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    32 6 1 Social Science

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    Priya Suriyakumar

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    fe nem SET-1| n a a Wea SIS & [Series zexvul6| Fee wast 32/6/1 ! Bo ae, wtlenell were ate wy sage 3] (8 ‘Roll No. qa que ara fed | & & Candidates must write the Q.P. Code ® a on the title page of the answer-book. | {) s is : g 5 amenities fast ® ® 2 SOCIAL SCIENCE * Pratt a7: 3 90 PITT TE : 80 | Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80 mie SES! IRIE. he em ais ed Rca eo gh ps a2 (raft A ae wana 4 afer eer Fr ath feu me wea-wa ale a Vere Ser-gfeaa WETS TS oO afr | t) 5 © persia ac a ga wea § 37 9H BI iS he Pama feng sta we, meget amis raf Re umerr ah og fe 1 frre are fre | ea ar Fre gaa 10.15, i a 2 fem sem | 10.15 #3 & 10,30 a8 aw were at a wh HA ot wa IE Grae Sh & sega eg ae el Fr | 5 2 «Please check that this question paper contains 32 printed pages (Including z #) Map). & A] © QP. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be & writton on the title page of the answor-book by the candidate. a #4) © Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions. a ji © Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer- s ‘a book before attempting it. os YE e 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The (ft 4 question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m, From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 ( n a.m., the candidates will read the question paper only and will not write [) a any answer on the answer-book during this period. oe 5 Bea General Instructions : () Question paper contains 87 questions. All questions are compulsory, Question paper comprises six Sections - A, B, C, D, E and F There are 87 questions in the question paper. (ii) Section A- Question nos. 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each. (iii) Section B - Question nos. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words. (iv) Section C - Question nos. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words, (v) Section D - Question nos. 30 to 83 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words. (vi) Section E - Question nos. from 34 to 36 are Case Based Questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. (vii) Section F - Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 87 (a) from History (2 marks) and 37 (b) from Geography (3 marks). (viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted. (ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. 32/6/1 < > ws & (20 x 1= 20) (agfraedta wea) 1. Prafefiad at aifera fifare otk wel famosa aa fare | ran) (afra) @ fremge g xetargonét &) era (a) are ria @ artes Tn fafa ene oe @ Peay ayy) Ate gee 3 con} ea a aro @®@ ®© © @ @ 1 Vv mm dw ®) I Vo oO Vv nu m @) I Vou mW 2. Prefered 3 8 faret vee arenfee sara “arret Ase! fare 7 (A) fafiag area (B) aren fers (©) emer wera @) Ta Ta 32/6/1 <4> ae SECTION - A (Multiple Choice Questions) (20 x 1= 20) 1. Match the following and choose the correct option. 1 (Leader) (Role) (a) Victor Emmanuel IT I. Chief Minister of Italy (6) Guiseppe Mazzini II, Young Italy Movement (© Guiseppe Garibaldi Il. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies (@ Count Cavour IV. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy (a) b) © (a) @® Io Ww mw ow ® wu I Ww mW © WV int ul I ® 1 W ft sw 2, Who among the following brought out ‘Bengal Gazette; the first weekly newspaper ? 1 ie @) © @) 32/6/1 Bipin Chandra Pal Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gangadhar Bhattacharya Raja Rammohan Roy P.T.O. 3. 18408 1860 & aha ets Hera & Preae ere Preaferfiad Ha ata er sell eT 7 1 (A) aie ait ger ®) yatta (©) wafthem afk aizarge ©) aarsitgent 4. aria cin leaf sraredt # srtftar at wet re 7 Prefered faacdt FS wet are ft wear aif: 1 (A) Tet sft nti @) WHariAsikas (C) width wife a aaa & fore (D) fac qa % vor ey Prafatad srrant ft wera 8 set A rea sAifre : 1 © TEU eT Ge Hae | + Feats ft pate | ee fee sa am oh silts seeker Ht raza tet e | © 3a fae 100 em a aftr arf aul hl area ar 2 | ‘frrra: (a) (B) Fe (©) ae @) =r 32/6/1 <6 D a a 3. Which of the following industries increased with the expansion of railways in England from 1840s to 1860s ? ) @) © @) Iron and Steel Jute and Cotton Aluminium and Bauxite Copper and Steel 4, Why did Europeans flee to America in 19t* century ? Identify the correct reason from the following options : (A) @) © @) Poverty and diseases Due to gold rush To escape from the French Revolution As an aftermath of the Vietnam War Identify the Crop with the help of the following information and choose the correct option. © Thisis the staple food crop © This is a Kharif crop. + It requires high temperature and high humidity. * It requires above 100 cm of annual rainfall. Options : (A) ®B) © ) 32/6/1 Wheat Maize Rice Swar 6. SA aT etB & aa from fie sik aa famed wr aa Aa: win A wu-B (7a) (ata) 1 Ferd 1 Fenaiae mu. Wa 2, eRe im, ae 3, Bete Iv. 3 4, Wor say are farmed: I rt om w a 4 3 2 1 B®) 3 4 1 2 © 2 1 4 3 oO ot 2 3 4 7. Prafteftaa #8 erga aifera® 2 @) sete fat afters () self setter © wih wae (D) eeu fs afer ere 8. Prefers deensit ta ata at ‘faze fara PAE tare wet 2 7 (A) feat B) stacker yar ae (C) fara area ares (D) saatta am iret 32/6/1 ae 6. Match the Column ~ A with Column — B and choose the correct option 1 Column - A Column - B (River) (Dam) I. Mahanadi 1, Sardar Sarovar I. Narmada 2. Hirakud I. Chambal 3. Salal IV. Chenab 4. Rana Pratap Sagar Options : I nom ow (A) 4 3 2 1 ® 3 4 1 2 @© 2 1 4 3 @M 1 2 3 4 7. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ? 1 (A) Alluvial Soil Western Rajasthan ®) Black Soil Northern Plain (©) Arid Soil Deccan Plateau () Laterite Soil Western Ghats 8. Which one of the following organizations prepares the ‘World Development Report’? 1 (A) World Bank (B) International Monetary Fund (C) World Health Organisation (D) International Labour Organisation 32/6/1 < > P.T.O. 9, Prefers 8 fer are at acter aranrdh wate ate a et 7 (A) ase aratt () Prats sin (©) farafrerea ager sree (D) aa cite aa ari 10. am efifire wp earfa Ba Ham aha F | ale gt ual Al ora HAR: F 6,000, % 4,000, & 7,000 sit F 3,000 8 ch ga aa Al site srr an eh 2 wal fewer aT aA Afra (A) &5,000 ®B) %3,000 (C) %2,000 (@) %6,000 Li. Prafefad 3 a ata a ears dat & fore om sae oH 2 ra ae fare agua Sot ‘eer fererant SeaTgs HTT BT? (A) agerga caer weretta ara pt era ea steitheht sara sae | (B) VM ers ae a on ae & fore ages eet aot ota ech | (©) aes sh BSAA sere fee werrtia aeeh Bs aM Se wie? | (D) ween seh, eer shh Boy ite fat PM A; Fre a2 32/6/1 <10 > Bea 9. Which one of the following is the preceding Government Agency of NITI Aayog ? 1 (A) Planning Commission (B) Election Commission (©) University Grants Commission @) Union Public Service Commission 10. Assume there are four families in a locality. If the income of each family is % 6,000, 4,000, & 7,000 and % 3,000 then find out the average income of the locality from the following options : 1 (A) 5,000 (B) %3,000 (©) % 2,000 () %6,000 11. Which one of the following is a major benefit to a local company which goes for joint production with an MNC ? 1 (A) MNC provides Money and Technology to local company. (B) _MNC takes all decisions to reduce burden of local company (©) MNC purchases alll shares of local company for faster produetion. (D) MNC might ask for labour and capital investment from local company. 32/6/1 <1 > ae P.T.O. 12, Prefer a2 aa an star fea 7 (A) were dae age (B) fetta tae gat ©) Fest ae (©) fatal aa are 13, Prafefsa ta ata at ow srenioa da Fr afatate 2 7 (A) eeatiaer arene firere | @) Raeretanm we aren ww where | (C) were A ga SE aren Uh Sie | ©) sans ae ar ae aren oH fears wa | 14. frafefad 4 8 st cad warren Bagi A rad otk ae nfefattat & dae F Paola cra ae (A) fadtde arya (@) teaeartdens acer (©) ear ae O) eae Ss ae 32/6/1 <2 > ae 12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? 1 (A) Primary Sector — Money Lender (B) Secondary Sector — Priest (©) Tertiary Sector — Bank (D) Manufacturing Sector — Gardener 13. Which one of the following is an activity of the unorganized sector ? 1 (A) A teacher teaching in a school. (B) A worker going to work in a big factory. (C) A doctor treating patients in a hospital. (D) A daily wage labourer working under a contractor. 14, Who among the following takes the decision regarding saving and loan activities in the Self Help Groups (SHGs) ? 1 (A) Manager of a Bank (B) Members of Non-Governmental Organisation (NGO) (C) Local Money Lenders (D) Members of Self-Help Group (SHG) 32/6/1 <3 > ae P.T.O. 15. war deat 7 Prafarfan wert 1 fran sifie stk wel Pred ar saa Fifara + lagers agg A ger wt ei etree | Tanne angi & ata dent ht cere a en OT | TIL. ariifites reer A freer afafeaa ae & fore ae ar zara | IV. colt & sha arnt corte fate At dare age | farmed: (A) 13ik TIT (B) W3itil (©) IsikIV (D) 13k Il 16, te few mre wea at aie, aaflremert (A) site saree (R) & | ser wl fee, afk wet fae ara if: aaftrenera (A): cilarda 3 aprepra & fore carhifers ae weal & | BHO (RY: Torhifes eet Bh ad ater wee Heel fir Fo | freed: (A) (A) site (R) arti ae Baik R), (A) ME eT? | B) A) sik ® Si wet &, veg ®), (A) Hae areM | (©) A) BAe, Afr RB) Teta 2 | (D) (A) Tema, IT (R) FE 32/6/1 <4 > Bea 15. Consider the following statements on Power sharing and choose the correct option. 1 I. Imposing the will of majority community over others. Il. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between the social groups. IIL. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. IV. It brings socio-political opposition among parties. Options : (A) Land UT (B) Wand Il (©) TandIV @) IandIl 16. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1 Assertion (A) : Political Parties are important in the functioning of democracy. Reason (R) : The media plays an important role in the making of Political Parties. Options : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (©) (Adis true, but (R) is false (D) (A)is false, but ®) is true 32/6/1 <5 > ae P.T.O. 17. eav-A ar frre eau-B & Aifire sik wel faewes at ses fare wa A wa-B (fava) (ah) 1 }irfin erat un. gfe 2 Fa in, fran 3, Teh Iv. wt 4, wafers eh ‘feraea : I on om Ww “a 4 3 1 2 ®) 3 4 1 2 © 4 1 3 2 @) 4 2 1 3 18. Prevferfird Quit Fa farett ow eofta uae 8 7 (A) dh (B) ARE (C) wife (D) ater 19. Fraferfiars ert pt afew Ferrey aor sar afare 1. sre onftrantcn ent ae 2 1 TL ager at ae et ey are, wan afk sreare el ht ada 2 | TL, asa aged 1 sa gra wer oe cet Rater deat at area ae AEG HEAT | TV, une erhia di fazer or 2 | farmed: (A) 1 sit TT @®) LisikIVv (©) IL IWsikIv (@) 1, Ulattiv 32/6/1 <6 > ae 17. Match Column — A with Column — B and choose the correct option. 1 Column - A Column - B (Subjects) (ist) I. E-Programming 1. Concurrent List Il. Police 2. Union List II. Education 3. State List IV. Defence 4, Residuary List Options : I nu om ow a 4 3 1 2 a) 4 1 2 © 4 L 3 2 @ 4 2 1 3 18. Which one of the following countries have One Party System ? 1 (A) China (B) India (©) Pakistan (D) America 19. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : 1 I. There is no official religion in India. IL, Communities have freedom to profess and practice their religion. III. State helps communities by giving aid to educational institutions run by them. IV. India believes in theocracy. Options : (@) LIand I ®) 1,MandIv (©) UL, Wand Iv (D) 1,1 and Iv 32/6/1 <7 > ae P.T.O. 20. Profan 8 fre ta a usta dag tt alkensit ar states aa siftes 8 7 A) = (B) sAtegfern (©) etter ©) aKa we-w (4x2=8) (aftr ag-sate a) 21. 1882 41 peqaghen ft ah 3 fea wer qa Soe tata TES ST re a 2 fife | 22. (a) pf & anahebteor & fare ana wen arr feu we feel eh varai ar caveat Afar | 1x2 aaa >) Wiwerg fi fd 2 Rasansi A aren Hf | 1x2=2 23. are Hooters ceil t arare & dae f gare anette Ht Peer at re fare | 24, alton Beat H satires tose Se te feet se ea E 7 sere ae ere ASE | 32/6/1 <8 > Bea 20. 21, 22. 23. 24. Which one of the following countries has the highest representation of women in their National Parliament ? 1 (A) Russia (B) Australia (©) Sweden () India SECTION -B (Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4x2=8) How did the ‘Treaty of Constantinople’ of 1832 recognize Greece as an independent nation ? Explain. 2 (a) Explain any two efforts taken by the Government of India to modernise agriculture. 1x2=2 OR (>) Explain any two features of Rabi cropping season. 1x2= Explain the role of Election Commission regarding recognition of Political Parties in India. 2 How to create more employment in rural areas ? Explain with examples. 2 32/6/1 <9 > ae P.T.O. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. aus-7 x 3=15) (aa-saita wea) spidteh wife ae amr depfe & Pregl ta ware Al yee sAifore | 3 (a) Prva saan wii wee e 2 ore Fife | 3 aera (bo) @ar& sale facnre Hf aRaes & wera A carer Afra | 3 a aires afk arivanite att a sta ere Afar | 3 ‘rafts cada craersii A gar A aster ors wa A St aa 8 ge we A gE aif | 3 Prapra & fre ercofterar apr get ait receryel 2 2 saree wfed carer ifr | 3 wa (4x 5 = 20) (atd—saita wea) @) cand af 3 ea at afara stag aides B48 Ger 7 screw afea eareT aif | oe aa b) ‘314 & wag A were aie ste eae AY ure hl see aa AA!’ serewih afed caren fifi | on 32/6/1 <2 > Bee SECTION - C (Short Answer Type Questions) (5x 3= 15) 25, Examine any three effects of Print culture on the French Revolution 3 26. (a) Why do we call Tourism as a Trade ? Explain. 3 OR (>) Explain the importance of Transportation in the economic development of the country. 3 27. Distinguish between formal and informal sources of credit. 3 28. “In modern democracies, power sharing arrangements can take many forms.” Explain the statement. 3 29. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development ? Explain with examples. 3 SECTION - D (Long Answer Type Questions) (4x5 = 20) 30. (a) How did the Business class relate itself to the Civil Disobedience ‘Movement ? Explain with examples. 5 OR () ‘Workers of Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi o and the notion of Swaraj.’ Explain with examples. 32/6/1 <2 > ae P.T.O. 31. 32. 33, 34, (a) a ort & oes sewer a BS wa Bear ot ewan 8 7 sae ae are aif | rere () “Pref aot ones afte (ala) fafinior seivi& Paara 8 and are 8 1° sere ated caren fa | (a) aedifts aeons) de aera APT oT e 7 eae HIATT | aor (b) aereré wer Al ern Fi citencifes arn fee weHR see 2 7 EE Af | (a) ‘fate orn & satan ait feet fran af a ana A quit ters fea @ orga oat ae I fe FifarT | were (>) sereat att aRrat at Sect ar wre aaa ei 2 | seas Tat a es ht YE ifsc | ws-s (Bx 4= 12) (a srenfta 79) feu ata 1 afer atk sas Ae feu wet aor ser fanfare : itenfire free deat ad & ved ae oe ana 4 atabtiern ar af ae agarat Ht waz A a gar at | cage atictert at ofa fret & cgenfeat 2 cit wt faget aus & afesare & fry Shea Pear | site fra aye ara aryfes Pedi A) zat & fore dafea ahry ak S88 grave aes age car ara ferred 33 & fre ae 4 eaTa Stet | 1906 % ag wa 83 a are aredta ort & feats ot aft a ar at | Sh ant a dia at ara ft frei & gore ore a | weRaST, UTAH setrafe art FL asa aS AF a | 1900 4 1912 % aa ah was a sere ST ATT | 32/6/1 <2 > 5 a on o 31. @ ) 32. (@) ) 33. (@) ) How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced ? Explain with examples. OR “The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.” Explain with examples. Why is Democratic Government considered as Legitimate Government ? Explain. oR How is Democracy a better form of government in comparison to dictatorship ? Explain. “Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment policy have shown far reaching changes in India.” Support the statement with suitable arguments. OR ‘Among producers and workers, the impact of globalization has not been uniform. Support the statement with suitable arguments. SECTION - E (Case Based Questions) Bx 34, Read the given source and answer the questions that follow : INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT. By the first decade of the twentieth century a series of changes affected the pattern of industrialization in India. As the swadeshi movement gathered momentum, nationalists mobilised people to boycott foreign cloth. Industrial groups organised themselves to protect their collective interests, pressurising the government to increase tariff protection and grant other concessions. From 1906, moreover, the export of Indian yarn to China declined since produce from Chinese and Japanese mills flooded the Chinese market, So industrialists in India began shifting from yarn to cloth production. Cotton piece goods production in India doubled between 1900 and 1912. <3> ae P.T.O. 32/6/1 o o o o ox 12) wed fara aa ae afters faare ten cer | aa 3 ww agar ah Raa tara a A fafear sro Ger A srecal al qT ae & feru ga dae seates FT oaed 2 gafery area Sade & ret ar arena am et rer | rea art et odes ow Pere Saft aan fret sear apg cian gen a ets arcane Sa ha re az aA heat, aA fare at Sand, Fe ote eS 9, HS a we A Sha ae age a Sa aA aA aT LT RET SATE TE | RA ara af nfo a ae at | aga at ae sagt St a ae aT tk ee wT Fee 8 of Saar Bea aa HT HET FEAT MT | ASH Sh steht Serre IaH A AGT | (34.1) Fateh stigtert ear aT 7 (84.2) UNA a ai was wr sere 1900 8 1912 Ara Gra wt at TT? (34.3) Pred 2 wemrail ft caren Fife fret ace + A: ATER UH Hel A BeTAAT A? 35, feqsre eta wy age ofc ser oe fee me wet & sere fetta | aaa oft se aa eer Hh Aira eat Sar A ws 3 aa aT | ee CR ge aa 8 Sr ef er ta 4 go ara wonfeat % arava 18 | aa} ge aati Ft earl aga wear siftanfel & are Pretax a0 arava ereit Hearn A ge g aif eet 8 A debra 4 Sh srareastt Ht yt a wad 2 | aie ae ford Fae & aiat & at aap Sha da ofan & cea sel a ara mel ae areal & fore dered @ | ae Bal Fa cite ead aa ft several ol tan HUTS S sik wean A 3k O eeaay A ear aa HE Scere & sera faa A 5 tat cinta a 1,200 deen ae af ea crea ‘TiS aifita a dt fires ore di Fran arg @; vf fren afsia aed 8 cen ated citi ft gets Raat s aa chasse vat | 32/6/1 <4 > Bea Yet, till the First World War, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically new situation. With British mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs : jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddles and a host of other items. New factories were set up and old ones ran multiple shifts. Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours. Over the war years industrial production boomed. (84.1) What was the Swadeshi Movement (84.2) Why did the Cotton piece goods production in India double between 1900 to 1912? 1 (34.3) Explain any two events that helped India to regain its market 2 35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow : 4 COMMUNITY AND CONSERVATION Conservation strategies are not new in our country. We often ignore that in India, forests are also home to some of the traditional communities. In some areas of India, local communities are struggling to conserve these habitats along with government officials, recognising that only this will secure their own long-term livelihood. In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. In many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement. ‘The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest as the Bhairodey Dakav ‘Sonchuri’, declaring their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting, and are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments. 32/6/1 <2 > ae P.T.O. (35.1) qa ayer a aa aafiaa B 7 1 (35.2) ‘aa sha eran sifafren & seve A oars shia | 1 (35.3) 43 shat & car & fore ayers fea vem SH at we 7 sq aed SE ifr | 2 36. fausre eta a vise ait sees oie fee re weit amt sek ferfiae : 4 ara i faerie carta aan Ht ae eh case shen citarda ar ara TH a TS AST TAT 2 ta Ff renee aft am-daradi & fee ate 36 ere aril ar gare ete 2 | ae den @ ae aim 4 cfr & ad Bait Al Her oTrardt B vere 8 | eave wean FT aaeate gat fee ort 8 eat sel cada Ht as sit aga gE 2 1 ges afeersit eT fata gre & are a eet cerca Hi saat ora a rage Rene | ae, Aa araag aM Mi afte vonPrat erm € 1 darrdi & gare at Rafter ea 8 aia & ak ci ad scare & gait fee ft a 8 Shea oor oat A Aas Frafira wa a aat Ste | (36.1) arte fares at cteda Fae Aer wet Bit AAT TAT e 7 1 (36.2) area i eartia acer A deere ferhe 3 fees wean cada Si aS A st TET wea wera 12 7 fare Sih | 1 (86.3) Tea BBR are Peaster & fore sare Me, Peer St sara AY carer AE | 2 ws-a (24+3=5) (arafaa onenfta ea) 37. (a) NRA fee mre Tanhifers tar—Hrafea at earAl (A) SK (B) ar sifea Fara TAT a Ong ora A aera @ Se TeaTfay sik seh wre wich we tarsi we sas et am ferfiae | 2 (A) 4e ear Set 1927 4 aredra Tita spite ar safererers BST aT | (B) Fe ear wel Tera Teh A aes BE at aT | 32/6/1 <6 > Bea (85.1) How are forests related with Communities ? 1 (35.2) Explain the aim of ‘Wildlife Protection Act. 1 (35.3) How are communities working for the conservation of Wildlife ? Explain with example. 2 36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow : 4 DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities ete., all over the country. This number is bigger then the population of many countries in the world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country. It has also increased women's representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time, there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly of Panchayats and people participate enthusiastically in it but meetings of gram sabhas are not held regularly. (36.1) Why is Indian decentralisation considered as the largest experiment in democracy ? 1 (36.2) Analyse how constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in India ? 1 (36.3) Explain any two steps taken by the Indian Government for decentralisation. 2 SECTION - F (Map Based Questions) (24+3=5) 37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given political outline ‘Map of India. Identify them with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2 (A) The Place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927. (B) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt law 32/6/1 <27 > ae P.T.O. ) are eh ter aaa 1 fefefed 3 a feed da wl sore frei arr sifea Pifine afk se ae feat, 3 G@) Seu mieh serigta eargarg Ga) Sra GET Sal ae (Gai) Rexrae taeda seine rh Gy) Sige ag os ate: Prafafiea wea dae gfeantira atentiiai & fee wea tee 87 HEMAwWe! «(5 x 1 = 5) fardi ute seat & am fafac | saan ram fefan set urea opis site sferaer 1927 gar aT | 1 aan eran ferfag ret Here Tie A ae rE AST aT | 1 se mret aera fanfare ret Seer met areata wag arg fare | 1 Fass arm fafa set areca Tey aia Fert 2 | 1 sas or ae fatten wet tarreng Bia Sach ah fers z | 1 sa asa ara forfiay set reer aa oe faz | 1 32/6/1 < 28 > ae () On the same outline Map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols. 3 () Indira Gandhi International Airport. (i) Kakrapara — Atomic Power Station. (ii) Hyderabad — Software Technology Park (iv), Kandla Sea Port Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in Lieu of Q. No. 37. (x 1=5) Attempt any five questions. (87.1) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927. 1 (87.2) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt law. 1 (87.3) Name the city where Indira Gandhi International Airport is located. 1 (37.4) Name the State where Kakrapara Nuclear plant is located. 1 (37.5) Name the State where Hyderabad Software Technology park is located. 1 (87.6) Name the State where Kandla Sea Port is located. 1 32/6/1 <2 > ae P.T.O. 32/6/1 <30 > Map for Q. No. 37 wea 37 & faa eae ara wr oritiers tena -, INDIA (POLITICAL OUTLINE MAP) 32/6/1 ue 139 A

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