Question N 1

What is the main purpose of dutch roll filter?

A To distinguish commanded turn inputs from yaw due to a disturbance or apparent Dutch roll.

B To prevent yaw damper overreacting to dutch roll.

C To prevent yaw damper from reacting too quickly to dutch roll.

D To sense the aeroplane’s motion about the normal or vertical axis.

Question N 2
The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is
to:

A set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.

B reset the attitude, after engaging the autopilot.

C transfer a stabilised aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.

D automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.

Question N 3
The commands sent out by the yaw damper computer:

A are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.

B are added to or subtracted from the rudder deflection orders sent out by the pilot or the autopilot.

C are inhibited when the pilot acts on the rudder pedals.

D inhibit the rudder deflection orders sent out by the pilot or the autopilot.
Question N 4
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a
Mach trim system:

A It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.

B It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure
at high subsonic airspeeds.

C It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.

D It operates over the full aeroplane speed range.

Question N 5
The Yaw Damper system is designed to increase the damping ratio of..

A pitch oscillation.

B aileron roll.

C Dutch roll.

D phugoid roll.

Question N 6
The flight envelope protection function(s) consist(s) in:
1 – alerting the flight crew in case of dangerous proximity with the ground
2 – avoiding mid-air collision
3 – preventing the aircraft from exceeding some aerodynamic limits.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 1, 3.

B 3.
C 1, 2, 3.

D 1.

Question N 7
A Mach trim system..

A is activated by the pilot when reaching the limiting Mach number to trim attitude.

B compensates for Mach tuck by setting the horizontal stabiliser to positive degrees.

C compensates for Mach tuck caused by the rearward movement of the shock wave as an aircraft
accelerates.

D compensates for the forward movement of the centre of pressure, due to the forward movement of
the shock wave, as speed increases.

Question N 8
What is the purpose of the trim system?

A To relieve forces on the controls while maintaining aircraft attitude.

B To allow the autopilot to trim the aircraft in all 3 axes.

C To automatically compensate for loss of an engine, or fuel imbalance.

D To allow the pilot to make small attitude adjustments WITHOUT moving the main fight controls.

Question N 9
When the yaw damper system sends motion orders to the rudder:

A a feedback is provided on the roll trim only.

B no feedback is provided on the rudder pedals.

C a feedback is provided on the rudder pedals and the roll trim.

D a feedback is provided on the rudder pedals only.

Question N 10
A visual and aural warning of runaway trim requires…

A NO action, as the autopilot will reset the trim once it has isolated the auto-trim system.

B immediate action to stop the runaway. The aircraft must be configured for landing, using the non-
normal checklist.

C the autopilot to be left engaged for the approach and landing, as manual control may require
excessive manual forces.

D disconnection of the autopilot, and manual trimming fully forward, to retain control full flap must
be used for landing.

Question N 11
A flight envelope protection system is a system..

A that generates a signal when the engines have exceeded the start envelope limit.

B required to generate an ACAS warning.

C that generates a control signal when the aircraft exceeds the flight envelope limit.

D that generates a signal during flight when engine parameters only are exceeded.

Question N 12
The Mach trim system:
A compensates the pitch up tendency at high Mach numbers.

B adjust the horizontal stabiliser position during a high speed stall.

C ensures optimum C.G. location by transferring fuel into the horizontal stabiliser.

D increases the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane by adjusting the horizontal stabiliser
according to Mach number.

Question N 13
What is the green band/area on a pitch trim indicator?

A The range within which the stabiliser trim should be set for take-off.

B The allowable range for normal operation.

C The maximum range of trim that can be set by the autopilot.

D The range within which the stabiliser should be set for landing.

Question N 14
How does the yaw damper detect dutch roll?

A Using a rate gyro that measures angular rate.

B Using inputs from the IRS.

C Using a gyro and inputs from the IRS, depending on the aircraft type.

D Using accelerometers and inputs from the IRS only, depending on the aircraft type.

Question N 15
An aircraft fitted with a yaw damper. The pilot deliberately manipulates the
rudder pedals to induce a yaw. What stops the yaw damper from counteracting
the deliberate command input?

A Rudder pedal sensors

B A rate gyro

C A Dutch Roll Filter

D A Hydraulic Actuator

Question N 16
The yaw damper system sends a motion order to the rudder if the yawing rate of
the aircraft:

A is constant.

B is > 0 only.

C is > 1 only.

D is not constant.

Question N 17
The yaw damper system controls:

A the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.

B the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.

C the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.

D the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.
Question N 18
You are flying an aircraft at FL350 with the autopilot engaged in VNAV and
LNAV modes. What are the consequences of an auto-trim failure in these
conditions?

A The autopilot will disconnect and the pilot flying should take the controls.

B The abnormal rudder jam checklist should be performed.

C An emergency descent should be initiated.

D The company should be notified and advice should be seen from MCC.

Question N 19
When the autopilot is engaged, the role of the automatic pitch trim is to:

A respond to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode.

B block the elevator and pilot the aircraft only via the trim tab actuator or the horizontal stabiliser.

C synchronise the longitudinal loop.

D relieve the autopilot servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim when disconnecting the autopilot.

Question N 20
State an example of a flight envelope protection system (soft flight envelope
protection system), which gives warning signal as soon as a limit will be
approached:

A dynamic trim

B rudder ratio limiter

C Mach tuck under

D stick shaker

Question N 21
The yaw damper system is operative:

A only when flying manually.

B only if the autopilot is engaged.

C only if the flight director is engaged.

D during manual or automatic flight.

Question N 22
Given:
MH = magnetic heading of the aircraft
Omega = yawing rate of the aircraft
The yaw damper computer sends a motion order to the rudder if:

A the derivative of MH with respect to time is not equal to zero.

B the derivative of Omega with respect to time is equal to zero.

C the derivative of MH with respect to time is equal to zero.

D the derivative of Omega with respect to time is not equal to zero.

Question N 23
For an aeroplane fitted with mechanical flight control system, the automatic pitch
trim system:

A is active whenever the flight director is engaged.

B is active whenever the autopilot is armed.

C is active whenever the autopilot is disengaged.

D is active whenever the autopilot is engaged.

Question N 24
The yaw damper detects and filters Dutch Roll. How?
1. By the use of a horizontal axis rate gyro that measure angular rate.
2. By the use of inputs from the IRS.
3. By the use of a vertical axis rate gyro that measures angular rate.
4. It will depend on the aircraft type, but both 1 and 2 can be correct.

A 4

B 2

C 3

D 1

Question N 25
On a fly-by-wire aeroplane, what does the automatic pitch trim system do?

A If the PF changes pitch attitude and, at the desired attitude, releases control pressure, the system
holds that new attitude.

B It trims the aeroplane, if the autopilot has been engaged.

C If the pitch attitude is alternated and control pressure released, the system returns to the previous
pitch rate setting.

D It performs the rotation during take-off.

Question N 26
The purpose of the auto-trim function in an autopilot is to

A tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required.

B control the elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load.

C help the autopilot to compensate for crosswind influence.

D trim the throttles to obtain smooth engine-power variation.

Question N 27
The flight envelope protection (FEP) can include:
1 – the stall protection.
2 – the overspeed protection.
3 – the maximum vertical speed protection.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 2, 3.

B 1, 2, 3.

C 1, 3.

D 1, 2.

Question N 28
An Autothrottle system provides flight envelope protection..

A by using the FADEC.

B by adjusting the aircraft attitude.

C by reducing the aircraft bank angle.

D through reversion modes.

Question N 29
As the pilot of a modern jet transport aircraft, in an extended cruise, with the
autopilot and all systems operating correctly, what must you do to maintain
longitudinal trim of the aeroplane?

A As fuel is used from the wing tips, the CG will be moving forwards, so you must periodically trim
nose-up.

B As fuel is used from the wing roots, the CG will be moving backwards, so you must periodically
trim nose-down.

C Nothing, the autotrim system will ensure the standing loads on the elevator are removed.

D Periodically disconnect the autopilot and trim out any standing loads on the elevators.

Question N 30
The flight envelope protection function(s) consist(s) in:
1 – automatically performing an evasion manoeuvre if necessary
2 – preventing the aircraft from exceeding the limits for specific flight
parameters
3 – alerting the flight crew in case of dangerous proximity with a threatening
traffic
4 – preventing any incursion beyond an ATC clearance
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 1, 2.

B 1, 3.

C 2, 3, 4.

D 2.
Question N 31
On a conventional aeroplane, what does the automatic pitch trim system do?

A It is an autopilot mode to ensure the correct rotation rate is maintained during take-off.

B It is a system used to compensate for incorrect pilot inputs.

C When force on the elevator control is detected, it directs the pilot to trim the elevator to relieve the
load.

D When force on the elevator control is detected, the system moves the trim to relieve the load.

Question N 32
The purpose of the Mach trim system is to counteract:

A Thrust oscillations at high Mach number.

B Dutch roll oscillations.

C The pitch down tendency at high Mach number.

D The pitch up tendency at high Mach number.

Question N 33
An aeroplane has a yaw damper that is unserviceable, and by the MEL is
restricted to fly only at or below FL170. What is the potential problem that the
yaw damper is intended to prevent from happening at high altitudes?

A Excessive directional stability.

B Excessive longitudinal stability.

C Spiral instability.

D Dutch roll.
Question N 34
Which of the following is an example of a flight envelope protection system that
generates warning signals to indicate when a limit is being approached (referred
to as a soft flight envelope protection system)?

A The rudder ratio limiter.

B The Mach tuck under.

C The dynamic trim.

D The stick shaker.

Question N 35
The Yaw Damper filter is used...

A to detect the roll rates that initiate Dutch roll.

B to eliminate Dutch roll rates.

C to detect the normal rates of the aircraft and eliminate the Dutch roll rates.

D to amplify normal aircraft roll rates.

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2022.10.16.

Question N° 36
In an inertial navigation system, the input(s) required to obtain a wind direction
and velocity readout is(are):

A IAS.

B altitude and OAT.

C TAS.

D Mach number.

Question N° 37
After a failure, whats is an appropriate procedure in the correct order for
following an on-screen checklist?
1. Confirm the failure
2. Check the status of the FWS
3. Follow the checklist slowly and methodically
4. Seek confirmation prior to manipulating any guarded switches
5. Assess the possible implications of making certain selections

A 1, 3, 4 and 5.

B 1, 2, 3 and 5.

C 1, 5, 3 and 4.

D 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question N° 38
Considering a stabilised platform inertial system, the principle of operation
requires the use of at least:

A 2 rate gyros and 2 accelerometers.

B 2 rate gyros and 3 accelerometers.

C 3 rate gyros and 2 accelerometers.

D 3 rate gyros and 4 accelerometers.

Question N° 39
FANS was developed by ICAO..

A to provide a more efficient, safe, and cost-effective system for communication.

B to allow more aircraft to safely and efficiently utilise a given volume of airspace.

C in order to automate and distribute departure slots.

D to effectively monitor aircraft systems` status information and fuel consumption.

Question N° 40
When does the stall protection system activate?

A Before exceeding the critical angle of attack, irrespective of whether the crew is taking the
corrective actions.

B When exceeding the critical angle of attack, irrespective of whether the crew is taking the
corrective actions.

C When exceeding the critical angle of attack, if the crew is not taking the corrective actions.

D Before exceeding the critical angle of attack, if the crew is not taking the corrective actions.

Question N° 41
The notification phase (LOG ON) is a FANS application which consists in
transmitting aircraft information and:

A associated datalink capability, prior to operating any datalink communications with ATC.
B park stand to the airport pre-flight controller to request the datalink pre-departure clearance (PDC).

C aircraft position to the airport ground controller to request the datalink taxi clearance.

D aircraft position to request the datalink clearance to enter an airspace.

Question N° 42
In case of EFB malfunction in a fully electronic flight-deck environment, what
implications may arise:
1. Erroneous ECAM alerts,
2. Erroneous performance calculations,
3. Access to ACARS is unavailable.
4. Access to charts and manuals unavailable.

A 2, 3, and 4

B 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 4

D 1 and 3

Question N° 43
Which statements below that applies best to an ADIRU?

A ADIRU is an Air Data Computer which is integrated with an Inertial Reference Unit

B ADIRU is an Air Data Computer which is integrated with an Inertial Unit and GPS

C ADIRU is an Attitude Director Indicator which is integrated with an Inertial Reference Unit

D ADIRU is an Air Data Computer which is integrated with an Inertial Navigation System
Question N° 44
Considering a modern thrust computer, during a steady climb:

A N1 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs and N2 remains constant.

B N1 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs.

C N2 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs and N1 remains constant.

D N1 and N2 remain constant.

Question N° 45
A large commercial aeroplane is performing a test flight. It maintains level flight
and reduced speed towards the indicated stick-shaker speed. If all angle of
Attack (AOA) sensors become frozen at an angle corresponding to level flight,
stall warning and protection system will…

A function properly because the AoA information will be disregarded.

B function properly by alternate inputs from the Air Data Computer.

C NOT trigger at all or NOT function as expected.

D NOT be affected because their source is pitch and speed information.

Question N° 46
Where is the majority of the output data from the INS/IRS presented on?

A CDU

B ADU

C ADI

D CDI
Question N° 47
What is the special characteristic of a fly-by-wire aircraft, in comparison to
conventional control, when approaching a stall?

A They do not make the control column shake.

B It inhibits and limits pilot inputs.

C It automatically moves the control stick in corrective action.

D When in automated flight, it immediately gives the pilot full control.

Question N° 48
Assuming the autopilot is in heading hold mode, what would happen to the
autopilot if the flux valve started drifting in an aircraft equipped with a single flux
valve?

A The autopilot would start drifting off too.

B The autopilot would disengage automatically.

C The 'FLUX ERROR' warning light would illuminate on the autopilot control panel, and the
autopilot would use its internal logic to compensate for the error.

D Nothing. The autopilot is independent from the flux valve.

Question N° 49
The crew is flying a heading assigned by ATC, 20 NM to the left and parallel to
the planned route, for weather avoidance. Just after you pass the weather, ATC
clears you to continue on your flight planned route. You select the lateral
navigation mode and the Pilot Monitoring (PM) reads the Flight Mode
Annunciator (FMA), the navigation mode is armed. What will the aircraft do
when it arrives abeam the right turn at the next waypoint on the Flight
Management Computer (FMC) flight plan?
A It will continue on the current heading, unless a heading intercepting the flight plan has been set by
the pilot.

B It will continue to parallel the planned route by offset by 20 NM to the left, so the aircraft will
execute a right turn.

C It will turn right towards the next waypoint.

D It will enter an ICAO standard holding pattern.

Question N° 50
The automatic synchronisation function of an autopilot control system:
1 – operates only when the autopilot is engaged
2 – prevents the aircraft`s control system from jerking when disengaging the
autopilot
3 – prevents the aircraft`s control system from jerking when engaging the
autopilot
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 3.

B 1, 2.

C 1, 3.

D 1, 2, 3.

Question N° 51
How is a peripheral device like a printer or a supplemental hard drive directly
connected to a computer?

A Via the read-only memory.

B Via the external bus(ses).

C Via the internal bus(ses).

D Via the central processing unit.

Question N° 52
The crew of an aircraft fitted with a GPWS is on an ILS approach. As the aircraft
reaches a height of 200 feet above the threshold the GPWS gives an aural alert
of ‘’minimums, minimums’’. What GPWS mode does this refer to?

A Mode 5.

B Mode 6.

C Mode 7.

D Mode 8.

Question N° 53
Newton metre (N m) is the SI unit of..

A pressure.

B power.

C force.

D torque.

Question N° 54
An autothrottle adjusts thrust to maintain a constant speed during..

A cruise and approach.

B take-off and approach.

C taxi and take-off.

D taxi, cruise and approach.

Question N° 55
Concerning a fail-operational flight control system, in the event of a failure:
1 – the system will operate as a fail-passive system
2 – the landing is not completed automatically
3 – the landing is completed automatically.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 2.

B 1, 3.

C 3.

D 1, 2.

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2023.01.15.

Question N° 56
The basic modes of an autopilot consist of:

A controlling the path of the aircraft vertically only.

B controlling the path of the aircraft horizontally or vertically.

C stabilising the aircraft around its centre of gravity.

D controlling the movement of the centre of gravity of the aircraft.

Question N° 57
The validity period of the navigation data base of a FMS is:

A 28 days.

B one calendar month.

C 14 days.

D 3 calendar months.

Question N° 58
Considering a modern thrust computer, during a steady climb:

A N1 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs and N2 remains constant.

B N1 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs.

C N2 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs and N1 remains constant.

D N1 and N2 remain constant.

Question N° 59
How is total fuel consumption calculated?

A By differentiating the rate of fuel consumption over the flight time.

B By subtracting the volume of the remaining fuel in the tanks from the initial fuel total.

C By dividing total distance flown by the volume of fuel used.

D By integrating the rate of fuel consumption over the flight time.

Question N° 60
Artificial feel systems are installed in

A partially-powered flight control systems.

B fully-powered flight control systems.

C all-mechanical flight control systems.

D Fly-By-Wire flight control systems.

Question N° 61
An autothrottle is a system that automatically..

A moves the aeroplane`s control surfaces.

B controls the aeroplane`s thrust setting.

C maintains the desired auto-control mode of the cabin pressure.

D controls the overpressure relief valve.

Question N° 62
The master caution and audible warning are triggered during the cruise segment
of a flight with an inexperienced crew. The crew are distracted by dealing with
the situation and allow the speed of the aircraft to reduce towards the stall. The
audible alert of the stall warning system...

A is unique so the crew can differentiate it from warnings relating to other emergencies.
B will be the same as the standard master warning audible alert for greatest urgency.

C will be the same as the standard master caution audible alert.

D is quieter than other audible alerts because it has a lower priority.

Question N° 63
An aeroplane is equipped with an autopilot and an auto-throttle. When the
altitude hold mode (ALT HOLD) is active:

A the IAS is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

B the IAS is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

C the TAS is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

D the TAS is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

Question N° 64
During a flight in icing conditions the AoA sensor vanes become frozen and
stuck in their current position. The crew are NOT aware of this and the Pilot
Flying lowers the nose of the aeroplane to start a descent. What will be the AoA
reading?

A No AoA indication in combination with a warning of a fault in these sensors.

B The same AoA as during level flight, thus providing false data.

C The correct AoA for the descent, as other systems will compensate for the stuck AoA sensors.

D The force of the airflow when starting the descent will crack the ice, the AoA vanes will operate
again and provide the correct AoA.

Question N° 65
An aircraft equipped with EGPWS is making a visual approach to a runway with
a functioning ILS. To avoid inappropriate alerts, the crew is able to…

A Inhibit the BITE function of the EGPWS.

B Manually select the approach mode on the EGPWS.

C Inhibit the glideslope mode of the EGPWS.

D Switch off the EGPWS.

Question N° 66
Which of the following can be displayed on a typical mechanical ADI?
1. Air speed
2. Roll attitude
3. Pitch attitude
4. Altitude
5. Flight Director command bars
6. Glideslope

A 1, 2, 3, and 4

B 2, 3, 5, and 6

C 1, 2, 5, and 6

D 3, 4, 5, and 6

Question N° 67
The automatic synchronisation function of an autopilot control system:
1 – operates only when the autopilot is engaged
2 – prevents the aircraft`s control system from jerking when disengaging the
autopilot
3 – prevents the aircraft`s control system f rom jerking when engaging the
autopilot
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A 3.

B 1, 2.

C 1, 3.

D 1, 2, 3.

Question N° 68
How are null-seeking (slotted) probe angle-of-attack sensors protected against
ice?

A Passive anti-icing.

B Thermal pneumatic anti-icing.

C Chemical anti-icing.

D Thermal electric anti-icing.

Question N° 69
What does a HUD typically include?
1. Liquid crystal display.
2. Computer.
3. Projector.
4. Combiner.

A 1, 2 and 4.

B 1, 2 and 3.

C 2, 3 and 4.

D 1, 3 and 4.
Question N° 70
How does a pilot disconnect the autopilot in an aircraft equipped with a
sidestick?
1- By pushing or pulling the sidestick hard.
2- By pressing the A/P button on the glareshield.
3- By pressing the takeover pushbutton.
4- By moving the thrust levers.

A 1, 2, 3, 4

B 1, 3

C 1, 2, 3

D 1, 2

Question N° 71
The GPWS automatically provides distinctive warning to the flight crew in case
of:
1 – impeding stall
2 – excessive descent rate
3 – altitude loss after take-off or go-around
4 – unsafe terrain clearance with flaps not in landing configuration
5 – dangerous ground proximity
6 – downward glide-slope deviation
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

B 1, 3, 4, 5.

C 2, 3, 4, 5.

D 1, 2, 6.

Question N° 72
To provide complete attitude data and navigational data, what external input(s)
does the INS computer require?

A TAS, radar altitude and GPS position.

B It requires no external input.

C TAS and radar altitude.

D TAS only.

Question N° 73
During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode
(tracking of ILS Glide Slope). The position of the horizontal command bar
indicates:
1– the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope
2– the correction to be applied to the pitch angle in order to capture and follow
the ILS Glide Slope
3– the pitch angle of the aircraft.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A 1, 3.

B 1.

C 1, 2.

D 2.

Question N° 74
An oil torque meter makes use of the following phenomenon:

A axial movement is generated when cylindrically cut gears are used to transfer power from one shaft
to another.
B axial movement is generated when helically cut gears are used to transfer power from one shaft to
another.

C as power is increased, the torque shaft expands (the torque shaft is connected to the engine only).

D as power is increased, the torque shaft twists (the torque shaft is connected to both the engine and
the propeller`s reduction gear box).

Question N° 75
The ADC uses, among others, the following parameters as input data:

A TAS, baro altitude, TAT.

B static pressure, total pressure, TAT.

C Mach number, baro altitude, CAS.

D total pressure, static pressure, TAT, EGT.

Question N° 76
The purpose of an automatic landing system is to:

A have a safer go-around in case of autopilot failure.

B make the landing possible in case of a short runway.

C make the landing possible in poor weather conditions.

D have a smoother flare than when manually flying.

Question N° 77
You are the Pilot Flying (PF) and just about to approach your destination. The
autopilot is engaged, and as you reduce speed in accordance with your
clearance you instinctively trim up significantly on the pitch trim wheel, reverting
to the aircraft type you trained on, which had NO auto-trim. The consequence
may be:

A That the autopilot may be unable to counteract your trim input quickly enough. The aircraft may
pitch down, requiring you to disconnect the autopilot and fly manually.

B That the moment you move the trim wheel the autopilot will disconnect. The aircraft will be
perfectly in trim, and you will be able to re-engage the autopilot WITHOUT re-trimming.

C An out-of-trim condition, which may cause the autopilot to disconnect and the aircraft to pitch up.

D That the autopilot will fly the rest of the approach with an out-of-trim load, which may leave
insufficient authority should a go-around be necessary. This is corrected by disengaging and re-engaging
the autopilot.

Question N° 78
What is the use of the TCS (Touch Control Steering)?

A temporary manual flying while the autopilot is still engaged.

B steering of the aircraft via a touch screen.

C assist the flare during the autoland.

D disengagement of the autopilot to make a flight path change, before reengaging it back.

Question N° 79
Consider a multi-pilot aircraft equipped with dual instrument system (pitot-static
probes and ports located on both sides of the fuselage). During the flight, the
left static ports becomes blocked. For the remainder of the flight…

A both left and right VSI indications will return to, and constantly indicate, zero.

B left VSI indications will return to, and constantly indicate, zero.

C both VSI indications will be inaccurate when the aircraft is in a sideslip.

D left VSI indications will always be inaccurate during climbs or descents.

Question N° 80
The disadvantage(s) of a float type fuel quantity measuring system compared to
a capacitance fuel measuring system is (are) that the..

A indications are influenced by aircraft attitude variations and accelerations only.

B indications are influenced by aircraft attitude variations, accelerations, and temperature variations.
is complex.

D indications are influenced by aircraft attitude variations, accelerations, and temperature variations,
and the complex design.

Question N° 81
The uplink datalink message " AT [time] CLIMB TO AND MAINTAIN [altitude]"
means:

A after the climb the specified altitude is to be maintained until the specified time.

B after the climb the specified altitude is to be maintained from the specified time.

C at the specified time the specified altitude is to be reached.

D at the specified time a climb to the specified altitude is to be started and the specified altitude is to
be maintained.

Question N° 82
Which of the following correctly describes the difference between an armed
mode and an engaged mode in an autopilot system?

A An armed mode will only become engaged when the flight crew switches to the engaged mode.
B They are the same thing: different manufacturers use different terminology.

C An armed mode will only become engaged when certain criteria are met.

D Only a three-axis autopilot can operate in an engaged mode.

Question N° 83
An aircraft, flying at 20°N latitude, executes a left turn from 045° Magnetic
Heading (MH) to 315° (MH). The pilot reads the MH indication from a Direct
Reading Magnetic Compass (DRMC). Before commencing the turn, what should
the pilot take into consideration?
1. He/she should roll out when the DRMC reads 335°, to read 315° MH with the
wings level.
2. He/she should roll out when the DRMC reads 295°, to read 315° MH with the
wings level.
3. The turning error of the DRMC increases as the bank angle increases.
4. A timed turn would be more practical to execute; it would take 30 seconds
with a rate-1 turn.
5. A timed turn would be more practical to execute; it would take 90 seconds
with a rate-1 turn.

A 1, 3 and 4.

B 1, 3 and 5.

C 2, 3 and 4.

D 2, 3 and 5.

Question N° 84
Complete the following phrase:
The signal on an angle of attack sensor is created by a (1)__ and is subject to
(2)__ error.

A (1) magnetic sensor; (2) variation.

B (1) potentiometer; (2) position.

C (1) piezoelectric; (2) deviation.

D (1) capacitor; (2) scale.

Question N° 85
What is the purpose of the take-off warning system? It is to help ensure that:

A in case the take-off must be abandoned, it is done when below V 1.

B take-off is attempted in appropriate and safe configurations.

C correct take-off power is set at the start of the take-off run.

D there is enough runway to safely attempt a take-off.

Question N° 86
The FLARE mode does not indicate during a CAT III approach. The pilot has the
required visual references. In accordance with the regulations, how can the
approach be completed?

A The landing is completed manually with the flight controls.

B The pilot shall reduce thrust and take control after landing.

C The pilot takes control after the aircraft stops.

D The pilot must take control after landing.