+final Ukp Eto 10

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1. An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as conductance G (Siemens). Which of the
formulas A to D expresses the conductance for this circuit?

- G=1/R
2. A resistor has three red bands. If they all carry information about resistance value as opposed to tolerance, what is
the indicated resistance?
- 2200 ohm
3. A thermistor may be used to measure temperature. Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes
this device?
- Temp sensitive semi-conductor
4. A 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open
circuit) occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be:
- Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload
5. After main power is restored, a timed sequential restart of motor-driven auxiliaries is necessary to avoid:
- Generator overload due to many motors starting at simultaneously
6. A ships 3-phase A.C circuit has 440 V and 220 V transformer linked sections. The effect of a single earth fault on a
220 V line will cause the following earth lamp indication:
- In 440 V section: Two lamps bright. In 220 V section: Two lamps bright
7. An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A a bilge pump circuit. A second earth fault occurs on the yellow line
of a 10 A ventilation fan circuit. The likely outcome is that:
- Both motors trip out on overload
8. An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because:
- It satisfies the SOLAS (and other) requirements for ship safety
9. After clearing lines following the loading of cargoes such as Naphthas, Xylene, Toluene, Benzene, White Spirits and
Kerosenes, it is necessary to wait for a specified period before taking manual ullages or samples. Why is this?
- These are all "static accumulator" cargoes. As a cargo line is blown, electrostatically charged bubbles enter the
tank and rise through the cargo, generating a high voltage at the surface.
10. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar loading are respectively transferred
by the following controls:
- Speed governor and voltage regulator
11. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:
- The fastest mean available
12. All necessary information for the next port of call shoud be:
- Procured before departure from a port
13. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to return. The first
report you make shoud be to the __________
- Immigration Service
14. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when
- Intoxicated
15. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being sold to foreign
interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under these
circumstances, the crew ______
- Must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a mutually agreed upon port.
16. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge from Articles, he should be
issued a _______
- Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a duplicate book
17. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE?
- An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge Form issued to the seaman.
18. An 8-Volt relay is used with a 12-Volt power supply. The relay requires a current of 0.1 Amp. What is the
series resistance required?
- 40 ohm
19. A power card taken from diesel engine cylinder using a mechanical indicator has a flat top. Which of the
possible actions given in the options is most likely to correct this irregularity on the power card?
- Change the indicator spring for one with a higher rating
20. A deadweight tester is used to check and calibrate a pressure gauge. The tester consists of a hydraulic pump
and a hydraulic chamber and balance weight system. After completing the calibration of the pressure gauge
the hydraulic pressure should be relieved before removing the weights. Select from the options given, the
main reason for this requirement.
- To protect the piston in the hydraulic system from possible impact damage as it many
reach the end of its stroke.
21. A simple level control for a water tank consists of a horizontal lever with a float at one and a filling valve at
the other. The lever is provided with an adjustable pivot positioned between the valve and the float. How
will the ‘offset’ in the system be affected under changing demand conditions if the pivot is moved closer to
the filling valve?
- It will increase the offset across the demand range
22. A pressure gauge of the bourdon tube type is reading incorrectly and shows 2 bar when the pressure in the
system is zero. There is no spare available. Which of the options would be the best temporary remedy for
this situation?
- Use a deadweight tester to mark a new scale on the gauge throughout the working range.
23. A standard outside micrometer requires regular maintenance, including calibration, in order to ensure
accuracy of measurement. How is the accuracy of this type of instrument normally checked? Select the
answer from the options given.
- By measuring a standard gauge block or rod at a common temperature.
24. As part of the regular maintenance for a paramagnetic oxygen analyzer used for measuring the oxygen
content of exhaust gas it is important to keep the sample line filter as clean as possible. Why is this
necessary with this type of instrument?
- Pressure variations in the sample chamber can cause errors so restrictions must be kept to a minimum
25. A vapour compression refrigeration system is usually fitted with a number of devices to give protection and
control of the system. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test the high pressure
cut out during routine maintenance and checking of the system?
- Gradually shut in the condenser cooling water valve or the condenser refrigerant inlet valve while closely
monitoring the compressor discharge pressure.
B,C,D,E….T
26. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the automatic voltage regulators should be
isolated and all semiconductor short circuited or disconnect in order to:
- Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester
27. Check-synchroniser is often installed to:
- Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
28. Compressed air for instrument and control purposes needs to be of high quality in order to condition the air filter
modules are usually fitted to remove the contaminants. If there is evidence of oil carry over to the final elements
in the instrumentation air system what is the most likely cause?
- The coalescer module is saturated and requires renewal
29. During routine checking of alarm function of main and auxiliary equipment, some setpoints are cancelled due to a
mistake. What is the appropriate routine to ensure correct setpoints are set?
- Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in question for correct values
30. Diodes are widely used in rectification, or the conversion of alternating current to direct current. This circuit
symbol is such example. The input voltage V(in) is sine-wave AC. Which of the shown output voltages is correct for
this circuit?
- Figure 1
31. During maintenance of a pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve the diaphragm is found to be
split. Select, from the options given, a suitable material to use to make a temporary replacement if there is no
spare diaphragm available.
- Natural rubber sheet of approximately the same thickness and elasticity as the original diaphragm material
32. During maintenance work on a compensated mechanical hydraulic governor air is drawn in to the hydraulic circuit
after draining and flushing out the unit. Which of the actions given in the options is most likely to assist in the
removal of the air from the system?
- With the governor in operation open the compensation needle valve to introduce instability and disturb the
engine load to make the governor hunt.
33. Electronic Drawing Application Software yang cocok digunakan untuk memudahkan dalam membuat gambar
rencana layout PCB di antaranya adalah …..
- Protel
34. Following replacement of a diesel alternator governor the machine is test run on load. It is found that as the load is
gradually increased the voltage and the frequency gradually fall to an unacceptable level. The governor is a
mechanical hydraulic type. Select from the options given the correct adjustment to make to correct the situation.
- The governor droop should be reduced.
35. For ideal synchronising, the phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage should be:
- 0°
36. For two generators running in paralel, their share of additional load (kW) will be determinated by the:
- Governor droop setting on each prime mover
37. For which of the following systems would you install a PID-controller?
- Temperature-control
38. High Voltage systems rely on the installed protective equipment being able to interrupt any fault in the system.
Throughout the system, the fault level has been calculated, and under no circumstances must the system be
modified to exceed this fault level. What is meant by fault level?
- The amount of apparent power that could flow into any fault at any point in the electrical network.
39. How would pirates attacking a ship be communicated to another ship?
- "My ship is under attack by pirates"
40. How would you report containers with dangerous goods lost overboard?
- "My vessel has lost containers with dangerous goods of IMDG Class….in position…."
41. Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development
- Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing
42. If master finds reason to doubt wether the agent is giving the vessel’s interest full and proper attention he should:
- Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
43. If the A.C. line current in a generator is doubled, the heating effect in the stator windings will:
- Quadruple
44. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by _______
- Consul on the Shipping Articles
45. In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that all cabling should be separated from non-
intrinsically safe equipment, and (where colour coding is relied upon) to be of a special colour. What colour is that?
- Blue
46. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer?

- A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure proportional to
the current.
47. In measurement systems there is often a need to specify performance characteristics. One such characteristic may
be referred to as 'dead band'. What is the definition of DEAD BAND?
- The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal.
48. In measurement systems, which of the listed sensors is suitable for physical displacement?
- Strain gauge
49. In ship's stability what is understood by the term "In stable equilibrium"?
- Stable equilibrium means the buoyancy force upwards and the force of weight downwards are equal and G and
B are in the same vertical line
50. In terms of electronic hardware, what is the meaning of the abbreviation PCB?
- Printed Circuit Board
51. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is a digital signal?
- A signal with discrete levels such as 0 = "low" and 1 = "High"
52. In which of the following processes will the time constant be of minor importance.
- Level control
53. In what kind of measuring equipment can we find a Bourdon-tube?
- In a pressure transmitter
54. Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"?
- Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not important.
55. It is the Master’s responsibility to ensure that:
- Concerned personnel carry out the on board training programme effectively
56. It is common practice to connect a resistor over an alarm contact (see diagram) in many applications. Why is this
connection used?
- To monitor the cable/wires for break.
57. Low voltage ships tend to have insulated neutral systems because
- In the event of an earth fault vital equipment will not trip
58. Master of every ship must provide:
- A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore
59. Measuring instruments must be routinely calibrated. What is the meant by instrument calibration?
- Comparing input and output values against a documented standard
60. Measurement and transmission of electronic values may be in the form of digital or analogue signals. What is an
analogue signal?
- A continually variable electric signal
61. Onboard training shoud be organised in such a way that:
- It is an integral part of the overall training plan
62. Please indicate the correct sequence of action to take place in an alarm/monitoring and safety system
- Alarm, st. by start, slowdown, shutdown
63. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell ozone. This is likely to indicate which of the following?
- Arcing at badly connected bus bars
64. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the USCG requires:
- 96 hours notice of arrival
65. Prior to ordering stores for any department:
- The store inventory shoud be checked so that you order only the items required
66. Proper and accurate inventory of stores shoud be maintained in order to:
- Control the ship’s budget
67. PT-100 sensors are sometimes used with 3 or 4 wires. What is the reason for this?
- Higher measuring accuracy

68. Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if they are modulated. There are several
ways to modulate a carrier. Which modulating method is illustrated here?

- Amplitude modulation (AM)
69. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check:
- Its readiness to perform as specified
70. Representative of the port authorities shoud always receive the best possible treatment:
- For ship’s clearance to take place quickly and without complications
71. Some areas of ships require that any electrical equipment used must be intrinsically safe. What is meant by being
intrinsically safe?
- Cannot produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)
72. Sometimes an early warning of failure in High Voltage switchboards may be an unpleasant smell. If the
switchboard uses gas circuit breakers, which of the following may indicate a potential problem?
- Rotten eggs
73. Temperature sensors may be marked Pt 100. What does it mean?
- 100 ohm at 0 deg C

74. Temperature sensors may be marked Pt 802. What does it mean?
- 802 ohm at 20 deg C

75. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the following descriptions are valid for a
thermocouple?
- A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a small voltage
76. The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of new galley hot-plate is measured to be 30Mohm. When three identical
hot-plate are tested together their combined IR will be:
- 10 M ohm
77. The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H, connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S)
of the two inductors.
- L(S) = 4 H
78. The circuit consist of two inductors, L(1) = 6H and L(2) = 12H, connected in series. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of
two inductors.
- 18H
79. The circuit consist of two capacitors, C(1) = 6µF and C(2) = 12µF, in parallel. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two
capacitors.
- 18µF
80. The circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6µF and C(2) = 12µF, in series. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two
capacitors.
- 4µF
81. The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the Synchroscope reaches the “5 to 12” position. This
allow for:
- Circuit breaker operating time
82. The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red=Bright, Yellow=Dark, Blue=Dim. Which fault
condition shown as red-yellow-blue is correct?
- No fault – Hard earth – Light earth
83. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine
Inspection Office as soon as possible?
- The Master of the vessel
84. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical operating characteristic
for the same. Which component?
- Transistor
85. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical operating characteristic
for the same component. Which component?
- Triac
86. The figure show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical working characteristic for
the same component. Which component?
- Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)

87. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical working characteristic for
the same component. Which component?
- Triac
88. The figure shows a silicon controlled rectifier with a RC circuit connected in parallel. RC circuit is often used in such
connection. For which purpose?
- Protect the SCR against damage caused by high voltage spikes
89. The circuit symbol is a widely used system for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the diagrams is the correct for
the output voltage when the input voltage is sine-shaped as shown?
- Figure 1
90. The circuit symbol is a full-wave bridge rectifier. Which electronic component will you connect between ‘a’ and ‘b’
in order to obtain reduced ripple voltage to the load RL?
- Capacitor
91. The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide:
- Short circuit protection
92. The inductance which will induce an EMF of 1 Volt in a conductor when the current is changing at a rate of 1 Amp
per second, is defined as?
- Henry
93. The instrument most widely used for testing of semiconductor diodes is:
- Ohmmeter
94. The majority conventions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main categories:
- Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine Pollution, Liability and compensation
95. The maximum current that a 15 Volt, 3 Watt Zener diode can handle without damage is?
- 0.2 A
96. The picture shows a common used 3.5 inches diskette type for storing data. What is the data storing capacity for
such diskette?
- 1.44 MB
97. The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase alternator operating at rated output
power are supplied by:
- The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage regulator and the prime mover
98. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to _________
- Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
99. The physical size of a resistor is an indicator of what aspect of it's specification?
- Power dissipation capability
100. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA. What is the span of the output signal?
- 16 Ma
101. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The standard output signal 4-20 mA. What is the output signal when
the process value is 100 bar?
- 12 mA
102. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal 4-20 mA. What is the span of the output signal?
- 16 mA
103. The recognised definition of High Voltage equipment is anything that operates at over which of the
following levels?
- 1000Volts ac or 1500Volts dc.
104. The refrigeration system for the ships provisions consists of a number of cold rooms served by a central
refrigeration system. The evaporator coils for the vegetable room are found to be frosting up even though the
room is down to temperature and the liquid line valve has closed. Select, from the options given, the automatic
control component which is likely to be malfunctioning and so cause this condition.
- Back pressure control valve
105. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
- Master
106. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the following descriptions are valid
for a thermocouple?
107. Thermistor will typically have
- Relatively nonlinear characteristic
108. Thermo-elements will typically have
- Relatively wide range of temperature measurement
109. The typical current gain of a common emitter transistor is
- 10-200
110. This is a simplified block diagram of a dc generator and its voltage regulator. Find the value of the feedback
constant H if the reference VR is a 45Volt battery and the terminal voltage Vt is to be 250 Volt.
- H = - 0.178
111. This is the graphical symbol and truth table for a logic gate. Which gate?
- NOR
112. Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature coefficient thermistor will typically
have
- Relatively non linear characteristic
113. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the following descriptions explains
the principle of operation of a thermocouple?
114. The Ziegler-Nichols method is used in control engineering when setting up the system. Which of the system
components given in the options would this method be applied to during initial set up?
- PID controller for tuning
115. This block diagram illustrates an elementary control system. What is the common name for this type of
system?
- Closed loop feed back system

116. This circuit is widely used for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the diagrams is correct for the output
voltage when the input voltage is sine-shaped as shown?
- Figure 2
117. This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 µF and C(2) = 12 µF, in series. Calculate the equivalent C(S)
of the two capacitors.
- C(S) = 4 µF
118. This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm, connected in series. Calculate the
equivalent resistance R(S).
- R(S) = 18 ohm
119. This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm, connected in parallel. Calculate the
equivalent value R(S) of the two resistances.
- R(S) = 4 ohm
120. This circuit consists of a current source I, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and an inductor L. The
voltage/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes through L if the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2
at time t = 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which?
- Figure 3
121. This circuit consists of a current source I, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and a capacitor C. The
current/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes in the current I in case the switch S is suddenly shifted from
position 1 to 2 at time t=0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which?
- Figure C
122. This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and a capacitor C. The
voltage/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes in the voltage V© in case the switch S is suddenly shifted from
position 1 to 2 at time t=0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which?
- Figure 1
123. This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output signal Q. Which type of logic
function is the gate giving?
- NOR gate
124. This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output signal Q. Which type of logic
function is the gate giving?
- OR gate
125. This circuit is a flip-flop. Which type?
- Bi-stable flip-flop
126. This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm, connected in series. Calculate the
equivalent resistance R(S) of the two resistances?
- 18 ohm
127. This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm, connected in parallel. Calculate the
equivalent resistance R(S) of the two resistances?
- 4 ohm
128. This graphical symbol is a logic gate with truth table. Which gate?
- OR
129. This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which gate?
- NOR
- OR
- NAND
132. This is a parallel L-C circuit with curve showing frequency-impedance characteristics. Which of the formulas
A to D will you utilize for determining the resonant frequency?
- fo = 1/(2sqrt (L/C))
133. This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which color code should be marked on the rings (assume ring d is
the tolerance ring)?
- Blue b. Grey c. Orange
134. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the _______
- Master of the vessel
135. Transducers are devices which translate the value of one measured value into diferent measurement units
(for instance units of temperature to millivlots). What is the meant by the “Range” of a transducer?
- The difference between possible maximum and minimum measurement
136. Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric pressure. What is the common
name pressures measured relative to atmospheric pressure?
- Gauge pressure
137. Use Kirchhoff’s voltage law and Ohm's law to calculate the voltage V2 across the resistance R2.
- 4,5V
W
WHAT
138. What could be the cause of a refrigeration compressor running continuously even though normal
temperatures for the cold rooms have been reached?
- Low-pressure cut-out is stuck in closed position.
139. What is the meaning of the abbreviation of PCB?
- Printed Circuit Board
140. What is a ZENER BARRIER?
- A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsic safety in installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.
141. What is an A/D and a D/A converter?
- A converter H at convert an analogue signal to a digital signal and vice versa
142. What is digital signal?
- A signal representing 0 = “low” and 1 = “High"
143. What is an analogous signal?
A variable electric signal
144. What is an I/P transducer?
- A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure proportional to the current
145. What is a typical problem when it is something wrong with the span of an instrument?
- Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is not giving 100% output
146. What the symbol for a THYRISTOR?
- Figure 2
147. What is the definition of DEAD BAND?
- The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal
148. What is dynamic amplifying?
- Amplitude of output signal divided by amplitude of input signal
149. What is static amplifying?
- Change in output signal divided by change in input signal
150. What is the advantage of a transmitter with a narrow measurement range?
- Better linearity and increased accuracy
151. What is the meaning of instrument calibration?
- Comparing input and output values against a documented standard
152. What is the influence of the I (integration) function of a controller?
- It will try to reduce the deviation between set-point and process value
153. What is the meaning of the expression dead-band?
- The controller will not react on a process change in a specific range
154. What is the meaning of split-range?
- Several control-valves are connected to the same controller
155. What is the meaning of term “Span” of transducer?
- The difference between maximum and minimum measurement that gives a standard output signal
156. What is the meaning of "make fast"
- To secure a rope
157. What is the meaning of the medical term "Hypothermia"?
- Hypothermia is the condition when the core temperature of the body is lower than normal
158. What is the most common signal from an I/P converter?
- 4-20 mA/3-15 Psi

159. What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat?
- Lifeboat drill
160. What kind of electrolyte is used for Nickel-iron batteries?
- Solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) and water
161. What principle of measurement is the viscosity controller based on?

- Measurement of differential pressure
162. What type of component does this graphical symbol illustrate?
- Pressure-reducing regulator
163. What will be the probable outcome, if the amplification is set too high on a temperature Controller?
- The process will oscillate and get out of control

164. What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill for all persons on board the
ship?
- The Muster List
165. What action should be taken by the engine room rating if a piece of machinery is not functioning properly?
- If machinery does not function properly the duty Engineer should be informed immediately so that plans for
further action can be made.
166. What action should be taken by the watchkeeping engineer if the running machinery is operating at
slightly high temperature but everything else appears ok?
- It should be brought to the attention of the Chief Engineer so that remedial action can be decided upon.
167. What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting?
- The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader'
168. What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"?
- Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite side of the ship.
169. What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?
- Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship
170. What do you understand by: Bitter end?
- Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the chain locker
171. What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor?
- Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake
172. What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder?
- Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the accommodation ladder
and rig the pilot ladder right next to it
173. What do you understand by the initials: EPIRB?
- This means: Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon
174. What do you understand by: Secure the tug?
- Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug
175. What does the term "Dead Ship" mean?
- "Dead Ship" means that the machinery and boilers are inoperational due to lack of electrical power
176. What does the word "pirates" mean?
- Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
177. What does the Chief Officer want the First Engineer to do?
- The Chief Officer wants the First Engineer to empty the starboard bilge in No. 5 hold
178. What does the word "pyrotechnics" mean?
- Pyrotechnics are the items which are capable of self-contained chemical reactions for the production heat, light,
smoke and/or sound
179. What has the cadet been ordered to do?
- The Cadet has been ordered to paint the evaporator using a paint brush
180. What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?
- Draught is D, in the figure
181. What is the objective of the merchant navy?

- To safely transport goods by sea
182. What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals?
- The crew mess
183. What is understood by the term "take the helm"?
- Take over the steering of the ship.
184. Where is "AFT", in the figure?
- Aft is A, in the figure
185. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?

- The Bridge is A, in the figure
186. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

- The Forecastle is B, in the figure
187. Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?
- The Port quarter is D, in the figure
188. Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?
- The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure
189. What is a hydraulic hand pump usually used for?
- A hydraulic hand pump is usually used to tighten G-nuts
190. What is the correct name of the equipment shown in the illustration?
- Pedestal drill
191. What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration?
- Turbocharger
- Connecting rod
What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration?
a. Piston rod
- Camshaft
- Piston
- Crosshead
- Crankshaft
- Exhaust valve
- Exhaust valve
- Fuel injector
200. What is the correct name of the tool in the illustration?
- Monkey wrench
201. What is the correct name of the tool shown in the illustration?
- Water Pump Pliers
Flat file
- Adjustable wrench
204. What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?
- Draught is indicated by D, in the figure
205. What is "UNDER KEEL CLEARANCE", in the figure?

- Under Keel Clearance is indicated by C, in the figure
206. What should the cadet be aware of when using a needle gun?
- The Cadet should be aware of the dangers associated with using a needle gun
207. What should be a correct form of response to the question: What is the weather in your position?
- The correct form of response would be to give the wind force and direction, the range of visibility and the sea
state.
208. What should the Third Officer do, if he finds something missing from a lifeboat?
- If he finds something missing from a lifeboat, the Third Officer should notify the Chief Officer
209. What should the Fitter be asked to do?

- The Fitter should be asked to check the level of hydraulic oil in the header tank
210. What would be the correct form of response to the question: What is the visibility in your position?
- The correct form of response would be: Visibility in my position is two hundred meters
211. What would be the correct form of response to the question: What kind of assistance do you require?
- The correct form of response would be: My vessel has a fire in the accommodation and we require fire-fighting
assistance
212. What would be the correct method to report to other ships in the vicinity that a person has fallen
overboard from your vessel?
- "Vessel "name" has lost a person overboard in "position….."
213. What would be understood by the message "A yacht has capsized in heavy seas"??
- The message means the yacht has been overturned in heavy seas
214. What is understood by the term "Marine Pollution"?
- Marine Pollution means that the marine environment is contaminated by harmful or unacceptable liquids,
substances or particles
215. What would the Master require of the Chief Officer?
- The Master would required the Chief Officer to organize a lifeboat drill
216. What would the First Engineer require?
- The First Engineer would require an inspection of the heating coils
217. What would you call the wreckage of a yacht floating in the sea?
- Flotsam
218. What will happen when the ship arrives in Rotterdam?
- The ship will receive fuel and diesel oil bunkers
219. What will the cadet expect to find in the engine room store?
- The Cadet will expect to find machinery spare parts in the engine room store
220. What will the cadet find in the maintenance manual?
- The Cadet will find a lubricating chart in the maintenance manual
221. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after foreign articles have been
signed, and the ship proceeds foreign?
- The U.S. Consul will remove the replaced man’s name from the Certified Crew List.
222. Which controller must be tuned first in a cascade control system?
- The secondary controller
223. Which electronic component or system of components does this graphical symbol illustrate?
- Inverter
224. Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical symbol illustrating?
- Band pass filter

225. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol illustrate?
- Transistor
226. Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical symbol illustrating?
- Operational amplifier
227. Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating?
- Zener diode
228. Which diagram is the symbol for a THYRISTOR?
- Figure 2
229. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

- Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console
230. Which of the following instruments is normally part of a control-loop?
- Transducer
231. Which of the following systems will include a D/P transmitter in the control-loop
- Pressure
232. Which controller must be tuned first in a cascade control system?
- The secondary controller
233. Which of the options given is one of the main responsibilities of a watch-keeping engineer?
- To inform the Chief Engineer of any situations that cannot be controlled during the watch
234. Which of the following letter combinations represents a flow indicating controller on a process and
instrumentation diagram?
- FIC
235. Which is the correct term given to the company providing stores and provisions to a ship in port?
- The ship chandler
236. Which of the following answers would most appropriately describe shell plating damage to the vessel?
- "My vessel has sustained damage to shell plating below the waterline in way of No. 3 cargo hold, starboard side"
237. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test a remote reading temperature gauge for
the auxiliary boiler exhaust gas?
- Check the resistance change in the sensor over a known temperature range against the resistance value in the
product sheet
238. Which of the methods given in the options should be used as part of the check of the accuracy of a liquid
filled thermometer used in the cold rooms of the ships provisions stores?
- Immerse the thermometer in a mixture of distilled water and ice made from distilled water to check the zero
reading.
239. Which of the following detectors will you use for detecting if a watertight steel door is closed or open?
- Proximity switch
- Transducer
241. Which of the listed physical parameters can be measured by means of a manometer?
- Pressure
242. Which of the listed sensors cannot be utilized for detecting temperature?
- Strain gauge
243. Which of the following letter combinations represents a temperature controller on a process and
- TC
- Remote level controller with indicator

- Pressure to electric current converter
246. Which of the following detectors will you choose for detecting smoke from fire?
- Ionization type
247. Which alternative is correct for measuring current over the load L?
- Figure 3
248. Which type temperature sensors are shown on this picture?

- Resistance sensors
249. Which is the meaning of term “Range” of transducer?
- The difference between possible maximum and minimum measurement
- Pressure-reducing regulator
251. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?-
- Resistance temperature sensor

- Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console

253. Which of the following combinations represents a level indicating controller on a process and
- LIC
254. Which of the following parameters will result in oscillation?
- Too high amplification
255. Which of the following parameters will not result in oscillation?
- Too long I-time
256. Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for a NOT-gate?
- Figure 1
257. Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for an AND-gate?
- Figure 3
258. Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for an OR-function?
- Figure 2
259. Which of the following alternatives summarise the benefits of using high voltage on ships?
- Smaller conductors, machines and switchgear
260. Which of the Following is not a Type of Team?
- Individual
261. Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing?
- Inverting amplifier
- Non-inverting amplifier
- Differentiator
- Integrator
265. Which function is this circuit performing?
- Differentiating
266. Which of the following options may be used as a brief summary of how to safely make high voltage
equipment accessible?
- Disconnect, isolate, earth (ground)
267. Which of the methods given in the options will give the most accurate test of the accuracy of a bourdon
tube type pressure gauge with a range of 0 to 20 bar?
- Check the gauge on a deadweight tester
268. Which one of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork?
- More ideas may be generated
269. With regard to radar, what would be a correct form of response to the question: What range scale are you
using?
- The correct form of response would be: "I am using the 12 mile range scale"
270. With reference to the installation of pressure gauges for steam systems. Complete the following statement
from the options given. To protect a bourdon tube type pressure gauge which is to be fitted to a steam line it
should ….
- ..be fitted with a siphon loop between it and the steam pipe.
271. With the set point at the actual desired value, a temperature control system is giving an unacceptably large
offset (difference between set point and measured value) on high load resulting in a low system temperature.
Which of the actions given in the options should be taken to reduce this effect and therefore achieve closer control
of the temperature?
- Reduce the width of the proportional band for the controller
272. Why did he study the contract in detail before signing it? Why did he study the contract in detail before
signing it?
- He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted to know his duties
273. Why did the new Cadet want to go to the messroom?
- The new Cadet wanted to go to the messroom to become acquainted with the officers
274. Why did the Second Engineer wish to make a monthly allotment?
- The Second Engineer wished to make an allotment because he was married
275. Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the correct place?
- The control system is depending on the best possible process signal
276. Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the correct location
- The control system is depending on the best possible process signal
277. Where will you normally find the ship’s documents including Crew Passports and CDC on board a vessel?
- Ship’s office
278. When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and ZERO. Please indicate in which
order these adjustments should be done.
- First Zero adjustment and then Span adjustment. Then Zero should be rechecked
279. When unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load in order to avoid:
- Undue overspeeding
280. When a blackout occurs: what should be your first reaction?
- Inform the bridge about the reason for blackout, and expected time to restarts
281. When we are measuring temperature with a thermistor, the name of the sensing device is:
- Temp sensitive semi-conductor
282. When we are measuring level of liquids with a conductivity level indicator, the name of the sensing device
is?
- Electrodes
283. When we are measuring salinity with a salinometer, the sensing device is?
- Electrodes
284. When we are using a diode to convert AC to DC, it is usually referred to as a
- Rectifier
285. When we are measuring viscosity with a restricted flow viscometer, the name of the sensing device is?
- Capillary tube
286. When we are measuring level of liquids with a conductivity level indicator, the name of the sensing device
is?
- Capacitance probe
287. When selecting switchgear to work with High Voltage it is important to use an appropriate arcing medium.
What is meant by arcing medium?
- The gas or vapour which will minimise creation of an electric arc as contacts open.
288. When should the watch-keeping engineer inform the bridge that the main engine is ready for
manoeuvring?
- Once the engine is properly prepared and tested and the engine room is correctly manned
289. When starting three phase induction motors which of the following starting methods will immediately
apply rated voltage to the machine?
- Direct on Line
290. When would gassing-up of cargo tanks on an LNG carrier normally be necessary?
- Pass fresh air through the sample chamber
291. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that the reactive load is evenly
shared so that the total alternator loads are evenly shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active
and reactive loads, which side of the vector diagram shown represents the reactive load?
- (Y)
292. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard and the generator is AVR
controlled, the voltage will?
- Initially rise, then reset to the set value
293. When maintenance work is to be carried out on an electric motor driving a centrifugal water pump with
automatic start, should you;
- In conjunction with the senior watchkeeper and electrician, isolate valves, electrical supply, automatics and post
‘Do not operate’ signs before commencing work.
294. When we are measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of the sensing device is:
- Orifice plate
295. When we are measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the name of the sensing device
is?
- Pressure diaphragm
296. When you are calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in the procedure (consult
the manual)?
- Check linearity
297. When you are calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the procedure (consult the
manual)?
- Adjustment of Zero-point and span
298. When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and ZERO. Please indicate in which
order these adjustments should be done.
- First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then Zero should be rechecked.
299. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman becomes violent prior to
sailing. The Master should _______
- Pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to the original port of signing on in the
U.S.
300. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship’s documents?
- Master
301. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a serious marine
incident?
- Qualified medical personnel
302. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?
- To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic condition
303. Will it matter to the accuracy of the measurement how you are installing a resistance element in a thermo-
well?
- Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in measurement
304. Select the option which best describes the primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer?
- The primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer is to maintain constant surveillance of the main engine and
auxiliary machinery
305. Select from the options given the statement that best describes the main duties of an engine room rating
who is part of an engine room watch?
- Engine room ratings forming part of an engine room watch should assist in efficient and safe watch-keeping
routines.
306. Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does that mean?
- Intrinsically safe
307. Under what circumstances may a watch-keeping engineer normally undertake other, non-watchkeeping
duties?
- When they have been properly relieved of their watch-keeping duties.
308. Use Kirchhoff’s voltage law and Ohm’s law to calculate the voltage V(2) across the resistance R(2).
- 4.5 V
309. Read this text and answer the question: To whom should training in personal survival techniques be
given?
- To all seafarers.
310. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard?
- If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard"
311. With reference to engine room operations, what does the term "Stand By" mean?
- "Stand By" means that the engineers should be ready to respond to bridge requirements.
312. With no.1 and no.2 alternators running in parallel and the kW loads equally shared, one alternator is
drawing much higher current than the other. What does this indicate?
- The alternators are not generating the same voltages and should be adjusted on automatic voltage regulator
rheostats
313. Vibration analysis is often used as a conditioning monitoring tool onboard ship as part of the approved
planned maintenance system. Many vibration measuring instruments are fitted with a harmonic filter/analyser.
How would these filters normally be used during vibration measurement on a centrifugal pump?
- To isolate a single frequency of vibration associated with one of the pumps components
314. P = U x I x Root of 3 cos (fi). What is the formula for I?
- Formula 1
315. You have to choose one of the following instruments for measuring pressure in an air bottle in measuring
range 0-35 BAR. Which instrument will you install?
- Bourdon Tube manometer
316. You enter a hight voltage switchroom and smell rotten eggs. What may this indicate?
- Problem with a gas (SF6) circuit breaker.
317. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for
drunkenness. The official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn’t have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which
action should the master take?
- Pay the seaman’s fine
318. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your unlicensed crew
through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
- Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
319. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
- Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides.
320. Untuk menyimpan atau membuka file dokumen gambar skema elektronika, dapat dipilih file yang memiliki
ekstensi:
- File.sch
321. Untuk menggambar symbol-symbol komponen di Or-Cad dilakukan dengan cara:
- Klik PLACE – Part
6. Elektronika (electronic)
1. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer?

a. A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure
proportional to the current.
b. A transducer that increases a pressure signal which is too low to give
the desired effect.
c. A transducer that is inverting a pressure signal.
d. A transducer that converts a pressure to a proportional electric
signal.
2. Transducers are devices which translate the value of one measured value
into diferent measurement units (for instance units of temperature to
millivlots). What is the meant by the “Range” of a transducer?
a. The difference between possible maximum and minimum
measurement
b. The maximum output signal
c. The type of measurement
d. The maximum length of the connecting leads.
3. What is a ZENER BARRIER?
a. A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsic safety in
installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.
b. A zener barrier is a device which limits the current drawn byan
induction motor.
c. A zener barrier is a diode bridge used in rectifiers.
d. A zener barrier is a device that allows the current to pass only one
direction.
4. What is the resistance value of this resistor:
a. 10 M ohm
b. 230 k ohm
c. 2,3 k ohm
d. 68 k ohm
5. Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature

coefficient thermistor will typically have
a. Relatively non linear characteristic
b. Relatively linear characteristic
c. Inaccurate measurement
d. Variable reliability
6. A resistor has three red bands. If they all carry information about resistance
value as opposed to tolerance, what is the indicated resistance?
a. 2200 ohm
b. 22 ohm
c. 222 ohm
d. 220 ohm
7. A thermistor may be used to measure temperature. Which of the following
descriptions most accurately describes this device?
a. Temp sensitive semi-conductor
b. Junction of two dissimilar metals
c. Capacitance probe
d. Platinium wire resistor
8. In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that all
cabling should be separated from non-intrinsically safe equipment, and
(where colour coding is relied upon) to be of a special colour. What colour
is that?
a. Blue
b. Green/yellow
c. Red
d. Orange
9. In terms of electronic hardware, what is the meaning of the abbreviation
PCB?
a. Printed Circuit Board
b. Power Control Bridge
c. Positive Colour Board
d. Positive Current Biased
10. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is a digital signal?

a. A signal with discrete levels such as 0 = "low" and 1 = "High"
b. A signal indicating Revolutions per minute (RPM)
c. A signal used by multimeters to measure resistance.
d. The reading of a multimeter when indicating voltage, current or
resistance.
11. It is common practice to connect a resistor over an alarm contact (see
diagram) in many applications. Why is this connection used?
a. To monitor the cable/wires for break.
b. To avoid sparks on the contacts when opening and closing.
c. To stabilise power consumption.
d. Enable measuring the total resistance of the circuit.
12. Measurement and transmission of electronic values may be in the form of

digital or analogue signals. What is an analogue signal?
a. A continually variable electric signal.
b. A measure of electric current or voltage
c. A measure of voltage using an oscilloscope.
d. A stable electric signal.
13. P = U x I x Root of 3) x cos (fi) What is the formula for I ?
a. Formula 1
b. Formula 2
c. Formula 3
d. Formula 4
14. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component
and a typical operating characteristic for the same. Which component?
a. Transistor
b. Tunnel diode
c. Thyristor
d. Zener diode
15. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component
and a typical operating characteristic for the same component. Which
component?
a. Triac
b. Zener diode
c. Tunnel diode
d. Field effect transistor
16. The physical size of a resistor is an indicator of what aspect of it's
specification?
a. Power dissipation capability
b. Total resistance
c. Resistivity
d. Tolerance
17. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA. What
is the span of the output signal?
a. 16 mA
b. 20 mA
c. 24 mA
d. 4 mA
18. This circuit is widely used for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the
diagrams is correct for the output voltage when the input voltage is sine-
shaped as shown?
a. Figure 1
b. Figure 2
c. Figure 3
d. Figure 4
19. This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 µF and C(2) = 12 µF, in
series. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two capacitors.
a. C(S) = 4 µF
b. C(S) =2µF
c. C(S)=1,5µF
d. C(S) =18µF
20. This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which colour code should be
marked on the rings (assume ring d is the tolerance ring)?
a. a. blue b. grey c. orange
b. a. black b. red c. orange
c. a. violet b. green c. yellow
d. a. red b. black c. yellow
21. What function is this operational amplifier circuit performing?
a. Inverting amplifier
b. Non-inverting amplifier
c. Integrator
d. Differentiator
22. When a diode is used to convert AC to DC, it is usually referred to as
which of the following?
a. Rectifier
b. Controller
c. Alternator
d. Regulator
23. Which diagram is the symbol for a THYRISTOR?
a. Figure 2.
b. Figure 1.
c. Figure 3:
d. Figure 4.
24. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol illustrate?
a. Bipolar transistor
b. Silicon controlled rectifier
c. Diode
d. Field Effect Transistor
25. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent:
a. Resistor, 3300 ohms
b. Electric heater, 3.3 kilowatts
c. Capacitor, 3.3 Uf
d. Inductive reactor, 3.3 kH
26. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent?

a. Capacitor
b. Transformer
c. Resistance
d. Temperature sensor
a. Potentiometer, 10 kilo-ohms
b. Variable electrical heater, 10 kilo-watts
c. Auto transformer,10kVA
d. Variable inductive reactor
a. Transistor
b. Silicon controlled rectifier
c. Diode
d. Tunnel diode
29. Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating:
a. Zener diode
b. Transistor
c. Silicon controlled rectifier
d. Triac
30. Which electronic component or system of components does this graphical
symbol illustrate ?
a. Inverter
b. Battery charger
c. Low pass filter
d. Auto transformer
31. Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical
symbol illustrating:
a. Operational amplifier
b. Electronic counter
c. Flip-flop
d. Cathode ray tube
32. Which function is this operational amplifier performing?

a. Non-inverting amplifier
b. Inverting amplifier
c. Integrator
d. Differentiator
33. Which of the 4 alternatives shows the symbol for a PNP transistor?
a. Figure 2.
b. Figure 1.
c. Figure 3.
d. Figure 4.
34. For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load (kW)
will be determined by the:
a. Governor droop settings on each prime mover
b. Voltage droop setting on each AVR
c. The power factor of the additional load
d. The temperature difference between the generator rotors
35. Resistance thermometers are often installed in a thermo-well. Will it matter
to the accuracy of the measurement how you install a resistance element in a
thermo-well?
a. Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in measurement
b. Will have a minor influence on the measurement
c. Will only result in mechanical problems
d. No influence at all
36. Salinometers are often used to monitor water supplies.The most common
type of sensing device they use is:
a. Electrodes
b. Strain gauge
d. Inductor capsule
37. A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following combination
of items mounted on the rotor:
a. 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field winding
b. 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding
c. 1 phase excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main field winding
d. Excitation field winding/main field winding
38. A second alternator has just been synchronized onto the main switchboard,
and it is necessary to equally share the load between the "running" and
incoming alternators. What should be done first?
a. Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and
reduce the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the
switchboard
b. Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on the front of
the switchboard
c. Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and
increase the governor speed controller of the alternator already on
the switchboard
d. Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and check the
voltage and speed adjustments before trying again
39. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar
loading are respectively transferred by the following controls:
a. Speed governor and voltage regulator
b. Current regulator and voltage regulator
c. Voltage regulator and synchroscope
d. Speed governor and load power factor
40. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator
operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
a. Reactive load (kVAR)
b. Active load (kW)
c. Frequency
d. None of the mentioned alternatives
41. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for
several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The
minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator
winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
a. 1 000 000 Ohms
b. 10 Ohms
c. 1000 Ohms
d. 10 000 Ohms
42. Consider generator 1 and 2 to be initially working in parallel. If prime-
mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss what is the likely outcome?
a. No.2 generator trips on reverse power
b. Generator set 2 trips on reverse speed
c. No.1 machine overloads and trips out on overspeed
d. No.1 machine overspeeds and trips out on overload
43. Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on
one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then:
a. Completely lose its share of the load causing the auxiliary engine to
speed up
b. Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased current
c. Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very high reactive
load (kVAR)
d. Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit breaker
44. During regular inspection of alternator windings it is found that windings
are always covered with a heavy oil film coming from the atmosphere
surrounding the auxiliary engine. After cleaning with an approved solvent,
what should be done?
a. Improve material of intake air filters
b. Take no additional action
c. Blank off intake air filters
d. Reinsulate the windings after each cleaning
45. Electrical generators must provide electrical power at a steady, regulated

voltage. Automatic voltage regulators are used to control the output voltage
of alternators at varying load conditions, by which of the alternative actions
shown below?
a. Varying the excitation field strength by regulating excitation
voltage/current
b. Regulating the voltage signal to the engine governor to regulate the
speed to the desired load condition
c. Supplying variable current to compounding and no load transformers
in the alternator stator winding circuit
d. All of the mentioned alternatives
46. For ideal synchronising as the incomer circuit breaker contacts make, the
phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage
should be:
a. 0°
b. 30° behind
c. 90° lag
d. 30° ahead
47. Generators must be synchronised before they can operate in parallel. During
synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly "fast"
compared to the bus bar frequency. This is to ensure that the:
a. Incoming machine picks up as a generator
b. Most rapid synchronising action is achieved
c. Incomers reverse power trip is tested
d. Incomer picks up as a motor
48. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal
e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by:
a. The diesel speed and excitation current.
b. The internal volt drop and the load current.
c. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current.
d. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
49. Great care must be taken when manually paralleling two or more
alternators. At which point would you engage the main circuit breaker of the
incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators?
a. With the pointer of the synchroscope moving slowly clockwise and
almost at 0° (12 O'clock) or both synchronizing lamps dark (off)
b. With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any position and
both synchronizing lamps bright (on)
c. With the pointer of the synchroscope rotating fast and both
synchronizing lamps flashing on and off
d. With the pointer of the synchroscope stopped at 0 (12 O'clock) or
both synchronising lights bright
50. If the A.C. line current in a generator stator is doubled, the heating effect in
the stator windings will:
a. Quadruple
b. Remain about the same.
c. Half.
d. Double.
51. It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power
(kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor
will run:
a. Hotter due to increased current
b. Slower due to increased current
c. Faster due to increased voltage
d. Cooler due to increased speed
52. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be
performed to check:
a. Its readiness to perform as specified.
b. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-drills.
c. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
d. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's recommendations.
53. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the
same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and
frequency are respectively adjusted by:
a. AVR and speed governor
b. Voltmeter and frequency meter
c. Speed governor and load power factor controller
d. Synchroscope and speed governor
54. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c.
generator is controlled by:
a. The prime mover speed and excitation current.
b. The internal volt drop and the load current.
c. The prime mover and load current.
d. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
55. The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase
alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by:
a. The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage regulator and
the prime mover
b. Independent battery supply with the AVR
c. Independent power supply and rectifier unit
d. The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier
56. The speed of ship's generator is regulated by the governor. A 10% reduction
in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely consequence
for all motors powered from this generator is to:
a. Reduce motor speed by about 10%’
b. Increase motor power by about 10%
c. Increase motor speed by about 10%
d. Reduce motor volt drop by about 10%
57. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:
a. Voltmeter and synchroscope
b. kW meter and frequency meter
c. Amp-meter and volt-meter
d. Synchroscope and kVar-meter
58. Two alternators are operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, but then one
of them trips without any warning. What is the first action that should be
taken?
a. Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to the switchboard
b. Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator
c. Restart and connect the tripped alternator immediately
d. Start and connect the emergency alternator
59. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the
emergency switchboard is supplied from:
a. The main generating plant.
b. Emergency batteries
c. An emergency battery charger.
d. A compressed air driven generator.
60. What determines the power factor of an alternator when it is connected
singularly to the switchboard?
a. The load connected to the switchboard
b. The generated voltage and AVR setting
c. The excitation voltage
d. Number of pairs of pole coils in the excitation winding
61. What is the purpose of the alternator reverse power trip?
a. To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being supplied power
from other parallel alternator and thus being damaged
b. To prevent parallel operation if the excitation field voltage is
reversed
c. To prevent the alternator from being paralleled if it is out of phase
with the main switchboard
d. To give automatic disconnection of the circuit breaker when you are
taking the alternator off the switchboard
62. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that
the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are evenly
shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and reactive
loads, which side of the vector diagram (power triangle) shown represents
the reactive load?
a. (Y)
b. (X)
c. Either (X) or (Y)
d. None of the mentioned alternatives
63. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard
and the generator is AVR controlled, what will the output voltage do?
a. Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
b. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action.
c. Initially fall, then reset to the set value.
d. Remain approximately constant, due to governor action.
64. When manually paralleling two alternators the pointer of the synchroscope
may slowly stop rotating and remain stopped in one position before the
circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate:
a. The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the
main switchboard
b. The synchroscope is not functioning properly and should be checked
c. The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the
main switchboard
d. The incoming alternator is in phase with the switchboard, but the
frequency is not the same
65. When paralleling two alternators they must have:
a. Equal number of phases, phase sequence and frequency
b. Same number of phases, phase rotation and power rating
c. Same phase rotation and voltage rating
d. Same frequency, voltage and power factor
66. When unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load
in order to avoid:
a. Undue overspeeding.
b. Undue overload on the switchboard.
c. Undue overcurrent
d. Undue temperature rise.
67. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an
emergencygenerator?
a. Steering gear and engine room alarm system
b. Engine room lighting and bow thruster
c. Galley and air conditioning
d. Sound powered telephone system
68. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The
first step is to:
a. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
b. Make sure the load is evenly shared
c. Trip the main circuit breaker
d. Increase the frequency on the switchboard
69. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the
automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short
circuited or disconnected in order to:
a. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high
voltage tester
b. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from being damaged
c. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic
voltage regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts
d. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation
testing
7. Sistem Kontrol (control system)
1. Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the correct location
a. The control system is depending on the best possible process signal
b. It is important to have easy access to the transmitter for maintenance
c. It must be easy to observe for troubleshooting
d. Can be installed anywhere in the piping system
2. What type of component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

a. Pressure-reducing regulator.
b. Pressure relief valve
c. Pressure switch
d. Flow controller
3. What will be the probable outcome, if the amplification is set too high on a temperature
controller?
a. The process will oscillate and get out of control
b. Nothing
c. The process response will be very slow
d. The set-point will change
a. Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console
b. Pressure instument, installed locally
c. Pressure relief valve, self-contained
d. PH analyzer
a. Transducer
b. Indicator
c. Plotter
d. Gauge
6. Which of the following systems will include a D/P transmitter in the control-loop
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Smoke indication
d. Oil mist
7. This block diagram illustrates an elementary control system. What is the common
name for this type of system?
a. Closed loop feed back system
b. Open loop feed back system
c. Feed forward system
d. Scmitt trigger
8. Measuring instruments must be routinely calibrated. What is the meant by instrument
calibration?
a. Comparing input and output values against a documented standard
b. Comparing two instruments of the same type
c. Adjusting size to fit process connection
d. Turning gauge too an easy reading position
9. During routine checking of alarm functions of main and auxiliary equipment, some
setpoints are cancelled due to a mistake. What is the appropriate routine to ensure
correct setpoints are set?
a. Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in question for correct
values.
b. Ask your colleague if he remembers the correct setpoint
c. Check from previous records for correct values
d. Select a setpoint based on present condition allowing for a reasonable safety
margin.
10. In measurement systems there is often a need to specify performance characteristics.
One such characteristic may be referred to as 'dead band'. What is the definition of
DEAD BAND?
a. The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal.
b. The change in the output signal produced by a certain change in the input
signal.
c. The largest difference in the output signal for the same change in the input
signal.
d. A missing electrical signal with no output.
11. In measurement systems, which of the listed sensors is suitable for physical
displacement?
a. Strain gauge
b. Thermocouple
c. Thermistor
d. Pt 500
12. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the following
descriptions explains the principle of operation of a thermocouple?
a. A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a small voltage.
b. A semi-conductor device that exhibits a negative coefficient of resistance with
temperature.
c. A resistance device that exhibits a positive coefficient of resistance with
temperature.
d. A quartz crystal that changes its resonant frequency with temperature.
13. This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output signal Q.
Which type of logic function does the gate perform?
a. NOR gate
b. NAND gate
c. OR gate
d. AND gate
14. This graphical symbol is a logic gate with truth table. Which gate?
a. OR
b. AND
c. NOR
d. NAND
15. This is the graphical symbol and truth table for a logic gate. Which gate?
a. NOR
b. NAND
c. OR
d. AND
16. Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric pressure. What
is the common name pressures measured relative to atmospheric pressure?
a. Gauge pressure
b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Absolute pressure
d. Pressure drop
17. What can be measured by means of a manometer?
a. Pressure
b. Strain
c. Temperature
d. Motion
18. What is the difference between a PRESSURE SWITCH and a PRESSURE
TRANSMITTER, if any?
a. The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change between open and closed
position.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric
signal.
b. There is no difference.
c. The pressure switch gives out an analogue signal depending on the switch
setting.The pressure transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the
pressure.
d. The pressure switch gives out a digital signal dependent on pressure and
temperature.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal to a digital
signal.
19. What is the main difference between a THERMOSTAT and a TEMPERATURE
TRANSMITTER, if any?
a. The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or closed) depending on the
temperature/setting. The temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal
to an electric signal.
b. There is no difference.
c. The thermostat gives out an analogue signal depending on the switch setting.
The temperature transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the
temperature.
d. The temperature transmitter is a digital component while the thermostat is an
analogue component.
20. What type of signal output is derived from a NiCr/Ni thermocouple?
a. mV.
b. Ohm.
c. mA.
d. Watt
21. When measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the name of the
sensing device is:
a. Pressure diaphragm
b. Float
d. Positive displacement tube
22. When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and ZERO.
Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done.
a. First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then Zero should be
rechecked.
b. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After that Span setting should
be checked again.
c. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. Then do not adjust anything.
d. The order of adjustment is of no importance.
23. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the procedure ?
a. Adjustment of Zero-point
b. Adjustment of span
c. Adjustment of range
d. Adjustment of linearity
24. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in the
procedure?
a. Check linearity
b. Adjustment of span
c. Adjustment of range
d. Adjustment of Zero-point
25. When measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of the sensing
device is?
a. Orifice plate
b. Float
c. Turbine rotor
d. Positive displacement rotor
a. Resistance temperature sensor
b. Potentiometer
c. Thermocouple
d. Triac
27. Which device does this graphical symbol illustrate?
a. Remote level controller with indicator
b. Local level controller with indicator
c. Level switch for centre-tank
d. Low carbon incinerator
28. Which of the following detectors is commonly used for sensing if a watertight steel
door is closed or open?
a. Proximity switch
b. Synchro
c. Strain gauge
d. Transducer
29. Which of the following detectors would you choose for measuring the torque of a steel
shaft?
a. Strain gauge
b. Ultrasonic gauge
c. Synchro
d. Pyrometer
30. Which of the following letter combinations represents a flow indicating controller on a
process and instrumentation diagram
a. FIC
b. LIR
c. FLO
d. FIR
31. Which of the following letter combinations represents a temperature controller on a
process and instrumentation diagram?
a. TC
b. TIC
c. PIC
d. FIC
32. Which type temperature sensors are shown on the picture?
a. Resistance sensors
b. Thermocouple sensors
c. Thermistors type NTC
d. Thermistor type PTC
33. If the outlet temperature “Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during normal sea
speed the inlet temperature “Tin” is 62 degree C, what would 'Tin" show during engine
slow down ?
a. Inlet temperature “Tin" will fluctuate

b. Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease
c. Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller
d. Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase
34. What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ?
a. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet

b. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet
c. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet
d. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet
35. What is the component marked “W” ?
a. A WAX by-pass temperature controller

b. A water strainer
c. A manual 3-way water by-pass valve
d. A water by-pass buffer
36. For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control is
used ?
a. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet

b. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet
c. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet
d. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet
37. What part of a pneumatic control system is this ?
a. A differentiator assembly
b. An amplifier
c. An integrator assembly
d. A nozzle/flapper assembly
38. In this nozzle/flapper assembly (part of a pneumatic control system) at what distance
away from the nozzle oes the flapper need to be mooed in order not to have any
influence on the HEW (nozzle back pressure) ?
a. h = 0.25 D
b. h = D
c. h = 0.4 D
d. h = 0.5 D
39. What is the meaning of the pressure indicated by NBP on this nozzle/flapper assembly
?
a. Nozzle Balance Pressure

b. Nominal Balance Pressure
c. Normal Basic Pressure
d. Nozzle Back Pressure
40. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a
pneumatic nozzle/Flapper ) assembly ?
a. Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP)

b. The flapper is broken or distorted
c. Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle
d. The nozzle is worn out
41. If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h = 0, what will the reading of NBP
become ?
a. 3 psi
b. 0 psi
c. 20 psi
d. 15 psi
42. This characteristic shows that only linear part a-b can be used. This means that the
normal effective travel the flapper is only …… for the full measuring range.
a. 0.05 mm
b. mm
c. 0.10 mm
d. 0.005 mm
43. As we can use only the linear part of the characteristic, this shows that the flapper can
only travel 0.01 mm, therefore DELTA psi obtained can only be less than 1 psi. Can
we use the flapper nozzle system ?
a. Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified
b. No , the flapper system will gives erratic readings
c. No, the nozzle/flapper assembly needs modification
d. Yes, but the valves need a servo booster
44. The proportional linear signal for a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly is only less than
1 psi for 0.01 mm flapper travel. How do we make use of this signal ?
a. By using a regulator on the servo of the pneumatic valve

b. By sending it to a Pneumatic Amplifier
c. By changing the diameter of the Pneumatic valve actuator
d. By sending the signal to another flapper/nozzle
45. What pneumatic control device is shown here ?
a. A pneumatic controller
b. A pneumatic amplifier
c. A pneumatic flapper / nozzle assembly
d. A pneumatic booster aggregate
46. On which part of the Pneumatic Amplifier is the nozzle back pressure of the nozzles /
flapper (NBP) acting ?
a. On spring S
b. On valve V
c. On ball valve B
d. On membrane M
47. By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly
controlled ?
a. spring tension in S
b. By the restriction R
c. By the stand of the valves V and B
d. By slight fluctuation of supply pressure
48. What is the function of ball value B in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?
a. To counteract the pressure on the membrane M , decrease Pu

b. To push the atmospheric vent close, increase Pu
c. To push the membrane back in place after each movement
d. Opening port of 20 psi supply air access
49. What is the function of value V in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic
amplifier?
a. To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere

b. To push spring S open via the ball B
c. To allow stabilising feedback pressure on the membrane
d. To transmit the pressure Pu to the membrane
50. What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should weaken
on this pneumatic amplifier ?
a. It would increase the output pressure Pu

b. It will not have any effect
c. It would decrease the output pressure Pu
d. It will destabilise the amplifier
51. These characteristics show Pu in relation to flapper distance and LISP of a pneumatic
nozzle flapper and transmitter; thus with the smallest distance movements it fluctuates
sharply. What is the result and the remedy ?
a. Unsteady operation .Springs are to be fitted on all moving parts

b. Tendency to open. Fit elongated flappers in output
c. Unsteady operation. Bellows are to be fitted in pneumatic lines.
d. Tendency to close. Fit by pass nozzle to amplifier
52. This an actual lay-out drawing of a pneumaticblock. Where is the 20 psi supply air
admitted ?
a. At air passage item 15

b. At air passage item 13
c. At air passage item 12
d. At air passage item 14
53. Where is the output pressure Pu taken from this pneumatic amplifier shown here ?
a. Air passage 15
b. Air passage 13
c. Air passage 14
d. Air passage 12
54. Via which air passage is the nozzle back pressure from the nozzle/Flapper admitted
for this pneumatic amplifier ?
a. Air passage 14
b. Air passage 15
c. Air passage 13
d. Air passage 12
55. Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic
transmitter?
a. Air passage 13
b. Air passage 14
c. Air passage 12
d. Air passage 15
56. What is item No 3 shown of this pneumatic amplifier?
a. Nozzle flappers
b. Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve
c. Ball valve securing blades
d. Retaining plates for the ball valve
57. Flow can the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier be initially adjusted ?
a. By screw item 10
b. By screw item 1
c. By screw item 11
d. By screw item 4
58. Which important pneumatic control accessory is shown here ?
a. A transmitter
b. An nozzle /flapper assembly
c. A pressure regulator
d. An amplifier
59. What is part No 4 shown in this drawing of a pneumatic amplifier ?
a. The output air compartment

b. The air supply compartment
c. The exhaust or vent compartment
d. The nozzle back pressure supply compartment
60. For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring blade
of this pneumatic amplifier ?
a. To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially

b. To control the rate of amplification response
c. To control the nozzle back pressure
d. To adjust the valve stem distance
61. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier ?
a. Diaphragma No 7 bursts
b. Valve stem No 6 defective
c. Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.
d. Gasket No 8 blown
62. This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control
engineering. It is.........
a. a pneumatic transmitter assembly
b. a totaliser or summator unit
c. a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier
d. a pneumatic basic controller unit
63. These small pneumatic pipes are connected to the different parts of pneumatic system
so they can be easily dismantled, using ............ ?
a. clamps with bellow packing

b. plugs and O-rings
c. sleeves and copper gaskets
d. retainer springs and silicon
64. Which part shown here is the nozzle in this pneumatic assembly ?
a. Part No 2
b. Part No 4
c. Part No 3
d. Part No 5
65. What will be the existing pneumatic pressure in connecting pipe item 110 6 from
flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumatic amplifier ?
a. Between 0 and 20 psi

b. 20 psi
c. Between 3 and 15 psi
d. Between 2 and 2.75 psi
66. Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is
removed. Where is this filter fitted ?
a. In the base of the amplifier, filter

plug No 4
b. In air connecting line, plug No 5
c. In front of the nozzle item No 2
d. In the main supply line to each
individual instrument
67. What is the output pressure of this pneumatic amplifier ?
a. 15 to 25 psi
b. 7 to 15 psi
c. 3 to 20 psi
d. 3 to 15 psi
68. What is the amplification factor (K) of a pneumatic

amplifier
a. K = 4
b. K = 12
c. K = 16
d. K = 20
69. What important periodical maintenance
checks are required on nozzle/flapper
assemblies of pneumatic instruments ?
a. Exchange packings on the nozzle and
flapper
b. Exchange of nozzle and flapper
c. Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper
d. Redrilling of the nozzle
70. What is the correct name of item No 2 shown here ?
a. Flapper nozzle
b. Connecting plug
c. Filter plug
d. Restrictor nozzle
71. What pneumatic device is shown here ?
a. A feedback controller
b. A feedback amplifier
c. A proportional controller
d. A proportional transmitter
72. What is the name of the bellow P, which indicates its purpose ?
a. Equalising bellow
b. Lifting bellow
c. Feedback bellow
d. Absorbing bellow
73. If the length of "a" is equal to the length of "b" what will be the proportional band
"PB" of this pneumatic controller ?
a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 25%
74. With what part is the degree of feedback controlled on this pneumatic Proportional
Controller ?
A. By lengths of arms "a" and 'b" (shifting of amplifier)
B. By "desired valve" input
C. By the spring tension
D. By the bellow
75. If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and the
level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will be open
for ...
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 75%
76. If the input flow Q1 increases to Q1' and level L increases to L' what will initially
happen ?
a. The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P

b. The output pressure Pu will increase proportionally to L'
c. The proportional band PB will change
d. The amplification factor K will change
77. What do you call the pneumatic mode of operating of the pneumatic controlled valve
V2 ?
a. Positive activation
b. Negative activation
c. Air to Close
d. Air to Open
78. If we shift the nozzle / flapper assembly to the left so that the length of "a" is half of
length "b", to what level will L' rise before it stabilizes ?
a. Half the height from Level L

b. Four times the height from level L
c. Twice the height from level L
d. 1/4th the height from level L
79. What is the level difference between L and L' called in this process ?
A. The offset
B. The range
C. The amplification
D. The span
80. This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If PB
= 100 % is the graph shown in "a". What is the graph of PB = 50 % ?
a. Graph b
b. Graph d
c. Graph e
d. Graph f
81. This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If P8 =
100 % is the graph shown in "a ". What is the amplification factor and the
proportional band represented by graph "I" ?
a. Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive

b. Amplification 50 %, Proportional Band 100 %
c. Amplification infinitive, Proportional band 0
d. Proportional band 50 %, amplification 100 %
82. Graph "d" of this characteristic showing output pressure Pu of a controller effecting
valve lift, represents ZERO proportional band over INFINITIVE amplification. How
does the system works ?
a. It works with intolerable offsets

b. It works with maximum range offsets
c. It does not regulate the level at all
d. It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL
83. If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output
pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller ?
a. 9 psi
b. 6 psi
c. 12 psi
d. 3 psi
84. If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW temperature
transmitter and thePu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the temperature setting
from 75 to 72 degree C what happens tosigj the Pu ?
a. It will increase above 9 psi
b. It will increase to 20 psi
c. It will decrease to 0 psi
d. It will decrease below 9 psi
85. Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Su (set value or desired
value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?
a. Between 0 and 15 psi

b. Between 0 and 20 psi
c. Between 2 and 2.75 psi
d. Between 3 and 15 psi
86. Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this pneumatic
P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the output pressure ?
a. 2 psi
b. 3 psi
c. 6 psi
d. 0 psi
87. Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If
variation on the input is 1psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed in
psi ?
a. 2 psi
b. 1 psi
c. 6 psi
d. 4 psi
88. What would be the variation of output on this pneumatic controller if Proportional B
and PB = infinity, by varying the input as shown here ?
a. Infinity, full open, full

close control system
b. No response, nil
c. 1 psi
d. Between 3 and 15 psi
89. Suppose the Proportional
Band of this pneumatic
controller is increased to 500
% and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation ?
a. 5 psi
b. 0.5 psi
c. 0.2 psi
d. 1 psi
90. This characteristic shows

output pressure of a
pneumatic controller
controlling water level. The
level is fluctuating. What is
wrong with the setting of the
controller.?
A. The amplification is too small
B. The range is too large
C. The proportional band is too small
D. The span is too narrow
91. Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system.
Suppose the Proportional and is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it ?
a. 500%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 20%
92. In this electrical amplifier drawing, what takes the place of the flapper/nozzle unit
used by the pneumatic control unit with amplifier ?
a. R2
b. U2
c. U1
d. R1
93. What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units in this
electrical amplifier equivalent ?
a. Resistance R2
b. Voltage U1
c. Voltage U2
d. Resistance R1
94. What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in
this electrical amplifier equivalent ?
a. Voltage U2
b. Voltage U1
c. Resistor R2
d. Resistor R1
95. What control equipment drawing is shown here ?

a. An electric pressure
transmitter system
b. An electric P-controller
c. An electric differentiating
amplifier
d. An electric temperature
measurement scanner
96. The working pressures used by pneumatic control components are between 3 and 15
psi. What are the equivalent currents used by electric control equipment ?
a. Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA
b. Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA
c. Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA
d. Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 mA
97. What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the
top articulated line shown here)
a. A measuring line
b. A process line
c. An instrument line
d. A steering line
98. What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the
second line from top shown here)
a. A pneumatic line
b. A steering line
d. A measuring line
99. What does a non-articulated full line indicate in an automation schematic drawing ?
(the third line from top shown here)
a. A pneumatic steering line

b. An electric steering line
d. A measuring line
100. What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle) indicate
in an automation schematic diagram ?
a. A controller
b. An indicator
c. A transmitter
d. An instrument
101. What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a horizontal
line through it of the drawing indicated an automation schematic diagram ?
a. An electronic instrument
b. An instrument fitted in a central panel
c. An instrument fitted in the main control console
d. A pneumatic instrument
102. What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom
line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing
a. First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering

b. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling
c. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function
d. First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function
103. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted
on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing ?
a. A thermometer
b. A temperature transmitter
c. A temperature controller
d. A manometer
104. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might befitted
on the measuring line as indicated on the top centre drawing ?
a. A limit control swicth

b. A line capacitor
c. A level controller
d. A Low Pressure cut-out
105. What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the left bottom ?
a. A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close

b. An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open
c. An electric motor driven control valve
d. A pneumatic control valve, air to close
106. What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System shown here ?
For No. 74
a. Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve

b. Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve
c. Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve
d. Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve
107. Which are the parameters that steer the level control automatic system of the boiler
shown here?
a. Feed valve and feed by-pass valve

b. The level controller
c. Water level and steam consumption
d. The level transmitter
108. The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass values are...........
a. electronic controlled values working in tandem

b. pneumatic controlled values working in opposition.
c. electronic controlled values working in opposition.
d. pneumatic controlled values working in reverse.
109. This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in the
tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is called
the .....
a. set point.
b. set level.
c. measured value.
d. proportional point.
110. Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float is
pushed up by the water to level L'. The value of level L' is called the ......
a. increased value.
b. actual value.
c. level value.
d. measured value.
111. The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value(level L')
is called.........
a. the differential value.

b. the inclination.
c. the measuring fault.
d. the offset.
112. Here 'S' is the support point in the middle of pivoting arm 'AB'. For a given increase
in water level the valve is opened by the same distance, therefore the amplification is
1. What will happen if b = 2 x a ?
a. The water will drop twice as fast in
the tank
b. The valve will open twice the
distance of the increased level
c. The amplification is increased by 50
%
d. The process will not longer
working
113. In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor Valve
'R'. In the electrical equivalent ......
a. the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.
b. the current increases over time.
c. the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.
d. the capacitor allows Voltage built up
over the resistor.
114. In these integrator circuits the air flow
through the restrictor and the current
through the resistance.........
a. remains constant
b. is negative
c. decreases with time
d. increases with time.
115. What is the difference in function between these electrical and the pneumatic
integrators ?
a. The pneumatic integrator is slower
b. They work in opposite directions
c. The electric integrator is slower
d. None
116. The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the
corresponding output the right of....
a. a pure integrator
b. a pure differentiator
c. a proportional integrating controller
d. a proportional controller
117. Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills up
with air ?
a. They have both the same function

b. The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator
c. They perform opposite functions
d. The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator
118. This drawing shows which kind of pneumatic controller ?
a. A proportional controller
b. A proportional integrating-differential controller
c. A proportional differentiating controller
d. A proportional integrating controller
119. These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a controller.
What characteristics are shown ?
a. The controller response
output characteristics
b. The PI characteristics
c. The integrator
characteristics
d. The integrator differential
characteristics
120. For which type of controller are

the input and output characteristics shown here ?
a. A pressure indicating controller

b. A pneumatic indicating controller
c. A proportional integrating controller
d. A PI differentiating controller
121. The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential pressure
signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a...........
a. oriface plate
b. a right-angled nozzle system
c. nozzle system
d. capillary tube
122. Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe as
measured over the wring flange the output signal should be sent to a................
a. root extractor.
b. equaliser.
c. summator.
d. balancing valve.
123. To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic
temperature transmitter fitted ?
a. Channel 10
b. Channel 5
c. Bellow 8
d. Channel 8
124. What is item Ho.; of this pneumatic temperature transmitter ?

a. The range control setting
b. The equaliser block
c. The pneumatic amplifier
d. The compensator
125. Which is the fitter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ?
a. Item No 3
b. Item no 2
c. Item No 4
d. Item No 1
126. On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ?
a. Part No 2
b. Part No 4
c. Part No 3
d. Part No 1
127. What is part 110 11 on this transmitter drawing ?
a. The feedback bellow
b. The balance arm tensioner
c. The transmitter bellow
d. The regulating bellow
128. Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ?
a. Part No 9
b. Part No 7
c. Part No 8
d. Part No 10
129. On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process
(steam,oil,water) act ?
a. Item No 1
b. Item No 3
c. Item No 2
d. Item No 4
130. The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set by adjusting or tensioning.......
a. part No 10.
b. part No 9.
c. part No 15.
d. part No 11.
131. From this drawing of a pneumatic pressure transmitter, what is the Proportional
Band setting ?
a. Proportional Band more than 100 %, amplification K less than 1
b. Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1
c. Proportional Band = 100 %, amplification K = 1
d. Proportional Band 0%, amplification infinitive
132. For which type of controller are these the input (left) and the response (right)
characteristics ?
a. A pneumatic integrator
b. A pressure integrating controller
c. A pneumatic inverter
d. A proportional integrating controller
133. In this drawing, the triangle marked "A" represents.......
a. an ampere-differential transmitter
b. a current converter
c. an operational amplifier
d. an analog converter
134. Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional
integrating controller ?
a. R2
b. Rf
c. R1
d. R3
135. Fitting a restriction RI in the supply to the proportional feedback of this PID
controller ensures that for an initial small variation on the input, the initial response
on the output will be .....
a. proportional
b. zero
c. very weak
d. strong
136. For which control instrument are these the input (left) and the output or response
(right) characteristics ?
a. A pressure controlling data
register
b. A pneumatic
differentiating controller
c. A pressure differentiator
d. A proportional
differentiating controller
137. For this PID controller to act only as a P (proportional) controller, what should be
the arrangement of restricting values R1 and R2 ?
a. R1 fully open, R2
fully open
b. R1 closed, R2 fully
open
c. R1 closed, R2 closed
d. R1 fully open, R2
closed
138. which kind of controller are
the input and output characteristics shown here ?
a. A proportional indicating differentiator
b. A proportional integrating-differentiating controller
c. A pressure indicating controller
d. A pneumatic differential summator
139. In the output characteristics (right) of this controller, which response lines are
clearly shown ?
a. The proportional, integration and differentiation

b. The proportional, variation and integration
c. The output, variation and differentiation
d. The proportional output, offset and integration
140. How is the differentiating action of this PID controller obtained ?
a. By C and RL
b. By C and RL
c. By C and R3
d. By C and R2
141. Where would you find this instrument on board a ship ?
a. Near the Fuel, oil or water piping

b. In the Boiler Control Panel
c. In the Engine Control Room
d. In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel
142. How is the zero setting of this temperature transmitter adjusted ?
a. By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3

b. By item No 3
c. By item No 2
d. By item No 1
143. How is the range of this instrument adjusted ?
a. With item No 3
b. With item No 2
c. With item No 1
d. With items 1, 2 and 3.
144. This is a.....

a. temperature calibration system.
b. Wheatstone bridge.
c. temperature compensation system.
d. rectifier bridge.
145. The three conductor system used by Wheatstone Bridge lay-outs is intended to
provide........
a. balancing of the bridge by very high or
very low temperatures.
b. conversion of an electrical signal into a
pneumatic signal.
c. compensation for changing conductor
resistance by changing temperature.
d. zero setting at all times by variable
resistances to be measured.
146. The function of this measuring system is to..........
a. convert a digital signal into a pressure.

b. convert Field Effect Transistor readings into a temperature reading.
c. convert Wheatstone Bridge readings into remote pressure readings.
d. convert an electric temperature measurement into a pneumatic signal.
147. The resistance characteristic of Platinum is linear. The resistance characteristic of
Nickel is non-linear. How can the characteristic of Nickel be made linear ?
a. By fitting a compensation cable
b. By fitting another resistance in
parallel
c. By using a three-wire system
Wheatstone Bridge
d. By fitting another resistance in
series
148. Item No 2 of this Wheatstone Bridge is ..........
a. the thermal resistance fed by the output of amplifier A

b. the field balance indicating field wire of amplifier output
c. the field wire fed by amplifier A
d. the feed-back coil fed by amplifier
149. The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the
same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero ?
a. Because of the copper (Cu) calibration wiring connected to C and D.

b. Because A and B couples are opposed.
c. Because the connections in A and B and in C and D are opposed
d. Because of the second balancing couple B.
150. Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and have
as characteristics that............
a. between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.

b. the current is calibrated by a compensation system.
c. thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are compensated
for.
d. minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated n for by a
regulator/compensator.
151. Control valves in a controlled process can be either pneumatic, electrically or
hydraulically operated. What of medium is used to control this valve ? When is it
used ?
a. Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required

b. Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required
c. Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required
d. Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required.
152. The two valves shown on the left of this picture are called flat valves and give a high
throughput for a small lift in height. They are mostly used for.......
a. self correcting flow valve, by changing pressures in the system the throughput
the same.
b. a stop (zero flow) valve.
c. open - close regulation.
d. process stability, for a certain percentage in lift changes the throughput by the
same percentage.
153. The two valves shown in the centre of the drawing are.....
a. pear shaped valves

b. flat top valves
c. egui-percentage valves
d. linear valves
154. The two valves shown at the right of the picture are .........type valves.
a. linear
b. egui-percentage
c. flat shaped
d. stop flow
155. The two valves on the left of this picture are ......, the two valves on the right are ......
valves.
a. flat top, linear

b. linear, curved
c. linear, equi-percentage
d. pear shaped, equi-percentage
156. The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted
will be ......
a. air to open (bottom connection).

b. pressure to open (positive manometer reading).
c. vacuum to open (negative manometer reading).
d. air to close (top connection).
157. This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two value
motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working ranges.
This is called ...... control.
a. feedback
b. separated range
c. diverted
d. split range
158. The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of
part ..... ( .......) is to be inbalance with the force of the controller pressure which
acts on part....... (........).
a. 9 (spring), 18 (membrane)
b. 4 (relays), 12 (membrane)
c. 9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)
d. 12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)
159. Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ?
a. Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure

b. Because of the variation of the output capacity
c. Because of the characteristic of the spring
d. Because of the variation on the output pressure
160. A pressure reducing value works according to the principle of balance of forces, in
this case theforce P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of the.......
a. the ball valve

b. inlet pressure P1
c. the membrane spring
d. the ball value spring
161. The manometer with scale indication shown here is fitted in the .....line of a
controller or valve positioner which supplies a pneumatic valve motor with "Pressure
to......" function.
a. input, "Close"
b. output, "Open "
c. input, " Open "
d. supply, " Close "
162. This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the heart
and brain of this Scanning Unit ?
a. The LSU's
b. The CPU
c. The MAD
d. The LAD'S
163. Which port of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from
instruments and transducers ?
a. The CPU
b. The TWM
c. The LSU'e
d. The MAD
164. If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by a
LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU will.........
a. activate the LAD in operation and its visible and audible alarm will set off.
b. activate the MAD (main Alarm Display) and Visible and alarms will be
activated.
c. activate the TWM (Type Writer Monitor) and print out the obtained error value,
measuring point number and time.
d. activates all of these.
165. The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow,
level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and digital
tranducers. What is a digital transducer ?
a. A digital transducer gives a
continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV
b. A Digital Transducer gives a direct "on "

or "off "signal and involve logic
transducers
c. A digital transducer works on AC
voltage
d. A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog tranducer
which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi
166. The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with
previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest
analysis. This is called......
a. wear down and maintenance scheduling.
b. trend analysis and maintenance prediction.
c. material fatigue and maintenance scheduling.
d. wear down and breakdown prediction.
167. If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate this
fault is by...........
a. checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.

b. checking the input voltage.
c. checking the fuses.
d. calling the electrician
168. On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the range ?
a. With item No 7
b. With item No 5
c. With item No 1
d. With item No 2
169. How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure
transmitter?
a. By item No 5
b. By item No 7
c. By item No 2
d. By item No 1
170. In an automated engine the center from which the ship's engine room is controlled is
called:
a. the control plant station (CPS).
b. the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).
c. the power plant station control station (PPCS).
d. the engineering control room (ECR).
171. In automation, RTD & CV stands for:
a. resistance temperature drop & control event.
b. return time delay.
c. resistance temperature detector and control valve.
d. None of these.
172. The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature, pressure
etc. is called:
a. the demand display unit.
b. the scanning unit.
c. the loop back system.
d. the comparing unit.
173. A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of....... type output signals ?
a. impulse
b. digital
c. analog
d. binary
174. The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the steering
gear. What moves this potentiometer ?
a. The telemotor
b. The rudder angle
indicator
c. The rudder position via the
trunion connection
d. The eccentric pushrod on the
HELE-SHAW pump
175. What is part No 1 ?
a. The Differentiator
b. The Pressure knob
c. The Measuring scale
d. The Adjusting knob
176. What is Part No 5 ?
a. The Pressure bearing

b. The Spring holder
c. The Differential adjusting nut
d. The Pressure adjuster
177. What will be the binary output at E ?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 11
d. 10
178. Indicate the correct characteristic of the amplifier "A".
a. A frequency range less than 1 kHz
b. A voltage gain greater than 100,000
c. An input impedance lower than 1,000 Ohm
d. An output impedance greater than 10,000 Ohm
179. What is this symbol ?
a. A binary flip-flop
b. A binary register
c. A digital amplifier
d. A differential trigger
180. What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here ?
a. Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet

b. Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet
c. Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet.
d. Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet
181. Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier. What
takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit
in the electrical equivalent ?
a. Voltage U2
b. Voltage U1
c. Resistor R1
d. Resistor R2
7. SistemKelistrikanKapal (auxiliary machines)
1. An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as

conductance G (Siemens). Which of the formulas A to D expresses the
conductance for this circuit?
a. G = 1 / R
b. G = 2 R
c. G = I / R
d. G = R * V
2. PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or 4 wires. What is the reason
for this?
a. Higher measuring accuracy.
b. Higher mechanical strength of the cable.
c. Because of power-consumption.
d. For fault indication.
3. Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if
they are modulated. There are several ways to modulate a carrier. Which
modulating method is illustrated here?
a. Amplitude modulation (AM)
b. Frequency modulation (FM)
c. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
d. Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
4. Some areas of ships require that any electrical equipment used must be
intrinsically safe. What is meant by being intrinsically safe?
a. Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?
b. Electric wiring executed by approved manufacture?
c. Any electrical product, being water resistant?
d. Explosion proof product having a special wiring system?
5. Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does it
mean?
a. Intrinsically safe.
b. Explosion proof.
c. Internally explosion proof.
d. Not safe in gas dangerous area.
6. The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the two inductors.
a. L(S) = 4H
b. L(S) = 18 H
c. L(S) = 1,5 H
d. L(S) = 0,667H
7. This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm ,
connected in series. Calculate the equivalent resistance R(S) .
a. R(S) =18 ohm
b. R(S) = 4 ohm
c. R(S) = 72 ohm
d. R(S) =1,5 ohm
8. This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent value R(S) of the two
resistances.
a. R(S)= 4 ohm
b. R(S) =18 ohm
c. R(S)=2ohm
d. R(S) =1,5 ohm
9. Use Kirchoff's voltage law and Ohm's law to calculate the voltage V2 across
the resistance R2.
a. 4,5V
b. 0,75V
c. 6V
d. 2V
10. A ship has an electrical system rated at 690 Volts. Which voltage level is
this?
a. Low voltage.
b. High voltage.
c. Medium voltage.
d. Intermediate voltage.
11. High Voltage (HV) cables are smaller than low voltage cables for a given
power rating. Why is this?
a. The HV cable carries a smaller current and therefore requires less
copper.
b. The HV cable uses higher quality copper conductors and therefore
requires them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.
c. The HV cable uses Aluminium conductors and therefore requires
them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.
d. The HV cable has a thinner wall of special insulation material.
12. On finding a person apparently unconscious in a High Voltage switch room,
which of the following should be done?
a. Raise alarm, identify means of isolation and apply before
approaching victim.
b. Trip all breakers and approach victim.
c. Check if the victim is in contact with live parts and if not apply first
aid.
d. Raise alarm then drag the victim clear so that they cannot reach live
parts while receiving aid.
13. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell ozone. This is likely to
indicate which of the following?
a. Arcing at badly connected bus bars
b. Transformer overload
c. Vacuum circuit breaker problems
d. Air circuit breaker problems
14. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell rotten eggs. What may this
indicate?
a. Problems with a gas (SF6) circuit breaker
b. Burning of insulation
c. Problems with a vacuum circuit breaker
d. Arcing at badly coupled bus bars
15. The recognised definition of High Voltage equipment is anything that
operates at over which of the following levels?
a. 1000Volts ac or 1500Volts dc.
b. 1000Volts ac or 750Volts dc.
c. 33,000Volts ac or dc.
d. 440Volts ac or dc.
16. Which of the following voltage levels would be regarded as high voltage
likely to be found on a ship?
a. 6.6Kv
b. 690V
c. 660kV
d. 220V
17. Which of the following alternatives summarise the benefits of using high
voltage on ships?
a. Smaller conductors, machines and switchgear
b. Smaller conductors, insulators and transformers
c. More efficient transformers and electrical machines
d. Smaller cables and better power factors
18. Which of the following options may be used as a brief summary of how to
safely make high voltage equipment accessible?
a. Disconnect, isolate, earth (ground)
b. Shed load, isolate. Earth (ground)
c. Disconnect, earth (ground), isolate
d. Shed load, Earth (ground), disconnect, isolate
19. A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A Full loadline current. Its initial
direct- on-line starting current will be approximately:
a. 1000 A
b. 100 A
c. 5000 A
d. 200 A
20. A delta connected 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at its
rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit) occurs in
one line. The likely outcome will be:
a. Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.
b. Line currents: 0 A, 150 A, 300 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.
c. Line currents: 75 A, 75 A, 75 A. Trip condition: no trip but speed
falls.
d. Line currents: 150 A,150A,150 A. Trip condition: fuses blow on
short circuit.
21. A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on
overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay immediately
because the:
a. Bimetallic strips need time to cool down
b. Starter isolator automatically applies an interlock.
c. Oil dash-pot has to be reset.
d. Line contactor spring has to be reset
22. A ships 3 - phase a.c. electrical supply system has 440 V and 220 V
sections. The effect of a single short circuit fault to earth on a 220 V line
will cause which of the following earth lamp indications:
a. In 440 V section: all lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: Two
lamps bright one lamp dark.
b. In 440 V section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: One
lamp dim.
c. In 440 V section: One lamp dim. In 220 V section: One lamp dim.
d. In 440 section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 section: All lamps
dark.
23. After main power is restored (following a blackout), a timed sequential
restart of motor-driven auxiliaries is necessary to avoid:
a. Generator overload due to many motors starting at simultaneously
b. Overloading creating earth faults
c. Overvoltage due to current surges
d. Over-frequency due to overspeed of generator
24. An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A
second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan circuit.
Both systems are supplied from the ship's 440V supply. The likely outcome
is that:
a. A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan
fuse blows
b. An open circuit occurs between earth fault and both motors trip out
c. Both motors trip out on overload
d. A short circuit occurs between earth fault and the bilge pump fuse
blows
25. An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because:
a. It satisfies the SOLAS (and other) requirements for ship safety
b. The ship's total load can be shared between main and emergency
generators
c. The main diesel generator(s) can be taken out of service for overhaul
or repair
d. It satisfies the need to be environmentally "friendly"
26. Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to:
a. Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
b. Permit faster paralleling of generators
c. Allow auto-synchronising to take place
d. Ensure fair equal sharing between generators
27. In terms of electrical units, what is Hz the abbreviation for?
a. Frequency in Cycles per second
b. Revolution per minute
c. Frequency in Direct Current (DC)
d. Measure for Resistance
28. The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the
synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position and is rotating slowly
clockwise. This to allow for:
a. Circuit breaker operating time
b. Synchroscope pointer time lag
c. Synchroscope error
d. Generator phase difference error
29. The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright
Yellow= dark Blue= dim . Which fault condition shown as red - yellow -
blue is correct?
a. no fault - hard earth - light earth
b. light earth - no fault - hard earth
c. hard earth - light earth - no fault
d. light earth - hard earth - no fault
30. The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide:
a. Short circuit protection.
b. Overload protection.
c. Undervoltage protection.
d. Over load protection.
31. The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is measured
to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates on the same supply are
tested together their combined IR will be:
a. 10 Mohm
b. 30 Mohm
c. 3 Mohm
d. 90 Mohm
32. When maintenance work is to be carried out on an electric motor driving a
centrifugal water pump with automatic start, should you;
a. In conjunction with the senior watchkeeper and electrician, isolate
valves, electrical supply, automatics and post 'Do not operate' signs
before commencing work.
b. Set in local control, isolate the suction and delivery valves then
commence work.
c. Isolate the suction and delivery valves then inform the electrician
that you are starting work.
d. Ascertain from the senior watchkeeper if it is okay to startwork,
isolate the valves then commence work.
33. A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following combination
of items mounted on the rotor:
e. 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field winding
f. 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding
g. 1 phase excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main field winding
h. Excitation field winding/main field winding
34. A second alternator has just been synchronized onto the main switchboard,
and it is necessary to equally share the load between the "running" and
incoming alternators. What should be done first?
e. Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and
reduce the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the
switchboard
f. Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on the front of
the switchboard
g. Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and
increase the governor speed controller of the alternator already on
the switchboard
h. Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and check the
voltage and speed adjustments before trying again
35. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar
loading are respectively transferred by the following controls:
e. Speed governor and voltage regulator
f. Current regulator and voltage regulator
g. Voltage regulator and synchroscope
h. Speed governor and load power factor
36. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator
operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
e. Reactive load (kVAR)
f. Active load (kW)
g. Frequency
h. None of the mentioned alternatives
37. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the
automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short
circuited or disconnected in order to:
e. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high
voltage tester
f. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from being damaged
g. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic
voltage regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts
h. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation
testing
38. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for
several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The
minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator
winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
e. 1 000 000 Ohms
f. 10 Ohms
g. 1000 Ohms
h. 10 000 Ohms
39. Consider generator 1 and 2 to be initially working in parallel. If prime-
mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss what is the likely outcome?
e. No.2 generator trips on reverse power
f. Generator set 2 trips on reverse speed
g. No.1 machine overloads and trips out on overspeed
h. No.1 machine overspeeds and trips out on overload
40. Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on
one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then:
e. Completely lose its share of the load causing the auxiliary engine to
speed up
f. Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased current
g. Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very high reactive
load (kVAR)
h. Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit breaker
41. During regular inspection of alternator windings it is found that windings

are always covered with a heavy oil film coming from the atmosphere
surrounding the auxiliary engine. After cleaning with an approved solvent,
what should be done?
e. Improve material of intake air filters
f. Take no additional action
g. Blank off intake air filters
h. Reinsulate the windings after each cleaning
42. Electrical generators must provide electrical power at a steady, regulated
voltage. Automatic voltage regulators are used to control the output voltage
of alternators at varying load conditions, by which of the alternative actions
shown below?
e. Varying the excitation field strength by regulating excitation
voltage/current
f. Regulating the voltage signal to the engine governor to regulate the
speed to the desired load condition
g. Supplying variable current to compounding and no load transformers
in the alternator stator winding circuit
h. All of the mentioned alternatives
43. For ideal synchronising as the incomer circuit breaker contacts make, the
phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage
should be:
e. 0°
f. 30° behind
g. 90° lag
h. 30° ahead
44. Generators must be synchronised before they can operate in parallel. During
synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly "fast"
compared to the bus bar frequency. This is to ensure that the:
e. Incoming machine picks up as a generator
f. Most rapid synchronising action is achieved
g. Incomers reverse power trip is tested
h. Incomer picks up as a motor
45. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal

e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by:
e. The diesel speed and excitation current.
f. The internal volt drop and the load current.
g. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current.
h. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
46. Great care must be taken when manually paralleling two or more
alternators. At which point would you engage the main circuit breaker of the
incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators?
e. With the pointer of the synchroscope moving slowly clockwise and
almost at 0° (12 O'clock) or both synchronizing lamps dark (off)
f. With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any position and
both synchronizing lamps bright (on)
g. With the pointer of the synchroscope rotating fast and both
synchronizing lamps flashing on and off
h. With the pointer of the synchroscope stopped at 0 (12 O'clock) or
both synchronising lights bright
47. If the A.C. line current in a generator stator is doubled, the heating effect in
the stator windings will:
e. Quadruple
f. Remain about the same.
g. Half.
h. Double.
48. It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power
(kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor
will run:
e. Hotter due to increased current
f. Slower due to increased current
g. Faster due to increased voltage
h. Cooler due to increased speed
49. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be
performed to check:
e. Its readiness to perform as specified.
f. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-drills.
g. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
h. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's recommendations.
50. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the
same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and
frequency are respectively adjusted by:
e. AVR and speed governor
f. Voltmeter and frequency meter
g. Speed governor and load power factor controller
h. Synchroscope and speed governor
51. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c.
generator is controlled by:
e. The prime mover speed and excitation current.
f. The internal volt drop and the load current.
g. The prime mover and load current.
h. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
52. The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase
alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by:
e. The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage regulator and
the prime mover
f. Independent battery supply with the AVR
g. Independent power supply and rectifier unit
h. The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier
53. The speed of ship's generator is regulated by the governor. A 10% reduction
in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely consequence
for all motors powered from this generator is to:
e. Reduce motor speed by about 10%’
f. Increase motor power by about 10%
g. Increase motor speed by about 10%
h. Reduce motor volt drop by about 10%
54. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:
e. Voltmeter and synchroscope
f. kW meter and frequency meter
g. Amp-meter and volt-meter
h. Synchroscope and kVar-meter
55. Two alternators are operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, but then one
of them trips without any warning. What is the first action that should be
taken?
e. Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to the switchboard
f. Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator
g. Restart and connect the tripped alternator immediately
h. Start and connect the emergency alternator
56. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the
emergency switchboard is supplied from:
e. The main generating plant.
f. Emergency batteries
g. An emergency battery charger.
h. A compressed air driven generator.
57. What determines the power factor of an alternator when it is connected
singularly to the switchboard?
e. The load connected to the switchboard
f. The generated voltage and AVR setting
g. The excitation voltage
h. Number of pairs of pole coils in the excitation winding
58. What is the purpose of the alternator reverse power trip?
e. To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being supplied power
from other parallel alternator and thus being damaged
f. To prevent parallel operation if the excitation field voltage is
reversed
g. To prevent the alternator from being paralleled if it is out of phase
with the main switchboard
h. To give automatic disconnection of the circuit breaker when you are
taking the alternator off the switchboard
59. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that
the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are evenly
shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and reactive
loads, which side of the vector diagram (power triangle) shown represents
the reactive load?
e. (Y)
f. (X)
g. Either (X) or (Y)
h. None of the mentioned alternatives
60. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard
and the generator is AVR controlled, what will the output voltage do?
e. Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
f. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action.
g. Initially fall, then reset to the set value.
h. Remain approximately constant, due to governor action.
61. When manually paralleling two alternators the pointer of the synchroscope
may slowly stop rotating and remain stopped in one position before the
circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate:
e. The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the
main switchboard
f. The synchroscope is not functioning properly and should be checked
g. The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the
main switchboard
h. The incoming alternator is in phase with the switchboard, but the
frequency is not the same
62. When paralleling two alternators they must have:
e. Equal number of phases, phase sequence and frequency
f. Same number of phases, phase rotation and power rating
g. Same phase rotation and voltage rating
h. Same frequency, voltage and power factor
63. When unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load
in order to avoid:
e. Undue overspeeding.
f. Undue overload on the switchboard.
g. Undue overcurrent
h. Undue temperature rise.
64. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an
emergencygenerator?
e. Steering gear and engine room alarm system
f. Engine room lighting and bow thruster
g. Galley and air conditioning
h. Sound powered telephone system
65. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The
first step is to:
e. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
f. Make sure the load is evenly shared
g. Trip the main circuit breaker

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formulas A to D expresses the conductance for this circuit?

46. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer?

- Higher measuring accuracy

ways to modulate a carrier. Which modulating method is illustrated here?

- 100 ohm at 0 deg C

- 802 ohm at 20 deg C

- Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)

- Closed loop feed back system

- 4-20 mA/3-15 Psi

161. What principle of measurement is the viscosity controller based on?

- The process will oscillate and get out of control

181. What is the objective of the merchant navy?

185. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?

186. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration?

205. What is "UNDER KEEL CLEARANCE", in the figure?

209. What should the Fitter be asked to do?

- Band pass filter

229. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

245. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

248. Which type temperature sensors are shown on this picture?

- Resistance temperature sensor

- Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console

1. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer?

5. Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature

10. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is a digital signal?

12. Measurement and transmission of electronic values may be in the form of

26. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent?

32. Which function is this operational amplifier performing?

45. Electrical generators must provide electrical power at a steady, regulated

7. Sistem Kontrol (control system)

2. What type of component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

a. Inlet temperature “Tin" will fluctuate

a. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet

a. A WAX by-pass temperature controller

a. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet

a. Nozzle Balance Pressure

a. Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP)

a. By using a regulator on the servo of the pneumatic valve

45. What pneumatic control device is shown here ?

a. To counteract the pressure on the membrane M , decrease Pu

a. To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere

a. It would increase the output pressure Pu

a. Unsteady operation .Springs are to be fitted on all moving parts

a. At air passage item 15

56. What is item No 3 shown of this pneumatic amplifier?

a. The output air compartment

a. To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially

a. clamps with bellow packing

a. Between 0 and 20 psi

a. In the base of the amplifier, filter

67. What is the output pressure of this pneumatic amplifier ?

68. What is the amplification factor (K) of a pneumatic

a. The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P

a. Half the height from Level L

a. Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive

a. It works with intolerable offsets

a. Between 0 and 15 psi

a. Infinity, full open, full

90. This characteristic shows

95. What control equipment drawing is shown here ?

a. A pneumatic steering line