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Exercise
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
PART - II : ONLY ONE OPTION CORRECT TYPE
Section (A) : Development of Periodic Table & Modern Periodic Table
A-1. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to :
(A) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
(B) atomic number of any element of the period.
(C) maximum Principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(D) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.
A-2. Which one of the following statements related to the modern periodic table is incorrect :
(A) The p-block has 6 columns, because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a
p-subshell.
(B) The d-block has 8 columns, because a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a
d-subshell.
(C) Each block contains a number of columns equal to the number of electrons that can occupy that
subshell.
(D) The block indicates value of Azimuthal quantum number () for the last subshell that received
electrons in building up the electronic configuration.
A-3. The elements in which electrons are progressively filled in 4f-orbital are called :
(A) actinoids (B) transition elements (C) lanthanoids (D) halogens
A-4. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding hydrogen :
(A) It resembles halogens in some properties.
(B) It resembles alkali metals in some properties.
(C) It can be placed in 17th group of Modern periodic table.
(D) It cannot be placed in 1st group of Modern periodic table.
A-5. Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above and
below Ag in Long form of periodic table will be :
(A) 29, 65 (B) 39, 79 (C) 29, 79 (D) 39, 65
A-6. In modern periodic table, the element with atomic number Z = 118 will be :
(A) Uuo; Ununoctium; alkaline earth metal (B) Uno; Unniloctium; transition metal
(C) Uno; Unniloctium; alkali metal (D) Uuo; Ununoctium; noble gas
Section (B) : Shielding Effect & Zeff
B-1. The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer
shell electrons is :
(A) s > p > d > f (B) f > d > p > s (C) p < d < s > f (D) f > p > s > d
B-2. Which of the following is generally true regarding effective nuclear charge (Z eff) :
(A) It increases on moving left to right in a period.
(B) It remains almost constant on moving top to bottom in a group.
(C) For isoelectronic species, as Z increases, Zeff decreases.
(D) Both (A) and (B).
B-3. Among following species which of them have maximum Zeff.
(A) Sn (B) Sn4+ (C) In (D) In+
B-4. From the given set of species, point out the species from each set having highest Z eff
(a) O2–, F–, Na+ (b) Li, Be, Na (c) He, Li+, H–
a b c a b c
(A) Na+ Be Li+ (B) O2– Li H–
– +
(C) F Na He (D) Na Be He
Section (C) : Oxidation states & Inert pair effect
C-1. The atomic number of an element which can not show the oxidation state of +3 is-
(A) 13 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 17
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
C-2. The most common oxidation state of an element is –2. The number of electrons present in its outer
most shell is -
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
C-3. Most stable oxidation state of gold is :
(A) + 1 (B) +3 (C) +2 (D) zero
C-4. Which can have both +ve and –ve oxidation states in their compounds
(A) F (B) I (C) Na (D) Al
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
Section (E) : Ionisation energy
E-1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionisation enthalpy ?
(A) Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron.
(B) The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy is experienced on removal of electron from core of
noble gas configuration.
(C) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionization enthalpy.
(D) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbitals having higher n
value.
E-2. The first ionisation enthalpies (in eV) of N & O are respectively given by :
(A) 14.6, 13.6 (B) 13.6, 14.6 (C) 13.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6
E-3. The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order :
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si (C) Na < Mg < Al < Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si
st
E-4. Which represents alkali metals (i.e. 1 group metals) based on (IE)1 and (IE)2 values (in kJ/mol) ?
(IE)1 (IE)2 (IE)1 (IE)2
(A) X 500 1000 (B) Y 600 2000
(C) Z 550 7500 (D) M 700 1400
E-5. Which of the following relation is correct with respect to first (I) and second (II) ionization enthalpies of
potassium and calcium ?
(A) ICa > IIK (B) IK > ICa (C) IICa > IIK (D) IIK > IICa
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
G-3. Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si on Pauling scale is :
(A) N > P > C > Si (B) C > Si > N > P (C) N < P < C < Si (D) N > C > P > Si
G-4. The correct order of electronegativity on Pauling scale is :
(A) F > Cl > O > S (B) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs
(C) Be < B < N < C (D) Both (A) and (B)
G-5. Which of the following is most electronegative element.
(A) Li (B) Mg (C) H (D) Na
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
7. The Lanthanides are characterized by the uniform [+n] oxidation state shown by all the Lanthanides .
What is the value of ‘n’
8. Highest oxidation states shown by Chromium & Manganese are +x & +y respectively. Give the value of
x+y?
9. If internuclear distance between A atoms in A2 is 10Å and between B atoms in B2 is 6Å, then calculate
internuclear distance between A and B in Å. [Electronegativity difference between A and B has
negligible value].
10. Report atomic number of the element having largest size among the following :
Ni, Cu, Zn
11. How many of following atoms have maximum ionization energy than boron.
(i) Be (ii) N (iii) P (iv) Ga (v) S (vi) Mg
12.
Where a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h are 3rd period elements. If difference between atomic number of elements b
and e is x and difference between atomic number of elements c and f is y. What is the value of x – y.
13. Values of IE1, IE2, IE3 of an element are 9.3, 18.2 and 553.8 eV. Predict group number in Modern
Periodic Table.
14. A– (g) A2+ (g) H = 1100 KJ/mol
A (g) A2+ (g) H = 1200 KJ/mol
Electron gain enthalphy of A is P × 102 KJ/mol. What is the value of P ?
15. The electron gain enthalpy of a hypothetical element ‘A’ is –3 eV per atom. How much energy in kCal is
released when 10 g of ‘A’ are completely converted to A– ions in gaseous state ?
(Take : 1 eV per atom = 23 kCal mol–1, Molar mass of A = 30 g)
16. What is atomic number of element which have maximum electron affinity in Modern Periodic table.
17. How many of the following elements are more electronegative than Boron.
(i) H (ii) Li (iii) Be (iv) C (v) N (vi) O (vii) F
4. Which of the following is/are correct regarding oxidation state of elements in their compounds :
(A) All d-Block elements show multiple oxidation state.
(B) All p-Block elements show multiple oxidation state.
(C) All s-Block elements show single oxidation state.
(D) Some of 18 group elements can show multiple oxidation state.
5. Which of the following elements have + 3 as most popular oxidation state?
(A) Al (B) Xe (C) Cu (D) Sc
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
6. Which of the following show non-zero multiple oxidation state ?
(A) S (B) O (C) Zn (D) H
7. Which of the following pairs of elements show similar set of oxidation state ?
(A) O16, O18 (B) Na, K (C) C, Be (D) Zn, Rb
8. Which of the following elements have their lower oxidation state as more stable oxidation state.
(A) O (B) Pb (C) T (D) Bi
9. Which is/are the correct order/s of atomic radius ?
(A) Li < B < Be (C) Be < B < Li (C) Li > Be > B (D) N > O > F
10. Which is/are the correct order/s of atomic radius ?
(A) Mn > Fe > Co (B) Mn Fe Co (C) Sc > Ti > V (D) Zn < Cu < Ni
11. Which of the following orders is(are) correct for size :
(A) Al Ga (B) Te2– > I– > Cs+ > Ba2+
3+
(C) Cr < Cr 6+
(D) Pd Pt
12. The ionic radii depends upon in the following factors :
(A) Charge on cation
(B) Charge on anion
(C) Shell number of valence shell electron(s) of the ion.
(D) Effective nuclear charge
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) The second ionization enthalpy of oxygen element is greater than that of fluorine element.
(B) The third ionization enthalpy of phosphorus is greater than that of aluminium.
(C) The first ionization enthalpy of aluminium is slightly greater than that of gallium.
(D) The second ionization enthalpy of copper is greater than that of zinc.
14. Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison to other elements of
their group ?
(A) S(g) (B) N(g) (C) O(g) (D) Cl (g)
15. Which of the following is/are correct order/s of electron affinity.
(A) N < C < O < F (B) P < Si < S < Cl (C) Si < P < S < Cl (D) C < N < O < F
16. Which of the following is correct order of electronegativity :
(A) Cs > Rb > Na (B) Li < Be < B (C) C < N < O (D) Cl > F > Br
17. Choose the correct statement(s) :
(A) In general more the ionisation energy more will be electronegativity.
(B) Electronegativity increase means metallic character increases.
(C) In general lower will be the ionisation energy, easier will be to remove electron.
(D) Electron affinity of S is less than that of Cl.
PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
Comprehension # 1
In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic numbers which is
related to the electronic configuration. Depending upon the type of orbitals receiving the last electron,
the elements in the periodic table have been divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d and f. The modern
periodic table consists of 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period begins with the filling of a new energy
shell. In accordance with the Arfbau principle, the seven periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32
elements respectively. The seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long,
the two series of f-block elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed at the bottom of the main
body of the periodic table.
Now answer the following five questions :
1. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to :
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
2. The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic configuration :
(A) 7s27p6 (B) 5f 146d107s27p0 (C) 4f 145d106s26p6 (D) 4f 145d106s26p4
3. Which of the elements, whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in the
present set up of the long form of the periodic table ?
(A) 107 (B) 118 (C) 126 (D) 102
4. The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the element with atomic number 43 in
the same group is ________:
(A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2 (B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s34p6
2 2 6 2 6 6 2
(C) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s (D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d74s2
5. The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all ________ :
(A) noble gases (B) halogens (C) heavy metals (D) light metals
Comprehension # 2
It is not possible to measure the atomic radius precisely since the electron cloud surrounding the atom
does not have a sharp boundary. One practical approach to estimate the size of an atom of a non-
metallic element is to measure the distance between two atoms when they are bound together by a
single bond in a covalent molecule and then dividing by two. For metals we define the term “metallic
radius” which is taken as half the internuclear distance separating the metal cores in the metallic
crystal. The van der waal’s radius represents the over all size of the atoms which includes its valence
shell in a non bonded situation. It is the half of the distance between two similar atoms in separate
molecules in a solid. The atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down the group.
Same trends are observed in case of ionic radius. Ionic radius of the species having same number of
electrons depends on the number of protons in their nuclei. Sometimes, atomic and ionic radii give
unexpected trends due to poor shielding of nuclear charge by d- and f-orbital electrons.
Now answer the following three questions :
6. Which of the following relations is correct, if considered for the same element :
(A) rVanderwaal > rCovalent > rMetallic (B) rCovalent > rMetallic > rVanderwaal
(C) rVanderwaal > rMetallic > rCovalent (D) rMetallic > rCovalent > rVanderwaa
7. K+, CI–, Ca2+, S2– ions are isoelectronic. The decreasing order of their size is :
(A) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2– (B) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
–
+ 2+
(C) K > Cl > Ca > S 2–
(D) S2– > Cl– > Ca2+ > K+
8. Select the INCORRECT option regarding atomic/ionic sizes :
(A) Zn > Cu (B) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (C) Zr Hf (D) N3– < Al3+
Comprehension # 3
The periodicity is related to the electronic configuration. That is, all chemical and physical properties are
a manifestation of the electronic configuration of the elements.
The atomic and ionic radii generally decrease in a period from left to right. As a consequence, the
ionization enthalpies generally increase and electron gain enthalpies become more negative across a
period. In other words, the ionization enthalpy of the extreme left element in a period is the least and
the electron gain enthalpy of the element on the extreme right is the highest negative. This results into
high chemical reactivity at the two extremes and the lowest in the centre. Similarly down the group, the
increase in atomic and ionic radii result in gradual decrease in ionization enthalpies and a regular
decrease (with exception in some third period elements) in electron gain enthalpies in the case of main
group elements.
The loss and gain of electrons can be co-related with the reducing and oxidising behaviour, and also
with metallic and non-metallic character respectively, of the elements.
9. The correct order of the metallic character is :
(A) Al > Mg > Na > Si (B) Na > Mg < Al > Si
(C) Na > Mg > Al > Si (D) Al > Mg > Si > Na
10. Considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si, the correct order of their non-metallic character is :
(A) B > C > Si > N > F (B) Si > C > B > N > F
(C) F > N > C > B > Si (D) F > N > C > Si > B
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
11. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Ionisation enthalpies of elements decrease along a period and increase along a group in Modern
periodic table.
(B) In the 3rd period of Modern periodic table, the two most reactive elements are sodium and fluorine.
(C) Fluorine has the least negative electron gain enthalpy among all halogens.
(D) Ionisation enthalpy of Pb is greater than that of Sn.
Comprehension # 4
Answer Q.12, Q.13 and Q.14 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column-1 Column-2 Column-3
(I) Graphite (i) d-block elements (P) Liquid
(II) Transition elements (ii) Group-16 (Q) 6s26p4
(III) Amalgam (iii) Allotropicity (R) Lubricant
(IV) Polonium (iv) Mercury (S) Variable oxidation number.
12. For given content is column-1, the correct combination is :
(A) (I), (iii), R (B) (II), (iv), R (C) (II), (iii), S (D) (IV), (iv), Q
13. For iron the correct combination is :
(A) (III), (iv), Q (B) (II), (i), S (C) (IV), (i), Q (D) (I), (ii), P
14. The incorrect combination is :
(A) (III), (iv), P (B) (III), (i), S (C) (II), (ii), S (D) (IV), (ii), Q
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
7. Assertion : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.
Reason : 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s. [JEE-2000, 1/35]
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
8. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is : [JEE-2001, 1/35]
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
9. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following : [JEE-2002, 3/90]
(A) Li– (B) Be– (C) B– (D) C–
11. Among the following, the number of elements showing only one non-zero oxidation state is :
[JEE 2010, 3/163]
O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, TI
5. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of 5s25p4 corresponds to
the element present in : [JEE(Main) 2015 Online (10-04-15), 4/120]
(1) Group 17 and period 6 (2) Group 17 and period 5
(3) Group 16 and period 6 (4) Group 16 and period 5
6. The following statements concern elements in the periodic table. Which of the following is true?
[JEE(Main) 2016 Online (10-04-16), 4/120]
(1) The Group 13 elements are all metals.
(2) All the elements in Group 17 are gases.
(3) Elements of Group 16 have lower ionization enthalpy values compared to those of Group 15 in the
corresponding periods.
(4) For Group 15 elements, the stability of +5 oxidation state increases down the group.
7. Consider the following ionization enthalpies of two elements 'A' and 'B'
Element Ionization enthalpy (kJ/mol)
1st 2nd 3rd
A 899 1757 14847
B 737 1450 7731
Which of the following statements is correct ? [JEE(Main) 2017 Online (08-04-17), 4/120]
(1) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-1 where 'B' comes below 'A'.
(2) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-2 where 'A' comes below 'B'.
(3) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-2 where 'B' comes below 'A'.
(4) Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-1 where 'A' comes below 'B'.
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
8. The electronic configuration with the highest ionization enthalpy is :
[JEE(Main) 2017 Online (09-04-17), 4/120]
(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p1 (2) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (3) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (4) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3
9. For Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2– ; the correct order of increasing ionic radii is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (15-04-18), 4/120]
(1) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ (2) Na+ < Mg2+ < F– < O2–
(3) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– (4) Mg2+ < O2– < Na+ < F–
10. The correct order of electron affinity is : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (15-04-18), 4/120]
(1) F > Cl > O (2) F > O > Cl (3) Cl > F > O (4) O > F > Cl
11. Aluminium is usually found in +3 oxidation state. In contrast, thalium exists in +1 and +3 oxidation
states. This is due to : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) inert pair effect (2) lanthanoid contraction
(3) diagonal relationship (4) lattice effect
12. In general, the properties that decrease and increase down a group in the periodic table, respectively,
are : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) atomic radius and electronegativity
(2) electronegativity and atomic radius
(3) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
(4) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
13. When the first electron gain enthalpy (eg H) of oxygen is –141 kJ/mol, its second electron gain enthalpy
is : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) almost the same as that of the first (2) negative, but less negative than the first
(3) a more negative value than the first (4) a positive value
14. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of elements by an and large means :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-01-19), 4/120]
(1) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii
(2) decrease in both atomic and ionic radii
(3) increase in both atomic and ionic radii
(4) decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii
15. The electronegativity of aluminium is similar to : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-01-19), 4/120]
(1) Lithium (2) Carbon (3) Boron (4) Beryllium
16. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al, and S is:
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (11-01-19), 4/120]
(1) C < S < Al <Cs (2) S < C < Al < Cs (3) S < C < Cs < Al (4) C < S < Cs < Al
17. The correct option with respect to the Pauling, electronegativity values of the elements is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (11-01-19), 4/120]
(1) Te > Se (2) Ga < Ge (3) Si < Al (4) P > S
18. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be an/a :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-01-19), 4/120]
(1) transition metal (2) alkali metal
(3) alkaline earth metal (4) inner-transition metal
19. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl–, Ar and Ca2 is affected by :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (08-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) Nuclear charge (2) Principal quantum number of valence shell
(3) azimuthal quantum number of valence shell (4) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
20. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (08-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) une (2) unh (3) uun (4) uue
21. The element having greatest difference between its first and second ionization energies, is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) Ba (2) K (3) Ca (4) Sc
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
22. The isoelectronic set of ions is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) F– , Li+ , Na+ and Mg2+ (2) Li+ , Na+ , O2 – and F–
(3) N3– , Li+ , Mg2+ and O2 (4) N3– , O2– , F– and Na+
23. The group number, number of valence electrons and valency of an element with atomic number 15,
respectively, are :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-04-19)S1, 4/120]
(1) 16,5 and 2 (2) 15,5 and 3 (3) 15,6 and 2 (4) 16,6 and 3
24. The pair that has similar atomic radii is :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) Ti and Hf (2) Mo and W (3) Sc and Ni (4) Mn and Re
25. In comparison to boron, beryllium has :
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-04-19)S2, 4/120]
(1) greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionization enthalpy.
(2) lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionization enthalpy
(3) lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionization enthalpy
(4) greater nuclear charge and greater first ionization enthalpy
26. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively are :
[JEE(Main) 2020 Online (07-01-20)S1, 4/100]
(1) –296, –325, –333 and –349 (2) –333, –349, –325 and –296
(3) –349, –333, –325 and –296 (4) –333, –325, –349 and –296
27. Within each pair of element F & Cl, S & Se, and Li & Na, respectively, the elements that release more
energy upon an electron gain are : [JEE(Main) 2020 Online (07-01-20)S2, 4/100]
(1) Cl, S and Li (2) F, S and Li
(3) F, Se and Na (4) Cl, Se and Na
28. The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively, are :
[JEE(Main) 2020 Online (08-01-20)S1, 4/100]
(1) 496, 577, 737, 786 (2) 786, 737, 577, 496
(3) 496, 577, 786, 737 (4) 496, 737, 577, 786
29. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is :
[JEE(Main) 2020 Online (08-01-20)S2, 4/100]
(a) C (b) O (c) F (d) Cl (e) Br
(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e) (2) (c) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (e)
(3) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) < (e) (4) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e)
30. The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides, respectively, are :
[JEE(Main) 2020 Online (09-01-20)S1, 4/100]
(1) Na2O, SO3, Al2O3 (2) N2O3, Li2O, Al2O3
(3) Cl2O, CaO, P4O10 (4) MgO, Cl2O, Al2O3
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
EXERCISE - 1
PART – I
A-1. (i) In modern periodic table, elements have been placed in order of their increasing atomic numbers.
The atomic number of argon is 18 and that of potassium is 19. Thus, argon has been placed before
potassium.
(ii) In lanthanides and actinides, the differentiating electron enters to (n – 2) f-subshell. The maximum
capacity of f-subshell is of 14 electrons. Thus, there are only 14 lanthanides (4f 1–14) and only 14
actinides (5f 1–14).
A-2. In the modern periodic table, each period starts with the filling of a new principal energy level. Thus, the
third period begins with the filling of principal quantum number, n = 3. When n = 3, = 0, 1, 2. But
according to Aufbau principle, the electrons are added to different orbitals in order of their increasing
energies. Now, the energy of 3d-subshell is higher than that of 4s-subshell. Therefore, in third period,
electrons can be filled in only 3s & 3p-subshells, whose energies increase in the order: 3s < 3p. Now,
s-subshell has one and p-subshell has three orbitals. Hence, in all, there are 4 (1 + 3) orbitals that can
be filled in this period. Since according to Pauli's exclusion principle, each orbital, at the maximum, can
accommodate two electrons. Therefore, 4 orbitals, at the maximum, can have 8 electrons and hence,
fourth period has 8 elements.
B-1. Zeff = Z –
B-2. d- and f-orbital electrons are known for poor shielding of nuclear charge, because of their scattered
structure. This poor shielding generates some irregularities in properties like atomic radii and ionisation
enthalpy of d-block elements, f-block elements and group-13 elements.
C-1. Pb4+ is less stable than Pb2+ due to inert pair effect. So, Pb4+ compounds are very good oxidising
agents.
C-2. (i) Ga+ < In+ < Tl+ (ii) As+5 > Sb+5 > Bi+5
D-1. The ionic radius of a cation is always smaller than the parent atom because the loss of one or more
electrons increases the effective nuclear charge (Zeff). As a result, the force of attraction of
nucleus for the remaining electrons increases and hence the electron cloud contracts and ionic
radii decreases.
In contrast, the ionic radius of an anion is always larger than its parent atom because the addition of
one or more electrons decreases the effective nuclear charge (Z eff). As a result, the force of
attraction of the nucleus for the remaining electrons decreases and hence electron cloud
expands and the ionic radii increases.
D-2. Due to lanthanide contraction (poor shielding of nuclear charge by 4f-electrons), atomic radii of 4d and
5d elements are nearly same.
D-3. Atomic radius of K is larger than F because the size of cation is smaller than its parent atom while size
of anion is bigger than its parent atom. Thus, atomic radii of K will be greater than 1.34 Å while atomic
radii of F will be less than 1.34 Å.
E-1. Electron is more tightly bound by the nucleus in an cation (i.e. M+) as the number of proton remains the
same as in neutral atom whereas number of electron is one less than the proton. This increases the
attraction between the valence shell electrons and the nucleus (Z eff increases). So, second ionization
enthalpy is always higher than the first ionisation enthalpy for every element.
E-2. Carbon has higher IE1 because of smaller atomic size and greater Zeff. Removal of second electron
from stable 1s2 2s2 configuration in case of B+ requires greater energy. So, B has greater IE2.
E-3. (i) C (ii) Al
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Periodic Table & Periodicity
F-1. In Be, the extra electron is to be added in 2p orbital because 2s orbital is completely filled and in Ne, it
is to be added to a noble gas configuration. Since full-filled orbitals and noble gas configuration are
more stable, reluctancy in accepting the electron is found. So, they have positive values of electron gain
enthalpy.
F-2. Nitrogen has stable half filled configuration 2s2 2p3. So removal of one electron will require more energy
than oxygen. Similarly, in nitrogen, addition of one electron will require energy (endothermic) while in
oxygen, addition of one electron will release energy (exothermic).
G-1. Caesium (Cs).
G-2. (a) On moving left to right in a period, tendency of an atom to attract the shared electron pair towards
itself increases due to increasing Zeff. So, electronegativity of elements increase on moving from left to
right in a period.
(b) On moving top to bottom in a group, size increases due to addition of extra shells. So, attraction of
nucleus outermost electron decreases. So, ionisation enthalpy decrease in a group from top to bottom.
PART - II
A-1. (C) A-2. (B) A-3. (C) A-4. (D) A-5. (C)
A-6. (D) B-1. (A) B-2. (D) B-3. (B) B-4. (A)
C-1. (B) C-2. (C) C-3. (D) C-4. (B) C-5. (A)
C-6. (D) C-7. (A) C-8. (B) C-9. (D) C-10. (C)
D-1. (C) D-2. (C) D-3. (A) D-4. (A) D-5. (B)
E-1. (D) E-2. (A) E-3. (A) E-4. (C) E-5. (D)
F-1. (C) F-2. (D) F-3. (B) F-4. (A) F-5. (D)
G-1. (C) G-2. (B) G-3. (D) G-4. (B) G-5. (C)
PART - III
1. (A - p,r) ; (B - p,s) ; (C - q,t) ; (D - p,q,r)
EXERCISE – 2
PART - I
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (B)
16. (D)
PART - II
1. 2 2. 26 3. 19 4. 6 (except i, ii, iii) 5. 3
6. 6 (except (vi)) 7. 3 8. 13 9. 8 10. 30
PART - IV
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C)
EXERCISE – 3
PART - I
1. (B) 2. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Li+ < K+ 3. Inert Pair Effect
4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B)
9. (B) 11. 2
PART - II
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (4)
16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3)
26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (2)
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Relations, Functions & Inverse Trigonometric Functions
A-3. A and B are two sets having 3 and 4 elements respectively and having 2 elements in common. Find the
number of possible relations which can be defined from A to B.
A-4. If A = {2, 3, 4, 5}, B = {1, 3, 5, 7} and a relation R : A B such that y = 2x –3, xA, yB, then find R.
x – 1
2
A-5. Let R be a relation defined as R = { (x, y) : y = , x Z and –3 x 3} then find
(i) Domain of R (ii) Range of R (iii) Relation R
A-6. The Certesian product A × A has 16 elements S = {(a,b) A × A| a < b}. (–1,2) and (0,1) are two
elements belonging to S. Find the set containing the remaining elements of S.
B-2. Prove that the relation ''less than'' in the set of natural number is transitive but not reflexive and
symmetric.
B-4. Let R be a relation on the set N be defined by {(x, y)| x, y N, 2x + y = 41}. Then prove that R is neither
reflexive nor symmetric and nor transitive.
B-5. Let n be a fixed positive integer. Define a relation R on the set of integers Z, aRb n|(a – b). Then
prove that R is equivalence
B-6. Let S be a set of all square matrices of order 2. If a relation R defined on set S such that
AR B AB = BA, then identify the type of relation of R (A, B S) among reflexive, symmetric and
transitive.
Section (C) : Greatest Integer [ . ], Fractional part {.}, signum and Dirichlet’s function
In this Section [ . ] and { . } denotes greatest integer and fractional part function respectively
C-1. Find the value(s) of x, if {x}, [x] & x are in A.P. :
C-2 Solve the equation
(i) 4[x] = x + {x} (ii) [x]2 = – [x] (iii) {x}2 = – {x} (iv) [2x] = [x]
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C-5. Find the number of solution of equation (where sgn represent signum function)
(i) sgn (x) = |x| (ii) sgn (x2 – 1) = (x + 1)2
x x Q
C-7. f(x) . Find the value of [f(1)] + | [(f(e)] |
1 x x R Q
cos x 1
(vii) f(x) = n [x + x + 1], where [.] GIF.
2
(viii) f (x) =
2
6 35 x 6 x 2
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D-5. Find the range of the following functions : (where {.} and [.] represent fractional part and greatest
integer part functions respectively )
1 1
(i) f(x) = 16 x2 (ii) f(x) = (iii) f(x) =
4 3 sin x 1 x
8 x2 1 1
(iv) f(x) = n (v) f(x) = (vi) f(x) =
x2 sin{x}
2
x
16 4 x
1 2
(vii) f (x) = (viii) f (x) = 3 sin x 2 (ix) f (x) = sin2 x + cos4x
2 cos 3 x 16
(x) f(x) = sec2x – tan2x + sin (sinx + cos x) (xi) f (x)= x4 2 x2 + 5
D-6. Find the range of the following functions : (where {.} and [.] represent fractional part and greatest
integer part functions respectively )
|x4|
(i) f(x) =
x4
(ii) f(x) = 3 | sin x| – 4 |cos x|
sin x cos x
(iii) f(x) = +
1 tan x2
1 cot 2 x
(iv) f (x) = 1 – | x – 2 |
(v) f (x) = x3 – 12x, where x [–3, 1]
(vi) f(x) = [sin x + [cos x + [tan x+ [secx]]]] Here x (0, /4)
D-7. Find whether the following functions are one-one or many-one & into or onto if f : D R where D is its
domain.
(i) f(x) = |x2 + 5x + 6 | (ii) f(x) = |nx|
1
(iii) f(x) = sin 4x : , ( 1, 1) (iv) f(x) = x + , x (0, )
8 8 x
1
1 3x 2
(v) f(x) = 1 e x (vi) f(x) = – cos x
4
1 x6 1
(vii) f(x) = 3
(viii) f(x) = x cos x (ix) f(x) =
x sin | x |
D-8. Classify the following functions f(x) defined in R R as injective, surjective, both or none.
x2
(i) f (x) = x |x| (ii) f (x) = (iii) f(x) = x3 6 x2 + 11x 6
1 x2
D-9. Check whether the following functions is/are many-one or one-one & into or onto
(i) f(x) = tan (2 sin x) (ii) f(x) = tan (sin x)
D-10. Let f : A A where A = {x : –1 x 1}. Find whether the following functions are bijective.
x
(i) x – sin x (ii) x |x| (iii) tan (iv) x4
4
D-11. Let A be a set of n distinct elements. Then find the total number of distinct functions from A to A ? How
many of them are onto functions ?
x 1
2
(i) f(x) = x 2 and g(x) = (ii)_ f(x) = tanx and g(x) =
cot x
1 cos2x
(iii) f(x) = and g(x) = cos x (iv) f(x) = x and g(x) = enx
2
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E-2. Find for what values of x, the following functions would be identical.
x 1
f(x) = log (x 1) log (x 2) and g (x) = log
x 2
E-3. Let f(x) = x2 + x + 1 and g(x) = sin x. Show that fog gof
E-4. Let f(x) = x2, g(x) = sin x, h(x) = x , then verify that [fo (goh)] (x) and [(fog) oh] (x) are equal.
1 x 2 ; x 1
E-7. If f(x) = and g(x) = 1 – x ; – 2 < x < 1, then define the function fog(x).
x 1; 1 x 2
x2 x2
E-8. If f(x) = and g(x) = , then find the domain of
x 1 x
(i) fog(x) (ii) gof(x) (iii) fof(x) (iv) fogof(x)
2x x Q {0}
E-9. If f(x) = , then define fof(x) and hence define fofof.....f(x) where f is ‘n’ times.
3x x Qc
x 1 x4
x2 1 x 3
E-10. Let f(x) = 2x 1 4 x 9 and g(x) = then, find f(g(x)).
x 2 3 x 5
x 7 x9
4x
E-11. If f(x) = , then show that f(x) + f(1 – x) = 1
4x 2
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F-3. Which of the following functions are not periodic (where [ . ] denotes greatest integer function) :
(i) f(x) = sin x (ii) f(x) = x + sin x
(iii) f(x) = [sin 3x] + |cos 6x|
Section (G) : Inverse of a function
1/ 5
(i) f (x) = 1 2 x (ii) f (x) = 4 (x 7)3
(iii) f(x) = n (x + 1 x2 )
(iv) Let f [0, 3] [1, 13] is defined by f(x) = x2 + x + 1, then find f– 1 (x).
e2x e2x
G-2. Let f : R R be defined by f(x) = . Is f(x) invertible ? If yes, then find its inverse.
2
G-3. (a) If f(x) = –x|x|, then find f–1(x) and hence find the number of solutions of f(x) = f –1(x).
5 9 8x 5
(b) Solve 2x2 – 5x + 2 = , where x <
4 4
G-4. If g is inverse of f(x) = x3 + x + cosx, then find the value of g(1).
( 1)x x Qc
x x Qc
G-5. If f(x) = and g(x) = are inverse to each other then find all
x 3x 1 x Q 1 x
x Q
2
possible values of .
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n n
H-4. (i) If cos
i 1
1
i = 0, then find the value of i·
i 1
i
2n 2n
(ii) If sin
i1
1
xi n , then show that x
i1
i 2n
H–6. Let f : , B defined by f (x) = 2 cos2x + 3 sin2x + 1. Find B such that f –1
exists. Also find
3 6
–1
f (x).
Section (I) : Trig (trig–1x), trig–1 (trig x), trig–1 (–x) and Property (/2)
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1
J-3. If tan–1x + cot–1 + 2tan–1z = , then prove that x + y + 2z = xz2 + yz2 + 2xyz
y
1 x 2 – xy
J-4. If cos–1x + 2sin–1x + 3cot–1y + 4tan–1y = 4sec–1z + 5cosec–1z , then prove that z2 – 1 =
x y 1– x 2
2 2
J-5. Consider, f(x) = tan–1 , g(x) = sin–1 and h(x) = tan (cos–1(sinx)), then show that
x 4x
2
0 , x 0
(h(f(x)) + h(g(x)) =
x , x 0
1
2x 1
1 1 y
2
J-8. Simplify tan sin1 2 cos , if x > y > 1.
2 1 x2 1 y
2
A-2. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {1, 2} and C= {4, 5, 6}, then what is the number of elements in the set A B C ?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 15 (D) 18
A-3. Let A = {a, b, c} and B = {1, 2}. Consider a relation R defined from set A to set B. Then R can equal to
set
(A) A (B) B (C) A × B (D) B × A
A-5. Let X = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and Y = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}. Which of the following is not a relation from X to Y
(A) R1 = {(x, y) | y = 2 + x, x X, y Y} (B) R2 = {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 3), (4, 3), (5, 5)}
(C) R3 = {(1, 1), (1, 3) (3, 5), (3, 7), (5, 7)} (D) R4 = {(1, 3), (2, 5), (2, 4), (7, 9)}
B-2. In the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} a relation R is defined by R = {(x, y)| x, y A and x < y}. Then R is
(A) Reflexive (B) Symmetric (C) Transitive (D) Equivalence relation
B-5. Let L denote the set of all straight lines in a plane. Let a relation R be defined by R ,, L.
The R is
(A) Reflexive (B) Symmetric (C) Transitive (D) equivalence relation
B-6. Let S be the set of all real numbers. Then the relation R =
{(a, b) : 1 + ab > 0} on S is
(A) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive (B) Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
(C) Symmetric, transitive but not reflexive (D) Reflexive, transitive and symmetric
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B-8. Let R be a relation over the set N × N and it is defined by (a, b) R (c, d) a + d = b + c. Then R is
(A) Symmetric only (B) Transitive only (C) Reflexive only (D) Equivalence only
B-9. Let L be the set of all straight lines in the Euclidean plane. Two lines 1 and 2 are said to be related by
the relation R if 1 is parallel to 2. Then R is
(A) Symmetric only (B) Transitive only (C) Reflexive only (D) Equivalence only
B-11. Let S be a set of all square matrices of order 2. If a relation R defined on set S such that
AR B AB = O, where O is zero square matirx of order 2, then relation R is (A, B S)
(A) Reflexive (B) Transitive
(C) Symmetric (D) Not equivalence
Section (C) : Greatest Integer [.], Fractional part {.}, signum and Dirichlet’s function
C-1. The value of [e] – [– ] is, where [.] denotes greatest integer function
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
C-2. The number of solutions of the equation 2{x} 2 – 5 {x} + 2 = 0 is (where {.} denotes the fractional part
function)
(A) no solution (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite
151
1 n
C-3. Let f(n) = , where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then the value of
2 100
f(n) is
n 1
(A) 101 (B) 102 (C) 104 (D) 103
C-4. Number of solutions of the equation [2x] – 3 {2x} = 1 is (where [ . ] and { . } denote greatest integer and
fractional part function respectively)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
x 2 5x 4
C-5. The complete solution set of the equation sgn
= – 1, where {·} is fractional part function,
{x}
is
(A) (1, 4) (B) [1, 4] (C) (– , 1) (4, ) (D) (1, 2) (2, 3) (3, 4)
C-6. sgn(x3 – 4x2 + 3x) = 1, x Z and x [– 5, 10], then number of possible values of x is :
(A) 7 (B) 13 (C) 10 (D) 8
C-7. The number of solution of the equation sgn ({x}) = |1– x| is/are (where {•} represent fractional part
function and sgn respresent signum function)
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
1 x Q
C-8. f(x) . If f(1) + f(2) + f() + f(p) = 0, then p cannot be
1 x RQ
(A) –e (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
log0.3 (x 1)
D-1. The domain of the function f(x) = is
x 2 2x 8
(A) (1, 4) (B) (– 2, 4) (C) (2, 4) (D) [2, )
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3
(A) [0, 1] (B) [0, 2] (C) 0, (D) [1, 2]
2
2 x2 x 5
D-5. Let f : R R be a function defined by f(x) = , then f is :
7 x 2 2x 10
(A) one one but not onto (B) onto but not one one
(C) onto as well as one one (D) neither onto nor one one
3
D-7. Domain of definition of the function f(x) = + log10(x3 – x), is :
4 – x2
(A) (1,2) (B) (–1,0) (1,2)
(C) (1,2) (2, ) (D) (–1,0) (1,2) (2, )
x
D-8. If f : [0, ) [0, ), and f (x) = , then f is :
1 x
(A) one-one and onto (B) one-one but not onto
(C) onto but not one-one (D) neither one-one nor onto
(x 2)2
D-9. Range of the function f(x) = is
(x 1)(x 3)
(A) (1, ) (B) (–, 1) (C) R – (0, 1] (D) (0, 1]
x2
D-10. Range of the function f(x) = is
x 2 4x 3
(A) (–, 0) (B) R (C) (0, ) (D) R – {0}
D-11. Statement - 1 If f (x) and g (x) both are one one and f(g (x)) exists, then f(g (x)) is also one one.
Statement - 2 If f(x1) = f(x2) x1 = x2 , then f(x) is one-one.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is not correct explanation
for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is false
(D) STATEMENT-1 is false, STATEMENT-2 is true
(E) Both STATEMENTS are false
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D-12. Statement - 1 If y = f (x) is increasing in [], then its range is [f (), f () ]
Statement - 2 Every increasing function need not to be continuous.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is not correct explanation
for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is false
(D) STATEMENT-1 is false, STATEMENT-2 is true
(E) Both STATEMENTS are false
0 , x rational
D-13. If the functions f(x) and g(x) are defined on RR such that f(x) = ,
x , x irrational
0 , x irrational
g(x) = , then (f – g) (x) is
x , x rational
(A) one-one and onto (B) neither one-one nor onto
(C) one-one but not onto (D) onto but not one-one
E-2. Let f(x) be a function whose domain is [– 5, 7]. Let g(x) = |2x + 5|, then domain of (fog) (x) is
(A) [– 4, 1] (B) [– 5, 1] (C) [– 6, 1] (D) [– 5, 7]
1 , x 0
E-3. Let g (x) = 1 + x [ x ] and f (x) = 0 , x 0 . Then for all x, f (g (x)) is equal to (where [.] denotes
1 , x 0
greatest integer function)
(A) x (B) 1 (C) f (x) (D) g (x)
1
F-2. The function f(x) = [x] + , x is a/an (where [ . ] denotes greatest integer function)
2
(A) Even (B) odd (C) neither even nor odd (D) Even as well as odd
F-3. The graph of the function y = f(x) is symmetrical about the line x = 2, then :
(A) f(x + 2) = f(x – 2) (B) f(2 + x) = f(2 – x) (C) f(x) = f(–x) (D) f(x) = –f(–x)
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F-6. Find the area below the curve y = 2 2cos2x but above the x-axis in [–3, 6] is
(where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function) :
(A) 2 square units (B) square units (C) 6 square units (D) 8 square units
e x e x
G-1. The inverse of the function f(x) = is
e x e x
1 1 x 1 2x 1 1 x
(A) n (B) n (C) n (D) 2 n (1 + x)
2 1 x 2 2x 2 1 x
1
G-2. If f : [1, ) [2, ) is given by f (x) = x + , then f 1 (x) equals :
x
x x2 4 x x x2 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1 x 2 4
2 1 x2 2
G-3. If f : R R is an invertible function such that f(x) and f –1(x) are also mirror image to each other about
the line y = –x, then
(A) f(x) is odd
(B) f(x) and f–1(x) may not be mirror image about the line y = x
(C) f(x) may not be odd
(D) f(x) is even
ax b
G-4. If f(x) = , then (fof) (x) = x, provided that
cx d
(A) d + a = 0 (B) d – a = 0 (C) a = b = c = d = 1 (D) a = b = 1
x 1 x 1
G-5. Let f(x) = 2 the range of h–1(x), where h(x) = fof(x) is
x 1 x 2
(A) 1, 2 (B) [–1, 2] (C) [–1, 4] (D) [–2, 2]
G-6. Statement – 1 All points of intersection of y = f (x) and y = f – 1 (x) lies on y = x only.
Statement – 2 If point P (, ) lies on y = f (x), then Q (, ) lies on y = f – 1 (x).
Statement – 3 Inverse of invertible function is unique and its range is equal to the function domain.
Which of the following option is correct for above statements in order
(A) T T F (B) F T T (C) T T T (D) T F T
H-2. The function f(x) = cot1 (x 3) x + cos1 x2 3x 1 is defined on the set S, where S is equal to:
(A) {0, 3} (B) (0, 3) (C) {0, 3} (D) [ 3, 0]
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3
The solution of the equation sin1 tan sin1 = 0 is
x 6
H-7.
4
(A) x = 2 (B) x = 4 (C) x = 4 (D) x = 3
3
H-8. Number of solutions of the equation cot–1 4 x2 cos1(x2 5) is :
2
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Section (I) : Trig (trig–1x), trig–1 (trig x), trig–1 (–x) and Property (/2)
2
I-2. If sin–1 x + sin–1 y = , then cos–1x + cos–1y is equal to
3
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 6
I-3. If x 0 and = sin1x + cos1x tan1x, then
3
(A) (B) 0 (C) 0 < (D)
2 4 4 2 4 2
I-4. Number of solutions of equation tan–1(e–x) + cot–1(|nx|) = /2 is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
Section (J) : Interconversion/Simplification
3 3
J-1. The numerical value of cot 2sin1 cos1 is
5 5
4 3 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 4 3
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1
J-3. If is a real root of the equation x3 + 3x – tan2 = 0, then cot–1 + cot–1 – can be equal to
2
3
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 2
x x 2
J-4. If sin–1 + sin–1 1– + tan–1y = , then :
2 4 3
49
(A) maximum value of x2 + y2 is (B) maximum value of x2 + y2 is 4
3
1
(C) minimum value of x2 + y2 is (D) minimum value of x2 + y2 is 3
2
1
J-5. If x < 0, then value of tan–1(x) + tan–1 is equal to
x
(A) (B) – (C) 0 (D) –
2 2
1
J-6. If sin–1x + cot–1 = , then x is equal to
2 2
1 2 3
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
5 5 2
1
J-7. The numerical value of tan 2 tan1 is
5 4
7 7 17 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) –
17 17 7 3
3x – 3x x
K-1. If f(x) = tan–1
3 3 x 2
+ tan–1 , 0 x 3, then range of f(x) is
3
(A) 0, (B) 0, (C) , (D) 0,
2 4 6 3 3
a b
K-2. STATEMENT-1 : If a > 0, b > 0, tan– 1 + tan– 1 = . x = ab .
x x 2
m nm
STATEMENT-2 : If m, n N, n m, then tan– 1 + tan– 1 = 4.
n n m
(A) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is not correct explanation
for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is false
(D) STATEMENT-1 is false, STATEMENT-2 is true
(E) Both STATEMENTS are false
y
K-3. If cos–1x – cos–1 = , then 4x2 – 4xy cos + y2 is equal to-
2
(A) 2 sin 2 (B) 4 (C) 4sin2 (D) – 4 sin2
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2. Column – Column –
(A) If S be set of all triangles and f : S R+, f() = Area (p) one-one
of , then f is
3
(B) f : R , and f(x) = cot–1(2x – x2 – 2), then f(x) is (q) many one
4
2x 2 x 1
(C) If f : R R such that f(x) = , then f(x) is (r) onto function
7x 2 4x 4
(D) f : R R and f(x) = epx sinqx where p, q R+, then f(x) is (s) into function
(B) f (x) + g 1 x
2
=0 (q) [0, 1]
1 x2
(C) g = 2 h (x) (r) (– , 1)
1 x2
1 x
(D) h(x) + h(1) = h (s) [– 1, 0]
1 x
5. Match the column
Column - Column -
(A) Let a, b, c be three positive real numbers (p)
a (a b c) b (a b c) c (a b c)
= tan– 1 + tan– 1 + tan– 1 ,
bc ca ab
then is equal to
(B) The value of the expression
1
tan 1 tan 2 A + tan 1 (cot A) + tan 1 (cot3A) for 0 < A < (/4) (q) –
2 2
is equal to
1
(C) If x < 0, then {cos– 1(2x2 – 1) + 2cos–1 x} is equal to (r) –
2
3 12 16
(D) The value of sin–1 – cos–1 + cos–1 is equal to (s)
5 13 65 2
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Marked questions are recommended for Revision.
4. Let X be the set of all persons living in a state. Elements x, y in X are said to be related if ‘x < y’,
whenever y is 5 years older than x. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) The relation is an equivalence relation
(B) The relation is transitive only
(C) The relation is transitive and symmetric, but not reflexive
(D) The relation is neither reflexive, nor symmetric, nor transitive
5. If x 0 and y 0, then the area bounded by the graph of [x] + [y] = 2 is (where [ . ] denotes greatest
integer function)
(A) 4 sq. unit. (B) 1 sq. unit (C) 2 sq. unit (D) 3 sq. unit
1 1
6. If the solution set of [x] + x + x – = 8 is [a, b), then (a + b) equals to (where [ ] denotes
2 3
greatest integer function)
19 20
(A) (B) (C) 6 (D) 7
3 3
x x
x x
7. If f(x) = {x} + x 2
+ x 2
+ x 2
........+ x 2
, then values of
1 x 1 2x
1 3x 1 99x
[f( 3 )] is (where [•] denotes greatest integer function and {•} represent fractional part function)
(A) 5050 (B) 4950 (C) 17 (D) 73
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9. If [x + [2x]] < 3, where [.]denotes the greatest integer function, then x is
3
(A) [0, 1) (B) , (C) (1, ) (D) (–, 1)
2
x 2 5x 6
10. The set of all values of x for which 0 is (where {.} denotes the fractional part function)
1 2{x}
5 5 5 5
(A) 2, {3} (B) (2, 3) (C) , 3 (D) 2, U , 3
2 2 2 2
1
11. The domain of the function f (x) = log1/2 log2 1 4 1 is:
x
(A) 0 < x < 1 (B) 0 < x 1 (C) x 1 (D) null set
x
2
(C) x2 , (D) n x3 + n x2 , 5 n x
17. If domain of f(x) is (– , 0], then domain of f(6{x}2 – 5 {x} + 1) is (where {} represents fractional part
function).
1 1 1 1 1
(A) n 3 , n 2 (B) (– , 0) (C) n 6 , n 1 (D) n 2 , n 3
n n nI
19. If f (x) = 2 [x] + cos x, then f: R R is: (where [. ] denotes greatest integer function)
(A) oneone and onto (B) oneone and into
(C) manyone and into (D) manyone and onto
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x | x | 4 ; x Q
20. If f : R R be a function such that f(x) = , then f(x) is
x | x | 3 ; x Q
(A) one-one, onto (B) many one, onto (C) one-one, into (D) many one, into
21. f (x) = x 1, f: R+ R, g(x) = ex, g: [ 1, ) R. If the function fog (x) is defined, then its domain
and range respectively are:
(A) (0, ) and [0, ) (B) [ 1, ) and [0, )
1 1
(C) [ 1, ) and 1 , (D) [ 1, ) and 1,
e e
x
22. Let f : (2, 4) (1, 3) be a function defined by f (x) = x (where [. ] denotes the greatest integer
2
1
function), then f (x) is equal to :
x
(A) 2x (B) x + (C) x + 1 (D) x 1
2
24. If the function f: [1, ) [1, ) is defined by f(x) = 2x(x – 1) then f–1 is
(A) (1/2)x(x – 1) (B)
1
2
1 1 4log2 x
(C)
1
2
1 1 4log2 x (D) Not defined
1 1
26. tan cos1 x + tan cos1 x , x 0 is equal to
4 2 4 2
2 x
(A) x (B) 2x (C) (D)
x 2
1 sin x 1 sin x
27. The value of cot1 , where < x < , is:
1 sin x
1 sin x
2
x x x x
(A) (B) + (C) (D) 2
2 2 2 2 2
1 x3
28. The domain of the function f (x) = sin1 3 / 2 + sin (sin x) + log(3{x} + 1) (x2 + 1),
2x
where {.} represents fractional part function, is:
(A) x {1} (B) x R {1, 1} (C) x > 3, x I (D) x
30. The complete solution set of the inequality [cot–1x]2 – 6 [cot–1 x] + 9 0, where [.] denotes greatest
integer function, is
(A) (– , cot 3] (B) [cot 3, cot 2] (C) [cot 3, ) (D) (– , cot 2]
31. The inequality sin– 1 (sin 5) > x2 – 4x holds for
(A) x 2 – 9 2, 2 9 2 (B) x > 2 + 9 2
x2 x3 2 x 4 x6
32. If sin-1 x ....... + cos-1 x ....... = for 0 < | x | < 2 , then x equals
2 4 2 4 2
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) – 1/2 (D) –1
1. If and are the values of x for which {x}, [x], x are in harmonic progression then find the value of
49||. (where [x] and {x} denote integral and fractional part of x resp.)
2. The domain of the function y = sin x cos x + 7x x 2 6 is [p,q] [r,s] then value of p + q + r + s
is
1
x 2
3. The domain of f(x) such that the f(x) = is prime is [x1, x2), then the value of
1
x 2
(x13 + x23). [Where [.] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal to x]
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x3 2x 2 3x 2
4. If range of the function f(x) = ; x R – {0} is (a,b] – {c} then value of
x3 2x 2 2x 1
a + b + 4c is
a 40b 7
5. Range of the function f(x) = |sin x |cos x| + cos x |sin x|| is [a, b] then is equal to
3
6. If f and g are two distinct linear functions defined on R such that they map[–1, 1] onto [0, 2] and
f(x)
h : R – {–1, 0, 1} R defined by h(x) = , then |h(h(x)) + h(h(1/x))| > n. Then maximum integral
g(x)
value of n is
1
7. If f(x) = , g(x) = f (f(x)), h(x) = f(f(f(x))), then the absolute value of 15(f(x) . g(x) . h(x)) is.
1 x
(where x 0, 1)
8. If f(x) = ax7 + bx3 + cx – 5 ; a, b, c are real constants and f(–7) = 7 then maximum value of
1
|f(7) + 17 cos x| is
3
4a 7 3
9. If f(x) = x + (a – 3) x2 + x + 5 is a one-one function, then sum of all possible integral values of a is
3
11. Let f(x)= ([a]2 – 5[a] + 4)x3 – (6{a}2 – 5 {a} + 1)x – (tan x) sgn (x) be an even function x R, then the
sum of all possible values of '3a' is (where [] denotes G.I. F and {} fractional part functional part
function)
12. Let f be a oneone function with domain {21, 22, 23} and range {x,y,z}. It is given that exactly one of
the following statements is true and the remaining two are false. f(21) = x; f(22) x ; f(23) y.
then value of f–1(x) is :
2 1 2 1 1 x
13. Let f : [– 2 + 1, 2 +1] , be a function defined by f(x) = .
2 2 1 x2
1
If f–1(x) =
4x 4x 2 1 , x 0 , then value of 20 17µ is
2x 2
, x0
1 2
15. If cos1x + cos1y + cos1z = , where 1 x, y, z 1, then find the value of (x + y2 + z2 + 2 x y z + 60)
2
226
16. The sum of absolute value of all possible values of x for which cos tan 1 sin cot 1 x = .
227
n
17. If cot1 > , n N, then sum of square of all possible value of n is
6
sin(cos1 x) cos(sin1 x)
10
1
1
If x (0, 1) and f(x) = sec tan1
cos(cos1 x) sin(sin1 x)
18. , then f is
r 2
5 r
1 3 sin2 1
19. If sin1 = , then value of (tan + 50) is equal to
2 5 4cos2 4 2
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20. The number of real solutions of equation 1 cos 2x = 2 sin–1 (sin x), 10 x 10, is/are
21. The number of solution(s) of the equation, sin1x + cos1 (1 x) = sin1 ( x) is µ then value of µ
µ 100
is
7
n
k
1
22. Find the value of 50
n 1 k 1
cot 1 1 2
r
3
r 1
{x}
1 1
4. Values of x satisfying > are (where {.} denotes the fractional part function)
3 3
1 1 e
(A) (B) –1 + (C) 2 + 3
(D)
2 9 2
5. Which of the following pairs of the inequations has same solution set. ([x] represents greatest integer
function and {x} represents fractional part function)
(A) [x] 3 and [x] < 4 (B) [x] > 3 and [x] 4
(C) [x] + [–x] 0 and {x} + {–x} 0 (D) sgn(x2 + 1) > 0 and x2 + 7x + 43 > 0
6. Let < < , be the real solutions of the equation 2e–{x} = (x + 1), then. ({x} represent fractional of x).
(A) < 0 (B) > 0 (C) < 0 (D) > 0
7. Consider the equation sgn(x2 – 6x +p) = q. Let 's' be the number of solutions of the equation, identify
the correct assertions :
(A) q = 0, s = 2 p 9 (B) q = 0, s = 2 p < 9
(C) q = 0, s = 0 p 9 (D) q = 0, s = 0 p > 9
8. If P and Q are the sum and product respectively of all integral values of x satisfying the equation
|3[x] – 4x| = 4, then
(where [.] denotes represents greatest integer function)
(A) P = 0 (B) P = 8 (C) Q = –16 (D) Q = –9
4 x2
9. If f(x) = sin n , then
1 x
(A) domain of f(x) is (– 2, 1) (B) domain of f(x) is [–1, 1]
11. If [ 2 cos x ] + [ sin x ] = 3, then the range of the function, f (x) = sin x + 3 cos x in [0, 2 ] lies in
(where [. ] denotes greatest integer function)
(A) [– 3 , 3 ) (B) [–2, – 3 ] (C) [–3, –1] (D) [–2, – 3 )
12. Let D [ 1, 1] is the domain of the following functions, state which of them are injective.
1 1
tan x0
(A) f(x) = x (B) g(x) = x3
1 x0
(C) h(x) = sin 2x (D) k(x) = sin (x/2)
13. Let f(x) = x135 + x125 – x115 + x5 + 1. If f(x) divided by x3 – x, then the remainder is some function of x say
g(x). Then g(x) is an :
(A) one-one function (B) many one function (C) into function (D) onto function
16. Which one of the following pair of functions are NOT identical ?
(A) e(nx)/2 and x
(B) tan (tanx) and cot (cotx)
(C) cos2x + sin4x and sin2x + cos4x
|x|
(D) and sgn (x), where sgn(x) stands for signum function.
x
ax 1
17. If the graph of the function f (x) = n x is symmetric about y-axis, then n is equal to:
x (a 1)
(A) 1/5 (B) 1/3 (C) 1 / 4 (D) – 1 / 3
x 2 x 1
18. If f(x) = & composite function h(x) = |f(x)| + f(x + 2), then
1 x x 1
(A) h(x) = 2x2 + 4x + 4 x –1
(B) h(x) = x2 + x + 1 –1 < x 1
(C) h(x) = x2 – x – 1 –1 < x 1
(D) h(x) = –2 x>1
0 for x 0
2
19. Let f(x) = x sin x for 1 x 1 (x 0) , then:
x x for x 1 or x 1
(A) f(x) is an odd function (B) f(x) is an even function
(C) f(x) is neither odd nor even (D) f (x) is an even function
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x 2 1
20. If f : [–2, 2] R where f(x) = x3 + tanx + is a odd function, then the value of parametric P,
P
where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, can be
(A) 5 < P < 10 (B) P < 5 (C) P > 5 (D) P = 15
21. If f: R [ 1, 1], where f (x) = sin x , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function), then
2
(A) f (x) is onto (B) f (x) is into (C) f (x) is periodic (D) f (x) is many one
2 x (sin x tan x)
22. If f (x) = then it is, (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
x 2
2
3
(A) odd (B) Even (C) many one (D) one-one
sin [x]
24. If F (x) = , then F (x) is: (where { . } denotes fractional part function and [ . . ] denotes greatest
{x}
integer function and sgn (x) is a signum function)
(A) periodic with fundamental period 1 (B) even
{x}
(C) range is singleton (D) identical to sgn sgn 1
{ x }
25. Let f : R R and g : R R be two one-one and onto functions such that they are mirror images of
each other about the line y = a. If h(x) = f(x) + g(x), then h(x) is
(A) one-one (B) into
(C) onto (D) many-one
3
27. If sin–1x + sin–1y + sin–1z = , then
2
9
(A) x100 + y100 + z100 – =0 (B) x22 + y42 + z62 – x220 –y420 – z620 = 0
x101 y101 z101
x 2008 y 2008 z 2008
(C) x50 + y25 + z5 = 0 (D) 0
(xyz)2009
28. If X = cosec tan1 cos cot1 sec sin1 a and Y = sec cot1 sin tan1 cosec cos1 a; where 0 a < 1. Find the
relation between X and Y. Then
(A) X = Y (B) Y = 3 a2 (C) X Y (D) X = 2Y
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31. In the following functions defined from [–1, 1] to [–1, 1] , then functions which are not bijective are
2
(A) sin (sin–1x) (B) sin–1(sin x) (C) (sgn x) n ex (D) x3 sgn x
1 1 1
sincot cos tan t 1 2t 2
32. The expression 1 1 . can take the value
2t
2
2 cos tan sincot 2t
(A) 1/2 (B) –5 (C) 1 (D) 3/4
1 x2
33. If 0 < x < 1, then tan–1 is equal to:
1 x
1 1 x 1 x 1
(A) cos1 x (B) cos1 (C) cos1 (D) sin1x
2 2 2 2
x 1
34. If f(x) = cos–1x + cos–1 3 3x 2 , then
2 2
2 2
(A) f = (B) f =
3 3 3 2
1 1 1
(C) f = (D) f = 2 cos–1 –
3 3
3 3 3
4n
35. tan 1 is equal to:
n 1 n 2n2 2
4
PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
Comprehension # 1
Given a function f : A B ; where A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and B = {6, 7, 8}
1. Find number of all such functions y = f(x) which are one-one ?
(A) 0 (B) 35 (C) 5P3 (D) 53
2. Find number of all such functions y = f(x) which are onto
(A) 243 (B) 93 (C) 150 (D) none of these
3. The number of mappings of g(x) : B A such that g(i) g(j) whenever i < j is
(A) 60 (B) 140 (C) 10 (D) 35
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Comprehension # 2
Let the domain and range of inverse circular functions are defined as follows
Domain Range
3
sin–1x [–1, 1] 2, 2
cos–1x [–1, 1] [0, ]
3
tan–1x R 2, 2
cot–1x R (0, )
3
cosec–1x (–, –1] [1, ) 2 , 2 – {}
sec–1x (–, –1] [1, ) [0, ] –
2
3
4. sin–1x < then solution set of x is
4
1 1 1 1
(A) , 1 (B) , 1 (C) , (D) none of these
2 2 2 2
5. If x , –{0}, then cosec–1 cosec x is
2 2
(A) 2– x (B) + x (C) –x (D) – – x
1. Let f(x) = x2 and g(x) = sin x for all x R. Then the set of all x satisfying (f o g o g o f) (x) = (g o g o f)
(x), where (f o g) (x) = f(g(x)), is [IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-2, (3, –1), 80]
(A) ± n , n {0, 1, 2,....} (B) ± n , n {1, 2,....}
(C) + 2n, n {.....–2, –1, 0, 1, 2,....} (D) 2n, n {...., –2, –1, 0, 1, 2,....}
2
sin d
2. Let f() = sin tan1 , where – < < . Then the value of (f()) is
)
cos 2 4 4 d(tan
[IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-1, (4, 0), 80]
3. The function f : [0, 3] [1, 29], defined by f(x) = 2x3 – 15x2 + 36x + 1, is
(A) one-one and onto (B) onto but not one-one
(C) one-one but not onto (D) neither one-one nor onto
[IIT-JEE 2012, Paper-1, (3, –1), 70]
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2
4*. Let f : (–1, 1) R be such that f(cos 4) = for 0, , . Then the value(s) of
2 sec 2
4 4 2
1
f is (are) [IIT-JEE 2012, Paper-2, (4, 0), 66]
3
3 3 2 2
(A) 1 – (B) 1 + (C) 1 – (D) 1 +
2 2 3 3
23 n
5. The value of cot
n1
cot –1 1
2k
is [JEE (Advanced) 2013, Paper-1, (2, 0)/60]
k 1
23 25 23 24
(A) (B) (C) (D)
25 23 24 23
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List - I List – II
1/ 2
cos(tan–1 y) y sin(tan–1 y)
2
P 1 y 4
takes value 1.
1 5
y2 –1 –1
cot(sin y) tan(sin y) 2 3
Q. If cos x + cos y + cox z = 0 = sin x + sin y + sin z then 2. 2
x–y
possible value of cos is
2
1
R. If cos – x cos 2x + sin x sin 2x sec x = cos xsin 2x sec x + 3.
4 2
cos x cos 2x then possible value of sec x is
4
S.
If cot sin–1 1– x2 = sin tan –1
x 6 , x 0, 4. 1
then possible value of x is [JEE (Advanced) 2013, Paper-2, (3, –1)/60]
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
7. Let f: – , R be given by f(x) = (log(sec x + tanx)) 3 . Then
2 2
[JEE (Advanced) 2014, Paper-1, (3, 0)/60]
(A) f(x) is an odd function (B) f(x) is a one-one function
(C) f(x) is an onto function (D) f(x) is an even function
8. Let f : [0, 4] [0, ] be defined by f(x) = cos–1 (cos x). The number of points x [0, 4] satisfying the
10 x
equation f(x) = is [JEE (Advanced) 2014, Paper-1, (3, 0)/60]
10
6 4
9*. If = 3sin–1 and = 3cos–1 , where the inverse trigonometric functions take only the
11 9
principal values, then the correct option(s) is(are) [JEE (Advanced) 2015, P-2 (4, –2)/ 80]
(A) cos > 0 (B) sin < 0 (C) cos( + ) > 0 (D) cos < 0
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1 1
lying in the interval , is __________. [JEE(Advanced) 2018, Paper-1,(3, 0)/60]
2 2
(Here, the inverse trigonometric functions sin–1x and cos–1x assume values in , and [0, ],
2 2
respectively).
11. Let X be a set with exactly 5 elements and Y be a set with exactly 7 elements. If is the number of
one-one functions from X to Y and is the number of onto function form Y to X, then the value of
1
( – ) is ______ . [JEE(Advanced) 2018, Paper-2,(3, 0)/60]
5!
x
x
12. Let E1 = x R : x 1and 0 and E2 = x E1 : sin–1 loge is a real number .
x –1
x – 1
(Here, the inverse trigonometric function sin–1x assumes values in – , .)
2 2
x
Let f : E1 R be the function defined by f(x) = loge
x – 1
x
and g : E2 R be the function defined by g(x) = sin–1 loge
x – 1
[JEE(Advanced) 2018, Paper-2,(3, –1)/60]
LIST-I LIST-II
1 e
(P) The range of f is (1) – , 1– e e – 1,
(Q) The range of g contains (2) (0, 1)
1 1
(R) The domain of f contains (3) – 2 , 2
(S) The domain of g is (4) (–, 0) (0, )
e
(5) – , e – 1
1 e
(6) (–, 0) ,
2 e – 1
The correct option is
(A) P 4; Q 2; R 1; S 1 (B) P 3; Q 3; R 6; S 5
(C) P 4; Q 2; R 1; S 6 (D) P 4; Q 3; R 6; S 5
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Relations, Functions & Inverse Trigonometric Functions
2. Let R be the set of real numbers. [AIEEE-2011(Part-, (4, – 1), 120]
Statement-1 : A = {(x, y) R × R : y – x is an integer} is an equivalence relation on R.
Statement-2 : B = {(x, y) R × R : x = y for some rational number } is an equivalence relation on R.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
3. Consider the following relation R on the set of real square matrices of order 3.
R = {(A, B)|A = P–1 BP for some invertible matrix P}. [AIEEE-2011(Part-, (3, – 1), 120]
Statement -1 : R is equivalence relation.
Statement - 2 : For any two invertible 3 × 3 matrices M and N, (MN)–1 = N–1M–1.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
1
4. The domain of the function f(x) = is : [AIEEE 2011, , (4, –1), 120]
| x | x
(1) (– , ) (2) (0, ) (3) (–, 0) (4) (–, ) – {0}
5. Let f be a function defined by f(x) = (x–1)2 + 1, (x 1). [AIEEE 2011, , (4, –1), 120]
Statement - 1 : The set {x : f(x) = f–1(x)} = {1, 2}.
Statement - 2 : f is a bijection and f–1(x) = 1 + x 1 , x 1.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true .
6. If x, y, z are in A.P. and tan–1x, tan–1y and tan–1z are also in A.P., then [AIEEE - 2013, (4, –1),120]
(1) x = y = z (2) 2x = 3y = 6z (3) 6x = 3y = 2z (4) 6x = 4y = 3z
1
7. If g is the inverse of a function f and f'(x) = , then g'(x) equal to :
1 x5
[JEE(Main)2014,(4, – 1),120]
1
(1) (2) 1 + {g(x)}5 (3) 1 + x5 (4) 5x4
1 {g(x)}5
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Relations, Functions & Inverse Trigonometric Functions
2x 1
8. Let tan–1y = tan–1x + tan–1 , where |x| < . Then a value of y is
1– x 2 3
[JEE(Main)2015,(4, – 1), 120]
3x – x 3
3x x 3
3x – x 3
3x x3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1– 3x 2 1– 3x 2 1 3x 2 1 3x 2
1
9. If f(x) + 2f = 3x, x 0, and S = {x R : f(x) = f (–x)} ; then S : [JEE(Main)2016,(4, – 1), 120]
x
(1) contains exactly one element (2) contains exactly two elements.
(3) contains more than two elements. (4) is an empty set.
10. Two sets A and B are as under : A = {(a, b) R R : |a –5| < 1 and |b – 5| < 1 } ;
B = {(a, b ) R R : 4(a– 6)2 + 9(b–5)2 36 }. Then; [JEE(Main)2018,(4, – 1), 120]
(1) A B = ( an empty set) (2) Neither A B nor B A
(3) B A (4) A B
2 3 3
11. If cos–1 + cos–1 = x then x is equal to :
3 x 4 x 2 4
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (09-01-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
145 145 146 145
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 10 12 11
1 1
12. For x R – {0, 1}, let f1(x) = , f2(x) = 1 – x and f3(x) = be three given functions. If a function, J(x)
x 1 x
satisfies (f2 J f1 ) (x) = f3(x) is equal to : [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (09-01-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
1
(1) f3(x) (2) f1(x) (3) f3(x) (4) f2(x)
x
19 n
13. The value of cot cot 1 1 2p is : [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (10-01-19),P-2 (4, – 1), 120]
n1
p 1
19 21 22 23
(1) (2) (3) (4)
21 19 23 22
14. The number of functions f from {1, 2, 3, …., 20}, onto {1,2,3,………..,20} such that f(k) is a multiple of 3,
wherever k is a multiple of 4, is : [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (11-01-19),P-2 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) 5! 6! (2) (15)! 6! (3) 65 × (15)! (4) 56 × 15
1– x 2x
16. If f(x) = loge ,| x | 1 , then f is equal to :
1 x 1 x2
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (08-04-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) (f(x))2 (2) 2f(x) (3) –2f(x) (4) 2f(x2)
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Relations, Functions & Inverse Trigonometric Functions
3 1
17. If = cos –1 , = tan–1 , where 0 < , < , then – is equal to :
5 3 2
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (08-04-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
9 9 9 9
(1) tan–1 (2) cos–1
(3) sin –1
(4) tan–1
14 5 10 5 10 5 10
2
3 cos x sin x
18. If 2y cot –1 , x 0, then dy is equal to :
cos x – 3 sin x 2 dx
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (08-04-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) x – (2) 2x – (3) –x (4) –x
6 3 3 6
19. Let f(x) = ax (a > 0) be written as f(x) = f1(x) + f2(x), where f1(x) is an even function and f2(x) is an old
function. Then f1(x + y) + f1(x – y) equals : [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (08-04-19),P-2 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) 2f1(x + y) f1(x – y) (2) 2f1(x) f1(y) (3) 2f1(x) f2(y) (4) 2f1(x + y) f2(x – y)
8 2 x – 8 –2 x
20. The inverse function of f(x) = , x(–1, 1), is
8 2x 8 – 2x
[JEE(Main) 2020, Online (08-01-20),P-1 (4, –1), 120]
1 1 x 1 1– x
(1) loge (2) loge
4 1– x 4 1 x
1 1 x 1 1– x
(3) (log8 e) loge (4) (log8 e) loge
4 1– x 4 1 x
x[ x ]
21. Let f : (1,3) R be a function defined by f(x) = , where [x] denotes the greatest integer x. Then
1 x2
the range of f is : [JEE(Main) 2020, Online (08-01-20),P-2 (4, –1), 120]
3 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 4
(1) , (2) , , (3) , , (4) ,
4 5 5 2 5 5 5 5 4 5 5 5
22. If f(x) = tan–1(secx + tanx), – < x< , and f(0) = 0, then f(1) is equal to :
2 2
1 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 4 4
[JEE(Main) 2020, Online (09-01-20),P-1 (4, –1), 120]
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Relative Motion
A-4. The driver of a train A running at 25 ms–1 sights a train B moving in the same direction on the same
track with 15 ms–1. The driver of train A applies brakes to produce a deceleration of 1.0 ms –2.
What should be the minimum distance between the trains to avoid the accident?
B-5. A ship is sailing towards north at a speed of 2 m/s. The current is taking it towards East at the rate of
1 m/s and a sailor is climbing a vertical pole on the ship at the rate of 1 m/s. Find the velocity of the
sailor with respect to ground.
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ADVRL - 20
Relative Motion
Section (D) : Relative motion in Rain and wind
D-1. A pipe which can rotate in a vertical plane is mounted on a cart. The cart moves uniformly along a
horizontal path with a speed v1 = 2 m/s. At what angle to the horizontal should the pipe be placed
so that drops of rain falling vertically with a velocity v2 = 6m/s move parallel to the axis of the pipe
without touching its walls? Consider the velocity of the drops as constant due to the resistance of the
air.
D-2. Rain seems to be falling vertically to a person sitting in a bus which is moving uniformly eastwards with
10 m/s. It appears to come from vertical at a velocity 20 m/s. Find the speed of rain drops with respect
to ground.
D-3. To a man walking at the rate of 2 km/hour with respect to ground, the rain appears to fall vertically.
When he increases his speed to 4 km/hour in same direction of his motion, rain appears to meet him at
an angle of 45º with horizontal, find the real direction and speed of the rain.
E-2. Four particles situated at the corners of a square of side ‘a’, move at a constant speed v. Each particle
maintains a direction towards the next particle in succession. Calculate the time the particles will take to
meet each other.
A-2. A stone is thrown upwards from a tower with a velocity 50 ms–1. Another stone is simultaneously thrown
downwards from the same location with a velocity 50 ms –1. When the first stone is at the highest point,
the relative velocity of the second stone with respect to the first stone is (assume that second stone has
not yet reached the ground) :
(A) Zero (B) 50 ms–1 (C) 100 ms–1 (D) 150 ms–1
A-3. Shown in the figure are the position time graph for two children going home from the school. Which of
the following statements about their relative motion is true after both of them started moving?
Their relative velocity: (consider 1-D motion)
(A) first increases and then decreases (B) first decreases and then increases
(C) is zero (D) is non zero constant.
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ADVRL - 21
Relative Motion
A-4. Shown in the figure are the velocity time graphs of the two particles P 1 and P2. Which of the following
statements about their relative motion is true? Magnitude of their relative velocity: (consider 1-D motion)
A-5. Two trains A and B which are 100 km apart are travelling towards each other on different tracks with
each having initial speed of 50 km/h. The train A accelerates at 20 km/h2 and the train B retards at the
rate 20 km/h2. The distance covered by the train A when they cross each other is :
(A) 45 km (B) 55 km (C) 65 km (D) 60 km
A-6. A jet airplane travelling from east to west at a speed of 500 km h –1 eject out gases of combustion at a
speed of 1500 km h–1 with respect to the jet plane. What is the velocity of the gases with respect to an
observer on the ground?
(A) 1000 km h–1 in the direction west to east (B) 1000 km h–1 in the direction east to west
–1
(C) 2000 km h in the direction west to east (D) 2000 km h–1 in the direction east to west
B-2. Two particles are moving with velocities v1 and v2. Their relative velocity is the maximum, when the
angle between their velocities is :
(A) zero (B) /4 (C) /2 (D)
B-3. A ship is travelling due east at 10 km/h. A ship heading 30° east of north is always due north from the
first ship. The speed of the second ship in km/h is -
(A) 20 2 (B) 20 (C) 20 3 / 2 (D) 20/ 2
C-3. A boat which can move with a speed of 5 m/s relative to water crosses a river of width 480 m flowing
with a constant speed of 4 m/s. What is the time taken by the boat to cross the river along the shortest
path.
(A) 80 s (B) 160 s (C) 240 s (D) 320 s
C-4. An airplane pilot sets a compass course due west and maintains an air speed of 240 km/h. After flying
1
for h, he finds himself over a town that is 150 km west and 40 km south of his starting point. The wind
2
velocity (with respect to ground) is :
(A) 100 km/h, 37° W of S (B) 100 km/h, 37° S of W
(C) 120 km/h, 37° W of S (D) 120 km/h, 37° S of W
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ADVRL - 22
Relative Motion
Section (D) : Relative motion in Rain and wind
D-1. It is raining vertically downwards with a velocity of 3 km h –1. A man walks in the rain with a velocity of
4 kmh–1. The rain drops will fall on the man with a relative velocity of :
(A) 1 kmh–1 (B) 3 kmh–1 (C) 4 kmh–1 (D) 5 kmh–1
D-2. A man walks in rain with a velocity of 5 kmh–1. The rain drops strike at him at an angle of 45° with the
horizontal. The velocity of the rain if it is falling vertically downward is :
(A) 5 kmh–1 (B) 4 kmh–1 (C) 3 kmh–1 (D) 1 kmh–1
D-3. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the
raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity of cyclist is :
(A) 10 m/s (B) 10 3 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 20 3 m/s
D-4. An aeroplane has to go along straight line from A to B, and back again. The relative speed with respect
to wind is V. The wind blows perpendicular to line AB with speed . The distance between A and B is .
The total time for the round trip is:
2 2 2V 2
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
V
2 2 V 2 V 2 2 V 2
2
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ADVRL - 23
Relative Motion
2. Both A & B are thrown simultaneously as shown from a very high tower.
Column-I Column-II
10m/s
B
A
(A) 10m/s (p) Distance between the two balls at two seconds
is 16 5 m.
10m/s
5m/s
10m/s
B
A 37°
10m/s
(C) (r) distance between two balls at 2 sec is 10 5 m.
10m/s
37° B
A 37°
10m/s
(D) (s) Magnitude of relative velocity of B w.r.t A is
5 2 m/s.
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ADVRL - 24
Relative Motion
7. Two persons P and Q start from points A and B respectively as shown in figure. P and Q have speed
v = 12 m/s in shown directions towards point O. when the distance between P and Q is 120m, then Q
increases its speed to 15 m/s. Then find out who will reach the point O first.
(A) P (B) Q
(C) both P and Q reaches simultaneously (D) Data is insufficient
8. A man crosses the river perpendicular to river flow in time t seconds and travels an equal distance
down the stream in T seconds. The ratio of man's speed in still water to the speed of river water will be :
t2 T2 T2 t2 t2 T2 T2 t2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t2 T2 T2 t2 t2 T2 T2 t2
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ADVRL - 25
Relative Motion
9. Two aeroplanes fly from their respective positions 'A' and 'B' starting at
the same time and reach the point 'C' simultaneously when wind was
not blowing. On a windy day they head towards 'C' but both reach the
point 'D' simultaneously in the same time which they took to reach 'C'.
Then the wind is blowing in
(A) North-East direction
(B) North-West direction
(C) Direction making an angle 0 < < 90 with North towards East.
(D) North direction
10. A man who is wearing a hat of extended length of 12 cm is running in rain falling vertically downwards
with speed 10 m/s. The maximum speed with which man can run, so that rain drops do not fall on his
face (the length of his face below the extended part of the hat is 16 cm) will be:
15 40
(A) m/s (B) m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) zero
2 3
11. A man is going up in a lift (open at the top) moving with a constant velocity 3 m/s. He throws a ball up at
5 m/sec relative to the lift when the lift is 50 m above the ground. Height of the lift when the ball meets it
during its downward journey is (g = 10 m/s2) [Olympiad (Stage-1) 2017]
(A) 53 m (B) 58 m (C) 63 m (D) 68 m
2. Two identical trains take 3 sec to pass one another when going in the opposite direction but only
2.5 sec if the speed of one is increased by 50%. Find the time (in sec) one would take to pass the other
when going in the same direction at their original speed.
3. Three elephants A, B and C are moving along a straight line
with constant speed in same direction as shown in figure.
Speed of A is 5 m/s and speed of C is 10 m/s. Initially
separation between A & B is ‘d’ and between B & C is also d.
When ‘B’ catches ‘C’ separation between A & C becomes 3d.
Find the speed of B (in m/s).
4. A man standing on a truck which moves with a constant horizontal acceleration a (= 10 m/s 2) when
speed of the truck is 10 m/s. The man throws a ball with velocity 5 2 m/s with respect to truck. In the
direction shown in the diagram. Find the displacement of ball in meters in one second as observed by
the man. (g = 10 m/s2)
5. A swimmer crosses the river along the line making an angle of 45º with the direction of flow. Velocity of
the river water is 5 m/s. Swimmer takes 6 seconds to cross the river of width 60 m. If the velocity of the
swimmer with respect to water is 5 n m/s, then find n.
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ADVRL - 26
Relative Motion
6. An aeroplane has to go from a point A to another point B, 1000 km away due 30º west of north. A wind
is blowing due north at a speed of 20 m/s. The air-speed of the plane is 150 m/s. If the angle at which
the pilot should head the plane to reach the point B is sin–1(1/n) west of the line AB, Then find n.
7. Rain appears to be falling at an angle of 37° with vertical to the driver of a car moving with a velocity of
7 m/sec. When he increases the velocity of the car to 25 m/sec, the rain again appears to fall at an
angle 37° with vertical. If the actual velocity of rain relative to ground is 4n m/s then find n.
8. During a rainy day, rain is falling vertically with a velocity 2m/s. A boy at rest starts his motion with a
constant acceleration of 2m/s2 along a straight road. If the rate at which the angle of the axis of
umbrella with vertical should be changed is 1/n at t = 5s so that the rain falls parallel to the axis of the
umbrella, then find n.
9. Two men P & Q are standing at corners A & B of square ABCD of side 8 m. They start moving along
the track with constant speed 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. Find the time (in seconds) when they will
meet for the first time.
10. Two straight tracks AOB and COD meet each other at right angles at point O. A person walking at a
speed of 5 km/h along AOB is at the crossing O at 12 o'clock noon. Another person walking at the
same speed along COD reaches the crossing O at 1:30 PM. If the time at which the distance between
them is least is 12 : T PM, then find T.
11. P is a point moving with constant speed 10 m/s such that its velocity vector always maintains an angle
60° with line OP as shown in figure (O is a fixed point in space). The initial distance between O and P is
100 m. After what time (in sec) shall P reach O.
2. A man in a lift which is ascending with an upward acceleration 'a' throws a ball vertically upwards with a
velocity ‘v’ with respect to himself and catches it after ‘t 1’ seconds. Afterwards when the lift is
descending with the same acceleration 'a' acting downwards the man again throws the ball vertically
upwards with the same velocity with respect to him and catches it after ‘t 2’ seconds
(A) the acceleration of the ball with respect to ground is g when it is in air
g (t1 t 2 )
(B) the velocity v of the ball relative to the lift is
t1 t 2
g (t 2 t1 )
(C) the acceleration 'a' of the lift is
t1 t 2
g t1 t 2
(D) the velocity ‘v’ of the ball relative to the man is
(t1 t 2 )
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ADVRL - 27
Relative Motion
3. At an instant particle-A is at origin and moving with constant velocity (3iˆ 4ˆj) m / s and particle-B is at
(4, 4)m and moving with constant velocity (4iˆ 3ˆj) m / s . Then :
(A) at this instant relative velocity of B w.r.t. A is (iˆ 7ˆj) m / s
(B) at this instant approach velocity of A and B is 3 2 m/s
(C) relative velocity of B w.r.t. A remains constant
(D) approach velocity of A and B remains constant
4. A person is standing on a truck moving with a constant velocity of 15 m/s on a horizontal road. The man
throws a ball in such a way that it returns to his hand after the truck has moved 60 m. (g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) The speed of the ball as seen from the truck is 20 m/s
(B) The direction of initial velocity of ball is upward as seen from the truck
(C) The initial speed of the ball as seen from the ground is 25 m/s
(D) None of these
5. Two boats A and B having same speed relative to river are moving in a river. Boat A moves normal to
the river current as observed by an observer moving with velocity of river current. Boat B moves normal
to the river as observed by the observer on the ground. Choose the incorrect options.
(A) To a ground observer boat B moves faster than A
(B) To a ground observer boat A moves faster than B
(C) To the given moving observer boat B moves faster than A
(D) To the given moving observer boat A moves faster than B
6. An open elevator is ascending with zero acceleration and speed 10 m/s. A ball is thrown vertically up by
a boy (boy is in elevator) when he is at a height 10 m from the ground, the velocity of projection is
30m/s with respect to elevator. Choose correct option(s) assuming height of the boy very small :
(g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Maximum height attained by the ball from ground is 90 m.
(B) Maximum height attained by the ball with respect to lift from the point of projection is 45 m.
(C) Time taken by the ball to meet the elevator again is 6 sec
(D) The speed of the ball when it comes back to the boy is 20 m/s with respect to ground.
PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
Comprehension # 1
The driver of a car travelling at a speed of 20 m/s, wishes to overtake a truck that is moving with a
constant speed of 20 m s–1 in the same lane. The car’s maximum acceleration is 0.5 m s –2. Initially the
vehicles are separated by 40 m, and the car returns back into its lane after it is 40 m ahead of the truck.
The car is 3 m long and the truck 17m long.
1. Find the minimum time required for the car to pass the truck and return back to its lane?
(A) 10 second (B) 20 second, (C) 15 second (D) none of these.
2. What distance does the car travel during this time?
(A) 500 m (B) 600 m (C) 200 m (D) 300 m
3. What is the final speed of the car ?
(A) 40 m/s (B) 20 m/s (C) 45 m/s (D) 30 m/s
Comprehension # 2
Two particles 'A' and 'B' are projected in the vertical plane with same initial speed u 0 from position (0, 0)
and (, – h) towards each other as shown in figure at t = 0.
y
u0
2
‘A’ g=10 m/s
x
(0,0)
u0 h
‘B’
( 1- h)
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ADVRL - 28
Relative Motion
4. The path of particle 'A' with respect to particle 'B' will be
(A) parabola (B) straight line parallel to x-axis.
(C) straight line parallel to y-axis (D) none of these.
Comprehension # 3
Raindrops are falling with a velocity 10 2 m/s making an angle of 45° with the vertical. The drops
appear to be falling vertically to a man running with constant velocity. The velocity of rain drops change
such that the rain drops now appear to be falling vertically with 3 times the velocity it appeared earlier
to the same person running with same velocity.
7. The magnitude of velocity of man with respect to ground is
(A) 10 2 m/s (B) 5 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 10 m/s
8. After the velocity of rain drops change, the magnitude of velocity of raindrops with respect to ground is
(A) 20 m/s (B) 25 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 15 m/s
9. The angle (in degrees) between the initial and the final velocity vectors of the raindrops with respect to
the ground is
(A) 8 (B) 15 (C) 22.5 (D) 37
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ADVRL - 29
Relative Motion
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
2. Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity v 30î 50 ĵ km/hr where î points east and ĵ points
north. Ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of ship A and is sailing towards west at
10 km/hr. A will be at minimum distance from B in. [JEE (Main) 2019; 4/120, –1]
(1) 4.2 hrs. (2) 2.6 hrs. (3) 3.2 hrs. (4) 2.2 hrs.
3. A particle is moving along the x-axis with its coordinate with time t given by x(t) = 10 + 8t – 3t2. Another
particle is moving along the y-axis with its coordinate as a function of time given by y(t) = 5 – 8t3.
At t = 1s, the speed of the second particle as measured in the frame of the first particle is given as v.
Then v (in m/s) is. [JEE (Main) 2020, 08 January; 4/100, –1]
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ADVRL - 30
Relative Motion
EXERCISE-1 EXERCISE-2
PART - I PART - I
Section (A) : 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A)
A-1. (a) 144 km/h due south 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (D)
7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B)
(b) 90 km/h due north
(c) 36 km/h due north 10. (A) 11. (A)
(d) 126 km/h due north
A-2. 50 km/h A-3. 20 sec. PART – II
A-4. 50 m 1. 5 2. 15 3. 15
4. 0 5. 5 6. 15
Section (B) : 7. 5 8. 26 9. 3
B-1. 4 î + 3 ĵ , – 4 î – 3 ĵ , 5 unit, 5 unit. 10. 45 11. 20
5
PART - III
B-2. 13 m/s, tan–1 = 22°37 north of east 1. (ABCD) 2. (ACD) 3. (ABC)
12
4. (ABC) 5. (ACD) 6. (ABCD)
B-3. (a) 20 m/s or 72 km/h due east
(b) 25 m/s or 90 km/h at 37°N of E
PART - IV
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D)
B-4. 30º N of W at 5 3 km/h. 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C)
B-5. ˆi 2 ˆj kˆ , î east, ĵ north, 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (B)
k̂ vertical upward
EXERCISE-3
Section (C) :
PART - I
1 3 1. 5
C-1. 12 km/h, 4km/h C-2. h, km
4 4
C-3. At an angle 30° west of north
PART - II
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. 580
Section (D) :
D-1. = tan–1 3 D-2. 10 5 m/s
D-3. 2 2 m/s, 45º with vertical and away from the
man.
Section (E) :
E-1. 3m E-2. a/v
PART - II
Section (A) :
A-1. (A) A-2. (C) A-3. (D)
A-4. (D) A-5. (D) A-6. (A)
Section (B) :
B-1. (D) B-2. (D) B-3. (B)
Section (C) :
C-1. (B) C-2. (B) C-3. (B)
C-4. (A)
Section (D) :
D-1. (D) D-2. (A) D-3. (B)
D-4. (A)
Section (E) :
E-1. (B) E-2. (C)
PART - III
1. (A) – q ; (B) – q ; (C) – q ; (D) – q
2. (A) – q ; (B) – r, t ; (C) – p ; (D) – q
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ADVRL - 31