2nd Preboard ACRM AK
2nd Preboard ACRM AK
MOCK EXAMINATION
AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR, AND MODIFICATION
5) Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts
relate to _____.
a. clean, dry threads.
b. clean, lightly-oiled threads
c. clean, oil-soaked threads
d. both dry and lightly oiled threads
10) The side clearances of piston rings are measure with a _____.
a. dial gauge
b. micrometer caliper gauge
c. protractor
d. thickness gauge
11) A light aircraft is weighed in the flying position with the following weights
recorded: left wheel is 800 lbs, right wheel is 810 lbs, and nose wheel is 150 lbs.
The nosewheel is 12 inches behind the firewall (datum line). The distance between
the main wheels and the nose wheel is 68 inches. The CG of the aircraft is located
at _____.
a. 62.2 inches behind the firewall.
b. 73.2 inches behind the firewall.
c. 75.2 inches behind the firewall.
d. 5.8 inches ahead of the main wheels.
16) In Gas Tungsten Arc welding, a stream of inert gas is used to _____.
a. attract oxygen to the puddle of molten metal
b. concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation
c. lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal
d. prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle
18) How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel?
a. Slightly carburizing
b. Slightly oxidizing
c. Neutral
d. Welding stainless steel is not acceptable for aircrafts.
19) Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is
changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. Welding
b. Tempering
c. Normalizing
d. Case hardening
21) The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer
purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.
a. major alteration
b. minor alteration
c. major repair
d. minor repair
22) What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and
then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
a. A glossy, blush-free finish
b. A dull finish due to the topcoat ‘sinking in’ to primer that is still too soft
c. Corrosion
d. Reflection of ultraviolet from the fabric
23) An aircraft had an empty weight of 2,886 lb with a moment of 101,673.78 in-lb before
several alterations were made. The alterations included: removing two passenger
seats (45 lb) at +69”; installing a cabinet (97 lb) at +71”; installing a seat and
safety belt (30 lb) at +71”; installing radio equipment (45 lb) at +94.” The
alterations caused the new empty weight to move _____.
a. 36.6 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
b. 2.81 inches aft of the original empty weigh CG
c. 1.40 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
d. 1.88 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
24) The most important consideration when selecting welding rod is ______.
a. ambient conditions
b. amount of acetylene
c. flame temperature
d. material compatibility
25) What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
a. Low atmospheric humidity
b. Material is being applied too fast
c. Material is being applied too slow
d. Too much material applied in one coat
26) The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on _____.
a. bearing strength
b. compressive strength
c. shear strength
d. tensile strength
31) This rivet is known as an “icebox rivet” because it must be kept in cool places to
retard ageing.
a. 2017
b. 2024
c. 5056
d. 7050
32) An aircraft grade rivet with the code MS20430DD4-8 rivet is to be used in a military
aircraft. The rivet head is _____.
a. countersunk
b. flat
c. round
d. universal
33) When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet or turbofan, the hazard area extends
_____ aft of the engine.
a. 25 feet
b. 50 feet
c. 75 feet
d. 100 feet
34) Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces that have been affected by
electrolyte should be neutralized with _____.
a. aliphatic naptha
b. aromatic naptha
c. boric acid
d. linseed oil
35) The shop head of a rivet should be _____.
a. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
b. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
c. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
d. one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
36) Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advance composite wet lay-ups is generally
considered the best for strength?
a. 40:60
b. 60:40
c. 50:50
d. 70:30
37) It is a non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys that increases its
corrosion resistance and paint-bonding qualities.
a. Alodizing
b. Anodizing
c. Dichromating
d. Galvanizing
41) The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a
ferromagnetic material that has _____.
a. high permeability and high retentivity
b. high permeability and low retentivity
c. low permeability and high retentivity
d. low permeability and low retentivity
42) Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a _____ for the threads.
a. free fit
b. interference fit
c. loose fit
d. medium fit
44) Alloy within the _____ utilize Magnesium as the principal alloying agent; alloy
within the _____ utilize Manganese as the principal alloying agent.
a. 3000 series; 5000 series
b. 3000 series; 4000 series
c. 5000 series; 3000 series
d. 5000 series; 4000 series
46) Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk on the bolt head are _____.
a. close-tolerance bolts
b. made of aluminum alloy
c. magnetically inspected
d. standard steel bolts
48) In selecting a torch tip size to be used in welding, the size of the tip opening
determines _____.
a. material compatibility
b. temperature of the flame
c. melting point of the filler material
d. amount of heat applied to work
49) What is the location of the center of gravity in %MAC if the center of gravity is
295 inches from the datum, LEMAC is 270 inches from the datum, root chord is 70
inches, and tip chord is 35 inches?
a. %MAC is between 39 and 42
b. %MAC is between 42 and 45
c. %MAC is between 45 and 48
d. %MAC is between 48 and 51
50) One of the purposes of the ailerons is to provide stability about the _____.
a. directional stability
b. longitudinal stability
c. lateral stability
d. horizontal stability