Practice MCQs of Block 4, 5 & 6 - Consider This
Practice MCQs of Block 4, 5 & 6 - Consider This
Block 4
Important Topics
Germ theory:
relationship).
Epidemiological triad:
environment.
• Disease can be prevented by modifying the factors that influence the exposure and
susceptibility.
Web of causation:
General susceptibility:
• This is probably because of complex interaction of the environment, behavior and life-styles.
Socio-environmental approach:
directly and through the physiological, behavioral and psychosocial risk factor that they create.
4. The subjective response of the individual to being unwell refers to show how the
person feels & what effects this has on their normal everyday life, this explanation
is a term referred to:
A. Illness
B. Sickness
C. Disease
D. Illness and sickness
E. Ill-health
5. Ministry of health of Punjab plan to control on Covid -19 cases and started
campaign to provide face mask and hand sanitizers without discrimination to
community of Punjab, which preventive approach they implement on Punjab
population?
A. Targeted approach
B. High risk approach
C. Risk approach
D. Combine approach
E. Whole population approach
7. Which one of the following is not directly included in tools of Dental Public Health?
A. Epidemiology
B. Biostatistics
C. Social sciences
D. Preventive dentistry
E. Behavioural sciences
11. Which of the following ethical issues form the foremost part of Hippocratic Oath?
A. Confidentiality
B. Sexual boundaries
C. Advertising
D. Bribery
E. Doctor’s rights
12. Which one is not the part of School dental health program:
A. Extraction of deciduous teeth
B. Topical fluoride application
C. Teaching oral hygiene methods
D. School mouth rinsing program
E. Telling brushing techniques
13. Prevention that is done at the late pathogenesis stage of a disease is called:
F. Primordial prevention
G. Primary prevention
H. Secondary prevention
I. Tertiary prevention
J. Quaternary prevention
14. The concept that views health as ‘absences of disease’ is known as:
F. Health for all phase
G. Disease control phase
H. Ecological concept
I. Biomedical concept
J. Epidemiological tried
15. Recognizes the strength of social, economic, political & environmental influences on
health. Emphasizes that health is influenced by all the sectors, this is the one of the
concepts of health called:
F. Biomedical concept
G. Social concept
H. Ecological concept
I. Psychosocial concept
J. Holistic concept
16. The subjective response of the individual to being unwell refers to show how the
person feels & what effects this has on their normal everyday life, this explanation
is a term referred to:
F. Illness
G. Sickness
H. Disease
I. Illness and sickness
J. Ill-health
17. Ministry of health of Punjab plan to control on Covid -19 cases and started
campaign to provide face mask and hand sanitizers without discrimination to
community of Punjab, which preventive approach they implement on Punjab
population?
F. Targeted approach
G. High risk approach
H. Risk approach
I. Combine approach
J. Whole population approach
18. In the concept of epidemiological triad of dental caries, streptococcus mutans fall
under the category of:
F. Agent
G. Bacteria
H. Environment
I. Host
J. Pathogens
21. Millennium Developmental Goal 6 was to combat which of the following diseases:
A. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Polio
B. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Measles
C. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and other diseases
D. HIV/AIDs, Meningitis and Polio
E. HIV/AIDs, Mumps and other diseases
22. Which of the following indices is not used in assessing dental caries?
A. DMFT index
B. Root caries index
C. Oral hygiene index
D. Functional measure index
E. Dmf index
23. While recording DMFT a crown is broken due to caries, it is recorded as:
A. D
B. M
C. F
D. T
E. E, T
24. Oral hygiene index is composed of the combined debris index and _____ index.
A. Plaque index
B. Fluorosis risk index
C. Occlusal index
D. Calculus index
E. Interdental index
25. Calculus or other plaque retentive factors are seen or felt during probing at which
code?
A. Code 4
B. Code 3
C. Code 2
D. Code 1
E. Code 5
26. In Gingival Index (GI), what is the average gingival index (score) for Moderate
inflammation, redness edema and glazing & bleeding on probing.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
29. In Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHI-S), the worst score possible is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
32. The type of index which measures all the evidence of a condition (present and past)
A. Simple index
B. Cumulative index
C. Full mouth index
D. Simplified index
E. Reversible
36. In Dean’s Fluorosis Index, what is the score when white opaque areas in enamel of
the teeth are more extensive but do not involve as much as 50% of the tooth.
A. Normal
B. Questionable
C. Very mild
D. Mild
E. Severe
37. While recording CPITN, if both first and second molars are missing in the
posterior sextant, what do we do?
A. Assess most posterior tooth present
B. Assess the premolars
C. Assess the third molars
D. Drop the sextant
E. Include the remaining teeth in the next adjacent sextant
41. Individual who has been licensed by a state board of dental examiners to provide
preventive care services under supervision of a dentist.
A. Dental hygienist
B. Dental therapist
C. Denturist
D. Clinical technologist
E. School Nurse
43. The function of the health care system concerned with the management of
resources is called as:
A. Evaluation system
B. Financing system
C. Information system
D. Probity system
E. Support system
47. It is the obligation for dentist to keep implied or explicit promises. This principal in
Medical Ethics is known as:
A. Beneficence (Do Good)
B. Confidentiality
C. Fidelity
D. Patient autonomy
E. Veracity
51. “Exposure to an agent does not necessarily lead to disease. Disease is the result of
an interaction between agent, host & environment”. Which one Theory of Disease
Causation is this?
A. Epidemiological triad
B. Theory of general susceptibility
C. Germ theory
D. Socio-environmental approach
E. Web of causation
52. The concept that views health as ‘absences of disease’ is known as:
K. Health for all phase
L. Disease control phase
M. Ecological concept
N. Biomedical concept
O. Epidemiological tried
53. In Ice berg phenomenon, the visible part/ floating tip of the iceberg denotes
A. apparent clinical cases of disease/ ill people in the community
B. the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
C. undiagnosed cases in the community
D. Inapparent cases in the community
54. In Pakistan Health care system, teaching hospitals and tertiary care hospitals are a
part of:
A. Primary care
B. Secondary care
C. Tertiary care
D. Quaternary care
55. In Pakistan Health care system, THQs and DHQs hospitals are a part of:
A. Primary care
B. Secondary care
C. Tertiary care
D. Quaternary care
56. The 2030 Agenda is the successor to the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs),
and sets the global development agenda to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure
that all people enjoy peace and prosperity till 2030 are:
A. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
B. Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)
C. Ottawa Charter
D. The Jakarta Declaration
58. Which one is the 20th century achievement of Dental public health?
A. Water fluoridation
B. Reducing caries incidence to zero
C. Complete Infection control
D. Milk fluoridation
59. Actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating or minimizing the impact of diseases and
disability are a part of:
A. Forensic dentistry
B. Operative dentistry
C. Paediatric dentistry
D. Preventive dentistry
E. Prosthetic dentistry
60. After screening of school children of Islamabad, pit & fissure sealants were applied
to newly erupted permanent molars to those found with dmft > 5, this is an example
of:
A. Whole population strategy
B. High risk strategy
C. Rehabilitation
D. Directed approach
E. Tertiary prevention
62. Which of the following statements is incorrect about World Health Organization?
A. It is a specialized agency.
B. It is a political agency.
C. It has six regional offices.
D. The headquarter is in Geneva.
E. World health assembly is its supreme policy making body.
64. Millennium Developmental Goal 6 was to combat which of the following diseases:
F. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Polio
G. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Measles
H. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and other diseases
I. HIV/AIDs, Meningitis and Polio
J. HIV/AIDs, Mumps and other diseases
65. If you were doing a plaque index with debris for a group of preschool children,
which one would you use?
A. GI
B. PDI
C. PHP
D. PI
E. OHI-S
68. In Gingival Index (GI), what is the average gingival index (score) for Severe
inflammation, marked redness and edema, ulceration and a tendency for
spontaneous bleeding?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
69. A patient has dental caries on buccal surface of upper right first molar as well as
have filling on occlusal surface of the same tooth. So, when you record DMFT
score, what is your consideration for this tooth?
A. Tooth score in filled segment only.
B. Tooth score in missing segment as well as decayed segment,
C. Tooth score in decayed as well as filled segment.
D. Tooth score in decayed segment only.
E. Tooth score in missing segment only.
75. In Dean’s Fluorosis Index, what is the score when all enamel surfaces are affected
and hypoplasia is so marked that the general form of the tooth may be altered. The
major diagnostic sign of this classification is the discrete or confluent pitting.
Brown stains are widespread and teeth often present a corroded appearance.
A. Normal
B. Questionable
C. Very mild
D. Mild
E. Severe
76. Accurate measurement of periodontal disease is much more difficult, not least due
to the lack of what constitutes periodontal diseases. In recent years, the index most
commonly adopted has been the:
A. CPITN
B. Deans Index
C. DMFT Index
D. IOTN Index
E. PMA Index
80. While recording CPITN, if both first and second molars are missing in the
posterior sextant, what do we do?
F. Assess most posterior tooth present
G. Assess the premolars
H. Assess the third molars
I. Drop the sextant
J. Include the remaining teeth in the next adjacent sextant
81. In the Navy Periodontal Disease Index (NPDI), a Pocket Score of 8 means:
A. Depths of 1-3mm
B. Depths of 3-5mm
C. Depths of 5mm+
D. Depths of 5-8mm
E. Depths of 8mm+
82. At what level of TSIF (Tooth Surface Index of Fluorosis) does pitting start to
occur?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
85. Oral examination, prophylaxis and topical fluoride application are duties of:
A. Denturist
B. School dental nurse
C. Clinical dental assistant
D. Dental student
E. Dental lab assistant
I have mentioned some indices below, that are important. These indices are
present in your text book too. Memorise them.
Remember: Important never mean that you do not study other topics.
Important means focus more on this.
Important Indices
Scores Criteria
0 No plaque
1 A film of plaque adhering to the free gingival margin
and adjacent area of the tooth. The plaque may be
seen in situ only after application of disclosing
solution or by using the probe on the tooth surface.
2 Moderate accumulation of soft deposits within the
gingival pocket, or the tooth and gingival margin
which can be seen with the naked eye.
3 Abundance of soft matter within the gingival pocket
and/or on the tooth and gingival margin.
Scoring Criteria: Gingival Index
spontaneous bleeding.
3 mm.
Score Criteria
not justified.
feature.
Community dentistry
Block 5
2. The proportion of people in a total population at risk and free of disease at the start
of a particular time period who become diseased or develop the incident condition
during the specified time period is:
A. Cumulative Incidence
B. Incidence density
C. Incidence rate
D. Period Prevalence
E. Point prevalence
A. Cumulative incidence
B. Incidence density
C. Incidence rate
D. Period prevalence
E. Point Prevalence
11. The study which is so planned that neither the doctor nor the participant is aware of
the group allocation and the treatment received is referred as:
A. Single blind study
B. Single blind trial
C. Double blind study
D. Triple blind study
E. Tetra blind study
13. A study concluded that 25% of the primary school students of any school have dental
caries. What type of study design did they follow?
A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. Longitudinal
E. Retrospective
15. The study which is so planned that neither Participant, investigator nor person
analyzing the data are aware of the group allocation and the treatment received is
referred as:
A. Single blind study
B. Single blind trial
C. Double blind trial
D. Triple blind trial
E. Tetra blind trial
16. Assessing the prevalence of dental caries in school children is what type of study
design?
A. Case study
B. Community Diagnosis
C. Cross sectional study
D. Needs assessment
E. Retrospective
21. The study which is so planned that neither the doctor nor the participant is aware of
the group allocation and the treatment received is referred as:
F. Single blind study
G. Single blind trial
H. Double blind study
I. Triple blind study
J. Tetra blind study
22. Assessing the prevalence of periodontal diseases in community is what type of study
design?
F. Case study
G. Community Diagnosis
H. Cross sectional study
I. Needs assessment
J. Retrospective
25.Safety trial is a type of clinical trial. The example of safety trial is:
A. immunization, contraception
B. drug treatment, surgical procedure
C. side effect of oral contraceptive
D. proving etiology of a disease by inducing putative agents in animals
E. efficiency of inserting IUCD
26. What potential bias could have been introduced if you found out that those who
interviewed cases took 30 minutes longer on average than those who interviewed controls?
A. Loss to follow up
B. Confounding
C. Information bias
D. Selection bias
E. Volunteer bias
30. What potential bias could have been introduced if you found out that those who
interviewed cases took 30 minutes longer on average than those who interviewed
controls?
A. Loss to follow up
F. Confounding
G. Information bias
H. Selection bias
I. Volunteer bias
31. Increasing the sample size has the following effect upon the sampling error?
A. It increases the sampling error.
B. It reduces the sampling error.
C. It has no effect on the sampling error.
D. It rises the sampling error.
E. There is no relation between them.
32. The median of the following data set would be:
1,5,8,9,15,30,31,55,100,102,110
A. 15
B. 30
C. 30.25
D. 30.50
E. 31
34. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:
A. First quartiles
B. Second quartiles
C. Third quartiles
D. Mode
E. Median
36. The graphical presentation of frequency distribution with X and Y axis is:
A. Histogram
B. Pictograph
C. Pie Chart
D. Box and Whisker plot
E. Polygon
37. Hypothesis:
A. It is a proven fact at the start of the study.
B. It is an assumption we made prior to conduct of a study.
C. Can’t be disproved by the principal investigator.
D. Always proved right by the end of the study
E. It is an assumption we made at the end of the study
41. When frequency is given as mild, moderate and severe, the data scale
used is:
A. Variance
B. Interval
C. Nominal
D. Ordinal
E. Ratio
45. The knowledge of diabetic patients about oral health is tested pre and post a lecture
on oral health and how is it effected in diabetes. Which of the following tests will be
used here?
A. Chi-square test
B. Chi-square test for independence
C. One sample t test
D. Paired sample t test
E. Unpaired sample t test
46. A distribution when divided in half will have each portion as a mirror image of itself
is defined by what term?
A. Asymmetric
B. Negatively skewed
C. Positively skewed
D. Symmetric
E. Unskewed
50. It is not your sister’s birthday but you wished her by mistake. By doing this you
committed which type of error?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V
54. For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children
among three socio-economic groups, the most appropriate test is:
F. Paired t-test
G. Student’s t-test
H. Chi-square test
I. ANOVA
J. One sample t-test
55. If you want to assess the effect of age, weight and diet on Body Mass Index of college
students, which one of the following tests will you apply?
A. ANOVA
B. Chi-square
C. One sample t-test
D. Paired sample t test
E. Unpaired sample t test
56. The knowledge of diabetic patients about oral health is tested pre and post a lecture
on oral health and how is it effected in diabetes. Which of the following tests will be
used here?
F. Chi-square test
G. Chi-square test for independence
H. One sample t test
I. Paired sample t test
J. Unpaired sample t test
61. The type of screening that is conducted on those who screen positive the first time
and are recalled for further testing. It is called:
A. Two Stage Screening
B. High risk or Selective Screening
C. Multiphasic Screening
D. Mass Screening
E. Opportunistic Screening
64. In Ice berg phenomenon, the visible part/ floating tip of the iceberg denotes
E. apparent clinical cases of disease/ ill people in the community
F. the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
G. undiagnosed cases in the community
H. Inapparent cases in the community
65. In Ice berg phenomenon, the part of the iceberg below the water level denoted
the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
a. Apparent cases of disease/ ill people in the community
b. the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
c. Clinical cases in the community
d. Diagnosed cases in the community
66. In Hospital, a study was conducted to determine the prevalence of dental caries
among different ethical groups. Data will be best summarised by which of the
following?
A. Histogram
B. Line graph
C. Bar graph
D. Scatter plot
E. Stem and leaf plot
67. A non-probability sampling technique in which the samples have traits that are rare
to find. This is a sampling technique, in which existing subjects provide referrals to
recruit samples required for a research study.
A. Judgement
B. Quota
C. Convenience
D. Snow ball
68. A researcher may be interested in data about city taxes in Florida. The researcher
would compile data from selected cities and compile them to get a picture about the
state. Which sampling method is appropriate for this.
A. Simple random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster sampling
Important topics:
E. Classification of Epidemiological studies
F. Sensitivity & specificity
G. Case control and cohort studies
H. Incidence, Prevalence, Point Prevalence, Period Prevalence
I. Cumulative Incidence
J. Incidence Rate (Incidence Density
K. Sampling
L. Measures of central tendency (Mean, Mode, Median)
M. Measures of dispersion (Range, standard deviation, Variance)
N. Hypothesis testing, confidence levels and intervals, p-value
O. Types of variables
P. Bias
Q. Tests of significance
Community dentistry
Block 6
A. Tooth
• Composition
• Morphology
• Position.
B. Saliva
• Composition
• Quantity.
C. Sex
D. Age
F. Socioeconomic status
G. Heredity
H. Emotional disturbances
2. Agent Factors
A. Microorganism
B. Plaque
3. Environmental Factors
A. Diet
B. Geographic variation
C. Climate
D. Oral hygiene
E. Soil
F. Fluoride
87. Which of the following area is least effectively cleaned by manual tooth brushing?
A. Inter dental
B. Labial
C. Lingual
D. Occlusal
E. Palatal
88. Which one of the following sweeteners is not chemically similar to sugars?
A. Maltitol
B. Lactose
C. Xylitol
D. Aspartame
E. Fruit sweetener
91. Prevention that is done at the late pathogenesis stage of a disease is called:
K. Primordial prevention
L. Primary prevention
M. Secondary prevention
N. Tertiary prevention
O. Quaternary prevention
92. The brushing technique/ method in which brush is positioned with bristles inclined
at a 45-degree angle to the long axis of the tooth, with the bristles placed partly on
the gingiva and partly on the cervical portion of the tooth & the strokes are activated
in a short back and forth (vibratory) motion is called:
A. Bass method
B. Bass modified technique
C. Charter’s method
D. Rolling stroke
E. Stillman’s method
97. Considering the etiology of dental caries, tooth and saliva are taken as:
A. Host factor
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Vector
98. Considering the etiology of dental caries, oral hygiene and fluoride is taken as:
A. Host factors
B. Agent factors
C. Environment factors
D. Vector
100. Water fluoridation and topical fluoride applications are the part of:
F. Primordial prevention
G. Primary prevention
H. Secondary prevention
I. Tertiary prevention
J. Quaternary prevention
103. A teenage patient insists that he cleaned his teeth daily, but the dental team are
aware of the presence of generalised plaque. Which technique can be used to
persuade the patient that plaque is present?
A. Use of Chlorine
B. Use of disclosing tablets
C. Use of fluoride gel
D. Use of fluoride toothpaste
E. Use of Hydrogen peroxide
104. Which brushing technique is indicated for children with a healthy gingiva and
normal tissue contour when a sulcular technique may seem difficult to grasp:
A. Bass method
B. Bass modified technique
C. Charter’s method
D. Rolling stroke
E. Stillman’s method
105. Soil, Seed and Sower, in terms of health education, Seed refers to:
A. People to whom education is to be given.
B. Health facts to be given to the people.
C. Transmitting media.
D. People who give education.
E. simple, attractive and acceptable to the people
108. A health educator makes use of various aids in the process of health education.
Following is the example of Combined audio-visual aid:
A. Charts
B. Microphones
C. Posters
D. Tape recorders
E. Televisions
109. Promote social responsibility for health, increase investment for health
development, expand partnership for health promotion, increase community
capacity & empower the individual and secure an infrastructure for health
promotion are added priorities for the future given by:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration
110. Create supportive environment, build healthy public policy, strengthen community
action, develop personal skill and Reorient health services are areas of:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration
111. Advocate, Enable and Mediate are three basic strategies for health
Promotion, proposed by:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration
112. Which is the stage of transtheoretical model in which individuals recognize that
their behaviour is problematic if not changed for their health?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
E. Maintenance
113. The components of HBM (Health Belief Model) does not include:
A. Perceived control
B. Perceived benefits
C. Perceived susceptibility
D. Perceived threat
E. Social norms
115. Prevention, Health education and health protection are three essential elements of:
A. Community Medicine
B. Health Education
C. Health Promotion
D. Oral Health
E. Public Health
117. Which method is best suitable for Health Education for Individual and Family?
A. One to one supervision
B. Health magazines
C. News papers
D. Posters
E. Television
118. Soil, Seed and Sower, in terms of health education, Soil refers to:
A. People to whom education is to be given.
B. Health facts to be given to the people.
C. Transmitting media.
D. People who give education.
E. simple, attractive and acceptable to the people
119. Regarding Communication, who are the receivers of the health message. They are
the target groups who need advice or the health message.
A. Communicator
B. Audience
C. Message
D. Channels of communications
E. Mass media
120. The disadvantage of steam, vapor under pressure (Autoclave) sterilization is:
A. Causes rust and corrosion in unprotected carbon steel instrument
B. High cost of special solutions
C. Ineffective against most spore forming organisms
D. Produces offensive odour
E. Would not penetrate fabric wrapping
121. Dental professionals working in the dental OPDs for a long time due to the
vibrations of hand instruments are exposed to suffer from:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Hearing loss
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Slurred speech
E. Tremulous illegible handwriting
122. Instruments are placed in Autoclave under pressure at high temperature of the
steam, 121 to 132°C (250 to 270°F) to achieve sterilization for:
A. 2 hours
B. 1 hours
C. 20-40 minutes
D. 3-20 minutes
E. 6 minutes
124. Which one is not the color coding for the biomedical waste management:
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Red
E. Yellow
125. You assisted the maxillofacial surgeon in oral surgery OPD during a surgical
procedure. After completion of the surgical procedure, you would remove the
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in the following sequence:
A. Gloves, Mask, Glasses
B. Gloves, Glasses, Mask
C. Glasses, Gloves, Mask
D. Mask, Glasses, Gloves
E. Glasses, Mask, Gloves
126. The chemical agents that inhibit bacterial growth is called as:
A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Disinfectant
D. Sterilant
E. Sanitization
128. A dentist practicing from the last 25 years slowly develops tremors of face, arms
and legs, slurred speech and illegible hand writing. What do you think is the cause
of this condition?
A. Continuous use of vibratory handpiece
A. Latex hypersensitivity
B. Mercury poisoning
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Plumbism
129. The noise level below which chances of hearing loss are very less:
A. 70dB
B. 75dB
C. 80dB
D. 85dB
130. The occupational hazard associated with the noise of suctions, saliva ejectors,
turbines, engines, amalgamators, compressors, etc. in dental clinics is:
A. Hypersensitivity & skin allergies
B. Hearing loss
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Slurred speech
E. Tremulous illegible handwriting
132. Instruments are placed in chemiclave under pressure at 132°C (270°F) to achieve
sterilization for:
F. 2 hours
G. 1 hours
H. 20-40 minutes
I. 3-20 minutes
J. 6 minutes
133. In oral surgery department, if you are assisting the maxillofacial surgeon during
any surgical procedure, which sequence of placing Personal Protective Equipment
(PPE) would you follow?
A. Clothing, Mask, Gloves, Glasses
B. Clothing, Gloves, Glasses, Mask
C. Clothing, Glasses, Gloves, Mask
D. Clothing, Mask, Glasses, Gloves
E. Mask, Clothing, Glasses, Gloves
134. All persons including dental students who handle extracted teeth in dental
educational preclinical and clinical settings, should receive:
A. Hepatitis A vaccine
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Hepatitis C vaccine
D. Hepatitis E vaccine
E. HIV vaccine
135. Which of the following-colored containers must be used for discarding human
anatomical waste in hospital?
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Red
D. White
E. Yellow
137. The Behavioral management method involves gradual exposure of the child to least
stressful object to the most stressful object is called:
A. Aversive Conditioning
B. Communicative Management
C. Modelling/Imitation
D. Systematic Desensitization
E. Tell Show Do (TSD)
140. Culture:
A. Is a static process
B. Is an isolated view of the world
C. Is an unchanging process
D. Is the outcome of the man-made part of our environment
E. Is the outcome of the architectural part of our environment
141. “Rain coat” is a word substitute for explaining the following instrument in children:
A. Air syringe
B. Injection
C. Needle prick
D. Radiograph
E. Rubber dam
146. Best time to see a 3-year-old child in the dental office is:
A. Early in the morning
B. Just before lunch
C. Just after lunch
D. Late evening
E. Any time
147. According to Frankel Behavioral rating scale, a negative child is the one:
A. The child shows reluctance to accept treatment and some evidence of negative
attitude.
B. The child refuses treatment, cries forcefully, fearfully, or displays any agitation.
C. The child cries forcefully but accepts treatment.
D. The child accepts treatment but may be cautious.
E. This child has a good rapport with the dentist and is interested in the dental
procedures.
148. Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency and Genital are stages of psychosexual development of:
A. Cognitive Development Theory by Piaget
B. Psychoanalytic Theory by Freud
C. Psychosocial Theory by Erikson
D. Classical Conditioning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
E. Hierarchy of Needs Theory by Maslow
153. Our morals and values learned from our parents are driven by the:
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Defense mechanisms
E. Self
154. The children are usually scared of the sound of the bur and the dentist is also
usually present at that time. Therefore, the child associates the fear of the bur with
the dentist. Therefore, whenever a dentist tries to come near him to perform a
treatment, the child starts crying due to fear and will remain scared. With reference
to Classical Conditioning Theory, what is the conditioned stimulus in this example?
A. Dental assistant
B. Dentist
C. Crying
D. Tooth problem
E. Sound of bur
157. The art of reinforcing good behaviour displayed by the child with verbal praise
applies the:
A. Classical Conditioning Theory
B. Cognitive Development Theory
C. Operant Conditioning Theory
D. Psychoanalytic Theory
E. Psychosocial Theory
158. The Concrete operational stage of Piaget’s cognitive development theory actually
focuses at which age group?
F. 0-2years
G. 2-7years
H. 7-12years
I. 12years and upwards
J. Adolescence
159. You are doing a demonstration with Sara, who is three years old. You have two
equal-sized glasses, filled to the top with the same volume of water. You ask her
whether there is more water in one glass than the other, or the same, and she
responds, "The same." Now, you pour the entire contents of one of these glasses into
a tall, thin glass, and the entire contents of the other into a short, but very wide,
glass. You ask her which glass contains more water, and she points to the tall glass.
Which of Piaget's cognitive stages of development is Sara in?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
E. Operational
160. People remain in poverty not merely as a result of their economic conditions but
because of values and practices developed from poverty.
A. Physical
B. Social
C. Culture
D. Biology
E. Genetic endowment
161. A person's health and wellbeing are dependent on a good start, good future, good
care, and support. These influences social, economic, physical, and environmental
factors, are known as:
A. Health care
B. Health promotion
C. Public health
D. Public oral health
E. Determinants of health
162. Which of the following health determinants is directly related to the structure of
the medical care system?
A. Biological and genetic determinants
B. Social determinants
C. Access to health services
D. Behavioral determinants
E. Physical environmental determinants
164. A 10-year-old can modify which aspects that determine their health:
A. education, knowledge, skills, and geographic location
B. attitude, skills, knowledge and education
C. Employment, skills, geographic location, and attitude
D. genetics, family, culture and education
E. Employment, genetics, family and culture