SYBBI - SAMPLE QUESTIONS - EVEN 2021 (MERGED PDF) - Min
SYBBI - SAMPLE QUESTIONS - EVEN 2021 (MERGED PDF) - Min
SYBBI - SAMPLE QUESTIONS - EVEN 2021 (MERGED PDF) - Min
Sample Questions
4. National Income differs from Net National Product at market price by the amount of:
(a) Current transfers from rest of the world
(b) Net Indirect Taxes
(c) National debt interest
(d) it does not differ
13. An increase in consumption at any given level of income is likely to lead to:
a) Higher aggregate demand
b) An increase in exports
c) A fall in taxation revenue
d) A decrease in import spending
18. If aggregate supply is totally price inelastic, an increase in aggregate demand will:
a) Increase price but not output
b) Increase output but not price
c) Increase output and price
d) Decrease output and price
24. . When too much money chases too few goods, the resulting Inflation is called:
(a) Deflation
(b) Demand-pull Inflation
(c) Cost push inflation
(a) Stagflation
35. After levying of a tax, if the price does not rise at all, it means that –
a) Incidence of the tax remains with producer
b) Tax has been shifted backward
c) Shifting has taken place
d) Any of the above
39. Pick out the factor which is not a feature of indirect taxes.
a) Convenience
b) Tax evasion is difficult
c) Fair to the poor
d) Powerful tool of economic policy
40. __________________ based on the principle 'higher the income, higher the tax'.
a) Progressive Tax
b) Proportion Tax
c) Regressive Tax
d) Digressive Tax
a) i and ii only
a) i and ii only
b) i, ii , and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i, ii, and iv only
A. Administrative costs
B. Selling and Distribution costs
C. Finance costs
D. All of the above
11. The costs that can be clearly identified with the cost object we are trying to
cost is known as:
A. Indirect costs
B. Direct costs
C. Overheads
D. None
12. The cost per unit of variable costs ______________.
A. Standard costing
B. Job costing
C. Process costing
D. Both A&B
15. Sales and distribution costs include:
A. The wages and salary costs of all employees working in the selling
and distribution departments, including sales commissions for sales
representatives
B. Advertising costs and other marketing costs
C. Operating costs for delivery vehicles
D. All of the above
16. Dividing shared costs on a fair basis is called _______________ of the cost.
A. Allocation
B. Apportionment
C. Sharing
D. None
17. Total production costs during a period must therefore be divided or shared
between:
A. An indirect cost (overhead cost) is any cost that is not a direct cost.
B. Indirect costs (overheads) cannot be attributed directly and in full
to a cost unit.
C. Indirect costs include production overheads and non-production
overheads.
D. All of the above are correct
19. Prime cost plus a share of production overheads are the:
A. Full production cost of the cost unit
B. Fully absorbed production cost of the cost unit
C. Marginal cost of the cost unit
D. Both A&B
20. Costs that become part of the cost of goods manufactured are called?
A. Product costs
B. Period costs
C. Unit costs
D. None
21. Product costs include:
27- The cost of a product can be ascertained only after the ___.
(A) production of a product
(B) receival of raw material
(C) launch of product in the market
(D) none of the above
30-Both standard costing and budgetary control have the following common
feature(s)
(A) Both techniques are based on the presumption that cost is controllable.
(B) In both the techniques, results of comparison are analyzed and reported to
management.
(C) Both have a common objective of improving managerial control.
(D) All of the above
a) True
b) False
38. If total cost of 100 units is Rs 5000 and those of 101 units is Rs 5030
then increase of Rs 30 in total cost is
a) Marginal cost
b) Prime cost
c) All variable overheads
d) None of the above
a) Direct costing
b) Variable costing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
B) In marginal costing all elements of cost are divided into fixed and
variable components.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) B and D
A) All the elements of cost can be divided into fixed and variable
components.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) A, B C and D
a. An ordinary resolution
b. A Special Resolution
c. The approval of the Union Government
d. A special resolution and with the approval of the central
government
7.The ________ defines a company’s relation with the outside world
Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Prospectus
b. Memorandum of Association
c. Articles of Association
d. Statement in lieu of prospectus
8.When a private company commence business _________Required
to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. At any time
b. After applying for registration
c. After obtaining Certificate of incorporation
d. After Obtaining the certificate of commencement of business
9.A Prospectus is to be issued with_________ days of
registrationRequired to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. 30
b. 60
c .90
d. 180
10.Information memorandum + shelf prospectus together
constitutes_______Required to answer. Single choice.
a) Memorandum
(b) Articles
(c) Prospectus
(d) Document
11.Minimum number of members in case of public company
___________Required to answer. Single choice.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 7
12.Ultra vires loans granted by the company are _________Required
to answer. Single choice.
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Valid
(d) Invalid
13.The doctrine of indoor management is an ______to the doctrine of
constructive noticeRequired to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a) Exception
b) Extension
c) Alternative
d) Solution
14.A company can change its name by passing
____________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a) Ordinary resolution
b) Special resolution
c) Either by special resolution or by ordinary resolution
d) Resolution
15._______stands in the fiduciary position of the companyRequired
to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a) Directors
b) Promoters
c) Auditors
d) Distributor’s
16. _______are the prospectus issued instead of full
prospectusRequired to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a) Abridged
b) Statement in lieu
c) Shelf
d) Red herring
17.As per SEBI guidelines the application money should be minimum
of ________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a)10
b)15
c)20
d)25
18.The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established in
_______Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. 1992
b. 1988
c. 1993
d. 1994
19.16. The accounts of the Board shall be forwarded annually to the
Central Government by the CAG_______Required to answer. Single
choice.
(1 Point)
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
20.The prime objective of the SEBI Act,1992 is to protect the
interests of______________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Creditors
b. Investors
c. Directors
d. Management
21.The model of depository where physical share certificates are kept
in vaults with the depository for safe custody is
___________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Dematerialisation
b. Immobilisation
c. Materialisaton
d. Demonetization
22.The stock markets in which the already issued stocks are resold
and re-bought are classified as____________________Required to
answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Red herring stock market
b. Pre-emptive stock market
c. Silence Stock Market
d. Secondary stock market
23.What is the preliminary prospectus in an IPO process
called_____________________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Registration Document
b. Red Herring
c. Underwiting
d. Pricing
24.When was CDSL formed___________Required to answer. Single
choice.
(1 Point)
a) September’99
b) August’00
c) February’99
d) January’00
25.Which act in 1996 was passed to provide free transferability of
securities with speed and accuracy________Required to answer.
Single choice.
(1 Point)
a) Depositories Act
b) SEBI Act – II
c) SCRA
d) Companies Act
26.What is the name of the company set up by NSE in order to
promote dematerialization of securities__________Required to
answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a) BSE
b) NSCCL
c) CDSL
d) NSDL
27.Which of the following is NOT a reason to invest in mutual
funds_____________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Professional Management of your investment
b. Invest Low amounts ( as low a s 500 ) in a diversified portfolio
c. Flexibility to buy and sell your investments as and when you
want
d. Personal Customized portfolio
28.The Depository Institutions such as thrifts
include_________________________Required to answer. Single
choice.
(1 Point)
a. Savings associations
b. Savings bank
c. Credit Unions
d. Savings associations, Saving bank and Credit Unions
29.The example of derivative securities include___________Required
to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Swap Contract
b. Option Contract
c. Futures Contract
d. Swap, Option and Futures.
30.The use of a Demat account protects one from the following
except ____________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Loss on account of mutilation
b. Loss on account of fraud
c. Loss on account of theft
d. Loss on account of Fire
31.When did the use of demat accounts start in India______Required
to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. 1992
b. 1995
c. 1996
d. 1997
32.The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2009 lays down guidelines relating
to __________Required to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. listing of different segments of the capital market
b. Disclosure norms
c Public issues
d Private issues
33.______________________is considered as a QIB for a Qualified
Institutional PlacementRequired to answer. Single choice.
(1 Point)
a. Provident fund with a minimum corpus of twenty-five crore
rupees
b. pension fund with minimum corpus of twenty-five crore rupees
Abhishek Bansal
c. scheduled commercial bank
d. (a), (b) and (c)
34.Which one of the following features does not support the federal
character of Indian Constitution________Required to answer. Single
choice.
(1 Point)
(A) Distribution of powers between Centre and States
(B) Authority of Courts
(C) Supremacy of the Constitution
(D) Single citizenship
35.‘No one shall be subjected to arbitrary asset or detention-’ Under
which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this
right has been declared_____________Required to answer. Single
choice.
(1 Point)
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 7
(C) Article 8
(D) Article 9
36.Any person aggrieved by an order ………………….. may prefer
an appeal to a Securities Appellate Tribunal having jurisdiction in the
matter.Required to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a. of the Board made, on and after the commencement of the
Securities Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 1999
b. made by an adjudicating officer
c. of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority or the
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
d. (a), (b) and (c)
37.Which of the following statements is correct___________Required
to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a. Nikkei is related to Singapore
b. Middex belong to Japan
c. BSE does not belong to Sensex
d. FTSE – 100 is a stock Exchange of London which monitors
European Market activities
38.Which of the following is a false statement about the over-the-
counter marketRequired to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a. Securities listed in the over-the-counter market are not listed on
an exchange
b. It only trades stocks of small firms.
c. Securities listed in the over-the-counter market are not listed on
an exchange
d. Its market maker is called a dealer.
39.If the market price of a stock "rights-on" is $50 a share, the
subscription price is $40 a share, and it takes nine rights to buy an
additional share of common stock, the theoretical value of a right
when the stock is selling "rights-on " is how
much______________________Required to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a.$ 1
b. $1.1
C. $ 4.00
d.$ 5.00
40.The provisions of this regulation regarding risk management
committee shall be applicable to top___________ listed entities,
determined based on market capitalization, as at the end of the
immediate previous financial yearRequired to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 100
41.Choose the correct option regarding Electronic
GovernanceRequired to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
Legal recognition of digital signatures & retention of electronic
records
Non recognition of electronic data & non cognizance of cyber
crimes
Governance over hard copy of records & recognition to digital
signatures
Execution of Power of Attorney & creation of Trust under Indian
Trust Act
42.If the issue price is ` 500 or more then the Company may fix the
face Value ________________Required to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a. below ’10 per share but not lower than ‘1 per share
b. below ‘100 per share but not lower than ’10 per share
c. below ’50 per share but not lower than ’10 per share
d. below ’50 per share but not lower than ’20 per share
43.A new company issues securities worth Rs.9.5 crore to the public.
In such case which of the following is true
___________________Required to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a)Securities will be issued in physical form, but trading will be in
demat form.
b)Securities will be issued in demat form, but trading will be in
physical form
c)Securities will be issued in physical form and trading also in
physical form.
d)Securities will be issued in demat form or physical form but
trading only indemat form
44.Choose the correct option regarding Caveat EmptorRequired to
answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
Buyer Beware & the responsibility regarding goods is on Buyer
Seller Beware & the responsibility regarding goods is on seller
Banker Beware & the responsibility regarding goods is on seller
Supplier Beware & the responsibility regarding good is on seller
45.Which of the following statement is false
_________________Required to answer. Single choice.
(2 Points)
a. Depositories also provide depository facility to the commodity
exchanges forsettlement of trades pertaining to ware house receipts
for commodities.b) The legal status of warehouse receipts is different
from that of securities.c) DP are free to add any more terms and
conditions to the agreement to the extentthey are not contradictory to
the terms and conditions of the model.
b. For electronic trading of ware house receipts, a DRF-WR
portion has to be filledby the client.
c. DP are free to add any more terms and conditions to the
agreement to the extent they are not contradictory to the terms and
conditions of the model
d . The legal status of warehouse receipts is different from that of
securities
50 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
COURSE : SYBBI
Question No: 1
a) Business model
b) Modeling
c) Creative flexibility
d) Innovation
Question No: 2
Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help to market new
products?
b) Federal government
c) Distribution Channels
d) Consumers
Question No: 3
Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
a) They earn a handsome profit from new business
b) They are familiar with the needs of the market
c) They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
d) They have well-developed sales force
Question No: 4
Question No: 5
a) Location
b) Promotion
c) Raw materials
d) Labor skills
Question No: 6
A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up
a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?
(a) Ecopreneur
(b) Technopreneur
(c) Intrapreneur
Question No: 7
Question No: 8
a) Entrepreneurs
b) Consultants
c) Engineers
d) Small business administration services
Question No: 9
a) Consumers
b) Federal government
c) Brain storming
d) Training
Question No: 10
An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called
______________.
1. A leader
2. A manager
3. A professional
4. An entrepreneur
Question No: 11
Question No: 13
_____________ describes the direction, the enterprise is going in, what its goals are,
where it wants to be, and how it is going to get there.
a) project report
b) technical Anlaysis
c) market analysis
d) financial analysis
Question No: 14
a) A changeling.
b) A professional.
c) A co-worker.
d) An intrapreneur.
Question No: 15
a. Innovation
b. Risk taking
c. Planning
d. Creativity
Question No: 16
c. NGOs - 3. PMRY
a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1
a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4
a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1
a - 2, b - 4, c - 3, d - 1
Question No: 17
Innovation
Creativity
Entrepreneurship
Leadership
Question No: 18
__________ is the process by which other new ventures are born within the
confines of an existing corporation.
a. Entrepreneurship
b. Intrapreneurship
c. Business
d. Marketing
Question No: 19
A person can become a professional manager by acquiring _________.
a. Skills
b. Knowledge
c. Leadership
d. Services
Question No: 20
a. Project planning
b. Project report
c. Business plan
d. Activity
Question No: 21
Human resource
Marketing
Finance
Infrastructure
Question No: 22
a. Proposal
b. Second
c. Final
d. Review
Question No: 23
b. Code of conduct
d. Hidden agendas
Question No: 24
Question No: 25
a. Sponsorship
b. Advertising
c. Personal selling
d. Branding
Question No: 26
a. Indirect
b. Direct
c. Multi – level
d. Manufacturer
Question No: 27
Question No: 28
a. Operation plan
b. Business
c. Financial
d. Marketing
Question No: 29
____________ contains the provisions regarding the legal formalities for setting up of a
private limited company.
b. Partnership Act
c. MSMED Act
d. IPR Act
Question No: 30
___________ provides seed capital scheme to technically or professionally
qualified entrepreneurs.
a. SBI
b. IDBI
c. SIDBI
d. NSIC
Question No: 31
______________ inspector visits the office of the panchayat and guides the
entrepreneur in order to solve the problems.
a. Factory
b. District Industry
c. Income tax
d. Sales tax
Question No: 32
a. NABARD
b. IDBI
c. SIDBI
d. NIESBUD
Question No: 33
a. Subsidy
b. Incentive
c. Over draft
d. Bank loan
Question No: 34
a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Six
Question No: 35
Question No: 36
a. Commitment to work
b. Self confidence
d. Assertiveness
only a and b
only c
a, b, c and d
only a and d
Question No: 37
a. Solving problems
b. Taking initiatives
c. Taking responsibility
Question No: 38
a. Emotional blocks
b. Labour
d. Lack of vision
Question No: 39
Who is an entrepreneur?
a. Dirubhai Ambani
b. Vijay Mallya
c. Narayan Murthy
d. Anil Ambani
Question No: 40
d. Sources of Funds
Question No: 41
Question No: 42
Question No: 43
a. Banks
b. Lawyers
c. Employees
d. Managers
Question No: 45
a. Advertising
b. Sales promotion
c. Branding
d. Personal selling
Question No: 46
a. Environmental scanning
b. Feasibility study
c. SWOT analysis
d. SWOC analysis
Question No: 47
Ethics means what is _________ and __________.
Question No: 48
a - 1, b - 4, c - 2, d - 3
a - 4, b - 1, c - 2, d - 3
a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2
a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3
Question No: 49
a. Technical
b. Communication
c. Leadership
d. Human relations
Question No: 50
a - 2, b - 4, c -1, d - 3
a - 1, b - 2, c -4, d - 3
a - 4, b - 2, c -1, d - 3
a - 4, b - 2, c -3, d - 1
a) A is true
b) B is true
c) A & B correct
(A) hazards.
(B) indemnity.
(C) loss.
(D) risk
Q7. Which of the following does NOT fall into the category of general insurance?
Q9 An insurance pool is
(D) the reserve fund set up by an insurance company to pay for future losses.
Q13. Which of the following terms matches closest with ‘Family Floater’?
a) Health insurance
b) Property insurance
c) Accidental injury
d) Consequential loss
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
Q14 A policy where the policyholder makes a one-time payment of premium, is known as
a. Money-back policy
b. Single premium policy
c. Salary Savings Scheme policy
d. Half-yearly policy
e. Annual policy Loss
Q15. ……… may be described as a social device to reduce or eliminate risk of loss to life and
Property.
a. investment
b. saving
c. insurance
d. loan
Q16) Select the correct procedure to be followed for insuring any property under Fire Insurance
a. Inspection of Property, Payment of Premium, Filling of Proposal Form, Issue of Policy Document
b. Payment of Premium, Filling of Proposal Form, Inspection of Property, Issue of Policy Document
c. Filling of Proposal Form, Inspection of Property, Payment of Premium, Issue of Policy Document
d. Filling of Proposal Form, Payment of Premium, Inspection of Property, Issue of Policy Document
a. Sum Assured
b. Surrender of Assurance
c. Supplementary Assurance
d. Stamp Act
e. Survivor’s Annuity
Q18) Which of the following terms is dissimilar to the other four in the context of insurable
a. Employer
b. Creditor
c. Surety
d. Employee
e. Debtor
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
Q19) As per structured formula under the Motor Vehicle Act, victims of fatal injuries are paid
Q20) As per the Insurance Act, every insurer has to prepare at the end of financial year
a. Balance Sheet
b. Profit and Loss Account
c. Revenue Account for each class of Insurance business
d. Accounts of receipts and payments in respect of share-holders’ funds
e. All of the above And income
a. Fire insurance
b. Hull insurance
c. Personal Accident insurance
d. Workmen’s Compensation insurance
Q23). Which clause specifies the perils insured in a scheduled form of policy?
a. Preamble Clause
b. Recital Clause
c. Operative Clause
d. Consideration Clause
e. Attestation Clause
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
Q25) The minimum paid up capital required for a General Insurance Company is Rs. ____
a. 25 crores
b. 50 crores
c. 75 crores
d. 100 crores
e. 200 crores
Q26) What does the term “premium” denote in relation to an insurance policy?
a. Asset
b. Principle of mutuality
c. Subsidy
d. Risk
a. Air
b. Human life
c. Car
d. House
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
a. Soap
b. House
c. Life insurance
d. Car
Q32) Which of the following documents is an evidence of the contract between insurer and insured?
a. Proposal from
b. Policy document
c. Prospectus
d. Claim form
a. Liability
b. Building only
c. Building and content both
d. Content only
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
a. Maturity
b. Tax
c. Medical Facility
Q36) Which one of the following is a factor to determine the amount of premium?
a. Age of building
c. Location
b. Mechanical Breakdown
c. NCB
d. Maternity ACT
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
b. Valued Policy
c. Average policy
d. Specific Policy
a. Limited
b. Excluded
c. Add on
b. Public Lability
c. Fire
d. Both A & B
c. Man-made hazard
d. Packaging hazard
a. Excess clause
b. Average Clause
c. Add on Clause
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
d. Specific Clause
a. Lamborghini
b. Honda city
c. Publicity van
d. Passion Pro
a. Fire
b. Theft
c. Depreciation
d. Landslide
Q46) _________ policy means specific sum is insured upon a specific property for a specific period
a. Special
b. Interim
c. Specific
d. General
Q47) The ________ premium paid by you towards your life insurance, the ________ will be the
compensation paid to the beneficiary in the event of your death
a. Higher, Higher
b. Lower, Higher
c. Higher, Lower
d. Faster, Slower
Q48) Money laundering is the process of bringing _________ money into an economy by hiding its
a. legal, illegal
b. illegal, legal
c. legal, legal
d. illegal, illegal
Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SY
Sem: IV
Subject: Foundation Course-IV
Sample Questions
Q49) Mr. Rajan earns Rs. 1,20,000 a year and spends Rs. 24,000 on himself. The net earnings his
family would lose if he were to die prematurely would be Rs. 96,000 per year. Assume the rate of
interest is 8%, calculate the HLV
a. Rs. 24,000
b. Rs. 12,00,000
c. Rs. 96,000
d. Rs. 1,20,000
Q50) As per principle of Indemnity, if Mr. Ram has insured his house, worth Rs. 10,00,000 for the
full amount. If he suffers a loss on account of fire estimated at Rs. 70,000; the insurance company
would pay him an amount of __________
a. Rs. 10,70,000
b. Rs. 70,000
c. Rs. 9,30,000
d. Rs. 10,00,000
2021
2.The single most important ratio in case of working capital management is..
Current ratio
Liquid ratio
Stock – working capital ratio
Debt – Equity ratio
15.___________ indicates the number of times inventory is sold during the year
Sales turnover Ratio
Stock turnover ratio
Fixed Assets Turnover ratio
Debtors turnover ratio
16.The length of the period for which the budget is prepared is termed as
_________.
Budget calendar
Budget Manual
Budget Period
Budget schedule.
35.EPS is _________
Economic per share
Earnings per share
Earnings per statement
Error per share
36.If sales is 100, variable cost is 66.67 the PV ratio would be _______
66%
33.33%
133.33%
25%
37.If gross margin is 25%on cost & sales is INR 21,00,000 the gross profit
would be _____
6,25,000
4,20,000
5,25,000
1,25,000
38.If the minimum stock level and average stock level of raw material “A” are
4,000 & 9,000 units respectively , find out its re-order quantity.
8,000 units
11,000 units
10,000 units
9,000 units
39.A manufacturer used 400 units of component every month and he buys
them entirely from an outsider supplier @ INR 40 per unit. The order placing
and receiving cost in INR 100 and storage and carrying costs is 15% of the
value of Stock. To get maximum benefit, he should place an order for _______
units at a time.
300 units
400 units
450 units
500 units
40.Consider the following data for the month of May Opening Stock 120 units
Closing Stock 80 units Production 110 units Based on the data, sales in May
will have to be
50 units
110 units
150 units
190 units
41.Consider the following data for the month of April. Closing stock 80 units
Opening stock 130 units Production 280 units Calculate sales for the month of
April
130 units
330 units
50 units
410 units
Option 2
42.Consider the following data for the month of June Sales 140 units Selling
price INR 50 per unit Based on the data ,estimate the sales revenue in July, if
the selling price has to be 10% higher and sales units 20% higher than the
previous month
INR 8,470
INR 9,240
INR 7,700
INR 7,000
43.If the activity level is reduced from 80% to 70% the fixed cost _______
Will increase by 10%
Will decrease by 10%
Per unit will decrease
Per unit will increase
A) Both i and ii
B) Only iii
C) All i,ii,iii
D) Both ii,iii