 4 6 3 5
A. Water splitting reaction 1. Boron
(b) 6 2 5 4 1
2+ (c) 3 5 1 6 2
B. Uptake and utilisation of Ca 2. Copper
(d) 5 3 6 1 2
C. Synthesis of auxin 3. Cl −
126 Match the organisms given in Column I to their
D. Redox reaction 4. Zinc functions given in Column II and choose the correct
option.
Codes
A B C D Column I Column II
(a) 1 3 2 4
A. Thiobacillus 1. Free-living nitrogen- fixing
(b) 3 1 4 2 cyanobacteria
(c) 2 3 1 4
B. Nitrosomonas 2. Denitrification
(d) 4 2 1 3
124 Match the following columns. C. Nostoc 3. Free-living aerobic
nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Column I Column II D. Azotobacter 4. NH3 to nitrite
(Mechanism) (Absorption mechanism)
Codes
A. Movement of ions into or 1. Diffusion
out of the cell A B C D
B. Outward movement is 2. Flux

(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
C. Inward movement is 3. Efflux
(c) 3 4 1 2
D. Passive uptake 4. Influx
(d) 3 2 4 1
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 Column I Column II
(b) 4 2 1 3 (Nitrogen fixers) (Microbes)
(c) 2 3 4 1 A. Cyanobacteria 1. Anabaena, Nostoc
(d) 3 4 1 2 B. Aerobic microbes 2. Azotobacter,
125 Match the following columns. Beijerinckia
C. Anaerobic microbes 3. Rhodospirillium
Column I Column II
(Nitrogen fixers) (Plants) D. Symbiotic microbes 4. Rhizobium, Frankia
A. Rhizobium leguminosarum 1. Cereal roots
Codes
B. Rhizobium japonicum 2. Azolla (fern)
A B C D
C. Azospirillum brasiliense 3. Pea
(a) 1 2 3 4
D. Frankia sp. 4. Alfa-alfa
(b) 4 3 2 1
E. Anabaena sp. 5. Soybean
(c) 3 1 4 2
6. Alnus
(d) 2 4 1 3
NCERT &NCERT Exemplar

NCERT (a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning
128 Purification of water and nutrient salts is done in (b) Nitrogenase is Mo-Fe protein
studies involving mineral nutrition using hydroponics (c) Leghaemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment
to (d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules
(a) remove impurities from the culture medium of ammonia
(b) replenish depleted oxygen 134 Reaction carried out by N 2 -fixing microbes includes
(c) speed up the process −
I. 2NH3 + 3O2 →
 2NO2 + 2H + + 2H2 O
II. 2NO2 + O2 →
 2NO3
129 In certain plants, deficiency symptoms appear first in
younger part of plants, while in others they do so in Which of the following statements about these
mature organs equations is not true?
(a) because all nutrients are mobile (a) Step I is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus
(b) because all nutrients are immobile (b) Step II is carried out by Nitrobacter
(c) because few nutrients are mobile, while some are (c) Both steps I and II can be called nitrification
immobile (d) Bacteria carrying out these steps are usually
(d) None of the above photoautotrophs
135 Which one of the following symptoms is not due to
NCERT Exemplar manganese toxicity in plants?
(a) Calcium translocation in shoot apex is inhibited
130 Which one of the following roles is not characteristic
(b) Deficiency in both iron and nitrogen induced
of an essential element?
(c) Appearance of brown spot surrounded by chlorotic veins
(a) Being a component of biomolecules
(b) Changing the chemistry of soil
(c) Being a structural component of energy related 136 Match the element with its associated functions/roles
chemical and choose the correct option among given below.
(d) Activation or inhibition of enzymes Nutrients Process
131 Which one of the following statements can best A. Boron 1. Splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during
explain the term critical concentration of an essential photosynthesis
element? B. Manganese 2. Needed for synthesis of auxins
(a) Essential element concentration below which plant
C. Molybdenum 3. Component of nitrogenase
growth is retarded
(b) Essential element concentration below which plant D. Zinc 4. Pollen germination
growth becomes enhanced E. Iron 5. Component of ferredoxin
(c) Essential element concentration below which plant
remains in the vegetative phase Codes
(d) None of the above A B C D E
132 Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear (a) 1 2 3 4 5
first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is (b) 4 1 3 2 5
relatively immobile. Which one of the following (c) 3 2 4 5 1
elemental deficiency would show such symptoms? (d) 2 3 5 1 4
(a) Sulphur (b) Magnesium 137 Plants can be grown in (tick the incorrect option).
(c) Nitrogen (d) Potassium (a) soil with essential nutrients
133 With regard to the biological nitrogen-fixation by (b) water with essential nutrients
Rhizobium in association with soybean, which one of (c) either water or soil with essential nutrients
the following statements does not hold true? (d) water or soil without essential nutrients
Answers
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (d)
31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (d) 36 (a) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (c)
41 (d) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (b) 48 (a) 49 (a) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (b) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (a) 58 (d) 59 (b) 60 (d)
61 (a) 62 (b) 63 (b) 64 (b) 65 (d) 66 (a) 67 (b) 68 (a) 69 (b) 70 (d)
71 (b) 72 (c) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (a) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (c)
81 (a) 82 (a) 83 (a) 84 (b) 85 (a) 86 (d) 87 (b) 88 (c) 89 (a) 90 (b)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (c) 95 (a)

96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (d) 99 (a) 100 (a) 101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (a) 104 (b) 105 (c)
106 (c) 107 (b) 108 (d) 109 (c) 110 (b) 111 (d) 112 (d) 113 (b) 114 (b) 115 (c)
116 (d) 117 (b) 118 (c) 119 (a) 120 (b) 121 (d) 122 (d) 123 (b) 124 (c) 125 (c)
126 (a) 127 (a)

128 (d) 129 (c) 130 (b) 131 (a) 132 (a) 133 (a) 134 (d) 135 (b) 136 (b) 137 (d)

5 (c) Option (c) is incorrect for the given experimental required by plants in comparatively large amounts
set. It can be corrected as (1-10 mg per gram of dry matter or m mole kg −1 of dry
The solution flows down the tube and returns to the weight).
reservoir due to gravity not suction pressure. A pump Other examples of macronutrient are phosphorus (P),
circulates the nutrient solution from a reservoir to the potassium (K), nitrogen (N), etc.
elevated end of the tube. Micronutrients are required by plant in traces, less than
Rest all options are correct. 0.1 mg per g of dry matter, e.g. boron (B), zinc (Zn) and
6 (b) In hydroponics, the nutrient solution must be manganese (Mn) are micronutrients.
adequately aerated in order to obtain optimum growth, 20 (a) Minerals known to be required in large amounts for
because roots respire aerobically. Thus, if proper plant growth are macronutrients, i.e. phosphorus,
aeration is not provided, the plant can die. potassium, sulphur, calcium.
11 (a) Aeroponics is similar to hydroponics in a way that 21 (d) Potassium (K) is not considered as trace element or
it involves growing plants in air or moist environment a micronutrient for plants. The essential elements,
without the use of soil or an aggregate medium. which are required in traces, i.e. mg/g of dry matter by
14 (c) The techniques available can detect the presence of the plants are called micronutrients or trace elements.
an element at a concentration which is as low as These are eight in number Zn, Mn, B, Cu, Mo, Fe, Ni
10–8 g/mL. and Cl. K is a macronutrient.
16 (b) An essential element is the one which is 27 (a) Magnesium is the essential element that is
indispensable for the growth of plants and cannot be considered as the component of energy related chemical
replaced by any other element. Absence/deficiency of compound in plants chlorophyll. It presents at the centre
these elements produces disorders/malfunctioning at of the porphyrin ring structure of chlorophyll molecule.
the cellular level.
28 (d) Essential elements act as activators or inhibitors of
18 (c) Nitrogen, sulphur and phosphorus are all enzymes. For example, Mg 2+ is an activator of both
macronutrients. Among the other options given, Mg is RuBisCO and PEP carboxylase enzymes, both of which
also a macronutrient. Micronutrients include Fe, Cu,
are critical photosynthetic carbon fixation.
Mo, Mn, Bo, Zn, etc.
Zn 2+ is an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase. Mo of
19 (b) Magnesium (Mg) is a macronutrient and not a
nitrogenase enzyme during nitrogen metabolism.
micronutrient. Such nutrients (macronutrient) are
29 (a) Nitrogen is the mineral element, which is required 45 (a) The essential element for the synthesis of auxin is
by plants in the greatest amount. It is required by all the zinc. This plant hormone is produced in the stem tip that
parts of a plant for the synthesis of amino acids and promotes cell elongation.
nucleic acids and serves as a major constituent of 46 (b) Minerals involved in redox reactions in plant cells
nucleic acids, proteins, vitamins and hormones. are iron (Fe) and copper (Cu). Fe is an important
30 (d) Nitrogen is absorbed by the plants mainly as NO−3 constituent of proteins which are involved in the
nitrates though some amount is also taken up as NH+4 or transfer of electrons like ferredoxin and cytochromes. It
NO −2 . is reversibly oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+ during electron
transfer.
31 (d) In plants, nitrogen is required mainly by the Cu is essential for the overall metabolism of plants.
meristematic tissues and the metabolically active cells. Like iron, it is also associated with certain enzymes
It is because these cells are in the process of involved in redox reactions and is reversibly oxidised
synthesising new biomolecules of the protoplasts to
from Cu + to Cu 2+ .
grow.
48 (a) Option (a) contains the correct group of three
32 (b) Nitrogen serves as the major constituent of
elements which mostly affect both photosynthesis and
chlorophyll, several hormones, vitamins and amino
mitochondrial electron flow. Copper, iron and
acids and proteins.
manganese are associated with enzymes involved in
33 (d) Phosphorus is absorbed by the plants from soil in photosynthesis and respiration.
the form of phosphate ions, either as H2 PO4− or HPO2−
4 . 49 (a) Magnesium (Mg), phosphorus (P) and nitrogen (N),
34 (d) Phosphorus is not a structural element of are the missing elements.
carbohydrate. It is present in nucleotide (purine and l
The elements missing in dish X is magnesium because
pyrimidine) which are the building blocks for nucleic Mg deficiency causes chlorosis is yellowing of leaves.
acid, synthesis ATP (an energy source) and proteins. l
The element missing in dish Y is phosphorus because
35 (d) In plants, potassium is required in more abundant P deficiency causes the development of purple or red
quantities in the meristematic tissues, buds, leaves and spots on leaves.
root tips. It is absorbed as K + ion. l
The element missing in dish Z is potassium as its
36 (a) Out of the given elements, potassium (K +) is deficiency causes the formation of scorched leaf tip
responsible for maintaining turgor pressure in cells along with chlorosis and necrosis.
because it regulates proton pumps involved in opening 50 (d) If premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop
and closing of stomata. was observed, then the elements like Fe, Mg, N, K, S,
37 (b) The mineral element which helps in protein Mn and Mo would be the most beneficial treatment.
synthesis, opening and closing of stomata, activation of These elements will promote the synthesis of
enzyme and in maintenance of trugidity of cells is chlorophyll may become most beneficial to overcome
potassium by maintaining an anion-cation balance in the problem and to obtain maximum yield.
cells. 51 (b) Both manganese and chlorine are essential for the
38 (d) Ca 2+ is an essential element for plants. It provides splitting of water during photosynthesis, a reaction that
selective permeability to the cell membrane. These are leads to oxygen evolution.
required for the organisation of mitotic spindle. Calcium 54 (b) Etiolation is the symptom developed in plants when
is also used during cell division, in the synthesis of cell they are grown in the dark. It is not caused by
wall, particularly as calcium pectate in the middle deficiency of any mineral in plants.
lamella. It activates certain enzymes and plays an
55 (a) Out of the given options, phosphorus causes
important role in regulating metabolic activities.
premature falling of the leaves and flowers. It is a
constituent of nucleic acids, proteins, NADP + , etc. Its
41 (d) Sulphur is a constituent of amino acids like cysteine

and methionine and is the main constituent of several deficiency causes chlorosis and necrosis. Apart from
coenzymes, vitamins and ferredoxin. Plants obtain P, N also causes premature leaf fall.
sulphur in the form of sulphate (SO2− 4 ). 57 (a) Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen (N), potassium
43 (d) Plants absorb iron mostly in the form of ferric (K) and magnesium (Mg) are first visible in senescent
(Fe3+ ) ions. However, plants in acidic soil can also (older) leaves, because these are mobile elements.
absorb iron in ferrous (Fe2+ ) as well as ferric ( Fe3+ ) 59 (b) The mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduce
form. It is an important constituent of proteins involved the dry weight of tissues by about 10% is called toxic
in the transfer of electrons like ferredoxin and concentration. The requirement of micronutrients is
cytochromes. It is reversibly oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+ always in low amounts, while their moderate decrease
during electron transfer. It activates catalase enzyme. It causes the deficiency symptoms and a moderate
is essential for the formation of chlorophyll. increase causes toxicity.
61 (a) In the initial phase of mineral absorption, ions are presence of coenzyme NADH or NADPH. The reaction
passively taken up into the outer space or free space of occurs in the presence of enzyme glutamate
cells through ion channels or transmembrane proteins dehydrogenase.
which act as selective pores. 94 (c) The given reaction shows transamination. It involves
65 (d) Active uptake of ions into the symplast requires the the transfer of amino group from one amino acid to the
expenditure of metabolic energy, i.e. ATP. ketogroup of a ketoacid.
68 (a) Movement of ions out of the cell is called efflux, Glutamic acid is the main amino acid from which the
whereas the movement of ions into the cell is called transfer of NH 2 , the amino group takes place and other
influx. amino acids are formed through transamination. The
enzyme transaminase catalyses all such reactions.
Both the processes are active processes with the former
occurring in plant roots growing in salty area 96 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be
corrected as
69 (b) The mineral ions absorbed by roots are transported
through xylem. The solutes are carried along with the Hydroponics is a technique of growing plants in a
ascending stream of water, which are pulled up through nutrient solution, i.e. with soil. With the help of
the plants by transpirational pull. Analysis of xylem sap hydroponics essential elements and their deficiency
shows the presence of mineral salts in it which can be symptoms can be identified.
confirmed by the use of radioisotopes of mineral 97 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be
elements. corrected as
74 (c) Ammonification is the process by which the organic It hydroponics, due to the exposure of plant roots to a
nitrogen of dead plants and animals is converted to limited amount of the solution, there are chances that the
ammonium ions (NH4 ) by the action of saprotrophic concentrations of oxygen and other minerals would
fungi and bacteria. reduce. Thus, a continuous supply of purified water and
75 (a) Nitrifying bacteria are those microbes which are nutrient salts is always essential.
capable of converting ammonia present in soil into 98 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
nitrates (NO−3 ). A few examples are Nitrosomonas, be corrected as
Nitrobacter, etc. Cold nutrient solution is better than warm nutrient
solution for hydroponics.
76 (b) Rhizosphere is the narrow region of soil which is
directly influenced by root secretions and is The temperature required for hydroponics nutrient
associated with the soil microorganisms. solution should be 68-72°F (18-26°C). Cold water is
capable of holding more dissolved oxygen than warm
80 (c) Thiobacillus denitrificans and Pseudomonas water.
denitrificans reduce nitrate in soil into nitrogen through
a process is called denitrification. 99 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
On the other hand, Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus
oxidise ammonia into nitrite. The bacterium, Some essential elements can alter the osmotic potential
Nitrobacter oxidises nitrite to nitrate. These processes of a cell, e.g. potassium plays an important role in
together are known as nitrification. regulating the osmotic potential in plants by facilitating
the opening and closing of stomata.
84 (b) Azolla is added along with Anabaena to rice plants
(a blue-green algae) which symbiotically fix 100 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
atmospheric nitrogen to make it available to rice plants. the correct explanation of Assertion.
Manganese plays an important role in nitrate reduction.
85 (a) Alnus is a non-leguminous plant that forms nodules It acts as an activator of the enzymes nitrite reductase
to fix the atmospheric nitrogen with Frankia.
and hydroxylamine reductase which are involved in the
88 (c) The reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living process of nitrate reduction.
organisms is called biological nitrogen-fixation. Certain

prokaryotic species are capable of fixing nitrogen due 101 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
to the presence of nitrogenase enzyme in them. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Magnesium is a constituent of the ring structure of
89 (a) Leghaemoglobin is a red coloured pigment found in chlorophyll, the pigment which in the presence of
the root nodules of leguminous plants. It combines with sunlight performs photosynthesis in the chloroplast to
oxygen and thus helps in oxygen removal from root produce sugar (carbohydrate).
nodules.
Thus, magnesium is important in photosynthesis and
91 (b) The soil pH greatly and adversely affects the carbohydrate metabolism. Mg 2+ are also involved in the
rhizosphere. This also effects the growth and
multiplication of nitrogen-fixing bacterium and nodule synthesis of nucleic acids, i.e. DNA and RNA.
formation. 102 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
93 (a) The reaction given in question represents reductive the correct explanation of Assertion.
amination. In this process, α-ketoglutaric acid from the Active absorption requires energy for absorption of
Krebs’ cycle is converted into glutamate in the minerals. This energy comes from aerobic respiration.
Thus, when the roots are deprived of oxygen, active Fe 2+ to Fe 3+ during electron transfer, in photosynthesis
absorption of minerals is inhibited. and respiration.
103 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is 114 (b) Statements I, II and IV are true, but only statement III
the correct explanation of Assertion. is false. It can be corrected as
Leguminous plants have nodulated roots to which Chlorine is required for photolysis of water.
Rhizobium is symbiotically associated making N2 118 (c) Statements I and IV are correct, but statements II and
available to the plants. Hence, leguminous plants are III are incorrect and can be corrected as
symbiotic nitrogen fixers. l
The concentration of the essential element below which
104 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is plant growth is retarded is termed as critical
not the correct explanation of Assertion. concentration.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria Rhizobium is a free-living l
Deficiency symptoms are the morphological changes that
aerobic bacteria symbiotically associated with the are indicative of certain element deficiencies, e.g.
roots of leguminous plants. The enzyme nitrogenase chlorosis, necrosis, etc.
required during nitrogen-fixation is highly sensitive to
the molecular oxygen and it requires anaerobic 119 (a) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
conditions. The nodules have adaptation that ensure incorrect and can be corrected as
the enzyme is protected from oxygen. To protect these Formation of ammonia is a reducing process.
enzymes, the nodule contains oxygen scavengers 120 (d) Statements II and III are correct and statement I is
called leghaemoglobin. incorrect. It can be corrected as
So, the bacteria or microbes that live as aerobes under The central portion of root nodule of leguminous plant is
free-living conditions (where nitrogenase is not pink due to the presence of iron (Fe) element in the
operational), become anaerobic (thus protecting the protein leghaemoglobin.
operational nitrogenase enzyme).
128 (d) Both options (a) and (c) are correct and can be
105 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct. Rest explained as
incorrect statements can be corrected as
Impure water contains a large number of soluble minerals
l
Minerals present in the soil enter into the plant dissolved in it. Likewise, the salts also contain impurities.
through absorption by roots. If such impure water and mineral salts are used as culture
l
Gold can be accumulated by plants. solution for growing plants in hydroponics, these
l
Minerals even at a very low concentration (10 −8 impurities hinder with the experiments used for detection
g/mL) can be easily detected by various techniques. of essentiality of an element.
106 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be As a result, use of purified water and mineral/nutrient
corrected as salts is done in studies involving mineral nutrition using
Essential elements are those elements which are hydroponics to remove impurities from the culture
always directly involved in the metabolism of the medium which will thereby speed up the process.
plant. 129 (c) The deficiency symptoms tend to appear first in the
Rest of the statements are correct. younger tissues when the element involved is immobile.
107 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be In case of elements that are actively mobilise within the
corrected as plants the deficiency symptoms tend to appear first in
The enzyme nitrogenase is highly sensitive to the older tissues.
presence of molecular oxygen. 130 (b) Changing the soil chemistry is not a role of any
Rest of the statements are correct. essential element. The remaining statements are the
characteristics of an essential element. These elements are
109 (c) Statement II is incorrect. It can be corrected as directly involved in the metabolism of plants.
Hydroponics requires purified water with well-defined
mineral nutrient salts in the culture solution. 131 (a) The statement given in option (a) best explains the
term critical concentration of an essential element.
Statements I, III and IV are correct.
It is defined as the concentration below which plant
110 (b) Statements I and II are correct. Statements III and growth retarded. plants start showing deficiency
IV are incorrect and can be corrected as symptoms if a particular element is present in soil below
l
Hydroponics is an expensive process and does not the critical concentration.
reduce labour cost.
132 (a) When deficiency symptoms appear first in young
l
It does not increase the problem of weeding because
leaves and young tissues of a plant the element involved
hydroponics is a soil-free culture technique. is said to be relatively immobile inside the plant, e.g.
113 (b) The statements mentioned in the question are the sulphur and calcium.
characteristics of the essential element Fe. It activates The parts of the plants that show deficiency symptoms
catalase enzyme and is essential for the formation of depend on the mobility of the element in the plant. These
chlorophyll. It is an important constituent of proteins parts of the structural component of the cell and hence are
involved in the transfer of electrons like ferredoxin not easily released.
and cytochromes. It is reversibly oxidised from
The deficiency symptoms appear first in old leaves and Simultaneously, they help in the conversion of ammonia
−
tissues for those elements which are mobilised from (NH3 ) to absorbable form (NO2 and NO−3 ) of nitrogen.
senescing regions for supply to young tissues, e.g. N, K, Rest of the statements are correct.
Mg.
135 (b) The symptom given in option (b) is not due to Mn
133 (a) The statement in option (a) does not hold true for toxicity in plants. It can be corrected as
biological nitrogen-fixation by Rhizobium in association The prominent symptom of manganese (Mn) toxicity is
with soyabean. It can be corrected as the appearance of brown spot surrounded by chlorotic
The enzyme nitrogenase, which is capable of nitrogen veins. Mn competes with iron and magnesium for
reduction is present exclusively in prokaryotes (e.g. uptake and with magnesium for binding with enzymes.
Rhizobium). It is highly sensitive to O2 and gets Mn also inhibits Ca translocated in shoot apex. Further,
inactivated when exposed to it and thus does not require excess of Mn induces deficiencies of iron, magnesium
oxygen for its functioning. and calcium, but not nitrogen.
Rest of the statements are true. 137 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect. It can be
134 (d) The statement in option (d) is not true about the corrected as
given equations and can be corrected as Plants cannot be grown in water or soil without
The bacteria involved in the process are not essential nutrients. The plants can be grown in any
photoautotrophs, but are chemoautotrophs. These medium either water or soil, if it is supported with all
bacteria oxidise inorganic substances like NH3 and NO2 essential elements. Medium does not affect the plant
and use the released energy, hence they are called growth, but availability of all elements does affect the
chemoautotrophs. growth of plants.

CHAPTER > 13
Photosynthesis in
Higher Plants
NEET KEY NOTES
Å All animals including human beings depend on plants for Å Julius von Sachs (1854) showed that the chlorophyll is
their requirement of food. Green plants can synthesise the located in chloroplasts in plants cells.
food they need, but all other organisms depend on them for Å Cornelius van Niel (1897-1985) demonstrated that
their needs. photosynthesis is essentially a light dependent reaction.
Å Green plants carry out photosynthesis. It is a physio-chemical
process by which they use the light energy to manufacture Where does Photosynthesis
organic compounds.
Å Photosynthesis is an important phenomenon due to the
take Place ?
following two reasons Å Photosynthesis occurs in green parts of the plant, e.g. leaves.
n
It is the primary source of all food on the earth. The actual site of photosynthesis is chloroplast.
n
It is also responsible for the release of oxygen into the Å Chloroplasts are aligned along the walls of the mesophyll
atmosphere by green plants. cell to get the optimum quality of the incident light.
Å Photosynthesis in plants requires chlorophyll, light and CO 2 . Å Within the chloroplast there is membranous system
containing grana, the stroma lamellae and the matrix stroma.
Å The basic reaction of photosynthesis appears extremely
simple. Water and carbon dioxide combine to form Å The membranous system is responsible for trapping the light
carbohydrates and molecular oxygen and this reaction is energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and NADH.
driven by light energy. Å The stroma is the site of dark reaction (carbon reactions).
Light energy
6CO2 + 6H2 O  → C 6H12 O6 + 6O2 The lamellar system within the stroma forms flattened sac
Chlorophyll
like lamellae called thylakoids. Thylakoids are stacked to
form granum.
Early Experiments Å The major functions of thylakoid is to perform
The early experiments related to photosynthesis are as follows photosynthetic light reaction (photochemical reaction).
Å Joseph Priestley (1733-1804) in 1770, performed experiments
Outer membrane
to find out the role of oxygen in growth of green plants. Inner membrane
Å Jan Ingenhousz (1730-1799) showed that sunlight is essential Stroma lamellae
to the plants. Thylakoid
Granum
Å TW Engelman (1843-1909) used a prism to split light into its
Stroma
spectral components and illuminated a green alga,
Ribosome
Cladophora placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria. The Starch granule
bacteria were used to detect the sites of oxygen evolution. He Lipid droplet
observed that the bacteria accumulated in the region of blue Diagrammatic representation of an electron micrograph
and red light of the split spectrum. The first action spectrum of a section of chloroplast
was thus described.
CHAPTER 13 > Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 301
Photosystem Each photosystem has all the pigments

Pigments Involved in Å
(except one molecule of chlorophyll-a) forming a light

Photosynthesis harvesting system also called antennae. The single
Å Photosynthetic pigments are substances that have an chlorophyll-a molecule forms the reaction centre.
ability to absorb light, at specific wavelengths. Å In PS-I, reaction centre chlorophyll-a has an absorption
Å The chromatographic separation of the leaf pigments peak at 700 nm, hence called P 700, while in PS-II it has
shows that the colour of the leaf is due to four pigments. absorption maxima at 680 nm and is called P680.
Å They are chlorophyll-a, (bright or blue-green in the
chromatograph), chlorophyll-b (yellow-green), The Electron Transport
xanthophylls (yellow) and carotenoids. Å In PS-II, the chlorophyll-a absorbs 680 nm wavelength of
Å The wavelengths at which there is maximum absorption red light causing electrons to become excited and jump
by chlorophyll-a, i.e. in the blue and red regions, also into an orbit.
shows higher rate of photosynthesis. This shows that Å These electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor,
chlorophyll-a is the chief pigment associated with which passes them to an electrons transport system
photosynthesis. consisting of cytochromes.
Å The other thylakoid pigments (called accessory pigments) Å These electrons are not used up, but are passed on to the
like chlorophyll-b, xanthophylls and carotenoids also pigments of PS-I.
absorb light and transfer the energy to chlorophyll-a and Å The electrons in the reaction centre PS-I are also excited
also protect it from photo-oxidation. when they receive red light of wavelength 700 nm and are
Å Absorption spectrum It is the curve that shows spectrum transferred to another acceptor molecule.
of different wavelength of lights absorbed by a different Å These electrons move down hill to a molecule of energy
photosynthetic pigments. rich NADP+ . The addition of these electrons reduces
Å Action spectrum It is the curve that depicts the relative NADP+ to NADPH + H+ .
rates of photosynthesis at different wavelength of light.
Å This whole scheme of transfer of electrons, starting from
PS-II, uphill to the acceptor and finally down hill to
What is Light Reaction? NADP+ causing it to reduced to NADPH + H+ is called
Å Photosynthesis begins with the absorption of light energy
Z-scheme, due to its characteristic shape.
by chlorophyll. The process of photosynthesis takes place
in the following two steps Photosystem-II Photosystem-I
n
Light reaction or Photochemical phase
n
Dark reaction or Biosynthetic phase e– acceptor NADPH
Å Light reaction takes place in the presence of light. During Light e– acceptor
ADP+iP ATP NADP+
this phase there is light absorption, water splitting, oxygen
release and the formation of high energy chemical Electron
intermediates, ATP and NADPH. Several protein transport
complexes are involved in the process. system
Å The pigments absorbing light are organised into two
discrete photochemical Light Harvesting Complex (LHC)
LHC
within the Photosystem-I (PS-I) and Photosystem-II (PS-II).
Å The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules
bound to proteins. LHC
H2O 2e– + 2H+ +[O]
Primary acceptor
Z-scheme of Light Reaction
Photon Reaction centre Splitting of Water

Å PS-II supplies electrons continuously by splitting of water.
Pigment molecules Water is split into 2H+ , [O] and electrons in the presence
of light (i.e. photolysis). This creates oxygen, one of the net
products of photosynthesis.
→ 4H+ + O2 + 4e−
2H2 O 
The light harvesting complex
NEET KEY NOTES

Cyclic and Non-Cyclic The proton is then released into the inner side of the membrane.
Photophosphorylation n
The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of
membrane. The protons are necessary for the reduction of
Å Photophosphorylation is the process through which
NADP+ to NADPH + H+ . These protons are also removed from
ATP is synthesised from ADP and inorganic
phosphate (Pi) by the cell organelles (like the stroma.
mitochondria and chloroplasts) with the help of Stroma (low H+) +
H+ NADP +H NADPH
energy form solar radiation.
Light
Light FNR
Å The process of photophosphorylation is of two types Cytochrome Fd
P680 b6f
n
Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation It is a type of PQ
PQH P700
PS-II
photophosphorylation in which both the PS-I
one PC
photosystems (PS-I and PS-II) cooperate in light to quin H+
driven synthesis of ATP. Plas Plasto
cyanin
n
Cyclic Photophosphorylation It is the type of H 2O 1 O +H+
2
photophosphorylation in which only PS-I is 2
Oxidation
taking part and the electron released from the of water H+
reaction centre P700 returns to it after passing
through a series of carrier, i.e. circulation takes H+ H+
High
place within the photosystem and the Electroche Lumen
mical H+ (high H+)
phosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of Potential
electrons. A possible location where this could Gradient CF0
be happening is in stroma lamellae. Thylakoid
Photosystem-I membrane
Stroma
e- acceptor Low ATP
ATP
Synthase CF1
Light
ADP + Pi ATP
+iP
H+
Electron
ADP
transport ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis

system
Å Hence, within the chloroplast, protons in the stroma decrease in
number, while in the lumen there is accumulation of protons.
This creates a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.
Chlorophyll PS-I
P700 Å The breakdown of gradient provides enough energy to cause a
change in F1 particle of the ATPase, which makes the enzyme
Cyclic photophosphorylation
synthesise several molecules of energy packed ATP. ATPase
enzyme catalyses the formation of ATP.
Chemiosmotic Hypothesis Å The ATP is used immediately in biosynthetic reaction taking place
Å It explains the mechanism of ATP synthesis in in stroma, responsible for fixing CO 2 and synthesis of sugar.
chloroplast. ATP synthesis is related to
development of a proton gradient across a Where are the ATP and
membrane. The steps that cause a proton gradient to
develop are NADPH used ?
n
The proton or hydrogen ions that are produced Å We learnt that the products of light reaction are ATP, NADPH
by splitting of water, accumulate within the and O 2 of these O 2 diffuses out of the chloroplast while ATP and
lumen of thylakoids. NADPH are used to drive the processes leading to the synthesis
n
As electrons move through the photosystems, of food, more accurately, i.e. sugars. This is the biosynthetic
protons are transported across the membrane. phase of photosynthesis.
This is because the primary acceptor of electron, Å It involves the fixation and reduction of CO2 resulting in the
which is located towards the outer side of formation of carbohydrates. Dark reaction is also called as
membrane transfers its electrons not to an Blackman reaction. It occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasts.
electron carrier, but to H carrier. Hence, this Å Dark reaction does not directly depend on the presence of light,
molecule removes a proton from the stroma, but is dependent on the products of light reaction, i.e. ATP and
while transporting an electron.
NEET KEY NOTES

NADPH, besides CO2 and H2 O. CO2 assimilation during Å In Kranz anatomy, bundle sheath cells form several
photosynthesis follows two routes layers around the vascular bundles, having a large
n
C 3 -pathway in which first product of CO2 -fixation is a number of chloroplasts, thick walls impervious to gas
C 3 acid (3PGA-3 phosphoglyceric acid). It occurs in all exchange and no intercellular spaces.
plants. Å C4-plants follow Hatch and Slack pathway. In this, the
n
C 4 -pathway, in which the first product of CO2 -fixation is primary acceptor is a 3 carbon molecule Phosphoenol
a C 4 acid (Oxaloacetic Acid or OAA). It occurs in plants Pyruvate (PEP) and is present in mesophyll cells. The
adapted to live in dry tropical regions. enzyme used is PEP carboxylase.
The mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme. The C4-acid
The Calvin Cycle Å
OAA is formed in the mesophyll cells.

Å This cycle was discovered by Melvin Calvin (1951) to
explain the process of CO2 fixation in green plants.
Å OAA then forms other 4-carbon compounds like malic
acid or aspartic acid in the mesophyll cells itself.
Å In this pathway, the assimilatory power NADP(H) and ATP
produced in light phase are used to reduce CO2 into
Å The 3-carbon molecule released is transported back to
carbohydrate ( C 6H12 O6) n. mesophyll cells where it is converted to PEP again, thus
completing the cycle.
Å Calvin pathway occurs in all photosynthetic plants. It does
not matter whether they have C 3 or C 4 (or any other)
Å The CO2 released in bundle sheath cells now enters the
pathways. C3 or the Calvin pathway (common to all plants). Calvin
cycle does not take place in mesophyll cells in C4-plants,
Å C 3 -pathway involves three major steps are as follows but occurs only in bundle sheath cells.
n
Carboxylation is the step in which CO2 is utilised for the
carboxylation of RuBP (Ribulose bisphosphate). RuBP is a Atmospheric CO2
acceptor molecule of CO2, a 5-carbon ketose sugar.
Carboxylation is catalysed by RuBP carboxylase Mesophyll cell Plasma membrane
oxygenase (RuBisCO), which results in the formation of Cell wall
3 PGA. Phosphoenol
HCO3– Pyruvate
n
Reduction involves two molecules of ATP for
phosphorylation and two of NADPH for reduction per
CO2 molecule fixed. Fixation Regeneration
n
Regeneration of CO2 acceptor molecule RuBP require one C4 acid C3 acid
ATP for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Plasmodesmata
Å It might help you to understand all of this if we look at what
goes in and what comes out of the Calvin cycle.
Bundle
In Out sheath cell Transport Transport
6 CO2 One glucose Fixation by

C4 acid Calvin cycle
18 ATP 18 ADP
CO2
12 NADPH 12 NADP
Decarboxylation C3 acid
The C 4 -Pathway
Å C4-pathway is present is plants that are adapted to live in
Diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack Pathway
dry tropical regions.
Å These plants (C4-plants) have the C4 oxaloacetic acid as the
first CO2 fixation product, they use the C3 -pathway or the Photorespiration
Calvin cycle as the main biosynthetic pathway. Å Photorespiration is a process, which creates an
Å Characteristics of C 4 -plants important difference between C 3 and C 4 -plants.
n
They have a special type of leaf anatomy. Å It is a process which occurs in C3 -plants only.
n
They can tolerate high temperatures. n
In this, O2 bind to the RuBisCO and decreases CO2
n
They show a highlight intensities. fixation.
n
They lack a process called photorespiration and have n
Then, RuBP binds with O2 instead of forming PGA
greater productivity of biomass. and to form one molecule of phosphoglycerate and
Å C4-plants have bundle sheath cells in their leaves called as phosphoglycolate. This pathway is called
‘Kranz anatomy’. photorespiration.
NEET KEY NOTES

n
In this pathway, there is neither synthesis of sugars nor of 2. External Factors
ATP. Rather, it results in release ofCO2 with the utilisation
Some of the external factors which affect photosynthesis are
of ATP. So, photorespiration is a wasteful process here.
listed below
Å In C4-plants, photorespiration does not occur, this is because Å Light For this, two conditions are observed
they have the mechanism that increases the concentration of
CO2 at the enzyme site.
n
At low light intensities, the linear relationship between
incident light and rate of CO2 -fixation occurs.
n
This takes place C4-acid from mesophyll cells is broken n
While at higher light intensities, the rate fails to show
down in the bundle sheath cells to release CO2, this results
further increase as the other factors becomes limiting
in increasing the intracellular concentration of CO2.
(saturation point).
n
In turn, this ensures that the RuBisCO functions as a Å CO concentration with increase in CO concentration, the
2 2
carboxylase minimising the oxygenase activity.
rate of photosynthesis also increase but up to a limit.
n
The C4-plants lack photorespiration, that is why the Å Water In water deficit condition the rate of photosynthesis is
productivity and fields are better in these plants. indirectly affected.
Factors Affecting Photosynthesis Å Temperature The C -plants respond to higher temperatures
4
and show higher rate of photosynthesis while C 3 -plants have
Å The rate of photosynthesis gets affected by many internal a much lower temperature optimum.
and external or environmental factors.
Å Blackman’s (1905) law of limiting factors states that if a
1. Internal Factors chemical process is attached by more than one factor, then its
These factors include number, size, age and orientation of rate will be determined by the factor, which is nearest to its
leaves, mesophyll cells and chloroplasts, internal concentration minimal value. It is the factor, which directly affects the
of CO2 and chlorophyll content. process, if its quantity is changed. Photosynthesis is mainly
affected by light, CO 2 concentration, temperature and water.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Photosynthesis : Introduction and Early Experiments
1 Photosynthesis is an important process for life on 5 In an experiment, a leaf was partially covered with black
earth because paper, and was exposed to light. On testing these leaves
(a) it is the primary source of all food on earth for starch, it was seen that uncovered part turned
(b) it is responsible for the release of oxygen blue-black. This concludes that photosynthesis had
(c) it is the only natural process responsible for the occurred in
utilisation of sunlight (a) green parts of leaves
(d) All of the above (b) black paper covered part of leaves
2 The process carried out by green plants by which they (c) black part of leaves
synthesise organic compounds is photosynthesis. It (d) Both (a) and (b)
is a 6 In half leaf experiment, a part of a leaf is enclosed in a
(a) physical process (b) chemical process test tube containing KOH soaked cotton, while the
(c) physicochemical process (d) photochemical process other half is exposed to air and then setup is placed in
3 The main purpose of photosynthesis is to light for some time. It was later found that part of leaf,
(a) consume CO2 which was exposed to air tested positive for starch.
(b) produce ATP This indicates that
(c) convert light energy into chemical energy (a) light is essential for photosynthesis
(d) produce starch (b) oxygen is liberated in photosynthesis
(c) water is essential for photosynthesis because in KOH
4 Which one of the following organisms does not soaked leaf, starch synthesis does not occur as water
evolve oxygen during photosynthesis? AIIMS 2018 reacts with KOH and it become unavailable for
(a) Blue-green algae photosynthesis
(b) Red algae (d) carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis because in
(c) Chemosynthetic bacteria KOH soaked leaf, starch synthesis does not occur as CO 2
(d) C4 -plants is absorbed by KOH and not available for photosynthesis
7 Joseph Priestley observed that when mouse alone was 13 One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of
placed in a closed bell jar with burning candle, it was Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by spliting
suffocated and burning candle extinguished, but when light through a prism. He observed that bacteria
mouse was placed with a mint plant in the same bell accumulated mainly in the region of
jar, that mouse stayed alive and candle continued to NEET (Odisha) 2019
burn. What he concluded from this experiment? (a) violet and green light
(a) Burning candle removed the air (b) indigo and green light
(b) Mint plant restores the air (c) orange and yellow light
(c) CO 2 is required for burning of candle (d) blue and red light
(d) Both (a) and (b) 14 Who demonstrated that O 2 comes from water instead
8 The scientist, who discovered oxygen is from CO 2 during photosynthesis by using purple and
(a) Priestley (b) Ingenhousz green bacteria in their experiment?
(c) Engelmann (d) van Niel (a) van Niel (b) Engelmann
(c) Blackman (d) Warburg
9 Jan Ingenhousz did an experiment with an aquatic
plant and concluded that 15 Which one is the correct equation of photosynthesis?
(a) plants release O 2 Light
(a) 6CO2 + 6H2 O → 6O2 + C6 H12 O6
(b) only green parts of plant release O 2 Chlorophyll
(c) plants release CO 2 Light

(b) 6CO2 + 12H2 O → C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6H2 O
Chlorophyll
(d) only green parts of plant release CO 2
Light
10 Sunlight is essential for plant was concluded by (c) C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6H2 O → 6CO2
Chlorophyll
(a) Joseph Priestley (b) Jan Ingenhousz
+ 12H2 O + Energy
(c) van Niel (d) None of these Light
(d) C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6 H2 O + Energy
11 Who provided evidence that in green parts of plant Chlorophyll
glucose is produced and stored as starch ? 16 Which equation is correct to prove that O 2 comes
(a) Sachs (b) Arnon
from water during photosynthesis?
(c) Arnold (d) Englemann
(a) 6CO2 + 12H2 O → 6O2 + C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O
18 18
12 The first action spectrum of photosynthesis was (b) 6CO2 + 12H2 O 18 → 6O2 + C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O 18
observed by 18
+ 12H2 O → 6CO2
18
(c) 6CO2 + C6 H12 O6
(a) Julius von Sachs (b) Priestley
(d) 6CO2 + 12H2 O18 → 6O2
18
(c) TW Engelmann (d) Cornelius van Niel + C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O
TOPIC 2 ~ Sites and Pigment of Photosynthesis

17 Large number of chloroplast are present in which of 19 Identify A, B and C in given figure.
the following cells ?
(a) Parenchymatous cell
A
(b) Mesophyll cell
(c) Peroxisomal cell B
(d) Cell wall C
18 When intensity of light is low, chloroplasts align
themselves in the mesophyll cell in such a way that
their flat surfaces are
(a) antiparallel to the cell wall (a) A–Stroma wall, B–Granum, C–Stroma
(b) perpendicular to the cell wall (b) A–Stroma lamella, B–Granum, C–Stroma
(c) parallel to the cell wall (c) A–Stroma lamella, B–Stroma, C–Granum
(d) middle in the cell (d) A–Stroma wall, B–Stroma, C–Granum
20 Which is incorrect with reference to chloroplast ? 26 The cheif photosynthetic pigment in the plants is
JIPMER 2018 (a) chlorophyll-a (b) chlorophyll-b
(a) Presence in algae and plants (c) xanthophylls (d) carotenoids
(b) Releases O2 27 A graph that plots the effect of different wavelenghts
(c) Occurs only in cell with aerobic respiration of light on the rate of photosynthesis is called
(d) None of the above (a) an absorption spectrum (b) an adsorption spectrum
21 The function(s) of chloroplast’s membrane system (c) pigment kinetics (d) an action spectrum
is/are 28 Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll-a and the action
(a) trapping of light energy spectrum of photosynthesis is identical because
(b) synthesis of ATP chlorophyll-a
(c) synthesis of NADPH (a) absorbs the maximum light
(d) All of the above (b) absorbs the minimum light
22 Dark reaction JIPMER 2019
(c) absorbs the red and blue light
(d) is found most abundantly
(a) occurs in light
(b) occurs in dark 29 What is the wavelength of radiations in visible
(c) requires product of light reaction spectrum?
(d) All of the above (a) 400-700 nm (b) 400-800 nm
(c) 390-760 nm (d) 760-390 nm
23 Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles
are NEET 2016 30 Correct sequence of rate of photosynthesis in
(a) chlorophylls (b) carotenoids different light is
(c) anthocyanins (d) xanthophylls (a) Red > Blue > Green (b) Blue > Red > Green
(c) Green > Blue > Red (d) Green > Red > Blue
24 Molecular formula of chlorophyll- b is JIPMER 2018
(a) C55 H70 O6 N4 Mg (b) C55 H72 O5 N4 Mg 31 Which of the following options is/are correct for
(c) C55 H70 O5 N4 Mg (d) C54 H70 O6 N4 Mg accessory photosynthetic pigments ?
(a) They include chlorophyll-b, xanthophylls and
25 A chromatography paper is shown to you and it is carotenoids
asked that which of the following pigments is (b) They absorb light and transfer to chlorophyll-a
represented by the yellow colour band on the paper? (c) They enable absorption of wider range of wavelength
(a) Chlorophyll-a (b) Chlorophyll-b of incoming light for photosynthesis
(c) Xanthophylls (d) Porphyrin (d) All of the above
TOPIC 3 ~ Light Reaction

32 Light reaction or photochemical phase includes
(a) light absorption 35 PS-I is located on the
(b) water splitting and oxygen release (a) non-appressed part of grana thylakoids
(c) ATP and NADPH formation (b) stroma thylakoids
(d) All of the above (c) appressed part of grana thylakoids
33 Light Harvesting Complexes (LHCs) are (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) present within PS-I and PS-II
(b) very few molecule of chlorophyll-a 36 PS-I has absorption peak at …A…. and PS-II has
(c) hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins absorption peak at…B.
(d) Both (a) and (c) Choose the correct option and fill the blank.
34 Photosystems (PS) are made up of which of the (a) A–700 nm; B–800 nm
following? (b) A–680 nm; B–700 nm
(a) Reaction centre (b) Antennae (c) A–700 nm; B–680 nm
(c) Reaction centre and H2 O (d) Both (a) and (b) (d) A–800 nm; B–700 nm
37 Given figure depicts the Light Harvesting Complex A B C

(LHC) of Photosystem-I (PS-I) and select the correct (a) Core molecules Plastocyanin Primary acceptor
option. (b) Primary acceptor Reaction centre Pigment molecules
(c) Reaction centre Pigment molecules Primary acceptor
A
(d) Pigment molecules Primary acceptor Reaction centre
B
38 Emerson’s enhancement effect and red drop have
Photon
been instrumental in the discovery of NEET 2016
(a) two photosystems operating simultaneously
C
(b) photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
(c) photophosphorylation
(d) photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron
transport
TOPIC 4~ The Electron Transport

39 Photophosphorylation is the 45 Given below is the diagrammatic representation of the
(a) formation of ADP in the presence of light Z-scheme of light reaction of photosynthesis. Identify
(b) formation of ATP in the presence of chemicals A, B, C and D select the correct option accordingly.
(c) formation of ATP in the presence of light A B
(d) formation of ATP in the presence of reducing agents
e– acceptor D
40 When the chloroplast pigments absorb light
Light e– acceptor
(a) they become reduced and move down hill in the ETS C
ADP+Pi ATP
(b) they lose their potential energy
(c) their electrons become excited and move uphill in the Electron
ETS transport
(d) None of the above system
41 The electrons in the reaction centre of PS-I are
(a) excited simultaneously with PS-II
(b) excited simultaneously with P680 LHC
(c) excited simultaneously with P700
LHC
42 The movement of electrons in Electron Transport H2O → 2e– + 2H+ + [O]
System (ETS) in light reaction is
(a) uphill in terms of redox potential scale A B C D
(b) down hill in terms of redox potential scale (a) Photosystem -I Photosystem -II NADP + NADPH
(c) uphill in terms of oxidation (b) Photosystem-II Photosystem-I NADP + NADPH
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Photosystem-I Photosystem-II NADPH NADP +
43 In Z-scheme of light reaction, the participating (d) Photosystem-II Photosystem-I NADPH NADP +
pigment systems is/are 46 Which chemical compound/molecule supplies
(a) PS-I and PS-II electrons continuously to PS-II?
(b) PS-III (a) CO2 (b) O2 (c) H2 O (d) NADPH
(c) carotenoid and xanthophyll
47 During the light reaction, the water splits into
(d) PS-II
(a) H+ , O2 and electrons
44 Electrons are transferred by splitting of H 2O through (b) H2 , O2 and electrons
ETC during light reaction and reduce (c) 2H+ , [O] and 2 electrons
(a) NAD to NADH + H+ (b) NADPH to H+ 1 1
(d) H2 , O2 electrons
(c) NADP to NADPH + H (d) NAD to NADPH + H+
+ +
2 2
48 If green plants are incubated with O18 labelled 55 Photophosphorylation in chloroplast is most similar to
water, which molecule (photosynthesis product) will the
become radioactive from the given options? (a) mitochondrial substrate level phosphorylation
(a) O2 (b) electrons (b) mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation
(c) CO2 (d) C6 H12 O6 (c) mitochondrial hydrolysis of H2 O
49 How many H + ions are formed from 12 water
molecules during non-cyclic photophosphorylation? 56 Along with the electrons that come from the electron
(a) 12 (b) 24 acceptor of ……, protons are necessary for the
(c) 36 (d) 48 reduction of NADP + .
(a) PS-II (b) PS-I (c) ATP (d) NADPH
50 The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes
from water molecules. Which of the following pairs 57 Which of the following is not a product of light
of elements is involved in this reaction? reaction of photosynthesis ? NEET 2018
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (a) NADPH (b) NADH (c) ATP (d) Oxygen
(a) Manganese and potassium 58 During light reaction of photosynthesis,
(b) Magnesium and molybdenum (a) ADP is phosphorylated and NADPH is oxidised
(c) Magnesium and chlorine (b) ADP is phosphorylated and NADP is reduced
(d) Manganese and chlorine (c) ADP is phosphorylated and NADPH is reduced
51 Conditions required for cyclic photophosphorylation (d) ATP is phosphorylated and NADPH is reduced
are 59 Select the correct pathway for electron transport during
(a) aerobic condition, low light intensity photosynthesis.
(b) aerobic condition, optimum light intensity (a) CO2 → RuBP → Glucose - ATP
(c) anaerobic condition, low light intensity
(b) H2 O → PS-I → PS-II → NADPH + H+
(d) anaerobic condition, optimum light intensity
(c) H2 O → PS-II → PS-I → NADPH + H+
52 Which photosystem is involved only in cyclic
photophosphorylation? JIPMER 2018 (d) H2 O → PS-II → PS-I → ATP
(a) PS-II (b) PS-I 60 The membranous system or grana is responsible for
(c) Xanthophyll and PS-II (d) Xanthophyll and PS-I (a) trapping light energy, but not for ATP and NADPH2
formation
53 Cyclic photophosphorylation
(b) trapping light energy and also for fixation of CO2
(a) results in the formation of ATP only
(c) ATP and NADPH2 formation, but not for light trapping
(b) occurs at wavelength beyond 680 nm
(d) light capturing and also for NADPH2 and ATP formation
(c) occurs in stroma lamellae
(d) All of the above 61 Which hypothesis best explains the synthesis of ATP in
54 Identify A, B and C in the given figure of cyclic
chloroplast?
(a) Chemosynthetic hypothesis
phosphorylation and choose the correct option
(b) Chemiosmotic hypothesis
accordingly.
(c) Potential gradient hypothesis
C
(d) Redox gradient hypothesis
62 Photosynthesis and respiration have which of the
e– acceptor
Light
following in common?
(a) In eukaryotes, both processes occur in specialised
organelles
B (b) ATP synthesis in both processes relies on chemiosmotic
mechanism
A (c) Both use electron transport
Chlorophyll 63 Proton gradient is very important across the membrane
P700 because
(a) building up of proton gradient releases energy
(a) A–ETS, B–ADP + Pi → ATP, C–PS-II
(b) building up of proton gradient increases the pH towards
(b) A–ETS, B–ADP + Pi → ATP, C–PS-I
lumen side of thylakoid membrane
(c) A–NADH 2 , B–ADP + Pi → ATP, C–PS-I
(c) breakdown of proton gradient releases CO2
(d) A–NADH 2 , B–ADP + Pi → ATP, C–PS-II
(d) breakdown of proton gradient releases energy
64 Identify A, B, C, D and E from the given figure and (a) electrons are transferred to hydrogen carrier which is
choose the correct option accordingly. present on inner membrane
+ (b) electrons are transferred to electron carrier
H
(c) electrons are transferred to intermembrane space
+
NADP (d) electrons are transferred to hydrogen carrier, which is
present outerside of membrane
NADPH
A C B 66 NADP reductase enzyme is present on the
(a) lumen side of membrane
Oxidation of (b) lamellae side of membrane
water (c) stroma side of membrane
+
+ H +
(d) cell membrane of chloroplast membrane
H + H
H D 67 In a chloroplast, the highest number of protons are
high H+
F0 found in NEET 2016
Thylakoid (a) lumen of thylakoids (b) intermembrane space
membrane (c) antennae complex (d) stroma
E F1 68 Proton gradient is broken down due to
low H+ (a) movement of electrons across the membrane to stroma
ATP synthase
ADP ATP (b) movement of electrons across the membrane to lumen
(a) A–PS-I, B–PS-II, C–Cytochrome-b and c, D–Lumen (c) movement of proton across the membrane to lumen
stroma, E–Stroma (d) movement of proton across the membrane to stroma
(b) A–PS-I, B–PS-II, C–Cytochrome-b and c, D–Stroma, 69 The ATP synthase of chloroplast consists of
E–Lumen
(a) CF 0 and CF1 (b) CF1 and CF 2
(c) A–PS-II, B–PS-I, C–Cytochrome-b and c, D–Stroma,
E–Lumen (c) CF 0 and CF 2 (d) All of these
(d) A–PS-II, B–PS-I, C–Cytochrome-b6 and f, D–Lumen, 70 ATPase has
E–Stroma (a) channel that allows H+ diffusion
65 During photosynthesis the protons are transported (b) channel that allows electron diffusion
across the thylakoid membrane into the lumen (c) channel that allows O2 molecule diffusion
because (d) channel that allows CO2 molecule diffusion
TOPIC 5 ~ Where are the ATP and NADPH Used?

71 ATP and NADPH produced in light reaction by the (a) Water is more in thylakoid
movement of electrons in ETC are used immediately (b) Light reaction occurs in stroma
for (c) Dark reaction/Calvin cycle occurs in grana and needs
(a) oxidation of carbohydrate ATP + NADPH2
(b) synthesis of sugar in biosynthetic phase (d) The Calvin cycle, which consumes ATP and NADPH2
(c) reduction of carbon dioxide occurs in stroma
(d) Both (b) and (c) 74 Plants are divided into two groups based on the
72 If the light becomes unavailable during pathways they use for CO 2 assimilation during
photosynthesis then biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis. These are
(a) immediately biosynthetic process stops (a) C3 plants forming PGA and C4 plants forming OAA,
respectively as first products of CO2 fixation
(b) biosynthetic phase does not stop
(b) C3 plants forming OAA and C4 plants forming PGA,
(c) biosynthetic phase stops forever respectively as first product of CO2 fixation
(d) biosynthetic phase continues for some time and then (c) C3 plants forming PEP and C4 plants forming OAA,
stops respectively as first product of CO2 fixation
73 In terms of the spatial organisation of photosynthesis (d) None of the above
within the chloroplast, what is the advantage of light 75 During the dark reaction, the acceptor of CO 2 is
reactions producing ATP and NADPH 2 on the
(a) NADPH2 (b) RuBP
stromal side of the thylakoid membrane?
(c) H2 O (d) CO2
TOPIC 6~ The Calvin Cycle (C3) and C4-pathway
76 Why Calvin cycle is called C 3 -cycle? 83 Identify A, B and C in the given figure and choose the
(a) Primary CO2 acceptor is C3 compound correct option from the set (A-C) given below.
(b) Many intermediate compounds are C3 compound Atmosphere
(c) 1st stable product is 3 PGA which is a C3
Ribulose-1,5- CO2 + H2O
compound
bisphosphate
77 In stroma, 1 A
ADP
(a) enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into the
plant leading to ATP and NADH2 formation
(b) enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into plant
leading to the synthesis of sugar, which in turn,
C 3 3-phosphoglycerate
forms starch
(c) light energy is captured to form glucose
(d) ATP and NADPH2 are splitted and H2 O and O2
comes out ATP ATP
+
78 Carboxylation (C 3 cycle) is catalysed by 2 BA NADPH
(a) carboxylase
(b) RuBP carboxylase Triose
phosphate ADP
(c) RuBP oxygenase
+
(d) Both (b) and (c) Sucrose, starch Pi+NADP +
79 Every CO 2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle (a) A–Reduction, B–Carboxylation, C–Regeneration
needs (b) A–Reduction, B–Regeneration, C–Carboxylation
(a) 2 molecules of NADPH and 3 molecules of ATP (c) A–Carboxylation, B–Reduction, C–Regeneration
for its fixation (d) A–Carboxylation, B–Regeneration, C–Reduction
(b) 2 molecules of NADPH and 2 molecules of ATP 84 In Calvin cycle, if one molecule of RuBP is carboxylated
for its fixation than how many PGA molecule will be formed?
(c) variable amount of ATP (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(d) Only NADPH
85 Which of the following begins the Calvin cycle and is the
80 In dark reaction, regeneration of RuBP needs commitment step that results the entire pathway being
(a) 2 molecules of ATP carried out?
(b) 1 molecule of ATP (a) 3PGA → 3PGAld
ATP, NADPH 2
(c) 3 molecules of ATP
(b) The regeneration of RuBP
(d) 4 molecules of ATP
(c) CO2 + RuBP → 3PGA
81 How many turns of Calvin cycle produces one (d) It can start from anywhere
molecule of glucose?
(a) Eight
86 With reference to three Calvin cycles, which of the given
(b) Six
options is correct for the following questions?
(c) Three I. How many gross PGAL molecules are produced ?
(d) One II. Total, how many ATP molecules are required for synthesis
of PGAL molecules ?
82 In dark cycle, one molecule of glucose
III. Total how many NADPH 2 molecules are required for the
formation needs
synthesis of obtained PGAL molecules ?
(a) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH
(a) I–3PGAL, II–3ATP, III–3NADPH 2
(b) 14 ATP and 12 NADPH (b) I–6PGAL, II–6ATP, III–6 NADPH 2
(c) 16 ATP and 12 NADPH (c) I–18PGAL, II–18ATP, III–18NADPH 2
(d) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH (d) I–9 PGAL, II–9ATP, III–9NADPH 2
87 Bundle sheath cells of C 4 -plants are rich in which (a) A–Mesophyll cell, B–Fixation, C–Bundle sheath cell,
D–Decarboxylation
enzyme?
(b) A–Mesophyll cell, B–Decarboxylation, C–Bundle
(a) PEP carboxylase (b) Malate dehydrogenase
sheath cell, D–Fixation
(c) Phosphofructokinase (d) RuBisCO
(c) A–Chloroplast, B–Decarboxylation, C–Bundle sheath
88 Kranz anatomy is found in JIPMER 2019 cell, D–Fixation
(a) C3 -plants (b) Only in monocots (d) A–Chloroplast, B–Fixation, C–Bundle sheath cell,
(c) Both C4 and C3 -plants (d) C4 -plants D–Fixation
89 In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO 2 94 Fixation of one molecule of CO 2 requires how much
acceptor is NEET (Odisha) 2019 (in C 4 plants) ATP and NADPH, respectively?
(a) Oxaloacetic acid (b) Phosphoglyceric acid (a) 5/2 (b) 2/5
(c) Phosphoenol pyruvate (d) RuBisCO (c) 2/3 (d) 3/2
X
90 PEP + CO 2 + H 2O → Oxaloacetic acid + H 3 PO 4 . 95 Which plant performs photosynthesis even after the
Identify X. closing of stomata?
(a) Ligase (b) Oxidoreductase (a) C2 (b) C3
(c) PEP carboxylase (d) Lyase (c) C4 (d) C5
91 Malic acid or aspartic acid and oxaloacetic acid both 96 PEPCase has an advantage over RuBisCO. The
are found in advantage is
(a) mesophyll cell (b) meristematic cell (a) RuBisCO combines with O2 , but PEPCase does not
(c) bundle sheath cell (d) epidermal cell (b) RuBisCO combines with NO2 , but PEPCase does not
(c) RuBisCO conserves energy, but PEPCase does not
92 Which of these is incorrect for C 4 plants?
(d) PEPCase is present in both mesophyll cells and bundle
JIPMER 2018 sheath cells, but RuBisCO is not
(a) Kranz anatomy (b) CO 2 acceptor is PEP
97 Chloroplasts without grana are known to occur in
(c) PEPCase in mesophyll (d) RuBisCO in mesophyll
(a) bundle sheath cells of C3 plant
93 Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure and choose (b) bundle sheath cells of C4 plant
the correct option accordingly.
(c) mesophyll cells of C4 plant
Atmospheric CO2
(d) mesophyll cells of C3 plant
Plasma membrane 98 What is the site of C 3 cycle in C 3 and C 4 plants?
A AIIMS 2019
Cell wall
(a) In C3 plants–Mesophyll cell and in C4 plants–Bundle
sheath cell
HCO3– Phosphoenol-
pyruvate (b) In C3 plants–Bundle sheath cell and in C4
plants–Mesophyll cell
(c) In C4 plants–Bundle sheath cell and in C3
plants–Bundle sheath cell
B Regeneration (d) In C3 plants–Mesophyll cell and in C4
plants–Mesophyll cell
Plasmo- C4 acid C3 acid
desmata 99 C 4 -pathway is advantageous over C 3 -pathway in
plants, because it AIIMS 2019
(a) occurs in relatively low CO 2 concentration
C
(b) uses more amount of water
Transport Transport (c) occurs in relatively low O 2 concentration
Fixation by (d) is less efficient in energy utilisation
Calvin cycle
100 Which of the following materials are not recycled
C4 acid
CO2
between dark and light reactions?
(a) NADPH + H
D C3 acid
(b) ADP
(c) ATP
(d) O2 and CO2
TOPIC 7 ~ Photorespiration
101 Photorespiration is the light dependent reaction in 106 C 4 plant minimises the photorespiration because C 4
which utilisation of plants
(a) oxygen and release of H2 O takes place (a) use PEPCase to initiate CO2 -fixation
(b) oxygen and release of H+ takes place (b) do not carry out the Calvin cycle in low CO 2 level
(c) oxygen and release of CO2 takes place (c) exclude Calvin cycle
(d) oxygen and release of ATP takes place (d) show photorespiration
102 The process, which makes major difference 107 Which crop utilises solar energy most efficiently?
between C 3 and C 4 plants is (a) Potato (b) Sugarcane (c) Wheat (d) Rice
NEET 2016, CBSE-AIPMT 2012
108 RuBisCO performs oxygenase activity at
(a) glycolysis (b) Calvin cycle
(a) low CO2 concentration
(c) photorespiration (d) respiration
(b) high CO2 concentration
103 The most abundant enzyme in the world is (c) high H2 O concentration
(a) ligase (b) RuBisCO (d) low H2 O concentration
(c) PEPCase (d) Carboxylase
109 Peroxisomes in photorespiration
104 In C 3 plant, when O 2 concentration is more, the O 2 (a) help in the oxidation of glycolate
binds to RuBisCO and RuBP gets changed to (b) help in the oxygenation of vacuole
(a) 2 molecules of PGA (c) help in the synthesis of PGA
(b) 2 molecules of phosphoglycerate (d) help in the reduction of glyoxylate
(c) 2 molecules of phosphoglycolate 110 A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses,
(d) one molecule each of phosphoglycerate and has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates
phosphoglycolate of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has
105 The correct sequence of cell organelles during improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which
photorespiration is CBSE-AIPMT 2012 of the following physiological groups would you
(a) Chloroplast–Golgi bodies–Mitochondria assign this plant? NEET 2016
(b) Chloroplast–Rough endoplasmic (a) C4
reticulum–Dictyosomes (b) CAM
(c) Chloroplast–Mitochondria–Peroxisome (c) Nitrogen-fixer
(d) Chloroplast–Peroxisome–Mitochondria (d) C3
TOPIC 8~ Factors Affecting Photosynthesis

111 Plant factors affecting photosynthesis include 114 Light compensation point is the point where
(a) number, age, size and orientation of leaves, mesophyll (a) gaseous exchange occurs in photosynthesis
cells and chloroplast, internal CO2 concentration and (b) gaseous exchange does not occur in photosynthesis
the amount of chlorophyll (c) gaseous exchange reduces in photosynthesis
(b) nature of leaves, size of mesophyll cell and light (d) light intensity become appropriate for photosynthesis
(c) mesophyll cells distribution and temperature
(d) quantity of chlorophyll, size of leaves and CO2 115 Study the following graph showing the effect of light
112 The internal factors that affect photosynthesis of plant intensity on the rate of photosynthesis. Which of the
depend on the following option regarding this is correct ?
(a) morphological predisposition
Rate of photosynthesis
(b) genetic predisposition

(c) temperature
(d) environmental predisposition
B C
113 Law of limiting factor in relation to photosynthesis is E
proposed by A
(a) Blackman (b) Wiseman
(c) Calvin (d) Emerson
D
Light intensity
(a) Light is a limiting factor in the region-A 120 I. Tropical plants have a …A… than plants adapted to
(b) Region C represents that rate of photosynthesis is not temperate climates.
increased further by increasing light intensity bacause
some other factor becomes limiting II. Water has a/an …B… effect on the rate of
(c) Point D represents the intensity of light at which some photosynthesis.
other factor becomes limiting III. The optimum temperature for photosynthesis of
(d) All of the above different plants depends on …C… .
116 Light is rarely a limiting factor in nature except in Identify A and B and choose the correct option.
(a) maize A B C
(b) sugarcane (a) higher temperature optimum direct habitat
(c) Sorghum (b) lower temperature optimum indirect water
(d) plants in shade or in dense forests (c) lower temperature optimum direct light
117 Under normal condition, which one of the following (d) higher temperature optimum indirect habitat
is a major limiting factor?
121 I. Temperature
(a) Light (b) CO2
(c) Temperature (d) Chlorophyll II. CO2 concentration
III. Chlorophyll arrangement
118 C 3 plants show optimum photosynthesis at
IV. Water
(a) high O2 concentration (b) high CO2 concentration
(c) low O2 concentration (d) high temperature 45°C Among the given factors, identify the external factors
that affect the rate of photosynthesis and choose the
119 The plants that respond to higher temperatures and
correct option accordingly.
show higher rate of photosynthesis are
(a) I, II and IV
(a) C4
(b) C3 (b) I, II and III
(c) CAM (c) II, III and IV
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) I, III and IV
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 123 Assertion (A) During photosynthesis, glucose is
■ Direction (Q. No. 122-139) In each of the following formed, but it is stored in the form of starch.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Reason (R) Glucose is osmotically active, while
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). starch is inactive.
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as 124 Assertion (A) The absorption spectrum of
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation chlorophyll-a shows close correlation with its action
of A spectrum.
Reason (R) Both PS-I and PS-II contain chlorophyll-a.
explanation of A
(c) If A is true, but R is false 125 Assertion (A) The presence of accessory pigments
(d) If A is false, but R is true increases the rate of photosynthesis.
Reason (R) These pigments absorb the light of
122 Assertion (A) Photosynthesis is a physicochemical
different wavelengths and transfer it to reaction centre.
process.
126 Assertion (A) PS-I and PS-II names are given on the
Reason (R) During photosynthesis, conversion of
light energy is a physical process, while synthesis of basis of activity in the photosynthesis.
glucose is a chemical process. Reason (R) During non-cyclic photophosphorylation,
PS-II works first and then PS-I.
127 Assertion (A) Both PS-I and PS-II are present on the 139 Assertion (A) Twelve molecules of water are used in
different surfaces of thylakoid membranes. the equation of photosynthesis.
Reason (R) Photolysis of water occurs inside the Reason (R) The equation of photosynthesis is
lumen, while NADP + is used in stroma for the 6CO 2 + 12H 2O  
Light
→ C 6 H12O 6 + 6H 2O + 6O 2
reduction of CO 2 .
128 Assertion (A) Dark reaction always takes place in II. Statement Based Questions
dark only.
140 Which one of the following statements is incorrect
Reason (R) Enzymes of dark reaction are temperature
about chloroplast ?
sensitive.
(a) Usually chloroplast align themselves along the walls of
129 Assertion (A) 6 cycles of Calvin cycle are required mesophyll cells, so that they get optimum quantity of
for synthesis of one glucose molecule. incident light
Reason (R) In each Calvin cycle, only one molecule (b) Within chloroplast there is a membranous system
of CO 2 is fixed. Hence, 6 molecules of CO 2 are consisting of grana, stroma lamellae and stroma
required for one molecule of glucose. (c) There is division of labour
130 Assertion (A) C 4 plants can survive in high (d) In grana CO2 is fixed
temperature. 141 Study the graph below showing the absorption
Reason (R) PEPCase enzyme works at high specturm of chlorophyll-a, b and the carotenoids.
temperature only.
131 Assertion (A) In C 3 -cycle, the first stable compound
chloroplast’s pigments
Absorbance of light by
Chlorophyll-b
is 3C compound. AIIMS 2019
Reason (R) In C 4 plants, Calvin cycle is absent. Carotenoids
132 Assertion (A) C 3 -pathway is more efficient than Chlorophyll-a

C 4 -pathway.
Reason (R) Photorespiration does not occur in
C 4 plants.
400 500 600 700
133 Assertion (A) C 4 plants can perform photosynthesis
Wavelength of light in nanometres (nm)
at very low level of CO 2 too.
Reason (R) In C 4 plants, CO 2 is utilised efficiently in Select the correct statement regarding the graph.
bundle sheath cells. (a) The curve showing the amount of absorption of
134 Assertion (A) Calvin pathway of sugar synthesis is different wavelengths of light by a photosynthetic
same in C 3 and C 4 plants. pigment is called as absorption spectrum
Reason (R) C 3 is the only pathway for synthesis of (b) Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b absorb maximum light
sugar from CO 2 . in blue and red wavelength of light
(c) Rate of photosynthesis is maximum in blue light and
135 Assertion (A) Photorespiration is a waste process.
red light
Reason (R) During photorespiration, neither ATP nor
NADPH is formed.
142 Consider the graph below and select the statement
136 Assertion (A) The light reaction is temperature which explains the graph correctly.
sensitive.
Reason (R) Change in temperature affects light Rate of photosynthesis
reaction more than dark reaction. Absorption of light
Light absorbed
137 Assertion (A) Water is rarely limiting factor in

photosynthesis.
Reason (R) Plants use less than 1% of the absorbed
water for photosynthesis.
138 Assertion (A) Lack of water indirectly decreases the
rate of photosynthesis. 400 500 600 700
Reason (R) Lack of water causes wilting of leaves, Wavelength of light in nanometers (nm)
which reduces their surface area.
(a) The action spectrum shows a graphic representation of (a) Both processes can happen together because the
amount of light of different wavelengths absorbed by a diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
pigment (b) The above processes happen only during night time
(b) Absorption spectrum depicts the relative rates of (c) One process occurs during daytime and the other at
photosyntesis of different wavelengths of light
night
(c) Action spectrum corresponds closely to absorption (d) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
spectrum of chlorophyll-a
(d) None of the above 149 I. Cyclic photophosphorylation needs PS-I and PS-II.
143 Which of the following statements concerning the II. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces NADPH + H +
light reaction of photosynthesis is true ? and ATP.
(a) PS-I can operate independent of PS- II III. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves H2 O.
(b) PS-I and II are activated by different wavelengths of light IV. Electrons are recycled in cyclic photophosphorylation.
(c) PS-I and II transfer electrons and create proton Identify the correct and incorrect statements and
gradients across the thylakoid membrane select the option accordingly.
(a) I, II and III are incorrect, IV is correct
144 Which one of the following statements is false in case (b) I, II and IV are incorrect, III is correct
of C 4 plants ? (c) I, II and III are incorrect, II is correct
(a) CO2 acceptor is RuBisCO in mesophyll cell (d) IV, III and II are incorrect, I is correct
(b) Carboxylation occurs in mesophyll cells
(c) Leaves have two cell types 150 Consider the following statements.
(d) Mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO I. In biosynthetic phase (C 3 cycle), enzymes are
present in the matrix of Golgi body.
145 Which one of the following statements is false?
II. C3 and C4 cycle are two parts of biosynthetic phase of
(a) H2 S, not H2 O, is involved in photosynthesis of purple photosynthesis in C 3 plants.
sulphur bacteria
(a) Both I and II are true
(b) Light and dark reactions are stopped in the absence of light
(b) Both I and II are false
(c) Calvin cycle occurs in the grana of chloroplast (c) I is true, II is false
(d) ATP is produced during light reaction via (d) I is false, II is true
chemiosmosis
151 The following (I-VI) are the main steps of
146 Which of the following statements regarding chemosynthetic ATP synthesis in the light reaction.
photorespiration are true? Arrange them in correct order.
(a) Photorespiration is a metabolically expensive pathway
I. H+ concentration gradient established.
(b) Photorespiration is avoided when CO2 is abundant
II. H+ diffuses through ATP synthetase.
(c) Photorespiration results in a loss of usable carbon
dioxide
III. Carriers use energy from electrons to move H+ across
the membrane.
IV. Electrons from PS-II pass along electron transport
147 With reference to factors affecting the rate of chain.
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is V. Light excites electrons in PS-II.
not correct? NEET 2017
VI. Energy of H+ flow is used by ATP synthetase to make
(a) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full ATP.
sunlight (a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI (b) II, IV, V, III, II, VI
(b) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% (c) V, IV, III, I, II, VI (d) V, VI, III, IV, II, I
can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(c) C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced 152 Calvin cycle can be described under three stages.
photosynthesis, while C4 plants have much lower These stages are
temperature optimum I. Carboxylation of CO2 into stable organic intermediate.
(d) Tomato is a greenhouse crop, which can be grown in II. Ligation reactions leading to the formation of RuBisCO.
CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield III. Reduction reactions leading to the formation of
148 Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through glucose.
the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal IV. Regeneration of CO2 acceptor molecule.
opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during Choose the correct option.
photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using (a) II, III and IV (b) I, III and IV
the following options. NEET 2016 (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
153 Consider the following statement regarding C 4 plants. 157 Match the following columns.
I. Sunflower exhibits Kranz anatomy. Column I Column I
II. In mesophyll cells of C4 plants, both RuBisCO and (Photosynthetic reaction) (Features)
PEPCase enzyme occurs. A. Light reaction 1. Occurs in stroma
III. Oxaloacetate is formed by carboxylation of B. Dark reaction 2. NADPH and ATP
phosphoenol pyruvate in mesophyll cells of C4 plants. produced
Choose the option containing correct statements. 3. Starch
(a) I and II (b) II and III
4. Occurs in grana
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
154 Study the following statements regarding Codes
chlorophyll-a. A B A B
I. Chlorophyll-a appears blue-green in colour. (a) 4, 2 1, 3 (b) 3, 4 1, 2
(c) 1, 3 2, 4 (d) 2, 1 3, 4
II. It is the primary photosynthetic pigment.
III. It is soluble in water as well as petroleum ether. 158 Match the following columns.
Choose the option containing incorrect statements. Column I Column I
(a) Only I (b) Only II (Pigments) (Colour produced on chromatograph)
(c) Only III (d) II and III A. Chlorophyll-a 1. Blue-green
155 Consider the following statements. B. Chlorophyll-b 2. Yellow-green

I. During chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP, one ATP C. Xanthophyll 3. Yellow
molecule is formed when 2H + pass through ATPase. D. Carotenoid 4. Yellow to yellow-orange
II. Light reactions of photosynthesis involve
photochemical reactions. Codes
A B C D A B C D
III. Dark reactions of photosynthesis involve carbon
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
reactions.
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
IV. Splitting of water takes place on the inner surface of the
thylakoid membrane. 159 Match the following columns.
Choose the option containing correct statements. Column I Column I
(a) II, III and IV (b) I, III and IV
A. Red colour of tomato and chilly 1. Chlorophyll-a
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
B. Reaction centre 2. Phycobilin
III. Matching Type Questions C. Phycoerythrin and phycocyanin 3. Lycopene
156 Match the following with respect to early experiments
Codes
of photosynthesis.
A B C A B C
Scientists Experiments (a) 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3
A. Joseph Priestley 1. Showed that plants release O2 (c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 1 2
B. Jan Ingenhousz 2. Showed that sunlight is essential 160 Match the following columns.
for photosynthesis
Column I Column II
C. Julius von Sachs 3. Proved that plants produce (Saturation point) (Plant types)
glucose when they grow
A. 10% of full sunlight 1. Plant in shade or in dense
D. Cornelius van Neil 4. Showed that hydrogen reduces forest
CO2 to carbohydrates
B. 50-70% of full sunlight 2. Most photosynthetic plants
Codes C. 200% of full sunlight 3. Plant in dry tropical region
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 Codes
(b) 2 3 4 1 A B C A B C
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) 3 2 1 (b) 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3 (c) 1 3 2 (d) 1 2 3
NCERT Exemplar
161 Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll? 168 Splitting of water is associated with
(a) Iron (b) Copper (a) photosystem-I
(c) Magnesium (d) Zinc (b) lumen of thylakoid
162 Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to (c) Both photosystem-I and II
chemical energy? (d) inner surface of thylakoid membrane
(a) Chlorophyll-a 169 The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light
(b) Chlorophyll-b reaction is
(c) Xanthophyll (a) PS-II, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS-I, ferredoxin
(d) Carotenoid (b) PS-I, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS-II, ferredoxin
163 Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called (c) PS-I, ferredoxin, PS-II
Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR)? (d) PS-I, plastoquinone, cytochromes, ferredoxin, PS-II
(a) 100-390 (b) 390-430 170 Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(c) 400-700 (d) 760-10000 (a) it can occur in dark also
164 Which light range is most effective in (b) it does not depend on light energy
photosynthesis? (c) it cannot occur during daylight
(a) Blue (b) Green (d) it occurs more rapidly at night
(c) Red (d) Violet 171 PEP is primary CO 2 acceptor in NEET 2017
165 Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from (a) C4 plants (b) C3 plants
(a) sun (c) C2 plants (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) infrared rays 172 The enzyme that is not found in a C 3 plant is
(c) organic substances (a) RuBP carboxylase (b) PEP carboxylase
(d) inorganic chemicals (c) NADP reductase (d) ATP synthase
166 Energy required for ATP synthesis in PS-II comes from 173 The reaction that is responsible for the primary
(a) proton gradient fixation of CO 2 is catalysed by
(b) electron gradient (a) RuBP carboxylase (b) PEP carboxylase
(c) reduction of glucose (c) PGA synthase (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) oxidation of glucose
174 When CO 2 is added to PEP, the first stable product
167 During light reaction in photosynthesis, which of the
following are formed synthesised is
(a) pyruvate
(a) ATP and sugar
(b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(b) Hydrogen, O2 and sugar
(c) phosphoglycerate
(c) ATP, hydrogen donor and O2
(d) oxaloacetate
(d) ATP, hydrogen and O2 donor
Answers
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (d) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (d) 32 (d) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (d) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (a) 39 (c) 40 (c)
41 (d) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (b) 55 (b) 56 (b) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (d)
61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (d) 64 (d) 65 (a) 66 (c) 67 (a) 68 (d) 69 (a) 70 (a)
71 (d) 72 (d) 73 (d) 74 (a) 75 (b) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (d) 79 (b) 80 (b)
81 (b) 82 (d) 83 (c) 84 (a) 85 (c) 86 (a) 87 (d) 88 (d) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (a) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (c) 96 (a) 97 (c) 98 (a) 99 (a) 100 (d)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (b) 104 (d) 105 (d) 106 (a) 107 (b) 108 (a) 109 (a) 110 (a)
111 (a) 112 (b) 113 (a) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (d) 117 (b) 118 (b) 119 (a) 120 (d)
121 (a)
122 (a) 123 (a) 124 (b) 125 (a) 126 (d) 127 (a) 128 (d) 129 (a) 130 (a) 131 (c)
132 (d) 133 (a) 134 (a) 135 (a) 136 (c) 137 (a) 138 (a) 139 (b) 140 (d) 141 (d)
142 (c) 143 (d) 144 (a) 145 (c) 146 (d) 147 (c) 148 (a) 149 (a) 150 (b) 151 (c)
152 (b) 153 (b) 154 (c) 155 (c) 156 (a) 157 (a) 158 (a) 159 (d) 160 (d)
161 (c) 162 (a) 163 (c) 164 (c) 165 (d) 166 (a) 167 (c) 168 (d) 169 (a) 170 (b)
171 (a) 172 (b) 173 (d) 174 (d)

2 (c) Green plants carry out photosynthesis, a 9 (b) Jan Ingenhousz did an experiment with aquatic
physico-chemical process by which they use light plant, where he showed that in bright sunlight, small
energy to drive the synthesis of organic compounds. bubbles are seen around green parts. These bubbles
4 (c) Chemosynthetic bacteria do not evolve oxygen were later identified as oxygen. Hence, Jan Ingenhousz
during photosynthesis. While, blue-green algae, red concluded that only green parts of plant release oxygen.
algae and C4 - plants take in CO2 from the environment 13 (d) Opton (d) is correct and can be explained as
and release O 2 into the environment during TW Engelmann (1843-1909) performed an interesting
photosynthesis. experiment using a prism. He splits light into its spectral
CO2 + H2 O → C6 H12 O6 + O2 ↑ components and then illuminated a green alga,
Cladophora, placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria
5 (a) Green parts of leaves perform photosynthesis. In the (Azotobater).
experiment, we see that uncovered part was able to
absorb light and starch was synthesised here as the The bacteria were used to detect the sites of O2
evolution. He observed that the bacteria accumulated
product of photosynthesis. Thus, turned blue-black on
mainly in the region of blue and red light of the split
dipping in iodine (as iodine react with starch to give this
spectrum. The first action spectrum of photsynthesis
colour).
was thus described.

6 (d) Half leaf experiment demonstrates that CO2 is
14 (a) van Niel demonstrated that O2 comes from water
essential for photosynthesis. In this experiment, a part instead from CO2 . He saw in green plants, H2 O is the
of a leaf is enclosed in a test tube containing some KOH hydrogen donor and is oxidised to O2 during
soaked cotton (which absorbs CO2 ) and the other half photosynthesis. Some organisms do not release O2
part is exposed to air. The setup is then placed in light during photosynthesis.
for some time.
When H2 S, instead of H2 O is the hydrogen donor for
On testing for starch later in the two halves of the leaf, purple and green sulphur bacteria, the oxidation product
the exposed part of the leaf tested positive for starch, is sulphur or sulphate depending on the organism and
while the portion that was in the tube, tested negative. not O2 . Hence, he inferred that O2 evolved by green
This showed that CO2 is required for photosynthesis. plant comes from H2 O, not from carbon dioxide. This
7 (d) Both options (a) and (b) are correct. was later proved by using radioisotopes technique.
Priestley hypothesised that plants restore to the air 16 (d) Ruben and Kamen (1941) and Ruben, et al. (1941)
whatever breathing animal and burning candle removes. suspended Chlorella in water having non-radioactive
heavy isotope of oxygen O18 , instead of natural oxygen absorption of light thereby doing maximum
(O16 ). photosynthesis.
The suspension was then illuminated. Oxygen evolved 28 (c) Absorption spectrum is the curve obtained by
was tested by means of mass spectrometer. It was found plotting the amount of absorbed light of different
to be having isotope, O18 . This can be possible only if wavelengths by a particular pigment. Action spectrum
oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from is the curve depicting the relative rate of
splitting of water. photosynthesis at different wavelength of light. It
Light
shows that the maximum photosynthesis occurs at the
6CO2 + 12H2 O18 → C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O + 6O18
2 blue and red region. Thus, absorption spectrum of
Chlorophyll
chlorophyll-a and action spectrum of photosynthesis is
17 (b) Chloroplasts are found in the mesophyll cells of the identical as chlorophyll-a absorbs red and blue light.
leaves. Leaves have maximum number of chloroplasts. 29 (c) Visible light consists of radiation having a
18 (c) When intensity of light is low, chloroplasts align wavelength between 390-760 nm (or 3900-7600 A). It
themselves in the mesophyll cell in such a way that their can be resolved into light of different colours. Namely,
flat surfaces are parallel to the cell wall of mesophyll violet (390-430 nm), blue (430-470 nm), blue-green
cells. This allows the chloroplasts to get the optimum (470-500 nm), green (500-580 nm), yellow (580-600
quantity of the incident light. nm), orange (600-650 nm), red (650-760 nm).
19 (b) The correct option is (b). The labelled parts are as Red light above 760 nm is called infrared and the light
follows radiation shorter than the violet is called ultraviolet
A–Stroma lamella–It is the region of the stroma that light.
interconnects the thylakoids stalks. It does not contain 30 (a) Maximum photosynthesis rate has been observed
chlorophyll. in the full spectrum. Regarding the effect of different
B–Granum (plural grana)–It is stacks of discs formed by wavelengths, maximum photosynthesis occurs in red
aggregated thylakoids. It contains light harvesting system light (660 nm), second maximum in blue light (440
composed of chlorophyll. nm) and minimum in green light.
C–Stroma–It refers to the fluid-filled inner space of 31 (d) Option (d) is correct as
chloroplasts surrounding thylakoids and grana. Dark Chlorophyll-b, xanthophylls and carotenoids are called
reaction occurs here to form starch. accessory pigments of photosynthesis. These pigments
absorb light and transfer the energy to chlorophyll-a.
20 (c) Option (c) is incorrect about chloroplasts. It can be They enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming
corrected as light to be utilised for photosynthesis but also protect
They are not associated with any type of respiration, i.e. chlorophyll-a from photooxidation.
aerobic and anaerobic and can be found in any type of
cell. They are spherical, ovoid or disc-shaped cell 32 (d) Light reaction starts when solar radiation or light
organelles. These are found in plants and algae. They are falls on the PS-II. Light reaction is also called
involved in photosynthesis due to the presence of photochemical phase, which includes light absorption,
chlorophyll in them. During photosynthesis, O 2 is water splitting, oxygen release and the formation of
released here. high energy chemical intermediates like ATP and
NADPH.
21 (d) The chloroplast’s membrane system is responsible
for trapping the light energy. The light energy is used in 33 (d) Both options (a) and (c) are correct. Light
synthesis of ATP and NADPH. Harvesting complexes (LHCs) are present within the
photosystem-I (PS-I) and photosystem-II (PS-II). The
22 (d) In dark reaction, the products formed from light LHCs are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules
reaction are required. The dark reaction occurs outside of bound to proteins.
the thylakoids during day in CAM plants and during
night in C3 -plants. In this reaction, the energy from ATP 34 (d) Photosystems (PS) are made up of reaction centre
and NADPH are used to fix carbon dioxide. and antennae.

Thus, all the options are correct. Each photosystem has all the pigments (except one
molecule of chlorophyll-a) forming antennae (a light
23 (c) Anthocyanins are water soluble pigments found in
harvesting system). These pigments help to make
plant cell vacuoles. They may appear red, purple or blue
photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different
depending on pH. They are impermeable to cell
wavelength of light. The single chlorophyll- a molecule
membranes of plants and can leak out only when
forms the reaction centre.
membranes are damaged or dead.
38 (a) Emerson performed photosynthetic experiment on
24 (a) The molecular formula of chlorophyll-b is
Chlorella. He provided monochromatic light of more
C55H 70O 6N 4 Mg . It helps in photosynthesis by absorbing
than 680 nm and observed decrease in rate of
light energy. It is more soluble in polar solvents than
photosynthesis known as red drop.
chlorophyll-a because of its carbonyl group. It is of
yellow colour and primarily absorbs blue light. Later, he provided synchronised light of 680 nm and
700 nm and observed increase in rate of
26 (a) Chlorophyll-a is the chief photosynthetic pigment in photosynthesis, known as enhancement effect. This
the plants. It is the main pigment which allows maximum experiment led to discovery of two photosystems, i.e.
PS-I and PS-II operating simultaneously during 55 (b) Photophosphorylation in chloroplast is similar to
photosynthesis. the mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation. In both of
39 (c) Photophosphorylation is the formation of ATP from them, the proton gradient plays a significant role. In
ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of light. It chloroplast, the proton gradient develops in the lumen
is of two types, i.e. cyclic and non-cyclic. When the two and in mitochondria, the proton gradient develops in the
photosystems work in a series (i.e. first PS-II and then intermitochondrial space. Rest of the mechanism of
PS-I) then it is non-cyclic photophosphorylation and phosphorylation remains the same in both the organelle.
when only one photosystem, i.e. PS-I is involved, it is 57 (b) During light reaction of photosynthesis NADPH,
cyclic photophosphorylation. ATP and oxygen are formed. Oxygen is liberated by the
40 (c) When the chloroplast pigment, i.e. chlorophyll- a photolysis of water.
absorbs light of a appropriate wavelength (i.e. 680 nm), The electrons released during photolysis of water are
it causes the electrons of chlorophyll-a to become picked up by P680 photocentre of PS-II. On receiving
excited and jump into an orbit farther from the atomic light energy photocentre expels an electron which
nucleus. These electrons are then picked up by an passes over a series of carriers. As a result assimilatory
electron acceptor which passes them uphill in the power, i.e. ATP and NADPH is produced. NADH is
Electron Transport System (ETS) consisting of formed during respiration.
cytochromes. 58 (b) During the light reaction of photosynthesis,
43 (a) The Z-scheme of electron transport is non-cyclic l Formation of ATP from ADP takes place or
photophosphorylation. It involves both PS-I and PS-II. phosphorylation of ADP to ATP takes place.
It is the scheme of transfer of electrons, starting from
the PS-II, uphill to the acceptor, down the electron
l Reduction of NADP + to NADPH + H + takes place by
transport chain to PS-I, excitation of electrons, in the PS-I through electron transport system.
reaction centre of PS-I transfer to another acceptor and 59 (c) Electrons during photosynthesis go from H2 O to the
finally downhill to NADP + reducing it to NADPH + PS-II. They reach to PS-I by various cytochrome
H + . This scheme of electron transfer is called Z-scheme carriers. They ultimately reach to the NADP + and
due to its characteristic shape. reduce it in the presence of H+ to NADPH + H + .
46 (c) H2 O supplies electrons continuously to PS-II. In 61 (b) The chemiosmotic hypothesis explains the ATP
non-cyclic photophosphorylation there is flow of synthesis mechanism. Like in respiration, in
electrons from PS-II to PS-I in a unidirectional manner. photosynthesis too, ATP synthesis is linked to the
The electrons which get excited to PS-I from PS-II must development of proton gradient across the membrane.
be replaced. This is achieved by electrons available due This time these are the membranes of the thylakoid.
to splitting of water. 63 (d) Proton gradient is very important because it is the
47 (c) During non-cyclic photophosphorylation (light breakdown of this gradient that leads to the release of
reaction), there is splitting of water at PS-II into 2H+ , energy. The gradient is broken down due to the
[O], i.e. nascent oxygen and two electrons. movement of protons across the membrane to the
48 (a) Oxygen evolves by the oxidation of water molecule stroma through the transmembrane channel of the F0 of
in the process called photolysis of water. Thus, if water the ATPase.
is O18 labelled then oxygen liberated by this must also 67 (a) The splitting of water molecules takes place on the
be labelled. inner side of the inner membrane. So, highest number of
protons are found in the lumen of thylakoids.
49 (b) Each water molecule on photolysis yields two H +
ions. 68 (d) Proton gradient is broken down due to movement of
H2 O → 2H+ + [O] + 2e– proton across the membrane to the stroma through the
transmembrane channel of the F0 of the ATPase. This
So, by 12H2 O molecules in photolysis 24 H + will
breakdown leads to the release of energy.

produce. 69 (a)
50 (d) Photooxidation of water occurs at PS-II system in
ATP synthase of chloroplast consists of
the presence of Mn and Cl ions. In this, water splits
and produces hydrogen ions, electrons and O2 is
evolved.
51 (b) The conditions required for cyclic CF0 CF1
photophosphorylation are aerobic condition and It is embedded in the It protrudes from the outer surface of
optimum light intensity. membrane and forms a the thylakoid membrane on the
transmembrane channel side that falls into stroma. The breaking
It is a process of photophosphorylation in which an that carries out facilitated down of gradient provides enough
electron expelled by the excited photocentre is returned. diffusion across the energy to cause conformational
back to photosytem-I complex. This electron passes membrane. changes in F1 particle, which
through a series of electron carriers. Cyclic makes the enzyme synthesise
photophosphorylation is performed by photosystem-I several molecules of ATP.
only.
70 (a) ATPase has two parts, i.e. F0 and F1 . F0 part has 3 molecules each of ATP and NADPH2 will be
channels through which the diffusion of protons takes required.
place. 87 (d) In bundle sheath cells, the RuBisCO is present in
71 (d) Both options (b) and (c) are correct. Along with the highest concentration and PEP carboxylase is absent.
NADPH produced by the movement of electrons, the In mesophyll cells, the PEP carboxylase is present and
ATP will be used immediately in the biosynthetic reaction RuBisCO is absent.
taking place in the stroma, responsible for fixing CO2 88 (d) Kranz anatomy is found in C 4 -plants. These are
(reduction) and synthesis of sugars. plants that are adapted to dry tropical conditions
72 (d) Option (d) is correct. Kranz anatomy refers to the presence of two types of
As synthesis of sugars or carbohydrates takes place in the chloroplasts agranal in bundle sheath cells and granal
biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis. This process does in mesophyll cells ,e.g. sugarcane, maize, etc.
not directly depends on the presence of light, but is In these plants, the first stable product after the
dependent on the products of the light reaction, i.e. ATP fixation of CO 2 is 4C dicarboxylic acid called
and NADPH, besides CO2 and H2 O. Therefore if light Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA). But they still use the
becomes unavailable during photosynthesis then
C3 pathway or the Calvin cycle as the main
biosynthetic phase continues for some time and then
biosynthetic pathway.
stops, due to unavailability of products.
89 (c) In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2
74 (a) CO2 assimilation during biosynthetic phase of
acceptor is phosphoenol pyruvate. This occurs in
photosynthesis was said to be of two main types, i.e. C4-plants. Phosphoenol pyruvate, a 3-carbon
C3 -plants in which first stable product of CO2 -fixation is compound, acceptor of CO2 and forms oxaloacetic
PGA (C3 acid) and C4 -plants in which first stable product acid which is a 4-carbon compound.
of CO2 -fixation is OAA (C4 acid). 92 (d) Among the given options, option (d) is incorrect
75 (b) During the dark reaction, the acceptor of CO2 is about C4 -plants. The mesophyll cells of C4 -plants do
RuBP (Ribulose-1, 5, Bisphosphate). After accepting, not possess RuBisCO enzyme. C4 -plants show Kranz
CO2 , RuBP forms the intermediate six carbon compound, anatomy. In these plants, the initial fixation of CO2
which breaks down into 3 carbon stable compound. It is occurs in mesophyll cells. The primary acceptor of
called 3-Phosphoglyceric Acid (PGA). CO2 is Phosphoenol Pyruvate or PEP. It combines
76 (c) In Calvin cycle, the first product identified was with CO2 in the presence of PEP carboxylase or
3-phosphoglyceric acid or PGA. Thus, this cycle is PEPCase to form oxaloacetic acid or oxaloacetate.
known as C3 cycle. Melvin Calvin used radioactive 14 C 94 (a) Fixing of one molecule of CO2 or carbon needs
in algal photosynthesis, which led to the discovery that 5 ATP and 2 NADPH in C4 -plants. C4 -plants take
the first CO2 -fixation product as 3 carbon organic acid. 2 more ATP than C3 -plants. But the photorespiration
He also contributed to working out the complete is absent in C4 -plants, thus C4 -plants are more
biosynthetic pathway; hence it was called Calvin cycle economical than C3 -plants.
after him. 95 (c) Even after the closing of the stomata, C4 -plants
82 (d) Glucose molecule contains 6 carbons. For fixing one perform photosynthesis because they can produce
carbon (CO2 ), Calvin cycle needs 2 ATP and 2 NADPH their own CO2 by decarboxylation of malic acid. This
and 1 ATP for RuBP regeneration. CO2 is used in Calvin cycle like in C3 -plants.
Then for fixing six carbon (C6 H12 O6 ), Calvin cycle needs 96 (a) PEPCase has an advantage over the RuBisCO
18 ATP and 12 NADPH. because PEPCase does not bind to the oxygen. But
The net reaction of C3 dark fixation of CO2 is RuBisCO binds with oxygen and does the
6 RuBP + 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH photorespiration, which is a harmful and wastage
→ 6RuBP + C6 H12 O6 + 18 ADP + 18O2 + 12NADP+ process and leads to decrease in photosynthetic
yield.
84 (a) Carboxylation of one molecule of RuBP leads to the 98 (a) In C 3 -plants, all the reactions of C 3 or Calvin
formation of 2 molecules of 3-PGA. cycle occur in mesophyll cells of leaves, while
RuBP
RuBP + CO2 → 2 -carboxyl 3-keto 1-5, C 4 -plants show a distinct type of anatomy called as
carboxylase Kranz anatomy, where two different regions
bisphosphoribotol mesophyll cells and bundle sheath, are involved in
2-carboxyl 3-keto 1-5-bisphosphoribotol this process.
+ H2 O → 2(3PGA) 101 (c) Photorespiration is the light dependent reaction in
which utilisation of oxygen and release of carbon
86 (a) In Calvin cycle, ribulose 1-5 bisphosphate ultimately
dioxide takes place by photosynthetic organs of plant.
produces 3 molecules of PGAL, i.e. total 6 molecules by
Normally, photosynthetic organs do the reverse in the
three Calvin cycles.
light, i.e. uptake of CO2 and release of O2 .
In the same process, one ATP and one NADPH2 are 102 (c) Photorespiration naturally occurs in C3 -plants, but
required for each 3 PGAL molecules to be not in C4 -plants. C4 -plants have evolved C4 cycle to
phosphorylated. Thus, for three Calvin cycles, compensate photorespiratory loss.
103 (b) RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world. 116 (d) In nature, light is rarely a limiting factor except for
It is characterised by the fact that active sites can bind to plants in shade or in dense forests.
both CO2 and O2 . This because a limiting factor is the one which is least
This binding is competitive. It is the relative quantity in the plant and we know that sunlight is
concentration of O2 and CO2 that determines, which of always in abundance to plants except for plants in
two (CO2 and O2 ) will bind to enzyme. shade or in dense forest.
104 (d) In C3 plants, the site for photorespiration is 117 (b) Carbon dioxide is usually a limiting factor in
chloroplast. RuBP carboxylase functions as oxygenase photosynthesis under normal conditions particularly,
and instead of fixing carbon dioxide, it converts oxidase in clear summer days under adequate water supply.
Ribulose-1, 5-Bisphosphate (RuBP) to produce one 121 (a) The external factors would include the availability
molecule each of phosphoglycerate and of sunlight, temperature, CO2 concentration and
phosphoglycolate. water. As a plant photosynthesises, all these factors
RuBP
will simultaneously affect its rate.
RuBP + O2 → PGA + Phosphoglycolate 122 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
Oxygenase
105 (d) Photorespiration requires three cell organelles in
Photosynthesis is a physicochemical process. This is
sequence of chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
because photosynthesis involves the conversion of
106 (a) C4 -plants have very little photorespiration because its light energy, which is a physical process and leads to
initial carbon dioxide-fixation is done by PEP the formation of glucose which is a chemical
carboxylase not by RuBisCO. Beside this, C4 plants process.
generate their own CO2 by decarboxylation of C4 acids in 123 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
bundle sheath. Due to these reasons, the C4 plants the correct explanation of Assertion.
minimise photorespiration.
During photosynthesis, glucose is formed, but it is
107 (b) C4 plants utilise solar energy more efficiently because stored in the form of starch. This is because glucose
rate of photosynthesis is very high in them, being osmotically active can lead to water imbalance
e.g. sugarcane, maize, etc. whereas starch being osmotically inactive will not pull
108 (a) At the low CO2 and high O2 concentration,
water and will not cause water imbalance in the plant.
RuBisCO oxygenase activity increases. Binding of 124 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
RuBP with oxygen leads to the formation of not the correct explanation of Assertion.
2-phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate. The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll-a shows close
correlation with its action spectrum. This is because
109 (a) In photorespiration, glycolate is formed in chloroplast,
chlorophyll-a is the chief pigment associated with
it passes to the peroxisomes and gets oxidised to
photosynthesis and most of the photosynthesis takes
glyoxylate. Glyoxylate is aminated and gives rise to
place in the blue and red regions of the spectrum,
amino acid glycine, which enters into the mitochondria.
chlorophyll-a is found in PS-I and PS-II.
113 (a) Law of limiting factor was proposed by FF Blackman
(1905). It stated that, when a process is condition to its
number of separate factors, the rate of the process is
limited by the pace of the slowest factor (i.e. the factor The accessory pigments, i.e. chlorophyll-b,
present in minimum amount). xanthophylls and carotenoids also absorb light and
transfer the energy to chlorophyll-a. Hence, they
114 (b) There is a point in the light intensity, where there is
increase the rate of photosynthesis. These pigments
no gaseous exchange in photosynthesis. It is called light
enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light
compensation point.
to be utilised for photosynthesis.

115 (d) All options are correct. In the given graph, rate of
126 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion
photosynthesis initially increases with an increase in light
can be corrected as
intensity (region A) but soon it is levelled off. Thus,
initially light intensity was limiting the rate of The photosystem-I and photosystem-II are named in
photosynthesis. the sequence of their discovery and not in the
However, when light intensity was present in sufficient sequence in which they function during the light
amounts (region C), rate of photosynthesis did not reaction. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation
increases further. This is due to the fact that in region C, PS-II works first and then PS-I.
some other factor (e.g. CO2 concentration) becomes the 127 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
limiting factor. the correct explanation of Assertion.
At this region, the rate of photosynthesis could be further PS-II causes photolysis of water inside the lumen,
enhanced only by the increase in availability of other while PS-I causes the reduction of CO2 in the stroma
limiting factor (e.g. CO2 ). Point D represents the intensity by using NADP+ . Thus, PS-I and PS-II are present on
of light at which some other becomes limiting. the different surfaces of thylakoid membranes.
128 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion 138 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
can be corrected as correct explanation of Assertion.
Dark reaction is independent of light. It can take place Lack of water indirectly decreases the rate of
in the day or night time different plants. Dark reaction photosynthesis as lack of water causes wilting of leaves.
or Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis used the This leads to a decrease in the surface area of leaves
product of light reaction. Enzymes of dark reaction which subsequently leads to the reduced availability of
are temperature sensitive not light sensitive. surface area for exchange of gases to carry out
130 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is photosynthesis.
the correct explanation of Assertion. 139 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not
PEP carboxylase is the primary CO2 acceptor in the correct explanation of Assertion.
C4 - plants and this enzyme works at high temperature The net reaction of photosynthesis is
only. Thus, C4 -plants can survive in high temperature. Light
6CO2 + 12H2 O → C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O + 6O2
131 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
In C 3 cycle, the first stable compound is 3C From this reaction it is clear that to form one molecule of
compound — the phosphoglycerate. glucose, six molecules of CO2 are required.
The Reason can be corrected as This is because the product of light reaction required in
In C 4 -plants, the first CO 2 -fixation product is a dark reactions to form one molecule of glucose are
4C-oxaloacetic acid, but they use C 3 -pathway or 12 molecules of NADPH and 18 molecules of ATP.
Calvin cycle as the main biosynthetic pathway for For forming 2 molecules of NADPH from NADP +,
carbon-fixation (carboxylation), which occurs in the 2 molecules of water are required, so that demand of
bundle sheath cells of leaves. 4 electrons and protons can be satisfied. Two molecules
of water split to form 1 molecules of oxygen and the
132 (d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false. Assertion
respective number of electrons and hydrogen ions are also
can be corrected as
formed. Now for producing 12 molecules of NADPH,
C3 pathway produces CO2 and utilises ATP. C4 total 12 molecules of water are required.
pathway is more evolved than C3 pathway and
involved a superior CO2 -fixing mechanism. Thus, 140 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
C4 -pathway is more efficient than C3 -pathway. corrected as
CO2 is fixed during Calvin cycle in the stroma of
133 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is chloroplast.
141 (d) All statements are correct.
C 4 -plants can perform photosynthesis at very low
level of CO 2 too. This is due to the occurrence of The graph that shows the amount of absorption of
Calvin cycle in the bundle sheath cells of the leaves of different wavelength of light absorbed by a pigment
C 4 -plants. This pathway ensures efficient utilisation which is called absorption spectrum. The absorption
of CO 2 . spectra of chlorophyll-a and b shows that they absorb
maximum light in the blue-violet and red wavelengths.
134 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is The pigments are often known after the wavelength which
the correct explanation of Assertion. is absorbed to the maximum, e.g. Chl-a673 ,
Calvin cycle is the only pathway which enables sugar Chl-a683 (P680 ), Chl, a703 (P700 ). Rate of photosynthesis is
synthesis from CO 2 . Thus, Calvin cycle occurs both maximum in blue and red light.
in C3 and C4 -plants.
142 (c) Statement in option (c) explains the graph correctly.
135 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is The graph shows action spectrum of photosynthesis
the correct explanation of Assertion. superimposed on absorption spectrum of chorophyll-a.
In photorespiratory pathway neither ATP, nor Rest statements are incorrect and corrected as
NADPH is produced. It produces CO2 and utilises The absorption spectrum shows a graphic representation
l
ATP. Thus, photorespiration decreases photosynthetic of amount of light of different wavelengths absorbed by a
output. pigment.
136 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. The light l Action spectrum depicts the relative rates of
reaction and dark reacitons are both temperature photosynthesis of different wavelengths of light.
sensitive. 144 (a) The statements in option (a) is false in case of
Reason can be corrected as C4 -plants. The statement is corrected as follows
The dark reaction is enzymatic thus affected by In case of C4 - plants, the primary CO2 acceptor is a
change in temperatrue much more than light reaction. 3 carbon molecule, i.e. phosphoenol pyruvate and is
137 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is present in the mesophyll cells.
the correct explanation of Assertion. 145 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
Water is rarely a limiting factor in photosynthesis as corrected as
plants use less than 1% of the water absorbed. The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of chloroplast.
effect of water as a factor is more through its effect on Rest of the statements are correct.
the plant, rather than directly on photosynthesis.
147 (c) Statement in option (c) is not correct with reference 154 (c) Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as
to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis. The Chlorophyll-a is not soluble in water as well as
statement can be corrected as petroleum ether.
C3 - plants respond to higher temperature with Rest of the statements are correct.
decreased photosynthesis, while C4 -plants have much
161 (c) Magnesium (Mg) is present in the centre of
lower temperature optimum.
porphyrin ring of the chlorophyll molecule.
162 (a) Chlorophyll-a is the primary photosynthetic pigment.
148 (a) The reason given in option (a) is correct. It forms the reaction centre where the conversion of light
During photosynthesis, water vapour comes out energy into chemical energy occurs. In photosynthesis,
through a stomatal opening of the leaf of a plant. And sunlight energises electrons in chlorophyll, moving them
through the same opening CO2 diffuses into the leaf. to a higher energy state. In turn chlorophyll molecules
This simultaneous entry and exit of CO2 and water become oxidised and these electrons are used in the next
vapour, respectively, occurs due to a difference in the steps of photosynthesis.
diffusion coefficient of CO2 and water vapour.
163 (c) Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) ranges
149 (a) Statements I, II and III are incorrect, IV is correct. from 400-700 nm. This is the visible range of light
Incorrect statements can be corrected as energy.
l Cyclic photophosphorylation operates only by PS-I. 164 (c) Red Light (620nm-750nm) is the most effective in
l During cyclic photophosphorylation, only ATP photosynthesis because it has exactly the right amount of
formation takes place and recyclation of electrons also energy to energise, or excite, chlorophyll electrons and
occurs. boost them out of their orbits to a higher energy level.
l Unlike, the non-cyclic phosphorylation, splitting of 165 (d) Chemosynthetic bacteria were the first organism on
H2O does not take place in the cyclic phosphorylation. earth who synthesised their own food by obtaining
150 (b) Both I and II statements are false.These statements energy from inorganic chemicals like H2 S, NO2 , etc.
can be corrected as Photosynthetic bacteria have taken their origin from
chemosynthetic bacteria.
l C3 and C4 cycle are the two parts of biosynthetic phase
or dark reaction of photosynthesis in C4-plant, but in 166 (a) The energy for ATP synthesis comes from proton
C3-plant, only C3 cycle occurs. gradient, which develops along the inner membrane, e.g.
in case of mitochondria in electron transport chain and in
l The enzyme in these two cycles are present in chloroplast in the PS-II.
chloroplast not in Golgi bodies.
167 (c) Light dependent reaction of photosynthesis uses solar
151 (c) The correct order of steps in chemosynthetic ATP power to generate ATP, NADPH2 , Hydrogen donor and
synthesis is as follows O2 .
V. Light excites electrons in PS-II.
168 (d) Splitting of water is associated with PS-II, which
IV. Electrons from PS-II pass along electron to move occurs in the presence of Mn 2+ and Cl − ions on the inner
H+ across the membranes. surface of thylakoid membrane.
III. Carriers use energy from electrons to move H+ 170 (b) Dark reaction is called so because, it does not
across the membrane. depend on light energy. It depends on the products of
I. H+ concentration gradient is established. light reaction (i.e. ATP and NADPH). It is also called
II. H+ diffuses through ATP synthsase. as light independent reaction.
VI. Energy of H+ flow is used by ATP synthesis to 171 (a) C4 -plants have evolved PEP as primary acceptor of
make ATP. CO2 to avoid the sensitivity of RuBP carboxylase-
oxygenase to high concentration of oxygen, so that they
152 (b) Statements I, III and IV are correct about Calvin

cycle. This cycle can be described under three stages. can avoid photorespiratory loss of CO2 .
These stages are 172 (b) PEP carboxylase enzyme is found in C4 -plants not
l Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into stable C3 -plants to carry out initial fixation of CO2 .
organic intermediate. 173 (d) In C3 cycle, RuBP carboxylase is used to fix
l Reduction is a series of reactions that lead to the atmospheric CO2 whereas, in C4 -plants PEP carboxylase
formation of glucose. is involved in primary CO2 -fixation. So, both are used in
l Regeneration of CO2 acceptor molecule, RuBP is main CO2 -fixation, but in different cycles.
part of this stage. 174 (d) In C4 cycle, the primary CO2 acceptor is PEP,
153 (b) The statements II and III are correct. Statement I is present in the mesophyll cells. The addition of CO2 to
incorrect and can be corrected as PEP forms the first stable product, i.e. a C4 acid
Sunflower does not exhibit Kranz anatomy as it is a oxaloacetate (a four carbon compound) in the mesophyll
C3 -plant. cells.
CHAPTER > 14
Respiration in
Plants
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Cellular respiration It is the mechanism of breakdown of n
Second, plants do not have great demands for gas
food materials within the cell to release energy and trapping exchange. Roots, stems and leaves respire at rates for
of this energy for synthesis of ATP. lower than animal do.
Å The process by which breaking of the C— C bonds of complex n
Third, the distance that gases must diffuse even in large,
compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading to bulky plant is not great. Each living cell in a plant is
release of considerable amount of energy is called located quite close to the surface of the plant.
respiration.
Combustion of Glucose
Å The compounds that are oxidised during the process of
Å The complete combustion of glucose, which produces CO2
respiration are called respiratory substrates. Usually
and H2 O as end products, yield energy most of which is
carbohydrates are oxidised to release energy, but proteins,
given out as heat
fats and even organic acids can be used as respiratory
C 6H12 O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2 O + Energy
substrates in some plants, under certain conditions.
Å The strategy that the plant cell uses, is to catabolise the
Å During the process of oxidation of food within a cell, all the
glucose molecule in such a way that not all the liberated
energy contained in the respiratory substrates is not released
energy goes out as heat.
free into the cell, or in a single step. Instead, it gets released in
a series of slow stepwise reactions controlled by enzymes and Å The key is to oxidise glucose not in one step, but in several
it is trapped as chemical energy in the form of ATP, which is small steps enabling some steps to be just large enough such
considered as the energy currency of the cell. that the energy released can be coupled to ATP synthesis.
Do Plants Breathe? Glycolysis

Å For the process of respiration, plants take O2 and release CO2 . Å The term glycolysis originated from Greek words glycos for
sugar and lysis for splitting.
Å The plants have stomata and lenticels for gaseous exchange
instead of specialised organs. Å This scheme was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof
and J Parnas and is often referred to as EMP pathway.
Å There are several reasons why plants can get along without
respiratory organs. Å It is a stepwise process by which one molecule of glucose
(6C) breaks down into two molecules of pyruvic acid (3C)
n
First, each plant part takes care of its own gaseous
without the help of oxygen.
exchange needs. There is very little transport of gases from
one plant part to another. Å It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. In glycolysis, a chain of
10 reactions occurs under the control of different enzymes.
Å A net gain of 8 ATP molecules occurs during glycolysis.

The complete steps of glycolysis can be summarised as Fermentation
Å In yeast, incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved
Glucose (6C) under anaerobic conditions.
ATP Å In this, pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and ethanol.
1 Hexokinase
ADP Å In particular, following two types of fermentations are
Glucose-6-phosphate (6C)
most common.
n
Alcoholic fermentation occurs in many fungi (yeast,
2 Phosphohexose isomerase Rhizopus, etc). Its step involves
Pyruvate decarboxylase
Fructose-6-phosphate (6C) Pyruvic acid →
ATP Acetaldehyde + CO2
3 Phosphofructokinase Alcohol dehydrogenase
ADP Acetaldehyde → Ethyl alcohol
Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate (6C) + +
NADH + H NAD
4 Aldolase
n
Lactic acid fermentation occurs in muscle cells or
certain bacteria when oxygen is inadequate for cellular
Triose phosphate
respiration.
5 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde isomerase Lactic dehydrogenase
Dihydroxy Pyruvic acid → Lactic acid
(PGAL) acetone phosphate
(3C) (3C) + +
NADH + H NAD
Note Yeasts poison themselves to death when concentration
NAD+
6 Glyceraldehyde phosphate of alcohol reaches about 13 per cent.
dehydrogenase
NADH + H +
2 × 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPGA)
Aerobic Respiration
(3C) Å For aerobic respiration to take place within the
mitochondria, the final product of glycolysis, i.e. pyruvate
ADP Phosphoglyceratekinase is transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.
7
ATP Å This process leads to the complete oxidation of organic
2 × 3-phosphoglycerate substances in the presence of oxygen and releases CO2 ,
(3C) water and a large amount of energy presents in the
substrate. It comprises following interdependent major
8 Phosphoglycerate mutase processes
2 × 2-phosphoglycerate Pyruvate Oxidation

Å It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix when pyruvate of
9 Enolase cytoplasm from glycolysis enters with the help of a
H2O
specific transport protein.
2 × Phosphoenol pyruvate
Å It involves the conversion of glycolysis product, pyruvate
ADP into acetyl Co-A that enters the next step, i.e. Krebs’ cycle.
10 Pyruvate kinase Å It is also called link reaction as it links glycolysis with
ATP
Krebs’ cycle.
Pyruvate
Pyruvic acid
Pyruvic acid + Co-A + NAD+  
dehydrogenase
2× (3 C) →
Mg 2 +
Steps of Glycolysis Acetyl Co-A + CO2 + NADH + H+
Å Anaerobic respiration It is the process which involves the

Krebs’ Cycle (Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle)
incomplete breakdown of organic substrate without using Å It also occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. It is a cyclic
oxygen as oxidant. Its common products are CO2 , ethyl process that involves the conversion of acetyl Co-A to
alcohol and lactic acid. oxaloacetate.
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 14 > Respiration in Plants 327
Å It produces CO2 (one of the end products of respiration),

GTP and reduced coenzymes, i.e. NADH + H+ and FADH2 .
Oxidative Phosphorylation
Å It is the synthesis of energy rich ATP molecules with the
Pyruvate (3C) help of energy liberated during oxidation or reduction of
Co-A NAD+ coenzymes (NADH, FADH 2 ) produced in respiration.
NADH + H+ Å The enzyme required for this, is ATP synthase which is the
CO2
Acetyl Coenzyme-A (2C) complex-V of ETS. ATP synthase is located in F1 or head
piece of F0 − F1 elementary particles. This particle is present
Oxaloacetic acid Citric acid in inner mitochondrial membrane.
(4C) (6C) Å This method of ATP formation is termed also as
NADH + H+ Citric Acid Cycle CO2 chemiosmotic ATP synthesis. It is suggested that most
or NAD+ ATP synthesis in respiring cells comes from the
NAD+
Krebs' Cycle NADH + H+ electrochemical gradient (generated due to the movement
Malic acid (4C) α-ketoglutaric acid (5C) of ions) across the inner membrane of mitochondria by
utilising the energy of NADH and FADH 2 formed from
CO2 oxidation of molecules is glucose.
NAD+ Å The hydrogen ions diffuse from higher proton gradient to
FADH2
Succinic NADH + H+ lower proton gradient.
FAD+ acid (4C) GDP Å This electrochemical concentration gradient of proton across
GTP
a membrane is established to form ATP. As the process is
The citric acid cycle
related to osmosis, thus it is known as chemiosmosis.
Å The summary equation for this phase of respiration may
be written as follows Respiratory Balance Sheet
Pyruvic acid +4NAD+ + FAD+ + 2H2 O + ADP + Pi Å Complete oxidation of a glucose molecule to CO2 and H2 O
Mitochondrial
matrix + takes just in a second and produces 38 ATP molecules.
 
→ 3CO2 + 4NADH + 4H + FADH2 + ATP
The Respiratory Balance Sheet
Electron Transport System (ETS) Process ATP formed by Number of NADH
Å The inner mitochondrial membrane contains groups of substrate level and FADH 2 formed
phosphorylation
electron and proton transporting enzymes.
Glycolysis 2 2NADH = 6ATP
Å In each group, the enzymes are arranged in a specific series
Formation of acetyl Co-A – 2NADH = 6ATP
called Electron Transport Chain (ETC) or mitochondrial
Krebs’ cycle 2 2 FADH 2 = 4ATP
respiration or Electron Transport System (ETS). 6 NADH = 18 ATP
Å An ETS is a series of coenzymes and cytochromes that take Total 4 34
part in the passage of electrons through a series of activated
chemical compounds to its ultimate acceptor, i.e. oxygen. Amphibolic Pathway
Complex Description Å The respiratory pathway involves both anabolism and
catabolism, therefore it is known as amphibolic pathway, e.g.
Complex-I
It accepts electrons from NADH via FMN (Flavin
(NADH mononucleotide) which gets reduced to FMNH 2.
n
All carbohydrates are converted into glucose before
dehydrogenase The latter transfer e − to Co-Q or ubiquinone which being used in respiration.
or NADH gets reduced to Co-QH 2. n
Fats get broken down into gycerol and fatty acid which
coenzyme-Q
2H + received through NADH gets translocated from is further converted into acetyl Co-A and enters the
reductase) the matrix to intermembrane space. respiratory pathway.
Complex-II
It receives e− from succinate via FAD which gets n
Proteins are broken down into amino acids, which then
(succinate reduced to FADH 2. The latter transfer e− to Co-Q via enter the Krebs’ cycle.
coenzyme-Q FeS centre and Co-Q gets reduced to Co-QH 2.
reductase)
Complex-III
It consists of cyt-b, FeS centre and cyt-c1 . It receives
Respiratory Quotient
(cyt-C e− from Co-QH 2. Å The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2
reductase)
4H + gets transferred from matrix to intermembrane consumed in respiration is called the Respiratory Quotient
space. (RQ) or respiratory ratio.
Volume of CO2 evolved
Complex-IV
It consists of cyt-a , cyt-a3 and 2 Cu+ ions. RQ =
(cyt-c oxidase) Volume of O2 consumed

It receives e− from cyt-c and ultimately transfers
them to O2 to form H 2O (terminal oxidation). Å For carbohydrates, fats and proteins, the RQ will be 1, less
than 1 and 0.9 (approximately), respectively.
NEET KEY NOTES

Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Do Plants Breathe?
1 Choose the correct combination of A and B. 6 Steps of respiration are controlled by
All living organisms need … A… for carrying out (a) substrates (b) enzymes (c) hormone (d) bile juice
daily life activities and is obtained by … B … of 7 The released energy obtained by oxidation is stored as
macromolecules. (a) A concentration gradient across a membrane
(a) A–oxygen; B–reduction (b) A–energy; B–reduction (b) ADP
(c) A–energy; B–oxidation (d) A–oxygen; B–oxidation (c) ATP
2 The mechanism of breakdown of food materials (d) NAD +
within the cell to release energy and the trapping of 8 In respiration, the respiratory substrates used is/are
this energy for ATP synthesis is called (a) carbohydrate (b) protein
(a) Krebs’ cycle (b) cellular respiration (c) organic acid (d) All of these
(c) photosynthesis (d) phosphorylation 9 Which of the following option(s) state true feature(s)
3 In the eukaryotes, ……A…… takes place within the of plants?
chloroplasts, whereas the breakdown of complex (a) Have stomata and lenticels for gaseous exchange
molecules to yield energy takes place in the (b) Lack breathing mechanism
……B…… and in the ……C…… . (c) Unlike animals, plants have no special organs for
(a) A–photosynthesis, B–cytoplasm, C–mitochondria gaseous exchange
(b) A–respiration, B–cytoplasm, C–mitochondria (d) All of the above
(c) A–respiration, B–chloroplast, C–cytoplasm 10 The complete combustion of glucose in respiration is
(d) A–photosynthesis, B–chloroplast, C–cytoplasm represented by
4 Release of energy by breaking down of C–C bond of (a) C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 → +6CO2 + 6H2 O + Energy
various organic molecules by oxidation process for (b) C6 H12 O6 + 6CO2 → + 6O2 + 6H2 O + Energy
cellular use is known as (c) C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6CO2 → + 6CO2 + 6H2 O + Energy
(a) respiration (d) C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6CO2 +ATP → 6CO2 + 6H2 O
(b) photorespiration + 6O2 + Energy
(c) oxidative phosphorylation 11 The main purpose of respiration is to
(d) combustion (a) convert potential energy to kinetic energy
5 Respiratory substrates are the organic substances, (b) convert kinetic energy to potential energy
which are……during respiration to liberate energy. (c) create energy in the cell
(d) catabolise the glucose molecule in such a way that most
(a) oxidised (b) reduced of the liberated energy can be coupled for ATP
(c) synthesised (d) Both (a) and (b) synthesis
TOPIC 2 ~ Glycolysis
12 All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to 14 Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of
partially oxidise glucose without the help of oxygen. (a) all living cells (b) eukaryotic cells
This breakdown of glucose into pyruvic acid is called (c) anaerobic cells (d) most muscle cells
(a) respiration 15 In plants, glucose is primarily derived from which of
(b) glycolysis the following?
(c) substrate level phosphorylation (a) Protein (b) Fat (c) Oxalic acid (d) Sucrose
(d) Calvin cycle 16 In order to enter the glycolytic pathway, sucrose is
13 Glycolysis is also known as converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme
(a) EMP pathway (b) PME pathway (a) invertase (b) zymase
(c) CMT pathway (d) TMC pathway (c) isomerase (d) triose phosphatase
17 Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first (a) one molecule of ATP

irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalysed by (b) one molecule of ADP
NEET 2019 (c) one molecule of NAD
(a) hexokinase (b) enolase (d) one molecule of specific enzyme
(c) phosphofructokinase (d) aldolase 21 Which of the following steps during glycolysis is
A
18 Glucose- 6-phosphate → Fructose-6- phosphate associated with utilisation of ATP ?
Identify the enzyme used in the above reaction from (a) Glucose to Glucose-6-phosphate
the options given below. (b) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(a) Aldolase (b) Phosphofructokinase (c) PEP to pyruvic acid
(c) Hexokinase (d) Isomerase (d) Both (a) and (b)
19 The flowchart given below shows the steps in 22 In which of the following reactions of glycolysis,
glycolysis. Select the option that correctly fills in the oxidation takes place?
missing steps A, B, C and D. (a) Glucose-6-PO4 to fructose-6-PO4
(b) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to
Glucose (6C) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
ATP (c) 1, 3-diphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
ADP (d) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoglycerate
Glucose-6-phosphate
(6C) 23 In glycolysis, NADH + H + is formed from NAD, when
(a) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to
1, 3- bisphosphoglycerate (BPGA)
A (b) triose phosphate is converted to 2-phosphoglycerate
ATP
ADP
(c) 2-phosphoglycerate is converted to 2- phosphopyruvate
(d) 2-phosphopyruvate is converted to 2-pyruvic acid
B
24 In which of the following conversions ATP synthesis
Triose phosphate occurs during glycolysis?
C s (Dihydroxy acetone phosphate)
NAD+ (3C) (a) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
(b) Fructose-6- phosphate → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
NADH+H+
(c) 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPGA)
D
ADP →3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
ATP
2 × Triose phosphate 25 The end product of glycolysis
(3-phosphoglycerate) (a) pyruvic acid (b) acetyl coenzyme
(3C)
(c) citric acid (d) oxaloacetic acid
2 × 2-phosphoglycerate 26 How many molecules of pyruvic acid are formed in
glycolysis? JIPMER 2018
H2O (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 15 (d) 16
2 × 2-phosphoenolpyruvate
27 Which one is correct sequence in glycolysis?
ADP
(a) G-6-P → PEP → 3PGAL → 3PGA
ATP (b) G-6-P → 3PGAL → 3PGA → PEP
2 × Pyruvic acid (c) G-6-P → PEP → 3 PGA → 3PGAL
(3C)
(d) G-6-P → 3 PGA → 3 PGAL → PEP
(a) A–Fructose-6-phosphate, B–Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate,
C–3 PGAL, D–1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid 28 2NADH (H + ) produced during aerobic glycolysis
(b) A–Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate, B–3 PGAL, C–1, yield
3-bisphosphoglyceric acid, D–3 PGA (a) 6 ATP molecules (b) 4 ATP molecules
(c) A–3 PGA, B–1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid, C–3 PGAL, (c) 8 ATP molecules (d) None of these
D–Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate 29 Net gain of ATP from one molecule of glucose in
(d) A–Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate, glycolysis is
B–Fructose-6-phosphate, C–3 PGAL, D–1, (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2
3-bisphosphoglyceric acid
30 The metabolic fate of pyruvic acid formed after
20 In glycolysis production of pyruvic acid from glucose glycolysis is
involves a chain of ten reactions. Each individual (a) lactic acid fermentation (b) alcoholic fermentation
reaction needs (c) aerobic respiration (d) All of these
TOPIC 3 ~ Fermentation
31 Choose the correct option for fermentation. 40 Choose the correct combination of labelling the
(a) It takes place under anaerobic conditions molecules involved in the pathway of anaerobic
(b) It may occur in prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes respiration in yeast.
(c) It is the incomplete oxidation of glucose
(d) All of the above Glycolysis Fermentation
Process
32 Fermentation cannot produce Glucose
(a) CO2 (b) ethanol

(c) lactic acid (d) H2 O Glyceraldehyde-3-P
33 Fermentation is called as ADP NAD+
A
(a) anaerobic respiration in yeast ATP NADH
(b) alcoholic fermentation in yeast +H+ B
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate Pyruvate
(c) lactic acid fermentation in muscle cells C
(a) A–Ethanol, B–H2 O, C–Acetaldehyde
34 Anaerobic respiration generally occurs in
(b) A–CO2 , B–Ethanol, C–Acetaldehyde
(a) lower organisms, e.g. bacteria and fungi
(c) A–Acetaldehyde, B–CO2 , C–Ethanol
(b) higher organisms, e.g. animal
(d) A–Ethanol, B–Acetaldehyde, C– CO2
(c) viruses
(d) Both (a) and (b) 41 In yeast during anaerobic respiration, how many
glucose molecules are required for the production of
35 Incomplete breakdown of sugar in anaerobic
38 ATP molecules?
respiration forms
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) glucose and carbon dioxide
(c) 19 (d) 38
(b) alcohol and carbon dioxide
(c) water and carbon dioxide 42 In anaerobic respiration, bacteria produce
(d) fructose and water (a) lactic acid (b) formic acid
(c) acetic acid (d) glutamic acid
36 In anaerobic respiration in yeast
(a) H2 O and CO2 are the end products 43 In hurdle race, which of the following is accumulated
(b) CO2 , ethanol and energy are the end products in the leg muscle?
(c) CO2 and H2 O are the end products (a) Performed ATP
(d) CO2 , acetic acid and energy are the end products (b) Glycolysis
(c) Lactate
37 Pyruvate → Ethyl alcohol + CO 2 (d) Oxidative metabolism
The above reaction needs two enzymes which are 44 In animal cells, like muscle, during exercise when O 2
(a) pyruvate decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase is inadequate for cellular respiration, pyruvic acid is
(b) pyruvate decarboxylase and enolase reduced into lactic acid by
(c) pyruvate decarboxylase and pyruvate kinase (a) O2
(d) pyruvate carboxylase and aldolase (b) carboxylation
38 In the production of ethanol, pyruvic acid is first (c) lactate dehydrogenase
converted to acetaldehyde by the enzyme (d) None of the above
(a) alcohol dehydrogenase (b) alcohol oxidase 45 In which one of the following processes, CO 2 is not
(c) pyruvate dehydrogenase (d) pyruvate decarboxylase released? CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(a) Aerobic respiration in plants
39 In alcoholic fermentation,
(b) Aerobic respiration in animals
(a) there is no electron donor
(c) Alcoholic fermentation
(b) oxygen is the electron acceptor
(d) Lactate fermentation
(c) triose phosphate is the electron donor, while pyruvic
acid is the electron acceptor 46 The number of ATP produced when a molecule of
(d) triose phosphate is the electron donor, while glucose undergoes fermentation is
acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor (a) 4 (b) 36 (c) 2 (d) 38
47 The following is a simplified scheme showing the fate (b) A–Pyruvic acid, B–Carbon dioxide and water, C–Lactic
of glucose during aerobic and anaerobic respiration. acid, D– Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
Identify the end products that are formed at stages (c) A–Pyruvic acid, B–Carbon dioxide and water, C–Ethyl
indicated as A, B, C and D. Identify the correct option alcohol and carbon dioxide , D– Lactic acid
from those given here. (d) A–Pyruvic acid, B–Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide,
Glucose C–Lactic acid, D–Carbon dioxide and water
48 Four respiratory enzymes are given below. Choose
Glycolysis
the correct combination(s) of the carbon number of
A the substrates on which they act.
I. Enolase–2-phosphoglyceric acid
Presence of oxygen Absence of oxygen II. Aconitase – Citric acid
III. Fumarase – Alcohol dehydrogenase
Krebs’ cycle Fermentation
IV. Alcohol dehydrogenase – Pyruvic acid
Bacteria Yeast (a) II and IV
B C D (b) II and III
(a) A–Carbon dioxide and water, B–Pyruvic acid, C–Ethyl (c) I and II
alcohol and carbon dioxide, D–Lactic acid (d) I and III
TOPIC 4 ~ Aerobic Respiration and Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

49 Aerobic respiration is II. The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the
(a) the process in which complete oxidation of organic hydrogen atoms to molecules of O2 with simultaneous
substances takes place in the absence of oxygen synthesis of ATP.
(b) the process in which complete oxidation of organic Choose the correct option for the place these steps
substances takes place in the presence of oxygen occurs in
(c) the process in which incomplete oxidation of organic (a) I–Matrix of mitochondria, II–Inner membrane of
substances takes place in the absence of oxygen mitochondria
(d) the process in which incomplete oxidation of organic (b) I–Inner membrane of mitochondria, II–Matrix of
substances takes place in the presence of oxygen mitochondria
50 What is the correct order of the stages of aerobic (c) I–Matrix of mitochondria, II–Outer membrane of
cellular respiration? mitochondria
(a) Krebs’ cycle → Electron transport chain → Glycolysis (d) I–Inner membrane of mitochondria, II–Outer membrane
(b) Electron transport chain → Krebs’ cycle → Glycolysis of mitochondria
(c) Glycolysis → Krebs’ cycle → Electron transport chain 55 Pyruvic acid + Co-A + NAD + → Acetyl Co-A + CO 2
(d) Glycolysis → Electron transport chain → Krebs’ cycle
+ NADH + H + . This reaction is known as
51 Phase common in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
(a) Pyruvate oxidation (b) Link reaction
(a) Krebs’ cycle (b) glycolysis (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) glycogenolysis (d) ETS
56 Link enzyme in cellular respiration is
52 The driving force of aerobic respiration is the
(a) citrate synthetase
presence of (b) pyruvate dehydrogenase
(a) glucose molecule (b) O2 in electron transport chain (c) isocitrate dehydrogenase
(c) acetyl Co-A (d) None of these (d) succinyl thiokinase
53 Which one of the following is the product of aerobic 57 Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle is
respiration? (a) acetyl Co-A (b) pyruvic acid
(a) CO2 and H2 O (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) CO2 (d) None of these
(c) Lactic acid (d) Pyruvic acid
58 What is the role of NAD + in cellular respiration?
54 Following are the crucial events in aerobic respiration (a) It is a nucleotide source of ATP synthesis NEET 2018
I. The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise (b) It functions as an electron carrier
removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three (c) It functions as an enzyme
molecules of CO2 . (d) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration
59 Which of the metabolites is common to respiration 68 Which of the following is a 4 carbon compound?
mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and (a) Oxaloacetic acid (b) Phosphoglyceric acid
proteins? CBSE-AIPMT 2013, NEET 2016, AIIMS 2018 (c) Ribulose bisphosphate (d) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(a) Glucose-6-phosphate (b) Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate 69 Which of these steps in Krebs’ cycle indicates
(c) Pyruvic acid (d) Acetyl Co-A substrate level phosphorylation?
60 Which one of the following reactions is an example (a) Conversion of succinyl acid to α-ketoglutaric acid
of oxidative decarboxylation? (b) Conversion of succinic acid to malic acid
(a) Conversion of succinate to fumarate (c) Conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid
(b) Conversion of fumarate to malate (d) Conversion of malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
(c) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A 70 In which of the following, reduction of NAD does not
(d) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate occur?
61 In oxidative decarboxylation, only a carbon molecule (a) Isocitric acid → α- ketoglutaric acid
of pyruvic acid gets oxidised, other two carbon (b) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
molecules go to form (c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl Co-A
(a) acetyl Co-A (b) CO2 (d) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(c) citric acid (d) Both (a) and (b)
71 FAD is electron acceptor during oxidation of which
62 In eukaryotes, most of the TCA cycle enzymes are of the following?
present in (a) α- ketoglutarate → Succinyl Co-A
(a) cytoplasm (b) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(b) intermembrane space of mitochondria
(c) Succinyl Co-A → Succinic acid
(c) mitochondrial matrix
(d) inner membrane of mitochondria (d) Fumaric acid → Malic acid
72 Krebs’ cycle is completed with the formation of
63 Which option is incorrect about Krebs’ cycle?
(a) citric acid (b) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
(a) It is also called citric acid cycle
(c) succinic acid (d) malic acid
(b) The intermediate compound, which links glycolysis
with Krebs’ cycle is malic acid 73 Identify A, B and C in the given citric acid cycle.
(c) It occurs in mitochondria Acetyl Co-A (2C)
(d) It starts with six carbon compound
OAA (4C) Citric acid
64 In citric acid cycle, the first step involves the A
combination of Isocitric acid
(a) acetyl Co-A with oxaloacetic acid Malic acid
CO2 X
(b) acetyl Co-A with citric acid
Fumaric acid α-ketoglutaric acid
(c) citric acid with oxaloacetic acid
(d) citric acid with malic acid B CO2
Succinic acid X
65 The enzyme ............ used to catalyse condensation of Succinly Co-A
acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid to yield citric acid. C
(a) citrate permeate
(b) citrate synthase A B C
(a) GTP NADH 2 FADH 2
(c) citrate burate
(d) citrate maliate (b) FADH 2 NADH 2 GTP
(c) NADH 2 FADH 2 GTP
66 α-ketoglutarate acid, an intermediary compound of
Krebs’ cycle is a (d) CO 2 NADH 2 ADP
(a) 5 carbon compound (b) 6 carbon compound 74 α-ketoglutarate of Krebs’ cycle produces an important
(c) 4 carbon compound (d) 3 carbon compound amino acid called.......... .
67 Sequence of events in Krebs’ cycle is Fill up the blank with the given option.
(a) Acetyl Co-A → Citrate → Pyruvate → Oxaloacetic acid (a) succinate (b) glycine (c) glutamate (d) alanine
Fumarate ← Malate ← Succinate ← α-ketoglutarate ← 75 When two molecules of acetyl Co-A enter the TCA
(b) Acetyl Co-A → Citric acid → α-ketoglutarate acid cycle, net gain at the end of this cycle is
Oxaloacetic acid ← Malic acid ← Fumaric acid ← (a) 2NADH 2 + 2FADH 2 + 1 GTP
→ Succinic acid
(b) 3NADH 2 + 2FADH 2 + 2 GTP
(c) Acetyl Co-A →Citric acid→Malic acid → Oxaloacetic
acid → Succinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid (c) 6NADH 2 + 2FADH 2 + 2 GTP
(d) All are wrong (d) 3NADH 2 + 1FADH 2 + 4 GTP
TOPIC 5 ~ Electron Transport System (ETS)

and Oxidative Phosphorylation
76 During which stage in the complete oxidation of
A B C D
glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules
(a) Matrix Outer FMNH 2 NADH 2
formed from ADP? chamber
(a) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A (b) Inter-membrane Matrix NADH+ H+ NAD +
(b) Electron transport chain space
(c) Glycolysis (c) Inter-membrane Cristae NAD + NADH + H+
(d) Krebs’ cycle space
(d) Cristae Outer NADH + H+ NAD +
77 The main purpose of electron transport chain is to chamber
(a) release and utilise energy stored in NADH + H+ and
FADH 2 80 The initial step in the biosynthesis of ATP by
(b) use the intermediate from TCA cycle chemiosmosis in the mitochondria is the
(c) breakdown pyruvic acid (a) pumping of protons in the outer chamber
(d) All of the above (b) pumping of electrons in the matrix
78 The e − carrier molecules and cytochrome (c) action of ATP synthase
(a) are reduced as they pass electrons on to next molecule (d) formation of metabolic water
(b) transfer electrons between the electron complexes
(c) shuttle protons to ATP synthase 81 Which of the following shows correct order of flow of
(d) are found in outer mitochondrial membrane electrons in ETC ?
79 Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of electron (a) Fe-S → NADH → Co-Q → Cyt-b → Fe-S → Cyt-c
→ Cyt-a3→ O2→ Cyt-b
transport chain.
Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
(b) NADH → FMN → Fe-S → Co-Q → Cyt-b → Fe-S
A B
→ Cyt-c1 → Cyt-e → Cyt-a → Cyt-a 3 → O 2
+
C (c) NADH → Cyt-c1 → Cyt-c→ Cyt-a → Cyt-a 3 → O 2
4H
(Fe-S) 2e– D → FMN → Fe-S → Co-Q → Cyt-b→ Fe-S
FMN
I
Complex I (d) Cyt-c1→ Cyt-c → Cyt-a → Cyt-a 3 → NADH
e–
→ FMN → Fe-S → Co-Q → Cyt-b → Fe-S → O 2
UQ 82 In the electron transport system present in the inner
e– mitochondrial membrane, complex-I and IV are,
respectively
UQH2 e–
(a) NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2
III (b) NADH2 and NADH dehydrogenase
Complex III (c) NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome oxidase
4H+ Cyt-c1 Fe-S Cyt-b
complex
e– (d) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthetase
Cyt-c UQH2 83 Which one of following is complex-V of the ETS of
UQ Complex II inner mitochondrial membrane?
II Succinate (a) NADH dehydrogenase
e–
(Fe-S) FAD Fumarate (b) Cytochrome oxidase
(c) Ubiquinone
Cyt-c
(d) ATP synthase
e–
1 O + 2H+ 84 In electron transport system, which of the following
CuA IV
2 2 acts as a final electron acceptor?
2H+ 2H+
Cyt-a Cyt a3 CuB (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
H 2O
(c) Calcium (d) Ubiquinone
Complex IV
85 Which of the following processes takes place in
F0
ADP+Pi mitochondria?
F1
ATP (a) Photolysis
synthase ATP
H+ (b) Photophosphorylation
+ – (c) Carboxylation
+ Electrochemical –
+ gradient – (d) Oxidative phosphorylation
+ –
86 Oxidative phosphorylation is NEET 2016 88 Given below is the diagrammatic presentation of ATP
(a) formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from synthesis in mitochondria. Identify A-C and choose
a substrate to ADP the correct option accordingly.
(b) oxidation of phosphate group in ATP Outer ATP
(c) addition of phosphate to ATP side
Stalk
(d) formation of ATP by energy released from electron
removed during substrate oxidation
A 2H+
87 In which part of mitochondria does ATP synthesis B C
occur?
(a) F1 Inner mitochondrial
membrane ADP Pi
(b) F0 Matrix
(c) Cristae (a) A − H +, B − F1 , C − F0 (b) A − 3H + , B − F0 , C − F1
(d) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(c) A − 2H +, B − F0 , C − F1 (d) A − 5H +, B − F1 , C − F0
TOPIC 6 ~ Respiratory Balance Sheet

and Amphibolic Pathway
89 ATP formation occurs through which of the 95 From one molecule of glucose during oxidative
following? AIIMS 2019 phosphorylation, the total gain of ATP is
(a) Photophosphorylation (a) 40 (b) 38
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation (c) 34 (d) 30
(c) Substrate level phosphorylation 96 Net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic respiration
(d) All of the above during Krebs’ cycle per glucose molecule is
90 Fill in the blank with reference to text book. It is (a) 2 ATP molecules
possible to make calculation of the net gain of ATP (b) 8 ATP molecules
for every .............. molecule oxidised. (c) 36 ATP molecules
(a) sucrose (b) pyruvate (d) 38 ATP molecules
(c) glucose (d) fructose 97 During Krebs’ cycle, … A … NADH, … B … ATP is
91 Before entering into the respiratory pathway fats produced through ETS in mitochondria. Choose the
breakdown into correct pair from the options given below
(a) fatty acid and glycerol (a) A–2; B–4
(b) fatty acid and citric acid (b) A–4; B–2
(c) fatty acid and ascorbic acid (c) A–6; B–18
(d) A–2; B–8
(d) fatty acid and amino acid
92 When one molecule of glucose is completely oxidised 98 How many ATP is released respectively when NADH
during aerobic respiration, how many molecules of and FADH 2 molecules get oxidised?
carbon dioxide are released due to tricarboxylic acid (a) 3 ATP, 2 ATP
(b) 2 ATP, 3 ATP
cycle?
(c) 5 ATP, 4 ATP
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Six
(d) 3 ATP, 5 ATP
+
93 How many NADH + H molecules are released from
99 Choose the correct combination of A and B.
a single pyruvate in Krebs’ cycle?
The NADH synthesised in … A … is transferred into
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 8
the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative … B … .
94 Net gain of ATP molecules per hexose during aerobic (a) A–EMP; B–carboxylation
respiration is (b) A–ETS; B–phosphorylation
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) A–glycolysis; B–phosphorylation
(c) 36 (d) 30 (d) A–TCA cycle; B–decarboxylation
100 Glycerol is a product of fat breakdown. It sometimes

enters the respiratory pathway after being converted Fats Carbohydrates Proteins
to
Fatty acids and glycerol Simple sugars, Amino acids
(a) Fatty acids e.g. glucose
(b) PEP
(c) PGAL Glucose-6-phosphate
A
101 The three boxes in this diagram represent the three
major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. B C
Arrows represent net reactants or products. NEET 2013
9
1 5 10 Pyruvic acid
6 D
Glucose Pathway A 2 Pathway B 7
Pathway C 11
4 12 H 2O
8 Krebs’
cycle CO2
3
Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be
A B C D
(a) NADH
(a) Glucose-1,6- Glyceraldehyde Dihydroxy Acetyl Co-A
(b) ATP bisphosphate -3- phophate acetone
(c) H2 O phosphate
(d) FAD+ or FADH2 (b) Fructose-1,6- Dihydroxy acetone Glyceraldehyde Acetyl Co-A
bisphosphate phosphate -3- phosphate
102 The figure given below describes the inter (c) Fructose-1, Dihydroxyacetone Glyceraldehyde Oxaloacetate
relationship between metabolic pathways in which 6-bisphosphate phosphate -3- phosphate
respiration-mediated breakdown of different organic
(d) Fructose-1,3- Glyceraldehyde-3- Dihydroxy Oxaloacetate
substances into CO 2 and H 2O is taking place identify bisphosphate phosphate acetone
A-D. phosphate
TOPIC 7 ~ Respiratory Quotient

103 The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) or respiratory ratio is 106 In succulent plants like Opuntia, the RQ value will be
Volume of O2 evolved (a) less than one (b) more than one
(a) RQ =
Volume of CO2 consumed (c) infinite (d) zero
Volume of O2 consumed 107 What is the RQ of glucose? JIPMER 2018
(b) RQ =
Volume of CO2 evolved (a) One (b) Less than one
Volume of CO2 consumed (c) More than one (d) Infinite
(c) RQ =
Volume of O2 evolved 108 RQ value of 0.9 may be expected for the complete
Volume of CO2 evolved oxidation of which one of the following biomolecule?
(d) RQ =
Volume of O2 consumed (a) Glucose (b) Malic acid
(c) Proteins (d) Tartaric acid
104 The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration
would depend on the 109 If RQ is less than 1.0 in a respiratory metabolism,
(a) nature of enzymes involved it would mean that
(b) nature of the substrate (a) carbohydrates are used as respiratory substrate
(c) amount of carbon dioxide released (b) organic acids are used as respiratory substrate
(d) amount of oxygen utilised
(c) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed
105 The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of some of the more oxygen than the amount of CO2 released
compounds are 4, 1 and 0.7. These compounds are (d) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed less
identified respectively as oxygen than the amount of CO2 released
(a) malic acid, palmitic acid and tripalmitin
110 Respiratory quotient in anaerobic respiration is
(b) oxalic acid, carbohydrate and tripalmitin
(c) tripalmitin, malic acid and carbohydrate (a) 0.7 (b) 0.9
(d) palmitic acid, carbohydrate and oxalic acid (c) unity (d) infinity
111 Refer the given equation. 113 More carbon dioxide is evolved than the volume of
2(C 51 H 98O 6 ) + 145 O 2 → 102 CO 2 + 98 H 2O oxygen consumed when the respiratory substrate is
+ Energy (a) fat
(b) sucrose
The respiratory quotient in this case is
(c) glucose
(a) 1 (b) 0.7 (c) 1.45 (d) 1.62 (d) organic acid
112 Maximum amount of energyper molecule is liberated 114 The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a germinating
on oxidation of castor seed is
(a) fats (b) proteins (a) equal to one (b) greater than one
(c) starch (d) vitamins (c) less than one (d) equal to zero
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 120 Assertion (A) Aerobic respiration is bioenergetically
■ Direction (Q. No. 115-122) In each of the following more efficient than anaerobic glycolysis.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Reason (R) Aerobic respiration occurs in the
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). presence of oxygen, while fermentation occurs in the
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as absence of oxygen.
121 Assertion (A) Yeast cells show alcoholic fermentation.
explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Reason (R) Fermentation in an aerobic process.
explanation of A 122 Assertion (A) Respiratory pathway is considered as
(c) If A is true, but R is false an amphibolic pathway.
(d) If A is false, but R is true Reason (R) It involves both anabolism and
115 Assertion (A) The conversion of glyceraldehyde -3- catabolism. AIIMS 2019
phosphate into 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate is an
oxidation reaction. II. Statement Based Questions
Reason (R) The reaction in which 1,3-bisphos- 123 Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?
phoglycerate is formed from glyceraldehyde-3- NEET 2017
(a) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is
phosphate utilises NAD + .
reduced to NADH + H+
116 Assertion (A) To make ATP from ADP and inorganic (b) There is one point in the cycle where FAD + is reduced
phosphate requires 30.6 kJ of energy per mole. to FADH2
Reason (R) ATP is found in every cells. (c) During conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a
molecule of GTP is synthesised
117 Assertion (A) Carbohydrates are used first by most
(d) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group
cells in respiration.
(acetyl Co-A) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
Reason (R) Lipids are never used in respiration.
124 Which of the following statements regarding
118 Assertion (A) ATP formation during respiration is an mitochondria is incorrect? NEET 2019
exergonic reaction. (a) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer
Reason (R) ATP formation requires input of energy. membrane
(b) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings
119 Assertion (A) Two turns of Krebs’ cycle occur per (c) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA
glucose molecule used. AIIMS 2018 molecule and ribosomes
Reason (R) Each turn of Krebs’ cycle produces (d) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of
3 NADH, 1 FADH 2 and 1 ATP molecule. carbohydrates, fats and proteins
125 Which one of these statements is incorrect? 131 Which of the following is true regarding glycolysis?
NEET 2018 I. Takes place in cytosol.
(a) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD II. Produces no ATP.
that can pick up hydrogen atoms
III. Has no connection with electron transport chain.
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
IV. Reduces two molecules of NAD + for every glucose
(c) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial
matrix molecule processed.
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer (a) Only I (b) I, II and III
mitochondrial membrane (c) I and II (d) None of these
126 Choose the incorrect statement. 132 Consider the following statements.
+3 +2 +3
(a) Flow of electrons in ETS is Fe →Fe → Fe I. Fermentation can be performed by eukaryotes.
(b) In ETS electrons move from high negative to high II. Electron transport chain can occur without the
positive redox potential presence of oxygen.
(c) Cyt-a 3 has Fe and Cu III. Complete oxidation of glucose does not require the
(d) Cytochrome are non-proteinaceous, but ubiquinone is presence of oxygen.
proteinaceous
Which one of the following options contain the
127 Calculation of ATP gain for every glucose is made on correct statements.
certain assumptions. Choose the correct option in (a) Only III (b) I and III (c) I and II (d) Only I
accordance with the statement given above.
(a) The pathway functioning is sequential and orderly
(b) One substrate forms the reactant for the others I. The role of oxygen in ETS is limited.
(c) TCA cycle and ETS pathway follow one after another II. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.
(d) All of the above (a) I is true and II is false (b) I is false and II is true
128 Choose the correct statement for the given options.
(a) Intermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise 134 Read the following statements about an overview of
other compounds Electron Transport System (ETS).
(b) No alternative substrates other than glucose is allowed I. Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents via FADH 2
to enter the pathway at intermediate stages (complex-II) that is generated during oxidation of
(c) None of the substrate is respired in the pathway at succinate in the TCA cycle.
intermediary stages II. Cytochrome-cis a small protein attached to the outer
(d) Pathway functioning is insequential surface of the inner membrane acts as mobile carrier
129 Select the wrong statement. for transfer of electrons between complex-III and IV.
(a) When tripalmitin is used as a substrate in respiration, III. Complex-IV refers to cytochrome-coxidase complex
the RQ is 0.7 containg cytochromes-a and a 3 and two copper
(b) The intermediate compound, which links glycolysis centres.
with Krebs’ cycle is malic acid IV. As the electrons moves down the system, energy is
(c) One glucose molecule yield a net gain of 36 ATP used up to form ADP from ATP.
molecules during aerobic respiration V. 2 ATP are formed for every pairs of electrons that
(d) One glucose molecule yields a net gain of 2 ATP enters by way of NADH and 3 ATP are formed for
molecules during fermentation every pair of electrons that enters by way of FADH 2 .
130 Glycolysis Choose the option containing incorrect statements.
I. causes partial oxidation of glucose (one molecule) to (a) I and II (b) III and IV
form 2 molecules of pyruvic acid and 2 ATP as net (c) IV and V (d) I and III
gain.
135 Study the following statements regarding
II. takes place in all living cells. chemiosmotic hypothesis in mitochondria.
III. uses 2 ATP at every step. I. F1 head-piece contains the site for the synthesis of ATP
IV. scheme was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof from ADP + Pi.
and J Parnas. II. F0 part forms the channel through which protons cross
Choose the option containing correct statements from the inner membrane.
above. III. The passage of protons through the channel is coupled
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV to the catalytic site of the F1 component for the ATP
(c) I, II and IV (d) Only I production.
IV. For each ATP produced, 2H+ pass through F0 from the 139 Match the following columns.
intermembrane space to the matrix against the Column I Column II
electrochemical process gradient.
A. RQ 1. Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis
Select the option depicting the correct statements. B. Peter Mitchel 2. Muscle fatigue
(a) I and II C. Cytochromes 3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
(b) I, II and III D. Lactic acid 4. Alcoholic fermentation
(c) I and III E. Yeast 5. Respirometer
(d) I, II, III and IV
Codes
A B C D E
III. Matching Type Questions (a) 5 1 3 4 2
(b) 5 1 3 2 4
136 Match the following columns for the location of the
(c) 1 5 2 3 4
steps of aerobic respiration. (d) 5 2 4 3 1
Column I 140 Match the columns about ETS.
Column II
(Respiratory
(Location) Column I Column II
pathways)
(ETS complexes) (Names)
A. Glycolysis 1. Inner mitochondrial membrane
A. Complex-I 1. NADH dehydrogenase
B. TCA cycle 2. Mitochondrial matrix B. Complex-II 2. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. ETS 3. Cytoplasm C. Complex-III 3. Cytochrome-bc 1 complex
D. Complex-IV 4. Cytochrome-c oxidase complex
Codes
E. Complex-V 5. ATP synthase
A B C A B C
(a) 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 1 Codes
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 2 1 3 A B C D E
137 Match the following columns. (a) 5 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4 5
Column I Column II (c) 2 3 1 4 5
(Compounds) (Examples) (d) 3 4 1 2 5
A. 4 C compound 1. Acetyl CO-A 141 Match the following columns.
B. 2 C compound 2. Pyruvate Column I Column II
C. 5 C compound 3. Citric acid A. Peripheral membrane protein of 1. Complex-III
D. 3 C compound 4. α-ketoglutaric acid ATP synthase
5. Malic acid B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 2. F0
C. Integral membrane protein of 3. F1
Codes ATP synthase
A B C D D. Cytochrome-bc1 4. Mitochondrial matrix
(a) 2 5 3 1
Codes
(b) 3 1 4 2 A B C D A B C D
(c) 5 1 4 2 (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(d) 5 3 1 2 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1
Column I Column I Column II
Column II
(Stages of aerobic respiration of A. Double aminated compound 1. Glycogen
(ATP produced through ETS)
a glucose molecule)
B. Storage form of glucose 2. Asparagine
A. Glycolysis 1. 6
C. Fats made of three fatty acid 3. Citric acid
B. Formation of acetyl Co-A 2. 3 chain attached to glycerol
C. Krebs’ cycle 3. 22 D. Tricarboxylic acid 4. Triglyceride
Codes Codes
A B C A B C A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 1 3 (b) 2 1 3 (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 3 4 2
NCERT Exemplar
143 The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an 149 Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell.
aerobic organism is Which of the following observations supports this
(a) cytochrome (b) oxygen (c) hydrogen (d) glucose statement?
144 Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is (a) Mitochondria synthesise ATP
catalysed by (b) Mitochondria have a double membrane
(a) phosphoglucomutase (b) phosphoglucoisomerase (c) The enzymes of the Krebs’ cycle and the cytochromes
(c) hexokinase (d) phosphorylase are found in mitochondria
(d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plants and animal
145 The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is cells
(a) NADH (b) oxygen (c) ADP (d) ATP + H2 O
146 Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can have
many metabolic fates. Under aerobic condition, it Column I Column II
forms A. Molecular oxygen 1. α-ketoglutaric acid
(a) lactic acid (b) CO2 + H2 O B. Electron acceptor 2. Hydrogen acceptor
(c) acetyl Co-A + CO2 (d) ethanol + CO2
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3. Cytochrome-c
147 Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in
D. Decarboxylation 4. Acetyl Co-A
mitochondrial NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) outer membrane (b) intermembrane space Codes
(c) inner membrane (d) matrix A B C D
148 Which of the following exhibits the highest rate of (a) 2 3 4 1
respiration? (b) 3 4 2 1
(a) Growing shoot apex (b) Germinating seed (c) 2 1 3 4
(c) Root tip (d) Leaf bud (d) 4 3 1 2
Answers
1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (d) 32 (d) 33 (d) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (a) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46 (a) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (a) 58 (b) 59 (d) 60 (c)
61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (a) 65 (b) 66 (a) 67 (d) 68 (a) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (c) 75 (c) 76 (b) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (b) 80 (a)
81 (b) 82 (c) 83 (d) 84 (a) 85 (d) 86 (a) 87 (a) 88 (c) 89 (d) 90 (c)
91 (a) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (c) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (a) 99 (c) 100 (c)
101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (d) 104 (b) 105 (b) 106 (d) 107 (a) 108 (c) 109 (c) 110 (d)
111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (c)

115 (a) 116 (d) 117 (c) 118 (d) 119 (b) 120 (b) 121 (c) 122 (a) 123 (d) 124 (a)
125 (d) 126 (d) 127 (d) 128 (a) 129 (b) 130 (c) 131 (a) 132 (d) 133 (c) 134 (c)
135 (b) 136 (b) 137 (c) 138 (a) 139 (b) 140 (b) 141 (d) 142 (c)

143 (b) 144 (c) 145 (d) 146 (c) 147 (c) 148 (b) 149 (a) 150 (a)

5 (a) In the process of respiration, certain compounds get 22 (b) In glycolytic pathway, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
oxidised in order to produce energy. The compounds is converted into 1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid by an
that are oxidised during this process, are known as oxidation and phosphorylation reaction, which occurs in
respiratory substrates. the presence of H3 PO4 and coenzyme NAD.
7 (c) The energy released by oxidation during respiration 23 (a) Out of all the ten reactions taking place in glycolytic
is not directly used, but is stored as ATP, which is cycle, NADH + H+ is formed only during conversion of
broken down whenever energy is needed. PGAL to BPGA.
8 (d) Usually carbohydrates are oxidised to release 24 (c) ATP synthesis occurs in two steps of glycolysis
energy, but proteins, fats and even organic acids can which are
be used as respiratory substrates under certain (i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA
conditions. (ii) Conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvic acid.
9 (d) Option (d) is true. Plants unlike animals possess no 27 (b) The correct sequence in glycolysis would be
special organs for gaseous exchange. But, plants do
possess stomata and lenticels through which exchange Glucose-6-phosphate (G-6-P)
of gases takes place. ↓
3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde (3 PGAL)
Thus, there is no such breathing mechanism occurring
↓
in the plant, but gaseous exchange do occur.
1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid (3 PGA)
10 (a) During respiration, glucose is broken down by ↓
oxidation within the cell and CO2 , water and energy is Phosphoenol Pyruvate (PEP)
released. Therefore, the suitable equation is
28 (a) Oxidative phosphorylation or ATP synthesis from
C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 → + 6CO2 + 6H2 O + Energy NADH occurs only under aerobic condition and this
13 (a) Glycolysis is also called EMP pathway because it results in the production of 6ATP molecules from
was given by three scientists, Gustav Embden, Otto 2 NADH.
Meyerhof and J Parnas. It is the common pathway to 29 (d) In glycolysis, 2 molecules of ATP are consumed
both anaerobic and aerobic metabolism. initially in converting glucose to fructose-1, 6-
14 (a) Glycolysis is a series of reactions that take place in bisphosphate. 2 triose phosphate molecules are formed
the cytoplasm of all prokaryotes and eukaryotes (i.e. all from one glucose molecule. 4 molecules of ATP are
living cells). produced at substrate level phosphorylation. Therefore,
net gain of ATP is 2 × 2ATP − 2ATP = 2
The role of glycolysis is to produce energy (both
directly and by supplying substrate for the citric acid 30 (d) Pyruvic acid is the key product of glycolysis. Its
cycle and oxidative phosphorylation) and various metabolic fate depends on the cellular need. There are
intermediate compounds, for biosynthetic pathway. three major ways in which different cells handle pyruvic
16 (a) Sucrose (a disaccharide) is converted into acid produced by glycolysis. These are lactic acid
monosaccharides, i.e. glucose and fructose by the fermentation, alcoholic fermentation and aerobic
activity of the enzyme invertase. This step initiates the respiration.
glycolytic pathway. 32 (d) Fermentation does not produce H2 O (water). Since,
17 (a) Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate during respiration in the presence of oxygen, the
electrons that are removed from glucose are eventually
during glycolysis is catalysed by the enzyme

hexokinase. During this step, glucose is phosphorylated passed to oxygen by e− carriers; therefore glucose is
to glucose-6-phosphate by ATP. It is the first step of oxidised and oxygen is reduced to water. But when
activation phase of glycolysis. oxygen is not present, i.e. anaerobic respiration or
fermentation occurs. It does not produce water.
20 (d) Each reaction in glycolysis is catalysed by its own
specific enzyme. Glycolysis is a series of reactions that 36 (b) When oxygen is not available, yeast or some other
extract energy from glucose by splitting it into three microbes respire anaerobically. In case of anaerobic
carbon molecules called pyruvate. respiration, the following reaction occurs
21 (d) ATP is utilised in two steps of glycolysis, first in the C6 H12 O6 
→ 3 C2 H5 OH + 2CO2 + Energy
conversion of glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and Glucose Ethanol
second in the conversion of fructose-6- phosphate to Thus, the end products of anaerobic respiration are CO2 ,
fructose-1, 6- bisphosphate. ethanol and energy.
38 (d) In the production of ethanol, pyruvic acid is first 50 (c) In a cellular respiration, energy stored in a glucose
converted to acetaldehyde by enzyme pyruvate molecule, which enters into cytoplasm is called
decarboxylase. The reaction is given below glycolysis.
Pyruvate decarboxylase Then its product enters into Krebs’ cycle, which is also
2CH3COCOOH →
Pyruvic acid TPP, Mg 2 + called Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle. Finally electron
transport chain occurs that results in the formation of
2CH3CHO + 2CO2 ATP.
Acetaldehyde
Therefore, the correct sequence is Glycolysis → Krebs’
39 (d) In alcoholic fermentation, the oxidation of cycle → Electron transport chain.
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (triose phosphate) occurs, 51 (b) Glycolysis is an essential and first path of
which produces NADH. This NADH donates an respiration. It is common in both aerobic and anaerobic
electron and then the acetaldehyde gets reduced to respiration and occurs in the cytoplasm of all living
ethanol and NAD+ is regenerated. Thus, triose cells of prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes.
phosphate is the electron donor and acetaldehyde is the
electron acceptor. 53 (a) CO2 and H2 O are the end products of aerobic
respiration. Ethyl alcohol and lactic acid are formed as
41 (c) During anaerobic respiration of yeast, two ATP
a result of anaerobic respiration (fermentation), while
produced from a single glucose molecule. Hence, 38
pyruvic acid is produced during both aerobic and
ATP will be produce from 19 glucose molecules.
anaerobic respiration.
Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen.
It is found in deep-seated tissues of plants and animals, 54 (a) Option (a) is correct as the first event, i.e. complete
germinating seeds, yeasts and bacteria. oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the
hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules of CO2 occurs
43 (c) Due to the excessive contraction of muscles (e.g.
in the matrix of mitochondria.
leg muscles in hurdle race), the metabolic products of
glycolysis, i.e. pyruvate is converted into lactic The enzymes for this process occurs here. This process
acid/lactate. include oxidative decarboxylation and tricarboxylic acid
cycle.
This gets accumulated in the muscles and leads to
muscle fatigue. Due to this, pain is experienced in the The second event, i.e. the passing on of the electrons
fatigued muscle. removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecules of
O2 with simultaneous synthesis of ATP occurs in inner
45 (d) In lactate fermentation, CO2 is not released. Lactic
membrane of mitochondria. This process is called
acid fermentation is a process by which glucose, fructose
electron transport system.
and sucrose are converted into energy and lactic acid.
The reaction for lactic acid fermentation is 55 (c) The conversion of glycolysis product, i.e. pyruvate
+
into acetyl Co-A that enters the next step in Krebs’
2 (NADH +H +) 2 NAD cycle is called pyruvate oxidation. It is also called the
lactate
dehydrogenase link reaction as it links glycolysis with Krebs’ cycle.
2 Pyruvic acid 2 Lactic acid
FMN, Zn2+ 56 (b) Pyruvic acid synthesised in glycolysis must enter
inside the mitochondrion where oxidative
46 (a) During fermentation, the pyruvic acid is decarboxylation occurs in the presence of NAD+ ,
transformed to ethyl alcohol and 4 ATP molecules are pyruvic acid (pyruvate) dehydrogenase complex and
produced. This pyruvic acid comes from breakdown of coenzyme-A (Co-A).
2+
glucose by glycolysis. Pyruvic acid + Co-A + NAD+  Mg
 → Acetyl
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
47 (b) Glycolysis, which is also called EMP pathway is
the common pathway to both anaerobic and aerobic Co-A + CO2 + NADH + H+
metabolism. (A) Pyruvic acid is formed during Thus, pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme serves as the
glycolysis in the cytosol, which then enters into the link enzyme.
mitochondrial matrix. If O 2 is available, it gets
58 (b) NAD+ functions as an electron carrier in cellular
converted into (B) CO 2 and water, while in the absence
respiration. NAD is an oxidising agent which accepts
of O 2 in bacteria, it forms (C) lactic acid and in yeast, it
electrons and then transfers them to the Electron
forms (D) ethyl alcohol and CO 2 .
Transport System (ETS) for the formation of 3ATP
48 (c) Enolase works on 2-phosphoglyceric acid molecules.
(3C-compound), aconitase on citric acid
59 (d) Acetyl Co-A is common to respiration-mediated
(6C-compound), fumarase on fumaric acid
breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins which is
(4C-compound) and alcohol
formed from pyruvic acid.
dehydrogenase on acetaldehyde (2C-compound).
61 (a) One of the three carbon atoms of pyruvic acid is In a coupled reaction, GTP is converted to GDP with
oxidised to carbon dioxide. The combination of the the simultaneous synthesis of ATP from ADP.
remaining two carbon acetate unit is readily accepted by 70 (d) During the step of Krebs’ cycle, where succinic
a sulphur containing compound coenzyme-A (Co-A) to acid undergoes oxidation or dehydrogenation to form
form acetyl Co-A. This is called oxidative fumaric acid, FAD is reduced to FADH2 and enzyme
decarboxylation reaction, which is the connecting link involved in this step is succinic acid dehydrogenase.
between glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle. Conversion of isocitric acid to α-ketoglutaric acid,
62 (c) In eukaryotes, all the reactions of Tricarboxylic malic acid to oxaloacetic acid and pyruvic acid to acetyl
Acid (TCA) cycle or Krebs’ cycle take place in the Co-A, all involve reduction of NAD to NADH + H+ .
matrix of mitochondria because all enzymes of this 75 (c) Krebs’ cycle produces 2GTP (or 2 ATP) through
cycle are found in the matrix of mitochondria except substrate level phosphorylation along with six
succinic dehydrogenase, which is located in the inner molecules of NADH 2 and 2 molecules of FADH 2 for
membrane of mitochondria. every two molecules of acetyl Co-A oxidised.
In prokaryotes, Krebs’ cycle occurs in cytoplasm.
76 (b) The number of glucose molecules produced in each
63 (b) Option (b) is incorrect for Krebs’ cycle and can be
reaction involved in complete glucose oxidation are
corrected as ETC produces - 34 ATP
Acetyl Co-A is the intermediate compound between Glycolysis produces - 2 ATP
glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle. Rest are correct.
Krebs’ cycle produces - 2 ATP
64 (a) In the first reaction of citric acid cycle, one
molecule of acetyl Co-A combines with the 4 carbon Pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A conversion produces no
compound Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA) to form 6 carbon ATP
citric acid and Co-A is released. Thus, the highest number of ATP molecules are
65 (b) TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl obtained through ETC.
group with Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA) and water to yield 77 (a) The main purpose of ETC (Electron Transport
citric acid. Thus, reaction is catalysed by the enzyme Chain) is to release and utilise the energy stored in
citrate synthase. NADH + H+ and FADH2 . This is accomplished when
66 (a) Option (a) is correct. these are oxidised through the electron transport system
l α-ketoglutarate is a 5C compound and the electrons are passed on to O2 , resulting in the
l Citric acid is a 6C compound formation of H2 O.
l Malate is a 4C compound
89 (d) All the given mechanisms in the options lead to ATP
l Pyruvic acid is a 3C compound.
formation. This type of method used depends on the
67 (d) All are wrong as the corrrect sequence of Krebs’ type of organisms and their energy transfer
cycle is mechanisms.
Pyruvate
l Photophosphorylation is the enzymatic formation of
Acetyl coenzyme-A ATP from ADP coupled to the light dependent transfer
of electrons in photosynthetic cells.
l Substrate level phosphorylation is the
Oxaloacetic acid Citric acid phosphorylation of ADP or some other nucleoside
5-diphosphate coupled to the dehydrogenation of an
organic substrate, independent of the electron transfer
chain.
Malic acid α-ketoglutaric acid

l Oxidative phosphorylation is the enzymatic
Succinic phosphorylation of ADP to ATP coupled to electron
acid transfer from a substrate to molecular oxygen.
68 (a) Option (a) is correct. 92 (d) Six carbon dioxide molecules are released by
lOxaloacetic acid is a 4C compound. complete oxidation of one glucose molecule. Two
carbon dioxide molecules are released during oxidative
lPhosphoglyceric acid is a 3C compound.
decarboxylation reaction and four carbon dioxide
lRibulose bisphosphate is a 5C compound. molecules are released in Krebs’ cycle or tricarboxylic
lPhosphoenol pyruvate is a 3C compound. acid cycle.
69 (c) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic 94 (c) Net gain of 36 to 38 ATP molecules is obtained
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised. This is a through aerobic respiration as 2ATP molecules are
substrate level phosphorylation. produced through glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle each and
32 to 34 ATP molecules are produced through electron 111 (b) The respiratory quotient of the equation can be
transport chain. calculated in the following volume of way
95 (c) 34 molecules of ATP (30 through NADH and Evolved CO2 102 CO2
Respiratory quotient = = = 0.7
4 through FADH2 ) are obtained as a result of oxidative Consumed O2 145 O2
phosphorylation. Rest 4 molecules are obtained as a
result of direct phosphorylation. 113 (d) Organic acid evolves more carbon dioxide than
volume of oxygen it consumes when broken down as
96 (b) The net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic respiratory substrate under aerobic conditions. Thus, its
respiration during Krebs’ cycle per glucose molecules is RQ is more than unity.
2 ATP + 3NADH. These 3 NADH further convert to
3 × 2 = 6 ATP in ETS. Thus, net yield will be 2 + 6 = 8 114 (c) The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a germinating
ATP. castor seed is less than one. This can be explained as
castor seeds are rich in fats (oil) and respiratory
98 (a) Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to quotient of fats is less than one (mostly 0.7). During
3 molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of germination of seed aerobic respiration occurs and
FADH 2 produces 2 molecules of ATP. oxygen is consumed. Since, breakdown of fat required
99 (c) The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred more oxygen, their RQ is less than one.
into the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative 115 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
phosphorylation. the correct explanation of Assertion.
101 (b) Pathway A is glycolysis, pathway B is the Krebs’ The conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to
cycle and pathway C is oxidative phosphorylation. 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate is an oxidation reaction.
Arrow 1 — ADP or NAD + This oxidation reaction occurs due to the use of NAD+
Arrow 2 — Pyruvate which gets converted to NADH by accepting a
Arrow 3 — NADH hydrogen molecule and this reaction is catalysed by the
Arrow 4 — ATP enzyme
Arrow 5 — ADP, NAD + or FAD glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Arrow 6 and 7 — FADH 2 and NADH
116 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and Assertion
(either one can be 6 or 7)
can be corrected as
Arrow 8 — ATP or CO 2
Arrow 9 and 10 — O 2 and ADP (either one The breaking of ATP into ADP and inorganic
can be 9 or 10) phosphate releases 30.6 kJ of energy per mole (not the
Arrow 11 and 12 — H 2 O and ATP (either making of ATP from ADP).
one can be 11 or 12) This energy is released from breaking of high energy
phosphate bonds in ATP. All cells of the body have
106 (d) In succulent plants like Opuntia, carbohydrates are
ATP molecules in them.
incompletely oxidised to organic acid in dark without
the evolution of CO2 . Hence, the value of RQ remains 117 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
zero. corrected as
107 (a) The RQ (Respiratory Quotient) of glucose is 1. Carbohydrates are used first by most cells in
respiration. Lipids (fats or oils) are used mainly when
C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2 O
carbohydrate reserves have been exhausted. As proteins
6CO2
RQ = =1 have other essential functions, these are used only when
6O2 all the carbohydrate and lipid reserves have been used
109 (c) Respiratory quotient is the ratio of volume of CO2 up.
evolved to the volume of O2 consumed. Thus, if 118 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and Assertion
RQ is less than 1.0 in respiratory metabolism, means can be corrected as
that respiratory substrates consume more oxygen than ATP formation during respiration is an endergonic
the amount of CO2 released. process. This is because ATP formation requires input
of energy.
110 (d) In anaerobic respiration, CO2 is evolved, but oxygen
is not used. So, value of O2 becomes zero. Therefore, in 119 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
such case respiratory quotient will be infinite, e.g. not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Zymase Glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic
C6 H12 O6 → 2 C2 H5 OH + 2 CO2 + Energy
acid due to which two Krebs’ cycle occur for glucose
Glucose
molecule. Each turn of Krebs’ cycle produces 3 NADH,
Evolved CO2
Where, respiratory quotient = 1 FADH 2 and 1 ATP molecules. On oxidation, 1
Consumed O2 NADH produces 3 ATP molecules and 1FADH 2
2 CO2 produces 2 ATP molecules. In each turn of Krebs’
= = ∞ (Infinity)
0 O2 cycle, 12 ATP molecules are produced.
120 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is l Substrate can be respired in the pathway at
not the correct explanation of Assertion. intermediate stages like when organism need fatty
The correct explanation is aerobic respiration yields a acids, acetyl Co-A would be withdrawn from the
total of 36 or 38 ATP molecules for one molecule of pathway.
glucose. l Respiratory pathway functioning is sequentional, i.e.
Fermentation yields a total of 2 ATP molecules for each Glycolysis → Krebs’ cycle → ETS not Krebs’ cycle to
molecule of glucose degraded. So, aerobic respiration is glycolysis.
bioenergetically more efficient than anaerobic glycolysis. 129 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
121 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be corrected as
corrected as The intermediate compound between the glycolysis
Alcoholic fermentation is an anaerobic process. It with Krebs’ cycle is acetyl Co-A
involves conversion of pyruvic acid into ethanol with Rest of the statements are correct.
the release of carbon dioxide. 130 (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct only statement
Alcoholic
Pyruvate → Ethanol + CO 2 III is incorrect and can be corrected as
Fermentation
Glycolysis utilises 1 ATP molecule each at 2 steps, i.e.
122 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is in the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
the correct explanation of Assertion. and in the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to
Respiratory pathway is considered as an amphibolic fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
pathway as it involves both anabolic and catabolic 131 (a) Only statement I is correct. Rest of the statements
reactions. For example, fatty acids are broken down to are incorrect and can be corrected as
acetyl Co-A before entering respiratory pathway and
l Glycolysis produces 4 molecules of ATP.
many other carbonic acids are synthesised as an
l In glycolysis one molecule of NAD+ is reduced for
intermediate compound.
each glucose molecule processed.
123 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be l The energy stored with the NADH is released in the
corrected as electron transport chain.
Krebs’ cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group
132 (d) The statement I is correct. Statements II and III are
with oxaloacetic acid and water to yield citric acid.
l Electron transport chain can occur only in the presence
124 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect. The correct of oxygen.
form of the statement is l Complete oxidation of glucose into CO2 and H2O
Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in the inner requires the presence of oxygen.
membrane of mitochondria. 133 (c) Both statements I and II are true.
Rest of the statements are correct. The role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of
125 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect. It can be ETS. Yet, the presence of oxygen is vital since it drives
corrected as the whole process by removing hydrogen from the
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the inner system. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.
mitochondrial membrane because of its less permeability, 134 (c) Statements IV and V are incorrect and can be
presence of ETC proteins and ATP synthase. corrected as
It is the process of ATP formation due to the transfer of l When the electrons pass from one carrier to another via
electrons from NADH or FADH2 to oxygen molecule complex-I to IV in ETS, they are coupled to ATP
( O2 ) by a series of electron carriers. synthase complex-V for the production of ATP from
ADP and inorganic phosphate.

The remaining three statements are correct.
l Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to
126 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect. It can be 3 ATP, while that of one molecule of FADH 2 produces
corrected as 2 molecules of ATP.
Cytochromes are proteinaceous, but ubiquinone is a Rest of the statement are correct.
non-proteinaceous, organic molecule.
135 (b) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
Ubiquinone is a lipophilic metabolite. incorrect and can be corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. For each ATP produced, 2H+ pass through F0 from the
128 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. intermembrane space to the matrix down the
Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as electrochemical process gradient.
l Alternative substrates other than glucose are allowed to 138 (a) The option (a) shows the correct matching. During
enter the pathway at intermediate stages, e.g. glycerol aerobic respiration of a single glucose various stages
(a product of fats breakdown) can enter the pathway produces ATP, NADH, FADH 2 and GTP. Out of these
after being converted to PGAL. NADH and FADH goes to ETS for conversion into
ATP. Thus, during glycolysis 2NADH produced which Other options are explained as
formed 6ATP by ETC. Acetyl Co-A production from l Lactic acid is formed in muscles under anaerobic
pyruvate forms 2NADH, i.e. 6 ATP, Krebs’ cycle conditions.
produces 6NADH and 2FADH 2 , i.e. 22 ATP. l Ethanol and CO2 are products of anaerobic respiration
143 (b) Oxygen is the ultimate electron acceptor in aerobic in yeast cells.
respiration because at the end of electron transport chain l CO2 and H2O are final products released at the end of
it accepts a pair of electrons and combines with cellular respiration.
hydrogen atom to form water molecule. 147 (c) Electron transport system is present in the inner
144 (c) Hexokinase catalyses the conversion of glucose mitochondrial membrane, which has groups of several
into glucose-6-phosphate by the use of ATP molecule, proton (H+ ) and electron (e− ) acceptors.
through phosphorylation reaction. This reaction is the
148 (b) Germinating seeds have the highest rate of
first step of glycolysis.
respiration. As soon as the water is imbibed by seeds,
145 (d) Oxidative phosphorylation involves complete hydrolytic enzymes (amylase) come into action and
oxidation of glucose molecule that produces mobilise the reserve food materials, so the seeds
38 ATP molecules, water ( H2 O ) and carbon dioxide show high metabolic activity and germinate into a
with the help of energy released during oxidation of tiny plant.
reduced coenzymes. Thus, option (d) is correct.
All these activities require energy, which is derived
146 (c) Option (c) is correct as from increased rate of aerobic respiration.
Pyruvate, the product obtained through glycolysis, 149 (a) Mitochondria are double membrane bound
under aerobic condition forms acetyl Co-A and CO2 . It structures and are the site of ATP production, which is
can be represented as the energy currency of the cell.
Mg 2+ The rest of the statements, are also correct, but do not
Pyruvic acid + Co-A + NAD+ → verify and support the fact that mitochondria are the
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
powerhouse of the cell.
Acetyl Co-A +CO2 + NADH + H+

CHAPTER > 15
Plant Growth and

Development
NEET KEY NOTES
Growth n
Elongation phase includes the cells which lie just beneath
Å Growth is considered as one of the most conspicuous events of the meristematic tissue and shows characteristics of cell
living organisms. It is defined as an irreversible permanent enlargement increased vacuolation and deposition of new
increase in size of an organ or its part or an individual cell. cell wall.
Growth is accompanied by metabolic processes (both anabolic n
Maturation phase includes cells which attain their
and catabolic) which occur at the expense of energy. maximal size in terms of wall thickening and
Å Plant growth is unique as plants show unlimited growth protoplasmic modifications. This phase lies proximal to
throughout their life. It is due to the presence of meristems at the phase of elongation.
certain locations in their body.
Growth Rate
Å The form of growth wherein new cells are always being
added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem is
Å It is defined as the rate of increase in growth per unit time.
called the open form of growth. Rate of growth can be expressed mathematically, i.e. increase
may be arithmetic or geometrical.
Å The first step in the process of plant growth is seed
germination under favourable conditions.
n
Arithmetic growth In such growth pattern, after mitotic
cell division only one cell continues to divide, while the
Å The root apical meristem and the shoot apical meristem are
other differentiates and matures, e.g. constantly
responsible for the primary growth of plants. These
elongating root.
contribute to the elongation of the plants along their axis.
Å Dicotyledons and gymnosperms have lateral meristems, i.e.
vascular cambium and cork combium. These cause an
increase in the girth of the organs through secondary growth
in which they are active.
Å Growth can be measured by a variety of parameters such as
increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length, area, volume
and cell number.
It can be represented mathematically as
Phases of Growth Lt = Lo + rt
Å Growth period is generally divided into three phases, Where,
namely meristematic, elongation and maturation.
Lt = Length at time ‘t’
n
Meristematic phase includes rapidly and constantly
L0 = Length at time ‘zero’
dividing cells at root and shoot apical meristems.
r = Growth rate
CHAPTER 15 > Plant Growth and Development 347
n
Geometrical growth Here, both the progeny cells resulted n
Relative growth rate which is the growth of the
after mitosis, continue to divide. However, with limited given system per unit time expressed on a common
nutrient supply, the growth slows down and becomes basis, e.g. per unit initial parameter.
stationary.
Conditions of Growth
The essential requirements of growth in plants are
described as follows
n
Water helps in maintenance of turgidity of cells. It
also provides a medium for enzymatic activities
needed for growth.
It cab be represented mathematically as
n
Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of
protoplasm and act as a source of energy.
W1 = W0 ert
n
Temperature range above optimum for plant growth
Where, may damage the protoplast or denature the enzymes.
W1 = Final size (weight, height, number) n
Oxygen is essential for aerobic respiration, hence
W0 = Initial size availability of energy for biosynthetic activity
r = Growth rate depends on oxygen.
t = Time of growth n
Light and gravity also affect certain phases/stages of
e = Base of natural logarithms growth. Light is required for photosynthesis,
Here, r is the relative growth and is also a measure of the flowering, etc. Gravity is required for growth
ability of the plant to produce new plant material movements of root, stem and branches.
(referred to as efficiency index).
Differentiation,
Growth Curve
Dedifferentiation and
Å It is the graphical representation of the total growth of plant
against time. If total growth is plotted against time, a Redifferentiation
S-shaped or sigmoid curve is obtained. It is the typical Å The development of structures and organs of plant
growth curve of most living organisms in their natural involves a switch from one developmental phase to
habitat. The growth phases of sigmoid curve is discussed in another.
the following figure
Å The three processes that are associated with the
Phase of diminishing growth specialisation of cells in different organisms including
Growth slows down during
plants are as follows
this phase, e.g. growth of organism
after getting vegetative maturity. n
Differentiation is the permanent localised qualitative
Size/weight of the organ
change in size, biochemistry, structure and function

2
3 123 Stationary phase of cells, tissues or organs, which lead to the
Growth completely
41
1
stops. It is also known as
maturation of cells and organs to perform specific
4
functions, e.g. in plants, palisade parenchyma,

24
steady phase,
tracheid, guard cells, root cap, fibre, trichome are
44
e.g. mature tissues.

34
Log phase or exponential phase differentiated cells.

Growth is very rapid. Also called grand n
Dedifferentiation is the process of despecialisation
12 3 phase by Sachs,
e.g. fruiting region of plants. of differentiated cells, so that they regain the capacity
0 to divide and form new cells, e.g. formation of
Time
Lag phase meristems, interfascicular vascular cambium, cork
Growth is very slow, e.g. the growth of root apex cambium, etc.
and shoot apex regions.
n
Redifferentiation is the structural, chemical and
Å Quantitative comparisons between growth of living systems physiological specialisation of cells being derived
can also be made in two ways, i.e. from dedifferentiated meristematic cells, which lose
the capacity to divide but mature to perform specific
n
Absolute growth rate which is measurement and the
functions, e.g. formation of secondary phloem,
comparison of total growth per unit time.
secondary xylem, cork cells and secondary cortex.
NEET KEY NOTES

Development Discovery and Physiological Effects of

Å It includes a series of changes that an organism goes through
Plant Growth Regulators
during its life cycle from germination to senescence. 1. Auxin
Å The sequence of processes, which constitute the Å It was isolated by FW Went from tips of coleoptiles of
development of a cell of a higher plant is given below oat seedlings.
Cell division Death Å Production of auxin generally takes place in the region
of growing apices of the stems and roots from where
Senescence
they migrate to the site of their action.
Plasmatic
growth Differentiation Å Auxin was first isolated from human urine. Auxins like
Meristematic
cell Indole 3 Acetic Acid (IAA) and Indole Butyric Acid
Mature
Expansion Maturation cell (IBA) have been isolated from plants, i.e. natural auxin.
(elongation) NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid) and 2, 4-D (2,
4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) are synthetic auxins.
Sequence of the developmental process in a plant cell
Å Functions of auxins are as follows
Å Plants follow different pathways in response to their n
Growth of apical bud and inhibition of axillary buds.
environment or phases of life to form different kinds of Such phenomenon is called apical dominance.
structures. This is called plasticity, e.g. heterophylly in
cotton, coriander and larkspur. Heterophylly is the
n
It promotes flowering and used in agriculture and
occurrence of different types of leaves on the same plant. horticulture practices.
n
It prevents leaf abscission and early fruit drop.
Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs) n
It induces parthenocarpy (development of fruit/plant
These are described as plant growth substances, plant without fertilisation), e.g. in tomatoes.
hormones or phytohormones. These are the small, simple n
Acts as weedicides (e.g. 2, 4-D). It kills
organic molecules of diverse chemical composition produced dicotyledonous weeds.
naturally in higher plants to control growth and other n
It controls xylem differentiation and is responsible
physiological functions. These are required in a minute for phototropism.
quantity by the plant.
2. Gibberellin
Classification of Plant Growth Å It was discovered by E Kurosawa in 1926 as an active
Regulators substance produced by fungus, Gibberella fujikuroi. The
fungus caused ‘Bakanae or foolish seedling disease’ in
I. On the basis of chemical composition
rice in Japan. Infected seedlings exhibited abnormal
Å Indole compounds, Indole-3- Acetic Acid (IAA).
elongation.
6
Å Adenine derivatives, N –furfuryl amino purine, kinetin
Å More than 100 gibberellins are reported from different
Å Carotenoid derivative, Abscisic Acid (ABA)
organisms and they are termed as GA1 , GA 2 , GA 3 , etc.
Å Terpenes, Gibberellic Acid (mainly GA )
3 Å All of them are known to be acidic in nature, thus they
Å Gases, Ethylene (C H )
2 4 are termed as gibberellic acids. However, GA 3 is the
II. On the basis of functions they perform in a living most important gibberellic acid.
plant body Å Functions of gibberellin are as follows
Å Plant Growth Promoters (PGRs) that show growth n
It helps in increasing the internodal length,
promoting activities such as cell division, cell enlargement, phenomenon is known as bolting.
tropic growth, pattern formation, flowering, fruiting, seed
formation, etc., are called plant growth promoters, e.g.
n
It delays senescence.
auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins. n
It is used to speed up the malting process in brewing
Å Plant Growth Inhibitors (PGIs) These perform function industry.
in response to wounds and stresses, i.e. of biotic and n
GAs hasten the maturity period and leads to early
abiotic origin. These are also involved in various growth seed production.
inhibiting activities like dormancy and abscission, e.g. n
It breaks dormancy of seed and promotes seed
abscisic acid. germination.
NEET KEY NOTES

3. Cytokinin kinds of inhibitors, i.e. inhibitor-B, abscission-II and

dormin.
Å It was first discovered by Skoog and Miller in 1955 from
coconut milk as an active substance that caused proliferation
Å Later all three were proved to be chemically identical
of callus. and was named abscisic acid.
Å Cytokinins are growth promoters and are basic in nature.
Å It is slightly acidic growth hormone that functions as a
growth inhibitor by interacting with other growth
Å These have specific effects on cytokinesis (division of hormones.
cytoplasm) and were discovered as kinetin (a modified form
of adenine, a purine) from the autoclaved herring sperm
Å Functions of abscisic acid are as follows
DNA. n
It stimulates the closure of stomata and increases the
Å Zeatin is a natural cytokinin present in coconut milk. These tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
are derivatives of purines. Therefore, also called as stress hormone.
Å Functions of cytokinin are as follows
n
It inhibits seed germination.
n
Cell division in apical meristem.
n
It plays an important role in seed development and
maturation and induces seed dormancy.
n
It plays an important role in the formation of new leaves n
It accumulates during unfavourable conditions and
and chloroplast in leaves.
helps seed to withstand desiccation.
n
It helps the plant to overcome apical dominance. It n
It acts antagonastically or opposite to gibberellic acid.
promotes lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot
formation.
n
It promotes nutrient mobilisation.
Photoperiodism
Å The effects of photoperiods or daily duration of light
n
It delays leaf senescence (falling of leaves).
hours (and dark periods) on the growth and
4. Ethylene development of plants, especially flowering is called
photoperiodism. According to the photoperiodic
Å In 1910 HH Cousins confirmed the release of a volatile
responses, three classes of plants have been recognised.
substance from ripened oranges that hastened the ripening
of stored unripened bananas, which was later identified as Å These classes are as follows
ethylene. n
Short day plants These plants initiate flowering when
Å It is a simple gaseous plant growth regulator, which is exposed to photoperiods shorter than the critical day
synthesised from the amino acid methionine. length. They require long and uninterrupted dark
periods for flowering, e.g. tobacco, soybean, sugarcane,
Å Functions of ethylene are as follows
etc.
n
It promotes senescence and abscission of plant organ.
n
Long day plants These plants initate flowering on
n
It promotes fruit ripening.
exposure to photoperiods longer than the critical day
n
It breaks seed and bud dormancy. length. These plants require a relatively small dark
n
It is also known as climacteric hormone since, it period, e.g. wheat, sugarbeet, radish, etc.
increases the respiration rate during ripening n
Day-neutral plants These plants do not require
of fruits and increase in temperature occurs. specific photoperiods to flower. Such plants flower in
n
It promotes flowering in cucumbers thereby increasing almost all the photoperiods ranging from a few hours
the yield. to 24 h of uninterrupted light period, e.g. maize,
n
It is used to initiate flowering and causes fruit set in cotton, etc.
pineapples. Å Critical duration is that length of photoperiod above or
n
It also promotes internode and petiole elongation in deep below which flowering occurs, e.g. xanthium is SDP
water rice plants. and its critical day length is 15 hours, i.e. below 15 hours
flowering will take place.
Å Ethephon is the chief source of ethylene. It accelerates the
formation of abscission layer in fruits and flower (thinning of
cotton, cherry, walnut).
Vernalisation
Å There are plants in which flowering is either
5. Abscisic Acid (ABA) quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure to
Å During mid 1960 three independent researchers reported by low temperature. The phenomenon in which flowering
Carins, Frederick Addicott and PF Wareing that the is promoted by exposing a plant to a period of low
purification and chemical characterisation of three different temperature is termed as vernalisation. It prevents
NEET KEY NOTES

precocious reproductive development late in the growing

season and enables plants to have sufficient time to reach Seed Dormancy
maturity. Å It is defined as the inactive state of a seed where the growth
Å Vernalisation can be summarised as the process of shortening of embryo remains suspended and does not resume even on
of vegetative phase and hastening of flowering by cold exposure to favourable conditions.
treatment. By using this method, winter varieties can be Å Various methods are used for breaking dormancy such as
transformed into spring or summer varieties. mechanical abrasions using knives, sand paper, etc., or
Å Devernalisation is the high temperature treatment which vigorous shaking, subjecting the seed to chilling conditions,
nullifies vernalisation. It can be obtained by using gibberellic application of GA 3 , changing the environmental conditions
acid. like light and temperature, etc.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Growth
1 Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure and choose 5 The type of growth where new cells are always being
the correct option. added to the plant body by the activity of meristem is
D called
C (a) closed form of growth (b) diffused form of growth
B (c) open form of growth (d) discontinuous form of growth
A
6 Primary growth of plants is contributed by
(a) root apical meristem (b) shoot apical meristem
7 The tissues responsible for secondary growth in
plants are
(a) vascular cambium (b) cork cambium
(c) lateral meristem (d) All of these
(a) A–Hypocotyl, B–Cotyledon, C–Seed coat, 8 Identify A and B in the given figure and choose the
D–Epicotyl hook
correct option.
(b) A–Epicotyl, B–Cotyledon, C–Hypocotyl, D–Seed coat A
(c) A–Epicotyl, B–Seed coat, C–Hypocotyl, D–Cotyledon
(d) A–Hypocotyl, B–Seed coat, C–Epicotyl, D–Cotyledon
Vascular
2 Choose the correct option for the characteristic of Shoot cambium
growth.
(a) It is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an
organ or its parts or even of an individual cell
(b) It is accompanied by metabolic processes Root
(c) It occurs at the expense of energy
B
3 Plant growth is unique because
(a) plants bear the capacity for unlimited growth (a) A–Root apical meristem; B–Shoot apical meristem
(b) plants bear the capacity for limited growth (b) A–Shoot apical meristem; B–Root apical meristem
(c) plants have diffused growth that differs from animals (c) A–Permanent tissue; B–Radicle tissue
(d) None of the above (d) A–Radicle tissue; B–Apical tissue
4 The cells of …… have the capacity to divide and 9 Growth at cellular level is the increase in the
self-perpetuate. amount of
(a) permanent tissue (b) quiescent centre (a) cell wall (b) cell membrane
(c) meristems (d) subapical part (c) protoplasm (d) All of these
10 The period of growth does not include (a) A–Arithmetic phase; B–Geometric phase
(a) meristematic phase (b) elongation phase (b) A–Arithmetic phase; B–Arithmetic phase
(c) death phase (d) maturation phase (c) A–Geometric phase; B–Geometric phase
11 Constantly dividing cells, both at the root apex and (d) A–Geometric phase; B–Arithmetic phase
shoot apex represent 16 Arithmetic growth is linear because
(a) elongation phase of the growth (a) One daughter cell remains meristematic and other
(b) meristematic phase of the growth differentiates and mature
(c) maturation phase of the growth (b) Both daughter cells remain meristematic
(d) None of the above (c) Both daugther cells get matured
12 The cells in the root and shoot apex (d) All of the above
(a) are rich in protoplasm 17 In expression, Lt = L0 + rt of arithmetic growth rate,
(b) have conspicuous nuclei Lt , Lo and r represent
(c) have cell walls which are primary in nature, thin and
cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal connections Lt L0 r
(d) All of the above (a) Length at time Length at time ‘t’ Elongation per
zero unit time
13 The cells proximal (just next away from the tip) to the
meristematic zone represent the phase of (b) Length at time ‘t’ Length at time Elongation per
zero unit time
(a) division (b) maturation
(c) elongation (d) differentiation (c) Length at time ‘t’ Length at time Growth rate
zero
14 In the given diagram, what does A and B indicate? (d) Both (b) and (c)
18 Among the following graphs, which shows the

arithmetic growth curve?
Growth
Growth
Growth
Time A Time B Time C

A B (a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) Only A
Choose the correct option. 19 In geometrical growth, lag phase is represented by
(a) A–Mitosis; B–Meiosis (a) initial rapid growth (b) later rapid growth
(b) A–Arithmetic growth; B–Geometric growth (c) initial slow growth (d) later slow growth
(c) A–Geometric growth; B–Arithmetic growth
20 In geometrical growth, exponential phase is
(d) A–Multiplicative phase; B–Replicative growth
represented by
15 In the given diagram, identify the type of growth (a) rapid consumption of nutrients
phases of a zygote represented as A and B. (b) rapid increase in cell number
(c) highest growth rate
Zygote divided (d) All of the above
21 Typical growth curve in plants is NEET 2016
(a) sigmoid (b) linear
(c) stair-steps-shaped (d) parabolic
22 Which of the following graphs show(s) the sigmoid
A growth curve?
Growth
Growth
Growth
– Cells capable of division

Time A Time B Time C
B – Cells that lose capacity to divide (a) Only C (b) Only A
(c) Only B (d) None of these
23 Identify A, B, C in the given graph and choose the 28 Developing embryo (in vitro) shows
correct option. (a) geometric growth (b) arithmetic growth
C (c) logistic growth (d) Both (a) and (b)
29 Quantitative comparisons between the growth of
Size/weight of organ
living system can be made in

B
(a) two ways (b) three ways
(c) only one way (d) four ways
30 Measurement and comparison of total growth of a
A
plant per unit time is called
(a) absolute growth rate
Time (b) qualitative growth rate
(c) relative growth rate
(a) A–Log phase, B–Lag phase, C–Steady state phase
(d) exponential growth rate
(b) A–Lag phase, B–Log phase, C–Steady state phase
(c) A–Lag phase, B–Steady state phase, C–Log phase 31 In the given figure, find out the absolute and relative
(d) A–Log phase, B–Steady state phase, C–Lag phase growth rate and choose the correct option.
24 In geometrical growth (from beginning to last) the
correct sequence of growth phases and their
occurrence are
I. lag phase II. stationary phase
III. exponential phase
(a) I → II → III (b) I → III → II
(c) III → II → I (d) III → I → II
25 Grand phase or the fastest phase of growth in
S-shaped growth curve is Time period 1-day
(a) lag phase
(b) stationary phase Absolute Growth Rate Relative Growth Rate
(c) diminishing growth phase (AGR) (RGR)
(d) exponential growth phase (a) 1 cm2 1 cm2
26 In the expression, W1 = W0 e rt (geometrical growth), (b) 100 cm2 5 cm2
(c) 5 cm2 100 cm2
W1 , W0 , r and t represents
(d) 0.5 cm2 100 cm2
W0 W1 r t 32 Auxanometer is used to measure
(a) Initial size Final size Growth rate Time of growth (a) growth in the length of plant organ
(b) Final size Initial size Growth rate Time of growth (b) growth in the width of plant organ
(c) population of the pest-attacking plants
(c) Final size Initial size Growth rate Time of single (d) Both (a) and (b)
cell division
33 Which of the following are the factors for plant
(d) Initial size Final size Growth rate Time of single
cell division growth?
(a) H2 O and O2
27 Efficiency index in the geometrical growth is the (b) Light, temperature and gravity
ability of plants to produce (c) Nutrients
(a) cell wall (d) All of the above
(b) new enzyme 34 Water is required in plant growth for
(c) new plant material (a) enzymatic reactions (b) cell enlargement
(d) young ones through mitosis (c) extension growth (d) All of these
TOPIC 2 ~ Differentiation, Dedifferentiation

and Redifferentiation
35 Permanent localised qualitative change in size, 41 If a part of pith from the stem of a plant is used as an
biochemistry, structure and function of cells, tissues explant and cultured on nutrient medium, which of
or organs is called the following processes is responsible for the
(a) cell division (b) meristematic division formation of an undifferentiated mass of cells called
(c) differentiation (d) dedifferentiation callus?
36 Differentiation in the cells derived from root apical (a) Growth
and shoot apical meristems and cambium cause them to (b) Differentiation
(a) differentiate (b) mature (c) Dedifferentiation
(c) perform specific functions (d) All of these (d) Redifferentiation
37 What are the structural changes which occur during 42 Name the process when dedifferentiated cells again
differentiation of tracheary elements? loss the ability to divide and get mature
(a) The cells lose their protoplasm (a) cell enlargement
(b) Cells develop very strong elastic lignocellulosic (b) redifferentiation
secondary cell walls (c) dedifferentiation
(c) The cell increases its protoplasm (d) differentiation
43 Growth of the plant is
38 The tracheary elements develop elastic lignocellulosic
(a) determinate (b) indeterminate
secondary cell walls to
(a) withstand high temperature (c) continuous (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) carry water to long distances under extreme tension 44 The final structure at maturity of a cell/tissue is
(c) withstand high light conditions determined by
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) type of cells
39 The living differentiated cells, regain the capacity of (b) type of cell division
division under certain conditions which is called (c) location of cells within the tissue
(a) redifferentiation (b) dedifferentiation (d) nutrients in cells
(c) differentiation (d) reverse division 45 The cells positioned away from the root apical
40 The formation of which of the following is the meristems differentiate as …A… , while those pushed
example of dedifferentiation? to the periphery mature as …B… .
(a) Procambium and vascular cambium (a) A– root cap cells, B– epidermis
(b) Cork cambium and interfascicular cambium (b) A– endodermis, B– epidermis
(c) Cork cambium and vascular cambium (c) A–root cap cells, B– endodermis
(d) Procambium and cork cambium (d) A–epidermis, B– endodermis
TOPIC 3 ~ Development
46 The term that includes a series of changes that an 48 The ability of plants to follow different pathways to
organism goes through during its life cycle from form different structures in response to environment
germination of the seed to senescence is is called
(a) maturation (b) development (a) plasticity
(c) growth (d) differentiation (b) elasticity
47 Identify the correct sequence from the following (c) growth
events of development process in a plant cell choose (d) development
the correct option. 49 Heterophylly can be observed in
I. Plasmatic growth II. Differentiation (a) cotton
III. Maturation IV. Senescence (b) coriander
(a) I → II → III → IV (b) I→ II → IV → III (c) larkspur
(c) IV → III → II → I (d) IV → I → II → III (d) All of the above
50 Diagrams A and B indicate the shape of leaves in (c) There is no variation in sizes of leaves of larkspur and
larkspur and buttercup, respectively. Choose the buttercup
correct option. (d) None of the above
51 When transition from juvenile to adult is gradual then
this type of development is called
(a) homoblastic development
(b) heteroblastic development
(c) homo and heteroblastic development
Juvenile Adult (d) hetero and homoblastic development
A 52 The study of different aspects or appearances of
plants in different seasons of the year is called
(a) ecology (b) ecosystem
Water
Terrestrial habitat (c) phenology (d) demography
habitat
53 Which of them are not extrinsic factors for growth of
B plants?
(a) Light, O2
(a) The juvenile and adult leaves of larkspur differ in (b) Temperature, CO2
colour from those in mature plant (c) Nutrient, water
(b) Leaves of buttercup differ in size due to its environment (d) Growth regulator and genetic factor
TOPIC 4~ Plant Growth Regulators

54 Which one includes growth promoters? 57 Canary grass experiment for phototropism was first
(a) Auxin, cytokinin, ABA conducted by
(b) GA, cytokinin, C2 H4 (a) Went
(c) C2 H2 , ABA (b) Darwin and Darwin
(d) Auxin, cytokinin, GA 3 (c) Cousins
55 Which one includes growth inhibitors? (d) Kurosawa
(a) ABA, cytokinin 58 Hormone involved in phototropism is
(b) GA, IAA (a) Auxin (b) Gibberelin
(c) ABA, C2 H4 (c) Kinetin (d) 2, 4-D
(d) None of the above 59 In coleoptile tissue, auxin is
56 I. Cell division (a) not transported because it used where it is made
II. Cell enlargement (b) transported by diffusion
III. Pattern formation (c) transported from base to tip by as mosses
IV. Tropic growth and seed formation (d) produced by growing apices of stem which migrate to
the region of its action
V. Flowering and fruiting
60 Dr. F Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed
VI. Response to wound
and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would
VII. Response to stresses of biotic and abiotic origin
produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly
Which one is correct ? cut coleoptile stumps what is the significance of this
Functions of growth Functions of growth experiment? CBSE-AIPMT 2014
promoters inhibitor (a) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of
(a) I, II, VII III, IV, V, VI auxin
(b) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small
(b) VI, II I, III, IV, V
amounts of growth-promoting substances
(c) I, II, III, IV, V VI, VII (c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
(d) VI, VII I, II, III, IV, V (d) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
61 Given below are the representation of four 70 Which of the following effects of auxins on plants is
coleoptiles for experiment. the basis for their commercial application?
Blade (blockage) (a) Callus formation
(b) Curvature of stem
(c) Induction of root formation in stem cuttings
(d) Induction of shoot formation
71 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by
the application of NEET 2017
(a) cytokinins (b) ethylene
Light
(c) auxins (d) gibberellic acid
A B C D 72 ‘Apical dominance’ in plants is the result of
(a) cytokinin (b) auxin
Which coleoptile will bend towards the light? Choose
(c) gibberellin (d) CH2  CH2
the correct option.
(a) A and B (b) C and D 73 The full form of IAA is
(c) A and D (d) C and B (a) Indole-3-acetic acid (b) Indole-2-acetic acid
(c) Inolacetic acid (d) Indole abscisic acid
62 ‘Bakanae’ (foolish seedling) disease of rice seedlings,
was caused by Gibberella fujikuroi, which is a 74 Removal of auxin source demonstrates that leaf
(a) fungi (b) protozoan abscission is ....... by auxin and apical dominance is
(c) bacteria (d) virus …… by auxin.
(a) Promoted, promoted (b) inhibited, inhibited
63 You are given a tissue with its potential for
(c) promoted, inhibited (d) inhibited, promoted
differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the
following pairs of hormones would you add to the 75 Removal of shoot tips is very useful technique to
medium to secure shoots as well as roots? boost the production of tea leaves. This is because
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) IAA and gibberellin (a) gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated
(b) Auxin and cytokinin (b) auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
(c) Auxin and abscisic acid (c) effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is
(d) Gibberellin and abscisic acid enhanced
(d) gibberellins delay senescence of leaves
64 Cytokinesis promoting active substance kinetin
identified and crystallised by 76 Parthenocarpy in tomatoes is induced by
(a) Skoog and Miller (b) Cousins (a) cytokinin (b) auxin
(c) E Kurosawa (d) Darwin (c) gibberellin (d) CH2  CH2
65 The Plant Growth Regulator (PGR), ethylene is 77 An auxin which is widely used to kill the
(a) volatile (b) gaseous in nature
dicotyledonous weed is
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) IAA (b) IBA (c) NAA (d) 2, 4-D
66 Which hormone was first isolated from human urine? 78 Among the following which is/are the function(s) of
(a) Auxin (b) ABA
auxin?
(c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellic acid (a) Cell elongation (b) Cell division
(c) Cell differentiation (d) All of these
67 Movement of auxin is
(a) basipetal (b) acropetal
79 To get a carpet like grass, lawns are mowed regularly
(c) centripetal (d) Both (a) and (b)
this is done to
(a) remove the shoot apical meristem
68 High concentration of auxin is present in (b) remove the axillary buds
(a) root apex (b) stem apex (c) accelerate the growth of lateral bud
(c) node (d) petiole (d) Both (b) and (c)
69 Natural and synthetic auxins (IAA, NAA, IBA, 80 Which of the following is not a plant growth inhibitor?
2,4-D) have been used extensively in JIPMER 2018
(a) agriculture (b) horticulture (a) Dormin (b) IAA
(c) sericulture (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Ethylene (d) ABA
81 The plant hormone produced by Rhizobium for 92 The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence,
nodulation is while performing tissue culture can be overcome by
(a) IBA (b) NAA (a) spraying auxins
(c) 2, 4-D (d) IAA (b) spraying cytokinins
82 How many gibberellins are reported from different (c) suspension culture
organisms such as plants and fungi? (d) subculture
(a) More than 50 (b) More than 75 93 Cytokinin helps in delaying the leaf
(c) More than 100 (d) More than 25 falling/senescence mainly by
83 Which one of the following is not an effect of (a) promoting nutrient mobilisation
gibberellin? (b) inhibiting cell division
(a) Increase the length of grapes stalks (c) promoting cell elongation
(b) Delay senescence of fruits (d) promoting cell differentiation
(c) Induce dormancy 94 Cytokinins help to produce
(d) Increase the length of sugarcane stem (a) new leaves and chloroplast in leaves
84 Fruits can be left on the tree longer, so as to increase (b) lateral shoot
the market period. This is due to the function of (c) adventitious shoot
(a) delayed senescence by auxin
(b) delayed senescence by CH2  CH2 95 Which PGA is/are acidic in nature?
(c) delayed senescence by cytokinin (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
(d) delayed senescence by GA (c) GA (d) All of these
85 During seed germination, its stored food is mobilised 96 Which plant hormone is found in gaseous form?
by NEET 2013 (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
(a) ethylene (b) cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) ABA
(c) ABA (d) gibberellin 97 Large amount of ethylene is synthesised by
86 Specific property attributed to GA is (a) developing roots and fruits
(a) shortening of genetically tall plants (b) developing shoots and flowers
(b) elongation of genetically dwarf plants (c) tissues undergoing senescence and ripening fruits
(c) rooting or stem cuttings (d) young tissue and unripened fruits
(d) promotion of leaf and fruit fall 98 Respiratory climacteric is related with
87 Internodal elongation just prior to flowering in (a) ABA (b) ethylene
sugarbeet, cabbage and in many plants with rosette (c) auxin (d) GA
habit is called 99 Surface area of roots by promoting root growth and
(a) prunning (b) bolting root hair formation is increased by
(c) grafting (d) cutting (a) cytokinin (b) kinetin
88 Cytokinins are mostly (c) ethylene (d) ABA
(a) glucosides (b) phenolics 100 It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce
(c) amino purines (d) organic acids flowers. Which combination of hormones can be
89 Difference between kinetin and zeatin is applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple
(a) kinetin is active, while zeatin is non-active plants throughout the year to increase yield?
(a) Gibberellin and cytokinin NEET 2019
(b) zeatin is active, while kinetin is non-active
(b) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(c) zeatin is synthetic, while kinetin is natural
(c) Cytokinin and abscisic acid
(d) zeatin is natural, while kinetin is synthetic (d) Auxin and ethylene
90 Natural cytokinins are synthesised in regions where 101 Most widely used compound as a source of ethylene is
rapid cell division occurs such regions are (a) nepthol (b) acetol
(a) root apices (b) young fruit (c) ethephon (d) ethepcon
(c) developing shoot buds (d) All of these
102 Ethephon
91 Which hormone (PGR) encounters apical dominance
(a) hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes
induced by auxin? (b) accelerates abscission
(a) IAA (b) Cytokinin (c) increases number of female flowers in cucumber
(c) C2 H4 (d) NAA (d) All of the above
103 A farmer grows cucumber plants in his field. He 109 Abscisic acid
wants to increase the number of female flowers in (a) inhibits seed germination
them. Which plant growth regulator can be applied to (b) stimulates closure of stomata
achieve this? (c) induces seed dormancy
(a) ABA (b) Ethylene (d) All of the above
(c) GA (d) Cytokinins
110 Identify the correct option for A and B.
104 The shedding of leaves, flowers and fruits due to
Compound Function
changes in hormonal levels in plants, is referred to as
I. 2, 4-D A
(a) senescence (b) abscission
(c) photoperiodism (d) vernalisation II. B Fruit ripening
105 In response to biotic and abiotic stress, growth A B

inhibition activities are caused by (a) Insecticide Auxin
(a) ABA (b) CH2  CH2 (b) Insecticide Cytokinin
(c) IAA (d) IBA (c) Insecticide GA
106 Which one of the following growth regulators is (d) Weedicide Ethylene
known as ‘stress hormone’? CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Ethylene 111 Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(c) GA 3 (d) Indole acetic acid (a) Explant – Excised plant part used for
107 In most situations, ABA acts callus formation
(a) agonist to auxin (b) antagonist to gibberellin (b) Cytokinin – Its high concentration causes
(c) antagonist to auxin (d) agonist to gibberellin root initiation in callus
108 Which organelle synthesises the abscisic acid? (c) Somatic embryo – Embryo produced froms a
(a) Golgi body (b) ER vegetative cell
(c) Lysosome (d) Chloroplast (d) Anther culture – Haploid plants
TOPIC 5 ~ Photoperiodism
112 In plants, phototropism is the movement 116 The given figure shows responses of different plants
(a) towards the light source A, B and C to photoperiod (light). Choose the correct
(b) away from the light source option.
(c) parallel to the light source
(d) lateral to the light source
113 Plants which require exposure to light for a period
greater than critical day length are Above Above
(a) long day plants
(b) long-short day plants Flowering Critical No flowering Critical
(c) short day plants photo- photo-
(d) short-long day plants period period
114 Short day plants require light for a period

(a) less than critical duration Flowering
Below Below after
(b) equal than critical duration vegetative
(c) more than critical duration maturity
(d) independent of critical duration No flowering Flowering
A B C
115 Day neutral plants
A B C
(a) show no flowering in any photoperiod
(a) Long day plant Day neutral plant Short day plant
(b) show loss of activity during day time
(c) have no correlation between exposure to light duration (b) Short day plant Day neutral plant Long day plant
and induction of flowering response (c) Long day plant Short day plant Day neutral plant
(d) None of the above (d) Short day plant Long day plant Day neutral plant
117 Effect of daily duration of light and dark periods on 121 A long day plant having a critical photoperiod of
growth and development of plants especially on 13 hours will flower in which condition?
flowering is called Duration of light period Duration of dark period
(a) vernalisation (b) photoperiodism (a) 13 11
(c) phototaxis (d) Both (a) and (b) (b) 11 13
(c) 12 12
118 Short day plant also called
(d) 10 14
(a) short night plant (b) long night plant
(c) intermediate night plant (d) None of these 122 Which pigment is involved in photoperiodic changes
in plants?
119 What is the site of perception of photoperiod
(a) Phytochrome
necessary for induction of flowering in plants?
(b) Chlorophyll
NEET 2019
(c) Cytochrome
(a) Pulvinus (b) Shoot apex
(d) Anthocyanin
(c) Leaves (d) Lateral buds
123 A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark
120 Choose the correct option.
room. After a few days they were found to have
(a) Flowering in certain plants depends on a combination
become white like albinos. Which of the following
of light and dark exposures on plant
terms will you use to describe them?
(b) Shoot apices of plant themselves cannot perceive
CBSE-AIPMT 2014
photoperiods, they modify themselves into flowering
apices prior to flowering (a) Mutated
(b) Embilised
(c) There is a hormonal substance that is responsible for
flowering (c) Etiolated
(d) All of the above (d) Defoliated
TOPIC 6~ Vernalisation and Seed Dormancy
124 Vernalisation is JIPMER 2019 130 Vernalisation stimulates flowering in

(a) low pH treatment CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(b) low temperature treatment (a) jimikand (b) turmeric (c) carrot (d) ginger
(c) high temperature treatment 131 Stimulus of vernalisation is perceived by
(d) high pH treatment (a) shoot tips (b) mature tissues
125 Temperature required for vernalisation is (c) embryo tips (d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) 5-10°C (b) 5-15°C (c) 0-5°C (d) 3-17°C 132 Certain seeds which fail to germinate even when
126 Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what external conditions are favourable is due to
do the temperature and light control in the plants? (a) photoperiodism (b) seed dormancy
CBSE-AIPMT 2012 (c) vernalisation (d) plasticity
(a) Apical dominance (b) Flowering 133 Which of the following is/are factor causing seed
(c) Closure of stomata (d) Fruit elongation dormancy?
127 Hormone, which replaces the requirement of (a) Impermeable and hard seed coat
vernalisation is (b) Chemical inhibitors like abscisic acids, phenolic acids
(a) ethylene (b) auxin and para-ascorbic acids
(c) gibberellin (d) cytokinin (c) Immature embryos
128 Examples of plants which require vernalisation is/are
(a) pea (b) sugarbeet 134 Which of the following method would not help in
(c) cabbage (d) All of these breaking seed dormancy?
(a) Mechanical abrasions using knives, sandpaper, etc
129 Vernalisation can be reversed by
(b) Microbial action
(a) application of high temperature
(c) Subjecting the seed to auxin to remove effect of
(b) application of auxin inhibitory substance
(c) application of more less temperature (d) Changing the environmental conditions like light and
(d) application of gibberellin temperature
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason II. Statement Based Questions
■ Direction (Q. Nos. 135-143) In each of the following 144 Study the following statements.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by I. Increase in girth of plants is primary growth.
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, II. Increase in girth of plants occurs due to the apical
Mark the correct answers as meristem.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A III. Secondary growth of plants occurs due to the lateral
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct meristem.
explanation of A IV. Vascular cambium and cork cambium are the lateral
(c) If A is true, but R is false meristems of plants.
V. Elongation of a plant along the axis is called primary
135 Assertion (A) Growth in plants is indeterminate. growth.
Reason (R) Plant cells can divide and enlarge Choose the option containing the incorrect statements.
continuously for lifetime. (a) I and II (b) III and IV
136 Assertion (A) Growth is invariably associated with (c) IV and V (d) I and V
differentiation. 145 Study the following statements regarding plant
Reason (R) Growth and differentiation are permanent growth and choose the correct one.
changes which occur in an organism’s body. (a) One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to
more than 17,500 new cells per hour
137 Assertion (A) Removal of shoot tip increases apical
(b) Growth of pollen tube is measured in the terms of its
dominance.
length
Reason (R) Due to the accumulation of auxin in (c) Growth of a dorsiventral leaf is measured by its surface
lateral parts, growth is enhanced. area
138 Assertion (A) Gibberellin is useful in early seed (d) All of the above
production in conifers. AIIMS 2019 146 Read the following statements about the phase of
Reason (R) Ethephon is responsible for early ripening elongation.
in tomato and apple. I. It is characterised by increased vacuolation.
139 Assertion (A) Ethylene freely diffuses across the II. It shows cell enlargement.
membrane of plant cells. III. In this phase, new cell wall is deposited.
Reason (R) It causes climacteric ripening of fruit. IV. Growth is maximum.
140 Assertion (A) Hormones are also called growth Choose the option containing the correct statements.
regulators. (a) III, I and II (b) I, II and III
Reason (R) These promote or inhibit plant growth. (c) II, IV and III (d) I, II, III and IV
141 Assertion (A) Plants have hormones called 147 Read the following statements about the phase of
phytohormones. maturation.
Reason (R) These increase the rate of reactions, thus I. In this phase, cells attain their maximal size.
always accelerate growth and other related changes. II. Proper wall thickening and protoplasmic
142 Assertion (A) Photomodulation of flowering is a modifications occur in this phase.
phytochrome regulated process. AIIMS 2018 III. It is characterised by rapid cell division.
Reason (R) Active form of phytochrome (Pfr) Choose the correct option.
directly induces flowering in shoot buds. (a) I and II
143 Assertion (A) A farmer does not prefer to grow (b) II and III
tobacco plant under long day conditions. (c) I and III
Reason (R) Tobacco is a short day plant. (d) All of the above
148 Which of the following statements about growth rate 154 Read the following statements.
is correct? I. Cytokinins play a vital role in morphogenesis in plants.
(a) The increased growth per unit time is termed as growth II. In tissue cultue, both auxin and cytokinins are used for
rate growth and differentiation.
(b) Rate of growth can be expressed mathematically
III. In callus, shoot regeneration is promoted by cytokinin.
(c) An organism or a part of the organism can produce
more cells in a variety of ways IV. In callus, root regeneration is promoted by auxin.
(d) All of the above Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I, II and III
149 Read the following statements.
(b) Only IV
I. Turgidity of cells helps in extension growth. (c) III and IV
II. Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential (d) I, II, III, and IV
for growth activities.
III. Nutrients (micro and macromolecules) are required by
(a) Cytokinins are formed primarily in roots
plants for the synthesis of protoplasm as well as act as
(b) Auxin and cytokinin are antagonistic in apical
source of energy.
dominance
IV. There is no optimum temperature needed for growth. (c) Kinetin (a modified DNA purine) was discovered from
V. Environmental signals like light and gravity affect all herring sperm
phases of growth. (d) Zeatin is an auxin
Choose the correct option. 156 Identify the phytohormone responsible for the given
(a) I, II, III are true and IV and V are false functions.
(b) II and III are true and I, IV and V are false I. Horizontal growth of seedlings.
(c) All statements are true
II. Swelling of the axis and apical hook formation in dicot
(d) All statements are false seed.
150 Read the following statements about the functions of III. Promoting senescence and abscission of leaves and
auxin and choose the correct option. flowers.
(a) Initiates rooting in stem cuttings IV. Highly effective in fruit ripening.
(b) Promotes flowering in pineapples V. Promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep
(c) Controls xylem differentiation water rice plants.
151 Select the correct statements regarding auxins. (a) ABA (b) GA
I. Auxins promote flowering, e.g. in pineapple and (c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene
promote abscission of older mature leaves and fruits. 157 The hormone ‘X’ does the following functions.
II. Auxin controls xylem differentiation. I. Acts as general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor
III. Apical dominance is due to more auxin in apical bud of plant metabolism.
than in lateral ones. II. Plays an important role in seed development,
(a) I and II (b) II and III maturation and dormancy.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
III. Helps seeds withstand desiccation and other factors
152 Choose the correct statements. unfavourable for growth.
(a) Auxins are generally produced by growing apices of The hormone ‘X’ should be
stems and roots
(a) ABA (b) ethylene (c) GA (d) cytokinin
(b) IAA (Indole Acetic Acid) and IBA (Indole Butyric
Acid) have been isolated from plants 158 Read the following statements about effects of
(c) NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid) and 2,4-D (2, ethylene and choose the correct option.
4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) are synthetic auxins I. More female flowers in cucumber.
(d) All of the above II. α-amylase production in seed.
153 Which of the following statements regarding III. Acceleration of fruit ripening in tomato.
gibberellins is incorrect? IV. Delay sprouting in potato tubers.
(a) GA 3 was one of the first gibberellins to be discovered (a) I and II
(b) All GAs are acidic (b) I and III
(c) Spraying GA on conifers causes late seed production
(c) II and IV
(d) Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with
GA 3 (d) III and IV
159 Read the following statements and choose the correct 164 Match the following columns.
one. Column I Column II
(a) Kinetin is a degradative substance from DNA
A. Differentiation 1. Acts of maturation
(b) ABA is present in all plants including lower plants
(c) Low ratio of cytokinin to auxin favours shoot formation B. Redifferentiation 2. Acts of again loosing cell division
only capacity and mature to perform
special function
(d) ABA is synthesised catabolically through glycolytic
pathway C. Dedifferentiation 3. Acts of gaining cell division
capacity after differentiation
(a) The role of PGR is only to exert intrinsic control Codes
(b) Along with genomic control and extrinsic factor, they A B C A B C
play an inportant role in plant growth and (a) 1 3 2 (b) 3 2 1
development (c) 1 2 3 (d) 3 1 2
(c) Many of the intrinsic factors such temperature and light
control the plant growth and development via PGR like
vernalisation, flowering, dormancy, seed germination Column II
Column I
and plant movements (Factors influencing
(Classes of factors
(d) Both light and temperature have a role on initiating influencing
development in plants)
flowering development)
A. Genetic factor 1. Extrinsic factor
161 Given below the functions of different plant growth
B. Plant growth regulators 2. Intrinsic factor
hormones. Which of the following statements is
incorrect? C. Temperature, water,
oxygen, nutrients
(a) Cytokinins suppress the synthesis of chlorophyll
(b) Auxins control apical dominance Codes
(c) Gibberellins promote shoot elongation A B C A B C
(d) Abscisic acid enables seeds to withstand desiccation (a) 1 1 2 (b) 1 2 2
(c) 1 2 2 (d) 2 2 1
III. Matching Type Questions 166 Match the following columns.
(PGRs) (Types)
Column I Column II
A. IAA 1. Gases
(Meristematic tissues) (Location)
B. N6-furfurylaminopurine 2. Terpenes
A. Apical meristem 1. Presents at terminal position
C. ABA 3. Derivatives of carotenoids
B. Intercalary meristem 2. Secondary growth
D GA3 4. Adenine derivatives
C. Lateral meristem 3. Localised growth
E. C2H4 5. Indole compounds
Codes
A B C A B C Codes
A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 (b) 5 4 3 2 1
163 Match the following columns. (c) 5 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 5 1 2 3
Column I Column II
(Phases of growth) (Definition) 167 Match the following columns.
A. Formative phase 1. Cell develops into special or Column I Column II
particular type of cells (Scientists) (PGRs)
B. Phase of 2. Plastic extension through the A. Darwin and Darwin 1. Kinetin
enlargement enzymatic loosening of microfibrils B. E Kurosawa 2. Gibberellin
C . Phase of 3. New cells are produced by mitosis C. Skoog and Miller 3. Auxin
differentiation
D. H H Cousins 4. Ethylene
Codes
Codes
A B C A B C
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1

A B A B
Column I Column II (a) 1, 2 3, 4 (b) 3, 4 1, 2
(Categories of PGRs) (PGRs) (c) 1, 3 2, 4 (d) 2, 4 1, 3
A. Plant growth promoters 1. Auxin 172 Match the following columns.
B. Plant growth inhibitor 2. Gibberellin
Column I Column II
3. Abscisic acid
(Hormones) (Types of PGR)
4. Cytokinin
A. Zeatin 1. Flowering hormone
Codes
B. Florigen 2. Synthetic auxin
A B A B
(a) 1, 2, 3 4 (b) 4 1,2,3 C. IBA 3. Cytokinin
(c) 3 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 3 D. NAA 4. Natural auxin
169 On the basis of correlation, find the correct option
Codes
from columns.
A B C D
Column I Column II Column III (a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
I. Foolish A. Volatile hormone 1. Induces dormancy
plant (c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
II. Induces B. GA 2. Ripens fruit
senescence 173 Match the following columns.
C. Zeatin 3. Usually sterile plant Column I Column II
Codes A. Crocus 1. Earlier and higher crop production obtained
(a) I–A–2, II–C –1 (b) I–C–3, II–B –3 by keeping its seeds at low temperature
(c) I–B–3, II–A –2 (d) I–B–1, II–C –2 between 1-10°C.
170 Match the following columns. B. Millet 2. Growth regulator obtained from its
endosperm.
Column I Column II
(Location) (PGRs) C. Coconut 3. Needs high temperature for flowering.
A. Human urine 1. Cytokinin Codes
B. Gibberella fujikuroi 2. Auxin A B C
C. Herring fish DNA 3. Ethylene (a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
D. Ripening fruit 4. ABA
(c) 3 1 2
E. Aged leave of plants 5. GA (d) 1 3 2
A B C D E
(a) 2 3 4 5 1 Column I
Column II
(Classes of photoperiodic
(b) 2 5 1 3 4 (Examples)
plants)
(c) 1 2 3 4 5
(d) 5 4 3 2 1 A. SDP 1. Wheat
171 Match the following columns. B. LDP 2. Chrysanthemum

C. DNP 3. Maize
Column I Column II
(Types of auxin) (Examples) Codes
A. Natural auxin 1. IAA A B C
B. Synthetic auxin 2. NAA (a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
3. IBA
(c) 2 3 1
4. 2,4-D (d) 3 1 2

NCERT 182 Match the following columns.
175 Any one parameter is not good enough to demonstrate Column I Column II
growth through the life of a flowering plant because (Hormones) (Function)
(a) lateral meristems appear later in life A. IAA 1. Herring sperm DNA
(b) apical meristems contribute to elongation, while lateral
B. ABA 2. Bolting
meristems increase girth
(c) increase in protoplasm is difficult to measure directly C. Ethylene 3. Stomatal closure
(d) None of the above D. GA 4. Weed-free lawns
176 Abscisic acid is also known as stress hormone E. Cytokinins 5. Ripening of fruits
because
(a) it is a plant growth inhibitor Codes
A B C D E
(b) it is an inhibitor of plant metabolism
(a) 4 3 5 2 1
(c) it inhibits seed germination (b) 5 3 4 2 1
(d) it increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of (c) 4 1 5 3 2
stresses (d) 5 3 2 1 4
183 Ethylene is used for
NCERT Exemplar (a) retarding ripening of tomatoes
177 Monocarpic plants are those which (b) hastening of ripening of fruits
(a) bear flowers with one ovary (c) slowing down ripening of apples
(b) flower once and die
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) bear only one flower
(d) All of the above 184 The term synergistic action of hormones refers to
(a) when two hormones act together but bring about
178 In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop, opposite effects
which of the following plant growth regulators should (b) when two hormones act together and contribute to the
be sprayed? NEET (Odisha) 2019 same function
(a) Ethylene (c) when one hormone affects more than one function
(b) Auxins (d) when many hormones bring about any one function
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Cytokinins
185 ABA acts as antagonistic to
(a) ethylene (b) cytokinin
179 Coconut water contains (c) gibberellic acid (d) IAA
(a) ABA
(b) auxin
186 Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of
(c) cytokinin
these can be used as parameters to measure growth?
(a) Increase in cell number
(d) gibberellin
(b) Increase in cell size
180 The affect of apical dominance can be overcome by (c) Increase in length and weight
which of the following hormone? (d) All of the above
(a) IAA
187 Plasticity in plant growth means that
(b) Ethylene (a) plant roots are extensible
(c) Gibberellin (b) plant development is dependent on the environment
(d) Cytokinin (c) stems can extend
181 Apples are generally wrapped in waxed paper to (d) None of the above
(a) prevent sunlight for changing its colour
188 The photoperiod in plants is perceived at
(b) prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of O2
(a) meristem (b) flower
(c) prevent ethylene formation due to injury
(c) floral buds (d) leaves
(d) make the apples look attractive
Answers
1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (a)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (a) 49 (d) 50 (b)
51 (a) 52 (c) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (d)
61 (b) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (a) 65 (c) 66 (a) 67 (d) 68 (b) 69 (d) 70 (c)
71 (c) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (d) 75 (c) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (d) 79 (c) 80 (b)
81 (d) 82 (c) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (d) 86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (c) 89 (d) 90 (d)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (d) 95 (d) 96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (d)
101 (c) 102 (d) 103 (b) 104 (b) 105 (a) 106 (a) 107 (b) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (d)
111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (a) 114 (a) 115 (c) 116 (c) 117 (b) 118 (b) 119 (c) 120 (d)
121 (a) 122 (a) 123 (c) 124 (b) 125 (c) 126 (b) 127 (c) 128 (d) 129 (a) 130 (c)
131 (d) 132 (b) 133 (d) 134 (c)
135 (a) 136 (a) 137 (d) 138 (b) 139 (b) 140 (a) 141 (c) 142 (c) 143 (a) 144 (a)
145 (d) 146 (d) 147 (a) 148 (d) 149 (a) 150 (d) 151 (d) 152 (d) 153 (c) 154 (d)
155 (d) 156 (d) 157 (a) 158 (b) 159 (a) 160 (c) 161 (a) 162 (b) 163 (c) 164 (c)
165 (d) 166 (b) 167 (b) 168 (d) 169 (a) 170 (b) 171 (c) 172 (d) 173 (c) 174 (b)
175 (c) 176 (d) 177 (b) 178 (c) 179 (c) 180 (d) 181 (b) 182 (a) 183 (b) 184 (b)
185 (c) 186 (d) 187 (b) 188 (d)

3 (a) Plant growth is unique as plants have the capacity 13 (c) The cells proximal (just next away from the tip) to
for unlimited growth, which is mainly due to the the meristematic zone represent the phase of elongation.
presence of meristematic cells at certain locations in Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell
their body. wall deposition are the characteristics of the cells in this
6 (c) Root Apical Meristem (RAM) and Shoot Apical phase.
Meristem (SAM) principally contribute to the primary 16 (a) Arithmetic growth is linear because in this type of
growth of the plants by facilitating the elongation of the growth rate, there is a sequential addition of new cells.
plants along their axis. One daughter cell remains meristematic (dividing),
7 (d) The tissues responsible for secondary growth in while the other cell differentiates and matures to
plants are vascular cambium, cork cambium and lateral perform special function.
meristem. Secondary growth in plants mainly pertains 18 (d) Among the given graphs, only graph ‘A’ represents
to an increase in the girth of plants (organs). It occurs in the arithmetic growth curve as it is showing that only
dicotyledonous plants and gymnosperms. one daughter cell continues to divide thus forming a
9 (c) Growth at cellular level principally occurs due to an linear curve.
increase in the amount of protoplasm. Other options are incorrect and can be corrected as
10 (c) Death is not included in the period of growth. It is Graph ‘B’ is constant and graph ‘C’ is declining.
the permanent cessation of all biological functions that 19 (c) Lag phase is represented by initial slow growth rate
sustain a living organism. The period of growth is because it represents environmental adaptations which
generally divided into three phases namely, are slow in nature.
meristematic, elongation and maturation phases. 20 (d) In the log or exponential phase of geometrical
11 (b) The constantly dividing cells present at the root apex growth, there is a rapid increase in size, cell number and
and shoot apex represent the meristematic phase or mass of an organism, due to the rapid consumption of
formative or cell formation phase of growth. nutrients.
21 (a) Growth curve in plants is a sigmoid curve. A extension growth. Water also provides the medium to
sigmoid curve is a characteristic of living organisms carry out all the enzymatic activities needed for growth.
growing in a natural environment. It is typical of all 36 (d) The cells derived from root apical and shoot apical
cells, tissues and organs of a plant. meristems and cambium differentiate and mature to
An ideal sigmoid growth curve typical of cells in perform specific functions. This act leading to
culture and many higher plants and plant organs is maturation of cells is termed as differentiation.
given below 37 (d) During differentiation, cells undergo a few major
structural changes both in their cell walls and
Stationary protoplasm. For example, in order to form tracheary
phase
elements, the cells would lose their protoplasm. The
e
as
Size/weight of
cells also develop a very strong, elastic, lignocellulosic

ph
the organ
secondary cell walls.

ntia
ne
39 (b) The living differentiated cells that have lost their

po
capacity to divide may regain their capacity of division

Ex
Lag phase under certain conditions. This phenomenon is known as

dedifferentiation.
Time
40 (b) The formation of meristems, i.e. interfascicular
24 (b) In geometrical growth, the correct sequence of cambium and cork cambium, from fully differentiated
growth phases according to their occurrence is parenchyma cells in dicot stem and root at the time of
secondary growth is an example of dedifferentiation.
Lag phase → Exponential phase → Log phase
(I) (III) (II) 41 (c) Dedifferentiation occurs in callus. The portion of
pith taken as an explant comprises of parenchymatous
The initial growth is slow (lag phase). It increases cells (i.e. simple permanent tissues which have lost the
rapidly there, after at a exponential rate (log or capacity to divide). When such cells are cultured on
exponential phase). However, due to the limited nutrient solid culture media, the parenchymatous cells of pith
supply, the growth slows down leading to the stationary become meristematic and start dividing resulting in a
phase. mass of undifferentiated cells called callus. This is an
25 (d) The log phase or the exponential growth phase is example of dedifferentiation.
also called as the grand or the fastest phase of growth. 42 (b) The phenomenon in which the products of
This is because there is rapid increase in cell number as dedifferentiated meristems/tissues which are able to
the progeny cells retain their ability to divide and divide and produce cells once again lose their capacity
continue dividing till the nutrient supply is appropriate. to divide but mature to perform specific function is
29 (a) Quantitative comparisons between the growth of called redifferentiated, e.g. secondary cortex and cork.
living systems can be done in two ways, i.e. absolute 43 (d) Plants structures have indeterminate or determinate
growth rate and relative growth rate. unlimited (open) growth because of the presence of
31 (c) In the given figure, AGR = 5cm 2 and meristem.
RGR = 100cm 2 Absolute Growth Rate (AGR) is the 47 (a) Development is a term that includes a series of
comparison and measurement of total growth per unit time. changes which an organism goes through during its life
Initial surface area = 5 cm 2, Final surface area = 10 cm 2 cycle, e.g. from germination of a seed to its senescence.
AGR = Final surface area − Initial surface area It occurs in the following sequence
Plasmatic growth → Differentiation → Maturation →
= 10 − 5 = 5 cm 2
Senescence
Relative Growth Rate (RGR) is the growth of the given
system per unit time expressed on a common basis, e.g. per 48 (a) Plants follow different pathways in response to
unit initial parameter. environment to form different kind of structures. This
Final surface area − Initial surface area ability is called plasticity, e.g. heterophylly.
RGR = × 100
Initial surface area 49 (d) Heterophylly refers to the presence of different leaf
10 − 5 forms on the same plant. It can be observed in cotton,
= × 100 ⇒ 100 = 100 cm 2
5 coriander and larkspur.
33 (d) Water (H2 O) , oxygen ( O2 ) and nutrients are 50 (b) Option (b) is correct as
essential elements for plant growth. Apart from these The leaves of buttercup show heterophylly due to its
temperature and light are also important factors for environment.
plant growth. Other options are incorrect and can be corrected as
34 (d) Option (d) is correct because
l
The juvenile plant leaves of larkspur are different in
Plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement which in shape from those in mature plants.
turn requires water. Turgidity of cells helps in
l
There is variations in sizes of leaves of larkspur and
buttercup due to heterophylly.
51 (a) The development that takes place when the 63 (b) When a tissue with a potential for differentiation is
transition of juvenile phase to adult phase occurs in grown in an artificial medium, auxin and cytokinin in a
gradual manner, e.g. Ipomea called homoblastic specific ratio can be added into it so as to promote
development. differentiation. This causes root and shoot formation.
52 (c) The different aspects or appearances of plants in Auxin initiates root formation, while cytokinin starts
different seasons of a year is called phenology. These shoot formation.
aspects of plants are controlled not only by seasons and 64 (a) Skoog and Miller identified and crystallised kinetin,
other environmental factors, but also by metabolism, and deduced it to be responsible for inducing
heredity and internal signals. differentiation, growth in tobacco stem callus.
53 (d) Extrinsic factors of growth are light, O2 , 65 (c) Ethylene is a volatile and gaseous plant growth
temperature, CO2 , nutrient and water. inhibitor hormone. It inhibits growth of plant in
Intrinsic growth factors are of two types response to environmental factors or stress.
l
Chemical factors such as plant growth regulators. 66 (a) Auxin (derived from Greek word auxin, which
l
Genetic factors, e.g. chromosome, gene, etc. means to grow) was first isolated from human urine.
56 (c) Growth promoters exhibit growth promoting Kogl and Haagen-Smit (1931) isolated three chemicals
activities such as cell division, cell enlargement, tropic from human urine and named them as auxin.
growth, pattern formation, flowering, fruiting and seed 67 (d) The movement of auxin is basipetal in stem, i.e.
formation, etc. from apex to base and acropetal in roots, i.e. from tip to
Growth inhibitors exhibit activities which take place in the shoot. Thus, movement of auxin is both basipetal
response to wounds and stress of biotic or abiotic origin. and acropetal.
Thus, option (c) is correct. 68 (b) High concentration of auxin is present in the
58 (a) Auxin hormone is involved in phototropism, i.e. the growing apices of the stem, from where auxin migrates
bending of plant towards the direction of light. to its regions.
59 (d) Auxin is produced by growing apical part of the 70 (c) Auxins stimulate root formation on the stem cuttings
plant, i.e. apices of stems and roots in the coleoptile e.g. IAA, IBA, NAA, etc. This application of auxin is
tissue. Then, it goes to the lateral parts (basipetal) and widely used for plant propagation on a commercial
causes, the apical (root and shoot) parts of the plant to basis.
elongate. Auxin was isolated by FW Went from the tips 71 (c) Auxin delays abscission of leaves and fruits at early
of coleoptiles of oat seedlings in 1928. stages. Whenever leaf or fruit fall occurs, the organ
60 (d) Dr. F Went’s experiment demonstrated the polar concerned stops producing auxin. However, it promotes
movement of auxins, i.e. it showed that the plants grow abscission of older, mature leaves and fruits.
towards light in response to a signal generated at the tip 72 (b) Apical dominance takes place due to the synthesis of
of coleoptile by the plant hormone, auxin. auxins by apical buds.
61 (b) In the labelled figure ‘C’ and ‘D’, coleoptile (plant In most of the higher plants, the growing apical bud
organ) will bend towards the light source due to auxin. contains auxin which inhibits the growth of the lateral
This is because (axillary) buds. This phenomenon is called apical
Figure (A) shows incomplete blockage of auxin. But the dominance.
movement of auxin from apical part to lateral part is not 75 (c) Since, auxin is present at a high concentration in
possible. Therefore, it does not favour the bending of shoot apical meristem, removal of shoot tips is a very
coleoptile towards the light source. useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves.
Figure (B) shows complete blockage of auxin This is because effect of auxins is removed and growth
movement from apical part to lateral part. So, no of lateral buds is enhanced.
bending of coleoptile will occur.
76 (b) Parthenocarpy is induced by auxin in tomato.
Figure (C) shows incomplete blockage, but the direction
Applications of auxins (e.g. IAA, IBA) and conjugate
favours the bending of coleoptile towards the source.
auxins (e.g. IBA, alanine) to unpollinated pistils induce
Figure (D) shows no blockage, hence, the bending of their development into seedless or parthenocarpic fruit.
coleoptile towards the light source will take place
easily. 77 (d) Auxins are widely used as herbicides. 2, 4-D is one
of the most common auxins used as a weedicide to kill
62 (a) Bakanae disease is caused by a fungus, Gibberella dicotyledonous weeds. It does not affect mature
fujikuroi. The effect of gibberellins had been known in monocotyledonous plants.
Japan for over a century where certain rice plants were
found to suffer from ‘Bakanae’ (foolish seedlings) 78 (d) Auxin elongates the cells present just below the
disease. The disease was found by Kurosawa (1926). apical part of shoot. It also promotes cell division and
cell differentiation.
Cytokinins increase protein and chloroplast synthesis.

79 (c) Removal of shoot tips results in the growth of Hence, aging/necrosis/senescence problem in tissue
axillary/lateral buds. Thus, to accelerate the growth of culture is overcome by spraying cytokinins.
the lateral buds and get carpet-like grass, lawns are 97 (c) Ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of
mowed regularly. plant organs especially leaves and flowers. Thus, large
80 (b) IAA is a plant growth promoter, while dormin, amount of ethylene is synthesised by the tissue which
abscisic acid and ethylene are plant growth inhibitors. undergo senescence and the ripening fruits.
IAA (Indole 3-Acetic Acid) is an auxin. Auxins are 98 (b) Respiratory climacteric is related with ethylene.
synthesised in shoot apices, leaf primordia and Climacteric is the sudden rise in respiration that
developing seeds from the amino acid, tryptophan. normally takes place without external influences.
81 (d) Rhizobium produces auxin, i.e. IAA. It is a It is the stage of fruit ripening associated with increased
nitrogen-fixing bacterium that lives in the roots by ethylene production and a rise in cellular respiration.
forming root nodules. This bacterium produces plant 99 (c) Ethylene promotes root growth and root hair
hormone IAA (auxin), which is known to stimulate formation. Thus, ethylene helps plants to increase their
nodule formation in leguminous plants.
absorption surface area by promoting root growth and
82 (c) More than 100 gibberellins have been reported from root hair formation.
widely different organisms such as fungi and higher
100 (d) Auxin and ethylene can be applied to artificially
plants. These are denoted as GA1 , GA 2 , GA 3 and so on.
induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
83 (c) Gibberellins do not induce dormancy. Instead, these year to increase yield.
are used for breaking seed and bud dormancy. Auxin induces flowering in plants and ethylene helps to
84 (d) Gibberellin delays senescence. Thus, the fruits can synchronise flower and fruit growth in plant. Hence,
be left on tree longer so as to extend the market period this combination can be applied.
by exposing them to GA. 101 (c) The most widely used compound as a source of
85 (d) Gibberellin causes seed germination as it induces ethylene is ethephon. It in an aqueous solution, which is
aleurone cells to secrete enzyme α-amylase to break readily absorbed and transported within the plant and
stored food in seed which gets mobilised by GA and where it releases ethylene slowly.
causes seed germination. 102 (d) Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and
86 (b) GA helps in elongation of genetically dwarf plants. apples and accelerates abscission of flowers and fruits.
It stimulates stem elongation and leaf expansion, but It also promotes growth of female flowers in cucumbers
does not effect root. Thus, gibberellins restore normal and increase the yield.
size and growth to genetically dwarf varieties, e.g. in 104 (b) Abscission, the shedding of body parts, commonly
pear and maize. refers to the process by which a plants intentionally
87 (b) Gibberellin promotes bolting, the process in which drop one or more of their parts, such as a leaf, fruit,
internodal elongation just prior to flowering, in flower or seed due to changes in their hormone levels.
sugarbeet, cabbage and many plants with rosette habit. 105 (a) ABA (Abscisic acid) causes growth inhibition
88 (c) Cytokinins are Plant Growth Regulator (PGR), activities in response to biotic and abiotic stress. It was
which are either amino purine or phenyl urea discovered for its role in regulating abscission and
derivatives, that promote cytokinesis either alone or in dormancy.
conjunction with auxin. It acts as the general plant growth inhibitor and an
89 (d) The first cytokinin discovered was kinetin inhibitor of plant metabolism when a plant is subjected
to any type of biotic or abiotic stress.
a modified form of adenine. Kinetin does not occur
naturally. Search for natural substances with cytokinin 106 (a) Abscisic Acid (ABA) is also known as ‘stress
like activity led to the isolation of zeatin from hormone’ or dormin because it is produced in much
corn-kernels and coconut milk. higher amounts, when plants are subjected to various
Thus, zeatin is natural and kinetin is synthetic. kinds of stresses.
90 (d) Naturally, cytokinins are synthesised in those It often gives plant organs a signal that they are
regions where rapid cell division occurs like root apices, undergoing physiological stresses such as lack of water,
developing shoot buds, young fruits, etc. saline soil, cold temperature and frost. ABA often
causes responses that help plants protect themselves
91 (b) Cytokinin encounters apical dominance induced by
against these stresses.
auxin by promoting cell division in lateral shoots. So, it
is antagonistic to the action of auxin. It is also used to 107 (b) ABA plays an important role in seed development,
increase the growth of lateral buds in short plants. maturation and dormancy. By inducing dormancy,
ABA helps the seeds withstand desiccation and other
92 (b) Aging/necrosis/senescence usually accompany loss
stresses. Thus, in most situations, ABA is antagonistic
of chlorophyll and rapid breakdown of protein.
to GA.
108 (d) ABA is commonly formed inside the chloroplast 126 (b) Flowering is controlled by PGRs, which on being
by xanthophyll. acted upon by temperature and light either promote or
110 (d) Option (d) is correct. inhibit flowering.
l
2, 4-D is an auxin, which is widely used as weedicide Flowering is a transitional phase in the life cycle of a
for dicotyledonous weeds. plant. It is controlled by two main factors
l
Ethylene promotes fruit ripening. l
Photoperiod or light period, i.e. photoperiodism.
111 (b) Option (b) is the incorrect match and can be
l
Exposure to low temperature, i.e. vernalisation.
corrected as 127 (c) Vernalisation involves the cold treatment of certain
l
In tissue culture (in callus), high concentration of plants to induce flowering. Vernalisation treatment of
auxin and low concentration of cytokinin favours root biennial plants for flowering can be replaced by
formation. gibberellin (GA 3 ).
l
High concentration of cytokinin and low concentration 128 (d) Common examples of plants which require
of auxin favour stem formation. vernalisation are winter rye, winter wheat, winter oat,
Rest of the matches are correct. winter barley, pea, sugarbeet, cabbage, henbane, viola,
114 (a) Plants exposed to light for a period less than critical clover, Chrysanthemum, etc.
duration before initiation of flowering are called short 129 (a) Low temperature is required for vernalisation
day plants, e.g. soyabean, tobacco, etc. usually 0-5°C. To reverse the effect of vernalisation,
118 (b) Short Day Plants (SDPs) are also called long high temperature (40°C) is applied. This phenomenon is
night plants because these plants require a long called devernalisation.
continuous and uninterrupted critical dark period for 130 (c) Vernalisation stimulates flowering in carrots. In
flowering. biennial plants (monocarpic plants) like carrots,
119 (c) For induction of flowering in plants, photoperiod sugarbeet, cabbage, etc. Vernalisation (cold treatment)
stimulus is percieved by the leaves of plants. As a stimulates a subsequent photoperiodic flowering
result, floral hormones are produced in the leaves response.
which are then translocated to the apical part and 131 (d) The stimulus for vernalisation is perceived only by
subsequently cause the initiation of floral primordial the meristematic cells, which are mainly present in the
growth. shoot tips, embryo tips, root apex, etc.
121 (a) A long day plant having a critical photoperiod of 134 (c) Option (c) is not helpful in breaking seed dormancy.
13 hours will flower under conditions in which the This is because auxin does not inhibit seed dormancy.
duration of light is more than the critical period of Rather seed dormancy can be inhibited by subjecting the
time. seeds gibberellic acid.
Thus, option (a) is correct as in this, the duration of 135 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
light period is more than duration of dark period. correct explanation of Assertion.
122 (a) Phytochrome is a pigment, which is universally Growth in plants is of indeterminate type, i.e. plant
present in green flowering plants and is responsible for grows throughout their life because of the presence of
inducing photomorphogenic photoperiodic changes meristematic tissues at specific parts of the plant apical,
and developmental processes. It exists in two forms Pr intercalary and lateral regions. These tissues have the
and Pfr. ability to divide continuously and contribute to localised
123 (c) When a few normal seedlings of tomato become plant growth.
white (like albinos) after a few on being kept in dark, it 136 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
means that the process etiolation has taken place. correct explanation of Assertion.
Etiolation is the process, in which flowering plants are Growth is invariably associated with differentiation.
grown in partial or complete absence of light. It is an irreversible increase in size, volume and weight
Etiolation is mainly characterised by long and weak of a part or whole of an organism. Differentiation is
stem and smaller, sparse pale yellow coloured leaves permanent localised qualitative change in size,
due to longer internodes. biochemistry, structural and functional of cells, tissues or
124 (b) Vernalisation is low temperature treatment. organs. Thus, both growth and differentiation lead to
It is the process of shortening of vegetative phase and permanent changes in an organism’s body and are
initiation of reproductive phase by application of low invariably associated.
temperature to moistened seeds and young plants. 137 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
It is used for a number of temperate plants like winter be corrected as
wheat, winter rye, cabbage, henbane, Chrysanthemum Removal of shoot tip increases the lateral dominance.
and even certain perennials like apples. Further, accumulation of auxin in lateral parts elongate
cells and increases growth.
138 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is 149 (a) Statements I, II and III are true, but statements IV
not the correct explanation of Assertion. and V are false and can be corrected as
Gibberellin is a plant hormone which is useful in early l
Optimum temperature for plant growth is needed.
seed production in conifers because gibberellin l
Environmental signals like light and gravity affect
increases α-amylase production in seed which helps in certain phases of growth.
breakdown of seed dormancy and causes seed 153 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
germination. corrected as
Ethephon is commercial name of ethylene hormone Spraying juvenile conifers with GA 3 brings about early
which is used to promote early ripening of fruits like maturity period and thus leads to early seed production.
tomato and apple. Rest of the statements are correct.
155 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
corrected as
Ethylene freely diffuses across membrane because it is a l
Zeatin is a cytokinin and was the first natural cytokinin
gaseous plant hormone and is thought to be synthesised discovered from the corn-kernels and coconut milk.
at or near its site of action which is different from the Rest of the statements are correct.
other plant hormones. It functions to bring about
158 (b) Statements I and III are correct. Statements II and
climacteric ripening of fruits.
IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
140 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is l
Amylase production at the time of seed germination is
the correct explanation of Assertion. an important function of GA.
Hormones are also called growth regulators. These are l
Potato tubers can be made to sprout early by exposing
produced in one part of a plant and then migrate to them to ethylene.
another part where they promote or inhibit plant growth
159 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Rest of the
by stimulating tissues of the location.
141 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be l
ABA is not present in lower plants except in mosses.
corrected as l
Low ratio of cytokinin to auxin favours root formation
In plants, growth regulators or plant hormones known in plants not shoot formation.
as phytohormones can promote or inhibit various l
ABA is formed by mevalonic acid pathway, not by
activities in plant growth and are thus are categorised as glycolysis.
plant growth promoters, e.g. auxin, etc., and plant 160 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
growth inhibitors, e.g. ethylene. corrected as
142 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be Temperature and light are extrinsic factors which
corrected as control plant growth and development via PGR like
Phytochrome is a flavoprotein that controls vernalisation, flowering, dormancy, seed germination
photomodulation in plants. Flower induction occurs due and plant movements.
to florigen (a flowering hormone) not due to Rest of the statements are correct.
phytochrome.
161 (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
143 (a) Both Assertion and Rearon are correct and Reason corrected as
Cytokinin delays senescence of leaves and enhances the
Farmers do not prefer to grow tobacco plants under long synthesis of chlorophyll.
day conditions because tobacco is a short day plant.
144 (a) Statements I and II are incorrect and can be
corrected as 175 (c) Growth at the cellular level principally results from
l
Elongation of plant along the axis is called the primary increase in the amount of protoplasm. Since increase
growth. in protoplasm is difficult to measure directly,
l
Primary growth happens due to the presence of root therefore, growth is measured by a variety of
apical meristem and shoot apical meristem. parameters like increase in fresh weight, dry weight,
Rest of the statements, i.e. statements III, IV and V are length, area and volume, etc., and any one parameter is
correct. not good enough to demonstrate growth.
147 (a) Statements I and II are correct and statement III is 176 (d) ABA or Abscisic Acid stimulates the closure of
incorrect for the phase of maturation and can be stomata and increases the tolerance of plants to various
corrected as kinds of stresses. Therefore, it is also known as stress
l
There is no cell division during maturation phase. hormone.
177 (b) Monocarpic plants flower once in their lifetime, set 183 (b) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone which is highly
seeds and die. A few examples of such plants are effective for fruit ripening. It causes climacteric
bamboo, wheat, radish, etc. ripening by increasing the rate of respiration during
178 (c) Gibberellin is sprayed on sugarcane to induce ripening.
growth in the internodal area of the plant. 184 (b) Synergistic affect refers to the phenomenon that
This increases its sugar production, as larger the takes place when two hormones work together and
internodal area larger will the sugar content, because the increase the affect or functioning of each other, so as to
internodal area contains sap and sucrose is the main generate an enhanced affect of both the hormones on
constituent in the sap of sugarcane stem. the same function.
179 (c) Coconut water is the liquid endosperm in an 185 (c) ABA is a stress hormone and induces seed dormancy
unripened coconut and is rich in the plant hormone in plants. On the other hand, gibberellic acid breaks
cytokinin. seed dormancy and induces seed germination.
The other hormones like ABA, auxin and gibberellin So both act opposite to each other, i.e. are antagonistic
are absent in coconut water. to each other. Thus, ABA is antagonistic to gibberellic
acid.
180 (d) Cytokinin is antagonistic to the action of auxin and
can thus overcome the phenomenon of apical 187 (b) Plasticity in plant growth means that plant
dominance. development is dependent to the environment. This is
IAA helps in apical dominance, ethylene in ripening of because the plants have the ability to change their
fruits and gibberellin in overcoming bud and seed phenotype according to the changes in the
dormancy. environment.
181 (b) Apples have lenticels on their skin to allow gaseous 188 (d) The site of perception of light/dark duration, i.e.
exchange for respiration. These are wrapped in wax photoperiodism are the leaves. Photoperiodism is the
paper after harvesting, so as to prevent respiration and effect of light and its duration on the growth and
overripening of the apples. development especially flowering in plants.
CHAPTER > 16
Digestion and
Absorption
NEET KEY NOTES
Å The basic requirement of all living beings is food. The major Å Tongue is a muscular movable organ attached to the floor of
components of food are carbohydrates, fats and proteins. the buccal cavity through an attachment called frenulum.
Vitamins, minerals and water are also required but in small Small projections called papillae are present all over the
quantities. surface of the tongue. Some of the papillae bears taste buds.
Å Digestion is the process by which the complex food
2. Pharynx
substances are broken down and converted into simpler
forms through hydrolysis then absorbed by mechanical and Å The buccal or oral cavity is followed by the pharynx, which
biochemical methods in the digestive system. serves as the common passage of air and food.
Å During swallowing, the entry of food into the opening of
Digestive System windpipe, i.e. glottis is prevented by epiglottis.
Human digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and 3. Oesophagus

the digestive glands. Å The oesophagus is a thin and long tube which opens into a
J-shaped structure, i.e. the stomach and this opening is
I. Alimentary Canal regulated by gastro-oesophageal sphincter.
The anterior opening of alimentary canal is mouth and the
posterior opening is the anus. Alimentary canal consists of 4. Stomach
different structures which are described below Å It is located in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavity.
The four major parts of stomach are cardiac, fundic, body
1. Oral Cavity and pyloric.
Å It is the cavity which opens through mouth and contains Å The cardiac portion receives the opening of oesophagus
teeth and a muscular tongue. whereas the pyloric portion opens into the duodenum (first
Å Teeth are for grasping and mastication of food. In humans part of small intestine). This opening is guarded by the
these are described as follows pyloric sphincter.
n
Thecodont as each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw 5. Small Intestine
bone. Å It has three regions, i.e. ‘C’-shaped duodenum, middle
n
Diphyodont as two sets of teeth appear during life, milk jejunum and the highly coiled ileum, which opens into the
or deciduous teeth and permanent or adult teeth. large intestine.
n
Heterodont as different types of teeth are present in the
dentition. These are differentiated into incisors, canines,
6. Large Intestine
premolars and molars. These enable mastication of food. Å It has a shorter length than the small intestine, but it is called
2123 large because it has a wider in diameter than the small
Dental formula of teeth in human is .
2123 intestine. It consists of the following parts
n
Caecum It is the small blind sac which hosts symbiotic Å The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into
microorganisms. A vestigial organ, i.e. vermiform the duodenum as the common hepatopancreatic duct
appendix arises from it. which is guarded by a sphincter called sphincter of Oddi.
Colon It is divided into ascending, transverse, descending
3. Gastric Glands
n
and sigmoid parts.

Å These are microscopic, tubular glands formed by the
n
Rectum It is the end portion of colon which opens into
epithelium of the stomach. These contain chief cells,
anus.
oxyntic cells, mucous cells and endocrine cells (G cells
Å The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum and Argentaffin cells).
possesses four layers which are as follows
n
Serosa It is made up of thin mesothelium and some
4. Pancreas
connective tissues. Å It is a compound organ containing both exocrine and
endocrine parts situated between the C-shaped
n
Muscularis It is formed by smooth muscles arranged as
duodenum. The exocrine part secretes an alkaline
inner circular and outer longitudinal layer. Oblique
pancreatic juice containing enzymes and the endocrine
muscles may be found at some regions.
part secretes hormones, i.e. insulin and glucagon.
n
Submucosa It is formed of loose connective tissues
containing nerves, blood and lymph vessels and in some
areas, glands.
Digestion of Food
It occurs by mechanical and chemical processes in various
n
Mucosa It is the innermost lining which forms irregular
organs which are as follows
folds, rugae, in stomach and small finger-like foldings,
villi in small intestine. The cells lining the villi produce 1. Buccal cavity Food is masticated and mixed with
microvilli which increase the surface area of small mucus in saliva to form bolus. It is passed down to the
intestine. Villi of small intestine are supplied by pharynx and oesophagus by deglutition.
capillaries and a large lymph vessel, lacteal. Chemical processing of food in buccal cavity
Mucosa possesses Å Salivary amylase presents in saliva hydrolyses
n
mucus secreting goblet cells, carbohydrates (e.g. starch) into disaccharides (e.g.
n
crypts of Lieberkuhn in intestine. maltose) at pH 6.8.
Å Lysozyme in saliva is an antibacterial agent which
II. Digestive Glands prevents infections.

The digestive glands associated with the alimentary canal are 2. The food passses down through the oesophagus, by
as follows peristalsis, into the stomach.
1. Salivary Glands 3. Stomach Food is mixed with acidic gastric juice by
churning movements of muscular walls so as to form
In humans, these are present in three pairs, i.e. the parotids
chyme.
(cheek), the sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (lower jaw) and
Chemical Processing of Food in Stomach
the sublingual (below the tongue) which secrete and pour
salivary juice into the buccal cavity. It can be summarised as
HCl
2. Liver Pepsinogen → Pepsin
(Proenzyme) (Active)
Å It is the largest gland of the body weighing about 1.2-1.5 kg enzyme
in an adult human. It is located in the upper right section of ↓

the abdominal cavity. Proteins → Proteoses + Peptones
Å It is divided into two lobes, i.e. right and left lobes separated Roles of other chemicals in stomach are tabulated
by falciform ligament. Each lobe is further divided into below
hepatic lobules.
Mucus and Lubricate and protect mucosal epithelium
Å The hepatic lobules are the structural and functional units of Bicarbonates from excoriation by HCl.
liver containing hepatic cells arranged in the form of cords.
HCl Provides acidic pH (1.8) which is optimal for
Each lobule is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath pepsin.
called the Glisson’s capsule.
Renin Helps in digestion of milk proteins in infants.
Å The bile secreted by the hepatic cells passes through the
hepatic ducts and is stored in the gall bladder. Lipase Converts triglycerides to diglycerides.
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 16 > Digestion and Absorption 373
4. Small intestine exhibits various movements which help in Å The simple substances are absorbed in the jejunum
mixing up of food with intestinal secretions like pancreatic and ileum.
juice, bile and intestinal juice. Å The undigested substances are passed on to the
Å Pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes like large intestine.
trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, lipases, nucleases, 5. In large intestine, absorption of water, minerals and
amylase and procarboxypeptidases. certain drugs occurs.
n
All pancreatic enzymes are activated by trypsin, Å Mucus is secreted to adhere the waste particles
which itself is the activated form of trypsinogen together and lubricate it for easy passage.
Enterokinase
Trypsinogen → Trypsin → Activate other Å Faecal matter enters into the caecum through
(Inactive) (Active) Pancreatic enzymes ileo-caecal valve and is then defecated through
Å Bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), anus.
bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but does not
contain any enzyme. It helps in the emulsification of fats
Regulation of Digestion Process
and activation of lipases. Å The activities of the gastro-intestinal tract are under
neural and hormonal control.
Å Intestinal juice or succus entericus is formed by the
secretions of brush border cells of mucosa and goblet Å Salivary, gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated
cells. by neural signals.
n
It contains enzymes like lipases, dipeptidases, Å The muscular activities of different parts of alimentary
disaccharidases, nucleosidases, etc. canal are also moderated by neural mechanisms, both
n
Mucus, bicarbonates and submucosal, (Brunner’s) local and through CNS.
gland protect intestinal mucosa and provide alkaline Å Local hormones produced by gastric and intestinal
pH 7.8 for enzymatic activities. mucosa further control the secretion of digestive
Major Enzymes Involved in Digestion of juices.
Carbohydrate, Protein, Fat and Nucleic Acids
Site of action Substrate Main breakdown Calorific Fuel Value
(Enzyme) (Food) product Å It is the amount of energy liberated during complete
Carbohydrate Digestion combustion of 1 g of food.

Mouth –Salivary glands
Polysaccharides
Disaccharides Å It is measured in bomb calorimeter (a closed metal
(Salivary amylase) chamber filled with O 2).

Small intestine – Pancreas
Polysaccharides
Disaccharides Å For carbohydrates, gross energy or per gram calorific value
(Pancreatic amylase) is 4.1 kcal/g.

Small intestine
Disaccharides
Monosaccharides Å For fats, the gross calorific value is 9.45 kcal/g.
(Disaccharidases, e.g. maltase) (e.g. glucose) Å For proteins, gross calorific value is 5.65 kcal/g.
Protein Digestion Å According to these calorific values of different nutrients,
fats have the highest calorific fuel value.

Stomach – Stomach mucosa
Proteins
Peptide fragments
(Pepsin)

(Trypsin and chymotrypsin)

Proteins and
polypeptides

Peptide fragments Absorption of Digested Food

Peptide
Amino acids Å Absorption is the process by which end products of
(Carboxypeptidase) fragments digestion pass through the intestinal mucosa into the

Small intestine – Intestinal
Peptide
Amino acids blood or lymph.
mucosa (Amino peptidase) fragments Å The various mechanisms by which absorption occur
Fat Digestion have been tabulated below

Triglycerides
Free fatty acids and Process Absorbed substances
(Lipase) monoglycerides
Simple diffusion Monosaccharides (glucose) amino
Nucleic Acid Digestion acids, electrolytes (chloride ions)

DNA and RNA
Nucleotides Facilitated transport through Glucose, amino acids
(Pancreatic nucleases) carrier proteins

Small intestine – Intestinal
Nucleotides
Nucleotide bases and Osmosis Water
mucosa (Intestinal nucleases) monosaccharides
Active transport Glucose, sodium ions, amino acids
NEET KEY NOTES

Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed after being

Disorders of Digestive System
Å
incorporated into micelles which are reformed into small

protein coated chylomicrons and are transported into These are divided into following two types, i.e. deficiency diseases
the lacteals of the villi. and digestive disorders.
Summary of Absorption in Different Description of Nutritional and Digestive Disorders
Parts of Digestive System
Disorders Description
Digestive Parts Absorption Protein
Kwashiorkor (usually observed in children of the age group
Mouth Certain drugs coming in contact with the Energy of 1-5 years). Symptoms include thin limbs, retarded growth
mucosa of mouth and lower side of the tongue Malnutrition of body and brain, swelling of legs due to the retention of
are absorbed into the blood capillaries lining (PEM) water (oedema), reddish hair, pot belly and diarrhoea.
them.
Marasmus (it usually affects infants below age of one year).
Symptoms include impaired growth and replacement of tissue
Stomach Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol,
proteins, thin limbs and prominent ribs (very less fat in the
etc., takes place.
body), wrinkled (dry) and thin skin, diarrhoea.
Small Intestine Principal organ for absorption of nutrient. The
digestion is completed here and the final Jaundice
It is also known as icterus, i.e the yellowness of the skin,
products of digestion such as glucose, fructose, mucosa membranes and eyes. This happens due to abnormal
fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids are functioning of the liver which causes accumulation of excess
absorbed through the mucosa into the blood quantity of bilirubin in the blood.
stream and lymph.
Vomiting
Ejection of stomach content through mouth, controlled by
Large Intestine Absorption of water, some minerals and drugs vomit centre in medulla.
takes place.
Diarrhoea
Abnormal frequency of bowel movement with increased
Å The absorbed substances finally reach the tissues liquidity of faecal discharge that reduces absorption of food.
where the nutrients are to be utilised and this process Constipation
Retention of faeces in rectum with irregular bowel movement.
is called assimilation.
Indigestion
Improper digestion of food leading to the feeling of fullness
Å The digestive waste gets solidified in the rectum and is caused due to inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food
egested outside through the anal opening by mass poisoning, overeating, etc.
peristaltic movement.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Digestive System

(Alimentary Canal and Digestive Glands)
1 All the listed components of food are required in 4 Refer to the figure given below.
major quantity except
(a) vitamins (b) carbohydrates
A
(c) proteins (d) fats
2 The process of digestion in our digestive system
involves
(a) conversion of complex substances into simpler form
(b) absorption of monomers by the body B
(c) conversion of monomers into polymers C
(d) absorption of water and food
D
3 Digestion in the digestive system of humans is
accomplished by
(a) mechanical and chemical processes
(b) chemical processes only
(c) mechanical processes only
(d) None of the above E
Select the option which correctly identifies A, B, C, D 12 Frenulum is

and E. (a) the fold by which tongue is attached to the floor of oral
(a) A–Parotid gland, B–Pancreas, C–Gall bladder, cavity
D–Stomach, E–Anus (b) an adenoid present on pharyngeal wall
(b) A–Parotid gland, B–Liver, C–Pancreas, D–Stomach, (c) a tonsil-like structure on the lateral walls of palate
E–Anus (d) a V-shaped furrow which divides the surface of tongue
(c) A–Parotid gland, B–Liver, c–Gall bladder, D–Pancreas,
E–Rectum 13 Small projections found on the upper surface of
(d) A–Parotid gland, B–Gall bladder, C–Pancreas, tongue are called
D–Stomach, E– Rectum (a) frenulum (b) taste buds
(c) sulcus terminals (d) papillae
5 Which one of the following terms describes human
dentition? NEET 2018 14 Which one serves as a passage for both food and air?
(a) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont (a) Larynx (b) Pharynx
(b) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (c) Gullet (d) Glottis
(c) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont 15 During intake of food, the entry of food into the
(d) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont glottis (opening of windpipe) is prevented by
6 The given schematic diagram depicts heterodont teeth (a) Glottis itself
and its thecodont arrangement. Find the correct (b) air present in windpipe
labelling for A- D from the options given below. (c) annular rings of pharynx
D (d) epiglottis
C 16 Length of oesophagus is JIPMER 2019
(a) 25 cm (b) 55 cm
B
(c) 33 cm (d) 45 cm
A 17 Opening of oesophagus into ‘J’-shaped, bag-like
structure is regulated by
(a) pyloric sphincter
(b) sphincter of Oddi
(c) ileocaecal sphincter
(a) A–Incisor, B–Canine, C–Premolar, D–Molar (d) gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(b) A–Molar, B–Premolar, C–Canine, D–Incisor 18 What is the another name of gastro-oesophageal
(c) A–Incisor, B–Premolar, C–Canine, D–Molar sphincter?
(d) A–Molar, B–Premolar, C–Incisor, D–Canine (a) Pyloric sphincter (b) Gastro-duodenal sphincter
7 A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school (c) Cardiac sphincter (d) Sphincter of Oddi
and passes through a dental checkup. The dentist 19 Except the body of stomach, its three major parts,
observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth starting from oesophageal end to intestinal end are
were absent? NEET 2017 (a) cardiac, fundic, pyloric (b) fundic, cardiac, pyloric
(a) Incisors (b) Canines (c) pyloric, cardiac, fundic (d) pyloric, fundic, cardiac
(c) Premolars (d) Molars
20 Name that part of small intestine in which the pyloric
8 The primary dentition in human differs from region of stomach opens?
permanent dentition not having one of the following (a) Duodenum (b) Ileum
type of teeth. CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (c) Jejunum (d) Glomerulus
(a) Canine (b) Premolar
21 Peyer’s patches are present in JIPMER 2018
(c) Molar (d) lncisor
(a) iIeum (b) jejunum
9 What is the dental formula of human being? (c) duodenum (d) sacculus rotundus
2123 2213 2114 2122
(a) (b) (c) (d) 22 Which part of small intestine opens into large
2123 2213 2114 2122
intestine?
10 How many deciduous teeth are present in humans? (a) Glomerulus (b) Jejunum
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 18 (c) Ileum (d) Duodenum
11 The hard chewing surface of teeth is made up of 23 Which one is not a part of large intestine?
(a) dentine (b) enamel (a) Rectum (b) Caecum
(c) teeth (d) bone (c) Ileum (d) Colon
24 A blind sac in large intestine from which a vestigial 28 Out of the four layers of the alimentary canal, which
organ arises is one forms villi, (finger-like projections)?
(a) vermiform appendix (b) ileum (a) Serosa (b) Mucosa
(c) caecum (d) colon (c) Submucosa (d) Muscularis
25 Diagram of large intestine is given below. Identify the 29 The innermost layer of human gut forms irregular
parts A, B, C, D, E and F. AIIMS 2018 folds in the stomach, which are known as
(a) lumen (b) villi
D
(c) rugae (d) Both (b) and (c)
30 Label the given diagram of transverse section of
E
C mucosa of small intestine showing small finger-like
projections. Choose the correct option accordingly.
A
B D
F
E
(a) A–Sigmoid colon, B–Vermiform appendix, F

C–Ascending colon, D–Transverse colon,
C
E–Descending colon, F–Caecum
B
(b) A–Caecum, B–Vermiform appendix, C–Sigmoid colon,
A
D–Ascending colon, E–Transverse colon,
F–Descending colon (a) A–Vein, B–Crypt, C–Artery, D–Villi, E–Lacteal,
(c) A–Caecum, B–Vermiform appendix, C–Ascending F–Capillaries
colon, D–Transverse colon, E–Descending colon, (b) A–Artery, B–Crypt, C–Vein, D–Villi, E–Capillaries,
F–Sigmoid colon F–Lacteal
(d) A–Sigmoid colon, B–Vermiform appendix, (c) A–Vein, B–Artery, C–Crypt, D–Villi, E–Capillaries,
C–Descending colon, D–Transverse colon, F–Lacteal
E–Ascending colon, F–Caecum (d) A–Villi, B–Lacteal, C–Capillaries, D–Artery, E–Crypt,
26 Given below is the diagram of the transverse section F–Vein
of alimentary canal. Label it correctly and choose the 31 Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining
correct option accordingly. of gastrointestinal tract from various enzymes.
(a) Goblet cells (b) Oxyntic cells NEET 2019
A (c) Duodenal cells (d) Chief cells
32 Which cell is found in mucus secreting organs?
B
(a) Goblet cells (b) Paneth cells AIIMS 2019
C
(c) Oxyntic cells (d) Peptic cells
D
33 Crypts of Lieberkuhn are found
(a) in large intestine
(b) in the rugae of stomach
(a) A–Muscularis, B–Serosa, C–Submucosa, D–Mucosa (c) at the tip of villi in small intestine
(b) A–Muscularis, B–Serosa, C–Mucosa, D–Submucosa (d) at the base of villi in small intestine
(c) A–Serosa, B–Muscularis, C–Mucosa, D–Submucosa 34 Which cells of ‘Crypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete
(d) A–Serosa, B–Muscularis, C–Submucosa, D–Mucosa antibacterial lysozyme? NEET 2017
27 Choose the incorrect pair with respect to the (a) Argentaffin cells (b) Paneth cells
composition of alimentary canal’s layers. (c) Zymogen cells (d) Kupffer cells
(a) Serosa — Thin mesothelium 35 Salivary glands are located in
(b) Muscularis — Smooth muscles (a) cheeks and upper jaw
(circular and longitudinal) (b) lower jaw, cheeks and below the tongue
(c) Submucosa — Perforated myothelium (c) below the tongue and behind the wisdom tooth
(d) Mucosa — Rugae/villi/microvilli (d) below the tongue and upper jaw
36 Which one is not associated with the secretion of 41 The diagram given below represents the duct system
saliva in human being? of the pancreas, liver and gall bladder. Label the
(a) Parotid glands diagram from A to E.
(b) Sublingual glands A
(c) Zymogenic cells
(d) Submaxillary glands
37 Salivary glands pour their secretion into B
C
(a) stomach
(b) blood D
(c) buccal cavity
(d) intestine E
38 Which is the largest gland of human body? (a) A–Gall bladder, B–Common bile duct,
C–Hepatopancreatic duct, D–Pancreas, E–Pancreatic
(a) Gastric gland
duct
(b) Pancreas
(b) A–Gall bladder, B–Bile duct, C–Hepatopancreatic duct,
(c) Liver D–Pancreatic duct, E–Pancreas
(d) Salivary gland (c) A–Gall bladder, B–Bile duct, C–Pancreatic duct,
39 Bile juice is stored in which organ of human body? D–Pancreas, E–Hepatopancreatic duct
(a) Gall bladder (d) A–Gall bladder, B–Common bile duct, C–Pancreas,
(b) Liver D–Pancreatic duct, E–Hepatopancreatic duct
(c) Kidney 42 Which of the following guards the opening of
(d) Pancreas hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum? NEET 2016
40 Common bile duct is formed by the fusion of (a) Ileocaecal valve (b) Pyloric sphincter
(a) pancreatic duct and cystic duct (c) Sphincter of Oddi (d) Semilunar valve
(b) pancreatic duct and hepatic duct 43 The exocrine portion of pancreas secretes
(c) pancreatic duct, hepatic duct and cystic duct (a) pancreatic juice (b) insulin
(d) hepatic duct and cystic duct (c) glucagon (d) somatostatin
TOPIC 2 ~ Digestion of Food

44 Masticated food particles mixed with saliva form 49 What is the pH of human saliva?
(a) succus entericus (b) bolus (a) 7.0 (b) 7.5
(c) chyme (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) 6.8 (d) 6.0
45 Name the process by which swallowed food is 50 By the action of salivary amylase, the starch gets
conveyed to pharynx and oesophagus. converted to
(a) Deglutition (b) Peristalsis (a) glucose (b) fructose
(c) Ingestion (d) Succus entericus (c) cellulose (d) maltose
46 Choose the most appropriate option to describe the 51 Lysozyme, one of the constituents of the saliva of
composition of human saliva. human beings acts like
(a) Amylase, hydrolase (a) antibacterial agent (b) zymogen
(b) Electrolytes, amylase, lysozymes and mucus (c) amylase (d) lipase
(c) Amylase/Ptyalin, mucus
52 In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the
(d) Ptyalin only
NEET 2016
47 The biomolecule which is hydrolysed by the enzyme (a) parietal cells
salivary amylase is (b) peptic cells
(a) protein (b) lipid (c) acidic cells
(c) carbohydrate (d) nucleic acid (d) gastrin secreting cells
48 Which food component gets 30% hydrolysed in 53 The gastric glands which secrete proenzyme
mouth ? pepsinogen are
(a) Starch (b) Protein (a) mucus neck cells (b) chief cells
(c) Fats (d) Nucleic acids (c) parietal cells (d) oxyntic cells
54 Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in 64 What is the composition of bile?
erythropoiesis? NEET 2018 (a) Bile pigments and bile salts
(a) Goblet cells (b) Mucous cells (b) Bile pigments and cholesterol
(c) Chief cells (d) Parietal cells (c) Cholesterol and phospholipids
55 What name would you suggest for a thoroughly (d) All of the above
mixed food with the gastric juices by the churning 65 Bile is composed of bile salts and bile pigments
movements of the muscular stomach wall? which are
(a) Bolus (b) Chyme (a) sodium glycocholate, taurocholate and bilirubin,
(c) Either bolus or chyme (d) None of these biliverdin, respectively
(b) bilirubin, biliverdin and sodium glycocholate,
56 Pepsinogen (inactive form) is converted into active
taurocholate, respectively
form of enzyme pepsin with the help of which of the
(c) sodium glycocholate, taurocholate and bilirubin,
following compounds? respectively
(a) Proenzyme (b) Hydrochloric acid (d) sodium glycocholate, taurocholate and biliverdin,
(c) Electrolyte (d) Bicarbonates respectively
57 HCl is highly acidic (1.5-2.0 pH) in the stomach. 66 Succus entericus is composed of secretions of
However, the epithelium of the mucosa remains (a) goblet cells and brush border cells
unaffected/undissolved. Why? (b) parietal cells and peptic cells
(a) Mucus continues to lubricate the inner lining (c) goblet cells and chief cells
(b) Bicarbonates present in the gastric juices protect the (d) oxyntic cells, peptic cells and goblet cells
linings
(c) Both (a) and (b) 67 The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is
CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(a) maltase (b) nucleases
58 Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of milk (c) nucleosidase (d) lipase
in infants?
(a) Pepsin
68 The enzymes present in succus entericus are
(b) Trypsin (a) functional in acidic medium (pH 2.3) provided by HCl
secreted by oxyntic cells
(c) Rennin
(b) functional regardless of pH of the medium
(d) Various proteolytic enzymes
(c) functional in alkaline medium (pH 7.8) provided by
59 Gastric juice of infants contains CBSE-AIPMT 2015 mucus and bicarbonates from pancreas
(a) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin (d) functional at neutral pH 7.0 only
(b) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
69 Which hormones do stimulate the production of
(c) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
pancreatic juice and bicarbonate? NEET 2016
(d) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
(a) Angiotensin and epinephrine
60 The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is (b) Gastrin and insulin
carried out by CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(c) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(a) lipase (b) trypsin (c) rennin (d) pepsin (d) Insulin and glucagon
61 The secretions released into the small intestine are 70 The following is a scheme showing the fate of
(a) bile and pancreatic juice carbohydrates during digestion in the human
(b) succus entericus only alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at
(c) pancreatic juice, bile and intestinal juice stages indicated as A, B, C and D. Choose the correct
(d) pancreatic juice and intestinal juice option.
62 The enzyme enterokinase secreted by intestinal Starch
mucosa helps in the conversion of
(a) caseinogen into casein A
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin
(c) pepsinogen into pepsin
Lactose Maltose Sucrose
(d) proteins into polypeptides
63 All the inactive enzymes of the pancreatic juice are
B C D
activated by
(a) trypsin (b) cholecystokinin
Galactose Glucose Fructose
(c) bilirubin (d) pepsin
(a) A–Amylase, B–Maltase, C–Lactase, D–Sucrase 76 Hydrolysis of milk sugar gives rise to
(b) A–Amylase, B–Maltase, C–Invertase, D–Lactase (a) two molecules of lactose
(c) A–Amylase, B–Invertase, C–Maltase, D–Lactase (b) two molecules of glucose
(d) A–Amylase, B–Lactase, C–Maltase, D–Sucrase (c) one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose
71 Hydrolysis of maltose gives rise to (d) one molecule of glucose and one molecule of
(a) two molecules of glucose galactose
(b) two molecules of galactose 77 The breakdown of biomacromolecules and their
(c) one molecule of glucose and one molecule of galactose subsequent absorption, respectively occur in
(d) one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose (a) small intestine and large intestine
72 Enzyme sucrase hydrolyses sucrose into (b) duodenum; jejunum and ileum
(a) glucose and galactose (b) glucose and fructose (c) duodenum and jejunum; ileum
(c) two molecules of glucose (d) two molecules of fructose (d) stomach and small intestine
73 The enzyme and intermediate molecule formed by the 78 Which one of the following options contains the
breakdown of fats into monoglycerides are correct pair of the substances absorbed and secreted
(a) Lysozyme; Polyglycerides by large intestine?
(b) Lysozyme; Diglycerides Absorbed substances Secretion
(c) Lipase; Diglycerides (a) Water, minerals and drugs Mucus
(d) Lipase; Polyglycerides
(b) Water Drugs and minerals
74 Which one of the following enzymatic reaction is (c) Mucus and minerals Water
incorrect?
(d) Water and mucus Drugs
Nucleotidase
(a) Nucleic acids → Nitrogeous base
+ Pentose sugar 79 Which action of digestive enzyme is/are correct
Pancreatic regarding its site of action, substrate and the end
(b) Fat → Diglycerides + Fatty acids
(Emulsified) Lipase product?
α - amylase Enzyme Site of action Substrate End product
(c) Starch → Maltose + Isomaltose + α-dextrins
Pancreatic I. Rennin Adult Starch Maltose
Pepsin stomach
(d) Proteins → Peptones + Proteose II. Pepsin Human’s Proteins Two or more
stomach molecules of
75 Which one of the following equation matches
amino acids
correctly with the action of enzymes on the given
III. Nuclease Small Nucleosides Nucleosides
substrate and regarding the end product of the intestine and iPO 4
reaction? IV. Enterokinase Small Trypsinogen Trypsin
Lipase intestine
(a) Stomach — Fats → Micelles
Pepsin
(b) Small intestine — Proteins → Amino acids (a) All actions are correct
Amylase (b) Actions I, II and III are correct
(c) Small intestine — Starch → Disaccharides (c) Actions I, II and IV are correct
Trypsin
(d) Duodenum — Triglycerides → Monoglycerides (d) Only action IV is correct
TOPIC 3 ~ Absorption of Digested Products

80 The energy content of food is expressed in terms of 82 Simple diffusion helps in the absorption of
(a) ATP (b) respiration (a) chloride ions (b) small amount of glucose
(c) heat (d) productivity (c) amino acids (d) All of these
81 The gross calorific values of carbohydrate, protein 83 In facilitated transport,
and fats in kcal/g are (a) substances are transported against concentration
(a) 2, 6, 8, respectively gradients
(b) 7.2, 6.4, 11.1, respectively (b) carrier proteins are required
(c) 3.2, 1.4, 5.5, respectively (c) ATP is required
(d) 4.1, 5.65, 9.45, respectively (d) All of the above
84 Choose the incorrectly matched pair. 90 Alcohol absorption mainly occurs in

(a) Water – Osmosis (a) mouth (b) stomach
(b) Electrocytes – Simple diffusion (c) small intestine (d) large intestine
(c) Carrier protein – Facilitated transport 91 In the alimentary canal, drugs are absorbed by
(d) Release energy – Active transport (a) stomach (b) small intestine
85 Which form of fats is absorbed into the intestinal (c) mouth and large intestine (d) All of these
cells? 92 The process by which absorbed food are utilised by
(a) Micelles (b) Chylomicrons the tissues in the living being for energy, growth and
(c) Fatty acids (d) Both (a) and (b) maintenance is termed as
86 Small protein coated fat globules are (a) absorption (b) assimilation
(a) micelles (b) chylomicrons (c) catabolism (d) digestion and absorption
(c) fatty acids (d) Both (a) and (b) 93 The accumulation of faeces in the rectum and
87 A large lymph vessel present in the villus of small distension of the rectal wall initiates the feeling of
intestine is called defecation due to
(a) crypts (a) defecation reflex
(b) lacteal (b) deamination
(c) Peyer’s patches (c) irregular movement of bowl
(d) valve of Kerckring (d) None of the above
88 Select the correct match of the digested products in 94 In an infant, the process of defecation occurs by
humans given in Column I with their absorption site (a) reflex action without voluntary control
and mechanism in Column II. NEET 2013 (b) reflex action with voluntary control
(c) voluntary relaxation of external anal sphincter
Column I Column II
(d) involuntary relaxation of internal anal sphincter
(a) Glycine and glucose Small intestine and active
absorption
95 Carrier proteins facilitate the absorption of substances
like
(b) Fructose and Na + Small intestine passive absorption
(a) glucose and fatty acids (b) amino acid and glucose
(c) Glycerol and fatty acids Duodenum and move as (c) fatty acids and glycerol (d) fructose and glycerol
chiylomicrons
96 Select the option which shows the correct sequence in
(d) Cholesterol and maltose Large intestine and active which the process of digestion occurs.
absorption
(a) Digestion → Ingestion → Assimilation → Absorption
89 Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and → Egestion
monoglycerides occurs in the (b) Digestion → Assimilation → Ingestion →Absorption
(a) wall of the stomach → Egestion
(b) wall of the duodenum (c) Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Assimilation
→ Egestion
(c) lymph vessels within the villi present in the small
intestine (d) Ingestion → Assimilation → Degestion → Absorption
(d) capillaries present within the villi → Egestion
TOPIC 4~ Disorders of Digestive System

97 Why do the eyes of the patients turns yellow during 99 The abnormal frequent movement of the bowel and
jaundice? increased liquidity of the faeces is called
(a) Due to the deposition of bile pigments (a) vomiting (b) indigestion
(b) Due to the ejection of stomach content through mouth (c) constipation (d) diarrhoea
(c) Due to the stomach malfunctioning 100 Faeces are retained within colon in
(d) Due to the excessive vomiting
(a) diarrhoea (b) constipation
98 Vomit centre which controls the reflex action of (c) marasmus (d) vomiting
vomiting is located in 101 Which of the following is not a cause of indigestion?
(a) medulla (b) cortex (a) Overeating (b) Anxiety
(c) cerebellum (d) cerebrum (c) Jaundice (d) Food poisoning
102 Which of the following is a protein-energy 104 Symptoms of marasmus include

malnutrition related disorder? (a) Thin limbs and dry, wrinkled skin
(a) Kwashiorkor (b) Impaired brain and mental faculty
(b) Marasmus (c) Declined growth rate and body weight
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) All of the above
(d) Xerophthalmia
105 Kwashiorkor disease is due to NEET 2019
103 Marasmus is caused by the deficiency of (a) simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats
(a) proteins and calories (b) simultaneous deficiency of protein and calories
(b) carbohydrates (c) deficiency of carbohydrates
(c) minerals (d) protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie
(d) All of the above deficiency
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason Reason (R) Pancreas is considered a mixed gland as
Direction (Q. No. 106-115) In each of the following it function both as exocrine and endocrine. AIIMS 2019
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed 111 Assertion (A) No significant digestive activity occurs
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the in the large intestine.
statements, mark the correct answer as Reason (R) Absorption of some water, minerals and
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct certain drugs occurs in the large intestine.
explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 112 Assertion (A) Hormonal control of secretions of the
explanation of A digestive juice is carried out by local hormones.
(c) If A is true, but R is false Reason (R) Gastric and intestinal mucosa produce
(d) If A is false, but R is true local hormones.
106 Assertion (A) Small intestine of the human gut is the 113 Assertion (A) Fatty acids are incorporated into
longest part of the digestive system. micelles before being absorbed into intestinal mucosa.
Reason (R) Different types of food like proteins, fats Reason (R) These are insoluble molecules.
and carbohydrates are digested completely in the 114 Assertion (A) The action of bile on fats is
longest part of human alimentary canal. non-enzymatic.
107 Assertion (A) HCl present in the gastric juices, Reason (R) Bile lacks digestive enzymes.
maintains a strong pH (1.5 - 2.5) in the stomach, but
115 Assertion (A) Na + , amino acids and glucose move
does not digest the walls of stomach and duodenum.
against the concentration gradient.
Reason (R) Protection to intestinal wall and stomach
Reason (R) Absorption of Na + , amino acids and
from the actions of HCl is provided by the mucus
glucose is by active transport.
secreted by goblet cells, bicarbonates from pancreas,
mucus and bicarbonates from Brunner’s gland. II. Statement Based Questions
108 Assertion (A) Gastrin is a hormone that is released 116 Which of the following statement correctly describes
from the gastrointestinal tract and helps in digestion. the process of nutrition?
Reason (R) It promotes secretion of HCl and (a) A process to obtain necessary energy and growth
trypsinogen. AIIMS 2019 substances
109 Assertion (A) Cholecystokinin is released by (b) A process to obtain energy from foods
duodenum. (c) A process to supply the necessary nutritive elements to
body
Reason (R) It activates pepsinogen and bile juice. (d) The sum total of processes which provides the
110 Assertion (A) Liver is the largest digestive gland of necessary nutritive element for growth, maintenance
our body. and to meet the need of energy
117 Which of the following statement is the befitting (c) It is the process to utilise the absorbed food substances
definition of dental formula? (d) Absorption is a process by which nutrients are absorbed
(a) An arrangement of teeth in mouth in the order of I, C from the large intestine into the blood and lymph
and Pm, M through its mucous membrane
(b) An arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and 123 Which one statement is incorrect regarding the
lower jaw in the order of I, C, Pm, M process of digestion and absorption in humans?
(c) An arrangement of teeth in upper jaw in the order to I, (a) Small intestine is the major site for the absorption of all
C, Pm, M nutrients
(d) An arrangement of teeth in the lower jaw in the order to (b) Around 40% of the total absorption of nutrients takes
I, C, Pm, M place in the small intestine
118 Read the following statements regarding the digestive (c) Drugs, alcohol, little water and salt are absorbed in the
system and select the correct statement. stomach through the mucous membrane
(a) Oesophagus passes through neck, thorax and diaphragm (d) Large intestine is the site of absorption for water and
and opens into the stomach products of bacterial digestion
(b) Stomach is located in the upper right portion of the
124 Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
abdominal cavity
functions of the large intestine.
(c) Stomach, a J-shaped organ is the narrowest organ of
alimentary canal (a) Large intestine absorbs the products of bacterial
digestion
(d) Caecum, a small blind sac is a part of small intestine
and host symbiotic bacteria (b) It is the main site of absorption of electrolytes, water
and some amino acids
119 Choose the incorrect statement regarding human (c) Mucous lubricates faecal matter
digestive system with reference to a normal person. (d) Faeces are temporarily stored in the rectum
(a) Human saliva is slightly acidic
125 Which of the following statement regarding
(b) In human being, four pairs of salivary glands secrete
saliva chylomicrons is not true?
(c) The quantity of saliva in adult man may be 1-1.5 L day (a) Chylomicrons are protein coated fat globules
(d) Enzyme amylase present in saliva is responsible for the (b) These are transported into the lacteals in the villi
breakdown of starch into simple sugar (c) These play a significant role in the digestion of fats
(d) These are produced from the cells of the intestinal
120 Which of the following statement is correct about mucosa
pancreas?
(a) Pancreatic juice is secreted by acinar cells of endocrine 126 Read the statements given below and select the
part of pancreas incorrect one.
(b) pH of pancreatic juice is ~ 6 (a) Chewing helps in digestion process by increasing the
(c) Secretin and CCK hormones inhibit the secretion of surface area of food
pancreatic juice (b) Stomach stores food for 4-5 hours
(d) Pancreatic juice contains trypsinogen, (c) The digestive enzymes secreted by oesophagus help in
chymotrypsinogen, procarboxy-polypeptidases, the digestion of starch
nucleases, amylopsin and steapsin, etc (d) The mucosa of stomach has gastric gland
121 Which of the following statement is not correct? 127 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
CBSE AIPMT 2015 (a) Frenulum is the fold by which tongue is attached to the
(a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of floor of mouth or oral cavity
stomach and secrete pepsinogen (b) Pharynx is the common passage for food and air
(b) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and (c) Sphincter of Oddi guards and regulates the opening of
secrete mucus stomach into duodenum
(c) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and (d) Caecum host some symbiotic microoganisms
secrete HCl 128 Study the given statements and choose the one which
(d) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete gives false information.
carboxypeptidase
(a) Muscularis layer of alimentary canal possess inner
122 Which statement is correct about the absorption of circular and outer longitudinal muscle layer
food? (b) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the stomach and crypts
(a) It is the process by which the end products of digestion in betwcen the bases of villi in intestine
pass through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or (c) Cells lining the villi has brush border or microvilli
lymph
(d) All the four basic layers in the wall of gut never show
(b) It is the process of transportation of digestive food from modification in different parts of the alimentary canal
the human alimentary canal to blood and lymph
129 Study the following statements thoroughly and 134 Read the following statements thoroughly and
identify which one of the following is incorrect? identify whether they are true and false.
(a) Bile salts present in bile are responsible to emulsify the Choose the correct option.
fats in small intestine I. Bile is produced and stored in the liver and gall
(b) Bicarbonates of sodium, potassium, glycocholate and bladder, respectively.
taurocholate of sodium are bile salts II. Common bile duct is formed by the fusion of all the
(c) The pH of hepatic bile is 8.6, while pH of gall bladder right and left hepatic ducts and cystic ducts.
is 7.6 or 7.5
III. Hepatopancreatic duct opens into the ileum, posterior
(d) The flow of bile from liver takes place through hepatic part of the small intestine.
duct, common bile duct, hepatopancratic ampulla and
finally to the first part of small intestine IV. Pancreas consists of two parts, i.e. exocrine and
endocrine, which secrete insulin and glucagon
130 Go through the following statements and select the hormone and pancreatic juices containing enzymes,
one which is correct regarding starch digestion? respectively.
(a) Digestion of starch starts from the stomach V. Pepsinogen, a secretion of chief cells is activated by
(b) Around 30% of the starch is digested in the stomach hydrochloric acid.
(c) Digestion of food requires the action of pancreatic VI. Peptides are converted into dipeptides by the action of
juices
carboxypeptidase.
(d) During absorption, end products are passed through
(a) All statements are true
stomach into the small intestine
(b) All statements are false
131 Consider the following statements. (c) Statements I, III, IV and V are true, while II and VI are
I. In thecodont dentition, each tooth is embedded in a false
socket. (d) Statements I, II, V and VI are true, while III and IV are
II. Diphyodont dentition indicates that humans bear only false
one set of teeth in their lifetime. 135 Go through the following statements and identify
Select the correct option. whether they are true or false.
(a) I is true, II is false Choose an appropriate option from the codes given
(b) Both I and II are true below.
(c) I is false, II is true I. Hepatic lobules are the structural and functional units
(d) Both I and II are false of liver containing hepatic cells.
132 Read the following statements and select the correct II. Hepatic lobules are covered by a thin connective tissue
sheath called Glisson’s capsule.
option.
III. Proteinases, also known as proteases, are released in
I. Deglutition starts as a reflex and then continues by
the active form because the proteins, either cellular or
voluntary action.
extracellular, all are hydrolysed by them in the absence
II. Oesophagus has smooth muscles in the beginning and of food.
striated muscles in the rest of its wall.
IV. Hydrolases and cholecystokinin are secreted by the
(a) Both statements I and II are correct
exocrine part of pancreas.
(b) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (b) All statements are false
(d) Both statements I and II are incorrect (c) Statements III and IV are true, while I and II are false
133 Consider the following statements. (d) Statements I and II are true, while III and IV are false
I. In duodenum, glands are found in the submucosa layer 136 Choose true and false statements regarding the
of the alimentary canal. humans pancreas.
II. Lacteal and network of capillaries are present in the I. Pancreas is a compound gland as it possesses both
rugae found in stomach. exocrine and endocrine parts.
Select the correct option. II. Exocrine part is rudimentary and does not perform any
(a) I is true, II is false function.
(b) Both I and II are true III. Endocrine part secretes hormones like insulin and
(c) I is false, II is true glucagon.
(d) Both I and II are false IV. It is situated between the limbs of duodenum.
Choose the correct option. III. Marasmus often happens if the mother has a second
(a) I, III, IV are true, while II is false pregnancy or childbirth when older infant is too young.
(b) I, II, III are false, while IV is true (a) All statements are correct
(c) All statements are true (b) All statements are incorrect
(c) I and II statements are correct
(d) All statements are false
(d) III and IV statements are correct
137 Read carefully the following statements regarding the
141 Consider the following statements regarding
absorption of nutrients. Find the incorrect statements
digestion and absorption in mammals. Identify
and choose the correct option from the codes given
whether they are true or false and select the correct
below
option accordingly.
I. Absorption of carbohydrates takes place in the
I. Both Kupffer’s cells and Glisson's capsule are the
stomach and small intestine.
characteristic of mammalian liver.
II. The water fat and soluble end products of food can
II. The muscular activities of alimentary canal are
reach the blood and lymph directly, respectively.
controlled by local neural signals and through CNS.
III. Stomach is the principal organ of absorption of
III. The physiologic values of proteins and fats are
nutrients.
9.0 kcal/g and 4.0 kcal/g, respectively.
IV. Glucose and Na + are absorbed by simple diffusion
IV. Zymogens (inactive form of enzymes) are not the
only.
secretions of the peptic cells.
(a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(c) I and II (d) III and IV
(b) All statements are false
138 Consider the following statements. (c) I and II are true, while III and IV are false
I. The bolus passes down through oesophagus by (d) III and IV are true, while I and II are false
deglutition. 142 Consider the following statements.
II. Mastication of food is done by teeth and tongue with I. The undigested and unabsorbed faeces enter into
the help of saliva. rectum from small intestine through ileocaecal valve.
Select the correct option. II. Gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated by
(a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true neural signals.
(c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false Select the correct option.
139 Go through the following statements regarding the (a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false
absorption of nutrients. Identify whether they are true (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
or false, then choose the correct option accordingly. 143 Consider the following statements.
I. Absorption of monosaccharides, alcohol, some water I. Gross calorific value is the amount of heat liberated
and medicines like asprin occurs in the stomach. from complete combustion of 1g food in a bomb
II. Fatty acids cannot be absorbed directly. calorimeter.
III. Glycerol can be absorbed into the blood in stomach. II. The actual amount of energy combustion of 1g food is
IV. Maximum absorption of water takes place in the large the physiologic value of food.
intestine. Select the correct option.
V. Large intestine and mouth are not the site of (a) Both I and II are true (b) I is true, II is false
absorption. (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
(a) I, II and IV are true, while III and V are false
(b) I, II, III are true, while IV and V are false III. Matching Type Questions
(c) II, III and IV are false, while I and V are true
(d) I and II are false, while III, IV and V are true
140 Go through the following statements regarding the Column I (Structure) Column II (Location/Function)
disorders of the digestive system. Choose the correct A. Cardiac sphincter 1. Guards hepatopancreatic duct
statements and select appropriate option from the B. Pyloric sphincter 2. Joins gall bladder to common bile duct
given below. C. Sphincter of Oddi 3. Opening of stomach into duodenum
I. Indigestion is caused by the poor supply of digestive D. Cystic ducts 4. Opening of oesophagus into stomach
enzymes, overeating, a lot of junk food and anxiety.
Codes
II. Constipation, an irregular movement of bowel is A B C D A B C D
caused due to poor habits, fibreless diet, emotional (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
stress and certain drugs. (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
145 Match the following columns. 149 Match the following structures with their respective
location in organs. NEET 2019
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
A. Hepatic lobule 1. Submucosal glands (Structures) (Location)
B. Brunner’s glands 2. Base of villi A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn 1. Pancreas
C. Crypts of Leiberkuhn 3. Glisson’s capsule B. Glisson's capsule 2. Duodenum
D. Sphincter of Oddi 4. Hepatopancreatic duct C. Islets of Langerhans 3. Small intestine
Codes D. Brunner's glands 4. Liver
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 Codes
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
Column I Column II
A. Gastric juice 1. Enterokinase
Column I Column II
B. Parietal cells 2. Intestinal juice
A. Ileocaecal valve 1. Helps in defecation
C. Intestinal mucosa 3. pH = 1.8
B. Mass peristalsis 2. Prevent backflow of faces
D. Crypt of Leiberkuhn 4. HCl
C. Defaecation 3. Reduced absorption of food
Codes D. Diarrhoea 4. Egestion of faeces through anus
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 Codes
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II
(Cells) (Substances released) 151 Match the items given in Column I with those in
A. Neck cells 1. HCl, intrinsic factor
Column II and choose the correct option.
NEET (Odisha) 2019
B. Peptic/Chief cells 2. Mucus
Column I Column II
C. Parietal/Oxyntic cells 3. Pepsinogen
A. Rennin 1. Vitamin-B 12
D. Hepatocyte 4. Bile
B. Enterokinase 2. Facilitated transport
Codes
C. Oxyntic cells 3. Milk proteins
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 D. Fructose 4. Trypsinogen
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 4 3 1
Codes
Column I Column II (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(Substances) (Characteristic) (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
A. Bile 1. Released into small intestine 152 Match the following columns.
through hepatopancreatic duct
Column I Column II
B. Pancreatic juice + bile 2. Inactive enzymes in pancreatic (Types of cell) (Secretion)
juice
A. β-cells 1. Mucus
C. Vitamin-B12 3. Absorbed by intrinsic factor
secreted by oxyntic cells. B. Mast cells 2. Histamine
D. Amylase and nuclease 4. Do not contain enzyme but C. Paneth cells 3. Insulin
activate lipase D. Acinar cells 4. Pancreatic enzymes
Codes Codes
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
NCERT Exemplar
153 Select what is not true of intestinal villi among Codes
following? A B C D
(a) They possess microvilli (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) They increase the surface area (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
(d) They only participate in digestion of fats
154 Hepatopancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and
carries Column I Column II
(a) bile (b) pancreatic juice (Enzymes) (Acts upon)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) saliva A. Lipase 1. Dipeptides
155 One of the following is not a common disorder B. Nuclease 2. Fats
associated with digestive system. C. Carboxypeptidase 3. Nucleic acids
(a) Tetanus (b) Diarrhoea (c) Jaundice (d) Dysentery D. Dipeptidases 4. Proteins, peptones and proteoses
156 A gland not associated with the alimentary cannal is Codes
(a) pancreas (b) adrenal (c) liver (d) salivary glands A B C D
157 Match the following columns. (a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
Column I Column II
(c) 3 1 4 2
A. Biomacromolecules of 1. Alimentary canal and (d) 2 3 4 1
food associated gland
160 Dental formula of monophyodont teeth of humans is
B. Human digestive system 2. Embedded in jaw bones
3223
C. Stomach 3. Outer wall of visceral organs (a)
3223
D. Thecodont 4. Converted into simple
substances 2123
(b)
2123
E. Serosa 5. J-shaped bag-like structure
0021
(c)
Codes 0021
A B C D E 2233
(a) 2 1 5 3 4 (d)
2233
(b) 4 1 5 2 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 5 161 Liver is the largest gland and is associated with
(d) 1 3 2 4 5 various functions, choose one which is not correct?
(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate
(b) Digestion of fat
Column I Column II (c) Formation of bile
(Parts) (Features) (d) Secretion of hormone called gastrin
A. Duodenum 1. A cartilaginous flap
162 Mark the correct statement among the following.
B. Epiglottis 2. Small blind sac (a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
C. Glottis 3. U-shaped structure emerging (b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
from the stomach
(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancreas
D. Caecum 4. Opening of windpipe
(d) Bile contains trypsin
Answers
1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (c) 39 (a) 40 (d)
41 (d) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (d)
51 (a) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (b) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (c) 59 (c) 60 (d)
61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (d) 65 (a) 66 (a) 67 (b) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (a) 75 (c) 76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (a) 79 (d) 80 (c)
81 (d) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (d) 85 (a) 86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (c) 90 (b)
91 (c) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (b) 96 (c) 97 (a) 98 (a) 99 (d) 100 (b)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (a) 104 (d) 105 (d)

106 (a) 107 (a) 108 (c) 109 (c) 110 (b) 111 (a) 112 (a) 113 (a) 114 (a) 115 (a)
116 (d) 117 (b) 118 (a) 119 (b) 120 (d) 121 (a) 122 (a) 123 (b) 124 (b) 125 (c)
126 (c) 127 (c) 128 (d) 129 (b) 130 (c) 131 (a) 132 (d) 133 (a) 134 (d) 135 (d)
136 (a) 137 (d) 138 (c) 139 (a) 140 (a) 141 (c) 142 (c) 143 (a) 144 (a) 145 (a)
146 (a) 147 (a) 148 (c) 149 (b) 150 (b) 151 (d) 152 (c)

153 (d) 154 (c) 155 (a) 156 (b) 157 (b) 158 (c) 159 (d) 160 (b) 161 (d) 162 (a)

1 (a) Food is one of the basic requirements of all living 6 (b) In the given figure, A represents Molar,
organisms.The major components of food are B represents Premolar, C represents Canine and
carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Vitamins and minerals D represents Incisor.
are also required but in small quantities. Incisors teeth have chisel-like edge thus, also called as
2 (a) Digestion involves the breakdown of complex cutting teeth, while canines are pointed and lie behind
organic substances of food like carbohydrates, proteins the cutting teeth.
and fats (macronutrients) into simple, soluble inorganic These are used for cutting and tearing. Premolar and
substances. This enables easy absorption of nutrients. molar are called check teeth. They are broad and are
3 (a) Process of digestion is carried out by mechanical used to crush the food.
and chemical means. Mastication of food and 7 (c) In human beings, after birth, the first set of teeth that
swallowing the masticated food are the two major develops are deciduous teeth or temporary teeth. The
mechanical functions of the buccal cavity. Masticated dental formula of a child is 2102/2102.
food is partially digested by salivary amylase and gets Thus, they have 2 incisors, 1 canine, 0 premolars and
transformed into bolus. 2 molars. Therefore, the baby boy would not have
It is transferred to the pharynx and then to oesophagus premolars.
by deglutition. Finally, it reaches into the stomach for 10 (c) In humans, 20 milk or deciduous teeth occur. These
chemical digestion, which is carried out by various include 8 incisors, 4 canines and 8 molars. Premolars
enzymes. are not present in deciduous or primary dentition.
5 (b) The terms, thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont 11 (b) A tooth consists of three regions, i.e. crown, neck
describe human dentition. In humans, two types of teeth and root. The exposed part, i.e. the crown is surrounded
are found, milk or deciduous teeth and permanent teeth. by the hardest material of the body called enamel and
Thus, they are diphyodont. The teeth are remain which serves as the hard chewing surface.
embedded in the sockets of the jaw bones and hence are
thecodont. Humans have four types of teeth; incisors, 12 (a) Frenulum is the tissue fold by which the tongue, a
canine, premolars and molars, i.e. they have heterodont freely movable muscular organ is attached to the floor
teeth. of the oral cavity.
13 (d) The upper surface of the tongue has several small 31 (a) Secretions of the goblet cells protect the lining of
projections. These projections are termed as papillae. the gastrointestinal tract from various enzymes. These
15 (d) During swallowing of food, epiglottis (a leaf-like cells secrete mucus which along with bicarbonate ions
cartilaginous flap) prevents the entry of food into glottis. helps in the lubrication and protection of the mucosal
epithelium from excoriation by the highly
16 (a) The length of oesophagus is nearly 25 cm. concentrated HCl.
Oesophagus is a hollow muscular tube found in
34 (b) The crypts present in between the bases of villi of
vertebrates through which food is transferred from
small intestine called Crypts of Lieberkuhn contain
pharynx to stomach. Peristaltic contractions of
paneth cells, which secrete antibacterial lysozyme.
oesophageal muscles facilitate the passage of food
through it. 36 (c) Saliva is mainly produced by the three pairs of
salivary glands, which are the parotids (cheek), the
17 (d) A muscular sphincter called as the gastro-oesophageal
submaxillary (lowe jaw) and sublingual (below the
sphincter lies at the opening between the oesophagus and
tongue).
the stomach. The opening of the oesophagus into the
stomach is regulated by this sphincter. Zymogenic cells are a type of cells present in the
epithelium of the gastric glands. These secrete
18 (c) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter is also called as the zymogens or proenzyme – pepsinogen and prorennin
cardiac sphincter as it is present at the cardiac part of along with, a small amount of gastric lipase and
stomach, which in turn lies near the heart. amylase.
19 (a) Stomach is located in the upper left part of the 38 (c) Liver is the largest gland of the body, weighing
abdominal cavity. Apart from the body it has three parts, about 1.2-1.5 kg in an adult human. It is situated in the
a cardiac portion into which the osesophagus opens, a abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm and has
fundic portion and a pyloric portion, which opens into two lobes.
the proximal part of the small intestine.
39 (a) Bile juice or simply bile is produced by the
21 (a) Peyer’s patches are present in ileum. These are hepatocytes of the liver. It is then transported through
organised lymphoid follicles. These form an important the hepatic duct into gall bladder for storage. Gall
part of the immune system by monitoring intestinal bacteria bladder is a pear-shaped thin, muscular sac found
populations. attached to the posterior surface of the liver.
22 (c) Small intestine of alimentary canal consists of three 40 (d) The right and left hepatocytic ducts combine to
parts, namely duodenum, jejunum and ileum. Duodenum form common hepatic duct from the liver and this
(proximal part) is some what C-shaped, the middle common hepatic duct join to the duct arising from
jejunum is coiled part and the distal or lower part, ileum gall bladder (cystic duct) which then join to form the
is highly coiled and opens into the large intestine. common bile duct. The later joins the pancreatic duct
23 (c) Large intestine is composed of three parts, namely and the combination is called as hepatopancreatic
caecum, rectum and colon. Ileum is not a part of the large duct or ampulla.
intestine, but is a coiled part of the small intestine which 42 (c) Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of
opens into the large intestine. hepatopancreatic duct opening into the duodenum.
24 (c) Caecum is a blind sac in the large intestine, which Hepatopancreatic duct brings the secretion of liver as
host symbiotic microorganisms. A finger-like tubular well as of pancreas to the duodenum.
projection called vermiform appendix, a vestigial organ 43 (a) The exocrine part of the pancreas secretes an
arises from the caecum. alkaline pancreatic juice containing enzymes and the
27 (c) Option (c) contains the incorrect pair. It can be endocrine portion secretes hormones, insulin and
corrected as glucagon.
Submucosa of alimentary canal is made up of loose
The pancreas is a compound organ containing both

connective tissues containing nerves, blood and lymph exocrine and endocrine parts and is situated between
vessels. the U-shaped duodenum.
Rest pairs are correct. 44 (b) The teeth and tongue with the help of saliva
28 (b) Mucosa, the innermost layer of the alimentary canal masticate and mix up the food throughly. Mucus in
which lines the gut forms irregular folds called villi saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated
(small finger-like projection) in the small intestine. food particles to form bolus.
29 (c) The innermost layer of human gut is mucosa. This 45 (a) The bolus is conveyed into the pharynx and then
layer forms many irregular folds in the stomach, which into the oesophagus by the process of swallowing or
are known as rugae (in intestine it is called villi). These deglutition.
folds are prominent in empty stomach, and disappear Bolus passes down through the oesophagus be
when the stomach is distended with food. Loss of these successive waves of muscular contraction called
rugae is one of the primary symptoms of stomach cancer. peristalsis.
46 (b) Option (b) best describes the chemical composition 64 (d) Bile is a watery fluid, composed of bile salts (Na
of saliva. Chemically, saliva is a mixture of water, glycocholate and Na taurocholate), bile pigments
mucus and electrolytes (Na + , K + Cl − , HCO–3 ). Some (bilirubin and biliverdin), sodium bicarbonate,
enzymes like, salivary amylase and lysozyme cholesterol, phospholipid, mucin, lecithin fats, etc.
(an antibacterial agent), are also found in human saliva. 67 (b) Nuclease enzymes are present in the pancreatic juice
48 (a) Digestion of starch (polysaccharides) starts from the and enable the breakdown of nucleic acids into
mouth. About 30% of starch converts into disaccharide nucleotides.
in oral cavity by the action of amylase enzyme. Succus entericus or intestinal digestive juice contains a
50 (d) The action of salivary amylase on starch yields a variety of enzymes like disaccharides, e.g. maltase,
diasaccharide, i.e. maltose. lipase, dipeptidases, nucleosidases but not nuclease.
52 (a) In the stomach, the gastric acid (HCl) is secreted by 69 (c) Cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin are the peptide
the parietal cells of the gastric gland. It makes the hormones which stimulate the production of pancreatic
medium of food in stomach acidic for the stimulation of juice and bicarbonates within the alimentary canal.
the proteolytic enzymes. Secretin acts on the exocrine part of the pancreas and
stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.
54 (d) Parietal cells (oxyntic cells) secrete hydrochloric
acid and castle’s intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron (in CCK acts on both pancreas as well as gall bladder and
diet) from ferric to ferrous form which can be easily stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile
absorbed and used during erythropoiesis (formation of juice, respectively.
RBCs). Thus, parietal cells indirectly help in 71 (a) Maltose is a disaccharide and gives rise to two
erythropoiesis. molecules of glucose on hydrolysis in the presence of
55 (b) The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric maltase enzyme. This reaction occurs in the small
juice present in the stomach by the churning movements intestine.
of its muscular walls to form chyme. 72 (b) Sucrose is hydrolysed into one molecule of glucose
56 (b) Proenzymes (inactive form of enzyme) or zymogens and one molecule of fructose by the action of the
secreted by the chief cells or zymogenic cells of gastric enzyme sucrase or invertase.
glands are activated by the HCl secreted by the oxyntic Sucrase
Sucrose → Glucose + Fructose
or parietal cells of the gastric glands. Thus, the inactive
pepsinogen gets converted into its active form pepsin by 73 (c) The enzyme involved and the intermediate molecule
the action of HCl. formed by the breakdown of fats into monoglycerides
57 (c) The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric are lipase and diglycerides, respectively. It can be
juice play an important role in lubrication and explained by the reaction given below
protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation Lipase Pancreatic
Fat → Diglycerides →
by highly concentrated hydrochloric acid. Lipase
58 (c) The enzyme, rennin is responsible for the digestion Monoglycerides + Fatty acid
of milk protein in infants. Rennin is secreted as an 74 (a) The reaction given in option (a) is incorrect. It can
inactive precursor, i.e. Prorennin in the young ones of be corrected as
mammals or HCl secreted by parietal cell, converts Digestion of nucleic acids takes place in the small
prorennin into rennin. intestine. The enzymes present in pancreatic and
HCl
Prorennin → Rennin intestinal juices act on various substrates containing
Rennin is then responsible for converting casein protein nucleic acids in the following manner
RNase
of milk to calcium paracaseinate, i.e. helps in curdling RNA → Ribonucleotides
of milk. Pancreatic juice
Rennin
Casein → Ca Paracaseinate Nucleotidases
Ribonucleotides (Nucleotides) →
59 (c) Gastric juice of infants contains pepsinogen, lipase, Nucleosides + iPO4
rennin. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme synthesised by Nucleosidases
stomach which coagulates milk. Nucleosides → Nitrogenous base
Lipase enables breakdown of fats into monoglycerides. + Pentose sugar
Pepsinogen gets converted to its active form pepsin Rest reactions are correct.
which enables breakdown of proteins into smaller 75 (c) Option (c) contains the correct match. Other options
peptides. can be corrected as
60 (d) In humans, milk protein digesting enzyme is pepsin. Lipase
l
Stomach–Fats → Diglycerides → Monoglycerides
In the initial step of milk digestion, pepsin acts on water
Pepsin
soluble ‘caseinogen (milk protein) to form soluble l
Stomach–Proteins → Peptones, Proteoses
‘casein’. This combines with calcium salts to form Trypsin
insoluble calcium paracaseinate, which gets readily l
Duodenum–Proteins/peptones → Dipeptides
digested by enzymes.
76 (d) The milk sugar is lactose. The enzyme lactase 94 (a) In an infant, defecation is not under voluntary
hydrolyses lactose into glucose and galactose in the control and it takes place by reflex actions, i.e. process
small intestine. of defecation occurs by the reflex action without any
Lactase voluntary control on the the external anal sphincter
Lactose → Glucose + Galactose muscles.
79 (d) Option IV is correct. Rest options are incorrect and 98 (a) The reflex action during vomiting is controlled by
can be corrected as vomit centre located in the medulla. The feeling of
l
Rennin found in infant’s stomach helps in the digestion nausea precedes vomiting.
of milk proteins. 99 (d) The abnormal frequent movements of bowel along
l
Pepsin converts proteins to peptones and proteoses. with increased volume, fluid content or liquidity of
faeces is called diarrhoea. Frequent diarrhoea can result
l
Nuclease in pancreatic juice acts on nucleic acids to
in the loss of water (dehydration) and salts or electrolyte
break them down to nucleotides. imbalance.
83 (b) In facilitated transport, carrier proteins are required 101 (c) Indigestion is caused by inadequate enzyme
for the transport of glucose and amino acids across the secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, overeating, etc.
intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. It occurs Jaundice is caused due to deposition of bile pigments in
along the concentration gradient and therefore, ATP is liver.
not required.
102 (c) Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) disorder is
84 (d) The pair in option (d) is incorrectly matched. It can most common in young children below 8 years of age.
be corrected as It is of two types, kwashiorkor and marasmus.
Active transport occurs against the concentration Marasmus is observed in infants below one year in age.
gradient and hence, energy (ATP) is utilised in this Kwashiorkor is commonly seen in the children more
process instead of being released. than a year in age.
Rest options contain correctly matched pairs. 105 (d) Kwashiorkor disease is caused due to protein
87 (b) Each villus in the small intestine is covered with an deficiency not accompanied by calorie deficiency in the
epithelium and contains abundant lymph vessels called children of more than one year.
lacteal and blood capillaries. Its symptoms are weak muscles, thin limbs, retarded
88 (a) Option (a) contains the correct match. Rest matches growth of the body and brain, swelling of legs due to
are incorrect and can be corrected as retention of water (oedema), reddish hair, pot belly, etc.
Fructose and Na + – Small intestine and active transport 106 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
Glycerol and fatty – Absorbed by lacteals as the correct explanation of Assertion.
acids chylomicrons Small intestine of the human gut is the longest part of
Cholesterol and – Cholesterol absorbed as micelles in the digestive system. Due to its small diameter, it is
maltose the small intestine and maltose called the small intestine. Its length is about 22 feet in
breaks into glucose then absorbed human. Such a length increases the scope of food
in the small intestine. absorption as it is the major site of digestion and
89 (c) Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, are first absorption of different types of food.
incorporated into micelles and are moved to the small 107 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
intestine. These are then absorbed in the intestinal cells the correct explanation of Assertion.
by diffusion. Hydrochloric acid present in the gastric juices maintains
92 (b) Assimilation can be defined as the process by which a strong pH in stomach. But the wall of stomach is not
the absorbed food nutrients are utilised by the tissues in digested by its action because goblet cells secrete mucus
living beings for energy, growth and maintenance’.
which continuously lubricates the innermost layer in

When nutrients from the food are absorbed, they are the stomach and intestine. The wall is also protected by
transferred into the blood circulation. From the blood, the bicarbonates secreted by pancreatic juices and
these nutrients are transported to different body cells Brunner’s gland.
and tissues, where these nutrients become an integral
part of the living protoplasm and provide energy, 108 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be
stimulate growth and repair injured tissues of the body. corrected as
Gastrin hormone, released from the gastrointestinal
93 (a) The defecation reflex induces peristalsis movement
tract and stimulates the gastric glands to secrete and
in the sigmoid portion of the colon and rectum, which
forces faecal matter towards the egestion pore, i.e. anus. release gastric juices. It also stimulates gastric mobility.
Colon is the site of water absorption from undigested 109 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and Reason can
and unabsorbed food (faeces). When the pellet of faeces be corrected as
from the sigmoid portion of the colon enters into the Cholecystokinin is released by duodenum. It acts on
rectum, distension of the rectal wall initiates the feeling pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of
for defecation due to the defecation reflex. the pancreatic enzymes and bile juice.
110 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is canines (C), premolars (Pm) and molars (M). These are 2,
not the correct explanation for Assertion. 1, 2, 3, respectively in number in case of human beings.
Liver is the largest digestive gland in human body, 118 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct.
weighing about 1.2-1-5 kg in an adult. Pancreas is a Rest statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
mixed (compound) gland. It lies inferior to the stomach. l
Stomach is located in the upper left portion of
It has both exocrine and endocrine parts. Digestive abdominal cavity.
juices are secreted by the exocrine part, which get
poured into the small intestine.
l
Stomach is the J-shaped structure and is the widest
organ of alimentary canal or human gut.
111 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason l
Caecum, a small blind sac host symbiotic microbes and
is the correct explanation of Assertion. it is a part of large intestine.
This can be explained as
No digestive enzyme is present in the large intestine and corrected as
all the major nutrients are absorbed in the small
intestine as it is the principal organ for absorption of There are three pairs of salivary glands in human
nutrients. Thus no significant digestive activity occurs beings, namely parotid gland, sublingual gland and
in the large intestine, only absorption of some water, submaxillary gland. All of the three pairs secrete saliva
minerals and certain drugs takes place here. Large into the buccal cavity through their ducts.
intestine mainly secrete mucus which helps in adhering Rest of the statements are correct.
the undigested particles together and lubricating it for 120 (d) The statement in option (d) is correct. Rest
an easy passage during defaecation. statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
112 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is l
Pancreatic juice is secreted by acinar cells of exocrine
the correct explanation of Assertion. part of pancreas.
Local hormones are produced by the gastric and l
Pancreatic juice is alkaline with pH 8.4.
intestinal mucosa. These hormones control the l
Secretin hormone increases secretion of bile and
secretions of various digestive juices. For example, releases bicarbonates in pancreatic juice. CCK
hormone gastrin is secreted by the G-cells of pyloric (cholecystokinin) stimulates the gall bladder to release
gland and duodenum which stimulates the secretion of bile and the pancreas to secrete and release digestive
gastric juice. enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
113 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason 121 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
is the correct explanation of Assertion. corrected as
Fatty acids being insoluble cannot be absorbed directly Brunner’s glands are compound tubular submucosal
by the blood. These are first incorporated into small glands found in the portion of duodenum, which is
droplets called micelles which are then absorbed into above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (sphincter of
the intestinal mucosa. Oddi).
114 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is Rest of the statements are correct.
the correct explanation of Assertion. 122 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct about
Bile secreted by the liver and has no digestive enzymes. absorption of food.
Its main role in digestion is emulsification of fats, i.e. The end products of digestion are absorbed through the
breaking down of fats into very small micelles. Thus, intestinal mucosa into the blood. Therefore, absorption,
action of bile on fats is non-enzymatic. can be defined as
115 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is The process by which the end products of digestion
the correct explanation of Assertion. enter the blood or lymph (circulatory system) through
Na + , amino acids and glucose are absorbed by active the intestinal mucosa.
transport, which occurs against the concentration 123 (b) The statement given in option (b) is incorrect and
gradient and requires energy. can be corrected as
116 (d) The statement in option (d) correctly describes the Maximum absorption occurs in the small intestine.
process of nutrition. About 80% of the ingested food, electrolytes and 90%
Nutrition can be defined as ‘the sum total of process of water are absorbed in the small intestine.
which provides necessary nutritive elements for growth, Rest of the statements are correct.
maintenance and to meet their energy need’. Food or
Diet is composed of necessary nutrients, which provides
corrected as
the basic requirements of life, i.e. energy and raw
materials. About 90% of the total water is absorbed in the small
intestine, while the remaining 10% are absorbed in the
117 (b) The statement in option (b) is the correct definition stomach and large intestine. Large intestine also absorbs
of dental formula. some minerals, drugs and products of bacterial digestion
Dental formula is the arrangement of teeth in each half of like amino acids and vitamin-B complex and vitamin-K.
the upper and lower jaw in the order of incisors (I), Rest of the statements are correct.
125 (c) The statement given in option (c) is not correct 133 (a) Statement I is true, II is false and can be corrected as
regarding chylomicrons. It can be corrected as Lacteal and network of capillaries are present in the villi
Chylomicrons play a significant role in the absorption found in the small intestine of humans. They help in the
of fatty acids and glycerol which are the end products of transportation of fat globules called chylomicrons from
fat digestion. intestinal mucosa to blood stream.
Rest of the statements are correct. 134 (d) Statements I, II, V and VI are true, while statements
126 (c) The statement given in option (c) is incorrect and III and IV are false and can be corrected as
can be corrected as l
The hepatopancreatic duct opens into the duodenum
Starch is converted into maltose by the enzyme salivary and its opening is guarded by the sphincter of Oddi.
amylase which is present in the saliva, secreted in the l
Pancreas is a mixed gland. Its exocrine part secretes
oral cavity. It hydrolyses starch into maltose. pancreatic juices, while insulin and glucagon are
Oesophagus is the part of alimentary canal which does secreted by the endocrine parts.
not secrete any digestive enzyme. 135 (d) Statements I and II are true, while statements III and
Rest of the statements are correct. IV are false and can be corrected as
127 (c) The statement given in option (c) is incorrect and l
Protein hydrolysing enzymes are called peptidases or
can be corrected as proteases. A majority of protein hydrolases are secreted
Opening of stomach into duodenum is guarded by in inactive forms called proenzymes as their active
pyloric sphincter, while Oddi sphincter guards the forms can digest cellular or extracellular proteins of
opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum. individuals itself.
Hydrolases, secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted
128 (d) The statement given in option (d) is incorrect and by the duodenum of intestine and epithelium of the
can be corrected as entire small intestine, respectively.
Four basic layers of human alimentary canal exhibit 136 (a) Statements I, III and IV are true, while statement II
different modifications in different parts of alimentary is false and can be corrected as
canal. The secretions of pancreas, i.e. pancreatic juice
Rest of the statements are correct. containing various enzymes are secreted by the exocrine
129 (b) The statement given in option (b) is incorrect and portion of the pancreas.
can be corrected as 137 (d) Statements I and II are correct, while statements III
Bile salts are mainly salts of taurocholic acid and and IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
glycochloic acid. l
In human body, small intestine is the principal organ of
Rest of the statements are correct. absorption of nutrients. The process of digestion is
130 (c) The statement given in option (c) is correct completed here after which the final products of
regarding starch digestion. Rest statements are incorrect digestion are absorbed by various means.
and can be corrected as l
Glucose and Na + are majorly absorbed through active
l
Process of starch digestion starts in the mouth. transport. A small amount of glucose is absorbed
passively by simple diffusion and facilitated transport.
l
In buccal cavity or oral cavity, 30% of polysaccharides
(starch) present in the food is digested into 138 (c) Statement I is false, II is true and can be corrected as
disaccharides (maltose). Rest 70% of carbohydrates are The bolus passes down through the oesophagus into
completely digested in the small intestine. stomach by successive wave of muscular contraction
l
Absorption is the process by which end products of called peristalsis. Deglutition is process by which bolus
digestion pass through intestinal mucosa into blood or is conveyed into the pharynx and the oesophagus from
the buccal cavity.
lymph.
131 (a) Statement I is true, II is false and can be corrected as 139 (a) Statements I, II and IV are true, while statements III
Human dentition is diphyodont, i.e. they bear two sets and V are false and can be corrected as
of teeth during their lifetime.
l
Glycerol is absorbed through the mucosa of small
intestine into the blood and lymph.
These are the deciduous or milk teeth and permanent or
adult teeth. Presence of four types of teeth indicate
l
Mouth helps in the absorption of certain drugs coming in
heterodont dentition. contact with mucosa of mouth and lower side of tongue.
Large intestine absorbs water, minerals and drugs.
132 (d) Both statements I and II are incorrect and can be
corrected as 141 (c) Statements I and II are true. Statements III and IV
are false and can be corrected as
l
Deglutition or Swallowing starts as a reflex by medulla
oblongata and continues by involuntary action causing
l
The physiologic values of proteins and fats is 4.0 kcal/g
progressive contraction of the pharyngeal muscles. and 9.0 kcal/g, respectively.
l
Oesophagus has striated muscles in the beginning and
l
Zymogens or Proenzyme are secreted by the
smooth muscles in the rest of its wall zymogenic cells or peptic cells or chief cells.
142 (c) Statement I is false, statement II is true. cortisol, etc. These are not associated with the alimentary
Statement I can be corrected as canal.
The undigested, unabsorbed substances called 160 (b) An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are of
faeces enters into the caecum from small intestine four different types, namely Incisors (I), Canine (C),
through the ileocaecal valve. Premolar (Pm) and Molar (M).
153 (d) Option (d) is not correct about intestinal villi and Monophyodont teeth include premolars and molar and they
it can be corrected as appear once in life. They are 2 and 3 in number in each jaw.
Intestinal villi do not participate in the digestion of Thus, the dentat formula of monophyodont teeth of humans
fats, but help in their absorption and in the is 2123/2123.
absorption of various other food substances also
such as water, mineral, salts, amino acids, vitamins, 161 (d) The function given in option (d) is not associated with
etc. liver and therefore is incorrect. It can be corrected as
154 (c) The duct of gall bladder along with the hepatic Liver is not associated with the secretion of gastrin.
duct from the liver forms the common bile duct. Gastrin is secreted by the G-cells present in the pyrolic
The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct region of stomach. It stimulates gastric glands to secrete
open together into the duodenum as the common and release gastric juices.
hepatopancreatic duct, which carries both bile 162 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. Rest statements
and pancreatic juice into the duodenum. are incorrect and can be corrected as
155 (a) Tetanus is the condition which is characterised l
Trypsinogen is an inactive pancreatic enzyme that is
by prolonged contraction of the skeletal muscle activated, by enterokinase enzyme secreted by the
fibres. It is not a disorder of the digestive system. intestinal mucosa.
156 (b) Adrenal glands are found at the apex of kidney l
Active form of trypsinogen is called trypsin, which in turn
and these produce hormones like adrenaline, activates other enzymes present in the pancreatic juice.
Trypsin is not contained in bile.

CHAPTER > 17
Breathing and
Exchange of Gases
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Respiration is an oxidative process involving the Human Respiratory System

oxidation of food substances such as carbohydrates, Our respiratory system begins with external nostrils which lead to
fats and proteins within the tissues to form CO2 , water nasal chamber. The nasal chamber then proceeds to following
and consequent release of energy. structures tabulated below
Å The respiratory system provides the route by which Structure Characteristics
the oxygen present in our environment gains entry
Pharynx
Common passage for food and air.
into the body and the carbon dioxide is excreted. This
whole process of exchange of gases is called breathing. Larynx
Cartilaginous, sound box which helps in sound production.

Entry of food into larynx during swallowing is prevented by
Respiratory Organs epiglottis. It is a thin cartilaginous flap which covers the glottis of
larynx.
Å Different animal groups have evolved different
mechanism of breathing for the exchange of gases. Trachea
Pharynx opens into it through larynx region.

Straight tube extending up to mid thoracic cavity.
Å Lower animal like sponges, cnidarians,
Bifurcates at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.
platyhelminthes and free-living roundworms exhange
O2 by simple diffusion through body surface. Bronchi
Two in number, undergo repeated divisions to form secondary,
tertiary bronchi and terminal bronchioles. These are formed by the
Å Earthworms respire through moist cuticle and insects bifurcation of trachea.
have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes) to transport
atmospheric air within the body. Alveoli
Thin, irregular-walled, vascularised bag-like structure at the terminal
ends of bronchioles.
Å Special vascularised structures called gills (branchial
respiration) are used by most of the aquatic arthropods Lungs
Constitute branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli.
and molluscs.

Covered by double-layered pleura with pleural fluid between them.

Air tight chamber, formed dorsally by vertebral column, ventrally by
Å The highly vascularised bags called lungs (pulmonary sternum, laterally by ribs and on lower side, diaphragm is present.
respiration) are used by the terrestrial forms for the
exchange of gases, e.g. reptiles, birds and mammals. Å The human respiratory system consists of two parts, i.e.
Å Amphibians (frog) respire through their skin conducting and exchanging portions. The former helps to
(cutaneous respiration) as well as lungs. transport atmospheric air to the alveoli, cleaning and humidifying.
CHAPTER 17 > Breathing and Exchange of Gases 395
Å The latter is the actual site of O2 and CO2 diffusion Respiratory Volumes and Capacities
between blood and atmospheric air.
Å The quantity of air, the lungs can receive, hold or expel
Å The conducting portion consists of nostrils, pharynx, under different conditions are called respiratory (or
larynx, trachea and bronchi, while exchanging portion pulmonary) volumes. Combination of two or more
consists of alveoli and their ducts. pulmonary volumes are called respiratory (pulmonary)
capacities.
Mechanism of Breathing Å Different types of respiratory volumes and respiratory
Å Breathing or Pulmonary ventilation occurs in two stages, capacities are tabulated below
i.e. inspiration and expiration.
Respiratory Volumes
Å During inspiration (active process), air enters in lungs Tidal volume Volume of air inspired or 500 mL
from the atmosphere and during expiration (passive expired during a normal
process), air is released out from the lungs. Both these respiration
processes are carried out by creating a pressure gradient of Inspiratory Additional volume of air, a 2500-3000 mL
between lungs and atmosphere. Reserve person can inspire by a
Volume (IRV) forcible inspiration
Å During inspiration, diaphragm and intercostal muscles
contract, causing an increase in the volume of thoracic Expiratory Additional volume of air, a 1000-1100 mL
chamber. Reserve person can expire by a
Volume (ERV) forcible expiration
Å This overall increase in the thoracic volume, causes a
Residual Remaining volume of air in 1100-1200 mL
similar increase in pulmonary volume. As a result, there Volume (RV) lungs after a forcible
occurs a decrease in the intrapulmonary pressure. The expiration
greater atmospheric pressure outside the body now causes Respiratory Capacity
air to flow rapidly into lungs.
Inspiratory Total volume of air, a TV + IRV
Contraction of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles Capacity (IC) person can inspire after = 3500 mL
Air entering lungs normal expiration
Expiratory Total volume of air, a TV + ERV
Ribs and sternum Capacity (EC) person can expire after = 1600 mL
raised normal inspiration
Volume of thorax
increased Functional Volume of air that will ERV + RV
Residual remain in lungs after normal = 2300 mL
Rib cage Lungs expanded Capacity (FRC) expiration
Vital Capacity Maximum volume of air, a ERV + TV + IRV
Diaphragm
(VC) person can breathe after = 4600 mL
contracted forced expiration
Total Lung Total volume of air VC + RV or RV +
Inspiration Capacity (TLC) accommodated in the lungs ERV + TV + IRV
at the end of a forced = 5800 mL
Å During expiration, diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax
inspiration
and decrease the volume of thoracic chamber and thereby
pulmonary volume. At this moment, the intrapulmonary
pressure is slightly above the atmospheric pressure. Exchange of Gases
Å This in turn causes the expulsion of the air from the lungs. Å The primary site for gaseous exchange is alveoli.
The process of expiration is simpler than inspiration. Å Gaseous exchange takes place by simple diffusion mainly
Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles based on pressure concentration gradient.
Air expelled from lungs
Å Solubility of gases and thickness of membranes affect the
rate of diffusion. Pressure contributed by individual gas in
Ribs and sternum mixture of gases is called partial pressure.
Volume of thorax
returned to original
position (lowered)
decreased Å The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2 ,
Lungs return to therefore CO2 diffuses faster than O2 across diffusion
original position membrane.
Diaphragm
Å Diffusion membrane (less than 1 mm thick) is made up of
relaxed three layers
and arched n
Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
upwards
n
Endothelium of alveloar capillary
Expiration n
Basement membrane
NEET KEY NOTES

Å Gaseous exchange occurs at two levels, i.e. (i) between Å High pCO2 and low pO2 (as in tissues) favours binding
alveoli and blood (external respiration) and (ii) between of CO2 to Hb while low pCO2 and high O2 in alveoli
blood and tissue cells (internal respiration). favours dissociation of CO2 from
n
Exchange of gases between alveoli and blood. carbaminohaemoglobin. These reactions are favoured by
Oxygen the enzyme carbonic anhydrase.
Carbonic Carbonic
Alveoli Diffusion of gases along Deoxygenated Blood CO2 + H2 O s H2 CO3 s HCO–3 + H+

the concentration gradient anhydrase Carbonic acid anhydrase
_
• High pO2 • Low pO2 Å Carbonic acid breaks into HCO 3 and H+ .
The
(104 mm Hg) Carbon Dioxide (40 mm Hg)
bicarbonates diffuse into blood plasma along the
• Low pCO2 • High pCO2
(40 mm Hg) (45 mm Hg) concentration gradient.
Å During transport of CO2 , exit of bicarbonate ions
n
Exchange of gases between blood and tissue cells. considerably changes ionic balance between the plasma
Carbon dioxide
Capillary blood
and the erythrocytes.
or Å To restore the ionic balance chloride ions diffuses
Oxygenated Diffusion of gases along the Tissues
blood concentration gradient from plasma into erythrocytes. This movement of Cl −
ions is called as chloride shift or Hamburger’s
• High pO2 • Low pO2
(95 mm Hg) Oxygen (40 mm Hg)
phenomenon.
• Low pCO2 • High pCO2 Å Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers 44 mL of
(40 mm Hg) (45 mm Hg) CO2 to the alveoli.
Transport of Gases Regulation of Respiration

Å Blood carries oxygen from the lungs to tissue cells for Process of respiration is under both nervous and chemical
oxidation and carbon dioxide from the tissue cells to the controls
respiratory surface for elimination. Å Neural regulation The group of neurons located in the
Å Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and CO2 . medulla oblongata and pons Varolii acts as the
respiratory centre which is composed of groups of
Transport of Oxygen neurons. Hence, respiratory centre is divided into the
Å About 97% of O2 is transported as oxyhaemoglobin by RBCs medullary respiratory centre and pons respiratory
in the blood. The remaining 3% of O2 is carried in a centre.
dissolved state through the plasma. Dorsal Respiratory Ventral Respiratory
Medulla
Å The percentage of haemoglobin that is bound with O2 is Group (DRG) respiratory Group (VRG)
called percentage saturation of haemoglobin. • Causes inspiration centre • Causes expiration
Å The relationship between percentage saturation of • Located in the dorsal • Located in the ventrolateral
portion of medulla portion of medulla
haemoglobin in blood and oxygen tension is called Oxygen
Dissociation Curve (ODC). This curve is always sigmoid in Pons
Pneumotaxic centre Apneustic centre
respiratory
shape. centre
• Fuctions to limit • Controls the depth of
Å In the alveoli, high pO2 , low pCO2 , less H+ and low inspiration inspiration
temperature favour the formation of oxyhaemoglobin (the • Located in dorsal • Located in the lower part
curve shifts to right). part of pons Varolii of pons Varolii
Å In the tissues, reverse of above conditions, favour the

dissociation of O2 from oxyhaemoglobin (shifting the curve
Å Chemical regulation It includes the effect of CO2 , O2
to left). Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood deliver around and H+ concentration in blood. Its receptors are located
5 mL O2 to tissues under normal conditions. in carotid bodies (largest number ), aortic bodies and in
brain. Carotid bodies and aortic bodies are the
Transport of Carbon Dioxide peripheral chemoreceptors, whereas these located in
brain are called central chemoreceptors.
Å CO2 is transported from the tissues to blood mainly as
n
Bicarbonate ion in plasma and erythrocytes (about 70%). Peripheral Central
Chemoreceptors
chemoreceptors chemoreceptors
n
Partly as carbaminohaemoglobin, which is formed in the
Stimulated by Stimulated by
RBCs by combination of CO2 and reduced haemoglobin decreased pO2 increased pO2
(about 20-25%). and increased in brain’s extracellular
n
7% CO2 is carried in dissolved state through plasma. H+ concentration fluid
NEET KEY NOTES

Disorders of Respiratory System

Common respiratory disorders are tabulated below
Disorder Characteristics
Asthma
Difficulty in breathing

Wheezing due to the inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
Emphysema
Decreased respiratory surface due to damaged alveolar walls.

Mainly caused due to cigarette smoking.
Occupational respiratory disorder
Mainly caused due to long exposure to grinding or stone breaking.

Inflammation leading to fibrosis of lungs

Protective marks can reduce the risk.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Respiratory Organs

1 Oxygen (O2) is utilised by an organism to 7 Which portion of the human respiratory system is
(a) directly breakdown the nutrient molecules called sound box?
(b) indirectly breakdown the nutrient molecules (a) Larynx (b) Trachea
(c) obtain nourishment from the food (c) Nasopharynx (d) Glottis
(d) burn the organic compounds indirectly 8 Larynx is present in between
2 Process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with (a) epiglottis and glottis (b) trachea and bronchiole
CO 2 produced by the cells is called (c) epiglottis and trachea (d) bronchus and epiglottis
(a) breathing (b) respiration 9 A thin, elastic cartilaginous flap which prevents the
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) exhalation entry of food into larynx during swalloing is
(a) epiglottis (b) glottis (c) bronchi (d) prethoracic
3 Mechanism of breathing and the organs involved
varies among different groups of animals. This 10 At which thoracic vertebra does trachea divide into
difference depends on right and left primary bronchi?
(a) habitats (b) shape and size (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 4
(c) levels of organisation (d) Both (a) and (c) 11 Bronchioles are formed by
4 The organ in reptiles, which can be considered as (a) protoplasmic extension of trachea
analogous to the gills of fishes is/are (b) structural modification of pleural membrane
(a) spiracles (b) dry skin (c) repeated division of bronchi
(d) calcification of pleural membrane
(c) lungs (d) trachea
12 The function of incomplete cartilaginous rings in
5 Correct sequence of the air passage in humans is
human respiratory system is to
(a) Nose → Larynx → Pharynx → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(a) protect alveoli from foreign molecules
(b) Nose → Pharynx → Larynx → Bronchioles → Bronchi
(b) support trachea, bronchi and initial bronchioles
(c) Nose → Pharynx → Larynx → Bronchioles → Trachea (c) harden the terminal ends of bronchioles
(d) External nostril → Nasal passage → Internal nostril → (d) interconnect bronchioles and alveoli
Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi →
Bronchiole → Alveoli 13 Alveoli in human lungs are
(a) thick-walled, terminal ends of bronchioles
6 Nasopharynx opens through the larynx region into the
(b) polygonal, thin, non-vascularised bag-like structure
(a) trachea (b) glottis
(c) not supplied by blood and are non-functional
(c) lungs (d) sound box
(d) thin-walled, vascularised irregular walled structures
14 The lungs of human comprises 19 The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human
(a) bronchi (b) bronchioles respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select
(c) alveoli (d) All of these the option, which gives correct identification and
15 The fluid which reduces the friction on the lungs main function and/or characteristic. NEET 2013
surface is present
(a) in between double-layered pleura A
(b) within single-layered pleura
(c) in between cuticle layer over lungs Bronchus
(d) within mucous membrane surrounding the lungs
Cut end of rib B
16 Conducting part of the respiratory system comprises
Lung
(a) external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles C
(b) internal nostrils up to trachea D
(c) epiglottis up to trachea Heart
(d) larynx up to bronchi (a) A–trachea–long tube supported by complete
17 Respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
comprises (b) B–pleural membrane–surround ribs on both sides to
provide cushion against rubbing
(a) lungs and pleural membrane
(c) C–alveoli–thin-walled vascular bag-like structures for
(b) alveoli and their ducts exchange of gases
(c) bronchus and their protecting covering (d) D–lower end of lungs–diaphragm pulls it down during
(d) diaphragm and alveoli inspiration
18 The dorsal, ventral, lateral and lower side of thoracic 20 In humans, which of the following is not a step in
chamber is bounded by respiration?
(a) vertebral column, sternum, ribs, diaphragm (a) Alveolar diffusion of O 2 and CO 2
(b) vertebral column, ribs, sternum, diaphragm (b) Transport of gases by blood
(c) diaphragm, ribs, sternum, vertebral column (c) Diffusion of O 2 and CO 2 between blood and tissues
(d) ribs, diaphragm, sternum, vertebral column (d) Utilisation of CO 2 by cells for catabolic reactions
TOPIC 2 ~ Mechanism of Breathing and Pulmonary Volumes
21 Movement of the air into and out of the lungs is (c) intrapulmonary pressure is equal to the atmospheric
carried out by pressure
(a) imbibition (b) pressure gradient (d) intrapleural pressure becomes more than the
(c) osmosis (d) diffusion intra-alveolar pressure
22 Inspiration is initiated by 25 Which of the following changes occurs in diaphragm
(a) the extension of diaphragm and intercostal muscles when expiration of air takes
(b) the contraction of diaphragm place?
(c) decrease in volume of thoracic chamber (a) External intercostal muscles relax and diaphragm
(d) the contraction of lungs contracts
23 Decreased intrapulmonary pressure during inspiration (b) External intercostal muscles contract and diaphragm
relaxes
is caused due to
(a) increased pulmonary volume and thoracic volume (c) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm relax
(b) contraction of intercostal muscles (d) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract
(c) upliftment of ribs and sternum 26 During expiration,
(d) All of the above (a) thoracic volume increases and diaphragm contracts
24 Expiration occurs when (b) intrapulmonary pressure increases above atmospheric
(a) intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
pressure (c) sternum is present at normal position
(b) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the atmospheric (d) Both (b) and (c)
pressure
27 Additional muscles which impact the ability of 31 Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume of an
humans to increase the strength of inspiration and athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, respectively. What
expiration are found in will be his expiratory capacity if the residual volume
(a) chest (b) diaphragm is 1200 mL? NEET (National) 2019
(c) abdomen (d) lungs (a) 1700 mL (b) 2200 mL
28 In the given diagram of mechanism of breathing, (c) 2700 mL (d) 1500 mL
what does A, B and C depict? 32 Additional volume of air, a person can inspire and
A expire by forcible inspiration and expiration,
respectively is called
(a) TV (b) IRV and ERV
B (c) IC and EC (d) FRC
Volume of thorax decreased
33 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They
do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of
NEET 2017
C (a) Residual Volume (RV)
(b) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
(c) Tidal Volume (TV)
(a) A–Air goes inside to lungs, B–Ribs and sternum
(d) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
returned to original position, C– Diaphragm
contracted 34 The maximum volume of air, a person can breathe in
(b) A–Air expelled from lungs, B–Ribs and sternum after a forced expiration is known as
returned to original position, C–Diaphragm relaxed and NEET (Odisha) 2019
arched upward (a) expiratory capacity
(c) A–Air expelled from lungs, B–Ribs and sternum go (b) vital capacity
upward, C–Diaphragm relaxed and arched upward (c) inspiratory capacity
(d) A–Air goes inside to lungs, B–Ribs and sternum go (d) total lung capacity
upward, C–Diaphragm relaxed and arched upward 35 After forceful inspiration, the amount of air that can
29 Tidal volume is be breathed out by maximum forced expiration is
(a) volume of air inspired or expired in normal breathe equal to
(b) additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a (a) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
forcible inspiration (b) IRV + RV +ERV
(c) additional volume of air, a person can expire by a (c) IRV +TV + ERV
forcible expiration (d) TV + RV + ERV
(d) remaining volume of air in the lungs even after a
36 Total lung capacity is
forcible expiration
(a) total volume of air accommodated in lungs at the end a
30 Approximate volume of air, a healthy man can inspire forced inspiration
or expire per minute is (b) RV + ERV + TV+ IRV
(a) 5000 to 6000 mL (b) 6000 to 7000 mL (c) vital capacity + residual volume
(c) 6000 to 8000 mL (d) 7000 to 9000 mL (d) All of the above
TOPIC 3 ~ Exchange of Gases

37 Primary site of the gaseous exchange in humans is 39 Factors affecting the rate of diffusion is/are
(a) lungs (a) pressure gradient (b) solubility of gases
(b) alveoli (c) thickness of membranes (d) All of these
(c) bronchus
40 The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the
(d) diaphragm
lungs is NEET 2016
38 In humans, exchange of gases occurs (a) equal to that in the blood
(a) by diffusion (b) more than that in the blood
(b) between blood and tissue (c) less than that in the blood
(c) between alveoli and pulmonary blood capillary
(d) less than that of carbon dioxide
41 Identify A to E in the given diagram and choose the 45 Partial pressure of O 2 and CO 2 in atmospheric air as
correct option accordingly. compared to that in alveolar air is
Inspired air Expired air pO 2 pCO 2
(a) Higher Lower
(b) Higher Higher
Alveolar air (c) Lower Lower
A (d) Lower Higher
CO2 O2
46 Almost same pCO 2 in humans is found in
CO2 O2 (a) oxygenated blood and tissues
B C (b) deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood
(c) deoxygenated blood and tissues
47 Almost same pO 2 in humans is found in
(a) alveoli and tissues
(b) oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood
D E (c) alveoli and oxygenated blood
(carrying (carrying (d) tissues and deoxygenated blood
deoxygenated blood) oxygenated blood)
pO2 = 40 mm Hg pO2 = 95 mm Hg
48 Which of the following would have the same O 2
CO2 O2 content?
pCO2 = 45 mm Hg pCO2 = 40 mm Hg
(a) Blood entering the lungs – Blood leaving the lungs
CO2 O2 (b) Blood entering the right side of the heart – Blood
leaving the right side of the heart
Body tissues (c) Blood entering the right side of the heart – Blood
leaving the left side of the heart
(a) A–Alveolus, B–Pulmonary artery, C–Pulmonary vein, (d) Blood entering the tissue capillaries – Blood leaving the
D–Systemic vein, E–Systemic arteries tissue capillaries
(b) A–Alveolus, B–Pulmonary vein, C–Pulmonary artery, 49 The solubility of CO2 in the blood is
D–Systemic vein, E–Systemic arteries
(a) 10-15 times higher than that of O2
(c) A–Alveolus, B–Pulmonary vein, C–Pulmonary artery, (b) 20-25 times higher than that of O2
D–Systemic arteries, E–Systemic vein
(c) slightly higher than that of O2
(d) A–Alveolus, B–Pulmonary vein, C–Pulmonary artery, (d) slightly lower than that of O2
D–Systemic arteries, E–Portal vein
50 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and choose
42 Which vein contains the oxygenated blood in humans?
(a) Cardiac vein (b) Hepatopancreatic the correct option accordingly.
(c) Portal vein (d) Pulmonary vein Air
43 Name the artery which carries deoxygenated blood.
(a) Pulmonary artery
Alveolar wall C
(b) Pulmonary trunk (one-celled thick)
(c) Systemic artery
(d) Vena cava A
44
Pressure of Gases Systemic Veins Systemic Arteries
O2 40 mm Hg 95 mm Hg
Blood B
CO2 A B capillary
Choose the correct option for A and B to complete the

given data. (a) A–Alveolar cavity, B–WBC, C–Capillary wall
(a) A– 45 mm Hg; B– 40 mm Hg
(b) A–Alveolar cavity, B–RBC, C–Systemic wall
(b) A– 45 mm Hg; B– 45 mm Hg
(c) A–Alveolar cavity, B–RBC, C–Basement membrane
(c) A– 45 mm Hg; B– 50 mm Hg
(d) A–Alveolar cavity, B–WBC, C–Systemic wall
(d) A– 45 mm Hg; B– 55 mm Hg
51 How many layers are present in the diffusion 53 After its uptake by the body tissues, a large
membrane of alveolus capillary? proportion of oxygen still remain unused. This
(a) 5 oxygen is used for/as
(b) 3 (a) raising the pCO 2 of alveoli to 40 mm Hg
(c) 2 (b) reserve to compensate O 2 during heavy exercise
(d) 4 (c) releasing O 2 to body tissues
52 Alveoli of the lungs are lined by (d) maintaining oxyhaemoglobin saturation
(a) simple epithelium 54 The total thickness of the diffusion membrane of
(b) squamous epithelium alveolus capillary is
(c) cuboidal epithelium (a) less than 1 cm (b) less than 2 cm
(d) ciliated epithelium (c) less than 1 mm (d) more than 1 mm
TOPIC 4~ Transport of Gases

55 What percentage of O 2 is transported by RBCs and 60 Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation at the tissues occurs
plasma, respectively in human body? under
(a) 50, 50 (a) low pO2 and low pCO2
(b) low pO2 , high pCO2 and high H+
(b) 97, 3
(c) 90, 10 (c) high pO2 , low H+ and low pCO2
(d) 80, 20 (d) low pO2 , low H+ and high pCO2
56 Approximately 70% of carbon dioxide absorbed by 61 Which situation would result in the greatest degree of
the blood will be transported to the lungs O2 saturation for haemoglobin, if p O2 remains
CBSE-AIPMT 2014 constant?
(a) as bicarbonate ions (a) Increased CO2 level, decreased temperature
(b) in the form of dissolved gas molecules (b) Decreased CO2 level, decreased temperature
(c) Increased CO2 level, increased temperature
(c) by binding to RBC
(d) Decreased CO2 level, increased temperature
(d) as carbaminohaemoglobin
62 Under normal conditions, what amount of O 2 is
57 Blood carries the CO 2 in three forms. The correct
delivered by 100 mL of the oxygenated blood?
percentages of CO 2 in these forms are (a) 5 mL (b) 4 mL (c) 3 mL (d) 2 mL
As carbamino As Dissolved form 63 When you hold your breathe, which of the following
haemoglobin in RBC bicarbonates in plasma
gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to
(a) 20–25% 70% 7% breathe?
(b) 70% 20–25% 7% (a) Falling CO 2 concentration
(c) 20–25% 7% 70% (b) Rising O 2
(d) 7% 20–25% 70%
(c) Falling O 2 concentration
(d) Rising CO 2 concentration
58 Each haemoglobin molecule can carry 64 What will be the pO 2 and pCO 2 in the atmospheric
(a) two molecules of O2 air compared to those in the tissue fluid when not
(b) three molecules of O2 breathing?
(c) four molecules of O2 (a) p O2 lesser, pCO2 higher (b) p O2 higher, pCO2 lesser
(d) one molecule of O2 (c) p O2 higher, pCO2 higher (d) p O2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
59 The shape of oxygen dissociation curve plotted 65 Transport of CO2 by the blood is primarily dependent
between % saturation of Hb with O 2 and pO 2 is upon
(a) sigmoid (a) solubility of CO2 in blood
(b) J-shaped (b) carbonic anhydrase
(c) exponential, consisting of three phases (c) binding of haemoglobin to CO2
(d) hyperbolic (d) binding of haemoglobin to O2
A B 70 Shifting of the given curve to right takes place in the

−
66 CO 2 + H 2O s H CO s HCO
2 3 + H+ 3 case of
Name the enzymes A and B in the above equation.
(a) A–Carbonic anhydrase; B–Carbonic hydratase
100
(b) A–Carbonic hydratase; B–Carbonic anhydrase
(c) A–Carbonic anhydrase; B–Carbonic anhydrase
haemoglobin with oxygen

Percentage saturation of
80
(d) A–Carbonic hydratase; B–Carbonic hydratase
67 Which of the following equations is correct? 60
+
(a) KHbO2 + H s Hb + K + H2 O
40
RBC
Association in tissues
(b) Hb + O2 HbO2 20
Dissociation in lungs
0
(c) Na + + HCO3− NaHCO3
Erythrocyte 20 40 60 80 100 120
Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)
Dissociation in tissues
(d) HbO2 Hb + O2
Association in lungs (a) raise in p CO2 (b) fall in pH
(c) raise in temperature (d) All of these
68 People who have migrated from the planes to an area
71 When you hold your breathe which of the following
adjoining Rohtang pass about six months back
gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to
CBSE-AIPMT 2012
breathe? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(a) have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower
(a) Falling O2 concentration
binding affinity to O2
(b) Rising CO2 concentration
(b) are not physically fit to play games like football (c) Falling CO2 concentration
(c) suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, (d) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration
fatigue, etc
(d) have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has 72 Blood does not become acidic although it carries CO 2
very high binding affinity to O2 because
(a) CO2 is continuously diffused through tissues
69 What is Bohr’s effect? (b) CO2 combines with H2 O to form H2 CO3
(a) A rise in levels of pCO2 or fall in pH decreases the (c) in CO2 transport, buffer plays an important role
oxygen affinity of haemoglobin (d) CO2 is absorbed by WBC
(b) Decrease in levels of pCO2 or fall in pH decreases the
oxygen affinity of haemoglobin 73 Reduction of pH of blood will NEET 2016
(a) reduce the blood supply to the brain
(c) A rise in levels of pCO2 or increase in pH decreases the
(b) decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
oxygen affinity of haemoglobin
(c) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
(d) Shifting of the oxygen-haemoglobin curve to left (d) reduce the rate of heartbeat
TOPIC 5 ~ Regulation of Respiration and

Disorder of Respiratory System
74 Human beings have a significant ability to maintain 76 Pneumotaxic centre of the brain, i.e. pons region can
and moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the (a) moderate the function of respiratory system
demands of the body tissues. This is achieved by (b) decrease the heart rate
(a) arterial system (c) increase the heart rate
(b) systemic vein system (d) increase the flow of blood
(c) neural system 77 A chemosensitive area found adjacent to the rhythm
(d) cardiac system centre in the brain is highly sensitive to the increased
concentration of
75 Which part of the brain is called respiratory rhythm
(a) CO2
centre? (b) O2
(a) Cerebellum region (b) Brain stem region (c) H+
(c) Medulla region (d) Temporal region (d) Both (a) and (c)
78 Receptors in aortic arch and carotid arch recognise 81 Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar
the changes in the concentration of surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically
(a) OH − and H+ reduced due to the damage in the alveolar walls.
(b) O2 and CO2 CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) CO 2 and H+ (a) Pleurisy (b) Emphysema
(d) blood circulation (c) Pneumonia (d) Asthma
79 Which of the following gases is quite insignificant for 82 Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly
the regulation of respiration rhythm? by cigarette smoking NEET 2016
(a) SO 2 (b) N 2 (c) CO (d) O2 (a) asthma (b) respiratory acidosis
(c) respiratory alkalosis (d) emphysema
80 Due to increasing airborne allergens and pollutants,
many people in urban areas are suffering from 83 Which of the following is an occupational respiratory
respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to disorder? NEET 2018
NEET (National) 2019 (a) Botulism (b) Silicosis
(a) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles (c) Anthracis (d) Emphysema
(b) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the 84 Occupational respiratory disorders can be prevented by
alveolar walls (a) the intake of antihistamine tablets daily
(c) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes (b) avoid areas with increased levels of dust and smoke areas
(d) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity (c) wearing protective masks
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 88 Assertion (A) The higher amount of CO 2 can diffuse
■ Direction (Q. No. 85-94 ) In each of the following
through diffusion membrane per unit difference in
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by partial pressure as compared to O 2 .
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, Reason (R) Solubility of CO 2 is 20-25 times higher
mark the correct answer as than that of O 2 .
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 89 Assertion (A) Humans can swin and breathe inside
of A water.
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Reason (R) Respiratory organ of humans is lungs.
explanation of A
90 Assertion (A) pO 2 is the highest in alveoli.
(d) If A is false, but R is true Reason (R) Partial pressure of a gas is the pressure
contributed by individual gas in a mixture.
85 Assertion (A) Trachea and bronchioles are supported
91 Assertion (A) Blood oxygen does not have
by cartilaginous ring.
significant effect on the respiratory centre of brain.
Reason (R) Trachea can collapse during expiration. Reason (R) Increased pCO 2 and H + levels detected
86 Assertion (A) Mammals perform negative pressure by chemoreceptors activate the respiratory centres to
breathing. mediate the necessary adjustments.
Reason (R) Using muscular movement, mammals 92 Assertion (A) Bohr’s effect occurs at the level of
create a pressure gradient so that they can perform alveoli of lungs.
inspiration and expiration. Reason (R) It occurs when high concentration of CO 2
87 Assertion (A) CO2 transport occurs very fast through decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen.
RBCs. 93 Assertion (A) High carbon monoxide (CO) levels can
Reason (R) Enzyme carbonic anhydrase is absent in kill a person.
the blood plasma. Reason (R) CO has greater affinity for haemoglobin.
94 Assertion (A) In normal breathing, inspiration is an 101 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
active process. features of diaphragm in the respiratory tract?
Reason (R) Inspiration is facilitated by contraction of (a) Found in mammals
diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. (b) Highly muscular and fibrous partition, elevated towards
the thorax like a dome
II. Statement Based Questions (c) Separates thoracic and abdominal cavity
95 Which of the following statement is correct about (d) All of the above
respiratory organs of different animals? 102 Which of following option is not true?
(a) The exchange of O2 and CO2 via simple diffusion (a) The partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood
across body surface occurs in aquatic arthropods is 40 mm Hg
(b) A complex system of air tubes called trachea is present
(b) The partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood is
in earthworm for respiration
95 mm Hg
(c) Fishes have lungs for respiration
(c) The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is
(d) Cutaneous respiration occurs in amphibians
104 mm Hg
96 Which of the following statement is incorrect about (d) The partial pressure of CO2 in atmospheric air is
nasopharynx? 40 mm Hg
(a) Internal nostrils open into nasopharynx
(b) It is the passage for air only 103 Which statement correctly suggests that most of the
(c) It is a portion of pharynx oxygen is transported from the lungs to the tissues,
(d) Nasopharynx opens through the glottis of the larynx combined with the haemoglobin rather than dissolved
region into the trachea in the blood plasma?
(a) Oxygen carrying capacity of the whole blood is much
97 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? higher than that of plasma and oxygen content of the
(a) The conducting part of the respiratory system transports blood after leaving the lungs is greater than that of the
the atmospheric air to alveoli blood entering the lungs
(b) Conducting part of the respiratory system clears the air
from foreign particles, humidifies and brings it to the (b) Haemoglobin can combine with oxygen
body temperature (c) Oxyhaemoglobin can dissociate into haemoglobin and
(c) Exchange part of the respiratory system is the actual oxygen
site at which O2 and CO2 exchange takes place (d) Increase in the CO2 concentration decrease the oxygen
(d) All of the above affinity of haemoglobin
98 Read the following statements. 104 Which of the following statement is incorrect about
I. The Intrapulmonary pressure is less than the the given graph?
atmospheric pressure.
II. Increased thoracic volume and pulmonary volume.
100
In which of the above two situations inspiration takes
place? 80
Choose the correct option accordingly.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) I and II (d) I or II 60
A
99 Select the correct statement. NEET (Odisha) 2019 40
(a) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles
(b) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric 20
pressure during inspiration
(c) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less 0
than intrapulmonary pressure 20 40 60 80 100
(d) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm B
100 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for (a) The curve is called oxygen dissociation curve
pleural membrane of lungs? (b) The part A represents percentage saturation of
(a) It is double-layered with outer layer is in contact with haemoglobin with oxygen
throracic wall and inner layer is in contact with lungs
(c) The part B represents partial pressure of carbon
(b) Fluid contained in it reduces the friction on the lung dioxide
surface
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) This curve is highly useful in studying the effect of
(d) None of the above factors like pCO2 , H+ concentration, etc
105 Read the following statements and select the correct Choose the correct option.
one. (a) I → II → III → IV (b) I → II → IV → III
(a) The H+ released from carbonic acid combines with (c) IV → III → II → I (d) IV → II → III → I
haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid 111 Consider the following statements.
(b) Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is alkaline I. Thoracic chamber which contain lungs is anatomically
(c) More than 70% of CO2 is transferred from the tissue to an air-tight chamber.
the lungs in the form of carbamino compounds II. Change in the volume of thoracic cavity does not affect
(d) In a healthy person, the haemoglobin content is more the pulmonary cavity.
than 25 gm per 100 mL Select the correct option.
106 Read the following statements and identify the (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true
incorrect statement. (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
(a) pO2 is the major factor which affects the binding of 112 Consider the following statements.
CO2 with haemoglobin
I. Red coloured iron containing pigment in RBCs is
(b) pCO2 is low and p O2 is high in tissues haemoglobin.
(c) RBC contains a very high concentration of carbonic II. O2 binds with haemoglobin irreversible to form
anhydrase oxyhaemoglobin.
(d) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers Select the correct option.
approximately 4 mL of CO2 to alveoli (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true
107 Which one of the following options correctly (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
represents the lung conditions in asthma and 113 Blood carbon dioxide levels determine the pH of
emphysema, respectively? NEET 2018 other body fluids as well as blood, including the pH
(a) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of of cerebrospinal fluid. How does this enable the
bronchioles organism to control breathing?
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory (a) The brain directly measures and monitors carbon
surface dioxide and causes breathing changes accordingly
(c) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory (b) The medulla, which is in contact with cerebrospinal
surface fluid, monitors pH and uses this measure to control
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of breathing
bronchioles (c) The brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to
force the animal to retain more or less carbon dioxide
108 Which one of the following is the correct statement
(d) Stretch receptors in the lungs cause the medulla to
for respiration in humans? CBSE-AIPMT 2012
speed up or slow breathing
(a) Cigarette smoking may lead to the inflammation of
bronchi 114 Read the following statements.
(b) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region I. On an average a healthy human breathes
of brain can increase the duration of inspiration 12-16 times/minute.
(c) Workers in grinding and stone breaking industries may II. The volume of air involved in the breathing
suffer from lung fibrosis movements can be estimated by spirometer.
(d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) is carried by III. Diaphragm is very useful in both inspiration and
haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin expiration.
109 Which of the following statements is incorrect Which of the above statements are incorrect?
regarding respiratory system? (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a network of (c) I and III (d) None of these
bronchi 115 Arrange the following components of pulmonary
(b) the alveoli are highly vascularised volume in the order of their increasing values.
(c) the lungs are covered by a double-layered membrane I. Tidal volume
(d) the pleural fluid reduces friction on the lung surface II. Residual volume
110 Arrange the given steps of expiration in the sequence III. Expiratory reserve volume
of event occurring first. IV. Vital capacity
I. Relaxation of the diaphragm and sternum. Choose the correct option.
II. Reduction of the pulmonary volume. (a) I < II < III < IV (b) I < IV < III < II
III. Expulsion of air from the lungs.
(c) I < III < II < IV (d) I < IV < II < III
IV. Increase in intrapulmonary pressure.
116 Arrange the given steps of respiration in the sequence III. The CO 2 produced by the tissues diffuses passively
of event they occur. into the blood stream and passes in the red blood
I. Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 acrosses the alveolar corpuscles and reacts with water to form H 2 CO 3 .
membrane. IV. The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO 2 ) in erythrocytes is basic
II. Transport of gases by the blood. in nature.
III. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and V. The chloride ions diffuse from the plasma into the
the resultant release of CO2. erythrocytes to maintain the ionic balance.
IV. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is Choose the correct option.
drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out. True False
V. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the blood and tissue. (a) I, III and V II and IV
Choose the correct option. (b) II and IV I, III and V
(a) IV → I → II → V → III (c) I, II and IV III and V
(b) III → II → V → I → IV (d) III and V I, II and IV
(c) V → IV → III → II → I 121 Consider the following statements.
(d) All of the above I. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the
duration of inspiration and thus, alter the respiratory
117 Binding of O2 with haemoglobin is primarily
rate.
depended upon
II. Occupational respiratory disorder can result in the
I. partial pressure of O2.
proliferation of fibrous tissue in lungs.
II. partial pressure of CO2.
III. hydrogen ion concentration. (a) I is false, II is true (b) Both I and II are true
IV. temperature. (c) I is true, II is false (d) Both I and II are false
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV III. Matching Type Questions
(c) I, III and IV (d) All of these 122 Match the following columns.
118 Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
Column I (Animals) Column II (Types of Breathing)
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature? NEET 2017 A. Frog 1. Network of tubes
I. They do not need to reproduce. B. Fishes 2. Pulmonary respiration through lungs

II. They are somatic cells. C. Insects 3. Branchial respiration through gills
III. They do not metabolise. D. Birds and mammals 4. Cutaneous respiration
IV. All their internal space is available for oxygen
Codes
transport.
A B C D A B C D
Choose the correct option. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(a) Only IV (b) Only I (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
(c) I, III and IV (d) II and III 123 Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
I. The pCO2 level at the tissue is high due to catabolism. (Respiratory capacity) (Description)
II. At the alveolar site, pCO2 is low due to which CO2 and A. Inspiratory Capacity 1. Total air, a person can inspire
H2 O are formed. (IC) after normal expiration.
Select the correct option. B. Expiratory Capacity 2. Maximal volume of the air, a
(EC) person can breathe in after a
(a) I is true, II is false forced expiration.
(b) I is false, II is true
C. Functional Residual 3. Volume of the air that will remain
(c) Both I and II are true Capacity (FRC) in lungs after a normal expiration.
(d) Both I and II are false D. Vital Capacity (VC) 4. Total volume of air, a person can
120 Which of the following statements are true/false? expire after a normal inspiration.
I. The blood transports CO 2 comparatively easily due to Codes

its high solubility. A B C D A B C D
II. Approximately 8.9% of CO 2 is transported being (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 4 3 2
dissolved in the plasma of blood. (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2
124 Which one of the following are the correct matching Codes
of respiratory capacities and respiratory volumes? A B C
(a) 1 2 3
Column I Column II
(b) 3 2 1
(Respiratory capacity) (Respiratory volume)
(c) 2 1 3
A. Residual volume 1. 3000 mL
(d) 2 3 1
B. Vital capacity 2. 3500 mL
C. Inspiratory reserve volume 3. 1200 mL
Column I Column II
D. Inspiratory capacity 4. 4600 mL (Respiratory disorder) (Feature)
A. Asthma 1. Inflammation of nasal tract
Codes
A B C D A B C D B. Bronchitis 2. Spasm of smooth of respiratory tract
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 muscle
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 C. Rhinitis 3. Fully blown out alveoli
125 Match the items given in Column I with those in D. Emphysema 4. Inflammation of bronchi
Codes
NEET 2018
A B C D
Column I Column II (a) 4 2 5 1
(Lung volume) (Value) (b) 5 3 2 1
A. Tidal volume 1. 2500-3000 mL (c) 3 1 5 4
B. Inspiratory reserve volume 2. 1100-1200 mL (d) 2 4 1 3
C. Expiratory reserve volume 3. 500 mL 128 Match the following columns.
D. Residual volume 4. 1000-1100 mL Column I Column II
(Respiratory disorder) (Feature)
Codes
A. Hypopnea 1. Difficult breathing with lying down
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 B. Hyperpnea 2. Painful breathing
(b) 3 1 4 2 C. Apnea 3. No breathing
(c) 3 2 1 4
D. Dyspnea 4. Rapid breathing
(d) 4 3 2 1
E. Orthopnea 5. Slow breathing
Column I Column II Codes
( % of CO2 in blood) (Transported by) A B C D E
A. 20-25% 1. Bicarbonates
(a) 5 3 4 2 1
(b) 5 3 1 2 4
B. 70% 2. RBC (c) 5 4 3 2 1
C. About 7% 3. Plasma (d) 5 4 2 3 1
NCERT Exemplar
129 Respiration in insects is called direct because 130 Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the
(a) the cells exchange O2 /CO2 directly with the air in the normal breathing in humans.
tubes
(a) External and internal intercostal muscles
(b) the tissues exchange O2 /CO2 directly with coelomic fluid
(b) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
(c) the tissues exchange O2 /CO2 directly with the air
outside through body surface (c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(d) tracheal tubes exchange O2 /CO2 directly with the (d) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles
haemocoel which then exchange with tissues
131 A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an 138 CO 2 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when
accident, without any damage to the lungs its effect (a) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
could be (b) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low
(a) reduced breathing rate (c) pCO2 and pO2 are equal
(b) rapid increase in breathing rate (d) None of the above
(c) no change in respiration 139 In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated
(d) cessation of breathing by
132 It is known that exposure to carbon monoxide is (a) stethoscope
harmful to animals because (b) hygrometer
(a) it reduces CO2 transport (c) sphygmomanometer
(b) it reduces O2 transport (d) spirometer
(c) it increases CO2 transport 140 From the following relationships between respiratory
(d) destroys haemoglobin volume and capacities, mark the correct relationship.
133 Mark the true statement among the following with I. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume (TV)
reference to normal breathing. +Residual Volume (RV)
(a) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is
active II. Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume (TV)
(b) Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is +Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory
passive Reserve Volume (ERV)
(c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes III. Residual Volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) −
(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
134 A person breathes in some volume of air by forced IV. Tidal Volume (TV) =Inspiratory Capacity (IC) −
inspiration after having a forced expiration. This Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
quantity of air taken in is Choose the correct option.
(a) total lung capacity (b) tidal volume (a) I. Incorrect, II. Incorrect, III. Incorrect, IV. Correct
(c) vital capacity (d) inspiratory capacity (b) I. Incorrect, II. Correct, III. Incorrect, IV. Correct
135 Mark the incorrect statement in context to O 2 binding (c) I. Correct, II. Correct, III. Incorrect, IV. Correct
to Hb. (d) I. Correct, II. Incorrect, III. Correct, IV. Incorrect
(a) Higher pH 141 The oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve will
(b) Lower temperature show a right shift in case of
(c) Lower pCO2 (a) high pCO2
(d) Higher pO2 (b) high pO2
136 Incidence of emphysema a respiratory disorder is high (c) low pCO2
in cigarette smokers. In such cases, (d) less H+ concentration
(a) the bronchioles are found damaged 142 Match the following columns.
(b) the alveolar walls are found damaged Column I Coulmn II
(c) the plasma membrane is found damaged A. Earthworm 1. Moist cuticle
(d) the respiratory muscles are found damaged B. Aquatic arthropods 2. Gills
137 Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialised C. Fishes 3. Lungs
centres in the brain. One of the following listed centres
D. Birds/reptiles 4. Trachea
can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation.
(a) Medullary inspiratory centre Codes
(b) Pneumotaxic centre A B C D A B C D
(c) Apneustic centre (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
(d) Chemosensitive centre (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 4 3
Answers
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (d) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (c) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (a) 63 (d) 64 (b) 65 (b) 66 (c) 67 (d) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (b) 72 (c) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (c) 76 (a) 77 (d) 78 (c) 79 (d) 80 (a)
81 (b) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (d)

85 (c) 86 (b) 87 (c) 88 (a) 89 (b) 90 (b) 91 (a) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (b)
95 (d) 96 (b) 97 (d) 98 (c) 99 (b) 100 (c) 101 (d) 102 (d) 103 (a) 104 (c)
105 (a) 106 (b) 107 (c) 108 (c) 109 (a) 110 (b) 111 (a) 112 (a) 113 (b) 114 (d)
115 (c) 116 (a) 117 (d) 118 (a) 119 (c) 120 (a) 121 (b) 122 (b) 123 (b) 124 (c)
125 (b) 126 (c) 127 (d) 128 (c)
129 (d) 130 (d) 131 (d) 132 (b) 133 (b) 134 (c) 135 (a) 136 (b) 137 (b) 138 (b)
139 (d) 140 (b) 141 (a) 142 (b)

1 (b) Oxygen (O2 ) is utilised by the living entities to 7 (a) Larynx is the portion of human respiratory system
indirectly breakdown the nutrients like glucose and called as sound box. It is a cartilaginous box present in
derive energy for performing various physiological the neck region which helps in sound production in
activities. mammals.
2 (c) The process of exchange of oxygen from the 10 (a) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the
atmosphere with carbon dioxide produced by the cells is mid thoracic cavity. It divides at the level of 5th
called breathing, commonly known as respiration. thoracic vertebra into the right and left primary bronchi.
3 (d) Mechanism of breathing vary among different 13 (d) Alveoli in human lungs are thin-walled, vascularised
groups of animals depending mainly on their habitats irregular walled bag-like structure at the terminal ends
and levels of organisation. This can be explained as of bronchioles. These are the functional unit of lungs
Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, and are supplied with blood.
flatworms, etc., exchange O2 with CO2 by simple 15 (a) Humans have two lungs, which are covered by a
diffusion over their entire body surface. Earthworms use double membrane called pleura, with pleural fluid
their moist cuticle and insects have a network of tubes between them. Pleural fluid reduces the friction on the
called trachea. Specialised vascular structures called lung surface. The outer pleural membrane is in close
gills are used by most aquatic arthropods and molluscs, contact with the thoracic lining whereas the inner pleural
whereas vascularised bags called lungs are used by membrane is in the contact with the lung surface.
terrestrial forms.
16 (a) The conducting portion of the respiratory system
5 (d) The correct sequence of air passage in humans is consists of nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi,
represented by option (d). The passage can be explained
bronchioles and terminal bronchioles, i.e. all structures

by the figure given below. from external nostrils up to terminal bronchioles. It
provides a passage for the air. It conducts the incoming
Internal nostril air by warming, moistening and cleaning it.
Nasal cavity 17 (b) Respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory
Pharynx External nostril system consists of alveoli and their ducts. These serve
Larynx to get rid of the body CO 2 and pick up oxygen from the
Trachea atmosphere. This system is derived from the endoderm.
Bronchi 18 (a) The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by
vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by
Lungs divided into the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped
bronchiole and diaphragm.
further alveoli
19 (c) Option (c) is correct description of part C in the figure.
Diaphragm
C–Alveoli are thin-walled vascular bag-like structures for
Human respiratory organs exchange of gases.
Other options are incorrect and can be corrected as It can be calculated as

follows Expiratory capacity = TV + ERV
l
A–Trachea or Windpipe is a long tube supported by Given, Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 mL
incomplete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired
air. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 1000 mL
l
B–Pleural membrane is double-layered which reduces = 500 + 1000 = 1500 mL.
friction on the lung surface. 33 (a) In lungs, even after the most forceful expiration
l
D–Diaphragm is pulled upwards during inspiration. some of the volume of air remains. This volume is
termed Residual Volume (RV). Due to this, lungs do not
20 (d) Option (d) is not a step of respiration. In humans,
collapse even after the most forceful expiration. RV is
respiration involves following steps
about 1100 mL to 1200 mL.
l
Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which
atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is 35 (c) Vital Capacity (VC) includes ERV, TV and IRV. It
released out. can also be defined as the maximum volume of air a
l
Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) acrosses alveolar person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
membrane. 39 (d) Pressure/concentration gradient, solubility of gases
l
Transport of gases by the blood. as well as the thickness of the membranes involved in
l
Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissue. diffusion affects the rate of diffusion. For example, CO2
l
Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and is 20-25% more soluble than O2 due to which the
release of CO2. former diffuses faster across diffusion membrane.
21 (b) The movement of the air into and out of the lungs is 40 (b) The partial pressure of oxygen ( pO2 ) in alveoli of
carried out by creating a pressure gradient between the lungs is 104 mm Hg, which is more than that of blood in
lungs and the atmosphere. the blood capillaries of lung alveoli (40 mm Hg).
23 (d) Option (d) is correct and can be explained as This difference allows passive diffusion of O2 from
Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm. air-filled in the lungs into the blood vessel of lung
It is achieved by the contraction of the external alveoli.
intercostal muscles which up lift the ribs and the 42 (d) Pulmonary vein is the only vein in body, which
sternum. The overall increase in the thoracic volume carries oxygenated blood rather than deoxygenated
causes a similar increase in the pulmonary volume. This blood. It carries the blood from the lungs to the left
decreases the intrapulmonary pressure forcing the air auricle of heart. From left auricle, blood goes to the left
from outside to move into the lungs (i.e. inspiration). ventricle, which then distributes that blood all over the
24 (b) Expiration takes place when the intrapulmonary body.
pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure, i.e. 43 (a) Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from
there is positive pressure in the lungs with respect to the the right ventricle to the lungs for the oxygenation of
atmospheric pressure. deoxygenated blood.
25 (c) Expiration is the process by which CO2 is expelled 45 (a) Partial pressure of O2 in the atmosphere is
out from the lungs. During expiration, muscle fibres of 159 mm Hg and in the alveolar air is 104 mm Hg. Also,
the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles get the partial pressure of CO2 in the atmosphere is 0.3 mm
relaxed. The diaphragm becomes convex and Hg and in the alveolar air is 40 mm Hg.
dome-shaped so, as to decrease the volume of the
thoracic cavity. Thus, we can say that pO2 is higher in the atmosphere
as compared to alveoli and pCO2 is lower in the
26 (d) During expiration, decreased volume of thoracic atmosphere as compared to alveoli.
capacity and pulmonary capacity increases the
46 (c) Deoxygenated blood and tissues, both have the
intrapulmonary pressure above atmospheric pressure.
same partial pressure of CO2 , i.e. 45 mm Hg.

The sternum and diaphragm which were elevated during
inspiration acquire their normal position, causing the air 47 (d) pO2 is same in between tissues and deoxygenated
to be expelled from the lungs. blood, i.e. 40 mm Hg.
27 (c) Additional muscles which impact the ability of 48 (b) Same O2 content is present in blood entering the
humans to increase the strength of respiration are found right side of the heart through systemic vein (i.e.
in the abdomen. This is due to the fact that we can pO2 = 40 mm Hg, deoxygenated blood) and the blood
voluntarily take deep breathe by an effort. In the leaving the right side of the heart through pulmonary
process of deep inspiration or expiration, chest artery (i.e. pO2 = 40 mmHg, deoxygenated blood)
distention is brought about by the external intercostal which goes into the lungs for oxygenation.
muscles and the abdominal muscles. 49 (b) The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than
29 (a) Volume of the air inspired or expired during normal that of O2 . Therefore, the amount of CO2 that can
breathe is called tidal volume. It is about 500 mL of air diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit
in average young adult man. difference in partial pressure is much higher as
31 (d) The expiratory capacity of athlete will be 1500 mL. compared to that of O2 .
51 (b) The diffusion membrane is made up of three major 60 (b) In the tissues, there is low p O2, high p CO2, high
layers, namely the thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, H+ ion concentration and high temperature.
the endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement All these conditions are favourable for the dissociation
substance (composed of a thin basement membrane of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin.
supporting the squamous epithelium and basement
membrane surrounding the single layer endothelial cells 61 (b) Decreased level of CO2 and temperature conditions
of capillaries) in between them. along with lesser H+ , high pO2 , etc., would result in
greatest degree of O2 saturation for haemoglobin, if pO2
52 (b) Squamous epithelium consists of a flat disc-like
is constant. These conditions favour the binding of O2 to
cells with a centrally located and oval or spherical
haemoglobin. While low pO2 , high CO2 , high H+ , etc,
nucleus (polygonal in surface).
favour dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.
It looks like the tiles of floor. It forms inner lining of the
63 (d) Rising CO2 concentration will lead to urge to
lung alveoli, because it allows efficient diffusion of
breathe,this is because CO2 is toxic to human body and
gases across it.
needs to be excreted.
55 (b) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBCs in the 64 (b) pO 2 in tissue fluid measures 40 mm Hg and pCO 2
blood. The remaining 3% of O2 is carried in a dissolved measures 45 mm Hg. In comparison the pO2 and pCO2
state through the plasma. in atmospheric air measures at 159 mm Hg and 0.3 mm
56 (a) The largest fraction of carbon dioxide (about 70%) is
Hg, respectively. Thus, option (b) will correct as pO2
will be higher and pCO2 will be lowered in the
converted to bicarbonates ions (HCO−3 ) and transported atmospheric air.
in the plasma.
66 (c) Both labels A and B are carbonic anhydrase.
Carbonic Carbonic
CO2 + H2 O H2 CO3 HCO−3 + H+ Transport of CO2 by blood is much easier than oxygen
anhydrase anhydrase due to high solubility of CO2 . About 70% of CO2 reacts
with water to form carbonic acid in erythrocytes in the
58 (c) Each haemoglobin (Hb) molecule can carry a
presence of enzyme carbonic anhydrase (fastest enzyme
maximum of four molecules of O2 .
known so far). This carbonic acid (H2 CO3 ) then
Hb 4 + 4O2 → Hb 4 O8 dissociates into H+ and HCO−3 ions by the action of
Haemoglobin is a red coloured iron containing pigment same enzyme.
in the RBCs. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in a 67 (d) Option (d) with equation is correct as
reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin (Hb O2 ). Oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2 ) dissociates in the tissue to
59 (a) Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve is provide oxygen in the tissues. And HbO 2 formation or
sigmoid-shaped. association occurs in lungs (alveoli) when oxygen is
The relationship between the pO2 and the per cent inspired through breathing.
saturation of haemoglobin when represented on a graph 68 (a) As a person moves up a hill, the pO2 and total
is termed as oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve. atmospheric pressure decreases. It stimulates the juxta
glomerular cells of kidney to secrete erythropoietin
The pO2 in the arterial blood is about 95 mm Hg and hormone which increases the number of RBCs
the per cent saturation of haemoglobin at this partial (polycythemia) to compensate the supply of O2 .
pressure is 97%. Thus, the people who have migrated from planes to
Rohtang pass will have more RBCs. At higher altitude,
100% saturation of haemoglobin with O2 takes place at haemoglobin has lower binding affinity to O2 because
pO 2 of 140 mm Hg. the primary factor responsible for binding is pO2 which
decreases at higher altitude.
Percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
69 (a) Bohr's effect is described as a rise in pCO2 (or fall

in pH) which decreases the oxygen affinity of
100
haemoglobin thus, raising the P50 value and shifts the
curve to the right. Conversely, a fall in p CO2 and rise
80 in the pH increases oxygen affinity of haemoglobin (P50
value is the value of pO2 at which haemoglobin is 50%
saturated with oxygen to form haemoglobin).
60
70 (d) The relationship between the pO2 and the per cent
saturation of haemoglobin when represented on a graph
40 is called as oxygenhaemoglobin dissociation curve. It is
sigmoid in shape. Rise in p CO2 , H+ ions (fall in pH),
and rise in temperature shifts the HbO2 dissociation
20 curve to the right (as more O2 dissociate from the
oxyhaemoglobin).
71 (b) Rising levels of CO2 concentration in blood would
0 20 40 60 80 100
first create an urge to breathe. When the concentration
Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)
of CO2 becomes equal in lungs and blood, it no longer 87 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
leaves blood and keep rising till the next breath. As we corrected as
breathe in, CO2 diffuses out of lungs and oxygen is RBCs contain high concentration of carbonic anhydrase
taken in. Thus, neutralising the acidity caused by high and minute quantity of same is present in plasma too.
CO2 levels. About 70% of CO2 is transported through RBCs.
72 (c) Blood does not become acidic even after carrying CO2 enters the RBCs where it reacts with water to form
CO2 due to the buffering action of bicarbonates. carbonic acid in the presence of zinc containing
H2 O + CO2 s H2 CO3 s H+ + HCO3− enzyme, carbonic anhydrase.
89 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason
73 (b) Reduction of pH of blood will decrease the affinity is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
of haemoglobin with oxygen. As the pH reduces, i.e.
Humans resort to repeat deep inhalations and
increase in H+ concentration or increase in acidity. exhalations in rapid succesion to store oxygen, so that
This favours the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin they can swim underwater.
thereby giving up more O2 .
74 (c) Neural system in humans regulates and moderate not the correct explanation of Assertion.
the respiratory rhythm. A specialised respiratory centre The pO2 is the highest in the alveoli, i.e. 104 mm Hg
is located in the medulla oblongata and another in pons because inspiration of oxygen from the atmosphere is
Varoli. by the lungs. Also pO2 of the blood capillaries around
These centres regulate the rate and the depth of the alveoli is minimum, thus oxygen diffuse into the
breathing by controlling the contraction of diaphragm blood capillaries.
and other respiratory muscles. Partial pressure of a gas is the pressure contributed by
76 (a) Respiratory centre present in the pons region of the individual gas in a mixture.
brain is called pneumotaxic centre. It can moderate the 91 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
functions of respiratory rhythm centre. Neural signal is the correct explanation of Assertion.
from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration
and thereby, alter the respiratory rate. Respiratory rhythm centres present in the medulla and
pons of the brain are responsible for neural regulation of
77 (d) A chemosensitive area is situated near the respiration.
respiratory centre, medulla. It is highly sensitive to the
change of CO2 concentration or change in blood pH Chemical regulation is mediated by highly senisitive
(H+ ). Blood CO2 concentration influences the pH by chemoreceptors, i.e. carotid and aortic bodies that detect
forming HCO−3 , within the RBCs using the enzyme, changes in pCO2 and H+ levels. If changes are detected,
carbonic anhydrase. they send necessary signals to rhythm centres in brain
80 (a) Wheezing occurs due to the inflammation of for remedial actions. Thus, O2 has almost no or
bronchi and bronchioles. It is one of the most significant insignificant role in regulation of respiratory rhythm.
feature of asthma in which people face difficulty in 92 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
breathing. It is usually caused due to increasing airborne be corrected as
allergens and pollutants. The allergens stimulate the Bohr’s effect occurs at tissue level not at the level of
release of histamine from the mast cells which in turn alveoli of lungs. It refers to the decrease in the affinity
contract the smooth muscles of bronchioles. of haemoglobin to oxygen with decreasing pH
83 (b) Silicosis is an occupational respiratory disorder (increased acidity) due to higher or increasing
caused by excessive inhalation of silica dust. It usually concentration of CO 2 in the body tissues.
affects the workers of grinding or stone breaking 93 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
industries. The long term exposure can cause lung the correct explanation of Assertion.
fibrosis (stiffening), leading to breathing difficulties.
Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin far

85 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and this can be readily as compared to oxygen, since, it has 200 times
corrected as greater affinity for Hb. As a result, carboxyhaemoglobin
Trachea and initial bronchioles are supported by is formed which causes reduced transport of O2 in body.
incomplete cartilaginous rings. These support the trachea As a result, nausea, suffocation and even death occurs.
and prevent it from being collapsed during breathing. 94 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
86 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
not the correct explanation of Assertion. Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is a
The correct explaination would be passive process. During inspiration, diaphragm and
The negative pressure (–5mm Hg), which is lower than external intercostal muscles contract to increase the
atmospheric pressure allows air to move from overall volume of the thoracic cavity. As a result, the
atmosphere (high pressure) to lungs (low pressure zone) pressure inside the lungs is less as compared to
during inspiration. atmospheric pressure. Also, for this inspiration muscle
uses energy for contraction, thus it is referred to as an
active process.
95 (d) Statement in option (d) is correct. 106 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect.
The correct form of rest incorrect statements is as follows The correct form of this statement is
l
The exchange of O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over In tissues, pCO2 is high and pO2 is low.
entire body surface occurs in lower invertebrates like pCO2 in tissues – 45 mm of Hg.
sponges, coelenterates, etc. pO2 in tissues – 40 mm of Hg.
l
Earthworms respire cutaneously, tracheal respiration 107 (c) Statement in option (c) is correctly represents the
occurs in insects (cockroaches). lung condition in asthma and emphysema,
l
Fishes have gills for respiration. respectively.
l
Asthma is inflammation of bronchioles. Its symptoms
96 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can be
include wheezing, coughing and difficulty in
corrected as
breathing mainly during expiration.
Nasopharynx is a portion of pharynx. It is the common
passage for food and air.
l
Emphysema is an inflation or abnormal distension of
the bronchioles or alveolar sacs of the lungs. Many of
Rest other statements are correct. the septa between the alveoli are destroyed and much
98 (c) Both statements I and II will cause inspiration. of the elastic tissue of the lungs is replaced by
Inspiration occurs when there is increase in the thoracic connective tissue. As a result, alveolar septa collapse
volume, which causes similar increase in pulmonary and the surface area gets greatly reduced.
volume.
108 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct.
An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the
Rest other statements are incorrect and can be
intrapulmonary pressure to less than atmospheric pressure
corrected as
which forces the air from outside to move into the lungs,
i.e. inspiration.
l
Cigarette smoking damages the alveolar walls.
l
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre reduce the
99 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct.
rate of inspiration.
Rest other statements are incorrect and can be corrected l
About 20-25% of CO2 is carried as
as
carbaminohaemoglobin.
l
Inspiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.
l
Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is more corrected as
than intrapulmonary pressure.
Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a network of
l
Inspiration is initiated due to the contraction of alveoli.
diaphragm.
111 (a) Statement I is true, but II is false. It can be corrected
100 (c) Statements in option (a) and (b) are correct for pleural as
membrane of lungs. The any change in the volume of thoracic cavity is
Humans have two lungs, which are covered by a double- reflected in the pulmonary (lung) cavity. This
layered pleura with pleural fluid between them. Pleural arrangement is essential for breathing as we cannot
fluid reduces the friction on the lung surface. The outer alter the pulmonary volume directly.
pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic
lining whereas, the inner pleural membrane is in the 112 (a) Statement I is true, but II is false. The corrected
contact with the lung surface. form of statement II is
102 (d) Statement in option (d) is not true. It can be corrected The binding of O2 with haemoglobin (Hb) is
as reversible. O2 binded with Hb in blood is transported
to various body tissues where the complex structure,
The partial pressure of CO2 in atmospheric air is
i.e. oxyhaemoglobin dissociates to release O2 .
0.3 mm/Hg. It is 40 mm/Hg in alveoli and oxygenated
115 (c) Tidal Volume = 500 mL
blood.
104 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect about the given ERV = 1000-1100 mL
graph. It can be corrected as RV = 1100 -1200 mL
The part B represents partial pressure of oxygen. VC = ERV + TV + IRV
105 (a) Statement in option (a) is correct. = 4600 mL
Rest other statements are incorrect and can be corrected Thus, the sequence of pulmonary volumes in order of
as follows their increasing values will be
l
Oxyhaemoglobin present in erythrocytes is acidic due to TV < ERV < RV < VC.
low H+ concentration. 118 (a) Statement IV is most appropriate explanation
l
More than 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate and about adult human RBCs.
only 20-25% is carried as carbaminohaemoglobin. The absence of nucleus in RBC is an adaptation that
l
In a normal/healthy person, the haemoglobin content per allows it to contain more haemoglobin and carry more
100 mL blood is below 20 gm. oxygen by providing empty space. This adaptation
also aids in effective diffusion of oxygen.
RBCs are initially produced in bone marrow with a 134 (c) The maximum volume of air that a person can
nucleus. They then undergo enucleation at maturity, in breathe in after forced expiration or the maximum
which their nucleus is removed. volume of air that a person can breathe out after
120 (a) Statements I, III and V are true. forced inspiration is called vital capacity
Statements II and IV are false. The corrected forms of VC = IRV + ERV + TV
these statements are Inspiratory Reserve Expiratory Reserve Tidal Volume
Volume Volume
l
Approximately 7% of CO2 is transported in a dissolved
The value of vital capacity varies from 3400 to 4800
state through plasma.
mL.
l
The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) is a strong acid formed
135 (a) O 2 binding affinity with Hb is more when there is
when O2 reacts with Hb (reversibly).
high pO 2 , low pCO 2 , low temperature and low pH.
129 (d) Insects have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes) to Thus, option (a) was incorrect in context to O 2
transport atmospheric air within the body. These binding to Hb.
openings lead to trachea.
136 (b) Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar
The tracheal tubes exchange O2 /CO2 directly with the
walls gets damaged. It is a respiratory disorder caused
haemocoel which then exchange with tissues. Thus,
by cigarette smoking and inhalation of other smoke or
respiration in insects is called direct.
toxic substances over a long, continuous period of
130 (d) The diaphragm and a specialised set of muscles, time.
called intercostal muscles present between the ribs are
137 (b) Pneumotaxic centre is a specialised centre located
involved in the normal breathing in humans. They are
in the dorsal part of pons Varolii of the brain. It can
involved in generating pressure gradient between air in
reduce the duration of inspiration and thus alter the
the lungs and the atmosphere, so as to facilitate the intake
of air. respiratory rate.
131 (d) The movement of air into and out of the lungs is 138 (b) When the pCO2 is low and pO2 is high (as in the
carried out by creating a pressure gradient between the lung alveoli), dissociation of CO2 from
lungs and the atmosphere. carbaminohaemoglobin takes place. CO2 which is
The pressure within the lungs is less than the atmospheric bound to haemoglobin from the tissue is delivered at
pressure so there is a negative pressure in the lungs with the alveoli, to maintain the concentration of CO 2 thus
respect to atmospheric pressure. The puncture in the chest increasing pCO 2 .
affects this pressure gradient maintained by the lungs and 139 (d) Spirometer is the device used to measure the
thus may cause cessation of breathing. volume of air involved in breathing movements and it
132 (b) Carbon monoxide is harmful as it reduces O2 also helps in clinical assessment of pulmonary
transport in animals. This can be explained as functions.
Haemoglobin binds with oxygen in a reversible reaction 140 (b) The correct option is (b).
to form oxyhaemoglobin. l
Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume +
Hb + O2 s Hb O2 Inspiratory Reserve Volume (TV + IRV) .
Whereas, the complex formed by the reaction of carbon l
Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume + Inspiratory
monoxide and haemoglobin is incredibly strong and Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
irreversible. (TV + IRV + ERV)
Hb + CO → HbCO l
Residual Volume (RV) of air remaining in the lungs
(Haemoglobin) (Carboxyhaemoglobin) after a forcible expiration.
As a result of this haemoglobin looses its affinity to l
Tidal Volume (TV) of air inspired or expired during a
oxygen. Thus, exposure to CO is considered harmful to normal respiration.

animals as it hinders and reduces the O2 transport in 141 (a) The oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve is
body. shifted to right under following conditions
133 (b) Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is a l
Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen ( pO2).
passive process because inspiration occurs when the l
Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
muscles of diaphragm contract by using energy to (pCO2).
increase the overall volume of thoracic cavity. l
Increase in hydrogen concentration (H + ).
Whereas, during the expiration diaphragm muscles relax l
Decrease in pH activity.
without the use of energy as there is high intrapulmonary
pressure than the atmospheric pressure, thus the air rushes
l
Increased body temperature.
out. Thus, it is a passive process. Thus, option (a) is correct.
CHAPTER > 18
Body Fluids
and Circulation
NEET KEY NOTES
Blood and lymph are mobile fluid connective tissue that flow Characteristics Erythrocytes Leucocytes Thrombocytes
in the network of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels to Formation Liver and spleen Red bone marrow Red bone
transport of nutrients, gases and wastes. in embryonic and lymph marrow,
life, red bone produced from
Blood marrow in adults megakaryocytes
Colour Red, due to the Colourless Colourless
It comprises of plasma and formed elements. presence of iron
containing respi-
1. Plasma ratory pigment,
i.e. haemoglobin
Å It is straw coloured viscous fluid, constitutes 55% of blood,
contains 90-92% water and 6-8% proteins. Lifespan 120 days Variable 8-9 days
short-lived
Å Major proteins are tabulated below
Structure Non-nucleated Nucleated Non-nucleated
Proteins Functions biconcave rounded cells cell fragments
Fibrinogen Blood clotting
Å Leucocytes or WBCs are further categorised as
Globulins Defence mechanism of body n
Granulocytes contain granules in cytoplasm, include
Albumins Osmotic balance neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils.
Å It also contain minerals like Na + , Ca 2+ , Cl − , etc., along with
n
Agranulocytes do not contain granulated cytoplasm
glucose, amino acids, lipids and blood clotting factors, etc. include monocytes and lymphocytes.
Å Plasma without clotting factors is called serum.
Å Different types of leucocytes, with their composition and
functions are tabulated below
2. Formed Elements Type of leucocytes Composition Functions
Å Erythrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes are collectively Neutrophils 60-65% Phagocytic
called the formed elements.
Basophils 0.5-1% Inflammatory reaction secretes
Å These constitutes 45% of blood. histamine, seratonin, etc.
Å Their characteristics are tabulated below Eosinophils 2-3% Resist infection, involved in
allergic reaction.
Characteristics Erythrocytes Leucocytes Thrombocytes
Monocytes 6-8% Phagocytic, include
Common name Red blood cells White blood cells Platelets macrophages and dendritic cells.
Average 5-5.5 6000- 1,50,000- Lymphocytes 20-25% Immune response through
number millions mm −3 8000 mm −3 3,50,000 mm −3 B- and T- lymphocytes.
Coagulation of blood occurs by a series of linked enzyme

Blood Groups Å
reactions (cascade process) involving a number of factors

Å Two methods of blood grouping include ABO system present in plasma.
(first reported by Karl Landsteiner) and Rh-system. Å The whole process of blood clotting can be summarised as
1. ABO Grouping follows
Thrombokinase
Å Red blood cells of different people differ due to the n
Prothrombin 2+
→ Thrombin
presence or absence of two surface antigens (A and B) Ca ions
which are responsible for different types of blood groups, Fibrinogen  
2+
→ Fibrin → Blood clot
Ca ions
i.e. A, B, AB and O.
Å AB blood group is universal acceptor and O blood group is Lymph
universal donor. Å The colourless fluid collected in the space between the
Å Different blood groups and their donor compatibility are cells of tissues is called lymph or interstitial fluid or
listed below tissue fluid.
Blood Antigen on Antibodies in Donor’s Å Lymph contains water and same mineral content as in
groups RBCs plasma group plasma. The network of vessels called lymphatic system
A A Anti-B A, O
collects this fluid and drains it back to the major veins. It is
a colourless fluid.
B B Anti-A B, O
Å Functions of lymph are as follows
AB A, B Nil AB, A, B, O n
Exchange of nutrients, gases, hormones, etc., occurs
O Nil Anti-A, B O through it.
n
It is responsible for the immune responses of the body.
2. Rh Grouping n
Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present
Å In some individuals, Rh antigen is present similar to one in the intestinal villi.
present in Rhesus monkeys. Such individuals are called
Rh positive (Rh + ), while person lacking Rh-factor are Circulatory Pathways
called Rh negative (Rh − ). Å In higher and multicellular organisms, there is no direct
Å Rh-factor is needed to be checked before blood supply of useful materials and removal of wastes from the
transfusion. A well known example of Rh-incompatibility body cells so, they need a transport system called
is seen in case of Rh − mother pregnant with its Rh + foetus. circulatory system.
The circulatory system are generally of two types
During pregnancy, Rh antibodies from Rh − mother pass to
Å
Å
Rh + foetus and destroy foetal RBC. This condition is n

In open circulatory system, blood pumped by the heart
known as erythroblastosis foetalis. The foetus suffers passes through the large vessels into open spaces or
from sever anaemia and jaundice. body cavities called sinuses. This system is found in
arthropods and molluscs.
Å First pregnancy is quite safe in this case however, in
subsequent pregnancies, anti-Rh antibodies are n
In closed circulatory system, the blood pumped by the
administered to the mother immediately after the delivery heart is always circulated through a closed network of
of first child. blood vessels. It is found in annelids and chordates.
Å All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart . The
Coagulation of Blood number of chambers and types of circulation in different
Å To prevent excessive loss of blood from the body, blood animals are as follows
exhibits coagulation or clotting. Calcium ions plays
Animals Number of chambers Types of circulation
important role in it.
Fishes Two-chambered; one Single circulation
Å It involves the formation of a brown scum or clot at the atrium, one ventricle
site of injury over a period of time.
Amphibians and Three-chambered; two Incomplete double
Å The clot consists of fibrin threads and dead or damaged reptiles atria, one ventricle circulation as
formed elements of blood. ventricles pump mixed
blood
Å Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive
fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombin. Crocodile, birds four-chambered; two Double circulation, i.e.
and mammals atria and two ventricles no mixing of
Å Thrombins are formed from prothrombin. An enzyme, oxygenated and
thrombokinase is required for this reaction. deoxygenated blood
NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 18 > Body Fluids and Circulation 417
At the corner of right auricle near the opening of vena

Human Circulatory System Å
cava, a band of muscles is present known as Sino-Atrial

Blood vascular system of human consists of a muscular node (SA node), which generates impulse that spreads in
chambered heart, a network of closed branching blood all directions. It is also called as pacemaker.
vessels and blood, (i.e. the fluid which is circulated).
Å Another band of muscular tissue called Atrio-Ventricular
Heart node (AV node) is also present in the lower side of right
atrium which strengthens the signals generated by SA
Å Human heart is mesodermal in origin.
node. It is also called pacesetter.
Å It remain bounded by double-walled membrane called
pericardium which encloses pericardial fluid.
Å A bundle of muscle fibres called bundle of His originates
from AV node. Bundle of His consists of branches of
Å Internally, the chambers of heart, i.e. two auricles (atria)
fibres running along the ventricle’s walls, called Purkinje
and two ventricles are separated by different septa and
fibres.
valves.
Å The chambers of heart are discussed below Heart Valves
1. Auricles These are the upper two thin-walled and smaller Å These are the muscular flaps that prevent the backflow of
chambers. They serve to receive the blood, therefore are blood and hence, maintain unidirectional flow.
called receiving chambers (right atrium and left atrium).
Both the right and left atria are separated by a thin,
Å There are different valves present in the heart, which are
muscular wall known as interatrial septum. described in the table below
n
Right atrium It receives impure blood from various Valves of Human Heart and Their Location and Action
parts of the body, through two major veins, i.e. superior Heart valve Location Action
and inferior vena cana. It also receives blood from the
Tricuspid valve Between right During ventricular
walls of the heart itself (through a coronary sinus). (Right atrio- atrium and right contraction, it prevents blood
n
Left atrium It receives blood (pure) from lungs through ventricular valve) ventricle to move from right ventricle
two pulmonary veins (i.e. one from the each lung). into right atrium.
2. Ventricles These are lower two chambers of the heart, Pulmonary At entrance to During ventricular
that pumps the blood away from the heart. These semilunar valve pulmonary artery relaxation, it prevents blood
functions as pumping chambers. Both right and left to move from pulmonary
ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum. trunk into right ventricle.
n
Right ventricle It receives impure (deoxygenated) Mitral (bicuspid or Between left atrium During ventricular
blood from right atrium and pumps blood into left atrio-ventricular and left ventricle contraction, it prevents blood
pulmonary artery, which further takes this blood to valve) to move from left ventricle
into left atrium.
lungs for purification.
n
Left ventricle It receives pure (oxygenated) blood Aortic semilunar At entrance to aorta During ventricular relaxation,
valve it prevents blood to move
from left atrium and pumps its pure blood to aorta from aorta into left ventricle.
(largest artery in the pathway), which in turn takes
this blood to whole body and organs.
Blood Vessels
Å The atrium and the ventricle of the same side are also Two major blood vessels are arteries and veins.
separated by another septum, a thick fibrous tissue called Å Arteries are thick-walled blood vessels which carry the
Atrio-Ventricular septum (i.e. AV septum). blood away from the heart to various body parts. Carry
oxygenated (pure) blood in them, except the pulmonary
artery, which carries deoxygenated (impure) blood to the
Aorta lungs.
Vena cava
Pulmonary artery Å Veins are thin-walled blood vessels. Carry blood away
Sino-atrial node Pulmonary vein from various body parts to the heart. Carry deoxygenated
Right atrium Left atrium blood in them except the pulmonary vein, which carries
oxygenated blood to the heart.
Atrio-ventricular Bundle of His
node Å These blood vessels consist of three layers as follows
Left ventricle n
Tunica intima Inner lining of squamous endothelium.
Chordae tendinae
Interventricular n
Tunica media Middle layer of smooth muscles and
Right ventricle septum elastic fibres.
Apex n
Tunica externa Outer fibrous connective tissue layer
Internal structure of human heart consisting of collagen fibres.
NEET KEY NOTES

Cardiac Cycle Electrocardiograph (ECG)

Å It refers to the repeating pattern of systole (contraction)
Å It is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of
and diastole (relaxation) of the heart. Each cycle of atrial the heart during a cardiac cycle. The machine used to
and ventricular systole and diastole is of 0.8 second. obtain this graph is called electrocardiograph.
Å In auricles, systole lasts only for 0.1 sec and diastole R
remains for 0.7 sec.
Å On the other hand, ventricles have a longer systole, i.e. of
0.3 sec due to their highly muscular walls. Thus, the T
diastole in ventricles lasts for 0.5 sec only. P Q S
Å The successive events of the cardiac cycle are briefly Diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG
described below
Events of cardiac Processes
Å Different peaks obtained during ECG and their
cycle significance are as follows
Atrial systole
Atria contract Peaks /Waves Significance

Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open P-wave Depolarisation of atria leading to its contraction or

Blood flows from atria to ventricles systole.
Ventricular systole
Ventricles contract QRS complex Depolarisation of the ventricles leading to its contraction.

Tricuspid and bicuspid valves closed T-Wave
Q-wave marks the beginning of ventricular systole.

Semilunar valves open
Helps to determine heartbeat rate.

Blood flows from ventricles to pulmonary
Repolarisation or Relaxation of ventricles.
artery and aorta
Ventricular diastole
Ventricles relax Double Circulation

Semilunar valves closed Å Blood in human beings flows twice in the heart before it

Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open
completes one round. It is comprised of one short flow, i.e.
Joint diastole
Both atria and ventricles relax pulmonary circulation and another long flow, i.e.

Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open systemic circulation.

Blood flows from atria to ventricle and atria are Å Due to this reason, the blood flow in humans is known as
filled through pulmonary vein and vena cava.
double circulation. This type of circulation is divided into
two phases
Heartbeat n
Pulmonary circulation The movement of blood from
Å It is the rhythmic contraction and expansion movement of heart to the lungs and back to the heart constitutes the
heart. The movements of heartbeat are similar to the pulmonary circulation.
contraction and dilation of ventricles. n
Systemic circulation The circulation of blood from
Å The rate of heartbeat is 72 times per min in an adult male
heart to different parts of the body except lungs and
and little higher in women, children, infants, during
back to the heart constitutes the systemic circulation.
exercise, fever and excitement.
Å The double circulation of human body can be understood
Å A heartbeat has two components, i.e. systole and diastole.
by following flowchart
These components produce sounds like lubb and dupp.
Deoxygenated blood Oxygenated blood
n
Lubb Due to the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
n
Dupp Closure of semilunar valve.
Right Left
Cardiac Output Systemic atrium atrium Pulmonary
circulation
Å It is the volume of blood ejected from the left or right Body organs circulation Lungs
ventricle into the aorta (pulmonary trunk) per minute. (except lungs) Right Left
ventricle ventricle Deoxygenated
Å It is calculated by the formula
blood
Cardiac output
= Stroke Volume (SV) × Heart Rate (HR) Oxygenated blood
= 70 mL × 72 per min = 5000 mL or 5 L per min
(approximately) Flowchart showing double circulation
n
The stroke volume depends mainly on venous return, Å Hepatic portal system is the vascular connection between
i.e. the amount of blood delivered to the heart by the digestive system and liver. Coronary blood vessels
veins. circulate blood to and from cardiac musculature.
NEET KEY NOTES

Regulation of Cardiac Activity

Å Though vertebrate heart is myogenic, but its functions can be regulated/influenced by neural and hormonal mechanisms.
n
Cardiac activites are regulated by medulla oblongata through ANS. Sympathetic nerves increase heart rate, while
parasympathetic nerves decrease heart rate and in turn cardiac output.
n
Hormones from adrenal medulla (epinephrine and nor-epinephrine) increase heart rate.
Disorders of Circulatory System

Various disorders of circulatory system are as follows
Disorders Clinical significance
High blood pressure or Hypertension
BP above 140/90.

Leads to heart diseases, affects vital organs like brain, kidneys, etc.
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
Usually called atherosclerosis.

Caused due to the deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissue in arteries.

Affects vessels supplying blood to heart muscles.
Angina pectoris
Insufficient O2 supply to heart muscles.

Causes acute chest pain due to insufficient blood flow.

More common among middle-aged and elderly.
Heart failure
Heart does not pump blood effectively.

Congestion of the lungs occurs.
Cardiac arrest
Heart stops beating.
Heart attack
Sudden damage of heart muscles due to inadequate blood supply.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Blood and Lymph

1 Organisms which circulate water from their 6 An iron containing respiratory pigment in human
surroundings through their body cavities to facilitate blood is
the cells to exchange nutrients and waste substances (a) myoglobin
are (b) haemoglobin
(a) coelenterates (b) sponges (c) heme-erythrin
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (d) haemocyanin
2 The percentage of water and protein in a straw 7 Rouleaux formation is related to which of the
coloured viscous fluid, i.e. plasma is cell/tissue? JIPMER 2018
(a) 92% and 8% (b) 50% each (a) RBCs (b) WBCs
(c) Platelets (d) Monocytes
(c) 60% and 40% (d) 32% and 68 %
8 Leucocytes are colourless due to the
3 The type of proteins found in plasma is
(a) lack of water
(a) fibrinogen (b) globulin (b) lack of haemoglobin
(c) albumin (d) All of these (c) presence of a white pigment
4 Serum differs from blood in NEET 2016 (d) presence of calcium ions
(a) lacking globulins (b) lacking albumins 9 Lymphocytes (20-25%) are of two major types, i.e. B
(c) lacking clotting factors (d) lacking antibodies and T forms. They are responsible for
5 In humans, RBCs are formed in (a) blood coagulation
(a) red bone marrow (b) heart (b) thickness of blood
(c) immune responses
(c) lungs (d) yellow bone marrow
10 Which is largest among the given types of leucocytes? 16 Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can
(a) Eosinophils (b) Basophils cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of
(c) Monocytes (d) Lymphocytes blood from the body. NEET 2016
11 Which of the following matches is correct? (a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes
(c) Neutrophils (d) Thrombocytes
Structure Percentage Function
17 Which of the following option describes all the
(a) 0.3-0.5 Phagocytic components of human blood group?
(a) A and B blood group
(b) AB and O blood group
(c) Rh and ABO blood group
(b) 0.5-1.0 Secrete histamine and
serotonin
(d) Rh and AB blood group
18 Grouping of ABO blood is based on the
(a) presence or absence of surface antigens on RBCs
(c) 30-40 Defence against parasites
(b) surface lipids present on the cell membrane
(c) nature of all constituents
(d) nature of RBC and WBC
(d) 30-40 Allergic reactions
19 During blood transfusion, if blood groups of recepient
and donor are not correctly matched, it will result in
clumping of RBCs due to
12 Find the correct descending order of percentage
(a) antigen- antibody reaction
proportion of leucocytes in human blood
(b) antigen - antigen reaction
(a) Neutrophils → Basophils → Lymphocytes →
Acidophils (Eosinophils) → Monocytes (c) antibody - antibody reaction
(b) Monocytes → Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → (d) None of the above
Acidophils → Basophils 20 Person with blood group AB is considered as
(c) Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → universal recipient because he has CBSE-AIPMT 2014
Acidophils → Basophils (a) Both A and B antigens on RBC, but no antibodies
(d) Lymphocytes → Acidophils → Basophils → (b) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
Neutrophils → Monocytes
(c) No antigen on RBC and no antibodies in the plasma
13 Identify the following types of blood cells and mark (d) Both A and B antigens in the plasma, but no antibodies
the correct option.
21 A certain road accident patient with unknown blood
group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one
doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the
blood group of the donor? CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) Blood group B (b) Blood group AB
A B C (c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A
22 Which of the given options is correct about blood
A B C
groups and donor compatibility?
(a) Monocyte Eosinophil Neutrophil
A O A AB
(b) Monocyte Basophil Neutrophil
(a) (b)
(c) Basophil Blood platelets Monocyte AB B O B
(d) Basophil Blood platelets Eosinophil
B O A O
14 Platelets are (c) (d)
(a) also called thrombocytes A AB B AB
(b) cell fragments
(c) produced from megakaryocytes 23 What will happen if a Rh − person’s blood is exposed
(d) All of the above to the Rh + person?
15 Which enzyme is responsible for lysis of fibrin during (a) Antigen formation takes place
fibrinolysis? (b) Negative and positive Rh antigen cancel out each other
(a) Plasmin (b) Thrombokinase (c) Nothing will happen
(c) Thrombin (d) Fibrin (d) Antibody will be produced
24 Example of Rh incompatibility is 31 In blood coagulation cascade, vitamin-K aids in the

(a) mother Rh − and foetus Rh + (a) formation of thromboplastin
(b) foetus Rh − and mother Rh + (b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(c) formation of prothrombin
(c) Both mother and foetus are Rh −
(d) polymerisation of fibrin threads to trap RBCs
(d) Both mother and foetus are Rh +
32 The dark reddish dot formed at the injury site is
25 If husband is Rh + and wife is Rh − then
composed of
(a) no problem with first child
(a) fibrin protein
(b) second child would have anaemia (erythroblastosis
(b) dead and damaged formed elements
foetalis)
(c) second child would be normal
(d) serum
33 Conversion of fibrinogen is catalysed by
26 Why 1st child of Rh + husband and Rh − wife does not
(a) thrombin (b) prothrombin
have erythroblastosis foetalis?
(c) thromboplastin (d) All of these
(a) Due to the absence of Rh antigen in mother’s blood
(b) Due to the presence of Rh antibodies in mother’s blood 34 When is thromboplastin released in humans?
(c) Due to the absence of Rh antibodies in mother’s blood (a) During hypertension
(b) By the traumatised cell at the place of injury
(c) In the condition of erythroblastosis foetalis
27 Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease in which (d) During anaemia
(a) adults have severe anaemia and jaundice
35 Prothrombinase is formed in the presence of
(b) foetus does not survive due to erythrocyte blast
(a) Ca 2+ (b) Mg 2+
(c) foetus suffers from blood cancer
(c) Fe2+ (d) Fe3+
(d) foetus have severe anaemia and jaundice
36 In living body, coagulation of blood in blood vessels
28 What will happen if a Rh − person donates blood to a
+ is prevented by
Rh person for the first time? (a) prothrombin
(a) Rh − person will die (b) heparin
(b) Rh + person will die (c) prothrombin and calcium together
(c) Nothing will happen to both (d) plasminogen and calcium together
(d) Rh − will live and Rh + would die 37 Exchange of gases, nutrients, etc., between the blood
+ and the cells takes place through
29 Subsequent normal pregnancies of Rh husband and
− (a) RBC (b) WBC
Rh wife could be possible by
(c) interstitial fluid (d) intrastitial fluid
(a) administrating anti-Rh-antibody to the mother just after
the delivery of 1st child 38 The mineral distribution in tissue fluid is similar to
(b) transfusion of blood to the 2nd baby just after the birth that in
(c) injecting anti-Rh antibody to the 2nd baby just after the (a) blood (b) plasma
birth (c) serum (d) None of these
(d) All of the above 39 Lymphatic system drains the fluid contained in it, i.e.
30 Clotting disorders occur mainly due to the reduction lymph into
in the number of (a) heart (b) arteries
(a) granulocytes (c) veins (d) liver
(b) RBC 40 Lymph is an important carrier for the transport of
(c) WBC (a) nutrients (b) hormones
(d) platelets (c) platelets (d) Both (a) and (b)
TOPIC 2 ~ Circulatory Pathways and

Human Circulatory System
41 Open circulatory system is present in 50 In birds and mammals, the oxygenated and
(a) arthropods and mammals deoxygenated blood is received by
(b) molluscs and aves (a) left and right atria
(c) arthropods and molluscs (b) left and right ventricles
(d) mammals and aves (c) left atria and right ventricle
42 In open circulatory system, (d) left atria and left ventricle
(a) blood is pumped by heart 51 Two separate circulatory pathways, i.e. double
(b) blood passes through large vessels circulation is found in
(c) blood is present in sinuses
(a) reptiles and birds
(b) mammals only
43 Closed circulatory system is present in (c) crocodile, birds and mammals
(a) annelids and chordates (d) reptiles and mammals
(b) arthropods and annelids
52 Interatrial septum is
(c) arthropods and chordates
(d) molluscs and annelids (a) thin and muscular wall between two atria
(b) thick wall between two atria
44 Advantage of closed circulatory system is that (c) fibrous opening of atria
(a) blood is pumped by heart (d) muscular flap near the opening of atria
(b) flow of blood is more precisely regulated
(c) blood passes through blood vessels 53 Tricuspid valve is present in between
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) right atrium and right ventricle
(b) right atrium and left ventricle
45 The number of chambers in the muscular heart of
fishes, amphibians and birds is (c) left atrium and left ventricle
(a) 2, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 (d) left atrium and right ventricle
(c) 2, 4, 4 (d) 3, 3, 4 54 Bicuspid valves are found in between
46 All reptiles have a three-chambered heart except (a) right ventricle and right auricle
(a) snake (b) crocodile (b) right ventricle and left auricle
(c) lizard (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) left ventricle and left auricle
(d) right ventricle and left ventricle
47 Deoxygenated blood
Body parts Heart 55 Opening of the right ventricle into the pulmonary
Deoxygenated artery and that of left ventricle into the aorta is
blood provided with
Oxygenated blood
Gill (a) bicuspid valve
(b) tricuspid valve
Given diagram depicts the circulation in (c) semilunar valve
(a) fishes (b) mammals
(d) mitral valve
(c) reptiles (d) amphibians
56 As a result of a partially non-functional chordae
48 In amphibians and reptiles, left atrium
tendineae of tricuspid valve in human heart is
(a) is absent
(a) SA node becomes non-functional
(b) receives oxygenated blood from gills/lungs/skin
(b) back flow of blood will occur in left atrium
(c) receives deoxygenated blood from body parts
(d) receives deoxygenated blood from lungs (c) flow of blood into pulmonary artery reduces
(d) flow of blood into aorta reduces
49 In reptiles and amphibians, there is no clear cut
separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood 57 Which of the following chambers of the heart has the
because they have thickest muscular wall?
(a) one atrium (a) Left atrium
(b) one ventricle (b) Right atrium
(c) incomplete double circulation (c) Right ventricle
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Left ventricle
58 The wall of the ventricles are much thicker than that 66 Identify A-F in the given diagram of human heart and
of atrium because choose the correct option.
(a) it has to pump the blood to distant location
(b) it always receives oxygenated blood
(c) it is present below the atrium
A
(d) it has to store the blood
E
59 The cardiac musculature of heart is composed of
B
(a) nodal tissue
(b) ganglion
(c) Bundle of His D
(d) Both (a) and (c) C F
60 SA node is located in
(a) upper lateral wall of left atrium
(b) lower lateral wall of left atrium (a) A–Vena cava, B–Right atrium, C–Left atrium, D–Right
(c) lower lateral wall of right atrium ventricle, E–Left ventricle, F–Interventricular septum
(d) upper lateral wall of right atrium (b) A–Vena cava, B–Right atrium, C–Right ventricle,
D–Left ventricle, E–Left atrium, F–Interventricular septum
61 Within human heart, AV node is found at (c) A–Vena cava, B–Right atrium, C–Right ventricle, D–Left
(a) lower left corner of right atrium atrium, E–Left ventricle, F–Interventricular septum
(b) upper right corner of right ventricle (d) A–Vena cava, B–Left atrium, C–Right ventricle, D–Left
(c) upper right corner of left atrium ventricle, E–Right atrium, F–Interventricular septum
(d) lower left corner of left ventricle
67 SA node is called the pacemaker of heart because
62 Purkinje’s fibres are found in JIPMER 2018 (a) it can change the contractile activity generated by AV node
(a) heart (b) liver (c) brain (d) lungs (b) it delays the transmission of impulse between the atria
and ventricles
63 The branches of AV bundle which pass through AV
(c) it gets stimulated when it receives neural signals
septa to supply minute fibres throughout ventricular
(d) it initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile
musculature are activity of heart
(a) sino-auricular node
68 Artificial pacemaker is grafted at the place of
(b) atrio-ventricular node
(c) Purkinje fibre (a) atrio-ventricular bundle
(d) bundle of His (b) Purkinje fibre
(c) sino-atrial node
64 SA node generates impulses (d) atrio-ventricular node
(a) 70-75 min −1
69 What happens when pacemaker is non-functional?
(b) 50-55 min −1 (a) Only the auricle will contract rhythmically
(c) 100-150 min −1 (b) The cardiac muscles do not contract in a coordinated
(d) 35-40 min −1 manner rhythmically
65 All the components of the nodal tissue are (c) Only ventricles will contract rhythmically
(d) Cardiac muscles will contract in a coordinated
autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the
manner
normal pacemaker ? NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation 70 From the given structural components of the heart.
(b) SA node is the only component to generate the Which of the following parts carry oxygenated blood?
threshold potential (a) Aorta
(c) Only SA node can convey the action potential to the (b) Left ventricle
other components (c) Pulmonary artery
(d) SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation (d) Both (a) and (b)
TOPIC 3 ~ Cardiac Cycle and ECG

71 Bicuspid and tricuspid valves open to allow (a) blood to enter aorta
(a) blood from the pulmonary artery and vena cava to flow (b) the ventricles to empty completely
into the left and right ventricles, respectively (c) blood to enter pulmonary arteries
(b) blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow (d) the atria to empty completely
into left and right ventricles, respectively 79 Cardiac cycle is comprises of
(c) blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow (a) sequential event in the heart which is cyclically
into left and right atrium, respectively repeated
(d) oxygen from the pulmonary vein and vena cava to flow (b) systole and diastole of both atria and ventricles
into left and right atrium, respectively (c) a single heartbeat
72 Action potential generated by SAN (d) All of the above
(a) stimulates atrial contraction, i.e. atrial systole 80 Cardiac output is
(b) increase blood flow into ventricles (a) volume of the blood pumped out by each ventricle per
(c) stimulates AVN minute
(d) All of the above (b) volume of the blood contained in the entire heart
73 The correct route through which pulse making (c) volume of the oxygenated blood pumped by heart
impulse travels in the heart is (d) volume of the deoxygenated blood pumped by heart
(a) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → 81 Duration of a cardiac cycle is
AV node → Heart muscles (a) 0.6 second (b) 0.7 second
(b) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje (c) 0.8 second (d) 0.9 second
fibres → Heart muscles
82 During each cardiac cycle, prominent sounds are
(c) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje
produced which can be easily heard through
fibres → Heart muscles
stethoscope. They are
(d) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of
His → Heart muscles (a) lubb (b) dupp
(c) tick (d) Both (a) and (b)
74 When two atria contract simultaneously and result in
the blood pumping into ventricles, this is called 83 The first heart sound ‘Lubb’ occurs in which phase of
(a) atrial diastole the cardiac cycle?
(b) atrial systole (a) Isometric relaxation (b) Atrial diastole
(c) ventricular diastole (c) Ventricular systole (d) Ventricular diastole
(d) ventricular systole 84 Choose the incorrect pair.
75 Atrial diastole takes place when (a) Dupp → Opening of semilunar valve
(a) right atrium is filled with blood (b) Lubb → Sharp closure of AV valve
(b) left atrium is filled with blood (c) Initiation of heartbeat → AV nodal tissue of heartbeat
(c) Both atria are filled with blood (d) Pulmonary artery → Deoxygenated blood artery
(d) Both ventricles are filled with blood 85 ECG is graphical representation of
76 Ventricular systole is accompanied by (a) rate of heartbeat
(a) atrial diastole (b) volume of blood pumped
(b) transmission of impulse through ventricles
(c) ventricular contraction
(c) closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(d) electrical activities of heart
86 To obtain a standard ECG, the patient is connected to
77 The opening and closing of semilunar valves depend upon
the machine with three electrical leads. These three
(a) increased and decreased pressure in ventricles
(b) atrial systole electrical lead are connected to
(c) duration of nerve impulse to travel through atria and (a) chest and each wrist
ventricles (b) each ankle and wrist
(d) amount of blood presents in left ventricle (c) thigh and chest ankle
78 A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower (d) each wrist and left ankle
corner of the right atrium, close to atrio-ventricular 87 The beginning of ventricular systole is represented in
septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart ECG through
apex for about 0.1 sec. The delay allows (a) P and Q wave (b) QRS wave
NEET (Odisha) 2019 (c) P and S wave (d) S and T wave
88 Which wave of human heart out of PQRST is used for R

determining the heartbeat of an individual?
(a) P (b) QRS
(c) T (d) RS T
P S Q
89 In ECG, P-R interval corresponds to (c)
(a) time delay in AV node
R
(b) SA nodal conduction time
(c) increased ventricular contraction
(d) time interval between onset of ventricular contraction
T
90. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of P Q S
(d)
standard Electrocardiogram (ECG). Identify the figure
which is the correct one. 91 The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a
Q normal person. The P-wave represents the NEET 2013
R
S
P R T
(a) T
P Q
S
(a) contraction of both atria
(b) initiation of the ventricular contraction
P
Q (c) beginning of the systole
T R
(b) (d) end of systole
TOPIC 4~ Double Circulation and Regulation of Cardiac Activity

92 Veins differ from artery in possessing 96 Which blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the
(a) thick tunica media (b) thin tunica interna body tissues?
(c) thin tunica media (d) thick tunica interna (a) Pulmonary artery
93 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram. (b) Vena cava
(c) Pulmonary vein
(d) Aorta
97 Pulmonary circulation is
Smooth
muscle Left  → Right
Oxygenated Deoxygenated
(a) → Lungs 
auricle blood blood ventricle
Smooth B Lumen
Lumen muscle C Left  → Right
A Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(b) → Lungs blood
auricle blood ventricle
(a) A–Artery, B–Capillary, C–Vein (c) Right  Deoxygenated
→ Lungs  → Left
Oxygenated
ventricle blood blood auricle
(b) A–Artery, B–Vein, C–Capillary
(c) A–Vein, B–Artery, C–Capillary (d) Right  Oxygenated
→ Left
Deoxygenated
→ Lungs blood
(d) A–Capillary, B–Artery, C–Vein ventricle blood auricle
94 The blood pumped by right ventricle and left ventricle 98 Systemic circulation is
enters into (a) Left  Deoxygenated
→ Right
Oxygenated
→ Tissues 
(a) aorta and vena cava ventricle blood blood ventricle
(b) pulmonary artery and aorta Right  → Right
(c) pulmonary vein and pulmonary artery (b) → Tissues blood
ventricle blood auricle
(d) pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein
(c) Left Deoxygenated
blood → Right
Oxygenated
→ Tissues 
95 Left atrium receives blood from lungs through ventricle blood auricle
(a) pulmonary veins (b) aorta Left  → Right
(c) pulmonary artery (d) vena cava (d) → Tissues blood
ventricle blood auricle
99 Double circulation is Choose the correct option.

(a) passage of blood twice in heart through the same way (a) A–Lungs, B–Body parts, C–Pulmonary vein,
(b) passage of blood twice in heart through the unique way D–Pulmonary artery, E–Dorsal aorta, F–Vena cava
(c) passage of blood twice in heart through the separate way (b) A–Lungs, B–Body parts, C–Pulmonary artery,
(d) None of the above D–Pulmonary vein, E–Dorsal aorta, F–Vena cava
(c) A–Lungs, B–Body parts, C–Pulmonary artery,
100 The systemic circulation D–Pulmonary vein, E–Vena cava, F–Dorsal aorta
(a) provides nutrient to tissues (d) A–Body parts, B–Lungs, C–Pulmonary artery,
(b) takes out CO2 from tissues D–Pulmonary vein, E–Vena cava, F–Dorsal aorta
(c) provides oxygen to tissues
104 Coronary blood vessels circulate blood
(a) to body tissue from heart
101 Hepatic portal system is a (b) to heart from body tissues
(a) vascular connection between the digestive tract and (c) to heart muscles from heart
liver (d) to lungs from heart muscles
(b) vascular connection between the liver and lungs
(c) vascular connection between the spleen and liver 105 Heart is myogenic because the normal activities of the
(d) vascular connection between the digestive tract and heart are
spleen (a) extrinsically regulated (b) intrinsically regulated
(c) autoregulated (d) Both (b) and (c)
102 The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
NEET 2017 106 Neural centre in medulla oblongata can moderate the
(a) heart (b) stomach (c) kidneys (d) intestine cardiac function through
(a) ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)
103 Identify A-F. (b) sympathetic nervous system
A
(c) parasympathetic nervous system
(d) somatic nervous system
C D
107 Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (ANS)
can increase the rate of heartbeat by
RA
LA (a) increasing heart output
RV LV (b) increasing the strength of ventricular contraction
Heart
E
F
(d) increasing the contraction of atrium
108 Heartbeat increases by
(a) adrenal hormones (b) sympathetic nerves
B (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) parasympathetic nerve
TOPIC 5 ~ Disorders of Circulatory System
109 Blood pressure is defined as the force with which blood 111 Systolic or Pumping pressure in a normal human is
(a) comes out of the atrium (a) 70 mm of Hg
(b) is pushed from atrium to ventricle (b) 80 mm of Hg
(c) is pushed against the wall of blood vessels (c) 90 mm of Hg
(d) comes out of the ventricle (d) 120 mm of Hg
110 Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum 112 Which one indicates hypertension or high Blood
during CBSE-AIPMT 2015 Pressure (BP)?
(a) systole of the left atrium (a) 120/80
(b) diastole of the right ventricle (b) 110/70
(c) systole of the left ventricle (c) 130/80
(d) diastole of the right atrium (d) 140/90
113 Atherosclerosis is caused by deposition of 115 The main symptom of congestive heart failure is
(a) calcium (a) hypertension
(b) fat and cholesterol (b) impared heart valve
(c) deposition of fibrous tissue (c) congestion in lungs
(d) All of the above (d) blockage in pulmonary artery
114 Angina occurs due to the 116 A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
(a) benign growth in heart infarction is normally immediately given
(b) decreased supply of oxygen to heart muscle CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(c) the deposition of carbohydrates in artery (a) penicillin (b) streptokinase
(d) increased blood pressure (c) cyclosporin-A (d) statins
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason Reason (R) The metabolic needs of the body are met
Direction (Q. No. 117-126) In each of the following by these changes, but the duration of cardiac cycle
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by remains same.
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, mark 122 Assertion (A) Bundle of His is a part of autoexcitable
the correct answer as tissue.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct Reason (R) This region comprises of cardiac tissue
explanation of A that can generate impulse on its own at a frequency
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct less than SA node.
explanation of A
123 Assertion (A) The SA node acts as pacemaker.
Reason (R) The SA node is located in the wall of the
right atrium near the interatrial septum.
117 Assertion (A) Reduction in number of platelets can 124 Assertion (A) Thrombin is essential for blood clotting.
lead to excessive loss of blood from the body in case
Reason (R) Ca 2+ plays an important role in blood
of injury.
clotting.
Reason (R) Platelets help in the coagulation of blood.
125 Assertion (A) The end of T-wave marks the end of
118 Assertion (A) SA node malfunctioning leads to ventricular systole.
disturbance of heart rate. AIIMS 2019 Reason (R) T-wave represents the return of
Reason (R) SA node is the pacemaker of heart ventricles from excited to normal state which is
producing electric impulse for heart contraction. repolarisation.
119 Assertion (A) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves get 126 Assertion (A) The four-chambered heart of birds is
closed during ventricular systole. superior to the four-chambered heart of crocodiles.
Reason (R) These valves in heart allow blood to flow Reason (R) In this system, the oxygenated and
in one direction and prevent backward flow. deoxygenated blood are completely separated.
120 Assertion (A) The heart rate of a six months old
baby is much higher than that of a normal adult
person. 127 Select the correct statement regarding the human
Reason (R) Smaller the organism, higher is the rate of blood.
metabolism per gram weight. (a) The volume of the blood in an adult is 5 L
(b) Urea level in the blood is 10 mg/100 mL
121 Assertion (A) The body has the ability to alter the (c) Glucose concentration in the blood is 50 mg/100 mL
stroke volume and the heart rate. (d) Cholesterol concentration in the blood is 30 mg/100 mL
128 Read the following statements. 134 Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
I. Formed elements constitute 45% the blood and rest 55 (a) Heart is endodermal in origin
% is constituted by plasma. (b) Human heart is situated in between the two lungs
II. The formed elements mainly present in the human slightly tilted to left
blood are erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets. (c) Heart is protected by double-walled membranous
pericardium
Choose the correct option. (d) Human heart has two atria and two ventricles
(a) Both statements are true
(b) Statement I is true and II is false
(a) The pulmonary trunk with left and right arteries is part
(c) Both statements are false of pulmonary circulation
(d) statement I is false and II is true (b) The aorta is a part of systemic circulation
129 Read the following statements. (c) The aorta receives blood from left ventricle
I. The recepient’s serum should not contain antigen (d) Pulmonary vein collects deoxygenated blood from
body and pour it into right atrium
similar to the RBCs of the donor.
II. The recepient’s serum should not contain the 136 Which of the following statement is true for WBCs?
antibodies against the RBCs of the donor. (a) Basophils are also known as heterophils and
polymorphs
(b) Acidophil is an alternative name of eosinophils
(a) Both statements I and II are true
(c) Neutrophils produce antibodies
(b) Only statement I is true (d) Lymphocytes and monocytes are granulocytes
(c) Only statement II is true
137 Which of the following statements can be considered
as the properties of human RBCs?
130 Identify the incorrect statement. I. Devoid of nucleus.
(a) Barr body is an another name for neutrophils II. Formed in red bone marrow.
(b) Agranulocytes are formed in the bone marrow and III. Destroyed in yellow bone marrow.
thymus IV. Biconcave in shape.
(c) Granulocytes are formed in the spleen and lymph node
V. Help in blood clotting.
(d) Lymphocytes exist as two major types, i.e. B and T
lymphocytes Choose the option with correct statements.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
131 Identify the correct statement about closed circulatory (c) III, IV and V (d) III, II and IV
system.
(a) Blood flows in the open tissue space, the sinuses 138 Which of the following statements can be considered
(b) Blood is in direct contact with the tissues cells as the properties of leucocytes?
(c) Blood flow is slow I. They are nucleated.
(d) Blood pressure is high in closed network of blood II. They are denucleated like RBC.
vessels III. They are colourless due to the absence of haemoglobin
132 Identify the correct statement for human heart. IV. They are long-lived.
(a) Volume of both the atria is greater than the volume of V. They are short-lived.
both the ventricles Choose the appropriate option with correct statements.
(b) Volume of both the ventricle is greater than the volume (a) I, III and V (b) II, IV and IV
of both the atria (c) I, IV and V (d) I, III and IV
(c) Interventricular septum separates the right and the left 139 Which of the below statements are correct and
atria incorrect?
(d) Atrioventricular septum is not found in human heart I. Plasma constitutes 15% of the human blood.
133 Choose the correct statement from the following II. Albumin is a plasma protein that helps in blood
about RBCs. clotting.
(a) They are the least abundant blood cells III. Factors of blood clotting are present in the blood
(b) They have a red coloured, copper containing pigment plasma in inactive form.
(c) They are devoid of nucleus in most mammals IV. Plasma without clotting factors is serum.
(d) They are biconvex in shape V. Plasma contains minerals like Na + , Ca 2+ , Mg 2+ ,
HCO−3 and Cl − along with glucose and amino acids.
Choose the appropriate option. 144 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect
Correct Incorrect about the lymph.
(a) Only V I, II, III and IV I. Lymph is a red coloured fluid containing large proteins
(b) III, IV and V I and II and formed elements.
(c) I, III and IV II and IV
II. It is also called tissue fluid which leaks out through
capillaries into tissue spaces.
(d) II, III and IV I and V
III. It contains specialised lymphocytes which are
140 What is the correct order of events occurring in responsible for the immunity of the body.
blood clotting? IV. Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients and
I. Conversion of inactive fibrinogen to fibrin by the hormones.
enzyme thrombin. V. Fats are absorbed through the lymph in the lacteals
II. Formation of blood clot. present in the intestinal villi.
III. Thromboplastin formation. Choose the correct option.
IV. Conversion of inactive prothrombin to thrombin in (a) Only I (b) III and IV
the presence of thrombokinase. (c) II and III (d) Only IV
Choose the correct option. 145 Arrange the following events in chronological order
(a) III, II, I and IV (b) III, IV, I and II during the beginning of cardiac cycle.
(c) III, IV, II and I (d) IV, I, III and II I. SA node generates action potential.
141 Consider the following statements. II. Atrial systole
I. The plasma of different individuals contains two III. Joint diastole
natural antibodies which are produced in response to IV. Ventricular diastole
antigen. V. Ventricular systole
II. Failure to carefully match donor and recipient blood VI. Atrial diastole
during blood transfusion can cause RBC destruction. Choose the correct option.
Select the correct option. (a) III → II → I → IV → V → VI
(a) I is true, II is false (b) I → III → II → IV → V →VI
(b) Both I and II are true (c) III → I → II → V → VI → IV
(c) I is false, II is true (d) II → IV → I → III → V → VI
(d) Both I and II are false 146 Identify whether the given statements are true or false
142 Consider the following statements. for double circulation.
I. Rh grouping in humans is based on the presence or I. It checks the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
absence of rhesus antigen on RBCs surface. blood.
II. Nearly 80% of humans possess Rh antigen and thus II. It carries only oxygenated blood.
called Rh positive. Choose the correct option accordingly.
Select the correct option. (a) I– False, II-False (b) I–True, II-True
(a) I is true, II is false (c) I– False, II-True (d) I–True, II-False
(b) Both I and II are true 147 Which of the following events occurs during joint
(c) I is false, II is true diastole?
(d) Both I and II are false I. All four chambers are in relaxed state.
143 Consider the following statements. II. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open.
I. The amount of blood pumped by each atrium during a III. Semilunar valves are closed.
cardiac cycle is stroke volume. IV. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows
II. Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke into the left and right ventricles, respectively through
volume (70 mL) and number of heartbeats per minute. the left and right atria.
Choose the correct option. The correct option containing correct choices is
(a) I is true, II is false (a) Only I
(b) Both I and II are true (b) Only III
(c) I is false, II is true (c) II and IV
(d) Both I and II are false (d) I, II, III and IV
148 Read the following statements. 152 Match the following columns.
I. Systemic aorta originates from left ventricle and
Column I Column II
distributes deoxygenated blood to lungs. (Types of WBCs) (Percentage composition)
II. Pulmonary arch originates from right ventricle and
A. Neutrophils 1. 20-25% of WBCs
carries oxygenated blood to various body parts except
lungs. B. Basophils 2. 2-3% of WBCs
III. Coronary veins return deoxygenated blood from heart C. Monocytes 3. 6-8% of WBCs
wall to right auricle.
D. Eosinophils 4. 0.5-1% of WBCs
Which of the following statement(s) correctly
identifies the function of blood vessels associated E. Lymphocytes 5. 60-65% of WBCs
with human heart?
(a) Only III (b) I and II Codes
(c) I, II and III (d) I and III A B C D E
(a) 5 4 3 2 1
149 Which of the following statements are correct?
(b) 5 4 2 3 1
I. Closureofatrioventricularvalvesproduces‘dupp’sound.
(c) 1 2 3 4 5
II. A cardiac cycle consists of a systole and a diastole of
both atria and ventricles. (d) 5 2 4 3 1
III. The average number of the times, a normal heartbeats 153 Match the following columns.
in one minute is 72.
Column I Column II
IV. Change in the blood volume in all the chambers of the (Types of WBCs) (Functions)
heart occurs during the cardiac cycle.
A. Basophils 1. Phagocytes
The option with correct statements is
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV B. Neutrophils 2. Secrete histamine, serotonin and
heparin
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV
C. Eosinophils 3. Allergic reaction
III. Matching Type Questions D. Lymphocytes 4. Immunity
Codes
Column I Column II A B C D
(Formed elements) (Lifespan)
(a) 1 2 3 4
A. RBCs 1. 10-13 days (b) 2 1 3 4
B. WBCs 2. 120 days (c) 1 4 2 3
C. Platelets 3. 8 days (d) 4 1 2 3
154 Match the items given in Column I with those in
Codes Column II and select the correct options given below.
A B C A B C NEET 2019
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1 Column I Column II
(Blood components) (Functions)
A. Fibrinogen 1. Osmotic balance
Column I Column II
(Blood cells) (Composition) B. Globulin 2. Blood clotting
−3
A. Erythrocytes 1. 6000-8000 mm of blood C. Albumin 3. Defence mechanism
B. Leucocytes 2. 1,50,000-3,50,000 mm −3 of blood Codes
C. Thrombocytes 3. 5-5.5 million mm −3 of blood A B C
(a) 1 3 2
Codes (b) 1 2 3
A B C A B C
(c) 3 2 1
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1
(Heart vessels) (Functions) (Layers of blood vessels) (Characteristics)
A. Tunica intima 1. Composed of smooth muscle and
A. Superior vena cava 1. Carries oxygenated blood
elastic fibres
B. Inferior vena cava 2. Carries deoxygenated blood B. Tunica media 2. Composed of fibrous connective
tissues with collagen fibre
C. Pulmonary artery 3. Brings deoxygenated blood from
lower part of body to right atrium C. Tunica externa 3. Composed of squamous
endothelium
D. Pulmonary vein 4. Brings deoxygenated blood from
upper part of body to right atrium A B C A B C
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 3 2
Codes
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 3
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II
(b) 4 3 2 1 (Cardiac disorders) (Features)
(c) 4 2 3 1
A. Heart failure 1. Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by
(d) 1 4 3 2 an inadequate blood supply
156 Match the items given in Column I with those in B. Cardiac arrest 2. Chest pain due to inadequate O2
Column II and select the correct options given below. reaching the heart muscles
NEET 2018 C. Heart attack 3. Atherosclerosis
Column I Column II D. Coronary Artery 4. Heart not pumping blood effectively

(Heart valve) (Location) Disease (CAD) enough to meet the needs of the body
E. Angina pectoris 5. Heart stops beating
A. Tricuspid valve 1. Between left atrium and left ventricle
B. Bicuspid valve 2. Between right ventricle and pulmonary
Codes
artery A B C D E
C. Semilunar valve 3. Between right atrium and right ventricle (a) 4 5 1 3 2
(b) 5 4 1 3 2
Codes (c) 4 5 1 2 3
A B C A B C (d) 5 4 2 3 1
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3
157 Match the following columns. NEET (National) 2019 Column I Column II
(Cardiac abnormality) (Features)
Column I Column II
(ECG wave) (Features) A. Tachycardia 1. Increased heart rate
A. P-wave 1. Depolarisation of ventricles B. Bradycardia 2. Irregular heartbeat
B. QRS complex 2. Repolarisation of ventricles C. Arrythmia 3. Decreased heart rate

C. T-wave 3. Coronary ischemia D. Arteriosclerosis 4. Hardening or lose of
elasticity of arteries
D. Reduction in the 4. Depolarisation of atria
size of T-wave
Codes
Codes A B C D
A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3

NCERT 166 Which among the followings is correct during each
161 Match the following columns. cardiac cycle?
(a) The volume of blood pumped out by the right and left
Column I Column II ventricles is same
A. Eosinophils 1. Resist infections (b) The volume of blood pumped out by the right and left
ventricles is different
B. RBCs 2. Gas transport
(c) The volume of blood received by each atrium is
C. AB blood group 3. Universal recipient different
D. Platelets 4. Coagulation (d) The volume of blood received by the aorta and
pulmonary artery is different
E. Systole 5. Contraction of heart
167 Cardiac activity could be moderated by the
Codes autonomous neural system. Tick (✓) the correct
A B C D E answer.
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 (a) The parasympathetic system stimulates heart rate and
(b) 3 5 2 1 4 stroke volume
(c) 5 4 3 1 2
(b) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke
(d) 2 3 1 4 5
volume
162 Name the major site where RBCs are formed. (c) The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate,
(a) Sternum but increases stroke volume
(b) Bone marrow (d) The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate, but
(c) Cranial bone increases stroke volume
(d) Humerus
168 Mark the pair of substances among the following
163 Which part of heart is responsible for initiating and which is essential for coagulation of blood.
maintaining its rhythmic activity? (a) heparin and calcium ions
(a) SA node (b) calcium ions and platelet factors
(b) NA node (c) oxalates and citrates
(c) Ventricle
(d) platelet factors and heparin
(d) Atrial
169 ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisation
processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a
NCERT Exemplar normal/healthy individual, one of the following
164 Which of the following cells does not exhibit waves is not represented.
phagocytic activity? (a) Depolarisation of atria
(a) Monocytes (b) Repolarisation of atria
(b) Neutrophil (c) Depolarisation of ventricles
(c) Basophil
(d) Repolarisation of ventricles
(d) Macrophage
170 Which of the following types of cell lacks nucleus in
165 One of the common symptoms observed in people
humans?
infected with dengue fever is
(a) Monocytes
(a) significant decrease in RBCs count
(b) significant decrease in WBCs count (b) Neutrophils
(c) significant decrease in platelets count (c) Eosinophils
(d) significant increase in platelets count (d) Erythrocytes
171 Which one of the following blood cells is involved in (c) Blood group is designated on the basis of the presence
antibody production? of antibodies in the blood plasma
(a) B-lymphocytes (d) A person of AB blood group is universal recipient.
(b) T-lymphocytes 177 What would be the cardiac output of a person having
(c) RBC 72 heartbeats per minute and a stroke volume of
(d) Neutrophils 50 mL?
172 The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted further (a) 360 mL
upto ventricle. The correct sequence of conduction of (b) 3600 mL
impulse is (c) 7200 mL
(a) SA node AV node Purkinje fibre AV bundle (d) 5000 mL
(b) SA node Purkinje fibre AV node AV bundle 178 Match the following columns.
(c) SA node AV node AV bundle Purkinje fibre Column I Column II
(d) SA node Purkinje fibre AV bundle AV node
A. Lymphatic system 1. Carries oxygenated blood
173 Agranulocytes responsible for immune response of B. Pulmonary vein 2. Immune response
the body are C. Thrombocytes 3. To drain back the tissue fluid to
(a) basophils the circulatory system
(b) neutrophils D. Lymphocytes 4. Coagulation of blood
(c) eosinophils
(d) lymphocytes Codes
174 The second heart sound (dupp) is associated with the A B C D
closure of (a) 2 1 3 4
(a) tricuspid valve (b) 3 1 4 2
(b) semilunar valve (c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
(c) bicuspid valve
(d) tricuspid and bicuspid valves 179 Read the following statements and choose the correct
175 Which of the following correctly explains a
option.
phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard I. Atria receive blood from all parts of the body which
electrocardiogram? subsequently flows to ventricles.
(a) QRS complex indicates atrial contraction II. Action potential generated at sino-atrial node passes
(b) QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction from atria to ventricles.
(c) Time between S and T represents atrial systole (a) Action mentioned in statement I is dependent on action
(d) P-wave indicates beginning of ventricular contraction mentioned in statement II
(b) Action mentioned in statement II is dependent on action
176 Which one of the following statements is incorrect? mentioned in statement I
(a) A person of O blood group has anti-A and anti-B (c) Action mentioned in statement I and II are independent
antibodies in his blood plasma of each other
(b) A person of B blood group cannot donate blood to a (d) Action mentioned in statement I and II are synchronous
person of A blood group
Answers
1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (a)
16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (a) 21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (a) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (d) 41 (c) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (d) 45 (b)
46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (d) 50 (a) 51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (c)
61 (a) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (a) 65 (d) 66 (b) 67 (d) 68 (c) 69 (b) 70 (d) 71 (b) 72 (d) 73 (b) 74 (b) 75 (c)
76 (d) 77 (a) 78 (d) 79 (d) 80 (a) 81 (c) 82 (d) 83 (c) 84 (a) 85 (d) 86 (d) 87 (b) 88 (b) 89 (b) 90 (d)
91 (a) 92 (c) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (d) 97 (c) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (d) 101 (a) 102 (d) 103 (b) 104 (c) 105 (d)
106 (a) 107 (c) 108 (c) 109 (c) 110 (c) 111 (d) 112 (d) 113 (d) 114 (b) 115 (c) 116 (b)
117 (a) 118 (a) 119 (a) 120 (a) 121 (c) 122 (a) 123 (c) 124 (b) 125 (a) 126 (a) 127 (a) 128 (a) 129 (c) 130 (c) 131 (d)
132 (b) 133 (c) 134 (a) 135 (d) 136 (b) 137 (b) 138 (a) 139 (b) 140 (b) 141 (b) 142 (b) 143 (c) 144 (a) 145 (c) 146 (d)
147 (d) 148 (a) 149 (b) 150 (b) 151 (c) 152 (a) 153 (b) 154 (d) 155 (b) 156 (c) 157 (d) 158 (c) 159 (a) 160 (c)
161 (a) 162 (b) 163 (a) 164 (c) 165 (c) 166 (a) 167 (b) 168 (b) 169 (b) 170 (d) 171 (a) 172 (c) 173 (d) 174 (b) 175 (b)
176 (c) 177 (b) 178 (b) 179 (d)

2 (a) Plasma is a faint yellow (straw coloured), slightly 11 (b) The figure in option (b) shows basophil, which is
alkaline viscous fluid. It consists of about 92% water, correct with its percentage and function as
1% inorganic salts and 6-8% proteins. It constitutes Basophils are with lobed nucleus and few large
about 55% of the blood. granules.
4 (c) Serum differs from blood in lacking clotting factors. They are involved in inflammatory reactions, thus
Factors for coagulation or clotting of blood are present secrete histamine, serotonin, etc. The other options are
in plasma in an inactive form. Plasma without the correctly explained as follows
clotting factors is called serum. l
Neutrophils have multilobed nucleus and are 60-65 %
7 (a) Rouleaux formation is related to RBCs. In resting of total WBCs. They are phagocytic in nature.
and slow flowing blood, the RBCs aggregate to form l
Eosinophils have bilobed nucleus and are 2-3% of total
rouleaux, i.e. they get piled up on the top of each other. WBCs. They are involved in allergic reactions in the
Fibrinogen favours rouleaux formation. body.

8 (b) Leucocytes or White blood corpuscles lack l
Monocytes have a U-shaped nucleus and are 6-8% of
haemoglobin and therefore, they are colourless. total WBCs. They are also involved in phagocytic
9 (c) Lymphocytes (20-25%) are smaller cells with large functions.
rounded nucleus. 12 (c) The correct descending order of percentage
They are of two types, i.e. B and T. Both forms proportion of leucocytes in human blood is
produce antibodies, thus are responsible for immune Neutrophils (60-65%) → Lymphocytes (20-25%) →
responses. Monocytes (6-8%) → Eosinophils or Acidophils (2-3%)
10 (c) Largest in size among all types of leucocytes are → Basophils (0.5-1%).
monocytes. These are 6-8% of the total WBCs 14 (d) Blood platelets are usually cell fragments which
(leucocytes). They are motile and phagocytic in occur only in mammals.
nature.
They are non-nucleated, round or oval-shaped cells 23 (d) If Rh − negative blood is exposed to Rh + blood, the
which are produced from megakaryocytes. They are person with Rh − group will form specific antibodies
much smaller than RBC. Blood platelets are the source against the Rh antigens.
of thromboplastin, necessary for blood clotting and Therefore as a precaution Rh group should also be
thus, they are known as thrombocytes. matched before blood transfusion or subsequent
15 (a) Plasmin is an enzyme that degrades many plasma pregnancies in Rh − mothers.
proteins and initiates lysis or degradation of fibrin. This
24 (a) A special case of Rh incompatibility has been
process is known as fibrinolysis.
observed between Rh − pregnant mother with an Rh +
16 (d) A reduction in number of thrombocytes or blood foetus. It can cause erythroblastosis foetalis in second
platelets can lead to clotting disorders which can result or subsequent pregnancies.
in excessive loss of blood from the body. This is
25 (d) The 1st child of Rh + husband and Rh − wife is
because these cells help in coagulation of blood
following any injury. normal not having erythroblastosis foetalis due to the
absence of Rh antibodies in mother’s blood. This is
17 (c) Rh and ABO blood group correctly describes all because mother’s blood has encountered Rh + blood for
components of human blood group. More than 20 the first time during parturition.
different blood group systems are recognised in
The first child is delivered safely, but mother’s blood
medicine. Out of which, the best known are ABO
system and Rh system. In 1900, Dr. Karl Landsteiner identifies Rh + blood as antigen and prepares antibodies
discovered the ABO blood group and in 1902 Rh against it to eliminate subsequent entry of this antigen.
system was found by Decastello and Sturli. Thus, second child would have anaemia
(erythroblastosis foetalis).
18 (a) ABO blood grouping is based on the presence or
absence of the surface antigens-A and B on RBCs. The 28 (c) If an Rh − person donates blood to an Rh + person for
person with A antigen on RBCs displays A-blood group the first time, nothing will happen to both. This is
and so on. because Rh − person develops anti-Rh-antibodies in his
In case of O-blood group, surface antigen on RBCs are body after identifying Rh + blood as foreign. However
absent, while in case of AB-blood group, both A and B in subsequent transfusion, the anti-Rh-antibodies in
antigens are found on RBCs surface. recepient will destroy the RBCs of Rh + blood from
donor.
19 (a) If blood groups of recepient and donor are not match
during blood transfusion, it may result in clumping of 29 (a) An Rh − female can have subsequent normal
RBCs in the recepient. This happens due to antigen pregnancies with an Rh + husband. This is possible by
antibody reaction (called agglutination), where administration of anti-Rh-antibody to the mother just
erythrocytes (RBCs) clump up and stick together after delivery of her first child. This Rh antibody act
forming larger masses of clumped blood which may like a vaccine and prevents the mother’s body from
cause life threatening situation. producing any Rh antibodies that could cause serious
health problems in her next pregnancies.
21 (c) Blood group of the donor is O. Blood group is tested
by two types of sera, i.e. anti-A (Antibody-A) and 30 (d) Clotting disorders occur mainly due to the reduction
anti-B (Anibody-B). Persons with blood group-O in the number of the platelets as platelets release a
possess both antibodies in their plasma, but have no variety of substances or factors which are involved in
antigens on their RBCs. So, RBCs of blood group-O do blood clotting.
not show clumping in any of the two sera. That is why 31 (c) Vitamin-k also known as the anti-haemorrhagic
persons with blood group-O are called universal donor factor helps in the formation of prothrombin in liver for
and they can donate blood to a person having any type normal clotting of blood. It also plays an important role
of blood group. in formation of other blood clotting proteins.

22 (b) Option (b) is correct about blood groups and donor 32 (c) A dark reddish-brown scum formed at the site of a
compatibility. AB individuals can receive blood from cut or an injury over a period of time. It is a clot or
all other blood groups, while O group individuals can coagulam formed mainly of a network of threads called
donate blood to all groups. fibrins in which dead and damaged formed elements of
blood are trapped.
Blood Group Receive Blood Donate Blood
33 (a) Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive
O O O, A, B, AB fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombin.
A A, O A, AB Thrombins, in turn are formed from another inactive
substance present in the plasma called prothrombin. An
B B,O B, AB enzyme complex, thrombokinase is required for this
AB O, A, B, AB AB reaction.
35 (a) Prothrombinase is an enzyme which is formed at the 52 (a) Human heart is four-chambered, with a thin,
injured site in the presence of Ca 2+ . In the presence of muscular wall called the interatrial septum separating
Ca 2+, thromboplastin and other clotting factors form the right and the left atria. There is also present a
prothrombinase. thick-wall, i.e. the interventricular septum, which
separates the left and the right ventricles.
36 (b) A conjugated polysaccharide heparin is released by
the mast cells of connective tissue, which helps to 53 (a) Tricuspid valve is present between the right atrium
prevent the coagulation of blood, while it is flowing in and right ventricle. It is a valve made up of three
intact blood vessels. muscular flaps or cusps.
38 (b) Interstitial fluid or tissue fluid has the same mineral 54 (c) Bicuspid valve also called mitral valve, is present
distribution as that in plasma, i.e. it has water, inorganic on the left side between the left auricle and left
salts, nutrients, organic wastes, etc. ventricle. It consists of two cusps or flaps.
40 (d) Lymph is an important carrier for transport of 55 (c) Semilunar valves guard the opening of right
nutrients, hormones, etc. It does transport platelets. ventricle into the pulmonary artery and that of left
Lymph is a colourless fluid present in lymphatic system ventricle into aorta. It prevents the backflow of blood
containing specialised lymphocytes which are into ventricles.
responsible for immune responses of the body. 56 (c) Chordae tendineae prevents the valves from
42 (d) Open circulatory pathways present in arthropods and collapsing into right atrium during right ventricular
molluscs in which the blood pumped by the heart, contractions. If these chords are partially non-functional
passes through the large vessels into the open spaces of the flow of blood into pulmonary artery (from right
body cavity called sinuses. ventricle) will get reduced.
44 (d) Options (b) and (c) explain advantage of closed 58 (a) The wall of ventricles are much thicker than that of
circulatory system. In this, the blood flows through atrium because ventricles have to pump the blood to
closed blood vessels rather than open spaces, thus its pulmonary artery and aorta, so as to transport it to
flow is more precisely regulated. Option (a) is not an distant locations. Atria pump blood into ventricles only
advantage of closed circulation as blood is pumped by therefore their walls are thinner than the ventricles.
heart in both open and closed circulations.
59 (a) The cardiac musculature of heart is composed of
46 (b) All reptiles have three-chambered heart containing nodal tissue. This tissue can receive electrical impulses
two atrium (left and right) and one ventricle. But from the sino atrial (SA) node and diverts them to the
exceptionally crocodile possesses four-chambered heart. conducting system of the ventricular walls.
47 (a) The given diagram of circulation clearly indicates 62 (a) Purkinje’s fibres are found in heart. These are the
that there is single atrium and ventricle. So, it is the part of impulse conducting network of the heart. They
single circulatory pathway present in fishes. rapidly transmit impulses from the atrioventricular node
48 (b) In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives to the ventricles.
oxygenated blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the right 65 (d) The nodal musculature has the ability to generate
atrium gets the deoxygenated blood from other body action potentials without any external stimuli, i.e. it is
parts. autoexcitable.
49 (d) Both options (b) and (c) are correct. In reptiles and However, the number of action potentials generated per
amphibians the heart is with two atria and one ventricle. minute varies at different parts of the nodal system. The
Due to single ventricle, the deoxygenated and SAN (Sino-Atrial Node) can generate the maximum
oxygenated blood from both atria come here and get number of action potentials, i.e. 70-75 min, i.e. the
mixed up. This is known as incomplete double highest rate of depolarisation.

circulation.
67 (d) The contraction of the atria is initiated and activated
50 (a) In birds and mammals, left atria receive oxygenated
by Sino-Atrial node (SA node).
blood and right atria receives deoxygenated blood,
which is then passed to ventricles of the same sides. It is called pacemaker of the heart because it is
The ventricles pump it out without any mixing up, i.e. responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
two separate circulatory pathways are present in these contractile activity of heart.
organisms, hence these animals have double 68 (c) The artificial pacemaker generates the rhythmical
circulation. impulse which is normally made by SA node. Hence, it
51 (c) Double circulation is found in crocodile , birds and is implanted at the site of SA node to mimic the action
mammals because all of them have four-chambered and to regulate the heartbeat. SA node is found in the
heart. Reptiles are with three-chambered heart. upper part of the right atrium of the heart.
69 (b) In case, when SA node or pacemaker is 85 (d) ECG or Electrocardiogram is a graphical

non-functional, then there will no origin of heartbeat representation of the electrical activity of the heart
and there will be no transmission of impulses to atria. during a cardiac cycle.
The ventricle will also fail to receive the atrial 86 (d) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to a
impulse by the obstruction in AV conduction. Thus, machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and
overall conducting system of the heart would be one to left ankle) that continuously monitor the heart
disrupted. activity.
71 (b) During joint diastole, all the four chambers of For detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple
heart are in a relaxed state. This causes the tricuspid leads are attached to the chest region.
and bicuspid valves to open and blood from the
87 (b) QRS complex in the ECG represent the
pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and
depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the
the right ventricle, respectively through the left and
ventricular contraction (i.e. ventricular systole).
right atria. The semilunar valves are closed at this
stage. 88 (b) By counting the numbers of QRS complexes that
occur in a given time period, we can determine the
74 (b) As the two atria contract simultaneously
heartbeat rate of an individual.
(Stimulated by SA node) blood is pumped into the
ventricles. This is called atrial systole. Bicuspid and 89 (b) P-R interval in ECG indicates the time from the onset
tricuspid valves are open during this phase. of P-wave (atrial depolarisation) to the beginning of QRS
complex (ventricular depolarisation). It corresponds to
75 (c) Atrial diastole takes place when both the atria are
the time taken by an electrical impulse generated in SA
filled with blood, i.e. having deoxygenated blood in
node to travel through the atria, across the AV node to the
right atrium and oxygenated blood in left atrium.
ventricles, i.e. SA nodal conduction time.
78 (d) Atrio-Ventricular Node (AVN) present in the lower
91 (a) In ECG, P-wave represents the depolarisation of atria
corner of the right atrium, delays the spreading of
which leads to the contraction of both atria.
impulses to heart ventricles for about 0.1 second. This
pause allows the atria to empty completely into the 92 (c) Veins differ from artery in possessing thin tunica
ventricles before the ventricles pump out the blood. media. Basically, each artery and vein consist of three
layers, i.e. an inner lining of squamous endothelium, the
tunica intima, a middle layer of smooth muscle and
The cycle of events which occurs in a single heartbeat is elastic fibres, the tunica media and an external layer of
called cardiac cycle. These events in the heart are fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres, the tunica
cyclically repeated. It involves rhythmic contraction externa.
and
relaxation of the heart muscles involving two phases 97 (c) In pulmonary circulation, the movement of blood
takes place from heart to lungs and then from lungs to
l
Systole When blood is ejected from the heart due to
heart as follows
its contraction.
l
Diastole When chambers of the heart are filled with Right ventricle
the blood. It is also called relaxation phase. Deoxygenated blood
80 (a) Cardiac output is the volume of the blood pumped Lungs
out by the ventricles per unit time. It is calculated as Oxygenated blood
Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart Left auricle
rate/Heartbeat.
98 (d) In systemic circulation the movement of blood takes
81 (c) Duration of a cardiac cycle is 0.8 sec out of which
place between heart and different parts of body except
atrial systole takes 0.1 sec, ventricular systole takes 0.3 lungs. It has arterial and venous system. It occurs as
sec and complete cardiac systole occurs in 0.4 sec. follows
83 (c) The first heart sound ‘Lubb‘ can be heard, during
Left ventricle
contraction of the ventricles (i.e. ventricular systole).
Oxygenated blood
This is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and
bicuspid valves. Aorta
84 (a) Option (a) is incorrect pair and it can be corrected
as Tissues
During ventricular diastole, the semilunar valves get Deoxygenated blood
closed and this produces the second heart sound, Right auricle
Dupp.
99 (c) Double circulation is the passage of the blood 115 (c) Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not
twice in the heart through the separate pathways, so pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of
as to complete one cardiac cycle. It consists of two the body. It is sometimes called congestive heart failure
pathways because congestion of the lungs is one of the main
(i) Pulmonary pathway symptoms of this disease.
(ii) Systemic pathway Heart failure is not the same as cardiac arrest (when the
100 (d) The systemic circulation provides nutrients, O2 heart stops beating) or a heart attack (when the heart
and other essential substances to the tissues and takes muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood
CO2 and other harmful substances away for supply).
elimination. 116 (b) Streptokinase (SK) is a protein secreted by several
102 (d) A unique vascular connection exists between the species of Streptococci, which can bind and activate
digestive tract and liver called hepatic portal system. human plasminogen. It is used as an effective and
The hepatic portal vein carries the blood from the inexpensive thrombolysis medication in some cases of
intestine to liver before it is delivered to systemic myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism.
circulation. 117 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
104 (c) A special coronary system of blood vessels is correct explanation of Assertion.
present in our body exclusively for the circulation of Platelets are cells that aid in coagulation of blood at the
blood to and from the cardiac musculature. site of injury. If their number is reduced below normal, it
105 (d) Normal activities of heart are regulated will lead to excessive loss of blood from body in case of
intrinsically, i.e. autoregulated by specialised muscle an injury. This can be fatal and may result in death of the
(nodal tissue). Hence, the heart is called myogenic. patient.
107 (c) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves 118 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
(part of ANS) can increase the rate of heartbeat by correct explanation of Assertion.
strengthening the ventricular contraction and cardiac Sino-Atrial (SA) node is the natural pacemaker of heart
output. producing electrical impulses for heart contraction. Any
On the other hand, parasympathetic neural signals kind of malfunctioning in SA node leads to the
(another component of ANS) decrease the rate of disturbance of heart rate and normal heart functioning.
heartbeat, speed of conduction of action potential and 119 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
thereby cardiac output. correct explanation of Assertion.
110 (c) Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is The tricuspid and bicuspid valves guard the opening
maximum during systole of the left ventricle because between right atrium and right ventricle and left atrium
the heart contract inorder to push blood into the aorta and left ventricle, respectively. These valves during
from where it needs to be supplied all over the body. ventricular contraction (i.e. systole) gets closed to
For doing this, maximum pressure is required. prevent the back flow of blood from ventricles into
the atrium.
111 (d) Normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. In this
measurement, 120 mm of Hg (millimetres of mercury 120 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
pressure) is systolic or pumping pressure and 80 mm correct explanation of Assertion.
of Hg is diastolic or resting pressure. The heart rate or heartbeat of a six months old bady is
much higher than that of a normal adult person. This is
112 (d) High blood pressure (hypertension) is the term for
because in animals, size affects metabolic rate.
blood pressure that is higher than normal (120/80). If
repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual is Metabolism is the catabolic and anabolic processes
above this range, e.g. 140/90, it shows hypertension. occurring in the body. The metabolic rate is the speed at
High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also which these processes takes place. Since, humans are
affects the vital organs like brain and kidney. warm-blooded animals, their body need to do a lot of
work to keep blood warm.
113 (d) Coronary artery disease, often referred to as
Thus, for keeping the blood warm of an infant or
atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to
small-sized mammal, the metabolic rate should be faster
the heart muscle. It is caused by deposits of calcium,
and so does the heart rate.
fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which makes the
lumen of arteries narrower. Therefore, we can say smaller the organism, higher is the
metabolism per gram weight.
114 (b) Angina also called angina pectoris is a symptom
showing acute chest pain. It occurs due to decreased 121 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
supply of oxygen to the heart muscle. Angina can corrected as
occur in men and women of any age, but it is more Our body can alter the stroke volume and heart rate as
common among the middle-aged and elderly. per its metabolic needs, e.g. in an athlete, heart rate
changes according to physical activities, i.e. from 130 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected
normal 72 beats/min to even 120 beats/min. as
We know that the duration of cardiac cycle is The granulocytes are found in the cytoplasm and they are
inversely proportional to heart rate. Thus, cardiac formed in the red bone marrow, e.g. neutrophils,
cycle duration keeps on changing to meet the eosinophils and basophils.
demands of our body. 131 (d) Statement in option (d) is correct about closed
122 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is circulatory system.
the correct explanation of Assertion. Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
Bundle of His originates from AV bundle which is an l
In closed circulatory system, blood flows in blood vessels
autoexcitable node (i.e. generate action potentials, comparatively faster and with high blood pressure.
external stimulation). However, the impulse l
Blood is not in direct contact with tissue cells and thus
generated by AV node has less frequency as exchange of gases, nutrients, etc., occurs through tissue
compared to SA node. fluid.
123 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can 132 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct for human heart. The
be corrected as other incorrect statements can be corrected as
The SA node is found at the upper right corner of l
Volume of both atria is less than the volume of both
right atrium and it acts as a pacemaker of heart by ventricles, as the former is smaller than latter.
generating maximum number of action potentials l
Interventricular septum separates the right and left
which initiate and maintains the contractile activity of ventricles.
the heart. l
Atrioventricular septum separates the atrium and
124 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is ventricles in human heart.
not the correct explanation of Assertion. 133 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct as RBCs lack nucleus
Thrombins (formed from inactive prothrombins by in most mammals. The correct form of incorrect
enzyme complex thrombokinase) are enzymes which statements are
convert inactive fibrinogens in plasma to fibrins RBCs are the most abundant, biconcave-shaped cells.
which help in blood clotting. They contain a red coloured, iron containing pigment
Calcium ions are very important for blood clotting. called haemoglobin.
They help in the formation of intrinsic and extrinsic 134 (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
factors for blood coagulation and thrombins. corrected as
126 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is Heart is mesodermal in origin not endodermal.
the correct explanation of Assertion. Rest options are correct.
In crocodiles, the heart retains both systemic arches 135 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
that join together, but causes mixing of blood in corrected as
dorsal aorta, while avian (bird) hearts have no left
The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated (not
systemic arch. Hence, four-chambered heart of birds
deoxygenated) blood from the lungs into the left atrium
is superior to that of crocodiles. where it is returned to systemic circulation. Rest
127 (a) Option (a) is correct regarding human blood. statements are correct.
Blood measures about 5-5.5 L in an adult man, 136 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct for WBCs.
constituting 30-35% of the total extracellular fluid.
The correct form of other incorrect statements is as
Other statements can be corrected as follows
The amount of different components in blood are as l

Neutrophils are called heterophils and polymorphs
follows because of different shapes of their nucleus.
l
Glucose Its value is 80-100 mg /100 mL of blood. l
Lymphocytes produce antibodies such as B and T cells
l
Cholesterol 50-180 mg/100 mL of blood. which help in immune response.
l
Urea Normal level is 17-30 mg/100 mL. l
Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranulocytes as they
129 (c) Statement II is true. During blood transfusion, the lack granules in their cytoplasm.
person receiving the blood should not have 137 (b) Option (b), i.e. statements I, II and IV correctly
antibodies against the donor’s RBCs in his/her identifies the properties of RBCs. RBCs are circular,
serum. But it should have antigen similar to the biconcave and enucleated in mammals (except camel
RBCs of the donor. where they are oval and nucleated).
It is biconcave so as to increase the surface area (for O2 149 (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct. The incorrect
transfer) and allows easy passage through blood vessel. statement I can be corrected as
RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow. The closure of semilunar valves produces a highly
Statements III and V are incorrect. These can be pitched and sharper dupp sound. Closure of
corrected as atrio-ventricular valves produces, slow pitch lubb
RBCs are destroyed in spleen and they do not help in sound.
blood clotting instead platelets perform this function. 164 (c) Basophils are least common granulocyte and they
138 (a) Statements I, III and V indicate the properties of form only 0.01-0.3% of the circulating white blood
leucocytes or WBCs in blood. The correct form of cells. These are involved in specific kinds of
statements II and IV are as follows inflammatory reactions, particularly those which cause
l
Leucocytes are nucleated (shapes and number of lobes allergic reactions and do not exhibit phagocytic
in nucleus may vary). activity.
l
These are short-lived, i.e. they survive for 165 (c) The most common symptoms observed in people
approximately 8-12 days in blood. infected with dengue fever is low platelet count.
139 (b) Statements III, IV and V are correct, while I and II 166 (a) Cardiac cycle consists of one heartbeat or one cycle
are incorrect. The incorrect statements can be corrected of contraction and relaxation of the cardiac muscle. The
as contraction phase is called the systole while the
l
Plasma contains 55-60% of the blood volume. relaxation phase is called the diastole. The volume of
l
Albumin helps to maintain osmotic balance. blood pumped out by right and left ventricles is same
143 (c) Statements I is false, and it can be corrected as during each cycle. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by each 167 (b) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves can
ventricle during cardiac cycle. It is about 70 mL. increase the rate of the heartbeat, the strength of
ventricular contraction and thereby, stimulating the
144 (a) All the statements are correct except I. It can be
cardiac output. Hence, sympathetic system is involved
corrected as
in stimulating heart rate and stroke volume. The
Lymph is pale yellow or colourless fluid which lacks parasympathetic nervous system in turn decreases
haemoglobin, large proteins and formed elements. It heart rate and stroke volume.
only contains lymphocytes along with some minerals.
168 (b) Certain factors released by the tissues at the site of
145 (c) The events of cardiac cycle are as follows
injury can initiate coagulation process.
(III) (I) (II) Calcium ions and platelet are factors which are essential
Joint diastole SA node generates Artrial systole for blood coagulation.
action potential
169 (b) In a normal ECG, P-wave represents atrial
Ventricular Atrial diastole Ventricular systole depolarisation, QRS complex-ventricular depolarisation
diastole (VI) (V) and T-wave signifies ventricular repolarisation.
(IV) Therefore, atrial repolarisation is not represented in an
electrocardiogram (ECG).
146 (d) Statement I is true for double circulation and
170 (d) Erythrocytes or RBCs in humans lack nucleus.
statement II is false. The correct form of statement II is
Absence of nucleus in the cell reduces the O2
It carries both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. In consumption by the cell in various cellular activities.
double circulation, the heart is four-chambered with two Therefore, the cell is able to transport maximum amount
atria and two ventricles. It involves two circuits of
of O2 to other cells of the body.

blood circulation carrying both the oxygenated (through
systemic circuit) and deoxygenated (through the 171 (a) B-lymphocytes functions to produce antibodies
pulmonary circuit) blood. against soluble antigens thus helps in providing
humoral immunity.
148 (a) Only statement III correctly describes the function
of a vessel associated with heart. The correct form of 172 (c) The correct sequence of impulse conduction in heart
other incorrect statements I and II are as follows is represented by option (c).
l
Systemic aorta originates from left ventricle and SA-node → AV node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibre
distributes oxygenated blood to various body parts. This can be explained as
l
Pulmonary aorta originates from right ventricle and The walls of the right auricle near the opening of the
divides into two pulmonary arteries which carry superior vena cava have SA node from where, the
deoxygenated blood to lungs. contraction is initiated.
This wave of contraction reaches AV node, which is group-A then he has antigen-A in his blood and if a
stimulated to emit an impulse of contraction to the person has blood group -B then he has antigen- B in his
ventricular muscle via the atrio-ventricular (AV) bundle blood.
and then to the Purkinje fibres.
177 (b) Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by
173 (d) Lympocytes are the agranulocytic, white blood cells each ventricle per minute is called the cardiac output. It
responsible for generation of immune response in the is determined by multiplying the heart rate with the
body by producing B-cells and T-cells. volume of blood ejected by each ventricle during each
175 (b) Option (b) is correct as beat, which is called as stroke volume.
Cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke volume. Thus, a
QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation person with heart rate of 72 beats/min and SV = 50 mL
(ventricular contraction). QRS wave (complex) begins will have an output of = 72 beats/min × 50 mL/beat =
after a fraction of second after the P-wave. It begins as a
3600 mL/min.
small downward deflection (Q) and continue as a large
upright (R) and triangular wave, ending as downward 179 (d) Option (d) is correct for statements I and II. The
wave (S) at its base. superior vena cava pours venous blood into right atria
and left atria receive blood from lungs. This then flows
176 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be into ventricles. The contraction of muscles of atria
corrected as arises from SA nodes and then it passes to AV node and
Blood grouping in human is based on the presence or then to the Purkinje fibres.
absence of antigens on the surface of RBCs namely, Therefore, action mentioned in statements I and II are
A and B-antigens. For example, If a person has blood synchronous.

CHAPTER > 19
Excretory Products
and their Elimination
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Excretion is defined as the process of eliminating waste Å Varieties of excretory organs are found in animal kingdom
products accumulated by metabolic activities or by excess which are as follows
ingestion.
Excretory organs Examples
Å The waste products constituting various types of
Protonephridia or flame cells Platyhelminthes (flatworms),
nitrogenous compounds such as NH3 , urea, uric acid, etc., rotifers, cephalochordates (e.g.
are eliminated by different organisms based on availability Amphioxus) and some annelids.
of water. Nephridia Earthworm and other annelids.
Å Depending upon the types of excretory material, organisms Malpighian tubules Insects, e.g. cockroach.
are classified as ammonotelic, ureotelic and uricotelic.
Antennal or green glands Crustaceans, e.g. prawns.
Å The various features and examples of the modes of excretion
are tabulated below
Human Excretory System
Mode of
excretion
Excreted material Examples It comprises of a pair of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and a
urethra.
Ammonotelism Ammonia is excreted by Bony fishes, aquatic
diffusion across body surface amphibians and
as NH 3+ ions. Organisms aquatic insects. Kidneys
require great amount of water Å These are reddish-brown, bean-shaped structures 10-12 cm
as ammonia is highly toxic. in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness and 120-170 g
Kidneys are not involved in in weight.
this.
Ureotelism Urea is excreted through Terrestrial animals, Renal column
kidneys which is produced by marine fishes. Medullary pyramid
the conversion of ammonia in
Calyx
liver. Urea is less toxic than
ammonia and is less soluble in
water. It can be retained in Renal artery
body in small amount to Cortex Renal vein
maintain osmolarity. Renal pelvis
Uricotelism Uric acid is excreted in the Reptiles, birds, land Renal capsule Ureter
form of pellet or paste with snails, insects.
minimum loss of water. Uric
acid crystals are non-toxic and
almost insoluble in water.
Longitudinal section (Diagrammatic) of Kidney
CHAPTER 19 > Excretory Products and their Elimination 443
Å Hilum is a notch at the concave surface of the kidney Å Various parts of renal tubule are as follows
through which ureter, blood vessels and nerve enter.
Part of renal tubule Characteristics
Å Renal pelvis is a broad funnel-shaped space inner to the
Bowman’s capsule Initial part of renal tubule,
hilum. It bears projections called calyces. double-walled cup-like structure
Å Capsule is the outer tough layer of kidney, while the containing glomerulus.
inner part of kidney comprises of two zones, an outer Proximal Convoluted Tubule Highly coiled region immediate
cortex and an inner medulla. The medulla is further (PCT) after Bowman’s capsule.
divided into medullary pyramids which project into Henle’s loop Hairpin-shaped, possesses an
calyces. ascending and a descending limb.
Å Columns of Bertini are renal columns formed by Distal Convoluted Tubule Highly coiled tubular region after
extension of cortex in between medullary pyramids. (DCT) Henle’s loop.
Collecting duct Straight tube which opens into
Å Nephrons are the structural and functional unit of renal pelvis through medullary
kidney. It comprises of glomerulus and renal tubule. pyramids.
Efferent arteriole
Afferent arteriole Å The cortical region of kidney contains Malpighian
corpuscles, PCT and DCT while the medulla contains
Glomerulus Henle’s loop.
,
Bowman s Å There are two types of nephrons present in the kidney, i.e.
capsule Proximal
cortical nephrons having shorter loop of Henle ( in
Convoluted
Tubule
majority) and juxtamedullary nephrons having longer loop
of Henle (present deep in the medulla).
Distal Å Peritubular capillaries are fine capillary network around
Convoluted renal tubule and they emerge from efferent arteriole.
Descending limb Tubule
Henle's loop
of loop of Henle Å Vasa recta is U-shaped minute vessel of peritubular

capillary which runs parallel to Henle’s loop. It is highly
reduced or absent in cortical nephrons.
Ascending limb
of loop of Henle
Urine Formation
Vasa recta Collecting duct It involves three main processes, i.e. ultrafiltration,
reabsorption and secretion. It takes place in different parts of
A diagrammatic representation of a nephron showing blood the nephron.
vessels, duct and tubule
1. Glomerular Filtration or Ultrafiltration
Å Afferent arterioles branch to form network of blood Å It is a non-selective process performed by glomerulus.
capillaries called glomerulus. Efferent arterioles carry the Å Blood filtration occurs through 3 specialised layers and
blood away from the glomerulus.
epithelial cells called podocytes of Bowman’s capsule.
Å Malpighian body or renal corpuscle constitutes Å These three specialised layers are
glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule.
n
Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels
n
Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule
Efferent arteriole
Afferent
n
Basement membrane between endothelium and
arteriole epithelium.
Bowman’s capsule
Å The filtration slits formed by podocytes allow all the
constituents of plasma to pass through it except proteins.
Glomerulus
This process is called ultrafiltration.
Å On an average, 1100-1200 mL of blood is filtered by the
kidneys per minute which constitute roughly 1/5th of the
blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a
minute.
Proximal convoluted
tubule
Å The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute
Malpighian body (renal corpuscle) is called Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR). GFR in a
NEET KEY NOTES

healthy person is approximately 125mL/minute, i.e. 180 litres In these tubules, flow of filtrate in two limbs is in opposite
per day. direction, i.e. in counter-current pattern.
Å Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA), a specialised portion of Å High osmolarity toward inner medullary interstitium
the nephrons, plays a significant role in the regulation of (from 300 m Osmol/L in cortex to 1200 m Osmol/L in
GFR. Fall in GFR activates JG cells to release renin which medulla) is maintained by counter-current mechanism
stimulates glomerular blood flow and brings GFR back to and proximity between Henle’s loop and vasa recta.
normal. NaCl and urea help to generate gradient across these
tubules.
2. Selective Reabsorption Å In the ascending limb of Henle’s loop, NaCl is lost
99% of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the tubular epithelial cells through diffusion and Na + and Cl − ions by active
Å
in different segments of nephron by active or passive transport. These are exchanged with the descending
mechanisms. This process is called reabsorption. limb of vasa recta.
Å Na + , glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed actively, while Å NaCl is returned to the interstitium by ascending
nitrogenous waste and water are reabsorbed passively. portion of vasa recta. Similarly, small amount of urea
3. Tubular Secretion enters the thin segment of ascending limb which is
transported back to the interstitium by collecting
K+ , H+ and NH+4 ions are secreted from filtrate by tubules to tubule.
maintain the ionic balance and pH of body fluids. This is known
as tubular secretion.
Å The above described transport of substances facilitated
by the special arrangement of Henle’s loop and vasa
Functions of Renal Tubule recta is called the counter-current mechanism.
Å Counter-current mechanism helps in an easy passage of
The functions of various parts of tubules are tabulated below
H 2 O from collecting duct so as to produce concentrated
Parts of Renal Tubule Characteristics/Functions urine.
Proximal Convoluted
Lined by simple cuboidal epithelium for
Tubule (PCT) increased reabsorption. Regulation of Kidney

Reabsorbs essential nutrients, 70-80% of
electrolytes, H2O and HCO−3 ions.
Function

Selectively secretes H + , NH 3+ , K + ions and Kidney functions are regulated by hypothalamus, JGA
thus maintains pH and ionic balance of body and heart.
fluids.
Henle’s loop 1. Hypothalamic Control

Descending limb
Permeable to water, impermeable to Regulation of kidneys can be controlled by hypothalamus.
electrolytes, contains concentrated filtrate. It can be understood by following flowchart

Ascending limb
Impermeable to H 2O, allows transport of Excessive loss of fluid from body
electrolytes actively or passively, thus
maintains high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid, contains diluted filtrate. Osmoreceptors of body get activated
Distal Convoluted
Conditional reabsorption of Na + and H2O,
Tubule (DCT) Stimulates hypothalamus
Negative feedback
HCO−3 .

Selective secretion of H + , K + , NH3 to
Release of ADH or vasopressin from posterior
maintain pH and ionic balance in blood.
pituitary
Collecting duct
Reabsorbs H2O maximally and small PATH I PATH II
amount of urea, thus produces concentrated
urine. H2O reabsorption from distal parts of

Secretes H + and K + ions. renal tubules + Diuresis prevented
Constriction of
Volume of body blood vessels
Mechanism of Concentration of fluids gets
the Filtrate normalised Increased blood pressure
Å Concentration of the filtrate (urine) occurs due to the
counter-current mechanism operating in two limbs of Increased Glomerular
Henle’s loop and vasa recta. blood flow and GFR
NEET KEY NOTES

2. JGA Control Å Skin eliminates certain wastes with sweat, such as

NaCl, some urea, lactic acid, etc. Sebaceous glands in skin
Å It is also called Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System eliminate substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
(RAAS). through sebum.
Å Renin-Angiotensin controls the kidney function in the
following ways Disorders of Excretory System
Fall in GFR Some disorders of excretory system are as follows
Å Uremia It is the presence of an excessive amount of urea in
Activate JG cells to release Increased GFR and BP the blood.
Renin n
It results from the decreased excretion of urea in the
kidney tubules due to the bacterial infection or some
Angiotensinogen (in blood) mechanical obstruction.
Reabsorption of Na+ n
Urea poisons the cells at high concentration. The high
and H2O from distal concentration of non-protein nitrogen like urea,
Angiotensin-I
part of tubules uric acid, creatinine exists in blood due to the kidney
failure.
Angiotensin-II Activates Aldosterone Å Renal failure It is the partial or total inability of kidneys to
adrenal cortex released carry out excretory function.
n
It is caused by tubular injury, bacterial toxins,
3. Heart Control inflammation, etc.
In response to increased blood pressure, Atrial Natriuretic n
It is also called as kidney failure.
Factor (ANF) is released by heart which causes vasodilation
Å Renal stones or Renal calculi These are also called as
and decreased BP. It opposes RAAS.
kidney stones. Excessive hormonal imbalance, uric acid
formation, milk intake, dehydration, metabolic
Micturition disturbances, etc., lead to the formation of renal stones or
Å It is the process of release of urine and it is accompanied renal calculi.
by micturition reflex as shown below Å Glomerulonephritis constitutes of inflammation of
Urine stored in urinary bladder glomeruli.
Å Ketonuria Presence of ketone bodies in urine.
Stretching of urinary bladder Micturition
Å Glycosuria Presence of glucose in urine.
Artificial Kidney
Motor
Voluntary signal to CNS Contraction of Å Artificial kidney called haemodialyser is a machine that is
signal used to filtre the blood of a damaged kidney. This process
smooth muscles
and relaxation of is called haemodialysis.
urethral sphincter Å Haemodialysis is the separation of small molecules from
large molecules in a solution by interposing a
Å On an average, the volume of urine and the amount of semipermeable membrane between the solution and
urea excreted by an adult human per day is 1 to 1.5 litres water.
and 25-30 gm, respectively.
Å In this, blood of the patient is pumped from one of the
arteries into the cellophane tube after cooling it to 0°C and
Role of Other Organs in Excretion mixing with an anticoagulant (heparin).
Å Lungs, liver and skin also help in excretion in addition to Å Pores of the cellophane tube allow urea, uric acid,
kidneys. creatinine, excess salts, etc., to diffuse from the blood into
Å Lungs remove about 18 L of CO2 and major quantities of the surrounding solution. Thus, blood is purified and then
water vapour everyday. pumped into a vein of the patient.
Å Liver secretes bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded Å Plasma proteins remain in the blood as the pores of the
steroid hormones, vitamins and drugs, which pass out cellophane are too small to permit the passage of large
along with digestive juice (bile). molecules.
NEET KEY NOTES

Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Human Excretory System

1 The process of excretion involves 8 Why terrestrial organisms excrete lesser toxic
(a) removal of useful substances from the body nitrogenous waste?
(b) removal of metabolic wastes from the body (a) For conservation of water
(c) removal of the substances which have never been used (b) For maintaining osmolarity
by the body (c) To facilitate simple diffusion
(d) removal of byproducts formed during useful activities (d) It is easy to excrete less toxic substances
in the body 9 In ureotelic animals, ammonia produced by
2 Animals accumulate wastes like urea, uric acid, metabolism is converted into urea in
+ + − (a) kidney (b) liver (c) spleen (d) lungs
CO 2 , H 2O ions like Na , K , Cl , phosphate,
sulphate, etc., by 10 In marine fishes and terrestrial amphibians,
(a) metabolic activities nitrogenous waste is filtered and excreted through
(b) excess ingestion (a) gills (b) flame cells
(c) excretion (c) kidneys (d) glomerulus
(d) Both (a) and (b) 11 The nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of
nitrogenous pellet in
3 Order of toxicity among ammonia, urea and uric acid
(a) fishes (b) sponges
(from lower to higher) is
(c) reptiles (d) None of these
(a) uric acid < urea < ammonia
(b) uric acid < ammonia < urea 12 Which of the following is uricotelic? JIPMER 2019
(c) urea < uric acid < ammonia (a) Insects (b) Birds (c) Lizards (d) All of these
(d) ammonia < urea < uric acid 13 Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of
4 Among ammonia, uric acid and urea; which one (a) insects (b) mammals
needs the least amount of water to excrete? (c) birds (d) reptiles
(a) Ammonia (b) Uric acid 14 Which of the following structures help in the removal
(c) Urea (d) Both (b) and (c) of nitrogenous waste as well as concerned with
5 Among ammonia, uric acid and urea, which one is the osmoregulation?
most soluble? (a) Protonephridia (b) Nephridia
(a) Ammonia (b) Uric acid (c) Malpighian tubules (d) All of these
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Urea 15 The excretory organ in crustaceans like prawns is
6 Which of the following organisms is/are ammonotelic? (a) antennal glands (b) nephridia
(a) Aquatic amphibians (c) flame cells (d) Malpighian tubules
(b) Bony fishes 16 Part of the kidney through which the ureter, blood
(c) Mammals vessels and nerves enter into it is
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) renal cortex (b) renal medulla
7 Aquatic animals excrete ammonia. Which of the (c) hilum (d) urethra
following statements does not support this fact? 17 Inner to the hilum of the kidney, there is a broad
(a) Ammonia is easily soluble in water funnel-shaped space bearing calyces. It is
(b) Ammonia is released from the body through kidneys (a) renal pelvis (b) medulla
(c) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be eliminated as (c) cortex (d) adrenal gland
and when formed 18 The medullary pyramids project into the
(d) Ammonia gets converted into less toxic form called (a) calyx (b) cortex
urea and uric acid (c) renal pelvis (d) None of these
19 The cortical part that extends between medullary 25 The tufts of capillaries which form the glomerulus
pyramids as renal columns are called and those which carry the blood away from
(a) columns of renal glomerulus, respectively are
(b) columns of Martini (a) vasa recta and renal vein
(c) columns of Bertini (b) vasa recta and afferent arteriole
(d) columns of kidney (c) afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole
20 Figure shows human urinary system with structures (d) efferent arterioles and hepatic vein
labelled A-D. Select option, which correctly identifies 26 What is the function of Bowman’s capsule and
them and gives their characteristics and/of functions? glomerulus? AIIMS 2019
(NEET 2013) (a) Filtration of blood
A (b) Reabsorption of ions from blood
B (c) Reabsorption of hormones from blood
C
Kidney
(d) Reabsorption of water from blood
27 Malpighian body is
D (a) alternative name of Bowman’s capsule
(b) PCT + DCT + Collecting tube
(c) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus
(d) functional unit of kidney
Urinary bladder
28 Study the given structure of a nephron and match A,
B, C, D, E, F and G with correct option.
(a) A–Adrenal gland–located at the anterior part of kidney,
secretes catecholamines, which stimulate glycogen A
E
breakdown
(b) B–Pelvis-broad funnel–shaped space inner to hilum,
Bowman’s
directly connected to loop of Henle B
capsule
(c) C–Medulla–inner zone of kidney and contains complete
nephrons
(d) D–Cortex–outer part of kidney and does not contain any D
part of nephrons
Descending
21 Identify A-D in the given diagram of LS of kidney limb
and choose the correct option. C
(a) A–Calyx, B–Cortex, C–Renal Ascending
column, D–Ureter C A limb
(b) A–Calyx, B–Cortex, C–Renal
F
column, D–Urethra G
(c) A–Urethra, B–Cortex, C–Renal
column, D–Calyx D (a) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Proximal convoluted tubule,
B C–Henle's loop, D–Distal convoluted tubule,
(d) A–Urethra, B–Calyx, C–Renal
column, D–Cortex E–Efferent arteriole, F– Collecting duct, G–Vasa recta
(b) A–Efferent arteriole, B–PCT, C–Henle's loop, D–DCT,
22 Structural and functional unit of E–Peritubular capillaries, F– Collecting duct, G–Vasa
the kidney is recta
(a) medulla (b) nephridia (c) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Peritubular capillaries,
(c) nephron (d) hilum C–Henle's loop, D–DCT, E–PCT, F–Collecting duct,
23 The human kidney has about G–Vasa recta
(a) one million nephrons (d) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Henle's loop, C– Collecting
(b) two thousand nephrons duct, D–PCT, E–DCT, F–Peritubular capillaries,
(c) three thousand nephrons G–Vasa recta
(d) ten billion nephrons 29 Which among the following kidney structures form a
24 Each nephron has two parts, which are highly coiled network of tubules?
(a) Bowman's capsule and PCT (a) PCT and DCT
(b) glomerulus and renal tubule (b) Loop of Henle
(c) glomerulus and Bowman's capsule (c) Loop of Henle and collecting duct
(d) Bowman’s capsule and renal tubule (d) Collecting duct
30 The structures from which the collecting duct receives 36 Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in the
the filtrate and the structure into which it pours the (a) medullary nephrons (b) cortical nephrons
filtrates, respectively are (c) juxta-medullary nephrons (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) PCT and urinary bladder 37 Identify A-D in the diagram of Malpighian body
(b) DCT and renal pelvis (renal corpuscle) and choose the correct option for
(c) Henle’s loop and Bowman’s capsule A, B, C and D. A
(d) Glomerulus and efferent arteriole
(a) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent
B
31 The majority of nephrons in which , the loop of Henle arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule,
found is too short and extend very little into the medulla D–Proximal convoluted tubule C
are (b) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent
(a) cortical nephrons (b) medullary nephrons arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule,
(c) juxta-medullary nephrons (d) peritubular nephrons D–Distal convoluted tubule
32 Which of the following is a part of medullary (c) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent
pyramid? arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule, D
D–Distal convoluted tubule
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule
(b) Distal convoluted tubule (d) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent arteriole,
C–Bowman's capsule, D–Distal convoluted tubule
(c) Malpighian corpuscle
(d) Loop of Henle 38 Arrange the following parts of the nephron in a
33 In juxtamedullary nephrons, sequential manner and select the correct option
(a) vasa recta is prominent
accordingly.
(b) loop of Henle is long I. Glomerulus.
(c) loop of Henle runs deep into the medulla II. Ascending Henle’s loop.
(d) All of the above III. Descending Henle’s loop.
34 The peritubular capillaries around the renal tubule IV. Proximal convoluted tubule.
emerge from V. Collecting duct.
(a) vasa recta (b) afferent arteriole VI. Distal convoluted tubule.
(c) efferent arteriole (d) hepatic vein Choose the correct option.
35 The U-shaped minute vessel that runs parallel to the (a) I → II → III → IV → V → VI
Henle's loop is (b) I → IV → III → II → VI → V
(a) collecting duct (b) vasa recta (c) I → II → IV → III → V → VI
(c) glomerulus (d) None of these (d) VI → III → II → I → VI → V
TOPIC 2 ~ Urine Formation and Functions of Tubules

39 The correct order of processes that occur in urine 42 Choose the incorrect option for the layers present
formation. between the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule.
(a) Glomerular filtration → Tubular secretion (a) Epithelium is the layer of glomerular blood vessels
→ Reabsorption (b) Basement membrane is present between the
(b) Tubular secretion → Glomerular filtration → endothelium and epithelium
Reabsorption (c) Endothelium is the layer of Bowman’s capsule
(c) Glomerular filtration → Reabsorption → Tubular (d) Both (a) and (c)
secretion
(d) Tubular secretion → Reabsorption → Glomerular 43 Podocytes are
filtration (a) endothelial cells of the glomerulus
40 The amount of blood that is filtered by the kidneys (b) endothelial cells of the Bowman’s capsule
per minute is (c) epithelial cells of the Bowman’s capsule
(a) 500 mL (b) 1100-1200 mL (d) epithelial cells of the glomerulus
(c) 125 mL (d) 1000 mL 44 Ultrafiltrate formed by the glomerulus contains all the
41 Number of layers involved in the filtration of blood constituents of the blood plasma except
through glomerular capillary is (a) protein (b) minerals
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4 (c) urea (d) All of these
45 GFR in a healthy individual is 53 The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of

(a) 125 mL/min sodium is NEET 2016
(b) 150 L/day (a) distal convoluted tubule
(c) 125 mL/sec (b) proximal convoluted tubule
(d) 135 L/day (c) Bowman's capsule
(d) descending limb of Henle’s loop
46 Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA) which regulates
the glomerular filtration rate is formed at the point of 54 Reabsorption is minimum in which part of nephron?
contact of (a) PCT
(a) DCT and PCT (b) DCT
(b) DCT and efferent arteriole (c) Collecting duct
(c) DCT and afferent arteriole (d) Ascending limbs of Henle’s loop
(d) loop of Henle and DCT 55 Henle’s loop of nephron plays a significant role in
47 A fall in the GFR activates the maintaining a high osmolarity in
(a) JG cells to release renin (a) interstitial fluid of hilum
(b) JG cells to release aldosterone (b) medullary interstitial fluid
(c) JG cells to release epinephrine (c) cortex interstitial fluid
(d) JG cells to release nor-epinephrine (d) All of the above
48 How much percentage of the filtrate is reabsorbed in 56 The part of loop of Henle that is impermeable to
the renal tubules if volume of filtrate formed per day electrolytes is
is 180 L and urine released is 1.5 L? (a) descending limb (b) ascending limb
(a) 5% (b) 25% (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) 90% (d) 99% 57 Transport of electrolytes through ascending limb of
49 The human urine is usually acidic because loop of Henle takes place through
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (a) active transport (b) passive transport
(a) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for (c) diffusion (d) All of these
each sodium ion in peritubular capillaries 58 An organism which does not have loop of Henle will
(b) excreted plasma proteins are acidic excrete
(c) potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity (a) no urine (b) dilute urine
(d) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate (c) concentrated urine (d) no change in urine
50 The maximum amount of electrolytes and water 59 Main function of Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) of
(70-80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in nephron is to maintain the
which part of the nephron? CBSE-AIPMT 2012 (a) pH in blood (b) Na-K balance of blood
(a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (c) temperature of blood (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Distal convoluted tubule
60 Choose the mismatched part of nephron with its
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
function.
(d) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(a) Bowman’s capsule–Glomerular filtration
51 Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the (b) PCT–Reabsorption of Na + and K +
nephron will result in CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (c) DCT–Reabsorption of glucose
(a) more diluted urine (d) Loop of Henle–Urine concentration
(b) more concentrated urine
(c) no change in quality and quantity of urine 61 Collecting duct of nephron extends from the cortex of
(d) no urine formation kidney to
(a) capsule region (b) inner part of medulla
52 PCT helps in the maintenance of pH in the body (c) outer part of medulla (d) middle part of medulla
fluid by
62 The function of collecting duct is to
(a) selective secretion of H+ ions
(a) reabsorb water
(b) selective secretion of ammonia
(c) selective secretion of K + ions and absorption of HCO −3 (b) maintain osmolarity
ions (c) maintain pH and ionic balance
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
TOPIC 3 ~ Mechanism of Concentration of the Filtrate

63 Out of the four parts given below, which part(s) play (a) DCT
significant role in forming concentrated urine in (b) PCT
human? (c) ascending limb of vasa recta
(a) Loop of Henle (b) Vasa recta (d) descending limb of vasa recta
(c) Bowman’s capsule (d) Both (a) and (b) 69 NaCl is returned to interstitium by
64 Vasa recta are minute vessel of peritubular capillaries (a) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
network, which is (b) descending limb of Henle’s loop
(a) also known as juxtaglomerular apparatus (c) ascending limb of vasa recta
(b) running parallel to loop of Henle (d) descending limb of vasa recta
(c) running parallel to PCT 70 The urea enters and exits the renal tubule through
(d) running parallel to DCT (a) PCT and DCT
(b) DCT and collecting duct
65 The counter-current mechanism operates in nephron (c) descending limb of Henle’s loop and DCT
(a) in ascending and descending limb of vasa recta (d) ascending limb of Henle’s loop and collecting duct
(b) in ascending limb of Henle’s loop 71 Counter-current mechanism helps to maintain a
(c) in descending limb of Henle’s loop concentration gradient. This gradient helps in
(d) within the loop of Henle and vasa recta (a) easy passage of water from medulla to collecting tubule
66 Osmolarity in the cortex and inner medulla and thereby concentrating urine
respectively are (b) easy passage of water from collecting tubule to
interstitial fluid and thereby concentrating urine
(a) 300 m Osmol L–1 , 1200 m Osmol L–1 (c) easy passage of water from medullary interstitial fluid
(b) 200 m Osmol L–1 , 1300 m Osmol L–1 to collecting tubule and thereby diluting urine
(c) 1200 m Osmol L–1 , 300 m Osmol L–1 (d) inhibition of passage of water between the
(d) None of the above collecting tubule and medulla and so isotonic urine
is formed
67 Medullary gradient is mainly developed due to
72 Which of the following factors is responsible for the
(a) NaCl and urea
formation of concentrated urine? NEET (National) 2019
(b) NaCl and glucose
(a) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary
(c) glucose and urea interstitium in the kidneys
(d) ammonia and glucose (b) Secretion of erythropoietin by juxtaglomerular complex
68 NaCl transported by ascending limb of Henle's loop is (c) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration
exchanged with (d) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
TOPIC 4~ Regulation of Kidney Function

73 The functioning of the kidneys is efficiently 76 Reabsorption of water in DCT and PCT part of
monitored and regulated by the hormonal feedback nephron is the function of
mechanism involving (a) ANF (b) angiotensin (c) vasopressin (d) renin
(a) hypothalamus (b) JGA 77 Which of the following functions are performed by
(c) heart (d) All of these ADH?
74 Osmoregulation is the function of (a) Reabsorption of water from distal tubules
(a) oxytocin (b) ADH (b) Construction of blood vessels
(c) prolactin (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Increase the blood flow
75 Osmoreceptors activated in response to excessive loss
of fluid from body stimulate the release of 78 Regulation of GFR (Glomerulus Filtration Rate)
(a) ADH from neurohypophysis takes place by
(b) Renin from JG cells (a) renin-angiotensin mechanism
(c) ADH from adenohypophysis (b) juxtaglomerulus apparatus
(c) vasopressin
(d) ANF from anterior pituitary
79 In response to low GFR, renin is released by 84 ANF (Anti Natriuretic Factor) is released by
(a) hypothalamus (b) posterior lobe of pituitary (a) lung
(c) anterior lobe of pituitary (d) JG cells (b) kidney
80 Which of the following does not favour the (c) heart
formation of large quantities of dilute urine? (d) All of the above
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 85 A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause
(a) Alcohol (b) Caffeine the release of NEET 2017
(c) Renin (d) Atrial-natriuretic factor (a) renin
81 ‘Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin-I → (b) atrial-natriuretic factor
Angiotensin-II.’ (c) aldosterone
(d) ADH
The above conversions are catalysed by
(a) renin (b) ADH 86 ANF mechanism checks on
(c) vasopressin (d) ANF (a) oxytocin-renin mechanism
(b) counter-current mechanism
82 Angiotensin-II increases the glomerular blood
(c) renin-angiotensin mechanism
pressure and GFR as it is a/an
(d) oxytocin-angiotensin mechanism
(a) osmoregulator (b) vasoconstrictor
(c) vasodilator (d) None of these 87 Osmoreceptors in the body is activated by the
changes in
83 Which of the following causes an increase in sodium
I. blood volume.
reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
II. body fluid volume.
CBSE-AIPMT 2014
III. ionic concentration.
(a) Increase in aldosterone levels
(b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels The option containing correct terms is
(c) Decrease in aldosterone levels (a) I and II (b) I and III
(d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels (c) III and II (d) All of these
TOPIC 5 ~ Micturition
88 The organ where urine is stored till a voluntary signal 91 An adult human excretes on an average
is given by CNS is (a) 2-3 litres of urine per day
(a) ureter (b) 1-1.5 litres of urine per day
(b) urinary bladder (c) 2-5 litres of urine per day
(c) urinary pouch (d) 4-5 litres of urine per day
(d) None of the above 92 Human urine is acidic due to the presence of
(a) glucose (b) urea
89 The process of release of urine is called
(c) ketone bodies (d) All of these
(a) micturition
(b) sweating 93 On an average, the amount of urea in gram excreted
(c) defecation out per day is
(d) perspiring (a) 25-30 gm (b) 50-55 gm (c) 1-5 gm (d) 12-15 gm
90 What happens in micturition reflex? 94 Indication of diabetes mellitus is/are

(a) Contraction of smooth muscles of bladder (a) the presence of glucose in urine
(b) Relaxation of the urethral sphincter (b) the presence of ketone bodies in urine
(c) Release of urine (c) the presence of amino acid in urine
(d) All of the above (d) Both (a) and (b)
TOPIC 6 ~ Role of Other Organs in Excretion and

Disorders of Excretory System
95 Other than kidney which other organs help in 99 Uremia is the accumulation of …A… in the blood
excretion? which can be removed through …B… .
(a) Lungs (b) Skin A B
(c) Liver (d) All of these (a) urea Haemolysis
96 Sweat produced by sweat glands is a watery fluid (b) uric acid Haemodialysis
which contains (c) urea Haemodialysis
(d) uric acid Haemolysis
(a) NaCl
(b) urea 100 Which one of the following are components of the
(c) lactic acid dialysing unit used to carry out haemodialysis in
(d) All of the above uremic patients?
I. Urea II. Heparin
97 Primary function of sweat in humans is III. Anti-heparin IV. Coiled cellophane tube
(a) excretion
V. Dialysing fluid
(b) cooling of skin
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II, III, IV and V
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) III, IV, V and I (d) None of these
(d) removal of urea
101 Renal calculi is
98 Which among the following functions is performed (a) soluble mass of crystallised salts in kidney
by accessory excretory organs in human body? (b) soluble mass of protein in kidney
(a) Elimination of sterols, hydrocarbons, waxes through (c) insoluble mass of proteins in kidney
sebum by sebaceous glands (d) insoluble mass of crystallised salts in kidney
(b) Secretion of oil by sebaceous glands which provide oily 102 Glomerulonephritis is
protective covering of skin (a) transplantation of glomeruli of kidney
(c) Small amount of nitrogenous waste elimination through (b) the absence of glomeruli of kidney
saliva (c) inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
(d) All of the above (d) removal of glomeruli of kidney
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 104 Assertion (A) Malpighian tubules are excretory
organs in most of the insects.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Reason (R) These help in excretion of urea and
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the creatinine. AIIMS 2019
statements, mark the correct answer as 105 Assertion (A) Birds are uricotelic.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Reason (R) They excrete nitrogenous waste as uric
of A acid.
(b) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A 106 Assertion (A) Protonephridia or Flame cells in
(c) If A is true, but R is false flatworms help in osmoregulation.
(d) If A is false, but R is true Reason (R) These are excretory organs.
103 Assertion (A) Some ureotelic organisms retain some 107 Assertion (A) Hilum is a part of human excretory
amount of urea in their kidney matrix. system.
Reason (R) By retaining some urea, ureotelic Reason (R) It is helpful in collection of urine.
organisms maintain desired osmolarity.
108 Assertion (A) Conditional reabsorption of Na + and (b) The descending limb of loop of Henle is completely
water takes place in Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT). impermeable to NaCl salt
(c) Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla region of
Reason (R) The DCT allows passive absorption of kidney
Na + and active absorption of Cl − along with water. (d) The colour of urine is pale yellow and is slightly base in
109 Assertion (A) Vasa recta is a minute vessel running nature
parallel to loop of Henle. 118 Find out the incorrect statement.
Reason (R) It plays a very important role in (a) Proximal convoluted tubule helps in K + and Na +
concentrating the urine. rebsorption
110 Assertion (A) RAAS gets activated in a person (b) Distal convoluted tubule helps in glucose
suffering from diarrhoea. reabsorption
(c) The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role
Reason (R) Both loss of water and electrolytes takes to produce concentrated urine
place in such a patient. (d) Bowman’s capsule encloses glomerulus
111 Assertion (A) The stretch receptors on the wall of 119 Identify the incorrect statement.
urinary bladder do not signal the CNS when the (a) The outer layer of the kidney is called hilum
urinary bladder fills with urine. (b) Cortex is divided into outer cortex and inner medulla
Reason (R) Micturition is a voluntary process. (c) Medulla is divided into medullary pyramids
112 Assertion (A) Haemodialysis is used to clean the (d) The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids
which is called as columns of Bertini
excretory products generated from the blood.
Reason (R) Dialysing fluid has same composition as 120 Choose the correct statement.
(a) The juxtamedullary nephrons have reduced Henle’s loop
that of plasma except nitrogenous wastes.
(b) Vasa recta are well-developed in cortical nephron
113 Assertion (A) Dialytic fluid/solution is iso-osmotic to (c) The PCT and DCT are situated in the medulla of the
blood plasma. kidney
Reason (R) The fluid used during dialysis procedure (d) The ascending limb of Henle’s loop extends as the
contains urea, glucose and ions. DCT
114 Assertion (A) During urination, the back flow of 121 Choose the incorrect statement.
urine into the ureters is prevented. (a) Tubular cells secrete H+ , K + , ammonia to filtrate
Reason (R) Urethral sphincters relax during urination. (b) Tubular cells help to maintain the acid-base balance of
the body fluid
(c) Tubular cells help in ionic balance
II. Statement Based Questions (d) Tubular secretion is not insignificant step in urine
115 Identify the incorrect statement. formation
(a) Human kidney is metanephric
122 Which of the following statement is correct?
(b) Drinking vodka will cause more urination than drinking NEET 2017
the same volume of beer
(a) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to
(c) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerve causes water
micturition
(b) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to
(d) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme but acts as hormone water
116 Which one of the following statement is correct with (c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
respect to kidney function regulation? water
(a) When someone drinks lots of water, ADH release is (d) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
stopped electrolytes
(b) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release 123 Select the incorrect statement(s) regarding collecting
(c) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates the duct.
formation of angiotensin-II (a) Collecting duct helps to produce concentrated urine by
(d) During summer, when body loses lot of water by reabsorbing water
evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed (b) It does not allow the passage of urea across it
117 Which one of the following statement is correct? (c) It selectively secretes H + and K + ions into medullary
(a) Large amount of water from renal filtrate is reabsorbed interstitium
in DCT and a less amount is reabsorbed by PCT (d) All of the above
124 Which statement is correct regarding the 129 Identify the correct statements and choose the
haemodialysis procedure? appropriate option accordingly.
(a) The cellophane membrane allows passage of I. Bowman’s capsule is single-layered structure at the
nitrogenous waste based on concentration gradient end of Henle’s loop.
(b) Blood is drained from a convenient artery and pumped II. Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries and glomerulus, all
into dialysing unit containing heparin have blood.
(c) The dialysing unit has a coiled parafine tube III. Glomerular filtration rate is amount of filtrate formed
surrounded by dialysing fluid by the kidneys per minute.
(d) The composition of dialysing fluid is different from that IV. Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle's loop in the
of plasma except nitrogenous waste juxtamedullary nephron.
125 Identify the correct statement(s). Choose the correct option.
(a) Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the (a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
correction of acute renal failures (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
(b) A functional kidney from a donor is used in the process 130 Consider the following statements.
(c) A donor can be related or not but matching is done to I. Filtration slits are minute spaces between the
minimise the chances of rejection by host’s immune podocytes of Bowman’s capsule.
system
II. All the constituents of plasma except proteins can pass
through filtration slits into the lumen of Bowman’s
126 Consider the following statements. capsule.
I. Flame cell is a specialised excretory organ in Planaria Select the correct option.
and Amphioxus. (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true
II. Protonephridia in rotifers help to regulate ionic and (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
fluid volume, i.e. osmoregulation.
131 Choose the correct statements.
I. Renal artery transport blood to kidney.
II. Loop of Henle concentrates urine.
(b) Both I and II are true
(c) I is false, II is true III. Ultrafiltration occurs by the cells of PCT and Henle’s
(d) Both I and II are false loop.
IV. Ultrafiltrate is blood plasma minus protein.
127 Consider the following statements and identify the
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
correct one. (c) I, II and IV (d) None of these
I. Human excretory system consists of paired kidneys
and ureters and single urinary bladder and urethra. 132 Consider the following statements.
II. Human excretory system does not help to eliminate I. Renin is released by the podocytes of Bowman’s
nitrogenous waste from the body. capsule.
III. Malpighian corpuscle and PCT are found in the II. Renin inhibits glomerular blood flow and thus,
medullary region of kidney. decreases GFR.
IV. Loop of Henle dips in the medulla of kidney. III. Glucose, Na + ions and amino acids are actively
Select the correct option. reabsorbed by the nephrons.
(a) I, II and IIII (b) Only III IV. Nephron reabsorbs nitrogenous waste through carrier
(c) I, II and IV (d) Only IV transport.
Select the option containing correct statements.
128 Consider the following statements about the human
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
excretory system.
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III
I. Kidneys are reddish-brown and bean-shaped structure.
II. Kidneys are situated between the last thoracic and third 133 I. Reabsorption of water occurs actively in the initial
lumber vertebra. segment of nephron.
III. Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in II. Tubular cells secrete H + , K + and NH 3 into the filtrate.
length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm thickness and average III. Tubular secretions help to maintain ionic and
weight 120-170 g. acid-base balance of body fluids.
Identify the correct statements. Choose the option with incorrect statement(s).
(a) I and II (b) II and III (a) Only I (b) III and IV
(c) III and I (d) All of these (c) Only VI (d) II and IV
134 Consider the following statements. IV. blood is mixed with antiheparin and passed into vein.
I. The filtrate is hypertonic in descending limb while Arrange the steps and choose the correct option.
hypotonic in ascending limb of Henle’s loop. (a) I → II → III → IV (b) IV → III → II → I
II. The descending limb is impermeable to electrolytes (c) I → III → II → IV (d) I → IV → II → III
while ascending limb is permeable to electrolyte. 139 Use of an artificial kidney during haemodialysis may
III. DCT secretes H+ , K + ions and NH3 into the filtrate result in NEET (National) 2019
during urine formation. I. nitrogenous waste build-up in the body.
IV. Ions like HCO−3 , Na + and water are reabsorbed by II. non-elimination of excess potassium ions.
DCT. III. reduced absorption of calcium ions from
Select the option containing correct statements. gastrointestinal tract.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV IV. reduced RBC production.
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II , III and IV Which of the following options is the most
135 Which of the following are correct statement(s)? appropriate?
I. Angiotensin-II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, (a) II and III are correct (b) III and IV are correct
increases glomerular pressure and thereby GFR. (c) I and IV are correct (d) I and IV are correct
II. Angiotensin-II activates the adrenal cortex to release
aldosterone. III. Matching Type Questions
III. Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of Na + and water 140 Match the following columns.
from the DCT and CT leading to an increase in blood
Column I Column II
pressure and GFR. (Nature of excretion) (Animals)
IV. ANF causes vasoconstriction. A. Ammonotelic 1. Aquatic invertebrates
Select correct combination. B. Ureotelic 2. Reptiles
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV C. Uricotelic 3. Amphibians
(c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
136 Various events occurring during micturition reflex are Codes
listed below. A B C A B C
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3
I. Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder send (c) 1 3 2 (d) 3 1 2
signal to the CNS.
II. The bladder fills with urine and becomes distended. 141 Match the following columns.
III. Causing the release of urine. Column I Column II
IV. CNS passes on motor messenger to initiate the (Excretory structure) (Examples)
contraction smooth muscles of bladder and A. Simple tubular forms 1. Earthworm
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter. B. Complex tubular forms 2. Platyhelminthes and rotifers
Identify the correct order of their occurrence. C. Protonephridia or flame 3. Vertebrates
(a) II → I → IV → III (b) IV → III → II → I cells
(c) II → I → III → IV (d) III → II → I → IV D. Nephridia 4. Most invertebrates
Codes
I. Liver secretes bilirubin, cholesterol, biliverdin and A B C D A B C D
vitamins. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
II. Human liver is not capable of secreting steroid (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
hormones.
(a) Both I and II are true (b) I is false, II is true Column I Column II
(Features) (Related part in nephron)
(c) Both I and II are false (d) I is true, II is false
A. Delivers blood to 1. Henle’s loop
138 During haemodialysis process, glomerulus
I. blood drained from a convenient artery and B. Carries urine to pelvis 2. Renal artery
anticoagulant is added (heparin). C. Collects filtrate from 3. Collecting duct
II. removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood. Bowman’s capsule
III. blood is passed through a coiled porous cellophane D. Extension of PCT 4. Proximal convoluted tubules
membrane of tube bathing in dialysis fluid.
Codes Codes
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
143 Match the following parts of a nephron with their 146 Match the following columns. NEET 2018
function. NEET 2019 Column I Column II
Column I Column II A. Counter-current 1. Reabsorption of 70-80% of
(Parts of nephron) (Functions) electrolytes
A. Descending limb of 1. Reabsorption of salts only B. PCT 2. Maintains concentration gradient in
Henle’s loop medulla
C. DCT 3. Minimum reabsorption
B. Proximal convoluted 2. Reabsorption of water only
tubule D. Loop of Henle 4. conditional reabsorption of Na + and
H 2O
C. Ascending limb of 3. Conditional reabsorption of
Henle’s loop sodium ion and water Codes
D. Distal convoluted 4. Reabsorption of ion, water A B C D
tubule and organic nutrients (a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 1 3 4
Codes
(c) 3 4 1 2
A B C D A B C D (d) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2
Column I Column II
144 Match the items given in Column I with those in (Disorders) (Features)
NEET 2018 A. Uremia 1. The presence of blood in urine
B. Dysuria 2. Painful urination
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of excretory system) C. Pyuria 3. The presence of pus in urine
A. Ultrafiltration 1. Henle’s loop D. Hematuria 4. More urea in blood
B. Concentration of urine 2. Ureter Codes

C. Transport of urine 3. Urinary bladder A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
D. Storage of urine 4. Malpighian corpuscle
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
5. Proximal convoluted tubule 148 Match the following columns.
Codes Column I Column II
A B C D (Disorders) (Features)
(a) 5 4 1 2 A. Glomerulonephritis 1. Excess of protein level in urine.
(b) 4 1 2 3
B. Ketonuria 2. The presence of high ketone
(c) 4 5 2 3 bodies in urine.
(d) 5 4 1 3
C. Glycosuria 3. Inflammation of glomeruli
145 Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.
NEET 2019 D. Proteinuria 4. The presence of glucose in urine.
Column I Column II Codes

A. Podocytes 1. Crystallised oxalates A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
B. Protonephridia 2. Annelids
(b) 4 3 2 1
C. Nephridia 3. Amphioxus (c) 3 4 2 1
D. Renal calculi 4. Filtration slits (d) 3 2 1 4
NCERT &NCERT Exemplar

NCERT 153 Different types of excretory structures and animals
149 Match the following columns. are given below match them appropriately a mark the
correct answer from among these given below.
Column I Column II
Excretory structure Animals
A. Ammonotelism 1. Birds
A. Protonephridia 1. Prawn
B. Bowman’s capsule 2. Water reabsorption
B. Nephridia 2. Cockroach
C. Micturition 3. Bony fish
C. Malpighian tubules 3. Earthworm
D. Uricotelism 4. Urinary bladder
D. Green gland/ Antennal gland 4. Flatworms
E. ADH 5. Renal tubule
Codes
Codes
A B C D A B C D
A B C D E
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 3 1 4
(a) 3 5 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 5 4
(c) 3 4 2 5 1 154 Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
(d) 5 4 3 2 1 (a) Uricotelic – Birds
150 Which of the following statements is incorrect? (b) Ureotelic – Insects
(a) Micturition is carried out by a reflex (c) Ammonotelic – Tadpole
(b) ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine (d) Ureotelic – Elephant
hypotonic 155 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(c) Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the (a) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals
Bowman’s capsule (b) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals
(d) Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating (c) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic
the urine animals
151 Fill in the blanks. (d) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic
Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is …A… to water, 156 Filtration of the blood takes place at
whereas the descending limb is …B… to it. (a) PCT (b) DCT
Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules (c) Collecting ducts (d) Malpighian body
is facilitated by peptide hormone …C… . Dialysis 157 We can produce a concentrated/dilute urine. This is
fluid contains all the constituents as in plasma except facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify the
…D… . mechanism.
(a) A–impermeable, B–permeable, C–Antidiuretic (a) Reabsorption from PCT
Hormone (ADH), D–nitrogenous wastes (b) Reabsorption from collecting duct
(b) A–Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), B–impermeable, (c) Reabsorption/secretion in DCT
C–permeable, D–nitrogenous wastes (d) Counter-current mechanism in Henle’s loop/vasa recta
(c) A–impermeable, B–permeable, C–nitrogenous wastes, 158 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
D–Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few
(d) A–nitrogenous wastes, B–Antidiuretic Hormone conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting
(ADH), C–permeable, D–impermeable into the calyces
(b) Inside the kidney, the cortical region extends in between
NCERT Exemplar the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis
(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the
152 The following substances are the excretory products
renal corpuscle
in animals. Choose the least toxic form among them
(d) Renal corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
(a) urea (b) uric acid and Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) of the nephron
(c) ammonia (d) CO2 are situated in the cortical region of kidney

Column I Column II
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
A. Proximal convoluted 1. Formation of concentrated
tubule urine
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
B. Distal convoluted tubule 2. Filtration of blood 161 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) ADH prevents conversion of angiotensionogen in blood
C. Henle's loop 3. Reabsorption of 70-80% of
electrolytes to angiotensin
D. Counter-current 4. Ionic balance
(b) Aldosterone facilitates water reabsorption
mechanism (c) ANF enhances sodium reabsorption
E. Renal corpuscle 5. Maintenance of concentration (d) Renin causes vasodilation
gradient in medulla 162 Dialysing unit (artificial kidney) contains a fluid
Codes which is almost same as plasma except that it has
A B C D E (a) high glucose (b) high urea
(a) 3 5 4 2 1 (c) no urea (d) high uric acid
(b) 3 4 1 5 2 163 A large quantity of one the follow is removed from
(c) 1 3 2 5 4
our body by lungs.
(d) 3 1 4 5 2
(a) CO2 (b) H2 O
160 Match the following columns. NEET 2018 (c) CO2 and H2 O (d) Ammonia
Column I 164 The pH of human urine is approximately
Column II
(Disorders of (a) 6.5 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 7.5
(Characteristic features)
excretory system)
165 The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is
A. Glycosuria 1. Accumulation of uric acid in termed as
joints
(a) renal calculi (b) glomerulonephritis
B. Renal calculi 2. Inflammation in glomeruli (c) uremia (d) ketonuria
C. Glomerular 3. Mass of crystallised salts within 166 Which of the following is also known as antidiuretic
nephritis the kidney
hormone?
D. Gout 4. The presence of glucose in urine (a) Oxytocin (b) Vasopressin (c) Adrenaline (d) Calcitonin
Answers
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (c) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (c)
51 (a) 52 (d) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (b) 56 (a) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (d) 60 (c)
61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (d) 64 (b) 65 (d) 66 (a) 67 (a) 68 (d) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (d) 74 (b) 75 (a) 76 (c) 77 (d) 78 (d) 79 (d) 80 (c)
81 (a) 82 (b) 83 (a) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (c) 87 (d) 88 (b) 89 (a) 90 (d)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (d) 95 (d) 96 (d) 97 (c) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (b)
101 (d) 102 (c)
103 (a) 104 (c) 105 (a) 106 (b) 107 (c) 108 (c) 109 (a) 110 (a) 111 (d) 112 (b)
113 (d) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (a) 117 (b) 118 (b) 119 (a) 120 (d) 121 (d) 122 (a)
123 (b) 124 (b) 125 (d) 126 (c) 127 (c) 128 (d) 129 (d) 130 (b) 131 (c) 132 (d)
133 (a) 134 (d) 135 (a) 136 (a) 137 (d) 138 (c) 139 (b) 140 (c) 141 (d) 142 (c)
143 (b) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (d) 147 (c) 148 (a)
149 (a) 150 (b) 151 (a) 152 (b) 153 (a) 154 (b) 155 (d) 156 (d) 157 (d) 158 (b)
159 (b) 160 (c) 161 (a) 162 (c) 163 (c) 164 (c) 165 (c) 166 (b)

1 (b) Excretion refers to the process of removal of 26 (a) The function of Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus
metabolic wastes from the body of living organisms, is to perform filtration of blood through a mechanism
which get accumulated due to the various metabolic known as glomerular filtration or ultrafiltration.
activities and by other means such as excess ingestion. Reabsorption of ions, hormones and water does not take
4 (b) Uric acid is the least toxic among ammonia and urea, place in it.
thus needs very little amount of water for its excretion 32 (d) Loop of Henle is a part of medullary pyramid. The
from the body. Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the nephron are
7 (b) Option (b) is incorrect for ammonia excretion because situated in the cortical region of the kidney whereas the
kidneys do not play any significant role in its removal. loop of Henle dips into the medulla.
Ammonia is the excretory waste product of nearly all 33 (b) In some of the nehprons, the loop of Henle is very
aquatic animals like bony fishes, aquatic amphibians long and runs deep into the medulla. These nephrons are
and aquatic insects. It is excreted by diffusion across called juxtamedullary nephrons. Due to long Henle’s
body surface or through gill surface as ammonium ions loop, they have prominent vasa recta also.
(not by kidney). 40 (b) On an average, 1100-1200 mL of blood is filtered by
8 (a) Terrestrial organisms excrete lesser toxic the kidneys per minute which constitute roughly 1/5th
nitrogenous waste for conservation of water. This is due of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart
to the fact that terrestrial organisms are adapted to live in a minute.
in water deficient conditions and if water is eliminated 41 (b) There are 3 layers, i.e. epithelium, endothelium and
in abundant, the organism can die. basement membrane, involved in the filtration of blood
10 (c) In mammals, marine fishes and terrestrial through glomerular capillary.
amphibians, nitrogenous waste is urea, which is 42 (d) Options (a) and (b) are incorrect and can be
excreted through kidneys. Ammonia produced by corrected as
metabolism in them is converted into urea in the liver
and released into the blood which is then filtered and Epithelium is a layer of Bowman’s capsule.
excreted through kidneys. Endothelium is a layer of glomerular blood vessels.
11 (c) Reptiles excrete uric acid (nitrogenous waste) in the 43 (c) The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called
form of pellet or paste inorder to minimise loss of water. podocytes. These are arranged in an intricate manner so
These animals are called uricotelic animals. as to leave some minute spaces called filtration slits or
slit pores.
44 (a) Protein is not present in ultrafiltrate. Blood is
Protonephridia, nephridia and Malpighian tubules all filtered so finely in glomerulus that almost all the
are the structures which help in the removal of constituents of the plasma, except the proteins, pass into
nitrogenous waste as well as concerned with the lumen of the Bowman’s capsule. This process is
osmoregulation (i.e. regulation ionic and fluid volume). called ultrafiltration and the filtrate is known as
These structures are found in platyhelminths, annelids ultrafilterate.
and insects, respectively.
45 (a) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in a healthy
16 (c) Hilum is a notch towards the centre of the inner individual is approximately 125 mL/minute, i.e. 180
concave surface of the kidney through which the ureters, litres per day. GFR is the amount of the filtrate formed
blood vessels and nerves enter into the kidneys. by the kidneys per minute.
18 (a) The medullary pyramids project into the calyces 46 (c) JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular
(sing. calyx). The kidney is divided into outer cortex modifications in the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
and inner medulla. The medulla is divided into conical and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.
masses called medullary pyramids. The kidneys have built in mechanisms for the regulation
20 (a) Option (a) is correctly identified and described. of glomerular filtration rate. One such efficient
Other options are incorrect and can be corrected as mechanism is carried out by Juxta Glomerular
l
Part B is pelvis, broad funnel-shape space inner to Apparatus (JGA).
hilum directly connected to ureter. 47 (a) Fall in Glomerular Blood Flow (GBF)/ Glomerular
l
Part-C is cortex, outer part of kidney and does not Blood Pressure (GBP)/ and low Glomerular Filtration
contain loop of Henle or if present, it is highly reduced. Rate (GFR) activates the Juxta Glomerular (JG) cells in
the kidneys to release renin which brings the GFR back
l
Part D is medulla, the inner zone of kidney and
to normal.
contains complete nephrons.
48 (d) A comparison of the volume of the filtrate formed 70 (d) Small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the
per day (180 L per day) with that of the urine released ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is transported
(1.5 L), suggests that nearly 99% of this filtrate has to back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule.
be reabsorbed by the renal tubules. 72 (a) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner
49 (d) Active secretion of H + ions into the filtrate occurs in medullary interstitium in the kidneys is the factor
the PCT, DCT and collecting duct of renal tubule. High responsible for the formation of concentrated urine
concentration of H + ions decreases the pH of filtrate because it provides concentration gradient necessary for
and thus, the urine becomes acidic. water reabsorption in the renal tubules.
50 (c) The maximum amount (70-80%) of water and 73 (d) The functioning of kidney is regulated by the
electrolytes from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in following
Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) before reaching the l
Hypothalamus by ADH or vasopressin hormone.
loop of Henle. l
JGA by renin-angiotensin mechanism.
From the Bowman’s capsule, the glomerular filtrate l
Heart by ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor).
enters the PCT, which remains surrounded by a network
75 (a) Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by changes
of peritubular capillaries and is the seat of reabsorption.
in the blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic
51 (a) Proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs 70-80% of concentration. An excessive loss of fluid from the body
water and electrolytes. Hence, removal of PCT would can activate these receptors, which stimulate the
result in the formation of more diluted urine. hypothalamus to release ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone)
55 (b) Henle’s loop of nephron plays a significant role in or vasopressin from neurohypophysis (posterior lobe of
maintaining a high osmolarity in medullary interstitial pituitary).
fluid. 80 (c) Renin is a hormone which takes part in
This occurs due to the mechanism of counter-current Renin-Angiotensin mechanism. This mechanism is
occurring here. activated to increase the blood pressure and
56 (a) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable concentrating the urine (not diluting the urine).
to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. This Other options like alcohol, caffeine, Atrial-Natriuretic
concentrate the filtrate as it moves down. Factor (ANF) causes vasodilation thereby decreasing
58 (b) Organism which does not have loop of Henle will the blood pressure and diluting the urine.
excrete dilute urine, e.g. fishes. Since, loop of Henle is 81 (a) Renin converts the angiotensinogen in blood to
major part of nephron involved in reabsorption of water angiotensin-I and further to angiotensin-II. Renin is
to concentrate the urine. Thus, if loop of Henle is released by JG cells due to fall in GFR, inorder to
absent, dilute urine will be excreted. increase it.
60 (c) Option (c) contains the mismatched pair. It can be 82 (b) Angiotension-II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor,
corrected as increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby
Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) performs conditional GFR. Angiotensin-II also activates the adrenal cortex to
reabsorption of Na + and water. DCT is also capable of release aldosterone.
–
reabsorption of HCO 3 and selective secretion of 83 (a) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na + and water
hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the from the distal parts of the tubule. Thus, an increase in
pH and Na-K balance in blood. aldosterone levels will cause an increase in sodium
Rest matches are correct. reabsorption in DCT.
63 (d) The ability to produce concentrated urine in humans 86 (c) Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is produced by atria
is a function of loop of Henle and vasa recta. The flow of heart during increased blood pressure/volume. It is
of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle's loop is in opposite responsible for causing vasodilation and thereby,
directions and thus forms a counter-current mechanism decreasing the blood pressure. A decrease in blood
(the process due to which the urine is made hypertonic). pressure/volume stimulates the hypothalamus to release
Vasa recta also play a significant role in counter-current ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone) as well as JGA (Juxta
mechanism. Glomerular Apparatus) cells to release renin. Renin by
66 (a) An increasing osmolarity towards the inner renin-angiotensin mechanism activates the adrenal
medullary interstitium is maintained, from 300 m cortex to release aldosterone. Therefore, ANF
Osmol L–1 in cortex to 1200 m Osmol L–1 in the inner mechanism acts as a check on renin-angiotensin
medulla of kidney. mechanism.
69 (c) Option (c) is correct as 90 (d) Micturition is defined as the process of release of
urine. If the urine content of urinary bladder reaches
NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s
more than 300 mL micturition reflex activates CNS to
loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of
contract smooth muscles and relax the urethral sphincter
vasa recta. NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the
muscle that leads to the release of urine.
ascending portion of vasa recta.
94 (d) The presence of glucose (glycosuria) and ketone Presence of such interstitial gradient helps in an easy
bodies (ketonuria) in the urine are indicative of passage of water from the collecting tubule thereby
diabeties mellitus. Analysis of urine helps in clinical concentrating the filtrate (urine).
diagnosis of many metabolic disorders as well as 110 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
malfunctioning of the kidney. the correct explanation of Assertion.
95 (d) Other than the kidneys, lungs, liver and skin also The person suffering from diarrhoea losses water and
help in the elimination of excretory wastes. electrolytes excessively from the body which results in
Our lungs remove large amounts of CO 2 decreased blood pressure. This can be fatal for the
(approximately 200 mL/ minute) and also significant person. Thus, inorder to increase the blood pressure,
quantities of water every day. Liver, the largest glands Renin-Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS) gets
in our body, secretes bile-containing substances like activated in the body. In this, renin is released from JG
bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid cells which work on angiotensinogen (protein) produced
hormones, vitamins and drugs. Most of these substances by liver.
ultimately pass out along with digestive wastes. This protein gets converted in angiotensin which causes
The sweat and sebaceous glands in the skin can water and NaCl reabsorption in the PCT. Also, it
eliminate certain substances through their secretions. stimulates adrenal glands to secrete aldosterone, which
works on the DCT for the same cause. This ultimately
101 (d) Renal calculi is the disorder of the excretory system
increases the blood pressure.
which is characterised by the presence of stones or
insoluble mass of crystallised salts (oxalates, etc.) 111 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
within the kidneys. be corrected as
104 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be Urine formed by the nephrons is ultimately carried to
corrected as the urinary bladder where it is stored till a voluntary
signals is given by the Central Nervous System (CNS).
Insects are the members of phylum–Arthropoda, in
This signal is initiated by the stretching of the urinary
which excretion takes place through Malpighian
bladder as it gets filled with urine.
tubules. But, insects excrete uric acid (not urea) as their
nitrogenous wastes in the form of pellet or paste which In response, the stretch receptors on the walls of the
minimise the loss of water. Thus, insects are called bladder send signals to the CNS. The CNS passes on
uricotelics. motor messages to initiate the contraction of smooth
muscles of the bladder and simultaneous relaxation of
106 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is the urethral sphincter causing the release of urine, i.e.
not the correct explanation of Assertion. micturition. Thus, micturition is a voluntary process.
Protonephridia or Flame cells are the excretory
structures in Platyhelminthes (flatworms, e.g.
not the correct explanation of Asserion.
Planaria). These are also concerned with ionic and
fluid volume regulation, i.e. osmoregulation in these Haemodialysis is a process in which blood is purified
animals. artificially if the kidneys fail to do their designated
function. The dialysing fluid used in haemodialysis has
107 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be same composition as that of plasma but it does not
corrected as contain nitrogenous waste. Therefore, these wastes can
Hilum is a notch present on the concave surface of the freely pass from blood into dialysing fluid, thus,
kidneys through which ureter, blood vessels and nerves clearing blood.
enter into the kidneys. It is not concerned with collection
113 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
of urine. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder.
be corrected as
108 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be Fluid used in dialysis has similar composition to blood
corrected as plasma except for the presence of proteins and urea.
In DCT, conditional reabsorption of Na + and water Thus, it is not iso-osmotic.
occurs. Here, Na + is reabsorbed actively, while Cl − ions 114 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
are reabsorbed passively along with H 2 O. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
109 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is The correct explanation would be during urination, the
the correct explanation of Assertion. back flow of urine into the ureters is prevented by the
Vasa recta is a minute vessel network that runs parallel presence of a one way valve at the urethral-bladder
to the Henle’s loop forming a ‘U’-shaped structure. This junction.
structural arrangement helps in concentration of urine, Urethral sphincters control the exit of the urine in the
as these faciliate counter-current mechanism. The urinary bladder through the urethra. Thus, urethral
counter-current mechanism helps to maintain a sphincters relax during urination and constrict when not
concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. urinating.
115 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be 124 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct.
corrected as Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected
Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme that aids digestion of as
milk protein. Renin acts as a hormone that converts l
The cellophane membrane allows passage of molecules
angiotensinogen to angiotensin. based on concentration gradient, but nitrogenous
Rest of the statements are correct. wastes are absent in dialysing fluid.
116 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct.
l
The dialysing unit has a cellophane tube.
Rest statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
l
The composition of dialysing fluid is similar to that of
l
Exposure to hot temperature stimulates the release of plasma, except the presence of nitrogenous waste, i.e.
ADH. urea.
l
A fall in glomerular blood flow stimulates the 126 (c) The statement II is true, but statement I is false and
formation of Angiotensin-II. it can be corrected as
l
During summer, when the body loses lot of water by Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory structure in
evaporation, the release of ADH is stimulated. platyhelminths, rotifers, etc. Protonephridia in rotifers
117 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct regarding help in both excretion and in maintaining fluid volume.
excretion. 127 (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct. The statement III
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected is incorrect and can be corrected as
as The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the
l
Conditional reabsorption of water takes place in DCT nephrons are situated in the cortex or cortical part of the
and large amount of water is reabsorbed in PCT. kidney whereas the loop of Henle dips into the
l
Malphigian corpuscle is found in the cortical region of medullary part of the kidney.
kidney. 129 (d) Statements II, III and IV are correct. Statement I is
l
The colour of urine is pale yellow and it is acidic in incorrect and can be corrected as
nature. Bowman’s capsule is a double-walled structure at the
118 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be beginning of renal tubule.
corrected as
131 (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct. Statement III is
Proximal convulated tubule helps in glucose
reabsorption. incorrect and can be corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. Ultrafiltration takes place through tiny spaces amongst
the cells of capillary walls and filtration slits in between
119 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and it can be
the podocytes of Bowman’s capsule.
corrected as
132 (d) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
The outer layer of the kidney is a tough capsule.
Rest of the statements are correct. incorrect and can be corrected as
Nephron reabsorbs nitrogenous waste through passive
120 (d) Statement in option (d) is correct.
transport.
Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
l
Juxtamedullary nephrons have long Henle’s loop. 133 (a) Only statement I is incorrect and can be corrected as
l
Vasa recta are absent or reduced in cortical nephrons. Reabsorption of water occurs passively in the initial
l
PCT and DCT are situated in the cortex of kidney. segment of nephron.
121 (d) Statement in option (d) contains incorrect statement 135 (a) Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is
that can be corrected as incorrect and can be corrected as
Tubular secretion is an important process in urine ANF (Anti Natriuretic Factor) decreases the blood
formation as it helps in the maintenance of ionic and pressure by vasodilation and hence checks on
acid-base balance of the body fluids. renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Rest of the statements are correct. 137 (d) Statement I is true, but II is false and it can be
122 (a) Statement in option (a) is correct. The ascending
corrected as
limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and the Human liver secretes bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol,
descending loop of Henle is permeable to water and degraged steroid hormone, vitamin and drugs.
impermeable to electrolytes. 138 (c) Option (c) depicts the correct sequence of events
123 (b) Statement in option (b) contains the incorrect taking place during hemodialysis.
statement which can be corrected as Haemodialysis refer to an artificial method of blood
Collecting duct allows the passage of small amount of filtration outside the body. During this, the blood
urea into medullary interstitium so as to maintain the drained from a convenient artery is pumped into a
osmolarity of body fluids. dialysing unit after adding anticoagulant like heparin.
The unit contains a coiled cellophane tube surrounded
Rest of the statements are correct. by a fluid (dialysing fluid) having the same composition
as that of plasma except the nitrogenous wastes. The porous 156 (d) Filtration of blood takes place in Malpighian
cellophane membrane of the tube allows the passage of body.
molecules based on concentration gradient. As nitrogenous Malpighian body comprises glomerulus and
wastes are absent in dialysing fluid, these substances freely Bowman’s capsule. Filtration of blood takes
move out, thereby clearing the blood. place in glomerulus region through glomerular
The cleared blood is pumped back to the body through a vein filtration.
after adding antiheparin to it.
157 (d) Counter-current mechanism in Henle’s loop
139 (b) Statements III and IV are correct. Statements I and II are and vasa recta helps to maintain concentration
incorrect and can be corrected as gradient in the medullary interstitum. Presence of
Dialysis helps in the removal of nitrogenous waste and such interstitial gradient helps in easy passage of
potassium ions from the body. water from the collecting tubule. This results in
150 (b) The statement given in option (b) is incorrect and can be the concentration of the urine.
corrected as 158 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
ADH facilitates water reabsorption, making the urine corrected as
hyperosmotic. Inside the kidney, the cortical region extends in
Rest of the statements are correct. between the medullary pyramids as renal columns
154 (b) Option (b) contains the incorrect pair. It can be corrected called column of Bertini, not as renal pelvis.
as Rest of the statements are true.
Insects are uricotelic, i.e. they excrete uric acid. 161 (a) Option (a) depicts the incorrect statement. It
Rest of the pairs are correct. can be corrected as
155 (d) Option (d) contains incorrect statement that can be ANF prevents the conversion of angiotensinogen
corrected to angiotensin so as to oppose renin and thus,
Birds and reptiles are uricotelic (not ureotelic) as they promotes vasodilation and decreased GFR
excrete uric acid as nitrogenous waste in the form of pellet or (Glomerular Filtration Rate) . ADH like renin
paste with a minimum loss of water. promotes vasoconstriction and increases GFR.

CHAPTER > 20
Locomotion and
Movement
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Movement is a key characteristic shown by living organisms Å Based on their location, muscles are of three types, i.e.
with few exceptions and may be defined as a change in n
Skeletal muscles are the striated, multinucleate,
posture or position. voluntary muscles. These are attached to the skeleton
Å Voluntary movements result in locomotion. Walking, running, and hence are named skeletal muscles. They are
climbing, flying, swimming are some forms of locomotory involved in locomotory actions and changes in body
movements. Cilia in Paramecium and tentacles in Hydra help in posture.
locomotion along with their respective functions. n
Visceral/Non-striated muscles are also called as smooth
Å All locomotions are movements, but all movements are not muscles. These are uninucleate, non-striated,
locomotions. involuntary muscles. These are located in the inner walls
of hollow visceral organs of the body like alimentary
Types of Movement canal, reproductive tract, etc. These help in the
transportation of food through digestive tract and
Å Various movements exhibited by different cells and organs of
gametes through genital tract.
human body are tabulated below
n
Cardiac muscles are the muscles of heart. These
Types of resemble striated muscles but are uninucleate. These are
Characteristics Examples
movement
involuntary in nature and are under indirect control of
Amoeboid Effected by pseudopodia formed Macrophages and the nervous system.
by streaming of the protoplasm. leucocytes
Ciliary Exhibited by organs/ structures Internal tubular organs lined Structure of Skeletal Muscle
lined by ciliated epithelium. by ciliated epithelium, e.g.
respiratory tract of human, Å The skeletal muscle consists of multiple muscle bundles or
Fallopian tubes of females. fascicles, held together by fascia. Each muscle bundle
Muscular Effected by the contractile Movement of jaws, limbs, contains a number of muscle fibres, surrounded by
property of muscles. tongue, etc. sarcolemma containing sarcoplasm (cytoplasm of
Flagellar Effected by the beating of Swimming of spermatozoa. muscle fibre).
flagella. Å The sarcoplasm contains myoglobin (red colour pigment),
sarcosomes (mitochondria of muscle fibre) and
Muscular System sarcoplasmic reticulum (endoplasmic reticulum of muscle
fibres that is the storehouse of calcium ions).
Å Muscles are specialised tissues of mesodermal origin that may
show both voluntary and involuntary movements. They
Å Each muscle fibre contains many thin and rod-like parallely
possess properties such as excitability, contractility, arranged filaments in its sarcoplasm called myofilaments
extensibility and elasticity. or myofibrils.
CHAPTER 20 > Locomotion and Movement 465
Muscle fibres (muscle cells)

The electrical and biochemical events in muscle contraction
Sarcolemma Blood capillaries are as follows
Fascia 1 Nerve impulse causes the release of acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles
into the synaptic cleft.
2 Acetylcholine present in the synaptic cleft binds to the receptor sites of motor
end plate and causes its depolarisation which creates an action potential.
3 Action potential reaches sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre and causes

the release of calcium ions into sarcoplasm.
Muscle fibres
Fascicles (muscle bundle) 4 Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape which in turn changes
the shape of tropomyosin and expose the active sites on the F-actin.
Diagrammatic cross-sectional view of a muscle
Å Each myofibril has alternating dark (A or Anisotropic) Troponin
and light (I or Isotropic) bands. At the centre of A-band, Tropomyosin

ATP
H-zone (or Henson’s zone) is present which is a F-actin 5 Myosin cross-bridges
Movement of are then able to bind
comparatively less dark zone. Further, at the centre of to these active sites.
cross-bridge
H-zone, M-line is present.
Å In case of I-band, a dark membrane called Z-line is 6 In the presence of myosin. ATPase,
Thick myofilament
present at its centre. (myosin) Ca2+ ions and Mg2+ ions, ATP breaks
down into ADP and phosphate and
Å The part of myofibril between two successive Z-lines is energy is released in the head.
sarcomere (functional unit of myofibril). The striated 9 ATP binds to myosin head,
appearance of skeletal muscles is due to the distribution causing dissociation from
actin and muscle relaxes. ATP
pattern of two important proteins called actin and
myosin.
Å These proteins are arranged as rod-like filaments,
parallel to each other and also to the longitudinal axis of
the myofibrils. Actin filaments are thinner compared to
myosin filaments hence called thin and thick filaments,
7
respectively. 8 Loss of energy causes Energised myosin head binds to
the myosin to move back
actin filament. The cross-bridge
Structure of Contractile Proteins to its original position.
moves and causes the thin
Å Each actin (thin) filament is made of two ‘F’ filament to slide along the thick
myofilament.
(filamentous) actins helically wound around each other.
10 As a result, the sarcomere shortens as shown below
Each of these ‘F’ actins is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’
A-band
(globular) actins. Two filaments of another protein I-band I-band
called tropomyosin also run close to the F actins M-line
throughout its length. A complex protein, troponin, is
distributed at regular intervals on the tropomyosin. At
Relaxed
resting phase, a troponin subunit masks the active
binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments.
Å Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerised H-zone
Z-line Thin Z-line
protein containing many monomeric proteins called Cross-bridge Thick myofilament
meromyosin. Each meromyosin contains a globular myofilament
head with a short arm (called the Heavy Meromyosin,
i.e. HMM) and a tail (called the Light Meromyosin, i.e. Maximally
LMM). The HMM component projects outward from contracting
the surface of polymerised myosin filament and forms
cross arm. The globular head is an active ATPase
Contraction in a sarcomere of muscles
enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and active sites
for actin.
Å Thic process continues till Ca 2+ are pumped back to the
sarcoplasmic cisternae, masking the actin filaments. This
Mechanism of Muscle Contraction causes relaxation of the muscle.
Å It is best explained by the sliding filament theory which
Å On the basis of amount of myoglobin in muscle fibres, these
states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by are categorised into red and white muscle fibres. Red fibres
the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments. contain more myoglobin and mitochondria as compared to
NEET KEY NOTES

white fibres. Red muscle fibres are aerobic muscles and white Part of Part of Name of bone
Region
muscle fibres are anaerobic muscles. body endoskeleton (Numbers)
Å Oxygen debt is the extra oxygen required by the body muscles Ear l
Malleus (2)
during relaxation or recovery period over the strenuous state. ossicles l
Incus (2)
l
Stapes (2)
Å Rigor mortis is the state of body stiffening after death which occurs
due to the permanent irreversible contraction between actin and Hyoid l
Hyoid body (1)
myosin, which in turn occurs due to exhaustion of ATP from blood.
Backbone Neck l
Cervical vertebrae (7)
Skeleton System Thorax l

Thoracic vertebrae (12)
The human skeleton system consists of axial and appendicular Waist l

Lumbar vertebrae (5)
skeletons. The total number of bones in an adult human is 206. The Vertebral
column Sacrum l
Sacral vertebrae or
axial skeleton of human consists of 80 bones and the appendicular Sacrum (5 in child) (1)
skeleton of human consists of 126 bones.
Tail l
Caudal vertebrae or
Radius
Coccyx
Skull Ulna (4 in child) (1)
Clavicle
Carpal bones Thorax Sternum l
Sternum (1)
Scapula (proximal row) l
True ribs (14)
Sternum Metacarpal Ribs l
False ribs (6)
bones l
Floating ribs (4)
Xiphoid
process Å The skull region articulates with the superior
Humerus Phalanges
region of the vertebral column with the help of two
Ilium
occipital condyles (dicondylic skull).
Sacrum Radius
Å First vertebra is the atlas and it articulates with the
Coccyx
Ulna occipital condyles.
Carpals Posterior view
Calcaneus II. Appendicular Skeleton (Total bones 128)
Talus Thorax Pectoral girdle Shoulder l

Scapula (2)
Greater Metacarpals l
Clavicle (2)
trochanter Phalanges
Cuboid Hip Pelvic girdle l
Innominate (2)
Femur
Patella Humerus (2)
Forelimbs Upper arm l
Tarsals
Forearm l
Radius (2)
Fibula Tibia l
Ulna (2)
Wrist l
Carpals (16)
Tarsals Metatarsals
Palm l
Metacarpals (10)
Metatarsals
Phalanges Fingers l
Phalanges (28)
Hindlimbs Thigh l
Femur (2)
Structure of human skeleton
Shank l
Tibia (2)
Important Bones in Human Skeleton l
Fibula (2)
Part of Part of Knee l
Patella (2)
Region Name of bone (Numbers)
body endoskeleton
Ankle l
Tarsals (14)
I. Axial skeleton (Total bones 80)
Sole l
Metatarsals (10)
Head Cranium l
Occipital (1) l
Parietal (2)
l
Frontal (1) l
Temporal (2) Fingers l
Phalanges (28)
l
Sphenoid (1) l
Ethmoid (1)
Å Acromion process of scapula articulates with
Skull Facial l
Nasal (2) l
Vomer (1)
clavicle. Glenoid cavity below acromion articulates
region l
Turbinal (2) l
Lacrimal (2)
l
Zygomatic (2) l
Palatine (2)
with the head of humerus to form the shoulder
l
Maxilla (2) l
Mandible (1)
joint.
NEET KEY NOTES

Å At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis, a cavity n

Gliding joint (between the carpals)
called acetabulum is present with which the thigh bone n
Saddle joint (between carpals and metacarpals of thumb).
articulates.
Disorderds of Muscular and
Joints
The points of contact between bones or between bones and
Skeletal System
cartilages are called joints. Bones articulate with one another Some common disorders of muscular and skeletal system are as
at the joint. Joints are of three types as follows follows
Å Myasthenia gravis Autoimmune disorder affecting the
Å Fibrous joints, these do not allow any movement. These
are found in between flat bones of skull which fuse neuromuscular junction and leading to fatigue, weakening and
end-to-end with the help of dense fibrous connective paralysis of the skeletal muscles.
tissues in the form of sutures, to form cranium. Å Muscular dystrophy Progressive degeneration of the skeletal
Å Cartilaginous joints, these allow limited movements. In muscles mostly due to genetic disorder.
these joints, the bones involved are joined through Å Tetany Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in the muscle due to
cartilage, e.g. in between adjacent vertebrae in the low Ca 2+ ions in body fluid.
vertebral column. Å Arthritis Inflammation of joints.
Å Synovial joints, these are characterised by the presence of n

Osteoarthritis caused due to the wearing away of the
synovial cavity between the articulating surface of two cartilage which covers the bones in the joints.
bones. Such an arrangement allows considerable n
Rheumatoid arthritis caused due to the inflammation of
movement. Some examples are synovial membrane and can affect middle aged and older
n
Ball and socket joint (between humerus and pectoral people.
girdle). Å Osteoporosis Age related disorder characterised by decreased
n
Hinge joint (knee joint) bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
n
Pivot joint (between atlas and axis) Å Gout Inflammation of joints due to the accumulation of uric
acid crystals.
Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Types of Movement, Muscles and

Mechanism of Muscle Contraction
1 Streaming of the cytoplasm/cyclosis is seen in 4 Ciliary movements within human body can be
(a) Amoeba (b) earthworm observed in
(c) Nereis (d) leech (a) trachea (b) Fallopian tube
2 Amoeboid movements occur due to streaming of (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
protoplasm in 5 Movement of our limbs, jaws, tongue, etc., requires
(a) macrophages and leucocytes (a) ciliary movement
(b) spermatozoa, Amoeba and erythrocytes (b) amoeboid movement
(c) erythrocytes and leucocytes (c) muscular movement
(d) spermatozoa and macrophages (d) flagellar movement
3 All locomotions are movements 6 Locomotion is effected due to
(a) and all movements are locomotions (a) contractile property of muscles
(b) but all movements are not locomotions (b) movement of skeletal elements
(c) which result in no change of place or location (c) motor signal through neural system
(d) Either (a) or (c) (d) All of the above
7 In which of the following processes, flagellar 19 Actin and myosin filaments of muscles are also called
movements are involved? (a) thick and thin filaments, respectively
(a) Swimming of spermatozoa (b) thin and thick filaments, respectively
(b) Maintenance of water current in spongocoel of sponges (c) black and white filaments, respectively
(c) Locomotion in Euglena (d) white and black filaments, respectively
(d) All of the above 20 Choose the incorrect pair.
8 Locomotory actions within human body are carried (a) Globular head of meromyosin – Active ATPase enzyme
out using (b) Thin fibrous membrane holding – M-line thick
(a) unstriped muscles (b) striated muscles filaments in A-band
(c) involuntary muscles (d) visceral muscles (c) Dark bands – Isotropic band
9 Visceral muscles are likely to be found in
(a) brain and spinal cord (b) digestive tract 21 In the centre of each I-band, there is an elastic fibre
(c) biceps and triceps (d) All of these called
(a) I-line (b) Z-line
10 Visceral muscles are also called
(c) A-line (d) H-zone
(a) smooth muscles (b) non-striated muscles
(c) involuntary muscles (d) All of these 22 A sarcomere in the myofibrils of muscle is found in
between two successive
11 Cardiac muscles are
(a) M-lines (b) Z-lines
(a) smooth and voluntary (b) smooth and involuntary
(c) H-zones (d) A-bands
(c) striated and involuntary (d) striated and voluntary
23 Sarcomere is a
12 The muscle bundles, fascicles are held together by the
(a) functional unit of contraction
collagenous connective tissue called
(b) portion of myofibril present in between two M-lines
(a) intercalated disc (b) myofibril
(c) complete bundle of muscles
(c) fascia (d) All of these
(d) portion of myofibril present in between two A-bands
13 The sarcolemma lines a
24 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
(a) muscle fibre (b) fascia
NEET 2013
(c) fascicle (d) All of these
(a) the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of
14 The storehouse of calcium ions in the muscle fibre is A-band
(a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(b) Golgi body (c) the central gap between actin filaments extending
(c) sarcoplasmic reticulum through myosin filaments in the A-band
(d) lysosomes (d) extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of
15 What is/are the function(s) of calcium? JIPMER 2018 the A-band
(a) Blood clotting (b) Muscular contraction 25 F-actin is a polymer of
(c) Nerve conduction (d) All of these (a) troponin (b) globular actin
16 Myofilaments or Myofibrils are (c) meromyosin (d) tropomyosin
(a) obliquely arranged filaments of muscle fibre 26 Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
(b) parallelly arranged filaments of muscle fibre A
(c) horizontally arranged filaments of muscle fibre
B
(d) radially arranged filaments of muscle fibre
C
17 Myofibrils appear striated due to the presence of
(a) actin in lighter region and myosin in darker region (a) A–Troponin, B–Tropomyosin, C– F-actin
(b) actin throughout the length of myofibril (b) A–Thick filament, B–Troponin, C–Tropomyosin
(c) myosin in lighter region and actin in darker region (c) A–Myosin filament, B–Troponin, C–Tropomyosin
(d) myosin throughout the length of myofibril (d) A–Meromyosin, B–Troponin, C–Tropomyosin
18 The light and dark regions of myofibril are called 27 Troponin bearing filament protein in thin filament is
(a) I–band and A–band, respectively (a) actin
(b) L–band and D–band, respectively (b) meromyosin
(c) A–band and I–band, respectively (c) tropomyosin
(d) A–band and M–band, respectively (d) myosin
28 The active binding sites for myosin on actin filament 35 Contraction of the muscles takes place by the sliding
are masked by of
(a) Ca 2+ ions (b) troponin (a) thick filament over thin filament
(c) F-actin (d) tropomyosin (b) thin filament over thick filament
29 Which one is incorrectly matched? (c) thin filament over thin filament
(d) thick filament over thick filament
(a) Heavy meromyosin — Globular head
(b) Smooth muscle — Involuntary muscle 36 Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated by a signal
(c) Red muscle — Myoglobin sent by
(d) Troponin — Fibrous protein (a) CNS
(b) PNS
30 Cross arms of the myosin monomer consist of
(c) ANS
(a) outward projection of G-actin filament
(d) Neutral transmitters
(b) outward projection of the head region of meromyosin
(c) outward projection of the tail region of meromyosin 37 Motor unit is a
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) neuron only
(b) muscle fibre only
31 Actin binding sites are located on
(c) motor neuron with muscle fibre
(a) troponin (b) tropomyosin
(c) meromyosin (d) Both (a) and (c)
38 Neuromuscular junction is a junction between
32 Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram and
(a) two neurons and muscles
choose the correct option.
(b) sensory neurons and muscles
A
C (c) motor neurons and sarcolemma of muscles
B
(d) sensory neurons and sarcolemma of muscles
D 39 Action potential in the sarcolemma of muscles is
generated by
(a) neuroinhibitors (b) acetylcholine
(a) A–Actin binding site, B–ATP binding site, C–Head, (c) methylcholine (d) ethylcholine
D–Cross arm 40 Action potential in sarcolemma of muscles causes the
(b) A–Actin binding site, B–ATP binding site, C–Head, release of which ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum?
D–Side arm (a) Na + (b) Cl −
(c) A–Actin binding site, B–ATP binding site, C–Head,
(c) Ca 2+ (d) HCO−3
D–Long arm
(d) A–Actin binding site, B–ATP binding site, C–Head, 41 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active
D–Short arm sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during
33 Given below is the figure of a sarcomere. Identify the muscle contraction. NEET 2016
parts labelled as A to D and select the correct option. (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium
B (c) Sodium (d) Potassium
A D
42 Upon stimulation of skeletal muscles, calcium is
immediately made available for binding to troponin
from
(a) blood
C (b) lymph
A B C D (c) sarcoplasmic reticulum
(a) A-band Z-line H-zone I-band (d) bone
(b) A-band H-line Z-zone I-band 43 Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction
(c) I-band H-line Z-zone A-band because it NEET 2018
(d) I-band Z-line H-zone A-band (a) detaches the myosin head from the actin filament
34 Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by (b) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it
(a) physical filament theory (c) binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites
(b) chemical filament theory on actin for myosin
(c) sliding filament theory (d) prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin
(d) jumping filament theory cross-bridges and the actin filament
44 Identify A to E in the given diagram. (a) A–Contracting, B–Relaxed, C–Maximally contracted

(b) A–Relaxed, B–Contracting, C–Maximally contracted
(c) A–Maximally contracted, B–Contracting, C–Relaxed
(d) A–Relaxed, B–Maximally contracted, C–Contracting
E A 47 Consider the following events
I. I-band shortens
D B
II. A-band retains its length
III. H-zone shortens
C
IV. Sarcomere elongation
(a) A–Cross-bridge, B–Cross-bridge formation V. ATP formation from ADP and Pi.
C–Breakage of cross-bridge, D–Sliding E–ATP Choose the option containing the events which do not
(b) A–Cross-bridge, B–Cross-bridge formation, occur during skeletal muscle contraction.
C–Sliding/rotation, D–Breaking of cross-bridge,
E–ATP (a) Only I
(c) A–Cross-bridge, B–Breaking of cross-bridge, (b) Only III
C–Sliding/rotation, D–Cross-bridge formation, E–AMP (c) IV and V
(d) A–Cross-bridge, B–Cross-bridge formation, (d) Only II
C–Sliding/rotation, D–ADP, E–Breaking of
cross-bridge 48 For how long, contraction of the muscles continues in
sliding filament theory?
45 Which muscle band remains unchanged during the
(a) Till ATP binds to myosin head
contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscle?
(a) I (b) H (c) A (d) E (b) Till ADP binds to myosin head
(c) Till Ca 2+ present in sarcoplasm
46 Identify the state of sarcomere in the diagram and
choose the correct option accordingly. (d) Till polymerisation of myosin head is going on
I-band 49 Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen containing
H-zone A-band
pigment called
A (a) rhodopsin
(b) myoglobin
Z-line Z-line Z-line (c) haemocyanin
B
50 Aerobic muscles and anaerobic muscles are called
(a) red fibres; white fibres, respectively
C (b) white fibres; red fibres, respectively
(c) white fibres; yellow fibres, respectively
Two sarcomeres (d) red fibres; yellow fibres, respectively
TOPIC 2 ~ Skeletal System

51 Skeletal system consists of 54 Which of the following is not a function of the
(a) bones and cartilages skeletal system? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(b) bones and muscles (a) Production of erythrocytes (b) Storage of minerals
(c) only bones (c) Production of body heat (d) Locomotion
(d) only cartilage 55 A U-shaped bone present at the base of buccal cavity
52 Hardness of the bones is due to is
(a) hard matrix made up of calcium salts (a) ethmoid bone (b) malleus
(b) hard matrix made up of phosphates (c) hyoid bone (d) lacrimal bone
(c) hard matrix made up of sodium salts 56 Find out the correct order of number of bones in the
(d) hard matrix made up of chelates human skull (i.e. cranial bone, facial bone, hyoid
53 Cartilage has pliable matrix due to the presence of bone and middle ear bone, respectively).
(a) chondroitin salts (b) osteoblast (a) 14, 8, 1 and 3 (b) 6, 8, 14 and 1
(c) chondroblast (d) osteoclast (c) 14, 8, 3 and 1 (d) 8, 14, 1 and 6
57 Which of the following bones is a part of human A B C D E F

skull? (a) Lumbar Thoracic Cervical Intervertebral Sacrum Coccyx
(a) Frontal bone–1 (b) Parietal bone–2 vertebrae vertebrae vertebrae disc
(c) Temporal bone–2 (d) All of these
(b) Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Intervertebral Sacrum Coccyx
58 Middle ear contains three tiny bones. vertebrae vertebrae vertebrae disc
I. Maxillae II. Malleus (c) Thoracic Cervical Intervertebral Lumbar Coccyx Sacrum
III. Incus IV. Stapes vertebrae vertebrae disc vertebrae
V. Vomer (d) Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Intervertebral Coccyx Sacrum
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV vertebrae vertebrae vertebrae disc
(c) III, IV and V (d) I, II and V
62 The human vertebral column is ....... .
59 Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of (a) horizontally placed (b) dorsally placed
humans skull, choose the correct option. (c) ventrally placed (d) longitudinally placed
B 63 Neural canal is
A (a) the solid portion of vertebrae through which the spinal
cord passes
(b) the hollow portion of vertebrae through which the
spinal cord passes
C
64 Atlas is JIPMER 2019
D (a) 1st cervical vertebra
(a) A–Hyoid bone, B–Maxilla, C–Frontal bone, D–Parietal (b) 2nd cervical vertebra
bone (c) 1st thoracic vertebra
(b) A–Hyoid bone, B–Maxilla, C–Parietal bone, D–Frontal (d) 2nd lumbar vertebra
bone 65 The number of cervical vertebrae in almost all
(c) A–Maxilla, B–Hyoid bone, C–Parietal bone, D–Frontal mammals is
bone (a) four (b) five
(d) A–Parietal bone, B–Frontal bone, C–Maxilla, D–Hyoid (c) six (d) seven
bone
66 The vertebral column in humans
60 Our vertebral column is formed by the
(a) protects the spinal cord
(a) 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae
(b) supports the head
(b) 27 serially arranged units called vertebrae
(c) provides surface as an attachment for ribs and
(c) 33 serially arranged units called vertebrae
musculature of back
(d) 35 serially arranged units called vertebrae
61 Examine the figure of vertebral column (right lateral
67 Fused vertebrae in human are
view) and identify A, B, C, D, E and F.
I. Sacral II. Coccygeal
A III. Thoracic IV. Cervical
V. Lumbar
(a) I and II (b) III and IV
(c) IV and V (d) II and V
B
68 Flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax to which
ribs are attached is
(a) coccyx (b) sternum
C (c) sacrum (d) ribs
D
69 How many pairs of ribs are present in human
E skeleton?
(a) 10 pairs (b) 12 pairs
F
(c) 9 pairs (d) 7 pairs
70 Out of ‘X ’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y ’ pairs are 83 The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents form
values of X and Y and provides their explanation. (a) fibrous pubic symphysis (b) fibrous pectoral symphysis
NEET 2017 (c) elastic pelvic symphysis (d) elastic coxal bone
(a) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral 84 Examine the figure of right pectoral girdle and forelimb
column and ventrally to the sternum.
and identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
(b) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral
column and sternum on the two ends. A
(c) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral

column, but are free on ventral side.
(d) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral
column, but are free on ventral side. B
C
71 False ribs are ventrally attached to
D
(a) sternum through hyaline cartilage
(b) seventh rib through hyaline cartilage
(c) seventh rib through fibrous cartilage
(d) sternum through fibrous cartilage
72 The rib cage is formed by
A B C D
(a) thoracic vertebrae (b) ribs
(a) Clavicle Scapula Humerus Radius
(c) sternum (d) All of these (b) Scapula Femur Ulna Tarsals
73 Bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute (c) Clavicle Femur Radius Carpals
the (d) Clavicle Humerus Ulna Tarsals
(a) apendicular skeleton (b) axial skeleton 85 Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the given
(c) apex skeleton (d) axis skeleton figure of right pelvic girdle and lower limb bone.
74 Each human limb is made of
A
(a) 60 bones (b) 50 bones (c) 40 bones (d) 30 bones
75 Number of tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges in the
hindlimbs of human are B
(a) 7, 5,14 (b) 8, 5, 14 (c) 9, 5, 14 (d) 5, 6, 7
76 Which one is longest bone in human?
(a) Femur (b) Clavicle (c) Tibia (d) Ulna
C
77 A cup-shaped bone that covers the knee ventrally is D
called
(a) stapes (b) patella (c) malleus (d) incus
78 The triangular bone scapula is found on A B C D
(a) dorsal part of thorax between 2nd and 7th ribs (a) Coxal bone Femur Tibia Fibula
(b) ventral part of thorax between 2nd and 7th ribs (b) Femur Coxal bone Tibia Fibula
(c) medial part of thorax between 2nd and 7th ribs (c) Fibula Tibia Coxal bone Femur
(d) None of the above (d) Femur Fibula Tibia Coxal bone
79 Which of the following is a part of pectoral girdle? 86 Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones and each
(a) Ilium (b) Ischium coxal bone consists
(c) Acetabulum (d) Glenoid cavity
I. Ilium II. Incus III. Ischium IV. Pubis
80 Glenoid cavity articulates CBSE-AIPMT 2015 Choose the correct option containing all correct bones.
(a) clavicle with acromion (b) scapula with acromion (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) clavicle with scapula (d) humerus with scapula (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
81 Pelvic girdle consists of 87 A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field.
(a) ilium and clavicle (b) two coxal bones Which one of the following groups of bones is
(c) two acromion bones (d) acetabulum and glenoid cavity directly contributing to this movement?
82 Cavity in coxal bone called acetabulum is formed by (a) Malleus, tibia, metatarsals, femur
the fusion of (b) Pelvis, patella, tarsals, incus
(a) ilium and incus (b) ilium and ischium (c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
(c) incus and ischium (d) ilium, ischium and pubis (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
TOPIC 3 ~ Joints
88 Joints are point of contact between 94 Identify the synovial joints among the given options.
(a) muscles and bones (b) two bones I. Ball and socket II. Hinge joint
(c) bones and cartilages (d) Both (b) and (c) III. Pivot joints IV. Sutures of skull
89 Fibrous joints are found in V. Vertebral joints
(a) between flat bones of skull, i.e. sutures Select the correct option.
(b) pubic symphysis (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, III, IV and V
(c) between vertebrae (c) II, III, IV and V (d) I, II and III
90 Cartilaginous joints in humans (a) Facial bones – Made up of 14 skeletal elements
(a) permit any movement (b) permit limited movement (b) Sacral vertebrae – One and fused
(c) permit no movement (d) All of these (c) Vertebrochondral ribs – False ribs (8th, 9th, 10th)
91 The cartilaginous joints contain (d) Hinge joint – Adjacent lumbar vertebrae
(a) hyaline cartilage (b) fibrous cartilage 96 Select the correct matching of the type of the joint
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Either (a) or (b) with the example in human skeletal system.
92 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of CBSE-AIPMT 2014
NEET 2017 Types of Joint Examples
(a) fibrous joint (b) cartilaginous joint (a) Cartilaginous joint Between frontal and parietal
(c) synovial joint (d) saddle joint (b) Pivot joint Between 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae
93 The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint (c) Hinge joint Between humerus and pectoral girdle
in humans is NEET 2013 (d) Gliding joint Between carpals
Characteristics Examples 97 The joint of humerus with pectoral girdle is
(a) Fluid cartilage between two Knee joints (a) hinge joint (b) pivot joint
bones, limited movements
(c) non-movable joint (d) ball and socket joint
(b) Fluid-filled between two joints Skull bones
provides cushion 98 Where is the saddle joint present in humans?
(c) Fluid-filled synovial cavity Joint between atlas and (a) Between carpals and metacarpals of thumb
between two bones axis (b) Between atlas and axis
(d) Lymph-filled between two Gliding joint between (c) Between radius and ulna
bones, limited movement carpals (d) Between carpals and phallanges
TOPIC 4 ~ Disorders of Muscular and Skeletal System

99 Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune 103 Osteoporosis is
disorder? NEET (Odisha) 2019 (a) an age-related disorder
(a) Myasthenia gravis (b) Arthritis (b) a gene related disorder
(c) Osteoporosis (d) Gout (c) a result of low Ca 2+ ions in body
100 Which of the following muscular disorders is (d) None of the above
inherited? NEET (National) 2019 104 Bones become fragile in
(a) Muscular dystrophy (b) Myasthenia gravis (a) osteoporosis (b) gout
(c) Botulism (d) Tetany (c) arthritis (d) None of these
101 In which of the following conditions, progressive 105 Joint pain, stiffness and swelling are the most
degeneration of skeletal muscles happens? common symptoms of
(a) Myasthenia gravis (b) Muscular dystrophy (a) gout (b) tetany
(c) Tetany (d) Arthritis (c) arthritis (d) osteoporosis
102 Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in 106 Gout is caused due to the accumulation of
sustained muscle contraction is known as NEET 2016 (a) glucose (b) uric acid crystals
(a) fatigue (b) tetanus (c) tonus (d) spasm (c) bile (d) ammonia
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 115 Assertion (A) Human skull is dicondylic.
■ Direction (Q. No. 107-115) In each of the following Reason (R) It is attached to vertebral column through
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by two occipital condyles.
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as II. Statement Based Questions
explanation of A 116 Go through the following statements and choose the
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct incorrect statement.
explanation of A (a) All movements are locomotions, but all locomotions are
(c) If A is true, but R is false not movements
(d) If A is false, but R is true (b) The tentacles of Hydra are locomotory in function
(c) In Paramecium, cilia help in the movement of food
107 Assertion (A) Muscle fibre is a syncytium. through cytopharynx
Reason (R) The sarcoplasm of muscle fibre contains (d) Streaming of protoplasm in Amoeba is a type of
numerous nuclei. amoeboid movement
108 Assertion (A) On stimulation, a muscle cell releases 117 Which of the following statements is/are true for
calcium ions (Ca 2+ ) from sarcoplasmic reticulum. ciliary movements?
(a) Cilia take part in the propulsion of excretory products
Reason (R) By reacting with a protein complex, Ca 2+ (b) Cilia are present in trachea, vasa efferentia and oviducts
uncover active sites on the actin filaments. (c) Cilia are seen in Paramecium and other ciliates
109 Assertion (A) Red muscles fibres depend on (d) All of the above
anaerobic process for energy.
118 Choose the incorrect statement about muscles.
Reason (R) Red muscles fibres have more number of (a) Muscles are specialised tissues of mesodermal origin
mitochondria in them. (b) About 40-50% of the body weight is contributed by
110 Assertion (A) Calcium is required for skeletal muscle muscles
contraction. AIIMS 2019 (c) Muscles have special properties like excitability,
conductivity and extensibility
Reason (R) Calcium influx releases acetylcholine at
neuromuscular junction. (d) None of the above
111 Assertion (A) The myosin rich zone called A-band 119 Choose the incorrect statement about the skeletal
maintains its length during sarcomere contraction. muscles.
(a) Their activities are under the voluntary control of the
Reason (R) The length of I-band remains the same nervous system
during muscle contraction. (b) They are known as unstriated muscles
112 Assertion (A) Knee joint is the hinge type of joint. (c) They are primarily involved in locomotory actions and
Reason (R) Femur and humerus are associated with changes of body postures
the knee joint. (d) They are found close to skeletal components of body
like bones
113 Assertion (A) The most abundant joints in human
120 Select the incorrect statement.
body are synovial joints.
(a) Voluntary movements in organism help in locomotion
Reason (R) Gliding joints offer movement in all the (b) Pseudopodial movements as in Amoeba are shown by
three planes/axis. cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments
114 Assertion (A) The cranium and carpals are parts of (c) Dust particles are removed from trachea due to the
axial skeleton. presence of ciliated epithelium on inner side
Reason (R) Both carpals and cranium have 8 bones (d) All the cardiac muscles are unbranched, striated and
involuntary in nature
each.
121 Pick out the incorrect statement. 127 Consider the following statements.
(a) Amount of myoglobin is high in red muscle fibres I. Human ribs are bicephalic as they possess two
(b) White muscle fibres possess low amount of articulation surfaces.
sarcoplasmic reticulum II. Floating ribs are not connected to sternum ventrally.
(c) Red muscle fibres contain abundant mitochondria Select the correct option.
(d) White muscle fibres contain less amount of (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true
mitochondria (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
122 Select the correct option. NEET (National) 2019 128 Which of the following properties of cardiac muscles
(a) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum are correct?
with the help of hyaline cartilage I. These are the muscles of the heart.
(b) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected
II. These are non-striated.
dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the
sternum III. These are involuntary in their functions.
(c) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of IV. These are controlled by nervous system directly.
vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs Select the correct option.
(d) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the (a) I and III (b) II and IV
sternum (c) I and IV (d) II and III
123 Choose the correct statement(s). 129 Consider the following statements.
(a) Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones I. Ciliary movements are observed in internal tubular
(b) Skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs constitute the organs.
axial skeleton
II. All muscle bundles contain a number of fascia.
(c) Skull has total 22 bones in cranial and facial region
(d) All of the above Select the correct option.
124 Select the incorrect statement. (b) Both I and II are true
(a) Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle and (c) I is false, II is true
scapula
(d) Both I and II are false
(b) Acromion is a flat, expanded process of ischium
containing glenoid cavity 130 Consider the following statements.
(c) Clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures I. Muscle fibre is lined by the plasma membrane called
(d) Force generated by muscles results in locomotion sarcolemma.
through joints and thus, they act as fulcrum II. Cytoplasm of the muscle fibre contains single nucleus.
125 Select the correct statement regarding the specific III. In muscle fibre, F-actin and tropomyosin are helically
disorder of muscular or skeletal system. wound filaments.
CBSE-AIPMT 2016 IV. Muscle fibre is not a syncytium.
(a) Muscular dystrophy –Age related shortening of muscles Choose the incorrect properties of muscle fibres.
(b) Osteoporosis –Decrease in bone mass and higher chances (a) II and IV (b) I and III
of fractures with advancing age (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
(c) Myasthenia gravis –Autoimmune disorder which
131 Which of the following statements are false regarding
inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
the muscle structure?
(d) Gout–Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of
calcium I. Each myofibril consists of alternate light and dark
bands.
126 Select the correct statement with respect to
II. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the Z-line.
locomotion in humans. NEET 2013
III. M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle of A-band.
(a) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis
in old people IV. Both actin and myosin are rod-like structures parallel
(b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their to each other and to longitudinal axis of myofibril.
inflammation Choose the correct option.
(c) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae (a) I and II (b) III and IV
(d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint (c) II and III (d) None of these
132 Consider the following statements. The correct option is

I. In resting state, edges of thin filament partially overlap (a) I → II → III (b) III → II → I
the ends of thick filament. (c) I → III → II (d) III → I → II
II. H-zone is the overlapped area of thick and thin 137 Arrange the following steps of muscle contraction in
filaments. the sequence of events occurring first.
Select the correct option. I. Receptor sites on sarcolemma
(a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true II. Nerve impulse
(c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I are II are false III. Release of Ca 2+
133 Consider the following statements with reference to IV. Acetylcholine release
muscle structure. V. Shortening of sarcomere
I. Each myosin is a polymerised protein. VI. Neuromuscular junction
II. Many meromyosins constitute one thick filament VII. Spread of impulse over sarcolemma on T-tubule
(myosin). The correct option is
III. Each meromyosin’s tail is called Heavy Meromyosin (a) II → VI → IV → I → VII → III → V
(HMM) and head is called Light Meromyosin (b) II → IV → I → VI → VII → III → V
(LMM). (c) II → IV → I → VI → VII → V → III
IV. The globular head is an active ATPase enzyme and has (d) IV → II → I → VI → VII → V → III
binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin. 138 Relaxation of the muscle takes place due to
Choose the option with correct statements. I. Pumping of Ca 2+ ions in sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV II. ATP attached to myosin head and cross-bridge breaks
(c) All except III (d) I and IV down.
134 Select the incorrect statements. III. Confirmational changes in troponin and masking the
I. During muscle contraction, chemical energy changes actin filament.
into mechanical energy. IV. Z-line pulled inward.
II. Muscle fatigue occurs due to pyruvic acid formation. Select the correct option.
III. The reaction time is different for different muscle. (a) I, III and IV (b) I and II
IV. Muscle contraction does not need ATP. (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
Choose the correct option. 139 Study the following statements .
(a) I and II (b) II and III I. Accumulation of acetic acid in muscles causes fatigue.
(c) III and IV (d) II and IV II. Accumulation of lactic acid in muscles causes
135 Identify the correct statements. anaerobic breakdown of glycogen.
I. Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal III. Mitochondria are few in white fibres, but amount of
reaches to the motor end-plate. sarcoplasmic reticulum is high.
II. Muscle contraction is initiated by signals sent by CNS IV. Cori cycle does not occur in muscles.
via a sensory neuron. Select the option with incorrect statements.
III. During muscle contraction, isotropic bands get (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
elongated. (c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV
IV. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to lactic
acid accumulation in them. III. Matching Type Questions
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) I and II
Column I Column II
136 Arrange the given steps of muscle contraction in the (Ribs) (Number in pairs)
series of events from first to last. A. True ribs 1. 11, 12 pairs
I. Myosin head binds to the exposed active site on actin to
B. False ribs 2. 8, 9, 10 pairs
form a cross-bridge.
C. Floating ribs 3. First 7 pairs
II. The Z-line attached to these actins are also pulled
inwards thereby, causing shortening of sarcomere, Codes
also called contraction. A B C A B C
III. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the (a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2
centre of A-band. (c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
(Limb bones) (Number) (Joints) (Location)
A. Ulna 1. 14 bones A. Fibrous joints 1. Adjacent vertebrae
B. Carpals 2. 5 bones B. Cartilaginous joints 2. Pubic symphysis
C. Metacarpals 3. 8 bones C. Fibrous cartilaginous joint 3. Sutures
D. Phalanges 4. 1 bone
Codes
Codes A B C A B C
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
(Bones) (Number)
A. Flat bones 1. Collar bone
A. Tarsals 1. 5 in number
B. Irregular bones 2. Vertebrae
B. Metatarsals 2. 8 in number
C. Glenoid cavity 3. Shoulder joint
C. Phalanges 3. 14 in number
D. Clavicle 4. Ear ossicles
D. Carpals 4. 7 in number
Codes
A B C D A B C D Codes
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 4 2 1 (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
Column I Column II 147 Match the following joints with the bones involved.
(Location) (Bones) NEET (Odisha) 2019
A. Hand 1. Femur
Column I Column II
B. Wrist 2. Radius
C. Thigh 3. Carpal A Gliding joint 1. Between carpals and metacarpal of
thumb
D. Ankle 4. Tarsals
B Hinge joint 2. Between atlas and axis
Codes
A B C D C Pivot joint 3. Between the carpals
(a) 2 3 1 4 D Saddle joint 4. Between humerus and ulna
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 2 1 4 Codes
(d) 3 1 2 4 A B C D A B C D
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4
Column I Column II
(Types of vertebrae) (Number) 148 Match the following columns.
A. Cervical vertebrae 1. 1 Column I Column II
B. Thoracic vertebrae 2. 1 (Disorders) (Features)
C. Lumbar vertebrae 3. 5 A. Myasthenia gravis 1. Degeneration of skeletal muscles
D. Sacral vertebrae 4. 12 B. Muscular dystrophy 2. Neuromuscular junction affected
E. Caudal vertebrae 5. 7
C. Tetany 3. Low Ca 2+ in body fluid
Codes D. Arthritis 4. Inflammation of joints
A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 Codes
(b) 5 4 3 2 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 5 3 4 2 1 (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 5 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4

NCERT 156 Which one of the following pair is incorrect?
149 Match Column I with Column II. (a) Hinge joint – between humerus and pectoral girdle
(b) Pivot joint – between atlas, axis and occipital condyle
Column I Column II (c) Gliding joint – between the carpals
A. Smooth muscle 1. Myoglobin (d) Saddle joint – between carpals and metacarpal of thumb
B. Tropomyosin 2. Thin fillament 157 Knee joint and elbow joint are examples of
C. Red muscle 3. Sutures (a) saddle joint (b) ball and socket joint
D. Skull 4. Involuntary (c) pivot joint (d) hinge joint
158 Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit
Codes (a) ciliary movement (b) flagellar movement
A B C D A B C D (c) amoeboid movement (d) gliding movement
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 2 3 4 159 Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone?
(a) Arthritis (b) Osteoporosis
(c) Rickets (d) Atherosclerosis
NCERT Exemplar
150 Match the following columns. (a) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary
Column I Column II (b) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary
A. Fast muscle fibres 1. Myoglobin (c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary
canal are striated and involuntary
B. Slow muscle fibres 2. Lactic acid
(d) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated
C. Actin filament 3. Contractile unit and involuntary
D. Sarcomere 4. I-band
161 Which one of the following statements is true?
Codes (a) Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of
A B C D A B C D pectoral girdle
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 1 3 4 (b) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid cavity of
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 2 4 1 pectoral girdle
(c) Head of humerus bone articulates with a cavity called
151 Ribs are attached to acetabulum of pelvic girdle
(a) scapula (b) sternum (d) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid cavity of
(c) clavicle (d) ilium pelvic girdle
152 What is the type of movable joint present between the 162 Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary
atlas and axis? are
(a) Pivot (b) Saddle (a) muscles in the wall of alimentary canal
(c) Hinge (d) Gliding (b) muscles of the heart
153 ATPase of the muscle is located in (c) muscles assisting locomotion
(a) actinin (b) troponin (c) myosin (d) actin (d) muscles of the eyelids
154 Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of 163 Match the following columns.
(a) birds (b) reptiles Column I Column II
(c) mammals (d) amphibians A. Sternum 1. Synovial fluid
155 Which one of the following is showing the correct B. Glenoid cavity 2. Vertebrae
sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral column C. Freely movable joint 3. Pectoral girdle
of human beings? D. Cartilaginous joint 4. Flat bone
(a) Cervical — Lumbar — Thoracic — Sacral — Coccygeal
(b) Cervical — Thoracic — Sacral — Lumbar — Coccygeal Codes
(c) Cervical — Sacral — Thoracic — Lumbar — Coccygeal A B C D A B C D
(d) Cervical — Thoracic — Lumbar — Sacral — Coccygeal (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
Answers
1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (a) 37 (c) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (c)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (c) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (a)
51 (a) 52 (a) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (c) 56 (d) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (d) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (b) 64 (a) 65 (d) 66 (d) 67 (a) 68 (b) 69 (b) 70 (a)
71 (b) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (d) 75 (a) 76 (a) 77 (b) 78 (a) 79 (d) 80 (d)
81 (b) 82 (d) 83 (a) 84 (a) 85 (a) 86 (c) 87 (d) 88 (d) 89 (a) 90 (b)
91 (d) 92 (c) 93 (c) 94 (d) 95 (d) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (a) 99 (a) 100 (a)
101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (a) 104 (a) 105 (c) 106 (b)

107 (a) 108 (b) 109 (d) 110 (c) 111 (c) 112 (c) 113 (c) 114 (d) 115 (a) 116 (a)
117 (d) 118 (d) 119 (b) 120 (d) 121 (b) 122 (c) 123 (d) 124 (b) 125 (b) 126 (b)
127 (b) 128 (a) 129 (a) 130 (a) 131 (d) 132 (a) 133 (c) 134 (d) 135 (b) 136 (c)
137 (a) 138 (d) 139 (c) 140 (c) 141 (b) 142 (a) 143 (a) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (b)
147 (a) 148 (d)

149 (a) 150 (c) 151 (b) 152 (a) 153 (c) 154 (c) 155 (d) 156 (a) 157 (d) 158 (c)
159 (d) 160 (c) 161 (b) 162 (b) 163 (b)

5 (c) Movement of limbs, jaws, tongue, etc., requires myosin cross-bridges. Calcium ions help in the
muscular movement. The contractile property of the transmission of nerve impulse at a chemical synapse.
muscles is effectively used for locomotion and other 17 (a) Myofibrils appear striated due to the presence of
movements by human beings and majority of actin in lighter region and myosin in darker region.
multicellular organisms. Each myofibril has an alternate dark and light band on
8 (b) Locomotory actions within human body are carried it, due to the distribution pattern of two important
out using striated muscles or skeletal muscles. These proteins, i.e. actin and myosin in these regions.
muscles are closely associated with the skeletal
20 (c) The pair in option (c) is incorrect. Its correct form is
components of the body and are primarily involved in
as follows
locomotory actions and changes of body postures.
Dark bands are called A-bands or Anisotropic bands
9 (b) Visceral muscles are likely to be found in the inner whereas light bands are Isotropic or I-bands.
walls of hollow visceral organs of the body like
Rest of the pairs are correctly matched.
digestive tract, reproductive tract, etc. These do not
exhibit any striation and are smooth in appearance. 21 (b) In the centre of each I-band, there is an elastic fibre
Hence, they are called smooth muscles and non-striated called Z-line, which bisects it. The thin filaments are
muscles. firmly attached to the Z-line.
15 (d) Calcium performs all the given functions, i.e. blood 24 (c) The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibres is the
clotting, muscular contraction and nerve conduction. central gap between actin filaments extending through
Ca 2+ ions are helpful in the formation of prothrombinase myosin filaments in the A-band. Alternate
which catalyses the breakdown of prothrombin into arrangement of dark and light bands gives the striated
thrombin and small peptide fragments. Thrombin in turn appearance to a skeletal muscle. At the centre of
is important for the clotting of blood. Calcium plays a A-band, a comparatively less dark zone called H-zone
key regulatory role in muscle contraction. It helps in is present.
exposing the active sites on the F-actin molecules for
25 (b) Each actin (thin) filament is made up of two 56 (d) The number of bones in the parts of human skull such
F- (filamentous) actins, which are helically wound to as carnial bones, facial bones, hyoid bones and middle
each other. Each F-actin is a polymer of monomeric ear bones are 8, 14, 1 and 6, respectively.
G (globular) actins. Cranial bones are 8 in number, which form the hard
29 (d) The pair in option (d) is incorrectly matched. Its protective outer covering cranium for the brain. The
corrected form is as follows facial region is made up of 14 bones which form the
front part of the skull.
Troponin is a complex protein distributed at regular
intervals on tropomyosin. A single U-shaped bone called hyoid (1) is present at the
base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the
skull. Each middle ear contains three tiny bones, malleus
30 (b) The cross arms of myosin monomer consists of a (2), incus (2) and stapes (2), collectively called ear
head and short arm which projects outwards at regular ossicles.
distance and angle from each other, from the surface of
60 (a) Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially
polymerised myosin filament. The globular head is an
arranged units called vertebrae. The vertebral column is
active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP
differentiated into cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5),
and active sites for actin.
sacral (1-fused) and coccygeal (1-fused) regions starting
31 (c) Active (binding) sites for actin are located on the from the skull.
globular head of a meromyosin. The globular head is
64 (a) Atlas is the first cervical vertebrae of the spine. It
an active ATPase enzyme which contains binding sites
articulates with the occipital condyles and forms the joint
for both ATP and actin.
connecting the skull and spine.
35 (b) Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained
70 (a) In the rib cage, out of the 12 (X) pairs of ribs, 7 (Y)
by the sliding filament theory. It states that the
pairs of ribs are called true ribs. These are the ribs which
contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding
are attached to the sternum at the front (ventrally) and to
of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.
the vertebral column at the back (dorsally).
36 (a) Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated by a signal
sent by Central Nervous System (CNS), via motor 71 (b) The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate
neurons. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres directly with the sternum but are joined to the 7th pair of
connected to it constitute a motor unit. ribs with the help of hyaline cartilage. Thus, these are
called the vertebrochondral or false ribs.
39 (b) A neural signal reaching neuromuscular junction
releases a neurotransmitter, i.e. acetylcholine. It 73 (a) Bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute
generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This the appendicular skeleton. It consists of 126 bones.
spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release 78 (a) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the
of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. dorsal part of the thorax between the 2nd and the 7th
43 (c) Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction ribs.
because it binds to troponin to unmask/expose the The dorsal, flat, triangular body of the scapula has a
active sites on actin for myosin binding. By utilising slightly elevated ridge called the spine which projects as
the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now a flat, expanded process called the acromion.
binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a 79 (d) Out of the given options, glenoid cavity is a part of
cross-bridge. the pectoral girdle. Pectoral girdle or Shoulder girdle is
This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the composed of two separate halves. Each half consists of
centre of A-band and the Z-line attached to these actins the scapula of shoulder bone and clavicle or collar bone.
are also pulled inwards thereby, causing contraction of At the junction of scapula and clavicle, there is a concave
muscle. depression, called glenoid cavity, which articulates with
the head of the humerus to form a ball and socket joint.
45 (c) A-band or Anisotropic band remains unchanged

during the contraction and relaxation of the skeletal Ilium, acetabulum and ischium are the parts of pelvic
muscles. The H-zone narrows and even disappears girdle.
when the thin myofilaments meet at the centre of the 80 (d) Glenoid cavity articulates humerus with scapula.
sarcomere. The size of I-band also decreases. It is shallow and serves as the site of attachment of
48 (c) Sliding of actin and myosin filaments continues glenoid labrum (glenoid ligament), which forms
till the Ca 2+ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic fibrocartilaginous rim around the glenoid cavity.
cisternae, resulting in the masking of actin filaments. 82 (d) Cavity in coxal bone called acetabulum is formed at
This causes the return of Z-lines back to their original the site of fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis.
position, i.e. relaxation of muscle fibre. 83 (a) Two halves of pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form
49 (b) Muscles contain a red coloured oxygen containing the pubic symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.
pigment called the myoglobin. It is abundantly found 87 (d) A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. The
in the red muscle fibres than white muscle fibres. group of bones directly contributing to this movement
are tarsals, femur, metatarsals and tibia. These are the 104 (a) Bones become fragile in osteoporosis, due to the
bones of lower limbs. reduction in bone tissue mass and this causes a decrease
89 (a) Fibrous joints are found in between the flat bones of in skeletal strength.
skull, i.e. sutures. These are immovable or fixed joints 108 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(do not allow any movement). These sutures are formed not the correct explanation of Assertion. Its correct
by the end-to-end fusion of the bone with the help of explanation is as follows
dense fibrous connective tissue. A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular junction
91 (d) The cartilaginous joints either contain hyaline releases a neurotransmitter (acetylcholine) which
cartilage, e.g. in between ribs and sternum or fibrous generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This
cartilage, e.g. in pubic symphysis. spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release
92 (c) The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
synovial joint. A considerable movement is allowed by Increase in Ca + levels leads to the binding of calcium to
synovial joints. These are surrounded by tubular the subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby
articular capsule. removes the masking of active sites for myosin.
The capsule consists of two layers, i.e. outer fibrous 109 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can
capsule and inner synovial membrane, which secretes be corrected as
synovial fluid. This fluid lubricates and provides Red muscle fibres have more number of mitochondria
nourishment to articular cartilage. but less sarcoplasmic reticulum. These fibres are dark
93 (c) Option (c) shows the correct match. red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin. These
Other options are incorrect and can be corrected as carry out aerobic respiration.
l
Knee joints and gliding joints between carpals are also White muscle fibres possess very less quantity of
examples of synovial joints. myoglobin and appear pale or whitish. Number of
mitochondria are also few in them, but the amount of
l
Joints between the bones of skull are example of fibrous
sarcoplasmic reticulum is huge. These depend on
joints which are characterised by lack of movement. anaerobic process for energy.
95 (d) The pair in option (d) is incorrect. Its correct 110 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and can be
explanation is as follows corrected as
Hinge joint is found in knees. The joint between the Calcium ions are required for skeletal contraction.
adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column is
Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca + on receiving
cartilaginous joint and permits limited movements.
stimulus at the neuromuscular junction or motor end
plate. When a neural signal reaches the neuromuscular
96 (d) Option (d) shows the correct match. junction, a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine is
Other options are incorrect and can be corrected as released at this junction and generates an action
l
Cartilaginous joint is found between the vertebrae. potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads throughout
the muscle fibre and causes the release of the calcium
l
Pivot joint is found between atlas and axis.
ions into the sarcoplasm.
l
Hinge joint is found in elbow, knee, ankle and
interphalangeal joints.
corrected as
99 (a) Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune The length of the I-band shortens during muscle
neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness, fatigue contraction.
and paralysis in the skeletal fibres that are involved in
breathing and many various parts of the body including The formation of cross-bridges causes the pulling of the
arms and legs. attached actin filaments towards the centre of A-band.
The Z-line attached to these actins are also pulled
101 (b) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited muscular inwards thereby, causing a shortening of the sarcomere,
disorder in which the skeletal muscles degenerate i.e. contraction. During the shortening of the muscle, the
progressively. It is caused due to the absence of I-bands get reduced, whereas the A-bands retains its
dystrophin protein which helps to keep the muscle cells length.
intact.
102 (b) Sustained muscle contraction due to the repeated corrected as
stimulus caused by rapid spasms in muscle due to low Femur, tibia, fibula and patela are the bones which
Ca 2+ in body fluid is known as tetanus. It results in make up the knee joint.
muscle fatigue.
103 (a) Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder characterised corrected as
by decreased bone mass as bones loose minerals and
Gliding joints offer movement only in one plane or axis
fibres from the matrix causing decreased bone mass and
like back and forth and side-to-side movements.
increased chances of fractures. Decreased level of
oestrogen is a common cause of this disease. The most abundant joints in human body are synovial
joints. These are characterised by the presence of a fluid
filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces 124 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be
of the two bones. These joints help in locomotion and corrected as
many other movements. These include ball and socket Scapula has an elevated ridge called the spine which
joint, hinge joint, pivot joint, gliding joint, etc. projects as flat, expanded process called the acromion.
114 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and Assertion The clavicle articulates to this and below acromion,
can be corrected as glenoid cavity is present, which articulates with the
Carpals or Wrist bones are a part of the appendicular head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.
skeleton. Cranium is part of the axial skeleton which 125 (b) The statement in option (b) is correct regarding the
forms the hard protective outer covering for the brain. specific disorder of the muscular or skeletal system.
Both carpals and cranium bones are 8 in number. Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
116 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be follows
corrected as l
Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterised
All locomotions are movements, but all movements are by progressive weakness and degeneration of the
not locomotion. Locomotion is a voluntary movement skeletal muscles that control movement.
that results in change of place or location. However, l
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular autoimmune
movement in the alimentary canal is not locomotion as disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles.
it is involuntary in nature. l
Gout is a form of arthritis, characterised by severe pain,
Rest of the statements are correct. redness and tenderness in joints.
119 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect about the 126 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct with respect to
skeletal muscles and can be corrected as locomotion in humans. Other statements are incorrect
Skeletal muscles are closely associated with the skeletal and can be corrected as
components of the body. These have a striped l
A decreased level of oestrogen causes osteoporosis in
appearance under the microscope and hence, are called old people.
striated muscles. l
The vertebral column has 7 cervical vertebrae, 12
Rest of the statements are correct. throacic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae and a sacral
120 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect. It can be (1-fused) and a coccygeal (1-fused) vertebrae.
corrected as l
The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in the
Cardiac muscles are the muscles of heart. Many cardiac vertebral column is cartilaginous and not fibrous joint.
muscle cells assemble in a branching pattern to form a Fibrous joints are shown by the flat skull bones.
cardiac muscles and are thus branched. Based on 128 (a) Statements I and III are correct regarding the
appearance, cardiac muscles are striated and are also properties of cardiac muscles. Statements II and IV are
involuntary in nature. incorrect and can be corrected as
Many cardiac muscle cells assemble in a branching
121 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can be pattern to form a cardiac muscle. Based on appearance,
corrected as these are striated.
White muscle fibres contain abundant sarcoplasmic l
These are involuntary in nature as the nervous system
reticulum, but very less amount of mitochondria. These does not control their activities directly.
muscle fibres depend on anaerobic process for energy. 129 (a) Statement I is true, but statement II is false. It can be
122 (c) The statement in option (c) is correct. Each muscle bundle contains a number of muscle fibres.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected Each skeletal muscle is made up of a number of muscle
as bundles or fascicles held together by a common
l
Vertebrosternal ribs are first seven pairs of true ribs collagenous connective tissue layer called fascia.
which are attached dorsally to thoracic vertebrae and 130 (a) Statements II and IV are incorrect regarding muscle
ventrally to the sternum. fibres and can be corrected as
l
Vertebrochondral ribs (8th, 9th, 10th pairs) are false Muscle fibre is a syncytium as the sarcoplasm
ribs which are not attached to sternum directly. These (cytoplasm of the muscle fibre) contains many nuclei.
are attached to the seventh rib with the help of hyaline Statements I and III are correct.
cartilage. 132 (a) Statement I is true, but statement II is false. The
l
Vertebral ribs are the last two pairs of floating ribs statement II can be corrected as
which are attached to vertebrae dorsally and are not H-zone is the central part of the thick filament, which is
attached ventrally. not overlapped by the thin filaments.
133 (c) All statements except statement III are correct with 154 (c) Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of
reference to muscle structure. The incorrect statement mammals. These are present between the bodies of
can be corrected as adjacent vertebrae from second cervical vertebra to the
Each meromyosin has a globular head with a short arm sacrum.
(Heavy Meromyosin or HMM) and a tail (Light 155 (d) The vertebral column is differentiated into Cervical
Meromyosin or LMM). (7), Thoracic (12), Lumbar (5), Sacral (1-fused),
134 (d) Statements I and III are correct, while statements II Coccygeal (1-fused) and regions starting from the skull.
and IV are incorrect. These can be corrected as Thus, option (d) represents the correct sequence.
l
Muscle fatigue occurs due to lactic acid formation.
156 (a) The pair in option (a) is incorrect. It can be corrected
l
Muscle contraction requires ATP for the formation
as
and breakdown of cross-bridges.
Hinge joint is found in knees, elbows, etc.
135 (b) Statements I and IV are correct, whereas
Ball and socket joint is found between humerus and
statements II and III are incorrect. These incorrect
pectoral girdle.
statements can be corrected as
l
Muscle contraction is initiated by singals sent by CNS Rest of the pairs are correctly matched.
via a motor neuron. 158 (c) Some specialised cells in blood like macrophages and
l
During muscle contraction, I (isotropic) bands get leucocytes exhibit amoeboid movement. These have the
reduced, whereas the A (anisotropic) bands retain its ability to reach the interstitial fluid by squeezing through
length. the thin walls of blood vessels.
138 (d) The statements I, II and III are correct regarding 159 (d) Atherosclerosis is a vascular disease (not a bone
relaxation of the muscle. Statement IV is incorrect and disorder), where arteries wall get thicken as a result of
can be corrected as invasion and accumulation of WBCs, containing both
The Z-line attached to actins is pulled inwards during livings active WBCs (White Blood Cells) and remnants
contraction of muscle. of dead WBCs along with cholesterol and triglycerides.
139 (c) Statements I, II and IV are incorrect. These can be Arthritis, osteoporosis and rickets are disorders of bones.
corrected as 160 (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected
l
Accumulation of lactic acid in muscles causes muscle as
fatigue. The visceral or smooth muscles located in the inner walls
l
Repeated activation of muscles can lead to the of alimentary canal are non-striated and involuntary in
accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic nature.
breakdown of glycogen in them, causing fatigue. Rest of the statements are correct.
l
Cori cycle is a cyclic process involving the formation 161 (b) Statement in option (b) is correct.
of lactic acid in the muscles and regeneration of Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected
glycogen from it (in the liver). Statement III is the as
correct statement. Head of humerus bone articulates with the glenoid cavity
153 (c) ATPase of muscles is located in myosin. The of the pectoral girdle.
globular head of myosin in muscles contains the active This results in the formation of shoulder joint (a type of
ATPase enzyme having binding sites for ATP and ball and socket joint). The thigh bone articulates with the
active sites for actin. cavity, acetabulum of the pelvic girdle.

CHAPTER > 21
Neural Control
and Coordination
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Neural/Nervous system provides an organised network of Å Visceral nervous system is a part of PNS that comprises
point to point connections for quick neural coordination and whole complex of fibres, nerves, ganglia and plexuses
fastest means of communication between organs. through which impulses from CNS are transmitted to and
Å Coordination is the process through which two or more from viscera.
organs interact and complement the functions of one
another.
Neurons and Nerves
A neuron is a microscopic structure composed of three major
Å The neural system is composed of highly specialised cells
parts, i.e. cell body, dendrites and axons.
called neurons. These are the basic structural and functional
unit of neural system that can detect, receive and transmit Å Cell body or Cyton or Soma It possesses certain granular
different kinds of stimuli. bodies called Nissl’s granules in their cytoplasm along with
other cell organelles.
Human Neural System Å Dendrites are short, branched projections of the cell body,
also containing Nissl’s granules. These transmit impulse
It is derived from embryonic ectoderm and is composed of towards the cell body.
1. Central Neural System (CNS) includes brain and spinal Å Axon is a long fibre, with branched distal end. It terminates
cord and is the site of information processing and into a bulb-like structure called synaptic knob containing
control. neurotransmitters. It functions to transmits impulse away
2. Peripheral Neural System (PNS) comprises of all the from the cell body.
nerves of the body associated with the CNS (brain and Å On the basis of number of dendrites and axons, neurons are
spinal cord). The nerve fibres of PNS are of two types of following types
n
Afferent fibres transmit impulses from tissues to n
Multipolar One axon, two or more dendrites, found in
CNS. cerebral cortex.
n
Efferent fibres transmit impulses from CNS to n
Bipolar One dendrite and one axon, found in retina of
tissues. eye.
Å The two divisions of PNS are n
Unipolar Only one axon, found in embryonic stages.
n
Somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS Å Axons are mainly of two types, i.e. myelinated (found in
to skeletal muscles. spinal and cranial nerves) and non-myelinated (found in
n
Autonomic neural system transmits impulse from autonomous and somatic neural system) nerve fibres.
CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles. It Schwann cells form the myelin sheath around the axon.
is further classified as sympathetic and Å The gap between the two adjacent myelin sheath is known as
parasympathetic nervous system. nodes of Ranvier.
CHAPTER 21 > Neural Control and Coordination 485
Generation and Conduction of Nerve Å At a chemical synapse, when an impulse arrives at the
axon terminal, the synaptic vesicles move towards the
Impulses plasma membrane, where they fuse and release their
Nerve impulse can be defined as a wave of depolarisation of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft.
the nerve cell membrane travelling along a neuron and Axon
throughout the nervous system.
The nerve impulse generation occurs in the following steps Axon terminal
Synaptic vesicles
1. Resting Potential
Pre-synaptic
Å The axonal membrane is polarised and do not conduct membrane
Synapse
impulse at this stage. There is a difference in the Synaptic cleft
concentration of ions across the axonal membrane. Post-synaptic
membrane
Å Axoplasm inside the axon contain more K+ and low Na + ions. Receptors
Outside the axon, fluid contain more Na + and low K+ ions.

Neurotransmitters
Å
Diagram showing axon terminal and synapse
Å The ionic gradient is maintained by Na-K pump which
transport 3Na + outward for 2K+ ions into the cells. Å The neurotransmitters bind to receptors an
post-synaptic membrane, open ion channels and allow
Å Thus, outer surface is positively charged, while the inner
the entry of ions, so as to generate action potential in
surface is negatively charged. The state of resting membrane
post-synaptic membrane. The new potential is either
is called polarised state.
excitatory or inhibitory in nature.
Å The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma
membrane is called as the resting potential. Central Nervous System
2. Action Potential Å It controls various voluntary and involuntary
Å Due to the stimulation of nerve fibre, membrane become movements in human body. Its parts, i.e. brain and the
highly permeable to Na + , leading to rapid influx of Na + and spinal cord are covered by three protective connective
thus, polarity of membrane is reversed. The membrane is said tissue sheaths, the cranial meninges. The inner
to be depolarised. meninge is called piamater, the middle arachnoid
membrane and the outer duramater.
Å Action potential or nerve impulse is the electrical potential
difference across plasma membrane. Å Both brain and spinal cord are composed of two types
of nervous tissue grey matter and white matter. Brain
Å Nerve impulse is conducted along the whole length of axon.
can be divided into three major parts, i.e. forebrain
3. Repolarisation (cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus), midbrain and
hindbrain (pons, cerebellum and medulla).
Å Soon, permeability of K+ ion increases and membrane again
become polarised due to the diffusion of K+ ions outside the Forebrain
membrane, i.e. repolarisation. Å It has cerebrum which is divided into two halves
forming left and right cerebral hemispheres. The
Transmission of Nerve Impulse cerebral hemisphere are connected by a tract of nerve
Å A nerve impulse flows from one neuron to another through fibres called corpus callosum.
synapses which is formed by the membranes of a
pre-synaptic neuron and post-synaptic neuron, which may or Cerebral hemisphere
may not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft.
Corpus callosum
Å There are two types of synapses present, as follows Cerebrum
n
Electrical synapse In these, the gap between pre-synaptic
Forebrain
and post-synaptic neuron is negligble and thus, the

electric current flows at faster rate from one neuron to
another. These are rare in human body.
Thalamus
n
Chemical synapse In these, Pre-synaptic and Hypothalamus Cerebral aqueduct
Brain stem
post-synaptic membranes are separated by chemical filled Midbrain

synaptic cleft. These chemicals are called Pons
Hindbrain Cerebellum
neurotransmitters which are responsible for generation of Medulla
action potential. Its nerve conduction is slower as Spinal cord
compared to electrical synapse. Diagram showing sagital section of the human brain
NEET KEY NOTES

Cerebral cortex is the layer of cells covering the cerebral

Sensory Organs
Å
hemispheres. It contain motor, sensory and mixed regions

(association areas) which are neither motor nor sensory in Various sensory organs in human body are as follows
functions.
Å Thalamus is major coordinating centre for sensory and
1. Nose
motor signalling. Å It contain mucus coated olfactory receptors which are
specialised for receiving the sense of smell.
Å Hypothalamus is present below the thalamus and it contain
neurosecretory cells which secrete hypothalamic hormones. Å These receptors are made up of olfactory epithelium
This region control body temperature, hunger, etc. containing three types of cells, i.e. receptor cells,
supporting cells and basal cells.
Å Limbic system or limbic lobe is a complex structure formed
of inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and group of Å Olfactory neurons extend from outside environment to
associatied deep structures like amygdala, hippocampus, etc. olfactory bulb which is turn in an extension of limbic
Limbic system along with hypothalamus regulate sexual system.
behaviour, expression of emotional reactions (e.g.
excitement, pleasure, rage and fear) and motivation. 2. Tongue
Like nose, it can detect dissolved chemicals Gustatory
Midbrain receptors are found in taste buds which can detect
Å Midbrain is located between hypothalamus of forebrain and different taste.
pons of hindbrain. Cerebral aqueduct is a canal which passes
through it. Corpora quadrigemina are four round swelling 3. Eyes
(lobes) at the dorsal portion of midbrain. Å These are located in the sockets of the skull called
orbits.
Hindbrain Å The three layers of eyeball are
Å It comprises of the following parts n
Sclera external layer of dense connective tisssue.
n
Pons, consisting of fibrous tract which interconnect n
Cornea is the anterior portion of this layer.
different regions of brain.
n
Choroid middle layer, containing blood.
n
Cerebellum, possessing convoluted surface, so as to
accommodate maximum number of neurons. Å Ciliary body is the anterior thick portion of choroid and
it continues forward as pigmented opaque structure, iris
n
Medulla oblongata, which is connected to spinal cord,
(visible coloured portion of eye).
control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric
secretions. Å Lens is a transparent crystalline structure which is held
in place by ligaments attached to ciliary body.
Å Brain stem forms the connection between brain and spinal
cord. It is formed of midbrain, pons and medulla.
Å Pupil is an aperture surrounded by iris in front of lens.
Reflex Action and Reflex Arc Aqueous chamber Vitreous chamber

Å Reflex action is the involuntary functioning or movement of
any organ or part of the body in response to peripheral Fovea
nervous stimulation. The reflex pathway consists of at least Pupil Lens
one afferent neuron (receptor) and one efferent neuron Blind spot
Iris Optic nerve
(effector). Cornea
Å The nervous pathway taken by nerve impulses in a reflex Retina
Choroid
action is called reflex arc, e.g knee-jerk reflex given below
Ciliary body Sclera
Afferent pathway Dorsal root
Muscle spindle ganglion White matter
(receptor) Structure of mammalian eye
Grey matter Å Retina is the inner layer of eye. It contain three layers of
Stimulus Interneuron neural cell namely ganglion cells, bipolar cells and
Efferent pathway
Motor neuron photoreceptor cells. It consists photoreceptor cells, i.e.
Response Motor endplate
(effector) rods and cones.
n
Rods Contain rhodopsin or visual purple protein
containing a derivative of vitamin-A. It provide
Diagrammatic presentation of reflex action twilight (scotopic) vision.
(showing knee-jerk reflex)
NEET KEY NOTES

n
Cones Respond to red, green and blue light. It Å The space between the membranous and bony labyrinth is
provide daylight (photopic) and colour vision. filled by a watery fluid, perilymph and membranous
Sensation of white light is produced when all cones labyrinth is filled with endolymph.
are stimulated equally. Å The membranous labyrinth is divided into cochlea (main
Å Blind spot Optic nerves leave and retinal blood vessel hearing organ) and vestibular apparatus.
enter the eyeball through this region. It do not contain
photoreceptor cells. Semi-circular Membranous
Tympanic ducts labyrinth
Å Macula lutea Found at the posterior pole of eyes lateral cavity Vestibular nerve
to the blind spot. This yellowish pigmented spot contain Incus
Pinna
Tympanum
Malleus
a central pit, fovea. The latter contains densely packed
Au rve
ne
cones only and is the point of greatest visual acuity
dit
Temporal
or
(resolution).
y
bone
Å Aqueous chamber is the fluid-filled space between lens External auditory Cochlear
and cornea, while vitreous chamber is present between meatus nerve
lens and retina . Cochlea
Stapes
Mechanism of Vision
Light rays from Focus on Light induces dissociation Eustachian tube
outside retina of retinal pigment, opsin
External ear Middle ear Internal ear
Diagrammatic view of ear

Action potential is Potential difference Structure of
generated in is generated in opsin changes Å The membranes constitute cochlea, the Reissner’s and
ganglionic cells photoreceptor cells. basilar membrane. The organ of Corti is a sensory ridge
through bipolar
located on the basilar membrane, which contains hair cells,
neurons.
which act as auditory receptors. Above the rows of the hair
Neural impulses Image is cells is a thin elastic membrane called tectorial membrane.
Action potential is
are analysed recognised Å Vestibular apparatus, composed of three semicircular
transmitted to visual
cortex in occipital lobe canals and the otolith organ, consists of the saccule and
by optic nerve. utricle.
Å Vestibular apparatus has no role in hearing, but is
4. Ear influenced by gravity and movements.
It performs very important function of hearing and Å The base of canals is swollen and is called ampulla with a
maintenance of the body. Ear is divided into three major projecting ridge called crista ampularis.
sections, which are as follows Å The saccule and utricle contains a projecting ridge called
macula.
I. External Ear
Å The crista and macula are the specific receptors of the
It consists of the pinna and external auditory meatus
vestibular apparatus, which are responsible for the
(canal). The pinna collects the sound waves and channel
maintenance of balance of body and posture.
them inwards through the external auditory meatus
leading up to the tympanic membrane (the eardrum). Mechanism of Hearing
II. Middle Ear Sound External Ear Vibrations transmitted
waves ear drum to ear ossicles and then
Å It contains tympanic cavity, which communicates with vibrates to oval window
the pharynx by a passage called eustachian tube.
Sound is recognised
Å It contains three ossicles called malleus, incus and
stapes, which are attached like a chain and increase the The fluid of cochlea
Impulse transferred to
efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner auditory cortex of brain generate waves in the
ear. lymph.
III. Inner Ear Nerve impulse Bending of hair cells,

generated Basilar membrane
Å It also called labyrinth which consists of two parts the press against ripples
in afferent
bony and membranous labyrinths. tectorial membrane
neurons
NEET KEY NOTES

Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Human Neural System

1 The functions of the organs/organ systems in our 9 Which of the following is known as the site of
body must be coordinated to maintain information processing and control?
(a) muscular activity (b) homeostasis (a) Brain and spinal cord
(c) respiration (d) neural coordination (b) Somatic neural system and autonomic neural system
2 The process through which two or more organs (c) CNS and PNS
interact and complement the functions of one another, (d) Neurons
is called 10 The two types of nerve fibres of PNS found
(a) coordination (b) homeostasis associated with brain and spinal cord are
(c) chemical integration (d) transmission of impulse (a) efferent fibres; mixed fibres
3 Which pair of systems jointly coordinate and integrate (b) sensory fibres; mixed fibres
all the activities of organs, so that they function in a (c) afferent fibres; efferent fibres
synchronised fashion? (d) afferent fibres; mixed fibres
(a) Neural and respiratory 11 The afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses
(b) Neural and digestive system (a) from tissues/organs to the CNS
(c) Neural and endocrine system (b) from the CNS to the concerned peripheral tissues/organs
(d) Neural and circulatory system (c) from the CNS to skeletal muscles
4 The system, responsible for providing an organised (d) from one tissues to another
network of point to point connections for a quick 12 The efferent nerve fibres transmit impulses
coordination, is called (a) from tissues/organs to the CNS
(a) endocrine system (b) circulatory system (b) from the CNS to the smooth muscles
(c) digestive system (d) neural system (c) from the CNS to the concerned peripheral
tissues/organs
5 Identify the basic functions of neural system.
(d) from the CNS to the involuntary organs
(a) Receiving sensory input from internal and external
environment by nerves 13 The PNS includes
(b) Processing the input information (a) central neural system and sympathetic neural system
(c) Responding to stimuli (b) somatic neural system and autonomic neural system
(d) All of the above (c) sympathetic neural system
6 The neural system is composed of highly specialised (d) somatic neural system
cells called neurons that can 14 The system that transmits impulse from the CNS to
(a) detect stimuli (b) receive stimuli skeletal muscles is
(c) transmit stimuli (d) All of these (a) sympathetic neural system
7 In Hydra, neural organisation comprises (b) parasympathetic neural system
(a) network of neurons (c) somatic neural system
(b) CNS and PNS (d) autonomic neural system
(c) brain and neural tissue 15 The system that transmits impulse from the CNS to
(d) ganglia the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the
8 The humans, neural system comprises body
(a) Only PNS (a) sympathetic neural system
(b) Only CNS (b) parasympathetic neural system
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) somatic neural system
(d) None of the above (d) autonomic neural system
16 The diagram given below is the functional (c) A–CNS, B–PNS, C–ANS, D–Sympathetic nervous
organisation of the human nervous system. Identify A, system, E–Parasympathetic nervous system
B, C, D and E in the figure. (d) A–ANS, B–PNS, C–CNS, D–Sympathetic nervous
system, E–Parasympathetic nervous system
Human Neural System
17 How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the
working of the heart? CBSE-AIPMT 2014
A B (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac
Brain Spinal cord output
C Somatic Neural
System (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(d) Heart rate decreases, but cardiac output increases
D E
18 Visceral nervous system found in human body
(a) is a part of peripheral nervous system
(a) A–PNS, B–CNS, C–ANS, D–Sympathetic nervous
system, E–Parasympathetic nervous system (b) comprises the complex of nerves, ganglia and plexuses
(c) constitutes the connection between CNS and the viscera
(b) A–ANS, B–CNS, C–PNS, D–Sympathetic nervous
system, E–Parasympathetic nervous system (d) All of the above
TOPIC 2 ~ Neuron as Structural and Functional

Unit of Neural System
19 A typical neuron is composed of 22 Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of NEET 2018
(a) cell body and dendrite (a) nucleic acid and SER (b) DNA and RNA
(b) dendrites and axon (c) proteins and lipids (d) free ribosomes and RER
(c) axon and nucleus
23 Dendrites of neurons are
(d) cell, axon and dendrites
(a) highly branched, short fibres containing Nissl’s granules
20 Select the correct option to represent A-E in the given (b) unbranched, long process of cell body
structure of a neuron. (c) unbranched, short and do not contain cytoplasm
A (d) branched, long process without cytoplasm
24 Dendrites transmit impulses towards the
B (a) cell body (b) axon
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) body tissues
25 Synaptic knob is bulb-like structure which is present
(a) at the end of axon terminal
C
(b) at the node of Ranvier
D (c) in the cell body
(d) at the end of dendrites
E 26 Synaptic vesicles contains chemicals called
(a) synaptic fluid (b) neurotransmitters
(a) A–Dendrites, B–Cell body, C–Axon, D–Node of (c) vesicular fluid (d) All of these
Ranvier, E–Synaptic knob
(b) A–Axon, B–Myelin sheath, C–Schwann cell, D–Node 27 The axons transmits nerve impulse
of Ranvier, E–Axon terminal (a) away from a cell body to a synapse
(c) A–Dendrites, B–Cell body, C–Schwann cell, D–Node (b) towards the cell body from a neuro-muscular junction
of Ranvier, E–Synaptic knob (c) away from cell body to visceral organs
(d) A–Axon, B–Cell body, C–Dendrites, D–Node of (d) towards the cell body from a synapse
Ranvier, E–Axon terminal
28 Multipolar and bipolar neurons differ in
21 The cytoplasm contained within the cell body of (a) number of axons
neuron is characterised by the presence of (b) presence or absence of Nissl’s granules
(a) cell granules (b) neuro cells (c) number of dendrites
(c) Nissl’s granules (d) neurogranules (d) Both (a) and (c)
29 Multipolar neurons are found in the 41 Maintenance of the ionic gradients across the resting
(a) retina of eye (b) cerebral cortex membrane is done by
(c) embryonic stage (d) None of these (a) active transport of ions
30 Bipolar neurons are found in the (b) passive transport of ions
(c) active transport of neurotransmitters
(a) embryonic stage (b) cerebral cortex
(d) passive transport of neurotransmitters
(c) cerebellum (d) retina of eye
42 For the maintenance of ionic gradients across the
31 Unipolar neurons can be seen in the
resting membrane, the sodium-potassium pump
(a) embryonic stage (b) cerebellum
transports
(c) cerebral cortex (d) retina of eye
(a) 3Na + outwards for 2K + into the cell
32 Nerve fibres enveloped with Schwann cells are (b) 2Na + outwards for 2K + into the cell
(a) myelinated fibres (b) non-myelinated fibres (c) 3Na + inwards for 2K + out the cell
(c) afferent fibres (d) efferent fibres (d) 2Na + inwards for 2K + out the cell
33 Schwann cells, form a myelin sheath around the 43 The electrical potential difference across the polarised
(a) dendrite (b) cell body
plasma membrane when concentration of K + is high
(c) axon (d) Both (a) and (b)
inside the axon and low outside, it is known as
34 The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called (a) action potential (b) resting potential
(a) synapse (b) synaptic gap (c) refractory potential (d) All of these
(c) nodes of Ranvier (d) sheath gap
44 When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised
35 Myelin sheath is produced by NEET 2017 membrane, the membrane at that site becomes freely
(a) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes permeable to
(b) Astrocytes and Schwann cells (a) Na + (b) K +
(c) Oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts (c) K + and Cl − (d) Na + and K +
(d) Osteoclasts and astrocytes
45 During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action
36 Myelinated nerve fibres are found in the nerves of potential results from the movement of
(a) cranial region (b) spinal; cranial region (a) K + ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(c) spinal; muscular region (d) muscular region (b) Na + ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
37 Unmyelinated nerve fibres, are commonly found in (c) K + ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(a) central; peripheral region (d) Na + ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(b) autonomous; cranial region
46 During the transmission of nerve impulse through a
(c) somatic; peripheral region
nerve fibre the potential on the inner side of the
(d) autonomous; somatic region
plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
38 In resting stage, the axonal membrane is comparatively (a) First positive then negative and continue to be negative
more permeable and nearly impermeable to (b) First negative then positive and continue to be positive
(a) sodium; potassium, respectively (c) First positive then negative and again back to positive
(b) sodium; calcium, respectively (d) First negative then positive and again back to negative
(c) potassium; sodium, respectively
47 A wave of action potential is termed as
(d) potassium; calcium, respectively
(a) sensory impulse (b) nerve impulse
39 In resting stage, the axonal membrane for negatively (c) activation impulse (d) motor impulse
charged proteins found in axoplasm is
48 Saltatory conduction of impulse occurs in
(a) permeable (b) partially permeable
(a) liver cells
(c) impermeable (d) selectively permeable
(b) non-myelinated nerve fibres
40 In the resting stage of a neuron, concentration (c) myelinated nerve fibres
gradient generates due to the (d) None of the above
(a) high concentration of K + and low concentration of Na +
inside the axon
49 A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to
another through the junctions called
(b) high concentration of Na + and low concentration of
(a) neuromuscular junction
K + inside the axon
(b) neuroreceptor junction
(c) low concentration of Na + outside the axon
(c) synapse
(d) high concentration of K + outside the axon
(d) neuroglandular junction
50 The synaptic cleft is found between the membrane of 55 A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is
(a) pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.
(b) pre-synaptic dendrite and post-synaptic axon NEET 2013
(c) pre-synaptic dendrite and post-synaptic dendrite B
(d) None of the above C
51 The two types of synapses are

(a) neuron-neuron, chemical
(b) electrical, chemical A
(c) neuron-neuron, electrical
(d) electrochemical, neuron D
52 Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is (a) A–Receptor, C–Synaptic vesicles

(a) always equal to that across a chemical synapse (b) B–Synaptic connection, D–K +
(c) A–Neurotransmitter, B–Synaptic cleft
(b) always slower than that across a chemical synapse
(d) C–Neurotransmitter, D–Ca 2+
(c) always faster than that across a chemical synapse
(d) either faster or slower than that across a chemical 56 When an impulse arrives at axon terminal, it
synapse stimulates synaptic vesicle to move towards the
53 The fluid-filled space, synaptic cleft contain membrane, where they fuse with plasma membrane
neurotransmitters and release neurotransmitter in
(a) released from vesicles (a) receptor (b) pre-synaptic membrane
(b) found at chemical synapse (c) synaptic cleft (d) post-synaptic membrane
(c) found at chemical and electrical synapse 57 Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) membranes of synaptic vesicles NEET 2017
54 Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse (b) pre-synaptic membrane
through nerve fibre is due to the fact that (c) tips of axons
(a) nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath (d) post-synaptic membrane
(b) sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and 58 On post-synaptic membrane, the new potential
then continues into the nerve fibre developed is
(c) neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by (a) always inhibitory
axon endings (b) always excitatory
(d) neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and (c) may be excitatory or inhibitory
not by dendrites (d) neither excitatory nor inhibitory
TOPIC 3 ~ Central Nervous System and Reflex Arc

59 Brain controls the 63 Which part constitutes the major part of the brain?
(a) voluntary movements (a) Cerebrum (b) Hypothalamus
(b) balance of the body (c) Thalamus (d) Cerebellum
(c) functioning of vital involuntary organs
(d) All of the above 64 Corpus callosum connects two
(a) cerebral hemispheres
60 Inside the bony structure skull, the brain is covered by
(b) ventricles of brain
(a) arachnoid (b) cranial meninges
(c) piamater (d) duramater (c) cerebellar hemispheres
(d) optic thalamus
61 Cranial meninges from outer layer to inner layer are
called 65 The folded layer of cells that covers the cerebral
(a) piamater, arachnoid, duramater hemisphere is called as
(b) duramater, arachnoid, piamater (a) association area (b) cerebral cortex
(c) arachnoid, duramater, piamater (c) amygdala (d) cerebral medulla
(d) arachnoid, piamater, duramater
66 Cerebral cortex consists of
62 The forebrain consists of
(a) motor areas (b) sensory areas
(a) cerebrum (b) thalamus
(c) hypothalamus (d) All of these (c) association areas (d) All of these
67 Association areas of the brain are 76 Four rounded lobes in midbrain are
(a) always sensory areas (a) occipital condyles (b) corpora quadrigemina
(b) always motor areas (c) corpora allata (d) cerebral aqueduct
(c) neither sensory nor motor areas 77 Hindbrain includes
(d) None of the above (a) pons (b) cerebellum
68 Functions of association areas in cerebral cortex (c) medulla oblongata (d) All of these
includes 78 Which of the following regions of the brain is
(a) intersensory associations (b) memory incorrectly paired with its function? CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(c) communication (d) All of these
(a) Medulla oblongata–Homeostatic control
69 The cerebral cortex is referred to as (b) Cerebellum–Language comprehension
(a) grey matter (c) Corpus callosum–Communication between the left and
(b) white matter right cerebral cortices
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cerebrum–Calculation and contemplation
(d) non-myelinated nerve fibres 79 Cerebellum is concerned with the
70 Thalamus in human brain is (a) contraction of voluntary muscles
(a) a major centre for motor and sensory signaling (b) coordinating and regulation muscles tone
(b) surrounded by cerebrum (c) maintaining posture, orientation and equilibrium of body
(c) found above the hypothalamus (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 80 The medulla contains centres which control
71 Which part of the brain is responsible for (a) respiration
thermoregulation ? NEET 2019, JIPMER 2019 (b) cardiovascular reflexes
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Corpus callosum (c) gastric secretions
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Cerebrum (d) All of the above
72 Injury localised to the hypothalamus would most 81 Brain stem is formed by
likely to disrupt CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (a) cerebellum medulla and thalamus
(a) short term memory (b) cerebrum and cerebellum
(b) coordination during locomotion (c) midbrain, pons and medulla
(c) executive function, such as decision making (d) medulla and spinal cord
(d) regulation of body temperature 82 View the diagram of the lateral view of the human
73 The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group brain and choose the correct option in which A-D has
of associated deep structures like amygdala, been indicated.
hippocampus, etc., form a complex structure called A
(a) arbor vitae (b) limbic lobe/limbic system B
(c) corpora quadrigemina (d) reticular system
74 Which of the following structure or region is
incorrectly paired with its function? NEET 2018
C
(a) Hypothalamus Production of releasing hormones and
regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst
D
(b) Limbic system Consists of fibre tracts that interconnect
different regions of brain; controls A B C D
movement (a) Cerebral Spinal cord Corpus Cerebellum
(c) Medulla Controls respiration and cardiovascular hemisphere callosum
oblongata reflexes
(b) Corpus Cerebral Cerebellum Spinal cord
(d) Corpus Band of fibres connecting left and right callosum hemisphere
callosum cerebral hemispheres
(c) Cerebral Corpus Pons Spinal cord
75 Which part of the human brain controls the urge for hemisphere callosum
eating and drinking? (d) Spinal cord Pons Corpus Cerebral
(a) Forebrain (b) Midbrain callosum hemisphere
(c) Hindbrain (d) Spinal cord
83 Identify the part of brain which is 87 The reflex arc is shown in the diagram below. Choose
represented by A in the given the correct label for the pathway of this reflex arc.
diagram. A B
(a) Medulla oblongata C
(b) Cerebellum
A
(c) Pons
(d) Midbrain D
F E
84 The process of response to a peripheral nervous
stimulation that occurs involuntarily is called A B C D E F
(a) reflactory potential (b) action potential (a) Stimulus Effector Sensory Motor Receptor Response
(c) reflex action (d) activation potential nerve nerve
85 The reflex pathway comprises (b) Stimulus Receptor Sensory Motor Effector Response
(a) one afferent neuron nerve nerve
(b) one efferent neuron (c) Stimulus Effector Motor Sensory Receptor Response
(c) one afferent and one efferent neuron nerve nerve
(d) motor neurons (d) Stimulus Receptor Motor Sensory Effector Response
nerve nerve
86 Identify the parts labelled as A to E and choose the
correct option for the given diagrammatic 88 Reflex action is controlled by
representation of reflex action showing knee-jerk (a) ANS
reflex. (b) CNS
E A B (c) Both (a) and (b)
C
89 Which of the following is not a reflex action?
(a) Salivation
D
(b) Sweating
(c) Withdrawal of hand when pinched by needle
90 Given below are different components of reflex arc.
(a) A–Dorsal root ganglion, B–White matter, C–Grey I. Effector neuron II. Dorsal nerve root
matter, D–Afferent pathway, E–Efferent pathway III. CNS IV. Afferent neuron
(b) A–Dorsal root ganglion, B–White matter, C–Grey V. Sensory receptor VI. Effector organ
matter, D–Efferent pathway, E–Afferent pathway
Arrange these in correct order of action potential that
(c) A–Dorsal root ganglion, B–Grey matter, C–White
matter, D–Efferent pathway, E–Afferent pathway follows a sensory receptor stimulation.
(d) A–Ventral root ganglion, B–White matter, C–Grey (a) V, IV, III, II, I, VI (b) V, IV, II, III, I, VI
matter, D–Efferent pathway E–Afferent pathway (c) V, III, IV, I, II, VI (d) V, II, IV, III, I, VI
TOPIC 4~ Sensory Reception and Processing

91 The signals detected by sensory organs are processed 93 The gustatory and olfactory receptors
and analysed in (a) detect dissolved chemicals
(a) sensory organs (b) CNS (b) are functionally similar and inter-related
(c) PNS (d) ANS (c) Both (a) and (b)
92 The mucus coated olfactory receptors in nose (d) are highly evolved and controlled by ANS
(a) are madeup of olfactory epithelium comprising three 94 The wall of the human eyeball is composed of
kinds of cells
(a) sclera, choroid and retina
(b) posses neurons that extend from outside environment
(b) sclera, cornea and choroid
(c) contain olfactory bulb which is an extension of limbic
system (c) sclera, cornea and ciliary body
(d) All of the above (d) sclera, choroid and iris
95 Sclera of human eye is composed of 107 When different cones of human eye are stimulated
(a) blood vessels (b) ganglion cells equally, a sensation of …… light is produced.
(c) photoreceptor cells (d) dense connective tissue (a) red (b) white
96 Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. (c) green (d) blue
This is beause 108 Blind spot is called so because of
(a) it is composed of enucleated cells (a) the presence of photoreceptor cells
(b) it is a non-living layer (b) the presence of optic nerves
(c) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria (c) the absence of photoreceptor cells
(d) it has no blood supply (d) None of the above
97 The part of human eye which contain blood vessels 109 At blind spot
and appear bluish in colour is (a) optic nerves leave the eye and retinal blood vessels
(a) sclera (b) choroid enter it
(c) ciliary body (d) cornea (b) retinal blood vessels leave the eye and optic nerves
enter it
98 The choroid layer of human eye is (c) there is no involvement of optic nerves at all
(a) thin over the posterior 2/3 of eyeball (d) there is no involvement of retinal blood vessels at all
(b) thick over the posterior 4/3 of eyeball
110 At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the blind
(c) coloured over the anterior 2/3 of eyeball
spot, there is a yellowish pigmented spot called
(d) opaque structure over the anterior 4/3 of eyeball
(a) corpus luteum
99 The thick anterior part of choroid in human eye form (b) fovea
(a) iris (b) ciliary body (c) macula quadrigemina
(c) pupil (d) lens (d) macula lutea
100 Which is the visible coloured portion of the eye? 111 Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Pupil (b) Lens (c) Iris (d) Ciliary body (a) Sclera – Dense connective tissue
101 The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its (b) Choroid – Bluish in colour
place by NEET 2018 (c) Iris – Opaque structure
(a) smooth muscles attached to the iris (d) Fovea – Point where resolution is low
(b) ligaments attached to the iris 112 Aqueous chamber which is filled by aqueous humour
(c) ligaments attached to the ciliary body is the space
(d) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body (a) behind the lens (b) between sclera and retina
102 Pupil is the aperture surrounded by the (c) between cornea and lens (d) between choroid and sclera
(a) ciliary body (b) connective tissue 113 Vitreous chamber containing vitreous humor is found
(c) iris (d) choroid (a) behind the blind spot (b) between lens and retina
103 Arrange the layers of neural cells in retina of human (c) between lens and cornea (d) within retina and cornea
eye from inside to outside. 114 Parts A, B, C and D of the human eyes are shown in
(a) Photoreceptor cells → Ganglion cells → Bipolar cells the diagram. Select the option, which gives correct
(b) Ganglion cells → Photoreceptor cells → Bipolar cells identification along with its functions/characteristics.
(c) Ganglion cells → Bipolar cells → Photoreceptor cells NEET 2013
(d) Bipolar cells → Photoreceptor cells → Ganglion cells
104 Why is it difficult to differentiate between red and C
green colour objects in dark or in night?
(a) Rods work well only during daytime Lens B
(b) Cones work well only during daytime Iris
(c) Rods work well only during night time
(d) Cones work well only during night time D
A
105 Rhodopsin is also known as visual
(a) red (b) yellow (c) brown (d) purple (a) A–Retina–contains photoreceptors–rods and cones
106 There are different types of cones in human eye that (b) B–Blind spot–has only a few rods and cones
responds to (c) C–Aqueous chamber–reflects the light, which does not
(a) red and green lights (b) green and blue lights pass through the lens
(c) red and blue lights (d) red, green and blue lights (d) D–Choroid–its anterior part forms ciliary body
115 Arrange the given structures in the correct sequence 125 Given is the diagram of ear. Identify A to H.
of pathway of light from outside to inside the eyeball A
B
of human eye.
I. Pupil (through lens) II. Aqueous humour C
III. Vitreous humour IV. Cornea D
V. Retina
Choose the correct sequence.
(a) IV, II, I, III and V (b) I, II, III, IV and V E
(c) IV, III, II, I and V (d) I, IV, II, III and V G F
H
116 Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of Choose the correct option.
NEET 2016
(a) A–Temporal bone, B–Malleus, C–Incus, D–Stapes,
(a) opsin and retinal (b) opsin and retinol E–Cochlea, F–Eustachian tube, G–Tympanic
(c) transducin and retinene (d) guanosine and retinol membrane, H–External auditory canal
117 A potential difference is generated in the (b) A–Tympanic membrane, B–Malleus, C–Incus,
D–Stapes, E–Cochlea, F–Eustachian tube, G–Temporal
photoreceptor cells due to bone, H–External auditory canal
(a) light rays of visible wavelength (c) A–Tympanic membrane, B–Incus, C–Malleus,
(b) dissociation of retinal from opsin D–Stapes, E–Cochlea, F–Eustachian tube, G–Temporal
(c) change in membrane permeability bone, H–External auditory canal
(d) All of the above (d) A–Temporal bone, B–Malleus, C –Incus, D–Cochlea,
118 Outer ear of humans consists of E–Stapes, F–Eustachian tube, G–Tympanic membrane,
H–External auditory canal
(a) pinna (b) external auditory meatus
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) labyrinth 126 Coiled portion of the labyrinth is called
(a) cochlea (b) eardrum
119 The function of pinna is to
(c) pinna (d) ear canal
(a) collects the vibrations in the air which produce sound
(b) secrete wax 127 Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(c) increase the frequency of transmission of sound waves (a) Bony labyrinth – surrounded by perilymph, filled with
to the inner ear endolymph
(d) All of the above (b) Scala media – space within cochlea, filled with
endolymph
120 In humans, tympanic membrane (eardrum) separates (c) Scala vestibuli – Found at the pase of cochlea, ends at
tympanic cavity from oval window
(a) pinna (b) auditory meatus (d) Scala tympani – Terminate at round window which
(c) Eustachian tube (d) cochlea open to middle ear
121 Middle ear of humans contains ossicles, i.e. 128 The structure located on the basilar membrane which
(a) malleus (b) incus contains hair cells act as auditory receptors is
(c) stapes (d) All of these (a) Eustachian tube (b) organ of Corti
122 The ear ossicles found attached to the tympanic (c) semi-circular canal (d) otolith
membrane and to the oval window of the cochlea are 129 The gelatinous, elastic membrane covering the
…… and ……, respectively. sensory hair cells of the human ear is known as
(a) malleus, stapes (b) malleus, incus (a) basilar membrane (b) tectorial membrane
(c) stapes, malleus (d) incus, stapes (c) Reissners’s membrane (d) neuro-sensory membrane
123 Function of ear ossicles in humans is 130 Below is the diagram of the sectional view of cochlea
(a) to equalise the pressure on either sides of eardrum of human ear. Identify A to E.
(b) collects the vibrations in the air which produce sound
(c) to increase the efficiency of transmission of sound
waves to the inner ear A E
B
124 Eustachian tube connects
(a) outer ear and pharynx (b) inner ear and pharynx
(c) pinna and pharynx (d) middle ear and pharynx
C D
Choose the correct option. 133 Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing
(a) A–Scala media, B–Organ of Corti, C–Basilar as such but is otherwise very much required?
membrane, D–Scala tympani, E–Scala vestibuli CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(b) A–Scala vestibuli, B–Organ of Corti, C–Basilar (a) Eustachian tube (b) Organ of Corti
membrane, D–Scala tympani, E–Scala media
(c) Vestibular apparatus (d) Ear ossicles
(c) A–Scala vestibuli, B–Basilar membrane, C–Organ of
Corti, D–Scala tympani, E–Scala media 134 A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down
(d) A–Scala vestibuli, B–Basilar membrane, C–Scala even in the total darkness because of
tympani, D–Organ of Corti, E–Scala media CBSE-AIPMT 2015
131 In the internal ear of humans (a) cochlea
(a) three semi-circular canals lies in different plane at right (b) vestibular apparatus
angle to each other and suspended in perilymph (c) tectorial membrane
(b) crista ampullaries is formed at the base of semi-circular (d) organ of Corti
canals as a projecting swollen ridge
135 Identify the correct sequence of organs/regions in the
(c) saccule and utricle contain projecting ridge, macula
which helps in the maintenance of body balance
organisation of human ear as an auditory
mechanoreceptor organ.
(a) Pinna–Cochlea–Tympanic membrane canal–Malleus–
132 Which of the following receptors are specifically Stapes–Incus–Auditory nerve
responsible for maintenance of the balance of body (b) Pinna–Tympanic membrane–Auditory canal–Incus–
and posture ? NEET (Odisha) 2019 Malleus– Stapes–Cochlea–Auditory nerve
(a) Basilar membrane and otoliths (c) Pinna–Malleus–Incus–Stapes–Auditory
(b) Hair cells and organ of Corti canal–Tympanic membrane–Cochlea–Auditory nerve
(c) Tectorial membrane and macula (d) Pinna–Auditory canal–Tympanic membrane–Malleus–
(d) Crista ampullaris and macula Incus–Stapes–Cochlea–Auditory nerve
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 138 Assertion (A) Neuroglial cells are known as the
packing cells of brain.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by Reason (R) A type of neuroglial cells forms the
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the statements, myelin sheath around axon.
mark the correct answer as 139 Assertion (A) Arrival of an impulse at the axon
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of terminal, stimulates the release of
A neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft.
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation Reason (R) These neurotransmitters are
of A
responsible for the opening of ion channels.
(d) If A is false, but R is true 140 Assertion (A) The membrane of a neuron remains
in polarised state.
136 Assertion (A) The pre-synaptic neuron transmits an
impulse (action potential) across the synaptic cleft to the Reason (R) Ion channels on the neural membrane
post-synaptic neuron. are selectively permeable to different ions.
Reason (R) For the transmission of impulses at synapses, 141 Assertion (A) The axoplasm inside the axon
chemicals called neurotransmitters are responsible. contains high concentration of K + and negatively
charged proteins.
137 Assertion (A) Neurons are excitable cells.
Reason (R) The axonal membrane is impermeable
Reason (R) Membranes of the neurons are in a polarised
state which is responsible for the excitability. to Na + and negatively charged proteins.
142 Assertion (A) The cerebral cortex is referred to as the 148 Consider the statements as True/False regarding when
white matter of the brain. a neuron is at rest and no impulse is conducting.
Reason (R) It is due to the high concentration of I. The axoplasm inside the axon contains high
neuron cell bodies in it. concentration of K + and negatively charged proteins.
143 Assertion (A) Iris muscles show both dilation as well II. The axoplasm inside the axon contains low
as constriction of pupil. concentration of Na + .
III. The fluid outside the axon contains a low
Reason (R) It is due to sympathetic and concentration of K + .
parasympathetic nervous system which have
IV. The fluid outside the axon contains a low
antagonistic functions.
concentration of Na + and negatively charged
144 Assertion (A) Muscles of iris regulate the diameter of proteins.
pupil.
The correct option is
Reason (R) Iris surround the pupil in the front side I II III IV
lens. (a) True False False True
(b) True True False False
II. Statement Based Questions (c) True True True False
145 Select the correct statement. (d) False True False False
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity but not vice-versa 149 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity but not regarding synapse?
vice-versa I. Synapse is a junction between axon endings of one
(c) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous nerve fibre and dendrite of the other.
system regulates endocrine glands
II. At a synapse, the membrane of axon and dendrite are
(d) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the
not in physical contact with each other.
neurons control the endocrine activity
III. Transmission of nerve impulse through synapse is only
146 Consider the following statements. one way.
I. Neural system is better organised in insects due to the IV. Neurotransmitter is always released from axon
presence of brain, ganglia and neural tissues. endings and not by dendrites.
II. Nerual organisation is very simple in lower
invertebrates.
(a) Only IV (b) Only I
Select the correct option (c) I, II and III (d) None of these
(b) Both I and II are true 150 Which of the following statements is/are correct about
(c) I is false, II is true resting state?
(d) Both I and II are false I. Neuron is not conducting any impulse.
II. Plasma membrane is electrically positive outside and
147 Which of the following statements are correct
negative inside.
regarding electrical synapses?
III. The nerve fibre is stimulated and conduct mechanical or
I. Pre and post-synaptic membrane neurons are in very electrical impulse.
close proximity at electric synapse.
IV. Plasma membrane is negative outside and positive
II. Electric current are involved in the transmission of inside.
impulses.
The correct option is
III. Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses
(a) III and IV (b) I and IV
is very similar to impulse conduction along a single
(c) II and III (d) I and II
axon.
IV. Impulse transmission is always faster in electric 151 Conider the following statements.
synapse than that across a chemical synapse. I. Increased permeability of Na + ions due to the rise in
V. Electrical synapses are rare in our system. stimulus is short lived.
The correct option is II. The resting membrane potential of membrane at the
(a) I, II, III and IV site of excitation is restored by Na + and Cl − ions.
(b) I, III, IV and V Select the correct option.
(c) I, II and IV (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true
(d) I, II, III, IV and V (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
152 Grey matter of the brain is 156 Consider the following statements and choose the
I. present outside the white matter. correct option from the codes given below.
II. contain medullated nerve fibres. I. Nearly 50% of all brain cells are neuroglia.
III. grey in colour. II. Oligodendrocytes plays a role in the maintenance of
IV. contains cell bodies of nerve fibres. blood brain barrier.
Which of the statement(s) mentioned above is/are III. Microglia engulf microbes and cellular debris.
correct? IV. Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and microglia, are three
(a) Only I different types of neuroglial cells.
(b) Only II (a) I and IV are correct
(c) I, III and IV (b) II and IV are correct
(d) II, III and IV (c) All are correct
(d) All are incorrect
153 Consider the following statements regarding white
matter of the brain. 157 Which of the following statements are correct about
functions of hypothalamus?
I. White matter of the brain is usually opaque in
appearance. I. Urge for eating and drinking.
II. Thermoregulation.
II. White matter of the brain is white in colour but
sometimes it is found to be grey. III. Hormones production that regulates the secretion of
pituitary gland.
III. White matter of the brain is mostly formed of
medullated nerve fibres. IV. Creative thinking and consciousness.
(a) I and III (b) II and III
IV. White matter of the brain is formed of cell bodies of
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
nerve fibres.
Which of the statement (s) above is/are correct? 158 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) I and IV (d) II and III (a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual
photopigments
154 Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct (b) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin,
about the cortex of cerebrum? Choose the correct while cones have three different photopigments
option from the codes given below. (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin-C
I. It consists of grey matter. (d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods
II. It shows prominent folds. only
III. It consists of white matter. 159 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
IV. It contains motor areas, sensory areas and association rods?
areas. I. Twilight vision is the function of the rods.
(a) Only I II. The rods contain a protein called rhodopsin.
(b) I and II III. Rods are photoreceptor cells.
(c) I, II and IV (a) Only I (b) Only II
(d) I, III and IV (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
155 Which of the following statements are correct about 160 Which of the following statements is not correct?
the midbrain? NEET (Odisha) 2019
I. Located between the thalamus/hypothalamus. (a) An action potential in an axon does not move backward
II. Possesses a canal named cerebral aqueduct which because the segment behind is in a refractory phase
passes through it. (b) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea results in the
III. Dorsal part consists of 4 lobes. opening of the mechanically gated potassium-ion
channels
(c) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight
(a) I and II vision
(b) II and III
(d) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of
(c) I and III muscle and response is its contraction
161 Which of the following statement is correct? 165 Arrange the following events in a correct order that
NEET 2019 lead to the formation of an auditory impulse in human
(a) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin ears from the steps given below.
and can repair itself I. Vibration is transferred from the malleus to the incus
(b) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly and then to stapes.
vascularised II. Basilar membrane moves up and down.
(c) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the III. Nerve impulse is transmitted by cochlear nerve to
most sensitive portion of the eye auditory cortex of brain for impulse analysis and
(d) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective recognition.
proteinaceous covering of the eyeball
IV. Sound waves pass through ear canal.
162 Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene V. Stereocilia of hair cells of organ of Corti rub against
rich food. NEET 2017 tectorial membrane.
Select the best option from the following statements. VI. Sound waves causes eardrum to vibrate.
I. Vitamin-A derivatives are formed from carotene. VII. Nerve impulse is generated.
II. The photopigments are embedded in the membrane VIII. Vibrations move from fluid of vestibular canal to the
discs of the inner segment. fluid of tymapanic canal.
III. Retinal is a derivative of vitamin-A. IX. Membrane at oval window vibrates.
IV. Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual Codes
photopigments. (a) IV, VI, I, IX, VIII, II, V, VII, III
(a) I and II (b) I, III and IV (b) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX
(c) I and III (d) II, III and IV (c) IX, VIII, VII, VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(d) IV, VI, I, VIII, IX, II, V, VII, III
163 Following are the steps of mechanism of vision in
random order. 166 Choose the correct statement. NEET 2016
I. Neural impulses are analysed and image formed on (a) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure
retina is recognised by visual cortex. (b) Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors
(c) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during
II. Membrane permeability changes. darkness and become hyperpolarised in response to the
III. Ganglion cells are excited. light stimulus
IV. Bipolar cells are depolarised. (d) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
V. Action potential (impulse) is transmitted by optic
nerves to visual cortex. III. Matching Type Questions
VI. Potential differences are generated in the
photoreceptor cells. 167 Match the following columns.
VII. Light energy causes a change in shape of rhodopsin, Column I Column II
leading to the dissociation of retinal (an aldehyde of (Neuron type) (Feature)
vitamin-A) from opsin (a protein). A. Multipolar neuron 1. One axon, one dendrite
VIII. Structure of opsin is changed. B. Bipolar neuron 2. One axon, multiple dendrites
Choose the correct sequence. C. Unipolar neuron 3. One axon and cell body
(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII
(b) VIII, VII, VI, V, IV, III, II, I Codes
(c) I, IV, III, II, VII, VIII, VI, V A B C A B C
(d) VII, VIII, II, VI, IV, III, V, I (a) 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2
164 Consider the following statements. (c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1
I. The hair cells on internal side of organ of Corti are in 168 Match the following columns.
close contact with afferent nerve fibres and possess Column I Column II
stereocilia.
II. Saccule and utricle are the otoliths which possess A. Synaptic vesicles 1. Resting potential
macula. B. Electrical potential difference across 2. Action potential
Select the correct option. the resting plasma membrane
(a) Both I and II are true C. Generation of a nerve impulse 3. Neurotransmitter
(b) I is true, II is false D. Granular bodies found in the cell 4. Nissl’s granules
(c) Both I and II are false body of a neuron
(d) I is false, II is true
Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (a) 4 2 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 4 2 3
169 Match the following columns. (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
Column I Column II
A. CNS 1. From tissue/organ to CNS
Column I Column II
B. PNS 2. From CNS to tissue/organ (Features) (Parts of eye)
C. Afferent fibres 3. Comprises of brain and spinal cord A. External layer of eyeball 1. Choroid
D. Efferent fibres 4. Comprises of nerves of body B. Inner layer of eyeball 2. Orbits
Codes C. Middle layer of eyeball 3. Sclera

A B C D A B C D D. Socket of the skull 4. Retina
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3 Codes
170 Match the Column I (the parts of the human brain) A B C D
with Column II (the functions) and identify the (a) 1 2 4 3
correct choice from the given option. (b) 2 1 3 4
Column I Column II (c) 3 4 1 2
(Parts of brain) (Functions) (d) 4 3 2 1
A. Cerebrum 1. Controls the pituitary 173 Match the following columns.
B. Cerebellum 2. Controls vision and hearing
Column I Column II
C. Hypothalamus 3. Maintains body posture (Parts of ear) (Features)
D. Midbrain 4. Site of intelligence A. Labyrinth 1. Coiled part, possess reissner and
basilar membranes
Codes
A B C D A B C D B. Cochlea 2. Hair cell containing structure on
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 basilar membrane
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 C. Organ of Corti 3. Contain semicircular canals and
otolith
D. Vestibular 4. Fluid filled, consist of bony and
Column I Column II apparatus membranous parts
(Parts of brain) (Features)
A. Pons 1. Neurosecretory cells Codes
B. Cerebellum 2. Interconnect brain regions through A B C D
fibre tracts
(a) 2 3 4 1
C. Hypothalamus 3. Convoluted surface to accomodate (b) 1 4 3 2
neurons
(c) 4 1 2 3
D. Medulla 4. Connected to spinal cord
(d) 3 2 1 4
NCERT Exemplar
174 Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction 179 An area in the brain which is associated with strong
are called emotions is
(a) hormones (a) cerebral cortex
(b) neurotransmitters (b) cerebellum
(c) cerebrospinal fluid (c) limbic system
(d) lymph (d) medulla
175 Potential difference across resting membrane is 180 Mark the vitamin present in rhodopsin.
negatively charged. This is due to differential (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B
distribution of the following ions. (c) Vitamin-C (d) Vitamin-D
(a) Na + and K + ions 181 Human eyeball consists of three layers and it encloses
−
(b) CO2+
3 and Cl ions (a) lens, iris, optic nerve
(c) Ca 2 + and Mg 2 + ions (b) lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor
(d) Ca 2+ and CI− ions (c) cornea, lens, iris
(d) cornea, lens, optic nerve
176 Resting membrane potential is maintained by
(a) hormones 182 Wax gland present in the ear canal is called
(b) neurotransmitters (a) sweat gland
(c) ion pumps (b) prostate gland
(d) None of the above (c) Cowper’s gland
177 The function of our visceral organs is controlled by (d) ceruminous gland
(a) sympathetic and somatic neural system 183 The part of internal ear responsible for hearing is
(b) sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system (a) cochlea
(c) central and somatic nervous system (b) semicircular canal
(d) None of the above (c) utriculus
178 Which of the following is not involved in knee-jerk (d) sacculus
reflex? 184 The organ of Corti is a structure present in
(a) Muscle spindle
(a) external ear
(b) Motor neuron
(b) middle ear
(c) Brain
(c) semicircular canal
(d) Interneurons
(d) cochlea
Answers
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (a) 42 (a) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (b) 46 (d) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (c) 50 (a)
51 (b) 52 (c) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (c) 59 (d) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (a) 64 (a) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (d) 73 (b) 74 (b) 75 (a) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (b) 79 (d) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (c) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (c) 86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (c) 89 (b) 90 (b)
91 (b) 92 (d) 93 (c) 94 (a) 95 (d) 96 (d) 97 (b) 98 (a) 99 (b) 100 (c)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (c) 104 (b) 105 (d) 106 (d) 107 (b) 108 (c) 109 (a) 110 (d)
111 (d) 112 (c) 113 (b) 114 (a) 115 (a) 116 (a) 117 (d) 118 (c) 119 (a) 120 (b)
121 (d) 122 (a) 123 (c) 124 (d) 125 (a) 126 (a) 127 (a) 128 (b) 129 (b) 130 (a)
131 (d) 132 (d) 133 (c) 134 (b) 135 (d)
136 (a) 137 (a) 138 (a) 139 (a) 140 (a) 141 (b) 142 (d) 143 (a) 144 (a) 145 (a)
146 (b) 147 (d) 148 (c) 149 (d) 150 (d) 151 (a) 152 (c) 153 (a) 154 (c) 155 (d)
156 (c) 157 (d) 158 (c) 159 (d) 160 (c) 161 (c) 162 (b) 163 (d) 164 (a) 165 (a)
166 (c) 167 (c) 168 (a) 169 (c) 170 (d) 171 (d) 172 (c) 173 (c)
174 (b) 175 (a) 176 (c) 177 (b) 178 (c) 179 (c) 180 (a) 181 (b) 182 (d) 183 (a)
184 (d)

1 (b) Homeostasis is the ability of our body to maintain 22 (d) Nissl’s granules are found in the cell body of
its internal environment at equilibrium. It is achieved by neurons. These granules are composed of Rough
coordinated functions of different organs and organ Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) that bears free
systems. ribosomes. The latter acts as the site of protein
3 (c) The neural and endocrine system together coordinate synthesis. These granules were named after its
and work in synchronised fashion. The neural system discoverer Franz Nissl.
sense stimulus through neurons and endocrine system 23 (a) Dendrites of neurons are highly branched, short
provides chemical integration through hormones. fibres containing Nissl’s granules. Short fibres which
7 (a) In Hydra, neural organisation comprises of network branch repeatedly and project out of the cell body also
of neurons called nerve net. Nerve nets connect sensory contain Nissl’s granules and are called dendrites.
photoreceptors and touch sensitive nerve cells located in 25 (a) The axon is a long fibre, the distal end of which is
the body wall and tentacles. branched. Each branch terminates as a bulb-like structure
8 (c) The human neural/nervous system comprises of called synaptic knob which possesses synaptic vesicles.
both Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) and Central 28 (d) Both options (a) and (c) are correct.
Nervous system (CNS). PNS consists of all the nerves Neurons are divided on the basis of the number of axon
(cranial nerves and spinal nerves) associated with CNS. and the number of dendrites. The neurons are multipolar
9 (a) Central nervous system is the main site of (with one axon and two or more dendrites, bipolar (with
information processing and control. It includes brain one axon and one dendrite) and unipolar (cell body with
and spinal cord. one axon).
17 (a) Parasympathetic neural signal reduces both heart 35 (a) Myelin sheath originated from Schwann cells in the
rate and cardiac output, through the post-ganglionic peripheral nervous system and oligodendrocytes in the
fibres. Autonomic nervous system consists of central nervous system. The myelin sheath is a greatly
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. extended and modified plasma membrane wrapped
These are antagonistic to each other. around the nerve axon in a spiral fashion.
36 (b) Myelinated, nerve fibres are covered by myelin Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is
sheath and these fibres are found in cranial and spinal very similar to impulse conduction along a single axon.
region. Due to the presence of myelin sheath, the Electrical synapses are rare in our system.
transmission of nerve impulse occur faster as compared 53 (d) The fluid-filled space, i.e. synaptic cleft has
to non-myelinated fibres. neurotransmitters (chemicals) released from vesicles
37 (d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre, that do not possess a and is found in chemical synapse. Electrical synapses
myelin sheath around the axon, is commonly found in do not have neurotransmitters.
autonomous and the somatic neural systems. 55 (a) Option (a) is correct. The labels in the figure are
38 (c) In resting stage, the axonal membrane is A–Post-synaptic receptor
comparatively more permeable to potassium ions and B–Synaptic cleft
nearly impermeable to sodium ions. Due to this, the C–Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters
inside of neuron remain negatively charged, while the
other side remain positively charged. D–Synaptic knob
45 (b) During the propagation of nerve impulse, when the 57 (d) The post-synaptic membrane of the synapse of a
stimulus of adequate strength is applied to a polarised neuron contains the receptors for neurotransmitters.
membrane, the action potential results from the 58 (c) On post-synaptic membrane, the new action
movement of Na + ions from extracellular fluid to potential developed can be excitatory or inhibitory,
intracellular fluid. depending upon the action of neurotransmitter.
This is because the permeability of the membrane to 59 (d) Brain controls the voluntary movements, balance of
Na + ions is greatly increased at the point of stimulation the body, functioning of vital involuntary organs (e.g.
and since Na + ions are more in the extracellular fluid at lungs, heart, kidneys, etc.), thermoregulation, hunger
resting state, there occurs influx of Na + ions through and thirst, circadian (24-hours) rhythms of our body,
sodium ion channels by the diffusion. Since, there are activities of several endocrine glands and human
behaviour.
more Na + ions entering than leaving, the electric
potential of the membrane changes from-70mV towards It is the site for processing of vision, hearing, speech,
+ 30 mV, i.e. action potential. memory, intelligence, emotions and thoughts.
46 (d) During the transmission of nerve impulse through a 60 (b) The human brain is well protected by the skull.
nerve fibre the potential on the inner side of the plasma Inside the skull, the brain is covered by cranial
membrane is first negative then positive and again back meninges, comprising of duramater, arachnoid and
to negative. piamater.
47 (b) A wave of action potential is termed as a nerve 61 (b) The correct sequence of meninges from outside to
impulse. When a nerve fibre receives stimulus inside the inside is
cell, plasma membrane become positively charged with Duramater → Arachnoid → Piamater
respect to outside. The change in polarity across the 64 (a) A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally
plasma membrane is known as action potential. into two halves, which are termed as the left and right
The membrane with this reversed polarity is said to be cerebral hemispheres. The hemispheres are connected
depolarised. by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum.
48 (c) Saltatory conduction of impulse occurs in 68 (d) Association areas are the regions of brain that are
myelinated nerve fibres. The fatty myelin sheath of neither clearly sensory nor motor in function. These are
myelinated nerve fibres prevents the flow of ions responsible for complex functions like intersensory
between external fluid and fluid present within the associations, memory and communication.
axon. At the node of Ranvier, the insulating myelin 69 (a) The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter.
sheath is absent and thus, the ionic flow occurs at these This is due to its greyish appearance. The neuron cell
points only. Therefore the action potential jumps from bodies are concentrated here giving it, its grey colour.
node to node, due to which the transmission of impulse
is more rapid in myelinated fibres. This is called the 71 (a) Hypothalamus in the brain thermoregulation, water
saltatory conduction of nerve impulse. balance and control of hormone functions. It is located
below the thalamus and is a part of limbic system.
50 (a) A synapse is formed by the membrane of a
pre-synaptic neuron and post-synaptic neuron. The 72 (d) An injury localised to the hypothalamus will disrupt
space between these two membrane at synapse is called the complete regulation of body temperature. This is
synaptic cleft. because thermoregulation is the ability of an organism
to regulate its internal body temperature. It is under the
51 (b) Synapses are of two types, i.e. electrical synapses
control, of hypothalamus region of brain.
and chemical synapses. Electrical synapse is mediated
by electrical impulse. It is very fast but rare in humans. 74 (b) Option (b) is incorrect pair and can be corrected as
On the other hand, chemical synapse is mediated by Limbic system consists of four major components
chemicals such as neurotransmitter. namely hippocampus, amygdala, septal nuclei and
52 (c) Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is mammilary bodies.
always faster than that across a chemical synapse.
It controls the emotional behaviour, food habits and sex extend from the outside environment directly into a pair
behaviour of an organism. It is not involved in of broad bean-sized organs called olfactory bulb, which
controlling movements. is extensions of the brains’s limbic system.
The rest three options are correctly paired with their 93 (c) The gustatory (tongue) and olfactory (nose)
functions. receptors are functionally similar and inter-related.
75 (a) Forebrain consists of hypothalamus, which controls These detect dissolved chemicals. The tongue detects
the urge for eating and drinking. tastes through taste buds, containing gustatory
receptors. The nose receives sense of smell through
76 (b) The dorsal protion of the midbrain consists of four
olfactory receptors.
round swellings (lobes) called corpora quadrigemina.
The midbrain is located between the thalamus/ 94 (a) The eyeball is enveloped by three layers, i.e. sclera
hypothalamus of the forebrain and pons of the layer, choroid layer and retinal layer. Outermost
hindbrain. A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passess sclerotic layer is white portion of eye which merges
through the midbrain. with transparent round window called cornea in center.
Middle choroid layer lie close to retina and contain light
78 (b) Option (b) is incorrectly matched and can be
absorbing pigments. Infront, it form ciliary body, which
corrected as
is hidden by iris. Retina, the innermost thin transparent
Wernicke’s area of brain is involved in language layer appear purplish due to the presence of eye
comprehension including understanding of speech and pigment rhodopsin.
written words. It requires input of sensory information
(from hearing and vision), processing of the information 95 (d) Sclera is the external layer of eyeball is composed
in different centres of cerebral cortex and the of dense connective tissue. It is protective in nature.
coordination of motor output. Cerebellum is concerned 96 (d) Cornea transplant in humans is almost never
with posture balance, coordination and speech. rejected. This is because it has no blood supply. Cornea
Rest other options are correct. is continuous with the sclerotic, that forms the front part
of the vertebrate eye, over the iris and lens.
81 (c) Three major regions make up brain stem, i.e.
midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata. Brain stem 98 (a) The middle layer choroid, contains many blood
forms the connections between the brain and spinal vessels and looks bluish in colour. The choroid layer is
cord. thin over the posterior two-third of the eyeball.
84 (c) The entire process of response to a peripheral 99 (b) Ciliary body is the thick anterior part of choroid in
nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily, i.e. the human eye.
without conscious efforts or thought and requires The ciliary body itself continues forward to form a
involvement of a part of the central nervous system is pigmented and opaque structure called the iris.
called a reflex action. 101 (c) The eyeball contains a transparent crystalline lens
85 (c) The reflex pathway comprises at least one afferent which is held in place by ligaments attached to ciliary
neuron, i.e. receptor and one efferent (effector or body.
excitor) neuron appropriately arranged in a series. 102 (c) Iris surrounds the aperture known as pupil in the
88 (c) Reflex pathway involves both ANS and CNS. In human eye. The diameter of the pupil is regulated by
case of CNS, it may be spinal cord (spinal reflexes; the muscle fibres of iris.
more common) and brain (cerebral reflexes; less 103 (c) The inner layer is the retina and it contains three
common). layers of neural cells from inside to outside–ganglion
89 (b) Sweating is not a reflex action. It is the action under cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells. There are
the control of brain to lower down body temperature, two types of photoreceptor cells, namely rods and
i.e. homeostasis. cones. These cells contain the light-sensitive proteins
called the photopigments.
Salivation and withdrawl of hand when pinched by the

needle are reflex actions not controlled by brain. 104 (b) It is difficult to differentiate between red and green
90 (b) The correct pathway of reflex arc is colour objects in dark or in night because cones which
Sensory receptor → Afferent neuron → Dorsal nerve are cells of daylight (photopic) vision and colour vision
root → CNS → Effector neuron → Effector organs. work well only during daytime. Rods and cones are two
types of photoreceptor cells, out of which rods are
91 (b) The sensory organs detect all types of changes in the responsible of twilight (scotopic) vision.
environment and send appropriate signals to the CNS,
105 (d) The rods contain a purplish red protein called the
where all the inputs are processed and analysed. Signals
are then sent to different parts/centres of the brain. This rhodopsin (photosensitive substance) or visual purple,
is how you sense changes in the environment. which contains a derivative of vitamin-A.
106 (d) In the human eye, there are three types of cones
92 (d) Option (d) is correct as the nose contains mucus
coated receptors which are specialised for receiving the which possess their own characteristic photopigments
sense of smell called as olfactory receptors. These are that respond to red, green and blue lights. The
made up of olfactory epithelium that consists of three sensations of different colours are produced by various
kinds of cells. The neurons of the olfactory epithelium combinations of these cones and their photopigments.
108 (c) Blind spot is the region as retina where there is bony labyrinth is a series of channels. Inside these
absence of photoreceptor cells, thus called blind spot. channels lie the membranous labyrinth, which is
At this region, no image is formed. surrounded by a fluid called perilymph. The
membranous labyrinth is filled with a fluid called
109 (a) The optic nerves leave the eye and the retinal blood
endolymph.
vessels enter it at a point medial to and slightly above
the posterior pole of the eyeball known as blind spot. 128 (b) The organ of Corti is a structure located on the
basilar membrane which contains hair cells that act as
111 (d) Option (d) is incorrect pair. It can be corrected as
auditory receptors. The hair cells are present in rows on
The fovea is the thinned out portion of retina where the internal side of the organ of Corti.
only the cones are densely packed. It is the point where
the visual acuity (resolution) is the greatest. 131 (d) Option (d) is correct, which can be explained as the
inner ear contains vestibular apparatus composed of
112 (c) Aqueous chamber is the space between the lens and three semi-circular canals and the otolith. Each
the cornea. This space is filled with aqueous humour semi-circular canal lies in a different plane at right
which is a transparent, gelatinous fluid similar to angles to each other. The membranous canals are
plasma, but it contain low-protein concentration. It is suspended in the perilymph of the bony canals. The
secreted from the ciliary epithelium, a structure base of canals is swollen and is called ampulla, which
supporting the lens. contains a projecting ridge called crista ampullaris
114 (a) Option (a) is correct as which has hair cells. The saccula and utricle contain a
A–Retina—contains photoreceptors, i.e. rods and projecting ridge called macula. The crista and macula
cones. The day light vision is function of cones and helps in maintaining balance of body and posture.
twilight vision is related to rods. 132 (d) Crista ampullaris and macula present in the inner ear
Other options can be corrected as follows are the specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus.
B–Blind spot—photoreceptor cells are not present in Which are responsible for maintening balance of the
this part. body and posture.
C–Aqueous chamber–contains a thin watery fluid 133 (c) The vestibular apparatus (located above the
called aqueous humour. It reflect light, so that it can cochlea) has no role in hearing, but it is influenced by
pass through the lens. gravity and movements. Its specific receptors called
D–Sclera is the external layer of eye having dense Crista and macula are responsible for the maintenance
connective tissue. of balance of the body and posture, thus are very much
required.
116 (a) The photosensitive compounds (photopigments) in
the human eyes is composed of opsin (a protein) and 134 (b) A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down
retinal (an aldehyde of vitamin-A). even in total darkness because of vestibular apparatus. It
is an intricate series of interconnected and fluid-filled
117 (d) Option (d) is correct which can be explained as canals which regulates balance and spatial orientation.
when the light rays of visible wavelength focussed on In the absence of vision, the movement of body is
the retina through the cornea and lens, the photopigment regulated by vestibular apparatus.
(rhodopsin) dissociates into opsin and retinal. This
causes membrane permeability change. As a result 136 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
potential difference are generated in the photoreceptor the correct explanation of Assertion.
cells. The pre-synaptic neuron transmits an impulse (action
potential) acrosses the synaptic cleft to the post-synaptic
119 (a) The pinna collects the vibrations in the air, which
neuron. This occurs via a sequence of events occurring
produce sound. There are present very fine hairs and
at the synapsis and due to the presence of
wax secreting glands in the skin of pinna.
neurotransmitters. As the impulse comes at the
120 (b) The tympanic membrane (eardrum) separates the pre-synaptic membrane, the neurotransmitters get
tympanic cavity from the external auditory meatus. The attached to neuroreceptors on the pre-synaptic
tympanic membrane is composed of connective tissues membrane and thereby changing its potential and
covered with skin outside and with mucous membrane opening the ion channels.
inside.
This allows Ca + ions to get into the pre-synaptic lobe
121 (d) The middle ear contains three ossicles namely which causes the release of neurotransmitters into the
malleus, incus and stapes. These are attached to one synaptic cleft. These then moves towards the
another in a chain-like fashion. post-synaptic neuronal membrane. Here, again the
124 (d) A Eustachian tube connects the middle ear cavity neurotransmitters bind to the complementary receptors
with the pharynx. The Eustachian tube helps in on the post-synaptic membrane. The increase in the
equalising the pressures on either sides of the eardrum. concentration causes the ion channels of post-synaptic
127 (a) Option (a) is incorrect pair. It can be corrected as neuron to open allowing Na + ions to diffuse into the
post-synaptic neuron thereby creating potential
The fluid-filled inner ear called labyrinth consists of difference and generation of action potential in
two parts, the bony and the membranous labyrinths. The post-synaptic neuron.
137 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is muscles, under sympathetic nervous system dilates pupil,
the correct explanation of Assertion. while under parasympathetic nervous system constricts
Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes pupil.
are in a polarised state. This means that there is an 144 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
electrical difference across the cell membrane, i.e. the correct explanation of Assertion.
electrical charge on the outside of the membrane is Iris is the muscular covering in the front of the eye
positive, while the electrical charge on the inside of between the cornea and the lens that is perforated by an
the membrane is negative. opening called the pupil. Iris is made up of two groups of
138 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason smooth muscle that regulates the diameter of pupil, i.e.
is the correct explanation of Assertion. decrease or constrict the size of the pupil in order to
The neuroglial cells are of three types, i.e. astrocytes, control the light entering the eye.
oligodendrocytes and microglia. Out of these, 145 (a) Statement in option (a) is correct.
oligodendrocytes are the cells which form the myelin Neurons regulate the endocrine activity, but endocrine
sheath around axon, thus are also called the packing activity do not regulates the neural activity.
cells of the brain. The other cells like astrocytes are Rest statements are incorrectly written.
responsible for the separation of two neurons by
148 (c) Statements I, II and III are true for a neuron not
providing insulation and microglia are phagocytic
conducting any impulse, i.e. resting.
cells. Nearly 50% of all brain cells are neuroglia.
Statement IV is false and can be corrected as
the correct explanation of Assertion. The fluid outside the axon contains a low concentration
of K + , a high concentration of Na + and thus, form a
Arrival of an impulse at the axon terminal, stimulates concentration gradient.
the release of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft
because neurotransmitters bind to specific receptors on 150 (d) Statements I and II are correct because
the membrane and change the membrane potential of A neuron is said to be in resting state when it do not
the neuron which opens the ion channels. conduct an impulse and possess positive charge outside
with respect to the inside of the plasma membrane. The
statements III and IV are incorrect for neuron at resting
state.
The plasma membrane of the neuron is polarised, i.e.
there is positive charge outside of the membrane and 151 (a) Statement I is true and II is false and it can be
negative charge on the inside of the membrane. This corrected as
difference in charge in due to the selective The resting membrane potential at the site of excitation is
permeability of the membrane, i.e. the Na-K pump restored by K + ions and not by Na + and Cl ions.
transfer 3Na + outside for 2k + ions inside the neural These ions diffuses rapidly outside the membrane and
membrane. The difference in the positive potential thus, the outer surface become positively charged, while
created due to this makes the membrane less positive the inner surface become negatively charged.
inside which is normally termed negative inside with 152 (c) Statements I, III and IV are correct. Statement II is
respect to outside. incorrect and can be corrected as
141 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but reason is For grey matter of brain as it does not contain medullated
not the correct explanation of Assertion. portion of nerve fibre, rather have cell bodies of nerve
The axoplasm inside the axon contains high fibres. Grey matter is grey in colour and is present
concentration of K + and negatively charged proteins outside the white matter in brain.
because the voltage gated Na-K channels are closed at 154 (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct.
resting state and axonal membrane is impermeable to Statement III is incorrect for the cortex or outer part of
Na + ions and negatively charged proteins.
cerebrum. It can be corrected as

142 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true and This is because white matter refers to the inner part of
Assertion can be corrected as cerebral hemisphere or cerebrum and grey matter refers
to the outerpart or cortex of cerebrum.
The layer of cells which covers the cerebral
hemispheres is called cerebral cortex and is thrown 155 (d) All statements are correct. Midbrain is located
into prominent folds. It is referred to as the grey between the thalamus/ hypothalamus of the forebrain and
matter. It is called grey matter due to its greyish pons of the hindbrain. A canal, called the cerebral
appearance. Neuron cell bodies are concentrated here aqueduct passes through the midbrain. The dorsal portion
which give it the greyish appearance. of the midbrain consists of four round swellings (lobes)
called corpora quadrigemina.
the correct explanation of Assertion. 158 (c) Statetment in option (c) is incorrect and can be
corrected as
Autonomic nervous system includes sympathetic
nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system. Retinal is a derivative of vitamin-A. Retinal pigment of
These two systems have antagonistic functions. Iris epithelium shields the retina from excess incoming light.
It supplies omega-3 fatty acid and glucose to the retina.
160 (c) Statements in option (c) is incorrect and can be 178 (c) Brain is not involved in knee-jerk reflex as it is an
corrected as example of spinal reflex. While the muscle spindle,
Rods and cones are photoreceptor cells in our eyes. The inter neuron and motor neuron are the part of reflex
rod cells contain a purple pigment rhodopsin that is arc.
useful in night vision or scotopic vision. Daylight 179 (c) The limbic lobe or limbic system, along with the
(photopic) vision and colour vision are the functions of hypothalamus, is involved in the regulation of
cones. emotions e.g. excitement, pleasure, rage, fear and
161 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. motivation.
Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the 180 (a) Option (a) is correct.
most sensitive portion of the eye. The rods contain a purplish-red protein called the
Rest statements are incorrect and can be corrected as rhodopsin. It is a photosensitive compound in eye that
l The outer layer of the wall of eyeball, sclera, consists of a is composed of opsin (a protein) and retinal (an
dense connective tissue containing mainly collagen and aldehyde of vitamin-A).
some elastic fibre. 181 (b) Human eyeball consists of three layers, i.e. sclera,
l Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is choroid and retina. These layers enclose lens, aqueous
non-vascularised. humor and vitreous humor.
l The cornea is the clear part of eye’s protective covering.
162 (b) Statements I, III and IV are correct. Statement II is Aqueous
Vitreous
incorrect and can be corrected as chamber
chamber
The photopigments (e.g. rhodopsin) are embedded in the Fovea
membrane discs of the outer segment in the retina.
Lens Blind spot
166 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Other statements
Iris Optic
are incorrect and can be corrected as Cornea nerve
Nociceptors are pain receptors and meissner’s corpuscles
are light sensitive. Receptors produces graded potentials. Retina Choroid
Ciliary Sclera
174 (b) Neurotransmitters, e.g. acetylcholine are the chemical
body
which are present in the synaptic vesicles at axon
terminals. These are involved in the transmission of Diagram showing parts of an eye
impulses at the chemical synapses. 183 (a) Cochlea is the part of internal ear responsible for
hearing. It is connected with saccule and is a spirally
176 (c) The ionic gradients across the resting membrane are
coiled structure that resembles a snail shell in
maintained by the active transport of ions by the appearance.
sodium-potassium pumps (or ion pumps) which transport
3 Na + outward for every 2K + into the cell. 184 (d) The organ of Corti is a structure present in cochlea.
Cochlea bears the most important channel/canal called
177 (b) Sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system scala media, which has an upper membrane, the
control all the functions of visceral organs of the body. Reissner’s membrane and a lower membrane called
These two systems are the part of autonomic nervous basilar membrane. Organ of Corti are present on the
system. sensory ridge of basilar membrane.

CHAPTER > 22
Chemical
Coordination
and Integration
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Human body is made up of several organs. These organs Å In addition to these, some other organs, e.g. gastrointestinal
work together in a coordinated manner, so that the human tract, kidney, heart, etc., also produce hormones.
body can function properly. These coordination and Å A brief account of the structure and functions of all major
integration are developed and maintained by two special endocrine glands and hypothalamus of the human body is
systems, i.e. nervous system and endocrine system. given in the following sections
Endocrine Glands and Hypothalamus

Hormones Å It is the basal part of diencephalon, forebrain and it regulates
a wide spectrum of body functions. It contains several
Å The endocrine glands are ductless glands, i.e. lack ducts.
groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei, which produce
They pour their secretion into the surrounding blood for
hormones.
transport to the site of action or distantly located target
organ.
Å The hormones produced by hypothalamus are of two types
n
Releasing hormones (which stimulate secretion of
Å Their secretions are called hormones or internal secretion.
pituitary), e.g. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH).
Å Hormones are specific non-nutrient chemicals, which act as
intercellular messengers and are produced in trace amounts.
n
Inhibiting hormones (which inhibit secretions of
These hormones regulate metabolism, growth and pituitary hormones), e.g. somatostatin.
development of our organs, the endocrine glands or certain Å These hormones reach the pituitary gland through a portal
cells. circulatory system and regulate the functions of the anterior
Å The organised endocrine glands also secrete a number of pituitary. The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural
new molecules in addition to the hormones. regulation of the hypothalamus.
Å Vertebrates have large number of chemicals acting as Pituitary Gland
hormones that provide coordination, while invertebrates
possess very simple endocrine system with few hormones.
Å The pituitary gland also referred as master gland is located
in a bony cavity called sella tursica and is attached to
hypothalamus by a stalk.
Human Endocrine System
Å Anatomically it is divided into an adenohypophysis
Å The endocrine system is composed of hypothalamus,
(anterior pituitary) and a neurohypophysis (posterior
pituitary and pineal, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid,
pituitary).
thymus and gonads (testis and ovary).
CHAPTER 22 > Chemical Coordination and Integration 509
Å Various hormones secreted by different parts of pituitary glands Thyroid Gland

are as follows
Å It composed of two lobes located on either side of
Parts of the trachea interconnected with isthmus.
Hormones Functions
Pituitary Gland
Å The thyroid gland is composed of follicles and
1. Adenohypophysis stromal tissues.
Pars distalis Growth Hormone
Stimulates body growth. Å The thyroid follicular cells synthesise
(GH)
Hyposecretion causes dwarfism, tetraiodthyronine or thyroxine ( T4 ) and
i.e. stunted growth. triiodothyronine ( T3 ) and iodine is essential for the

Hypersecretion causes gigantism. normal rate of thyroid hormones.

Excess secretion of GH in adults
causes acromegaly.
Å Thyroid hormones regulate the basal metabolic
rate of body and influence water and electrolyte
Prolactin (PRL) Stimulates the growth of mammary balance.
glands, lactation and maintenance of
corpus luteum. Å Hypothyroidism and goitre (enlargement of the
Thyroid Stimulating Synthesis and secretion of thyroid thyroid gland) result due to the deficiency of iodine
Hormone (TSH) hormones T3 and T4 from thyroid in diet.
gland. Å Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
Adrenocorticotropic Synthesis and secretion of cretinism in babies.
Hormone (ACTH) glucocorticoids from the adrenal
cortex. Å In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause
Luteinizing menstrual cycle to become irregular.

In males, stimulates the synthesis
Hormone (LH) and secretion of androgens from Å Exopthalmic goitre, also called Grave‘s disease is a
testes. form of hyperthyroidism characterised by

In females, induces ovulation and enlargement of thyroid gland, increased basal
maintain corpus luteum metabolic rate and weight loss.
Follicle Stimulating
In males, FSH and androgens Å Thyroid gland also secretes Thyrocalcitonin (TCT),
Hormone (FSH) regulate spermatogenesis. which regulates the blood calcium levels.

In females, stimulates the growth
and development of ovarian Parathyroid Gland
follicles. Å It is present as four small pouches. Present on the
Pars intermedia Melanocyte
Acts on melanocytes and regulate back side of thyroid gland. Two each embedded in
Stimulating skin pigmentation.
Hormone (MSH) the posterior surface of each lobe of thyroid gland.

Hypersecretion causes hyper n
It secretes peptide hormone called Parathyroid
pigmentation.
Hormone (PTH).
2. Neurohypophysis Oxytocin Acts on the smooth muscles and It increases the Ca 2+ levels in blood.

n
(Pars nervosa) stimulates their contraction during

childbirth.
n
It acts directly on bones to increase bone

Stimulates milk ejection from the resorption and mobilises Ca 2+ ion.
mammary glands. n
It stimulates the reabsorption of Ca 2+ ion by
Vasopressin
Acts mainly at kidneys and helps
renal tubule and increase Ca 2+ absorption from
(Anti-Diuretic in H2O and electrolytes resorption the digested food. It is known as hypercalcemic
Hormone or ADH) and prevents diuresis. hormone.

Hyposecretion causes diabetes
insipidus. Thymus Gland
Å It is found between lungs behind sternum on the
Pineal Gland ventral side of aorta.
Å It is located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes melatonin Å It secretes peptide hormones called thymosins.
which functions to regulate biological clock, i.e. 24 hours Å Thymosins play a major role in the differentiation
sleep-wake cycle. of T-lymphocytes, which provide cell-mediated
Å It maintains sleep-wake cycle, body temperature metabolism, immunity and production of antibodies to provide
pigmentation, menstrual cycle, etc. humoral immunity.
Å Serotonin is also secreted by the pineal gland which helps in Å It is degenerated in old individuals due to which
vasoconstriction of blood vessels. the immune responses become weak.
NEET KEY NOTES

Adrenal Gland associated with the loss of glucose through urine and
formation of harmful ketone bodies.
Å Pair of adrenal glands are found at the anterior part of each
kidney. Testis
Å It is composed of the centrally located adrenal medulla and Å In male, individuals a pair of testis is present in the
the outer adrenal cortex. scrotal sac. It is primary sex organ and functions as
Å Adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines– adrenaline endocrine gland also.
(epinephrine) and nor-adrenaline (nor-epinephrine). These n
It is composed of seminiferous tubules,
are emergency hormones or hormones of fight or flight.
stromal/intestial tissue or leydig cells.
They increase heart rate, respiration rate, sweating,
glycogenolysis, lipolysis, proteolysis, alertness, pupilary n
Leydig cells are present in intertubular spaces and
dilation, piloerection, etc. produce sex hormones called androgens mainly
Å Adrenal cortex is divided into three layers, zona reticularis testosterone.
(inner), zona fasciculata (middle) and zona glomerulosa n
Androgens mainly testosterone plays an important
(outer). It secretes three types of hormones commonly called role in the process of spermatogenesis, i.e. formation
as corticoids. of spermatozoa.
n
Glucocorticoids, e.g. cortisol, regulate carbohydrate n
It regulates the development, maturation and
metabolism, stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, functions of male accessory sex organs like
proteolysis, inhibit utilisation of amino acids, maintain epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate
heart and kidney functions. gland, urethra, etc.
n
Mineralocorticoids, e.g. aldosterone, maintain water and n
This hormone also stimulates secondary sex
electrolyte balance by stimulating reabsorption of Na + characteristics like muscular growth, growth of
and H2 O and excretion of K+ and phosphate ions at renal facial and axillary hair aggressiveness low pitch of
tubules. voice, etc.
n
Androgenic steroids promote growth of axial hair, pubic
n
It acts on the central nervous system and influence
hair, facial hair during puberty. male sexual behaviour (libido). These hormones also
produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and
Pancreas carbohydrate metabolism.
It is a composite gland, which acts as both exocrine and
Å
endocrine gland.
Ovary
Å It is the primary female sex organ located in the
Å Exocrine part includes acini, which secretes pancreatic juice.
abdomen.
Å Endocrine part consists of islets of Langerhans. The two
main type of Langerhan cells are
Å It also acts as exocrine gland by synthesising two groups
of steroid hormone oestrogen and progesterone.
n
α-cells n
β-cells
Å Each ovary produces one ovum during each
Å α-cells secrete ‘glucagon’ a peptide hormone, which plays an
menstrual cycle.
important role in maintaining blood glucose level.
Å It is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues.
n
It acts on hepatocytes (liver cells) and stimulates
glycogenolysis, i.e. breakdown of glucose. Å Growing ovarian follicle secretes oestrogen. It
n
It results in increased blood sugar level, i.e. hyper stimulates the growth of
glycemia. Thus, also known as hyperglycemic hormone. n
female secondary sex organs
It reduces the cellular glucose uptake. n
mammary gland development
Å β-cells secrete insulin which acts on hepatocytes and n
it regulates female sexual behaviour.
adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake n
it stimulates female secondary sex characters.
n
It converts glucose into glycogen known as glycogenesis. Å Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum, which is a
n
Rapid movement of glucose from blood to hepatocytes ruptured follicle.
results in hypoglycemic condition. Å Progesterone supports pregnancy. It acts on the
n
Increased concentration of glucose in blood leads to mammary gland and stimulates the formation of alveoli
hyperglycemic condition called diabetes mellitus. It is and milk secretion.
NEET KEY NOTES

Hormones act through receptors that are present either

Hormones of Heart, Kidney
Å
intracellularly for hydrophobic hormones, e.g.

and Gastrointestinal Tract testosterone, aldosterone or extracellularly for hormones
that being hydrophilic cannot cross cell membranes, e.g.
Various hormones secreted by non-endocrine glands are as
follicle stimulating hormone, growth hormone.
follows
Å Hormones, which interact with membrane bound receptors
Hormones Sources Functions and directly do not enter the target cell control the cellular
metabolism. They generate second messengers like IP3 ,
Atrial Natriuretic Atrial wall of Decrease blood pressure by
Factor (ANF) heart dilating blood vessels. Ca 2+ , cAMP, etc.
Å The hormone which enter the cell and interact with
Erythropoietin Juxtaglomerular Stimulates erythropoiesis or intracellular receptors (e.g. steroid hormones,
cells of kidney Formation of RBCs.
iodothyronines, etc.) mostly regulate gene expression or
Gastrin GI tract Acts on the gastric glands and chromosome function by the interaction of hormone
stimulates the secretion of HCl receptor complex with the genome. Cumulative
and pepsinogen. biochemical actions result in physiological and
Secretin GI tract Acts on the exocrine pancreas developmental effects.
and stimulates secretion of Hormone (e.g. FSH)
water and bicarbonate ions.
Formation of hormone Receptor
Ovarian cell membrane
Cholecystokinin GI tract Acts on both pancreas and gall receptor complex
bladder to stimulate the
secretion of pancreatic
enzymes and bile juice.
Response I
Gastric GI tract Inhibits gastric secretion and
⇒
Inhibitory motility. Generation of second messenger
Peptide (GIP) (cyclic AMP or Ca2+)
⇒
Growth factors Several Essential for the normal
Biochemical response
non-endocrine growth and repair/
⇒
tissues regeneration of tissues. Physiological response
(e.g. ovarian growth)
(a)
Mechanism of Hormone Action
Å Hormones produce their effects on target tissue by
binding to specific hormone receptors found in the target
tissues only. They are of two types
n)
tro e
n
Membrane bound receptors present on the cell
es on
ge
.o m
membrane of the target cells.

.g or
(e H
n
Intracellular receptors present inside the target cell
mostly nuclear receptors (present in the nucleus).
Nucleus
Hormone-receptor complex is formed by the binding
of a specific hormone to its specific receptor leading to Genome
biochemical changes in the target tissue.
mRNA
Å On the basis of their chemical nature, hormone can be
divided into following groups Proteins
n
Peptide, polypeptide, protein hormones (e.g. insulin, Physiological responses
glucagon, pituitary, hypothalamic hormone, etc.) (tissue growth
n
Steroid hormone (e.g. cortisol, testosterone, estradiole, Hormone-receptor and differentiation)
complex
progesterone).
(b)
n
Iodothyronines (thyroid hormones).
Diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone
n
Amino acid derivatives (e.g. epinephrine). action: (a) Protein hormone (b) Steroid hormone
NEET KEY NOTES

Mastering NCERT
TOPIC 1 ~ Human Endocrine System : Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal,

Thyroid, Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal and Pancreas Gland
1 Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals, which are 5 Hypothalamus releases two types of hormones known
produced in trace amount and acts as as
(a) intercellular messengers (b) intracellular messengers (a) stimulating hormones and releasing hormones
(c) extracellular messengers (d) None of these (b) stimulating hormones and inhibiting hormones
2 Identify different endocrine glands in human (A-H). (c) exocrine hormones and inhibiting hormones
(d) exocrine hormones and stimulating hormones
A B 6 GnRH (Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone) stimulates
C the
(a) pituitary to release the gonadotropins
D
(b) pituitary for synthesis and release of gonadotropins
E
(c) testis to release the gonadotropin
(d) hypothalamus to release the gonadotropin
7 GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
F reproduction, acts on NEET 2017
(a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH
and oxytocin
G H (b) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH
and FSH
(c) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of
(a) A–Pineal, B–Hypothalamus , C–Pituitary, D–Thyroid oxytocin and FSH
and Parathyroid, E–Thymus, F–Adrenal, G–Ovary, (d) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH
H–Testis and relaxin
(b) A–Hypothalamus, B–Pineal, C–Pituitary, D–Thyroid 8 Somatostatin from hypothalamus gland
and Parathyroid, E–Thymus, F–Adrenal, G–Ovary,
H–Testis (a) activates the release of growth hormone from the
(c) A–Hypothalamus, B–Pineal, C–Pituitary, D–Thyroid adrenal gland
and Parathyroid, E–Thymus, F–Adrenal, G–Testis, (b) inhibits the release of growth hormone from the
H–Ovary pituitary
(d) A–Hypothalamus, B–Pineal, C–Pituitary, D–Thyroid (c) inhibits the release of enzymes in the digestive tract
and Parathyroid, E–Adrenal, F–Thymus, G–Testis, (d) activates the release of enzymes from the pineal gland
H–Ovary
9 The posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine
3 Hypothalamus is the gland because NEET 2016
(a) anterior part of diencephalon (a) it is provided with a duct
(b) posterior part of diencephalon
(b) it only stores and releases hormones
(c) interior part of diencephalon
(d) basal part of diencephalon (c) it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(d) it secretes enzymes
4 Hypothalamus contains several groups of hormone
producing neurosecretory cells called 10 The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called
(a) parietal cells (b) oxyntic cells (a) centrum (b) cranium
(c) nuclei (d) G-cells (c) sella tursica (d) pars media
11 Identify A to D in the given figure and choose the 15 What will be the effect of removal of posterior
correct combination. pituitary?
A (a) Oxytocin and ADH will not be synthesised
B (b) Oxytocin and ADH will be synthesised but could not
be stored
(c) Only oxytocin will be synthesised
(d) Only ADH will be synthesised
16 Gigantism and dwarfism are the disease related to
(a) prolactin hormone of mammary gland
(b) growth hormone of adenohypophysis
C
(c) luteinizing hormone of pituitary gland
(d) thyroid stimulating hormone of thyroid
D 17 Acromegaly is caused due to
(a) excess secretion of GH in adults
(a) A–Hypothalamic neurons, B–Hypothalamus, C–Portal (b) hyposecretion of MSH in children
circulation, D–Posterior pituitary (c) reduced secretion of gonadotropins in adults
(b) A–Hypothalamus, B–Hypothalamic neurons, C–Portal (d) hypersecretion of PRL in adults
circulation, D–Posterior pituitary
(c) A–Hypothalamus, B–Hypothalamic neurons, 18 Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
C–Posterior pituitary, D–Portal circulation cause further increase in height because NEET 2017
(d) A–Hypothalamus, B–Hypothalamic neurons, (a) growth hormone becomes inactive in adults
C–Posterior pituitary, D–Neurohypophysis (b) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
12 Consider the flowchart given below and identify A, B (c) bones loose their sensitivity to growth hormone in
and C. adults
Pituitary gland (d) muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
19 Which of the following pituitary hormones works
indirectly? JIPMER 2018
A Neurohypophysis (a) MSH (b) TSH (c) GH (d) Oxytocin
20 Like TSH stimulates thyroid gland, the target
C organ/gland of ACTH is
B Pars intermedia (a) adenohypophysis (b) kidney
(c) adrenal cortex (d) adrenal medulla
A B C
21 In males, the spermatogenesis is regulated by
(a) Adenohypophysis Pars nervosa Pars distalis
(a) FSH (b) androgens
(b) Hypophysis Pars distalis Pars nervosa (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) hypothalamus
(c) Posteriophysis Pars nervosa Pars distalis 22 Function of oxytocin is/are
(d) Adenohypophysis Pars distalis Pars nervosa (a) smooth muscle contraction
(b) contraction of uterus at the time of childbirth
13 Which of the following hormones are produced by (c) milk ejection from mammary glands
pars distalis or anterior pituitary? (d) All of the above
(a) Growth hormone and prolactin 23 The activity of formation of milk and the ejection of
(b) Thyroid stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic milk is controlled by
hormone (a) oxytocin and prolactin, respectively
(c) Luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone (b) prolactin and oxytocin, respectively
(d) All of the above (c) prolactin and prolactin, respectively
14 Oxytocin and ADH are produced by hypothalamus (d) oxytocin and oxytocin, respectively
and released from AIIMS 2019 24 Reabsorption of water and electrolytes by distal
(a) anterior pituitary tubules of kidney so as to reduce the loss of water
(b) posterior pituitary through urine (diuresis) is done by
(c) pineal gland (a) oxytocin (b) vasopressin
(d) thymus (c) FSH (d) LH
25 Pineal gland is located on the 32 Hypothyroidism and enlargement of thyroid gland,

(a) ventral side of forebrain i.e. goitre is caused due to the deficiency of
(b) lateral side of forebrain (a) iodine (b) calcium
(c) dorsal side of forebrain (c) proteins (d) carbohydrates
(d) back side of forebrain 33 A pregnant female delivers a baby, who suffers from
26 Artificial light, extended work time and reduced stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence
sleep-time disrupt the activity of NEET (Odisha) 2019 quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
(a) thymus gland (b) pineal gland NEET 2013
(c) adrenal gland (d) posterior pituitary gland (a) deficiency of iodine in the diet
27 The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor for the (b) low secretion of growth hormone
synthesis of CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (c) cancer of the thyroid gland
(a) thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine (d) over secretion of pars distalis
(b) oestrogen and progesterone 34 Irregular menstrual cycle in adult women and
(c) cortisol and cortisone cretinism in children are related to
(d) melatonin and serotonin (a) hyperthyroidism
28 Identify the hormone with its correct matching of (b) goitre
source and function. CBSE-AIPMT 2014 (c) hypothyroidism
(a) Oxytocin – Posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance (d) Both (b) and (c)
of mammary glands
(b) Melatonin – Pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm 35 Graves’ disease is caused due to the NEET 2016
of sleep-wake cycle (a) hyposecretion of thyroid gland
(c) Progesterone – Corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and (b) hypersecretion of thyroid gland
activities of female secondary sex organs (c) hyposecretion of adrenal gland
(d) Atrial natriuretic factor – Ventricular wall increases the (d) hypersecretion of adrenal gland
blood pressure 36 Congential removal of thyroid will cause
29 Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram and (a) myxoedema
choose the correct combination. (b) cretinism
(d) exophthalmic goitre
C 37 The function of thyroid gland is to
(a) regulate the basal metabolic rate
(b) support the process of RBCs formation
A
D (c) regulate the blood calcium level
B (d) All of the above
38 Blood calcium level is regulated by
(a) A–Thyroid, B–Trachea, C–Vocal cord, D–Parathyroid
glands (a) T3 and T4
(b) A–Trachea, B–Thyroid, C–Vocal cord, D–Parathyroid (b) T3 and thyrocalcitonin
glands (c) thyrocalcitonin secreted by thyroid gland
(c) A–Trachea, B–Vocal cord, C–Thyroid, D–Parathyroid (d) thyrocalcitonin secreted by parathyroid gland
glands
39 In humans, parathyroid glands
(d) A–Parathyroid glands, B–Thyroid, C–Vocal cord,
D–Trachea (a) are four in number present on the back side of the
thyroid gland
30 The thyroid gland is composed of (b) secrete steroid hormones
(a) follicles (b) stromal tissue (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) trachea (d) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
31 By which part of thyroid gland, T3 and T4 hormones 40 Secretion of PTH is regulated by the circulating levels
are synthesised? of
(a) Follicles (b) Stromal tissue (a) Na + ions (b) I− ions
(c) Isthmus (d) Both (a) and (c) (c) Ca 2+ ions (d) Fe2+ ions
41 Which of the following conditions will stimulate 51 Identify A to E in the following figure and choose the
parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone? correct option.
NEET (Odisha) 2019 D
(a) Fall in active vitamin-D levels A
(b) Fall in blood Ca +2 levels
(c) Fall in bone Ca +2 levels B
(d) Rise in blood Ca +2 levels
42 PTH is a
(a) hypercalcemic hormone (b) hypocalcemic hormone
(c) endocalcemic hormone (d) exocalcemic hormone C E
2+
43 Hormone that stimulates Ca reabsorption by renal
(a) A–Adrenal gland, B–Fat, C–Kidney, D–Adrenal cortex,
tubules and increases Ca 2+ absorption from the E–Adrenal medulla
digested food is (b) A–Fat, B–Adrenal gland, C–Kidney, D–Adrenal cortex,
(a) calcitonin (b) parathormone E–Adrenal medulla
(c) insulin (d) ACTH (c) A–Fat, B–Adrenal gland, C–Kidney, D–Adrenal
44 Which of the following hormones can play a medulla, E–Adrenal cortex
significant role in osteoporosis? NEET 2018 (d) A–Adrenal gland, B–Fat, C–Kidney, D–Adrenal
(a) Oestrogen and parathyroid hormone medulla, E–Adrenal cortex
(b) Progesterone and aldosterone
52 Fight or flight reactions cause activation of
(c) Aldosterone and prolactin
CBSE-AIPMT 2014
(d) Parathyroid hormone and prolactin
(a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic
45 Increase in bleeding time and delay in blood rate
coagulation is due to the deficiency of which hormone? (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin
(a) Adrenaline (b) Nor-adrenaline angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(c) Parathormone (d) Thyroxine (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine
46 Thymus gland is
(d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar
(a) found on the ventral side of the aorta
levels
(b) involved in the development of the immune system
(c) degenerated in old individuals 53 The heartbeat increases at the time of interview due to
(d) All of the above (a) secretion of adrenaline
(b) corticotropic hormone
47 The thymus gland secretes the peptide hormones
(c) hypersecretion of renin
called
(d) antidiuretic hormone secretion
(a) antibodies (b) androgens
(c) thymosins (d) oestrogens 54 A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural
roles is CBSE-AIPMT 2015
48 Major role of thymus gland in humans is/are
(a) melatonin
(a) differentiation of T-lymphocytes to provide cell
(b) calcitonin
mediated immunity
(c) epinephrine
(b) differentiation of B-lymphocytes
(d) cortisol
(c) enhanced production of antibodies to provide humoral
immunity 55 A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a
(d) Both (a) and (c) snake right in front on opening the door. Which one
49 A child with a weak immune system could have of the following is likely to happen in his
problem in which of the following glands? neurohormonal control system? CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Parathyroid gland (a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing
(c) Thymus (d) Pituitary gland epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal medulla
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and
50 Adrenal gland is present at the
transmit a nerve impulse
(a) lateral side of each kidney
(c) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of
(b) dorsal side of each kidney
brain
(c) posterior side of each kidney
(d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing
(d) anterior side of each kidney epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal cortex
56 The layer of adrenal cortex from outer to inner region 61 The two main types of cells in the islets of
are Langerhans called α-cells and β-cells secrete
(a) zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis (a) glucagon and insulin, respectively
(b) zona reticularis, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata (b) insulin and glucagon, respectively
(c) zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, zona glomerulosa (c) insulin and glycogen, respectively
(d) zona reticularis, zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa (d) glycogen and insulin, respectively
57 Gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis processes 62 Which of the following given features are appropriate
are stimulated by for glucagon?
(a) glucocorticoids (a) Peptide hormone which act on hepatocytes
(b) mineralocorticoids (b) Increases the blood sugar by stimulating glycogenolysis
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Reduces the cellular glucose uptake and utilisation
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
58 Cortisol is involved in 63 Insulin, a peptide hormone is
(a) maintaining the cardio-vascular system and kidney (a) mainly acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes
functions (b) enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation
(b) produces anti-inflammatory reactions (c) stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen in the
(c) stimulation of RBCs production target cells
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
59 Islets of Langerhans are 64 Study the following table and select the correct option
(a) endocrine cells of adrenal medulla for endocrine gland, its hormone and its deficiency
(b) exocrine cells of adrenal cortex disorder.
(c) endocrine cells of pancreas
Deficiency
(d) exocrine cells of pancreas Endocrine glands Hormones
disorders
60 A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in (a) Neurohypophysis Vasopressin Diabetes mellitus
urine even when he is kept on a carbohydrate free
(b) Adrenal cortex Corticosteroids Addison’s disease
diet. It because
(a) fats are catabolised in adipose tissues to form glucose (c) Parathyroid gland Parathormone Myxoedema
(b) amino acids are catabolised in kidney to form glucose (d) Thyroid gland Calcitonin Acromegaly
(c) amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver
(d) glycogen from muscles is released in blood stream
TOPIC 2 ~ Human Endocrine System : Testes, Ovary

and Hormones of Heart, Kidney and GIT
65 The Leydig or interstitial cells found in the 67 Androgens produce synthetic effects on
intertubular spaces produce a group of hormones (a) protein metabolism (b) carbohydrate metabolism
called (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) lipid metabolism
(a) LH and FSH 68 The steroid hormones, oestrogen and progesterone are
(b) Gonadotropins secreted by which part/structure of ovary?
(c) Androgens (a) Ova and Leydig cells, respectively
(b) Ovarian follicle and corpus luteum, respectively
66 Which of the following given features are appropriate (c) Corpus luteum and corpus albicans, respectively
for androgens? (d) Graafian follicle and ova, respectively
(a) Regulates development and maturation of accessory sex
organs 69 A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is
(b) Stimulate muscular growth and influence libido NEET 2017
(c) Stimulate the formation of spermatozoa (a) pineal gland (b) corpus cardiacum
(d) All of the above (c) corpus luteum (d) corpus allatum
70 Study the following table and identfy A, B and C. 75 The peptide hormone, ‘Atrial Natriuretic Factor’
(ANF) is secreted by
Glands Secretion Functions
(a) Graafian follicle
A Oestrogen Secondary sexual (b) Atrial wall of heart
characters.
α-cells of Langerhans B Increases blood sugar level. (d) None of the above
Anterior lobe of C Over secretion leads to
pituitary gigantism.
76 ‘ANF’ is a hormone, which
(a) is secreted in response to increased BP
A B C (b) decreases BP
(a) Ovary Glucagon GH (c) causes vasodilation
(b) GH Glucagon PRL (d) All of the above
(c) GH Glucagon MSH 77 Juxtaglomerular cells secrete
(d) Ovary Glucagon MSH (a) ANF (b) erythropoietin
71 Which of the following given features are appropriate (c) renin (d) Both (b) and (c)
for oestrogen? 78 The peptide hormone, erythropoietin
(a) Stimulates the development of growing ovarian follicle (a) stimulates erythropoiesis
(b) Stimulates the appearance of secondary sex characters (b) inhibits erythropoiesis
(c) Stimulates the growth of mammary glands (c) inhibits platelet formation
(d) stimulates platelet formation
72 Which of the following given features are appropriate
79 Gastrin hormone acts on gastric glands so as to
for progesterone? (a) stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen
(a) Supports the pregnancy
(b) inhibits the secretion of pepsinogen
(b) Acts on the mammary glands and stimulates the
(c) inhibits the secretion of HCl
formation of alveoli
(d) stimulates the breakdown of pepsin hormone
(c) Stimulates milk secretion
(d) All of the above 80 Which hormone acts on the exocrine part of pancreas
and stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate
73 Which of the following pairs of hormones are not
ions?
antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
(a) Insulin Glucagon NEET 2016
(a) Gastric (b) Secretin
(b) Aldosterone Atrial natriuretic factor (c) CCK (d) GIP
(c) Relaxin Inhibin 81 Cholecystokinin (CCK) acts on
(d) Parathormone Calcitonin (a) pancreas (b) gall bladder
74 Which of the following peptide hormone is secreted (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) liver
by non-endocrine gland? 82 GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide)
(a) ANF and erythropoietin (a) inhibits the gastric secretion and motility
(b) Gastrin and secretin (b) inhibits the gastric secretion
(c) Cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory peptide (c) stimulates the gastric secretion and motility
(d) All of the above (d) stimulates the gastric secretion
TOPIC 3 ~ Mechanism of Hormone Action

83 Hormones produce their effects on target tissue by 85 Among the following sets of hormones, which one
binding to specific proteins called as contain only peptide hormones?
(a) target proteins anywhere in body (a) Epinephrine, cortisol, pituitary hormones
(b) activator proteins in muscles and glands (b) TSH, hypothalamic hormones, oestradiol
(c) inhibitor proteins in blood (c) Insulin, progesterone, cortisol
(d) hormone receptors on target tissues (d) Insulin, glucagon, prolactin
84 Intracellular receptors are mostly 86 Hormones of which of the following endocrine glands
(a) cytoplasmic receptors (b) membrane receptors lacks peptides, amines and sulphur?
(a) Testes (b) Thyroid and adrenal glands
(c) nuclear receptors (d) ER receptors
(c) Anterior pituitary (d) Posterior pituitary and pancreas
87 Which of the following is an amino acid derived 96 If receptor molecules are removed from target organs,
hormone? NEET 2018 then the target organ will
(a) Estradiol (b) Ecdysone (a) continue to respond to the hormone without any
(c) Epinephrine (d) Estriol difference
(b) continue to respond to the hormone, but will require
88 Inhibin is composed of JIPMER 2018
higher concentration
(a) glycoprotein
(c) continue to respond to the hormone, but in the opposite
(b) lipoprotein way
(c) steroid (d) not respond to the hormone
(d) amino acid derivative
97 Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic
89 Hormones, which interact with membrane bound representation of the mechanism of hormone action.
receptors normally NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) enters into the cell membrane A
(b) do not enter the target cell B
(c) generate secondary messengers
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Response 1
90 How does steroid hormone influence the cellular
activities? NEET (Odisha) 2019 C
(a) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex
(b) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane Physiological responses
(c) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger Select the correct option from the following
(d) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane (a) A – Steroid hormone, B–Hormone-receptor complex,
91 Steroid hormones typically alter the activity of target C – Protein
cells by (b) A –Protein hormone, B–Receptor, C–Cyclic AMP
(a) activating primary messenger (c) A – Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, C-Second messenger
(b) activating secondary messenger (d) A – Protein hormone, B – Cyclic AMP,
(c) interacting with intracellular receptors C – Hormone-receptor complex
98 Identify A to D in the given diagrammatic
92 What is the mechanism of action of steroid representation of the mechanism of hormone action
hormones? and choose the correct combination.
(a) They enter into the target cells and bind with specific
receptor and activate specific genes to form protein
(b) They bind to cell membrane Uterine
(c) They catalyse the formation of AMP cell membrane
93 Which one of the following is not a second messenger D B
in hormone action?
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium
(c) cAMP (d) cGMP A
C
94 Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the Proteins
examples of those that can easily pass through the cell
membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor Physiological responses
inside it (mostly in the nucleus)? CBSE-AIPMT 2012 (tissue growth and
(a) Insulin and glucagon differentiation)
(b) Thyroxin and insulin
(c) Somatostatin and oxytocin (a) A–DNA, B–Nucleus, C–Hormone-receptor complex,
(d) Cortisol and testosterone D–Hormone
(b) A–mRNA, B–Nucleus, C–Hormone-receptor complex,
95 Oestrogen and testosterone hormones bind to D–Hormone
(a) cytoplasmic receptors (c) A–mRNA, B–Nucleus, C–Hormone-receptor complex,
(b) G-protein linked membrane proteins D–Protein
(c) enzyme linked proteins (d) A–DNA, B–Nucleus, C–Hormone-receptor complex,
(d) membrane receptors D–Protein
NEET
I. Assertion and Reason 107 Assertion (A) The physiological functions of target
tissues are regulated by hormones.
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed Reason (R) The hormone-receptors complex
by corresponding statement of Reason (R). formation leads to certain irreversible changes in the
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as target tissue that leads to lysis of target tissue.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 108 Assertion (A) Hormones interacting with membrane
of A bound receptors normally do not enter the target
(b) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct cells.
explanation of A
Reason (R) They generate second messengers like
cyclic AMP, IP 3 and Ca. 2+
99 Assertion (A) Endocrine glands are called ductless
glands. II. Statement Based Questions
Reason (R) Hormones produced by endocrine glands 109 Choose the correct statement.
are released into the blood and transported to distant (a) Unorganised endocrine gland include pineal gland
target organs. pituitary gland, pancreas, liver, ovary and testis
(b) In nervous system, the response is for long duration
100 Assertion (A) GnRH stimulates the pituitary
whereas in endocrine system it is for short duration
synthesis and release of gonadotropins.
(c) Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine system
Reason (R) Hypothalamic hormones regulate the whereas a large number of chemicals act as hormones in
synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormones. vertebrates
101 Assertion (A) Grave’s disease is due to the enlarged (d) Hormones are produced in trace amounts by ducted
adrenal gland. glands
Reason (R) Grave’s disease leads to protusion of the 110 Which one of the following statements is correct?
eyeballs, increased basal metabolic rate and weight (a) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not
loss. vice-versa
102 Assertion (A) Diabetes insipidus is marked by (b) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice-versa
excessive urination and too much thirst of water. (c) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous
system regulates endocrine glands
Reason (R) ADH is secreted by posterior lobe of
pituitary. (d) Neural transmission is slow whereas endocrine
transmission is fast
103 Assertion (A) Our body secretes adrenaline in
intense cold. 111 Which of the following statements is correct in
relation to the endocrine system? NEET 2013
Reason (R) Adrenaline raises metabolic rate. (a) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of
104 Assertion (A) In old persons, there is gradually the hypothalamus
weakening of immune system. (b) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart,
Reason (R) It is because of degeneration of thymus kidney and liver do not produce any hormones
gland. (c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace
amount that act as intercellular messengers are known
105 Assertion (A) Pancreas is a composite gland. as hormones
Reason (R) It acts both as an exocrine and an (d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the
endocrine gland. pituitary gland
106 Assertion (A) CCK acts on both pancreas and gall 112 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
bladder. (a) Pituitary gland is under the control of hypothalamus
Reason (R) It stimulates the secretion of pancreatic (b) All glands in the human body are heterocrine glands
enzymes and inhibits the secretion of bile juice. (c) Testes and ovaries are endocrine glands
(d) Pancreas gland performs dual functions
113 Which of the following statements is incorrect 120 What is correct to say about the hormone action in
regarding hypothalamus? humans? CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(a) Hypothalamus is the basal part of mesencephalon (a) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langerhans
(b) It regulates wide spectrum of body functions and stimulates glycogenolysis
(c) Neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus secrete hormones (b) Secretion of thymosin with ageing
(d) Hormones of hypothalamus regulate the synthesis of (c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on
pituitary hormones ovarian cell membrane
(d) FSH stimulates the secretion of oestrogen and
progesterone
(a) Sleep-wake cycle and pigmentation are regulated by
hypothalamus 121 Consider the following statements .
(b) Insulin plays a major role in glucose homeostasis I. Hypothalamic hormones originate in the hypothalamic
(c) There are about 1-2 million islets of Langerhans in a neurons, pass through axons and release from their
normal human pancreas nerve endings.
(d) Adrenaline increases alertness and pupilary dilation II. Hypothalamic hormones reach the pituitary gland
115 Select the incorrect statement. through the portal circulatory system.
(a) Proteinaceous hormones are composed of chains of Select the correct option
amino acids (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are true
(b) Glycoproteinaceous hormones are composed of proteins (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are false
and carbohydrates
(c) Adrenocorticoids are steroid hormones 122 Consider the following statements.
(d) Melatonin and adrenaline are polypeptide hormones I. T3 and T4 are synthesised by follicular cells of thyroid
gland.
II. TCT and PTH play a significant role in calcium
(a) The thyroid gland play a negligible role in the
balance in the body.
regulation of the basal metabolic rate
(b) The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine (T4 ) and Select the correct option.
triiodothyronine ( T3 ) (a) Both I and II are true (b) Both I and II are false
(c) The lobes of thyroid gland are interconnected with a (c) I is true, II is false (d) I is false, II is true
thin flap of connective tissue called isthmus
(d) The thyroid gland is composed of two lobes which are
located on either side of the trachea I. Parathyroid gland regulates calcium and phosphate
level in the blood.
117 Which statement is incorrect about inhibin?
II. PTH stimulates reabsorption of Ca 2+ by renal tubules
(a) It is a lipoprotein JIPMER 2018
and increases Ca 2+ absorption from digested food.
(b) Decreases FSH secretion
(c) Molecular weight is between 10K-30K Dalton
(a) Both I and II are true (b) Both I and II are false
(d) Secreted by Sertoli cells
(c) I is true, II is false (d) I is false, II is true
(a) Steroid hormones do not interact with intracellular
receptors I. ACTH, GH, MSH and oxytocin are polypeptide
(b) Hormones which interact with intracellular receptors hormones.
(e.g. steroid hormones, iodothyronines, etc.) mostly II. Oestradiol and progesterone are amino acid derivative
regulate gene expression hormones.
(c) Steroid hormones can interact with genome through Select the correct option.
hormone-receptor complex
(c) I is true, II is false (d) I is false, II is true
(a) IP3 is a secondary messenger, while cAMP is a primary 125 Consider the following statements.
messenger I. LH causes ovulation of Graafian follicle and maintains
(b) Cyclic AMP is generated by hormone which interact corpus luteum in females.
with membrane bound receptors II. LH do not perform any function in males.
(c) Hormone receptor complex is formed by membrane Select the correct option.
bound receptors
(d) IP3 and cAMP are secondary messengers that can
regulate cellular metabolism (c) I is true, II is false (d) I is false, II is true
126 Consider the following statements. 131 Consider the following statements.
I. Adrenaline increases blood pressure during I. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to prolonged
emergency situations. hyperglycemia.
II. Nor-adrenaline has no role in regulating blood II. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to deficiency of
pressure. insulin.
Select the correct option. Select the correct option.
(a) Both I and II are true (a) Both I and II are true
(b) Both I and II are false (b) Both I and II are false
(c) I is true, II is false (c) I is true, II is false
(d) I is false, II is ture (d) I is false, II is true
127 Consider the following statements. 132 I. Hypothyroidism may cause irregularity of menstrual
I. The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained by cycle.
insulin and glucagon. II. Hyperthyroidism is characterised by increased
II. Glucagon reduces cellular glucose uptake and synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones due to the
utilisation, while insulin enchances the same. cancer of thyroid gland or due to development of
Select the correct option. nodules of thyroid glands.
(a) Both I and II are true III. Grave’s disease is characterised by increased
(b) Both I and II are false matabolic rate, weight loss, enlargement of thyroid
(c) I is true, II is false gland and hyperthyroidism.
(d) I is false, II is true IV. Hypothyroidism causes goitre, while the exophthalmic
goitre is a form of hyperthyroidism.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. PTH increases Ca 2+ absorption from digested food
(a) III and IV
and thus increases blood Ca 2+ level.
(b) I, II and IV
II. Addison’s disease is caused due to the
(c) I, II and III
underproduction of hormones by adrenal cortex
leading to impaired carbohydrate metabolism.
133 I. Somatostatin inhibits intestinal absorption of glucose.
(a) Both I and II are true II. Leydig cells secrete progesterone.
(b) Both I and II are false III. Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland.
(c) I is true, II is false IV. Myxoedema is a thyroid disorder.
(d) I is false, II is true V. ACTH is secreted by neurohypophysis.
129 Consider the following statements. Select the correct statements and choose the option.
I. Diabetes mellitus is characterised by loss of glucose (a) I, III and IV
through urine and the formation of ketone bodies. (b) II, III and V
II. Diabetes mellitus can be treated with insulin therapy. (c) I, IV and V
(d) II, IV and V
(a) Both I and II are true 134 Consider the following statements.
(b) Both I and II are false I. Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of calcium.
(c) I is true, II is false II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles.
(d) I is false, II is true III. Graves’ disease is caused by excess secretion of
130 Consider the following statements. hormones of thyroid gland.
I. Double vision, irritability and hypoglycemia are IV. Vasopressin stimulates the absorption of water in the
caused due to hypersecretion of glycogen. renal tubules.
II. In hypoglycemia, there is rapid movement of glucose V. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are called as the
from blood to hepatocytes and adipocytes. emergency hormones of hormones.
Select the correct option. Select the correct statements and choose the option.
(a) Both I and II are true (a) I, II, III, IV and V
(b) Both I and II are false (b) III, IV and V
(c) I is true, II is false (c) I, II and V
(d) I is false, II is true (d) II, III and IV
135 Consider the following statements. Choose the correct option.

I. Increase of heartbeat. (a) I, II, III and IV
II. Increase of respiration rate. (b) II, I, III and IV
(c) I, IV, III and II
III. Stimulate breakdown of glycogen.
(d) III, I, II and IV
IV. Stimulate breakdown of lipid and protein.
140 Read the statements given below and mark the option
Which of the following are correct functions of
containing the correct statement.
catecholamines?
(a) Only II (b) I and II I. Catecholamines decrease the heartbeat, the strength of
heart contraction and the rate of respiration.
(c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
II. Aldosterone acts on collecting duct to increase
136 I. The adrenal cortex secretes many hormones called
absorption of water along with electrolytes.
corticoids.
III. Androgenic steroids secreted by the adrenal cortex
II. Corticoids involved in carbohydrate metabolism are
stimulate growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial
called as glucocorticoids.
hair during puberty.
III. Glucocorticoids play a role in the growth of axial hair,
IV. Aldosterone is the main glucocorticoid, whereas
pubic hair and facial hair during puberty.
cortisol is the mein mineralocorticoid.
IV. Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid, which (a) Only I
helps in the maintenance of electrolytes, body fluid (b) Only II
volume, etc. (c) Only III
Select the correct combination from the given (d) Only IV
options.
141 Choose the statements which correctly indicates
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
functioning of gonads.
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
I. Androgens stimulate growth of facial hairs and
137 Consider the following statements. axillary hairs, muscular growth, low pitch of voice,
I. Pituitary gland is called master gland and it is attached etc., in males.
to hypothalamus by a stalk. II. Ovary produces one ovum during each menstrual cycle
II. In humans, pars intermedia is almost merged with pars and produces three groups of steroid hormones called
nervosa. androgens, oestrogen and progesterone.
III. Oxytocin is synthesised by hypothalamus and is III. Androgens influence both male and female sex
transported axonally to neurohypophysis. behaviours.
Select the correct option. IV. Androgens produce catabolic (synthetic) effects on
(a) Only I (b) Only II carbohydrate and protein metabolism.
(c) I, II and III (d) I and III (a) Only I
(b) II and III
138 Choose the statements which correctly indicates the
(c) Only III
functioning of thyroid hormones.
(d) I and IV
I. Regulation of the basal metabolic rate.
142 Read the following statements and mark the incorrect
II. Stimulate the process of RBCs formation.
option.
III. Regulating the blood phosphorus levels.
I. Epinephrine do not produce secondary messengers.
IV. Maintenance of pH and lipids balance.
II. Insulin deficiency and /or insulin resistance result in a
The correct option is disease called diabetes mellitus.
(a) I, II and IV (b) I and II III. Thymosins increase the production of interferons to
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) III and IV provide cell-mediated immunity.
139 The events in the mechanism of protein hormones are IV. The pituitary hormones regulate the growth and
listed below. Arrange them in correct sequence. development of somatic tissues and activities of
I. Hormone binds to receptor on plasma membrane. peripheral endocrine glands.
II. Physiological responses. (a) I and II
III. Biochemical responses. (b) II and III
(c) I and III
IV. Generation of secondary messenger.
(d) I and IV
III. Matching Type Questions 147 Match the following columns and choose the correct
option from the codes given below.
143 Match the following hormones with the respective
disease. NEET (National) 2019 Column I Column II
(Types) (Glands)
Column I Column II A. Exocrine gland 1. Ovary
A. Insulin 1. Addison’s disease B. Endocrine gland 2. Thyroid
B. Thyroxine 2. Diabetes insipidus C. Heterocrine gland 3. Salivary glands
C. Corticoids 3. Acromegaly
D. Growth hormone 4. Goitre
Codes
A B C A B C
5. Diabetes mellitus
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 3
Codes (c) 2 3 1 (d) 1 2 3
A B C D A B C D 148 Match the following columns.
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 5 1 2 3 Column I
Column II
(Hormones of adrenal
(Functions)
144 Match the following columns. gland)
A. Mineralocorticoids 1. Suppresses immune response
Column I Column II
(Aldosterone)
(Hormones) (Functions)
B. Cortisol 2. Growth of pubic hair and axial
A. FSH 1. Synthesises the milk in breast
hair during puberty
B. MSH 2. Regulates the pigmentation
C. Androgenic steroids 3. Increased blood glucose
C. ADH 3. Prevents diuresis of adrenal cortex concentration
D. PRL 4. Stimulates the development of D Catecholamine 4. Regulates balance of H2O and
ovarian follicle electrolytes
Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
145 Match the following columns. (c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
Column I Column II
(Hormones) (Functions) 149 Match the hormones with its sources of secretion.
A. Gastrin 1. Inhibits gastric secretion Column I Column II
B. Secretin 2. Acts on gall bladder (Hormones) (Sources of secretion)
C. CCK 3. Stimulates secretion of H2O and HCO−3 A. Somatostatin 1. Pineal gland
D. GIP 4. Secretion of HCl B. Melatonin 2. Corpus luteum
C. Aldosterone 3. Placenta
Codes
A B C D A B C D D. Progesterone 4. Adrenal cortex
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 E. HCG 5. Islets of Langerhans
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2 Codes
146 Match the following columns. A B C D E
(a) 5 1 5 2 3
Column I Column II (b) 1 2 4 3 5
(Types) (Examples) (c) 2 5 4 1 3
A. Protein hormones 1. Epinephrine (d) 5 1 4 2 3
B. Steroid hormones 2. Testosterone, progesterone 150 Match the following columns.
C. Iodothyronines hormones 3. Thyroid hormones
Column I Column II
D. Amino acid derivative 4. Insulin and glucagon
hormones A. Adrenaline 1. Myxoedema
B. Hyperparathyroidism 2. Accelerates heartbeat
Codes
C. Oxytocin 3. Salt-water balance
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 D. Hypothyroidism 4. Childbirth
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 2 1 3 E. Aldosterone 5. Demineralisation

A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 Column I Column II
(Actions) (Hormones)
(b) 5 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 5 4 1 3 A. Maintain the normal blood 1. Cortisol
glucose level
(d) 2 5 4 3 1
B. Regulation of glucose 2. Aldosterone
151 Match the following columns. homeostasis
Column I Column II C. Maintenance of electrolytes 3. Insulin
(Hormones) (Functions) D. Anti-inflammatory responses 4. Glucagon
A. ANF 1. Regulates blood calcium levels
Codes
B. MSH 2. Decreases blood pressure
A B C D
C. GIP 3. Pigmentation (a) 3 4 2 1
D. TCT 4. Inhibits gastric secretion (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
Codes (d) 2 1 4 3
A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 3 4 1 Column I Column II
152 Match the following columns. (Hormones) (Related processes)
Column I Column II A. Glucagon 1. Glucogenolysis

(Hormones) (Functions)
B. Insulin 2. Spermatogenesis
A. ADH 1. Synthesis and secretion
of glucocorticoids C. Androgen 3. Ovulation
B. ACTH 2. Mineralocorticoids D. Progesterone 4. Glycogenesis
C. Aldosterone 3. Diabetes mellitus
Codes
D. Insulin 4. Diabetes insipidus A B C D
Codes (a) 4 3 2 1
A B C D A B C D (b) 1 4 2 3
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3 4

NCERT 157 Gradual atrophy degeneration with ageing is shown
by
155 Which of the following is not a deficiency related
(a) pineal gland (b) thymosin
disorder? (c) adrenal cortex (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Cretinism
158 Demineralisation of bones in females is observed
(b) Diabetes insipidus
after they attain menopause. This is due to lack of
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(a) progesterone
(d) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) thymosin
156 Hormones involved in maintaining Ca 2+ balance in (c) melatonin
human body includes all except (d) oestrogen
(a) cortisol 159 Gonadotropins essentially target all glands listed
(b) aldosterone below except.
(c) parathormone (a) Ovarian follicles (b) Leydig cells
(d) thyrocalcitonin (c) Sertoli cells (d) Posterior pituitary
NCERT Exemplar 166 Thymosin is responsible for

(a) raising the blood sugar level
160 Which of the following hormones is not secreted by
(b) raising the blood calcium level
anterior pituitary? (c) differentiation of T-lymphocytes
(a) Growth hormone
(d) decrease in blood RBCs
(b) Follicle stimulating hormones
167 In the mechanism of action of a protein hormone, one
(c) Oxytocin
of the second messengers is
(d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(a) Cyclic AMP (b) Insulin
161 Mary is about to face an interview. But during the (c) T3 (d) Gastrin
first five minutes before the interview she
168 Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called
experiences sweating, increased rate of heartbeat,
(a) prolactin (b) progesterone
respiration, etc. Which hormone is responsible for
(c) aldosterone (d) testosterone
her restlessness?
(a) Oestrogen and progesterone 169 Cortisol is secreted from
(b) Oxytocin and vasopressin (a) pancreas (b) thyroid
(c) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline (c) adrenal (d) thymus
(d) Insulin and glucagon 170 A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle is
(a) epinephrine (b) gastrin
162 Leydig cells produce a group of hormones called
(c) melatonin (d) insulin
(a) androgens
(b) oestrogens 171 Hormones are called chemical signals that stimulate
(c) aldosterone specific target tissues. Their action depend on the
(d) gonadotropins presence of receptors on the respective target tissues.
163 Which of the following conditions is not linked to
Which of the following is the correct location of these
deficiency of thyroid hormone? receptors in case of protein hormones?
(a) Extracellular matrix (b) Blood
(a) Cretinism
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Nucleus
(b) Goitre
(c) Myxoedema 172 Match the following columns.
(d) Exophthalmia Column I Column II
164 Select the right match of endocrine gland and their A. Epinephrine 1. Stimulates muscle growth
hormones among the options given below. B. Testosterone 2. Decrease in blood pressure
Column I Column II C. Glucagon 3. Breakdown of liver glycogen
A. Pineal 1. Epinephrine D. Atrial natriuretic factor 4. Increases heartbeat
B. Thyroid 2. Melatonin
Codes
C. Ovary 3. Oestrogen
A B C D A B C D
D. Adrenal medulla 4. Tetraiodothyronine (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 4 2 3
Codes
A B C D 173 Which of the following do not play any role in
(a) 4 2 1 3 calcium balance in the human body?
(b) 2 4 1 3 (a) Vitamin-D (b) Parathyroid hormone
(c) 3 2 1 4 (c) Thyrocalcitonin (d) Thymosin
(d) 2 4 3 1 174 Which of the following organs in mammals does not
165 The steroid responsible for balance of water and consist of a central ‘medullary’ region surrounded by
electrolytes in our body is a cortical region?
(a) insulin (b) melatonin (a) ovary (b) adrenal
(c) testosterone (d) aldosterone (c) liver (d) kidney
Answers
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (a) 40 (c)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49 (c) 50 (d)
51 (a) 52 (c) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (a) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (d) 59 (c) 60 (a)
61 (a) 62 (d) 63 (d) 64 (b) 65 (c) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (c) 70 (a)
71 (d) 72 (d) 73 (c) 74 (d) 75 (b) 76 (d) 77 (d) 78 (a) 79 (a) 80 (b)
81 (c) 82 (a) 83 (d) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (a) 87 (c) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (a)
91 (c) 92 (a) 93 (b) 94 (d) 95 (a) 96 (d) 97 (b) 98 (b)
99 (a) 100 (a) 101 (d) 102 (b) 103 (a) 104 (a) 105 (a) 106 (c) 107 (c) 108 (a)
109 (c) 110 (c) 111 (c) 112 (b) 113 (a) 114 (a) 115 (d) 116 (a) 117 (a) 118 (a)
119 (a) 120 (c) 121 (b) 122 (a) 123 (a) 124 (c) 125 (c) 126 (c) 127 (a) 128 (a)
129 (a) 130 (d) 131 (c) 132 (d) 133 (a) 134 (a) 135 (d) 136 (c) 137 (d) 138 (b)
139 (c) 140 (c) 141 (a) 142 (c) 143 (b) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (c) 147 (a) 148 (c)
149 (d) 150 (c) 151 (d) 152 (c) 153 (c) 154 (b)

155 (d) 156 (b) 157 (a) 158 (d) 159 (d) 160 (c) 161 (c) 162 (a) 163 (d) 164 (d)
165 (d) 166 (c) 167 (a) 168 (b) 169 (c) 170 (c) 171 (c) 172 (b) 173 (d) 174 (c)

4 (c) Hypothalamus contains several groups of 12 (d) Option (d) is correct.
neurosecretory cells called nuclei, which produce Pituitary gland is divided anatomically into an
hormones. These hormones regulate the synthesis and adenohypophysis and a neurohypophysis.
secretion of pituitary hormones. Adenohypophysis consists of two portions, pars distalis
5 (b) Hormones produced by hypothalamus are of two and pars intermedia. The pars distalis region of
types, the releasing hormones (which stimulate pituitary, commonly called anterior pituitary.
secretion of pituitary hormones) and the inhibiting Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa) also known as
hormones (which inhibit secretions of pituitary posterior pituitary.
hormones). 16 (b) Gigantism and dwarfism are disease related to
7 (b) GnRH is a hypothalamic hormone. It stimulates the Growth Hormone (GH). As oversecretion of GH
anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH, stimulates abnormal growth of the body leading to a
which in turn stimulates the gonadal activity. condition called gigantism and low secretion of GH
results in stunted growth resulting in dwarfism.
8 (b) Somatostatin or growth hormone inhibiting hormone
is released from the hypothalamus to inhibit 17 (a) Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults
adenohypophysis of pituitary gland to secrete growth especially in middle age can result in severe
hormone. disfigurement (especially of the face) called
acromegaly, which may lead to serious complications
9 (b) The posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine
and premature death if unchecked. The disease is hard
gland because it only stores and releases two hormones,
to diagnose in the early stages and often goes
oxytocin and vasopressin. These are actually
undetected for many years, until changes in external
synthesised by the hypothalamus and are transported to
features become noticeable.
the posterior pituitary through the hypophyseal portal
system. 18 (b) Option (b) is correct and can be explained as follows
Chronic hypersecretion of Growth Hormone (GH) leads
10 (c) Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called
to gigantism or acromegaly depending on the age of the
sella tursica and is attached to hypothalamus by a stalk.
individual.
If its hypersecretion occurs before the ossification of Oestrogen is responsible for the development secondary
epiphyseal plates, it causes exaggerated and prolonged sexual characters.
growth in long bones. It results in gigantism. l ANF is secreted by the atrial walls of the heart, which
In adults, hypersecretion of GH leads to acromegaly. decrease blood pressure.
Hence, hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults 29 (a) Option (a) is correct.
does not cause further increase in height because
The thyroid gland is composed of two lobes which are
epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
located on either side of the trachea. Vocal cords are flaps
19 (b) Among the given hormones, TSH (Thyroid present over the trachea. There are four parathyroid
Stimulating Hormone), secreted by anterior lobe of glands present on the back side of thyroid gland, one pair
pituitary gland, works indirectly. This hormone each in the two lobes of the thyroid gland.
controls the growth and activity of the thyroid gland.
30 (d) The thyroid gland is composed of follicles and
It influences the uptake of iodine and synthesis of the
stromal tissue. Thyroid gland is the largest endocrine
hormones; thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine by the
gland composed of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It
thyroid gland.
has some 3 million follicles, arranged in lobules
Rest of the hormones, i.e. MSH (Melanocyte (40 follicles in each lobule) and embedded in stromal
Stimulating Hormone), GH (Growth Hormone) and tissue rich in blood capillaries. Each thyroid follicle is
oxytocin work directly on their target organ. They do composed of follicular cells, enclosing a cavity.
not stimulate any other gland.
31 (a) The follicle cells of thyroid gland synthesise two
20 (c) ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormones, tetraiodothyronine or thyroxine (T4 ) and
steroid hormones called glucocorticoids from the tri-iodothyronine (T3 ).
adrenal cortex.
32 (a) Hypothyroidism occurs due to the deficiency of
23 (b) Prolactin regulates the growth of the mammary iodine. In this enlargement of thyroid gland occurs, as a
glands and formation of milk. Oxytocin acts on the consequence of distress development by the body to rope
smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their in whatever iodine is available in the diet and produce
contraction. In females, it stimulates a vigorous more thyroxine. Iodine is essential for thyroxine hormone
contraction of uterus at the time of childbirth and milk production.
ejection from the mammary gland.
33 (a) Deficiency of iodine in the diet causes
24 (b) Vasopressin released by the posterior lobe of hypothyroidism. If this condition occurs during
pituitary acts mainly on the kidney and stimulates pregnancy, the baby will suffer from defective
reabsorption of water and electrolytes by the distal development, stunted growth (cretinism), mental
tubules and thereby, reduces the loss of water through retardation, low intelligence, abnormal skin, deaf-mutism,
urine (diuresis). Hence, it is also called Anti-Diuretic etc.
Hormone (ADH).
34 (c) In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause irregular
25 (c) The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of menstrual cycle and in infants or children it causes
forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin, cretinism.
which plays a very important role in regulating the 24
hours (diurnal) rhythm of our body. It also influences 35 (b) Graves’ disease or hyperthyroidism is caused due to
pigmentation, menstrual cycle as well as our defence the excessive secretion of thyroid hormones by the
capability. thyroid gland. It is also called exophthalmic goitre and is
characterised by an enlarged thyroid gland, protruded
26 (b) Artificial light, extended work time and reduced eyes, increased BMR, weight loss, etc.
sleep time disrupt the activity of pineal gland. This is
36 (b) Cretinism is caused by the deficiency of thyroid
because the circadian rhythm or sleep-wake cycle is
regulated by pineal gland. Thus, any external change hormone in infants therefore, congenital removal of
in the rhythm cycle affects the pineal activity. thyroid will cause cretinism. It will also cause dwarfism
and mental retardation slow body growth and reduced
27 (d) The amino acid, tryptophan is the precursor for the metabolic rate of body.
synthesis of hormone melatonin and neurotransmitter
serotonin. 39 (a) In humans, four parathyroid glands are present on the
back side of the thyroid gland, one pair each in the two
28 (b) Option (b) represents the correct matching of lobes of the thyroid gland. The parathyroid glands secrete
hormone with its sources and functions. Rest of the a peptide hormone called Parathyroid Hormone (PTH).
options are incorrect and can be corrected as
40 (c) The parathyroid glands secrete a peptide hormone
l Oxytocin stimulates contractions of uterine walls to
called Parathyroid Hormone (PTH). The secretion of
facilitate childbirth.
PTH regulated by the circulating levels of calcium ions
l Progesterone maintains pregnancy, helps in the (Ca + ) in the blood.
mammary gland development and milk secretion.
41 (b) Fall in blood Ca +2 levels will stimulate parathyroid 54 (c) Epinephrine acts both as a hormone and as a
gland to release parathyroid hormone. This hormone neurotransmitter. Thus, it has both endocrine and neural
exerts its effects on bones and kidneys. When calcium roles.
levels are low, parathyroid hormone is released by the 55 (a) Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are secreted by
parathyroid glands into the blood and causes the bones adrenal medulla (under the control of sympathetic
to release calcium ions and increase calcium level in the nervous system) in response to stress of any kind or
bloodstream. during emergency situations.
42 (a) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) is a hypercalcemic These are also called emergency hormones or hormones
hormone, i.e. it increases the blood Ca 2+ levels. of flight and fight. Thus, if a persons on suddenly
44 (a) Oestrogen and parathyroid hormones can play a entering a room finds a snake right in front of him, his
significant role in osteoporosis. It is caused due to the sympathetic nervous system would get activated leading
deficiency of oestrogen and excessive activity of to the release of epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from
parathormone. Oestrogen helps to promote the activity the adrenal medulla.
of osteoblasts (helps in the formation of bone cells) and 57 (a) Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones secreted by
inhibits osteoclast activity. On the other hand, zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex. The hormones are
parathormone promotes the mobilisation of calcium involved in metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and
from bones into blood and hence, causes fats.
demineralisation. These function in gluconeogenesis or synthesis of
45 (c) Parathormones (PTH) regulate Ca 2+ ions level in glucose from sources other than carbohydrates,
body. These ions plays a significant role in blood breakdown of fats (lipolysis) and proteolysis (formation
clotting. Thus, deficiency of PTH would lead to of amino acids from proteins).
deficiency of Ca 2+ ions. Due to this, the process of 58 (d) Cortisol is involved in maintaining the
blood clotting would be delayed and bleeding time cardio-vascular system as well as kidney function.
would increase. Glucocorticoids, particularly cortisol, produces
46 (d) The thymus gland is a lobular structure located anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the
between lungs behind sternum on the ventral side of immune response. Cortisol also stimulates the RBCs
aorta. The thymus plays a major role in the production.
development of the immune system. Thymus is 59 (c) The endocrine pancreas consists of islets of
degenerated in old individuals resulting in a decreased Langerhans. There are about 1 to 2 million islets of
production of thymosing. As a result, the immune Langerhans in a normal human pancreas representing
responses of old persons become weak. only 1 to 2 per cent of the pancreatic tissue. The two
48 (d) Thymus gland secretes the peptide hormones called main types of cells in the islets of Langerhans are called
thymosins. Thymosin plays a major role in the α-cells and β-cells.
differentiation of T-lymphocytes, which provides 60 (a) A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in
cell-mediated immunity. urine even, when he is kept on a carbohydrate free diet.
In addition, thymosins also promote the production of It is because fats are catabolised in adipose tissues to
antibodies to provide humoral immunity. form glucose.
49 (c) Thymus gland provides antibody-mediated Glucose moves from hepatocytes and adipocytes into the
immunity or humoral immunity. Thus, a child with blood in a patient of diabetes mellitus, which increases
weak immune system could have problem in his thymus blood glucose level (hyperglycemia).
gland. 62 (d) Glucagon is a peptide hormone which plays an
51 (a) Option (a) is correct and can be explained as important role in maintaining the normal blood glucose
Our body has one pair of adrenal glands, each at the level. Glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells
anterior part of each kidney. The gland is composed of (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis, resulting in
two types of tissues. The centrally located tissue is an increased blood sugar level (hyperglycemia).
called adrenal medulla and outer region is adrenal 63 (d) Insulin is a peptide hormone, which plays a major
cortex. role in the regulation of glucose homeostasis. It acts
52 (c) Fight or flight reactions cause activation of the mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes (cells of adipose
adrenal medulla. It secretes adrenaline (epinephrine) tissue) and enhances cellular glucose uptake and
and nor-adrenaline (nor-epinephrine) hormones under utilisation.
the conditions of stress, these hormones are secreted in As a result, there is a rapid movement of glucose from
high concentration and stimulate, sweating, increased blood to hepatocytes and adipocytes resulting in
heartbeat and breathing rate. decreased blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia). Insulin
These also cause dilation of the coronary artery, also stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen
bronchioles and pupil. (glycogenesis) in the target cells.
64 (b) Only option (b) is correct. Others are incorrect and 80 (b) Secretin, a digestive hormone secreted by the wall of
can be corrected as the upper part of the small intestine (the duodenum) acts
on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of
Endocrine glands Hormones Deficiency disorders
water and bicarbonate ions. Secretin is a polypeptide
Neurohypophysis Vasopressin Diabetes insipdus made up of 27 amino acids.
Parathyroid gland PTH Hypocalcemic tetany 81 (c) CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and
stimulate the secretion of pancreatic enzyme and bile
Thyroid gland Calcitonin Osteoporosis
juice, respectively.
65 (c) The Leydig cells or interstitial cells, which are 82 (a) Gastric Inhibitory Polypeptide (GIP), functions to
present in the intertubular spaces produce a group of neutralise stomach acid to protect the small intestine
hormones called androgens mainly testosterone. from acid damage. It reduces the rate at which food is
66 (d) Option (d) is correct. transferred through the stomach and inhibit the Gl
motility and secretion of hydrochloric acid.
Androgens regulate the development, maturation and
functions of the male accessory sex organs like 84 (c) Hormone receptors present on the cell membrane of
epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate the target cells are called membrane bound receptors
gland, etc. and receptors present inside the target cells are called
These hormones stimulate muscular growth, growth of intracellular receptors, which are mostly nuclear
facial and axillary hair, aggressiveness, low pitch voice, receptors (present in the nucleus).
etc. Androgens play a major stimulatory role in the 85 (d) Set of hormones given in option (d) contain only
process of spermatogenesis (formation of spermatozoa). peptide hormones. These are insulin, glucagon and
Androgens act on the central neural system and prolactin (a pituitary hormone).
influence the male sexual behaviour (libido). Rest sets are incorrect and can be corrected as
69 (c) Corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland in the Progesterone, oestradiol, cortisol, testosterone are
human body. It secretes small amount of oestradiol and steroid hormones.
significant amount of progesterone hormone. In the Thyroid hormones, e.g. T3 and T4 are iodothyronines
absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates. and epinephrine is an amino acid derivative hormone.
71 (d) Option (d) is correct. 86 (a) Hormones of testes lack peptides, amines and
Oestrogen produces wide ranging actions such as sulphur. These hormones are steroid in nature. They are
stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary derived from cholesterol.
sex organs, development of growing ovarian follicle,
87 (c) Among the following, epinephrine is an amino acid
appearance of female secondary sex characters (e.g.
derived hormone. It is a catecholamine which is
high pitch voice, etc.), mammary glands development,
produced in the chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
etc.
from the amino acid tyrosine. On the other hand,
Oestrogen also regulates the female sexual behaviour. estradiol and estriol are steroid hormone that are
73 (c) The pair of hormones given in option (c) are not involved in the regulation of estrous and menstrual
antagonistic to each other. Relaxin hormone which is cycles.
secreted by the posterior pituitary gland relaxes the Ecdysone is also a steroid hormone that controls
pubic symphysis during parturition, while inhibin moulting in insects.
decreases the secretion of FSH from anterior pituitary.
88 (a) Inhibins are dimeric glycoproteins composed of an
Rest pairs of hormones are antagonistic (having
α-subunit and either a β A (inhibin A) or a β B subunit
opposite effects) to each other.
(inhibin B). They are mainly produced in gonads and
76 (d) Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is a hormone provide negative regulation of FSH secretion.
which decreases blood pressure. ANF is secreted when
89 (d) Hormones, which interact with membrane bound
blood pressure is high and causes dilation of the blood
receptor normally do not enter the target cell, but
vessels. This reduces the blood pressure.
generate secondary messengers (e.g. cyclic AMP, IP3 ,
Thus, option (d) is correct. Ca 2+ , etc.), which in turn regulate cellular
77 (d) The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney produce a metabolism.
peptide hormone called renin, which increases blood 90 (a) Steroid hormones are able to bind to DNA and form
pressure through angiotensin-II and erythropoietin a gene-hormone complex. These hormones can easily
which stimulates the formation of RBCs. cross the lipid bilayer of the cell and do not require
78 (a) Erythropoietin or EPO, is a glycoprotein hormone secondary messengers for the same.
that controls erythropoiesis or red blood cells Steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors in the
production. It is a cytokine (protein signaling molecule) nucleus to form hormone receptor complex, which in
for erythrocytes (red blood cells) precursors in the bone turn interacts with the genome.
marrow.
91 (c) Steroid hormones are the lipid soluble hormones 103 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
and are categorised as hydrophobic hormones. They correct explanation of Assertion.
directly pass through the cell membrane and interact Adrenaline is secreted in our body during cold, which
with intracellular receptors present inside the cell raises metabolic rate. It causes vasoconstriction of
(generally within the nucleus). essentially all the blood vessels of the body and increased
93 (b) Sodium is not a second messenger in hormone activity of the heart which prevents heat loss. Shivering
action. Second messengers are cyclic AMP, IP 3 , which is a rhythmic contraction of skeletal muscles
calcium ions, etc. produces heat. Adrenaline, nor-adrenaline, etc., increase
the metabolic rate by stimulating the breakdown of fats.
94 (d) Cortisol and testosterone are lipid soluble
hormones, which can directly pass through the cell 104 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
membrane of the target cell and bind with the correct explanation of Assertion.
intracellular receptors. In old persons, there is gradually weakening of immune
95 (a) Oestrogen and testosterone are female and male system because of degeneration of thymus gland. Thymus
sex hormones, respectively. Chemically, these are secretes a hormone named thymosin which stimulates the
steroid hormones (lipid soluble) which easily pass development of certain kinds of WBCs involved in
through the cell membrane and bind to specific generating immunity. It is prominent at the time of birth,
(cytoplasmic) intracellular receptors. but it gradually atrophies in adults and its disappearance
causes ageing.
96 (d) Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to the
formation of a hormone receptor complex which 105 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
causes certain biochemical changes in the target correct explanation of Assertion.
tissue. Thus, if receptor molecules are removed from Pancreas is a composite gland because it acts both as an
the target organs, then the target organ will not exocrine gland and an endocrine gland. The endocrine
respond to the hormone. pancreas consists of islets of Langerhans, which have two
99 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is main types of cells called α-cells and β-cells. The α-cells
the correct explanation of Assertion. secrete a hormone called glucagon, while the β-cells
secrete insulin.
The endocrine glands are ductless glands, i.e. lack
ducts. They pour their secretion into the surrounding The exocrine part of the pancreas consists of rounded
blood for transport to the site of action or distantly lobules (acini) that secrete an alkaline pancreatic juice
located target organ. Their secretions are called with pH 8.4. The pancreatic juices help in the digestion of
hormones. starch, proteins, fats and nucleic acids.
100 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is 106 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
the correct explanation of Assertion. corrected as
The hypothalamic hormones regulate the synthesis Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the secretion of both
and secretion pituitary hormones. Like GnRH the pancreatic enzymes as well as the bile juice.
(Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone) is released into 107 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Reason can be
the pituitary through a portal circulating system where corrected as
it causes the anterior pituitary to release hormones A hormone-receptor complex is formed when a hormone
like LH and FSH. These two hormones stimulate binds to its receptor. This leads to certain biochemical
gonadal activity and hence called gonadotropins. changes such as target tissue, metabolism and regulates
101 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion various physiological functions of the target tissues or
can be corrected as organs.
Grave’s disease caused by the enlargement of the 108 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
thyroid gland due to hyperthyroidism. correct explanation of Assertion.
102 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is Hormones interacting with membrane band receptors
not the correct explanation of Assertion. normally do not enter the target cells because they
ADH is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary generate second massengers like cyclic AMP, IP 3 , Ca 2+ ,
gland. It mainly acts on the kidneys and stimulates etc. These are responsible for the amplification of signal.
reabsorption of water and electrolytes by distal The hormone is called first messenger and cAMP is
tubules and thereby, reduce diuresis. termed as second messenger.
An impairment affecting synthesis or release of ADH 109 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Rest of the
results in the diminished ability of the kidneys to statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
conserve water leading to water loss and dehydration. l Organised endocrine glands include pineal gland,
This condition is known as diabetes insipidus. pituitary gland, pancreas, liver, ovary and testis.
l In the nervous system, the response is for a short 118 (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be
duration whereas in the endocrine system, it is for a corrected as
long duration. Steroid hormones interact with intracellular receptors.
l Hormones are produced in trace amounts by ductless Rest of the statements are correct.
(endocrine) glands.
110 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Rest of the corrected as
statements are incorrect and can be corrected as Both IP 3 and cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate
l Endocrine glands can regulate neural activity. (cAMP) are secondary messengers in hormone action.
l Neurons can regulate endocrine activity. Rest of the statements are correct.
l Neural transmission is fast whereas endocrine 120 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct about the hormone
transmission is slow. action in humans and rest are incorrect. They can be
111 (c) Statement in option (c) is correct in relation to the corrected as
endocrine system. Rest statements are incorrect and can l Glucagon is secreted by α-cells of islets of Langerhans
be corrected as and stimulates glycogenolysis.
l Neurohypophysis is under the direct neural regulation l Secretion of thymosin reduces with ageing.
of the hypothalamus. l FSH stimulates growth and development of ovarian
l Organs in the body like GI tract, heart, kidneys produce follicles in females.
hormones. 124 (c) Statement I is true, but II is false and can be
l Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the corrected as
hypothalamus. Oestradiol and progesterone are steroid hormones.
112 (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be 125 (c) Statement I is true, but II is false and can be
corrected as corrected as
Glands which have dual functions due to the presence In males, LH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
of both exocrine as well as endocrine regions are called androgens.
heterocrine glands, such as ovaries, testes and pancreas. 126 (c) Statement I is true, but II is false and can be
113 (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be Both adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are emergency
corrected as hormones and they increase heart contraction and thus,
Hypothalamus is the basal part of diencephalon, i.e. blood pressure is also increased during emergency
forebrain and not mesencephalon. situation.
Rest of the statements are correct. 130 (d) Statement I is false and II is true. The false
statement can be corrected as
corrected as Double vision, irritability and hypoglycemia are caused
Pineal gland helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of due to hypersecretion of glucagon.
sleep-wake cycle, body temperature. In addition, 131 (c) Statement I is true, but II is false and it can be
melatonin also influences metabolism, pigmentation, etc. corrected as
Rest of the statements are correct. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to impaired synthesis
or release of ADH or vasopressin. It results in
115 (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
diminished ability of kidney to conserve water leading
corrected as
to water loss and dehydration.
Adrenaline is an amino acid derivative hormone derived
133 (a) Statements I, III and IV are correct, while statements
from tyrosine amino acid. The precursor to melatioin is

II and V are incorrect and can be corrected as
serotonin, a neurotransmitter that itself is derived from
the amino acid tryptophan. Leydig cells secrete testosterone hormone which
stimulates spermatogenesis.
Neurohypophysis secretes oxytocin and ADH.
corrected as 136 (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct. Statement III is
The thyroid gland plays an important role in the incorrect and can be corrected as
regulation of the basal metabolic rate. Small amounts of androgenic, steroidal hormones
Rest of the statements are correct. secreted by the adrenal cortex play a major role in the
growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair during
117 (a) Option (a) is incorrect about inhibin. It can be puberty.
corrected as follows
137 (d) Statements I and III are correct whereas statement II
It is a glycoprotein, not a lipoprotein. is incorrect. It can be corrected as
In humans, pars intermedia is almost merged with pars 155 (d) Cushing’s syndrome is not a deficiency related
distalis to form adenohypophysis. disorder as it is caused due to the excess secretion of
138 (b) Statements I and II are correctly indicate the glucocorticoid, i.e. cortisol.
functioning of thyroid hormones. Statements III and IV 160 (c) Oxytocin is the hormone secreted by posterior
are incorrect and can be corrected as pituitary. It acts on the smooth muscles of uterus and
l Thyroid hormones regulate the blood calcium levels. stimulates their contraction also plays an important role
l Thyroid hormones maintain the balance of water and in milk secretion. Rest of the hormones are secreted by
electrolytes. anterior pituitary.
139 (c) Option (c) depicts the correct sequence of events. 161 (c) Mary, during her first five minutes before interview
The events in sequence describing the mechanism of experiences sweating, increased heartbeat and
action of protein hormones are as follows respiration because she is under stress due to which
l Hormone binds to receptor on plasma membrane. emergency hormones or hormones of flight and fight,
l Response-I (given by receptor) generation of secondary i.e. adrenaline and nor-aderaline are being released in
messenger (cyclic AMP or Ca 2+ ). her body by the adrenal medullary part of the adrenal
l Biochemical responses. gland. These hormones stimulate the breakdown of
l Physiological responses, e.g. ovarian growth, etc. glycogen resulting in increased a concentration of
glucose in the blood.
140 (c) The statement III is correct, while statements I, II and
IV are incorrect. Their corrected forms are as follows 162 (a) Leydig cells synthesise androgens when stimulated
l Catecholamines increase the heartbeat, the strength of by leutinizing hormone. This in turn stimulates the
heart contraction and the rate of respiration. process of spermatogenesis.
l Aldosterone acts on the renal tubules and stimulates the 163 (d) Exophthalmia is a condition that is not linked to
reabsorption of Na + ions and water and removal of K + deficiency of thyroid hormone. It is casued by the
and phosphate ions. oversecretion of thyroid hormone.
l Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid, whereas 166 (c) Thymosin is responsible for differentiation of
cortisol is the main glucocorticoid. T-lymphocytes which provide cell-mediated immunity.
141 (a) Statement I is correctly indicates the functioning of They also increase the production of antibodies to
gonads, statements II, III and IV are incorrect and can provide humoral immunity.
be corrected as follows 168 (b) Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called
l Ovary produces one ovum during each menstrual cycle progesterone, which supports pregnancy and stimulates
and produces two groups of steroid hormones called the development of mammary glands for milk
oestrogen and progesterone. production in mammalian females.
l Androgens influence male sex behaviour (libido) and 169 (c) Cortisol is secreted from the adrenal gland. The zona
not female sex behaviour. fasciculata region of adrenal cortex secretes cortisol,
l Androgens produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on corticosterone and cortisone. These hormones are
carbohydrate and protein metabolism. involved in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
142 (c) Statements I and III are incorrect and can be 171 (c) Hormones are called chemical signals that stimulate
corrected as specific target tissues and their action depend on the
l Epinephrine (an amino acid derivative hormone) presence of receptors on the respective target tissues.
interacts with membrane bound receptors normally do The receptors are located in plasma membrane in case
not enter the target cell, but generate secondary of protein hormones.
messengers. 174 (c) Liver is the largest gland of body surrounded by the
l Thymosin increases the production of antibodies to abdominal cavity. It does not consist of a central
provide humoral immunity. ‘medullary’ regions, surrounded by a cortical region.
Rest of the statements are correct. Rest three options, i.e. ovary, adrenal and kidney bear a
prominent ‘medullary and cortical region’.
Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom
Mesoglea Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
(a) (b)
Figure 4.2 Showing germinal layers : (a) Diploblastic (b) Triploblastic (Pg. No. 47)
Coelom
Pseudocoelom
(a) (b) (c)
Figure 4.3 Diagrammatic sectional view of : (a) Coelomate (b) Pseudocoelomate (c) Acoelomate (Pg. No. 48)
Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants
Seed coat and fruit wall Endosperm
Aleurone layer
Scutellum
Coleoptile
Endosperm
Plumule
Embryo Radicle
Coleorhiza
Figure 5.19 Structure of a monocotyledonous seed (Pg. No. 77)
Fabaceae Solanaceae Liliaceae

f d
Figure 5.21 Floral diagram Figure 5.22 Floral diagram Figure 5.23 Floral diagram
(Pg. No. 79) (Pg. No. 80) (Pg. No. 81)
*Note All Diagrams are taken from NCERT and page numbers are mentioned in bracket
Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Root hair
Root hair
Epidermis
Epidermis
Cortex Cortex
Endodermis
Pericycle
Endodermis Phloem
Pericycle
Protoxylem Protoxylem
Metaxylem
Pith
Pith
Phloem Metaxylem
(a) (b)
Figure 6.6 T.S. : (a) Dicot root (Primary) (b) Monocot root (Pg. No. 91)
Epidermal hair
Epidermis
Collenchyma
Parenchyma Epidermis
Endodermis
Pericycle Hypodermis
Phloem
Cambium
Vascular bundles
Metaxylem
Phloem
Protoxylem
Xylem
Ground
tissue
Pith
(b)
(a)
Figure 6.7 T.S. of stem : (a) Dicot (b) Monocot (Pg. No. 92)
Epidermis
Cortex
Primary phloem
Vascular cambium
Primary xylem
Pith Interfascicular cambium
Phellem
Phellogen
Medullary rays
Secondary xylem
Secondary phloem
Cambium ring
Figure 6.9 Secondary growth in a dicot stem (diagrammatic)–stages in transverse views (Pg. No. 95)
Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals
Lateral oesophageal
Dorsal vessel Lateral hearts hearts
12 13 14 15 16
4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
3 Commissural
2 vessel
1
Subneural
vessel
Lateral oesophageal vessel Ventral vessel Anterior loops
Figure 7.11 Closed circulatory system of earthworm (Pg. No. 109)
1
2
3
4
5
Mouth
7 Spermathecae
Buccal cavity Ducts of pharyngeal
nephridia 8
Pharynx 9 Testis sac with testes
10
Blood glands Tufts of pharyngeal
11
nephridia Spermiducal funnels
12
Seminal vesicles
13 Ovary
14 Ovarian funnel
Integumentary nephridia
15 Oviduct
Vasa deferentia
16
Accessory glands
17
Forests of integumentary Common prostatic
nephridia and spermatic duct
18
Septal nephridia 19 Prostate gland

20
Figure 7.12 Nephridial system in earthworm Figure 7.13 Reproductive system of earthworm
(Pg. No. 109) (Pg. No. 110)
Testis
Phallic gland
Small tubules
Long tubules Ovary
Oviduct
Seminal vesicle
Vas deferens Common oviduct
or vagina
Ejaculatory duct
Right phallomere Spermatheca Collaterial glands
Ventral phallomere
Anal cercus Genital chamber
Genital
Caudal style
Pseudopenis Gonapophyses Vestibulum pouch
Left Titillator
phallomere (a) (b)
Figure 7.18 Reproductive system of cockroach : (a) Male (b) Female (Pg. No. 115)
Pharynx
Salivary gland
Heart Oesophagus
Salivary reservoir
Liver
Oesophagus Gall bladder
Crop Lung
Stomach
Gizzard Fat bodies
Hepatic caeca Kidney
Mesenteron Ureter Intestine

or midgut Urinary
bladder Rectum
Malpighian
tubules Cloaca
Rectum
Ileum Cloacal
aperture
Colon
Figure 7.20 Diagrammatic representation of internal organs of
Figure 7.16 Alimentary canal of cockroach frog showing complete digestive system (Pg. No. 117)
(Pg. No. 113)
Vasa
efferentia Oviduct
Fat bodies
Ovary
Testis Ova
Kidney
Adrenal gland Ureter

Urinogenital duct
Rectum
Cloaca
Cloaca
Urinary bladder Cloacal aperture
Cloacal aperture
Figure 7.21 Male reproductive system in frog Urinary bladder
(Pg. No. 119)
Figure 7.22 Female reproductive system in frog (Pg. No. 119)
Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Endodermis Xylem
Symplastic path
Casparian strip Phloem

Apoplastic path
Cortex Pericycle
Figure 11.7 Symplastic and apoplastic pathways of water and ion absorption and movement in roots (Pg. No. 185)
Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Stroma (low H+) +
NADP+ +H+ NADPH
H
Light
Light FNR
Cytochrome
Fd
P680 PQ
B6f
PS II PQH2 P700
one PC PS I
toquin
Plas H+ Plastoc
yanin
H2O 1 O +H+
2
2
Oxidation
of water H+
H+ H+
High Lumen
Electroche
mical H+ (high H+)
Potential
Thylakoid membrane Gradient CF0
Stroma
Low
ATP
Synthase CF1
ADP + Pi ATP
+
H
Figure 13.7 ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis (Pg. No. 214)
Atmospheric CO2
Mesophyll cell
Plasma membrane
Cell wall
Phosphoenol
HCO–3 Pyruvate
Fixation Regeneration
C4 acid C3 acid
Plasmodesmata
Bundle
sheath cell Transport Transport
Fixation by
C4 acid Calvin cycle
CO2
Decarboxylation C3 acid
Figure 13.9 Diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack pathway (Pg. No. 219)
Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants
Inter-membrane
2H+ 4H+
4H+
space
e– e– III
Cyt-c Cyt-c I
+
+
+
+
Cyt-c1
Cyt-a
CuA e–
Inner mitochondrial
F0
Electrochemical
(Fe–S)
membrane
UQ (Fe–S)
gradient
Fe–S
Cyt-a3
UQ
UQH2
UQH2 e–
F1
FAD
ATP
CuB
Cyt-b
synthase II e– FMN
IV e–
–
–
–
–
2e–
2H + 1 + + Succinate
H+ ADP+Pi O 2H
ATP H2O 2 2 Fumarate NADH + H+ Matrix
NAD
Complex II
Complex IV (Succinate Complex III Complex I
(Cytochrome-c oxidase) dehydrogenase) (Cytochrome-bc1) (NADH dehydrogenase)
Figure 14.4 Electron Transport System (ETS) (Pg. No. 233)
Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption
Oral cavity
Parotid gland
Mouth
Pharynx
Submaxillary and
sublingual glands
Oesophagus
Liver
Gall bladder Stomach
Pancreas
Duodenum
Transverse colon Jejunum

Ascending colon Descending colon
Ileum
Sigmoid colon
Caecum
Rectum
Vermiform appendix
Anus
Figure 16.1 The human digestive system (Pg. No. 258)
Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases
Air entering lungs Air expelled from lungs
Ribs and
sternum
Ribs and returned to
sternum original Volume of
Volume of
raised thorax position thorax
increased decreased
Rib cage
Diaphragm
Diaphragm relaxed
contracted and arched
upwards
(a) (b)
Figure 17.2 Mechanism of breathing showing : (a) Inspiration (b) Expiration (Pg. No. 271)
Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation
Aorta
Vena cava
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary veins
Sino-atrial node Left atrium
Right atrium
Atrio-ventricular node
Bundle of His
Chordae tendinae
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Interventricular septum
Apex
Figure 18.2 Section of a human heart (Pg. No. 283)
Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination
Afferent Efferent
arteriole arteriole
Medullary Glomerulus
pyramid Bowman’s
Renal capsule Proximal
column convoluted
tubule
Calyx
Distal
convoluted
Renal artery tubule
Descending limb
Cortex Renal vein of loop of Henle
Renal Renal pelvis Henle’s loop
capsule Ureter
Ascending limb
of loop of Henle
Vasa recta Collecting duct
Figure 19.2 Longitudinal section (Diagrammatic) Figure 19.3 A diagrammatic representation of a nephron showing
of kidney (Pg. No. 292) blood vessels, duct and tubule (Pg. No. 292)
Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination

Afferent pathway Dorsal root ganglion
White matter
Muscle spindle
(receptor)
Grey matter
Stimulus Interneuron
Motor endplate Efferent pathway
(effector) Motor neuron
Response
Figure 21.5 Diagrammatic presentation of reflex action (showing knee jerk reflex) (Pg. No. 322)
Temporal bone
Pinna Malleus
Incus
Stapes in oval window
Cochlear nerve
Cochlea
Tympanic
External auditory canal membrane
Eustachian tube
Figure 21.7 Diagrammatic view of ear (Pg. No. 325)

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ASTER THE CERT

ASTER THE CERT

ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (Series), MEERUT

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1. THE LIVING WORLD 1-16

2. BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION 17-43

3. PLANT KINGDOM 44-73

4. ANIMAL KINGDOM 74-103

5. MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS 104-129

6. ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS 130-155

7. STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS 156-186

Mastering NCERT with MCQs

8. CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE 187-210

10. CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION 236-252

11. TRANSPORT IN PLANTS 253-279

12. MINERAL NUTRITION 280-299

13. PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS 300-324

14. RESPIRATION IN PLANTS 325-345

15. PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT 346-370

16. DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION 371-393

17. BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES 394-414

18. BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION 415-441

19. EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION 442-463

20. LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT 464-483

21. NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION 484-507

22. CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION 508-532

Some Important Diagrams of NCERT (Multicolored Diagrams) 1-8

The Living World

NEET KEY NOTES

TOPIC 1 ~ What is Living?

14 Consciousness is the defining property of living (c) molecular constituent of an organelle

TOPIC 2 ~ Diversity and Classification

TOPIC 3 ~ Taxonomic Categories

TOPIC 4~ Taxonomic Aids

C. Actual account of habitat 3. Royal Botanical Codes

Codes 122 Match the following columns.

C. Indian Botanical Garden 3. Lucknow D. Lectotype 4. A specimen selected from

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar

> NEET Special Types Questions

> NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

Answers & Explanations

living organisms in all taxonomic categories.

These reproduce asexually by binary fission.

Å During unfavourable conditions, these form spores.

NEET KEY NOTES

Å Protozoans are heterotrophs and live as parasites or n

NEET KEY NOTES

TOPIC 1 ~ Introduction and Kingdom–Monera

42 Which one of the following is a characteristic feature 50 Plant-like nutrition is present in

60 Flagellate protozoans are 64 Which of the following groups always produce an

TOPIC 4 ~ Kingdom–Plantae and Animalia

TOPIC 5 ~ Viruses, Viroids, Prions and Lichens

III. Matching Type Questions Codes

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar

NCERT 223 The five kingdom classification was proposed by

> NEET Special Types Questions

> NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

Answers & Explanations

Animalia. corresponds to the features given is archaebacteria.

99 (b) Morels and truffles differ widely in their form and

NEET Special Types Questions

NEET Special Types Questions