Professional Documents
Culture Documents
B9-Clj-Bet (500 Items) With Answer
B9-Clj-Bet (500 Items) With Answer
18. Enrico went to a nearby videoke bar to buy cigarettes. 28. Kokey claims that the death of Harold was an accident
Once inside the bar, he was stabbed by Simon on his body. When and his act was just for self-defense when his revolver accidentally
Enrico was rushed to the hospital, he was treated and the doctor hit the victim while he was struggling the same with his real
testified that the injury suffered by Enrico was fatal and would enemy, Jade. Is his contention correct?
cause his death were it not for the timely medical attention given a. Yes, Kokey can invoke self-defense
to him. Is Simon liable? b. No, this is aberratio ictus
a. No c. No, this is error in personae
b. Yes for frustrated murder d. No, this is praeter intentionem
c. Yes for frustrated homicide
d. Yes for serious physical injuries
29. What does the law require on the weapons used by the
one defending himself?
19. Jade, a doctor, conceived the idea of killing his wife, a. Perfect equality
Betty. To carry out his plan, he mixed arsenic with the soup of b. Rational Equivalence
Betty. Soon after taking the poisonous food, Jade suddenly had a c. Almost the same
change of heart and washed out the stomach of Betty. Jade also d. It depends on the situation
gave Betty an antidote. Is Jade liable?
a. No 30. It is a rule which does not require a person, who is
b. Yes, for frustrated parricide where he has a right to be, to retreat in the face of a rapidly
c. Yes, for frustrated murder advancing attacker threatening him with a deadly weapon, but
d. Yes, for physical injuries entitles him to do whatever he believes is necessary to protect
himself from great bodily harm.
20. The essence of the crime is sexual congress. a. Stand ground when in the right doctrine
a. Rape b. Retreat to the wall doctrine
b. Corruption of public officers c. Self-defense
c. Physical injury d. Right of self-preservation
d. Adultery
31. To be classified as a battered woman, the couple must
21. It is also known as a moving crime. go through the battering cycle at least
a. Complex crime a. Once
b. Compound Crime b. Twice
c. Continuous Crime c. Thrice
d. Transitory Crime d. Multiple Times
24. It has the effect of an exempting circumstance as it is 34. What is the basis for exemption from criminal liability in
predicated on lack of voluntariness. insanity/imbecility?
a. Absolutory cause a. Lack of intelligence
b. Extenuating circumstance b. Lack of criminal intent
c. Justifying circumstance c. Lack of freedom
d. Alternative circumstance d. All of the above
25. Who has the burden of evidence of proving the 35. What is the basis for exemption from criminal liability
existence of justifying circumstances? of the accused when he was prevented by some lawful or
a. Prosecution insuperable cause?
b. Accused a. Lack of intelligence
c. Witness b. Lack of criminal intent
d. Court c. Lack of freedom
d. All of the above
26. When pleading self-defense, the burden to prove guilt
beyond reasonable doubt is on the shoulders of: 36. In compulsion of irresistible force, compulsion is by
a. Accused means of:
b. State a. Physical fear
c. Witness b. Physical force
d. Court c. Intimidation
d. Threats
39. In case of concealing dishonor by a pregnant woman in 50. The first crime in 1975 was serious physical injuries, the
abortion, the imposable penalty is lowered by: second crime in 2004 was murder. This is:
a. 1 degree lower a. Recidivism
b. 2 degrees lower b. Quasi-Recidivism
c. 3 degrees lower c. Reiteracion
d. By period only d. Habitual Delinquency
40. If the offender is over 70 years of age, the effect on 51. Enrico followed the unsuspecting victim, Simon when
criminal liability is: he was going home and thereafter, deliberately stabbed him in
a. Exempting Circumstance the back which resulted in Simon falling to the ground wand was
b. Full Criminal Responsibility thereby further attacked by Enrico. In this case, there is?
c. Alternative Circumstance a. Aid of armed men
d. Mitigating Circumstance b. Nighttime
c. Means to weaken the defense
41. What is the effect of senility? d. Treachery
a. Exempting Circumstance
b. Full Criminal Responsibility 52. In which of the following crimes, ignominy is
c. Alternative Circumstance applicable?
d. Mitigating Circumstance a. Crimes against chastity
b. Less serious physical injuries
42. What is the effect of Senile Dementia? c. Light or Grave Coercion
a. Exempting Circumstance d. All of the above
b. Full Criminal Responsibility
c. Alternative Circumstance 53. A positive finding for the use of dangerous drugs shall
d. Mitigating Circumstance be a:
a. Qualifying aggravating circumstance
43. The accused escapes from the scene of the crime in b. Special aggravating circumstance
order to seek advice from a lawyer, and the latter ordered him to c. Specific aggravating circumstance
surrender voluntarily to the authorities, which the accused d. Inherent aggravating circumstance
followed by surrendering himself to the municipal mayor. Here:
a. The surrender is no longer mitigating 54. A first time minor offender under RA 9165, in lieu of
b. The surrender is mitigating imprisonment, may be granted:
c. It depends on the appreciation of the Court a. probation even if the sentence provided under the said
d. Any of the above law is higher than that provided under existing law on probation
b. community service
44. Plea of guilty to a lesser offense is also known as: c. probation provided only if the penalty does not exceed
a. Conditional plea 6 years;
b. Absolute plea d. both a and b
c. Qualified plea
d. Disqualified plea 55. The passive subject in the commission of a crime.
a. Criminal
45. Suppose Kokey is deaf and dumb and he has been b. Injured party
slandered, he cannot talk so what he did was he got a piece of c. Witness
wood and struck the fellow on the head. Kokey was charged with d. Fiscal
physical injuries. Here:
a. Kokey is not entitled to a mitigating circumstance 56. Where there is conspiracy, the act of one is the act of
b. Kokey is entitled to a mitigating circumstance all. This refers to:
c. A maximum penalty will be imposed upon Kokey a. Individual criminal responsibility
d. Kokey will be entitled to alternative circumstances b. Quasi-collective criminal responsibility
c. Collective criminal responsibility
46. Those that generally apply to almost all crimes. d. Conspiracy
a. Specific
b. Qualifying 57. An accomplice is known as:
c. Special a. Accessory before the fact
d. Generic b. Accessory after the fact
c. Accessory during the fact
47. Those that must of necessity accompany the d. Accessory before and simultaneous the fact
commission of the crime.
a. Specific
63. Under Art. 9 (3), if the fine by the law for a felony is 73. Costs in case of conviction are chargeable against:
exactly PhP40,000, it is a: a. Accused
a. Light felony b. Private complainant
b. Light penalty c. Both parties
c. Less grave felony d. Court
d. Less grave penalty
74. Costs in case of acquittal are chargeable against:
64. Destierro can be imposed in the following cases except: a. Accused
a. As a penalty for the concubine in concubinage b. Private complainant
b. In cases where after reducing the penalty by 1 or more c. Both parties
degrees, destierro is the proper penalty d. Court
c. In the crime of grave threat or light threat, when the
offender is required to put up a bond for good behavior but failed 75. Probation is a mere privilege and its grant rest solely
or refused to do so. upon the discretion of the ______.
d. In less serious physical injuries under a. Court
exceptional circumstances b. Prosecution
c. Supreme Court
d. Parole and Probation Administration
65. Credit for preventive imprisonment for the penalty of
reclusion perpetua shall be deducted from: 76. When a judgment of conviction imposing a non-
a. 20 years probationable penalty is appealed or reviewed in the Court
b. 30 years Appeals and such judgment is modified through the imposition of
c. 40 years a probationable penalty, the defendant shall be allowed to apply
d. Upon conviction for probation based on the modified decision before such decision
becomes final. The application for probation based on the
66. In case the maximum penalty to which the accused may modified decision shall be filed in the:
be sentenced is destierro, he shall be release after ___ days of a. CA
preventive imprisonment. b. SC
a. 20 c. RTC
b. 30 d. MTC
c. 60
d. 181 77. The period of probation of a defendant sentenced to a
term of imprisonment of not more than one year shall not exceed:
67. A child in conflict with the law shall be credited in the a. 1 year
services of his/her sentence with the _______ spent in the actual b. 2 years
commitment and detention. c. 3 years
a. 4/5 d. 6 years
b. Full time
c. 1/5
100. What crime is committed by creating noise and 10. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the
annoyance that is directed to a particular person or a family? Child was adopted in the year:
a. Alarms and scandal a. 1989
b. Unjust vexation b. 1990
c. Charivari c. 1991
d. Disturbance d. 1992
21. What is the proper penalty to be imposed? 31. Number of circumstance/s necessary to qualify
a. Penalty for the actual crime committed homicide to murder:
b. Penalty for the intended crime a. 1
c. Penalty for the lesser offense in its maximum b. 2
period c. 3
d. Penalty for the actual crime committed in its maximum d. 4
period
32. A killed by B by stabbing B in the heart which resulted
22. Suppose Kokey killed his brother who is 3 days old, to B’s death. The witness is the wife of the victim, who said that
what crime is committed? a day prior to the killing, A threatened B. What crime is
a. Parricide committed?
b. Murder a. Murder
c. Homicide b. Homicide
d. Infanticide c. Parricide
d. No crime
23. Suppose a husband, who wanted to kill his sick wife,
hired a killer. The hired killer shot the wife. What crime is 33. If A would shoot B at one of his feet, at a distance of
committed by the husband? one meter, there is no intent to kill. If B is hit, the crime is:
a. Murder a. Physical Injuries
b. Homicide b. Discharge of firearms
c. Parricide c. Attempted Homicide
d. No Crime d. Attempted Murder
24. What is the liability of the husband? 34. Suppose B was not hit, the crime is:
a. Principal by direct participation a. Physical Injuries
b. Principal by Inducement b. Discharge of firearms
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation c. Attempted Homicide
d. Accomplice d. Attempted Murder
25. What is the crime committed by the hired killer? 35. X, a pharmacist, compounded and prepared the
a. Murder medicine on prescription by a doctor. X erroneously used a highly
b. Homicide poisonous substance. When taken by the patient, the latter nearly
c. Parricide died. What crime, if any, is committed?
d. No Crime a. Frustrated homicide through reckless imprudence
b. Homicide through reckless imprudence
26. What is the liability of the hired killer? c. Physical injuries through reckless imprudence
a. Principal by direct participation d. Any of the above depending on the circumstance
b. Principal by Inducement
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation 36. Use of unlicensed firearms in committing murder or
d. Accomplice homicide is:
a. Qualifies the killing to murder
26. The child killed by his parent must be at least? b. Separate crime
a. Less than 3 days c. An aggravating circumstance
b. 3 days d. Any of the above
c. Less than 12 days
d. 5 days old 37. Corpus delicti in crimes against persons may be proven
by:
27. In this crime, the basis is the age of the child-victim. a. Credible testimony of a sole witness
a. Parricide b. Physical evidence
b. murder c. Physical body of the deceased
c. Homicide d. The ashes of a burned building
d. Infanticide
38. It is the practice of painlessly putting to death a person
28. The accused was shocked to discover his wife and their suffering from some incurable disease.
driver sleeping in the master’s bedroom. Outraged, the accused a. Giving assistance to suicide
41. In discharge of firearm, there is a complex crime if: 52. Suppose the pregnant woman employed violence to herself
a. The injuries sustained by the offended party is serious specifically calculated to bring about abortion, what crime is
b. The injuries sustained by the offended party is less committed?
serious a. intentional abortion
c. The injuries sustained by the offended party is slight b. unintentional abortion
d. Both a and b c. abortion
d. suicide
42. Killing of a child less than 3 days old by a legitimate 53. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a pregnant woman who
grandparent is: tried to commit suicide by poison, but she did not die and the
a. Murder fetus in her womb was expelled instead?
b. Parricide a. no crime
c. Infanticide b. intentional abortion
d. Homicide c. unintentional abortion
d. suicide
43. In relation to the preceding question, what is the proper
penalty? 54. It is an abortion caused by a physician to save the life of a
a. penalty for infanticide mother.
b. penalty for murder a. Abortion practiced by a physician
c. penalty for parricide b. Abortion practiced by a midwife
d. penalty for homicide c. Therapeutic abortion
d. Dispensing of abortives
44. Killing of a child less than 72 hours by a neighbor is:
a. Murder
b. Parricide 55. If the pharmacist knew that the abortive would be used to
c. Infanticide cause an abortion and abortion resulted from the use thereof, the
d. Homicide pharmacist is a/an _______ in the crime of abortion.
a. accomplice
45. In relation to the preceding question, what is the proper b. accessory
penalty? c. principal by indispensable cooperation
a. penalty for infanticide d. principal by inducement
b. penalty for murder
c. penalty for parricide 56. Once physical injuries resulted to deformity, it is classified as:
d. penalty for homicide a. slight physical injuries
b. less serious physical injuries
46. When infanticide is committed? c. serious physical injuries
a. If the child is born dead d. mutilation
b. If the child is already dead
c. If the child is born alive, it could not sustain an 57. It refers to rape committed by an ascendant of the offended
independent life when it was killed woman.
d. none of the above a. Statutory rape
b. marital rape
47. Suppose the child less than 3 days old is abandoned without c. Incestous rape
any intent to kill and death results, what crime is committed? d. Sexual assault
a. Infanticide
b. Abandoning a minor 58. If a woman is carried away just to break her will to compel
c. parricide her to agree to demand or request by the offender.
d. murder a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
48. Abortion is a crime against the: c. Forcible abduction
a. woman d. Rape through forcible abduction
b. fetus
c. woman and fetus 59. If a woman is transported just to restrain her liberty.
d. family a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
49. Suppose the mother as a consequence of abortion suffers c. Forcible abduction
death, what crime is committed? d. Rape through forcible abduction
a. murder
b. homicide
c. murder with abortion
62. Isagani lost his gold necklace bearing his initials. He saw Roy 71. Bigamy is an offense against civil status which may be
wearing the said necklace. Isagani asked Roy to return to him the prosecuted only at the instance of:
necklace as it belongs to him, but Roy refused. Isagani then drew a. the State
his gun and told Roy, “If you will not give back the necklace to b. the offended party
me, I will kill you!” Out of fear for his life and against his will, Roy c. grandparents
gave the necklace to Isagani. What crime did Isagani commit? d. parents
A. Grave threats
B. Grave coercion 72. Concubinage is an offense against chastity which may be
c. Impossible crime prosecuted only at the instance of:
d. Robbery a. the State
b. the offended party
63. If by means of violence, the property is applied to the debt. c. grandparents
a. Grave coercion d. parents
b. Light coercion
c. Robbery 73. Premature marriages was decriminalized by:
d. estafa a. R.A. 10655
b. R.A. 10566
64. If there is no obligation on the part of the offended party but c. R.A. 10656
was only feigned. d. R.A. 10556
a. Grave coercion
b. Light coercion 74. This states that the contributory negligence of the party
c. Robbery injured will not defeat the action if it be shown that the accused
d. estafa might, by the exercise of reasonable care and prudence, have
avoided the consequences of the negligence of the injured party.
65. If the value of the property seized is greater than that of the a. Doctrine of last clear chance
debt and violence and intimidation are employed. b. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
. Grave coercion c. Emergency Rule
b. Light coercion d. any of the above
c. Robbery
d. estafa 75. There is no direct filing in which of the following courts?
a. MeTC
66. Suppose a gang robbed a mansion in Forbes Park. On the b. MCTC
occasion of the robbery, physical injuries were inflicted on the c. MTCC
household members. The robbers also detained the children to d. RTC
compel their parents to come out with the money. What crime/s
was/were committed? 76. As a general rule, a complaint or information must charge only
A. robbery with serious physical injuries one offense except:
B. serious illegal detention a. complex crimes
C. Robbery and serious physical injuries b. special complex crimes
D. Robbery with serious physical injuries and serious c. continuous crime
illegal detention d. all of the above
86. The party aggrieved by a resolution of the Secretary of Justice 96. In granting bail in extradition cases, the required proof of
may file a Motion for Reconsideration within a non-extendible evidence is:
period of ____ form receipt of the resolution on appeal. a. clear and convincing evidence
a . 5 days b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. 10 days c. preponderance of evidence
c. 15 days d. substantial evidence
d. 30 days
97. Bail in deportation proceedings is wholly:
87. The decision of the DOJ Secretary is appealable to the: a. mandatory
a. Court of Appeals b. necessary
b. Supreme Court c. discretionary
c. RTC d. not mandatory
d. Office of the President
98. Remedy of the accused when bail is denied by the trial court.
88. The decision of the Office of the President is appealable to a. motion for reconsideration
the: b. appeal
a. Court of Appeals c. petition for certiorari
b. Supreme Court d. petition for habeas corpus
c. RTC
d. MeTC 99. An order denying a petition for bail is:
a. a final order
89. Should the information be already filed in court but the b. an interlocutory order
accused filed a petition for review of the findings of the c. a mittimus
prosecutors with the DOJ, the Court is bound to suspend the d. a commitment order
arraignment of the accused for a period not exceeding _______:
a. 30 days 100. It is a writ issued directly by a judge to a law enforcer, for
b. 60 days the arrest of a person who has been held in contempt, has
c. 6 months disobeyed a subpoena, or has to appear at a hearing or trial.
d. 12 months a. bench warrant
b. warrant of arrest
30. Its purpose is to elicit facts about the client’s cause of 41. A verified petition for a Writ of Kalikasan may be filed
action or defense. with the:
a. Direct examination a. SC
b. Cross examination b. CA
c. Re-direct examination c. RTC
d. Re-cross examination d. Only SC and CA
31. It is known as the examination-in-chief of a witness. 42. It can be invoked when the right to life, liberty or
a. Direct examination security of a person is violated or threatened with violation by an
b. Cross examination unlawful act of a public official or employee or of a private
c. Re-direct examination individual or entity.
d. Re-cross examination a. Writ of Kalikasan
b. Writ of Amparo
32. It restricts cross-examination to facts and c. Writ of Habeas Data
circumstances which are connected with the matters that have d. Writ of Habeas Corpus
been stated in the direct examination.
a. English Rule 43. Its principal purpose is to set the individual at liberty.
b. French rule a. Writ of Kalikasan
c. American rule b. Writ of Amparo
d. Japanese rule c. Writ of Habeas Data
d. Writ of Habeas Corpus
33. The Rule on Examination of Child Witness shall govern
the examination of a child witness in all criminal and non-criminal 44. It is a remedy available to any person whose right to
proceedings of a child who is: privacy in life, liberty or security is violated or threatened by an
a. Victim unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee, or of a
b. Accused private individual or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or
45. According to the Universal Declaration of Human 56. How many members are there in the UN Human Rights
Rights, there are ___ basic human rights. Council?
a. 10 a. 43
b. 30 b. 44
c. 50 c. 46
d. 100 d. 47
46. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed 57. How many States comprise the United Nations?
by the: a. 191
a. UN Security Council b. 192
b. UN General Assembly c. 193
c. UNICEF d. 194
d. UNCRC
58. How many countries are non-member observer States?
47. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed a. 2
on: b. 3
a. December 10, 1938 c. 4
b. December 10, 1948 d. 5
c. December 10, 1958
d. December 10, 1968 59. Which country has been supended from the UN Human
Rights Council?
48. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed a. Ukraine
in: b. Russia
a. New York, USA c. Israel
b. London, UK d. Palestine
c. Paris, France
d. Berlin, Germany 60. UNHRC’s headquarters is located in:
a. New York, USA
49. The Commission on Human Rights was formed on b. Geneva, Switzerland
____. c. Paris, France
a. May 5, 1987 d. Berlin, Germany
b. May 5, 1986
c. May 5, 1988 61. It is the body of knowledge regarding crime as a social
d. May 5, 1989 phenomenon.
a. Criminology
50. The Commission on Human Rights was first founded b. Sociology
and led by Chairman: c. Law Enforcement
a. Luis B. Reyes d. Criminalistics
b. Manuel Roxas
c. Jose W. Diokno 62. Simply means giving everyone his due.
d. Jose Abad Santos a. Justice
b. Moral
51. The Commission on Human Rights was formed by virtue c. Legal
of d. Law
a. Executive Order No. 163
b. Executive Order No. 164 63. Who promulgates procedural laws?
c. Executive Order No. 165 a. CA
d. Executive Order No. 166 b. Congress
c. DOJ
52. The Commission on Human Rights shall be composed d. SC
of a:
a. Chairman and 4 Members 64. It is known as prime mover in CJS.
b. Chairman and 6 members a. Prosecution
c. Chairman and 2 members b. Court
d. Chairman and 14 Members c. Community
d. Law enforcement
53. As to age requirement, members of the Commission on
Human Rights must be at least ______ years of age. 65. The PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998.
a. 30 a. RA 6975
b. 35 b. RA 8551
c. 40 c. RA 9708
d. 45 d. RA 9262
54. Who is the current Secretary-General of the United 66. The legal term for criminal apprehension is:
Nations? a. Voluntary surrender
a. Antonio Guterres b. Arrest
b. Ban Ki-moon c. Arraignment
c. Kofi Annan d. Search
d. Boutros Boutros-Ghali
67. The law which created NBI.
a. CA No. 180
68. Who is the head of the NPS? 80. Shari’a Courts were created pursuant to:
a. Chief State Prosecutor a. PD 1080
b. Regional State Prosecutor b. PD 1081
c. DOJ Secretary c. PD 1082
d. Prosecutor General d. PD 1083
69. The Prosecution Service Act of 2010. 81. A criminal proceeding consists of how many stages or
a. RA 10070 parts?
b. RA 10071 a. 4
c. RA 10072 b. 5
d. RA 10073 c. 6
d. 7
70. Preliminary Investigation is required for cases with a
penalty of: 82. It is the process whereby the accused, the offended
a. 4 years 2 months and 1 days party and the prosecution work out a mutually satisfactory
b. At least 4 years 2 months and 1 day disposition of the case subject to court approval.
c. 4 years and 2 months a. Plea bargaining
d. Below 4 years, 2 months and 1 day b. Arraignment
c. Mediation
71. It is the power of the court to hear and decide cases. d. Trial
a. Venue
b. Judicial review 83. It is a written order of a court consigning a person to
c. Jurisdiction jail or prison for detention.
d. Appeal a. Mittimus
b. Interlocutory Order
72. When the court can try a case already heard and c. Commitment Order
decided by a lower court. d. Judgment
a. General jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction 84. There are how many prisons and penal farms in the
c. Appellate jurisdiction Philippines?
d. Concurrent jurisdiction a. 5
b. 6
73. When the court is empowered to decide all disputes c. 7
which may come before it except those assigned in other courts. d. 8
a. General jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction 85. Those sentenced to 3 years and 1 day to Reclusion
c. Appellate jurisdiction Perpetua or Life Imprisonment.
d. Concurrent jurisdiction a. Municipal jail prisoners
b. City jail prisoners
74. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980. c. Provincial jail prisoners
a. BP Blg. 129 d. National or Insular Prisoners
b. BP Blg. 22
c. BP. Blg 229 86. Probation Administration was renamed Parole and
d. B.P. Blg. 130 Probation Administration by:
a. EO No. 292
75. The Court of Appeals is composed of the Presiding b. EO No. 293
Justice and ____ Associate Justices. c. EO No. 294
a. 68 d. EO No. 295
b. 69
c. 70 87. It is the temporary stay of the execution of a sentence,
d. 71 usually a death sentence.
a. Commutation
76. Which court has exclusive jurisdiction over libel cases? b. Reprieve
a. MTCC c. Pardon
b. RTC d. Amnesty
c. MTC
d. CA 88. It is understood to mean as elements that are mobilized
and energized to help authorities in effectively addressing the law
77. In money laundering cases, which court has authority and order concern of the citizenry.
to freeze bank accounts? a. Prosecution
a. MTC b. Court
b. RTC c. Community
c. CA d. Law enforcement
d. SC
89. The original Katarungang Pambarangay Law.
78. The Sandiganbayan is composed of a presiding Justice a. PD 1508
and ___ Associate Justices. b. RA 7160
a. 12 c. PD 1608
b. 14 d. RA 7161
c. 16
d. 18 90. The present Katarungang Pambarangay Law has been
incorporated in
79. A law which created Sandiganbayan. a. PD 1508
a. PD 1604 b. RA 7160
12. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the 22. This is the power to apply the law to contests or
first time. disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties
a. original jurisdiction between the state and private persons, or between
b. exclusive jurisdiction individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
c. appellate jurisdiction judicial tribunal.
d. concurrent jurisdiction a. Judicial Power
b. Judicial Review
13. It is the formal reading of the charges against a person c. Court
accused of a crime and latter asking him whether he d. Court of Justice
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
a. arraignment 23. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name
b. preliminary investigation of the government?
c. plea a. Public Prosecutor
d. promulgation of judgment b. Private Prosecutor
c. Prosecution
14. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within d. Ombudsman
Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod 24. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo a. RTC
c. barangay council b. Sandiganbayan
d. lupon tagapamayapa c. Supreme Court
d. MTC
15. It is the most common way by which the police
discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed: 25. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended,
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime. which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on
b. When the police discovers the crime appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal
c. When the victim reports the crime Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of
d. When the suspect surrenders the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
A. Court of Justice
16. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the B. Court of Appeals
Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy. C. Sandiganbayan
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other D. Court of Tax Appeals
members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20 26. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20 high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27
c. more than 10 above), which can only be committed because of their
d. less than 10 position.
a. Court of Justice
17. When arrest may be made? b. Court of Appeals
a. At any time of the day and night c. Sandiganbayan
b. At day time d. Court of Tax Appeals
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn 27. Is a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison
18. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of
without a warrant? sentence.
a. All of the choices A. Commitment Order
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the B. Mittimus
arresting officer. C. Warrant of Arrest
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there D. Habeas Corpus
is personal knowledge based on probable cause that the
person to be arrest has committed it. 28. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee. with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
19. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to a. Penology
attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or b. Probation
documents under his control at the trial of an action. c. Correction
a. subpoena d. Criminology
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum 29. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the
d. warrant of arrest president. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Pardon
20. The “Anti-Plunder Act”. b. Amnesty
a. R.A. 7080 c. Commutation of Sentence
b. R.A 3019 d. Parole
c. R.A. 1379
d. R.A. 6713 30. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to
38. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving 47. The Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR) examiners,
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the Commission on Audit (COA) auditors and Commission on
community. Human Rights (CHR) investigators have one thing in
a. Reintegration
73. This concerns to the obligations of the community to 82. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the
individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common commission of a crime and subject of an investigation.
advantages and sharing of common burden. a. Convict
a. Prosecution b. Respondent
b. Justice c. Accused
c. Equality d. Suspect
d. Trial
83. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules
74. This function of the law enforcement is being done of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence maintain peace and order?
of crimes, good community relations, educating the a. Criminal Justice System
citizens about their role, introduction of delinquency b. Criminology
prevention programs, good parenting and others. c. Criminal law
A. Maintenance of law and order d. Criminal jurisprudence
B. Reduction of crime
C. Crime prevention -- prevent the occurrence of a 84. It is that degree of proof required in criminal case
future criminal act which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
D. Crime control - crime has already happened certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the
possibility of error.
75. This principal character of the criminal justice process a. Preponderance of evidence
links all components of the CJS. b. Clear and convincing evidence
a. Offender c. Substantive evidence
b. Victim d. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. witness
d. Crime 85. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the
prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
76. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a
have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient to lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering
warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged violator. a guilty plea.
a. Investigator a. Arraignment
52. Which of the following is not place of worship? 61. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. chapel
b. mosque A. In justifying circumstance, there
c. mortuary is no civil liability except in
d. church causing damage to another in
state of security.
53. Medical term for homicidal tendency. B. A person who acts by virtue of a
a. somnabulism justifying circumstance does not
b. dementia praecox transgress the law because there is
c. epilepsy nothing unlawful in the act as well, as
d. kleptomania in the intention of the actor.
C. NONE of these
54. These are acts or omissions not expressly punished D. In exempting circumstances there is a
by a penal law but are nevertheless considered and crime but there is no criminal
punished as crimes.
a. Common crimes 62. Which of the following is an exempting circumstance?
b. Common crimes law A. An act done under the impulse of
c. Common law crimes an uncontrollable fear of an equal
d. Commonly crimes or greater injury
B. An act done in obedience to an order
55. It is a law that partially or totally modifies or changes by a superior for none lawful purpose
an existing law. C. Having acted upon an impulse so
a. Repealed law powerful as to have naturally produced
b. Repealing law passion and obfuscation
c. Repelled law D. An act done in fulfillment of a duty or
d. Repelling law in the lawful exercise of a right or
office
56. The following relatives of an offender are exempt
from criminal liability as accessories, EXCEPT: 63. Which is NOT a common requisite in justifying
a. spouse circumstances of self-defense, defense of a relative and
b. mother defense of a stranger?
c. son
A. NONE of these
d. brother
B. Unlawful aggression
e. none of the above
C. Reasonable necessity of the means
employed to prevent or repel it
57. Fine is an afflictive penalty if the amount thereof is:
D. The person defending be not
a. more than P6,000
induced by revenge, resentment
b. more than 12,000
or other evil motive
c. P200 to P6,000
d. P200 to 12,000
D. doubts duly annotated is resolved in favor of the 83. Who among the following is a person in authority?
accused a. Policeman d. Barangay Captain
b. Chief of police e. Baranggay Tanod
76. One of the two requisites of admissibility of evidence c. Teacher f. Letters b, c and d
is when it is relevant to the issue and what is the other
requisite? 84. Which among the following is a qualifying
circumstance of murder?
A. It observes continuity of rules
a. treachery c. relationship
B. It is not excluded by law or rules b. habitual delinquency d. intoxication
C. It multiples admissibility chances
D. It has a heavy weight of evidence
77. How can evidence of survivorship be proven? 85. X was able to pocket one pack of detergent soap
while inside SM Supermarket. He was about to leave the
A. All of these premises of SM when he was accosted by an undercover
B. By direct evidence SM agent and was immediately brought to the police
C. By indirect evidence precinct. What crime was committed by X?
D. By circumstantial evidence a. consummated theft
c. attempted theft
b. frustrated theft
78. It is defined as any human conduct which, although d. qualified theft
not productive of some material or physical harm would
however, unjustly annoy or vex an innocent person. 86. X uttered the following remarks to a certain family of
a. unjust vexation c. provocation lawyers, “Kayong mga Atty. Merrera mga magnanakaw,
b. light coercion d. unlawful aggression mga walanhiya mga bastos.” What crime was committed
by X?
79. A, B, C and D is a group of male teenager (but not a. one count of libel
below fifteen) who are trying hard to attract attention b. as many counts of libel as there are Merrera
(KSP). Every night they always engaged themselves in lawyers
unruly beer sessions together with all the unpleasant c. one count of grave oral defamation
sounds that it creates with the use of improvised, cheap (slander)
and dilapidated musical instruments such as cauldrons, tin d. as many counts of grave oral defamation (slander)
cans etc.. Let us assume that aside from making as there are Merrera lawyers.
“papansin” they are also doing it to annoy their sleeping
neighbors. The crime of alarms and scandals may be 87. X is a teller of Banco Filipino Español. He received a
charged against them because they involved themselves deposit of P5000 from a depositor, which he pocketed
in charivari punishable under paragraph 2 of article 155. instead of crediting it to the account of the depositor. The
What is charivari? transaction was evidenced by an official receipt. What
a. it is a medley of discordant voices, a mock crime was committed by X?
serenade of discordant voices made on kettles, tin a. theft
horns etc. designed to insult or annoy c. qualified theft
b. it sounds like a gay word or lingo so I will ask its b. estafa
meaning to my gay friend d. malversation of public property
c. it is simply the act of any person who although
not productive of material harm would annoy another 88. X a jail guard while escorting a prisoner en route to
person the Regional Trial Court allowed the latter to answer the
d. it is the act of people who are in need of attention call of nature without taking precaution to prevent his
from others especially from the girls. escape as indeed the prisoner escaped through the
windows of the comfort room. What is the liability of the
80. According to RA 4136 the Land Transportation jail guard?
and Traffic Code, when two (2) motor vehicles approach a. no liability as it is not required that X would even
an intersection at approximately the same time, the motor go to the extent of escorting the prisoner inside the
vehicle on the left should yield to the motor vehicle on the comfort room, otherwise the job of a jail guard
right because the latter motor vehicle has: would be very unbearable
a. right of way c. more speed b. no liability because he was not in conspiracy with
b. more money d. emergency rule the prisoner
c. evasion of service of sentence
81. Crimes Against Religious Worship is a section to be d. evasion through negligence.
found in Title Two of the Revised Penal Code which is
Crimes against the Fundamental Laws of the State. Which 89. X (a man) forcibly grabbed Y (a woman) by the waist
of the following crimes fall under crimes against religious and dragged her to a place hidden from the public view
worship? about 20 meters from the place where the latter was
a. interruption of religious worship c. standing. Due to Y’s constant screaming X became afraid
prohibition of peaceful meetings and immediately run away leaving Y alone. What crime
b. offending the religious feelings d. illegal was committed by X?
associations a. illegal detention c. attempted rape
b. acts of lasciviousness d. grave coercion