1. The exposure rate to a body 4 ft from a source of radiation is 16 R/hr.

What distance from the

source would be necessary to decrease the exposure to 6 R/hr?

a. 5 ft
b. 7 ft
c. 10 ft
d. 14 ft

2. If the exposure rate at 3 ft from fluoroscopic table is 40 mR/hr, what will be the exposure for
at a distance of 5 ft from the table?

a. 7 mR 
b. 12 mR
c. 14 mR
d. 24 mR

3. What is the approximate dose reduction to the radiographer if the distance from the patient
during fluoroscopy is doubled?

a. ½
b. 1/4
c. 1/8
d. 1/9

4. If a patient received 2,000 mrad during a 10-min fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose
rate? 

a. 0.2 rad/min 
b. 2.0 rad/min
c. 5 rad/min
d. 200 rad/min

5. A thermoluminscent dosimetry system would use which of the following crystals?

a. Silver bromide 
b. Sodium sulfite
c. Lithium fluoride 
d. Aluminum oxide

6. What is the most commonly employed detecting device for scattered radiation?

a. scintillation counter 
b. pocket dosimeter
c. Thermoluminescent dosimeter 
d. Ionization chamber

7. The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is;

a. ionization chamber b. scintillation camera

c. Photomultiplier d. photocathode
8. If an individual receives 50 mR while standing 4 ft from a source of radiation for 2 min, which
of the options listed below will most effectively reduce his/her radiation exposure to that source
of radiation?

a. Standing 3 ft for the source for 2 min

b. Standing 8 ft from the source for 2 min
c. Standing 5 ft from the source for 1 min
d. Standing 6 ft from the source for 2 min

Question; A Radiologist Technologist is doing a work with a radiation source that delivers a
dose rate of 25 mSv/hr at point one meter from the source

9. 9. How long can the technologist work at point A without exceeding the dose limit of 0.20
mSv?

a. 28.8 sec 
b. 18.6
c. 35.3 sec
d 14.4 sec

10. What is the dose rate at a point 2 meters from the source?

a. 12.5 mSv/hr 
b. 6.25 mSv/hr
c. 35.5 mSv/hr 
d. 5.25 mSv/hr

11. How long can he work at 2 meters from the source without exceeding the dose limit of 0.20
mSv?

a. 9.12 min
b. 4.35 min
c. 3.45 min 
d. 1.92 min

12. What is the dose rate of the Technologist 3 meters from point A? 

a. 20.8 mSv/hr
b. 27.8 mSv/hr
c. 2.78 mSv/hr 
d. 0.28 mSv/hr

13. How much dose will be received if he stays for two hours at 2 meters from the source? 

a. 12.5 mSv
b. 75 mSv
c. 50 mSv
d. 37.5 mSv
14. The dose rate for an x-ray 3 meters from the source is 150 mR/hr. What is the dose rate at a
distance of 4 meters? 

a. 8.437 mR/hr 
b. 8.437 mR/hr
c. 84.375 mR/hr
d 84 mR/hr

15. How many HVLS are required in order to reduce the intensity of a beam of monoenergetic
photons to less than 20 percent of its original value?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4 
d. 5

16. If the exposure rate to a body standing 5 ft from a radiation source is 10 mR/min, what will
be the dose rate to that body at a distance of 8 ft from the source?

a 25.6 mR/min 
b. 16 mR/min
c. 6.25 mR/min 
d. 3.9 mR/min

17. In which type of monitoring device do photons release electrons by their interaction with
air? 

a. film badge 
b. TLD
c. pocket dosimeter
d. OSL

18. All of the following statements regarding TLDs are true except, 

a. TLDs are reusable.

b. TLDs store energy.
c. The TLDs response is proportional to the quantity of radiation received. 
d. Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to light and emit a quantity of heat in response

19. The dose rate from a point 2 meters from the radiation source is 500 mR/hr. What is the
dose rate at a distance of 3.5 meters?

a. 160.34 mR/hr 
b. 159 mR/hr
c. 161 mR/hr 
d. 163.26 mR/hr

20. Which of the following personnel radiation monitors will provide an immediate reading?

a. TLD b. Film badge

c. Lithium fluoride d. pocket dosimeter
21. Which of the following personnel monitoring devices used in in diagnostic radiography is
considered to be the most sensitive and accurate?

a. TLD
b. Film badge
c. OSL
d. pocket dosimeter

22. The most efficient type of male gonadal shielding for use during fluoroscopy.

a. flat contact 
b. shaped contact
C. OSL 
d. cylindrical

23. Which term describes the amount of material required to reduce the intensity of the beam by
50% of its original value

a. LD 50/30 
b. half-life
c. Half value layer
d. 50% rule

24. How many half-value layers of filtration must be added to the primary beam to reduce its
intensity to less than 1% of its original value?

a. 9 
b. 7
c. 5
6. 6

25. If an equivalent dose of 240 mSv is received uniformly over a period of three hours, what is
the dose rate?

a. 720 mSv per hour 

b. 60 mSv per hour
c. 72 mSv per hour 
d. 80 mSv per hour

26. The dose rate 2 meters from a radiation source is 200 mR/hr. What will be the dose rate if a
person moves 1 meter nearer to the source?

a 1000 mR/hr 
b. 600 mR/hr
c. 800 mR/hr 
d. 400 mR/hr

27. How many half value layers are needed to reduce a dose rate of 4,000 mSv/hr to 125
mSv/hr?

a. 5  b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
28. Which type of shielding is suspended from the radiographic collimator to absorb the primary
beam photons before they reach the reproductive organs?

a. contact 
b. shadow
c. contour 
d. flat

29. Primary barriers must be at least how high?

a. 5 ft 
b. 6 ft
c. 7 ft
d. 8 ft

30. In which type of monitoring device do photons release electrons by their interaction with
air? 

a. film badge
b. TLD
c. ionization chamber 
d. pair production

31. Which of the following personnel must wear a radiation monitor?

1. Radiology department file room clerk

2. Radiographer
3. Administrative technologist

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

32. What material is used in thermoluminescnce dosimeters?

a. Lithium fluoride 
b. Silver halide
c. Sodium iodide 
d. Cesium iodide

33. The Philippines regulatory body in charge of safeguarding personnel and public from the
substances that make use of ionizing radiation. 

a. PNRI 
b. DOH
C. DOE
d. BHDT
34. A device for radiation detection and measurement that measures the amount of current flow
resulting from an interaction between ionizing radiation and suitable gas

a. Thermoluminescence type
b. Photographic emulsion
c. Scintillation counter type
d. lonization chamber

35. Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary
beam?

1. Half-value layer (HVL)

2. KV
3. mA

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

36. The generation of personnel radiation monitor devices depends on which of the following?

1. ionization 
2. thermoluminescence
3. resonance

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

37. Which records exposure by discharging a wire due to ionization of the air within a chamber? 

a. pocket dosimeter 
b. film badge
c. cutie pie
d. TLD

38. A laboratory technician is working with a radiactive source tha gives off a dose of 75 µSv/hr
at his work station Calculate how long the technician can work in the said source so that he will
not exceed the daily exposure limit of 0.20 mSv?

a. 2.67 hr
b. 0.367 hr
c. 3.67 hr 
d. 0.267 hr

39. The principle of operation of this instrument is the production of visible light which is
detected and measured.

a. Gas-filled detector  b. ionization chamber c. scintillation detector  d. film badge

40. Dose rate multiplied by exposure time equals, 

a. dose
b. distance
c. exposure
d. height

41. According to ICRP, the radiation dose limit for persons working with radiation is;

a. 50 mSv/yr 
b. 5 mSv/yr
c. 20 mSv/yr
d. 2 mSv/yr

42. A radiation measuring device using crystal which has to be heated in order to emit light
proportional to radiation absorbed dose.

a. Film badge 
b. GM counter
c. Scintillation detector
d. TLD

43. A laboratory technician is working with a radioactive source that gives off a dose rate of 60
µSv/hr at his station. Calculate how long the technician can work from the said source so that he
will not exceed the daily exposure limit of 0.2 mSv.

a. 4.23 hr
b. 4 hr
c. 3.33 hr
d. 2 hr

44. The annual dose limit for medical imaging personnel includes radiation from:

1. Medical x-ray check up 

2. Occupational exposure
3. Background radiation

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1, 2 and 3

45. Which is least likely to be considered as an x-ray detector?

a. Geiger-Muller counter
b. Scintillation detector
c. Photostimulable phosphor
d. Photomultiplier tube
46. Which of the following can be used as a monitoring device that records exposure to
radiation by recording a silver-halide-based latent image?

a. Pocket ionization chamber 

b. digital dosimeter
c. film badge 
d. TLD

47. Which of the following works on the principle of air ionization? 

a. TLD
b. photostimulable phosphor
c. Radiographic emulsion 
d. Geiger-Muller counter

48. Which of the following is a device used for measuring the quantity of ionizing radiation?

a. densitometer 
b. dosimeter
c. sensitometer
d. galvanometer

49. A system of dose limitation which state that no practice involving radiation shall be adopted
unless its introduction produces a positive net benefit.

a. ALARA
b. Justification
c. Optimization 
d. Dose Limit

50. How does a film badge distinguish between different types of radiation such as heat, light, x-
ray, neutrons, etc?

a. different sept and contrast film chips are used

b. different filters are used 
c. different thicknesses of plastic are used 
d. film badges cannot distinguish between radiations

51. Types of gonadal shielding include which of the following?

1. flat contact
2. shaped contact (contour)
3. shadow

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
52. What is the most commonly employed detecting device for scattered radiation?

a. Scintillation counter 
b. Pocket dosimeter
c. TLD
d. lonization chamber

53. What term describes the fraction of the time that a radiation beam is directed at a specific
barrrier?

a. workload factor
b. attenuation factor
c. Use factor
d. Occupancy factor

54. What is the primary purpose of placing filter in the primary beam of a diagnostic radiographic
unit?

a. increasing the number of high-energy photons that reach the patient.

b. decreasing the number of high-energy photons that reach the patient. 
c. increasing the number of low-energy photons that reach the patient.
d. decreasing the number of low-energy photons that reach the patient.

55. Which of the following sets of technical factors would most likely produce the least patient
exposure?

a. 68 kVp, 100 mA, 0.12 s 

b. 74 kVp, 100 mA, 0.12 s
c. 74 kVp, 100 mA, 0.06 s 
d. 74 kVp, 200 mA, 0.12 s

56. Which of the following intensifying screen relative speeds would produce the minimum
patient exposures? 

a. 40
b. 100
c. 250
d 400

57. Which of the following projections would afford the greatest radiation protection to the lens
of the patient's eye?

a. left lateral skull 

b. right lateral skull
c. PA skull 
d. AP skull
58. What are the purposes of a collimator?

1. reduce secondary scattered radiation

2. filtration
3. restricting the primary beam to the area of interest

a. 1 and 2 only 
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

59. What is the minimum distance for mobile radiographic exposure switch cord?

a. 1 ft 
b. 5 ft
c. 6 ft 
d. 20 ft

60. What term describes filtration that is part of the x-ray tube, housing and collimator?

a. inherent  b. added c. Compensating  d. Total 

61. What is the maximum time permitted on a fluoroscopic timer before it can be reset?

a. 2 minutes 
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes 
d. 15 minutes

62. Which of the following structures would receive the greatest radiation exposure from a
abdomen? 

a. liver
b. stomach
c. Kidneys
d. Urinary bladder

63. Which projection affords the greatest protection to the kidneys? 

a. left lateral abdomen

b. right lateral abdomen 
c. PA abdomen 
d. AP abdomen

64. What is the minimum source-to skin distance for mobile fluoroscopic equipment?

a 12 cm (5") 
b. 30 cm (12")
c. 38 cm (15") 
d. 50 cm (20")
65. Acceptable method (s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is/are:

1. suspended respiration 
2. short exposure time
3. patient instruction

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 1,2 and 3

66. What minimum total amount of filtration (inherent plus added) is required in x-ray equipment 

a. 2.5 mm Al equivalent
b. 3.5 mm Al equivalent
c. 2.5 mm Cu equivalent
d. 3.5 mm Cu equivalent

67.  What is the minimum source-to skin distance for stationary fluoroscopic equipment? 

a. 12 cm (5 in)
b. 30 cm (12 in)
c. 38 cm (15 in)
d. 50 cm (20 in)

68. Guidelines for the use of protective shielding state that gonadal shielding should be used

1. if patient has reasonable reproductive potential 

2. when the gonads are within 5 cm of the collimated
3. when tight collimation is not possible

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only

69. Sources of secondary radiation include except

1. background radiation
2. leakage radiation
3. scattered radiation

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

70. All of the following affect patient dose except 

a. inherent filtration  b. added filtration C. SID d. Focal spot size

71. How does filtration affect the primary beam? 

a. it increases the average energy of primary beam

b. it decreases the average energy of the primary beam
c. it makes the primary beam more penetrating
d. it increases the intensity of the primary beam.

72. How does the rare earth intensifying screen contribute to lowering the patient dose? 

1. it permits the use of lower mAs.

2. it permits the use of lower KVP
3. it eliminates the need for patient shielding 

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only

73. What is the minimum fluoroscopic tabletop exposure rate?

a. 0.1 R/mA min

b. 2.1 R/MA min
c. 32 R/mA min 
d. 10 R/mA min

74. What is the required protective shielding of a conventional fluoroscopic barrier for operation
at less than 125 kVp?

a. 1.0 mm Pb/Eq
b. 2.0 mm Pb/Eq
c. 3.0 mm Pb/Eq
d. 4.0 mm Pb/Eq

75. Which of the following would be the best choice for an assistant when a pediatric patient
must be held during exposure? 

a. student radiographer
b. radiology department aide
c. Nurse
d. Parent

76. Which of the following groups of exposure factors would deliver the lowest patient dose?

a 2.5 mAs, 100 kVp, 400-speed screen

b. 10 mAs, 90 kVp, 200-speed screen
c. 10 mAs, 70 kVp, 800-speed screen 
d. 10 mAs, 80 kVp. 400-speed screen

77. The collimator light and the actual irradiated area must be accurate to within;

a. 2% of the SID  b. 5% of the SID c. 10% of the SID  d. 15% of the SID
78. What is the minimum thickness for fluoroscopic protective aprons? 

a. 0.15 mm Pb/Eqc
b. 0.25 mm Pb/Eq
c. 2.5 mm Al/Eq
d. 2.5 mm Pb/Eq 

79. Inherent and added filtration in the x-ray tube function to;

a. reduce patient skin dose 

b. shorten scale of contrast
c. Reduce scatter radiation
d. Soften the x-ray beam

80. Which of the following function (s) to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the
film?

1. Grid devices
2 Restricted focal spots
3. Beam restrictors

a. 1 only
c. 1 and 3 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

81. What is the minimum thickness for fluoroscopic protective gloves?

a. 0.15 mm Pb/Eq
b. 0,25 mm Pb/Eq
c. 2.5 Al/Eq
d. 2.5 Pb/Eq

82. Which of the following may be used to control the production of scatter radiation?

1. restricted field size

2. use of optimal kVp 
3. use of grids

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

83. How can the radiographer reduce the amount of scatter radiation generated during a
radiographic examination?

1. use of optimum kVp

2. collimated closely 
3. use a grid
a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only 3
d. 1, 2 and

84. Which of the following result (s) from the restriction of the x-ray beam?

1. less scatter radiation production 

2. less patient hazard
3. less radiographic contrast

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

85. The primary function of filtration is to reduce 

a. patient skin dose

b. operator dose
c. Film noise 
d. Scatter radiation

86. The most efficient type of male gonadal shielding for use during fluoroscopy is, 

a. flat contact 
b. shaped contact
c. Shadow
d. Cynical

87. Methods of reducing radiation exposure to patients and/or personnel include

a. beam restriction 
b. shielding
c. high-kVp, low mAs factors

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

88. Factors that determine the amount of scattered radiation produced include

1. radiation quality 
2. field size
3. pathology

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3
89. Which of the following technical factors would result in the lowest patient exposure dose? 

a. 120 kVp, 3 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed

b. 120 kVp. 1.5 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed 
c. 102 kVp, 6 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed
d. 102 kVp, 3 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed 

90. Patient exposure can be minimized by using which of the following?

1. accurate positioning
2. high-kVp, low mAs factors
3. rare earth screens

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

91. Which of the following are related to patient exposure dose?

1. film speed
2. intensifying screen speed
3. focal spot size

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only 
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only

92. Types of secondary radiation barriers include

1. control booth 
2. lead aprons
3. x-ray tube housing

a. 2 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

93. Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a; 

a. secondary barrier
b. primary barrier
c. Leakage barrier
d. Scattered barrier
94.  Which type of shielding is suspended from the radiographic collimator to absorb the primary
beam photons before they reach the reproductive organs?

a. shaped contact 
b. contour
c. Flat 
d. Shadow

95. How does the use of an appropriate back-up reductions in patient exposure dose?

1. it eliminates the possibility of tube overload terminating an exposure. 

2. it eliminates the possibility of a repeated exposure
3. it backs up the penetrating ability of the beam, thus assuring sufficient

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

96. If all factors remain the same, which of the following would result in the lowest patient
exposure dose?

a. 10 mAs, 8:1 grid

b. 12 mAs, 8:1 grid
c. 10 mAs, 10:1 grid
d. 12 mAs, 10:1 grid

97. For exposure to 1 rad of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result the
greatest dose to the individual?

a. external source of 1 MeV x-rays 

b. external source of diagnostic x-rays
c. Internal source of alpha particles 
d. External source of beta particles

98. What is the relationship between film/screen combination and patient exposure dose?

a. faster film/screen combinations increase patient dose. 

b. faster film/screen combinations decrease patient dose.
c. slower film/screen combinations increase patient dose. 
d. slower film/screen combinations decrease patient dose.

99. Which of the following sets of technical factors would most likely produce the least patient
exposure?

a. 68 kVp. 100 mA, 0.12 s 

b. 74 kVp, 100 mA, 0.12 s
c. 74 kVp, 100 mA, 0.06 s
d. 74 kVp, 200 mA, 0.12 s
100. Which of the following intensifying screen relative speeds would produce the minimum
patient exposures?

a. 40
b. 100
c. 250 
d. 400

101. Which of the following projections would afford the greatest radiation protection to the lens
of the patient's eye?

a. left lateral skull 

b. right lateral skull
c. PA skull 
d. AP skull

102. What are the purposes of a collimator?

1. reduce secondary scattered radiation 

2. filtration
3. restricting the primary beam to the area of interest

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

103. What is the minimum distance for mobile radiographic exposure switch cord?

a. 1 ft  b. 5 ft
c. 6 ft d. 20 ft

104. What is the maximum time permitted on a fluoroscopic timer before it can be
reset?

a. 2 minutes  b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes

105. Which of the following structures would receive the greatest radiation exposure
from a PA abdomen?

a. liver  b. stomach
c. Kidneys  d. Urinary bladder

106. Which projection affords the greatest protection to the kidneys?

a. left lateral abdomen b. right lateral abdomen

c. PA abdomen d. AP abdomen
107. Radiation therapy wherein the source of radiation is placed within or close to the
tumor.

a. teletherapy  b. brachytherapy
c. crossfire treatment  d. Linear accelerator

108. The source of radiation in nuclear medicine procedures.

a. scintillation detectors b. Geiger-Muller counter

c. Gamma camera d. Radiopharmaceuticals

109. The "rotate only" CT scan types

a. First generation  b. Second generation

c. Third generation  d. Fourth generation

110. The determination of the location and extent of the tumor as related to the
surrounding anatomic landmarks is known as;

a. simulation  b. Localization
c. field selection  d. verification

111. Which of the following are types of implants used in brachytherapy?

1. interarticular
2. interstitial
3. intracavitary

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 ony
d. 1, 2 and 3

112. Acceptable method (s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is/are:

1. suspended respiration 
2. short exposure time
3. patient instruction

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 1,2 and 3
113. What is the minimum source-to skin distance for stationary fluoroscopic
equipment?

a. 12 cm (5 in) 
b. 30 cm (12 in)
c. 38 cm (15 in) 
d. 50 cm (20 in)

114. All of the following affect patient dose except 

a. inherent filtration
b. added filtration
c. SID
d. Focal spot size

115. How does the rare earth intensifying screen contribute to lowering the patient
dose?

1. it permits the use of lower mAs. 

2. it permits the use of lower kVp
3. it eliminates the need for patient shielding

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only.
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 2 and 3 only

116. Which of the following would be the best choice for an assistant when a pediatric
patient must be held during exposure? 

a. student radiographer
b. radiology department aide
c. Nurse 
d. Parent

117. Which of the following groups of exposure factors would deliver the lowest patient
dose? 

a. 2.5 mAs, 100 kVp, 400-speed screen 

b. 10 mAs, 90 kVp, 200-speed screen 
c. 10 mAs, 70 kVp, 800-speed screen
d. 10 mAs, 80 kVp, 400-speed screen

118. What is the minimum thickness for fluoroscopic protective aprons?

a. 0.15 mm Pb/Eq  b. 0.25 mm Pb/Eq c. 2.5 mm Al/Eq d. 2.5 mm Pb/Eq

119. Inherent and added filtration in the x-ray tube function to;

a. reduce patient skin dose 

b. shorten scale of contrast
c. Reduce scatter radiation
d. Soften the x-ray beam

120. Which of the following function (s) to reduce the amount of scattered radiation
reaching the film?

1. Grid devices
2. Restricted focal spots 
3. Beam restrictors

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

121. Which of the following may be used to control the production of scatter radiation?

1. restricted field size 

2. use of optimal kVp
3. use of grids

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

122. How can the radiographer reduce the amount of scatter radiation generated during
a radiographic examination?

1. use of optimum kVp

2. collimated closely
3. use a grid

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3
123. Which of the following result (s) from the restriction of the x-ray beam?

1. less scatter radiation production 

2. less patient hazard
3. less radiographic contrast

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

124. Which of the following procedures would most likely contribute higher gonadal
dose to a female than a male?

a. AP abdomen 
b. AP knee
c. Lateral hip
d. PA chest

125. Which of the following sets of technical factors would most likely produce the
greatest patient exposure?

a. 80 kVp, 200 mA, 0.06 s 

b. 80 kVp. 400 mA, 0.06 s
c. 86 kVp, 200 mA 0.04 s 
d. 92 kVp, 400 mA, 0.01 s

126. Which of the following would most likely result in greatest skin dose?

a. short SID
b. high-kVp
c. Increased filtration
d. Increased mA

127. Which of the following projections would afford the greatest radiation protection to
the breast?

a. left lateral chest 

b. right lateral chest
c. PA chest 
d. AP chest

128. The use of all of the following will function to reduce patient dose except,

a. collimation b. high-kVp, low mAs

c. Grid d. Fast intensifying screens
129. Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of primary
beam?

1. Half-value layer (HVL)

2. KVp
3. MA

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

130. Decreasing field size from 14 x 17^ to 8 x10^ will; 

a. decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scatter radiation

generated within the part
b. decrease radiographic density and increase the amount of scatter radiation
generated within the part
c. increase radiographic density and increase the amount of scatter radiation generated
within the part 
d. increase radiographic density and decrease the amount of scatter radiation
generated within the part

131. The risk of internal contamination among technologists is relatively higher in;

a. Nuclear Medicine diagnostic application 

b. Diagnostic radiology examination
c. Cobalt therapy application 
d. Sr-ophthalmic application

132. A Co-60 machine was found to exhibit high levels of leakage radiation during a
routine survey procedure. What will you do first?

a. investigate further in the treatment room

b. pass by the interlock system 
c. lock the control console and treatment room
d. consult a medical physicist

133. Which of the following primary beam field sizes would produce the greatest
radiation exposure to a patient? 

a. 4 x4" 
b. 6 x14"
c. 8 x8"
d. 8 x10"
134. Which of the following technical factors would result in the lowest patient exposure
dose?

a. 120 kVp, 3 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed

b. 120 kVp, 1.5 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed 
c. 102 kVp, 6 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed
d. 102 kVp, 3 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed

135. Patient exposure can be minimized by using which of the following?

1. accurate positioning
2. high-kVp, low mAs factors
3. rare earth screens

a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

136. Which of the following are related to patient exposure dose?

1. film speed 
2. intensifying screen speed
3. focal spot size

a. 1 and 2 only 
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

137. If all factors remain the same, which of the following would result in the lowest
patient exposure dose?

a. 10 mAs, 8:1 grid 

b. 12 mAs, 8:1 grid
c. 10 mAs, 10:1 grid 
d. 12 mAs, 10.1 grid

138. What is the relationship between film/screen combination and patient exposure
dose? 

a. faster film/screen combinations increase patient dose.

b. faster film/screen combinations decrease patient dose. 
c. slower film/screen combinations increase patient dose.
d. slower film/screen combinations decrease patient dose.
139. The largest dose to the male gonads is most likely to result from which of the
following exposures? 

a. lateral thoracic spine

b. oblique lumbar spine
c. Cross-table lateral hip
d. AP axial skull

140 Which of the following is likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose?

1. beam restriction
2. low kVp, high mAs
3. grids

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1, 2 and 3

141. Which of the following most effectively minimizes radiation exposure to the patient?

a. small focal spots

b. low grid ratio
c. Long SID
d. High-speed intensifying screen

142. What is represented by the acronym PBL? 

a. Primary Beam Limiter

b. Primary Beam Light
c. Primary Backscatter Limitation
d. Positive Beam Limitation

143. Which of the following technical factors would result in lowest patient exposure
dose? 

a. 80 kVp, 6 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed

b. 80 kVp, 12 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed
c. 92 kVp, 3 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed 
d. 92 kVp, 6 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed
144. Which of the following exposure factor systems contribute to a reduction of patient
exposure dose?

1. fixed kVp
2. variable kVp
3. automatic exposure controls

a. 1 and 2 only 
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

145. Which of the following technical factors would result in the greatest patient
exposure dose?

a. 70 kVp, 3 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed 

b. 70 kVp. 1.5 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed
c. 60 kVp, 6 mAs, 200 relative film/screen speed 
d. 60 kVp. 3 mAs, 400 relative film/screen speed

146. Which of the following technical factors would produce the greatest patient
exposure dose?

a. 70 kVp, 6 mAs, 72" SID 

b. 70 kVp, 1.5 mAs, 40" SID
c. 80 kVp, 3 mAs, 72" SID 
d. 80 kVp. 1.5 mAs, 40" SID

147. The international symbol for ionizing radiation is black on a yellow background.

a. triangle 
b. trefoil
c. Propeller
d. Symbol 

148. Filters are used in diagnostic radiologic procedures in order to,

a. increase beam hardness

b. prevent radiation
c. Collimate the beam
d. Decrease bear hardness

149. In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying
factor is used to determine,

a. Roentgen (C/kg) b. rem (Sv) c. rad (Gy) d. radiation quality

150. ICRP has prescribed the Gray (Gy) as the new units for absorbed dose. One gray is equal
to ________rad

a. 1,000 b. 100 c. 200 d. 10

Which of the following would not be considered background radiation?

a. cosmic rays
b. atmospheric radioisotopes
c. radiation therapy treatments 
d. radioactive minerals

A unit for absorbed dose, EXCEPT 

a. Gray
b. Joules/ kilogram
c. Sievert 
d. rad

The SI unit that is similar to one Joule per kilogram is

a. Roentgen 
b. Becquerel
c. Gray 
d. Sievert

In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying factor is used to
determine

a. Roentgen (C/kg) 
b. rem (Sv)
c. rad (Gy)
d. radiation quality

The unit of measure used to express occupational exposure is the;

a. Roentgen (C/kg) 
b. rad (Gy)
c. rem (Sv) 
d. RBE