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Environmental Studies Objective Questions and Answers

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List of 200+ environmental studies objective type questions and answers!

1. In an ecotone, the species which become abundant are called:

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a. Edge species

b. Keystone species

c. Endemic species

d. Foster species

Ans. a

2. The objective of Environment studies is

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a. Raise consciousness about environment conditions

c. Create an environmental ethic sensitive society

d. All of the above

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Ans. d

3. Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?

a. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands

b. Depletion of ground water

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c. Increased extinction rate of species

d. None of the above

Ans. d

4. Which of the following is management option for air pollution?

a. Regulations and standards

b. Transport planning

c. Using CNG as fuel

d. All of these

Ans. d

5. Development activities on the hydrosphere cause

a. Air pollution

b. Soil pollution

c. Water pollution

d. Soil erosion
Ans. c

6. The species restricted to be present in one region are called

a. Edge species

b. Endemic species

c. Endangered species

d. Keystone species

Ans. b

7. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by

a. Industrialisation

b. Agriculture

c. Nature

d. Urbanisation

Ans. c

8. Environment is the life support system that includes

a. Air

b. Water

c. Land

d. All of the above

Ans. d

9. The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word which means to encircle or surround

a. Environ

b. Oikos

c. Geo

d. Aqua

Ans. a
10. Biosphere is

a. The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth

b. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth comprising of all the living things

c. The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres

d. All the above

Ans. b

11. Atmosphere consists of 79 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by

a. Volume

b. Weight

c. Density

d. All of these

Ans. b

12. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from

a. Greek

b. French

c. Spanish

d. English

Ans. b

13. Which among the following is a climatic factor?

a. pressure

b. humidity

c. temperature

d. all of the above

Ans. d

14. World environment day is on:

b. 5th June

c. 18th July

d. 16th August

Ans. b

15. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

a. air pollution

b. water pollution

c. soil degradation

d. all of the above

Ans. d

16. Sustainable development means

a. meeting present needs without compromising on future needs

b. progress of human beings

c. balance between human needs and the ability of earth to provide the resources

d. all of the above

Ans. c

17. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialisation is

a. industry should be closed

b. don’t allow new industrial units

c. industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal

d. industries should be shifted far away from human habitats

Ans. c

18. Sustainable development will not aim at

a. Social economic development which optimizes the economic and social benefits available in the
present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future
b. Reasonable and equally distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated continually

c. Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future
generations to meet their own needs

d. Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

Ans. c

19. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

a. Water pollution

b. Soil degradation

c. Water logging

d. All of the above

Ans. b

20. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains

a. Organic matter

b. Plant nutrients

c. Both a and b

d. none of the above

Ans. a

21. Water logging is a phenomenon in which

a. Crop patterns are rotated

b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation

c. Erosion of soil

d. None of the above

Ans. b

22. The impact of construction of dams

a. Submerged forest

b. Loss of wild life habitat

d. All of the above

Ans. d

23. What would you do to prevent environmental damage

a. Plant trees

b. Halt deforestation

c. Control pollution

d. All of the above

Ans. d

24. Environmental impact assessment

a. is the study of feasibility of a project

b. is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human action

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Ans. b

25. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agricultural practice?

a. Using chemical fertilizers

b. Using insecticides

c. Organic farming

d. None of the above

Ans. c

26. A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer

b. First order consumer

c. Second order consumer.

Ans. b

27. A product of photosynthesis is

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Water

c. Oxygen

d. Chlorophyll

Ans. c

28. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants

b. Sun

c. Inorganic nutrients

d. Animals

Ans. b

29. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the same time refers to a

a. Community

b. Species

c. Population

d. Consumers

Ans. c

30. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter

a. Omnivores

b. Carnivores

c. Herbivores

d. Insectivores
Ans. c

31. The true end of any food chain is the

a. Decomposer

b. Predator

c. Consumer

d. Human

Ans. a

32. The second trophic level in a lake is

a. Phytoplankton

b. Zooplanktons

c. Fishes

d. Benthos

Ans. b

33. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession

a. Lichens

b. Humans

c. Herbs

d. Animals

Ans. a

34. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

a. Bidirectional

b. Unidirectional

c. Multidirectional

d. All rounds

Ans. c
35. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem

a. Tissue culture

b. Herbarium

c. Aquarium

d. Forest

Ans. c

36. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

a. Inverted

b. Upright

c. Linear

d. Irregular

Ans. b

37. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

a. Decrease in population growth

b. Increase in population growth

c. Zero population growth

d. Over population

Ans. c

38. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of

a. Herbivores

b. Primary consumers

c. Secondary consumer

d. Producers

Ans. a

39. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain
a. snakes and frogs

b. Insects and cattle

c. Eagle and snakes

d. Cow and rabbit

Ans. d

40. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates that

a. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores

b. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency

c. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores

d. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

Ans. d

41. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

a. Pyramid of numbers

b. Pyramid of biomass

c. Pyramid of energy

d. All of the above

Ans. c

42. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle

a. Nitrogen cycle

b. Carbon cycle

c. Sulphur cycle

d. Phosphorus cycle

Ans. d

43. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of

a. Biomes
b. Biogeographically regions

c. Ecosystems

d. Biospheres

Ans. c

44. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

a. Lake

b. Pond

c. Grasslands

d. Forests

Ans. d

45. The final stable community in ecological succession is

a. Climax

b. Pioneer

c. Sere

d. Carnivores

Ans. a

46. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called

a. Standing state

b. Standing crop

c. Humus

d. Detritus

Ans. b

47. Hydrarch succession takes place in

a. Dry areas

b. Bare area
c. Wetter areas

d. None of the above

Ans. c

48. A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer

b. First order consumer

c. Second order consumer.

d. Third order consumer

Ans. b

49. A product of photosynthesis is

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Water

c. Oxygen

d. Chlorophyll

Ans. c

50. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants

b. Sun

c. Inorganic nutrients

d. Animals

Ans. b

51. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the same time refers to a

a. Community

b. Species

c. Population
d. Consumers

Ans. c

52. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter

a. Omnivores

b. Carnivores

c. Herbivores

d. Insectivores

Ans. c

53. The true end of any food chain is the

a. Decomposer

b. Predator

c. Consumer

d. Human

Ans. a

54. The second trophic level in a lake is

a. Phytoplankton

b. Zooplanktons

c. Fishes

d. Benthos

Ans. b

55. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession

a. Lichens

b. Humans

c. Herbs

d. Animals
Ans. a

56. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

a. Bidirectional

b. Unidirectional

c. Multidirectional

d. All rounds

Ans. c

57. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem

a. Tissue culture

b. Herbarium

c. Aquarium

d. Forest

Ans. c

58. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

a. Inverted

b. Upright

c. Linear

d. Irregular

Ans. b

59. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

a. Decrease in population growth

b. Increase in population growth

c. Zero population growth

d. Over population

Ans. c
60. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of

a. Herbivores

b. Primary consumers

c. Secondary consumer

d. Producers

Ans. a

61. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain

a. snakes and frogs

b. Insects and cattle

c. Eagle and snakes

d. Cow and rabbit

Ans. d

62. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates that

a. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores

b. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency

c. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores

d. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

Ans. d

63. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

a. Pyramid of numbers

b. Pyramid of biomass

c. Pyramid of energy

d. All of the above

Ans. c

64. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle

b. Carbon cycle

c. Sulphur cycle

d. Phosphorus cycle

Ans. d

65. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of

a. Biomes

b. Biogeographically regions

c. Ecosystems

d. Biospheres

Ans. c

66. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

a. Lake

b. Pond

c. Grasslands

d. Forests

Ans. d

67. The final stable community in ecological succession is

a. Climax

b. Pioneer

c. Sere

d. Carnivores

Ans. a

68. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called

a. Standing state
b. Standing crop

c. Humus

d. Detritus

Ans. b

69. Hydrarch succession takes place in

a. Dry areas

b. Bare area

c. Wetter areas

d. None of the above

Ans. c

70. A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer

b. First order consumer

c. Second order consumer.

d. Third order consumer

Ans. b

71. A product of photosynthesis is

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Water

c. Oxygen

d. Chlorophyll

Ans. c

72. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants

b. Sun
c. Inorganic nutrients

d. Animals

Ans. b

73. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the same time refers to a

a. Community

b. Species

c. Population

d. Consumers

Ans. c

74. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter

a. Omnivores

b. Carnivores

c. Herbivores

d. Insectivores

Ans. c

75. The true end of any food chain is the

a. Decomposer

b. Predator

c. Consumer

d. Human

Ans. a

76. The second trophic level in a lake is

a. Phytoplankton

b. Zooplanktons

c. Fishes
d. Benthos

Ans. b

77. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession

a. Lichens

b. Humans

c. Herbs

d. Animals

Ans. a

78. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

a. Bidirectional

b. Unidirectional

c. Multidirectional

d. All rounds

Ans. c

79. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem

a. Tissue culture

b. Herbarium

c. Aquarium

d. Forest

Ans. c

80. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

a. Inverted

b. Upright

c. Linear

d. Irregular
Ans. b

81. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

a. Decrease in population growth

b. Increase in population growth

c. Zero population growth

d. Over population

Ans. c

82. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of

a. Herbivores

b. Primary consumers

c. Secondary consumer

d. Producers

Ans. a

83. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain

a. snakes and frogs

b. Insects and cattle

c. Eagle and snakes

d. Cow and rabbit

Ans. d

84. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates that

a. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores

b. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency

c. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores

d. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

Ans. d
85. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

a. Pyramid of numbers

b. Pyramid of biomass

c. Pyramid of energy

d. All of the above

Ans. c

86. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle

a. Nitrogen cycle

b. Carbon cycle

c. Sulphur cycle

d. Phosphorus cycle

Ans. d

87. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of

a. Biomes

b. Biogeographically regions

c. Ecosystems

d. Biospheres

Ans. c

88. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

a. Lake

b. Pond

c. Grasslands

d. Forests

Ans. d

89. The final stable community in ecological succession is

b. Pioneer

c. Sere

d. Carnivores

Ans. a

90. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called

a. Standing state

b. Standing crop

c. Humus

d. Detritus

Ans. b

91. Hydrarch succession takes place in

a. Dry areas

b. Bare area

c. Wetter areas

d. None of the above

Ans. c

92. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

a. Oil

b. Coal

c. Natural gas

d. All of the above

Ans. b

93. Which of the following is not an inexhaustible form of energy?

a. Water
b. Wind

c. Solar

d. Fossil

Ans. c

94. Biogas contains mainly

a. Methane

b. Propane

c. Butane

d. Carbon dioxide

Ans. a

95. The burning of fossil fuels releases a large amount of

a. Nitrogen into air

b. Sulphur into air

c. Carbon dioxide into air

d. Oxygen into air

Ans. b

96. A poisonous gas given out of a vehicle exhaust is

a. Methane

b. Ethane

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Carbon monoxide

Ans. d

97. The purest form of coal is

a. Anthracite

b. Lignite
c. Peat

d. Bitumen

Ans. c

98. Which one of the following is used as a refrigerant?

a. Freon

b. Teflon

c. Ethanol

d. Benzol

Ans. a

99. Loss of forest has led to

a. Erosion of fertile soil

b. Global warming

c. Loss of habitat of plants and animals

d. All of the above

Ans. d

100. What are the consequences of excessive mining in an area?

a. Air and water pollution

b. Deforestation

c. Migration of large numbers of population

d. All of the above

Ans. d

101. Resources which are directly derived from nature are referred to as

a. Organic resources

b. Natural resources

c. Man made resources

Ans. b

102. Resources that take too long a period of time to be used as a resource are called as

a. Renewable resource

b. Non-renewable resource

c. Exhaustible resource

d. Inexhaustible resource

Ans. d

103. The fossil fuel that is derived from the dead remains of plants that grew some 250 million years ago
is

a. Petroleum

b. Natural gas

c. Coal

d. LPG

Ans. c

104. A resource that cannot be replaced in a reasonably short time is usually referred to as

a. Renewable

b. Non-renewable

c. Natural

d. Man made

Ans. b

105. Man made resources are alternative to natural resources for a variety of reasons. Which of these
would not be one of those?

a. They increase variety and choice

b. They are cheaper to produce than natural resources

c. They are made from renewable resources

Ans. c

106. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?

a. Coal

b. Oil

c. Natural gas

d. Uranium

Ans. d

107. A liquid fuel that was formed from the ancient remains of sea plants and animals is

a. Natural gas

b. Petroleum

c. Geothermal energy

d. Coal

Ans. b

108. Energy in the rays from the sun is called

a. Solar energy

b. Wind energy

c. Tidal energy

d. Water energy

Ans. a

109. Which is a list of renewable resources?

a. Petroleum, geothermal, wind

b. Biomass, geothermal, hydropower

c. Natural gas, wind, biomass

d. Hydropower, solar, wind energy

110. Energy from the heat inside the earth is

a Natural gas

b. Geothermal

c. Petroleum

d. Terrathermal

Ans. b

111. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our ___________

a. Coal reserves

b. Coal resources

c. Coal reservoirs

d. None of these

Ans. a

112. Which out of the following are the causes of soil erosion?

a. Unrestricted grazing

b. Over cultivation

c. Deforestation

d. All of the above

Ans. d

113. The process of restoring forests that once existed but was removed at some time in the past is
known as

a. Afforestation

b. Reforestation

c. Deforestation

d. None of these

Ans. b
114. Red data book contains data of

a. All plant species

b. All animal species

c. Threatened species

d. Economically important species

Ans. c

115. IUCN Headquarters is at

a. Morges, Switzerland

b. Paris, France

c. Vienna, Austria

d. New York, USA

Ans. a

116. Which of the following regions has the maximum diversity?

a. Mangroves

b. Temperate forest

c. Taiga

d. Coral reefs

Ans. d

117. The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is

a. Habitat pollution

b. Over exploitation

c. Habitat destruction

d. Introduction of exotic species

Ans. c

118. Dodo is
a. Endangered species

b. Rare species

c. Extinct species

d. Exotic species

Ans. c

119. Blue whale is placed under

a. Endangered

b. Rare

c. Extinct

d. Exotic

Ans. a

120. Conservation within the natural habitat is

a. Ex-situ conservation

b. In-situ conservation

c. Ex-vivo conservation

d. In-vivo conservation

Ans. b

121. Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation?

a. Zoo

b. National Park

c. Wild life Sanctuary

d. Biosphere Reserve

Ans. a

122. Ex-situ conservation includes

a. Zoo
b. Botanical Garden

c. Germplasm Bank

d. All of the above

Ans. d

123. Hotspots are regions of high

a. Rareism

b. Endemism

c. Diversity

d. Critically endangered population

Ans. c

124. Endemic species are

a. Rare species

b. Species localized in a specific region

c. Cosmopolitan in distribution

d. None of these

Ans. b

125. Which one of the following has the maximum genetic diversity in India?

a. Tea

b. Teak

c. Mango

d. Wheat

Ans. c

126. Which one of the following regions in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?

a. Sundarbans

b. Western Ghats
c. Eastern Ghats

d. Gangetic plains

Ans. b

127. Darwin’s finches are a good example of

a. Convergent evolution

b. Adaptive radiation

c. Connecting link

d. Industrial melanism

Ans. b

128. Which group of vertebrates comprises of highest number of species

a. Mammals

b. Fishes

c. Reptiles

d. Birds

Ans. b

129. 5th June is observed as

a. World environment day

b. World forest day

c. World population day

d. World wildlife day

Ans. a

130. The unfavorable alteration of environment by human activities is termed as

a. Ecological disturbance

b. Ecological degradation

c. Pollution
d. Catastrophe

Ans. b

131. Biogas contains mainly

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Methane

c. Butane

d. Propane

Ans. b

132. Main source of acid rain is

a. Sulphur dioxide

b. Nitrogen

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Carbon monoxide

Ans. a

133. Treated water can be disinfected by adding

a. Alum

b. Fluorine

c. Chlorine

d. Oxygen

Ans. c

134. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amount of

a. Nitrogen

b. Sulphur

c. Carbon

d. Hydrogen
Ans. b

135. Which of the following does not causes air pollution when used for heating purposes

a. Coal

b. Petrol

c. Kerosene

d. Solar energy

Ans. d

136. pH of rainwater is

a. 5-6

b. 6-7

c. 7-8

d. 8-9

Ans. a

137. A poisonous gas given out of vehicles exhaust is

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Ethane

c. Methane

d. Carbon dioxide

Ans. a

138. A common bactericide used in swimming pools is

a. Chlorine

b. Alum

c. Borax

d. DDT

Ans. a
139. Green house effect is linked to

a. Nitrogen oxides

b. Sulphur dioxides

c. Carbon dioxides

d. Carbon monoxides

Ans. c

140. Disposable glasses and plates are made up of

a. PVC

b. Polystyrene

c. Polyvinyl alcohol

d. Polypropylene

Ans. d

141. Aerosols consisting of solid particles produced by combustion

a. Fog

b. Smog

c. Smoke

d. None of these

Ans. b

142. Which of the following are consequences of ozone depletion

a. Skin cancer and cataract

b. Reduced growth in plants

c. Shortening of zooplanktons and their breeding period

d. All of the above

Ans. a

143. Which out of the following is a measure to control air pollution

b. Increasing use of renewable energy resources

c. Using catalytic convertors in vehicles

d. All of the above

Ans. d

144. The discharge of warm/hot water directly into rivers is known as

a. Water pollution

b. Thermal pollution

c. Marine pollution

d. None of the above

Ans. b

145. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is an effect of

a. Acid rain

b. Global warming

c. Ozone depletion

d. All of the above

Ans. a

146. Identify the aftermaths of acid rain from the following

a. Dissolving and washing away of nutrients from the soil

b. Increasing the acidity of soils, thereby hindering the growth of plants

c. Damaging the building materials/ heritage sites

d. All of the above

Ans. d

147. Increase in concentration of toxic level in each trophic level is referred to as

a. Eutrophication
b. Biomagnification

c. Bioaccumulation

d. Bioconcentration

Ans. b

148. Pollutants that are easily manageable and decomposable in nature are called

a. Biodegradable pollutants

b. Non-biodegradable pollutants

c. Renewable pollutants

d. None of these

Ans. a

149. The supersonic jets cause air pollution by the thinning of

a. Carbon dioxide layer

b. Sulphur dioxide layer

c. Ozone layer

d. Oxygen layer

Ans. c

150. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution

a. Bryophytes

b. Pteridophytes

c. Lichens

d. Algae

Ans. c

151. BOD stands for

a. Biotic oxidation demand

b. Biological oxygen demand

d. Biochemical oxygen demand

Ans. b

152. A river with high BOD value means

a. Highly polluted

b. Highly clean

c. Highly productive

d. None of the above

Ans. a

153. Which gas is responsible for ozone layer depletion around earth?

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Chlorofluorocarbons

c. Oxygen

d. Nitrogen oxide

Ans. b

154. What is Kyoto Protocol?

a. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming.

b. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing acid rain.

c. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for planting trees to control pollution.

d. It is an agreement among countries to start using nuclear energy.

Ans. a

155. Possible health effects of noise pollution includes

a. Hearing loss

b. Hypertension

c. Cardiovascular effects
d. All of the above

Ans. d

156. Noise is measured by sound meter and the unit is

a. Hertz

b. Joule

c. Decibel

d. Seconds

Ans. c

157. Which of the following are major causes of land degradation?

a. Soil erosion

b. Water logging

c. Deforestation

d. Desertification

Ans. c

158. The main components of photochemical smog is

a. Water vapors

b. Nitrogen oxides

c. Sulphur oxides

d. All of the above

Ans. d

159. Which gas is responsible for the global warming?

a. Nitrogen

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Noble gases

d. Hydrogen
Ans. b

160. Which country has organized its cabinet meeting under the sea to drag attention of the world
towards the Global Warming and its threats?

a. Maldives

b. Sri Lanka

c. Fiji

d. Indonesia

Ans. a

161. Which of the following effect is responsible for Global Warming?

a. Green house effect

b. Radioactive effect

c. Solar effect

d. Nuclear effect

Ans. a

162. Which of the following greenhouse gas is entirely anthropogenic in origin?

a. CFCs

b. Methane

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Water vapor

Ans. c

163. Which of the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect has the lowest degree of
certainty?

a. Addition of greenhouse gases to the atmosphere results in increased heat energy in the atmosphere

b. Global warming will result in an increase in the number of tropical storms

c. Global warming will result in rising sea levels

d. The concentrations of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are increasing due to human activities.
Ans. b

164. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a. Methane

b. Ozone

c. Water vapor

d. Carbon dioxide

Ans. c

165. The two major impacts expected as a result of rising global temperatures are

a. Higher water levels in lakes and streams but more consistent flooding patterns

b. Regional climatic changes and a rise in sea level

c. Longer summers and drier winters

d. Low water levels in lakes and streams and larger floodplains.

Ans. b

166. How are humans making greenhouse gases of our own?

a. Burning fossil fuels

b. Burning forests

c. With large scale agriculture

d. All of these

Ans. a

167. The solar radiation that bounces off the earth back towards the atmosphere is mostly

a. Gamma radiation

b. X-ray radiation

c. Ultraviolet radiation

d. Infrared radiation

Ans. d
168. Things you can do to decrease global warming include

a. Reduce the usage of your air conditioner on high

b. Turn off your light when you are not using them.

c. Use public transports instead of personal vehicles for transportation.

d. All of the above

Ans. d

169. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increases green house effect as carbon dioxide

a. Precipitates dust in the atmosphere

b. Is opaque to infrared rays

c. Reduces atmospheric pressure

d. Is heavier than other gases

Ans. b

170. Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of global warming?

a. More extreme weather patterns

b. Retreat of glaciers

c. Sea level rise

d. An increase of UV-B radiation

Ans. d

171. Which of the following processes adds to the removal of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

a. Burning fossil fuels

b. Photosynthesis

c. Respiration

d. Deforestation

Ans. b

172. Which is the only country who has not ratified the Kyoto Protocol yet?
a. United States

b. Australia

c. Japan

d. India

Ans. a

173. Ozone day is observed on

a. 3rd January

b. 16th September

c. 10th November

d. 26th March

Ans. b

174. Ozone layer is present in

a. Troposphere

b. Mesosphere

c. Thermosphere

d. Stratosphere

Ans. d

175. Which one of the following gases can deplete the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?

a. Methane

b. Ammonia

c. Carbon tetrachloride

d. Sulphur dioxide

Ans. c

176. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays, is caused by

a. Carbon monoxide
b. CFCs

c. Coal burning

d. Methane

Ans. b

177. Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over

a. India

b. Europe

c. Antarctica

d. Africa

Ans. c

178. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of

a. Global warming

b. Ozone depletion

c. Acid rain

d. Pollution

Ans. b

179. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog

b. Ozone is highly reactive

c. It protects us from harmful UV radiations of sun

d. All of the above

Ans. c

180. Thickness of ozone layer is measured in

a. Decibels

b. Dobson unit
c. Meter

d. Armstrong unit

Ans. b

181. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is

a. Chlorine

b. Fluorine

c. Carbons

d. Nitrogen peroxide

Ans. a

182. In the breakdown of the ozone layer, the ozone (O3) directly reacts with

a. Ultraviolet light

b. Chlorine atoms

c. Oxygen atoms

d. CFC molecules

Ans. b

183. A population is a group of

a. Individual in a family

b. Individuals in a species

c. Communities in an ecosystem

d. Species in a community

Ans. b

184. The main cause of world population growth in 18th and 19th centuries was

a. Decrease in birth rates

b. Decrease in death rates

c. Industrial revolution
d. None of these

Ans. c

185. What is most important factor for the success of animal population?

a. Natality

b. Adaptability

c. Interspecies activity

d. Unlimited food

Ans. b

186. Human population growth is

a. Horizontal line

b. L-shaped curve

c. J-shaped curve

d. Parabola curve

Ans. c

187. The main factors contributing to the decline in death rate in 20th century were

a. Improved agricultural practices and increased birth rates

b. Improved health care, sanitation and nutrition

c. Endemic poverty and low levels of education

d. European colonization and improved agriculture practices

Ans. b

188. The world population in 2000 was approximately

a. 5.1 billion

b. 2.1 billion

c. 6 billion

d. 8 billon
Ans. c

189. The average life expectancy around the world is currently

a. Stable

b. Increasing

c. Decreasing

d. Not changing

Ans. b

190. Exponential growth in population occurs when there is

a. A great environment resistance

b. No environment resistance

c. A fixed carrying capacity

d. No biotic potential

Ans. b

191. The disease which wiped out 33% of population of Europe in the 12th and 13th centuries was

a. Cholera

b. Meningitis

c. Plague

d. Diphtheria

Ans. c

192. A human population is small, there is greater chance of

a. Mutation

b. Gene flow

c. Genetic drift

d. Natural selection

Ans. c
193. Which of the following is a problem not associated with population growth?

a. Increased resource consumption

b. Environmental pollution

c. Food and energy shortages

d. None of these

Ans. d

194. Unrestricted reproductive capacity, in a population, is called

a. Birth rate

b. Carrying capacity

c. Fertility rate

d. Biotic potential

Ans. d

195. The concept that “population increases geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically”
was given by

a. Stuart Mill

b. Charles Darwin

c. Adam Smith

d. Thomas Malthus

Ans. d

196. Population pyramids are useful to

a. Express the population growth rates

b. Indicate the birth rates

c. Indicate the death rates

d. Express age – sex distribution of a population

Ans. d

197. The carrying capacity of a population is determined by

b. Natality

c. Mortality

d. Limiting resources

Ans. d

198. HIV is not likely to be transmitted by

a. Sharing needles of injections

b. Mosquito bites

c. Blood transfusion

d. Breast feeding

Ans. d

199. Today, the world’s number one problem is:

a. Pollution

b. Population explosion

c. Nuclear proliferation

d. Natural calamities

Ans. b

200. Population explosion has occurred in the last

a. 500 years

b. 300 years

c. 400 years

d. 150 years

Ans. d

201. Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of future growth is called

a. Demography
b. Psychology

c. Biography

d. Kalography

Ans. a

202. One of the critical mechanism by which the environment controls population of species is

a. Spread of disease

b. Removal of excreta

c. Supply of food

d. Control on death rate

Ans. d

203. If the rate of addition of new member’s increases with respect to the individual lost of the same
population, then the graph obtained has

a. Decline growth

b. Zero growth

c. Exponential growth

d. None of these

Ans. c

204. The number of babies produced per thousand individuals is called

a. Natality

b. Mortality

c. Immigration

d. Emigration

Ans. a

205. The zero population growth due to equal birth and death rates is called

a. Fertility rate

b. Replacement level
c. Natural increase

d. Demographic transition

Ans. d

206. Demographic features of developing countries are

a. High infant mortality, low fertility, young age distribution and uneven population growth

b. High fertility, high density, high mortality rate and young age distribution

c. High fertility, falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and young age distribution

d. High density, high mortality, uneven population growth and very old age distribution

Ans. c

207. Density of a population (D) is

a. D = S(size) / W(weight)

b. D = S(space) / N(number)

c. D = N(number) / S(space)

d. None of the above

Ans. c

208. Each environment supports a limited population depending upon its

a. Biotic potential

b. Carrying capacity

c. Natality

d. Reproductive potential

Ans. b

209. Group of interbreeding organisms found in a particular area is

a. Population

b. Community

c. Tribe
d. Density

Ans. a

210. In India, human population has higher number of younger age group because of

a. Long life span and low birth rate

b. Short life span and high birth rate

c. Short life span and low birth rate

d. Birth rate is equal to death rate

Ans. b

211. July 11 is

a. World Environment Day

b. World Population Day

c. World AIDS Day

d. World Education Day

Ans. b

212. Number of births per 1000 is

a. Growth rate

b. Conception rate

c. Reproduction rate

d. Crude birth rate

Ans. d