NSO Level 2 - Class 9 (2018-2019)

Science
Q 1.

Two cars X and Y start from two points separated by 75 m. Y which is ahead of X, starts
from rest with acceleration of 10 m/s 2 and X starts with uniform velocity of 40 m/s. They
meet each other twice in their journey. Find the time gap between their meetings.

A 3.5 s

B 2.0 s

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C 4.5 s

D 1.0 s
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Q 2.
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Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statements 1 : Astronauts in a satellite moving around the earth are in a weightless
condition.
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Statements 2 : Gravitational force between the earth and the moon is responsible for
the motion of moon around the earth.
ha

A Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of
So

statement 1.
B Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement 1.
C Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

D Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.

Q 3.

A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 m s -1 strikes a block of wood of mass
0.4 kg and instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended
from the ceiling by means of a thin wire. Find the height to which the block rises. Neglect
the air friction.
 A 14.5 cm

B 21.2 cm

C 4.07 cm

D 10.3 cm

Q 4.

From the top of a building, a student throw three identical rocks each with the same
speed. One is thrown vertically upwards, one horizontally and one vertically downwards.
Which rock will hit the ground with the greatest speed? (Ignore air resistance)

A The one thrown vertically upwards.

B The one thrown horizontally.

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C The one thrown vertically downwards.

D All will hit with the same speed.

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Q 5.
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A body at rest starts falling from a height under free fall. The distance time graph will be
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A
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D
 Q 6.

A particle moves on a circular path of radius 7 m with uniform speed of 11 m/s. If it

reaches point T from point S, a diametrically opposite point, then during this interval

(i) The average acceleration is zero.

(ii) The average velocity is zero.
(iii) The average acceleration is 11 m/s 2 .
(iv) The average velocity is 7 m/s.
Which of the following options is correct?

A (i) and (ii) only

B (ii) and (iii) only

C (iii) and (iv) only

D (i) and (iv) only

Q 7.

The velocity-time graph of an object is shown in the figure. Identify the correct
statement(s) regarding this graph.

(i) This is a non uniform velocity-time graph of the object.

(ii) The velocity of the object is increasing at the same rate during OP and QR.
(iii) The velocity of the object is decreasing at same rate during PQ and RT.

A (i) only

B (ii) only

C (iii) only

D (i), (ii) and (iii)

 Q 8.

If the ratio of momentum and kinetic energy of a particle is inversely proportional to the
time, then this is the case of a

A Uniformly accelerated motion

B Uniform motion

C Non-uniformly accelerated motion

D Simple harmonic motion.

Q 9.

A student plotted the following four graphs representing the variation of velocity v of
sound in a gas with the pressure P for a given temperature. Which one is correct?

C
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D
v
ar Go

Q 10.
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A cricket ball of mass 150 g moving with a speed of 126 km/h hits at the middle of the
bat, held firmly at its position by the batsman. The ball moves straight back to the bowler
a

after hitting the bat. Assume that the ball rebounds with same speed and they remain in
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contact for 0.001 s, the force that the batsman had to apply to hold the bat firmly at its
t

place would be
oh
M
 A 10.5 × 10 -4 N

B 2.1 × 10 3 N

C 1.05 × 10 4 N

D 2.1 × 10 4 N

Q 11.

A boy throws a cricket ball from the boundary to the wicket-keeper. If the frictional force
due to air cannot be ignored, the forces acting on the ball at the position X are
represented by

Q 12.

Jaya is on a small boat which is situated at the centre of a circular pond. The radius of
pond is 30 m. She wants to reach the shore and for that she throws a stone of mass 0.5
kg lying on her boat with velocity 50 m/s. If mass of Jaya, boat and stone together is
50.5 kg, how much time will she take to reach the shore? Assume there is no friction
between water and boat.

A 60 seconds

B 30 seconds

C 40 seconds

D 50 seconds
 Q 13.

A body is dropped from a height h and touches the ground at a speed of 1.2√gh. The
work done by air friction is

A mgh

B 0.72 mgh

C 0.28 mgh

D - 0.28 mgh

Q 14.

A truck accelerates from speed v to 2v. Work done during this is

A Three times as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

B Same as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

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C Four times as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

D Less than the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

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Q 15.
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Which of the following figures is correct regarding the propagation of sound wave from
water to air?
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A
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D
 Q 16.

Melting and boiling points of a few substances are given in the table.

Substance M. pt. (°C) B. pt. (°C)

P. -220 -180
Q. -40 350
R. -20 75
S. -15 180
T. 115 440
Which of the following is/are correct regarding these substances?
I. Substance P will have least ordered arrangement of particles at room temperature.
II. Substances Q, R and T will have fixed volumes at room temperature but no fixed
shape.
III. The order of strength of interparticle forces in these substances is P > R > Q > T.
IV. Substance T exists in solid state while substance R exists in gaseous state at 100°C.

A I and IV only

B II and IV only

C III only

D IV only

Q 17.

Talcum powder is widely used in cosmetic products. The powder is made from talc, a
mineral having formula Mg 3 Si 4 O 10 (OH) 2 . What is the charge on Si 4 O 10 ion in this
molecule?

A - 1

B - 2

C - 3

D - 4

Q 18.
Iron is extracted from its ore 'magnetite' having formula Fe 3 O 4 . If during a process, 6
moles of iron are extracted from the ore, then the mass of ore used in the extraction is
[Given : Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u, O = 16 u]

A 152 g

B 464 g

C 220 g

D 52 g

Q 19.

The properties of four different components of a mixture are shown in the table.

Soluble Soluble in Soluble in

Substance
in water ethanol nitric acid
P.
Q.
R.
Dissolves to
S.
form nitrate
If S can be recovered from its nitrate by heating, then which of the following represents
the correct sequence of methods that should be employed to obtain pure and dry sample
of S from the mixture?

A Dissolve the mixture in water → Add dilute nitric acid to filtrate →

Heat to dryness
B Dissolve the mixture in ethanol → Heat the filtrate to dryness

C Dissolve the mixture in ethanol → Dissolve the residue in nitric acid →

Heat the filtrate to dryness
d

D Dissolve the mixture in nitric acid → Add ethanol to filtrate → Heat the
32 tal vin

filtrate to dryness
ar Go

Q 20.
2
19 e

Ryma was given a mixture of two substances P and Q. To separate these components,
09

she first dissolved the mixture in ether in a test tube and filtered it through a filter paper.
Component Q was obtained as residue and component P was obtained by evaporation of
m

the filtrate. P and Q could be respectively

ha

A Sodium chloride and ammonium chloride

M

B Camphor and naphthalene

So
 C Naphthalene and ammonium chloride

D Ammonium chloride and naphthalene.

Q 21.

Food manufacturers often prefer food dyes over natural food colours because they
produce a more vibrant colour. One method to check the presence of artificial dyes in a
food item is chromatography. The chromatogram of food item X and four dyes P, Q, R
and S is shown in the figure.

What can be concluded from this chromatogram?

A X contains only three dyes, P, R and S.

B Dye Q consists of only one component.

C P, R and S are pure dyes.

D X contains only dye P.

Q 22.

The ratio of atomic number of element P to that of element Q is 3 : 2. If P is an inert gas

with octet configuration in M shell, then which of the following is correct about Q?

A Q is also a noble gas.

B Q forms a stable dipositive ion.

C Q forms a trinegative ion.

D The stable ion of Q has octet configuration in M shell.

Q 23.

A few hypothetical atoms are listed as :

Now, read the given passage and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option.
There are __(i)__ pairs of isotopes and __(ii)__ pairs of isobars in the given list of
atoms. Atoms __(iii)__ and __(iv)__ will form divalent cation and divalent anion
respectively.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

A 3 2 U V

B 2 3 S T

C 2 2 T W

D 2 3 T S

Q 24.

Outer shell configurations of five atoms (P - T) are given as:

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about these atoms?

I. Elements S and T have same valency.
II. Elements Q and T will form a compound of formula Q 2 T 3 .
III. Proton number of T is 12.
IV. R can form a cation as well as an anion.

A II and III only

B I only
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C III and IV only

D I, II and IV
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Q 25.
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Figures I, II and III show how the particles of a substance are arranged in three different
states.
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If the given graph represents the variation of boiling point of water with pressure, then
which of the following is the correct match for the states represented by points P, Q and
R?
 A P-II; Q-I, II; R-II, III

B P-II, III; Q-I; R-II

C P-III; Q-I, III; R-I

D P-III; Q-III; R-II, III

Q 26.

Read the given statements and mark the correct option.

Statement 1 : Bohr's orbits are called stationary orbits.
Statement 2 : Electrons remain stationary in these orbits for some time.

A Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1.
B Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement 1.
C Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

D Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Q 27.

Three invisible radiations X, Y and Z are passed through an electric field. X was found to
be undeviated, Y deviated towards positive end and Z deviated towards negative end of
the electric field. Which of the following is true about X, Y and Z?

A The ratio of the particle constituting X is 0.

B The ratio of the particle constituting Z is not constant.

C Absolute mass of the particle constituting Y is 9.1 × 10 -28 g.

D All of these
 Q 28.

A mixture of three gases X, Y and Z is separated as follows: The mixture is first passed
through KOH. It dissolves the gas X which is obtained back from KOH by adding HCl.
Gases Y and Z are separated by the process of diffusion in which gas Y comes out first.
Gases X, Y and Z could be respectively

A H 2 , O 2 and N 2

B CO 2 , H 2 and O 2

C CO 2 , N 2 and H 2

D N 2 , CO 2 and O 2

Q 29.

Refer to the given flow chart regarding types of tissues in plants and select the incorrect
statement regarding L, M, N and O.

A Division in cells of L could result in secondary growth of plant.

B M could store waste products of plant such as gum, resins, tannin, etc.

C In young dicotyledonous stems, N could be the chief supporting tissue and its cells
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are filled with protoplasm.

D O could be present at margins of some leaves and resists tearing effect of the
wind.
v
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Q 30.
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Soil is a complex mixture. The given figure shows the percentage by volume of different
soil components as P, Q, R and S. What will you place at S?
a
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M
 A Air

B Water

C Organic matter

D Either air or water

Q 31.

Refer to the given figure and select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q and R.

A P could be an agranular membrane bound structure which is rich in DNA and

proteins.
B Q could occur in dividing nucleus and is made up of RNA and proteins.

C R could be a clear fluid material that stains mainly with basic dyes.

D All of these

Q 32.

Identify X and Y from the given figures and select the correct statement regarding them.
 A Matrix of X is composed of both organic and inorganic materials whereas that of Y
is entirely organic in nature.
B X occurs in the walls of trachea whereas Y serves as a storage site of calcium and
phosphate.
C Endoskeleton of Hippocampus is made up of X whereas in sting ray it is made up
of Y.
D Growth of both X and Y is unidirectional.

Q 33.

Read the given statements and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in any two
of them.
(i) Hybridisation between different species of same genus is known as _______
hybridisation.
(ii) _______ is a well known drought breed of cattle.
(iii) _______ is a popular fresh water fish variety consumed as food.
(iv) _______ is an exotic variety of bee that yields large amount of honey.

A (i) Interspecific, (ii) Malvi

B (i) Intervarietal, (iv) Apis florae

C (ii) Gir, (iii) Hilsa

D (ii) Sahiwal, (iv) Apis indica

Q 34.

Read the given paragraph where few words have been italicised. Make necessary
changes (wherever necessary) and select the incorrect option. There are four main
concentric layers of atmosphere that differ in density, temperature and composition. The
lowest layer troposphere is rich in moisture and the upper part of this layer is the
reservoir of life supporting gases. Stratosphere has ozone shield that protects us from
harmful UV radiations and here temperature changes immensely with height. In
mesosphere, temperature first decreases and then increases with height. Last is
thermosphere where temperature increases with height.

A Density should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned.

B Upper should be replaced by lower.

C Immensely should not be changed as it is correctly mentioned.

D Positions of increases and decreases should be interchanged.

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Q 35.

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Select the incorrect statements regarding the organelles shown in the figures X and Y.

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(i) X could function as the centre around which yolk is deposited in oocytes.
(ii) Y could provide surface for synthesis of steroid hormones.
(iii) X plays an important role during metamorphosis in frog.
(iv) Both X and Y are single membrane bound and are absent in prokaryotic cells.
(v) Proteins synthesised at X are glycosylated at Y.

A (i), (ii) and (iv) only

B (ii), (iii) and (v) only

C (iii) and (v) only

D (ii), (iv) and (v) only

Q 36.

Identify X, Y and Z in the given table and select the correct option.

Mode of
Disease Causative agent
transmission
Measles X Droplet infection
Haemophilus
Y Sputum of patient
influenzae
Dum-Dum
Z Bite of sandfly
fever

A X could be Rubeola virus whereas Y could be Pneumonia.

B X could be Varicella Zoster virus whereas Z could be Trypanosoma cruzi.

C Y could be tuberculosis whereas Z could be Leishmania donovani.

D X could be Rubeola virus, Y could be whooping cough and Z could be

Trypanosoma gambiense.

Q 37.
Refer to the given figures showing four different types of epithelial tissues (P, Q, R and
S) and select the correct option regarding these.

A P is found in mammary gland ducts and urethra.

B Q is found in organs involved in secretion such as gastric and intestinal glands.

C R is found in ovaries and sperm producing tubules.

D S forms the outermost layer of intestine and gall bladder.

Q 38.

Refer to the given table regarding disease caused in cattle and select the correct option
regarding X, Y and Z.

Criterion XYZ
Caused due to virus
Can spread to humans
Causes ulceration in mouth

A X could be encephalitis and Y could be cowpox.

B Y could be amoebiasis and Z could be brucellosis.

C X could be rinderpest and Z could be rabies.

D Y could be rabies and Z could be cowpox.

Q 39.

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Column I Column II
(A) Pore bearing animals (i) Arthropoda
(B) Cnidoblasts (ii) Coelenterata
(C) Metameric segmentation (iii) Porifera
(D) Jointed legs (iv) Echinodermata
(E) Soft bodied animals (v) Mollusca
(F) Spiny skinned animals (vi) Annelida
 A (A)-(iv), (B)-(v), (C)-(i), (D)-(vi), (E)-(iii), (F)-(ii)

B (A)-(vi), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii), (E)-(v), (F)-(iii)

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C (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(vi), (D)-(i), (E)-(v), (F)-(iv)

D (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(vi), (E)-(v), (F)-(iii)

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Q 40.

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Which of the following analogies are incorrect?
(i) Acute disease : Cough :: Chronic disease : Typhoid
(ii) Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone : Grave's disease :: Hyposecretion of thyroid

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hormone : Myxoedema
(iii) Virus : Chicken pox :: Bacteria : Tuberculosis
ha
(iv) Communicable disease : Scurvy :: Noncommunicable disease : Cancer

A (i) and (ii) only

So

B (i) and (iv) only

C (ii) and (iv) only

D (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Q 41.

The process shown in the given figure is also responsible for

A Replacement of internalised membrane by the fusion of the vesicle with the cell
membrane
B Internalising solid particles and small molecules

C Formation of phagosome

D Carrying segments of cell membrane into the cytoplasm.

Q 42.
Given below is a list of crops. How many of these are rabi and kharif crops respectively?

Wheat, Soybean, Pea, Cotton, Groundnut,

Mustard, Linseed, Gram, Maize, Paddy

A 6, 4

B 4, 6

C 5, 5

D 7, 3

Q 43.

Identify the type of plant tissue from the given statements (I - III) and select the correct
option regarding it.
I. Cells of the tissue are living and have localised thickening in corners.
II. It occurs mostly in aerial parts of the plants restricted to the outer layers.
III. It is the chief mechanical tissue of the young parts of the plant.

A Cells of the tissue manufacture sugar and may store it as starch.

B Cells of the tissue act as water storage tissue in succulent plants.

C Cells of the tissue serve as packing tissues in between the other tissues.

D Cells of the tissue provides a protective covering around seeds and nuts.

Q 44.

Identify organisms W, X, Y and Z from the given table and select the correct option.

Organism Characteristic
Cell wall is
Unicellular Eukaryotic made up of Autotrophic
chitin
W
X
Y
Z

W X Y Z
A Physarum Diatom Rhizopus Riccia
 B Dinoflagellate Streptomyces Ectocarpus Azolla

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C Chlamydomonas Paramecium Agaricus Equisetum

D Mycobacterium Giardia Ulva Sargassum

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Q 45.

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Ratnika observed T.S. of stems of two different plants sunflower (X) and maize (Y) under
the microscope and made the following diagrams.

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So

Select the correct statement regarding them.

A X belongs to plant in which flowers are trimerous whereas Y belongs to plant in

which flowers are pentamerous.
B X belongs to plant in which leaves show parallel venation whereas Y belongs to
plant in which leaves show reticulate venation.
C X belongs to plant which has fibrous root system whereas Y belongs to plant
having tap root system.
D Vascular bundles are of open type in X whereas in Y they are of closed type.

Achievers Section
Q 46.

A sound wave is represented by the following graphs.

Which of the following gives the speed of propagation of the wave?

A ab
 B

Q 47.

Consider an isolated system of three particles of masses 2M, m and M placed at points
P, Q and R with PQ = 1/2(QR) as shown in the figure. m is much-much smaller than M
and at time t = 0, they are all at rest. At subsequent times before any collision takes
place,

A m will remain at rest

B m will move towards M

C m will move towards 2M

D m will have oscillatory motion.

Q 48.

Study the given graphs carefully.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A The melting point of substance P is 200°C.

B The boiling point of substance Q is 50°C.

C At point 'x', the substance Q exists in both liquid and gaseous states while at point
'd', the substance P exists in liquid state only.
D All of these

Q 49.

Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the correct option regarding it.
I. (A) Animal shows radial symmetry - Go to II
(B) Animal shows bilateral symmetry - Go to III
II. (A) Acoelomate animal - P
(B) Coelomate animal - Q
III. (A) Anus develops prior to mouth in the embryo - R
(B) Mouth develops prior to anus in the embryo - S

A P could be Spongilla that reproduces asexually by formation of gemmule.

B Q could be Ophiothrix having body surface covered by mesodermal endoskeleton of

calcareous spines.
C R could be Dugesia having an incomplete digestive tract.

D S could be Milvus that respires through lungs.

Q 50.
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Refer to the
given flow chart

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representing
nitrogen cycle in nature and identify the processes W, X, Y and Z.

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So
Select the option that correctly matches microorganism involved in processes W, X, Y
and Z.

W X Y Z
A Pseudomonas Clostridium Nitrosomonas Rhizobium

B Rhizobium Nitrococcus Putrefying bacteria Pseudomonas

C Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter Pseudomonas Clostridium

D Rhizobium Putrefying bacteria Penicillium Nitrocystis

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Answers
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Science
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1.B, 2.B, 3.B, 4.D, 5.D, 6.C, 7.A, 8.A, 9.D, 10.C, 11.C, 12.A, 13.D, 14.A, 15.C, 16.A, 17.D,
18.B, 19.C, 20.C, 21.C, 22.B, 23.C, 24.A, 25.C, 26.C, 27.D, 28.B, 29.C, 30.D, 31.D, 32.B,
33.A, 34.C, 35.B, 36.A, 37.B, 38.C, 39.C, 40.B, 41.A, 42.C, 43.A, 44.C, 45.D,
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Achievers Section
46.C, 47.C, 48.D, 49.B, 50.B,
ha
So