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[Based on Latest CBSE Curriculum]

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CONTENTS
Latest Syllabus (Issued by CBSE) (v)

Latest Question Paper Design


Paper (Issued by CBSE) (viii)

Objective Type Questions


Type
(Including MCQs) (Chapterwise) (Q-1)

Sample Question P apers (1-5)


Papers
(W ith Hints & Answers)
(With SQP-1

Chapterwise Previous Y
Previous ears’ CBSE Examination Questions
Years’

Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 14

Chapter 3 Metals and Non-Metals 27

Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds 41

Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements 69

Chapter 6 Life Processes 91

Chapter 7 Control and Coordination 104

Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? 113

Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution 133

Chapter 10 Light: Reflection and Refraction 151

Chapter 11 The Human Eye and the Colourful World 195

Chapter 12 Electricity 208

Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 233

Chapter 14 Sources of Energy 244


CONTENTS
Chapter 15 Our Environment 254

Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 264

Past Y
Past ears’ CBSE Examination Question P
Years’ apers
Papers

2012-13 (Delhi & Outside Delhi) P-1, 4


P-1,
2013-14 (Delhi & Outside Delhi) P-6, 9
P-6,
2014-15 (Delhi & Outside Delhi) P-12, 14
P-12,
2015-16 (Delhi & Outside Delhi) P-16, 19
P-16,
2017 (Delhi) P-22
P-22
2017 (Outside Delhi) P-24
P-24
2018 (Common for Delhi & Outside Delhi) P-27
P-27
2019 (Series JMS/1) P-39
P-39
2019 (Series JMS/4) P-51
P-51
2020 (Series JBB/1) P-63
P-63
2020 (Series JBB/3) P-79
P-79

####
SYLLABUS
(Latest Syllabus Issued by CBSE–2021)

SCIENCE
COURSE STRUCTURE—CLASS X
Unit No. Unit Marks Periods
I. Chemical Substances: Nature and Behaviour 25 55
II. World of Living 23 50
III. Natural Phenomena 12 23
IV. Effects of Current 13 32
V. Natural Resources 07 20
Total 80
Internal assessment 20
Grand Total 100

THEME: MATERIALS (55 Periods)


UNIT I: Chemical Substances—Nature and Behaviour
Chemical reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation, implication of a balanced chemical
equation, types of chemical reactions: Combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement,
precipitation, neutralization, oxidation and reduction.
Acids, bases and salts: Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH– ions, General properties,
examples and uses, concept of pH scale (Definition relating to logarithm not required), importance of pH in
everyday life; preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide, Bleaching powder, Baking soda, Washing soda
and Plaster of Paris.
Metals and nonmetals: Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series;
Formation and properties of ionic compounds; Basic metallurgical processes;
Corrosion and its prevention.
Carbon compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of carbon. Homologous
series. Nomenclature of carbon compounds containing functional groups (halogens, alcohol, ketones,
aldehydes, alkanes and alkynes), difference between saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition and substitution reaction).
Ethanol and Ethanoic acid (only properties and uses), soaps and detergents.
Periodic classification of elements: Need for classification, Early attempts at classification of elements
(Dobereiner’s Triads, Newland’s Law of Octaves, Mendeleev’s Periodic Table), Modern periodic table,
gradation in properties, valency, atomic number, metallic and non-metallic properties.

THEME: THE WORLD OF THE LIVING (50 Periods)


UNIT II: World of Living
Life processes: ‘Living Beings’. Basic concept of nutrition, respiration, transport and excretion in plants and
animals.
Control and co-ordination in animals and plants: Tropic movements in plants; Introduction of plant
hormones; Control and co-ordination in animals; Nervous system; Voluntary, involuntary and reflex action;
Chemical co-ordination: animal hormones.

(v)
Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual) reproductive health-need and
methods of family planning. Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS. Child bearing and women’s health.
Heredity and Evolution: Heredity; Mendel’s contribution—Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex determination:
brief introduction; Basic concepts of evolution.

THEME: NATURAL PHENOMENA (23 Periods)


UNIT III: Natural Phenomena
Reflection of light by curved surfaces, Images formed by spherical mirrors, centre of curvature, principal axis,
principal focus, focal length, mirror formula (Derivation not required), magnification.
Refraction: laws of refraction, refractive index.
Refraction of light by spherical lens; Image formed by spherical lenses; Lens formula (Derivation not
required), Magnification. Power of a lens.
Functioning of a lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections, applications of spherical mirrors
and lenses.
Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light, applications in daily life.

THEME: HOW THINGS WORK (32 Periods)


UNIT IV: Effects of Current
Electric current, potential difference and electric current. Ohm’s law; Resistance, resistivity, Factors on which
the resistance of a conductor depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of resistors and
its applications in daily life. Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily life. Electric power,
Interrelation between P, V, I and R.
Magnetic effects of current: Magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current carrying conductor, field due to
current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying conductor, Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, Electric
Motor, Electromagnetic induction. Induced potential difference, Induced current. Fleming’s Right Hand
Rule, Electric Generator, Direct Current. Alternating Current : frequency of AC. Advantage of AC over DC.
Domestic electric circuits.

THEME: NATURAL RESOURCES (20 Periods)


UNIT V: Natural Resources
Sources of energy: Different forms of energy, conventional and non-conventional sources of energy: Fossil
fuels, solar energy; biogas; wind, water and tidal energy; Nuclear energy. Renewable versus non-renewable
sources of Energy.
Our environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, waste production and their
solutions. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
Management of natural resources: Conservation and judicious use of natural resources. Forest and wild life;
Coal and Petroleum conservation. Examples of people’s participation for conservation of natural resources.
Big dams: advantages and limitations; alternatives, if any. Water harvesting. Sustainability of natural resources.

PRACTICALS
Practicals should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes.
List of Experiments
1. A. Finding the pH of the following samples by using pH paper / universal indicator: Unit-I
(a) Dilute Hydrochloric Acid
(b) Dilute NaOH solution
(c) Dilute Ethanoic Acid Solution
(d) Lemon juice
(e) Water
(f) Dilute Hydrogen Carbonate solution
B. Studying the properties of acids and bases (HCl & NaOH) on the basis of their reaction with:
Unit-I
(a) Litmus solution (Blue/Red)
(vi)
(b) Zinc metal
(c) Solid sodium carbonate
2. Performing and observing the following reactions and classifying them into: Unit-I
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Double displacement reaction
(i) Action of water on quicklime
(ii) Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals
(iii) Iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution
(iv) Reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions
3. Observing the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and Al metals on the following salt solutions: Unit-I
(a) ZnSO4 (aq)
(b) FeSO4 (aq)
(c) CuSO4 (aq)
(d) Al2 (SO4)3 (aq)
Arranging Zn, Fe, Cu and Al (metals) in the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above result.
4. Studying the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing through it
and determine its resistance. Also plotting a graph between V and I. Unit-IV
5. Determination of the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series and parallel. Unit-IV
6. Preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata. Unit-II
7. Experimentally show that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration. Unit-II
8. Study of the following properties of acetic acid (ethanoic acid): Unit-I
(i) odour
(ii) solubility in water
(iii) effect on litmus
(iv) reaction with sodium Hydrogen Carbonate
9. Study of the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water. Unit-I
10. Determination of the focal length of: Unit-III
(i) Concave mirror
(ii) Convex lens
by obtaining the image of a distant object.
11. Tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence.
Measure the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of emergence and interpret the result. Unit-III
12. Studying (a) binary fission in Amoeba, and (b) budding in yeast and Hydra with the help of prepared slides.
Unit-II
13. Tracing the path of the rays of light through a glass prism. Unit-III
14. Finding the image distance for varying object distances in case of a convex lens and drawing
corresponding ray diagrams to show the nature of image formed. Unit-III
15. Identification of the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed (Pea, gram or red kidney bean). Unit-III

Prescribed Books
• Science-Text book for class X-NCERT Publication
• Assessment of Practical Skills in Science - Class X, CBSE Publication
• Laboratory Manual-Science-Class X, NCERT Publication
• Exemplar Problems Class X—NCERT Publication

####

(vii)
ASSESSMENT AREAS (THEORY) 2020-21
(CODE NO. 086)
CLASS-X
Duration: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
Competencies
Demonstrate Knowledge and Understanding 46%
Application of Knowledge/Concepts 22%
Analyze, Evaluate and Create 32%
Note:
• Typology of Questions: VSA including Objective Type Questions, Assertion–Reasoning type
questions; SA; LA; Source-based/Case-based/Passage-based/Integrated assessment questions.
• An internal choice of approximately 33% would be provided.

Internal Assessment: 20 Marks


• Periodic Assessment—05 marks + 05 marks
• Subject Enrichment (Practical Work)—05 marks
• Portfolio—05 marks

Suggestive verbs for various competencies


• Demonstrate Knowledge and Understanding
State, name, list, identify, define, suggest, describe, outline, summarize, etc.
• Application of Knowledge/Concepts
Calculate, illustrate, show, adapt, explain, distinguish, etc.
• Analyze, Evaluate and Create
Interpret, analyze, compare, contrast, examine, evaluate, discuss, construct, etc.

####

(viii)
* Due to Covid-19 Pandemic the CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION
has reduced the Syllabus for Academic Year 2020-21.

DELETED TOPICS—SYLLABUS 2020-21


Issued by CBSE
CLASS X—SCIENCE
Î DELETED PORTION (THEORY)
‹ Under Unit I: Chemical Substances—Nature and Behaviour
• Metals and Non-metals: Basic Metallurgical processes; Corrosion and its prevention.
• Carbon and its Compounds: Nomenclature of carbon compounds containing functional
groups (halogens, alcohol, ketones, aldehydes, alkanes and alkynes), difference between
saturated hydro carbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Chemical properties of carbon
compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition and substitution reaction). Ethanol and Ethanoic
acid (only properties and uses), soaps and detergents.
‹ Under Unit II: World of Living
• Control and Co-ordination in Animals and Plants: Tropic movements in plants; Introduction
of plant hormones; Control and co-ordination in animals: Nervous system; Voluntary,
involuntary and reflex action; Chemical co-ordination: animal hormones.
• Heredity and Evolution: Basic concepts of evolution.
‹ Under Unit III: Natural Phenomena
• The Human Eye and the Colourful World: Functioning of a lens in Human eye, defects of
vision and their corrections, applications of spherical mirrors and lenses.
‹ Under Unit IV: Effects of Current
• Magnetic Effects of Electric Current: Electric Generator, Direct current.
Alternating current: frequency of AC, Advantage of AC over DC, Domestic electric circuits.
‹ Under Unit V: Natural Resources
• Sources of energy: Different forms of energy, conventional and non-conventional sources of
energy: Fossil fuels, solar energy; biogas; wind, water and tidal energy; Nuclear energy.
Renewable versus non-renewable sources of Energy.

Î DELETED PORTION (PRACTICALS)


1. Finding the pH of the following samples by using pH paper/universal indicator:
• Dilute Hydrochloric Acid
• Dilute NaOH solution
• Dilute Ethanoic Acid solution
• Lemon juice
• Water
• Dilute Hydrogen Carbonate solution
2. Determination of the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series and parallel.
3. Preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata.
4. Study of the following properties of acetic acid (ethanoic acid):
• Odour
• Solubility in water
• Effect on litmus
• Reaction with Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate
5. Study of the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water.
6. Finding the image distance for varying object distances in case of a convex lens and drawing
corresponding ray diagrams to show the nature of image formed.
7. Identification of the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed (Pea, gram or red kidney bean).

Î INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
• Management of natural resources: Conservation and judicious use of natural resources. Forest
and wild life; Coal and Petroleum conservation. Examples of people’s participation for
conservation of natural resources. Big dams: advantages and limitations; alternatives, if any.
Water harvesting. Sustainability of natural resources.

####
CLASS X-SCIENCE
STUDENT ALERT !
The following questions are not in syllabus for this session as these topics have been deleted from the
latest syllabus due to COVID-19 Pandemic.
Sample Question Papers Question Numbers Page Number
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2020) (Solved) Q. 3 Page S-(i)
Q. 4 Page S-(ii)
Q. 5, 5(Or), 8, 8(Or) Page S-(iii)
Q. 21, 23 Page S-(vii)
Q. 25 Page S-(viii)
Q. 26 Page S-(ix)
Sample Question Paper 1 (Unsolved) Q. 1, 2, 3 Page SQP-1
Q. 6, 10 Page SQP-2
Q. 17 Page SQP-3
Q. 24, 28, 28(Or) Page SQP-4
Sample Question Paper 2 (Unsolved) Q. 4 Page SQP-6
Q. 5, 8, 9, 10, 12 Page SQP-7
Q. 21 Page SQP-8
Q. 25 Page SQP-9
Q. 27, 28(Or), 29 Page SQP-10
Sample Question Paper 3 (Unsolved) Q. 1, 2, 4 Page SQP-11
Q. 12, 13 Page SQP-12
Q. 16, 18, 22 Page SQP-13
Q. 28, 29 Page SQP-14
Sample Question Paper 4 (Unsolved) Q. 1, 2(Or), 3(Or), 4 Page SQP-15
Q. 6(Or), 7, 12 Page SQP-16
Q. 13, 15, 17, 18, 20, 20(Or) Page SQP-17
Q. 28, 29(Or), 30 Page SQP-19
Sample Question Paper 5 (Unsolved) Q. 3 Page SQP-20
Q. 7, 9, 9(Or), 10, 10(Or), 14, 15 Page SQP-21
Q. 19, 20 Page SQP-22
Q. 22, 24(Or) Page SQP-23
Q. 30 Page SQP-24

Objective Type Questions Question Numbers Page Number


Chapter 3: Metals & Non-Metals MCQs: Q. 12, 17, 18, 19, 20 Page Q-7
Fill in the Blanks: Q. 9 Page Q-8
Chapter 4: Carbon & Its Compounds MCQs: Q. 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 16, 17, 20 Pages Q-8 – Q-9
Chapter 7: Control & Coordination Complete Chapter Pages Q-13 – Q-14
Chapter 9: Heredity & Evolution MCQs: Q. 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Pages Q-16 – Q-17
Fill in the Blanks: 2, 5, 7, 8 Page Q-17
Chapter 11: Human Eye & Colourful World MCQs: Q. 1, 2, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13 Pages Q-19 – Q-20
Fill in the Blanks: Q. 1, 3, 4, 5 Pages Q-19 – Q-20
Chapter 13: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current MCQs: Q. 7, 11, 12 Page Q-21
Fill in the Blanks: Q. 3, 4, 22 Page Q-21
Chapter 14: Sources of Energy Complete Chapter Page Q-22

Chapters Question Numbers Page Number


Chapter 3: Metals & Non-Metals Q. 1 Page 29
Q. 2, 8 Page 30
Q. 10 Page 31
Q. 11, 13 Page 33
Q. 17, 18(a), (b) Page 34
Q. 20 Page 35
Q. 25 Page 37
Class-X Science continued...
Q. 26 Page 38
Q. 28, 29 Page 39
Chapter 4: Carbon and Its Compounds Q. 2 Page 43
Q. 7, 8, 10, 11, 12 Page 45
Q. 13, 14, 15 Page 46
Q. 6, 7, 9, 10 Page 47
Q. 11, 12, 20, 22 Page 48
Q. 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28 Page 49
Q. 29, 30, 31 Page 50
Q. 32, 34, 35 Page 51
Q. 36, 37, 38 Page 52
Q. 39, 41 Page 53
Q. 42, 43 Page 54
Q. 48 Page 55
Q. 49 Page 56
Q. 50, 51, 54 Page 57
Q. 56, 57, 58, 59 Page 58
Q. 60, 61, 62, 63 Page 59
Q. 64, 65, 66, 67 Page 60
Q. 70 Page 61
Q. 71, 72 Page 62
Q. 74, 76 Page 63
Q. 80, 81, 82 Page 65
Q. 1 Page 66
Q. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, Page 67
Q. 9, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16 Page 68
Chapter 7: Control & Coordination Complete Chapter Pages 104-112
Chapter 9: Heredity & Evolution Q. 3 Page 134
Q. 5, 6, 8, 9 Page 135
Q. 12, 1, 2, 4(ii) Page 136
Q. 15, 17 Page 137
Q. 18, 20, 21 Page 138
Q. 23, 24, 25, 26 Page 139
Q. 28, 29 Page 140
Q. 30, 32, 33 Page 141
Q. 36 Page 142
Q. 37, 39 Page 143
Q. 44 Page 145
Q. 46, 47 Page 146
Q. 52 Page 147
Q. 54 Page 148
Q. 57, 58 Page 149
Q. 59, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Page 150
Chapter 11: Human Eye & Colourful World Q. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 Page 196
Q. 8, 9 Page 197
Q. 7, 8, 9 Page 198
Q. 13, 14, 15 Page 199
Q. 17 Page 200
Q. 29 Page 203
Q. 31, 33, 34, 35 Page 204
Q. 36, 37, 38, 39 Page 205
Q. 42 Page 207
Chapter 13: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Q. 4 Page 234
Q. 5, 6(b), (d) Page 235
Q. 15 Page 236
Q. 16, 17 Page 237
Chapter 14: Sources of Energy Complete Chapter Pages 244-253
_______________
SCIENCE
Chapterwise
Objective Type
Questions
(with answers)
1. Chemical Reactions & Equations
Multiple Choice Questions (ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process
Q.1. Which of the following is a displacement has occurred.
reaction? (iii) In beaker C exothermic process has
(a) MgCO3 æææ Æ MgO + CO2 occurred.
(b) 2Na + 2H2O æææ Æ 2NaOH + H2 (iv) In beaker C endothermic process has
(c) 2H2 + O2 æææ Æ 2H2O occurred.
(d) 2Pb (NO3)2 ⎯⎯⎯ Heat
→ 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
Q.2. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed before burning (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iv), (ii) and (iii)
because it has a coating of Q.8. Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen
(a) basic magnesium carbonate are present in water by volume.
(b) basic magnesium oxide (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 8
(c) basic magnesium sulphide Q.9. Which among the following statement(s) is
(d) basic magnesium chloride (are) true?
Q.3. Which of the following statements about the Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a
given reaction are correct? long duration turns grey due to
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) æææ Æ Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g) (i) the formation of silver by decomposition of
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised silver chloride
(ii) Water is getting reduced (ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent (iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver
(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent chloride

s
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (iv) oxidation of silver chloride

a
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)

D
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

v
Q.4. Which of the following are exothermic processes? (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iv) only

Shi
(i) Reaction of water with quick lime Q.10. MnO2 + 4HCl æææ Æ MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(ii) Dilution of an acid Identify the substance oxidized in the above
(iii) Evaporation of water equation.
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals) (a) MnCl2 (b) HCl (c) H2O (d) MnO2
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) Q.11. A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing and
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) is obtained by heating limestone in the
Q.5. Oxidation is a process which involves absence of air. Identify ‘X’.
(a) addition of oxygen (a) CaOCl2 (b) Ca (OH)2
(b) addition of hydrogen (c) CaO (d) CaCO3
(c) removal of oxygen Q.12. When Ag is exposed to air it gets a black
(d) removal of hydrogen coating of
Q.6. The process of reduction involves (a) AgNO3 (b) Ag2S (c) Ag2O (d) Ag2CO3
(a) addition of oxygen Q.13. Which of the following is an endothermic
(b) addition of hydrogen process?
(c) removal of oxygen (a) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(d) removal of hydrogen (b) Sublimation of dry ice
Q.7. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each (c) Condensation of water vapours
containing 25 ml of water were taken. A small (d) Respiration in human beings
amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl Q.14. In the double displacement reaction between
were added to the beakers A, B and C aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead
respectively. It was observed that there was an nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is
increase in the temperature of the solution formed. While performing the activity if lead
contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case nitrate is not available, which of the following
of beaker C, the temperature of the solution can be used in place of lead nitrate?
falls. Which one of the following statement(s) (a) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
is (are) correct? (b) Lead acetate
(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has (c) Ammonium nitrate
occurred. (d) Potassium sulphate

Q-2 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-3

Q.15. What type of chemical reactions take place (c) decomposition (d) displacement
when electricity is passed through water? Q.23. Which of the following gases can be used for
(a) Displacement (b) Combination storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long
(c) Decomposition (d) Double displacement time?
Q.16. Select the oxidising agent for the following (a) Carbon dioxide or Oxygen
reaction: (b) Nitrogen or Oxygen
H2S + I2 æææ Æ 2HI + S (c) Carbon dioxide or Helium
(a) I2 (b) H2S (c) HI (d) S (d) Helium or Nitrogen
Q.17. A substance added to food containing fats and Q.24. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradu-
oils is called: ally added to the beaker containing acidified
(a) Oxidant (b) Rancid permanganate solution. The light purple
(c) Coolant (d) Antioxidant colour of the solution fades and finally disap-
Q.18. The condition produced by aerial oxidation of pears. Which of the following is the correct
fats and oils in foods marked by unpleasant explanation for the observation?
smell and taste is called: (a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises
(a) antioxidation (b) reduction FeSO4.
(c) rancidity (d) corrosion (b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and
Q.19. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition oxidises KMNO4.
reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen (c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no
gases liberated during electrolysis of water is: reaction is involved.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 (d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and de-
Q.20. When SO2 gas is passed through saturated composes in presence of FeSO4 to a

s
solution of H2S, which of the following colourless compound.

Da
reaction occurs? Q.25. In which of the following chemical equations,

v
the abbreviations represent the correct states

i
(a) SO2 + 2H2S æææ Æ 2H2O + 3S

Sh
(b) SO2 + 2H2S æææ Æ H2O + 3S of the reactants and products involved at
(c) SO2 + H2S æææ Æ H2O + S reaction temperature?
(d) SO2 + H2O æææ Æ SO3 + H2 (a) 2H2 (l) + O2 (l) æææ Æ 2H2O (g)
Q.21. Name the products formed when iron filings (b) 2H2 (g) + O2 (l) æææ Æ 2H2O (l)
are heated with dilute hydrochloric acid (c) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) æææ Æ 2H2O (l)
(a) Fe (III) chloride and water (d) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) æææ Æ 2H2O (g)
(b) Fe (II) chloride and water Q.26. When green coloured ferrous sulphate crystals
(c) Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas are heated, the colour of the crystal changes
(d) Fe (III) chloride and hydrogen gas because
Q.22. Pb + CuCl2 æææ Æ PbCl2 + Cu (a) it is decomposed to ferric oxide
The above reaction is an example of: (b) it loses water of crystallisation
(a) combination (b) double displacement (c) it forms SO2 (d) it forms SO3

ANSWERS WITH REASONING


1. (b) Reason: Here sodium (Na) displaces to form sodium hydroxide.
2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) Reason: In both the cases, heat energy is evolved.
5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a)
10. (d) Reason: In this reaction HCl is oxidised to Cl2, whereas MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.
Heat
11. (a) Reason: CaCO3 æææ Æ CaO + CO2 12. (b) 13. (b)
Lime Stone Quick lime
Heat
CaO + H2O æææ Æ Ca(OH)2
Quick lime Slaked lime
Heat
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 æææ Æ CaOCl2 + H2O
Slaked lime Bleaching powder
Current
14. (b) 15. (c) Reason: 2H2O (l) ææææ Æ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction.
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) Reason: 2Fe + 6HCl æææ Æ 2FeCl3 (Iron (III) chloride) + 3H2
22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b)
Q-4 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The addition of oxygen to a substance is called ............. whereas removal of oxygen is called ............. .
2. The addition of hydrogen to a substance is called ............. whereas removal of hydrogen is called ............. .
3. Precipitation reactions produce insoluble ............. .
4. Reactions in which energy is given out are known as ............. .
5. Reaction in which an element displaces another element from its compound is called ............. .
6. Two antioxidants which are usually added to fat and oil containing foods to prevent rancidity, are .............,
............. .
7. ............. is the process in which metals are eaten up gradually by the action of air, moisture or a chemical on
their surface.
8. 2 FeSO4 æææ Æ Fe2O3 + SO2 + ……………
9. Na2SO4 + BaCl2 æææ Æ ………… + 2NaCl
10. Complete the missing components/variables given as x and y in the following reactions:
(a) Pb (NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) æææ Æ PbI2 (x) + 2KNO3 (y)
(b) Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) æææ Æ Cu (NO3)2 (aq) + x (s)

ANSWERS
1. oxidation, reduction 2. reduction, oxidation 3. salts 4. exothermic reactions
5. displacement reaction 6. BHA and BHT 7. Corrosion 8. SO3
9. BaSO4 10. (a) x æææ Æ (s); y æææÆ (aq); (b) x æææ
Æ 2Ag

2. Acids, Bases & Salts


Daas
s
Shhii
vv D
S
Multiple Choice Questions Q.5. What is formed when zinc reacts with sodium
Q.1. What happens when a solution of an acid is hydroxide?
mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube? (a) Zinc hydroxide and sodium
(i) Temperature of the solution decreases (b) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
(ii) Temperature of the solution increases (c) Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
(iii) Temperature of the solution remains the same (d) Sodium zincate and water
(iv) Salt formation takes place Q.6. Tomato is a natural source of which acid?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid
(c) (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iv) (c) Tartaric acid (d) Oxalic acid
Q.2. When hydrogen chloride gas is prepared on a Q.7. Brine is an
humid day, the gas is usually passed through (a) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
the guard tube containing calcium chloride. (b) aqueous solution of sodium carbonate
The role of calcium chloride taken in the (c) aqueous solution of sodium chloride
guard tube is to (d) aqueous solution of sodium bicarbonate
(a) absorb the evolved gas Q.8. Na2CO3 . 10H2O is
(b) moisten the gas (a) washing soda (b) baking soda
(c) absorb moisture from the gas (c) bleaching powder (d) tartaric acid
(d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas Q.9. At what temperature is gypsum heated to form
Q.3. Which one of the following salts does not con- Plaster of Paris?
tain water of crystallisation? (a) 90°C (b) 100°C (c) 110°C (d) 120°C
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda Q.10. How many water molecules does hydrated cal-
(c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum cium sulphate contain?
Q.4. In terms of acidic strength, which one of the (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 2
following is in the correct increasing order? Q.11. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid salt of a
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid (a) strong acid and strong base
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid (b) weak acid and weak base
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid (c) strong acid and weak base
(d) weak acid and strong base
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-5

Q.12. Alkalis are (a) bleaching powder (b) baking powder


(a) acids, which are soluble in water (c) baking soda (d) washing soda
(b) acids, which are insoluble in water Q.16. Nettle sting is a natural source of which acid?
(c) bases, which are insoluble in water (a) Methanoic acid (b) Lactic acid
(d) bases, which are soluble in water (c) Citric acid (d) Tartaric acid
Q.13. Which of the following statements is correct Q.17. Tooth enamel is made up of
about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a (a) calcium phosphate (b) calcium carbonate
base? (c) calcium oxide (d) potassium
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid Q.18. What is the pH range of our body?
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid (a) 7.0 – 7.8 (b) 7.2 – 8.0
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base (c) 7.0 – 8.4 (d) 7.2 – 8.4
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base Q.19. Rain is called acid rain when its:
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) pH falls below 7 (b) pH falls below 6
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) (c) pH falls below 5.6 (d) pH is above 7
Q.14. The apparatus given in the adjoining figure Q.20. Sodium hydroxide is a
was set up to demonstrate electrical conducti- (a) weak base (b) weak acid
vity. (c) strong base (d) strong acid
Q.21. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution
blue. Excess addition of which of the follow-
ing solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder
(b) Lime

s
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution

a
(d) Hydrochloric acid

D
Q.22. When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric

Shiv
acid react, colour changes to
(a) white (b) bluish-green
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) (c) blue-black (d) black
correct? Q.23. Sodium hydroxide is used
(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is (a) as an antacid
not acidic. (b) in manufacture of soap
(ii) Bulb will glow because HCl is a strong acid (c) as a cleansing agent
and furnishes ions for conduction. (d) in alkaline batteries
(iii) Bulb will not glow because circuit is Q.24. Sodium hydroxide turns phenolphthalein so-
incomplete. lution
(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends (a) pink (b) yellow
upon the type of electrolytic solution. (c) colourless (d) orange
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) Q.25. Chemical formula of washing soda is
(c) (ii) only (d) (iv) only (a) Na2CO3 . 7H2O (b) Na2CO3 . 5H2O
Q.15. Lime water reacts with chlorine to give (c) Na2CO3 . 2H2O (d) Na2CO3 . 10H2O

ANSWERS WITH REASONING


1. (d) 2. (c); Reason: Guard tube drys (absorbs water) from calcium chloride on a humid day.
3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b); Reason: Zn + 2NaOH æææÆ Na2ZnO2 (Sodium Zincate) + H2
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b)
10. (d); Reason: Chemical formula of hydrated calcium sulphate or gypsum is CaSO4.2H2O
11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (d); Reason: Stronger the acid, lesser is the pH. Stronger the base, higher is the pH.
14. (c) 15. (a); Reason: Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 æææ Æ CaOCl2 + H2O
Slaked lime Chlorine Bleaching powder
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c)
20. (c); Reason: Sodium hydroxide ionises in water and produces a large amount of hydroxide ions.
21. (d) 22. (b); Reason: Blue-green colour of solution is due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.
23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)
Q-6 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Fill in the blanks


1. Acids turn ............... litmus solution ............... .
2. pH of basic solution is always ............... than 7.
3. ............... are the products obtained when bleaching powder reacts with dilute sulphuric acid.
4. Potassium nitrate has pH value equal to ............... .
5. ............... is the fixed number of water molecules chemically attached to each formula unit of a salt in its
crystalline form.
6. ............... is one of the raw materials for the production of baking soda.
7. The salts of a strong acid and weak base are ............... with pH value ............... than 7.
8. Use of mild base like ............... on the bee stung area gives relief.
9. During indigestion the stomach produces too much ............... and this causes pain and irritation.
10. The presence of ............... Ca in acids is responsible for their acidic properties.
11. Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in the concentration of ............... per unit volume.
This process is called ............... .
12. Among HCl, H2SO4 and CH3COOH, ............... is a weak acid.

ANSWERS
1. blue, red 2. more/greater 3. CaSO4, Cl2, H2O 4. 7 or seven
5. Water of crystallisation 6. Sodium chloride 7. acidic, less 8. baking soda
9. acid (HCl) 10. H+ 11. OH– ions/H3O+ ions, dilution 12. CH3COOH

3. Metals & Non-Metals


Daas
s
Multiple Choice Questions

Shhii
vv D (c) Sodium > Zinc > Magnesium > Iron

S
Q.1. Aluminium is used for making cooking uten- (d) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron
sils. Which of the following properties of alu- Q.7. Which of the following pairs will give dis-
minium are responsible for the same? placement reactions?
(i) Good thermal conductivity (a) FeSO4 solution and Copper metal
(ii) Good electrical conductivity (b) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal
(iii) Ductility (iv) High melting point (c) CuSO4 solution and Silver metal
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (d) NaCl solution and Copper metal
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) Q.8. Non-metals form covalent chlorides because
Q.2. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is (a) they can give electrons to chlorine
(a) Iron (b) Aluminium (b) they can share electrons with chlorine
(c) Calcium (d) Sodium (c) they can give electrons to chlorine atoms to
Q.3. The poorest conductor of heat among metals is form chloride ions
(d) they cannot share electrons with chlorine
(a) Lead (b) Mercury
atoms
(c) Calcium (d) Sodium
Q.9. Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would
Q.4. Which property of metals is used for making
be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron
bells and strings of musical instruments like
with steam?
Sitar and Violin?
(a) FeO (b) Fe2O3
(a) Sonorousness (b) Malleability
(c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe2O3 and Fe2O4
(c) Ductility (d) Conductivity
Q.10. Which of the following are not ionic compounds?
Q.5. Al2O3 + 2NaOH æææ Æ ...... + H2O
(i) KCl (ii) HCl (iii) CCl4 (iv) NaCl
(a) Al(OH)3 (b) Na2O (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) NaAlO2 (d) AlNaO2 (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
Q.6. Which of the following is the correct arrange- Q.11. The electronic configuration of three elements
ment of the given metals in ascending order of X, Y and Z are as follows:
their reactivity? X = 2, 4, Y = 2, 7, Z = 2, 1
Zinc, Iron, Magnesium, Sodium Which two elements will combine to form an
(a) Zinc > Iron > Magnesium > Sodium ionic compound and write the correct formula.
(b) Sodium > Magnesium > Iron > Zinc (a) X2Y (b) YZ (c) XZ3 (d) Y2Z
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-7

Q.12. The highly reactive metals like Sodium, Potas- (c) iron (III) chloride and aluminium powder
sium, Magnesium, etc. are extracted by the (d) iron (III) sulphate and aluminium powder
(a) electrolysis of their molten chloride Q.20. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron
(b) electrolysis of their molten oxides from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
(c) reduction by aluminium (a) Galium (b) Aluminium
(d) reduction by carbon (c) Zinc (d) Silver
Q.13. Which of the following non-metal is lustrous? Q.21. An element X is soft and can be cut with a
(a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot
(c) Nitrogen (d) Iodine be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with
Q.14. Example of an amphoteric oxide is: water. Identify the element from the following
(a) Na2O (b) K2O (c) Al2O3 (d) MgO (a) Mg (b) Na (c) P (d) Ca
Q.15. Which one among the following is an acidic Q.22. Reaction between X and Y forms compound Z.
oxide? X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of
(a) Na2O (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) Al2O3 the following properties is not shown by Z?
Q.16. The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 12. (a) Has high melting point
Which inert gas is nearest to X? (b) Has low melting point
(a) He (b) Ar (c) Ne (d) Kr (c) Conducts electricity in molten state
Q.17. The process in which a carbonate ore is heated (d) Occurs as solid
strongly in the absence of air to convert it into Q.23. The electronic configurations of three ele-
metal oxide is called ments X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8; Y — 2, 8, 7 and
(a) Roasting (b) Reduction Z — 2, 8, 2. Which of the following is correct?
(c) Calcination (d) Smelting (a) X is a metal
Q.18. Oxides of moderately reactive metals like

s
(b) Y is a metal

a
Zinc, Iron, Nickel, Tin, Copper etc. are reduced

D
(c) Z is a non-metal
by using

v
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal

i
(a) Aluminium as reducing agent

Sh
Q.24. Amalgam is an alloy of
(b) Sodium as reducing agent
(a) Copper and Tin (b) Mercury
(c) Carbon as reducing agent
(c) Lead and Tin (d) Copper and Zinc
(d) Calcium as reducing agent
Q.25. Copper objects lose their shine and form
Q.19. In thermite welding a mixture of .......... and
green coating of
......... is ignited with a burning magnesium
(a) Copper oxide
ribbon which produces molten iron metal as
(b) Copper hydroxide and Copper oxide
large amount of heat is evolved.
(c) Basic Copper carbonate
(a) iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder
(d) Copper carbonate
(b) iron (II) oxide and aluminium powder

ANSWERS WITH REASONING


1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b)
9. (c); Reason: 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) Æ Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g) 10. (b) 11. (b)
12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (c); Reason: ‘X’ is Magnesium and Argon (Ar) with atomic number 12 is the closest inert gas to it.
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b)
22. (b); Reason: Z is an ionic compound. It has a high melting point.
23. (d); Reason: According to the electronic configuration, Y is Chlorine and Z is Magnesium.
24. (b) 25. (c)

Fill in the blanks


1. Elements can be classified as .......... and .......... .
2. Two examples of metals which are poor conductors of heat are .........., .......... .
3. Two metals which melt when kept on the palm are .........., .......... .
4. A non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity is .......... .
5. Metals can form positive ions by .......... .
6. A non-metal which is lustrous is .......... .
7. A metal which burns in air with a dazzling white flame is .......... .
Q-8 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

8. Metals above hydrogen in the activity series can displace .......... from dilute acids.
9. The extraction of metals from their ores and then refining them for use is known as .......... .
10. .......... is an allotroph of carbon and is the hardest natural substance.
11. Metals which are so soft that they can be cut with a knife are .........., .......... .
12. Metal oxides .......... and .......... dissolve in water to form alkalis.

ANSWERS
1. metals, non-metals 2. Lead, Mercury 3. Gallium, Caesium 4. Graphite
5. losing electrons 6. Iodine 7. Magnesium 8. Hydrogen 9. metallurgy
10. Diamond 11. Sodium, Potassium 12. Sodium Oxide and Potassium oxide

4. Carbon & Its Compounds


Multiple Choice Questions Q.8. Ethanol on complete oxidation gives
Q.1. Which of the following statements are correct (a) acetic acid/ethanoic acid
for carbon compounds? (b) CO2 and water
(i) Most carbon compounds are good (c) ethanal
conductors of electricity. (d) acetone/ethanone
(ii) Most carbon compounds are poor Q.9. Which of the following will give a pleasant
conductors of electricity. smell of ester when heated with ethanol and a

s
small quantity of sulphuric acid?

as
(iii) Force of attraction between molecules of

Da
carbon compounds is not very strong. (a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH2OH

iv D
(iv) Force of attraction between molecules of (c) CH3OH (d) CH3CHO

hiv
Q.10. Name the functional group present in

Sh
carbon compounds is very strong.

S
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) CH3COCH3.
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) (a) Alcohol (b) Carboxylic acid
Q.2. C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of (c) Ketone (c) Aldehyde
(a) Alkynes (b) Alkenes Q.11. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by
(c) Alkanes (d) Cyclo alkanes covalent bonding?
CH3 (a) There are four electrons in the outermost
shell of carbon.
Q.3. The IUPAC name of CH3 — C — CH2 — CH3 is (b) It requires large amount of energy to form
CH3 C4+ or C4–.
(a) 2-ethyl-2-methyl propane (c) It shares its valence electrons to complete
(b) 2, 2-demethyl butane its octet.
(c) 1, 1, 1-trimethyl propane (d) All the above.
(d) 2, 2-methyl butane Q.12. Addition reactions are undergone by
Q.4. Which of the following is the formula of (a) saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes)
Butanoic acid? (b) only alkenes
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH (c) only alkynes
(b) COOH—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3 (d) both alkenes and alkynes
(c) CH3 — CH — CH2 — CH3 Q.13. Identify ‘A’ in the following reaction:
CH3COOH + Na2CO3 Æ A + CO2 + H2O
COOH (a) CH3COONa (b) CH2(Na)COOH
(d) CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — COOH (c) NaOH (d) NaHCO3
Q.5. The number of isomers of pentane is Q.14. Which of the following belongs to homo-
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 logous series of alkynes?
Q.6. Which of the following will undergo addition C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4.
reactions? (a) C6H6 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H6 (d) C3H4
(a) CH4 (b) C3H8 (c) C2H6 (d) C2H4 Q.15. A hydrocarbon has four carbon atoms. Give its
Q.7. When ethanoic acid is treated with NaHCO3, molecular formula if it is an alkene.
the gas evolved is (a) C4H10 (b) C4H8 (c) C4H6 (d) C4H4
(a) H2 (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) CO
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-9

Q.16. Identify A and B (b) Butanoate


(c) Ethyl ethanoate
CrO3 in
A (d) Ethyl methyl carboxylic acid
CH3COOH
Q.18. The first member of the alkyne homologous
Oxidation series is
CH3CH2OH
Ethanol (a) propyne (b) ethyne
Alkaline (c) methane (d) ethene
B
KMnO4 Q.19. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to
(a) CH3CHO, CH3COOH four other carbon atoms to form
Ethanal, Ethanoic acid (a) a hexagonal array
(b) CH3COOH, CH3CHO (b) a rigid three-dimensional structure
Ethanoic acid Ethanal (c) a structure in the shape of a football
(c) CH3CHO, CO2 + H2O (d) a structure of a ring
Ethanal Q.20. A soap molecule has a
(d) CH3COOH, CO2 + H2O (a) hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail
Ethanoic acid (b) hydrophobic head and hydrophilic tail
Q.17. Give the IUPAC name of CH3COOC2H5. (c) hydrophilic head and hydrophilic tail
(a) Ethyl ethanoic acid (d) hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail

ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b)
8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d)

s
15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d)

Fill in the Blanks

iv Da
Sh
1. ............. is a versatile element that forms the basis for all living organisms and many of the things we use.
2. Covalent bonds are formed by the ............. of electrons between two atoms so that both can achieve a
completely filled outermost shell.
3. The unsaturated hydrocarbons which contain one or more double bonds are called ............. .
4. The general formula of alkynes is ............. .
5. A group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the
successive compounds differ by CH2 group is called a ............. .
6. ............. are sweet-smelling substances which are used in making perfumes.

ANSWERS
1. Carbon 2. sharing 3. alkenes 4. CnH2n–2 5. homologous series 6. Esters

5. Periodic Classification of Elements


Multiple Choice Questions Q.4. At the time of Mendeléev, the number of
Q.1. Newlands relation is called elements known was
(a) Musical Law (b) Law of Octaves (a) 63 (b) 65 (c) 62 (d) 64
(c) Periodic Law (d) Atomic Mass Law Q.5. The properties of eka-aluminium predicted by
Q.2. Upto which element, the Law of Octaves was Mendeléev are the same as the properties of
found applicable? later discovered element:
(a) Oxygen (b) Calcium (a) Scandium (b) Germanium
(c) Cobalt (d) Potassium (c) Gallium (d) Aluminium
Q.3. In Mendeléev’s Periodic Table, gaps were left Q.6. An atom of an element has the electronic confi-
for the elements to be discovered later. Which guration 2, 8, 2. To which group does it belong?
of the following elements found a place in the (a) 4th group (b) 6th group
rd
(c) 3 group (d) 2nd group
Periodic Table later?
(a) Chlorine (b) Silicon Q.7. The arrangement of elements in the Modern
(c) Oxygen (d) Germanium Periodic Table is based on their
Q-10 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(a) increasing atomic mass in the period Q.16. An element X from group 2 of the Periodic
(b) increasing atomic number in the horizontal Table reacts with Y from group 17 to form a
rows compound. Give the formula of the compound.
(c) increasing atomic number in the vertical (a) XY2 (b) XY (c) X2Y (d) (XY)2
columns Q.17. A metal ‘M’ is in the first group of the Periodic
(d) increasing atomic mass in the group Table. What will be the formula of its oxide?
Q.8. Where would you locate the element with (a) MO (b) M2O (c) M2O3 (d) MO2
electronic configuration 2, 8 in the Modern Q.18. Name the neutral atom in the Periodic Table
Periodic Table? which has the same number of electrons as K+
(a) Group 8 (b) Group 2 and Cl–.
(c) Group 18 (d) Group 10 (a) Helium (b) Argon (c) Neon (d) Krypton
Q.9. Element ‘X’ forms a chloride with the formula Q.19. An element X combines with oxygen to form
XCl2, which is a solid with high melting point. an oxide XO. This oxide is electrically con-
X would most likely be in the same group of ducting. Write the formula of the compound
the periodic table as: formed when X reacts with chlorine.
(a) Si (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Na (a) XCl3 (b) XCl (c) XCl2 (d) XCl5
Q.20. An element X has mass number 40 and
Q.10. Which of these belong to the same period?
contains 21 neutrons in its atom. To which
Element A B C group of the Periodic Table does it belong?
Atomic number 2 10 5 (a) Group 1 (b) Group 4
(a) A, B (b) B, C (c) C, A (d) A, B & C (c) Group 2 (d) Group 3
Q.11. Carbon belongs to the second period and Q.21. Consider the following elements
20Ca, 8O, 18Ar, 16S, 4Be, 2He

s
Group 14. Silicon belongs to the third period

as
and Group 14. If atomic number of carbon is 6, Which of the above elements would you

Da
expect to be in group 16 of the Periodic Table?

v D
the atomic number of silicon is

i
(a) 20Ca and 16S (b) 20Ca and 8O

hiv
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 24 (d) 16

S
(c) 18Ar and 16S (d) 8O and 16S

h
Q.12. Pick out the chemically most reactive elements

S
Q.22. An element ‘A’ belongs to the third period
from the given triads.
and group 16 of the Periodic Table. Find out
Li, Na, K F, Cl, Br
the valency of A.
(a) Li and F (b) Li and Br
(a) Valency = 6 (b) Valency = 2
(c) K and F (d) K and Br
(c) Valency = 1 (d) Valency = 3
Q.13. What is the atomic number of element of
Q.23. Which one of the following statements is not
period 3 and group 17 of the Periodic Table? correct about the trends in the properties of the
(a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 17 (d) 21 elements of a group on going down in a group?
Q.14. Which one of the following statements is not (a) The chemical reactivity of metals increases.
correct about the trends in the properties of the (b) The metallic character of elements increases.
elements of a period on going from left to right? (c) The size of the atom increases.
(a) The oxides become more acidic (d) The valence electrons increase.
(b) The elements become less metallic Q.24. Which of the following set of elements is
(c) There is an increase in the number of written in order of their increasing metallic
valence electrons character?
(d) The atoms lose their electrons more easily (a) Na Li K (b) C O N
Q.15. The elements A, B and C belong to groups 1, (c) Mg Al Si (d) Be Mg Ca
14 and 17 respectively of the Periodic Table. Q.25. The atom of an element has electronic con-
Which two elements will form ionic compounds? figuration 2, 8, 7. To which of the following
(a) A and B (b) A and C elements would it be chemically similar?
(c) B and C (d) None (a) N(7) (b) P(15)
(c) Na(11) (d) F (9)
ANSWERS WITH REASONING
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b)
8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b); Reason. B= 10 (2, 8), C = 5 (2, 3) Both have 2 periods. 11. (b)
12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (a); Reason. e = 19 (2, 8, 8, 1) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d)
24. (d) 25. (d); Reason. Both have same number of valence electrons.
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-11

Fill in the blanks


1. The concept of grouping elements into triads was given by ............. .
2. Mendeléev’s basis for the Periodic Table is ............. .
3. The basis for Modern Periodic Table is ............. .
4. (a) Metallic character ............. down the group.
(b) Atomic size ............. along the period.
(c) Electronegative character ............. down the group.
5. Isotopes belong to the same ............. in the Periodic Table.
6. Halogens belong to group ............. of the Periodic Table.
7. An element having electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) belongs to the ............. group.
8. Atoms of different elements with the same number of occupied shells are placed in the same ............. .
9. Valency of elements ............. and then ............. as we move across the period while it remains the same
down the group.
10. Non-metals are located on the ............. side of the Periodic Table.

ANSWERS
1. Döbereiner 2. atomic mass 3. atomic no. 4. (a) increases (b) decreases (c) decreases
5. position 6. 17 7. 12th 8. period 9. increases, decreases 10. right

6. Life Processes
Multiple Choice Questions

Das (a) Starch breaking down into sugars.

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Q.1. Which of the following are energy foods? (b) Proteins breaking down into amino acids.

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(a) Carbohydrates and fats (c) Absorption of vitamins.
(b) Proteins and mineral salts (d) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and
(c) Vitamins and minerals glycerol.
(d) Water and roughage Q.8. Which region of the alimentary canal absorbs
Q.2. In which mode of nutrition an organism de- the digested food?
rives its food from the body of another living (a) Stomach (b) Small intestine
organism without killing it? (c) Large intestine (d) Liver
(a) Saprotrophic nutrition Q.9. The contraction and expansion movement of
(b) Parasitic nutrition the walls of the food pipe is called:
(c) Holozoic nutrition (a) translocation
(d) Autotrophic nutrition (b) transpiration
Q.3. The mode of nutrition found in fungi is: (c) peristaltic movement
(a) Parasitic nutrition (d) digestion
(b) Holozoic nutrition Q.10. When a few drops of iodine solution are
(c) Autotrophic nutrition added to rice water, the solution turns blue-
(d) Saprotrophic nutrition black in colour. This indicates that rice water
Q.4. Roots of the plants absorb water from the soil contains:
through the process of: (a) fats (b) complex proteins
(a) diffusion (b) transpiration (c) starch (d) simple proteins
(c) osmosis (d) None of these Q.11. The exit of unabsorbed food material is regu-
Q.5. The site of photosynthesis in the cells of a leaf is lated by
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria (a) liver (b) anus
(c) cytoplasm (d) protoplasm (c) small intestine (d) anal sphincter
Q.6. In amoeba, food is digested in the: Q.12. What are the products obtained by anaerobic
(a) food vacuole (b) mitochondria respiration in plants?
(c) pseudopodia (d) chloroplast (a) Lactic acid + Energy
Q.7. Which of the following events in the mouth (b) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
cavity will be affected if salivary amylase is (c) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
lacking in the saliva? (d) Pyruvate
Q-12 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.13. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon di- (a) hyla, rana, draco
oxide, water and energy takes place in (b) whale, dolphin, turtle
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria (c) labeo, chameleon, salamander
(c) chloroplast (d) nucleus (d) hippocampus, exocoetus, anabas
Q.14. Glycolysis process occurs in which part of the Q.23. Name the tube which connects the kidneys to
cell? the urinary bladder.
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleus (a) Urethra (b) Nephron
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast (c) Tubule (d) Ureter
Q.15. Name the substances whose build up in the Q.24. Which part of nephron allows the selective re-
muscles during vigorous physical exercise absorption of useful substances like glucose,
may cause cramps? amino acids, salts and water into the blood
(a) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy capillaries?
(b) Lactic acid + Energy (a) Tubule (b) Glomerulus
(c) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy (c) Bowman’s capsule (d) Ureter
(d) Pyruvate Q.25. Where is the dirty blood in our body filtered?
Q.16. Name the pores in a leaf through which respi- (a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Ureter (d) Kidneys
ratory exchange of gases takes place. Q.26. The procedure used for cleaning the blood of a
(a) Lenticels (b) Vacuoles person by separating urea from it is called:
(c) Xylem (d) Stomata (a) osmosis (b) filtration
Q.17. The respiratory pigment in human beings is: (c) dialysis (d) double circulation
(a) carotene (b) chlorophyll Q.27. Which is the correct sequence of body parts in
(c) haemoglobin (d) mitochondria the human alimentary canal?
Q.18. Which plant tissue transports water and min-

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(a) Mouth Æ stomach Æ small intestine Æ

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erals from the roots to the leaf?

a
large intestine Æ oesophagus

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(a) Xylem (b) Phloem

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(b) Mouth Æ oesophagus Æ stomach Æ small

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(c) Parenchyma (d) Collenchyma

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intestine Æ large intestine

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Q.19. The movement of food in phloem is called:
(c) Mouth Æ stomach Æ oesophagus Æ small

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(a) transpiration (b) translocation
intestine Æ large intestine
(c) respiration (d) evaporation
(d) Mouth Æ oesophagus Æ stomach Æ large
Q.20. A blood vessel which pumps the blood from
intestine Æ small intestine
the heart to the entire body:
Q.28. Identify the correct path of urine in the human
(a) artery (b) capillary
body.
(c) Vein (d) Haemoglobin
(a) Kidney Æ urinary bladder Æ urethra Æ
Q.21. Name a circulatory fluid in the human body
ureter
other than blood.
(a) Platelets (b) RBC (b) Urinary bladder Æ ureter Æ kidney Æ
(c) Lymph (d) Plasma urethra
Q.22. Single circulation, i.e., blood flows through (c) Kidney Æ ureter Æ urethra Æ urinary
the heart only once during one cycle of bladder
passage through the body, is exhibited by (d) Kidney Æ ureter Æ urinary bladder Æ
which of the following: urethra

ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a)
8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a)
15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c)
22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The exit of food from the stomach is regulated by a ............. muscle.
2. ............. is the longest part of the alimentary canal.
3. The process of breakdown of glucose, (a six-carbon molecule) into pyruvate, (a three-carbon molecule),
takes place in the ............. .
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-13

4. ............. is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
5. Breaking of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the ............. .
6. Rings of cartilage are present in the wind pipe to ensure that the ............. .
7. The blood has ............. cells which plug the leakage in the vessels by helping to clot the blood at the point
of injury.
8. ............. transports products of photosynthesis from the leaves to other parts of the plant.

ANSWERS
1. sphincter 2. Small intestine 3. cytoplasm 4. Small intestine 5. mitochondria
6. air-passage does not collapse 7. platelet 8. phloem

7. Control & Coordination


Multiple Choice Questions (a) sheath (b) cytoplasm
Q.1. Which plant hormone promotes dormancy in (c) axon (d) dendrites
seeds and buds? Q.11. Which nerves transmit impulses from the cen-
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin tral nervous system towards muscle cells?
(c) Cytokinin (d) Abscisic acid (a) Sensory nerves (b) Motor nerves
Q.2. Roots of plants are: (c) Relay nerves (d) Cranial nerves
(a) positively geotropic Q.12. A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent

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(b) negatively geotropic neurons over which nerve impulses pass is called

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(c) positively phototropic (a) neurotransmitter (b) dendrites

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(d) None of these (c) axon (d) synapse

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Q.3. Response of plant roots towards water is called: Q.13. Stimulus
Receptor
Sensory neurons
(a) Chemotropism (b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism (d) Geotropism
?
Q.4. Movement of sunflower in accordance with
the path of Sun is due to Response
(a) Chemotropism (b) Geotropism Effector
Motor neurons
(c) Phototropism (d) Hydrotropism Reflex arc
Q.5. Which plant hormone promotes cell division? Give the missing term.
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (a) Spinal cord (b) Brain
(c) Cytokinin (d) Abscisic acid (c) Cranial nerves (d) Relay nerves
Q.6. The main function of abscisic acid in plants is Q.14. The highest coordinating centre in the human
(a) to promote cell division. body is
(b) to inhibit growth. (a) spinal cord (b) heart
(c) to promote growth of stem. (c) brain (d) kidney
(d) to increase the length of cells. Q.15. Main function of cerebrum is
Q.7. Fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is (a) thinking (b) hearing
triggered by which of the following substance? (c) memory (d) balancing
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin Q.16. Posture and balance of the body is controlled
(c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid by
Q.8. Any change in the environment to which an (a) Pons (b) Medulla oblongata
organism responds is called (c) Cerebellum (d) Cerebrum
(a) stimulus (b) coordination Q.17. Breathing is controlled by which part of the
(c) response (d) hormone brain?
Q.9. A part of the body which responds to the in- (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
structions sent from nervous system is called (c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla oblongata
(a) receptor (b) effector Q.18. Which part of nervous system controls the re-
(c) nerves (d) muscles flex activities of the body?
Q.10. The longest fibre on the cell body of a neuron (a) Brain (b) Spinal cord
is called (c) Cerebrum (d) Cerebellum
Q-14 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.19. Which of the following acts as both endocrine 10-12 years of age?
and exocrine gland? (a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone
(a) Pancreas (b) Thyroid from ovary.
(c) Adrenal (d) Liver (b) Estrogen from adrenal gland and testo-
Q.20. Identify which of the following statements sterone from pituitary gland.
about thyroxin is incorrect? (c) Testosterone from testes and estrogen from
(a) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize ovary.
thyroxin. (d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and
(b) Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone. estrogen from pituitary gland.
(c) It regulates protein, carbohydrates and fat Q.23. A diabetic patient suffers from deficiency of
metabolism in the body. which hormone?
(d) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin. (a) Thyroxine (b) Testosterone
Q.21. Which gland secretes the growth hormone? (c) Oestrogen (d) Insulin
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid Q.24. Which of the following endocrine glands does
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Adrenal not exist in pairs?
Q.22. The secretion of which hormone leads to (a) Testes (b) Adrenal
physical changes in the body when you are (c) Pituitary (d) Ovary

ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d)
8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (a)

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22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c)

Fill in the Blanks

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1. Control and coordination are the functions of the nervous system and ............. in our body.

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2. The nervous system uses ............. impulses to transmit messages.
3. Central nervous system consists of ............. and ............. .
4. Largest part of the brain is …………… .
5. Defeciency of …………… hormone in childhood leads to dwarfism in humans.
6. The growth of pollen tubes towards the ovules is the result of a …………… movement.

ANSWERS
1. hormones 2. electrical 3. brain, spinal cord 4. cerebrum
5. growth 6. chemotropic

8. How Do Organisms Reproduce?


Multiple Choice Questions (c) binary fission (d) reduction division
Q.1. During favourable conditions, Amoeba repro- Q.4. Bryophyllum can be propagated vegetatively
duces by by the
(a) multiple fission (b) binary fission (a) stem (b) leaf (c) root (d) flower
(c) budding (d) fragmentation Q.5. Vegetative propagation refers to formation of
Q.2. A feature of reproduction that is common to new plants from
Amoeba, Yeast and Spirogyra is that (a) stem, flowers and fruits
(a) they reproduce asexually (b) stem, leaves and flowers
(b) they are all unicellular (c) stem, roots and flowers
(c) they reproduce only sexually (d) stem, roots and leaves
(d) they are all multicellular Q.6. In a potato, vegetative propagation takes place
Q.3. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells by:
during reproduction in Plasmodium is called (a) root (b) leaf
(a) budding (b) multiple fission (c) stem tuber (d) grafting
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-15

Q.7. Vegetatively propagated plants Q.16. The period during adolescence when the
(a) do not bear roots reproductive tissues begin to mature is called
(b) do not bear buds (a) ovulation (b) puberty
(c) are genetically similar (c) germination (d) propagation
(d) are genetically dissimilar Q.17. In human beings, the fertilization occurs in
Q.8. Spirogyra reproduce by the
(a) budding (b) fragmentation (a) uterus (b) ovaries
(c) regeneration (d) fission (c) fallopian tubes (d) vagina
Q.9. In Rhizopus, tubular thread like structures Q.18. Along the path of the vas-deferens the
bearing sporangia at their tips are called secretions of which gland provide nutrition to
(a) filaments (b) hyphae the sperms?
(c) rhizoids (d) roots (a) Prostate glands (b) Seminal vesicles
Q.10. Plants like banana, rose, jasmine, orange have (c) Scrotum (d) Urinary bladder
lost the capacity to produce Q.19. The embryo in humans gets nutrition from the
(a) seeds (b) buds (c) flower (d) roots mother’s blood with the help of a special
Q.11. The flower of the Hibiscus plant is tissue called
(a) bisexual (b) unisexual (a) Placenta (b) Villi
(c) neuter (d) very small (c) Uterus (d) Womb
Q.12. The part of the flower which is present in the Q.20. Which among the following diseases is not
centre of the flower is sexually transmitted?
(a) Sepals (b) Petals (a) Syphyllis (b) Hepatitis
(c) Carpels (d) Stamens (c) HIV-AIDS (d) Gonorrhea

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Q.13. The seed that contains the future plant is Q.21. Which of the following method of contra-

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called the ception protects from acquiring sexually trans-

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(a) cotyledons (b) seed coat mitted diseases?

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(c) germ cells (d) embryo (a) Surgery (b) Condoms
Q.14. The period of pregnancy is called (c) Copper-T (d) Oral-pills
(a) gestation period (b) incubation period Q.22. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum,
(c) ovulation (d) menstruation period because it helps in the
Q.15. The process of release of eggs from the ovary (a) process of mating
is called (b) formation of sperms
(a) menstruation (b) reproduction (c) easy transfer of gametes
(c) insemination (d) ovulation (d) secretion of estrogen

ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c)
8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b)
22. (b)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The process of reproduction involving only one cell or one parent is called ............. .
2. ............. is a duct coming from the urinary bladder which carries sperms.
3. Process of fertilization takes place in the ............. tube in humans.
4. ............. is the ability of an organism to replace its lost body parts.
5. ............. is called the production of new plants from stems, roots or leaves.
6. ............. is the term used to refer to the commencement of menstruation at puberty.
7. ............. is the virus that causes AIDS.

ANSWERS
1. Uniparental/Asexual reproduction 2. Vas deferens 3. fallopian 4. Regeneration
5. Vegetative propagation 6. Menarch 7. HIV–Human Immuno Virus
Q-16 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

9. Heredity & Evolution


Multiple Choice Questions (a) round and green (b) round and yellow
Q.1. Process of selecting individuals with desired (c) wrinkled and green
characters by man is called (d) wrinkled and yellow
(a) Hybridization (b) Reproduction Q.10. The human species has genetic roots in
(c) Artificial selection (d) Natural selection (a) Australia (b) Africa
Q.2. Which one of the following pairs are homo- (c) America (d) Indonesia
logous organs? Q.11. Which of the following is the ancestor of
(a) Forelimbs of a bird and wings of a bat. ‘Broccoli’?
(b) Wings of a bird and wings of a butterfly. (a) Cabbage (b) Cauliflower
(c) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of a (c) Wild cabbage (d) Kale
horse. Q.12. The process of evolution of a species whereby
(d) Wings of a bat and wings of a cockroach. characteristics which help individual
Q.3. The theory of evolution of species by natural organisms to survive and reproduce are passed
selection was given by on to their offspring and those characteristics
(a) Mendel (b) Darwin which do not help are not passed on is called
(c) Lamarck (d) Weismann (a) Artificial selection (b) Speciation
Q.4. A cross between a tall pea-plant (TT) and a (c) Hybridization (d) Natural selection
short pea-plant (tt) resulted in progenies that Q.13. Identify the two organisms which are now

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were all tall plants because extinct and are studied from their fossils.

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(a) tallness is the recessive trait. (a) white tiger and sparrow

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(b) shortness is the dominant trait. (b) dinosaur and fish (Knightia)

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v
(c) height of pea-plant is not governed by gene (c) ammonite and white tiger

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T or t. (d) trilobite and white tiger

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(d) tallness is the dominant trait. Q.14. Which of the following decides the sex of the
Q.5. The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in child?
the zygote of a human being is (a) male gamete, i.e., sperm
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4 (b) female gamete, i.e., ovum
Q.6. A zygote which has an X-chromosome (c) both sperm and ovum
inherited from the father will develop into a (d) mother
(a) girl (b) boy Q.15. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with pure-
(c) either boy or girl bred pea plant B. It is found that the plants
(d) X-chromosome does not influence the sex which look like A do not appear in F1 gene-
of a child. ration but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which
Q.7. A man with blood group A marries a woman of the plants A and B are tall and dwarf?
having blood group O. What will be the blood (a) A are tall and B are dwarf.
group of the child? (b) A are tall and B are also tall.
(a) O only (b) A only (c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf
(c) AB (d) A are dwarf and B are tall
(d) Equal chance of acquiring blood group A Q.16. In humans if gene B gives brown eyes and
or blood group O. gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour
Q.8. What does the progeny of a tall plant with of eyes of the persons having combinations (i)
round seeds and a short plant with wrinkled Bb and (ii) BB?
seeds look like? (a) (i) Blue and (ii) Brown
(a) All are tall with round seeds. (b) (i) Brown and (ii) Blue
(b) All are short with round seeds. (c) (i) Brown and (ii) Brown
(c) All are tall with wrinkled seeds. (d) (i) Blue and (ii) Blue
(d) All are short with wrinkled seeds. Q.17. A cross between two individuals results in a
Q.9. If a round, green seeded pea-plant (RRyy) is ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 for four possible phenotypes
crossed with a wrinkled yellow seeded pea- of progeny. This is an example of a
plant (rrYY), the seeds produced in F1 (a) Monohybrid cross (b) Dihybrid cross
generation are (c) Test cross (d) F1 generation
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-17

Q.18. Which of the following characters can be (a) Analogous organs (b) Homologous organs
acquired but not inherited? (c) Vestigial organs (d) None of these
(a) Colour of skin (b) Size of body Q.21. The remains (or impressions) of dead animals
(c) Colour of eyes (d) Texture of hair or plants that lived in the remote past are
Q.19. Those organs which have the same basic known as
structure but different functions are called (a) extinct species
(a) Vestigial organs (b) fossils
(b) Analogous organs (c) naturally selected species
(c) Homologous organs (d) none of the above
(d) None of these Q.22. The process by which new species develop
Q.20. Those organs which have different basic from the existing species is known as
structure but have similar appearance and (a) Evolution (b) Natural selection
perform similar functions are called (c) Artificial selection (d) Speciation

ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d)
8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b)
22. (d)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The study of the pattern of chromosomes from parents to the offspring is called ............. .

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2. The wings of a bird and mosquito are ............. organs.

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3. In Mendel’s experiment, the trait which did not appear in the F1 generation was said to be ............. .

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4. The number of X chromosomes in a human ovum is ............. .

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5. ............. proposed the “Theory of Natural Selection”.
6. If a sperm carrying ‘X’ chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child born will be a ............. .
7. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as ............. .
8. Transitional fossils like ............. is a connecting link between reptiles and birds.

ANSWERS
1. Heredity 2. analogous 3. recessive 4. two 5. Charles Darwin
6. girl 7. speciation 8. Archaeopteryx

10. Light: Reflection & Refraction


Multiple Choice Questions (d) pass through the centre of curvature
Q.1. When light falls on a smooth polished surface, Q.4. Magnifying power of a concave lens is
most of it (a) always > 1 (b) always < 1
(a) is reflected in the same direction (c) always = 1 (d) can have any value
(b) is reflected in different directions Q.5. The image formed by a convex lens can be
(c) is scattered (a) virtual and magnified
(d) is refracted into the second medium (b) virtual and diminished
Q.2. Image formed by reflection from a plane (c) virtual and of same size
mirror is (d) virtual image is not formed
(a) real and inverted (b) virtual and erect Q.6. A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm
(c) real and erect (d) virtual and inverted from a convex mirror of focal length
Q.3. If an incident ray passes through the focus, the 20 cm. The image will form at:
reflected ray will (a) at infinity (b) at focus
(a) pass through the pole (c) at the pole (d) behind the mirror
(b) be parallel to the principal axis Q.7. Focal length of a concave mirror is
(c) retrace its path (a) negative
Q-18 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) positive (a) at f (b) at 2f


(c) depends on the position of object (c) beyond 2f (d) between O and f
(d) depends on the position of image Q.12. Which mirror can produce a virtual, erect and
Q.8. If the power of a lens is – 2 D, what is its focal magnified image of an object?
length? (a) Concave mirror
(a) +50 cm (b) –100 cm (b) Convex mirror
(c) –50 cm (d) +100 cm (c) Plane mirror
Q.9. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens each (d) Both concave and convex mirrors
have a focal length of – 10 cm. The mirror and Q.13. If the image is formed in front of the mirror,
the lens are likely to be then the image distance will be
(a) both concave (a) positive or negative depending on the size
(b) both convex of the object
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex (b) neither positive nor negative
(d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave (c) positive
Q.10. If the magnification produced by a lens has a (d) negative
negative value, the image will be Q.14. A ray of light is travelling from a rarer medium
(a) virtual and inverted to a denser medium. While entering the
(b) virtual and erect denser medium at the point of incidence, it
(c) real and erect (a) goes straight into the second medium
(d) real and inverted (b) bends towards the normal
Q.11. When the object is placed between f and 2f of (c) bends away from the normal
a convex lens, the image formed is (d) does not enter at all

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Q.15. A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass

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slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle of incidence and the

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angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure:

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Shhiv
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a)
8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b)
15. (d)

Fill in the Blanks


1. Light shows the phenomena of reflection, refraction and ............. .
2. The speed of light in vacuum is ............. .
3. Power of a lens is the ............. of its focal length.
4. The SI unit of power is ............. .
5. A ............. lens will always give a virtual, erect and diminished image, irrespective of the position of the
object.
6. A positive sign in the value of magnification indicates that the image is ............. .
7. A ............. mirror is used as a head mirror by the doctors to concentrate light on the body parts to be
examined.
8. No matter how far you stand from a spherical mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror may be
............. .
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-19

ANSWERS
1. dispersion 2. 3 × 108 m/s 3. reciprocal 4. dioptre 5. concave
6. virtual 7. concave 8. plane or convex mirror

11. Human Eye & Colourful World


Multiple Choice Questions (a) blue light (b) yellow light
Q.1. The least distance of distinct vision for a nor- (c) red light (d) violet light
mal eye is Q.9. The amount of light entering the eye can be
(a) infinity (b) 25 cm controlled by the
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 25 m (a) iris (b) pupil
Q.2. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept (c) cornea (d) ciliary muscles
beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by Q.10. What type of image is formed by the eye lens
using a lens of power on the retina?
(a) +0.5 D (b) –0.5 D (a) Real and erect (b) Virtual and inverted
(c) +0.2 D (d) –0.2 D (c) Real and inverted (d) Virtual and erect
Q.3. The defect of vision in which a person cannot Q.11. The medical condition in which the lens of the
see the distant objects clearly but can see eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy
nearby objects clearly is called resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (a) myopia (b) hypermetropia

as
(c) presbyopia (d) bifocal eye (c) presbyopia (d) cataract

D
Q.4. The splitting of white light into different Q.12. The defect of the eye in which the eye-ball

iv
colours on passing through a prism is called becomes too long is

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(a) reflection (b) refraction (a) myopia (b) hypermetropia
(c) dispersion (d) deviation (c) presbyopia (d) cataract
Q.5. At noon, the Sun appears white as Q.13. The defect of vision in which the image of
(a) blue colour is scattered the most nearby objects is formed behind the retina, is
(b) red colour is scattered the most (a) myopia (b) short-sightedness
(c) light is least scattered (c) hypermetropia (d) presbyopia
(d) all the colours of the white light are Q.14. Which of the following is a natural pheno-
scattered away menon which is caused by the dispersion of
Q.6. Twinkling of stars is due to sunlight in the sky?
(a) reflection of light by clouds (a) Twinkling of stars
(b) scattering of light by dust particles (b) Stars seem higher than they actually are
(c) dispersion of light by water drops (c) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight (d) Rainbow
Q.7. When white light enters a glass prism from Q.15. Name the scientist who was the first to use a
air, the angle of deviation is least for glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
(a) blue light (b) yellow light (a) Isaac Newton
(c) violet light (d) red light (b) Einstein
Q.8. When white light enters a glass prism from (c) Kepler
air, the angle of deviation is maximum for (d) Hans Christian Oersted

ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d)
8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d)
15. (a)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects, by adjusting its focal length, is called the
............. of the eye.
2. ............. of light causes the blue colour of sky and reddening of the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
Q-20 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

3. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the ............. .
4. Due to the greater converging power of the eye lens in a myopic eye, the image of distant object is formed
............. the retina.
5. A person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia uses ............. lenses.

ANSWERS
1. accommodation 2. Scattering 3. cornea 4. in front of 5. bifocal

12. Electricity
Multiple Choice Questions (d) : Electric bulb
Q.1. Electric potential is a: Q.9. Electric power is inversely proportional to
(a) scalar quantity (b) vector quantity (a) resistance (b) voltage
(c) neither scalar nor vector (c) current (d) temperature
(d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector Q.10. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
Q.2. 1 mV is equal to: (a) Joules (b) Kilojoules
(a) 10 volt (b) 1000 volt (c) Kilowatt-hour (d) Watt-hour
(c) 10–3 volt (d) 10–6 volt Q.11. Three resistors of 1 W, 2 W and 3 W are
Q.3. Coulomb is the SI unit of: connected in parallel. The combined
(a) charge (b) current resistance of the three resistors should be

s
(c) potential difference (d) resistance (a) greater than 3 W (b) less than 1 W

aas
(c) equal to 2 W (d) between 1 W and 3 W

D
Q.4. When electric current is passed, electrons

v D
Q.12. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V

i
move from:

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(a) high potential to low potential. generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the

S
Sh
(b) low potential to high potential. power of the bulb?
(c) in the direction of the current. (a) 440 W (b) 110 W
(d) against the direction of the current. (c) 55 W (d) 0.0023 W
Q.5. The heating element of an electric iron is Q.13. The resistivity of insulators is of the order of
made up of: (a) 10–8 W–m (b) 101 W–m
(a) copper (b) nichrome (c) 10 W
–6 –m (d) 106 W–m
(c) aluminium (d) iron Q.14. 1 kWh = ............... J
Q.6. The electrical resistance of insulators is 1
(a) 3.6 × 10–6 J (b) × 106 J
(a) high (b) low 3.6
1
(c) zero (d) infinitely high (c) 3.6 × 106 J (d) × 10–6 J
3.6
Q.7. Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire Q.15. Which of the following gases are filled in
depends upon electric bulbs?
(a) its thickness (b) its shape (a) Helium and Neon (b) Neon and Argon
(c) nature of the material (c) Argon and Hydrogen
(d) its length (d) Argon and Nitrogen
Q.8. Which of the following is not correctly matched? Ω
Q.16. 100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω
(a) + – : An electric cell resistor. The potential difference across the
(b) : A resistor resistor will be:
(c) : Open plug key (a) 30 V (b) 10 V (c) 20 V (d) 25 V
ANSWERS WITH REASONING
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c)
8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b); Here R1 = 1 Ω, R2 = 2 Ω, R3 = 3 Ω
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 6 + 3 + 2 11 6
= + + \ = + + fi = = \ R= <1
R R1 R 2 R 3 R 1 2 3 R 6 6 11
12. (b); Here, V = 220 V, I = 0.50 A \ Power (P) = VI = 220 × 0.50 = 110 W
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b)
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-21

Fill in the Blanks


1. The SI unit of current is ............. .
2. According to ............. Law, the potential difference across the ends of a resistor is directly proportional to
the ............. through it, provided its ............. remains constant.
3. The resistance of a conductor depends directly on its ............. , inversely on its ............. and also on the
............. of the conductor.
4. The SI unit of resistivity is ............. .
5. If the potential difference across the ends of a conductor is doubled, the current flowing through it, gets
............. .

ANSWERS
1. ampere 2. Ohm’s, current, temperature 3. length, area of cross-section, material
4. ohm-metre (W m) 5. doubled

13. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current


Multiple Choice Questions Q.7. An electric generator actually acts as
Q.1. The best material to make permanent magnets (a) a source of electric charge.
is (b) a source of heat energy.
(a) aluminium (b) soft iron (c) an electromagnet.

as
(c) copper (d) alnico (d) a converter of energy.

D
Q.2. The magnetic field lines always begin from Q.8. A magnetic field directed in north direction

iv
(a) N-pole and end on S-pole. acts on an electron moving in east direction.

Sh
(b) S-pole and end on N-pole. The magnetic force on the electron will act
(c) start from the middle and end at N-pole. (a) vertically upwards.
(d) start from the middle and end at S-pole. (b) towards east.
Q.3. The magnetic field is the strongest at (c) vertically downwards.
(a) middle of the magnet. (d) towards north.
(b) north pole. Q.9. The direction of force on a current carrying
(c) south pole. conductor in a magnetic field is given by
(d) both poles. (a) Fleming’s left hand rule.
Q.4. Material of the core of a strong magnet is (b) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(a) aluminium (b) soft iron (c) Right hand thumb rule.
(c) copper (d) steel (d) Left hand thumb rule.
Q.5. Magnetic lines of force inside current carrying Q.10. The direction of induced current is given by
solenoid are (a) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(a) perpendicular to axis. (b) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) along the axis and are parallel to each other. (c) Right hand thumb rule.
(c) parallel inside the solenoid and circular at (d) Left hand thumb rule.
the ends. Q.11. Switches are connected to
(d) circular. (a) live wire. (b) neutral wire.
Q.6. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current (c) earth wire. (d) any one.
carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside Q.12. The most important safety method used for
the solenoid protecting home appliances from short-
(a) will become zero. (b) will increase. circuiting or overloading is
(c) will decrease. (a) earthing (b) use of stabilizers
(d) will remain unaffected. (c) use of fuse (d) use of electric meter

ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d)
8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c)
Q-22 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The magnetic field of a solenoid carrying a current is similar to that of a ............. .
2. The direction of the induced current is given by ............. .
3. A generator converts ............. into ............. .
4. In our houses we receive AC electric power of ............. V with a frequency of ............. Hz.
5. The direction of magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field can be found by
............. .
6. According to Fleming’s left hand rule, if the first finger points in the direction of ............., the second finger
in the direction of ............., then the thumb will point in the direction of ............. .

ANSWERS
1. bar magnet 2. Fleming‘s right hand rule 3. mechanical energy, electrical energy
4. 200 V, 50 Hz 5. Fleming‘s left hand rule 6. magnetic field, current, force acting on the conductor

14. Sources of Energy


Multiple Choice Questions (c) Propane (d) Butane
Q.1. A good fuel should possess Q.8. Which element is used in solar cells?
(a) high ignition temperature (a) Carbon (b) Silicon
(c) Phosphorous

s
(b) moderate ignition temperature (d) Sulphur

as
(c) high calorific value Q.9. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to

D
Da
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the

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(d) both high calorific value and moderate

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ocean.

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ignition temperature

Sh
Q.2. The variety of coal which has the highest car- (b) temperature difference at different levels in

S
bon content the ocean.
(a) Anthracite (b) Peat (c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(c) Bituminous (d) Lignite (d) tides rising out of the ocean.
Q.3. Unit of calorific value of a substance is Q.10. A device in which electricity is produced by
(a) Kcal (b) Joules the process of controlled nuclear fission reac-
(c) J kg (d) J/kg tion is called
Q.4. Biogas is formed in the (a) nuclear chain reaction
(a) presence of air only (b) hydel power plant
(b) presence of water only (c) nuclear reactor
(c) absence of air only (d) thermal power plant
(d) presence of water and absence of air Q.11. One major problem in harnessing nuclear en-
Q.5. Solar energy can be directly converted to elec- ergy is
trical energy by which of the following de- (a) converting nuclear energy into electrical
vices? energy.
(a) solar cooker (b) solar heater (b) sustaining the reaction.
(c) solar cell (d) solar geyser (c) splitting the nuclei.
Q.6. Which of the following is the ultimate source (d) disposing off spent fuel easily.
of energy? Q.12. Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining bio-
(a) Water (b) Sun gas) is used as
(c) Fossil fuels (d) Uranium (a) fuel
Q.7. Which of the following gases is the main con- (b) manure
stituent of natural gas? (c) food for livestock
(a) Methane (b) Ethane (d) used again for generating biogas

ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a)
8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b)
Chapterwise Objective Type Questions (with answers) Q-23

Fill in the Blanks


1. In the wind energy farms, the wind speed should be higher than ............. to maintain the required speed of
the turbine.
2. The energy produced during controlled ............. reactions is used for generating electricity at nuclear
power plants.
3. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called ............. .
4. Biogas is produced by the ............. of animal wastes or plant wastes in the presence of water.
5. Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains 75% ............. along with other gases like ............., ............. and
............. .

ANSWERS
1. 15 km/h 2. nuclear fission 3. Ocean thermal energy 4. anaerobic degradation
5. methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide

15. Our Environment


Multiple Choice Questions (c) Chloro fluoro carbon
Q.1. Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes (d) Carbon monoxide
(a) inflammation of liver Q.8. In a food chain, the third trophic level is

as
(b) cancer of skin always occupied by

D
(c) damage to the lungs (a) herbivore (b) carnivore

iv
(d) jaundice (c) decomposer (d) producer

Sh
Q.2. Which one of the following is an artificial Q.9. The depletion of the ozone layer causes
ecosystem? (a) global warming (b) earthquakes
(a) Lake (b) Forest (c) increased UV radiations
(c) Pond (d) Crop field (d) acid rain
Q.3. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of Q.10. In the given foodchain if the amount of energy
(a) carbon (b) nitrogen only at the fourth trophic level is 4 kJ, what will be
(c) sulphur only (d) sulphur and nitrogen the energy available at the producer level?
Q.4. Which of the following is biodegradable? Grass Æ Grasshopper Æ Frog Æ Snake
(a) Aluminium can (b) Polythene bag (a) 4 kJ (b) 40 kJ (c) 400 kJ (d) 4000 kJ
(c) Cowdung (d) DDT Q.11. What will happen if all the deer are killed in
Q.5. Which of the following is an abiotic the given food chain?
component of an ecosystem? Grass Æ Deer Æ Lion
(a) Humus (b) Bacteria (a) The population of grass decreases.
(c) Plants (d) Fungi (b) The population of lions increases.
Q.6. Which one of the following pairs belong to the (c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
category of primary consumers? (d) The population of lions decreases and grass
(a) Eagle and snake (b) Grasshoppers & cattle increases.
(c) Snake and frog (d) Water beetles & fish Q.12. Which of the two in the following sets belong
Q.7. Which of the following chemicals causes to the same trophic level?
depletion of the ozone layer? (a) Grass ; Grasshopper
(a) Carbon tetrachloride (b) Goat ; Spider
(b) Methane (c) Hawk ; Rat (d) Frog ; Lizard
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c)
8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (d)

Fill in the Blanks


1. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous susbtances in nature in due course of
time by the action of micro-organisms are called ............. wastes.
Q-24 Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

2. The waste materials which can not be broken down into harmless substances in nature are called ............. .
3. ............. is the ultimate source of energy.
4. In 1987 ............. succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
5. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on ............. molecule.
6. ............. can be classified as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

ANSWERS
1. biodegradable 2. non-biodegradable wastes 3. Sun
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 5. oxygen (O2) 6. Consumers

16. Management of Natural Resources


Multiple Choice Questions (a) To hold rain water on the surface of the earth.
Q.1. Environment Day falls on (b) To recharge ground water.
(a) 28th February (b) 23rd March
n l
(c) To use water for the irrigation of crops.
y
to
th
(c) 5 June (d) 16th August (d) To rear fish
Q.6. What are the three R’s to save the environment?
Q.2. The pH range most conducive for life of fresh
water plants and animals is
e n
(a) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
(a) 6.5 – 7.5
(c) 3.5 – 7.0
(b) 2.0 – 3.5
(d) 9.0 – 10.5
s sm
(b) Replenish, Reduce, Reuse
(c) Reconstruct, Recycle, Reduce

e
s
(d) Reduce, Recycle, Remove
s
a
As
Q.3. Which environmental problem is associated

s
D a
with the construction of high rise dams? Q.7. Expand the abbreviation GAP

iv D l
(a) A large number of human settlements are (a) Government Action Plan

h iv a
submerged in the water. (b) Ganga Action Plan

SS h r n
(b) It contributes to deforestation and loss of (c) Government Agency for Pollution Control
biodiversity.

I n t e
(c) It involves the spending of huge amounts Q.8.
(d) Government Animal Protection Plant
The Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery
of money.
(d) All the above.
d in to considerable areas of
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan

sk e
Q.4. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on which
Q.9.
(c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh
Which gas is formed, when fossil fuels are
a
river?

e(a) Ganga (b) Sutluj burnt in insufficient air (oxygen)?

b (c) Narmada (d) Kaveri (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide

ToQ.5. What is the purpose of rain-water harvesting?

ANSWERS
(c) Both CO2 and CO (d) Neither CO2 nor CO

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b)


8. (b) 9. (b)

Fill in the Blanks


1. The management of ............. resources requires a long term perspective.
2. ............. are ‘biodiverse hotspots’.
3. The Government of India, has recently instituted an ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award’ for ............. in
the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi.
4. ‘Khadin’ system of rain-water harvesting is practiced in ............. .
5. The Chipko Andolan originated from an incident in a remote village called ‘.............’ in Garhwal.

ANSWERS
1. natural 2. Forests 3. wildlife conservation 4. Rajasthan 5. Reni

####
CLASS – X SCIENCE (Code 086)
CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
for 2021 Examination
(Issued by CBSE)

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80


General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises four sections—A, B, C and D. There are 36 questions in the question paper. All
questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A—Question no. 1 to 20—all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each. These questions contain
multiple choice questions (MCQs), very short answer questions and assertion—reason type questions. Answers to
these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section B—Question no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) Section C—Question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(v) Section D—Question no. 34 to 36 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
Q.1. List any two observations when Ferrous Sulphate is heated in a dry test tube. 1
Ans. When Ferrous Sulphate is heated in a dry test tube following will be the observations:
(i) Initial light green colour changes to reddish brown colour.
(ii) Colourless gas is evolved. (iii) Gas with choking smell is evolved. (any two)
Or
Identify the products formed when 1 mL of dil. Hydrochloric acid is added to 1 g of Sodium metal.
Ans. When 1 mL of dil. Hydrochloric acid is added to 1g of Sodium metal than Sodium Chloride and
Hydrogen gas will be formed
Na + HCl ⎯⎯→ NaCl + H2
Q.2. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of the salt used to remove permanent hardness of
water. 1
Ans. Sodium Carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3.10H2O) is used to remove permanent hardness of water.
Q.3. Which of the following is not observed in a homologous series? Give reason for your choice. 1
(a) Change in chemical properties (b) Difference in —CH2 and 14u molecular mass
(c) Gradation in physical properties (d) Same functional group
Ans. (a) Change in chemical properties. Homologous series have same functional group due to which
compounds of homologous series have same chemical properties.
Q.4. Why does the Sun appear white at noon? 1
Ans. When the Sun is overhead (as at noon) then the light coming from the Sun has to travel a relatively
shorter distance through the atmosphere to reach us. Thus, only a little of blue colour of the white light is
scattered. Since the light coming from the overhead Sun has almost all its component colours in the right
proportion, therefore the Sun in the sky overhead appears white.
Q.5. Both a spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have a focal length of (–)15 cm. What type of mirror
and lens are these? 1
Ans. For mirrors, f = –15 cm

SCIENCE—CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER—2021  S–(i)


S–(ii)  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

In case of mirrors, focal length is negative for concave mirrors.


For lens, f = –15 cm
In case of lens also focal length is negative for concave lens.
Q.6. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be real, inverted and larger than the object.
Where is the object placed?
Ans. Real, inverted and image larger than the object can be obtained when object is placed between the
principal focus and the centre of curvature.
Or
Name the part of a lens through which a ray of light passes without suffering any deviation. 1
Ans. When light passes through optical centre of lens then it passes through the lens without suffering any
deviation.
Q.7. In the arrangement shown in figure there are two coils wound on a
non-conducting cylindrical rod. Initially the key is not inserted in
the circuit. Later the key is inserted and then removed shortly after.
What are the two observations that can be noted from the
galvanometer reading? 1
Ans. Two observations that can be noted from the galvanometer reading:
(i) There are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly.
(ii) The deflections are in opposite directions.
Q.8. Draw the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conductor. 1
Ans. The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire.

s
I

Da
B

Shiv
Q.9. Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel. If you are not provided with any other parameters
(e.g., numerical values of I and R), what can be said about the voltage drop across the two resistors?
Ans. Voltage drop is same across both the resistances because potential difference is same across resistances in
parallel.
Or
Some work is done to move a charge Q from infinity to a point A in space. The potential of the point
A is given as V. What is the work done to move this charge from infinity in terms of Q and V? 1
Ans. We have, Electric potential = V volt Charge = Q column
W
We know, V = Q
So, W (work done) = VQ
Q.10. Veins are thin walled and have valves. Justify. 1
Ans. Veins have thin walls because the blood there is no longer under pressure and they have valves to ensure
blood-flow in one direction.
Q.11. How is the wall of small intestine adapted for performing the function of absorption of food?
Ans. The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi which increase the
surface area for absorption.
Or
Out of a goat and a tiger, which one will have a longer small intestine? Justify your answer. 1
Ans. Goat, because herbivores eating grass need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested.
Whereas, carnivores mainly eat other animals, i.e., flesh and meat which are proteins. The digestion of
proteins is easier and faster than cellulose. Hence, herbivores have longer small intestine than carnivores.
Q.12. Explain how ozone being a deadly poison can still perform an essential function for our environment.
Ans. Ozone layer protects us from harmful effects of UV radiation.
Or
Give reason why a food chain cannot have more than four trophic levels. 1
Ans. The loss of energy at each step is so great that very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels.
SCIENCE—CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER—2021  S–(iii)

Q.13. State the role of pancreas in digestion of food. 1


Ans. The pancreas secretes digestive juice which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins, lipase
for breakdown of emulsified fats and pancreatic amylase for digestion of starch.
For questions number 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Q.14. Assertion: After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after two to three days.
Reason: Calcium Oxide reacts with Carbon dioxide to form Calcium Hydrogen Carbonate which gives
shiny white finish. 1
Ans. (c) A is true, but R is false.
Q.15. Assertion: Food chain is responsible for the entry of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
Reason: The length and complexity of food chains vary greatly.
Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Or
Assertion: Greater number of individuals are present in lower trophic levels.
Reason: The flow of energy is unidirectional. 1
Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Q.16. Assertion: A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a pea plant with white flowers, he
got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason: White colour gene is not passed on to next generation.

s
1

a
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.

iv D
Q. No. 17–20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four sub-parts in these questions.

Sh
Q.17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17(i) to 17(v): 1×4
All living cells require energy for various activities. This energy is available by the breakdown of
simple carbohydrates either using oxygen or without using oxygen.
(i) Energy in the case of higher plants and animals is obtained by
(a) Breathing (b) Tissue respiration (c) Organ respiration (d) Digestion of food
(ii) The graph represents the blood lactic acid
concentration of an athlete during a race
of 400 m and shows a peak at point D.
Lactic acid production has occurred in the
athlete while running in the 400 m race.
Which of the following processes explains
this event?
(a) Aerobic respiration (b) Anaerobic
respiration (c) Fermentation (d) Breathing

(iii) Study the given graph that represents the amount of energy supplied
with respect to the time while an athlete is running at full speed.

Choose the correct combination of plots and justification provided in the


following table.
Plot A Plot B Justification
(a) Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is low and inconsistent in aerobic and high in anaerobic
(b) Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in anaerobic
(c) Anaerobic Aerobic Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in anaerobic
(d) Anaerobic Aerobic Amount of energy is high and inconsistent in anaerobic and low in aerobic
S–(iv)  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(iv) The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are:


(i) presence of oxygen (ii) release of carbon dioxide
(iii) release of energy (iv) release of lactic acid
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii), (iv) only (d) (iv) only
(v) Study the table below and select the row that has the incorrect information.
Aerobic Anaerobic
(a) Location Cytoplasm Mitochondria
(b) End Product CO2 and H2O Ethanol and CO2
(c) Amount of ATP High Low
(d) Oxygen Needed Not needed
Ans. (i) (b) Tissue respiration (ii) (b) Anaerobic respiration
(iii) (b) Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in
anaerobic
(iv) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) only (v) (a) Location: Aerobic—Cytoplasm and Anaerobic—Mitochondria
Q.18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v). 1×4
Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to donate electrons and form
positive ion (cation) is known as electropositivity or
metallic character. Down the group, metallic character

s
increases due to increase in atomic size and across the

Da
period, from left to right electropositivity decreases due

iv
to decrease in atomic size.

Sh
Non-Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to accept electrons to form a
negative ion (anion) is called non-metallic character or
electro-negativity. The elements having high electro-
negativity have a higher tendency to gain electrons and
form anion. Down the group, electronegativity decreases
due to increase in atomic size and across the period, from
left to right electronegativity increases due to decrease in atomic size.
(i) Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of metallic character of Alkali
metals plotted in the graph?
(a) Cs > Rb > Li > Na > K (b) K > Rb > Li > Na > Cs
(c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li (d) Cs > K > Rb > Na > Li
(ii) Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modern periodic table though it shows non-
metallic character.
(a) as Hydrogen has one electron and readily loses electron to form negative ion.
(b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion.
(c) as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like Halogens to form negative ion.
(d) as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals.
(iii) Which of the following has highest electronegativity?
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
(iv) Identify the reason for the gradual change in electronegativity in halogens down the group.
(a) Electronegativity increases down the group due to decrease in atomic size.
(b) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to decrease in tendency to lose electrons.
(c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/tendency to gain
electron decreases.
(d) Electronegativity increases down the group due to increase in forces of attractions between
nucleus and valence electrons.
(v) Which of the following reason correctly justifies that “Fluorine (72 pm) has smaller atomic radius
than Lithium (152 pm)”?
(a) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases down the group.
SCIENCE—CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER—2021  S–(v)

(b) F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases across the period due to increase in
number of shells.
(c) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases down the group.
(d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from left to
right.
Ans. (i) (c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(ii) (b) As Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion.
(iii) (a) F
(iv) (c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/tendency to gain
electron decreases.
(v) (d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from left to
right.
Q.19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(i) to 19(v): 1×4
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows
that she needs a telescope to see those distant stars. She
finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are
called refracting telescopes and the ones which are made
of mirrors are called reflecting telescopes.
So she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought
two lenses, L1 and L2 out of which L1 was bigger and L2
was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light,
while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big, thick

s
lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a

Da
big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she realized that a big

v
lens is very heavy.

Shi
Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing
through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the
image. It would be like looking through a dirty window.
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the telescope?
(a) Concave lenses (b) Convex lenses (c) Bifocal lenses (d) Flat lenses
(ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4 : 1, what would be the ratio of the focal
length of L1 and L2?
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
(iii) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object(b) Double the focal length
(c) Inverse of the radius of curvature (d) Inverse of the object distance
(iv) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the magnification of
the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at
what distance did she put the object?
(a) 72 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 6 cm
(v) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What advantages, if any,
would she have with her choice of lenses?
(a) She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
(b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow considerable
amount of light to pass.
(d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification.
Ans. (i) (b) Convex lenses
1
(ii) (b) , i.e., 1 : 4
4
1 1 1
Hint: We know, P = f ; P1= f and P2 = f
1 2
⎛ 1 ⎞
P1 4 ⎝⎜ f 1 ⎠⎟ 4 f
1 1
Given: = fi = \ f = 4
P2 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 1 2
⎜⎝ f2 ⎠ ⎟
S–(vi)  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(iii) (a) Ratio of height of image to height of object


(iv) (c) 8 cm
Given: Magnification (m) = 3; Image (v) = 24 cm; Distance (u) = ?
v 24 24
As we know, m = fi 3= \ u= = 8 cm
u u 3
(v) (c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and they will also allow
considerable amount of light to pass through them.
Q.20. Read the following and answer any four questions from 20(i) to 20(v). 1×4
A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is
run in order to create a magnetic field. The magnetic field of the
solenoid is the superposition of the fields due to the current through
each coil. It is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero
outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet having a north
pole at one end and a south pole at the other depending upon the
direction of current flow. The magnetic field produced in the
solenoid is dependent on a few factors such as, the current in the
coil, number of turns per unit length etc.
The following graph is obtained by a researcher while doing an
experiment to see the variation of the magnetic field with respect to
the current in the solenoid. The unit of magnetic field as given in the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT)
and the current is given in Ampere.
(i) What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear solenoid?

s
(a) Mechanical to Magnetic (b) Electrical to Magnetic

a
(c) Electrical to Mechanical (d) Magnetic to Mechanical

D
(ii) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?

iv
(a) The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short-circuit.

Sh
(b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(c) The bar will be magnetised permanently. (d) The bar will not be affected by any means.
(iii) The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are similar to that of ............. .
(a) a bar magnet (b) a straight current carrying conductor
(c) a circular current carrying loop (d) electromagnet of any shape
(iv) After analysing the graph a student writes the following statements.
I. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is inversely proportional to the current.
II. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to the current.
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to square of the current.
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is independent of the current.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statement(s).
(a) Only IV (b) I, III and IV (c) I and II (d) Only II
(v) From the graph deduce which of the following statements is correct.
(a) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT.
(b) For larger currents, the magnetic field increases non-linearly.
(c) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT.
(d) There is not enough information to find the magnetic field corresponding to 0.8A current.
Ans. (i) (c) Electrical to Mechanical
(ii) (b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(iii) (a) a bar magnet (iv) (d) Only II
(v) (a) For a current of 0.8 A the magnetic field is 13 mT.
SECTION B
Q.21. Bile juice does not have any digestive enzyme but still plays a significant role in the process of
digestion. Justify the statement. 2
Ans. Bile juice makes the acidic food coming from the stomach alkaline for the action of pancreatic enzymes.
Bile salts break the large globules of fat in the intestine to smaller globules increasing the efficiency of
enzyme action. This is similar to the emulsifying action of soaps on dirt.
Or
In birds and mammals the left and right side of the heart are separated. Give reasons.
SCIENCE—CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER—2021  S–(vii)

Ans. The separation keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing, allowing a highly efficient
supply of oxygen to the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs (birds and mammals)
which constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature.
Q.22. State the events occurring during the process of photosynthesis. Is it essential that these steps take
place one after the other immediately? 2
Ans. Photosynthesis in plants involve three steps:
Sunlight
6CO2 + 6H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O6 + 6O2
Carbon dioxide Water Carbohydrate Oxygen
Absorption. Plants absorb sunlight with the help of chlorophyll.
Conversion. Light energy is converted into chemical energy and water molecules split into hydrogen and
oxygen ions.
Reduction. Finally, in this step CO2 is reduced to carbohydrates (food).
These steps need not take place one after the other immediately. For example, desert plants take up carbon
dioxide at night and prepare an intermediate which is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the
chlorophyll during the day.
Q.23. Give a test that can be used to confirm the presence of carbon in a compound. With a valency of 4, how
is carbon able to attain noble gas configuration in its compounds?
Ans. On burning compound in air/oxygen, if gas evolved turns lime water milky then the compound contains
carbon.
C + O2 ⎯⎯→ CO2
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 (aq) ⎯⎯→ CaCO3 + H2O
(milky ppt.)
Carbon attains noble gas configuration by sharing its 4 valence electrons with other elements.

as
Or

D
The number of carbon compounds is more than those formed by all other elements put together.

iv
Justify the statement by giving two reasons. 2

Sh
Ans. (i) Catenation. It is the self-linking property of elements through covalent bonds to form long, straight,
or branched chains and rings of different sizes.
(ii) Tetravalency. Since, carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of other monovalent elements.
(iii) Tendency to form multiple bonds. Due to its small size, carbon can form multiple bonds, i.e.,
double or triple by sharing more than one electron pair. (any two)
Q.24. The following observations were made by a student on treating four metals P, Q, R and S with the
given salt solutions:
Sample MgSO4 (aq) Zn(NO3)2 (aq) CaSO4 (aq) Na2SO4 (aq)
P No reaction Reaction occurs Reaction occurs No reaction
Q Reaction occurs Reaction occurs Reaction occurs Reaction occurs
R No reaction Reaction occurs No reaction No reaction
S No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Based on the above observations:
(a) Arrange the given samples in the increasing order of reactivity
(b) Write the chemical formulae of products formed when Q reacts with CuSO4 solution. 2
Ans. (a) S > R > P > Q (b) Cu and QSO4
Q.25. A student observes the given phenomenon in the lab as a white light
passes through a prism. Among many other colours, he observed the
position of the two colours Red and Violet. What is the phenomenon
called? What is the reason for the violet light to bend more than the red
light? 2
Ans. The phenomenon is called dispersion. Speed of Violet Light inside the prism is the slowest and that of
Red is the highest. Hence, deviation of Violet Light is maximum and that of Red is
minimum.
Q.26. A student has two resistors—2 W and 3 W. She has to put one of them in place of
R2 as shown in the circuit. The current that she needs in the entire circuit is
exactly 9A. Show by calculation which of the two resistors she should choose. 2
S–(viii)  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Ans. Given: Overall current (I) needed = 9A; Voltage (V) = 12V
Hence, by Ohm’s Law, V = IR
V 12 4
The Resistance (R) for the entire circuit = = = W=R
I 9 3
Since R1 and R2 are in parallel,
(R 1R 2 ) 4R 2 4 16
Hence, R = fi (4+R ) = 3 fi 12 R2 = 16 + 4R2 fi 8 R2 = 16 \ R2 = =2W
(R 1 +R 2 ) 2 8
SECTION C
Q.27. After self-pollination in pea plants with round, yellow seeds, following types of seeds were obtained
by Mendel:
Seeds Round, yellow Round, green Wrinkled, yellow Wrinkled, green
Number 630 216 202 64
Analyse the result and describe the mechanism of inheritance which explains these results.
Ans. The ratio obtained is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in which parental as well as new combinations are observed. This
indicates that progeny plants have not inherited a single whole gene set from each parent.

Das
Shiv
Every germ cell takes one chromosome from the pair of maternal and paternal chromosomes. When two
germ cells combine, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of other pair of characters. This
law of inheritance is called law of independent assortment.
Or, In humans, there is a 50% probability of the birth of a boy and 50% probability that a girl will be born.
Justify the statement on the basis of the mechanism of sex-determination in human beings. 3

Ans. In human beings, the genes inherited from our


parents decide whether we will be boys or girls.
Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes
(XX). But, men have a mismatched pair (XY). All
children will inherit an X chromosome from their
mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.
Thus, the sex of the child will be determined by
what is they inherited from the father. A child who
inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a
girl, and one who inherits a Y chromosome from
him will be a boy.

Q.28. Plastic cups were used to serve tea in trains in early days—these could be returned to the vendors, cleaned
and reused. Later, Kulhads were used instead of plastic cups. Now, paper cups are used for serving tea.
What are the reasons for the shift from Plastic to Kulhads and then finally to paper cups? 3
Ans. Use of Plastic cups raised the concern towards hygiene thus they were replaced by disposable plastic
cups. Plastic cups are non-biodegradable and harm the environment. They were thus replaced by Kulhads.
SCIENCE—CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER—2021  S–(ix)

Making Kulhads made of clay on a large scale resulted in the loss of top fertile soil. Now, disposable paper
cups are used because the paper can be recycled, it is biodegradable and is eco-friendly material which
does not cause environmental pollution.
Q.29. Explain where and how urine is produced? 3
Ans. Nephron is the fundamental unit of kidney. It has a cup shaped structure known as Bowman’s capsule.
The bowman’s capsule contains a bundle of blood capillaries which is called glomerulus.
Steps involved in the process of urine formation are:
(i) Ultrafiltration. Glomerulus in the nephron filters blood passing through it. Only the small molecules
of substances present in blood like glucose, amino acids, salts, urea and water etc. pass through the
glomerulus and collect as filtrate in the bowman’s capsule. The large molecules like proteins and
blood cells cannot pass out through glomerulus capillaries and hence remain behind in the blood.
(ii) Selective reabsorption. The function of tubule of nephron is allow the selective reabsorption of
useful substances like glucose, amino acids, salts and water into blood capillaries.
(iii) Tabular secretion. Nitrogenous wastes such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood through
kidneys in the form of urine.
Q.30. (a) Which of the following reactions is/are an endothermic reaction(s) where decomposition also happens?
• Respiration • Heating of lead nitrate
• Decomposition of organic matter • Electrolysis of acidified water
(b) Silver chloride when kept in the open turns grey. Illustrate this with a balanced chemical equation. 3
Ans. (a) Heating of lead nitrate and electrolysis of acidified water are endothermic reactions where
decomposition also happens.
(b) Silver chloride undergoes photolytic decomposition.
Sunlight
2AgCl (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)

as
Q.31. The following table shows the position of five elements A, B, C, D and E in the modern periodic table.
Group Æ 1 2

iv D
3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Sh
Period Ø
2 A B C
3 D E
Answer the following giving reasons:
(i) Which element is a metal with valency two? (ii) Which element is least reactive?
(iii) Out of D and E which element has a smaller atomic radius? 3
Ans. (i) D, as it is a metal on the left side of the table in Group 2.
(ii) C, as it is in the group 18 Noble gas.
(iii) E, as we move from left to right across a period, atomic radius decreases.
Q.32. (a) Explain the formation of Calcium Chloride with the help of electron dot structure.
(At. numbers: Ca = 20; Cl = 17)
(b) Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in solid state but conduct electricity in molten
and aqueous state? 3
Z E C
Ans. (a) Ca – 20 2 8 8 1
Cl – 17 2 8 7

××
× Cl ×
×× × ×× –
Ca +
××
× Cl ×
[ ]
Ca+2 2 × Cl ×
×× ×
×× ×
Ca+2 2Cl –
CaCl2
(b) In molten solution ions move freely as electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged
particles becomes less. In aqueous solution, ions move freely in water. Ionic solids do not conduct
electricity are there are no free ions due to their rigid structure.
Q.33. Refractive index of water with respect to air is 1.33 and that of diamond is 2.42.
(i) In which medium does the light move faster, water or diamond?
(ii) What is the refractive index of diamond with respect to water? 3
S–(x)  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Speed of light in vacuum


Ans. We know, Refractive index = Speed of light in medium
Here, md = 2.42 and mw = 1.33, then md > mw.
Since the refractive index of diamond is more, hence the speed of light is lesser in diamond.
Let speed of light in water be Vw and in diamond be Vd.
Let the speed of light in vacuum be c.
c c
As we know, md = V = 2.42; So, Vd = ...(i)
d 2.42
c c
Also we know, mw = V = 1.33, So, Vw = ...(ii)
w 1.33
c
Vw 2.42
Now, = 1.33 = = 1.82 (approx.)
Vd c 1.33
2.42
SECTION D
Q.34. Match the following pH values 1, 7, 10, 13 to the solutions given below: 5
• Milk of magnesia • Gastric juices • Brine • Aqueous Sodium hydroxide
Amit and Rita decided to bake a cake and added baking soda to the cake batter.
Explain with a balanced reaction, the role of the baking soda. Mention any other use of baking soda.
Ans. • Milk of magnesia — 10 • Gastric juices — 1
• Brine — 7 • Aqueous Sodium hydroxide — 13
Baking soda undergoes thermal decomposition to form Na2CO3, CO2 and H2O. CO2 makes the cake fluffy

as
and soft.

D
Heat
2NaHCO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Shiv
(Sodium hydrogen carbonate) (Sodium carbonate)
Baking soda is used:
• as an ingredient in antacids to reduce the effect of excess acid in the stomach.
• in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
• to neutralize the effect of acid in insect sting.
Or, (i) Four samples A, B, C and D change the colour of pH paper or solution to Green, Reddish-pink,
Blue and Orange. Their pH was recorded as 7, 2, 10.5 and 6 respectively. Which of the samples
has the highest amount of Hydrogen ion concentration? Arrange the four samples in the
decreasing order of their pH.
(ii) Rahul found that the Plaster of Paris, which he stored in a container, has become very hard and
lost its binding nature. What is the reason for this? Also, write a chemical equation to represent
the reaction taking place.
(iii) Give any one use of Plaster of Paris other than for plastering or smoothening of walls.
Ans. (i) (a) The sample C has the highest amount of Hydrogen ion concentration. (b) C, A, D, B
(ii) Due to moisture in the atmosphere it converted into Gypsum.
CaSO4 + 1½ H2O ⎯⎯→ CaSO4 . 2H2O
(iii) Uses of POP are:
• Plaster of Paris is used in buildings for decorating the inner walls and ceilings. It is commonly
called POP. It is also used for making toys and statues etc.
• It is used by the doctors for plastering fractured bones to set them in the right position.
Q.35. Trace the changes that take place in a flower from gamete formation to fruit formation. 5
Ans. Stamen. It is the male reproductive part of a flower. A single flower can have multiple stamens. It is made
up of anther and filament.
Carpel. It is female reproductive organ. It has three parts—stigma, style and ovary. Ovary contains ovule
and each ovule has an egg cell. Carpel is present in center of a flower.
Gametes. The male organ of flower called stamen makes the male gametes of the plant. These male
gametes are present in pollen grains. The female organ of flower called carpel makes the female gametes
(egg cells) and is present in ovule.
Pollination. The transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called
pollination. Pollination is done by insects (like bees and butterflies) birds, wind and water. There are two
types of pollination, i.e., self-pollination and cross-pollination.
SCIENCE—CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER—2021  S–(xi)

(i) Cross-pollination means transfer of pollen grains from anthers of a flower to the stigma of another
flower.
(i) Self-pollination means transfer of pollen grains from anthers of a flower to the stigma of the same
flower.
Fertilization. Fertilization occurs when the male gamete present in pollen
grains joins with female gamete present in ovule. When pollens fall on
stigma, under suitable conditions they germinate leading to formation of a
pollen tube which carries the two male gametes. The pollen tube reaches
the ovule and one male gamete fuses with egg cell to form zygote which
finally develops into an embryo. The other male gamete fuses with polar
nuclei to form endosperm which provides nourishment to the growing
embryo. And this whole process is called double fertilization.
Formation of fruits and Seeds. The fertilized egg divides several times to
form an embryo within ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat around it
and is gradually converted into seed. Thus, after fertilization ovule
develops into seeds and ovary into fruits. Meanwhile, the petals, sepals,
stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
Q.36. In the given circuit, A, B, C and D are four lamps connected with a battery of 60V.
Analyse the circuit to answer the following questions.
(i) What kind of combination are the lamps arranged in (series or parallel)?
(ii) Explain with reference to your above answer, what are the
advantages (any two) of this combination of lamps?
(iii) Explain with proper calculations which lamp glows the brightest?

as
(iv) Find out the total resistance of the circuit.

D
Ans. (i) The lamps are in parallel.

iv
(ii) If one lamp is faulty, it will not affect the working of the other lamps.

Sh
They will also be using the full potential of the battery as they are connected in parallel.
(iii) The lamp with the highest power will glow the brightest.
P = VI
In this case, all the bulbs have the same voltage. But lamp C has the highest current.
Hence, for Lamp C, P = 5 × 60 Watt = 300 W (the maximum)
(iv) The total current in the circuit = 3 + 4 + 5 + 3A = 15A
The Voltage = 60V, As we know, V = IR (according to Ohm’s Law)
V 60
Hence, Total Resistance (R) = = = 4A
I 15
Or
PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure
below.
(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S.
(ii) Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give
reasons.
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the
direction of the magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a
straight current carrying conductor. 5
Ans. (i) The magnetic field lines produced is into the plane of the paper at R and out of it at S.
(ii) Field at S is greater than Field at P Magnetic field strength for a straight current carrying conductor
is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.
(iii) The current will be going from top to bottom in the wire shown and the
magnetic field lines are now in the clockwise direction on the plane
which is perpendicular to the wire carrying current.
(iv) Right hand thumb rule. The thumb is aligned to the direction of the
current and the direction in which the fingers are wrapped around the
wire will give the direction of the magnetic field.

✽ • •• • ✽
Code 086

1
Science–X
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
(With Hints & Answers)
As per CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80


General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises four sections—A, B, C and D. There are 36 questions in the question paper. All
questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A—Question no. 1 to 20—all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each. These questions contain
multiple choice questions (MCQs), very short answer questions and assertion—reason type questions. Answers to
these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section B—Question no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) Section C—Question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(v) Section D—Question no. 34 to 36 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
Q.1. Combustion of coke is a combination reaction and CO2 is not a pollutant. Then why combustion of coke is
harmful?
Or
“Photochemical reactions play an important role in photography.” Justify. 1
Q.2. Why is ZnO called amphoteric oxide? Name another amphoteric oxide. 1
[Hint: As, it reacts with both acids and bases; Al2O3
Q.3. Structural formula of benzene is 1

C H
H H
H—C C—H H C H C
H C C H C C H
(a) H C C—H (b) H H (c) (d)
H
H
C C H H C C H
C C H C
H H H
H
Is benzene a saturated hydrocarbon or unsaturated hydrocarbon? [Ans. (c); Unsaturated hydrocarbon
Q.4. Why do planets not twinkle? 1
Q.5. A man standing in front of a spherical mirror finds his image having a very small head and fat body.
What types of mirrors are used in these two parts? 1
[Hint: A very small head Æ Convex mirror; A fat body Æ Concave mirror
Q.6. If the distance between an object and its image in a plane mirror is 5.6 cm, how far is the object from the
mirror? [Hint: The object is 2.8 cm away from the mirror as the distance between object and
mirror and image is always equal in plane mirror.
Or

SQP–1  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)


SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 1  SQP–2

What should be the position of the object when a concave mirror is to be used: (i) as a shaving mirror?
(ii) as a doctor’s mirror? 1
[Hint: (i) Between P and E; (ii) Between P and F
Q.7. Redraw the diagram after marking the poles of both magnets in the given figure. 1

Q.8. Why the strength of magnetic field is same inside the solenoid at every point? 1
[Hint: As magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are parallel to each other.
Q.9. Why an ammeter is likely to be burnt out if you connect it in parallel?
Or
What is the least resistance obtained by using 1 W, 4 W and 5 W? 1
Q.10. In which form excess glucose molecules are stored as reserve food in—(a) plants and (b) animals? 1
[Hint: (a) Plants—In form of starch; (b) Animals—in form of glycogen
Q.11. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular organisms like humans?
Or
What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands? 1
Q.12. What do you understand by the term landfills?
Or
What are the disadvantages of biodegradable wastes? 1

as
Q.13. Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping system. How is the leakage prevented? 1

D
[Ans. Leakage of blood is prevented by platelets present in the blood.

Shiv
For questions number 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Q.14. Assertion (A): Dry ammonia gas has no action on litmus paper but a solution of ammonia in water turns
red litmus paper blue. 1
Reason (R): Dry ammonia does not produce hydroxide ions (OH–), but a solution of ammonia in water
contains OH– ions. [Ans. (a)
Q.15. Assertion (A): In a food chain consisting of grass, frog, bird and insects, bird will have the maximum
concentration of the harmful chemicals. 1
Reason (R): In a food chain consisting of grass, frog, bird and insects, bird is at highest trophic level.
[Ans. (a)
Or
Assertion (A): Secondary consumers and tertiary consumers, both are carnivores. 1
Reason (R): Secondary consumers and tertiary consumers get only 10% of energy from their previous
trophic level. [Ans. (b)
Q.16. Assertion (A): Inheritance of factors controlling a particular trait in an organism is independent of the
other. 1
Reason (R): At the time of reproduction, factors in a monohybrid cross segregate independently during
gamete formation and randomly formed combinations in F2 generation. [Ans. (c)
[Hint: At the time of reproduction, two pairs of factors of each of the two traits in a dihybrid cross segregate
independently during gamete formation and randomly form combinations in F2 generation.

Q. No 17–20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four subparts in these questions.
Q.17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17(i) to 17(v): 1×4
Blood is a fluid connective tissue which helps in the transportation of nutrients to all parts of the body. It
consists of plasma, a colourless fluid which helps in transportation of food, gases, nitrogenous wastes, etc. It
also prevents coagulation of blood inside blood vessels and blood cells. Blood cells are of three types RBCs
(contains haemoglobin), WBCs and platelets.
SQP–3  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Below Table-X shows the range of haemoglobin in blood a normal person should have:
Table-X
Blood concentration haemoglobin (ctHb g/L)
Adult Male 13-5–17.5
Adult Female 11.5–15.5
Child (1 year to puberty) 11.0–13.5
Baby (3 months) 9.5–12.5
Newborn 15.0–21.0
(i) What is the function of haemoglobin in RBCs? 1
(a) helps in clotting (b) prevents us from getting pale
(c) carries oxygen to various cells of the body (d) helps in making excretion [Ans. (c)
(ii) Following Table-Y gives the blood report of John’s family. 1
Table-Y
Name of the person Haemoglobin Concentration (dHb g/L) Age of the person
John 14.5 32
John’s wife 10 30
John’s daughter 13 4
John’s son 8 56 days
Observe the table and find out who is suffering from low level of haemoglobin.
(a) John and his wife (b) John’s wife and his son
(c) John’s wife and his daughter (d) John and his daughter [Ans. (b)

s
(iii) Refer to Table Y showing the blood report of the haemoglobin level in the blood of John’s family.

Da
Infer the disease which can be diagnosed from the low level of haemoglobin. 1

v
(a) Goitre (b) Amnesia (c) Anaemia (d) Asthma

i
[Ans. (c)

Sh
(iv) Study the graph below that represents the Haemoglobin
count in the blood of two twin sisters Siya and Riya. 1
Choose the correct observation:
(a) Siya is suffering from low haemoglobin at the age of 5
to 10 years.
(b) Riya is suffering from low haemoglobin from the age of
20 years.
(c) Siya is suffering from low haemoglobin till 5 years of
her age.
(d) Riya is suffering from low haemoglobin from the age of
24 years. [Ans. (d)

(v) Which one of the following diets would you recommended to the affected patient?
(a) Iron rich diet (b) High fibre diet (c) Iodine rich diet (d) Calcium rich diet
[Ans. (a)
Q.18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v). 1×4
Oxides of metals are basic in nature while oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.
Basic Character of Oxides increases down the group as atomic radius increases and ionization energy
decreases. This is due to increase in metallic character or electro positivity of
elements. On moving along the period table basic character of oxides
decreases as atomic radius decreases and hence the metallic character
decreases.
Acidic Character of Oxides decreases as non-metallic character of elements
decreases from top to bottom. On moving left to right, acidic character
increases as we move left to right atomic radius of elements decreases and
thus non-metallic character increases.
(i) Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of acidic nature of their oxides
plotted in graph? 1
(a) Na > Mg > Al > Si > P > Cl (b) Cl > P > Si > Mg > Na
(c) Li > Be > B > C > N > O (d) O > N > B > C > Be > Li [Ans. (b)
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 1  SQP–4

(ii) The positions of four elements A, B, C and D in the Modern


Periodic Table are shown below. Which element is most
likely to form a basic oxide? 1
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D [Ans. (a)

(iii) Which of the following is the most acidic oxide? 1


(a) Na2O (b) SiO2 (c) SO2 (d) Cl2O7 [Ans. (d)
(iv) Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from
left to right across the periods of periodic table? 1
(a) Elements become less metallic in nature. (b) Number of valence electrons increases.
(c) Atoms lose their electrons more easily. (d) Oxides become more acidic. [Ans. (c)
(v) Which of the following correctly defines atomic size? 1
(a) The atomic size may be visualised as the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the
innermost shell of an isolated atom.
(b) The atomic size may be visualised as the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the
outermost shell of an isolated atom.
(c) The atomic size may be visualised as the diameter of the nucleus of an isolated atom.
(d) The atomic size may be visualised as the distance between the innermost shell and the
outermost shell of an isolated atom. [Ans. (b)
Q.19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(i) to 19(v): 1×4
Sunny and his friend Rahul placed a candle flame in front of a
convex lens at various distances from it and obtained the image

as
of the candle flame on a white screen.

D
He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens

iv
as under—

Sh
Position of candle = 20 cm; Position of convex lens = 50 cm
Position of the screen = 80 cm
(i) What is the position of the image formed from the convex lens? 1
(a) 80 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 60 cm [Ans. (c)
(ii) What is the focal length of the convex lens? 1
(a) 30 cm (b) 15 cm (c) –16 cm (d) 16 cm [Ans. (b)
(iii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 35 cm? 1
(a) At focus (b) Between focus & pole (c) At infinity (d) Between f2 & f1 [Ans. (c)
(iv) Which of the following statement describes the best about the nature of the image formed if
Sunny shifts the candle towards the lens to 36 cm? 1
(a) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, inverted and magnified.
(b) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and magnified.
(c) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and diminished.
(d) The nature of the image formed will be real, inverted and diminished. [Ans. (b)
(v) Rahul noted following observations at different positions of candle from the lens. According to
Sunny one set of observations is incorrect. Find out if Sunny is right or not. 1
(a) Distance of the flame from the lens = 60 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 20 cm
(b) Distance of the flame from the lens = 45 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 22.5 cm
(c) Distance of the flame from the lens = 30 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 30 cm
(d) Distance of the flame from the lens = 10 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 15 cm
[Ans. (d)
Q.20. Read the following and answer any four questions from 20(i) to 20(v):
The electric potential difference between two points in an electric
circuit carrying some current is defined as the work done to move a
unit charge from one point to the other. In 1827, a German physicist
George Simon Ohm (1787–1854) found out the relationship between
the current I, flowing in a metallic wire and the potential difference
across its terminals. He stated that the electric current flowing
through a metallic wire is directly proportional to the potential
SQP–5  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

difference V, across its ends provided its temperature remains the same. A student noted the reading in
the ammeter I, for different the potential difference V across the wire in the circuit and plotted the in
graph: 1×4
(i) What does the slope signify in the above graph? 1
(a) Resistivity (b) Potential difference (c) Temperature (d) Resistance [Ans. (d)
(ii) From the above deduce which of the following statements is correct. 1
(a) For a current of 10.2 A, voltage is 3 V. (b) For a voltage of 10 V, current is 3 A.
(c) For a voltage of 10.2 V, current is 3 A.
(d) Current remains constant for different values of voltage. [Ans. (c)
(iii) If the potential difference across the ends of a conductor is doubled, the current flowing through
it gets, 1
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) four times (d) no change [Ans. (a)
(iv) An electric iron draws 2.2 A current from a 220 V source. Which of the following statements is not
correct? 1
(a) Resistance of the electric iron is 100 ohms. (b) Power of the electric iron is 484 W.
(c) If the electric iron is used for 2 hours, then heat produced is 968 KWH.
(d) If current drawn by electric iron is doubled keeping the source same, then resistance gets
halved. [Ans. (c)
(v) Given graph is the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire
with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following
is true? 1
(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1 (d) R2 > R3 > R1 [Ans. (c)

DasSECTION B

Shiv
Q.21. Identify the parts correctly matched with description given below:
(a) Small pores present in woody plants for gaseous exchange.
(b) Respiratory surface in humans.
(c) Respiratory surface of earthworms.
(d) Cartilaginous flap which prevents entry of food in wind pipe.
[Ans. (a) Lenticels; (b) Alveoli; (c) Skin; (d) Epiglottis
Or
What is translocation? Where in plants are the following synthesized? 2
(a) Sugar (b) Hormones
Q.22. What are the various glands involved in the process of digestion and what are their secretions? 2
Q.23. The solid element X exhibits the property of catenation. It is also present in the form of a gas Y in the air
which is utilised by plants in photosynthesis. Allotropes Z and W of this element is used in glass cutters
and pencil lead respectively.
(a) What is element X and Y.
(b) Name the allotropes Z and W.
(c) Name another allotrope of element X other than Z and W.
(d) State another use of allotrope W.
[Hint: (a) Element X—Carbon; Element Y—Carbon dioxide.
(b) Allotrope Z—Diamond; Allotrope W—Graphite
(c) Buckminsterfullerene
(d) Allotrope W, i.e., graphite is used in making electrodes which conducts electricity.
Or
(i) “Alkanes generally burn with clean flame.” Why?
(ii) Draw the electron dot structure for ethane. 2
Q.24. (a) What would you observe when you put—
(i) Some zinc pieces into copper sulphate solution?
(ii) Some copper pieces into ferrous sulphate solution?
(b) Name a metal which combines with hydrogen gas to form metal hydride. 2
Q.25. Explain with the help of a diagram, how we are able to observe the sunrise about two minutes before the
Sun gets above the horizon. 2
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 1  SQP–6

Q.26. What is the current I in the circuit shown? 2


[Ans. I = 0.1A

SECTION C
Q.27. “DNA copies generated during reproduction will be similar but may not be identical to the original.”
Justify the statement.
Or
Study the given data and answer the following questions.
Parental plants cross F1 (First generation off-spring) F2 (off-spring of self pollination
fertilised & seeds collected of F1)
Male parent always bore 330 seeds sown and observed. Out of 44 seeds 33 seeds gave
red flowers. plants with red flowers and 11
Female parent always had All 330 seeds gave red flowers. seeds gave plants with white
white flowers. flowers.
What is the term for this type of cross? Which law of Mendel can be inferred from the data of the
column marked F1 indicate? Express the genotype of F1 Progeny and F2 Progeny. 3
Q.28. Saving for the rainy day is a popular proverb which means saving something for that time when it may
not be available. Recently many schools also participated in rainwater harvesting technique. 3

s
(a) What is rainwater harvesting?

Da
(b) What are the benefits of this technique?

iv
(c) What are the traditional systems of water harvesting/management in your region.

Sh
Q.29. Draw the diagram of sectional view of human heart and on it name and label the following parts: 3
(a) The chamber of the heart that pumps out deoxygenated blood.
(b) The blood vessel that carries away oxygenated blood from the heart.
(c) The blood vessel that receives deoxygenated blood from the lower part of our body.
[Ans. (a) Right Ventricle; (b) Aorta; (c) Inferior Vana Cava
Q.30. (i) The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory
2KClO3 (s) + Heat ⎯⎯→ 2KCl (s) + 3O2 (g)
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct about the reaction?
(a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.
(b) It is a combination reaction.
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied by release of heat.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature. [Ans. (a)
(ii) A silver article generally turns black when kept in the open for a few days. The article when rubbed
with toothpaste again starts shining.
(a) Why do silver articles turn black when kept in the open for a few days? Name the phenomenon
involved.
(b) Name the black substance formed and give its chemical formula. 3
Q.31. Observe the following table and answer the questions below: 3
(a) Identify X and Y.
(b) Write the formula of chlorides of X and sulphates of Y.
(c) Is the valency of X and Y same or different? Give reason.
[Ans. (a) Element X—Beryllium; Element Y—Calcium
(b) Formula of chlorides of X—Cl2, i.e., BeCl2; Formula
of sulphates of Y—SO4, i.e., CaSO4.
(c) Valency is same because the group lies in the same group
and valency of elements remains same in a group.
Q.32. Compound X and aluminium are used to join railway tracks. 3
(a) Identify the compound X.
(b) Name the reaction and its importance.
(c) Write down its reaction. [Ans. (a) Compound X is Iron(III) oxide; (b) Thermite reaction
SQP–7  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Q.33. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification = –1. If the image is at
30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object is moved 15 cm
towards the mirror? 3
[Ans. Object is placed at 30 cm in front of the mirror; Image is formed at infinity

SECTION D
Q.34. (i) Match the chemical substances with their appropriate application:
Column (I) Column (II)
(a) Sodium chloride (i) Antacid
(b) Baking soda (ii) Production of H2 and Cl2
(c) Washing soda (iii) Decolourisation
(d) Bleaching Powder (iv) Preparation of glass
(ii) Anchal wanted her office to be whitewashed. She bought 15 kg of quicklime from the market and
dissolved it in 40 L of water. On adding lime to water, she noticed that the water started boiling even
when it was not being heated.
Give reason for her observation. Write the corresponding equation and name the product formed.
[Ans. (i) (a)—(ii); (b)—(i); (c)—(iv); (d)—(iii)
Or
(i) Advika prepared 20% sodium hydroxide solution in a beaker containing water and noted the
following observations:
1. Sodium hydroxide is in the form of pellets. 2. It dissolves in water readily.
3. The beaker appears cold when touched from outside.

s
4. The red litmus paper turned blue when dipped into the solution.

Da
Which one according to you are correct observations:

iv
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4 (c) 3, 4 & 1 (d) 1, 2 & 4 [Ans. (d)

Sh
(ii) The following salts are formed by the reaction of an acid with a base—(1) Sodium chloride
(2) Ammonium nitrate. Identify the acid and the base and tabulate your answer in the format given below:
S.No. Salt Acid Base
1 Sodium Chloride
2 Ammonium nitrate
(iii) Dev observed that solution A gives pink colour when a drop of phenolphthalein indicator is added
to it and solution B gives red colour when a drop of methyl orange is added to it. What type of
solutions are A and B and which one of the solutions A and B will have a higher pH value? 5
Q.35. (a) Write the function of placenta in females.
(b) List four ways of preventing pregnancy. State two advantages of using such preventive methods. 5
Q.36. (a) A positive charge initially moving upwards in a magnetic field is directed towards north. The
particle will be deflected towards which direction? 5
(b) What is electromagnet? Why are they called temporary magnets?
(c) Why should is the core of an electromagnet be of soft iron and not of steel?
(d) Draw the magnetic field lines pattern on the solenoid.
Or
In the given circuit diagram, calculate—
(a) The current through each resistor and also calculate the
total current in the circuit.
(b) The total effective resistance of the circuit.
(c) What would be the total effective resistance if each
resistance is doubled?
[Ans. (a) I1 = 3 A; I2 = 1.2 A; I3 = 0.6 A; Total current = 4.8 A
(b) Total resistance = 1.25 W
(c) New resultant resistance = 2.5 W

✽ • •• • ✽
Code 086

2
Science–X
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
(With Hints & Answers)
As per CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80


General Instructions:
Same as in Sample Question Paper 1.

SECTION A
Q.1. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Give an example.
Or, “Oil and fat containing packed food items are flushed with nitrogen.” Why? 1
Q.2. What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell? 1
Q.3. Why homologous series of carbon compounds are so called? 1
Q.4. What will be the colour of the sky when it is observed from a place in the absence of any atmosphere? 1
[Ans. The colour of sky will be black.
Q.5. Which of the following ray diagrams is not correct? Justify. 1

(a) (b) (c) (d) [Ans. (d)


Q.6. What are the effects shown by light travelling in one medium falling on the surface of another medium?
Or, In what way is the word AMBULANCE printed in front of hospital vans? Why is it printed in this way? 1
Q.7. On what factors does the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a uniform magnetic
field depend? 1
Q.8. The magnetic field is stronger near the poles. Give reason. 1
Q.9. Redraw the circuit, putting an ammeter to measure the current
through the resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential
difference across 12 resistors. 1
Or
What is the resistance of an electric arc lamp, if the lamp uses 20 A
current when connected to a 220 volt line? [Ans. R = 11 W
Q.10. What is the function of digestive enzymes? 1
Q.11. Why do the walls of trachea not collapse when there is less air in it?
Or, In which part of the nephron water is reabsorbed? 1
Q.12. Why is reuse considered better than recycling?
Or, Name two factors which can be used to find whether the river water has been contaminated. 1
Q.13. What do you mean by osmoregulation? 1
For questions number 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 2  SQP–8
SQP–9  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Q.14. Assertion (A): Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit
of a salt. 1
Reason (R): The water of crystallization is caused by forming purified crystals from an aqueous solution.
These crystals do not include contaminants. These crystals are not affected by the heat. [Ans. (c)
Q.15. Assertion (A): If we excessively use pesticides to protect the crops from diseases, then it may cause short-
term damage to mankind. 1
Reason (R): Pesticides are non-biodegradable chemicals, so they get accumulated at each trophic level.
Since humans occupy the top level in any food chain, the maximum amount of harmful chemical
pesticides gets accumulated in our bodies, damaging our health gradually. [Ans. (d)
Or Assertion (A): In the given figure various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At
T4 trophic level available energy is maximum.
Reason (R): Biomagnification is the process by which a harmful chemical enters the
food chain and gets concentrated at each trophic level. [Ans. (b)

Q.16. Assertion (A): Gregor Johann Mendel is considered as “Father of Genetics”. 1


Reason(R): He had formulated the ‘Laws of Inheritance’ by performing hybridisation experiments on
Pisum sativum. [Ans. (a)
Q. No. 17–20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four subparts in these questions.
Q.17. Blood pressure is the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your arteries. Each time your heart
beats, it pumps blood into the arteries. Your blood pressure is highest when your heart beats, pumping
the blood. This is called systolic pressure. When your heart is at rest, between beats, your blood pressure
falls. This is called diastolic pressure. Your blood pressure reading uses these two numbers. Usually the

as
systolic number comes before or above the diastolic number. For example, 120/80 means a systolic of 120

D
and a diastolic of 80. 1×4

iv
(i) Following table shows the blood pressure categories at different blood pressures.

Sh
Blood Pressure Stages
Blood Pressure Category Systolic mm Hg (upper #) Diastolic mm Hg (lower #)
Normal less than 120 and less than 80
Elevated 120–129 and less than 80
High Blood Pressure 130–139 or 80–89
(Hypertension) Stage 1
High Blood Pressure 140 or higher or 90 or higher
(Hypertension) Stage 2
Hypertensive Crisis Higher than 180 and/or higher than 120
(Seek Emergency Care)
Jaya was suffering from shortness of breath since last week. Her doctor checked her blood pressure
and found it to be 160/100.
At which category of blood pressure, she lies? 1
(a) Elevated (b) Hypertension stage (c) Hypertension Stage 2 (d) Hypertensive crisis
[Ans. (c)
(ii) What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction? 1
(a) Valves in heart (b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria (d) All of the above [Ans. (a)
(iii) Which of the following devices is used to measure Blood pressure? 1
(a) Thermometer (b) Sphygmomanometer (c) Stethoscope (d) Hemodialyzer [Ans. (b)
(iv) Choose the correct statement that describes arteries. 1
(a) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from different
organs and bring it back to the heart.
(b) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood away
from the heart to various organs of the body.
(c) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to
various organs of the body.
(d) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and carry
blood away from the heart to different parts of the body. [Ans. (d)
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 2  SQP–10

(v) Match the columns with their correct options 1


A. Arteries (i) connect arteries to veins
B. Veins (ii) carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to heart
C. Capillaries (iii) carry oxygenated blood from the heart to all parts of the body
D. Pulmonary vein (iv) carry deoxygenated blood from the parts of the body to the heart
(a) A Æ (iii); B Æ (iv); C Æ (i); D Æ (ii) (b) B Æ (iii); A Æ (iv); C Æ (i); D Æ (ii)
(c) A Æ (iii); C Æ (iv); B Æ (i); D Æ (ii) (d) D Æ (iii); A Æ (iv); B Æ (i); C Æ (ii) [Ans. (a)
Q.18. According to John Newlands, when elements are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic masses,
every 8th element shows similar chemical and physical properties to that of the first like the octaves in
music. Hydrogen atom being lowest atomic mass occupied first position and thorium occupied last
position in his arrangement. 56 elements were known at that time.
Notes of music: sa (do) re (re) ga (mi) ma (fa) pa (so) da (la) ni (ti)
H Li Be B C N O
F Na Mg Al Si P S
Cl K Ca Cr Ti Mn Fe
Co and Ni Cu Zn Y In As Se
Br Rb Sr Ce and La Zr — —
Then came Mendeléev’s Periodic Law which states that, “the properties of elements are the periodic
functions of their atomic masses”. But this law failed to explain the position of isotopes. Also, could not
assign a correct position of hydrogen. Modern periodic table overcomes the limitations of Newland’s
Octaves and Mendeléev’s classification.
In 1913, Henry Moseley proposed Modern Periodic Law which overcomes the limitations of Newland’s
Octaves and Mendeleev’s classification.

as
(i) Upto which element, the Law of Octaves was found to be applicable— 1

D
(a) Oxygen (b) Calcium (c) Cobalt (d) Potassium [Ans. (b)

iv
(ii) Elements have been arranged in the following sequence on the basis of their increasing atomic

Sh
masses. F, Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl, Ar, K. Two sets of elements which have similar properties are:1
(a) F, Cl and Na, K (b) F, K and Mg, Al (c) F, Cl and Na, Ar (d) F, Ar and Na, K [Ans. (a)
(iii) Which of the following statements is not the limitation of Law of Octaves: 1
(a) New elements (which were discovered later) properties did not fit into the law of Octaves.
(b) Two elements were placed in the same slot but their properties did not agree with each other.
(c) Every eighth element did not possess properties similar to that of the first.
(d) Failed to arrange all the elements in the form of triads having similar chemical properties. [Ans. (d)
(iv) Modern Periodic law overcomes the limitations of Newland’s Octaves and Mendeleev’s classification. 1
Which of the following statement(s) about the Modern Periodic Table is/are incorrect:
(1) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic
number.
(2) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
masses.
(3) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group(s) in the Periodic Table.
(4) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
number.
(a) (1) only (b) (1), (2) and (3) (c) (1), (2) and (4) (d) (4) only [Ans. (b)
(v) In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later.
Which of the following elements found a place in the periodic table later. 1
(a) Germanium (b) Chlorine (c) Oxygen (d) Silicon [Ans. (a)

Q.19. There are so many types of cameras. SLR is one of a kind. SLR stands
for single lens reflex. The name comes from the fact that there is a
single lens (although it might contain several component lenses) for
both viewing and taking the photograph, and that there is a reflex
mirror that flips out of the way when the picture is taken. The
advantage of having a single lens for viewing and taking the picture is
that the photographer sees exactly what the camera takes. Some
cameras have separate lenses for viewing and taking the image.
Advika loves photography.
Figure 1
SQP–11  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

She designed a model of SLR in her school exhibition as shown


here. She learned that mirror reflects the image into a prism,
which reflects it through the viewfinder so that the
photographer can compose the picture. When photographer
clicks the camera, the mirror momentarily flicks out of the way,
just long enough for the film or sensor to capture the image.

Figure 2
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lens Advika is using in her model? 1
(a) Concave lenses (b) Convex lenses (c) Bifocal lenses (d) Flat lenses [Ans. (b)
(ii) Assume that the camera in Figure 1 has a fixed focal length of 20 mm and was adjusted to properly
focus the image of a distant object.
If the image was formed by focusing the lens at the screen 3 cm away from the lens, then what
was the position of object from lens? 1
(a) 3 cm (b) 6 mm (c) 6 cm (d) Infinity
[Ans. (c); Hint: f = 20 mm = 2 cm. According to mirror formula, u = –6 cm
(iii) Observe the given ray diagram and find out which of the
following should be the position of an object to get
image as shown in the figure: 1

s
(a) At focus (b) At 2f

Da
(c) Between 2f & f (d) Beyond 2f [Ans. (d)

iv
(iv) With the help of Figure 1 and 2, find out the nature of image is formed on the screen of the camera. 1

Sh
(a) Real and inverted (b) Real and erect
(c) Virtual and erect (d) Virtual and inverted [Ans. (d)
(v) Magnifying power of a concave lens is 1
(a) always > 1 (b) always < 1 (c) always = 1 (d) can have any value [Ans. (d)
Q.20. The electric circuit is a closed-loop or path which forms a network of electrical components, where
electrons are able to flow. This path is made using electrical wires and is powered by a source, like a
battery. A circuit diagram is a graphical representation of an electrical circuit. An electric circuit comprises
a cell (or a battery), a plug key, electrical component(s), and connecting wires. It is often convenient to
draw a schematic diagram, in which different components of the circuit are represented by the symbols
conveniently used. Neha, Nidhi and Stuti are three friends. They respectively designed following circuit
diagrams for school activity: 1×4

—Neha —Nidhi —Stuti

(i) Out of three friends whose circuit diagram is correct? 1


(a) Neha and Stuti (b) Neha and Nidhi (c) Stuti only (d) Neha only [Ans. (d)
(ii) What is the resistance of an air gap? 1
(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) One (d) Cannot be determined
[Ans. (b)
(iii) Which of the following statements is not true about electric circuit: 1
(a) If switch is closed, then current will not flow in a circuit.
(b) Current always flows opposite to the flow of electrons.
(c) Current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the potential difference across the circuit.
(d) In series combination, effective length of resistors increases due to which resistance increases.
[Ans. (a)
(iv) Which of the following symbols is used for battery in a circuit diagram? 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) [Ans. (c)
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 2  SQP–12

(v) If you connect three resistors having values 2 ohms, 3 ohms and 5 ohms in parallel combinations,
will the total resistance be
(a) Less than 2 ohms (b) Greater than 5 ohms
(c) Lie between 2 ohms and 5 ohms (d) Equal to 3 ohms [Ans. (a); Hint: R = 0.97 W

SECTION B
Q.21. (a) State the role of placenta in the development of embryo.
(b) What happens when the egg is not fertilised?
Or
Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form as observed in cells
of organisms. 2
Q.22. Which is the largest digestive gland in human body? Name its secretions and state its two functions? 2
Q.23. Distinguish between ionic and covalent compounds under following properties:
(a) Strength of forces between constituent elements.
(b) Solubility of compounds in polar and non-polar solvents.
Or, Write the general formula of—(i) saturated hydrocarbon, (ii) unsaturated hydrocarbon, and draw the
structure of one hydrocarbon of each type. 2
Q.24. Give reason for the following: 2
(a) Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene.
(b) Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when some aluminium powder is added in it.
Q.25. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram. 2
(i) Write the name and where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?

s
(ii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about

Da
the constituents of white light.

iv
[Ans. (i) Dispersion of light; Rainbow; (ii) The formation of spectrum of seven colours

Sh
shows that white light is made up of lights of seven different colours mixed together.
Q.26. Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 ohms.
When connected in parallel, gives 24 ohms. Calculate the individual resistance of each resistor. 2
[Hint: Two individual resistances are of 4 and 6 ohms.

SECTION C
Q.27. Observe the series of images and answer the following questions:
(i) What type of cross is shown in the image?
(ii) Which law of inheritance of Mendel can be explained in F1 progeny?
(iii) State the law of inheritance that is explained by Mendel in F2 progeny.
(iv) Name the dominant and recessive colours of the flower.
[Ans. (i) Monohybrid cross; (ii) Law of dominance; (iii) Law of segregation; (iv) Purple, White
Or
A cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other
with wrinkled and yellow seeds. 3
(a) Write the phenotype of F1 progeny. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Write the different types of F2 progeny obtained along with their ratio when F1 progeny was selfed.
Q.28. In a village in Haryana, people started cultivating crops all around the lake which was filled with water.
They added fertilizers to their field in order to enhance the yield. Soon they discovered that the water
body was completely covered with green floating plants and fishes started dying in large numbers.
(a) What is the reason for excessive growth of plants?
(b) Why fishes started dying in the lake?
(c) What is bio-magnification? Who is affected the most by this bio-magnification? 3
Q.29. (a) What happens to the heart when muscles work harder? 3
(b) Which body system is directly affected when a person has heart disease?
(c) Which cells increase in number during infection?
Q.30. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction in each case: 3
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) æÆ Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
(b) Zinc carbonate (s) æÆ Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) æÆ Hydrogen chloride (g)
SQP–13  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) æÆ Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
(e) Aluminium + Copper chloride æÆ Aluminium chloride + Copper
(f) Nitrogen gas + Hydrogen gas æÆ Ammonia
Q.31. Three elements A, B and C have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively. 3
(a) What would be their positions in the Modern Periodic Table (Mention group and period both)?
(b) Arrange A, B and C in the decreasing order of their size.
(c) Which one of the three elements is most reactive and why?
[Ans. (a) A, B and C occupy 2nd period of periodic table and 15, 16 and 17 groups respectively.
(b) A > B > C because atomic size decreases as we move from left to right across a period.
(c) C has electronic configuration 2, 7. It needs only one electron to complete its outermost shell.
So, it is more reactive.
Q.32. (a) Why does calcium start floating when added to water? 3
(b) Most of the metals do not give hydrogen while reacting with nitric acid. Why?
(c) Write equation for the reaction of iron with steam. Name the compound of iron obtained.
Q.33. An object placed 20 cm in front of a mirror is found to have an image 15 cm (a) in front of it, (b) behind it.
Find the focal length of the mirror and the kind of mirror in each case. 3
[Ans. (a) concave mirror of focal length –60/ cm; (b) convex mirror of focal length 60 cm.
7

SECTION D
Q.34. When a metal carbonate X is heated, a gas G1 is produced which when passed through a solution Y turns
it milky. On the other hand, when a gas G2 which is obtained on anode during electrolysis of brine
solution is passed on dry Y, it gives a compound Z (used as disinfecting drinking water).

s
(a) Identify G1 and G2. (b) What is the nature of the gas evolved when X is heated?

Da
(c) Write the reaction involved in the formation of G2.

iv
(d) Write the reaction involved when G2 reacts with Y.

Sh
(e) Name the compound Z and its two uses other than given above. [Ans. (a) G1 is CO2 gas. G2 is chlorine
(Cl2) gas; (b) The gas CO2 is acidic in nature; (e) Z is Calcium Oxy-Chloride (Bleaching Powder)
Or, (a) How would you distinguish between baking powder and washing soda by heating?
(b) Write some important uses of washing soda.
(c) Vidhya took four test tubes and labelled them as A, B, C and D. She put about 10 ml of dilute
hydrochloric acid in test tube A, lemon juice in test tube B, pure water in test tube C and washing
soda solution in test tube D respectively and then placed the pH paper in each test tube.
According to you:
(i) What will be the colour of pH paper in each? (ii) What is the approximate pH value of each
solution?
Write your observation in tabular form. 5
Q.35. Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the part:
(i) that produces eggs. (ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place. (iii) where zygote is implanted.
What happens to human egg when it is not fertilised? 5
[Ans. (i) Ovary; (ii) Fallopian tube; (iii) Uterus
Q.36. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the function of a
split ring commutator?
Or, (a) The value of current I flowing is given resistor for the corresponding values of potential
difference V across the resistor are given below: 5
I (ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0
V (Volts) 1.5 3.0 6.2 9.3
(i) Plot a graph between V and I. (ii) Calculate the resistance of that resistor.
(iii) What does the graph represent?
[Ans. (ii) R = 3.1 W ; (iii) Current is directly proportional to potential difference.
(b) An electric lamp is marked 100 W, 220 V. It is used for 5 hours daily. Calculate:
(i) its resistance while glowing.
(ii) energy consumed in kWh per day. [Ans. (i) R = 484 W; (ii) E = 0.5 kWh per day

✽ • •• • ✽
Code 086

3
Science–X
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
(With Hints & Answers)
As per CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80


General Instructions:
Same as in Sample Question Paper 1.

SECTION A
Q.1. State Modern periodic law of classification of elements.
[Ans. This law states “that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number”.
Or
The atomic numbers of three elements X, Y and Z are 3, 11 and 17 respectively. State giving reason which
two elements will show similar chemical properties. 1
[Ans. X & Y will show similar chemical properties as both elements have same number of valence electrons, i.e., 1.
Q.2. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes into curd (yogurt), will its pH value increase or decrease? Why? 1
Q.3. Write the name and the formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n. 1
[Ans. Alkene; Propene—C3H6
Q.4. What is the colour of scattered sunlight when the size of the scattering particles is relatively large? 1
Q.5. What is the magnification of the images formed by plane mirror and why? 1
Q.6. Why does diamond sparkle?
Or
What is meant by power of a lens? Write its SI unit. 1
Q.7. Write any one method to induce current in a coil. 1

Q.8. Copy the figure given which shows a plotting compass and a magnet.
Label the N pole of the magnet and draw the field line on which the
compass lies. 1

Q.9. How much energy is transferred by 15 V power supply to each coulomb of charge which moves around
circuit? [Ans. W = 15J; Hint: q = 1 C and W = Vq
Or
What is the shape of the graph between V and I, where V is the potential difference applied between the
ends of a wire and I is the current flowing through it? [Ans. Straight line
Q.10. Name the form in which the energy derived from the food is stored in humans. 1
[Ans. Chemical energy (ATP)
Q.11. Where are the substances translocated by the phloem delivered?
Or
Why plants have low energy needs? 1
Q.12. What makes the earth’s atmosphere a heterogeneous mixture?
Or
What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level? 1
Q.13. What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length? 1
For questions number 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other label
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 3  SQP–14
SQP–15  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Q.14. Assertion (A): Noble gases like helium, neon, argon etc, were not mentioned in Mendeléev’s Periodic Table.
1
Reason (R): Noble gases are very reactive and present in extremely low concentrations in our atmosphere.
[Ans. (c)
Q.15. Assertion (A): In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is
in the form of heat energy. 1
Reason (R): Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional. [Ans. (b)
Q.16. Assertion (A): Fossils are formed in sedimentary rocks. 1
Reason(R): Fossil bird Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and the birds. [Ans. (b)
Or
Assertion (A): Genetic drift alters the gene frequency of the remaining population.
Reason (R): Genes of certain traits in a small population get eliminated due to death of organisms because
of natural calamities or migration of organisms to other region. [Ans. (a)
Q. No 17–20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four subparts in these questions.
Q.17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17(i) to 17(v): 1×4
Urea nitrogen is a normal waste product that our body creates after you eat. Our liver breaks down the
proteins present in our food and while it does that, it creates blood urea nitrogen, also known as BUN.
When our kidneys are healthy, they remove the BUN from the body through urine, usually leaving a small
amount of it in the blood.

as
When our kidneys are not healthy, they have trouble removing BUN and leave more of it in our blood.

D
The blood urea nitrogen test, which is also called BUN test, measures how much of the waste product we

Shiv
have in our blood. If our levels are off the normal range, this could mean that either your kidneys or your
liver may not be working properly.
Results of a BUN test are measured in milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL).
Following table shows normal BUN levels:
Normal BUN levels (mg/dL)
Adult Male 8–24
Adult Female 6–21
Children (1-17 years) 7–20
(i) Following graph shows the BUN level in three friends. Who is (are) suffering from kidney
problems? 1

(a) Rahul (b) Meera (c) Siya and Rahul (d) Siya [Ans. (b)
(ii) Which of the following treatment would you suggest to those who have high BUN level? 1
(a) Kidney transplant (b) Liver transplant
(c) Hemodialysis (d) Lungs detoxification [Ans. (c)
(iii) What is the fundamental unit of the affected organ? 1
(a) Nephron (b) Neuron (c) Alveoli (d) Villi [Ans. (a)
(iv) Choose the correct path of urine in our body: 1
(a) kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary bladder
(b) kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 3  SQP–16

(c) kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra


(d) urinary bladder → kidney → ureter → urethra [Ans. (c)
(v) Which of the following is reabsorbed by kidney tubule? 1
(a) Ammonia (b) Amino acids (c) Urea (d) Uric acid [Ans. (b)
Q.18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v). 1×4
Smriti took a plastic mug. On drilling two holes at
the base of it, she inserted carbon electrodes as
shown in Figure with the help of rubber stoppers.
These electrodes are then connected to a 6 Volt
battery. She filled the mug with water in such a
way that both the electrodes are immersed and
added few drops of dilute sulphuric acid.
Finally, when she passed current for some time,
she observes the formation of bubbles at both the
electrodes. These bubbles displace water in the test
tubes.
(i) Which gas will be obtained in test Tube A
and which gas will be obtained in the test
Tube B? 1
(a) Oxygen gas will be obtained in test Tube A and hydrogen gas will be obtained in test Tube B.
(b) Hydrogen gas will be obtained in test Tube A and oxygen gas will be obtained in test Tube B.
(c) Hydrogen gas will be obtained in test Tube A and sulphur dioxide gas will be obtained in test

as
Tube B.

D
(d) Oxygen gas will be obtained in test Tube A and carbon dioxide gas will be obtained in test Tube B.

iv
[Ans. (a)

Sh
(ii) How can the presence of gas obtained in test Tube B be tested? 1
(a) By passing the gas to lime water (lime water will become milky).
(b) By bringing burning candle near test tube (popping sound will be produced).
(c) By the formation of brown fumes.
(d) By bringing burning candle near test tube (intensity of flame will increase). [Ans. (b)
(iii) Which of the following is the correct ratio of formation of gases in test Tube A and B respectively?
1
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) None of the these
[Ans. (b)
(iv) Name the process involved in the experiment conducted by Smriti. 1
(a) Thermal decomposition (b) Electrolytic decomposition
(c) Photolytic decomposition (d) All of the above [Ans. (b)
(v) Why Smriti added few drops of H2SO4? 1
(a) To neutralize the basic impurities of water.
(b) To increase the speed to formation of gases.
(c) As, H+ ions of H2SO4 are responsible for conduction of electricity.
(d) To make the reaction exothermic. [Ans. (c)
Q.19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(i) to 19(v): 1×4
A ray of light that travels obliquely from one transparent medium into another will change its direction in
the second medium. The extent of the change in direction that takes place in a given pair of media is
expressed in terms of the refractive index, the “constant” appearing on the right-hand side of equation,
sin i
= constant
sin r
The value of the refractive index for a given pair of media depends upon the speed of light in the two
media.
Following table shows the refractive indices of different mediums:
S.No. 1 2 3 4 5
Medium Water Crown Glass Rock salt Ruby Diamond
Refractive Index 1.33 1.52 1.54 1.71 2.42
SQP–17  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(i) Select a pair of medium in which light speeds up when it goes from one of these media to another.
1
(a) When light travels from rock salt to ruby.
(b) When light travels from water to ruby.
(c) When light travels from crown glass to ruby.
(d) When light travels from crown glass to water. [Ans. (d)
(ii) What is the speed of light in crown glass if speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s? 1
(a) 1.97 × 108 m/s (b) 0.56 × 108 m/s (c) 1.97 × 10–8 m/s (d) 0.56 × 10–8 m/s
Vc 3 × 10 8
[Ans. (a); Hint. ng = ⇒ fi Vc = 1.97 × 108 m/s
Vg 1.52

(iii) A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in Figure. 1


The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be
(a) greater than unity
(b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) zero [Ans. (a)
(iv) The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four
students are shown as A, B, C and D in Figure. 1
Which one of them is correct?

Das
(a) A
(A)
(b) B

Shiv
(B)
(c) C
(C)

(v) Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out
(d) D
(D)
[Ans. (b)

of box through the holes C and D respectively as shown in the Figure.


Which of the following could be inside the box? 1
(a) A rectangular glass slab (b) A convex lens
(c) A concave lens (d) A prism [Ans. (a)
Q.20. The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight wire depends inversely
on the distance from it. Similarly, at every point of a current-carrying circular loop,
the concentric circles representing the magnetic field around it would become
larger and larger as we move away from the wire. By the time we reach at the
centre of the circular loop, the arcs of these big circles would appear as straight
lines. Every point on the wire carrying current would give rise to the magnetic field
appearing as straight lines at the center of the loop. By applying the right hand
thumb rule, it is easy to check that every section of the wire contributes to the
magnetic field lines in the same direction within the loop. 1×4
(i) Right hand thumb rule is also known as .................. . 1
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule (b) Maxwell’s corkscrew rule
(c) Clock face rule (d) Fleming’s left hand rule [Ans. (b)
(ii) If there is a circular coil having n turns, the field produced is 1
(a) 1/n times as that produced by single turn (b) 2n times as that produced by single turn
(c) n times as that produced by single turn (d) same as that produced by single turn
[Ans. (c); Hint: This is because the current in each circular turn has the same direction,
and the field due to each turn then just adds up.
(iii) A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a
current when the key is ON. The current as seen from points A and B (in the
plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti-clockwise and clockwise
respectively. The magnetic field lines point from B to A. The N-pole of the
resultant magnet is on the face close to 1
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 3  SQP–18

(a) A (b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large.
[Ans. (a); Hint: Using Right Hand Thumb rule we can see that fingers are going from A to B which means north
to south pole.
(iv) Which of the following is not correct statement for current carrying circular loop? 1
(a) Strength of magnetic field produced by current carrying circular loop can be decreased by
decreasing the current passing through it.
(b) If radius of the coil decreases, then the strength of magnetic field increases.
(c) If the current around the face of the coil flows in anti-clockwise direction, the face of the coil is
north pole.
(d) Strength of magnetic field at the centre of the loop is maximum. [Ans. (c)
(v) The device used for measuring current is ............... . 1
(a) Galvanometer (b) Voltmeter (c) Electric generator (d) Ammeter [Ans. (d)

SECTION B
Q.21. Define the term puberty. List two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty.
Or
Write the names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in the
animals: 2
(i) testis; (ii) sperm; (iii) ovary; (iv) egg.
[Ans. (i) Anther; (ii) Pollen grain; (iii) ovary; (iv) Egg

s
Q.22. (a) State reason why rings of cartilage are present in the trachea.

a
(b) Write other names of the—(i) Alveolar sac (ii) Voice box 2

v D
Q.23. (a) What is buckminsterfullerene? How is it related to diamond and graphite?

Shi
(b) Why is diamond used for making cutting tools (like glass cutters) but graphite is not?
Or
Friedrich Wohler converted an inorganic compound into an organic compound in the laboratory. 2
(i) Give the name and formula of inorganic compound.
(ii) Write the name and formula of organic compound formed.
[Ans. (i) Ammonium cyanate, NH4CNO; (ii) Urea, CO(NH2)2
Q.24. Give reasons: 2
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
Q.25. What is meant by spectrum? How can we recombine the components of white light after a prism has
separated them? 2
Q.26. A 100 watt electric bulb is lighted for 2 hours daily and four 40 watt bulbs are light for 4 hours everyday.
Calculate the electric energy consumed in kWh in 30 days. 2
[Ans. Total electric energy consumed in 30 days = 25.2 kWh

SECTION C
Q.27. Explain Mendel’s Law of Segregation of traits with the help of a flow chart. 3
Q.28. Name the wastes which are generated in your house daily. What measures would you take for their
disposal?
Or
What is energy pyramid? Why is it broader at base and narrower at the apex region? 3
Q.29. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings? 3
Q.30. (a) Show the formation of magnesium chloride and sodium chloride by transfer of electrons.
(b) Identify the ions present in these compounds. 3
Q.31. (a) What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
(b) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?
(c) In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, why was there no mention of noble gases like Helium, Neon and
Argon? 3
Q.32. (a) Two lenses have power of (i) + 2D, (ii) –4D. What is the nature and focal length of each lens?
[Ans. (i) f = + 0.5 m; Nature of lens: Convex Lens (ii) f = –0.25 m; Nature of lens: Concave Lens
SQP–19  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(b) An object is kept at a distance of 100 cm from each of the above lenses. Calculate the—(i) image
distance; (ii) magnification in each of the above two cases mentioned in (a). 3
[Ans. (i) m = –1; Image will be same size but inverted. (ii) m = 1/5; Image is erect, virtual and diminished in size.
Q.33. Polyatomic ions are ions which consist of more than one atom. For example, nitrate ion, NO−3 , contains one
nitrogen atom and three oxygen atoms; sulphate ion SO −42 , contains one sulphur and four oxygen atoms.
The atoms in a polyatomic ions are usually covalently bonded to one another, and therefore stay together
as a single, charged unit. 3
(a) Write the chemical formula of element X having electronic configuration 2,8,2 with polyatomic ions
given above.
(b) Write two other polyatomic ions.
(c) An element Y forms the compound with SO −42 having chemical formula Y2SO4. Find out in which
group element Y lies?
SECTION D
Q.34. (a) What is the importance of pH in everyday life? 5
(b) How are sodium hydroxide and Cl2 (Chlorine) gas produced from common salt. What is the process called?
Q.35. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label the following parts:
(i) Largest gland
(ii) Gland that secretes digestive enzymes and hormone
(iii) Part where HCl is produced
(iv) Part where digested food is absorbed
(b) What are villi? Explain their function in the digestive system.

as
Or, (a) Name the different types of asexual reproduction seen in living organisms. Give examples for each. 5

D
(b) Identify the process occurring in the given figure. Briefly describe the process.

Shiv
Q.36. (a) Define electromagnetic induction.
(b) Two coils P and S are wound over the same iron core. Coil P is connected to battery and key and the
coil S is connected to galvanometer.
Draw a suitable diagram of this arrangement and write your observations when:
(i) Current in the coil P is started by closing the key.
(ii) Current continues to flow in coil P.
(iii) Current in coil P is stopped by removing the key.
(iv) Explain the reason for such observations.
Or
(a) Advika took a wire of uniform thickness with a resistance of 27 Ω and cut into three equal pieces and
then joined them in parallel. Find the resistance of the parallel combination. 5
(b) Three resistance are connected to a 12 V battery as shown in the figure:
(i) What is the current through 8 ohms resistor?
(ii) What is the potential difference across the parallel combination of 6
ohms and 12 ohms resistor?
(iii) What is the current through the 6 ohms resistor?
[Ans. Total Resistance R = 8 + 4 = 12 Ω
Now V = IR fi 12 = I × 12 \ I = 1A
(ii) V = IR = 1 × 4 = 4V
(iii) ∵ V = I1 R fi 4 = I1 × 6 ∵ I1 = 4/6 = 0.66 A
✽ • •• • ✽
Code 086

4
Science–X
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
(With Hints & Answers)
As per CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80


General Instructions:
Same as in Sample Question Paper 1.

SECTION A
Q.1. Draw the electron dot structure of F2. 1
Q.2. Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water? Give an example. 1
[Ans. Water soluble bases are called alkalis, for example, NaOH, KOH
Q.3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
Tick the correct answer and justify your answer with the help of reaction. 1
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
[Ans. (a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced. Fe + 2HCl Æ FeCl2 + H2
Q.4. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of light visible? [Ans. Tyndall effect
Or
What did Newton demonstrate by his experiments with the prism? 1
Q.5. Write down the magnification formula for a lens in terms of object distance and image distance. How does
it differ from the corresponding formula for a mirror? 1
v −v
[Ans. In case of lens, m = ; In case of mirror m =
u u
The magnification formula for lenses differs only in signs from the magnification formula for mirrors.
Q.6. State two effects caused by the refraction of light.
Or
What will happen to a ray of light when it travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium? 1
Q.7. Which of the following is not possible? 1

[Ans. (d)

Q.8. Which one has more resistance—100 Watt bulb or 60 Watt bulb? 1
Q.9. Define and explain Ohm’s law. 1
Or
Should the resistance of an ammeter be low or high? Give reason.
Q.10. Why regeneration is not possible in complex multicellular organisms? 1
Q.11. What does happen to the rate of breathing during vigorous exercise and why?
Or
What do you mean by osmoregulation? 1
Q.12. Name two waste materials which can be recycled.
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 4  SQP–20
SQP–21  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Or
Consider a food chain of—Fish, Crab, Plankton, Shark. Arrange the above chain in proper order of trophic
level. Assign trophic level to Shark. 1
Q.13. What is the significance of testes being located in scrotal sacs outside the abdomen? 1
For questions number 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other label
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Q.14. Assertion (A): Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is greater than 5.5. 1
Reason (R): Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles
remaining in the mouth after eating. [Ans. (d)
Q.15. Assertion (A): Abiotic components are the non-living components, i.e., the physical factors like temperature,
light, wind, water, humidity, soil, minerals, etc. 1
Reason (R): Both biotic and abiotic components interact with each other to form the environment as a
whole. [Ans. (b)
Or
Assertion (A): The burning of a substance at high temperature (of more than 1000°C) to form ash is called
incineration.
Reason (R): Incineration is used to destroy the left-over kitchen wastes, papers, etc. [Ans. (c)
Q.16. Assertion (A): Bread mould grow profusely on a moist slice of bread rather than on a dry slice of bread. 1
Reason (R): Moistened bread slice offers both moisture and nutrients to the bread mould.

as
[Ans. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is also correct explanation of assertion.

D
[Hint. Moisture helps in the growth of hyphae. Moistened bread slice offers both moisture and nutrients

iv
to the bread mould, hence it grows in very large amount while dry slice of bread

Sh
offers nutrients but not moisture hence hyphae fail to grow.
Q. No. 17–20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four subparts in these questions.
Q.17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17(i) to 17(v): 1×4
Dhruv works as a HR manager in a company. He was not keeping well for a long time. He always feels
tired, dizzy and was losing weight. Also, feels short of breath more often and was suffering from fever for
last 15 days. His friend advised him to visit doctor. He underwent a complete medical checkup and found
that he is infected with HIV virus.
(i) Name the disease Dhruv is suffering from. 1
(a) Acute Immune Deficiency Syndrome (b) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(c) Acquired Immune Disease Syndrome (d) Acute Immune Disease Syndrome [Ans. (b)
(ii) Which one of the following is not the method to prevent these kinds of diseases? 1
(a) Having sex with an infected or any unknown person should be avoided.
(b) Sharing of needles, syringes etc. must be prohibited.
(c) Sharing of food, clothes etc. must be prohibited.
(d) Condoms should be used during sex. [Ans. (c)
(iii) Which of the following birth control measure can prevent STDs? 1
(a) Copper-T (b) Contraceptive pills (c) Condoms (d) Vasectomy [Ans. (c)
(iv) Given graph shows new cases of HIV infection and
number of deaths in different years.
In which year number of new cases of HIV is almost
similar to number of death cases. 1
(a) 2010
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017 [Ans. (a)
(v) Which of the following disease is STD? 1
(a) Herpes (b) Cancer
(c) Dengue (d) Malaria
[Ans. (a)
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 4  SQP–22

Q.18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v). 1×4
Dmitri Mendeleev was a Russian chemist who developed the periodic classification of the elements.
Mendeleev found that, when all the known chemical elements were arranged in order of increasing
atomic weight, the resulting table displayed a recurring pattern, or periodicity, of properties within
groups of elements. In his version of the periodic table of 1871, he left gaps in places where he believed
unknown elements would find their place. He even predicted the likely properties of three of the potential
elements. The subsequent proof of many of his predictions within his lifetime brought fame to Mendeléev
as the founder of the periodic law.
(i) Which of the following elements properties were predicted by Mendeléev? 1
(a) Scandium, Germanium and Gallium (b) Scandium, Germanium and Silicon
(c) Silicon, Germanium and Gallium (d) Scandium, Uranium and Gallium [Ans. (a)
(ii) Which one of the following is not the limitations of Mendeleev periodic table? 1
(a) The position of isotopes could not be explained.
(b) Correct position was not assigned to hydrogen.
(c) Heavier elements were placed before lighter one.
(d) After discovery of Noble gases, they could not be placed anywhere in the table. [Ans. (d)
(iii) Which of the following anomalies of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table were removed by Modern
Periodic Table: 1
(a) Problem of isotopes was solved.
(b) Problem of isobars was solved.
(c) Wrong order of Ar, K, Co, Ni was removed in the Modern Periodic Table.

s
(d) A unique position is given to hydrogen. [Ans. (b)

Da
(iv) Which of the following are the characteristics of isotopes of an element? 1

iv
(1) Isotopes of an element have same atomic masses.

Sh
(2) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number.
(3) Isotopes of an element show same physical properties.
(4) Isotopes of an element show same chemical properties.
(a) (1), (3) and (4) (b) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (2) and (3) (d) (2) and (4) [Ans. (d)
(v) What type of oxide would eka–aluminium form? 1
(a) EO3 (b) E3O2 (c) E2O3 (d) EO [Ans. (c)
Q.19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(i) to 19(v): 1×4
Objects will appear reversed in a mirror because what you are seeing, is a reflection and not a
reproduction of the image. If you stand in front of a plane mirror with your right eye closed, the image in
the mirror will appear to show your left eye closed, because the image is facing the opposite direction. In
all situations, images and directions are reversed.
(i) What do we call the phenomenon referred to above? 1
(a) Regular Inversion (b) Lateral Inversion
(c) Diffused Inversion (d) Both (a) and (b) [Ans. (b)
(ii) Which one of the following is not the characteristic of plane mirror? 1
(a) The image of the plane mirror is of the same size as the object.
(b) The image is erect.
(c) Magnification of image formed in case of plane mirror is always –1.
(d) The image is always virtual. [Ans. (c)
(iii) Which of the following alphabets will appear reversed in the mirror? 1
(a) A (b) O (c) T (d) E [Ans. (d)
(iv) What is the focal length of plane mirror? 1
(a) +1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) Infinity
[Ans. (d); As image can be formed at an infinite distance inside the mirror.
(v) How many images will be formed when two mirrors are placed perpendicular to each other? 1
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Three (d) Infinity
[Ans. (c); Hint. If θ be the angle between 2 mirrors, then the number of images
(n) formed will be, n = 360/q – 1. So, n = 360/90 – 1 = 4 – 1 = 3
SQP–23  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

Q.20. Sushma and her friend Anchal constructed a battery of


cells using lemons and uses it to light up an LED (Light
Emitting Diode). For this they took 5 lemons, 5 thin
strips of copper, 5 thin strips of zinc, and LED copper
connecting wires.
They arranged the lemons in a line on the table and
inserted one copper and one zinc strip in each of the
lemons as shown in the following figure.
Sushma connected the zinc strip of first lemon with the copper strip of the second lemon and in this way she
connected all the cells, leaving one copper strip free at the end of first lemon and one zinc strip at the end of
last lemon. Then Anchal connected LED between these free strips with the help of copper wires. 1×4
(i) Which of the following is true about the experiment conducted by Sushma and Anchal? 1
(a) The LED glows continuously because continuous charge flows through it due to a constant
potential difference across its ends with the help of battery of lemon cells.
(b) LED does not glow when we use cotton thread instead of copper wire as cotton thread is a good
conductor of electricity.
(c) The LED does not glow because continuous charge does not flow through it due to a zero-
potential difference across its ends.
(d) LED glows when we use cotton thread instead of copper wire as cotton thread will complete the
circuit. [Ans. (a)
(ii) Which among the following is the proper representation of series combination of cells to obtain
maximum potential? 1

as
(a) (b)

(c)

iv D (d)

Sh
[Ans. (a)

(iii) Two resistors of resistance 2 Ω and 4 Ω when connected to a battery will have 1
(a) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel.
(b) same current flowing through them when connected in series.
(c) same potential difference across them when connected in series.
(d) different potential difference across them when connected in parallel. [Ans. (b)
(iv) If the potential difference across the ends of a conductor is doubled, the current flowing through it
gets 1
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) four times (d) no change [Ans. (d)
(v) Which of the following gases are filled in electric bulbs? 1
(a) Helium and Neon (b) Neon and Argon
(c) Argon and Hydrogen (d) Argon and Nitrogen [Ans. (d)

SECTION B
Q.21. What is lymph? State its functions.
Or
Draw the diagram of open and closed stomata. 2
Q.22. Is the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular organism always constant?
How is the constancy maintained in these three stages? 2
Q.23. Write the characteristics of homologous series. Give an example of homologous series. 2
Q.24. What happens when metals react with water? 2
Q.25. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of a three times magnified real image of an object kept in front of
a converging lens. Mark the positions of objects, F, 2F, O and position of image clearly in the diagram. 2

Q.26. If the key in the arrangement as shown in the figure is taken out (the circuit
is made open) then what type of magnetic field lines are drawn over the
horizontal plane ABCD. 2
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 4  SQP–24

SECTION C
Q.27. (a) Define natural selection.
(b) How do genes control the characteristics (traits) of the organisms? Explain this with an example. 3
Or
(a) Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance.
(b) Study the following cross and showing self pollination in F1, fill in the blank and answer the
question that follows:
Parents RRYY × rryy
Round, yellow wrinkled, green
F1 — RrYy × ?
Round, yellow ?
Q.28. Why does vegetarian habit help us in getting more energy? In terms of energy who is at an advantageous
position—vegetarian or a non-vegetarian? Why? 3
Q.29. List the three kinds of blood vessels of human circulatory system and write their functions in tabular form. 3
Q.30. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions: 3
(i) Phosphorous burns in chlorine to form phosphorous pentachloride
(ii) Burning of natural gas (iii) The process of respiration
Q.31. Which element has: 3
(i) Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(ii) A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
(iii) Twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell? [Ans. (i) Neon; (ii) Silicon; (iii) Carbon

as
Q.32. A non-metal A which is the largest constituent of air, when heated with H2 in 1 : 3 ratio in the presence of

D
catalyst (Fe) gives a gas B. On heating with O2 it gives an oxide C. If this oxide is passed into water in the

iv
presence of air it gives an acid D which acts as a strong oxidising agent.

Sh
Identify A, B, C and D. Justify your answer. 3
[Ans. A—Nitrogen gas; B—Ammonia; C—Nitrogen dioxide; D—Nitric acid
Q.33. What is scattering of light? The colour of the Sun looks different at different times of the day. Why? 3

SECTION D
Q.34. (a) The blue colour of crystals of a substance changed on heating in a closed test tube but the colour was
regained after sometime on cooling. Name the substance and write its chemical formula. Explain the
phenomenon involved. 3
(b) Write name and chemical formula of two such compounds whose one formula unit is associated with
10 and 2 water molecules respectively. 2
Q.35. (a) What would be the consequences of the deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies? 2
(b) Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys with respect to their
structure and functioning. 3
Or, What is vegetative propagation? Describe various methods of vegetative propagation. 5
Q.36. Find out the following in the electric circuit given in the figure given below: 5
(a) Effective resistance of two 8 W resistors in the combination and equivalent resistance.
(b) Current flowing through 4 W resistor.
(c) Potential difference across 4 W resistance.
(d) Power dissipated in 4 W resistor.
(e) Difference in ammeter readings, if any.
[Ans. (a) R = 4 W; (b) I = 1A; (c) V1 = 4V; (d) Power dissipated = 4 W;
(e) No difference, as the same current flows through each element in a series circuit.
Or
(a) How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a
current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain. 2
(b) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if the bar
magnet is— 3
(i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary inside the coil.
✽ • •• • ✽
Code 086

5
Science–X
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
(With Hints & Answers)
As per CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021

Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80


General Instructions:
Same as in Sample Question Paper 1.

SECTION A
Q.1. “Metals replace hydrogen from acids whereas non-metals do not.” Why?
Or While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the
acid? 1
Q.2. State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4– anions. 1
Q.3. When Ag is exposed to air it gets a black coating of—
(a) AgNO3 (b) Ag2S (c) Ag2O (d) Ag2CO3
Also, justify your answer with the help of reaction involved. 1
[Ans. (b); Hint: Silver reacts with H2S present in the air to form Ag2S. 2Ag + H2S ⎯→ Ag2S + H2
Q.4. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut? 1
Q.5. When the light enters from air to glass, the angles of incidence and refraction in air and glass are 45° and 30°
respectively. Find the refractive index of glass. 1
[Ans. nge = 1.41
Q.6. Give an application of diffused light. 1
Or, What sign convention has been given to the focal length of—(a) a concave mirror? (b) a convex mirror?
[Ans. (a) –ve; (b) +ve
Q.7. What do the following symbols mean in the circuit diagrams? 1
(i) (ii) [Ans. (i) Variable resistance; (ii) Closed key
Q.8. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? 1
Q.9. Two wires of same metal have the same length but their cross-sectional area is in the ratio 3:1. The resistance of
the thicker wire is 10 ohms. What will be the resistance of the other wire? [Ans. R2 = 30 W
Or, Why is resistance less when resistors are joint in parallel? 1
Q.10. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition? 1
Q.11. What is syngamy? 1
Or, What is implantation?
Q.12. Why are bacteria and fungi called decomposers? 1
Or, Study carefully the food chain given here: wheat → rat → snake → hawk
To which of the two consumers, snake or hawk will more energy (percent) be available and why?
Q.13. How many chromosomes are present in the sex gametes (egg cell or sperm) of human beings? 1
[Ans. 23 chromosomes
For questions number 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Q.14. Assertion (A): Carbon and its compound can be used as fuels. 1
Reason (R): Graphite an allotrope of carbon is a good conductor of electricity. [Ans. (b)
Q.15. Asserion (A): When a charged particle enters in the direction of a uniform magnetic field, then it moves on a
straight path without deviation. 1
Reason (R): Magnetic force on a charged particle is zero, when it moves in the direction of magnetic field.
[Ans. (a)
SQP–25  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 5  SQP–26

Or, Assertion (A): Alloys are used for making coils of electric iron, toasters, room heaters etc.
Reason (R): Alloys have more resistance than constituent metals and thus are heated up easily due to the
heating effect of electric current. [Ans. (a)
Q.16. Assertion (A): Bile juice is secreted by liver. It emulsifies the fats into smaller globules. 1
Reason (R): Bicarbonate ions are secreted by the duodenal wall to make the medium alkaline, so that the
pancreatic enzymes act on the food. [Ans. (b)
Q. No. 17–20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four subparts in these questions.
Q.17. Cholesterol is a waxy substance found in your blood. Your body needs cholesterol to build healthy cells, but
high levels of cholesterol can be very fatal. With high cholesterol, you can develop fatty deposits in your blood
vessels. Eventually, these deposits grow, making it difficult for enough blood to flow through your arteries.
High cholesterol can be inherited, but it is often the result of unhealthy lifestyle choices, which make it
unpreventable. 1×4
Blood Cholesterol Level Chart
Desirable Borderline (high) High Risk
Total Cholesterol < 200 200 = 240 > 240
Triglycerides < 150 150–500 > 500
Low Density Cholesterol < 130 130–160 > 160
High Density Cholesterol > 50 50–35 < 35
(i) Which of the organ can be affected in a patient suffering from high cholesterol? 1
(a) Liver (b) Heart (c) Lungs (d) Stomach [Ans. (b)
(ii) Given below are the reports of three persons. Find out which one among them is at higher risk. 1

as
Name Vidhi Gunika Jaya

v D
Total Cholesterol 367 240 187
(a) Vidhi (b) Gunika

Sh
(iii) Which graph refers to the normal person?
i
With the help of the graph find out which age group
(c) Jaya
260
(d) All of them [Ans. (a)
20-29 years
30-39 years
Mean total cholesterol (mg/dL)

250
40-49 years
suffers maximum with high cholesterol issue? 1 240
50-59 years
60-74 years
(a) 20-29 (b) 30-39
230
(c) 50-59 (d) 60-74 [Ans. (d)
220
(iv) A person with high risk category should take a
suitable diet. Which of the following are correct 210

guidelines for the patient? 1 200

(a) High sugar and starch 190

(b) Low salt and fats 180


(c) High proteins 1960-1962 1971-1974 1978-1980 1988-1994 1999-2002
Survey Years
(d)Low sugar and proteins [Ans. (b)
(v) What changes should be brought in the lifestyle of a person who is already suffering from high blood
cholesterol. 1
A. Yoga & exercise B. Quitting smoking & alcohol C. Avoid lift & use staircase D. Enjoy driving
Which of the following is the correct option?
(a) A, C (b) B, C, D (c) A, B, C (d) A, D [Ans. (c)
Q.18. The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the atom of the element.
Electronic configuration gives the number of valence electrons in its atom. The number of valence electrons
decides the number of electrons lost or gained by one atom of an element to achieve the nearest inert gas
electron configuration and gives the valency of element. 1×4
(i) The positions of four elements X, Y, Z and W
in the modern periodic table are shown Z X
below. Which element makes both covalent Y
and ionic bond? W
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Z (d) W
[Ans. (a)
SQP–27  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(ii) Two elements ‘X’ and ‘M’ have atomic numbers 13 and 11 respectively. What would be the formula of
their bromide? 1
(a) X will form XBr3 and M will form MBr. (b) X will form XBr2 and M will form MBr.
(c) X will form XBr3 and M will form MBr2. (d) X will form XBr and M will form MBr.
[Ans. (a)
(iii) The positions of four elements A, B, C and D in
the modern periodic table are shown below.
B D
Which of the following is the correct order of
C
increasing electronegativity of the elements? 1
A
(a) A < C < D < B
(b) B < C < A < D
(c) C < A < D < B
(d) A < B < C < D [Ans. (d)
(iv) Consider the following elements 20Ca, 8O, 18Ar, 16S, 4Be, 2He.
Which of the above elements would you expect to be in group 16 of the Periodic Table? 1
(a) 20Ca and 16S (b) 20Ca and 8O (c) 18Ar and 16S (d) 8O and 16S [Ans. (d)
(v) Name the neutral atom in the Periodic Table which has the same number of electrons as K+ and Cl–. 1
(a) Helium (b) Argon (c) Neon (d) Krypton [Ans. (b)
Q.19. Nisha went to Eustis, Florida to her uncle’s place for vacations. She was amazed to
see two rainbows at the same time. Her uncle explained her that rainbow is a
multicoloured arc made due to the striking of light on water droplets. These droplets
act like tiny prisms. Rainbow is produced after the rain, by reflection, refraction and
light dispersion process in droplets of water. On rare occasions, two rainbows form

as
at the same time. The first and brighter rainbow is called the primary rainbow. The

D
second less vivid one is called the secondary rainbow. It occurs when refracted light

iv
bounces of the raindrops not once but twice, producing a secondary rainbow. 1×4

Sh
(i) Which colour is least deviated in case of rainbow? 1
(a) Red (b) Violet (c) Blue (d) Yellow [Ans. (a)
(ii) At what angle the rainbow light reflects the eye to the original ray of sunlight? 1
(a) 32° (b) 90° (c) 42° (d) At any angle [Ans. (c)
(iii) The splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a glass prism is called 1
(a) refraction (b) dispersion (c) tyndall effect (d) scattering [Ans. (b)
(iv) What is (are) the necessary condition(s) for the formation of the rainbow? 1
(a) Raindrops are required for rainbow formation.
(b) Sun should be at your back to observe the rainbow.
(c) Temperature should be moderate. (d) Both (a) and (b). [Ans. (d)
(v) Find out the correct diagram which represents rainbow formation. 1

(a) (b) (c) (d)

[Ans. (a)

Q.20 The current through a conductor depends upon its resistance


and the potential difference across its ends. In various
electrical gadgets, we often use resistors in various
combinations. There are two methods of joining the resistors
together. Figure 1 shows an electric circuit in which three
resistors having resistances R1, R2 and R3, respectively, are
joined end to end. Here the resistors are said to be connected in series. Figure 2 shows a combination of
resistors in which three resistors are connected together between points X and Y. Here, the resistors are said to
be connected in parallel. 1×4
(i) Which of the following is not true about combination of resistors? 1
(a) In series combination, the resultant resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.
(b) In series combination, the same current flows through each resistance.
SCIENCE—SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2021) 5  SQP–28

(c) In parallel combination, the potential difference across each resistor is same.
(d) The current in parallel combination is same across each resistor. [Ans. (d)

(ii) Teacher asks students to find our equivalent resistance across any two adjacent
vertices of the given circuit ABCD.
Below table shows the equivalent resistance calculated by some students.
Name of the Student A B C D
Equivalent Resistance 2Ω 8Ω 1.5 Ω 0.677 Ω

Observe the table and find out the student who has calculated correct equivalent resistance? 1
(a) Student A (b) Student B (c) Student C (d) Student D [Ans. (c)
(iii) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark. Calculate its least count. 1
(a) 0.025 volts (b) 0.25 volts (c) 0.5 volts (d) 25 volts [Ans. (a)
(iv) In which configuration of resistance, the equivalent resistance is always smaller than every resistor is
connected? 1
(a) Series combination (b) Parallel combination (c) Mixed combination (d) None of these [Ans. (b)
(v) The given circuit diagram shows the experiment arrangement of different
circuit components for determination of equivalent resistance of two resistors
connected in series. The components P, Q and M shown in the circuit
respectively represent. 1
(a) Rheostat, Resistor, Ammeter (b) Voltmeter, Ammeter, Rheostat
(c) Ammeter, Voltmeter, Rheostat (d) Rheostat, Ammeter, Voltmeter [Ans. (c)

as
SECTION B

v D
Q.21. What is ovulation? When does it take place in the human female? 2

Shi
Or, Complete the glucose breakdown pathway in case of aerobic respiration by filling the blanks:

[Ans. 1. Pyruvate (3 carbon molecule), 2. Energy, 3. Presence of oxygen, 4. In mitochondria, 5. CO2, 6. H2O
Q.22. How are water and minerals transported in plants? 2
Or, If the teeth are not cleaned regularly, they become covered with a sticky yellowish layer W. Since layer W covers
the teeth, the alkaline liquid X secreted by glands Y inside the mouth cannot reach the teeth’s surface to neutralise
the acid formed by the action of organisms Z on sugary food and hence tooth decay sets in.
(a) What is W known as? (b) What are X and Y?
(c) What is organism Z called? (d) State one way of removing layer W from the teeth.
[Ans. (a) Dental plaque; (b) X—Saliva and Y—Salivary glands; (c) Organisms Z—Microorganisms (bacteria);
(d) Dental plaque can be removed by brushing teeth twice daily.
Q.23. What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this compound. 2
Q.24. (a) A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for testing carbon dioxide. What will be the reaction of ‘X’ with
carbon dioxide? Write balanced equation for this reaction. 2
(b) How is ‘X’ obtained? Give chemical equation.
Q.25. (a) What is meant by scattering of light? (b) Mention the factor on which it depends. 2
Q.26. (a) What is the principle of an electric motor? (b) What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor? 2

SECTION C
Q.27. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with a white colour flower plant denoted by bb. 3
(a) State the colour of flower you expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are self-
pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.
[Ans. (a) The colour of the flower in F1 progeny will be blue.
SQP–29  Shiv Das Chapterwise (Science X)

(b) The percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are self-pollinated would be 25%.
(c) The expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny would be 1 : 2.
Q.28. In a village in Haryana, people started cultivating crops all around the lake which was filled with water. They
added fertilizers to their field in order to enhance the yield. Soon they discovered that the water body was
completely covered with green floating plants and fishes started dying in large numbers. 3
(a) What is the reason for excessive growth of plants?
(b) Why fishes started dying in the lake?
(c) What is bio-magnification?
Or, What are biodegradable substances? Describe two ways in which non-biodegradable substances affect our
environment.
Q.29. Draw the labelled diagram of double circulation in human beings. 3
Q.30. Name the substance oxidised and the substance reduced, and also identify the oxidising and reducining
agents in the following reactions: 3
(a) 3MnO2 + 4Al ⎯→ 3Mn + 2Al2O3
(b) Fe2O3 + 3CO ⎯→ 2Fe + 3CO2
(c) SO2 + 2H2S ⎯→ 3S + 2H2O
Q.31. (a) What were the limitations of Döbereiner’s classification? 3
(b) The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table are shown below:
Group 16 — — — B
Group 17 — A — C
(i) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.

s
(ii) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A.

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(iii) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?

v
(iv) Out of B and C, whose oxide is more acidic? [Ans. (i) A is a non-metal.

Shi
(ii) C is less reactive than A, as reactivity decreases down the group in halogens.
(iii) C will be smaller in size than B as moving across a period, the nuclear charge increases and therefore,
electrons are pulled closer to the nucleus.
(iv) C because acidic character increase when we move along the period.
Q.32. A metal A, which is used in thermite process, when heated with oxygen gives an oxide B, which is amphoteric
in nature. Identify A and B. Write down the reactions of oxide B with HCl and NaOH. 3
Q.33. An object 60 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens and its 30 cm tall image is formed on the
screen placed at a distance of 40 cm from the object. What is the focal length of the lens? 3

SECTION D
Q.34. With the help of a chemical reaction explain how a soda-acid fire-extinguisher helps in putting out a fire? 5
Or (a) When calcium metal is added to water, the gas evolved does not catch fire but the same gas evolved on
adding potassium metal to water catches fire. Explain why?
(b) Name a metal for each case:
(i) It displaces hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
(ii) It does not react with any physical state of water.
(iii) It does not react with cold as well as hot water but reacts with steam.
[Ans. (i) Magnesium; (ii) Copper; (iii) Aluminium
Q.35. (a) What is fertilization? 5
(b) Distinguish between external and internal fertilization.
(c) What is the site of fertilization in humans?
(d) List two differences between mode of reproduction in human beings and amoeba.
Q.36. Two conductors A and B of resistances 5 W and 10 W respectively are first joined in parallel and then in series.
In each case the voltage applied is 20 V. 5
(a) Draw the circuit diagram to show the combination of these conductors in each case.
(b) In which combination will the voltage across the conductors A and B be the same?
(c) In which arrangement will the current through A and B is the same?
(d) Calculate the equivalent resistance for each arrangement.
Or, (a) With the help of a labelled diagram, describe an activity to show that a current carrying conductor
experiences a force when placed in a magnetic field. Mention the position when this force is maximum.
(b) Name and state the rule which gives the direction of force acting on the conductor.
✽ • •• • ✽
CHAPTER 1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS
AND EQUATIONS
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Chemical Reaction. During chemical reactions, chemical composition of substances changes or new
substances are formed.
☞ Chemical Equation. Chemical reactions can be written in chemical equation form which should always
be balanced.
☞ Types of Chemical Reactions:
(i) Combination reaction. A single product is formed from two or more reactants.
2Mg + O2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2MgO
(ii) Decomposition reaction. A single reactant breaks down to yield two or more products.
• Thermal decomposition: 2Pb(NO3)2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
• Electrolysis: 2H2O ⎯⎯⎯ → 2H2 + O2
• Photochemical reaction: 2AgBr ⎯⎯⎯ → 2Ag + Br2
(iii) Displacement reaction. One element is displaced by another element.
Zn + CuSO4 ⎯⎯⎯ → ZnSO4 + Cu
(iv) Double displacement reaction. Exchange of ions between reactants.
AgNO3 + NaCl ⎯⎯⎯ → AgCl + NaNO3
(v) Redox reaction. Both oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously.
CuO + H2 ⎯⎯⎯ → Cu + H2O
(vi) Exothermic reaction. A chemical reaction in which heat energy is evolved.
C + O2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CO2 (g) + heat
(vii) Endothermic reaction. A chemical reaction in which heat energy is absorbed.
ZnCO3 + Heat ⎯⎯⎯ → ZnO + CO2
(viii) Redox reaction. Chemical reaction in which both oxidation and reduction take place
simultaneously.
☞ Oxidation. Reaction that involves the gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen.
☞ Reduction. Reaction that shows the loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen. ZnO + C ⎯⎯⎯ → Zn + CO
ZnO is reduced to Zn—reduction. C is oxidized to CO—oxidation.
☞ Effects of Oxidation Reactions in Our Daily Life:
(i) Corrosion. It is an undesirable change that occurs in metals, when they are attacked by moisture,
air, acids and bases. Example, Corrosion (rusting) of Iron: Fe2O3 . nH2O (Hydrated iron oxide).
(ii) Rancidity. Undesirable change that takes place in oil containing food items due to the
oxidation of fatty acids.
Preventive methods of rancidity. Adding antioxidants to the food materials, storing food in air
tight containers, flushing out air with nitrogen gas and refrigeration.

Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 1


2 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exer cise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO (s) + C (s) æææ Æ 2Pb (s) + CO2 (g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced. (b) Carbon dioxide is getting reduced.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised. (d) Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(i) (a) and (b) (ii) (a) and (c) (iii) (a), (b) and (c) (iv) All
Ans. (i) (a) and (b).
Q.2. Fe2O3 + 2Al æææ Æ Al2O3 + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a:
(a) combination reaction (b) double displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction (d) displacement reaction
Ans. (d) displacement reaction
Q.3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings? Tick the correct answer:
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Ans. (a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
Q.4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?

s
Ans. Balanced chemical equation. When the number of atoms of different elements on both sides of a chemical

Da
equation are equal, then it is called a balanced chemical equation.

iv
A chemical equation needs to be balanced so that it follows “Law of Conservation of Mass” which states

Sh
that mass can neither be created nor be destroyed.
Q.5. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:
(i) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen gas to form ammonia.
(ii) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(iii) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and precipitate of
barium sulphate.
(iv) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Ans. (i) 3H2 (g) + N2 (g) æææ Æ 2NH3 (g)
(ii) 2H2 S (g) + 3O2 (g) æææ Æ 2H2O(l) + 2SO2 (g)
(air)
(iii) 3BaCl2 (aq) + Al2 (SO4)3 (aq) æææÆ 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3BaSO4 (s)
(iv) 2K (s) + 2H2 O (l) æææ Æ 2KOH (s) + H2 (g)
Q.6. Balance the following chemical equations:
(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 æææ Æ Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
(b) NaOH + H2SO4 æææ Æ Na2SO4 + H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 æææ Æ AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 æææ Æ BaSO4 + HCl
Ans. (a) 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 æææ Æ Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O
(b) 2NaOH + H2SO4 æææ Æ Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 æææ Æ AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 æææ Æ BaSO4 + 2HCl
Q.7. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide æææ Æ Calcium carbonate + Water
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate æææ Æ Zinc nitrate + Silver
(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride æææ Æ Aluminium chloride + Copper
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate æææ Æ Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride
Ans. (a) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 æææ Æ CaCO3 + H2O
Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 3

(b) Zn + 2AgNO3 æææ Æ Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag


(c) 2Al + 3CuCl2 æææ Æ 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
(d) BaCl2 + K2SO4 æææ Æ BaSO4 + 2KCl
Q.8. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction in each case:
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) æææ Æ Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
(b) Zinc carbonate (s) æææ Æ Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) æææ Æ Hydrogen chloride (g)
(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) æææ Æ Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Ans. (a) 2KBr (aq) + Ba I2 (aq) æææ Æ 2K I (aq) + BaBr2 (aq) [Double displacement reaction]
(b) ZnCO3 (s) æææ Æ ZnO (s) + CO2 (g) [Decomposition reaction]
(c) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) æææ Æ 2HCl (g) [Combination reaction]
(d) Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) æææ Æ MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) [Displacement reaction]
Q.9. What do you mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Ans. Exothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat energy is released during the reaction.
Examples:
(i) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + Heat energy
(ii) CH4 + 2O2 æææ Æ CO2 + 2H2O + Heat energy
Endothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat energy is absorbed (needed) during the reaction.
Examples:

as
Heat Sunlight
(i) CaCO3 æææ Æ CO2 + CaO (ii) 2AgCl ææææ Æ 2Ag + Cl2

D
Q.10. Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.

iv
Ans. During respiration, glucose is decomposed into carbon dioxide gas and water vapours using oxygen gas

Sh
from air in the living cells of our body and heat energy is released during this process. So respiration is a
type of exothermic reaction.
Respiration
Example, C6H12O6 + 6O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 6CO2 + 6H2O + Heat energy
Glucose
Q.11. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for
these reactions.
Ans. In a decomposition reaction, one substance breaks up into two or more chemical substances, while in a
combination reaction two or more substances combine to form one single substance. So these two reactions
are called opposites of each other.
Examples of decomposition reaction:
Heat
(i) CaCO3 (s) æææÆ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
Lime stone Quick lime
(Calcium carbonate) (Calcium oxide)
Heat
(ii) 2Pb(NO3)2 (s) æææÆ 2PbO (s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
Lead nitrate Lead oxide Nitrogen dioxide Oxygen gas
Examples of combination reaction:
Heat
(i) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) æææÆ 2NH3 (g) + energy
Nitrogen Hydrogen Ammonia
(ii) Burning of hydrogen in oxygen of air to make water
Burning
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ææææÆ 2H2O (l)
Q.12. Write an equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light
or electricity.
Ans. (i) Energy supplied in the form of heat. This reaction is also known as endothermic reaction.
Heat
CaCO3 (s) æææ Æ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
Lime stone Quick lime
(ii) Energy supplied in the form of light. This reaction is also known as photochemical reaction.
Sunlight
2AgBr (s) ææææ Æ 2Ag (s) + Br2 (g)
Silver bromide
4 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Energy supplied in the form of electricity. This reaction is also known as electrolytic reaction.
2H2O Electricity
æææææ Æ 2H2 + O2
Water Hydrogen Oxygen
Q.13. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for
these reactions.
Ans. In a displacement reaction, less reactive element is displaced from its salt by a more reactive element.
For example: Copper (Cu) is displaced from CuSO4 by iron because iron (Fe) is more reactive.
Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) æææ Æ FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Copper sulphate Iron sulphate
In double displacement reaction exchange of ions takes place between two reactants to form two new
products.
Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) æææ Æ BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)
Sodium sulphate Barium chloride Barium sulphate Sodium chloride
Q.14. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by
copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Ans. When copper is mixed in silver nitrate AgNO3 solution, copper displaces the silver because copper is more
reactive than silver.
2AgNO3 (aq) + Cu (s) æææ Æ Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
Q.15. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.
Ans. Any reaction that produces a solid insoluble product is known as precipitation reaction.
For example: Sodium sulphate (Na2SO4) solution when mixed solution of barium chloride (BaCl2). Then

s
insoluble white precipitate of barium sulphate (BaSO4) is formed.

a
Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) æææ Æ BaSO4 (s)Ø + 2NaCl (aq)

v D
Sodium Barium Barium sulphate Sodium

i
sulphate chloride (precipitate) chloride

Sh
Q.16. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each:
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction.
Ans. (a) Oxidation. The reactions in which the gain of oxygen takes place are called oxidation.
Examples:
(i) 2Cu + O2 æææ Æ 2CuO (ii) 2H2 + O2 æææ Æ 2H2O
(b) Reduction. The reactions in which the loss of oxygen takes place are called reduction.
Examples:
Heat
(i) ZnO + C æææ Æ Zn + CO (ii) CuO + H2 æææ Æ Cu + H2O
Q.17. A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’
and the black coloured compound formed.
Ans. The shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ is Copper (Cu).
When copper is heated in air, it becomes black due to the formation of copper oxide.
Heat
2Cu + O2 æææÆ 2CuO
(Reddish Brown) (Black)
Copper Copper (II) oxide
Q.18. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Ans. We apply paint on iron articles to prevent them from corrosion and rusting. Paint prevents the contact
between iron and moist air.
Q.19. Oil and fat containing packed food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Ans. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen to prevent them from spoiling. When such food
items come in contact with air, they get oxidised. They become rancid and their smell and taste changes.
Q.20. Explain the following terms with one example each:
(a) Corrosion (b) Rancidity.
Ans. (a) Corrosion. When a metal is attacked by substances around it such as moisture, acid, oxygen, etc. and
forms an irreversible metallic compound, it is said to corrode and this process is called corrosion.
Example: Rusting of iron is a common example of corrosion.
Conditions of corrosion—
(i) presence of moisture (water); and
(ii) presence of air or acids.
Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 5

(b) Rancidity. When fats and oils are oxidised in air they become rancid and their smell and taste
changes. This phenomenon is called rancidity.
Prevention from rancidity. Antioxidants are added to food containing fats and oils to prevent them from
oxidation.
Example: An inert gas such as nitrogen is added to prevent the packed chips from getting oxidised.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Q.1. Write the balanced chemical equation with the state symbols of the following reaction: Solutions of
Barium chloride and Sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble Barium sulphate and the
solution of Sodium chloride. 2017D
Ans. BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4(aq) ⎯⎯ → BaSO4(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
Q.2. What happens chemically when quick lime is added to water? HOTS
Ans. Quick lime reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime with the release of large amount of heat.
CaO (s) + H2O (l) æææ Æ Ca(OH)2 (aq) + Heat energy
Calcium oxide Calcium hydroxide
(Quick lime) (Slaked lime)

s
Q.3. Name a metal for each case:

Da
(i) it does not react with cold as well as hot water but reacts with any other physical state of water.

iv
(ii) it does not react with any physical state of water. HOTS

Sh
Ans. (i) Aluminium (Al) (ii) Copper (Cu)
Q.4. Identify the type of reaction in the following example:
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) æææ Æ 2H2O (l) HOTS
Ans. It is a combination reaction because in this reaction two substances combine to form a single substance.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks

Q.5. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of reaction and
define it.
‘Iron III oxide reacts with Aluminium and gives molten iron and aluminium oxide’. 2012
Ans. Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) ⎯⎯⎯ → 2Fe (l) + Al2O3 (l) + Heat
• It is a displacement reaction which is highly exothermic. The amount of heat evolved is so large that
the metal is produced in the molten state.
• The displacement reaction of iron (III) oxide with aluminium is known as thermite reaction.
Q.6. Identify the type of reaction from the following equations: 2012
(i) CH4 + 2O2 Æ CO2 + 2H2O (ii) Pb (NO3)2 + 2KI Æ PbI2 + 2KNO3
(iii) CaO + H2O Æ Ca(OH)2 (iv) CuSO4 + Zn Æ ZnSO4 + Cu
Ans. (i) CH4 + 2O2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CO2 + 2H2O
Redox reaction
(ii) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI ⎯⎯⎯ → PbI2 + 2KNO3
Double displacement reaction
(iii) CaO + H2O ⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2
Combination reaction
(iv) CuSO4 + Zn ⎯⎯⎯ → ZnSO4 + Cu
Displacement reaction
Q.7. Why is silver bromide stored in dark bottles in the laboratories? Write the chemical equation to justify
your answer. 2013
Ans. When silver bromide is exposed to light, it decomposes to form silver metal and bromine vapours.
6 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Light
2AgBr (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Decomposition
→ 2Ag (s) + Br2 (g)
Pale yellow Greyish white Red brown
When light falls on pale yellow coloured silver bromide, it changes to greyish white due to the formation
of silver metal. To prevent the decomposition of silver bromide, it is stored in dark bottles in the
laboratories.
Q.8. When hydrogen gas is passed over heated copper (II) oxide, copper and steam are formed. Write the
balanced chemical equation for this reaction and state (i) the substance oxidized and (ii) the substance
reduced in the reaction. 2014
Ans. Reduction ≠
CuO (s) + H2 (g) ⎯⎯→ Cu (s) + H2O (g)

Oxidation
(i) Substance oxidized = H2 (Hydrogen gas)
(ii) Substance reduced = CuO (Copper oxide)

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks

Q.9. (a) Give an example for a combination reaction which is exothermic. 2012
(b) Identify the oxidising agent, reducing agent in the following reaction.
H2S + Cl2 Æ 2 HCl + S
(c) Name the phenomenon due to which the taste and smell of oily food changes when kept for a long

s
time in open. Suggest one method to prevent it.

Da
Ans. (a) When calcium oxide and water combine to form a single product calcium hydroxide, a large amount

iv
of heat is also released. Therefore it is a combination reaction which is exothermic.

Sh
CaO (s) + H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + Heat
reduction
<

(b) H2S + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯


→ 2HCl + S
<

oxidation
Oxidising agent: Cl2 Reducing agent: H2S
(c) The phenomenon is rancidity. When fats and oils are oxidised, they become rancid and their smell
and taste changes. This phenomenon is called rancidity.
Prevention from rancidity. Antioxidants are added to food containing fats and oils to prevent them
from oxidation.
For example: An inert gas such as nitrogen is added to prevent the packed chips from getting oxidised.
Q.10. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a boiling tube.
(i) State the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals both before heating and after heating.
(ii) Name the gases produced during heating.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction. 2012
Ans. (i) The colour of the ferrous sulphate crystals is green before heating and changes to brown after heating.
The colour of the crystals changes due to the formation of ferric oxide.
(ii) During heating sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3) are produced.
Heat
(iii) 2FeSO4 (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe2O3 (s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
Ferric oxide
Q.11. Describe an activity to show a decomposition reaction in which light is used to decompose a reactant.
Write chemical equation of the reaction and state its one use. 2012
Ans. Take about 2 g silver chloride in a china dish. It is first white in colour. Now place this china dish in
sunlight for some time. After some time it is observed that white silver chloride turns grey. This is due to
the decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light.
Sunlight
2AgCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)
Silver bromide also decomposes to silver and bromine by light.
Sunlight
2AgBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 2Ag (s) + Br2 (g)
Use: This reaction is used in black and white photography.
Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 7

Q.12. (a) What is meant by balanced chemical equation? Why chemical equations are balanced?
(b) Balance the chemical equation given below:
Al2O3 + NaOH Æ NaAlO2 + H2O 2013
Ans. (a) A balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants
and products. It means a balanced chemical equation has equal masses of various elements in
reactants and products.
According to law of conservation of mass, “Matter can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction”. Therefore the chemical equations are balanced to satisfy the law of conservation of mass in
chemical reactions.
(b) Al2O3 + 2NaOH ⎯⎯⎯ → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
Q.13. Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions: 2013
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate
(c) Carbon dioxide is passed through lime water.
Sol. (a) 2Al (s) + 3H2SO4 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯ → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3H2 ≠
Aluminium sulphate
(b) Na2CO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) ⎯⎯⎯
→ 2NaCl (aq) + CO2 + H2O
Sodium carbonate
(c) CO2 (g) + Ca(OH)2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯
→ CaCO3 (s) + H2O
Lime water (White ppt makes
lime water milky)

s
Q.14. Solid calcium oxide was taken in a container and water was added slowly to it.

Da
(i) State two observations made in the experiment.

v
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation of this reaction. 2013

Shi
Ans. (i) Solid calcium oxide was taken in a container and water was added to it.
Observations:
• The mixture produces a hissing sound.
• The beaker feels to be quite hot.
(ii) CaO (s) + H2O ⎯⎯⎯
→ Ca(OH)2 + Heat
Calcium oxide Calcium hydroxide
(lime) (slaked flame)
Q.15. Mention the rules for writing a chemical equation illustrating with the help of example. 2013
Ans. Rules for writing a chemical equation:
(i) The method of representing a chemical reaction with the help of symbols and formulae of the
substances involved in it is known as a chemical equation.
(ii) The substances which combine or react are known as reactants.
(iii) The new substances produced in a reaction are known as products.
(iv) The arrow sign (Æ) pointing towards the right hand side is put between the reactants and products.
This arrow indicates that the substances written on the left hand side are combining to give the
substances written on the right hand side in the equation.
For example:
Zinc metal reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid ⎯⎯⎯ → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
Putting the symbols and formulae of all the substances in the above words gives equation,
Zn + H2SO4 ⎯⎯⎯ → ZnSO4 + H2
Ø Ø
Reactants Products
Q.16. Select (i) combination reaction (ii) decomposition reaction and (iii) displacement reaction from the
following chemical equations: 2014
(i) ZnCO3 (s) Æ ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)
(ii) Pb (s) + CuCl2 (aq) Æ PbCl2 (aq) + Cu (s)
(iii) NaBr (aq) + AgNO3 (aq) Æ AgBr (s) + NaNO3 (aq)
(iv) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) Æ 2HCl (g)
8 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(v) Fe2O3 + 2Al Æ Al2O3 + 2Fe


(vi) 3H2 (g) + N2 (g) Æ 2NH3 (g)
Heat
(vii) CaCO3 (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Ans. (i) Decomposition reaction (ii) Displacement reaction


(iii) Double displacement reaction (iv) Combination reaction
(v) Displacement reaction (vi) Combination reaction
(vii) Decomposition reaction
Q.17. State the kind of chemical reactions in the following examples: 2014
(i) Digestion of food in stomach
(ii) Combustion of coal in air
(iii) Heating of limestone
Ans. (i) Digestion of food in stomach. During digestion, the complex food is broken into simpler form.
Therefore it is a type of decomposition reaction.
(ii) Combustion of coal is air. During combustion the coal burns in air to form CO2, H2O along with the
evolution of heat. Thus, it is a type of exothermic decomposition reaction.
(iii) Heating of limestone. When limestone is heated strongly, it breaks into CO2 and lime. Thus it is a type
of thermal decomposition reaction.
Q.18. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions: 2014
(i) Phosphorus burns in chlorine to form phosphorus pentachloride.
(ii) Burning of natural gas.
(iii) The process of respiration.

as
Δ
Ans. (i) 2P + 5Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯→ 2PCl5

D
(Phosphorous) (Chlorine) (Phosphorous pentachloride)

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Δ
⎯⎯⎯→

Sh
(ii) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
(Natural gas)
Δ
(iii) C6H12O6 + 6O2 ⎯⎯⎯→ 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
(Glucose) (air) (38 ATP)
Q.19. Identify the type of chemical reactions in the following processes: 2014
(i) Barium chloride solution is mixed with copper sulphate and a white precipitate is formed.
(ii) On heating copper powder in a china dish, the surface of copper powder becomes black.
(iii) On heating green ferrous sulphate crystals, reddish brown solid is left as residue and a gas having
smell of burning sulphur is evolved.
(iv) Iron nails when left dipped in blue copper sulphate solution become brownish in colour and blue
colour of copper sulphate solution fades away.
(v) Quicklime reacts vigorously with water releasing large amount of heat.
(vi) Silver nitrate solution reacts with sodium chloride solution and a white precipitate is formed.
Ans. (i) BaCl2 (aq) + CuSO4 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯ → BaSO4 (s)Ø + CuCl2 (aq)
(white ppt)
• Double displacement reaction.
• Characterised by the formation of precipitate.
(ii) 2Cu + O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯Heat
→ 2CuO
(Black)
In this reaction, Cu is changing into CuO. This is the addition of oxygen. So this is an oxidation
reaction.
(iii) When green coloured ferrous sulphate is heated strongly, it decomposes to form brown coloured
ferric oxide. A smell of burning sulphur is also obtained due to the formation of sulphur dioxide. In
this reaction, one substance is splitting up into three substances so this is a decomposition reaction.
Δ
2 FeSO4 (s) ⎯⎯⎯→ Fe2O3 (s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
(Green) (brown)
(iv) Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯
→ FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
(blue soln) (green)
Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 9

Iron displaces Cu from copper sulphate solution as iron is more reactive than copper. Therefore this
is a displacement reaction.
(v) CaO (s) + H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2
This is a combination reaction as two compounds quick lime and water combine to form a single
compound slaked lime.
(vi) When silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution, then a white precipitate of silver chloride is
formed.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) ⎯⎯⎯ → AgCl (s) + NaNo3 (aq)
(white ppt)
This is a double displacement reaction as two compounds react to form two new compounds.
Q.20. (a) A substance X, an oxide of a metal, is used extensively in the cement industry. This element is
found in our bones also. On treatment with water it forms a solution which turns red litmus blue.
Identity X and also write the chemical reaction involved.
(b) Choose a metal from the following metals which reacts only with hot water: Sodium, magnesium,
iron.
Mention the products formed during the reaction. 2014
Ans. (a) ‘X’ is Calcium oxide (CaO). Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form Calcium hydroxide
(slaked lime)
CaO (s) + H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯
→ Ca(OH)2 + Heat
lime Slaked lime
(b) Magnesium reacts with hot water to form Magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Mg (s) + 2H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯
→ Mg(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)

as
(hot) Magnesium Hydrogen

D
hydroxide

iv
Q.21. Name the substance oxidised and the substance reduced, and also identify the oxidising agent and

Sh
reducing agents in the following reaction:
(a) 3MnO2 + 4Al Æ 3Mn + 2Al2O3
(b) Fe2O3 + 3CO Æ 2Fe + 3CO2
(c) SO2 + 2H2S Æ 3S + 2H2O 2015
Sol. (a) Reduction ≠
3MnO2 + 4Al ææÆ 3Mn + 2Al2O3

Oxidation
Substance oxidised = Al
Substance reduced = MnO2
Oxidising agent = MnO2
Reducing agent = Al
(b) Reduction ≠
Fe2O3 + 3CO ææÆ 2Fe + 3CO2

Oxidation
Substance oxidised = CO
Substance reduced = Fe2O3
Oxidising agent = Fe2O3
Reducing agent = CO
(c) Reduction ≠
SO2 + 2H2S ææÆ 3S + 2H2O

Oxidation
Substance oxidised = H2S
Substance reduced = SO2
Oxidising agent = SO2
Reducing agent = H2S
10 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.22. (a) In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of gas
collected over the other electrode?
(b) (i) What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate
taken in a test tube?
(ii) What type of reaction is this?
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction. 2015
Ans. (a) In electrolysis of water (H2O), the hydrogen goes to one test tube and oxygen goes to another. The
two electrodes collect H and O separately.
Since water (H2O) consists of 2 parts of hydrogen and 1 part of oxygen, so, the volume of hydrogen
gas (H2) collected over cathode (negative electrode) is double the volume of oxygen gas (O2) collected
over anode (positive electrode).
(b) (i) When potassium iodide solution is added to lead nitrate solution, then a yellow precipitate of
lead iodide is produced along with potassium nitrate solution.
(ii) This is a double displacement reaction.
(iii) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) ææÆ PbI2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
Lead nitrate Potassium Lead iodide
iodide (yellow ppt)
Q.23. (a) What happens when an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate reacts with an aqueous solution of
barium chloride? State the physical conditions of reactants in which reaction between them will
not take place. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction and also mention the type
of reaction.
(b) What changes in the colour of iron nails and copper sulphate solution do you observe after

s
keeping the iron nails in copper sulphate solution for about half an hour? 2015

Da
Ans. (a) When barium chloride solution is added to sodium sulphate solution, then a white precipitate of

iv
barium sulphate is formed along with sodium chloride solution:

Sh
BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) ææÆ BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)
(Barium chloride) (Sodium sulphate) (Barium sulphate) (Sodium chloride)
(white ppt.)
It is an example of a double displacement reaction. In this displacement reaction, two compounds—
barium chloride and sodium sulphate react to form two new compounds—barium sulphate and
sodium chloride. An exchange of ions takes place in this reaction.
For example, the barium ions (Ba2+) of barium chloride react with sulphate ions (SO42-) of sodium
sulphate to form barium sulphate (Ba2+ SO42– or BaSO4). In this reaction, barium sulphate is formed
as a white, insoluble solid which separates out suddenly from solution.
Reaction will not take place if the reactants are in a solid state.
(b) When iron nails are dipped in copper sulphate solution, then iron sulphate solution and copper metal
are formed:
CuSO4 (aq) + Fe (s) ææÆ FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
(Copper sulphate) Iron (Iron sulphate) (Copper)
(Blue solution) (Grey) (Greenish solution) (Red-brown)
In this reaction, iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. The deep blue colour of copper
sulphate solution fades due to the formation of light green solution of iron sulphate. This
displacement reaction occurs because iron is more reactive than copper. Also a brown substance will
be deposited on the iron nail. This substance is nothing but copper metal.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Q.24. You are provided with a container made up of aluminium. You are also provided with solutions of dil
HCl, dil HNO3, ZnCl2 and H2O. Out of these solutions which solution, can be kept in the aluminium
container? Name the type of reaction taking place. 2013
Ans. (i) Dilute HCl cannot be kept in aluminium container because aluminium metal reacts rapidly with dil
HCl to form aluminium chloride and hydrogen gas.
2Al (s) + 6HCl (dil) ⎯⎯⎯ → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)
(Displacement reaction)
Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 11

(ii) Dil HNO3 cannot be kept in aluminium container because aluminium metal reacts with dil HNO3 to
form aluminium nitrate and the hydrogen liberated in this reaction is oxidised to water and nitric acid
itself is reduced to any of the oxides of nitrogen. (Displacement reaction)
(iii) ZnCl2 solution also cannot be kept in aluminium container because Al is more reactive than Zn,
therefore more reactive Al displaces less reactive Zn from its solution (ZnCl2).
2Al (s) + 3ZnCl2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯ → 2AlCl3 + 3Zn
(Displacement reaction)
Q.25. Write balanced chemical equations for the following statements: 2014
(i) NaOH solution is heated with zinc granules.
(ii) Excess of carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water.
(iii) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(iv) Egg shells are dropped in hydrochloric acid.
(v) Copper (II) oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Ans. (i) 2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s) Δ
⎯⎯→ Na2ZnO2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Sodium hydroxide Zinc Sodium zincate Hydrogen

(ii) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CaCO3 (s) + H2O


(lime water) calcium carbonate
(white ppt)

CaCO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Ca(HCO3) (aq)


Calcium hydrogen carbonate
(Soluble in water)

s
(iii) H2SO4 (dil) + Na2CO3 (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Na2SO4 + CO2 + H2O

Da
(Sodium sulphate)

iv
(iv) CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

Sh
egg shell contains
calcium carbonate
(v) CuO (s) + 2HCl (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CuCl2 (aq) + H2O (l)
Copper chloride
(blue green)

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: Types of Reactions
Q.1. What is the difference between burning of magnesium ribbon in air and heating of ferrous sulphate
crystals? Write equations for these reactions.
Ans. Burning of magnesium Heating of ferrous sulphate crystals
(i) Two elements combine to form a more (i) A single compound breaks down into
complex compound, therefore it is a combi- simpler compounds, so it is decomposition
nation reaction. reaction.
Δ
(ii) 2Mg + O2 æææ Æ 2MgO (ii) FeSO4 . 7H2O ⎯⎯⎯ → FeSO4
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium Ferrous sulphate Anhydrous
oxide Ferrous sulphate
Δ
2FeSO4(s) ⎯⎯⎯→ Fe2O3(S) + SO2(g)
Anhydrous Ferric Sulphur
ferrous sulphate Oxide dioxide

Q.2. Why does a moist blue litmus paper turn red when it is brought near the mouth of the test tube in
which ferrous sulphate crystals are being heated?
Ans. On heating ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4 . 7H2O) it decomposes to ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and
sulphur trioxide. Ferric oxide is solid while sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are gases. Both sulphur
dioxide and sulphur trioxide are acidic and hence these gases turn the moist blue litmus red.
12 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.3. What happens when:


(a) solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed?
(b) an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution for 20 minutes? 2012
Ans. (a) When solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed, a white precipitate of barium
sulphate is formed. It is a double displacement reaction.
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 æææ Æ BaSO4 + 2NaCl
Sodium sulphate Barium chloride Barium sulphate Sodium chloride
(b) When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, following reaction takes place
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) æææ Æ FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Iron Copper sulphate Ferrous sulphate Copper
In the above reaction, iron ions (Fe2+) being more reactive displaces copper ions (Cu2+) and a new
compound ferrous sulphate is formed.
Q.4. What precautions would you take while handling quicklime?
Ans. (i) Quicklime can cause severe burns, therefore it should be handled with a spatula.
(ii) As reaction between quicklime and water is exothermic, water should be poured over quicklime
slowly.
Q.5. What will be the nature of solution formed when calcium oxide is dissolved in water? Name the
substance formed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through this solution.
Ans. On dissolving calcium oxide in water, calcium hydroxide is formed. When a drop of this liquid is put on
a red litmus paper, it turns blue. This shows calcium hydroxide is basic in nature. When carbon dioxide
gas is passed through calcium hydroxide (lime water), it turns milky due to formation of calcium
carbonate.

as
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 æææ Æ CaCO3(s) Ø + H2O(l)

D
Lime water White ppt.

iv
(Milkiness)

Sh
Q.6. An iron nail is dipped in the solution of copper sulphate for about 30 minutes, state the change in
colour observed. Give the reason for the change.
Ans. Iron is more reactive than Cu. So it displaces Cu from copper sulphate solution. Thus, blue colour of the
CuSO4 solution fades and colour of the solution turns green due to the formation of ferrous sulphate
Solution. This is a displacement reaction.
CuSO4 (aq) + Fe (s) ⎯⎯→ FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
(Blue) (Green)
Q.7. A student took a small piece of solid quick lime in a china dish and poured over it a small amount of
water. List two changes he is likely to observe in the china dish immediately after pouring water.
Ans. When a small amount of water is poured on a piece of quick lime—
• it reacts vigorously with water and a hissing sound is produced and slaked lime is formed.
• the reaction mixture becomes hot as it is an exothermic reaction.
Q.8. While studying the double displacement reaction, the solutions of barium chloride and sodium
sulphate are mixed together.
(i) What do you observe as soon as the two solutions are mixed together?
(ii) What will happen in the above observation made by you after ten minutes?
Ans. (i) The reaction mixture becomes white in colour and a precipitate is formed.
(ii) White precipitate settles down after 10 minutes.
Q.9. (i) While studying the combination reaction on adding water to quick lime, name the product formed
and write its colour.
(ii) While studying the decomposition reaction by heating ferrous sulphate crystals in a test-tube, a
product is formed in the test-tube. Name the product and write its colour.
Ans. (i) Quicklime (CaO) reacts vigorously with water to form slaked lime [Ca(OH)2] which is white in
colour.
CaO (s) + H2O (l) Combination
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2 (s)
Calcium oxide Calcium hydroxide
(Quick lime) (Slaked lime) (white)
(ii) When ferrous sulphate is heated strongly, it decomposes to form brown coloured ferric oxide and
sulphur dioxide gas and sulphur trioxide gas.
Chapter 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS „ 13

Δ
2FeSO4 (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Decomposition
→ Fe2O3 (s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
Ferrous sulphate Ferric oxide
(green colour) (brown)
Q.10. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing ethanoic
acid. List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place.
Also write chemical equation for the reaction.
Ans. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to a flask containing ethanoic acid, then
— brisk effervescence will be formed because of CO2 gas escaping from the reaction mixture.
— evolution of colourless and odourless gas. Some amount of heat is evolved during the reaction.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 ⎯⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
Q.11. What type of material is formed when aqueous solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are
mixed. Give the balanced chemical equation involved. Name the type of reaction it is?
Ans. • A white precipitate of BaSO4 will be formed.
• Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯ → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)
• It is a double displacement reaction.
Q.12. A student performed the experiment of heating ferrous sulphate crystals in a boiling tube. He smelt
fumes of a pungent gas and saw colours of ferrous sulphate disappear.
(i) Write the chemical formula of the pungent gas.
(ii) Why does the colour of crystal disappear?
(iii) Identify the nature of this chemical reaction.
Ans. (i) SO2 Æ Sulphur dioxide
SO3 Æ Sulphur trioxide

as
(ii) Ferrous sulphate crystals contain 7 molecules water of crystallization (FeSO4.7H2O). These crystals

D
are green in colour. When these crystals are heated, they first lose 7 molecules of water of

iv
crystallization to form anhydrous ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) which is white in colour.

Sh
(iii) It is a thermal decomposition reaction
2FeSO4 Heat
⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe2O3 (s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
Green (decomposition)
because in this reaction one substance is splitting up into three substances on heating.

####
CHAPTER 2
ACIDS, BASES
AND SALTS
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Acids. Substances which turn blue litmus solution red are called acids. Acids are sour in taste.
☞ Bases. Substances which change red litmus solution blue are called bases. They are bitter in taste.
☞ Mineral Acids. Acids which are obtained from minerals like sulphates, nitrates, chlorides, etc. are called
mineral acids. Example, H2SO4 (Sulphuric acid), HNO3 (Nitric acid) and HCl (Hydrochloric acid).
☞ Organic Acids. Acids which are obtained from plants and animals are called organic acids. Example
citric acid, ascorbic acid, tartaric acid, lactic acid, acetic acid.
☞ Hydronium Ions. They are formed by reaction of H+ (from acid) and H2O. It is because H+ is unstable.
☞ Universal Indicator. A universal indicator is a mixture of indicators which shows a gradual but well-
marked series of colour changes over a very wide range of change in concentration of H+ ions.
☞ Strong Acids. Acids which dissociate into ions completely are called strong acids. Example, H2SO4, HCl.
☞ Weak Acids. Acids which do not dissociate into ions completely are called weak acids. Example, citric
acid, acetic acid.
☞ Chemical Properties of Acids:
(i) Acids react with active metals to give salt and hydrogen gas.
(ii) Acids react with metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates to give salt, water and carbon
dioxide.
(iii) Acids react with bases to give salt and water. This reaction is called neutralization reaction.
(iv) Acids react with metal oxides to give salt and water.
☞ Chemical Properties of Bases:
(i) Reaction with metals. Certain metals such as zinc, aluminium and tin react with alkali solutions on
heating and hydrogen gas is evolved.
(ii) Reaction with acids. Bases react with acids to form salt and water.
☞ Indicators. Indicators are substances which indicate the acidic or basic nature of the solution by their
colour change.
☞ pH Scale. A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.
The pH of a solution is defined as the negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration in moles per
litre.
pH = –log [H+]
pH = –log [H3O+]
where [H+] or [H3O+] represents concentrations of hydrogen ions in a solution.
The pH of a neutral solution is 7.

14 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapter 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS „ 15

The pH of an acidic solution is < 7.


The pH of a basic solution is > 7.
☞ Some Important Compounds and their Uses:
Common Name Chemical name Chemical formula Uses
Washing soda Sodium carbonate Na2CO3 . 10H2O Manufacture of borax, caustic soda,
decahydrate softening of hard water.
Baking soda Sodium hydrogen NaHCO3 Used as antacid, ingredient of
carbonate baking powder.
Bleaching powder Calcium oxychloride CaOCl2 Bleaching clothes, used as
oxidizing agent, disinfecting water,
manufacture of chloroform.
Plaster of Paris Calcium sulphate CaSO4 . 1/2H2O Plastering fractured bones, making
hemihydrate toys, decorative materials, statues.

☞ Equations of Acids, Bases and Salts:


(i) Acid + Metal ⎯⎯⎯
→ Salt + Hydrogen gas
H2SO4 + Zn ⎯⎯⎯
→ ZnSO4 + H2
(ii) Base + Metal ⎯⎯⎯
→ Salt + Hydrogen gas
2NaOH + Zn ⎯⎯⎯
→ Na2ZnO2 + H2
(Sodium zincate)
(iii) Base + Acid ⎯⎯⎯ → Salt + Water

s
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) ⎯⎯⎯ → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)

Da
(iv) Acids give hydronium ions in water

v
HCl + H2O ⎯⎯⎯ → H3O+ + Cl–

Shi

(v) Bases generate OH ions in water
NaOH (aq) + H2O ⎯⎯⎯ → Na+ (aq) + OH– (aq) + H2O + Heat
☞ Reactions Of Important Chemical Compounds:
(i) Preparation of Bleaching powder: By the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CaOCl2 + H2O
(ii) On heating, baking soda liberates CO2
Heat
2NaHCO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Na2CO3 + 10H2O ⎯⎯⎯


→ Na2CO3 . 10H2O
Washing soda Sodium carbonate decahydrate
(iii) Preparation of Plaster of Paris:
373 K (Heat)
CaSO42H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CaSO4 . 1/2H2O + 11/2H2O
On mixing Plaster of Paris with water, gypsum is obtained
CaSO4 . 1/2H2O + 11/2H2O ⎯⎯⎯
→ CaSO4 . 2H2O

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
Ans. (d) 10; Since the solution which turns red litmus blue is basic, therefore its pH should be greater than 7.
Q.2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution
contains
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl
Ans. (b) HCl; Egg-shells contain calcium carbonate that reacts with HCl to give out CO2 which turns lime
water milky.
16 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl.


If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as
before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL
Ans. (d) 16 mL; We will require double the amount of HCl solution to neutralise NaOH.
Q.4. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion ?
(a) antibiotic (b) analgesic (c) antacid (d) antiseptic
Ans. (c); Antacids neutralise excess acid in the stomach to cure indigestion.
Q.5. Write balanced equations for the following reactions:
(i) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(ii) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(iii) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(iv) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
Ans. (i) Zn(s) + H2SO4 (aq) æææ Æ ZnSO4 (s) + H2 (g)
dil.
(ii) Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) æææ Æ MgCl2 (s) + H2 (g)
(iii) 2Al (s) + 3H2SO4 (aq) æææ Æ Al2 (SO4)3 (s) + 3H2 (g)
(iv) Fe (s) + 2HCl (aq) æææ Æ FeCl2 (s) + H2 (g)
These reactions show that metals when react with dilute acids, they form salt of that acid and H2 gas.
Q.6. Compounds like alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe
an activity to prove it.

s
Ans. Take solutions of glucose, alcohol, HCl acid and H2SO4 acid in separate beakers. Fix two nails on a cork

Da
and place the cork in a 100 ml beaker. Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6 volt battery through

v
a bulb and a switch, as shown in the figure.

Shi
(i) Now take enough dil. HCl in the beaker so that the nails are immersed in the acid. Switch on the
current.
(ii) Now repeat this experiment with dilute H2SO4 acid. You
will observe that the current gets conducted through each of
the acid solutions as the bulb glows in each case with acid
solution.
In case (i) and (ii) acid breaks up into its ions to conduct
electricity. Acids produce H+ ions and their acid radical ions.
(iii) Repeat the experiment separately with glucose and alcohol
solutions. With glucose and alcohol solutions, the bulb does
not glow showing that these substances do not break into
their ions and so do not conduct electricity through their solutions. So glucose and alcohol, though
have hydrogen atoms in their molecules but do not give H+ ions in their solutions to conduct
electricity.
Result: This activity proves that only acids produce H+ ions in their aqueous solutions.
Q.7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
Ans. Water is a bad conductor of electricity but when it contains dissolved salt in it, the mixture conducts
electricity. As distilled water does not contain any salts dissolved in it, it does not dissociate into ions, so it
does not conduct electricity. But rain water has dissolved CO2 in it which forms carbonic acid.
CO2 + H2O æææ Æ H2CO3
This carbonic acid dissociates into ions which are responsible for electrical conductivity in rain water.
H2CO3 + 2H2O æææ Æ 2H3O+ + CO32–
Hydronium ion
Q.8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Ans. In the absence of water, an acid will not form hydrogen ions and hence will not show its acidic behaviour,
e.g., dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus to red but it turns moist blue litmus paper to red.
Q.9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9
respectively. Which solution is:
(i) neutral (ii) strongly alkaline (iii) strongly acidic
Chapter 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS „ 17

(iv) weakly acidic (v) weakly alkaline?


Arrange the pH in increasing order of H+ ion concentration.
Ans. (i) Neutral solution ‘D’ having pH value 7.
(ii) Strongly alkaline solution ‘C’ with pH value 11.
(iii) Strongly acidic solution ‘B’ with pH value 1.
(iv) Weakly acidic solution ‘A’ with pH value 4.
(v) Weakly alkaline solution ‘E’ with pH value 9.
The pH in increasing order of H+ ions 11, 9, 7, 4 and 1.
Q.10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added
to the test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. In which test tube will the
fizzing occur more vigorously and why ?
Ans. Fizzing will occur more vigorously in test tube A. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid whereas acetic
acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid. Being a strong acid, HCl solution contains a much greater amount of
hydrogen ions in it due to which the fizzing will occur more vigorously in test tube A (containing
hydrochloric acid). The fizzing is due to the evolution of hydrogen gas which is formed by the action of
acid on the magnesium metal of magnesium ribbon.
Q.11. Fresh milk has a pH value of 6. How do you think that pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain
your answer.
Ans. Curd is sour in taste so it is more acidic than milk. pH value of milk will decrease from 6 when it turns into
curd and it will be between 3 and 4, as stronger acids have lesser pH value.
Q.12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.

s
(i) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from ‘6’ to slightly alkaline?

a
(ii) What do you expect to observe when this milk comes to a boil?

v D
(iii) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?

Shi
Ans. (i) On adding baking soda, he shifts pH of fresh milk from ‘6’ to slightly greater than 7 making it alkaline
so that it is not quickly spoiled by the action of bacteria.
(ii) On boiling this milk, it becomes slightly bitter in taste due to changing of baking soda into Na2CO3
salt, which is bitter in taste.
(iii) As the bacteria that change milk to curd are less active in the alkaline medium, it takes longer to set as
curd.
Q.13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Ans. Plaster of Paris changes to gypsum in the presence of moisture. This gypsum sets as a hard solid mass and
thus Plaster of Paris becomes useless.
Following reaction takes place in this process:
1 1
CaSO4 . HO + 1 H2O æææ
Æ CaSO4 . 2H2O
2 2 2
Plaster of Paris Moisture Gypsum
Q.14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
Ans. Neutralisation reaction. The reaction between an acid and a base to give salt and water is called
neutralisation reaction.
Examples:
(i) NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) æææ Æ NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
(Base) (Acid) (Salt)
(ii) Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) æææ
Æ CaSO4 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
(Base) (Acid) (Salt)
Q.15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Ans. Uses of washing soda:
(i) It is used in the glass, soap and paper industries.
(ii) It is used in the manufacture of borax compound.
Uses of baking soda:
(i) It is used for making baking powder which is used for baking bread, cake etc.
(ii) It is used as an ingredient in antacids to reduce the effect of excess acid in the stomach.
18 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. How is the concentration of hydronium (H3O+) ions affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
2017OD
Ans. When an acid solution is diluted with water then concentration of (H3O+) ions gets decreased.
Q.2. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper? HOTS
Ans. Since HCl gas gives H+ ions only with H2O molecules to behave as an acid. The dry HCl does not change
the colour of dry litmus paper as it needs moisture or water for its acidic action.
Q.3. Two solutions A and B have pH values of 5 and 8 respectively. Which solution will be basic in nature?
HOTS
Ans. The solution B will be basic in nature as its pH value is 8.
Q.4. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes into curd (yogurt), will its pH value increase or decrease?
Why? HOTS
Ans. When milk changes into curd, its pH value will decrease because curd contains lactic acid (pH < 6 of
acids).

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks

s
Q.5. State the number of water molecules present in crystals of washing soda and plaster of paris. What are

Da
these water molecules called as? 2013

iv
Ans. • Washing soda crystals contain 10 molecules of water (Na2CO3 . 10H2O).

Sh
• Plaster of Paris crystals contain ½ molecule of water (CaSO4 . ½ H2O or 2CaSO4 . H2O).
The water molecules, which form part of the structure of a crystal, are called water of crystallization.
Q.6. Two solutions A and B have pH 3 and 5 respectively. Which of the two solutions has more hydrogen
ion concentration and which one is more acidic? Give reason for your answer. 2013
Sol. pH of solution A = 3, pH of solution B = 5
Solution A is more acidic as solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration, because the pH of a solution
is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ions in it. That is, a solution having low
concentration of hydrogen ions has a higher pH value.
Q.7. Explain why, an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate is neutral while an aqueous solution of sodium
carbonate is basic in nature. 2014
Ans. • Aqueous solution of sodium sulphate gets hydrolysed to form sodium hydroxide and sulphuric acid
which are strong base and strong acid respectively. So its aqueous solution is neutral.
• When sodium carbonate is dissolved in water, it gets hydrolysed to some extent and forms sodium
hydroxide and carbonic acid. Now sodium hydroxide is a strong base which is fully ionised and gives
a large amount of hydroxide ions [OH– (aq)]. On the other hand, carbonic acid is a weak acid which is
only slightly ionised and hence gives a small amount of hydrogen ions [H+ (aq)]. The mixture contains
more of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions, so it is basic in nature.
Q.8. Name the gas which is usually produced when dil. sulphuric acid reacts with a metal. Illustrate it with
an example. How will you test the evolution of this gas? 2015
Ans. Metals react with dil. sulphuric acid to give metal sulphates and hydrogen gas.
For example, Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) ææÆ ZnSO4 (aq) + H2≠ (Hydrogen gas)
Test for hydrogen gas: Take about 5 ml of dilute sulphuric acid in a test tube and add a few pieces of zinc
granules to it. Hydrogen gas is evolved which forms bubbles in the soap solution.
Bring a burning candle near hydrogen gas-filled bubble. It burns with a pop sound.
Q.9. Write a chemical equation to describe how baking soda is produced on a large scale. Also write
chemical name of the products obtained. 2014
Ans. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) or sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is produced on a large scale by reacting a cold and concentrated solution of
sodium chloride (called brine) with ammonia and carbon dioxide.
Chapter 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS „ 19

NaCl + NH3 + H2O + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯


→ NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
Baking soda Ammonium chloride

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.10. (a) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water? Give an example. 2012, 2014
(b) How is tooth decay related to pH? How can it be prevented?
(c) Why does bee sting cause pain and irritation? Rubbing of baking soda on the sting area gives
relief. How?
Ans. (a) Water soluble bases are called alkalis, e.g., NaOH, KOH.
(b) Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce
acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. This can be
prevented by cleaning the mouth and teeth using tooth pastes which are generally basic and can
neutralize the excess acid.
(c) When a honey bee stings a person, it injects an acidic liquid into the skin which causes immense pain
and irritation. Rubbing a mild base like baking soda solution on the stung area of the skin gives relief.
This is because, being a base, baking soda neutralises the acidic liquid injected by bee sting and
cancels its effect.
Q.11. (a) You are given two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8.
(i) Identify the acidic and basic solution.
(ii) Which solution has more H+ ion concentration? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Why is HCl a stronger acid than acetic acid? Explain. 2012

as
Ans. (a) Solution A: pH = 6 Solution B: pH = 8

D
(i) A is acidic solution whereas B is basic solution.

iv
(ii) Solution A has more H+ ion concentration because higher the hydronium ion concentration,

Sh
lower is the pH value.
(b) HCl is a stronger acid than acetic acid because strength of acid depends on the number of H+ ions
produced. When same concentration of HCl and acetic acid are taken then these two produce
different amounts of hydrogen ions. HCl produces more H+ ions and is said to be a strong acid while
acetic acid gives less H+ ions, therefore said to be a weak acid.
Q.12. State reason for the following: 2014
(i) dry HCl gas does not change the colour of the dry blue litmus paper.
(ii) alcohol and glucose also contain hydrogen, but do not conduct electricity.
(iii) Conc. of H3O+ ion is affected when a solution of an acid is diluted.
Ans. (i) Dry HCl gas does not contain any hydrogen ions in it, so it does not show acidic behaviour. Dry HCl
gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper because it has no hydrogen ions [H+ (aq)] in
it. However, when HCl gas dissolves in water, it forms hydrogen ions and hence shows acidic
behaviour.
(ii) The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character because their hydrogen
does not separate out as hydrogen ions [H+ (aq) ions] on dissolving in water. Hence, they do not
conduct electricity.
(iii) • An acid is a substance which dissociates on dissolving in water to produce hydrogen ions [H+
(aq) ions].
• Hydrogen ions do not exist as H+ ions in a solution, they attach themselves to the polar water
molecules to form hydronium ions, H3O+.
H+ + H2O Æ H3O+
• When a solution of an acid is diluted, the number of [H3O+] ions per unit volume decreases.
Thus pH of the solution increases.
Q.13. Illustrate any three chemical properties of acids. With examples. 2014
Ans. Chemical properties of acids:
(i) Acids react with metals to form H2 gas.
Zn + 2HCl ⎯⎯⎯
→ ZnCl2 + H2≠
(ii) Acids turn blue litmus into red.
20 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Acids react with bases to form salt and water (neutralization reaction).
HCl + NaOH ⎯⎯⎯
→ NaCl + H2O
Acid Base Salt Water
Q.14. Which three chemical substances are obtained when electricity is passed through an aqueous solution
of brine? Write one industrial use of each. 2015
Ans. When electricity is passed through a concentrated solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes
to form sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen gas.
Electricity
2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2≠ + H2≠
(i) Use of Sodium hydroxide (NaOH). It is used for making soaps and detergents.
(ii) Use of Chlorine (Cl2). It is used in the production of bleaching powder.
(iii) Use of hydrogen gas (H2). It is used to make ammonia for fertilisers; used as a fuel or margarine.
Q.15. When soap is scrubbed on a stain of curry on a white cloth, why does it become reddish brown, and
turns yellow again when the cloth is washed with plenty of water? 2015
Ans. Curry contains turmeric which acts as an acid-base indicator. Turmeric contains a yellow dye, which turns
red in basic solutions when soap is scrubbed on a stain of curry on a white cloth. This is due to the fact that
soap solution is basic in nature which changes the colour of turmeric in the curry stain to red-brown. This
stain turns to yellow again when the cloth is rinsed with plenty of water because then the basic soap gets
removed with water.
Q.16. You are provided with three test tubes C, A and B which contain distilled water, acidic solution and
basic solution. If you are given blue litmus paper only, how will you identify the contents of each test
tube? 2015
Ans. • First take three strips of blue litmus paper and dip one in each test tube.

as
• The liquid in test tube A turns blue litmus to red. It means test tube A contains acid because (acid

D
turns blue litmus to red).

iv
• If other two test tubes do not change the colour of blue litmus paper, it shows that one of them

Sh
contains a base and the other contains distilled water.
• Now put the blue litmus paper which is turned red by the acid of test tube A in the remaining two
test tubes.
• If the liquid of test tube B turns that red litmus paper to blue again, it shows that it is a base.
• The liquid in test tube C does not turn the colour of either blue litmus or red litmus thus is distilled
water.
Test tube A Test tube B Test tube C
Step I: Put blue litmus paper fl fl fl
turns red remains blue remains blue
fl fl fl
Acid Either base or distilled water
Test tube B Test tube C
Step II: Put red litmus paper fl fl
(turned red by acid)
turns blue remains red
fl fl
Base Distilled water
Q.17. Write the chemical name of Plaster of Paris. Write the chemical equation of its preparation. Why should
Plaster of Paris be stored in a dry place? 2017D
1
Ans. Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate and its formula is CaSO4 . H2O.
2
Preparation:
Heat 1 1
CaSO4.2H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ CaSO4 . H O + 1 H2O
2 2 2
Gypsum Plaster of Paris
Chapter 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS „ 21

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.18. (a) Write the chemical name and chemical formula of washing soda.
(b) How is it obtained from sodium chloride? Give equations of the reactions.
(c) Why it is called a basic salt? Give its any one use. 2012
Ans. (a) Chemical name of washing soda: Sodium carbonate decahydrate
Chemical formula of washing soda: Na2CO3 . 10 H2 O
(b) Washing soda is produced by Solvay process by the reaction of ammonical brine with CO2 gas
NaCl + NH3 + CO2 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯ → NaHCO + NH Cl
3 4
NaHCO3 on heating produces Na2CO3 (soda ash) which on recrystallisation produces washing soda
Heat
2NaHCO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Na2CO3 + CO2≠ + H2O
Na2CO3 + 10H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ Na2CO3.10H2O
(Washing soda)
(c) Washing soda is a basic salt because it is a salt of a strong base (NaOH) and weak acid (H2CO3) with
pH value more than 7.
Use: Washing soda is used for softening hard water.
Q.19. Write the chemical name of Na2CO3.10H2O and Na2CO3. Write the significance of 10H2O. Mention the
term used for water molecules attached with a salt. With the help of chemical equation, explain the
method of preparation of both Na2CO3.10H2O and Na2CO3. Also list two uses of Na2CO3.10 H2O.
2012
Ans. • Chemical name of Na2CO3.10H2O: Sodium Carbonate Decahydrate (Washing soda)
• Na2Co3 : Sodium Carbonate (Soda ash)

as
• 10H2O is the water of crystallization of sodium carbonate. Water of crystallization is the fixed number

D
of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt. Thus ‘10’ water molecules are present in one

iv
formula unit of sodium carbonate.

Sh
Washing soda is produced by Solvay process, by the reaction of ammonical brine with CO2 gas.
Heat
NaCl + NH3 + CO2 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
NaHCO3 on heating produces Na2CO3 (Sodium carbonate, called soda ash) which on recrystallization
produces washing soda.
Heat
2NaHCO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Na2CO3 + CO2≠ + H2O
Crystallisation
Na2CO3 + 10H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Na2CO3.10H2O
(Washing soda)
Washing soda is a basic salt.
Some important uses of washing soda:
(i) Washing soda is used in the glass, soap and paper industries.
(ii) It is used in the manufacture of borax compound.
(iii) It is used as a cleansing agent for domestic purposes.
(iv) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
Q.20. (a) Identify the compound of calcium which is yellowish white powder and is used for disinfecting
drinking water. Write its chemical name and formula. How is it manufactured? Write the chemical
equation for the reaction involved. Also list two other uses of the compound.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation of chlor-alkali process. 2012
Ans. (a) • Compound is bleaching powder.
• Chemical name: Calcium oxychloride
• Formula: CaOCl2
• It is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime Ca(OH)2.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CaOCl2 + H2O
Uses:
(i) It is used to bleach wood pulp in paper factories.
(ii) It is used as an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
(b) When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it
decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. This process is called chlor-alkali process.
2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯ → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
22 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.21. (a) Study the following chemical equation: 2013


373 K 1 3
CaSO4 . 2H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CaSO4 . H2O + H2O
2 2
Name the reactant and the product and mention one use of the product.
(b) The following salts are formed by the reaction of an acid with a base:
(i) Sodium chloride (ii) Ammonium nitrate
Identify the acid and the base and tabulate your answer in the format given below:
S.No. Salt Acid Base Nature
1. Sodium chloride
2. Ammonium nitrate
373 K 1 3
Sol. (a) CaSO4 . 2H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CaSO4 . H2O + H2O
2 2
Reactant: Gypsum
Product: Plaster of Paris and water
Use: Plaster of Paris is used in hospitals for setting fractured bones in the right position to ensure
correct healing.
(b) S.No. Salt Acid Base Nature
1. Sodium chloride Hydrochloric Sodium hydroxide Neutral
Acid (HCl) (NaOH)
2. Ammonium nitrate Nitric acid Ammonium hydroxide Acidic
(HNO3) (NH4OH)

s
Q.22. (a) A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The

Da
evolved gas was passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime water? Write

iv
balanced chemical equations for both the changes observed.

Sh
(b) State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
(ii) as a constituent of baking powder. 2014
Ans. (a) When a piece of marble (CaCO3) is dropped in dil HCl, CO2 gas will be evolved which turns lime
water milky.
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (l) ⎯⎯⎯
→ CaCl2 (s) + H2O + CO2
(Limestone) (dil)

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯


→ CaCO3 Ø + H2O
(Lime water) (White ppt)
Formation of CaCO3 white ppt makes the lime water milky.
(b) (i) Being alkaline, sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) neutralises the excess acid present in
the stomach and relieves indigestion.
(ii) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. When
baking powder mixes with water (present in dough made for baking cake or bread), then
sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with tartaric acid to evolve CO2 gas.
NaHCO3 (aq) + H+ (aq) ⎯⎯⎯
→ Na+ (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
Baking soda Hydrogen ions
from tartaric acid
Q.23. (a) Define a universal indicator. Mention its one use. 2015
(b) Solution A gives pink colour when a drop of phenolphthalein indicator is added to it. Solution B
gives red colour when a drop of methyl orange is added to it. What type of solutions are A and B
and which one of the solutions A and B will have a higher pH value?
(c) Name one salt whose solution has pH more than 7 and one salt whose solution has pH less than 7.
Ans. (a) Universal indicator is a mixture of many different indicators which gives different colours at different
pH values of the entire pH scale.
It shows different colours at different concentrations of hydrogen ions in a solution.
(b) Solution A gives pink colour when a drop of phenolphthalein indicator is added, therefore A is a
base.
Chapter 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS „ 23

Solution B gives red colour when a drop of methyl orange is added to it, therefore B is an acid.
Hence, solution A will have less concentration of hydrogen ion than B.
Thus, A will have pH more than 7 because pH value of
— an acid solution < 7;
— a base solution > 7; and
— a neutral solution = 7.
(c) — The salts of strong acids and weak bases give acidic solution having pH less than 7. Example,
NH4Cl, Ammonium Chloride will have pH less than 7.
— The salts of weak acids and strong bases give basic solution having pH more than 7. Example,
Na2CO3, Sodium Carbonate will have pH more than 7.
Q.24. (a) The blue colour of crystals of a substance changed on heating in a closed test tube but the colour
was regained after sometime on cooling. Name the substance and write its chemical formula.
Explain the phenomenon involved.
(b) Write name and chemical formula of two such compounds whose one formula unit is associated
with 10 and 2 water molecules respectively. 2015
Ans. (a) The substance is Copper sulphate crystals (CuSO4 . 5H2O) which are blue in colour. When copper
sulphate crystals are heated strongly, they lose all the water of crystallisation and form anhydrous
copper sulphate (which is white):
Heat
CuSO4 . 5H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CuSO4 + 5H2O
Hydrated copper Anhydrous copper Water
sulphate (Blue) sulphate (White) (goes away)
Thus, on strong heating, blue copper sulphate crystals turn white due to the loss of water of

s
crystallisation.

a
The dehydration of copper sulphate crystals is a reversible process. So when water is added to

v D
anhydrous copper sulphate, it gets hydrated and turns blue due to the formation of hydrated copper

Shi
sulphate.
CuSO4 + 5H2O ææÆ CuSO4 . 5H2O
Anhydrous copper Water Hydrated copper
sulphate (White) sulphate (Blue)
(b) Chemical formula of two such compounds whose one formula unit is associated with 10 and 2 water
molecules respectively—
• Washing soda — Na2CO3 . 10H2O
(Sodium Carbonate Decahydrate)
• Gypsum — CaSO4 . 2H2O
(Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate)
Q.25. Write an activity to show the reaction of acids with metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonate
salts. 2017D
Ans. Take two test tubes. Mark them as ‘A’ and ‘B’. Take about 0.5 gm of sodium carbonate in the test tube ‘A’
and 0.5 gm of sodium hydrogen carbonate in test tube ‘B’. Add about 2 ml of dilute HCl acid to both of
these test tubes. Pass the gas produced in each case through lime water as shown in the figure. Lime water
in each case will turn milky due to the production of CO2 gas in each of the test tubes.
24 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Reactions occurring in the above activity:


Test tube ‘A’ Na2CO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) ææÆ 2NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
Test tube ‘B’ NaHCO3 (s) + HCl (aq) ææÆ NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
On passing the gas evolved through the lime water:
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) ææÆ CaCO3 (s) + H2O
lime water white ppt.
(milkiness)
But on passing excess CO2 gas through the lime water, milkiness disappears due to the formation of
soluble CaHCO3
CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O ææÆ Ca(HCO3)2 (aq)
Calcium hydrogen-carbonate
This activity shows that metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates react with acids to form salt, CO2
and water.
Q.26. (a) What is the importance of pH in everyday life? 2017OD
(b) How are sodium hydroxide and Cl2 (Chlorene) gas produced from common salt. What is this pro-
cess called?
Ans. (a) (i) Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change. Acidic rain water when
flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH value of river water and makes the survival of acquatic life
in such river water difficult. Plants require a specific pH range for their healthy growth.
(ii) Our stomach and intestines work in a specific pH range. Stomach acts in slightly acidic medium
while small intestine digests the food in slightly alkaline medium.
(iii) Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.

as
(b) When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decom-

D
poses to form sodium hydroxide. This process is called Chlor-alkali process because the products

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formed are chlorine and alkali NaOH.

Sh
2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) ⎯⎯ → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2 (g)
Cl2 gas is given off at the anode and H2 gas at the cathode while sodium hydroxide solution is formed
near the cathode.

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: pH of Samples
Q.1. A solution ‘X’ gives orange colour when a drop of universal indicator is added to it. On the other
hand, another solution ‘Y’ gives bluish-green colour when a drop of universal indicator is added to it.
What are the types of solution ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and what type of pH would they have?
Ans. pH is a number which indicates acidic or basic nature of a solution.
Solution X is acidic in nature, i.e., pH < 7.
Solution Y is basic in nature, i.e., pH > 7.
Q.2. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid while acetic acid is a weak acid. Why?
Ans. The strength of acids depends on the number of H+ ions produced in them. Acids which on dissolving in
water give rise to more H+ ions are called strong acids and acids which give less H+ ions are called weak
acids. In aqueous solution, hydrochloric acid ionises completely to give more H+ ions and therefore,
hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.
In aqueous solution, acetic acid ionises partially to give less H ions and therefore, it is a weak acid.
Q.3. How can the pH of a solution be determined?
Ans. pH of a solution can be determined by two methods:
(i) By using universal indicator: To measure the pH of a solution, a paper strip impregnated with
universal indicator called pH paper can be used.
(ii) By using pH meter: With the help of pH meter, pH of a solution can be measured accurately.
Q.4. What is an acid-base indicator? Give any two examples of synthetic indicators.
Chapter 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS „ 25

Ans. A substance that indicates the acidity or basicity of a solution through characteristic colour changes is
called acid-base indicator. Methyl orange and phenolphthalein are the two examples of synthetic
indicators.
Q.5. Five solutions P, Q, R, S and T when tested with universal indicator showed pH of 13, 8, 1, 7 and 5
respectively.
(a) Which solution is (i) strongly alkaline (ii) weakly acidic?
(b) Arrange the pH in the increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Ans. (a) (i) Solution-P; (ii) Solution-T
(b) The solution with highest pH (13) will have minimum hydrogen ion concentration whereas solution
having the least pH (1) will have maximum hydrogen ion concentration. So, we can arrange the
given solutions in increasing order of their hydrogen ion concentrations as follows:
P Q S T R
(pH 13) (pH 8) (pH 7) (pH 5) (pH 1)
Increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.

➜ EXPERIMENT: Properties of Acids and Bases


Q.6. What are acids? Give any two characteristics of acids.
Ans. Acids are substances which contain hydrogen and which when dissolved in water give hydrogen ions in
the solution.
Characteristics of acids:

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(i) They are sour in taste.

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(ii) They turn blue litmus red but they do not affect red litmus.

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Q.7. Give any two points of difference between an acid and a base.

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Ans. Acids Bases
(i) They turn blue litmus red and do not affect (i) They turn red litmus blue and do not effect
red litmus. blue litmus.
(ii) They react with metal carbonates (like (ii) They do not react with metal carbonates.
Na2CO3) to give corresponding salt, carbon
dioxide gas and water.
Q.8. What are bases? How does a base like sodium hydroxide react with zinc?
Ans. A base is a substance which when dissolved in water gives hydroxide (OH–) ions in the solution. Sodium
hydroxide reacts with zinc to liberate hydrogen gas along with the formation of sodium zincate.
NaOH + Zn æææ Æ Na2ZnO2 + H2
Sodium hydroxide Zinc Sodium zincate Hydrogen
Q.9. What is litmus solution? What is its colour in—(i) neutral (ii) acidic and (iii) basic solutions?
Ans. Litmus solution is a purple coloured dye which is extracted from lichen. It is the most commonly used
indicator in the laboratory.
Neutral litmus solution has purple colour. In acidic solution, it turns red whereas in basic solution, it
turns blue.
Q.10. What will happen:
(a) If a lighted candle is brought near the mouth of gas jar containing hydrogen gas?
(b) If carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water?
Ans. (a) The candle extinguishes with a pop sound and the gas burns with a pale blue flame.
(b) CO2 turns lime water milky.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 æææ Æ CaCO3 Ø + H2O
Lime water White ppt. (milkiness)
Q.11. Write two tests you would perform to detect, whether the given colourless liquid is Acetic Acid or not.
Ans. Two tests:
(i) If we put a drop of the given colourless liquid on blue litmus paper, if the blue litmus paper changes
to red, then the given acid is Acetic acid.
(ii) If we smell the given liquid and the liquid gives a smell like that of vinegar, then the given acid is
Acetic acid.
26 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.12. (a) How is pH paper used to find the pH of a solution?


(b) The pH value of water is 7. What will be the pH value of (i) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
and (ii) dil HCl.
Ans. (a) With the help of a dropper one drop of the solution is placed on the strip of the pH paper. The colour
developed on the pH paper is compared with the colour and the corresponding pH value given on
the chart of the pH paper.
(b) • aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is alkaline so its pH will be more than 7.
• dil HCl is acidic so its pH value will be less than 7.
Q.13. What do you observe when dil. HCl is added on Zn pieces taken in a test tube? How would you
identify the gas evolved? Write one use of this gas.
Ans. Observation. A colourless gas is evolved with brisk bubbles from the test tube.
When a burning match stick is brought near the gas, then the gas burns with a pop sound. The gas evolved
is H2 gas.
H2 gas is used as fuel in the space crafts.
Q.14. What happens when acetic acid is added in a solution of Na2CO3 in a test tube? Write the equation for
detecting the gas evolved.
Ans. CO2 gas is evolved with brisk bubbles in this reaction.
White precipitate (ppt.) are formed, when CO2 gas is passed through the lime water.
CO2 + Ca(OH)2(aq) ⎯⎯⎯
→ CaCO3(s) + H2O
Lime water White ppt.

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####

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Sh
CHAPTER 3
METALS AND
NON-METALS
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Metals and Non-metals:
Metals Non-metals
1. Metals generally occur as hard solid 1. Non-metals generally occur in all the three
substances. forms of matter—solid, liquid and gases.
2. Metals are malleable and ductile. 2. Non-metals are non-malleable and non-
ductile.
3. Metals produce ringing sound on striking 3. Non-metals do not show this sonorous
which is called their sonorous property. property.
4. Metals are good conductors of heat and 4. Non-metals are poor conductors of heat and
electricity. electricity with the exception of graphite
which is a good conductor of heat and
electricity.
☞ Chemical Properties of Metals and Non-metals.
Reaction of metals with oxygen. Metals form their oxides when they react with oxygen.
Metal + Oxygen ⎯⎯→ Metal oxide
Metal oxides are basic in nature.
Example, Reaction of Iron metal with oxygen—When iron reacts with moist air, it forms rust.
Rust is iron oxide. Articles made of iron, such as grills, fencing, etc. get rusted because of reaction with
moist air.
Iron (Fe) + Water (H2O) + Oxygen (O2) ⎯⎯→ Fe3O4n.H2O (Iron II, III) Oxide (Rust)
Rust is reddish brown in colour and is iron oxide. Iron oxide is basic in nature. It turns red litmus blue.
Rusting of iron can be prevented:
(i) by galvanizing the iron articles with zinc coating.
(ii) by painting and applying grease on the articles.
Reaction of Magnesium metal with oxygen—When magnesium is burnt in air, it forms magnesium
oxide. Burning in air means reaction with oxygen.
Magnesium + Oxygen (O2) ⎯⎯→ MgO (Magnesium oxide)
Magnesium oxide forms magnesium hydroxide with water. Solution of Magnesium oxide turns red
litmus paper blue. This means magnesium oxide is basic in nature.
MgO + H2O ⎯⎯→ Mg(OH)2 (Magnesium Hydroxide)
Reaction of Non-metals with oxygen. Non-metals form their oxides when they react with oxygen.
Non-metal + Oxygen ⎯⎯→ Non-metal oxide

Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 27


28 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Non-metal oxides are acidic in nature.


Example, Reaction of sulphur with oxygen.
When sulphur is burnt in air, it forms sulphur dioxide.
Sulphur + Oxygen (O2) ⎯⎯→ SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
Solution of sulphur dioxide turns blue litmus paper red. Sulphur dioxide forms sulphurous acid when
dissolved in water. Thus, sulphur dioxide is basic in nature.
SO2 + H2O ⎯⎯→ Sulphurous acid (H2SO3)
Reaction of carbon with oxygen—When carbon is burnt in air, it forms carbon dioxide.
Carbon + Oxygen (O2) ⎯⎯→ CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
You can observe that when coal (carbon) is burnt it forms smoke, which contains carbon dioxide.
Carbon dioxide is basic in nature. The solution of carbon dioxide in water turns blue litmus paper red.
CO2 + H2O ⎯⎯→ Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
Reaction of Metals and Non-metals with water.
• Generally, metals form respective hydroxides when they react with water.
Metal + Water ⎯⎯→ Metal hydroxide
Example, Reaction of sodium metal with water.
Sodium metal vigorously reacts with water and forms sodium hydroxide along with lot of heat.
Na + H2O ⎯⎯→ NaOH (Sodium hydroxide) + H2 (Hydrogen) + Heat
• Non-metals generally do not react with water. Rather some non-metals which react with air
vigorously are stored in water.
Reaction of metals and non-metals with dilute acid.

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• Metals give hydrogen gas when they react with dilute acid.

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Metal + Acid ⎯⎯→ Hydrogen gas

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Reaction of zinc with dilute acid. Zinc gives hydrogen gas along with zinc chloride when it reacts with

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hydrochloric acid. Similarly, zinc gives hydrogen gas along with zinc sulphate when it reacts with
sulphuric acid. This method is used to produce hydrogen gas in laboratory.
Zn + H2SO4 (Sulphuric acid) ⎯⎯→ ZnSO4 (Zinc sulphate) + H2 (Hydrogen)
Reaction of Aluminium with dilute acid. Aluminium gives hydrogen gas along with aluminium
chloride when it reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
2Al + 6HCl (Hydrochloric acid) ⎯⎯→ 2AlCl3 (Aluminium Chloride) + 3H2 (Hydrogen)
Copper does not react with dilute sulphuric acid even on heating, but it reacts with concentrated
sulphuric acid. Copper, silver and gold are considered as noble metals as they do not react with dilute
acid.
• Generally, non-metals do not react with dilute acid.
Reaction of metals and non-metals with base. Metals give hydrogen gas when they react with a base.
Metal + Base ⎯⎯→ Hydrogen gas
Reaction of aluminium metal with sodium hydroxide.
2Al + 2NaOH (Sodium hydroxide) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ Water
→ 2NaAlO2 (Sodium aluminate) + H2 (Hydrogen)
Aluminium metal forms hydrogen gas and sodium aluminate when it reacts with sodium hydroxide.
Similarly, zinc gives sodium zincate and hydrogen gas when it reacts with sodium hydroxide.
☞ Displacement Reaction. When a more reactive metal reacts with the salt solution of less reactive metal,
more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal from its solution.
Metal A + Salt Solution of Metal B ⎯⎯→ Salt Solution of Metal A + Metal B
In the above equation, metal A is more reactive than metal B.
Example., When aluminium metal is dipped in the solution of copper sulphate, it forms aluminium
sulphate and copper.
Al + 3CuSO4 (Copper sulphate) ⎯⎯→ Al2(SO4)3 (Aluminium sulphate) + 3Cu (Copper)
In the above reaction, aluminium is more reactive than copper, that is why it replaces copper from the
solution of copper sulphate.
When copper metal is dipped in the solution of aluminium nitrate, no reaction takes place. Because
copper is less reactive than aluminium.
Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 29

Das
☞ Roasting and Calcination: Shiv
Roasting Calcination
1. It is done in case of sulphide ores. 1. It is done in case of carbonate ores.
2. In this, the ore is heated in the presence of air 2. The carbonate ore is heated in the absence
to convert it into oxide compound. of air to convert into oxide.
3. The gas given out is SO2 (sulphur dioxide) 3. The gas given out is CO2 (carbon dioxide)
gas. gas.
4. Example: 4. Example:
Heat Heat
2ZnS + 3O2 æææÆ 2ZnO + 2SO2≠ ZnCO3 æææÆ ZnO + CO2≠
(air)

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
Ans. (a) No displacement reaction will occur between NaCl solution and copper metal, as copper is less
reactive than sodium.
(b) Al is less reactive than Mg, so no displacement reaction will take place.
(c) Ag is less reactive than Fe, so no displacement reaction will take place.
(d) Copper metal Cu is more reactive than silver (Ag), so displacement reaction takes place.
30 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.2. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting?
(a) Applying grease (b) Applying paint
(c) Applying a coating of zinc (d) All of the above
Ans. (c) Applying a coating of zinc.
Q.3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also
soluble in water. The element is likey to be
(a) calcium (b) carbon (c) silicon (d) iron
Ans. (a) Calcium
Reason. Calcium reacts with oxygen to give calcium oxide or lime which has a high melting point (2273 K).
Lime is also soluble in water.
Q.4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
(a) zinc is costlier than tin. (b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin. (d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
Ans. (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin.
Q.5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch:
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals.
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-metals.

Ans. (a) Draw the circuit diagram as shown. If the bulb glows on turning the
switch on with the test material, the material is likely to be a metal.
(b) This method is useful except for graphite which is a good conductor of
electricity although it is a non-metal.

s
Other non-metals are not good conductors of electric current.

v Da
Q.6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.

i
(Board Question)

Sh
Ans. The oxides, which react with both acids and bases to give salt, are called amphoteric oxides.
Examples: Aluminium oxide Al2O3 and Zinc oxide ZnO
(i) Reaction with acid
Al2O3 + 6HCl æææ Æ 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
Aluminum chloride
(ii) Reaction with base
Al2O3 + 2NaOH æææ
Æ 2NaAlO2 + H2O
Sodium aluminate
Q.7. Name two metals which displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which will not.
Ans. Zinc (Zn) and magnesium (Mg) metals can displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Copper (Cu) and silver (Ag) can not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Q.8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, cathode and electrolyte?
(Board Question)
Ans. We should take impure metal M as anode, a thin strip of pure metal M as cathode and a salt solution of
metal M as an electrolyte.

Q.9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected
the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it, as shown in the figure.
(a) What will be the action of gas on
(i) dry litmus paper?
(ii) moist litmus paper?
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

Ans. (a) When sulphur is heated in air, sulphur dioxide gas is formed.
(i) Sulphur dioxide has no action on dry litmus paper.
(ii) Sulphur dioxide turns blue (moist) litmus paper red.
(b) S (s) + O2 (g) æææ Æ SO2 (g)
Sulphur Oxygen Sulphur dioxide
SO2 + H2O æææ
Æ H2SO3
Sulphurous acid
Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 31

Q.10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.


Ans. Rusting of iron can be prevented:
(i) by galvanizing the iron articles with zinc.
(ii) by painting and applying grease on the iron articles.
Q.11. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Ans. Non-metals form acidic oxides with oxygen. These oxides turn blue litmus red.
Q.12. Give reasons:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery. (Board Question)
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
Ans. (a) Platinum, gold and silver are metals with a very low reactivity and they don’t show corrosion. These
also have very brilliant lustre. So, these are used to make jewellery.
(b) Metals like sodium, potassium and lithium react with air (oxygen) and moisture at room temperature
and readily catch fire. Hence to prevent them from accidental fire, they are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium does not get corroded as it is covered by a protective layer of Aluminium oxide and is a
very good conductor of heat.
(d) It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide as compared to its sulphides and carbonates. So carbonate
and sulphide ores are converted into metal oxides before reduction.
Q.13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why
these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels?
Ans. Copper oxide reacts with acid but copper itself does not react. So, the tarnished copper vessels can be

s
washed by acidic substances. It removes the corroded part (copper oxide) and pure copper is left behind.

Da
Q.14. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their chemical properties.

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Ans. Metals Non-metals

Sh
1. Metals form basic oxides with oxygen of air. 1. Non-metals form acidic oxides with oxygen of
air.
2. Metals can displace hydrogen from dilute 2. Non-metals cannot displace hydrogen from
acids. dilute acids.
3. Metals form ionic chloride compounds with 3. Non-metals from covalent chlorides with Cl2
Cl2 gas. gas.
4. Metals show displacement reactions on the basis 4. Non-metals do not show such type of dis-
of their reactivity series. placement reactions.
Q.15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull
gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a
particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady
was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find
out the nature of the solution he had used? (Imp.)
Ans. The dishonest goldsmith dipped the gold bangles in aqua-regia (which contains 1 part of concentrated nitric
acid and 3 parts of concentrated hydrochloric acid by volume). Aqua-regia dissolved a considerable amount
of gold from gold bangles and hence reduced their weight drastically. The dishonest goldsmith can recover
the dissolved gold from aqua-regia by a suitable treatment.
Q.16. Give reason why copper is used to make hot water tanks but steel (an alloy of iron) is not?
Ans. Copper is a better conductor of heat as compared to steel, therefore hot water tanks are made of copper.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. Why does a metal not release H2 gas on reacting with dilute nitric acid? HOTS
Ans. As nitric acid acts as a strong oxidising agent and oxidises the released H2 gas to H2O and itself is reduced
to either of these gases—N2O, NO2 or NO.
32 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.2. Why is copper used to make hot water tanks whereas steel is not? HOTS
Ans. Copper is a better conductor of heat as compared to steel. Therefore, hot water tanks are made of copper.
Q.3. Why do the non-metals not displace hydrogen from dilute acids? HOTS
Ans. Non-metals being acceptor of electrons, cannot give electrons to the hydrogen ions of acid to reduce them
to hydrogen gas. Hence non-metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Q.4. Give an example of a metal which HOTS
(i) can be easily cut with a knife. (ii) is a liquid at room temperature.
Ans. (i) Sodium (ii) Mercury

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


0=Q.5. Name the following: 2012
(a) A metal which is preserved in kerosene (b) A lustrous coloured non metal
(c) A metal which can melt while kept on palm. (d) A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat.
Ans. (a) Sodium (b) Iodine
(c) Gallium and Caesium (d) Lead and mercury
Q.6. Define Amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of such oxides. 2012
Ans. Some metal oxides show both acidic as well as basic behaviour. Those metal oxides which react with both
acids as well as bases to produce salts and water are known as amphoteric oxides.
For example: Aluminium oxide, Zinc oxide
Al2O3 + 6HCl ⎯⎯⎯ → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
(Acid) (Salt) (Water)

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Al2O3 + 2NaOH ⎯⎯⎯
→ 2NaAlO2 + H2O

Da
(Base) (Salt) (Water)

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Q.7. Give reason for the following: 2013

Shi
(a) Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene.
(b) Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when some aluminium powder is added in it.
Ans. (a) Sodium metal is so reactive that it reacts vigorously with the oxygen (of air). It catches fire and starts
burning when kept open in the air. Sodium metal is stored under kerosene oil to prevent its reaction
with oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air.
(b) When aluminium powder is put in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper sulphate
solution fades gradually due to the formation of colourless aluminium sulphate solution.
Displacement
3 CuSO4 (aq) + 2 Al (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 Cu (s)
Blue Colourless
Since Al is more reactive than Cu, it displaces Cu from CuSO4 solution and forms colourless
Al2(SO4)3.
Q.8. A thin zinc plate was kept in a glass container having CuSO4 solution. On examining it was found that
the blue colour of the solution is getting lighter and lighter. After a few days when the zinc plate was
taken out of the solution, a number of small holes were noticed in it. State the reason and write
chemical equation of the reaction. 2014
Ans. A strip of zinc metal is put in copper sulphate solution. The blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades
gradually due to the formation of colourless zinc sulphate solution. Since zinc is more reactive than
copper, zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. Zinc metal is consumed and hence a number
of small holes were formed in the zinc strip.
CuSO4 (aq) + Zn (s) ⎯⎯⎯ → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Copper Sulphate Zinc Zinc Sulphate Copper
(Blue solution) (Colourless solution)
Q.9. Reverse of the following chemical reaction is not possible:
Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) ææÆ ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Justify this statement with reason. 2015
Ans. ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) ææÆ × (no reaction)
Because Cu is less reactive than Zn in the activity series. Therefore, less reactive metal (Cu) does not
displace more reactive metal (Zn) from its salt solution. Thus, this reaction is not possible.
Q.10. List four important properties of aluminium which are responsible for its great demand in industry.
2015
Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 33

Ans. Important properties of aluminium:


(i) It is a light metal.
(ii) It does not corrode as it forms a protective layer of oxide which prevents it from further oxidation.
(iii) It is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
(iv) It is used as a reducing agent in the extraction of metals from the oxide.
Q.11. A metal ‘M’ is found in nature as its carbonate. It is used in the galvanization of iron. Identify ‘M’ and
name its ore. How will you convert this ore into free metal? 2015
Ans. ‘M’ = Zinc metal
Zinc occurs as Zinc Carbonate in calamine ore, ZnCO3.
Zinc can be extracted from the ore by:
(i) Zinc Carbonate is first converted into Zinc Oxide by calcination. When calamine ore (zinc carbonate)
is heated strongly in the absence of air, it decomposes to form zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.
ZnCO3 Calcination
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ZnO (s) + CO2≠
(Calamine ore)
(ii) Zinc metal is then extracted from zinc oxide by reduction with carbon (coke).
ZnO (s) + C (s) ææÆ Zn (s) + CO≠
Zinc oxide (Coke) Zinc metal Carbon monoxide
Q.12. Write down important properties of ionic compounds. 2017D
Ans. (i) Ionic compounds are generally hard and solids.
(ii) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
(iii) Ionic compounds are mostly soluble in water and insoluble in solvents like kerosene oil, alcohols, etc.
(iv) In their molten state or aqueous solution these are good conductors of electric current.

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Q.13. State two ways for preventing rusting of iron articles. 2017OD

Da
Ans. (i) By applying grease and paints on the iron articles.

v
(ii) By coating of zinc layer over the iron articles by Galvanisation process.

Shi
Short Answer Questions (SA-II)
Q.14. A reddish brown coloured metal, used in electrical wires, when powdered and heated strongly in an
3 Marks

open china dish, its colour turns black. When hydrogen gas is passed over this back substance, it
regains its original colour. Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(i) Name the metal and the black coloured substance formed.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equations for both the reactions. 2012
Ans. (i) The reddish brown coloured metal used in electric wires is Copper.
When copper is heated strongly in air, it combines with oxygen to form Copper (II) oxide, a black
oxide.
Δ
(ii) 2Cu + O2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2 CuO
Copper Copper (II) Oxide
(black)
CuO + H2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ H2O + Cu
Copper (Reddish brown)
Q.15. (a) Why does calcium start floating when added to water? 2012
(b) Most of the metals do not give hydrogen while reacting with nitric acid. Why?
(c) Write equation for the reaction of iron with steam. Name the compound of iron obtained.
Ans. (a) The reaction of calcium with water is less violent. The heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to
catch fire.
Ca (s) + 2H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal.
(b) Most of the metals do not give hydrogen while reacting with nitric acid because HNO3 is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen
oxides (N2O, NO, NO2).
(c) Iron reacts with steam to form iron oxide and hydrogen
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) ⎯⎯⎯ → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
Ferro-ferric oxide
Q.16. Write balanced equations for the reaction of:
34 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(i) Aluminium when heated in air. Write the name of the product.
(ii) Iron with steam. Name the product obtained.
(iii) Calcium with water. Why does calcium start floating in water? 2012
Sol. (i) When aluminium is heated in air, it forms aluminium oxide.
Δ
4Al + 3O2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2Al2O3
Aluminium oxide
(ii) When iron is reacted with steam, it forms iron oxide and hydrogen.
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) ⎯⎯⎯ → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
(Steam) Iron oxide
(iii) The reaction of calcium with water is less violent, and the heat evolved in this reaction is not sufficient
for hydrogen to catch fire. So calcium starts floating in water because the bubbles of hydrogen gas
formed stick to the surface of the metal.
Ca (s) + 2H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g) + Heat
Q.17. Define the term ‘metallurgy’, and fill appropriate terms in the blanks: 2013
The four major steps involved in metallurgy are:
(i) ............. of ore. (ii) Conversion of ore into its ............. .
(iii) Reduction of oxides of ores into ............. . (iv) ............. of metal.
Ans. The various processes involved in the extraction of metals from their ores and their refining are known as
metallurgy.
The four major steps involved in metallurgy are:
(i) Concentration of ore. (ii) Conversion of ore into its metal oxide.

s
(iii) Reduction of oxides of ores into metal. (iv) Refining of impure metal.

a
Q.18. (a) Draw a flow diagram to show extraction of metals of medium reactivity from their sulphide ore.

v D
(b) Differentiate between roasting and calcination. 2013

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Ans. (a) Flow diagram to show extraction of metals of medium reactivity from their sulphide ore:
Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 35

(b) Difference between Roasting and Calcination:


Roasting Calcination
(i) It is done in case of sulphide ores. (i) It is done in case of carbonate ores.
(ii) In this, the ore is heated in the presence of air (ii) The carbonate ore is heated in the absence of
to convert it into oxide compound. air to convert it into oxide.
(iii) The gas given out is SO2 (sulphur dioxide) (iii) The gas given out is CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
gas. gas.
Example: Example:
Heat
2ZnS + 3O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2ZnO + 2SO ≠
2 ZnCO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ ZnO + CO ≠
2
(air)

Q.19. State reason for the following: 2014


(i) Lemon is used for restoring the shine of tarnished copper vessels.
(ii) A metal sulphide is converted into its oxide to extract the metal from the sulphide ore.
(iii) Copper wires are used in electrical connections.
Ans. (i) When a copper object remains in damp air for a considerable time, then copper reacts slowly with
carbon dioxide and water in air to form a green coating of basic copper carbonate on its surface. If
corroded copper vessels are treated with lemon which is acidic in nature, the acid solution dissolves
green coloured basic copper carbonate and makes them look shiny.
(ii) It is easier to obtain metals from their oxides (by reduction) than from sulphides. So before reduction,
the metal sulphide ore is converted into metal oxide.
(iii) Copper metal is the next best conductor of electricity after silver metal. So electric wires are made of

as
copper (as silver being a costly metal can not be used for making electric wires).

D
Q.20. Differentiate between the following with suitable examples: 2015

iv
(i) mineral and ore

Sh
(ii) corrosion and rancidity
(iii) malleability and ductility
Ans. (i) Difference between Mineral and Ore
Minerals Ore
1. The natural materials in which the metals 1. Those minerals from which the metals can
or their compounds are found in earth are be extracted conveniently and profitably are
called minerals. called ores.
2. Some minerals may contain only a small 2. An ore contains a good percentage of the
percentage of the metal and some may metal.
contain a large percentage of metals.
(ii) Difference between Corrosion and Rancidity
Corrosion Rancidity
1. The tarnishing of the metals by the attack 1. When fats and oils present in the food get
of moisture, oxygen and other acidic oxidized, the smell and taste of the food
oxides in the air is called corrosion. changes. This is called rancidity.
2. Example: Rusting of iron. 2. Example: Potato-chips kept in N2 gas to
check rancidity.
(iii) Difference between Malleability and Ductility
Malleability Ductility
1. The property which allows the metals to be 1. The property which allows the metals to be
hammered into thin sheets is called drawn into thin wires is called ductility.
malleability.
2. Gold and silver metals are the best 2. Gold is the most ductile metal.
malleable metals.
36 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.21. You are given samples of three metals—sodium, magnesium and copper. Suggest any two activities to
arrange them in order of their decreasing reactivity. 2015
Ans. Given three metals—sodium (Na), magnesium (Mg), copper (Cu)
Activity I. When the three given metals Na, Mg and Cu are added to magnesium chloride solution
separately taken in three different test tubes, we will find that displacement reactions will take place in
the following manner:
MgCl2 solution Metals
Displacement reaction Na
No reaction Mg
No reaction Cu
This shows that Na is the most reactive metal as it displaces Mg from MgCl2 solution.
Activity II. When Na, Mg and Cu metals are taken in three different test tubes and CuSO4 solution is
added in each test tube, we will find that displacement reactions will take place in the following manner:
CuSO4 solution Metals
Displacement reaction Na
Displacement reaction Mg
No reaction Cu
This shows that Cu is the least reactive metal.
Order of decreasing reactivity: Na > Mg > Cu.

as
Q.22. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their chemical properties. 2017OD

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Ans. Differentiate between Metals and Non-metals

Shiv
Metals Non-metals
1. Metals form basic oxides with oxygen of air. 1. Non-metals form acidic oxides with oxygen
of air.
2. Metals can displace hydrogen from dilute 2. Non-metals cannot displace hydrogen from
acids. dilute acids.
3. Metals show displacement reactions on the ba- 3. Non-metals do not show such displacement
sis of their reactivity series. reactions.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.23. (a) In the formation of compound between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons and B gains one
electron.
(i) What is the nature of bond between A and B?
(ii) Suggest the formula of the compound formed between A and B.
(b) On similar lines explain the formation of MgCl2 molecule.
(c) Common salt conducts electricity only in the molten state. Why?
(d) Why is melting point of NaCl high? 2012

−2e
Sol. (a) A ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → A2+

+1e
B ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B–
(i) Ionic bond is formed between A and B.
A B
(ii) Þ AB2
2 1
(b) (i) Mg has 2 electrons in its outermost shell so it loses its 2 electrons to achieve the inert gas
configuration of eight valence electrons and forms positively charged ion or divalent cation.
−2e −
Mg ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Mg2+
Magnesium atom Magnesium ion
K LM K L
2 8 2 2 8
Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 37

(ii) Cl has 7 electrons in its outermost shell so it gains one electron to achieve the stable inert gas
configuration and forms negatively charged ion or monovalent anion.
+ e−
Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Cl–
Chlorine atom Chloride ion
K LM K LM
2 8 7 2 8 8
Mg2+ + 2Cl–1 ⎯⎯⎯ → MgCl2
(c) Common salt (NaCl) is an ionic compound which conducts electricity only in molten state because in
molten state the electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions (Na+ and Cl–) are
overcome due to heat. Thus the ions move freely and conduct electricity.
(d) NaCl is an ionic compound so there is a strong force of attraction between the positively charged
sodium ion and negatively charged chloride ion. Therefore a considerable amount of energy is
required to break the strong interionic attraction. Thus NaCl has high melting point.
Q.24. (a) Show the formation of magnesium chloride and sodium chloride by transfer of electrons. 2012
(b) Identify the ions present in these compounds.
(c) Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in the solid state?
Ans. (a) (i) Sodium (Na) and Magnesium (Mg) have 1 and 2 electrons respectively in the outermost shells of
their atoms, so they lose their electrons to achieve the inert gas electron configuration of eight
valence electrons and form positively charged ions or cations.
Na – e– ⎯⎯⎯ → Na+
Sodium atom Sodium ion
KLM KL

as
2, 8, 1 2, 8

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Mg – 2e– ⎯⎯⎯
→ Mg2+

Shiv
Magnesium atom Magnesium ion
KLM KL
2, 8, 2 2, 8
On the other hand Cl has seven electrons in its atom so it gains one electron to acquire inert gas
configuration and forms negatively charged ion or an anion.
Cl + e– ⎯⎯⎯ → Cl–
Chlorine atom Chloride ion
KLM KLM
2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
. .. .. –
Na + . Cl ------- [Na+][ Cl
. . ] ------- NaCl
.. . .. .. .. – .. –
. . + Mg + .Cl ------- [ Cl
Cl 2+
. . ] [Mg ][ Cl
. . ] ------- MgCl2
.. –
(ii) NaCl contains one sodium ion [Na+] and one chloride ion [ Cl
.. ]
.. –
MgCl2 contains one magnesium ion [Mg2+] and two chloride ions [ Cl .. ]
(iii) Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity because movement of ions in the
solid state is not possible due to their rigid structure.
Q.25. The metals extracted from their ores are not very pure. They contain impurities, which can be removed
by the process of refining. Name the most widely used process of refining impure metals. Draw a
diagram of the apparatus used for refining of copper metal and state:
(i) The name of the rods which are used as cathode and anode.
(ii) The electrolyte used during the process.
(iii) What happens to the pure metal when current passes through the electrolyte?
(iv) What happens to the soluble and insoluble impurities present in the impure copper? 2013
Ans. The most common method for refining of impure metals is electrolytic refining.
38 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Electrolytic Refining of Copper:

Key
e– – + e–

(–) Cathode Anode (+)


Pure Cu Metal Impure Cu Metal
Cu2+ Acidified copper
sulphate solution
Cu2+
Tank
Impurities
(Anode mud)

(i) A thin strip of pure metal is made the cathode whereas impure metal is made the anode.
(ii) Aqueous solution of salt of the metal to be refined.
(iii) On passing the current through the electrolyte, pure metal from the anode dissolves into the
electrolyte. An equivalent amount of pure copper metal from the electrolyte gets deposited on the
cathode. Pure copper metal is collected at the cathode.
(iv) The soluble impurities go into the solution while the insoluble impurities settle down at the bottom of
the anode and are known as anode mud.
Q.26. (a) Explain the steps for extraction of copper from its ore. Write the reaction involved. 2012
(b) Draw a neat, labelled diagram for electrolytic refining of copper and explain the process.
Ans. (a) Copper is found as Cu2S in nature. The concentrated Cu2S is roasted in presence of air and Cu2O is
formed.

as
Heat
2Cu2S + 3O2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2Cu2O (s) + 2SO2 (g)

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Copper oxide (Cu2O) is then heated in the absence of air. This reduces Cu2O into copper metal. The

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copper obtained is called blister copper because the SO2 produced during this reaction gets trapped
inside its surface causing blisters to appear on the surface of copper metal.
Heat
2Cu2O + Cu2S ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 6Cu (s) + SO2 (g)
(b) Electrolytic refining of copper:
Key
e– – + e–

(–) Cathode Anode (+)


Pure Cu Metal Impure Cu Metal
Cu2+ Acidified copper
sulphate solution
Cu2+
Tank
Impurities
(Anode mud)
Q.27. Pure iron is soft and stretches easily when hot 2013
(a) How does this property of iron change when:
(i) small amount of carbon is mixed with it?
(ii) nickel and chromium are mixed with it?
(b) Define an alloy. How is an alloy prepared?
(c) An alloy has low melting point and is therefore used for electrical fuse. Name the alloy and write
its constituents.
Ans. (a) (i) When small amount of carbon is mixed with iron, it becomes an alloy that is called steel. The
carbon present in pig iron or cast iron makes it brittle and therefore, it cannot be used for
structural purposes.
(ii) When iron is mixed with chromium and nickel, then stainless steel is obtained. Stainless steel
does not rust at all.
Stainless steel is used for making cooking utensils, knives, scissors and surgical instruments etc.
(b) Alloy: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non- metal. An
alloy is generally prepared by heating the mixture of the metals (or metals and non-metals) to the
molten state and then cooling the mixture to solidify at room temperature.
Chapter 3: METALS AND NON-METALS „ 39

(c) A fuse wire is made up of an alloy of tin and copper or tin and lead (composition: 63% tin and 37%
lead).
Q.28. (a) Define corrosion. 2014
(b) What is corrosion of iron called?
(c) How will you recognise the corrosion of silver?
(d) Why corrosion of iron is a serious problem?
(e) How can we prevent corrosion?
Ans. (a) Corrosion. Corrosion is the process in which metals are eaten up gradually by the action of air,
moisture or a chemical on their surface.
(b) Rusting of iron metal is the most common form of corrosion.
(c) When silver objects are kept in air, they get tarnished and gradually turn black due to the formation
of thin silver sulphide layer on their surface by the action of H2S of air.
(d) Corrosion weakens the iron and steel objects and structures such as railings, car bodies, bridges and
ships, etc. and cuts short their life, therefore it is a serious problem.
(e) Methods to prevent corrosion:
— Galvanisation is a method used to protect steel and iron from rusting.
— Painting, greasing and oiling of metals is done to prevent corrosion.
— Cleaning metals regularly and carefully.
Q.29. In Column I are given different methods of extraction. Name the methods used for the extraction of
metals given in Column II: 2015
Column I Column II

s
(i) Reduction with carbon

Da
(ii) Electrolytic reduction Al, Zn, Na, Fe, Mn, Pb

iv
(iii) Reduction with aluminium

Sh
Ans. Column I Column II
(i) Reduction with carbon Zn, Fe, Pb
(ii) Electrolytic reduction Al, Na
(iii) Reduction with aluminium Mn
Q.30. (a) Explain any two physical properties of ionic compounds giving reason.
(b) List any two metals found in free state in earth’s crust. Where are they located in activity series?
(c) Metals towards the top of the activity series can not be obtained from their compounds by
reducing with carbon. Why? 2015
Ans. (a) Physical properties of ionic compounds:
(i) Ionic compounds are usually crystalline solids because their oppositely charged ions attract one
another strongly and form a regular crystal structure.
(ii) Ionic compounds have high melting and high boiling points. The ionic compounds are made up
of +ve and –ve ions. There is a strong force of attraction between the oppositely charged ions, so
a lot of heat energy is required to break this force of attraction and melt or boil the ionic
compounds.
(b) Gold and platinum metals are found in free state in the earth’s crust. These metals are located at the
bottom in the activity series.
(c) Metals towards the top of the activity series are highly reactive. The oxides of highly reactive metals
are very stable and can not be reduced by ‘carbon’ to obtain free metals because these metals have
more affinity for oxygen than carbon.

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: Reactivity Series
Q.1. When a strip of zinc metal is put in copper sulphate solution, the blue colour of copper sulphate fades
gradually. Why?
40 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. When a strip of zinc metal is placed in copper sulphate solution, zinc being more reactive displaces
copper from copper sulphate solution and thus colourless solution of zinc sulphate is formed. Due to
formation of this colourless zinc sulphate solution, blue colour of copper sulphate fades gradually.
Q.2. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reaction?
(i) FeSO4 and copper metal
(ii) FeSO4 and aluminium metal
Ans. (i) Copper metal is less reactive than iron metal, so no displacement reaction will occur between FeSO4
solution and copper metal.
(ii) Aluminium metal is more reactive than iron metal, so displacement reaction will occur between
FeSO4 and aluminium metal.
Q.3. On placing a piece of aluminium metal in the solution of mercuric chloride, it acquires a shining
silvery surface but when it is placed in a solution of magnesium sulphate, no change is observed.
Explain.
Ans. Aluminium is more reactive than mercury. Because of this it displaces mercury from mercuric chloride
solution. This mercury deposits on the aluminium metal giving its surface silvery shining appearance.
Aluminium is less reactive than magnesium. Hence, aluminium cannot displace magnesium from
magnesium sulphate solution and so, no change is observed.
Q.4. Why does zinc react with sulphuric acid to give hydrogen gas but copper does not?
Ans. Zinc is more reactive than hydrogen. Hence, it can react with sulphuric acid to give hydrogen gas.
H2SO4 + Zn æææ Æ ZnSO4 + H2
Sulphuric acid Zinc Zinc sulphate Hydrogen
Copper is less reactive than hydrogen. Hence it cannot displace hydrogen from sulphuric acid.

s
H2SO4 Cu æææ Æ No reaction

a
+

D
Q.5. What would you observe when you put some aluminium pieces in copper sulphate solution?

iv
Ans. Copper sulphate solution is blue in colour. When we put some aluminium pieces in copper sulphate

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solution, blue colour disappears and solution becomes colourless. As well as reddish brown deposits are
seen on aluminium pieces. These changes are observed because of the following reaction.
2Al + CuSO4 æææ
Æ 3Cu + Al2(SO4)3
White Blue Reddish brown Colourless

####
CHAPTER 4
CARBON AND ITS
COMPOUNDS
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Covalent Bond. A chemical bond formed between two atoms by sharing of valence electrons between
two atoms so that each atom acquires the stable electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas.
☞ Covalency. The number of electrons contributed by each atom for sharing.
☞ Carbon always forms covalent bond. Atomic no of carbon is 6. So, its configuration is K-2, L-4.
Therefore, it should either lose or gain 4 electrons to achieve the noble gas configuration and become
stable.
However, it is difficult for carbon to gain or lose four electrons because of the following reasons:
(i) It cannot gain 4 electrons to form C4– ion having Neon gas (2, 8) configuration because this anion
would be highly unstable due to the large amount of energy required to overcome the forces of
repulsion between the four electrons being added and the six electrons already present in the
carbon atom.
(ii) It cannot lose 4 electrons to form C4+ ion having Helium gas (2) configuration because this cation
would be highly unstable due to the large amount of energy required to remove four electrons from
the carbon atom.
☞ Tetravalency of Carbon. A carbon atom has four electrons in the valence shell. Therefore, carbon forms
four covalent bonds, i.e., carbon is tetravalent.
☞ Allotropic forms of Carbon: The phenomenon of existence of an element in two or more forms which have
different physical properties but identical chemical properties is called allotropy.
Three allotropic forms of carbon: (i) Diamond (ii) Graphite (iii) Fullerene
☞ Hydrocarbon. Organic compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called hydrocarbons.
☞ Saturated Compound. Compounds of carbon which have only single bonds between the carbon atoms
are called saturated compounds e.g., Ethane, Propane, Butane etc.
☞ Unsaturated Compound. Compounds of carbon which contain one or more double or triple bonds
between carbon atoms are called unsaturated compounds e.g., Ethene, Propene, Butyne, etc.
☞ Alkanes
• General formula—CnH2n+2 • Saturated hydrocarbons
• Methane—CH4 • Ethane—C2H6
☞ Alkenes
• General formula—CnH2n • Unsaturated hydrocarbon.
• Ethene—C2H4 • Propene—C3H6.
☞ Homologous series. A family of organic compounds having the same functional group, similar chemical
properties and the successive (adjacent) members differ by a CH2 unit or 14 mass unit.

Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 41


42 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Characteristics of a homologous series: All the members of a homologous series can be represented by
a general formula.
• Alkane—CnH2n+2 • Alkene—CnH2n
• Alkyne—CnH2n-2 • Halo alkane—CnH2n+1X
• Alcohol—CnH2n+1OH • Aldehyde—CnH2n+1CHO
• Ketone—CnH2n+1COCn'H2n’+1 • Carboxylic acid—CnH2n+1COOH
• The molecular formula of two successive (adjacent) members of a homologous series differs by a
CH2 unit.
• The molecular masses of any two successive members of a homologous series differ by 14 m.
.
• All the members of a given homologous series have same functional group.
• All the members of a series show similar chemical properties.
• The members of a homologous series show a gradation in physical properties.
☞ Nomenclature of carbon compound. International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)
decided some rules to name the carbon compounds. This was done to maintain the uniformity
throughout the world. Names which are given on this basis are popularly known as IUPAC name. The
rules for nomenclature are as follows:
(i) Identify the number of carbon atoms in carbon compound. Name the carbon compounds according
to the number of carbon atoms.
Example, Saturated hydrocarbon having one carbon atom is named as Methane. Saturated
hydrocarbon having two carbon atoms is named as Ethane.

as
Unsaturated hydrocarbon with double bond having two carbon atoms is named as Ethene.

D
Unsaturated hydrocarbon with triple bond between carbon atoms is named as Ethyne.

iv
(ii) If the structure has branched chain, identify the longest chain and then identify the number of

Sh
carbon atoms.
(iii) In case of a functional group present, write the prefix or suffix of the functional group as given
below. Then write the name of the parent compound:
Functional group Prefix Suffix
Alkyl Alkyl n/a
Halogen Chloro-for chlorine,
Bromo-for bromine
Iodo- for iodine n/a
Alcohol n/a ol
Aldehyde n/a al
Ketone n/a one
Carboxylic acid n/a oic acid
Double bond n/a ene
Triple bond n/a yne
☞ Chemical properties of Ethanol
(i) Ethanol (C2H5OH) compound is a colourless liquid at room temperature. It is the second member of
the homologous series of alcohols. Its common name is ethyl alcohol. Its functional group is — OH.
(ii) It has very low melting point (156 K) and low boiling point (351 K or 78°C).
(iii) Ethanol is highly soluble in water.
(iv) Ethanol is one of the main components of alcoholic drinks.
(v) It is a good organic solvent.
(vi) It is a neutral substance, so it does not have any effect on either blue litmus solution or red litmus
solution.
(vii)It burns with blue flame in the presence of O2 of air. This combustion is an oxidation process.
Combustion
C2H5OH + 3O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2CO2 + 3H2O + Heat and light
(air)
(viii) In the presence of alkaline KMnO4, it is oxidised to ethanoic acid.
Alk/KMnO
C2H5OH + 2[O] ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
4
→ CH3COOH + H2
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 43

(ix) Ethanol alcohol reacts with sodium (Na) metal vigorously to form sodium ethoxide and evolves H2 gas.
2C2H5OH + 2Na ⎯⎯ → 2C2H5ONa + H2 (g)
Sodium ethoxide
(x) Ethanol on dehydration in the presence of conc. H2SO4 acid at 443 K forms ethene gas. H2SO4 acid
absorbs water molecules from the alcohol molecules and acts as a strong dehydrating agent.
Conc. H 2 SO 4
C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
443 K
→ H2C = CH2 + H2O
Ethene (Absorbed by H2SO4)
☞ Chemical properties of Ethanoic acid
(i) Ethanoic acid commonly called acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a colourless liquid. The functional group
present in it is carboxylic acid —COOH.
(ii) Its melting point is 290 K and boiling point is 391 K.
(iii) Being an acid, it turns blue litmus red.
(iv) It is sour in taste.
(v) Ethanoic acid reacts with alcohols in the presence of conc. H2SO4 acid to form sweet smelling
compounds called esters.
Warm
CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
H SO (conc.)
→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
2 4
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
(an ester)
(vi) Ethanoic acid reacts with bases to form its salt and water.
CH3COOH + NaOH ⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + H2O
Sodium hydroxide Sodium ethanoate

as
(an alkali base) (Sodium acetate)

D
(vii) It reacts with carbonate and hydrogen-carbonate compounds of metals to form its salt (sodium

iv
ethanoate commonly called sodium acetate) and release CO2 gas.

Sh
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 ⎯⎯→ 2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium carbonate Sodium ethanoate
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 ⎯⎯
→ CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium hydrogen Sodium ethanoate
carbonate
☞ Cleansing action of soap. The dirt is generally held to the surface of Hydrophobic end
Hydrophilic
a dirty cloth by a thin film of oil or grease. When a dirty cloth is end
Soap molecule
treated with soap or detergent solution, the non- polar tail of the Na+
soap or the detergent dissolve in oil or grease while the polar heads
are held by surrounding water. Soap or detergent micelle are
formed with the oily or greasy dirt lying at their centre (soap or Na+
Oil droplet

detergent is attracted both by the greasy dirt and water). When the
surface of the cloth is manually scrubbed or beaten on a stone or
Na+
with a wooden paddle or agitated in a washing machine, the
loosened oily particles are removed from the dirty surface and the Na+
Formation of micelles
cloth is cleaned. Detergents lower the surface tension of water to a
greater extent than soap, therefore the cleansing action of detergent is much higher than those of soaps.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
(a) 6 covalent bonds (b) 7 covalent bonds
(c) 8 covalent bonds (d) 9 covalent bonds
Ans. (b) 7 covalent bonds.
Q.2. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
(a) carboxylic acid (b) aldehyde (c) ketone (d) alcohol
Ans. (c) ketone
44 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel gets blackened from the outside, it means that
(a) the food is not cooked completely. (b) the fuel is not burning completely.
(c) the fuel is wet. (d) the fuel is burning completely.
Ans. (b) the fuel is not burning completely.
Q.4. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond information in CH3Cl.

Ans. The bond line structure of CH3Cl is:

3-hydrogen atoms are linked with a carbon-atom by a single covalent bond. The bond between carbon and
chlorine atoms is covalent but due to higher value of electronegativity of Cl, the bond pair of electrons is
more towards chlorine and chlorine acquires a partially negative charge, thus the C – Cl bond is polar in
nature.
Q.5. Draw the electron dot structure for:
(a) ethanoic acid (b) H2S (c) Propanone (d) F2

Ans. (a) Ethanoic acid: CH3COOH

Das
(b) H2S:

Shiv
(c) Propanone: CH3COCH3

(d) F2:

Q.6. What is a homologous series? Explain with an example. (CBSE 2008)


Ans. A series of carbon compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen on a carbon
chain is called a homologous series. There is a difference of —CH2 in the molecular formulae of two
nearest compounds of a homologous series. Each such series has same general molecular formula and has
a general scientific name. There is a difference of 14 m (unified mass) in the molecular masses of two
nearest compounds of a series.
Characteristics:
(i) As the molecular mass increases in any homologous series, the melting and boiling points increase,
therefore a gradation in physical properties is observed.
(ii) The chemical properties, which are determined by the functional group, remain similar in a
homologous series.
Examples of homologous series are alkanes, alcohols, aldehydes etc.
Alkanes Alcohols
CH4 Methane CH3OH Methanol
C2H6 Ethane C2H5OH Ethanol
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 45

C3H8 Propane C3H7OH Propanol


C4H10 Butane C4H9OH Butanol
C5H12 Pentane C5H11OH Pentanol
Q.7. How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis of their physical and chemical
properties?
Ans. Ethanol Ethanoic Acid
(i) It has a low melting point of 156 K and low (i) The melting point of ethanoic acid is 290 K
boiling point of 351 K. and boiling point is 391 K.
(ii) It is a neutral substance, so it does not have (ii) Being an acid, it turns blue litmus red.
any effect on either blue litmus solution or red
litmus solution.
(iii) It reacts with sodium metal vigorously. H2 gas is (iii) It reacts with sodium to produce H2 but
given out with effervescence. without effervescence.
(iv) It has a burning taste. (iv) It is sour in taste.
Q.8. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other
solvents such as ethanol also?
Ans. Soap molecule consists of two parts—one hydrophilic (ionic ends) and other hydrophobic (hydrocarbon
chains). Hydrophobic part of soap is dissolved with dirt and hydrophilic remains suspended in water.
Thus more molecules of soap are attached to dirt having their one end suspended in water to form a
micelle.
Since ethanol is not as polar as soap, micelle will not be formed in other solvents such as ethanol.

as
Q.9. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications?

D
Ans. Carbon and its compounds give large amount of heat on combustion (burning) due to high percentage of

iv
carbon and hydrogen. These compounds have optimum ignition temperature and their combustion can be

Sh
controlled.
Therefore, carbon and its compounds are used as fuels.
Q.10. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is treated with soap.
Ans. Hard water contains soluble salts of calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg). When soap is dissolved in it,
insoluble salts of Ca2+ and Mg2+ are formed which are called scum.
Example: Ca2+ + 2RCOONa æææ Æ (RCOO)2Ca + 2Na+
Salt of Calcium Soap Scum
Q.11. What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus paper (red or blue)?
Ans. Red litmus will turn blue as soap is alkaline in nature. Being basic, soap solution will turn red litmus blue.
Q.12. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial application?
Ans. The addition of hydrogen atoms in the unsaturated carbon compounds to change them into saturated
carbon compounds is known as hydrogenation.
Application. Unsaturated vegetable oils are converted into saturated solid fats on adding hydrogen in the
presence of nickel metal as a catalyst in the industries for manufacturing solid vegetable fats.

(Vegetable oil) (Vegetable fat)


‘R’ are alkyl radicals like methyl (CH3), ethyl (C2H5), Propyl (C3H7), etc.
Q.13. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions:
C2H6, C3H8, C3H6, C2H2 and CH4
Ans. Hydrocarbons C3H6 and C2H2 undergo addition reaction because they are unsaturated hydrocarbons
having double and triple bond.
Example:

(i) C3H6:
46 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Propene Propane
(ii) C2H2: H—C ∫ C—H

Q.14. Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil.
Ans. Butter is a saturated fat so it does not undergo catalytic hydrogenation but cooking oil being unsaturated
hydrocarbon can be hydrogenated in the presence of a catalyst (Ni).
Catalyst
Butter + H2 ææææ
Ni
Æ No reaction
Catalyst
Oil + H2 ææææ
Ni
Æ Butter
Q.15. Explain the mechanism of the cleansing action of soaps.
Ans. Action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth. Soaps Hydrophilic Hydrophobic end

s
are molecules in which the two ends have differing properties, one is end

a
Soap molecule
hydrophilic, that is, it dissolves in water, while the other end is

D
Na+

v
hydrophobic, that is, it dissolves in hydrocarbons. When soap is at

Shi
the surface of water, the hydrophobic ‘tail’ of soap will not be soluble
in water and the soap will align along the surface of water with the Oil droplet
ionic end in water and the hydrocarbon ‘tail’ protruding out of Na+
water. Inside water, these molecules have a unique orientation that
keeps the hydrocarbon portion out of the water. This is achieved by
Na+
forming clusters of molecules in which the hydrophobic tails are in
Na+
the interior of the cluster and the ionic ends are on the surface of the
Formation of micelles
cluster. This formation is called a micelle. Soap in the form of a
micelle is able to clean, since the oily dirt will be collected in the centre of the micelle. The micelles stay in
solution as a colloid and will not come together to precipitate because of ion-ion repulsion. Thus, the dirt
suspended in the micelles is also easily rinsed away.
Soap molecule Soap molecule

Na+ Na+ Na+ Na+


Na+ Na+
Na+ Na+ Dirt particle
Na+ Na+ (oil or grease)
Na+ Na+ which was attached
Water to dirty cloth
Na+ Na+ Na+ Na+

(a) Soap micelle (a) Soap micelle


entraps the dirt particle

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane, C2H6? 2011D
Ans. There are seven covalent bonds in a molecule of ethane:
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 47

H H
| |
H—— C—— C —— H
| |
H H
Q.2. Write the electron dot structure of ethene molecule, C2H4. 2011D
Ans. Electron dot structure of ethene molecule, C2H4:

H H
x x
H H
C C Or C=C
H H
x x
H H

Q.3. Write the electron dot structure of ethane molecule, C2H6. 2011D
Ans. Electron dot structure of ethane, C2H6:

H H
x x H H
H x C C x H Or H—C—C—H
x x H H
H H

as
Q.4. Draw the structure for ethanoic acid molecule, CH3COOH. 2011OD

v D
Ans. Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH):

Shi
H
H—C — C —O—H
H O
Q.5. Draw the structure of the hexanal molecule, C5H11CHO. 2011OD
Ans. Hexanal molecule, C5H11CHO:
H H H H H
H—C — C — C — C—C—C—H
H H H H H O
Q.6. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds: 2011D
(i) C2H5Cl (ii) C2H5OH
Ans. Functional group present in:
(i) C2H5Cl — Chloro (halide) (ii) C2H5OH — alcohol
Q.7. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds: 2012D
(i) CH3COCH3 (ii) C2H5COOH
Ans. Organic compound Functional group
(i) CH3COCH3 (>C = O) Ketonic group
(ii) C2H5COOH (—COOH) Carboxylic acid
Q.8. Which class of carbon compounds is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer at the higher level
of the atmosphere? 2012D
Ans. The depletion of ozone layer is due to the use of chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons.
Q.9. Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having functional
group—OH. 2012OD
Ans. Second member of alcohol family — C2H5OH (Ethanol)
Q.10. Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having functional group—
COOH. 2012OD
48 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. First member of carboxylic acid group is:


HCOOH — Methanoic acid.
Q.11. Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having functional group—
CHO. 2012OD
Ans. First member of Aldehyde group (–CHO) is Methanal/Formaldehyde, H—CHO.
Q.12. Name the functional group present in each of the following compounds: 2012D
(i) HCOOH (ii) C2H5CHO
Ans. Organic compound: (i) HCOOH (ii) C2H5CHO
Functional group: Carboxylic acid (—COOH) Aldehyde (—CHO)
Q.13. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n.
2015D
Ans. CnH2n : Alkene nd
Name : Propene (2 member) Formula: C3H6
Q.14. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n+2.
2015D
Ans. CnH2n+2 : Alkane series Name : Ethane (2nd member) Formula: C2H6
Q.15. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n–2.
2015D
Ans. CnH2n–2 : Alkynes Name : Propyne (2nd member) Formula: C3H4
Q.16. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane. 2015OD
Or
How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane C2H6? 2015OD

as
Ans. Ethane — C2H6 H H

v D
H—C—C—H

Shi
H H
No. of covalent bonds in ethane is 7.
Q.17. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of propane, C3H8. 2015OD
Ans. Propane—C3H8 H H H \ No. of covalent bonds in propane is 10.
H — C —C — C — H
H H H
Q.18. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C4H10. 2015OD
Ans. Butane—C4H10 H H H H \ No. of covalent bonds in butane is 13.
| | | |
H—C—C—C—C—H
| | | |
H H H H
Q.19. Write the next homologue of each of the following: 2016D
(i) C2H4 (ii) C4H6
Ans. (i) Next homologue of C2H4 is C3H6. (ii) Next homologue of C4H6 is C5H8.
Q.20. Name the following compounds: 2016D
H

(i) CH3 — CH2 — OH; (ii) CH3 C O


H

Ans. (i) CH3 — CH2 — OH Ethanol (ii) CH3 C O Ethanal


Q.21. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following: 2016D
C3H6 ; C5H10 ; C4H10 ; C6H14 ; C2H4
Ans. Saturated hydrocarbons:
General formula = CnH2n + 2
C4H10, C6H14
Q.22. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule. 2016D
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 49

Ans. Name of an alcohol: Propanol


H H H
Structure of propanol: H3C — CH2 — CH2 — OH Or H — C —C—C— OH
H H H
Q.23. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule. 2016OD
Ans. Name of an alcohol: Butanol
H H H H

Structure of butanol: CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2OH Or H — C — C — C — C — OH

H H H H
Q.24. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule. 2016OD
Ans. Name of an aldehyde: Butanal
H H H O

=
Structure of butanal: CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CHO Or H—C—C—C—C—H

H H H

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.25. Name the main products formed when

Das HOTS

v
(i) Ethanol is oxidised by an alkaline solution of KMnO4.

Shi
(ii) Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid.
(iii) Sodium ethanoate is heated with soda lime.
(iv) Ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4 acid.
Ans. (i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Ethyl ethanoate
(iii) Methane (CH4) gas (iv) Ethene gas
Q.26. (a) Write the chemical equation representing the preparation reaction of ethanol from ethene.
(b) Name the product obtained when ethanol is oxidised by alkaline potassium permanganate.
(c) Give an example of an esterification reaction. HOTS
H 2 SO 4
Ans. (a) H2C = CH2 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → C2H5OH
Ethene Ethanol
(b) Product with alkaline potassium permanganate is ethanoic acid.
Conc. H 2 SO 4
(c) CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethyl ethanoate
(An ester)
Q.27. What happens when ethanoic acid reacts with (i) magnesium, (ii) sodium carbonate, and (iii) sodium
hydroxide? Write the necessary chemical equation in each case. HOTS
Ans. (i) Magnesium ethanoate is formed
2CH3COOH + Mg ⎯⎯→ (CH3COO)2Mg + H2
Magnesium ethanoate
(ii) With sodium carbonate, it forms sodium ethanoate, CO2 and H2O
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 ⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Sodium ethanoate
(iii) With sodium hydroxide, it forms sodium ethanoate and H2O
CH3COOH + NaOH ⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + H2O
Sodium ethanoate

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.28. Write one chemical equation to represent each of the following types of reactions of organic substances:
(i) Esterification (ii) Saponification (iii) Substitution 2011D
50 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (i) Esterification. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid on warming in the presence of a few drops of
conc. H2SO4, forms a sweet smelling ester, ethyl ethanoate.
conc. H2 SO4
CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Δ
→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
(ii) Saponification. The alkaline hydrolysis of esters is known as saponification as this reaction is used
for the preparation of soaps.
Heat
CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + C2H5OH
Ethyl ethanoate Sodium ethanoate
(Soap)
(iii) Substitution. The reaction, in which one (or more) hydrogen atoms of a hydrocarbon are replaced by
some other atoms, is called substitution reaction.
Sunlight
CH4 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CH3Cl + HCl
Methane Chloro methane
Q.29. What is an ‘esterification’ reaction? Describe an activity to show esterification. 2011D
Ans. Carboxylic acid when reacts with alcohols in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to form pleasant
smelling esters. This reaction is called esterification reaction.
conc. H2 SO 4
CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Δ

→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
The formation of esters from acid and an alcohol can be demonstrated by the following experiment:
Activity:
• About 2-3 ml of ethanol is taken in a test tube.

s
• About 2-3 ml of glacial acetic acid along with a

a
few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid is added

v D
to the test tube.

Shi
• The reaction mixture is then heated in a water
bath for two minutes.
• Now the contents are poured into a beaker
containing 20-50 ml water. Notice the smell.
• We will observe sweet smell due to the formation of ester.
Q.30. Write chemical equations for what happens when 2011OD
(i) sodium metal is added to ethanoic acid.
(ii) solid sodium carbonate is added to ethanoic acid.
(iii) ethanoic acid reacts with a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide.
Ans. (i) 2Na + 2CH3COOH ⎯⎯→ 2CH3COONa + H2≠
Sodium metal Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate Hydrogen gas
(ii) Na2CO3 + 2CH3COOH ⎯⎯→ 2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Sodium carbonate Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate Carbon dioxide Water
(iii) CH3COOH + NaOH(dil.) ⎯⎯→ CH3COONa + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium hydroxide Sodium ethanoate Water
Q.31. Write chemical equations to show what happens when 2011OD
(i) ethanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K.
(ii) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid acting as a catalyst.
(iii) an ester reacts with a base.
Ans. (i) When ethanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443K, it gets dehydrated to form ethene
conc. H2 SO 4
CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
443K
→ CH2 == CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene water
(ii) When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid on warming in the presence of a few drops of conc. sulphuric
acid to form a sweet smelling ester, ethyl ethanoate
CH3COOH + C2H5OH conc. H2 SO 4
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate Water
(iii) When an ester is heated with a base (sodium hydroxide) solution then the ester gets hydrolysed
(breaks down) to form the parent alcohol and sodium salt of the carboxylic acid
CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH heat
⎯⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + C2H5OH
Ethyl ethanoate Ethanol Sodium ethanoate Ethanol
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 51

Q.32. Describe two examples of different oxidations of ethanol. Name the products obtained in each case.
2011OD
Ans. (i) Ethanol burns readily in air with a blue flame to form carbon dioxide and water vapour and releasing
a lot of heat and light.
C2H5OH + 3O2 Combustion
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2CO2 + 3H2O + Heat + Light
(ii) When ethanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate solution or acidified potassium
dichromate solution, it gets oxidised to ethanoic acid. It is also called controlled combustion.
Alkaline KMnO 4
C2H5OH + 2[O] ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Acidified K 2 Cr2 O 7
⎯→ CH3COOH + H2O
Q.33. What are isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane, C4H10. Why can’t we have isomers of
first three members of alkane series? 2012D, 2015D
Ans. The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are known as isomers.
Isomers of butane, C4H10:
H H H H
| | | |
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3 Or H—C—C—C—C—H
| | | |
H H H H
n-butane
H
|
H—C—H
CH3 H H

s
| | |

a
CH3 — CH — CH3 Or Or H—C—C—C—H

D
| | |

iv
H H H

Sh
2-methyl propane
Isomerism is not possible in first three members of alkane series (i.e., methane, ethane, propane) because
they contain only one, two or three carbon atoms respectively and with only 1, 2 or 3 carbon atoms, it is
not possible to have different arrangements of carbon atoms.
Q.34. Complete the following equations: 2011D
(i) CH4 + O2 ⎯⎯→
Hot Conc. H2 SO4
(ii) C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
(iii) CH3COOH + NaOH ⎯⎯→
Sol. (i) CH4 + 2O2 ⎯⎯→ CO2 + 2H2O + heat
Hot Conc. H SO
(ii) C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 4
CH2 = CH2 + H2O
(iii) CH3COOH + NaOH ⎯⎯→ CH3COONa + H2O
Q.35. Name the oxidising agent used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid. Distinguish between
ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of (i) litmus test, (ii) reaction with sodium carbonate.
2012OD, 2013D
Ans. Acidified potassium dichromate K2Cr2O7 or Alkaline KMnO4 can be used as oxidising agent for the
conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
Acidified K Cr O
CH3CH2OH + 2[O] ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 2 7
→ CH3COOH + H2O
Ethanol Nascent oxygen
(from oxidising agent)
(i) Litmus test:
• If an organic compound (to be tested) does not change the colour of either of the litmus solution
(blue or red) then the organic compound is neutral in nature. Ethanol is a neutral compound. It has
no effect on any litmus solution.
• When some blue litmus solution is added to the organic compound (to be tested), if the blue litmus
solution turns red; it shows that the organic compound is acidic and hence it is ethanoic acid.
52 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) Reaction with sodium carbonate:


• When the organic compound (to be tested) is taken in a test tube and a pinch of sodium
carbonate is added to it; if no reaction occurs in the reaction mixture, it is ethanol. No gas
evolved when ethanol is treated with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
• When the organic compound (to be tested) is taken in a test tube and a pinch of sodium
carbonate is added to it; evolution of carbon dioxide with brisk effervescence shows that the
given organic compound is ethanoic acid.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 Æ CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Q.36. Write the name and the structural formula of the compound formed when ethanol is heated at 443 K
with excess of conc. H2SO4. State the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction. Write chemical equation for
the reaction. 2013D
Ans. When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, it gets dehydrated to form
ethene (an unsaturated hydrocarbon)
conc. H2 SO4 ; 443K
CH3 — CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(Dehydration)
→ CH == CH + H O
2 2 2
Ethanol Ethene
In this reaction, concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water molecules
from the ethanol molecule.
Q.37. (a) Differentiate between alkanes and alkenes. Name and draw the structure of one member of each.
(b) Alkanes generally burn with clean flame. Why? 2013D
Ans. (a) Alkanes Alkenes
(i) An alkane is a hydrocarbon in which the (i) An alkene is an unsaturated hydro-carbon

as
carbon atoms are connected by only single in which the two carbon atoms are

D
covalent bond. connected by a double bond.

iv
(ii) General formula of alkane is CnH2n+2. (ii) General formula of alkene is CnH2n.

Sh
(iii) The simplest alkane is methane (CH4). (iii) The simplest alkene is ethene (C2H4).
H H H
C=C
H—C—H H H
H
(iv) Alkanes generally burn in air with a blue (iv) Alkenes burn in air with a yellow and sooty
and non-sooty flame. flame.
(v) Alkanes undergo substitution reactions. (v) Alkenes undergo addition reactions.
(vi) Alkanes do not decolourise red-brown (vi) Alkenes decolourise the bromine water.
colour of bromine water. (any three)
(b) Alkanes burn in air with a blue and non-sooty flame because the percentage of carbon in the alkane is
comparatively low which gets oxidised completely by oxygen present in air.
Q.38. What happens when: 2013D
(a) ethanol is burnt in air,
(b) ethanol is heated with excess conc. H2SO4 at 443 K,
(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Ans. (a) Ethanol burns readily in air to form carbon dioxide and water vapour and releases a lot of heat and
light.
C2H5OH + 3O2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2CO2 + 3H2O + Heat + Light
Ethanol (from air)
(b) When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 170°C (443 K), it gets
dehydrated to form ethene
conc. H2 SO4
CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
443 K
→ CH2 == CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene
(c) Ethanol reacts with sodium to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas
2C2H5OH + 2Na ⎯⎯⎯ → 2C2H5ONa + H2≠
Sodium ethoxide
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 53

Q.39. A carboxylic acid C2H4O2 reacts with an alcohol in the presence of H2SO4 to form a compound ‘X’. The
alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid,
C2H4O2. Write the name and structure of: (i) Carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound ‘X’.
2013OD
Ans. Carboxylic acid, C2H4O2:
H 2 SO 4
C2H4O2 + Alcohol ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ‘X’
Oxidation
Alcohol ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Alkaline KMnO
→ C2H4O2
4
(i) Carboxylic acid:
H
Name: CH3COOH (Ethanoic Acid) Structure: H — C —C — O — H
H O
(ii) Alcohol: C2H5OH
H H
Name: CH3—CH2—OH (Ethanol) Structure: H — C —C — O — H
H H
(iii) Compound ‘X’: Ester
Name: CH3COOC2H5 (Ethyl ethanoate)
H H H
Structure: H — C — C — O — C — C — H
H O H

Das H

v
Chemical reactions:

Shi
H SO
CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4 →
CH3COOC2H5
Carboxylic acid Alcohol (X)
(Ethanoic acid) (Ethanol) (Ethyl ethanoate)
[O]
CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
alkaline KMnO CH3COOH + H2O
4
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
Q.40. What is meant by isomers? “We cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series.” Give
reason to justify this statement. Draw the structures of two isomers of pentane, C5H12. 2013OD
Ans. The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are known as isomers.
Isomers of first three members of alkane series are not possible because only one arrangement of carbon
atoms is possible in their molecules.
Two isomers of pentane C5H12:
H H H H H
| | | | |
(i) H — C — C — C — C — C—H n-pentane
| | | | |
H H H H H
H H H H
| | | |
(ii) H — C —–— C —–— C — C — H iso-pentane (2-methyl-butane)
| | | |
H H—C—H H H
|
H
Q.41. State the meaning of functional group in a carbon compound. Write the functional group present in:
(i) ethanol and (ii) ethanoic acid and also draw their structures. 2014D
Ans. An ‘atom’ or ‘a group of atoms’ which makes a carbon compound reactive and decides its properties (or
functions) is called a functional group.
(i) Ethanol Æ Alcohol group (—OH)
(ii) Ethanoic acid Æ carboxylic acid group (—COOH)
54 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

H H H
H—C—C—O—H H—C—C = O
H H H OH
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
Q.42. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with
hydrogen can take place. Stating the essential conditions required for an addition reaction to occur
write the chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of such a reaction.
2014D
Ans. Addition reactions are a characteristic property of unsaturated hydrocarbons, i.e., Alkenes and Alkynes.
General formula of—Alkene: CnH2n, Alkyne: CnH2n – 2
For example, Ethene undergoes addition reaction with hydrogen when heated in the presence of nickel
catalyst to form ethane saturated hydrocarbon.
Ni Catalyst
CH2 = CH2 + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ CH3 – CH3
Heat
Ethene Ethane
(unsaturated hydrocarbon) (saturated hydrocarbon)
Thus addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon gives a saturated hydrocarbon. This reaction is
known as hydrogenation.
Q.43. What are esters? How are they prepared? List two uses of esters. 2014D
Ans. Esters are usually volatile liquids having pleasant smell (in fruity smell).
Preparation. When carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of a little concentrated sulphuric

s
acid, it gives a pleasant smelling ester.

a
For example. When ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated

v D
sulphuric acid, a sweet smelling ester called ethyl ethanoate is formed.

Shi
CH3COOH + C2H5OH 2conc. H SO
4 → CH3 COOC2H5 + H2O
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
Uses:
(i) Esters are used in making perfumes.
(ii) Esters are used in making artificial flavours and essences used in icecreams, sweets and cold drinks.
Q.44. What are homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the molecular formula of two consecutive
members of homologous series of aldehydes. State which part of these compounds determines their:
(i) physical and (ii) chemical properties. 2013D, 2014OD
Ans. Homologous series. A series of carbon compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for
hydrogen on a carbon chain is called a homologous series. There is a difference of –CH2 in the molecular
formulae of two nearest compounds of a homologous series. Each such series has same general molecular
formula and has a general scientific name. There is a difference of 14 m (unified mass) in the molecular
masses of two nearest compounds of a series.
Members of homologous series of aldehydes:
H — CHO Methanal
CH3 — CHO Ethanal
C2H5—CHO Propanal
(i) The carbon-chain attached to aldehyde group, i.e., (H—, CH3—, C2H5—) determine the physical
properties.
(ii) The functional group attached to all aldehydes (—CHO) determines the chemical properties.
Q.45. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the general formula of (i) alkenes,
and (ii) alkynes. Draw the structures of the first member of each series to show the bonding between
the two carbon atoms. 2014OD
Ans. Homologous series. A series of carbon compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for
hydrogen on a carbon chain is called a homologous series. There is a difference of –CH2 in the molecular
formulae of two nearest compounds of a homologous series. Each such series has same general molecular
formula and has a general scientific name. There is a difference of 14 m (unified mass) in the molecular
masses of two nearest compounds of a series.
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 55

General formula:
(i) Alkenes, CnH2n
(ii) Alkynes, CnH2n–2
Structure:

• The first member of alkenes is ethene and its structure is

• The first member of alkynes is ethyne and its structure is H — C ∫ C — H


Q.46. Define the term ‘structural isomerism’. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this property. Draw the
structures of possible isomers of butane, C4H10. 2014OD
Ans. (i) The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structuresare known as
structural isomers.
(ii) The phenomenon of occurring two or more different organic compounds having the same molecular
formula but different structures is called ‘structural isomerism’.
(iii) No isomerism is possible in propane as it has only 3 carbon atoms, it is not possible to have different
arrangement of carbon atoms in propane.
(iv) Isomers of butane, C4H10:
H H H H
H— C — C — C — C —H n-butane
H H H H
H H H

as
H— C —— C —— C —H 2-methyl propane

D
|

v
H H—C—H H
H

Shi
Q.47. List two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Name the type of bonding found in
most of its compounds. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by this kind of bonding?
Give reason why the carbon compounds—
(i) generally have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) do not conduct electricity in molten state. 2014OD
Ans. Carbon forms a large number of compounds.
The two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds are:
— Catenation. Catenation is the unique property of carbon atoms to form bonds with other atoms of
carbon giving rise to large molecules.
— Tetravalency. Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of some other monovalent elements.
Carbon compounds are formed mainly by covalent bonding, i.e., bond formed by sharing of electrons
because—
Carbon atoms have 4 electrons in their outermost shell. So needs to gain or lose electrons to attain noble
gas configuration. It could gain four electrons forming C4– anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus
with six protons to hold on to ten electrons. It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would
require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons from its outermost shell.
Because of these reasons, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form
covalent bonds.
Carbon compounds generally have low melting and boiling points because carbon compounds are
generally formed by covalent bonds in which the force of attraction between their molecules is not very
strong. Carbon compounds do not conduct electricity.
As carbon compounds have covalent bonds between them, these do not give rise to any ions in their
solution form or molten state. So carbon compounds do not conduct electricity through them.
Q.48. With the help of an example, explain the process of hydrogenation. 2015D
Mention the essential conditions for the reaction and state the change in physical property with the
formation of the product.
56 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Process of hydrogenation:


H H
R R Ni catalyst
C=C + H2 Heat R—C—C—R
R R
R R
(Vegetable oil) (Vegetable ghee)

The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to obtain a saturated hydrocarbon is called


hydrogenation.
Essential conditions for the reaction are:
(i) Presence of an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(ii) Presence of a catalyst such as nickel (Ni) or palladium.
Changes observed:
• Change observed in the physical property is the change of unsaturated compound from the liquid
state to saturated compound in solid state.
• The boiling or melting points of a product is increased.
Q.49. What is the difference between the molecules of soaps and detergents, chemically? Explain the
cleansing action of soaps. 2015D, 2017D
Ans. Difference between molecules of soaps and detergents
Soaps Detergents
(i) Soaps are the sodium or potassium salts of (i) Detergents are the sodium salts of long chain
long chain carboxylic acids. benzene sulphonic acids or ammonium salts

s
The ionic group in soaps is of long chain carboxylic acids.

Da
COO– Na+ The ionic group in a detergent is:

v
—SO3–Na+ or —COO– NH +4
(ii) Soaps are biodegradable.

Shi
(iii) Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
Cleansing action of soaps:
(ii) Some detergents are not biodegradable.
(iii) Detergents have a strong cleansing action.

Hydrophilic Hydrophobic end


Action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth. Most end
of the dirt particles on skin or clothes are oily in nature. When a Soap molecule
Na+
dirty cloth is put in water containing dissolved soap, the oil does
not dissolve in water. The soap molecules are sodium or potassium
salts of long chain carboxylic acids. Soap has one polar end (the end
Oil droplet
with sodium or potassium ion) and one non-polar end (the end Na+
with fatty acid chain) as shown in the figure. The polar end is
hydrophilic in nature, i.e., this end is attracted towards water. The
Na+
non-polar is hydrophobic, but lipophilic in nature, i.e., attracted
towards hydrocarbons, but not attracted towards water. When soap Na+
Formation of micelles
is dissolved in water, its hydrophobic end attach themselves to dirt
and remove it from the cloth. First, the molecules of soap arrange themselves in micelle form and trap the
dirt at the centre of the cluster. The various micelles present in water do not come together to form a
precipitate as each micelle repels the other because of the ion-ion repulsion. Thus, the dust particles remain
trapped in micelles and are easily washed away with water. In this way soap micelles help in removing
the dirt particles from the surface and this dirt dissolves in water and the surface gets cleaned and washed.
Soap molecule Soap molecule

Na+ Na+ Na+ Na+


Na+ Na+
Na+ Na+ Dirt particle
Na+ Na+ (oil or grease)
Na+ Na+ which was attached
Water to dirty cloth
Na+ Na+ Na+ Na+

Soap micelle Soap micelle


entraps the dirt particle
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 57

Q.50. Write the name and structural formula of the compound obtained when ethanol is heated at 443 K with
excess of conc. H2SO4. Also write chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of conc. H2SO4 in
it. 2015D, 2017OD
H H
Ans. Ethene CH2 = CH2 or C=C
H H
Conc. H SO
C2H2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
443K
4
→ C2H4 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene
Conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent.
Q.51. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe
how these tests are performed. 2015OD
Ans. Test-1—Litmus Test. Take 2 strips of blue litmus paper. Place a drop each of alcohol and carboxylic acid
on these strips separately. The blue litmus paper turns red in the case of carboxylic acid and remains
unaffected in the case of alcohol.
Test-2—Sodium hydrogen carbonate Test / Sodium carbonate Test. A pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate
or sodium carbonate is added to both alcohol and a carboxylic acid separately. If brisk effervescence with
the evolution of a colourless gas is observed, it indicates the presence of carboxylic acid whereas no
effervescence is seen in case of an alcohol.
Q.52. Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding. In
your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose? 2015OD

Ans. In pure oxygen, ethyne undergoes complete combustion and high

as
temperature suitable for welding is attained. Whereas air contains less

D
percentage/amount of oxygen which results in incomplete combustion H x C C x H

iv
of ethyne and the temperature required for the welding is not attained.

Sh
Hence we cannot use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose.

Q.53. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Classify the following carbon compounds
into two homologous series and name them. 2015OD
C3H4, C3H6, C4H6, C4H8, C5H8, C5H10
Ans. A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structure and similar chemical
properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH2 group.
Alkenes Alkynes
General formula CnH2n CnH2n–2
C3H6, Propene C3H4, Propyne
C4H8, Butene C4H6, Butyne
C5H10, Pentene C5H8, Pentyne
Q.54. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with
hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition, write
a chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction. 2015OD
Ans. Addition of hydrogen is possible in Alkenes CnH2n and Alkynes CnH2n–2.
• Addition reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons occurs in the presence of catalysts such as nickel (Ni)
or palladium (Pd) or platinum (Pt) to form saturated hydrocarbons.
• Example, Ethene reacts with hydrogen when heated in the presence of nickel catalyst to form ethane.
H H
H H Ni catalyst
C=C + H2 Heat H—C—C—H
H H
H H
Ethene Ethane
Q.55. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three
characteristic properties. 2016D
Ans. (i) The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms is known as a covalent
bond. The molecules formed by sharing of electrons between two or more same atoms or between
two or more non-metals are called covalent compounds.
58 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) Covalent compounds are different from ionic compounds as ionic compounds are formed by
transference of electrons.
Characteristics of covalent compounds:
(i) Covalent compounds usually have low melting and boiling points as they are formed by electrically
neutral molecules. So, the force of attraction between the molecules of covalent compounds is very
weak. Only a small amount of heat energy is required to break these forces.
(ii) Covalent compounds are usually insoluble in water but they are soluble in organic solvents.
(iii) Covalent compounds do not conduct electricity as they do not contain ions.
Q.56. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4, a substance with fruity smell is
produced. Answer the following: 2016D
(i) State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write the chemical
equation for the reaction and write the chemical name of the product formed.
(ii) State the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction.
Ans. (i) Esters are the fruity smelling compounds.
Chemical equation:
O O
conc. H 2 SO 4
CH3 C OH + CH3 CH2OH ¾¾¾¾¾¾ Δ
® CH3 C O—CH2 CH3 + H2O
Ethanoic Acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
(ester)
(ii) Esterification takes place in the presence of catalyst concentrated H2SO4. It acts as a dehydrating
agent, i.e., helps in the removal of water formed in the reaction between alcohol and carboxylic acid.

s
Q.57. Name the compound formed when ethanol is heated is excess of conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K. Also

Da
write the chemical equation of the reaction stating the role of conc. sulphuric acid in it. What would

iv
happen if hydrogen is added to the product of this reaction in the presence of catalysts such as

Sh
palladium or nickel? 2016D
Ans. • When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 170º C (443K) it gets dehydrated
to form ethene (an unsaturated hydrocarbon).
Conc.H SO
• CH3 — CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4
→ CH2 == CH2 + H2O
(170ºC)
(Ethanol) Dehydration Ethene Water
• In this reaction, concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water
molecule from the ethanol molecule.
• If hydrogen is added to the ethene (product of above reaction) in the presence of catalysts like
palladium or nickel then one atom of H adds to each carbon atom of ethene due to which the double
bond opens up to form a single bond in ethane.
Ni/Pd
CH2 == CH2 + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3 — CH3
Catalyst
Ethene D Ethane
Q.58. What is an oxidising agent? What happens when an oxidising agent is added to propanol? Explain with
the help of a chemical equation. 2016D
Ans. • The substance that supplies oxygen in a reaction for oxidation is called an oxidising agent. Examples
of oxidising agents are potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate etc.
• When propanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate solution (or acidified potassium
dichromate solution), it gets oxidised to propanoic acid.
Alkaline KMnO + Heat
CH3CH2CH2 — OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CH — CH — COOH
4
or, Acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 + Heat 3 2
Propanol Propanoic acid
Q.59. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following:
(a) Sodium; (b) Sodium hydroxide; (c) Ethanol
Write the name of one main product of each reaction. 2016OD
Ans. (a) 2CH3COOH + 2Na ææÆ 2CH3COONa + H2
Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate
(b) CH3COOH + NaOH ææÆ CH3COONa + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 59

H 2 SO 4 (Conc.)
(c) CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Δ
→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Ethyl ethanoate
Q.60. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write
their structures and name them. State the relation between the two in the language of science.
2016OD
Ans. Molecular formula: C3H6O
H H H

• Aldehyde: H — C —C—C = O or CH3 — CH2 — CHO ; Propanal


H H
H H

• Ketone H—C—C—C—H or
CH3 — C — CH3 ; Propanone
H O H O
• They are called isomers because both have same molecular formula but different structural formula
(having different functional groups).
Q.61. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ with molecular
formula C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning
splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also
write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when

s
you heat ‘X’ with excess conc. sulphuric acid. 2016OD

iv Da H H

Sh
Ans. X = Ethanol = CH3CH2OH Or H — C — C — OH

H H
Y = Hydrogen gas = H2≠
• When ethanol reacts with sodium it forms sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas
2C2H5OH + 2Na ⎯⎯ → 2C2H5ONa + H2 ≠
Ethanol Sodium Sodium ethoxide Hydrogen gas
• When ethanol is heated with excess of conc. sulphuric acid, it gets dehydrated to form ethene
Conc. H SO
CH3—CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O
170ºC
Ethanol Ethene
Q.62. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate.
Write balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products other
than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case. 2016OD
Ans. • When ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to form sodium ethanoate and CO2.
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 ⎯⎯→ 2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium carbonate Sodium ethanoate Carbon dioxide Water
• When ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate it gives brisk effervescence of CO2 gas
and also forms sodium ethanoate.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 ⎯⎯ → CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium Hydrogen Sodium ethanoate Carbon dioxide Water
Carbonate
• When ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide (an alkali) it forms sodium ethanoate (salt) and
water.
CH3COOH + NaOH ⎯⎯→ CH3COONa + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium hydroxide Sodium ethanoate Water
Q.63. Complete the following chemical equations: 2017D
(i) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH ææÆ
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH ææÆ
(iii) C2H5OH + CH3COOH ææææææ
Conc.H2 SO 4
Æ
60 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (i) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH ææÆ CH3COONa + C2H5OH


Sodium ethanoate Ethanol
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH ææÆ
CH3COONa + H2O
(iii) C2H5OH + CH3COOH ææææææ
Conc.H2 SO 4
Æ CH 3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethyl ethanoate
Q.64. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4
acid at 443K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction, stating the role of conc. H2SO4 acid in this
reaction. 2017OD
Ans. Structural formula of ethanol: H H
H—C—C—OH
H H
On heating ethanol with conc. H2SO4 acid ethene gas is produced.
Conc .H SO
CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
443K
4
→ C2H4 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene
Conc. H2SO4 acid acts as dehydrating agent which absorbs the released water.
Q.65. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of chemical equations for
each. State one use of each: (i) esters and (ii) saponification process. 2017OD
Ans. Esterification. In such a reaction an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to
form sweet smelling compounds called esters.
Conc. H SO
CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4

→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O

s
Warm

a
Ethyl ethanoate (ester)

D
Saponification. In such a reaction an ester reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium salt of an acid

iv
and alcohol. It is a saponification reaction.

Sh
Heat
CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → C2H5OH + CH3COONa
Sodium ethanoate
(i) Esters are used for making of puddings and icecreams, etc.
(ii) Saponification process is used in making of various types of soaps.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.66. (a) What is a soap? Why are soaps not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard? 2011D
(b) Explain the action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth.
Ans. (a) Soaps are sodium salts of fatty acids. Fatty acids are a type of carboxylic acids with long chain of
carbon atoms.
Soaps are not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard:
• The formation of lather is necessary for removing dirt from clothes during the washing of clothes.
Soap does not give lather with hard water as it reacts with the calcium and magnesium ions
present in hard water to form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids.
• The scum (or precipitate) formed by the action of hard water on soap sticks to the clothes being
washed and it interferes with the cleaning ability of soap. This makes the cleaning of clothes difficult.
(b) Action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth. Refer to Q.49
Q.67. (a) In a tabular form, differentiate between ethanol and ethanoic acid under the following heads:
(i) Physical state (ii) Taste (iii) NaHCO3 test (iv) Ester test
(b) Write a chemical reaction to show the dehydration of ethanol. 2011D
Ans. (a) Ethanol Ethanoic acid
1. Physical state Liquid state Liquid state
2. Taste Burning bitter Sour
3. NaHCO3 test No reaction Ethanoic acid reacts with NaHCO3 to
evolve brisk effervescence of CO2 gas.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3
Æ CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 61

4. Ester test When ethanol is warmed with When ethanoic acid is warmed with
some glacial ethanoic acid and a some ethanol and 2 or 3 drops of
few drops of conc. sulphuric acid, conc. H2SO4, a sweet smelling ester,
a sweet smelling ester, ethyl ethyl ethanoate is formed
ethanoate is formed CH3COOH + C2H5OH
CH3COOH + C2H5OH conc.
⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
H2 SO4
conc.
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
H2 SO4 CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(b) Dehydration of ethanol. When ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 170ºC, it gets
dehydrated to form ethene (an unsaturated hydrocarbon).
conc. H2 SO4
CH3 — CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
170ºC
→ CH2 == CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene
Q.68. (a) State two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds.
(b) Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Why are micelles not formed
when soap is added to ethanol? 2011OD
Ans. (a) The two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds are:
(i) Catenation. Catenation is the unique property of carbon atoms to form bonds with other atoms
of carbon giving rise to large molecules.
(ii) Tetravalency. Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms
of carbon or atoms of some other monovalent elements.
(b) Soap molecules consist of two parts—one hydrophilic (ionic ends) and other hydrophobic
(hydrocarbon chains). Hydrophobic part of soap is dissolved with dirt and hydrophilic remains

s
suspended in water. Thus more molecules of soaps are attached to dirt having their one end

Da
suspended in water to form a micelle.

iv
Since ethanol is not as polar as soap, micelle will not be formed in other solvents such as ethanol.

Sh
Q.69. Explain isomerism. State any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the structures of possible isomers of
butane, C4H10. 2011OD
Ans. Isomerism. The existence of two or more different organic compounds having the same molecular formula
but different structures is called isomerism.
Characteristics of isomerism:
(i) Isomers have the same molecular formula but different structures.
(ii) In the phenomenon of isomerism, a given molecular formula can represent two or more different
compounds.
(iii) Isomers of a given molecular formula have entirely different properties.
(iv) Isomerism is possible only with hydrocarbons having 4 or more carbon atoms.
Isomers of butane, C4H10: Refer to 33.
Q.70. List in tabular form three physical and two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and
ethanoic acid can be differentiated. 2012D
Ans. Ethanol Ethanoic acid
Physical properties: Physical properties:
(i) It does not have any effect on either blue (i) It turns blue litmus red, therefore it is an
litmus or red litmus, therefore it is neutral. acid.
(ii) It has a burning taste. (ii) It is sour in taste.
(iii) It has very low melting point (156 K) and low (iii) It has moderate melting point (290 K) and
boiling point (351 K). boiling point (391 K).
Chemical properties: Chemical properties:
(i) Ethanol reacts with sodium (Na) metal (i) Ethanoic acid reacts with carbonates to from
vigorously to form sodium ethoxide and evolves salt (sodium ethanoate) and releases CO2 gas
H2 gas (a gas which burns with a pop sound) 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 Æ 2C2H3COONa
2C2H5OH + Na Æ 2C2H5ONa + H2≠ + CO2≠ + H2O
(ii) Ethanol does not react with alkalies. (ii) Ethanoic acid reacts with alkalies to form its
salt and water.
62 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.71. Ethanol is one of the most important industrial chemicals. It is used in medicine, to synthesize many
important compounds, it is an excellent solvent.
However, inspite of its benefits it causes many social problems. If a person drinks alcohol regularly, he
becomes an alcoholic. Alcohol is non-toxic but it produces physiological effects disturbing brain
activity. These persons are also a threat to the lives of others.
(a) Give three reasons in favour and three reasons against ‘alcohol-free world’.
(b) ‘Alcohol drinking should not be portrayed on media.’ Give valid reasons to justify. 2012OD
Ans. (a) In favour of ‘Alcohol-free world’:
• Alcohol drinking lowers inhibitions which leads to increased violence and crime in the society.
• A liver disease ‘cirrhosis’ caused by alcohol can lead to death.
• Drunken driving leads to increased road accidents.
Against ‘Alcohol-free world’:
• Alcohol is used for making some medicines like cough syrups, tincture iodine, some tonics etc.
• Mixed with petrol, it is now being used as a fuel for light vehicles.
• It is used for making antifreeze material for cooling engines of vehicles.
(b) ‘Alcohol drinking should not be portrayed on media’ because young people and children are very
much influenced by the media.
Q.72. What is the difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents? State in brief the
action of soaps in removing an oily spot from a shirt. Why are soaps not considered suitable for
washing where water is hard? 2012D
Ans. Difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents
Soaps Detergents

as
• Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of some • Detergents are generally ammonium or

D
long chain carboxylic acids. sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.

iv
• Soaps do not form foam with hard water. • Detergents form foam even with hard water.

Sh
• Soaps are biodegradable substances. • Detergents are non-biodegradable substances.
• Soaps are mild cleansing agents. • Detergents are strong cleansing agents.
Cleansing action of soaps. Refer to Q.49
Soaps are not considered suitable for washing when water is hard. Refer to Q.66
Q.73. What are hydrocarbons? Write the name and general formula of: 2012OD
(i) saturated hydro-carbons,
(ii) unsaturated hydrocarbons, and draw the structure of one hydrocarbon of each type. How can an
unsaturated hydrocarbon be made saturated?
Ans. Hydrocarbons. A compound made up of hydrogen and carbon is called hydrocarbon. Petroleum is the
most important natural source of hydrocarbon.
The general formula of saturated hydrocarbons or alkanes is CnH2n+2 where n is the number of carbon
atoms in one molecule of the alkane.
Example: If an alkane has 1 carbon atom, then n = 1.
Molecular formula will be C1H2×1+2 = CH4
H
|
H—C—H Methane
|
H
• An unsaturated hydrocarbon is a hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are connected by a
‘double bond’ or a ‘triple bond’.
• An unsaturated hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are connected by a double bond is called
an alkene.
General formula: CnH2n
Example: If n = 2 C2H2×2 = C2H4
H H
C=C Ethene
H H
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 63

• An unsaturated hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are connected by a triple bond is called
an alkyne.
General formula: CnH2n–2
Example: If n = 2 C2H2×2–2 = C2H2
H—C ∫ C — H Ethyne
• An unsaturated hydrocarbon can be made saturated by the addition of hydrogen in the presence of
nickel or palladium metal as catalyst
Ni catalyst
CH2 = CH2 + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
heat
→ CH3—CH3
Ethene Ethane
(Unsaturated) (Saturated)
Q.74. What are detergents chemically? List two merits and two demerits of using detergents for cleansing.
State the reason for the suitability of detergents for washing, even in the case of water having calcium
and magnesium ions. 2012OD
Ans. Detergents are generally ammonium or sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
A common detergent is sodium n-dodecyl benzene sulphonate.
Detergent can lather well even in hard water because they do not form insoluble calcium or magnesium
salts with water. A detergent works by making the oil and grease particles of dirty clothes dissolve in
water through the formation of miscelles.
Merits of using detergents. Detergents are strong cleansing agents. Detergents form foam even with hard
water.
Demerits of using detergents. Detergents are non-biodegradable.

s
Q.75. (a) Define the term ‘isomers’.

Da
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and write their

iv
names.

Sh
(c) Give the electron dot structures of the above two compounds. 2013D
Ans. (a) The organic compounds having same molecular formula but different structures are known as
isomers.
(b) Molecular formula — C3H6O
Two isomers:
• H3C — C — CH3 Propanone
||
O
• CH3 — CH2 — CHO Propanal
(c) Electron dot structures:
Propanone Propanal
H H
x x H H H
x x x
Hx C C C xH
x x x x xx
xx H x C C C x Ox
H H
x x x x
xO x
H H

Q.76. An organic compound ‘X’ on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound ‘Y’ which on addition of one
molecule of hydrogen in the presence of nickel forms a compound ‘Z’. One molecule of compound ‘Z’
on combustion forms two molecules of CO2 and three molecules of H2O. Identify giving reasons the
compounds ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the chemical equations for all the chemical reactions involved.
2013OD
Ans. Organic compound ‘X’ is ethanol, (i.e., CH3 – CH2OH).
When ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4 it forms ‘Y’ which is ethene (CH2 = CH2).
Conc. H SO
(i) CH3 – CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→2
170° C
4
CH2 = CH2 + H2O
(X) (Ethene) (Y)
H
(ii) CH2 = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
Ni Catalyst
→ CH3 – CH3
(Ethene) (Y) (Ethane) (Z)
64 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

7
(iii) CH3 – CH3 + O Combustion
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2CO2 + 3H2O + Heat + Light
2 2
(Z)
\ ‘X’ Æ Ethanol CH3 – CH2OH
‘Y’ Æ Ethene CH2 = CH2
‘Z’ Æ Ethane CH3 – CH3
Q.77. State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4– anions, but forms covalent
compounds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds:
(a) are bad conductors of electricity?
(b) have low melting and boiling points? 2014D
Ans. Carbon atoms have 4 electrons in their outermost shell. So needs to gain or lose electrons to attain noble
gas configuration.
— It could gain four electrons forming C4– anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six
protons to hold on to ten electrons.
— It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would require a large amount energy to remove
four electrons from its outermost shell.
Because of these reasons, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form
covalent bonds.
(a) Covalent compounds are bad conductors of electricity because they do not contain ions.
(b) Covalent compounds have usually low melting and boiling points because they are made up of
electronically neutral molecules. So the force of attraction between the molecules of a covalent
compound is very weak. Only a small amount of heat energy is required to break these weak
molecular forces, due to which covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points.

as
Q.78. Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas configuration by either gaining or losing electrons

D
from their outermost shells. Give reason to explain why carbon cannot attain noble gas configuration in

iv
this manner to form its compounds. Name the type of bonds formed in ionic compounds and in the

Sh
compounds formed by carbon. Also give reason why carbon compounds are generally poor conductors
of electricity. 2014OD
Ans. Carbon mainly forms covalent bonds because carbon atoms have 4 electrons in their outermost shell. So it
needs to gain or lose electrons to attain noble gas configuration.
(i) It could gain four electrons forming C4– anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six
protons to hold on to ten electrons.
(ii) It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to
remove four electrons from its outermost shell.
Because of these reasons, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form
covalent bonds.
Carbon compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity because they are covalent in nature. A
carbon atom has 4 valence electrons in it and all the 4 valence electrons of carbon are used up in sharing of
with either carbon or with other atoms. So there are no free electrons and charge on carbon compounds.
Q.79. Explain why carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bond. Explain in brief two main reasons for
carbon forming a large number of compounds. Why does carbon form strong bonds with most other
elements? 2015D
Ans. The atomic number of carbon is 6 which means that a neutral atom of carbon retains 6 electrons. So, the
electronic configuration of carbon is K, L.
2, 4
Since, carbon has 4 electrons in its outermost shell so, it should either lose or gain 4 electrons to achieve
the inert gas configuration and become stable.
(i) It could gain four electrons forming C4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six
protons to hold on to ten electrons due to inter electronic repulsion.
(ii) It could lose 4 electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove
four electrons from its outermost shell.
Thus, it forms compounds mainly by covalent bonds.
Two properties of carbon which lead to huge number of carbon compounds are:
(i) Catenation. Catenation is the unique property of carbon atoms to form bonds with other atoms of
carbon giving rise to large molecules.
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 65

(ii) Tetravalency. Since carbon has a valency of 4, it is capable of bonding with 4 other atoms of carbon
or atoms of some other monovalent element.
The reason for the formation of strong bonds by the carbon atoms is their small atomic size. Due to the
small size of carbon atoms their nuclei hold the shared pairs of electrons between atoms strongly, leading
to the formation of strong covalent bonds. The carbon atoms also form strong covalent bonds with the
atoms of other elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and other elements.
Q.80. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? Describe in brief
the cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water? List two problems that arise
due to the use of detergents instead of soaps. 2015OD, 2017D
Ans. A soap is the sodium or potassium salt of a long chain carboxylic acid.
Example: C17 H35 COO– Na+ Sodium stearate
C15 H31 COO– Na+ Sodium palmitate
A detergent is ammonium or sulphonate salt of a long chain carboxylic acid.
Example: CH3 — (CH2)11 — C6H4 — SO3– Na+
CH3 — (CH2)10 — CH2 — SO4– Na+
Cleansing action of soaps. Refer to Q.49
Soaps do not form lather in hard water. Refer to Q.66
Problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps:
(i) Detergents are non-biodegradable, i.e., they cannot be decomposed by micro-organisms and hence
cause water pollution in lakes and rivers.
(ii) Detergents can also cause skin problems.
Q.81. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon.

s
(b) Name the products formed when ethane burns in air. Write the balanced chemical equation for

Da
the reaction showing the types of energies liberated.

v
(c) Why is reaction between methane and chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered a

Shi
substitution reaction? 2016D
Ans. (a) Bromine water test. The addition of bromine (Br2) gives addition reactions with unsaturated
compounds (like alkenes and alkynes). The addition of bromine is used as a test for unsaturated
compounds. For this purpose, bromine is used in the form of bromine water. A solution of bromine
in water is called bromine water. Bromine water has a red-brown colour due to the presence of
bromine in it. When bromine water is added to an unsaturated compound, then bromine gets added
to the unsaturated compound and the red-brown colour of bromine water is discharged. So, if an
organic compound decolourises bromine water, then it will be an unsaturated hydrocarbon
(containing a double bond or a triple bond), but saturated hydrocarbon (alkanes) do not decolourise
bromine water.
(b) When ethane burns in air, carbon dioxide and water vapours are formed along with heat and light.
2C2H6 + 7O2(g) ⎯⎯
→ 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) + Heat + Light
Ethane (Air) Carbon dioxide Water
This reaction is an exothermic reaction due to the evolution of heat.
(c) Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight to form chloromethane and hydrogen
chloride.
sunlight
CH4 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ CH3Cl + HCl
Chloromethane
In this reaction, one ‘H’ atom of methane has been substituted (replaced) by a ‘Cl’ atom, converting
CH4 to CH3Cl. Hence, it is considered a substitution reaction.
Q.82. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess conc. H2SO4 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which
on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’. One
molecule of ‘R’ on combustion, forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water.
Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved. 2016OD
H H
Ans. P = Ethanol, C2H5OH or H — C —C = OH
H H
66 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

H
H
Q = Ethene, CH2 = CH2 or C=C
H
H
H H
R = Ethane, C2H6 or H — C —C — H
H H
Explanation:
• When ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4, it gets dehydrated to form ethene (an unsaturated
hydrocarbon)
Conc. H SO
CH3 — CH2 — OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯2
170ºC
4
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene
(P) (Q)
• When ethene is heated with hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst it forms ethane (a saturated
hydrocarbon)
Ni Catalyst
CH2 = CH2 + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ CH3 — CH3
Ethane
(R)
7
• CH3 — CH3 + O ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ 2CO2 + 3H2O + Heat + Light

s
2 2

a
Q.83. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of

v D
alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the

Shi
name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the
necessary conditions for the reaction to occur. 2017OD
Ans. Hydrocarbons. As these compounds have only atoms of carbon and hydrogen elements in their molecules,
so these are called Hydrocarbons.
General formulae:
Alkanes CnH2n + 2
Alkenes CnH2n
Alkynes CnH2n – 2
Structures of first member of each:
H
H H
Alkanes. H—C—H Alkenes. C=C Alkynes. H — C ∫ C — H
H H
H
(Methane) (Ethene) (Ethyne)
The reaction which converts Alkenes into Alkanes is called Addition Reaction.
Ni
H2C = CH2 + H2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Heat
→ H3C — CH3
Ethene Ethane
Ni (Nickel) metal acts as catalyst in this reaction.

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: Properties of Acetic Acid
Q.1. What do you observe when you drop a few drops of acetic acid to a test tube containing:
(i) phenolphthalein
(ii) distilled water
(iii) universal indicator
Chapter 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS „ 67

(iv) sodium hydrogen carbonate powder


Ans. Action of acetic acid on
(i) phenolphthalein Æ no change/remains colourless
(ii) distilled water Æ no change, acetic acid dissolves in distilled water.
(iii) universal indicator Æ Turns orange
(iv) sodium hydrogen carbonate powder Æ evolution of colourless, odourless gas with brisk
effervescence.
Q.2. List two observations which you make when you add a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic
acid in a test tube. Write the chemical equation for the reaction that occurs. Describe the method of
testing this gas.
Ans. When a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid in a test tube, there are two
observations:
(i) Brisk effervescence
(ii) Evolution of a colourless and odourless gas which is CO2.
CH3 COOH (aq) + NaHCO3 (s) ⎯⎯⎯ → CH3 COONa (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)≠
When CO2 is passed through lime water, lime water turns milky due to the formation of CaCO3 (calcium
carbonate).
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯ → CaCO3Ø + H2O
(Lime water) (White ppt.)
Milkiness of the lime water disappears when CO2 gas is passed for considerable time due to the formation
a Ca(HCO3)2.
CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯ → Ca(HCO3)2 (aq)

s
(Soluble in water)

Da
Q.3. What will you observe when a drop of acetic acid is placed on a strip of blue litmus paper and then on

v
a red litmus paper one by one? What does it show?

Shi
Ans. Acetic acid turns blue litmus paper red but does not affect red litmus paper. This shows that acetic acid is
acidic in nature.
Q.4. How does acetic acid react with sodium bicarbonate? Give chemical equation for this chemical change.
Ans. Acetic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to evolve brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide gas.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 æææ Æ CH3COONa + CO2 + H2
Acetic acid Sodium hydrogen Sodium ethanoate Carbon dioxide Water
carbonate
Q.5. How would you show that carbon dioxide gas is released when acetic acid reacts with sodium
bicarbonate?
Ans. Pass the liberated gas through the lime water. If lime water turns milky, the evolved gas is carbon
dioxide. On passing the gas in excess, the milkiness of lime water disappears.
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) æææ Æ CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
Calcium hydroxide Carbon dioxide Calcium carbonate Water
(lime water) (milkiness)

CaCO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) æææ


Æ Ca(HCO3)2(aq)
(non-milky)

➜ EXPERIMENT: Soap Preparation


Q.6. What is saponification reaction?
Ans.

Q.7. Why is saponification reaction called exothermic reaction?


Ans. During saponification reaction, heat is liberated. Hence, it is called exothermic reaction.
Q.8. State the procedure of preparing soap in laboratory.
68 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (i) Take about 25 ml of castor oil in a beaker.


(ii) Add about 30 ml of 20% NaOH solution to oil.
(iii) Heat the mixture with constant stirring.
(iv) Add 10 gm of common salt and stir.
(v) Cool the mixture to separate out the soap.
Q.9. Mention the essential material (chemicals) to prepare soap in the laboratory. Describe in brief the test
of determining the nature (acidic/alkaline) of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction.
Ans. Chemicals needed for making of soap are—castor oil, alkaline, solution of sodium hydroxide and common
salt.
After the process of saponification, the product soap is tested with litmus paper. The soap solution turns
red litmus to blue, showing that soap formed during this reaction is alkaline in nature.
Q.10. What is the by-product of saponification reaction? When a strip of red litmus paper is dipped into
reaction mixture of saponification reaction what change would you observe? What does it show?
Ana. Glycerol is the by-product of saponification reaction. The red litmus paper turns blue. This shows that
reaction mixture of saponification reaction is basic in nature.

➜ EXPERIMENT: Cleaning Capacity of Soap in Soft and Hard Water


Q.11. Differentiate between soft water and hard water.
Ans. Soft water Hard Water
(i) It has low mineral content. (i) It has high mineral content.

s
(ii) It forms lather with soap. (ii) It produces scum with soap.

iv Da
Q.12. Are soap molecules hydrophobic or hydrophilic in nature?
Ans. A soap molecule is made up of two parts—a long hydrocarbon part and a short ionic part. The long

Sh
hydrocarbon chain is hydrophobic in nature but the ionic part is hydrophilic in nature.

COO–Na+
Long hydrocarbon chain Short ionic part
(Oil soluble) (Water soluble)
Q.13. How is soap able to clean oily dirt?
Ans. Inside water, soap molecules form a unique orientation around oil or dirt molecule, called micelles. Soap
in the form of micelles is able to clean because oily dirt accumulates in the centre of micelle. Besides this,
soap micelles can be easily rinsed away as they are present in the form of colloid.
Q.14. Soap cannot be used in hard water. Why?
Ans. Hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. When soap is added to hard water, Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions react
with soap to form calcium and magnesium salts of soap. These salts of soap are insoluble in water and
form scum. As a result, a lot of soap is wasted. Because of this reason soap cannot be used in hard water.
Q.15. Give one advantage of
(i) detergent over soap.
(ii) soap over detergent.
Ans. (i) Detergents can be used in hard water but soap cannot be used in hard water.
(ii) Soaps are biodegradable and hence they do not cause pollution. Detergents are non-biodegradable
and hence cause water pollution.
Q.16. Name two salts each of calcium and magnesium which make the water hard?
Ans. These salts are:
Calcium chloride—CaCl2 Magnesium chloride—MgCl2
Calcium sulphate—CaSO4 Magnesium sulphate—MgSO4

####
CHAPTER 5
PERIODIC
CLASSIFICATION
OF ELEMENTS
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Group. The vertical columns in Mendeléev’s, as well as in Modern Periodic Table, are called groups.
☞ Period. The horizontal rows in the Modern Periodic Table and Mendeléev’s Periodic Table are called periods.
☞ There are 18 groups and 7 (seven) periods in the Modern Periodic Table.
☞ Atomic size. The atomic size may be visualised as the distance between the centre of the nucleus and
the outermost shell of an isolated atom.
☞ Trend of atomic size (radius) in moving down a group. On going down in a group of the Periodic Table,
the atomic size increases because a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step. There is
increase in distance between the outermost shell electrons and the nucleus of the atom.
☞ Trend of atomic size (radius) in moving from left to right in a period. On moving from left to right
along a period, the size of atoms decreases because on moving from left to right, the atomic number of
elements increases which means that the number of protons and electrons in the atoms increases. Due to
large positive charge on the nucleus, the electrons are pulled in more close to the nucleus and the size of
the atom decreases.
☞ Characteristics of triads of J.W. Döbereiner.
(i) Elements of a triad show similar chemical properties.
(ii) These elements of a triad show specific trends in their physical properties.
(iii) The atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the average of the atomic masses of the other
two elements.
Example: Atomic mass of Na is 23 in the triad Li, Na and K. This atomic mass is the average of the
atomic masses of Li and K which have atomic masses 7 and 39 respectively.
☞ Triads as formed by Döbereiner.
1st Triad 2nd Triad 3rd Triad
Li Lithium Ca Calcium Cl Chlorine
Na Sodium Sr Strontium Br Bromine
K Potassium Ba Barium I Iodine
☞ Mendeléev’s Periodic Law. It states that, “the properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic
masses.” It means the properties of the elements depend on their atomic masses and the elements are
given a position in the periodic table on the basis of their increasing atomic masses.

Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 69


70 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

☞ Merits of Mendeléev’s Periodic Table


(i) Mendeléev left a number of gaps in his table to accommodate the new elements which would be
discovered later on. So Mendeléev boldly predicted the existence of some more elements. He even
predicted the properties of some of these elements and named them as Eka-boron, Eka-aluminium
and Eka-silicon respectively. Later on the elements were discovered, for example, gallium
replaced Eka-aluminium and it showed properties similar to that of aluminium.
(ii) He gave proper position to the noble gases which were discovered later on, without disturbing the
existing order of elements. He placed them in a new group.
☞ Limitations of Mendeléev’s classification:
(i) The position of isotopes could not be explained because isotopes have same chemical properties
but different atomic masses. If the elements are arranged according to atomic masses, the isotopes
should be placed in different groups of the Periodic Table.
(ii) The atomic masses do not increase in a regular manner in going from one element to the next.
(iii) He could not assign a correct position to hydrogen in his table because hydrogen has some
properties similar to alkali metals and some properties similar to halogens.
☞ Modern Periodic Law. This law was proposed by Henry Moseley, a scientist in 1913. According to this
Law, “Properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic number.”
It means that the properties of elements depend on their atomic number and the elements are given
positions in the periodic table on the basis of their increasing atomic number. As atomic number
determines the distribution of electrons in the orbits, and electrons of the outermost orbit determine the
properties of an element.

as
☞ Groups and periods in the Modern (long form) Periodic Table. There are 18 groups (vertical columns)

v D
and 7 periods (horizontal lines) in the Modern (or long form) Periodic Table. The number of the period

Shi
is equal to the number of shells in the atoms of the elements belonging to that period.
☞ Trends in Mendeléev’s Periodic Table
(i) The properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic mass.
(ii) It has 8 groups.
(iii) No place could be assigned to isotopes of an element.
(iv) There were three gaps left by Mendeléev in his Periodic Table.
(v) No fixed position was given to hydrogen in this Periodic Table.
(vi) No distinction was made between metals and non-metals.
(vii) Transition elements are placed together in Group VIII.
(viii) Inert gases were not known at the time of Mendeléev.
☞ Trends in Modern Periodic Table
(i) Valency. Elements belonging to same group have same number of valence electrons and thus
same valency. Valency in a particular period from left to right first increases as positive valency
and then decreases as negative valency.
Example: In elements of 2nd period:
Li has 1+ valency, then Be2+, B3+, C4+ covalency, N3– valency, then O2– and F(–) valency.
(ii) The atomic size or atomic radius increases as we move down in a group and it decreases as we
move from left to right in a period. Atomic size increases down a group due to increase in the
number of shells. Atomic size decreases along a period due to increase in the nuclear charge
which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom.
(iii) Metallic and Non-Metallic properties. In the modern periodic table metals are on the left side
and non-metals on the right side of the table. A zig-zag line of metalloids separates metals from
non-metals.
Metallic characters decrease from left to right in a period and increase while going down in a
group.
Non-metallic characters increase from left to right in a period due to increase in the
electronegativity and these characters decrease from top to bottom in a group due to decrease in
the electronegativity of atoms while going down in a group.
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 71

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to
right across the periods of periodic table?
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides becomes more acidic.
Ans. (c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
Q.2. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high melting point. X would
most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si
Ans. (b) Mg
Q.3. Which element has
(a) two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
(c) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
(d) a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?
(e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell?
Ans. (a) Ne (2, 8) (b) Mg (c) Si (2, 8, 4) (d) B (2, 3)

s
(e) C (2, 4)

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Q.4. (a) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as boron have in

iv
common?

Sh
(b) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as fluorine have in
common?
Ans. (a) They all have a valency of 3.
(b) They all have a valency of 1.
Q.5. An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7:
(a) What is the atomic number of this element?
(b) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar? Their atomic numbers are
given in brackets:
N(7), F(9), P(15) and Ar(18)
Ans. (a) Its atomic number is 17 (equal to total number of electrons present in all its shells, i.e., 2 + 8 + 7 = 17).
(b) Electronic configuration of the given element is 2, 8, 7.
Electronic configuration of these elements are:
N = 2, 5 F = 2, 7
P = 2, 8, 5 Ar = 2, 8, 8
The properties of this element are similar to F (fluorine) element as both have same number of valence
electrons (electrons in the outermost shell.)
Q.6. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table is shown below:
Group 16 Group 17
— —
— A
— —
B C
(a) State whether ‘A’ is a metal or non-metal?
(b) State whether ‘C’ is more reactive or less reactive than A?
(c) Will ‘C’ be larger or smaller in size than B?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion will be formed by element A?
Ans. (a) Metals lie on the left hand side and non-metals lie on the right hand side of the Periodic Table.
Element A is in group 17 which is on the right hand side of the Periodic Table. Thus, element A is a
non-metal.
72 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) Element ‘C’ is less reactive than element ‘A’ as non-metallic properties decrease on moving down in a
group.
(c) ‘C’ atom will be smaller in size than the atom of B. As atomic size decreases as we move from left to
right in a period.
(d) The element A of group 17 has 7 valence electrons. So, it will gain one electron to form a negatively
charged ion (A–), i.e., an anion.
Q.7. Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the Periodic
Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more
electronegative? Why?
Sol. Atomic number of Nitrogen (N) = 7
\ Electronic configuration = 2, 5
Atomic number of Phosphorus (P) = 15
\ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 5
Nitrogen will be more electronegative because outermost shell is nearer to nucleus and therefore nucleus
will attract electrons more strongly. In a group of the periodic table, electron attracting tendency decreases
as we move from top to bottom.
Q.8. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the Modern Periodic Table?
Ans. Electronic configuration of an atom of an element tells two things (i) Number of electrons in the outermost
shell; (ii) Number of shells having the electrons.
The position of an atom or element in the periodic table is related to the number of electrons in the
outermost shell. In a given group, all elements have the same number of electrons in their outermost shells.
For example, in group 2, all elements have two electrons in their outermost shell. In group 15, all elements

as
have 5 electrons in their outermost shells.

D
Number of shells in the atom of an element is equal to the period to which that element belongs.

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Q.9. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeléev’s Periodic Table and Modern

Sh
Periodic Table.
Ans. Mendeléev’s Periodic Table Modern Periodic Table
1. The properties of elements are periodic 1. The properties of elements are periodic
functions of their atomic mass. functions of their atomic number.
2. It has 8 groups. 2. It has 18 groups.
3. Place could not be assigned to isotopes of an 3. Isotopes of an element are assigned the same
element. place as their respective elements as they have
the same atomic number.
4. There were three gaps left by Mendeléev in 4. There are no gaps in the Modern Periodic
his Periodic Table. Table.
5. No fixed position was given to hydrogen in 5. Hydrogen is given a special position in
this Periodic Table. Modern Periodic Table.
6. No distinction was made between metals 6. Distinction is made between metals and non-
and non-metals. metals.
7. Transition elements are placed together in 7. Transition elements fit in the middle of a long
Group VIII. period (Group 3–12)
8. Inert gases were not known at the time of 8. Inert gases have been placed at the end of
Mendeléev. periods in Group 18.
Q.10. In the Modern Periodic Table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic
numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical properties resembling calcium?
Sol. Atomic number of Calcium = 20 \ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2
Calcium surrounded by elements:
(i) Atomic number = 12 \ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
(ii) Atomic number = 19 \ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1
(iii) Atomic number = 21 \ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 3
(iv) Atomic number = 38 \ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 18, 8, 2
The elements having atomic number 12 (Magnesium : Mg) and atomic number 38 (Strontium : Sr) resemble
the properties of Calcium (Ca).
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 73

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1 Write the name and formula of a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen. 2012OD
Ans. O3 Æ Ozone
Q.2. How many vertical columns are there in the modern periodic table and what are they called?
2013D, 2014D
Ans. There are 18 vertical columns in the modern periodic table and they are called groups.
Q.3. How many horizontal rows are there in the modern periodic table and what are they called?
2013D, 2014D
Ans. There are seven horizontal rows in the modern periodic table. The horizontal rows in a periodic table are
called periods.
Q.4. Write two reasons responsible for late discovery of noble gases? 2013D
Ans. The noble gases were discovered very late because they are very unreactive and present in extremely low
concentration in the atmosphere.
Q.5. State modern periodic law of classification of elements. 2012D, 2013OD
Ans. Modern periodic law states “that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers”.
Q.6. The atomic numbers of three elements X, Y and Z are 3, 11 and 17 respectively. State giving reason
which two elements will show similar chemical properties. 2013OD
Ans. Elements Atomic Number Electronic configuration

as
X 3 2, 1

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Y 11 2, 8, 1

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Z 17 2, 8, 7

Sh
X & Y will show similar chemical properties as both elements have same number of valence electrons, i.e., 1.
Q.7. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 11, 17 and 19 respectively. State giving reason
which two elements will show similar chemical properties. 2013OD
Ans. Elements Atomic Number Electronic configuration
A 11 2, 8, 1
B 17 2, 8, 7
C 19 2, 8, 8, 1
A and C will show similar chemical properties as both elements have the same number of valence
electrons, i.e., 1.
Q.8. Write any one difference in the electronic configurations of group 1 and group 2 elements? 2014D
Ans. • Elements of group 1 have one electron in their outermost shell.
• Elements of group 2 have two electrons in their outermost shell.
Q.9. List any two properties of the elements belonging to the first group of the modern periodic table.
2014OD
Ans. Elements of first group have one valence electron each in their atoms.
All the elements of group 1 have the same valency of 1.
Q.10. Write the atomic numbers of two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ having electronic configuration 2,8,2 and 2,8,6
respectively. 2014OD
Ans. Elements Electronic configuration Atomic numbers
X 2, 8, 2 12
Y 2, 8, 6 16
Q.11. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 12, 18 and 20 respectively. State, giving reason,
which two elements will show similar properties. 2014OD
Ans. Elements Atomic Number Electronic configuration
A 12 2, 8, 2
B 18 2, 8, 8
C 20 2, 8, 8, 2
Elements A and C will show similar properties as both have same number of valence electrons.
74 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.12. (i) How do you calculate the possible valency of an element from the electronic configuration of its
atoms?
(ii) Calculate the valency of an element X whose atomic number is 9. 2011D
Ans. (i) The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the atom of
the element. Electronic configuration gives the number of valence electrons in its atom. The number
of valence electrons decides the number of electrons lost or gained by one atom of an element to
achieve the nearest inert gas electron configuration and gives the valency of element.
(ii) Atomic number of X = 9
Electronic configuration = K, L
2, 7
X gains 1 electron to achieve the nearest inert gas configuration , i.e., 2, 8. Therefore the valency of
X is ‘1’.
Q.13. How does the electronic configuration of an atom of an element relate to its position in the modern
periodic table? Explain with one example. 2011D
Ans. The electronic configuration of an atom of an element gives its position in the modern periodic table.
(i) The ‘period number’ of an element is equal to the number of electron shells in its atom.
(ii) • The group number of an element having upto two valence electrons is equal to the number of
valence electrons.
• The group number of an element having more than 2 valence electrons is equal to the number
of valence electrons plus 10.

s
Example: If the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 7

Da
Then its period number is 3 as it has three electron shells.

iv
Its group number is 17 as it has 7 valence electrons. (∵ Group no. = 7+10 = 17)

Sh
Q.14. The atomic numbers of three elements, X, Y and Z are 9, 11 and 17 respectively. Which two of these
elements will show similar chemical properties? Why? 2011D
Ans. Element Atomic number Electronic configuration Valence electrons Valency
X 9 2, 7 7 1
Y 11 2, 8, 1 1 1
Z 17 2, 8, 7 7 1
Element X and Z show similar chemical properties because both have same number of valence electrons,
i.e., 7 as chemical properties of the element depends on the valence electrons.
Q.15. How does the valency of elements vary (i) in going down a group, and (ii) in going from left to right
in a period of the periodic table? 2011OD
Ans. (i) The valency of elements remains the same in going down a group.
(ii) On moving from left to right in a period, the valency of elements increases from 1 to 4 and then
decreases to 0 (zero).
Q.16. In the modern periodic table, the element Calcium (atomic number = 20) is surrounded by elements
with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these elements has physical and chemical properties
resembling those of Calcium and why? 2011OD
Ans. Ca (atomic number = 20) (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2)
Element with
atomic number = 12 (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2)
atomic number = 19 (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1)
atomic number = 21 (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 3)
atomic number = 38 (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 18, 8, 2)
Elements with atomic number 12 and 38 have physical and chemical properties resembling with Ca
because valence electrons in these elements are same as Ca, i.e., 2. As properties of an element depend on
its valence electrons.
Q.17. How can the valency of an element be determined if its electronic configuration is known? What will
be the valency of an element of atomic number 9 (nine)? 2012D
Ans. Valency of an element can be determined by knowing its valence electrons which can be determined by
knowing the electronic configuration.
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 75

The elements with valence electrons 1 to 4: Their valencies are also equivalent to their respective valence
electrons.
The elements with valence electrons 5 to 8: Their valencies correspond to (8 – V.E.).
Atomic number = 9 Electronic configuration = 2, 7
Valence electrons = 7 \ Valency = 8 – 7 = 1
Q.18. An element ‘X’ has atomic number 13: 2012D
(a) Write its electron configuration. (b) State the group to which ‘X’ belongs?
(c) Is ‘X’ a metal or a non-metal? (d) Write the formula of its bromide.
Ans. Element ‘X’ that has atomic number = 13
(a) Electronic configuration = K L M
2, 8, 3
(b) ‘X’ belongs to 13th group.
⎡ Elements with V.E. = 1, 2, 3 are metals and
(c) ‘X’ is a metal as its valence electrons are 3. ⎢⎣ Elements with V.E. = 4 to 8 are non-metals.
X Br
(d) fi XBr3
Valency 3 1
Q.19. An element ‘M’ has atomic number 11: 2012D
(a) Write its electron configuration. (b) State the group to which ‘M’ belongs?
(c) Is ‘M’ a metal or a non-metal? (d) Write the formula of its chloride.
Ans. Element ‘M’, atomic number = 11
(a) Electronic configuration = K L M
2, 8, 1

as
(b) ‘M’ belongs to 1st group as it has one valence electron.

D
(c) ‘M’ is a metal as atoms with valence electron 1, 2, 3 are metals.

Shiv
M Cl
(d) Formula of its chloride: or M1Cl1 or MCl
1 1
Q.20. Choose from the following: 2012OD
6C, 8O, 10 Ne, 11 Na, 14Si
(i) Elements that should be in the same period.
(ii) Elements that should be in the same group.
State reason for your selection in each case.
Ans. 6C, 8O, 10Ne, 11Na, 14Si
Electronic configuration. 2, 4 2, 6 2, 8 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 4
(i) Elements of same period. 6C, 8O, 10Ne (i.e. 2nd period)
Because all have same number of energy shells (two).
(ii) Elements of same group. 6C, 14Si (i.e., 14th)
Because both have same valance electrons (4)
Q.21. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 17 of the periodic table. State its (i) electronic
configuration, (ii) valency. Justify your answer with reasoning. 2012OD
Ans. Element Æ ‘X’ Period Æ 3rd Group Æ 17th
(i) Electronic configuration. ‘X’ has three energy shells—K, L, M (as it belongs to the 3rd period and the
period number of an element is equal to the number of shells in its atom).
‘X’ has 7 valence electrons since the group number of an element having more than 2 valence
electrons is equal to the valence electrons plus 10.
10 + V.E. = group no. fi 10 + V.E. = 17
\ V.E. = 17 – 10 = 7
K, L, M
\ Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 7
(ii) Valency = 8 – V.E. (If V.E. > 4) = 8 – 7 = 1
Q.22. The formula of magnesium oxide is MgO. State the formula of barium nitrate and barium sulphate, if
barium belongs to the same group as magnesium. 2012OD
Mg1 O1
Ans. Magnesium oxide is MgO
Valencies 1 1
76 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

But the valency of oxygen is 2


\ Mg O fi Mg O
(1 1) × 2 2 2
\ Valency of Mg = 2
and Valency of Ba is also 2
Barium nitrate Barium sulphate
Ba NO3 Ba SO4
Ba(NO3)2 Valencies 2 2 Ba(SO4)
2 1 1 1
Q.23. Choose from the following: 2012OD
20Ca, 3Li, 11Na, 10Ne
(i) An element having two shells completely filled with electrons.
(ii) Two elements belonging to the same group of the periodic table.
Ans. Element Atomic number Electronic configuration Valence electrons Valency
KLMN
20Ca 20 2, 8, 8, 2 2 2
03Li 3 2, 1 1 1
11Na 11 2, 8, 1 1 1
10Ne 10 2, 8 8 0
(i) Ne has two completely filled shells.

s
(ii) Li and Na belong to the same group as both have same number of valence electrons (1).

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Q.24. Why do all the elements of the (a) same group have similar properties, (b) same period have different

v
properties? 2012OD

Shi
Ans. (a) All the members of the same group have similar properties because the elements of a group have the
same valence electrons.
(b) All the members of the same period have different properties because the elements of a period have
different valence electrons.
Q.25. An element E has following electronic configuration: 2012OD
K L M
2 8 6
(a) To which group of the periodic table does element E belong?
(b) To which period of the periodic table does element E belong?
(c) State the number of valence electrons present in element E.
(d) State the valency of the element E.
K L M⎤
Ans. Element ‘E’, electronic configuration ⎡ 2 8 6 ⎦⎥
⎣⎢
(a) E belongs to 16th group.
(b) E belongs to 3rd period as it has 3 energy shells.
(c) Valence electrons present in E = 6.
(d) Valency of E = 8 – 6 = 2 (8 – V.E.), if V.E. >4 = 2

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.26. Two elements X and Y belong to group 1 and 2 respectively in the same period of periodic table.
Compare them with respect to: 2011D
(i) the number of valence electrons in their atoms; (ii) their valencies;
(iii) metallic character; (iv) the sizes of their atoms;
(v) the formulae of their oxides; (vi) the formulae of their chlorides.
Ans. • X and Y belong to same period. • X belongs to group ‘1’. • Y belongs to group ‘2’.
(i) Valence electron in X is 1 whereas valence electrons in Y are 2.
(ii) The valency of X is 1 whereas valency of Y is 2.
(iii) X is more metallic than Y because metallic character decreases on moving from left to right in a period.
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 77

(iv) The size of X is more than Y because size of the atom decreases on moving from left to right in a
period.
(v) Oxide of X = X2O Oxide of Y = YO
(vi) Chloride of X = XCl Chloride of Y = YCl2
Q.27. On the basis of electronic configuration, how will you identify the first and the last element of a
period? 2011D
Ans. The number of valence electrons increases from 1 to 8 on going from left to right in a period. Therefore
the first element in every period has 1 valence electron and the last element in every period has 8 valence
electrons (except in the first period where last element helium has only 2 valence electrons).
Q.28. The atomic number of an element is 16. Predict 2011OD
(i) the number of valence electrons in its atom; (ii) its valencies;
(iii) its group number; (iv) whether it is a metal or a non-metal;
(v) the nature of oxide formed by it; (vi) the formula of its chloride.
Ans. The atomic number, Z = 16
Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 6
K L M
(i) Number of valence electrons in its atom = 6
(ii) Valency = 2
(iii) Group number = 16
(iv) It is a non-metal.
(v) The nature of oxide formed by it would be acidic.
(vi) Let this element be represented by the symbol ‘X’. Formula of its chloride is XCl2.

s
Q.29. (a) How does the metallic character of elements change along a period of the periodic table from the

Da
left to the right and why?

iv
(b) How does the size of the atom change along a period of the periodic table from left to right and

Sh
why? 2011OD
Ans. (a) On moving from left to right in a period the metallic character of elements decreases. This is because
on moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the nuclear charge increases due to
gradual increase in the number of protons. Due to the increase in nuclear charge, the valence electrons
are pulled in more strongly by the nuclear and it becomes more and more difficult for the atoms to
lose electrons therefore on moving from left to right in a period thus metallic character decreases from
left to right in a period.
(b) On moving from left to right in a period the size of the atom decreases because number of energy
shells remains same in a period but nuclear charge increases from left to right and thus the force of
attraction between the nucleus and the electrons increases which reduces the size of the atoms on
moving from left to right in a period.
Q.30. (a) How does the size of atoms of elements vary down a group in the periodic table? Why is it so?
(b) What does the tendency to lose electrons vary down a group in the periodic table? Give reason.
2011OD
Ans. (a) On going down in a group of the periodic table, the size of atoms increases because on going down
in a group, a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step due to which the size of atoms
also increases.
(b) Tendency to lose electrons goes on increasing down the group because one energy shell is added at
every step on going down in a group therefore the distance between the valence electrons and the
nucleus and the force of attraction between the nucleus and the valence electrons decreases, therefore,
tendency to lose electrons increases down the group.
Q.31. Explain the variation of the following properties of the element in the periodic table. 2012D
(i) Atomic radius in a period. (ii) Metallic character in a period.
(iii) Valency in a group.
Ans. (i) On moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the atomic radius of elements decreases.
(ii) On moving from left to right in a period, the metallic character of elements decreases and non-
metallic character increases.
(iii) As the number of valance electrons in a group is the same, all the elements in a group have the same
valency.
78 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.32. F, Cl and Br are the elements each having seven valence electrons. Which of these (i) has the largest
atomic radius, (ii) is most reactive? Justify your answer stating reason for each. 2012D
Ans. F, Cl and Br belong to the same group (17th) as each has same number of valence electrons ‘7’.
• Out of F, Cl and Br, Bromine has the largest atomic radius because on going down in a group of the
periodic table, the size of atoms increases as number of electron shell of electrons is added to the atoms
at every step.
• Out of F, Cl and Br, Fluorine is the most reactive because the chemical reactivity of non-metals
decreases on going down in a group of the periodic table as moving down in a group of non-metals,
the size of the atoms goes on increasing. Thus the nucleus of atoms goes more and more deep inside
it and hence attraction for the incoming electrons decreases. Therefore the tendency of atoms to gain
electrons decreases, due to which their reactivity decreases.
Q.33. An element ‘M’ has atomic number 12: 2012D
(a) Write its electronic configuration.
(b) State the group to which ‘M’ belongs.
(c) State the period to which ‘M’ belongs.
(d) State the valency of ‘M’.
(e) Is ‘M’ a metal or a non-metal?
(f) Write the formula of its oxide.
Ans. Given: Element ‘M’, atomic number = 12
K L M
(a) Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
(b) ‘M’ belongs to the 2nd group.
(c) ‘M’ belongs to the 3rd period.

as
(d) Valency of ‘M’ is 2.

D
(e) ‘M’ is a metal as atoms with valence electron 1, 2, 3 are metals.

iv
M O

Sh
(f) Formula of its oxide: or M 2 O 2 = MO (oxide of M)
2 2
Q.34. Na, Mg and Al are the elements having one, two and three valence electrons respectively. Which of
these elements (i) has the largest atomic radius, (ii) is least reactive? Justify your answer stating reason
for each. 2012OD, 2015D, 2017D
Ans. Na, Mg and Al are the elements of same period where Na is the first, Mg is the second and Al is the third
member.
(i) Na has the largest atomic radius because on moving from left to right in a period, the atomic radius of
elements decreases. As we move from left to right in a period, the atomic number of elements
increases and the extra electrons are added to the same shell. Due to large positive charge on the
nucleus, the electrons are pulled in more close to the nucleus and the size of the atom decreases.
(ii) Sodium is very reactive, Mg is less reactive whereas Al is still less reactive because on moving from
left to right in a period, the chemical reactivity of metals decreases.
Q.35. (a) Which two criteria did Mendeleev use to classify the elements in his periodic table?
(b) Which element of period ‘3’ of the modern periodic table
(i) is the most reactive non-metal? (ii) is the most reactive metal?
(iii) forms ion with –2 charge? (iv) forms ion with +2 charge? 2012OD
Ans. (a) Mendeleev was guided by two factors:
(i) increasing atomic masses.
(ii) grouping together of elements having similar properties, of making oxides and hydrides.
(b) (i) Cl is the most reactive non-metal. (ii) Na is the most reactive metal.
(iii) S forms –2 charged ion. (iv) Mg forms +2 charged ion.
Q.36. (a) How are the following related? 2012OD
(i) Number of valence electrons of different elements in the same group.
(ii) Number of shells of elements in the same period.
(b) How do the following change?
(i) Number of shells of elements as we go down a group.
(ii) Number of valence electrons of elements on moving from left to right in a period.
(iii) Atomic radius in moving from left to right along a period.
(iv) Atomic size down a group.
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 79

Ans. (a) (i) • All the elements of a group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons.
• Group number of an element upto 2 valance electrons (VE) is equal to the number of valence
electrons and group number of an element having valance electrons (VE) more than 2 is
equal to (10 + V.E.).
(ii) • All the elements of a period of the periodic table have same number of shells.
• The period number of an element is equal to the number of electron shells in its atom.
(b) (i) As we go down in a group, a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step.
(ii) On moving from left to right in a period, the number of valence electrons increases from 1 to
8.
(iii) On moving from left to right in a period the atomic radius of elements decreases due to the large
positive charge on the nucleus, the electrons are pulled in more close to the nucleus.
(iv) On going down in a group, the size of the atoms increases as a new shell of electrons is added
to the atoms at every step.
Q.37. Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table: 2013D
4Be, 9Fe, 14 Si, 19 K, 20 Ca
(i) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell and write its electronic
configuration.
(ii) Select two elements that belong to the same group. Give reason for your answer.
(iii) Select two elements that belong to the same period. Which one of the two has bigger atomic size?
Ans. Element Atomic number Electronic configuration Valence electrons
K L M N

s
Be 4 2, 2 2

a
Fe 9 2, 7 7

v D
Si 14 2, 8, 4 4

Shi
K 19 2, 8, 8, 1 1
Ca 20 2, 8, 8, 2 2
(i) 19K has one electron in its outermost shell.
Electronic configuration: K L M N
2, 8, 8, 1 (Atomic no. = 19)
(ii) 4Be and 20Ca belong to the same group as both have same number of valence electrons (2).
(iii) • 19K and 20Ca belong to the same period as both have same number of energy shells (K, L, M, N).
• 19K has bigger atomic size as size decreases on moving from left to right in a period.
Q.38. Write the number of periods the modern periodic table has. How do the valency and metallic character
of elements vary on moving from left to right in a period? How do the valency and atomic size of
elements vary down a group? 2013D, 2015D
Ans. • There are seven periods in the modern periodic table.
• On moving from left to right in a period, the valency of elements increases from 1 to 4 and then
decreases to 0.
• On moving from left to right in a period, the metallic characters of elements decreases as the
electropositive character of elements decreases on moving from left to right in a period.
• All the elements in a group have same valency because the number of valence electrons in a group is
same.
• On going down in a group of the periodic table, the size of atoms increases because a new shell of
electrons is added to the atoms at every step on moving down in a group.
Q.39. An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a compound.
(a) Write the position of these elements in the modern periodic table.
(b) Write the formula of the compound formed.
Justify your answer in each case. 2013D
Ans. Element ‘X’ Electronic configuration
Atomic number = 17 2, 8, 7
Element ‘Y’
Atomic number = 20 2, 8, 8, 2
(a) • Element ‘X’ has seven electrons in its outermost shell therefore it belongs to 17th group.
• Element ‘X’ has 3 shells (energy) thus it belongs to 3rd period.
80 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

• Element ‘Y’ has 2 electrons in its outermost shell therefore it belongs to 2nd group.
• Element ‘Y’ has 4 energy shells thus it belongs to 4th period.
(b) Valency of element ‘X’ is 1 and it is a non-metal whereas the valency of element ‘Y’ is 2 and it is a
metal. Thus the bond between Y and X is ionic and formula is given by
Y X
YX2
Valency 2 1
Q.40. The elements Li, Na and K, each having one valence electron, are in period 2, 3 and 4 respectively of
modern periodic table. 2013D
(a) In which group of the periodic table should they be?
(b) Which one of them is least reactive?
(c) Which one of them has the largest atomic radius? Give reason to justify your answer in each case.
Ans. Valence electron Period number
Li 1 2
Na 1 3
K 1 4
(a) All these elements belong to 1st group because all elements have one electron in their respective
outermost shell.
(b) Li is least reactive as reactivity of metals increases on going down in a group.
(c) K has the largest atomic radius because Li belongs to 2nd period thus has 2 energy shells, Na belongs
to the 3rd period thus has 3 energy shells and K belongs to 4th period thus has 4 energy shells. So as
the number of shells increases so does the size of the atom.

as
Q.41. The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2. To which (a) period and (b) group of the

D
modern periodic table does ‘X’ belong? State its valency. Justify your answer in each case. 2013OD

iv
Ans. Electronic configuration of ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2.

Sh
(a) It belongs to the 4th period because it has four energy shells and period number of an element is equal
to the number of energy shells.
(b) It belongs to 2nd group because it has 2 valence electrons and the group number of an element having
upto two valence electrons is equal to the number of valence electrons.
Its valency is ‘2’. To acquire inert gas configuration ‘X’ either loses 2 electrons or gains 6 electrons. Since the
shorter route is to lose 2 electrons for obtaining inert gas configuration, hence its valency is 2.
Q.42. Four elements P, Q, R and S have atomic numbers 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively.
Answer the following questions giving reasons: 2013OD
(i) What is the valency of Q?
(ii) Classify these elements as metals and non-metals.
(iii) Which of these elements will form the most basic oxide?
Ans. Element Atomic number Electronic configuration Valence electrons
P 12 2, 8, 2 2
Q 13 2, 8, 3 3
R 14 2, 8, 4 4
S 15 2, 8, 5 5
(i) Valency of Q is 3 as Q loses 3 electrons to obtain inert gas configuration.
(ii) P and Q are metals as these elements lose 2 and 3 electrons respectively to obtain inert gas
configuration and those elements which lose electrons are metals.
R and S are non-metals as these elements either share or gain electrons for attaining inert gas
configuration and those elements which accept electrons either by sharing or gaining are non-metals.
(iii) Element P will form the most basic oxide because P is the most metallic element among the 4 given
elements and thus forms the most basic oxide.
Q.43. The atomic number of an element is 17. Predict (a) its valency, (b) whether it is a metal or non-metal,
(c) its relative size with respect to other members of its group. Justify your answer in each case.
2013OD
Ans. Atomic number of given element = 17
\ Electronic configuration of given element = 2, 8, 7
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 81

(a) Valency = 1
Since this element requires one electron to complete its octet (outermost shell).
(b) This element is a non-metal as it gains one electron to complete its outermost shell and elements
which gain electrons are non-metals.
(c) This element is the 2nd member of this group. Its size is greater than the 1st member (2, 7) and smaller
than the rest of the other members of that group because size of the atom increases on going down in
a group as one energy shell is added at every step.
Q.44. The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2. To which (a) period and (b) group of the
modern periodic table does ‘X’ belong? State its valency. Justify your answer in each case. 2013OD
Ans. Element: ‘X’, Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 2
(a) ‘X’ belongs to 4th period because ‘X’ has four energy shells and energy shell number corresponds to
the period number.
(b) ‘X’ belongs to 2nd group because ‘X’ has 2 electrons in its outermost shell and valence electrons
(1, 2) corresponds to the group number of the element.
Valency: 2
Q.45. The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 20. Write 2013OD
(a) its valency,
(b) whether it is a metal or non-metal,
(c) the formula of compound formed when the element ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ of atomic
number 8.
Justify your answer in each case.
Ans. Element Atomic number Electronic configuration Valence electrons
X

a
20

D s 2, 8, 8, 2 2

iv
(a) Valency of X is 2 as it loses two electrons to acquire nearest inert gas configuration.

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(b) X is a metal as it loses electrons to acquire inert gas configuration and an element which loses
electrons for acquiring inert gas configuration is a metal.
(c) Elements Atomic number Electronic Configuration Valence Electrons
Y 8 2, 6 2
Formula:
X Y
X2Y2 XY
Valency 2 2
Q.46. Based on the group valency of elements state the formula for the following giving justification for each:
(i) Oxides of 1st group elements,
(ii) Halides of the elements of group 13, and
(iii) Compounds formed when an element of group 2 combines with an element of group 16. 2014D
Sol. (i) Oxides of 1st group element (Let it be A):
1st group element: A Valency: +1
Oxide: O Valency: –2
\ Chemical Formula:

(ii) Halides of the elements of group 13 (Let it be M):


Let element of group 13: M Valency: +3
Halide: X Valency: –1
\ Chemical Formula:

(iii) Compounds of element of group 2 combines with an element of group 16 (Y):


Element of group 2: X Valency: +2
Element of group 16: Y Valency: –2
82 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

\ Chemical Formula:

Q.47. (a) Define the following terms: 2014D


(i) Valency; (ii) Atomic size
(b) How do the valency and the atomic size of the elements vary while going from left to right along
a period in the modern periodic table?
Ans. (a) (i) Valency. The combining capacity of an element is called its valency.
• The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the
atom of the element.
• The number of electrons lost or gained or shared by one atom of an element to achieve the
nearest inert gas configuration gives the valency of the element.
(ii) Atomic size. The atomic size of an atom is the distance between the centre of the nucleus and
outermost electron shell of an isolated atom.
(b) — On moving from left to right along a period in the modern periodic table, the valency of
elements increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases to zero.
— On moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the size of the atoms decreases.
Q.48. Consider two elements ‘A’ (Atomic number 17) and ‘B’ (Atomic number 19):
(i) Write the positions of these elements in the modern periodic table giving justification.
(ii) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘A’ combines with ‘B’.
(iii) Draw the electron dot structure of the compound and state the nature of the bond formed between

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the two elements. 2014D

D
Ans. (i) Element ‘A’:

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Atomic number = 17 Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7

Sh
‘A’ belongs to 17th group as it has ‘7’ electrons in its outermost shell.
‘A’ belongs to 3rd period as it has three shells in its atom.
Element ‘B’:
Atomic number = 19 Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1
‘B’ belongs to 1st group as it has one electron in its outermost shell.
‘B’ belongs to 4th period as it has four shells in its atom.
(ii) Valency of A = –1
Valency of B = +1

B1A1
Valency
(iii)

Ionic bond is formed between B and A.


Q.49. The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B, C and D are distributed in three shells having 1, 3, 5
and 7 electrons in the outermost shell respectively. State the period in which these elements can be
placed in the modern periodic table. Write the electronic configuration of the atoms of A and D and the
molecular formula of the compound formed when A and D combine. 2014OD
Ans. Elements Shells Atomic number
K, L, M
A 2, 8, 1 11
B 2, 8, 3 13
C 2, 8, 5 15
D 2, 8, 7 17
All these elements belong to the 3rd period as all these elements have three shells.
Element A:
Electronic Configuration 2, 8, 1
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 83

Valence electrons: 1 Valency: 1


Element D:
Electronic Configuration 2, 8, 7
Valence electrons: 7 Valency: 1
Molecular formula:

Nature of the compound is ionic.


Q.50. Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as they are
in the modern periodic table:
Group 1 2 3 - 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Æ
Period Ø
2 A B C
3 D E F
On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the element which forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with valency three.
(iii) Name the element which is a non-metal with valency three.
(iv) Out of D and E, which is bigger in size and why?

s
(v) Write the common name for the family to which the elements C and F belong. 2014OD

a
Ans. (i) E (ii) D (iii) B

v D
(iv) D is bigger in size because as we move from left to right in a period, the size of the atom decreases as

Shi
positive charge increases but the number of shells remains the same. Thus the electrons are pulled in
more close to the nucleus.
(v) Noble gases
Q.51. What is meant by ‘group’ in the modern periodic table? How do the following change on moving from
top to bottom in a group?
(i) Number of valence electrons (ii) Number of occupied shells
(iii) Size of atoms (iv) Metallic character of elements
(v) Effective nuclear change experienced by valence electrons 2014OD
Ans. The vertical columns in a periodic table are called groups.
(i) All the elements of a group have the same number of valence electrons.
(ii) On moving down in a group the number of occupied (filled) shells increases gradually.
(iii) On going down in a group the size of atoms increases because a new shell of electrons is added to the
atoms at every step.
(iv) On going down in a group the metallic character of elements increases.
(v) On moving down in a group, one more electron shell is added at every stage and size of the atom
increases. Thus valence electrons move more and more away from the nucleus and hold of the
nucleus or nuclear charge on valence electrons decreases.
Q.52. The elements Be, Mg and Ca each having two electrons in their outermost shells are in periods 2, 3, and
4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions, giving justification in
each case:
(i) Write the group to which these elements belong.
(ii) Name the least reactive element.
(iii) Name the element having largest atomic radius. 2014OD
Ans. Element Valence electrons Period Electronic configuration
Be 2 2 2, 2
Mg 2 3 2, 8, 2
Ca 2 4 2, 8, 8, 2
(i) All these elements belong to the 2nd group as all have two electrons in their outermost shell.
84 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) Be is the least reactive metal because reactivity of metals increases in a group as the tendency to lose
electrons in a group increases.
Therefore Be being the smallest in all the given elements of a group has its valence electrons nearest
to the nucleus. So the removal of electrons from its valence shell will be difficult.
(iii) Ca has the largest atomic radius because it has maximum number of shells, i.e., 4.
Q.53. How many groups and periods are there in the modern periodic table? How do the atomic size and
metallic character of elements vary as we move:
(i) down a group and (ii) from left to right in a period? 2015D
Sol. There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the modern periodic table.
(i) Atomic size and metallic character of the elements increases down a group.
(ii) • Atomic size and metallic character of elements decreases from left to right in a period.
• Metallic character of the element is decreased.
Q.54. From the following elements: 2015D
4Be; 9F; 19 K; 20 Ca
(i) Select the element having one electron in the outermost shell.
(ii) two elements of the same group.
Write the formula of and mention the nature of the compound formed by the union of 19K and element
X(2,8,7).
Ans. (i) 19K
(ii) 4Be, 20Ca belong to the same group as both have 2 electrons in their outermost shells.
Electronic configuration of K (19) = 2, 8, 8, 1 Valency of K = 1
Electronic configuration of X (2, 8, 7) Valency of X = 1

as
Element K X
∫ KX

D
Valency 1 1

iv
The formula of the compound formed is KX. The compound KX is of ionic nature.

Sh
The bond is formed by transference of electrons.
Q.55. Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in Group-1
and Group-2 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:
(a) The number of electrons in their atoms (b) The sizes of their atoms
(c) Their metallic characters (d) Their tendencies to lose electrons
(e) The formula of their oxides (f) The formula of their chlorides 2015OD
Ans. Characteristics P Q
Less than Q More than P
(a) No. of electrons in their atoms 3 4
11 12
19 20 (any one pair)
(b) Size of the atom Bigger Smaller
(c) Metallic character More metallic Less metallic
(d) Tendency to lose electrons More Less
(e) Formula of their oxides P2O QO
(f) Formula of their chlorides PCl QCl2
Q.56. Taking the example of an element of atomic number 16, explain how the electronic configuration of the
atom of an element relates to its position in the modern periodic table and how valency of an element
is calculated on the basis of its atomic number. 2015OD
Ans. Atomic number of the element = 16
Electronic configuration = K L M
2, 8, 6
Since this element has 3 shells, the period number will be 3 as period number is equal to the number of
shells that start filling up in it.
No. of valence electrons = 6 \ The group number will be 10 + 6 = 16
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell.
Valency of the element will be = 8 – valence electrons = 8 – 6 = 2
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 85

Q.57. The elements 4Be, 12Mg and 20Ca, each having two valence electrons in their valence shells, are in
periods 2, 3 and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions
associated with these elements, giving reason in each case:
(a) In which group should they be?
(b) Which one of them is least reactive?
(c) Which one of them has the largest atomic size? 2015OD
Ans. 4Be, 12Mg, 20Ca
K L M N
4Be 2, 2,
12Mg 2, 8, 2,
20 Ca 2, 8, 8, 2
(a) They all belong to 2nd group of the periodic table as all the elements have two valence electrons in
their valence shell.
(b) Be is least reactive as it contains the least number of shells (i.e., 2). The tendency of an atom to lose
electrons on moving down in a group increases as valence electrons move more and more away from the
nucleus and nuclear charge on valence electrons decreases.
(c) Ca has the largest atomic size as it has the maximum number of shells.
Q.58. Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table. Atomic number of the element is given
in the parentheses: A(4), B(9), C(14), D(19), E(20)
(a) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell. Also write the electronic
configuration of this element.
(b) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same group? Give reason for your answer.

s
(c) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same period? Which one of the two has bigger

Da
atomic radius? 2015OD

iv
Ans. Elements Atomic Number Electronic Configuration (K, L, M, N)

Sh
A 4 2, 2
B 9 2, 7
C 14 2, 8, 4
D 19 2, 8, 8, 1
E 20 2, 8, 8, 2
(a) D has 1 electron in the outermost shell. Atomic no. = 19, Elec. Configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1
(b) A and E belong to the same group, i.e., 2nd group of the periodic table as both have same number of
valence electrons (i.e., 2) in their outermost shell.
(c) A & B and D & E belong to the same period as they have the same no. of valence shells.
A and B have 2 shells thus belong to 2nd period of the periodic table.
D and E have 4 shells thus belong to 4th period of the periodic table.
A has the bigger atomic radius among A and B and D has the bigger atomic radius among D and E as
atomic size decreases on moving from left to right in a period (or atomic size decreases as the atomic
number increases in a period).
Q.59. Calcium is an element with atomic number 20. Stating reason answer each of the following questions:
(i) Is calcium a metal or non-metal?
(ii) Will its atomic radius be larger or smaller than that of potassium with atomic number 19?
(iii) Write the formula of its oxide. 2016D
Sol. Calcium (Ca)
Atomic number = 20
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2
(i) It is a metal as it has two electrons in its outermost shell and it loses these two electrons to acquire
inert gas configuration and form +2 ion.
(ii) Potassium (atomic number 19) is placed before Calcium (atomic number 20) in the same period (IV
period).
Therefore, size of Ca is smaller than K since on moving from left to right in a period of the periodic
table, the size of the atoms decreases. As on moving from left to right in a period, the atomic number
of the elements increases which means that the number of protons and electrons in the atoms
86 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

increases (the extra electrons being added to the same shell). Due to large positive charge on the
nucleus, the outermost shell is pulled with more force by the nucleus, it moves closer to the nucleus
and the size of the atom decreases.
(iii) The oxide of calcium is calcium oxide (CaO).
Q.60. An element ‘M’ with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) combines separately with (NO3)—, (SO4)2– and
(PO4)3– radicals. Write the formula of the three compounds so formed. To which group and period of
the Modern Periodic Table does the element ‘M’ belong? Will ‘M’ form covalent or ionic compounds?
Give reason to justify your answer. 2016D
Ans. • The electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) of the element ‘M’ suggests that it belongs to group 2 and period
3 of the Modern Periodic Table and its valency is 2.
• The chemical formulae of the compounds formed are:
(i) M(NO3)2 (ii) MSO4 (iii) M3(PO4)2
• ‘M’ will form ionic compounds by losing two valence electrons to achieve a noble gas configuration,
that is, a stable octet in the valence shell.
Q.61. Name any two elements of group one and write their electronic configurations. What similarity do you
observe in their electronic configurations? Write the formula of oxide of any of the aforesaid element.
2016D
Ans. Two elements of group 1
Na = Sodium K = Potassium
Electronic configuration of:
Na = 2, 8, 1 K = 2, 8, 8, 1
Similarity between Na and K: Both have one electron in their outermost shell. Thus both have one valence

as
electron and valency one.

D
Oxide of Sodium fi Na2O Oxide of Potassium fi K2O

iv
Q.62. Two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to the 3rd period of Modern periodic table and are in group 2 and 13

Sh
respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:
(a) Number of electrons in their atoms (b) Size of their atoms
(c) Their tendencies to lose electrons (d) The formula of their oxides
(e) Their metallic character (f) The formula of their chlorides 2016D
Ans. Electronic configuration of A = 2, 8, 2
Electronic configuration of B = 2, 8, 3
Characteristics A B
(a) No. of electrons in their atom 12 13
(b) Size of their atoms Bigger Smaller
(c) Their tendencies to lose electrons More Less
(d) The formula of their oxides AO or A2 O2 B2O3
(e) Their metallic character More metallic Less metallic
(f) The formula of their chlorides ACl2 BCl3
Q.63. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd
period and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table.
(a) Determine the number of valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.
(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot
structure.
(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it is metallic or non-metallic. 2016OD
Ans. (a) An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period, thus it has three energy shells. It also belongs to 16th group, thus
it has 6 valence electrons.
K L M
\ Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 6
\ Valence electrons = 6
Valency = 8 – 6 = 2
(b) Molecular Formula:
X H
fi H2X
2 1
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 87

Electron dot structure:

H X H or H—X—H

(c) The element ‘X’ is Sulphur. It is a non-metal.


Q.64. An element ‘X’ has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic
configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’.
2016OD
Ans. ‘X’
Mass number = 35
No. of neutrons = 18
\ Atomic number of X = Mass number – Number of neutrons = 35 – 18 = 17
K L M
Thus, electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7
Group number = 17th Period number = 3rd
Valency = 8 – 7 = 1
Q.65. Three elements ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(a) State their positions (Group number and period number both) in the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.
(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with ‘Z’. 2016OD

s
Ans. Atomic number Electronic configuration Valence electron Valency

Da
X 7 2, 5 5 3

iv
Y 8 2, 6 6 2

Sh
Z 9 2, 7 7 1
(a) Group no. Period no.
X 15 2
Y 16 2
Z 17 2
(b) X > Y > Z
X, Y, Z belong to the same period and size of the atom decreases on moving from left to right in a
period.
(c) Formula of X when combined with Z
X Z
fi X1Z3 or XZ3
Valency 3 1
Q.66. The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of
elements are given in the parenthesis. 2016OD
Period No.
2 Li (3) Be (4)
3 Na (11) Mg (12)
4 K (19) Ca (20)
5 Rb (37) Sr (38)
(i) Write the electronic configuration of Ca.
(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.
(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?
(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.
(v) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?
(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms.
Ans. (i) Ca(20)
Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 2
(ii) Li(3)
88 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

2, 1
Na, (11)
2, 8, 1


Rb(37)
Thus Rb belongs to 1st group
\ Valence electrons in Rb = 1
(iii) Sr (38) belongs to 5th period. Therefore, Sr has 5 shells.
(iv) K(19) belongs to 1st group.
\ Valence electrons in K(19) is 1. It has a high tendency to donate an electron and achieve a noble
gas configuration. Hence, it is a metal.
(v) Largest atom = Rb
(vi) Increasing order of the atomic size
Be < Mg < Ca < Rb
Q.67. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table. 2016OD
(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.
(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ (atomic number = 8).
(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with chlorine.
Ans. X belongs to 3rd period and the 13th group.
(a) Since X belongs to 13th group, therefore its valence electrons = 3.
∵ Valency of element X = 3

s
(b) When ‘X’ reacts with element ‘Y’:

Da
X Y ⎡ Atomic No. of Y = 8

iv
⎢ Electronic configuration = 2, 6

Sh
Valency 3 2 ⎣⎢ Valency = 2

\ Molecular formula of compound formed is X2Y3.


(c) Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 3
\ X is Aluminium (Al)
Atomic number of Chlorine = 17
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
No. of valence electrons = 7
\ Valency of Chlorine = 8 – 7 = 1
Al Cl
Valency 3 1
\ Compound formed is Aluminium chloride and molecular formula of compound is AlCl3.
Q.68. Write the names given to the vertical columns and horizontal rows in the Modern Periodic Table. How
does the metallic character of elements vary on moving down a vertical column? How does the size of
atomic radius vary on moving left to right in a horizontal row? Give reason in support of your answer
in the above two cases. 2017D
Ans. Vertical coloumns are called Groups.
The horizontal rows are called Periods.
• Metallic character increases on going down in a group.
Reason. Ability to lose electrons increases on moving down the group due to increase in distance be-
tween the nucleus and the valence electrons. There is decrease in the attraction between the nucleus
and the valence electrons.
• Atomic radius decreases as we move from left to right in a period.
Reason. The nuclear charge increases on moving from left to right across a period resulting in in-
crease in the attraction between the nucleus and the valence electrons.
Q.69. An element P (atomic number 20) reacts with an element Q (atomic number 17) to form a compound.
Answer the following questions giving the reason.
Write the position of P and Q in the Modern Periodic Table and the molecular formula of the com-
pound formed when P reacts with Q. 2017D
Ans. Element P: Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 2
Chapter 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS „ 89

So, element P belongs to 4th period and group 2, as it has four shells and 2 valence electrons.
Element Q: Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 7
So element Q belongs to 3rd period and group 17, as it has three shells and seven valence electrons.
Molecular formula of compound will be PQ2. As valency of P is 2 and valency of Q is one.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.70. The elements of the third period of the Periodic Table are given below:
Group Æ I II III IV V VI VII
Period Ø Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
3
(a) Which atom is bigger, Na or Mg? Why?
(b) Identify the most (i) metallic and (ii) non-metallic element in Period 3.
(c) Which is more non-metallic, S or Cl?
(d) Which has higher atomic mass, Al or Cl? 2013D
Ans. (a) Na is bigger than Mg because on moving from left to right in a period, the atomic number of elements
increases which means that the number of protons and electrons in the atom increases. (The extra
electrons being added to the same shell).
(b) (i) Most metallic element is Na. Most non-metallic element is Cl;
Because on moving from left to right in a period the nuclear charge increases thus the valence
electrons are pulled in more strongly by the nucleus and it becomes more and more difficult for the
atoms to lose electrons so tendency of atoms to lose electrons (i.e., metallic character) decreases on

s
moving from left to right in a period. On the other hand, due to increased nuclear charge, it becomes

Da
easier for the atoms to gain electrons. So the tendency to gain electrons (i.e. non-metallic character)

iv
increases on moving than left to right in a period.

Sh
(c) Cl is more non-metallic than S because on moving from left to right in a period, nuclear charge
increases so the tendency to gain electrons increases (i.e., non-metallic character).
(d) Cl has higher atomic mass because on moving from left to right in a period, atomic number increases.
Simultaneously, atomic mass increases.
Q.71. Explain the trends in the Modern Periodic Table of various properties like valency, atomic size,
metallic and non-metallic properties of the atoms of elements. 2013OD
Ans. (i) Valency. Elements belonging to same group have same number of valence electrons and thus same
valency.
Valency in a particular period from left to right first increases as positive valency and then decreases
as negative valency.
Example, In elements of 2nd period:
Li ha 1+ valency, then Be2+, Be3+, C4+ covalency, N3– valency, then O2– and F(–) valency.
(ii) The atomic size or atomic radius increases as we move down in a group and it decreases as we move
from left to right in a period. Atomic size increases down a group due to increase in the number of
shells. Atomic size decreases along a period due to increase in the nuclear charge which tends to pull
the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom.
(iii) Metallic and non-metallic properties. In the modern periodic table metals are on the left side and
non-metals are on the right side. A zigzag line of metalloids separates metals from non-metals.
Metallic character decreases from left to right in a period and increases while going down in a group.
Non-metallic character increases from left to right in a period due to increase in the electro-negativity
and this character decreases from top to bottom in a group due to decrease in the electro-negativity of
atoms while going down in a group.
Q.72. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table are shown below:
Group Æ I II III IV V VI VII
Period Ø
1 B
2 A
3 C
90 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Giving reasons, explain the following:


(a) Element A is a non-metal.
(b) Atom of element C has a larger size than atom of element A.
(c) Element B has a valency of 1. 2014D
Ans. (a) Element A is a non-metal because it belongs to Group VII therefore it has 7 electrons in its outermost
shell. It needs one electron to acquire nearest inert gas configuration and form a monovalent –ve ion.
(b) Atom of element C has a larger size than that of element A because C belongs to the 3rd period
therefore it has three shells whereas A belongs to the 2nd period thus it has two shells.
(c) Element B has a valency of 1 because it belongs to Group I and has one valence electron. To complete
its outermost shell or to acquire nearest noble gas configuration it loses one electron and forms a
monovalent + ve ion.
Q.73. (a) Why do we classify elements?
(b) What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
(c) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?
(d) In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, why was there no mention of noble gases like Helium, Neon and
Argon?
(e) Would you place the two isotopes of Chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 in different slots because of their
different atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same? Justify
your answer. 2014OD
Ans. (a) As different elements were being discovered, scientists gathered more information about the
properties of these elements. It was observed that it was difficult to organise all the information or
properties of these elements. So scientists started discovering some pattern in their properties to

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classify all the known elements to make their study easier.

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(b) Atomic mass and similarity of chemical properties (compounds formed by elements with oxygen and

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hydrogen) were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table.

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(c) Mendeleev left some gaps in his Periodic Table as he predicted the existence of some elements that
had not been discovered at that time.
(d) Noble gases like helium, neon, argon etc. were not mentioned in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table because
these gases were discovered later as they are very inert and present in extremely low concentrations
in our atmosphere. After the discovery of noble gases they could be placed in a new group without
disturbing the existing order of the Periodic Table.
(e) The two isotopes of chlorine Cl-35 and Cl-37 would be placed in different slots of Mendeleev’s
Periodic Table as both have different atomic masses. But the two isotopes have same chemical
properties so would also be placed in the same slot. This is a contradiction. Thus position of isotopes
of an element is not defined in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table.

####
CHAPTER 6
LIFE PROCESSES
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
NUTRITION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
☞ Nutrition. Process of obtaining and utilizing of food is known as nutrition.
☞ Mode of nutrition:
(i) Autotrophic Nutrition (All green plants)
(ii) Heterotrophic Nutrition (Animals, Man, Non-green plants)
• Saprotrophic nutrition; • Parasitic nutrition; • Holozoic nutrition
☞ Autotrophs. It is a mode of nutrition in which organisms can make their own food from simple raw
material. Example, all green plants.
☞ Heterotrophs. It is a mode of nutrition in which organisms cannot prepare their food on their own and
depend on others. Example, animals.
☞ Saprotrophic Nutrition. It is the process by which the organism feeds on dead and decaying matter.
Example, rhizopus, mucor, yeast.
☞ Photosynthesis. It is the process by which green plants prepare their own food.
Raw materials for photosynthesis:
(i) Water and Minerals. These are absorbed by the roots from the soil.
(ii) Carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide enters the leaves through tiny pores called stomata.
(iii) Sunlight. Energy from the sun is called solar energy.
(iv) Cholorophyll. Chlorophyll pigment helps leaves to capture solar energy.
Products of Photosynthesis. Carbohydrate-glucose—It is converted to starch.
☞ Symbiotic relationship. Two organisms live in close association and develop a relationship that is
beneficial to both, this is called symbiotic relationship.
Example, Lichen is a living partnership between a fungus and an alga. Fungus absorbs water and
provides shelter and alga prepare food by photosynthesis
☞ Insectivores. Plants feed on insects for their nitrogen requirements.
☞ Holozoic nutrition. It means feeding on solid food. Organism takes complex organic food into the body.
Example, man, amoeba, dog, etc.
• Herbivores. Animals which feed on plants only. Example, deer, cow.
• Carnivores. Animals which feed on flesh or meat. Example, tiger.
• Omnivores. Animals which feed on both plant and flesh. Example, man, dog.
☞ Steps of Holozoic nutrition:
(i) Ingestion. Taking food into mouth.
(ii) Digestion. Break down of large insoluble food into small water soluble molecules by enzymes.
(iii) Absorption. Digested food absorbed through intestinal wall into blood.
(iv) Assimilation. Absorbed food is taken by body cells for releasing energy, growth and repair.
(v) Egestion. Eliminating undigested food from body.

Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 91


92 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

☞ Digestive organs of human beings. Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine
with glands like salivary gland, liver, pancreas.
☞ Teeth. An organ which breaks down the complex food and helps in chewing the food.
• Milk teeth. The first set of 20 small teeth when baby is 6-7 months old.
• Permanent teeth. The second set of 32 larger teeth, when child is 6-7 years old and comes by
replacing milk teeth.
☞ Enamel. A white, strong, shining, protective material covering on teeth.
☞ Tongue. A muscular organ attached to the floor of buccal cavity which helps in tasting and mixing the
food with saliva for digestion.
TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
☞ Vascular tissue. A plant tissue which helps in transportation.
☞ Xylem tissue. It helps in transporting water and minerals in plants.
☞ Phloem. It helps in transporting food in plants.
☞ Translocation. The process of transporting food from leaves to other parts of plants.
☞ Transpiration. A loss of water from stomata in leaves.
☞ Blood. A red colour fluid which circulates in the body of animals.
☞ Plasma. Fluid part of blood which consist of nutrients, hormones, and waste products.
☞ Blood vessel. Tube like structure present in body for carrying blood inside the body.

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a
Artery. It carries oxygenated blood from heart to body parts.

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☞ Vein. It carries deoxygenated blood from body parts to the heart.



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Capillary. A thin walled narrow tube which connect artery and vein.
Heart. A muscular organ present in thoracic cavity and helps in pumping blood in body.
Double circulation. A circulatory system in which blood travels twice through the heart in one complete
cycle.
☞ Heart beat. One complete contraction and relaxation of the heart (72 times in a minute).
☞ Stethoscope. Instrument which measures heart beat.
☞ Systolic pressure. Maximum pressure at which blood flows during contraction of the heart. (120 mm
Hg)
☞ Diastolic pressure. Minimum pressure at which blood flows during relaxation of the heart.
(80 mm Hg)
☞ Sphygmomanometer. Instrument which measures blood pressure.
☞ Lymph. A light yellow liquid flowing from body tissue to blood circulatory system and provides
immunity.

EXCRETION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS


☞ Excretion. It is the process of removing waste products from the body.
☞ Excretory products of plants. CO2, O2, water vapour, peel of bark, fruits, leaves, gum, resin, etc.
☞ Excretory products of humans. Carbon dioxide, urea, uric acid, excess water etc.
☞ Kidney. Organ which removes the toxic substance urea from blood and filters it.
☞ Urine. A yellowish liquid which contains water and urea.
☞ Dialysis. The procedure used for cleaning blood of a person in case of kidney failure.
☞ Nephron. Functional unit of excretory system present in kidney for filtering blood.
☞ Renal Artery. Blood vessels which bring blood from heart to kidney.
☞ Renal Vein. Blood vessel which brings blood from kidney to heart.
Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 93

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition (b) respiration (c) excretion (d) transportation
Ans. (c) excretion
Q.2. The xylem in plants are responsible for
(a) transport of water (b) transport of food
(c) transport of amino acids (d) transport of oxygen
Ans. (a) transport of water
Q.3. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires
(a) carbon dioxide and water (b) chlorophyll
(c) sunlight (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Q.4. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria (c) chloroplast (d) nucleus
Ans. (b) mitochondria
Q.5. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Ans. Digestion of fat: The fats are present in the form of large globules in the small intestine. Bile juice secreted
by the liver is poured in the intestine alongwith pancreatic juice. The bile salts present in the bile juice
emulsify the large globules of fats. The walls of the small intestine contain glands which secrete intestinal

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juice. The enzymes present in it, finally convert the proteins into amino acids, complex carbohydrates into

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glucose and emulsified fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

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The digestion of fat takes place in the small intestine.

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Q.6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food? (Board Question)
Ans. The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase enzyme that breaks down starch to sugar. The
saliva moistens the food that helps in chewing and breaking down the big pieces of food into smaller ones,
so that salivary amylase can digest the starch efficiently.
Q.7. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its by-products?
Ans. Conditions necessary for autotrophic nutrition are sunlight, chlorophyll, carbon dioxide and water. By-
products of autotrophic nutrition are water and oxygen.
Q.8. What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms that use
the anaerobic mode of respiration. (Board Question)
Ans. Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
1. Aerobic respiration takes place in the 1. Anaerobic respiration takes place in the
presence of oxygen. absence of oxygen.
2. Complete breakdown of food occurs in it. 2. Partial breakdown of food occurs in it.
3. The end products are carbon dioxide (CO2) 3. The end products may be ethyl alcohol and carbon
and water (H2O). dioxide or lactic acid.
4. It produces a considerable amount of energy. 4. Much less energy is produced.
Organisms that use anaerobic mode of respiration: Yeast, some bacteria and some parasitic worms.
Q.9. How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
Ans. Alveoli have a balloon-like structure that provides maximum surface area for the exchange of gases. Also
alveoli is thin-walled and contains an extensive network of blood capillaries to facilitate exchange of gases
between blood and the air filled in it.
Q.10. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?
Ans. If haemoglobin content is reduced in blood, its oxygen carrying capacity decreases. So the person shows
symptoms of deficient oxygen such as breathlessness and lack of energy. The person looks pale and loses
weight.
Q.11. Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary? (Board Question)
Ans. The blood passes twice through the heart during each cycle to supply blood once to the whole body, so this
circulation in human beings is called double circulation of blood. The double circulation of blood includes
systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
94 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Necessity of double circulation: The right side and the left side of the human heart are useful to keep
deoxygenated and oxygenated blood from mixing. The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
ensures highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body. This is necessary because it constantly gives energy
to maintain the body temperature.
Q.12. What are the differences between the transport of materials in xylem and phloem?
Ans. Xylem Phloem
1. It conducts water and dissolved minerals 1. It conducts prepared food material from leaves
from roots to leaves and other parts. to other parts of plant in dissolved form.
2. Transport of material takes place through 2. Transport of material takes place through sieve
vessels and tracheids which are dead tissues. tubes with the help of companion cells, which
are living cells.
3. Movement of water is achieved by simple 3. The translocation in phloem is an active process
physical forces. There is no expenditure of and requires energy. This energy is taken from
energy. So, ATP molecules are not required. ATP molecules.
Q.13. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys with respect to their
structure and functioning.
Ans. Alveoli Nephron
1. The structure is that of a pouch-like air sac. 1. Nephrons have thin walled cup-shaped
The walls of the alveoli are very thin. structure called Bowman’s capsule and then a
2. Alveoli are surrounded by an extensive coiled tube.
network of thin blood capillaries. 2. Bowman’s capsule is supplied with a cluster of

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3. Alveoli increase surface area for diffusion of capillaries called glomerulus, for filtration.

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carbon dioxide from blood to air and O2 from 3. Nephrons also increase surface area for

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air to blood. filtration of blood and re-absorption of useful

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substances and water from filtrate leaving
behind urine.
4. Alveoli are very small and a large number of 4. A large number of nephrons are present in each
them are present in each lung. kidney.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. Name the form in which the energy derived from the food is stored in humans. 2014
Ans. Chemical energy (ATP).
Q.2. Define photosynthesis. 2015
Ans. The process by which green plants make their own food (like glucose) from carbon dioxide and water by
using solar energy in the presence of chlorophyll is called photosynthesis.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.3. Why do herbivores have longer, small intestine than carnivores? 2014
Ans. The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the type of food they eat. Cellulose
is a carbohydrate food which is digested with difficulty. So the herbivorous animals like cows which eat grass
need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose present in grass to be digested completely.
Q.4. (i) Name two waste products which are stored in old xylem in plants.
(ii) Name the process by which plants get rid of excess water. Name the pores through which this
process takes place. 2015
Ans. (i) Resin and gums are the two wastes which are stored in old xylem in plants.
(ii) • Transpiration is the process by which plants get rid of excess water.
• Stomatal pores are the pores through which transpiration takes place.
Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 95

Q.5. Name the type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and
the parental identity is lost. Write the first step from where such a type of reproduction begins. Draw
first two stages of this reproduction. 2017D
Ans. The type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and parental
identity is lost is called Binary fission.
The first step of this reproduction is elongation of cells and its nucleus.

Q.6. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba. 2017OD

Nucleus Dividing Nucleus

Ans. Two daughter


amoeba

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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Stages of Binary Fission in Amoeba

Q.7. Sh
Short Answer Questions (SA-II)
(a) Explain with the help of diagram, how amoeba takes its nutrition.
(b) Assume that you are a veterinary surgeon and you had removed a good length of the small
3 Marks

intestine of a bear that was suffering from an intestinal tumor. Now, would you suggest a plant
based or a meat based diet for the bear after its recovery? Give reason for your answer.
(c) Do you think plant based food should be preferred over non-vegetarian food? 2012

Ans. (a) Amoeba takes in the food particles with the help of its finger like projections
called pseudopodia. Inside its cell a food vacuole is formed around the food
particle. Inside the food vacuole, complex substances are broken down into
simpler ones which are then diffused into the cell cytoplasm. The remaining
undigested material is sent to the surface of the cell and thrown out. The
process of nutrition in Amoeba is called Endocytosis.

(b) I would suggest a meat based diet for the bear after its recovery because
meat based food can be digested easily in a smaller sized small intestine.
(c) We should encourage vegetarian food over non-vegetarian food.
Q.8. Name three different glands associated with the digestive system in humans. Also name their
secretions. 2012
Ans. Three glands associated with the digestive system are as follows:
(i) Salivary glands in the mouth produce saliva. Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase
which digests the starch present in food into sugar.
(ii) Liver is the largest gland which secretes bile and pours its secretion in the duodenum (part of the
small intestine). Bile makes the acidic food coming from the stomach alkaline so that pancreatic
enzymes can act on it. Bile salts also break the fats present in the food into small globules.
96 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Pancreas is also a large gland which secretes pancreatic juice into the duodenum. Pancreatic juice
contains
• pancreatic amylase which breaks down the starch.
• trypsin digests the protein.
• lipase which breaks down the emulsified fats.
Pancreatic juice acts on alkaline medium.
Q.9. (a) What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants? 2013
(b) Where are the substances translocated by the phloem delivered?
Ans. (a) The movement of food from leaves to other parts of the plant in phloem is called translocation. The
translocation is necessary because every part of the plant needs food for obtaining energy, for
building its parts and maintaining its life.
(b) The movement of food in phloem is transported upwards or downwards depending on the needs of
the plant, for example, in spring, even the sugar stored in the root or stem tissue of a plant would be
transported through phloem to the buds which need energy to grow.
Q.10. (i) Which organ secretes a hormone when the blood sugar rises? Name a digestive enzyme released
by this organ.
(ii) Why pancreas helps in digestion and also regulates blood sugar? 2013
Ans. (i) Pancreas secretes insulin (hormone) when the blood sugar rises. Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice
which contains digestive enzymes.
(ii) Pancreas secretes enzymes like pancreatic amylase which breaks down starch, trypsin which breaks
down proteins and lipase breaks down emulsified fats.
Pancreas also secretes a hormone called insulin which controls the metabolism of sugar. Therefore it

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lowers the blood sugar level. So pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland.

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Q.11. Give reasons for the following:

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(a) Arteries are thick walled.

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(b) Blood goes only once through the heart in fishes.
(c) Plants have low energy needs. 2013
Ans. (a) Arteries have thick walls because these vessels carry blood from the heart to all the parts of the body
and blood emerges from the heart under high pressure.
(b) A fish has a two chambered heart and has gills to oxygenate blood. In a fish, the heart pumps
deoxygenated blood to gills where oxygenation of blood takes place. The oxygenated blood from the
gills is supplied to the body parts of the fish where oxygen is utilised and carbon dioxide enters into
it, making it deoxygenated. This deoxygenated blood returns to the heart to be pumped into gills
again. Thus blood passes through the heart of fish only once in one complete cycle.
(c) Plants are fixed at a place and do not show any locomotion. Plants are less active. Their cells do not
need to be supplied with materials so quickly. Therefore plants have low energy needs and respire at
a slow rate.
Q.12. (a) With the help of a neat labelled diagram show how amoeba captures its food?
(b) What is the mode of nutrition in amoeba? 2013

Ans. (a)

(b) Mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic.


Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 97

Q.13. (a) What happens to the heart when muscles work harder? 2013
(b) Which body system is directly affected when a person has heart disease?
(c) Which cells increase in number during infection?
Ans. (a) When muscles work harder, the heart beats faster because the muscles need more energy than the
normal requirement. The faster beating of heart pumps blood more rapidly to the muscles which
supplies more oxygen to the muscle cells for rapid respiration to produce more energy.
(b) Human circulatory system is directly affected when a person has heart disease.
(c) White blood cells (WBCs) increase in number during infection.
Q.14. The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms. Give
reason. State the pathway of air from nostrils to the lungs in human beings. 2014
Ans. The animals which live in water (aquatic animals) use the oxygen dissolved in water to carry out
respiration. Since the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is low as compared to the amount of oxygen in
the air, therefore, the rate of breathing in aquatic animals is much faster than in terrestrial animals. A faster
rate of breathing provides more oxygen to aquatic animals.
Pathway of air in human beings:
Nostrils Æ Pharynx Æ Larynx Æ Trachea Æ Bronchi Æ Bronchioles Æ Lungs
Q.15. (a) State the purpose of formation of urine. 2014
(b) What will happen if there is no tubular reabsorption in the nephrons of kidney?
Ans. (a) • Urea is produced as a waste by decomposition of unused proteins in the liver. Our body must get
rid of these waste materials because their accumulation in the body is poisonous and harmful for us.
• Kidneys are the organs which remove the poisonous substance urea, other waste salts and excess
water from the blood and excrete them in the form of a yellowish liquid called urine.

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(b) During filtration, the substances like glucose, amino acids, salts, water and urea etc. present in the

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blood pass into Bowman’s capsule and then enter the tubule of nephron. When the filtrate containing

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useful substances as well as the waste substances passes through the tubule, the useful substances like

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glucose, amino acids, most salts and most water etc. are reabsorbed into blood through blood
capillaries surrounding the tubule. Only the waste substances like urea, some unwanted salts and
excess water remain behind in the tubule. Therefore, reabsorption in the nephrons of kidneys is
important.
Q.16. Explain how water and minerals are transported in plants? 2014
Ans. Most plants secure their water and minerals from their roots. Minerals travel dissolved in water. Water
and minerals are transported through xylem cells from the soil to the leaves. The xylem cells of roots, stem
and leaves are interconnected to form a conducting channel. The root cells take ions from the soil. This
creates a difference between the concentration of ions of roots and soil. Therefore, there is a steady
movement of water into xylem. An osmotic pressure is formed and water and minerals are transported
form one cell to the other due to osmosis. The continuous loss of water takes place due to transpiration.
Q.17. Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of human beings and label on it:
Kidney, Urinary bladder, Ureter 2014
Ans. Excretory system:
98 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.18. Name any three glands associated with digestion in humans. Write the names of enzymes secreted by
them. 2015
Ans. Glands Enzymes
(i) Salivary glands • salivary amylase
(ii) Pancreas • pancreatic amylase
• trypsin
• lipase
(iii) Gastric glands • hydrochloric acid
• pepsin
• mucus
Q.19. Bile juice does not contain any enzyme but bile salts are important for digestion and absorption of fats.
State reason. 2015
Ans. Bile is a digestive juice secreted by the liver. Although it does not contain any digestive enzymes, it plays
an important role in the digestion of fats.
Bile is alkaline and contains salts which help to emulsify or break the fats (or lipids) present in the food.
Thus, bile performs two functions:
(i) Makes the acidic food coming from the stomach alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it.
(ii) Bile salts break the fats present in the food into small globules making it easy for the enzymes to act
and digest them.
Q.20. (a) State reason for the following: 2015
(i) Rings of cartilage are present in the trachea.

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(ii) Plants look green in colour.

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(b) Write other names of the following:

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(i) Alveolar sac (ii) Voice box

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Ans. (a) (i) The air coming from the nostrils during breathing passes through the trachea. The trachea does
not collapse even when there is no air in it because it is supported by rings of soft cartilages.
(ii) Plants look green in colour because of the presence of a green pigment called chlorophyll in their
chloroplasts.
(b) (i) Alveolar sac Æ Alveoli
(ii) Voice box Æ Larynx
Q.21. Describe the structure and functioning of nephron. 2017D
Ans. Structure of nephron. Nephron is the basic filtration unit in the kidney. It consists of a tubule which is
connected with a collecting duct at one end and a cup shaped structure at the other end, called Bowman’s
capsule. Every Bowman’s capsule contains a cluster of capillaries called glomerulus within the cup-shaped
structure. The blood enters into glomerulus through afferent arteriole of renal artery and leaves it through
efferent arteriole.
Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 99

Basic functions of Nephrons:


(i) Filtration. Filtration of the blood takes place in Bowman’s capsule in the capillaries of the glomerulus.
Then this filtrate passes into the tubular part of the nephron. The filtrate contains glucose, amino
acids, urea and uric acid and a large amount of water.
(ii) Reabsorption. The filtrate flows along the tubule and useful substances such as glucose, amino acids,
salts and some water are re-absorbed into the blood by the capillaries surrounding the nephron
tubule.
(iii) Urine. The filtrate which remains after the re-absorption is called the urine, which is collected from
nephron by the collecting duct to carry it to the urinary bladder and then to the urethra.
Q.22. Explain the nutrition process in Amoeba. 2017OD
Ans. Amoeba takes in the food particles with the help of its finger like projections called pseudopodia. Inside its
cell a food vacuole is formed around the food particle. Inside the food vacuole, complex substances are
broken down into simpler ones which are then diffused into the cell cytoplasm. The remaining undigested
material is sent to the surface of the cell and thrown out.
This process of nutrition in Amoeba is called Endocytosis.
Q.23. Draw a labelled diagram of human heart. 2017OD
Ans.

Das
Shiv

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.24. Draw the diagram of sectional view of human heart and on it name and label the following parts:
(a) The chamber of the heart that pumps out deoxygenated blood.
(b) The blood vessel that carries away oxygenated blood from the heart.
(c) The blood vessel that receives deoxygenated blood from the lower part of our body. 2012
Ans.

(a) The chamber of the heart that pumps out deoxygenated blood—Right ventricle
(b) The blood vessel that carries away oxygenated blood from the heart—Aorta
(c) The blood vessel that receives deoxygenated blood from the lower part of our body—Inferior Vena
Cava
100 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.25. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label the following parts:
(i) largest gland.
(ii) gland that secretes digestive enzymes and hormone.
(iii) part where HCl is produced.
(iv) part where digested food is absorbed. 2012
(b) What are villi? Explain their function in the digestive system.
Ans. (a) (i) Largest gland—Liver
(ii) Gland that secretes digestive enzymes and hormone—Pancreas
(iii) Part where HCl is produced —Stomach
(iv) Part where digested food is absorbed—Small intestine

Das
Shiv
(b) The small intestine is especially adapted for absorption of digested food. The inner surface of small
intestine has millions of tiny, finger like projections called villi which provide the inner walls of small
intestine a very large surface area. The large surface area helps in the rapid absorption of digested
food. The villi are richly supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every
cell of the body.
Q.26. Draw the human respiratory system and label the following parts: 2013
(a) Trachea (b) Alveoli (c) Respiratory bronchioles (d) Larynx
Describe in brief the role of lungs in the exchange of gases.
Ans. Human respiratory system:

Role of lungs:
(i) When we breathe in air, the diaphragm contracts which results in the increase of chest cavity. Due to
this expansion of chest cavity, the air pressure in the lungs decreases. Thus, air from outside rushes
into the lungs through nostrils, trachea and bronchi. Thus sacs of lungs get filled with air when we
breathe in. The exchange of gases between alveoli and blood takes place by the process of diffusion.
(ii) Now the air present in air sacs of the lungs is rich in CO2. When we breathe out air, the diaphragm
relaxes which results in the decrease of chest cavity. This contraction pushes the air from the lungs
Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 101

into the trachea, nostrils and then out of the body into air. Breathing in of air is called inhalation and
breathing out of air is called exhalation.
Q.27. (a) Compare the length of small intestine in herbivore and carnivore animal. 2013
(b) Mention any two structural modifications in small intestine which helps in absorption.
Ans. (a) The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the type of food they eat. For
example, cellulose is a carbohydrate food which is digested with difficulty. So, the herbivorous
animals like cow which eat grass need a longer ‘small intestine’ to allow the cellulose present in grass
to be digested completely. On the other hand, meat is a food which is easier to digest. So, the
carnivorous animals like tigers which eat meat, have a shorter ‘small intestine’.
(b) The inner surface of small intestine has millions of tiny, finger-like projections called villi. The
presence of villi gives the inner walls of the small intestine a very large surface area and the large
surface area of small intestine helps in the rapid absorption of digested food.
Q.28. (a) Explain how the separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is useful in humans? 2015
(b) Why is double circulation of blood necessary in humans?
Ans. (a) Humans have a four chambered heart which consists of two atria and two ventricles. In a four
chambered heart, the left side and right side of the heart are completely separated to prevent the
oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood. Such a separation allows a highly efficient
supply of oxygen to the body cells which is necessary for producing a lot of energy. This energy is
useful for a warm blooded animal (like humans) which has high energy needs to maintain body
temperature.
(b) All the animals having four chambered hearts have double circulation in which the blood passes
through the heart ‘twice’ in one complete cycle of the body. This ensures the separation of oxygenated

s
blood from deoxygenated blood.

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Explanation:

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Double circulation. The blood travels twice through the heart in one complete cycle of the body and is

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called double circulation. It involves two circulations:
(i) Pulmonary circulation. The pathway of the blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is
called pulmonary circulation. It is a small circulation. Deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle flows
into the vascular system of the lungs, becomes oxygenated and returns to the hearts left atrium
through pulmonary veins.
(ii) Systemic circulation. The pathway of the blood from the heart to the rest of the body and back to the
heart is called systemic circulation. It is a large circulation. Left ventricle sends the blood into the
aorta. Aorta divides into arteries, arterioles and capillaries and supplies oxygenated blood to various
parts of the body. From there the deoxygenated blood is collected by venules, which join to form
veins and finally vena cava and pours blood back into the right atrium.
Q.29. Describe double circulation in human beings. 2017D
(a) Why is it necessary?
(b) How are arteries different from veins?
Ans. (a) Double circulation of blood means, that the blood enters twice in the heart during its one circulation
in other parts of the body. First time oxygenated blood from lungs enters the left atrium and second
time de-oxygenated blood enters the right atrium through two main vena cava. Double circulation of
blood is necessary to separate the oxygenated blood from the de-oxygenated blood to provide more
energy for efficient working of body organs.
(b) Arteries Veins
1. Arteries are thick walled. 1. Veins are thin walled.
2. Arteries carry blood from the heart to 2. Veins carry the blood from body organs to the
different organs of the body. heart.
3. Arteries do not have valves. 3. Veins have valves in them.
4. Arteries are deeply placed. 4. Veins are superficially placed.
102 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: Stomata
Q.1. What are the precautions taken to prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show its stomata?
Ans. Precautions taken to prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel:
(i) The epidermal peel should be taken from a freshly plucked leaf.
(ii) Always hold the slide by its edge to avoid making the slide dirty.
(iii) Always use a brush to transfer the peel from petri dish to the slide.
(iv) Curling of peel must be avoided.
(v) The peel should be mounted in the centre of the slide.
(vi) The peel should not be allowed to dry.
(vii) Always keep the cover slip gently to avoid the entry of air bubbles.
Q.2. Record your observations when a stained and mounted leaf peel is viewed by you under high power
microscope.
Ans. (i) The process (stomatal process) in which stomatal pores are clearly seen.
(ii) Each stomata has two kidney shaped cells (guard cells) having one nucleus and many chloroplasts
each.
Q.3. Identify the observed various parts of temporary mount of well stained leaf peel, when focussed under
the high power of a microscope.

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Ans. Parts of temporary mount of well stained leaf peel:

a
(i) Stomatal aperture (opened)/(closed) (ii) Guard cells

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(iii) Chloroplast (iv) Nucleus (v) Epidermal cells

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Q.4. A student prepared a temporary mount of a leaf peel and observed some green dots.

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(i) Name these green dots and name the pigment present in them.
(ii) State the function of this pigment.
Ans. (i) Green dots are chloroplast. It contains green pigment called chlorophyll.
(ii) Chlorophyll traps solar energy. This solar energy is required by the plant to carry out the chemical
reactions involved in the preparation of food (i.e., in photosynthesis).
Q.5. List the various steps of observing a slide under the microscope.
Ans. • Take a clean prepared slide and clip it on to the stage.
• Look in the microscope and adjust the mirror to illuminate the slide.
• Move the coarse adjustment screw of microscope to focus the slide (object) under low power.
• Move the nosepiece and adjust the high power objective lens.
• Focus the slide (object) at high power by using fine adjustment screw.
Q.6. When a student observes a temporary mount of leaf peel under a microscope, he observes two
different types of cells in leaf peel. Name these two different types of cells. On what basis can a
student differentiate between these two cells.
Ans. Two different types of cells are epidermal cells and guard cells.
Epidermal cells lack chloroplast and are irregular in shape while guard cells have chloroplast. The guard
cells can be kidney-shaped or dumb-bell shaped.
Q.7. Why is epidermal peel generally taken from lower surface of the leaf?
Ans. In dicot plants stomata are found in lower surface only, hence peel is taken from the lower surface. As
stomata are present on both the surfaces of leaf in monocot plants so the peel can be taken from either
surface.
Q.8. Draw a labelled diagram of stomatal apparatus with closed stomatal pore.
Ans.
Chapter 6: LIFE PROCESSES „ 103

➜ EXPERIMENT: Light is Necessary for Photosynthesis


Q.9. What is destarching? Why is this step necessary for performing the experiment to prove that light is
necessary for photosynthesis?
Ans. Destarching is the removal of starch from the plant. When a plant is kept in dark, photosynthesis does not
occur in plant and therefore, it utilises stored starch. In this way, we can destarch a plant.
Destarching is necessary to remove all the starch present in the plant. If the plant is not destarched, starch
will interfere with result.
Q.10. While performing experiment ‘light is necessary for photosynthesis’, the uncovered part of the leaf on
treating with iodine solution turns blue- black while the covered portion remains yellow. Why?
Ans. During the experiment, the uncovered portion received light and hence photosynthesis took place in this
part. Because of this, starch is formed in the uncovered portion. This starch with iodine gives blue-black
colour. Contrary to above, the covered portion of the leaf does not receive light and therefore starch is not
formed in the region. Hence, the covered portion remains yellow on treating with iodine solution.
Q.11. What are the precautions that should be considered while performing the experiment ‘light’ is
necessary for photosynthesis’?
Ans. • Destarch the potted plant by placing it in dark.
• The black paper strip should be attached tightly on both sides of the leaf.
• Always use water bath for boiling leaf in alcohol.
• Wash the leaf before performing iodine test.
Q.12. Various steps associated with iodine test are as follows:
(i) Boil the leaf in water. (ii) Boil the leaf in alcohol on a water bath.

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(iii) Wash the leaf in water. (iv) Add few drops of iodine solution.

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Mention the importance of steps given above.

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Ans. (i) This step makes the leaf soft, killing the cell membrane so that iodine enters it easily.

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(ii) This step decolourises leaf, and destroys chloroplast.
(iii) This step removes alcohol from leaf surface.
(iv) This step tests the presence of starch in leaf.
Q.13. Give reasons
(i) We use water bath for boiling leaf in alcohol.
(ii) We cover a portion of leaf with black paper strip.
Ans. (i) Alcohol being inflammable may catch fire if boiled directly over the flame.
(ii) Black paper is used to cover the leaf as it is a good absorber of light and blocks the entry of light to
the leaf and hence no photosynthesis occurs in the covered portion.

➜ EXPERIMENT: CO2 is released during Respiration


Q.14. What would happen if:
(i) KOH solution is not hung in conical flask during experiment.
(ii) seeds are not kept moist during experiment.
Ans. (i) Carbon dioxide released by respiration of seeds will not be absorbed. So, partial vacuum will not be
created and thus there will be no rise in the level of water in the glass tube.
(ii) If moisture is not available, seeds will dry up and rate of respiration would fall.
Q.15. Why are germinating seeds taken in the experiment? What would happen if germinating seeds are
replaced by boiled seeds?
Ans. As germinating seeds respire actively and at a faster rate, they are taken for the experiment. Boiled seeds
do not respire and so no results will be obtained if they replace the germinating seeds in the experiment.
Q.16. What happens to carbon dioxide given out by germinating seeds while performing the experiment?
Ans. The carbon dioxide given out by germinating seeds is absorbed by KOH and potassium carbonate is
formed.
KOH + CO2 æææ Æ K2CO3 + H2
Potassium hydroxide Potassium carbonate

####
CHAPTER 7
CONTROL AND
COORDINATION
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN PLANTS
☞ Stimuli. The change in environment to which an organism responds.
☞ Co-ordination. Working together of various organs of an organism in a systematic manner to produce a
proper response.
☞ Phyto-hormones. These are plant hormones.
☞ Auxin. It is a plant hormone which promotes cell enlargement and growth in plants.
☞ Gibberellins. A plant hormone which promotes cell differentiation and breaking dormancy of seeds and
buds.
☞ Cytokinin. A plant hormone which promotes cell division and opening of stomata.
☞ Abscisic Acid. It helps in inhibiting growth of plants and promotes wilting and falling of leaves and
food.
☞ Tropism. A growth movement of plants which determines direction with stimulus.
☞ Nastism. A growth movement of plants which does not determine direction with stimulus.
☞ Phototropism. Movement of plants towards light.
☞ Geotropism. Movement of plants towards gravity of earth.
☞ Chemotropism. Movement of plants towards chemicals.
☞ Hydrotropism. Movement of plants towards water.
☞ Thigmotropism. Movement of plants towards response to touch of an object.
CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN ANIMALS
☞ Stimuli. The change in environment to which organism responds.
☞ Co-ordination. Working together of various organs of an organism in a systematic manner to produce a
proper response.
☞ Neuron. Functional unit of the nervous system.
☞ Synapse. A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons.
☞ Receptor. A cell in a sense organ which is sensitive to stimuli.
☞ Motor nerves. It carries message from brain to body parts for action.
☞ Sensory nerves. It carries message from body to brain.
☞ Olfactory receptor. It detects smell by nose.
☞ Gustatory receptor. It detects taste by tongue.

104 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapter 7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION „ 105

☞ Thermoreceptor. It detects heat and cold by skin.


☞ Photoreceptor. It detects light by eye.
☞ Reflex action. Sudden movement or response to the stimulus which occurs in a very short duration of
time and does not involve any will or thinking of the brain.
☞ Brain. An organ present in the skull which controls and regulates activity of whole body and is known
as president of the body.
☞ Cerebrum. Main thinking part of brain present in fore brain area which controls all voluntary actions.
☞ Cerebellum. It is present in hind brain area and helps in maintaining posture and balance of body.
☞ Medulla. It is present in hind brain area and helps in controlling voluntary actions of brain.
☞ Spinal chord. It is a cylindrical structure of nerve fibres enclosed in the vertebral column which helps in
conduction of nerve impulses to and from brain.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (c) Oestrogen (d) Cytokinin
Ans. (d) Cytokinin
All the other three hormones are animal hormones.

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Q.2. The gap between two neurons is called:

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(a) dendrite (b) synapse (c) axon (d) impulse

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Ans. (b) synapse

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Q.3. The brain is responsible for
(a) thinking (b) regulating the heart beat
(c) balancing the body (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Q.4. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do not work
properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Ans. Function. The main function of receptors is to detect information from the environment.
There are some situations where receptors do not work properly, like the mouth starts watering on seeing
our favourite food, hand is suddenly withdrawn on touching a flame etc. In these situations it will take a
long time if these acts are done by the brain as the receptors are not sending the message to the spinal cord
immediately and damage can occur to the affected part of the body.
Q.5. Draw the structure of neuron and explain its function.
Ans. Nerve cell or neuron is a functional unit of the nervous system.
Function. The information acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a neuron sets off a chemical reaction
which creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body then along the
axon at its end. At the end of axon, the electrical
impulse sets off the release of some chemicals, which
cross the synapse and start a similar electrical impulse
in a dendrite of the next neuron. In this way nerve
impulses travel in the body, from one neuron to
another till it reaches the muscles or the target organ.
Thus, a nervous tissue is made up of an organised
network of nerve cells or neurons which are specialised
in conducting information via electrical impulses from
one part of the body to another.
Q.6. How does phototropism occur in plants?
Ans. Phototropism is the response of the plant parts to the external stimulus of light. The stem of the plant
grows in the direction of light while root grows away from the direction of light. This growth is controlled
by the auxin hormone of the plant. The concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the
106 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

side of the shoot (stem and branches) which is away from the light. Thus, the plant appears to bend
towards light.
Q.7. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
Ans. (i) All the signals and responses, which pass from and to the brain through the spinal cord will get disrupted.
(ii) Reflex action will also be disrupted.
Q.8. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Ans. Chemical compounds released by stimulated cells in plants are called plant hormones. Different plant
hormones help to coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment. They are
synthesised at places away from where they act and simply diffuse to the area of action.
Q.9. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?
Ans. To give responses to the changing environmental conditions and to perform life processes in a well
organised manner for the advantage of the living organism, there is a need for a system of control and
coordination in a living organism.
Q.10. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Ans. Involuntary actions Reflex actions
1. The actions which are done without thinking 1. The actions which are immediate and sudden
control are called involuntary actions. and do not need processing by the brain are
They occur in response to internal stimuli. called reflex actions.
2. They are controlled by the medulla in hind
brain. 2. They are controlled by the spinal cord.
3. Examples: beating of the heart, salivation on 3. Example: immediate removal of hand on
seeing food. touching a hot plate.

Das
Q.11. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in the animals.

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Ans. Nervous mechanism Hormonal mechanism

Sh
1. Nervous mechanism involves the movement 1. Hormones are special chemicals produced by
of stimulus and response information in the specialised organs called endocrine glands.
form of chemical and electrical impulses Information reaches the target organs through
through specialised neuron cells. the blood stream.
2. Nerve impulses are fast in their actions. 2. Hormones are slow in their actions.
3. Response is immediate in nervous control. 3. Response is usually slow.
Q.12. What is the difference between the manner in which movement in the sensitive plant and movement in
our legs take place?
Ans. Movement in the sensitive plant Movement in our legs
1. It is brought by changing the shape of its cells 1. It takes place due to the change in the shape
by changing the amount of water in them (it of muscle cells which is brought about by
is called Turgor pressure of the cell). This special type of proteins found in the muscle
results in swelling or shrinking of their cells. cells by the contraction or relaxation of these
protein fibres.
2. It is controlled by plant hormones. 2. It is controlled by nerves and cerebellum part
of hind brain.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. Name the sensory receptors found in the nose and on the tongue. 2012
Ans. (i) Nose has olfactory receptors which detect smell.
(ii) Tongue has gustatory receptors which detect taste.
Q.2. How do the shoot and roots of a plant respond to the pull of earth’s gravity? 2012
Ans. • Shoot of a plant always grows away from the pull of gravity or shows negative geotropism.
Chapter 7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION „ 107

• Root of the plant always grows towards the pull of gravity or shows positive geotropism.
Q.3. Name two tissues which provide control and coordination in animals. 2013
Ans. Nervous tissue and muscular tissue provide control and coordination in animals.
Q.4. Name two parts which constitute the central nervous system. 2013
Ans. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and the spinal cord.
Q.5. Name the two components of peripheral nervous system. 2014
Ans. Two components of peripheral nervous system:
• Autonomic nervous system.
• Voluntary nervous system.
Q.6. Name one plant hormone which inhibits growth. Write its one more function. 2015
Ans. Abscisic acid is a plant hormone which functions mainly as a growth inhibitor.
• It promotes the dormancy in seeds and buds.
• It promotes the wilting and falling of leaves.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.7. Name the gland and the hormone secreted by the gland, which are associated with the following
problems:
(i) a girl has grown extremely tall. (ii) a woman has a swollen neck. 2014
Ans. (i) Pituitary gland Æ human growth hormone
(ii) Thyroid gland Æ thyroxine hormone
Q.8. Name the plant hormones responsible for the following functions: 2015

s
(i) growth of the stem (ii) promotes cell division

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(iii) wilting of leaves (iv) inhibits growth

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Ans. Function Hormone responsible

Sh
(i) growth of the stem Auxin/gibberellin
(ii) promotes cell division Cytokinin
(iii) wilting of leaves Abscisic acid
(iv) inhibits growth Abscisic acid

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.9. (a) Name the part of brain which controls 2012
(i) voluntary action, (ii) involuntary action.
(b) What is the significance of the peripheral nervous system? Name the components of this nervous
system and distinguish between the origin of the two.
Ans. (a) (i) All the voluntary actions of the body are coordinated by the cerebellum.
(ii) Various involuntary actions are controlled by Medulla.
(b) Peripheral nervous system is extended between central nervous system and body parts. The
communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the body is facilitated by
the peripheral nervous system. On the basis of their origin, it is divided into two types of nerves.
(i) Cranial nerves. These nerves extend between the brain and parts of head except 10th cranial
nerves which extends up to the abdomen.
(ii) Spinal nerves. There nerves extend between spinal cord and the body parts.
Character Cranial nerves Spinal nerves
1. Extension Between brain and body parts. Between spinal cord and body parts.
2. Number 12 pairs 31 pairs
3. Nature May be sensory or motor or mixed. Always mixed.
Q.10. Describe an activity to illustrate the phenomenon of phototropism and explain why does this occur.
2012
Ans. Experiment. We take a potted plant growing in a transparent glass jar. When this potted plant is kept in the
open space, the stem of the plant grows straight up towards the Sun while root of the plant grows straight
but in the downward direction.
108 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Now keep this plant near the window in a dark room in such a way
that sunlight falls on it from the right side only. After some days, we
observe that the stem of the plant bends towards the right side
towards the light whereas the root bends to the left side away from the
light.

This experimental setup demonstrates phototropism, i.e., the shoot of the plant bends towards light.
This occurs because the plant stem responds to light and bends towards it due to the action of auxin
hormone.

(i) When sunlight comes from above, the auxin hormone present in the tip of
the stem spreads uniformly down the stem. So the stem grows straight up.

Das
(ii) When the sunlight falls on one side, the auxin hormone prefers to stay in

v
shade as shown in the diagram

Shi
(iii) Due to uneven distribution of auxin hormone, the side with more
auxin will grow faster than the other side. Thus, the stem bends
towards the side in the direction of light.

Q.11. (a) Name the hormone which is secreted when growing plants detect light. Mention its site of
secretion in a plant.
(b) Explain why do plants appear to bend towards light? 2012
Ans. (a) Auxin hormone is secreted in the growing plant which detects light.
• It is present in the tip of the growing stem.
(b) Plants appear to bend towards light. As more auxin is produced on the shaded side than on the
lighted side of the stem, so stem grows faster on the shaded side than on the lighted side.

Q.12. (a) Name the diseases by which a person is likely to suffer due to the deficiency of: 2012
(i) Iodine; (ii) Insulin
Chapter 7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION „ 109

(b) How the timing of secretion and amount of hormone secretion are regulated in human system.
Explain with example.
Ans. (a) Diseases due to the deficiency of—(i) Iodine—Goitre; (ii) Insulin—Diabetes.
(b) The timing and amount of hormones released by various glands are controlled by the ‘feed back
mechanism’ which is in-built in the body.
For example, if the sugar level in the blood rises too much, they are detected by the cells of pancreas
which respond by producing and secreting more insulin into blood. And as the blood sugar falls to a
certain level, the secretion of insulin is reduced automatically.
Q.13. Define the following: 2013
(a) Reflex action (b) Synapse (c) Phototropism
Ans. (a) Reflex action. A reflex action is defined as a spontaneous, automatic and mechanical response to a
stimuli without the will of an animal. In such actions there is no involvement of the brain. All reflex
actions are conveyed through the spinal cord by a path called reflex arc.
(b) Synapse. A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass
when going from one neuron to the next is called a synapse.
(c) Phototropism. It is the response of the plant parts to the external stimulus of light. The stem shows
positive phototropism as the stem of the plant grows in the direction of light while root shows
negative phototropism as the root of the plant grows away from the light. This growth is controlled
by the auxin hormone.
Q.14. Mention three characteristic features of hormonal secretions in human beings. 2014
Ans. (i) A group of endocrine glands which produces various hormones is called an endocrine system. The
endocrine system is also called hormonal system.

s
(ii) The endocrine system also helps in coordinating the activities of our body. The endocrine system in our

Da
body consists of a number of glands (or tissues) which make, store, and release chemicals called hormones.

v
(iii) The working of endocrine glands is controlled by our nervous system. The hormones produced by

Shi
endocrine glands act as messengers between the nervous system and the organs of our body.
Q.15. Explain how the movement of leaves of a sensitive plant is different from movement of shoots towards
light? 2014
Ans. • The movement of plant shoot towards light is called phototropism. It is a directional movement in
which there is growth movement of a plant part (shoot) in response to an external stimulus (light).
The plant stem responds to light and bends towards it due to the action of ‘auxin hormone’.
• The movement of the leaves of a sensitive plant is called Nastic movement. It is also called
Thigmonasty. It is a non-directional movement of plant part (leaves) in response to touch or vibration.
The folding up of leaves of a sensitive plant (like mimosa) on touching is due to the sudden loss of
water from pad like swellings called pulvini present at the base of all leaves.
Q.16. Name the system which facilitates communication between central nervous system and the other parts
of the body. Mention two types of nerves it consists of along with their organs of origin. 2015
Ans. Peripheral nervous system facilitates communication between central nervous system and the other parts
of the body.
Two types of nerves:
• Cranial nerves arise from the brain and spread throughout the head.
• Spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord along most of the length of the spinal cord and spread
throughout the body except the head.
Q.17. State the function of receptors in our body. Think of any three situations where receptors in the body
do not work properly. Mention the problems which are likely to arise. 2015
Ans. Receptors are present in all parts of our body, for example, in the skin, eyes, nose, tongue, etc.
A receptor is a cell (or a group of cells) in a sense organ which is sensitive to a particular type of stimulus
such as light, sound, smell, taste, heat, pressure, etc. The different sense organs contain receptors for
detecting different stimuli.
— The eyes have light receptors called photoreceptors (which can detect light).
— Ears have sound receptors called phonoreceptors (which can detect the sounds).
— The nose has smell receptors called olfactory receptors which can detect the smell.
— Tongue has taste receptors which are called gustatory receptors which detect taste.
— Skin has receptors called thermoreceptors which detect touch, pressure, hotness, coldness.
110 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

When receptors do not work properly, the environmental stimuli are not able to create nerve impluses and
the body does not respond.
When receptors are damaged, the external stimuli transferring signals to the brain are not felt.
For example,
— during fever, taste buds do not work properly and as a result, taste of the food eaten is not felt
properly thus enzyme secretion is also affected.
— when a person is suffering from a cold, the nostrils are filled with mucus. Then smell of the
surrounding is not felt properly. This is due to interruption in reacting to the sense of smell by the
olfactory receptor.
— when skin receptors are damaged, and we accidentally touch a hot object, then our hands might get
burnt as the damaged receptor cannot perceive the external stimuli of heat and pain.
Q.18. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in the animals.
2017D
Ans. Nervous mechanism Hormonal mechanism
1. Nervous mechanism involves the movement 1. Hormones are special chemicals produced by
of stimulus and response information in the specialised organs. Information reaches the
form of chemical and electrical impulses target organs through the blood stream.
through specialised neuron cells.
2. Nerve impulses are fast in their actions. 2. Hormones are slow in their actions.
3. Response is immediate in nervous control. 3. Response is usually slow.
Q.19. What is reflex arc? Draw a labelled diagram to show reflex arc on touching a very hot object. 2017OD

as
Ans. Reflex Arc. The path followed during a reflex action is called reflex arc.

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Sh

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.20. (a) Write three main functions of the nervous system.
(b) In the absence of muscle cells, how do plant cells show movement? 2014
Ans. (a) Main functions of the nervous system:
• Coordinate the activities of the body.
• Helps all other systems of the body to work together.
• The nervous system receives information from the surroundings, processes it, interprets it and
then responds accordingly.
(b) The movement in any part of a plant is usually a growth movement or change in shape of body parts.
— The movements of the plant part are usually caused by an unequal growth in its two regions by
the action of plant hormones, under the influence of the stimuli like light, force of gravity,
chemical substances, water, touch etc.
— The change in shape occurs by changing the amount of water in the body part. Water causes
swelling and shrinking which causes movement.
Chapter 7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION „ 111

Q.21. (a) Explain feed back mechanism for regulation of hormonal secretion with the help of one example.
2014
(b) State two different types of movement in plants. Mention two points of difference between them.
Ans. (a) The timing and amount of hormones released by various glands are controlled by the ‘feedback
mechanism’ which is in-built in our body.
Example, if the sugar level in the blood rises too much, it is detected by the cells of pancreas which
responds by producing and secreting more insulin into the blood; and as the blood sugar falls to a
certain level, the secretion of insulin is reduced automatically.
(b) The plant movements made in response to external stimuli fall into two main categories—(i) tropism
and (ii) nasties.
Tropisms. A growth movement of a plant part in response to an external stimuli in which the
direction of stimulus determines the direction of response is called tropism. So it is a directional
movement.
Nasties. The movement of a plant part in response to an external stimulus in which the direction of
response is not determined by the direction of stimulus is called nastic movement.
Tropism Nasties
(i) The direction of stimulus determines the (i) The direction of movement is not
direction of movement of the plant part. determined by the direction of stimulus.
(ii) All the tropisms are growth movements. (ii) Nasties are growth independent movements.
Q.22. (a) Define reflex action. State its significance. 2015
(b) How do plants respond to external stimuli?

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Ans. (a) A reflex action is an automatic response to a stimulus. The simplest form of response in the nervous

Da
system is reflex action. This is a rapid, automatic response to a stimulus which is not under the

iv
voluntary control of the brain. It is described as an involuntary action. The pathway taken by nerve

Sh
impulses in a reflex action is called the reflex arc.
Reflex actions are the actions which we perform without thinking to protect ourselves. For example,
coughing is a reflex action which clears our windpipe. The pupils of our eyes get smaller in bright
light. This reflex action protects the retina of our eyes from damage due to much light. The pupils of
our eyes get bigger in dim light so as to help us see properly even in dim light.
(b) Plants respond to external stimuli such as light, touch, etc. A growth movement of a plant part in
response to an external stimulus in which the direction of stimuli determines the direction of response
in called tropism.
• If the growth of a plant part is towards the stimuli, it is called positive tropism.
• If the growth of a plant part is away from the stimulus, then it is called negative tropism.
Types of tropism:
• The movement of a plant part in response to light is called phototropism.
• The movement of a plant part in response to gravity is called geotropism.
• The movement of a plant part in response to chemicals is called chemotropism.
• The movement of a plant part in response to water is called hydrotropism.
• The directional growth movement of a plant part in response to the touch of an object is called
thigmotropism.
Nasties (or Nastic Movements). The movement of a plant part in response to an external stimulus in
which the direction of response is not determined by the direction of stimulus is called nastic
movement.
• The folding up of a the leaves of a sensitive plant on touching is an example of nastic movement.
Here the stimulus is touch.
• The opening up of the petals of dandelion flowers in morning in bright light and closing in the
evening when the light fades is an example of nastic movement. In this case the stimulus is light.
Q.23. (a) Draw the structure of Neuron and explain its function.
(b) How does Phototropism occur in Plants? 2017OD
Ans. (a) Nerve cell or neuron is a functional unit of the nervous system.
Function. The information acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a neuron sets off a chemical
reaction which creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body
112 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

along the axon at its end. At the end of axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some
chemicals, which cross the synapse and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next
neuron. In this way nerve impulses travel in the body, from one neuron to another till it reaches the
brain or the target organ. Thus, a nervous tissue is made up of an organised network of nerve cells or
neurons which are specialised in conducting information via electrical impulses from one part of the
body to another.

(b) Phototropism is the response of the plant parts to the external stimulus of light. The stem of the plant
grows in the direction of light while root grows away from the direction of light. This growth is
controlled by the auxin hormone of the plant. The concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow
longer on the side of the shoot (stem and branches) which is away from the light. Thus, the plant
appears to bend towards light.

Das ####

Shiv
CHAPTER 8
HOW DO ORGANISMS
REPRODUCE?
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Reproduction. It is the process by which living organisms produce new individuals similar to
themselves.
• Reproduction ensures continuity of life on earth.
• It is a bridge to hereditary transmission.
• It involves continuation of characters from the parents to daughter cells by copying of DNA
(Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid) molecules present in the chromosomes of the cell.
• Copying of DNAs is also not a foolproof exercise, even minute changes bring about variation in the
blue print of the offsprings.
• The useful variations are retained while the harmful ones do not go beyond.
• Actually variations help the species to withstand drastic environmental changes, thus save the
species from becoming extinct and promotes its survival for a longer time.
• This inbuilt tendency of variation is the “basis” for Evolution.
☞ Asexual Reproduction. It is extremely useful as a means of rapid multiplication. It is common in lower
plants and animals.
• Different forms of Asexual Reproduction:
(i) Fission. The parent cell divides/splits into two daughter cells—Binary fission and splits into
many cells—Multiple fission.
(ii) Budding. A new organism is produced as an outgrowth of the parent body part.
(iii) Spore Formation. Spores are small, bulb like structures which develop at the top of the erect
hyphae of the fungus plant, when released into the air germinate, into new individuals after
landing into food or soil.
(iv) Fragmentation. It is the accidental process when the broken pieces of an organism (fragments)
grows into a complete organism. Example, fragmentation in spirogyra.
(v) Regeneration. When the simple animals like hydra, planaria develop a new individual from
their broken older part it is known as regeneration. It is carried out by specialised cells which
grow large numbers of cells.
☞ Vegetative Propagation. A mode of reproduction in which parts like the stem, root, leaves develop into
new plants under favourable conditions.
Benefits:
(i) Plants can bear flowers, fruits more quickly than those produced from seeds.
(ii) Growing banana, orange, rose, jasmine that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
(iii) Genetical similarity is maintained in the plants. E.g., sugarcane, rose, grapes by layering or grafting.
☞ Sexual Reproduction. When reproduction takes place as a result of fusion between two gametes, one
from each parent, it is called sexual reproduction.

Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 113


114 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(i) This process of fusion between two gametes is called fertilization.


(ii) The formation of gametes involves exchange of chromosomal (genetic) fragments between
homologous chromosomes causing genetic recombination which leads to variation.
☞ Sexual Reproduction in Plants. It occurs mostly in flowering plants. Infact flowers are the reproductive
organ of plants.
(i) Pollen grains of a flower transfer to stigma of the carpel of the same flower (Self-Pollination) or to
the carpel of another flower (Cross-Pollination).
(ii) This transfer of pollen is achieved by agents like wind, water or animals. After pollination, the
pollen grains reach the egg cell in the form of a pollen tube.
(iii) Fertilization. The fusion between the pollen grain and female egg cell. It occurs inside the ovary.
Zygote is produced in this process.
(iv) Zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat
and is converted into a seed.
(v) Ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit, while the seed contains the future plant or embryo
which develops into a seedling under suitable conditions. This process is known as Germination.
☞ Reproduction in Human Beings:
(i) Humans use a sexual mode of reproduction.
(ii) It needs sexual maturation which includes creation of the germ cells, i.e., egg (ova) in the female
and sperm in the male partner and this period of sexual maturation is called Puberty.
(iii) Human beings have a well developed male and female reproductive system.

s
(iv) The formation of male germ cell (sperms) takes place in the testes (male reproductive organ).

a
Actually a pair of testes are located inside scrotum situated outside the abdominal cavity. It is

v D
meant to keep a relatively low temperature needed for the production of sperms by testes. Testes

Shi
release a male sex hormone called testosterone whose function is to:
— regulate the production of sperms;
— bring about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty; and
— the sperms along with the secretion of prostate gland and seminal vesicle, together constitute
semen, which is released and made to enter into the female genital tract during Copulation.
☞ Female Reproduction System:
• The female germ cells or eggs are made in the ovaries, a pair of which is located in both sides of the
abdomen.
• When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of immature eggs. At the time of
puberty, some of these eggs start maturing. One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries.
• The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through a fallopian tube. These two fallopian tubes
unite into an elastic bag like structure known as the uterus.
• The uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix.
• Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube of the female genital tract.
• The fertilized egg also called zygote gets implanted in the lining of the uterus, and starts dividing.
The uterus is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo.
• If zygote is not formed, the inner wall of uterus breaks which causes bleeding through vagina. This
process is called Menstruation. It occurs at a regular interval of 28 days.
• The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called Placenta.
• Placenta provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the
embryo. Similarly the wastes from developing embryo are removed to mother’s blood through
placenta.
• The child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the uterus after nine months
(36 weeks) of development inside mother’s womb, called Gestation Period.
• The sexual cycle in a woman continues upto the age of 45 to 50 years. After that the ovaries do not
release eggs. This stage is called Menopause. It also marks the end of menstruation in the woman.
☞ Reproductive Health. Reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e.,
physical, emotional, social and behavioral.
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 115

☞ Contraception. It is the avoidance of pregnancy through different methods—Natural methods, Barrier


method, Oral contraceptives, Surgical methods.
☞ Advantages of contraception. Help in birth control, prevent sexually transmitted diseases, prevent
unwanted pregnancies, keep population explosion in check.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
(a) amoeba (b) yeast (c) plasmodium (d) leishmania
Ans. (b) yeast.
Q.2. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?
(a) Ovary (b) Uterus (c) Vas deferens (d) Fallopian tube
Ans. (c) Vas deferens
Q.3. The anther contains
(a) sepals (b) ovules (c) carpel (d) pollen grains
Ans. (d) pollen grains
Q.4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Ans. (i) Modes of sexual reproduction allow for greater variations to be generated which are useful for
ensuring the survival of the individuals of species during the struggle for existence. Sexually

as
reproduced young ones are more healthy than those reproduced by asexual methods.

D
(ii) While in asexual reproduction, the offsprings are almost identical to their parent because they have

iv
the same genes as their parent. So, genetic variation is not possible in asexual reproduction. This is a

Sh
disadvantage because it inhibits the further evolution of the organism.
Q.5. What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?
Ans. Functions of testis in human beings. Testis is the main reproductive organ of the male reproduction
system. There are two testis located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because sperm formation
requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. Testis produce the germ cells or sperm.
The sperms are tiny bodies that consist of mainly genetic material and a long tail that helps them to move
towards the female germ-cell. Testis also produce testosterone hormone which controls sexual behaviour
of the mole human beings.
Q.6. Why does menstruation occur?
Ans. Menstruation occurs when no fertilisation of egg takes place.
Q.7. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.
Ans.

Q.8. What are the different methods of contraception?


Ans. There are three different methods of contraception:
(i) Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps
are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as a barrier
between them.
(ii) Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females.
In males, a small portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. This
prevents the sperms from coming out.
116 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

In females, a small portion of the fallopian tubes (oviducts) is blocked by surgical operation. It
prevents the egg to reach the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
(iii) Chemical methods. This category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of the
body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for
preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills.
The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into the fallopian tube.
This is also called oral contraceptives (OC).
Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.
Q.9. How are the modes of reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms?
Ans. (i) Unicellular organisms have only one cell. There is no separate tissue for reproduction. So, they can
reproduce by the process of fission or budding.
(ii) Multicellular organisms contain various cells and have separate systems for reproduction. They can
reproduce by both sexual and asexual reproduction.
Q.10. How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species?
Ans. The rate of birth must be at par with the rate of death to provide stability to population of a species. It is
only possible by reproduction.
Q.11. What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
Ans. (i) Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spreading of sexually transmitted diseases like
syphillis, AIDS, etc.
(ii) Contraceptive methods are also used to control human population by checking the unwanted
pregnancies during sexual activities.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ s
d Exam Questions
Board
Da
Shiv
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA)
Q.1. “Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms.” Justify. 2013D
1 Mark

Ans. Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms because many unicellular organisms split
into two identical halves during cell division leading to the creation of new organisms.
Q.2. Name the body part where fertilisation occurs in human female. 2013OD
Ans. Fallopian tube.
Q.3. List two functions performed by the testis in human beings. 2015D
Ans. Two functions of testes are:
(i) To produce the male sex cells (gametes) called sperms.
(ii) To secrete the male sex hormone called testosterone which is responsible for secondary sexual
changes in males.
Q.4. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population. 2015OD
Ans. Reproduction is the process that helps in the growth of population of an organism.
Q.5. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration. 2015OD
Ans. Two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration are Planaria and Hydra.
Q.6. Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation. 2016D
Ans. The leaves produce buds in Bryophyllum which are used for vegetative propagation.
Q.7. What happens when a Planaria gets cut into two pieces? 2016D
Ans. When a Planaria gets cut into two pieces, then each piece regenerates into a new planaria.
Q.8. What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length? 2016OD
Ans. When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length, it breaks up into smaller fragments or
pieces, and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.
Q.9. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one
example of such organism. 2016OD
Ans. Organisms having both the sex organs in the same individual are called Hermaphrodite. E.g., Earthworm.
Q.10. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system. 2016OD
Ans. Two functions of ovary: (i) To produce female gamete ovum; and (ii) To secrete female hormones estrogen
and progesterone.
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 117

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.11. Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form as observed in
cells of organisms. 2011D
Ans. Difference between Binary fission and Multiple fission
Binary Fission Multiple Fission
(i) The parent organism splits to form two new (i) The parent organism splits to form many
organisms. new organisms at the same time.
(ii) This method of reproduction can take place in (ii) In this method of reproduction a protective
any plane in unicellular organisms like wall is formed around the cell of a single
amoeba. It takes place during normal life celled organism like in plasmodium during
conditions. unfavourable conditions.
Q.12. List any four modes of asexual reproduction. 2011D, 2014D
Ans. Four modes of asexual reproduction:
(i) Fission: (a) Binary fission, (b) Multiple fission
(ii) Budding
(iii) Spore formation
(iv) Fragmentation
Q.13. How does an embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body? 2011OD
Ans. After implantation, a disc-like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and the embryo called
placenta. The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother takes

as
place through the placenta.

D
Q.14. List two advantages of vegetative reproduction practised in case of an orange plant. 2012D

iv
Ans. Advantages of vegetative reproduction in case of an orange plant:

Sh
(i) In case an orange plant is grown from seeds it may take many years before it starts to bear fruit. But
if the plant is grown from vegetative reproduction, it starts bearing fruits much earlier.
(ii) Seedless oranges can be obtained by this method.
Q.15. How does a growing embryo get nutrition from the mother’s blood? 2012D
Ans. There is a special tissue developed between the uterus wall and embryo called placenta. It is through the
placenta that all the requirements of the developing foetus like nutrition, respiration and excretion etc. are
met from the mother’s body.
Q.16. Define the term puberty. List two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty. 2012D
Ans. Puberty. The age at which the sex hormones (or gametes) begin to be produced and the boy and girl
become sexually mature (able to reproduce) is called puberty.
Generally boys attain puberty at the age of 13 to 14 years while girls reach puberty at the age of 10 to 12
years.
Changes observed in girls at the time of puberty are—mammary glands develop and enlarge; menstruation
starts.
Q.17. What is meant by asexual reproduction. List its any two different forms. 2012D
Ans. Asexual reproduction. The production of a new organism from a single parent without the involvement of
sex cells is called asexual reproduction.
Different forms: (i) fission and (ii) budding.
Q.18. Mention the two functions of human testis. 2013D
Ans. Functions of human testis:
(i) Testes make male sex hormones called testosterone.
(ii) Testes produce male sex gametes, i.e., sperms.
Q.19. List two advantages of growing grapes or banana plants through vegetative propagation. 2013OD
Ans. Two advantages of growing grapes or banana plant through vegetative propagation:
(i) The fruit trees grown through vegetative propagation bear fruits much earlier.
(ii) Banana and grapes produce either very few seeds or do not produce viable seeds. Therefore their
plants are grown by vegetative propagation.
Q.20. (a) How do Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce?
(b) State one difference in their mode of reproduction. 2013OD
118 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (a) Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce by fission (asexual mode of reproduction).
(b) (i) Leishmania reproduce by binary fission in which the parent organism splits to form two new
organisms.
(ii) Plasmodium reproduce by multiple fission in which the parent organism splits to form many new
organisms at the same time.
Q.21. List four advantages of vegetative propagation. 2014D
Ans. Four advantages of vegetative propagation:
(i) Plants grown by vegetative propagation grow much faster than those grown from seeds.
(ii) A large number of plants can be produced by the method of vegetative propagation.
(iii) The plants grown by vegetative propagation usually need less attention in their early years than the
plants grown from seeds.
(iv) Seedless plants can also be grown from this method.

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.22. (a) List two sexually transmitted diseases in each of the following cases: 2011D
(i) Bacterial infections (ii) Viral infections
(b) How may the spread of such diseases be prevented?
Ans. (a) Sexually transmitted diseases:
(i) Bacterial infections. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis
(ii) Viral infections. Warts, AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)
(b) • Barrier method of contraception provides protection against STDs like AIDS, Syphilis etc.

s
• Observing hygienic conditions.

Da
Q.23. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of spreading AIDS.

iv
2011OD

Sh
Ans. HIV. Human Immuno Deficiency Virus
This virus causes AIDS which is an infectious disease.
Modes of spreading AIDS:
(i) The AIDS disease usually spreads through unprotected sexual contact with an infected person
carrying AIDS virus.
(ii) The AIDS disease also spreads through the transfusion of blood contaminated with AIDS virus.
(iii) The AIDS disease also spreads through the use of infected needles for injections.
(iv) An AIDS infected mother can transmit the virus to her child during pregnancy or during birth.
Q.24. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases
caused by (i) virus, (ii) bacteria. Explain how the transmission of such diseases be prevented?
2012D, 2013D, 2015D
Ans. Diseases which are transmitted from an infected person to a healthy person due to sexual contract are
called Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD).
Sexually transmitted diseases caused by
(i) Virus: • AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)
• Genital warts
(ii) Bacteria: • Gonorrhoea • Syphilis
Transmission of such diseases can be prevented by the following ways:
— Screening tests for blood donors — Mutually faithful monogamous relationships
— Educating people in high risk groups — Using condoms etc.
Q.25. (a) State the role of placenta in the development of embryo. 2012OD
(b) What happens when the egg is not fertilised?
Ans. (a) Role of placenta. After implantation, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and
the embryo called placenta.
The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother takes
place through the placenta.
(b) If the egg does not get fertilised (due to non-availability of sperms in the female body) then the thick
and soft inner lining of uterus along with the blood vessels and the dead egg comes out of the vagina
in the form of bleeding called menstruation.
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 119

Q.26. List and explain in brief three methods of contraception. 2012OD


Ans. Three different methods of contraception:
(i) Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps
are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as a barrier
between them.
(ii) Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females. In males, a small
portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. It prevents the egg to reach
the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
(iii) Chemical methods. This category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of the
body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for
preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills.
The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into fallopian tube. This
is also called oral contraceptives (OC).
Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.
Q.27. (a) Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
(b) How is regeneration different from reproduction? 2013D, 2013OD
Ans. (a) Planaria, a flatworm, possesses great power of regeneration. If the body of planaria gets cut into a
number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete planaria by growing all
missing parts.
The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration.

Das
Shiv
(b) Regeneration is different from reproduction because most simple animals would not depend on being
cut into pieces to be able to reproduce.
Q.28. (a) Name the following: 2013D
(i) thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(ii) ‘blobs’ that develop at the tips of the non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(b) Explain the structure and the function of the structures released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus.
Ans. (a) (i) Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus is hyphae.
(ii) Blob like structure at the tip of hyphae is sporangia.
(b) Thread like non-reproductive parts develop on the substrate (like bread) called hyphae. At the tip of
the hyphae tiny blob like structures develop called sporangia which contain spores. These spores can
develop into new Rhizopus individuals. The spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until
they come into contact with another moist bread and can begin to grow.
Q.29. Explain budding in Hydra with the help of diagrams only. 2013OD, 2015D
Ans. Budding in Hydra. Hydra reproduces by budding which is an asexual type of reproduction.
120 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

During this type of reproduction, a bulb like projection arises from the parent body which is known as
bud. The bud may be unicellular or multicellular formed by mitotic division of its cells. This bud then
grows gradually to form a small hydra. And finally, the tiny new hydra detaches itself from the body of
the parent hydra and lives as a separate organism. Thus, the parent hydra produces a new hydra.
Q.30. List any four methods of contraception used by humans.
How does their use have a direct effect on the health and prosperity of the family?
Or
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential for the
health and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle involved in each. 2013OD, 2014D, 2016D
Ans. Methods of Contraception:
(i) Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps
are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as a barrier
between them.
(ii) Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females. In males, a small
portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. This presents the sperms
from coming out. In females a small portion of the fallopian tubes (oviducts) is blocked by a surgical
operation. It prevents the egg to reach the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
(iii) Chemical methods. This category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of the
body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for
preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills.
The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into fallopian tube. This
is also called oral contraceptives (OC).

s
Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

Da
Effect of these methods on health of the family. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spreading

v
of STDs like syphillis, AIDS, etc.

Shi
Effect of these methods on the prosperity of the family. If a couple has less number of children, they can
provide good clothes, good food and a good education to each child. This will make the parents as well as
children happy.
Q.31. Draw diagrams to explain the regeneration that takes place in each of the body parts of planaria when
its body is cut into three pieces. Name any other organism in which a similar process can be observed.
2014D
Ans. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called
regeneration. The simple animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.
Diagram for regeneration in planaria. The process of getting back a full organism
from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like hydra and
planaria show regeneration.
Explanation. If the body of planaria gets cut into a number of pieces, then each
body piece can regenerate into a complete planaria by growing all the missing
parts. The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the
process of growth and development. The cells of cut body part divide rapidly to
make a ball of cells. The cells then become specialised to form different types of
tissues which again form various organs and body parts.
Q.32. (a) Write the names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in
the animals: 2014D
(i) testis (ii) sperm (iii) ovary (iv) egg
(b) State the function of flowers in the flowering plants.
Ans. (a) (i) testis — anther
(ii) sperms — pollen grains
(iii) ovary — ovary
(iv) egg — egg or ovum
(b) The function of flower in flowering plants is to assist in sexual reproduction, i.e., to make male and
female gametes and to ensure that fertilisation will take place to make new seeds for the reproduction
in plants.
Q.33. On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces it was observed that many of these pieces
developed as new individuals. Name the process and list two organisms in which this process may be
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 121

observed. Draw a schematic diagram to illustrate the changes that are likely to be observed during the
development of new individuals in any one of the organisms named. 2014D
Ans. Process is Regeneration.
Examples. The simple animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.
Diagram for Regeneration in Planaria: Refer to Q.31
Q.34. Which species is likely to have better chances of survival—the one reproducing asexually or the one
reproducing sexually? Justify your answer. 2014OD
Ans. The survival of animal reproducing sexually has better chance of survival:
(i) Modes of sexual reproduction allow for greater variations to be generated which are useful for
ensuring the survival of the individuals of species during the struggle for existence. Sexually
reproductive young ones are more healthy than those reproduced by asexual methods.
(ii) In asexual reproduction, the offsprings are almost identical to their parent because they have the
same genes as their parent, so much genetic variation is not possible in asexual reproduction. This is
a disadvantage because it inhibits the further evolution of the organism.
Q.35. List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction. 2015OD
Ans. Characteristics of sexual reproduction are:
(i) In sexual reproduction, two parents are involved (male and female).
(ii) The new organism produced is genetically different from both parents.
(iii) During gamete formation meiosis occurs. After fertilisation all divisions are mitotic.
(iv) Sexual reproduction helps in evolution.
(v) Fertilisation of gametes leads to zygote formation. This zygote grows and develops to form a new
organism.

s
(vi) Humans, fish, dogs, hens, cats, cows, horses, deer, rabbit, lions and tigers all reproduce by the method

Da
of sexual reproduction. Most of the flowering plants also reproduce by sexual reproduction.

v
Q.36. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to

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reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country. 2015OD
Ans. The significance of reproductive health of society are:
(i) Regular medication and check-ups have led to development of reproductive health. Healthy mothers
give birth to healthy children.
(ii) Reproductive health should be maintained in order to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
(iii) Family planning by using various contraceptives enables a couple to decide on the number of
children they want to have and when to have them. If a couple has less number of children they can
provide good food, clothes and education to each child. So a small family is a happy family.
(iv) Having fewer children also keeps the mother in good health. This will reduce the cases of maternal
mortality as well as new born mortality.
Areas which have improved:
(i) Better family planning has led to reduction in family size and better economic stability.
(ii) Decrease in STD cases due to more awareness and wider use of contraceptives.
Q.37. Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one function of each. 2016D

Ans. AÆ Anther. It produces pollen grains which are the male gametes.
B Æ Style. It provides the path through which the pollen tube grows and reaches the ovary.
CÆ Ovary. It contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell/female gamete. It develops into fruit after
fertilization.
Q.38. What is multiple fission? How does it occur in an organism? Explain briefly. Name one organism
which exhibits this type of reproduction. 2016D
Ans. Multiple fission. The process of asexual reproduction in which many individuals are produced from the
parent cell.
Process. Sometimes during unfavourable conditions a protective wall or cyst is formed around the cell of a
122 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

single celled organism (like in plasmodium). Inside the cyst, the nucleus of the cell splits several times to
form many smaller nuclei called daughter nuclei. Each nucleus gathers a bit of cytoplasm around itself,
develops a membrane around each structure. Thus many daughter cells develop which on liberation grow
into adult organisms.
Plasmodium exhibits multiple fission.
Q.39. What are the functions of testes in the human male reproductive system? Why are these located outside
the abdominal cavity? Who is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at the
time of puberty? 2016D
Ans. Functions of testes are:
(i) to make male sex cells (or male gametes) called sperms.
(ii) to make the male sex hormone called testosterone.
(iii) The testes of a man lie in a small muscular pouch called scrotum outside the abdominal cavity of the
body. This is because the sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body
temperature. Being outside the abdominal cavity, the temperature of scrotum is about 3° C lower than
the temperature inside the body and thus the testes are provided an optimal temperature for the
formation of sperms. The male sex hormone testosterone is responsible for bringing about changes in
appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.
Q.40. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species? 2016OD
Ans. The production of new organisms from the existing organisms of the same species is known as
reproduction. It is essential for the survival of a species on earth. It helps in replacing the lost section of the
population due to death and various other causes.
• Populations of organisms live in well defined places called niches in the ecosystem using their ability

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to reproduce.

a
• Reproduction involves DNA copying which is the source of information for making proteins thereby

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controlling body design.

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• These body designs allow the organism to use a particular niche for the stability of the population of

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a species.
• Minor variations may also lead to the stability of the species.
Q.41. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how
regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra. 2016OD
Ans. Regeneration is a mode of asexual reproduction in some organisms. The process of getting back a full
organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple multicellular animals like hydra and
planaria show regeneration.
Regeneration in hydra:
• If the body of hydra gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a
complete hydra by growing all the missing parts.
• The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and
development.
• The cells of cut body parts divide rapidly to make a ball of cells.
• The cells then become specialised to form different types of tissues which again form various organs
and body parts.
Q.42. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual
reproduction. 2016OD
(b)
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 123

(i) Name the part marked ‘A’ in the diagram.


(ii) How does ‘A’ reach part ‘B’?
(iii) State the importance of part ‘C’.
(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after fertilisation is over?
Ans. (a) The appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction is due to the
following reasons:
(i) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of two germ cells produced by two different
individuals. Fusion of the male and female gametes.
(ii) Each time zygote is formed by the new combination of variants.
(b) (i) A fi Pollen grains
(ii) Pollen grains, i.e., ‘A’ reach part ‘B’, i.e., stigma of the carpel by the process of pollination.
Pollination is carried out by insects (like bees, butterfly, etc.), birds, wind, water, etc.
(iii) ‘C’ fi Pollen tube
Pollen tube grows downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Pollen
tube helps the male gamete reach the egg or ovule (female gamete).
(iv) ‘D’ fi Fertilised egg or Zygote
The fertilized egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.
Q.43. In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation.
Also give one example of each. 2016OD
Ans. Difference between Fission and Fragmentation
Fission Fragmentation

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(i) Fission is the process of reproduction in which (i) Fragmentation is the process of breaking up

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a unicellular organism splits (or divides) to of the body of a simple multicellular organism

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form two (or more) new organisms. into two (or more) pieces on maturing, each of

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which subsequently grows to form a complete
new organism.
(ii) Many unicellular organisms like amoeba, (ii) The organisms like spirogyra, sea anemones
paramecium, leishmania, etc. carry out fission. can reproduce by fragmentation.
Q.44. State the basic requirement for sexual reproduction? Write the importance of such reproduction in
nature. 2017D
Ans. The basic requirement for sexual reproduction is sexual interaction of male and female parents to cause
fusion of male gamete with female gamete to form zygote. Then from the zygote develops the new child.
Importance of such reproduction. Such sexual reproduction leads to more variation in the offsprings for
their successful living in the changing environmental conditions. More variations also lead to evolution of
new species after some generations. It leads to diversity in the population which helps in natural selection.
Q.45. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is
not meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and
prosperity of a family? 2017OD
Ans. Three techniques to prevent pregnancy are:
(i) Barrier method. Use of condoms either by male or female during sexual mating.
(ii) Use of copper-T device by the females in their uterus.
(iii) Surgical method by male or female.
Use of copper-T is not meant for males. By use of these techniques a family will have lesser number of
children so their economic condition will be better. Such family will have healthy children as lesser
number of children in a family will get more attention from the parents and will be cared for in a better
way. It also helps to control the population.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.46. (a) Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label on it sepal, petal, ovary and stigma.
(b) Write the names of male and female reproductive parts of a flower. 2011D
124 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans.

Longitudinal section of a flower


(b) Male reproductive part. Stamen
Female reproductive part. Carpel
Q.47. (a) What is fragmentation in organisms? Name a multicellular organism which reproduces by this
method.
(b) What is regeneration in organisms? Describe regeneration in Planaria with the help of a suitable
diagram. 2011D
Ans. (a) Fragmentation. It occurs in multicellular organisms with relatively simple
body organisation, for example, in spirogyra (an algae plant). The body breaks
up on maturation into two or more smaller pieces and each piece then
develops into a new individual.
(b) The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called

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regeneration. The simple animals like hydra and planaria show

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regeneration.

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Explanation. If the body of planaria gets cut into a number of pieces, then

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each body piece can regenerate into a complete planaria by growing all the
missing parts. The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs
by the process of growth and development. The cells of cut body part divide rapidly to make a ball of
cells. The cells then become specialised to form different types of tissues which again form various
organs and body parts.
Q.48. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of budding in Hydra. 2011OD
Ans. Hydra reproduces by budding which is an asexual type of reproduction.

During this type of reproduction, a bulb like projection arises from the parent body which is known as
bud. The bud may be unicellular or multicellular formed by mitotic division of its cells. This bud then
grows gradually to form a small hydra. And finally, the tiny new hydra detaches itself from the body of
the parent hydra and lives as a separate organism. Thus, the parent hydra produces a new hydra.
Q.49. What is binary fission in organisms? With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of
reproduction in Amoeba. 2011OD
Ans. Binary fission. Binary fission is an asexual method of reproduction in which the parent organism splits to
form two new daughter organisms.
Reproduction in amoeba. Unicellular organisms like amoeba and paramecium reproduce by binary fission.
During this reproduction process, first the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei followed by the
division of cytoplasm.
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 125

Q.50. Define the terms pollination and fertilisation. Draw a diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth
into the ovule and label the following:
pollen grain, male gamete, female gamete, ovary. 2012D
Ans. Pollination: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a
carpel. Pollination occurs only in plants. Pollination can occur in two ways:
(a) self pollination and (b) cross pollination. It is a physical process.
Fertilisation: The fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete to form zygote is called fertilisation.
Fertilisation occurs in plants as well as in animals. Fertilisation is also of two types: (a) external fertilisation
and (b) internal fertilisation. It is a biochemical process.
Diagram:

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Q.51. Describe in brief the role of (i) testis (ii) seminal vesicle, (iii) vas deferens, (iv) ureter and (v) prostate
gland in human male reproductive system. 2012D
Ans. Role in human male reproductive system:
(i) Testis. Testis is the main reproduction organ of the male reproductive system. There are two testes
located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because sperm forma-tion requires a lower
temperature than the normal body temperature. So testis pro-duces male germ cells (sperms). Testis
also produces male sex hormone (testosterone).
(ii) Seminal vesicle. Seminal vesicle is a pair of male reproductive glands present between the rectum
and urinary bladder. It secretes seminal fluid which is alkaline and neutralises the acidity of urine
and activates sperms.
(iii) Vas deferens. Vas deferens or sperm duct is a long tube which joins the testes with another tube
called urethra coming from the bladder. The sperms formed in the testis are delivered through the vas
deferens to urethra.
(iv) Ureter. These are a pair of long, narrow, thin-walled and tubular structures which start from the
hilum of the kidneys, run downward and open in urinary bladder. These conduct the urine from the
kidneys to urinary bladder.
(v) Prostate gland. It is a single, large sized & lobulated gland present just below the urinary bladder. It
adds its secretion to the seminal fluid which provides nutrition to the sperms.
Q.52. Distinguish between unisexual and bisexual flowers giving one example of each. Draw a diagram
showing the process of germination of pollen grains on stigma and label the following parts:
(i) Female germ cell; (ii) Male germ cell; (iii) Ovary 2012OD
126 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Difference between Unisexual and Bisexual flowers


Unisexual flowers Bisexual flowers
The flowers which contain only one sex organ, The flowers which contain both the sex organs,
either stamen or carpel are called unisexual stamen as well as carpel are called bisexual
flowers. flowers.
Example: The flowers of papaya and watermelon Example: The flowers of hibiscus and mustard
are unisexual flowers. plants are bisexual flowers.
Diagram. Refer to Q.50
Q.53. Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the part
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place.
(iii) where zygote is implanted.
What happens to human egg when it is not fertilised? 2012OD
Ans. Human female reproductive system:
(i) part that produces eggs—Ovary
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place—Fallopian tube
(iii) where zygote is implanted—Uterus

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When human egg is not fertilised then the thick and soft inner lining of uterus is no longer needed and
hence it breaks down in the form of vaginal bleeding known as menstruation. Unfertilized egg also passes
out along with menstrual bleeding.
Q.54. (a) List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction. 2014OD
(b) Explain why more variations are observed in the offsprings of sexually reproducing organisms?
2013D
Ans. Difference between Unisexual and Bisexual flowers
(a) Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
(i) Only one organism is required. (i) Two separate individuals, male and female
are required.
(ii) New organism produced is genetically (ii) New organism produced is genetically
similar to the parent organism. different from both.
(iii) All divisions involved are mitotic. (iii) During gamete formation meiosis occurs.
After fertilization, all divisions are mitotic
(iv) It dos not help in evolution. (iv) It helps in evolution.
(b) Reason. There is always a possibility of diversity of characters in the offsprings because the offspring
is formed as a result of fusion of two gametes produced by two different individuals—the male and
the female parents. So there is an opportunity for new combinations of characters.
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 127

Q.55. (a) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and write their functions. 2013D, 2015D

(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms.
Ans. (a) A—Stigma. The top part of carpel is called stigma. Stigma is for receiving the pollen grains from the
anther of stamen during pollination.
B—Pollen tube. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma, it bursts open and grows a pollen tube
downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. A male gamete moves down
the pollen tube.
C—Female gamete (ovum). It is a special reproductive female sex cell which combines with male

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gamete to form zygote.

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(b) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of special reproductive cells called sex cells.

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These cells are of two types—male sex cells and female sex cells, which are coming from two different

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parents—a male and a female. The cells involved in sexual reproduction are called gametes. In sexual
reproduction, a male gamete fuses with a female gamete to form a new cell called zygote. This zygote
then grows and develops into a new organism in due course of time.
Q.56. (a) What is placenta? Explain its function in human female. 2013D, OD
(b) List four ways of preventing pregnancy. State two advantages of using such preventive methods.
Ans. (a) After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from
the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded
in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood
spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass
from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition.
(b) Methods to prevent pregnancy:
(i) Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical
caps are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as
a barrier between them.
(ii) Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females. In males, a
small portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. It prevents the
egg to reach the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
(iii) Chemical methods. This category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of
the body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of
pills for preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills.
The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into fallopian tube.
This is also called oral contraceptives (OC).
Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.
Advantages of using preventive methods:
(i) Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spreading of sexually transmitted diseases like
syphillis, AIDS etc.
(ii) Contraceptive methods are also used to control human population by checking the unwanted
pregnancies during sexual activities.
Q.57. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the following parts:
(i) Where the development of egg occurs. (ii) Where fertilisation takes place.
128 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) Describe the changes the uterus undergoes:


(i) to receive the zygote. (ii) if zygote is not formed. 2013D, 2014OD
Ans. (a) Human female reproductive system. Refer to Q.53
Parts where:
(i) Development of egg occurs—Ovary
(ii) Fertilisation takes place—Fallopian tube
(b) (i) When the uterus receives the zygote, zygote divides rapidly by mitosis and forms a hollow ball of
hundreds of cells called embryo which gets embedded in the thick lining of the uterus. This
process is called implantation. After implantation, a disc like special tissue develops between the
uterus wall and the embryo which is called placenta. The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and
waste products between the embryo and the mother takes place through placenta.
(ii) If zygote is not received by the uterus, then the thick and soft uterus lining having lot of blood
capillaries in it is not required. The unfertilised ovum dies within a day and the uterus lining also
breaks down. The breaking of the uterus lining produces blood along with tissues in the form of
bleeding through the vagina. This vaginal bleeding is called menstrual flow or menstruation.
Unfertilized egg also passes out along with menstrual bleeding.
Q.58. Write the two causes of human population explosion. Explain with the help of suitable examples how
this explosion can be checked. 2013OD
Ans. There are three main causes of human population explosion:
(i) Decline in death rate from 13.8 per 1,000 in 1985 to 8 per 1,000 in 2001.
(ii) Increase in longevity.
(iii) Increase in birth rate.

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The uncontrolled growth of human population causes many socio-economic problems. To mitigate the

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various ill-effects of increasing population, there is a need of population control by reducing the birth rate

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through family planning programmes.

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(i) By adopting various methods of contraception:
• Barrier methods—Physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps are used.
• Surgical methods
• Chemical methods—Oral and vaginal pills used by females.
(ii) People in reproductive age group should be educated about the advantages of a small family with the
help of mass media like radio, T.V., newspapers, etc. and educational institutions.
(iii) Marriage age should be increased.
(iv) Social organisations should be involved in family planning programmes.
(v) Literacy rate, especially that of females should be increased.
Q.59. What is pollination? How does it occur in plants? How does pollination lead to fertilization? Explain.
2013OD
Ans. The transfer of pollen grains from anthers (male sexual parts) of a flower to the stigma part of the pistil
(female sexual part) is known as pollination. Pollination is done by insects, birds, wind and water.
Pollination can occur in two ways:
(i) Self pollination. When the pollen grains from the anther of a flower are transferred to the stigma of
the same flower or another flower on the same plant, it is called self pollination.
(ii) Cross pollination. When the pollen grains from the anther of a flower on one plant are transferred to
the stigma of a flower on another similar plant, it is called cross pollination.
When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it grows a pollen tube downwards through the style
towards the female gamete in the ovary. A male gamete moves down the tube. When the pollen tube
enters the ovule, its tip bursts open and male gamete comes out of the pollen tube and combines with the
nucleus of the female gamete and forms zygote. This process is known as fertilization.
Q.60. (a) Give one example each of a unisexual and a bisexual flower.
(b) Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilisation.
(c) How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of
DNA copies of two individuals? 2014D
Ans. (a) Unisexual Flower — Papaya Bisexual Flower — Hibiscus
(b) After fertilisation, the fertilised egg divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The
ovule develops a tough coat around it and is gradually converted into a seed (containing the baby
plant along with food). The ovary of flower develops and becomes a fruit (with seeds inside it). The
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 129

other parts of flower like sepals, petals, stamens, stigma and style dry up and fall off. Only the ovary
is left behind.
(c) In sexual reproduction, though the genetic material DNA from two gametes, male and female
gametes, combine together to form a new cell ‘zygote’ but the amount of DNA in zygote does not get
doubled. This is because the gametes are special type of cells which contain only half the amount of
DNA as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So the new cell zygote formed by two
gametes cells will have the normal amount of DNA.
Q.61. (a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system:
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place, and
(iii) where zygote get implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted. 2014D
Ans. (a) Part of human female reproductive system:
(i) that produces eggs—Ovary
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place—Fallopian tube
(iii) where zygote get implanted—Uterus
(b) After zygote gets implanted, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and embryo
(foetus) which is called placenta. The foetus is connected to the placenta in the mother’s body through
the umbilical cord. The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and
the mother takes place through the placenta.
Q.62. (a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and secretes a
hormone. Name the hormone secreted and state its function? 2014D

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(b) Write the site of fertilization and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human female.

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Ans. (a) Testes is the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and secretes male sex hormone—

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testosterone. The function of testosterone hormone is to control the development of male sex organs

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and male features such as deeper voice, moustache, beard and more body hair during male puberty.
(b) • Site of fertilisation: Fallopian Tube.
• Zygote gets implanted in uterus of human female.
Q.63. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a hormone.
Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where
(i) fertilisation takes place,
(ii) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.
Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body. 2015OD, 2017D
Ans. (a) Testis produces sperms and secretes male hormone—testosterone.
Function of testosterone hormone is to control the development of male sex organs and male features
such as deeper voice, moustaches, body hair, etc. All these changes caused by testosterone are
associated with male puberty which the boys attains at an age of 13 to 14 years. It also controls the
formation of male gamete, i.e., sperm.
(b) (i) Fertilisation takes place in fallopian tube (oviduct).
(ii) Implantation of the fertilised egg occurs in the uterus.
Nourishment of embryo. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The
embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is
a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On
the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for
glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition.
Q.64. (a) Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus (iv) Fallopian tube
How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother's body? Explain in brief.
(b) Describe the structure and function of placenta. 2015D, 2016D, 2017OD
Ans. (a) (i) Ovary. The ovaries produce thousands of eggs in the female body.
• It produces female hormones called estrogen.
• It produces female gamete ova.
130 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) Oviduct
• Transfer of female gamete (egg) from the ovary to the uterus takes place through the oviduct
(or fallopian tube).
• The fertilisation of egg (or ovum) by a sperm takes place in the oviduct.
(iii) Uterus. The growth and development of a fertilised ovum into a baby takes place in the uterus.
(iv) Fallopian tube. This is the site of fertilisation of the egg with sperm (male gamete). It also helps
in the transfer of female gamete from the ovary.
After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the
mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the
uterine wall. It contains finger-like projections called villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the
mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and
oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, the embryo gets its nutrition.
(b) Structure of placenta. Placenta is the link between the mother’s body and the baby (embryo). It is a
disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall connected to the embryo. It has villi on the embryo’s
side of the tissue and on the mother’s side, it has blood spaces which surround the villi.
Function of placenta. It provides a large surface area for nutrients (glucose) and oxygen to pass from
the mother’s side to the embryo and waste substances from the embryo’s side to the mother’s blood.
Q.65. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.
2016OD
Ans. Placenta. It is a special tissue that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood. It
serves as a link between the mother’s body and the baby.

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Structure and function. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo

a
gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which

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is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains thousands of villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue, on the

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mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose,
nutrients and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition. The
wastes produced by the foetus are also removed through the placenta. It also functions as an endocrine
gland and secretes hormones necessary for maintaining pregnancy.

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: Binary Fission in Amoeba and Budding in Yeast
Q.1. What is binary fission? Name any two organisms that reproduce by binary fission.
Ans. Binary fission is a mode of asexual reproduction in which a parent cell divides to form two small, nearly
equal sized daughter individuals. Amoeba and Paramecium reproduce by binary fission.
Q.2. Give various steps of budding in yeast.
Ans. • A small bud-like outgrowth develops on the parent cell.
• Bud enlarges in size.
• Nucleus enlarges and divides into two.
• One nucleus goes into developing bud.
• Bud detaches from parent cell.
Q.3. Name the process of asexual reproduction shown by yeast. What type of living being is yeast? What is
its commercial importance?
Ans. Yeast reproduces by method of budding. Yeast is a unicellular fungus.
Yeast forms lots of buds in the sugar solution. These buds become young yeast cells which change sugar of
the solution to produce ethyl alcohol by fermentation in the distilleries.
Q.4. Name two types of fissions. Name two living beings of each type which reproduce by these methods of
fission.
Ans. Two types of fissions are:
(i) Binary Fission (ii) Multiple Fission
Chapter 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? „ 131

Two examples of binary fission—Amoeba and Paramecium


Two types of multiple fission are—Plasmodium and Spirogyra
Q.5. Differentiate between binary fission and multiple fission.
Ans. Binary fission Multiple fission
One parent cell divides into two equal sized Parent cell divides into several equal sized
identical daughter individuals. daughter individuals.
Example: Amoeba and Paramecium. Example: Plasmodium.
Q.6. What do you observe on seeing the slides showing reproduction in amoeba? What is the name given
to this method of reproduction in Amoeba?
Ans. On observing this slide, we see different stages under which the nucleus of amoeba cell is dividing into
two parts.
Method of reproduction in amoeba. Binary fission
Q.7. Name the type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and
the parental identity is lost.
Draw the initial and the final stages of this type of reproduction. State the event with which this
reproduction starts.
Ans. • Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single
parent and the parental identity is lost.
• This reproduction starts with the elongation of the nucleus.
• Stages of Binary fission in Amoeba:

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Q.8. Students were asked to observe the permanent slides showing different stages of budding in yeast
under high power of a microscope.
(a) Which adjustment screw (coarse/fine) were you asked to move to focus the slides?
(b) Draw three diagrams in correct sequence showing budding in yeast.
Ans. (a) A fine adjustment screw is moved to focus the slides.
(b)
Developing bud New bud
Yeast cell
Chain
of buds

Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3

➜ EXPERIMENT: Dicot seed


Q.9. What are the various parts of an embryo of a dicot seed?
Ans. The embryo is differentiated into three parts—plumule, radicle and cotyledons. Plumule is upper
terminal part of embryo which elongates and develops into future shoot. The lower end of embryo is
radicle. Radicle develops into future root. Seed leaves are called cotyledons.
Q.10. What are cotyledons? What is their function in a seed? How is bean seed different from maize seed on
the basis of number of cotyledons?
Ans. Cotyledons are the part of embryo which provide nourishment to developing embryo during
germination. Cotyledons contain food for the baby plant. Bean seed has two cotyledons while maize seed
has only one cotyledon.
132 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.11. What do you understand by the terms: hypocotyl and epicotyl?


Ans. The portion of embryonal axis which lies below the cotyledon in a dicot embryo is called hypocotyl. It
terminates with radicle.
Epicotyl is the portion of embryonal axis which lies above the cotyledons in a dicot embryo. It terminates
with plumule.
Q.12. Mention the different steps of germination of seed in correct order.
Ans. (i) Absorption of water by seeds.
(ii) Rupture of seed coat.
(iii) Emergence of radicle.
(iv) Emergence of plumule.
(v) Development of radicle into baby root.
(vi) Development of plumule into shoot.
Q.13. Differentiate between plumule and radicle.
Ans. Plumule Radicle
(i) During germination, it emerges after (i) It emerges first.
emergence of radicle.
(ii) It develops into shoot. (ii) It develops into root.

####

Das
Shiv
CHAPTER 9
HEREDITY AND
EVOLUTION
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Genetics. Branch of science that deals with heredity and variation.
☞ Heredity. It means the transmission of features/characters/traits from one generation to the next
generation.
☞ Variation. The differences among the individuals of a species/population are called variations.
☞ Mendel and his work on Inheritance.
Gregor Johann Mendel started his experiments on plant breeding and hybridisation. Mendel was
known as the Father of Genetics.
The plant selected by Mendel was Pisum sativum (garden pea). Mendel used a number of contrasting
characters for garden pea.
☞ Sex Determination. Phenomenon of decision or determination of sex of an offspring.
☞ Factors Responsible for Sex Determination:
(i) Environmental. In some animals the temperature at which the fertilised eggs are kept decides the
gender. Example, in turtle.
(ii) Genetic. In some animals like humans gender of individual is determined by a pair of
chromosomes called sex chromosomes (XX – female; XY – male).
Sex Chromosomes. In human beings there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of these 22
chromosome pairs are called autosomes and the last pair of chromosomes that help in deciding
gender of that individual are called sex chromosome.
XX – female; XY – male
The cross done shows that half the children will be boys and half will be girls. All children will
inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless whether they are boys or girls. Thus sex of
children will be determined by what they inherit from their father, and not from their mother.
☞ Acquired Traits:
(i) These are the traits which are developed in an individual due to special conditions.
(ii) They cannot be transferred to the progeny.
(iii) They cannot direct evolution, example, low weight of starving beetles.
☞ Inherited Traits:
(i) These are the traits which are passed from one generation to the next.
(ii) They get transferred to the progeny.
(iii) They are helpful in evolution, example, colour of eyes and hair.
☞ Micro evolution. It is the evolution which takes place on a small scale. Example, change in body colour
of beetles.

Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 133


134 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

☞ Speciation. It is the process of formation of new species. Species is a group of similar individuals that
belong to a population that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. Speciation takes place when
variation is combined with geographical isolation.
☞ Gene flow. It is exchange of genetic material by interbreeding between populations of same species or
individuals. Gene flow occurs between populations that are partly but not completely separated.
☞ Genetic Drift. It is the random change in the frequency of alleles (gene pair) in a population over
successive generations.
Genetic drift takes place due to:
— severe changes in the DNA.
— change in number of chromosomes.
☞ Natural Selection. The process by which nature selects and consolidates those organisms which are
more suitably adapted and possesses favorable variations.
☞ Evolution and classification. Both evolution and classification are interlinked.
— Classification of species is a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.
— The more characteristics two species have in common the more closely they are related.
— The more closely they are related, the more recently they have a common ancestor.
— Similarities among organisms allow us to group them together and to study their characteristics.
☞ Tracing Evolutionary Relationships:
I. Homologous Organs. Morphological and anatomical evidences. These are the organs that have
same basic structural plan and origin but different functions.

as
Example, forelimb of horse (running), wings of bat (flying), paw of a cat (walk/scratch/attack)—

D
same basic structure but different functions.

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II. Analogous Organs. These are the organs that have different origin and structural plan but same
functions.
Example, wings of bat (elongated fingers with skin folds), wings of bird (feathery covering along the
arm)—different structures but same functions.
III. Fossils. The remains and relics of dead organisms that lived in the remote past. Fossils provide
evidence of evolution. Example, a fossil called Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but
teeth and tail like reptiles hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.
☞ Artificial Selection. Humans have been a powerful agent in modifying wild species to suit their own
requirement throughout ages by using artificial selection. Example, wheat (many varieties obtained due
to artificial selection).

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea
plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short.
This suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as
(a) TTWW (b) TTww (c) TtWW (d) TtWw
Ans. (c) TtWW
Q.2. An example of homologous organs is
(a) our arm and a dog’s fore-leg. (b) our teeth and an elephant’s tusks.
(c) potato and runners of grass. (d) all of the above.
Ans. (c) All of the above.
Q.3. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with
(a) a Chinese school-boy. (b) a chimpanzee.
(c) a spider. (d) a bacterium.
Ans. (d) a Chinese school-boy
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 135

Q.4. A study found that children with light-coloured eyes are likely to have parents with light-coloured
eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye-colour trait is dominant or
recessive? Why or why not?
Ans. Since the children of parents with light-coloured eyes were born with light-coloured eyes, this does not
mean, that light colour of eyes is a dominant trait. As complete genotype of parents is not given.
Q.5. How are the areas of study—evolution and classification—interlinked?
Ans. Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences among them. Similarities
among organisms will allow us to group them and study the groups and classify them. Some basic
characteristics will be shared by most organisms. The more characteristics two species will have in
common, the more closely they are related. The more closely they are related, the more recently they will
have had a common ancestor. So we can say that classification of a species is in fact a reflection of their
evolutionary relationship.
Q.6. Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples. (CBSE 2008 OD)
Ans. • Analogous organs. Those organs which have different basic structure but have similar appearance
and perform similar functions are called analogous organs.
e.g. Æ the wings of an insect and bird have different structure but perform the same function of
flying.
• Homologous organs. Those organs which have the same basic structure but different functions are
called homologous organs.
e.g. Æ the forelimbs of man, a lizard, a frog, a bird and a bat seem to be built from the same basic
design of bones but they perform different functions. The forelimbs of a human are used for grasping,
the forelimbs of a lizard are used for running, the forelimbs of a bird and a bat are used for flying.

as
Q.7. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat colour in dogs.

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Ans. Let us select black and white coat colour for the study of inheritance of coat colour in dogs. Now perform

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the following crosses:

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(i) Mate a pure black dog with a pure white female dog.
(ii) Mate a pure white dog with a pure black female dog.
Now note the colour of the progeny.
If the progeny is all black, then the black colour may be dominant. If the progeny is all white, then white
colour may be dominant. If only one colour appears in F1, allow them to mate among themselves. In F2
progeny, recessive colour should reappear. If some other colour appears, then coat colour has some other
inheritance mechanism.
Q.8. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships.
Ans. Fossils are the remains or impressions of dead plants or animals which died millions of years ago. The
study of fossils helps us to know about the evolution of species. Fossils tell us how new species are evolved
from the old. Therefore, fossils have an importance in deciding evolutionary relationship.
Q.9. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Ans. An experiment conducted by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953 proved that origin of life takes
place from inanimate matter. They assembled an apparatus to create an early earth like atmosphere which
was supposed to consist of gases like methane, ammonia and hydrogen sulphide but no oxygen and water.
This was maintained at a temperature just below 100°C and sparks were passed through the mixture of
gases to simulate lightning. At the end of a week, 15% of the carbon (from methane) had been converted to
simple compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules in the living beings.
Q.10. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction. How
does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce sexually?
Ans. Sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction. In asexual
reproduction, the offsprings are almost identical to their parents, because they have the same genes as their
parents. Much genetic variation is not possible in asexual reproduction.
In sexual reproduction, there is always a possibility of diversity of characters in the offspring because the
offspring is formed as a result of fusion of two gametes produced by two different individuals—the male
and the female parents. There is every opportunity for new combinations of characters. Sexual
Reproduction leads to variation which is so essential for evolution and the origin of new species.
Q.11. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
Ans. All human chromosomes are not paired. Most human chromosomes have a maternal and a paternal copy.
136 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

We have 22 such pairs. These pairs contain half chromosomes from mother and half from father. But one
pair of chromosomes is called the sex chromosomes which is not always a perfect pair.
At the time of sex determination, the egg cell fuses with the sperm cell which are haploid to form zygote.
Zygote is diploid which contains 23 chromosomes from mother and 23 from father. In this way, an equal
genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the progeny.
Q.12. “Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population.” Do
you agree with this statement? Why or why not? (CBSE 2008 C)
Ans. The greatest advantage of variation to a species is that, it increases the chances of its survival in a changing
environment. For example, the accumulation of heat resistant variation in some bacteria will ensure its
survival even when the temperature in the environment rises too much due to a heat wave. On the other
hand, the bacteria which do not have this variation to withstand heat will not survive.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. What is speciation? 2013D, 2015D
Ans. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.
Q.2. List any two factors that could lead to speciation. 2013D
Ans. Two factors that could lead to speciation:

s
(i) Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers (such as mountain range,

a
rivers and sea). This leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow of genes between

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separated groups of population.

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(ii) Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.

Sh
Q.3. Why is DNA copying necessary during reproduction? 2013OD
Ans. DNA copying is essential during reproduction for the inheritance of features from parents to the next
generation.
Q.4. Give the respective scientific terms used for studying: 2014D
(i) the mechanism by which variations are created and inherited and
(ii) the development of new type of organisms from the existing ones.
Ans. (i) Reproduction (ii) Speciation
Q.5. Name the information source for making proteins in the cells. 2014D
Ans. DNA—(Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid) is the information source for making proteins in the cells.
Q.6. Write the contribution of Charles Darwin in the field of ‘evolution’. 2014D
Ans. • Charles Robert Darwin gave the theory of evolution in his famous book “The Origin of Species”.
• The theory of evolution proposed by Darwin is known as “The Theory of Natural Selection”.
• This theory suggests that the best adapted organisms are selected by nature to pass on their
characteristics to the next generation.
Q.7. What is gene? 2014OD
Ans. A gene is a unit of DNA on a chromosome which governs the synthesis of one protein that controls a
specific character of an organism. Thus genes are actually units of heredity which transfer characteristics
from parents to their offsprings during reproduction.
Q.8. What is heredity? 2014OD
Ans. The transmission of characters from the parents to their offspring is called heredity.
Q.9. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why? 2013, 2014OD
Ans. DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction for the inheritance of features from parents
to the next generation. The process of DNA copying brings some variation each time. The surviving cells
are similar to but subtly different from each other. This in built tendency for variation during reproduction
brings variations among individuals of the same species. Thus, no two individuals are absolutely alike in a
population.
Q.10. Where is DNA found in a cell? 2015OD
Ans. DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell.
Q.11. What is DNA? 2016D
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 137

Ans. DNA. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a genetic material found in all the living organisms.
It is the carrier of hereditary information from parents to the next generation.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.12. “DNA copies generated during reproduction will be similar but may not be identical to the original.”
Justify the statement. 2012OD
Ans. A basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy. This is necessary to produce organisms which
are similar to their parents. DNA copying is accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular
apparatus. When two DNA copies separate, each with its own cellular apparatus by cellular division, so
from one cell, two cells are produced. The process of copying of DNA brings some variations each time.
Thus the surviving cells are similar to but subtly different from each other. This inbuilt tendency for
variation during reproduction brings variations among the individuals of the same species.
Q.13. “The chromosomals number of the sexually reproducing parents and their offspring is the same.”
Justify this statement. 2013D, 2014OD
Ans. In sexual reproduction, though the genetic material DNA (in the form of chromosomes) from two gametes,
male and female gametes, combines together to form a new cell ‘zygote’ but the amount of DNA (the
number of chromosomes) in the zygote does not get doubled because gametes are the special type of cells
called reproductive cells which contain only half the amount of DNA (or half the number of chromosomes)
as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So when a male gamete (having half number of
chromosomes of the organism) combines with a female gamete (which also contain half the number of
chromosomes) during sexual reproduction, then the new cell zygote will have the normal amount of DNA

s
or normal number of chromosomes in it.

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Q.14. State the importance of chromosomal difference between sperms and eggs of humans.

v
2013OD, 2014OD

Shi
Ans. A male has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Thus half the sperms will have X chromosomes
and the other half will have Y chromosome.
A female has two X chromosomes. So all the female gametes will have only X chromosomes.
If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes an ovum then the child born will be a girl. If a sperm carrying
Y chromosome fertilizes an ovum then the child born will be a boy.
Thus the chromosomal difference between sperms and eggs of humans determines the sex of the child.

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.15. Define homologous and analogous organs. 2011D
Classify the following as homologous or analogous organs:
(i) Wings of an insect and wings of bat.
(ii) Forelimbs of a man and forelimbs of a frog.
Ans. Homologous organs: Those organs which have the same basic structure or same basic design but different
functions, are called homologous organs.
Analogous organs: Those organs which have different basic structure or different basic design but have
similar appearance and perform similar functions are called analogous organs.
(i) These are analogous organs.
(ii) These are homologous organs.
Q.16. Explain how equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the progeny. 2011D
Ans. Both the parents contribute equal DNA material to progeny. Every sexually reproducing organism bears
two sets of all genes, one inherited from each parent. Each germ cell must have only one gene set. Thus the
male gamete and female gamete carry one gene for each characteristic from the gene pairs of parents. But
when a male gamete fuses with a female gamete during fertilisation, they make a new cell called zygote
with a full set of genes. Thus zygote grows and develops to form a new organism having equal
characteristics from both the parents which it has inherited through genes.
Q.17. Explain the terms: (i) Speciation; (ii) Natural selection. 2011D; 2015OD
Ans. (i) Speciation. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as
speciation.
138 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

The important factors which could lead to the formation of new species are:
• Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like mountain ranges,
rivers, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no
flow of genes between separated groups of population.
• Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
• Variations caused in individuals due to natural selection.
(ii) Natural selection. Natural selection is the process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics
which help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their offsprings and those
characteristics which do not help are not passed on.
Q.18. Explain with examples how the following are evidences in favour of evolution in organisms.
(i) Homologous organs (ii) Analogous organs (iii) Fossils 2011D, 2015OD
Ans. (i) Homologous organs. Those organs, which have the same basic structure but different functions, are
called homologous organs.
For example: The forelimbs of a man, a lizard, a frog, a bird and a bat have the same basic design of
bones but they perform different functions.
The presence of homologous organs in different animals provides evidence for evolution that they are
derived from the same ancestor who has the basic design of the organ on which all the homologous
organs are based.
(ii) Analogous organs. Those organs, which have different basic structure but have similar appearance
and perform similar functions are called analogous organs.
For example: The wings of an insect and a bird have different structures but they perform the same
function of flying.

s
Analogous organs provide evidence for evolution that the organisms from different ancestors

Da
perform similar functions to survive, flourish and keep on evolving in prevailing environment.

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(iii) Fossils. The remains of dead animals or plants that lived in the remote past are known as fossils. The

Shi
fossils provide evidence for evolution.
For example: A fossil of a bird called Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it has many other features
found in reptiles. Therefore Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and birds and
hence suggests that the birds have evolved from the reptiles.
Q.19. Explain Mendel’s view of a dominant trait. Give an example. 2011D
Ans. According to Mendel’s view of dominant trait, the traits of an Tall pea plant Dwarf pea plant
organism are determined by internal factors which occur in TT × tt
pairs. Out of two contrasting traits only one expresses itself in an
individual. This trait is called dominant, while the other which
has not shown its effect in the presence of dominant trait is T t
called recessive.
T t —F1 Generation
Example, When true bred tall pea plants are crossed with true All plants are tall externally
bred dwarf plants, the plants that appeared in F1 generation are
tall, although they have received a factor (trait) from dwarf plant. So trait of tallness is dominant one.
However this recessive hidden character reappeared, unchanged in F2 generation.
Q.20. Describe any three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population.
2011OD
Ans. The three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population:
(i) Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers such as mountain ranges,
rivers and seas, etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation and the individuals
with a particular trait may increase in population.
(ii) The struggle for survival within populations eliminates unfit individuals. Fit individuals (i.e.,
favourable trait) survive and reproduce. In other words, the variation if given survival advantage, it
will be naturally selected.
(iii) Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
Q.21. State the evidence we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter. 2011OD
Ans. An experiment conducted by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953 proved that origin of life takes
place from inanimate matter. They assembled an apparatus to create an early earth like atmosphere which was
supposed to consist of gases like methane, ammonia and hydrogen sulphide but no oxygen, over water.
This was maintained at a temperature just below 100ºC and sparks were passed through the mixture of
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 139

gases to simulate lightning. At the end of a week, 15% of the carbon (from methane) had been converted to
complex compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules in the living
beings.
Q.22. (a) “The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
mother.” Justify.
(b) Give an example where environmental factors like temperature determines the sex of the
offspring. 2011OD
Ans. (a) • A male has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
• A female has two X chromosomes.
• If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child born will be a girl.
• If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child born will be a boy.
Thus, the sperm determines the sex of the child.
(b) In some reptiles, the temperature at which the fertilised egg is incubated before hatching plays a role
in determining the sex of the offspring.
Example: In a turtle, high incubation temperature leads to female offspring.
Q.23. Explain various stages of evolution? 2011OD
Ans. Various stages of evolution:
(i) Complex organs may have evolved because of the survival advantages of the intermediate stage.
(ii) Complex organs like eyes are created bit by bit over generations through the changes in the DNA
sequences.
(iii) The structure of the eye in all organisms is different enough to have separate evolutionary origin.
(iv) Organs may be adapted to new functions during the course of evolution, e.g., feathers are thought to

as
have evolved for warmth and later adapted for flight.

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(v) Some dissimilar looking structures also evolved from a common ancestor, e.g., different vegetation

Shiv
like cauliflower, cabbage, broccoli, kale, etc. are generated by artificial selection from wild cabbage.
(vi) Changes in DNA during reproduction are the basic events of evolution.
Q.24. Give an example of body characteristics used to determine how close two species are in terms of
evolution and explain it. 2011OD
Ans. The presence of feathers in dinosaurs and birds indicates that they are evolutionarily related. Dinosaurs
had feathers not for flying but instead these feathers provided insulation to these warm-blooded animals.
However, the feathers in birds are used for flight. This proves that reptiles and birds are closely related
and that the evolution of wings started in reptiles.
Q.25. What are homologous organs? Can the wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bat be regarded as
homologous? Why? 2011OD
Ans. Those organs which have the same basic structure but different functions are called homologous organs.
The wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bat cannot be regarded as homologous because they have
different basic design though they are used for the same purpose of flying. They are rather analogous
organs.
Q.26. (a) Name any four varieties of vegetables which have been produced from ‘wild cabbage’ by the
process of artificial selection.
(b) Give one example of an evolutionary change produced in an organism for one purpose which later
on becomes more useful for a different function. 2012D
Ans. (a) Cabbage, broccoli, kale, kohlrabi are evolved from wild cabbage by artificial selection.
(b) Sometimes an evolutionary change produced in an organism for one purpose later on becomes more
useful for an entirely different function. For example: Birds have evolved feathers as a means of
providing insulation to their bodies in cold weather but later on these feathers became more useful for
the purpose of flying.
Q.27. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant denoted
by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are
self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny. 2012D, 2013OD, 2015OD
140 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (a) Blue flower × White flower

BB bb

B B b b

Bb Bb Bb Bb
F1 generation: Blue Blue Blue Blue
All the flowers in the F1 generation are blue.
(b) If flowers of F1 plants are self-pollinated
(F1 generation Blue × Blue
phenotype)
Bb Bb Factors of
inheritance

B b B b Gametes

Cross of gametes
during fertilization
BB Bb Bb bb F2 genotype

as
F2 generation: Blue Blue Blue White ←⎯⎯ ⎯ F2 phenotype

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Ratio of (blue flower plant) to (white flower plant) = 3 : 1

Shiv
White flower plant 1
Percentage of white flower plant = × 100 = × 100 = 25%
Total plants of F2 generation 4
(c) In F2 generation: F2 phenotype generation Æ Blue Blue Blue White
F2 genotype generation Æ BB Bb Bb bb
BB : Bb : bb = 1 : 2 : 1
Genotype ratio of BB and BW in F2 progeny is BB : BW : 1 : 2.
Q.28. What is meant by the term speciation? List four factors which could lead to speciation. 2012D
Ans. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.
Important factors which could lead to the formation of a new species are as follows:
• Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
• Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like moun-tain ranges,
river, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow
of genes between separated groups of population.
• Variation caused in individuals due to natural selection.
• Sometimes the sub-population becomes reproductively isolated by ecological barriers. Therefore it
occurs within the same geographical area and within the original population.
Q.29. Distinguish between homologous organs and analogous organs. In which category would you place
wings of a bird and wings of a bat? Justify your answer giving a suitable reason. 2012D
Ans. Difference between Homologous organs and Analogous organs
Homologous organs Analogous organs
• Homologous organs are those organs which are • Analogous organs are those organs which are
different in appearance and perform different different in their basic structure and
functions but have similar basic structure and developmental origin but appear similar and
developmental origin. perform similar function.
• Presence of homologous organs confirms com- • Presence of analogous organs shows that all
mon ancestry and evolutionary relationship. the similarities are not necessary because of
common ancestry.
• Example: Forelimbs of vertebrates • Example: Wings of an insect and a bird
Reason. Wings of a bird and wings of a bat are homologous organs because they have similar basic design.
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 141

Q.30. Define the term ‘evolution’. “Evolution cannot be equated with progress.” Justify this statement. 2012D
Ans. Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over
millions of years in which new species are produced.
Evolution cannot be equated with progress. More and more complex body designs have emerged and
evolved over time, but this does not mean that the older designs are inefficient. One of the simplest life for
bacteria came into being very early in evolution is still surviving in the present conditions. Bacteria
inhabits the most inhospitable habitats like hot springs, deep sea, thermal vents and ice in Antarctica. But
human beings, have a body design which is best suited to their environment and supports their existence
only in limited favourable conditions.
Q.31. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant we will get
pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F1 generation, then we obtain pea
plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 generation, mentioning the
reason for the same. 2012OD
Ans. (a) The plants of F1 generation are all Tall.
(b) Tall plants : Dwarf plants — 3 : 1
(c) Dwarf plants: This is because in F1 generation, tall is a dominant trait whereas in F2 generation, two
copies of ‘tt’/recessive traits made the plant dwarf.
Q.32. How are fossils formed? Describe, in brief, two methods of determining the age of fossils. 2012OD
Ans. When organisms (plants or animals) die, their bodies will decompose by the action of micro-organisms in

s
the presence of oxygen, moisture, etc.

Da
Sometimes in the lack of such conditions (oxygen, moisture, etc.), their body does not decompose

iv
completely and is preserved as fossil with the passage of time in the rocks. In many cases the soft parts of

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the organism get decomposed and hard parts (like bones etc.) become fossil. Sometimes even the soft parts
(like leaf etc.) remain preserved as fossils in the form of their impressions inside the rocks.
Methods to determine the age of fossils:
(i) Relative method. The fossils which we find in layers closer to the surface of the earth are more recent;
the fossils which are found in deeper layers are older.
(ii) Carbon dating. Fossils were once living objects and all living objects contain some carbon-14 atoms
which are radio-active. When a living object dies and forms fossil, its carbon-14 radioactivity goes on
decreasing gradually. The age of the fossil is found by comparing the carbon-14 radioactivity left in
the fossil with the carbon-14 radio-activity present in the living objects today.
Q.33. List in tabular form two distinguishing features between acquired traits and inherited traits, with one
example of each. 2012OD
Or, State the meaning of inherited traits and acquired traits. Which of the two is not passed on to the next
generation? Explain with the help of an example. 2012OD, 2013D, 2015D, 2016D
Ans. Difference between Acquired traits and Inherited traits
Acquired traits Inherited traits
(i) A trait of an organism which is not inherited (i) A trait of an organism which is caused by a
but develops in response to the environment change in its gene is called an inherited trait.
is called an acquired trait.
(ii) The acquired traits of an organism cannot be (ii) Inherited traits can be transmitted to future
passed on to the future generation. generations because the changes have
Example: If a beetle does not get sufficient occurred in the genes of sex gametes.
food for a considerable time, its weight will be Example: If in a group of red beetle a colour
reduced due to starvation. The low weight of variation arises during reproduction so that there
this beetle is an acquired trait. is a beetle which is green in colour. This green
colour of the beetle is an inherited character
which can pass on to the next generation.
(iii) Acquired traits can not direct evolution. (iii) Inherited traits can direct evolution.
Example, “low weight” of beetle, “cut tail” of a Example “red colour of beetles, “fur coat” of
muse. guinee pigs.
142 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.34. “The father is responsible for the sex of a child, not the mother.” Justify this statement. 2012OD
Ans. (i) A male has one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome. Thus half the male gametes have X-
chromosomes and the other half have Y-chromosomes.
(ii) A female has two X-chromosomes. Thus all female gametes have only X-chromosomes.
(iii) If a sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child born
will be a boy.
(iv) If a sperm carrying X-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child born
will be a girl.
Female (XX) Male (XY)

Gametes X X X Y Gametes

XX XX XY XY
girl girl boy boy
Sex determination in human beings
Therefore it is the sperm from the father which determines the sex of the child.
Q.35. “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered
responsible for it.” Justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing determination of sex of
a newborn. 2013D, 2014OD

s
Ans. Sex determination flow chart:

Da
(i) A male has one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome. Thus half the male gametes have X-

v
chromosomes and the other half have Y-chromosomes.

Shi
(ii) A female has two X-chromosomes. Thus all female gametes have only X-chromosomes.
(iii) If a sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child born
will be a boy.
(iv) If a sperm carrying X-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child born
will be a girl.
Female (XX) Male (XY)

Gametes X X X Y Gametes

XX XX XY XY
girl girl boy boy
Sex determination in human beings
Therefore it is the sperm from the father which determines the sex of the child.
Thus in human beings, the sex of the baby is determined by the type of sperm that fuses with ovum. As
human male produces two types of sperms in equal proportion, so there are 50% chances of a male baby
and 50% chances of a female baby.
Q.36. What are fossils? State their importance in the study of evolution with the help of a suitable example.
2011OD, 2013D
Ans. The remains or impressions of extinct animals or plants that lived in the remote past are known as fossils.
Importance of fossils:
(i) Fossils provide evidence for evolution, e.g., a fossil bird called Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it
has many features which are found in reptiles. Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth
and tail like those of reptiles. Therefore Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and
birds and hence suggests that the birds have evolved from the reptiles.
(ii) Habits and behaviour of extinct species can be inferred. For example, the estimation of age of dinosaur
fossils have told that they first appeared on earth about 250 million years ago and became extinct
about 65 million years ago.
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 143

(iii) Fossils provide direct evidence of past life.


(iv) With the help of fossils broad historical sequence of biological evolution can be built up.
Q.37. Explain with the help of suitable examples why certain traits cannot be passed on to the next
generation? What are such traits called? 2013OD, 2014OD
Ans. A trait (or characteristic) of an organism which is ‘not inherited’ but develops in response to the
environment is called an acquired trait.
The acquired traits of an organism cannot be passed on to its future generations.
For example, ‘low weight’ of beetle, ‘cut tail’ of a mouse.
Changes brought in the non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells. So the
experiences of an individual during its lifetime cannot be passed on to its progeny. Thus acquired
characters of an individual cannot be inherited.
Q.38. A cross was carried out between a pure bred tall pea plant and a pure bred dwarf pea plant and F1
progeny was obtained. Later, the F1 progeny was selfed to obtain F2 progeny. Answer the following
questions: 2013OD
(a) What is the phenotype of the F1 progeny and why?
(b) Give the phenotypic ratio of the F2 progeny.
(c) Why is the F2 progeny different from the F1 progeny?
Ans. When plants of two different traits of character are crossbred to get a progeny (F1 generation), only the
dominant trait is visible in this generation. But when plants of F1 generation are selfbred then the two traits
of character get separated and the recessive trait also appears in the plant of F2 generation. This is known
as Law of Segregation (separation) of traits.
Flow Chart

s
TT × tt

Da
(Tall plant) (Short plant)

Tt

Shiv > F1 generation


(All tall plants but hybrid)

Tt × Tt F1 as Parents

TT, Tt, Tt tt
F2 generation
Tall Short
3 : 1 —F2 (Phenotype ratio)
Tall Hybrid tall Short
TT : Tt : tt F2 (Genotype ratio)
1 : 2 : 1
Q.39. How are fossils formed? State two methods of determining the age of fossils. 2013OD
Ans. Formation of a fossil. Usually when organisms die, their bodies get decomposed by the action of micro-
organisms in the presence of oxygen, moisture, etc. Sometimes, the conditions in the environment like
oxygen, moisture, etc. are absent which do not let the body of the organism decompose completely. So
fossils are such remains or impressions of dead animals or plants that lived in the remote past but which
were not decomposed completely.
For example, if a dead leaf gets caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly. The mud around the leaf will
set around it as a mould and gradually harden to form a rock and retain the impression of the whole leaf.
This forms a leaf fossil which can be dug out from the earth a long time after.
Determination of age of the fossil.
(i) Fossils closer to the surface are more recent compared to those found in the deeper layers of the
earth’s surface.
(ii) Another way is by detecting the ratio of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil material
and comparing their values with the present form of living beings.
144 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.40. A cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other
with wrinkled and yellow seeds. 2014D
(a) Write the phenotype of F1 progeny. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Write the different types of F2 progeny obtained along with their ratio when F1 progeny was
selfed.
Ans. (a) The cross was made between round, green seeds and wrinkled, yellow seeds. In the given cross, two
traits were taken into account, which is a dihybrid cross.
Yellow colour and round shape is dominant over green colour and wrinkled shape.

The above cross shows round and yellow seeds in F1 generation. It occurs because dominant traits
(round and yellow) express themselves, whereas recessive traits (wrinkled and green) get suppressed.

s
(b) On selfing of F1 progeny, different types of F2 progeny were obtained.

Da
F2 progeny along with their ratios obtained in F2 generation:

iv
9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Sh
Round yellow Round Green Wrinkled Yellow Wrinkled Green
(both dominating (both recessive
traits) traits)
Phenotypic ratio — 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Round yellow — 9, Round green — 3, Wrinkled yellow — 3, Wrinkled green — 1
Q.41. (a) Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants in his experiment. Write his observations
giving reasons on the F1 and F2 generations.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than height that Mendel used in his experiments in pea
plants. 2014D
Ans. (a) In Mendel’s experiments with pea plants, when he crossbred a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant,
he found that the first generation F1 was of only tall plants. In the F1 progeny, no dwarf plants were
obtained. However in F2 generation, both tall and dwarf plants were obtained in the ratio of 3 : 2
respectively. In the F2 progeny both traits tallness and dwarfness were inherited where the tall
character was the dominant trait and dwarf character was the recessive trait.
Flow chart depicting Mendel’s experiment. Refer to Q.38.
(b) Contrasting characters of pea plant
— round and green seeds.
— wrinkled and yellow seeds.
Q.42. (a) Mendel in one of his experiments with pea plants crossed a variety having round seeds with one
having wrinkled seeds. Write his observations, giving reasons, of F1 and F2 progeny.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than roundness of pea plants that Mendel used in his
experiments with pea plants. 2014D
Ans. (a) In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he crossbred a round seed plant with a wrinkled seed
plant, he found that the first generation (F1) was only round seed plants. In the F1 progeny, no
wrinkled seed plants were obtained. However, in the F2 progeny both traits round seed and wrinkled
seed were obtained in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. The trait which is obtained in F1 generation is
dominant trait, therefore round seed character was dominant and wrinkled seed trait is recessive.
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 145

Flow chart:

Das
Phenotype
Ratio
Genotype
Round
3
RR Sh
:
:
i
:
v wrinkled
1
Rr : rr
Ratio 1 : 2 : 1
Round hybrid wrinkled
(b) • Tallness and dwarfness.
• Green seed and yellow seed. These are the two contrasting characters that Mendel used in his
experiment with pea plants.
Q.43. What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the reproduction process? How
does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of DNA copies
of two individuals? 2014OD
Ans. DNA coping is not perfectly accurate. During reproduction, no bio-chemical reaction is absolutely reliable
so the process of copying the DNA will have some variations each time. As a result, the DNA copies
generated will be similar but may not be identical to the original. Thus the surviving new born cells are
similar to but subtly different from each other. This inbuilt tendency for variation during reproduction is
the basic for evolution.
In sexual reproduction, though the genetic material DNA (in the form of chromosomes) from two gametes,
male and female gametes, combines together to form a new cell ‘zygote’ but the amount of DNA (the
number of chromosomes) in the zygote does not get doubled because gametes are the special type of cells
called reproductive cells which contain only half the amount of DNA (or half the number of chromosomes)
as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So when a male gamete (having half number of
chromosomes of the organism) combines with a female gamete (which also contain half the number of
chromosomes) during sexual reproduction, then the new cell zygote will have the normal amount of DNA
or normal number of chromosomes in it.
Q.44. List three main factors responsible for the speciation and briefly describe each one of them. 2014OD
Ans. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.
Important factors which could lead to the formation of a new species are as follows:
• Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
146 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

• Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like moun-tain ranges,
river, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow
of genes between separated groups of population.
• Variation caused in individuals due to natural selection.
• Sometimes the sub-population becomes reproductively isolated by ecological barriers. Therefore it
occurs within the same geographical area and within the original population.
Q.45. What is DNA copying? State its importance. 2015D
Ans. A process in which a DNA molecule produces two similar copies of itself in a reproducing cell through
chemical reaction is called DNA copying.
(i) It transmits the characteristics from parents to the next generation (offspring).
(ii) It causes the variations in the population.
Q.46. “We cannot pass on to our progeny the experiences and qualifications earned during our life time”.
Justify the statement giving reason and examples. 2015D
Ans. All traits of the parent cannot be transmitted to the offspring because all traits are not inherited traits, some
of the characteristics are acquired. The experiences and qualifications earned during our lifetime are
examples of acquired traits.
A trait of an organism which is ‘not inherited’ but develops in response to the environment is called an
acquired trait. The acquired traits of organisms cannot be passed on to their future generations.
Only those traits can be transmitted to future generations in which changes have occurred in the genes
present in the reproductive cells of parent organisms.
For example, If we breed some mice, all the progeny of mice will have tails, just like parents. Now, if we cut
the tails of these first generation mice surgically and breed them, we will get new mice, all with full tails.

s
Despite the cutting of tails of mice for a number of generations, a tailless mouse is never born.

Da
This is because the cut tail of mice is an acquired trait which is never passed on to their progeny. This is

v
because cutting the tails of mice does not change the genes of their reproductive cells.

Shi
Q.47. (a) Planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates all have eyes. Can we group eyes of these animals
together to establish a common evolutionary origin? Justify your answer. 2014D, 2015D
(b) “Birds have evolved from reptiles”. State evidence to prove the statement.
Ans. (a) The eyes seen in planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates vary greatly in their structure. These
organisms can be used for studying evolution of eyes as the eyes of planaria are simple without lens,
insects have compound eyes and vertebrates have highly specialised eyes. However, all of them
perform the same function, that is, vision. Thus, a common evolutionary origin can be established.
(b) Birds have evolved from reptiles as the connecting link between reptiles and birds is Archaeopteryx
(flying dinosaur). Also, there are some similarities in birds and reptiles. Birds have a four-chambered
heart, which is also a feature of some reptiles. Both birds and reptiles have separate sexes and internal
fertilization occurs in both.
Q.48. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of chromosomes
in the progeny is maintained. 2015OD
Ans. Chromosomes are thread-like structures made up of DNA and proteins. They are found in the nucleus at
the time of cell division.
During gamete formation meiosis occurs and the original number of chromosomes becomes half. Hence,
when two gametes combine the zygote formed contains the full set of chromosomes and the original
number of chromosomes gets restored in the progeny.
Q.49. How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome number
through several generations? Explain with the help of suitable example. 2016D
Ans. • When organisms reproduce asexually, a basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy.
Cells use chemical reactions to build copies of their DNA. This creates two copies of the DNA in a
reproducing cell, and they will need to be separated from each other. However, keeping one copy of
DNA in the original cell and simply pushing the other one out would not work, because the copy
pushed out would not have any organised cellular structure for maintaining life processes. Therefore,
DNA copying is accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular apparatus, and then DNA
copies separate, each with its own cellular apparatus. Effectively, a cell divides to give rise to two
cells. Thus, chromosome number remains unchanged. For example, reproduction of amoeba by binary
fission.
• In sexual reproduction, organisms produce gametes through a special type of division, meiosis—
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 147

reductional division, in which the original number of chromosomes becomes half. These two gametes
then combine to form the zygote and the original number of chromosomes is restored as in the case of
human beings.
Q.50. In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed
with a pure dwarf pea plant, in the first generation, F1 only tall plants appear.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case?
(b) When the F1 generation plants were self-fertilised, he observed that in the plants of second
generation, F2 both tall plants and dwarf plants were present. Why it happened? Explain briefly.
2016 Delhi
Ans. (a) Mendel first crossed pure-bred tall pea plants with pure-bred dwarf pea plants and found that only
tall pea plants were produced in the first generation or F1 generation. No dwarf pea plants were
obtained in the first generation of progeny. From this Mendel concluded that the F1 generation
showed the traits of only one of the parent plants: tallness being the dominant trait. The trait of other
parent plant, dwarfness, being recessive did not show up in the progeny of first generation.

Parents TT × tt

Gamete T T t t

F1 generation Tt Tt Tt Tt

s
Tall Tall Tall Tall

Da
(b) In the F2 generation, both the tall and dwarf traits are present in the ratio of 3 : 1. This showed that the

iv
traits for tallness and dwarfness are present in the F1 generation, being the recessive trait does not

Sh
express itself in the presence of tallness, the dominant trait.

Selfing of F1 Tt × Tt

T t T t

F2 generation TT Tt Tt tt

Q.51. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants (TT) and short pea plants (tt) a scientist obtained only
tall pea plants (Tt) in the F1 generation. However, on selfing the F1 generation pea plants, he obtained
both tall and short plants in F2 generation. On the basis of above observations with other angiosperms
also, can the scientist arrive at a law? If yes, explain the law. If not, give justification for your answer.
2016D
Ans. Law of Segregation:
When plants of two different traits of character are crossbred to get a progeny (F1 generation), only the
dominant trait is visible in this generation. But when plants of F1 generation are selfbred then the two traits
of character get separated and the recessive traits also appears in the plant of F2 generation. This is known
as Law of Segregation (separation) of traits.
Law of Dominance:
According to this law, the characteristics (or traits) of an organism are determined by internal ‘factors’
which occur in pairs. Only one of a pair of such factors can be presented in a single gamete. This law
explains expression of only of the parental character which is dominant trait in F1 generation and
expression of both in F2 generation.
Q.52. “Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement.
2016OD
Ans. Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences in their internal and external
structures. Similarities among organisms will allow us to group them and study the groups and classify
148 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

them. Some basic characteristics will be shared by most organisms. The more characteristics the two
species will have in common, the more closely they are related. The more closely they are related, the more
recently they have had a common ancestor. So we can say that classification of a species is in fact a
reflection of their evolutionary relationship.
Q.53. With the help of an example justify the following statement: 2014; 2016OD
“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.”
Ans. In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross-bed a tall pea plant with a short plea plant, he
found that the first generation (F1) was of only tall plants. In the F1 progeny, no short plants were obtained.
However, in the F2 generation, both tall and short plants were obtained in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. In the
F2 generation, both traits—tallness and shortness were inherited where the tall character was the dominant
trait and short character was the recessive trait.
Flow Chart. Refer to Q.50,
Conclusion. Reappearance of dwarf character in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but
not expressed in the F1 generation.
Q.54. Explain with the help of an example each how the following provide evidences in favour of evolution:
(a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs (c) Fossils 2017D
Ans. (a) Homologous organs. Those organs which have same basic structure among different types of living
beings but perform different functions are called Homologous organs. For example, arms of human
beings and forelegs of horse, lion, etc. are Homologous organs. Their same basic structure shows that
these have been evolved from some common ancestors.
(b) Analogous organs. Those organs which have different basic structure but perform same functions in
different types of living beings are known as Analogous organs. For example, wings of birds and

as
wings of bat are analogous organs. Similarity in these organs is superficial and the design and

D
structure of these organs is very different.

iv
(c) Fossils. Fossils are the dead remain parts of the extinct form of living beings. They provide the

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missing link between the species, e.g., Fossils of dinosaurs with feathers/fossils of prehistoric horse,
etc.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.55. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings? Out of these how many are sex
chromosomes? How many types of sex chromosomes are found in human beings?
“The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered
responsible for it”. Draw a flow chart showing determination of sex of a newborn to justify this
statement. 2015D
Ans. • There are 23 pairs of chromosomes present in human beings.
• There is 1 pair of sex chromosomes present in human beings.
• The chromosomes which determine the sex of a person are called sex chromosomes. There are two
types of sex chromosomes, one is called X chromosome and the other is called Y chromosome. Males
contain one X chromosome and one Y chromosome (XY), while females contain two X chromosomes
(XX).
• Flow chart showing determination of sex of a child. Refer to Q.35
Q.56. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive, 2016D
(b) traits are inherited independently? 2015, 2016OD
Ans. (a) Mendel’s experiments show that:
• In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he crossbred a pure tall pea plant with a pure dwarf
pea plant, he found that the first generation F1 was of only tall plants. Tallness is the dominant trait.
• Then he produced F2 generation by selfing of hybrids F1.
• In the F1 progeny, no dwarf plants were obtained. However in F2 generation, both tall and dwarf
plants were obtained in the ratio 3 : 2 respectively.
• The trait which remains hidden in F1 generation, i.e., dwarfness is the recessive trait.
• He observed that even when not expressed in the first generation, alternate forms of a trait could
retain their identify in the hybrid and could re-emerge in the next generation.
Chapter 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION „ 149

Flow Chart:
TT × tt
(Tall plant) (Short plant)

Tt > F1 generation
(All tall plants but hybrid)

Tt × Tt F1 as Parents

TT, Tt, Tt tt
(F2 generation)
Tall Short
3 : 1 —F2 (Phenotype ratio)
Tall Hybrid tall Short
TT : Tt : tt F2 (Genotype ratio)
1 : 2 : 1
(b) Traits are inherited independently. Mendel cross-bred pea plants showing two different
characteristics, rather than just one. When he cross-bred pea plants of round green seeds with
wrinkled yellow seeds, he got F1 generation with all such seeds which were yellow and round. So, it
was concluded that round and yellow character of seeds were dominant traits in the pea plant. On
selfing of F1 progeny, different types of F2 progeny were obtained.

s
F2 progeny along with their ratios obtained in F2 generation:

Da
9 : 3 : 3 : 1

iv
Round Yellow Round Green Wrinkled Yellow Wrinkled Green

Sh
(both dominating traits) (both recessive traits)
So traits of two different characters were inherited independent of each other and made new
combination characteristics independent of their previous combinations.
Q.57. What are fossils? How are they formed? Described in brief two methods of determining the age of
fossils. State any one role of fossils in the study of the process of evolution. 2015OD
Ans. When organisms (plants or animals) die, their bodies will decompose by the action of micro-organisms in
the presence of oxygen, moisture, etc.
Sometimes in the lack of such conditions (oxygen, moisture, etc.), their body does not decompose
completely and is preserved as fossil with the passage of time in the rocks. In many cases the soft parts of
the organism get decomposed and hard parts (like bones etc.) become fossil. Sometimes even the soft parts
(like leaf etc.) remain preserved as fossils in the form of their impressions inside the rocks.
Methods to determine the age of fossils:
(i) Relative method. The fossils which we find in layers closer to the surface of the earth are more recent;
the fossils which are found in deeper layers are older.
(ii) Carbon dating. Fossils were once living objects and all living objects contain some carbon-14 atoms
which are radio-active. When a living object dies and forms fossil, its carbon-14 radioactivity goes on
decreasing gradually. The age of the fossil is found by comparing the carbon-14 radioactivity left in
the fossil with the carbon-14 radio-activity present in the living objects today.
Q.58. What is meant by speciation? List four factors that could lead to speciation. Which of these cannot be a
major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species. Give reason to justify your answer.
2016D
Ans. Speciation. The process by which new species develop from the existing species by evolution or any
genetic modification of previous species is known as speciation.
The important factors which could lead to the formation of new species are:
(i) Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like mountain ranges,
rivers, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no
flow of genes between separated groups of population.
(ii) Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
(iii) Variations caused in individuals due to natural selection.
(iv) Drastic change in the genes or DNA called mutation is also a cause of speciation.
150 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Reproductive isolation can not be a major factor for the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species as it
does not depend on any other plant for its reproduction process.
Q.59. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of
evolution. 2016OD
Ans. Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over
millions of years in which new species are produced.
How it occurs?
• It is through the constant process of evolution taking place in the organisms since the origin of life
that such an enormous variety of plants and animals have come to exist on this earth at present.
• There is an inbuilt tendency to variation during reproduction due to errors in DNA copying and as a
result of sexual reproduction.
Relationship between fossils and evolution:
• Fossils are the remains of impressions of dead plants or animals which died millions of years ago. The
study of fossils helps us to know about the evolution of species. Fossils tell us how new species are
developed from the old. Fossils provide evidence of evolution by revealing characteristics of past
organisms and the changes that have occurred in these organisms to give rise to present organisms.
Therefore, fossils have an importance in deciding evolutionary relationship.
• For example, a fossil called Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like reptiles
hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor and birds have been evolved from
the reptiles.

P
s
ractical Based Questions

iv Da
Sh
➜ EXPERIMENT: Homology and Analogy of Plants and Animals
Q.1. Giving an example explain what are homologous organs.
Ans. The organs which have similar basic structures but perform different functions in different species are
called homologous organs. For example, tendril of pea plant and spines of Barberry. Both tendril of pea
plant and spines of Barberry are modified leaves. So, structurally they are same. But due to different
adaptations, leaves in Barberry and pea are modified into different structures.
Q.2. What are analogous organs? Give any two examples.
Ans. The organs which are quite different in fundamental structure and embryonic origin but perform the
same function and may superficially look alike in entirely different species are called analogous organs.
Examples: (i) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bird; (ii) Potato and sweet potato.
Q.3. Out of potato, carrot, spines of cacti, spinach
(i) which two are homologous organs?
(ii) which two are analogous organs?
Ans. (i) Spines of cacti and spinach are leaf so structurally they both are same. But they perform different
functions therefore, they are homologous organs.
(ii) Potato is an underground stem and carrot is a root. Structurally they both are different but they are
modified to perform the same function which is storage of food. Therefore, potato and carrot are
analogous organs.
Q.4. Differentiate between homologous and analogous organs.
Ans. Homologous organs Analogous organs
(i) They have similar basic structure and (i) They are quite different in fundamental
embryonic origin. structure and origin.
(ii) They perform different functions. (ii) They perform the same function.
Q.5. Tendrils of cucurbits and spines of bougainvillea are homologous organs. Why?
Ans. Tendril of cucurbits are modified stem which are used to climb a support. Spines of Bougainvillea are
modified stem which are meant for protection. Both the organs have same basic structural design but
perform different functions. So, they are homologous organs.

####
CHAPTER 10
LIGHT: REFLECTION
AND REFRACTION
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
REFLECTION
☞ Reflection of Light. The phenomenon of bouncing back of light into the same medium by the smooth
surface is called reflection.
Incident light. Light which falls on the surface is called incident light.
Reflected light. Light which goes back after reflection is called reflected light.
Angle of incidence. The angle between the incident ray and the normal.
Angle of reflection. The angle between the reflected ray and the normal.
☞ Mirror. The surface which can reflect the light is mirror.
☞ Plane Mirror. If the reflecting surface is plane then mirror is plane.
☞ Spherical Mirror. If the reflecting surface is part of hollow sphere then mirror is spherical mirror.
Spherical mirror are of two types:
(i) Convex mirror. In this mirror reflecting surface is convex. It diverges the light so it is also called
diverging mirror.
(ii) Concave mirror. In this mirror reflecting surface is concave. It converges the light so it is also called
converging mirror.
☞ Parameters of Mirror:
• Center of Curvature. The centre of hollow sphere of which mirror is a part.
• Radius of curvature. The radius of hollow sphere of which mirror is a part.
• Pole. The centre of mirror (middle point ) is pole.
• Principal axis. The line joining the pole and center of curvature is called principal axis.
• Aperture. Size of mirror is called aperture of mirror.
• Principal Focus. The point on the principal axis, where all the incident rays parallel to principal
axis converge or diverge after reflection through mirror.
• Focal Length. The distance between pole and focus point is focal length.
☞ Special Rays for Formation of Image:
(i) A ray of light which is parallel to principal axis of a spherical mirror, after reflection converges or
diverges from focus.
(ii) A ray of light passing through or appearing from the center of curvature of spherical mirror is
reflected back along the same path.
(iii) A ray of light passing through or appearing from the focus of spherical mirror becomes parallel to
the principal axis.
(iv) A ray of light which is incident at the pole of a spherical mirror is reflected back making same angle
with principal axis.

Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 151


152 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

☞ Use of Concave Mirror. It is used as makeup mirror, reflector in torches, in headlights of cars and search
lights, doctor’s head-mirrors, solar furnace, etc.
☞ Use of Convex Mirror. Convex mirror used as rear view mirror in vehicles, as shop security mirrors, etc.
☞ Sign Conventions of Spherical Mirror:
(i) All the distances are measured from pole of the mirror as origin.
(ii) Distances measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive.
(iii) Distances measured opposite to the direction of incident rays are taken as negative.
(iv) Distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken as positive.
(v) Distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken as negative.
1 1 1
= + ...where [f, v and u are focal length, image distance, object distance
f v u
☞ Linear Magnification. This is ratio of the height of the image to the height of object.
h′
m= ...where [m = magnification, h = height of image, h¢¢ = height of object
h

REFRACTION
☞ Refraction of Light. The bending of light at the interface of two different mediums is called Refraction
of light.
— If velocity of light in medium is more, then medium is called optical rarer.
Example, air or vacuum is more optical rarer.
— If velocity of light in medium is less, then medium is called optical denser.

as
Example, glass is more denser than air.

D
☞ Refractive Index. It represents the amount or extent of bending of light when it passes from one

iv
medium to another. There are two types of refractive index—(i) Relative refractive index and (ii)

Sh
Absolute refractive index.
(i) Refractive index of medium with respect to other medium is called Relative Refractive Index.
Refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2
Speed of light in medium 2 (V2 )
= Speed of light in medium 1 (V )
1
(ii) Refractive index of medium with respect to air or vacuum is called Absolute Refractive Index.
Speed of light in air (c )
Absolute refractive index of medium (m) = Speed of light in medium (V )
m
Incident ray. It is incoming ray on the refracting surface.
Refracted ray. It is outgoing ray from refracting surface.
Angle of incidence (i). It is the angle between incident rays and perpendicular line (normal) at the
point of incidence.
Angle of refraction (r). It is the angle between refracted rays and perpendicular line (normal) at the
point of incidence.
☞ Law of Refraction. According to this law—
• “The incident ray, refracted ray and normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.”
• “The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant.”
sin i
= constant (m)
sin r
☞ Lens. The transparent refracting medium bounded by two surfaces in which at least one surface is
curved is called lens.
Lenses are mainly two type—(i) Convex lens and (ii) Concave lens.
☞ Center of Curvature. The centres of two spheres, of which lens is part is called center of curvature.
☞ Radii of Curvature. The radii of spheres, of which lens is part is called radius of curvature.
☞ Principal Axis. The line joining the centres of curvature of two surfaces of lens is called principal axis.
☞ Optical Center. It is a special point on the principal axis. Light incident on optical center passes
through the lens without deviation.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 153

☞ Principal Focus. The point on the principal axis at which all incident rays parallel to the principal axis
converge or appear to diverge after refraction through the lens.
☞ Special Rays for Image Formation by Lens:
(i) An incident ray, parallel to the principal axis, after refraction passes through (or appears to come
from), second focus of lens.
(ii) An incident ray, passing through the optical center of the lens, goes undeviated from the lens.
(iii) An incident ray, passing through the (first) principal focus of the lens, or directed toward it,
becomes parallel to the principal axis after refraction through the lens.
☞ Use of Lens. In photographic camera, magnifying glass, microscope, telescope, human eye.
☞ Dispersion of Light. Splitting of white light into seven colours is called dispersion. Example, formation
of Rainbow (VIBGYOR). Violet deviates the most but red deviates least.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?
(a) Water (b) Glass (c) Plastic (d) Clay
Ans. (d) Clay
Q.2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where

s
should be the position of the object?

a
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature

v D
(b) At the centre of curvature

Shi
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus
Ans. (d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Q.3. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus
Ans. (b) At twice the focal length
Q.4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens
are likely to be—
(a) both concave
(b) both convex
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave
Ans. (a) both concave
Q.5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) plane (b) concave
(c) convex (d) either plane or convex
Ans. (d) either plane or convex.
Q.6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a
dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm. (b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm. (d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
Ans. (c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
Q.7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length
15 cm. What should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror? What is the nature of the
image? Is the image larger or smaller than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation
in this case.
Ans. The object should be placed between the focus F and the pole P of the concave mirror, i.e., between 0 and
154 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

15 cm from the mirror. The image formed will be virtual, erect and larger than the object as shown in the
ray diagram.

Q.8. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations:


(a) Headlights of a car
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle
(c) Solar furnace.
Support your answer with reason.
Ans. (a) Concave mirror is used in the headlights of a car.
Reason. When a bulb is located at the focus of a concave mirror, the light rays get reflected from the
mirror in the form of strong parallel beams. These beams travel straight over a large distance
increasing visibility for safe driving.
(b) Convex mirror is used in rear/side view mirrors.
Reason. (i) It produces an erect image of the object irrespective of distance.
(ii) Image formed is diminished and gives a wide field of view of the traffic behind.
(c) Large concave mirrors are used in solar furnaces to converge the sun-rays at one point (focus) to

as
produce heat.

D
Q.9. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will this lens produce a complete image of the

iv
object? Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your observations.

Sh
Ans. As we can see in the figure given, when the lower half of the convex lens is covered with a black paper, it
still forms the complete image of the object as that formed with uncovered lens. However the intensity of
the image is reduced when the convex lens is covered with black paper.

Q.10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the ray
diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image formed.
Sol. Here h1 = 5 cm, u = –25 cm, f = +10 cm.
Using Lens formula,
1 1 1
= -
f v u
1 1 1
fi = -
10 v -25
1 1 1 5-2 1
fi -
10 25 v
= fi 50
=
v
3 1 50
\ =
50 v
fi v = 3 = 16.6 cm

h 50
v2 50 h
Now u = h fi 3 = h2 fi = 2
1 -25 5 -75 5
-50 ¥ 5 10
\ h2 = 75
=-
3
= –3.3 cm
\ Image is real, inverted of 3.3 cm height at a distance of 16.6 cm from lens.
Q.11. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed
from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 155

Sol. Here f = –15 cm, v = –10 cm, u=?


Using Lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1
= - fi = -
f v u -15 -10 u
1 -1 1 1 -3 + 2 -1
= +
u 10 15
fi u
=
30
=
30
\ u = –30 cm
\ Object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from concave lens.
Q.12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position
and nature of the image.
Sol. Here u = -10 cm, f = 15 cm, v=?
Using mirror formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + fi = +
f v u 15 u -10
1 1 1 2+3 1
+
15 10 v
= fi 30
=
v
5 1
=
30 v
\ v = 6 cm
\ Image is virtual and erect and formed 6 cm behind the mirror.
Q.13. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
Sol. Magnification m = 1 implies u = v

s
Therefore the image is formed at the same distance from the mirror as the object is from the mirror.

Da
h¢ = h (size of the image is same as the object)

iv
m = +ve implies that image formed by plane mirror is virtual and erect.

Sh
Q.14. An object 5 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of
curvature 30 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size.
Ans. h = 5 cm u = –20 cm r = 30 cm v=? h’ = ? nature = ?
r 30 1 1 1 1 1 1
\ f = 2 = 2 = 15 cm Now = + \ = +
f v u 15 v -20
1 1 1 4+3 1 60
fi +
15 20 v
= fi 60
=
v
fi v = 7 = 8.56 cm
Nature of image. Virtual, erect and behind the mirror.
h¢ –v h¢ -8.56 8.56
and h = u fi 5
=
-20
\ h’ = 20 × 5= 2.14 cm
\ An erect and virtual image 2.14 cm high will be formed behind the mirror at a distance of 8.56 cm.
Q.15. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what
distance from the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focussed image can be obtained?
Find the size and the nature of the image.
Sol. Size of object, h = +7.0 cm u = –27 cm f = –18 cm
v=? h¢ = ? nature = ?
Using mirror formula
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + fi = -
f v u v f u
1 1 1 -3 + 2 -1
= -
v -18 -27
=
54
=
54
\ v = –54
\ The screen should be placed at a distance of 54 cm on the object side of the mirror to obtain a sharp
image.
h¢ v
Magnification, m = h = – u
h¢ ( -54) h ¢ -14
=- fi h¢ = –2 × 7 = –14 \ m = h = 7 = –2
7 ( -27)
Image size = –14 cm (–ve sign shows that image is inverted)
The image is real, inverted and enlarged.
156 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.16. Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
Sol. Here P = –2.0 D, f=?
1 1 1
∵ P= f \ -2.0 = f fi f = - 2.0 = 0.50 m
\ The lens is concave lens.
Q.17. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Sol. Here P = +1.5 D, f=?
1 1 1 10
∵ P= f fi 1.5 = f \ f (Focal length) = 1.5 = 15 = 0.67 m

∵ The prescribed lens is converging in nature.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. What is the magnification of the images formed by plane mirrors and why? 2015D
Ans. The magnification of the image formed by a plane mirror is 1 because size of the image is equal to the size
of the object.

s
Q.2. What is meant by power of a lens? 2013OD, 2015D

a
Ans. The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays falling on it. The

D
power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length in metres.

Shiv 1
Power of a lens = Focal length (in m)
The SI unit of power is dioptre denoted by the letter D. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal
length is 1 metre.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.3. List four properties of the image formed by a concave mirror when object is placed between focus and
pole of the mirror. 2012D
Ans. Image is virtual, erect, magnified, i.e., bigger than the object and behind the mirror.
Q.4. “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel to itself.”
Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify the statement. 2013D

Ans. N
F i1
Air
A O Glass B
r1
N
Glass slab
i2
C M L D
G
Angle of incidence = 55° r2 H Deviation of rays
Angle of refraction = 40° P Direction of rays
Angle of emergence = 55°
FO Incident ray
GH emergent ray

Q.5. A ray of light falls normally on the surface of a transparent glass slab. Draw a ray diagram to show its
path and also mark angle of incidence and angle of emergence. 2013D
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 157

Ans. N
i=0 Incident ray

Refractive ray

e=0
Emergent ray

–i = 0º; –r = 0º; –e = 0º
Q.6. “A concave mirror of focal length ‘f ’ can form a magnified erect as well as an inverted image of an
object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the
mirror in each case for obtaining these images. 2012OD
Ans. When the object is placed at a distance less than ‘f ’ (focal length) from the mirror, the image formed is
virtual, magnified and erect.
When the object is placed at a distance of ‘f ’ (focal length) from the mirror, the image is real, inverted and
highly magnified.
When the object is placed at a distance more than ‘f ’ (focal length) but less than ‘2f ’, the image formed is
real, inverted and magnified.
When the object is placed at the distance of ‘2f ’ from the mirror, the image is real, inverted and same size
of the object.
When the object is placed at a distance more than ‘2f ’ from the mirror, the image formed is real, inverted
and diminished.

as
Q.7. “A convex lens of focal length ‘F’ can form a magnified erect as well as inverted image.“ Justify this

D
statement stating the position of the object with respect to the lens in each case for obtaining these

iv
images. 2013OD

Sh
Ans. The type of image formed by a convex lens depends on the position of the object in front of the lens.
• When the object is placed between the optical centre and the focus (i.e., between O and F¢), the image
formed is behind the object (on the same side). It is virtual, magnified and erect.
• When the object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, the image formed is at infinity. It is real,
inverted and highly magnified.
• When the object is placed between focus and the centre of curvature (i.e., between F¢ and 2F¢), the
image formed is beyond 2F. It is real, inverted and magnified.
• When the object is placed at the centre of curvature (i.e., at 2F¢), the image formed is at 2F. It is real,
inverted and of same size of the object.
• When the object is beyond 2F¢ (or beyond centre of curvature), the image formed is between F and 2F.
It is real, inverted and diminished.
• When the object is at infinity, the image formed is at focus. It is real, inverted and much smaller than
the object (highly diminished).
Q.8. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray which is
directed towards the principal focus of a convex mirror. Mark on it the angle of incidence and the angle
of reflection. 2014D
Ans.

Q.9. List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object placed in
front of it. State the difference, if any, between these two images. 2014OD
Ans. Case 1. Concave mirror can produce an erect, magnified, virtual image when the object is placed between
pole and focus of the mirror
Case 2. Concave mirror also produces an inverted, magnified, real image when the object is placed
between the focus and the centre of curvature.
158 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Differences in the images of both the cases


Case 1 Case 2
(i) Image is virtual, i.e., the image is formed (i) Image is real, i.e., it is formed in front of the
behind the mirror. mirror (beyond C).
(ii) Image is erect. (ii) Image is inverted.
Q.10. “A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm can form a magnified erect as well as inverted image of an
object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the
pole of the mirror in both cases for obtaining the images. 2014OD
Ans. Case 1. When the object is placed between less than 15 cm from the pole, i.e., between the pole and the
focus of a concave mirror, a magnified, erect and virtual image will be formed.
Case 2. When the object is placed between 15 to 30 cm, i.e., between the focus and the centre of curvature
of the concave mirror, a magnified, inverted and real image will be formed.
Q.11. List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors. 2015D
Ans. The characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors are:
(i) The image formed by a plane mirror is virtual and erect. It cannot be received on a screen.
(ii) The image formed by a plane mirror is of the same size as the object.
(iii) The image formed by a plane mirror is at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front
of the mirror.
(iv) The image formed in a plane mirror is laterally inverted.
Q.12. List four specific characteristics of the images of the objects formed by convex mirrors. 2015D
Ans. The images of the objects formed by convex mirrors are always—

s
(i) virtual,

Da
(ii) erect,

v
(iii) diminished and

Shi
(iv) formed behind the mirror between focus and pole of the mirror.
3 4
Q.13. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are and respectively. If the speed of light is 2 ×
2 3
108 m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water. 2015OD
Ans. (i) Given: vg = 2 × 108 m/s (Speed of light in glass)
Speed of light in Vacuum (c )
We know, Absolute Refractive Index of a Medium = Speed of light in the Medium
3 4 c 3
ng = , nw = fi ng = = c = ngvg fi c= × 2 × 108
2 3 vg 2
\ c = 3 × 108 m/s
4
(ii) nw = c = 3 × 108 m/s
3

c 3 × 108 3 × 3 × 108
fi vw = = = = 2.25 × 108 m/s
nw 4 4
3
Q.14. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two
differences between the two images. 2016D
Ans. The two positions are:
(i) When an object is placed between the pole (p) and focus (f) of a concave mirror, the image formed is
larger than the object (or magnified).
(ii) When an object is placed between the focus (f) and centre of curvature (c) of a concave mirror, the
image formed is larger than the object.
Difference between the two images
• In case (i), the image is formed behind the • In case (ii), the image is formed beyond the
mirror. centre of curvature.
• In case (i), the image formed is virtual and • In case (ii), the image formed is real and in-
erect. verted.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 159

Q.15. A ray of light is incident on a convex mirror as shown. Redraw the diagram
and complete the path of this ray after reflection from the mirror. Mark
angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it. 2016D P F C
Ans.

r
i

P F C

Q.16. What is meant by power of a lens? What does its sign (+ve or –ve) indicate? State its S.I. unit. How is
this unit related to focal length of a lens? 2016D
Ans. • The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays falling on it.
• +ve sign Æ converging lens/convex lens
–ve sign Æ diverging lens/concave lens
• The SI unit of lens is dioptre. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.
Q.17. “The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is –3”. List four informations you obtain from this
statement about the mirror/image. 2016OD
Ans. Magnification produced by a spherical mirror, m = –3
• image is 3 times magnified than the object. • image is inverted (as m has negative sign).
• image is real. • nature of the mirror is concave.

s
Q.18. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of light

a
in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water. 2016OD

v D
Speed of light in air

i
Ans. Refractive index of a medium = Speed of light in that medium

Sh
3 4
Given: ng = , nw =
2 3
Speed of light in glass = 2 × 108 m/s; Speed of light in water = v = ?
Speed of light in air 3 Speed of light in air
ng= Speed of light in glass fi =
2 2×108m/s
3
\ Speed of light in air = × 2 × 108 = 3 × 108 m/s
2
Speed of light in air 4 3 × 108 m/s
nw = Speed of light in water fi =
3 v
3
3 × 108 × =v fi v = 2.25 × 108 m/s
4
\ Speed of light in water = 2.25 × 108 m/s
Q.19. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Write four
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror. 2017D
Ans. Four characteristics of the image formed are:
(i) Image is erect.
(ii) Image is virtual.
(iii) Image is diminished in size.
(iv) The image is formed behind the mirror between P & F points of the mirror.
(v) The image is laterally inverted. (any four)
Q.20. A student places a candle flame at a distance of about 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm
and focuses the image of the flame on a screen. After that he gradually moves the flame towards the
lens and each time focuses the image on the screen.
(a) In which direction-toward or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the image?
(b) How does the size of the image change?
(c) How does the intensity of the image change as the flame moves towards the lens?
160 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(d) Approximately for what distance between the flame and the lens, the image formed on the screen
is inverted and of the same size? 2017D
Ans. (a) He will move the screen away from the lens to focus the image.
(b) Size of the image goes on increasing.
(c) Intensity of image goes on decreasing.
(d) About 20 cms.

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.21. Draw the ray diagram and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of image formed by a
concave mirror when the object is placed at the centre of curvature of the mirror. 2011D
Ans. When the object is at the centre of curvature
B D
of a concave mirror, i.e., point C:
The image formed is
CA
(i) real, A’ F P
(ii) inverted,
(iii) same size as the object at C, and
E
(iv) at C. B’

Q.22. Define, ‘refractive index of a transparent medium.’ What is its unit? Which has a higher refractive
index—glass or water? 2011D
Ans. • The light bending ability of a transparent medium is called the refractive index of that medium.
• The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of

s
that medium.

Da
Speed of light in vacuum
Refractive index (of a medium) =

iv
Speed of light in medium

Sh
• Since refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities therefore it has no units.
• The refractive index of glass is more than water.
Q.23. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through triangular glass prism and mark angle of
deviation on it. 2011D
Ans. Refraction of light through triangular glass prism:

PE — Incident ray –i — Angle of incidence


EF — Refracted ray –r — Angle of refraction
FS — Emergent ray –e — Angle of emergence
–A — Angle of the prism –D — Angle of deviation
Q.24. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards or away
from the normal? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light in this situation. 2011D
Ray of light
Ans. When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into Air
(Rarer
water, the light ray will bend towards the normal. Because medium) Normal
when a ray of light travels obliquely from rarer medium to O
Refracted ray
denser medium, it will bend towards the normal.
Water
(Denser medium)

Q.25. (i) “The refractive index of diamond is 2.42”. What is the meaning of this statement?
(ii) Name a liquid whose mass density is less than that of water but it is optically denser than water.
2011D
Ans. (i) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. It means that the ratio of the speed of light in air and the
speed of light in diamond is equal to 2.42.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 161

Higher is the refractive index of a medium, lower is the speed of light in that medium. Because the
refractive index of diamond is very high, therefore the speed of light in diamond is very low.
(ii) Kerosene has the mass density less than water but it is optically denser than water.
Q.26. An object is placed between infinity and the pole of a convex mirror. Draw a ray diagram and also state
the position, the relative size and the nature of the image formed. 2011OD
A
Ans. Position, size and nature of image: D
Image formed by a convex mirror is virtual, diminished, erect and
behind the mirror between its P (pole) and F (focus) point. B P F C

Q.27. What is the principle of reversibility of light? Show that the incident ray of light is parallel to the
emergent ray of light when light falls obliquely on a side of a rectangular glass slab. 2011OD
Ans. Principle of reversibility of light. Refractive index for light going from medium 1 to medium 2 is equal to
the reciprocal of refractive index for light going from medium 2 to medium 1.
1 Incident ray
1h2 =
2 η1 Air
i Normal
According to Snell’s law
ah sin i = gh sin r1 ...(i) r
Similarly, gh sin r2 = ah sin e ...(ii) Glass (g) Refracted ray
r2 = r1 because glass slab is rectangular and therefore r2 Parallel shift
the two normals are parallel.

s
(lateral

a
displacement)
r1 and r2 are alternate interior angles.

D
Normal e
Comparing (i) and (ii), we get Air

iv
ah sin i = ah sin e
Emergent ray

Sh
sin i = sin e fi i=e
\ angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence when a ray of light falls obliquely on a rectangular
glass slab.
Q.28. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 45 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen
placed at a distance of 90 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the
height of the flame is 2 cm, find the height of its image. 2012D
Sol. Object distance, u = –45 cm, Image distance, v = +90 cm (real) Focal length, f = ?,
Nature of lens = ?, Height of the object, h1 = 2 cm, Height of the image, h2 = ?
According to lens formula:
1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3 1
= − fi = − fi = + = = =
f v u f 90 − 45 f 90 45 90 90 30 30
\ f = 30 cm
The positive sign of f shows that the given lens is a convex lens of focal length 30 cm.
2
v +90
Magnification, m = = = –2
u −45
h2 h2
fi h = –2 fi = –2 \ h2 = –4
1 2
• Thus height of the image is 4 cm.
• The negative sign shows that this image is in the downward direction below the axis, i.e., image is
inverted.
Q.29. State the type of mirror preferred as (i) rear view mirror in vehicles, (ii) shaving mirror. Justify your
answer giving two reasons in each case. 2012D
Ans. (i) Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles because the image formed in a convex mirror is
highly diminished thus a convex mirror gives a wide field of view. Therefore a convex mirror enables
a driver to view a much larger area of the traffic behind him.
(ii) Concave mirror is used as shaving mirror because when face is held within the focus of a concave
mirror, an enlarged image of the face is seen in the concave mirror.
162 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.30. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 36 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen
placed at a distance of 72 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the
height of the flame is 2.5 cm, find the height of the image. 2012D
Sol. Object distance, u = –36 cm, Images distance, v = +72 cm
...[+ve sign is due to the image being formed on the screen hence it is real
Focal length, f = ?, Nature of the lens = ?
Height of the object, h1 = 2.5 cm, Height of the image, h2 = ?
According to lens formula:
1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3 1
= − fi = − fi = + = = =
f v u f 72 −36 f 72 36 72 72 24 24
\ f = +24 cm fi +ve sign of f shows that the lens is convex having focal length 24 cm.
2
v 72
Magnification, m = = = –2
u −36

h2 h
Formula: m = = 2 = –2 fi h2 = –2 × 2.5 = –5 cm
h1 2.5
• –ve sign of h2 shows that the image is inverted.
• Thus an inverted, magnified, 5 cm long image is formed on the screen.
Q.31. To construct ray diagram we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after reflection from the mirror. List these two rays and state the path of these rays after
reflection. Use these rays to locate the image of an object placed between centre of curvature and focus

s
of a concave mirror. 2012OD

Da
Ans. Rays used and their path after reflection:

iv
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis after reflection this ray will pass through the principal focus in case

Sh
of a concave mirror or appear to diverge from the principal focus in case of a convex mirror.
(ii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror or directed in the direction of the
centre of curvature of a convex mirror, after reflection, is reflected back along the same path.
When the object is between centre of curvature C and focus F of
mirror:
The image formed is
(i) real,
(ii) inverted,
(iii) magnified, and
(iv) beyond C.
Q.32. A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 24 cm.
The distance of the object from the lens is 16 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image
formed, using the lens formula. 2012OD
Sol. Height of the object, h1 = 4 cm
Convex lens:
Focal length, f = +24 cm, Object distance, u = –16 cm, Image distance, v = ?
Height of the image, h2 = ?, Nature of the image = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −16 24 v 16 24
1 1 1 2 − 3 −1
fi = − = = \ v = –48 cm
v 24 16 48 48
• The image is formed at a distance of 48 cm from the convex lens.
• The minus sign for image distance shows that the image is formed on the left side of the convex lens.
• Only virtual image is formed on the left hand side.
h2 v
According to formula: m = , m=
h1 u
h2 v h2 − 48
= fi = =3 \ h2 = 3 × 4 = 12 cm.
h1 u 4 − 16
Thus a magnified (12 cm high), virtual and erect image is formed.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 163

Q.33. A 2.4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 18 cm.
The distance of the object from the lens is 12 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image
formed, using the lens formula. 2012OD
Sol. h1 = +2.4 cm (upright) (Concave lens) v=? h2 = ?
f = +18 cm (for convex lens) u = –12 cm Nature of the image = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −12 18 v 12 18
1 1 1 2 − 3 −1
fi = − = = fi v = –36 cm
v 18 12 36 36
• Image is formed at a distance of 36 cm from the convex lens.
• The negative (–) sign of v shows that the image is formed on the left hand side of the convex lens.
Only virtual image is formed on the left hand side
3
v −36 h h h2
m= u = =3 fi m= 2 = 2 fi =3
−12 h1 2.4 2.4
fi h2 = 3 × 2.4 = 7.2 cm
• The height of the image is 7.2 cm.
• The positive (+) sign shows that the image is formed above the axis. Thus the image is virtual and
erect.
Q.34. A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm.
The distance of the object from the lens is 8 cm. Using the lens formula find the position, size and

as
nature of the image formed. 2012OD

D
Sol. f = +12 cm (for convex lens), h1 = 5 cm, u = –8 cm

iv
v = ?, h2 = ?, Nature of the image = ?

Sh
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −8 12 v 8 12
1 1 1 2 − 3 −1
fi = − = = fi v = –24 cm
v 12 8 24 24
• Image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from the convex lens.
• The negative (–) sign of v shows that the image is formed on the left hand side of the convex lens and
only virtual image is formed on the left hand side.
• A virtual image is formed at 24 cm from the lens.
3
v 24 h2 h2
\ m= = =3 fi m= fi =3
u 8 h1 5
\ h2 = 3 × 5 = 15 cm
• Thus size of the image is 15 cm.
• The positive (+) sign shows that the image is formed above the axis.
• Thus a virtual, magnified and erect image is formed.
Q.35. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen
placed at a distance of 60 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the
height of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the height of its image. 2012D
Sol. Object distance, u = –30 cm, Image distance, v = +60 cm
...[+ve sign is due to the image formed on the screen, hence it is real
f = ?, Type of lens = ?
Height of the object, h1 = 2.4 cm, Height of the image, h2 = ?
According to lens formula:
1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3 1
= − fi = − fi = + = = =
f v u f 60 −30 f 60 30 60 60 20 20
\ f = +20 cm
The positive (+ve) sign of f shows that the lens is convex having focal length 20 cm.
164 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

2
v 60
Now Magnification, m = = = –2
u −30
h2 h2
Formula: m = fi = –2 \ h2 = –2 × 2.4 = – 4.8 cm
h1 2.4
The negative (–ve) sign of h2 shows that the image is inverted.
Q.36. Mention the types of mirrors used as (i) rear view mirrors, (ii) shaving mirrors. List two reasons to
justify your answers in each case. 2013D
Ans. (i) Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles because
• it always produces an erect image of the objects;
• the image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished thus it gives a wide field of view.
(ii) Concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors because
• when the face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, then an enlarged image of the face is
seen in the concave mirror. This helps in making a smooth shave.
Q.37. An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length
5 cm. Use lens formula to determine the position, size and nature of the image if the distance of the
object from the lens is 10 cm. 2013D
Sol. Height of the object, h1 = 6 cm Focal length of the concave mirror, f = –5 cm
Position of the image, v = ? Size of the image, h2 = ?
Object distance, u = –10 cm
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −1
− = fi fi

s
− = + =
v u f v −10 −5 v 10 5


1 −1
v
=
5

1
10
=
−2 − 1 −3
10
=
10

iv
\

Da v=
−10
3
= –3.3 cm

Sh
10
h2 v h2 − h2 10 1
= fi = 3 fi = =
h1 u 6 − 10 6 3 × 10 3
6
fi h2 = \ h2 = +2 cm
3
Thus the image is formed at a distance of 3.3 cm from the concave lens. The negative (–) sign for image
distance shows that the image is formed on the left side of the concave lens (i.e., virtual). The size of the
image is 2 cm and the positive (+) sign for hand image shows that the image is erect.
Thus a virtual, erect, diminished image is formed on the same side of the object (i.e., left side).
Q.38. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length
10 cm. Use lens formula to determine the position, size and nature of the image if the distance of the
object from the lens is 20 cm. 2013D
Sol. Height of the object, h1 = 5 cm Focal length of the concave lens, f = –10 cm
Position of the object, v = ? Size of the object, h2 = ?
Object distance, u = –20 cm
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −20 −10 v 20 10
1 −1 1 −2 − 1 −3 −20
fi = − = = \ v= = – 6.67 \ Image distance = –6.67cm
v 10 20 20 20 3
The negative (–) sign for image distance shows that image is formed on the left side of the concave lens. So
the image is virtual.
20
h − 2
+2
v 3 = 20
Magnification, m = ,m= 2 \ m= =
3
= 0.67
u h1 − 10 10 × 3
h2 v h ×v
5 × −20 5
fi h =u \ h2 = 1 = = fi m = +1.66 cm
1 u 3 × −20 3
Since h2 < h1 therefore image is diminished. The positive (+) sign for the magnification shows that image
is erect and virtual.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 165

Q.39. An object of height 4 cm is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens. Use lens formula to
determine the image distance, nature and size of the image formed if focal length of the lens is 15 cm.
2013D
Sol. Height of the object, h1 = 4 cm Object distance, u = –30 cm (It is to the left of the lens)
Focal length of concave lens, f = –15 cm Image distance, v = ?
Nature of the image = ? Image height, h2 = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −30 −15 v 30 15
1
1 −1 1 −2 − 1 −3 1
fi v = 15 − 30 = 30 = = \ v = –10 cm
30 10 10
Thus the image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the concave lens.
The negative (–) sign for image distance shows the image is formed on the left side of the concave lens, i.e.,
it is virtual.
v h
Magnification, m = ,m= 2
u h1
h2 v h −10 1 1 4
\ h =u fi 2 =
= fi h2 = × 4 = = +1.33 cm
1 4 −30 3 3 3
Thus a 1.33 cm high image is formed and positive (+) sign of h2 shows that image is erect.
Thus image distance = 10 cm, image height = 1.33 cm.

s
Nature of the image is virtual and erect.

a
Q.40. Name the type of mirror used (i) by dentists and (ii) in solar furnaces. Give two reasons why such

v D
mirrors are used in each case. 2013, 2016OD

Shi
Ans. (i) Concave mirrors are used by dentists to see the large images of the teeth of patients because when a
tooth is within the focus of a concave mirror, then an enlarged image of the tooth is seen in the
concave mirror. Thus it becomes easier to locate the defect in the tooth.
(ii) Large concave mirrors are used in solar furnaces as reflectors. Solar furnace is placed at the focus of
the concave reflector which focusses the Sun’s heat rays on the furnace due to which the solar furnace
gets very hot. Even steel can be melted in this solar furnace.
Q.41. A student focussed the image of an object on a white screen using a converging lens. He noted down
the positions of the object, screen and the lens on a scale as given below:
Position of object = 10.0 cm; Position of lens = 50.0 cm; Position of screen = 90.0 cm
(a) Find the focal length of the converging lens.
(b) Find the position of the image if the object is shifted towards the lens at a position of 30.0 cm.
(c) State the nature of the image formed if the object is further shifted towards the lens. 2013OD
Ans. Object distance, u = –40 cm Image distance, v = (90 – 50) = +40 cm
(a) Focal length of converging lens, f = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
= − fi = − = + fi = =
f v u f 40 −40 40 40 f 40 20
\ f = 20 cm
\ Focal length of the converging lens, f = +20 cm
(b) If u = –20 cm (Object is shifted from 10 cm to 30 cm with respect to 50 cm)
f = +20 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi = + = + = − fi
v u f v f u 20 −20 20 20 = 0 v
=0

1
fi v= \ v = • (∵ Reciprocal of 0 is •)
0
So image is formed at infinity.
(c) If the object is shifted from 30 cm towards 50 cm, the object lies between the focus and optical centre
of the lens. Then the image formed will be behind the object, virtual, erect and enlarged (larger than
the object).
166 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.42. A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down
the positions of the candle flame, screen and the lens as given below: 2013OD
Position of the candle flame = 12.0 cm; Position of the lens = 50.0 cm; Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
(i) Find the focal length of the convex lens.
(ii) Find the position of the image of the candle flame if it is shifted towards the lens at a position of
31.0 cm.
(iii) State the nature of the image formed if the candle flame is further shifted towards the lens.
Ans. Position of the candle flame = 12 cm, Position of the lens = 50 cm
Position of the screen = 88 cm, Object distance, u = 50 – 12 = –38 cm
Image distance, v = 88 – 50 = +38 cm (+ sign for real image as the image is formed on the screen)
(i) Focal length of convex lens, f = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = −
f v u f 38 −38
1
1 1 1 2 1
fi f = 38 + 38 = =
19
fi f = 19
38 19
\ Focal length of the convex lens, f = +19 cm
+ve sign shows the converging lens, i.e., convex lens.
(ii) v = ?, f = +19 cm, u = (50 – 31) = –19 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi = + = + = −
v u f v f u 19 −19 19 19 = 0

as
1
fi \ v = • (∵ Reciprocal of 0 is •)

D
=0
v

iv
So image is formed at infinity.

Sh
A
(iii) When the candle flame lies between 50 cm to 31 cm, i.e.,
less than 19 cm, the image will be virtual, erect, magnified B O F
Object
and behind the object.

Q.43. A spherical mirror ‘A’ always forms an erect image of an object and another spherical mirror ‘B’ forms
erect as well as inverted image of an object. State with reasons the type of spherical mirrors ‘A’ and ‘B’
and draw ray diagrams showing formation of images to justify your answer. 2013OD
Ans. Mirror ‘A’ is a convex mirror as this mirror always forms an erect and virtual image.
When an incident ray is parallel to the principal axis, the reflected ray appears to be coming from the focus
and when incident ray moves towards the centre of curvature,
the reflected ray retraces the path.
These two rules show that the reflected rays are diverging and
when produced back-wards, the rays appear to meet. Thus,
this mirror always produces a virtual image which is always
erect.
Mirror ‘B’ is a concave mirror. The nature, position and size of
the image formed by a concave mirror depends on the position
of the object in relation to points P(Pole), F(focus) and C(centre
of curvature) of the mirror.

Case 1. When the object is placed between P and F—the two


reflected rays (one passes through the focus and other retraces
through centre of curvature) are diverging and appear to meet
in backward direction. This produces a virtual and erect image.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 167

Case 2. As the object moves away from the mirror beyond F the two reflected rays actually meet below the
principal axis which produces a real and inverted image.

B D

CA
A’ F P

B’ E

B D
A’
A C F P
B’

Q.44. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification –1 on a screen placed at a distance of 50 cm from
the mirror. 2014D
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?

s
(d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

a
Ans. If magnification, m = –1; v = 50 cm

v D
If the magnification has minus sign, then the image is real and inverted.

Shi
−v −( −50)
\ v = –50 (for real image) ∵ m= fi −1 =
u u
u = –50 cm
(a) Since image is formed on the screen therefore the mirror formed real image which is formed by
concave mirror only.
(b) Image distance = 50 cm in front of the mirror.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −2 −1
(c) f = v + u fi f
= +
−50 −50 fi f
= − −
50 50 fi =
25
50
\ f = –25 cm
(d)

Q.45. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification –1 on a screen placed at a distance of 40 cm from
the mirror: 2014D
(i) Write the type of mirror.
(ii) What is the nature of the image formed?
(iii) How far is the object located from the mirror?
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Ans. • Spherical mirror • m = –1
• image is formed on a screen • image distance, v = 40 m
(i) Concave mirror
(ii) Real image (as it is formed on the screen)
(iii) m = –1
−v −( −40)
m= fi –1 = fi –u = +40 fi u = –40 cm
u u
\ Object is placed at 40 cm from the mirror.
168 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iv)

Q.46. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 60 cm in front of a mirror by keeping
the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.
(i) Write the type of mirror he should use.
(ii) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
(iii) What is the distance between the object and its image?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. 2014OD
Ans. (i) Concave mirror
Image distance −v
(ii) Linear magnification = − Object distance fi m=
u
Object distance, u = –15 (u is always negative)
Image distance, v = –60 (v is negative for real image)
( −60)
m = − ( −15) \ m = –4
The minus sign in magnification shows that the image formed is real and inverted.
(iii) Distance between object and its image = 45 cm

as
(iv) Ray diagram:

iv D
Sh
The image formed is real, inverted, magnified and beyond 2f.
Q.47. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the refracted ray in each of the following cases: 2014OD
A ray of light incident on a concave lens is
(i) passing through its optical centre.
(ii) parallel to its principal axis.
(iii) directed towards its principal focus.

Ans. (i) A ray of light passing through optical centre of a concave lens.
An incident ray passing through the optical centre of a lens
(concave or convex) goes straight after refraction.

(ii) Light ray parallel to principal axis.

(iii) A ray of light directed towards principal focus.


Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 169

Q.48. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48 cm in front of a mirror by keeping
the flame at a distance of 12 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
(c) How far is the image from its object?
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. 2014OD
Ans. (a) Concave mirror as only concave mirror produces the real image.
Image distance −v
(b) Linear magnification = – fi m=
Object distance u
Object distance, u = –12 (u is always negative)
Image distance, v = –60 (v is negative for real image)
( −48)
m = − ( −12) \ m = –4
The minus sign in magnification shows that the image formed is real and inverted.
(c) The image is formed at a distance of 36 cm from the object.
(d) Ray diagram. Refer to Q.45(iv),
Q.49. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 90 cm in front of a mirror by keeping
the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Determine the linear magnification in this case.
(c) Find the distance between the object and its image.

s
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. 2014OD

a
Ans (a) Concave mirror

iv D
Image distance −v
(b) Linear magnification = – fi m=

Sh
Object distance u
Object distance, u = –15 (u is always negative)
Image distance, v = –90 (–ve sign as the image is formed in front of the mirror on the screen)
( −90)
m = − ( −15) \ m = –6
(c) The distance between the object and its image is 75 cm.
(d) Ray diagram. Refer Q.46(iv)
Q.50. To construct a ray diagram we use two rays of light which are so chosen that it is easy to determine
their directions after reflection from the mirror. Choose these two rays and state the path of these rays
after reflection from a concave mirror. Use these two rays to find the nature and position of the image
of an object placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. 2015D
Sol. Ray 1. When an incident ray of light is parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror, its reflected ray
must pass through the principal focus of the concave mirror.
Ray 2. A ray passing through the ‘C’ point of a concave mirror after reflection will be reflected back on the
same path.
• Focal length = 10 cm; Then centre of curvature, C = 20 cm
Object is placed at 15 cm, i.e., between F & C
When the object is between F and C (centre of curvature):
The image formed is real, inverted and magnified.
It is formed beyond C.
Q.51. If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and
diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Where and why do
we generally use this type of mirror? 2015OD

A D
Ans. Convex mirror always forms an erect, virtual and diminished
image for all positions of the object placed in front of it. B P F C
Object Image
170 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Uses:
(i) Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles to see the traffic at the rear side (or back
side) because—(i) a convex mirror always produces an erect image of the object; (ii) the image formed
in a convex mirror is highly diminished due to which a convex mirror gives a wide field of view.
(ii) Big convex mirrors are used as ‘shop security mirrors’. By installing a big convex mirror at a strategic
point in the shop, the shop owner can keep an eye on the customer to look for thieves and shoplifters
among them as convex mirrors always form a virtual, diminished and erect image.
Q.52. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length
10 cm. If the distance of the object from the optical centre is 20 cm, determine the position, nature and
size of the image formed using the lens formula. 2015OD
Ans. Object height, h1 = +5 cm Focal length, f1 = –10 cm Object distance, u = –20 cm
Image distance, v = ? Nature of the image = ? Image height, h2 = ?
According to the lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −1 1
= − fi = + = + = −
f v u v f u ( −10) ( −20) 10 20
1 −2 − 1 − 3 −20
fi = = \ v= = –6.67 cm
v 20 20 3
Negative sign of v shows that image is formed on the same side of the object, i.e., virtual.
h2 v h2 −20 +5
= fi = \ h2 = = +1.67 cm
h1 u 5 3 × ( −20) 3
Positive sign of h2 shows that image is erect.

s
Thus a virtual, erect, diminished image is formed at a distance of 6.67 cm away from the lens on the same

Da
side of the object.

iv
Q.53. Draw the following diagram, in which a ray of light is incident on a concave/convex mirror, on your

Sh
answer sheet. Show the path of this ray, after reflection, in each case. 2016D

F F F

(i) (ii) (iii)

Sol. (i)

C F

(ii)

(iii)

i
r F C
P
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 171

Q.54. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass slab and mark angle of
refraction and the lateral shift suffered by the ray of light while passing through the slab.
(b) If the refractive index of glass for light going from air to glass is 3/2, find the refractive index of air
for light going from glass to air. 2016D
Ans. (a) Ray diagram of refraction through a glass slab.
Normal
A N

Incident ray i
Air O

r
N1
Rectangular ® Glass r
glass slab B
Air

ift l
sh tera
Angle of e
refraction

La
N2 C
Normal
3
(b) Refractive index of glass from air: ang =
2
1 1 2
Refractive index of air from glass: gna = fi =
a ng 3/2 3

s
Q.55. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification –1. If the image is at

a
a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object

v D
is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the

Shi
object to justify your answer. 2016OD
Ans. Magnification, m = –1; Image is real and inverted;
Image distance = –40 cm (∵ image is real)
−v −( −40)
=m fi = –1
u u
−( −40)
fi u = fi u = –40 cm
−1
\ Object is placed at 40 cm in front of the mirror.
When object distance is equal to the image distance and image is real, then the object is placed at C.
If the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror, then its new position would be at the focus of the mirror.
According to the mirror formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + fi = +
f v u f −40 −40
1 −1 1 1 −2 −1
= − fi = =
f 40 40 f 40 20
fi f = – 20 cm
Second case: f = –20 cm; u = –20 cm; v=?
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = fi + =
v u f v −20 −20 B D
A
1 1 −1 1 −1 1 C F
P
− = fi = +
v 20 20 v 20 20
1 1
=0⇒v= =μ
v 0
Thus, image will be formed at infinity.
Q.56. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification –1. If the distance between the object and
its image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens,
where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your
answer. 2016OD
172 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Image with magnification –1 means


• image is inverted.

Image
A
• image is of same size as the object.
• image distance is equal to the object distance. B O F
Object
\ The object is at 2f and image is at 2f ’ if distance
between the object and its image is 60 cm.
10 cm
60
\ 4f = 60 cm fi 2f = = 30 cm
2
\ f = 15 cm
It is a convex lens as magnification –1 is possible in convex lens only.
• If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, the new object distance = 30 cm – 20 cm = 10 cm.
• This distance is less than focal length, thus the image formed in this case would be virtual, erect,
magnified and will be formed on the same side as the object.
Q.57. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification –2. If the image is at a
distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror. List
two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror. 2016OD
Ans. Nature of image formed by spherical mirror = Real, inverted
Magnification, m = –2 Object distance, u = ?
Image distance, v = –30 cm (–ve sign is for real image) f=?
−v −v −30
m= fi = –2 fi =2
u u u
2u = –30 \ u = –15 cm

as
1 1 1

D
According to the mirror formula: f = v + u

Shiv
1 1 1 1 −1 1 −1 − 2 −3
= + fi = − = =
f −30 −15 f 30 15 30 30
1 −1
= \ f = –10 cm
f 10
If the object is shifted 10 cm towards the mirror then, u = 15 – 10 = 5 cm.
In this case the object is placed between pole and focus of the spherical mirror.
Therefore, the image formed is virtual, erect, magnified and behind the mirror.
Q.58. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and
diminished, what is the nature of this lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical
value of the power of this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian system? 2017OD
Ans. This lens is a Concave lens.
M
A

2F B F B¢ O

N
1
P = –10D (As lens is concave), f = ?, P= f
1 1
So, f = fi = –0.1 m or –10 cm. So, the focal length of the lens is 10 cm.
P −10

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.59. (a) If the image formed by a lens is diminished in size and erect, for all positions of the object, what
type of lens is it?
(b) Name the point on the lens through which a ray of light passes undeviated.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 173

(c) An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The
distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find (i) the position (ii) the magnification and (iii) the
nature of the image formed. 2011D
Ans. (a) The lens is concave.
(b) Optical centre is the point on the lens through which a ray of light passes undeviated.
(c) Convex lens: Focal length, f = +20 cm Object distance, u = –30 cm
Image distance, v = ? Magnification, m = ?
Nature of the image = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −30 20 v 30 20

1 1 1 3−2 1 v 60
fi = − = = fi v = +60 cm \ m= = = –2
v 20 30 60 60 u −30
Nature. The +ve sign of v shows that the image is formed on the right side of the convex lens, so the
image formed is real.
• The magnification is two (i.e., more than one) so the image is larger than the object.
• The –ve sign for m shows that the image is formed below the principal axis. Hence the image is
inverted.
\ Nature of image: Real, inverted and magnified
Q.60. (a) One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will such a lens produce an image of the
complete object? Support your answer with a ray diagram.

s
(b) An object 5 cm high is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm.

Da
(i) Draw the ray diagram and

v
(ii) Calculate the position and size of the image formed.

Shi
(iii) What is the nature of the image? 2011D
Ans. (a) As we can see in the figure given, when the lower
half of the convex lens is covered with a black
Object
paper, it still forms the complete image of the
object as that formed with uncovered lens. Image
However the intensity of the image is reduced
when the convex lens is covered with black paper.

Object F B´ 2F
(b) (i) B 2F´ F´ O Image

Converging lens (Convex lens):


Height of the object, h1 = 5 cm; Object distance, u = –25 cm; Focal length, f = +10 cm
(ii) Image distance, v = ? Image size, h2 = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi − = fi + =
v u f v −25 10 v 25 10

1 1 1 1 5−2 3 50
= − fi = = fi v= = +16.6 cm
v 10 25 v 50 50 3
2
h2 v h2 50 − 50 × 5 −10
= fi = \ h2 = = = –3.3 cm
h1 u 5 3 × −25 3 × 25 3
(iii) Nature of the image:
• The +ve sign of v shows that image is real.
• The –ve sign of h2 shows that image is inverted.
\ Size of image = 3.3 cm
174 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.61. (a) What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?


(b) State and define the S.I. unit of power of a lens.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length 10 cm are placed in close
contact with each other. Calculate the lens power of this combination. 2011OD
Ans. (a) The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays falling on it.
(b) The SI unit of the power of a lens is dioptre. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is
1 metre.
(c) Focal length of the convex lens:
25
f1 = +25 cm = + m = +0.25 m
100
Focal length of the concave lens:
10
f2 = –10 cm = − m = –0.10 m
100
1 1 1 1
P1 = = = +4D; P2 = = = –10D
f1 0.25 f2 − 0.10
Power of combination, P = P1 + P2 = 4 + (–10) = –6D (dioptre)
Q.62. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between infinity and the
optical centre of a concave lens.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate
(i) the distance of the object from the lens
(ii) the magnification for the image formed
(iii) the nature of the image formed 2011OD
Ans. (a) When an object is placed any-where between infinity and optical centre of a concave lens, the image

as
formed is

D
(i) between O and F.

iv
(ii) virtual.

Sh
(iii) erect.
(iv) diminished.
(b) Concave lens.
Focal length, f = –15 cm v = –10 cm,
u = ?, m=?
Nature of the image = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = − fi = −
f v u u v f u −10 ( −15)

1 −1 1 −3 + 2 −1
fi = + = = \ u = –30 cm
u 10 15 30 30
(i) The distance of the object from the lens = 30 cm
v −10 1
(ii) Magnification, m = = =
u −30 3
(iii) Nature: +ve sign of m shows that the image is erect.
Since the value of m is less than (1), therefore image is diminished.
Q.63. State the law of refraction of light that defines the refractive index of a medium with respect to the
other. Express it mathematically. How is refractive index of any medium ‘A’ with respect to a medium
‘B’ related to the speed of propagation of light in two media A and B? State the name of this constant
when one medium is vacuum or air.
The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to vacuum are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If the
speed of light in glass is 2×108 m/s, find the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water. 2012D
Ans. The second law of refraction gives a relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of
refraction. This law is also known as Snell’s Law of Refraction.
According to the Snell’s law, “The ratio of sine of angle of incident to the sine of refraction is constant for a given
pair of media.”
sin i
= constant. This constant is called refractive index.
sin r
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 175

Example: A ray of light travelling in air enters into glass and gets refracted
...where ⎡ sin i = sine of angle of incidence in air
sin i ⎢ sin r = sine of angle of refraction in glass
then, =n ⎢ n = refractive index of glass
sin r ⎣
The refractive index of medium ‘A’ with respect to medium ‘B’ is equal to the ratio of speed of light in
medium ‘A’ to the speed of light in medium ‘B’.
Speed of light in medium B
BnA = Speed of light in medium A
...where ⎡ B nA = refractive index of A w.r .t. B
vB ⎢ vB = velocity of light in medium B
BnA = vA ⎢ v = velocity of light in medium A
⎣ A
When light is going from vacuum to another medium, then the value of refractive index is called the
absolute refractive index.
3 4
n ng = , n nw = , vg = 2 × 108 m/s, vn = ?, vw = ?
2 3
v
Formula: n ng = vν
g

\
3
= fi vν = 3 × 2 × 108 = 3 × 108 m/s
2 2 × 108 2
\ Velocity of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
vν 4 3 × 10 8
fi =
n nw = vw 3 vw

s
25 6
× 10 × 3

a
3 × 100
fi rw = = 225 × 106 = 2.25 × 108 m/s

D
4

iv
\ Velocity of light in water = 2.25 × 108 m/s

Sh
Q.64. List the sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Draw a diagram and apply these
conventions in the determination of focal length of a spherical mirror which forms a three times
magnified real image of an object placed 16 cm in front of it. 2012D
Ans. Sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirrors:
(i) All the distances are measured from pole of the mirror as origin.
(ii) The object is always placed to the left of the mirror.
(iii) Distances measured in the direction of incident light are considered to be positive (+ve).
(iv) Distances measured against the direction of incident light are considered to be negative (–ve).
(v) The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the upward direction are considered to be
positive (+ve).
(vi) The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the downward direction are considered to be
negative (–ve).
u = object distance v = image distance f = focal length
h = height of the object h¢ = height of the image
P = Principal axis C = Centre of curvature F = Focus
Type of mirror Position of object u v f h h¢¢
Concave between P & F –ve +ve –ve +ve +ve
Concave between F & C –ve –ve –ve +ve –ve
Concave at C –ve –ve –ve +ve –ve
Concave beyond C –ve –ve –ve +ve –ve
Convex in front of it –ve +ve +ve +ve +ve
Diagram. When the object is between F and C
(centre of curvature):
The image formed is
(i) real,
(ii) inverted,
(iii) magnified, and
(iv) beyond C.
PA = Object distance = This distance lies in the direction opposite to the incident ray
176 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

\ PA, i.e., u = –16


Magnification is 3 times \ m = –3
−v −v
=m fi = –3 \ –v = 3 × 16 = 48 fi v = –48 cm
u −16
According to mirror formula:
1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −1 1 −3 − 1 −4 1
= + fi = + fi = − = = =−
f u v f −16 −48 f 16 48 48 48 12 12
\ f = –12 cm
The negative (–) sign of focal length shows that it is a concave lens of focal length 12 cm.
• Thus an inverted, magnified image is formed on the screen.
Q.65. With the help of a ray diagram, state what is meant by refraction of light. State Snell’s law for
refraction of light and also express it mathematically. 2012OD
The refractive index of air with respect to glass is 2/3 and the refractive index of water with respect to
air is 4/3. If the speed of light in glass is 2×108 m/s, find the speed of light in (a) air, (b) water.
Ans. Refraction of light. The bending of light when it passes from one medium to A N
another is called refraction of light. Inc
ide Normal
Diagram and Snell’s law. The second law of refraction of light is the Snell’s nt
ray i
Air O
Law of Refraction. It states that the ratio of sine of the angle of incidence to the Glass

Re
sine of angle of refraction is a constant for a given pair of medium. r

fra
cte
sin i

d
= constant (n)

ra
sin r

y
B
This constant (n) is called refractive index of the medium.

Da
(a) Refractive index of air with respect to glass:

Shiv
Velocity of light in glass vg 2
gna = fi gna = v = 3
Velocity of light in air a

∵ vg = 2 × 108 m/s ...[Given


2 × 10 8 2
va = ? \ =
va 3

3 × 2 × 108
fi = va \ va = 3 × 108 m/s
2
\ Velocity of light in air = 3 × 108 m/s
(b) Refractive index of water with respect to air:
va 4
anw = = ∵ va = 3 × 108 m/s ...[From (a)
vw 3
3 × 108 4 3 × 3 × 10 8
fi = fi = vw
vw 3 4
9
fi vw = × 108 \ vw = 2.25 × 108 m/s
4
\ Velocity of light in water = 2.25 × m/s 108
Q.66. List the new Cartesian sign convention for reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Apply these
conventions for calculating the focal length and nature of a spherical mirror which forms a 1/3 times
magnified virtual image of an object placed 18 cm in front of it. 2012OD
Ans. New Cartesian Sign Conventions for spherical mirrors. Refer to Q.64.
f=? Nature of spherical mirror = ?
1
∵ The image is times magnified and virtual
3
1
\ Magnification, m = + ...[+ve sign of m is for virtual image
3
u = –18 cm
−v −v 1 1 6
=m fi = fi v= × 18 = +6
u − 18 3 3
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 177

According to the mirror formula:


1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3−1 2 1
= + fi = + = − fi = = =
f v u f 6 −18 6 18 f 18 18 9
\ f = +9 cm
Positive (+) sign of f shows that the spherical mirror is convex having focal length of 9 cm.
Q.67. (a) State the laws of refraction of light. Give an expression to relate the absolute refractive index of a
medium with speed of light in vacuum.
(b) The refractive indices of water and glass with respect to air are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the
speed of light in glass is 2×108 ms–1, find the speed of light in (i) air, (ii) water. 2014OD
Ans. (a) There are two laws of refraction of light:
(i) The first law of refraction of light states that the incident ray, the A N
refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the Incid Normal
en
same plane. tr
a y i
Air O
(ii) The second law of refraction of light is the Snell’s law of Refraction. It Glass

Re
r
states that the ratio of sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of angle

fra
of refraction is a constant for a given pair of medium.

cte
d
ra
sin i

y
B
= constant (n)
sin r
This constant (n) is called refractive index of the medium.
Speed of light in vacuum
Absolute refractive index of a medium = Speed of light in medium
4 3
(b) anw = ang =

s
3 2

a
Speed of light in glass, vg = 2 × 108 m/s

v D
Speed of light in air, va = ? Speed of light in water, vw = ?

Shi
va 4 v
anw = v fi = a ...(i)
w 3 vw
v 3 va
ang = va fi =
g 2 2 × 10 8
3
fi va = × 2 × 108 = 3 × 108 m/s
2
Putting the value of va in equation (i),
4 3 × 10 8 3 9
= fi vw = 3 × 108 × = × 108 = 2.25 × 108 m/s
3 vw 4 4
Q.68. State Snell’s law of refraction of light. Write an expression to relate refractive index of a medium with
speed of light in vacuum.
The refractive index of a medium ‘a’ with respect to medium ‘b’ is 2/3 and the refractive index of
medium ‘b’ with respect to medium ‘c’ is 4/3. Find the refractive index of medium ‘c’ with respect to
medium ‘a’. 2013D
Ans. Snell’s law states that, “the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for a given
pair of media”.
sin i
= Constant
sin r
The value of constant for a ray of light passing from air into a particular medium is called the refractive
index of the medium.
Speed of light in vacuum
Refractive index (of a medium) = Speed of light in medium
2
Refractive index of medium ‘a’ with respect to ‘b’ = bna =
3
Speed of light in medium ‘b ’ v
2
bna = Speed of light in medium ‘a’ = vb = 3
a
4
Refractive index of medium ‘b’ with respect to ‘c’ = cnb =
3
Speed of light in medium ‘c ’ c v
4
cnb = Speed of light in medium ‘b ’ = v = 3
b
178 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Refractive index of medium ‘c’ with respect to ‘a’ = anc = ?


Speed of light in medium ‘a ’ v
anc = Speed of light in medium ‘c ’ = va = ?
c
vb 2 3
∵ = fi va = v
va 3 2 b
vc 4 4
∵ = fi vc = v
vb 3 3 b
3
va vb 3 3 9
= 2 = × =
anc = vc 4 2 4 8
vb
3
Q.69. Define the term absolute refractive index. The absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the
meaning of this statement? Refractive indices of media A, B, C and D are given below: 2013D
Media Refractive index
A 1.33
B 1.44
C 1.52
D 1.65
In which of these four media is the speed of light (i) minimum and (ii) maximum?
Find the refractive index of medium C with respect to medium B.
Ans. When light is going from vacuum to another medium, then the value of refractive index is called absolute
refractive index to the medium.

as
1

D
The absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42. It means that the speed of light in diamond is times
2.42

iv
the speed of light in vacuum.

Sh
As the refractive indices increase, speed of the light decreases in the medium.
(i) The refractive index of medium D is maximum (1.65). So the speed of light in medium D is minimum.
(ii) The refractive index of medium A is minimum (1.33). So the speed of light in medium A is maximum.
BnC = ? ...[Refractive index of medium C with respect to medium B
Speed of light in vacuum
nB = Speed of light in medium B
v v
1.44 = v fi vB = ...(i)
B 1.44
Speed of light in vacuum
nC = Speed of light in medium C
v v
1.52 = v fi vC = ...(ii)
C 1.52
Speed of light in medium B
BnC = Speed of light in medium C

v
vB 1.44
BnC = v fi BnC = v ...[From (i) and (ii)
C
19 1.52
76 38
v 1.52 152 76
× = =
BnC = 1.44 v 144 72 72 36 18
= 1.055 = 1.06
Q.70. (a) To construct a ray diagram we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after reflection from the mirror. List these two rays and state the path of these rays after
reflection. Use these two rays to locate the image of an object placed between infinity and the
centre of curvature of a concave mirror.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between the pole and
principal focus of a concave mirror. How will the nature and size of the image formed change, if
the mirror is replaced by a converging lens of same focal length? 2012OD
Ans. (a) The rays for obtaining image from the mirror after reflection are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after reflection from the mirror.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 179

r
i
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis, after i
r
reflection passes through the focus in concave
P
mirror or appears to pass through the focus C F P F C
in convex mirror.

(ii) A ray passing through the principal focus of a r


i
concave mirror or directed towards the
principal focus in convex mirror after F
i P
reflection will emerge parallel to the principal C r P F C
axis.

(iii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature


of the concave mirror or directed in the
direction of the centre of curvature of the P
C F P F C
convex mirror is reflected back along the
same path after reflection.

s
B D

Da
• When the object is placed between infinity and the centre of A’

v
A C F P

i
curvature of a concave mirror. B’

(b)
Sh
• When the object is placed between the pole and principal
focus of a concave mirror. C F
B
D
B’

A P A’

A
• If the object is placed between the optical centre and
principal focus of a converging lens (convex lens). B O F
Object

Q.71. List the sign conventions that are followed in case of refraction of light through spherical lenses. Draw
a diagram and apply these conventions in determining the nature and focal length of a spherical lens
which forms a four times magnified real image of an object placed 20 cm from the lens. 2013OD
Ans. Sign conventions in case of refraction of light through spherical lenses:
(i) All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
(ii) The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive (+ve).
(iii) The distances measured in the opposite direction as that of incident light are taken as negative (–ve).
(iv) The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the upward direction are taken as positive (+ve).
(v) The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the downward direction are taken as negative (–ve).
u = object distance from O (optical centre), v = image distance from O, f = focal length
These rules conclude that:
(i) ‘u’ (object distance) is always –ve
(ii) ‘f ’ of convex lens is always +ve
(iii) ‘f ’ of concave lens is always –ve
(iv) ‘v’ in case of virtual image is always –ve
180 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(v) ‘v’ in case of real image is always +ve.


(vi) Real image is always inverted thus h2 (size of the image) in case of real image is always –ve.
(vii) h2 (size of the image) in case of virtual image is always +ve as it is always erect.
Nature of the image = ? Focal length of the lens = ?
h2 = – 4h1 ...(Real image is always formed in downward direction)
m = +4 ...(+ve sign for real image, as the image will be formed on the right side of the lens)
u = –20 ...(–ve sign shows the object is placed on the left side of the lens)
h2 v h2 v −4 h1 v
m= h m= fi = fi =
1 u h1 u h1 −20
\ v = – 4 × –20 = +80 cm
\ Image is formed 80 cm from the lens on the opposite side of the object, i.e., on the right side of the lens.

Q.72. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a
lens:
(a) Which type of lens should he use and why?
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ‘F’ of the lens should he place the candle flame so as to

s
get (i) a magnified, and (ii) a diminished image respectively on the wall?

Da
(c) Draw ray diagram to show the formation of the image in each case. 2014D

iv
Ans. (a) A convex lens should be used. This is because it can produce a real image of the candle flame on the

Sh
wall as it is a converging lens where refracted rays actually meet.
(b) & (c) (i) A real magnified image is formed when the candle flame is placed between F and 2F from the
convex lens on the other side of the wall.

(ii) A real diminished image is formed when the candle flame is placed beyond 2F from the convex
lens on the other side of the wall.

Q.73. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a
mirror. 2014D
(a) Which type of mirror should he use and why?
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ‘F ’ of the mirror should he place the candle flame so as
to get the magnified image on the wall?
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(d) Can he use this mirror to project a diminished image of the candle flame on the same wall? State
‘how’ if your answer is ‘yes’ and ‘why not’ if your answer is ‘no’.
Ans. (a) Concave mirror should be used as only this mirror will produce a real image (i.e., on the wall).
(b) The object should be placed between ‘F’ and ‘2F’ so as to get the magnified image on the wall.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 181

(c)

B D
A¢ 2F A
F P

B
(d) When the candle flame is placed beyond 2F, A diminished real D
image will be formed on the wall. A’
A 2F F P
B’

Q.74. (a) Explain the following terms related to spherical lenses:


(i) optical center (ii) centres of curvature (iii) principal axis
(iv) aperture (v) principal focus (vi) focal length
(b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm. Calculate at what distance should the object be placed
from the lens so that it forms an image at 48 cm on the other side of the lens. 2014OD
Ans. (a) (i) Optical center. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which a ray of
light passes undeflected.
(ii) Centre of curvature. The centre of curvature of the surface of a lens is the centre of the sphere of

s
which it forms a part. A lens has two centres of curvature because it has two surfaces.

a
(iii) Principal axis. It is a line through the centres of curvatures of the lens.

v D
(iv) Aperture. The diameter of the circular boundary of the lens is called the aperture of the lens.

Shi
(v) Principal focus. A beam of light parallel to the principal axis either converges to a point or
appears to diverge from a point on the principal axis after refraction through the lens, is called
the principal focus. All lenses have two principal focuses.
(vi) Focal length. The distance between the optical centre and the principal focus of the lens is called
its focal length.
(b) A converging lens is a convex lens.
f = +12 cm; u = ?; v = +48 cm (+ve as it is formed on other side of the object)
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 − 4 −3 1
= − fi = − fi = − = = =
f v u 12 48 u u 48 12 48 48 16
\ u = –16 cm
Q.75. (a) State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term absolute refractive index of a medium and
write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum. 2015D
(b) The absolute refractive indices of two media ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 2.0 and 1.5 respectively. If the speed of
light in medium ‘B’ is 2 × 108 m/s, calculate the speed of light in: (i) vacuum, (ii) medium ‘A’.
Ans. (a) Laws of Refraction:
(i) The first law of refraction of light states that the incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at
the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The second law of refraction of light is the Snell’s Law of Refraction. It states that the ratio of sine
of the angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant for a given pair of
medium.
sin i
= constant (n)
sin r
This constant (n) is called refractive index of the medium.
• When the light is going from vacuum to another medium, then the value of refractive index is
called the absolute refractive index.
• The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the absolute
refractive index of that medium, i.e.,
Speed of light in vacuum (c )
Absolute refractive index (of a medium) = Speed of light in medium (v)
182 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) nA = 2.0; nB = 1.5; vB = 2 × 108 m/s


(i) Speed of light in vacuum, c = ?
c
nB = 1.5 = v \ c = nBvB = 1.5 × 2 × 108 m/s = 3 × 108 m/s
B
c c 3 × 108 m/s
(ii) For medium ‘A’: nA = v \ vA = n = = 1.5 × 108 m/s
A A 2
Q.76. “A convex lens can form a magnified erect as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in
front of it.” Draw ray diagram to justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to
the lens in each case.
An object of height 4 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. Use
lens formula to determine the position of the image formed. 2015D
A’
Ans. • A convex lens can form a magnified erect image when
the object is placed between the optical centre and Image A

principal focus of the convex lens (i.e., between O B O


B’ F’ F
and F’).

Object
• A convex lens can form a
magnified inverted image when
the object is placed between focus
and the centre of curvature (i.e.,

s
between F’ and 2F’).

• Object height, h = 4 cm;

iv Da
Sh
Object distance, u = –20 cm
Nature of the lens = concave lens; Focal length = f = –10 cm
Image distance, v = ?
According to the lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −2 − 1 −3
= − fi = + fi = + = =
f v u v f u v −10 −20 20 20
\ v = –6.66 cm
The image is formed at a distance of 6.66 cm in front of the concave lens.
Q.77. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen
placed on the other side of the lens at a distance of 60 cm from the optical centre of the lens. Identify
the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 3 cm, find the height of its
image. 2015D
Ans. Since the image is formed on the screen, the image is real. A concave lens cannot form a real image.
Therefore, the lens is convex.
Object distance, u = –30 cm Image distance, v = +60 cm Focal length, f = ?
Height of the object, h1 = +3 cm Nature of lens = ? Height of the image, h2 = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3
= − fi = − = + = = \ f = +20 cm
f v u f +60 −30 60 30 60 60
v
Magnification of convex lens, m =
u
h2 v h2 +60 +60
= fi = fi h2 = ×3
h1 u +3 −30 −30
\ h2 = –6 cm
Thus the image of the candle flame is 6 cm high and inverted (as indicated by the –ve sign).
Q.78. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its S.I. unit.
You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and –10 cm respectively. State the nature and
power of each lens. Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object
placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. 2015OD
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 183

Ans. The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays falling on it.
The SI unit of the power of a lens is dioptre. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1
metre.
+10 1 1
Lens A: FA = +10 cm = = 0.1 m PA = F = +0.1 = +10 D
100 A
The power of a convex lens is positive therefore, lens A is a convex lens.
− 10 1 1
Lens B: FB = –10 cm = = –0.1 m PB = F = −0.1 = –10 D
100 B
The power of a concave lens is negative therefore, lens B is a A’
concave lens.
When an object is placed at 8 cm (i.e., between the optical Image A

centre and principal focus) only convex lens will form the B O
B’ F’ F
virtual and magnified image.
Therefore, lens A will form a virtual and magnified image of
the object placed 8 cm from it. When the object is placed Object
between the optical centre and the focus: (i.e., between O and F’) the image formed is behind the object (on
the same side), virtual, erect and magnified.
Q.79. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a lens produce
an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify
your answer. 2015OD
A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find nature, position and size of the image.

s
Ans. (i) Yes. If a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered one half with a black paper, it can produce an

Da
image of the complete object between F2 and 2F2. The rays of light coming from the object get

iv
refracted by the upper half of the lens.

Sh
The image formed will be real, inverted and diminished.
(ii) Object height, h1 = 4 cm Focal length, f = +20 cm
Object distance, u = –15 cm Image distance, v = ? Image height, h2 = ?
By lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 − 4 −1
= − fi = + = + = − fi = =
f v u v f u +20 −15 20 15 v 60 60
\ v = –60 cm
Negative sign of v shows that the image is virtual.
h2 v h2 −60 F2 2F2
= fi =
h1 u +4 −15 Object 2F1 F1 O Image

−60
\ h2 = × 4 = +16 cm 30 cm
−15
Negative sign of h2 shows that the image is erect. Therefore, a virtual, erect, magnified (16 cm) image
will be formed at a distance of 60 cm on the same side as of the object by the convex lens.
Q.80. (a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors:
(i) Pole (ii) Centre of curvature (iii) Principal axis (iv) Principal focus
(b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a:
(i) Concave mirror (ii) Convex mirror
(c) Consider the following diagram in which M is a mirror and P is an object and Q is its magnified
image formed by the mirror. 2016D
Q
P M

O
C F

State the type of the mirror M and one characteristic property of the image Q.
184 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (a)

(i) Pole. The middle point of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called pole. The letter P
represents pole, MP = M’P.
(ii) Centre of curvature. It is the centre of the sphere of glass of which the mirror is a part. The letter
C represents the centre of curvature.
(iii) Principal axis of a spherical mirror is the straight line joining the centre of curvature and pole of
the mirror.
(iv) Principal focus. The mid-point of CP is called focus (F). It is the point on the principal axis of a
spherical mirror where all incident rays parallel to the principal axis meet or appear to diverge
after reflection.
(b) Ray diagrams of principal focus:

(i) Concave mirror. In a concave mirror the reflected rays of

as
incident rays parallel to principal axis actually pass through the

D
focus (F). Thus concave mirror has a real principal focus.

Shiv
(ii) Convex mirror. In a convex mirror the reflected rays do not
actually pass through the focus (F). Thus, a convex mirror has a
virtual principal focus situated behind the mirror.

(c) The mirror used in the given diagram is a concave spherical mirror. Image formed (Q) is virtual and
magnified.
Q.81. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when an object is placed in
front of the lens between its optical centre and principal focus.
(b) In the above ray diagram mark the object-distance (u) and the image-distance (v) with their proper
signs (+ve or –ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are
related to the focal length (f) of the convex lens in this case.
(c) Find the power of a convex lens which forms a real, and inverted image of magnification –1 of an
object placed at a distance of 20 cm from its optical centre. 2016D
Ans. (a) When the object is placed in front of a convex lens between its optical centre and principal focus (i.e.,
between O and F’): A’
The image formed is
Image A
(i) behind the object (on the same date), Object
(ii) virtual, B’ F’ B O F
(iii) erect, and –u
–v
(iv) magnified.
(b) –u (OB); –v (OB’); +f (OF) +f
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 185

1 1 1
The relation between u, v and f is given by the lens formula f = v − u .
As both (u) and (v) are negative, the above equation will change to
1 1 1 1 −1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = + fi = −
f ( − v ) ( −u ) f v u f u v
(c) Type of lens = Convex lens Object distance, u = –20 cm
Magnification, m = –1 Nature of image = Real and inverted
v v
∵ m= fi –1 = fi v = +20 cm
u −2
According to the lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = − fi = +
f v u f 20 −20 f 20 20
1 2 10 1 1 1
fi f = 20 fi f = +10 cm = m= m \ Power, P = f = 1/10
100 10
P = +10D
Q.82. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a concave lens when an object is placed in
front of it.
(b) In the above diagram mark the object-distance (u) and the image-distance (v) with their proper
signs (+ve or –ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are
related to the focal length (f) of the concave lens in this case.
(c) Find the nature and power of a lens which forms a real and inverted image of magnification –1 at

as
a distance of 40 cm from its optical centre. 2016D

D
Ans. (a) Concave lens. Refer to Q.62(a).

iv
(b) CB = –u CF = –f CB’ = –v

Sh
The relation between u, v and f is given by the lens formula:
1 1 1
= −
f v u
As both u and v are negative the above equation will change to
1 1 1 1 −1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = + fi = −
f ( − v ) ( −u ) f v u f u v
We know that the focal length of a concave lens is negative, so the above equation will be changed to,
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = −
−f u v f v u
(c) Magnification m = –1; v = +40 cm (real and inverted);
Nature of the lens = ?; Power of the lens, P = ?
v +40
=m fi = –1 fi 40 = –u fi u = –40 cm
u u
According to the lens formula:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
= − fi = − = + = =
f v u f 40 −40 40 40 40 20
f = +20 cm ∵ f is +ve thus the lens is convex
1 1 × 100
P = f (metres) = 20 = +5D
Since power of lens is positive, lens will be converging in nature.
Q.83. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.
(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of
image in this case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror? Draw a ray
diagram for this situation also to justify your answer.
Show the positions of the pole, the principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray
diagrams. 2016OD
186 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. In a concave mirror an erect image will be obtained when the object is placed between pole and focus of
the mirror.
Focal length, f = 12 cm
B’

B
D
C F
A P A’

(i) Therefore, the range of object distance is between 0 cm to <12 cm (from zero to less than 12 cm).
(ii) Image formed will be magnified, i.e., larger than the object.
(iii) If the object is placed at 24 cm in front of the mirror, it means that object is placed at 2f, i.e., at the
centre of curvature (at C) of the mirror.
The real, inverted and same size (of the object) image will also be formed at 24 cm.
B D

CA
A’ F P

B’ E

as
Q.84. (a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens.

D
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from

iv
the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find

Sh
the size of the image also.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation. 2016OD
Ans. (a) Optical centre of the lens. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which a
ray of light passes undeflected.
(b) f = –20 cm h1 = 4 cm v = –10 cm u=? h2 = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= − fi =− − fi =− +
f v u −20 10 u u 10 20

1 1 1 1 −2 + 1 1 −1
fi =− + fi = fi =
u 10 20 u 20 u 20
\ u = –20 cm Concave lens
Now, X
A D
h2 v h2 −10
= fi =
h1 u 4 −20 F C
B
Object Image Y
10 (Virtual, erect
\ h2 = × 4 = 2 cm and diminished)
20
Centre line of
the lens
Q.85. (a) Define focal length of a spherical lens.
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm from
the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away from the lens? Find
the size of the image also. 2016OD
Ans. (a) The distance between optical centre and focus of the lens is called focal length of a spherical lens.
(b) Diverging lens: Concave lens
Focal length, f = –30 cm Object distance, u = ? Image size, h2 = ?
Height of the object, h1 = 5 cm Image distance, v = –15 cm
1 1 1
According to the lens formula: f = v − u
1 1 1 1 −1 1 −2 + 1 −1
= − fi = + = = fi u = –30 cm
−30 −15 u u 15 30 30 30
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 187

h2 −v h2 −15 5
= fi = fi h2 = = 2.5 cm
h1 u 5 −30 2
Q.86. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.
(b) A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side
as the object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine the
distance of the object from the lens and the size of the image formed.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation. 2016OD

Ans. (a) • The principal focus of a diverging lens is a point on its principal
axis from which light rays, originally parallel to the axis appear
to diverge after passing through the diverging (concave) lens.
• The distance between pole and principal focus of a diverging
lens is called the focal length.
In the given diagram OF is the focal length. F O
(b) Divergent lens (Concave lens)
Focal length, f = –30 cm; Size of the object, h1 = 6 cm
Image distance, v = –15 cm; Object distance, u = ?
Size of the image, h2 = ?
1 1 1
According to the lens formula: f = v − u Concave lens

1 1 1 1 −1 1 −2 + 1 −1
= − fi = + = = fi u = –30 cm

s
−30 −15 u u 15 30 30 30

Da
h2 v h2 −15 15
=

v
fi = fi h2 = × 6 = +3 cm

i
h1 u 6 −30 30

Sh
(c) Diagram:
A
6 cm

3 cm

B
F1 O F1

15 cm
30 cm

Q.87. (a) To construct a ray diagram we use two rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after reflection from the mirror. List two such rays and state the path of these rays after
reflection in case of concave mirrors. Use these two rays and draw ray diagram to locate the image
of an object placed between pole and focus of a concave mirror.
(b) A concave mirror produces three times magnified image on a screen. If the object is placed 20 cm
in front of the mirror, how far is the screen from the object? 2017D
Ans. (a) These two rays are:
(i) Ray of light parallel to principal axis, passes through point
F of concave mirror after its reflection.
(ii) Ray of light passing through point C of the mirror, is
C F object P Image
reflected back on the same path after reflection from the
mirror.
Image is erect, virtual and magnified. Concave mirror
(b) m = –3, u = –20 cm, v= ?
-v -v
m= fi –3 = fi v = –60 cm
u - 20
Distance between the screen and the object distance = [–60 – (–20)] = –40 cm
So, the screen is at a distance of 40 cm from the object.
Minus sign is only as per sign conventions.
188 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.88. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always dimin-
ished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your
answer. Write one use such mirrors are put to and why?
(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature is +24 cm. 2017OD

i M
Ans. (a) This mirror is Convex mirror. A r
Such mirrors are used as rear view mirror in automobiles, as A¢
convex mirror gives erect, and wider range of view of objects
B P B¢ F C
coming behind the automobile.

N
(b) Radius of curvature of a mirror is the distance between ‘P’ point (pole) and ‘C’ point (centre of cur-
vature) of a spherical mirror.
r 24
f= So, f = \ f = +12 cm and this mirror is a convex mirror.
2 2

P ractical Based Questions

s
➜ EXPERIMENT: Concave Mirror

(i) larger than the actual object.

iv Da
Q.1. State the condition when a concave mirror forms an image
(ii) smaller than the actual object.

Sh
Ans. (i) When object is placed anywhere between pole and centre of curvature.
(ii) When object is placed anywhere between infinity and centre of curvature.
Q.2. Why is a concave mirror of large focal length often used as a shaving mirror?
Ans. While shaving, we keep our face between the pole and focus of a concave mirror to obtain an erect and
enlarged image of the face. This enlarged image of the face helps us in having a better and a closer shave.
Q.3. What happens to the ray of light after reflection from a concave mirror, if it
(i) is parallel to the principal axis? (ii) passes through the center of curvature?
Ans. (i) After reflection, the ray of light passes through the focus of a concave mirror in this case.
(ii) In this case, the ray of light gets reflected back along the same path, i.e., through centre of curvature.
Q.4. A student takes a mirror which is depressed at the centre and mounts it on a mirror stand. An erect
and enlarged image of his face is formed. He places the mirror on a stand along a metre scale at 10 cm
mark. In front of this mirror, he mounts a white screen and moves it back and forth along the metre
scale till a highly sharp, well-defined image of a distant building is formed on the screen at 25.5 cm
mark.
(i) Name the mirror and find its focal length.
(ii) Why does the student get sharp image of the distant building at 25.5 cm mark?
Ans. (i) The mirror is a concave mirror. The focal length is the difference between mirror and screen, so,
f = 25.5 cm – 10 cm = 15.5 cm
(ii) The rays of light coming from a distant object are parallel to principal axis and meets at the focus
of concave mirror where the screen is placed. Thus, a sharp image of the distant building is
formed.
Q.5. For finding the focal length of a concave mirror, where do we keep the object? What is the position of
image formed? On which structure we get the image? What is the nature of the image formed?
Ans. A large sized object placed at a far off (Infinity) place, seen from the window of the lab, is taken as object.
The image is formed at F point of the mirror. This image is formed on the screen.
The distance between the mirror and the screen is measured; which is equal to focal length of the mirror.
The image formed is real and inverted.
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 189

➜ EXPERIMENT: Convex Lens


Q.6. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen by placing the flame at various
distances from a convex lens. He noted his observations as given below:
S.No. Distance of flame Distance of the screen
from the lens (cm) from the lens (cm)
1. 60 20
2. 40 24
3. 30 30
4. 24 40
5. 12 70
(a) What is the focal length of a given convex lens?
(b) Which set of observations is incorrect and why?
Ans. (a) When the position of the object is at 2F, the image formed at 2F on the end other side of the lens is
real, inverted and of same size as that of the object. Therefore,
Object distance = Image distance
2F = 30 cm
F = 15 cm
(b) For the last observation, we find that the object lies between the optical center and focus of the lens,
so virtual image is formed and does not fall on the screen. Hence last observation is incorrect.
Q.7. With the help of a diagram, differentiate between a converging and diverging lens. State one use of a
convex lens.
Ans.

Das
Converging lens. When a parallel beam of light is incident on one of

iv
the spherical surfaces of a convex lens, the rays after refraction

Sh
through it meet at the principal focus on the principal axis. Since
the convex lens converges the parallel beam of light, so it is called
converging lens.

Diverging lens. When a parallel beam of light is incident on one of the


spherical surfaces of a concave lens, the rays after refraction through it
appear to come from the principal focus on the principal axis. Since the
concave lens diverges the parallel beam of light, so it is called diverging
lens.

One use of a convex lens. It is used as magnifying glass.


Q.8. If we cover one half of a convex lens while focussing on a distant object, in what way will it affect the
image formed? Can this method be used to find the approximate focal length of a concave lens?
Ans. A full size image will be obtained but only the intensity or brightness of the image will reduce.
No, because a concave lens always forms a virtual image wherever the object may be.
Q.9. Explain how a converging lens acts as a magnifying glass. For this purpose, why a lens having a short
focal length is chosen instead of lens having a long focal length?
Ans. To use a converging lens or convex lens as a magnifying glass,
the object should be placed within its focus to get a magnified
and erect image of the object as shown in the figure given.
B
A convex lens of short focal length has a greater magnifying
power in comparison to a convex lens of large focal length.
Hence, the object will appear much larger when seen through a 2F1 F1 A O F2 2F2
convex lens having short focal length.
190 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.10. A teacher sets up a stand carrying a convex lens of focal length 15 cm at 20.5 cm on the optical bench.
She asks the students to suggest the position of the screen on the optical bench so that a distinct image
of a distant tree is obtained on it. What should be the correct position of screen as suggested by the
students and why?
Ans. Distant object can be considered to be at infinity. The rays coming from the distant tree are parallel to
each other and therefore, its image is formed at the principal focus of the convex lens. Hence, the screen
should be placed at 20.5 + 15 = 35.5 cm mark on the optical bench.

Das
Q.11. To find the image-distance for varying object-distances in case of a convex lens, a student obtains on

iv
a screen a sharp image of a bright object placed very far from the lens. After that he gradually moves

Sh
the object towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen.
(a) In which direction-towards or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the object?
(b) What happens to the size of image—does it increase or decrease?
(c) What happen when he moves the object very close to the lens?
Ans. (a) He moves the screen away from lens to focus the object.
(b) The size of the image increases.
(c) When the object is placed very close to the lens, then no image will be formed on the screen. As now
image formed is erect and virtual.
Q.12. A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the object from the
optical centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a
screen on the other side of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way
(towards the lens or away from the lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the
object on it again? How will the magnification of the image be affected?
Ans. (a) The screen should be moved towards the lens to get a sharp image of the object again.
(b) Magnification of the image decreases on moving the object away from the lens.
Q.13. A student focuses the image of a well illuminated distant object on a screen using a convex lens. After
that he gradually moves the object towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen by
adjusting the lens.
(a) In which direction—towards the screen or away from the screen, does he move the lens?
(b) What happens to the size of the image—does it decrease or increase?
(c) What happens to the image on the screen when he moves the object very close to the lens?
Ans. (a) He should move the lens away from the screen.
(b) Size of the image increases.
(c) No image will be formed on the screen.

➜ EXPERIMENT: Refraction through a Glass Slab


Q.14. In the experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass slab,
(i) if the angle of incidence is increased, how does angle of refraction change?
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 191

(ii) What relationship students work out when they measure the angle of incidence and angle of
emergence?
Ans. (i) From Snell’s law, O
sin i i
= constant, so if angle of incidence increases, angle of
sin r A
refraction also increases. r1

r2
(ii) Both are equal. This is because when light gets refracted through a
glass slab, the incident ray and emergent ray are parallel to each B
e
other, so –i = –e.
C

Q.15. A ray of light, incident obliquely on a face of a rectangular glass slab placed in air, emerges out from
the opposite face.
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the ray of light and identify two points where refraction
takes place.
(b) If this experiment is repeated with the different angles of incidence, what relation would you
observe among the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction and the angle of emergence?

N1
Ans. (a) In the figure, the two points are O and O’ where refraction takes i Air

s
place as light ray has changed its direction at these two points. O

a
D C
r

D
Glass

iv
N2 M1

Sh
r
A B
(b) The relation among the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction e
and the angle of emergence remains the same, i.e., –i = –e > –r. Air
M2

Q.16. In an experiment with a rectangular glass slab, a student observed that a ray of light incident at an
angle of 55° with the normal on one face of the slab, after refraction, strikes the opposite face of the
slab before emerging out into air making an angle of 40° with the normal. Draw a labelled diagram to
show the path of this ray. What value would you assign to the angle of refraction and angle of
emergence?
Ans. OA—Incident ray
–i is angle of incidence = 55°
Given, –r2 = 40°
–r1 and –r2 are alternate interior angles.
–r1 = –r2 = 40°
So, Angle of refraction = 40°
Since, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray, the angle of emergent must be equal to angle of
incidence, i.e., –e = –i = 55°.
Q.17. When a ray of light passes through a glass slab how many times does it change its path and why?
Ans. The ray of light bends twice.
First time when it enters from air to the glass slab, it bends towards the normal, i.e., from rarer medium to
denser medium.
Second time, when the ray moves out from the glass slab to air, it bends away from the normal, i.e., it
moves from denser medium to rarer medium.
Q.18. Why the glass slab must not be displaced from its boundary during the experiment to trace the path of
a ray of light through a glass slab?
Ans. If the glass slab gets displaced from its original position/boundary, the angle of incidence will change
accordingly and experiment will not be performed correctly. Boundary helps us to keep the glass slab in
a proper position.
192 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.19. What would be the observations of a student who performed the experiment to trace the path of a ray
of light through a glass slab, whose two opposite faces are not parallel to each other?
Ans. (i) The emergent ray is not parallel to the incident ray. The direction of emergent ray depends upon the
inclination of non-parallel faces.
(ii) Angles of refraction at both the faces, i.e., –r1 and –r2 are not equal.

➜ EXPERIMENT: Refraction through Prism


Q.20. Draw a ray diagram to show refraction of light through a triangular glass prism and show angle of
incidence, angle of deviation, emergent ray and emergent angle in it.
Ans.
A H

N M
Q R
i r e
r

M’ N’
S
P B C
Here,
PQ = Incident ray RS = Emergent ray
–i = Angle of Incidence –r = Angle of Refraction
–e = Angle of Emergence –d = Angle of Deviation
Q.21. Why does a ray of light while passing through a prism, bend towards its base?

as
Ans. When a ray of light passes through a prism, it under goes refraction twice. First from rarer to denser

D
medium of glass, it bends towards normal which is towards the base of the prism. Second time from

iv
denser to rarer medium, i.e., glass to air, it bends away from the normal, i.e., towards the base of the prism.

Sh
Q.22. In the experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism,
(i) a student is asked to draw the boundary of prism on the paper, why?
(ii) if the angle of incidence is 30°, what can be the measure of angle of emergence at the minimum
deviation condition of the prism?
Ans. (i) It ensures that prism is always kept within this boundary during the experiment.
(ii) At the minimum deviation condition,
\ Angle of Emergence = Angle of Incidence
–e = –i = 30°
Q.23. In the experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism,
(i) if the emergent ray makes an angle of 35° with the second face of prism, then what is the angle of
emergence?
(ii) can the angle of deviation be zero and why?
Ans. (i) The angle of emergence –e = 90° – 35° = 55°
(ii) No, because at the second refracting surface of the prism, ray of light moves from denser to rarer
medium; it bends away from the normal, i.e., bends towards the base of the prism.
Q.24. When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow beam of white light, a spectrum is obtained.
What happens when a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the first
prism? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate it.
Ans. Second prism recombines the spectrum obtained by the first prism. So, from the other side of the second
prism, a beam of white light is again obtained as shown in figure given below:
Screen
P M N
t
e ligh
R R
R Whit
t
gh V
ite li V
Wh V
Q R
P1 L
Chapter 10: LIGHT: REFLECTION AND REFRACTION „ 193

Q.25. A very thin narrow beam of white light is made incident on one face of rectangular glass slab and one
face of the combination of two prisms, one up and one down in contact. Comment on the nature of the
behaviour of the emergent beam in the above two cases.
Ans. Case 1: The emergent beam refracted through a rectangular glass slab emerges parallel to the incident ray
and is shifted sideward slightly. No dispersion occurs.
Case 2: The emergent beam from the second inverted identical prism is again white light and emerges
parallel to the incident beam and shifted sideward slightly. Overall no dispersion occurs due to the
combination of two prisms placed inverted to each other.
Thus emergent ray in both the cases emerges from the opposite parallel faces and is parallel to the
incident ray.
Q.26. List the factors on which the angle of deviation through a prism depend?
Ans. Angle of deviation through a prism depends
• on the –A called – of prism;
• on the – of incidence;
• on the optical density of the material of the prism.

➜ EXPERIMENT: Image Formation by a Convex Lens


Q.27. To construct a ray diagram, we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after refraction from the convex lens. List these two rays and state the path of these rays
after refraction.

s
Ans. Two rays chosen for refraction are:

Da
• A ray of light parallel to the principal axis.

iv
• A ray of light passing through optical centre of a lens.

Sh
Path of these rays after refraction:
• A ray parallel to the principal axis, after refraction through the lens, will pass through the principal
focus on the other side of the lens.
• A ray of light passing through optical centre of a lens will emerge from the lens without any
deviation in its path.
Q.28. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen by placing the flame at various
distances from a convex lens. He noted his observations as given below:
S.No. Distance of flame Distance of the screen
from the lens (cm) from the lens (cm)
1. 60 20
2. 40 24
3. 30 30
4. 24 40
5. 12 70
In which case
(i) is the size of image smaller than the size of object?
(ii) is the size of object and image same?
Give reason for your answer.
Ans. (i) When the object is placed between infinity and 2F, diminished, real and inverted image is formed. So
in the first observation, size of the image is smaller than the size of object.
(ii) When the object is placed at 2F, an image of the same size as that of the object is formed at 2F on the
other side of the lens. It is real and inverted as well. Hence in 3rd observation, the size of object and
image is same.
Q.29. Draw ray diagrams to represent the nature, position and relative size of the image formed by a convex
lens for the object placed:
(i) at 2F.
(ii) between F and the optical centre O of the lens.
194 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

L1
A
Ans. (i) When the object is at 2F
Nature of image: Real and inverted B F2 2F2
Size of image: Same as that of object 2F1 F1 O
Position of image: At 2F on the other side of the lens.

L2

L1
(ii) When the object is in between F and the optical centre O
A
of the lens
Nature of image: Erect and virtual F2
2F1 F1 B O F 2F2
Size of image: Enlarged
Position of image: On the same side of the lens.
L2
Q.30. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of
focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical
centre ‘O’, principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram.
Ans. 30 cm
Object
A

as
2.5 cm

D
Image
B F’ O F

5 cm
2F’ 2F

v
10 cm

Shi
Optical centre
15 cm

Q.31. A student places a candle flame at a distance of about 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm
and focuses the image of the flame on a screen. After that he gradually moves the flame towards the
lens and each time focuses the image on the screen.
(a) In which direction-toward or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the image?
(b) How does the size of the image change?
(c) How does the intensity of the image change as the flame moves towards the lens?
(d) Approximately for what distance between the flame and the lens, the image formed on the screen
is inverted and of the same size?
Ans. (a) He will move the screen away from the lens to focus the image.
(b) Size of the image goes on increasing.
(c) Intensity of image goes on decreasing. (d) About 20 cms.
Q.32. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10
cm, on a screen. After that he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its
image on the screen.
(a) In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
(b) What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?
(c) What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen?
(d) What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens?
Ans. (a) He moves the lens away from the screen.
(b) The size of image formed on the screen goes on increasing.
(c) Brightness of the image of flame goes on decreasing.
(d) No distinct image of flame will be formed on the screen.
Q.33. It is desired to obtain the erect image of an object, using a convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
(i) What should be range of object distance from the lens?
(ii) Will the image formed be bigger or smaller?
Ans. (i) To get the virtual and erect image formed by a convex lens, object should be kept between optical
centre and focus. Therefore, range of the object distance is from 0 to 20 cm.
(ii) Enlarged and erect image is formed.
####
CHAPTER 11
THE HUMAN EYE AND
THE COLOURFUL WORLD
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Human Eye. It is the wonderful gift of nature to the human body. Human eye is nearly spherical in
shape of diameter about 2.5 cm.
☞ Parts of Human Eye:
(i) Cornea. It is the protective and front layer of the eye. It is made by a transparent membrane. Light
enters the eye through the cornea.
(ii) Iris. Dark and colourful muscular diaphragm is called iris. It is responsible for colour of the eye.
(iii) Pupil. Small circular hole in the centre of iris. It regulates the amount of light entering the eye by
adjusting the size of the iris.
(iv) Ciliary Muscles. It holds the eye lens at its proper position. It changes the size of eye lens.
(v) Eye lens. The eye lens is a convex lens made by the transparent jelly like material.
(vi) Retina. It is the screen of the eye. A real and inverted image forms on the retina.
(vii) Rods and Cones. These are colour sensitive rods and cones shaped cells. Rods are responsible for
the vision in dim light while cones are responsible for colour.
(viii) Optic Nerve. It converts information of image into corresponding electric signal and passes it to
the brain.
(ix) Blind Spot. The junction of optic nerve and retina, where no rods and cones cells are present is
called the blind spot. It is insensitive to light.
☞ Near Point. The nearest point from eye at which the eye can see clearly without strain is called near
point. For normal eye it is 25 cm.
☞ Far Point. The farthest point, upto which the eye can see the object clearly is called far point. For normal
eye it is infinity.
☞ Range of Vision. Distance between near point and far point of eye is called range of vision.
☞ Power of Accommodation. The ability of the eye to see near as well as far objects clearly is called Power
of Accommodation.
☞ Myopia (Near sightedness): In this defect the eye is unable to see far off objects clearly but is able to see
near objects clearly.
Reason. (i) Due to increase in size of eye ball; (ii) Due to excessive curvature of cornea; (iii) Due to
increase in power (or decrease in focal length) of eye lens.
Correction. It is corrected by using concave lens of suitable focal length.
☞ Hypermetropia (Far sightedness). In this defect eye is unable to see nearby objects clearly but is able to
see far objects clearly.
Reason. (i) Due to decrease in size of eye ball; (ii) Due to decrease in power (or increase in focal length)
of eye lens. Correction. It is corrected by using convex lens of suitable focal length.

Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 195
196 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens.
This is due to
(a) presbyopia (b) accommodation
(c) near-sightedness (d) far-sightedness
Ans. (b) accommodation
Q.2. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) cornea (b) iris (c) pupil (d) retina
Ans. (d) retina
Q.3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a) 25 m (b) 2.5 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 2.5 m
Ans. (c) 25 cm
Q.4. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
(a) pupil (b) retina (c) ciliary muscles (d) iris
Ans. (c) ciliary muscles
Q.5. A person needs a lens of power –5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near
vision he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting
(i) distant vision, and (ii) near vision?
Sol. (i) Power, P = –5.5 D, Focal length, f = ?

as
1 1 1
P = f or –5.5 = f \ f= m = – 0.18 m

D
−5.5

iv
Negative sign indicates that the lens is concave.

Sh
(ii) Power, P = +1.5 D Focal length, f = ?
1 1 1
P = f or +1.5 = f \ f= m = +0.67 m
+1.5
Positive sign indicates that the lens is convex.
Q.6. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power of the lens
required to correct the problem?
Sol. The far point of this myopic person is 80 cm. (This means that this person can see a distant object kept at
infinity clearly if the image of this object is formed at his far point.)
u = •, v = –80 cm, f=?
Using Lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = \ − = ∵
...[∵ =0
v u f −80 ∞ f ∞

1 −1 −1
fi = –0= \ f = –80 cm = –0.8 m
f 80 80
Negative sign indicates the lens is concave.
1 1
Power, P = f = −0.8 m = –1.25 \ P = –1.25 D

A concave lens of power –1.25 D is required to correct the problem.


Q.7. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m.
What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point of the normal
eye is 25 cm.
Sol.
Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 197

A hypermetropic eye is corrected by using a convex lens of suitable


focal length in the spectacles of such a person.

The object placed at 25 cm from the correcting lens must produce a virtual image at 1 m or 100 cm.
Here, u = –25 cm, v = –1 m or –100 cm
1 1 1
Using Lens formula, = −
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 3 100 1
\ = − = + = \ f= cm = m
f −100 25 −100 25 100 3 3
1
Power, P = f = +3 = +3D
Q.8. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Ans. The maximum accommodation of a normal eye is reached when the object is at a distance of 25 cm from
the eye. The focal length of the eye lens cannot be adjusted below this minimum limit.
The rays coming from the objects which are at a distance less than 25 cm are not focussed at the retina and
the image of the object appears blurred. Thus, the image cannot be seen clearly.
Q.9. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye?
Ans. The image distance remains unchanged. As the distance of the object increases, the focal length of eye lens
is adjusted by the ciliary muscles so that the image is always formed at the retina.

as
Q.10. Why do stars twinkle?

D
Sol. The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a

iv
medium of gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal,

Sh
the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. This apparent position of the
star is not stationary, but keeps on changing slightly, as the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere
are not stationary. Since the stars are very distant, they act as point-sized sources of light.
As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star
fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers—the star sometimes appears brighter, and
at some other time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.
Q.11. Explain why the planets do not twinkle.
Ans. The planets are much closer to the earth. A planet can be considered as a collection of a large number of
point-sized sources of light. So that total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from all the
individual point-sized sources will average out to zero thereby nullifying the twinkling effect.
Q.12. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?
Sol. The Sun at sunrise (early in the morning) is near the horizon. Light from the Sun near the horizon has to
pass through thick layers of air and a large distance through the earth’s atmosphere before reaching our
eyes. Near the horizon, most of the blue-light of shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles.
Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths, i.e., red light. This gives rise to the
reddish appearance of the Sun.
Q.13. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Sol. There is no atmosphere containing air in space to scatter sunlight. As there is no scattering of light in space,
the scattered light does not reach the eyes and the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut in outer
space.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. What is Tyndall effect? 2011D
Ans. The scattering of a beam of light is called the Tyndall effect. Tyndall effect can be observed when sunlight
198 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

passes through the canopy of a dense forest. In a dense forest, the mist contains tiny droplets of water,
which act as particles of colloid dispersed in air.
Q.2. Give an example of a phenomenon where Tyndall effect can be observed. 2011OD
Ans. The scattering of light by particles of colloid or suspension in its path is called Tyndall effect. When
sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest, the tiny water droplets in the mist scatter sunlight.
Q.3. What is the colour of scattered sunlight when the size of the scattering particles is relatively large?
2011OD
Ans. When white sunlight falls on relatively larger particles (like dust particles, etc.) present in the atmosphere,
it is scattered as such so the scattered light appears blue.
Q.4. What will be the colour of the sky when it is observed from a place in the absence of any atmosphere?
2012D
Ans. The colour of sky will be black when it is observed from a place where atmosphere is absent as scattering
of light does not take place when there is no atmosphere.
Q.5. The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. State its reason. 2012D
Ans. There is no atmosphere containing air in space to scatter sunlight. As there is no scattering of light in space,
the scattered light does not reach the eyes and the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut in outer
space.
Q.6. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of light visible? 2012D
Ans. Tyndall effect is responsible for making the path of light visible.
Q.7. State one function of iris in human eye. 2012D
Ans. Function of iris. Iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil.
Q.8. State one function of pupil in human eye. 2012OD

s
Ans. The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the pupil. If the intensity of outside light is low,

Da
then the pupil expands to allow more light to enter the eye. On the other hand, if outside intensity of light

v
is high, then the pupil contracts so that less light enters the eye.

Shi
Q.9. State one role of ciliary muscles in the human eye. 2012OD
Ans. The focal length of eye-lens can be changed by changing its shape by the action of ciliary muscles.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.10. Name the type of particles which act as prisms in the formation of rainbow in the sky. 2011OD
Ans. The rain drops in the atmosphere act like many small prisms. As white sunlight enters and leaves these
raindrops, the white light splits into an arch of seven colours of rainbow.
Q.11. Explain with the help of a diagram, how we are able to observe the sunrise about two minutes before
the Sun gets above the horizon. 2011OD
Apparent position
Ans. The Sun can be seen about two minutes before sunrise because when of the Sun
the Sun is slightly below the horizon, the Sun’s light coming from less
dense air to more dense air is refracted downwards as it passes Observer Horizon
through the atmosphere. Thus due to this atmospheric refraction, the Sun
Sun appears to be raised above the horizon when actually it is slightly
below the horizon. Earth

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.12. (a) What is meant by the dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show dispersion of white light
by the glass prism.
(b) Explain why the planets do not twinkle but the stars twinkle. 2011D
Ans. (a) Dispersion of light. The splitting of white light into its
component colours on passing through a prism is called
dispersion of light.
R
(b) The planets are much closer to the earth. A planet can be
considered as a collection of large number of point-sized White light
beam White light
sources of light. So the total variation in the amount of light V spectrum
Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 199

entering our eye from all the individual point-sized sources will average out to zero thereby
nullifying the twinkling effect.
On the other hand, stars twinkle because stars are point-sized sources of energy therefore the
continuously changing atmosphere causes atmospheric refraction which causes variation in light.
Q.13. (a) What is meant by the power of accommodation of an eye?
(b) A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m directly. What should be the type of
the corrective lens used? What would be its power? 2011OD
Ans. (a) The ability of an eye to focus the distant objects as well as the nearby objects on the retina by changing
the focal length or converging power of its lens is called power of accommodation.
A normal eye has a power of accommodation which enables objects as far as infinity and as close as
25 cm to be focussed on the retina.
(b) Myopic eye
v = 1.2 m = –120 cm; u = • (infinity); P of the corrective lens = ?
By Lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1
− = fi − =
v u f −120 ∞ f
−1 ⎛ −1
= 0 ⎞⎟
1 1 1
fi −0 = ⎜ fi =
120 f ⎝ ∞ ⎠ 120 f
\ f = –120 cm
Thus the corrective lens for the above defect is concave lens (as focal length has –ve sign) of focal
length of 120 cm.

s
1 1 × 100
P = f (in metres) = −120 = –0.83 D

v Da
Q.14. What eye defect is hypermetropia? Describe with a ray diagram how this defect of vision can be

i
Sh
corrected by using an appropriate lens. 2011OD
Ans. Long sightedness is hypermetropia. Due to this defect, a person is not able to see the nearby objects clearly
but can see the distant objects clearly.
Causes of long-sightedness. It is caused due to the following reasons:
— Normal increase in the focal length of the eye lens. The lens becomes less convergent.
— Shortening of the eyeball size.
Long sightedness can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such
a person.
When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of the hypermetropic eye then the diverging rays
of light coming from the nearby object are first converged by this convex lens. Due to this, the convex lens
forms a virtual image of the nearby object at a point near to the hypermetropic eye. Then the
hypermetropic eye can easily focus the image formed by convex lens on the retina.

Q.15. What eye defect is myopia? Describe with a neat diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by
using a suitable lens. 2011OD
Ans. Myopia is the defect of the eye vision due to which a person can see the near objects clearly, but he cannot
see the far objects clearly.
Causes of myopia. Myopia is caused
— due to the elongation of the eye ball.
200 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

— due to decrease in the focal length of the eye lens. The eye lens becomes more convergent.
Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person.
Ray diagram to illustrate this defect Ray diagram to show the correction of myopia
Rays are first diverged
by concave lens
Retina Retina
Parallel rays from Parallel rays from L

Image is formed in

Image is formed
distant object distant object

front of the retina


(at infinity) (at infinity)

on retina
Image

Eye lens has small focal length Eye lens has small focal length
and hence more converging power and hence more converging power

Q.16. What is a spectrum? Why do different coloured rays deviate differently on passing through a glass prism?
2011OD
Ans. Meaning of spectrum. When a beam of white light is passed through a prism, a band of seven colours is
formed on a white screen. This is called spectrum of white light.
The dispersion of white light occurs because the angle of refraction or angle of bending of different
components of the white light is different when passing through the glass prism. When white light
consisting of seven colours falls on a prism, each colour is refracted or deviated by a different angle, with
the result that the seven coloured band, i.e., spectrum is formed.
Q.17. A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from him. Name the defect

as
of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for the (i) defect of vision

D
and also (ii) for its correction. 2012D

iv
Ans. If a student cannot see the object clearly placed at a distance of 3 m from him then he is suffering from

Sh
Myopia or Short Sightedness.
Ray diagrams for the (i) defect of vision and (ii) for its correction:
Rays are first diverged
by concave lens
Retina Retina

Image is formed on retina


L
Parallel rays from Parallel rays from
Image is formed in
front of the retina

distant object distant object


(at infinity) (at infinity)

Image

Eye lens has small focal length Eye lens has small focal length
and hence more converging power and hence more converging power
(i) (ii)
Q.18. (a) Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate the dispersion of a narrow beam of white light when it
passes through a glass prism.
(b) A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help
of a labelled diagram. 2012OD
Ans. (a) Refer to Q.12.

(b) Light from a star is refracted as it leaves vacuum and enters the
earth’s atmosphere. Air at higher altitudes is rarer and is denser
nearer to the earth’s surface. Thus when light coming from the star
comes down, the dense air bends the light more. Due to this
refraction of star’s light, the star appears to be at a higher position.
Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 201

Q.19. What is the colour of the clear sky during day-time? Give reason for it. 2012OD
Ans. During day time the colour of the sky is blue.
Reason: The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the
wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter wavelength
at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. When the scattered blue light enters our
eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.
Q.20. State the difference in colours of the Sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give explanation
for each. 2013D
Ans. The Sun and surrounding sky appear red at sunrise and at sunset because at this time the Sun is near the
horizon and sunlight has to travel the greatest distance through the atmosphere to reach us. Thus most of
the blue colour present in sunlight has been scattered out and away from our line of sight, leaving behind
mainly red colour in the direct sunlight beam that reaches our eyes.
When the Sun is overhead (as at noon) then the light coming from the Sun has to travel a relatively shorter
distance through the atmosphere to reach us. Thus only a little of blue colour of the white light is scattered.
Since the light coming from the overhead Sun has almost all its component colours in the right proportion,
therefore the Sun in the sky overhead appears white.
Q.21. When and where do we see a rainbow? How is a rainbow formed? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate
the formation of a rainbow. 2013OD
Rain-drop

Ans. Rainbow is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in Sunlight
the atmosphere. The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract the

as
incident sunlight and then reflect it internally and finally refract it again

D
when it comes out of the rain-drop. A rainbow is always formed in the

v
Red

i
direction opposite to that of the Sun.

Sh
Violet

Q.22. Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the earth? What will
the colour of the sky be for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the earth?
Justify your answer giving reason. 2014D
Ans. Sky appears blue. The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than
the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter
wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. When the scattered blue light
enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.
Colour of sky to an astronaut. There is no atmosphere containing air in space to scatter sunlight. As there
is no scattering of light in space, the scattered light does not reach the eyes and the sky appears dark
instead of blue to an astronaut in outer space.
Q.23. Explain with help of a labelled diagram, the cause of twinkling of stars. 2014D
Ans. Twinkling of Stars. The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric
refraction of star light. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of
gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends star
light towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly
different from the actual position.
This apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing
slightly as the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not
stationary.
Since the stars are very distant, they act as point-sized sources of light. As
the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the
apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of light entering
the eye flickers—the star sometimes appears brighter and at other times
appears fainter, which is the twinkling effect.
Q.24. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
202 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of
white light. 2014OD

Ans. (i) The phenomenon of splitting of white light into seven colours on passing through a glass-prism is
called dispersion of light. The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light travel at
different speeds through the glass prism.
(ii) Formation of rainbow is an example of dispersion of
white light in nature.
(iii) The formation of spectrum of seven colours shows that
white light is made up of lights of seven different colours
mixed together. That is, white light is a mixture of seven
colours (or seven coloured lights), i.e., red, orange,
yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet.
Q.25. With the help of a labelled diagram, explain why the sun appears reddish at the sunrise and the sunset.
2015D

s
Ans. At the time of sunrise and sunset when the sun is near the horizon, the sunlight has to travel the greatest

Da
distance through the atmosphere to reach us. During the long journey

iv
of sunlight, most of the shorter wavelength blue-colour present in it is

Sh
scattered out and away from our line of sight so, the light reaching us
directly from the rising sun or setting sun consists mainly of longer
wavelength red colour due to which the sun appears red. Due to the
same reason, the sky surrounding the rising sun and setting sun also
appears red. Thus, at sunrise and sunrise, the sun itself as well as the
surrounding sky appear red.
Q.26. What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue
or the sun appears reddish at sunrise. 2015OD, 2016D
Ans. Scattering of light is the phenomenon to throw light in various random directions. Light is scattered when
it falls on various types of suspended particles in its path. The colour of the scattered light depends on the
size of the scattering particles in the atmosphere.
— The larger particles of dust and water droplets present in the atmosphere scatter the light of longer
wavelengths due to which the scattered light appears white.
— The extremely minute particles such as air molecules present in the atmosphere scatter mainly blue
light present in the white sunlight.
Colour of the sky appears blue. The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size
smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of
shorter wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelength at the red end. When the scattered blue
light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.
Colour of the sun appears red at sunrise and sunset. The sun at sunrise and sunset is very near to the
horizon, and near the horizon most of the blue light of shorter wave-lengths is scattered away by the
particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths that gives
rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.
Q.27. Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by an
observer on the moon? Justify your answer with a reason. 2016D
Ans. The sun at sunrise (early in the morning) is located near the horizon of the earth. Light from the sun near
the horizon has to pass through thick layers of air and a large distance through the earth’s atmosphere
before reaching our eyes. Near the horizon, most of the blue light rays with shorter wavelength are
scattered away by the particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is the red light
of longer wavelengths. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.
Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 203

This phenomenon will not be observed by an observer on the moon because there is no atmosphere on the
moon to scatter light.
Q.28. State the cause of dispersion of white light passing through a glass prism. How did Newton show that
white light of Sun contains seven colours using two identical glass prisms. Draw a ray diagram to show
the path of light when two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with
respect to each other and a narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the focus
of the first prism. 2016D
Ans. • White light is a mixture of lights of seven colours, red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet.
The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light travel at different speeds through
the glass prism. The amount of refraction depends on the speed of coloured light in glass.
• When white light consisting of seven colours falls on a glass prism, each colour in it is refracted by a
different angle, with the result that seven colours are spread out to form a spectrum. The red light
bends the least, while violet bends the most.
Newton’s experiment with two identical prisms:
• When a beam of white light is passed through a glass prism, a band of seven colours is formed on a
white screen. This band of seven colours is called spectrum of white light.
• Newton showed that the seven coloured lights of the spectrum can be recombined to give back white
light.
• First he tried to split the colours of the spectrum of white light using a prism.
• He then placed a second identical prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism. This
allowed all the colours of the spectrum to pass through the second prism. He found a beam of white
light emerging from the other side of the second prism.

as
P2 Screen
A

v D
light

i
White

Sh
R R
R
ght
ite li
Wh V V
V
P1 A
Recombination of the spectrum of white light
Q.29. Due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens a certain defect
of vision arises. Write the name of this defect. Name the type of lens required by such persons to
improve the vision. Explain the structure and function of such a lens. 2017D
Ans. The defect of this vision is called Presbyopia.
Bifocal lens is used for the correction of this defect. The upper part of this lens is concave and the lower
part of the lens is Convex lens. The upper part of the lens is used to see the distant objects clearly and
lower part of this lens is used to see the nearby objects clearly.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.30. Nalin and his four friends were sitting on his roof on a pleasant day. All of them were enjoying Ludo.
Suddenly Ayush saw seven colours in the sky. He jumped with joy and shouted “Look, there is an
Indradhanush in the sky”. Then Nalin explained all about the rainbow. After that every one clapped
for him.
(a) What information is given by Nalin to his friends about a rainbow?
(b) Is it possible to obtain rainbow phenomenon on the earth?
(c) Which term is used for the seven colours of the rainbow?
(d) Which colour appears at the top and at the bottom of the rainbow? 2011D
Ans. (a) Rainbow is a natural phenomenon in which an arch of seven colours visible in the sky is produced by
the dispersion of white sunlight by raindrops in the atmosphere. Each raindrop acts as a tiny glass
prism splitting the sunlight into seven colours.
(b) Yes, in daily life, when white light of the Sun is passed through a glass prism, it splits into seven colours.
(c) The band of seven colours obtained by the splitting of white light is called spectrum.
(d) The red colour appears at the top of the rainbow whereas violet colour appears at its bottom.
204 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.31. (a) What are the values of (i) near point and (ii) far point of vision of a normal adult person?
(b) A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be his
defect of vision? Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect of vision. 2011OD
Ans. (a) (i) The nearest point up to which the eye can see an object clearly without any strain is called the
near point of the eye. The near point of a normal human eye is at a distance of 25 cm from the eye.
(ii) The farthest point from the eye at which an object can be seen clearly is known as the far point of
the eye. The far point of a normal human eye is at infinity.
(b) This defect of vision is called myopia.
Ray diagram. Refer to Q.15.
Q.32. Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. What is the cause of this
dispersion? 2011OD
Ans. • The splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a transparent medium like a
glass prism is called dispersion of light.
• We get different colours of light when white light is passed through a glass prism because white light
is a mixture of lights of seven colours: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. The
dispersion of light occurs because the angle of refraction (or angle of bending) of lights of different
colours is different when passing through the glass prism.

Das
Q.33. A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect of vision he

iv
is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes. Draw a ray

Sh
diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length. 2013D
Ans. If a person cannot read newspaper nearer than 50 cm from his eyes then he is suffering from
hypermetropia. It is also called long-sightedness.
Ray diagram, causes and correction of this defect. Refer to Q.14
Q.34. (a) A student cannot see clearly a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from his eyes.
Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its
two possible causes.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal
length. 2012OD
Ans. (a) & (b) Refer to Q.15
Q.35. List three common refractive defects of vision. Suggest the way of correcting these defects. 2014D
Ans. The three defects of vision:
(i) Myopia. Myopia is the defect of the eye vision due to which a person can see the near objects clearly,
but he can not see the far objects clearly.
Causes of myopia. Myopia is caused due to the elongation of the eye ball and due to decrease in the
focal length of the eye lens. The eye lens becomes more convergent.
Correction. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles
of such a person.
(ii) Long-sightedness or hypermetropia. Due to this defect, a person is not able to see the nearby objects
clearly but can see the distant objects clearly.
Causes of hypermetropia. It is caused due to the following reasons:
• Normal increase in the focal length of the eye lens. The lens becomes less convergent.
• Shortening of the eyeball size.
Correction. Long sightedness can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable focal length in the
spectacles of such a person.
When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of the hypermetropic eye then the diverging
rays of light coming from the nearby object are first converged by this convex lens. Due to this, the
convex lens forms a virtual image of the nearby object at a point near to the hypermetropic eye. Then
the hypermetropic eye can easily focus the image formed by convex lens on the retina.
Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 205

(iii) Presbyopia. The power of accommodation of the eye decreases with ageing. It occurs due to the
gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and decreasing flexibility of the crystalline lens. The near
point of the eye increases with age. It may reach even 2 metres. This defect is called presbyopia.
Causes of presbyopia. It is mainly caused due to the weakening of the ciliary muscles of the eyes.
Such a person may suffer from myopia and hypermetropia.
Correction. This defect is then corrected by using bifocal lenses of suitable focal lengths. The upper
part of the lens is a concave lens for correcting myopia to see the distant objects clearly, while the
lower part of the lens has a convex lens to correct the hypermetropia to see the nearby objects clearly.
Q.36. (a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain how they
perform this function.
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye. 2014OD
Ans. (a) The iris and pupil control the amount of light entering the eyes. If the amount of light received by the
eye is large (as during the day time), then the iris contracts the pupil (makes the pupil small) and
reduces the amount of light entering the eye.
If the amount of light received by the eye is small (as in a dark room or during night), the iris expands
the pupil (makes the pupil large) so that more light may enter the eyes.
(b) The screen on which the image is formed in the eye is called retina. Retina is a delicate membrane
having a large number of light sensitive cells called ‘rods’ and ‘cones’ which respond to the ‘intensity
of light’ and ‘colours of object’ respectively.
Q.37. A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the blackboard placed at a distance of
approximately 4 m from him.
Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. Explain the method of correcting this defect. Draw

s
ray diagram for the: 2015D

Da
(i) defect of vision and also (ii) for its correction.

v
Ans. • As the student is unable to see clearly the words written on the blackboard at a distance of 4 m, the

Shi
student is suffering from myopia or near-sightedness.
• This defect is corrected by using spectacles fitted with concave lens of suitable focal length is used.
The image is allowed to form at the retina by using a concave lens of suitable power.
Ray diagrams for the defect and for its corrections. Refer to Q.15
Q.38. Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due to
gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the persons
suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly?
Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard.
When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to
exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He
could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the
message to Akshay’s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions: 2015OD
Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?
Ans. Importance of ciliary muscles. The focal length of eye lens can be changed by changing its shape by the
action of ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles modify the curvature of the eye lens to enable the eye to focus
objects at varying distances.
In old age, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye lens become inflexible. As a result, the eye loses its
power of accommodation. Because of this, an old person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. This leads to
the defect called presbyopia.
Bifocal lenses are required by the persons suffering from presbyopia in which upper part consists of a
concave lens for distant vision and the lower part consists of a convex lens used to see nearby objects.
Akshay is suffering from myopia or near sightedness. Myopia is corrected by using spectacles containing
concave lenses. The concave lens used for correcting myopia should be of such a focal length that it
produces a virtual image of the distant object (lying at infinity) at the far point of the myopic eye.
Q.39. (a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
cornea; iris; crystalline lens; ciliary muscles
(b) Millions of people of the developing countries of the world are suffering from corneal blindness.
These persons can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. A
charitable society of your city has organised a campaign in your neighbourhood in order to create
206 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

awareness about this fact. If you are asked to participate in this mission how would you contribute
in this noble cause?
(i) State the objective of organising such campaigns.
(ii) List two arguments which you would give to motivate the people to donate their eyes after
death. 2016D
Ans. (a) Functions of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea. The front part of the eye is called cornea. It is made up of a transparent substance. The
light coming from objects enters the eye through cornea.
(ii) Iris. This is a flat, coloured, ring-shaped membrane behind the cornea. Pupil is a hole in the
middle of the iris. Iris controls the size of the pupil.
(iii) Crystalline lens. Eye lens is a convex lens which focuses the image of the object on the retina.
(iv) Ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles hold the eye lens and changes the thickness of eye-lens while
focussing the objects placed at different distances from the eye.
(b) (i) Objective of such campaigns. To make people aware of corneal blindness and make them
realise their duties towards the society by taking pledge for eye donation.
(ii) • One pair of eyes can give eyesight to two corneal blind persons (each getting one eye), and
make them see this beautiful world.
• Our eyes can live even after our death. People belonging to all age groups, even people with
medical conditions like cataract, diabetes, hypertension can donate their eyes.
Q.40. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set

s
Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers. 2016OD

Da
Ans. Atmospheric refraction. The refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere having air layers of

v
varying optical densities is called atmospheric refraction.

Shi
(a) Twinkling of stars. Refer to Q.23
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. The Sun can be seen about two minutes before sunrise
because when the Sun is slightly below the horizon, the Sun’s light coming from less dense air to
more dense air is refracted downwards as it passes through the atmosphere. Thus due to this
atmospheric refraction, the Sun appears to be raised above the horizon when actually it is slightly
below the horizon.
It is also due to atmospheric refraction that we can still see the sun for about 2 minutes even after the
Sun has set below the horizon. At sunset, the apparent position of the sun is visible to us and not the
actual position because of the bending of light rays effect.
So, the time from sunrise to sunset is lengthened by about 2 + 2 = 4 minutes because of atmospheric
refraction.
Q.41. (a) Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation. 2017D
(b) Why do the component colours of incident white light split into a spectrum while passing through
a glass prism, explain.
(c) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.

Ans. (a) Angle of deviation is the angle between extended incident ray and extended emergent ray through a
prism.
PQ = Incident Ray
RS = Emergent Ray
–D = Angle of Deviation
(b) The incident white light splits into a seven coloured spectrum as speed of different coloured light
waves is different when these pass through the prism.
A H

N G
D M
i r e
E F
Q N’ M’ R
P S
B C
Chapter 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD „ 207

Rain-drop
(c)
Sunlight

Red

Violet

Rainbow formation
Q.42. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List
two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray dia-
grams, explain
(i) why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.
(ii) the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected
by the use of this lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power
of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. 2017OD
Ans. (a) Two possible reasons:
— The eye ball size might have got elongated.
— The eye lens is more thick than its normal thickness during its power of accommodation.

s
(i)

a
Retina

D
Parallel rays from

Image is formed in
v front of the retina
distant object

i
(at infinity)

(ii)
Sh Image

Rays are first diverged


by concave lens
Retina
Parallel rays from L
Image is formed

distant object
(at infinity)
on retina

Virtual image
formed at F
Concave lens to correct myopia

(b) f = –5 m (since lens is concave); P=?


1 1
P = f = - 5 = –0.2 Diopter
Power of correcting lens is –0.2 D and this correcting lens is concave lens.

####
CHAPTER 12
ELECTRICITY
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Conductor. The material which can allow the flow of electrons through itself is called conductor. It has
large number of free electrons. It offers low opposition in the flow of current.
☞ Insulator. The material which does not allow the flow of electrons through itself is called insulator. It
has less or no free electrons. It offers high opposition in the flow of current.
☞ Electric Current. The amount of flow charge through any cross sectional area of conductor in unity time
is called Electric Current.
Q
It is represented by ‘I’ I= ...[where Q is amount of charge, t is time
t
☞ Unit of Electric Current. It is CS–1 (coulomb per second) or Ampere (A). Electric Current is a scalar
quantity. It is measured by an ammeter.
☞ Direction. The direction of conventional current (or practical current) is opposite to the flow of
electrons.
☞ Electric potential. Electric Potential at any point in the electric field is defined as the amount of work
done to bring the unit positive charge from infinity (from outside the electric field) to that point.
W
V = Q , S.I. unit of Electric Potential is JC–1 or volt (V). It is a scalar quantity. The +ve charge flows from
higher to lower potential. The -ve charge flows from lower to higher potential. Difference of electric
potential between any two points in the electric field is called Electric Potential difference. It is known
as voltage which is equal to the work done per unit charge between two points against static electric
WAB
field. VAB = VA – VB = Q
Electric Potential difference is measured by voltmeter.
☞ Ohm’s Law. According to this law “Under the constant physical condition the potential difference across the
conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through the conductor.”
V μ IR
V = IR ...[Where R is proportionality constant called resistance of conductor

V
fi I=
R
R depends upon nature, geometry and physical condition of conductor.
☞ Heat generated by electric current. The potential difference between two points in an electrical field is
equal to the work done in moving a unit charge from one point to another.
Then, work done, W = VQ and Q = I × t
\ W=V×I×t
From Ohm’s Law, we know that
V = IR \ W = IR × I × t = I2 . Rt

208 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 209

Since heat produced by the electric current is equal to work done, W


\ H=W fi H (heat) = I2Rt Joule.
☞ Resistance. Ratio of applied voltage to the current flowing in the conductor is called resistance of
conductor.
V
fi R=
I
S.I. Unit of resistance is VA–1 or ohm (W).
Resistance is the opposition offered by the conductor in the flow of current.
Practically it is—
R μL (L is length of conductor)
R μ 1/A (A is area of conductor)
So, R μ L/A
R = r L/A ...[Where r is proportionality constant called specific resistance of conductor
It only depend upon nature (material) and temperature of conductor.
☞ Specific resistance or Resistivity = r = RA /L. Its S.I. Unit is Wm
☞ Combination of resistance:
• In this combination the current across every component is same but potential across every
component is different.
• If resistance R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series with a battery of Potential V, then equivalence
resistance of combination
R = R1+ R2 + R3

as
☞ Parallel combination of resistance:

D
• In this combination the current across every component is different. But potential across every

iv
component is same.

Sh
• If resistance R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel with a battery of Potential V, then equivalence
resistance of combination
1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R2 R3
☞ Electric Energy is amount of work done to maintain the continuous flow of electric current in the
circuit. Its S.I. unit is joule (J).
☞ Electric power, P. The electric work done per unit time is called electric power.
Electric work done W
Electric power = or P =
Time taken t
E
Electric power is also defined as the electric energy consumed per unit time. P =
t
S.I. unit of electric power is Watt. When one joule of energy is used for one second, electric power is
equal to one watt.
Derivation of formula for electric power:
VIt
We know that electric work done, W = V × I × t or P =
t
\ P = VI
Electric power in watts = Volts × ampere
Also V = IR …[According to Ohm’s Law
So P = IR × I fi P = I2R

( VR ) × R = VR
2 2
V
We know that I = \ P= Watt
R
The maximum value of electric current that can pass through an electric appliance without damaging
electric appliance is called current rating of electric appliance.
210 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If
the equivalent resistance of this combination is R‘, then the ratio R/R‘ is:
(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 5 (d) 25
Ans. (d) 25
Q.2. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?
(a) I2R (b) IR2 (c) VI (d) V2/R
Ans. (b) IR 2

Q.3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be:
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W
Ans. (d) 25 W
2 (220)2
Reason. P = V or 100 = …(i)
R R
Let power consumed be P1 when operated on 110 V.
2
(110)
Then, P1 = …(ii)
R
From (i) and (ii)

( )
2
P1 110 1
= fi P1 = × 100 fi P1 = 25 W
100 220 4

s
Q.4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first

Da
connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat

iv
produced in series and parallel combinations would be:

Sh
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
Ans. (c) 1 : 4
Reason. Let resistance of the two wires be R each
The equivalent resistance of the series combination,
RS = R + R = 2 R
2 ⎡ V2 ⎤
Heat produced in time t : H1 = V t ⎢⎣ H = 2R . t ⎥⎦ …(i)
2R
Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is
2
RP = R × R = R = R
R+R 2R 2
2 2
V
\ Heat produced in time, t : H2 = R/2 . t = 2V . t …(ii)
R
From (i) and (ii)
H1 V 2
= t × R2 = 1 \ H1 : H2 = 1 : 4
H 2 2R 2V t 4
Q.5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points?
Ans. Voltmeter is connected in parallel in the circuit.
Q.6. A copper wire has a diameter of 0.5 mm and a resistivity of 1.6 × 10–6 ohm cm. How much of this wire
will be necessary to make a 10 ohm coil? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is
doubled ?
Sol. R = 10 ohm, r (rho) = 1.6 × 10–6 ohm cm, d = 0.5 mm = 5 × 10–2 cm
1 2 1
Area of cross-section of wire (A) = pd = × 3.14 × 5 × 10–2
4 4
25
= × 3.14 × 10–4 cm2
4
l R×A
R=r fi l= ρ
A
10 × 25 × 3.14 × 10 −4
fi l= = 12266 cm
4 × 1.6 × 10 −6
\ l (length of wire needed) = 12266 cm = 122.66 metre
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 211

When the diameter is doubled, the resistance becomes one-fourth of the original value.
10
\ New resistance = = 2.5 W
4
Q.7. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference
V across the resistor are given below:
V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
y axis

Current (A)
4
V 13.2 B
Sol. Resistance, R = = = 3.3 W 3 3 – 1 = 2A
I 4.0
2

1 A
C
10.2 – 3.4 = 6.80
O x axis
2 4 6 8 10 12 14
Voltage (V)

Q.8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit.
Find the value of the resistance of the resistor.
Ans. Here V = 12 V, I = 2.5 mA = 2.5 × 10–3 A

s
Using Ohm’s Law:

Da
V 12
R= fi R=

v
2.5 × 10 −3

i
I

Sh
3
\ R = 12 × 10 = 120 × 1000 = 4800 W
2.5 25
Q.9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 W, 0.3 W, 0.4 W, 0.5 W and
12 W respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 W resistor?
Sol. Here, V = 9 V R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5 = 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4 W
V 12
R= fi R=
I 2.5 × 10 −3
V 9 90
I= \ I= = = 0.67 A
R 13.4 134
Since same current passes through each resistor in a series combination,
\ Current in 12 W resistor = 0.67 A
Q.10. How many 176 W resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5A on a 220 V line?
Sol. Let the number of resistors = n and the equivalent resistance = R
1 1 1 1
= + + + … n times
R 176 176 176
1 n 176
fi = fi R=
R 176 n
V 220 n
Now Current, I = fi 5 = 176 = 220 ×
R 176
n
5 × 176
\ n= =4 \ Number of resistors = 4
220
Q.11. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 W, so that the combination has a
resistance of (i) 9 W, (ii) 4 W.
Sol. Given R1 = R2 = R3 = 6 W
(i) When R1 is connected in series with the parallel combination of R2
and R3 [Fig (a)].
The equivalent resistance is:
R 2R 3 6×6
R = R1 + R + R = 6 + =6+3=9W
2 3 6+6
212 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) When a series combination of R1 and R2 is connected in parallel with


R3 [Fig (b)],
The equivalent resistance is:
12 × 6 72
R= = = 4W
12 + 6 18

Q.12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many
lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum
allowable current is 5A?
Sol. Current, I = 5 A, Voltage, V = 220 V
Max. power, P = I × V = 5 × 220 = 1100 W
Max. power 1100
Required number of lamps = = = 110
Power of 1 lamp 10
\ 110 lamps can be connected in parallel.
Q.13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24 W
resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What are the currents in the three
cases?
Sol. Potential difference, V = 220 V,Resistance of each coil, R = 24 W
(i) When coils A and B are connected in series, RAB = 24 + 24 = 48 W

s
V 220
Current, I = R = 48 = 4.6 A

Da
AB

iv
1 1 1 2
(ii) When coils A and B are connected in parallel, R = 24 + 24 = 24

Sh
AB

V 2
Current, I = R = 220 × = 18.3 A
AB 24
(iii) When coils A and B are used separately
R = 24 W V = 220 V
V 220
Current, I = = = 9.167 A
R 24
Q.14. Compare the power used in the 2 W resistors in each of the following circuits:
(i) a 6 V battery in series with 1 W and 2 W resistors, and
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 W and 2 W resistors.
Sol. (i) Potential difference, V = 6 V
Equivalent resistance of 1 W and 2 W in series, RS = 1 W + 2 W = 3 W
V 6
Current, I = = =2A
R 3
Power used in 2 W resistors = I2R = (22) × 2 = 8 W
(ii) Potential difference, V = 4 W
2 2
Power used in 2 W resistors, P1 = V = 4 = 8 W
R 2
Q.15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 volts and the other 60 W at 220 volts are connected in parallel to
electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the supply line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
P
Sol. We know that P = V × I So, I =
V
100 5
I1 (for 100 W bulb) = = = 0.45 A (ampere)
220 11
60 3
I2 (for 60 W bulb) = = = 0.27A (ampere)
220 11
\ Total current drawn from the supply line = 0.45 + 0.27 = 0.72A
Q.16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 213

Sol. For TV set:


Energy E1 = Power × time time = 1 hr = 3600 seconds
= 250 × 1 × 3600 = 900000 J
For toaster:
Energy E2 = 1200 × 10 × 60 = 720000 J \ E1 > E2
\ TV set uses more energy.
Q.17. An electric heater of resistance 8 W draws 15 A from the service mains in 2 hours. Calculate the rate at
which heat is developed in the heater.
Sol. Here, R = 8 W, I = 15 A, t = 2 hours
∵ Rate of heat developed in heater = Power of heater = I2R
= 15 × 15 × 8 = 1800 watt
\ Heat is developed in the heater at the rate of 1800 J/s.
Q.18. Explain the following:
(a) Why is tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons, made
of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?(Board Question)
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
(e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed for electricity transmission?
Ans. (a) Tungsten is used almost exclusively for filament of incandescent lamps because it has high resistivity
and a high melting point.
(b) (i) Since alloys have more resistance than pure metals (constituent) and are thus heated up easily

s
due to the heating effect of electric current.

Da
(ii) An alloy does not undergo oxidation easily even at a high temperature.

v
(c) The series arrangement is not used for domestic circuits because:

Shi
(i) In a series circuit, if a fault occurs in one circuit, then all other lines will be affected. So, domestic
appliances are connected in parallel.
(ii) In a series circuit, all electrical appliances will have one switch because of which they cannot be
switched on and off separately.
l
(d) We know that resistance, R = r
A
r (rho) is constant for the given material and is called the specific resistance of the material of the
conductor.
From the above written equation, it is quite clear that resistance of a conductor is inversely
proportional to cross-sectional area of the conductor.
(e) Copper and aluminium are good conductors of heat, have very low resistivities and are ductile.
Hence copper and aluminium wires are employed for electricity transmission.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. Write the relation between electric power (P) of a device with potential difference (Volt) across it and
current (amp) flowing through it. 2013
Ans. The power (P) in watts is found by multiplying the potential difference (V) in volts by the current (I) in
amperes.
Electric power = Potential difference × Current \ P=V×I
Q.2. A charge of 150 coulomb flows through a wire in one minute. Find the electric current flowing through
it. 2014
Ans. Charge, Q = 150 C; Time, t = 1 min = 60 s
Q 150
Current, I = = = 2.5 Amp.
t 60
214 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.3. A voltmeter is to be connected in the circuit to measure potential difference across a conductor.
Mention the type of combination in which it should be connected with the conductor. 2014
Ans. The voltmeter is always connected in parallel across the conductor.
Q.4. Out of the three wires live, neutral or earth, which one goes through ON/OFF switch? 2015
Ans. The live wire goes through ON/OFF switch.
Q.5. What is the shape of the graph between V and I, where V is the potential difference applied between
the ends of a wire and I is the current flowing through it? 2015
Ans. The graph between the potential difference (V) and the corresponding current (I) is a straight line passing
through the origin.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.6. An electric heater rated 800 W operates 6h/day. Find the cost of energy to operate it for 30 days at `3.00
per unit. 2012
Sol. Power of the heater, P = 800 W; Time, t = 6 hour/day; No. of days, n = 30;
Cost per unit = `3.00; Total cost of its usage = ?; Energy, E = P × t
Consumed in 1 day = 800 × 6 = 4800 Wh
Energy consumed in 30 days = 4800 × 30 = 144000 Wh
144 000
= 1000
kWh = 144 kWh = 144 units
Cost of 1 unit = `3
\ Cost of 144 units = 3 × 144 = `432

s
Q.7. Explain two disadvantages of series arrangement for household circuit. 2012

Da
Ans. Disadvantages of series circuits for domestic wiring:

iv
(i) In series circuit, if one electrical appliance stops working due to some defect then all other appliances

Sh
also stop working because the whole circuit is broken.
(ii) In series circuit, all the electrical appliances have only one switch due to which they cannot be turned
off or turned on separately.
Q.8. Three resistors of 10 W, 15 W and 5 W are connected in parallel. Find their equivalent resistance. 2013
Sol. R1 = 10 W R2 = 15 W R3 = 5 W
R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel then equivalent resistance (R) is given by
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 + 2 + 6 11
= + + fi = + + = =
R R1 R2 R3 R 10 15 5 30 30
30
\ Equivalent resistance, R = = 2.72 W
11
Q.9. Give two reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel.
2013
Ans. The arrangement of lights and various other electrical appliances in parallel circuits is used in domestic
wiring because of following advantages:
(i) In parallel circuits, if one electrical appliance stops working due to some defect, then all other
appliances keep working normally.
(ii) In parallel circuits, each electrical appliance has its own switch due to which it can be turned on or
turned off independently, without affecting other appliances.
Q.10. (a) What is least count of voltmeter?
(b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark. Calculate its least count.
2017OD
Ans. (a) The minimum potential difference measured by a voltmeter between the two given terminals is called
the least count of that voltmeter.
(b) Two given marks of the voltmeters = 0 and 0.5 V
Potential difference = 0.5 – 0 = 0.5V
No. of divisions between these two marks = 20
0.5 5 1
Least count = = = = 0.025 volts
20 20 ¥ 10 40
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 215

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.11. (a) Nichrome wire of length ‘l’ and radius ‘r’ has resistance of 10 W. How would the resistance of the
wire change when:
(i) Only length of the wire is doubled?
(ii) Only diameter of the wire is doubled? Justify your answer.
(b) Why element of electrical heating devices are made up of alloys? 2012
Sol. (a) Resistance, R μ l
1 l
Rμ fi Rμ
A A
l
R = 10 W or R=rA
(i) Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the conductor. If length of nichrome wire (l) is
doubled its resistance also gets doubled.
\ R¢, new resistance = 20 W
(ii) The resistance of the wire is inversely proportional to the square of its diameter. If the diameter of
the wire is doubled, its resistance becomes one-fourth.
10
\ R¢, new resistance = W = 2.5 W
4
(b) The heating elements of electrical heating appliances are made up of nichrome alloy because:
• nichrome has very high resistivity due to which it produces a lot of heat on passing current.
• nichrome does not undergo oxidation easily even at high temperature, it can be kept red hot

s
without burning.

a
Q.12. Three resistors of 5 W, 10 W and 15 W are connected in series and the combination is connected to

v D
battery of 30 V. Ammeter and Voltmeter are connected in the circuit. Draw a circuit diagram to connect

Shi
all the devices in proper correct order. What is the current flowing and potential difference across 10 W
resistance? 2012
Ans. Current flowing, I = ?, V2 = ?
Total resistance, R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 W
Total potential difference, V = 30 volts
According to Ohm’s law,
V 30
V = IR fi I= = = 1 amp.
R 30
∵ Current remains constant in series,
\ I1 = I2 = I3= I; I2 = 1 amp; R2 = 10 W; V2 = ?
As V2 = I2 R2 = 1 × 10 = 10 volts
\ Potential difference across 10 W is 10 volts.
Q.13. What is meant by overloading of an electrical circuit? Explain two possible causes due to which
overloading may occur in household circuit? Explain one precaution that should be taken to avoid the
overloading of domestic electric circuit. 2012
Ans. Overloading. The current flowing in domestic wiring at a particular time depends on the power ratings of
the appliances being used. If too many electrical appliances of high power rating are switched on at the
same time, they draw extremely large quantity of current from the circuit. This is known as the
overloading of the circuit. Due to large current flowing through the wires of the household circuits, their
copper wires get heated up to a very high temperature and can cause a fire.
Precaution. Thus, overloading can be highly damaging to electrical appliances and buildings. So, fuse of
proper rating must be used to avoid such damages. Such a fuse-wire will melt before the temperature of
the heated circuit wire becomes too high and causes the circuit to break.
Q.14. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when heating is at the maximum and 360 W when
the heating is at the minimum. The voltage at which it is running is 220 V. What are the current and
resistance in each case? 2012
Sol. At maximum heating:
The consumption of energy (electric) is given at the rate of 840 W at Voltage 220 V.
\ P = 840 W, V = 220 V, then Current, I1 =?
216 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

42
P 84 0
∵ P = V × I1 \ I1 = V = = 3.81 A
22 0
11

Resistance, R1 = ?
∵ V = I1R1
110
V 220 V 220 1210
fi R1 = I = 42 fi R1 = = × 11 = = 57.6 W
1 I1 42 21 21
11
At minimum temperature:
V = 220 Volts, P = 360 W, then Current, I2 = ?
∵ P = V × I2
18
P 36 0 18
I2 = V = 22 0 = 11 = 1.6 A
11
Resistance, R2 =?
∵ V = I2R2
110
V 220 220 1210
R2 = I = 18 fi R2 = × 11 = = 134.4 W
2 18 9 9
11
Q.15. Give reason for the following:

s
(i) Electric bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases like nitrogen and argon.

a
(ii) Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission.

D
(iii) Fuse wire is placed in series with the device. 2012

Shiv
Ans. (i) Electric bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases like nitrogen and argon because these
gases do not react with the hot tungsten filament and hence prolong the life of filament of the electric
bulb.
(ii) Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission because copper and
aluminium have very low resistivity and thus they are very good conductors of electricity.
(iii) Fuse wire is placed in series with the device because when large current passes through the circuit the fuse
wire gets heated up and melts and whole circuit breaks and the device is protected from the damage.
Q.16. (i) Calculate the current through a lamp of 25 W operating at 250 V.
(ii) Why elements of electrical heating devices are made up of alloys? 2013
Sol. (i) Power of the lamp, P = 25 W
Potential difference, V = 250 V Current, I = ?
Formula: P = V × I \ 25 = 250 × I
25 1
\ Current, I = = = 0.1 A
250 10
(ii) The heating elements of electrical heating appliances are made up of nichrome alloy because:
• nichrome has very high resistivity due to which it produces a lot of heat on passing current.
• nichrome does not undergo oxidation easily even at high temperature, it can be kept red hot
without burning.
Q.17. Find the resistance between points A and B in the circuit diagram given below: 2013

A B

Sol.
A B
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 217

A B
R1

R2 R3 R4

R1 = 6 W; R2, R3, R4 are in series and have resultant resistance R¢


R¢ = R2 + R3 + R4 = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 W
R¢ is in parallel combination with R1
\ Resultant resistance of the circuit (R)
1 1 1 1 1 2 1
fi = + = + = = \ Resistance, R = 3 W
R R1 R1 6 6 6 3
Q.18. A bulb is rated at 200 V, 100 W. Calculate its resistance. Five such bulbs burn for 4 hours daily.
Calculate the units of electrical energy consumed per day. What would be the cost of using these bulbs
per day at the rate of `4.00 per unit? 2013
Sol. P = 100 W, V = 200 V, R=?
2 2
P= V fi R= V
R P
2
(200) 200 × 200
fi R= \ R= = 400 W
100 100
100
Given: P = 100 W = kW = 0.1 kW; Time, t = 4 hours
1000

as
Electrical energy consumed, E = P × t

D
Energy consumed by 1 bulb = 0.1 × 4 = 0.4 kWh

iv
\ Energy consumed by 5 bulbs = 5 × 0.4 = 2 kWh = 2 units

Sh
Cost of electrical energy:
Cost of 1 unit of electricity = `4 \ Cost of 2 units of electricity = 4 × 2 = `8
Q.19. (a) Draw the nature of V–I graph for a nichrome wire. (V–Potential difference, I–Current)
(b) A metallic wire of 625 mm length offers a 4 W resistance. If the resistivity of the metal is 4.8 × 10–7
ohm-metre then calculate the area of cross-section of the wire. 2013
Ans. (a)
2.0
0.6 +
1.2 +
+
0.8 +
0.4 +
+
0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6

V–I graph for a nichrome wire


A straight line plot shows that as the current through a wire increases, the potential difference across
the wire increases. This is Ohm’s law.
R×A ...where ⎡ R = Resistance of the conductor
(b) Resistivity, r = ⎢ A = Area of cross-section of conductor
l
⎢⎣ l = Length of the conductor
R1 R2
r = 4.8 × 10–7 W m, R = 4W
Lamp
625
l = 625 mm = m = 0.625 m
10 × 100
1.2
rl 4.8 × 10 −7 × 0.625 A
\ Area, A = = = 0.75 × 10–7 m2 = 7.5 × 10–8 m2
R 4 6V 0.25A

W are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The current


Q.20. An electric lamp and a conductor of resistance 4W
drawn by the lamp is 0.25A. Find the resistance of the electric lamp. 2013
Sol. Lamp: Resistance, R1 = ?; Potential difference, V1 = ?; Current drawn, I1 = 0.25A
218 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Other conductor:
Resistance, R2 = 4W; Potential difference, V2 = ?; Current drawn, I2 = ?
Resultant resistance, R = R1 + R2 ∵ The two resistances are connected in series
...[∵
\ Potential difference, V = 6V
Current in the circuit, I = 0.25 A
∵ I = I1 = I2 ...[In series combination
\ V = IR ...[By Ohm’s law
4
V 6 6 × 100
fi R= = = = 24 W
I 0.25 25
Now R1 + R2 = R fi R1 + 4 = 24
\ R1 = 24 – 4 = 20 W
Q.21. A circuit has a line of 5 A. How many lamps of rating 40W; 220V can simultaneously run on this line
safely? 2014
Ans. I = 5A; No. of lamps = n; Power, P = 40 W; V = 220V
Power of 1 bulb = 40 W Power of n bulbs = 40 n watts
P=V×I
220×5 55
40n = 220 × 5 fi n= = = 27.5 \ No. of lamps = 27
40 2
Q.22. The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10 W. If the resistivity of the material of the wire is 50 ×
10–8 ohm meter, find the length of the wire. 2014
Ans. Resistance of a wire, R = 10 W Radius, r = 0.01 cm = 0.01 × 10–2 m

s
Resistivity, S = 50 × 10–8 ohm meter Length of the wire, l = ?

Da
Area of cross section, A = pr = 3.14 × (0.01 × 10–2)2 m2
2

iv
= 3.14 × 0.01 × 0.01 × 10–4 m2

Sh
= 3.14 × 10–8 m2
R×A
S=
l
R × A 10 × 3.14 × 10 −8 3.14 314
l= = = m= m = 0.628 m
S 50 × 10−8 5 500
Q.23. Show four different ways in which four resistors of r ohm each may be connected in a circuit. In which
case is the equivalent resistance of the combination 2014
(i) maximum; (ii) minimum?
Ans. (a) r r r r Resultant resistance = R = r + r + r + r; R = 4r

r 1 1 1 1 1 4 r
(b) = + + + = = R =
R r r r r r 4
r

(c) Resistance (AB) = R1 = r + r = 2r


r r Resistance (PQ) = R2 = r + r = 2r
P Q
r r
Resultant, R = ?
A B
1 1 1 1 1 1+1 2 1
= + = + = = =
R R1 R2 2r 2r 2r 2r r
R=r
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 219

(d) r r r R1 = r + r + r = 3r
Resultant, R = ?
r
1 1 1 1 1 1+3 4
= + = + = =
R R1 r 3r r 3r 3r
3r
R=
4
(i) Maximum resistance = Case (a) where all the resistors are combined in series.
(ii) Minimum resistance = Case (b) where all the resistors are combined in parallel combination.
Q.24. Amit lives in Delhi and is much concerned about the increasing electricity bill of his house. He took
some steps to save electricity and succeeded in doing so. 2014
(i) Amit fulfilled his duty towards the environment by saving electricity. How?
(ii) Which alternative source of energy would you suggest Amit to use?
Ans. (i) By saving electricity, Amit is contributing in his small way towards reducing environmental
degradation. Most of the electrical appliances use electrical energy which is generated by burning
fossil fuel. The burning of fossil fuels causes air pollution. The production of hydroelectricity causes
ecological imbalance. Therefore, by using less electricity he is indirectly causing less pollution.
(ii) He can use solar energy devices like solar cooker, solar water heater and solar cells.
Q.25. An electric iron draws 2.2 amperes of current from a 220 V source. Find its (i) resistance and (ii) wattage
(Power). 2014
Ans. Current drawn, I = 2.2 amp; Potential difference, V = 220 V
Resistance, R = ?; Power, P = ?
According to ohm’s law:

as
V = IR

v D
V 220 220
× 10 = 100 W fi

i
R= = = P = V × I = 220 × 2.2 = 484 W
I 2.2 22

Sh
Q.26. Define 1 ohm resistance. 2014
A student has a resistance wire of 1 ohm. If the length of this wire is 50 cm, to what length he should
stretch it uniformly so as to obtain a wire of 4 W resistance? Justify your answer.
Ans. • 1 ohm is the resistance of a conductor such that when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied to
its ends, a current of 1 ampere flows through it.
50 1
• Resistance, R1 = 1 W; L1 = 50 cm = m= m
100 2
Required resistance, R2 = 4 W; Required length, L2 = ?
RμL
R1 R2
L1 = Constant, L 2 = Constant
R1 R2 1 4 1×2 4
= = fi =
L1 L2 = 1 / 2 L2 1 L2
4
L2 = \ L2 = 2m
2
Q.27. Define an electric circuit. Draw a labelled, schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising of a cell,
a resistor, an ammeter, a volt meter and a closed switch. 2015
Voltmeter
+ –
V

Ans. Electric circuit. A continuous conduction path


consisting of wires and other resistances (like bulb, fan, Resistor

etc.) and a switch between the two terminals of a cell or Ammeter A Closed switch
+
a battery along which an electric current flows, is called
+ –
a circuit.
Cell
Schematic diagram of electric circuit
220 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.28. Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four
resistors shown in the figure. 2015

3V
Ans.

R1 R2 R3

R4

3V

Resultant resistance of R1, R2 and R3: R¢ = R1 + R2 + R3 = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 W


1 1 1 1 1 1+3 4
Resultant resistance of the circuit R: R = R′ + R = 30 + 10 = 30 = 30
4
30 15
R= = = 7.5 W

s
4 2

a
V = 3 volts I=?

v D
V 3 30

i
V = IR fi I= = = = 0.4 A

Sh
R 7.5 75
Q.29. Two lamps, one rated 40W at 220V and the other 100 W at 220V, are connected in parallel to the electric
supply at 220V. 2017D
(a) Draw a circuit diagram to show the connections.
(b) Calculate the current drawn from the electric supply.
(c) Calculate the total energy consumed by the two lamps together when they operate for one hour.
Ans. (a)

(b) P1 = 40 W, V1 = 220V, I1 = ?, P2 = 100 W, V2 = 220V, I2 = ?


P1 40 2 P2 100 5
I1 = V = 220 = 11 ampere I2 = V = 220 = 11 ampere
1 2

2 5 7
Total current drawn, I = I1 + I2 = + = ampere
11 11 11
(c) E1 = P1 × t E2 = P2 × t
= 40 × 1 = 40 Wh = 100 × 1 = 100 Wh
140
Total energy consumed = 40 Wh + 100 Wh = 140 Wh = kWh = 0.14 kWh
1000
Q.30. Two resistors, with resistance 10 W and 15 W, are to be connected to a battery of e.m.f. 12V so as to
obtain: 2017D
(i) minimum current (ii) maximum current
(a) Describe the mode of connecting the resistances in each case.
(b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in each case.
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 221

Ans. (i) Resistances are connected in series to obtain minimum current


R1 = 10 W R2 = 15 W Voltage = 12 V
Resultant, R = R1 + R2 = 10 + 15 = 25 W
Potential difference, V = 12 V, I=?
According to Ohm’s Law:
V 12
V = IR \ I = R = 25 = 0.48A
(ii) The resistances are connected in parallel to obtain maximum current
R1 = 10 W R2 = 15 W V = 12 Volts
1 1 1 1 1 1 3+2 5
= + fi = + = =
R R1 R2 R 10 15 30 30
1 1
fi R =6 fi R=6W
V 12
According to Ohm’s Law, V = IR \ I = R = 6 = 2A
Q.31. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of 6 W, so that the combination has a resistance of:
(a) 9 W, (b) 4 W. 2017OD
Sol. Given: R1 = R2 = R3 = 6 W
(a) When R1 is connected in series with the parallel combination of R2
and R3 [Fig (a)].
The equivalent resistance is:
R 2R 3

s
R = R1 + R + R

a
2 3

v D
6×6

i
=6+ =6+3=9W

Sh
6+6
(b) When a series combination of R1 and R2 is connected in parallel with
R3 [Fig (b)].
The equivalent resistance is:
12 × 6 72
R= = = 4W
12 + 6 18

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.32. (a) Calculate the resistance of the wire using the graph.

(b) How many 176 W resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
(c) Define electric power. Derive relation between power, potential difference and resistance. 2012
Sol. (a) Resistance of wire = Slope of the graph
According to Ohm’s law,
V
V = IR or R=
I
V −V 4−2 2×10
\ R = I − I = 0.2 − 0.1 = 1 = 20 Ω
2 1
2 1

(b) Resistance, R¢ = 176 W, No of resistors = n, Current, I = 5A


Potential difference, V = 220 volts, Resultant resistance = R
222 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

According to Ohm’s law,


V 220
V = IR fi R= = = 44 W
I 5
1
R
= ( R1′ + R1′ + ..... n times ) = 1 + 1 + 1 +R’..... n times
1 n R′ 176
= fi n= = =4
R R′ R 44
Thus 4 resistors of 176 W in parallel combination are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line.
(c) Electric power is defined as the electrical work done per unit-time.
Work done W
Power = fi P=
Time taken t
The work done, W by current, I when it flows for time t under potential difference V is given by
W = V × I × t joules
W V×I×t
∵ P= \ P= \ P=V×I
t t
V
But I =
R
2
V×V
So, P = fi P= V
R R
2
(Potential difference)
Electric power = Resistance
Q.33. (a) Resistors given as R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series to a battery V. Draw the circuit diagram

as
showing the arrangement. Derive an expression for the equivalent resistance of the combination.

D
(b) If R1 = 10 W, R2 = 20 W and R3 = 30 W, calculate the effective resistance when they are connected in

iv
series to a battery of 6 V. Also find the current flowing in the circuit. 2012

Sh
Ans. (a) Same current (I) flows through different resistances, when these are joined in series, as shown in the
figure:
A R1 B R2 C R3 D
I

V1 V2 V3
I

V
Let R be the combined resistance, then, V = IR
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
∵ V = V1 + V2 + V3
\ IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 fi IR = I(R1 + R2 + R3)
\ R = R1 + R2 + R3
(b) R1 = 10 W, R2 = 20 W, R3 = 30 W
Effective resistance, R = R1 + R2 + R3 R = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 W
Potential difference, V = 6V, Current, I = ?
According to Ohm’s law,
1
V 6
V = IR fi I = R = 60 = 0.1 A
10
Q.34. (a) Define electric resistance of a conductor. 2013
(b) List two factors on which resistance of a conductor depends.
(c) Resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is 104 W at 20º C. If the diameter of the wire is 0.15 mm,
find the resistivity of the metal at that temperature.
Sol. (a) The property of a conductor due to which it opposes the flow of current through it, is called
resistance.
(b) The resistance of a conductor depends on length, thickness, nature of material and temperature of the
conductor.
• Long wire (or conductor) has more resistance and a short wire has less resistance.
• A thick wire has less resistance whereas a thin wire has more resistance.
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 223

(c) Length of the metal, l = 1 m Resistance, R = 104 W


at temperature, t = 20º C
0.15
Diameter of the wire, d = 0.15 mm \ radius, r = × 10–3 m
2
R×A
Formula: Resistivity, S =
l
22 0.15 0.15
A = pr2 = × × × 10–6 m2 \ A = 176.785 × 10–10 m2
7 2 2
−10
S = 104 × 176.785 × 10 = 183.86 × 10–8 Wm
1
Q.35. (a) Differentiate between AC and DC. Write any two points of difference.
(b) A person operates a microwave oven of 2kW power rating in a domestic circuit of 220 V and
current rating 5A. What result is expected? Explain with reason.
(c) Write the frequency of AC and DC. 2013
Ans. (a) Differentiate between AC and DC
AC DC
(i) If the current reverses its direction after (i) If the current flows in one direction only, it
equal intervals of time, it is called is called direct current (DC).
alternating current (AC).
(ii) Some sources of alternating current are (ii) Sources of direct current are dry cell, dry
power house generators, car alternators and cell battery, car battery.

s
bicycle dynamos.

Da
(b) Power of the oven, P = 2 kW = 2000 W; Potential difference, V = 220 volt; Current, I = 5A

v
\ Result will be:

Shi
P = V × I = 220 × 5 = 1100 volt A = 1100 W
This shows that microwave requires more electrical energy than the energy provided by the circuit.
The microwave will not work and fuse wire will break due to overloading.
(c) The AC produced in India has a frequency of 50 Hz, it means the current reverses its direction 100
times in a second.
DC always flows in one direction, it means polarity of direction current is fixed and it has no
frequency.
Q.36. (a) Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 ohm are connected:
(i) in series
(ii) in parallel, in turn to a battery of 6V. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the
combination of resistors in the two cases.
(b) Establish the relationship between 1 kWh and SI unit of energy. 2013

Sol. (a) (i) Resultant resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 10 + 10 = 20 W


R1 R2
3 3
V2 (6)2 6 ×6 9
P1 = R = 20 = 20 =
5 ...(i)
10 5

(ii) Resultant resistance, R = ? 6V

1
1 1 1 1 1 2 1
= + = + = =
R R1 R2 10 10 10 5 5
R=5W
2 (6)2 6 × 6 36
P2 = V = = = ...(ii) 6V
R 5 5 5
From (i) and (ii),
9
P1 9 5 1
= 5 = × =
P2 36 5 36 4 4 \ P1 : P2 : : 1 : 4
5
224 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) Relation between kilowatt-hour and joule (SI unit of energy):


1 kilowatt-hour is the amount of energy consumed at the rate of 1 kilowatt for 1 hour.
i.e., 1 kilowatt-hour = 1 kilowatt for 1 hour
or 1 kilowatt-hour = 1000 watts for 1 hour
1 joule 1000 joules
But 1 watt = \ 1 kilowatt-hour = for 1 hour
1 second seconds
1000 joules
and, 1 hour = 60 × 60 seconds \ 1 kilowatt-hour = × 60 × 60 seconds
seconds
or 1 kilowatt-hour = 36,00,000 Joules or 3.6 × 106 J
Q.37. What is meant by resistance of a conductor? Name and define its SI unit. List the factors on which the
resistance of a conductor depends. How is the resistance of a wire affected if— 2014
(i) its length is doubled, (ii) its radius is doubled?
Ans. The property of a conductor due to which it tends to stop the flow of current through the conductor is
called resistance.
SI unit is ohm. When a potential difference of 1V across a wire gives rise to 1A current through the wire,
then the resistance, is said to be 1 ohm (1W).
The resistance of conductor depends on length, thickness, nature of material and temperature of
conductor.
(i) If length is doubled, then R is doubled because the resistance of a conductor is directly proportional
to length.
(ii) Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the square of its diameter or area of cross-
section.

as
1
This shows R μ , A = pr2

D
A

v
A¢ = pr¢2 = p(2r)2 = 4pr2 = 4A

i
If r¢ = 2r, then

Sh
R = Resistance, L = Length, A = Area, r = resistivity
L
R=r
A
L L 1⎛ L ⎞ 1
If A¢ = 4A, then R¢ = r
=r = ⎜ρ ⎟ = R
A¢ 4A 4⎝ A⎠ 4
1
Therefore, if radius is doubled, the resistance becomes .
4
a b c
Q.38. (i) Establish a relationship to determine the equivalent resistance
R of a combination of three resistors having resistances R1, R2 A B
and R3 connected in parallel.
d e

(ii) Three resistors are connected in an electrical circuit as shown. Calculate the resistance between A
and B. 2014
Ans. (i) Three resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel to one another between the same two points.
In this case the potential difference across the ends of all the resistances will be the same.
V = V1 = V2 = V3
If the total current flowing through the circuit is I, then the current passing through R1 will be I1, R2
will be I2 and R3 will be I3.
Then I = I1 + I2 + I3 V
V V V R
I1 = R , I2 = R , I3 = R
1 2 3 A B
V V V V V
I= fi = + +
R R R1 R 2 R 3 I

= V ⎡⎢
V 1 1 1 ⎤ 1 1 1 1
+ + fi = + +
R R
⎣ 1 R 2 R ⎥
3⎦ R R1 R2 R3
V volts
(ii) Resultant resistance between A and B = R = ?
R1 = 4 W, R2 = 4 W, R3 = 8 W
Resultant resistance between a and c = R’
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 225

R¢ = R1 + R2 ...[Series combination
a b c
R¢ = 4 + 4 = 8W
1 1 1 A B
= + ...[R’ and R3 are in parallel combination
R R′ R 3
d e
1 1 1 2
= + = fi W
R = 4W
R 8 8 8
Q.39. What does an electric circuit mean? Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across
a conductor in a circuit. When do we say that the potential difference across a conductor is 1 volt?
Calculate the amount of work done in shifting a charge of 2 coulombs from a point A to B having
potentials +10V and –5V respectively. 2014
Ans. • A continuous conducting path consisting of wires and other resistances (like electric bulb, etc.) and
a switch, between the two terminals of a cell or a battery along which an electric current flows, is
called an electric circuit.
• Battery (or cell) helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor in a circuit.
• The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if 1 joule of work is done in moving
1 coulomb of electric charge from one point to the other.
• Work done, W = ? Charge, Q = 2C
Potential at A = +10 V Potential at B = –5V
Potential difference, (V) = +10 – (–5) = 10 + 5 = 15 volts
W W
V= Q fi 15 =
2
W = 15 × 2 = 30 J

as
Q.40. Name an instrument that measures potential difference between two points in a circuit.

D
Define the unit of potential difference in terms of SI unit of charge and work. Draw the circuit symbols

iv
for a (i) variable resistor, (ii) a plug key which is closed one. 2014

Sh
Two electric circuits I and II are shown below
R1
(I) R1 R2 R3 (II) R2
R3

V V
(i) Which of the two circuits has more resistance?
(ii) Through which circuit more current passes?
(iii) In which circuit, the potential difference across each resistor is equal?
(iv) If R1 > R2 > R3, in which circuit more heat will be produced in R1 as compared to other two
resistors?
W
Ans. • Voltmeter measures potential difference between two points in a circuit. V = Q
V = Potential difference, W = Work done, Q = Quantity of charge
1J
V= = 1 volt. The SI unit of potential difference is volt.
1C
The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if 1 joule of work is done in moving
1 coulomb of electric charge from one point to the other.
• Circuit symbols of— (a) variable resistor or
(b) a key plug which is closed or
(i) Circuit (I) has more resistance as the combined resistance of any number of resistances connected in
series is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.
(ii) Circuit (II).
(iii) In circuit (II) the potential difference across each resistor is equal.
(iv) If R1 > R2 > R3 in circuit (I) more heat will be produced in R1 as compared to other two resistors.
226 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.41. (a) Describe in brief any three important features of domestic electric supply lines.
(b) List two distinguishing features between overloading and short circuiting in domestic circuits.
2014
Ans. (a) Features of domestic electric supply lines:
(i) From the electric pole two insulated wires come to our houses. One of these wires is called live
wire (L) having high potential of 220 V whereas the other wire is called neutral wire (N)
having zero potential. Thus the potential difference between these two wires in India is
220 – 0 = 220 V. The live wire has red insulation covering where as neutral wire has black
insulation covering.
(ii) The two wires coming out of the meter are connected to a main switch which is placed in a
distribution box. It is used to switch off the electric supply when required so as to repair any
faults in the internal wiring.
(iii) All the electrical appliances like bulbs, fans and sockets, etc. are connected in parallel across the
live wire and the neutral wire because if one of the appliances is switched off or gets fused, there
is no effect on the other appliances and they keep on operating.
(b) Difference features between Overloading and Short-circuiting in Domestic circuits
Overloading Short-circuiting
(i) If too many electrical appliances of high (i) The touching of naked live wire and neutral
power rating are switched on at the same wire directly causes short circuiting.
time, they draw an extremely large current
from the circuit causing overloading.

s
(ii) Due to an extremely large current flowing (ii) In this case, the resistance of the circuit so

Da
through the circuit, the copper wire of the formed is very small, thus a large amount of

v
household wiring gets heated to a very current flows through the circuit and heats

Shi
high temperature and a fire may start. the wires to a high temperature and a fire
may start.
Q.42. For the series combination of three resistors establish the relation:
R = R1 + R2 + R3
where the symbols have their usual meanings.
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors of 6 W, 9 W and 18 W joined in
parallel. 2015
Ans. Same current (I) flows through different resistances, when these are joined in series, as shown in the
figure.
A R1 B R2 C R3 D
I

V1 V2 V3
I

V
Let R be the combined resistance
then, V = IR
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
∵ V = V1 + V2 + V 3
\ IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 fi IR = I(R1 + R2 + R3)
\ R = R1 + R2 + R 3
Now, R1 = 6 W; R2 = 9 W; R3 = 18 W
In parallel combination
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3+2+1 6 1
= + + fi = + + = = =
R R1 R2 R3 R 6 9 18 18 18 3
1 1
\ = fi W
R = 3W
R 3
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 227

Q.43. Study the following current-time graphs from two different sources: 2015

Current Current
(I) (I)

0 Time (t) 0
Time (t)
(I) (II)
(i) Use above graphs to list two differences between the current in the two cases.
(ii) Name the type of current in the two cases.
(iii) Identify one source each for these currents.
(iv) What is meant by the statement that “the frequency of current in India is 50 Hz”?
Ans. (i) I II
(i) (I) shows Direct Current (D.C.). (i) (II) shows Alternating Current (A.C.).
(ii) The Current (I) flows in one direction only. (ii) The current (II) reverses direction after equal
It is called a direct current. The magnitude intervals of time. It is called alternating
and direction of flow of current remains the current. The magnitude and direction of
same. current change continuously at definite
intervals of time.
(iii) The magnitude of current in (I) does not (iii) The magnitude of (II) becomes zero after a

as
become zero with the passage of time. regular time interval.

v D
(ii) (I) (D.C.) — Direct Current; (II) (A.C.) — Alternating Current

Shi
(iii) Source of D.C. Æ a cell, battery, solar cell, D.C. generator
Source of A.C. Æ A.C. generator.
(iv) ‘The frequency of current in India is 50 Hz‘ means the direction of current in India changes 100 times
in 1 second as current direction changes twice in one cycle.
Q.44. What is meant by electric circuit? Why does electric current start flowing in a circuit the moment circuit
is complete? When do we say that the potential difference across a conductor in a circuit is 1 volt?
Calculate the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery if 12 joules of work is done in
transferring 2 coulombs of charge. 2015
Ans. • A continuous conducting path consisting of wires and other resistances (like electric bulb, etc.) and a
switch, between the two terminals of a cell or a battery along which an electric current flows is called
an electric circuit.
• It is the potential difference between the ends of the wire which makes the electric charges (or
current) flow in the wire.
The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if 1 joule of work is done in moving 1
coulomb of electric charge from one point to another.
1 joule 1J
Thus, 1 volt = or 1 volt = or 1 JC
1 coulomb 1C
• V=? W = 12 J Q = 2C
W 12J
Now, V = Q = 2C = 6 volts
Q.45. State Ohm’s law. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to verify this law in the laboratory. If you draw a
graph between the potential difference and current flowing through a metallic conductor, what kind of
curve will you get? Explain how would you use this graph to determine the resistance of the conductor.
2015
Ans. Ohm’s law states that the electric current, through a conductor, is directly proportional to the potential
difference across its two ends when, other physical conditions like temperature, etc., remain constant.
V
VμI or = Constant = R or V = IR
I
Thus, the ratio V: I is a constant. This constant is called the resistance (R) of the conductor.
228 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Circuit diagram for Ohm’s law:


+v v v v–

I
R + – K
A

+V–
Explanation. If a graph is drawn between the potential difference (V) and current (I), the graph is found to
be a straight line passing through the origin. This shows current is directly proportional to the potential
V
difference. Thus the ratio remains constant. This constant is called the resistance of the conductor. The
I
gradient of the straight line graph is related to the resistance (R) of the conductor.
Graph:

2.0
0.6 +
1.2 +
+
0.8 +
+

s
0.4

a
+

D
0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6

Shiv
Q.46. When an electric current flows through a conductor it becomes hot. Why? List the factor on which the
heat produced in a conductor depends. State Joule’s law of heating. How will the heat produced in an
electric circuit be affected, if the resistance in the circuit is doubled for the same current?
Ans. When an electric current is passed through a conductor it becomes hot. This is called heating effect of
2015

current. The heating effect of current is obtained by the transformation of electrical energy into heat
energy. A battery or a cell is a source of electrical energy. The chemical reaction within the cell generates
the potential difference between its two terminals that sets the electrons in motion to make the current flow
through a resistor. The source has to keep expending its energy. A part of the source energy in maintaining
the current may be consumed into useful work and rest of the source energy may be expended in heat.
The heat produced in a wire is directly proportional to
(i) square of current (I2).
(ii) resistance of wire (R).
(iii) time (t), for which current is passed.
Joule’s Law of heating states that when a current of ‘I’ amperes flows in a wire of resistance ‘R’ ohms for
time ‘t’ seconds, then the heat produced in the conductor is equal to the product of the square of the
current. Joule’s Law of heating gives the formula
H = I2 × R × t
Since, H μ R,
therefore if the resistance in the circuit is doubled then heat produced will also get doubled.

P ractical Based Questions


➜ EXPERIMENT: Resistors in Series
Q.1. Give any four precautions taken by a student to perform an experiment to determine the resultant
resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 229

Ans. (i) Clean the ends of the connecting wires by sand paper.
(ii) The connections should be tight.
(iii) Close the key (K) only when readings are to be taken.
(iv) Zero errors and the ranges of the ammeter and voltmeter should be noted.
Q.2. (i) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a cell of 1.5 V, 10 W and 15 W resistor and a
plug key all connected in series.
(ii) Which one is same in series, current or voltage?
Ans. (i)

+ –
(•)
1.5 V K

(ii) Current remains the same in a series circuit.


Q.3. Resistance of three resistors are given as R1 = 10 W, R2 = 20 W and R3 = 30 W. Calculate the effective
resistance when they are connected in series. Also calculate the current flowing when the combination
is connected to a 6V battery.
Ans. Effective resistance of series combination is given by
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
= 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 W
Current through the combination

s
V 6 1

a
I = R = 60 = 10 = 0.1 A

D
3

v
Q.4. A student has three voltmeters across three resistances R1, R2 and R3 as shown in the circuit. Given

Shi
that R1 < R2 < R3.
(i) Write V1, V2 and V3 in decreasing order of the reading shown by each of them,
(ii) What will you observe about the potential difference across the series the series in combination?
+ V – + V – + V –
1 2 3

R1 R2 R3
+
A

Ans. (i) As V = IR
For the same current in series combination
VμI
R1 < R2 < R3, we get V1 < V2 < V3
(ii) We observe that in a series combination, the potential difference V is equal to the sum of potential
difference V1, V2 and V3, that is
V = V1 + V2 + V3.
Q.5. How will you connect a given set of resistors so that the equivalent resistance is increased? Give
reason for your answer.
Ans. All the given set of resistors must be connected in series so that the equivalent resistance is increased.
Reason. The effective length of all the resistors in the series combination increases.
Q.6. State one advantage and one disadvantage of series circuit.
Ans. Advantage of series combination. Batteries are connected in series combination to get higher voltage.
Disadvantage of series combination. In series arrangement, when one component fails, the circuit is
broken and none of the components works.
Q.7. A student while verifying Ohm’s law calculated the value of resistance of the resistor for each set of
observation. However, the values of resistance were slightly different from the actual value. Is his
experiment wrong? Justify your answer.
Ans. His experiment is correct since some of the current is utilized to overcome the resistance of the wires of
230 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

the circuit and instruments like ammeter and voltmeter. Thus the experimental values of resistance were
different from the actual value of resistance.
Q.8. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to study the dependence of current (I) on the potential difference (V)
across a resistor.
Ans. + –
V (Rheostat)

Resistance

A Plug key
+
+ –
Battery
A = Ammeter, V = Voltmeter

➜ EXPERIMENT: Resistors in Parallel


Q.9. Draw a circuit diagram to show three resistors connected in parallel with a cell and a key. Write
formula for the equivalent resistance R of this combination if the individual resistances of the
resistors are R1, R2 and R3.
Ans. R1

R2

Das
R3

iv
+ –

Sh
V
If RP is the equivalent resistance of the given parallel combination, then
1 1 1 1
= + +
RP R1 R2 R3
Q.10. Study the following circuit and answer the questions that follow:
+ –

+
A

(a)
State the type of combination of the two resistors in the circuit.
(b)
What will be the potential difference across the above combination if applied potential in 6V?
Ans. (a)
The circuit shows the parallel combination of the two resistors.
(b)
The potential difference across the combination is 6V because their one end is connected at higher
potential and other end is at lower potential of the 6V battery.
Q.11. In the circuit diagram given below, calculate:

– +
– A
+
3V
Chapter 12: ELECTRICITY „ 231

(a) the total effective resistance of the circuit.


(b) the total current in the circuit.
Ans. (a) Total effective resistance ‘R’ of the given parallel combination is
1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R2 R3

1 1 1 11
= + +
5 10 15 30
30
So, R = = 2.727 = 2.73 W
11
(b) Total current in the circuit, I
V 3 3 × 11 11
= = = = 1.1 A
R 30 30 10
11
Q.12. List in a tabular form, two differences between a voltmeter and an ammeter.
Ans. Voltmeter Ammeter
(i) It measure the potential difference between (i) It measure the total current flowing in the
two points in a circuit. circuit.
(ii) It is connected in parallel across the two (ii) It is connected in series in the circuit.
points in a circuit.
Q.13. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 when connected in parallel, a

s
student chooses the resistors to perform the experiment in such a way that R1 > R2. After taking

Da
observations, he plots the V–I graph for the same. Draw the same V–I graph as he plotted by taking

v
‘V’ on Y-axis and I on X-axis for

Shi
(i) R1 and R2, and
(ii) R1 and R2, and their equivalent resistance on the same axis.
Give justification for both the cases.
Ans. (i) The slope of V–I graph gives the resistance of the resistor used in the experiment.
As R1 > R2, the slope for R1 must be greater then the slope for R2.
Y
R1
V
R2

X
I

(ii) In the parallel combination, the equivalent resistance is less than the least value resistance in the
circuit. So in the V–I graph slope for parallel combination is less than that of R2.
Y R1

R2
V

RP

X
I

Q.14. (a) What is least count of voltmeter?


(b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark. Calculate its least count.
Ans. (a) The minimum potential difference measured by a voltmeter between the two given terminals is
called the least count of that voltmeter.
(b) Two given marks of the voltmeters = 0 and 0.5 V
Potential difference = 0.5 – 0 = 0.5V
232 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

No. of divisions between these two marks = 20


0.5 5 1
Least count = = = = 0.025 volts
20 20 × 10 40
Q.15. Which is smaller, terminal-p.d. or e.m.f of a cell and why?
Ans. Terminal p.d. is smaller. It is because when a cell supplies current, a part of e.m.f.
(i.e., some electrical energy) is used in overcoming the internal resistance of the cell. As a result of it, p.d. at
the terminals of the cell falls from its maximum value.
Q.16. In an experiment, to study the dependence of potential difference (V) on the electric current (I) across
a conductor (resistor), if the circuit is on for long time, then—select two correct options from the
following:
(i) Zero error of an ammeter will be changed.
(ii) Zero error of a voltmeter will be changed.
(iii) Value of a resistance will be changed.
(iv) Resistor will be heated.
Ans. (i) Value of resistance will be changed.
(ii) Resistor will be heated.
Q.17. To study the dependence of potential difference (V) on current I across Resistor (R), four circuit
diagrams are prepared.
Key Key
+ – + –

+ +
A

s
V
– –

a
R R

+V–

iv D A–

Sh
+
(I) (II)
Key
+ – – –
A+ +


Key A
+
R R

+V– – V+
(III) (IV)
(i) Select the circuit diagrams which are correct.
(ii) Give reason for the circuit diagrams which are not correct.
Ans. (i) Circuit diagrams (I) and (III) are correct.
(ii) Circuit diagram (II) is incorrect because ammeter is always connected in series with the resistor and
voltmeter is always connected in parallel to the resistor.
Circuit diagram (IV) is incorrect because the negative (–ve) terminal of the ammeter and the
voltmeter is connected to the positive (+ve) terminal of the battery and there is positive (+ve)
terminals connection.

####
CHAPTER 13
MAGNETIC EFFECTS
OF ELECTRIC
CURRENT
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Magnetic field. The area or region around a magnet in which another magnet or magnetic material can
feel the force of attraction or repulsion is called magnetic field.
☞ Magnetic field lines. The closed curved imaginary lines in the magnetic field which indicate the
direction of motion of north pole in the magnetic field if magnet is free to do so.
☞ Properties of magnetic field lines.
(i) Magnetic field lines originate from north pole of a magnet and end at its south pole.
(ii) Magnetic field lines are denser near the poles but rarer at other places.
(iii) The magnetic field lines do not intersect one another.
☞ Oersted’s experiment. According to this experiment “A current carrying wire creates a magnetic field around
it. The direction of magnetic field depends on the direction of current in conductor.”
— Magnetic field pattern due to straight current carrying conductor are concentric circles whose
center lie on the wire.
— Direction of magnetic field due to straight current carrying conductor can be determined by Right
hand thumb rule.
☞ Right hand thumb rule. According to this rule “if current carrying conductor is held in the right hand in such
a way that thumb indicates the direction of current, then the curled finger indicates the direction of magnetic field
lines around the conductor.”
☞ Magnetic field pattern due to current carrying loop. The magnetic field lines are circular near the
current-carrying loop. As we move away from the loop, field lines form bigger and bigger circles. At
the center of the circular loop, the magnetic field lines are straight.
☞ Solenoid is an insulated and tightly wound long circular wire having large number of turns whose
radius is small in comparison to its length. Magnetic field produced by a solenoid is similar to the
magnetic field produced by a bar magnet.
☞ Current carrying solenoid is called an electromagnet.
☞ Properties of magnetic lines of force or magnetic field lines.
(i) These lines originate from the north pole and end at the south pole.
(ii) The magnetic field lines of a magnet form a continuous closed loop.

Chapter 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT „ 233


234 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Two magnetic lines of force do not intersect each other.


(iv) The tangent at any point on the magnetic line gives the direction of the magnetic field at the point.
☞ Fleming’s left hand rule. According to this rule, “if the thumb, fore-finger and middle finger of the left hand
are stretched perpendicular to each other and if the fore-finger gives the direction of magnetic field, middle finger
gives the direction of current, then the thumb will give the direction of motion or the force acting on the current-
carrying conductor.”
☞ Principle of an electric motor. A motor works on the principle that when a rectangular coil is placed in
a magnetic field and current passes through it, a force acts on the coil which rotates it continuously.
When the coil rotates, the shaft attached to it also rotates. In this way the electrical energy supplied to
the motor is converted into the mechanical energy of rotation.
☞ Principle of an electric generator. It is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. It states that
“an induced current is produced in a coil placed in a region where the magnetic field changes with time.” The
direction of induced current is given by Fleming’s right hand rule. An electric generator converts
mechanical energy into electrical energy.
☞ Electromagnetic induction. The phenomenon of setting up of an electric current or an induced e.m.f. by
changing the magnetic lines of force by a moving conductor is called electromagnetic induction.
☞ Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule. The direction of the current is given by Maxwell’s right hand thumb
rule, “If the current carrying conductor is gripped with the right hand in such a way that the thumb
gives the direction of the current, then the direction of the fingers gives the direction of the magnetic
field produced around the conductor.

s
Fleming’s left hand rule. The direction of motion of a conductor in a magnetic field is given by Fleming’s

a
left hand rule. According to this rule, if the thumb, fore-finger and middle finger of the left hand are

v D
stretched perpendicular to each other and if fore-finger gives the direction of magnetic field and the

Shi
middle finger gives the direction of current then, the thumb will give the direction of the motion of the
conductor carrying the current.
☞ Fleming’s right hand rule. The direction of the induced current is given by Fleming’s right hand rule.
According to this rule if the thumb, fore-finger and middle finger of the right hand are stretched
perpendicular to each other and if the fore-finger gives the direction of the magnetic field and the
thumb gives the direction of motion, then the middle finger will give the direction of the induced
current in the conductor.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire ?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Ans. (d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Q.2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
(a) the process of charging a body.
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Ans. (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
Q.3. The device used for producing electric current is called a
(a) generator (b) galvanometer (c) ammeter (d) motor
Ans. (a) generator
Q.4. The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
Chapter 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT „ 235

(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.


(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Ans. (d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Q.5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
(a) reduces substantially (b) does not change
(c) increases heavily (d) varies continuously
Ans. (c) increases heavily
Q.6. State whether the following statements are true or false:
(a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
(b) An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
(c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight lines.
(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
Ans. (a) False; Reason. An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
(b) True
(c) True
(d) False; Reason. A live wire always has red or brown insulation.
Q.7. List three sources of magnetic fields.
Ans. (i) A bar magnet (ii) An electromagnet (iii) Earth’s magnetism.
Q.8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a current-
carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
Ans. When a current is passed through the solenoid, the current in each circular loop has the same direction,

as
their magnetic effects get added producing a strong magnetic field. Inside the solenoid, the magnetic field

D
is almost uniform and parallel to the axis of the solenoid. The magnetic field produced by a solenoid is

iv
very much similar to that of a bar magnet. Like a bar magnet, one end of the solenoid has N-polarity while

Sh
the other end has S-polarity.
To determine the north and south poles, we bring N-pole of the bar magnet near one end of the solenoid.
If there is an attraction, then that end of the solenoid is the south pole and the other is the north pole. If
there is a repulsion, then that end of the solenoid is the north pole and the other end is the south pole.
Q.9. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
Ans. Force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest when direction of
current is perpendicular (at right angles) to the direction of magnetic field.
Q.10. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the function
of a split ring commutator?
Ans. Principle. Principle of a motor is based on the fact that when a coil carrying current is held in a magnetic
field, it experiences a torque (a couple force), which rotates the coil. This rotational direction of the coil is
given by Fleming’s left hand rule.
Working. A coil of copper wire is placed between two poles of the
magnet as shown in the diagram. When the current is passed through
the coil, it enters at point X and leaves at point Y. Since current flowing
through two opposite arms AB and CD of the coil is opposite to each
other and direction of the current in these arms is perpendicular to the
magnetic field, so a torque acts on these two arms of the coil, due to
which the coil starts rotating in anti-clockwise direction. After half
rotation of the coil, the current in the two opposite arms of the coil is
reversed with the help of sliding contacts and the split ring
commutator.
Due to this, the arm of the coil, which previously moved upwards,
moves downwards and the arm, which was moving downwards, moves upwards and so the coil
completes the second half cycle of the rotation. In this way a reversing process is repeated at each half turn
giving rise to a continuous rotation.
The commutator rings help in reversing the direction of current through the two arms of the coil after
every half cycle.
Q.11. Name some devices in which electric motors are used.
236 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Electric motor is used in:


(i) electric fans (ii) refrigerators (iii) mixers
(iv) washing machines (v) computers and MP3 players, etc.
Q.12. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is
(i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary inside the coil?
Ans. (i) When the north pole (N) of the magnet is pushed into the coil, the
galvanometer is deflected towards the right.
(ii) When the north pole (N) of the magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the
galvanometer is deflected towards the left.
(iii) When the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, the deflection of the
galvanometer is zero.
Q.13. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-
carrying current, (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic
field which is perpendicular to it, and (iii) current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic
field.
Ans. (i) The direction of the current is given by Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule, “If the current carrying
conductor is gripped with the right hand in such a way that the thumb gives the direction of the
current, then the direction of the fingers gives the direction of the magnetic field produced around the
conductor.
(ii) The direction of motion of a conductor in a magnetic field is given by Fleming’s left hand rule.
According to this rule, if the thumb, fore-finger and middle finger of the left hand are stretched

s
perpendicular to each other and if fore-finger gives the direction of magnetic field and the middle

a
finger gives the direction of current then, the thumb will give the direction of the motion of the

v D
conductor carrying the current.

Shi
(iii) The direction of the induced current is given by Fleming’s
right hand rule.
According to this rule if the thumb, fore-finger and middle
finger of the right hand are stretched perpendicular to each
other and if the fore-finger gives the direction of the
magnetic field and the thumb gives the direction of motion,
then the middle finger will give the direction of the
induced current in the conductor.

Q.14. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will
some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Ans. Yes. As the current in the coil A changes, the magnetic field associated with it also changes. Thus the
magnetic field lines around the coil B also change. Therefore, the change in magnetic field lines associated
with the coil B is the cause of induced electric current in it.
Q.15. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a labelled diagram.
What is the function of brushes?
Ans. Principle. The electrical generator works on the principle that when a straight conductor is moved in a
magnetic field, then current is induced in the conductor. The direction of this induced current is given by
Fleming’s right hand rule.
Construction of AC generator. It consists of a rectangular coil ABCD
which can be rotated rapidly between N and S poles of a strong
horse-shoe shaped magnet having radial ends. The coil is made of a
large number of turns of insulated copper wire. The ends A and D of
the coil are connected to slip rings R1 and R2. As the slip rings R1 and
R2 rotate with the coil, the two carbon brushes B1 and B2 keep contact
with them. Outer ends of the two brushes B1 and B2 are connected to
the galvanometer to show the flow of the current in the given
external circuit.
Working. When the coil starts rotating with the arm AB moving up
and the arm CD moving down, cutting the magnetic lines of force,
Chapter 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT „ 237

then according to Fleming’s right hand rule the induced current is set up in these arms along the direction
of AB and CD. So an effective induced current flowing in the direction of ABCD is obtained.
If there are large number of turns in the coil, the current generated in each turn adds up to give a large
amount of current through the coil.
After half rotation of the coil, its arm CD starts moving up and AB moving down. As a result, the direction
of the induced current gets reversed in the coil in the direction of DCBA. Thus after every half rotation the
polarity of the current in the respective arm changes. Such a current, which changes its direction after
equal intervals of time, is called Alternating Current (AC). In India frequency of AC is 50 Hz. It means that
it changes its polarity 100 times per second, as polarity changes after every half cycle rotation of the coil.
Q.16. When does an electric short circuit occur?
Ans. When the live wire touches the neutral wire in between the circuit, a short circuit occurs.
When two such wires touch each other, the resistance of the circuit so formed is so small that a large
quantity of current flows through the conductor wires. These wires get heated up to a very high
temperature and catch fire which can cause damage to the electrical appliances and the building.
Q.17. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances?
Ans. The earth wire carries a part of the electric current to the earth so as to save the building and heavy
electrical appliances from damage in case large amount of current flows through their circuits.
We earth the metallic body of an electrical appliance to save ourselves from electric shocks. If accidentally
the live wire touches the metal-case of the electrical appliance that has been earthed, then the current flows
directly into the earth and we are saved from an electric shock.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Das
Shiv
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA)
Q.1. Mention the angle between a current carrying conductor and magnetic field for which the force
experienced by this current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field is largest?
1 Mark

2012
Ans. The force is the largest, when angle between the current carrying conductor and magnetic field direction is
a right angle, i.e., 90º.
Q.2. Name the physical quantities which are indicated by the direction of thumb and forefinger in the
Fleming’s right hand rule? 2012
Ans. In Fleming’s right hand rule, forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and thumb points in the
direction of motion of conductor.
Q.3. Write any one method to induce current in a coil. 2013
Ans. A current is induced in a coil when it is moved (or rotated) relative to a fixed magnet.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.4. List the properties of magnetic lines of force. 2017OD
Ans. (i) These field lines start from N pole and end at S pole of the magnet.
(ii) These lines never intersect each other.
(iii) The tangent at any point on the magnetic line gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(iv) The magnetic field lines of a magnet form a continuous closed loop.

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.5. (a) Draw magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor passing through
cardboard. How will the strength of the magnetic field change, when the point where magnetic
field is to be determined, is moved away from the straight wire carrying constant current ? Justify
your answer.
(b) Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed,
will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason. 2012
238 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (a)
(i) The magnetic field lines around a straight conductor carrying
current are concentric circles whose centre lies on the wire.
(ii) When a point where magnetic field is to be determined is moved
away from the straight wire, the strength of the magnetic field
decreases because as we move away from a current carrying
straight conductor, the concentric circles around it representing
magnetic field lines become larger and larger indicating the
decreasing strength of magnetic field.
(b) Yes, current is induced in the coil B. Because as the current in the coil A changes, the magnetic field
lines around the coil B also change. Therefore, the change in magnetic field lines associated with the
coil B is the cause of induced electric current in it.
P
Q.6. (i) State Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule.
r1 A
(ii) PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the
figure. Mention the direction of magnetic fields produced by it at points A I
and B. Given r1 < r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?
r2
Justify your answer in each case. 2012 B
Q
Ans. (i) Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule. The direction of the current is given by Maxwell’s right hand
thumb rule, “If the current carrying conductor is gripped with the right hand in such a way that the
thumb gives the direction of the current, then the direction of the fingers gives the direction of the
magnetic field produced around the conductor”. P

s
(ii) Since the direction of current in the straight conductor is from Q to P, then r1

a
A
according to Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule, magnetic field at point A is

v D
inside the paper and at point B is outside the paper. Since r1 < r2 the strength of

i
I

Sh
the magnetic field at A is more than at B because greater the distance of a point B r2
from the current carrying wire, weaker will be the magnetic field produced at
Q
that point.
Q.7. (a) Shruti draws magnetic field lines close to the axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she moves
away from the centre of circular loop, she observes that the lines keep on diverging. Explain the
reason for her observation.
(b) Write two properties of magnetic field lines. 2012

Ans. (a) The pattern of magnetic field due to current carrying circular loop are circular
near the current carrying loop but the concentric circles representing magnetic
field lines become bigger and bigger. At the centre of the circular loop, the
magnetic field lines are straight. Therefore on moving away from the centre of
circular loop, magnetic field lines keep on diverging.
(b) Properties of magnetic field lines:
(i) These lines originate from the north pole and end at the south pole.
(ii) Two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Q.8. (a) Describe an activity to show with the help of a compass that magnetic field is strongest near poles
of a bar magnet.
(b) Mention the direction of magnetic field lines (i) inside a bar magnet and (ii) outside a bar magnet.
2013
Ans. (a) A bar magnet is placed on a sheet of paper and its boundary is marked with a pencil. A magnetic
compass is brought near the N-pole of the bar magnet. It is observed that N-pole of magnet repels the
N-pole of compass needle due to which the tip of the compass needle moves away from the N-pole.
Thus a magnetic field pattern is obtained around a bar magnet. Each magnetic field line is directed
from the north pole of a magnet to its south pole. The field lines are closest together at the two poles
of the bar magnet. The strength of magnetic field is indicated by the degree of closeness of the field
lines. So the magnetic field is the strongest near the poles.
Chapter 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT „ 239

S N
N S N S

Drawing of a magnetic field line Field line around a bar magnet


with the help of a compass needle
(b) (i) The direction of magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet is from its south pole to its north pole.
(ii) The direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar magnet is from its north pole to its south pole.
Q.9. Explain the effect on the magnetic field produced at a point in a current carrying circular coil due to:
(i) increase in the amount of current flowing through it
(ii) increase in the distance of point from the coil
(iii) increase in the number of turns of the coil. 2013
Ans. (i) The magnitude of magnetic field produced by a current carrying circular coil at a point is directly
proportional to the current flowing through the circular coil. Thus as the amount of current flowing
through the circular coil increases, the magnetic field produced at a point in a circular coil increases.
(ii) Magnitude of magnetic field produced at a point in a current carrying circular coil is inversely pro-
portional to the distance of point from the coil. Thus the magnetic field produced at a point decreases
as the distance increases from the coil.
(iii) The magnetic field produced by a current carrying wire at a given point depends directly on the cur-
rent passing through it. Therefore, if there is a circular coil having n turns, the field produced is n

as
times as large as that produced by a single turn. This is because the current in each circular turn has

D
the same direction, and the field due to such turns then just adds up.

iv
Q.10. What are magnetic field lines? List two characteristic properties of these lines. 2014

Sh
Ans. Magnetic field lines are the lines drawn in a magnetic field along which north magnetic pole would move.
The direction of a magnetic field at a point is determined with the help of a small magnetic compass. When
a compass is moved along the magnetic line, then the line drawn from the south pole of the compass to its
north pole indicates the direction of the magnetic field.
Properties of magnetic lines of force:
(i) The magnetic lines originate from the north pole and end at the south pole.
(ii) The magnetic field lines of a magnet form a continuous closed loop.
(iii) The magnetic lines of force do not intersect each other.
Q.11. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor. How does the
strength of the magnetic field produced change:
(i) with the distance from the conductor?
(ii) with an increase in current in a conductor? 2015
Ans. B – A+
Current
carrying
conductor
+

Magnetic
compass
Magnetic
field lines A

(i) Strength of the magnetic field produced by a straight current carrying wire at a point is inversely
proportional to the distance of that point from the wire.
(ii) Strength of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the current passing in the wire.
Q.12. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is:
(i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary inside the coil?
2017D
Ans. (i) When the north pole (N) of the magnet is pushed into the coil, the galvanometer is deflected towards
the right.
240 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) When the north pole (N) of the magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the galvanometer is deflected
towards the left.
(iii) When the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, the deflection of the galvanometer is zero.
Q.13. Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines due to a:
(a) current flowing into a circular coil,
(b) solenoid carrying current. 2017OD
Ans. (a)

(b)

Das
Shiv
Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks
Q.14. (a) With the help of a labelled diagram, describe an activity to show that a current carrying conductor
experiences a force when placed in a magnetic field. Mention the position when this force is
maximum.
(b) Name and state the rule which gives the direction of force acting on the conductor. 2012, 2015
Ans. (a) Activity:
• A small aluminium rod (AB) about 5 cm is suspended with two
connecting wires horizontally from a stand.
• A strong horseshoe magnet is placed in such a way that the rod lies
between the two poles with the magnetic field directed upwards, the
north pole of the magnet vertically below and south pole vertically
above the aluminium rod arranged.
• The aluminium rod is connected in series with a battery, a key and a
rheostat.
• When a current is allowed to pass through aluminium rod from end B to end A, it is observed
that the rod is displaced towards the left.
• When the direction of the current is reversed from A to B, it is observed that the direction of
displacement of the rod is towards the right.
This activity shows that when a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, a mechanical
force is exerted on the conductor which makes it move.
The maximum force is exerted on a current carrying conductor only when it is perpendicular to the
direction of magnetic field.
(b) The direction of force acting on the current carrying conductor can be found out by using Fleming’s
left-hand rule.
Chapter 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT „ 241

According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, hold the forefinger, the centre finger and the thumb of your left
hand at right angles to one another. Adjust your hand in such a way that the forefinger points in the
direction of magnetic field and the centre finger points in the direction of current, then the direction in
which thumb points, gives the direction of force acting on the conductor.
Q.15. (a) Draw magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. “Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.”
Why?
(b) An electric oven of 1.5 kW is operated in a domestic circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A.
What result do you expect in this case? Explain. 2014
Ans. (a) Two magnetic field lines do not intersect one another. The direction of magnetic Y
field lines is always from north pole to south pole. If the two magnetic field lines
do intersect, it means at the point of intersection the compass needle is showing
X
two different directions which is not possible. N Bar Magnet S
(b) Power, P= 1.5 kW = 1.5 × 1,000 = 1,500 W
Voltage, V = 220 V, I=?
P 1, 500
P=V×I fi I= = = 6.8 A
V 220
Now the current drawn by the oven is 6.8 A which is very high but the fuse in this circuit is only 5 A
capacity. When a very high current of 6.8 A flows through 5 A fuse, the fuse wire will get heated too
much, melt and break the circuit, cutting off the power supply.
Q.16. (a) A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would be seen if a bar magnet with
its south pole towards one face of the coil is 2015

s
(i) moved quickly toward it

a
(ii) moved quickly away from it

v D
(iii) placed near its one face?

Shi
These activities are then repeated with north pole of the magnet. What will be the observations?
(b) Name and define the phenomenon involved in above activities.
(c) Name the rule which can determine the direction of current in each case.
Ans. (a) A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer and if a bar magnet with its south pole
towards one face of the coil is
(i) moved quickly towards it, the galvanometer is deflected towards the left.
(ii) moved quickly away from it, the galvanometer is deflected towards the right.
(iii) placed near its one face, the deflection of the galvanometer is zero.
If this activity is repeated with north pole of the magnet—
(i) If the magnet is pushed into the coil, the galvanometer is deflected towards the right.
(ii) If the magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the galvanometer is deflected towards the left.
(iii) If the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, the deflection of the galvanometer is zero.
A B

G
(b) This phenomenon involved in this activity is ‘Electromagnetic Induction’. The production of electric
current by moving a magnet inside a fixed coil of wire is called electromagnetic induction.
Movement of
conductor
Magnetic field
(c) The direction of induced current is determined by ‘Fleming’s
Motion
Right Hand Rule’.
Current
induced in Field
conductor
Induced current
242 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.17. (a) Define electromagnetic induction.


(b) Two coils P and S are wound over the same iron core. Coil P is connected to battery and key and
the coil S is connected to galvanometer. Draw a suitable diagram of this arrangement and write
your observations when:
(i) Current in the coil P is started by closing the key.
(ii) Current continues to flow in coil P.
(iii) Current in coil P is stopped by removing the key.
(iv) Explain the reason for such observations. 2012
Ans. (a) The production of electricity from magnetism is called electromagnetic induction.
• The current produced by moving a straight wire in a magnetic field is called induced current.
• The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by a British Scientist Michael
Faraday.
• A galvanometer is an instrument which can detect the induced current in a circuit.
(b) (i) As the current in the coil P is started by closing the key, it is observed that the needle of the
galvanometer instantly jumps to one side and just as quickly returns to zero indicating a
momentary current in coil (S).
(ii) If the current continues to flow in coil (P) then nothing will happen in the galvanometer of coil
(S).
(iii) If current in coil (P) is stopped by removing the key then the needle of the galvanometer
momentarily moves but to the opposite side.
(iv) Conclusion. Whenever the current in coil P is changing (starting or stopping) then an electric
current is induced in the nearby coil S. Coil P, which causes induction, is called primary coil

s
whereas coil S in which current is induced is called secondary coil.

iv Da Coil (P) Coil (S)

Sh G
??

• When the switch is on, current starts passing through coil P. It becomes an electromagnet and
produces a magnetic field around coil S. So an induced current flows in coil S for a moment.
• When the current in coil P becomes steady, its magnetic field also becomes steady and the
current in coil S stops.
• When we switch off the current in coil P, its magnetic field in coil S stops quickly. This effect is
just the same as pulling a magnet quickly out of coil S. So an induced current flows in coil S but
in the opposite direction.

P ractical Based Questions


300 4 5 6 7
200 00 3 4 8
Q.1. The readings of current flowing through a conductor and the
2
0
10

91
500

0 0
potential difference across its two ends are shown in the ammeter
0

mA V
and voltmeter given below. What will be the value of resistance in
it?
400
Sol. I = 400 mA = = 0.40 A, V = 8 volts
1000
According to Ohm’s Law = V = IR
V 8 × 10
fi R= = W
= 20W
I 4
Chapter 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT „ 243

Q.2. Two resistances R1 = 10 ohm and R2 = 10 ohm are to be connected with 20V battery. Out of which of the
following maximum current will flow. Calculate its magnitude.
+ – + –

R1
R1 –
+
R2 R2 R1 R2

Ans. In all the three cases, the same current will be flowing as in all the three cases, both the resistors are
combined in series.
R1 = 10 W R2 = 10 W
Resultant R = R1 + R2 = 10 + 10 = 20 W
V = 20 V
V 20
I= = = 1A
R 20

####

Das
Shiv
CHAPTER 14
SOURCES OF ENERGY
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Need for Energy. The ability of a body to do work is called energy. No activity will occur without
energy. So energy is required in all walks of life.
☞ Characteristics of a good source of energy.
• It should be able to do large amount of work for each unit of mass or volume.
• It should be easily accessible.
• It should be easily transported.
• It should be economical.
☞ Conventional Sources of Energy. The sources of energy which have been in use since a long time are
called conventional sources of energy. For example, Coal, petroleum, natural gas, hydel energy, wind
energy and nuclear energy are considered to be the conventional sources of energy. Firewood is also a
conventional source of energy but its usage is now limited to kitchens in rural India.
☞ Fossil Fuels.
(i) Coal. Coal was formed millions of years ago. The plants got buried under swamps and due to high
pressure and high temperature inside the earth; they were converted into coal. Coal is the highest
used energy source in India. During the days of steam engine, coal was used in steam engines.
Moreover, coal was also used as kitchen fuel before LPG became popular. Now-a-days, coal is
mainly being used in the industries.
(ii) Petroleum. Petroleum was also formed millions of years ago. The animals got buried under the
ocean surface and were converted into petroleum in due course of time. Petroleum is the third
major source of energy being used today. Petroleum products are used as automobile fuel and also
in the industries. Natural gas mainly comes from the oil wells and is also a major source of energy.
☞ Non-renewable Sources of Energy. It takes millions of years for the formation of fossil fuels. Since they
cannot be replenished in the foreseeable future, they are known as non-renewable sources of energy.
☞ Renewable Sources of Energy. Those sources of energy which can be replenished quickly are called
renewable sources of energy. Hydel energy, wind energy and solar energy are examples of renewable
sources of energy.
☞ Hydel Energy. Hydel energy is produced by utilizing the kinetic energy of flowing water. Huge dams
are built over a source of water. Water is collected behind the dam and released. When the water falls
on the turbine; the turbine moves; because of kinetic energy of water. Thus, electricity is generated by
the turbine. Electricity; thus generated is called hydel energy or hydroelectricity.
☞ Limitations of Hydroelectric Plants.
— Dams can be constructed only in a limited number of places, preferably hilly areas.
— Large areas of agricultural land and human habitation get destroyed by the construction of dams.
— Large eco-systems get submerged under water. The vegetation which is submerged under water
rots under anaerobic conditions and gives rise to large amounts of methane which is a green-house
gas.
— Rehabilitation of displaced people is another major problem.

244 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapter 14: SOURCES OF ENERGY „ 245

☞ Thermal Power Plant. In a thermal power plant, coal or petroleum is used for converting water into
steam. The steam is used to run the turbine; to generate electricity.
☞ Biomass. The material obtained from the bodies of plants and animals is called bio-mass.
Examples: cattle dung, sewage, crop residue, wood, etc.
☞ Biogas. Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide. It contains
65% of methane gas. Biogas is produced by the anaerobic degradation of bio-mass in the presence of
water but in the absence of air.
☞ Wind Energy. Wind energy has been in use since ages. Windmills have been in use; especially in
Holland; since the medieval period. Now-a-days, windmills are being used to generate electricity. The
kinetic energy of wind is utilized to run the turbines, which generate electricity. At present, Germany
is the leading country in terms of wind energy production and India comes at number five. In India,
Tamil Nadu is the largest wind energy producing state. The largest wind farm in India is in Tamil
Nadu, which generates 380 MW of electricity.
☞ Limitations of Wind Energy. Wind farms can only be established at those places where the wind speed
is high enough and is more than 15 km/hr for most parts of the year. Wind farms need to be
established on large tracts of land. The fan of the windmill has many moving parts; so cost of
maintenance and repair is quite high. Initial cost of establishing a wind farm is very high.
☞ Non-conventional Sources of Energy. Energy sources which are relatively new are called non-
conventional sources of energy, e.g., nuclear power and solar energy.
☞ Solar Energy. The sun is the main source of energy for all living beings on this earth. Even the energy

s
in the fossil fuels has come from the sun. The sun has an endless reservoir of energy which would be

Da
available as long as the solar system is in existence. Technologies for harnessing the solar energy have

iv
been developed in recent times.

Sh
(i) Solar Cooker. Solar cooker is very simple in design and mode of function. It is usually made from
mirrors. Plain mirrors are placed inside a rectangular box. The light reflected from the plain
mirrors concentrates the solar energy inside the solar cooker which generates enough heat to cook
food.
(ii) Solar Furnace. Concave mirrors are used in solar furnaces. The light rays containing heat energy
are concentrated to a specific point (focus) using concave mirrors, which raises the temperature.
This high temperature is used by solar furnaces for meeting their needs.
(iii) Solar Cells. Solar cells are made from silicon. The solar panel converts solar energy into electrical
energy which is stored in a battery for later use.
☞ Limitations of Solar Energy. The technologies for harnessing solar energy are at a nascent stage. At
present, the cost benefit ratio for using solar energy is not conducive. Using solar energy is
exorbitantly costly.
☞ Tidal Energy. Due to the gravitational pull of the moon, tides happen near seashores. Water rushes up
near the seashore during a high tide and goes down during a low tide. Dams are built near seashores
to collect the water which comes during a high tide. When the water runs back to the ocean, the flow
of water can be utilized to generate electricity.
☞ Wave Energy. Waves can also be a good source of energy. Many devices are being designed and tested
to produce wave energy. For example; a hollow tower is built near the seashore. When water gushes in
the tube because of a wave, it forces the air upwards. The kinetic energy of air in the tube is used to
run a turbine. When the wave goes down, air from up goes down the tube which is also used in
running the turbine.
☞ Ocean Thermal Energy. The water at sea surface is hot during daytime, while the water at lower level
is cold. The temperature differential in water levels can be utilized to generate energy. If the
temperature differential is more than 20°C, then ocean thermal energy can be utilized from that place.
For this, a volatile liquid; like ammonia; is boiled using the heat from the hot water at the surface. The
steam of the volatile liquid is utilized to run the turbine to generate electricity. Colder water from the
surface below is utilized to condense ammonia vapour which is then channelized to the surface to
repeat the cycle.
246 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

☞ Geothermal Energy. Heat energy from molten rocks present inside the earth created under certain
favourable conditions by natural processes is called geothermal energy. It is the only type of energy
which does not use solar energy.
☞ Nuclear Energy. Nuclear fission is the process during which two nuclei fuse to form one nucleus. The
process generates a huge amount of energy. This phenomenon is utilized in nuclear power plants.
Nuclear power is safest for the environment but the risk of damage due to accidental leaks of radiation
is pretty high. Further, storage of nuclear waste is a big problem because of potential risk of radiation
involved.
☞ Advantages of nuclear energy.
(i) Very large amount of energy can be produced by nuclear process on using very small amount of
nuclear fuel in a nuclear reactor.
(ii) The energy so produced can be easily transformed into electrical energy.
(iii) It does not produce harmful gases.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
(a) a sunny day (b) a cloudy day (c) a hot day (d) a windy day
Ans. (b) a cloudy day

as
Q.2. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?

D
(a) wood (b) gobar-gas (c) nuclear energy (d) coal

iv
Ans. (c) nuclear energy

Sh
Q.3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ul-
timately derived from the Sun’s energy?
(a) geothermal energy (b) wind energy (c) nuclear energy (d) bio-mass
Ans. (a) geothermal energy
Q.4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the Sun as direct sources of energy.
Ans. (i) Fossil fuels are exhaustible sources of energy while Sun is a non-exhaustible source of energy.
(ii) Fossil fuels on burning produce large amount of smoke and polluting gases while sunlight is used as
a source of energy in the form of solar energy which is a non-polluting source of energy.
(iii) Fossil fuels are available at higher cost while solar energy is available almost free of cost.
Q.5. Compare and contrast bio-mass and hydro-electricity as a source of energy.
Ans. Bio-mass Hydro-electricity
(i) Bio-mass is a conventional and renewable (i) Hydro-electricity is also a conven-tional and
source of energy. renewable source of energy.
(ii) Energy obtained from bio-mass causes air (ii) Hydro-energy is a pollution-free source of
pollution. energy.
(iii) Use of bio-mass does not cause ecological (iii) Construction of dams for hydro-electricity
imbalance. causes ecological imbalance.
(iv) It is relatively more economical. (iv) It is relatively more costly.
Q.6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from: (Board Question)
(a) the wind? (b) waves? (c) tides?
Ans. (a) The energy obtained from the wind is wind energy.
Limitations:
(i) The amount of power generated is low.
(ii) Blowing air is not available everywhere and at all times.
(iii) It is not possible to have a wind-mill everywhere, also to run the wind will, minimum wind
speed of 15 kmph is required (only possible in open areas like sea-side).
(iv) Wind energy farms require large areas of land and a high cost of establishment.
(b) The energy obtained from the waves is wave energy.
Chapter 14: SOURCES OF ENERGY „ 247

Limitations:
(i) Waves are not available every time for generating electricity.
(ii) It is costly to set up the device to trap wave energy.
(c) The energy obtained from the tides is tidal energy.
Limitations:
(i) It cannot produce large amounts of electricity.
(ii) Dams can be constructed only in a particular area of the bay.
(iii) The construction of dams is very costly.
Q.7. On what basis would you classify energy sources as:
(i) renewable and non-renewable?
(ii) exhaustible and inexhaustible?
Ans. Energy sources would be classified as renewable and non-renewable.
Renewable sources of energy are inexhaustible in nature like solar energy.
Non-renewable sources of energy are exhaustible in nature like fossil fuels.
Therefore, options (i) and (ii) are the same.
Q.8. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy?
Ans. Qualities of an ideal source of energy:
(i) It should produce large amount of heat per unit volume or mass.
(ii) It should not leave more ash and harmful gases on burning.
(iii) It should be convenient to use.
(iv) It should be economical.
(v) It should be easy to handle, safe to transport.

s
Q.9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker? Are there places where solar

Da
cookers would have limited utility?

v
Ans. Solar cooker is a device used to trap solar energy and utilize it to

Shi
cook food. It consists of a box painted black from inside to absorb
heat of the Sun (black colour is the best absorber of heat). A thick
glass lid is placed over the box to trap heat energy of the Sun. A
plane mirror reflector is also attached to the box so that a strong
beam of sunlight falls over the cooker’s top.
The reflector of the solar cooker sends strong beams of sunlight over
the top of the cooker. Sunlight consists of about 1/3rd of infra-red
rays which have a heating effect. These infra-red rays are of shorter
wavelength (due to greenhouse effect of glassheet) as these are
produced by a very hot source of heat. The glass lid over the cooker
allows these infra-red rays of short wavelength into the cooker but
does not allow the infra-red rays which are emitted by the black surface of the cooker to escape as these
are of longer wavelength. Thus, heat energy of the Sun gets trapped in the black box of the solar cooker.
This heat cooks the food material kept in the black box.
Advantages of solar cooker:
(i) It is used to cook food and saves precious fossil fuel.
(ii) It does not cause any pollution.
(iii) No smoke is produced during the working of a solar cooker.
(iv) Nutrients of food material, which is to be cooked in the solar cooker, do not get destroyed.
(v) Four food items can be cooked at the same time.
Disadvantages of solar cooker:
(i) It cannot be used to cook food during the night.
(ii) It cannot be used to cook food on a cloudy day.
(iii) The direction of the reflector has to be changed after a small interval of time with the change in
position of the Sun.
Q.10. What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy? What steps would
you suggest to reduce energy consumption? (Board Question)
Ans. Environmental consequences of increasing demand for energy:
(i) Burning of fossil fuels produces acid rain which damages plants, soil and aquatic life.
(ii) Felling of trees in the forests to obtain firewood is causing soil erosion and destroying wild life.
248 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Nuclear power plants are increasing radio-activity in the environment.


(iv) Construction of dams on rivers is destroying large ecosystems which get submerged under water in
dams.
Steps to reduce energy consumption:
(i) Reduce wastage of electricity by switching off unnecessary electrical appliances.
(ii) Using fuel saving devices such as pressure cookers, etc. for cooking. Solar cookers should be used
wherever possible.
(iii) Reduce the use of petrol by walking or cycling for short distances.
(iv) Send discarded items of paper, plastic, glass and metal for recycling to respective industries.
(v) Use of bio-gas as a fuel should be encouraged in rural areas.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. Define a solar panel. 2012
Ans. (i) A large number of solar cells joined together in a definite pattern is called a solar panel.
(ii) A solar panel can provide much more electric power than a single solar cell.
Q.2. Why is the outer surface of a solar cooker blackened? Name one more such device. 2012
Ans. The outer surface of a solar cooker is blackened because the black colour is a very good absorber of heat.
So, the black surface absorbs maximum heat rays of the sun.

s
Another solar device. Solar water heater.

Da
Q.3. Mention any one reason due to which most of the thermal power plants are set up near coal or oil fields.

iv
2013

Sh
Ans. It is easier to transmit electricity over long distances than to carry coal, oil or gas over the same distance,
therefore many thermal power plants are established near coal or oil fields.
Q.4. Write the characteristic features of the micro organisms which help in the production of biogas in a
biogas plant. 2013
Ans. The production of biogas in a biogas plant is carried out by anaerobic bacteria which carry out
decomposition in the presence of water but in the absence of oxygen.
Q.5. What are hot spots inside earth’s crust? 2014
Ans. Due to geological changes, molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of earth’s crust are pushed
upward and trapped in certain regions. These are called ‘hot spots’.
Q.6. Mention the purpose of blackening the interior of a solar cooker. 2014
Ans. The black painted surface is used in the interior of a solar cooker because black surface absorbs more heat
rays of the sun.
Q.7. Define the process of nuclear fission. 2015
Ans. The splitting of nucleus of a heavy atom when bombarded with low-energy neutrons into lighter nuclei
along with the release of large amount of energy.
Q.8. Name the part of a biogas plant where reactions take place in the absence of oxygen. 2015
Ans. Digester tank

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.9. Draw schematic labelled diagram of box type solar cooker.
Name two components of solar cooker which are responsible to increase the temperature inside the
solar cooker. Explain their function. 2012
Ans. Solar cooker is a device used to trap solar energy and utilize it to cook food. It consists of a box painted
black from inside to absorb heat of the Sun (black colour is the best absorber of heat). A thick glass lid is
placed over the box to trap heat energy of the Sun. A plane mirror reflector is also attached to the box so
that a strong beam of sunlight falls over the cooker’s top.
(i) The reflector of the solar cooker sends strong beams of sunlight over the top of the cooker. Sunlight
consists of about 1/3rd of infrared rays which have a heating effect. These infrared rays are of shorter
wavelength as these are produced by a very hot source of heat.
Chapter 14: SOURCES OF ENERGY „ 249

(ii) The glass lid over the cooker allows these infrared rays of
short wavelength into the cooker but does not allow the
infrared rays which are emitted by the black surface of the
cooker to escape (due to green house effect) as these are of
longer wavelength. Thus, heat energy of the Sun gets trapped
in the black box of the solar cooker. This heat cooks the food
material kept in the black box.

Q.10. (a) List four factors that should be taken into consideration in
the choice of a good source of energy.
(b) How does burning of fossil fuel cause water pollution? 2012
Ans. (a) A good source of energy:
(i) It releases a large amount of energy per unit volume or mass.
(ii) It is easily accessible.
(iii) It is easy to store and transport.
(iv) It is quite economical to use.
(b) The burning of fossil fuels produces acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. These
acidic gases cause acid rain. The acid rain makes the water of lakes and rivers acidic. The acidic water
of the lakes and rivers becomes dangerous for aquatic life.
Q.11. (a) Name three fossil fuels.

s
(b) Write two advantages of fossil fuels.

Da
(c) Give one reason to explain the need to conserve fossil fuels. 2013

v
Ans. (a) (i) Coal (ii) Petrol and (iii) Diesel

Shi
(b) Advantages of fossil fuels:
(i) Fossil fuels are used directly in homes, transport vehicles and industry. They have a high
calorific value.
(ii) Fossil fuels are the major source of energy for generating a huge amount of electricity in power
plants.
(c) Need to conserve fossil fuels. The fossil fuels have been used at such a fast pace that only limited
reserves of these fuels are now left on earth. These fuels will soon get exhausted and since fossil fuels
were formed very slowly over the past millions of years, therefore fossil fuels need to be conserved
for the future generations.
Q.12. Ramu has a piece of agricultural land in a village. He decides to set up a brick factory on it. His friend
Shyam persuades him to change his decision in the interest of village because presence of a factory
would severely affect the health of villagers as well as agricultural produce of others. Ramu
understands and abandons his plans.
Explain how these values helped Shyam to save interests of his village? 2013
Ans. (i) The agricultural land converted into a manufacturing factory directly affects the crop production as
large amounts of fertile soil, will be converted into solid bricks.
(ii) The factory requires burning of fossil fuels which produces a large amount of carbon dioxide which
damages and pollutes the environment thereby affecting the health of the villagers.
(iii) The burning of coal in the factory leaves behind a lot of ash. It also puts tiny particles of ash (fly-ash)
into the air causing air pollution.
It is because of these important factors that Shyam is able to convince Ramu for not converting his
agricultural land into a brick manufacturing factory and thus protects the villagers and surrounding
environment.
Q.13. List any three qualities of an ideal source of energy. 2014
Ans. Qualities of an ideal source of energy:
• it should produce large amount of heat per unit volume or mass.
• it should not produce ash and harmful gases on burning.
• it should be economical and easily available.
Q.14. Nikhil and Neha went to a remote village in Kerala to meet their grandmother. They were surprised to
see a biogas plant in Mr. Nair’s house in the neighbourhood. There were plenty of livestocks and the
250 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

household used cooking gas from the plant. Also their farm had rich vegetation. They contacted the
sarpanch of the village and convinced him to set up a biogas plant for the village community. 2014
Explain the possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha to the Sarpanch to convince him to set up a
community biogas plant.
Ans. Nikhil can explain the following advantages to the sarpanch to convince him:
(i) Farmers can produce clean domestic fuel from wastes like animal dung, dry leaves, dry plants, etc.
(ii) Spent slurry can be used in the fields as manure to increase the fertility of the soil.
(iii) Biogas can be used to generate electricity which can be utilized to run modern machines used in the
fields to save time and energy of the farmer and also increase the yield of the crop.
Q.15. Write any three characteristics of a good fuel. 2014
Ans. (i) A good fuel should have a high calorific value. It means it gives more heat per unit mass.
(ii) It should burn without giving out any smoke or harmful gases. So that it does not pollute air on
burning.
(iii) The ignition temperature of an ideal fuel should neither be too low nor too high because if the ignition
temperature of the fuel is very low, then the fuel will catch fire too easily and hence it will be very
unsafe to use it. If the ignition temperature is too high, then it will be very difficult to light the fuel.
Q.16. Anita visited her village during summer vacation and saw her grandmother burning firewood to cook
food. This caused lots of smoke and resulted in the bad health of Anita’s grandmother. Anita suggested
some alternatives to her family in the village and offered to help them. Now answer the following
questions:
(i) List any two alternatives that Anita must have suggested to her grandmother.
(ii) How will Anita’s grandmother benefit herself and the community by not burning the firewood?

s
Give one reason each. 2015

Da
Ans. (i) Two alternatives suggested by Anita:

v
• Use of biogas • Use of charcoal

Shi
(ii) Disadvantages of burning firewood:
• Burning of firewood causes lots of smoke which harms the person who is cooking the food and
causes air pollution which is harmful for the environment and harms the society as a whole.
• Firewood leaves lots of ashes after burning so it pollutes the air we breathe thus making the
atmosphere unclean.
Q.17. State the principle of working of ocean thermal conversion plant. Explain how the plant works? Write
one essential condition for it to operate properly. 2015
Ans. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called Ocean Thermal Energy (OTE).
Condition for it to operate properly:
Ocean thermal energy plants can operate if the temperature difference between the water at the surface
and water at depths upto 2 km is 293 K (20ºC) or more.
Working. The devices used to harness ocean thermal energy are called ocean thermal energy conversion
power plants (or OTEC power plants). A temperature difference of 20ºC (or more) between the surface
water of ocean and deeper water is needed for operating OTEC power plants. In one type of OTEC power
plant, the warm surface water of ocean is used to boil a volatile liquid like ammonia or a CFC. The high
pressure vapours of the liquid are then used to turn the turbine of a generator and produce electricity. The
colder water from the deeper ocean is pumped up to cool the used up vapours and convert them again
into a liquid. This process is repeated again and again.
Q.18. (a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your Science teacher wants you to pre-
pare a plan for a formative assessment activity, “How to save water, the vital natural resource”.
Write any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood, on ‘how to
save water’. 2017OD
(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further.
Ans. (a) Ways to bring about awareness on ‘how to save’ water:
(i) We can conduct door to door campaign to make people aware about the acute shortage/scarcity
of water during summer.
(ii) We can educate people on ways to save water, for example, close taps properly, use buckets of
water to bathe instead of showers etc.
Chapter 14: SOURCES OF ENERGY „ 251

(iii) I can also suggest them how to store rainwater in the small park of our locality, so that it can be
used during hot summer days, when availability of water is very less.
(b) We can prevent the level of underground water table to not go down further by harvesting the rain-
water in the underground tanks in parks and cropfields.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.19. (a) Explain geothermal energy. How can it be harnessed to produce electrical energy?
(b) What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy? What steps would
you suggest to reduce energy consumption? 2012
Ans. (a) Heat energy from molten rocks present inside the earth created under certain favourable conditions
by natural processes is called geothermal energy.
• The deeper hot regions of earth’s crust are pushed upward and trapped in certain regions called
‘hot spots’.
• When underground water comes in contact with the hot spot, steam is generated.
• The steam trapped in rocks is routed through a pipe to a turbine and used to generate electricity.
The cost of production would not be much but availability of such sites is very few.
(b) Environmental consequences of increasing demand for energy:
• Burning of fossil fuels produces acid rain which damages plants, soil and aquatic life.
• Fire wood causes soil erosion, destroys wild life and disturbs balance in nature.
• Nuclear power plants are increasing radioactivity in the environment.
• Construction of dams on rivers is destroying large ecosystems which get submerged under

s
water in dams.

Da
(ii) Steps to reduce energy consumption:

iv
• Switching off electrical appliances when these are not in use.

Sh
• Using fuel saving devices such as pressure cooker, solar cooker, CFLs etc.
• Reduce the use of petrol by walking or cycling for short distances.
• Sending discarded items of paper, plastic, glass and metals for recycling to respective industries.
• Use of biogas as a fuel should be encouraged in rural areas.
Q.20. (a) Explain what is geothermal energy?
(b) Write its one advantage and one limitation.
(c) Define (OTE).
(d) Write one advantage of nuclear fission reaction. 2012
Ans. (a) The heat energy from hot rocks present inside the earth is called geothermal energy. This heat can be
used as a source of energy to produce electricity. Geothermal energy is one of the few sources of
energy that does not come directly or indirectly from solar energy. At some places in the world, the
rocks at some depth below the surface of the earth are very-very hot. This heat comes from the fission
of radioactive materials which are naturally present in these rocks. Such places are called ‘hot spots’.
These hot rocks heat the underground water and turn it into steam.
(b) Advantage. One advantage of using geothermal energy is that it does not cause any pollution so it is
a clean and environment friendly source of energy.
Limitation. One disadvantage of geothermal energy is that it is not available everywhere. There are
very limited number of places where geothermal energy can be harnessed on a commercial scale.
(c) The energy available due to difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called Ocean Thermal Energy (OTE).
Ocean Thermal plants can operate if the temperature difference between the water at the surface and
water at depth up to 2 km is 293 k (20ºC) or more.
(d) Enormous amount of energy can be produced from nuclear fission which can be used to run turbines
for the production of electricity.
Q.21. (i) Recently when Government decided to set up a nuclear power plant in an area, NGOs and local
people raised their voice against it. They demanded that the Government should assure safety
measures before setting up such a plant and Government assured them of it.
List any two concerns of the people for which they were demanding safety measures.
(ii) Determine the value of Atomic mass unit in terms of energy. 2013
252 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (i) Two concerns of the people for which they were demanding safety measures:
(a) The major hazard of nuclear power plant is the storage and disposal of spent or used nuclear fuel.
These wastes are radioactive in nature and emit harmful nuclear radiations. Improper storage or
disposal of nuclear waste can pollute the environment.
(b) There is the risk of accidents in nuclear reactors. Such accidents lead to the leakage of radioactive
materials, that can cause serious damage to plants, animals, human beings and the environment.
(ii) According to Einstein’s equation,
E = mc2
m = 1u (atomic mass unit) = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
c = 2.998 × 108 m/s
\ E = 1.66 × 10–27 × (2.998 × 108)2 Joules fi E = 1.492 × 10–10 J
–13
∵ 1.602 × 10 J = 1 MeV fi 1.492 × 10–10 J = 931 MeV
\ 1u = 931 Me V
Q.22. (a) Explain how geothermal energy is harnessed to produce electricity? 2013, 2015
(b) Why is energy of flowing water in a river considered to be an indirect form of solar energy?
Ans. (a) At some places in the world, the rocks at some depth below the surface of the earth are very-very hot.
This heat comes from the fission of radioactive materials which are naturally present in these rocks.
The places where very hot rocks occur at some depth below the surface of the earth are called ‘hot
spots’.
The extremely hot rocks present below the surface of the earth heat the underground water and turn
it into steam. As more and more steam is formed between the rocks it gets compressed to high
pressures. A hole is drilled into the earth up to the hot rocks and a pipe is put into it. The steam

as
present around the hot rocks comes up through the pipe at high pressure. This high pressure steam

D
turns the turbine of a generator to produce electricity.

iv
(b) Solar energy evaporates the water from water bodies. These water vapours have potential energy in

Sh
the form of clouds which is obtained from solar energy during evaporation. When clouds fall as rain
and snow, potential energy changes into kinetic energy. Some of this rain water flows into the rivers.
Thus kinetic energy of river water can be considered as an indirect form of solar energy.
Q.23. Give the construction, working, advantages and disadvantages of a solar cooker. 2017D
Ans. Solar Cooker is a device used to trap solar energy and utilize it to
cook food. It consists of a box painted black from inside to absorb
heat of the Sun (black colour is the best absorber of heat). A thick
glass lid is placed over the box to trap heat energy of the Sun. A plane
mirror reflector is also attached to the box so that a strong beam of
sunlight falls over the cooker’s top.
The reflector of the solar cooker sends strong beams of sunlight over
the top of the cooker. Sunlight consists of about 1/3rd of infra-red
rays which have a heating effect. These infra-red rays are of shorter
wavelength as these are produced by a very hot source of heat. The
glass lid over the cooker allows these infra-red rays of short
wavelength into the cooker but does not allow the infra-red rays
which are emitted by the black surface of the cooker to escape as these are of longer wavelength. Thus,
heat energy of the Sun gets trapped in the black box of the solar cooker. This heat cooks the food material
kept in the black box.
Advantages of solar cooker:
(i) It is used to cook food and saves precious fossil fuel.
(ii) It does not cause any pollution.
(iii) No smoke is produced during the working of a solar cooker.
(iv) Nutrients of food material, which is to be cooked in the solar cooker, do not get destroyed.
(v) Four food items can be cooked at the same time.
Disadvantages of solar cooker:
(i) It cannot be used to cook food during the night.
(ii) It cannot be used to cook food on a cloudy day.
Chapter 14: SOURCES OF ENERGY „ 253

(iii) The direction of the reflector has to be changed after a small interval of time with the change of
position of the Sun.
Q.24. (a) Explain solar cell panel.
(b) Give the principle of working of a windmill. 2017OD
Ans. (a) A solar cell is a device which converts solar energy directly into electricity. A group of solar cells is
called a solar cell panel. It consists of a large number of solar cells joined together in a definite pattern.
It provides a lot of electric energy required by artificial satellites, water pumps, street lighting, etc.
For joining the various solar cells in a solar panel, silver wires are used because silver (metal) is the
best conductor of electricity having a very low resistance, which also increases the efficiency.

(b) When the blowing wind strikes the blades of a windmill, it exerts a force on them. As a result of this

as
force, the blades of the windmill start rotating. The rotation of the blades of the windmill causes to

D
and fro (or up and down) motion in the crank (or connecting rod). This rotary motion is used to turn

iv
the turbines of electric generators to produce electricity and also to drive a large number of machines

Sh
like water pumps and flour mills.
A large number of windmills erected over a large area are known as a wind energy farm.

####
CHAPTER 15
OUR ENVIRONMENT
Î IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
☞ Environment. The combination of all the physical and biological conditions affecting the responses of
living organisms is called environment.
☞ Biodegradable wastes. The wastes which are broken down by the activity of micro-organisms and enter
into the biogeochemical cycle are known as biodegradable wastes.
☞ Non-biodegradable wastes. The wastes which cannot be broken down by the enzymes produced by
microorganisms into simpler and harmless products in nature are called non-biodegradable wastes.
☞ Garbage. Domestic wastes including the kitchen waste are termed as garbage.
☞ Incineration. Destruction of waste materials by burning at high temperature is called incineration.
☞ Biotic Community. A group of various populations of organisms living in a region is called biotic community.
☞ Ecosystems. The self-contained and distinct functional unit capable of independent existence made by
the interaction of living and non-living components is called an ecosystem.
☞ Ecosystem consists of two components—Abiotic and Biotic
• Abiotic Components consist of inorganic and organic substances and climatic factors.
• Biotic Components consist of living organisms.
☞ Autotrophs. Those organisms which can produce their own food are called autotrophs or producers. All
green plants are producers.
☞ Consumers. Those organisms which are unable to synthesise their food themselves and consume the
food produced by producers or eat other organisms as food, are known as consumers.
☞ Decomposers. Bacteria and fungi which break down the complex organic compounds present in the
dead plants and animals and their products into simpler substances are known as decomposers.
☞ Food Chain. A series of organisms in a community in which one organism consumes another organism
to transfer food energy is called a food chain.
Characteristics:
(i) A food chain helps in understanding the food relationship and interactions among various
organisms in an ecosystem.
(ii) There is a progressive decline in the amount of energy available as we move from one trophic level
to another in a food chain.
☞ Trophic levels. Each step of the food chain is known as a trophic level. 10% of food taken by one trophic
level is available for the next trophic level.
☞ Food Web. The web formed by interconnection of food-chains of the various trophic levels is called a
food web.
☞ Biomagnification. The increase in concentration of the harmful chemicals in the body of an organism
per unit its mass at each successive trophic level in a food-chain is known as biomagnification.
☞ Ozone Depletion. The thinning of ozone layer is called ozone depletion.
☞ Ozone depleting substances. Cholorofluorocarbons (CFCs), oxides of nitrogen, methane, carbon
tetrachloride and chlorine are the ozone depleting substances.

254 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapter 15: OUR ENVIRONMENT „ 255

☞ Four practices which can help in the protection of our environment:


(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste material.
(ii) Use of unleaded petrol and alternate sources of energy to run vehicles, and keeping the engine properly
tuned and serviced and the tyres inflated to the right pressure, so that the vehicle runs efficiently.
(iii) The use of gunny bags and paper bags in place of polythene/plastic bags.
(iv) Activities such as gardening, rain-water harvesting and use of compost in place of fertilizers will
help protect our environment from further damage.
☞ Harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment:
(i) Excessive use of fertilisers changes the chemistry of soil and kills useful microbes.
(ii) Excessive use of non-biodegradable chemical pesticides leads to biological magnification.
(iii) Extensive cropping causes loss of soil fertility.
(iv) Excess use of ground water for agriculture lowers the water table.
(v) Agricultural practices lead to some amount of damage to natural ecosystem/habitat.

N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items?
(a) Grass, flowers and leather (b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice (d) Cake, wood and grass

as
Ans. (a) Grass, flowers and leather

D
Q.2. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?

iv
(a) Grass, wheat and mango (b) Grass, goat and human

Sh
(c) Goat, cow and elephant (d) Grass, fish and goat
Ans. (c) Grass, goat and human
Q.3. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?
(a) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while shopping
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Q.4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Ans. If all the organisms of one trophic level are killed, it would create some imbalance in the ecosystem.
For example, If herbivores are killed, then there would be no food for the carnivores and they would die.
Also there would be overpopulation of organisms belonging to the previous trophic level, i.e., grasses and
green plants. Hence, it would bring about ecological imbalance.
Q.5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for different trophic
levels? Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem?
Ans. Removal of all the organisms in a trophic level will result in no food for the next trophic level thereby
leading to starvation and death of organisms in the next trophic level. Also it would lead to
overpopulation in the previous trophic level.
If all producers are killed, there will be no food available for the herbivores. If herbivores are killed,
carnivores would not get food to survive. Since all organisms in an ecosystem are interdependent for food,
removal of any one trophic level will lead to an imbalance.
Q.6. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of
the ecosystem?
Ans. Some harmful chemicals like pesticides, when absorbed by the plants through soil and water, get
transferred from first trophic to the last trophic level of the food chain. As these chemicals are non-
degradable, their concentration in the bodies of living organisms at each trophic level progressively
increases. This increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals in the body of living organisms at each
trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification. The level of concentration of chemicals is
maximum for human beings as they are at the highest trophic level.
256 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.7. What are the problems caused by non-biodegradable wastes that we generate?
Ans. Non-biodegradable substances affect the environment in the following ways:
(i) Since the non-biodegradable substances cannot be broken down, they get accumulated and thus
contaminate the soil and water resources.
(ii) These substances, when accidentally eaten by some stray animal, cause harm to them and can even
cause their death.
(iii) These susbtances occupy more space in the landfills and require special disposal techniques.
(iv) These materials can accumulate in the environment and can also enter the food chain thereby
harming animals and human beings.
(v) Pesticides and other toxic chemicals pollute underground water, surface water and the soil.
Q.8. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the environment?
Ans. No, if all the waste we generate is biodegradable, it will still have an impact on the environment. These
substances are decomposed by the action of micro-organisms and their decomposition causes a foul smell.
During the process of decaying of biodegradable substances, various types of gases are released which
cause air pollution. However biodegradable wastes cause harmful effects which last only for a short period
of time.
Q.9. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
Ans. Ozone depletion occurs widely in the stratosphere. However, it is more prominent over the Antarctic
region and is known as the ozone hole. The ozone layer is responsible for protecting the earth from high
energy ultra violet (UV) radiations. The harmful UV rays cause skin darkening, skin cancer, ageing, and
corneal cataracts in human beings. Ozone depletion can result in the death of many phytoplankton that
leads to increased global warming.

s
Steps to limit the damage:

Da
(i) The release of CFCs (Chloro-fluoro carbons) into the atmosphere must be reduced. CFCs used as

v
refrigerants and in fire extinguishers, deodorants, etc. should be replaced with environmentally safe

Shi
alternatives. Also, the release of CFCs through industrial activities should be controlled.
(ii) To limit the damage to the ozone layer, UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme) has
succeeded in signing an agreement with different developed and developing nations to freeze
production of CFCs and their use at 1986 levels.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark
Q.1. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level? 2011D
Ans. It will disturb the food chains and food web, which in turn will decrease the chances of food availability to
the succeeding trophic levels and will result in instability of the ecosystem.
Q.2. Which compounds are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer? 2011D
Ans. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the chemicals which are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.
Q.3. Define, ‘trophic level’. 2011D
Ans. The various steps in a food chain at which the transfer of food (or energy) takes place are called trophic
levels. In a food chain, each step representing an organism forms a trophic level.
Q.4. What are the various steps in a food chain called? 2011D
Ans. The various steps of a food chain are called trophic levels. These steps are:
(i) First trophic level consists of producers.
(ii) Second trophic level consists of primary consumers or herbivores.
(iii) Third trophic level consists of secondary consumers or carnivores.
(iv) Fourth trophic level consists of tertiary consumers or top carnivores.
Q.5. What is the important function of presence of ozone in earth’s atmosphere? 2011D
Ans. Ozone layer absorbs the harmful UV radiations of the sunlight, so this layer is very important for the
survival and existence of life on earth.
Q.6. What is meant by biological magnification? 2011OD
Chapter 15: OUR ENVIRONMENT „ 257

Ans. Some harmful chemicals like pesticides, when absorbed by the plants through soil and water, get
transferred from first trophic to the last trophic level of the food chain. As these chemicals are non-
degradable, their concentration in the bodies of living organisms at each trophic level progressively
increases. This increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals in the body of living organisms at the
each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification.
Q.7. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment? 2011OD
Ans. Human beings are an important part of the environment. But human activities change the environment
and the changes in the environment affect life on earth.
For example: An environmental problem caused by human activities is depletion of ozone layer. If the
ozone layer in the atmosphere disappears completely, then all the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations
coming from the Sun would reach the earth and would cause skin cancer and other ailments. Therefore it
is necessary to conserve our environment.
Q.8. Distinguish between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. 2011OD
Ans. Difference between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
Biodegradable waste Non-biodegradable waste
(i) Wastes which can be broken down into non- (i) Wastes which cannot be broken down into
poisonous substances in nature in due course non-poisonous substances in nature are called
of time by the action of micro-organisms are non-biodegradable wastes.
called bio-degradable wastes.
(ii) Sewage, peals of fruits and vegetables, etc. (ii) Plastic, glass, etc.
Q.9. Name two decomposers operating in our environment. 2011OD

as
Ans. Bacteria and fungi are the two decomposers operating in our environment.

D
Q.10. What is meant by a biodegradable waste? 2011OD

iv
Ans. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous substances in nature in due course of

Sh
time by the action of micro-organisms like certain bacteria and fungi are called biodegradable waste.
For example, peels of fruits and vegetables, cattle dung etc.
Q.11. Which class of chemicals is linked to the decrease in the amount of ozone in the upper atmosphere of
the earth? 2011D
Ans. The depletion of ozone layer is due to the use of chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons.
Q.12. Depletion of ozone in the ozone layer is a cause for our worry. Why? 2012D; 2016OD
Ans. Depletion of ozone in the ozone layer is a cause for our worry because if the ozone layer in the atmosphere
disappears completely, then all the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun would
reach the earth. These ultraviolet radiations would cause skin cancer and other ailments in men and
animals, and also damage the plants.
Q.13. What happens when higher energy ultraviolet radiations act on the oxygen at the higher level of the
atmosphere? 2012OD
Sol. The high energy ultraviolet radiation (UV radiation) coming from the Sun splits oxygen gas into free
oxygen atoms
UV radiation
O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(from Sun)
→ O + O
Oxygen atom Oxygen atom
The free oxygen atoms thus produced react with an oxygen molecule to form ozone molecule
O2 + O ⎯⎯→ O3
Oxygen molecule Oxygen atom Ozone molecule
Q.14. State one harmful effect of depletion of ozone layer on the living organisms of the ecosystem. 2012OD
Ans. If the ozone layer in the atmosphere depletes then the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations coming
from the Sun would reach the earth. These uv-radiations would cause skin cancer and other ailments in
men, animals and plants.
Q.15. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
2013, 2015D
Ans. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be discarded in two separate dust- bins because
biodegradable waste is decomposed by the micro-organisms to form simple harmless substances which
can be used as manures for the plants (e.g., in the potted plants in our garden/terrace garden). Non-
biodegradable waste cannot be broken down naturally.
258 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.16. Mention one negative effect of our affluent life style on the environment. 2013D
Ans. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the chemicals which are used in refrigerators and air conditioners as
coolant when released into the air react with ozone gas present in the ozone layer and destroy it gradually.
If the ozone layer in the atmosphere disappears completely, then all the extremely harmful ultraviolet
radiations coming from the Sun would reach the earth and cause skin cancer and other ailments in
humans, animals and plants.
Q.17. What is the function of ozone in the upper atmosphere? 2015D
Ans. Ozone layer is very important for the existence of life on earth. The function of the ozone layer in the upper
atmosphere is to absorb most of the harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun and prevent them
from reaching the earth’s surface.
Q.18. What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if
the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules? 2015OD
Ans. According to 10% law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for
transfer to the next higher trophic level.
Energy available to 1st Trophic level = 10,000J
1% of this energy = 100J
So, First Trophic level has energy = 100J
Energy to 2nd Trophic level = 10% of 100J = 10 Joules
Q.19. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why? 2015OD
Ans. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant because green plants have a mechanism for
trapping solar energy with the help of their green pigment called chlorophyll and convert it into chemical
energy which is stored as carbohydrates in the plant for the use of the next tropic level.

s
Q.20. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains? 2016OD

Da
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores

iv
Ans. Herbivores are always at the second trophic level of food chains.

Sh
Q.21. List two natural ecosystems. 2016D
Ans. Two natural ecosystems are: Lake and River.
Q.22. Why are green plants called producers? 2016D
Ans. Green plants are called producers because green plants synthesize their own food during photosynthesis
by taking raw materials from the earth and energy from the Sun.
Q.23. Write one negative effect, on the environment, of affluent life style of few persons of a society.
2014, 2016OD
Ans. • Excessive use of air conditioners which is a part of affluent lifestyle emits a lot of heat in the atmosphere.
• Excessive use of packaging materials which are mostly made up of non-biodegradable material are
not environment friendly.
• Excessive use of petrol in vehicles also causes pollution.
Thus, affluent lifestyle results in the generation of excessive waste materials.
Q.24. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level of frog. 2016OD
Ans. Food chain. Grass Æ insect Æ frog Æ snake \ Frog belongs to 3rd trophic level.
Q.25. What is an ecosystem? 2017D
Ans. Ecosystem is a unit of biosphere where interaction between biotic community and abiotic factors of an area
or place takes place with each other.
Q.26. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to
the producer?
Plants ææÆ Deer ææÆ Lion 2017OD
Ans. 10,00,000 Joules.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.27. What makes the earth’s atmosphere a heterogeneous mixture? 2012D
Ans. Density of various components of the atmosphere is different. Therefore the earth’s atmosphere is a
heterogeneous mixture, for example, the heavier gases like CO2, O2 and N2 of the atmosphere occupy the
lower level (i.e., near the earth’s surface) of the atmosphere whereas lighter gases like O3 occupy the higher
level of the atmosphere.
So the components of atmosphere are not equally distributed.
Chapter 15: OUR ENVIRONMENT „ 259

Q.28. List any four disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy. 2011OD
Ans. Disadvantages of fossil fuels:
(i) Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy.
(ii) The burning of fossil fuels produces acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. These
acidic gases cause acid rain.
(iii) The burning of fossil fuels produces smoke which pollutes the air.
(iv) The burning of fossil fuels, especially coal, leaves behind a lot of ash.
Q.29. In a food chain, if 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer, how much energy will be
available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer? 2012OD
Sol. Producer. Energy available = 10,000 J
[\ Plants are able to synthesize only 1% of total energy available to them
1
\ Energy produced by producer = 1% of 10,000 = × 10,000 = 100 J
100
Primary consumer. Energy available = 100 J
10
\ Energy transfer from producer to primary consumer = 10% of 100 J = × 100 = 10 J
100
Secondary consumer. Energy available = 10 J
10
\ Energy transfer from primary consumer to secondary consumer = 10% of 10 J = × 10 = 1 J
100
Tertiary consumer. Energy available = 1 J
10
\ Energy transfer from secondary consumer to tertiary consumer = 10% of 1 J = × 1 = 0.1 J
100

s
1% 10%
Primary 10% Secondary 10%

a
10,000 J Producer Tertiary

D
(100 J) consumer consumer consumer

v
(10 J) (1 J) (0.1 J)

Shi
Q.30. Write the harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to plastic bags.
2013OD
Ans. Harmful effects of using plastic bags:
(i) Plastic is non-biodegradable so it will remain as such and pollute the environment.
(ii) Burning of plastic bags produces toxic gases.
(iii) Plastic bags can block the drainage system.
(iv) Discarded plastic bags when eaten by cows and other stray animals can block their alimentary canal
and cause harm to them.
(v) Plastic bags when thrown in the water bodies, can cause water pollution as these do not decompose.
Cloth bags and bags made from recycled paper should be used in place of plastic bags.
Q.31. Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to
these bags and explain how this ban is likely to improve the environment. 2014D
Ans. Plastic bags are non-biodegradable which can not be broken down into non-poisonous substances in
nature. Plastic bags are the main cause of sewer blockages as plastic bags are not decomposed by micro-
organisms. Plastic bags if eaten by stray animals (like cows) can block their alimentary canal.
Two alternatives:
(i) We should take our own jute or cloth bags while going for purchasing articles from the market.
(ii) Disposable paper cups should be used for serving tea in trains instead of plastic cups.
(iii) Shopkeepers can use paper bags instead of plastic bags.
Q.32. List two environment friendly practices or habits which need to be followed by every member of a
family/community. Explain how these practices will support the “Save the Environment” mission.
2014D
Ans. Two environment friendly practices to help save the environment are:
(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste material.
(ii) Use of unleaded petrol and alternate sources of energy, keeping the car engines properly tuned and
serviced and tyres inflated to the right pressure, so that the vehicle runs smoothly.
Q.33. What are decomposers? List two important roles they play in the environment. 2014OD
Ans. (i) Decomposers are microorganisms that break down complex organic substances (dead remains and
waste products of organisms) into simpler inorganic substances that go into the soil and are used up
once more by the plants.
260 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) Decomposers play an important role in the cycling of materials in the biosphere.
(iii) By decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals they help in cleansing the environment. Example,
Bacteria and fungi are examples of decomposers.
Q.34. List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem. 2014OD
Ans. Role of decomposers:
(i) Decomposers naturally replenish the nutrients in the soil, air and water.
(ii) Decomposers help in keeping the environment clean. They play an important role in the cycling of
materials in the biosphere.
Q.35. State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers from the Earth.
2014OD
Ans. If there were no decomposers, then the dead bodies of plants and animals would keep lying as such and
the elements of which plant and animals bodies are made, would never be returned to their original pools
like soil, air and water. In that case, the cycling process of life and death would be disrupted. All the
nutrients present in soil, air and water would soon be exhausted and evolution of life would come to an end.
Q.36. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the bylanes of our homes. List four ways to make the
residents aware that the improper disposal of wastes is harmful to the environment and also for their
own health. 2013D, 2015OD
Ans. The various ways to make residents aware of the harmful effects of improper disposal of wastes are as
follows:
(i) By putting posters and hoardings.
(ii) By distributing pamphlets to the residents.
(iii) By conducting meetings of residents, welfare society, etc.

s
(iv) By advertisements through TV/radio/cable operators, etc.

Da
(v) There should be a strict fine imposed by the sanitary officer from the families which throw their

v
domestic wastes on the roads.

Shi
Through all these mediums we can make the residents aware of how such waste serves as a breeding
ground for mosquitoes, releases harmful gases, reduces soil fertility, etc.

Short Answer Questions (SA-II) 3 Marks


Q.37. (a) List any two characteristics of a good fuel.
(b) What are non-renewable resources of energy? Give two examples of such resources. 2011D
Ans. (a) Characteristics of a good fuel:
(i) It should have a high calorific value.
(ii) It should burn without giving out any smoke or harmful gases.
(iii) Its ignition temperature should neither be too low nor too high.
(iv) After burning it should not leave much ash behind. (any two)
(b) Those sources of energy which have accumulated in nature over a very-very long time and cannot be
quickly replaced when exhausted, are called non-renewable sources of energy.
Example: Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) and nuclear fuels (uranium) are non-renewable
sources of energy.
Q.38. (a) List any two disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy.
(b) Give two examples each of the following:
(i) Renewable sources of energy; (ii) Non-renewable sources of energy. 2011OD
Ans. (a) Disadvantages of using fossil fuels are:
(i) Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy.
(ii) Elements like carbon, nitrogen and sulphur are present in fossil fuels. When fossil fuels are
burnt, these elements react with oxygen of air to produce oxides which are acidic in nature. This
leads to acid rain which adversely affects the quality of water and soil.
(iii) CO2 is a gas which produces green house effect. This leads to global warming.
(iv) CO produced is a toxic gas that causes respiratory problems.
(b) (i) Examples of renewable sources of energy:
1. Solar energy 2. Tidal energy 3. Hydel power (any two)
(ii) Examples of non-renewable sources of energy:
1. Diesel 2. Petrol 3. CNG (any two)
Chapter 15: OUR ENVIRONMENT „ 261

Q.39. Subhash has started the project of constructing his building. His architect suggested that he should add
a system of rain water harvesting in his building. He thought by adopting water harvesting in his
project he can solve his water crisis problem in the years to come.
Is Subhash correct in his approach? Support your answer. 2012D
Ans. Rain water collected on the roof is not allowed to go into the drain. It is allowed to percolate under the ground
by a specially made passage so as to recharge the ground-water. This process is called rain water harvesting.
Advantages of rain water harvesting:
• Rain water stored as underground water does not evaporate.
• The water stored in ground does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.
• It is protected from contamination by human and animal waste.
• This water recharges wells.
Q.40. List three problems which arise due to construction of big dams. Suggest a solution for these problems.
2011OD, 2012OD
Ans. Three problems that arise due to construction of big dams:
(i) Social problems. Due to the construction of high rise dams, a large number of human settlements are
submerged in the water of large reservoir formed by the dam and many people are rendered homeless.
(ii) Environmental problems. The construction of high-rise dams leads to deforestation and loss of bio-
diversity as vast variety of flora and fauna get submerged in the water of large reservoir formed by
the dam and disturbs ecological balance.
(iii) Economic problems. Some people believe that the construction of high-rise dams involves the
spending of huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits.
Suggestions for these problems. All the people who are displaced from the dam site should be given

s
adequate compensation by the Government for rehabilitation so as to start their life afresh.

Da
Q.41. List the products of combustion of fossil fuels. What are their adverse effects on the environment?

v
2012OD

Shi
Ans. When fossil fuels are burnt, the products of combustion are—carbon dioxide, water, sulphur dioxide and
nitrogen oxides. If combustion takes place in an insufficient supply of air then carbon monoxide is
produced. All these products are harmful and create some adverse effects on the environment.
(i) Sulphur dioxide dissolves in rainwater making it acidic. The acid rain thus produced damages trees,
plants, buildings and metal structures.
(ii) Nitrogen oxide also causes acid rain.
(iii) Carbon monoxide is a green house gas which traps Sun’s heat energy falling on the earth. The increased
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes increased green house effects leading to global warming.
Q.42. (a) What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. 2013D, 2015OD
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
Ans. (a) An ecosystem is a self-contained unit of living things (plants, animals and decomposers) and their
non-living environment (soil, air and water). An ecosystem needs only the input of sunlight energy
for its functioning.
The two main components of an ecosystem are:
• Abiotic component. It includes all non-living components like soil, water, air temperature, light,
pressure, etc.
• Biotic component. It includes all living components like plants, animals, decomposers, etc.
(b) A pond is a self sufficient or independent unit in nature. It contains all the components of the
ecosystem. In this ecosystem, producers (hydrophytes) trap the solar energy and then provide the
basic food or energy for all other life in the pond. When the producers and consumers die, the
decomposers present in the pond act on their dead bodies to return the various elements back to the
nutrient pool.
On the other hand, in an aquarium there are not any producers and nutrient pool to trap solar energy,
therefore the fishes living in an aquarium need to be nourished. Moreover due to absence of
decomposers the excreta of the fishes cannot be decomposed. Therefore the aquarium needs to be
cleaned regularly.
Q.43. State in brief two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the environment. List two
methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable waste. 2013OD
Ans. Non-biodegradable wastes cannot be decomposed into simpler harmless substances by the action of micro-
organisms. These substances persist in the environment and cause adverse effects on the environment.
262 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(i) The use of pesticides, insecticides has increased agricultural output but the chemicals present in them
enter water and food chains. This affects the fertility of the soil and causes water and soil pollution.
(ii) Plastic bags have changed the modern lifestyle but cause severe problems. They cause blockages in
the drainage systems and these plastic bags when eaten by stray animals cause harm to them.
Methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable waste. (i) Molten plastic waste mixed with asphalt can
be used for making roads. (ii) Solid wastes should be buried in the urban areas as land fills.
Q.44. “Our foodgrains such as wheat and rice, the vegetables and fruits and even meat are found to contain
varying amounts of pesticide residues.” State the reason to explain how and why it happens? 2014D
Ans. Pesticides are poisonous chemical substances which are sprayed over crop plants to protect them from
pests and diseases. These pesticides mix up with soil and water and are then absorbed by growing plants
along with water and other minerals. Thus pesticides enter the food chain at the producer level (plant
level) and in the process of transfer of food through food chains these harmful chemicals get concentrated
at each trophic level. These chemicals are non-biodegradable, so they get accumulated at each trophic
level. Pesticides present in wheat grains, fruits vegetables and meat cannot always be removed by
washing, etc.
Q.45. “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional .” Justify this statement. Explain how the pesticides enter
a food chain and subsequently get into our body. 2014OD
Ans. “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional.” In the ecosystem energy flows from one trophic level to
the next trophic level of the food chain. Energy flows from producers i.e., green plants to the consumers. It
does not flow from the last consumer to its previous consumer and so on. Thus the energy does not flow
back from consumers to the producers. So we say that flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Entry of pesticides in a food chain. Some harmful chemicals like pesticides, when absorbed by the plants

s
through soil and water, get transferred from first trophic to the last trophic level of the food chain. As these

Da
chemicals are non-degradable, their concentration in the bodies of living organisms at each trophic level

v
progressively increases. Their increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals in the body of living

Shi
organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification. The level of
concentration of chemicals is maximum for human beings as they are at the highest trophic level.
Q.46. After the examinations Rakesh with his friends went on a picnic to a nearby park. All friends carried
cooked food packed in plastic bags or plastic cans. After eating the food some friends collected the
leftover food and plastic bags etc. and planned to dispose them off by burning. Rakesh immediately
checked them and suggested to segregate the leftover food and peels of fruits from the plastic materials
& respectively dispose them off separately in the green and red dustbins placed in the corner of the park.
In your opinion, is burning plastic an eco-friendly method of waste disposal? Why? State the advantage
of the method suggested by Rakesh. 2015D
Ans. Burning of plastic is not an eco-friendly method of waste disposal because it produces toxic gases which
cause too much air pollution. It has an adverse effect on the health of all types of living organisms
including human beings. The method of waste disposal used by Rakesh is advantageous as the leftover
food and peels of fruits are biodegradable and can be used as manure. The plastic bags and cans should be
disposed off in red dustbins from where they can be sent for recycling, thereby keeping the environment
clean.
Q.47. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example
each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable waste, for saving
the environment. 2015OD
Ans. Difference between biodegradable substances and non-biodegradable substances. Refer to Q.8
Habits for disposing non-biodegradable waste:
(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes in
separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.
(ii) Encourage the use of gunny bags, jute bags and paper bags in place of polythene/plastic bags.
(iii) Recycle the plastic and glass objects after use.
Q.48. Give reason to justify the following: 2016D
(a) The existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere.
(b) Flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
Ans. (a) Decomposers break down complex organic substances (dead remains and waste products of
organisms) into simpler inorganic substances that can be absorbed by the plants. They are essential
for the proper functioning of an ecosystem.
Chapter 15: OUR ENVIRONMENT „ 263

• Decomposers play an important role in the cycling of materials in the biosphere.


• By decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals they help in cleaning the environment.
• They replenish the soil naturally.
(b) In the ecosystem energy flows from one trophic level to the next trophic level of the food chain.
Energy flows from producers, i.e., green plants to the consumers. It does not flow from the last
consumers to its previous consumers and so on. The energy captured by the autotrophs does not go
back to the solar input. Thus the energy does not flow back from consumers to the producers. Hence
the flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
Q.49. The activities of man had adverse effects on all forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited
exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and non-
living components of the biosphere. The unfavourable conditions created by man himself threatened
the survival not only of himself but also the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your
classmates is an active member of ‘Eco-club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness
amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing
environmental degradation of the surroundings.
(a) Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
(b) State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the household waste.
2016OD
Ans. (a) It is necessary to conserve our environment because of the following reasons:
(i) To save natural resources like air, water and soil from pollution which are essential for our survival.
(ii) To maintain ecological balance in nature.
(iii) The environment provides us fresh air to breathe, a number of useful products such as wood,

s
paper, medicines, etc. The ozone layer of the environment also protects us from harmful

Da
ultraviolet radiations from the sun.

v
(b) Green dustbins are used for biodegradable wastes and blue dustbins are used for non-biodegradable

Shi
wastes.
Importance of two types of dustbins:
(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes in
separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.
(ii) Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes occur without wasting time and
energy.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks


Q.50. A team of Indian researchers went to Antarctica to study the ozone layer. They confirmed the presence
of largest ozone hole over Antarctica and was just short of 27 million sq. km. After few days of their
return, one of the scientists developed rashes, burning sensation and other skin problems which the
doctors have confirmed as skin cancer.
(a) What may be the cause of cancer just after return from Antarctica?
(b) What do we learn from this incident? 2011OD
Ans. (a) The scientists were exposed to harmful UV-radiations of the sunlight as there was a big hole over
Antarctica and this might be the cause of skin cancer. The ozone layer acts as an ozone shield and
absorbs the harmful UV-radiations. The UV-radiations have extremely harmful effects on human
beings, animals as well as plants.
(b) We learn that the ozone layer is very important for the existence and survival of life on earth. Ozone
layer absorbs high energy UV-radiations causing a rise in temperature of the stratosphere. The use of
chemicals like CFCs has endangered the ozone layer. CFCs used as refrigerator coolants rise to the
stratosphere where these molecules are broken down by UV-rays resulting in attack on the ozone
molecules damaging the ozone umbrella of earth. Due to ozone layer depletion UV-rays reaching the
earth cause skin cancer, cataracts, damage immune system, etc. UV-rays also decreases crop yield and
certain fish larvae which are important constituents of aquatic food chains. It may also disturb global
rainfall causing ecological disturbance. In this way all on the earth would be destroyed gradually.

####
CHAPTER 16
MANAGEMENT OF
NATURAL RESOURCES
Î
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS
n l y
☞ Management of natural resources is needed for conservation of natural resources.
e
— There are national and international laws and Acts to protect the environment.n to
sm
— Ganga Action Plan. On 14th January, 1986, the former Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi

s
launched the Ganga Action Plan in order to reduce the pollution of the River Ganga.

s e
— National Award for wildlife conservation – In the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi who lost her life

s
in the protection of Khejri trees in Rajasthan alongwith 363 other people.

l A
Chipko Movement. Chipko Movement is an example of contribution of common people towards the
a
er n
conservation of forests. The Chipko Movement also called ‘Hug the tree’ movement originated from an
incident in a remote village called ‘Reni’ in Garhwal (Himalayas), where the people of this village clasped

in Int
the tree trunks with their arms to protect them from being cut down by a contractor’s workers. The people
acted this way because they knew that this mass deforestation would spoil their healthy environment. The
forest trees were thus saved. The Chipko Movement quickly spread across all the communities and

e d
helped in the conservation of forests and thus helped in safeguarding the environment.

k

a s
Three R’s to save the environment.
Reduce. It means we should minimise our use of natural resources, sources of energy and food
e
o b materials.
Recycle. It means that we should collect materials like paper, plastics, glass and metal items. These

T waste materials should be recycled to obtain these materials again for use.
Reuse. In this strategy, we should be encouraged to use the things again and again instead of throwing
them away. For example, plastic bottles those we get with jams and pickle, can be reused for storing
things in the kitchen.
☞ Forest and wild life conservation. Forests are biodiversity hot spots. Biodiversity of an area is the
number of species of different life forms like bacteria, fungi, flowering plants, insects, birds etc. The
main aim of forest conservation is to preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.
☞ Stakeholders. Those persons, who are directly or indirectly involved in using the produce of forests or
are interested in the conservation of forests, are called stakeholders.
☞ Hotspot means an area full of biological diversity. Loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological
stability/ecological imbalance.
☞ Sustainable management. Management of forest resources wisely to make it available for future
generations. Sustainable development is development encouraging the judicious use of natural
resources to meet the current basic human needs, while preserving the resources for the needs of future
generations.

264 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)


Chapter 16: MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES „ 265

☞ Water as a Resource. Water is a basic necessity for all terrestrial forms of life.
• Regions of water scarcity are closely correlated to the regions of acute poverty.
• Failure to sustain water availability has resulted largely from the loss of vegetation cover, diversion
for high water demanding crops, pollution from industries and urban wastes and less rain.
• Irrigation methods like dams, tanks and canals have been used in various part of India.
☞ Dams. In order to make proper use of river water, dams are constructed across the rivers to regulate the
flow of water. A dam has a large reservoir to store huge amounts of water. This stored water is then
allowed to flow downstream at the desired rate.
Advantages.
(i) Water from a dam is used for irrigation in fields through a network of canals. Dams ensure round
the year water supply to the crop fields and help raise agricultural production.
(ii) The water rushing down the dam turns turbines which run electric generators to generate
electricity.
Disadvantages. Construction of large dams addresses three problems in particular—
(i) Social problem. A large number of local people have to be displaced which includes farmers and
tribals without their adequate compensation or rehabilitation.

n l y
to
(ii) Economic problem. As dams are built up with huge amounts of public money without the
generation of proportionate benefits.

e n
(iii) Environmental problem. Because making of large dams contributes enormously to deforestation


and the loss of biological diversity.

s sm
Water Harvesting. Collecting rainwater for use in future by storing it in storage reservoirs is called

e
s s
rainwater harvesting.

D a s
Various ancient methods of water harvesting. Khadins in Rajasthan, Bandharas and Tals in

A
i v l
Maharashtra, Bundhis in Madhya Pradesh, Kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, etc.

a
h
These techniques are locale specific to ensure there is no mismanagement and over-exploitation of these

S r n
resources.
Advantages of Khadin System:
• Water does no evaporate.
I n t e
i n
• Recharge wells and moisture for vegetation.

d
• Does not provide breeding ground for mosquitoes

k e
• Ground water is protected from human and animal waste.

s

a
Green House Effect. When the reflected back infra-red rays (of longer wave-length) of the Sun are

e
entrapped by CO2 gas of atmosphere, the atmosphere gets warmed. This phenomenon is known as

o b ‘Green House Effect’.

T
N CERT Ex
CERT er
Exercise Questions (With Solutions)
ercise
Q.1. What changes would you suggest in your home in order to be environment-friendly?
Ans. We can use the concept of three R’s, i.e., Reduce, Recycle and Reuse to save the environment.
Reduce means to use less. We can save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans, turn off the
engine of the vehicles at red lights etc.
Recycle means collect used items like plastic, paper, glass and metal articles and recycle these materials to
make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh plastic, paper, glass or metal.
Reuse means to use things again and again. For example, the plastic bottles in which we buy various food
items like jam or pickle can be used for storing things in the kitchen.
Q.2. Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment- friendly?
Ans. (i) Plantation of trees around the school boundary.
(ii) Preparation of compost pits.
(iii) Minimise use of non-biodegradable articles.
(iv) Switch off lights and fans when not in use.
266 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(v) Avoid unnecessary use of water coolers, fans, lights.


(vi) Ensure a continuous use of books by encouraging seniors to pass on their books to juniors, etc.
Q.3. We saw in this chapter that there are four main stakeholders when it comes to the conservation of
forests and wildlife. Which among these should have the authority to decide the management of forest
produce? Why do you think so?
Ans. In conservation of forests, we come across four stakeholders, they are:
(i) The people who live in or around forests and are dependent on forest products for various aspects of
their life.
(ii) The forest department of the government that owns the land and controls the forests resources and
their produce.
(iii) The industrialists who use various forest products but are not dependent on the forests directly.
(iv) The wildlife and nature enthusiasts who want to conserve nature in its original form as far as
possible.
In my view, the local people who live in or around forests, must have more authority in deciding about the
management of forest conservation. They never take the materials more than their minimum needs from
the forest resources and try to replenish these resources of the forests. The forest department and the

l
wildlife nature enthusiasts also cannot ignore the importance of involvement of the local people in the
management of forest resources.
n y
e n to
While the environment will be preserved, the benefits of the controlled exploitation will go to the local
people, a process in which decentralized economic growth and ecological conservation will go hand in

Q.4.
hand.

sm
How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of (a) forests and
s
e
s
wildlife, (b) water resources, (c) coal and petroleum?
s
D a s
Ans. (a) Forests and Wildlife:

A
v
(i) I will not allow the cutting of trees.

h i al
(ii) I will not use products made from animal skin, fur, etc.

S r n
(iii) Create awareness about the importance of preserving biodiversity.
(b) Water Resources:

I n t e
(i) Encourage the judicious use of water at home and in school.

i n
(ii) Use potable water only for drinking purposes.

d
(iii) Turn off taps while brushing, shaving etc.

k e
(iv) I will not use a hosepipe to wash my car, and for watering plants.

s
(c) Coal and Petroleum:

e a
(i) Coal and petroleum are non-renewable sources of energy and therefore must be conserved by one

o b and all.
(ii) Switch off lights, fans and electrical appliances while not in use.
T (iii) Use energy saving appliances like fluorescent lamps, CFLs.
(iv) Reduce the use of petrol and diesel by walking short distances, cycling and using public transport.
(v) Use solar devices like solar cooker, solar cells etc.
Q.5. What can you as an individual do to reduce your consumption of the various natural resources?
Ans. The consumption of the various natural resources can be reduced in the following ways:
(i) Save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans.
(ii) Save water by repairing leaking taps.
(iii) Use stairs instead of lifts.
(iv) Opt for walking or cycling than using vehicles.
(v) Use solar devices.
(vi) Switch off the engine of vehicles while waiting on red lights.
Q.6. List five things you have done over the last one week to:
(a) conserve our natural resources.
(b) increase the pressure on our natural resources.
Ans. (a) (i) Planted one tree.
(ii) Not wasted electricity.
(iii) Not use vehicles for short distances.
(iv) Not used polythene bags.
(v) Reused old envelopes.
Chapter 16: MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES „ 267

(b) (i) I forgot to switch off the lights of my room.


(ii) I used my personal vehicle to visit my friend.
(iii) I spoilt two exercise books by scribbling in them.
(iv) I did not close the tap while brushing my teeth.
(v) I threw household garbage on the road.
Q.7. On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what changes would you incorporate in your life-style
in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources?
Ans. (i) Minimise use of fossil fuels.
(ii) Avoid wastage of electricity and water.
(iii) Recycle plastic, glass and other items which can be recycled.
(iv) We must make environment-friendly decisions such as plantation of trees, water harvesting, etc.
In short, I would like to follow the concept of the three ‘Rs’: Reduce, Recycle, Reuse to contribute to the
mission of sustainable management of our resources.

Previous YYear
revious ear s’ CBSE Boar
ears’ d Exam Questions
Board
n l y
Very Short Answer Questions (VSA)

e n
Q.1. Give one example each from your daily life where the household waste can be effectively reused and
to1 Mark

recycled respectively.
s sm 2013, 2014OD

e
s
Ans. Example of Reuse. Plastic bottles that we get with jams and pickles can be reused for storing things in the

s
a s
kitchen.

v D A
Example of Recycling. We should collect used and discarded items of paper, plastic, glass and metals and

h i al
send them to the respective industries for making fresh paper, plastic, glass or metal objects.

S r n
Q.2. Name any two items which can be easily recycled but are generally thrown in the dustbins by us.

I n t e 2013, 2014OD
Ans. Cold drink cans and empty milk polypacks can be easily recycled but are generally thrown in the dustbins.

d i n
Q.3. Write the main objective of conservation of biodiversity. 2013OD
Ans. The main objective of conservation of biodiversity is that the loss of diversity may lead to loss of ecological

k e
stability.

s
Q.4. Water is a valuable resource. List two ways that you would suggest every family member to save this

e a
resource. 2014D

o b
Ans. (i) Leakage of taps should be checked and repaired.
(ii) Rinsed water of washed clothes can be reused for watering the plants or for cleaning the floor etc.
TQ.5. List two measures that you would suggest for the better management of water resources. 2013, 2014D
Ans. (i) Rainwater harvesting—it means rain water should not be allowed flow into the drains but make it
percolate into the soil more efficiently.
(ii) Recycling of water used in bathrooms and kitchens should be encouraged.
(iii) Construction of dams.

Short Answer Questions (SA-I) 2 Marks


Q.6. Every one of us can do something to reduce our consumption of various natural resources. List four
such activities based on 3-R approach. 2013, 2015D
Ans. (i) We can reduce the use of LPG by making use of solar cooker for cooking food.
(ii) We can reduce the wastage of water by repairing the leakage in taps.
(iii) We should collect all the discarded household items like newspapers, broken plastic items, glass
bottles etc. and send them to the respective industries for recycling to make fresh paper, plastic and
glass objects.
(iv) We can drink soft cold drinks available in the glass bottles instead of pearlpet or metal containers as
these glass bottles can be refilled and thus reused again.
Q.7. Why are forests considered “biodiversity hot spots”? List two ways in which an individual can
contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife. 2015D
268 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Due to the presence of a large number of species (of plants and animals) threatened with extinction, forests
are said to be ‘biodiversity hotspots’.
The two ways in which an individual can contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife
are:
(i) As individuals we can try to cut down the use of products directly obtained from forests such as gum,
rubber, wood, paper, etc., thereby protecting against the excessive cutting of trees.
(ii) As individuals we must discourage and protect against the poaching of wild animals for commercial
use.
Q.8. What is meant by “sustainable management”? Why is reuse considered better than recycling? 2015D
Ans. The development and management of resources in such a way which meets the current basic human needs
and also preserves the resources for the needs of future generations, is called sustainable management.
The process of ‘reuse’ is considered better than the process of ‘recycling’ because recycling requires the use
of a large amount of energy and money whereas no energy is required for reusing materials.
Q.9. (a) Why do we need to manage our resources carefully?
(b) Why management of natural resources requires a long term perspective? 2014, 2015D
Ans. There are basically two following reasons:
(a) (i) The resources of the earth are limited.

n
(ii) The proper management can ensure equitable distribution of natural resources so that all the l y
people can benefit from the developments of these resources.

e n to
(b) The proper management of natural resources takes into consideration a long-term perspective so that

sm
these natural resources are used judiciously at present and their exploitation to the hilt for short term
gains is prevented. This is essential to meet their future needs and demands.
s
e
s
Q.10. List four measures that can be taken to conserve forests. 2015D
s
D a s
Ans. Forests can be conserved in the following ways:

A
v
(i) By silviculture—It means reforesting those forest lands from where large number of trees have been

h i al
cut in a planned way.

S r n
(ii) By taking the help of the local people in conserving the forests, e.g., Sal forests of Arabari forest range

state.
I n t e
of West Bengal were conserved with the help of the local people by the Forest Department of that

i n
(iii) Encouraging the people not to overuse the materials obtained from the forests, e.g., timber.

d
(iv) Indiscriminate felling of trees for commercial gains should be stopped.

sk e
(v) Overgrazing in forests should be discouraged and forest fires should be prevented.
Q.11. List two advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. 2015D
a
Ans. Advantages of water harvesting at the community level:
e
o b (i) Water harvesting improves the quality of ground water thereby improving vegetation in and around
the area. It also prevents soil erosion.
T (ii) Water harvesting in rural areas not only increases the agricultural production and income of the
farmers but also makes less severe the effect of droughts and floods, and increases the life of
downstream dams and reservoirs.
Q.12. List two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how pollution and
contamination of river water prove harmful for the health of the people of neighbouring areas.
2015OD
Ans. Two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga:
(i) Disposal of industrial effluents into the river.
(ii) Human activities like bathing, washing, immersion of ashes, etc.
Pollution and contamination of river water has led to various harmful effects on health of people in
neighbouring areas who use river water for domestic or drinking purposes. It has led to various types of
water borne diseases such as typhoid or cholera. Also human and industrial activities have lead to
contamination of marine life which can be hazardous for consumption.
Q.13. What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect
of it. 2015OD
Ans. Biodiversity is the diversity of life in an area. It is the number and range of variety of species of life forms
in an area.
The loss of biodiversity of an area will lead to the loss of ecological stability of the eco-system. It can result
in environment disasters such as floods, forest fires, etc.
Chapter 16: MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES „ 269

Q.14. List any two advantages associated with water stored in the ground. 2015OD
Ans. Advantages of underground water:
(i) The water stored in the ground does not evaporate.
(ii) The water stored in the ground does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.
Q.15. Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two reuse and recycle
which, in your opinion, is better to practise? Give reason. 2015OD
Ans. Sustainable management is management that encourages the judicious use of natural resources to meet the
current basic human needs while preserving the resources for the needs of future generations.
Reuse is a better practise than recycle as recycling requires a large amount of energy and money. In this
strategy, we are encouraged to use things again and again instead of throwing them away with no expense
of energy. Reuse also does not cause pollution. Example, plastic bottles of jams and pickles can be reused
for storing things in the kitchen.
Q.16. List four advantages of properly managed watershed management. 2016D
Ans. Four advantages of properly managed watershed management are:
(i) Watershed management emphasizes scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the
biomass production. It strictly maintains the water quality.
(ii) Watershed management develops primary resources of land and water, to produce secondary
n l y
to
resources of plants and animals for use in a manner which will not cause ecological imbalance.
(iii) Watershed management increases the production and income of the watershed community.

e n
(iv) It mitigates droughts and floods and increases the life of the downstream dam and reservoirs.

forest.
s m
Q.17. Explain giving example where active involvement of local people lead to efficient management of

s 2016D

e
s
Ans. (i) People’s participation in the management of forests can help in increasing forest produce as well as in
s
D a s
their conservation.

A
i v l
(ii) In 1972, the West Bengal Forest Department formulated a novel scheme to revive the degraded Sal

a
h
forests by involving the local people.

S r n
(iii) A far sighted forest officer A.K. Banerjee involved the villagers of the area around the forest in the

I n t e
protection of 1272 hectares of badly degraded Sal forest.
(iv) In return for help in protecting the forest, the villagers were given employment in both silviculture

i n
and harvesting operations of the forest, 25% of the final harvest produce, and were allowed to collect

d
firewood and fodder from the forest area on nominal payment.

k e
(v) With the active and willing participation of local people living around the forest, the degraded Sal

s
e a forest of Arabari became thick and green within ten years.
Q.18. “Reuse is better than recycling of materials”. Give reason to justify this statement. 2016D

o b
Ans. The ‘reuse’ strategy is better than ‘recycling’ because even the process of recycling uses large amount of
energy and money. In the reuse strategy we can preserve energy. For instance, plastic bottles in which we
T buy various food items like jam and pickle can be used for storing things in the kitchen. Whereas, if we
send the discarded plastic bottles for recycling to the industry, we will be using energy sources for the
recycling process.
Q.19. “What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the
environment? 2016OD
Ans. Chipko Movement. Chipko Movement is an example of contribution of common people towards the
conservation of forests. The Chipko Movement also called ‘Hug the tree’ movement originated from an
incident in a remote village called ‘Reni’ in Garhwal (Himalayas), where the people of this village clasped
the tree trunks with their arms to protect them from being cut down by a contractor’s workers. The people
acted this way because they knew that this mass deforestation would spoil their healthy environment. The
forest trees were thus saved.
The Chipko Movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests
and thus helped in safeguarding the environment.
Q.20. “Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement. 2016OD
Ans. When fossil fuels (coal and petroleum based fuels like petrol, diesel etc.) are burnt, they produce CO2, CO,
water vapours, SO2, oxides of nitrogen.
Though CO2 is not a poisonous gas but it is a green house gas which traps sun’s heat energy falling on the
earth. The burning of more and more of fossil fuels is increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere causing increased greenhouse effect leading to global warming.
270 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.21. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. Justify this statement. 2016OD
Ans. Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. The measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species
found there. Since in a forest there is a wide range of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, fern, flowering
plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles and so on) it can be termed a ‘biodiversity hotspot’. One of the
main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.
Q.22. What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water? 2016OD
Ans. Water harvesting is a conservation technique of capturing rain water when it falls and run off and taking
measures to keep the water clean.
The main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold rain water on the surface of the earth but to make rain
water percolate under the ground so as to recharge ‘groundwater’. This in turn reduces dependency on
rainfall for irrigation.
Q.23. List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests. 2016OD
Ans. Four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests:
(i) The people who live in and around the forest and are dependent to some extent on forest products
for their livelihood.
(ii) The forest department of the Government which owns the forest land and controls the resources
from the forest.
n l y
to
(iii) The industrialists who use various forest products as raw materials for their factories.
(iv) The forest and wildlife activists who want to conserve the forests and see the forests in their original
condition (pristine form).
e n
category.
s m
Q.24. The construction of large dams lead to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each

s 2016OD

e
s
Ans. Three problems that arise due to construction of big dams:
s
D a s
(i) Social problems. Due to the construction of high rise dams, a large number of human settlements are

A
i v l
submerged in the water of large reservoir formed by the dam and many people are rendered

a
h
homeless.

S r n
(ii) Environmental problems. The construction of high rise dams on the rivers contributes to

I n t e
deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
(iii) Economic problems. Some people believe that the construction of high-rise dams involve the

i n
spending of huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits.

d
Suggestions for these problems. All the people who are displaced from the dam site should be given

k e
adequate compensation by the Government for rehabilitation so as to start their life afresh.

s
e a
Q.25. What is sustainable management? Why is reuse considered better in comparison to recycle?
Ans. Sustainable management means the judicious use of the natural resources by the present generations so
2017D

o b that these resources are also available for the future generations.
In the recycling of materials some energy is used and also harmful gases are produced which pollute the
T environment, while reuse of materials does not consume energy.
Q.26. State two advantages of conserving: (i) forests and (ii) wild life. 2017OD
Ans. (i) Conserving forests helps in:
(a) Maintaining biodiversity of living beings.
(b) Retaining sub soil water.
(c) Also prevents the occurrence of floods.
(ii) Conserving wild life helps in:
(a) Maintaining ecological balance among different species in the forest.
(b) Protecting the nature.

####
SCIENCE
PAST YEARS’
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS

2012-2013 (DELHI)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) The Question Paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
(iv) Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one
sentence.
(v) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
(vi) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are questions based on practical skills and are two marks questions.

SECTION A
Q.1. Mention the angle between a current carrying conductor and magnetic field for which the force experienced
by this current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field is largest? 1
Go to hhh Q.1, Page 237
Q.2. Name the sensory receptors found in the nose and on the tongue. Go to hhh Q.1, Page 106 1
Q.3. Define a solar panel. Go to hhh Q.1, Page 248 2
Q.4. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of reaction and define it.
‘Iron III oxide reacts with aluminium and gives molten iron and aluminium oxide’. 2
Go to hhh Q.5, Page 5
Q.5. What makes the earth’s atmosphere a heterogeneous mixture? Go to hhh Q.27, Page 258
Q.6. A reddish brown coloured metal, used in electrical wires, when powdered and heated strongly in an open
china dish, its colour turns black. When hydrogen gas is passed over this back substance, it regains its
original colour. Based on the above information answer the following questions: 3
(i) Name the metal and the black coloured substance formed.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equations for both the reactions.
Go to hhh Q.14, Page 33

PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–1


P–2 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.7. (a) Give an example for a combination reaction which is exothermic. 3


(b) Identify the oxidising agent, reducing agent in the following reaction:
H2S + Cl2 Æ 2 HCl + S
(c) Name the phenomenon due to which the taste and smell of oily food changes when kept for a long time
in open. Suggest one method to prevent it.
Go to hhh Q.9, Page 6
Or
(a) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water? Give an example. 3
(b) How is tooth decay related to pH? How can it be prevented?
(c) Why does bee sting cause pain and irritation? Rubbing of baking soda on the sting area gives relief.
How?
Go to hhh Q.10, Page 19
Q.8. (a) Why does calcium start floating when added to water? 3
(b) Most of the metals do not give hydrogen while reacting with nitric acid. Why?
(c) Write equation for the reaction of iron with steam. Name the compound of iron obtained.
Go to hhh Q.15, Page 33
Q.9. Three resistors of 5 W, 10 W and 15 W are connected in series and the combination is connected to battery of
30 V. Ammeter and Voltmeter are connected in the circuit. Draw a circuit diagram to connect all the devices
in proper correct order. What is the current flowing and potential difference across 10 W resistance? 3
Go to hhh Q.12, Page 215
Q.10. (a) Name the part of brain which controls 3

s
(i) voluntary action, (ii) involuntary action.

a
(b) What is the significance of the peripheral nervous system? Name the components of this nervous

D
system and distinguish between the origin of the two.

Shiv
Go to hhh Q.9, Page 107
Q.11. Why homologous series of carbon compounds are so called? Write chemical formula of two consecutive
members of a homologous series and state the part of these compounds that determines their (i) physical
properties, and (ii) chemical properties. 3
Go to hhh Q.44, Page 54
Q.12. Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases caused by (i) virus, (ii) bacteria. Explain how the
transmission of such diseases be prevented? 3
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 118
Q.13. “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for
it.” Justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing determination of sex of a newborn. 3
Go to hhh Q.35, Page 142
Q.14. Mention the types of mirrors used as (i) rear view mirrors, (ii) shaving mirrors. List two reasons to justify
your answers in each case. 3
Go to hhh Q.36, Page 164
Or
An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
Use lens formula to determine the position, size and nature of the image if the distance of the object from the
lens is 10 cm. 3
Go to hhh Q.37, Page 164
Q.15. State the difference in colours of the Sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give explanation for
each. 3
Go to hhh Q.20, Page 201
Q.16. (a) In the formation of compound between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons and B gains one
electron.
(i) What is the nature of bond between A and B?
(ii) Suggest the formula of the compound formed between A and B.
(b) On similar lines explain the formation of MgCl2 molecule.
(c) Common salt conducts electricity only in the molten state. Why?
(d) Why is melting point of NaCl high? 5
Go to hhh Q.23, Page 36
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–3

Q.17. (a) Calculate the resistance of the wire using the graph. 5

(b) How many 176 W resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
(c) Define electric power. Derive relation between power, potential difference and resistance.
Go to hhh Q.32, Page 221
Q.18. Draw the diagram of sectional view of human heart and on it name and label the following parts: 5
(a) The chamber of the heart that pumps out deoxygenated blood.
(b) The blood vessel that carries away oxygenated blood from the heart.
(c) The blood vessel that receives deoxygenated blood from the lower part of our body.
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 99
Q.19. (a) List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction.
(b) Explain why variations are observed in the offsprings of sexually reproducing organisms? 5
Go to hhh Q.54, Page 126
Or

s
(a) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and write their functions.

iv Da
Sh

(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms. 5
Go to hhh Q.55, Page 127
Q.20. (a) State the laws of refraction of light. Give an expression to relate the absolute refractive index of a
medium with speed of light in vacuum.
(b) The refractive indices of water and glass with respect to air are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of
light in glass is 2 × 108 ms–1, find the speed of light in (i) air, (ii) water. 5
Go to hhh Q.67, Page 177
Q.21. The elements of the third period of the Periodic Table are given below: 5
Group Æ I II III IV V VI VII
Period Ø Na Mg Al Si P S CI
3
(a) Which atom is bigger, Na or Mg? Why?
(b) Identify the most (i) metallic and (ii) non-metallic element in Period 3.
(c) Which is more non-metallic, S or Cl?
(d) Which has higher atomic mass, Al or Cl?
Go to hhh Q.70, Page 89
P–4 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

SECTION B
Q.22. What type of material is formed when aqueous solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed.
Give the balanced chemical equation involved. Name the type of reaction it is? 2
Go to hhh Q.3(PBQ), Page 12
Q.23. Give any four precautions taken by a student to perform an experiment to determine the resultant resistance
of two resistors when connected in series. Go to hhh Q.1(PBQ), Page 228 2
Q.24. Why is epidermal peel generally taken from lower surface of the leaf? 2
Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 102
Q.25. Why does a ray of light while passing through a prism, bend towards its base? 2
Go to hhh Q.21(PBQ), Page 192
Q.26. Name two types of fissions. Name two living beings of each type which reproduce by these methods of
fission. Go to hhh Q.4(PBQ), Page 130 2
Q.27. Write two tests you would perform to detect, whether the given colourless liquid is Acetic Acid or not. 2
Go to hhh Q.11(PBQ), Page 25
####

2012-2013 (Outside Delhi)


Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Das
iv
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

Sh
SECTION A
Q.1. Name the physical quantities which are indicated by the direction of thumb and forefinger in the Fleming’s
right hand rule? Go to hhh Q.2, Page 237 1
Q.2. State modern periodic law of classification of elements. Go to hhh Q.5, Page 73 1
Q.3. Identify the type of reaction from the following equations: 2
(i) CH4 + 2O2 Æ CO2 + 2H2O (ii) Pb (NO3)2 + 2KI Æ PbI2 + 2KNO3
(iii) CaO + H2O Æ Ca(OH)2 (iv) CuSO4 + Zn Æ ZnSO4 + Cu
Go to hhh Q.6, Page 5
Q.4. State the importance of chromosomal difference between sperms and eggs of humans. 2
Go to hhh Q.14, Page 137
Q.5. “A concave mirror of focal length ‘f ’ can form a magnified erect as well as an inverted image of an object
placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the mirror in each
case for obtaining these images. Go to hhh Q.6, Page 157 2
Q.6. (i) State Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule.
(ii) PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure. Mention the
direction of magnetic fields produced by it at points A and B. Given r1 < r2, where will the strength of
the magnetic field be larger?
Justify your answer in each case. Go to hhh Q.6, Page 238
Q.7. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a boiling tube. 3
(i) State the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals both before heating and after heating.
(ii) Name the gases produced during heating.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction. Go to hhh Q.10, Page 6
Q.8. Give reason for the following: 3
(i) Electric bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases like nitrogen and argon.
(ii) Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission.
(iii) Fuse wire is placed in series with the device. Go to hhh Q.15, Page 216
Or
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–5

(a) Shruti draws magnetic field lines close to the axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she moves
away from the centre of circular loop, she observes that the lines keep on diverging. Explain the reason
for her observation.
(b) Write two properties of magnetic field lines.
Go to hhh Q.7, Page 238 3
Q.9. Name three different glands associated with the digestive system in humans. Also name their secretions. 3
Go to hhh Q.8, Page 95
Q.10. (a) Name the hormone which is secreted when growing plants detect light. Mention its site of secretion in
a plant. 3
(b) Explain why do plants appear to bend towards light?
Go to hhh Q.11, Page 108
Q.11. A carboxylic acid C2H4O2 reacts with an alcohol in the presence of H2SO4 to form a compound ‘X’. The
alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives the same carboxylic acid, C2H4O2. Write the name and
structure of (i) Carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound ‘X’. 3
Go to hhh Q.39, Page 53
Q.12. The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2. To which (a) period and (b) group of the modern
periodic table does ‘X’ belong? State its valency. Justify your answer in each case. 3
Go to hhh Q.41, Page 80
Or
Four elements P, Q, R and S have atomic numbers 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively.
Answer the following questions giving reasons: 3

s
(i) What is the valency of Q?

Da
(ii) Classify these elements as metals and non-metals.

v
(iii) Which of these elements will form the most basic oxide?

Shi
Go to hhh Q.42, Page 80
Q.13. Explain with the help of suitable examples why certain traits cannot be passed on to the next generation?
What are such traits called? Go to hhh Q.37, Page 143 3
Q.14. Name the type of mirror used (i) by dentists and (ii) in solar furnaces. Give two reasons why such mirrors are
used in each case. Go to hhh Q.40, Page 165 3
Q.15. When and where do we see a rainbow? How is a rainbow formed? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the
formation of a rainbow. Go to hhh Q.21, Page 201 3
Q.16. (a) Explain the steps for extraction of copper from its ore. Write the reaction involved. 5
(b) Draw a neat, labelled diagram for electrolytic refining of copper and explain the process.
Go to hhh Q.26, Page 38
Or
(a) Show the formation of magnesium chloride and sodium chloride by transfer of electrons.
(b) Identify the ions present in these compounds.
(c) Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in the solid state?
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 37 5
Q.17. (a) Resistors given as R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series to a battery V. Draw the circuit diagram
showing the arrangement. Derive an expression for the equivalent resistance of the combination.
(b) If R1 = 10 W, R2 = 20 W and R3 = 30 W, calculate the effective resistance when they are connected in series
to a battery of 6 V. Also find the current flowing in the circuit. 5
Go to hhh Q.33, Page 222
Q.18. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label the following parts: 5
(i) largest gland.
(ii) gland that secretes digestive enzymes and hormone.
(iii) part where HCl is produced.
(iv) part where digested food is absorbed.
(b) What are villi? Explain their function in the digestive system.
Go to hhh Q.25, Page 100
Q.19. An organic compound ‘X’ on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound ‘Y’ which on addition of one
molecule of hydrogen in the presence of nickel forms a compound ‘Z’. One molecule of compound ‘Z’ on
P–6 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

combustion forms two molecules of CO2 and three molecules of H2O. Identify giving reasons the compounds
‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the chemical equations for all the chemical reactions involved. 5
Go to hhh Q.76, Page 63
Q.20. What is pollination? How does it occur in plants? How does pollination lead to fertilization? Explain. 5
Go to hhh Q.59, Page 128
Q.21. (a) To construct a ray diagram we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after reflection from the mirror. List these two rays and state the path of these rays after
reflection. Use these two rays to locate the image of an object placed between infinity and the centre of
curvature of a concave mirror.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between the pole and principal
focus of a concave mirror. How will the nature and size of the image formed change, if the mirror is
replaced by a converging lens of same focal length? 5
Go to hhh Q.70, Page 178
Or
(a) A student cannot see clearly a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from his eyes. Name
the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible
causes.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length.
Go to hhh Q.34, Page 204

SECTION B

s
Q.22. (a) What is least count of voltmeter?

Da
(b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark. Calculate its least count. 2

iv
Go to hhh Q.14(PBQ), Page 231

Sh
Q.23. (a) How is pH paper used to find the pH of a solution? 2
(b) The pH value of water is 7. What will be the pH value of (i) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide and
(ii) dil HCl.
Go to hhh Q.12(PBQ), Page 26
Q.24. What are the precautions taken to prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show its stomata? 2
Go to hhh Q.1(PBQ), Page 102
Q.25. Name two salts each of calcium and magnesium which make the water hard? 2
Go to hhh Q.16(PBQ), Page 68
Q.26. Name the process of asexual reproduction shown by yeast. What type of living being is yeast? What is its
commercial importance? Go to hhh Q.3(PBQ), Page 130 2
Q.27. List the factors on which the angle of deviation through a prism depend? 2
Go to hhh Q.26(PBQ), Page 193
####

2013-2014 (DELHI)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. Write any one method to induce current in a coil. Go to hhh Q.3, Page 237 1
Q.2. Mention any one reason due to which most of the thermal power plants are set up near coal or oil fields. 1
Go to hhh Q.3, Page 248
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–7

Q.3. State the number of water molecules present in crystals of washing soda and plaster of paris. What are these
water molecules called as? Go to hhh Q.5, Page 18 2
Q.4. Three resistors of 10 W, 15 W and 5 W are connected in parallel. Find their equivalent resistance. 2
Go to hhh Q.8, Page 214
Q.5. Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to these
bags and explain how this ban is likely to improve the environment. Go to hhh Q.31, Page 259 2
Q.6. (i) Calculate the current through a lamp of 25 W operating at 250 V. 3
(ii) Why elements of electrical heating devices are made up of alloys?
Go to hhh Q.16, Page 216
Q.7. Define the term ‘metallurgy’, and fill appropriate terms in the blanks: 3
The four major steps involved in metallurgy are:
(i) ............. of ore.
(ii) Conversion of ore into its ............. .
(iii) Reduction of oxides of ores into ............. .
Go to hhh Q.17, Page 34
Q.8. Find the resistance between points A and B in the circuit diagram given below: 3

A B

Go to hhh Q.17, Page 216

Das
v
Or

Shi
(a) Describe an activity to show with the help of a compass that magnetic field is strongest near poles of a
bar magnet.
(b) Mention the direction of magnetic field lines (i) inside a bar magnet and (ii) outside a bar magnet. 3
Go to hhh Q.8, Page 238
Q.9. Give reasons for the following: 3
(a) Arteries are thick walled.
(b) Blood goes only once through the heart in fishes.
(c) Plants have low energy needs.
Go to hhh Q.11, Page 96
Q.10. Nikhil and Neha went to a remote village in Kerala to meet their grandmother. They were surprised to see a
biogas plant in Mr. Nair’s house in the neighbourhood. There were plenty of livestocks and the household
used cooking gas from the plant. Also their farm had rich vegetation. They contacted the sarpanch of the
village and convinced him to set up a biogas plant for the village community.
Explain the possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha to the Sarpanch to convince him to set up a
community biogas plant. 3
Go to hhh Q.14, Page 249
Q.11. State the meaning of functional group in a carbon compound. Write the functional group present in
(i) ethanol and (ii) ethanoic acid and also draw their structures. Go to hhh Q.41, Page 53 3
Q.12. Based on the group valency of elements state the formula for the following giving justification for each: 3
(i) Oxides of 1st group elements,
(ii) Halides of the elements of group 13, and
(iii) Compounds formed when an element of group 2 combines with an element of group 16.
Go to hhh Q.46, Page 81
Or
(a) Define the following terms: 3
(i) Valency; (ii) Atomic size
(b) How do the valency and the atomic size of the elements vary while going from left to right along a
period in the modern periodic table?
Go to hhh Q.47, Page 82
P–8 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.13. (a) Give the evidence that the birds have evolved from reptiles.
(b) Insects, octopus, planaria and vertebrates possess eyes. Can we group these animals together on the
basis of eyes that they possess? Justify your answer giving reason.
Go to hhh Q.47, Page 146 3
Q.14. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification –1 on a screen placed at a distance of 50 cm from the
mirror. 3
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Go to hhh Q.44, Page 167 3
Q.15. Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the earth? What will the
colour of the sky be for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the earth? Justify your
answer giving reason. Go to hhh Q.22, Page 201 3
Q.16. Pure iron is soft and stretches easily when hot
(a) How does this property of iron change when:
(i) small amount of carbon is mixed with it?
(ii) nickel and chromium are mixed with it?
(b) Define an alloy. How is an alloy prepared?
(c) An alloy has low melting point and is therefore used for electrical fuse. Name the alloy and write its
constituents. 5
Go to hhh Q.27, Page 38

as
Q.17. (a) Differentiate between AC and DC. Write any two points of difference.

D
(b) A person operates a microwave oven of 2kW power rating in a domestic circuit of 220 V and current

iv
rating 5A. What result is expected? Explain with reason.

Sh
(c) Write the frequency of AC and DC. 5
Go to hhh Q.35, Page 223
Q.18. Draw the human respiratory system and label the following parts: 5
(a) Trachea (b) Alveoli (c) Respiratory bronchioles (d) Larynx
Describe in brief the role of lungs in the exchange of gases.
Go to hhh Q.26, Page 100
Q.19. State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4– anions, but forms covalent compounds.
Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds: 5
(a) are bad conductors of electricity?
(b) have low melting and boiling points?
Go to hhh Q.77, Page 64
Q.20. (a) Give one example each of a unisexual and a bisexual flower.
(b) Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilisation.
(c) How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation which is a combination of
DNA copies of two individuals? 5
Go to hhh Q.60, Page 128
Or
(a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system: 5
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place, and
(iii) where zygote get implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted.
Go to hhh Q.61, Page 129
Q.21. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a lens:
(a) Which type of lens should he use and why?
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ‘F’ of the lens should he place the candle flame so as to get (i)
a magnified, and (ii) a diminished image respectively on the wall?
(c) Draw ray diagram to show the formation of the image in each case. 5
Go to hhh Q.72, Page 180
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–9

SECTION B
300 4 5 6 7
200 00 3 4
Q.22. The readings of current flowing through a conductor and the potential 8

2
0
10

91
500

1
0 0
difference across its two ends are shown in the ammeter and voltmeter

0
mA V
given below. What will be the value of resistance in it? 2
Go to hhh Q.1(PBQ), Page 242

Q.23. Two resistances R1 = 10 ohm and R2 = 10 ohm are to be connected with 20V battery. Out of which of the
following maximum current will flow. Calculate its magnitude. 2
+ – + –

R1
R1 –
+
R2 R2 R1 R2

Go to hhh Q.2(PBQ), Page 243


Q.24. Five solutions P, Q, R, S and T when tested with universal indicator showed pH of 13, 8, 1, 7 and 5
respectively.
(a) Which solution is (i) strongly alkaline (ii) weakly acidic?
(b) Arrange the pH in the increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Go to hhh Q.5(PBQ), Page 25

as
Q.25. What do you observe when dil. HCl is added on Zn pieces taken in a test tube? How would you identify the

D
gas evolved? Write one use of this gas. Go to hhh Q.13(PBQ), Page 26

v
2

Shi
Q.26. What do you observe on seeing the slides showing reproduction in amoeba? What is the name given to this
method of reproduction in Amoeba? Go to hhh Q.6(PBQ), Page 131 2
Q.27. For finding the focal length of a concave mirror, where do we keep the object? What is the position of image
formed? On which structure we get the image? What is the nature of the image formed? 2
Go to hhh Q.5(PBQ), Page 188
####

2013-2014 (Outside Delhi)


Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. Write the relation between electric power (P) of a device with potential difference (Volt) across it and current
(amp) flowing through it. Go to hhh Q.1, Page 213 1
Q.2. What is gene? Go to hhh Q.7, Page 136 1
Q.3. How does a growing embryo get nutrition from the mother’s blood? 2
Go to hhh Q.15, Page 117
Q.4. Give reason for the following: 2
(a) Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene.
(a) Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when some aluminium powder is added in it.
Go to hhh Q.7, Page 32
Q.5. Give two reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel. 2
Go to hhh Q.9, Page 214
Q.6. Solid calcium oxide was taken in a container and water was added slowly to it. 3
P–10 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(i) State two observations made in the experiment.


(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation of this reaction.
Go to hhh Q.14, Page 7
Or
Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions:
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(c) Carbon dioxide is passed through lime water.
Go to hhh Q.13, Page 7
Q.7. Explain the effect on the magnetic field produced at a point in a current carrying circular coil due to: 3
(i) increase in the amount of current flowing through it
(ii) increase in the distance of point from the coil
(iii) increase in the number of turns of the coil.
Go to hhh Q.9, Page 239
Q.8. An electric lamp and a conductor of resistance 4 W are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The current
drawn by the lamp is 0.25 A. Find the resistance of the electric lamp. 3
Go to hhh Q.20, Page 217
Q.9. Define the following: 3
(a) Reflex action (b) Synapse (c) Phototropism
Go to hhh Q.13, Page 109
Q.10. A bulb is rated at 200 V, 100 W. Calculate its resistance. Five such bulbs burn for 4 hours daily. Calculate the
units of electrical energy consumed per day. What would be the cost of using these bulbs per day at the rate

as
of `4.00 per unit? Go to hhh Q.18, Page 217 3

D
Q.11. What are homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the molecular formula of two consecutive members

iv
of homologous series of aldehydes. State which part of these compounds determines their (i) physical and

Sh
(ii) chemical properties. Go to hhh Q.44, Page 54 3
Q.12. Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as they are in the
modern periodic table: 3
Group 1 2 3 - 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Æ
Period Ø
2 A B C
3 D E F
On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the element which forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with valency three.
(iii) Name the element which is a non-metal with valency three.
(iv) Out of D and E, which is bigger in size and why?
(v) Write the common name for the family to which the elements C and F belong.
Go to hhh Q.50, Page 83
Q.13. With the help of suitable examples, explain why certain traits cannot be passed on to the next generation.
What are such traits called? Go to hhh Q.37, Page 143 3
Or
List three main factors responsible for the speciation and briefly describe each one of them. 3
Go to hhh Q.44, Page 145
Q.14. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 60 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the
flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole. 3
(i) Write the type of mirror he should use.
(ii) Find the liner magnification of the image produced.
(iii) What is the distance between the object and its image?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Go to hhh Q.46, Page 168 3
Q.15. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram.
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–11

(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.


(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white
light. 3
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 201
Q.16. You are provided with a container made up of aluminium. You are also provided with solutions of dil. HCl,
dil HNO3, ZnCl2 and H2O. Out of these solutions which solution, can be kept in the aluminium container?
Name the type of reaction taking place. Go to hhh Q.24, Page 10 5
Q.17. (a) Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 ohm are connected: 5
(i) in series
(ii) in parallel, in turn to a battery of 6V. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the combination of
resistors in the two cases.
(b) Establish the relationship between 1 kWh and SI unit of energy.
Go to hhh Q.36, Page 223
Q.18. (a) Compare the length of small intestine in herbivore and carnivore animal. 5
(b) Mention any two structural modifications in small intestine which helps in absorption.
Go to hhh Q.27, Page 101
Q.19. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the part where 5
(i) eggs develop.
(ii) fertilisation take place.
(iii) fertilised egg gets implanted.
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes the uterus undergoes

as
(i) to receive the zygote.

D
(ii) if zygote is not formed.

Shiv
Go to hhh Q.57, Page 127
Q.20. (a) Explain the following terms related to spherical lenses: 5
(i) optical center (ii) centres of curvature
(iii) principal axis (iv) aperture
(v) principal focus (vi) focal length
(b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm. Calculate at what distance should the object be placed from
the lens so that it forms an image at 48 cm on the other side of the lens.
Go to hhh Q.74, Page 181
Or
(a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system: 5
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place, and
(iii) where zygote get implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted.
Go to hhh Q.61, Page 129
Q.21. (a) Why do we classify elements? 5
(b) What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
(c) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?
(d) In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, why was there no mention of Noble gases like Helium, Neon and
Argon?
(e) Would you place the two isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 in different slots because of their different
atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same? Justify your answer.
Go to hhh Q.73, Page 90

SECTION B
Q.22. A student performed the experiment of heating ferrous sulphate crystals in a boiling tube. He smelt fumes of
a pungent gas and saw colours of ferrous sulphate disappear. 2
(i) Write the chemical formula of the pungent gas.
(ii) Why does the colour of crystal disappear?
P–12 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) Identify the nature of this chemical reaction.


Go to hhh Q.12(PBQ), Page 13
Q.23. A student prepared a temporary mount of a leaf peel and observed some green dots. 2
(i) Name these green dots and name the pigment present in them.
(ii) State the function of this pigment.
Go to hhh Q.4(PBQ), Page 102
Q.24. Which is smaller, terminal-p.d. or e.m.f. of a cell and why? Go to hhh Q.15(PBQ), Page 232 2
Q.25. What happens when acetic acid is added in a solution of Na2CO3 in a test tube? Write the equation for
detecting the gas evolved. Go to hhh Q.14(PBQ), Page 26 2
Q.26. When a ray of light passes through a glass slab how many times does it change its path and why? 2
Go to hhh Q.17(PBQ), Page 191
Q.27. What are the precautions that should be considered while performing the experiment ‘light’ is necessary
for photosynthesis’? Go to hhh Q.11(PBQ), Page 103 2
####

2014-2015 (DELHI)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

s
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Da
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

Q.1.
Q.2. Shiv SECTION A
Name the two components of peripheral nervous system. Go to hhh Q.5, Page 107
What is the function of ozone in the upper atmosphere? Go to hhh Q.17, Page 258
1
1
Q.3. List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors. Go to hhh Q.11, Page 158 2
Q.4. When hydrogen gas is passed over heated copper (II) oxide, copper and steam are formed. Write the
balanced chemical equation for this reaction and state (i) the substance oxidized and (ii) the substance
reduced in the reaction. Go to hhh Q.8, Page 6 2
Q.5. What is meant by “sustainable management”? Why is reuse considered better than recycling? 2
Go to hhh Q.8, Page 268
Q.6. State reason for the following: 3
(i) Lemon is used for restoring the shine of tarnished copper vessels.
(ii) A metal sulphide is converted into its oxide to extract the metal from the sulphide ore.
(iii) Copper wires are used in electrical connections.
Go to hhh Q.19, Page 35
Q.7. State the kind of chemical reactions in the following examples: 3
(i) Digestion of food in stomach (ii) Combustion of coal in air
(iii) Heating of limestone
Go to hhh Q.17, Page 8
Q.8. The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms. Give
reason. State the pathway of air from nostrils to the lungs in human beings. 3
Go to hhh Q.14, Page 97
Or
(i) Which organ secretes a hormone when the blood sugar rises? Name a digestive enzyme released by this
organ.
(ii) Why pancreas helps in digestion and also regulates blood sugar? 3
Go to hhh Q.10, Page 96
Q.9. A circuit has a line of 5 A. How many lamps of rating 40 W; 220 V can simultaneously run on this line
safely? Go to hhh Q.21, Page 218 3
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–13

Q.10. Amit lives in Delhi and is much concerned about the increasing electricity bill of his house. He took some
steps to save electricity and succeeded in doing so. 3
(i) Mention any two steps that Amit might have taken to save electricity.
(ii) Amit fulfilled his duty towards the environment by saving electricity. How?
(iii) Which alternative source of energy would you suggest Amit to use?
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 219
Q.11. With the help of an example, explain the process of hydrogenation.
Mention the essential conditions for the reaction and state the change in physical property with the
formation of the product. Go to hhh Q.48, Page 55 3
Q.12. What is the difference between the molecules of soaps and detergents, chemically? Explain the cleansing
action of soaps. Go to hhh Q.49, Page 56 3
Or
How many groups and periods are there in the modern periodic table? How do the atomic size and metallic
character of elements vary as we move—(i) down a group and (ii) from left to right in a period? 3
Go to hhh Q.53, Page 84
Q.13. List and explain in brief three methods of contraception. Go to hhh Q.26, Page 119 3
Q.14. To construct a ray diagram we use two rays of light which are so chosen that it is easy to determine their
directions after reflection from the mirror. Choose these two rays and state the path of these rays after
reflection from a concave mirror. Use these two rays to find the nature and position of the image of an object
placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. 3
Go to hhh Q.50, Page 169

s
Q.15. With the help of a labelled diagram, explain why the sun appears reddish at the sunrise and the sunset. 3

a
Go to hhh Q.25, Page 202

v D
Q.16. Write balanced chemical equations for the following statements: 5

Shi
(i) NaOH solution is heated with zinc granules.
(ii) Excess of carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water.
(iii) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(iv) Egg shells are dropped in hydrochloric acid.
(v) Copper (II) oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Go to hhh Q.25, Page 11
Q.17. (a) Write three main functions of the nervous system.
(b) In the absence of muscle cells, how do plant cells show movement?
Go to hhh Q.20, Page 110 5
Q.18. (a) Draw magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. “Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.” Why?
(b) An electric oven of 1.5 kW is operated in a domestic circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A. What
result do you expect in this case? Explain. 5
Go to hhh Q.15, Page 241
Or
What is meant by resistance of a conductor? Name and define its SI unit. List the factors on which the
resistance of a conductor depends. How is the resistance of a wire affected if—
(i) its length is doubled, (ii) its radius is doubled?
Go to hhh Q.37, Page 224
Q.19. Explain why carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bond. Explain in brief two main reasons for
carbon forming a large number of compounds. Why does carbon form strong bonds with most other
elements? Go to hhh Q.79, Page 64 5
Q.20. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings? Out of these how many are sex
chromosomes? How many types of sex chromosomes are found in human beings?
“The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible
for it”. Draw a flow chart showing determination of sex of a newborn to justify this statement. 5
Go to hhh Q.55, Page 148
Q.21. “A convex lens can form a magnified erect as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in front
of it.” Draw ray diagram to justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the lens in
each case.
P–14 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

An object of height 4 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. Use
lens formula to determine the position of the image formed. Go to hhh Q.76, Page 182 5

SECTION B
Q.22. An iron nail is dipped in the solution of copper sulphate for about 30 minutes, state the change in colour
observed. Give the reason for the change. Go to hhh Q.6(PBQ), Page 12 2
Q.23. A student while verifying Ohm’s law calculated the value of resistance of the resistor for each set of
observation. However, the values of resistance were slightly different from the actual value. Is his experiment
wrong? Justify your answer. Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 229 2
Q.24. Draw a labelled diagram of stomatal apparatus with closed stomatal pore. 2
Go to hhh Q.8(PBQ), Page 102
Q.25. List two observations which you make when you add a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid
in a test tube. Write the chemical equation for the reaction that occurs. 2
Go to hhh Q.2(PBQ), Page 67
Q.26. Name the type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and the
parental identity is lost.
Draw the initial and the final stages of this type of reproduction. State the event with which this
reproduction starts. Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 131 2
Q.27. To find the image-distance for varying object-distances in case of a convex lens, a student obtains on a
screen a sharp image of a bright object placed very far from the lens. After that he gradually moves the object
towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen. 2

s
(a) In which direction-towards or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the object?

a
(b) What happens to the size of image—does it increase or decrease?

v D
(c) What happens when he moves the object very close to the lens?

Shi
Go to hhh Q.11(PBQ), Page 190
####

2014-2015 (Outside Delhi)


Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. Mention the purpose of blackening the interior of a solar cooker. Go to hhh Q.6, Page 248 1
Q.2. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane. Go to hhh Q.16, Page 48 1
3 4
Q.3. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are and respectively. If the speed of light is 2 × 108
2 3
m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water. Go to hhh Q.13, Page 158 2
Q.4. Write a chemical equation to describe how baking soda is produced on a large scale. Also write chemical
name of the products obtained. Go to hhh Q.9, Page 18 2
Q.5. Name the gland and the hormone secreted by the gland, which are associated with the following problems:
(i) A girl has grown extremely tall. (ii) a woman has a swollen neck.
Go to hhh Q.7, Page 107 2
Q.6. Illustrate any three chemical properties of acids. With examples. Go to hhh Q.13, Page 19 3
Q.7. Explain how water and minerals are transported in plants? Go to hhh Q.16, Page 97 3
Or
Explain how the movement of leaves of a sensitive plant is different from movement of shoots towards light?
Go to hhh Q.15, Page 109 3
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–15

Q.8. What are magnetic field lines? List two characteristic properties of these lines. 3
Go to hhh Q.10, Page 239
Q.9. Define 1 ohm resistance. 3
A student has a resistance wire of 1 ohm. If the length of this wire is 50 cm, to what length he should stretch
it uniformly so as to obtain a wire of 4 W resistance? Justify your answer.
Go to hhh Q.26, Page 219
Q.10. Write any three characteristics of a good fuel. Go to hhh Q.15, Page 250 3
Q.11. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe how
these tests are performed. Go to hhh Q.51, Page 57 3
Or
Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in Group-1 and
Group-2 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form: 3
(a) The number of electrons in their atoms (b) The sizes of their atoms
(c) Their metallic characters (d) Their tendencies to lose electrons
(e) The formula of their oxides (f) The formula of their chlorides
Go to hhh Q.55, Page 84
Q.12. List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction. Go to hhh Q.35, Page 121 3
Q.13. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to
reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country. 3
Go to hhh Q.36, Page 121
Or

s
“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.” Justify this statement with the help of a suitable

Da
example. Go to hhh Q.53, Page 148 3

iv
Q.14. If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and

Sh
diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Where and why do we
generally use this type of mirror? Go to hhh Q.51, Page 169 3
Q.15. What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the
sun appears reddish at sunrise. Go to hhh Q.26, Page 202 3
Q.16. (a) A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The
evolved gas was passed through lime water. Write balanced chemical equations for both the changes
observed.
(b) State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid (ii) as a constituent of baking powder. 5
Go to hhh Q.22, Page 22
Q.17. (a) Explain feed back mechanism for regulation of hormonal secretion with the help of one example. 5
(b) State two different types of movement in plants. Mention two points of difference between them.
Go to hhh Q.21, Page 111
Q.18. Name an instrument that measures potential difference between two points in a circuit. 5
Define the unit of potential difference in terms of SI unit of charge and work. Draw the circuit symbols for a
(i) variable resistor, (ii) a plug key which is closed one.
Two electric circuits I and II are shown below
(i) Which of the two circuits has more resistance?
(ii) Through which circuit more current passes?
(iii) In which circuit, the potential difference across each resistor is equal?
(iv) If R1 > R2 > R3, in which circuit more heat will be produced in R1 as compared to other two resistors?
R1
(I) R1 R2 R3 (II) R2
R3

V V
Go to hhh Q.40, Page 225
P–16 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.19. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? Describe in brief the
cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water? List two problems that arise due to the
use of detergents instead of soaps. Go to hhh Q.80, Page 65 5
Q.20. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive, (b) traits are inherited independently? 5
Go to hhh Q.56, Page 148
Q.21. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its S.I. unit.
You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and –10 cm respectively. State the nature and power
of each lens. Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from
the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Argon? 5
Go to hhh Q.78, Page 182

SECTION B
Q.22. A student took a small piece of solid quick lime in a china dish and poured over it a small amount of water.
List two changes he is likely to observe in the china dish immediately after pouring water. 2
Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 12
Q.23. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to study the dependence of current (I) on the potential difference (V) across
a resistor. Go to hhh Q.8(PBQ), Page 230 2
Q.24. Draw a labelled diagram of a stomatal apparatus with open stomatal pore. 2
Go to hhh Q.8(PBQ), Page 102
Q.25. When you add sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid in a test tube, a gas liberates immediately with a

s
brisk effervescence. Name this gas. Describe the method of testing this gas. 2

Da
Go to hhh Q.2(PBQ), Page 67

iv
Q.26. Students were asked to observe the permanent slides showing different stages of budding in yeast under

Sh
high power of a microscope. 2
(a) Which adjustment screw (coarse/fine) were you asked to move to focus the slides?
(b) Draw three diagrams in correct sequence showing budding in yeast.
Go to hhh Q.8(PBQ), Page 131
Q.27. A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the object from the optical
centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a screen on the
other side of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way (towards the lens
or away from the lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the object on it again? How
will the magnification of the image be affected? Go to hhh Q.12(PBQ), Page 190 2
####

2015-2016 (DELHI)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. Define photosynthesis. Go to hhh Q.2, Page 94 1
Q.2. List two natural ecosystems. Go to hhh Q.21, Page 258 1
Q.3. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two
differences between the two images. Go to hhh Q.14, Page 158 2
Q.4. List four important properties of aluminium which are responsible for its great demand in industry. 2
Go to hhh Q.10, Page 32
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–17

Q.5. Name the plant hormones responsible for the following functions: 2
(i) growth of the stem (ii) promotes cell division
(iii) wilting of leaves (iv) inhibits growth
Go to hhh Q.8, Page 107
Q.6. Name the substance oxidised and the substance reduced, and also identify the oxidising agent and reducing
agents in the following reaction: 3
(a) 3MnO2 + 4Al Æ 3Mn + 2Al2O3
(b) Fe2O3 + 3CO Æ 2Fe + 3CO2
(c) SO2 + 2H2S Æ 3S + 2H2O
Go to hhh Q.21, Page 9
Or
Differentiate between the following with suitable examples: 3
(i) mineral and ore (ii) corrosion and rancidity
(iii) malleability and ductility
Go to hhh Q.20, Page 35
Q.7. Name the system which facilitates communication between central nervous system and the other parts of the
body. Mention two types of nerves it consists of along with their organs of origin. 3
Go to hhh Q.16, Page 109
Q.8. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor. How does the
strength of the magnetic field produced change: 3
(i) with the distance from the conductor?

s
(ii) with an increase in current in a conductor?

Da
Go to hhh Q.11, Page 239

Shiv
Q.9. Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors
shown in the figure.
Go to hhh Q.28, Page 220
3

3V

Q.10. Anita visited her village during summer vacation and saw her grandmother burning firewood to cook food.
This caused lots of smoke and resulted in the bad health of Anita’s grandmother. Anita suggested some
alternatives to her family in the village and offered to help them. Now answer the following questions: 3
(i) List any two alternatives that Anita must have suggested to her grandmother.
(ii) How will Anita’s grandmother benefit herself and the community by not burning the firewood? Give
one reason each.
Go to hhh Q.16, Page 250
Q.11. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three characteristic
properties. Go to hhh Q.55, Page 57 3
Q.12. An element ‘M’ with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) combines separately with (NO3)–, (SO4)2– and (PO4)3–
radicals. Write the formula of the three compounds so formed. To which group and period of the Modern
Periodic Table does the elements ‘M’ belong? Will ‘M’ form covalent or ionic compounds? Give reason to
justify your answer. Go to hhh Q.60, Page 86 3
Q.13. How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome number
through several generations? Explain with the help of suitable example. 3
Go to hhh Q.49, Page 146
Or
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential for the health
and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle involved in each. Go to hhh Q.30, Page 120 3
Q.14. Draw the following diagram, in which a ray of light is incident on a concave/convex mirror, on your answer
sheet. Show the path of this ray, after reflection, in each case. 3
P–18 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

F F F

(i) (ii) (iii)


Go to hhh Q.53, Page 170
Q.15. Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by an observer
on the moon? Justify your answer with a reason. Go to hhh Q.27, Page 202 3
Q.16. (a) Define a universal indicator. Mention its one use. 5
(b) Solution A gives pink colour when a drop of phenolphthalein indicator is added to it. Solution B gives
red colour when a drop of methyl orange is added to it. What type of solutions are A and B and which
one of the solutions A and B will have a higher pH value?
(c) Name one salt whose solution has pH more than 7 and one salt whose solution has pH less than 7.
Go to hhh Q.23, Page 22
Q.17. (a) Explain how the separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is useful in humans?
(b) Why is double circulation of blood necessary in humans? 5
Go to hhh Q.28, Page 101
Q.18. For the series combination of three resistors establish the relation:
R = R1 + R2 + R3
where the symbols have their usual meanings.

s
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors of 6 W, 9 W and 18 W joined in

Da
parallel. 5

v
Go to hhh Q.42, Page 226

Shi
Or
What is meant by electric circuit? Why does electric current start flowing in a circuit the moment circuit is
complete? When do we say that the potential difference across a conductor in a circuit is 1 volt?
Calculate the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery if 12 joules of work is done in
transferring 2 coulombs of charge. Go to hhh Q.44, Page 227 5
Q.19. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(b) Name the products formed when ethane burns in air. Write the balanced chemical equation for the
reaction showing the types of energies liberated.
(c) Why is reaction between methane and chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered a substitution
reaction? 5
Go to hhh Q.81, Page 65
Q.20. What is meant by speciation? List four factors that could lead to speciation. Which of these cannot be a major
factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species. Give reason to justify your answer. 5
Go to hhh Q.58, Page 149
Q.21. (a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye: 5
cornea; iris; crystalline lens; ciliary muscles
(b) Millions of people of the developing countries of the world are suffering from corneal blindness. These
persons can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. A charitable
society of your city has organised a campaign in your neighbourhood in order to create awareness
about this fact. If you are asked to participate in this mission how would you contribute in this noble
cause?
Go to hhh Q.39, Page 205

SECTION B
Q.22. While studying the double displacement reaction, the solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate are
mixed together. 2
(i) What do you observe as soon as the two solutions are mixed together?
(ii) What will happen in the above observation made by you after ten minutes?
Go to hhh Q.8(PBQ), Page 12
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–19

Q.23. In an experiment, to study the dependence of potential difference (V) on the electric current (I) across a
conductor (resistor), if the circuit is on for long time, then—select two correct options from the following: 2
(i) Zero error of an ammeter will be changed.
(ii) Zero error of a voltmeter will be changed.
(iii) Value of a resistance will be changed.
(iv) Resistor will be heated.
Go to hhh Q.16(PBQ), Page 232 2
Q.24. Record your observations when a stained and mounted leaf peel is viewed by you under high power
microscope. Go to hhh Q.2(PBQ), Page 102 2
Q.25. What do you observe when you drop a few drops of acetic acid to a test tube containing: 2
(i) phenolphthalein (ii) distilled water
(iii) universal indicator (iv) sodium hydrogen carbonate powder
Go to hhh Q.1(PBQ), Page 66
Q.26. Draw a labelled diagram to show that particular stage of binary fission in amoeba in which its nucleus
elongates and divides into two and a constriction appears in its cell membrane. 2
Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 131
Q.27. A student focuses the image of a well illuminated distant object on a screen using a convex lens. After that
he gradually moves the object towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen by adjusting
the lens. 2
(a) In which direction—towards the screen or away from the screen, does he move the lens?
(b) What happens to the size of the image—does it decrease or increase?
(c) What happens to the image on the screen when he moves the object very close to the lens?

as
Go to hhh Q.13(PBQ), Page 190

iv D ####

ShDelhi)
2015-2016 (Outside
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. Name one plant hormone which inhibits growth. Write its one more function. 1
Go to hhh Q.6, Page 107
Q.2. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule. 1
Go to hhh Q.22, Page 48
Q.3. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by
this device. Go to hhh Q.40(ii), Page 165 2
Q.4. “What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environ-
ment? Go to hhh Q.19, Page 269 2
Q.5. A metal ‘M’ is found in nature as its carbonate. It is used in the galvanization of iron. Identify ‘M’ and name
its ore. How will you convert this ore into free metal? Go to hhh Q.11, Page 33 2
Q.6. (i) Name two waste products which are stored in old xylem in plants.
(ii) Name the process by which plants get rid of excess water. Name the pores through which this process
takes place. 3
Go to hhh Q.4, Page 94
Q.7. (a) In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of gas collected
over the other electrode?
(b) (i) What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate taken
in a test tube?
P–20 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) What type of reaction is this?


(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction. 3
Go to hhh Q.22, Page 10
Or
You are provided with three test tubes A, B and C which contain distilled water, acidic solution and basic
solution respectively. If you are given blue litmus paper only, how will you identify the contents of each test
tube? Go to hhh Q.16, Page 20 3
Q.8. State the function of receptors in our body. Think of any three situations where receptors in the body do not
work properly. Mention the problems which are likely to arise. Go to hhh Q.4, Page 105 3
Q.9. Three resistors of 5 W, 10 W and 15 W are connected in series and the combination is connected to battery of
30 V. Ammeter and Voltmeter are connected in the circuit. Draw a circuit diagram to connect all the devices
in proper correct order. What is the current flowing and potential difference across 10 W resistance?
Go to hhh Q.12, Page 215 3
Q.10. State the principle of working of ocean thermal conversion plant. Explain how the plant works? Write one
essential condition for it to operate properly. Go to hhh Q.17, Page 250 3
Q.11. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write their
structures and name them. State the relation between the two in the language of science. 3
Go to hhh Q.60, Page 59
Q.12. An element ‘X’ has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic
configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’. 3
Go to hhh Q.64, Page 87

s
Q.13. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species? 3

Da
Go to hhh Q.40, Page 122

iv
Or

Sh
Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how
regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra. Go to hhh Q.41, Page 122 3
Q.14. “Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement. 3
Go to hhh Q.52, Page 147
Q.15. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification –1. If the image is at a
distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object is
moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object
to justify your answer. Go to hhh Q.55, Page 171 3
Q.16. (a) Explain any two physical properties of ionic compounds giving reason. 5
(b) List any two metals found in free state in earth’s crust. Where are they located in activity series?
(c) Metals towards the top of the activity series can not be obtained from their compounds by reducing with
carbon. Why?
Go to hhh Q.30 Page 39
Q.17. (a) Define reflex action. State its significance. 5
(b) How do plants respond to external stimuli?
Go to hhh Q.22, Page 111
Q.18. State Ohm’s law. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to verify this law in the laboratory. If you draw a graph
between the potential difference and current flowing through a metallic conductor, what kind of curve will
you get? Explain how would you use this graph to determine the resistance of the conductor. 3
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 227
Or
(a) A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would be seen if a bar magnet with its
south pole towards one face of the coil is
(i) moved quickly toward it
(ii) moved quickly away from it
(iii) placed near its one face?
These activities are then repeated with north pole of the magnet. What will be the observations?
(b) Name and define the phenomenon involved in above activities.
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–21

(c) Name the rule which can determine the direction of current in each case.
Go to hhh Q.16, Page 241 3
Q.19. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess conc. H2SO4 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which on
addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’. One
molecule of ‘R’ on combustion, forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water. Identify
P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved. 5
Go to hhh Q.82, Page 65
Q.20. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of evolution. 5
Go to hhh Q.59, Page 150
Q.21. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm. 5
(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image
in this case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror? Draw a ray diagram for
this situation also to justify your answer.
Show the positions of the pole, the principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.
Go to hhh Q.83, Page 185

SECTION B
Q.22. To study the dependence of potential difference (V) on current I across Resistor (R), four circuit diagrams are
prepared. 2

Das
v
Key Key

i
+ – + –

Sh
+ +
A V
– –
R R

A–
+V– +
(I) (II)
Key
+ – – –
A+ +


Key A
+
R R

+V– – V+
(III) (IV)

(i) Select the circuit diagrams which are correct.


(ii) Give reason for the circuit diagrams which are not correct.
Go to hhh Q.17(PBQ), Page 232 2
Q.23. (i) While studying the combination reaction on adding water to quick lime, name the product formed and
write its colour.
(ii) While studying the decomposition reaction by heating ferrous sulphate crystals in a test-tube, a product
is formed in the test-tube. Name the product and write its colour.
Go to hhh Q.9(PBQ), Page 12 2
Q.24. Identify the observed various parts of temporary mount of well stained leaf peel, when focussed under the
high power of a microscope. Go to hhh Q.3(PBQ), Page 102 2
Q.25. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing ethanoic acid.
List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place. Also write
chemical equation for the reaction. Go to hhh Q.10(PBQ), Page 13 2
P–22 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.26. A student is observing a permanent slide showing sequentially the different stages of asexual reproduction
taking place in yeast. Name this process and draw diagrams of what he observes in a proper sequence.
Go to hhh Q.8(PBQ), Page 131 2
Q.27. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal
length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre ‘O’,
principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram. Go to hhh Q.30(PBQ), Page 194 2
####

2017 (Delhi)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. Write the balanced chemical equation with the state symbols of the following reaction: Solutions of Barium
chloride and Sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble Barium sulphate and the solution of Sodium
chloride. Go to hhh Q.1, Page 5 1

s
Q.2. What is an ecosystem? Go to hhh Q.25, Page 258 1

Da
Q.3. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Write four

v
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror. Go to hhh Q.19, Page 159 2

Shi
Q.4. What is sustainable management? Why is reuse considered better in comparison to recycle? 2
Go to hhh Q.25, Page 270
Q.5. Write down important properties of ionic compounds. Go to hhh Q.12, Page 33 2
Q.6. Write the chemical name of Plaster of Paris. Write the chemical equation of its preparation. Why should
Plaster of Paris be stored in a dry place? Go to hhh Q.17, Page 20 3
Q.7. Describe the structure and functioning of nephron. Go to hhh Q.21, Page 98 3
Q.8. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in the animals. 3
Go to hhh Q.18, Page 110
Q.9. Two lamps, one rated 40W at 220V and the other 100 W at 220V, are connected in parallel to the electric
supply at 220V. 3
(a) Draw a circuit diagram to show the connections.
(b) Calculate the current drawn from the electric supply.
(c) Calculate the total energy consumed by the two lamps together when they operate for one hour.
Go to hhh Q.29, Page 220
Or
Two resistors, with resistance 10 W and 15 W, are to be connected to a battery of e.m.f. 12V so as to obtain:
(i) minimum current (ii) maximum current
(a) Describe the mode of connecting the resistances in each case.
(b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in each case. 3
Go to hhh Q.30, Page 220
Q.10. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is (i)
pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary inside the coil? 3
Go to hhh Q.12, Page 240
Q.11. Complete the following chemical equations: 3
(i) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH ææÆ
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH ææÆ
Conc.H2 SO 4
(iii) C2H5OH + CH3COOH ææææææ Æ
Go to hhh Q.63, Page 59
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–23

Q.12. Write the names given to the vertical columns and horizontal rows in the Modern Periodic Table. How does
the metallic character of elements vary on moving down a vertical column? How does the size of atomic
radius vary on moving left to right in a horizontal row? Give reason in support of your answer in the above
two cases. Go to hhh Q.68, Page 88 3
Or
An element P (atomic number 20) reacts with an element Q (atomic number 17) to form a compound. Answer
the following questions giving the reason.
Write the position of P and Q in the Modern Periodic Table and the molecular formula of the compound
formed when P reacts with Q. Go to hhh Q.69, Page 88 3
Q.13. State the basic requirement for sexual reproduction? Write the importance of such reproduction in nature.
Go to hhh Q.44, Page 123 3
Q.14. Explain with the help of an example each how the following provide evidences in favour of evolution: 3
(a) Homologous organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Fossils
Go to hhh Q.54, Page 148
Q.15. Due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens a certain defect of
vision arises. Write the name of this defect. Name the type of lens required by such persons to improve the
vision. Explain the structure and function of such a lens. Go to hhh Q.29, Page 203 3
Q.16. Write an activity to show the reaction of acids with metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonate salts.
Go to hhh Q.25, Page 23 5
Q.17. Describe double circulation in human beings. 5

as
(a) Why is it necessary?

D
(b) How are arteries different from veins?

Shiv
Go to hhh Q.29, Page 101
Q.18. Give the construction, working, advantages and disadvantages of a solar cooker. 5
Go to hhh Q.23, Page 252
Q.19. Soaps and detergents are both types of salts. State the difference between the two. Write the mechanism of
cleansing action of soaps. Why do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water? Mention any two problems
that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps. Go to hhh Q.80, Page 65 5
Q.20. (a) Name the organ that produces sperms as well as secretes a hormone in human males. Name the
hormone it secretes and write its functions. 5
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where fertilization occurs.
(c) Explain how the developing embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body.
Go to hhh Q.63, Page 129
Q.21. (a) To construct a ray diagram we use two rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their directions
after reflection from the mirror. List two such rays and state the path of these rays after reflection in case
of concave mirrors. Use these two rays and draw ray diagram to locate the image of an object placed
between pole and focus of a concave mirror.
(b) A concave mirror produces three times magnified image on a screen. If the object is placed 20 cm in front
of the mirror, how far is the screen from the object? 5
Go to hhh Q.87, Page 187
Or
(a) Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation. 5
(b) Why do the component colours of incident white light split into a spectrum while passing through a
glass prism, explain.
(c) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.
Go to hhh Q.41, Page 206

SECTION B
Q.22. What type of material is formed when aqueous solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed.
Give the balanced chemical equation involved. Name the type of reaction it is? 2
Go to hhh Q.11(PBQ), Page 13
P–24 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.23. Give any four precautions taken by a student to perform an experiment to determine the resultant resistance
of two resistors when connected in series. Go to hhh Q.1(PBQ), Page 228 2
Q.24. Why is epidermal peel generally taken from lower surface of the leaf? 2
Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 102
Q.25. A gas is liberated immediately with a brisk effervescence, when you add acetic acid to sodium hydrogen
carbonate powder in a test tube. Name the gas and describe the test that confirms the identify of the gas.
Go to hhh Q.2(PBQ), Page 67 2
Q.26. Name the type of asexual reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and the
parental identity is lost. Write the first step from where such a type of reproduction begins. Draw first two
stages of this reproduction. Go to hhh Q.7(PBQ), Page 131 2
Q.27. A student places a candle flame at a distance of about 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm and
focuses the image of the flame on a screen. After that he gradually moves the flame towards the lens and
each time focuses the image on the screen. 2
(a) In which direction-toward or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the image?
(b) How does the size of the image change?
(c) How does the intensity of the image change as the flame moves towards the lens?
(d) Approximately for what distance between the flame and the lens, the image formed on the screen is
inverted and of the same size?
Go to hhh Q.31(PBQ), Page 194
####

2017 (Outside Delhi)


Das
Time allowed: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Shiv Maximum Marks: 80

Same as 2012-13 (Delhi).

SECTION A
Q.1. How is the concentration of hydronium (H3O+) ions affected when a solution of an acid is diluted? 1
Go to hhh Q.1, Page 18
Q.2. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the
producer? 1
Plants ææÆ Deer ææÆ Lion
Go to hhh Q.26 Page 258
Q.3. State two advantages of conserving: (i) forests and (ii) wild life. Go to hhh Q.26, Page 270 2
Q.4. State two ways for preventing rusting of iron articles. Go to hhh Q.13, Page 33 2
Q.5. List the properties of magnetic lines of force. Go to hhh Q.4, Page 237 2
Q.6. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their chemical properties. 3
Go to hhh Q.14, Page 31
Q.7. Explain the nutrition process in Amoeba. Go to hhh Q.22, Page 99 3
Or
Draw a labelled diagram of human heart. Go to hhh Q.23, Page 99 3
Q.8. What is reflex arc? Draw a labelled diagram to show reflex arc on touching a very hot object. 3
Go to hhh Q.19, Page 110
Q.9. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of 6 W, so that the combination has a resistance of
(a) 9 W, (b) 4 W. 3
Go to hhh Q.11, Page 211
PAST YEARS’ CBSE EXAMINATION PAPERS „ P–25

Q.10. Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines due to a: 3


(a) current flowing into a circular coil,
(b) solenoid carrying current.
Go to hhh Q.13, Page 240 3
Q.11. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 acid at
443K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction, stating the role of conc. H2SO4 acid in this reaction. 3
Go to hhh Q.64, Page 60
Or
Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of chemical equations for
each. State one use of each: (i) esters and (ii) saponification process. Go to hhh Q.65, Page 60 5
Q.12. Na, Mg and Al are the elements of the 3rd period of the Modern Periodic Table having group number 1, 2 and
13 respectively. Which one of these has the (a) highest valency (b) largest atomic radius, and (c) maximum
chemical reactivity? Justify your answer stating the reason for each. Go to hhh Q.34, Page 78 3
Q.13. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not
meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of
a family? Go to hhh Q.45, Page 123 3
Q.14. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished,
what is the nature of this lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical value of the
power of this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian system? 3
Go to hhh Q.58, Page 172

s
Q.15. (a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your Science teacher wants you to prepare

Da
a plan for a formative assessment activity, “How to save water, the vital natural resource”. Write any

iv
two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood, on ‘how to save water’.

Sh
(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further.
Go to hhh Q.18, Page 250
Q.16. (a) What is the importance of pH in everyday life? 5
(b) How are sodium hydroxide and Cl2 (Chlorine) gas produced from common salt. What is this process
called?
Go to hhh Q.26, Page 24
Q.17. (a) Draw the structure of Neuron and explain its function. 5
(b) How does Phototropism occur in Plants?
Go to hhh Q.23, Page 112
Q.18. (a) Explain solar cell panel. 5
(b) Give the principle of working of a windmill.
Go to hhh Q.24, Page 253
Q.19. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of
alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the name
of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the necessary
conditions for the reaction to occur. 5
Go to hhh Q.83, Page 66
Q.20. (a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system: 5
(i) Ovary (ii) Uterus (iii) Fallopian tube
(b) Write the structure and functions of placenta in a human female.
Go to hhh Q.64, Page 129
Q.21. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always diminished,
erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write
one use such mirrors are put to and why?
(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mir-
ror whose radius of curvature is +24 cm. 5
Go to hhh Q.88, Page 188
P–26 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Or
(a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List two
possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams,
explain
(i) why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.
(ii) the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the
use of this lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the
lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. 5
Go to hhh Q.42, Page 207

SECTION B
Q.22. (a) What is least count of voltmeter?
(b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark. Calculate its least count.
Go to hhh Q.14(PBQ), Page 231 2
Q.23. (a) How is pH paper used to find the pH of a solution?
(b) The pH value of water is 7. What will be the pH value of (i) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide and
(ii) dil. HCl. 2
Go to hhh Q.12(PBQ), Page 26
Q.24. What are the precautions taken to prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show its stomata? 2
Go to hhh Q.1(PBQ), Page 102

s
Q.25. Mention the essential material (chemicals) to prepare soap in the laboratory. Describe in brief the test of

Da
determining the nature (acidic/alkaline) of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction. 2

iv
Go to hhh Q.9(PBQ), Page 68

Sh
Q.26. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba. 2
Go to hhh Q.6, Page 95
Q.27. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm,
on a screen. After that he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the
screen. 2
(a) In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
(b) What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?
(c) What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen?
(d) What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens?
Go to hhh Q.33(PBQ), Page 194

####
CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–27

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER


2018
(Common for Delhi & Outside Delhi)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and Section B are to be attempted separately.
(iv) There is an internal choice in three questions of three marks each, two questions of five marks each in Section A
and in one question of two marks in Section B.
(v) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one
sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.

as
(vii) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words

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v
each.

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(viii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words
each.
(ix) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are based on practical skills. Each questions is a two- marks question.
These are to be answered in brief.

SECTION A
Q.1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the results in F1 progeny? 1
Ans. All plants bear violet flowers in the F1 progeny.
Q.2. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant. 1
Ans. A hydropower plant converts the potential energy of water stored in the reservoir of a tall dam first into
kinetic energy of water which is then used to rotate the turbine to generate electrical energy.
Q.3. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound
‘Y’. ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the
equation of the chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’ and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the
reaction. 2
Ans. X is CH3CH2OH (Ethanol). Y is CH2 = CH2 (Ethene). Z is H2 (Hydrogen gas).
Conc. H SO
CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯2
443 K
4

→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Dehydration Ethene
• Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent.
2C2H5OH + 2Na ææÆ 2C2H5ONa + H2≠
(Hydrogen gas) (Z)
Q.4. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an electrical
impulse.
Dendrite Æ a Æ b Æ End point of Neuron 2

CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–27


P–28 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (a) • Gustatory receptor present on tongue detects taste.


• Olfactory receptor present in the nose detects smell.
(b) a Æ Cell body b Æ Axon
Q.5. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always
erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your answer. 2
Ans. It is a convex mirror. Convex mirror always forms erect, virtual and diminished image for all positions of
the object placed in front of it.
• It is a convex mirror.
• Diagram:
A D

B P F C
Object Image

Q.6. Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking
down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in
the form of heat, light and electricity. 3
Ans. Thermal decomposition.
• When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Heat
CaCO3 (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
• When silver chloride is exposed to light it decomposes to form silver metal and chlorine gas.

as
Light
2AgCl (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)

v D
• When electric current is passed through acidified water, it decomposes to give hydrogen gas and oxygen

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gas.
Electricity
2H2O (l) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
Q.7. 2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test
tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution before
testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the
gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid. 3
Ans. When sodium hydroxide solution is heated with granulated zinc metal, then Sodium zincate and
hydrogen gas are formed.
Heat
2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Na2ZnO2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Sodium Hydroxide Zinc Sodium Zincate Hydrogen
Test for hydrogen. A splint is lit and held near the opening of the tube, then the stopper is removed to
expose the splint to the gas. If the gas is flammable the mixture ignites. This test is most commonly used to
identify hydrogen which burns with a pop sound.
When zinc reacts with dil. sulphuric acid then zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas are formed.
Heat
Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ ZnSO4 (aq) + H2(g)
Zinc Sulphuric Acid Zinc Sulphate Hydrogen
Or
The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 9. Identify the salt and write a chemical
equation for its formation. List its two uses.
Ans. The salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is baking soda or sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3).
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is produced by reacting a cold and concentrated solution of sodium chloride
(called brine) with ammonia and carbon dioxide.
NaCl + NH3 + H2O + CO2 ⎯⎯→ NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
Sodium Ammonia Sodium Hydrogen Ammonium
Chloride Carbonate Chloride
Uses of baking soda:
(i) It is used for making baking powder which is used for baking bread, cakes, etc.
(ii) It is used as an ingredient in antacids to reduce the effect of excess acid in the stomach.
Q.8. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity?
CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–29

(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in
a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this compound. 3
Ans. (a) Most of the carbon compounds are covalent compounds which do not conduct electricity because
they do not contain ions.
(b) A saturated cyclic compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in a ring is a Cyclo Hexane.
Formula: C6H12 H H
C
H H
C C
H H
H
H C C
H
H C
H H
Structure of Cyclo Hexane

No. of single bonds = 18


Q.9. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each: 3
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas
Ans. Gland Hormone Function
(a) Thyroid Thyroxine It controls the rate of metabolism of fats, carbohydrates and
proteins in the body.

s
(b) Pituitary Growth hormone It controls the growth of human body like development of

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bones and muscles.

iv
(c) Pancreas Insulin It lowers the blood sugar level of the body.

Sh
Q.10. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely
to have comparatively better chances of survival—the one reproducing asexually or the one
reproducing sexually? Give reason to justify your answer. 3
Ans. Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
(i) Only one organism is required. (i) Two separate individuals, male and female
are required.
(ii) New organism produced is genetically (ii) New organism produced is genetically
similar to the parent organism. different from both.
(iii) All divisions involved are mitotic. (iii) During gamete formation meiosis occurs.
After fertilization, all divisions are mitotic.
(iv) It dose not help in evolution. (iv) It helps in evolution.
(any one)
Which species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival. Sexually reproducing organisms
have better chances of survival because sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two gametes (male and
female) and the zygote so formed contains the DNA from two different members of the species. This
causes more variations. The variations allow the individuals to adapt under varied environmental
conditions for better chances of survival.
Q.11. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term ‘absolute refractive index of a medium’ and write
an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum. 3
Ans. Laws of refraction of light:
P–30 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(i) First law. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the
same plane.
(ii) Second law. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for a
given pair of media. The second law of refraction is called Snell’s law. Mathematically, it can be
written as:
sin i
= Constant
sin r
Absolute refractive index of a medium. When light goes from vacuum to another medium, then the value
of refractive index is called absolute refractive index. It is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in
vacuum or air to the speed of light in the medium.
Speed of light in vaccum
Absolute refractive index (n) = Speed of light in medium
Or
What is meant by power of a lens? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 cm and
another of –20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.
Ans. Power of a lens. The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays
falling on it.
SI unit of power of lens is dioptre (D).
40 2
• Given: f = 40 cm = m= m
100 5
1 1 5
P= = = = +2.5 D
f (m) 2/5 2

as
Nature of lens is convex lens.

D
20 −1

v
• Given: f = –20 cm = m= m

i
100 5

Sh
1 1 -5
P= = = = –5 D
f (m) –1/5 1
Nature of lens is concave lens.
Q.12. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 W so that the equivalent resistance of the
combination is (i) 13.5 W, (ii) 6 W? 3
Ans. (i) Resultant resistance of R1 and R2 is R’
1 1 1
= + ...[R1 and R2 are in parallel combination
R′ R 1 R 2
R1 = 9W
1 1 1 1+1 2
fi = + = = R3 = 9 W
R′ 9 9 9 9 R2 = 9W
9
\ R¢ = = 4.5 W
2
Resultant resistance of R’ and R3 is R
R = R’ + R3 = 4.5 + 9 = 13.5 W
(ii) Resultant resistance of R1 and R2 is given by R’
R1 = 9W R2 = 9W
R’ = R1 + R2 = 9 + 9 = 18 W
Resultant resistance of R’ and R3 is given by R R3 = 9W
1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3 1
= + = + = = =
R R′ R 3 18 9 18 18 6
R=6W
Or
(a) Write Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric
mains supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage is 220 V.
Ans. (a) Joule’s law of heating. When a current (I) flows through a resistor of resistance (R) for time (t), then
the amount of heat produced (H) is given by
H = I2 × R × t
This is known as Joule’s law of heating.
CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–31

The heat produced in the wire is directly proportional to:


• square of current (I2)
• resistance of wire (R)
• time (t) for which current is passed.
(b) Given: Lamp (1) = 100 W; 220 V
Lamp (2) = 60 W; 220 V
I1 = ?; I2 = ?
V1 = V2 = V = 220 V
P1 = V1 × I1 fi 100 = 220 × I1
100 5
I1 = = = 0.45A
220 11
P2 = V2 × I2 fi 60 = 220 × I2
60
I2 = = 0.27A
220
Q.13. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give
reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason. 3
Ans. (a) Factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends:
(i) The resistance of a straight conductor is directly proportional to its length.
Rμl ...(i)

s
(ii) The resistance of a straight conductor is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section.

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l
Rμ ...(ii)

iv
A

Sh
From (i) and (ii)
l

A
l
\ R=r r = constant called resistivity
...[r
A
(iii) The resistance of a conductor also depends upon the temperature of the conductor and nature of
material used.
(b) • Metals have free electrons which helps them in the conduction of electricity whereas glass has no
free electrons therefore it is an insulator.
• The resistivity of glass is very high (= 1010 to 1014 W m) therefore it is a poor conductor of electricity
whereas the resistivity of metals is low, therefore metals are good conductors of electricity.
(c) Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices because—
• the resistivities of alloys are much higher than those of the pure metals (from which they are made);
• an alloy does not undergo oxidation (or burn) easily even at high temperatures.
Thus heating elements of electrical heating appliances such as electric iron, toaster, etc. are made of an
alloy rather than a pure metal.
Q.14. Students in a school listened to the news read in the morning assembly that the mountain of garbage
in Delhi, suddenly exploded and various vehicles got buried under it. Several people were also injured
and there was traffic jam all around. In the brain storming session the teacher also discussed this issue
and asked the students to find out a solution to the problem of garbage. Finally they arrived at two
main points—one is self management of the garbage we produce and the second is to generate less
garbage at individual level. 3
(a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
(b) As an individual, what can we do to generate the least garbage? Give two points.
Sol. (a) Measures to manage the garbage we produce:
(i) Fruits and vegetable peels can be converted into paste and can be used as manure in potted
plants and fields to increase soil fertility.
(ii) Use your own reusable cloth bags instead of accepting plastic bags from the stores to carry items.
P–32 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) As an individual, we can adopt the following methods:


(i) Encourage recycling, it means that we should collect the used and discarded items of paper,
plastic, glass and metals, and send them to the respective industries for making fresh paper,
plastic, glass or metal objects.
(ii) Encourage reuse, which means, if possible, we should use the same things again, for example, the
plastic or glass jars in which we buy various food items like jam, etc. can be used later on for
storing things like salt, pulses, etc.
Q.15. What is a dam? Why do we seek to build large dams? While building large dams, which three main
problems should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among local people? Mention them. 3
Ans. Dam are man-made structures constructed across rivers with the aim of controlling, collecting and
diverting the flow of water in rivers.
We seek to build large dams because the large reservoirs of dams store a huge amount of water brought in
by the flowing rivers which is used to irrigate large cultivated land, to supply water in the cities through
pipelines after treatment and to generate hydroelectricity.
The construction of high-rise-dams creates certain problems for the local people:
(i) Social problems. Due to construction of high rise dams, a large number of human settlements are
submerged in the water of large reservoirs formed by the dam and many people are rendered
homeless.
(ii) Environmental problems. A vast variety of flora and fauna get submerged in the water of large
reservoirs formed by the dam and this disturbs the ecological balance.
(iii) Economic problems. Construction of high rise dams involves the spending of huge amount of public
money without the generation of proportionate benefits to the local community.

s
Q.16. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series from

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their carbonate ores.

v
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore? Explain the various steps supported by chemical

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equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper. 5
Ans. (a) • Some of the moderately reactive metals occur in nature as their carbonates. It is easier to obtain
metals from their oxides (by reduction) than from carbonates.
• So before reduction the carbonate ore must be converted into metal oxide by the process of
calcination.
• Calcination is the process in which a carbonate ore is heated strongly in the absence of air to
convert it into metal oxide.
For example,
Calcination
ZnCO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)
Zinc carbonate Zinc oxide
(Calamine ore)
• The metal oxide obtained by calcination is converted to free metal by using reducing agents like
carbon, aluminium, sodium or calcium. The reducing agent used depends on the chemical
reactivity of the metal to be extracted.
For example,
ZnO + C(s) ææÆ Zn (s) + CO (g)
Zinc oxide Zinc metal
Iron metal is extracted from its oxides by reduction with carbon. Tin and lead metals are also
extracted by the reduction of their oxides with carbon.
The metals prepared by the reduction process usually contain some impurities and obtaining pure
metals from impure metals is called refining of metals and most of the metals are refined by
electrolytic refining.
(b) Copper can be extracted by heating its sulphide ore in the presence of excess of air. This process is
called roasting.
Steps in the roasting of copper:
(i) The concentrated copper (I) sulphide ore is heated in air till a part of copper (I) sulphide is
oxidised to copper (I) oxide.
Roasted
2Cu2S (s) + 3O2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 2Cu2O (s) + 2SO2 (s)
Copper glance ore Copper oxide
CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–33

(ii) When a good amount of copper (I) sulphide has been converted into copper (I) oxide, then the
supply of air for roasting is stopped. In the absence of air, copper (I) oxide reacts with the
remaining copper (I) sulphide to form copper metal and sulphur dioxide.
Heat
2Cu2O (s) + Cu2S(s) ⎯⎯⎯→ 6Cu (s) + SO2 (g)
Copper metal
(iii) The obtained metal is then purified by electrolytic refining.
Electrolytic refining of copper:
Key
e– – + e–

(–) Cathode Anode (+)


Pure Cu Metal Impure Cu Metal
Cu2+ Acidified copper
sulphate solution
Cu2+
Tank
Impurities
(Anode mud)

Q.17. (a) The modern periodic table has been evolved through the early attempts of Dobereiner, Newland
and Mendeleev. List one advantage and one limitation of all the three attempts.
(b) Name the scientist who first of all showed that atomic number of an element is a more
fundamental property than its atomic mass.

s
(c) State Modern periodic law. 5

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Ans. (a) • Dobereiner’s classification:

v
Advantage. He was the first scientist to show the relationship between the properties of elements

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and their atomic masses.
Disadvantage. He failed to arrange all the then known elements in the form of triads of elements
having similar chemical properties.
• Newland’s classification:
Advantage. Newland’s law of octaves gave a very important conclusion that there is some
systematic relationship between the order of atomic masses and repetition of properties of
elements.
Disadvantage. This law was applicable to the classification of elements up to calcium only.
• Mendeleev’s classification:
Advantage. Mendeleev’s periodic law predicted the existence of some elements that had not been
discovered at that time and he left proper gaps in his periodic table for the then undiscovered
elements like Ga, Sc and Ge.
Disadvantage. The position of isotopes could not be explained in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
(b) The scientist who first of all showed that atomic number of an element is a more fundamental
property than its atomic mass was Henry Moseley in 1913.
(c) Modern Periodic Law. It states that “the physical and chemical properties of the elements are a
periodic function of their atomic numbers”.
Q.18. (a) Mention any two components of blood.
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins. 5
Ans. (a) Two components of blood:
(i) Plasma
Red blood cells
(ii) Corpuscles White blood cells
Platelets
(b) Lungs Æ Pulmonary Vein Æ Left Atrium Æ Left Ventricle Æ Aorta Æ Body organs
P–34 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

The oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the pulmonary veins which return it to the left heart,
completing the pulmonary cycle. This blood then enters the left atrium, which pumps it through the
valve into the left ventricle. Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body
through aorta.
(c) The valves present in between atria and ventricles prevent the backflow of blood into atria when the
ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart to the rest of the body, as when the ventricles
contract the valves close automatically so that the blood may not go back into atria.
(d) Arteries Veins
1. Arteries are thick walled. 1. Veins are thin walled.
2. Arteries carry blood from the heart to different 2. Veins carry the blood from body
organs of the body. organs to the heart.
3. Arteries do not have valves. 3. Veins have valves in them.
4. Arteries are deeply placed. 4. Veins are superficially placed.
(any one)
Or
(a) Define excretion.
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which
perform following functions:
(i) form urine.

as
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney.

D
(iii) store urine until it is passed out.

Shiv
Ans. (a) The process of removal of toxic and nitrogenous wastes from the body of an organism is called
excretion.
(b) The basic filtration unit present in the kidney is known as nephron.
(c) Human Excretory system:

Function Organ
(i) Form urine Kidney
(ii) Long tube which collects urine from kidney Ureter
(iii) Store urine until it is passed out Urinary bladder
Q.19. (a) Write the function of following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta. 5
Ans. (a) (i) Ovary. Ovaries produce mature female sex cells called ‘ova’ or ‘eggs’ and also secrete certain
female sex hormones.
CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–35

(ii) Oviduct. The ovum released by an ovary goes into the oviduct and the fertilisation of ovum by a
sperm takes place in the oviduct.
(iii) Uterus. The growth and development of a fertilised ovum into a baby takes place in the uterus.
(b) Structure. After implantation, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and the
embryo called placenta. It is the connecting link between the mother’s body and the baby. It contains
blood spaces on the mother’s side and thousands of villi on the foetal side.
Functions:
(i) It provides a large surface area required for the exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products
between the embryo and the mother.
(ii) It also removes the metabolic waste from the embryo.
Q.20. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of
approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the
possible causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it.
(b) Why do stars twinkle? Explain. 5
Ans. (a) The boy is suffering from nearsightedness or Myopia in which a person cannot see the distant objects
clearly though he can see the nearby objects clearly.
Myopia is caused—
• due to high converging power of eye-lens (because of its short focal length); and
• due to elongation of the eyeball.
This defect can be corrected by placing a concave lens in front of the eye. Using a concave lens of
suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person can correct this defect.
(b) The stars appear very-very small, so stars can be considered to be point sources of light as they are far

s
away from the earth. The continuously changing atmosphere is able to cause variations in the light

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coming from a point-sized star due to atmospheric refraction because of which the star appears to be

iv
twinkling.

Sh
Or
(a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea
(ii) Iris
(iii) Crystalline lens
(iv) Ciliary muscles
(b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by an
astronaut on the Moon? Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans. (a) (i) Cornea. The front part of the eye is called cornea. It is made of a transparent substance which is
convex in shape. The light coming from objects enters the eye through the cornea.
(ii) Iris. Iris is a flat, coloured, ring shaped muscle behind the cornea of the eye. There is a hole in the
middle of the iris called pupil. The iris controls the amount of light entering the eyes.
(iii) Crystalline lens. The eye-lens forms a real image of the objects on the retina of the eye and light
sensitive cells on the retina generate electrical signals which are sent to the brain through the
optic nerve and give rise to the sensation of vision.
(iv) Ciliary muscles. The eye-lens is held in position by suspensory ligaments and ciliary muscles.
Ciliary muscles change the thickness of eye-lens while focussing. In other words, the focal length
of eye-lens can be changed by changing its shape by the action of ciliary muscles.
(b) At the time of sunrise, the sun is near the horizon and the sunlight has to travel the greatest distance
through the atmosphere to reach us. During this long journey of the sunlight, most of the shorter
wavelength blue light is scattered out and away from our line of sight. So the light coming from the
rising sun mainly consists of longer wavelength red colour due to which the sun appears red early in
the morning.
This phenomenon can not be observed by an astronaut on the moon because there is no atmosphere
containing air on the moon to scatter sunlight. Since there is no scattered light to reach the eyes of an
astronaut, thus, the sky looks dark and black there.
Q.21. (a) State Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Write the principle of working of an electric motor.
P–36 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(c) Explain the function of the following parts of an electric motor.


(i) Armature (ii) Brushes (iii) Split ring 5
Ans. (a) Fleming’s left hand rule. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, hold the forefinger, the centre finger
and the thumb of your left hand at right angles to one another. Adjust your hand in such a way that
the forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and the centre finger points in the direction of
current. Then the direction in which the thumb points, gives the direction of force acting on the
conductor.
(b) Principle of an electric motor. The working principle of an electric motor is based on the magnetic
effect of current. An electric motor works on the principle that when a rectangular coil is placed in a
magnetic field and current is passed through it, a force acts on the coil which rotates it continuously.
It is based on Fleming’s left hand rule.
(c) (i) Armature. It is the rotating part of a motor. Armature is a coil which carries current and rotates in
the magnetic field.
(ii) Brushes. The function of carbon brushes is to make contact with the rotating split-rings of the
commutator so as to supply current to the coil.
(iii)Split ring. The function of split rings is to reverse the direction of current flowing through the coil
every time the coil passes the vertical position during a revolution.

SECTION B
Q.22. A student added few pieces of aluminium metal to two test tubes A and B containing aqueous
solutions of iron sulphate and copper sulphate. In the second part of her experiment, she added iron

s
metal to another test tubes C and D containing aqueous solutions of aluminium sulphate and copper

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sulphate.

iv
In which test tube or test tubes will she observe colour change? On the basis of this experiment, state

S]] h
which one is the most reactive metal and why? 2
Ans. Test tube A (Iron sulphate) (aq)
Test tube B (Copper sulphate) (aq) Al
Test tube C (Aluminium sulphate)
Test tube D (Copper sulphate) Fe
In test tubes A, B and D, the change in colour takes place.
It means Al displaces Fe from (aq) iron sulphate and Al also displaces copper from CuSO4 solution. This
shows that Al is more reactive that Fe and Cu.
In the second experiment—Fe being less reactive than aluminium, does not displace Al from aluminium
sulphate solution but displaces Cu from CuSO4 solution. Thus ‘Al’ is the most reactive metal.
Q.23. What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride taken
in a test tube? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the type of reaction in this
case. 2
Ans. BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) ææÆ BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)
When a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride, then a white precipitate of
barium sulphate is formed along with sodium chloride solution. Hence, this reaction is precipitation
reaction.
Q.24. List the steps of preparation of temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata. 2
Ans. Step 1. The epidermal peel is taken from a freshly plucked leaf.
Step 2. These pieces are transferred with the help of paint brush into a petridish containing water.
Step 3. The leaf piece is transferred into another watch glass containing a dilute solution of safranin (a red
stain).
Step 4. Specimen is transferred back into the petridish containing water to remove excess stain.
Step 5. Specimen is transferred to the slide with the help of a brush.
Step 6. Put a drop of glycerine on the peel and cover it gently with a cover slip by using a needle to avoid
any kind of air bubble.
Step 7. Observe the slide under the low-power and high-power magnifications of the compound
microscope.
CBSE Examination Paper—2018 „ P–37

Q.25. Name the process by which an amoeba reproduces. Draw the various stages of its reproduction in a
proper sequence. 2
Ans. Amoeba reproduces by binary fission.
Various stages of amoeba’s reproduction:

Nucleus Dividing Nucleus

Two daughter
amoeba

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Stages of Binary Fission in Amoeba


Or
A student is viewing under a microscope a permanent slide showing various stages of asexual
reproduction by budding in yeast. Draw diagrams of what he observes. (In proper sequence)
Ans. The process of reproduction in yeast is budding.
Developing bud New bud
Yeast cell
Chain
of buds

Das
Shiv
Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3

Q.26. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens
of focal length 20 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark
optical centre ‘O’ and principal focus ‘F’ on the diagram. Also find the approximate ratio of size of the
image to the size of the object. 2
Ans. Given: h1 = +4 cm; u = –30 cm; f = +20 cm
When the object is placed between F and 2F, a real, inverted and magnified image is formed.

2F¢
2F F O

Using lens formula,


1 1 1 1 1 1
= − fi = −
f v u 20 v −30
1 1 1 3−2 1
= − = =
v 20 30 60 60
v = +60 cm
h2 v 60 h2 2
Now, = = = –2 fi =
h1 u −30 h1 1 or h2 : h1 = 2 : 1
\ Ratio of size of image to size of object is 2 : 1.
Q.27. The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding
values of potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given below:
V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0
I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
P–38 „ Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of the
resistor. 2

Ans. Y

1.0

0.9

0.8

0.7
I (amperes) Æ
0.6

0.5

0.4

0.3

0.2

0.1

O X
0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 4.5 5

as
V (in volts) Æ

v D
Resistance = Slope of the graph

Shi
V
fi =R
I
1
R= =5W
0.2

####

Please Note: The questions asked in Set II and Set III are identical to Set I. Simply the serial numbers of questions
were changed.
Series : JMS/1 Roll No.

• Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages.
• Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book by
the candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 27 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.

SCIENCE
CBSE – 2019
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises five sections—A, B, C, D and E. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Internal choice is given in sections B, C, D and E.
(iv) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section-A are one mark questions. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
(v) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section-B are two marks questions. These are to be answered in 30 words each.
(vi) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section-C are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section-D are five marks questions. These are to be answered in 70 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section-E are based on practical skills. Each question is a two marks question. These are to be an-
swered in brief.

a s
SET I Code No. 31/1/1

iv D
Section-A

Sh
Q.1. What is the function of a galvanometer in a circuit? 1
Ans. Galvanometer detects the presence of electric current in a circuit.
Q.2. Why is biogas considered an excellent fuel? 1
Ans. Biogas is an excellent fuel because:
(i) It does not produce smoke and is thus environment friendly.
(ii) It has high calorific value.

Section-B
Q.3. How it can be proved that the basic structure of the Modern Periodic Table is based on the electronic
configuration of atoms of different elements? 2
Ans. Modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of an element in the periodic table are
the periodic function of the atomic number of that element. Electronic configuration of the elements plays
an important role in the placement of elements in the modern periodic table. The valence shell electrons of
an element decide its position in a particular group or period.
Thus, the modern periodic table is based on the electronic configuration of the different elements.
Or
The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 4. State its: 2
(a) group and period in the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) name and write its one physical property.
Ans. (a) Group - 14, Period - 3
(b) Name of element: Silicon
It is a metalloid because it exhibits properties of both metals and non-metals.
Q.4. Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in human body. Write the
products formed in each case. 2
Ans. (i) Aerobic respiration in presence of oxygen in Mitochondria.
(ii) Aerobic respiration in lack of oxygen in muscle cells.

CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/1) n P–39


P–40 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(i) Pyruvate
(3-carbon Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy (Products formed)
molecule)
Glucose + Energy
(6-carbon Pyruvate
molecule) (ii)
(3-carbon Lactic acid + Energy (Products formed)
molecule)
+ Energy
Q.5. Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens which
enables us to see the nearby objects clearly. 2
Ans. The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length, so as to clearly focus rays coming from distant as well as
near objects on the retina, is called the power of accommodation of the eye.
The ciliary muscles contract which increases the curvature of eye lens and it thickens which enables us to see
the nearby objects clearly.

Section-C
Q.6. 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and the china dish is placed in sunlight for sometime. What
will be your observation in this case? Write the chemical reaction involved in the form of a balanced
chemical equation. Identify the type of chemical reaction. 3
Ans. Observation. The white colour of silver chloride turns grey in sunlight. This is due to the decomposition of
silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light.
Sunlight
Chemical reaction:
2AgCl (s) Æ
æææææ 2Ag (s) + Cl (g)
Silver chloride Silver Chlorine

s
Type of reaction: Photolytic decomposition reaction

iv D a
Or
Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the balanced chemical

Sh
equation for the reactions.
(a) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide.
Ans. (a) Zn (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) Zn(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
Zinc Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate Silver
This is a displacement reaction. Zinc being more reactive than silver displaces it from its salt.
(b) 2KI (aq) + Pb(NO3)2 (aq) 2KNO3 (aq) + PbI2 (s)
Potassium iodide Lead nitrate Potassium nitrate Lead iodide
(Yellow ppt.)
This is a double displacement reaction in which exchange of ions between the reactants happens.
Q.7. Identify the acid and the base from which sodium chloride is obtained. Which type of salt is it? When is
it called rock salt? How is rock salt formed? 3
Ans. Acid — Hydrochloric acid (HCl) Base — Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH)
Sodium chloride is a neutral salt as pH of its aqueous solution is 7.
Deposits of salt are large crystals that are often brown due to impurities. This is called rock salt.
Beds of rock salt were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up.
Q.8. Based on the group valency of elements write the molecular formula of the following compounds giving
justification for each: 3
(i) Oxide of first group elements.
(ii) Halide of the elements of group thirteen, and
(iii) Compound formed when an element, A of group 2 combines with an element, B of group seventeen.
Ans. (i) Let the first group elements be ‘X’. Its valency is 1. So, the molecular formula of its oxide is X2O.
Symbol X O

Valency 1 2
(ii) Let us take halide of Chlorine with valency 1 and Group 13 element Aluminium (Al) with valency 3. Its
molecular formula is AlCl3.
Al Cl

3 1
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/1) n P–41

Thus, halides of group 13 elements have a common molecular formula MX3, where M is metal and X is
the halogen element.
(iii) Molecular formula of compound is AB2.
Element A B

Valency 2 1
Q.9. Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each. 3
Ans. Three types of blood vessels are:
1. Arteries—Arteries carry the oxygenated blood away from the heart to the various organs of the body.
2. Veins—Veins carry deoxygenated blood from different organs of the body back to the heart.
3. Capillaries—Capillaries are the smallest vessels where exchange of material between the blood and
surrounding cells takes place.
Q.10. Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes. 3
Ans. Receptor Cells of eyes/Retina Sensory Neuron Brain/CNS

Pupil contracts / Eye lids close/blink Eye Muscles Motor Neuron
Q.11. What are plant hormones? Name the plant hormones responsible for the following: 3
(i) Growth of stem (ii) Promotion of cell division
(iii) Inhibition of growth (iv) Elongation of cells
Ans. The chemical compounds or organic molecules produced in the plant cells that regulate various physiological

a s
functions like growth, development and responses to the environment are called plant hormones.

iv D
(i) Growth of stem—Gibberellins (ii) Promotion of cell division—Cytokinins
(iii) Inhibition of growth—Abscisic acid (iv) Elongation of cells—Auxins

Sh
Q.12. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. What type of progeny was obtained by Mendel in F1
and F2 generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio he obtained in F2 generation
plants. 3
Ans. Mendel used pea plant (pisum sativum) for his experiment.
TT tt
(Tall) (Short) : F1 generation

Tt Tt Tt Tt
Homogenous progeny was obtained where all four plants are tall in F1 generation.
Tt Tt
(Tall) (Tall) : F2 generation

TT Tt Tt tt
Heterogenous progeny was obtained in F2 generations where 3 plants are tall and 1 is short.
Ratio obtained in F2 generation is 3 : 1.
Or
List two differences between acquired traits and inherited traits by giving an example of each.
P–42 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Refer to Q. 33 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 141.


Q.13. What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow. 3
Ans. The splitting sunlight into its coloured components is a rainbow. It is a natural optical phenomenon caused by
the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets in the earth’s atmosphere.
Diagram: Refer to Q. 21 (SA-II), Chapter 11, Page 201.
Q.14. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Suggest any three methods. 3
Ans. Problems of waste disposal can be reduced by our combined effort. We can reduce it in the following ways:
(i) Recycle. This means that you collect plastic, paper, glass and metals items and recycle these materials
to make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh plastic, paper, glass or metal.
(ii) Biodegradable domestic wastes such as fruit and vegetable peels, left over food, dry leaves, etc. can be
converted into compost by burying them into a pit in the ground.
(iii) By re-using some of the wastes before throwing them finally in the garbage heaps. For example, some of
the plastic containers can be reused for storing food articles in the kitchen.
Or
Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an ecosystem.

Top Carnivores

Carnivores
Ans. All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living ↑
constituents of the environment form an ecosystem. Ecosystem consists of Herbivores

s
biotic and abiotic components. ↑

iv D a
Producers

Sh
Sunlight
Q.15. What is water harvesting? List two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community
level. Write two causes for the failure of sustained availability of groundwater. 3
Ans. Water harvesting is the concept of capture, collection and storage of every drop of water that has fallen
on the land in small pits, lakes, watershed systems, small earthern dams, constructed dykes, sand and
limestone reservoirs, rooftop water collecting systems, etc.
Advantages associated with water harvesting:
(i) It increases the production and income of the watershed community.
(ii) It also mitigates droughts and floods and increases the life of downstream dams and reservoirs.
Causes for failure of sustained availability of groundwater are:
(i) Loss of vegetation cover.
(ii) Diversion for high demanding water crops.
(iii) Pollution from industrial effluents and urban wastes.
Section-D
Q.16. (a) List in tabular form three chemical properties on the basis of which we can differentiate between a
metal and a non-metal.
(b) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Most metals conduct electricity well.
(ii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide [Fe2O3] with heated aluminium is used to join cracked machine
parts. 5
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 14 (NCERT Exercise Questions), Chapter 3, Page 31.
(b) (i) Most metals allow the current to pass from one end to the other due to the movement of valence
electrons present in it.
(ii) This displacement reaction is highly exothermic. The amount of heat evolved is so large that the
metals are produced in the molten state and is thus used to join cracked machine parts and it is
known as thermit reaction.
Q.17. Write the chemical formula and name of the compound which is the active ingredient of all alcoholic
drinks. List its two uses. Write chemical equation and name of the product formed when this compound
reacts with—
(i) sodium metal (ii) hot concentrated sulphuric acid 5
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/1) n P–43

Ans. Chemical formula: C2H5OH


Name of compound: Ethanol; It is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks.
Uses of ethanol:
• It is used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups and many tonics.
• Ethanol is a very good solvent and is also soluble in water in all proportions. So it is used in many
chemical industries.
(i) 2Na + 2CH3CH2OH 2CH3CH2O­–Na+ + H2
Sodium Ethanol Sodium ethoxide Hydrogen
The products formed are sodium ethoxide and hydrogen.
Hot. conc.
(ii) CH3CH2OH æææææ H2 SO4
Æ CH2 = CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene Water
The products formed are Ethene and Water.
Or
What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this compound.
Why are such compounds:
(i) poor conductors of electricity? and
(ii) have low melting and boiling points? What happens when this compound burns in oxygen.
Ans. Methane is a compound formed between carbon and hydrogen and its chemical formula is CH4. Methane is
widely used as a fuel and is a major compound of biogas and CNG.
H

s
×

iv D a

Electron dot structure of methane (CH4): H × C × H

Sh
×
H
Covalent bonds are formed in this compound.
(i) Since the electrons are shared between atoms and no charged particles are formed, such covalent
compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.
(ii) Covalently bonded molecules have weak intermolecular forces. This gives rise to the low melting and
boiling points of these compounds.
When methane burns in oxygen, a large amount of heat and light is released with carbon dioxide and water.
CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + Heat and light
Q.18. Define pollination. Explain the different types of pollination. List two agents of pollination. How does
suitable pollination lead to fertilization? 5
Ans. Refer to Q. 59 (LA), Chapter 8, Page 128.
Or


(a) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.

(b) What is contraception? List three advantages of adopting contraceptive measures.


Ans. (a) The above given diagram is the Human Female Reproductive System
The parts are: 1. Oviduct or Fallopian tube 2. Ovary 3. Uterus
4. Cervix 5. Vagina
(b) The methods used to prevent pregnancy as a consequence of sexual intercourse is called contraception.
Advantages of adopting contraceptives measures are:
(i) It helps in controlling the size of the family which can improve the standard of living.
(ii) The general health of the female can be improved as reproduction demands high pressure on the
body and mind of the female.
P–44 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iii) These methods check the population growth of a country by controlling child birth rate.
(iv) Frequent and unwanted pregnancies can be avoided by using contraception.
Q.19. An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens.
(ii) List four characteristics of image (nature, position, size, erect/inverted) formed by the lens in this
case.
(iii) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of part (ii). 5
Ans. u = –60 cm, f = –30 cm
1 1 1
(i) Lens formula, f = v - u
1 1 1 1 1 1 2+1 3
= + ⇒ = + = =
v f u v -30 -60 -60 -60
-60
v = 3 = –20 cm The image is at a distance of 20 cm from the lens.
(ii) Characteristics of image formed. The image is—
• virtual, • erect, • in front of the lens between ‘O’ and ‘F’,
• on the same side of the object, and • diminished.

(iii)

a s
iv D
Q.20. (a) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance
of a group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual

Sh
resistances.
(b) In an electric circuit two resistors of 12 W each are joined in parallel to a 6V battery. Find the current
drawn from the battery. 5
Ans. (a) Connect 3 resistors R1, R2 and R3 in parallel between the point XY with a R1
battery, a plug key and an ammeter in series as shown in the figure. X R2 Y
• Connect the voltmeter in parallel with these resistors between the R3
terminals X and Y.

• Plug the key and note the current I in the ammeter and potential +
V
difference V across the resistors. + –
A
• Take out the plug from the key. Remove the ammeter and voltmeter
from the circuit. Insert the ammeter in series with the resistor R1. Let the ammeter reading be I1.
Similarly measure the currents through R2 and R3. Let these be I2 and I3 respectively.
It is observed that the total current I is equal to the sum of the separate currents through each branch
of the combination.
I = I1 + I2 + I3
Let RP be the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of resistors. By applying Ohm’s law to
V
the parallel combination of resistors, we have I = R .
P
On applying Ohm’s law to each resistor, we get
V V V
I1 = R ; I2 = R ; I3 = R
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
Hence V = V + V + V Or = + +
RP R1 R 2 R 3
RP R1 R 2 R 3
Thus, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to
the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
1 1 1 1 1 2
(b) R = R + R = 12 + 12 = 12
eq 1 2
V 6
Req = 6 W \ I = R = 6 = 1A
eq
Or

An electric lamp of resistance 20 W and a conductor of resistance 4 W are connected to a 6 V battery as
shown in the circuit. Calculate:
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/1) n P–45

(a) the total resistance of the circuit,


(b) the current through the circuit,
(c) the potential difference across the (i) electric lamp
I
and (ii) conductor, and
(d) power of the lamp. K
+ –
–A+
Ans. R1 = 20 W, R2 = 4 W, V = 6V 6V
(a) Total resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 20 + 4 = 24 W
(b) Current, I = V = 6 = 1 = 0.25A
R 24 4
(c) Potential difference across
(i) Electric lamp, V1 = IR1 = 0.25 × 20 = 5 volts
(ii) Conductor, V2 = IR2 = 0.25 × 4 = 1 volt
(d) Power of the lamp, P = VI = 6 × 0.25 = 1.5 W ...where[V = V1 + V2
Q.21. What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of (i) a current carrying solenoid and (ii) a
bar magnet. List two distinguishing features between the two fields. 5
Ans. A solenoid is a long cylindrical coil with many close turns of insulated copper wire wrapped in the shape
of a cylinder.
(i) Magnetic field lines of current carrying solenoid:

a s

Sh iv D
(ii) Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. Refer to Q. 8 (SA-II), Chapter 13, Page 238.
Distinguishing features between the two fields:
(a) The strength of magnetic field due to solenoid can be changed while the magnetic field strength due to
bar magnet cannot be changed.
(b) Solenoid produces magnetic field as long as current flows in its coils while bar magnet produces a
permanent magnetic field.

Section-E
Q.22. Blue litmus solution is added to two test tubes A and B containing dilute HCl and NaOH solution
respectively. In which test tube a colour change will be observed? State the colour change and give its
reason. 2
Ans. Colour change will be observed in test tube ‘A’ containing dilute HCl.
Reason: Blue litmus turns red.
HCl is a strong acid. So H+ ion concentration increases when it is added to a solution which leads to the
decrease in pH value. Acids have the tendency to change blue litmus to red.
Or
What is observed when 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid is added to 1 g of sodium carbonate taken in a
clean and dry test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Ans. Hydrochloric acid decomposes sodium carbonate to form sodium chloride and liberates CO2 gas which
turns lime water milky.
Na2CO3 (s) + 2 HCl (aq) 2 NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)
Sodium Hydrochloric Sodium Water Carbon
carbonate acid chloride dioxide
Q.23. In three test tubes A, B and C, three different liquids namely, distilled water, underground water and
distilled water in which a pinch of calcium sulphate is dissolved, respectively are taken. Equal amount
of soap solution is added to each test tube and the contents are shaken. In which test tube will the length
of the foam (lather) be longest? Justify your answer. 2
P–46 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. In test tube ‘A’ which contains distilled water the length of the foam will be longest.
The sample of water that produces a good amount of foam with soap is called soft water whereas the one
that produces very less foam with soap is called hard water.
The hardness of the water is due to the presence of sulphates, chlorides and bicarbonates of calcium and
magnesium ions in water.
Ground water and distilled water with a pinch of calcium sulphate are hard waters, soap reacts with the
salts present in them and form insoluble precipitates in water.
Q.24. A student is observing the temporary mount of a leaf peel under a microscope. Draw labelled diagram of
the structure as seen under the microscope. 2
Ans. Refer to Q. 8 (PBQ), Chapter 6, Page 102.
Or
Draw a labelled diagram in proper sequence to show budding in hydra.
Ans. Refer to Q. 29 (SA-II), Chapter 8, Page 119.
Q.25. In the experimental set up to show that “CO2 is given out during respiration”, name the substance taken
in the small test tube kept in the conical flask. State its function and the consequences of its use. 2
Ans. KOH (Potassium hydroxide) solution is taken in the small test tube in the experiment set up to show CO2 is
given out during respiration.
KOH absorbs CO2 released by germinating seeds, creates a vacuum and causes rise in water level in the
delivery tube.
Q.26. While studying the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing
through it, in order to determine the resistance of the resistor, a student took 5 readings for different

s
values of current and plotted a graph between V and I. He got a straight line graph passing through the

a
origin. What does the straight line signify? Write the method of determining resistance of the resistor

iv D
using this graph. 2

S( h)
Ans. The straight line graph of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing through it
represents that the potential difference (V) is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
To determine the resistance from the graph, read the current value in amperes, corresponding to a given
voltmeter reading and take the ratio V .
I
V

\ R = I , where ‘R’ is the resistance
‘V’ is the potential difference and I is the current.
Or
What would you suggest to a student if while performing an experiment he finds that the pointer/needle
of the ammeter and voltmeter do not coincide with the zero marks on the scales when circuit is open? No
extra ammeter/voltmeter is available in the laboratory.
Ans. This is called the zero error of the scale of ammeter or voltmeter. If there is a zero error, then this error is
subtracted from the value that is depicted when the circuit is closed, otherwise, the accurate current or
potential difference will not be recorded.
Q.27. List four precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal length of a given
convex lens by obtaining image of a distant object on a screen. 2
Ans. The precautions while determining the focal length of a given convex lens by obtaining image of a distant
object on a screen are:
(i) A convex lens should be placed on the lens holder kept on a optical bench at a point ‘A’.
(ii) The position of the screen is adjusted on the other side of the lens in such a way that a clear and sharp
image of the object is formed on it.
(iii) The base of the lens and white screen should be in a line with the measuring scale.
(iv) There should not be any obstacle in the path of the convex lens.

SET II Code No. 31/1/2


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
Section-A
Q.1. Name and define the SI unit of current. 1
Ans. Ampere (A) is the SI unit of current.
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/1) n P–47

One ampere is defined as the flow of one coulomb of charge per second, that is 1 Ampere = 1 Coulomb/1
second.
Q.2. Write the name of the main constituent of biogas. Also state its percentage. 1
Ans. Main constituent of biogas is methane. Biogas constitutes up to 75% of methane.

Section-B
Q.3. Write the name, symbol and electronic configuration of an element X whose atomic number is 11. 2
Ans. Name of the element: Sodium; Symbol: Na; Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 1
Or
Can the following groups of elements be classified as Dobereiner’s triad:
(a) Na, Si, Cl (b) Be, Mg, Ca
Atomic mass of Be—9; Na—23, Mg—24, Si—28, Cl—35, Ca—40. Justify your answer in each case.
Ans. (a) Na, Si, Cl—
These groups of elements cannot be classified as Dobereiner’s triad as Na, Si, Cl have different
properties even though the atomic mass of the middle element (Si) is roughly equal to the average of
atomic masses of the other two elements (Na and Cl).
23 + 35 58
2
=
2
= 29, which is nearly equal to the atomic mass of Si, i.e., 28.
(b) Be, Mg, Ca
These groups of elements can be classified as Dobereiner’s triad as the atomic mass of the middle
element (Mg) is roughly equal to the average of atomic masses of the other two elements (Be and Ca).
9 + 40 49

s
= = 24.5, which is nearly equal to the atomic mass of Mg, i.e., 24.

a
2 2

iv D
Q.4. How is O2 and CO2 transported in human beings? 2
Ans. (i) Transport of oxygen. The haemoglobin present in the red blood cells takes the oxygen from alveoli

Sh
of the lungs. The oxygen is carried by blood to all parts of the body. As the blood passes through the
tissues of the body, the oxygen from the blood diffuses into the cells.
(ii) Transport of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water. It is present in our blood plasma
in a dissolved state and is transported from the body tissues to lungs where it diffuses from blood to
air in the lungs and then expelled out through nostrils during exhaling.
Q.5. Write the structure of eye lens and state the role of ciliary muscles in the human eye. 2
Ans. The eye lens is a transparent biconvex structure in the eye.
The ciliary muscles hold the crystalline lens to provide the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus
objects at different distances on the retina by relaxing and contracting themselves.

Section-C
Q.6. Identify the acid and base which form sodium hydrogen carbonate. Write chemical equation in support
of your answer. State whether this compound is acidic, basic or neutral. Also write its pH value. 3
Ans. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is formed by a chemical reaction between a weak acid—carbonic acid and
strong base—sodium hydroxide.
NaOH + H2CO3 NaHCO3 + H2O
The compound formed is weak basic in nature and has pH value slightly above 7.
Q.9. Define the term transpiration. Design an experiment to demonstrate this process. 3
Ans. The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration. This is
achieved by both, heat of the sun and the pressure difference between the roots and soil.
Experiment:
• Take two small pots having the same amount of soil.
• One should have a plant in it. Place a stick of the same height as the plant in the other pot.
• Cover the soil in both pots with a plastic sheet so that moisture cannot escape by evaporation.
• Cover both sets with plastic sheets and place in bright sunlight for half an hour.
• We could observe water droplets accumulated inside the plastic sheet of the pot in which the plant is
placed.
• This experiment shows that water has been lost through the stomata of the leaves of the plant whereas
it cannot be seen in the other pot in which a stick is kept.
P–48 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.10. What is feedback mechanism of hormonic regulation? Take the example of insulin to explain this
phenomenon. 3
Ans. The mechanism through which the timing and amount of hormone released and regulated in our body, by
the glands is called feedback mechanism of hormonic regulation.
For example, if the sugar level in the blood rises, this is detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond
by producing more insulin to oxidize the sugar. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced
automatically.
Section-D
Q.17. (a) Write chemical equations for the following reactions:
(i) Calcium metal reacts with water.
(ii) Cinnabar is heated in the presence of air.
(iii) Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder.
(b) What are alloys? List two properties of alloys. 5
Ans. (a) (i) Ca (s) + 2H2O (l) Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Calcium water Calcium hydroxide Hydrogen gas
Heat
(ii) 2HgS (s) + 3O2 (g) 2HgO (s) + 2SO2 (g)
Cinnabar Oxygen Cinnabar oxide Sulphur
from air dioxide
(iii) 3MnO2 (s) + 4Al (s) 3Mn (l) + 2Al2O3 (s) + Heat
Manganese Aluminium Manganese Aluminium
dioxide metal oxide

s
(b) Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal.

iv D a
The properties of an alloy are different from the properties of the constituent metals. In general—
• alloys are stronger than the metals from which they are made.

Sh
• alloys are more resistant to corrosion.
Q.18. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to determine the distance of the image from the lens.
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size, erect/inverted) in this case.
(iii) Draw a labelled diagram to justify your answer of part (ii). 5
Ans. Object distance, u = –30 cm; Focal length, f = –30 cm
1 1 1
(i) Lens formula, f = v - u
1 1 1 1+1 2
So 1 = 1 + 1 ⇒ = +
v -30 -30
=
-30
=
-30
v f u
v = –15 cm
The image distance is 15 cm in front of the lens.
(ii) Characteristics of image formed. The image is—
• virtual, • erect, • diminished,
• in front of the lens between ‘O’ and ‘F’, and
• 15 cm from the lens on the same side as the object
15 cm

(iii) B
F O
30 cm

SET III Code No. 31/1/3


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I & Set II.
Section-A
Q.1. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food which one would you prefer? State one
reason for your choice. 1
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/1) n P–49

Ans. Natural gas is preferred for heating food. This is because it is a cleaner fuel, produces less amount of smoke
and higher amount of heat per unit mass.
Q.2. Write the function of voltmeter in an electric circuit. 1
Ans. Function of voltmeter in an electric circuit is to find out the potential difference between two points.

Section-B
Q.3. What happens to the image distance in the normal human eye when we decrease the distance of an
object, say 10 m to 1 m? Justify your answer. 2
Ans. There will be no change in the image distance in the normal human eye. This is because the image is always
formed on the retina.
Q.4. List two different functions performed by pancreas in our body. 2
Ans. Functions of pancreas:
(i) Secretes enzyme trypsin for the breakdown of proteins.
(ii) Secretes hormone insulin to regulate sugar level in the blood.

Section-C
Q.7. List three advantages each of: 3
(i) exploiting resources with short term aims, and
(ii) using a long term perspective in managing our natural resources.
Ans. (i) Advantages of exploiting resources with short term aims:
(a) They provide immediate advantages to fulfill basic needs of the present generation.
(b) To get huge profit without any accountability.

a s
(c) Will lead to fast industrialisation and modernisation.

iv D
(ii) Advantages of using a long term perspective in managing our natural resources:

Sh
(a) It will fulfill the needs of not only the present generations but will help to conserve our natural
resources for the benefit of the future generations.
(b) It will help to prevent the exploitation of resources to the hilt to obtain short-term aims.
(c) Damage caused to the environment will be reduced.
Q.9. Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination in human
beings. Justify this statement with the help of an example. 3
Ans. Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination in human beings.
Nervous system is connected to receptors of all senses. Information obtained from sensory organs is passed
rapidly to the Central Nervous System for interpretation. On this basis message is sent to effector organ or
organs (muscles, glands, etc.)
The action can be voluntary or involuntary.
Nervous system is also connected with the functioning of endocrine or hormonal systems. Endocrine glands
pour the secretions into blood which transports them to all parts of the body. Target cells have receptors for
picking up the hormones and working as per hormonal stimulus.
There is a feedback mechanism which determines the requirement of hormones and the activity of endocrine
glands.
Q.11. What is photosynthesis? Explain its mechanism. 3
Ans. Green plants obtain their food by the process of photosynthesis. The process by which green plants make
their own food (glucose) using inorganic material like carbon-dioxide and water by using sunlight energy is
called photosynthesis.
6CO2 + 6H2O + Light energy Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O6 + 6O2
Glucose
Events that occur during photosynthesis:
(i) Absorption of sunlight energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and splitting of water into hydrogen and oxygen by
light energy.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide by hydrogen to form carbohydrates like glucose by utilising the chemical
energy (obtained by the transformation of light energy).
Q.15. Explain the following: 3
(a) Sodium chloride is an ionic compound which does not conduct electricity in solid state whereas it
does conduct electricity in molten state as well as in aqueous solution.
P–50 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) Reactivity of aluminium decrease if it is dipped in nitric acid.


(c) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state in nature.
Ans. (a) Sodium chloride does not conduct electricity in solid state whereas it does conduct electricity in molten
state as well as in aqueous solution. This is because in solid state movement of ions is not possible due
to rigid structure. Movement of ions is what causes electricity.
In molten and aqueous state, ions are free to move and so they conduct electricity.
(b) Reactivity of aluminium decreases if it is dipped in nitric acid because nitric acid is a strong oxidising
agent. As a result, when aluminium is dipped in nitric acid, a layer of aluminium oxide is formed
which prevents further reaction of aluminium.
(c) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state in nature. This is because they
are highly reactive metals and form compounds with almost all elements.

Section-D
Q.17. (a) Draw magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor passing through a
cardboard. Name, state and apply the rule to mark the direction of these field lines.
(b) How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be
determined is moved away from the straight wire carrying constant current? Justify your answer?
5
Ans. (a) To mark the direction of magnetic field lines, we will use the Right hand thumb rule.
If the current carrying straight conductor is held in the right hand in such a way that the thumb points
towards the direction of current, then your fingers will wrap around the conductor in the direction of

s
the field lines.

iv D a

Sh
(b) • The strength of the magnetic field decreases when the point where magnetic field is to be determined
in moved away from a straight wire carrying constant current.
• The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance from the origin. As the
distance increases the strength decreases.
Q.21. Write the main difference between an acid and a base. With the help of suitable examples explain the
term neutralization and the formation of—
(i) acidic, (ii) basic and (iii) neutral salts. 5
Ans. Acids are sour in taste and change the colour of the blue litmus to red. Their pH is less than 7.
Bases are bitter in taste and change colour of red litmus to blue. Their pH is more than 7.
The reaction between an acid and a base to give a salt and water is known as a neutralisation reaction. In
general, a neutralisation reaction can be written as
Acid + Base Salt + Water
Example: NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
(i) When neutralisation of a strong acid with a weak base takes place, it leads to the formation of acidic
salt.
Example: H2SO4 + CuO CuSO4 + H2O
(ii) When neutralisation of a weak acid with a strong base takes place, it leads to the formation of basic salt.
Example: NaOH + CH3COOH CH3COONa + H2O
(iii) When neutralisation of a strong acid with a strong base takes place, it leads to the formation of neutral
salt.
Example: NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
NaCl is a neutral salt.

####
Series : JMS/4 Roll No.
• Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages.
• Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book
by the candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 27 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.

SCIENCE
CBSE – 2019
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions:
Same as in 2019-Series: JMS/1 Board Paper.

SET I Code No. 31/4/1


Section-A
Q.1. Define Resistance. Give its S.I. unit. 1
Ans. Resistance is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of current through it.
Its S.I. unit is ohm, represented by the Greek letter W (omega).
Q.2. Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells. 1
Ans. Silicon and Silver.

a s
iv D
Section-B
Q.3. State laws of reflection of light. 2

Sh
Ans. The laws of reflection are:
(i) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
(ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
Or
Define absolute refractive index and express it mathematically. 2
Ans. The ratio of the speed of light in air or vacuum to the speed of light in any medium is called the absolute
refractive index.
If ‘c’ is the speed of light in air and v is the speed of light in the medium, then the refractive index of the
medium is given by
Speed of light in air c
Refractive Index (ηm) = Speed of light in the medium = v

Q.4. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. 2


Ans.

S N

Magnetic field lines


around a bar magnet
Q.5. What happens when 5% alkaline potassium permanganate solution is added drop by drop to warm
propyl alcohol (propanol) taken in a test tube? Explain with the help of a chemical equation. 2
Ans. During this reaction the alcohols are converted into carboxylic acids as carbon compounds can be easily
oxidised. Therefore, when propanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate solution, it gets
oxidised to propanoic acid.
The colour of the potassium permanganate does not disappear as it is used to oxidise alcohol to acids.
Alkaline KMNO4
CH3 — CH2 — CH2OH  → C2H5COOH
Propanoic acid

CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/4) n P–51


P–52 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Section-C
Q.6. What are fossils? Describe briefly two methods of determining the age of fossils. 3
Ans. Refer to Q. 32 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 141.
Q.7. What is the cause of dispersion of white light through a glass prism? Draw a ray diagram to show the
path of light when two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with respect
to each other and a narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the
prisms. 3
Ans. The phenomenon of splitting of white light into seven colours on passing through a glass-prism is called
dispersion of white light. Refraction of light is the cause of dispersion of white light into its seven component
colours by a prism.
The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light travel at different speeds through the
glass prism. Different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray as they
pass through a prism.
For diagram. Refer to Q. 24 (PBQ), Chapter 10, Page 192.
Or
What is scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why (i) the Sun appears reddish at sun-rise,
and (ii) the clear sky appears blue.
Ans. The phenomena of change in the direction of propagation of light caused by the large number of molecules
such as smoke, tiny water droplets, suspended particles of dust and molecules of air present in the earth’s
atmosphere is called scattering of light.
Sun appears reddish at sunrise and clear sky appears blue—Refer to Q. 26 (SA-II), Chapter 11, Page 202.

s
Q.8. (a) Classify the following reactions into different types:

a
(i) AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (aq)

iv D
(ii) CaO (s) + H2O (l) Ca(OH)2 (aq)
D

Sh
(iii) 2KClO3 (s) 2KCl (aq) + 3O2 (g)
(iv) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
(b) Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation:
“Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium
sulphate.“ 3
Ans. (a) (i) Double displacement reaction (ii) Combination reaction
(iii) Decomposition reaction (iv) Displacement reaction
(b) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
Barium Aluminium Aluminium Barium
chloride Sulphate Chloride Sulphate
Or
When potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead (II) nitrate in a test tube, a precipitate is
formed.
(a) What is the colour of this precipitate? Name the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(c) List two types of reactions in which this reaction can be placed.
Ans. (a) The precipitate is yellow in colour. It is lead iodide (PbI2).
(b) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) PbI2 ↓ + 2KNO3 (aq)
(c) (i) Double Displacement Reaction; (ii) Precipitation Reaction.
Q.9. (a) Natural water bodies are not regularly cleaned whereas an aquarium needs regular cleaning. Why?
(b) What are decomposers? What will be the consequence if the decomposers are completely eradicated
from an ecosystem? Give justification in support of your answer. 3
Ans. (a) An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem compared to natural water bodies which are self
sustaining and complete ecosystems where there is a perfect recycling of material. In a pond or lake,
the waste produced serves as the food material for the decomposers and is thus eliminated by them
from the water. Whereas in an aquarium, the uneaten food and waste generated mixes with the water
due to the lack of decomposers. Therefore it needs to be cleaned.
(b) Refer to Q. 33 and Q. 35 (SA-I), Chapter 15, Pages 259-260.
Or
How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? State its importance. What is responsible for its depletion?
Write one harmful effect of ozone depletion.
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/4) n P–53

Ans. Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by the reaction of ultraviolet (UV) radiations on oxygen (O2)
molecules.
Importance. The ozone layer acts as the ozone shield over the surface of the earth and absorbs the harmful
ultraviolet radiations of the Sun and prevents them from reaching the earth’s surface.
The damaging effect of CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.
Harmful effect. The thinning of ozone layer results in an increase of UV-B radiation reaching the earth’s
surface. This increases the incidence of cataract and skin cancer diminishing the immune system’s function.
Q.10. A white powder is used by doctors to support fractured bones. 3
(a) Write the name and chemical formula of the powder.
(b) How is this powder prepared?
(c) When this white powder is mixed with water, a hard solid mass is obtained. Write a balanced
chemical equation for the change.
(d) Give one more use of this white powder.
Ans. (a) Name of white powder. Calcium sulphate hemi-hydrate;
Chemical formula — CaSO4 . ½H2O.
(b) It is prepared by heating gypsum at 373 K.
373 K
CaSO4 . 2H2O  → CaSO4 . ½H2O + 1½H2O
Gypsum Plaster of Paris
(c) CaSO4 . ½H2O + 1½H2O CaSO4 . 2H2O
Gypsum
(d) It is used for making surfaces smooth.

s
Q.11. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would happen if a strong bar

a
magnet is 3

iv D
(a) pushed into the coil? (b) withdrawn from inside the coil?

Sh
(c) held stationary inside the coil?
Give justification for each observation.
Ans. (a) Deflection in the galvanometer needle will be more when it is pushed into the coil. The motion of the
magnet with respect to the coil produces an induced potential difference which sets up an induced
electric current in the coil. As a result, galvanometer gives a deflection towards the left.
(b) Larger deflection in opposite direction as compared to the case (a) will be seen. When the direction
of the motion of the magnet is measured then the direction of the movement of the current is also
measured. This is the reason for the deflection of the needle in the opposite direction.
(c) If the bar magnet is held stationary, then there is no induced current in the coil, because there is no
change in magnetic field through it. As a result, galvanometer does not show any deflection.
Q.12. (a) Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal: 3
(i) Saliva (ii) HCl in stomach
(iii) Bile juice (iv) Villi
(b) Write one function each of the following enzymes:
(i) Pepsin (ii) Lipase 3
Ans. (a) (i) Saliva contains a digestive enzyme called salivary amylase which breaks down starch into sugar.
(ii) Secretion of HCl makes the food soft and acidified for pepsin to act upon food.
(iii) Bile juice breaks down the fats which are present in food in the form of large globules (which make
it difficult for enzymes to act on them) mechanically into smaller globules which increases the
efficiency of fat digesting enzymes.
(iv) Villi in the small intestine increase the surface area for the absorption of food. Villi in the large
intestine increase the surface area for the absorption of water.
(b) (i) The enzyme pepsin digests protein in the stomach.
(ii) Lipase is used to break down the emulsifying fats in the small intestine.
Q.13. (a) Plants do not have any nervous system but yet, if we touch a sensitive plant, some observable
changes take place in its leaves. Explain how could this plant respond to the external stimuli and
how it is communicated.
(b) Name the hormone that needs to be administered to
(i) increase the height of a dwarf plant.
(ii) cause rapid cell division in fruits and seeds. 3
Ans. (a) Plants have a hormonal system for controlling and co-ordinating the activities in plants. Plants respond
P–54 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

to light, touch, gravitational force and other stimuli. They show two different types of movements,
they are—(i) dependent on growth and (ii) independent of growth.
In the sensitive or “touch-me-not” plant the leaves begin to fold up and droop on touching. It uses electrical-
chemical means to convey this information from cell to cell. Some cells change their shape (by changing
the amount of water in them) in order for movement to happen. This type of movement is independent
of growth called nastic movement.
(b) (i) Auxin (ii) Cytokinin.
Q.14. What is biodiversity? Why are forests considered as “biodiversity hot spots“? List two factors responsible
for causing deforestation. 3
Ans. Biodiversity is the occurrence of diverse type of organisms and their variants adapted in different
environments.
Forests are areas which are rich in biodiversity and are also the most threatened ones due to high degree of
exploitation and human interference.
The factors responsible for causing deforestation are—
(i) Industrial needs and developmental projects like building of roads, dams, etc.
(ii) Urbanisation where forests are converted into housing colonies.
(iii) Requirement of forest produce for a large number of industries such as timber, paper, lac, sports
equipment, etc.
Q.15. How is the method of extraction of metals high up in the reactivity series different from that for metals
in the middle? Why can the same process not be applied for them? Name the process used for extraction
of these metals. 3

s
Ans. — Metals high up in the reactivity series generally occur in the form of oxides which are quite stable. They

iv D a
cannot be obtained from their compounds by heating with carbon. For example, carbon cannot reduce
the oxides of sodium, magnesium, calcium, aluminium, etc. to the respective metals. This is because

Sh
these metals have high affinity for oxygen than carbon. For example, sodium, magnesium, calcium are
obtained by the electrolysis of their molten chlorides. The process is called electrolytic reduction.
— Metals in the middle occur in the form of carbonates and sulphides which are first converted into
oxides by various methods and then into metals.
— Same process cannot be applied for them due to difference in their reactivity. The process used for their
extraction is calcination or roasting followed by reduction.

Section-D
Q.16. (a) Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of chemical equations
for each.
(b) With a labelled diagram describe in brief an activity to show the formation of an ester. 5
Ans. (a) Difference between esterification and saponification. Refer to Q. 65 (SA-II), Chapter 4, Page 60.
(b) Activity to show the formation of ester: Refer to Q. 29 (SA-II), Chapter 4, Page 50.
Or
What is the difference between soaps and detergents? State in brief the cleansing action of soaps in
removing an oily spot from a fabric. Why are soaps not very effective when a fabric is washed in hard
water? How is this problem resolved?
Ans. Difference between soaps and detergents. Refer to Q. 72 (LA), Chapter 4, Page 62.
Soaps are not effective when a fabric is washed in hard water. Refer to Q. 14 (PBQ), Chapter 4, Page 68.
This problem can be solved by using detergents as they are more soluble in hard water and have better
cleansing action.
Q.17. A person is unable to see objects distinctly placed within 50 cm from his eyes.
(a) Name the defect of vision the person is suffering from and list its two possible causes.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the defect in the above case.
(c) Mention the type of lens used by him for the correction of the defect and calculate its power. Assume
that the near point for the normal eye is 25 cm.
(d) Draw a labelled diagram for the correction of the defect in the above case. 5
Ans. (a) Hypermetropia is the defect of vision. This defect arises either because—
(i) The focal length of the eye lens is too long.
(ii) Decrease in the size of the eyeball.
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/4) n P–55

(b)

(c) Convex lens can be used to correct this defect.


1
Power (P) = f ; Object distance, u = –25 cm;
Image distance, = –50 cm; Focal length = f
1 1
Lens formula, 1 = 1 − 1 = −50 − −25
f v u
−1 − ( −2 ) −1 + 2 1
= 50
=
50
= 50 = 50 cm
1 1
\ Power = f = 50 = 2 D
Convex lens Eye lens
Retina

O
(d) Object
Image is
formed on
25 cm the retina

s
Correction for Hypermetropic eye

iv D a
Q.18. (a) How is the valency of an element determined if its electronic configuration is known? Determine
the valency of an element of atomic no. 9.

Sh
(b) Given below are some elements of the Modern Periodic Table. Atomic numbers of the elements are
given in the parentheses:
A(4), B(9), C(14), D(19), E(20)
(i) With the help of the electronic configuration, find out which one of the above elements will
have one electron in its outermost shell?
(ii) Which two elements belong to the same group? Give reasons for your answer.
(iii) Which one of the above elements belonging to the fourth period has bigger atomic radius and
why? 5
Ans. (a) Electronic configuration is the distribution of electrons in the shells of the atom. The number of electrons
in the outermost shell will decide the valency of the element. Valency of the element of atomic no. 9 is 1.
Element (9) ⇒ 2, 7
As it gains 1 electron to fill its shell to attain an octet, its valency is 1.
(b) A(4) ⇒ 2, 2; B(9) ⇒ 2, 7; C(14) ⇒ 2, 8, 4
D(19) ⇒ 2, 8, 8, 1; E(20) ⇒ 2, 8, 8, 2
(i) Element ‘D’ will have one electron in its outermost shell.
(ii) ‘A’ and ‘E’ belong to the same group as both of them have two electrons in the outermost shell and
their valency is 2. Same group elements have same valency.
(iii) Elements ‘D’ and ‘E’ belong to the fourth period as both of them have four shells.
As we move from left to right along a period, the atomic radius decreases due to the increase in
nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the
atom. Thus, element D has bigger atomic radius than element E.
Q.19. (a) Define Electric power. An electrical device of resistance R is connected across a source of voltage V
and draws a current I. Derive an expression for power in terms of current and resistance.
(b) Two electric bulbs rated 100 W; 220 V and 60 W; 220 V are connected in parallel to an electric mains
of 220 V. Find the current drawn by the bulbs from the mains. 5
Ans. (a) Electric Power. Electric Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transformed in an electrical
circuit.
We know that electric work done is,
W = V × I × t
V×I×t
P= t ⇒ P = VI
P–56 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

As per Ohm’s law, V = IR ...(i)


Substituting (i) in the power formula
We get,
P = IR × I = I2R ... where [I is the current, R is the resistance
(b) Resistance of 1st bulb,
V2 220 × 220
R1 = P =
100 = 484 W = R1
nd
Resistance of 2 bulb,
V2 220  220 2420
R2 = P  60

3 W
Total Resistance in parallel,
1 1 1
= +
R R1 R 2
1  1  3  8 2420
R 484 2420 2420 ⇒ R= 8 W
Current drawn by the bulbs from the main line,
V 220 × 8 8
I = R = 2420 = 11 A or 0.73 A
Or
(a) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part of
the circuit containing three resistors R1, R2 and R3 in series connected to a battery of V volts?
(b) Study the given circuit and find out:

s
(i) Current in 12 W resistor. A1

a
(ii) Difference in the readings of A1 and A2, if any.

iv D
+
6V

Sh

Ans. (a) V1 V2 V3

A2
R1 R2 R3

A
+
+ –

Experiment:
• Construct a series circuit as shown in the figure.
• Measure the potential difference across each resistor by connecting a voltmeter parallel to the
resistor.
• Connect the voltmeter so as to read the potential difference across all the resistances (total potential
difference).
• Record the ammeter reading through each resistor and the total current in the circuit.
• Calculate the equivalent resistances from the reading.
Observation:
• Voltmeter shows different measurements across each resistance as V1, V2 and V3 across R1, R2 and
R3 respectively.
• But ammeter shows the same reading in all cases.
Conclusion. Current flowing through all the resistances in series in a circuit is same.
(b) (i) Current through 12 W resistor.
V 6 1
   I = R = 12 = 2 = 0.5 A
(ii) No difference since the ammeters are connected in series, there will be same reading in them.
Q.20. (a) Define vegetative propagation. List its two methods.
(b) Why is this mode practised for growing some types of plants?
(c) Explain the process of budding in Hydra with the help of labelled diagram. 5
Ans. (a) The method of obtaining new plants from the parts of old plants like stems, roots and leaves without
the help of any reproductive organ.
The two methods of vegetative propagation are—
(i) Natural vegetative propagation (ii) Artificial vegetative propagation
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/4) n P–57

(b) Some plants which do not produce viable seeds or produce seeds with prolonged period of dormancy
are cultivated through the mode of vegetative propagation. Thus this method is used for growing of
plants bearing superior traits, because they produce genetically identical plants.
(c) Refer to Q. 29 (SA-II), Chapter 8, Page 119.
Or
What is contraception? List its four different methods. State four reasons for adopting contraceptive
methods.
Ans. A number of techniques developed to prevent and control pregnancy is called contraception.
Different methods of contraception are: Refer to Q. 26 (SA-II), Chapter 8, Page 119.
Reasons for adopting contraceptive methods. Refer to Q. 18(Or) (b), 2019 (Set 31/1/1), Page P-43.
Q.21. (a) List two visible traits of garden pea that Mendel considered in his experiments. How do Mendel’s
experiments show that traits may be dominant of recessive?
(b) With the help of a flow diagram, how would you establish that in human beings the sex of a newborn
is purely a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for a particular
sex of a newborn child. 5
Ans. (a) The contrasting visible characters of garden pea plant that Mendel considered were—(i) Round and
wrinkled seeds and (ii) White and violet flowers.
In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross-bred a tall pea plant with a short pea plant,
he found that the first generation (F1) was of only tall plants. In the F1 progeny, no short plants were
obtained. However, in the F2 generation, both tall and short plants were obtained in the ratio 3 : 1
respectively. In the F2 progeny, both traits tallness and shortness were inherited where the tall character

s
was the dominant trait and short character was the recessive trait. In F1 generation, short trait was not

a
able to show itself in the presence of tall trait.

iv D
This can be depicted by the following Flow Chart:

Sh
Tall plant Short plant
TT × tt Parents

Tt F1 generation

Tt Tt

TT Tt Tt tt F2 generation
Tall Short
(b) Refer to Q. 35 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 142.

Section-E
Q.22. A student mixes sodium sulphate powder in barium chloride powder. What change would the student
observe on mixing the two powders? Justify your answer and explain how he can obtain the desired
change. 2
Ans. Refer to Q. 23(a) (SA-II), Chapter 1, Page 10.
Or
(a) Arrange the following metals in the increasing order of their reactivities:
Copper, Zinc, Aluminium and Iron
(b) List two observations you would record in your notebook 30 minutes after adding iron filings to
copper sulphate solution.
Ans. (a) Copper < Iron < Zinc < Aluminium
(b) Observations recorded: • Brown coating on the surface of the iron nail.
• Blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades away.
Q.23. A solution ‘X’ gives orange colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper, while another solution ‘Y’ gives
bluish colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper. What is the nature of both the solutions? Determine
the pH of solutions ‘X’ and ‘Y’. 2
P–58 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. Solution ‘X’ is acidic in nature as it turns into orange colour when a drop of it falls on a pH paper. Its pH
value will be in the range of 3 to 5 and is moderately acidic.
Solution ‘Y’ is basic in nature as it turns into blue colour when a drop of it falls on a pH paper. Its pH value
ranges from 8 to 11 and is moderately basic.
Q.24. Study the following ray diagram and list two mistakes committed by the student while tracing it. Rectify
these mistakes by drawing the correct ray diagram to show the real position and size of the image
corresponding to the position of the object AB. 2
A

F2 2F2
2F1 B F1 O


Ans. • The position of F1, 2F1, F2 and 2F2 are not marked properly (accurately). The image should be named
AB.
• When the object is between F1 and 2F1 of a convex mirror, then the image should be beyond 2F2 which
is not drawn correctly.
Correct ray diagram:

2F¢
2F F O

a s
iv D
Or

Sh
A student has to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass prism. List four precautions he should
observe for better results.
Ans. Precautions to be observed while tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass prism:
(i) A sharp pencil should be used for drawing the boundary of the glass prism.
(ii) The separation between the two pins should not be less than 5 cm.
(iii) The pin should have sharp tips and fixed vertically.
(iv) Proper arrows should be marked to indicate incident, refracted and emergent ray.
Q.25. Which one of the following is the correct set-up for studying the dependence of the current on the
potential difference across a resistor and why? 2
+V–
R R –V + +A–
+V– +A–
R R
– – –
A V A
+ + +
+ – + – + – + –

A B C D
Ans. ‘A’ is a correct set-up.
The ammeter must be connected in series between the battery and the resistor. The voltmeter should be put
in parallel across the resistor. All the polarities must also be correct.
Set-up ‘A’ satisfies all these, so it is the correct set-up.
Q.26. Write four sequential steps of the procedure of experiment “Preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel
to show stomata.“ 2
Ans. Procedure for preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata. Refer to Q. 24, 2018, Page P-36.
Or
In the experimental set-up to show that “the germinating seeds give out carbon dioxide.” Answer the
following questions:
(i) Why do we keep the conical flask airtight?
(ii) Name the substance kept in the small test tube inside the conical flask. Write its role.
(iii) Why does water rise in the delivery tube?
Ans. (i) To prevent the escape of the gases (CO2) released during germination the conical flask is kept airtight.
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/4) n P–59

(ii) KOH solution is kept in the small test tube. It is used to absorb carbon dioxide.
(iii) Germinating seeds release CO2 which is absorbed by KOH this creates a partial vacuum which caused
the water in the delivery tube to rise.
Q.27. List two observations on the basis of which it may be concluded that the given slide shows binary fission
in Amoeba.
Ans. (i) Constriction appears and the nucleus elongates and becomes thinner in the middle.
(ii) The nucleus elongates more and more and ultimately divides in two followed by the division of
cytoplasm.
These observations give a conclusion that the given slide shows binary fission in Amoeba.

SET II Code No. 31/4/2


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
Section-A
Q.1. Define current. Give its S.I. unit. 1
Ans. Electric current is expressed by the amount of charge flowing through a particular area in unit time.
Its S.I. unit is Ampere (A).
Q.2. Name the component of sunlight which facilitates drying of wheat after harvesting. 1
Ans. The infrared component of sunlight facilitates the drying of wheat after harvesting.

Section-B

a s
Q.3. State laws of refraction of light. 2

iv D
Ans. Refer to Q. 11, 2018, Page P-29.
Or

Sh
List four characteristics of the image formed by a concave mirror of focal length 40 cm when the object is
placed in front of it at a distance of 20 cm from its pole.
Ans. Characteristics of the image formed by the concave mirror are—
(i) The image is formed behind the mirror at a distance of 40 cm from the pole.
(ii) It is enlarged.
(iii) It is virtual.
(iv) It is erect.
Q.4. Draw magnetic field lines in and around a current carrying straight solenoid. 2
Ans. Refer to Q. 21(i), 2019 (Set 31/1/1), Page P-45.
Q.5. Write the name and molecular formula of a carbon compound having its name suffixed with “-ol” and
having two carbon atoms in its molecule. With the help of a chemical equation indicate what happens
when this compound is heated with excess conc. H2SO4. 2
Ans. Name of compound. Ethanol; Molecular formula—C2H5OH
Heating ethanol at 443 K with excess conc. sulphuric acid (H2SO4) results in the dehydration of ethanol to
give ethene.
Conc. H2 SO4
CH3 — CH2 ­— OH  → CH2 = CH2 + H2O
The saturated carbon is converted into an unsaturated one.

Section-C
Q.6. Define the term evolution. “Evolution cannot be equated with progress.” Give examples to justify this
statement. 3
Ans. Refer to Q. 30 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 141.
Q.9. Salt ‘P’, commonly used in bakery products, on heating gets converted into another salt ‘Q’ which itself
is used for the removal of hardness of water and a gas ‘R’ is evolved. The gas ‘R’ when passed through
freshly prepared lime water turns milky. Identify ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’, giving chemical equation for the
justification of your answer. 3
Ans. When baking soda, NaHCO3 (used in baking products) is heated or mixed in water the following reaction
takes place—
Heat
2NaHCO3  → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
P–60 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Sodium carbonate is used to remove hardness of water. The gas evolved is carbon dioxide which turns lime
water milky.
Therefore, Salt ‘P’ is NaHCO3 (Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate), which is used as baking powder.
Salt ‘Q’ is Na2CO3 (Sodium Carbonate), which is used to remove the hardness of water.
Gas ‘R’ is CO2 (Carbon dioxide), which turns lime water milky.
Q.12. The following diagram shows two parallel straight conductors carrying same current. Copy
the diagram and draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines around them showing their
directions. What is the magnitude of magnetic field at a point ‘X’ which is equidistant from the
conductors? Given justification for your answer. 3

Ans. In both the parallel straight conductors, the direction of the magnetic field lines
will be equal as in both, the current is moving in the same direction.
Applying Right-hand thumb rule, we can draw the magnetic field lines around
the given wires. As both the wires have a current flowing downward hence the
direction of the magnetic field will be clockwise for both of them as shown in
figure. At the point ‘X’ the magnitude of the magnetic field is zero. By applying X
right hand thumb rule, we know that every section of the wire contributes equal
magnetic field lines. Point ‘X’ is at equidistant from both the conductors. Since
no two magnetic field lines intersect, the field line appears as a straight line at the point X. So the magnitude
will be zero.
Q.15. What is exploitation of resources with short-term aims? List its four advantages.

s
Ans. Refer to Q. 7(i), 2019 (Set 31/1/3), Page P-49.

iv D a
Section-D

Sh
Q.16. (a) If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plants with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant we get
pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plants of F1 generation, then we obtain pea
plants of F2 generation.
(i) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(ii) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation?
(iii) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 generation, mentioning
the reason for the same.
(b) What are homologous structures? Give an example. Is it necessary that homologous structures
always have common ancestors? 5
Ans. (a) (i) All the plants in F1 generation plants appear tall.
(ii) The ratio of the tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation is 3 (tall) : 1 (dwarf).
(iii) Dwarf plants do not appear in F1 generation as dwarfness is the recessive trait. According to
Mendel’s Law of Dominance, the trait which expresses itself in the hybrid is called dominant and
the other which is unable to express itself is the recessive trait.
(b) The structures which have different basic design but have similar appearance and perform similar
functions are called homologous structures.
For Example, The wings of an insect and a bird.
Yes, it is necessary that homologous structures always have a common ancestor in order to carry
out the different activities. Otherwise there cannot be any similarity in basic plan, internal structure
development or origin.
Q.18. (a) List two limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves.
(b) Write the electronic configuration of two elements A and B whose atomic numbers are 20 and 17
respectively. Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when element A reacts with
element B. State whether this compound is acidic, basic or neutral. Give reason to justify your
answer. 5
Ans. (a) Limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves:
(i) All the elements discovered at that time could not be classified into Octaves. The law was applicable
only upto calcium, as after calcium every eighth element did not posses properties similar to that
of the first.
(ii) Newland did not take into account the elements yet to be discovered. The newly discovered
elements could not fit into his table.
CBSE Examination Paper Science—2019 (Series: JMS/4) n P–61

(b) Electronic configuration of elements ‘A’ and ‘B’: A(20) ⇒ 2, 8, 8, 2


B(17) ⇒ 2, 8, 7
Molecular formula of compound formed when element A reacts with elements B: AB2
Element A B

Valency 2 1
It is a neutral salt. It is a salt of a strong acid and a strong base.

SET III Code No. 31/4/3


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I & Set II.
Section-A
Q.1. Mention the condition under which a current can flow in a conductor. 1
Ans. If the electrons are bound to move freely then the current can flow in a conductor.
Q.2. List two merits of solar cells. 1
Ans. (i) Solar cells convert solar energy directly into electricity.
(ii) They are cost effective in remote areas particularly where cost of installation of other modes is very high.
(iii) Artificial satellites and space probes like Mars orbiters use solar cells as the main source of energy.
Traffic signals, calculators and many toys are fitted with solar cells.

Section-B

a s
Q.3. List four characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens of focal length 20 cm when the object is

iv D
placed in front of it at a distance of 10 cm from its optical centre. 2

Sh
Ans. Characteristics of image formed by the convex lens:
(i) The image will be on the same side of the lens as the object (as the object is between F1 and O).
(ii) It will be enlarged.
(iii) It will be virtual.
(iv) It will be erect.
Or
Define refractive index of a transparent medium. The speed of light in a medium of absolute refractive
index 1.5 is 2×108 ms–1. What is the speed of light in vacuum?
Ans. The refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is given by the ratio of the speed of light in
medium 1 and the speed of light in medium 2.
Speed of light in medium 1
Refractive index (η21) = Speed of light in medium 2
Absolute refractive index = 1.5; Speed of light in medium = 2 × 108 m/s
Speed of light in vacuum = Absolute refractive index × Speed of light in medium
= 1.5 × 2 × 108 m/s = 3 × 108 m/s
Q.4. It is established that an electric current through a conductor produces a magnetic field around it. Is there
a similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam of moving (i) alpha particles, (ii) neutrons? Justify
your answer in each case. 2
Ans. In case of movement of a charged particle, the magnetic field is created around the path on which charged
particle moves.
(i) Alpha particles being positively charged constitute a current in the direction of motion, therefore
magnetic field will be produced around a thin beam of moving alpha particles.
(ii) The neutrons being electrically neutral constitute no current, so no magnetic field will be produced
around a thin beam of moving neutrons.
Q.5. “Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid is an oxidation reaction.“ Justify this statement giving the
relevant equation for the chemical reaction involved. 2
Alkaline KMnO + Heat
4
Ans. CH3CH2OH 
Or Acidified K Cr O + Heat
→ CH3COOH + H2O
2 2 7
Here ethanol is converted into ethanoic acid in the presence of oxidising agents (such as KMnO4 or K2Cr2O7).

Thus, since the conversion involves the addition of oxygen to ethanol, it is an oxidation reaction.
P–62 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Section-C
Q.6. List three roles of forests in conserving the environment. How do the forests get depleted? State two
consequences of deforestation on the environment. 3
Ans. Role of forests in conserving the environment:
(i) Forests help in bringing sufficient rainfall by maintaining a perfect water cycle.
(ii) Forests provide habitat to wild animals and birds, so an ecological balance is maintained by preserving
the biodiversity.
(iii) Forests help to prevent soil erosion and help in maintaining fertility of the soil.
Forests get slowly depleted by the rapid industrialisation and urbanisation. As the population increases,
human needs demand large space for living. This leads to the depletion of forests in many places. Forests
also get depleted due to forest fires, overgrazing by animals, etc.
The consequences of deforestation will be:
(i) Deforestation affects wildlife, plants and humans in different ways, via soil erosion, water cycle
disruption, desertification and habitat loss.
(ii) Deforestation leads to emission of greenhouse gas which contributes to global warming.
Q.8. State right-hand thumb rule to determine the direction of magnetic field around a current carrying
conductor. Apply this rule to find the direction of magnetic field inside and outside a circular loop of
wire lying in the plane of a table and current is flowing through it clockwise. 3
Ans. If you are holding a current carrying straight conductor in your right hand such that the thumb points
towards the direction of current, ‘then your fingers will wrap around the conductor in the direction of the
field lines of the magnetic field. This is known as right-hand thumb rule.

s
Since the current passes through the loop in clockwise direction, the front face of the loop will be the south

iv D a
pole and the back face is the face touching the table will be north pole. According to the right-hand rule, the
direction of magnetic field inside the loop will be pointing downward. Outside the loop, the direction of the

Sh
magnetic field will be upward.
For diagram. Refer to Q. 13(a) (SA-II), Chapter 13, Page 240.
Q.10. A metal X, which is used in thermit process, when heated with oxygen gives an oxide Y which is
amphoteric in nature. Identify X and Y. Write balanced chemical equations of the reactions of oxide Y
with hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide. 3
Ans. When aluminium is heated in oxygen it forms aluminium oxide which is amphoteric in nature.
4Al + 3O2 2Al2O3
X is aluminium. Y is aluminium oxide.
Reaction of Aluminium oxide with hydrochloric acid:
Al2O3 + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
Reaction of Aluminium oxide with sodium hydroxide:
Al2O3 + 2NaOH 2NaAlO2 + H2O
Q.13. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following:
(i) Urinary bladder
(ii) Left kidney
(iii) Left ureter
Ans. Refer to Q. 18(Or) (c), 2018, Page P-34.

Section-D
Q.17. (a) List in tabular form two differences between acquired traits and inherited traits.
(b) Give an example of body characteristics used to determine how close two species are in terms of
evolution and explain it. 5
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 33 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 141.
(b) Basic structure of Forelimbs in human and birds is one such example of a characteristic which shows
closeness of two species in evolutionary terms. The forelimbs in both the species, have similar bones
structure and similar origin, but, over period of time, they have been developed to perform different
suitable functions as per the need. Such organs that have similar basic structure but perform different
functions are called homologous organs. This homologous characteristic helps to know that they have
all evolved from a common ancestor.

####
Series : JBB/1 Roll No.

• Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
• Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-book before attempting it.

SCIENCE
CBSE – 2020
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) Question Paper comprises three sections—A, B and C.
There are 30 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A—questions no. 1 to 14—all questions or part thereof are of one mark each. These questions comprise
multiple choice questions (MCQ), very short answer (VSA), and Assertion–Reason type questions. Answers to these
questions should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section B—questions no. 15 to 24 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answers to these ques-
tions should not exceed 50 to 60 words.
(iv) Section C—questions no. 25 to 30 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answers to these questions
should not exceed 80 to 90 words.
(v) Answers should be brief and to the point. Also the above mentioned word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

a s
(vi) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in some questions in

iv D
each Section. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
(vii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section-A Sh SET I

Q.1. Name a cyclic unsaturated carbon compound.


Code No. 31/1/1

Ans. Benzene =

Q.2. The change in magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric current in it. Name the
underlying phenomenon. 1
Ans. Electromagnetic induction
Answer questions number 3(a) to 3(d) and 4(a) to 4(d) on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraphs and the related studied concepts.
Q.3. The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and death
in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase
their population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place while
general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that
the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children. Various contraceptive
devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
(a) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls. 1
(b) What is the result of reckless female foeticide? 1
(c) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body? 1
(d) Write two factors that determine the size of a population. 1
Ans. (a) Common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls:
(i) On attaining puberty, the male gonads called testes start producing male gametes called sperms
and the female gonads called ovaries start producing female gametes called ova.
(ii) Hair grow on body parts like armpits, pubic area and face.

CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–63


P–64 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) For a healthy society, the male-female sex ratio must be maintained at almost the same level. Due
to reckless female foeticide, the male-female child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate in some
sections of our society.
(c) Chemical method of contraception changes the hormonal balance of the body.
(d) The rate of births and deaths in a given population will determine the size of a population.
Q.4. Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is the main component. Food as well
as potable water are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture.
Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields. These pesticides are absorbed by the
plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken
up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated
progressively at each trophic level. The maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our
bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and body.
(a) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings? 1
(b) Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some
extent. 1
(c) Various steps in a food chain represent: 1
(i) Food web (ii) Trophic level
(iii) Ecosystem (iv) Biomagnification
(d) With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a: 1
(i) Consumer (ii) Producer
(iii) Producer and consumer (iv) Producer and decomposer

a s
Ans. (a) Pesticides are non-biodegradable and get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. Since

iv D
humans occupy the top level in any food chain, so the maximum amount of harmful chemical

Sh
pesticides gets accumulated in human beings.
(b) Washing of foodgrains, vegetables, fruits etc. with warm water is useful to reduce the intake of
pesticides through food to some extent.
(c) (ii) Trophic level
(d) (i) Consumer
Q.5. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime. 1
CaO (s) + H2O (l) Ca(OH)2 (aq)
This reaction can be classified as:
(A) Combination reaction (B) Exothermic reaction
(C) Endothermic reaction (D) Oxidation reaction
Which of the following is a correct option?
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)
Ans. (d) (A) and (B)
Or
When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate
of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction
is an example of a: 1
(a) Combination reaction (b) Displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction (d) Double displacement reaction
Ans. (d) Double displacement reaction
H2S + CuSO4 CuS + H2SO4
Q.6. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium
chloride solution: 1
(A) exchange of atoms takes place (B) exchange of ions takes place
(C) a precipitate is produced (D) an insoluble salt is produced
The correct option is:
(a) (B) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) only (B) (d) (B), (C) and (D)
Ans. (d) (B), (C) and (D)
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 2NaCl + BaSO4
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–65

Q.7. Baking soda is a mixture of: 1


(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
Ans. (c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
Q.8. The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris is:  1
(a) CaSO4 . 2H2O (b) CaSO4 . H2O (c) CaSO4 . 1/2H2O (d) 2CaSO4 . H2O
Ans. (c) CaSO4 . 1/2H2O
Q.9. The laws of reflection hold true for: 1
(a) plane mirrors only (b) concave mirrors only
(c) convex mirrors only (d) all reflecting surfaces
Ans. (d) all reflecting surfaces
Or
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the
mirror. This image is: 1
(a) real (b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted (d) virtual and erect
Ans. (d) virtual and erect
Q.10. At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit:  1

s
(a) varies continuously (b) does not change

a
(c) reduces substantially (d) increases heavily

iv D
Ans. (d) increases heavily

Sh
Or
Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current through the 100 W bulb is 1 A. The
current through the 40 W bulb will be:  1
(a) 0.4 A (b) 0.6 A (c) 0.8 A (d) 1 A
Ans. (d) 1 A
Q.11. Which one of the following is responsible for the sustenance of underground water? 1
(a) Loss of vegetation cover
(b) Division for high water demanding crops
(c) Pollution from urban wastes
(d) Afforestation 
Ans. (d) Afforestation
Q.12. Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum: 1
(A) increases air pollution (B) increases efficiency of machines
(C) reduces global warming (D) produces poisonous gases
The correct option is: 
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (A) and (D) (c) (B) and (C) (d) (C) and (D)
Ans. (b) (A) and (D)
For questions number 13 and 14, two statements are given­—one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.13. Assertion (A): Esterification is a process in which a sweet smelling substance is produced.
Reason (R): When esters react with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid are
obtained.  1
Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
In esterification, an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid in the presence of a mineral acid.
Q.14. Assertion (A): In the process of nuclear fission, the amount of nuclear energy generated by the fission
of an atom of uranium is so tremendous that it produces 10 million times the energy produced by the
combustion of an atom of carbon from coal.
P–66 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Reason (R): The nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium, when bombarded with low energy neutrons,
splits apart into lighter nuclei. The mass difference between the original nucleus and the product
nuclei gets converted to tremendous energy. 1
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Section-B
Q.15. 1 g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change takes place on heating? When
hydrogen gas is passed over this heated substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the chemical
equations of reactions, the name and the colour of the products formed in each case. 3
Ans. When copper powder is heated in a China dish, the copper powder surface becomes coated with black
colour substance due to the formation of copper oxide by surface oxidation.
This is because copper reacts with oxygen in the air upon heating and forms copper oxide.
2Cu + O2 2CuO
(black)
When hydrogen gas is passed over this heated copper oxide, then the black copper oxide is reduced and

red-brown copper metal is obtained because copper oxide is reduced to copper metal whereas hydrogen
is oxidised to water.
Heat
CuO + H2   → Cu + H 2O
(red-brown)
Q.16. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one important use of each. 3
Ans. The products of chlor-alkali process:

a s
(i) Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda) NaOH

iv D
Use: It is used for making soaps and detergents.

Sh
(ii) Chlorine gas (Cl2)
Use: Chlorine is used to sterilize drinking water supply and the water of swimming pools.
(iii) Hydrogen gas (H2)
Use: It is used in the hydrogenation of oils to obtain solid fats (vegetable ghee).
Or
How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of
this salt. Name the type of hardness of water which can be removed by it? 3
Ans. Anhydrous sodium carbonate (soda ash) is dissolved in water and recrystallised to get washing soda
crystals containing 10 molecules of water of crystallisation.
Na2CO3 + 10H2O Na2CO3.10H2O
Anhydrous sodium water Sodium Carbonate
Carbonate (Soda ash) decahydrate (Washing soda)
The solution of washing soda in water is alkaline which turns red litmus to blue.
Washing soda is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
Q.17. 3 mL of ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath. A 5% solution of alkaline
potassium permanganate is added first drop by drop to this solution, then in excess. 3
(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO4 prepared?
(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What happens on adding it in
excess?
(iii) Write chemical equation of this reaction.
Ans. (i) For preparing 5% solution of KMnO4, 5 g of KMnO4 is dissolved into 95 mL of hot water.
(ii) Alkaline KMnO4 is a strong oxidising agent because it provides nascent oxygen, i.e., freshly generated
atomic oxygen which is very-very reactive. On warming ethanol and alkaline KMnO4 solution gently,
ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid and pink colour of the solution disappears. If excess of KMnO4
is added, the purple colour will persist because there is no more alcohol left and hence there is no
reaction.
Alkaline KMnO
4→
(iii) CH3CH2OH + 2[O]  
∆ CH3COOH + H2O
Ethanol Nascent Oxygen Ethanoic acid
Q.18. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away. State the
immediate changes that take place in its body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run? 3
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–67

Ans. Adrenalin hormone is secreted in large amount in the body of the squirrel during scary situation. It speeds
up the heart beat and breathing, raises blood pressure and allows more glucose (carbohydrate) to go into
the blood to give it a lot of energy quickly to fight or to run away.
Or
Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication between
cells in a multi-cellular organism? 3
Ans. Nerve impulses can reach only those cells which are connected by the nervous tissue. Cells cannot
continuously generate and transmit nerve impulses. Thus most multi-cellular organisms use chemical
coordination as means of communication between cells.
Q.19. Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self pollination and cross pollination. What is the
significance of pollination? 3
Ans. Refer to Q. 59 (LA), Chapter 8, Page 128.
Significance of pollination. Pollination is important because it leads to the production of fruits and seeds.
Q.20. What are homologous structures? Give an example. Is it necessary that homologous structures always
have a common ancestor. Justify your answer. 3
Ans. Refer to Q. 16(b), 2019 (Set II, Series JMS/4), Page P-60.
Q.21. Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four instances of observing the Tyndall effect.
3
Ans. The scattering of light by particles in its path is called Tyndall effect.
In a colloidal solution (or colloid), the particles are big enough to scatter light.

a s
Four instances of observing the Tyndall effect:

iv D
(i) The path of light beam becomes visible because the colloidal particles are big enough to scatter light
falling on them in all the directions. This scattered light enters our eyes and we are able to see the

Sh
path of light beam.
(ii) The way of beam of sunlight becomes visible due to Tyndall effect as it passes through dust particles
in the air of a room.
(iii) Tyndall effect can also be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest.
(iv) Milk is a colloid that exhibits the Tyndall effect.
Or
Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a narrow beam of (i) a
monochromatic light, and (ii) white light passes through (a) glass slab and (b) glass prism? 3
Ans. Difference between glass slab and glass prism

Glass slab Glass prism


1. Glass slab is a transparent object having six Glass prism is a transparent object made of
rectangular faces. glass having two triangular ends and three
rectangular sides.
2. The light emerges from a parallel-sided glass In refraction through a glass prism, the emergent
slab in a direction parallel with that in which it ray is not parallel to the incident ray.
enters the glass slab.
3. The angle of emergence is equal to the angle of The incident ray, when produced, cuts the
incidence. emergent ray at an angle called angle of
deviation.
(a) (i) When a narrow beam of monochromatic light passes through a glass slab, the emergent ray
coming out of the glass slab is parallel to the incident ray and laterally displaced.
(ii) When a narrow beam of white light travelling in a glass slab comes out into air obliquely then
the part of light wave on the left side of beam of light emerges out into the air first and right side
of beam of light emerges out into air little later.
(b) (i) When a ray of monochromatic light passes through a prism, it bends towards the base of the
prism (thicker part).
(ii) If a narrow beam of white light is passed through a prism, the white light splits to form a band
of seven colours.
P–68 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.22. Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or the sunset and (ii)
white appearance of the sun at noon when it is overhead. 3
Ans.

Q.23. A V-I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from this graph? Draw a labelled
circuit diagram to obtain such a graph. 3

iv D a
Ans. The V-I graph for a nichrome wire is found to be a straight line passing through the origin. This
shows that Current (A) is directly proportional to the Potential Difference (V). In other words, as the

Sh
V
potential difference V increases, the current I also increases and therefore ratio   remains constant.
I

Q.24. (a) Write the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96,000 coulomb of charge in two hours through a
potential difference of 40 V. 3
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 12(Or)(a), 2018, Page P-30.
(b) Given. Charge, Q = 96,000 C; Time, t = 2 hrs.; Potential difference, V = 40 V
Heat generated, H = ?
Q
As we know, Current, I =
t
96 , 000
I=  ...[∵ 1 hour = 60 × 60 seconds
2 × 60 × 60
I = 13.33 A
We will now calculate the Resistance by using Ohm’s law
V 40
R = = =3
I 13.33
R = 3 
 Heat produced, H = I2 × R × t
= (13.33)2 × 3 × 2 × 60 × 60
= 3838080.24 J
= 3838.08 kJ
Thus, the heat produced is 3838.08 kilo joules.
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–69

Section-C
Q.25. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals.
Why? Where are these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals obtained from their
ores? Take an example to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations. 5
Ans. The oxides of highly reactive metals (like potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and aluminium) are
very stable and cannot be reduced by the most common reducing agent ‘carbon’ to obtain free metals.
This is because these metals have more affinity for oxygen than carbon. So, carbon is unable to remove
oxygen from these metal oxides and hence cannot convert them into free metals. Thus, the highly reactive
metals cannot be extracted by reducing their oxides with carbon.
The highly reactive metals such as potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and aluminium are placed
high up in the reactivity series in its upper part.
The highly reactive metals are extracted by the electrolytic reduction of their molten chlorides and oxides.
Extraction of sodium metal: Sodium metal is extracted by the electrolytic reduction (or electrolysis) of
molten sodium chloride. When electric current is passed through molten sodium chloride, it decomposes
to form sodium metal and chloride gas:
Electrolysis
2 NaCl (l) →
  2Na (s) + Cl2 (g)
Sodium chloride Sodium metal chlorine gas

The formation of sodium and chlorine by the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride can be explained as
follows:
Molten sodium chloride (NaCl) contains free sodium ions (Na+) and free chloride ions (Cl–). During the

a s
electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the following reactions take place at the two electrodes:

iv D
(i) The positive sodium ions (Na+) are attracted to the cathode (negative electrode). The sodium ions take
electrons from the cathode and get reduced to form sodium atoms (or sodium metal):

Sh
At cathode: 2Na+ + 2e– 2Na
Sodium ions Electrons Sodium atoms
(from molten NaCl) (from cathode) (sodium metal)
Thus, sodium metal is produced at cathode (negative electrode).
(ii) The negative chloride ions (Cl–) are attracted to the anode (positive electrode). The chloride ions give
electrons to the anode and get oxidised to form chlorine gas:
At anode: 2Cl– + 2e– Cl2
Chloride ions Electrons Chlorine
(from molten NaCl) (given to anode) gas
Thus, chlorine gas is formed at the anode (positive electrode).
Q.26. The position of certain elements in the Modern Periodic Table are shown below.  5

Group
1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Period
1 G H
2 A I B C
3 D E F

Using the above table answer the following questions giving reasons in each case:
(i) Which element will form only covalent compounds?
(ii) Which element is a non-metal with valency 2?
(iii) Which element is a metal with valency 2?
(iv) Out of H, C and F which has largest atomic size?
(v) To which family does H, C and F belong?
Ans. (i) E (Silicon): As it has 4 electrons in its outermost shell and it is very difficult to lose 4 electrons or
gain 4 electrons to obtain inert gas configuration and also it only shares 4 electrons to obtain inert gas
configuration.
(ii) B (Oxygen): It has valence electrons 6 and gains 2 electrons to form anion having –2 charge.
(iii) D (Magnesium). It has valence electrons 2 and loses 2 electrons to form cation having +2 charge.
P–70 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(iv) F (Element) has largest atomic size among the three as the atomic size increases on going down in a
group due to the addition of energy shell at each step.
(v) Inert gases or noble gases or zero group.
Or
Define atomic size. Give its unit of measurement. In the modern periodic table what trend is observed
in the atomic radius in a group and a period and why is it so? 5
Ans. The size of atom (or atomic size) refers to the radius of atom. The atomic radius is expressed in ‘picometre’
units whose symbol is ‘pm’.
1 picometre = 10–12 metre
or 1 pm = 10–12 m
On moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the size of atoms decreases (or atomic size
decreases).
As we move from left to right in a period, the atomic number of elements increases which means that the
number of protons and electrons in the atoms increases (the extra electrons being added to the same shell).
Due to large positive charge on the nucleus, the electrons are pulled more close to the nucleus and the size
of atom decreases.
On going down in a group of the periodic table, the size of atoms increases (or atomic size increases).
When we move from top to bottom in a group, a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every
step. In this way, the number of electron shells in the atoms increases gradually due to which the size of
atoms also increases.

a s
Q.27. (a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic organisms and terrestrial

iv D
organisms? Explain.
(b) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label—pharynx, trachea, lungs, diaphragm and

Sh
alveolar sac on it. 5
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 14 (SA–II), Chapter 6, Page 97.
(b)

Or
(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human body. 5
Ans. (a) The excretory system of human beings consists of the following main organs:
Two kidneys, a pair of ureters, bladder and urethra.
(b) The dirty blood containing waste like urea (brought by renal artery) enters the glomerulus. The
glomerulus filters the blood. During filteration, the substances like glucose, amino acids, salts, water
and urea etc. present in the blood pass into Bowman’s capsule. Waste substances pass through the
tubule, then the useful substances like all glucose, all amino acids, most salts and most water etc.
are reabsorbed into the blood through blood capillaries surrounding the tubule. Only the waste
substances urea, some unwanted salts and some water remain behind in the tubule. The liquid left
behind in the tubule of nephron is urine. The nephron carries this urine into the collecting duct of the
kidney from where it is carried to ureter. From the ureter, urine passes into urinary bladder. Urine is
stored in the bladder for some time and is ultimately passed out of the body through urethra.
Q.28. (a) What is the law of dominance of traits? Explain with an example.
(b) Why are the traits acquired during the life time of an individual not inherited? Explain. 5
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–71

Ans. (a) According to this law, the characteristics (or traits) of an organism are determined by internal ‘factors’
which occur in pairs. Only one of a pair of such factors can be presented in a single gamete. This law
explains expression of only one of the parental character in F1 generation and expression of both in
F2 generation.
For Example: Refer to Q. 50 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 147.
(b) A trait (or characteristic) of an organism which is not inherited but develops in response to the
environment is called an acquired trait.
The acquired traits of organisms cannot be passed on to their future generations. As these traits do
not bring any change in the genes of gametes.
The traits (or characteristics) of parents are passed to their offsprings through genes in reproductive
cells (or gametes) during the process of reproduction. So, for the trait of an organism to be passed on,
it must have been caused by a change in the genes (or DNA) present in the reproductive cells of the
organism. In other words, only those traits can be transmitted to future generations in which changes
have occurred in the genes (or DNA) present in the reproductive cells (or gametes) of parent organisms.
Q.29. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the formation of image, when the object is
placed:
(i) between optical centre and principal focus of a convex lens.
(ii) anywhere in front of a concave lens.
(iii) at 2F of a convex less.
State the signs and values of magnifications in the above mentioned cases (i) and (ii). 5
Ans. (i) Formation of image, when the object is placed between

a s
optical centre and principal focus of a convex lens:

iv D
h1 È h = Height of the object
m= +  ... Í 1
Î h2 = Height of the image

Sh
h2
 m > +1
The image formed is virtual and erect, so the sign of
magnification will be positive.

(ii) Formation of image, when the object is placed anywhere


in front of a concave lens:
h1
Now, m = +   m < +1
h2
The image formed is virtual and erect. Since
image formed is diminished, therefore the value of
magnification will be less than one.

(iii) Formation of image, when the object is placed at 2F of a convex


lens:
h1
Now, m = +  m = –1
h2

Or
An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm.
(i) At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image?
(ii) Find the size of the image.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case. 5
Ans. Given. Height of object, h1 = 4 cm; u = –25 cm; f = –15 cm; v = ?; h2 = ?
(i) By applying mirror formula,
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
1 1 1 1 1 -1
⇒ + =  - =
v -25 -15 v 25 15
P–72 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

1 -1 1 -5 + 3 -2 -75
 = + = =  v= cm = –37.5 cm
v 15 25 75 75 2
A real sharp image is formed on the screen when it is placed at 37.5 cm in front of the mirror.

h
(ii) Now, 2 =
-v
  
h2
=
- ( )
-75
2
h1 u 4 -25
-75
 h2 = × 4 = –6 cm
2 ¥ 25
Therefore, a magnified inverted image of 6 cm is obtained.

(iii)

Object is placed between F and C in front of the concave mirror.

s
Q.30. (a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.

a
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.

iv D
(c) State the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.

Sh
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the material of the electromagnet
is fixed. 5
Ans. (a) An electromagnet is a magnet consisting of a long coil of insulated copper wire wrapped around a
soft iron core that is magnetised only when electric current is passed through the coil.
Uses. Electric bells, magnetic levitation, etc.
(b) Diagram to show how an electromagnet is made:

(c) The core of an electromagnet must be of soft iron because soft iron loses all of its magnetism when
current in the coil is switched off.
(d) The strength of an electromagnet depends on—
• the number of turns in the coil. If we increase the number of turns in the coil, the strength of
electromagnet increases.
• the current flowing in the coil. If the current in the coil is increased, the strength of electromagnet
increases.

SET II Code No. 31/1/2


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
Section-A
Q.1. Name the functional group present in propanone. 1
Ans. Propanone functional group = Ketone
(> C = 0)
Q.5. The compound obtained on reaction of iron with steam is/are: 1
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe3O4 (c) FeO (d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
Ans. (b) Fe3O4
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–73

Or
An element ‘X’ reacts with O2 to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also
soluble in water. The element ‘X’ is likely to be: 1
(a) Iron (b) Calcium (c) Carbon (d) Silicon
Ans. (b) Calcium
Q.11. In an ecosystem, 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form
of: 1
(a) Heat energy (b) Chemical energy
(c) Mechanical energy (d) Light energy
Ans. (b) Chemical energy
Q.12. Soil fertility is determined by its ability to: 1
(a) Decay organic matter (b) Hold organic matter
(c) Hold water (d) Support life
Ans. (d) Support life
For questions number 13 and 14, two statements are given—one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reaction (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

a s
Q.13. Assertion (A): In a homologous series of alcohols, the formula for the second member is C2H5OH and

iv D
the third member is C3H7OH.
Reason (R): The difference between the molecular masses of the two consecutive members of a

Sh
homologous series is 144. 1
Ans. (c) A is true but R is false.
Section-B
Q.15. What is ‘rusting’? Describe with a labelled diagram an activity to investigate the conditions under
which iron rusts. 3
Ans. When an iron object is left in damp air (or water) for a considerable time, it gets covered with a red-brown
flaky substance called rust. Thus the corrosion of iron is called rusting. Chemically rust is hydrated iron
(III) oxide, Fe2O3 . xH2O.
Activity to investigate the conditions under which iron rusts. Take three test tubes. Mark them as A, B
and C respectively. Place few clean iron nails in each of these test tubes. Pour some ordinary water in
test tube ‘A’. Pour some boiled and distilled water in test tube ‘B’ and put 1 ml of oil into it. Then put
some anhydrous calcium chloride in test tube ‘C’. Cork all the three test tubes tightly. Anhydrous calcium
chloride will absorb all the moisture from test tube ‘C’.
Leave these test tubes for some days and then observe. You will observe that nails of test tube ‘A’ get
rusted and the nails of test tubes ‘B’ and ‘C’ do not get rusted. Nails of test tube ‘A’ got both moisture and
oxygen of air. Nails of test tube ‘B’ got only pure water while the nails of test tube ‘C’ were only exposed
to dry air.
This activity shows that moisture and air both are needed for the rusting of iron metal articles.


Q.19. (a) List in tabulor form two differences between binary fission and multiple fission.
(b) What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length? 3
P–74 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Ans. (a) Difference between binary fission and multiple fission: Refer to Q. 11 (SA-I), Chapter 8, Page 117.
(b) When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length, it breaks into two or more fragments
and each fragment then grows into a new spirogyra.
Q.23. (a) State the relation correlating the electric current flowing in a conductor and the voltage applied
across it. Also draw a graph to show this relationship.
(b) Find the resistance of a conductor if the electric current flowing through it is 0.35 A when the
potential difference across it is 1.4 V. 3
Ans. (a) At a constant temperature, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference (voltage) across its ends.
I  V  V  I
V=R×I

V
 = R (resistance) which is a constant
I
The relationship between current and voltage is given by Ohm’s law.

The graph between Potential Difference (V) and corresponding current
values (I) is a straight line passing through the origin.
Since the current potential difference graph is a straight line, it shows
that current is directly proportional to the potential difference.

a s
iv D
(b) Given. R = ?; I = 0.35 A; V = 1.4 V
V = IR (Ohm’s law)

Sh
V 14 ¥ 100 14 ¥ 10
 Resistance, R = = = =4
I 10 ¥ 35 35

Section-C
Q.25. (a) What is thermit process? Where is this process used? Write balanced chemical equation for the
reaction involved.
(b) Where does the metal aluminium, used in the process, occur in the reactivity series of metals?
(c) Name the substances that are getting oxidised and reduced in the process. 5
Ans. (a) The reduction of a metal oxide to form metal by using aluminium powder as a reducing agent is
called a thermite reaction (or thermit process).
A mixture of iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder is ignited with a burning magnesium ribbon.
Aluminium reduces iron oxide to produce iron metal with the evaluation of lot of heat. Due to this
heat, iron metal is produced in the molten state.
Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) 2Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + Heat
Iron (III) oxide Aluminium Iron Metal Aluminium
powder (Molten state) oxide
(Reducing agent)

The molten iron is then poured between the broken iron pieces to weld them (to join them).
(b) Aluminum is used as a reducing agent in those cases where the oxide is of a comparatively lesser
reactive metal than zinc which cannot be satisfactorily reduced by carbon, as more reactive metal
(aluminium) can displace a comparatively less reactive metal from its metal oxide to give free metal.
For example, manganese and chromium which are moderately reactive metals are extracted by the
reduction of their oxides with aluminum powder.
(c) Aluminium powder reduces the metal oxide to metal and is itself oxidised to aluminium oxide.
Q.28. (a) What is genetics?
(b) What are genes? Where are the genes located?
(c) State and define three factors responsible for the rise of a new species. 5
Ans. (a) Gentics is a branch of biology concerned with the study of genes, genetic variation and heredity in
organisms. In other words, genetics is the scientific study of the way that the development of living
things is controlled by qualities that have been passed from parents to children.
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–75

(b) Genes are units of heredity which transfer characteristics (or traits) from parents to their offsprings
during reproduction.
A gene is a unit of DNA on a chromosome which governs the synthesis of one protein that controls
a specific characteristics of an organism.
(c) Factors responsible for the rise of a new species. Refer to Q. 28 (SA-II), Chapter 9, Page 140.

SET III Code No. 31/1/3


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I & Set II.
Section-A
Q.2. State an important advantage of using alternating current (a.c.) over direct current (d.c.). 1
Ans. Alternating current can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of electrical energy.
Q.7. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to ethanoic acid a gas evolves. Consider the following
statements about the gas evolved? 1
(A) It turns lime water milky. (B) It is evolved with a brisk effervescence.
(C) It has a smell of burning sulphur. (D) It is also a by-product of respiration.
The correct statements are:
(a) (A) and (C) only (b) (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (B) and (D)
Ans. (d) (A), (B) and (D)

a s
Q.8. When a small amount of acid is added to water, the phenomena which occur are:  1

iv D
(A) Dilution (B) Neutralisation
(C) Formation of H3O+ ions (D) Salt formation

Sh
The correct statements are: 
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D) (c) (A) and (B) (d) (C) and (D)
Ans. (a) (A) and (C)
Q.9. A real image is formed by the light rays after reflection or refraction when they:  1
(A) actually meet or intersect with each other.
(B) actually converge at a point.
(C) appear to meet when they are produced in the backward direction.
(D) appear to diverge from a point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (D) (c) (A) and (B) (d) (B) and (C)
Ans. (c) (A) and (B)
Or
Consider the following properties of virtual images: 1
(A) cannot be projected on the screen.
(B) are formed by both concave and convex lens.
(C) are always erect.
(D) are always inverted.
The correct properties are:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (A) and (B) (c) (A), (B) and (C) (d) (A), (B) and (D) 
Ans. (c) (A), (B) and (C)
For questions number 13 and 14, two statements are given—one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.14. Assertion (A): A solar cooker cooks the meal due to green house effect.
Reason (R): The plane mirror is responsible for producing the green house effect. 1
Ans. (c) A is true but R is false.
P–76 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Section-B
Q.17. (a) Draw the structure for (i) ethanol, (ii) ethanoic acid.
(b) Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid considered an oxidation reaction? Write the
oxidising agent used in the reaction involved. 3
Ans. (a) An ‘atom’ or ‘a group of atoms’ which makes a carbon compound reactive and decides its properties
(or functions) is called a functional group.
(i) Ethanol  Alcohol group (—OH)
(ii) Ethanoic acid  carboxylic acid group (—COOH)
H H H
H—C—C—O—H H—C—C = O
H H H OH
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
(b) Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid is considered as oxidation reaction because addition of oxygen
takes place.
Alkaline KMnO4 or Acidified K2Cr2O7 is used as an oxidising agent in the conversion of ethanol to
ethanoic acid.
Q.18. Name the parts (a) to (e) in the following diagram.
What is the term given to the sequence of events occurring in the diagram? 3

a s
Sh iv D
Ans. (a) Stimulus
(b) Sensory neuron
(c) Spinal cord
(d) Relay neuron
(e) motor neuron
Reflex action is the term given to the sequence of events in the diagram.
Or
(a) What is tropism?
(b) How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support? 3
Ans. (a) A growth movement of a plant part in response to an external stimulus in which the direction of
stimulus determines the direction of response is called tropism. Tropism is a directional movement
of a plant caused by its growth.
(b) Tendrils are sensitive to touch (or contact) of other objects.
When a tendril touches an object, then the distribution of auxin at the tip of the tendril gets disturbed.
The auxin hormone collects the side of the tendril which is not touching the solid object. As a result
the side of the tendril in contact with the object grows slowly than its other side. This causes the
tendril to bend towards the object by growing towards it, wind around the object and cling to it.
Q.23. The near point of the eye of a person is 50 cm. Find the nature and power of the corrective lens required
by the person to enable him to see clearly the objects placed at 25 cm from the eye. 3
Ans. Given. Near point of the eye of a person = 50 cm
v = –50 cm; u = –25 cm; f=?
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/1] n P–77

Using lens formula,


1 1 1 1 1 1
- =  - =
v u f -50 -25 f

-1 1 1 1 -1 + 2 1

 + =  = =
50 25 f f 50 50


\ f = +50 cm
1 1 ¥ 100
Now, Power of lens, P = f (in metres)  P = +50 = +2D
Therefore, a convex lens of power +2 diopter is required by the person to see clearly.
Q.27. (a) A gas is released during photosynthesis. Name the gas and also state the way by which the gas is
evolved.
(b) What are stomata? What governs the opening and closing of stomata? 5
Ans. (a) Oxygen gas is released during photosynthesis. Oxygen gas is released due to the splitting of water
into hydrogen and oxygen by light energy in the chlorophyll.
(b) Stomata is a pore present on the epidermis of leaves and mostly found on a leaf’s lower surface. Stomata are
capable of opening and closing as per the surrounding environmental conditions. They help in exchange of
gases during respiration and photosynthesis.
Opening and closing of stomata: The opening and closing of stomatal pores is controlled by guard
cells. When water flows into the guard cells, they swell, become curved and cause the pore to open.

s
On the other hand, when the guard cells lose water, they shrink, become straight and close the

a
stomatal pore. A large amount of water is also lost from the cells of the plant leaves through open

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stomatal pores. So, when the plant does not need carbon dioxide and wants to conserve water, the

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stomatal pores are closed.

Or
(a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label—gall bladder, pancreas, liver and small
intestine on it.
(b) Give two reasons to explain why absorption of digested food occurs mainly in the small intestine.
5
Ans. (a)
P–78 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(b) Reasons to explain why absorption of digested food occurs mainly in the small intestine:
(i) The small intestine is the main region for absorption of digested food.
(ii) The inner surface of small intestine has millions of tiny, finger-like projections called villi. The
presence of villi gives the inner walls of the small intestine a very large surface area and the large
surface area of small intestine helps in the rapid absorption of digested food.
Q.30. (a) Explain with the help of the pattern of magnetic field lines the distribution of magnetic field due
to a current carrying a circular loop.
(b) Why is it that the magnetic field of a current carrying coil having n turns, is ‘n’ times as large as
that produced by a single turn (loop)? 5
Ans. (a) The pattern of magnetic field due to current carrying circular loop are circular near the current
carrying loop but the concentric circles representing magnetic field lines become bigger and bigger.
At the centre of the circular loop, the magnetic field lines are straight. Therefore on moving away
from the centre of circular loop, magnetic field lines keep on diverging.

a s
iv D
(b) If there is a circular coil having n turns, the magnetic field produced by this current carrying circular
coil will be n times as large as that produced by a circular loop of a single turn of wire, because the

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current in each circular turn of coil flows in the same direction and magnetic field produced by each
turn of circular coil then just adds up.

]••••]
Series : JBB/3 Roll No.

• Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
• Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-book before attempting it.

SCIENCE
CBSE – 2020
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions:
Same as in 2020 (Series: JBB/1)

SET I Code No. 31/3/1


Section-A
Q.1. How are covalent bonds formed?1
Ans. Covalent bonds are formed by sharing of electrons between the two atoms in order to acquire inert gas
configuration.
Q.2. Define eletropositivity. 1
Ans. The tendency to lose electrons by atoms to form electropositive ions is called electro-positivity.

a s
Or

iv D
The atomic radii of first group elements are given below: 1

Sh
Group-I element Na K Rb Cs
Atomic Radii (pm) 86 231 244 282

State the reason behind the observed trend in the above elements.
Ans. On going down in a group of periodic table, the size of atoms increases because a new shell of electrons
is added to the atoms at every step.
Q.3. Answer questions number 3(a) to 3(d) on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studies concepts.
The Tehri dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world. The Tehri dam withholds
a reservoir of capacity 4.0 km3 and surface area 52 km2. It is used for irrigation, municipal water supply
and the generation of 1000 MW of hydro electricity.
The Tehri Dam has been the object of protests. Environment activist Shri Sunder Lal Bahuguna led the
“Anti Tehri Dam Movement“ from 1980s to 2014. The protest was against the displacement of town
inhabitants and environmental consequences of the weak ecosystem. The relocation of more than 1,00,000
people from the area has led to protracted legal battles over resettlement rights and ultimately resulted in
the delayed completion of the project.
(a) How is hydropower harnessed? 1
(b) Define 1 MW. 1
(c) Mention two disadvantages of constructing Tehri dam. 1
(d) What happens when water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine? 1
Ans. (a) Hydropower is harnessed by making dams and by using the energy contained in flowing water to
produce electricity.
(b) MW (megawatt) is a unit of measuring power that is equivalent to one million watt.
 1 MW = 1 × 106 W
(c) Refer to Q. 40 (SA-II), Chapter 15, Page 261.
(d) When water from great heights is made to fall on the blades of turbine, a high pressure jet of fast
flowing water pushes on the blades of turbine with a great force and makes it to rotate rapidly.
When the turbine rotates, its shaft also rotates and drives the generator. The generator produces
electricity.

CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–79


P–80 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.4. Questions number 4(a) to 4(d) are based on the table given below. Study the table in which the levels
of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) in women are given and answer the questions that follow on
the basis of understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
Age Range Normal (mU/L) Low (mU/L)
18–29 years 0.4–2.34 mU/L < 0.4 mU/L
30–49 years 0.4–4.0 mU/L < 0.4 mU/L
50–79 years 0.46–4.68 mU/L < 0.46 mU/L
Women are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during menstruation, while giving birth
and after going through menopause. Around 5% of women in the United States have some kind of thyroid
problem compared to 3% of men. Despite claims that high TSH increases your risk for heart disease, a 2013
study found no link between high TSH and heart diseases. But a 2017 study showed that older women are
especially at risk for developing thyroid cancer if they have high TSH levels along with thyroid nodules.
(a) A 35 year old woman has TSH level 6.03 mU/L. What change should she bring in her diet to
control this level? 1
(b) When do women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level? 1
(c) State the consequences of low TSH level. 1
(d) Name the mineral that is responsible for synthesis of hormone secreted by thyroid gland. 1
Ans. (a) The woman should include in her diet food rich in iodine, vitamin A, zinc and protein.
(b) Women are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during menstruation, while giving

s
birth and after going through menopause.

iv D a
(c) Consequences of low TSH level. (i) weight-gain even after taking normal diet; (ii) dry and scaly skin;
(iii) depression and (iv) hairfall.

Sh
(d) Iodine is responsible for synthesis of thyroxine hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
Q.5. The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because: 1
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth.
Ans. (a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
Q.6. A cylindrical conductor of length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. The area
of cross section of another conductor of same material and same resistance but of length ‘2l’ is 1
A 3A
(a) (b) (c) 2A (d) 3A
2 2
Ans. (c) 2A
Q.7. The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance 1/ 2 W is  1
(a) 2 W (b) 1 W (c) 2.5 W (d) 8 W
Ans. (a) 2 W
Q.8. A diagram of traditional water harvesting system is
given below:
The statement which defines the system and its
parts is
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system
and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area &
C = Shallow dugwell
(b) This is an ideal setting of the Shallow dugwell system and A = Catchment area;
B = Saline area and C = Khadin
(c) This is an ideal setting of Catchment area and A = Khadin, B = Saline area and C = Shallow
dugwell
(d) This is showing Saline area and A = Catchment area; B = Khadin and C = Shallow dugwell 1
Ans. (a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area & C = Shallow
dugwell.
Or
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–81

The major ill effect of mono culture practice in forests is on the 1


(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction.
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests.
(c) industries.
(d) forest department.
Ans. (a) biodiversity which faces large destruction.
Q.9. Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these
two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was
basic. The factories located near A and B are 1
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near A.
Ans. (c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
Q.10. In which of the following, the identity of initial substance remains unchanged? 1
(a) Curdling of milk (b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
(c) Fermentation of grapes (d) Digestion of food
Ans. (b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
Q.11. An aqueous solution ‘A’ turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an aqueous solution ‘B’
to ‘A’, the pink colour disappears. The following statement is true for solution ‘A’ and ‘B’. 1

s
(a) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base.

a
(b) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid.

iv D
(c) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.

Sh
(d) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than 7.
Ans. (c) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.
Q.12. An element ‘X‘ is forming an acidic oxide. Its position in modern periodic table will be 1
(a) Group 1 and Period 3 (b) Group 2 and Period 3
(c) Group 13 and Period 3 (d) Group 16 and Period 3
Ans. (d) Group 16 and Period 3
Or
Consider the following statements about an element ‘X‘ with number of protons 13. 1
(A) It forms amphoteric oxide
(B) Its valency is three
(C) The formula of its chloride is XCl3
The correct statement(s) is/are
(a) only (A) (b) only (B) (c) (A) and (C) (d) (A), (B) and (C)
Ans. (d) (A), (B) and (C)
Note: For questions number 13 and 14, two statements are given—one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q.13. Assertion (A):
Following are the members of a homologous series: 1
CH3OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason (R): A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by—CH2— unit is called a
homologous series.
Ans. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Q.14. Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric iron and heater.1
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have
low melting points than their constituent metals.
Ans. (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
P–82 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Section-B
Q.15. Mention with reason the colour changes observed when: 3
(i) silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(ii) copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen.
(iii) a piece of zinc is dropped in copper sulphate solution.
Ans. (i) Refer to Q. 6, 2019 (Set I, Series JMS/1), Page P-40.
(ii) When copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen it forms a black substance Copper
(II) oxide.
Heat
2Cu (s) + O2 (g) æææ Æ 2CuO (s)
Copper (II) oxide (black)
(iii) When a piece of zinc is dropped in copper sulphate solution, the blue colour of the copper sulphate
solution starts disappearing because zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate and forms colourless
zinc sulphate.
CuSO4 (aq) + Zn (s) ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
(blue) (colourless)
Q.16. Complete and balance the following chemical equations: 3
(i) NaOH (aq) + Zn (s)
(ii) CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)
(iii) HCl (aq) + H2O (l) 
Ans. (i) 2NaOH (aq)  +  Zn (s)    Na2ZnO2 (aq) + H2 (g)

s
Sodium zincate Hydrogen

a
(ii) CaCO3 (aq)  +  H2O (l)  +  CO2 (g)  Ca(HCO3)2 (aq)

iv D
Calcium hydrogen carbonate

Sh
(iii) HCl (aq) + 
H2O (l)    H3O+ + Cl–
Or
During electrolysis of brine, a gas ‘G’ is liberated at anode. When this gas ‘G’ is passed through slaked
lime, a compound ‘C’ is formed, which is used for disinfecting drinking water.
(i) Write formula of ‘G’ and ‘C’.
(ii) State the chemical equation involved.
(iii) What is common name of compound ‘C’? Give its chemical name. 3
Ans. (i) Formula of G = Cl2 (Chlorine gas);
Formula of C = CaOCl2
(ii) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 CaOCl2 + H2O
slaked lime
(iii) Common name of ‘C’ = Bleaching powder
Chemical name of ‘C’ = Calcium oxychloride
Q.17. Study the data of the following three categories A, B and C. 3
Category Name of the element Atomic Mass
Li 7
A Na 23
K 39
N 14
B P 31
As 74
B 10.8
C Al 27
Ga 69.7
(i) From the given three categories A, B and C, pick the one which forms Dobereiner’s Triads.
(ii) Why did Mendeleev place elements of category A, B and C in three different groups.
(iii) Is Newland law of Octaves applicable to all the three categories? Give reason to justify your
answer.
Ans. (i) ‘A’ forms Dobereiner’s Triads because
7 + 39 46
Mass of Na = Average mass of Li and K = = = 23
2 2
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–83

(ii) Mendeleev placed A, B, C in three different groups as the elements belonging to A and C form
different type of oxides and hydrides, for example,
Category A: Oxides — Li2O, Na2O
Hydrides — LiH, NaH, KH
Category B: Oxides — N2O5, P2O5, As2O5
Hydrides — NH3, PH3, AsH3
Category C: Oxides — B2O3, Al2O3, Ga2O3
Hydrides — BH3, AlH3, Ga2H3
(iii) Newland law of Octaves is applicable to only category ‘A’ (Li, Na, K) because Newland’s law of
Octaves was applicable to the classification of elements up to calcium only. After calcium every
eighth element did not possess the properties similar to that of the first element. Newland’s law of
Octaves worked well with lighter elements only.
Q.18. (a) From the following group of organisms create a food chain which
is the most advantageous for Human beings in terms of energy.
(b) State the possible disadvantage if the cereal plant is growing in soil
rich in pesticides.
(c) Construct a food web using the organisms mentioned above. 3
Ans. (a) Food Chain: Cereal Plant  Human being
Since only 10% energy is transferred to the next level thus there is a gradual reduction in the amount
of energy. So herbivores acquire the highest energy from the producers.

s
(b) Some harmful chemicals like pesticides, when absorbed by the plants through soil and water, get

a
transferred from first trophic level to the last trophic level of the food chain. As these chemicals are non-

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degradable, their concentration in the bodies of living organisms at each trophic level progressively

Sh
increases. This increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals in the body of living organisms
at each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification. The level of concentration of
chemicals is maximum for human beings as they are at the highest trophic level.
(c) Food web:
Cereal plant

Human being
Goat Rat
Hawk
Snake

Or
(a) Write two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to the
usage of plastic bags.
(b) List any two practices that can be followed to dispose off the waste produced in our homes. 3
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 30, 31 (SA-I), Chapter 15, Page 259.
(b) Practices that can be followed to dispose off the waste produced in our homes:
(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste in
separate dustbins.
(ii) Reusing plastic containers and glass containers to store kitchen items.
Q.19. (a) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion.
(i) Enzyme trypsin (ii) Enzyme lipase
(b) List two functions of finger like projections present in the small intestine. 3
Ans. (a) (i) Enzyme trypsin breaks proteins into peptones and peptides and finally to amino acids.
(ii) Enzyme lipase breaks down emulsified fats into glycerol and finally to fatty acids.
(b) Refer to Q. 27(Or)(b), 2020 (Set I, JBB/1). Page P-77.
Q.20. (a) Classify the following as homologous or analogous pairs: 3
(i) Broccoli and Cabbage (ii) Ginger and Radish
(iii) Forelimbs of birds and lizards (iv) Wings of a bat and Wings of a bird
(b) State the main feature that categorises a given pair of organs as homologous or analogous.
Ans. (a) (i) Broccoli and cabbage are homologous.
P–84 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(ii) Ginger and radish are analogous because ginger is a modified stem and radish is a root but both
perform the same function of food storage.
(iii) Forelimbs of birds and lizards are homologous.
(iv) Wings of a bat and wings of a bird are analogous.
(b) Refer to Q. 6, (NCERT Question with solutions), Chapter 9, Page 135.
Q.21. A green stemmed rose plant denoted by GG and a brown stemmed rose plant denoted by gg are
allowed to undergo a cross with each other. 3
(a) List your observations regarding
(i) Colour of stem in their F1 progeny.
(ii) Percentage of brown stemmed plants in F2 progeny if F1 plants are self pollinated.
(iii) Ratio of GG and Gg in the F2 progeny.
(b) Based on the findings of this cross, what conclusion can be drawn? 3
Ans. Green stemmed rose plant = GG; Brown stemmed rose plant = gg
(a) (i)

a s
All are green-stemmed.

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(ii) If F1 progeny is self pollinated then

Sh

1
 % of brown stemmed progeny = × 100 = 25%
4
(iii) Ratio of GG and Gg in F2 progeny = 1 : 2
(b) Conclusion. The characteristics (or traits) of an organism are determined by internal ‘factors’ which
occur in pairs. Only one pair of such factors can be present in a single gamete. One of such traits is
dominant over the other trait.
Q.22. The diagram given below shows an object O and its image I.
Without actually drawing the ray diagram, state the following:
(i) Type of lens (Converging/Diverging)
(ii) Name two optical instruments where such an image is
obtained.
(iii) List three characteristics of the image formed if this lens is replaced by a concave mirror of focal length
‘f’ and an object is placed at a distance ‘f/2’ in front of the mirror. 3
Ans. (i) Converging
(ii) • Microscope • Magnifying glass • Simple camera
(iii) Image obtained by a concave mirror when the object is placed at a distance of f/2 is:
• virtual and erect;     • larger than the object (magnified); and   • behind the mirror.
Q.23. Give reasons for the following: 3
(i) There is either a convergence or a divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current
carrying straight solenoid.
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–85

(ii) The current carrying solenoid when suspended freely rests along a particular direction.
(iii) The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating.
Ans. (i) One end of the current carrying solenoid acts like a north pole and the other end acts like a south pole.
The magnetic field is stronger near the poles, therefore there is either a convergence (at south pole) or
divergence (at north pole) of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight solenoid.
(ii) One end of the current carrying solenoid acts like a north pole and the other end a south pole. So, if
a current carrying solenoid is suspended freely, it will come to rest pointing in the north and south
direction (just like a freely suspended bar magnet).
(iii) The use of an electric fuse prevents the electric circuit and the appliance from a possible damage by
stopping the flow of unduly high electric current. A fuse wire works because of its lower melting point.
If a fuse with larger rating is used in an appliance, the fuse wire shall not melt and hence would fail to
serve the required purpose.
Q.24. (a) With the help of labelled ray diagram show the path followed by a narrow beam of monochromatic
light when it passes through a glass prism.
(b) What would happen if this beam is replaced by a narrow beam of white light? 3
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 23 (SA-II), Chapter 10, Page 160.
(b) When a narrow beam of white light passes through a prism, it emerges as a spectrum of all components
of white light.
For Fig. Refer to Q. 12(a) (SA-II), Page 198.
Or

s
(a) A person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia.

iv D a
(i) What kind of lenses can correct this defect?
(ii) How are these lenses prepared?

Sh
(b) A person needs a lens of power +3D for correcting his near vision and –3D for correcting his
distant vision. Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to correct these defects. 3
Ans. (a) (i) When a person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia, he should use spectacles
having bifocal lenses.
(ii) Bifocal lenses are prepared in such a manner in which the upper part consists of concave lens (to
correct myopia) used for distant vision and the lower part consists of a convex lens (to correct
hypermetropia) used for reading purposes.
1 1 100
(b) When P1 = +3D:  We know, f1 = =+ m=+ cm = +33.3 cm
P1 3 3
1 1 100
When, P2 = –3D:  As we know, f2 = =- m=- cm = –33.3 cm
P2 3 3
Section-C
Q.25. Write balanced chemical equations to explain what happens, when
(i) Mercuric oxide is heated.
(ii) Mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide is heated.
(iii) Aluminium is reacted with manganese dioxide.
(iv) Ferric oxide is reduced with aluminium.
(v) Zinc carbonate undergoes calcination. 5
Ans. (i) When mercuric oxide is heated to about 300º C, it decomposes (gets reduced) to form mercury metal.
2HgO (s) æHeat
ææÆ 2Hg (l) + O2 (g)
Mercuric oxide Mercury Oxygen
(ii) When mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide is heated in the absence of air, copper metal
and sulphur dioxide gas is liberated.
2Cu2O (s) + Cu2S æHeat
ææÆ 6Cu (s) + SO2 (g)
(iii) When manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder, then manganese metal is produced.
3MnO2 (s) + 4Al (s) 3Mn (l) + 2Al2O3 (s) + Heat
(iv) Aluminium reduces Ferric oxide to produce iron metal with the evolution of lot of heat. Due to this
heat, iron metal is produced in the molten state.
Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) 2Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + Heat
P–86 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

(v) When zinc carbonate is heated strongly in the absence of air (calcinated), it decomposes to zinc oxide
and carbon dioxide.
ZnCO3 (s) æCalcinated
ææææ Æ ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)
Or
(i) By the transfer of electrons, illustrate the formation of bond in magnesium chloride and identify
the ions present in this compound.
(ii) Ionic compounds are solids. Give reasons.
(iii) With the help of a labelled diagram show the experimental set up of action of steam on a metal. 5
Ans. (i) Refer to Q. 23(b), (LA), Chapter 3, Page 36.
(ii) Ionic compounds are solids because their oppositely charged ions attract one another strongly and
form a regular crystal structure.
(iii)

a s
Sh iv D
Q.26. (a) Compare soaps and detergents on the basis of their composition and cleansing action in hard water.
(b) What happens when ethanol is treated with sodium metal? State the behaviour of ethanol in this
reaction.
(c) Draw the structure of cyclohexane.
(d) Name the following compound: 5
H
H—C—C—H
O H
Ans. (a) Difference between soaps and detergents. Refer to Q. 72 (LA), Chapter 4, Page 62.
(b) Ethanol reacts with sodium metal to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas.
2C2H5OH + 2Na 2C2H5ONa + H2
Ethanol Sodium ethoxide
This shows that ethanol does not produce H+ ion so it is neither acidic nor basic in nature. It is a
neutral compound.
(c) Structure of cyclohexane: Refer to Q. 8(b), 2018, Page P-29.
(d) CH3CHO (ethanal)
Q.27. (a) Write the correct sequence of steps followed during journey of oxygen rich blood from lungs to
various organs of human body. 5
(b) What happens when the system of blood vessels develops a leak?
Ans. (a) When the muscles of all the four chambers of the heart are relaxed, the pulmonary vein brings the
oxygenated blood (oxygen-carrying blood) from the lungs into the left atrium of the heart.
When the left atrium contracts, the oxygenated blood is pushed into the left ventricle through the
valve v1.
When the left ventricle contracts, the oxygenated blood is forced into the main artery called ‘aorta’.
The main artery carries blood to all organs (or parts) of the body like head, chest, arms, stomach,
intestines, liver, kidneys, trunk and legs (except the lungs). When the oxygenated blood passes
through the capillaries of the body organs, then it gives oxygen to the body cells.
(b) When the system of blood vessels develops a leak, it would lead to loss of blood and the loss of blood
reduces the pressure which would reduce the efficiency of the pumping system. To avoid this, the
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–87

blood has platelet cells which circulate around the body and plug these leaks by helping to clot the
blood at these points of injury.
Q.28. (a) Draw a diagram showing germination of pollen on stigma of a flower and mark on it the following
organs/parts:
(i) Pollen grain    (ii) Pollen tube    (iii) Stigma    (iv) Female germ cell
(b) State the significance of pollen tube.
(c) Name the parts of flower that develop after fertilization into
(i) Seed (ii) Fruit  5
Ans. (a)

s
(b) When the pollen lands on the stigma of its own species, it has to reach the female germ cells which

iv D a
are in the ovary. For this, the pollen tube grows out of the pollen grains and travels through the style
to reach the ovary.

Sh
(c) (i) The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.
(ii) The ovary grows and ripens to form a fruit.
Or
(a) “Use of a condom is beneficial for both the sexes involved in a sexual act.“ Justify this statement
giving two reasons.
(b) How do oral contraceptives help in avoiding pregnancies?
(c) What is sex selective abortion? How does it affect a healthy society? (State any one consequence). 5
Ans. (a) (i) Condoms are used to prevent the unwanted pregnancies during sexual activity.
(ii) Condoms are used to prevent the spreading of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) like syphilis,
AIDS, etc.
Thus use of condoms is beneficial for both the sexes involved in a sexual act.
(b) The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into fallopian tube
and therefore fertilization cannot occur and unwanted pregnancies can be avoided during sexual
activities.
(c) Sex selective abortion is the practice of transmitting a pregnancy based on the sex of the unborn child.
The killing of the unborn female child is called female foeticide. Female foeticide is reducing the
number of girls drastically in some societies of our country.
For a healthy society, the male-female sex ratio must be maintained at almost the same level. Due
to reckless female foeticide, the male-female child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate in some
sections of our country.
Q.29. (a) For the combination of resistors shown in the following
figure, find the equivalent resistance between M & N.
(b) State Joule’s law of heating.
(c) Why we need a 5 A fuse for an electric iron which consumes
1 kW power at 220 V?
(d) Why is it impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an
electric heater in series? 5
1 1 1 R + R3
Ans. (a) Here, = + = 4 ...[∵ R3 and R4 are in parallel combination
R ¢ R3 R4 R 3R 4
R 3R 4
 R’ =
R3 + R4
P–88 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Resultant ‘R’ (between M and N) = R1 + R2 + R’ ...[All three are in series combinaion
R 3R 4
 R = R1 + R2 + R + R
3 4

(b) Refer to Q. 12(Or)(a), 2018, Page P-30.


(c) Given. P = 1 kW = 1,000 W; V = 220 volts; I=?
As we know, P = V × I
P 1, 000
 I = V = 220 = 4.54 A
Since the electric iron draws approximately 4.54 A current therefore 5A fuse should be needed.
(d) It is impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series because they need currents
of widely different values to operate properly. In a series connection, current remains the same and
voltage is divided according to the resistance of the appliance. When we put the electric bulb and the
electric heater in series then it will divide the voltage which ultimately divides the power double.
Q.30. (a) A security mirror used in a big showroom has radius of curvature 5 m. If a customer is standing
at a distance of 20 m from the cash counter, find the position, nature and size of the image formed
in the security mirror.
(b) Neha visited a dentist in his clinic. She observed that the dentist was holding an instrument fitted
with a mirror. State the nature of this mirror and reason for its use in the instrument used by the
dentist. 5

s
Ans. (a) Here, Security mirror = Convex mirror

a
Given. Radius of curvature, R = 5 m

iv D
R 5
 Focal length, f = 2 = 2 m

Sh
u = –20 m; v = ?; Size = h2 = ?; Nature = ?
According to mirror formula,
1 1 1 1 1 2
+ =  + =
v u f v -20 5
1 2 1 8+1 9
= + = = 20
v 5 20 20 20  v= = 2.22 m
9
- v -20 1 1 1
 = ¥- =  Image formed is times the object.
u 9 20 9 9
 Image is virtual (as v is +ve) and diminished.
(b) Refer to Q. 40(i), (SA-II), Chapter 10, Page 165.
Or
Rishi went to a palmist to show his palm. The palmist used a special lens for this purpose.
(i) State the nature of the lens and reason for its use.
(ii) Where should the palmist place/hold the lens so as to have a real and magnified image of an
object?
(iii) If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm and the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from the palm,
use lens formula to find the position and size of the image. 5
Ans. (i) A convex lens of smaller focal length is used as a magnifying glass. It will produce large magnification
and hence the object will appear much bigger when seen through it.
(ii) The palmist should hold the lens in such a way that palm is between F and 2F points of the lens, then
the palm seen through the convex lens appears much bigger in size than it actually is. The image will
be real.
(iii) Given. Focal length of the convex lens, f = +10 cm
u = –5 cm; v=?
1 1 1
As we know, - = (lens formula)
v u f
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
v - ( -5) = 10 fi + =
v 5 10
fi = -
v 10 5
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–89

1 1-2 -1
v - 10 = 10  v = –10 cm
So, the image is formed at 10 cm from the lens on the same side where the object is.
v -10
Now, m = = =2
u -5
Therefore, image is 2 times (twice) the object.

SET II Code No. 31/3/2


Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
Section-B
Q.17. Three elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(a) Arrange them in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.
(b) Which of the three is most electronegative? Why?
(c) Write the formula of compound formed between
(i) X and Y (ii) X and Z 3
Ans. Elements Atomic number Electronic configuration
X 7 2, 5
Y 8 2, 6

s
Z 9 2, 7

a
(a) Decreasing order of atomic radii. X > Y > Z

iv D
because atomic radii decreases on going from left to right in a period.

Sh
(b) Z is most electronegative as it is the smallest among the three elements and it is easier by the nucleus
of Z to add an electron in its outermost orbital (L shell).
(c) (i) X and Y
 X2Y3
Valency 3 2

(ii) X and Z
 XZ3
Valency 3 1
Q.19. (a) Define ecosystem.
(b) Autotrophs are at the first level of food chain. Give reason.
(c) In a food chain of frogs, grass, insects and snakes assign trophic level to frogs. To which category
of consumers do they belong? 3
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 42(a), (SA-II), Chapter 15, Page 261.
(b) All the food chains begin with an autotroph (green plants) because these are the original source of all
food. Thus they are also called the producers in a food chain.
(c) Grass  Insects  Frogs  Snakes
Frogs belong to third trophic level. They belong to carnivores.
Or
(a) Explain the role of UV radiation in producing ozone layer. 3
(b) Mention the reaction involved.
(c) Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of concern?
Ans. (a) & (b). Refer to Q. 13, (VSA), Chapter 15, Page 257.
(c) CFCs are the chemicals which are widely used in refrigeration as a coolant, when released into the air
they react with ozone gas present in the ozone layer and destroy it gradually. Due to this, the ozone
layer in the upper atmosphere becomes thinner, allowing more UV rays to pass through it to the
earth. These UV rays cause skin cancer and other ailments in humans and animals and also damage
the plants. In the absence of the ozone layer, all the life on the earth would be destroyed gradually.
Thus, the production of CFCs should be stopped.
P–90 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.20. List three factors that could lead to speciation. Which of these cannot be a major factor in the speciation
of a self-pollinating plant species and why? 3
Ans. Refer to Q. 58, (LA) Chapter 9, Page 149.
Q.22. (a) Water has refractive index 1.33 and alcohol has refractive index 1.36. Which of the two mediums
is optically denser? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a ray of light passing obliquely from water to alcohol.
(c) State the relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refraction in the above case. 3
Ans. (a) Alcohol having a higher refracting index than water is optically denser than water because higher the
refractive index of a substance, more it will change the direction of a beam of light passing through it.

(b) Ray diagram:

sin i
(c) = wa ...where[wa = refractive index of alcohol with respect to water
sin r

a s
Section-C

iv D
Q.26. (a) Carry out following conversions: 5

Sh
(i) Ethanol to Ethene (ii) Ethanol to Ethanoic acid
(b) Differentiate between addition reaction and substitution reaction. Give one example of each.
Ans. (a) (i) Ethanol to Ethene. When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 k,
it gets dehydrated to form ethene.
conc. H2 SO4
2CH3CH2OH ææææææ Æ 2CH2 = CH2 + H2O
443 k
Ethanol (dehydration) Ethene
In this reaction conc. sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent.
(ii) Ethanol to ethanoic acid. When ethanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate
solution (or acidified potassium dichromate solution), it gets oxidised to ethanoic acid.
Alkaline KMnO + Heat
4
CH3CH2OH + 2[O] æææææææææ
(or Acidified K Cr O )
Æ CH2 = CH2 + H2O
2 2 7
Ethanol (Nascent oxygen) Ethanoic acid
(b) Addition reaction Substitution reaction
(i) The reaction in which an unsaturated The reaction in which one (or more) hydrogen
hydrocarbon combines with another atoms of a hydrocarbon are replaced by some
substance to give a single product is called other atoms is called a substitution reaction.
an addition reaction.
(ii) Addition reactions are given by all the Substitution reaction is given by saturated
alkenes and alkynes. hydrocarbons or alkanes.
(iii) Example:
Addition of hydrogen occurs when ethene Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence
is heated with hydrogen in the presence of of sunlight, then one atom of H of methane
nickel catalyst. has been substituted by a ‘Cl’ atom and
Ni catalyst CH3Cl is formed.
CH2 = CH2 + H2 æææææ
Heat
Æ CH3—CH3
Sunlight
CH4 + Cl2 ææææÆ CH3Cl + HCl

Q.27. (a) How do leaves of plants help in excretion? Explain briefly.


(b) Describe the structure and function of a nephron. 5
Ans. (a) The gaseous wastes of respiration and photosynthesis in plants (carbon dioxide, water vapours and
oxygen) are removed through the stomata in leaves and released into the air.
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–91

The plants also store some of the waste products in their leaves and plants get rid of these wastes by
shedding of leaves also.
(b) Refer to Q. 21, (SA-II), Chapter 6, Page 98.
Q.29. (a) Define Power and state its SI unit.
(b) A torch bulb is rated 5 V and 500 mA. Calculate its
(i) Power     (ii) Resistance   (iii) Energy consumed when it is lighted for 2½ hours. 5
Ans. (a) Electric power is the electrical work done per unit time.
Work done Electrical energy consumed
 Power = =
Time taken Time taken
SI unit of power is Watt (W). The power of 1 watt is a rate of working of 1 joule per second, i.e.,
1 joule
1 watt =
1 second
500
(b) Given. Potential difference, V = 5 volts; I = 500 mA = 1000 A = 0.5 A
5
t = 2½ hrs. = × 60 × 60 = 9,000 s;
2
To find: P = ?, R = ?, E = ?
(i) Power, P = V × I = 5 × 0.5 = 2.5 watt
V 5 5 ¥ 10
(ii) Resistance, R = = = = 10 
I 0.5 5

s
25

a
(iii) Energy consumed, E = P × t = × 9,000 = 22,500 J or 2.25 × 104 J

iv D
10

SET III Code No. 31/3/3

Sh
Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I & Set II.
Section-B
Q.15. Identify the type of each of the following reactions. 3
Also, write balanced chemical equation for each reaction.
(i) A reaction in which the reaction mixture becomes warm.
(ii) A reaction in which an insoluble substance is formed.
Ans. (i) CaO + H2O Ca(OH)2 + Heat
Quick lime Water Lime water

Combination reaction. Also exothermic reaction.


(ii) BaCl2 (aq) + H2SO4 BaSO4 (s) + 2HCl (aq)
white ppt.
Double displacement reaction
Q.18. (a) State with reason the consequence of decrease in number of carnivores in an ecosystem.
(b) In a food chain, state the trophic level at which the concentration of harmful chemicals is maximum.
Why is it so? 3
Ans. (a) If the number of carnivores in an ecosystem is decreased then there will be no predator control over
the herbivores. Thus the population of herbivores will increase greatly. This will lead to excessive
grazing of grass. As a result the density of producers will be very much reduced and the lush-green
forest will turn into a desert area having no vegetation at all.
(b) Refer to Q. 6, (NCERT Questions with solutions), Chapter 15, Page 255.
Or
How is ozone layer formed? State its importance to all life forms on earth? Why did the amount of
ozone in the atmosphere drop sharply in the 1980s? 3
Ans. Formation of ozone layer. Refer to Q. 13, (VSA), Chapter 15, Page 257.
Importance of ozone: Refer to Q. 17 (VSA), Chapter 15, Page 258.
Depletion of ozone: Chlorofluorocarbons or the CFCs are the main cause for the depletion of ozone layer
which was first identified during 1980s (1985). The ozone layer depleted due to overuse of CFCs that are
released by soaps solvents, spray aerosols, refrigerators and air conditioners.
P–92 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Q.22. (a) State Snell’s law of refraction of light.


(b) When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into a glass slab, it is observed that the light
ray emerges parallel to the incident ray but it is shifted sideways slightly. Draw a labelled ray
diagram to illustrate it. 3
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 67(a), (LA), Chapter 10, Page 177.
(b) Refer to Q. 4, (SA-I), Chapter 10, Page 156.
Section-C
Q.26. A metal ‘M‘ is stored under kerosene. It vigorously catches fire if a small piece of this metal is kept
open in air. Dissolution of this metal in water releases great amount of energy and the metal catches
fire. The solution so formed turns red litmus blue.
(a) Name the metal ‘M‘.
(b) Write formula of the compound formed when this metal is exposed to air.
(c) Why is metal ‘M‘ stored under kerosene?
(d) If oxide of this metal is treated with hydrochloric acid, what would be the products?
(e) Write balanced equations for:
(i) Reaction of ‘M‘ with air.
(ii) Reaction of ‘M‘ with water.
(iii) Reaction of metal oxide with hydrochloric acid. 5
Ans. (a) Metal ‘M’ is sodium.
(b) When sodium metal is exposed to air, it reacts with oxygen of air to form basic oxide called sodium

a s
oxide (Na2O).

iv D
(c) Sodium metal is very reactive, it reacts vigorously with oxygen of air and catches fire and starts
burning when kept open in air. Therefore it is stored under kerosene oil to prevent its reaction with

Sh
the oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air.
(d) When sodium oxide is treated with HCl, it produces salt (NaCl) and water.
(e) (i) 4Na (s) + O2 (g) 2Na2O (s)
(ii) 2Na (s) + 2H2O (s) 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) + Heat
(iii) Na2O + 2HCl 2NaCl + H 2O
Sodium chloride (Salt) Water
Or
(a) Write electron dot structures of Ca (At. No. 20) and O (At. No. 8).
(b) Show the formation of calcium oxide by transfer of electrons.
(c) Name the ions present in this compound.
(d) List four important characteristics of this compound. 5
Ans. (a) Ca (At. No. 20) O (At. No. 8)
2, 8, 8, 2 2, 6


(b) Ca – 2e– Ca2+
Calcium atom Calcium ion
K L M N KLM
2 8 8 2 2 8 8
CBSE Examination Paper—2020 [Series: JBB/3] n P–93

O + 2e– O2–
Oxygen atom Oxide ion
K L KL
2 6 2 8
Ca2+ + O2– [Ca]2+[O]2– CaO
Calcium oxide
(c) Calcium ion Ca2+
KLM
2 8 8
Oxide ion O2–
KL
2 8
(d) Characteristics of ionic compound: Refer to Q. 12, (SA-I), Chapter 3, Page 33.
Q.28. (a) Suggest any two categories of contraceptive methods to control the size of human population
which is essential for the prosperity of a country. Also explain about each method briefly.
(b) Name two bacterial and two viral infections each that can get sexually transmitted.
(c) List two advantages of using condom during sexual act. 5
Ans. (a) Refer to Q. 26, (SA-II), Chapter 8, Page 119.
(b) (i) Sexually transmitted bacterial infections: Gonorrhoea and syphilis
(ii) Sexually transmitted viral infections: AIDS and Warts

s
(c) Advantages of using condom during sexual act:

a
(i) Use of condoms prevents the spreading of sexually transmitted diseases like AIDS, syphilis etc.

iv D
(ii) Use of condom controls human population by checking the unwanted pregnancies during

Sh
sexual acts.
Or
(a) Draw a diagram to show spore formation in Rhizopus.
(b) With the help of an example differentiate between the process of Budding and Fragmentation.
(c) Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants? 5

Ans. (a) Spore formation in Rhizopus:

(b) Difference between the process of Budding and Fragmentation:

Budding Fragmentation
(i) On budding, a small part of the body of the In fragmentation, the body of a simple
parent organism grows out as a bud which multicellular organism breaks into two or
then detaches and becomes a new organism. more pieces on maturing each of which
subsequently grows to form a complete new
organism.
(ii) Budding is observed in simple multicellular The breaking up of the body of an organism
organisms like hydra and unicellular to form new organisms occurs naturally
organisms like yeast. when the parent organism matures.
(iii) Hydra and yeast reproduce by this method The simple multicellular organisms like
which is an asexual type of reproduction. spirogyra and sea anemones can reproduce
by this method.

Example of Budding: Refer to Q. 29, (SA-II), Chapter 8, Page 119.


P–94 n Shiv Das Chapterwise Board Solutions (Science X)

Example of frgamentation:

New
Filaments

Spirogyra Fragments New Filaments


Filament of Spirogyra
Fragmentation in Spirogyra
(c) Vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants because—
(i) the fruit trees grown through vegetative propagation bear fruits much earlier.
(ii) banana and grapes produce either very few seeds or do not produce viable seeds. Therefore
their plants are grown by vegetative propagation.
Q.30. (a) An electric bulb is rated at 200 V; 100 W. What is its resistance?
(b) Calculate the energy consumed by 3 such bulbs if they glow continuously for 10 hours for the

a s
complete month of November.

iv D
(c) Calculate the total cost if the rate is `6.50 per unit. 5
Ans. (a) Electric bulb potential difference = 200 V; P = 100 W; R=?

Sh
As we know, P = VI
P 100
 I = V = 200 = 0.5 A
Now, V = IR
V 200 200 ¥ 10
 R= = = = 400 
I 0.5 5
(b) Given: No. of bulbs = 3
Power = 100 W = 100/1000 kW = 1/10 kW
Time = 10 hrs. × 30 days (in November) = 300 hrs.
1
 Energy consumed, E = 3 × 10 × 300 = 90 kWh = 90 electrical units
(c) Cost of 1 unit = `6.50
 Cost of 90 units = 90 × `6.50 = `585
Or
(a) What is meant by the statement, “The resistance of a conductor is one ohm“?
(b) Define electric power. Write an expression relating electric power, potential difference and resistance.
(c) How many 132 W resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line? 5
Ans. (a) 1 ohm is the resistance of conductor such that when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied to its
ends, a current of 1 ampere flows through it.
(b) Electric power is the electrical work done per unit time.
Work done V2
Power (P) = = R
Time taken
(c) Let no. of resistors be n
Given. R = 132 W; I = 5 A; V = 220 V
Resultant R for n resistances combined in parallel:
1 1 1 1 n R 132
= + + ... n times  R ¢ = R  R = = W
R¢ R R n n
Now, V = IR
132 5 ¥ 132
 220 = 5 × n W  n = 220 = 3  No. of resistors = 3
]••••]

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