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Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2023 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2023 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Evening
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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
PHYSICS
SECTION - A Sol.
1
2
( 1
)
m2 A2 − x 2 = m2 A2
4
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
1 2 A2 A
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices A2 − x 2 =
A x2 = x=
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2 2 2
5. Find energy stored in capacitor in given circuit.
Choose the correct answer:
1. What should be the minimum size of antenna
required for successful transmission of wave
having wavelength ?
(1) 2 (2)
4
(3) (4)
2
Answer (2)
Sol. Theoretical (1) 0.2 mJ (2) 0.4 mJ
2. A 10 C charge is divided into two equal parts and (3) 0.6 mJ (4) 0.8 mJ
kept at 1 cm distance. Find repulsion between Answer (1)
charges. Sol. In steady state, capacitor will behave as open circuit
(1) 225 N (2) 450 N 12
(3) 2250 N (4) 4500 N Req = 4 i= =3 A
4
Answer (3) 12
i4 = 3 = 3 A
9 109 (5 10−6 )2 18
Sol. F = = 9 25 10 = 2250 N
(10−2 )2 i3 = 1 A
3. Two identical trains cross each other moving on So, P.D. across capacitor
parallel tracks, opposite in direction. Speed of one –3–V+8=0
of the train is 70 km/hr and second train has a V = 5 volt
speed of 110 km/hr. If it takes 8 seconds for two
trains to cross each other then length of trains is 1
Energy stored = CV 2
equal to 2
(1) 100 m (2) 200 m 1
= 16 ( C ) 25
(3) 300 m (4) 400 m 2
Answer (2) = 200 J
Sol. Total distance to cover relatively = 2 6. An electron is moving along positive x direction in
2 x-y plane. Magnetic field points in negative z
8=
5 direction, then the force due to magnetic field on
180 electron points in the direction
18
= 200 m (1) ĵ (2) – ĵ
4. A particle is performing S.H.M., whose distance
(3) k̂ (4) – k̂
from mean position varies as x = Asin(t).
Answer (2)
Find the position of particle from mean position
where kinetic energy and potential energy is equal.
A A
(1) (2) Sol.
2 2
A A
(3) (4)
2 2 4
Answer (2) as electron is negative charge F = – e V B
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
7. A force of 54.4 N is applied on free end of a string 10. If ratio of amplitudes is 2 : 1 in Young’s double slit
wrapped around a cylinder (solid) of mass 15 kg experiment, then find the ratio of maximum intensity
and radius 10 cm. Angular acceleration of the to minimum intensity.
cylinder is equal to (1) 2 : 1
(2) 25 : 9
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 9 : 4
Answer (3)
Sol. Amplitudes are 2A and A.
Imax ( 2 A + A )
2
9
= =
(1) 94.10 rad/s2 (2) 72.5 rad/s2 Imin ( 2 A − A ) 2 1
(3) 14.50 rad/s2 (4) 94.50 rad/s2
11. A conducting rod carries current I hang freely in
Answer (2)
gravity space as shown in figure. If length of rod,
1
15 ( 0.1) current in rod and magnetic field strength are 0.5m,
2
Sol. 0.1 54.4 =
2 2A and 0.4T respectively. Then find the mass of rod
= 72.53 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
8. Planet A has density and radius (, R) while B has
(/2, 1.5R). If gAS and gBS are the acceleration at the
g
surface of planet A and B respectively, find BS .
g AS
3 3 (1) 20 gm
(1) (2)
2 4
(2) 40 gm
1 (3) 60 gm
(3) (4) 3
4
(4) 80 gm
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
4
Sol. g= GR .2
1
0.4
3 ILB 2
Sol. ILB = mg m = =
g 10
gBS B RB 2
(1.5R )
3 4
= = = = kg = 40 gm
g AS ARA R 4 100
9. Assertion (A): Binding energy per nucleon for 12. A mixture of gases with adiabatic coefficient equal
nuclei (Atomic number 30 to 107) is independent of 3
to is compressed from initial state (P0, V0) to one
atomic number. 2
Reason (R): Nuclear force is short range force. fourth volume adiabatically. Its final pressure will be
(1) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) explains (A) equal to
correctly (1) P0 (2) 2P0
(2) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) does not (3) 4P0 (4) 8P0
explain A correctly Answer (4)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false Sol. PV = Constant
(4) (A) and (R) both are false
V
Answer (1) P2 = P1 1
Sol. For nuclei with atomic number 30 to 107 there is a V2
saturation in nuclear force per nucleon as nucleons 3
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
13. Assertion: If radius of ball (5 ± 0.1) mm, then error 16. Statement 1: In purely inductive circuit average
in terminal velocity is 4%. power consumed is very high.
Reason: Terminal velocity is directly proportional to Statement 2: In purely inductive circuit only,
radius (r). resonance can be achieved.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (1) (1) and (2) both are true
explanation of A.
(2) (1) is false (2) is true
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
(3) (1) is true (2) is false
explanation of A.
(4) (1) and (2) both are false
(3) A is true R is false
Answer (4)
(4) A is false R is true
Answer (3) Sol. In purely inductive circuit cos = 0
2 Power consumed = 0
Sol. VT = – r 2 g VT r 2 For resonance both L and C should be available in
9
circuit.
0.1
% error in VT = 2 100% = 4% 17.
5
14. In series LCR circuit, value of resistance inductance
Input waveform at A and B are –
and capacitance are 10 , 0.1 H and 2 mF
respectively. If angular frequency of AC source is
100 rad/s, then power factor of circuit is
1 2
(1) (2)
5 5
3 1
(3) (4)
5 2 5 Output waveform will be?
Answer (2)
R
Sol. cos = (1)
Z
XL = (0.1 × 100) = 10
1 1 (2)
XC = = =5
C 100 2 10 −3
Z = R 2 + ( X L − XC ) (3)
2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
18. Pressure (P), volume (V), temperature (T) are 22. Body accelerates from rest to 4 m/s, energy is E. If
related to each other as per a relation it accelerates from rest to 24, then energy is nE.
Find n.
a
P + 2 (V − b ) = RT
V Answer (4)
a 1
Dimension of are Sol. E = mu 2
b 2
(1) [MLT–2] 1
nE = m(24)2 = 4E n = 4
2
(2) [M2LT–2]
23. If a substance absorbs 500 nm wavelength
(3) [ML2T–2]
radiation and emits radiation of wavelength 600 nm,
(4) [ML3T–1]
then the net change in energy is x × 10–2 eV
Answer (3)
Find the value of x to the nearest integer.
Sol. [a] = [P][V2]
Answer (41)
[b] = [V]
hc
=E
a = P V Sol.
b
1240
eV = E1 = 2.48 eV
= [ML2T–2] 500
19. 1240
E2 = = 2.07 eV
20. 600
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in = 200 × 0.04 × 70
the place designated to enter the answer. = 560 N
21. A bi-convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut 25.
perpendicularly to principal axis. Find power of new
26.
lens.
27.
Answer (5)
28.
Sol. After cutting the bi-convex lens, focl length of
individual lens is f = 20 cm = 0.2 m 29.
P = 1/f = 5 D 30.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 3. The correct increasing order of the magnitude of
standard enthalpies of formation for group-1
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 halides is
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1) NaI < NaF < NaBr < NaCl
(2) NaI < NaBr < NaCl < NaF
Choose the correct answer:
(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI
1. Assertion: Acidic nature
(4) NaCl < NaBr < NaF < NaI
Answer (2)
Sol. Halide Hf (kJ mol–1)
NaF – 569
NaCl – 400
Reason: F is better electron withdrawing group NaBr – 360
than Cl
NaI – 288
(1) Assertion & Reason, both are correct and
4. Consider the following reaction and identify the
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
reactant (A)
(2) Assertion and Reason, both are correct but
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
Answer (2)
(1) Aniline
(2) Phenol
Sol.
(3) Salicylic acid
(4) Acetanilide
Answer (1)
Sol. The reactant (A) is likely to be aniline because other
options will undergo mono-bromination on reaction
2. Which of the following the best method for with Br2 dissolved in CS2.
preparation of BeF2
(1) Be + F2 → BeF2
(2) BeH2 + F2 → BeF2
(3) BeH2 + NaF →
(4) By (NH4)2BeF4 (thermal decomposition)
Answer (4)
Sol. Best method for preparation of BeF2 is by thermal
decomposition of (NH4)2 BeF4
(NH4 )2 BeF4 ⎯⎯ → NH4F + BeF2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
5. Assertion A : Bond angle of SO2 is less than H2O 8. A naturally occurring amino acid that contains only
one basic functional group.
Reason R : Both form V-shaped structure.
(1) Arginine
(1) Assertion & Reason, both are correct and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion (2) Lysine
(2) Assertion and Reason, both are correct but (3) Histidine
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion (4) Isoleucine
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect Answer (4)
(4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct Sol. Isoleucine has single nitrogenous base group.
Answer (4) 9. Match the polymers given in column-I with their
characteristics given in column-II
Sol.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Nylon 66 (P) Thermosetting
(B) Nylon 6 (Q) Polyester
6. Ba+2 cannot be precipitated as
(C) Phenol (R) Homopolymer
(1) BaCO3 formaldehyde
(2) Ba(OH)2 resin
E o
O2 /H2O = 1.23 V
Sol. Tropolone
13.
11. Match reagent in Column-I with product in Column-II. 14.
Sum of x, y, z = ?
Answer (27)
x + y + z = 27
S-II : -electrons of are involved in aromaticity of
tropolone. 22. If the formula of Borax is
(1) Both S-I and S-II are true Na2ByOx(OH)y . zH2O, find the value of x + y + z?
(2) S-I is true, S-II is false
Answer (17)
(3) S-I is false, S-II is true
Sol. Formula is Na2B4O5(OH)4.8H2O
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
x=5 = 4.57
y=4 27. 23% NaCl and 19.5% MgCl2 is present in salt water
z=8 by weight. The degree of dissociation of both the
Trans-1 800-p 2p p
26. Find out pH of resultant solution obtained when 20 At 10 minutes, Ptotal = 800 + 2p = 1600
mL of 0.1 M NaOH is mixed with 50 mL of 0.1 M p = 400 mm Hg.
CH3COOH
10 minutes means 1 half life
pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74
7 800
log2 = 0.30; log3 = 0.47 At t = 30 minutes, p = = 700 mm Hg
8
Answer (04.57)
Ptotal = (800 – 700) + 2 × 700 +700
Sol. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑁𝑎 + 𝐻2 𝑂 = 800 + 1400
5 2 – –
= 2200 mm Hg.
↓ ↓ ↓
29.
3 0 2
30.
2
pH = pKa + log
3
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 4 + (sin x )4
3. The range of is
1+ x2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1) [0, 1] (2) (0, 4]
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (3) (0, 3] (4) None of these
Choose the correct answer: Answer (2)
1. If sin–1x = 2tan–1x, then number of integral values of
4 + (sin x )4
x is equal to Sol. f ( x ) =
1+ x2
(1) 0 (2) 1
f(–x) = f(x)
(3) 2 (4) More than 2
f(x) is even
Answer (4)
Now,
Sol.
f ( x ) =
(1 + x ) 4 sin
2 3
x cos x − 4 + (sin x )4 2 x
(1 + x )
2
2
x i ( Correct ) = 49
4
2 sin x cos x
2
dx xi2( Wrong)
− ( 50 ) = 144
2
0
40
1
4 xi2( Wrong) = 2644·40
2
sin2 xdx
0
xi2(Correct ) = 40·2644 − ( 2600 )
1 cos 2 x 4 40·2644 − 2600
=–
− ( 49 )
2
2 2 0
Correct variance =
40
1 1 = 2644 – 65 – 2401
= – (0 – 1) =
4 4 = 2644 – 2466
1 2 1 = 178
For matrix A = 3 2 and |A| = 2 then the
( )
7.
3 1 1 9. If for a complex number z, z = i z 2 + Re( z ) then
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
x – iy = –2xy + i(x2 – y2 + x)
x = –2xy or x2 – y2 + x + y = 0
x=0 for x = 0 y = 0, 1
or
−1 −1
y= for y = 2 4
2 2 Required area = 2 ydy + 4 − ydy
1 2
1 1
x2 + x – – =0 3 2 3
4
4 2 2
y ( 4 − y ) 2
= 2 −
3 3 3
x2 + x – =0 2
4 2
1 2
4x2 + 4x – 3 = 0
4x2 + 6x – 2x – 3 = 0
=
4
3
(
2 2 −1 − 0 − 2 2
) ( )
(2x – 1) (2x + 3) = 0 =
4
3
(
4 2 −1 )
z = 0 + 0i → z = 0
11. The geometric mean of 5th and 7th term is 2 and the
z = 0+i → z =1 1
product of 3rd and 6th term of the GP is . If an is
3
1 1 1 the nth term then (a3 + a4). (a5 + a6) is
z= − i→ z =
2 2 2
1 + (12)1/3 1 + (12)1/3
(1) (2)
−3 1 10 (12)1/3 3
z= − i→ z =
2 2 4 2
1 + (12)1/3 (1 + (12)1/3 )2
(3) 1/3
(4)
2 1 10 3 (12) 3 (12)1/3
Sum of z = 0 + 1+ +
2 4 Answer (4)
16 Sol. (a5a7)1/2 = 2
= =4
4 ar4ar6 = 4
10. The area bounded by the curve a2r10 = 4 …(1)
1
x 2 y x 2 − 4 and y 1 is a3a6 =
3
(1) 4 2 + 1 ar 2 ar 5 =
1
3
(2)
4
3
(4 2 −1 ) a2r 7 =
1
…(2)
3
(3)
4
3
(4 2 +1 ) (1)
= r 3 = 12
(2)
(4)
2
3
(4 2 ) r = (12)1/3
Answer (2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
1 a2 = −iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ
a 2 (12)7/3 =
3
−2 1 0
1
a =
2
7/3
−3 2 5 = 0
3(12)
−1 1 5
(a3 + a4) . (a5 + a6)
Option (A) is correct
= (ar2 + ar3) (ar4 + ar5)
Similarly, we can also check other option which
6 2 2 1 1/3 2 comes out to be non-coplanar
= 𝑟 𝑎 (1 + 𝑟) = × 144(1 + (12) )
3(12)7/3
(a + 2b ) ( 2a − 3b )
2
Answer (4) Sol.
Sol. (~p q) (p ~q) (~p ~q)
( ) ( )
2
= ~p (q ~q) (p ~q) = −3 a b + 4 b a
= ~p (p ~q)
( ) 2 2
( )
2 2
= 7 ba = 49 a b − a b
= (~p p) (~p ~q)
= T ~(p q) = 49 (36 – 16)
= ~(p q) = 980
x +3 y −2 z−5 15. A line is passing through A(4, 5, 8) and B(1, –7, 5)
13. Given = = which of the following
−3 2 5 from point C(1, 2, 5) a perpendicular is drawn on
lines in options is coplanar with the given line? AB. If foot of perpendicular is N then distance of N
from plane 2x – 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 is
x +1 y −1 z − 5
(1) = = 9 15
−1 1 5 (1) (2)
2 3 2 3
x + y +1 z − 5
(2) = =
1 −1 5 (3)
8
(4)
7
3 3 4 3
x −1 y − 2 z − 5
(3) = =
1 2 5 Answer (2)
x −1 y + 2 z − 5 x −4 y −5 z−8
Sol. L : = =
(4) = = 3 12 3
−1 −2 4
Answer (1) x −4 y −5 z−8
L: = =
1 4 1
Sol. For non-parallel lines to be coplanar
( r1 − r2 )·( a1 a2 ) = 0
For option A r1 − r2 = −2iˆ + jˆ
a1 = −3 jˆ + 2 jˆ + 5kˆ
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
113
+ 2 =
15
130
2 + =
15
243 14690
required equation: x 2 − x + 225 = 0
15
225x2 – 3645x + 14690 = 0
Now, NC ⊥ AB 17.
< + 3, 4 + 3, + 3 > · < 1, 4, 1> = 0 18.
+ 3 + 16 + 12 + + 3 = 0
19.
18 + 18 = 0
20.
= –1
SECTION - B
N(3, 1, 7)
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
6 − 2 + 14 − 3 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Distance =
2 2 2
2 +2 +2 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
(1) 225x2 + 3645x – 14690 = 0 21. The remainder when 7103 is divided by 17 is
(2) 225x2 – 3645x + 14690 = 0 Answer (12)
(3) 225x2 – 3645x – 14690 = 0 Sol. 7 7 (mod 17)
(4) 225x2 + 3645x + 14690 = 0
72 –2 (mod 17)
Answer (2)
76 –8 (mod 17)
Remainder = 12
22. The value of
5! 4! 3! 2! 1! 0!
❑ ❑ ❑
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