Professional Documents
Culture Documents
General Aptitude (PDFDrive)
General Aptitude (PDFDrive)
GATE
Instrumentation Engineering
General Aptitude
Vol 1 of 5
R K Kanodia
Ashish Murolia
Information contained in this book has been obtained by author, from sources believes to be reliable. However,
neither NODIA & COMPANY nor its author guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information herein,
and NODIA & COMPANY nor its author shall be responsible for any error, omissions, or damages arising out of
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are supplying information but are not attempting to render engineering or other professional services.
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Later, we perceived that many aspirants couldn’t develop a good problem solving approach in their B.E/B.Tech.
Some of them lacked the fundamentals of a subject and had difficulty understanding simple solutions. Now,
we have an idea to enhance our content and present two separate books for each subject: one for theory, which
contains brief theory, problem solving methods, fundamental concepts, and points-to-remember. The second book
is about problems, including a vast collection of problems with descriptive and step-by-step solutions that can
be understood by an average student. This was the origin of GATE Guide (the theory book) and GATE Cloud
(the problem bank) series: two books for each subject. GATE Guide and GATE Cloud were published in three
subjects only.
Thereafter we received an immense number of emails from our readers looking for a complete study package
for all subjects and a book that combines both GATE Guide and GATE Cloud. This encouraged us to present
GATE Study Package (a set of 10 books: one for each subject) for GATE Electronic and Communication
Engineering. Each book in this package is adequate for the purpose of qualifying GATE for an average student.
Each book contains brief theory, fundamental concepts, problem solving methodology, summary of formulae,
and a solved question bank. The question bank has three exercises for each chapter: 1) Theoretical MCQs, 2)
Numerical MCQs, and 3) Numerical Type Questions (based on the new GATE pattern). Solutions are presented
in a descriptive and step-by-step manner, which are easy to understand for all aspirants.
We believe that each book of GATE Study Package helps a student learn fundamental concepts and develop
problem solving skills for a subject, which are key essentials to crack GATE. Although we have put a vigorous
effort in preparing this book, some errors may have crept in. We shall appreciate and greatly acknowledge all
constructive comments, criticisms, and suggestions from the users of this book. You may write to us at rajkumar.
[email protected] and [email protected].
Acknowledgements
We would like to express our sincere thanks to all the co-authors, editors, and reviewers for their efforts in
making this project successful. We would also like to thank Team NODIA for providing professional support for
this project through all phases of its development. At last, we express our gratitude to God and our Family for
providing moral support and motivation.
Chapter 1 Noun
1.1 Introduction 1
1.4 Gender 1
1.5 Number 2
1.6 Case 3
Examples 5
Chapter 2 proNoun
2.1 Introduction 6
Examples 10
Chapter 3 verb
3.1 Introduction 12
Examples 19
Chapter 4 Adverb
4.1 Introduction 21
Examples 23
Chapter 5 Adjective
5.1 Introduction 25
Examples 28
Chapter 6 preposition
6.1 Introduction 30
Examples 32
Chapter 7 Conjunction
7.1 Introduction 34
Examples 37
Chapter 8 Article
8.1 Introduction 39
Chapter 9 Voice
9.1 Introduction 40
Chapter 10 Narration
10.1 Introduction 43
Chapter 2 Syllogism 5
Chapter 3 Reading Comprehension 13
Chapter 4 Percentage 36
Chapter 5 Average 52
Chapter 12
Age 147
***********
chapter 1
Adjective
i. n
The above sentence means that he hardly
knows politics. It is implied that there is no sense
1.3.5 Interrogative Adjective
o
in turning to him when it comes to politics. A little
c
has a positive meaning. It means some, though When an interrogative pronoun is used with a
.
not much. noun to ask a question, it is called an interrogative
i a
Example: He has a little knowledge of politics. adjective.
d
The above sentence means though he is Example: What options are available after
o
not thorough with politics, he does have some graduation?
knowledge of the subject. You could look up to
. n
him for simple issues. The little means not much, 1.3.6 Emphasising Adjective
w
but all there is.
Emphasising adjective is used to lay a particular
Example: The little knowledge of politics that he
w
emphasis on a noun.
has (possesses) has been gained through
Example: This is evident from your own words.
w
newspapers.
in
1. Definite Numeral Adjective: It denotes an Adjectives change in form to show comparison.
.
exact number. It may be a cardinal denoting how There are three degrees of comparison.
o
many; as, one, two, three, etc. It may be an ordinal 1. Positive degree: The positive degree of an
c
denoting the order; as, first, second, third etc.
.
adjective is the adjective in its simple form. It
Example: It is a twenty-kilometer walk. merely tells us of a quality of a thing but does not
ia
2. Indefinite numeral adjective: It does not make any comparison.
d
denote an exact number. Example: This is a small town.
o
Example: There are many petitions lying on the 2. Comparative degree: The comparative degree
n
table. of an adjective denotes a higher degree of the
.
3. Distributive numeral adjective: It refers quality than the positive, and is used when two
w
to each one of a number. Distributive numeral things are compared.
w
adjectives are the same as distributive pronouns. Example: This town is smaller than Ludhiana.
Example: Each time he missed the bus. 3. Superlative Degree: The superlative degree
w
of an adjective denotes the highest degree of the
Rule
quality, and is used when more than two things
When a number together with a unit of are compared.
measurement is to be used as an adjective, it is Example: This is the smallest town in India.
a compound word and the unit of measurement
Rules
is taken in the singular.
Incorrect: It is a twenty-kilometers walk. 1. Most of the adjectives form the comparative
Correct: It is a twenty-kilometer walk. by adding -er and the superlative by adding
-est to the positive.
i. n
Fastest (superlative) most
2. When the positive ends in -e, only -r and -st up upper uppermost, up-
o
are added. most
.c
Example: Fine (positive) out outer, utter uttermost, ut-
most
ia
Finer (comparative)
Finest (superlative)
d
******
o
3. When the positive ends in -y, preceded by
n
a consonant, the -y is changed into -i before
.
adding -er and -est.
w
Example: Dirty (positive)
w
Dirtier (comparative)
Dirtiest (superlative)
w
4. When the positive is a word of one syllable
and ends in a single consonant, preceded by a
short vowel, this consonant is doubled before
adding -er and -est.
Example: Big (positive)
Bigger (comparative)
Biggest (superlative)
i. n
5. Adjectives of more than two syllables, and
many of those with two, use the adverbs more
o
and most respectively.
.c
Example: Difficult
a
More difficult
Most difficult
di
o
6. Some of the adjectives do not go by the above
n
rules. The list of those adjectives are given
.
below.
w
Positive Comparative Superlative
w
good, well better best
w
bad, evil, ill worse worst
little less, lesser least
much more most
many more most
late later, latter latest, last
old older, elder oldest, eldest
far farther, further farthest, furthest
near nearer nearest, next
fore former foremost, first
i. n
EX 1 Mark Waugh scored less runs in this series than
. c o
her sisters. The latter form of comparison should
i a
in the previous one. also be individuals.
d
ANS 1 Mark Waugh scored fewer runs in this series
o
than in the previous one.
The living dog is better than the dead lion.
n
EX 4
.
Less is the comparative degree of little. We
Know that little is and adjective of quantity. An ANS 4 A living dog is better than a dead lion.
w
adjective of quantity is used with nouns which Which dog? The living dog. As soon as the
w
are names of measurable (not countable) things. noun becomes qualified (here by the participle
living), we except the definite article the to pop
w
Can runs be measured? No,they are counted.
So, and adjective of number should be used. Few in. But note that here we are not singling out a
in this category corresponds to little. And since particular living dog, it could be any living dog.
it is in the comparative degree, the appropriate
word is fewer.
EX 5 Cynics believe that a few persons are good in
this world.
EX 2 This building is taller than any building in this ANS 5 Cynics believe that few persons are good in this
city.
in
world.
.
ANS 2 This building is taller than any other building This one is also a vocabulary test. Who is a
o
in this city. cynic? One who thinks that people tend to act
c
In this given sentence, between which two only in their own interests. He always has a low
.
is the comparison? This building and any opinion of people’s reasons for doing things. For
ia
building. If we think carefully, we find that him, hardly anyone is good. Now, the correct
d
any building includes this building also. This substitute for hardly anyone is few. A few, on
o
means that this building is being compared to the other hand, would mean some and if you
believe some persons to be good, you have a
n
this building. Absurd! How to set things right?
.
We have to remove this building from the latter some what positive approach. Then you are not
w
term of comparison in the given sentence. The a cynic.
relationship is mathematical as follows
EX 3 w w
any building - this building = any other building
ANS 6
Of all militant groups, Hamara Watan is the
most extreme.
The sentence is correct.
ANS 3 Sita is more intelligent than any of her sisters. It is true that in usual cases, extreme does not
Usually, an individual is compared to another admit of any comparison (like round, perfect,
individual - not to a group, but to a representative unique etc.) But that is because it means greatest
of the group or one member of the group at possible or furthest possible. Since it is already
a time. Sita is an individual. Her intelligence in the superlative, we are left with no room for
cannot be compared to the entire group - all of comparison.
The given sentence is, however, different. When EX 10 Nehru made a famous speech on the historical
we talk of extremist groups, we see that their occasion of independence.
extremity varies in degrees-from moderately
i. n
ANS 10 Nehru made a famous speech on the historic
extreme to extremely extreme. Extreme in their occasion of independence.
case means going beyond the usual limits. But,
o
Historical means connected with history as
once having gone beyond the usual limits, the
.c
a study. For example, you conduct historical
extent to which they go varies in degrees. Hence, research. It also means based on or representing
a
comparison (the use of superlative) is justified in
i
events in the past. You might have read a
this case.
d
historical play or a historical novel. But anything
o
that is likely to have an influence on history is
n
The intelligence tests have questions based on historic, not historical. Now, Independence was
.
EX 7
figures as well as oral ones. one such occasion.
ANS 7
w w
The intelligence tests have questions based on
figures as well as verbal ones.
w
The intelligence tests have two types of questions-
******
one based on figures, the other on words. Those
questions based on words are known as verbal
(not oral, which means of mouth) ones. Those
based on figures are not based on words and are
therefore called non-verbal.
i. n
EX 8
as a ball came into sight.
o
ANS 8 The footballer in him could not resist itself as
c
soon as a ball came into sight.
.
Here, footballer stands for the qualities of the
ia
footballer. The rule says that the definite article
d
is used before a common noun to give it the
o
meaning of an abstract noun.
.n
w
EX 9 Lok Sabha passed the bill today.
w
ANS 9 The Lok Sabha passed the bill today.
Lok Sabha is the Indian version of the House
w
of Commons. Note the use of the in the last
sentence. Now, House of Commons could have
been a common noun. But a capital H and a
capital C ensure that it is the lower house of
the Parliament and no other house of commons.
So, the is used Similarly, the United States of
America (USA, now more popular as US).
error (D)
VA-A-36 (B)/ cultivate one’s reason (C)/ skills. (D)
VA-A-37
1.18 Swati has such a fine memory that she can (A)/ 1.30 My daughter never (A)/ would write to me (B)/
VA-A-11 recollect anything what (B)/ happened many VA-A-23 so I never know what she is doing. (C)/ No error
years ago. (C)/ No error (D) (D)
1.19 The officer along with (A)/ his family members 1.31
i. n
The manager with (A)/ his wife and two sons
o
were (B)/ invited at the reception party organised were (B)/ killed by bandits mercilessly in a broad
.c
VA-A-12 VA-A-24
by his employer. (C)/ No error (D) day light. (C)/ No error (D).
d
interesting finding regarding infant mortality rate rush of visitors (B)/ whose relatives had been
o
VA-A-13 VA-A-25
in India. (C)/ No error (D) admitted there for one or the other ailment. (C)/
n
No error (D)
1.21
VA-A-14
w.
When your father inquired (A)/ about your marks
you lied to him, (B)/ have you not? (C)/ No error 1.33 As he went through the forest Ram marked the
w
(D) VA-A-26 trees (A)/ to let the rest of the party knew (B)/
which way he had gone. (C)/ No error (D)
1.22
VA-A-15
w
Simplest solution (A)/ than this expensive method
which you are suggesting (B)/ should be found
out. (C)/ No error (D)
1.34
VA-A-27
He thinks that (A)/ once he paid money (B)/ he
is relieved of all his responsibilities. (C)/ No Error
(D)
1.23 When he went out he left the radio on (A)/ so
VA-A-16 that his parents shall think (B)/ that he was still 1.35 Now a days (A)/ the accidents of diabetes (B)/
in the house. (C)/ No error (D) VA-A-28 among urban children is one the rise. (C)/ No
error (D)
i. n
1.24 We admired the way he had completed all his work
(A)/ and appreciating the method (B)/ adopted
o
VA-A-17
by him. (C)/ No error (D) 1.36 The instructions clearly state that (A)/ each item
.c
VA-A-29 is having (B)/ two options. (C)/ No error (D)
a
1.25 Even after worked in the office (A)/ for as many
i
as fifteen years, he still does not understand (B)/ 1.37 Hritik along with his family (A)/ are visiting (B)/
d
VA-A-18
the basic objectives of the work. (C)/ No error the Prince of Wales museum day after tomorrow.
o
VA-A-30
1.26
.n
He is so realist and so practical that he thinks 1.38 You have to remove (A)/ the fish scales before
w
VA-A-19 (A)/ imaginary things should (B)/ not place even VA-A-31 (B)/ you fry them. (C)/ No error (D)
w
in poetry. (C)/ No Error (D)
w
1.39 He carried his clothes (A)/ in a black heavy (B)/
1.27 No method of making (A)/ other people agree to VA-A-32 steel trunk. (C)/ No error (D).
VA-A-20 your view-point is (B)/ as effective as this method.
(C)/ No error (D). 1.40 The man who is perpetually hesitating (A)/
VA-A-41 which of the two things (B)/ he will do first, will
1.28 If we had Mohan (A)/ in our team we (B)/ would ultimately do either. (C)/ No error (D)
VA-A-21 have won the match against your team. (C)/ No
error (D). 1.41 The demand of the Citizen’s Forum that the prices
VA-A-42 of essential (A)/ commodities to lower down will
1.29 Neither the size nor the colour (A)/ of clothes (B)/ soon be considered by the Government. (C)/
VA-A-22 which I purchased for him (B)/ yesterday were No error (D)
right. (C)/ No error (D)
i. n
1.43 The customer scarcely had (A)/ enough money to
VA-A-44 pay (B)/ to the cashier at the cash counter. (C)/ 1.55 Tonsillitis is (A)/ among those (B)/ disease that
o
No error (D) VA-A-106 is curable. (C)/ No error (D)
a . c
We think him as (A)/ a (B)/ silly boy. (C)/ No
i
VA-A-45 (B)/ to explain to you my problem in detail. (C)/ VA-A-107 error (D)
d
No Error (D)
o
1.57 Health is (A)/ more (B)/ preferable to wealth.
n
1.45 Our teeming masses, nevertheless illiterate (C)/No error (D)
.
VA-A-108
w
consciousness (B)/ and they are fully capable of 1.58 The Chief Minister, Mr. Charan Singh, with
exercising their franchise. (C)/ No error (D) his (A)/ Cabinet colleagues, were (B)/ warmly
w
VA-A-109
w
1.46 People are worried more because of the frequency
VA-A-48 (A)/ of occurrence of the crime rather (B)/ than 1.59 Satyajit Ray was one of the (A)/ greatest film
the magnitude of each one. (C)/ No error (D) VA-A-110 directors (B)/ that has ever lived. (C)/ No error
(D)
1.47 A gang of armed thieves has (A)/ raided (B)/ the
VA-A-98 house of Mr Gupta late last night (C)/ No error 1.60 Neither the carpenters nor the (A)/ plumber have
(D) VA-A-111 (B)/ finished the work. (C)/ No error (D)
in
1.48 That is one of (A)/ the books (B)/ that is listed 1.61 Either the Head office nor (A)/ the branch offices
.
VA-A-99 in the catalogue (C)/ No error (D) close (B)/ at 5.00 p.m. (C)/ No error (D)
o
VA-A-112
c
1.49 Everyone is expected to attend (A)/ the staff
.
1.62 A few of the windows (A)/ in the main hall was
meeting today, but (B)/ the sales manager and I.
ia
VA-A-100
VA-A-113 broken (B)/ by the demonstrators. (C)/ No error
(C)/ No error (D) (D)
o d
1.63 Every book and every (A)/ magazine have (B)/
n
know about the hardships that the (B)/ Chakma been entered in the record register. (C)/ No error
.
VA-A-101
VA-A-114
1.51
w w
Due to (A)/ the trucker’s strike, the vegetable
vendors were doing about half of (B)/ the business
1.64 Sanjay bought (A)/ the suit before (B)/ he met
Neetu. (C)/ No error (D)
w
VA-A-102
VA-A-115
1.52
(C)/ No error (D)
VA-A-103 painting by Neetu shows greater (B)/ artistry
that than of Reshma. (C)/ No error (D)
1.66
VA_A_54_6
I believe that respect (A)/ is more preferable than
(B)/money. (C)/ No error (D)
1.53 The company is planning a training (A)/
programme for their (B)/ senior officers sometime
1.67 I never have visited (A)/ or intend to visit (B)/
VA-A-104
1.68
VA_A_56_1
John’s salary (A)/ is much larger than (B)/ Tom. 1.82
VA_A_70_8
In spite of the late hour (A)/ and the bad weather
(C)/ No error (D) (B)/ Naveen decided to brave it out and drink at
bar. (C)/ No error (D)
i. n
1.69
VA_A_57_2
Ramesh helped (A)/ not only me (B)/ but also
my brother when he was in need. (C)/ No error 1.83 Hari was unhappy (A)/ that he would (B)/ not
o
VA_A_71_9
.c
No error (D)
a
1.70 The English defeated (A)/ French (B)/ in the
i
VA_A_58_7
battle of Waterloo. (C)/ No error (D) 1.84 While going to his office yesterday (A)/ Bhola
d
VA_A_72_5
o
1.71 The three last chapters (A)/ of this book (B)/ are important office file. (C)/ No error (D)
n
VA_A_59_8
.
very interesting (C)/ No error (D)
1.85 He was extremely annoyed (A)/ when I reported
w
VA_A_73_9
1.72 In summer days are (A)/ warm than (B)/ nights. the matter to him (B)/ and has fired me. (C)/ No
w
error (D)
VA_A_60_9
1.73
VA_A_61_8
w
He is (A)/ the strongest and very tall (B)/ boy in
the whole college. (C)/ No error (D)
1.86
VA_A_74_10
The director, along with the staff members (A)/
were present for (B)/ the annual day celebrations.
(C)/ No error (D)
1.74 I was born (A)/ on the August 3, 1947 (B)/ in
It is our duty (A)/ to put off our shoes (B)/ before
VA_A_62_9
1.87
Bihar. (C)/ No error (D) VA_A_75_1
i. n
true and unselfish (B)/ and work for other. (C)/
No error (D) 1.88
VA_A_76_5
Raman was one of those great sons of India (A)/
who has earned everlasting
o
fame (B)/ for scientific researches. (C)/ No error
c
1.76 His manners indicate that he has no other intention
.
VA_A_64_5
(D)
(A)/ than (B)/ to steal his money. (C)/ No error
ia
(D)
1.89 The taxi was (A)/ hired by the ladies for (B)/ its
d
VA_A_77_2
o
1.77
VA_A_65_6
Page after page (A)/ of Gita were read (B)/ and
it gave great consolation to his mind. (C)/ No
.n
error (D) 1.90
VA_A_78_3
His ability to talk to strangers (A)/ is one of his
(B)/ stronger points. (C)/ No error (D)
1.78
VA_A_66_9
ww
The short story should not exceed (A)/ more than
(B)/ two hundred words. (C)/ No error (D) 1.91
VA_A_79_8
I have hunted and (A)/ shot myself (B)/ so I know
w
what it is like. (C)/ No Error (D)
1.79 Our teacher often emphasises on (A)/ the need for
Priyamvada was unhappy to hear the news (A)/
VA_A_67_1
1.92
(B)/ a lot of oral practice. (C)/ No error (D) VA_A_80_6
1.94
test match (B)/ due to the heavy rain (C)/ No VA_A_82_4
i. n
what was first guessed. (C)/ No error (D)
1.96
VA_A_84_3
Do you really believe (A)/ that she has blamed us
o
(B)/ for the accident, especially you and I ? (C)/ 1.110 I know nothing about chess because (A)/ my
c
No error (D)
VA_A_136_4
.
about it. (C)/ No error (D)
i a
1.97
VA_A_85_9
Two men have been arrested (A)/ by the police
d
who are believed (B)/ to be involved in the 1.111 I asked the salesman if I could exchange (A)/ the
robbery. (C)/ No error (D)
o
VA_A_137_12
n
error (D)
.
1.98
VA_A_86_10
The manager tested (A)/ the peon to see (B)/ if
w
he could read English. (C)/ No error (D) 1.112 It took me (A)/ almost a hour (B)/ to fill the
VA_A_138_16
w
1.99 But for his cousin’s help (A)/ he would have been
w
VA_A_87_3
(B)/ at the height of his career. (C)/ No error (D) 1.113 He is neither in favour of arms race (A)/ or in
VA_A_139_7
in
1.115 If your mother (A)/ will come again, (B)/ I shall
.
VA_A_141_9
1.102 No sooner did (A)/ the train arrived at the station report against you. (C)/ No error (D)
o
VA_A_90_8
c
No error (D)
.
1.116
VA_A_142_2
The recent study has (A)/ indicated that there is
ia
a perceptible change in (B)/ the attitude of the
1.103 None of the rooms (A)/ are available (B)/ for people. (C)/ No error (D)
d
VA_A_91_2
o
1.117 As it was Rajan’s (A)/ first interview, he dressed
n
VA_A_143_7
1.104 Sumitra appealed to the managing committee him (B)/ in his most formal suit. (C)/ No error
.
VA_A_92_5
w
volunteer force. (C)/ No error (D)
w
1.118
VA_A_144_1
I shall go to Australia (A)/ for higher studies (B)/
1.105 The company has ordered (A)/some (B)/new if you like it or not. (C)/ No error (D)
w
VA-A-131 equipments (C)/ No error (D)
1.119
VA_A_145_21
They never thought (A)/ that Raja was oldest
1.106 The Arabian Nights (A)/ arc indeed (B)/ an than other (B)/ professors in the faculty. (C)/ No
VA-A-132 interesting book. (C)/ No error (D) error (D)
1.108 Of all the models (A)/ Sessica is (B)/ the more 1.121
VA_A_147_20
Now that she is living in her own flat, (A)/ she
VA-A-134
cleans the windows (B)/twice a week in the whaling ship set sail.
summer and once a week in the winter. (C)/ No
error (D)
i. n
1.132
VA-A-39
(A) Because they refuse to follow the conventional
dress code
1.122 As he had taken only a few sips (A)/ there was
o
VA_A_148_3
(B) neither Shivam
still little water (B)/ left in the glass. (C)/ No
.c
error (D) (C) nor her friends
(D) is invited to the local society function
1.123 If a man diligently seeks to come into the contact
i a
d
VA_A_149_15
(A)/ with the best that has been thought and 1.133 (A) A very miserly
o
VA-A-40
said in this world, (B)/ he will become simple and (B) farmer who lived
n
selfless. (C)/ No error (D)
.
(C) with his wife
(D) in the Jamaican islands
w
1.124 May I (A)/ know who you want (B)/ to see please.
w
VA_A_150_3
w
VA-A-50
i. n
VA_A_153_20
o
1.128 It was time that (A)/ you started (B)/ working. English and mark the number of that sentence on
c
the answer sheet.
.
VA_A_154_2
1.129
ia
The wheat (A)/ this year is (B)/ finer than last
1.135 (A) If XAT aspirants had not taken so long
d
VA-A-52
VA_A_155_19
year. (C)/ No error (D) checking each question before attempting the
o
next question they might not have run out of
n
time.
.
1.130 I am pleased to sanction one special increment
VA_A_156_4
w
each question before attempting the next
(C)/ No error (D)
w
question they might not have run out of time.
Directions For Q 131 to 134: (C) Had XAT aspirants not took so long checking
w
every question before attempting the next
In each of these questions, one sentence has been
question they might not have run out of time.
split into four parts. There is an error in one part.
Identify the part having the error. (D) Had XAT aspirants not taken so long checking
all questions before attempting the next
question they might not have run out of time.
1.131 (A) During the last centuries
(B) whaling voyages departed regularly from the
New England states 1.136 (A) If you would have told me that you were in
(C) and because each voyage normally extends for Bombay I would have certainly contacted you
years instead of getting bored there.
(D) the hold was packed with supplies before a (B) If you would have told me that you were in
Bombay I had certainly contacted you to
i. n
(D) If you had told me that you were in Bombay against it would be the answer.
I would have certainly contacted you despite
o
getting bored there. 1.141 His assistants have (A)/ and are still (B)/ doing
c
excellent (C)/ work for the (D)/ organization.
.
VA-A-116
a
1.137 (A) The receptionist must answer courteously the
i
questions of all them callers. 1.142 There is something more in the (A)/ fact that the
d
(B) The receptionist must answer courteously the VA-A-117 (B)/ guns have (C)/ or are about (D)/ to be sent
o
question what are asked by the callers. abroad.
. n
(C) There would have been no trouble if the
receptionist have always answered courteously. 1.143 The (A)/ deceased lord along with (B)/ his brother
w
(D) The receptionist should answer courteously
VA-A-118 started a (C)/ business in India. (D)
w
the questions of all callers.
1.144 He relieved (A)/ the monotony of book peddling
w
VA-A-119 (B)/ by becoming (C)/ an assistant to a conjuror
1.138 (A) The supervisors reprimanded the typist whom or to other (D)/ similar engagements.
he believed had made careless errors.
(B) The typists would have corrected the errors
had they of known that the supervisors would
1.145 The entire (A)/ party is for the (B)/ Bill ready to
see the report.
VA-A-120 (C)/ stake their (D)/ political existence.
(C) Many errors were found in the report which
they typed and could not disregarded them.
1.146 He has suffered (A)/ from a similar (B)/ attack
in
(D) The errors in the typed reports were but milder as (C)/ that (D)/ of last year.
.
VA-A-121
o
overlooked.
1.147 Such starling (A)/ never (B)/ have neither (C)/
. c
VA-A-122 can and never will be (D)/ offered again.
ia
1.139 (A) Since the report lacked needed information it
was of no use to them. 1.148 For (A)/ this delightful (B)/ excursion it was felt
d
(B) The report was useless to them because there by the members (C)/ that it was due to (D)/ the
o
VA-A-123
. n
(C) Since the report did not contain the needed
information, it was not real useful to them. 1.149 Most of the critics, (A)/ all over the world, agree
w
(D) Being that the report lacked the needed VA-A-124 (B)/ that this is one (C)/ of the most interesting
w
information, they could not use it. novels that has (D)/ recently appeared.
1.140
VA_A_97_5
w
(A) The company had hardly declared the dividend
till the notices were prepared for mailing.
(B) No sooner had the dividend been declared
1.150
VA-A-125
He always (A)/ practices (B)/ the (C)/ justice
and cares (D)/ for moral principles.
NOTE
than the notices were prepared for mailing. An abstract noun, when it is qualified by an adjective or
(C) They had no sooner declared the dividend an adjectival phrase or clause may have the article; as the
when they sent the notices to the stockholders. wisdom of Solomon is famous.
(D) Scarcely had the dividend been declared than
the notice were sent out. 1.151 Some one had said that the English excelled (A)/
VA-A-126 all other nations, the Dutch being avaracious,
.c
VA-A-127
a
1.153 Such goods (A)/ are made for export, (B)/ and
i
are seldom or ever (C)/ used in (D)/ the country.
d
VA-A-128
o
1.154 The wise people, who (A)/ are very few (B)/ in
. n
VA-A-129 our country, they think (C)/ before they act. (D)
w
You cannot skip it over; (A)/ it is only a (B)/ part
1.155
w
VA-A-130 and parcel (C)/ of the ceremony. (D)
Directions For Q
w
156 to 159:
Given below are sentences that may or may not
have errors. Mark (A) if there is only one error.
Mark (B) if there are two errors. Mark (C) if there
are three errors. Mark (D) if there are no errors.
1.156
VA_A_159_3
She still is in bed despite I’ve tried to awake her.
i. n
1.157
VA_A_160_4
I have no objection to hear your story again.
1.158
VA_A_161_10
.co
You should have told to me about it early so that
I should have talked to the relevant authorities
ia
and sort out the issue.
1.159
od
Which of the following sentences is not correct ?
(A) For years now, pitches have been prepared to
n
VA-A-51
.
suit the home team’s strengths and that is
fine so long as the pitch is not a lottery.
ww
(B) It is here that BCCI needs to show the same
will, as they have shown in making players
w
play domestic cricket.
(C) The only problem is that the wickets that
are on offer for domestic cricket are hardly
conducive for batsman.
(D) If one goes by the scores in some of the
matches, especially Delhi’s games, then it
is quite obvious that the pitches prepared
are substandard and not conducive to a fair
contest between bat and ball.
******
i. n
1.1 Correct option is (D).
Replace which with what.
c o
of time).
.
i
1.9
d
1.2 Correct option is (B). Because the last sentence contains two individual
o
Replace were with was. When two nouns are joined sentences, use a conjunction (either and or while)
. n
by along with, verb agrees with the first noun. before fresh water to combine both sentences.
w w
Lay (laid, laid) means to put something in a
1.10 Correct option is (C).
The object of making is missing which gives a
w
definite position; to put oneself flat means lie (lay, misleading meaning; so it should be making it
lain); so lay. Lie (lied, lied) has another meaning altogether.
which is to speak false.
1.11 Correct option is (C).
1.4 Correct option is (B). Replace faster with fast because there is no
In past conditional after if past perfect follows; so comparison.
had known.
in
1.12 Correct option is (C).
.
1.5 Correct option is (B). Replace addition with additions. After one of the
o
Subject is material and it has been treated here noun is in plural form.
c
as uncountable and singular (there is). That’s
.
why, it should be too much. We cannot make
ia
1.13 Correct option is (B).
material plural putting s because then we will
Replace you with your. Before gerund.
d
have to change b as there are and then there will
o
be mistakes in both of them.
Correct option is (C).
n
1.14
.
Replace unbearable with unbearably because to
1.6 Correct option is (C).
w
qualify an adjective (hot) adverb is needed.
Since your cannot be changed as it is not
w
underlined we will have to change one’s to make
1.15 Correct option is (B).
w
the pronouns similar; so your.
Replace hanged with hung. Hang-Hanged-Hanged
(to award death punishment), Hand-Hung-Hung
1.7 Correct option is (C).
(to keep suspending from something).
Before skills an adjective is required; reason is a
noun; so reasoning.
1.16 Correct option is (B).
With present indefinite (here he comes) while
1.8 Correct option is (C).
cannot be used (while in continuous); so either
For a natural action present indefinite is used; so
when or by the time.
pauses (is rising is o.k. because it denotes a point
i. n
subject. it is compared (here this method is compared with
other methods), after no, every, all etc. use of
o
other is must.
.c
1.18 Correct option is (B).
Replace what with that. (After anything, everything
i a
etc. only that can be used as relative pronoun). 1.28 Correct option is (D).
d
Past conditional, so the first sentence should have
o
1.19 Correct option is (B). been If + s + had + v3 (had had). But in the
n
meaning of possession has / have /had is not used
.
Replace were with was. (The noun coming before
along with is the subject of the sentence.) in perfect structure.
w
Replace up with out. (Bring up = to look after, Replace were with was. The verb is used according
Bring out = to publish). to the noun coming after or/nor.
i. n
1.22 Correct option is (A).
than indicates that the sentence is in comparative. Replace were with was. When two nouns are
joined by with, the noun coming before with is the
o
Replace simplest with simpler
subject of the sentence and verb follows it.
a.c
i
Replace shall with should because the sentence is
1.32 Correct option is (B).
d
in past. Replace had found with found. To denote an
o
incident in the past, past indefinite is used.
.n
1.24 Correct option is (B).
Replace appreciating with appreciated. (The verb
1.33 Correct option is (B).
w
coming after and or but takes the same form as its Replace knew with know. The verb coming after
w
counterpart before and or but (admired) let is always in v1 form.
i. n
Comparison should be in equal things. If after
1.37 Correct option is (B). more because of has come, after than also because
o
Replace are with is. When two nouns are combined of should be there. Rewrite the part as than
. c
with along with the verb agrees with the first because of its magnitude.
a
noun. (Hritik here).
o
1.38 Correct option is (B). A gang of armed thieves raided the....
n
Them indicates that its antecedent is fish and The use of past tense (raided)-not present perfect
.
should be in plural. so rewrite it fishes scales. tense (has raided)- is necessary because the
w
sentence has a specific time reference (last night).
w
1.39 Correct option (B).
Rewrite the part as heavy black to ensure proper 1.48 Correct option is (C)
w
word agreement. ....the books that are listed....
That refers to books, plural noun, and, therefore,
1.40 Correct option is (C). the verb must be plural (are, and not is).
Replace either with neither. The sentence should
be negative in meaning. 1.49 Correct option is (C)
....But the sales manager and me.
1.41 Correct option is (B). The preposition but is understood before me. Since
in
Replace to lower down with be lowered down. (that me is the object of the preposition but, it has an
.
is conjunction here and so after this a complete objective from (me), not a nominative form.
o
sentence should come. So infinitive (to lower)
. c
should be given a principle verb form) 1.50 Correct option is (A)
ia
Many people in Bangladesh scarcely know....
The word scarcely is sufficiently negative to
d
1.42 Correct option is (B).
express the meaning of the sentence. The word
o
Use and after rang because a different sentence is
to be combined. don’t should be omitted.
. n
w
1.43 Correct option is (B).
1.51 Correct option is (A)
Because of the....doing before.
w
Replace enough with any because scarcely is
negative and in negative any is used. Do not begin a sentence with the words due to.
w
Due to is an adjective, which must have a noun
to modify.
1.44 Correct option is (B).
Remove in. When before a time denoting word
an adjective comes (next + week), it takes no
1.52 Correct answer is (A)
preposition. Between you and me,.....
The object of the preposition between must be an
objective case from (me and not I).
1.45 Correct option is (A).
Replace nevertheless with though. Nevertheless
i. n
be used to refer to a collective noun (company) subjects are joined by or and nor the subject
when the members of the collective noun are closer to the verb determines the number of the
o
considered a unit. verb.
i a
1.61
.c
Correct option is (D)
d
There were only.... No error, The subject branch offices is plural and
o
The subject of the sentence is plural (a bread and the verb close is also plural here.
n
bottles)
.
Therefore, the verb must be plural (were, not 1.62 Correct option is (B)
w
was). Here the word there is not the subject. ......was broken.... should be changed to .....were
w
broken...... Some infinite pronouns like a few,
w
1.55 Correct option is (C) many, several etc. are always plural and take
are curable plural verb.
A relative pronoun (that, who, which) used as
a subject takes on a singular or plural verb to 1.63 Correct option is (B)
accord with its antecedent Here that is referring has been entered,: If the subject consists of two
to diseases that are curable. or more singular nouns connected by and and
presided by each or every, the verb is in singular.
1.56 Correct option is (C)
i. n
We think him a silly boy; Verbs like consider, 1.64 Correct option is (A)
think, call etc. are not followed by as had bought : Past perfect tense indicates that an
o
event had taken place before another event in
.c
1.57 Correct option is (B) the past. The suit was purchased before meeting
a
Health is preferable to wealth. The adjective of Neetu.
i
comparative degree like senior, junior, prefer,
d
superior are always followed by to instead of than
o
1.65 Correct option is (A).
n
I enjoyed myself in place of I enjoyed. Some verbs
.
1.58 Correct option is (B) take reflexive pronouns after them. See Rule 12.
w
......were warmly... should be replaced by ...was
warmly... . when a singular subject is attached to
w
1.66 Correct option is (B).
a phrase introduced by with or as well as the verb Preferable to in place of more preferable than.
w
is always singular. Preferable is a word indicating a comparative sense
and thus more is superfluous. Secondly, prefer is
1.59 Correct option is (C) followed by to.
....has ever lived should be replaced by have ever
lived. In this sentence, the subject of as ever 1.67 Correct option is (B).
lived is that. It is plural because its antecedents Nor in place of or. Nor is used after neither.
directors are plural. A relative pronoun agrees in
number with its antecedent
1.68 Correct option is (C).
That of Tom in place Tom. See Rule 27.
i. n
The French in place of French. The French means 1.79 Correct option is (B).
the French people. Of in place of for. Here the correct preposition
o
will be of.
1.71 Correct option is (A).
a . c
i
The last three in place of The three last. Explained 1.80 Correct option is (A).
d
earlier. See Rule 35. There were in place of there was.
.
Warmer; in place of warm. Here the sentence is Because of in place of due to. Due to always takes
w
in the comparative degree and thus warmer is an abstract noun after it.
w
appropriate.
w
1.82 Correct option is (A).
1.73 Correct option is (B). Despite in place of in spite of. The meaning of in
The stronger and tallest in place of very tall. A spite of is not appropriate here.
word showing superlative degree should not be
joined by a word showing comparative or the 1.83 Correct option is (B).
assertive degree. Both qualifiers must be of the That he could in place of that he would. See the
same degree. Rules of tense.
in
1.74 Correct option is (B).
.
1.84 Correct option is (A).
On 3rd August in place of the 3rd August. When
o
While he was going to his office in place of while
the letter or the number form is used, the article
c
going to his office. In sentences beginning with
.
is not required. When it is in the word form, the while, when, this, it, or similar conjunctions, you
ia
article will be used. should be careful to see that the meaning is clear.
Thus we can say 3rd August and the third August.
d
There should be no confusion in the first part.
n o
1.85 Correct option is (C).
.
Who work for others in place of work for others. And fired him in place of and has fired me. The
w
One form of the verb pattern should be used reporting verb is in the past tense and thus other
with one subject. If the verb pattern changes the
w
clauses must be in the past tense.
subject must be mentioned. Here the subject is
w
those who and the verb is are. It is an auxiliary
verb. But, in the next clause, the verb is main 1.86 Correct option is (B).
verb or action verb. Thus there must be a subject. Was present in place of were present. In the case
of along with, the verb is in accordance with the
first object.
1.76 Correct option is (B).
But in the place of than.
1.87 Correct option is (B).
Pull off in place of put off.
1.77 Correct option is (B).
The Gita was in place of Gita were.
i. n
also be in accordance with that.
o
1.99 Correct option is (B).
.c
1.89 Correct option is (C). He would not have been in place of he would have
Their in place of its. The pronoun must be in been. In an expression beginning with but for, the
i a
accordance with ladies. next part should contain a negative to make the
d
meaning.
o
1.90 Correct option is (C).
. n
Strong points in place of stronger points. No need 1.100 Correct option is (B).
of the comparative degree. See Rules of degree. Went out in place of went off. For a living man,
w
the correct expression is went out. Went off may
w
1.91 Correct option is (B). be used in cases like The light went off.
w
Myself is unwanted. It confuses the meaning.
1.101 Correct option is (D).
1.92 Correct option is (B). No Error.
Son failing in place of son’s failing. The use of the
apostrophe is not required here. 1.102 Correct option is (B).
Arrive in place of arrived. After no sooner did the
1.93 Correct option is (C). verb will be in the present tense. Did is followed
by the present form of verb: Did he go? He did not
i. n
Further in place of Farther. Farther is used to
denote a sense of distance and further is used to come on time.
o
indicate more.
c
1.103 Correct option is (B).
.
None of the rooms here indicates a singular sense
a
1.94 Correct option is (B).
i
Is essential in place of are essential. The subject and thus the verb will be singular. Usually none is
d
is production, not materials. As the subject is used in singular.
o
singular, the verb will be singular. Be careful
n
about the subject-verb accord. 1.104 Correct option is (B).
.
Might in place of may. The reporting verb is
w
1.95 Correct option is (C). appealed. It is in the past tense and thus all other
w
Vital questions in place of vital question. clauses will be in the past tense.
i. n
1.108 Correct option is (C). come should be replaced by comes.
more than one degree can not be used for single
o
subjects. 1.116 Correct option is (A).
. c
The reference is to one of the recent studies, not
a
a particular one. So the definite article the should
i
1.109 Correct option is (B).
not be used at the beginning. As there is no clear
d
As we are referring to his involvement, it should
reference to a specific study, it is preferable to
o
be has been and not have been. There has to be
use the indefinite article A instead of the definite
n
agreement between the noun, number and the
.
verb. Don’t make the mistake of matching the article The/
w
verb with fraud cases.
1.117 Correct option is (B).
w
1.110 Correct option is (C). One dresses oneself. So, Rajan dressed himself.
w
Was not knowing nothing has a wrong tense usage Himself is a compound personal pronoun of the
and also involves two negatives. It should be did reflexive kind. It refers back to the subject or
not know anything (or knew nothing) in place of turns back the action of the verb upon the doer.
was not knowing nothing.
1.118 Correct option is (C).
1.111 Correct option is (C). Whether should replace if. Whether you like it
For should replace with in this sentence. It would or not implies irrespective of - that is, the action
in
also be better to replace one with camera to avoid of going has already been decided upon. If,
.
the impression that one faulty camera is to be when used, makes the meaning of the sentence
o
exchanged for another faulty camera. ambiguous. Whether... or not is accepted usage; if
c
... or not is a construction that is not used.
ia .
Correct option is (B).
d
pronounced with a vowel sound. When a comparison is being made, a comparative
o
and not superlative form of the word should be
n
used. It should be older and not oldest.
.
1.113 Correct option is (B).
w
It should be nor, and not or, Neither... nor form
correlative or corresponsive conjunctions. The
1.120 Correct option is (C).
w
first part of the conjunction pair complements the When the reason why is used, there is no need
w
other part. for a because in the sentence as the two convey
the same meaning. It should be that instead of
because.
1.114 Correct option is (C).
Past perfect tense (had used) and not present
perfect is to be used here. This is because the
1.121 Correct option is (C).
second action (that of someone using the computer) The should not be used before summer and winter
had finished when the first occurred (when I was in this sentence as no specific summer and winter
surprised to find the computer not working and are referred to. It is correct to say Now that...twice
enquired). a week in summer and once a week in winter.
i. n
wouldn’t go with still in the sentence. year’s wheat) at the end. Otherwise we would be
comparing dissimilar things- wheat and year.
1.123 Correct option is (A).
Article the is wrongly placed before contact. No 1.130
.c o
Correct option is (C).
i a
specific contact is being referred to here. A general The preposition with should not be used as the
d
fact or situation is being stated. Correct usage is special increment is for that month only (it
o
come into contact with; no a or the before contact cannot be for every month). There is no need for
n
when it is used after into. a preposition in (C).
w
Whom, which is in the objective case, should Replace extends with extended because the
w
replace who which is in the subjective case. Whom sentence concerns past.
is the object of the verb here (want to see whom?).
1.132 Correct option is (D).
1.125 Correct option is (A). Replace is with are. When two nouns are joined
Being should be replaced by As it was. When by neither-nor, the verb agrees with the noun
we used a participial phrase, the noun which it coming after nor.
governs must be placed next to it. Being a hot day
seems to lack a noun to modify, as it cannot refer 1.133 Correct option is (B).
i. n
to I. It is a case of a dangling modifier. So the Relative pronoun who is not required because then
sentence construction is wrong. We can also write another verb after .... islands will be required.
o
(A) as It being a very hot day.
i
Remove entire group of. Use of they, their indicates
No sooner should be followed by than and not
d
that the noun should be plural. Entire group
when. the pair no sooner...than is a subordinate
o
makes the noun singular.
conjunction of time. It indicates that the second
.n
event occurs immediately after the first one.
1.135 Correct option is (A).
w
Between (A) and (D), the former is preferable
1.127 Correct option is (C).
w
because all questions in (D) makes it unsuitable.
In across with, two prepositions are placed together Before attempting each next question, one cannot
w
and this is a wrong usage. Came across a beggar is check all questions.
the correct expression.
i. n
this is the answer. 1.145 Correct option is (D).
it’s
o
1.138 Correct option is (D). A collective none takes a singular verb when the
. c
(A) Whom is wrong (error of pronoun). (B) they of collection is thought of as one whole; a plural verb
a
known is wrong (error of preposition). (C) Could when the individuals of which it is composed are
i
not disregarded is wrong (error of verb form). (D) thought of , as, The Committee has issued its
d
No error. report. The Committee are divided on one minor
o
point.
1.139 Correct option is (A).
. n
w
(A) No error. (B) Were is wrong (error of verb). 1.146 Correct option is (C).
(C) Real is wrong (error of adverb). (D) There is but milder than
w
error in the first clause. Than (her used as a preposition) shows the
w
relation between this year and last year’s attack.
1.140 Correct option is (B). It is more appropriate than as which generally
(A) The first clause is wrong. (B) No error. (C) shows the relation between two similar things.
When is wrong (than should be used). (D) Than
is wrong (when should be sued). 1.147 Correct option is (C).
The adverb of time, never and not the conjunction
1.141 Correct option is (A). neither is to be used. This is also done to never
in
have done have the construction in the same series.
.
The present perfect tense is used to denote an
o
action beginning at some time in the past and 1.148 Correct option is (C).
c
continuing upto the present moment as the words The members felt
ate still doing in the sentence reveal.
.
The subject usually comes before the verb in a
ia
sentence. In English, owing to the fewness of the
d
1.142 Correct option is (C). inflections, the order of the words in a sentence is
o
have been of the first importance.
. n
The present perfect tense is used to express past
actions whose time is not given and not definite. 1.149 Correct option is (D).
w
that have
w
1.143 Correct option is (C). When the subject of a verb is a relative pronoun,
w
had started care should be taken to see that the verb agrees
The past perfect tense helps in telling us which in number and person with the antecedent of the
action happened earlier than the other when both relative. In this case the antecedent is novels.
the actions referred to happen in the past. The
simple past is used in one clause and the past 1.150 Correct option is (C).
perfect in the other. The article is to be omitted.
The article is omitted before abstract nouns used
1.144 Correct option is (D). in a general sense.
or by taking up other
i. n
noun which follows is said to be in apposition to preposition as it is done here, the gerund form
the noun which comes before it. Part (d) is changed (ing) must be used.
o
to have the series in the same construction.
.c
1.158 Correct option is (D).
i a
1.152 Correct option is (A). You should have told me about it earlier so that I
d
will excuse my could have talked to the relevant authorities and
o
The pronoun or noun governing a Gerund should sorted out the issue. Verbs like advise, recommend,
n
be put in the Possessive case. The work leaving is warn are directly followed by the person addressed
.
a Gerund (i.e. Verbal Noun) Therefore it must be (without to). Keeping the meaning of the sentence
w
preceded by the possessive form. in view, earlier (at an earlier time) would be the
w
correct word qualifying told. Again, I could would
be the correct expression. The verb sort should be
w
1.153 Correct option is (C).
seldom or never used in the past tense here.
Seldom or never and seldom if ever are both
correct but seldom or ever is incorrect. 1.159 Correct option is (B).
Replace they have with it has. For BCCI use of
1.154 Correct option is (C). needs (singular) and they have (plural) in the same
think sentence is incompatible.
The word they should be omitted as the relative
i. n
pronoun who already refers or relates (i.e. carries
******
us back) to the noun before it i.e. it’s antecedent
o
(wise people).
a.c
i
a/definitely a
d
Only in the sense of merely is not to used as part
o
and parcel (an idiomatic expression) means an
.n
essential part and the it referred to in the sentence
is apparently important enough not to be missed.
ww
w
She is still in bed though I’ve tried to awaken her.
Still is placed after the verb be but before other
verbs; see this sentence, She is still in bed and also
the sentence, She still waits at the bus-stop. Despite
(in spite of) is not the correct conjunction; though
(or although) is to be used. With I have, awaken
should be used, as the present perfect tense of the
verb is used here.
i. n
tonnes) over the years are as shown below.
1.10 Who stood first in examination ?
o
(A) B (B) D
.c
(C) A (D) None of these
i a
d
Income tax rates for financial year 2009-10 are
o
given below.
. n
Individual and HUF Women below Tax
w
below of 65 yr age of 65 yr rates
Income up to Rs. 160000 Income up to Nil
w
Rs. 190000 1.13 For which of the following pair of years, the total
w
production of the two commodities together is
Rs. 160001 to 300001 Rs. 190001 to 10%
equal ?
300000 (A) 2007 and 2008
Rs 300001 to Rs. 500000 Rs. 300001 to 20% (B) 2003 and 2005
Rs. 500000 (C) 2002 and 2008
Above Rs. 500001 Above Rs. 30% (D) None of these
500001
Total income tax payable is obtained by adding two 1.14 What is the respective ratio between total
i. n
additional surcharges on calculated income tax. production of commodities X and Y respectively
Education Cess, An additional surcharge called for all the seven year together ?
o
educations cess is levied at the rate of 2% on the (A) 13 : 14 (B) 18 : 23
c
amount of income tax.
.
(C) 26 : 27 (D) None of these
Secondary and Higher Education Cess An additional
ia
surcharge called secondary and higher education
cess is levied at the rate of 1% on the amount of 1.15 During which year the percentage increase/decrease
d
income tax. in production of commodity X from the previous
o
year was the maximum ?
.n
1.11 Aishwarya is a young working lady. Towards the end (A) 2005 (B) 2007
of the financial year 2009-10, she found her total (C) 2003 (D) 2008
w
annual income to be Rs. 337425. What percentage
w
of her income is payable as income tax ? 1.16 Approximately, what was the average production
(A) 6.82% (B) 8.10%
w
(in lakh tonnes) of commodity Y ?
(C) 5.64% (D) 7.38% (A) 216 (B) 175
(C) 225 (D) 195
1.12 Mr. Vaibhav observed his tax deduction at source,
as Rs. 317910. What was his total income (in Rs), 1.17 What is the ratio between total production of
if he neither has to pay any additional tax, nor is
the two commodities together for year 2002,2003
eligible for any refund ?
and 2004 and the total production of the two
(A) 1445522
commodities together for year 2006, 2007 and 2008,
(B) 1570718 respectively ?
(C) 1348835 (A) 1 : 23 (B) 2 : 3
(D) 1447169 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
i. n
other show the values (in Rs lakh) of finished goods (A) 2007 (B) 2009
sold by the company over the years. (C) 2006 (D) 2008
o
Amount invested in raw materials (in Rs. lakh)
c
In which year, there has been a maximum percentage
.
1.22
increase in the amount invested in raw materials as
i a
compared to the previous year ?
d
(A) 2007 (B) 2009
o
(C) 2006 (D) 2008
w
The following bar graph shows the Income and
w
Expenditures (in million US $) of five companies
Value of sales of finished goods (in Rs. lakh) in the year 2011. The percent profit or loss of a
w
company is given by
Percentage Profit/Loss
Income − Expenditure
= # 100%
Expenditure
Income and expenditure (in million US $) of five
companies in the year 2011
. in
1.18 The maximum difference between the amount
invested in raw materials and value of sales of
. c o
ia
finished goods was during the years ?
(A) 2006 (B) 2008
(C) 2005 (D) 2007
o d
1.19
. n
The value of sales of finished goods in 2009 was
w
approximately what per cent of the sum of amounts
invested in raw materials in the years 2007,2008 1.23 The companies M and N together had a percentage
w
and 2009 ? of profit/loss of
w
(A) 37% (B) 49% (A) 10% loss (B) 10% profit
(C) 33% (D) 45% (C) 12% loss (D) there was no loss
or profit
1.20 What was the difference between the average
amount invested in raw materials during the given 1.24 In 2011, what was the approximate percentage of
period and the average value of sales of finished profit/loss of all the five companies taken together ?
goods during this period ? (A) 6.5% profit (B) 7% loss
(A) Rs 68.5 lakh (B) Rs 77.5 lakh (C) 5% profit (D) 4% loss
(C) Rs 62.5 lakh (D) Rs 71.5 lakh
1.25 Which company earned the maximum percentage 1.29 The difference in the average percentage increase in
profit in the year 2011 ? revenues, from 4th to 6th yr, of yahoo and facebook
(A) N (B) Q is
i. n
(C) M (D) P (A) 40% (B) 50%
(C) 35% (D) 45%
1.26 For company R, if the expenditure had increased by
20% in year 2011; from year 2010 and the company 1.30
.c o
What would have been facebook’s revenue (in $
i a
had earned profit of 10% in 2010, what was the million) in its sixth year of operation if the company
company’s income in 2010 (in million US $) ? had matched google’s percentage growth in revenues
d
(A) 37.25 from the fifth to the sixth year ? (Choose the option
o
(B) 41.25 that is nearest to the answer.)
. n
(C) 35.75 (A) 1700 (B) 2100
(C) 1600 (D) 1900
w
(D) 38.5
w
Common Data For Q 31 to 35
1.27 If the income of company Q in 2011 was 10% more
w
than its income in 2010 and the its expenditure in Consider the graph shown below.
2010 (in million US $) was
(A) 30.30 (B) 34.34
(C) 28.28 (D) 32.32
i. n
of operations, in an economy which is characterised
by a persistent inflation.
.co
ia 1.31 Number of students studying B.Com. in college
d
C forms approximately what per cent of the total
o
number of students studying B.Com. in all the
n
colleges together ?
w. (A) 18%
(C) 14%
(B) 22%
(D) None of these
1.28
ww
In 2010, which could be a valid statement about
the revenues (adjusted for inflation) of these three
1.32 What is the respectively ratio of total number of
students studying B.Sc., B.A. and B.Com. in all the
colleges together ?
companies ? (A) 67 : 71 : 75 (B) 71 : 65 : 74
(A) Revenues of all three companies could be
(C) 71 : 67 : 75 (D) None of these
equal
(B) Total of yahoo and facebook which was
definitely less than google. 1.33 What is the average number of students studying
(C) Revenue of yahoo was definitely less than B.Sc. in all the colleges together ?
facebook which was definitely less than google. (A) 435 (B) 545
(D) None of the above (C) 355 (D) None of these
i. n
(C) 26.86% (D) None of these (A) 32100 (B) 31500
(C) 34700 (D) data inadequate
o
1.35 What is the respective ratio of total number of
c
students studying B.Sc. in the colleges C and E The total number of candidates qualified in 2009
.
1.40
together to those studying B.A. in the college and 2010 together was 33500 and the number of
i a
together ? candidates appeared in 2009 was 26500. What was
d
(A) 25 : 27 (B) 29 : 26 the number of candidates appeared in 2010 ?
o
(C) 24 : 23 (D) None of these (A) 22000
n
(B) 19000
.
Common Data For Q 36 to 40 (C) 24500
w
The following line graph gives the percentage of the (D) 20500
w
number of candidates who qualified an examination
out of the total number of candidates who appeared Common Data For Q 41-44
w
for the examination over a period of seven years Consider the line graph given below which show
from 2004 to 2010. the currency ratio from 17th December to 24th
December 2010 and answer the questions that
follow.
. in
. c o
1.36 The difference between the percentage of candidates
d ia
o
qualified to appeared was maximum in which of the
following pairs of years ?
. n
(A) 2007 and 2008 (B) 2009 and 2010
w
(C) 2004 and 2009 (D) 2008 and 2009
w
1.41 On 19th December how much Yen would be
1.37 In which pair of years was the number of candidates approximately Rs. 4000 amount be ?
w
qualified, the same ? (A) 9985 (B) 8600
(A) 2005 and 2010 (B) 2008 and 2009 (C) 9300 (D) 10100
(C) 2005 and 2007 (D) data inadequate
1.42 If the Yen/Doller ratio follows the same trend from
1.38 If the number of candidates qualified in 2008 was 24th December to 27th December as from 21st to
21200, what was the number of candidates appeared 24th, then what will be the value of 50 Dollar on
in 2008 ? 27th December ?
(A) 28500 (B) 25000 (A) 5400 Yen (B) 3000
(C) 32000 (D) 26500 (C) Rs. 2000 (D) 6000 Yen
1.43 A stereo set costs $400. A person has Rs. 18200, 1.47 Land allotted for green zone is greater than that for
225 Pounds and 35000 Yen with him. He would be commercial purpose by
able to buy the stereo set on 20th December using (A) 2 acre (B) 3 acre
i. n
(assume that he can use only type of currency for 3 4
the transaction). (C) 3 acre (D) 4 acre
o
(A) 225 Pound 2 3
.c
(B) 35000 Yen 1.48 The total land allotted for residential and
a
(C) Rs. 18200
i
commercial purpose is
(D) Can’t be determined (A) 4 1 acre (B) 2 1 acre
d
2 2
o
(C) 2 1 acre (D) 2 3 acre
n
1.44 On 15th December the Rupee/Dollar ratio was 4 4
.
46.5, on that day, Rs. 5000 would fetch______
w
Pounds. Common Data For Q 49 to 53
(A) 71.68 Number of appeared candidates and passed
w
(B) 74.15 candidates (in hundreds) in a test from seven
w
(C) 80.06 different institutions
(D) Can’t be determined
i. n
.co 1.49 What is the difference between the number of
ia
candidates appeared from institutions B , C , D and
d
F together and candidates passed fro institutions
A, E and G together ?
o
(A) 900 (B) 540
.n
(C) 100 (D) 1000
w
(A) 490 (B) 675
1.45 The ratio of area allotted for residential and road
(C) 700 (D) 350
purpose is
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 8 : 3
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 3 : 8 1.51 Number of candidates passed from institutions C
and E together is approximately, what per cent of
the total number of candidates from institutions A
1.46 The percentage of the total area allotted for water and G together ?
body and green zone together is (A) 62% (B) 54%
(A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 72% (D) 67%
(C) 35% (D) 45%
i. n
(C) B (D) D
o
1.53 What is the respective ratio between the number of
c
candidates who have failed from institution B and
the number of candidates who have appeared from
institution F ?
i a .
d
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 3
o
(C) 2 : 5 (D) 4 : 3
w
distribution of runs scored by a batsman in a test
innings. Total Number of Employees = 4600
w
Ratio of men to women is given below.
Departments Men Women
HR 1 1
Accounts 3 1
Production 3 2
IT 1 3
in
Marketing 1 1
.
Merchandising 5 1
1.56
. c o
What is the number of women in the accounts
ia
departments ?
1.54 If the batsman has scored a total of 306 runs, how (A) 102 (B) 92
d
many 4s and 6s did he hit ? (C) 86 (D) 80
o
(A) 32 and 2, respectively
. n
(B) 33 and 1, respectively 1.57 What is the total number of employees working in
(C) 33 and 2, respectively
w
the IT department and HR department together ?
(D) 31 and 3, respectively (A) 1742
w
(B) 1766
w
1.55 If 5 of the dot balls had been hit for 4s and if two of (C) 1628
the shots for which the batsman scored 3 runs each (D) None of these
had fetched him one run instead. What would have
been the central angle of the sector corresponding
to the percentage of runs scored in four ?
1.58 What is the ratio of the total number of men to
(A) 163c (B) 167c the total number of women working in all the
departments together ?
(C) 160c (D) 165c (A) 41 : 27 (B) 27 : 19
(C) 63 : 41 (D) 53 : 47
1.59 The number of women in the merchandising 1.61 The number of students, who get jobs in finance
department forms what percent of the total number is less than the students getting marketing jobs, in
of employees in the organization ? the 5 yr by
i. n
(A) 6% (B) 12% (A) 650 (B) 548
(C) 3% (D) 1% (C) 826 (D) 750
.c o
What is the percentage increase in the average
i a
production department to the number of men in salary of finance from 1992-96 ?
the marketing department ? (A) 32% (B) 80%
d
(A) 9 : 11 (B) 11 : 9 (C) 60% (D) 96%
o
(C) 7 : 3 (D) 13 : 7
w
Common Data For Q 61 to 65 offered in software increase is
The first table gives the percentage of students in (A) 33% (B) 65%
w
MBA class, who sought employment in the areas of (C) 21% (D) 15.9%
w
finance, marketing and software. The second table
gives the average starting salaries of the students
per month (in Rs. thousand) in these areas. The
1.64 What is the percentage increase in the average
third table gives the number of students who passed monthly salary offered to a marketing student over
out in each year. the given 5 yr ?
Percentage of students (A) 117% (B) 80%
(C) 98% (D) 56%
Years Finance Marketing Software Others
1992 22 36 19 23
i. n
1.65 In 1994, students seeking jobs in finance earned
1993 17 48 23 12 more than those opting for software (per annum)
by
o
1994 23 43 21 13
(A) Rs. 33.8 lakh (B) Rs. 38.8 lakh
c
1995 19 37 16 28
.
(C) Rs. 43 lakh (D) Rs. 28.4 lakh
a
1996 32 32 20 16
di
Average of starting salary (in Rs. thousand) Common Data For Q 66 to 69
o
Years Finance Marketing Software Consider the bar graph and the pie charts below
n
that shows the Government revenue and capital
.
1992 5450 5170 5290 expenditure
w
1993 6380 6390 6440
1994 7550 7630 7050
1995
1996
8920
9810
8960
10220
ww 8160
8640
i. n
have 9 amp and after 2 km it will have 8 amp and
so on.
Further it is known that every ministation retains
o
50% of the electricity that it receives (after the
. c
losses) and passes on the remainder 50% of the
a
electricity that it receives to the stations down the
i
Government expenditure line.
d
= Borrowing + Government revenue Power distribution from a power plant
o
Revenue expenditure + Capital expenditure
. n
= Government expenditure
w
1.66 In 1993, individual income tax collection was Rs. 18
w
billion. The Government borrowings (in Rs. billion)
w
is
(A) 17 (B) 27
(C) 13 (D) 23
in
(C) 23 (D) 11.5 1.70 If ministation I is receiving 10 amp, then how much
.
is ministation A receiving ?
o
1.68 Government borrowings in 1992 and 1994 were (A) 8.2 amp (B) 10.5 amp
. c
equal. What is the increase in Government revenue (C) 7.5 amp (D) None of these
ia
during this period ?
(A) Rs. 8 billion (B) Rs. 11 billion
d
1.71 Approximately how much should P produce, so
(C) Rs. 6 billion (D) Rs. 10 billion
that C can get 10 amp of current ?
o
(A) 300 amp (B) 360 amp
. n
1.69 Borrowings and individual income tax collections (C) 230 amp (D) 330 amp
in 1993 are equal to those in 1990, respectively. If
w
the revenue in 1993 is 10% higher as compared to
If ministation H is receiving 34 amp, how much is
w
1.72
that in 1990, what percentage of the Government
revenue in 1990 comes from individual income tax G receiving ?
w
collections ? (A) 26.66 amp (B) 24 amp
(A) 23% (B) 25% (C) 80 amp (D) None of these
(C) 22% (D) 24%
1.73 If F is receiving 9 amp, how much is G receiving ?
Common Data For Q 70 to 74 (A) 45 amp (B) 25 amp
Power plant P produces certain amount of electricity, (C) 40 amp (D) 20 amp
which it distributes equally to substations Q and R
. They further distribute the obtained electricity 1.74 What percentage of the current produced by P ,
equally to the different ministations A, B , C , D reaches F ?
(A) 3.5% (B) 7.5% (civil). 22% of the total students are in B.Tech.
(C) 3.375% (D) 15% (nano technology). 16% of the girls are in B.Tech.
(computer science). 18% of boys are in B.Tech.
i. n
(mechanical). Girls in B.Tech. (civil) are 30% of
Common Data For Q 75 to 79
the girls in B.Tech. (computer science). 15% of
o
The officer’s colony of Badaun has 2800 members out boys are in B.Tech. (electronics). Boys in B.Tech.
.c
of which 650 members read only English newspaper. (computer science) are 50% of the girls in the same.
500 members read only Hindi newspaper and 450 15% of girls are in B.Tech. (aerospace). The ratio of
i a
members read only Marathi newspaper. The number boys to girls in B.Tech. (civil) is 3 : 1 respectively.
of members reading all the three newspapers is
d
24% of the total numbers of students are in B.Tech.
200. 400 members read Hindi as well as Marathi
o
(electronics). The ratio of boys to girls in B.Tech.
newspaper only and 300 members read English as (aerospace) is 12 : 5, respectively.
. n
well as Marathi newspaper only and 300 members
read English and as well as Hindi newspaper only.
w
1.80 What is the total number of students enrolled in
B.Tech. (mechanical) ?
w
1.75 What is the difference between the number of (A) 1530 (B) 1728
w
members reading English as well as Marathi
(C) 1062 (D) 1584
newspaper only and the number of members reading
English as well as Hindi newspaper only ?
(A) 200 (B) 100 1.81 Number of girls enrolled in B.Tech. (electronics)
(C) 300 (D) None of these forms approximately, what per cent of total number
of students in the college ?
(A) 13% (B) 22%
1.76 How many members read atleast two newspaper ?
(C) 7% (D) 15%
(A) 800 (B) 500
i. n
(C) 600 (D) None of these
1.82 What is the total number of girls enrolled in B.Tech.
(nano technology) ?
o
1.77 The number of members reading Hindi newspaper (A) 306 (B) 365
c
is
.
(C) 144 (D) 522
(A) 980 (B) 1020
(C) 750 (D) 1400
ia
d
1.83 Number of boys enrolled in B.Tech. (aerospace)
o
forms, what per cent of the total number of girls
1.78 How many members read only one newspaper ? enrolled in B.Tech. (computer science) ?
.n
(A) 1600 (B) 1540 (A) 200% (B) 225%
(C) 1560 (D) 1650
w
(C) 187.5% (D) 212.5%
w
1.79 The number of members reading atleast three 1.84 What is the total number of boys enrolled in B.Tech.
w
newspaper is (civil) ?
(A) 460 (B) 750 (A) 432 (B) 756
(C) 200 (D) 550 (C) 240 (D) 630
i. n
1.1 Correct answer is (B).
Required average number of students studying in
. c o = 58 + 45 + 46 + 40 + 55 + 42 = 286
Total number of students in standard V
i a
standard I = 50 + 45 + 42 + 52 + 52 + 60 = 301
d
= (42 + 50 + 40 + 45 + 48 + 52)/6 Total number of students in standard VI
o
= 277/6 = 38 + 46 + 54 + 50 + 48 + 54 = 290
n
Thus, standard I has the least number of students
.
= 46.16 b 46
w
1.5 Correct answer is (C).
1.2 Correct answer is (C).
w
Number of students studying in standard III of
Number of students studying in standard IV from
school A and B together = (48 + 58) = 106
w
school E = 55
Number of students studying is standard VI of
Number of students studying in standard IV from
school C and D together = (54 + 50) = 104
school D = 40
Required ratio = 106 : 104 = 53 : 52
Required percentage = 55/40 # 100% = 137.5%
in
.
Total number of students of school B Students Total marks Percentage
= 50 + 60 + 58 + 45 + 45 + 46 = 304 of total
Total number of students of school C
= 40 + 48 + 58 + 46 + 42 + 54 = 288 A
. c o
96 + 55 + 42 + 105 + 40
marks
338 100
ia
Total number of students of school D 450 #
= 338
= 45 + 55 + 46 + 40 + 52 + 50 = 288 = 75.11%
d
Total number of students of school E
o
B 85 + 60 + 51 + 90 + 36 322 100
= 48 + 55 + 44 + 55 + 52 + 48 = 302 450 #
n
= 322
.
Total number of students of school F = 71.55%
w
= 52 + 52 + 54 + 42 + 60 + 54 = 314 C 90 + 72 + 63 + 75 + 44 344 100
Thus, school F has the highest total number of 450 #
= 344
w
students. = 76.44%
w
D 82 + 69 + 57 + 78 + 35 321 100
450 #
1.4 Correct answer is (D). = 321
Total number of students in standard I = 71.33%
= 42 + 50 + 40 + 45 + 48 + 52 = 277 E 78 + 70 + 66 + 120 + 48 382 100
450 #
Total number of students in standard II = 382
= 54 + 60 + 48 + 55 + 55 + 52 = 324 = 84.88%
Total number of students in standard III F 62 + 54 + 45 + 76 + 34 271 100
= 48 + 58 + 58 + 46 + 44 + 54 = 308 450 #
= 271
Total number of students in standard IV = 60.22%
i. n
So, required difference Education cess = 3% of 18485 = 554.55
= (84.88 − 60.22)% = 24.66% b total tax = 18485 + 554.55 = 1903.55
o
Alternative Method Hence, required percentage
.c
Here , for finding the answer, there is no need to = 19039.55 # 100 = 5.64%
337425
ia
calculate percentage marks of each student. Take
the maximum difference of marks of any two
d
students, then find the required percentage. 1.12 Correct answer is (C).
o
Maximum difference = 382 − 271 = 111 Checking from options, it can be seen that if his
n
income is Rs. 1348835, the paid is Rs. 317910.
.
So, required percentage difference
= 111 # 100% = 24.66% - 24%
w
450 1.13 Correct answer is (D).
w
Total production of two commodities
1.7 Correct answer is (D).
w
for the year 2002 = 20 + 30 = 50
Average of marks obtained in English by all the
for the year 2003 = 125 + 150 = 275
students
for the year 2004 = 175 + 175 = 350
= 105 + 90 + 75 + 78 + 120 + 76 for the year 2005 = 150 + 200 = 350
6
= 90.66 - 90 for the year 2006 = 225 + 250 = 475
So, required percentage = 72 # 100% = 80% for the year 2007 = 200 + 225 = 425
90
for the year 2008 = 250 + 200 = 450
Thus, required year are 2004 and 2005.
i. n
1.8 Correct answer is (B).
Average of marks obtained in Physics by all the
o
students 1.14 Correct answer is (D).
c
55 + 60 + 72 + 69 + 70 + 54 = 63.33 Total production of commodity X
.
6 = 20 + 125 + 175 + 150 + 225 + 200 + 250 = 1145
ia
Thus, three students i.e., C , D and E obtained the Total production of commodity Y
marks more than the average.
d
= 30 + 150 + 175 + 200 + 250 + 225 + 200 = 1230
o
Required ratio = 1145: 1230 = 229: 246
n
1.9 Correct answer is (A).
.
Marks obtained by F in Physics and English
w
together = 54 + 76 = 130 1.15 Correct answer is (C).
Percentage increase/decrease in production of
w
So, required percentage = 130 # 100 = 40.5 - 40% commodity X from the previous year
321
w
In the year 2003 = 125 − 20 # 100% = 525%
1.10 Correct answer is (D). 20
Since, E got the highest marks in the class, thus, E In the year 2004 = 175 − 125 # 100% = 40%
is first in the class. 125
In the year 2005 = 175 − 150 # 100% = 14.28%
175
1.11 Correct answer is (C).
In the year 2006 = 225 − 150 # 100% = 50%
Total text to be paid = (300000 − 190000) at the 150
rate of 10% In the year 2007 = 225 − 200 # 100% = 11.11%
225
= 110000 at the rate of 10% = 11000
(337425-300000) at the rate of 20% In the year 2008 = 250 − 200 # 100% = 25%
200
i. n
Total production of commodity Y .
= Rs. :1 # (200 + 300 + 500 + 400 + 600 + 460)
= 30 + 150 + 175 + 200 + 250 + 225 + 200 = 1230 6
. c o
− 1 # (120 + 225 + 375 + 330 + 525 + 420)D
a
- 175 lakh tonnes = Rs. ;2460 − 1995E lakh
i
6 6
d
= Rs. (410 − 332.5) lakh
o
1.17 Correct answer is (A).
= Rs. 77.5 lakh
n
Total production of the two commodities together
.
for the years 2002, 2003 and 2004
w
= (20 + 30) + (125 + 150) + (175 + 175) = 675 1.21 Correct answer is (A).
The percentage change in the amount invested in
w
Total production of the two commodities together
for the year 2006, 2007 and 2008 raw materials and in the value of sales of finished
w
goods for different years are as follow :
= (225 + 250) + (200 + 225) + (250 + 200) = 1350
Percentage change in amount invested in raw
Required ratio = 675 : 1350
materials.
= 1:2 (225 − 120)
for 2006 = # 100% = 87.5%
120
1.18 Correct answer is (D). (375 − 225)
for 2007 = # 100% = 66.67%
The differences between the amount invested in 225
raw material and the value sales of finished goods (330 − 375)
for 2008 = # 100% =− 12%
in
375
for 2005 = Rs. (200 − 120) lakh = Rs. 80 lakh
.
(525 − 330)
for 2006 = Rs. (300 − 225) lakh = Rs. 75 lakh for 2009 = # 100% = 59.09%
o
330
c
for 2007 = Rs. (500 − 375) lakh = Rs. 125 lakh (420 − 525)
.
for 2010 = # 100% =− 20%
for 2008 = Rs. (400 − 330) lakh = Rs. 70 lakh 525
ia
for 2009 = Rs.(600 − 525) lakh = Rs. 75 lakh Percentage change in value of sales of finished goods
d
for 2010 = Rs. ^460 − 420h lakh = Rs. 40 lakh for 2006 =
(330 − 200)
# 100% = 50%
o
200
Clearly, maximum difference was during the year
n
(500 − 300)
.
2007. for 2007 = # 100% = 66.67%
300
w
(400 − 500)
1.19 Correct answer is (B). for 2008 = # 100% =− 20%
500
w
Value of sales of finished goods in the year 2009 (600 − 400)
w
for 2009 = # 100% = 50%
= Rs. 600 lakh 400
Amount invested in raw materials in the years 2007, (460 − 600)
for 2010 = # 100% =− 23.33%
2008 and 2009 600
= 375 + 330 + 525 Thus, the percentage change was same during the
= Rs. 1230 year 2007.
= 48.78% - 49% From the above solution, we can say that the
maximum percentage increase is in 2006.
i. n
= $ (35 + 50) US million
= $ 85 US million i.e., expenditure of company R in 2010
= $ 37.5 US million
o
Total expenditure of companies M and N together.
= $ ^45 + 40h US million Let the income of company R in 2010 be I million
.c
US $
= $ 85 US million
i a
(I − 37.5)
Thus, there was neither loss nor profit for companies Then, 10 = 100
37.5 #
d
M and N together.
(a Profit percentage in 2010 = 10% )
n
I - 37.5 = 3.75
.
1.24 Correct answer is (C).
Total income of all five companies I = 41.25
w
i.e., income of company R in 2010 = $ 41.25 US
= $ (35 + 50 + 40 + 40 + 50) US millions
w
million
= $ 215 US million
w
Total expenditure of all five companies
Correct answer is (A).
1.27
= $ (45 + 40 + 45 + 30 + 45) US million
Let the income of company Q in 2010 = $ X US
= $ 205 US million
million then, income of company Q in 2010
(215 − 205)
Profit percentage = ; # 100E %
205 = $ b 110 # X l US million
100
= 4.88 - 5%
110X = 40
100
i. n
1.25 Correct answer is (B). X = b 400 l
The percentage profit/loss in the year 2011 for 11
i.e. income of company Q in 2010 = $ b 400 l US
o
various companies are as follow
11
c
for M and P , there is a loss
.
million
^50 − 40h
a
for N = # 100% = 25%
i
40 Let the expenditure of company Q in 2010 be E
d
i.e., Profit = 25% million US $
o
6(400/11) − E @
(40 − 30)
for Q = # 100% = 33.33%
n
30 Then, 20 = # 100
.
E
i.e., Profit . = 33 33%
(Profit percentage = 20% )
w
(50 − 45)
for R = # 100% = 11.11%
w
45
20 = ; 400 − 1E # 100
i.e., Profit . = 11 11% 11E
in 2011. w
Clearly, the company Q earned the maximum profit E = 400 # 100 = 30.30
11 120
Expenditure of company Q in 2010 = $ 30.30 US
million
1.26 Correct answer is (B).
Let the expenditure of company R in 2010 be X 1.28 Correct answer is (D).
millions US $ then, expenditure of company R in No data has been given the question as to which
2011 year amongst the given years in the graph is 2010.
= $ b 120 # X l US million So, its answer can’t be given and hence last option
100 is correct.
i. n
250 in all the colleges together
=
5
Average percentage increase = 380 = 190%
o
2
= 1775 = 355
c
5
.
Revenue of facebook in 6th year = 2000
a
Revenue of facebook in 4th year = 350
i
1.34 Correct answer is (A).
So, percentage increase = 1650 # 100 = 471.43%
d
350 Number of students studying B.A. in college
o
Average percentage increase = 235.72% B = 300
. n
Required difference = 235.72% − 190% = 45.72% Number of students studying all the disciplines
together in college
w
- 45%
B = 300 + 325 + 475 = 1100
1.30 Correct answer is (C).
w w
Percentage increase in google’s growth between 5th
and 6th year
Required percentage = 300 # 100% = 27.27%
= 3250 − 1500 # 100% = 116.67% Total number of students studying B.Sc. in the
1500 college C and E together
So, required value of facebook revenue after 6th
= 300 + 425 = 725
year
Total number of students studying B.A. in the
= 750 # ^100 + 116.67h % college C and E together
= 750 # 216.67%
in
= 325 + 325 = 650
.
= 1625.025 Required ratio = 725 : 650 = 29 : 26
o
- 1600
. c
1.36 Correct answer is (C).
ia
1.31 Correct answer is (A). From the given line graph, it is clear that the
Number of students studying B.Com. in college difference between the percentage of candidates
d
C = 325 qualified to appeared was maximum for the years
o
Total number of students studying B.Com. in all 2004 and 2009 as 2004 has the minimum percentage
. n
the colleges together while 2009 has the maximum percentage.
= ^425 + 475 + 325 + 400 + 225h
= 1850
w w
Required percentage = 325 # 100% - 18%
1.37 Correct answer is (D).
We can’t determine the actual number of qualified
w
1850 candidates as we don’t know the number of appeared
students.
1.32 Correct answer is (B).
Total number of students studying
1.38 Correct answer is (D).
in B.Sc. = 350 + 325 + 300 + 375 + 425 = 1775
Let number of candidates appeared in 2008 be x .
in B.A. = 225 + 300 + 325 + 450 + 325 = 1625
Then, 80% of x = 21200
in B.Com = 425 + 475 + 325 + 400 + 225 = 1850
Therefore, required ratio = 1775 : 1625 : 1850 x = 21200 # 100 = 26500
80
= 71 : 65 : 74
i. n
2006 and in 2007, separately.
o
1.45 Correct answer is (A).
.c
1.40 Correct answer is (D). Angleof area alloted for resident
Required ratio =
Number of candidates appeared in 2009 = 26500 Angle of area alloted for road
i a = 144c = 4 : 1
Therefore, number of candidates qualified in 2009
36c
d
= 80% of 26500 = 21200
o
Number of candidates qualified in 2010
1.46 Correct answer is (C).
n
= 33500 − 21200 = 12300
.
Angle of area alloted for water body and green zone
Now, let the number of candidates appeared in together
w
2010 be x .
= 18c + 108c = 126c
w
Then, 60% of x = 12300
Required percentage = 126 # 100% = 35%
w
x = 12300 # 100 = 20500 360
60
i. n
and Yen = 106.75 360c
Dollar Required value = ^1.5 − 0.75h acre
o
Yen = 106.75 # 2000 = 0.75 acre
c
23
.
= 9282 - 9300
= 3 acre
a
4
o
1.42 Correct answer is (A).
Land alloted for residential purpose
n
Following the same trend from 24th December to
.
27th December as from 21st December to 24th = 144 # 5 = 2 acre
360
w
December,
Land alloted for commercial purpose
Yen = 108
w
Dollar = 54 # 5 = 0.75 = 3 acre
360 4
w
= 50 # 108 = 5400
Yen
Total required land = 2 + 3 = 2 3 acre
4 4
1.43 Correct answer is (C).
On 20th December, 1.49 Correct answer is (D).
Rupee Number of candidates appeared from institutions
= 45.5 B , C , D and F together
Dollar
Dollar = 18200 = $400 = 1400 + 700 + 1200 + 600 = 3900
45.5 Candidates passed from institutions A, E and G
Thus, the person can purchase the stereo set using together
Rs. 18200. = 1200 + 1200 + 500 = 2900
i. n
Average number of candidates passed from all the
institute together = 33 fours ^33 # 4 = 132h
Total runs scored by 6’s = 3.92% of 306 = 12
o
= 1200 + 1000 + 400 + 400 + 1200 + 200 + 50
7 ^2 # 6 = 12h
c
= 2 sixes
= 4900 = 700
7
i a
1.55
. Correct answer is (C).
d
Considering the changes mentioned in the question,
o
1.51 Correct answer is (D).
Total runs = 306 + 3 # 4 + 2 # 3
n
Number of candidates passed from institutions C
.
= 306 + 12 + 6 = 324
and E institutes together
Total runs second in 4’s = 132 + 12 = 144
w
= 400 + 1200 = 1600
Required angle = 144 # 360c = 160c
w
Number of candidates appeared from institutions
324
A and G together
w
= 1300 + 1100 = 2400 1.56 Correct answer is (B).
Therefore, required percentage Total number of employees in accounts department
% = 1600 # 100 - 67% = 8% of 4600 = 368
2400
Number of women = 368 # 1 = 92
^3 + 1h
1.52 Correct answer is (D).
Difference between appeared and passed candidates 1.57 Correct answer is (D).
from
in
Total number of employees in IT and HR
.
institution A = 1300 − 1200 = 100 departments
= ^26 + 11h % of 4600
o
institution B = 1400 − 1000 = 400
c
institution C = 700 − 400 = 300 = 37 # 4600 = 1702
.
100
institution D = 1200 − 400 = 800
ia
institution E = 1500 − 1200 = 300
d
1.58 Correct answer is (D).
institution F = 600 − 200 = 400
o
Total number of men in all the departments
institution G = 1100 − 500 = 600
n
= ;b 11 # 1l + b 8 # 3 l + b 15 # 3 l + b 26 # 1l
.
Thus, difference is maximum for institution D . 2 4 5 4
w
+b 22 # 1l + b 18 # 5 lE % of 4600
Correct answer is (A). 2 6
w
1.53
Number of candidates who have failed from = ^5.5 + 6 + 9 + 6.5 + 11 + 15h % of 4600
w
institution B = 47% of 4600
= Number of appeared candidates from institution B Hence, required ratio = 53 : 47
- Number of passed candidates from institution B
= 1400 − 1000 = 400 1.59 Correct answer is (C).
and number of candidates appeared from institution Number of women is merchandising department
F = 600
= 1 of 18% of 4600
Required ratio = 400 : 600 = 2 : 3 6
Total number of employees in the organization
= 4600
i. n
%
5450
o
1.60 Correct answer is (A).
1.63 Correct answer is (D).
.c
Number of men in the production department
Salary offered in software
= 3 of 15% of 4600
i
5 in 1992 = Rs. 5290 thousand
d
Number of men in marketing department in 1996 = Rs. 8640 thousand
o
= 1 of 22% of 4600 Percentage increase = 8640 − 5290 # 100%
2 5290
5
. n
Then, required ratio = 3 of 15% of 4600 : 1 of
2 = 3350 # 100 = 63.32%
5290
w
22% of 4600 Thus, required average annual increase rate
= 3 # 15 : 1 # 22
5
= 9 : 11
2
w w
- 15.9%
= 1 # 63.32 = 15.83%
4
i. n
employed from finance marketing Required percentage increase
1992 800 0.22 # 800 0.36 # 800 = 10220 − 5170 # 100
5170
o
= 176 = 288
= 5050 # 100 - 98%
c
1993 650 0.17 # 650 0.48 # 650 %
.
5170
= 110.5 = 312
ia
1994 1100 0.23 # 1100 0.43 # 1100 1.65 Correct answer is (A).
d
= 253 = 473
In 1994, students seeking jobs in finance earned
o
1995 1200 0 . 19 # 1200 0 . 37 # 1200
= 23% of 1100 # 7550
n
= 228 = 444
.
= Rs. 1910150
1996 1000 0.32 # 1000 0.32 # 1000
Students seeking jobs in software earned
w
= 320 = 320
= 21% of 1100 # 7050 = Rs. 1628550
w
Total 1087.50 1837
= Rs. 1628550
w
Required difference = 1837 − 1087.5 Difference in the amount earned
= 749.5 - 750 = 1910150 − 1628550
= Rs. 281600
1.62 Correct answer is (B). = Rs. 2.81 lakh per month
Average salary of Fiance in 1992 = Rs. 2.81 # 12 lakh per annum
= Rs. 5450 thousand = Rs. 33.8 lakh per annum
Average salary of Finance in 1996
= Rs. 9810 thousand 1.66 Correct answer is (D).
i. n
= 113 − 90 = Rs. 23 billion two times for 2 km. Thus, substation Q will also
receive 25 amp. The 25 amp that Q receives will be
o
distributed equally into A, D and G , with a 10%
Correct answer is (B).
c
1.67
loss for 1 km. A would receive 1/3 of 90% of 25
.
Let revenue in 1991 and 1993 be r1 and r2 ,
= 7.5 amp.
i a
respectively and borrowing in these years be B and
^B - 10h, respectively.
d
1.71 Correct answer is (D).
r1 = 110 − B
o
In year 1991, For C to receive 10 amp, B should send 11.11 amp
r2 = 113 − ^B − 10h
n
In year 1993, to C as after a loss of 10%, C will receive 10 amp.
.
Increase in revenue, r2 − r1 = 13 If C receives 10 amp, B will have received 22.22
w
Average increase in revenue = 13 (for the period amp (since, B will retain half and send forward
2
w
half the electricity is receives.) That means A
from 1991-93)
should send 24.7 amp to B (approx.) Thus, A
w
= Rs. 6.5 billion
receives ^24.7 # 2h = 49.4 amp . Thus, substation
Q sends 55 amp to A. So, Q must have received
55 # 3 = 165 amp . Hence, P must have produced
1.68 Correct answer is (A).
165 # 2 = 330 amp .
Since, borrowing are equal, increase in Government
revenue would be equal to increase in Government
expenditure (Government expenditure = Borrowing 1.72 Correct answer is (B).
+ Government revenue) As H is receiving 34 amp, as R must be sending
in
Increase in government revenue 40 amp to H . Thus, R receives 80 amp and so will
.
Q , Q will send forward towards G , 1/3 of 90% of
= Expenditure in 1994 – Expenditure in 1992
o
80 = 24 amp as 10% of 80 amp will be lost on the
c
way.
= ^60 + 60h − ^58 + 54h = Rs. 8 billion
1.73
ia .
Correct answer is (C).
d
1.69 Correct answer is (C). As we have done above, F will receive 9 amp, if D
o
Let r be the revenue in 1990, then revenue in 1993 sends 10 amp to each of E and F . Thus, D must
n
= 1.1r be getting 40 amp. Since, D and G are identical, G
.
Expenditure = Borrowing + Revenue must be receiving 40 amp.
w
In year 1993, 58 + 55 = b + 1.1r
Correct answer is (C).
w
1.74
In year 1990, 55 + 50 = b + r
Suppose, P is producing 100% current, then 50%
w
0.1r = 113 − 105 = 8 billion
of it will reach Q . Then, D will receive (1/3 of 90%
r = Rs. 80 billion of 50)% = 15%
Revenue in 1993 = 1.1 # 80 = Rs. 88 billion
Thus, F will receive = 1 of 90% of b 15 l = 3.375%
Income tax in 1990 = Income tax in 1993 2 2
= 0.2 # 88 = Rs. 17.6 billion
1.75 Correct answer is (D).
Percentage income tax in revenues in 1990
Number of members reading English as well as
= 17.6 # 100% = 176 % = 22% Marathi newspaper only is 300. Number of members
80 8
reading English as well as Hindi newspaper only is
300. Therefore, required difference = 300 − 300 = 0
i. n
= 300 + 300 + 400 + 200 = 1200
.c o
i a
Number of members reading Hindi newspaper
d
= 500 + 300 + 200 + 400 = 1400
n o
.
From the above venn diagram, the number of
w
members reading only one newspaper
w
= 650 + 500 + 450 = 1600
1.79
w
Correct answer is (C).
From the above venn diagram, the number of
members reading atleast three newspapers = 200 .
i. n
= 756 + 306 = 1062
o
1.81 Correct answer is (D).
c
Number of girls enrolled in B.Tech. (electronics)
.
= 1098
ia
Required percentage = 1098 # 100 = 15.25 - 15%
d
7200
o
1.82 Correct answer is (D).
.n
Number of girls enrolled in B.Tech. (nano
technology) = 522
ww
w
Number of boys enrolled in B.Tech (aerospace)
= 1080
Number of girls enrolled in B.Tech (computer
science) = 480
Required percentage = 1080 # 100% = 225%
480
GATE
Instrumentation Engineering
Engineering Mathematics
Vol 2 of 5
RK Kanodia
Ashish Murolia
Information contained in this book has been obtained by author, from sources believes to be reliable. However,
neither NODIA & COMPANY nor its author guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information herein,
and NODIA & COMPANY nor its author shall be responsible for any error, omissions, or damages arising out of
use of this information. This book is published with the understanding that NODIA & COMPANY and its author
are supplying information but are not attempting to render engineering or other professional services.
MRP 490.00
Later, we perceived that many aspirants couldn’t develop a good problem solving approach in their B.E/B.Tech.
Some of them lacked the fundamentals of a subject and had difficulty understanding simple solutions. Now,
we have an idea to enhance our content and present two separate books for each subject: one for theory, which
contains brief theory, problem solving methods, fundamental concepts, and points-to-remember. The second book
is about problems, including a vast collection of problems with descriptive and step-by-step solutions that can
be understood by an average student. This was the origin of GATE Guide (the theory book) and GATE Cloud
(the problem bank) series: two books for each subject. GATE Guide and GATE Cloud were published in three
subjects only.
Thereafter we received an immense number of emails from our readers looking for a complete study package
for all subjects and a book that combines both GATE Guide and GATE Cloud. This encouraged us to present
GATE Study Package (a set of 10 books: one for each subject) for GATE Electronic and Communication
Engineering. Each book in this package is adequate for the purpose of qualifying GATE for an average student.
Each book contains brief theory, fundamental concepts, problem solving methodology, summary of formulae,
and a solved question bank. The question bank has three exercises for each chapter: 1) Theoretical MCQs, 2)
Numerical MCQs, and 3) Numerical Type Questions (based on the new GATE pattern). Solutions are presented
in a descriptive and step-by-step manner, which are easy to understand for all aspirants.
We believe that each book of GATE Study Package helps a student learn fundamental concepts and develop
problem solving skills for a subject, which are key essentials to crack GATE. Although we have put a vigorous
effort in preparing this book, some errors may have crept in. We shall appreciate and greatly acknowledge all
constructive comments, criticisms, and suggestions from the users of this book. You may write to us at rajkumar.
[email protected] and [email protected].
Acknowledgements
We would like to express our sincere thanks to all the co-authors, editors, and reviewers for their efforts in
making this project successful. We would also like to thank Team NODIA for providing professional support for
this project through all phases of its development. At last, we express our gratitude to God and our Family for
providing moral support and motivation.
Exercise 6
Solutions 20
2.2 Vector 39
2.2.1 Equality of Vectors 39
2.2.2 Null Vector or Zero Vector 39
2.2.3 A Vector as a Linear Combination of a Set of Vectors 40
2.2.4 Linear Dependence and Independence of Vectors 40
2.3 System of Linear Equations 40
Exercise 42
Solutions 51
Exercise 69
Solutions 80
Exercise 102
Solutions 115
Exercise 140
Solutions 147
Exercise 164
Solutions 168
Exercise 177
Solutions 182
Exercise 193
Solutions 202
Solutions 234
Solutions 266
Exercise 289
Solutions 300
Exercise 319
Solutions 325
Exercise 342
Solutions 347
Exercise 367
Solutions 380
Solutions 420
Solutions 453
Chapter 17 Probability
17.1 Introduction 469
Exercise 476
Solutions 491
Solutions 533
Chapter 19 Statistics
19.1 Introduction 543
Exercise 547
Solutions 550
Solutions 565
Exercise 21 571
Solutions 21 579
Solutions 608
Exercise 623
Solutions 628
***********
CHAPTER 1
Matrix Algebra
1.1 Introduction
This chapter, concerned with the matrix algebra, includes the following
topics:
•• Multiplication of matrix
•• Transpose of matrix
•• Determinant of matrix
•• Rank of matrix
•• Adjoint of matrix
•• Inverse of matrix: elementary transformation, determination of inverse
using elementary transformation
•• Echelon form and normal form of matrix; procedure for reduction of
normal form.
If A, B and C are three matrices such that their product is defined, then
1. Generally not commutative; AB ! BA
2. Associative law; (AB) C = A (BC)
3. Distributive law; A (B + C) = AB + AC
4. Cancellation law is not applicable, i.e. if AB = AC , it does not mean
that B = C .
5. If AB = 0 , it does not mean that A = 0 or B = 0 .
6. (AB)T = (BA)T
GATE STUDY PACKAGE INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Set of 5 Books by NODIA Publication
Page 2 1.3 Transpose of a Matrix
Sample Chapter of GATE Instrumentation Engineering Vol- 2
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra The matrix obtained form a given matrix A by changing its rows into
columns or columns int rows is called Transpose of matrix A and is denoted
by AT . From the definition it is obvious that if order of A is m # n , then
order of AT is n # m .
i. n
1.4 Determinant of a Matrix
o
a11 a12 a13
.c
A = a21 a22 a23
a
a31 a32 a33
d i
Properties of determinant of matrix
o
Consider the two matrices A and B .
n
.
1. A exists + A is a square matrix
w
2. AB = A B
3. AT = A
w w
4. kA = kn A , if A is a square matrix of order n .
5. If A and B are square matrices of same order then AB = BA .
6. If A is a skew symmetric matrix of odd order then A = 0 .
7. If A = diag (a1, a2,...., an) then A = a1, a2 ...an .
8. A n = An , n ! N .
9. If A = 0 , then matrix is called singular.
Singular Matrix
A square matrix A is said to be singular if A = 0 and non-singular if
A ! 0.
The number, r with the following two properties is called the rank of the
matrix
1. There is at least one non-zero minor of order r .
2. Every minor of order (r + 1) is zero.
This definition of the rank does uniquely fix the same for, as a consequence
of the condition (2), every minor of order (r + 2), being the sum of multiples
of minors of order (r + 1), will be zero. In fact, every minor of order greater
in
then the transpose of the matrix so obtained is called the Adjoint of matrix
A and it is denoted by adj A. Thus, if A = 6aij @ be a square matrix and Fij
.
be the cofactor of aij in A , then adj A + 6Fij @T .
o
.c
Properties of adjoint matrix
ia
If A, B are square matrices of order n ad In is corresponding unit matrix,
d
then
o
1. A (adj A) = A In = (adj A)A
n
2. adj A = A n − 1
.
3. adj (adj A) = A n − 2 A
w
2
4. adj (adj A) = A (n − 1)
w
5. adj (AT ) = (adj A)T
w
6. adj (AB) = (adj B)(adj A)
7. adj (Am) = (adj A) m, m ! N
8. adj (kA) = kn − 1 (adj A), k ! R
If A and B are two matrices such that AB = I = BA, then B is called the
inverse of A and it is denoted by A-1 . Thus,
A-1 = B + AB = I = BA
To find inverse matrix of a given matrix A we use following formula
adj A
A-1 =
A
Thus A-1 exists if A ! 0 and matrix A is called invertible.
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra Let A and B are two invertible matrices of the same order, then
1. (AT ) −1 = (A−1)T
2. (AB) −1 = B−1 A−1
3. (Ak ) −1 = (A−1) k , k ! N
4. adj (A−1) = (adj A) −1
5. A−1 = 1 = A −1
A
6. If A = diag (a1, a2,..., an), then A−1 = diag (a 1-1, a 2-1, ..., a n-1)
7. AB = AC & B = C , if A ! 0
i. n
1. Interchange of two rows or two columns
(1) The interchange of i th and j th rows is denoted by Ri ) R j
o
(2) The interchange of i th and j th columns is denoted by Ci ) C j .
i a
th
.c
2. Multiplication of (each element ) a row or column by a k.
(1) The multiplication of i row by k is denoted by Ri " kRi
d
(2) The multiplication of i th column by k is denoted by Ci " kCi
n o
3. Addition of k times the elements of a row (or column) to the corresponding
.
elements of another row (or column), k ! 0
w
(1) The addition of k times the j th row to the i th row is denoted by
w
Ri " Ri + kR j .
w
(2) The addition of k times the j th column to the i th column is denoted by
Ci " Ci + kC j .
If a matrix B is obtained from a matrix A by one or more E -operations,
then B is said to be equivalent to A. They can be written as A + B .
in
1.9 NORMAL FORM
o.
By a finite number of elementary transformations, every non-zero matrix
A of order m # n and rank r (> 0) can be reduced to one of the following
forms.
a.c
i
Ir O Ir
> O O H, > O H, 8Ir OB, 8IrB
od
Ir denotes identity matrix of order r . Each one of these four forms is called
Normal Form or Canonical Form or Orthogonal Form.
.n
Procedure for Reduction of Normal Form
w
Let A = 6aij@ be any matrix of order m # n . Then, we can reduce it to the
w
normal form of the matrix A by subjecting it to a number of elementary
transformation using following methodology.
w
Methodology: Reduction of normal form
**********
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra
Column I Column II
P. Singular matrix 1. Determinant is not defined
Q. Non-square matrix 2. Determinant is always one
R. Real symmetric 3. Determinant is zero
S. Orthogonal matrix 4. Eigenvalues are always real
5. Eigenvalues are not defined
.c
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4
a
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
d i
QUE 1.2
n o
Cayley-Hamilton Theorem states that a square matrix satisfies its own
.
characteristic equation. Consider a matrix
w
−3 2
A = >
− 2 0H
w
ARIHANT/286/26
w
If A be a non-zero square matrix of orders n , then
(A) the matrix A + Al is anti-symmetric, but the matrix A - Al is
symmetric
(B) the matrix A + Al is symmetric, but the matrix A - Al is anti-
symmetric
(C) Both A + Al and A - Al are symmetric
(D) Both A + Al and A - Al are anti-symmetric
QUE 1.3 If A and B are two odd order skew-symmetric matrices such that AB = BA
ARIHANT/285/3
, then what is the matrix AB ?
(A) An orthogonal matrix
(B) A skew-symmetric matrix
(C) A symmetric matrix
(D) An identity matrix
QUE 1.5 If the rank of a ^5 # 6h matrix A is 4, then which one of the following Page 7
.in
o
QUE 1.7 If A ! Rn # n, det A ! 0 , then A is
c
(A) non singular and the rows and columns of A are linearly independent.
a.
(B) non singular and the rows A are linearly dependent.
i
(C) non singular and the A has one zero rows.
d
(D) singular
no
QUE 1.8
ARIHANT/286/28
w.
Square matrix A of order n over R has rank n . Which one of the following
statement is not correct?
ww
(A) AT has rank n
(B) A has n linearly independent columns
(C) A is non-singular
(D) A is singular
R V
S5 3 2 W
QUE 1.9 Determinant of the matrix S1 2 6 W is_____
SS3 5 10 WW
T X
R V
1 3 2 S2 7 8W
QUE 1.12 If 0 5 − 6 = 26 , then the determinant of the matrix S0 5 - 6 W is____
2 7 8 SS1 3 2 WW
T X
R 0 1 0 2 VW
S
S- 1 1 1 3W
QUE 1.13 The determinant of the matrix S is______
0 0 0 1W
S W
S 1 -2 0 1W
T X
i. n
QUE 1.14 Let A be an m # n matrix and B an n # m matrix. It is given that
determinant ^Im + AB h = determinant ^In + BAh, where Ik is the k # k
o
identity matrix. Using the above property, the determinant of the matrix
.c
given below is______
R V
S2 1 1 1W
i a
S1 2 1 1W
S1 1 2 1W
d
S W
o
S1 1 1 2W
T X
. n
QUE 1.15
ARIHANT/306/14
w w
Let A = >
3 1 − 2i
1 − 2i 2
H, then
w (1) A = >
3 1 − 2i
1 + 2i
(3) A * = A (4)
2
H (2)
A *= >
2 1 + 2i
1 − 2i
A is hermitian matrix
2
H
QUE 1.16 For which value of λ will the matrix given below become singular?
R V
ARIHANT/292/110
S 8 λ 0W
S 4 0 2W
SS12 6 0WW
T X
R V
S 0 1 - 2W
QUE 1.17 If S- 1 0 3 W is a singular, then l is______
SS 2 - 2 l WW
T X
1 2 3 4
Rank of matrix =
- 2 0 5 7G
QUE 1.19 is
.in
o
R V
S1 1 1 W
.c
QUE 1.20 The rank of the matrix S1 - 1 0 W is______
a
SS1 1 1 WW
i
T X
od
n
Given,
.
QUE 1.21
ARIHANT/306/8 R V
S1 2 3W
w
A = S1 4 2W
w
SS2 6 5WW
T X
w
(1) A = 0 (2) A =Y 0
(3) rank ^Ah = 2 (4) rank ^Ah = 3
Which of above statement is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
R V
S2 1 − 1W
QUE 1.22 Given, A = S0 3 − 2W is
ARIHANT/306/11 SS2 4 − 3WW
T
(1) A = 0 (3) X A =Y 0
(3) rank ^Ah = 2 (4) rank ^Ah = 5
Which of above statement is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
R V
S4 2 1 3W
QUE 1.23 Given matrix 6A@ = S6 3 4 7W, the rank of the matrix is_____
ARIHANT/292/111 SS2 1 0 1WW
T X
Chap 1 QUE 1.24 The rank of the matrix A = S4 7 λW is 2. The value of l must be
Matrix Algebra SS1 4 5WW
T X
R1 2 3 0 VW
S
S2 4 3 2W
QUE 1.25 The rank of matrix S is______
3 2 1 3W
S W
S6 8 7 5W
T X
i. n
(1) A = 0 (2) Two rows are identical
(3) rank ^Ah = 2 (4) rank ^Ah = 3
o
Which of above statement is/are correct ?
.c
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
a
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
d i
QUE 1.27
n o
Two matrices A and B are given below :
.
p q p2 + q2 pr + qs
A = > H ; B=> H
w
r s pr + qs r2 + s2
w
If the rank of matrix A is N , then the rank of matrix B is
w
(A) N/2 (B) N - 1
(C) N (D) 2N
QUE 1.28 If x, y, z are in AP with common difference d and the rank of the matrix
ARIHANT/286/27 R V
S4 5 x W
S5 6 y W is 2, then the value of d and k are
SS6 k z WW
T d =X x/2 ; k is an arbitrary number
(A)
(B) d an arbitrary number; k = 7
(C) d = k ; k = 5
(D) d = x/2 ; k = 6
QUE 1.31 Let A = [aij ], 1 # i, j # n with n $ 3 and aij = i.j Then the rank of A is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) n - 1 (D) n
in
If ρ (P) = n and ρ (Q) = p , then rank ρ (PQ) is
.
(A) n (B) p
o
(C) np (D) n + p
a.c
i
QUE 1.33 x = 8x1 x2 g xnBT is an n-tuple nonzero vector. The n # n matrix
d
V = xxT
o
(A) has rank zero (B) has rank 1
.n
(C) is orthogonal (D) has rank n
QUE 1.34
ww
If x, y, z in A.P. with common difference d and the rank of the matrix
w
R V
S4 5 x W
S5 6 y W is 2, then the values of d and k are respectively
SS6 k z WW
T X
(A) x and 7 (B) 7, and x
4 4
QUE 1.35 If the rank of a (5 # 6) matrix Q is 4, then which one of the following
statement is correct ?
(A) Q will have four linearly independent rows and four linearly independent
columns
(B) Q will have four linearly independent rows and five linearly independent
columns
T
(C) QQ will be invertible
(D) QT Q will be invertible
QUE 1.36
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra 4 2 1 0
(A) = G (B) =
0 1 4 2G
2 4 2 4
(C) = G (D) =
1 0 0 1G
x y
QUE 1.37 If A = > H, then adj(adj A) is equal to
z b
b -z b z
(A) = G (B) =
-y x y xG
i. n
QUE 1.38 If A is a 3 # 3 matrix and A = 2 then A (adj A) is equal to
R V R V
o
S4 0 0W S2 0 0 W
.c
(A) S0 4 0 W (B) S0 2 0 W
SS0 0 4 WW SS0 0 2 WW
a
RT VX TR1 XV
i
S1 0 0W S2 0 0 W
d
(C) S0 1 0 W (D) S0 12 0 W
SS0 0 1 WW SS0 0 1 WW
o
2
T X T X
. n
QUE 1.39
w w
If A is a 2 # 2 non-singular square matrix, then adj(adj A) is
(A) A2 (B) A
w
(C) A-1 (D) None of the above
QUE 1.43 The rank of an n row square matrix A is (n - 1), then Page 13
R− 1 − 2 − 2V
S W
QUE 1.44 The adjoint of matrix A = S 2 1 − 2W is equal to
SS 2 − 2 1WW
(A) A T X (B) 3A
(C) 3AT (D) A t
in
6 2 8 2
(C) = G (D) =
1G
.
9 3 4
.co
a
−1 2
The inverse of the matrix A = >
3 − 5H
i
QUE 1.46 is
d
5 2 5 -3
(A) = G (B) =
3 1G
o
3 1
n
-5 -2 5 3
(C) = G (D) = G
w.
-3 -1 2 1
QUE 1.47
ww 1 2
The inverse of the 2 # 2 matrix = G is
5 7
-7 2 7 2
(A) 1 = G (B) 1 = G
3 5 -1 3 5 1
7 -2 -7 -2
(C) 1 = G (D) 1 = G
3 -5 1 3 -5 -1
3 4
QUE 1.48 If B is an invertible matrix whose inverse in the matrix = G, then B is
5 6
(B) > 1 H
6 -4 1
3 4
(A) =
- 5 6G 5 6
-3 2
(C) = 5 - 3 G (D) > 1 H
1 1
3 4
1
2 2 5 6
A B
Matrix M = >
C 0H
QUE 1.49 is an orthogonal matrix. The value of B is
(A) 1 (B) 1
2 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
R1 0 0V
S W
QUE 1.51 The inverse of matrix A = S5 2 0W is equal to
SS3 1 2WW
R V T XR V
S 2 0 0W S 2 0 0W
1
(A) S- 5 2 0 W 1
(B) S- 5 1 0W
4S 2S
i. n
S- 1 - 1 2WW S- 1 - 1 2 WW
R T VX TR XV
S 1 0 0W S 4 0 0W
o
(C) S- 10 2 0 W 1
(D) S- 10 2 0W
.c
SS - 1 - 1 W 4S
2W S-1 -1 2 WW
a
T X T X
d
Ra b c V
i
o
S W
QUE 1.52 If det A = 7, where A = Sd e f W then det(2A) -1 is_____
. n
SSg b c WW
T X
w w R1 0 − 1V
S W
If R = S2 1 − 1W, the top of R-1 is
w
QUE 1.53
SS2 3 2WW
T X
(A) [5, 6, 4] (B) [5, - 3, 1]
(C) [2, 0, - 1] (D) [2, - 1, 12 ]
-1 2
Let B be an invertible matrix and inverse of 7B is =
4 - 7G
QUE 1.54 , the matrix B
is
R V
S0 1 0 0W
S0 2 0 1W
If A = S , then det (A-1) is equal to_____
0WW
QUE 1.55
S0 3 2
S1 4 1 0W
T X
in
R V
S1 1 1 1 W
.
S1 1 − 1 − 1W
o
A = S
1 − 1 0 0W
c
S W
S0 0 1 1 W
6AAT @ is
.
T X
a
-1
i
R1 V R1 V
d
S4 0 0 0 W S2 0 0 0W
o
S0 14 0 0 W S0 1
2 0 0
W
(A) S W (B) S W
n
1 1
S0 0 2 0 W S0 0 2 0W
.
S0 0 0 12 W S0 0 0 12 W
w
RT1 0 0 0 V X TR 1 0 0 0XW
V
S W S4
w
S0 1 0 0 W S0 1
4 0 0
W
(C) S (D) S W
0 0 1 0W S0 0 14 0 W
w
S W
S0 0 0 1 W S0 0 0 14 W
T X T X
QUE 1.58 A is m # n full rank matrix with m > n and I is identity matrix. Let matrix
Al = (AT A) −1 AT , Then, which one of the following statement is FALSE ?
(A) AAlA = A (B) (AAl) 2
(C) AlA = I (D) AAlA = Al
(A) - 4 (B) - 3
5 5
(C) 3 (D) 4
5 5
2x 0 1 0
If A = > H and A-1 >
- 1 2H
QUE 1.60 then the value of x is_____
x x
QUE 1.61
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra
8 3
(A) = G (B) = G
3 8
(C) 8- 3, - 8B (D) [3, 8]
1 2 0
If A = >
3 − 1 4H
QUE 1.62 , then AAT is
1 3 1 0 1
(A) = G (B) =
-1 4 - 1 2 3G
5 1
(C) =
1 26G
(D) Undefined
−2 1 −1 7
QUE 1.63 If A > H=> H, then the matrix A is equal to
i. n
3 5 − 1 20
1 2 2 1
(A) = G (B) = G
o
3 5 5 3
.c
5 3 -5 3
(C) = G (D) =
2 1 2 1G
i a
QUE 1.64 Let, A = >
o
2 − 0.1
H
d
and A−1 = > 2 H. Then (a + b) =_____
1
a
n
0 3 0 b
w.
Let A = >
2 − 0.1
H and A−1 = > 2 H, Then (a + b) is
1
a
w
QUE 1.65
0 3 0 b
w (A) 7 (B) 3
20
(C) 19 (D) 11
20
20
20
2 6 3 x
QUE 1.66 If A = > H and B = > H, then in order that AB = 0 , the values of x and
3 9 y 2
y will be respectively
(A) - 6 and - 1 (B) 6 and 1
(C) 6 and - 3 (D) 5 and 14
R1V
1 1 0 S W
QUE 1.67 If A = > H and B = S0W, the product of A and B is
1 0 1 SS1WW
1 1 0
(A) = G (B) =0 1G
T X
0
1 1 0
(C) = G (D) = G
2 0 2
1 4 1 1
(C) = G (D) =
4 1 4 4G
R 2 − 1V
S W 1 −2 −5
If A = S 1 0W and B = >
3 4 0H
QUE 1.69 then AB is
SS− 3 4WW
R T X V R V
S- 1 - 8 - 10 W S 0 0 - 10 W
(A) S- 1 - 2 5 W (B) S- 1 - 2 - 5 W
SS 9 22 15 WW SS 0 21 - 15 WW
RT VX TR VX
S- 1 - 8 - 10 W S0 - 8 - 10 W
in
(C) S 1 - 2 - 5 W (D) S1 - 2 - 5 W
.
SS 9 22 15 WW SS9 21 15 WW
o
T X T X
a.c V
i
S0 1 0 0W
d
S0 0 1 0W
QUE 1.70 If X = S W, then the rank of XT X , where XT denotes the transpose
o
ARIHANT/287/32 S0 0 0 1W
n
S0 0 0 0W
.
T
of X , is______ X
ww
Consider the matrices X(4 # 3), Y(4 # 3) and P(2 # 3) . The order of [P (XT Y)T PT ]T
w
QUE 1.71
will be
(A) (2 # 2) (B) (3 # 3)
(C) (4 # 3) (D) (3 # 4)
cos α sin α
If A α = >
− sin cos αH
QUE 1.72 , then consider the following statements :
1. A α .A β = A αβ 2. A α .A β = A(α + β)
cosn α sinn α cos nα sin nα
3. (A α) = > n H 4. (A α) = >
− sin nα cos nαH
n n
n
− sin α cos α
Which of the above statements are true ?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
1 0
(1) AAT = > H (2)
AAT = 1
0 1
(3) A is orthogonal matrix (4) A is not a orthogonal matrix
Which of above statement is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
i. n
cos2 f cos f sin f
B ==
G
cos f sin f sin2 f
o
is a null matrix, then q and f differ by
.c
(A) an even multiple π2
a
(B) an even multiple p
(C) an odd multiple of π2
d i
o
(D) an odd multiple of p
. n
w
1 1
QUE 1.76 For a given 2 # 2 matrix A, it is observed that A > H =−> H and
w
−1 −1
1 1
A > H =− 2 > H. The matrix A is
w
−2 −2
2 1 −1 0 1 1
(A) A = >
− 1 − 1H> 0 − 2H>− 1 − 2H
1 1 1 0 2 1
(B) A = >
− 1 − 2H>0 2H>− 1 − 1H
1 1 −1 0 2 1
(C) A = >
− 1 − 2H> 0 − 2H>− 1 − 1H
0 -2
(D) =
1 - 3G
3 −4
If A = >
1 − 1H
QUE 1.77 , then for every positive integer n, An is equal to
1 + 2n 4 n 1 − 2n − 4n
(A) =
1 + 2n G
(B) =
n n 1 + 2n G
1 − 2n 4 n 1 + 2n − 4n
(C) = G (D) =
n 1 + 2n n 1 − 2n G
R V
Sa b c W
QUE 1.79 The values of non zero numbers a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h such that the matrix Sd k e W
is invertible for all real numbers k . SSf g h WW
T X
(A) finite sol n (B) infinite sol n
(C) 0 (D) none
.in **********
.co
ia
od
.n
ww
w
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra
i. n
o
SOL 1.2 Correct option is (B).
.c
Here, if A be a non-zero square matrix of order n , then the matrix A + Al
is symmetric, but A - Al will be anti-symmetric.
i a
SOL 1.3
o
Correct option is (C).
d
n
If A and B are both order skew-symmetric matrices, then
w. A =− AT and B =− BT ...(1)
Also, given that AB = BA
w
= ^− BT h^− AT h [from Eq. (1)]
= B A = ^AB h
w
T T T
AB = ^AB hT i.e., AB is a symmetric matrix
.in
o
SOL 1.10 Correct option is (A).
.c
a h g
a f h f h b
a
h b f = a −h +g
i
f c g c g f
g f c
d
= a ^bc − f 2h − h ^hc − fg h + g ^hf − gb h
no
= abc = af 2 − h2 c + hfg + ghf − g2 b
.
= abc + 2fgh − af 2 − bg2 − ch2
SOL 1.11
ww
Correct answer is - 43 .
w = 67
Determinant
13 14
24 26
− 19
i. n
S1W
Hence, we get A = S W, B = 61 1 1 1@
S1W
o
S1W
.c
T RX V
S1W
a
S1W
BA = 81 1 1 1BS W = 64@
i
Therefore,
S1W
d
S1W
o
From the given property, T X
Det ^Im + AB h = Det ^In + BAh
.
R V
S2 1 1 1W
n
w
S1 2 1 1W
W = Det "61@ + 64@,
w
Det S
S1 1 2 1W
w
S1 1 1 2W
T X
= Det 65@ = 5
NOTE
Determinant of identity matrix is always 1.
8 λ 0 Page 23
.in
o
SOL 1.18 Correct option is (C).
.c
Given EF = G where G = I = Identity matrix
a
Rcos q - sin q 0V R1 0 0V
i
S W S W
S sin q cos q 0W # F = S0 1 0W
d
SS 0 0 1WW SS0 0 1WW
o
T X T X
We know that the multiplication of a matrix and its inverse be a identity
.n
matrix
w
AA-1 = I
So, we can say that F is the inverse matrix of E
ww F = E − 1 =
S
6adj.E @
E
Rcos q − (sin q) 0VT
W
R
S cos q sin q 0W
V
adj E = S sin q cos q 0W = S− sin q cos q 0W
SS 0 0 1WW SS 0 0 1WW
E = 6cos q # (cos q − 0)@ − 8^− sin qh # ^sin q − 0hB + 0
T X T X
= cos2 q + sin2 q = 1
R cos q sin q 0V
6 adj. E @ S W
Hence, F = = S− sin q cos q 0W
E SS 0 0 1WW
T X
Chap 1 We have
Matrix Algebra R V R V
S1 1 1 W S1 1 1 W
A = S1 − 1 0 W + S1 − 1 0 W R3 - R1
SS1 1 1 WW SS0 0 0 WW
T ρ (A) X< 3T
Since one full row is zero, X
1 1
Now =− 2 ! 0 , thus ρ (A) = 2
1 -1
i. n
R VT X
S1 2 3W
By operation R 32 ^- 1h, we get A + S1 4 2W
o
SS0 0 0WW
.c
T X
A = 0
i a
1 2
and =
Y 0
d
1 4
Rank ^Ah = 2
n o
SOL 1.22
w.
Correct option is (B).
w
Here, A = 2 ^− 9 + 8h + 2 ^− 2 + 3h = 0
w
2 1
But =
Y 0
0 3
Hence, Rank ^Ah = 2
2 −1 3 Page 25
in
=
applying R4 − (R1 + R2 + R3) " R4
3 2 1 3
0 0 0 0
o.
c
1 2 3 0
.
0 0 −3 2 R2 - 2R1 " R2
a
=
applying
i
0 −4 −8 3 R3 - 3R1 " R3
d
0 0 0 0
o
The only fourth order minor is zero.
n
1 2 3
.
Since the third order minor 0 − 4 − 8 = (1)( − 4)( − 3) = 12 ! 0
w
0 0 −3
w
Therefore its rank is ρ (A) = 3
SOL 1.26 w
Correct option is (C).
Here, A = 0
All minors of order 3 are zero, since two rows are identical.
1 0
The second minor =
Y 0
0 1
Hence, Rank ^Ah = 2
Chap 1
Matrix Algebra p
If s - r q = 0
p
or ps - rq = 0
then rank of matrix A is 1, otherwise the rank is 2.
Now, we have the matrix
p2 + q2 pr + qs
B = > H
pr + qs r2 + s1
To determine the rank of matrix B , we obtain its equivalent matrix using
the operation, a2i ! a2i - a21 a1i as
a11
R 2 2 V
Sp + q pr + qs W
S ^ h W
^r2 + s2h − 2
2
B = pr + qs
S 0 2 W
S p +q W
T X
^pr + qs h2
i. n
If ^r + s h − 2
2 2
= ^ps − rq h = 0
2
p + q2
o
or ps - rq = 0
.c
then rank of matrix B is 1, otherwise the rank is 2.
a
Thus, from the above results, we conclude that
i
If ps − rq = 0 , then rank of matrix A and B is 1.
d
If ps - rq ! 0 , then rank of A and B is 2.
o
i.e. the rank of two matrices is always same. If rank of A is N then rank of
. n
B also N .
SOL 1.28
w w
Correct option is (B).
w
It is given that x, y, z are in A.P. with common difference d
x = x , y = x + d , z = x + 2d
4 5 x 4 5 x 4 5 x
Let A = 5 6 y = 5 6 x + d = 1 1 d
6 k z 6 k x + 2d 1 k−6 d
Applying R2 − R1 = R2 and R 3 − R2 = R 3
4 5 x
= 1 1 d R3 = R3 − R2
0 k−7 0
A = 0 & ^k − 7h^4d − x h = 0
d = x , k = 7 .
4
SOL 1.31
.in
Correct option is (B).
o
Let n = 3
c
R V
.
S1 2 3 W
a
Then A = S2 4 6 W
i
SS3 6 9 WW
d
T X
1 2 3 1 2 3
o
R3 - 3R1 " R3
and A = 2 4 6 = 0 0 0 applying
n
R2 - 2R1 " R2
.
3 6 9 0 0 0
w
Thus rank if n = 3 then ρ (A) = 1 so possible answer is (B).
SOL 1.32
ww
Correct option is (B).
If P is a matrix of order m # n and ρ (P) = n then n # m
In the normal form of P only n rows are non-zero
Now Q is a matrix of order n # p and ρ (PQ) = p then p # n but p ! n but
p ! n so p < n .
In the normal form of Q only p rows are non-zero.
Thus is the normal form of PQ only p rows are non zero.
ρ (PQ) = p
i. n
SOL 1.35 Correct option is (A).
.c o
Rank of a matrix is no. of linearly independent rows and columns of the
i a
matrix.
d
Here Rank ρ (Q) = 4
So Q will have 4 linearly independent rows and flour independent columns.
n o
SOL 1.36
w.
Correct option is (D).
w
1 −4
A = =
0 2G
We have
C11 = 2, C12 = 0, C21 =− (− 4) = 4 , and C22 = 1
C = =
2 0
4 1G
adj A = C T
2 4
==
0 1G
in
adj(adj A) = A n − 2 A
.
Putting n = 3 and A = 3 . so we get
o
adj(adj A) = A 3 − 2 A
.c
= A A = 3A
ia
SOL 1.41
od
Correct option is (D).
n
2
We have adj (adjA) = A (n − 1)
.
Putting n = 3 and A = 3 we get
w
adj (adj A) = A 4 = 3 4 = 81
SOL 1.42
ww
Correct option is (B).
Let B = adjA2 then B is also a 3 # 3 matrix.
adj (adjA2) = adj B = B 3 − 1 = B 2
= adjA2 2
= 8 A2 B = A2 4 = A 8 = 38
(3 − 1) 2
Chap 1 2 −2 2 1
Matrix Algebra M12 = = 6; M13 = =− 6
2 1 2 −2
−2 −2 -1 -2
M21 = =− 6 ; M22 = 3;
−2 1 2 1 =
−1 −2 −2 −2
M23 = = 6; M31 = =6 ;
2 −2 1 −2
−1 −2 −1 −2
M32 = = 6; M33 = =3
2 −2 2 1
i. n
S− 3 − 6 − 6 W S W
Thus adj A = S 6 3 − 6 W = 3 S 2 1 − 2W = 3AT
SS 6 − 6 3 WW SS 2 − 2 1WW
o
T X T X
o
Except (B) all satisfy this condition.
. n
5 2
A = = (5)( 1) − (2)( 2) = 1
2 1
w w
SOL 1.46
w
Correct option is (A).
We know A-1 = 1 adjA
A
−1 2
A = =
3 − 5G
Here =− 1
−5 −2
adj A = =
− 3 − 1G
Also,
A-1 = 1 =− 5 − 2G = =5 2G
−1 −3 −1 3 1
A-1 = 1 = 7 − 2G = 1 =− 7 2 G Page 31
in
== 5 −3G
.
2 2
SOL 1.49
.co
Correct option is (C).
a
For orthogonal matrix det M = 1 and M−1 = MT ,
di MT = =
A C
B 0G
no = M−1 = 1 >
0 −B
H
.
− BC − C A
w
This implies B = − C
− BC
or
ww B = 1 or B = ! 1
B
Chap 1 1 = 1
det (2A) -1 =
Matrix Algebra 2A 2n A
Since A is a 3 # 3 matrix, therefore n = 3 and we have A = 7 .
det (2A) -1 = 3 1 = 1 = 1
2 A 8 # 7 56
i. n
SOL 1.54 Correct option is (A).
−1 2
(7B) -1 = A = >
4 − 7H
Let and 7B = A−1
.c o
a
A
i
−1 2
d
Here A = =− 1
4 −7
o
−7 −2
Also, adj A = =
− 4 − 1G
. n
w
A-1 = 1 =− 7 − 2G
−1 −4 −1
w
or
w 7 2
7B = A−1 = > H
4 1
B = > 4 H
2
1 7
or 1
7 7
AAT = I Page 33
.in
option (A) AAlA = A
o
AA-1 A = A
.c
A = A (true)
a
option (B) (AAl) 2 = I
di (AA-1 I) 2 = I
^I h2 = I
o
(true)
n
option (C) AlA = I
.
-1
A IA = I
w
I = I (true)
w
option (D) AAlA = Al
w
AA-1 IA = A =
Y Al (false)
6M @T = I
6M @
6M @T 6M @ = I
Substitute the values of M and M T , we get
> 45 3 H.>
3 3 4
1 0
H = >0 1H
x 5 5
3
5 5 x 5
R 3 4 + 3 x VW
S b # 3 l + x2 b5 5l 5 W
3
# 1 0
S 5 5
>0 1H
=
Sb 5 5l 5 b 5 # 5 l + b 5 # 5 lW
S 4 # 3 + 3x 4 4 3 3 W
T X
Chap 1
25 5 1
Matrix Algebra
Comparing both sides a12 element,
12 + 3 x = 0 " x =− 12 5 =− 4
25 5 25 # 3 5
So, 2x = 1 & x = 1
2
i. n
2 -1 2 (2) (2) + (− 1) (1) 3
>3 2H>1H = > (3) (2) + (2) (1) H = =8 G
i
R1 3V
1 2 0 S W
AAT = > H
d
S2 − 1W
3 −1 4 S
o
S0 4WW
n
T X
(1) (1) + (2) (2) + (0) (0) (1) (3) + (2) (− 1) + (0) (4)
.
=>
(3) (1) + (− 1) (2) + 4 (0) (3) (3) + (− 1) (− 1) + (4)(4)H
=>
5 1
w
1 26H
w
SOL 1.63 w
Correct option is (B).
− 1 7 − 2 1 −1
A = >
− 1 20H> 3 5H
−1 7 1 > 5 − 1H
=> H
− 1 20 − 13 l − 3 − 2
b
1 7 5 −1
= 1>
− 13 1 20 − 3 − 2H
H>
26 − 13
= 1>
− 13 65 − 39H
2 1
== G
5 3
2 - 0.1 12 a 1 0
>0 3 H> H = >0 1H
Page 35
in
We get
3
and
o.
2a - 0.1b = 0 or a = b
20
Thus
a.c
a + b = 1 + 1 1 = 7
3 3 20 20
di
o
SOL 1.66 Correct option is (A).
.n
2 6 3 x
We have A = = G and B = > H, AB = 0
3 9 y 2
We get
ww 2 6 3 x 0
=3 9G=y 2 G = =0
0
0G
w
6 + 6y 2x + 12 0 0
or =9 + 9y 3x + 18G = =0 0G
We get 6 + 6y = 0 or y =− 1
and 2x + 12 = 0 or x =− 6
Chap 1 R V
S 2 − 1W 1 − 2 − 5
AB = S 1 0 W= G
Matrix Algebra
SS− 3 4 WW 3 4 0
RT X V
S(2)( 1) + (− 1)( 3) (2)( − 2) + (− 1)( 4) (2)( − 5) + (− 1)( 0)W
= S (1)( 1) + (0)( 3) (1)( − 2) + (0)( 4) (1)( − 5) + (0)( 0) W
SS(− 3)( 1) + (4)( 3) (− 3)( − 2) + (4)( 4) (− 3)( − 5) + (4)( 0)WW
RT V X
S− 1 − 8 − 10 W
= S 1 −2 −5 W
SS 9 22 15 WW
T X
i. n
S0 0 0 0W
TR XV
S 0 0 0 0 W
o
S1 0 0 0W
.c
and transpose of X , XT = S W
S0 1 0 0W
a
S0 0 1 0W
i
Here, we can see that rank ofT matrix Xx = 3 , hence, we can determine the
d
rank of XT X .
o
Let Y = X $ XT , the rank of Y # rank of X . Also, X−1 Y = XT and so we
. n
have
Rank X = Rank XT # Rank of Y
w w
Hence, from Eqs. (1) and (2), we get
Rank of X = Rank of Y
w
Hence, rank of X $ XT is 3
cos (α + β) sin (α + β)
=>
− sin (α + β) cos (α + β)H
= Aα + β
1 − tan2 a2 2
Then, cos a = 2 a
= 1 − t2
1 + tan 2 t+t
2 tan a2
and sin a = 2 a
= 2t 2
1 + tan 2 1+t
tan a2
= > H
cos a - sin a 1 cos a − sin a
(I - A) >
sin a cos a H a
− tan 2 1 # = sin a cos a G
R 2 V
S 1 − t2 − 2t W
in
1 t S 1 + t (1 + t2) W
==
− t 1G # S 2t
.
1 − t2 W
S W
o
S(1 + t ) 1 + t2 W
2
c
T X
.
1 −t 1 − tan a2
t 1 H >tan a2 1 H
=> = = (I + A)
ia
SOL 1.74
od
Correct option is (C).
.n AAT = >
cos q sin q cos q − sin q
H> H
w
− sin q cos q sin q cos q
w
=> H
cos2 q + sin2 q − cos q sin q + sin q cos q
− sin q cos q + cos q sin q sin2 q + cos2 q
w
1 0
=> H
0 1
= 1, Hence A is orthogonal matrix.
Chap 1 −2 −2
Matrix Algebra
a b 1 a − 2b 1
=c d G=- 2G = =c − 2d G =− 2 =− 2G
we have a - 2b =− 2 ...(2)
c - 2d = 4 ...(4)
Solving equation (1) and (3) a = 0 and b = 1
Solving equation (2) and (4) c =− 2 and d =− 3
0 1
A = =
− 2 − 3G
Thus
If we check all option then result of option C after multiplication gives result.
i
R V R V R V R V
S3 W S1 W S2 W S− 1W
d
Sb W = k1 S3 W + k2 S6 W + k3 S− 3 W
o
SSc WW SS2 WW SS4 WW SS− 2 WW
. n
R V R V RT VX R TV X T X T X
S1 W S1 W S1 W S3 W
w
k1 S3 W + 2k2 S3 W − k3 S3 W = Sb W
SS2 WW SS2 WW SS2 WW SSc WW
w
T X T X RT VX RT XV
S1 W S3 W
w
(k1 + 2k2 − k3) S3 W = Sb W
SS2 WW SSc WW
k1 + 2k2 −Tk3X = T3 X
3k1 + 6k2 − 3k3 = b
2k1 + 6k2 − 2k3 = c
& b = 9 ,
c = 6
**********
GATE
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Vol 3 of 5
R. K. Kanodia
Ashish Murolia
Information contained in this book has been obtained by author, from sources believes
to be reliable. However, neither NODIA & COMPANY nor its author guarantee the
accuracy or completeness of any information herein, and NODIA & COMPANY nor
its author shall be responsible for any error, omissions, or damages arising out of
use of this information. This book is published with the understanding that NODIA
& COMPANY and its author are supplying information but are not attempting to
render engineering or other professional services.
MRP 570.00
The objective of this study package is to develop in the GATE aspirants the ability
to solve GATE level problems of Instrumentation Engineering Paper. The highly
increased competition in GATE exam from last few years necessitate an in-depth
knowledge of the concepts for the GATE aspirants. There are lots of study packages
available for GATE Instrumentation Engineering, which includes the theory and
problem sets. But through this package our notion is to develop the problem solving
approach rather than just introducing the theory and problem set. This study
package fulfills all the requirements of a GATE aspirant to prepare for the exam.
In the very first volume of this study package, General Aptitude is introduced.
General aptitude is divided into two sections: verbal ability and numerical ability.
Some important rules of grammar is introduced at the starting of verbal ability
section, and then different types of verbal ability problems are given in separate
chapters. At the end of each chapter answers of the problems are described with
detailed theory and grammatical rule. The numerical ability part does not include
theory as it is expected from an engineering students that they are very well known
to the basic mathematical formulas of under 10th class. In numerical ability section,
the chapters are organized such as to cover all types of problems asked in previous
GATE papers. There is the detailed solutions available for each of the numerical
ability problems such that even an average student can clear his/her doubts easily.
Volumes 3, 4 and 5 include the core subjects of instrumentation. The subjects with
interrelated topics are taken in the same volume. Volume 3 includes the subjects:
Basics of Measurement Systems; Electrical & Electronic Measurement; Transducers,
Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation; Analytical, Optical &
Biomedical Instrumentation. Volume 4 includes the subjects: Basics of Circuits,
Analog Electronics, Digital Electronics. Volume 5 includes the subjects: Signals &
Systems; Communication Systems; Control Systems and Process Control. For each of
the subjects, the chapters are organized in a manner to cover the complete syllabus
with a balanced number of problems on each topic. In starting of each chapter, a
brief theory is given that includes formula, problem solving methodology and some
important points to remember. There are enough number of problems to cover all
the varieties, and the problems are graded from basic to advance level such that a
GATE aspirant can easily understand concepts while solving problems. Each and
every problems are solved with a good description to avoid any confusion or doubt.
There are two types of problems being asked in GATE exam: MCQ (Multiple Choice
Questions) and NAT (Numerical Answer Type questions). Both type of problems
are given in this study package. Solutions are presented in a descriptive and step-by-
step manner. The diagrams in the book are clearly illustrated. Overall, a very simple
language is used throughout this study package to facilitate easy understanding of
the concepts.
We believe that each volume of GATE Study Package helps a student to learn
fundamental concepts and develop problem solving skills for a subject, which are key
essentials to crack GATE. Although we have put a vigorous effort in preparing this
book, some errors may have crept in. We shall appreciate and greatly acknowledge
all constructive comments, criticisms, and suggestions from the users of this book at
[email protected]
Authors
Acknowledgements
We would like to express our sincere thanks to all the co-authors, editors, and
reviewers for their efforts in making this project successful. We would also like to
thank Team NODIA for providing professional support for this project through all
phases of its development. At last, we express our gratitude to God and our Family
for providing moral support and motivation.
Authors
Syllabus
Section 7: Measurements
SI units, systematic and random errors in measurement, expression of uncertainty -accuracy
and precision index, propagation of errors. PMMC, MI and dynamometer type instruments; dc
potentiometer; bridges for measurement of R, L and C, Q-meter. Measurement of voltage, current
and power in single and three phase circuits; ac and dc current probes; true rms meters, voltage and
current scaling, instrument transformers, timer/counter, time, phase and frequency measurements,
digital voltmeter, digital multimeter; oscilloscope, shielding and grounding.
**********
Contents
**********
CHAPTER 1
Measurement of Translational and Rotational Motion
1.1 Introduction
Loading Effect
. n
w w
If the voltmeter is electronic in nature, and has high input impedance,
the loading effect will be negligible, with the ratio of Vo /Ei of Figure
w
1.1(c) being the same as Rx /R p . For a linear transducer, Rx /R p is the
same as the fractional value x , which is the ratio of the displacement
given to the contactor, to its full-scale value. Hence under no-load
conditions,
x = Rx = Vo
Rp Ei
For the same position of contactor, the output voltage will be lower if
RL , the resistance of voltmeter forming the load, is finite and this new
value of Vol, if taken to represent the displacement, is given by
Vol = xl
Ei
With the true value being x , the error is given by
error = xl − x
Representing R p /RL by m , the percentage error can be obtained as
100 ^xl - x h
= 6− mx ^1 − x h@100
xl
1.2.2 Linear Variable Differential Transformer (LVDT)
LVDT is a passive inductive transformer. It works on the principle of
variable-inductance.
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. in
. c o
d ia
n o
w.
w
Figure 3.2: Construction of LVDT
w A movable soft iron core slides within the hollow former and
therefore affects the magnetic coupling between the primary and the
two secondaries. The displacement to be measured is applied to an
arm attached to the soft iron core. The whole assembly is placed in
a stainless steel housing and the end lids provide electrostatic and
electromagnetic shielding. The frequency of the ac applied to the
primary winding ranges from 50 Hz to 20 kHz.
Operation of LVDT
Since the primary winding is excited by an ac source, it produces an
alternating magnetic field which in turn induces ac voltages in the two
secondary windings. In order to convert the output from S1 to S2 into
a single voltage signal, the two secondaries S1 and S2 are connected in
series opposition, as shown in Figure 3.3. Let the output voltage of the
secondary winding S1 is VS1 and that of secondary winding S2 is VS2 .
Hence the output voltage of the transducer is the difference of the two
voltages. i.e.
Vo = VS1 − VS2
o
When the core slides within the hollow former, the output voltage Vo
. c
will also change. The amount of voltage change will be proportional to
ia
the amount of linear motion.
d
Advantages of LVDT
n o
1. Linearity: The output voltage of this transducer is practically
.
linear for displacement upto 5 mm.
w
2. High output: It gives a high output, and therefore intermediate
w
amplification devices are not required.
3. Infinite resolution: The change in output voltage is stepless. The
in
1.2.3 Capacitive Displacement Transducers
o .
The capacitive displacement transducer is fundamentally a proximity
transducer, in the sense that the movable plate or electrode may be
. c
the conducting surface of any object in the vicinity of the fixed plate.
ia
If the transducer has a solid insulating material of dielectric constant
ε , as shown in Figure 3.4(a), the capacitance is given by
o d
C 0 = ε 0 At
x0 + ε
. n
w w
w
Figure 3.4: Capacitive displacement transducer
in
should be chosen. In the case of potentiometers, a.c. excitation must
.
be avoided because of the problem that harmonics in the power supply
o
would cause.
d
of its output can be performed to yield a velocity signal. The process
o
of integration attenuates rather than amplifies measurement noise and
. n
this is therefore an acceptable technique.
1.4
w w
Measurement of Translational Acceleration
w
The only class of device available for measuring acceleration is the
accelerometer. Most forms of accelerometer consist of a mass suspended
by a spring and damper inside a housing, as shown in Figure 3.5.
Fa = Mxp
This force is opposed by the restraining effect, Fs , of a spring with
spring constant K , and the net result is that the mass is displaced by
a distance x from its starting position such that
Fs = Kx
in
or
M
.
This is the equation of motion of a second order system, and in the
o
absence of damping, the output of the accelerometer would consist of
. c
non-decaying oscillations. A damper is therefore included within the
ia
instrument, which produces a damping force, Fd , proportional to the
velocity of the mass M given by
d
Fd = Bxo
o
This modifies the equation (3.1) to
. n
Kx + Bxo = Mxp
1.5
w w
Measurement of Rotational Displacement
w
Rotational displacement transducers measure the angular motion of
a body about some rotation axis. The various devices available for
measuring rotational displacements are described in following sections.
NOTE
Rotational transducers are important not only for measuring the rotation of bodies
such as shafts, but also as part of systems that measure translational displacement
by converting the translational motion to a rotary form.
. in
. c o
RVDTs utilize brushless, non-contacting technology to ensure long
life and reliable, repeatable position sensing with infinite resolution.
ia
Such reliable and repeatable performance assures accurate position
sensing under the most extreme operating conditions.
Operation of RVDT
o d
. n
Basic RVDT operation is provided by rotating an iron-core bearing
supported within a housed stator assembly. A fixed alternating current
w
excitation is applied to the primary stator coil that is electromagnetically
w
coupled to the secondary coils. This coupling is proportional to the
w
angle of the input shaft. The output pair is structured so that one
coil is in-phase with the excitation coil, and the second is 180c out-of-
phase with the excitation coil. Now, we consider the following cases to
understand the operation of RVDT:
CASE I
When the rotor is in a position that directs the available flux equally
in both the in-phase and out-of-phase coils, the output voltages cancel
and result in a zero values signal. This is referred to as the null position.
CASE II
If the core is turned anticlockwise, the flux linking with one winding
S1 , increases while the other S2 decreases. Hence the output can be
considered as a positive value.
CASE III
If the core is turned in clockwise direction, the flux linking with
winding S1 reduces, while that linked with winding S2 increases, hence
producing an out of phase output that is in the opposite direction that
is a negative value.
in
or shaft. As each mark is sensed, a pulse is generated and input to an
.
electronic pulse counter. Instantaneous velocity can be calculated at
o
each instant of time that an output pulse occurs, using the scheme
c
shown in Figure 3.7. In this circuit, the pulses from the transducer gate
.
the train of pulses from a 1 MHz clock into a counter. Control logic
ia
resets the counter and updates the digital output value after receipt
d
of each pulse from the transducer. The measurement resolution of this
o
system is highest when the speed of rotation is low.
. n
w w
w
in
through it. Later, as a tooth approaches the sensor, the tooth diverts
.
some of the magnetic field, and so the field through the sensor is
o
reduced. This causes the sensor to produce an output voltage that is
. c
proportional to the rotational speed of the gear wheel.
ia
1.6.2 Analogue Tachometers
o d
Analogue tachometers are less accurate than digital tachometers but
are nevertheless still used successfully in many applications. The a.c.
. n
tachometer has an output approximately proportional to rotational
w
speed like, the d.c. tachogenerator. Mechanical structure of an analogue
tachometer takes the form of a two-phase induction motor, with two
w
stator windings and (usually) a drag-cup rotor, as shown in Figure 3.7.
One of the stator windings is excited with an a.c. voltage and the
measurement signal is taken from the output voltage induced in the
second winding. The magnitude of this output voltage is zero when the
rotor is stationary, and otherwise proportional to the angular velocity
of the rotor. The direction of rotation is determined by the phase of
the output voltage, which switches by 180° as the direction reverses.
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to be measured.
in
transducer, it is possible to obtain a velocity measurement by
.
integrating the acceleration measurement signal. This produces a
o
signal of acceptable quality, as the process of integration attenuates
c
any measurement noise.
o
Rotational accelerometers work on very similar principles to translational
n
motion accelerometers. They consist of a rotatable mass mounted
w.
inside a housing that is attached to the accelerating, rotating body.
Rotation of the mass is opposed by a torsional spring and damping.
w
Any acceleration of the housing causes a torque Jθp on the mass. This
w
torque is opposed by a backward torque due to the torsional spring and
in equilibrium
Jθp = Kθ
or θp = K θ
J
A damper is usually included in the systems to avoid undying oscillations
in the instrument. This adds an additional backward torque Bθo to the
system and the equation of motion becomes
Jθp = Bqo + Kq
in
next section, we will learn the technique of vibration measurement.
o .
. c
A vibration measurement system requires other elements, as shown
ia
in Figure 3.8, to translate the accelerometer output into a recorded
d
signal. The three other necessary elements are
1. Signal-conditioning element: It amplifies the relatively weak
o
output signal from the accelerometer and also transforms the
n
.
high output impedance of the accelerometer to a lower impedance
w
value.
2. Signal analyser: It converts the signal into the form required
w w
for output. The output parameter may be either displacement,
velocity or acceleration and this may be expresses as either the
peak value, r.m.s. value or average absolute values.
3. Signal recorder: It must be chosen very carefully to avoid
distortion of the vibration waveform.
. in
o
Figure 3.9: Seismic Device
. c
The acceleration response of seismic transducer is given by the equation,
ia
ω n2 z 0 = 1
A0 (1 − r ) + (2ξr) 2
2 2
where
o d
A 0 = ω2 x 0 , acceleration amplitude of the object
r = w/w n , frequency ratio
. n
ω n = k , undamped natural frequency
m
w w ξ = c , damping ratio
2 km
w
ω = circular frequency of motion of the moving object
1.9 Shock
n o
.
**********
w w
w
EXERCIS
Sample Chapter of GATE Instrumentation Engineering Vol- 3
MCQ 1.1 An LVDT produces an output voltage of 2.6 V for displacement 0.4
mm. The sensitivity of LVDT is
(A) 0.15 mm/V
(B) 0.15 m/V
. in
(C) 6.5 V/mm
o
(D) 6.5 V/m
. c
ia
MCQ 1.2 The output of LVDT is 1.25 V at maximum displacement. At a load of
d
0.75 mΩ , the deviation of linearity is maximum and it is ! 0.0025 V.
o
The linearity at the given load is
n
(A) 0.5% (B) 0.025V
.
(C) 0.2%V (D) 1.25%
MCQ 1.3
w w
An LVDT has a secondary voltage of 5 V for a displacement of ! 12.5
w
mm. What is the output voltage for a displacement of 8 mm from its
central position ?
(A) 0.2 V
(B) 0.4 V
(C) 0.32 V
(D) 3.2 V
MCQ 1.4 In a linear voltage differential transformer (LVDT) the output voltage
is 1.8 V at maximum displacement. At a certain load the deviation
from linearity is maximum and it is ! 0.0045 V from a straight line
through the origin. The linearity at the given load is
(A) ! 25%
(B) ! 40%
(C) ! 0.25%
(D) ! 0.4%
______ mm
MCQ 1.6 An LVDT is used for measuring the deflection of a bellows. The
sensitivity of LVDT is 40 V per mm. The bellows is deflected by 0.125
in
mm by a pressure of 0.8 # 106 N/m2 . The sensitivity of the LVDT in
.
V per N/m2 is
o
(A) 4 # 10-6
c
(B) 6.25 # 10-6
(C) 5 # 10-6
(D) 1.25 # 10-6
ia .
o d
. n
NAT 1.7 The output of an LVDT is connected to a 5V voltmeter through an
w
amplifier with a gain of 250. The voltmeter scale has 100 divisions
and the scale can be read upto 1/5th of a division. An output of 2
w
mV appears across the terminals of the LVDT, when core is displaced
w
through a distance of 0.5 mm. The resolution of instrument is
______ m
NAT 1.9 An accelerometer has a seismic mass of 0.05 kg and a spring constant
of 3 # 103 N/m. Maximum mass displacement is ! 0.02 m (before the
mass hits the stop). The maximum measurable acceleration is
______
______ %
MCQ 1.11 A steel cantilever is 0.25 m long, 15 mm wide, and 3 mm thick. The
modulus of elasticity for steel is 200 GN/m2 . When a force of 22 N is
applied at the free end, the value of deflection at the end will be
(A) 16.975 (B) 9.21
in
(C) 0.0589 (D) 33.75
o .
. c
MCQ 1.12 A body is dropped from a height of 10 m and suffers a shock when it
ia
hits the ground. If the duration of the shock is 5 ms, the magnitude of
the shock will be (g is acceleration due to gravity)
d
(A) 7g
o
(B) 200g
. n
(C) 286g
w
(D) None of these
MCQ 1.13
w w
A variable reluctance type tachometer has 120 teeth on rotor. The
speed of the shaft on which the rotor is mounted is 1500 rpm. What
will be the frequency of the output pulses ?
(A) 25 pulse per second (B) 3000 pulses per second
(C) 2 pulses per second (D) None of these
MCQ 1.14 A toothed rotor tachometer is used with a digital counter for measuring
speed of rotation of the shaft on which the wheel is mounted. The
gating period is 103 µs and a reading of 0004 is obtained on the four
digit display. If the number of teeth on rotor is 150, then the speed of
shaft is
(A) 150
(B) 4000
(C) 1600
(D) 100
______ rpm
in
disc has six black and six white sectors. What will be the speed of the
.
induction motor when the sector appears to be moving at 50 rpm ?
o
(A) 1000 rpm
. c
(B) 50 rpm
ia
(C) 950 rpm
(D) 1050 rpm
o d
. n
NAT 1.17 An accelerometer has a seismic mass of 0.06 kg and a spring constant
of 4500 N/m. Maximum mass displacement is ! 0.025 m (before the
w
mass hits the top). The maximum measurable acceleration is
w
w
______ m/s2
MCQ 1.18 In an LVDT accelerometer the outputs are 0.4 mV/mm with a ! 25
mm core displacement. The spring constant is 300 N/m and the mass
of the core is 50g. What is sensitivity of the accelerometer ?
(A) 15 ms-2 /mV (B) 150 ms-2 /mV
(C) 0.66 ms-2 /mV (D) None of these
NAT 1.19 A variable reluctance type tachometer has 60 rotor teeth. The counter
records 3600 counts per second. The speed in rpm is
______
MCQ 1.20 An inductive pickoff operating from a 120 tooth wheel is used with a
digital frequency meter to measure the speed of rotation of the shaft
on which the wheel is mounted. The gating period is set to 10 4 µs ,
and a reading of 0030 is obtained on the four digit display. If the
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what would be the optimum setting of gating period for making this
measurement ?
(A) 10 4 µs (B) 105 µs
(C) 106 µs (D)
102 µs
MCQ 1.21 While measuring speed of a steam turbine with stroboscope single line
images were observed for stroboscope setting of 3000, 4000 and 5230
rpm. What is the speed of the turbine ?
(A) 6000 rpm
in
(B) 700 rpm
.
(C) 12000 rpm
o
(D) 14000 rpm
. c
ia
MCQ 1.22 A disc mounted on the shaft of a machine has 12 pattern points. The
d
number of flashes projected on the disc by a stroboscope is 6000 in a
o
minute. If the disc appears to move forward in the direction of rotation
n
at 10 rpm, the speed of the disc is
.
(A) 500 rpm
w
(B) 490 rpm
w
(C) 510 rpm
w
(D) 5000 rpm
MCQ 1.23 A displacement transducer with a shaft stroke of 3.0 inch is applied
to the circuit shown in figure below. The total resistance of the
potentiometer is 5 kΩ . The applied voltage Vt is 5.0 V. When the wiper
is 0.9 inch from B , what will be the value of the output voltage ?
(A) 0.66 V
(B) 1500 V
(C) 1.5 V
(D) 66.6 V
______ mm
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Page 36 Measurement of Translational and Rotational Motion Chap 1
NAT 1.25 A linear resistance potentiometer is 50 mm long and is uniformly wound
______ mm
in
linear displacements x and y the resistance of the potentiometer as
.
measured by a Wheatstone bridge are respectively 3850 Ω and 7560 Ω
o
. Which of the following is/are correct ?
c
(A) x = 5.75 m
(B) y = 12.8 m
ia .
(C) Displacements x and y are in opposite direction
(D) All of the above
o d
NAT 1.27
. n
A resistive potential divider R1 R2 with a resistance of 5000 Ω and a
w w
shaft stroke of 125 mm is used in the arrangement shown in figure
below. Potentiometer R 3 R 4 has a resistance of 5000 Ω and ei = 5.0 V .
w
The initial position to be used as reference point is such that R1 = R2
i.e. the wiper is at midstroke. At the start of the test potentiometer
R 3 R 4 is adjusted so that the bridge is balanced and e 0 = 0 . Assuming
that the displacement being measured will move a maximum distance
of 12.5 mm towards A, the value of e 0 will be
______ Volt
in
(D) 5.5 V
**********
o .
. c
d ia
n o
w.
w w
SOLUTION
in
= 2.6 = 6.5 V/mm
.
0. 4
. c o
ia
SOL 1.2 Correct option is (C).
Maximum deviation of linearity is
d
D max = 0.0025 V
o
V0 = 1.25 V
n
So, Linearity = D max # 100
.
v0
1.25
w
= 0.2%
w
= 0.0025
SOL 1.3 w
Correct option is (D).
s = 5 = 0.4 V/mm
12.5
So, the output voltage is
= 0.4 # 8 = 3.2 V
in
So, minimum voltage that can be read on the voltmeter is
= 1 # 40 = 10 mV
4
o .
. c
Hence, resolution of the instrument is
= 10 # b 1 l
ia
1500
d
= 0.0067 mm
n o
.
SOL 1.6 Correct option is (B)
w
We have LVDT sensitivity,
w
s = 40 V/mm
Output voltage for a deflection of 0.125 mm,
w
v out = 40 # 0.125 = 5 V
Hence the sensitivity of LVDT is
= v out = 5
p 0.8 # 106
= 6.25 # 10−6 V per N/m2
. in
o
SOL 1.8 Correct option is (A)
c
−3
output voltage
= 2 # 10
.
Sensitivity of LVDT =
displacement 0.5
ia
= 4 # 10−3 V/mm = 4 mV/mm
d
Sensitivity of instrument
o
= (amplification factor) # (sensitivity of LVDT)
= ^250h # ^4 # 10−3h = 1 V/mm
n
w. = 1000 mV/mm
1 scale division = 5 V = 50 mV
100
w
Minimum voltage that can be read on the voltmeter is
w = b 1 l # 50 = 1 mV
5
Hence, resolution of instrument is
= 1 #b 1 l
1000
= 1 # 10−3 mm
= 0.961
in
Hence, percentage error is obtained as
= ^0.961 − 1h # 100% =− 3.9%
. c o
ia
Moment of inertia of the cantilever is
d
M = 1 bt3
12
= 1 # ^0.15h # ^.003h3
n o
.
12
w
= 33.75 # 10−12 m2
So, deflection is obtained as
w
3
θ = FL
w
3EM
22 # ^0.25h3
=
3 # 200 # 109 # 33.75 # 10−12
= 16.975
= 1500 # 120
60
= 3000 pulses per second
. in
o
SOL 1.14 Correct option is (C).
. c
Given
ia
Digital counter reading = 0004
Gating period = 103 µs = 0.001 s
d
Number of teeth on rotor, T = 150
o
So, number of pulses per second is
n
Digital counter reading
.
f =
Gating period
w w = 0004 = 4000
0.001
Hence, rotational speed is
w
f
N = # 60
T
= 4000 # 60 = 1600
150
Given
Supply frequency,
f = 50 Hz
Number of poles on induction motor,
P = 6
So, synchronous speed of motor is
120f
Ns =
p
in
s = RPM at which the sector appears to be rotating
.
= 50 rpm
o
Hence, speed of induction motor is
. c
N = Ns − s = 1000 − 50 = 950 rpm
d ia
o
Given
. n
Seismic mass, M = 0.06 kg
Spring constant, K = 4500 N/m
w
So, the natural angular velocity is
w
ω 0 = K
M
. in
o
SOL 1.19 Correct answer is 3600
c
pulses per second
.
Speed =
number of teeth
ia
= 3600 rps = 3600 rpm
d
60
SOL 1.20
n
Correct option is (C).
o
w.
The setting of the gating period for this measurement is 10 4 µs and this
gives a reading of 0030 on a four digit display. It is seen that out of
w
four digit places only two are utilized. For optimum setting of gating
period, all the four digits places should be utilized. This requires that
w
the gating time be increased by a factor 102 , i.e.
Optimum gating time setting = 10 4 # 102 = 106 µs
Here, we have
fm = 5250 rpm
f1 = 3000 rpm
and m = 3
Hence, speed of steam turbine is
5250 # 3000 ^3 − 1h
^5250 − 3000h
=
= 14000 rpm
. in
. c o
d ia
n o
From the given circuit, we have
w
So, we get
V0 = R2
w
Vt R1 + R 2
or V0 = R2 V
R1 + R 2 # t
Hence, V0 = 1500 # 5 V = 1500 = 1.5 V
5k 1k
in
= 2500 − 1850 = 650 Ω
.
Hence, linear displacement is
o
y = 650 = 6.5 mm
c
100
ia .
d
The resistance of the potentiometer at its normal position is
o
= 1000 = 5000 Ω
n
2
.
Resistance of potentiometer per unit length is
w
= 1000 = 200 Ω/mm
50
w
For first case, change of resistance from its normal position is
w
= 5000 − 3850 = 1150 Ω
So, displacement of wiper from its normal position is
x = 1150 = 5.75 mm
200
For second case, change of resistance from its normal position is
= 7569 − 5000 = 2560 Ω
So, displacement of wiper from its normal position is
y = 2560 = 12.80 mm
200
Since, one of the displacements represent a decrease and other represents
an increase in resistance of potentiometer from its value at the normal
position, the two displacements are in the opposite direction.
= 62.5 + 12.5 = 75 mm
So, R2 = b 75 l # 5000 = 3000 Ω
125
Hence, output voltage is
e 0 = c R2 − R 4 m ei
R1 + R 2 R 3 + R 4
=;
5000 5000 E #
3000 − 2500 5 = 0. 5 V
. in
. c o
d ia
n o
w.
If the wiper moves 0.5 cm towards A from the centre, it will have
w
moved 3 cm from B . So,
R2 = 3.0 # 5 k = 3 kΩ
w
5.0
Ve = VR2 − VR 4
= c R2 m # Vt − c R 4 m # Vt
R1 + R 2 R3 + R4
= b 3 k l # 5 V − b 2.5 k l # 5 V
5k 5k
= 3 V − 2.5 V = 0.5 V
**********
GATE
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Vol 4 of 5
►► BASICS OF circuits
►► analog electronics
►► digital electronics
R. K. Kanodia
Ashish Murolia
Information contained in this book has been obtained by author, from sources believes
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The objective of this study package is to develop in the GATE aspirants the ability
to solve GATE level problems of Instrumentation Engineering Paper. The highly
increased competition in GATE exam from last few years necessitate an in-depth
knowledge of the concepts for the GATE aspirants. There are lots of study packages
available for GATE Instrumentation Engineering, which includes the theory and
problem sets. But through this package our notion is to develop the problem solving
approach rather than just introducing the theory and problem set. This study
package fulfills all the requirements of a GATE aspirant to prepare for the exam.
In the very first volume of this study package, General Aptitude is introduced.
General aptitude is divided into two sections: verbal ability and numerical ability.
Some important rules of grammar is introduced at the starting of verbal ability
section, and then different types of verbal ability problems are given in separate
chapters. At the end of each chapter answers of the problems are described with
detailed theory and grammatical rule. The numerical ability part does not include
theory as it is expected from an engineering students that they are very well known
to the basic mathematical formulas of under 10th class. In numerical ability section,
the chapters are organized such as to cover all types of problems asked in previous
GATE papers. There is the detailed solutions available for each of the numerical
ability problems such that even an average student can clear his/her doubts easily.
Volumes 3, 4 and 5 include the core subjects of instrumentation. The subjects with
interrelated topics are taken in the same volume. Volume 3 includes the subjects:
Basics of Measurement Systems; Electrical & Electronic Measurement; Transducers,
Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation; Analytical, Optical &
Biomedical Instrumentation. Volume 4 includes the subjects: Basics of Circuits,
Analog Electronics, Digital Electronics. Volume 5 includes the subjects: Signals &
Systems; Communication Systems; Control Systems and Process Control. For each of
the subjects, the chapters are organized in a manner to cover the complete syllabus
with a balanced number of problems on each topic. In starting of each chapter, a
brief theory is given that includes formula, problem solving methodology and some
important points to remember. There are enough number of problems to cover all
the varieties, and the problems are graded from basic to advance level such that a
GATE aspirant can easily understand concepts while solving problems. Each and
every problems are solved with a good description to avoid any confusion or doubt.
There are two types of problems being asked in GATE exam: MCQ (Multiple Choice
Questions) and NAT (Numerical Answer Type questions). Both type of problems
are given in this study package. Solutions are presented in a descriptive and step-by-
step manner. The diagrams in the book are clearly illustrated. Overall, a very simple
language is used throughout this study package to facilitate easy understanding of
the concepts.
We believe that each volume of GATE Study Package helps a student to learn
fundamental concepts and develop problem solving skills for a subject, which are key
essentials to crack GATE. Although we have put a vigorous effort in preparing this
book, some errors may have crept in. We shall appreciate and greatly acknowledge
all constructive comments, criticisms, and suggestions from the users of this book at
[email protected]
Authors
Acknowledgements
We would like to express our sincere thanks to all the co-authors, editors, and
reviewers for their efforts in making this project successful. We would also like to
thank Team NODIA for providing professional support for this project through all
phases of its development. At last, we express our gratitude to God and our Family
for providing moral support and motivation.
Authors
Syllabus
Section 7: Measurements
SI units, systematic and random errors in measurement, expression of uncertainty -accuracy
and precision index, propagation of errors. PMMC, MI and dynamometer type instruments; dc
potentiometer; bridges for measurement of R, L and C, Q-meter. Measurement of voltage, current
and power in single and three phase circuits; ac and dc current probes; true rms meters, voltage and
current scaling, instrument transformers, timer/counter, time, phase and frequency measurements,
digital voltmeter, digital multimeter; oscilloscope, shielding and grounding.
**********
Contents
11 Frequency Response
ANALOG ELECTRONICS
11.1 Introduction 273
11.2 Transfer Functions 273
1 Diode Circuits
11.3 Resonant Circuit 274
11.3.1 Series Resonance 274 1.1 Introduction 3
11.3.2 Parallel Resonance 276 1.2 Diode 3
11.4 Passive Filters 277 1.2.1 Operating Modes of Diode 3
11.4.1 Low Pass Filter 277 1.2.2 Current-Voltage Characteristics of a
Diode 4
11.4.2 High Pass Filter 278
11.4.3 Band Pass Filter 279 1.3 Load line analysis 4
11.4.4 Band Stop Filter 279 1.4 Piecewise Linear Model 5
1.5 Small signal model 5
12 Circuit Analysis Using Laplace
1.5.1 AC and DC Equivalent Model 6
Transform
1.6 Clipper and clamper circuits 6
12.1 Introduction 299 1.6.1 Clippers 6
12.2 Circuit Elements in the s -domain 1.6.2 Clampers 6
299 1.7 Voltage multiplier circuit 7
12.2.1 Resistor in the s -domain 299
1.7.1 Voltage Doubler 7
12.2.2 Inductor in the s -domain 300
1.7.2 Voltage Tripler and Quadrupler 7
12.2.3 Capacitor in the s -domain 300
1.8 Rectifier circuit 7
12.3 Transfer Function 301 1.8.1 Half Wave Rectifiers 8
12.4 Steady State Response 301 1.8.2 Full wave Rectifiers 9
1.9 Zener diode 10
13 Two Port Network
13.1 Introduction 327 2 BJT Biasing
13.2 Different types of two port 2.1 Introduction 37
parameters 327 2.2 Basic bipolar junction
13.2.1 Impedance Parameters 327
transistor 37
13.2.2 Admittance Parameters 328
2.2.1 Operating Modes of BJT 38
13.2.3 Hybrid Parameters 328
2.2.2 Circuit Symbol and Conventions
13.2.4 Transmission Parameters 328 for a BJT 38
2.3 BJT configuration 39 4.3.4 p-channel Depletion Type
2.3.1 Common Base Configuration 39 MOSFET 113
2.3.2 Common Emitter configuration 41
4.4 Biasing configurations for jfet
2.3.3 Common-Collector Configuration
113
43
4.4.1 Fixed Bias Configuration 114
2.4 Current Relationships in BJT 43 4.4.2 Self Bias Configuration 114
2.4.1 Relation between Current Gain 43 4.4.3 Voltage Divider Biasing 114
2.4.2 Relation between Leakage
Currents 44
4.5 Biasing configurations for
Enhancement type MOSFET circuits
2.5 Load line analysis 44 115
2.6 Biasing 45 4.5.1 Feedback Biasing Configuration
2.6.1 Fixed Bias Circuit 45 115
2.6.2 Emitter Stabilized Bias Circuit 46 4.5.2 Voltage Divider Biasing Configuration
2.6.3 Voltage Divider Bias 46 116
4.5.3 Enhancement Mode NMOS device
3 BJT Amplifiers with the Gate Connected to the
Drain 116
3.1 Introduction 73
3.2 AC load line analysis 73 5 FET Amplifiers
3.3 Hybrid equivalent model 74 5.1 Introduction 139
3.4 Small signal parameter 75 5.2 Small signal Analysis of JFET
3.5 Hybrid- p Model 77 Circuit 139
5.2.1 Transconductance 139
3.6 Analysis of standard models 78
5.2.2 Output Resistance 140
3.6.1 Common Emitter Fixed Bias
Configuration 78 5.3 Some Standard Configurations
3.6.2 Voltage Divider Bias 80 140
3.6.3 Common-Emitter Bias Configuration 5.3.1 JFET Fixed Bias Configuration 140
81 5.3.2 JFET Self Bias Configuration with
bypassed Capacitor 141
4 FET Biasing 5.3.3 JFET Self Bias Configuration with
Unbypassed RS 142
4.1 Introduction 107
5.3.4 JFET Voltage Divider Configuration
4.2 Junction Field Effect Transistor 144
107 5.3.5 JFET Source Follower (Common
Drain) Configuration 145
4.3 Metal-oxide semiconductor field
5.3.6 JFET Common Gate Configuration
effect transistor (Mosfet) 109
146
4.3.1 n-channel Enhancement Type
MOSFET 109 5.4 Small signal analysis of
4.3.2 p-channel Enhancement Type Depletion type MOSFET 147
MOSFET 110 5.5 Small signal analysis of
4.3.3 n-channel Depletion Type
Enhancement type mosfet 147
MOSFET 112
6 Output Stages And Power Input Offset Current 202
Amplifiers
6.1 Introduction 167 8 Op Amp Applications
6.2 Emitter Follower as Power 8.1 Introduction 223
Amplifier 167 8.2 Inverting amplifier 223
6.3 Push-Pull Stage 168 8.3 Non-inverting Amplifier 224
6.4 Classes of amplifiers 169 8.4 Multiple-Stage gains 224
6.4.1 Class-A Operation 171 8.5 Voltage Subtraction 225
6.4.2 Class-B Operation 172
6.4.3 Class-AB Output Stage 173
8.6 Current to voltage converter 225
1.1 Introduction
This chapter, concerned with the basic study of Boolean algebra and
simplification theory, includes the following topics:
•• Basic Boolean operations: addition, multiplication, not operation
•• Various theorems of Boolean algebra
•• Meaning of positive and negative logic
•• Various types of logic gates: AND, OR, NOT, NAND, NOR,
XOR, XNOR gates.
•• Universal logic gates
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
i. n
o
1.3 Theorems of Boolean Algebra
. c
The theorems of Boolean algebra can be used to simplify many complex
a
i
Boolean expression and also to transform the given expression into a
d
more useful and meaningful equivalent expression. These theorems are
discussed as below.
Complementation Laws
n o
w.
The term complement implies to invert, i.e. to change 1’s to 0’s and 0’s
to 1’s. The five laws of complementation are as follows:
w
1. The complement of 0 is 1, i.e. 0 = 1
w
2. The complement of 1 is 0, i.e. 1 = 0
3. If A = 0 , then A = 1
4. If A = 1, then A = 0
5. The double complementation does not change the function, i.e.
A=A
AND Laws
The four AND laws are as follows:
1. Null Law: A : 0 = 0
2. Identity Law: A : 1 = A
3. A:A = A
4. A:A = 0
OR Laws
The four OR laws are as follows:
1. Null Law: A + 0 = A
2. Identity Law: A + 1 = 1
3. A+A = A
Commutative Laws
Commutative law states that the order of the variable in OR and AND
operations is not important. The two commutative laws are
A + B = B + A
A : B = B : A
Associative Laws
Associative law states that the grouping of variables in AND or OR
expression does not affect the result. There are two associative laws.
A + _B + C i = _A + B i + C
i. n
A : _B : C i = _A : B i : C
Distributive Law
c o
The distributive laws allow factoring or multiplying out of expressions.
There are two distributive laws
.
a
A _B + C i = AB + AC
i
A + BC = _A + B i_A + C i
o
Redundant Literal Rule
. n
This law states that ORing of a variable with the AND of the
w
complement of that variable with another variable, is equal to ORing
of the two variables, i.e.
w
A + AB = A + B
w
Another theorem based on this law is
A _A + B i = AB
Idempotent Law
Idempotence means the same value. There are two idempotent laws
A : A : A : g : A = A
A + A + A + g + A = A
Absorption Law
There are two absorption laws
A + A : B = A
A : _A + B i = A
Consensus Theorem
There are two consensus theorems,
AB + AC + BC = AB + AC
_A + B i_A + C i_B + C i = _A + B i_A + C i
De Morgan’s Theorem
De Morgan’s theorem gives two of the most powerful laws in Boolean
algebra. These theorems are very useful in simplification of Boolean
expressions,
A + B = A B
AB = A + B
i. n
Shannon’s Expansion Theorem
According to this theorem, any switching expression can be decomposed
o
with respect to a variable A into two parts, one containing A and the
. c
other containing A . This concept is useful in decomposing complex
a
system into an interconnection of smaller components.
i
f _A, B, C, ....i = A : f _1, B, C...i + A : f _0, B, C, ...i
d
f _A, B, C, ...i = 8A + f _0, B, C, ...iB : 8A + f _1, B, C, ...iB
n o
.
1.4 Logic Gates
w w
Logic gates are the fundamental building blocks of digital systems.
Logic gates are electronic circuits that perform the most elementary
w
Boolean operations. Before understanding the logic gates, we must
understand the meaning of positive and negative logic.
i. n
analysis and design of digital circuits. The proper use of mixed
logic notation provides logic expressions and logic diagrams that
o
are analogue to each other. Also, a mixed logic diagram provides
. c
clear information as to the operation of a circuit.
n
output. In the following sections, different types of logic gates are
.
described.
w
AND Gate
w
An AND gate is a logic circuit with two or more inputs and one output
w
that performs ANDing operation. The output of an AND gate is HIGH
only when all of its inputs are in the HIGH state. In all other cases, the
output is LOW. For a positive logic systems, it means that the output
of the AND gate is a logic ‘1’ only when all of its inputs are in logic ‘1’
state. In all other cases, the output is logic ‘0’. The logic symbol of a
two-input AND gate is shown in Figure 2.3.
OR Gate
An OR gate is a logic circuit with two or more inputs and one output
that performs ORing operation. The output of an OR gate is LOW
only when all of its inputs are LOW. For all other possible input
combinations, the output is HIGH. For a positive logic system, the
output of an OR gate is a logic ‘0’ only when all of its inputs are at
logic ‘0’. For all other possible input combinations, the output is a logic
NOT Gate
A NOT gate, also called an inverter is a one-input, one-output logic
circuit whose output is always the complement of the input. That is, a
LOW input produces a HIGH output, and vice versa. It means that for
a positive logic system, a logic ‘0’ at the input produces a logic ‘1’ at
i. n
the output, while a logic ‘1’ at the input produces a logic ‘0’ output. It
is also known as a complementing circuit or an inverting circuit. The
o
logic symbol of an inverter is shown in Figure 2.5.
a . c
Figure 2.5: Symbol for a NOT gate
d i
n o
.
NAND Gate
w
The term NAND implies NOT-AND. A NAND gate is equivalent to
AND gate followed by a NOT gate. The standard logic symbol for a
w
2-input NAND gate is shown in Figure 2.6. This symbol is same as
w
AND gate symbol except for a small circle (bubble) on its output. This
circle represents the NOT function.
The truth Table 2.2 of a NAND gate is obtained from the truth
Table of an AND gate by complementing the output entries.
Input Output
A B Y = AB
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
i. n
The truth Table 2.3 of a NOR gate is obtained from the truth
Table of an OR gate by complementing the output entries.
o
Table 2.3: Truth table of a 2-input NOR gate
Input Output
a . c
A B
d
Y = A+B
i
o
0 0 1
n
0 1 0
1
1
w. 0
1
0
0
w w
Exclusive-OR (XOR) Gate
The Exclusive-OR gate, commonly known as EX-OR gate, is a two-
input, one-output gate. The logic symbol for the Ex-OR gate is shown
in Figure 2.8.
i. n
The exclusive-NOR gate, commonly known as Ex-NOR, is an Ex-OR
gate, followed by an inverter. It has two inputs and one output. The
o
logic symbol for the Ex-NOR gate is shown in Figure 2.9.
a . c
d i
o
Figure 2.9: Symbol for 2-input Ex-NOR Gate
. n
The truth table for the two-input Ex-NOR operation is given in
Table 2.12. From the truth table it can be stated that, the output of a
w
two-input EX-NOR gate is a logic ‘1’ when the inputs are same and a
w
logic ‘0’ when they are different.
w
Table 2.12: Truth Table of a 2-input Ex-NOR Gate
Input Output
A B Y = A9B
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
Point To Remember
NAND and NOR gates are known as universal gates because any of
these two gates is capable of implementing all other gate functions.
**********
EXERCIS
Sample Chapter of GATE Instrumentation Engineering Vol- 4
i. n
. c o
i a
(A) MNQ (B)
N (Q + M )
d
(C) M (Q + N ) (D)
Q (M + N )
n o
.
MCQ 1.2 In the following circuit, the output Z is
w w
w
(A) AB + (C + D) E (B)
AB (C + D) E
(C) AB + CD + E (D)
AB + CDE
NAT 1.3 The number of different sets of input conditions that produces a high
output from a five-input OR gate is
______
MCQ 1.4 Which of the following gate corresponds to the action of series switches
for the input ?
(A) AND
(B) NAND
(C) OR
(D) NOR
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MCQ 1.5 In the following circuit, the output Z is
n o
.
(C) AB + AB + C
w
(D) AB + AB + C
NAT 1.7
w w
In the following circuit the output Z is
______
MCQ 1.8 If a three-input OR gate has eight input possibilities, how many of
those possibilities will result in a HIGH output?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 8
i. n
(A) (A + B) (A + C ) (B)
A+B
(C) A + C (D)
(A + B ) (A + C )
MCQ 1.11
. c o
If a three-input NAND gate has eight input possibilities, how many of
i a
those possibilities will result in a HIGH output?
d
(A) 1 (B) 2
o
(C) 7 (D) 8
. n
w
MCQ 1.12 The Boolean expression for the truth table shown is
w
A
0
0
w B
0
0
C
0
1
f
0
0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0
(A) B (A + C) (A + C ) (B)
B (A + C ) (A + C )
(C) B (A + C ) (A + C ) (D)
B (A + C ) (A + C )
MCQ 1.13 The reduced form of the Boolean expression of Y = (AB ) : (AB ) is
(A) A + B (B) A+B
(C) AB + AB (D)
A B + AB
i. n
(C) NAND (D) NOR
MCQ 1.16
. c o
The output of logic circuit is HIGH whenever A and B are both HIGH
i a
as long as C and D are either both LOW or both HIGH. The logic
d
circuit is
n o
w.
w w
MCQ 1.17 The operation A : A =
(A) A 2 (B) 2A
(C) 1 (D) A
MCQ 1.19 The gate G1 and G2 in figure shown below have propagation delays of
10 ns and 20 ns respectively.
i. n
the output waveform Vo is
. c o
If the input Vi makes an abrupt change from logic 0 to 1 at t = t0 then
i a
o d
. n
w w
w
[t1 = t0 + 10 ns, t2 = t1 + 10 ns, t3 = t2 + 10 ns]
MCQ 1.20 Which of the following Boolean expressions correctly represents the
relation between P, Q, R and M1
(A) M1 = (P OR Q) XOR R
(B) M1 = (P AND Q) XOR R
(C) M1 = (P NOR Q) XOR R
(D) M1 = (P XOR Q) XOR R
MCQ 1.22 The logic circuit shown in the given figure can be minimized to
i. n
. c o
i a
o d
. n
MCQ 1.23
w
Which one of the following logical operations is performed by the
w
digital circuit shown below ?
w
(A) NOR (B) NAND
(C) Ex-OR (D) OR
MCQ 1.24 The logic operations of two combinational circuits given in Figure - I
and Figure - II are
MCQ 1.25 In the following circuit, the motor will turn on when DRIVE = 1
i. n
. c o
i a
Which of the following give correct values of A0, A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8
d
, and A9 in order to move motor ?
o
(A) A0 = A1 = A2 = A3 = A4 = A5 = A6 = A7 = A8 = A9 = 1
n
(B) A0 = A1 = A2 = A3 = A4 = A5 = A6 = A9 = 1; A7 = A8 = 0;
w.
(C) A0 = A1 = A2 = A3 = A4 = A5 = A6 = A7 = 1 ; A8 = A9 = 0
(D) A0 = A1 = A2 = A3 = A4 = A5 = A6 = A7 = A8 = 1 ; A9 = 0
MCQ 1.26
w w
The output ( X ) waveform for the combination circuit shown below for
the inputs at A and B (waveform shown in the figure) will be
o d
**********
. n
w w
w
SOLUTION
Sample Chapter of GATE Instrumentation Engineering Vol- 4
i. n
o
So, its equivalent logic will be
a . c
d i
o
i.e. AND-Invert = Invert-OR
. n
Applying the property, we have the modified logic circuit as
w w
w
So, the output X is
X = MNQ + MNQ + M NQ
= MQ _N + N i + M NQ
= MQ + M NQ
= Q _M + M N i
= Q _M + N i
i. n
So, the output Z is given as
Z = AB + E _C + D i
. c o
a
d i
o
SOL 1.3 Correct answer is 31.
n
We know that, if any one input of the OR gate becomes high logic (1),
w.
OR gate gives the high logic (1) output. The output is High only for
the case when all the inputs are at Low logic (0). Now, for 5-inputs,
w
we have
Total number of input conditions = 2 5 = 32
w
Out of the 32 conditions, all inputs are zero (0) for only one condition.
i.e. for only one condition the output is low.
Hence, 31 input conditions produce the high output from a five-input
OR gate.
= A+B+C
4
= ABC
From the above logic function, we can observe that options (A) and
(B) are matched. Now, we check the expression given in option (C).
= A+B+B+C+A+C
= A+B+C
Hence, all the options are same, and equal to the output Z of the given
logic circuit.
i. n
= _AB + A B i + C { A 9 B = A 5 B or A 5 B = A 9 B }
o
= A B + AB + C
a . c
i
SOL 1.7 Correct answer is 1.
d
From the given circuit, we can observe that input to last XNOR gate
o
is same. So, the XNOR output is given by (Let input is X )
n
Z = X : X + X : X = X + X = 1
.
i.e. the output will be High (logic 1), irrespective of the inputs A and
w
B.
SOL 1.8
w w
Correct option is (C).
OR gate output Y = A + B + C
If any one input is HIGH, output will be HIGH. Output will be LOW
only when all three inputs become LOW.
Out of 8 input possibilities, seven cases have one or more inputs high
results in HIGH.
i. n
1 1 0 1 1 1 1
o
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
a . c
SOL 1.11 Correct option is (C)
d i
n o
.
SOL 1.12 Correct option is (A).
From truth table, the expression of the function f is given by
w w f = ABC + ABC
= B _AC + AC i
w
= B _A + C i_A + C i
i. n
or both low, i.e. C = D applied to XNOR gate then
C 9 D = 1 for C = D
o
i.e. another input of last AND gate will be High.
. c
Thus, the circuit given in option (A) is HIGH whenever A and B
a
i
are both HIGH as long as C and D are either both LOW or both
d
HIGH.
n o
.
SOL 1.17 Correct option is (D).
SOL 1.18
w w
Correct option is (C).
w
For the given network, we obtain
Output of gate 1 = X0 X1
Output of gate 2 = X0 X1 + X2
Output of gate 3 = _X0 X1 + X2i X3
= X0 X1 X3 + X2 X3
Similarly, we may deduce
Output of gate 4 = X0 X1 X3 + X2 X3 + X4
Output of gate 5 = _X0 X1 X3 + X2 X3 + X4i X5
= X0 X1 X3 X5 + X2 X3 X5 + X4 X5
Hence, the output of gate n would be
F = X0 X1 X3 X5 .........Xn + X2 X3 X5 .........Xn + X4 X5 X7 ..........Xn + ........ + Xn − 1 Xn
o
X = PQ
Y = P + Q
a . c
Z = X : Y = _PQ i_P + Q i
i
and
= _P + Q i_P + Q i
o d
= PQ + PQ
= P5Q
and
. n
M1 = Z 5 R
M1 = _P 5 Q i 5 R
w
Hence,
M1 = _P XOR Q i XOR R
w w
SOL 1.21 Correct option is (C).
Y = A + B = A $ B = NAND gate logic
Hence, the circuit given in option (D) is minimized form of the logic
circuit.
i. n
. c o
i a
o d
n
Output Y is given by
.
Y = AB + AB
= A 5 B = A _XOR i B
SOL 1.24
w w
Correct option is (D).
In order to convert the given circuit using only NAND gate, we apply
bubbles at the input terminal of each gates as shown below.
and
Therefore, by using the above conversion, we get the logic circuit with
NAND gates as
i. n
. c o
i a
o d
. n
w w
DRIVE is active-HIGH, and it will go high only when
X = Y = 0
w
X will be LOW only when either A8 and A9 is HIGH.
Y will be LOW only when W = 0 and A7 = 0
W will be LOW only when A0 through A6 are all HIGH.
Putting this all together, we have the condition for DRIVE to be high
as
A0 = A1 = A2 = A3 = A4 = A5 = A6 = 1
A7 = 0
and either A8 or A9 or both are 1
i. n
. c o
i a
o
d
**********
. n
w w
w
GATE
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Vol 5 of 5
►► Communication systems
R. K. Kanodia
Ashish Murolia
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The objective of this study package is to develop in the GATE aspirants the ability
to solve GATE level problems of Instrumentation Engineering Paper. The highly
increased competition in GATE exam from last few years necessitate an in-depth
knowledge of the concepts for the GATE aspirants. There are lots of study packages
available for GATE Instrumentation Engineering, which includes the theory and
problem sets. But through this package our notion is to develop the problem solving
approach rather than just introducing the theory and problem set. This study
package fulfills all the requirements of a GATE aspirant to prepare for the exam.
In the very first volume of this study package, General Aptitude is introduced.
General aptitude is divided into two sections: verbal ability and numerical ability.
Some important rules of grammar is introduced at the starting of verbal ability
section, and then different types of verbal ability problems are given in separate
chapters. At the end of each chapter answers of the problems are described with
detailed theory and grammatical rule. The numerical ability part does not include
theory as it is expected from an engineering students that they are very well known
to the basic mathematical formulas of under 10th class. In numerical ability section,
the chapters are organized such as to cover all types of problems asked in previous
GATE papers. There is the detailed solutions available for each of the numerical
ability problems such that even an average student can clear his/her doubts easily.
Volumes 3, 4 and 5 include the core subjects of instrumentation. The subjects with
interrelated topics are taken in the same volume. Volume 3 includes the subjects:
Basics of Measurement Systems; Electrical & Electronic Measurement; Transducers,
Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation; Analytical, Optical &
Biomedical Instrumentation. Volume 4 includes the subjects: Basics of Circuits,
Analog Electronics, Digital Electronics. Volume 5 includes the subjects: Signals &
Systems; Communication Systems; Control Systems and Process Control. For each of
the subjects, the chapters are organized in a manner to cover the complete syllabus
with a balanced number of problems on each topic. In starting of each chapter, a
brief theory is given that includes formula, problem solving methodology and some
important points to remember. There are enough number of problems to cover all
the varieties, and the problems are graded from basic to advance level such that a
GATE aspirant can easily understand concepts while solving problems. Each and
every problems are solved with a good description to avoid any confusion or doubt.
There are two types of problems being asked in GATE exam: MCQ (Multiple Choice
Questions) and NAT (Numerical Answer Type questions). Both type of problems
are given in this study package. Solutions are presented in a descriptive and step-by-
step manner. The diagrams in the book are clearly illustrated. Overall, a very simple
language is used throughout this study package to facilitate easy understanding of
the concepts.
We believe that each volume of GATE Study Package helps a student to learn
fundamental concepts and develop problem solving skills for a subject, which are key
essentials to crack GATE. Although we have put a vigorous effort in preparing this
book, some errors may have crept in. We shall appreciate and greatly acknowledge
all constructive comments, criticisms, and suggestions from the users of this book at
[email protected]
Authors
Acknowledgements
We would like to express our sincere thanks to all the co-authors, editors, and
reviewers for their efforts in making this project successful. We would also like to
thank Team NODIA for providing professional support for this project through all
phases of its development. At last, we express our gratitude to God and our Family
for providing moral support and motivation.
Authors
Syllabus
Section 7: Measurements
SI units, systematic and random errors in measurement, expression of uncertainty -accuracy
and precision index, propagation of errors. PMMC, MI and dynamometer type instruments; dc
potentiometer; bridges for measurement of R, L and C, Q-meter. Measurement of voltage, current
and power in single and three phase circuits; ac and dc current probes; true rms meters, voltage and
current scaling, instrument transformers, timer/counter, time, phase and frequency measurements,
digital voltmeter, digital multimeter; oscilloscope, shielding and grounding.
**********
Contents
8.6 Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) 150 11.3 filter realization 183
8.6.1 Radix-r FFT 150 11.4 FIR filters 183
8.6.2 Number of Calculations 150 11.4.1 Direct Form 184
11.4.2 Cascaded Form 184
9 CONTINUOUS TIME FOURIER SERIES 11.4.3 Linear-phase FIR Filters 184
9.1 Introduction 157 11.5 iiR filters 185
9.2 Different forms of continuous 11.5.1 Direct form I 186
time Fourier series 157 11.5.2 Direct form II 186
9.2.1 Trigonometric Fourier Series 157 11.5.3 Cascaded Form 187
9.2.2 Exponential Fourier Series 158 11.5.4 Parallel Form 188
COMMUNICATION 3.4.2 Digital Pulse Modulation 56
SYSTEMS 3.5 Delta Modulation 59
3.6 Multiplexing 59
1 AMPLITUDE MODULATION 3.6.1 Frequency-Division Multiplexing
60
1.1 Introduction 3
3.6.2 Time Division Multiplexing 60
1.2 Amplitude Modulation 3
1.3 DSB-SC AM Signal 7 4 DIGITAL MODULATION SCHEME
**********
GATE STUDY PACKAGE INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
CHAPTER 4
4.1 Introduction
A graph showing how the roots of the characteristic equation move
around the s -plane as a single parameter varies is known as a root
locus plot. Following topics related to root locus technique are included
in the chapter:
•• Basic concept of the root locus method
•• Properties of root locus
•• Useful rules for constructing the root loci
% ^s + Pj h + K % ^s + Zih = 0
n m
or
when K = 0, the roots of the characteristic equation are the poles of P ^s h.
j i
% ^s + P h = 0
n
i.e. j
j
when K = 3, the roots of the characteristic equation are the zeros of P _ s i.
% ^s + Z h = 0
m
i.e. i
i
SALIENT FEATURES
* Brief Theory * Methodology * Important Points *
*MCQ * Numerical Answer Type Questions * Memory Based Questions * Detailed Solution for Each and Every Problem*
% ^s + Z h
i. n
m
i
G1 ^s h H1 ^s h =
o
i=1
= 1 ; −3 < K < 3
% ^s + P h K
n
. c
j
j=1
a
2. For any value of s on the root locus, we have
d i
G1 ^s h H1 ^s h = ^2k + 1h π ; where k = 0 , ! 1, ! 2 ,.......
o
= odd multiple of 180c for 0 # K < 3
G1 ^s h H1 ^s h = 2k π ; where k = 0 , ! 1, ! 2 ,.......
.
= even multiple of 180c for − 3 < K # 0
w
3. Once the root locus are constructed, the values of K along the
loci can be determined by
w % ^s + P h
n
w
j
j=1
K =
% ^s + Z h
m
i
i=1
Points to remember
Some important rules are given in the following texts that are useful
for sketching the root loci.
Rule 1: Symmetry of Root Locus
i. n
Root locus are symmetrical with respect to the real axis of the s -plane.
o
In general, the root locus are symmetrical with respect to the axes of
symmetry of the pole-zero configuration of G ^s h H ^s h.
Rule 2: Poles and Zeros on the Root Locus
a . c
points.
d i
To locate the poles and zeros on root locus, we note the following
o
1. The K = 0 points on the root loci are at the poles of G ^s h H ^s h.
n
.
2. The K = !3 points on the root loci are at zeros of G ^s h H ^s h.
w
Rule 3: Number of Branches of Root Locus
w
The number of branches of the root locus equals to the order of the
w
characteristic polynomial.
Rule 4: Root Loci on the Real axis
While sketching the root locus on real axis, we must note following
points:
1. The entire real axis of the s -plane is occupied by the root locus
for all values of K .
2. Root locus for K $ 0 are found in the section only if the total
number of poles and zeros of G ^s h H ^s h to the right of the section
is odd. The remaining sections of the real axis are occupied by the
root locus for K # 0 .
3. Complex poles and zeros of G ^s h H ^s h do not affect the type of
root locus found on the real axis.
; for K $ 0
n−m
!^2q h p
and θ a = ; for K # 0
n−m
where q = 0 , 1, 2,.......... ^n - m - 1h
Rule 6: Determination of Centroid
The asymptotes cross the real axis at a point known as centroid, which
is given by
i. n
s =
A
n−m
o
Rule 7: Angle of Departure
. c
The angle of departure from an open loop pole is given by (for K $ 0 )
fD = !6^2q + 1h π + φ@; q = 0 , 1, 2,........
i
where, f is the net angle contribution at this pole, of all other open
d
loop poles and zeros. For example, consider the plot shown in figure
o
below.
. n
w w
w
Figure 4.1: Illustration of Angle of Departure
i. n
and fa = !6^2q + 1h π − φ@; q = 0 , 1, 2,.......
o
NOTE
For K # 0 , departure and arrival angles are given by
c
φD = " 7_2q + 1i π + φA
i a .
d
Rule 9: Break-away and Break-in Points
o
To determine the break-away and break-in points on the root locus, we
. n
consider the following points:
w
1. A root locus plot may have more than one breakaway points.
2. Break away points may be complex conjugates in the s -plane.
3.
w w
At the break away or break-in point, the branches of the root
locus form an angle of 180c
n with the real axis, where n is the
number of closed loop poles arriving at or departing from the
single breakaway or break-in point on the real axis.
4. The breakaway and break-in points of the root locus are the
solution of
dK = 0
ds
i.e. breakaway and break in points are determined by finding
maximum and minimum points of the gain K as a function of s
with s restricted to real values.
**********
EXERCIS
Sample Chapter of GATE Instrumentation Engineering Vol- 5
i. n
. c o
i a
o d
. n
w w
The root locus can be
w
(A) (1) and (3)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (2) and (4)
(D) (1) and (4)
______ degree
c o
An open-loop pole-zero plot is shown below.
.
i a
o d
. n
w w
The general shape of the root locus is
NAT 4.6 A unity feedback control system has an open-loop transfer function
G (s) = K
s (s2 + 7s + 12)
The gain K for which s =− 1 + j1 will lie on the root locus of this
i. n
system is
o
______
MCQ 4.7
a
The root locus can be used to determine
. c
i
(A) the absolute stability of a system of a system
d
o
(B) the relative stability of a system
n
(C) both absolute and relative stabilities of a system
.
(D) none of these
MCQ 4.8
w w
The forward-path open-loop transfer function of a ufb system is
w
K (s2 + 1)
G (s) =
s2
The root locus of this system is
i. n
. c o
i a
o d
NAT 4.10
. n
The open loop transfer function of a system is
w
K ^s2 + 4h
G ^s h H ^s h =
s ^s + 2h
w w
The value of K at breakaway point is
______
MCQ 4.11 The root locus of the system having the loop transfer function,
G (s) H (s) = K has
s (s + 4) (s2 + 4s + 5)
(A) 3 break-away points
(B) 3 break-in points
(C) 2 break-in and 1 break-away point
(D) 2 break-away and 1 break-in point
Gopal/450/9.6 (P) The effect of compensating pole is to pull the root locus towards
left.
(Q) The effect of compensating zero is to press the locus towards
right.
(A) None of the above statements is true
(B) Statement (P) is true but statement (Q) is false
(C) Statement (P) is false but statement (Q) is true
(D) Both the statements are true
i. n
K (s + 6)
MCQ 4.14 For the system G (s) H (s) = , consider the following
(s + 2) (s + 4)
characteristic of the root locus :
o
1. It has one asymptote.
2. It has intersection with jw-axis.
a . c
i
3. It has two real axis intersections.
d
4. It has two zeros at infinity.
o
The root locus have characteristics
n
(A) 1 and 2
w.
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
w
(D) 2 and 4
MCQ 4.15
GK/98-17/90
w
If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is
K
s ^s + 1h^s + 2h
1+ = 0
i. n
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
MCQ 4.18
. c o
Consider the system with delay time ^tD h shown below.
i a
o d
. n
w
Suppose delay time tD = 1 sec . In root locus plot of the system, the
break-away and break-in points are respectively
w
(A) 0, 4.83 (B) 4.83, 0
w
(C) - 0.83 , 4.83 (D) 4.83, - 0.83
**********
SOLUTION
Sample Chapter of GATE Instrumentation Engineering Vol- 5
. c
^s + 3h^s2 + 2s + 2h
a
i
So, we have the open loop poles and zeros as
d
zero: s =− 2
o
poles: s =− 3 and s =− 1 ! j1
. n
Therefore, we get the pole-zero plot as
w w
w
i. n
. c o
i a
o d
n
From the given plot, we have
.
Number of poles, P = 2
w
Number of zeros, Z = 1
w
Since, the number of branches of root locus is equal to number of poles,
so we have
w
Number of branches = 2
Thus (B) and (D) are not correct.
Again, the branch of root locus always starts from open loop pole and
ends either at an open loop zero (or) infinite. Thus, (C) is incorrect and
remaining Correct option is (A).
2
^2 + 1h 180c 3 # 180c
and fa = = = 270c; q = 1
P−Z 2
Hence, we sketch the root locus plot as
i. n
SOL 4.5 Correct option is (A).
. c o
SOL 4.6 Correct answer is 10.
i a
G _ s i = 2 K
o d
Given the open loop transfer function,
; H ^s h = 1
n
s ^s + 7s + 12h
w.
So, we have the characteristic equation
1 + G ^s h H ^s h = 0
or
w
or w 1+ 2 K
s ^s + 7s + 12h
= 0
Hence, option (B) and (D) may not be correct option. A point on the
i. n
real axis lies on the root locus if the total number of poles and zeros
to the right of this point is odd. This is not satisfied by (C) because
o
at origin there are double pole. Thus, remaining Correct option is (A).
a . c
i
SOL 4.9 Correct option is (A).
d
The given system is shown below.
n o
w.
w w
We redraw the block diagram after moving take off point as shown
below.
^s2 + 2s h
or K =− 2
s +4
The break points of the root locus are given by solution of
dK = 0
ds
−8^s2 + 4h^2s + 2h − ^s2 + 2s h^2s hB
= 0
^s2 + 4h
or
i. n
2
or 2s2 - 8s - 8 = 0
o
or s2 - 4s - 4 = 0
c
So, s = 4.82 , - 0.82
i a .
The root locus will be on real axis at any point, if total number of poles
and zeros are odd to the right of that point.
o d
. n
w w
w
Hence, breakaway point should lie between s = 0 and - 2 . So, breakaway
point is s =− 0.82 . Now, the open loop transfer function is
G ^s h H ^s h =
K ^s2 + 4h
s ^s + 2h
i. n
equation (2) with respect to s , we get
6^ h ^ h^
d 2 K =− 2s2 + 8s + 5 + s + 2 4s + 8
h@
o
ds2
=−^6s + 24s + 21h
c
2
.
For s =− 0.775 and s =− 3.225 , we have
i a
d 2 K =− 6.0 < 0
ds2
o d
So, the points s =− 0.775 and - 3.225 are maxima points. Hence, s
=− 0.775 and s =− 3.225 are break away points. Again, for s =− 2 ,
we have
. n
w
d 2 K =+ 3 > 0
ds2
w
So, the point s =− 2 is minima points. Hence, s =− 2 is break in point.
Thus, there is two break away points ^s =− .0775, − 3.225h and one
w
break in point (s =− 2).
Since, we have
G ^s h H ^s h s =− 3 + j5 = K
^− 3 + j5 + 1h^− 3 + j5 + 5h
K
^− 2 + j5h^2 + j5h
=
K
^ 5h^2 + j5h
or = 1
− 2 + j
or K = 1
4 + 25 4 + 25
Thus, K = 29
i. n
towards left half of s -plane.
o
SOL 4.14 Correct option is (B).
. c
Given the open loop transfer function,
K ^s + 6h
a
G ^s h H ^s h =
i
^s + 2h^s + 4h
o
Poles : s =− 2 and s =− 4
d
So, we have the open loop poles and zeros as
.
Zeros : s =− 6
n
w
Therefore, the number of asymptotes is
P - Z = 2 − 1 = 1
w
So, the characteristic (1) is correct.
w
Now, we have the characteristic equation for the system
^s + 2h^s + 4h + K ^s + 6h = 0
or s2 + ^6 + K h s + 8 + 6K = 0
For the characteristic equation, we form the Routh’s array as
s2 1 8 + 6K
s1 6+K
s0 8 + 6K
i. n
s ^s + 1h^s + 2h
1+ = 0
or 1 + G ^s h H ^s h = 0
o
So, the open loop transfer function is
G ^s h H ^s h =
. c
K
s ^s + 1h^s + 2h
i a
d
^0 − 1 − 2h − ^0h
o
sA = =− 1
3−0
. n
w
SOL 4.16 Correct option is (C).
Characteristic equation of the given closed loop system is
w
s ^s + 1h^s + 3h + K ^s + 2h = 0 ; K > 0
K ^s + 2h
or
w 1+
s ^s + 1h^s + 3h
= 0
P - Z = 3 − 1 = 2
Angles of asymptotes:
^2q + 1h 180c
fa = ; P − Z = 2, q = 0, 1
P−Z
fa = 90c and 270c
Sum of Re 6P @ − Sum of Re 6Z @
Centroid: sA =
P−Z
^0 − 1 − 3h − ^− 2h
=
=− 2
3−1 2
=− 1
i. n
Thus, from above analysis, we sketch the root locus as
. c o
i a
o d
. n
w
For the root locus, we conclude the following points
w
1. The break away point lies in the range,
− 1 < Re 6s @ < 0
w
2. Two of its roots tends to infinite along the asymptotes Re 6s @ =− 1
.
3. Root locus lies only in left half of s -plane.
K ^1 − s h
G ^s h H ^s h =
s ^s + 2h
or =1
s ^s + 2h
or K =
1−s
The break points are given by solution of
dK = 0
ds
or ^1 − s h^2s + 2h − s ^s + 2h^− 1h = 0
or s2 - 2s - 2 = 0
Therefore, the break points are
s = + 2 ! 4 + 8 = 1 ! 3
2
= 2.73, − 0.73 or - 0.73
Since, G ^s h H ^s h is negative, so the root locus will be complementary
root locus and will exist at any point on the real axis, if the total
number of poles and zeros to the right of that point is even.
i. n
. c o
i a
Root locus will exist on real axis between s =− 2 and 0 and also for
d
s > + 1. Hence, break away point will be s =− 0.73 and break in point
o
will be s =+ 2.73
. n
w w
w
SOL 4.18 Correct option is (C).
For delay time tD = 1 sec , the characteristic equation of the system is
−s
1 + Ke = 0 ; K $ 0
s
Now, we have the approximation
1 − s/2 2 − s
e-s , =
1 + s/2 2 + s
So, the characteristic equation becomes
K ^s − 2h
s ^s + 2h
1− = 0 ...(1)
So, the root locus (complementary) for the given system will exist on
i. n
real axis in the region
− 2 < s < 0 and s > 2
o
The break points of the system are given by solution of
. c
dK = 0 ...(2)
ds
From equation (1), we have
i a
s ^s + 2h
o d
K =
^s − 2h
. n
Substituting it in equation (2), we get
d s ^s + 2h = 0
ds > ^s − 2h H
^s − 2h^2s + 2h − s ^s + 2h = 0
w
or
w
or 2s2 - 2s - 4 - s2 - 2s = 0
or s2 - 4s - 4 = 0
So, s = 4 ! 5.657 = 4.83, − 0.83
2
Hence, break away point is s =− 0.83 and beak in point is s = 4.83 .
**********