technical general (question bank) CPL/ATPL DGCA-India /JAA/ FAA

1. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

a. lift, weight, thrust, & drag
b. lift, weight, gravity, & thrust
c. lift, gravity, power, & friction

2. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s
a. lift, airspeed, & drag
b. lift, airspeed, & CG
c. lift & airspeed but not drag

3. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the

a. angle of incidence of the wing
b. amount of airflow above & below the wing
c. distribution of pressures acting on the wing

4. When the angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will
a. have very limited movement
b. move aft along the airfoil surface
c. remain unaffected

5. In theory, if the angle of attack & other factors remain constant & the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be
a. the same as at the lower speed
b. two times greater than at the lower speed
c. four times greater than at the lower speed

6. Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane

in steady-state level flight?
a. These forces are equal
b. Thrust is greater than drag & weight & lift are equal
c. Thrust is greater than drag & lift is greater than weight

6. To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be

flown at
a. the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack
b. a lower true airspeed & a greater angle of attack
c. a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

7. What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude

while the airspeed is being decreased?
a. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag
b. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift
c. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag

8. In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite

drag will become
a. twice as great
b. half as great
c. four times greater

9. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio,
total drag of an airplane
a. decreases because of lower parasite drag
b. increases because of increased induced drag
c. increases because of increased parasite drag

10. During the transition from straight-&-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is
increased & lift
a. is momentarily decreased
b. remains the same
c. is momentarily increased

11. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

a. force acting perpendicular to the relative wind
b. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing
c. reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber

12. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the
a. negative air pressure below & a vacuum above the wing’s surface
b. vacuum below the wing’s surface & greater air pressure above the wing’s surface
c. higher air pressure below the wing’s surface & lower air pressure above the wing’s surface

13. Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?
a. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude
b. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude
c. An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed ton generate sufficient lift to maintain
altitude
14. Which statement is the relative to changing angle of attack?
a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing , & decrease drag
b. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag
c. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, & increase drag

15. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to & the force of drag acts parallel to the
a. chord line
b. flightpath
c. longitudinal axis

16. Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all
a. upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces
b. rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces
c. forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces

17. Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag?

a. Induced drag is created entirely by air resistance
b. All aerodynamic drag is created entirely by the production of lift
c. Induced drag is a by-product of lift & is greatly affected by changes is airspeed

18. Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?

a. Altitude
b. Airspeed
c. Angle of attack

19. At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will
a. have its maximum L/D ratio
b. have its minimum L/D ratio
c. be developing its maximum coefficient of lift

20. At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane’s maximum
a. endurance
b. glide range
c. coefficient of lift

21. If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10 deg, how much altitude will it lose in 1 mile?
a. 240 ft
b. 480 ft
c. 960 ft
22. How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8 deg?
a. 440 ft
b. 880 ft
c. 1,320 ft

23. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum
a. gain in altitude over a given distance
b. range & maximum distance glide
c. coefficient of lift & minimum coefficient of drag

24. The L/D ratio at a 2 deg angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a
a. 9.75 deg angle of attack
b. 10.5 deg angle of attack
c. 16.5 deg angle of attack

25. The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
a. ultimate load factor
b. positive limit load factor
c. airspeed range for normal operations

26. The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the
a. upper limit of the yellow arc
b. upper limit of the green arc
c. blue radial line

27. In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the
a. CG is too far rearward & rotation is around the longitudinal axis
b. CG is too far rearward & rotation is around the CG
c. spin is entered before the stall is fully developed

28. If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its
a. vertical axis
b. lateral axis
c. longitudinal axis

29. An airplane will stall at the same

a. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
b. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
c. angle of attack & attitude with relation to the horizon
30. Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its
a. rudder
b. elevator
c. ailerons

31. If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward & released, the airplane displays
a. positive dynamic stability
b. positive static stability
c. neutral dynamic stability

32. If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward & released, the airplane displays
a. neutral longitudinal static stability
b. positive longitudinal static stability
c. neutral longitudinal dynamic stability

32. Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

a. bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper
b. pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper
c. Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper

33. Which is correct with respect to rate & radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude?
a. For a specific angle of bank & airspeed, the rate & radius of turn will not vary
b. To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased
c. The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate & larger the radius of turn regardless of the angle of bank

33. To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the decrease in the
a. forces opposing the resultant component of drag
b. vertical component of lift
c. horizontal component of lift

34. If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack
a. & angle of bank must be decreased
b. must be increased or angle of bank decreased
c. must be decreased or angle of bank increased

35. For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
a. is constant & the stall speed increases
b. varies with the rate of turn
c. is constant & the stall speed decreases

36. Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the
a. rate of turn
b. angle of bank
c. true airspeed

37. If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60 deg banked turn, the load factor will
a. increase as well as the stall speed
b. decrease & the stall speed will increase
c. remain the same but the radius of turn will increase

38. Select the correct statement regardless stall speeds

a. Power-off stalls occur at higher airspeeds with the gear & flaps down
b. In a 60 deg bank the airplane stalls at a lower airspeed with the gear up
c. Power- on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks

39. Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall
a. 10 knots higher in a power-on 60 deg bank with gear & flaps up than with gear & flaps down
b. 25 knots lower in power-off, flaps-up, 60 deg bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration
c. 10 knots higher in a 45 deg bank, power-on stall than in a wing-level stall with flaps up

40. What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?
a. 66 knots
b. 74 knots
c. 84 knots

41. To increase the rate of turn & at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should
a. maintain the bank & decrease airspeed
b. increase the bank & decrease airspeed
c. Decrease the bank & Increase airspeed

42. As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift

a. decreases & the horizontal component of lift increases
b. increases & the horizontal component of lift decreases
c. decreases & the horizontal component of lift remains constant
43. Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?
a. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed
b. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed
c. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick
44. The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing & the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as
a. load factor & directly affects stall speed
b. aspect load & directly affects stall speed
c. load factor & has no relation with stall speed

45. Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time
a. divided by the total weight of the aircraft
b. multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft
c. divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft

46. In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to
a. increase
b. decrease
c. not vary

47. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60 deg
constant-altitude bank, the total load would be
a. 3,000 pounds
b. 4,000 pounds
c. 12,000 pounds

48. While maintaining a constant angle of bank & altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will
a. decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor
b. decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor
c. increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

49. While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would
a. remain constant regardless of air density & the resultant lift vector
b. vary depending upon speed & air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately
c. vary depending upon the resultant lift vector

50. What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60 deg to 80 deg
a. 3 Gs
b. 3.5 Gs
c. 4 Gs

51. If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?
a. Limited acrobatics, excluding spins
b. Limited acrobatics, including spins (if required)
c. Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins

52. Stall speed is affected by

a. weight, load factor, & power
b. load factor, angle of attack, & power
c. angle of attack, weight, & air density

53. The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

a. changes in air density
b. variations in flight altitude
c. variations in airplane loading

54. Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when is
a. center of gravity moves lift
b. center of gravity moves forward
c. elevator trim is adjusted nosedown

55. The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon
a. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed
b. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed
c. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed

56. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of
a. weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude
b. dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, & pitch attitude
c. weight & pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure & bank angle

57. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach & landing is to
a. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
b. provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed
c. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made

58. The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease

a. the drag
b. landing speed
c. the lift of the wing

59. Both lift & drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended?
a. Flaps
 b. Spoilers
c. Slats

60. A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the
a. wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root
b. wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing up
c. center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root & tip

61. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the
a. right around the vertical axis, & to the left around the longitudinal axis
b. left around the vertical axis, & to the right around the longitudinal axis
c. left around the vertical axis, & to the left around the longitudinal axis

62. An airplane leaving ground effect will

a. experience a reduction in ground friction & require a slight power reduction
b. experience an increase in induced drag & require more thrust
c. require a lower angle attack to maintain the same lift coefficient

63. To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires
a. a lower angle of attack
b. the same angle of attack
c. a greater angle of attack

64. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
a. increase, & induced drag will decrease
b. decrease, & parasite drag will increase
c. increase, & induced drag will increase

65. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence

a. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll
b. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll
c. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane airplane is heavy, clean, & fast

66. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
a. being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake
b. maintaining extra speed on take-off & climbout
c. extending the takeoff roll & not rotating until well beyond the jet’s rotation point

67. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead & at your altitude?
a. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet
b. Slow your airspeed to VA & maintain altitude & course
c. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet & perpendicular to the course

68. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
a. Past the point where the jet touched down
b. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point
c. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down

69. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
a. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown
b. Stay below & to one side of its final approach flightpath
c. Stay well below its final approach flightpath & land at least 2,000 feet behind

70. During aerotow of glider that weighs 940 pounds, which towrope tensile strength
would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?
a. 752 pounds
b. 1,500 pounds
c. 2,000 pounds

71. That portion of the glider’s total drag created by the production of lift is called
a. induced drag, & is not affected by changes in airspeed
b. induced drag, & is greatly affected by changes in airspeed
c. parasite drag, & is greatly affected by changes in airspeed

72. The best L/D ratio of a glider occurs when parasite drag is
a. equal to induced drag
b. less than induced drag
c. greater than induced drag

73. At a given airspeed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift & drag
of a glider
a. Lift & drag will decrease
b. Lift will increase but drag will decrease 1,500 pounds
c. Lift & drag will increase

74. If the airspeed of a glider is increased from 45 MPH to 90 MPH, the parasite drag
will be
a. two times greater
b. four times greater
c. six times greater
 75. If the indicated airspeed of a glider is decreased from 90 MPH to 45 MPH, the
induced drag will be
a. four times less
b. two times greater
c. four times greater

76. Which is true regarding wing camber of a glider’s airfoil? The camber is
a. the same on both the upper & lower wing surface
b. less on the upper wing surface than it is on the lower wing surface
c. greater on the upper wing surface than it is on the lower wing surface

77. If the glider’s radius of turn is 175 feet at 40 MPH, what would the radius of turn
be if the TAS is increased to 80 MPH while maintaining a constant angle of bank?
a. 350 feet
b. 525 feet
c. 700 feet

78. With regard to the effects of spoilers & wing flaps, which is true if the glider’s
pitch attitude is held constant when such devices are being operated? (Disregard negative flap angles above neutral position) Retracting flaps
a. will reduce the glider’s stall speed
b. or extending spoiler’s will increase the glider’s rate of descent
c. or extending spoiler’s will decrease the glider’s rate of descent

79. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing
will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the glider
a. regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
b. unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed
c. unless the pitch attitude is on or below the neutral horizon

80. What force causes the glider to turn in flight?

a. Vertical component of lift
b. Horizontal component of lift
c. Positive yawing movement of the rudder

81. The best L/D ratio of a glider is a value that

a. varies depending upon the weight being carried
b. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes
c. remains constant & is independent of the weight being carried

82. A glide ratio of 22:1 with respect to the air mass will be
a. 11:1 in a tailwind & 44:1 in a headwind
b. 22:1 regardless of wind direction & speed
c. 11:1 in a headwind & 44:1 in a tailwind

83. Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The
engine continues to run with no interruption; this
a. is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off
b. should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position
c. is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong

84. A way to detect a broken magneto primary groundling lead is to

a. idle the engine & momentarily turn the ignition off
b. add full power, while holding the brakes, & momentarily turn off the ignition
c. run on one magneto, lean the mixture, & look for a rise in manifold pressure

85. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has
been turned off its
a. carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs
b. a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing
c. a broken magneto ground wire

86. If the ground wire between the magneto & the ignition switch becomes
disconnected, the engine
a. will not operate on one magneto
b. cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position
c. could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder

87. Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft

a. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment
b. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment
c. throttle is advanced very abruptly

88. The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the

a. throttle
b. manifold pressure
c. mixture control
 89. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
a. volume of fuel & volume of air entering the cylinder
b. weight of fuel & weight of air entering the cylinder
c. weight of fuel & weight of air entering the carburetor

90. The mixture control can be adjusted, which

a. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes
b. regulates the amount of air flow through the carburetor’s venturi
c. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs

91. The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which

a. cylinder head temperatures are the coolest
b. the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting
c. a given power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle setting

92. What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight
altitude increases
a. The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases & the amount of fuel
decreases
b. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases & the amount of fuel increases
c. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases & the amount of fuel remains constant

93. Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude
because the amount of fuel
a. decreases while the volume of air decreases
b. remains constant while the volume of air decreases
c. remains constant while the density of air decreases

94. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to
a. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density
b. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density
c. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure & density of the air

95. At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the

a. engine to overheat
b. fouling of spark plugs
c. engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased

96. Leaving the carburetor heat on while taking off

a. leans the mixture for more power on takeoff
b. will decrease the takeoff distance
c. will increase the ground roll

97. Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor
heat?
a. It enriches the fuel/air mixture
b. It leans the fuel/air mixture
c. It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture

98. Applying carburetor heat will

a. not affect the mixture
b. lean the fuel/air mixture
c. enrich the fuel/air mixture

99. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when

a. the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively & evenly
b. an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power
c. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder

100. Detonation cane be caused by

a. a “rich” mixture
b. low engine temperatures
c. using a lower grade of fuel than recommended

101. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark
ignition is known as
a. instantaneous combustion
b. detonation
c. pre-ignition

102. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

a. there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture
b. the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring
c. the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion

103. Detonation can be caused by

a. a “rich” mixture
b. low engine temperatures
c. using a lower grade fuel than recommended
 104. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
a. a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter
b. the circulation of lubricating oil
c. the proper Freon/compressor output ratio

105. A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that

may be caused by
a. rapid opening & closing of the throttle
b. carburetor ice forming on the throttle valve
c. operating with an excessively rich fuel/air mixture

106. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

a. a defective bearing
b. the oil level being too low
c. operating with an excessively rich mixture

107. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed

propeller?
a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged
b. A high blade, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag & allows more engine power for takeoffs
c. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM & in turn the propeller RPM

108. In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers & normally-aspirated

engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on
the engine components? When power is being
a. decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure
b. increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure
c. increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure

109. Propeller efficiency is the

a. ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower
b. actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution
c. ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch

110. A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given

combination of
a. altitude & RPM
b. airspeed & RPM
c. airspeed & altitude

111. The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is
that it
a. permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight
b. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight
c. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight

112. To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant –

peed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure &
a. increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle
b. decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle
c. decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle

113. To develop maximum power & thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set
to a blade angle that will produce a
a. large angle of attack & low RPM
b. small angle of attack & high RPM
c. large angle of attack & high RPM

114. For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable- pitch propeller should be set at a
a. small angle of attack & high RPM
b. large angle of attack & high RPM
c. large angle of attack & high RPM

115. Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating

systems to minimize the possibility of
a. exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit
b. a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system
c. a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater

116. During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special
attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by
a. congealed oil from the crankcase
b. moisture from the outside air which has frozen
c. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed & subsequently frozen

117. Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations?
a. The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated
b. The cabin area should not be preheated with portable heaters
c. Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes
 118. For gyroplanes with constant- speed propellers, the first indication of carburetor
icing is usually
a. a decrease in engine RPM
b. a decrease in manifold pressure
c. engine roughness followed by a decrease in engine RPM

119. Coning is caused by the combined forces of

a. drag, weight, & translational lift
b. lift & centrifugal force
c. flapping & centrifugal force

120. The forward speed of a rotorcraft is restricted primarily by

a. dissymmetry of lift
b. transverse flow effect
c. high-frequency vibrations

121. When hovering, a helicopter tends to move in the direction of tall rotor thrust.
This statement is
a. true: the movement is called transverse tendency
b. true: the movement is called translating tendency
c. false: the movement is opposite the direction of tall rotor thrust, & is called translating tendency

122. The purpose of leading-lag (drag) hinges in a three-bladed, fully articulated

helicopter rotor system is to compensate for
a. Coriolis effect
b. dissymmetry of lift
c. blade flapping tendency

123. What happens to the helicopter as it experiences translating tendency?

a. It tends to dip slightly to the right as the helicopter approaches approximately 15 knots in takeoff
b. It gains increased rotor efficiency as air over the rotor system reaches approximately 15 knots
c. It moves in the direction of tail rotor thrust

124. The unequal lift across the rotor disc that occurs in horizontal flight as a result
of the difference in velocity of the air over the advancing half of the disc area &
the air passing over the retreating half of the disc area is known as
a. coning
b. disc loading
c. dissymmetry of lift

125. The lift differential that exists between the advancing blade & the retreating
blade is known as
a. Coriolis effect
b. translational lift
c. dissymmetry of lift

126. Most helicopters, by design tend to drift to the right when hovering in a no-wind
condition. This statement is
a. false; helicopters have no tendency to drift, but will rotate in that direction
b. true; the most or cyclic pitch system of most helicopters is rigged forward, this with gyroscopic precession will overcome this tendency
c. true; the most or cyclic pitch system of most helicopters is rigged to the rigged to the left to overcome this tendency

127. When a rotorcraft transitions from straight-& level flight into a 30 deg bank
while maintaining a constant altitude, the total lift force must
a. increase & the load factor will increase
b. increase & the load factor will decrease
c. remain constant & the load factor will decrease

128. Cyclic control pressure is applied during flight that results in a maximum
increase in main rotor blade pitch angle at the “three o’clock” position. Which
way will the rotor disc tilt?
a. Aft
b. Left
c. Right

129. The primary purpose of the tail rotor system is to

a. assist in making coordinated turns
b. maintain heading during forward flight
c. counteract the torque effect of the main rotor

130. Can the tail rotor produce thrust to the left?

a. No; the right thrust can only be reduced, causing tail movement to the left
b. Yes; primarily so that hovering turns can be accomplished to the right
c. Yes; primarily to counteract the drag of the transmission during autorotation

131. The main rotor blades of a fully-articulated rotor system can

a. flap & feather collectively
b. flap, drag, & feather independently
c. feather independently, but cannot flap or drag

132. A reciprocating engine in a helicopter is more likely to stop due to in-flight

carburetor icing than will the same type engine in an airplane. This statement
a. has no basis in fact. The same type engine will run equally well in either aircraft
b. is true. The freewheeling unit will not allow windmilling (flywheel) effect to be exerted on a helicopter engine
c. is false. The clutch will immediately release the load from the helicopter engine under engine malfunctioning conditions

133. What is the primary purpose of the clutch?

a. It allows the engine to be started without driving the main rotor system
b. It provided disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation
c. It transmits engine power to the main rotor, tail rotor, generator/ alternator, & other accessories

134. What is the primary purpose of the freewheeling unit?

a. It allows the engine to be started without driving the main rotor system
b. It provides speed reduction between the engine, main rotor system, & tail rotor system
c. It provides disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation purposes

135. The main rotor blades of a semi-rigid rotor system can

a. flap & feather as a unit
b. flap, drag, & feather independently
c. feather independently, but cannot flap or drag

136. Rotorcraft climb performance is most adversely affected by

a. higher than standard temperature & low relative humidity
b. lower than standard temperature & high relative humidity
c. higher than standard temperature & high relative humidity

137. The most unfavorable combination of conditions for rotorcraft performance is

a. low density altitude, low gross weight, & calm wind
b. high density altitude, high gross weight, & calm wind
c. high density altitude, high gross weight, & strong wind

138. How does high density altitude affect rotorcraft performance?

a. Engine & rotor efficiency is reduced
b. Engine & rotor efficiency is increased
c. It increases rotor drag, which requires more power for normal flight

139. A medium-frequency vibration that suddenly occurs during flight could be

indicative of a defective
a. main rotor system
b. tail rotor system
c. transmission system

140. In most helicopters, medium-frequency vibrations indicate a defective

a. engine
b. main rotor system
c. tail rotor system

141. Abnormal helicopter vibrations in the low-frequency range are associated with
which system or component?
d. Tail rotor
e. Main rotor
f. Transmission

142. Helicopter low-frequency vibrations are always associated with the

g. main rotor
h. tail rotor
i. transmission

143. A high-frequency vibration that suddenly occurs during flight could be an

indication of a defective
a. transmission
b. freewheeling unit
c. main rotor system

144. Ground resonance is more likely to occur with helicopters that are equipped with
a. rigid rotor systems
b. semi-rigid rotor systems
c. fully articulated rotor systems

145. The proper action to initiate a quick stop is to apply

a. forward cyclic, while raising the collective & applying right antitorque pedal
b. aft cyclic, while raising the collective & apply left antitorque pedal
c. aft cyclic, while lowering the collective & applying right antitorque pedal

146. During the flare portion of a power-off landing, the rotor RPM tends to
a. remain constant
b. increase initially
c. decrease initially

147. Which would produce the slowest rotor RPM?

a. A vertical descent with power
b. A vertical descent without power
c. Pushing over after a steep climb

148. If the RPM is low & the manifold pressure is high, what initial corrective action
should be taken?
a. Increase the throttle
b. Lower the collective pitch
c. Raise the collective pitch

149. During climbing flight, the manifold pressure is low & the RPM is high. What
initial corrective action should be taken?
a. Increase the throttle
b. Decrease the throttle
c. Raise the collective pitch

150. During level flight, if the manifold pressure is high & the RPM is low, what
initial corrective action should be made?
d. Decrease the throttle
e. Increase the throttle
f. Lower the collective pitch

151. When operating a helicopter in conditions favorable for carburetor icing, the
carburetor heat should be
a. adjusted to keep the carburetor air temperature gauge indicating in the green arc at all times
b. OFF for takeoffs, adjusted to keep the carburetor air temperature gauge indicating in the green arc at all other times
c. OFF during takeoffs, approaches, & landings; adjusted to keep the carburetor air temperature gauge indicating in the green arc at all other times

152. As altitude increases, the VNE of a helicopter will

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same

153. The antitorque system fails during cruising flight & a powered approach landing
is commenced. If the helicopter yaws to the right just prior to touchdown, what
could the pilot do to help swing the nose to the left?
a. Increase the throttle
a. Decrease the throttle
b. Increase collective pitch

154. If antitorque failure occurred during cruising flight, what could be done to help
straighten out a left yaw prior to touchdown?
a. A normal running landing should be made
b. Make a running landing using partial power & left cyclic
c. Apply available throttle to help swing the nose to the right just prior to touchdown

155. Should a helicopter pilot ever be concerned about ground resonance during
takeoff?
a. No; ground resonance occurs only during an autorotative touchdown
b. Yes; although it is more likely to occur on landing, it can occur during takeoff
c. Yes; but only during slope takeoffs

156. An excessively steep approach angle & abnormally slow closure rate should be
avoided during an approach to a hover, primarily because
a. the airspeed indicator would be unreliable
b. a go-around would be very difficult to accomplish
c. settling with power could develop, particularly during the termination

157. During a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed
near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?
a. Ground resonance
b. Settling with power
c. Blade stall vibration

158. Which procedure will result in recovery from settling with power?
a. Increase collective pitch & power
b. Maintain constant collective pitch & increase throttle
c. Increase forward speed & reduce collective pitch

159. The addition of power in a setting with power situation produces an

a. increase in airspeed
b. even greater rate of descent
c. increase in cyclic control effectiveness