Community Dentistry

Block 4

Important Topics

THEORIES OF DISEASE CAUSATION

Germ theory:

Disease is caused by transmissible agents.

A specific agent is responsible for one disease only (one-to-one

relationship).

Epidemiological triad:

• Exposure to an agent does not necessarily lead to disease.

• Disease is the result of an interaction between agent, host and

environment.

• Disease can be prevented by modifying the factors that influence the exposure and
susceptibility.

Web of causation:

• Disease is a result of complex interaction of many risk factors.

• Any risk factor can be concerned in more than one disease.

• Disease can be prevented by modifying these risk factors.

General susceptibility:

• Some social groups have higher mortality and morbidity rates

from all causes.

• It is an imperfectly understood general susceptibility to health

problems.

• This is probably because of complex interaction of the environment, behavior and life-styles.

Socio-environmental approach:

• Health is strongly influenced by social and physical environment

• Risk conditions produced by such an environment affect health

directly and through the physiological, behavioral and psychosocial risk factor that they create.

• Improving health requires modification of these environments.

1. Prevention that is done at the late pathogenesis stage of a disease is called:

A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Quaternary prevention

2. The concept that views health as ‘absences of disease’ is known as:

A. Health for all phase
B. Disease control phase
C. Ecological concept
D. Biomedical concept
E. Epidemiological tried

3. Recognizes the strength of social, economic, political & environmental influences on

health. Emphasizes that health is influenced by all the sectors, this is the one of the
concepts of health called:
A. Biomedical concept
B. Social concept
C. Ecological concept
D. Psychosocial concept
E. Holistic concept

4. The subjective response of the individual to being unwell refers to show how the
person feels & what effects this has on their normal everyday life, this explanation
is a term referred to:
A. Illness
B. Sickness
C. Disease
D. Illness and sickness
E. Ill-health

5. Ministry of health of Punjab plan to control on Covid -19 cases and started
campaign to provide face mask and hand sanitizers without discrimination to
community of Punjab, which preventive approach they implement on Punjab
population?
A. Targeted approach
B. High risk approach
C. Risk approach
D. Combine approach
E. Whole population approach

6. In the concept of epidemiological triad of dental caries, streptococcus mutans fall

under the category of:
A. Agent
B. Bacteria
C. Environment
D. Host
E. Pathogens

7. Which one of the following is not directly included in tools of Dental Public Health?
A. Epidemiology
B. Biostatistics
C. Social sciences
D. Preventive dentistry
E. Behavioural sciences

8. Fourth number procedural step in Dental Public Health is:

A. Program planning
B. Analysis
C. Ethics and planning approval
D. Financing
E. Health Survey

9. Treatment planning of clinical dentist is similar to ______ of public health dentist.

A. Analysis
B. Health need assessment
C. Program appraisal
D. Program operation
E. Program planning
 10. Examining a patient in dental office is equivalent to community dental health:
a. Program planning
b. Analysis
c. Program operation
d. Surveying
e. Community assessment

11. Which of the following ethical issues form the foremost part of Hippocratic Oath?
A. Confidentiality
B. Sexual boundaries
C. Advertising
D. Bribery
E. Doctor’s rights

12. Which one is not the part of School dental health program:
A. Extraction of deciduous teeth
B. Topical fluoride application
C. Teaching oral hygiene methods
D. School mouth rinsing program
E. Telling brushing techniques

13. Prevention that is done at the late pathogenesis stage of a disease is called:
F. Primordial prevention
G. Primary prevention
H. Secondary prevention
I. Tertiary prevention
J. Quaternary prevention

14. The concept that views health as ‘absences of disease’ is known as:
F. Health for all phase
G. Disease control phase
H. Ecological concept
I. Biomedical concept
J. Epidemiological tried
 15. Recognizes the strength of social, economic, political & environmental influences on
health. Emphasizes that health is influenced by all the sectors, this is the one of the
concepts of health called:
F. Biomedical concept
G. Social concept
H. Ecological concept
I. Psychosocial concept
J. Holistic concept

16. The subjective response of the individual to being unwell refers to show how the
person feels & what effects this has on their normal everyday life, this explanation
is a term referred to:
F. Illness
G. Sickness
H. Disease
I. Illness and sickness
J. Ill-health

17. Ministry of health of Punjab plan to control on Covid -19 cases and started
campaign to provide face mask and hand sanitizers without discrimination to
community of Punjab, which preventive approach they implement on Punjab
population?
F. Targeted approach
G. High risk approach
H. Risk approach
I. Combine approach
J. Whole population approach

18. In the concept of epidemiological triad of dental caries, streptococcus mutans fall
under the category of:
F. Agent
G. Bacteria
H. Environment
I. Host
J. Pathogens

19. The World Health Organization defines Health as:

A. The state of only social well-being but not the absence of disease or infirmity.
B. The state of complete mental and social well-being and but not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity.
C. The state of complete physical mental and social well-being and not merely the
absence of disease or infirmity.
D. The state of complete social, physical and mental well-being and not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity.
E. The state of social well-being.

20. Most major organizations that are the part of UN are:

A. Unilateral organizations
B. Bilateral organizations
C. Multilateral organizations
D. Governmental organizations
E. Non-governmental organizations

21. Millennium Developmental Goal 6 was to combat which of the following diseases:
A. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Polio
B. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Measles
C. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and other diseases
D. HIV/AIDs, Meningitis and Polio
E. HIV/AIDs, Mumps and other diseases

22. Which of the following indices is not used in assessing dental caries?
A. DMFT index
B. Root caries index
C. Oral hygiene index
D. Functional measure index
E. Dmf index

23. While recording DMFT a crown is broken due to caries, it is recorded as:
A. D
B. M
C. F
D. T
E. E, T

24. Oral hygiene index is composed of the combined debris index and _____ index.
A. Plaque index
B. Fluorosis risk index
C. Occlusal index
D. Calculus index
E. Interdental index

25. Calculus or other plaque retentive factors are seen or felt during probing at which
code?
A. Code 4
B. Code 3
C. Code 2
D. Code 1
E. Code 5

26. In Gingival Index (GI), what is the average gingival index (score) for Moderate
inflammation, redness edema and glazing & bleeding on probing.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

27. Which one is not the property of an ideal index?

A. Acceptability
B. Clarity
C. Reliability
D. Susceptibility
E. Validity

28. The “M” element of DMFT stands for?

A. Avulsed due to trauma
B. Extracted due to orthodontic reasons
C. Exfoliated primary tooth
D. Indicated for extraction due to caries
E. Impacted tooth

29. In Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHI-S), the worst score possible is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

30. Which index is measured with bleeding on probing?

A. Gingival Index
B. CPITN
C. Sulcus Bleeding Index
D. Gingival Bleeding Index
E. Eastman Interdental Bleeding Index

31. A 2.5 score on the Gingival Index indicates what?

A. Excellent
B. Very good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor

32. The type of index which measures all the evidence of a condition (present and past)
A. Simple index
B. Cumulative index
C. Full mouth index
D. Simplified index
E. Reversible

33. Pitting occurs on what level of fluorosis?

A. Questionable
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe
E. Very severe

34. Index used to asses treatment need is:

A. CPITN
B. DMF
C. PMA
D. OHI-S
E. Deans Fluorosis

35. In CPITN probe colour coding is done between:

A. 3.5 and 5.5mm
B. 3.0 and 5.0 mm
C. 1.5 and 2.5mm
D. 0.5 and 3.5mm
E. 5.0 and 5.3mm

36. In Dean’s Fluorosis Index, what is the score when white opaque areas in enamel of
the teeth are more extensive but do not involve as much as 50% of the tooth.
A. Normal
B. Questionable
C. Very mild
D. Mild
E. Severe

37. While recording CPITN, if both first and second molars are missing in the
posterior sextant, what do we do?
A. Assess most posterior tooth present
B. Assess the premolars
C. Assess the third molars
D. Drop the sextant
E. Include the remaining teeth in the next adjacent sextant

38. The measurement of ball tip of CPITN prob is:

A. 0.5 mm
B. 0.4mm
C. 0.3mm
D. 0.2mm
E. 0.1mm

39. The range for Dean’s fluorosis index is:

A. 0-3
B. 0-4
C. 0-5
D. 0-6
E. 0-7

40. Which one is not the Characteristics of dental fluorosis?

A. Opacities concentrated in centre of tooth
B. Bilateral occurrence
C. Severity on posterior teeth
D. Usually near cusp tip
E. Appears as horizontal striated pattern

41. Individual who has been licensed by a state board of dental examiners to provide
preventive care services under supervision of a dentist.
A. Dental hygienist
B. Dental therapist
C. Denturist
D. Clinical technologist
E. School Nurse

42. The devolution of the health ministry of Pakistan in 2011 meant:

A. The federal ministry of health will take responsibility of health services.
B. The provincial governments will take responsibility of health services.
C. Both the federal and provincial governments will take responsibility of health services.
D. Both the federal and provincial governments will not take responsibility of health services.
E. The cabinet will take responsibility of health services.

43. The function of the health care system concerned with the management of
resources is called as:
A. Evaluation system
B. Financing system
C. Information system
D. Probity system
E. Support system

44. First number procedural step in Dental Public Health is:

F. Analysis
G. Ethics and planning approval
H. Financing
I. Program planning
J. Survey

45. Core Functions of Public Health includes:

A. Evaluation and implementation
B. Assessment, Policy development and Assurance
C. NGOs, national and international agencies evaluation
D. Functioning at Federal and local level
E. United Nations and WHO functioning

46. Growth of Changing concepts in public health concepts emerged from;

A. 1880 to 2000
B. 1980 to 2000
C. 1888 to 2000
D. 1890 to 2000
E. 1895 to 2000

47. It is the obligation for dentist to keep implied or explicit promises. This principal in
Medical Ethics is known as:
A. Beneficence (Do Good)
B. Confidentiality
C. Fidelity
D. Patient autonomy
E. Veracity

48. The concept of “Culture” from the ethical perspective:

A. Is the outcome of the architectural part of our environment.
B. Is the outcome of the man-made part of our environment.
C. Is an isolated view of the world.
D. Comprises of beliefs which produce an unacceptable view of the society.
E. Is a static process.
 49. Which of the following ethical issues form the foremost part of Hippocratic Oath?
F. Confidentiality
G. Sexual boundaries
H. Advertising
I. Bribery
J. Doctor’s rights

50. Intervention of a disease at a stage before the disease occurs is:

A. Immediate prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Community prevention

51. “Exposure to an agent does not necessarily lead to disease. Disease is the result of
an interaction between agent, host & environment”. Which one Theory of Disease
Causation is this?
A. Epidemiological triad
B. Theory of general susceptibility
C. Germ theory
D. Socio-environmental approach
E. Web of causation

52. The concept that views health as ‘absences of disease’ is known as:
K. Health for all phase
L. Disease control phase
M. Ecological concept
N. Biomedical concept
O. Epidemiological tried

53. In Ice berg phenomenon, the visible part/ floating tip of the iceberg denotes
A. apparent clinical cases of disease/ ill people in the community
B. the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
C. undiagnosed cases in the community
D. Inapparent cases in the community

54. In Pakistan Health care system, teaching hospitals and tertiary care hospitals are a
part of:
A. Primary care
B. Secondary care
C. Tertiary care
D. Quaternary care

55. In Pakistan Health care system, THQs and DHQs hospitals are a part of:
 A. Primary care
B. Secondary care
C. Tertiary care
D. Quaternary care

56. The 2030 Agenda is the successor to the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs),
and sets the global development agenda to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure
that all people enjoy peace and prosperity till 2030 are:
A. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
B. Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)
C. Ottawa Charter
D. The Jakarta Declaration

57. In the case of malaria and dengue, mosquito is:

A. Vector
B. Host
C. Agent
D. Environment

58. Which one is the 20th century achievement of Dental public health?
A. Water fluoridation
B. Reducing caries incidence to zero
C. Complete Infection control
D. Milk fluoridation

59. Actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating or minimizing the impact of diseases and
disability are a part of:
A. Forensic dentistry
B. Operative dentistry
C. Paediatric dentistry
D. Preventive dentistry
E. Prosthetic dentistry

60. After screening of school children of Islamabad, pit & fissure sealants were applied
to newly erupted permanent molars to those found with dmft > 5, this is an example
of:
A. Whole population strategy
B. High risk strategy
C. Rehabilitation
D. Directed approach
E. Tertiary prevention

61. Disease caused by transmissible agents, one to one relationship; monocausal in

essence, Agent-Host= Disease
 Above statement is about which theory of disease causation?
A. Epidemiological triad
B. Germ theory
C. Socio-environmental approach
D. Theory of general susceptibility
E. Web of Causation

62. Which of the following statements is incorrect about World Health Organization?
A. It is a specialized agency.
B. It is a political agency.
C. It has six regional offices.
D. The headquarter is in Geneva.
E. World health assembly is its supreme policy making body.

63. Most major organizations that are the part of UN are:

F. Unilateral organizations
G. Bilateral organizations
H. Multilateral organizations
I. Governmental organizations
J. Non-governmental organizations

64. Millennium Developmental Goal 6 was to combat which of the following diseases:
F. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Polio
G. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and Measles
H. HIV/AIDs, Malaria and other diseases
I. HIV/AIDs, Meningitis and Polio
J. HIV/AIDs, Mumps and other diseases

65. If you were doing a plaque index with debris for a group of preschool children,
which one would you use?
A. GI
B. PDI
C. PHP
D. PI
E. OHI-S

66. To assess dental caries in a population, which index is used?

A. deft
B. defs
C. DMFT
D. DMFS
E. OHI
 67. In Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHI-S), the worst score possible is:
F. 2
G. 3
H. 4
I. 5
J. 6

68. In Gingival Index (GI), what is the average gingival index (score) for Severe
inflammation, marked redness and edema, ulceration and a tendency for
spontaneous bleeding?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

69. A patient has dental caries on buccal surface of upper right first molar as well as
have filling on occlusal surface of the same tooth. So, when you record DMFT
score, what is your consideration for this tooth?
A. Tooth score in filled segment only.
B. Tooth score in missing segment as well as decayed segment,
C. Tooth score in decayed as well as filled segment.
D. Tooth score in decayed segment only.
E. Tooth score in missing segment only.

70. Which one is not the property of an ideal index?

F. Acceptability
G. Clarity
H. Reliability
I. Susceptibility
J. Validity

71. A 2.5 score on the Gingival Index indicates what?

F. Excellent
G. Very good
H. Good
I. Fair
J. Poor

72. The "S" in DMFS stands for what?

A. Sealants
B. Side
C. Surfaces
D. Sulcus depth
E. Standard

73. The gingival index is also called as:

A. Silness and Loe
B. Grossman FD and Fedi PF
C. Volpe Manhold
D. O’Leary’s
E. Eastman’s

74. While recording OHI, you will examine:

A. Facial and lingual surfaces of the dirtiest tooth from the segment.
B. Mesial, distal, Facial and lingual surfaces of the dirtiest tooth from the segment.
C. Half the circumference of the index teeth only.
D. Distal, lingual and facial surfaces of the index teeth only.
E. Either facial or lingual surface of the dirtiest tooth from the segment.

75. In Dean’s Fluorosis Index, what is the score when all enamel surfaces are affected
and hypoplasia is so marked that the general form of the tooth may be altered. The
major diagnostic sign of this classification is the discrete or confluent pitting.
Brown stains are widespread and teeth often present a corroded appearance.
A. Normal
B. Questionable
C. Very mild
D. Mild
E. Severe

76. Accurate measurement of periodontal disease is much more difficult, not least due
to the lack of what constitutes periodontal diseases. In recent years, the index most
commonly adopted has been the:
A. CPITN
B. Deans Index
C. DMFT Index
D. IOTN Index
E. PMA Index

77. In CPITN probe colour coding is done between:

F. 3.5 and 5.5mm
G. 3.0 and 5.0 mm
H. 1.5 and 2.5mm
I. 0.5 and 3.5mm
J. 5.0 and 5.3mm

78. Which one is not the Characteristics of dental fluorosis?

F. Opacities concentrated in centre of tooth
G. Bilateral occurrence
 H. Severity on posterior teeth
I. Usually near cusp tip
J. Appears as horizontal striated pattern

79. The range for Dean’s fluorosis index is:

F. 0-3
G. 0-4
H. 0-5
I. 0-6
J. 0-7

80. While recording CPITN, if both first and second molars are missing in the
posterior sextant, what do we do?
F. Assess most posterior tooth present
G. Assess the premolars
H. Assess the third molars
I. Drop the sextant
J. Include the remaining teeth in the next adjacent sextant

81. In the Navy Periodontal Disease Index (NPDI), a Pocket Score of 8 means:
A. Depths of 1-3mm
B. Depths of 3-5mm
C. Depths of 5mm+
D. Depths of 5-8mm
E. Depths of 8mm+

82. At what level of TSIF (Tooth Surface Index of Fluorosis) does pitting start to
occur?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

83. A score of 3 on Dean's Fluorosis Index would indicate what?

A. Questionable
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe
E. Very severe

84. Pakistan’s Health care system is composed of:

A. Two tiers
B. Three tiers
C. Four tiers
D. Five tiers
E. Six tiers

85. Oral examination, prophylaxis and topical fluoride application are duties of:
A. Denturist
B. School dental nurse
C. Clinical dental assistant
D. Dental student
E. Dental lab assistant

86. The devolution of the health ministry of Pakistan in 2011 meant:

F. The federal ministry of health will take responsibility of health services.
G. The provincial governments will take responsibility of health services.
H. Both the federal and provincial governments will take responsibility of health services.
I. Both the federal and provincial governments will not take responsibility of health services.
J. The cabinet will take responsibility of health services.

I have mentioned some indices below, that are important. These indices are
present in your text book too. Memorise them.

Remember: Important never mean that you do not study other topics.
Important means focus more on this.

Important Indices

Scoring Criteria: The Plaque Index

Scores Criteria
0 No plaque
1 A film of plaque adhering to the free gingival margin
and adjacent area of the tooth. The plaque may be
seen in situ only after application of disclosing
solution or by using the probe on the tooth surface.
2 Moderate accumulation of soft deposits within the
gingival pocket, or the tooth and gingival margin
which can be seen with the naked eye.
3 Abundance of soft matter within the gingival pocket
and/or on the tooth and gingival margin.
Scoring Criteria: Gingival Index

Average gingival index (Score) Interpretation

0 Normal gingiva/absence of inflammation

1 Mild inflammation: Slight change in color, slight

edema. No bleeding on probing;

2 Moderate inflammation: Redness edema and

glazing. Bleeding on probing

3 Severe inflammations: Marked redness and

edema. Ulceration and a tendency for

spontaneous bleeding.

Scoring Criteria: THE NAVY PERIODONTAL DISEASE INDEX (NPDI)

Pocket measurements Points

Probing reveals sulcular depth not over 0

3 mm.

Probing reveals pocket depth greater 5

than 3 mm but not over 5 mm

Probing reveals pocket depth greater 8

than 5 mm

Scores and Criteria for Dean’s Fluorosis Index

Score Criteria

Normal (0) The enamel represents the usually translucent

semivitriform type of structure. The surface is

smooth, glossy, and usually a pale creamy white color.

Questionable (0.5) The enamel discloses slight aberrations from

the translucency of normal enamel, ranging

from a few white flecks to occasional white spots.

This classification is utilized when a definite

diagnosis of the mildest form of fluorosis is not

warranted and a classification of "normal" is

not justified.

Very mild (1) Small, opaque, paper white area scattered

irregularly over the tooth but not involving as

much as approximately 25% of the tooth

surface. Frequently included in this classification

are teeth showing no more than 1 to 2 mm of

 white opacity at the tip of the summit of the

cusps of the bicuspids or second molars.

Mild (2) The white opaque areas in the enamel of the

teeth are more extensive but do not involve as

much as 50% of the tooth.

Moderate (3) All enamel surfaces of the teeth are affected,

and surfaces subject to attrition show marked

wear. Brown stain is frequently a disfiguring

feature.

Severe (4) All enamel surfaces are affected and hypoplasia

is so marked that the general form of the tooth

may be altered. The major diagnostic sign of

this classification is the discrete or confluent

pitting. Brown stains are widespread and teeth

often present a corroded appearance.

Do not forget to practice CPITN, OHI and OHI-S as did in

lab too.
 Block 5

Community dentistry

Block 5

1. Epidemiologic triad constitutes:

A. Agent only
B. Agent, host and environment
C. Host and environment
D. Both agent and environment
E. Host and agent

2. The proportion of people in a total population at risk and free of disease at the start
of a particular time period who become diseased or develop the incident condition
during the specified time period is:
A. Cumulative Incidence
B. Incidence density
C. Incidence rate
D. Period Prevalence
E. Point prevalence

3. Epidemiology is defined as:

A. The study of the distribution of health-related states and events in the populations and the
application of this study to control of health problems”.
B. The study of law and enforcement
C. The study of the determinants of health-related states and events in the populations and
the application of this study to control of health problems”.
D. The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states and events in the
populations and the application of this study to control of health problems”.
E. The study of population health, planning and policy making

4. In epidemiology the key components of the data needed can be approached

through a series of questions as follows:
A. Who, Where, When, What, How and Why?
B. Who, Where, When, What, How and Which?
C. Who and when?
D. What only.
E. What, How, when and why?
5. Period prevalence is defined as:
A. Proportion of people in a population who have a disease or condition for long period of
time.
B. Proportion of people in a population who have a disease or condition at a particular time,
such as a particular date.
C. Proportion of people in a population who have a disease or condition at a particular
period, from July to August.
D. Proportion of people in a population who have a disease or condition at present only.
E. Ratio of disease occurrence in a community irrespective of time.

6. Incidence is defined as:

A. The incidence of a disease is the number of new and old cases of a disease which come
into being during a specified period of time.
B. The incidence of a disease is the number of existing cases of a disease which come into
being during a specified period of time.
C. The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of a disease which come into
being during a specified period of time.
D. The incidence of a disease is the number of old cases only of a disease which come into
being during a specified period of time.
E. The incidence of a disease is the number of cases of a disease in any population.

7. Regarding Pandemic disease:

A. Is disease outbreak affecting a large percentage of the world’s population over a vast
(even worldwide) geographic region or regions.
B. Is a disease outbreak that occurs as a larger-than-expected number of cases occurring over
a short time in a geographic region.
C. Particular disease or pathogen that exists permanently and at a constant level in a
population of people located in a specific geographic location.
D. Is a disease that occurs only occasionally or in scattered incidents.
E. Is a disease outbreak that occurs as a smaller-than-expected number of cases occurring over
a short time in a geographic region.

8. Attempts to measure disease at one point in time is known as:

A. Cumulative incidence
B. Incidence density
C. Incidence rate
D. Period prevalence
E. Point Prevalence

9. Number of deaths from pregnancy related causes in a year

× 100,000
 Number of live births in same year
A. IMR
B. Prenatal MR
C. PNMR
D. MMR
E. Toddler MR

10. Which one is the disadvantage of Case Control study:

A. Many different exposures may be studied.
B. Performed relatively quickly.
C. Selection bias, recall bias & information bias
D. Suitable for rare as well as common diseases.
E. Usually less expensive.

11. The study which is so planned that neither the doctor nor the participant is aware of
the group allocation and the treatment received is referred as:
A. Single blind study
B. Single blind trial
C. Double blind study
D. Triple blind study
E. Tetra blind study

12. The study which proceeds from cause to effect:

A. Case control
B. Case report
C. Cohort
D. Descriptive
E. Retrospective

13. A study concluded that 25% of the primary school students of any school have dental
caries. What type of study design did they follow?
A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. Longitudinal
E. Retrospective

14. What is the best design to study the incidence of a disease?

A. Case control
B. Case report
 C. Cohort
D. Cross sectional
E. Randomized Controlled Trial

15. The study which is so planned that neither Participant, investigator nor person
analyzing the data are aware of the group allocation and the treatment received is
referred as:
A. Single blind study
B. Single blind trial
C. Double blind trial
D. Triple blind trial
E. Tetra blind trial

16. Assessing the prevalence of dental caries in school children is what type of study
design?
A. Case study
B. Community Diagnosis
C. Cross sectional study
D. Needs assessment
E. Retrospective

17. Analytical studies include:

A. Case control and cohort
B. Only case control
C. Descriptive studies
D. Experimental studies
E. Only cohort studies

18. Cross-sectional Survey:

A. A survey of a population followed for a period of time
B. A survey of a population at a single point in time.
C. A survey which involves experiments
D. A survey which is used to find cause of disease
E. Clinical trials are involved

19. Case- Control study:

A. Patient is followed to see occurrence of disease.
B. A retrospective study design in which Disease has occurred and cause of disease is
 evaluated later.
C. A Prospective study design in which Disease has not occurred yet.
D. More commonly used among children population
E. No association can be found between disease and exposure

20. Association refers to:

A. An association is said to exist between variables if one variable is not affected by the change
in other.
B. An association is said to exist between two variables when a change in one variable
parallel or coincides with a change in another.
C. Association is linked with case series study design
D. Two variables work independent of each other
E. Defines problem of a community

21. The study which is so planned that neither the doctor nor the participant is aware of
the group allocation and the treatment received is referred as:
F. Single blind study
G. Single blind trial
H. Double blind study
I. Triple blind study
J. Tetra blind study

22. Assessing the prevalence of periodontal diseases in community is what type of study
design?
F. Case study
G. Community Diagnosis
H. Cross sectional study
I. Needs assessment
J. Retrospective

23. What is the best design to study the incidence of a disease?

F. Case control
G. Case report
H. Cohort
I. Cross sectional
J. Randomized Controlled Trial

24. Which one of the followings is a disadvantage of Cohort studies?

A. Suitable for rare as well as common exposure.
B. Exposure data are often more accurate.
 C. Examines multiple effects of a single exposure.
D. Expensive and time consuming
E. Less information bias.

25.Safety trial is a type of clinical trial. The example of safety trial is:
A. immunization, contraception
B. drug treatment, surgical procedure
C. side effect of oral contraceptive
D. proving etiology of a disease by inducing putative agents in animals
E. efficiency of inserting IUCD

26. What potential bias could have been introduced if you found out that those who
interviewed cases took 30 minutes longer on average than those who interviewed controls?
A. Loss to follow up
B. Confounding
C. Information bias
D. Selection bias
E. Volunteer bias

26. Of the following sampling methods, which is a probability method?

A. Judgement
B. Quota
C. Simple random
D. Convenience
E. Snow ball

27. Snowball sampling is the most appropriate when:

A. The sample is to be drawn from small, specialized population.
B. The sample is to be drawn from a large, homogeneous population.
C. The sample is to be drawn from a large, heterogeneous population.
D. The sample is to be drawn from a huge population.
E. All of the above

28. The difference between a statistic and the parameter is called:

A. Non-random
B. Probability
C. Sampling error
D. Confounding
E. Bias
29. A Random sample suggests that:
A. Subjects are volunteers.
B. A person in the control group will not be a member of the experimental group.
C. Any member of a group to be studied has an equal opportunity to be included in
the study.
D. Every nth no on a list is selected.
E. Any member of a group to be studied has not an equal opportunity to be included in the
study.

29. Regarding Bias:

A. Any systematic error in an epidemiological study that results in an incorrect estimate
of the true effect of an exposure on the outcome of interest and it can arise from
investigator side or participant side too.
B. Any systematic error in an epidemiological study that results in an incorrect estimate of the
true effect of an exposure on the outcome of interest and it can arise always from
investigator side.
C. It has positive effects on study outcome.
D. It has no effect on study outcome.
E. Any systematic error in an epidemiological study that results in an incorrect estimate of the
true effect of an exposure on the outcome of interest and it can arise always from
participant’s side.

30. What potential bias could have been introduced if you found out that those who
interviewed cases took 30 minutes longer on average than those who interviewed
controls?
A. Loss to follow up
F. Confounding
G. Information bias
H. Selection bias
I. Volunteer bias

31. Increasing the sample size has the following effect upon the sampling error?
A. It increases the sampling error.
B. It reduces the sampling error.
C. It has no effect on the sampling error.
D. It rises the sampling error.
 E. There is no relation between them.
32. The median of the following data set would be:
1,5,8,9,15,30,31,55,100,102,110
A. 15
B. 30
C. 30.25
D. 30.50
E. 31

33. A normal distribution curve depends upon:

A. Range and sample size
B. Mean and Standard deviation
C. Mean and sample size
D. Mean and median
E. Sample size

34. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:
A. First quartiles
B. Second quartiles
C. Third quartiles
D. Mode
E. Median

35. Which of the followings is not a measure of Central tendency?

A. Mean (X)
B. Mode
C. Range
D. Median
E. Mean(𝜇)

36. The graphical presentation of frequency distribution with X and Y axis is:
A. Histogram
B. Pictograph
C. Pie Chart
D. Box and Whisker plot
E. Polygon

37. Hypothesis:
A. It is a proven fact at the start of the study.
B. It is an assumption we made prior to conduct of a study.
C. Can’t be disproved by the principal investigator.
D. Always proved right by the end of the study
E. It is an assumption we made at the end of the study

38. The Type I error denoted as α is:

A. True Positive
B. True Negative
C. False Positive
D. False Negative
E. True

39. In hypothesis testing, a Type 2 error occurs when:

A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
E. The alternative hypothesis is accepted.

40. The 95% confidence interval may be interpreted as:

A. There is 95% chance that the true population value lies outside the confidence interval.
B. There is 95% chance that the true population value does not lie within the confidence
interval.
C. There is 95% chance that the true population value lies within the confidence interval.
D. There is 5% chance that the true population value lies within the confidence interval.
E. There is 10% chance that the true population value lies within the confidence interval.

41. When frequency is given as mild, moderate and severe, the data scale
used is:
A. Variance
B. Interval
C. Nominal
D. Ordinal
E. Ratio

42. As the sample size increases, standard deviation:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. May increase or decrease
E. No effect
43. For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children
among three socio-economic groups, the most appropriate test is:
A. Paired t-test
B. Student’s t-test
C. Chi-square test
D. ANOVA
E. One sample t-test

44. Hypothesis is tested by a test of:

A. Correlation
B. Central tendency measures
C. Ratios
D. Significance
E. Variance

45. The knowledge of diabetic patients about oral health is tested pre and post a lecture
on oral health and how is it effected in diabetes. Which of the following tests will be
used here?
A. Chi-square test
B. Chi-square test for independence
C. One sample t test
D. Paired sample t test
E. Unpaired sample t test

46. A distribution when divided in half will have each portion as a mirror image of itself
is defined by what term?
A. Asymmetric
B. Negatively skewed
C. Positively skewed
D. Symmetric
E. Unskewed

47. The mean of the given data set is:

5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30,35
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 25
48. In a study house hold income was classified as low, medium and high. The variable
income can be best displayed as:
A. Bar graph
B. Histogram
C. Line graph
D. Scatter plot
E. Stem and leaf plot

49. The mode of the given sample is:

5,7,3,8,5, 2,10,1,9,5,15,4
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

50. It is not your sister’s birthday but you wished her by mistake. By doing this you
committed which type of error?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V

51. The Type II error denoted as β is:

F. True Positive
G. True Negative
H. False Positive
I. False Negative
J. True

52.A p-value of .05 (i.e.,1/ 20) indicates that:

A. There is a 0.5 percent probability that the relation between the variables found in the sample
is due to chance.
B. There is a 0.05 percent probability that the relation between the variables found in the
sample is due to chance.
C. There is a 5 percent probability that the relation between the variables found in the
sample is due to chance.
D. There is a 50 percent probability that the relation between the variables found in the sample
is due to chance.
E. There is a 95 percent probability that the relation between the variables found in the sample
is due to chance.
53. The 95% confidence interval may be interpreted as:
F. There is 95% chance that the true population value lies outside the confidence interval.
G. There is 95% chance that the true population value does not lie within the confidence
interval.
H. There is 95% chance that the true population value lies within the confidence interval.
I. There is 5% chance that the true population value lies within the confidence interval.
J. There is 10% chance that the true population value lies within the confidence interval.

54. For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children
among three socio-economic groups, the most appropriate test is:
F. Paired t-test
G. Student’s t-test
H. Chi-square test
I. ANOVA
J. One sample t-test

55. If you want to assess the effect of age, weight and diet on Body Mass Index of college
students, which one of the following tests will you apply?
A. ANOVA
B. Chi-square
C. One sample t-test
D. Paired sample t test
E. Unpaired sample t test

56. The knowledge of diabetic patients about oral health is tested pre and post a lecture
on oral health and how is it effected in diabetes. Which of the following tests will be
used here?
F. Chi-square test
G. Chi-square test for independence
H. One sample t test
I. Paired sample t test
J. Unpaired sample t test

57.A t-test is a significance test that assesses:

A. The means of two independent groups
B. The medians of two dependent groups
C. The modes of two independent variables
D. The modes of three independent variables

58. The usefulness of a screening test depends upon it:

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Reliability
D. Predictive value
E. None of the above

59. Sensitivity of the test is its ability to identify:

A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True positive
D. True negative
E. True

60. Reliability of a screening test refers to:

A. Accurately measures what it is supposed to measure
B. Depends on knowledge of the observer
C. Gives same values even on repeated testing
D. Provides different values on repeated testing
E. The extent to which the observer can go in finding the result

61. The type of screening that is conducted on those who screen positive the first time
and are recalled for further testing. It is called:
A. Two Stage Screening
B. High risk or Selective Screening
C. Multiphasic Screening
D. Mass Screening
E. Opportunistic Screening

62. . Which of the following study determine prevalence of diseases?

A. Longitudinal study
B. Case control study
C. Cohort study
D. Cross sectional study
E. Clinical trials

63.In the case of malaria and dengue, mosquito is:

E. Vector
F. Host
G. Agent
H. Environment

64. In Ice berg phenomenon, the visible part/ floating tip of the iceberg denotes
E. apparent clinical cases of disease/ ill people in the community
F. the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
G. undiagnosed cases in the community
H. Inapparent cases in the community

65. In Ice berg phenomenon, the part of the iceberg below the water level denoted
the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
a. Apparent cases of disease/ ill people in the community
b. the latent, subclinical, undiagnosed and carrier states in the community
c. Clinical cases in the community
d. Diagnosed cases in the community

66. In Hospital, a study was conducted to determine the prevalence of dental caries
among different ethical groups. Data will be best summarised by which of the
following?
A. Histogram
B. Line graph
C. Bar graph
D. Scatter plot
E. Stem and leaf plot

67. A non-probability sampling technique in which the samples have traits that are rare
to find. This is a sampling technique, in which existing subjects provide referrals to
recruit samples required for a research study.
A. Judgement
B. Quota
C. Convenience
D. Snow ball

68. A researcher may be interested in data about city taxes in Florida. The researcher
would compile data from selected cities and compile them to get a picture about the
state. Which sampling method is appropriate for this.
A. Simple random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
 C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster sampling

69. In parametric tests, generally which measure of central tendency is used?

A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Range

70. In non- parametric tests, which measure of central tendency is used?

A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Range

Important topics:
E. Classification of Epidemiological studies
F. Sensitivity & specificity
G. Case control and cohort studies
H. Incidence, Prevalence, Point Prevalence, Period Prevalence
I. Cumulative Incidence
J. Incidence Rate (Incidence Density
K. Sampling
L. Measures of central tendency (Mean, Mode, Median)
M. Measures of dispersion (Range, standard deviation, Variance)
N. Hypothesis testing, confidence levels and intervals, p-value
O. Types of variables
P. Bias
Q. Tests of significance
 Community dentistry

Block 6

Etiology of Dental Caries

FACTORS AFFECTING DEVELOPMENT OF DENTAL CARIES

1. Host and Teeth Factors

A. Tooth

• Composition

• Morphology

• Position.

B. Saliva

• Composition

• Buffering capacity of saliva

• Quantity.

C. Sex

D. Age

E. Race and ethnicity

F. Socioeconomic status

G. Heredity

H. Emotional disturbances

2. Agent Factors
A. Microorganism

B. Plaque

3. Environmental Factors

A. Diet

• Total consumption of carbohydrate

• Frequency and form of carbohydrate

B. Geographic variation

C. Climate

D. Oral hygiene

E. Soil

F. Fluoride

87. Which of the following area is least effectively cleaned by manual tooth brushing?
A. Inter dental
B. Labial
C. Lingual
D. Occlusal
E. Palatal

88. Which one of the following sweeteners is not chemically similar to sugars?
A. Maltitol
B. Lactose
C. Xylitol
D. Aspartame
E. Fruit sweetener

89. Sodium benzoate, dichlorophene or formaldehyde is used in dentifrices as:

A. Abrasive
 B. Binding agent
C. Detergent
D. Humectant
E. Preservative

90. A Pit & fissure sealant is contraindicated if:

A. Who may be at moderate or high risk of developing dental caries, for a variety of
reasons?
B. With caries, particularly proximal lesions, exist on other surfaces of the same
tooth
C. With incipient caries (limited to enamel of pits and fissures).
D. Who have sufficiently erupted permanent teeth with susceptible pits and fissures?
E. Who have existing pits and fissures that are anatomically susceptible pits and
fissures?

91. Prevention that is done at the late pathogenesis stage of a disease is called:
K. Primordial prevention
L. Primary prevention
M. Secondary prevention
N. Tertiary prevention
O. Quaternary prevention

92. The brushing technique/ method in which brush is positioned with bristles inclined
at a 45-degree angle to the long axis of the tooth, with the bristles placed partly on
the gingiva and partly on the cervical portion of the tooth & the strokes are activated
in a short back and forth (vibratory) motion is called:
A. Bass method
B. Bass modified technique
C. Charter’s method
D. Rolling stroke
E. Stillman’s method

93. The pocket depth in moderate periodontitis is:

A. 1-2mm deep
B. 2-3mm deep
C. 3-4mm deep
D. 4-6mm deep
E. >6 mm deep
94. Water fluoridation and topical fluoride applications are the part of:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Quaternary prevention
95. Humectants are added in the dentifrice (tooth paste) to:
A. Decrease the surface tension of the dentifrice
B. Help in caries control
C. Help in preventing periodontal disease
D. Prevent the paste from drying out
E. Prevent the separation of liquid and solid components of the paste

96. Which of the sugar is least cariogenic?

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Sucrose
E. Xylitol

97. Considering the etiology of dental caries, tooth and saliva are taken as:
A. Host factor
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Vector

98. Considering the etiology of dental caries, oral hygiene and fluoride is taken as:
A. Host factors
B. Agent factors
C. Environment factors
D. Vector

99. Intervention of a disease at a stage before the disease occurs is:

F. Immediate prevention
G. Primary prevention
H. Secondary prevention
I. Tertiary prevention
J. Community prevention

100. Water fluoridation and topical fluoride applications are the part of:
F. Primordial prevention
G. Primary prevention
H. Secondary prevention
I. Tertiary prevention
J. Quaternary prevention

101. What is the primary cause of periodontal disease?

A. Bacterial plaque
B. Food habits
 C. Life style
D. Vitamin deficiency
E. Systemic disease

102. Tooth brushing appears to be the most effective in prevention of:

A. Brad breath
B. Malocclusion
C. Oral cancer
D. Periodontal diseases
E. Xerostomia

103. A teenage patient insists that he cleaned his teeth daily, but the dental team are
aware of the presence of generalised plaque. Which technique can be used to
persuade the patient that plaque is present?
A. Use of Chlorine
B. Use of disclosing tablets
C. Use of fluoride gel
D. Use of fluoride toothpaste
E. Use of Hydrogen peroxide

104. Which brushing technique is indicated for children with a healthy gingiva and
normal tissue contour when a sulcular technique may seem difficult to grasp:
A. Bass method
B. Bass modified technique
C. Charter’s method
D. Rolling stroke
E. Stillman’s method

105. Soil, Seed and Sower, in terms of health education, Seed refers to:
A. People to whom education is to be given.
B. Health facts to be given to the people.
C. Transmitting media.
D. People who give education.
E. simple, attractive and acceptable to the people

106. Which is the best mass method of health education?

A. Class room discussion
B. Demonstration
C. Mass media like TV, radio
D. Role playing
E. Symposium
107. Which one is not the key element in the process of communication:
A. Communicator
B. Audience
C. Message
D. Channels of communications
E. Technology

108. A health educator makes use of various aids in the process of health education.
Following is the example of Combined audio-visual aid:
A. Charts
B. Microphones
C. Posters
D. Tape recorders
E. Televisions

109. Promote social responsibility for health, increase investment for health
development, expand partnership for health promotion, increase community
capacity & empower the individual and secure an infrastructure for health
promotion are added priorities for the future given by:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration

110. Create supportive environment, build healthy public policy, strengthen community
action, develop personal skill and Reorient health services are areas of:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration

111. Advocate, Enable and Mediate are three basic strategies for health
Promotion, proposed by:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration
112. Which is the stage of transtheoretical model in which individuals recognize that
their behaviour is problematic if not changed for their health?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
E. Maintenance

113. The components of HBM (Health Belief Model) does not include:
A. Perceived control
B. Perceived benefits
C. Perceived susceptibility
D. Perceived threat
E. Social norms

114. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action and Maintenance are stages

of:
A. Tannahill Health Promotion Model
B. Transtheoretical Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion
E. The Jakarta Declaration

115. Prevention, Health education and health protection are three essential elements of:
A. Community Medicine
B. Health Education
C. Health Promotion
D. Oral Health
E. Public Health

116. Oral cancer can be prevented by:

A. Early screening
B. Biopsy
C. Radiation
D. Surgery
E. Chemotherapy

117. Which method is best suitable for Health Education for Individual and Family?
A. One to one supervision
B. Health magazines
C. News papers
D. Posters
E. Television

118. Soil, Seed and Sower, in terms of health education, Soil refers to:
A. People to whom education is to be given.
B. Health facts to be given to the people.
C. Transmitting media.
D. People who give education.
E. simple, attractive and acceptable to the people

119. Regarding Communication, who are the receivers of the health message. They are
the target groups who need advice or the health message.
A. Communicator
B. Audience
C. Message
D. Channels of communications
E. Mass media

120. The disadvantage of steam, vapor under pressure (Autoclave) sterilization is:
A. Causes rust and corrosion in unprotected carbon steel instrument
B. High cost of special solutions
C. Ineffective against most spore forming organisms
D. Produces offensive odour
E. Would not penetrate fabric wrapping

121. Dental professionals working in the dental OPDs for a long time due to the
vibrations of hand instruments are exposed to suffer from:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Hearing loss
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Slurred speech
E. Tremulous illegible handwriting
122. Instruments are placed in Autoclave under pressure at high temperature of the
steam, 121 to 132°C (250 to 270°F) to achieve sterilization for:
A. 2 hours
B. 1 hours
C. 20-40 minutes
D. 3-20 minutes
E. 6 minutes

123. Percutaneous exposure incidents facilitate the transmission of:

A. Airborne pathogens
B. Vector borne pathogens
C. Water borne pathogens
D. Blood borne pathogens
E. Bacterial pathogens

124. Which one is not the color coding for the biomedical waste management:
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Red
E. Yellow

125. You assisted the maxillofacial surgeon in oral surgery OPD during a surgical
procedure. After completion of the surgical procedure, you would remove the
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in the following sequence:
A. Gloves, Mask, Glasses
B. Gloves, Glasses, Mask
C. Glasses, Gloves, Mask
D. Mask, Glasses, Gloves
E. Glasses, Mask, Gloves
126. The chemical agents that inhibit bacterial growth is called as:
A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Disinfectant
D. Sterilant
E. Sanitization

127. Percutaneous exposure incidents facilitate the transmission of:

F. Airborne pathogens
G. Vector borne pathogens
H. Water borne pathogens
I. Blood borne pathogens
J. Bacterial pathogens

128. A dentist practicing from the last 25 years slowly develops tremors of face, arms
and legs, slurred speech and illegible hand writing. What do you think is the cause
of this condition?
A. Continuous use of vibratory handpiece
A. Latex hypersensitivity
B. Mercury poisoning
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Plumbism

129. The noise level below which chances of hearing loss are very less:
A. 70dB
B. 75dB
C. 80dB
D. 85dB

130. The occupational hazard associated with the noise of suctions, saliva ejectors,
turbines, engines, amalgamators, compressors, etc. in dental clinics is:
A. Hypersensitivity & skin allergies
B. Hearing loss
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Slurred speech
E. Tremulous illegible handwriting

131. The most dangerous chemical hazard in dentistry is:

A. Latex hypersensitivity
B. Mercury poisoning
C. Musculoskeletal disorder
D. Plumbism

132. Instruments are placed in chemiclave under pressure at 132°C (270°F) to achieve
sterilization for:
F. 2 hours
G. 1 hours
H. 20-40 minutes
I. 3-20 minutes
J. 6 minutes

133. In oral surgery department, if you are assisting the maxillofacial surgeon during
any surgical procedure, which sequence of placing Personal Protective Equipment
(PPE) would you follow?
A. Clothing, Mask, Gloves, Glasses
B. Clothing, Gloves, Glasses, Mask
C. Clothing, Glasses, Gloves, Mask
D. Clothing, Mask, Glasses, Gloves
E. Mask, Clothing, Glasses, Gloves

134. All persons including dental students who handle extracted teeth in dental
educational preclinical and clinical settings, should receive:
A. Hepatitis A vaccine
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Hepatitis C vaccine
D. Hepatitis E vaccine
E. HIV vaccine

135. Which of the following-colored containers must be used for discarding human
anatomical waste in hospital?
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Red
D. White
E. Yellow

136. Which one of the following is not a variation of HOME technique?

A. Hand over mouth and airway restriction.
B. Hand over mouth and nose and airway restricted.
C. Medicated towel over nose/mouth.
D. Towel hand over mouth only.
E. Wet towel over nose/mouth.

137. The Behavioral management method involves gradual exposure of the child to least
stressful object to the most stressful object is called:
A. Aversive Conditioning
B. Communicative Management
C. Modelling/Imitation
D. Systematic Desensitization
E. Tell Show Do (TSD)

138. The organization, administration, and direction of a professional practice in a style

that facilitates quality client care, efficient use of time and personnel, reduced stress
to staff, and financial profitability is called:
A. Patient management
B. Personnel management
C. Practice management
D. Record management
E. Management

139. The preferred drug of choice for Conscious Sedation is:

A. Nitric oxide
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Nitric oxide-oxygen combination
D. Nitrous oxide-oxygen combination
E. Oxygen

140. Culture:
A. Is a static process
B. Is an isolated view of the world
C. Is an unchanging process
D. Is the outcome of the man-made part of our environment
E. Is the outcome of the architectural part of our environment

141. “Rain coat” is a word substitute for explaining the following instrument in children:
A. Air syringe
B. Injection
C. Needle prick
D. Radiograph
E. Rubber dam

142. Cholera (due to water contamination), diarrhoea, dysentery (due to contaminated

food) and vector borne diseases such as plague were more common during:
A. Pre-agriculture society
B. Agriculture society
C. Early industrial society
D. Modern industrial society
E. Technology society

143. Behavioral modification means:

A. Applying reward and punishment technique
B. Application of learning principles to change behaviour
C. Bringing behaviours under stimulus control
D. Demonstrating learning in the absence of reinforcement
E. Solving problems through insight

144. . A dentist manages an uncooperative child by demonstrating the procedures on

another cooperative child. This way of child management is:
A. Aversive Conditioning
B. Communicative Management
C. Modelling/Imitation
D. Systematic Desensitization
E. Tell Show Do (TSD)

145. Universally used method of behaviour management in dentistry for both

cooperative and uncooperative children is:
 A. Aversive Conditioning
B. Behavior shaping
C. Communication
D. Implosion therapy
E. Voice control

146. Best time to see a 3-year-old child in the dental office is:
A. Early in the morning
B. Just before lunch
C. Just after lunch
D. Late evening
E. Any time

147. According to Frankel Behavioral rating scale, a negative child is the one:
A. The child shows reluctance to accept treatment and some evidence of negative
attitude.
B. The child refuses treatment, cries forcefully, fearfully, or displays any agitation.
C. The child cries forcefully but accepts treatment.
D. The child accepts treatment but may be cautious.
E. This child has a good rapport with the dentist and is interested in the dental
procedures.

148. Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency and Genital are stages of psychosexual development of:
A. Cognitive Development Theory by Piaget
B. Psychoanalytic Theory by Freud
C. Psychosocial Theory by Erikson
D. Classical Conditioning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
E. Hierarchy of Needs Theory by Maslow

149. If a child’s particular behavior is encouraged by praise or by patting on his back,

the possibility of same behavior being repeated increases. This is called as:
A. Positive Punishment
B. Negative Punishment
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
E. Omission
150. The Preoperational stage of Piaget’s cognitive development theory actually focuses
at which age group?
A. 0-2years
B. 2-7years
C. 7-12years
D. 12years and upwards
E. Adolescence

151. Erikson’s theory can be described as which of the following?

A. Psychoanalytic
B. Psychosocial
C. Psychosexual
D. Cognitive development
E. Behavioral

152. According to Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development, the stage in which a

child needs to learn important academic skills and compare favourably with peers in
school to achieve competence is the:
A. Trust versus mistrust
B. Autonomy versus shame
C. doubt Initiative versus guilt
D. Industry versus inferiority
E. Identity versus role confusion

153. Our morals and values learned from our parents are driven by the:
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Defense mechanisms
E. Self

154. The children are usually scared of the sound of the bur and the dentist is also
usually present at that time. Therefore, the child associates the fear of the bur with
the dentist. Therefore, whenever a dentist tries to come near him to perform a
treatment, the child starts crying due to fear and will remain scared. With reference
to Classical Conditioning Theory, what is the conditioned stimulus in this example?
A. Dental assistant
B. Dentist
C. Crying
D. Tooth problem
E. Sound of bur

155. Id, ego and super-ego are part of:

A. Cognitive Development Theory by Piaget
B. Psychoanalytic Theory by Freud
C. Psychosocial Theory by Erikson
D. Classical Conditioning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
E. Hierarchy of Needs Theory by Maslow
156. Taking away a child’s toys after she has hit her brother (to stop her hitting him
again) is an example of:
A. Positive punishment
B. Negative punishment
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
E. Reinforcement

157. The art of reinforcing good behaviour displayed by the child with verbal praise
applies the:
A. Classical Conditioning Theory
B. Cognitive Development Theory
C. Operant Conditioning Theory
D. Psychoanalytic Theory
E. Psychosocial Theory

158. The Concrete operational stage of Piaget’s cognitive development theory actually
focuses at which age group?
F. 0-2years
G. 2-7years
H. 7-12years
I. 12years and upwards
J. Adolescence
159. You are doing a demonstration with Sara, who is three years old. You have two
equal-sized glasses, filled to the top with the same volume of water. You ask her
whether there is more water in one glass than the other, or the same, and she
responds, "The same." Now, you pour the entire contents of one of these glasses into
a tall, thin glass, and the entire contents of the other into a short, but very wide,
glass. You ask her which glass contains more water, and she points to the tall glass.
Which of Piaget's cognitive stages of development is Sara in?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
E. Operational

160. People remain in poverty not merely as a result of their economic conditions but
because of values and practices developed from poverty.
A. Physical
B. Social
C. Culture
D. Biology
E. Genetic endowment

161. A person's health and wellbeing are dependent on a good start, good future, good
care, and support. These influences social, economic, physical, and environmental
factors, are known as:
A. Health care
B. Health promotion
C. Public health
D. Public oral health
E. Determinants of health

162. Which of the following health determinants is directly related to the structure of
the medical care system?
A. Biological and genetic determinants
B. Social determinants
C. Access to health services
D. Behavioral determinants
E. Physical environmental determinants

163. Socioeconomic factor does not include:

A. Education
B. Employment
C. Income
D. Social intelligence
E. Social status

164. A 10-year-old can modify which aspects that determine their health:
A. education, knowledge, skills, and geographic location
B. attitude, skills, knowledge and education
C. Employment, skills, geographic location, and attitude
D. genetics, family, culture and education
E. Employment, genetics, family and culture