Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MLL Science
MLL Science
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6 Our Environment – Full Chapter 5 marks
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7 Magnetic Effect of Electric Current –
6 marks
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Full Chapter**
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Total Marks SC Around 48 marks
** Revised syllabus only (excluding deleted portion for 2022-23)
All Remedial Students have to complete the above chapters/topics thoroughly with
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100% perfection and then they can also concentrate the below topics for Board Exam:
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*The Human Eye and Colourful World – Imp questions and objective type questions
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*Acid, Bases and Salts – Imp questions and objective type questions
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CLASS X : SCIENCE
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Heredity Important Question Answers and Objective type
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5 74 – 80
questions
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Our Environment Important Question Answers and Objective
6 81 – 92
type questions
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Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Important Question
7 93 – 116
Answers and Objective type questions
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9 134 – 159
and Objective type questions
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11 169 – 183
Objective type questions
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1. In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of
gas collected over the other electrode?
Answer. It is because water contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1.
Answer.
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sound.
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4. On what basis is a chemical equation balanced?
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Answer. A chemical reaction is balanced on the basis of law of conservation of mass.
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5. What change in colour is observed when white silver chloride is left exposed to sunlight?
State the type of chemical reaction in this change.
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6. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and silver
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nitrate indicating the physical state of the reactants and the products.
Answer.
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7. State one basic difference between a physical change and a chemical change.
Answer. In physical change, no new substance is formed, whereas in a chemical change, new
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10. Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet
water which is a compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to extinguish fire.
Why?
Answer. It is because properties of compound (H2O) are different from properties of its
constituting elements, i.e. H2 and O2.
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [I] [2 MARKS]
11. Name the products formed on strongly heating ferrous sulphate crystals. What type of
chemical reaction occurs in this change?
Answer.
It is decomposition reaction.
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Oxidation reactions are mostly exothermic in nature because heat is evolved in this process.
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13. Describe an activity to demonstrate the change that takes place when white silver chloride is
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kept in sunlight. State the type of chemical reaction which takes place.
Answer.
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Aim: To demonstrate the change that takes place when white silver chloride is kept in sunlight.
Materials Required: AgNO3(aq), NaCl(aq), test tubes.
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Procedure:
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14. When magnesium ribbon burns in air or oxygen, a product is formed. State the type of
chemical reaction and name the product formed in the reaction. Write balanced chemical
equation of this reaction.
Answer.
The type of reaction is combination reaction and the product formed is magnesium oxide.
15. Distinguish between a displacement reaction and a double displacement reaction. Identify
the displacement and the double displacement reaction from the following reactions.
Answer.
Displacement reaction is a reaction in which more reactive metal can displace less reactive metal
from its salt solution.
Double displacement reaction are those reactions in which compounds exchange their ions to
form two new compounds (i) Double displacement reaction (ii) Displacement reaction
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16. When you have mixed the solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide,
(i) what was the colour of the precipitate formed and can you name the precipitate?
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(ii) write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
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(iii) is this also a double displacement reaction?
Answer.
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(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow. The name of compound formed as a precipitate is Pbl2
(lead iodide).
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17. What do you mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Answer. Exothermic reactions are those in which heat is evolved, e.g.
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18. What happens when an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate reacts with an aqueous
solution of barium chloride? State the physical conditions of reactants in which the reaction
between them will not take place. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction and
name the type of reaction.
Answer. White precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
If both reactants are in solid state, then the reaction will not take place between them.
19. What is a redox reaction? When a magnesium ribbon burns in air with a dazzling flame and
forms a white ash, is magnesium oxidised or reduced? Why?
Answer. The reactions in which oxidation (loss of electrons) and reduction (gain of electrons)
take place simultaneously are called redox reactions.
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Magnesium is getting oxidised because it is losing electrons to form Mg2+ and oxygen is gaining
electrons to form O2-, therefore it is getting reduced.
20. Write any two observations in an activity which may suggest that a chemical reaction has
taken place. Give an example in support of your answer.
Answer. Any two of these observations will suggest chemical reaction has taken place.
(i) Change in state.
(ii)Change in colour.
(iii) Evolution of gas.
(iv)Change in temperature.
For example, lead nitrate is white crystalline solid which on heating gives yellowish brown solid
(lead monoxide). A brown gas and a colourless gas is also evolved. It shows chemical reaction
has taken place.
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21. When the powder of a common metal is heated in an open china dish, its colour turns black.
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However, when hydrogen is passed over the hot black substance so formed, it regains its
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original colour. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
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(i) What type of chemical reaction takes place in each of the two given steps?
(ii) Name the metal initially taken in the powder form. Write balanced chemical equations
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for both reactions.
Answer.
(i) In first step, oxidation takes place. In second step, redox reaction takes place.
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22. Using a suitable chemical equation, justify that some chemical reactions are determined by:
(i) change in colour, (ii) change in temperature.
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23. (a) A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. What is the substance ‘X’? State
the chemical reaction of ‘X’ with water.
(b) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in
it?
Answer. (a) ‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO).
CaO(s) + H2O(l) —–> Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat
(a) It is because iron displaces copper from CuS04 to form FeS04 which is pale green.
Fe(s) + CUS04 (aq)—–> FeS04(aq) + Cu(s)
Blue Pale green
25. Write the balanced equation for the. following reaction and identify the type of reaction in
each case.
(a) Potassium bromide + Barium iodide → Potassium iodide + Barium bromide.
(b) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine(g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
Answer. (a) 2KBr(aq) + BaI2(aq) → 2KI(aq) + BaBr2(aq)
(b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
26. A zinc plate was put into a solution of copper sulphate kept in a glass container. It was
found that blue colour of the solution gets fader and fader with the passage of time. After
few days, when zinc plate was taken out of the solution, a number of holes were observed on
it. (i) State the reason for changes observed on the zinc plate.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Answer.
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(i) It is because zinc has displaced copper from CuS04. Zinc metal has been used to form zinc
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sulphate, therefore, number of holes were observed.
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27. A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a residue is left behind.
(i) Name the salt.
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28. When a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate in a test tube, a
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29. Define combination reaction. Give one example of a combination reaction which is also
exothermic.
Answer. A reaction in which two elements or compounds combine to form a single compound is
called combination reaction.
It is also an exothermic reaction along with a combination reaction because heat is evolved.
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(b) Which of the above reaction(s) is/are precipitation reaction(s)? Why is a reaction called
precipitation reaction?
Answer.
(a) (i) Precipitation reaction (Double displacement reaction)
(ii) Combination reaction (in) Decomposition reaction
(b) Reaction (i) is a precipitation reaction because one of the product formed is insoluble in water.
31. Write balanced equations for the following mentioning the type of reaction involved.
(i) Aluminium + Bromine —–> Aluminium bromide
(ii) Calcium carbonate—–> Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
(iii) Silver chloride—–>Silver + Chlorine
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(b) Define the terms oxidation and reduction.
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(c) Identify the substance that is oxidised and reduced in the following reaction.
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Answer. (a) It is because heat is evolved during respiration.
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(b) Oxidation is a process in which O2 is added or H2 is removed or loss of electrons take place.
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Reduction is a process in which H2 is added or O2 is removed or gain of electrons take place.
(c) Zn is getting oxidised, CuO is getting reduced.
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Answer.(i) Precipitation reaction: The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions and
the product formed is insoluble in water is called precipitation reaction.
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(ii) Exothermic reaction: The reaction in which heat is evolved is known as exothermic reaction.
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(iii) Oxidation reaction: The reaction in which O2 is added or H2 is removed or loss of electrons
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34. You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of
copper powder becomes coated with a black colour substance.
(i) How has this black coloured substance formed?
(ii) What is that black substance?
(iii) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
Answer.
(i) Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide which is black, i.e. oxidation of copper takes
place.
(ii)Copper oxide
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35. “We need to balance a skeltal chemical equation.” Give reason to justify the statement.
Answer. Skeltal chemical equation are unbalanced. We need to balance chemical equation
because of law of conservation of mass. It states that ‘matter can neither be created nor be
destroyed’. Therefore chemical equation must be balanced in each and every chemical reaction.
36. Giving an example list two information which make a chemical equation more useful
(informative).
Answer. (i) Physical state of reactants must be mentioned, e.g.
2H2 (g) + O2 (g)——–> 2H20 (l)
(ii) Condition in which reaction takes place are written on the arrow head, e.g.
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(b) The type of reaction
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Na2SO4 + BaCl2—–> BaSO4 + 2NaCl
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The reaction is precipitation reaction. It is also called double displacement reaction.
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(ii) In desert plants the stomata are open at night. They take CO2 at night and is stored in the form
of acid and is used during day time for photosynthesis.
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40. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead
nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the
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41. Write chemical equation reactions taking place when carried out with the help of
(a) Iron reacts with steam
(b) Magnesium reacts with dil HCl
(c) Copper is heated in air.
Answer.
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42. Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.
(i) Silver bromide on exposure to sunlight decomposes into silver and bromine,
(ii) Sodium metal reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer.
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44. Write balanced equation for the reaction between magnesium and hydrochloric acid. Name
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the product obtained, identify the type of reaction.
Answer.
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The product formed is magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas. It is a displacement reaction.
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45. Describe an activity to observe what happens when quick lime is added to water taken in a
beaker. State two important observations and name the type of reaction taking place.
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Answer.
Aim: To observe what happens when quicklime is added to water taken in a beaker.
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Procedure:
1. Take 5 g of calcium oxide in a beaker.
2. Add water to it slowly.
3. Touch the beaker.
4. Note down the observations.
Observation: Calcium oxide reacts with water vigorously to form calcium hydroxide with the
evolution of heat.
Chemical Reaction:
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Conclusion: The reaction between CaO (Calcium oxide) and H2O is a combination reaction. It is
an exothermic process because heat is evolved.
46. What is the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals? How does this colour change after heating?
Answer. The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green. The colour changes to reddish brown on
heating due to formation of iron (III) oxide.
Give an example each for thermal decomposition and photochemical decomposition reactions.
Write relevant balanced chemical equations also.
Thermal decomposition reaction:
47. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Write two observations.
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Answer. It is because displacement reaction takes place.
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Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution and forms pale green coloured solution of
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FeS04 and reddish brown copper metal gets deposited.
Fe(s) + CuS04(aq) ——–> FeS04(aq) + Cu(s)
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48. Translate the following statement into chemical equation and then balance it Barium
chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of
barium sulphate. State the two types in which this reaction can be classified.
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49. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write
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Combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more elements or compounds combine to form
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50. A Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation:
51. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place
with an example of each:
(i) Change in colour (ii) Change in temperature (iii) Formation of precipitate
Answer.
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(i)Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq)———–> Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag
The solution will become blue in colour and shiny silver metal will be deposited.
(ii) NaOH + HCl ———–> NaCl + H2O+ heat
The temperature will increase because heat will be evolved.
(iii) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq)———–> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
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Yellow precipitate of Pbl2 will be formed.
52. State the type of chemical reactions and chemical equations that take place in the following:
(i) Magnesium wire is burnt in air.
(ii) Electric current is passed through water.
(iii) Ammonia and hydrogen chloride gases’are mixed.
Answer.
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53. (a) Write the essential condition for the following reaction to take place:
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2AgBr—-> 2Ag + Br2
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Write one application of this reaction.
(b) Complete the following chemical equation of a chemical reaction
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(c) What happens when water is added to quick line. Write chemical equation.
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Answer.
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(c) Slaked lime is formed with hissing sound and lot of heat is envolved.
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55. Which products will be obtained when lead nitrate is heated simply. Write balanced chemical
equation for the reaction? State the type of chemical reaction that occur in the change.
Answer. Lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen gas will be liberated.
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56. What is meant by skeltal type chemical equation? What does it represent? Using the
equation for electrolytic decomposition of water, differentiate between a skeltal chemical
equation and a balanced chemical equation.
Answer. The equations in which gaseous are written in atomic form instead of molecular form
and equation is not balanced, are called skeltal type equation. They represent gaseous elements
formed in atomic state and equation is not balanced
57. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the
following questions
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(a) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it. How will the
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colour of the salt change?
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Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(c) Mention one commercial use of this salt.
Answer. (a) Photochemical decomposition reaction: Those reactions in which a compound breaks
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down into simple substances in presence of light are called photochemical decomposition
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58. What is rancidity? Mention any two ways by which rancidity can be prevented.
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Answer. The process in which taste and smell of food gets spoiled is called rancidity. It happens
due to oxidation.
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59. Write balanced chemical equation for the reactions that take place during respiration.
Identify the type of combination reaction that takes place during this process and justify the
name. Give one more example of this type of reaction.
Answer. C6H1206 + 6O2 —————> 6CO2 + 6H20 + heat
It is an exothermic combination reaction because heat is evolved.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ————–>CO2 (g) + 2H20
Combustion of methane is another example of exothermic combination reaction.
60. What is redox reaction? Identify the substance oxidised and the substance reduced in the
following reactions.
(i)2PbO + C —–> 2Pb + CO2
(ii)MnO2 + 4HCl —–> MnCl2 + 2H20 + Cl2
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Answer. Those reactions in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously are called
redox reactions.
(i) PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidised.
(ii) MnOs is getting reduced and HCl is getting oxidised.
61. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the type of
reaction in each case.
Thermite reaction, iron (III) oxide reacts with aluminium and gives molten iron and
aluminium oxide.
Answer.
62. A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white
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substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of the
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chemical reaction?
Answer.
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It is a double displacement reaction. It is also a precipitation reaction as AgCl is a white
precipitate.
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63. (a) Define a balanced chemical equation. Why should an equation be balanced?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction:
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(a) Balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the
reactants and products. According to law of conservation of mass, matter can neither be created
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64. (a) Explain two ways by which food industries prevent rancidity.
(b) Discuss the importance of decomposition reaction in metal industry with three points.
Answer.
(a) (i) Rancidity can be prevented by adding antioxidants to food containing fat and oil, e.g.
butylated hydroxy anisole is added to butter as antioxidant.
(ii) It can be prevented by packaging fat and oil containing foods in nitrogen gas.
(b) (i) Molten NaCl is electrolytically decomposed to form sodium metal.
(ii) Aluminium metal is obtained by electric decomposition of bauxite ore mixed with cryolite.
(iii) Carbonate ores are thermally decomposed to give metal oxide which on reduction give metal.
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65. A metal nitrate ‘A’ on heating gives yellowish brown coloured metal oxide along with brown
gas ‘B’ and a colourless gas ‘C’. Aqueous solution of ‘A’ on reaction with potassium iodide
forms a yellow precipitate of compound ‘D’. Identify ‘A, B, C, D’. Also identify the types of
both the reactions. Metal present in ‘A’ is used in alloy which is used for soldering purposes.
Answer. Metal nitrate ‘A’ is Pb(NO3)2.
‘A’ is lead nitrate, ‘B’ is nitrogen dioxide, ‘C’ is oxygen and ‘D’ is lead iodide.
(i) is decomposition reaction and (ii) is double displacement reaction (Precipitation reaction)
66. (a) Write one example for each of decomposion reaction carried out with help of
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(i) Electricity (ii) Heat (iii) Light
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(b) Which of the following statements is correct and why copper can displace silver from
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silver nitrate and silver can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
Answer.
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3. Balance the chemical equation by including the physical states of the substances for the following
reactions.
a) Barium chloride and sodium sulphate aqueous solutions react to give insoluble Barium
sulphate and aqueous solution of sodium chloride.
b) Sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce sodium chloride and water.
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c) Zinc pieces react with dilute hydrochloric acid to liberate hydrogen gas and forms zinc
chloride
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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6. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
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3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
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(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised
(ii) Water is getting reduced
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(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
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(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
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(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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8. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 mL of water were taken. A small
amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B and C
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respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the solutions
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contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution falls.
Which one of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
(iii) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred.
(iv) In beaker C endothermic process has occurred.
9. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
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(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4
(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO4
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved
(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a colourless
compound.
11. Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a
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long duration turns grey due to
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(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
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(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
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(iv) oxidation of silver chloride
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(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
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12. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide accompanied by
liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to
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form its solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime
and the solution formed?
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13. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium
chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
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14. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases
liberated during electrolysis of water is
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
16. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead nitrate, a
yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is not
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available, which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate?
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(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
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(b) Lead acetate
(c) Ammonium nitrate
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(d) Potassium sulphate
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17. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
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18. The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory
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20. In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the
reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l)
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
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21. Which of the following are combination reactions?
23. In the context of redox reactions, the removal of hydrogen from a substance is known as :
(a) oxidation (b) dehydration (c) reduction (d) dehydrogenation
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24. The chemical reaction involved in the corrosion of iron metal is that of :
(a) oxidation as well as displacement (b) reduction as well as combination
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(c) oxidation as well as combination (d) reduction as well as displacement
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25. Give the characteristic tests for the following gases
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) O2 (d) H2
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METALS AND NON-METALS
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
1. A green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for a week in a
bathroom. What could this green substance be?
Answer. It is due to the formation of basic copper carbonate [CuC03.Cu(0H)2].
2. A non-metal X exists in two different forms Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance,
whereas Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z.
Answer. ‘X’ is carbon, ‘Y’ is diamond as it is the hardest natural substance and ‘Z’ is graphite as
it is good conductor of electricity.
3. Metals generally occur in solid state. Name and write symbol of a metal that exists in liquid
state at room temperature.
Answer. Mercury(Hg) exists in liquid state at room temperature.
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4. Which of the following two metals will melt at body temperature (37 °C) ?
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Gallium, Magnesium, Caesium, Aluminium
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Answer. Gallium and Caesium
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5. From amongst the metals sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium, name the
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metal (a) which reacts with water only on boiling, and
(b) another which does not react even with steam.
Answer. (a) Magnesium reacts with water only on boiling.
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6. Which one of the following metals does not react with oxygen even at high temperatures ?
(a) Calcium (b) Gold (c) Sodium
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Answer. (b) Gold does not react with oxygen even at high temperatures.
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7. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water, but reacts
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Answer. It is because hydrogen gas is formed which sticks to surface of calcium, therefore it
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floats.
10. Which gas is liberated when a metal reacts with an acid? How will you test the presence of
this gas?
Answer. Hydrogen gas is formed. Bring a burning matchstick near to it, H2 will burn explosively
with ‘pop’ sound.
11. Name the metal which reacts with a very dilute HNO3 to evolve hydrogen gas.
Answer. Magnesium
12. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Answer.(i) Gold (ii) Silver
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13. What is the valency of silicon with atomic number 14?
Answer. Its valency is equal to 4.
16. Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity: Na, K, Cu, Ag.
Answer. K > Na > Cu > Ag
17. An element forms an oxide, A2O3 which is acidic in nature. Identify A as a metal or non-
metal.
Answer. ‘A’ is non-metal as non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
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18. A green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for a week in a
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bathroom. What could this green substance be ?
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Answer. It is due to the formation of basic copper carbonate [CuCO3.Cu(OH)2].
(i) a metal which is so soft that, it can be cut with knife and a non-metal which is the hardest
sustance.
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(i) Two metals which are alloyed with iron to make stainless steel.
(ii) Two metals which are used to make jewellary.
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Answer.
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(a) Sodium is preserved in kerosene. (b) Iodine is lustrous coloured non-metal.
(c) Gallium. (d) Lead.
23. Explain why calcium metal after reacting with water starts floating on its * surface. Write
the chemical equation for the reaction. Name one more metal
that starts floating after some time when immersed in water.
Answer. Calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the
surface of metal.
Magnesium reacts with hot water and starts floating due to the bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking
to its surface.
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(b) Ionic compounds can conduct electricity in molten state because ions ’ become free to move in
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molten state.
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25. Write two differences between calcination and roasting.
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Answer. SC
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26. The way, metals like sodium, magnesium and iron react with air and water is an indication
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of their relative positions in the ‘reactivity series’. Is this statement true ? Justify your
answer with examples.
Answer.Yes, sodium reacts explosively even with cold water, it is most reactive. Magnesium
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reacts with hot water, it is less reactive than Na. Iron reacts only with steam which shows it is
least reactive among the three.
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Out of the two elements, ‘X’ and ‘Y’, which is more reactive and why?
Answer. ‘X’ is more reactive than ‘Y’ because it displaces ‘Y’ from its salt solution.
28. What is an alloy? State the constituents of solder. Which property of solder makes it
suitable for welding electrical wires?
Answer. Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals. One of them can be a non-metal
also. Solder consists of lead and tin. It has low melting point which makes it suitable for welding
electrical wires.
29. When a metal X is treated with cold water, it gives a base Y with molecular formula XOH
(Molecular mass = 40) and liberates a gas Z which easily catches fire. Identify X, Y and Z.
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Answer.
30. Using the electronic configurations, explain how magnesium atom combines
with oxygen atom to form magnesium oxide by transfer of electrons.
Answer.
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31. (a) Give two methods to prevent the rusting of iron.
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(b) Name the ores of the following metals:
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(i) mercury, and
(ii) zinc
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Answer.
(a)(i) Painting (ii) Galvanisation
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32. Write chemical equations that shows aluminium oxide reacts with acid as well as base.
Answer.
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33. Elements magnesium and oxygen respectively belong to group 2 and group 16 of the
Modern Periodic Table. If the atomic numbers of magnesium and oxygen are 12 and 8
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respectively, draw their electronic configurations and show the process of formation of their
compound by transfer of electrons.
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Answer.
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Mg(12)=2,8,2
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS[II] [3 MARKS]
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34. State three reasons for the following facts
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(i) Sulphur is a non-metal
(ii)Magnesium is a metal
One of the reasons must be supported with a chemical equation.
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Answer.
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35. What is cinnabar? How is metal extracted from cinnabar? Explain briefly.
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Mercury is obtained by roasting cinnabar. HgO formed is thermally unstable and gives mercury.
36. (a) Write the electron dot structures for potassium and chlorine.
(b) Show the formation of KCl by the transfer of electrons.
(c) Name the ions present in the compound, KCl.
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Answer.
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38. You are given samples of three metals. Sodium, magnesium and copper. Suggest any two
activities to arrange them in order of decreasing activity.
Answer. Activity 1: Sodium reacts with cold water vigorously to form sodium hydroxide
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Magnesium does not react with cold water but with hot water to form magnesium ! hydroxide and
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hydrogen gas.
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39. You are provided with magnesium ribbon and sulpher powder. Explain with the help of an
activity that metal oxides are basic and non-metal oxide are acidic in nature.
Answer.
Aim: To test the nature of oxides formed by metals and non-metals. Materials Required: Sulphur
powder, Mg ribbon, water, blue litmus paper, red litmus paper.
Procedure:
1.Take magnesium ribbon with a pair of tongs and
burn it in flame in the presence of air.
2.Collect the product formed and dissolve it in warm water.
3.Add red litmus paper into it.
4.Observe the change in colour and decide the nature of the oxide formed.
5.Burn sulphur in a deflagrating spoon in the presence of air and dissolve the oxide formed in
water.
6.Dip blue litmus paper into the solution and observe the changein the colour and decide the
nature of the oxide formed.
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Observation: The oxide formed by metal turns red litmus blue whereas oxide of non-metal turns
blue litmus red.
Chemical Reaction:
Conclusion: Most of the metallic oxides are basic in nature whereas most of the non-metallic
oxides are acidic in nature.
40. (a) Explain the formation of ionic compound CaO with electron dot structure. Atomic
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number of calcium and oxygen are 20 and 8 respectively.
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(b) Name the constituent metals of bronze.
Answer.
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41. A metal ‘X’ acquires a green colour coating on its surface on exposure to air.
(i) Identify the metal ‘X’ and name the process responsible for this change.
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(ii)Name and write chemical formula of the green coating formed on the metal.
(iii) List two important methods to prevent the process.
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Answer.
(i) Metal is copper. The process is corrosion.
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43. Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions:
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(c) Carbon dioxide is passed through lime water.
Answer.
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44. (a) Show the formation of Na2O by the transfer of electrons between the combining atoms.
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(b) Why are ionic compounds usually hard?
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(c) How is it that ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity but they do so
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when in molten state?
Answer.
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45. (a) Show on a diagram the transfer of electrons between the atoms in the formation of
MgO. Write symbols of cation and anion present in MgO.
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(b) Name the solvent in which ionic compounds are generally soluble.
(c) Why are aqueous solutions of ionic compounds able to conduct electricity?
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Answer.
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46. What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from amongst the following
oxides:
Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O
Answer.Those oxides which reacts with acids as well as bases to produce salts and water are
called amphoteric oxides, e.g. Na2O, ZnO, are amphoteric oxides among given oxides.
47. An ore on heating in air produces sulphur dioxide. Which process would you suggest for its
concentration? Describe briefly any two steps involved in the conversion of this
concentrated ore into related metal.
Answer. It is concentrated by froth-floatation process.
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(i) Roasting: The concentrated sulphide ore is heated strongly in the presence of oxygen to
convert it into its oxide.
(ii)Reduction : This oxide of metal is reduced with suitable reducing agent to get free metal.
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(i) The shining surface of some metals becomes dull when exposed to air for a long time.
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(ii) Zinc fails to evolve hydrogen gas on reacting with dilute nitric acid.
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(iii) Metal sulphides occur mainly in rocks but metal halides occur mostly in sea and lake
waters.
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Answer.
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(i) It is because metal reacts with substances present in atmosphere to form surface compounds
which make it dull.
(ii) It is because dil. HNO3 is an oxidising agent therefore zinc gives NO and not H2 with dil.
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HNO3.
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(iii) It is because sea water contains sodium chloride due to which metal halides are formed,
whereas sulphur is found below rocks. Therefore, metal – sulphides are formed in rocks.
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(iii) Sulphide ore of a metal is first converted to its oxide to extract the metal from it.
Answer.
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(i) It is because rubber is an insulator and does not allow current to flow through it.
(ii) Zinc is more reactive than hydrogen. Therefore, it can displace hydrogen from dilute HCl
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51. (a) Write electron dot diagram for chlorine (At No. 17) and calcium (At No. 20).
Show the formation of calcium chloride by transfer of electrons.
(b) Identify the nature of above compound’and explain three physical properties of such
compound. Answer.
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(b) It is ionic compound.
Physical properties
1.It is hard and solid.
2.It has high melting and boiling point.
3.It soluble in water.
52. (a) Define activity series of metals. Arrange the metals gold, copper, iron and magnesium in
order of their increase in reactivity.
(b) What will you observe when:
(i) Some zinc pieces are put in copper sulphate solution.
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(ii) Some silver pieces are put into green coloured ferrous sulphate solution.
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Answer.
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(a) The series of metals in which metals are arranged in decreasing order of their reactivity.
Au < Cu < Fe < Mg is increasing order of reactivity.
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(b) (i) The blue solution will become colourless and reddish brown copper metal will be
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deposited.
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Reaction will not take place because Ag’ is less reactive than iron.
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53. (a) In the formation of compound between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons and B
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(c) Common salt conducts electricity only in the molten state. Why?
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54. Write the names and symbols of two most reactive metals. Explain by drawing electronic
structure how any one of the two metals react with a halogen. State any four physical
properties of the compound formed.
Answer. K(Potassium) and Na(Sodium) are the two most reactive metals. K’ and Na‘ are
electronic structures as they have one valence electron.
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where ‘F’ is a halogen.
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(iii) Aluminium is more reactive than iron yet there is less corrosion of aluminium as
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compared to iron when both are exposed to air.
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Answer.
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(i) These metals get corroded. Silver forms black Ag2S (silver sulphide) and copper form greenish
layer of basic copper carbonate CuCO3. Cu(OH)2 .
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(ii) Tamarind contains acid which reacts with basic copper carbonate and product gets dissolved
and removed from copper vessel.
(in) Aluminium forms oxide layer on its surface which does not further react with air.
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56. (a) Write the electron dot structures of sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
(b) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by transfer of electrons. Name the ions present in
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these compound.
(c) List three properties of ionic compounds.
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Answer.
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57. A metal (E) is stored under kerosene. When a small piece of it is left open in the air, it
catches fire. When the product formed is dissolved in water, it turns red litmus to blue.
(i) Name the metal (E).
(ii)Write the chemical equation for the reaction when it is exposed to air and when the
product is dissolved in water.
(iii) Explain the process by which the metal is obtained from its molten chloride.
Answer.
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(i) ‘E’ is sodium which catches fire in presence of moisture.
(iii) Electrolytic reduction: Electric current is passed through molten NaCl. Sodium is formed at
cathode and chlorine gas is liberated at anode.
58. (a) How can the metals at the top of the reactivity series be extracted from their ores?
Explain with an example.
(b) Name any one alloy made from
(i) a metal and a non-metal, and
(ii) two metals.
Answer.
(a) These metals are extracted by electrolytic reduction, e.g. aluminium is obtained from bauxite
by electrolytic reduction.
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(b) (i) Steel is made up of iron and carbon.
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(ii) Brass is made up of copper and zinc.
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59. With the help of a suitable example, explain how ionic compounds are formed. State any
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three general properties of ionic compounds. SC
Answer.Ionic compounds are formed by transfer of electrons from metal to non-metals, e.g.
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General Properties:
(i) They are the solids having high melting point.
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60. (a) Explain with an example how the metal (X) which is low in reactivity series and metal
(Y) which is high in the reactivity series are obtained from their compounds by reduction
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process.
(b) Write the electronic configurations of sodium and chlorine. Show the formation of
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(c) List any two observations when a highly reactive metal is dropped in water.
Answer.
(a) ‘X’ is obtained by chemical reduction.
‘Y’ is obtained by electrolytic reduction.
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(b) Give reason to justify that aluminium oxide is an amphoteric oxide. Also, give another
example of amphoteric oxide.
(c) Mention constituent metals present in bronze.
Answer. (a) ‘X’ is ‘Al’
(b) AI2O3 reacts with acid as well as base therefore it is amphoteric oxide.
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Include in the chemical equation about physical states of the reactants and products, need of
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heating for starting the reaction and the reaction being exothermic.
(ii) Name two types of chemical reactions to which this reaction can belong.
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Answer.
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(i) ‘A’ is aluminum, ‘B’ is ferric oxide [Iron(III) oxide],
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(ii)This reaction is displacement reaction because AT is displacing ‘Fe’. It is also a redox reaction
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63. (a) Distinguish between ionic and covalent compounds under the following properties:
(i) Strength of forces between constituent elements.
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process:
(i) Metal M which is in the middle of the reactivity series.
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Answer.
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(b) (i) Metal M which is in the middle of the reactivity series is reduced by aluminium, e.g.
3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) ——–> 2Al2O3(s) + 3Mn(l)
(ii) Metal N will be obtained by electrolytic reduction, e.g. A1 is obtained by electrolytic
reduction.
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1. Which of the following can be beaten into thin sheets?
(a) Zinc (b) Phosphorus (c) Sulphur (d) Oxygen
5. Arun has learnt that non-metals on beating with a hammer are generally broken into pieces.
Which of the following is a nonmetal?
(a) iron nail (b) aluminium wire (c) copper plate (d) piece of coal
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6. Materials which can be drawn into wires are called ductile. Which of the following is not a ductile
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material?
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(a) silver (b) copper (c) sulphur (d) aluminium
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7. Metals are generally hard. Which of the following metals is an exception and can be cut with a
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knife?
(a) iron (b) sodium (c) gold (d) magnesium
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8. Metals are generally solid. Which of the following metals is in the liquid state at room
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temperature?
(a) mercury (b) silver (c) aluminium (d) sodium
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9. Metals generally react with dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas. Which one of the following
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11. The metal which produces hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid as well as
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12. Which of the following non-metals reacts and catches fire on exposure to air?
(a) phosphorus (b) nitrogen (c) sulphur (d) hydrogen
13. Generally metallic oxides are basic and non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature. Solution of
which of the following oxides in water will change the colour of blue litmus to red?
(a) sulphur dioxide (b) magnesium oxide (c) iron oxide (d) copper oxide
14. Which of the following property is not responsible for copper to be used as electrical conduction
wires?
(a) ductility (b) colour
(c) good conductor of electricity (d) it is solid
16. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of
aluminium are responsible for the same?
(i) Good thermal conductivity (ii) Good electrical conductivity
(iii) Ductility (iv) High melting point
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
18. Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water?
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Fe
19. Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with
steam?
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(a) FeO (b) Fe2O3 (c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
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20. What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(i) It does not react with water
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(ii) It reacts violently with water
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(iii) It reacts less violently with water
(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
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21. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids
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does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?
(a) H2SO4 (b) HCl (c) HNO3 (d) All of these
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23. Which one of the following properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
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24. Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature?
(i) Cu (ii) Au (iii) Zn (iv) Ag
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
25. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of
(a) Ag3N (b) Ag2O (c) Ag2S (d) Ag2S and Ag3N
26. Stainless steel is very useful material for our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
(a) Ni and Cr (b) Cu and Cr (c) Ni and Cu (d) Cu and Au
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27. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating.
It is due to the formation of
(a) CuSO4 (b) CuCO3 (c) Cu(NO3)2 (d) CuO
28. Generally, metals are solid in nature. Which one of the following metals is found in liquid state
at room temperature?
(a) Na (b) Fe (c) Cr (d) Hg
29. Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state ?
(i) Na (ii) Ca (iii) Fe (iv) Cu
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
30. Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the following nonmetal is lustrous?
(a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen (c) Nitrogen (d) Iodine
31. Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by
other three metals?
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(a) Mg (b) Ag (c) Zn (d) Cu
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32. 2 mL each of concentrated HCl, HNO3 and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated
HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of
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metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got
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dissolved in test tube C respectively. The metal could be
(a) Al (b) Au (c) Cu (d) Pt
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33. An alloy is
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35. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept
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open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following
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36. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
37. Which among the following alloys contain mercury as one of its constituents?
(a) Stainless steel (b) Alnico (c) Solder (d) Zinc amalgam
38. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which
of the following properties is not shown by Z?
(a) Has high melting point (b) Has low melting point
(c) Conducts electricity in molten state (d) Occurs as solid
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39. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8; Y — 2, 8, 7 and Z —
2, 8, 2. Which of the following is correct?
(a) X is a metal (b) Y is a metal
(c) Z is a non-metal (d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
40. Although metals form basic oxides, which of the following metals form an amphoteric oxide?
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Al (d) Cu
41. Generally, non-metals are not conductors of electricity. Which of the following is a good
conductor of electricity?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Sulphur (d) Fullerene
42. Electrical wires have a coating of an insulting material. The material, generally used is
(a) Sulphur (b) Graphite (c) PVC (d) All can be used
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44. Which of the following can undergo a chemical reaction?
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(a) MgSO4 + Fe (b) ZnSO4 + Fe (c) MgSO4 + Pb (d) CuSO4 + Fe
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CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 Mark]
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4. What is meant by a saturated hydrocarbon?
Answer. Those hydrocarbons in which valency of carbon is satisfied by single bonds only are
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called saturated hydrocarbons. SC
5. Name the compound formed when ethanol is warmed with ethanoic acid in the
presence of a few drops of cone.H2S04
Answer.
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Answer.
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9. Carbon has four electrons in its valence shell. How does carbon attain stable electronic
configuration.
Answers. By sharing four electrons with other atoms.
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10. State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to large
number of carbon compounds.
Answer. (i) Catenation (ii) Tetravalency of carbon
11. Write the structural formula of chloroethane.
Answer.
12. How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane (C2H6)?
Answer. There are 7 covalent bonds in a molecule of ethane.
13. Write the electron dot structure of ethene molecule (C2H4).
Answer.
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14. Write the electron dot structure of ethane molecule (C2H6).
Answer.
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Answer.
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17. Butanone is a four carbon per molecule compound. Name the functional group present in it.
Answer. Ketone
18. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
(i) C2H5CI
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(ii) C2H5OH
Answer. (i) (—Cl) Halogen (Chloro) (ii) (—OH) Alcohol
19. Name the functional group present in each of the following compounds:
(i) HCOOH
(ii) C2H5CHO
Answer.
(i) —COOH (Carboxylic acid)
(ii) —CHO (Aldehyde)
20. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
(i)CH3COCH3
(ii) C2H5COOH
Answer.
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21. Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having
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functional group —OH.
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Answer.
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22. Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having
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23. Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having
functional group —COOH.
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Answer.
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24. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of the series of carbon compounds whose
general formula is CnH2n+1OH
Answer. Ethanol, C2H5OH or CH3CH2OH
25. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of the series of carbon compounds whose
general formula is CnH2n.
Answer.
C3H6, H2C=CH—CH3
Propene is second member of series whose general formula is CnH2n.
26. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
(b) (i) Name the products formed when ethanol burns in air. ‘
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(ii) What two forms of energy are liberated on burning alcohol?
(c) Why is the reaction between methane and chlorine considered a substitution
reaction?
Answer.
27. (a) Why are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of electricity?
(b) Name the following compound:
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(c) Name the gas evolved when ethanoic acid is added to sodium carbonate. How would you
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prove the presence of this gas?
Answer.
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28. Write the name and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed
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with ‘-ol and having two carbon atoms in the molecule. With the help of a
balanced chemical equation indicate what happens when it is heated with excess of r
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cone.H2S04.
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Answer.
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30. Write the names and molecular formula of two organic compounds having functional r
group suffixed as ‘-oic acid’. With the help of a balanced chemical equation and explain
what happens when any one of them reacts with sodium hydroxide.
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Answer.
31. Atom of an element contains five electrons in its valence shell. This element is major
component of air. It exists as a diatomic molecule.
(i) Identify the element.
(ii) Show the bond formed between two atoms of this element.
(iii) Write the nature of the bond between the two atoms.
Answer.
(i) Nitrogen.
(ii)
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(iii) Covalent bond.
32. What is a homologous series? Which two of the following organic compounds belong to the
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same homologous?
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CH3 ,C2H6, C2H6O, C2H6O2,CH4O
Answer. Homologous series is a series of organic compounds which have same functional group
and similar chemical properties. Each member of this series is differ by —CH2— in its molecular
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33. What is meant by a functional group in an organic compound? Name the functional group
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present in
(i) CH3CH2OH
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(ii) CH3COOH
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Answer.
Functional group is an atom or group of atoms or reactive part of compound, which determines
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35. What are isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane, C4H10. Why can’t we have
isomers of first three members of alkane series?
Answer. Those compounds, which have same molecular formula but different structural formulae
are called isomers.
In first three members of alkane series, branching is not possible. Therefore, we cannot have
isomers.
36. An organic compound ‘A’ is an essential constituent of wine and beer. Oxidation of ‘A’
yields an organic acid ‘B’ which is present in vinegar. Name the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ and
write their structural formula. What happens when ‘A’ and ‘B’ react in the presence of an
acid catalyst? Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer.
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37. Define homologous series of organic compounds. List its two characteristics. Write the name
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Each member differs from successive member by —CH2— group. The difference in molecular
weight between two successive members is 14 u.
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Characteristics:
(i) It has same general formula, from which, all members can be derived.
(ii) They have similar chemical properties.
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38. Why homologous series of carbon compounds are so called? Write chemical formula of two
consecutive members of a homologous series and state the part of these compounds that
determines their
(i) physical properties, and (ii) chemical properties.
Answer. The series consists of members of same family with similar physical and chemical
properties, therefore, called homologous series
(i) CH3OH, and (ii) CH3CH2OH are two consecutive members of homologous series.
Alkyl group —CH3 and —CH3CH2 part determines physical properties. Functional group —OH
determines chemical properties of the compounds.
39. (a) State two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds.
(b) Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Why are micelles
not formed when soap is added to ethanol?
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Answer.
(a) (i)-Catenation (ii) Tetravalency
(b) It is because large number of molecular ions of soaps get aggregated and form colloidal
solution. Soap has hydrophobic tail (hydrocarbon) which dissolves in hydrocarbon part and
hydrophilic part dissolves in water. Ethanol is non-polar solvent therefore micelles are not formed
because hydrocarbon part gets attracted towards ethanol and ionic end will not dissolve in
alcohol.
40. Explain isomerism. State any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the structures of
possible isomers of butane, C4H10
Answer. Isomerism is a phenomenon due to which some compounds have same molecular
formula but different structural formulae.
Characteristics:
(i) They differ in structural formula.
(ii) They differ in melting point.
(iii) They differ in boiling point.
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(iv) They differ in solubility in same solvent.
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(v)Kerosene does not decolourise bromine water while cooking oils do.
Answer.
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(i) It is because carbon has four valence electrons, it cannot gain or lose four electrons because
high energy is needed. It can only share four electrons.
(ii) It is due to strong covalent bonds and compact structure of diamond.
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(iii) It is due to presence of free electrons in graphite because each carbon is linked to three more
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carbon atoms.
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(iv) It is due to high percentage of carbon, it burns with sooty or smoky flame.
(v) Kerosene oil is mixture of saturated hydrocarbons therefore does not decolourise bromine
water.
42. What are the hydrocarbons? Write the name and general formula of (i) saturated
hydrocarbons, (ii) unsaturated hydrocarbons, and draw the structure of one hydrocarbon of
each type. How can an unsaturated hydrocarbon be made saturated?
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Answer.
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i) Cyclohexane.
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ii) Benzene.
iii) Butane
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iv) isobutene
2. The bond between two identical non metallic atom has a pair of electron ?
i) un equally shared between two atoms.
ii) Transferred completely from one atom to another.
iii) With identical spins
iv) Unequally shared between them.
6. Which of the following represents the correct decreasing order of hydrogen atoms ?
i)alkanes , alkenes , alkynes
ii)alkanes , alkaynes , alkenes
iii)alkenes , alkynes , alkanes
iv)alkynes , alkanes , alkenes
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i) N≡ N
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ii) N = N
iii) N - N
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iv) None of the above
iii) 6 electrons
iv) 3 electrons
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10. The total no. of electrons that take part in forming a bond in N2 is
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i) 2
N
ii) 4
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iii) 6
iv) 10
12. Which of the following salt when dissolved in water produce hard water.
i) calcium sulphate
ii) magnesium bicarbonate
iii) calcium chloride
iv) any of the above
14. The bond between two identical nonmetallic atom has a pair of electron ?
i) unequally shared between two atoms
ii) transferred completely from one atom to another
iii) With identical spins
iv) Equally shared between them
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O
16. Propane with molecular formula C3H8 has –
i) 7 covalent bonds
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ii) 8 covalent bonds
H
iii) 9 covalent bonds
iv) 10 covalent bonds
SC
17. A hydrocarbon reacts with ammonical cuprous chloride solution to form a red precipitate, the
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hydrocarbon is –
i) Ethane
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ii) ethane
iii) butane
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iv) 1-propyne
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i) fluorine
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ii) fullerene
iii) diamond
iv) graphite
20. Which of the following represents the correct deceasing order of hydrogen atoms ?
i) alkanes, alkenes, alkynes
ii) alkanes, alkynes, alkenes
iii) alkenes, alkynes, alkanes
iv) alkynes, alkanes, alkenes
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22. In double covalent bond there is a sharing of
i) 2 electrons
ii) 4 electrons
iii) 6 electrons
iv) 3 electrons
24. The total number of electrons that take part in forming a bond in N2 is
i) 2
ii) 4
iii) 6
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iv) 10
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25. Which of the following has the weakest carbon-carbon strength ?
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i) C2H2
H
ii) C2H4
iii) C2H6
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iv) all have the same bond strength
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ii) esters
iii) dilute carboxylic acids
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27. Out of the following which one is used as preservative for pickle and sauces:-
i) esters ii) acetone
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29. Which of the following statements are usually correct for carbon compounds? These
(i) are good conductors of electricity
(ii) are poor conductors of electricity
(iii) have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(iv) do not have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
32. Which of the following is the correct representation of electron dot structure of nitrogen?
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O
33. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an
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example of
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(a) Addition reaction
(b) Substitution reaction
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(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Oxidation reaction
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37. Identify the unsaturated compounds from the following
(i) Propane
(ii) Propene
(iii) Propyne
(iv) Chloropropane
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(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
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(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
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38. Chlorine reacts with saturated hydrocarbons at room temperature in the
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(a) absence of sunlight SC
(b) presence of sunlight
(c) presence of water
(d) presence of hydrochloric acid
D
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42. The correct electron dot structure of a water molecule is
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O
O
H
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44. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms,
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e.g. hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic configuration of
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45. Which of the following does not belong to the same homologous series?
(a) CH4 (b) C2H6 (c) C3H8 (d) C4H8
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(i) oxygen
(ii) carbon
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(iii) hydrogen
(iv) chlorine
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
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LIFE PROCESSES
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 MARK]
3. Name one accessory pigment and one essential pigment in photosynthetic plants.
Answer. Accessory pigment – Carotene/Xanthophyll
Essential pigment – Chlorophyll
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Answer. Holozoic nutrition.
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5. Mention the raw materials required for photosynthesis.
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Answer. The following raw materials are required for photosynthesis:
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(i) Carbon Dioxide: Plants get CO2 from atmosphere through stomata.
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(ii)Water: Plants absorb water from soil through roots and transport to leaves.
(iii) Sunlight: Sunlight, which is absorbed by the chlorophyll and other green parts of the plant.
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Answer.The deficiency of hemoglobin in our body is called anemia. In anemia, the blood is
unable to carry the sufficient amount of oxygen required by the body. So, respiration would be
less and less energy will be available to the body. The hemoglobin deficient person will feel
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weak, pale, lethargic and will be unable to perform heavy physical work.
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7. Name the green dot like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf peel was
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viewed under a microscope are chloroplasts. The green colour is due to the presence of green
pigment, chlorophyll.
N
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8. State any one difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
Answer. In autotrophic nutrition, organisms obtain their food from inorganic substances. In
heterotrophic nutrition, organisms derive their food from organic substances.
9. Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of gases
between their body and their environment. :
Answer. In unicellular organisms the entire body of the organism is in contact with the
environment hence exchange of materials can take place but, in multicellular organisms the entire
body of the organism is not in contact with the environment and hence simple diffusion is not
helpful.
10. Name the process in plants where water is lost as water vapour. :
Answer. Transpiration is the process when plants loose water as vapour.
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11. What is‘translocation’in plants?
Answer. Translocation is the movement of soluble materials, products of photosynthesis from
leaves to other tissues throughout the plant.
12. State the basic difference between the process of respiration and photosynthesis.
Answer. Respiration uses O2 and releases CO2 but in photosynthesis, CO2 is used and O2 is
released.
13. Name the intermediate and the end products of glucose breakdown in aerobic respiration.
Answer.
14. Mention two structural features of small intestine which add to the absorptive capacity.
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15. In the experiment “Light is essential for photosynthesis”, why does the uncovered part of
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the leaf turn blue-black after putting iodine solution?
Answer. Starch is produced in the uncovered part of the leaf because it is exposed to sunlight
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allowing it to photosynthesize, which turns blue-black in presence of iodine solution.
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SC
16. Name the component of blood that helps in the formation of blood clot in the event of a cut.
Answer. Platelets help in clotting of blood in the event of a cut.
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17. Mention how organisms like bread moulds and mushrooms obtain their food.
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Answer. Organisms like bread moulds and mushrooms breakdown the food materials outside the
body and then absorb the nutrients of the bread.
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18. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with regard to
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in air. Thus, terrestrial organism has to make less efforts to obtain oxygen than an aquatic
organism to obtain oxygen for respiration.
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19. Name the two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms.
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Answer. The two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms are
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aerobic respiration pathway which uses oxygen to break-down glucose completely into carbon
dioxide and water and some use other pathways that do not involve oxygen which is called
anaerobic respiration pathway.
20. Specify two conditions in which photo-respiration may take place in green plants.
Answer. Two conditions in which photorespiration may take place in green plants are: (i) High
concentration of oxygen and (ii) High temperature
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Veins: Veins carry deoxygenated blood, towards the heart except pulmonary veins. These are
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thin-walled. Valves are present which provide unidirectional flow of blood.
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Blood in veins moves under very low pressure.
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25. How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
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Answer.Alveoli are small pouches or sacs like structure. They are surrounded by blood
capillaries. Thus a large amount of air is brought in contact with the air in the lungs. More than
millions of alveoli are present in the lungs. The presence of millions of alveoli in the lungs
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provides a very large surface area for the exchange of gases. The availability of large surface area
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26. Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood.
Answer. Exchange of respiratory gases, i.e. oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs between the blood
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and tissues.
In tissues, oxygen is used up for their activities and carbon dioxide is released. The blood from
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lungs has high concentration of oxygen and low concentration of carbon dioxide. Due to this,
difference in concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide, the exchange of gases takes place
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Answer. Blood Clotting: It is the mechanism that prevents the loss of blood at the site of an injury
or wound by forming a ‘blood clot’. The blood has platelet cells which circulate around the body
and plug these leaks by helping to clot the blood at these points of injury to prevent it from
excessive bleeding.
28. Why are white blood corpuscles called ‘soldiers’ of the body?
Answer. White blood corpuscles can fight with the disease germs present in the body carried by
blood and help to maintain a healthy body. So, they are called as ‘soldiers’ of the body.
29. Which part of the human heart is considered as pace-maker? Why is it so called?
Answer. Sino-atrial node of the human heart is considered as pacemaker. Sino-atrial node is also
called as pacemaker because it determines the rate of heartbeat by determining the rate of
discharge of cardiac impulse.
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30. Which enzyme initiates the digestion of proteins ? Name the other enzyme produced by the
same gland.
Answer. The enzyme gastric pepsin initiates the digestion of proteins. The other enzyme
produced by the stomach is gastric lipase.
31. Name the first digestive organ that is associated with the breakdown of proteins in humans.
What are its three releases?
Answer. The first digestive organ in humans is the stomach. It releases proteolytic enzymes, HCl
and mucus.
32. Name two excretory products other than 02 and CO2 in plants.
Answer. The two excretory products other than 02 and CO2 in plants are resins and gums.
33. Why do the walls of the trachea not collapse’when there is less air in it?
Answer. Rings of cartilages are present in trachea. These rings support the trachea and do not
allow the trachea to collapse when there is less air in it.
34. What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of our digestive system and write its function.
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Answer. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Catalysts are proteins that increase the rate of
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chemical reactions
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without being used up. For example: Amylase catalyses the breakdown of starch into sugars in the
mouth and small intestine
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SC
35. (i) Write the balanced chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis,
(ii) When do the desert plants take up carbon dioxide and perform photosynthesis ?
Answer.
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(i) Photosynthesis can be represented using a chemical equation. The overall balanced equation is
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(ii) Desert plants open up their stomata during night and take in CO2. Stomata remains close
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during the day time to prevent the loss of water by i transpiration. They store the CO2 in their
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cells until the sun comes out and they can carry on with photosynthesis during the day time.
36. Why there is no mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood in the human heart
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normally?
Answer. There is no mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated bloods in human heart due to the
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presence of inter-ventricular septum. This septa completely divides the ventricle into right and left
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37. Why are the walls of ventricles thicker than the auricles ?
Answer. The walls of ventricles are thicker than the auricles because ventricles have to pump the
blood to all the parts of the body during their contraction. To counteract the backward pressure
exerted by the blood, the walls of the ventricles have to be thicker otherwise it may lead to
bursting of heart.
38. Why do herbivores have longer, small intestine than carnivores ?
Answer.Digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Hence, herbivores eating grass need a longer
small intestine to allow complete digestion of cellulose. Carnivorous animals cannot digest
cellulose due to the absence of enzyme CELLULASE, hence they have a shorter intestine.
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40. How would digestion of food be affected if the bile duct is completely blocked? Explain.
Answer. If the bile duct is completely blocked, bile juice will not reach the small intestine and the
digestion of fats will be affected.
41. How would it affect the digestion of proteins and carbohydrates in the duodenum of man if
there is a blockage in the pancreatic duct? Explain.
Answer. If there is a blockage in the pancreatic duct, the pancreatic juice which contains enzymes
for the digestion of carbohydrates and proteins will not reach the small intestine.
42. How is carbon dioxide obtained by (a) aquatic plants and (b) terrestrial plants ?
Answer. (a) Aquatic plants take up carbon dioxide dissolved in water.
(b) Terrestrial plants use carbon dioxide present in air.
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O
O
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SC
D
RL
44. Write correct sequence of four steps of method for the preparation of temporary mount of a
stained leaf peel.
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Answer.
Take a healthy leaf from the potted plant.
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Remove a part of the peel from the lower surface of the leaf. You can do this by folding the
leaf over and gently pulling the peel apart using forceps. Keeps the peel in a watch glass
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containing water.
Put a few drops of safranin stain in a watch glass.
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After 2-3 minutes take out the peel and place it on a clean glass slide.
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Put a drop of glycerin over the peel and place a clean covers lip gently over it with the help of
a needle.
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Remove the excess stain and glycerin with the help of blotting paper.
Observe the slide under magnifications of the compound microscope.
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46. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidneys, ureters on it.
Answer.
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47. Name the acid presents in the following:
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(i) Tomato (ii) Vinegar (iii) Tamarind
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Answer. SC
(i) Oxalic acid (ii) citric acid (iii) Tartaric acid.
(i) Digestive enzymes – Foods need to be broken into their small or simpler
molecules so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream. However, the physical breakdown of
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food is not enough. Enzymes are hence needed for the chemical breakdown of food and speeding
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up the digestive process. The products of digestion can hence be small enough to be absorbed.
(ii) Hydrochloric acid – Hydro chloric acid helps to kill the germs which might have entered in to
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the system through food. It creates acidic medium for the pepsin to act on food to breakdown
proteins.
(iii) Villi – Villi are finger like projections in the small intestine. They help to increase the surface
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area for absorption of the digested food. Villi are richly supplied with blood vessel which help to
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49. In mammals and birds why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood?
Answer. Mammals and birds are warm blooded animals. This means they can control their body
temperature and do not have to depend on environment for their body temperature regulation.
Because of this birds and mammals require optimum oxidization of glucose which would be
possible with good supply of oxygen. So it is required to have separate oxygenated and de-
oxygenated blood to supply the required amount of oxygen.
50. Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of human beings and label on it:
(i) Left kidney (ii) Urinary bladder
Answer.
Refer Q. No. 46
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51. Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label on it :
(i) Diaphragm (ii) Larynx
Answer.
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i.
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52. (a) Name the site of exchange of material between the blood and surrounding cells. (b) Draw
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a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in
human body.
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Answer.
(a) Capillaries
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(b)
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D
N
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53. List three characteristics of lungs which make it an efficient respiratory surface.
Answer. These features which particularly make our lungs efficient for gas exchange.
1.Thin: the air sac walls are very thin so that gases can quickly diffuse through them. Oxygen is
absorbed in to the blood and carbon dioxide is given out in to the lungs to be exhaled out.
2.Moist: the air sacs are moist with mucus so that gases can dissolve before diffusing.
3.Large surface area: the surface area for gases to diffuse through in human lungs is roughly the
same as a tennis court. The alveoli help to increase the surface area for absorption of oxygen.
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4.Good blood supply: the air sacs or the alveoli have a large capillary network so that large
volumes of gases can be exchanged. More the flow of blood more exchange.
55. List in tabular form three differences between arteries and veins.
Answer.
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O
O
H
SC
D
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56. In human alimentary canal, name the site of complete digestion of various components of
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Mouth: Digestion of food begins in the mouth. Saliva present in mouth contains a digestive
enzyme, called salivary amylase, maltose and dextrins, which breaks down starch into sugar.
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Stomach: Stomach stores and mixes the food received from the oesophagus with gastric juices.
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The main components of gastric juice are hydrochloric acid, mucus and pepsinogen. Hydrochloric
acid dissolves bits of food and creates an acidic medium. In this medium, pepsinogen is converted
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to pepsin which is a protein-digesting enzyme. Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach
from the action of HC1.
Small Intestine: Small intestine is the site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and
fats. Small intestine produces intestinal juice from the glands present in its wall. The intestinal
juice helps in further digestion of food. Small intestine also obtains digestive juices from liver and
pancreas. The liver produces bile juice that causes emulsification of fats and the pancreas
produces pancreatic juice for digesting proteins and emulsified fats. This digested food is finally
absorbed through the intestinal walls.
57. List the three kinds of blood vessels of human circulatory system and write ¦ their functions
in tabular form.
Answer. Three types of blood vessels in human circulatory system are: Arteries, Veins and
Capillaries.
Their functions are tabulated below:
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58. (a) “The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange of gases is a continuous process”.
Justify this statement.
(b) What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory system develops a leak? State in brief,
how could this be avoided?
(c) How opening and closing of stomata takes place?
Answer. (a) The breathing cycle involves inhalation and exhalation of air due to alternate
expansion and contraction of thoracic cavity. Thus it is a rhythmic process. But exchange of gases
is a continuous process as it takes place between the blood and each and every cell, by diffusion.
(b) The circulatory system will become inefficient if it develops a leak. This could be avoided by
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maintaining a normal blood pressure.
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(c) When water flows into the guard cells, the guard cells swell and the stomatal pore opens up.
When water moves out the guard cells shrinks and the stomatal pore closes.
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59. Describe in brief the function of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.
Answer. The Kidneys filter the blood and concentrate the filtrate to make urine. They also help
SC
regulate blood pressure.
Ureters transport the urine to the urinary bladder.
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Urinary bladder is like a holding tank for the urine until it’s ready to be excreted. Urethra is the
tube that connects the urinary bladder to the outside of the body for excretion.
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60. Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell (ii) in the absence of oxygen.
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The first step in the breakdown of glucose both in presence of 02 and in absence of O2 is same. In
this step, glucose is broken down into pyruvate.
Second step which involves further breakdown of private into simple compounds can take place
in two different ways:
(a) In presence of O2: In the presence of 02, private is converted into C02 and water. Energy
released during aerobic respiration is much greater than that released during an anaerobic
respiration.
(b)In absence of O2: In the absence of 02 in yeast, pyruvate is converted into ethanol and C02 and
the process is called fermentation. In absence of 02, in our muscle cells, pyruvate is converted into
lactic acid. The build up of lactic acid in muscle cells causes cramps.
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61. Draw a diagram of the front view of human heart and label any six parts including at least
two, that are concerned with arterial blood supply to the heart muscles.
Answer.
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SC
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62. (a)Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems, roots
and leaves.
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Answer.
(a) In plants there are tiny pores called stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem which facilitate the
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exchange of gases. Carbon dioxide is taken in and oxygen given out {during photosynthesis} and
vice versa during respiration.
(b) Water and minerals are transported within the plant by the Xylem vessels (mainly in an
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upward direction); these are part of the vascular system which also includes Phloem vessels.
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Phloem transports the products of photosynthesis within the plant, to all parts like the stem, roots,
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63. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label renal artery and urethra.
State in brief the function of :
1. renal artery
2. kidney
3. ureter
4. urinary bladder
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Answer.
Renal artery: The renal artery carries blood to the kidneys from the abdominal aorta. This blood
comes directly from the heart and is sent to the-kidneys to be filtered before it passes through the
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rest of the body. Up to one-third of the total cardiac output per heartbeat is sent to the renal
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arteries to be filtered by the kidneys. Each kidney has one renal artery that supplies it with blood.
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The filtered blood then can exit the renal vein.
Kidney: The kidneys perform the essential function of removing waste products from the blood
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and regulating the water fluid levels. The kidneys regulate the body’s fluid volume, mineral
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composition and acidity by excreting and reabsorbing water and inorganic electrolytes.
Ureter: The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.’ There are
two ureters, one attached to each kidney.
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Urinary bladder: The urinary bladder is an expandable muscular sac that stores urine before it is
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Answer.(a)
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these stomata, the plant closes these pores when it does not require carbon dioxide for
photosynthesis.
65. (a) Draw a diagram of excretory system in human beings and label the following parts.
Aorta, kidney, urinary bladder and urethra.
(b) How is urine produced and eliminated ?
Answer.(a) Refer Figure in Q. 63
(b) Blood from the heart comes into the kidneys afferent and efferent arteriols from the renal
arteries where it enters about 2-3 million nephrons per kidney. Then, it goes through the
glomerulus a tugt or bunch of blood capillaries and get rid of some of the unwanted substances
like urea, uric acid, creatinine in the blood and then continues through the renal tubules. The loop
of Henley, reabsorb certain substances such as water (actually if body is dehydrated, body will
send anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) to kidneys to prevent extra water from going into urine and
thus saving water for body and get rid of anything else that isn’t wanted, then the urine goes
through ureters to bladder and then to urethra where it is excreted out of body as urine.
66. (a) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label the following:
(i) part where air is filtered by fine hair and mucus
(ii) part which terminates in balloon – like structures
(iii) balloon – like structures where exchange of gases takes place. (iv) part which separates
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chest cavity from abdominal cavity.
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(b) Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
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organisms?
Answer.(a)
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(b) Quantity of dissolved oxygen is fairly low in water as compared to the amount of oxygen in
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air. Aquatic organisms therefore have to breath faster than terrestrial organisms to absorb the
required amount of oxygen from the water.
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67. Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of human beings and label the following:
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(i) Kidney
(ii) Ureter
(iii) Urinary Bladder
(iv) Urethra
Answer. Refer Figure in Q. 63
68. (a) Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide during transportation of blood in human beings and label on it:
Lung capillaries, Pulmonary artery to lungs, Aorta to body, Pulmonary veins from lungs.
(b) What is the advantage of separate channels in mammals and birds for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood?
Answer.(a) A schematic representation of transportation and exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide during transportation of blood in human beings
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(b) It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds because
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they need high energy and large amount of oxygen. The separation of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood provides high oxygen supply to the organs.
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69. (a) Draw a diagram depicting Human Alimentary Canal and label on it: Gall bladder, Liver
SC
and Pancreas.
(b) State the roles of Liver and Pancreas.
(c) Name the organ which performs the following functions in humans:
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(b) Liver: It synthesize and store bile juice secreted by gall bladder which breaks down fats into
fat globules. Pancreas: It secretes pancreatic juice which contains protein-digesting and starch-
digesting enzymes.
(c) The organ which performs the following functions in humans are as follows:
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(i) Absorption of digested food – Small intestine.
(ii)Absorption of water – Large intestine.
70. (a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it – Aorta, Right ventricle and
Pulmonary veins.
(b) State the functions of the following components of transport system:
(i) Blood (ii) Lymph
Answer.(a)
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(i) Blood
Oxygen is transported by the blood to the tissues of the body for the breakdown of digested
food.
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It regulates the body temperature and maintains the pH of the body tissues.
It transports various hormones from one region to another and bring about the coordination.
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(b) (i) A large surface area over which exchange can take place.
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(ii) A concentration gradient without which nothing will diffuse.
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(iii) A thin surface across which gases diffuse.
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(iv) Warm conditions.
72. (a) Draw a diagram to show the nutrition in Amoeba and label the parts used for this
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purpose. Mention any other purpose served by this part other than nutrition.
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(b) Name the glands associated with digestion of starch in human digestive tract and
mention their role.
(c) How is required pH maintained in the stomach and small intestine?
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Answer.(a)
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Autotrophic nutrition Heterotrophic nutrition
(i) In this, the organisms make their food (i) In this, the organisms derive their food or
from carbon dioxide and water in the nutrients from other living organisms.
presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
(ii) All green plants are autotrophic and (ii) The energy is derived from the intake and
use light as a source of energy for digestion of the organic substances.
synthesis.
74. (a) List the three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis.
Explain the role of stomata in this process.
(b) Describe an experiment to show that “sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.”
Answer.
(a) The three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis are:
(i) Absorption of light energy by the green pigment chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and the splitting of water molecule into
hydrogen and oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrate.
Role of Stomata
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Stomata are tiny pores present on the surface of leaves. They are also present on the surface of
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young stems. Stomata are mainly engaged in the exchange of gases (entry of CO2 and release of
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O2 ) associated with photosynthesis. Plant closes the stomata when it does not need CO2 for
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photosynthesis.
(b) Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
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Procedure:
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(i) Place a healthy green potted plant in a dark room for 1-2 days. This is done to ensure
that the plant consumes all its reserve food and the leaves do not contain any starch.
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(ii) Then, cover a portion of a leaf of this plant on both sides with two uniform pieces of black
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(i) Sugar (iii) Hormone
Answer.(a) The process of taking in of oxygen from air in to the lungs and expulsion of carbon
dioxide out of the lungs is called breathing. The rate of breathing during vigorous exercise
increases by about 20 to 25 times per minute. It is because, during vigorous exercise the demand
for oxygen increases. Breathing occurs involuntarily but its rate is controlled by the respiratory
center of the brain.
(b) Translocation is the transport of food from the leaves to other parts of the plant and occurs in
the part of the vascular tissue known as phloem.
It is essential for plants because every part of the plant needs food for obtaining energy for
building its parts and maintaining its life.
(i) Sugar is synthesised in the leaves of the plant.
(ii) Hormones are synthesised at the tips of roots and stems of a plant.
76. (a) Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems, roots
and leaves.
(b) How are water and minerals transported in plants?
Answer. (a) In plants, there are tiny pores called stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem which
facilitate the exchange of gases. CO2 is taken in and O2 given out (during photosynthesis) and
vice-versa during respiration.
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(b) Mechanism of Transport of Water and Minerals in a Plant
O
• The vessels and tracheids of roots, stems and leaves in xylem tissue are interconnected to form a
O
continuous system of water-conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant.
• The cells of the roots in contact with the soil actively take up ions which creates a difference in
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the ion concentration between the root and the soil.
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• Thus, there is steady movement of water into root xylem from the soil, creating a column of
water that is pushed upwards.
• Plant uses another strategy to move water in the xylem upwards to the highest points of the plant
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body.
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• The water which is lost through the stomata is replaced by water from the xylem vessels in the
leaf.
O
• Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a suction which pulls water from
the xylem cells of roots.
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• This loss of water is transpiration which helps in the absorption and upward movement of water
and minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves.
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• Transpiration becomes the major driving force in movement of water in the xylem during the
day when the stomata are open.
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blanks.
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(b) Name the molecule in the cell which stores the energy produced at the end of the
pathway.
(c) Why do we get cramps during vigorous muscular activity?
Answer. (a) (1) Pyruvate (3 carbon molecules) (2) Energy (3) Presence of oxygen (4) In
Mitochondria (5) Carbon dioxide (6) Water
(b) ATP
(c) Lactic acid accumulation, in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration)cause cramps.
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78. (a) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following on it:
Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Renal artery, Collecting duct.
(b) What happens to glucose that enters the nephron along with filtrate?
Answer.(a)
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O
O
H
SC
D
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(b) During excretion in human beings, glucose which enters the nephron along with filtrate gets
reabsorbed by blood capillaries surrounding the nephron.
O
W
(a) Arteries carry blood away from the heart while veins carry blood towards heart.
(b) Veins carry blood away from the heart while arteries carry blood towards heart.
D
2. Artificial removal of nitrogenous wastes from the human body in the event of kidney failure is
(a) Plasmolysis
(b) Dialysis
(c) Diffusion
(d) Osmosis
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4. The parts shown as A and B in the given diagram are
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(b) respiration.
O
(c) excretion.
(d) transportation.
O
H
6. The xylem in plants are responsible for
(a) transport of water.
SC
(b) transport of food.
(c) transport of amino acids.
D
(b) chlorophyll.
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(c) sunlight.
(d) all of the above.
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8. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
(a) cytoplasm.
D
(b) mitochondria.
N
(c) chloroplast.
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(d) nucleus.
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12. The correct pathway of blood in circulatory system is
(a) atria → ventricles → arteries → veins
(b) ventricles → atria → veins → arteries
(c) ventricles → veins → arteries → atria
(d) veins → ventricles → atria → arteries
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15. When water enters the guard cells the stomata
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a) Opens
O
b) Closes
c) Open or closes
H
d) No effect
SC
16. Wastes concentrated in the tubules of Bowman’s capsule are called ____.
(a) salts.
D
(b) juices
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(c) urine
(d) amino acids
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17. On seeing good food our mouth waters. This fluid is actually
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a) Water
b) Hormone
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c) Enzyme
d) None of the above
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a) Nitric Acid
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b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Butyric acid
20. During cellular respiration one molecule of glucose is first broken down into two molecules of
________
a) Acetic acid b) Pyruvic acid
c) Lactic acid d) None of the above
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21. Rajib was absent in the class because of muscle pain which he claims to be due to excess physical
exercise he had done yesterday. This pain is due to
a) Formation of lactic acid
b) Formation of acetic acid
c) Formation of Pyruvic acid
d) Formation of Hydrochloric acid
23. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation and it occurs in the part
of the vascular tissue called
a) Xylem
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Phloem
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d) Collenchyma
O
O
24. In human each kidney has large numbers of filtration units called ___
a) Neutrons
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b) Neurons
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c) Neptune
d) Nephrons
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(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Skin Pigment
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(c) Vitamin
(d) Respiratory Pigment
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28. In which of the following groups of organisms, food material is broken down outside the body
and absorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
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29. Select the correct statement
(a) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food
(b) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis
(c) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food
(d) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates
31. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will
be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
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O
32. The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid. Choose
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the correct one
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus
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(c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile
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33. Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine
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34. A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour.
O
(d) starch
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36. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following
(a) trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d) trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
37. When air is blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water turned milky
due to the presence of
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water vapour
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38. The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is
Ethanol + Carbondioxide
Pyruvate mitochondria
(a) Glucose cytoplasm
(b) Glucose cytoplasm
Pyruvate cytoplasm
Lactic acid
Lactic acid
Pyruvate mitochondria
(c) Glucose cytoplasm
(d) Glucose cytoplasm
Pyruvate cytoplasm
Ethanol + Carbondioxide
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(i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
O
(ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into blood
and carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air
O
(iii) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
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(iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
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(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
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43. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart?
N
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium receives
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44. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
(a) Valves in heart
(b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria
(d) All of the above
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45. Single circulation i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage
through the body, is exhibited by
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
46. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to
different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
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from the heart to various organs of the body
O
(c) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to
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various organs of the body
(d) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and carry
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blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.
SC
48. The filtration units of kidneys are called
(a) ureter (b) urethra
D
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54. Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis
(a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
55. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon
(a) oxygen (b) temperature
(c) water in guard cells (d) concentration of CO2 in stomata
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57. Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
O
(a) Pepsin (b) Cellulase (c) Amylase (d) Trypsin
O
58. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
H
(i) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast
SC
(ii) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria
(iii) Fermentation takes place in mitochondria
(iv) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration
D
59. Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps among cricketers. This results due to
(a) conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
W
61. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid
in the
(a) cytoplasm
(b) chloroplast
(c) mitochondria
(d) golgi body
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HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
1. What is a gene?
Answer. Gene is the unit of inheritance. Gene is the part of a chromosome which controls the
appearance of a set of hereditary characteristics.
2. What is meant by analogous organs? Taking a suitable example, explain how they support
the theory of Organic Evolution.
Answer. Analogous organs are those organs which I have different basic structural design and
developmental origin but have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
Example: The wings of birds and bats look similar but have different design in their structure.
They have a common function of flying but their origins are not common. So, birds and bats are
not closely related.
3. What is a sex chromosome?
Answer. Sex chromosome is a chromosome that operates in the sex-determining mechanism of a
species. Many animals have two different types of sex chromosomes. For example, in human
there is a large X chromosome and a much smaller Y chromosome.
4. “The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
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mother.” Justify.
O
Answer. It is because a child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl and
one who inherits a Y chromosome from his father will be a boy. But all children inherit a X
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chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.
H
5. Define variation in relation to a species. Why is variation beneficial to the species?
Answer. Variation refers to the differences in the characters or traits among the individuals of a
SC
species. Variations are beneficial to the species because:
a) They enable the organisms to adapt themselves in changing environment.
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6. Describe briefly four ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a
population.
O
Answer. The four ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population
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are as follows:
a) Sexual reproduction results into variations.
b) The individuals with special traits survive the attack of their predators and multiply while
AL
7. Distinguish between acquired and inherited traits by giving one example of each. Why are
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9. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in humans.
Or
With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the sex of a newborn is genetically
determined in human beings. Which of the two parents, the mother or the father, is
responsible for determination of sex of a child?
Answer. Mechanism of Sex Determination in Human Beings:
In human beings, the sex of the individual is genetically determined.
Sex determination is the process by which sex of a new born individual can be determined.
Human beings have 1 unpaired sex chromosome. Sex chromosome of male is XY and of
female is XX.
Sex of a child depends on what happens at fertilisation.
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O
O
H
SC
Thus, father is responsible for the determination of the sex of a child.
10. Give one example each of characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired in
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humans. Mention the difference between the inherited and the acquired characters. Answer.
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Eye colour or hair colour of a person is an example of inherited character whereas, body weight is
an example of acquired character.
O
The basic difference between inherited and acquired character is that inherited character is passed
on from parent to offspring and acquired characters are acquired by an individual during his
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Answer. During sexual reproduction, a female gamete or egg cell fuses with a male gamete or
sperm cell which are haploid to form zygote. Zygote is diploid which contains 23 chromosomes
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from mother and 23 from father. In this way, an equal genetic contribution of male and female
parents is ensured in the progeny.
N
12. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
JI
Answer. Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey provided evidence regarding origin of life from
inanimate matter. They assembled an atmosphere similar to that existed on early earth. The
atmosphere had molecules like ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide, but no oxygen and
kept over water at temperature just below 100°C. Sparks were passed through the mixture of
gases. At the end of a week, 15% carbon from methane had been converted to simple compounds
of carbon like amino acids which make-up protein molecules. So, life arose afresh on earth.
13. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is cross bred with that of white colour flower
plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers
of F1 plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny. [Delhi]
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Answer.
L
O
O
H
SC
D
RL
14. What is meant by the term speciation? List four factors which could lead to speciation.
O
population.
Factors which can lead to speciation are:
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Genetic drift: Over generations, genetic drift may accumulate which leads to speciation.
Natural selection: Natural selection may work differently in different location which may give
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rise to speciation.
Severe DNA change.
N
A variation may occur which does not allow sexual act between two groups.
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15. State the meaning of inherited traits and acquired traits. Which of the two is not passed on
to the next generation? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer. Inherited traits are the characteristics transmitted from parents to their
offspring.Acquired traits are characteristics which are developed during the lifetime of an
individual.Acquired traits are not passed on to the next generation. For example, if we breed a
group of mice, all their progeny will have tails. Now, if the tails of these mice are removed by
surgery and allowed to breed, the next generation mice will also have tails. If these tails are also
removed and allowed to breed, the progeny of mice will again have tails. Removal of tail by
surgery is an acquired trait and do not change the genes of germ cells and hence, are not passed
on to the next generation.
16. “An individual cannot pass on to its progeny the experiences of its lifetime.” Justify the
statement with the help of an example and also give reason for the same.
Answer. Experience achieved during the lifetime of an individual does not make any change in
the gene of the individual.
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For example, if a person reads a book on birds, the knowledge he earns by reading the book does
not make any change in the gene, hence, this knowledge will not get automatically transmitted to
his next generation. Such a trait is called acquired trait.
17. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the (a) traits may be dominant or recessive, (b)
traits are inherited independently?
Answer. Mendel’s Experiments on Inheritance of Traits. Mendel used a number of visible
contrasting characters of garden pea like round/wrinkled seeds, tall/short plants, white/violet
flowers, etc.
Two Visible Contrasting Characters:
• Mendel took pea plants with two different characteristics such as plant with round and green
seed and plant with wrinkled and yellow seeds and cross-pollinated then to get F1 progeny.
• In F1 progeny, all the plants will have round and yellow seeds. The round and yellow are
dominant traits.
• Mendel then allowed F1 progeny plants for self-pollination to get F2 progeny.
• F2 progeny will have plants with round and yellow seeds, round and green seeds, wrinkled and
yellow seeds, wrinkled and green seed.
• The ratio of plants with above characteristics will be 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
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• Therefore, round seed/wrinkled seed trait are independently inherited.
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(a) In F1 progeny, all the plants will have round and yellow seeds. Wrinkled and green traits were
O
not seen. But wrinkled and green characters appeared in the F2 progeny.
This means that wrinkle and green characters were recessive trait in F1 progeny, whereas round
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and yellow traits were dominant trait.
SC
(b) New mixture of traits are seen in both F1 and F2 progeny. This means traits are independently
inherited.
D
RL
O
W
AL
D
N
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
1. Exchange of genetic material takes place in
(a) vegetative reproduction (b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction (d) budding
2. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The
nature of the cross will be
(a) double fertilization (b) self pollination
(c) cross fertilization (d) no fertilisation
3. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall
plants because
(a) tallness is the dominant trait
(b) shortness is the dominant trait
(c) tallness is the recessive trait
(d) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
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4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
O
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
O
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
H
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene SC
5. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr
YY) the seeds produced in F1 generation are
D
6. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired
chromosome is/are
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(iv) X-chromosome
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8. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
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9. Select the incorrect statement
(a) Frequency of certain genes in a population change over several generations resulting in
evolution
(b) Reduction in weight of the organism due to starvation is genetically controlled
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny
(d) Traits which are not inherited over generations do not cause evolution
11. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY)
seeds produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the
F2 progeny will have new combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the
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following
O
(i) Round, yellow
O
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
H
(iv) Wrinkled, green
SC
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
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12. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, radish and tomato. Which of them represent the
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14. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
(a) All variations in a species have equal chance of survival
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation
(c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction
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16. Select the group which shares maximum number of common characters
(a) two individuals of a species
(b) two species of a genus
(c) two genera of a family
(d) two genera of two families
17. The number of pair (s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
18. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to short
plants in F2 is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
19. From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited
(a) colour of eye
(b) colour of skin
(c) size of body
(d) nature of hair
L
O
20. The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the male and female gametes are
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situated on
(a) copies of the same chromosome
H
(b) two different chromosomes
SC
(c) sex chromosomes
(d) any chromosome
D
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OUR ENVIRONMENT
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
1. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Answer. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the following effects will take place:
The population of organisms in previous trophi’c level will increase.
The organisms in next trophic level will not be able to get the food, so they will migrate to
some other ecosystem or die.
It will cause an ecological imbalance in the food chain.
2. Why did United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used
in refrigerators?
Answer. CFCs deplete the ozone layer around the earth, hence their production is controlled by
United Nations.
3. Which compounds are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
Answer. The compounds responsible for the depletion of ozone layer are chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs).
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4. Define ‘trophic level’.
O
Answer. Trophic level is the position that an organism occupies in a food chain, where transfer of
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food or energy takes place.
5. What are the various steps in a food chain called?
H
Answer. The various steps in a food chain are called trophic levels.
SC
6. What is the important function of presence of ozone in earth’s atmosphere?
Answer. The important function of presence of ozone in earth’s atmosphere is that it shields the
surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiations of the sun.
D
7. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result-in the
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bodies, these are absorbed by aquatic plants and animals of a food chain and thereby degrades the
environment.
W
Answer. Biodegradable wastes are those substances which are broken down into simpler,
harmless substances in nature in due course of time by the biological processes such as action of
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Examples: Urine and faecal matter, sewage, agricultural residue, paper, wood, cloth and cattle
dung.
10. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
Answer. Role of decomposers in the environment:
They return the nutrients to the nutrient pool.
They help in completing the different bio-geochemical cycles, thus they maintain the
balance in the ecosystem.
11. What step is being taken to limit the damage to the ozone layer?
Answer.
Judicious use of aerosol spray propellants such as fluorocarbon and chlorofluorocarbons
which cause depletion or hole in ozone layer.
Control over large scale nuclear explosions and limited use of supersonic planes.
12. Why are some substances non- biodegradable?
Answer. Some substances are non-biodegradable because they cannot be broken down into
simpler harmless substances in nature.
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13. Which class of chemicals is linked to the decrease in the amount of ozone in the upper
atmosphere of the earth?
Answer. The chemical compound Chlorofluorocarbon is responsible for decrease of ozone in the
upper atmosphere of the earth.
14. Name two decomposers operating in our ecosystem.
Answer. Bacteria and fungi.
15. Select two non-biodegradable substances from the following waste generated in a kitchen:
spoilt food, paper bags, milk bags, vegetable peels, tin cans, used tea leaves.
Answer. Milk bags and tin cans.
16. What happens when higher energy ultraviolet radiations act on the oxygen at the higher
level of the atmosphere?
Answer. When high energy ultraviolet radiations act on oxygen, ozone is produced:
17. In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer. How much energy will
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be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer?
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Answer. 100 J will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer to the tertiary consumer.
18. Write the name and formula of a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen.
O
Answer. Ozone and its chemical formula is O3.
H
19. List two man-made ecosystems. SC
Answer. Garden and Pond are man-made ecosystems.
20. Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest: Grass -> Deer -> Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much energy would be available to
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Answer. Grass and plants belong to the 1st trophic level of a food chain.
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Answer. The increase in demand for energy affects our environment adversely. Due to this
increase, pollutants like CO,C02 , S02, etc., are released in to the atmosphere which leads to
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greenhouse effect.
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24. Why is ozone layer getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere?
Answer. Ozone layer is getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere due to effect of
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
25. Name any two abiotic components of an environment.
Answer. Two abiotic components of an environment are temperature and rainfall.
26. What are the two main components of our environment?
Answer. The two main components of our environment are the biotic or living components and
abiotic or non-living components.
27. Why are green plants called ‘producers’?
Answer. Green plants are called ‘producers’ because they can produce food by photosynthesis in
the presence of sunlight.
28. Which disease is caused in human beings due to depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere?
Answer. Skin cancer is caused in human beings due to the depletion of ozone layer in the
atmosphere.
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29. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate
dustbins?
Answer. Biodegradable materials are brokendown by microorganisms in nature into simple
harmless substances. Non-biodegradable materials need a different treatment like heat and
temperature and hence these should be discarded in separate bins.
30. List two natural ecosystems.
Answer. Two natural ecosystems are forest and river.
31. List two biotic components of a biosphere.
Answer. Two biotic components of a biosphere are plants and animals.
32. What will be the amount of energy available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a
food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?
Answer. 100 Joules of energy will be available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level.
33. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest
concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it.
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog.
Answer. Hawk will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals. The
phenomenon is called biomagnification.
34. List two criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area.
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Answer. One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there.
O
Secondly, the range of different life forms is also important.
O
35. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?
Answer. Only green plants can make their own food from sunlight. Green plants therefore,
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always occupy the 1st trophic level in a food chain.
SC
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [I] [2 Marks]
D
36. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? Why is the damage of ozone layer a cause of
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A cause of this damage is the presence of large amount of chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere.
37. State two problems caused by the non- biodegradable waste that we generate in our daily
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life.
Answer. Two problems caused by non-biodegradable waste that we generate in our daily life are:
It clogs drains.
It causes water and soil pollution.
38. What are biodegradable and non- biodegradable substances? Select two biodegradable
pollutants from the following: Agricultural waste, glass, plastic, sewage, DDT.
Answer. Biodegradable substances are those substances which are broken down into simpler,
harmless substances in nature in due course of time by the biological processes such as micro
organisms like certain bacteria.
Non-biodegradable substances are those substances which cannot be broken down into simpler,
harmless substances in nature.
Two biodegradable pollutants are agricultural waste and sewage.
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39. Construct an aquatic food chain showing four trophic levels.
Answer. Food chain in aquatic ecosystem:
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one effect of it.
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Answer. Biodiversity is the existence of a wide variety of species of plants, animals and
microorganisms in a natural habitat within a particular environment or existence of genetic
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variation within a species. Biodiversity of an area is the number of species or range of different
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life forms found there. Forests are ‘biodiversity hotspots’.
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Every living being is dependent on another living being. It is a chain. If biodiversity is not
maintained, the links of the chain go missing. If one organism goes missing, this will affect all the
living beings who are dependent on it.
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43. What is meant by biodiversity? List two advantages of conserving forests and wildlife.
Answer. Biodiversity is the existence of a wide variety of species of plants, animals and
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(a) Forest
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(b) Wildlife
(i) To maintain ecological equilibrium.
(ii) To protect the nature.
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Answer. The energy flow through different steps in the food chain is unidirectional. This means
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that energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and it passes to the
herbivores, i.e. it moves progressively through various trophic levels. Thus, energy flow from the
sun through producers to consumers is in single direction only.
45. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any two methods.
Answer. Problem of waste disposal can be solved by following methods:
(i) by disposing biodegradable and non-biodegradable waster separately.
(ii) by reusing materials as much as possible.
46. “Damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern.” Justify this statement. Suggest any two
steps to limit this damage. ‘
Answer. Ozone layer prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiation to enter the atmosphere and reach
the earth’s surface. Depletion of ozone layer has become a cause for concern because it can cause
serious effects on human body and other organisms of the environment like fatal diseases such as
skin cancer, changes in genetic material DNA, eye damage, etc.
Two steps to limit this damage are as follows:
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Judicious use of aerosol spray propellants such as fluorocarbon and
chlorofluorocarbons which cause depletion or hole in ozone layer.
Control over large scale nuclear explosions and limited use of supersonic planes.
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into nonpoisonous substances in nature by down into non-poisonous substances by
the action of microorganisms. microorganisms.
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(ii) They get recycled thus, do not need any (ii) They cannot be recycled thus,
dumping sites. require dumping sites.
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(iii) These are obtained from living things. (iii) These are obtained from non-living
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things.
(iv) They cause minimum environmental (iv) They cause environmental
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pollution. pollution.
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the environment.
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Answer. Bacteria and fungi breakdown the dead remains and waste products of organisms. These
micro organisms are called the decomposers as they breakdown the complex organic substances
into simple inorganic substances that go into the soil and are used up once more by the plants.
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components to soil and help in making the steady state of ecosystem by recycling of
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This is the reason why our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits and even
meat contain varying amounts of pesticides residues. So, the highest trophic level at the extreme
right of food chain has the maximum concentration of harmful chemicals in a food chain.
50. A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into the food chain. Which type of food
habit will you suggest to a man, vegetarian or non-vegetarian? Explain with the help of a
food chain. The food chain which you would suggest, is advantageous in an another aspect.
How?
Answer. Vegetarian food chain will be suggested in case of entry of non-biodegradable toxic
chemical into the food chain.
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Non-biodegradable chemical gets concentrated at every trophic level by the process of biological
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magnification. As the concentration increases with the number of trophic level in a food chain,
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man will get high concentration of the chemical in a non-vegetarian food chain than in a
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vegetarian food chain, e.g.
Vegetarian food chain:
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Vegetarian food chain is advantageous in terms of energy available to man because it has less
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number of trophic levels. As 90% of energy is lost to the enviornment, at every trophic level,
lesser number of trophic levels will result in lesser energy loss.
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51. Write a note on the producers, consumers and decomposers of the biotic environment with
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examples of each.
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Answer.
Producers: Those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis, i.e. organisms which can
make organic compounds like sugar and starch from inorganic substances using the radiant
energy of the sun in the presence of chlorophyll. Producers, therefore are considered as a source
of energy for those above it in a food chain.
Examples: All green plants also called autotrophs and certain blue-green algae.
Consumers: Those organisms which depend upon the producers for food, either directly or
indirectly by feeding on other consumers for their sustenance. Consumers, therefore, feed upon
those below it in a food chain and are called heterotrophs. These can be classified into primary
consumers or herbivores, secondary consumers or small carnivores, omnivores and parasites, e.g.
cows, humans.
Examples of consumers:
Herbivores are the animals that consume or eat vegetation or plants, e.g. cows, horses.
Carnivores are the animals that eat flesh of other animals, e.g. tigers, wolves.
Omnivores are the animals that eat both plants and animals, e.g. humans, cockroaches.
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Parasites are those organisms that live on (ectoparasites) or in (endoparasites), the body of
another organism, i.e. host from which it obtains its nutrients, e.g. parasites of man includes fleas
and lice (ectoparasites), various protozoans and tapeworms. (endoparasites)
Decomposers: They are those microorganisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown
of dead organisms or animal or plant wastes. These microorganisms are the decomposers as they
breakdown the complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances that enter into the
soil and are again used up by the plants.
Examples: Bacteria and fungi.
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(b) 10%
(c) 50%
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(a) unidrectional
(b) bidrectional
(c) multidirectional
(d) none of these
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(c) food chain
(d) food web
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(c) Omnivores
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(d) Decomposers
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8. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy disposable for transfer from one trophic lcvel to next is in the
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form of
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(a) heat energy
(b) chemical energy
(c) mechanical energy
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(b) pollution
(c) biomagnification
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(d) accumulation
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(b) animals
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(c) soil
(d) microorganisms
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13. Only ____ % of the energy can be transferred from one trophic level to the next trophic level.
a) 1
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
15. The UV radiation from the sun is likely to cause _____________ in human.
a) Skin cancer
b) Lung cancer
c) Liver Cancer
d) Brain Cancer
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16. World Environment day is celebrated on
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a) July 1
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b) July 5
c) June 1
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d) June 5
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17. Which one of the following is a non- biodegradable substance
a) DDT
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b) Manure
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c) paper
d) Cotton cloth
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a) Herbivore
b) Carnivore
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c) Producer
d) Any one of the above
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25. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be
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the energy available at the producer level?
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Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(a) 5 k J
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(b) 50 k J
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(c) 500 k J
(d) 5000 k J
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26. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each
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(b) pollution
(c) biomagnification
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(d) accumulation
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(d) pesticides
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28. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant energy are
called
(a) decomposers (b) producers
(c) herbivores (d) carnivores
29. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in
the form of
(a) heat energy (b) light energy
(c) chemical energy (d) mechanical energy
30. Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a
lower trophic level constitute the
(a) food web (b) ecological pyramid
(c) ecosystem (d) food chain
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31. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
(a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional
(c) multi directional (d) no specific direction
33. In the following groups of materials, which group (s) contains only non-biodegradable items?
(i) Wood, paper, leather
(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass
(iv) Plastic, bakelite, DDT
(a) (iii) (b) (iv)
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(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
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34. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
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(b) Dufficient food supply
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(c) Polluted air
(d) Water
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(a) All green plants and blue green algae are producers
(b) Green plants get their food from organic compounds
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37. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of
photosynthesis is about
(a) 1 % (b) 5 % (c) 8 % (d) 10 %
38. In the given below Figure the various trophic levels are
shown in a pyramid. At which trophic level is
maximum energy available?
(a) T4
(b) T2
(c) T1
(d) T3
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39. What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given below?
Grass → Deer → Tiger
(a) The population of tiger increases
(b) The population of grass decreases
(c) Tiger will start eating grass
(d) The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass increases
41. If a grass hopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from
(a) producer to decomposer
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer
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42. Disposable plastic plates should not be used because
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(a) they are made of materials with light weight
(b) they are made of toxic materials
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(c) they are made of biodegradable materials
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(d) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
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MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 MARK]
1. Name the type of current: (a) used in household supply. (b) given by a cell.
Answer. (a) Alternating current. (b) Direct current.
2. State the observation made by Oersted on the basis of his experiment with current carrying
conductors.
Answer. The electric current passing through a conducting wire produces magnetic effect.
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Answer. Both the poles facing each other represent south pole in nature as the magnetic field
lines outside the magnet move from North to South Poles.
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Answer. In given situation, according to Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule Force is along y-axis. Current
is along x-axis. Then magnetic field is along z-axis.
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Answer. Perpendicular to the plane of paper in the outward direction by using Fleming’s left
hand rule.
8. Name the physical quantities which are indicated by the direction of thumb and forefinger
in the Fleming’s right hand rule?
Answer. In Fleming’s right hand rule, thumb indicates — direction of motion of the conductor;
forefinger indicates — direction of magnetic field.
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9. A positively charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is deflected towards
north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is
(a) towards north (b) towards east
(c) downward (d) upward
Answer. (d) Upward (Apply Fleming’s left hand rule).
10. The diagram shows a coil of wire wound on a soft iron core forming an electromagnet. A
current is passed through the coil in the direction indicated by the arrows. Mark the N and
S poles produced in the iron core.
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11. How will you determine the direction of the magnetic field due to a current-carrying
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solenoid in the below diagram?
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Answer. Direction of magnetic field: Imagine the current carrying solenoid in your right hand
such that the curled fingers are in the direction of current, then the extended thumb will indicate
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the direction of emerging magnetic field line, i.e. the face of solenoid which has North polarity.
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12. A steady current of 5 A is flowing through a conductor AB. Will the current be induced in
the circular wire of radius lm?
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Answer. No, because circular coil is placed in a constant magnetic field produced by a steady
current of 5A.
13. Name the device used to prevent damage to the electrical appliances and the domestic
circuit due to overloading.
Answer. Electric fuse.
14. Give one difference between the wires used in the element of an electric heater and in a fuse.
Answer. Electric wire used in electric heater has a high melting point whereas fuse wire has a low
melting point.
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15. The diagram shows a beam of electrons about to enter a magnetic field. The direction of the
field is into the page.
What will be the direction of deflection, if any, as the beam passes through the field?
Answer. Direction of current is from right to left as electron beam enters from left to right and
magnetic field is into the page. So, according to Fleming’s left hand rule, force is perpendicular to
the flow of current and in its left side. So, electron beam deflects towards bottom of the page.
16. How can you show that the magnetic field produced by a given electric current in the wire
decreases as the distance from the wire increases?
Answer. The decrease in deflection of the magnetic compass needle clearly shows that the
magnetic field decreases as we move away from the current-carrying conductor.
17. A current carrying straight wire held perpendicular to the plane of paper and current
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passes through this conductor in the vertically upward direction. What is the direction of
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magnetic field produced around it?
Answer. According to right-hand thumb rule, the direction of magnetic field produced around the
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given conductor is anticlockwise.
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18. If the circular coil has n turns, the field produced is n times as large as that produced by a
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single turn. Justify it.
Answer. This is because the current in each circular turn has the same direction, and the field due
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to each turn then just adds up along the axis of the coil
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19. Name any two appliances which are based on the application of heating effect of electric
current.
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20. An electron beam is moving vertically upwards. If it passes through a magnetic field which
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is directed from south to north in a horizontal plane, then in which direction will the beam
deflect?
Answer. Using Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule, electron beam will be deflected towards the west.
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21. A charged particle enters at right angle into a uniform magnetic field as shown. What
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should be the nature of charge on the particle if it begins to move in a direction pointing
vertically out of the page due to its interaction with the magnetic field?
Answer. Using Fleming’s left hand rule, the nature of charged particle is positive.
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [I] [2 MARKS]
Name the parts where the strength of the magnetic field is: (i) maximum (ii) minimum.
How will the density of magnetic field lines differ at these parts?
Answer.
(i) Maximum strength – at A and C
(ii) Minimum strength – at B
At A and C, magnetic field lines are crowded while at B, they are spread out.
23. A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation for the
following cases, and give reason for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire.
Answer.
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(a) Observation: The deflection of the needle increases.
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Reason: Magnetic field strength due to current-carrying wire increases as current in the wire
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increases,
(b) Observation: The deflection in the compass needle decreases as its displacement from the
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current-carrying wire increases.
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Reason: The strength of magnetic field reduces with the increase in distance from the wire as
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24. (a) Two magnets are lying side by side as shown below.
Draw magnetic field line between poles P and Q.
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(b) What does the degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signify?
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Answer. (a)
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(b) The degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signify that the field is stronger
there, i.e. the pole of another magnet when placed in the magnetic field experiences a greater
force where the field lines are crowded.
25. Insulation cover of which colour is conventionally used for earth wire? Why is an earth wire
connected to metallic parts of appliances?
Answer. For earth wire, green or yellow colour insulation is used. The earth wire provides the
low resistance conducting path for the current and maintains the potential of appliances body with
that of the earth. So, earth wire is used as a safety measure.
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26. Magnetic field lines of two magnets are shown in fig. A and fig. B.
Select the figure that represents the correct pattern of field lines. Give reasons for your
answer. Also name the poles of the magnets facing each other.
Answer. Figure B represents the correct pattern of field lines. In figure A, field lines cross each
other which is not possible because if they cross each other, at the point of intersection, there
would be two directions of field lines.
In figure B, field lines are emerging in nature, so poles of magnet facing each other are north
poles while opposite faces will have south polarity.
27. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure (1) and (2).
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Answer. Field lines emerge from north pole (N) and merge at the south pole (S) as shown in both
the figures
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28. The magnetic field associated with a current-carrying straight conductor is in anticlockwise
direction. If the conductor was held along the east-west direction, what will be the direction
of current through it? Name and state the rule applied to determine the direction of current.
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Right Hand Thumb Rule: If we hold a current-carrying conductor by right hand in such a way
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that the stretched thumb is along the direction of current, then the curly fingers around the
conductor represents the direction of field lines of magnetic field.
29. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is
changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Answer. Yes, when a current in coil A changes, magnetic field lines linked with coil B also
change. Hence, due to change in number of magnetic field lines, there is an induced current in
coil B. ,
30. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would be seen if a bar magnet
with its north pole towards one face of the coil is
(i) moved quickly towards it,
(ii) moved quickly away from the coil and
(iii) placed near its one face?
Name the phenomenon involved.
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Answer.
(i) Deflection in the galvanometer needle will be more on right-side.
(ii) Larger deflection in opposite direction as compared to the case (i) will be seen. (Hi) No
deflection.
The phenomenon involved is electromagnetic induction.
31. Two coils A and B of insulated wires are kept close to each other. Coil A is connected to a
galvanometer while coil B is connected to a battery through a key. What would happen if
(i) a current is passed through coil B by plugging the key, and (ii) the current is stopped by
removing the plug from the key?
Explain your answer mentioning the name of the phenomenon involved.
Answer.In both the given cases, galvanometer shows momentary deflection but in opposite
direction. In coil A, magnetic field lines [increased in case (i) and decreased in case (ii)] induce a
potential difference across the coil A which sets up induced electric current in coil A. It is shown
by the deflection in galvanometer. This is known as electromagnetic induction.
32. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220.V) that
has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
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Answer. Current drawn by electric oven
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P 2000 W
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V 220 V
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Current rating of the circuit = 5 A
So, fuse will blow off and power supply will cut off
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33. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
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largest?
Answer. When the length of current-carrying conductor and direction of magnetic field are
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perpendicular to each other, the maximum force is experienced by the current-carrying conductor.
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34. Why and when does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience force?
List the factors on which direction of this force depends?
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Answer. The drifting of free electrons of a conductor in a definite direction causes the current to
flow through it. When such conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field, each drifted electron
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [II] [3 MARKS]
38. How will the magnetic field produced at a point due to a current-carrying circular coil
change if we:
(i) increase the current flowing through the coil?
(ii) reverse direction of current through the coil?
(iii) increase the number of turns in the coil?
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Answer. Magnetic field (B) at the centre of the circular coil
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(i) increases if the current is increased as B I
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(ii) reverses on reversing the current. .
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(iii) increases if the number of turns in the coil increases as field is directly proportional to the
number of turns.
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39. (a) Mention the factors on which the direction of force experienced by a
current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field depend.
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(b) Under what condition is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in
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proton beam?
Answer. (a) The direction of force experienced by the current-carrying conductor depends on:
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(b) When the direction of current is at right angle to the direction of magnetic field, the force is
maximum.
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(c) No force is experienced by the proton beam. As proton beam is moving along the direction of
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magnetic field.
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40. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar
magnet is (a) pushed into the coil,
(b) withdrawn from inside the coil,
(c) held stationary inside the coil?
Answer.
(a) When a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, magnetic field lines linked with
the coil changes (increases). It causes the electric current to get induced in it. The needle of
galvanometer will move momentarily in one direction.
(b) When a bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, the magnetic field lines linked with the
coil changes but in decreasing order. Current will be induced in the coil which will be indicated
by deflection of needle in the galvanometer. The deflection is opposite to that in case (a). This
indicates that the direction of induced current is now opposite to the direction of induced current
in case (a).
(c) When bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, there is no deflection in the galvanometer.
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This is because there is no change in magnetic field lines linked with the coil. Hence, no induced
current will flow through the coil.
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motion or the force acting on the conductor.
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42. The direction of electric current passed through a vertical wire and through a horizontal
card is shown below:
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Sketch the pattern of the magnetic field on the card around the wire. Indicate the direction
of the magnetic field at any one point. How would you check this direction experimentally?
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Answer. The pattern of magnetic field lines on the card around the current carrying conductor for
the downward direction of current is shown. They are concentric in circle with their centre ties on
the axis of wire.
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Direction of magnetic field lines can be checked experimentally by placing a magnetic compass
needle any where on the card board. Direction of its North pole indicating the direction of
magnetic field.
43. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current carrying solenoid behave? Give its main
use.
Answer. Solenoid: A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical
insulating body (i.e., cardboard etc.) such that its length is greater than its diameter is called
solenoid.
When current is flowing through the solenoid, the magnetic field line pattern resembles exactly
with those of a bar magnet with the fixed polarity,
i.e. North and South pole at its ends and it acquires the directive and attractive properties similar
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to bar magnet. Hence, the current carrying solenoid behave as a bar magnet.
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Use of current carrying solenoid: It is used to form a temporary magnet called electromagnet as
well as permanent magnet.
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44. For the current carrying solenoid as shown below, draw magnetic field lines and giving
reason explain that out of the three points A, B and C at which point the field strength is
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maximum and at which point it is minimum.
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Answer. Outside the solenoid magnetic field is minimum. At the ends of solenoid, magnetic field
strength is half to that inside it. So Minimum – at point B; Maximum – at point A
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45. With the help of a diagram of experimental setup describe an activity to show that the force
acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field increases with increase in
field strength.
Answer.
Aim : To show that force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
increases with the field strength.
Apparatus Required : Aluminium rod, stand horse shoe magnet of different intensity, cell, key and
connecting wires.
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Procedure :
i) Arrange the set-up as shown in figure.
ii) Plug the key, the current flowing through the rod from Q to P observe the displacement of rod.
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iii) Now unplug the key and remove the first horse shoe magnet and place the second horse shoe
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magnet of higher magnetic field strength in a similar manner to that of first.
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iv) Plug the key, the current again flow through the rod from Q to P. Again observe the deflection
of rod.
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v) Now bring both’the magnet closer together (to ensure greater magnetic field than that of
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previous case). Again observe the motion of rod.
Observations : Each time, the conductor moves faster than that of previous one. It is possible
only when conductor gets accelerated more each time which required more force. (F = ma)
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Thus, if the magnetic field strength is increased, the rod will experience a greater force and move
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faster.
Conclusion : The force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field increases
with increase in field strength.
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46. What are magnetic field lines? Justify the following statements
(a) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.
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Magnetic field lines: It is defined as the path along which the unit North pole (imaginary) tends to
move in a magnetic field if free to do so.
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(a) The magnetic lines of force do not intersect (or cross) one another. If they do so then at the
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point of intersection, two tangents can be drawn at that point which indicates that there will be
two different directions of the same magnetic which field, i.e. the compass needle points in two
different directions which is not possible.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed continuous curves. They diverge from the north pole of a bar
magnet and converge its south pole. Inside the magnet they move from south pole to north pole.
47. Describe an activity to show that the magnetic field lines produced when current is passed
through the circular coil.
Answer.
Aim : To study the characteristics of magnetic field produced by a current carrying circular coil at
its centre.
Apparatus Required : Rectangular cardboard having two holes, Thick copper circular coils of
different radii having known number of turns, key, battery, rheostat, stand, iron filings.
Procedure :
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i) Pass the coil through the two holes of cardboard in such a way that half of the loop is above
the cardboard and remaining part should be below it and normal to the plane of cardboard.
ii) Connect the circuit as shown.
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iii) Sprinkle iron filings uniformly on the cardboard.
iv) Allow the current to pass though the coil by inserting plug in the key.
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v) Note the pattern of iron filings that emerges on the cardboard after tapping gently a few times.
(Observation).
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vi) Place the compass at any point over the pattern of field. Observe the direction of needle.
(Observation 2).
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Observations :
(a) Iron filings are arranged in the form of concentric circles.
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(b) The concentric circles become larger and larger as we move away from the wire.
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(c) At the centre of loop, lines are almost straight and perpendicular to the plane of the loop.
Conclusion :
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i) The concentric circles at every point of a current carrying circular loop represent the
magnetic field around it.
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ii) Magnetic field line close to the axis of loop is straight and is perpendicular to the plane of
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the coil.
iii) Field lines keep on diverging as we move away from the centre of loop.
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48. (a) Describe activity with labelled diagram to show that a current carrying
conductor experience a force in a magnetic field.
(b) State the rule to determine the direction of force.
Answer.
(a) Without using a magnet, magnetic field can be produced by flowing the current through a
straight conductor or a solenoid.
Aim : To show that magnetic field exerts a force on a current carrying conductor.
Apparatus required : Aluminium rod, stand, strong horse shoe magnet, cell, key and connecting
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wires.
Procedure :
i) Hang the aluminium rod with the help of clamp stand such that it passes between the
North and South pole of the magnet with the magnetic field directed upwards and the rod
being horizontal and perpendicular to the field.
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ii) Connect the aluminium rod in series with a battery, a key as shown in figure.
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iii) Plug the key, the current flows through the rod from Q to P and observe the direction of
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motion of the rod.
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iv) Reverse the direction of current by reversing the battery connection. Again observe the
direction of displacement of aluminium rod.
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v) Restore the original direction of current and change the direction of field vertically
downwards by interchanging the two poles of the magnet. Observe the deflection of rod
again.
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vi) Place the wire parallel to magnetic field and allow the current to pass through it. Check the
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i) On plugging the key in step 3, the aluminium rod moves towards left.
ii) In step 4, rod displaces towards right.
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Conclusion :
i) Magnetic field exerts a force on a current carrying conductor.
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ii) The force exerted on the current carrying conductor depends upon the direction of current
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Observation :
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Just on closing the key, the iron filings are aligned in the pattern of concentric circles around the
wire.
Conclusion :
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ii) The magnetic field is in the form of concentric circles whose centre lies on the wire.
(b) Right-Hand Thumb Rule. This rule is used to find the direction of magnetic field due to a
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It states that if we hold the current carrying-conductor in the right hand in such a way that the
thumb is stretched along the direction of current, then the curly finger around the conductor
represent the direction of magnetic field produced by it. This is known as right-hand thumb
rule.
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Direction of Field Lines due to current carrying straight conductor is as shown in figure.
(c) Solenoid.
50. (a) Explain why there are two separate circuits one for high power rating appliances and
other for low power rating appliances.
(b) A domestic circuit has 5A fuse. How many bulbs of rating 100W, 220V can be safely
used in this circuit? Justify your answer.
Answer.
(a) Two separate circuits are formed in the domestic wiring, one for high power rating appliances
called power circuit and other for low power rating called lightning circuit.
Power circuit: The circuit which draw heavy current (15 A) from mains and used for high power
rating devices such as microwave, oven, air conditioners, geysers, washing machine, etc., is
known as power circuit. Lightning circuit: The circuit which draw small amount of current from
the mains and used for low power rating devices such as bulb, tube light, fans, T.V., Computer,
etc. having a current rating of 5 A is known as lightning circuit.
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51. (i) Design an activity with the help of two nails, very thin aluminium strip, a 12 V Battery
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colours black, green and red. Mention the significance of the three colours and potential
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Apparatus required : Two nails, card board, very thin aluminium strip, a 12 V battery, key and
connecting wires.
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Procedure:
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Take very thin aluminium strip and tie it between the nails.
Make a circuit as shown in figure with 12 V battery and key with the help of connecting wires.
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If there are any fans running in the room, switch them off.
Now switch on the current in the circuit by pressing the key or by moving the switch of the ‘ON’
position.
Now pass the current through the circuit for some time. Observe the strand of aluminium strip
between the two nails carefully.
Observation: The strand of aluminum strip melt and break quickly on passing the large electric
current through it.
Conclusion: When current flows through the circuit, exceed the rating of aluminium strip, i.e.
safe limit, its temperature increases. This make it overheated. As a result, aluminium strip melts
and breaks the circuit. Hence, very thin aluminium strip between the two nails acts as a fuse wire.
This activity shows that how fuse works.
(b) Significance of insulation colour:
Red colour insulation wire – Live wire
Black colour insulation wire – Neutral wire
Green colour insulation wire – Earth wire
Live wire is at higher potential of 220 V while neutral wire is at zero potential. So, potential
difference between red and black insulation wire is 220 V.
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52. Two coils C1 and C2are wrapped around a non conducting cylinder. Coil C1is connected to
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a battery and key and C2 with galvanometer G. On pressing the key (K), current starts
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flowing in the coil C1State your observation in the galvanometer:
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(iv) Name and state the phenomenon responsible for the above observation. Write the name
of the rule that is used to determine the direction of current produced in the phenomena.
Answer.
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(i) When key is pressed on, the galvanometer needle deflects momentarily in one direction.
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(ii) When the current in the coil C1 is switched off, the galvanometer needle deflects again
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53. Two coils of insulated copper wire are wound over a non -conducting cylinder as shown.
Coil I has larger number of turns.
(i) Write your observations when,
(a) key K is closed,
(b) key K is opened.
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(ii)When the current is passed continuously through coil I.
Give reason for your observations.
(iii)Name and state the phenomenon responsible for the above observation.
(iv) Write the name of the rule that is used to determine the direction of current produced in
the phenomenon.
(v) Name the two coils used in this experiment.
Answer.
(i) (a) When key is closed, the galvanometer needle deflects momentarily in one direction. ,
Reason: When key is closed, magnetic field lines around coil 2 increases momentarily. This
causes an induced current to flow through it and hence deflection occurs in one direction.
(b) When key is opened, the galvanometer needle deflects again momentarily but in opposite
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direction.
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Reason: When key is open, magnetic field lines around coil 2 decreases momentarily. This
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causes an induced current to flow in opposite direction. Hence, deflection occurs in opposite
direction.
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(ii) When current is passed continuously through coil I, no deflection is observed in the
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galvanometer.
Reason: There will be no change in magnetic field lines passing through the coil 2. Hence, no
induced current will be set up in coil 2.
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which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor placed
nearby.
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54. Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions:
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(a) Write the special name given to the coil AB which has many circular turns of insulated
copper wire.
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(b) State the nature of magnetic field inside AB when a current is passed through it.
(c) Redraw the diagram and sketch the pattern of magnetic field lines through and around
AB.
(d) List two factors on which the strength of the magnetic field produced by AB depends.
(e) What is the effect of placing an iron core in the coil AB?
Answer.
(a) Solenoid.
(b) Uniform magnetic field.
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(d) (i) Magnitude of current flowing through it.
(ii) Number of turns of a circular coil.
(e) It becomes an electromagnet.
55. (a) Describe an activity to demonstrate the pattern of magnetic field lines around a straight
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conductor carrying current.
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(b) State the rule to find the direction of magnetic field associated with a current-carrying
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conductor.
(c) What is the shape of a current-carrying conductor whose magnetic field pattern
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resembles that of a bar-magnet? SC
Answer.
(a) Aim: To study the magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying conductor.
Apparatus Required: A thick conducting wire, battery, rheostat, magnetic needle, ammeter (0-5
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A), key, a cardboard, a stand to hold the wire, iron filings and sprinkler of iron filings.
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Procedure:
Attach the thick wire through a hole at the middle of the cardboard and clamp it in a stand.
Attach the ends of the wire through a key, variable resistor and an ammeter. on either side of a
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Spread the iron filings uniformly on the cardboard and place the magnetic needle on the board.
Close the key and tap the cardboard slightly and observe the orientation of iron filings.
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Observation: Just on closing the key, the iron filings are aligned in the pattern of concentric
circles around the wire.
Conclusion: A current-carrying conductor is a source of magnetic field.
The magnetic field is in the form of concentric circles whose centre lies on the wire.
(b)Right – Hand thumb Rule: Hold the current-Carrying wire in your right hand, such that the
thumb indicates the direction of current, then the folded fingers will indicate the direction of
magnetic field (lines) surrounding the wire.
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(c) Solenoid.
56. (a) Draw a diagram to represent a uniform magnetic field in a given region.
(b) List two properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer.
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(a) Equidistant parallel line indicates a uniform magnetic field in a given region.
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emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole and inside the magnet, the direction of field
lines is from its south pole to its north pole.
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The degree of closeness of field lines indicates the strength of magnetic field.
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a moving magnet. State the rule used to find the direction of electric current thus generated
in the coil.
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(ii) Two circular coils P and Q are kept close to each other, of which coil P carries a current.
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(b) if both the coils are moved in the same direction with the same speed? Give reason.
Answer.
(i) Take a coil AB of wire having a large number of turns.
Connect the ends of coil to a sensitive galvanometer as shown in figure.
Take a strong bar magnet and move its north pole towards the end ‘A’ of coil. The deflection in
the needle of galvanometer indicates that the induced current flows in the circuit in anticlockwise
direction. The end A of the coil behaves as a north pole.
When north pole of the magnet moves away from the coil, the deflection in the galvanometer
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occurs but in opposite direction.
Similar observations can be made when south pole of the magnet is moved towards the coil or
away from it.
When magnet is kept at rest with respect to the coil, the deflection in the needle of galvanometer
drops to zero.
Thus, the motion of a magnet, with respect to the coil, produces an induced potential difference
which sets up an induced electric current in the circuit.
The direction of electric current thus generated in the coil can be found by using the Fleming’s
right-hand rule.
(ii)Fleming’s right-hand rule: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of right hand in
such a way that they are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger indicates the
direction of magnetic field and thumb shows the direction of motion of the conductor, then the
middle finger will indicate the direction of induced current.
(a) If current in the coil P is changed, the magnetic field lines of forces linked with coil Q also
change. So, induced potential difference is set up in the coil Q. This results in induced electric
current in coil Q which opposes the change in current in coil P.
(b) If both the coils are moved in the same direction with the same speed, there will be no relative
motion between them and hence, there will be no change in magnetic field lines of force
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associated with the secondary coil. Hence, no current will be induced in the coil.
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58. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the paper. Let the current
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pass through the loop clockwise. With the help of a diagram, explain how the direction of
the magnetic field can be determined inside and outside the loop. Name the law used to find
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the direction of magnetic field.
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Answer. Consider a circular loop of wire of radius r with centre O lying in the plane of the paper.
Let the current i pass through the loop clockwise. According to right hand thumb rule, direction of
magnetic field due to any portion of small current carrying length of the coil is:
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Direction of magnetic field inside the loop — Perpendicular to the plane of paper inwards.
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Direction of magnetic field outside the loop — Perpendicular to the plane of paper outwards.
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So, the direction of magnetic field can be considered as the direction of total magnetic field due to
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circular coil as current through all the elements will contribute to the magnetic field in the same
direction.
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59. Why is pure iron not used for making permanent magnets? Name one material used for
making permanent magnets. Describe how permanent magnets are made electrically. State
two examples of electrical instruments made by using permanent magnets.
Answer.
Pure iron cannot retain its magnetism for long time. Hence it cannot be used for making
permanent magnet.
Cobalt-steel or some alloys of iron such as ALNICO are used for making permanent
magnet.
Formation of permanent magnet electrically A current carrying solenoid is used to
magnetise steel rod. Steel rod is kept inside the solenoid. A strong uniform magnetic field
produced by the current carrying solenoid magnetise it. The magnet so formed retains the
magnetism even after switching off the current in solenoid.
Permanent magnets are used in (i) Galvanometer and (ii) loudspeaker
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
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(d) originate from the south pole and end at its west pole
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2. The magnetic field lines :
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(a) intersect at right angles to one another
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(b) intersect at an angle of 45° to each other
(c) do not cross one another
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(d) cross at an angle of 60° to one another
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(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
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(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines
4. The strength of the magnetic field between the poles of an electromagnet would be unchanged if :
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8. The direction of current in the coil at one end of an electromagnet is clockwise. This end of the
electromagnet will be :
(a) north pole (b) east pole (c) south pole (d) west pole
9. If the direction of electric current in a solenoid when viewed from a particular end is
anticlockwise, then this end of solenoid will be :
(a) west pole (b) south pole (c) north pole (d) east pole
11. A current flows in a wire running between the S and N poles of a magnet lying horizontally as
shown in Figure below :
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The force on the wire due to the magnet is directed :
(a) from N to S (b) from S to N (c) vertically downwards (d) vertically upwards
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(a) an electric charge moving perpendicular to its direction (b) an unmagnetised iron bar
(c) a stationary electric charge (d) a magnet
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13. An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in the Figure.
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14. Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of field
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of
a magnetic compass needle points
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines
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15. If the key in the arrangement (see below Figure) is taken out (the circuit is made open) and
magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are
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(a) concentric circles
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(b) elliptical in shape
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(c) straight lines parallel to each other
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it
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16. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the
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key is ON. The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and on the axis of the
coil) is anti clockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point from B to A.
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(a) A (b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large
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18. For a current in a long straight solenoid N- and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the
following statements, the incorrect statement is
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates that the
magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of
magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the coil
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of
the magnetic field around a bar magnet
(d) The N- and S-poles exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid is
reversed
19. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in see
below Figure. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton
experience
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(d) force pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field respectively
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20. In the arrangement shown in see below Figure there are two coils wound on a non-conducting
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cylindrical rod. Initially the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed. Then
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21. Choose the incorrect statement
(a) Fleming’s right-hand rule is a simple rule to know the direction of induced current
(b) The right-hand thumb rule is used to find the direction of magnetic fields due to current
carrying conductors
(c) The difference between the direct and alternating currents is that the direct current always
flows in one direction, whereas the alternating current reverses its direction periodically
(d) In India, the AC changes direction after every 1/50 second
22. The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre (b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points (d) found to increase from one end to the other
23. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown
in see below Figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be North to South
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(c) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the north side of the wire
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(d) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the wire
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24. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or
overloading is
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(a) earthing (b) use of fuse (c) use of stabilizers (d) use of electric meter
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25. An induced current is produced when a magnet is moved into a coil. The magnitude of induced
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ELECTRICITY
1. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Answer. Cell or battery
2. Define 1 volt. Express it in terms of SI unit of work and charge calculate the amount of
energy consumed in carrying a charge of 1 coulomb through a battery of 3 V.
Answer. When 1 joule of work is done in carrying 1 coulomb of charge, from infinity to a point
in the electric field, then potential at that point is called 1 volt. Potential difference between two
points is
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5. What happens to resistance of a conductor when its area of cross-section is increased?
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Answer.
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6. Name the physical quantity which is (i) same (ii) different in all the bulbs
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when three bulbs of:
(a) same wattage are connected in series.
(b) same wattage are connected in parallel.
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(b) For identical bulbs in parallel- same potential difference, different current.
(c) For unidentical bulbs in series- same current, different potential difference.
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(d) For unidentical bulbs in parallel- different current, same potential difference.
7. A given length of a wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once again. By what
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Answer.
(a) When 1 joule of work is done in carrying 1 coulomb of charge, from infinity to a point in the
electric field, then potential at that point is called 1 volt.
(b) Potential difference, V = Work done on unit charge =W/q
Work is 100 J,q=20C
Potential difference,V=W/q=100/20=5V
10. A 9Ω resistance is cut into three equal parts and connected in parallel. Find the equivalent
resistance of the combination.
Answer.
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11. (a) Define the term ‘coulomb’.
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(b) State the relationship between the electric current, the charge moving through a
conductor and the time of flow.
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Calculate the charge passing through an electric bulb in 20 minutes if the value of current is
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200 mA.
Answer.
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(a) When 1 A current flows across the wire in 1 second, the charge transfer across its ends is said
to be 1 coulomb.
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(b) The relationship between the electric current I, the charge q and time t is
12. (a) How is the direction of electric current related to the direction of flow of electrons in a
wire?
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(b) Calculate the current in a circuit if 500 C of charge passes through it in 10 minutes.
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Answer.
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(a) Conventional direction of electric current is opposite to the direction of flow of electrons in a
wire.
(b) q = 500 C, t = 10 X 60 = 600 s
I = 500/600 = 5/6A
13. An electric iron has a rating of 750 W, 220 V. Calculate the (i) current flowing through it,
and (ii) its resistance when in use.
Answer. Given: P = 750 W, V = 220 V
(i) P = VI
14. Study the following electric circuit and find (i) the current flowing in the circuit and (ii) the
potential difference across 10 Ω resistor.
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Answer.
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15. What is meant by electric current? Name and define its SI unit. In a conductor electrons are
flowing from B to A. What is the direction of conventional current? Give justification for
your answer. A steady current of 1 ampere flows through a conductor. Calculate the
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number of electrons that flows through any section of the conductor in 1 second. (Charge on
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Electric Current: The amount of charge ‘Q’ flowing through a particular area of cross section
in unit time ‘t’ is called electric current, i.e.
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One ampere of current is that current which flow when one coulomb of electric charge
flowing through a particular area of cross-section of the conductor in one second, i.e. 1A = 1
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Cs-1.
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Direction of flow of electrons gives the direction of electronic current by convention, the
direction of flow of positive charge is taken as the direction of conventional current.
Charge = q = ne
16. What is meant by electrical resistivity of a material? Derive its S.I. unit.
Answer. Mathematically, resistivity of the conducting material is given by
= R x A/J
If l = 1 m, A = 1 m2, then = R
Hence, the resistivity of the material is defined as the resistance offered by a metallic wire having
a unit length and a unit area of cross-section. Since unit length and unit area of cross-section
forms a cube, the specific resistance or resistivity can also be defined as the resistance offered by
a cube of a material of side 1 m when current flows perpendicularly through the opposite faces. In
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SI system, its units is
17. (a) Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power. (6) Out of 60
W and 40 W lamps, which one has higher electrical resistance when in use.
(c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules.
Answer. (a) Difference between electric energy and electric power:
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(ii) It is equal to the product of power and time (ii) It is equal to the rate of doing work by an
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i.e. E = P × t W
energy source i.e. P
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t
(iii) Its SI unit is joule (J) (iii) Its SI unit is watt (W)
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1 J = 1 W × 1s 1 W = 1 J s–1
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i.e. less the power of electrical device, higher is its electrical resistance.
(c) Kilowatt hour – Commercial unit of electrical energy
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18. Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing three resistors R1, R2 and R3 connected in series
with a battery (E), a rheostat (Rh), a plug key (K) and an ammeter (A) using standard
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circuit symbol. Use this circuit to show that the same current flows through every part of
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the circuit. List two precautions you would observe while performing the experiment.
Answer.
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Aim: Same current flows through every part of the above circuit.
Procedure:
Connect ammeters, ‘A’1 between B and C, and ‘A2’ between D and E.
Adjust the sliding contact of the rheostat initially for a small current.
Note all the ammeter readings. These reading give us current flowing through the resistors R1, R2
and R3
The current in the circuit is now increased by changing the position of sliding contact J’ of the
rheostat.
Note all the ammeter readings each time.
Conclusion: Same reading of all the ammeter in each observation concluded that same current
flows through every part of the circuit.
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Precautions:
All the connection should be tight and properly connected as per circuit diagram.
The positive terminal of the ammeter and voltmeter must be connected to the positive terminal of
the battery or battery eliminator.
19. State Ohm’s law. Write the necessary conditions for its validity. How is this law verified
experimentally? What will be the nature of graph between potential difference and current
for a conductor? Name the physical quantity that can be obtained from this graph.
Answer. Ohm’s law : When the physical conditions such as temperature etc. remain same, the
current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference applied
across the ends of the conductor, i.e.,
Necessary condition for validity of Ohm’s law is that physical condition such as
temperature of the conductor remains same.
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Procedure:
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Experiment to verify ohm's law
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Procedure : 1. Connect the various components as.
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3. Note down the potential difference (V) across the conductor PQ of resistance R shown by the
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Conclusion : From the graph between V and I, we conclude that I = V, which is Ohm's law.
Hence Ohm's law is verified experimentally.
Ohm's law does not hold under all conditions. Ohm's law does not hold for non-ohmic material
such as electrotyte.
20. (a) Define electric power. Express it in terms of potential difference V and resistance R.
(b) An electrical fuse is rated at 2 A. What is meant by this statement?
(c) An electric iron of 1 kW is operated at 220 V. Find which of the following fuses that
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respectively rated at 1 A,3 A and 5 A can be used in it.
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Answer.
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(a) Electric power: It is the rate of doing work by an energy source or the rate at which the
electrical energy is dissipated or consumed per unit time in the electric circuit is called electric
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power. SC
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(b) It means, the maximum current will flow through it is only 2 A. Fuse wire will melt if the
current exceeds 2 A value through it.
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21. Write relation between heat energy produced in a conductor when a potential difference V
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is applied across its terminals and a current I flows through for ‘t’
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Answer.
24. An electric bulb of resistance 200Ω draws a current of 1 Ampere. Calculate the power of the
bulb the potential difference at its ends and the energy in kWh consumed burning it for 5h.
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Answer. Power of the bulb,
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25. Draw a schematic diagrams of an electric circuit comprising of 3 cells and an electric bulb,
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ammeter, plug-key in the ON mode and another with same components but with two bulbs
in parallel and a voltmeter across the combination.
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Answer.
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26. Explain the role of fuse in series with any electrical appliance in an electric circuit. Why
should a fuse with defined rating for an electric circuit not be replaced by one with a larger
rating?
Answer. Fuse wire is a safety device connected in series with the live wire of circuit. It has high
resistivity and low melting point. It melts when a sudden urge of large current passes through it
and disconnects the entire circuit from the electrical supply. But, in case if we use a larger rating
instead of a defined rating, then it will not protect the circuit as high current will easily pass
through it and it will not melt.
27. An electric bulb is rated at 60 W, 240 V. Calculate its resistance. If the voltage drops to 192
V, calculate the power consumed and the current drawn by the bulb. (Assume that the
resistance of the bulb remain unchanged.)
Answer.
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28. The charge possessed by an electron is 1.6 X 10-19 coulombs. Find the number of electrons
that will flow per second to constitute a current of 1 ampere.
Answer.
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29. Two devices of rating 44 W, 220 V and 11 W, 220 V are connected in series. The
combination is connected across a 440 V mains. The fuse of which of the two devices is likely
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Answer.
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30. Consider the circuit shown in the diagram. Find the current in 3Ω resistor.
Answer. 3 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel.
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31. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuits. List any three reasons.
Answer. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuit because
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The electrical appliances need current of widely different values to operate properly.
In series arrangement, when one component fails, the circuit is broken and none of the
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components works.
All electrical appliances work at a constant voltage. But in series circuit, the current is constant
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throughout the electric circuit and potential is different across the different components. So, series
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how will you connect the ammeter and the voltmeter in the circuit while measuring the
current in the circuit and the potential difference across one of the three resistors of the
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combination.
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Connect the three given resistor R1, R2 and R?i in parallel between the point XY with a battery, a
plug key and ammeter in series as shown in figure.
Connect voltmeter in parallel with these resistors between the terminals X and Y.
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Close the key and note the ammeter and voltmeter reading. Ammeter shows the total current
drawn by the parallel combination of these resistors while voltmeter shows the voltage applied
across the combination.
Using Ohm’s law, find the equivalent resistance of the combination, i.e. equivalent resistance,
To find the current flow through any one of the resistor, ammeter will be connected in series with
that resistor and to measure the potential difference across that resistor, voltmeter must be
connected in parallel with that resistor as shown.
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33. Deduce the expression for the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of three
resistors R1, R2 and R3
Consider the following electric circuit:
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(a) R5 and R4 with Parallel combination of R2 and R3 are in series
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(b) R2 and R3 are in parallel.
(c) R2 and R3 in parallel gives Rp = 1 Ω
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Rp, R5 and R4 are in series. So, Req = 5 Ω
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R1 is not to be taken as it is shorted. SC
V 5
Current flowing, I 1A
R 5
34. Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit consisting of a battery of five 2 V cells, a 20
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Ω resistor, a 30 Ω resistor, a plug key, all connected in series. Calculate the value of current
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flowing through the 20 Ω resistor and the power consumed by the 30 Ω resistor.
Answer. Req = 20 + 30 = 50 Ω
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Let W be the work done in carrying the charge q across the conductor, then
36. A piece of wire of resistance 20 Ω is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice its
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original length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the new Situation.
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Answer.
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37. (a) Two resistors R1and R2 may form (i) a series combination or (ii) a parallel
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combination, will the potential difference acrossR1 and across R2 be the same and in which
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and the current through R1 and R2 will be same when they are connected in series.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
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1. A cell, a resistor, a key and ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of below
Figure. The current recorded in the ammeter will be
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2. In the following circuits (see below Figure), heat produced in the resistor or combination of
resistors connected to a 12 V battery will be
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3. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its length
(b) its thickness
(c) its shape
(d) nature of the material
5. Identify the circuit (see below Figure) in which the electrical components have been properly
connected.
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(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
6. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 ?
(a) 1/5
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 1
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7. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 ?
(a) 1/5
(b) 1/25
(c) 1/10
(d) 25
8. The proper representation of series combination of cells (see below Figure) obtaining maximum
potential is
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(a) (i)
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(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
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(d) (iv)
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9. Which of the following represents voltage?
(a) Work done/(Current × Time)
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10. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of crosssection A has resistance R. Another
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conductor of length 2l and resistance R of the same material has area of cross section
(a) A/2
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(b) 3A/2
(c) 2A
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(d) 3A
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11. If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% (assume that temperature remains
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13. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 and 4 respectively are connected in series to a 6 V
battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 resistor in 5 s will be
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J
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14. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B and C of rating 40 , 60 and 100
respectively are connected in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is likely to
happen regarding their brightness?
(a) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same
(b) Brightness of bulb A will be the maximum
(c) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
(d) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B
15. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of what
rating must be used for it?
(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A
16. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire
with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively (see below Figure). Which of the following is true?
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(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
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17. Two resistors of resistance 2 and 4 when connected to a battery will have
(a) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel
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21. If the amount of electric charge passing through a conductor in 10 minutes is 300 C, the current
flowing is :
(a) 30 A (b) 0.3 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 5 A
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22. An electrical appliance has a resistance of 25. When this electrical appliance is connected to a
230 V supply line, the current passing through it will be :
(a) 0.92 A (b) 2.9 A (c) 9.2 A (d) 92 A
23. When a 4 resistor is connected across the terminals of a 12 V battery, the number of coulombs
passing through the resistor per second is :
(a) 0.3 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 12
25. If the diameter of a resistance wire is halved, then its resistance becomes :
(a) four times (b) half (c) one-fourth (d) two times
26. When the area of cross-section of a conductor is doubled, its resistance becomes :
(a) double (b) half (c) four times (d) one-fourth
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27. If the area of cross-section of a resistance wire is halved, then its resistance becomes :
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(a) one-half (b) 2 times (c) one-fourth (d) 4 times
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28. A wire of resistance R1 is cut into five equal pieces. These five pieces of wire are then connected
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in parallel. If the resultant resistance of this combination be R2, then the ratio R1/R2 is :
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(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 5 (d) 25
(a) this way they require less current (b) if one lamp fails the others remain lit
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(c) this way they require less power (d) if one lamp fails the others also fail
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LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
1. List four properties of the image formed by a plane mirror.
Answer. Properties of image formed by a plane mirror:
1. It is always virtual and erect.
2. Its size is equal to that of the object.
3. It is formed at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
4. It is laterally inverted.
2. List four properties of the image formed by a convex mirror.
Answer. Properties of image formed by a convex mirror:
1. It is always formed behind the mirror, between the pole and its focus.
2. It is always virtual and erect.
3. Its size is always smaller than the object.
4. Magnification is always positive.
3. List four properties of the image formed by a concave mirror, when object is placed
between focus and pole of the mirror.
Answer.
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1. The image is formed behind the mirror.
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2. It is enlarged, he. magnified.
3. It is virtual.
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4. It is erect.
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4. Redraw the given diagram and show the path of the refracted ray:
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Answer.
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5. Redraw the given diagram and show the path of the refracted ray:
Answer.
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6. Draw the following diagram in your answer book and show the formation of image of the
object AB with the help of suitable rays.
Answer.
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7. Which kind of mirrors are used in the headlights of a motor-car and why?
Answer. Concave mirror, to get the parallel beam of light.
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8. Explain with the help of a diagram, why a pencil partly immersed in water appears to be
bent at the water surface.
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Answer. Light from different points on the pencil, immersed in water refracts and appears to
come from a point above the original position.
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11. An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is
formed on the screen placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the focal length
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of the lens.
Answer.
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12. Draw the ray diagram in each case to show the position and nature of the image formed
when the object is placed:
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(i) at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror
(ii) between the pole P and focus F of a concave mirror
(iii) in front of a convex mirror
(iv) at 2F of a convex lens
(v) in front of a concave lens
Answer.
Nature of image: Real, inverted and same size image is formed at the centre of curvature.
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Nature of image: Virtual, enlarged and erect image is formed behind the mirror.
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Nature of image: Virtual, erect and diminished, image is formed behind the mirror.
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Nature of image: Real, inverted and size to size, image is formed at 2F on the other side of lens.
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Nature of image: Virtual, erect and diminished image is formed between O and F on the same
side of object.
13. If a light ray IM is incident on the surface AB as shown, identify the correct emergent ray.
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by a convex lens for the object placed:
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(a) at 2F1
(b) between F1 and the optical centre O of lens:
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Answer.
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15. A ray of light, incident obliquely on a face of a rectangular glass slab placed in air, emerges
from the opposite face parallel to the incident ray. State two factors on which the lateral
displacement of the emergent ray depends.
Answer. Lateral displacement depends on the:
angle of incidence,
thickness of slab, and
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refractive index of the material. (any two)
16. An object 2 cm in size is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. At
what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image?
What will be the nature and the size of the image formed? Draw a ray diagram to show the
formation of the image in this case.
Answer.
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convex lens at a distance of 32 cm from the object it is found that a distinct image of the
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object is formed on the screen. What is the focal length of the convex lens and size of the
image formed on the screen? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in this
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distance of 2f from the lens and the image should be of the same size of the object.
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18. Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium into another?
Answer. Due to change in velocity in the medium and to reduce the time taken to travel the same.
19. Redraw the diagram given below in your answer book and show the direction of the light
ray after refraction from the lens.
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Answer.
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20. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. At what distance from the lens should the object
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be placed so that it forms a real and inverted image 20 cm away from the lens? What would
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be the size of the image formed if the object is 2 cm high? With the help of a ray diagram
show the formation of the image by the lens in this case.
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Answer.
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21. The refractive index of water is 1.33 and the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 ms-1. Calculate
the speed of light in water.
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Answer.
22. The refractive index of glass is 1.50 and the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 ms-1. Calculate the
speed of light in glass.
Answer.
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23. For which position of the object does a convex lens form a virtual and erect image? Explain
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with the help of a ray diagram.
Answer. When the object is placed between the focus and the optical centre, a virtual and erect
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image is formed.
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24. In an experiment with a rectangular glass slab, a student observed that a ray of light
incident at an angle of 55° with the normal on one face of the slab, after refraction strikes
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the opposite face of the slab before emerging out into air making an angle of 40° with the
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normal. Draw a labelled diagram to show the path of this ray. What value would you assign
to the angle of refraction and angle of emergence?
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Answer.
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25. At what distance should an object be placed from a convex lens of focal length 18 cm to
obtain an image at 24 cm from it on the other side. What will be the magnification produced
in this case?
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Answer.
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26. What is the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if the magnification produced
by the mirror is +3?
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Answer. Positive sign of magnification indicates that image is virtual, erect and enlarged.
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27. Between which two points of a concave mirror should an object be placed to obtain a
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magnification of -3?
Answer. Negative sign of magnification indicates that image is real and inverted. Also size of
image is enlarged. So, object must be positioned between F and 2F, i.e. C.
28. Define and show on a diagram, the following terms relating to a concave mirror:
(i) Aperture
(ii) Radius of curvature
Answer. (i) The diameter of the reflecting surface of the mirror is called aperture.
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(ii) The radius of the sphere of which the reflecting surface of the spherical mirror forms a part is
called the radius of curvature of the mirror.
29. How far should an object be placed from a .convex lens of focal length 20 cm to obtain its
image at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? What will be the height of the image if the object
is 6 cm tall?
Answer.
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30. The image of an object placed at 60 cm in front of a lens is obtained on a screen at a distance
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of 120 cm from it. Find the focal length of the lens. What would be the height of the image if
the object is 5 cm high?
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Answer.
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31. Define the focus of a concave mirror. If the radius of curvature of a convex mirror is 30 cm,
what would be its focal length?
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Answer. The point on the principal axis where all the rays parallel to it meet after reflection is
called focus. Since, R = 30 cm and f=R/2 we have, f=+15 cm for a convex mirror.
32. Distinguish between a real and a virtual image of an object. What type of image is formed
(i) by a plane mirror, (ii) on a cinema screen?
Answer. If light rays after reflection converge to a point to form an image on its own, it is called
a real image. If they are diverging, then they form a virtual image. Real image can be obtained on
a screen, while a virtual image cannot be.
(i) Plane mirror forms virtual image.
(ii) On cinema screen, real image is formed.
33. Draw a ray diagram and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of image
formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed at the centre of curvature of the
mirror.
Answer.
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34. Define ‘refractive index of a transparent medium.’ What is its unit? Which has a higher
refractive index, glass or water?
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Answer. The ratio of the speed of light in the free space (c) to the speed of light in given medium
(v) is called its refractive index.
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n = c/v.
It has no unit. Glass has more refractive index than water.
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35. An object is placed between infinity and the pole of a convex mirror. Draw a ray diagram
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and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of the image formed.
Answer.
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dioptre, i.e. 1 dioptre = 1m–1.
100 100
(c) Power of the combination, P = P1 + P2 = 4 10 6 D
25 10
37. What is the principle of reversibility of light? Show that the incident ray of light is parallel
to the emergent ray of light when light falls obliquely on a side of a rectangular glass slab.
Answer. The final path of the ray of light after reflections or refractions is reversed; the ray
retraces its entire path. This principle is called reversibility of light.
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Hence incident ray PQ is parallel to the emergent ray RS when light falls obliquely on a side of
rectangular glass slab.
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38. What is understood by lateral displacement of light? Illustrate it with the help of a diagram.
List any two factors on which the lateral displacement of a particular substance depends.
Answer. Lateral displacement is the perpendicular distance between the incident ray produced
and the emergent ray. Lateral displacement in the diagram is BL. The lateral displacement
depends on the thickness of the slab, the incident and refraction angles.
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39. (a) If the image formed by a lens is diminished in size and erect, for all positions of the
object, what type of lens is it?
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(b) Name the point on the lens through which a ray of light passes undeviated.
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(c) An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20
cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find (i) the position (ii) the
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magnification and (iii) the nature of the image formed. [Delhi]
Answer. (a) Concave lens.
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(i) the distance of the object from the lens.
(ii) the magnification for the image formed.
(iii) the nature of the image formed. [All India]
Answer. (a) Image formation when the object is at any position between infinity and optical
centre:
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41. With the help of a ray diagram explain why a convex mirror is preferred for rear view
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(ii) The field of view increases while using a convex mirror as shown.
42. To instruct a ray diagram, we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know
their directions after refraction from the lens. List these two rays and state the path of these
rays after refraction. Use these two rays to locate the image of an object placed between ‘F
and ‘2F of a convex lens. [Foreign]
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Answer. Two rays choose for refraction:
(i) A ray of light parallel to the principal axis.
(ii) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a lens.
Path of these rays after refraction:
In case of convex lens, the first ray will pass through the principal focus on the other side of the
lens.
In case of concave lens, the first ray will
(a) appear to diverge or
(b) appear to come from the principal focus positioned on the same side of the object.
The second ray emerge from the lens without any deviation in the path.
43. List the sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Draw a diagram and
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apply these conventions in the determination of focal length of a spherical mirror which
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forms a three times magnified real image of an object placed 16 cm in front of it.
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Answer. Sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirror are:
1. The object is always placed to the left of the mirror.
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2. All the distances parallel to the principal axis are always measured from the pole of the
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spherical mirror.
3. All the distances measured along the direction of incident light (along +ve x-axis), are
considered to be positive.
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4. Those distances measured opposite to the direction of incidence light (i.e. along -ve x-axis),
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So, focal length of spherical mirror is 12 cm. Negative sign of focal length indicates that mirror is
concave in nature.
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44. To construct a ray diagram, we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know
their directions after reflection from the mirror. List these two rays and state the path of
these rays after reflection. Use these rays to locate the image of an object placed between
centre of curvature and focus of a concave mirror.
Answer. Rays which are chosen to construct ray diagram for reflection are:
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis and
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(ii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror or appear to pass through
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the centre of curvature of convex mirror.
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Path of these rays after reflections is:
(i) After reflection, the first ray will pass through the principal focus of a concave mirror or
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appear to diverge in case of a convex mirror.
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(ii) After reflection, the second ray is reflected back along the same path.
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45. State the type of mirror preferred as (i) rear view mirror in vehicles, (i0 shaving mirror.
Justify your answer giving two reasons in each case.[Delhi] ?
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Justification:
(i) Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror because:
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46. List the sign conventions that are followed in case of refraction of light through spherical
lenses. Draw a diagram and apply these conventions in determining the nature and focal
length of a spherical lens which forms three times magnified real image of an object placed
16 cm from the lens.
Answer. Sign conventions for refraction of light through spherical lens are:
1. The object is always placed to the left of the lens so that incident light moves from left to
right.
2. All distances are to be measured from the optical centre of the lens.
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3. The distances measured in the direction of incident light (along +ve x-axis) will be taken as
positive, while those measured to the left of the origin (along -ve x-axis) will be taken as
negative.
4. All measurements of heights above the principal axis (along +ve y-axis) will be considered as
positive while below it (along -ve y-axis) will be taken as negative.
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So, focal length of the given spherical lens is 12 cm. The positive sign of focal length shows that
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the nature of spherical lens is convex.
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1. The bending of a beam of light when it passes obliquely from one medium to another is known
as _______.
1. reflection
2. refraction
3. dispersion
4. deviation
2. The part of the lens through which the ray of light passes without suffering deviation is called
________.
1. optical centre
2. focus
3. centre of curvature
4. pole
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3. Convex lens always gives a real image if the object is situated beyond _______.
1. optical centre
2. centre of curvature
3. Focus
4. radius of curvature
5. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained,
using a convex lens?
1. Between O and F
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2. At F
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3. At 2 F
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4. At infinity
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6. SI unit of the power of a lens is ___________.
1. dioptre
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2. cm
3. metre
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4. watt
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1. 100
2. 10
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3. 1/100
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4. 1/10
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1. biconvex
2. biconcave
3. plano convex
4. cylindrical
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10. A convex lens is called _________.
1. converging lens
2. diverging lens
3. both converging and diverging lens
4. refracting lens
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3. 50 D
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4. - 5D
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13. The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is _______.
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1. -66.66 cm
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2. + 1.5 m
3. + 66.66 cm
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4. -1.5 m
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14. Real images formed by single convex lenses are always ________________.
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2. Inverted
3. Erect
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15. An object is placed 12 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image must be.
1. virtual and enlarged
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16. When a person uses a convex lens as a simple magnifying glass, the object must be placed at a
distance.
1. less than one focal length
2. more than one focal length
3. less than twice the focal length
4. more than twice the focal length
19. An object is placed 25 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image distance
is ________ cm.
1. 50 cm
2. 16.66 cm
3. 6.66 cm
4. 10 cm
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20. The least distance of distinct vision is ______.
1. 25 cm
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2. 25 m
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3. 0.25 cm
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4. 2.5 m
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21. A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Its power in dioptres is ___________.
1. 2
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2. 5
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3. 0.5
4. 0.2
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22. An object is placed before a concave lens. The image formed _____________-.
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1. is always erect
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4. is always real
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23. A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refractive index n2. If
sin i
angle of incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r, then is equal to
sin r
1. n1
2. n2
3. n21
4. n12
24. Two thin lenses of power +5 D and -2 D are placed in contact with each other. Focal length of
the combination is
1. +3 m
2. -3 m
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3. 0.33 m
4. -0.33 m
26. To obtain magnified erect image on a concave mirror, object should be held
a) At pole b) At focus c) Between p and f d) Beyond 2f
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27. If f is the focal length and R is the radius of curvature of a spherical mirror, then
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a) R=f b) R=2f c) R=3f d) R=4f
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28. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of same size as that of the object.
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The position of the object is
a) At C b) At F c) Between C and F d) Beyond C
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29. The image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified. The position of the
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object is
a) At F b) At c c) At infinity d) Between P and F
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30. The image formed by a spherical mirror is virtual, erect and smaller in size. Whatever be the
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31. When light goes from one medium to another, the characteristics that remain unaffected is
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32. Reflective index of glass w.r.t air is 3/2. What is the refractive index of air w.r.t glass?
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33. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is used to form an image of the size of the object. Where
from the lens should be the object is placed.
a) 15 cm b) 30 cm c) 60 cm d) 10 cm
34. To form an image twice the size of the object, using a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, the
object distance must be
a) <20 cm b) >20 cm
c) <20 cm and between 20 cm and 40 cm d) Cannot say
35. Bending of a ray of light due to change in velocity with medium is called
a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion
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36. If correct value of refractive index of a medium(μ) in terms of velocity of light in vacuum (C)
and velocity of light in medium (v) is
a) n = vC b)n = 1 / ve c)n= C / v d) n = v / C.
38. For no bending of a ray of light through a glass slab, angle of incidence must be
a) 00 b) 300 c) 600 d) 900
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a) Zero. b) Infinite. c) Positive d) Negative.
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41. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?
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(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens
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(b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other
(d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
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42. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the
awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is
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43. The below Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive index
of the medium B relative to medium A is
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3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
2 3 2
D
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45. Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form an image larger than the
actual object?
(a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature
(b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length
(c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature
(d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature
47. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in below Figure. The refractive index of
medium B relative to A will be
(a) greater than unity (b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity (d) zero
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O
O
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D
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48. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C
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and D respectively as shown in the below Figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
(a) A rectangular glass slab (b) A convex lens
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49. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using
(a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror (d) both concave as well as plane mirror
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50. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the other
face of the box as shown in the below Figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
(a) Concave lens (b) Rectangular glass slab
(c) Prism (d) Convex lens
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51. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four
students are shown as A, B, C and D in Figure. Which one of them is correct?
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(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
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D
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D
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52. You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media a ray of light
incident obliquely at same angle would bend the most?
(a) Kerosene (b) Water
(c) Mustard oil (d) Glycerine
53. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle
portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of
combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
(a) Plane, convex and concave
(b) Convex, concave and plane
(c) Concave, plane and convex
(d) Convex, plane and concave
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54. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as
shown in below Figure?
(a) Fig. A (b) Fig. B (c) Fig. C (d) Fig. D
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55. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown in
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below Figure?
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(a) Fig. A (b) Fig. B (c) Fig. C (d) Fig. D
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D
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D
56. Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be
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placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
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57. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
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59. In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished and
point sized?
(a) Concave mirror only
(b) Convex mirror only
(c) Convex lens only
(d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens
60. The linear magnification produced by a convex mirror is always positive. This is because
(a) Convex mirror is a small mirror.
(b) Image formed by a convex mirror is always smaller in size than the object.
(c) Image formed by a convex mirror is real.
(d) Image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual and erect.
61. In which of the following mirrors, image of an object is always virtual, erect and smaller in size
than the size of object?
(a) convex mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) plane mirror
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(d) none of the these
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62. A boy runs towards a plane mirror with a velocity of 2m/s. With what speed will her image move
towards him?
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(a) 2m/s
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(b) 0
(c) 4m/s
(d) none of the these
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63. The linear magnification of the concave lens is always positive but less than one. This is because
(a) concave lens forms real images only.
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object.
(d) none of the these
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64. The linear magnification of the concave lens is – 1, when object is kept at
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(a) at infinity
(b) at focus
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(c) at 2F1
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65. The focal length of the combination of convex lens of power 1D and concave lens of power – 1.5
D is
(a) – 2 m (b) 2 m
(c) 2.5 m (d) 0.5 m
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HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
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Answer. The refractive index of the material of a prism is different for different colours of light
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as different colours have different speeds in the material of a prism. Also, prism has non-parallel
surfaces.
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7. Name the atmospheric phenomenon due to which the sun can be seen above the horizon
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about two minutes before actual sunrise. SC
Answer. Atmospheric refraction.
8. Why is red colour selected for danger signal lights?
Answer. Wavelength of red colour is more and so, it is least scattered. It can be easily seen
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9. Why do different components of white light deviate through different angles when passing
through a triangular glass prism?
Answer. Due to change in refractive index offered by the medium.
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10. What will be the colour of the sky, when it is observed from a place in the absence of any
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atmosphere? Why?
Answer. Sky appears dark.
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Reason: In the absence of atmosphere, there would have been no scattering of sunlight at all.
11. The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. State its reason.
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Answer. The sky appears dark to the astronaut as scattering does not take place at very high
altitude due to the absence of atmosphere.
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12. Define the term dispersion of white light. State the colour which bends (i) the least and (ii)
the most while passing through a glass prism.
Answer. The splitting up of white light into its component colours is called dispersion. The
colour which bends (i) the least is red, and (ii) the most is violet, while passing / through a glass
prism.
13. What is meant by spectrum of white light? How can we recombine the components of white
light after a prism has separated them? Draw a diagram to illustrate it.
Answer. The coloured pattern VIBGYOR formed by a prism by splitting the incident white light
is called a spectrum. By having two prisms, inverted to each other, one can recombine the light to
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get white light again.
14. Explain why do the planets not twinkle but the stars twinkle.
Answer. Planets being of larger size can be taken as a collection of large number of point-sized
objects/sources of light, which nullify the twinkling effect of each other.
Due to varying conditions of atmosphere, starlight undergoes multiple refraction and its path
varying slightly while passing through the atmosphere. Therefore, the apparent position of star
fluctuates and amount of light entering the eye changing continuously. The star sometimes appear
brighter and some other time, it appears fainter. This causes twinkling of star.
15. Give reasons:
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(i) The extent of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a glass prism depends on its
colour.
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(ii) Lights of red colour are used for danger signals.
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Answer. (i) Refractive index of a medium is different for different colours of light.
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(ii) Due to large wavelength, red colour is least scattered and travel to large distance.
SC
16. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with
the help of a labelled diagram.
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Answer. The gradual change in the refractive index of different layers of the atmosphere due to
the varying conditions of it causes atmospheric refraction. When starlight enters the atmosphere,
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it gets refracted continuously. The higher level of air acts as a rarer medium while the dense air
near the surface of earth acts as a denser medium. So, the atmosphere bends the starlight towards
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the normal. As a result, the apparent position of star is slightly different from its actual position.
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Thus, star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky.
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17. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism. Mark on it (a) the
incident ray. (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of deviation.
Answer. i-incident angle, r – refraction angle, δ – angle of deviation, e – angle of emergence.
18. A star sometimes appears brighter and some other times fainter. What is this effect called?
State the reason for this effect.
Answer. This effect is called Twinkling effect.
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Reason: It is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. The atmosphere has varying layers. The
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gradual change in the refractive index of different layers of atmosphere causes atmospheric
refraction and starlight undergoes multiple refraction. So, the fluctuation in the position of star
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occurs continuously due to the changing amount of light entering the eye. The star sometimes
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appears brighter and at some other times, it appears fainter. This causes twinkling of star.
19. What is the colour of the clear sky during day time? Give reason for it.
SC
Answer. Clear sky appears blue.
Reason: When sunlight passes through the atmosphere having the molecules of air and other fine
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particles, whose size is smaller than the wavelength of visible light, these molecules and particles
scatter the blue colour more strongly than the other colours of spectrum as the wavelength of blue
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colour is more. This scattered blue light enters our eye. So, the colour of sky appears blue to us
during day time.
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20. What is a spectrum? Why do different coloured rays deviate differently on passing through
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a glass prism?
Answer. The band of coloured component of a light beam is called its spectrum. The colour
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sequence is given by the acronym V I B G Y O R — Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange
and Red.
The speed of light of different colours in a medium like glass is different. Varying speeds for
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different colours lead to different refractive indices for different colours. It has been observed that
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the refractive index of glass for violet colour is more than that for red colour. All the colours
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present in white light refract through different angles and hence, emerge out from the prism with
different directions and become distinct.
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(iii) Enough larger particles scatter the light which may appear white.
22. Four friends went to a forest for a picnic. When they were moving around the forest, they
saw that the light was filtering from the leaves of the trees. The path of the light beam
becomes visible to all of them. They wondered how this happen so. Suddenly, they saw two
hunters. They immediately went to the nearest police station to complain about them. Police
immediately with their force went to the forest to arrest those people.
(a) Name the effect they observed in the canopy of the dense forest and explain it.
(b) Where can you see this effect other than the forest?
(c) What can you predict about the nature and awareness of these four friends?
Answer. (a) They observed Tyndall effect in the canopy of the dense forest. The phenomenon of
scattering of light by colloidal particles, present in the medium due to which the path of the beam
of the light becomes visible, is called Tyndall effect.
(b) When a beam of sunlight enters a dusty room through a small hole, then its path becomes
visible to us.
(c) Concern for nature, concern and affection with forest animals, helping nature.
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23. (a) What is dispersion of white light? What is the cause of such dispersion? Draw a diagram
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to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
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(b) A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes through it but a
glass slab does not produce any spectrum. Explain why is it so?
SC
Answer. (a) The splitting up of white light into its constituent colours is called dispersion. The
colour sequence is given by the acronym V I B G Y O R – Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow,
Orange and Red. This colour pattern is called a spectrum.
D
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O
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D
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Dispersion takes place because the speed of light of different colours through a glass prism is
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different and so, refractive index, therefore, each colour bends (refracts) through different angles
with respect to incident ray as they pass through a prism. The red colour has maximum speed in
glass prism. So, it is least deviated while the violet colour has minimum speed so its deviation is
maximum. Thus, the ray of each colour emerges along different paths and becomes distinct.
(b) For dispersion, the two refracting surfaces must be inclined to each other as in case of prism.
In rectangular glass slab, the refracting surfaces are parallel to each other. So, dispersion cannot
occur. This is due to fact that the rectangular glass slab can be considered as equivalent of two
identical prisms in inverted position placed in an inverted position with respect to each other. The
deviation and dispersion produced by the second inverted prism is equal and opposite to that
produced by the first prism.
Therefore, there will neither be dispersion, nor deviation, Le. second inverted prism recombines
the , colour to give a white light parallel to the incident ray again and will undergo only lateral
displacement. Hence, rectangular glass slab cannot produce any spectrum.
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24. (i) Draw a figure which shows the arrangement for observing the phenomenon of scattering
of light in the laboratory.
(ii) What colours would you observe in the experiment? Why?
Answer. (i) An arrangement for observing the scattering of light in the laboratory is as shown
below.
(ii) (a) On the screen, first orange red colour and then bright crimson red colour patch is observed.
(b) From the other three sides of colloidal solution of sulphur in a glass tank (T), blue colour is
observed.
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This is because the very fine colloidal sulphur particles scatter away the blue colour from the path
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of beam and only red colour (least scattered) of the beam of white light reaches the screen through
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the solution.
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25. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural
events.
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(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset.
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to gradual change in the refractive indices of its different layers by the varying conditions of it, is
called atmospheric refraction.
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horizon while the apparent position S′, above the horizon as appear to us.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 Mark]
1. In an experiment the image of a distant object formed by a concave mirror is obtained on a screen.
To determine the focal length of the mirror, you need to measure the distance between the:-
(a) Mirror and the screen
(b) Mirror and the object
(c) Object and the screen
(d) Mirror and the screen and also between the object and the screen.
2. The image formed by concave mirror is real. The position of the screen should be
(a) behind the mirror
(b) on the same side of object between focus and infinity
(c) on the same side of object between focus and pole
(d) none of these
3. In the experiment to determine focal length of a convex lens, a student obtained a sharp inverted
image of a distant tree on the screen behind the lens. She then removed the screen and looked
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through the lens in the direction of the object. She will see:-
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(a) An inverted image of the tree at the focus.
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(b) No image as the screen has been removed.
(c) A blurred image on the wall of the laboratory.
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(d) An erect image of the tree on the lens.
SC
4. While performing the experiment for determination of focal length of a convex lens by using the
sun as a distant object a student could not find a screen with stand. Which one of the following
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5. In an experiment to determine the focal length of a convex lens, the image of a distant tree is
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obtained on the screen. To determine the focal length of the lens, you are required to measure the
distance between the :-
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(d) Screen and the tree and also between the screen and the lens
6. For performing an experiment, a student was asked to choose one concave mirror and one convex
lens from a lot of mirrors and lenses of different kinds. The correct procedure adopted by her will
be :-
(a) To choose a mirror and lens which can form an enlarged and inverted image of an object.
(b) To choose a mirror which can form a diminished and erect image and a lens which can form
an enlarged and erect image of the object.
(c) To choose a mirror and lens which can form an enlarged and erect image of an object.
(d) To choose a mirror and a lens which can form a diminished and erect image of an object.
7. Your school laboratory has one large window. To find the focal length of a concave mirror using
one of the walls as the screen, the experiment may be perfomed.
(a) Near the wall opposite to the window.
(b) On the same wall as the window
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(c) On the wall adjacent to the window
(d) Only on the table as per the laboratory arrangement
8. A students obtains a blurr image of a object on a screen by using a concave mirror. In order to
obtain a sharp image on the screen, he will have to shift the mirror :–
(a) towards the screen
(b) away from the screen
(c) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object
(d) to a position very far away from the screen
9. The focal length of the concave mirror in an experimental setup shown below, is
(a) 10.2cm (b) 11.0cm (c) 11.4cm (d) 12.2cm
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O
O
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SC
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10. Four students, Ameeta, Zahira, Ravi and David performed the experiment for determination of
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focal length of a concave mirror separately. They measured the distance between the screen and
the mirror as shown in the following diagram. Which one of these students is likely to get the
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11. A students performs an experiment on finding a focal length of a convex lens by keeping a lighted
candle on one end of laboratory table, a screen on its other end and the lens between them as
shown in the figure. The positions of the three are adjusted to get a sharp image of the candle
flame on the screen by making.
(a) the screen in the direction of the lens or the lens in the direction of the screen
(b) the screen in the direction of the lens or the lens away from the screen
(c) the screen away from the lens or the lens in the direction of the screen
(d) neither the screen nor the lens.
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12. Given below are few steps (not in proper sequence) followed in the determination of focal length
of a given convex lens by obtaining a sharp image of a distant object.
(i) Measure the distance between the lens and screen
(ii) Adjust the position of the lens to form a sharp image.
(iii) Select a suitable distant object.
(iv) Hold the lens between the object and the screen with its faces parallel to the screen.
The correct sequence of steps for determination of focal length is
(a) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
13. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light
is incident on the prism as shown in below Figure. In which of the following cases, after
dispersion, the third colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (iii) (d) (iv)
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O
O
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SC
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(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
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15. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
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18. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different
colours of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and
the violet light
19. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen
from a distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog (d) moves fastest in air
20. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun
at sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light (b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light (d) Reflection of light from the earth
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21. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
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(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
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(b) reflection of sky in water
(c) scattering of light
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(d) absorption of light by the sea
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HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
1. (i) What is fertilisation? Distinguish between external fertilisation and internal
fertilisation.
(ii) What is the site of fertilisation in human beings?
Answer.
(i) Fertilisation is defined as the fusion of a male gamete (sperm) with a female gamete (an ovum
or egg) to form a zygote during sexual reproduction.
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O
(ii) The site of fertilisation in human beings is in the fallopian tube of female reproductive system.
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2. Define the terms unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
Answer. Unisexual is the plant whose flowers contain either stamens or carpels but not both.
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Example: Papaya, Watermelon. SC
Bisexual is the plant whose flowers contain both stamens and carpels. Example: Hibiscus,
Mustard.
3. Differentiate between ‘self-pollination’ and ‘cross-pollination’. Describe double fertilisation
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in plants.
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Answer.
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Self-pollination Cross-pollination
(i) Self-pollination occurs within a flower (i) Cross-pollination occurs between two
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or between two flowers of the same plant. flowers borne on different plants of the same
species.
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(ii) Flowers do not depend on other (ii) Agents such as insects, water and wind are
agencies for pollination. required for pollination.
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(iii) Pollen grains are produced in small (iii) Pollen grains are produced in large
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numbers. numbers.
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(b) Two functions performed by testis
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in human beings are as follows:
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(i) Formation of sperms takes place in testis.
(ii) They secrete the hormone testosterone which regulates the formation of sperms and brings
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changes in appearance of boys at the time of puberty.
SC
8. Illustrate the following with the help of suitable diagrams:
(i) Binary Fission in Amoeba.
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Answer.
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O
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SC
10. (a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C, D and E.
D
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D
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O
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D
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(c) Zygote is formed when male gamete, Le. sperm fuses with female gamete, i.e. ovum.
12. Mention the mode of reproduction used by(a) Amoeba (b) Planaria.
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13. Name the information source of making proteins in the cell. State two basic events in
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reproduction.
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Answer. The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source of making proteins.
The two basic events in reproduction are:
(i) Creation of a DNA copy,
(ii) Additional cellular apparatus by the cell involved in the process.
14. What is regeneration? State a reason why a more complex organism cannot give rise to new
individuals through this method.
Answer. Regeneration is the ability of a fully differentiated organism to give rise to new
individual organisms from its body parts. More complex organisms cannot give rise to new
individuals through regeneration because:
(i) their body is highly complicated.
(ii) there are specific organs to do specific functions.
(iii) there is a labour division in the body of complex organisms.
(iv) regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which are not present in complex organisms.
15. What is reproduction? What are its two types? Which one of the two confers new
characteristics on the offsprings and how?
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Answer. Reproduction is the process of producing new individuals of the same species by
existing organisms of a species, z.e. parents. Its two types are: Asexual reproduction and Sexual
reproduction.
Sexual reproduction confers new characteristics on the offspring due to variation in DNA
copying.
16. (a) Explain the terms: (i) Implantation (ii) Placenta
(b) What is the average duration of human pregnancy?
Answer. (a) (i) Implantation: The embedding of a fertilised mammalian egg (embryo) into the
inner thick wall of the uterus (womb) where it will continue its development is called
implantation.
(ii) Placenta: It is a complex double-layered spongy vascular tissue in human female formed by
the joint activity of maternal and foetal tissues in the wall of uterus that is meant for attachment,
nourishment and waste disposal for the foetus.
(b) The average duration of human pregnancy is 40 weeks or 280 days.
17. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Name four such diseases. Which one of them
damages the immune system of human body?
Answer. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) are the diseases which are spread by sexual
contact from an infected person to a healthy person. They are caused by various microorganisms
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that live in warm and moist environments of the vagina, urethra, anus and mouth.
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The four sexually transmitted diseases are:
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(i) Gonorrhoea
(ii) Syphilis
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(iii) Trichomoniasis
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(iv) AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).
AIDS damages the immune system of human body.
18. List any four reasons for vegetative propagation being practised in the growth of some type
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of plants.
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Answer.
(i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and more rapid method of propagation in plants
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(iii) It results in propagation of those plants which do not produce viable seeds or produce seeds
with prolonged period of dormancy.
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(iv) The plants generated from vegetative means are more uniform and genetically similar to the
parent stock.
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19. Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is located. Explain its role in
the process of reproduction of the cell.
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Answer. The full form of DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid. It is the genetic material found in the
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DNA plays an important role in the reproduction of a cell. The reproducing cell produces an
identical copy of DNA through some cellular mechanism. Since the newly formed copy of DNA
lacks an organised cellular structure, the cell gets divided to provide cell cover to the newly
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formed DNA. Thus, two daughter cells are formed from the single cell as a result of the copying
of DNA.
20. List any three differences between pollination and fertilisation.
Answer.
Pollination Fertilisation
(i) It is the transfer of pollen grains from (i) It is the fusion of male and female gametes.
anther to the stigma of a flower.
(ii) Pollination precedes fertilisation. (ii) Fertilisation occurs only after pollination
when the pollen grain has germinated and sent
the male gametes to ovule.
(iii) Pollination carries the male gamete (iii) Fertilisation brings about fusion of gametes.
producing pollen grains to the female sex
organ.
21. Draw a longitudinal section of a flower and label the following parts:
(i) Part that produces pollen grain.
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(ii)Part that transfers male gametes to the female gametes.
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(iii) Part that is sticky to trap the pollen grain.
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(iv) Part that develops into a fruit.
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Answer. SC
D
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D
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22. Explain vegetative propagation with the help of two examples. List two advantages of
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vegetative propagation.
Answer. In vegetative propagation, new plants are obtained from the parts of old plants like
stems, roots and leaves, without the help of any reproductive organ.
There are two ways of vegetative propagation:
(a) Natural Vegetative Propagation, and
(b) Artificial Vegetative Propagation.
Natural vegetative propagation by leaves: The fleshy leaves of Bryophyllum bear adventitious
buds in the notches along the leaf margin.
Grafting: In this method of reproduction, two plants of closely related varieties are joined together
so that they live as one plant.
The portion of a plant that is grafted on the other plant is called scion, and the plant in which
grafting is performed is called the stock.
This method is applied to improve variety of fruits like mango, apple, peas, citrus and guava.
advantages of vegetative propagation are:
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(i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and more rapid method of propagation in plants
than growing plants from their seeds.
(ii) Better quality of the plants can be maintained by this method.
23. (a) Explain the role of placenta in the development of human embryo.
(b) Give example of two bacterial and two viral sexually transmitted diseases. Name the
most effective contraceptive which prevents spread of such diseases.
Answer.
(a) Role of placenta in the development of human embryo: A special tissue develops between the
uterine wall and the embryo (foetus) called placenta, where exchange of nutrients, glucose and
oxygen takes place. The developing embryo will also generate waste substances which can be
removed by transferring them into the mother’s blood through the placenta. The development of
the child inside the mother’s blood takes approximately nine months.
(b) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) transmitted by bacteria are:
(i) Gonorrhoea (ii) Syphilis
STDs transmitted by virus:
(i) AIDS (ii) Genital warts
The most effective contraceptive which prevents the spread of these diseases is by the use of
mechanical barriers such as physical devices like condoms.
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24. Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form as
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observed in cells of organisms.
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Answer.
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Binary fission Multiple fission
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(i) It is the division of the parent into two (i) It is the division of the parent into many
nearly equal sized daughter individuals small daughter individuals
(ii) Two daughter individuals are formed by a (ii) Nucleus of the parent cell divides to
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27. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of spreading
AIDS.
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29. (a) What is fragmentation in organism?
Name a multicell-ular organism which reproduces by this method.
(b) What is regeneration in organism? Describe regeneration in Planaria with the help of a
suitable diagram.
Answer. (a) Fragmentation: Multicellular organisms with simple body organisation such as
filamentous algae-Spirogyra breaks up into two or more small pieces or fragments upon
maturation. These fragments grow into new individuals.
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(b) Regeneration: It is the ability of a fully differentiated organism to give rise to new individual
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organisms from its body parts.
Small cut or broken parts of the organism body grow or regenerate into separate individuals.
Planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete
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organism.
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Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which proliferate and make large number of
cells thus, undergoing changes to become various cell types and tissues.
The changes taking place in an organised sequence is development.
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30. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of budding in Hydra.
Answer.
Hydra reproduces by budding using the regenerative cells.
A bud develops as an outgrowth in Hydra due to repeated cell division at one specific site.
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When fully matures, the bud detaches itself from the parent body and develops into new
indipendent individuals
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(b) The Rhizopus consists of fine thread-like projections called hyphae. It has a knob like
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structure which is involved in reproduction called sporangia, containing spores, that develop into
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new Rhizopus.
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(c) Two advantages for organisms to reproduce themselves through spores are as follows:
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Two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty are:
(i) The breast size begin to increase, (ii) Menstruation starts.
34. What is meant by asexual reproduction? List its any two different forms.
Answer. Asexual reproduction is the process of producing new organism from a single parent
without the involvement of sex cells. Fission and fragmentation are two different forms of asexual
reproduction.
35. Name an organism which reproduces by spore formation. List three conditions favourable
for spores to germinate and grow.
Answer. Rhizopus reproduces by spore formation. Conditions favourable for spore formation are:
(i) Cool place, (ii) Moist place and (iii) Dark place.
36. “DNA copies generated during reproduction will be similar but may not be identical to the
original.” Justify this statement.
Answer. DNA copies generated will be similar, but may not be identical to the original as some
variations are so drastic that new DNA copy cannot work with the cellular apparatus it inherits.
Such a newborn cell will simply die. Therefore, there could be many other variations in the DNA
copies that would not lead to such a drastic outcome. Thus, the surviving cells are similar but
slightly different from each other. This tendency of variation during reproduction is the basis for
evolution.
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37. List the parts of human male reproductive system which contribute fluid to the semen. State
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two advantages semen offers to the sperms.
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Answer. Prostate glands and seminal vesicles add fluid in the vas deferens. This makes
transportation of sperms easier and also provides nutrition to the sperms.
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38. Name the two types of germ-cells present in human beings. How do they structurally differ
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from each other? Give two differences.
Answer. The two types of germ-cells present in human beings are sperm and ova. The sperm of
human have either X or Y chromosome. The ova always carry X chromosome. The sperm is
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Use of condom for penis or for vagina as a mechanical barrier for the sperms to reach the egg.
Use of oral pills which change the hormonal balance so that eggs are not released.
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Surgical method where either the vas deferens of male is blocked or the fallopian tube of female
is blocked.
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40. What is AIDS? Which microbe is responsible for AIDS infection? State one mode of
transmission of this disease. Explain in brief one measure for the prevention of AIDS.
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AIDS can be prevented by avoiding sexual contact with infected person or by using condom
during sex.
41. Describe in brief the role of (i) testis (ii) seminal vesicle, (iii) vas deferens, (iv) ureter and (v)
prostate gland in human male reproductive system.
Answer.
Testis: Testes are oval shaped primary reproductive organs in men. The function of testes is to
produce sperms and male sex hormone testosterone. The scrotum provides optimal temperature
for the formation of sperms.
Seminal vesicle: Seminal vesicles are a pair of thin walled muscular elongated sac which secrete
fluid for nourishment of sperms.
vas deferens: The sperms are carried by a long tube called vas deferens to organs called seminal
vesicles where the sperms get nourishment and stored.
Ureter It is the tube that carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder. In humans, there are two
ureters, one attached to each kidney.
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Prostate glands: Prostate glands produce a fluid which is released in the urethra along with
secretion of seminal vesicles for nourishment and transportation of sperms.
42. Draw a diagram of a human female reproductive system and label the part
(i) that produces egg
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm take place
(iii) where zygote is implanted
What happens to human egg when it is not fertilised?
Answer.
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If the egg is not fertilised, the thick and nourishing lining of the uterus breaks and comes out
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through vagina as blood and mucous.
43. State in brief the changes that take place in a fertilised egg (zygote) till birth of the child in
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the human female reproductive system. What happens to the egg when it is not fertilised?
Answer. The egg gets fertilised in the oviduct. The fertilised egg, the zygote gets implanted in the
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lining of the uterus and starts dividing. The uterus prepares itself every month to receive and
nurture the growing embryo. The lining thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the
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growing embryo.
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The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called
placenta. The development of the child inside the mother’s body takes approximately nine
months. On completion of 9 months, the child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the
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1. In the list of organisms given below, those that reproduce by the asexual method are
(i) banana
(ii) dog
(iii) yeast
(iv) Amoeba
2. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
(a) stamen and anther
(b) filament and stigma
(c) anther and ovary
(d) stamen and style
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3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower?
(a) pollination, fertilisation, seedling, embryo
(b) seedling, embryo, fertilisation, pollination
(c) pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seedling
(d) embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilization
4. Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves
because
(i) asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(iii) asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(iv) asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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(c) golgi bodies
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(d) genes
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6. Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
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(a) only similarities with parents
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(b) only variations with parents
(c) both similarities and variations with parents
(d) neither similarities nor variations
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9. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is called
(a) budding
(b) reduction division
(c) binary fission
(d) multiple fission
11. In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called
(a) filaments (b) hyphae (c) rhizoids (d) roots
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12. The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains constant
due to
(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
14. Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are
(i) large number of spores
(ii) availability of moisture and nutrients in bread
(iii) presence of tubular branched hyphae
(iv) formation of round shaped sporangia
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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15. Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between
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(a) pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
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(c) pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
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(d) upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
17. Which among the following statements are true for unisexual flowers?
(i) They possess both stamen and pistil
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18. Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
(i) It requires two types of gametes
(ii) Fertilisation is a compulsory event
(iii) It always results in formation of zygote
(iv) Offspring formed are clones
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
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20. In the below Figure, the parts A, B and C are sequentially
(a) cotyledon, plumule and radical (b) plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) plumule, cotyledon and radical (d) radicle, cotyledon and plumule
21. Offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations because
(a) sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
(b) genetic material comes from two parents of the same species
(c) genetic material comes from two parents of different species
(d) genetic material comes from many parents
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(a) keep the individual organism alive
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(b) fulfill their energy requirement
(c) maintain growth
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(d) continue the species generation after generation
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23. During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change associated with
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sexual maturation in boys
(a) loss of milk teeth (b) increase in height
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24. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
(a) process of mating
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25. Which among the following is not the function of testes at puberty?
(i) formation of germ cells
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26. The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of sperms is
(a) testis → vasdeferens → urethra
(b) testis → ureter → urethra
(c) testis → urethra → ureter
(d) testis → vasdeferens → ureter
27. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes are respectively :
(a) sepal and anther
(b) filament and stigma
(c) anther and ovary
(d) stamen and style
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28. In the list of organisms given below, those which reproduce by the asexual method are :
(i) banana
(ii) yak
(iii) yeast
(iv) Amoeba
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
29. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower ?
(a) pollination, fertilisation, seed, embryo
(b) seed, embryo, fertilisation, pollination
(c) pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seed
(d) embryo, seed, pollination, fertilization
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(b) Hepatitis
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(c) HIV - AIDS
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(d) Gonorrhoea
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ACIDS BASES AND SALTS
1. The pH of a sample of vegetable soup was found to be 6.5. How is this soup likely to taste?
Answer. The taste will be slightly sour as it is weakly acidic.
2. Which bases are called alkalies? Give an example of alkalies.
Answer. Soluble bases are called alkalies, e.g. sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
3. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium carbonate and
hydrochloric acid indicating the physical state of the reactants and the products.
Answer.
4. Write a balanced chemical equation for a neutralisation reaction, mentioning the physical
state of the reactants and the products.
Answer.
5. What happens when chlorine is passed over slaked lime at 313K? Write chemical equation
of the reaction involved and state two uses of the product obtained.
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Answer. Bleaching powder is formed.
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(i) It is used as bleaching agent in paper and textile industries.
(ii)It is used as disinfectant in purification of drinking water.
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6. What would be the colour of red litmus in a solution of sodium carbonate?
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Answer. The red litmus will change to blue in sodium carbonate solution.
7. Which gas is evolved when sodium hydrogencarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?
Answer.Carbon dioxide gas is evolved.
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Answer.Curd and sour substances contain acids which react with brass and copper vessels to
form poisonous salts which are harmful for our health.
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9. Name the gas usually liberated when a dilute acid reacts with a metal. What happens when
a burning candle is brought near this gas?
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Answer. H2 gas is liberated. It burns with pop sound when burning candle is brought near the gas.
10. What effect does an increase in concentration of H+(aq.) in a solution have on the pH of
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solution?
Answer.Higher the concentration, lower will be pH of the solution.
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11. Which one of these has a higher concentration of H+ ions ? 1 M HCl or 1 M CH3COOH
Answer.1 M HCl has higher concentration of H+ ions.
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12. Why does 1 M HC1 solution have a higher concentration of H+ ions than 1 M CH3COOH
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solution?
Answer.1 M HCl has higher cone, of (H+) because it ionises completely in aqueous solution
whereas CH3COOHdoes not as it is weak acid.
13. Which gas is generally liberated when a dilute solution of hydrochloric acid reacts with an
active metal?
Answer.Hydrogen gas is liberated when active metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
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16. A student detected the pH of four unknown solution A, B, C and D as follows 11, 5, 7 and 2.
Predict the nature of the solution.
Answer.A is basic ‘B’ is acidic ‘C’ is natural and ‘D’ is strongly acidic.
17. (i) Give the constituents of baking powder
(ii) Why cake or bread swells on adding baking powder? Write chemical equation.
Answer.
(i) Baking powder containg sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid.
(ii)It is due to carbon dioxide
18. How will you test for the gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active
metal?
Answer. Bring a burning matchstick near the gas. It burns with ‘pop’ sound showing that it is
hydrogen.
19. Name the acid present in the following:
(i) Tomato (ii) Vinegar (iii) Tamarind
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Answer. (i) Oxalic acid (ii) Acetic acid (iii) Tartaric acid
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20. Explain how antacid works.
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Answer. Hyperacidity is caused by excess of hydrochloric acid in stomach. Antacid is basic in
nature. It neutralizes excess of acid and gives relief from pain caused by hyperacidity.
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21. (a) Define olfactory indicators. Name two substances which can be used as olfactory
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indicator.
(b) Choose strong acids from the following:
CH3COOH, H2SO4, H2CO3, HNO3
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Answer.
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(a) Those substances whose smell (odour) changes in acidic or basic solution are called olfactory
indicators, e.g. onion and vanilla.
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23. Explain the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on the following with chemical equation:
(i) Magnesium ribbon (ii) Sodium hydroxide (iii) Crushed egg shells
Answer.
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24. State reason for the following statements:
(i) Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not.
(ii) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red whereas dilute hydrochloric
acid does.
(iii) During summer season, a milk man usually adds a very small amount of baking soda to
fresh milk.
(iv) For a dilution of acid, acid is added into water and not water into acid.
(v) Ammonia is a base but does not contain hydroxyl group.
Answer.
(i) Tap water contains ions which conduct electricity, distilled water does not contain ions.
(ii)Dry HCl does not form ions but HCl gives H+ and Cl–.
(iii) Baking soda does not allow milk to change to lactic acid which makes milk sour.
(iv) Adding water to acid is highly exothermic. Therefore water is added to acid very slowly with
cooling.
(v) Ammonia dissolves in water and forms H– Therefore, it is basic in nature.
25. (a) Write the chemical formula of hydrated copper sulphate and anhydrous copper
sulphate. Giving an activity illustrate how these are inter convertible.
(b) Write chemical names and formula of plaster of paris and gypsum.
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Answer.
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(a)CuSO4.5H2O is hydrated copper sulphate. CuSO4 is anhydrous copper sulphate.
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Aim: To show crystalline salts contain water of crystallization.
Material Required: CuSO4.5H2O (Blue vitriol), boiling tube, burner, cork,
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delivery tube, test tube, clamp stand.
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Procedure: 1.Take 2g of CuSO4.5H2O in a boiling tube fitted in a clamp stand.
2.Observe its colour. Fit it with cork and delivery tube bent at two right angles which dips into a
test tube.
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blue again.
Chemical Reaction :
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Conclusion : Crystalline substances have water of crystallization which are lost on heating. When
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we add water inCuSO4till a saturated solution is formed. On cooling, it gets converted into
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26. (a) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water. Give an example.
(b) How is tooth decay related to pH? How can it be prevented?
(c) Why does bee sting cause pain and irritation? Rubbing of baking soda on the sting area
gives relief. How?
Answer.(a) Alkali, e.g. NaOH (Sodium hydroxide).
(b) Lower the pH, more will be tooth decay. Acid reacts with Ca3(PO4)2 and cause tooth decay.
It can be prevented by brushing teeth after every meal.
(ic) It is due to formic acid. Sodium hydrogencarbonate (Baking soda) neutralises formic acid
giving relief.
27. (a) State the chemical properties on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
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(ii) as a soda acid fire extiguisher
(iii) to make bread and cake soft and spongy.
Answer.
(b) How is washing soda is obtained from baking soda? Write balanced chemical equation.
(a) (i) It is weakly basic in nature and naturalize hyperacidity.
(ii)It liberates CO2 with H2SO4, which extinguish fire.
(iii) It liberates CO2 on heating which makes bread and cake soft and sponge.
28. Describe an activity with diagram to illustrate that the reaction of metal carbonates and
metal bicarbonates with acids produces carbon dioxide. Write the relevant equations of all
the reactions that take place. Name any two forms in which calcium carbonate is found in
nature.
Answer.
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Aim: To show acid reacts with metal carbonate to liberate carbon dioxide,
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Material Required: CaCO3(marble chips), Woulfe-bottle, thistle funnel, dil. HCl, gas jar,
matchbox, delivery tube bent at two right angles, lime water.
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Procedure:
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Take two test tubes, label them as A and B.
Take about 0.5 g of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) in test tube A and about 0.5 g of sodium
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hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) in test tube B.
Add about 2 mL of dilute HCl to both the test tubes.
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Pass the gas produced in each case through lime water (calcium hydroxide solution) as shown in
below figure and record your observations.
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Conclusion: Metal carbonates react with dilute acids to liberate carbon dioxide. Limestone,
chalk, marble are different forms of calcium carbonate. All metal carbonates and hydrogen
carbonates react with acids to form corresponding salts, water and carbon dioxide.
29. “Sodium hydrogencarbonate is a basic salt”. Justify the statement. How is it converted into
washing soda? Explain.
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Answer. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a salt of sodium hydroxide (strong base) and carbonic
acid (weak acid).
It is basic salt. It is converted into washing soda by heating followed by crystallization.
30. (a) Identify the acid and the base whose combination forms the common salt that you use in
your food. Write its formula and chemical name of this salt. Name the source from where it
is obtained.
(b) What is rock salt? Mention its colour and the reason due to which it has this colour.
(c) What happens when electricity is passed through brine? Write the chemical equation for
it.
Answer.
(a) HCl is acid and NaOH is base whose combination forms the common salt. Its formula is NaCl
(Sodium chloride). It is obtained from sea water.
(b) Rock salt is the common name for the mineral “halite”. Its chemical formula is NaCl.
It may be white or light blue or yellow depending upon impurities present in it.
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31. (i) Explain why is hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid, a weak acid. How can it
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be verified?
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(ii) Explain why aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity.
(iii) You have four solutions A, B, C and D. The pH of solution A is 6, B is 9, C is 12 and D is
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7,
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(a) Identify the most acidic and most basic solutions.
(b) Arrange the above four solutions in the increasing order of H+ ion concentration.
(c) State the change in colour of pH paper on dipping in solution C and D.
D
Answer.
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(i) HCl is completely ionised in aqueous solution whereas acetic acid is partially ionised in
aqueous solution. HCl gives dark red colour with pH paper whereasCH3COOH gives orange
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colour
(ii) It is because acid ionises in aqueous solution and these ions conduct electricity. (Hi) (a) ‘A’ is
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disinfecting drinking water. Write its chemical name and formula. How is it manufactured?
Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved. Also list two other uses of the
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compound.
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33. (a) Mention the pH range within which our body works. Explain how antacids
give relief from acidity. Write the name of one such antacid.
(b) Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How does the pH will change as it turns to curd? Explain your
answer.
(c) A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. Why does this milk
take a longer time to set as curd?
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(d) Mention the nature of toothpastes. How do they prevent tooth decay?
Answer.
(a) Our stomach has pH equal to 2. Antacids neutralizes excess of acid in our body and gives
relief from hyperacidity. Sodium hydrogencarbonate is one of such antacid.
(b) pH will decrease as it turns to curd because curd is acidic due to the presence of lactic acid.
(c) It takes longer time to set as curd as bacteria do not work well in presence of sodium
hydrogencarbonate, i.e. fermentation will take place slowly.
(d) Toothpastes are basic in nature. They neutralize the acid formed in mouth which causes tooth
decay.
34. (a) Crystals of a substance changed their colour on heating in a closed test tube but regained
it after sometime when they were allowed to cool down. Name the substance and write its
formula and explain the phenomenon involved.
(b) Name the compound whose one formula unit is associated with 10 water molecules. How
is it prepared? Give equations of related reactions. Give two uses of the compound.
Answer.
(a) CuSO4.5H2O is a blue crystalline solid. It becomes dirty white on heating due to loss of water
molecules and it becomes amorphous.
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It regains its colour by absorbing water from atmosphere and becomes blue in colour.
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(b)Na2CO3. 10H2O. It is called sodium carbonate decahydrate or washing soda. It is prepared by
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Uses:
(i) It is used in the production of washing powder.
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35. (a) Explain the following with the help of balanced chemical equations only.
(i) When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate.
(ii)When an acid reacts with a metal bicarbonate.
(iii) When an acid reacts with a metal oxide.
(b) You are given three solutions A, B and C with pH values 2, 10 and 13 respectively. Write
which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration among the three and state the nature
‘acidic or basic’ of each solution.
Answer.
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36. a) A metal compound ‘X’ reacts with dil. H2SO4 to produce effervescence, The gas evolved
extinguishes a burning candle. If one of the compound formed is calcium sulphate, then
what is ‘X’ and the gas evolved? Also, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction
which occurred.
(b) (i) Name one antacid. How does it help tq relieve indigestion in stomach?
(ii) A farmer treats the soil with quicklime or calcium carbonate. What is the nature of soil?
Why does the farmer treat the soil with quicklime?
Answer.
(b) (i) NaHCO3 is antacid. It neutralizes excess of acid formed in the stomach.
(ii) The soil is acidic in nature. The farmer wants to make it neutral by adding quicklime which is
good for crops.
37. What are strong and weak acids? In the following list of acids, separate strong acids from
weak acids. Hydrochloric acid, citric acid, acetic acid, nitric acid, formic acid, sulphuric
acid.
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Answer. Strong acids are those acids which are completely ionised in aqueous solution. Weak
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acids are those which do not ionise completely in aqueous solution. Strong acid: HCl,
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HNO3,H2SO4 Weak acid: Citric acid, acetic acid, formic acid.
38. State the chemical name of Plaster of Paris. Write a chemical equation to show the reaction
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between Plaster of Paris and water.
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Answer. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate.
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39. State in brief the preparation of washing soda from baking soda. Write balanced
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Baking soda on heating gives sodium carbonate which on crystallisation from aqueous solution
gives washing soda, e.g.
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Answer. Pale green is the colour of FeSO4.7H2O crystals. It becomes dirty white on heating.
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41. Classify the following salts into acidic, basic and neutral: Potassium sulphate, ammonium
chloride, sodium carbonate, sodium chloride.
Answer. Neutral: Potassium sulphate, Sodium chloride Acidic: Ammonium chloride Basic:
Sodium carbonate
42. State reasons for the following statements:
(i) Stain of curry on a white cloth becomes reddish brown when soap is scrubbed on it and
turns yellow again when the cloth in washed with plenty of water.
(ii) Curd should not be kept in copper or brass vessels. What is done to protect it?
Answer. (i) Turmeric reacts with sodium hydroxide present in soap to form red coloured
compound. It turns yellow again because sodium hydroxide becomes very dilute on adding lot of
water and reaction stops.
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(ii) Curd contains lactic acid which reacts with copper or brass vessels and taste changes. Curd
should be kept in glass, steel or ceramic container which does not react with lactic acid present in
it.
43. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute HC1 contained in a test tube. The evolved
gas was passed through lime water.
(i) What change would be observed in lime water?
(ii) Write balanced chemical equation for the above change.
Answer.
(i) Lime water will turn milky due to formation of calcium carbonate.
(ii) Ca(OH) 2 (aq) + CO2 (g)—> Ca CO3 (s) + HaO(l)
44. (a) What is universal indicator?
(b) Write the chemical equation involved in the preparation of sodium hydroxide. Name the
process.
Answer. (a) Universal indicator is the mixture of synthetic indicators which is used to find pH of
solutions.
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45. A gas ‘X’ reacts with lime water and forms a compound ‘Y’ which is used as a bleaching
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agent in chemical industry. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y\ Give the chemical equation of the reactions
involved.
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Answer. ‘X’ is chlorine; ‘Y’ is bleaching powder. SC
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46. (i) Name the compound which is obtained from baking soda and is used to remove
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Answer.
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(i) Sodium carbonate is obtained from baking soda and is used to remove hardness of water.
(ii) Na2CO3 .
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Answer. The reaction between acid and base to form salt and water is called neutralization
reaction. e.g. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O and 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
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48. What is tooth enamel chemically? State the condition when it starts corroding. What
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happens when food particles left in the mouth after eating degrade? Why do doctors suggest
use of tooth powder/toothpaste to prevent tooth decay?
Answer. It is made up of calcium phosphate.
It starts corroding due to acid formed in mouth. The food particles which are left in mouth form
acids which cause tooth decay. Toothpaste and tooth powder are basic and neutralise acid formed
in mouth which prevents tooth decay.
49. What is Plaster of Paris chemically? How is it prepared? List its two important uses.
Answer. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate.
It is prepared by heating gypsum at 373 K.
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50. What is baking soda chemically called? Give reaction involved in its preparation. Write one
of its uses.
Answer. Sodium hydrogen carbonate.
It is used as an antacid.
51. Compounds like alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as
acids. Discuss an activity to prove it.
Answer.Take a beaker of 250 ml and place two nails fixed with the help of cork.
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• Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6 volt battery as shown in figure.
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• Now add some water containing ethanol and put the switch ON.
• Repeat the experiment with glucose solution.
Observation : K The bulb will not glow and the needle of ammeter will not show deflection
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Conclusion: The experiment shows glucose and ethanol do not ionise in aqueous solution, that is,
they do not give H+ ions, therefore cannot conduct electricity. Thus, glucose and ethanol are not
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categorised as acids.
52. What is meant by ‘water of crystallisation’ of a substance ? Describe an activity to show
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crystallisation’.
To show crystalline salts contain water of crystallisation.
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Materials Required: CuS04.5H20 (Blue vitriol), boiling tube, burner, cork, delivery tube, test
tube, clamp stand.
Procedure:
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1. Take 2g of CuS04.5H20 in a boiling tube fitted in a clamp stand.
2. Observe its colour. Fit it with cork and delivery tube bent at two right angles which dips into a
test tube.
3. Heat crystals in boiling tube. ‘
4. Observe vapours being condensed in test tube.
5. Cool the crystals and add few drops of water into it.
Observation: Water vapours get condensed in a test tube and colour of blue crystals changes into
white. On adding water to anhydrous copper sulphate, it changes into blue again.
Chemical Reaction:
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(c) carbon dioxide is passed into lime water.
Answer.
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(a) Sodium chloride and water are formed.
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(b) Sodium zincate and H2(g) are formed.
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A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and fluffy. Write
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the name of the powder. Name its main ingredients. Explain the function of each ingredient.
Write the chemical reaction taking place when the powder is heated during baking.
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Sodium hydrogen carbonate gives CO2 which makes cake soft and fluffy. Tartaric acid neutralizes
the bitterness due to sodium carbonate produced.
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2. Which of the following indicators is an olfactory indicator?
(a) litmus (b) vanilla (c) turmeric (d) phenolphthalein
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6. A teacher gave two test tubes – one containing water and the other containing sodium hydroxide
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solution to two students. Then he asked them to identify the test tube containing sodium
hydroxide solution. Which one of the following can be used for correctly identifying the test tube
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containing the solution of sodium hydroxide?
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(a) Blue litmus (b) Red litmus (c) Sodium carbonate solution (d) Dilute HCl
7. Metallic oxides are ________ in nature, but non-metallic oxides are __________ in nature. The
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(a) neutral, acidic (b) acidic, basic (c) basic, neutral (d) basic, acidic
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8. When a drop of unknown solution X is placed on a strip of pH paper, a deep red colour is
produced. This sample is which one of these?
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9. A student tests a sample drinking water and reports its pH value as 6 at room temperature. Which
one of the following might have been added in water?
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(a) Calcium chloride (b) Sodium chloride (c) Sodium bicarbonate (d) Bleaching powder
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10. Solid sodium bicarbonate was placed on a strip of pH paper. The color of the strip
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(a) turned red (b) did not change (c) turned green and slightly yellow (d) turned pink
11. Four drops of red litmus solution were added to each of the following samples. Which one turns
red litmus blue?
(a) Alcohol (b) Distilled water (c) Sodium hydroxide sol (d) HCl
12. The pH of which of the following samples can not be found directly using pH paper?
(a) Lemon juice (b) Dilute HCl (c) Solid sodium bicarbonate (d) Solution of a detergent.
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15. To relieve pain caused due to acidity, we can take
(a) sour milk (b) lemon juice (c) orange juice (d) milk of magnesia
16. What are the products obtained when potassium sulphate reacts with barium iodide in an aqueous
medium?
(a) KI and BaSO4 (b) KI, Ba and SO2 (c) K, I2 and BaSO4 (d) K, Ba, I2 and SO2
19. You are given four unknown solutions I, II, III, and IV. The pH values of these solutions are
found to be 3, 7, 8, and 10 respectively. Among the given solutions, which solution has the
highest hydrogen ion concentration?
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
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20. Which one of the following is required to identify the gas evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid
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reacts with zinc metal?
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(a) blue litmus paper (b) red litmus paper (c) a burning slinter (d) lime water
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21. Zinc reacts with an acid as well as with a base to liberate hydrogen. On the basis of this what
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should be the nature of the zinc metal?
(a) basic (b) acidic (c) amphoteric (d) neutral
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22. When you test the solutions of sodium bicarbonate, sodium hydroxide, hydrochloric acid and
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acetic acid with universal indicator, in which case would you get a red colour?
(a) sodium bicarbonate (b) hydrochloric acid (c) sodium hydroxide (d) acetic acid
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23. The pH of a sample of pure water is 7 at room temperature. What is its pH when a pinch of solid
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24. If an unknown solution turns blue litmus red, then the pH of the solution is more likely to be (a)
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26. There are alternate acid base theories that define an acid as any species that can
{hint: According to Bronsted-Lowry theory, an acid is any species that can donate a proton to
another species.}
(a) donate a proton (2) donate an electron (c) accept a proton (d) accept an electron
27. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(iv) Salt formation takes place
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
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28. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following
solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder (b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution (d) Hydrochloric acid
29. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed
through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the
guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas
(b) moisten the gas
(c) absorb moisture from the gas
(d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
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32. What is the colour methyl orange in alkaline medium?
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a) orange b) yellow c) red d) blue
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33. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH will be:
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a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 10
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34. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water Milky, the solution
contains:
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37. Which of one of the following pairs of substances when mixed together produces table salt.
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38. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH=1) turn universal indicator.
a) Orange b) purple c) yellow d) red
39. Which one of the following medicines is used for treating indigestion.
a) Antibiotic b) analgesic c) antacid d) antiseptic
41. Which of the following is the most accurate way of representing neutralization?
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a) Acid + base → neutral solution
b) Acid + base → salt + water
c) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
d) Acid + base → acidic solution
42. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) Gypsum
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45. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns
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the pH paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper
to greenish-blue?
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(a) Lemon juice
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(b) Vinegar
(c) Common salt
(d) An antacid
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46. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acidic strength?
(a) Water <Acetic acid <Hydrochloric acid
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47. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student, what should be
done?
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hydrogencarbonate
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(c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand
(d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali
48. Sodium hydrogencarbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following
statements are true about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
(iv) It has a pungent odour
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
49. Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making
(i) washing soda
(ii) bleaching powder
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(iii) baking soda
(iv) slaked lime
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
50. One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogen carbonate, the other constituent is
(a) hydrochloric acid
(b) tartaric acid
(c) acetic acid
(d) sulphuric acid
51. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the tooth paste
commonly used is
(a) acidic
(b) neutral
(c) basic
(d) corrosive
52. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
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(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
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(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
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(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
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(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
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53. Which of the following phenomena occur, when a small amount of acid is added to water?
(i) Ionisation
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(ii) Neutralisation
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(iii) Dilution
(iv) Salt formation
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apparatus (see below Figure) was set up. Which among the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not acidic
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(ii) Bulb will glow because NaOH is a strong base and furnishes ions for conduction.
(iii) Bulb will not glow because circuit is incomplete
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(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends upon the type of electrolytic solution
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55. Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold?
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Aqua regia
56. Which one of the following can be used as an acid–base indicator by a visually impared student?
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(a) Litmus (b) Turmeric (c) Vanilla essence (d) Petunia leaves
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57. Which of the following substance will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute acid?
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(a) Marble (b) Limestone (c) Baking soda (d) Lime
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58. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
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(a) Lime juice (b) Human blood (c) Lime water (d) Antacid
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(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Citric acid (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Nitric acid
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(a) All metal carbonates react with acid to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide
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(b) All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid
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(c) Some metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen
(d) Some non metal oxides react with water to form an acid
63. Which of the following is(are) true when HCl (g) is passed through water?
(i) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a covalent compound.
(ii) It ionises in the solution
(iii) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in the solution
(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water
molecule
(a) (i) only (b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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(c) Sour and change blue litmus to red
(d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red
65. Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(a) H3O+ + Cl–
(b) H3O+ + OH–
(c) Cl– + OH–
(d) unionised HCl
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CONTROL AND COORDINATION
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [1 MARK]
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pressure, it increases heart beat rate, it increases breathing rate and it diverts blood to essential
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organs including the heart, brain and skeletal muscles by dilating their blood vessels and
constricting those of less essential organs, such as the skin and digestive system.
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5. A young green plant receives sunlight from one direction only. What will happen to its
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shoots ? SC
Answer. Shoots will bend towards the light and roots away from the light.
6. Name the plant hormones which help/promote (i) cell division (ii) growth of the stem and
roots?
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Answer. Thyroxine hormone regulates the carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body
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Answer. The two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals are
nervous and muscular tissues.
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Answer.
(i) Movement on the touch-sensitive plant.
10. Name the part of the brain which controls posture and balance of the body.
Answer. Cerebellum in hind-brain controls the posture and balance of the body.
11. Mention the part of the body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
Answer. Gustatory receptors are located in Cerebrum of fore-brain. Olfactory receptors are
located in Olfactory lobe of fore-brain.
12. State the function of:
(i) gustatory receptors, and
(ii) olfactory receptors.
Answer. (i) Gustatory receptors – these are sensitive to taste
(ii) Olfactory receptors – these are sensitive to smell.
13. Why is it advised to use iodised salt in our diet ?
Answer. Iodine stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxin hormone. Deficiency of this
hormone results in the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This can lead to goitre.
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14. State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot
which is away from light ?
Answer. When light falls on the side of the shoot auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the
shoot. This concentration of the auxin stimulates the cell to grow longer on the side of the shoot
which is away from light. Thus plant appears to bend towards light.
15. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes its growth. Where it is synthesized ?
Answer. Plant hormone that promotes growth is auxin. It is synthesized at the tip of the plant
stem.
16. Name the two components of central nervous systems in humans.
Answer. The two components of Central Nervous System in human are brain and spinal cord.
17. What is the significance of reflex action?
Answer. Reflex action enables the animal to respond quickly and relieves the brain from excess
work.
18. Give one example of chemotropism.
Answer. The growth of pollen tube towards a chemical produced by ovule during fertilisation of
flower is an example of chemotropism.
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19. Where are Nissl’s granules found and what is their nature?
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Answer. Nissl’s granules are found in cyton and dendrites. These are formed of ribonucleic acid
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(RNA).
20. Name the fluid that is found between the meninges.
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Answer. Cerebrospinal fluid.
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION [I] [2 MARKS]
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21. What is synapse ? In a neuron cell how is an electrical impulse created and what is the role
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in close proximity to the dendrite of the second neuron. When a nerve impulse reaches the knob
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like nerve ending of an axon, a tiny amount of a chemical substance is released in the synapse.
This chemical substance is called as the neurotransmitter. At synapse the electrical signals
converted into chemicals, that can easily cross over the gap and pass on to the next neurons where
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role in sending command to muscles to act without involving thinking process? Name the
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phenomenon involved.
Answer.The two main organs of CNS are brain and spinal cord.
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Spinal cord plays a major role in sending command to muscles to act without involving thinking
process. This phenomenon is called reflex action.
23. Name the hormone secreted by human testes. State its functions.
Answer. Testes secrete male sex hormone called testosterone. The function of testosterone is to
regulate male accessory sex organs and secondary sexual characters like moustache, beard and
voice.
24. Name and explain the function of the hormone secreted by the pituitary gland in humans.
Answer. Hormones secreted by pituitary gland alongwith their functions are:
Growth hormone: It regulates growth and development ofbones and muscles.
Trophic hormone: It regulates secretion of hormones from other endocrine glands.
Prolactin hormone: It regulates the function of mammary glands in females.
Vasopressin hormone: It regulates water and electrolyte balance in the body,
Oxytocin hormone : It regulates ejection of milk during lactation.
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25. What are ‘nastic’ and ‘curvature’ movements? Give one example of each.
Answer. Nastic movements: These are non-directional movements which are neither towards nor
away from the stimulus. Example: Dropping of leaves.
Curvature movements: In such movements plant organs move towards or away from the stimulus.
Example: Bending of shoot towards a source of light.
26. Write the name and functions of any two parts of the human hind-brain.
Answer.Any two parts of human hind-brain with their functions are as follows:
(i) Cerebellum, which controls the coordination ofbody movement and posture. (ii) Medulla
oblongata, which regulates the centre of swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.
27. What are plant hormones? Write two important functions of auxin.
Answer. Plant hormones can be defined as a chemical substance which is produced naturally in
plants and are capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes when
present in low concentration. .
Two important functions of auxin are that it promotes cell elongation, root formation, cell
division, etc.
28. Which organ secretes a hormone when bloo’d sugar rises in our body? Name the hormone
and name one enzyme released by this organ.
Answer.Pancreas secretes a hormone when blood sugar rises in our body. Insulin is the hormone
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released by this organ and the name of the enzyme is pancreatic juice.
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29. (a) Which plant hormone is present in greater concentration in the areas of rapid cell
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division?
(b) Give one example of a plant growth promoter and a plant growth inhibitor.
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Answer.
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(a) Cytokinin is present in greater concentration in the areas of rapid cell division.
(b) An example of a plant growth promoter is gibberellins and example of a plant growth inhibitor
is abscisic acid.
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30. (i) Name the hormones that are released in human males and females when they reach
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puberty.
(ii) Name a gland associated with brain. Which problem is caused due to the deficiency of
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(ii)Pituitary gland present in the brain is responsible for body growth, development of bones and
muscles (if excess-gigantism) (if less-dwarfism).
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34. Distinguish between sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer.
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Answer.
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36. Smita’s father has been advised by a doctor to reduce his sugar intake.
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Name the disease he is suffering from and name the hormone whose deficiency is? ,
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Identify the gland that secretes it and mention the function of this hormone.
Explain how the time and amount of secretion of this hormone is regulated in human
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system.
Answer.
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When the sugar level in blood increases, it is detected by the a-cells of the pancreas which
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responds by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.
37. State the functions of plant hormones. Name four different types of plant hormones.
Answer. Plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development and responses in environment.
Four different types of plant hormones are – Auxins, Gibberellins, Cytokinins, Ethylene and
Abscisic acid.
Auxins control the tropic (growth related) movements of the plants in response to light,
gravity, touch etc by increasing the size of cells. Under the influence of auxins, the plant
stem bends towards unidirectional light where as the roots bend away from it.
Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation and leaf expansion. Its application causes stem
elongation in small plants such as cabbage. Spraying gibberellins on sugarcane plant
increases the stem size and hence the yield.
Cytokinins are produced in regions of the plant body where rapid cell division occur, such
as root tips, developing shoot buds, young fruits and seeds. Cytokinins promote growth by
stimulating cell division. They also help in production of new leaves and chloroplasts in
leaves.
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Ethylene causes ripening of the fruits.
Abscisic acid inhibits (i.e., slows down) the growth in different parts of the plant body. It
also inhibits germination of seeds. It increases the tolerance of plant to different kinds of
stresses such as temperature changes. So, it is also called the stress hormone in plants. It
also causes the drying and falling of older leaves, flowers and fruits.
38. (a) How is brain protected from injury and shock?
(b) Name two main parts of hind brain and state the functions of each.
Answer.
(a) Brain is covered by a three layered membrane called meninges. In between the layers of
meninges and brain, cavity fluid named Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF) is filled. The hard skull
covers the meninges. Thus Meninges, CSF and Skull protects our brain for a certain extent.
(b) Two main parts of hind-brain are — Medulla and Cerebellum. Their functions are:
Medulla : Involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.
Cerebellum : It is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and
balance of the body.
39. (a) Draw the structure of neuron and label cell body and axon.
(b) Name the part of neuron:
(i) where information is acquired
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(ii) through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
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Answer. (a) A nerve cell (Neuron)
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Answer.
41. What is synapse? In a neuron cell how is an electrical impulse created and what is the role
of synapse in this context?
Answer. Synapse is the junction between two adjustment neuron or nerve cells, i.e. between axon
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ending of one and the dendrite of the next. Transmission of Nerve Impulse. The information
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acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a neuron sets off a chemical reaction which creates an
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electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cyton along the axon to its end.
At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals, which cross
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the synapse and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron. In this way
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nerve impulses travel in the body. Synapse helps in transmitting impulses from one neuron to
another.
42. Write one example each of the following tropic movements :
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44. List in tabular form three differences between nervous system and Endocrine system.
Answer.
45. (a) Explain how auxins help in bending of plant stem towards light.
(b) State the objective of the experiment for which experimental set-up is shown in the given
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diagram.
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Answer.
(a) In plant shoots, the role of auxin is to cause a positive phototropism, i.e. to grow the plant
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towards the light. When light is incident on a plant from one direction, it causes the auxins to
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redistribute towards the shaded side of the plant. One function of auxin is to cause cell elongation.
The redistribution causes the cells on the shaded side to elongate more than those on the side with
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the light shining on them. This causes the shoot to bend towards the light.
(b) The objective of the experiment is to show phototropic movement of plant.
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46. What causes a tendril to encircle or coil around the object in contact with it is? Explain the
process involved.
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Answer. When a tendril comes in contact with any support, the part of the tendril in contact with
the object does not grow as rapidly as the part away of the tendril away from the object. This
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cause the tendril to circle around the object and thus, cling to it.
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47. Name any three endocrine glands in human body and briefly write the function of each of
them.
Answer.Three endocrine glands with their function in human body are as follows:
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Thyroid gland : It secretes a hormone called thyroxine which regulates the metabolism of
carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and so provide the best balance for nutrients
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48. Which part of the brain controls involuntary actions? Write the function of any two regions
of it. Answer. Hind-brain controls the involuntary actions. Cerebellum controls the coordination
of body movement and posture. Medulla oblongata regulates center for swallowing, coughing,
sneezing and vomiting.
49. What is chemotropism? Give one example. Name any two plant hormones and mention
their functions.
Answer. Chemotropism is the movement of a part of the plant in response to a chemical stimulus.
It can be positive chemotropism or negative chemotropism. Example: The growth of pollen tube
towards a chemical which is produced by an ovule during the process of fertilisation in a flower.
Two plant hormones with their functions are as follows:
Auxins promote cell elongation, root formation, cell division, respiration and other physiological
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processes like protein synthesis, etc.
Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation, seed germination and flowering.
50. State the functions of any three of the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
Answer. The structural and functional unit of nervous system, i.e. neuron with their functions are
as
Cell body: Stimulus received from dendrite is changed into impulse in the cyton.
Dendrites: They receive sensation or stimulus, which may be physical or chemical.
Axon: It conducts impulse away from the cell body.
51. Define ‘hormones’. Name the hormone secreted by thyroid. Write its function. Why is the
use of iodised salt advised to us?
Answer. Hormones are the chemical substances which coordinate and control the activities of
living organisms and also their growth. The hormone secreted by thyroid is thyroxine. Its function
is to regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body so as to provide the
best balance for growth. The use of iodised salt is advised to us because iodine is necessary for
the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine hormone. Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and
fat metabolism which is required for growth. Deficiency of iodine in the body causes disorder like
swollen neck and disease called goitre.
52. What is ‘hydrotropism’? Describe an experiment to demonstrate ‘hydrotropism’.
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Answer. ‘Hydrotropism’ is the directional growth of a plant part in response to water. For
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example, roots show hydrotropism as they grow towards water in the soil and are positively
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hydrotropic.
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An experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism is as follows:
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A porous pot filled with water is taken and inserted in a tub filled with dry sand.
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As water is not available in sand, the root growing will bend towards the porous pot filled
with water.
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53. What are ‘hormones’? State one function of each of the following hormones:
(i) Thyroxine (ii) Insulin
Answer. Hormones are the chemical substances which coordinate and control the activities of
living organisms and also their growth. The term hormone was introduced by Bayliss and
Starling.
(i) Function of Thyroxine: This hormone regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats.
(ii) Function of insulin: This hormone helps in regulating sugar level in the blood.
54. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situation where receptors do not
work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer. Receptors are present in our all parts of the body for example in skin, eye, nose tongue
etc. They detect the signals and then send them to brain in the form of electrical signals. If these
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receptors are damaged then it they will not detect the input which leads to the harm for our body
in dangerous situation.
55. What is a reflex action? Describe the steps involved in a reflex action.
Answer.
Reflex action: Jt is defined as an unconscious, automatic and involuntary response of effectors,
i.e. muscles and glands, to a stimulus, which is monitored through the spinal cord.
Mechanism of reflex action : It involves the following steps:
Receptor organ like skin perceives the stimulus and activates a sensory nerve impulse.
Sensory organ carries message in the form of sensory impulse to the spinal cord.
The spinal cord acts as modulator : The neurons of spinal cord transmit the sensory nerve
impulse to motor neuron.
Motor never conducts these impulses to the effectors like leg muscles which responds by
pulling back the organ away from the harmful stimulus.
56. List the components of reflex arc in correct sequence. State in brief the role of brain in
reflex action.
Answer. The reflex arc pathway is shown in the flow chart as follows:
L
The Reflex arc does not involve brain. It minimises the overloading of brain.
O
O
H
SC
D
RL
O
W
AL
57. (a) Name the two main constituents of the Central Nervous System in human beings.
D
(b) What is the need for a system of control and coordination in human
beings?
N
Answer.(a) The two main constituents of the Central Nervous System in human beings are the
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58. Mr. Bora has a habit to iron his shirt every morning before going to office. One morning he
forgot to keep the hot iron in proper place and left for office. His two years old daughter
touched the iron and her hand got burnt. Mrs. Bora immediately put the hand of her
daughter under a running tap as a first aid.
(a) What value was shown by Mrs. Bora?
(b) How do we react when we touch a hot object?
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(c) What other materials commonly cause burn injury?
Answer. (a) Mrs. Bora showed the value of adequate knowledge on a subject and capability to
use it when required.
(b) We immediately remove the hand from the hot object due to reflex action.
(c) Hot running water, hot tea/coffee/milk/water, hot cooking ware, hot food items and hot
electrical appliances are other common materials which commonly cause burn injury.
59. A young boy met an accident while riding a bike. Petrolling police found the boy and
brought him to a hospital for treatment. After the accident, the boy lost his memory
completely. Left side of his body also suffered from paralysis.
(a) What values were shown by police persons?
(b) Which injured body part can cause paralysis?
(c) What precaution should one take while riding a two-wheeler?
Answer. (a) The values showed by the police persons were truthful to duty and humanity.
(b) Injury to brain or spinal cord can cause paralysis.
(c) Riders must wear helmets while riding a two-wheeler. One must drive in a controlled speed to
avoid accident.
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O
O
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
H
60. (a) Name the hormone which is released into the blood when its sugar level rises. Explain
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the need of Chemical communication in multicellular organisms the organ which produces
this hormone and its effect on blood sugar level. Also mention the digestive enzymes
D
Answer.
(a) Glucose is needed by cells for respiration. It is important that the concentration of glucose in
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the blood is maintained at a constant level. Insulin is a hormone produced by the a-cells that
regulates glucose levels in the blood.
W
In order for multicellular organisms to function properly, their cells must communicate. For
instance, your muscles must contract when your brain sends a message to contract.
AL
Pancreas produces insulin and p-cells which increase glucose in blood. It also – produces
digestive enzyme (pancreatic amylase).
D
(b) Cell-to-cell signaling is a critical component of coordinating cellular activities. Through this
N
communication, messages are carried from signaling cells to receiving cells, also known as target
cells. This signaling occurs with proteins and other types of signaling molecules. Other things
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which happens in our body due to cell communication are – growth and development, cellular
reproduction, tissue repair, sensing pain, etc.
61. What is meant by reflex-action ? With the help of a labelled diagram trace the sequence of
events which occur when we touch a hot object.
Answer.Stimulus: In the example above, the stimulus is the contact with the hot pot. This contact
causes a nerve impulse that will travel to the spinal cord via the sensory neurons.
Sensory neurons: These neurons carry the nerve impulse to the spinal cord. Similar to the
interneuron and motor neuron, sensory neurons receive incoming impulses at the dendrites. The
impulses move away from the cell body along the axon to the synaptic terminal where the
impulse is sent to the next interneuron with the help of a neurotransmitter (acetylcholine).
Interneurons: The interneuron is also known as relay neuron. These neurons are fully contained in
the central nervous system. The interneuron serves as the connection between the sensory neurons
and the motor neurons. Synapse: The synapse is a tiny space between two neurons. When an
impulse gets to the end of one neuron and has to be sent down to the next neuron, the synapse acts
as a bridge. The signal arrives at the end of one neuron (close to the synapse) as an electrical
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signal, crosses the synapse as a chemical signal (with the help of a neurotransmitter known as
acetylcholine released by the synaptic vesicles at the synaptic terminal) and continues as an
electrical signal in the next neuron.
Motor neurons: These neurons send nerve impulses away from the central nervous system to
effector organs or muscle fiber in our example above. This causes the muscle fiber to contract,
resulting in you snatching your hand away from the hot pot.
L
O
Response: To respond to the stimulus of the reflex arc, the muscle needs to contract to pull the
O
hand quickly away from the hot pot. For this to happen, the impulse travels to the synaptic
H
terminal of the motor neuron. Synaptic vesicles at the synaptic . terminal will then release
acetylcholine which will cross the synapse and bind to the receptors on the muscle fibers to
SC
trigger the muscle contraction known as the ‘response’.
62. State the structural and the functional unit of the nervous system. Draw its neat labelled
D
63. What is a reflex arc? Draw a neat labelled diagram of the components in a reflex arc. Why
do impulses flow only in one direction in a reflex arc?
Answer. Reflex arc is the pathway taken by the nerve impulses and responses in a reflex action,
i.e. from the receptor organs like skin to the spinal cord and from the spinal cord to the effector
organs like muscles.
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Impulses flow only in one direction in a reflex arc, because each synapse in the reflex arc allows
impulses to cross it in a single direction.
64. Suggest six reflex actions of the body. Explain how the reflex arc is the same in all of them.
Answer. Six reflex actions of the body are:
(i) When we see a speeding car moving towards us, we move aside.
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(ii) We withdraw our hands on being pricked by a pin.
O
(iii) We withdraw our hands on touching very hot substance.
O
(iv) We close our eyes on seeing direct sun or extremely bright source of light.
(v) We close our eyes on hearing a loud noise.
H
(vi) We shiver on feeling cold.
SC
Reflex arc in all the above cases is same because in all the cases, the stimulus is received by sense
organs. Then this information is carried to spinal cord through sensory nerves. Thus, information
from spinal cord is sent to the effectors such as muscles via motor neurons.
D
RL
O
65. (a)
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D
N
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(i) Name the parts labelled A and B in the neuron drawn above.
(ii) Which part acquires the information in the neuron?
(iii) Through which part does the information travel?
(iv) In what form does this information travel?
(v) Where is the impulse converted into a chemical signal for onward transmission?
(b) Name the hormone secreted by thyroid. What is its function? Why is the use of iodised
salt advisable.
Answer. (a) (i) A – Dendrite, B – Axon
(ii) The information in the neuron is acquired at the end of the dendrite tip.
(iii) The information travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its end.
(iv) The information travels in the form of an impulse.
(v) The impulse is converted into a chemical signal at the end of the axon.
(b) Thyroxine hormone is secreted by thyroid.
Function of Thyroxine hormone :
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It regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the best balance
for growth. The use of iodised salt is advisable because iodine is essential for the synthesis of
thyroxin. In case of iodine deficiency in our diet, there is a possibility one can suffer from goitre,
which is a disease of swollen neck.
1. Drastic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of
a. Estrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary
b. Estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
c. Testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary
d. Testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland
2. Learning is related to
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
L
c. Cerebrum
O
d. Cerebellum
O
H
3. Which of the following statements about transmission of nerve impulse is incorrect?
a. Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal end
SC
b. At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the release of some chemicals which
generate an electrical impulse at the axonal end of another neuron
c. The chemicals released from the axonal end of one neuron cross the synapse and generate a
D
d. A neuron transmits electrical impulses not only to another neuron but also to muscle and
gland cells
O
a. Heart
b. Uterus
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c. Glands
d. Eyes
D
N
5. The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is due to
a. Auxin
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b. Gibberellins
c. Abscissic acid
d. Cytokinin
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b. Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell
O
c. Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
O
d. Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
11. Which two organs are connected by pons with the help of transverse band of nerves?
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a. Nerves of brain and spinal cord
SC
b. Both the cerebral hemispheres
c. Cerebellum and central nervous system
d. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
D
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(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
N
(d) Cytokinin
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L
(d) Gibberellins
O
O
20. Part of brain that controls respiration, heartbeat and peristalsis is ____.
(a) Cerebrum
H
(b) Cerebellum
SC
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
D
(a) thinking.
(b) regulating the heart beat.
O
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
D
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
N
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28. Which part of brain controls the posture and balance of the body?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
L
O
O
29. The substance that accelerates the growth in the stem is ____.
1. auxin
2. cytokinin
H
SC
3. enzyme
4. vitamin
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30. The cells in our body that can be over a foot long are _____.
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1. muscle cells
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2. nerve cells
3. bone cells
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4. blood cells
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2. thalamus
N
3. cerebrum
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4. cerebellum
33. Endocrine glands are those which pour their secretions into _________________.
1. Blood
2. Ducts
3. sinuses
4. any of the above
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34. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by ____________.
1. muscles - receptor - brain
2. muscles - effector - brain
3. receptor - spinal cord - muscles
4. spinal cord - receptor - muscles
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3. coordination and precision
O
4. Intelligence
O
37. The endocrine gland also known as 'master gland' is ______.
H
1. hypothalamus
SC
2. pituitary
3. pancreas
D
4. adrenal
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38. Which of the following acts as both endocrine and exocrine glands?
1. pituitary
O
2. adrenal
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3. pancreas
4. ovaries
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1. balance
N
2. smell
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3. taste
4. thinking
44. The hormone secreted by the alpha cells of islets of Langerhans is _____________.
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1. glucagon
O
2. insulin
O
3. adrenaline
4. thymosin
H
SC
45. An involuntary response to a stimulus is known as _______.
1. jerking
D
2. reflex
RL
3. conditioning
4. answer
O
1. Brain
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2. spinal cord
3. Brain and spinal cord
D
1. testosterone
2. Insulin
3. Thyroxin
4. thymosin
L
O
52. There are ___________ pairs of cranial nerves.
O
1. 21
H
2. 31
SC
3. 41
4. 12
D
1. 12
O
2. 31
3. 21
W
4. 8
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1. auxin
2. gibberellic acid
N
3. cytokinin
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4. Ethylene
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57. Ganglion is made up of ___________.
1. dendrites
2. axons
3. cytons
4. neurons
58. The preganglionic fibres and the postganglionic fibres are a part of ____________.
1. central nervous system
2. peripheral nervous system
3. autonomous nervous system
4. endocrine system
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4. association nerves
O
60. Efferent nerves are also called as _____________.
O
1. motor nerves
H
2. sensory nerves SC
3. mixed nerves
4. association nerves
D
3. both a and b
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4. neither a nor b
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62. The hormone that causes blood sugar level to fall is _______________.
1. glucagon
D
2. insulin
N
3. somatostatin
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4. adrenalin
63. Hormone produced by the ovarian follicle is __________ and in addition ________ is produced
by the corpus luteum.
1. oestrogen, progesterone
2. progesterone, oestorgen
3. oestrogen, thyroxin
4. progesterone, thyroxin
64. The gland that plays a role in 'fight or flight response' is _________________.
1. pancreas
2. pituitary
3. adrenal cortex
4. adrenal medulla
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65. The unit of the nervous system is _______________.
1. cyton
2. dendron
3. axon
4. neuron
66. The processes that conduct signals towards the nerve cell body are the ___________.
1. fibres
2. axons
3. dendrites
4. all the above
67. The nodes of Ranvier are ________________.
1. covering of the nerve fibre
2. swelling along the nerve fibre
3. gaps in the cover of the nerve fibre
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4. collection of nerves in the heart
O
68. At the synapses, the impulses are always passed from the __________________.
O
1. axon to the dendrites
H
2. dendrites to the axon
3. either way is possible
SC
4. cyton to the dendrites
D
69. The lobes - parietal, temporal, frontal and occipetal belong to _________________.
RL
1. medulla oblongata
2. cerebrum
O
3. cerebellum
W
4. hypothalamus
AL
2. spinal cord
N
3. both a and b
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73. The box enclosing the brain is called the _____________.
1. Skull
2. Head
3. Cranium
4. vertebral column
74. The kind of nerve carrying impulses from the brain to a gland or a muscle is called ______.
1. affector
2. effector
3. mixed
4. none of the above
L
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
O
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
O
76. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from
H
(a) Dendrite → axon → axonal end → cell body
SC
(b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
(c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
(d) Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
D
RL
(d) axon
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L
(b) medulla
O
(c) pons
O
(d) cerebellum
H
84. The movement of shoot towards light is
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(a) geotropism
(b) hydrotropism
(c) chemotropism
D
(d) phototropism
RL
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinins
N
L
(c) geotropism (d) phototropism
O
93. The movement of sunflower in accordance with the path of sun is due to
O
(a) phototropism (b) geotropism
(c) chemotropism (d) hydrotropism
H
SC
94. The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is due to
(a) auxin (b) gibberellins (c) abscisic acid (d) cytokinin
D
95. Which of the following statements about transmission of nerve impulse is incorrect?
RL
(a) Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal end
(b) At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the release of some chemicals which
O
cells
D
101. Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of
(a) oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary
(b) estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
(c) testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary
(d) testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland
L
O
103. What is the correct direction of flow of electrical impulses?
O
H
SC
D
RL
O
W
AL
D
N
JI
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106. Junction between two neurons is called
(a) cell junction
(b) neuro muscular junction
(c) neural joint
(d) synapse
L
O
O
H
SC
D
RL
O
W
AL
D
N
JI
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