EXERCISE NO.

1 person upon service of the minimum of his

indeterminate penalty.
Name:
_2. It is defined as a method of rehabilitating
Section: convicted felons without
Date a need of placing them into jail or prison
Rating: facilities.

True or False: Write True if the statement is _3. It is a disposition, under which a defendant
correct and False if it is not. after conviction and

-1. Non-institutional corrections or community- sentence, is released subject to the conditions

based correction are the imposed by the Court and to

alternative for imprisonment. the supervision of a probation officer.

2. The most popularly and widely used non- 4. It is a form of executive clemency which is
institutional correction program exercise exclusively by

is probation. the Chief Executive.

3. Overcrowded jails and prison facility is a 5. These programs provide individualize

major problem of our judicial treatment program for the

system. offender which is if not available, is hard to

attain in correctional institution.
_4. Public resistance against rehabilitation
program within the community is

one of the issues regarding the implementation

of community based correction. a. United Nation Standards Minimum Rules for
5. Community-based Correction programs the treatment of prisoners
provide individualize treatment b. Indeterminate sentence Laws
program for the offender which is if not c. Prison Law
available, it is hard to attain in correctional
d. Probation Law
institution.
7. A method of helping the parolee by altering
Identification environmental conditions to bring
1. It is a conditional release from prison of a out satisfactory social adjustment
convicted
a. Manipulative technique
b. Executive technique report to probation officer how many times per
month?
c. Guidance and Counseling technique
c. More than twice
d. Casework technique
a. Once
8. Refers to those who are confined in
correctional facilities awaiting verdict on d. All of the above

their cases. b. Twice

a. Probationers .12.It is refers to a suspension of sentence after

which the convict is release upon
C. Parolees
serving the minimum sentence imposed by law
b. Detention prisoners
and subject to his good
d. Accused behavior and positive reaction to rehabilitation
9. Can a probationer pursue a prescribed programs.
secular study or vocational training c. Parole
while on probation? a. Probation
a. Yes 12
c. Neither b. Pardon
b. d. Amnesty
No 13. It refers to a person placed under probation
d. None of these a. Petitioner
10.A probationer on medium supervision should c. Probation officer
report to his probation officer how many times
a month? b. Probationer

c. Thrice d. Convict

a. Once 14. After receiving the PSIR, within how many

days must a judge decide
d. More than four times
whether to grant of deny probation?
b. Twice
a. 5 days
11.A prison placed under probation for the
maximum period imposed by 1 would have to c. 30 days
b. 15 days 7

d. 60 days d. 9

15. Minimum numbers of days given to 19.Within how many days after verdict must a
probation officers in accomplish PSIR. petitioner file his application for

a. 30 days probation?

c.90 days a. 10 days

b. 60 days b. 15 days

d. 120 days c. 30 days

16.It serves as the basis in granting probation d. 60 days

for qualified petitioners.
20. Historic signing of PD 986 which transported
a. Post Sentence Investigation Report Philippine Criminal Justice

C.Admissions Summary system to the 20 century.

b. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report a. July 22, 1976

d. Behavior Report C. July 24, 1976

17.Maximum period probation for a person b. July 23, 1976

convicted to suffer prison correctional
d. August 7, 1935
c. 6 years

a. 2 years
ANSWER
b. 4 years
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d. 8 years 518344432/CORR-AD-BY-VINCE

18. Maximum number of probationers under https://www.scribd.com/document/

supervision of probation aide? 463208859/COR-AD

a. 3

b.5

C.

ANSWERS
 1. POLICE ORGANIZATION

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org-admin-questions-rtc/39039132

2. INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

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3. POLICE PATROL OPERATIONS

To the laymen, it suggests little more than inspectional activity, whether carried out on foot, mobile or
some other way.

4. POLICE PERSONNEL

He is a type of leader capable of uniting followers in a shared vision that will improve an organization
and society at large, and that delivers "true" value, integrity, and trust transformational leadership.

5. ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION

Properties that results from, or can be traced back to illegal activity of those properties stolen of
embezzled.

6. DRUG EDUCATION & VICE CONTROL

it is described as stream of fantastic images and kaleidoscope-like play of colors, a user whose eyes are
closed will experience some pattern of images.

https://www.scribd.com/document/530256259/CDI-Mock-Board-Reviewee

7. FIRE TECHNOLOGY & ARSON INVESTIGATION

"This is done with the use of water, and the temperature of the substance is lowered below the burning
point."

8. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

These are often the most useful evidence of all. Not only do they help find the vehicles, by giving a clue
to a particular make and model of the motor vehicle, and they may be used to connect a suspected
motor vehicle to the accident.

INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT EA

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in building interior

each of the following questions. Mark onIy one
answer on each item building exterior

These are structural constructions like fences,

tem
walls, floors, roofs, grills, bars, road blocks, of
by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter other physical means to deter or impede
of your choice. penetration, and prevent unauthorized access.

This is a medium or structures that define the

physical limits on installations or are to restrict
of impede access thereto. A.

concrete walls and fences

A.

perimeter barrier B.

C.
security barrier

, three basic lines of physical security are the perimeter barrier

following, sometimes all of these lines of D.
defense are available, other times only one or
defense are available, and they are as follows, .

natural barrier man-made barriers

B. A.

man-made barrier natural barriers

D. B.

2. C.
perimeter barrier This is house-like structures above the
perimeter barriers, as the height of this
D. structure increases, and the
all of these C.
It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain unblemished zone
link design with mesh openings design not
larger than two inches square of #9-gauge wire D.
or heavier, twisted and has barbed wire salvage
6.
at top and bottom.

garrison wire visibility of guards of duty likewise improves.

guard house
wire fence

barbed wire security tower

sentry station
Marcelo wire

A. guard towers

A.
D.

C. B.

D.
5.

It is an unobstructed area maintained at both It C. is an additional overhang barbed wire

placed on vertical perimeter fences facing
sides of the perimeter barrier, consisting of
twenty feet or more upward and outward with a

7.
between the barrier and exterior structure
which provide concealment and assistance to a forty-five-degreė angle, and with three to four
person seeking unauthorized strands of barbed wire spaced six inches apart.
entry. B.
A. topping
restricted zone A
B. C.
clear zone topguard
transparent zone barbed wires
D It is another procedure important in controlling
access to restricted areas and this is due to the
wire fence fact that ioCK IS
8. This includes the records that are only as secure as this is also secure.
irreplaceable, records wherein reproduction of
which does not have the same value as the card control
original.
A
non-essential records
B.
B.
lock control
useful records
access control
.
D.
vital records
key control
D.
11.
important records
Effective
9
Snould also use a distinctive intricate
the categories of safe. background design difficult to reproduce, and
have
These are designed to meet the specifications
for safeguarding classified materials, and it is some characteristics known only to
included some of management

security cabinets identification cards

all of these badges or passes

record safes A.

B. B.

A. access cards

C. .

money safes D.

D. biometric cards

10. 12.
It can be used with employee, as well as R.A. No. 7548
visitors, and this svstem requires the person
seeking enra Sig B.

R.A, No. 4857

in with receptionist or security guard, and
present identification. P.D. No. 1919
34 D.
check-in and check-out register R.A. No. 5487
security log books 15.
visitors log register In the City of Manila, the first formally licenses
private security agency with the business name
entry and exit record books
of "Special
B.
Watchman Ageney," was set up, and it was later
D. to be known as the

13. Manila Security Agency

nese include identifying, directing or limiting Bombay Serene

the movement of vehicles, employees,
Jimenez Security Agency
contractors, vendors,

and visitors. B.

C.
entry & exit control

perimeter contro D.

security control none of these

B. It is the tirst private detective agency formed in

the United States, and which is specializing in
C. providing

access control investigative and security services for railroads

and industrial organizations.
D.
16.
14. t is otherwise known as the Private Security
Law in the Philippines, as amended, and was Wells Fargo & Company
enacted on July 13,
Bow Street Runners
1969, and has provided for the qualifications of
security operators a gur Pinkerton Detective Agency
Evangelical Police NAPOLCOM

A. PADPAO, Inc.

B. PNP

. A.

D. C.

T t is a government agency in-charge with the D.

supervision of the operation of Private
Local Government
Detective Agencies and

Private Security Agencies through the Briefly, it is an approach that brings to bear-in
an organized manner-all of the security
enforcement of the Implementing Rules and
Regulations of the Private Security components and

resources with loss prevention, protection of

Agency Law.
employees, physical assets, business, or
PADPAO, Inc. personal integrity, reputations,

B. 19.

SOSIA proprietary information, and other intangible

assets.
A.
B.
C.
physical security
SEC
private policing
D.
comprehensive security
CSG
public policing
18. It is the consultant of the C, PNP in the
enforcement of the Implementing Rules and A.
Regulations of the
D.
Private Security Agency Law, and serve as the
umbrella organization of the Private Detective C.
Agencies, Private 20. It has been defined as the use of measures
Security Agencies and Government Security designed to safeguard personnel, to prevent
unauthorized access
Forces.

B.
and entry to equipment, facilities, and prevent unauthorized access.
documents, and to safeguard these against
espionage, sabotage, theft and fraud physical security

security watchman
by intruders.

guards security officers

security guards
security

B. 23. It is a type of physical security involving the

protection of documents and classified
bodyguards information from loss,

private police B.

A. A.

D. D.

C. C.

21. These include those self-employed access by unauthorized persons, damage, theft,
individuals and privately funded business and compromise through disclosure.
entities and organizations
communications security
providing services to a specific clientele for a
fee. records security

document security
private policing

private detective information security

private security B.

private agency A.

C.
22. It is the broadest branch of security which is
concerned principally with the physical D.
measures adopted to
24.
B.
They are the common and highly visible type of
A. security, and who is usually in uniform and is
D. sometimes

C.
armed, and they control access to private 20. t is tne importance of the firm or
property, maintain order on the premises, and establishment with reference to the national
enforce the rules and security and economy.

regulations of the employer. B.

A. relative criticality

watchman relative probability

B. relative vulnerability

security officers all of these

35 D.

C. 21. t 1s the susceptibility of the plant or

establishment to damage, loss or destruction or
security guards operation, and the likes
private security due to various hazards
.spart o physical security that deals primarily relative criticality
with the protection of processes, formulas,
patents, and other relative probability

D A.

25. B.

industrai and manufacturing activities from relative vulnerability

espionage, infiltration, loss, compromise, Or
C.
pnoopy

B. D.

none of these
tactical security

management security 28. t 1Ss tne conditions or a set of conditions

that may worsen or increase the business or
activities security estabishment's assets

operational security exposure to hazard or loss.

A. relative criticality

C. relatively probability

D. relative vulnerability
relative possibility C.

B. D

D. 31. lt is term used for the succeeding surveys

after the conduct of initial survey, and it is also
. s a complex challenge to security and safety termed as follow up
activities, and consequently it is essential to
define and to survey.

analyze al hazards that might be encountered security inspection

to make it possible to restrict thee number and
scope of such disturbance, security visitation

A.
either natural or man-made.

security hazard management detailed looks and see

B.
handling security hazard

hazard management cycle C.

security observation
hazard management balance

A. D.

32. It is one directed by the management if the

B.
initial survey appears to have left certain
C. portions or aspects

D. involving security due to change in policy or

operation that will greatly affect the total
30. t is a fact finding probe to determine the security picture.
plants adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of.
security with the ordinary survey

corresponding recommendations. regular survey

security operations A.

security urvey common survey

security inspection B.

security check C.

A. special survey

B. D.
33. 35. It is a dialogue between the survey teams
and the management, and official of plant
These are the counter-measures for before the security survey
vulnerabilities, and which are of four types, i.e.,
deterrent, preventive, is conducted.

corrective, and detective. coordinating conference

controls B.

B. command conference

mechanism A.

A. C.

D. entrance conferencee

security D.

C. management conference

measures 36. Before an actual security survey is

conducted a
34.
manufacturing installations or business
system more prone to attack by a threat or concerns.
make an attack more likely to have some
success or regular contact

These make initial contact

impact, e.g., the occurrence or natural or man- It is made with the appropriate officials in the
made hazard.
B.
probabilities
preliminary contact
B.
.
vulnerabilities
D
C.
continuous contact
criticalities
the establishment, observing and talking
D.
37. After the security survey is developed,
susceptibilities someone should
to personnel to obtain the required debriefing conference
information.
briefing conference
initial walk through
ouySurvey is performed by qualified security
preliminary walk through experts who can be from the organization or
outsiders
walk through facility
exit conference
physical walk through
command conference
B.
A.
C.
B.
D.
C.
36
D.
38.
40.
All potential targets of attack should be
identified and the means of eliminating or contracted to do the job, and recommendations
reducing hazard to those will fall into the following categories, EXCEP1:

targets specified, and_ B.

should also be identified. equipment

B. security hazard

potential hazard The popular television series have glamorized

their profession, but in reality, today criminal
pure hazard investigation is
A. A.
actual hazard human guard
C. procedures
D. C.
security hazard D.
39. Tt is Similar to entrance conference, and it is 41.
done after the completion of the security
survey. only a small part of their work.
private detectives political security

public investigator personal and VIP security

private investigator A.

none of these B.

B. C.

D. D

42t is the protection resulting from the government security

application of various measures which prevent
or delay the enemy or 44. It is another specialized line to physical
security, and due to the peculiar nature of the
unauthorized person in gaining information business operations, the
through the communication system
main objective of the protection of the life of
building security employees and company assets.

transmission securityy hotel security

installation security bank security

communications security B.

A. school security

B. supermarket security

C. C.

D. D.

43. 45. In any plant of industrial complex, this is

indispensable not only in security work but in
nis is a part of personal security, and this work the plant operation
involves not only the safety of the high ranking
officials of itself, and it is numerous types are available for
use.
the land but it also involves diplomatic
implications in the event that any untoward B.
incident happens to0 a visiting
intra-communications
dignitaries.
A.
crisis security
inter-communications
all of these D.

D. They are charge with directing the work and

observing the behavior performance of the men
none of these under his unit,
46. This type of,security, are those hired 18.
directlyy under the payroll of an employer to
protect the employer's and the principal task is providing leadership
within an organization.
property, and they are considered employees of
the company. security consultant

company guards security manager

govt. security guards B.

in-house guards security officer

all of these security supervisor

B. A.

A. C.

C. D.

D. 49. It is a physical security as applied to

business groups engaged in industries, like
47. There are other individuals or entities prefer manufacturing assembling,
to avail the services of an outside firm on
contract basis, research and development, processing,
warehousing, and even agriculture and pasture
specializing in providing trained security guards, lands.
and these firms are:
bank security
B.
industrial security
private security guard
operational security
private detective
hotel security
private security agency
A.
government security unit
.
A.
C.
C.
D. 1. To the laymen, it suggests little more
than inspectional activity, whether
50. carried out on foot, mobile or some
In addition to doing background checks on other way.
employees, sometimes using deception
D.
detection instrument, they can also provide Police patrols play a vital role in public
advice on risk management. service by reacting to occurrences and
discouraging and preventing criminal
security manager activity. Preventing crime, criminal
apprehension, law compliance, order
security officer
maintenance, government services, and
security consultant road enforcement are all purposes and
objectives of police patrol. Patrolling is
security supervisor often regarded as the backbone of law
enforcement operations. Patrol officers
A. are among the most visible members of
the law enforcement community.
B. Initially, patrolling was done on foot. It
was typical for cops to walk the beat.
C. Patrolling developed through time, from
walking the beat to horseback patrols to
D.
motorized patrols as automobiles,
37 motorcycles, and other kinds of mobility
became more widely available.

police operation

police intelligence

A.

B.

police communication

POLICE PATROL OPERATIONS C.

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in D. police patrol

each of the following questions. Mark only one
2. It is known as the doctrine of law
answer on each
wherein an individual is said to be
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the maintaining on his premises, business
letter of your choice. or residential a condition,
instrumentality that is dangerous to
young children.
B. Attractive Nuisances 4. This is a patrol activity which consists of
Explanation: Attractive Nuisances is the driving around the district, waiting for
doctrine in which an owner, or something to happen.
caretaker, or any individual that
maintains his premises that is A
dangerous to children.
persons & things reactive patrol

hazardous places police patrol

A. foot patrol

attractive nuisances police visibility

B B.

D. C.

C. D.

none of these 5.

3. This term is frequently used to describe 5. An alternative patrol system which

a specific condition or place that means the fielding of the field units in
requires the patrol officer's special their respective area of responsibility
attention. with objectives and tasks schedule of
day.
C. PATROL HAZARD is a term used
frequently to describe a specific condition or  B. Waking Beat Patrol
place that requires a patrol officer's special
attention.  Reasons/Explanation
nuisance places
 This was the alternative patrol
patrol hazard system deploying of their law
enforcement officers into the field
A. to execute their duties and
responsibilities to maintain public
B. safety and security under their
area of responsibilities. 
taverns & clubs  Officers are send to field for a
particular duty schedule of the
C. day
D.

all of these
proactive patrol
4.
undercover patrol To be effective, modern police patrol must
perform three (3) major sphere of activity
A. ofRen, simultaneously,
walking beat patrol and relatively with patrol operations, EXCEPT:
air patrol they must handle calls for service
B. they must eliminate actual opportunity
. Patrol is tagged as the
D. A.
Crime results from the existence of the B.
elements of crime, EXCEPT:
they must participate in tactical responses
desire
they must engage in problem solving efforts
B.
C.
capability
D
C.
of the police organization.
intent
mind
D.
heart
opportunity
B.
This is the primary purpose of police patrol.
backbone
detect the desire
D.
A.
none of these
check the capability
10. It is important because time is of the
maintaining peace essence in most police work.
B. patrol operations
. patrol officers
eliminate opportunity The first and foremost in the police officer's
D. preparation for patrol duty is

8. general preparation
pre-patrol preparation This repressive police activity is accomplished
by making their presence known in such a way
constant availabilityy that, even
police visibility when they are not in a specific location, a felon
B. will refrain from misbehavior and this
phenomenon is referred to
D.
as:
11.
A.
A.
police omni-presence
behavior preparation
lessening of capability
attitude preparation
B.
B.
elimination of desire
C.
P.
D.
control of opportunity
12. It is the function that most completely
describes the patrol officer's jobs, because most 14. Its method is consisting of the fixed post,
of his duties depend line beat, and random patrol, and it is restricted
to small areas and
on what he has observed.
is used to deal with special problems of
A. prevention and repression.

observation fixed surveillance

B. beat patrol

uses of senses foot patrol

C. B.

investigation C.

D. bicycle patrol

first responders D.

13. 50
15. It is used as a Simple and inexpensive means air patrol
of transportation to carry police officers to their
districts. eyes in the sky

B.
B.

motorcycle patrol helicopter

airplane
all of these

A. A.

D.
bicycle patrol

C. C.

18. While it is true that the patrol officer cannot

foot
detect the desire of the criminal, yet, they can
patrol destroy the

D. opportunity to commit a crime, in police patrol

operations, this refers to the phenomenon as:
16. It is the most extensively and widely used
type of patrol, and it is the most effective psychological atmosphere of Omni-presence
means of transportation
elimination of desire, capability and opportunity
for police patrol.
repression of criminal activities
moving patrol
arrest of offenders and delinquents
vehicle patrol
A.
D.
B.
mobile patrol
D.
jeep patrol
19.
A.
The patrol officer is to be seen alert and on
C. constant patrolling to make his presence
psychologically felt despite of his physical
17 It is useful for rescue and evacuation, absence, hereby creating, EXCEPT:
medical evacuation, general patrol, criminal
apprehension, crime C.
Step by step explanation:
prevention and repression, emergency
transportation, surveillance and other activities.  Police patrols are performed to
increased public security
 deterring crimes,  developing a none of the above
sense of confidence to the law
enforcers and initiate property ts objective is for the patrol officer to survey the
recovery. It is purposefully not situation and condition of the boundaries of his
done to impose fear to law area of
violators but deter them from
completing engaging in violations responsibility.
by apprehending of criminals and
so forth. 21.

B.

freewheeling
feeling of trust and confidence to the police
4.
feeling of security on the part of the citizen
CrisscroSS
feeling of fear on the part of the violator
C.
feeling of confidence on the police
counterclockwise
A.
D.
B.
clockwise
C.
22. It is done at the last eight (8) of the tour of
D.
duty in order to ensure that nothing unusual
This is done by patrolling the streets within the happened in his area
perimeter of the beats, not at random, but with
of responsibility.
a definite
watching clock
target location where he knows his presence is
necessary. none of these
20. B.
freewheeling clockwise
zigzagging counter clockwise
all of the above A.
D D.
D. C.
A.
23. It is patrolling the length of a street of the The observation of the patrol officer in
beat, and therefore, the easiest to observe the patrolling their respective beats must keenly be
moment of the patrol aimed at this, and it

officer. Is the sources of hazards.

B. material things

straightway persons & things

freewheeling dangerous persons

zigzagging other police officers

A. B.

D. .

crisscross D.

C. C.

24. It is more or less similar to zigzagging, and It is locally referred to as Community Oriented
what is important is that the moment Policing System (COPS), it is now being widely
techniques of a patrol applied by

officer must have a purpose and objective, it is the law enforcement agency particularly in
not aimless nor at random. highly urbanized places in the country..

B. 26.

Zigzagging participative law enforcement

crisscrossS establishment of Community-Police Assistance

Center
all of these
maintenance of Police-Community Precinct
A.
community-mobilization in crime prevention
D.
B.
none of these
C.
C.
D.
25.
It includes the objectives of protecting lives and
properties and providing all the other services
which are required or expected from police 29. If it is effectively implemented, it is the most
officers. recognizable form of police activity, furthering
the community
D.
Step by step explanation: as well as being in perception.
Law enforcement officials play a key
role in society, serving and protecting patrol function
the people and upholding the law. The
words define the mission of the police, aw enforcement
which is to "protect" citizens and "serve"
B.
the public.
27.
mobile function
51
A.
enforce the law
D.
maintain peace & order
police function
ensuring public safety
30. It is generally accomplished whether having
B. officers present at specific locations maintaining
a highly visible
A
profile or by publicizing highly active
C. undercover operations.

to serve & protect Omni-presence

D. law enforcement

28. repression of crime

This type of assignment is particularly effective crime prevention

for "saturation coverage" of high crime area.
D.
low visibility patrol
C.
high visibility patrol
D.
specific patrol
31. t is primarily used for traffic control and
undercover patrol enforcement, their speed and maneuverability
make them
B.
indispensable police vehicle.
D.
motorcycle patrol
C.
tricycle patrol are needed such as in large area that must be
covered by few foot patrol officers, the
bicycle patrol
B.
mobile patrol
C.
B.
D.
C.
34.
D.
Where
32. Its objective was to use the watercraft in the
anti-smuggling operation along rivers and bays, speed of a mobile car allows them to service the
as well as against whole area and do so efficiently.

robberies committed on bonded warehouse speed & stealth

located along the river bank.
speed & mobility
sea patrol
speed & safety
coastal patrol
speed & maneuverability
bay & river patrol
A.
air patrol
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.
35.
33.
It has been used for parade and crowd control
The bicycle patrol has the combined advantage for centuries; its height and size has a strong
of. psychological

because the bicycle can be operated very advantage in dealing with unruly mobs during
civil disturbance operations.
quietly and without attracting attention.
A.
speed & mobility
horses
speed & maneuverability
B.
versatility & stealth
mobile
speed & flexibility
D. tickler

36. It is really nothing new, and in today's 38. t is a new policing concept that combines
parlance, one can say that it is simply the the familiarity, thrust and sense of
"Koban of Japan", the belongingness characterized

C. by the "beat cop" with the expertise of the

professional policing model.
bicycle
community-oriented policing system
foot
New COPS on the Block
"Neighborhood Watch of Singapore," etc.
problem-oriented policing system
patrol operation
police beat system
New COPS on the Block
A.
detective system
B.
police beat system
C.
A.
D.
B.
39.
C.
These are police ofticers patrolling the streets
D. or locality around the clock by maintaining
37. It is one of the basic pieces of equipment direct contact with
which a number of policemen nowadays fail to local residence to prevent crime.
appreciate and
foot patrol
utilize.
beat cop
log book
A.
police blotter
B.
B.
patrol officer
notebook
beat patrol
A.
C.
C.
D.
D.
40. Police officers on patrol may interview within
the bounds of the law as deterrent to persons
This is the NCOB°s center of command and who intend o
control of its activities and as the police base
from which commit crime, and that is

citizens may seek police assistance whether in A.

person, by radio or telephone.
street interrogatiom
block box
street investigation
community-precincts
B.
kababayan centers
street interview
B.
D.
police box
street questioning
D.
.
52
43 Police officers on patrol have to observe this
This project concerns a wide variety of activities particular undertaking to offer crime prevention
such as physical fitness and sports advises and
development, CIean and
organized anti-crime groups.
green, values formation and livelihood projects.
neighborhood visit
1.
house visitation
police social services
.
community-relations
B.
public relations
office visitation
B.
D.
C.
New COPS on the Block will provide
public social services
twenty-four hours patrolling
D.
twenty-four hours' service
2.
barangay visitation

to watch over the assigned area.

constant availability and mobility 7.

round the clock patrolling It is necessary to get the desired information to

the receiving party without having the message
44. later re-
A. checked over the air for possible errors.
C. clarity
D. brevity
45. A.
The policeman willbe the role model player for B.
the community to emulate, and he will perform
public specificity

safety services through the following, EXCEPT: C.

elimination of actual opportunity D.

information relative to public safety accuracy

46. It is the backbone of the police tactios. 48.

A. police patrol operations It is increasingly important to the expanding

volume of radio traffic, and this makes it
police intelligence analyst's essential that there be
control and management of traffic no unnecessary or repetitious words in the
quick response to emergencies transmission.

A. brevity

D. specificityy

C. clarity

D. A.

police communication systems B.

police-community relations D

B. It is necessary for rapid and efficient service,

and it is more a form of respect that flowery
D. words, in fact it
C.

accuracy

49.

demands that, it must not be expressed in

words.
POLICE PERSONNEL
courtesy
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in
loyalty each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer on eacl e
A.
by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter
B.
of your choice.
discipline 1.It may be defined as the function of
D. management concerned with promoting and
enhancing the developmen
respect
of work effectiveness and advancement of the
It is often mentioned in report writing and note rank and file of the police organization.
taking, but it is also an essential in police
communications. management

B. leadership

C. A.

50. B.

A. personnel management

accuracy police administration

specificity It is a part ot the management process, and this

refers to the act of overseeing people or in
C. police organization,

clarity C.

. D.

brevi 2.

53 it is also the process of overseeing subordinates

and line officers.
leadership coordinating

management A.

A. staffing

B. budgeting

all of these B.

C. C.

supervision D.

This are processes of working out in broad 5.

outline the things that need to be done and the
his principle requires that every emnployee
methods for doing
should be under the direct supervision of but
D. one manager. Thus

them to accomplish the purpose set for each employee should be accountable directly
enterprise. to only one manager in normal operations.

organizing unity of command

planning chain of command

A. B.

directing scalar chain

controllingg esprit de corps

This is the establishment of the formal structure This principle was initially adopted from a
of authority through which work subdivisions psychologist who refers to the number of
are arranged, person where one

B. D.

. 6.

D. individual can supervise effectively.

4 unity of command

and coordinated for the defined objectives of division of work

the police organization.
span of control
organizing
span of attention B.

The effective supervisor will recognize the C.

difference between giving subordinates a desire
D.
to produce well

S. 9. This is the continuous task of making

deciSIons and embodying them in specific and
C. general orders and

D. instruction and serving as the leader of the

enterprise.
7.
controlling
because of high job satisfaction.
guiding
motivating employee's
B.
motivating resources
leading
motivating personnel
directing
motivating subordinates
C.
He accomplishes the objectives of the
organization by getting things done through This principle relates to the process of
personnel, and he must be committing an activity to another's care, and it
is closely related to the
B.
principle of span of control in that even though
C. the span of attention is excessive, the harm
D. from it can be reduced by

B. the delegation of much detail to subordinates.

an expert in handling personnel to be a 10.

successful manager. exception principle
field supervisor delegation of work
police executive B.
personnel manager committing work
administrative officer completed staff work
A. A.
D. 64

C. 13. This type of leader is highly authoritative;

makes decisions without allowing subordinates
I1. This principle requires that the person to to participate, and
whom work has been assigned through the
delegation process has to they are often made to feel that they are not
part of the team because they are not allowed a
complete it to such an extent that the only voice in the decision-
thing left to be done by the person who
delegated it is to approve it making process.

delegation of work autocratic leader

completed staff work free-rain leader

personnel development B.

division of work democratic leader

B. D.

A. none of these

D. To some, it denotes a military bearing: to

others, it means a distinctive type of
C. appearance and conduct; while
12. It is the ability of an individual to influence, others feel it as comprised of the same
motivate, and enable others to contribute ingredients as leadership.
toward the effectiveness
14.
and success of the organizations of which they
are members. leadership ability

leadership chain of command

administration unity of command

B. command presence

supervision 15. This is a high level of discipline in its

broadest sense in an organization. It is perhaps
D. the best mark of good
C. organizational leadership; and ordinarily, if it is
management present, high level of esprit de corps and
morale will result together
B. leader-member relation

D. C

with increased efficiency. none of these

leadership ethics D

all of these leader position power

indicators of leadership 18 He is a type of leader capable of uniting

followers in a shared vision that will improve an
psychology of leadership organization and society at large, and that
A. delivers "true" value, integrity, and trust
transformational leadership.
C.
competent leader
16. lt demands that politeness is a civility which
must be practiced at all times; and the superior responsive leader
cannot afford to efficient leader
be outdone in it by his subordinates. effective leader
all of these B.
common courtesy C.
modesty D.
humility 19.
ne aegree to which subordinates' jobs are This requires an evaluation of quality,
routine, as contrasted to non-routine, is the independent of the market demand that
measure of task exhibits in the number of
C. followers.
D. transformational leadership
17. effective leadership
structure. 20. The approach of listing leadership qualities,
A. which is often termed, .

task structure functional leadership

B. orchestral leadership
A. C.

B. This method of giving orders may be indicated

in dealing with the lazy, careless, indifferent, or
C. irresponsible
D. employees or the one who refuses or neglects
assumes certain traits or to obey standard operating rules or fails to
respond to suggestions or
characteristies will tend to lead to effective
leadership. implied orders.

latent theory 22.

social theory implied

21. It is based on the leader's possession of suggestive

expertise, skill, or knowledge that convinces A.
subordinates that the
direct command
trait theory
B.
none of these
C.
A.
request
B.
D.
C.
23
D.
This denotes any training intended to produce a
leader's views should serve as a basis for the specific character or pattern of behavior,
action. especially training
B. that produces moral. physical, or mental
coercive power development in a particular direction.

referent power B.

expert power morale

legitimate power esprit de corps

A. all of these

D A.
C. C.

D. positive discipline

discipline 65

24. 26.

It is a special form of police relations, and its This requires that the punitive action for similar
specifics lie in coordinating the conduct and breaches of conduct should be somewhat
actions of police uniform proviaing

personnel and in serving to establish such such derelictions occur under like conditions.
relations as are required for successful joint
fairness and impartiality
activity.

police courtesy certainty of punishment

B.
police discipline

B. consistency of punishment

C.
police integrity

police honesty D.

swiftness of punishment
A.

D. It may be defined as a state of mind reflecting

the degree to which an individual has
C. confidence in tne

This is a form of training and attitudinal 27.

conditioning which is used to correct
deficiencies without invoking members of his group and in the organization,
believes in its objectives, and desires to
punishment is known as what kind of instituting accomplish them.
discipline.
esprit de corps
25.
humility
negative discipline
B.
none of these
discipline
all of these
C.
D
D.
morale to protect the reputation of the organization

It involves the existence of a sense of common to protect the public interest

endeavor and responsibility within the group;
to protect the accused employee
and it embodies

devotion to the group enterprise, cooperation to protect the organization as a whole

between its members, and pride in its A.
accomplishments.
B.
A. chain of command
C.
C. scalar chain
D.
28.
31.
B. esprit de corps
It should not be used as a threatening device,
D. unity of command but as a constructive tool of supervision.
They are of equal importance, since they are A. punishment
interdependent; and each may flow from the
other or each may C. liability

29. A certain portion of all

adversely affect the other, EXCEPT: the evidence but as a direct result of the
failures of the supervisor to fulfil his
A. responsibilities.
morale B. penalty
C. D. sanctions
discipline 32.
B. fails to accomplish their objectives, not because
esprit de corps of the insufficiency of

A. sanctions
D.

courtesy B. punitive actions

D. disciplinary actions
30. These are the primary objectives in the
administration of an effective personnel C. punishment
complaint investigation policy,

EXCEPT:
It will dictate the procedure to be followed in It is a conscious choice to behave or to think in
receiving and disposing of complaints against a particular way in a given set of circumstances,
personnel within situations or

the organization. conditions.

33. regulations

organizational rules rules

organizational policy B.

A. policy

rules & regulations decision

agency procedures D.

This are made on the basis of established 36. This exists when the supervisor knows
policies, rules or procedures, for example, when precisely what the results will be if a certain
police supervisor decision is implemented,

B. and it has a significant effect on the process of

evaluating alternatives.
D.
risk condition
34.
all of these
receives a request for a transfer of assignment
of subordinate and approves it. uncertainty condition

programmed decisions certainty condition

all of these B.

A. D.

B. C.

non-programmed decision This type of model in decision-making process is

relatively simple to make, but it is not easy to
C. change. It is
D difficult to manipulate the variables in a
none of these descriptiVe model because its elements are
relatively concrete.
35.
37.
descriptive model A.

symbolic model ethics

analogue model 66

leadership model C. Conduct

B. D.

D. moral

C. 40.

Decision makers' personalities are reflected in The decisions are made on the basis of majority
the choices they make by the following sets of rule, and this approach is rarely used in private
variables, organizauon

EXCEPT: because it tends to polarize voting participants

into "winners" and "losers" on any given
38. question.
situational variables free-rain approach
personality variables none of these
conditional autocratic approach
B. democratic approach
A. .
D. D.
interactional variables In addition to having to cope with this
It . is the context of decision making, and it can acceleration effect, today's decision-makers
be thought of as the guidelines that a person face three other tougn
uses when challenges, EXCEPT:
39. A. complexity
confronted with a situation in which a choice C. certainty
must be made.
41.
values
B. flexible thinking
B.
D. uncertainty
In decision making process, this encourages discrepancy between and existing and desired
supervisors to delegate responsibility, enabling state of affairs.
decisions to be
identifying criteria
made at the lowest possible supervisory level.
allocating weights
42.
formulating the problem
group approach
developing alternatives
individual approach
A.
decentralized approach
B.
centralized approach
C.
A.
D.
B.
45. It shall be administered based on rules and
C. regulations approved by the National Police
Commission
D.
(NAPOLCOM) for the members of the police
43. They can serve a number of supervisory organization in order to assess and measure
purposes, and they, for instance help individual efficiency,
supervisors get an overall
competence and effectiveness.
perspective on a concrete situation.
performance evaluation system B.
A.
all of these
roles
performance evaluation rating
B.
A.
statues
D.
influencers
none of these
D.
C.
models
It shall be the duty of the reviewing officer to .
44. The decision making process that affects the
police organization begins with this step, or personnel concerned when requested by him
more specifically, a but when appropriate.

46.
with the rater or supervisor and the police scheduling

signed the report all of these

relayed the report A.

discuss the report D.

talking the report none of these

. C.

D. 49

47. In PER, it measures the necessary In PER, this refers to the technical knowledge
coordination of work which directly or indirectly required of police work which includes
involves other employees, consistent compliance

sections, divisions or departments which with policies, rules and procedures relating to
include such factors like pre-planning, timing the job.
and consistent excellence of
A.
work's judgment.
knowledge of work
sensitivity
acceptable work
work coordination
B.
B.
work judgment
initiative
quality of work
D.
D.
C
.
ethical conduct
50.
48. In PER, this refers to the ability to meet the
work programs of the organization, it also This refers to flexibility and versatility and the
ability to adjust to actions or viewpoints to
involves proper
changing
establishment of the time-table to make things
conditions.
done through subordinates.

B. initiative

adaptability
coordinating
effectiveness that the case is assigned to an officer and
investigative efforts are presently active and on-
B going
D. 2.
A. A.
sensitiveness open investigation
C. B.
67 continuing investigation

C.

all of these
ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION D.
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in preliminary investigation
each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer on ce 3. In administrative case designations as
considerations in case management. it means
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the that all available leads
letter of your choice
have been exhausted but the case has not been
It is defined as the procedure for collecting, brought to a conclusion and investigative efforts
recording, organizing and preserving all various may resume
information gathered in an investigation.
follow-up investigation
1.
suspended investigation
investigation
B.
B.
C.
trial preparation
initial investigation
C.
D.
case screening
none of these
D.
In administrative case designation as
case management considerations in case management, it means
In administrative case designation as that the case has been
considerations in case management, it means
concluded, it includes exception, arrest, and It can be defined as a pre-trial procedure
unfounded cases. whereby the opposing litigants supply
information to each other that is necessary to
4. their positions at trial.
A. 6.
open investigation B.
B. discovery
suspended investigation A.
C. plea bargaining
closed investigation
investigation
D. D.
follow-up investigation pre-trial conference
The objective of case screening is to apply C.
available manpower to those investigations that
have the best This refers to the inter-exchange of information,
and which typically occurs prior to trial, but as
chance of being successful; the written criteria evidences surfaces, may extend well into a
should specify how such is to be conducted, by given trial period.
whom, and what
7.
5.
B.
criteria should be used.
trial period
solvability factor
A.
B.
investigation period
initial investigation
D.
A.
prosecution period
D.
C.
physical evidence
discovery period
C.
8.
modus operandi
It is an enormous electronic filing cabinet that B.
can store information and retrieve it in any
desired format. instrumentalities

C.
B.

computerized data instrument

D.
artificial data

72 properties

.This doctrine allows courts to strip a person of

C.
property if the property was involved in a
collected data certain offense.

D. A.

automated database doctrine of guilty property

9. It is a term used to describe the confiscation B

of assets, by the state, which are either, i.e., the
doctrine of silver platter
proceeds

of crime or the instrumentalities of crime, and C.

more recently, terrorism. doctrine of plain view
A. D.
sequestration doctrine of parens patriae
B. 12. These are properties for which ownership
escheating itself is a crime, e.g., illegal drugs, smuggled
goods, and any other
asset forfeiture
properties subject of the offense.
D.
.
all of these
contraband
C.
B.
10. These are properties used to facilitate
prohibited articles
crimes, to commit a crime or intended to be
used of committing crimes, or any properties or C.
materials used in committing crimes.
illegal items
equipment
D. mainly because of the burden of proof in
criminal cases, namely proof beyond a
assets & net worth reasonable doubt.
13. Properties that results from, or can be .
traced back to illegal activity of those properties
stolen of embezzled. asset forfeiture

A. B.

property stolen or embezzled B. freezing of asset

proceeds of illegal activity C.

C. sequestration

property subject of the offense D. D.

property used in committing crime criminal forfeiture

This involves the ability to trace a connection 16.

between money and illegal activities. and it
What the government needs to prove is the
cannot always be certain that there is a
connection between them, but often it is not preponderance f the evidence that the property
in question was
difficult to come up with one that sounds
reasonable. used or obtained illegally, thus making it subject
to forfeiture.
14.

. A.

forfeiture
administrative case

B. B.

asset forfeiture
criminal cases

C. C.

confiscation
forfeiture cases

D. D.

civil forfeiture
civil cases

15. It is a sentencing option if the statute used 73

to convict the offender also provide for
forfeiture, and in some accounts, less common
17. Generally, it is the first step in the forfeiture A.
process, and this can occur in several ways,
including warrants facilitation procedure

forfeiture proceedings
or restraining orders.

A. B.

C.
forfeiture of assets

B. confiscation procedure

D.
searches of assets

C. standard procedure

20.
seizure of assets

D. Asset forfeiture is beneficial for at least three

reasons, as follows, EXCEPT:
freezing of assets
A.
18. It is illegal to possess and, as such, is subject
crime reduction
to forfeiture, and no one can assert a legal
interest in contraband property, so any B.
property interest in it cannot exist.
Increased arrest rate
A.
C.
illegal article
budget boost
contraband property
D.
B.
seizure of property
C.
21. It 1S not an easy, natural thing; it is
forbidden property important that the investigator has to look at it
D. as naturally as possible; and show your interest,
and pay your attention to what people are
prohibited article saying.

19. It 1S sometimes called instrumentality .

forfeiture, meaning the property targeted for
forfeiture was investigating

B.
instrumental to the commission of the crime or
in the fulfillment of a crime.
Witnessing Witness presentation

C. 24. The investigators appearance in court is

extremely important. How the court will
testifying perceive the investigators credibility will in part
D. determine by the following, EXCEPT:

all of these A.

22. It is the initial questioning of a witness or appearance

defendant by the prosecution who is using the B.
person's testimony to further the case.
demeanor
A.
C.
re-cross examination
professionalism
B.
D.
re-direct examination
intelligence
C.
25.
witness examination
They are often called into court to present
D. testimony, and the courts are often influenced
direct examination by their appearance and demeanor on the
witness stand.
23. It is the questioning by the defense lawyer
for the purpose of assessing the validity of the A.
testimony made by the investigator in the police officers
witness stand.
B.
A.
witnesses
re-cross examination
74
B.
C.
cross examination
all of these
C.
D.
officer's testimony
investigators
D.
26. This is an "Act Defining and Penalizing the more common forms is a deposition
Crime of Plunder."
B.
A.
discovery is interrogatory
R.A. No. 7080
C.
B.
involves the production of physical evidence
R.A. No. 7008
D.
C.
formalized case management procedures
R.A. No. 8770
29
D.
These should contain a copy of preliminary
R.A. No. 7800 investigative reports and all the originals should
be maintained in central records, records of
This is an "Act Defining the Crime of Money statements, result of examinations of physical
Laundering, Providing Penalties and for Other evidence, case status reports, and other reports
Purposes." and records needed for investigative purposes.
A. case management

27. B.

R.A. No. 9610 case folders

B. C.

R.A. No. 9160 case files

C. D.

R.A. No. 9106 filing cabinets

D. 30.

R.A. No. 9061 Case management includes the following

activities, as follows, EXCEPT:
28.
A.
These are the various forms of discovery in
connection with case management, and which taking notes on the facts observed
is having importance with organized crime B.
investigations, to wit, EXCEPT:
preparing official reports
A.
C. affidavits

maintaining a separate case folder D.

D. statements

allow the presentation of information /5

31 It involves gathering, collecting, and They are creatures of habit and emotion, and
preparing the raw material for a court or they have a certain set of written and unwritten
hearing, and can include rules they follow in their courtrooms.

evidence gathering, forensic investigation, 33.

private investigations, evidence analysis, and
A.
preparing witness

testimony. lawyers

B.
case management

B. prosecutors

C.
court preparation

C. judges

D.
trial preparation

D. witnesses

34. They are intensely stressful, regardless of

Case preparation
how many cases one has tried, and when the
32. It tends to be a gold mine, a synthesis of not stakes are big, the stress skyrockets.
only the information collected by the plaintiff's
attorney, but A.

prosecutions
also the strategy and thinking of all of the other
parties involved in criminal proceedings. B.
depositions trials
B. C.
testimony hearings
A D.
C. investigations
These are having an undeniable impact that no the nature of violation includes victim
amount of verbal description can capture, and it participation.
should clarify and solidify the message of the
37.
investigator in presenting evidence.

35. A.

criminal investigation
audio visuals

B. B.

proactive law enforcement

LCD presentation

A. C.

all of these
C.

overhead projector D.

special crime investigation

D.

visual aids These crimes are often referred to as "*_

police or law enforcement agencies.

This encouraged citizens to report crimes; then
the agency then responds, and this type of law 38.
enforcement is used in dealing with
conventional crimes. because victims are unlikely to report the crime
to the
36.
violation of penal code
A.
violation of special laws
reactive law enforcement
B.
B.
C.
crime prevention && control
crimes against person
C.
D.
eliminating opportunity
victimless crimes
D.
This is the basic starting point of organized
none of these crime investigation, by which the investigators
This requires the police officers and agents to thoroughly mine
seek out indications of criminal behavior, a
necessity when
to learn the structure of the organization, the the more traditional forms of crimes.
identity of its leaders and membership.
inter-agency liaisons activities
39.
B.
A.
news clipping and de-briefing
publicly available information
C.
B.
greater cooperation and coordination
privately available information
D.
C.
rapport from other pillars of the CJS
need to know and compartmentation
It is not necessarily an international activity;
D. most organized criminal activity of interest in a
particular
police intelligence operations security
country will occur within its borders.
40. It is unlike the investigation of other types
of crime in that it is proactive instead of 42.
reactive; and the law
A.
enforcement does not anymore simply respond
transnational crimes
to the scene after the crime has been
committed. B.
special crime investigation enterprise crimes
B. C.
investigation of organized crime drug trafticking
C. D.
miscellaneous field investigation organized crime
76 43. It range from minor bribery of law
enforcement agents to "look the other way," to
D.
paying off judges and high-
crimes against person investigation
ranking officials.
than that of
A
41. The investigation of the criminal activity
threat and violence
associated with organized crime involves
B. good police organization

sphere of influence D.

C. good community relations

corruption practices 46. It can be defined as government seizure of

property derived from or used in criminal
D. activity, and it is
monopoly of goods designed to strip criminals of their financial
44. rewards and is widely used because the threat
of imprisonment and
They are likely to be very sophisticated, and
generally, they would not have attained this Tines has been inadequate to deter crimes
level of criminal netting huge profits.

activity without some knowledge of how to A.

avoid detection and prosecution. confiscation
syndicated crimes B.
B. escheating
enterprise eriminals C.
A. revocation
C. D.
transnational crimes forfeiture
D. It has proved to be one of the most useful types
organized crimes of law in combating organized crime, and its use
can have many benefits for the criminal
45. It is the single most important tool in investigator.
countering organized crime, which is supported
by files detailing over time the collection and 47.
analysis of information and intelligence. secrecy law
A. B.
good intelligence unit bank deposits law
B. A.
good operations units C.
D. international cooperation

complex crime law The purpose of this inquiry is to determine the

extent to which a person, group, of organization
conspiracy law receives and benefits from money obtained
77 from other than legitimate sources.

48. It is helpful in providing a computerized 50.

investigative data base and some products of A.
investigative analysis, such as toll call analysis
and link charting, as well as technical assistance income analysis
and referrals for law enforcement agencies
B.
needing technical assistance.

A. cash analysis

C.
information sharing

B. source analysis

D.
information sharking

C. net worth analysis

78
information giving

D.
DRUG EDUCATION & VICE CONTROL
information lending

49. It is the key to success in virtually all ==========

counter-measures against criminal enterprises INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in
due to the fact that criminal syndicates are each of the following questions. Mark only one
multi-territorial and trans-national. answer on eacn
A item by a putting a circle corresponding to the
letter of your choice.
inter-agency cooperation

B. 1. it is described as stream of fantastic images

and kaleidoscope-like play of colors, a user
lateral coordination whose eyes are closed will experience some
pattern of images.
C.
A.
rapport and coordination
blackouts
D.
closed-eyes imagery D.

escapist ba

It is one which the LSD taker believes that trips

frightening bodily changes are resulting from
the drug. 4.

It is the result of LSD induced illusions and

bad head trips
dysphoria. In these bad trips walls may seem
flashback coming in and trees may seem to grasp the drug
user.
B.
bad head trips
C.
A.
stimulus intensification
bad body trips
D.
D. flashback
2.
It is the strongest effects of LSD, and described
bad environment trips as a sensory crossing or all acoustic perception
bad body trips that makes every sound causing a
corresponding-colored hallucination.
It is the distortion otf ordinary perception.

A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
bad environment trips
D.
5.
3.
synesthesia
A.
dysphoria
illusion
B.
blackouts
bad trips
B.
C.
C.
D.
flashback
euphoria
6. jelly brain

It involves the LSD taker confronting an closed-eyes imagery

emotional crisis that has been suppressed until
A.
normal defense were lowered by the LSD.

bad body trips confusional syndrome

hallucinations
bad trips

A. B.

C.
bad environment trips

bad head trips D.

9.
It is a state of hearing and seeing thing which
does not actually exist. It is usually viewed by the LSD user as an
enviable brief nostalgic experience and it
B.
usually involve fairly
C.
Simple and common illusions.
D.
flashback
.
dysphoria
A.
B.
hallucination
illusions
B.
C.
illusion
D.
C.
euphoria
dysphoria
10. Dry mouth and throat experienced by
D. marijuana user is known as:

euphoria A

3. C.

When the person became chronically confused dry throat

because of the use of drug for several times in a
week, they are being nicknamed what? none of these

dry mouth
B. inhibition

cotton mouth A.

D. B.

, It is one of the obvious manifestations of C.

marijuana use.
14.
blood shot eye
D
coughing
These are the two successive phases that can be
dropping eyelids experienced in taking PCP.

B. stimulus intensification

A. B.

C. escapists

cotton mouth A.

D. C.

12. It is the loss of identify and humanness intensification & escapist

experience by marijuana user.
all of these
depersonalization
D,
none of these
15, These are the requirements during the
personalization conduct of actual buy-bust operations.

all of the above 87

B. poseur buyer

C. all of these

3 It is an exaggerated sense distress or marked money

unhappiness.
none of these
D.
B.
dysphoria
C.
depersonalization
D.
euphoria
It is reters to any act of introducing any Any facility used for the illegal manufacturing of
dangerous drugs into the body of any person, any dangerous drug, controlled precursor or
with or without nis essentia

knowledge by injecting, ingestion or other chemicals.

means of taking a dangerous drug to himself or
8.
herself.

6. instrumentation

clandestine laboratory
administer

B. chemical diversion

19. It is an analytical test conducted to a

takin
suspected drug uses by using a device, tool or
A. equipment with a

C. different chemical or physical principle that is

more specific, purposely to validate the result
using of initial sereening
D. A.
introducing B.
It is the sale, distribution, supply or transport of C.
legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured
or procured centers

7. D.

controlled precursor and essential chemicals. test.

cultivate Screening test

A. none of the above

B. This is an investigative technique made by the

law enforcement agency of allowing an
culture unlawful or
C. contirmatory test
chemical diversion drug test
D. A.
all of the above B.
C. 22.

D. A.

20. chemical diversion

suspected consignment of any dangerous drugs B.

and/or controlled precursor and essential
cultivate or culture
chemicals.

chemical diversion C.

deliver
.

cultivate or culture D.

controlled delivery
controlled delivery

It is any act of knowingly planting, growing, A place where any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential chemical is
raising, or permitting the planting, growing or
raising of any administered,

delivered.
C.

deliver 23.

A.
D.

21. den

B.
plant which is the source of a dangerous drugs.

cultivate dive

resort
cultivate or culture

B. D.

den, dive or resort

culture

D. .

24. Any act of giving away of selling or

all of the above
distributing medicine or any dangerous drug
It is any act of knowingly passing a dangerous with or without the use of
drug to another, personally or otherwise, and.
by any means, prescription.

deliver
with or without consideration.
dispense 27. These are any person who pays for, raises or
supplies money for, or underwrites any of the
administer illegal activities
B. B.
A. A.
D. D.
all of these prescribed by RA 9165.
C. B.
25. It is a cluster of physiological, behavioral caretaker
and cognitive phenomena of variable intensity
in which the use of employee

Psychoactive drug takes on a high priority. financier

drug addiction A.

drug habituation D.

physical dependence lookout

drug dependence The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery

administration, dispensation, manufacture,
B. sale, trading,
A. 28
C. ransportation, etc. of any dangerous drug
D. and/or controlled precursor.

26. Any organized group of two 2) or more selling

persons forming or joining together with the manufacture
intention of
B.
Committing any offense prescribed by RA 9165.
C.
syndicated crime group
pushing
drug syndicate
illegal trafficking
organized crime group
D.
drug traffickers
38 dangerous drugs.

29. planting evidence

It is the production, preparation, compounding unlawful search

or processing of nay dangerous drugs or
controlled precursor illegal arrest

none of the above

and essential chemical.

cultivate A.

B.
B.

culture D.

32. Any person who sells, trades, administers,

A.
dispenses, delivers or gives away to another any
C. dangerous drugs

illegal trafficking controlled precursor and essential chemical.

D. pushers

manufacture sellers

It refers to the coagulated juice of the opium traffrickers

poppy and e3braces every kind, class and
character of opium. administer

A.
0.

opium B.

C.
shabu

B. D.

33. Any act of giving away any dangerous drug

cocaine
whether for money or any other consideration.
A.
push
D.
traffic
ecstacy
B.
31. t is any willful act by any person of
maliciously and surreptitiously inserting, sell
placing, adding any C.
D. screening test

administer confirmatory test

Transactions involving the traffic of dangerous drug test

drugs or controlled precursor and essential
chemicals. A.

B.
manufacturing

traffickingg C.

D.
34.

trading none of these

1 37. Any person who knowingly and willfully

administering
consents the unlawful acts provided by RA
A. 9165.

D. coddler

5. protector

Any act of injecting, intravenously or protector or coddler

intramuscularly, of consuming any of dangerous
B.
drugs.

use C.

D.
B.

administer all of these

38.
.

C. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive

Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
taking
RA 19565
D.
RA 1965
dispense
RA 9165
36.
B.
A rapid test performed to establish potential
presumptive positive result. A

C.
RA 9156 When less 1% of the local populations are drug
dependents it is being categorized as.
D.
seriously affected
39.
threatened to be affected
When 2.5% of the population are drug
dependents, or there are existence of pushers less seriously affected
and laboratories in the
cleared barangay
community it is being categorized as.
A.
seriously affected
B.
threatened
C.
less seriously affected
D.
cleared barangay
When there are no drug pushers and drug users
B. in a given barangay it is being categorized as.

A. B.

C. 2.

D. seriously affected

When 1.0% to 2.49 of the local population is threatened to be affected

drug dependents is being categorized as.
less seriously affected
40.
cleared barangay
seriously affected
A.
threatened to be affected
C.
less seriously affected
D.
cleared barangay
43, It is learning process that influences an
A. individual emotionally, intellectually,
psychologically and socially
C.
may result in the modification of attitudes that
D. influence behavior.
41. drug symposium
all of these psychological model

B. 89

drug seminar Assumes that drug abuse result from bad choice
made in ignorance of the true effects and
drug education hazards of drugs.
A. A.
C. 46.
D. medical model
44. It relies on the passage of prohibitory laws law enforcement model
and the infliction of threat to prevent drug
abuse. educational model

medical model B.

psychological model C.

A. D.

law enforcement model psychological model

B. Sees drugs as a means of coping with the

problems and frustration of adolescence.
D.
47.
C.
law enforcement model
educational model
B.
Attempts to treat drug as if it were an infectious
epidemic. medical model

medical model A.

45. psychological model

law enforcement model Sees the roots of drug abuse in our society and
not in the individual.
B.
prevention model
C.
none of the above
educational model
C.
D.
educational model B.

D. C.

18 opium leaves

socio-cultural mod D.

D.

all of the above

49. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the

indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness, and corruption

of individual person.

A.

addiction

B.

VIce
FIRE TECHNOLOGY & ARSON INVESTIGATION
gambling

Means any part of the plant of the species ==<=======S= ===============<======

papaver somniferum L, including the seeds INSTRUCTIONS: Select the corect ansiwer in
thereof. each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer on each
C.

alcoholism jtem by a putting a circle corresponding to the

letter of your choice.
D.
1. This Act shall be known as the "Revised Fire
50. Code of the Philippines of 2008."

opium seeds A.

opium straw R.A. No. 9145

A. B.

opium poppy R.A. No. 9541

C. 4. A building unsafe in case of fire because it
will burn easily or because it lacks adequate
R.A. No. 9415 exits or fire escapes.
D. A.
R.A. No. 9514 fire trap
2. Any act that would remove or neutralize a B.
fire hazard.
fire cage
A.
C.
controlling
fire hazard
B.
D.
abatement
fire zone
C.
Any visual or audible signal produced by a
firefighting device to warm the occupants of the building or
D. firefighting elements of the presence or danger
of fire.
preventing
5.
3. A hot piece or lump that remains after a
material has partially burned, and is still A.
oxidizing without the manifestation of flames. fire alarm
A. B.
lights fire warning
B. C.
ashes fire signal
C. D.
ember fire call
D. 6. Any condition or act which increases or may
sparks cause an increase in the probability of the
occurrence of fire, or

M
which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere A.
with firefighting operations and the
safeguarding of life and ignition point

B.
property.

fire trap spark point

C.
B.

fire hazard kindling point

D.
A.

C. flash point

9. Passageway from one building to another or

fire danger
through or around a wall in approximately the
D. same floor level.

fire door 98

7. The portion of a roadway or public-way that A.

should be kept opened and unobstructed at all
times for the vertical exit

B.
expedient operation of firefighting units.

A. diagonal exit

C.
fire street

B. emergency exit

D.
fire road

C. horizontal exit

10. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor

fire lane
used to bypass a safety device in an electrical
D. system.

fire line A.

8. The minimum temperature at which any overloading

material gives off vapor in sufficient
concentration to form an B.

octopus's connection
ignitable mixture with air.
C. D.

Jumper dry pipe system

D. 13. A system of vertical pipes in a building to

which fire hoses can be attached on cach floor,
all of these including a system
11. The use of one or more electrical appliances by which water is made available to the outlets
or devices which draw or consume electrical as needed.
current beyond the
A.
designed capacity of the existing electrical
system. fire control system

A. B.

electrical failure fire hoses and boxes

B. C.

overloading standpipe system

C. D.

load capacity fire pipe system

D. 14. An enclosed vertical space of passage that

extends from floor to floor, as well as from the
short-circuiting base to the top of
12. An integrated network.of hydraulically the building
designed piping installed in a building, structure
or area which A.

automatically discharges water when activated diagonal shaft

by heat.
B.
A.
vertical shaft
sprinkler system
C.
B.
circular shaft
wet pipe system
D.
C.
horizontal shaft
stand pipe system
15. A passage hall or antechamber between the phosphorous
outer doors and the interior parts of a house or
building. C.

sulfuric acid
A.

abatement D.

ammonium chloride
B.

shaft 18. It is the most common form of accelerant.

A.
C.

vestibule kerosenee

B.
D.

Jumper turpentine

C.
16. These are employed by the arsonist to delay
the start of a fire and allow them to establish an gasoline
alibi.
D.
A.
diesoline
candles
99
B.
19. To optimize limited human and material
matches resources in fire and arson investigation, the
cigarettes concerned fire service authorities had to
develop a
D.
A.
timing deyices
case management system
C.
B..
17. This is a chemical element which ignites
case tracking system
upon exposure to air, and has been employed
to start or delayed a C.
fire. case monitoring system
chlorine D.
. case recording system
20. There are three main reasons to use an suspected arson is threefold, except:
investigative checklist in fire or arsons
investigation, EXCEPT: A.

to determine where the fire started

A.

to ensure that pertinent fact has been identified B.

to establish the corpus delicti of the crime of

B.
arson
to identify cases to be assigned to management
C.
system

C. to establish whether the fire was intentionally

set
to serve as supervisory tool in evaluating
performance D.

to connect the arsonist to the crime scene

D.

to preserve and maintain the crime scene and 23. In arson cases, especially arson-for-profit,
uncovering this in the burned property can be a
evidence
formidable task.
21. These are used to extend the fire from the
A.
plant or set to other parts of the structure, and
sometimes they lead from the starter plant to uncovering ownership of financial interest
one or more secondary plants.
B.
A.
connecting the suspect from the fire scene
trailers
C.
B.
proper collection and preservation of evidence
streamers
D.
C.
determining those posing as straw owners
all of these
24 These are least likely to be of immediate
D. service, but later, in the investigation of fire or
arson they may be
none of these

22. The purpose of examining the scene and invaluable in establishing a motive.
attempting to recognize and collect physical B.
evidence in a case of
physical evidence
A. that substantial amount of inflammable
substance or materials were stored within the
reports building or
C. premises
crime scene C.
D. that is intentional, neither accidental or
records attributable to some other causes

:. This report in arson investigation contains a D.

word picture of all information developed that the fire started simultaneously in more
during the than one part of the building
VEstigation, and all materials included should 27. As provided by Section 4, P.D. No. 1613, as
be concise, accurate, and complete. amended the following are the aggravating
B. circumstances of

final reports arson, EXCEPT:

A A.

Spot report if there is conspiracy to commit the crime of

arson
D.
B.
investigation reports
if committed with intent to gain or benefit of
C. another

reports & records C.

100 one of the offender is motivated by spite or

hatred
26. As provided by Art. 326-B of the Revised
Penal Code, any of the following circumstances D.
shall constitut
if committed by two or more persons or
prima facie evidence of arson, EXCEPT: syndicated arson

A 28. This is the later provision of the existing

laws, amending the laws on arson and other
if after the fire, are found materials soaked in
forms of destructions
accelerant or other inflammables
as provided by Article 320 to Article. 326-B,
B.
Chapter VII, RPC.
A. inhabited place, or factory of inflammable
materials
PD No. 7144
C.
B.
all of these
PD No. 1613
D.
C.
none of these
P.D. No. 1185
31. This is done with the use of water, and the
D. temperature of the substance is lowered below
R.A. 9514 the burning point.

2 A.

29. This is otherwise known as the Fire Code of cooling

the Philippines. B.
A. quenching
PD No. 1185 C.
B. all of these
R.A. No. 9514 none of these
C. 32. It is also known colloquially as a "fire plug:"
P.D. 1744 it is a source of water provided in most urban,
suburban and
D.
Tural areas with water services to enable
P.D. No. 1613 firefighters to tap into the water supply to assist
in extinguishing fire.
30. As provided by P.D. No. 1744. the penalty of
reclusion temporal in its maximum period to A.
death shall also
fire hydrant
be imposed upon any person who shall burn:
B.
A.
tanker truck
any arsenal, shipyard storehouse or military
powdere C.

B. turntable ladder
D. D.

quint and quad casing of fire

ite 35. It is either the venting, or containment-

isolation, actions by on-scene firefighters, in an
33. It is the analysis by the firefighter of the effort to gain
forewarning of a thermal accident-flashover,
back draft, smoke tactical advantage during interior structural
firefighting operations.
xplosion, which is performed during fire
suppression maneuvers. A.

101 positive ventilation

A B.

watching the fire isolation of fire

B. C.

observing the fire tactical ventilation

C. D

none of these pressure ventilation

D. 36. t is the result of an object blocking the heat

transfer through radiation and convection or
reading of the fire direct flame
34. It is the first step of the operation to search contact from its source to the surface of the
for the origin of fire, especially when there are material on which the pattern is produced.
no witnesses, and
A.
spot the specific risks and the possible
casualties. heat tailing

A. B.

reconnaissance heat source

B. C.

surveillance heat marking

C. D.

all of these heat shadowing

37. It refers to the cracking of glass into smaller 39. It is a condition ordinarily associated with
segments or sub-divisions in an irregular masonry and cement-concrete, building
pattern. The extent of materials, and it may

which a glass item, e-g, window pane, will crack appear as a distinctive discoloration of brick or
in relation to the type of glass involved. concrete objects subjected to heat.

A. A.

crazing none of these

B. B.

grazing spilling

C. C.

splitting spalling

D. D.

crackling sampling

38. This refers to the changes that occur during 40. It is the basic chemical process of
a fire in either plaster or gypsum wall surfaces; combustion, or of some materials that do not
and this may burn can produce lines of

include the elimination of water from the demarcation and fire patterns useful to the fire
gypsum to charring the paper surface off the investigator.
wall board.
A.
A.
oxidation
carbonization
B.
B.
Pyrolysis
calcination
C.
C.
oxidative
acclimation
D.
D.
oxidize
oxigination
It is the carbonization of a fuel by the action of
heat or burning materials, and the term is
generally applied
The combustible residue remaining after the A.
pyrolyis of the wood material.
examination of the fire scene
A.
B.
graze
reconsțruction of the fire scene
B.
C.
craze
all of the above
C.
D.
spall
none of the above
D.
44. In the case of s suspicious fire, it should be
char minimized, and if circumstances permit, the
room of origin
102
should not be subjected to this before an
42 f appears between the affected and adjacent investigator is on the fire scene and can
unaffected or less affected area of the structure supervise the operation.
and its contents,
A.
and it is very much dependent on the material,
the heat release of fire. controlling process

A. overhaul process

line of separation B.

B. C.

area of demarcation revising process

C. D.

delineation checking process

D. 45. It is a prima facie evidence that the fire was

of incendiary origin, since such condition is
division highly improbable
43. It can be seriously impeded by and virtually impossible under normal
indiscriminate or haphazard handling of the conditions.
routine fire-fighting operation
A.
known as the overhaul.
discovery of heat source in the scene natural

B. C.

discovery of fuel source in the scene incendiary

C. D.

discovery of multiple points of origin accidental

D. 48. When it is believed to have been the

initiating factor, there is a need to determine if
discovery of physical evidence this is of an adequate
46. It is also known as drop down fires, or Cmperature to have been ignited the fuel
burning materials falling to the floor, or
source of the burned motor vehicle.
explosion can also give the
A.
appearance of the multiple points of origin.
Oxygen source
A.
B.
falling materials
fuel source
B.
all of these
fall down fires
D.
C.
heat source
dropping materials
. The presence of either separate and distinct or
D. primary and second burn patterns on the
burning materials exterior suggests

47. This is used when the cause of the fire 103

cannot be proven, whether the fire is still under A.
investigation or
deliberate damage
awaiting further information; and this is one of
the four (4) categories of fire. B. collision damage

A. C.

undetermined intentional damage

B. D.
accidental damage

50. It may indicate that the fire burned itself

out, possibly due to the lack of oxygen, and
neither windows nor

doors were open to supply oxygen where fire

was started.

A.

primary burn patterns

B. CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION

secondary burn patterns TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENT
C. INVESTIGATION

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in

all of these
each of the following questions. Mark only one
104 answer on

each item by a putting a circle corresponding to

the letter of your choice.

It probably the oldest method of transportation

and travel. As early as the pre historic times,
man

knew how to walk, both on twos and fours, and

after the invention of wheels, road transport
revolutionized

in a big way.

air transportation

land transport

Historically, it became very important because

of man's tendency to settle down around water

A.

human transport

B.
C. D. all of these

none of these C. airplane

D. It is the first form of transport was; however

people eventually learned to use animals for
2. transport.
bodies. B. animal transport C. water transport
water transport B. motor vehicle
all of these 5.
B. A. human foot
sea transport D. land transport
river transport 6.
Its usage for the purpose of transportation They are famous for the network of roads they
started around 500 years ago; and initially, it built across the Empire; and their legionaries
consisted of built the roads so the army could march from
C. one part to another quickly.

D. B. English

3. A. Americans

man or horse power and sometimes also made C. Romans

of wood. D. Spaniards
sea transport 7.
air transport In the local setting, it was replaced by the Sarao
rail transport Jeeps that were mass transportation as well as
works of art in the country.
road transport
A. Owner
A.
B. Willy's Jeep
C.
C. Passenger Jeepney
It is one of the most revolutionizing inventions
of the history of mankind. D. Wagon

A. sea vessels 8.
The Spanish brought with them to the pedestrians; and any attempt to redirect their
Philippines European influence. Transportation behavior without understanding will not be able
includes, the Galleons- used in the Manila- to effectively
Acapulco route and its purposes were to trade,
transport goods and fend off enemies of the solve the traffic problems.
Spaniards; and were in used. 11.
B. carretelas traffic engineering
C. calesas traffic enforcement
D. Galleon B.
A. horse driven carriage A.
9. traffic education
It greatly improved during the 20th century. D.
Although the first cars appeared at the end of
the 19th century after the end of World War I C.
they became cheaper and more common.
traffic management
B. mobility
12.
C. transport
It consists of pedestrians, ridden or herded
D. travel animals, vehicles. streetcars and other
conveyances, either Singly or together, while
A. conveyances using the public way for purposes of travel.
In the Pre-Hispanic period, Manila 's occupants traffic on roads
Who were Mohammedans were ruled by
Lakans who roamed the kingdom on a chair traffic on wheels
with bamboo stilts, and these are called as:
B.
10.
A.
B. Royal Stools
traffic unit
C. Royal Carriages D. Royal Chairs
D.
A. Royal Crates
C.
It presupposes an understanding of the
traffic elements
motivation behind the behavior of motorist,
commuters, and 112
13. It grows most obviously and at alarming rate
primarily in areas experiencing rapid population
These are the laws which govern traffic and growth, which cause parallel increase in the
regulate vehicles, while rules of the road are ownership and use of automotive vehicles.
both the laws and the informal rules that may
have developed over time to facilitate the A.
orderly and timely flow of all
immediate causes
the traftic units.
B.
A.
long-term causes
traffic laws
secondary causes
B.
Tt is a strategy wherein the expansion of the
traffic ordinances peak-hour carrying capacity of an area's
transportation system seems to be the most
. intuitively obvious response to greater
traffic acts congestion can be implemented through

D C.

traffic regulations principal causes

14. D.

This is otherwise known as "The Land 16.

Transportation Code of the Philippines, as diverse means.
Amended".
supply and demand
R.A. No. 4361
demand side strategy
B.
supply side strategy
R.A. No. 4136
B
C
C.
R.A. No. 4631
none of these
D.
D.
R.A. No. 4163
These are some of the measures to mitigate
15. traffic congestion, EXCEPT:

intelligent transportation
effective traffic management all of these

17. highway privatizations

A. none of these

rush hour policies A.

preemption policies B.

B. C.

C. D.

D. These are some of the innovations, purposely to

address the traftic problems in most of the
18. places in
It is a condition on road networks that occurs as the country, EXCEPT:
use increases, and is characterized by slower
speeds, 20.

longer trip times, and increased vehicular reiterates the use of public roadways as a
queueing in a traffic way. matter of privilege and not as matter of right

traffic clogging all forms of privatization of public

thoroughfares should be controlled
traffic congestion
must encourage the development of a mass
traffic problem transport system and de-emphasize the use of
traffic accident private vehicles
A. to improve the traffic management activities
C. thru the sEs, 1.e., engineering, education and

D. A.

Because roads in most places are free at the B.

point of usage, there is little financial incentive C.
for drivers not to over-use them, these have
been both proposed as measures to reduce D.
congestion.
enforcement
19.
21.
road pricing
It is that phase which deals with the planning ot C.
streets, roads, highways, and the movement of
23.
traffic units thereon in terms of safer,
Commanded to stop and/or to proceed.
convenient, and economie transportation of
persons and goods. traffic signals
B. traffic markings
traffic engineering B.
traffic supervision D.
traffic control Aside from the functional, there are also
important classifications of traftic signs, as
A.
follows,
D.
danger warning signs
traftic direction
C.
These are the functional classifications of traffic
24.
control devices, EXCEPT:

B. EXCEPT:

B.
C.

22. A.

informative signs
warning devices

traffic markings 113

C.
regulatory devices

guiding devices traffic billboards

D.
A.

D. regulatory sings

25.
It is defined as a signal operated manualy,
electrically or mechanically by which traffic is This is a traffic engineering phraseology for
alternately forecasting future traffic demand on target year
traffic lights for roaa

traffic signs
design. It is indicator dictated by development In the field of road transport, an intersection is
of land use, industry, economy, and population a road junction where two or more roads either
component. meet

channelization crossing

filtering Junction

. A.

road & street design B.

B. intersection

C. C.

D. D.

geometric design rotund

26. It is an integral part of the roadway in any It is a traffic engineering terminology that
metropolitan cities of the world, and it is one of separates or regulates the conflict of traffic
species of movements

geometric design. Sidewalk is the answer for into definite paths of travel by means of traffic
the safety of pedestrians in road hazards. island or pavement markings for the safe and
orderly travel.
A
28.
C.
A.
sidewalk
road pavements
B.
channelization
pedestrian lane
B.
shoulders
filtering
island
C.
D.
counter-flow
27.
The word in its literal meaning is to control or
or cross at grade -they are at the same level. constrict the movement of vehicle as it passes
through

D.
29. 32

the lane designated therefore. This play a great role in inculcating a sense of
traffic in the minds of the drivers,
A. inner lane unfortunately, more
B. filter lane stress is given on how to drive the vehicle
C. outer lane rather than on how to behave on the road while
driving.
D. center lane
traffic regulations
30.
all of these
This refers to a tw0-wheeled vehicle moving
between lanes of vehicles that are proceeding Giving signals to fellow drivers and to
in the pedestrians when you turn to a right or left lane
is a sign of
same direction.
A.
A. lane splitting
traffic laws
31. It is the crowning jewel of traffic
management, an abstract architect of social life, B.
and an unyielding C.
master of man's destiny on the roadways, and it traffic rules
is a priceless gem in total gamut of social order
on the road. D.

B. road splitting 3.

C. highway splitting D. street splitting good road ethics

A. good road courtesy

traffic environment good road discipline

B. good road civility

traffic information B.

C. C.

traffic economy D.

D. 34.

traftic education
It has assumed huge importance, especially A. noise pollution
after recent episodes of alcoholic person,
mowing down 37. It is usually seen, especially at traftic signals,
thus changing the course of their vehicle, and at
people and causing injury to several others.
intersections.
texting driver
queuing through traffic
addict driver
merging through traffic
drunken driving
squeezing through traffic
alcoholic driver
overtaking through traftic
A.
B.
B.
A.
C.
C
.
D.
35.
114
As far as possible, it must be avoided, and in
case it is required, it needs to be done from the 38.
right as The most important limitation of traffic
doing it from the left can prove to be education which jeopardized effective traffic
education
dangerous.

A. right-turning through a mixture ot tormal instruction and

one's own experience.
B. left-turning
short period of formal lessons
C. overtaking
long period of formal lessons
D. slowing down
observance of informal lecture
36. It is not prudent, if it is not necessary as it
dissemination, education & information
distracts the fellow commuters and can even
make them feel A.
irritated. B.
B. bright headlights C. air pollution C.
D. blowing of horn D.
Traffic education is sometimes seen as the traffic arrest
solution to all road safety problems; and traffic
education traffic citation

B.
39.

is a good measure for errors made due to the traffic apprehension

following, EXCEPT: C.
A. gaps in knowledge D.
This rule provides that the lead bus moves traffic enforcement
forward to center of the column of buses lining-
up on the The following are the different activities
involved in the attainment of objective of traffic
B.insight law
C. skills D. negligence enforcement objectives, EXCEPT:
40. 42.
bus stop zone, and man remain until the zone is preventive activities
filled up with buses, but not longer than three
minutes. punitive activities

yellow lane rule B.

rotunda rule persuasive activities

A. enforcement actiVities

bus stop rule D.

jeepney stop rule 3.

It is an action taken by the police and other It consists of driving or walking here and there
authorized agencies which induce voluntary in area or to and from a road for the purpose of
compliance traffic

and compel adherence to traftic laws and law enforcement and to provide traffic services
ordinances by regulating the use of movement to the public.
of motor vehicles.
mobile patrol enforcement
B.
motoreycle patrol enforcement
D.
traffic enforcement patrol
41.
foot & beat patrol enforcement apprehension

D. 46.This is an enforcement action which consists

of taking person into custody for the purpose of
C.
holding or detaining him to answer for a law
D. violation charge before a court.
It is wholly a traffic law enforcer's responsibility traffic arrest
and entails in looking for the defects in the
traffic apprehension
4
traftic accosting
behavior of motorist, pedestrians, vehicles, and
roadway condition. It is defined as keeping informed on streets,
highways within existing regulations to make
prosecution their use
penalization B.
D D
apprehension A.
detection C.
C. traftic custody
45 It is wholly a traffic law enforcers' 7.
responsibility where the traffic law enforcers
are required to take safe and expeditious.

action at once to prevent continued and future B.

violations.
traffic direction
A.
A.
arrest
traffic supervision
B.
D.
citation
traffic control
C.
C.
warning
traffic management
D.
48. It is that part of police traffic supervision C.
that involves telling rivers and pedestrians who,
how, and attributes and modifiers of weather

63.
Wnere they may or may not move or stand at a
particular place, especially during periods of This contributes to an accident when some part
emergencies. of its structure, equipment, accessories, or load
traffic enforcement hecomes defective or hazardous and interferes
with the proper operations of the motor
traffic direction
vehicle.
traffic citation
trailer
traffic instruction
A
A.
C.
C.
Whether it is a pedestrian or a vehicle with its
It can also be broadly thought of as facilitating driver, is it called traffic unit; therefore, in
the safë and effīcient movement of motor
vehicles, B.

vehicle
PEaestrians, and other traffic units in hazardous
conditions or special circumstances. tractor
9. D.
A. motor
traffic management 54.
B. investigating accidents, it is a must to try to
discover
traffic adjudication

115 the behavior itself.

that produce behavior, as well as discover

A.

attributes and modifiers of roads driver or pedestrian conditions

accident investigators conditions

B.

attributes and modifiers of vehicles D. A.

B.
attributes and modifiers of drivers
Witnesses or by-standers conditions B.

conductor or passenger condition C.

C. D.

D. 67.

65. These are marks left on the road by tires that

are not free to rotate usually because brakes
It is the accumulation of broken parts of motor are applied
vehicles, rubbish, dust and other materials left
at the strongly enough to lock wheels.

accident scene by a collision. ski-skid

evidences A.

A. B.

B. skid-marks

object C.

material things scuff marks

C. D.

debris yaw marks

D. 68.

66. These are signs left on the road by tires that are
sliding or scrubbing while the wheel is till
These are any marks to the pavement or ground turning
left without sliding by tires on rotating wheels
of the A.

motor vehicle. scuff marks

A. yaw marks

fingerprints braking marks

all of these B.

foot print C.

imprints pavement marks

D. Undoubtedly photographs in traffic accident
scenes are used as evidence more frequently
69 than any
It is the amount of drag that a pavement puts Ouner type of picture; and some of important
on a tire or tires on a wheel compared to the reasons are as follows, EXCEPT:
weight on
.
that wheel. It is expressed by a number, usually
a decimal fraction. 71.

B. statistics show that néarly half of the suits

arising out of traffic accidents.
grade
photographs of the scene of accident ordinarily
slope are relevant and material
speed the outdoor scene is the least difficult type of
drag factor photographic subjects

A. on unpaved roads without clean-cut edges or

curbs, things cannot be located so easily from
C.
edges
D.
.
70.
B.
On unpaved roads without clean-cut edges or
curbs, in sharp curves, and in intersections, C.
especially D.
large irregular one, then the best method is: In traffic accident, at what point in the
polar coordinate investigation, the investigator make this
depends on how it is
station method
72.
A.
compared to other things.
linear coordinate
sketching
.
note-taking
.
photography
triangulation
picture taking
B. distortion of the pictures

A. B.

D. C.

C. over exposure of negatives

73. It the distance from the nearest point to the

farther point which will be in sharp focus for
and there are no hard and any setting
Even more important than when to take D.
pictures is what to
75.
ast rules about this, but there are suggestions
that will be very useful. of the camera.

sketching A.

B. depth of slope

video recording depth of focus

note taking depth of field

D. depth of grade

photographs B.

C. C.

117 D.

76.

74. It is the reflection of a light source in shinny

surface, and sometimes these can play curious
All photographs in traffic accident investigation tricks in
are having this kind of constraints due to
technical photography by making black surfaces look
white.
limitation of the camera, lenses and film.
specular reflection
little distortion and diffusion
bright reflection
A.
spectacular reflectionn
bigger shadowing of image
negative reflection C.

A. camera with zoom lens

B. .

C. long bellows extension

D. 79.

77. These are better in poor light and when there

are no tripods, but they have coarse grains and
Tt is the distance from the nearest point to the so will not produce great enlargements.
farthest point from the camera that the
investigator faster films

wants to be in sharp focus. A.

depth of damage B.

depth of field slower films

A. panchromatic film

depth of char from shiny surfaces of motor vehicles,

especially glass and chromium plating, can show
depth of injury
C.
B.
D.
C.
negative & color film
D.
80.
78.
up so strongly that objects near them or details
Probably the most widely used type of camera in them are invisible in the picture.
for accident photography making negatives 2/4
x 2'/4 specular reflection

inches. bright reflection

A. dim reflection

single-len reflex B.

B. C.

twin-lens reflex lens reflection

D. investigator will go with reconstruction depends
on one of more four things, i.e., ability of
81. people, on needs-
It is the scientific process of investigating, 83.
analyzing, and drawing conclusions about the
causes and events during a motor vehicle basis, time and money, and
collision.
facts available
accident reconstruction
available data
hit & run investigation
B.
on-the-scene traffic investigation
available information
B.
A.
traffic accident investigation
C.
It is one which is not directed toward the center
of mass of the object to which it is applied, but D
to available evidences
C. 84.
D. It is an accidental and usually violent contact
82. between two objects which are approaching
each other
one side of the center.
icle involved in an accident.
B.
because of the movement of one or both of the
centrifugal force motor

collision force collision

eccentric force impact

D. B.

opposing force D.

Accident reconstruction is always necessary accident

when to witnesses survives. Otherwise, how far
the contact
It is the extent to which one motor vehicle 87.
extends into or across the path of another
motor vehicle It is a damage produced not by extermal force,
but by some parts of the motor vehicle; and it is
when they collide with each other as a result of
traffic accidents on the traffic way. important and often more ditficult than its
might think by the traffic accident investigator.
85.
induced damage
turn-turtle
unexplainable damage
wrong lane
self-damage
overlaps
own damage
A.
A.
D.
B.
encroachment
C.
C.
D.
It is a damage resulting from direct contact with
some object, and it can be indicated by surface 88.

The investigator must be interested in this part

abrasion, scratches, paint rub-off, and certain
kinds of erumpling of metals. of the mechanics which deals with the study of
the
86.
behavior of solid bodies in motion.
118
physics
B.
inertia
incurred damage
B.
vehicle damage
dynamics
visible damage
mechanics
contact damage
A.
A.
C.
C.
D
D.
It is the quatity of motion possessed by a body. D.
It is the product of its speed and its weight or
mass 91.

the laws regarding stopping, giving aid, and

89.
revealing his identity.
speed
reconstruction
gravity
B.
It is one which is directed toward the center of
hit & run investigation
mass of the object to which it is applied,
wherein the on-scene investigation
A. A.
momentum C.
B. traffic investigation
C. D.
travel 92.
D. It may give an idea of the amount of damage to
the missing motor vehicle or the parts of the
90.
motor
center of mass is the point in the body about
vehicles that is damaged.
which it will balance in any position.

centered force damage on pavement

middle force injury to person

sideward force damage on the vehicle

damage on fixed objects

A.

B. B.

.
C.

inner force D.

93.
It is a term commonly applied to any traffic
accident in which a driver fails to comply with
any of
This is most helpful in rural areas, and often this It can rarely be used in locating a person, but
information can be collected by questioning may help identity the driver, and be sure to
victims protect and

or witnesses, and by examining tire prints or match them with those of suspect.
skid-marks.
imprints
ascertain the direction of the motor vehicle
vehicle marks
A.
fingerprints
collect broken parts of the motor vehicle
vehicle prints
check the reliability of witness statements
A.
searching for fortuitous witnesses
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.
The information obtained by the investigator at
It can be found in the clothing of struck the scene of serious accidents should be given
pedestrian, but more often paint is scraped off
immediately to _
on struck

objects, especially on other motor vehicles. 96.

officers in the area so they can start lo0oking

94.
for the car and driver.
B.
police officers
paint samples
traffic ofticers
debris samples
B.
soil samples
patrol officers
parts samples
community-memberS
A.
A.
C.
C.
D.
D.
95.
97.
They are reluctant to volunteer information, EXCEPT:
although some may not realize that their
statements can help the investigator. who driving the motor vehicle at the time of the
accident
.
the motor vehicle he was driving was the one in
B. the accident; he knew, or should have

victims known, that he was in accident

passengers B.

drivers C.

D. he evaded some legal responsibility arising out

of the said accident
witnesses
the investigator has done all the things to
119 connect the motor vehicle to the accident
98. These are often the most useful evidence of all.
The solution in most hit-and-run accident is Not only do they help find the vehicles, by
through this, and sometimes many of their giving a clue to a particular make and model of
general the motor vehicle, and they may be used to
connect a suspected motor vehicle to the
description have to be examined before the accident.
right one is found.
D.
locating the motor vehicles involved
100.
probing driving of motor vehicle
collects broken parts of the motor vehicle
locating the driver of motor vehicle
collects debris, objects and other specimen
locating fortuitous witnesses
collects the testimony of witnesses
A.
collects all the related facts of the accident
B.
A.
C.
B.
D.
D.
99. When the suspect in hit-run case is
approached, remember that, the following 120
must be established,
.