Ateneo de Zamboanga University

College of Nursing
NURCO 1
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Be Honest

Even If Others Are Not

Even If Others Are Will Not

1. A foodborne outbreak of salmonellosis has twice occurred at a day-treatment program. The environmental
health worker has requested that an advanced public health nurse be included in the next inspection of the
program's kitchen. During the visit, the nurse’s primary concern is to:
A. educate the kitchen workers about safe food preparation.
B. ensure the workers' understanding of various microorganisms
C. identify other resources for providing food service.
D. promote the health of clients affected by the previous outbreaks
2. Which program is an example of secondary prevention?
A. A community-wide nutrition program at fast-food establishments
B. A program to immunize persons exposed to infectious disease with immunoglobulin G within two
weeks of exposure
C. Rehabilitation program for the alcoholics
D. An exercise program for persons who have had a stroke

3. A statistical source for population age distributions, dependency ratios, and socioeconomic characteristics is:
A. census data. C. service utilization data
B. morbidity data. D. vital statistics

4. Which rate is produced by dividing the number of deaths during one year by the estimated (mid-year)
population?
A. Crude deaths C. Mortality prevalence
B. Morbidity incidence D. Proportional population rate

5. Nurse Patricia was invited to be the resource person in a training class for food handlers. Which of the following
would you emphasize regarding prevention of staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly washed.
B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy staphylococcal microorganisms.
C. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative stool examination result.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition.
Answer: (D) Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition.
Symptoms of this food poisoning are due to staphylococcal enterotoxin, not the microorganisms themselves.
Contamination is by food handling by persons with staphylococcal skin or eye infections.

6. To determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that may be
undertaken by the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing C. Mass screening test
B. Community survey D. Interview of suspects
Answer: (A) Contact tracing
Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible sources of person-to-person
transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted diseases.

7. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?

A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using a condom during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS
Answer: (A) Being faithful to a single sexual partner
Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the disease by sexual contact with another infected person.
Transmission occurs mostly through sexual intercourse and exposure to blood or tissues.

8. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you
can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay?
A. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
Answer: (D) Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune
globulin, a specific prophylactic against German measles, may be given to pregnant women
 9. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea
and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
A. Giardiasis B. Cholera C. Amebiasis D. Dysentery
Answer: (B) Cholera
Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom of cholera. Both amebic and bacillary dysentery are
characterized by the presence of blood and/or mucus in the stools. Giardiasis is characterized by fat
malabsorption and, therefore, steatorrhea.

10. Client Trisha, 32-year old client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for
a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, Trisha
noted yellowish discoloration of her sclera. History showed that she waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before
the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Tetanus D. Leptospirosis
Answer: (D) Leptospirosis
Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil
contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.

11. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro Manila. This is an example of which level of water
facility?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
Answer: (C) III
Waterworks systems, such as MWSS, are classified as level III.

12. When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the neighborhood, the level of this approved type of
water facility is
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
Answer: (B) II
A communal faucet or water standpost is classified as Level II.

13. For prevention of hepatitis A, Nurse Ihra decided to conduct health education activities. Which of the following
is?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors.
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections
Answer: (A) Use of sterile syringes and needles
Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal oral route. Hepatitis B is transmitted through infected body
secretions like blood and semen.

14. Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
A. DPT C. Measles vaccine
B. Oral polio vaccine D. MMR
Answer: (A) DPT
DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. OPV and measles
vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and require freezing. MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program
on Immunization.

15. Client Joseph was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. Nurse Jannica will say that there is slow capillary refill
when the color of the nailbed that she pressed does not return within how many seconds?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10
Answer: (A) 3
Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds.

16. Cyril, A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because of fever of 4-day duration. The
child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the absence of other signs, which is the most appropriate measure
that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome?
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT.
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
C. Start the patient on intravenous fluids STAT.
D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management.
Answer: (B) Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
Since the child does not manifest any other danger sign, maintenance of fluid balance and replacement of fluid
loss may be done by giving the client Oresol.

17. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the;
A. Nasal mucosa C. Skin on the abdomen
B. Buccal mucosa D. Skin on the antecubital surface

Answer: (B) Buccal mucosa

Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.
18. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
A. Viral conjunctivitis C. Diphtheria
B. Acute poliomyelitis D. Measles
Answer: (D) Measles
Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes. Acute
poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria is
through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions

19. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the dose given to
preschoolers?
A. 10,000 IU B. 20,000 IU C. 100,000 IU D. 200,000 IU
Answer: (D) 200,000 IU
Preschoolers are given Retinol 200,000 IU every 6 months. 100,000 IU is given once to infants aged 6 to 12
months. The dose for pregnant women is 10,000 IU.

20. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976 mandates
fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?
A. Sugar B. Bread C. Margarine D. Filled milk
Answer: (A) Sugar
R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of rice, wheat flour, sugar and cooking oil with Vitamin A, iron and/or iodine.

21. What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months.
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 I.U. of Retinol
C. Instruct mothers to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission.
D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies’ resistance.
Answer: (A) Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months.
Ordinarily, measles vaccine is given at 9 months of age. During an impending epidemic, however, one dose may
be given to babies aged 6 to 8 months. The mother is instructed that the baby needs another dose when the
baby is 9 months old.

22. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI
assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink C. Signs of severe dehudration
B. High grade fever D. Cough for more than 30 days
Answer: (A) Inability to drink
A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred urgently to a hospital if he/she has one or more of the
following signs: not able to feed or drink, vomits everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or difficult to
awaken.

23. Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which of the following?
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B. Antibiotics to prevent pneumonia
C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given.
Answer: (D) Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given
An infant 6 to 12 months classified as a case of measles is given Retinol 100,000 IU; a child is given 200,000 IU
regardless of when the last dose was given.

24. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, which started 4 days prior to
consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you do?
A. Do a tourniquet test. C. Get a specimen for blood smear
B. Ask where the family resides. D. Ask if the fever is present everyday
Answer: (B) Ask where the family resides.
Because malaria is endemic, the first question to determine malaria risk is where the client’s family resides. If
the area of residence is not a known endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months, where
he/she was brought and whether he/she stayed overnight in that area.

25. 4-week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to
him?
A. DPT1 & OPV1 B. DPT only C. BCG only D. BCG & Hepa B1
Infant BCG & Hepa B1 may be given at birth. All the other immunizations mentioned can be given at 6 weeks of
age.

26. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had
A. Seizures a day after DPT 1. C. Abscess formation after DPT1
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1. D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1.
Answer: (A) Seizures a day after DPT 1.
Seizures within 3 days after administration of DPT is an indication of hypersensitivity to pertussis vaccine, a
component of DPT. This is considered a specific contraindication to subsequent doses of DPT.

27. Ronan, a 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, Ronan’s
temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?
A. Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
B. Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment.
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well.
Answer: (A) Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
In the EPI, fever up to 38.5°C is not a contraindication to immunization. Mild acute respiratory tract infection,
simple diarrhea and malnutrition are not contraindications either.

28. Lorraine, pregnant, had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have
protection against tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 10 years D. Lifetime
Answer: (A) 1 year
The baby will have passive natural immunity by placental transfer of antibodies. The mother will have active
artificial immunity lasting for about 10 years. 5 doses will give the mother lifetime protection.

29. Baby Joy, 4-month old infant was brought to the health center because of cough. Her respiratory rate is
42/minute. Usin
Fast g the Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, her breathing is
considered B. Slow C. Normal D. Insignificant
Answer: (C) Normal
In IMCI, a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is fast breathing for an infant aged 2 to 12 months.

30. Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea B. Wheezing C. Fast breathing D. Chest indrawing
Answer: (D) Chest indrawing
In IMCI, chest indrawing is used as the positive sign of dyspnea, indicating severe pneumonia.

31. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the
child?
A. Prescribe an antibiotic.
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital.
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding.
Answer: (B) Refer him urgently to the hospital.
Severe pneumonia requires urgent referral to a hospital. Answers A, C and D are done for a client classified as
having pneumonia.

32. Patrick, 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to
5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, Nurse
April will classify this infant in which category?
A. No signs of dehydration C. Severe dehydration
B. Some dehydration D. The data is insufficient.
Answer: (B) Some dehydration

Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2 months to 5 years old) with diarrhea is classified as having
SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or more of the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, the skin
goes back slow after a skin pinch.

33. Based on assessment, Nurse Kitkat classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the
category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will Nurse Kitkat
do?
A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given.
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours.
C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management.
D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation.
Answer: (B) Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours.
In the IMCI management guidelines, SOME DEHYDRATION is treated with the administration of Oresol within a
period of 4 hours. The amount of Oresol is best computed on the basis of the child’s weight (75 ml/kg body
weight). If the weight is unknown, the amount of Oresol is based on the child’s age.

34. A mother is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked nurse Caca what to
do if her child vomits. Nurse Caca will tell her to
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment.
 B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy.
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician.
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
Answer: (D) Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he has to be referred urgently to a
hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with
Oresol administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly.

35. A 1 ½ year old child was classified as having 3rd degree protein energy malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which of the
following signs will be most apparent in this child?
A. Voracious appetite B. Wasting C. Apathy D. Edema
Answer: (D) Edema
Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood brought
about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet.

36. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this
child?
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program.
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child.
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism.
Answer: (A) Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
“Baggy pants” is a sign of severe marasmus. The best management is urgent referral to a hospital

37. Nurse Fifai explained to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs
only up to;
A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 1-year D. 2 years
Answer: (B) 6 months
After 6 months, the baby’s nutrient needs, especially the baby’s iron requirement, can no longer be provided by
mother’s milk alone.

38. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby?
A. Malunggay capsule C. Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule
B. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg. OD D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule
Answer: (C) Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule
A capsule of Retinol 200,000 IU is given within 1 month after delivery. Potassium iodate is given during
pregnancy; malunggay capsule is not routinely administered after delivery; and ferrous sulfate is taken for two
months after delivery.

39. Mutya, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is
contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid C. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg
B. Retinol 200,000 IU D. Potassium iodate 200 mg. capsule
Answer: (B) Retinol 200,000 IU
Retinol 200,000 IU is a form of megadose Vitamin A. This may have a teratogenic effect

40. During prenatal consultation, client Sarah asked nurse Crystel if she can have her delivery at home. After
history taking and physical examination, Nurse Crystel advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following
findings disqualifies client Sarah for a home delivery?
A. Her OB score is G5P3. C. Her blood pressure is 130/80.
B. She has some palmar pallor. D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation.
Answer: (A) Her OB score is G5P3.
Only women with less than 5 pregnancies are qualified for a home delivery. It is also advisable for a
primigravida to have delivery at a childbirth facility

41. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the
people is termed
A. De jure B. De locus C. De facto D. De novo
Answer: (C) De facto
The other method of population assignment, de jure, is based on the usual place of residence of the people.

42. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the
following is/are true of this movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units.
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units.
C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control.
D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards.
Answer: (D) Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards.
Sentrong Sigla Movement is a joint project of the DOH and local government units. Its main strategy is
certification of health centers that are able to comply with standards set by the DOH.

43. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months
Answer: (D) Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months
The ideal birth spacing is at least two years. 15 months plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years.

44. Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the
following illustrates this principle?
A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning
B. Support of research and development in family planning methods
C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods
D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility
Answer: (C) Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods
To enable the couple to choose freely among different methods of family planning, they must be given full
information regarding the different methods that are available to them, considering the availability of quality
services that can support their choice.

45. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medicinal herb is given for
fever, headache and cough?
A. Sambong B. Tsaang gubat C. Akapulko D. Lagundi
Answer: (D) Lagundi
Sambong is used as a diuretic. Tsaang gubat is used to relieve diarrhea. Akapulko is used for its antifungal
property.

46. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?
A. Integration C. Community study
B. Community organization D. Core group formation
Answer: (D) Core group formation
In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the technology of community organizing to the potential or
informal community leaders through a training program.

47. In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems?
A. Mobilization C. Follow-up/extension
B. Community organization D. Core group formation
Answer: (B) Community organization
Community organization is the step when community assemblies take place. During the community assembly,
the people may opt to formalize the community organization and make plans for community action to resolve a
community health problem.

48. The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community
organizing?
A. To educate the people regarding community health problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
C. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems
D. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems
Answer: (D) To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems
Community organizing is a developmental service, with the goal of developing the people’s self-reliance in
dealing with community health problems. A, B and C are objectives of contributory objectives to this goal.

49. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to

A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem
B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
D. Identify the health problem as a common concern
Answer: (A) Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem
Participation in community activities in resolving a community problem may be in any of the processes
mentioned in the other choices.

50. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis B. Pathogenesis C. Prodromal D. Terminal
: (D) Terminal
Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of permanent disability and disability limitation
appropriate for convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage
of a disease)
 51. Nurse Bambi is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic during her
second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal physical finding that
necessitates further testing?
A. Quickening C. Consistent increase in fundal height
B. Braxton Hicks contractions D. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/min
Answer: D
Rationale: The normal range of the fetal heart rate depends on gestational age. The heart rate is usually 160 to
170 beats/min in the first trimester and slows with fetal growth. Near and at term, the fetal heart rate ranges
from 120 to 160 beats/min. Options 1, 2, and 3 are normal expected findings.

52. IMCI uses a 3 colour-coded triage system. These includes the following colors, except:
A. Pink B. Blue C. Green D. Yellow
Answer: B
Rationale: Pink is for urgent referral. Yellow is for specific medical treatment and advice and green is for
simple advice on home management.

53. The nurse inspects the skin of a client suspected of having scabies. Which of the following assessment
findings would the nurse note if this disorder was present?
A. The appearance of vesicles or pustules with a thick honey-colored crust
B. The presence of white patches scattered about the trunk
C. Multiple straight or wavy threadlike lines beneath the skin
D. Patchy hair loss and round red macules with scales
Answer: C
Rationale: Scabies can be identified by the multiple straight or wavy threadlike lines noted beneath the skin.
The skin lesions are caused by the female mite, which burrows beneath the skin and lays her eggs. The eggs
hatch in a few days and the baby mites find their way to the skin surface where they mate and complete life
cycle. Options A B and D are not characteristics of scabies.

54.Vitamin A is given to a child with which of the following?

A. Cough C. Dehydration
B. Measles D. Malaria
Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin A is given to a child with MEASLES or SEVERE MALNUTRITION. Vitamin A helps resist the
measles virus infection in the eye as well as in the layer of cells that line the lung, gut, mouth and throat. It
may also help the immune system to prevent other infections.

55. Nurse manager Queenie is planning the clinical assignments for the day. Nurse manager Queenie avoids
assigning which of the following staff members to the client with herpes zoster?
A. Nurse who never had mumps
B. Experienced RN who never had chickenpox
C. Nurse who never had roseola
D. Nurse who never had German measles
Answer: B
Rationale: Herpes zoster is caused by a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the causative virus for
chickenpox. Individuals who have not been exposed to the varicella- zoster virus are susceptible to
chickenpox. Health care workers who are unsure of their immune status should have varicella titers done
before exposure to a person with herpes zoster. Options A C and D are unrelated to shingles.

56. What does the acronym IMCI stand for?

A. Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses
B. International Management of Childhood Illnesses
C. Integrated Management of Child Illnesses
D. International Manual of Childhood Illnesses
Answer: A
Rationale: The acronym IMCI stands for Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses

57. When a child is classified as having anemia but is manageable at home, the child is given iron supplements and
is advised to return:
A. In 30 days C. In 14 days
B. In 4 days D. The next day
Answer: C
Rationale: Follow up for a child with anemia is in 14 days. Follow up mast be every 14 days for 2 months.
58. A 4-year-old child is being treated using plan C and IV line is initiated with PLR. In the first 30 minutes after
initiation, the drip is set up to:
A. 70ml/kg C. 30ml/kg
 B. 50ml/kg D. 100ml/kg

Answer: C
Rationale: First give PLR 30ml/kg during the first 30 minutes then 70ml/kg in 2 ½ hours. This is according to the
IMCI standard protocol, plan C in treating dehydration. Also give ORS 5ml/kg/hr as soon as the child can drink.

59. IMCI program is initiated by what institution / agency?

A. WHO/UNICEF C. DOH/UNICEF
B. DOH/WHO D. DOH/CHO
Answer: A
Rationale: The WHO/UNICEF guidelines for Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) offer simple
and effective methods to prevent and manage the leading causes of serious illness and mortality in young
children. The IMCI charts and related in-service training materials, provided by WHO and UNICEF, are
considered to be a “generic” version. This model IMCI handbook is also a generic document. The WHO
Department of Child and Adolescent Health and Development (CAH) created this handbook to help
teaching institutions incorporate IMCI into academic programmes for doctors, nurses and other health
professionals.

60. Following diagnosis of stage 1 Lyme disease, the nurse would anticipate that which of the following will be
part of the treatment plan for the client?
A. No treatment unless symptoms develop
B. A 3 week course of oral antibiotic therapy
C. Treatment with intravenously administered antibiotics
D. Daily oatmeal baths for a period of 2 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: Prevention, public education and early diagnosis are vital to the control and treatment of Lyme
disease. A 3 week course of oral antibiotic therapy is recommended during stage 1. Options A and D are
incorrect. Option C is done at later stages.

61. The nurse prepares to give bath and change the bed linens on a client with cutaneous Kaposi’s sarcoma
lesions. The lesions are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which of the following would the
nurse most appropriately incorporate in the plan during the bathing of this client?
A. Wearing gown, gloves and mask
B. Wearing gown and gloves
C. Wearing gloves
D. Wearing gown and gloves to change the bed linens and gloves only for the bath
Answer: B
Rationale: Gown and gloves are required if the nurse anticipates contact with soiled items such as wound
drainage or in caring for a client who is incontinent with diarrhea or a client who has an ileostomy or
colostomy. Masks are not required unless droplet or airborne precautions are necessary. Regardless of the
amount of wound drainage, a gown and gloves must be worn.

62. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster. Which of the following characteristics would the
nurse expect to note when assessing the lesions of this infection?
A. A generalized body rash
B. Small, blue white spots with red base
C. Fiery red edematous rash on cheeks
D. Clustered skin vesicles
Answer: D
Rationale: The primary lesion of herpes zoster is a vesicle. The classic presentation is grouped vesicles on an
erythematous base along a dermatome. Because the lesions follow nerve pathways, they do not cross the
midline of the body. Options A, B and C are incorrect descriptions of herpes zoster.

63. This program of the DOH ensures accessibility of low-priced generic over-the-counter drugs and eight (8)
prescription drugs as recommended by the National Drug Formulary Committee. This program is labeled as:
A. The generics Act C. Botika ng Barangay
B. Botika Generika D. All of the above
Answer: C
Rationale: The establishment of the Botika ng Barangay (BnB) in the communities, including the insurgent
areas, ensures accessibility of low-priced generic over-the-counter drugs and eight (8) prescription drugs as
recommended by the National Drug Formulary Committee. Under Memorandum # 31 and its amendment, as
much as 40 essential medicines that address common diseases can be made available in BnBs depending on
 the morbidity and mortality profiles of the community. And the policies surrounding the BnB (AO 144) ensure
that such can be sustained in the medium term.

64. Nurse Ivy identifies the first line antibiotic for pneumonia is:
A. Cotrimoxazole C. Amoxycillin
B. Chloroquine D. Vitamin A
Answer: A
Rationale: According to the IMCI manual, the first line antibiotic for pneumonia, acute ear infection or very
severe disease is Cotrimoxazole and the second line is option C. Option B is an antimalarial drug.

65. Nurse Adeline is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive.
The physician has documented the presence of Goodell's sign. Nurse Adeline determines that this sign
indicates:
A. A softening of the cervix
B. The presence of fetal movement
C. The presence of human chorionic gonadotropin in the urine
D. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus
Answer: A
Rationale: In the early weeks of pregnancy, the cervix becomes softer as a result of increased vascularity and
hyperplasia, which cause Goodell's sign. Cervical softening is noted by the examiner during pelvic examination.
A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse may be auscultated over the uterus and is caused
by blood circulating through the placenta. Human chorionic gonadotropin is noted in maternal urine in a
positive urine pregnancy test. Goodell's sign does not indicate the presence of fetal movement.

66. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or heath care
providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following?
A. Eliminate the reservoir
B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
C. Block the portal of entry into the host
D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host

Answer: B
Rationale: Since the client is a carrier, he is the reservoir of this certain infection and to prevent the spread,
the portal of EXIT from the reservoir must be blocked and infection is then contained. Option A instructs the
nurse to kill the client which is obviously wrong. Options C and D focus on how to prevent the acquisition of
the infection; it will be of no use since from the start, the client is already infected.

67. After teaching a client and family strategies to prevent infection, which statement by the client would indicate
effective learning has occurred?
A. “We will use antimicrobial soap and hot water to wash out hands at least three times per day.”
B. “We must wash or peel all raw fruits and vegetables before eating.”
C. “A wound or sore is not infected unless we see it draining pus.”
D. “We should not share toothbrushes but it is OK to share towels and washcloths.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Since people touch raw fruits and vegetables and the outer part is exposed, it should be washed
thoroughly and peeled before eating to prevent infection. Option A is wrong because HOT water can cause
burns. A wound or sore can already be infected even before pus drains from it. Washcloths and towels should
not be shared to prevent spread of infection.
68. The nurse is reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the
following microorganisms is related to this condition?
A. Yersinia Pestis C. Vibrio Cholera
B. H. Pylori D. Hemophilus Aegyptus
Answer: D
Rationale: Option A is responsible for the bubonic plague, option B is responsible for peptic ulcer disease,
option C is for cholera leaving option D for conjunctivitis.

69. Angelique arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that she was just bitten by a tick and would like
to be tested for Lyme disease. The client tells the nurse that she removed the tick and flushed it down the
toilet. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
A. Refer the client for a blood test immediately
B. Inform the client that there is not a test available for Lyme disease
C. Instruct the client to return in 4 to 6 weeks to be tested because testing before this time is not
reliable
 D. Tell the client that testing is not necessary unless arthralgia develops

Answer: C
Rationale: A blood test is available to detect Lyme disease. However, the test is not reliable if performed
before 4 to 6 weeks following the tick bite. Options A, B and D are incorrect.

70. The mother is taught how to dry the child’s ear by wicking. The mother is correct when she states:
A. “I will use cotton tipped applicator especially designed for infants aged 0 to 6 months.”
B. “I will use a clean absorbent cotton cloth in drying the ear.”
C. “I will have to buy that wick sold in the local Chinese store made of wood.”
D. “I will use anything readily available like a paper since it will absorb.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Use clean, absorbent cotton cloth or soft strong tissue paper for making a wick. Do not use a cotton-
tipped applicator, a stick or flimsy paper that will fall apart in the ear.

71. The 1-year old child is being treated for mouth ulcers. The child should be treated using:
A. Full strength gentian violet C. Half strength gentian violet
B. 1 tablespoon Listerine D. ¼ cup hydrogen peroxide
Answer: C
Rationale: Treating mouth ulcers controls infection and helps the child to eat. Teach the mother to treat
mouth ulcers with half-strength gentian violet. Gentian violet used in the mouth should be half-strength
(0.25%), not full-strength (0.5%).

72. Good positioning during breastfeeding is evident when the child assumes the following, except:
A. Infant’s is straight or bent slightly back
B. Infant’s body assumes a supine position with the face towards the mother’s breast
C. Infant’s body is close to the mother
D. Infant’s whole body is well supported
Answer: B
Rationale: Options A, C and D are all signs of good positioning. The infant’s body should be turned towards the
mother and not like what is stated in option B.

73. Breast milk contains the exact nutrients needed by an infant which includes the following, except:
A. Vitamin D C. Vitamin A
B. Fat D. Protein
Answer: A
Rationale: Breastmilk contains exactly the nutrients needed by an infant. It contains: Protein, Fat, Lactose (a
special milk sugar), Vitamins A, C and Iron

74. The vision of the National Rabies Prevention and Control Program is to declare the Philippines Rabies-free by
what year?
A. 2015 B. 2020 C. 2030 D. 2014
Answer: B
Rationale: According to the DOH, the program’s vision is to Declare Philippines Rabies-Free by year 2020 and
its goal is to eliminate human rabies by the year 2020.

75. The Family planning program of the DOH is intended for the men and women of reproductive age. What is the
age range as referred by the “reproductive age”?
A. 18- 40 B. 15-49 C. 12-40 D. 20-45
Answer: B
Rationale: The intended audience include men and women of reproductive age (15-49) years old) including
adolescents.

76. This program on the DOH focuses on the oral health of the Filipinos. What program of the DOH does the
statement refer to?
A. Dental health program C. Oral health program
B. Operation smile D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: In the Philippines, toothache is a common ailment among schoolchildren, and is the primary cause
of absenteeism from school (Araojo 2003, 103-110). Indeed, dental and oral diseases create a silent epidemic,
placing a heavy burden on Filipino schoolchildren. The statistics led to the creation of a program named as
“DENTAL HEALTH PROGRAM” of the DOH. Option B is intended specifically for children with cleft lip and/or
palate.
77. The DOH launched a campaign and named it “Breastfeeding TSEK”. TSEK is an acronym for:
A. Tama, Sapat, Eksklusibo C. Timely, Safe, Efficient, Kind
B. Total, Safe, Eksklusibo at kolaboratibo D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: On February 23, 2011, the Department of Health (DOH) launched the exclusive breastfeeding
campaign dubbed “Breastfeeding TSEK: (Tama, Sapat, Eksklusibo)”. The primary target of this campaign is the
new and expectant mothers in urban areas.

78. The micronutrient malnutrition problem is addressed in the creation of the food fortification law. The
following are the micronutrients which this law is focused on, except?
A. Iron C. Vitamin A
B. Iodine D. Calcium
Answer: D
Rationale: Republic Act 8976, “An Act Establishing the Philippine Food Fortification Program and for other
purposes” mandating fortification of flour, oil and sugar with Vitamin A and flour and rice with iron by
November 7, 2004 and promoting voluntary fortification through the SPSP, Signed into law on November 7,
2000. Republic Act 8172, “An Act Promoting Salt Iodization Nationwide and for other purposes”, Signed into
law on Dec. 20, 1995. Caclium is not included in the micronutrient malnutrition problem.

79. The main objective of the Infant and Young Child Feeding is:
A. To ensure and accelerate the promotion, protection and support of good IYCF practice
B. Reduction of child mortality and morbidity through optimal feeding of infants and young children
C. Mothers and Infants form a biological and social unit and improved IYCF begins with ensuring the
health and nutritional status of women
D. Strengthened communication approaches focusing on behavioral and social change is essential for
demand generation and community empowerment
Answer: A
Rationale: Option B is the goal and options C and D are two of the guiding principles which make them all
incorrect except A.

80. The National Mental Health program by the DOH have cited major celebrations throughout the year. The
celebration/event observed every third week of January is called as?
A. National Mental Retardation Week C. National Mental Health Week
B. National Epilepsy Awareness Week D. Autism Consciousness Week
Answer: D
Rationale: Every third week of January, we celebrate the Autism Consciousness Week. Option A is celebrated
from February 14-19. Option B is every 1st week of September. Option C is celebrated every second week of
October.

81. The vision of the National Mental health program is which among the following?
A. Better Quality of Life through Total Health Care for all Filipinos
B. A Rational and Unified Response to Mental Health
C. Quality Mental Health Care
D. Implementation of a Mental Health Program strategy
Answer: A
Rationale: A vision is n aspirational description of what an organization would like to achieve or accomplish in
the mid-term or long-term future. It is intended to serves as a clear guide for choosing current and future
courses of action. Option A refers to the vision of the program. Option B is the mission, option C is the goal
and option D is the objective.

82. The National Dengue Prevention and Control program was first initiated in 1993 with Region VII and NCR as its
pilot sites. In what year was the program implemented nationwide?
A. 1998 B. 2000 C. 2001 D. 2003

Answer: A
Rationale: The National Dengue Prevention and Control Program was first initiated by the Department of
Health (DOH) in 1993. Region VII and the National Capital Region served as the pilot sites. It was not until 1998
when the program was implemented nationwide. The target populations of the program are the general
population, the local government units, and the local health workers

83. Nikko, age 3 is found playing in a vacant lot nearby every afternoon with some neighbors his age. Most of the
time, he goes home very dirty and sweaty. During the routine check-up, he was diagnosed with a hookworm
infection. Using the IMCI protocol, Chico must be given which drug?
A. Cotrimoxazole C. Amoxycillin
B. Mebendazole D. Omeprazole
Answer: B
 Rationale: If hookworm or whipworm is a problem in your area, an anaemic child who is 2 years of age or
older, needs mebendazole. Mebendazole treats hookworm and whipworm infections. These infections
contribute to anaemia because of iron loss through intestinal bleeding. Give 500 mg mebendazole as a single
dose in the clinic. Give either one 500 mg tablet or five 100 mg tablets.

84. Mark, child complaining of loose watery stools, is classified under the green row. What treatment plan would
the nurse implement?
A. Plan A B. Plan B C. Plan C D. Plan D
Answer: A
Rationale: Management for the green row would be using plan A where diarrhea is treated at home. Plan B is
for some dehydration. Plan C is to treat severe dehydration quickly. There is no such a thing as plan D.

85. The mother is given 2 packets of ORS. She should mix one packet at a time with safe and clean drinking water.
One packet of ORS is good for how much water?
A. 500ml B. 1 glass C. 1000ml D. 50ml
Answer: C
Rationale: One packet of powdered ORS is good for one liter. The mother is given two packets of ORS powder
for two liters of water (1 liter each packet) for 2 days.

86. Baby Shane is being treated using plan A. The community health nurse gave Angela’s mother 2 packets of ORS
and was also given instructions. The mother prepared the first liter of ORS as instructed. At the end of the day,
of the 1 liter of ORS, there is still remaining 300ml. The mother is aware that ORS must be given for 2 days. The
best action of the mother is to:
A. Discard the 300 ml remaining ORS
B. Keep the 300 ml and whatever is left on the second day and bring it to the health center during the
follow up visit
C. Keep the remaining 300ml ORS of day 1 and give it the next day in the morning
D. Keep the remaining ORS of day 1 and mix it to the 2nd liter of ORS on day 2

Answer: A
Rationale: 1 liter of ORS (1 packet) is only good for 24 hours. Explain to the mother that she should mix fresh
ORS solution each day in a clean container, keep the container covered, and throw away any solution
remaining from the day before

87. Tell the mother to return to the health center if the following signs are present, except:
A. Not able to drink/breastfeed C. Develops a fever
B. Becomes sicker D. Throws tantrums
Answer: D
Rationale: Options A, B and C are signs that the mother should watch out for. If one of these occurs to the sick
child, the mother must bring the child back to the health center regardless of when the follow up date is.
Option D is not a sign and in fact not included in the IMCI manual.

88. Miriam, a young mother asks the nurse how her child became infected with rotavirus. The most appropriate
response by the nurse is, “Rotavirus is primarily spread by..
A. Fecal-oral route.” C. Infected blood.”
B. Inhalation of infected droplets.” D. Sexual contact.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Rotavirus is the most common cause of severe diarrhea in children. It is primarily spread by the
fecal-oral route.

89. Nurse Raymund should consider which of the following when planning the care of a child infected with
hepatitis B?
A. Treatment is aimed at symptom management
B. Administer acyclovir (Zovirax)
C. Administer doxycycline (Vibramycin) and azithromycin (Zothromax)
D. Treatment is directed by the results of the WBC test
Answer: A
Rationale: There is no specific treatment for Hepatitis B. Treatment focuses on symptom management. Oral
acyclovir (Zovirax) is an antiviral used un treatment of HSV-2. Doxycycline and azithromycin are antibiotics
used in the treatment of Chlamydia. Monitoring the WBC is important in the treatment of infectious
mononucleosis.
90. The nurse is instructing the adolescent client about birth control and sexually transmitted diseases. Which of
the following methods of birth control should Nurse Mitch include that is 100% effective in protecting against
sexually transmitted disease?
A. Birth control pills C. Withdrawal method
B. Abstinence from sexual behaviorD. Latex condoms and spermicidal foam
Answer: B
Rationale: Options A, C and D are not 100% effective in preventing the spread of STDs. Each method contains
some risk of infection. Option A simply protect individuals from pregnancy. Option C is ineffective in every
way. Option D are ineffective barriers in the event of tears or breakage of the device or incorrect application.
Only abstinence from sexual behavior is 100% effective in protecting against STDs.

91. Which of the following drugs should the nurse use in the treatment of a child with Giardia?
A. Penicillin G C. Mebendazole (Vermox)
B. Furazolidone (Furoxone) D. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
Answer: B
Rationale: Option A is used in the treatment of tetanus. Giardia is a protozoan disorder transmitted by hand-
to-mouth transfer of cysts from feces of an infected individual. Option B is the drug of choice in treatment.
Option C is used in treatment of pinworm. Option D is used in the treatment of gonorrhea.

92. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing intervention when a child develops a reactive purified
protein derivative (PPD)?
A. Refer the child to the physician for immediate treatment
B. Obtain a full health and immunization history
C. Reassess the site in 5 days
D. Don personal protective equipment
Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should investigate whether the child has had contact with an individual who has TB. The
nurse also should assess whether the child has received any treatment for TB, what clinical manifestations the
child has and whether the child received the immunization BCG, which creates a positive skin test response to
the PPD injection. A positive reaction to the skin test does not indicate a need for immediate treatment.
Retesting the PPD skin test is the most reactive within 72 hours and the response will begin to subside after
that. A positive reaction to PPD is not a positive indication that the client is infectious.

93. Community organization is a continuous and sustained process of the following, except:
A. Educating C. Mobilizing
B. Implementing D. Organizing
Answer: B
Rationale: Community organizing is a continuous and sustained process of Educating the people to understand
and develop their critical consciousness of their existing conditions, Organizing the people to work effectively
and efficiently on their immediate and long term problems and Mobilizing them to develop their own
capability and readiness to respond and take action on their immediate and long term problems.

94. Tina, is reviewing her CHN notes and knows that the problem-solving approach whereby the community is
empowered with knowledge and skills to identify and prioritize its needs and problems, harness its resources
to deal with the problems and take actions is referred as?
A. Community Awareness C. Community organizing
B. Active community participation D. Community health nursin

Answer: C
Rationale: The definition of Community organizing – “Community organization is a problem solving approach
whereby the community is empowered with knowledge and skills to identify and prioritize its needs and
problems, harness its resources to deal with the problems and take actions (CSWD-UP, 1987)”

95. The acronym FHSIS stands for?

A. Field Health Service Information System
B. Field Health Service Integrated Science
C. Form Health Service Integrated System
D. Family Health Service Information Sector
Answer: A
Rationale: FHSIS or Field Health Service Information System, is a major component of the network information
sources developed by the Department of Health (DOH) to enable it to better manage in nationwide health
service delivery activities.

96. Components of the FHSIS are the following. Which one is not included?
 A. Individual/Family treatment records C. Output reports
B. Input reports D. Reporting Forms
Answer: B
Rationale: Components of FHSIS include: Individual/Family treatment records, Output reports, Reporting
Forms and Target/client lists.

97. Objectives of the expanded garantisadong pambata is to contribute to the reduction of infant and child
morbidity and mortality towards the attainment of which of the following MDGs?
A. 7 and 8 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 6 D. 3 and 5
Answer: B
Rationale: Objectives of the expanded GP are to contribute to the reduction of infant and child morbidity and
mortality towards the attainment of MDG 1 and 4 and to ensure that all Filipino children, especially the
disadvantaged group (GIDA), have equitable access to affordable health, nutrition and environment care.

98. The sick young infant has a red umbilicus and is classified as having a local bacterial infection. The infant is
given antibiotics and advised the mother to bring back the child to the health center in:
A. 4 days B. Next day C. 2 days D. 7 days
Answer: C
Rationale: The child with a local bacterial infection is given antibiotics to be taken for 5 days and advised to
follow up in 2 days.

99. Nurse Edgardo saw a mother breastfeeding a sick young infant during the consultation day of the health
center. Nurse Edgardo identifies the 4 signs of good and effective breast feeding. This comprises of the
following, except:
A. Chin touching the breast C. Mouth wide open
B. Lower lip turned outward D. More areola visible below than above

Answer: D
Rationale: More areola must be visible below than upward is the correct way coupled with the other 3
options. If all of the four signs are present, the infant has good attachment when breastfeeding.

100.The young infant is found to have a low weight for age. The nurse taught the mother the proper way of
breastfeeding and advised to breastfeed as often and for as long as the infant wants day and night. Follow up
for low weight should be:
A. In 2 days C. In 7 days
B. In 14 days D. in 30 days
Answer: B
Rationale: Since weight is the only problem with the child, the child is classified under FEEDING PROBLEM OR
LOW WEIGHT. Follow-up any feeding problem or thrush in 2 days. Follow-up low weight for age in 14 days.