Question N 1

Both runways are of equal length and have the same slope characteristics. Regardless of
this, your EFB gives you a RTOM of 57ton for RWY 20L and 60ton for RWY 20R with
the same take-off configuration. Which limitation is most likely causing the reduced
RTOM for RWY 20L? Same meteorological conditions and friction level exists for both
runways.

A Field length limited take-off mass.

B Climb limited take-off mass.

C Tyre-speed limited take-off mass.

D Obstacle limited take-off mass.

Question N 2
Refer to figure.
NOTE: For this question do NOT interpolate, Choose the most conservative figures at
ALL times.
The annex shows a regulated take-off mass (RTOM) table for runway 23L from take-off
position VB. In each RTOM chart box, the following information is provided for a
given wind component / outside air temperature combination: MTOM / limitation code /
V1/VR/V2 (+100 kt). Given the following information, determine the RTOM for
departure.
W/V: 050°/4 kt
OAT: +21° C
QNH: 1028 hPa
Runway: DRY
Engine anti-ice: OFF
Packs: ON
Quick line-up
A 76050 kg

B 75350 kg

C 76450 kg

D 77150 kg

Question N 3
Refer to figure.
The annex shows an example of an RTOM chart for a medium jet aeroplane at a
particular runway. In each chart box, the following information is provided for a given
wind component, and a given outside air temperature: MTOM / limitation code / V 1 -V R -
V 2.
Using the conditions below, what are the limiting factor(s) for the combinations of
take-off speeds and take-off mass?
OAT: 65º C
Headwind: +20 kt
A Obstacles only.

B Obstacles and brake energy.

C 2nd segment climb only.

D 2nd segment climb and obstacles.

Question N 4
Refer to figure or use cap 698 figure 4.5.
Determine the climb limited take-off mass, given:
Airport OAT: +33º C
Airport pressure altitude: 2000 ft
Flaps: 5º
A/C pack: OFF.
Anti-icing system OFF
PMC: OFF
A 57 900 kg

B 53 700 kg

C 57 000 kg

D 52 800 kg

Question N 5
Refer to figure.
The annex shows an example of an RTOM chart for a medium jet aeroplane at a
particular runway. In each chart box, the following information is provided for a given
wind component, and a given outside air temperature: MTOM / limitation code / V 1 -V R -
V 2 . What are the limitations for a departure with MTOM of 67 500 kg and 10 kt
tailwind?
A 2nd segment climb and obstacles.

B Obstacles and brake energy.

C 2nd segment climb only.

D Obstacles only.

Question N 6
Refer to figure.
Find the time taken (I), the fuel used (II) and distance travelled (III) to stabilising
height for an aircraft that experiences an engine failure at 40 000 ft with an all-up
weight at the point of failure of 35 000 lb:
A (I) 34 minutes; (II) 155 lb; (III) 795 NM

B (I) 34 minutes; (II) 795 lb; (III) 155 NM

C (I) 36 minutes; (II) 167 lb; (III) 887 NM

D (I) 36 minutes; (II) 887 lb; (III) 167 NM

Question N 7
Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.28
Given the following info for a commercial air transport turbojet powered aeroplane,
what is the minimum field length required?
Landing mass: 54 000 kg
Airport pressure altitude: 1 000 ft
Flaps: 40°
Runway condition: WET
Wind: 10 kt headwind
Anti-skid: Inoperative
Automatic or Manual spoilers
A 5300 ft

B 7750 ft

C 9125 ft

D 8400 ft

Question N 8
Refer to figure or CAP 698 file 4.31. Given the following information, determine the
advised cooling schedule and minimum brake cooling time after landing for the
following performance data:
Estimated landing mass: 100 000 Ib
V R EF : 138 kt
Correction to V R EF ( V R EF - 3kt )
Correction to V R EF for wind component minus 50% of headwind pr plus 150% for a
tailwind.
Headwind component: 10 kt
Pressure altitude: 996 ft
OAT: + 25°C
Breaking configuration: Auto Brake 3
Reverse thrust: Normal Reverse #2 detent
Taxi miles: 4 NM
Add one million foot pounds for each taxi mile to obtain the total energy.
A Cooling schedule I normal, NO special cooling procedure required.

B Cooling III required, 30 minutes ground cooling before take-off.

C Cooling II required, 18 minutes ground cooling before take-off.

D Cooling II required, 40 minutes ground cooling before take-off.

Question N 9
Refer to figure.
Prior to an oceanic crossing the flight crew review their one engine inoperative level-
off heights at key points along their route. With the conditions listed below, what is the
maximum one engine inoperative net level-off height?
Expected Gross Mass: 66 000 kg
Temperature: ISA+15°C
Long Range Cruise speed (LRC)
Engine anti-ice: ON
A 17 800 ft

B 19 000 ft

C 20 200 ft

D 20 600 ft

Question N 10
Refer to figure or use Cap 698 figure 4.5.
Find the climb-limited take off mass for a medium range jet transport (MRJT)
aeroplane, given:
Airport OAT: 30ºC
Airport pressure altitude: 2 000 ft
Take off flap setting: Flap 15
A/C conditioning: Packs OFF
A 60 100 kg

B 59 200 kg

C 55 500 kg

D 54 600 kg

Question N 11
Refer to figure.
The annex shows a regulated take off mass (RTOM) table for Runway 23L from take
off position VB. Use the data below to determine the appropriate assumed FLEX
temperature and V 1 ,V R and V 2 speeds. For this question do NOT interpolate. Choose the
most conservative data at ALL times.
W/V: 050°/4 kt
OAT: +13°C
QNH: 1016 hPa
Runway: WET
Engine anti ice: OFF
Packs: OFF
Take of mass: 72 820 kg
A 39°C and V1 134 kt, VR 137 kt and V2 142 kt

B 43°C and V1 140 kt, VR 140 kt and V2 144 kt

C 39°C and V1 133 kt, VR 136 kt and V2 142 kt

D 41°C and V1 140 kt, VR 140 kt and V2 144 kt

Question N 12
Refer to figures or CAP 698 files 4.8 and 4.9. An MRJT is scheduled to take-off from
the Madrid–Barajas International Airport (LEMD). Given the following information
below, determine the V 1 , V R and V 2 take-off speeds.
Actual Take-Off Mass: 54 750 kg
Airport Elevation: 1 998 ft
Outside Air Temperature: +38°C
Flaps Position: 15°
Runway Slope: 0.2% Down
Wind: 10 kt headwind
A V1:139 kt, VR:140 kt and V2:146 kt

B V1:134 kt, VR:134 kt and V2:140 kt

C V1:138 kt, VR:140 kt and V2:146 kt

D V1:131 kt, VR:133 kt and V2:140 kt

Question N 13
Refer to figure.
(For this question use CAP 698 Figure 4.7). Planned take-off mass is 64000 kg,
pressure altitude 4000 ft, OAT +10ºC, V1 151, 155, 161. Runway slope is -1% and
tailwind 5 kt. What is the maximum permitted take -off mass?
A 63 400 kg

B 64 000 kg
C 63 700 kg

D 64 900 kg

Question N 14
Refer to figure.
Using the Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW) table for runway 08 of Paris-Orly
airport, determine the V 1 /V R /V 2 for a take-off configuration CONF 3, given the
following conditions:
QNH: 1003 HPA
OAT: +33ºC
Wind: calm
Runway condition: WET
Air conditioning: ON
In case data lies between two values do not interpolate, use the most restrictive value.
A 151/154/157
B 154/154/157

C 151/155/158

D 152/152/157

Question N 15
(For this question use annex 032-008 or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5).
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has
the wind been omitted from the chart?
A There is a built-in safety measure.
B The limitation presented in this chart is taken relative to air.

C The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.

D There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.

Question N 16
Refer to figure or CAP 698 file 4.29. Given the following information, what is the
Climb Limited Landing Mass?
Airport OAT: +10⁰C
Airport Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
Flap Position: 30⁰
Air conditioning Packs: Auto
Anti-Ice: Engine & Wing – ON
A 59 050 kg

B 54 320 kg

C 69 760 kg

D 54 400 kg

Question N 17
Refer to figure or CAP file 4.7. The Medium-Range Jet Transport aeroplane (MRJT) is
scheduled to depart from Madrid airport. Given the following information, determine
the brake release weight.
V 1 : 149 kt
Elevation: 400 ft
Outside Air Temperature: + 36º C
Runway Slope: 0.8 % DOWN
Wind: 5 kt tailwind
A Approximately 67 000 kg.

B Approximately 66 000 kg.

C Approximately 68 000 kg.

D Approximately 66 600 kg.

Question N 18
(For this question use annex 032-007 or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24).
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by
"equivalent gross weight at engine failure"?
A This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
B The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher
than ISA +10° C.

C The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.

D The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.

Question N 19
Refer to figure or CAP 698 file 4.20. Given the following information for a medium
range jet transport aeroplane, determine the regulated take-off mass for the new
runway:
OAT: +15⁰C
Airfield pressure altitude: 0 ft
Nil Wind
Flap setting: 5⁰
TORA: 7000 ft
The normal Take-off mass limits relevant for this flight are:
Maximum Structural Limit: 62 800 kg
Field Length Limit: 60 500 kg
Climb Limit: 64 000 kg
Tyre Speed Limit: greater than 84 000 kg
Due to wind direction change, ATC changes the runway in use, which will have the
same conditions described previously, except for the following:
Wind: 10 kt headwind
Obstacle height: 360 ft
Obstacle distance from the break release point: 21 000 ft
A 64 000 kg

B 60 500 kg

C 58 000 kg

D 58 900 kg

Question N 20
Refer to figure or CAP 698 file 4.31. Given the following information, determine the
advised cooling schedule and minimum brake cooling time after landing for the
following performance data:
Landing Mass: 100 000 lb
V R EF : 138 kt
Correction to V R EF for landing speed: (V R EF – 3 kt)
Corrections to V R EF for wind component: minus 50% of a headwind or plus 150% for a
tailwind
Pressure Altitude: 984 ft
OAT: +25⁰C
Breaking configuration: Auto Brake 2
Reverse thrust: Normal Reverse #2 detent
Taxi miles: 4 NM
Take into consideration 50 kt Headwind.
Add one million foot-pounds for each taxi mile to obtain total energy.
A Cooling is not required.

B Cooling II required, 18 minutes ground cooling before take-off.

C Cooling ll required, 40 minutes ground cooling before take-off.

D Cooling III required and NO special cooling procedure required.

Question N 21
Refer to figure or CAP file 4.20. Given the following information for a Medium Range
Jet Transport aeroplane, determine the Performance-Limited Take-Off Mass for the new
runway:
Outside Air Temperature: +25°C
Airfield Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft
Nil wind
Flaps position: 5º
TORA: 5 800 ft
The normal Take-off mass limits relevant for this flight are:
Maximum Structural Limit: 62 800 kg
Field Length Limit: 60 000 kg
Climb Limit: 50 000 kg
Tyre Speed Limit: 70 000 kg
Due to a wind direction change, the ATC changes the runway in use, which will have
the same conditions described previously, except for the following:
Wind: 10 kt headwind
Obstacle height: 360 ft
Obstacle distance from Break Release Point: 18 000 ft.
A 50 000 kg

B 54 200 kg

C 60 000 kg

D 62 800 kg

Question N 22
Refer to figure.
Following a quick turnaround prior to the next departure after a landing, a flight crew
must determine the brake cooling time before taxiing again. From the annex and the
given information below, determine the brake cooling time required.
Airport OAT: 0°C
Brake Energy: 44 (MJ)
Brake Cooling Fan: Unavailable
A 42 min

B 130 min

C 140 min
D 39 min

Question N 23
Refer to figure.
The Annex shows a Regulated Take-Off Mass (RTOM) table for runway 23L from take -
off position VB. Using the additional data below, determine the appropriate V 1 , V R and
V 2 speeds for a "reduced thrust take-off" on a wet runway. For this question do Not
interpolate. Choose the most conservative figures at all times.
W/V: 050°/ 6 KT
OAT: + 14° C
QNH: 1003 hPa
Runway: WET
Engine anti-ice: OFF
Packs: OFF
Take off mass: 67050 kg
Assumed/Flex T°: 63°C
A V1 = 123kt , VR=126kt, and V2=132kt

B V1 = 142kt , VR=142kt, and V2=146kt

C V1 = 126kt , VR=129kt, and V2=135kt

D V1 = 136kt , VR=139kt, and V2=145kt

Question N 24
At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate
weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet.
For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that
the aeroplane can be landed within:

A 2 070 m.

B 1565 m.

C 2609 m.

D 1800 m.

Question N 25
Given the following information, what is the all engine climb gradient for a two engine
aeroplane?
Thrust per engine: 118000 Newtons
Mass: 76000 kg
Lift to drag ratio: 8:1
Assume g = 10 m/s?

A 30%

B 21.8%

C 8%
D 18.5%

Question N 26
(For this question use CAP 698 Figure 4.31 or refer to figure).
Determine the advised cooling schedule and minimum brake cooling time after landing
for the following performance data:
Estimated landing mass: 90 000 lb
VREF: 125 kt
Corrections to VREF for landing speed: (VREF – 3 kt)
Corrections to VREF for wind component: minus 50% of a headwind or plus 150% for
a tailwind
Headwind component: 4 kt
Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
OAT: + 10° C
Braking configuration: Autobrake 2
Reverse Thrust: Normal #2 Detent
Taxi miles: 1 mile
Add one million foot pounds for each taxi mile to obtain total energy.
A Cooling Schedule II, cooling recommended, recommended 22 minutes ground cooling before take-
off.

B Cooling Schedule II, cooling recommended, recommended 8 minutes ground cooling before take-
off.

C Cooling Schedule I normal, NO special cooling procedure required.

D Cooling Schedule II, cooling recommended, recommended 30 minutes ground cooling before take-
off.

Question N 27
Refer to figure or CAP file 4.31. The pilot of an MRJT aeroplane after recognizing a
generator failure during the take-off roll, he/she decides to reject the take-off and taxi
off the runway to hold on a taxiway. Resetting the generator after 10 minutes, he/she
realizes that it functions properly, so the flight can resume. Given the following
information, what is the minimum cooling time before the next take -off, assuming that
the taxi distance is negligible?
Take-off mass: 57 500 kg
Speed when fault occurred: 90 kt
Speed when rejection commenced: 100 kt
Retardation: Maximum braking and reverse thrust
Wind: Light and variable
Elevation: 1 400 ft
QNH: 1013.25 hPa
OAT: -10°C
A It is recommended to wait for approximately 50 minutes if some credit is given for using reverse
thrust.

B It is recommended to wait for approximately 35 minutes having used maximum braking and
reverse thrust.

C It is recommended to wait for approximately 40 minutes after using maximum manual braking.

D Only ground cooling is recommended, which means that a new take-off may be commenced now
that the fault has been rectified.

Question N 28
Refer to figure.
Determine the brake release weight, given:
V1 = 148 kts
Pressure altitude: 1487 ft
OAT: +19°C
Slope: 0.4% down
Tailwind: 10 kt
A Excess of 68 000 kg

B Approximately 64 000 kg
C The same as the MSTOM 62 800 kg

D Cannot be determined

Question N 29
When a landing is performed above the Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass, the pilot
must

A wait for a specified time before the next take-off.

B taxi slower than usual.

C avoid vacating the runway via the high speed taxiway.

D reduce the speed at touchdown in order to avoid a tailstrike.

Question N 30
Refer to figure or use CAP 698. Figure 4.7.
The Medium-Range Jet Transport aeroplane (MRJT) is scheduled to depart from Madrid
airport.
Determine the brake release weight, given:
V 1 : 145 kt
Elevation: 1998 ft
Outside Air Temperature: + 38º C
Runway Slope: 0.2 % DOWN
Wind: 5 kt tailwind
A Approximately 68 000 kg.

B Significantly in excess of 68 000 kg.

C It CANNOT be determined.

D The same as the structural take-off mass of 62 800 kg.

Question N 31
Refer to figure.
NOTE: For this question do NOT interpolate, Choose the most conservative figures at
ALL times.
The annex shows a regulated take-off mass (RTOM) table for runway 23L from take-off
position VB. In each RTOM chart box, the following information is provided for a
given wind component / outside air temperature combination: MTOM / limitation code /
V1/VR/V2 (+100 kt). Given the following information, determine the RTOM for
departure.
W/V: 140°/14 kt
OAT: +10° C
QNH: 1008 hPa
Runway: WET
Engine anti-ice: ON
Packs: OFF
Quick line-up
A 77810 kg

B 77110 kg

C 78110 kg

D 78810 kg

Question N 32
For a given flap setting, how do aerodrome pressure altitude and temperature affect the
Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass? The Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass is reduced
with

A lower pressure altitudes and lower temperatures.

B lower pressure altitudes and higher temperatures.

C higher pressure altitudes and lower temperatures.

D higher pressure altitudes and higher temperatures.

Question N 33
During the pre-flight planning procedure, the pilot of a Commercial Air Transport
flight has calculated various performance-limited landing masses. Given the following
limit masses, determine the maximum performance limited landing mass which
complies with the operational requirements.
Approach climb limit mass: 32 250 lb
Landing climb limit mass: 38 300 lb
Field length limit mass: 34 500 lb
Structural limit landing mass: 39 300 lb

A 39 300 lb

B 34 500 lb

C 38 300 lb
D 32 250 lb

Question N 34
Refer to the figure or CAP 698 Figure 4.31.
Determine the amount of cooling needed, given:
Take-off mass: 100 000 lb
Speed at rejection: 138 kt
HWC: 10 kt
Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft
OAT: +25°C
Normal reverse #2 detent Auto brake #3
A Cooling II: recommended 40 mins

B Cooling II: recommended 18 mins

C Cooling I: recommended

D Cooling III: recommended

Question N 35
Refer to CAP 698 Figure 4.28.
Given the following information for a Commercial Air Transport jet aircraft, what is
the minimum field length required?
Landing mass: 51 000 kg
Flaps position: 30⁰
RWY condition: DRY
Wind component: 10 kt headwind
Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
Anti-skid: OPERATIVE
Spoilers: AUTOMATIC
A 1 450 ft

B 4 700 ft

C 5 350 ft

D 8 200 ft

Question N 36
Refer to figure or CAP 698 file 4.6. Given the following information, what is the tyre
speed limited take-off mass for a Medium Range Jet Transport (MTJT) which is
scheduled to depart from Madrid airport?
Airport Elevation: 1998 ft
OAT: +38⁰C
Wind: 8 kt tailwind
Tyres: 225 mph
Flaps: 5⁰
Power Management Computer (PMC): ON
A 78 850 kg

B 84 300 kg

C 73 900 kg

D 79 100 kg

Question N 37
Refer to the figure or CAP 698 Figure 4.31.
Due to a predictive wind shear warning, a take-off at Madrid airport is rejected. Using
the data below, when can another take-off be attempted?

Take-off mass: 61 300 kg

Aerodrome elevation: 2 000 ft
OAT: +34° C
Wind: calm
Speed at rejection: 80 kt
A Cooling is recommended and it requires approximately 30 minutes when giving credit for reverse.

B Cooling is recommended and it requires approximately 40 minutes when giving credit for reverse.

C The fuse plugs may melt and the take-off must be delayed by approximately 40 minutes.

D Cooling is recommended and it will require approximately 45 minutes to achieve this.

Question N 38
Refer to figure.
The annex shows an example of an RTOM chart for a medium jet aeroplane at a
particular runway. In each chart box, the following information is provided for a given
wind component, and a given outside air temperature: MTOM / limitation code / V 1 -V R -
V 2 . What is the meaning of the code 4/4?
A 2nd segment climb and obstacles.

B 2nd segment climb only.

C Obstacles and brake energy.

D Obstacles only.

Question N 39
Refer to figure or CAP 698 file 4.23. Given the information provided below, the pilot
of a jet-engine aircraft must determine which of following en-route alternate airports
are the most appropriate diversion airports in case of an engine failure during the cruise
phase.
Temperature: ISA +10ºC or below
ANTI-ICE: ENG ANTI-ICE ON
Aircraft cruise mass: 43 000 kg
Required airport clearance for:
Airport 1: 21 000 ft
Airport 2: 23 000 ft
Airport 3: 24 500 ft
Airport 4: 19 500 ft
A 1 and 4

B 2 and 3

C 1 and 2
D 3 and 4

Question N 40
Refer to figure or CAP 698, figure 4.23.
Owing to some last-minute airspace closures, a passenger flight over southern Europe
has been re-routed from its normal flight plan. The flight crew have noticed that the
primary en-route diversion would require a one-engine-inoperative net level-off altitude
of 16 000 ft to stay above the highest relevant obstacles.
Determine the maximum net mass that would allow clearance of the highest relevant
obstacles, given:
Minimum off-route pressure altitude: 16000 ft
Temperature: ISA +10° C
A/C: AUTO (HIGH)
ANTI-ICE: ALL OFF
(NOTE: For this question ignore any altimetry issues.)
A 52 300 kg

B 54 100 kg

C 56 600 kg
D 59 100 kg

Question N 41
A FLAT RATED jet engine will give:

A decreasing thrust as temperature decreases below a cut-off value

B increasing thrust as temperature increases above a cut-off value

C a constant thrust for temperatures above a cut-off value

D a constant thrust for temperatures below a cut-off value

Question N 42
Refer to figure.
The annex shows a Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW) table for runway 23L from
take-off position VB. Use the data below to determine the RTOW for departure. For
this question do NOT interpolate. Choose the most conservative figures at all times.
W/V: 230°/5 kt
Moderate rain
OAT: +12°C
QNH: 1015 hPa
Engine anti-ice: OFF
Packs: OFF
Quick line-up
A 79 270 kg

B 77 570 kg

C 78 270 kg

D 78 570 kg

Question N 43
Consider the methods listed below for improving the Field -Length Limited Take-Off
Mass (FLL TOM) of an MRJT aeroplane. Which of the methods does the pilot have
direct influence over?
1. Use flaps 15 instead of flaps 5 to increase the FLL TOM by approximately 600 kg.
2. Decide NOT to use engine anti-ice to increase the FLL TOM by 450 kg.
3. Choose the runway with the most favourable wind component to increase the FLL
TOM by the credit for any wind improvements.
4. Perform a packs-off take-off to increase the FLL TOM by 550 kg.

A 2 and 3, to improve the FLLTOM by 450 kg plus the credit for any wind improvement.

B 3 and 4, to improve the FLLTOM by 550 kg plus the credit for any wind improvement.

C 1, 2, and 4, to improve the FLLTOM by 1 600 kg.

D 1 and 4, to improve the FLLTOM by 1 150 kg.

Question N 44
Refer to figure.
The annex shows a Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW) table for runway 23L from
take-off position VB. Use the data below and determine the appropriate assumed/FLEX
temperature and V 1 , V R , and V 2 speeds. For this question do NOT interpolate. Choose
the most conservative figures at all times.
W/V: 230°/16 kt
OAT: +10°C
QNH: 1008 hPa
Runway: DRY
Engine anti-ice: OFF
Packs: OFF
Take-off mass: 71 840 kg
A 57°C and V1 139 kt, VR 139 kt, and V2 145 kt

B 59°C and V1 138 kt, VR 138 kt, and V2 144 kt

C 53°C and V1 138 kt, VR 138 kt, and V2 143 kt

D 63°C and V1 140 kt, VR 140 kt, and V2 146 kt

Question N 45
Refer to figure or CAP file 4.7. Determine the brake release weight, given:
V 1 : 149 kts
Pressure altitude: 1487 ft
OAT: +19°C
Runway Slope: 0.5 % UP
Wind: 10 kt headwind
A V1 can't be higher than VMBE.

B Excess of 68 000 kg.

C The same as the MSTOM 62 800 kg.

D Cannot be determined.

Question N 46
Refer to annex.
For the M RJT 1 aircraft calculate the take-off speeds V 1 , V R and V 2 given:
Mass 60000 kgs
PA 1500 ft
OAT +25°C
Flaps 5°
5 kts TW
1% downslope
A V1=143, VR=146, V2=153

B V1=143, VR=148, V2=155

C V1=145, VR=148, V2=155

D V1=145, VR=147, V2=155

Question N 47
Refer to figure.
Find the flex temp and V-speeds given the following, interpolating as required: TOM:
71 000 kg, QNH 1013, wind 230/5 kt, OAT 12°C, visibility 500 m, ACS Packs ON,
Runway condition WET.
A 59° C, V1 137 kt, VR 137 kt, V2 141 kt

B 55° C, V1 129 kt, VR 133 kt, V2 138 kt

C 57° C, V1 131 kt, VR 134 kt, V2 139 kt

D 57° C, V1 135 kt, VR 136 kt, V2 140 kt

Question N 48
(For this question use CAP 698 Figure 4.31 or refer to figure).
Determine the advised cooling schedule and minimum brake cooling time after landing
for the following performance data:
Estimated landing mass: 90 000 lb
VREF: 125 kt
Corrections to VREF for landing speed: (VREF – 3 kt)
Corrections to VREF for wind component: minus 50 % of a headwind or plus 150 % for
a tailwind
Headwind component: 4 kt
Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
OAT: + 10° C
Braking configuration: Autobrake 2
Reverse Thrust: Normal #2 Detent
Taxi miles: 4 miles
Add one million foot pounds for each taxi mile to obtain total energy.
A Cooling Schedule II, cooling recommended, recommended 8 minutes ground cooling before take-
off.

B Cooling Schedule II, cooling recommended, recommended 16 minutes ground cooling before take-
off.

C Cooling Schedule II, cooling recommended, recommended 25 minutes ground cooling before take-
off.

D Cooling Schedule I normal, NO special cooling procedure required.

Question N 49
Refer to figure or use CAP 698 figure 4.6.
An MRJT aeroplane is planning a take-off from runway 26R at Munich (EDDM).
Determine the tyre- speed limited take off mass, given:
Airport pressure altitude: 1 487 ft
OAT: +31º C
Tyre rating: 210 mph
Flap setting: flap 5
W/V: 260º(M)/ 13 kt
A 64 250 kg

B 62 300 kg

C 77 900 kg

D 72 700 kg

Question N 50
Refer to figure.
For a twin engined turbojet in the cruise at M0.78, determine the hourly fuel flow at
FL340 and a mass of 55000 kg.
A 4477 KG/H

B 2238 KG/H
C 403.75 KG/H

D 895.4 KG/H

Question N 51
(For this question use annex ECQB-032-052-v2016-04 or CAP 698 Figure 4.22).
During a flight with all engines operating at FL350 with M.74, and a gross mass of
55000 kg in ISA conditions, one engine suddenly becomes inoperative. The Level Off
Altitude will be…

A 19800 ft.
B 21900 ft.

C 20900 ft.

D 24800 ft.

Question N 52
Refer to figure.
The annex shows a Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW) table for runway 23L from
take-off position VB. Use the data below to determine the appropriate V 1 , V R , and
V 2 speeds for a reduced thrust take-off on a dry runway. For this question do NOT
interpolate. Choose the most conservative figures at all times.
W/V: 230°/10 kt
OAT: -3°C
QNH: 1046 hPa
Engine anti-ice: ON
Packs: ON
Quick line-up
Take-off mass: 71180 kg
Assumed/FLEX T°: 61°C
A V1 135 kt, VR 136 kt, and V2 140 kt.

B V1 148 kt, VR 149 kt, and V2 153 kt.

C V1 151 kt, VR 151 kt, and V2 156 kt.

D V1 138 kt, VR 138 kt, and V2 143 kt.

Question N 53
Refer to figure or CAP file 4.5. Find the Climb -Limited Take-off Mass for a Medium-
Range Jet Transport (MRJT) aeroplane, given the following data:
Airport OAT: 35ºC
Airport pressure altitude: 3 000 ft
Take-off flap setting: Flap position 5º
Packs: OFF
Engine anti-icing system: OFF
A 51 500 kg

B 55 000 kg

C 55 900 kg

D 52 400 kg

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2022.10.23.

Question N° 54
A pilot is calculating the take-off speeds for a contaminated runway and chooses a
“Wet V 1 ”. Should he/she expect this “Wet V 1 ” to be higher or lower compared to V 1 for
dry runway conditions?

A Runway surface conditions have NO effect on the V1 calculation.

B “Wet V1” would be higher for wet runway conditions.

C “Wet V1” would be lower for wet runway conditions.

D “Wet V1” would be equal to V2.

Question N° 55
Refer to figure.
Which of the following graphs illustrate the movement of the total drag curve as
density altitude decreases?
A Figure 1

B Figure 4

C Figure 2

D Figure 3
Question N° 56
Refer to figure.
Prior to an oceanic crossing the flight crew review their one engine inoperative level -
off heights at key points along their route. With the conditions listed below, what is the
maximum one engine inoperative net level-off height?
Expected Gross Mass: 66 000 kg
Temperature: ISA+15°C
Long Range Cruise speed (LRC)
Engine anti-ice: ON

A 17 800 ft

B 19 000 ft
C 20 200 ft

D 20 600 ft

Question N° 57
During a descent with constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions,
how do the TAS and CAS change? TAS

A decreases, and CAS increases.

B increases, and CAS decreases.

C increases, and CAS increases.

D decreases, and CAS decreases.

Question N° 58
A multi-engined performance class B aeroplane has a wingspan of less than 60 metres.
What is the semi-width of the obstacle accountability area at a distance of D from the
end of the TODA? A semi-width…

A of at least 2 x wingspan plus 90 m, plus D x0.125.

B of at least 1/2 x wingspan plus 90 m, plus D x0.125.

C of at least 1/2 x wingspan plus 60 m, plus D x0.125.

D at the discretion of the pilot to ensure obstacle avoidance.

Question N° 59
A flight crew is due to collect an empty passenger jet from the manufacturer on an
exceptionally cold winter day. What effects on the V speeds should the crew take into
consideration in such a scenario?
A The low weight and cold air will cause VR to be less than VMC.

B VR and V2 would be equal.

C V2MIN and consequently V2, would be restricted by VMU.

D V1 could be limited by VMCG.

Question N° 60
The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA) is the length of the take-off run available
plus the length..

A of the clearway, if provided.

B necessary to retract the gear.

C necessary to reach 50 ft.

D of the stopway, if provided.

Question N° 61
A turbojet is flying at a constant IAS and pressure altitude. Given that a ± 1° of ISA
deviation results in a change in fuel flow of ± 0.2%, determine how much the specific
fuel consumption would change if the OAT is ISA +10°C rather than ISA:

A 2% increase in SFC.

B 2% decrease in SFC.

C 20% increase in SFC.

D 20% decrease in SFC.

Question N° 62
With regard to a jet aeroplane, specific range is the..

A fuel flow per unit of thrust.

B nautical air miles flown per unit mass of fuel.

C nautical air miles flown divided by the specific fuel consumption.

D fuel flow divided by TAS.

Question N° 63
From FL50 to 500 ft above the destination aerodrome, a multi-engined piston (MEP)
aeroplane performs a steady descent, maintaining a constant speed of 120 kt IAS.
During this descent, the ‘’Power Required vs. TAS’’ curve will move (1) ___ and the
‘’Power Available vs. TAS’’ curve will move (2) ___.

A (1) up and right; (2) down and right

B (1) down and right; (2) up and right

C (1) up and left; (2) down and left

D (1) down and left; (2) up and left

Question N° 64
Refer to figure.
During the pre-flight planning procedure, the flight crew has calculated various
performance limiting masses for two take-off flap/slat position settings. Which flap/slat
position is optimum and which Maximum Performance-Limited TOM ensures
compliance with the applicable operational requirements for Commercial Air T ransport
?
A Flap/slat position setting 1 and 17 000 kg

B Flap/slat position setting 1 and 18 250 kg

C Flap/slat position setting 2 and 16 800 kg

D Flap/slat position setting 1 or 2 and 19 000 kg

Question N° 65
A two engine turbojet has to initiate a turn in the second segment of the take -off flight
path. During the turn there is an obstacle that requires a net climb gradient of 2.0% in
order to clear the obstacle. The bank angle during the turn is 15° and the flight manual
gives a decrement for the turn of 0.5%.
Taking into account both the regulation and obstacle clearance, what will be the
minimum gross gradient required before commencing the turn?

A 2.8%

B 3.7%

C 3.3%

D 2.9%

Question N° 66
What is the primary advantage of using the increased V 2 (improved climb) procedure on
take-off?

A The associated higher V1 allows for an increased take-off mass.

B The safety margin of the field-length limited mass is increased.

C The obstacle-limited take-off mass is increased.

D The time to reach the optimum altitude is reduced.

Question N° 67
A jet transport aeroplane at cruise altitude of FL370 suffers a loss of cabin
pressurisation without structural damage, the crew should initially descent at...

A VMO and airbrakes and or flaps may be extended to increase the rate of descent of necessary

B MMO (Maximum Operating Mach Number) and airbrakes can be extended to increase the rate of
descent

C 1.32 VMD and airbrakes and or flaps may be extended to increase the rate of descent, if necessary.

D the speed for l-d max and airbrakes and or flaps may be extended to increase the rate of descent if
necessary

Question N° 68
Refer to figure.
The annex shows a Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW) table for runway 23L from
take-off position VB. Use the data below to determine the appropriate V 1 , V R , and
V 2 speeds for a reduced thrust take-off on a dry runway. For this question do NOT
interpolate. Choose the most conservative figures at all times.
W/V: 230°/10 kt
OAT: -3°C
QNH: 1046 hPa
Engine anti-ice: ON
Packs: ON
Quick line-up
Take-off mass: 71180 kg
Assumed/FLEX T°: 61°C
A V1 135 kt, VR 136 kt, and V2 140 kt.

B V1 148 kt, VR 149 kt, and V2 153 kt.

C V1 151 kt, VR 151 kt, and V2 156 kt.

D V1 138 kt, VR 138 kt, and V2 143 kt.

Question N° 69
The screen height is the minimum height at which an aircraft should

A perform a go-around.

B fly over mountains.

C cross at the end of the take-off distance.

D descend on an ILS path without visual references.

Question N° 70
Refer to annex.
For the M RJT 1 aircraft calculate the take-off speeds V 1 , V R and V 2 given:
Mass 60000 kgs
PA 1500 ft
OAT +25°C
Flaps 5°
5 kts TW
1% downslope
A V1=143, VR=146, V2=153

B V1=143, VR=148, V2=155

C V1=145, VR=148, V2=155

D V1=145, VR=147, V2=155

Question N° 71
Consider flying at cruise altitude in a turbojet aeroplane. An increase in ambient
temperature is experienced. What will be the effect on the Specific Range (SR)?
(SFC means Specific Fuel Consumption)

A SR will remain constant but SFC will increase.

B SR will remain constant but SFC will decrease.

C SR will decrease.

D SR will increase.

Question N° 72
Refer to figure. (CAP 698 Figure 2.1)
What is the maximum estimated stall speed at 3 400 lbs?
A 59 kt

B 68 kt

C 71 kt

D 82 kt

Question N° 73
Calculate the net glide distance for a single-engined aeroplane following an engine
failure.
Aeroplane altitude: 8 000 ft
Terrain elevation: 1 500 ft
Gross gradient: 8%
TAS: 200 kt
Headwind component: 20 kt
1 NM = 6 080 ft
Still air distance = (height difference / net gradients) x 100
Ground distance = still air distance x (GS/TAS)
Calculation accuracy = one decimal place

A 12.6 NM

B 11.3 NM

C 12.1 NM

D 13.9 NM

Question N° 74
Refer to figure.
You are taking off with a single engined aeroplane and a field length limited take off
mass, from runway 09, in VMC, for a straight out departure. Given the following info,
what will be the expected obstacles clearance over the power lines on the extended
centerline?
Climb gradient: 5%
TAS: 133 kt
Wind: 10 kt tailwind
Runway slope: 0%
1 NM = 6 080 ft
Height difference = ((GD x TAS / GS) x Gradient )/100
A 424 ft

B 24 ft

C 74 ft

D 474 ft

Question N° 75
Consider the curve for the thrust required versus speed, for a jet aeroplane. What speed
can be obtained from the minimum of this curve? The speed for:

A Max Range, because fuel flow is proportional to lift to drag ratio.

B Max Endurance, because fuel flow is proportional to thrust at the minimum.

C Max Endurance, because fuel flow is proportional to power required.

D Max Range, because this speed corresponds to the maximum lift to drag ratio at the minimum.

Question N° 76
The Accelerate Stop Distance on a dry runway considers both the all engine case and
the engine failure case. The latter is calculated by adding the sum of the distance
necessary to accelerate to V EF , the distance to accelerate to the highest speed reached
during the rejected take-off...

A the distance to come to a full stop, and a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at V1.

B the distance to come to a full stop, and a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at V1 all multiplied by
1.15.

C the distance to come to a full stop multiplied by 1.15, and a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at VEF.

D 150% of the distance to come to a full stop, and a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at VEF.
Question N° 77
What is the correct sequence of descent speeds for a turbojet aeroplane starting at top
of descent? (Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility
effects).
Initially, descend maintaining a constant:

A TAS in the first part of descent and then at a constant Mach number in the second part of the
descent.

B Mach number in the first part of the descent and then at a constant TAS in the second part of the
descent.

C Mach number in the first part of the descent and then at a constant IAS in the second part of the
descent.

D IAS in the first part of descent and then at a constant Mach number in the second part of the
descent.

Question N° 78
Complete the following sentence:
For a take-off on a runway contaminated by slush or loose snow the displacement and
impingement drag will have a (1) __ effect on acceleration during the take -off and a (2)
__ effect on the deceleration during a rejected take -off.

A (1) Negative; (2) Positive.

B (1) Negative; (2) Negative.

C (1) Positive; (2) Negative.

D (1) Positive; (2) Positive.

Question N° 79
Refer to figure or use cap 698 figure 4.5.
Determine the climb limited take-off mass, given:
Airport OAT: +33º C
Airport pressure altitude: 2000 ft
Flaps: 5º
A/C pack: OFF.
Anti-icing system OFF
PMC: OFF
A 57 900 kg

B 53 700 kg

C 57 000 kg

D 52 800 kg

Question N° 80
After a new software update, the engineer has changed the crossover data from 250 kt /
M0.75 to 250 kt / M0.78. The pilot now must make sure he/she does not exceed:

A MMO

B VMO

C VNO

D VNE

Question N° 81
You are the pilot of a jet transport aeroplane and are doing performance calculations for
your departure on a contaminated runway with a strong crosswind -component. Which
of the following statements best describes guidance for calculating take -off
performance?

A Special crosswind limitations may apply in case of contaminated runways. Aircraft-type-specific

limitations are to be found in the Operations Manual Part D.

B Crosswind limitations are only given for dry runway surface conditions. Aircraft-type-specific
limitations are to be found in the Operations Manual Part A.

C Special crosswind limitations may apply in case of contaminated runways. Aircraft-type-specific

limitations are to be found in the Operations Manual Part B.
D Crosswind limitations are only given for dry runway surface conditions. Aircraft-type-specific
limitations are to be found in the Operations Manual Part C.

Question N° 82
The Accelerate Stop Distance Available ASDA is the length of the take off run
available plus the length

A of the stopway, if provided.

B of the clearway, if provided.

C between V1 and the end of the runway.

D necessary to stop the aircraft.

Question N° 83
Which of the following options best describes the relationship between fuel flow and
TAS, for propeller-driven aeroplanes?

A With increasing TAS, fuel flow will increase, when flying below the minimum power speed.

B With increasing TAS, fuel flow will increase, when flying above the minimum power speed.

C With increasing TAS, fuel flow will decrease, when flying above the minimum power speed.

D With decreasing TAS, fuel flow will decrease, when flying below the minimum power speed.

.............................................................................................................................................................
Release date: 2023.01.29.

Question N° 84
Given the following information, determine the defactored landing distance for a multi -
engined Performance Class B aeroplane operated for Commercial Air Transport.
Landing Distance Available: 4850 ft
Runway surface: Grass less than 20 cm long, NOT very short (factor 1.15)
Runway condition: Wet (factor 1.15)
Runway slope: 1.5% upslope
The landing distance should be increased by 5% for each 1% downslope.

A 2385 ft

B 1709 ft

C 3667 ft

D 2564 ft

Question N° 85
A pilot of a single-engined turbine aeroplane performs a Commercial Air Transport
flight with passengers over land with no significant terrain and the cruise phase will be
above a solid layer of cloud. The planned route must be such that, in the event of an
engine failure, the aeroplane is able to glide...

A to a point 1000 ft above a suitable landing area and the bottom of any solid cloud layer should be
above the minimum safe altitude.

B to the point of landing on a suitable landing site and there should be no cloud below a height of
1000 ft agl.

C to a point 1000 ft above a runway onto which a successful emergency landing can be made and
there should be no cloud below the minimum safe altitude.

D from an altitude where the rate of climb is at least 300 fpm to a point 1000 ft above a runway, onto
which a successful landing can be made.
Question N° 86
Refer to figure.
The Annex shows a Regulated Take-Off Mass (RTOM) table for runway 23L from take -
off position VB. Using the additional data below, determine the appropriate V 1 , V R and
V 2 speeds for a "reduced thrust take-off" on a wet runway. For this question do Not
interpolate. Choose the most conservative figures at all times.
W/V: 050°/ 6 KT
OAT: + 14° C
QNH: 1003 hPa
Runway: WET
Engine anti-ice: OFF
Packs: OFF
Take off mass: 67050 kg
Assumed/Flex T°: 63°C
A V1 = 123kt , VR=126kt, and V2=132kt

B V1 = 142kt , VR=142kt, and V2=146kt

C V1 = 126kt , VR=129kt, and V2=135kt

D V1 = 136kt , VR=139kt, and V2=145kt

Question N° 87
Refer to figure.
Consider the following information and assume a drift down after engine failure.
Determine the time travelled, ground distance travelled, and fuel burned from engine
failure. Given:
Drift down from pressure altitude: 33 000 ft
Drift down to pressure altitude: 16 000 ft
Gross Mass at engine failure: 58 050 kg
OAT: ISA -20° C
Tailwind: 25 kt
Bleed configuration: Eng anti-ice on A/C Auto (High)
A 60 min, more than 300 NM, and 2 200 kg.

B 36 min, 208 NM, and 1 300 kg.

C 31 min, 182 NM, and 1 150 kg.

D 22 min, 135 NM, and 800 kg.

Question N° 88
From 500 ft above the destination aerodrome to FL50, a multi-engined piston (MEP)
aeroplane performs a steady climb, maintaining a constant speed of 120 kt IAS. During
this climb, the ‘’Power Required vs. TAS’’ curve will move (1) _____ and the ‘’Power
Available vs. TAS’’ curve will move (2) _____.

A (1) down and right; (2) up and right

B (1) up and right; (2) down and right

C (1) down and left; (2) up and left

D (1) up and left; (2) down and left

Question N° 89
Refer to figure or CAP file 4.6. Given the following data, determine the Take-off Tyre
Speed Limit.
PA 85 ft
OAT 8° C
Flaps 5°
225 mph tyres
PMC OFF
TW 8 kts
A It is not a limiting factor.

B 78 100 kg.

C Below 78 100 kg.

D Cannot be determined due to missing data.

Question N° 90
Refer to figure.
Which one of the graphs shown in the figure represents the effect of a decreased
aircraft's mass on the total drag curve?
A Figure 1

B Figure 4

C Figure 2

D Figure 3
Question N° 91
A pilot is cleared to perform a Continuous Descent Arrival (CDA) into an airport.
He/she has calculated the descent profile and started the descent. During the descent,
he/she notices that the headwind is stronger than calculated. In order to remain on the
descent profile, he/she expects (1) __ in groundspeed and therefore plans to
(2) __ his/her rate of descent.

A (1) A decrease; (2) reduce.

B (1) An increase; (2) increase.

C (1) A decrease; (2) increase.

D (1) An increase; (2) reduce.

Question N° 92
The METAR and TAF indicate that the runway at the destination airport may be wet at
the estimated time of arrival. When operating a Performance Class B MEP aeroplane,
the landing distance should be multiplied by a factor of..

A 1.05.

B 1.15.

C 1.67.

D 0.15.

Question N° 93
Refer to figure.
You are taking-off with a single-engined aeroplane, and a field-lenght-limited take-off
mass, from runway 18, in VMC, for a straight-out departure. Given the following
information, what will be the expected obstacle clearance over the trees on the extended
centre line?
Climb gradient: 9%
TAS: 124 kt
Wind component: 10 kt headwind
1 NM = 6080 ft
Height Difference = ((GD x TAS)/GS) x Gradient/100

A 390 ft

B 440 ft

C 1190 ft

D 1240 ft

Question N° 94
Considering clearways, which of the following answers is correct?

A A clearway must be capable of supporting the weight of an aeroplane without causing structural
damage.

B A clearway is an area of land or water beyond the runway that must be under the control of the
airport authority.

C Clearway can be expressed as a surface extending from the end of the runway, with an upward
slope of 1.5% through which no obstacle or terrain must protrude.
D The minimum clearway width is 90 m either side of the extended centreline.

Question N° 95
Refer to figure.
NOTE: For this question do NOT interpolate, Choose the most conservative figures at
ALL times.
The annex shows a regulated take-off mass (RTOM) table for runway 23L from take-off
position VB. In each RTOM chart box, the following information is provided for a
given wind component / outside air temperature combination: MTOM / limitation code /
V1/VR/V2 (+100 kt). Given the following information, determine the RTOM for
departure.
W/V: 140°/14 kt
OAT: +10° C
QNH: 1008 hPa
Runway: WET
Engine anti-ice: ON
Packs: OFF
Quick line-up
A 77810 kg

B 77110 kg

C 78110 kg

D 78810 kg

Question N° 96
Consider a medium jet transport aircraft taking off from a contaminated runway where
the minimum control speed on the ground (V M CG ) is the limiting factor. What could be
used to improve the take-off performance in this scenario?

A Reduced take-off thrust to lower VMCG

B Reduced take-off thrust to Increase VMCG

C Derated take-off thrust to increase VMCG

D Derated take-off thrust to lower VMCG

Question N° 97
Considering a jet transport aeroplane, Specific Fuel Consumption SFC

A is the nautical miles per unit mass of fuel.

B is the fuel flow per unit of thrust.

C is the TAS per unit of fuel flow.

D is the nautical miles per unit of fuel flow.

Question N° 98
How does the maximum specific range over the Ground (SRG) for a propeller driven
aeroplane vary with altitude?

A It increases until the increase in TAS is offset by the increase in power required.

B It increases until the increase in the Ground speed is offset by the increase in power required.

C It decreases until the decrease in TAS is offset by the increase in Power required.

D It decreases until the increase in Ground speed is offset by the increase in power required.

Question N° 99
Refer to figure or CAP698 file 2.3. Given the following information, what are the ROC
and climb gradient?
Climb speed: 110 kt TAS
Gross Mass: 3100 lb
OAT : + 13° C
QNH : 1030 hpa
Altitude: 6000 ft
A 1100ft, 9.6%

B 1080ft, 9.7%

C 1140ft, 10.6%

D 1140ft, 10.1%

Question N° 100
CS 25.119 states the landing climb requirement for a large aeroplane. To assess this
requirement, what are the power or thrust control positions used?
The power or thrust controls are:

A In the go-around position.

B Moved to the go-around position from the approach position.

C In the flight idle position.

D Moved from the minimum flight idle to go-around position.

Question N° 101
If, after experiencing an engine failure when cruising above the one-engine-inoperative
ceiling, an aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude, the procedure that
should be adopted is:

A Long range cruise descent.

B Drift down procedure.

C ETOPS.

D Emergency descent procedure.

Question N° 102
According to CS-25, there may be NO buffeting condition in normal flight, including
configuration changes during the cruise, severe enough to interfere with the control of
the aeroplane, to cause excessive fatigue to the crew, or to cause structural damage.
Stall warning buffeting within these limits is allowable. There may be NO perceptible
buffeting condition in the cruise configuration in straight flight at any speed up to
VMO/MMO (except the stall warning buffeting). Which of the following statements is
correct?

A When buffet becomes noticeable, it will probably be so severe that the pilot will NOT be able to
read the instruments or to control the aeroplane.

B The aeroplane has entered an undesired state if high-speed buffet becomes perceptible and
recovery from this may be impossible.

C High-speed buffet may occur at speeds around VMO/MMO during manoeuvres away from straight
flight.

D NO high-speed buffet will occur at any speed up to VMO/MMO, unless the aeroplane is
approaching the stall.

Question N° 103
Consider a large Commercial Air Transport turbojet aeroplane, when comparing the
long-range speed to the maximum-range speed, the long-range speed:
(Assuming all other factors remain unchanged)

A Leads to a longer flight time for a given distance travelled.

B Corresponds to a higher cost index.

C Has a higher angle of attack

D Is more fuel efficient.

Question N° 104
For Performance Class A aeroplanes in Commercial Air Transport operations, the take -
off distance is at least equal to the distance necessary to reach a height of 35 feet on a
dry runway with all engines operating, multiplied by..
A 1.15.

B 0.95.

C 1.30.

D 1.00.

Question N° 105
The stopway is an area designated to be used by an aircraft in order to…

A vacate at the end of the runway.

B remain on the runway after a balked landing.

C decelerate during an abortive take-off.

D park between two flights.