Test Bank For Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry Seventh Edition
Test Bank For Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry Seventh Edition
Test Bank For Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry Seventh Edition
6. The bacterium E. coli requires simple organic molecules for growth and energy—it is
therefore a:
A) chemoautotroph.
B) chemoheterotroph.
C) lithotroph.
D) photoautotroph.
E) photoheterotroph.
8. Which list has the cellular components arranged in order of INCREASING size?
A) amino acid < protein < mitochondrion < ribosome
B) amino acid < protein < ribosome < mitochondrion
C) amino acid < ribosome < protein < mitochondrion
D) protein < amino acid < mitochondrion < ribosome
E) protein < ribosome < mitochondrion < amino acid
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10. Which element is NOT among the four most abundant in living organisms?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
E) phosphorus
11. The four covalent bonds in methane (CH4) are arranged around carbon to give which
geometry?
A) linear
B) tetrahedral
C) trigonal bipyramidal
D) trigonal planar
E) trigonal pyramidal
13. The macromolecules that serve in the storage and transmission of genetic information
are:
A) carbohydrates.
B) lipids.
C) membranes.
D) nucleic acids.
E) proteins.
14. Stereoisomers that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other are known as:
A) anomers.
B) cis-trans isomers.
C) diastereoisomers.
D) enantiomers.
E) geometric isomers.
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15. The catalog of all proteins functioning in a cell is the:
A) metabolome.
B) proteasome.
C) lysosome.
D) proteome.
E) genome.
17. The enzyme fumarase catalyzes the reversible hydration of fumaric acid to l-malate, but
it will not catalyze the hydration of maleic acid, the cis isomer of fumaric acid. This is
an example of:
A) biological activity.
B) chiral activity.
C) racemization.
D) stereoisomerization.
E) stereospecificity.
18. Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and
degrading it. This is an example of a(n):
A) dynamic steady state.
B) equilibrium state.
C) exergonic change.
D) free-energy change.
E) waste of energy.
19. If heat energy is absorbed by the system during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said
to be:
A) at equilibrium.
B) endergonic.
C) endothermic.
D) exergonic.
E) exothermic.
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20. If the free energy change G for a reaction is –46.11 kJ/mol, the reaction is:
A) at equilibrium.
B) endergonic.
C) endothermic.
D) exergonic.
E) exothermic.
22. Enzymes are biological catalysts that enhance the rate of a reaction by:
A) decreasing the activation energy.
B) decreasing the amount of free energy released.
C) increasing the activation energy.
D) increasing the amount of free energy released.
E) increasing the energy of the transition state.
23. Energy requiring metabolic pathways that yield complex molecules from simpler
precursors are:
A) amphibolic.
B) anabolic.
C) autotrophic.
D) catabolic.
E) heterotrophic.
24. Hereditary information (with the exception of some viruses) is preserved in:
A) deoxyribonucleic acid.
B) membrane structures.
C) nuclei.
D) polysaccharides.
E) ribonucleic acid.
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25. When a region of DNA must be repaired by removing and replacing some of the
nucleotides, what ensures that the new nucleotides are in the correct sequence?
A) DNA cannot be repaired and this explains why mutations occur.
B) Specific enzymes bind the correct nucleotides.
C) The new nucleotides base pair accurately with those on the complementary strand.
D) The repair enzyme recognizes the removed nucleotide and brings in an identical
one to replace it.
E) The three-dimensional structure determines the order of nucleotides.
27. According to Oparin's theory for the origin of life, the prebiotic atmosphere:
A) already contained some primitive RNA molecules.
B) basically was very similar to the atmosphere of today.
C) contained many amino acids.
D) had an abundance of methane, ammonia, and water.
E) was rich in oxygen.
28. When two genes in an organism share detectable sequence similarity, those genes or
their gene products, are said to be:
A) homologues.
B) orthologues.
C) paralogues.
D) both homologues and orthologues.
E) both homologues and paralogues.
F) both orthologues and paralogues.
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30. Which organic molecules can be considered “alive”?
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) nucleic acids
D) saccharides
E) None of the answers is correct.
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35. Which statement is FALSE regarding bacterial and archaeal cells?
A) Archaeal and bacterial plasma membranes consist of a thin bilayer of lipid
molecules penetrated by proteins.
B) Bacteria and archaea have group specific specializations in their cell envelope.
C) Archaea can have a single- or double-layered membrane.
D) Bacteria can have a single- or double-layered membrane.
E) Both bacteria and archaea have a layer of peptidoglycan in their cell envelope.
39. Which reason is MOST probable for why carbon is used in living organisms but not
silicon?
A) Carbon can make four bonds, whereas silicon can only make three.
B) Carbon can make double bonds, but silicon cannot.
C) Carbon can form more preferred geometries when bonding.
D) Carbon is lighter, and therefore its bonds are stronger.
E) Silicon is heavier, and therefore its bonds are stronger.
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40. Which group includes the four most abundant elements in living organisms?
A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, iron
B) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
C) carbon, hydrogen, phosphorous, oxygen
D) carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous, oxygen
E) carbon, hydrogen, sulfur, oxygen
41. What did Jacques Monod mean when he wrote, “What is true of E. coli is true of the
elephant?”
A) Bacterial cells are identical to animal cells.
B) Bacterial cells can synthesize ivory under certain conditions.
C) Bacterial cells contain a chromosome similar to animal cells.
D) Bacterial cells contain enzymes similar to those found in animal cells.
E) Bacterial cells contain molecules with complexity similar to molecules found in in
the “mineral world.”
42. Which ranking CORRECTLY describes the rigidity of the red bond (the central bond)
shown in the figure?
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43. Which choice CORRECTLY lists the molecular masses from smallest to largest?
A) 18 kDa < 15,000 Da < 15,100 amu < 1.8 MDa < 1.8 mDa
B) 1.8 mDa < 15,000 Da < 15,100 amu <18 kDa < 1.8 MDa
C) 1.8 MDa < 15,000 Da < 15,100 amu <18 kDa < 1.8 mDa
D) 1.8 mDa < 15,100 amu < 15,000 Da <18 kDa < 1.8 MDa
E) 1.8 MDa < 18 kDa < 15,100 amu < 1.8 mDa <15,000 Da
45. Which list of descriptive terms for biological molecules is placed in CORRECT order
from smallest to largest?
A) monomer, oligomer, polymer
B) monomer, multimer, macromer
C) oligomer, monomer, polymer
D) polymer, oligomer, monomer
E) metamer, oligomer, polymer
46. Which answer choice represents the LARGEST percentage, by weight, of an E. coli
cell?
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) protein
D) lipids
E) water
47. Which discipline uses an approach that tries to integrate information to give a molecular
picture of all the activities of a cell under certain conditions?
A) metabolomics
B) genomics
C) systems biology
D) proteomics
E) lipidomics
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48. If a scientist wanted to know whether a particular hydrocarbon was in use in a cell's
plasma membrane, they could search the organism's:
A) metabolome.
B) lipidome.
C) glycome.
D) proteome.
E) genome.
50. What is the CORRECT name for the configuration of the molecule shown in the figure?
A) orthogonal
B) trans
C) cis
D) zis
E) chiros
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51. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the molecules shown in the figure?
54. Living cells produce only one chiral form of a biomolecule because:
A) biomolecules, by definition, can exist as only one chiral form.
B) living cells can only create L isomers.
C) living cells choose to express only the correct isomer.
D) living cells have enzymes that are also chiral.
E) living cells can produce the opposite chiral form only under certain metabolic
conditions.
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55. Which statement about living systems is NOT true?
A) Living organisms can be described as an open system.
B) Living systems maintain a more-or-less constant composition.
C) Living systems are in equilibrium with their surroundings.
D) Living systems exist in a dynamic steady-state.
E) Living systems have efficient mechanisms to convert chemical energy from one
form into another.
57. An increase in the entropy of a system can be described as an increase in the total
amount of _____ of a system.
A) kinetic energy
B) potential energy
C) oxidative energy
D) disorder
E) order
58. In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the oxidized reagent _____, and the reduced reagent
_____.
A) is energized; is deenergized
B) is deenergized; is energized
C) loses electrons; gains electrons
D) gains electrons; loses electrons
E) maintains the same number of electrons; loses electrons
59. The joining of two amino acids via a peptide bond (the process of protein synthesis) has
a positive G value. What does this imply?
A) Forming a peptide bond is endergonic and must be coupled to another reaction.
B) Forming a peptide bond is exergonic and must be coupled to another reaction.
C) Forming a peptide bond is spontaneous and does not need to be coupled to another
reaction.
D) Forming a peptide bond is spontaneous and can sometimes be coupled to another
reaction.
E) Forming a peptide bond increases the entropy of a system.
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60. Reaction 1 has a G° of –12.3 kJ/mol, and Reaction 2 has a G° of 23.4 kJ/mol. Which
statement is TRUE of these two reactions?
A) Reaction 1 occurs faster.
B) Reaction 2 occurs faster.
C) Both reactions occur at the same rate.
D) Reaction 2 will not occur.
E) It is impossible to know which reaction occurs faster with this information.
61. Fructose-1-phosphate can be hydrolyzed into fructose + inorganic phosphate (Pi) with a
G° of –16.0 kJ/mol. If ATP can be hydrolyzed into ADP + Pi with a G° of –30.5
kJ/mol, what is the free energy change for the reaction of fructose + ATP fructose 1-
phospate + ADP?
A) –46.5 kJ/mol
B) –14.5 kJ/mol
C) 46.5 kJ/mol
D) 14.5 kJ/mol
E) –1.4 Genetic Foundations5 kJ/mol
62. In general, increasing the temperature of a reaction will have what effect, based on the
relationship between standard free energy change and the equilibrium constant?
A) The reaction will be inhibited.
B) The reaction will go faster.
C) The reaction will become more spontaneous.
D) The reaction will become less spontaneous.
E) There will be no effect on the reaction.
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64. The diagram below is a generic example of what process?
A) systems biology
B) feedback inhibition
C) positive feedback
D) equilibrium
E) catabolism
65. In double-stranded DNA, the two strands are held together by _____ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) polypeptide
D) hydrogen
E) phosphodiester
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68. The similarities of gene sequences and metabolic pathways across the three domains of
life are evidence for:
A) evolution.
B) a common ancestor.
C) cross-species genetic transfer.
D) both evolution and a common ancestor.
E) both a common ancestor and cross-species genetic transfer.
70. When Stanley Miller, in Harold Urey's laboratory, subjected a gaseous mixture
mimicking the prebiotic atmosphere on Earth to electrical sparks, he found that _____
were formed.
A) amino acids
B) aldehydes
C) ribonucleotides
D) both amino acids and aldehydes
E) amino acids, aldehydes, and ribonucleotides
71. Which present-day observable piece of evidence supports the “RNA world” hypothesis?
A) RNA molecules participate in biologically significant reactions.
B) RNA can serve as an information-carrying molecule.
C) RNA nucleotides catalyze peptide bond formation.
D) RNA molecules participate in biologically significant reactions, and RNA
nucleotides catalyze peptide bond formation.
E) RNA molecules participate in biologically significant reactions, RNA can serve as
an information-carrying molecule, and RNA nucleotides catalyze peptide bond
formation.
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72. Which statement is NOT true about the formation of early organisms?
A) The first organisms were anaerobic because the atmosphere was devoid of oxygen.
B) The original electron donor for photosynthetic processes was probably H2S.
C) Oxygen, a powerful oxidant, was probably welcomed by anaerobic organisms as a
preferable choice for metabolic reactions.
D) The transfer of electrons to O2 releases more energy than transferring electrons to
SO42–
E) Cyanobacteria are modern descendants of early photosynthetic oxygen-producers.
75. The _____ of homologous proteins can be used to estimate the degree of evolutionary
divergence.
A) three-dimensional structure
B) expression profiles
C) sequence similarity
D) endosymbiotic nature
E) chromosomes
76. _____ are typically expressed under all conditions and are not subject to regulation.
A) Housekeeping genes
B) Homologous genes
C) Bacterial genomes
D) Eukaryotic genomes
E) Endosymbiotic genes
77. What six characteristics distinguish living organisms from inanimate objects?
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78. All cells are surrounded by a plasma membrane composed of lipid and protein
molecules. What is the function of the plasma membrane?
79. E. coli is known as a gram-negative bacterial species. (a) How is this determined? (b)
How do gram-negative bacteria differ structurally from gram-positive bacteria?
80. Most cells of higher plants have a cell wall outside the plasma membrane. What is the
function of the cell wall?
81. List the types of noncovalent interactions that are important in providing stability to the
three-dimensional structures of macromolecules. (b) Why is it important that these
interactions be noncovalent, rather than covalent, bonds?
83. Provide a brief explanation for the observation that macromolecules diffuse at a slower
rate in the cytosol than they do in dilute solution.
84. Draw the structures of the following functional groups in their un-ionized forms:
(a) hydroxyl, (b) carboxyl, (c) amino, (d) phosphoryl.
85. What is the underlying, organizing biochemical principle that results in the chemical
similarity of virtually all living things? Given this biochemical similarity, how is the
structural and functional diversity of living things possible?
87. Name two functions of (a) proteins, (b) nucleic acids, (c) polysaccharides, (d) lipids.
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90. What is optical activity? (b) How did Louis Pasteur arrive at an explanation for the
phenomenon of optical activity?
92. Explain why living organisms are able to produce particular chiral forms of different
biomolceules while laboratory chemical synthesis usually produces a racemic mixture.
93. Proteins are constantly being synthesized in a living cell. Why doesn't the number of
protein molecules become too great for the cell to contain, leading to cell destruction?
94. Describe the relationship between a living organism and its surroundings in terms of
both matter and energy.
95. The free-energy change for the formation of a protein from the individual amino acids is
positive and is thus an endergonic reaction. How, then, do cells accomplish this process?
96. Instant cold packs get cold when the contents, usually solid urea and liquid water, are
mixed, producing an aqueous solution of urea. Although this process is clearly
spontaneous, the products are colder than the reactants. Explain how this is possible in
terms of the difference between G and H.
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97. (a) On the reaction coordinate diagram shown below, label the transition state and the
overall free-energy change (G) for the uncatalyzed reaction A B. (b) Is this an
exergonic or endergonic reaction? (c) Draw a second curve showing the energetics of
the reaction if it were enzyme-catalyzed.
98. What is meant by feedback inhibition and why is it important in a living organism?
99. How is the genetic information encoded in DNA and how is a new copy of DNA
synthesized?
104. Describe how the rise of O2-producing bacteria might have led to the eventual
predominance of aerobic organisms on earth.
105. What is meant by endosymbiotic association? How can this concept explain the
evolution of eukaryotic cells that are capable of carrying out photosynthesis and/or
aerobic metabolism?
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106. List and explain the factors that limit the dimensions of living cells on both the lower
and upper limits.
108. A) What is the diagram below? B) Describe what it illustrates about the relationship
between animals, halophiles, slime molds, and gram-positive bacteria. C) Explain the
evidence used in construction of this diagram.
109. What is meant by the term “in vitro”? What are the challenges and benefits to studying
enzymes “in vitro”?
110. Why is the use of the expression “Mr = 18,000 daltons” incorrect?
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Answer Key
1. C
2. E
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. E
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. E
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. E
27. D
28. E
29. D
30. E
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. B
41. D
42. C
43. B
44. A
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45. A
46. E
47. C
48. B
49. E
50. C
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. D
55. C
56. E
57. D
58. C
59. A
60. E
61. B
62. C
63. A
64. B
65. D
66. A
67. E
68. D
69. E
70. D
71. E
72. C
73. B
74. C
75. D
76. A
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
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91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
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