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Answer all the questions.

1. Q, P, R and S are related species of organisms.

Species X is an extinct recent common ancestor of species Q and R.


X, Q and R all evolved from species P.
Species S is the least related to the others, with extinct species Z being its most recent phylogenetic link to the
other species.

Which of the following phylogenetic trees correctly represents the relationships described above?

Your answer

[1]

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2. Fig. 22.1 shows a transverse section of the stem of a typical pondweed viewed using a × 10 objective lens. Part
of a graticule is shown below the stem. The markings on the graticule are 0.1 mm apart.

Fig. 22.1

(i) Measure the width of the stem between points A and B.


Give your answer to the nearest 0.1 mm.

Answer _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ [1]

(ii) Calculate the magnification of the image in Fig. 22.1.

Answer _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ [2]

(iii) The thin stem and thin cell walls do not provide much support for the leaf. Suggest how the leaf is supported.

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[2]

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3. The table below shows features of the five kingdoms.

Kingdom Nerves present Hormones present


Prokaryotae × ×
Protoctista × ×
Fungi × ✓
Plantae × ✓
Animalia ✓ ✓

Which of the statements, A to D, is correct?

A only autotrophic organisms require hormones


B only heterotrophic organisms need to interact with their environment
C only multicellular organisms require hormones
D only unicellular organisms require nervous systems

Your answer
[1]

4. State two responses that some plants use to defend themselves from herbivory.

[2]

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5. These two organisms show very similar anatomical adaptations but are classified in different taxonomic groups.

What is this an example of?

A convergent evolution
B divergent evolution
C disruptive selection
D stabilising selection

Your answer

[1]

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6.

(i) It takes time for an effective vaccine to be prepared in quantity for a new strain of bacterium.

List two vulnerable groups of people for whom you would advise doctors to prescribe antibiotics although
they are not yet showing symptoms of the new disease.

[2]

(ii) Discuss the implications of the over-use of antibiotics when people do not show symptoms.

[4]

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7. Domesticated pigs are descended from Sus scrofa, sometimes called the ‘wild boar’.

(i) In Table 17.1


number the levels in the correct sequence and
complete the name column.

Sequence of levels Level Name

__________ Order Artiodactyla

__________ Species __________

__________ Family Suidae

1 Kingdom __________

__________ Genus __________

__________ Phylum Chordata

__________ Class Mammalia

Table 17.1

[4]

(ii) We now have DNA evidence of how organisms are related to each other. This evidence has helped
biologists to construct a second classification viewpoint: the Domain system.

Explain what such developments show about the nature of scientific knowledge.

[1]

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8. * Read the following five statements.

Mutations preventing lactose intolerance have occurred in humans at various times in the prehistoric past,
and in all human races.
The domestication of large lactating mammals like goats and cattle arose in Europe and parts of Africa 5 000
to 10 000 years ago.
The lowest levels of lactose intolerance are found in areas that European populations colonised, like North
America.
The ability of agricultural populations to digest the milk, as well as the meat, of animals, is advantageous. It
adds to their general nutrition.
Until recent times the Australian aborigines had been isolated on their island continent for around 50 000
years.

Suggest how the lactose intolerance phenotype came to be present in only 5% of a population like the
Europeans, but came to be present in 97% of the Australian aborigines. Use the information given above and
knowledge of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection.

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[9]

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9. The European corn borer moth, Ostrinia nubilalis, is a pest of agriculture. Its larvae develop inside maize stems
and eat the contents, weakening the stems so that the plants collapse.

The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (‘Bt’) produces a protein that poisons the larvae of moths and butterflies.
This protein can be isolated from cultures of Bt and packaged in fluids to be sprayed on the surface of plants.

The gene coding for the toxic protein has also been isolated. It has been incorporated into a genetically modified
strain of maize called Bt corn. This makes the plant tissues poisonous to the corn borer moth.

Consider the statement:

‘Genetically modified plants and animals should be classed as new species’.

Outline one experiment or investigation that would provide evidence to support or contradict the statement.

[3]

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10(a). Bats are the only mammals that have wings. Many species of bat hunt flying insects at night. Bats are able to
use echolocation (sound waves) in order to help them find their prey in the dark.

(i) Explain why bats and birds, despite not being closely related, have both evolved wings.

[3]

(ii) Suggest why the vast majority of bird species have not evolved the ability to echolocate.

[1]

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(b). * The pipistrelle is the most common species of bat in Europe.

Table 5.1 shows information about two distinct populations of pipistrelle.

Population Mean body Mean Range of Colour Habitat


mass (g) wingspan (m) echolocation
call (kHz)
Common 5.5 0.22 52 – 60 medium to dark woodland, hedgerows,
pipistrelle brown grassland, farmland,
suburban and urban
Soprano 5.5 0.21 42 – 47 medium to dark wetland, woodland edge,
pipistrelle brown tree lines, hedgerows,
suburban gardens and
parks

Table 5.1
A researcher made the following claim:

‘The common pipistrelle and soprano pipistrelle must be distinct species.’

Evaluate the researcher's claim by using the evidence in Table 5.1 to support and to challenge the researcher's
conclusion.

[6]

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11(a). Evolution is the change of species over time. Natural selection is the mechanism by which this change occurs.

Fig. 1.1 shows two species of trilobites, a group of arthropods that became extinct about 240 million years ago.
Species A is 20 million years older than species B.

(i) Explain how scientists are able to estimate the age of extinct organisms, such as species A and species B.

[2]

(ii) Identify two features visible in both species that suggest that species A and species B evolved from a
relatively close common ancestor.

1 ___________________________________

2 ___________________________________

[1]

(iii) A student used Fig. 1.1 to make a number of observations comparing species A and B.

One such observation was “species B had longer lateral spines than species A”.

Explain why this is not a valid observation to make on the basis of Fig. 1.1.

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[2]

(iv) Fig. 1.2 shows two modern arthropods.

Modern species C and D live in water. The trilobite species, A and B also lived in water.

Identify and briefly explain an adaptation present in all four species, A, B, C and D, that would be
advantageous for an organism that lives in water.

Adaptation _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Explanation _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

[1]

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(b). Explain how biological molecules can provide evidence that species have evolved.

You should refer to different types of molecule in your answer.

[4]
(c). In his book ‘On the Origin of Species’, Charles Darwin made the following four observations.

E Offspring generally appear similar to their parents.


F No two individuals are identical.
G Organisms have the ability to produce large numbers of offspring.
H Populations in nature tend to remain relatively stable.

From these observations he made a number of deductions, listed in the table below.

The deductions are supported by one or more of the observations (E, F, G or H).

In the table, indicate which of the above observations contributed to each deduction.

You may use each letter (E, F, G, or H) once, more than once, or not at all.

Deduction Supporting observation(s)


Characteristics are passed on to the next generation.
There is a struggle for existence.
Individuals with beneficial characteristics are among the few who survive.

[3]

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12. Which statement, A to D, best describes the relationship between classification and phylogeny?

A classification and phylogeny are the same thing


B modern classification reflects phylogeny
C phylogeny is the science used in classification
D phylogeny is naming the phyla used in classification

Your answer

[1]

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13(a). Fig. 20.1 shows a transmission electron micrograph of part of a eukaryotic cell.

(i) Identify one feature inside the cell that would also be seen in a prokaryotic cell.

[1]

(ii) Identify two features of this cell that confirm it is not a prokaryotic cell.

In each case state the letter and the name of the feature.

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Letter._ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Name_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_

Letter._ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Name_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_

[2]

(b). The cell shown in Fig. 20.1 is capable of synthesising and secreting proteins.

Using only the letters from Fig. 20.1, list the correct sequence of the organelles involved in synthesis and
secretion of a protein.

[3]

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14(a). Termites are highly social insects. They are thought to have evolved from earlier forms of insect at least 150
million years ago, in the Jurassic geological period. They are related to cockroaches.

(i) How might scientists a century ago have known that termites evolved in the Jurassic geological period?

[1]

(ii) What new source of evidence might help today's scientists to find out how closely related termites are to
cockroaches?

[1]

(b). Fig. 5.1 shows a termite mound, the nest of approximately one million individuals. The photograph was taken in
Queensland Australia, about 3000 kilometres south of the equator.

(i) Fig. 5.1 shows that the interior of the termite mound is full of interconnecting chambers. At the top of the
mound some of these chambers open to the air outside.

Worker termites spend all their time working in brood chambers low in the mound, where eggs and larvae
develop.

Explain how carbon dioxide produced in the respiring body cells of worker termites is removed to the air
outside the termite mound.

[4]

(ii) In Africa, closer to the equator, the mounds built by some species of termite are blade-shaped, with the long
axis pointing North–South. Fig. 5.2 shows an example of a termite mound in Africa.

Suggest why the African termites need to build mounds in this shape and orientation.

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[2]

Fig. 5.1

Fig. 5.2

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15. Which of the following options, A to D, lists the three domains of life?

A Archaea, Bacteria and Eukaryota


B Bacteria, Prokaryota and Eukaryota
C Prokaryotae, Protoctista and Eukaryota
D Protoctista, Plantaea and Animalia

Your answer

[1]

16. Halophytes are plants that have the ability to live in soils with a very low water potential. In the UK these plants
form part of salt marsh communities.

Suggest and explain how the root hairs of halophytes are able to absorb water by osmosis from the soil of the
salt marsh.

[2]

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17(a). The Sumatran rhinoceros, Dicerorhinus sumatrensis, is a rare member of the family Rhinocerotidae. These
rhinoceros are now critically endangered, with only six substantial populations in the wild: four in Sumatra, one in
Borneo, and one in the Malay Peninsula.

D. sumatrensis lives in rainforests. Their numbers are difficult to determine but they are estimated to number
fewer than 100.

Complete the table below, showing the classification of the Sumatran rhinoceros.

Kingdom ___________________________________

Phylum Chordata

___________________________________ Mammalia

___________________________________ Perissodactyla

Family Rhinocerotidae

___________________________________ Dicerorhinus

Species ___________________________________

[2]
(b). The name Dicerorhinus sumatrensis is part of the binomial naming system.

State an advantage of using this system rather than using the common name, Sumatran rhinoceros.

[1]

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18. Fungi produce enzymes to digest complex food substances. Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the
conversion of starch to maltose.

A sample of the fungus Amanita citrina was placed on agar in a petri dish.
The agar contained starch.
The dish was incubated until the thread-like hyphae had grown a few centimetres.
Iodine solution was then poured onto the surface of the agar.

A diagram representing the results is shown in the figure.

(i) To which genus does this fungus belong?

[1]

(ii) The region of yellow staining shown in the figure includes part of the agar where the fungus had not yet
grown.

What does this pattern indicate about the action of the fungal enzymes?

[1]

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19(a). An experiment was carried out to investigate the resistance of a species of bacterium to the antibiotic penicillin.

Bacteria were allowed to grow into colonies on an agar


plate.

A cloth was placed onto the bacteria and then the


pattern of bacterial colonies was transferred to an agar
plate that contained penicillin.

Only two colonies survived and continued to grow on


the agar that contained penicillin.
The bacteria in these colonies possessed a mutation
that gave them resistance to the penicillin.

The original plate was flooded with a solution containing


penicillin and the same two colonies continued to grow.

(i) A student made the following suggestion:

Another student commented:

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What evidence indicates that the penicillin-resistant bacteria already existed in the population?

[1]

(ii) Name the process that increases the proportion of penicillin-resistant bacteria in the population.

[1]

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(b). One role of the Office for National Statistics (ONS) is to collate data about the causes of death in England and
Wales. Deaths involving Staphylococcus aureus and MRSA statistics have been produced by the ONS for each
year since 1993.

S. aureus can be mentioned on a death certificate and S. aureus may also be specified as being methicillin
resistant (MRSA).

Table 6 shows the data for the years 1993 to 2012.

Year Number of death certificates mentioning S. aureus


S. aureus not specified S. aureus specified as Total
as resistant MRSA
1993 379 51 430
1994 358 90 448
1995 409 198 607
1996 445 298 743
1997 395 386 781
1998 451 409 860
1999 484 480 964
2000 476 666 1036
2001 473 731 1204
2002 421 794 1215
2003 448 968 1516
2004 461 1138 1599
2005 450 1649 2099
2006 498 1652 2150
2007 459 1593 2052
2008 270 1230 1500
2009 472 781 1253
2010 475 485 960
2011 274 364 638
2012 265 292 557

Table 6

(i) Calculate the percentage increase in the number of death certificates that mention MRSA from 1993 to the
year when the numbers reach a peak.

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Show your working and give your answer to three significant figures.

Answer =_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ % [2]

(ii) The proportion of death certificates that mention MRSA in 1993 is 12%.

Compare this figure with the proportion of death certificates that mention MRSA in 2012.

[2]

(iii) What can you conclude from these data about the deaths involving S. aureus and MRSA since 2007?

[2]

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20. Nymphaea thermarum is the world's smallest and most endangered water lily.
Individual N. thermarum plants measure 10−20 cm across.

Explain why the size of N. thermarum is an example of continuous variation.

[3]

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21.

(i) The figure is a diagram representing the taxonomic hierarchy of organisms within the animal kingdom.

State the level of taxonomic group represented by the letters Q, R, S and T.

[2]

(ii) The figure shows a diagram representing the phylogenies of some groups of organisms.

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The letter ‘A’ on the figure represents a group of organisms called slime moulds.

With reference to the figure, discuss the classification of slime moulds and include the range of evidence on
which this classification might be based.

[3]

(iii) State three reasons why the three-domain classification system is now used in preference to the five-
kingdom system.
1

[3]

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22. In the past, roe deer’s main natural predator in Britain was a large carnivore of the cat family, the Eurasian lynx,
Lynx lynx. The lynx became extinct in Britain around 1000 years ago.

Populations of Eurasian lynx still survive in parts of mainland Europe.

Plans are being considered to re-introduce the Eurasian lynx from these European populations to the wild parts
of Britain to improve biodiversity.

(i) Suggest one reason why some people might object to this re-introduction.

[1]

(ii) A small population of Iberian lynx, Lynx pardinus, exists in parts of Spain. The Iberian lynx is critically
endangered and, with around 100 individuals left, it is the world’s most endangered species of cat.

The Iberian lynx and Eurasian lynx were once classified within the same species, based on their observable
features.

In the last 10 years, the Iberian lynx has been re-classified as a separate species within the genus Lynx, on
the basis of its phylogeny.

Define the term phylogeny and explain how phylogeny is related to classification. Use the two lynx species
as examples.

[4]

(iii) Suggest why it is only in the last 10 years that the Iberian lynx has been classified as a separate species.

[1]

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(iv) Outline three reasons why it is important to conserve the Iberian lynx.
1

[3]

23. Complete the following passage by using the most appropriate terms.

Variation can be described as the differences in characteristics between _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ . The type

of variation that is caused by differences in DNA is known as _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ variation. Variation

can also be caused by the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ . Variation between members of the same species is

known as _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ variation. Evolution depends on variation and _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

of the best adapted individuals.

[5]

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24(a). In 2006, the scientific journal, Nature, reported the discovery of a fossil from around 380 million years ago. It was
given the name Tiktaalik roseae.

This fossil has some features in common with fish and some features in common with amphibians.

A photograph of the fossil is shown in Fig. 1.1.

Fig.1.1

A diagram of the fossil viewed from above is shown in Fig. 1.2.

Fig.1.2

(i) Suggest one adaptation, visible in Fig. 1.1 and Fig. 1.2, which would be an advantage for life under water.

[1]

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(ii) Suggest one adaptation, visible in Fig. 1.1 and Fig. 1.2, which would be useful for an animal that lives on
the sea bed.

[1]

(b). Tiktaalik roseae is a member of the kingdom Animalia. The structure of its individual cells has not been
preserved by fossilisation.

State two features of cells of an organism from the kingdom Plantae that would not have been present in the
cells of T. roseae.

[2]

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(c). Fossils provide strong evidence that organisms have evolved over time.

Describe other types of evidence that support the theory of evolution.

In your answer you should describe some different types of evidence.

[6]

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25. The Royal Botanic Gardens at Kew plays an important role in plant conservation. One plant that has been
conserved at Kew is the world's smallest water lily, the thermal lily, Nymphaea thermarum.

In its natural habitat, the thermal lily grows in hot water springs in central Africa.

State the genus to which the thermal lily belongs.

[1]

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26(a). Charles Darwin sailed on HMS Beagle on its voyage around the world between 1831 and 1836.

Darwin made the following observation:

‘offspring generally appear similar to their parents’

State the conclusion that Darwin drew from this observation.

[1]

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(b). Shortly after the voyage, Darwin sketched a diagram in his notebook.

His sketch is shown in Fig. 5.1.

Fig.5.1

A, B, C and D represent different modern day organisms.


represents an ancestral organism.

Explain what the sketch shows about the relationship between organisms A, B, C, and D.

[2]

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(c). In 1859, Darwin published his book, On the Origin of Species, in which he explained how organisms evolve by
natural selection:

Darwin's book caused controversy at the time of its publication


his theory of natural selection is now widely accepted by scientists.

Why is natural selection now more widely accepted by scientists than it was in the 19th century?

[1]
(d). During the voyage of HMS Beagle, Darwin visited the Galapagos Islands off the coast of South America.

He observed that many of the closely related species showed significant variation.

(i) State the name given to the evolution of a new species.

[1]

(ii) Suggest why a higher number of species have evolved in the Galapagos Islands, compared with an area of
the same size on the South American mainland.

[1]

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27. The term immunity is often used when describing how vaccines work.

In a piece of school homework a student wrote:

“Bacteria can evolve quickly and many are now immune to antibiotics.”

Explain why the student's use of the word ‘immune’ was incorrect.

[3]

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28. Discuss the ways in which genetic variation is produced, including the role of nuclear division.

In your answer you should link the processes to the ways in which the genetic variation is produced.

[9]

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29(a). This question looks at two ways of using mathematical concepts in Biology.

When a new road system was constructed, it split a population of a rare snail species into three smaller
populations, A, B and C. As a result, each of these populations became reproductively isolated.

The Hardy-Weinberg principle was used to calculate the relative frequencies, p and q, of a dominant and a
recessive allele in each population.

Table 4.1 shows the values of p and q, and the estimated sizes of these three populations.

Snail Estimated Immediately after road building 10 years after road building
population population size p (frequency of q (frequency of p (frequency of q (frequency of
dominant allele) recessive allele) dominant allele) recessive allele)
A 1000 0.50 0.50 0.52 0.48
B 100 0.49 0.51 0.63 0.37
C 10 0.40 0.60 0.20 0.80

Table 4.1

(i) Name the type of isolating mechanism that prevents interbreeding between these three snail populations.

[1]

(ii) The habitat of these snail populations did not change over the ten years.

State the term used to describe the random changes in allele frequency in a small population.

[1]

(iii) Explain which of the populations, A, B or C, experienced most genetic change.

[2]

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(b). The inheritance of different alleles in fruit flies, Drosophila spp., has been studied extensively in the laboratory.

Two genes that affect the appearance of Drosophila are:

R/r red / pink eyes


Y/y yellow / ebony body

Flies known to be heterozygous at both of these loci were crossed with homozygous pink-eyed ebony flies.

Based on the hypothesis that the two genes assort independently, the offspring expected from this cross would
be four different phenotypes in a ratio of 1:1:1:1.
The results obtained, however, are shown in Table 4.2.

Phenotype Expected number Observed number


Red eye, yellow body 360 6
Pink eye, yellow body 360 701
Red eye, ebony body 360 729
Pink eye, ebony body 360 4

Table 4.2

The chi-squared (χ2) test can be used to assess whether the results in Table 4.2 are significantly different from
the expected results.

The equation for working out the value of χ2 is given below.

where ∑ = ‘sum of …’
O = observed value
E = expected value

(i) Calculate the value of χ2to the nearest whole number for the genetic cross results shown in Table 4.2.

Complete the table below and determine the value of χ2.

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χ2 = _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

[3]

(ii) Statistical tables show that, for this data set, if χ2 has a value of 11.35, the observed results would only be
produced by chance in 1% of trials.

Use this information and the value for χ2 that you have calculated in (i) to explain whether the original
hypothesis should be accepted or rejected.

[1]

(iii) The difference in the observed numbers from the cross compared with the expected numbers has not
occurred by chance. Suggest a genetic explanation for this difference.

[3]

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30. Nicotine is produced by plants of the genus Nicotiana.

In an experiment, the leaves of a Nicotiana plant were punctured with tiny holes. This damage imitated insect
attack.

Table 7.1 shows the effect of this damage on the nicotine concentration and seed production of a Nicotiana plant
compared with a plant that was not damaged.

Nicotine concentration (%) Number of seeds produced


Control plant 0.67 2600
Plant with leaves punctured with holes 0.98 1100

Table 7.1

Discuss whether the ability to produce nicotine can be considered a selective advantage or a selective
disadvantage to Nicotiana plants.

[3]

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31. In 1958, scientists made a breakthrough in artificial reproductive cloning by successfully cloning a vertebrate
species. The species cloned was the African clawed frog, Xenopus laevis.

Fig. 1.1, shows the cloned offspring produced, labelled D, as well as the three adult frogs (A, B and C) that were
used to create them.

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Fig. 1.1

frog A, a brown-coloured female frog, laid eggs, which then had their nuclei removed.
frog B, an albino (white-coloured) female, laid eggs that were fertilised by sperm from C.

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frog C, an albino male, produced sperm that fertilised the eggs of B.

One of the fertilised eggs from B was allowed to divide. Nuclei were extracted from the resulting cells and placed
into the eggs from frog A. These eggs developed into the frogs labelled D in Fig. 1.1.

(i) The frogs in Fig. 1.1 show discontinuous variation in colour.

Using your knowledge of discontinuous and continuous variation, and the information given, suggest:

one other phenotypic characteristic in which the frogs show a discontinuous pattern of variation

one phenotypic characteristic in which they show a continuous pattern of variation.

[2]

(ii) State the extent to which the environment is likely to affect each of the phenotypic characteristics that you
have suggested in (i).

[2]

(iii) Suggest why albino frogs were used to produce the nuclei for transfer.

[2]

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32(a). Bombus pratorum and Bombus terrestris are two British species of bumble bee.

These bumble bees are social insects. They live in colonies founded by a female queen bee who lays eggs. The
eggs develop into female worker bees, who collect food (nectar and pollen) and look after the young and the
nest.

When the number of worker bees starts to decrease, young queens and males are produced. These mate and
the mated queens survive winter underground and start a new colony the following spring.

Why do the two bee species share the first name Bombus?

[1]

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(b). Fig. 2.1 shows the number of worker bees of B. pratorum and B. terrestris observed at one location over a year.

Table 2.1 shows some differences in the food collecting behaviour of worker bees of these species.

Fig. 2.1

Species of bumble Mean depth of Visits to flowers Visits to flowers Visits to flowers
bee flower visited (mm) when nectar only when pollen only when both nectar
collected (%) collected (%) and pollen
collected (%)
Bombus pratorum 7.4 23 10 67
Bombus terrestris 6.3 80 11 9

Table 2.1

(i) B. pratorum and B. terrestris both live in Britain. They can often be found in the same location, as their
geographical distributions overlap.

Use Fig. 2.1 and Table 2.1 to evaluate the extent to which the two species may compete.

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[4]

(ii) Use Fig. 2.1 and Table 2.1, and the information given on page 7, to suggest how an ancestral species might
have evolved into the two species, B. pratorum and B. terrestris.

[3]

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(c). Bees show a variety of interesting behaviour patterns.

(i) Consider the following observations about bee behaviour and suggest what type of behaviour is being shown
in each observation.

Observation Type of behaviour


The time taken for a worker bee to collect
food from a flower decreases with
practice.
All bumble bees start at the bottom of a
vertical spike of flowers and work
upwards.

[2]

(ii) On returning to the colony, worker bees perform ‘dances’ to tell other bees the direction and distance of a
food source.

How might this social behaviour benefit the colony?

[1]

33. Which of the statements, A to D, does not provide evidence for natural selection?

A Clover plant populations produce higher hydrogen cyanide toxin levels in areas where snails are
common.
B Fossils of animals identical to species living today can be found in shallow rocks.
C Insects can rapidly develop resistance to insecticides such as DDT.
D Resistant forms of Staphylococcus aureus were not known before 1961.

Your answer

[1]

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34. Diagrams X, Y and Z represent populations of microorganisms.

Which of the sequences, A to D, demonstrates the changes caused by addition of a drug to which some
individuals are resistant?

A Y, X, Z
B Z, Y, X
C Z, X, Y
D Y, Z, X

Your answer

[1]

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35(a). As an extension to the field work the student decided to investigate the effect of soil moisture on the germination
of buttercup seeds.

The student planted R. bulbosus seeds into five pots and maintained the soil moisture in each pot at a different
level (0%, 20%, 40%, 60% and 80%). This was repeated with seeds of R. repens. After four weeks the student
counted the number of plants that had germinated in each pot.

Table 16 shows the results of the student's investigation.

Soil moisture (%) Number of seedlings germinated


R. bulbosus R. repens
0 0 0
20 23 8
40 46 15
60 16 42
80 4 33

Table 16

(i) State two factors that should be controlled as part of this investigation.

[2]

(ii) Use the grid provided on page 13 to plot the results of this investigation.

[4]

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(b). The student used Spearman's rank correlation to show that germination is correlated to soil moisture in R.
repens.

The value of Spearman's rank correlation coefficient (rs) is calculated using the formula:

where d is the difference in rank within each pair and n is the number of pairs.

(i) Use the following table to calculate the value of Σd2.

Soil moisture Rank (R1) Number of Rank (R2) d (R1–R2) d2


(%) seedlings
germinated
0 1 0 1 0 0
20 2 8 2 0 0
40 3 15 3 0 0
60 4
80 5

Σd2

[2]

(ii) Use your value of Σd2 to calculate the value of rs.

rs = _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ [2]

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(iii) The critical value at p = 0.05 is 1.0.

What can the student conclude about the correlation between soil moisture and germination in R. repens?

[1]

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36(a). Squid are an order of aquatic animals. Many species of squid show a reflex response to changes in their body
position.

A sensory receptor called a statocyst detects changes in the body position of the squid in their aquatic
environment.
The reflex response corrects the squid's body position.

(i) Describe the components and events involved in a reflex arc.

[3]

(ii) Suggest one benefit to the squid of the reflex response described above.

[1]

(iii) A statocyst sensory receptor is shown in Fig. 2.1.

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What can you conclude from Fig. 2.1 about the mechanism by which a statocyst acts as a transducer?

[3]

(b). Lobsters and sea cucumbers also have statocysts. From this information, the student concluded:

‘I think this means squids, lobsters and sea cucumbers evolved from a recent common ancestor and are
probably classified in the same phylum.’

Evaluate the extent to which the information about lobsters and sea cucumbers supports the student's
conclusion.

[2]

END OF QUESTION PAPER

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Mark Scheme

Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

1 D 1

Total 1

2 i 1.7 mm (1) 1

ii × 50 (1)(1) ALLOW 1 mark for correct working e.g. 80


/ 1.6
ALLOW answer in the range of 48–51

iii air spaces give buoyancy (1) 2


supported by (surrounding) water (1)

Total 5

3 C 1

Total 1

4 (named) chemicals (1) 2 ALLOW 2 named chemicals


folding (1)
stings (1)

Total 2

5 A 1

Total 1

6 i two from 2
babies / infants (1)
elderly / infirm (1)
immuno-compromised / on
immunosuppressant drugs / HIV positive
(1)
known to have been exposed (to the
infection) (1)

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

ii two from 4
(antibiotic is) selective pressure (1)
(bacterial) gene pool / AW, has variation
(1)
(only) some bacteria have resistance /
some bacteria are more resistant than
others (1)
two from
when exposed (to antibiotic) most-resistant
survive (1)
surviving bacteria continue to reproduce to
make a resistant population (1)
idea that over many generations there is IGNORE increase in number of resistant
an increase in proportion of resistant bacteria.
bacteria (under continued antibiotic
pressure) (1)
antibiotic becomes ineffective / new
antibiotic needed (1)

Total 6

7 i Sequence of Level Name 4 One mark for level numbers all correct in
Levels ✓ Column 1.
4 Order Artiodactyla
7 Species scrofa ✓ DO NOT ALLOW if scrofa is given capital
5 Family Suidae S.
1 Kingdom Animal(ia) ✓
ALLOW "Animals“
6 Genus Sus ✓
2 Phylum Chordata DO NOT ALLOW if Sus is given lower-
3 Class Mammalia case initial s.

ii science knowledge / it, advances / 1 "Develop“ is in the question.


improves / grows / AW (1)

Total 5

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

8 * Level 3 (7–9 marks) 9 Indicative scientific principles may


Extensive reference has been made to the include:
(pre-) historical circumstances of both
populations. Inferences have been clearly Europeans:
drawn in terms of natural selection.
Learner demonstrates a holistic grasp of (pre-agricultural) gene pool / genetic
the Darwinian theory and the information variation, included mutant / non-
given; reaching reasoned conclusions that intolerance, allele
explain how the different phenotypic availability of milk acted as (positive)
frequencies occurred. selection pressure
individuals / groups, with mutant / non-
There is a well-developed line of reasoning intolerance, allele had better, chance of
which is clear and logically structured. The survival / success in reproduction
information presented is relevant and directional selection
substantiated. mutant / non-intolerance, allele
accumulated (in gene pool)
Level 2 (4–6 marks) genetic drift (in small prehistoric
Reference has been made to the (pre-) population)
historical circumstances of both mutant / non-intolerance, allele is
populations. Some inferences have been dominant
drawn in terms of natural selection. so expressed in heterozygotic
There is partial structuring of the ideas with individuals (increasing phenotype
the connections between Darwinian theory frequency).
and information generally clear.
Conclusions are used to explain how the Australian aborigines:
different phenotypic frequencies occurred.
ancestral population pre-agricultural
There is a line of reasoning presented with so no selection for mutant / non-
some structure. The information presented intolerance, allele
is in the most-part relevant and supported no suitable mammals to domesticate /
by some evidence. milk
island, so no borders for suitable
Level 1 (1–3 marks) mammals to come in
Reference has been made to the (pre-) no contact / breeding, with non-
historical circumstances of at least one of Aboriginal peoples
the populations. At least one inference has no gene flow (from other human
been stated in terms of natural selection. populations)
no selection pressure
The ideas expressed are poorly structured to increase mutant / non-intolerance,
but some relevant points are made. allele / phenotype, frequency.

The information is basic and


communicated in an unstructured way. The
information is supported by limited
evidence and the relationship to the
evidence may not be clear.

0 marks
No response or no response worthy of

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance


credit.

Total 9

9 Fertility 3 Marks awarded should be from one


breed GM stock with non-modified stock outlined investigation and the conclusion
(1) from its results.
see if offspring fertile (1) If more than one investigation suggested,
if so they should be classed as the same mark the first investigation and IGNORE
species (1) ora the others.

Morphology
Compare several individuals from GM and
non-GM groups (1)
in respect of several physical structures (1)
if similar they should be classed as one
species (1) ora

Ecology
observe how both function in the wild (1)
occupy the same or different niche(s) (1)
if same niche they should be classed as
one species (1) ora

Genetics
compare DNA (1)
by electrophoresis (1)
same pattern should be classed as one
species (1) ora

Total 3

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

10 a i three from 3 ALLOW ‘same’


similar, niche / lifestyle / AW (1) ALLOW ‘same’
similar selection pressure (1)
idea that wings are advantage for survival
in both bats and birds (1)
alleles for ‘wings’ more likely to be passed ALLOW ‘genes’
to next generation (1)

ii idea that echolocation not needed for an 1


animal active during the day where
reduced visibility is not an issue (1)

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

b * Level 3 (5–6 marks) 6 Indicative scientific points may include:


Full and detailed evaluation of the claim
using all of the data in Table 5.1. Learner Support for conclusion (that common
demonstrates a holistic judgement of the and soprano pipistrelle are distinct
data providing evidence for and against the species)
claim.
echolocation ranges do not overlap
There is a well-developed line of reasoning genetic basis for echolocation suggests
which is clear and logically structured. The genetic difference between populations
information presented is relevant and idea that different species are likely to
substantiated. have genetic differences.

Level 2 (3–4 marks) Information that could be used in


Detailed evaluation of the claim using most support or to challenge
of the data in Table 5.1. Sound judgement
is made on a range of aspects of the data. Mean wing span is very similar
Could indicate difference, though not
There is a line of reasoning presented with significant
some structure. The information presented Could be due to environmental factors,
is in the most-part relevant and supported where the populations live
by some evidence. Habitats overlap
Could indicate same species in
Level 1 (1–2 marks) different areas
An evaluation of the claim is attempted Could be different species adapted to
using some of the information in Table 5.1. slightly different environments.
Simple conclusions are drawn citing limited
aspects of the data. Challenge to conclusion

The information is basic and same mean body mass, could be same
communicated in an unstructured way. The species
information is supported by limited same colour, could be same species
evidence and the relationship to the potential environmental cause of body
evidence may not be clear. mass variation implies weak challenge
to conclusion.
0 marks
No response or no response worthy of
credit.
ALLOW a comment on whether the
researcher's conclusion is supported.

Total 10

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11 a i fossils (1) 2 ALLOW reference to radiometric dating


idea that fossils deeper in the ground are
older than those near the surface (1) IGNORE refs to carbon dating as time-
scale is too great

ii Any two from 1

similar tail
segments
lateral spines (1)

iii no scale given on figure (1) 2


idea that comparison in absolute length
cannot be made (1)
idea that comparison in relative length
(compared with body length) could be valid
(1)
maturity / age, of specimen unknown (1)
idea that only one individual of each
species observed (1)

iv adaptation and explanation must both be 1 ALLOW streamlined shape for movement
present to be awarded the mark in water
tail for, swimming / movement (1)
OR
segments, for flexibility / moving tail /
swimming (1)

b biological molecule 4
nucleic acid / (nuclear) DNA / mtDNA /
RNA (1)

idea that in samples from two species


sequence similarity in any of the above can
imply an evolutionary relationship,
difference / divergence in sequence implies
evolutionary distance (1)

biological molecule
proteins / polypeptides / cytochrome C / ALLOW named proteins commonly used
haemoglobin (1)
idea that in the same protein from two
species, amino acid / primary sequence
similarity implies evolutionary relationship,
difference / divergence in sequence implies
evolutionary distance (1)

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

c Deduction Supporting 3
observation(s)
characteristics are E (1)
passed on to the next
generation
there is a struggle for G and H
existence (1)
individuals with F and G and H
beneficial (1)
characteristics are
among the few who
survive

Total 13

12 B 1

Total 1

13 a i C / ribosomes 1

ii Any two from: 2

A rough endoplasmic reticulum


D Golgi apparatus
E secretory vesicle
F mitochondrion (1)(1)

b C/A then D then E (1)(1)(1) 3 letters must be in correct order, if not all
correct:
allow one mark if C/A as first letter given
allow one mark for E as last letter given
allow one mark for D in the middle

IGNORE B as this is plasma membrane


rather than an organelle

Total 6

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

14 a i fossils in, known-age / Jurassic, strata / 1


rocks

ii DNA / cytochrome c 1

b i carbon dioxide diffuses down concentration 4


gradient out of the respiring cell (1)
carried through body from cell (to
tracheoles) by blood passing out via
tracheoles / trachea / spiracles (1)
respiration generates heat (1)
hot gases expand and are less dense so
rise up by convection through the mound to
vents at mound-top (1)

ii shape, large or increased surface area to 2 Response must be linked to context of


volume ratio (1) avoiding overheating / needing to get rid of
heat.
smallest area exposed to greatest heat (1)

Total 8

15 A 1
Examiner's Comments

There is some evident confusion with


taxonomy. Despite many candidates
choosing the correct option, D was a
common suggestion.

Total 1

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

16 2 IGNORE ref to large surface area and


short diffusion path
IGNORE ref to solute potential / isotonic
ACCEPT Ψ for water potential
‘it’ or ‘they’ = root hairs
IGNORE ref to roots or root cells
unqualified as hairs

there is a lower water potential inside root ACCEPT root hair, has / creates, a lower
hair (cells) ✔ water potential (than soil)
ACCEPT maintains / sets up / establishes,
a (steep) water potential gradient
Look for a comparison in water potential
between the cell and the soil

actively transport / pump, (mineral) ions / IGNORE solutes / sugars / hydrogen ions
salts, into root hair(s) (cells) ACCEPT named ions
or
root hair(s) (cells) store / contain, (mineral) ACCEPT named ions
ions / salts / solutes ✔ ACCEPT named solutes e.g. sugars

Examiner's Comments

This question highlighted the failure of


many candidates to use the correct
scientific terminology. In particular was the
use of ‘concentration gradient’ without
showing an appreciation of, or even
mentioning, water potential, despite the
previous parts of the question being on that
subject. Where active transport was
mentioned some thought it was the water
that was pumped into the cell or that
transpiration was also involved.
Many candidates understood the principal
of reducing the water potential of the root
hair cells but failed to gain credit by
referring to the roots or the plant without
specifying the ‘root hair cells’.They also
talked about the large surface area of root
hair cells, which also failed to gain credit.

Total 2

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Mark Scheme

Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

17 a 2 If additional incorrect answer given, then 0


marks
One mark per correct column.
Column 1 Column 2

Class Animalia ACCEPT Animal / phonetic spelling / in


Order lower case

Genus ✔ sumatrensis ✔ ‘sumatrensis’ must be all in lower case


DO NOT CREDIT if the ‘s’ is clearly upper
case
DO NOT CREDIT D. sumatrensis
DO NOT CREDIT Sumatran / sumatran

Examiner's Comments

In the classification table the categories of


taxa were correctly stated by the majority
but the actual classification groups within
the taxa posed more problematical∶ in
particular identifying ‘Animalia’ as the
correct kingdom. Eukaryota was a common
error. Although many candidates correctly
stated the species as ‘sumantrensis’, very
many were not credited the mark because
of using a capital letter.

b universal / recognised worldwide / AW ✔ max 1 ACCEPT no language barrier

know which, genus / species, it belongs to ACCEPT ref to showing evolutionary


✔ relationships (e.g. shows common
ancestry)
idea of different common name for the
same organism ✔ Examiner's Comments

Most candidates stated that the advantage


of the binomial naming system is that it is
used as a universal language and
therefore avoids confusion over different
common names for the same organism.

Total 3

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

18 i Amanita ✔ 1 First letter must be a capital, the rest must


be lower case.

Examiner's Comments

Most candidates selected the correct name


and wrote it with a capital letter.

ii one from 1

1 (starch) digestion in the regions where 1 ACCEPT breaks down (starch) in the,
the, fungus / hyphae, not present ✔ region / area / agar, around the fungus

2 enzymes / they, are released / diffuse Examiner's Comments


away, from the fungus
or It was surprisingly rare for candidates to
extracellular / secreted ✔ apply their knowledge of kingdom Fungi to
realise that digestion here is extracellular,
involving enzymes being secreted by the
hyphae and acting outside of them. Some
referred to ‘it’ and their subsequent answer
did not make it clear whether the answer
referred to the enzymes or the fungus.

Total 2

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

19 a i idea that 1
the third diagram shows that the resistant, IGNORE penicillin will kill them so in order
bacteria / colonies, were already present for them to survive the mutation must have
(on the original plate) already happened
or IGNORE no time for natural selection to
these (resistant) bacteria on the original take place
plate continued to grow when flooded with – as these are explanations and not
penicillin ✔ evidence

Examiner's Comments

Most candidates found this question


challenging, tending to repeat or rephrase
the stem of the question. Vague or
ambiguous references to being exposed to
penicillin were insufficient as they needed
to clearly refer to the original colonies that
survived when the original petri dish was
flooded with penicillin. The candidates
needed to take careful note of the
diagrams and the information provided in
order to make an informed statement.

ii natural selection ✔ 1 CREDIT directional selection


IGNORE evolution / survival of the fittest /
binary fission / mutation

Examiner's Comments

This question elicited the following


incorrect answers on a frequent basis:
binary fission, mutation, evolution and
mitosis. Some misunderstood the question
and referred to antibiotic resistance,
immunity or vaccination.

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Mark Scheme

Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

b i 3140 ✔ ✔ 2 Correct answer = 2 marks, even if no


working shown.

If the answer is incorrect or has not


been rounded to 3 sig. figs., then
award 1 mark for seeing
either

or

where x = any number

or an unrounded answer (e.g.


3139.2156 or 3139)
If the incorrect peak has been chosen,
then award 1 mark only for a correct
answer which is correctly expressed
to 3 sig. figs.
Using 1649 the correct answer is 3130
Using 1593 the correct answer is 3020

Examiner's Comments

Candidates should be encouraged to


always show their working for calculations.
Those who did were frequently able to be
awarded a mark for working despite having
the incorrect answer. Most were able to
select the correct figures but were unable
to manipulate them correctly. Calculation of
percentage increase, decrease or change
proves to be challenging for candidates.

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

ii was lower (in 1993) 2 IGNORE ref to raw data


or
has increased / is higher (in 2012) ✔ ACCEPT ‘over 4 x greater in 2012’

(in 2012)
52% or 0.52 ✔
ACCEPT 52.4%

Examiner's Comments

In contrast, most candidates performed this


calculation correctly and were able to make
a suitable comment relating to its increase
since 1993.

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

iii two of 2 IGNORE raw data quotes


1 (trend is) decrease in (number of)
deaths (since 2007) ✔

2 consistent / steady / large / dramatic, 2 idea that non‐specified fluctuates


decrease in (deaths from S. Note ‘a large decrease in the number of
aureus specified as) MRSA (from 2007) ✔ deaths from MRSA’ = 2 marks (mps 1 & 2)

3 ref to better specific cross-infection 3 e.g. isolating MRSA cases / dress code
control measure in health care ✔ for health professionals / hygiene
measures / pre operation screening

4 any correct processed data comparing 4 MRSA


either years or cause of death using figures e.g. decrease of, 1301 / approx. 260 per
from table 6 ✔ year 2012 value is, 18.3% / approx. 20% /
approx. ⅕, of 2007 value a drop of, 82% /
approx. 80%, from 2007 to 2012

total
e.g. decrease of, 1495 / approx. 39 per
year 2012 value is, 27.1% / approx. 25% /
approx. ¼, of 2007 value a drop of, 73% /
approx. 70% / approx. 75%, from 2007 to
2012

Examiner's Comments

Most candidates observed the correct


trend but did not clearly distinguish
between total certificates mentioning S.
aureus, those mentioning S. aureus
specified as MRSA and those mentioning
S. aureus not specified as resistant. Data
quoted was frequently raw data rather than
processed. Measures to prevent
cross‐infection were only credited if they
were specific rather than vague references
to ‘better hygiene’.

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

Total 8

20 range of, values / intermediates; 3 max ACCEPT no distinct, categories / groups


quantitative; ACCEPT (sketch of) normal distribution /
bell-shaped curve
IGNORE ‘can be measured’

influenced by environment; ACCEPT example, e.g. those with more


access to nitrate could grow larger

influenced by more than two genes / Examiner's Comments


polygenic;
This was generally done well. All marking
points were seen but the most common
mark was for reference to a range of
values or the lack of discrete categories.

Total 3

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

21 i 2 If any answer is wrong AWARD max 1 if


the other 3 taxa are correct
If Q is wrong AWARD max 1 if all stated
taxa are in the correct consecutive
sequence

Q phylum / phyla Q IGNORE phylus


R class
S order Examiner's Comments
T family;
Candidates who were aware of the
classification hierarchy tended to get both
marks, whereas those who didn't tended to
make wild guesses, often referring to
vertebrates and invertebrates or even
mammals, birds and amphibians. Some
got the wrong starting point, not realising
that ‘kingdom’ had been given in the stem
of the question.

ii 4 ACCEPT ‘genes / DNA / RNA / base


sequences / proportion of bases’ as AW for
1 eukaryotes / in eukaryote domain; genetics
2 (classified on the basis of) genetics /
amino acid sequences;

3 genetics / observable features / amino


acid sequences, distinct from other,
(eukaryotic) kingdoms;

4 genetics / amino acid sequence, less 4 IGNORE observable features for this
similar to, protoctists marking point
or 4 IGNORE animals
genetics / amino acid sequence, more
similar to, plants / fungi; Examiner's Comments

About half of all candidates managed to


say that slime moulds must be eukaryotic.
Few candidates scored more than one.
Those few candidates who achieved full
marks did so by addressing marking point
1 and 4, which automatically meant they
were awarded marking point 2 as well.
Generally, most statements were about cell
walls and chloroplasts, rather than DNA or
amino acid sequences. Marking point 3,
which was key to the context of the
question, was rarely awarded.

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

iii 1 idea that 3 domains fits phylogeny better; 3 max 1 ACCEPT e.g. classifies species that are
more closely related together / it is a better
representation of the true relationship /
reflects evolutionary history better
1 IGNORE clearer
1 IGNORE reference to common ancestors
2 (there are) key / many / fundamental /
important, differences between, bacteria / 2 ACCEPT there are fundamental
prokaryotes, and, eukaryotes / other (4) similarities between the 4 eukaryotic
kingdoms; kingdoms that are not shared with
prokaryotes
3 eukaryotes all have, nucleus / membrane-
bound organelles / 80S ribosomes;

4 (there are) key / many / fundamental /


important, differences between bacteria
and archaea; 4 ACCEPT ‘there are good reasons why
prokaryotes should be split’
4 ACCEPT ‘bacteria and archaea are more
different that we thought’
5 bacteria and archaea have different, cell
membrane / flagella / (named) enzymes / Examiner's Comments
transcription / DNA replication / RNA;
Few candidates scored marks in (iii), and
where marks were awarded they tended to
be for citing and, more often, exemplifying
key differences between bacteria and
archaea. Some came close to marking
point 4 but stated only that bacteria and
archaea were different with no suggestion
that these differences were significant
enough to justify a change in the
classification system. Many candidates
appeared to be offering a mark scheme
from a previous, but fundamentally
different, question on the same topic.
Candidates who achieved no marks often
made vague statements about it being
simpler, easier to use, or more accepted.

Total 8

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22 i idea of danger to, humans / local wildlife / 1 ACCEPT idea of danger to existing food
domestic animals / deer; chains
IGNORE could become a pest
IGNORE dangerous without further
qualification
IGNORE competition
environment may no longer be suitable for
lynx / AW; Examiner's Comments

The vast majority of candidates were able


to access this mark with little problem. The
minority who did not gain the mark
discussed the lynx out-competing the
native species or bringing disease into the
country.

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ii 1 (phylogeny is) the evolutionary, 4 max 1 ACCEPT reasonable description of


relationship between / history of, evolutionary, history / relationship, e.g.
organisms / species; changes in ancestral organisms

2 phylogeny is the basis of 2 Must be a clear statement


classification;

3 example of molecular evidence used 3 ACCEPT base sequence / amino acid


to classify; sequence / DNA / cytochrome C /
haemoglobin / ATPase (used to classify)

Examiner's Comments
4 species / organisms, within the same
group have shared, phylogeny / Candidates found this question challenging
evolutionary history / common and it discriminated well between
ancestor; ora candidates of different abilities. Many
5 idea that phylogeny of L. lynx and L. students had learnt the definition of
pardinus are sufficiently, different to phylogeny and gained the first marking
have been placed in separate species / point. Definitions that failed to get a mark
similar to have been placed in same usually failed to mention evolution or
genus; species. Few candidates stated that
phylogeny was the basis of classification
with sufficient weight or clarity to gain a
mark. A minority of candidates were able to
gain ab mark by stating that certain
biomolecules were used in classification as
an indicator of phylogeny. The general
marking point 4 was awarded even less
often than the more specific marking point
5. Candidates tended to simply re-iterate
the stem of the question without
mentioning the lynx’s phylogeny. Some
candidates had the idea of marking point 5
but failed to use the term either species or
genus and so could not be awarded the
mark.

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iii modern / new / better, technology (to 1 ACCEPT named example, e.g. DNA
distinguish between closely related sequencing
species);
Examiner's Comments

more, molecular / biochemical / DNA / Most candidates gained the mark for
genetic, evidence; new/better technology or reference to
biochemical evidence. The most
disappointing wrong answer, seen quite
frequently, was that the lynx had recently
evolved into a new species over a 10 year
period.

iv 1 idea of impact on food chain(s); 3 max 1 ACCEPT controlling deer population


1 ACCEPT top carnivore / top predator /
keystone species / it might compete with
existing species
1 IGNORE other species might die

2 idea of right to exist / duty of humans 2 IGNORE ‘playing God’


to care for other species / ethical 2 IGNORE refs to poaching / hunting
reason / preserving species for future
generations;

3 idea of aesthetic reason; 3 ACCEPT beautiful creatures / nice to


look at / AW

4 economic reason / tourism / might Examiner's Comments


provide useful resource;
The vast majority of candidates gained at
least 2 marks on this sub-question and
many scored all 3. A variety of answers
were allowed and the candidates offered a
range of, often ingenious, valid responses
ranging from the lynx possibly having
useful hormones or enzymes to being of
national significance to the heritage of
Spain. The most frequently offered non-
creditworthy answers referred to
maintenance of biodiversity or genetic
variation, or to prevent extinction.

Total 9

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23 5 Mark the first answer. If the answer is


correct and another answer is given that is
incorrect or contradicts the original answer,
then = 0 marks

1 individuals / organisms / species /


phenotypes; IGNORE offspring

2 genetic; ACCEPT inherited / genetical

3 environment; IGNORE named example of environment,


e.g. diet

4 intraspecific;
ACCEPT intraspecies

5 selection / survival;
ACCEPT breeding / reproduction
ACCEPT natural selection / survival of the
fittest

Examiner's Comments

Four marks were usually awarded for this


question. The most common incorrect
response was where ‘intraspecific’ should
have been. Many candidates wrote
‘interspecific’, ‘continuous’, or left it blank.
A minority of candidates wrote ‘speciation’
or ‘characteristics’ in the last space.

Total 5

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24 a i 1 max Mark the first answer. If the answer is


correct and another answer is given that is
incorrect or contradicts the original answer,
then = 0 marks
fins;
streamlining / streamlined shape; ACCEPT reasonable attempt to describe
streamlined shape
ACCEPT aerodynamic
ACCEPT articulated / flexible, spine

Examiner's Comments

Almost all candidates answered this


correctly, usually for writing ‘fins’. A few
responses mentioned gills but these were
not visible in the diagram and so no mark
was given.

ii 1 Mark the first answer. If the answer is


correct and a further answer is given that is
incorrect or contradicts the correct answer
then = 0 marks

eyes on top of head; ACCEPT the position of the eyes / eyes


that can see above
IGNORE eyes facing forward
IGNORE fin
IGNORE eyes close together
IGNORE refs to shape

Examiner's Comments

Around a third of candidates got a mark for


referencing the position of the eyes on top
of the head. Responses that mentioned
eyes alone were not awarded a mark as
the presence of eyes did not necessarily
facilitate life on the sea bed. References to
a flat belly were also not credited because
the underside of Tiktaalik was not visible in
the figures.

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b 2 Mark the first answer on each prompt


line. If the answer is correct and another
answer is given that is incorrect or
1 (cellulose) cell wall; contradicts the original answer, then = 0
marks

2 chloroplast(s); 2 CREDIT plastids / dictysomes / many


small Golgi
3 IGNORE chlorophyll

3 (large / permanent) vacuole; 3 CREDIT tonoplast

4 starch granules; 4 CREDIT druses / raphides / crystalline


inclusions / Ca oxalate

Examiner's Comments

Most candidates scored both marks.


Popular answers were ‘cell wall’,
‘chloroplasts’ or ‘vacuole’. A few
candidates wrote that they were
autotrophic, failing to realise that the
question asked for features present in
cells.

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c 1 (similarities / differences in) genes / 5 max 1 ACCEPT molecular / biochemical


genetics / DNA / RNA / molecules / evidence
biochemistry;
2 (similarities / differences in) nucleotide /
base, sequence / order;
3 (similarities / differences in) cytochrome c
/ haemoglobin / ATP synthase / RNA
polymerase;
4 (similarities / differences in) sequence /
order, of amino acids (in proteins);

5 idea that similarities between any of the 5 CREDIT if their genes are similar they
above implies (close) relationship; ora must share a regmtcommon ancestor
5 AWARD as a general statement or with
an example, e.g. ‘chimps and humans
share large proportion of DNA and this
means that they are related gets mp 1 and
5.’ ‘Chimps and humans are closely
related’ = 0 marks unless linked to a
marking point from 1 – 4.’

6 idea of evolution within human history; 6 CREDIT in the context of an example of


evolution in action, e.g. MRSA resistance
to antibiotics or as a general statement
6 CREDIT selective breeding (artificial
selection) example

7 similarities in / differences in / 7 CREDIT e.g. similar finches occupying


comparison of, embryology / morphology / different niches on neighbouring
anatomy / physiology / behaviour; Galapagos islands
7 CREDIT e.g. vertebrate pentadactyl limb
etc.
7 ACCEPT idea of vestigial organs;
7 IGNORE appearance / features /
adaptations

QWC; One mark from 1-4 and 1 mark from 1 Marking point 5 is not part of QWC
6-7
Examiner's Comments

Most candidates were able to gain 2-4


marks on this question; 5 marks were
scored by a reasonable minority but only
rarely were full marks awarded. A large
proportion of answers referred to DNA,
genetics or molecules, and many used
cytochrome C, base sequence and/or
amino acid sequence too. Quite a number
of students successfully communicated the

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idea that similarities in any of these
biochemical features indicated a close
relationship. However, candidates that
chose to refer to a common ancestor as a
signifier of similarity were not awarded
marking point 5 on that basis alone. The
term ‘common ancestor’ does not, in itself,
signify a close relationship as all species, it
could be argued, have a common
ancestor. It was common for candidates to
discuss humans and apes as an example
of genetic similarity but discussion of this
example often failed to clearly reference
the idea of a close relationship between
the two and sometimes confused apes with
monkeys. Discussion of extraction of DNA
from fossils or ‘ancestral species’, which
was seen occasionally despite the question
stem, was not credited.
Only around a third of responses
mentioned non-biochemical evidence;
moreover, several candidates who did
discuss non-biochemical evidence failed to
mention molecules; hence the QWC was
rarely awarded. A reasonable minority of
responses discussed Darwin′s finches but
some were too vague to get a mark –
referring to birds in general, for example.
Comparison of anatomy and behaviour in
general terms was seen in less than a
quarter of answers but was usually
credited when discussed. Reference to
pentadactyl limbs was also credited where
it was seen.
Very few candidates, much fewer than
expected, gained marking point 6. Those
that were successful discussed antibiotic
resistance in bacteria, insecticide
resistance in malaria or the peppered
moth. A number of candidates thought that
phylogeny itself was evidence for
evolution, suggesting a misunderstanding
of either the term ‘phylogeny’ or the term
‘evidence’. A few candidates, ignoring the
question, wrote about fossils or the
process of natural selection and were not
given any credit.

Total 10

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25 Nymphaea; 1 NOTE: the first letter must clearly be in


upper case and the others in lower case
and the spelling correct

Examiner's Comments

The vast majority of responses were


correct. Very few failed to correctly write
‘Nypmhaea’ with a capital ‘N’. The most
common incorrect responses were
‘thermarum’ and ‘Plantae’.

Total 1

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26 a characteristics / features / AW, are passed 1 IGNORE genes / alleles / DNA as question
on to / inherited (by the next generation); asks about Darwin's conclusion
ACCEPT ‘appearance’ for features

DO NOT CREDIT answers that only refer


to beneficial characteristics (as Darwin's
other observations would need to be
considered to arrive at this conclusion)

Examiner's Comments

The question tested candidates’ ability to


link an observation with a reasonable
conclusion. Most candidates discussed the
inheritance of something. However, those
that discussed only genes failed to get the
mark because there was no information
about genes in the observation. A few
responses discussed inheritance of
beneficial characteristics, but in order to
draw this conclusion a further observation
would have needed to be considered.

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b 2 max IGNORE references to relationship with


organism (1)

1 B and C and D are more closely 1 IGNORE ‘B, C and D are more similar’
related (to each other than to A); ora as this could refer to appearance rather
than relationship

2 idea that A is in different (taxonomic) 2 CREDIT named taxonomic group


group (from other 3); ora

3 B and C and D, share more, recent 3 IGNORE genes etc.


common ancestor;
Examiner's Comments

4 phylogeny / evolution, of B and C and Around half of responses gained 1 mark,


D diverged at same point; ora usually for identifying the closer
relationship, or more recent common
ancestry, of B, C and D. Marking points 2
and 4 were rarely awarded. Responses
that discussed a timescale got no credit
and those that thought that C and D were
somehow more related to each other than
they were to B clearly misunderstood the
nature of an evolutionary tree diagram. A
minority of responses spent some time
discussing the relationship between
organism 1 and organisms A, B, C and D
for no credit, as this is not what the
question had asked them to do.

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c fits evidence; 1 max

CREDIT examples, e.g. DNA revolution /


idea of more, evidence / research (since more fossils
nineteenth century); ACCEPT improved technology / molecular
evidence

IGNORE ‘the theory has been proved’


IGNORE Darwin provided more evidence

ACCEPT changes in religious belief

Examiner's Comments

This question was well answered with most


gaining the mark for the idea of more
evidence often linked to an example, such
as DNA. Some also gained the mark for
identifying the influence of religion on 19th
century society.

d i specification; 1
Examiner's Comments

The vast majority of candidates correctly


identified speciation as the answer.
Variation, adaptation, mutation, and natural
selection were also seen.

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ii idea that different islands have different, 1 max CREDIT ‘the Galapagos have a wider
selection pressures / habitats / range of habitats’
environments / vacant niches; ora IGNORE islands have different habitat(s)
from the mainland
idea of isolation; ora
e.g. the islands are separated from the
mainland / no gene flow / geographic
barrier / reproductive barrier
ACCEPT allopatric (speciation)
IGNORE sympatric

IGNORE refs to succession or human


habitat destruction on the mainland as the
question is about evolution

Examiner's Comments

Most candidates were able to get the idea


of isolation or more varied selection
pressures into their answer. The
commonest incorrect answers discussed
the influence of humans on the islands.

Total 6

27 1 immunity involves / bacteria do not have, 3


lymphocytes / white blood cells / antibodies Examiner's Comments
/ memory cells / plasma cells / an immune
system; This question differentiated well between
candidates. The vast majority of
2 (correct term is) resistant; candidates knew that ‘resistant’ was the
correct term. A few mentioned resistant,
3 bacteria are unicellular / only multicellular but were not awarded the mark because
organisms (can) have an immune they went on to state that resistance was a
response; form of partial or temporary immunity.
Around half of candidates knew that
immunity involved an immune response
and were able to give enough detail to get
a mark. Very few candidates referenced
the fact that, in order to have an immune
system, an organism needs to be
multicellular.

Total 3

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28 A1 independent assortment / random 8 max A1 ACCEPT Random assortment /


segregation, of (homologous) independent segregation
chromosomes / bivalents;
A2 / A3 DO NOT CREDIT metaphase /
meiosis, I and II
A2 in, metaphase I / meiosis I; A2 / A3 ACCEPT correct anaphase stage
A3 of chromatids in, metaphase II / meiosis linked to segregation
II; A2 must be in context of independent
assortment / random segregation

A4 (so) homologous chromosomes, have A4 / A5 DO NOT CREDIT genes


different alleles / come from different A4 ACCEPT pairs of chromosomes /
parents; maternal and paternal chromosomes, have
different alleles / come from different
parents

A5 produces large number of allele A5 ACCEPT different combinations of,


combinations; chromatids / chromosomes, in gametes
CREDIT figures e.g. for humans 223
possible combinations

C1 crossing over / (formation of) C1 DO NOT CREDIT between sister


chiasma(ta); chromatids
C2 in, prophase I / meiosis I; C3 (so) C2 DO NOT CREDIT prophase / meiosis, I
chromatids will have new combination of and II
alleles; C2 must be in context of crossing over
C3 ACCEPT shuffles / swaps / exchanges,
alleles on chromatids
C4 amount of variation depends on C4 e.g. more variation the further apart the
distance between crossover points; crossovers occur

M1 mutation;
M2 changes the (DNA) nucleotide/ base, M2 IGNORE ‘pairs’
sequence; M2 CREDIT deletion, / substitution /
addition, of, base / nucleotide
M3 DNA checks (during duplication) did M3 ACCEPT proof reading did not
not recognise damage; recognise damage

M4 idea of differences in (named) M4 e.g. change in, amino acid sequence /


protein(s); primary structure

N1 non-disjunction; N1 CREDIT inversion / translocation


(chromosome mutation)
N2 homologous chromosomes do not N2 CREDIT description of inversion /
separate (in metaphase I); translocation

N3 one, more / less, chromosome present; N3 CREDIT examples of chromosome


changes e.g. Trisomy 21

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F1 random, mating / fusion of gametes/
fertilisation;
F2 gametes are not genetically identical; F2 ACCEPT gametes are genetically
different
F3 produces large number of (allele) F3 DO NOT CREDIT produce large
combinations; number of gene combinations

1 Awarded for one change and


QWC; consequence of that change

Award if ONE of the following has been


awarded

mp A1 or A2 or A3 and mp A4 or A5
OR
mp C1 or C2 and mp C3 or C4
OR
mp M1 or M2 and mp M3 or M4
OR
mp N1 or N2 and mp N3
OR
mp F1 or F2 and mp F3

Examiner's Comments

This question discriminated well across the


mark range, with many candidates able to
relate genetic variation to the stages of
meiosis. Weaker candidates merely listed
the events of each stage of meiosis,
without linking them to the way in which
genetic variation was achieved, gaining no
credit. Candidates should be encouraged
to read the question again after they have
answered it to check they have followed
the instructions correctly.
The most common responses seen talked
about independent assortment of
chromosomes in metaphase I and
chromatids in metaphase II,crossing over
in prophase I, mutation and random
fertilisation, all of which gained credit.
However, some candidates confused the
terms chromosomes and chromatids, for
example talking about crossing over
between sister chromatids, which lost the
marking point. Other common errors were
a lack of appropriate detail, for example
fertilisation rather than random fertilisation,

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daughter cells rather than gametes, which
meant that the marking points F1 and F2
could not be awarded.
Few candidates related the processes
involved in creating genetic variation to the
consequences of that process, i.e. the
production of new combinations of alleles
in the gametes, and so failed to gain the
QWC mark.

Total 9

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29 a i 1 Mark the first answer. If the answer is


correct and an additional answer is given
that is incorrect or contradicts the correct
answer then = 0 marks
geographic(al); ACCEPT ecological
IGNORE physical / barrier

Examiner's Comments

This question was answered well, but


sometimes candidates confused their
answer with types of speciation. Allopatric
was a common mistake, as was geological
as opposed to geographical.

ii 1 Mark the first answer. If the answer is


correct and an additional answer is given
genetic drift; that is incorrect or contradicts the correct
answer then = 0 marks

Examiner's Comments

The majority of candidates answered this


question correctly. The most common error
was to name it as mutation.

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iii C because 2 max If C not identified then no marks


awarded
Look for comparative points with other
populations

has the greatest change in allele frequency ACCEPT p and q for allele
/ described; eg ‘frequency of allele in C changed by
0.20 whilst it changed by 0.02 in A and
0.14 in B’
ACCEPT figs as %

smaller population / fewer individuals; ACCEPT smallest /fewest

idea that more, subject to founder effect / Examiner's Comments


unrepresentative at start;
A minority of candidates did not identify C
(more subject to genetic change because) correctly and gained no marks. Identifying
each random mating more significant C because it has the greatest change in
or allele frequency or the use of figures to
each individual forms a greater proportion demonstrate the same point was the most
of gene pool common correct answer. Some candidates
or failed to compare the allele frequency
each individual has greater effects on gene change to other populations so didn't gain
pool (than in large population) the mark.
or
easier to lose allele from gene pool; Fewer candidates went onto gain a second
mark for identifying C as the smallest
population, many attempted it but again
without making the answer comparative,
gained no credit. Other mark points were
very rarely awarded as candidates did not
talk about individuals or the gene pool.

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b i 1401;;; 3 Correct answer = 3 marks

Award 2 max
if answer not given to the nearest whole
number or is incorrect or missing,
then

CREDIT correct working in table columns


as follows:
both figures in one column correct = 1
mark. (N.B. Minus sign required for column
1)

ALLOW ecf from any incorrect column to 2


max

Examiner's Comments

It was pleasing to see that the vast majority


of candidates had a thorough
understanding of the chi-squared
calculation, gaining full marks. Those who
didn't tended to pick up 2 marks for getting
the column numbers correct as they had
made mistakes in their final calculation.

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ii 1 ALLOW ecf for a correct explanation that


corresponds to the candidate's incorrect
reject hypothesis because calculation for (i)
calculated χ2 value / 1401, is (much) larger
than, critical value / 11.35;

CREDIT idea that probability that these


results are due to chance is (much) less
than 1% / 0.01

Examiner's Comments

Many candidates gained this mark. Some


candidates stated ´accept´ and lost the
mark or didn´t give sufficient detail. For
instance, several candidates just wrote
'reject hypothesis' without further
explanation, and some did not mention
critical value or chi squared value in their
answers.

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iii (autosomal) linkage 3 max DO NOT CREDIT sex linkage


or
genes / alleles, are linked; IGNORE epistasis

on same chromosome;

linked alleles inherited together;

Ry and rY (on chromosomes in ACCEPT annotated drawing


heterozygotes);

crossing-over produced (rare) ACCEPT recombinant phenotypes


recombinants; described

tight linkage / two genes close together; ACCEPT loci close together

Note
‘The alleles R & y and r & Y are inherited
together’
= 2 marks (mps 3 & 4)
‘The alleles for red eyes and ebony body,
and pink eyes and a yellow body, are
inherited together’
= 2 marks (mps 3 & 4)

Examiner's Comments

This question was very poorly answered.


The majority of candidates gave ´epistasis´
as their answer and some also gave ´sex-
linkage´ as an answer, which gained no
credit. A significant number discussed
environmental pressures as being the
cause, even though the question asked for
a genetic explanation. Those that correctly
identified linkage were mostly able to give
good descriptions and gain full marks. A
few candidates who did mention linkage
did not get mp 3 as they mentioned linked
genes being inherited together rather than
linked alleles being inherited together.

Total 11

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30 producing nicotine is (selectively) 3 max mp must be in correct context ( ie


advantageous as advantage/ disadvantage) to be
awarded

A1 stops, plant being eaten / loss of leaf A1 ACCEPT deters / kills, grazers / insects
area;
Examiner's Comments
A2 so plant, survives / does breed / (still)
produces seeds; Most candidates were able to make some
sensible suggestions, in the correct
A3 idea that gene must be advantageous context, in response to this question.
to be selected for Marking point D1 was most commonly
or given, but only a minority of candidates
gene is linked to another gene that is were able to explain that the reduced seed
selected for; production was due to energy or resources
being used to make nicotine instead (MP
producing nicotine is (selectively) D2). Several candidates were also able to
disadvantageous identify insect deterrence as a selective
D1 decreases, reproductive success / advantage (MP A1), and a number of those
number of seeds; then went on to gain marking point A2
(usually for increased survival). In general,
D2 metabolic resources diverted to nicotine candidates need to be reminded to look for
production; both sides of the argument and identify
selective advantages and disadvantages.
A few candidates gave confused answers
falsely linking the addictive properties of
nicotine in humans to insects that might
continue eating the plant in order to get
more nicotine.

Total 3

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31 i 2 Mark the first answer on each prompt


line. If an additional answer is given that is
incorrect or contradicts the correct answer,
then = 0 marks

Note: Suggestions must relate to visible


characteristics of the frogs,

discontinuous
gender / male and female / eye colour; ACCEPT sex
IGNORE skin colour (as stated in Q),

continuous CREDIT example of a measurable


size / length / mass; characteristic (e.g. leg length, surface area,
height, weight)

Examiner's Comments

The majority of candidates could correctly


identify a phenotypic characteristic which
showed a continuous pattern of variation,
but, surprisingly, many could not give an
acceptable example of discontinuous
variation. Some failed to use the
information given, stating colour as an
example, or blood group, neither of which
were allowed.

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ii 2 IGNORE examples of environmental


idea of factors

1no / little, environmental effect for, ACCEPT discontinuous variation is only,


(named example of) discontinuous genetic / due to alleles present
variation / example given for
discontinuous variation in (i) as ecf;

Note:
2some / large, environmental effect for, A comparative statement (e.g.
(named example of) continuous ‘environment has a greater effect on
variation / example given for continuous variation’) = 2 marks (mps 1 &
continuous variation in (i) as ecf; 2)
e.g. ‘no environment effect for
discontinuous variation but it does affect
3gender may be affected by, continuous variation’ = 2 marks (mps1 &2)
temperature / atrazine exposure;
Examiner's Comments

Most candidates performed well. Others


described factors that affected the type of
variation and didn't write ‘environmental’ or
address the question ‘Discuss the extent to
which’ and so lost marks as a result.

iii 1idea that offspring visibly different from, 2 max ACCEPT brown frog for A
A / egg donor;

2 ‘to show that cloning is successful’ is not


2to show that the offspring produced enough
were clones;

3to show / identify, (genetic) parents (of Note:


clone) / B and C; ‘To show that the offspring were clones as
they are not the same as A.’ = 2 marks
(mps 1 & 2)

Examiner's Comments

This was a challenging question, with


many candidates suggesting that albino
frogs were being used as they were
endangered or possessed a desirable
characteristic, rather than the idea that the
offspring would be visibly different to the
egg donor, but identical to the genetic
parents or other clones.

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Total 6

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

32 a (belong to the) same genus; 1


Examiner's Comments

It was surprising how many candidates did


not know the answer genus. Common
suggestions were phylum, taxonomic
group, same species or general comments
about them just having common ancestors,
which failed to gain credit.

b i 1 not much / little / some, competition / 4 max This mark is for a stand alone statement
niche overlap; DO NOT CREDIT no competition
IGNORE competition unqualified / inter /
intra

2 CREDIT correct comparative description


reasons for little competition or use of data
2 use / feed on, different sized flowers /
different depth of flowers; e.g. B. pratorum feed on, bigger / longer /
deeper, flowers
or
B. pratorum 7.4(mm) and B. terrestris
6.3(mm)

3 vary in proportions of pollen and nectar 3 CREDIT correct description e.g. B.


they collect; pratorum mostly pollen and nectar and B.
terrestris mostly nectar only
or comparison of 2 species using table
data
IGNORE ‘different amounts’ of pollen and
nectar

4 CREDIT correct description of difference


4 fly / live / active / feed / visit flowers, at e.g. B. pratorum peak in June and B.
different times; terrestris in July
or
B. pratorum appear in earlier in the year
or comparison of 2 species using graph
data
reason for competition

5 CREDIT correct description from data


5 idea that fly / live / active / feed / visit e.g. both compete for food between May
flowers, overlaps there must be and September / both collect pollen only
competition; from same % flowers

6 e.g. use / feed on, different species of

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance


6 AVP; flowers

Examiner's Comments

Most candidates got the idea that there


was some degree of competition, and
successfully gained 1 or 2 marks, but
generally answers were poorly constructed
with many candidates using the space
available to explain just one or two marking
points. For example, many candidates
achieved marking point 5, referring to
numerous examples of competition in their
answer, but only able to achieve one mark.
Candidates were good at using data from
the graph and table, but often in a vague
way - eg. ‘peak in the summer months’ -
and without relating it to the question.
Common errors were giving the wrong time
scale from x axis, not mentioning both
nectar and pollen for mp3 and saying that
bees competed as they visited flowers of
similar or same depths, or that one species
outcompeted the other species of bee.

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

ii 1 idea of isolation / isolating mechanism / 3 max


barrier;

2 seasonal (difference) / temporal 2 CREDIT example of seasonal / temporal


(difference) / males and queens (in (e.g. B. pratorum has its peak number of
different populations) produced in different workers in June and B. terrestris in July)
months / breeding (in different populations)
in different months;

3 behavioural (difference) / visit different


(types of) flowers / feed at different times / 3 CREDIT ‘different mating rituals’
feed on different food types;

4 different flower locations / different


(micro)habitats;

5 must refer to gene / allele


5 idea that gene flow restricted / no gene
flow (between populations);

6 different adaptations / specialisation /


niche partitioning; 6 IGNORE speciation (as implied in Q) -
can be mistaken for specialisation

Examiner's Comments

The majority of candidates scored well on


this question. Most recognised the need for
isolation / barriers and mentioned seasonal
and / or behavioural differences. However,
few mentioned the idea of restricted gene
flow and specialisation in the two separate
populations leading to the evolution of the
new species.

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Mark Scheme

Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

c i 2 Mark the first answer in each box. If an


additional answer is given that is incorrect
or contradicts the correct answer, then = 0
marks

ACCEPT taxis / example of taxis eg


chemotaxis
IGNORE inherited / genetically determined
DO NOT CREDIT kinesis

Examiner's Comments

This was generally a well-answered


question with many candidates gaining 2
marks. Most common answers were
learned and innate behaviour. Common
errors included giving latent or insight
learning for mp1 or even reference to
conditioning on its own. There were
problems with some candidates offering
multiple answers one of which was
incorrect, therefore negating their marks.

ii Idea that better / more efficient, at, finding / 1 max ACCEPT more food can be collected less,
getting, food; time / energy, spent looking for food easier
to find food
e.g. ref to reduces competition from other
AVP; colonies

Examiner's Comments

A well-answered question with the majority


of candidates getting the mark. Many of
those who did not achieve the mark were
writing vague references to the bees
increasing their chance of survival.

Total 11

33 B✓ 1

Total 1

34 D✓ 1

Total 1

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

35 a i number of seeds per pot ✓ Max 2

size of pot ✓

type of soil / compost used ✓

mass of soil / compost used ✓

temperature ✓

light intensity ✓

oxygen / carbon dioxide concentration ✓

AVP ✓ e.g. depth of planting

ii % moisture on horizontal axis and number 4 ACCEPT either line graph with two lines or
seedlings germinated on vertical axis✓ bar chart with two bars at each moisture
level
both axes clearly labelled with unit for
moisture✓

plots for separate species clearly


distinguished✓

points plotted accurately✓

b i correct data entered into all cells in table ✓ 1

Σd2 = 2 ✓

ii 0.9 ✓✓ 2 Two marks for correct answer

If answer incorrect allow one mark for work


showing formula completed correctly

iii the correlation (between moisture and 1


germination) is not significant (at the p =
0.05 / 95% confidence level)✓

Total 11

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Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance

36 a i action potential / nervous impulse, in 3 max


sensory neurone ✓

synapse / described ✓

relay / intermediate, neurone ✓

(nervous impulse in) motor neurone,


passes to / AW, effector / muscle ✓

ii idea of maintains balance / efficiency of 1


movement ✓

iii kinetic / movement, energy converted ✓ 3 max

to, electrical energy / action potential ✓

idea of movement of statolith moves


sensory hairs ✓

membrane of sensory hairs depolarises ✓

b Support is weak because 2

idea that clasification based on phylogeny


statocysts could, have evolved on more


than one occasion / be an example of
convergent evolution ✓

Total 9

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