Itae002 Test 2

BATC631
Login ID 1211988
Qs. No Questions
---- is a good estimate of the overall variance, but only on the condition that the null
1
hypothesis is true.
a. MSE
b. MSR
c. RMSE
d. None of these
Communality represents the proportion of ------ of a particular variable that is shared

2
with variables.
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Variance
d. Median
-------- will treat all error equally, whether outliers or not, and thereby avoid the problem
3
of undue infuence of others.
a. MAE ( mean absolute error)

b. MSE ( mean square error)
c. RMSE
d. None of these.
4 Accornding to CRISP-DM, how many phases are there in data mining project life cycle?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Four
d. Seven
-------- sample size is the only way to decrease the margin of error while maintaining a
5
constant level of confidence.
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Keeping constant
d. None of these
Let's consider, there are 4 varialbles and each can take 2 values. Now there are 18 entries
6
in the date set. How many duplicate records may be present in data set?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
7 Principal Component analysis is used for
a. Dimensionally reduction of given set of attributes

b. Find corelation among set of attributes
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
8 Generally, the low - complexity model has a ------- bias, it has a ------- variance.
a. High, low
b. Low, high
c. Low, low
d. High, high
9 For data mining in general, data analyst has --------.
a. A priori hypothesis in mind for which needs to be validated.

b. There is no priori hypothesis but task is to find actionable inference from data.
c. There is model of data exists, however it needs to get output from model with new data set.
d. None of these.
10 For continous variable, generally two sample T-tests are used for
a. Difference in means
b. Difference in proportions
c. Homogeneity of proportions
d. None of these
Generally, F- test is used to find significance of the regression mode in which F- test considers the --------
11 relationship between the target variable y and the set of predcitors taken as a
whole but not as individual predictor.
a. Linear
b. Non -linear
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Let's assume, data mining is applied to measure performance of students in girls school. There are variables,
12 like, gender, age, percentage, residental area code,etc. Which variable can be removed from the list without
sacrificing the result?
a. Gender
b. Age
c. Percentage
d. None of these
Sensitivity measures the ability of the model to classify a record -----, which specificity measures the ability to
13
classify a record -------.
a. Negatively, positively
b. Positively, Negatively
c. Positively, Positively
d. Negatively, Negatively
14 In which phase, data cleaning is performed for model fitting?
a. Business and research understanding

b. Data understanding
c. Modelling
d. Data preparation
15 95% confidence interval about the mean number of customer service calls for all the customer indicates:
We are 95% confident that the polulation mean number of customer service calls for all the customers falls
a.
between some range.
We are 95% confident that the sample mean number of customer service calls for all the customers falls between
b.
some range.
c. We are 5% confident that the polulation mean number of customer service calls for all falls between some range.
d. None of these
Extrapolation refers to estimates and predictions of target variable made using the regression equation with
16
values of the predictor variable outside of the range of the values of ------ in the data set.
a. x
b. y
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
As general rule of thumb, the number of eigen values and hence corresponding eigen vector to be in PCA is
17
related to value of eigen value, for which value threshold must be taken as,
a. Eigen values less than zero

b. Eigen values equal to zero
c. Eigen values less than one
d. Eigen values equal or greater than one
Generally, the high-complexity model has a ------ bias ( in terms of the error rate on the training set), it has a ------
18
- variance.
a. High, low
b. Low, high
c. Low, low
d. High, high
19 Hypothesis testing with too many variables may result into
a. Underfitting the data

b. Overfitting the data
c. Perfect fitting the data
d. None of these
A ----- confidence interval for 'mu' is equivalent to a two-tailed hypothesis test for 'mu', with level of
20
significance 'alpha'
a. 100 ( 1 - alpha )%
b. 100 ( alpha -1 )%
c. 100 /( 1 - alpha )%
d. 100 /( alpha -1 )%
21 Least squares regression works by choosing the unique regression line that ---------.
a. Minimizes the sum of squared residuals over all the data points.
b. Maximizes the sum of squared residuals over all the data points.
c. Minimizes the sum of squared residuals over some data points.
d. None of these
22 For flag variable, generally two sample Z - tests are used for
d. None of these
23 Outliers may represent in data entry
a. Peak
b. Mean
c. Error
d. None of these.
In general, a user-defined composite is simply a -------- combination of the variables, which combines several
24
variables together into a single composite measure.
a. Homogenous
b. Superposition
c. Linear
d. Non-linear
In ANOVA, the F-distribution statistics, to reject null hypothesis, the F-data will be ------- when between sample
25
variability is much ------ than within sample variability.
a. Large, greater
b. Small, greater
c. Small, lesser
d. Large, lesser
----------- is always a good estimate of the overall variance regardless of whether the null hypothesis is true or
26
not.
a. MSE
b. MSR
c. RMSE
d. None of these
27 Which of the following methods is best for binning numerical variables?
a. Equal width binning

b. Equal frequency binning
c. Binning by clustering
d. None of these
Thumb rule is to flag observations whose standaderized residuals exceed ------- in absulote value as being
28
outliers
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 1
29 Predictive analytics is the process of
a. Just clearing data

b. Just compressing data
c. Guessing about present output without any data
d. Information retrieval to make useful predictions about future outcomes
30 When x and y are -----, as the value of X increases, the value of y tends to decrease.
a. Positively correlated
b. Negatively correlated
c. Uncorrelated
d. All of these
1218238
Qs. No Questions
According to the minimum descriptive length principle, it quantifies that the best representation ( or
1 description) of a model or body of a data is the one that ---- the information required (in bits) to encode (i) the
model and (ii) the exceptions of the model.
a. Minimize
b. Maximize
c. Neither minimize nor maximize
d. None of these
2 Which of the following methods is least sensitive to the presence of outliers?
a. Standard deviation
b. Mean absolute deviation
c. Z-score
d. Inter Quartile range
Thumb rule is to flag observations whose standaderized residuals exceed ------- in absulote value as being
3
outliers
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 1
In ANOVA, the F-distribution statistics, to reject null hypothesis, the F-data will be ------- when between sample
4
variability is much ------ than within sample variability.
a. Large, greater
b. Small, greater
c. Small, lesser
d. Large, lesser
5 If the false positive cost increases, then ------ should decrease.
a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Accuracy
d. None of these
6 A ----- confidence interval for 'mu' is equivalent to a two-tailed hypothesis test for 'mu', with level of
a. 100 ( 1 - alpha )%
b. 100 ( alpha -1 )%
c. 100 /( 1 - alpha )%
d. 100 /( alpha -1 )%
In the regression model, changing the ordering of the variables into the model changes nothing except the --------
7
-.
a. Sequential sum of squares

b. Sum of squares
c. Difference of squares
d. None of these
Generally, F- test is used to find significance of the regression mode in which F- test considers the --------
8 relationship between the target variable y and the set of predcitors taken as a
whole but not as individual predictor.
a. Linear
b. Non -linear
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
-------- sample size is the only way to decrease the margin of error while maintaining a
9
constant level of confidence.
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Keeping constant
d. None of these
10 Least squares regression works by choosing the unique regression line that ---------.
a. Minimizes the sum of squared residuals over all the data points.
b. Maximizes the sum of squared residuals over all the data points.
c. Minimizes the sum of squared residuals over some data points.
d. None of these
11 What are the values of coefficient of determination and SSE respectively for perfect fit case (SSR= SST)?
a. 0 ,1
b. 1, 1
c. 1, 0
d. 1, -1
12 For flag variable, generally two sample Z - tests are used for
d. None of these
---- is a good estimate of the overall variance, but only on the condition that the null
13
hypothesis is true.
a. MSE
b. MSR
c. RMSE
d. None of these
14 The factor solutions provided by factor analysis are not invariant to ---------.
a. Transformations
b. Rotation
c. Scaling
d. None of these
15 When x and y are -----, as the value of X increases, the value of y tends to decrease.
a. Positively correlated
b. Negatively correlated
c. Uncorrelated
d. All of these
Communality represents the proportion of ------ of a particular variable that is shared

16
with variables.
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Variance
d. Median
17 If the false positive cost increases, then specificity should --------.
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Not be changed
d. None of these
18 In general, ------- null hypothesis if p-value is less than level of significance a ( a small preset value, say 0.05)
a. Accept
b. Reject
c. More rest required
d. None of these
19 In ANOVA, the F- distribution statistics F- data is calculated as the ratio of
a. MSTR/MSTE
b. MSE/MSTR
c. MSTR/MSE
d. MSTE/MSE
It is to be stressed that model evaluation techniques should be performed on the data set, rather than on the
20
training set, or on the data set as a whole.
a. Test
b. Verification
c. Training
d. None of these
21 In which phase of CRISP -DM, report is generated?
a. Data understanding phase

b. Modeling phase
c. Evaluation phase
d. Deployment phase
As general rule of thumb, the number of eigen values and hence corresponding eigen vector to be in PCA is
22
related to value of eigen value, for which value threshold must be taken as,
a. Eigen values less than zero
b. Eigen values equal to zero
c. Eigen values less than one
d. Eigen values equal or greater than one
23 Accornding to CRISP-DM, how many phases are there in data mining project life cycle?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Four
d. Seven
Consider the following statements. Find out correct sequence of execution. 1. Build a data mining model using
24 the training set data. 2. Partition the available data into a training set and a test set. Validate the partition. 3.
Evaluate the data mining model using the test set data.
a. 1 ,2, 3
b. 2, 1, 3
c. 1, 3, 2
d. 2, 3, 1
A multiple regression model uses a ------ surface, such as a -------, to approximate the relationship between a
25
continuous response (target) variable and a set of predictor variables.
a. Linear, plane or hyperplane

b. Non- Linear, parabola or hyperbola
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Let's consider, there are 4 varialbles and each can take 2 values. Now there are 18 entries
26
in the date set. How many duplicate records may be present in data set?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
Generally, the high-complexity model has a ------ bias ( in terms of the error rate on the training set), it has a ------
27
- variance.
a. High, low
b. Low, high
c. Low, low
d. High, high
28 For most of the real-world data, skewness is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. None of these
Sensitivity measures the ability of the model to classify a record -----, which specificity measures the ability to
29
classify a record -------.
a. Negatively, positively
b. Positively, Negatively
c. Positively, Positively
d. Negatively, Negatively
30 95% confidence interval about the mean number of customer service calls for all the customer indicates:
We are 95% confident that the polulation mean number of customer service calls for all the customers falls
a.
between some range.
We are 95% confident that the sample mean number of customer service calls for all the customers falls between
b.
some range.
c. We are 5% confident that the polulation mean number of customer service calls for all falls between some range.
d. None of these
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BATC632
Login ID 1211989
Qs. No Questions
1 Why are PivotTables considered interactive?
a. They allow you to add dynamic data.

b. They allow you to rearrange row and column data
c. They allow you to generate e-mail enabled reports
d. They allow you to print the reports with various settings.
2 In order to use the Analyze in excel feature, you must have ------ installed on the system.
a. SSDT
b. SSMS
c. SSMA
d. None of these
3 If the demand curve for a good is downward sloping, then the good must be
a. Normal
b. Inferior
c. Giffen
d. Either (a) or (b)
4 What is the purpose of using a pointer in a data table?
a. It highlights the cell that matches the source data.

b. It allows the array formula to be repositioned
c. It highlights the first cell with a potential error.
d. It resets the file location to a recognized folder.
5 Which of the following is the link function for logistic regression?
a. The logistic transformation

b. The logit transformation
c. The exponential transformation
d. None of these
6 ------- describes the NPV of the stream of future profits anticipated over the customer's lifetime purchases.
a. Customer lifetime value.

b. Customer profitablity analysis.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. All of these are false.
7 ------ exists when all comsumers have almost the same preferences and the market reflects no natural segments.
a. Clustered preferences.
b. Diffused preferences.
c. Homogenous preferences.
d. None of these
If "time" is used as independent variable in a simple linear regression analysis, then which of the following
8
assumption could be violated?
a. There is a linear relationship between the independent and dependent varialbles.

b. The residual variation is the same for all fitted values of Y.
c. The residuals are normally distributed.
d. Successive observations of the dependent variable are uncorrelated.
The cost of owning a product, including the initial purchase price of the product and its setup cost, operational
9 cost, maintainence cost, and disposal cost over its entire useful life, is known as: (A) life cycle cost. (B) Total cost
of ownership. (C) functional value of the customer
a. (A) only
b. (B) only
c. (C) only
d. (A) and (B)
A marketing database alllows organizations to identify and focus their efforts on their best customers using a
10
recency, frequency, and monetary --------------.
a. (RFM) analysis.
b. (CRS) analysis.
c. (BAB) analysis.
d. Consumer analysis.
The linear trend for the number of vehicles sold per year at a local motor sports retailer is given by the
11 equation,Y = 30 + 125t. The base period (that is, year Zero) of the time series is the year 2004. The forecast for
2014 is:
a. 1280
b. 251280
c. 125
d. 155
12 Which of the following is stage of Product Life Cycle?
a. Introduction Stage
b. Growth Stage
c. Decline Stage
d. All of these
Which of the following tools analyzes and highlights data rows that do not appear to match the general patterns
13
found in the rest of the table?
a. Exceptions
b. Highlight
c. Scenario Analysis
d. Highlight exceptions.
14 An easy-to-use approach that is well-adapted to evaluating risk in certain situations is known as
a. Indirect simulations
b. Vague simulations
c. Monte Carlo simulation
d. Modulated simulations
15 If with the changes in prices, demand changes considerably, then the demand is
a. Inelastic
b. Elastic
c. Unaffected
d. None of these
16 Second step in "Customer Value analysis" is
a. Assessing quantitative importance

b. Examining specific segment
c. Monitoring customer value
d. Identifying benefits
17 Tools that compare user behavior and interests to make purchasing recommendations to users are called:
a. Clickstream tracking tools

b. Customer tracking tools
c. Collaborative filtering tools
d. Filtering tools
18 What is the meaning of term "heteroscedasticity"?
a. The variance of the errors is not constant.

b. The variance of the dependent variable is not constant.
c. The errors are not linearly independent to one another
d. The errors have non-zero mean.
19 ------- allows you to analyze your spreadsheet data in powerful ways.
a. Data mining Templates for Visio.

b. Table analysis Tools for excel.
c. Data mining client for excel.
d. All of these.
Market share plays most important role in context to product development. If in case we want to increase the
20
market share then we have to
a. Increase the sale

b. Increase the price
c. Decrease the sale
d. Decrease the price
21 When the formula bar is activated, you can see
a. The Edit formula button

b. The Cancel button
c. The Enter button
d. All of these
22 The conjoint analysis may be employed to:
a. identify important attributes that influence consumer choice.

b. estimate market share potential.
c. analyze product image
d. All of these
23 The difference between a price decrease and an increase in income is that

a. a price decrease doesnot affect the consumption of other goods, while an increase in income does.
b. an increase in income doesnot affect the slope of the budget line, while an decrease in price does change the slope.
c. a price decrease decreases real income, while an increase in income increases real income.
d. a price decrease leaves real income unchanged,while an increase in income increases real income.
24 A coefficient of corelation is computed to be -0.95 means that
a. The relationship between two variables is weak.

b. The relationship between two variables is strong and positive.
c. The relationship between two variables is strong but negative.
d. The correlation coefficient cannot have this value.
25 RFM analysis uses customer's purchasing patterns to -------.
a. Record transactions
b. Analyze and rank customers
c. Predict future sales using regression techniques
d. Perform OLAP
As per customer lifetime value, the ------- most profitable customers result in as much as -----of the profits of the
26
company, the ----- least profitable lose ---- of the profits.
a. 20%,100%, 20%, 150%

b. 20%,50%, 20%, 50%
c. 20%,150%, 20%, 100%
d. None of these
27 Goger's has proposed a classification of adopters. The five adopter categories as per sequence are:
a. innovators, eatly adoptors, early majority, late majority, and laggards.

b. innovators, early majority, early adoptors, late majority, and laggards.
c. innovators, early majority, late majority, early adoptors, and laggards.
d. None of these.
The presentation of Web pages tailored to a customer, based on the gathering of demographic information
28
provided by the customer, is called:
a. Interactive marketing
b. Personalization
c. Collaborative filtering
d. Localization
29 Decision Tree is
a. A flowchart
A structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch represents outcome of test and each
b.
leaf node represents class label.
A flowchart and structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch represents outcome
c.
of test and each leaf node represents class label.
d. None of these.
The measure of forecast error which calculates the average of absolute forecast errors as a percentage of the
30
actual demand is known as
a. mean error
b. mean absolute percentage error
c. mean absolute deviation
d. mean square error
1218239
Qs. No
1 Second step in "Customer Value analysis" is
a. Assessing quantitative importance

b. Examining specific segment
c. Monitoring customer value
d. Identifying benefits
2 The Apriori algorithm is used for the following data mining task:
a. None of these
b. Classification
c. Clustering
d. Association
A ------ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible
3
consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
a. Decision tree
b. Graphs
c. Trees
d. Neural Networks.
4 Sales forecast graphically shown on the horizontal axis shows
a. Raw material cost

b. Production
c. Sales
d. Marketing effort
5 Which of the following is stage of Product Life Cycle?
a. Introduction Stage
b. Growth Stage
c. Decline Stage
d. All of these
A marketing database alllows organizations to identify and focus their efforts on their best customers using a
6
recency, frequency, and monetary --------------.
a. (RFM) analysis.
b. (CRS) analysis.
c. (BAB) analysis.
d. Consumer analysis.
7 Which of the following is not a stage in Rogers Model of adoption?
a. Knowledge
b. Persuasion
c. Liking
d. Confirmation
8 If the demand curve for a good is downward sloping, then the good must be
a. Normal
b. Inferior
c. Giffen
d. Either (a) or (b)
9 A pattern of variation of a time series that repeats every year is called:
a. Cyclical
b. Seasonal
c. Trend
d. Secular
10 Which of the following is the link function for logistic regression?
a. The logistic transformation

b. The logit transformation
c. The exponential transformation
d. None of these
11 Monte Carlo simulation ensures that:
a. The simulated probability distribution will be the same as actual probability distribution.
b. Only one uncertain decision can be in any simulation model.
c. Probabilities must be at most two decimal places.
d. Each of the above is true.
12 If with the changes in prices, demand changes considerably, then the demand is
a. Inelastic
b. Elastic
c. Unaffected
d. None of these
13 The Durbin Watson statistics is used to detect
a. Autocorrelation
b. Multicollinearity
c. Heteroscedasticity
d. Linear trends
14 In order to use the Analyze in excel feature, you must have ------ installed on the system.
a. SSDT
b. SSMS
c. SSMA
d. None of these
15 The difference between a price decrease and an increase in income is that
a. a price decrease doesnot affect the consumption of other goods, while an increase in income does.
b. an increase in income doesnot affect the slope of the budget line, while an decrease in price does change the slope.
c. a price decrease decreases real income, while an increase in income increases real income.
d. a price decrease leaves real income unchanged,while an increase in income increases real income.
16 The conjoint analysis may be employed to:
a. identify important attributes that influence consumer choice.

b. estimate market share potential.
c. analyze product image
d. All of these
17 ------ exists when all comsumers have almost the same preferences and the market reflects no natural segments.
a. Clustered preferences.
b. Diffused preferences.
c. Homogenous preferences.
d. None of these
The linear trend for the number of vehicles sold per year at a local motor sports retailer is given by the
18 equation,Y = 30 + 125t. The base period (that is, year Zero) of the time series is the year 2004. The forecast for
2014 is:
a. 1280
b. 251280
c. 125
d. 155
The cost of owning a product, including the initial purchase price of the product and its setup cost, operational
19 cost, maintainence cost, and disposal cost over its entire useful life, is known as: (A) life cycle cost. (B) Total cost
of ownership. (C) functional value of the customer
a. (A) only
b. (B) only
c. (C) only
d. (A) and (B)
20 ------- allows you to analyze your spreadsheet data in powerful ways.
a. Data mining Templates for Visio.

b. Table analysis Tools for excel.
c. Data mining client for excel.
d. All of these.
21 What is the purpose of using a pointer in a data table?
a. It highlights the cell that matches the source data.

b. It allows the array formula to be repositioned
c. It highlights the first cell with a potential error.
d. It resets the file location to a recognized folder.
22 RFM analysis uses customer's purchasing patterns to -------.
a. Record transactions
b. Analyze and rank customers
c. Predict future sales using regression techniques
d. Perform OLAP
23 Regular customers of company's products are rewarded by designed programs are classified as
a. Customer's program
b. frequency programs
c. distribution programs
d. None of these
Before a marketing manager can develop a sound strategy to affect consumer decisions, he or she must
24
determine ---------------.
a. which evaluative criteria are used by the consumer.

b. how the consumer perceives the various alternatives on each critetion
c. the relative importance of each criterion
d. All of these
25 ----------- is the reason for failure in "New Product Development Strategy"
a. Poor product design

b. Incorrect positioning
c. Price too high
d. All of these
Market share plays most important role in context to product development. If in case we want to increase the
26
market share then we have to
a. Increase the sale

b. Increase the price
c. Decrease the sale
d. Decrease the price
27 When the formula bar is activated, you can see
a. The Edit formula button

b. The Cancel button
c. The Enter button
d. All of these
28 Goger's has proposed a classification of adopters. The five adopter categories as per sequence are:
a. innovators, eatly adoptors, early majority, late majority, and laggards.

b. innovators, early majority, early adoptors, late majority, and laggards.
c. innovators, early majority, late majority, early adoptors, and laggards.
d. None of these.
The presentation of Web pages tailored to a customer, based on the gathering of demographic information
29
provided by the customer, is called:
a. Interactive marketing
b. Personalization
c. Collaborative filtering
d. Localization
Jamie was participating in a market research study regarding computers when he was presented with 24
different computers that varied on four criteria. He was asked to rank all 24 descriptions in terms of his presence
30
for those combination of features. Which approach to assess the relative importance Jamie places on evaluative
criteria was this research using?
a. perceptual mapping
b. regression analysis
c. factor analysis
d. conjoint analysis
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BATC632
Login ID 1211991
Qs. No Questions
1 What is the correct two-way combinations/interactions possible, if the number of variables is 5?
a. The number of possible two-way interactions is 2.

b. The number of possible two-way interactions is 5.
c. The number of possible two-way interactions is 10.
d. The number of possible two-way interactions is 20.
2 Which of the following statements is true?
a. In statistics, data is typically smaller, the model is important.

b. Statistics is often based on non-parametric algorithms; no guaranteed optimum.
c. In statistics, models are typically nonlinear
d. Statistics algorithms are not as efficient or stable for small data.
3 Which of the following is widely used as unsupervised learning neural network algorithm?
a. Perceptron
b. Kohonen Self-Organizing Map (SOM)
c. Both Perceptron and Kohonen Self-Organizing Map (SOM)
d. None of these
4 What sampling technique do statisticians typically use to assess model stability?
a. Cross validation
b. Curse of dimensionality
c. Rule of thumb
d. Temporal sequencing
5 What are the challenges in using Predictive Analytics?
a. Predictive models require data in the form of two-dimensional data (rows and columns).
b. Often, deployment of predictive models require shift in resources for an organization.
c. The models become too complex due to overfitting.
d. All of these.
6 Decision trees are not distance-based algorithms and therefore are ------ by ------ and skewed distributions.
a. unaffected, outliers
b. affected, outliers
c. affected, normalized
d. unaffected, normalized
7 Which of the following is standard data mining methodology?
a. CRISP-DM
b. SPSS
c. Clementine
d. Mineset
8 Which of the following is NOT a step in CRISP-DM?

a. Business understanding
b. Customer understanding
c. Data understanding
d. Modelling
9 Software provide useful information about clusters but fails to explain about -----.
a. how clusters are formed by algorithm

b. meaning of cluster
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
10 If the value of variable can range from negative infinity to positive infinity, what is this type of this variable?
a. Categorical variables
b. Continuous variables
c. Binary variables
d. Numeric variables
11 ------- is defined as numner of times a rule occurs in data divided by the number of transactions in the data.
a. Antecedent support
b. Confidence
c. Accuracy
d. Support
12 Most frequent metrics to assess model accuracy in classification problems is
a. PCC
b. ROC
c. AUC
d. None of the above
13 If data ----- is applied to clustering algorithm then it is difficult to understand summaries after clustering.
a. without normalization
b. with normalization
c. with compression
d. None of these
14 What is NOT a key step in data preparation related to the columns in the data?
a. Variable naming
b. Variable cleaning
c. Variable selection
d. Feature creation
15 Which of the following is a property of uniform distribution?
a. The distribution is asymmetric about the mean

b. The distribution is infinite
c. The distribution is finite, with a minimum and maximum value
d. The mean and the midpoint of the distribution are not same
What is true about predictive modeling algorithms, assuming there are two customer records in the data who are
16
actually brother and sister?
a. Predictive algorithms treat the two customers records as dependent.

b. Predictive algorithms must know they are related
c. Predictive algorithms treat the two no differently than any other two people with similar patterns or behaviour
d. None of these
17 Which of the following is not a property of normal distribution
a. It is symmetric
b. Mean, Median and Mode are all same
c. It is also called bell curve
d. 86% of data lies between the mean and the +/- 1 standard deviation
18 Which of these is False about Correlations between two variables
a. Measurer the numerical relationship of one varialble to another's

b. One variable meaning is related to another's
c. Both of these
Assume that we have records of each visit by a customer to a medical shop. Which of the following will be
19
derived variable?
a. Customer's name
b. Average spend on the last month
c. Date of birth
d. Doctor who prescribed the medicine
20 In K MEANS, what is the number of clusters in the data?
a. Algorithm will determine the same dynamically

b. It must be pre-specified
c. It is always 2
d. It is always 3
21 Which of the following is a property of normal distribution
a. Approximately 95% of the data will fall between the mean and +/- -1 standard deviation from the mean
b. Approximately 95% of the data will fall between the mean and +/- -2 standard deviation from the mean
c. Approximately 95% of the data will fall between the mean and +/- -3 standard deviation from the mean
d. Approximately 95% of the data will fall between the mean and +/- -4 standard deviation from the mean
22 Which of the following is a metric used to assess model accuracy in classification problem?
a. Average error
b. Confusion matrix
c. Median error
d. Median absolute error
a. The median would not change much when there is a single large outlier
b. The mean would not change much when there is a single large outlier
The mean is defined as the value that is exactly 50 percent of the way from the minimum to maximum value of the
c.
variable.
d. The calculation of mean requires the data to be first sorted.
24 Predictive analytics is the process of
a. just clearing data

b. just compressing data
c. guessing about present output without any data
d. information retrieval to make useful predictions about future outcomes.
25 Which of the following is NOT one of the distance metric used in building the K-Means clustering model?
a. Mahalanobis distance metric

b. Milwaukee distance metric
c. Manhattan distance metric
d. Minkowski distance metric
26 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Decision tree is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm

b. K-Mean clustering is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm
c. Kohonen Self-Organising Maps (SOM) is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm
d. Principal Component Analysis (PCA) is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm
27 For gains, the metric is the percentage of --------- found by the model.
a. 0s
b. 1s
c. 2s
d. None of these
28 Which of the following statement is correct?
Missing completely at Random (MCAR) implies a conditional relationship between the missing value and other
a.
variables.
b. Missing at Random (MAR) means that there is no way to determine what the value should have been.
Missing Not at Random (MNAR) means the missing value can be inferred in general by the mere fact that the
c.
value is missing.
d. All of these
a. Descriptive modeling algorithms are also called as unsupervised learning methods.

b. Descriptive modeling algorithms try to find relationships between inputs.
c. Descriptive modeling algorithms discover the best way to segment the data.
d. Descriptive modeling algorithms try to find relationships that associate inputs to one or more target variables.
30 Which of the following is a property of normal distribution?
a. The distribution is asymmetric.

b. The mean and the median are not the same value.
c. The median and the mode are not the same value.
d. The mean, median and the mode are all the same value.
1218612
Qs. No
a. Descriptive modeling algorithms are also called as unsupervised learning methods.

b. Descriptive modeling algorithms try to find relationships between inputs.
c. Descriptive modeling algorithms discover the best way to segment the data.
d. Descriptive modeling algorithms try to find relationships that associate inputs to one or more target variables.
a. In statistics, data is typically smaller, the model is important.

b. Statistics is often based on non-parametric algorithms; no guaranteed optimum.
c. In statistics, models are typically nonlinear
d. Statistics algorithms are not as efficient or stable for small data.
3 Which of the following is widely used as unsupervised learning neural network algorithm?
a. Perceptron
b. Kohonen Self-Organizing Map (SOM)
c. Both Perceptron and Kohonen Self-Organizing Map (SOM)
d. None of these
4 Which of these is False about Correlations between two variables
a. Measurer the numerical relationship of one varialble to another's

b. One variable meaning is related to another's
c. Both of these
5 Inputs are analysed and grouped/clustered based on the proximity of input values to one another is
a. Supervised Learning
b. Unsupervised Learning
c. Descriptive modeling
d. Both 2 and 3
6 Which of the following is standard data mining methodology?
a. CRISP-DM
b. SPSS
c. Clementine
d. Mineset
What is true about predictive modeling algorithms, assuming there are two customer records in the data who are
7
actually brother and sister?
a. Predictive algorithms treat the two customers records as dependent.

b. Predictive algorithms must know they are related
c. Predictive algorithms treat the two no differently than any other two people with similar patterns or behaviour
d. None of these
8 Missing values is coded as
a. none
b. zero
c. FALSE
d. null
9 Which of the following is NOT a Single - Variable Selection technique?
a. Chi-square Test
b. Simpson's Paradox
c. ANOVA
d. Linear regression forward selection ( 1 step)
a. Decision tree is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm

b. K-Mean clustering is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm
c. Kohonen Self-Organising Maps (SOM) is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm
d. Principal Component Analysis (PCA) is a commonly used unsupervised modeling algorithm
11 What is true about a distribution measured by kurtosis?
a. Kurtosis is always negative

b. Normal distribution will have a Kurtosis value of 2
c. A leptokurtic distribution is one in which Kurtosis values is more than 4
d. A platykurtic distribution is one in which Kurtosis values is greater than 3
You must always be aware of the base rate to ensure models with a large baseline rate are not perceived as -------
12
models.
a. good
b. poor
c. best
d. None of these
a. The median would not change much when there is a single large outlier
b. The mean would not change much when there is a single large outlier
c. The mean is defined as the value that is exactly 50 percent of the way from the minimum to maximum value of the
d. The calculation of mean requires the data to be first sorted.
14 Which of these is true about uniform distribution?
a. The distribution is infinite

b. Mean and midpoint are different
c. Distribution is asymmetric about the mean
15 Which of the following confusion matrix measures uses all quadrants of confusion matrix?
a. PCC
b. Recall
c. Precision
d. None of these
16 In K MEANS, what is the number of clusters in the data?

a. Algorithm will determine the same dynamically
b. It must be pre-specified
c. It is always 2
d. It is always 3
17 Which are the experts critical for success of predictive modelling?
a. Domain experts
b. Data or database experts
c. Predictive modeling experts
d. All of these
18 Which of the following is not a property of normal distribution
a. It is symmetric
b. Mean, Median and Mode are all same
c. It is also called bell curve
d. 86% of data lies between the mean and the +/- 1 standard deviation
19 Ensembles are the mothods which not only increases model accuracy but also
a. they increase only model sensitivity

b. they reduce risk on deploying poor model
c. they reduce error
d. None of these
20 What are the different approaches to handle outliers in data?
a. Remove the outliers from the modeling data

b. Separate the outliers and create separate models just for outliers
c. Transform the outliers so that they are no longer outliers
d. All of these
Assume that we have records of each visit by a customer to a medical shop. Which of the following will be
21
derived variable?
a. Customer's name
b. Average spend on the last month
c. Date of birth
d. Doctor who prescribed the medicine
22 -------------- determine magnitude of error.
a. Average Errors
b. Mean Squared Error
c. Median Error
d. Average absolute error
23 Which of the following metric is best suited to assess model accuracy in continuous- valued estimation problem?
a. Percent correct classification

b. Area under the curve
c. Average error
d. Confusion matrix
24 MCAR stands for

a. Missing completely at random
b. Missing conditional at random
c. Missing convolute at random
d. None of these
25 For gains, the metric is the percentage of --------- found by the model.
a. 0s
b. 1s
c. 2s
d. None of these
26 Which of the following is NOT one of the distance metric used in building the K-Means clustering model?
a. Mahalanobis distance metric

b. Milwaukee distance metric
c. Manhattan distance metric
d. Minkowski distance metric
27 Models that are accurate, on the data used to train the models, generally show.
a. underfitting
b. overfitting
c. randomness
d. All of the above
28 As a thumb rule or guiding principle, ANOVA method works ------- when there are ------- clusters.
a. worst, small no. of

b. best, small no. of
c. best, large no. of
d. Worst, large no. of
29 Model assessment should be done first on -------.
a. training data
b. new data
c. test data
d. None of these
30 Software provide useful information about cluster but fails to explain about ------.
a. how clusters are formed by algorithm

b. meaning of cluster
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Correct 60
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BATC632
Login ID 1218240
Qs. No Questions
1 Latin hypercube sampling uses a technique known as
a. stratified sampling with replacement.

b. stratified sampling without replacement.
c. convenience sampling with replacement.
d. convenience sampling without replacement.
Which of the following risk management options is most likely to involve a range of techniques which may be
2
used together to reduce the probability of the risk, its impact or both?
a. Transfer
b. Mitigation
c. Elimination
d. Acceptance
The ------ process occurs when one is sampling randomly without replacement from some population, and where
3
one is counting the number in that sample that have some particular characteristics,
a. Pascal
b. Poisson
c. Binomial
d. Hypergeometric
4 Which of the following probability models is most likely to yield answers faster?
a. A probablity model that calculates the required probability

b. A probablity model that simulates the required probability
c. A probablity model that estimates the required probability
d. A probablity model that estimates the oppurtunities from a risk event
5 Which of the following is least likely a common modelling error?
a. Calculating means instead of simulating scenarios

b. Calculating variances instead of simulating scenarios
c. Representing an uncertain variable more than once in a model
d. Manipulating probability distributions as if they were fixed numbers
A -------- is a stochastic process with sequential variables, where the expected value of each variable is the same
6
and independent of previous observations.
a. Pascal
b. Dirichle
c. Gamma
d. Martingale
The results of a risk model must be presented in a form that clearly answers the questions that the analysts set
7 out to answer. However, many reports fail in that respect. Which of the following is most likely a reason for such
a failure?
a. The report is tailored to audience

b. The report relies purely on statistics
c. The report relies customized to the problem
d. The report includes an explanation for the model assumptions.
8 Which of the following is most likely to reduce the file size while building a risk model?
a. Using megaformulae
b. Maintaining large datasets
c. Avoiding use of fitted distributions
d. Avoiding use of softwares like ModelRisk
9 Which of the following best describes the difference between the terms "variability" and "uncertainity"?
a. Variability can be controlled while uncertainity cannot be controlled

b. Variability does not depend on the system while uncertainity depends on the system
c. Variability is associated with the effect of chance while uncertainity relates to assessor's level of ignorance.
Variablity cannot be reduced by chaning the physical system while uncertainity can be reduced by altering the
d.
physical system.
10 Which of the following is least likely a limitation of risk models built using spreadsheet?
a. Speardsheets scale very badly

b. Speardsheets cannot easily handle modelling dynamic systems.
c. Speardsheets are generally limited to the two dimensions of a grid
d. Speardsheets function to fast to be applied to a huge risk analysis model
11 Which of the following is least likely to be associated wish risk-analysis software?
a. SQL
b. Analytica
c. Crystall Ball
d. PERTmaster
12 The cumulative distribution function, F(x), is a mathematical equation that describes the:
a. least likely estimate of event X.

b. most likely estimate of event X.
c. probablity that a variable X is greater than x.
d. probablity that a variable X is less than or equal to x.
Consider the following equations: F(x)=P(X<=x)(1)(G(F(x))=x(2). Which of the following is least likely true about
13
the above-mentioned equations?
a. F(x) obviously ranges from 0 to 1.

b. The inverse function G(F(x)) is used to generate random samples from each distribution.
The cumulative distribution function F(x) denotes the probability P that the variable X will be greater than or equal
c.
to x.
d. The cumulative distribution function F(x) gives the probability P that the variable X will be less than or equal to x.
Which of the following probability distributions is most likely to return the number of failures one will have
14
before observing "s" successes?
a. Poisson Distribution
b. Notmal Distribution
c. Hypergeometric Distribution
d. Negative Binomial Distribution
15 Which of the following is most likely a cardinal rule of risk analysis modelling?
a. Simulate when you can calculate.

b. Simulate when you want exact answer.
c. Every iteration of a risk analysis model must lead to an element of sensitivity analysis.
d. Every iteration of a risk analysis model must be a scenario that could physically occur.
16 Which of the following is least likely to be included in a risk register?
a. P-I scores
b. Risk drivers
c. Potential risk impacts
d. Risk identification techniques
17 ------- is a measure of the degree to which a distribution is "lopsided".
a. Mode
b. Kurtosis
c. Variance
d. Skewness
18 Which of the following is most likely true regarding an event tree?
a. An event tree fails to be intutive due to its complexity.

b. An event depicts a probabilistic event without any reference to its impact.
c. An event tree start from the right with a node and arrows to the left indication possible outcomes.
An event tree offers a way to describe a sequence of probalistic events, together with their probabilities and
d.
impacts.
In a least square linear regression, the fraction of the total variation in the dependent variable that is explained
19
by the independent variable is known as the:
a. total sum of square

b. sum of squares errors
c. coefficient of correlation
d. coefficient of determination
20 The third moment about the mean is called the:
a. quartile
b. kurtosis
c. skewness
d. percentile
21 Which of the following is most likely true if A and B are not mutually exclusive events?
a. P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B)

b. P(A U B) = P(A) - P(B)
c. P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A C B)
d. P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) + P(A C B)
22 Which of the following is most likely make Excel run faster?
a. Avoiding links to external files.

b. Avoiding built-in excel functions.
c. Keeping the simulation model in different workbooks.
d. Using more and more array functions available in Excel.
23 Stochastic dominance tests are a statistical means of:
a. calculating the relative kurtosis of two distributions.

b. calculating the relative skewness of two distributions.
c. determining the variance of one distribution over another.
d. determining the superiority of one distribution over another.
24 Which of the following theorems is a logical extension of conditional probability arguments?
a. Bayes's theorem
b. Binomial theorem
c. Central Limit theorem
d. Tchebysheff's theorem
Arpit, a risk manager at Pioneer Manufacturers, has changed the country location of a factory to avoid political
25 instability in that country. Which of the following risk management options has been exercised by Arpit in the
aforesaid scenario?
a. Transfer
b. Reduction
c. Elimination
d. Acceptance
26 The biggest uncertainty in a risk analysis is:
a. associated with the estimation of size of impact of the risk event.

b. associated with the estimation of probablity of occurance of a risk event.
c. whether the analyst started off analyzing the right thing and in the right way.
d. whether models developed are free from model risks and capable of withstanding stress tests.
Assume that you are doing a risk analysis and have made 20 reasonable assumptions concerning your analysis.
27 Also assume that there is a 95% chance that an assumption made is correct. Which of the following is the closest
to the probability that all the assumptions made are correct?
a. 0.36
b. 0.37
c. 0.63
d. 0.73
28 The ----- process assumes that there is a constant probability that an event will occur per increment of time.
a. Pascal
b. Poisson
c. Binomial
d. Hypergeometric
29 Which of the following is least likely true regarding P-I scores?
a. Higher the P-I score, the greater is the risk.

b. P-I scores can be used to rank the identified risks.
c. A base measure of risk for calculating P-I scores is impact divided by probability.
d. P-I scores for a project provide a consistent measure of risk that can be used to perform trend analysis.
30 A risk analysis model that separates uncertainty and variability is described as ----- order.
a. first
b. third
c. second
d. fourth
1211990
Qs. No
Risk managers must distinguish between inherent risks and residual risks when developing a risk management
1
strategy. Which of the following best describes the difference between inherent risk and residual risk?
a. Residual risk in concerned with compliance risks, while inherent risk deals with operational risks.
b. Residual risk in concerned with hazard risks, while inherent risk deals with financial risks.
Residual risk has got nothing to do with the mitigation efforts, while inherent risk decreases as the mitigation efforts
c.
improve.
Residual risk is the level of risk after impact of mitigation efforts, while inherent risks is the risk associated with the
d.
business before any impact of mitigation efforts.
2 Latin hypercube sampling uses a technique known as
a. stratified sampling with replacement.

b. stratified sampling without replacement.
c. convenience sampling with replacement.
d. convenience sampling without replacement.
3 Which of the following is most likely a reason for doing risk analysis
a. Writing a risk report

b. Analyzing past performances
c. Identifying risks and risk management strategies
d. Validating risk models and eliminating model risks.
4 A ---- plot is produced by grouping the data generated for a model's output into a number of bars or classes.
a. trend
b. spider
c. scatter
d. histogram
The results of a risk model must be presented in a form that clearly answers the questions that the analysts set
5 out to answer. However, many reports fail in that respect. Which of the following is most likely a reason for such
a failure?
a. The report is tailored to audience

b. The report relies purely on statistics
c. The report relies customized to the problem
d. The report includes an explanation for the model assumptions.
Guruswamy, a risk manager at Global Finance Company, has allocated extra funds to a project to deal with the
6 associated risks. Which of the following risk management options has been exercised by Guruswamy in the
aforesaid scenario?
a. Risk reserve
b. Risk transfer
c. Risk avoidance
d. Risk acceptance
7 Which of the following is most likely true about the Value-of-information (VOI) analysis?
a. Value of perfect information (VOPI) is the outcome of the VOI analysis.

b. VOI analysis helps to determine value of imperfect information (VOII) to facilitate decision making.
c. The usual starting point of a VOI analysis is to consider the value on imperfect information (VOII).
d. VOI analysis helps to determine the worth of acquiring extra information to help the decision-maker.
8 Which of the following is the most likely a reason that can make a risk analysis terrible?
a. Availability of too much of raw data.

b. Absence of regulations and guidelines.
c. Made - up numbers due to non-availability of relevant data.
d. Congenial business environment for creative thinking and innovation.
9 ------- is a measure of the tailedness of a distribution.
a. Mean
b. Kurtosis
c. Quartile
d. Percentile
A model indicates a time series forecast. Which of the following plots is most useful for graphical representation
10
of the results of the model?
a. trend
b. spider
c. scatter
d. histogram
11 Which of the following probability models is most likely to yield answers faster?
a. A probablity model that calculates the required probability

b. A probablity model that simulates the required probability
c. A probablity model that estimates the required probability
d. A probablity model that estimates the oppurtunities from a risk event
In a least square linear regression, the fraction of the total variation in the dependent variable that is explained
12
by the independent variable is known as the:
a. total sum of square

b. sum of squares errors
c. coefficient of correlation
d. coefficient of determination
13 Which of the following is least likely a quality of a risk analyst?

a. Modest
b. Curious
c. Confident
d. Unbending
14 If a risk analyst is interested in finding where a distribution is centered, he should look at a measure of ------.
a. shape
b. spread
c. location
d. consistency
Arpit, a risk manager at Pioneer Manufacturers, has changed the country location of a factory to avoid political
15 instability in that country. Which of the following risk management options has been exercised by Arpit in the
aforesaid scenario?
a. Transfer
b. Reduction
c. Elimination
d. Acceptance
A ----- process is a random counting system where there are "n" independent identical trials, each one of which
16
has the same probability of success "p", which produces "s" successes from those "n" trials.
a. Poisson
b. Normal
c. Binomial
d. Lognormal
Pawan Singhi, a risk analyst in Iconic Risk Consultancy, says his teammates that " We have to maintain a healthy
17 pessimism about published work and about how good our subject matter experts are." Which of the following
qualities of a risk manager is most likely to be associated with the Pawan's statement?
a. Social
b. Careful
c. Cynical
d. Pedantic
18 ------- is numerical measurement of the likelyhood of an outcome of some stochastic process.
a. Probability
b. Variability
c. Uncertainity
d. Oppurtunity
Which of the following is most likely an extension of the binomial process which treats the probability "p" as a
19
random variable?
a. Multinomial process
b. Beta-Binomial process
c. Positive-Binomial process
d. Negative-Binomial process
20 Stochastic dominance tests are a statistical means of:
a. calculating the relative kurtosis of two distributions.

b. calculating the relative skewness of two distributions.
c. determining the variance of one distribution over another.
d. determining the superiority of one distribution over another.
Monte Carlo simulations is often criticized for being an approximate technique. Which of the following is most
21
likely a means to overcome the aforesaid criticism?
a. Correlation and other interdependencies can be modelled.

b. The level of mathematics required to perform a Monte Carlo simulation is quite basic.
c. Changes to the model can be made very quickly and the results can be compared with previous models.
Theoretically, any required level of precision can be achieved by simply increasing the number of iterations in a
d.
simulation.
22 Which of the following best describes the relationship between cdf and density (histogram) plots?
a. The flatter the slope of a cdf, the higher a relative frequency ( histogram) plot.
b. The steeper the slope of a cdf, the lower a relative frequency ( histogram) plot.
c. The steeper the slope of a cdf, the higher a relative frequency ( histogram) plot.
d. The flatter the slope of a cdf, the closer a relative frequency ( histogram) plot to vertical axis.
Which of the following probability distributions is most likely to return the number of failures one will have
23
before observing "s" successes?
a. Poisson Distribution
b. Normal Distribution
c. Hypergeometric Distribution
d. Negative Binomial Distribution
24 Which of the following theorems is a logical extension of conditional probability arguments?
a. Bayes's theorem
b. Binomial theorem
c. Central Limit theorem
d. Tchebysheff's theorem
25 Which of the following is the most likely the purpose of a risk analysis?
a. To mitigate risks completely.

b. To estimate the impact of a risk event.
c. To calculate the probability of a risk event.
d. To provide information to help make better decisions in an uncertain world.
Which of the following risk management options is most likely to involve a range of techniques which may be
26
used together to reduce the probability of the risk, its impact or both?
a. Transfer
b. Mitigation
c. Elimination
d. Acceptance
In terms of utility, suppose a business unit considers a loss of Rs. 500,000 vastly larger than a gain of Rs. 500,000.
27 Based on this information, which of the following is most likely the shape of the utility function of the business
units?
a. Linear
b. Kinked
c. Convex
d. Concave
28 A -------- is a stochastic process with sequential variables, where the expected value of each variable is the same
a. Pascal
b. Dirichle
c. Gamma
d. Martingale
29 The cumulative distribution function, F(x), is a mathematical equation that describes the:
a. least likely estimate of event X.

b. most likely estimate of event X.
c. probablity that a variable X is greater than x.
d. probablity that a variable X is less than or equal to x.
30 If a risk analyst wants to determine how skewed a distribution is, he should focus on a measure of ------.
a. shape
b. speard
c. location
d. consistency
Correct 60
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Correct
#VALUE! 0.90 0.95000 0.855
81% 0.90250
Correct 73% 0.85738
66% 0.81451
59% 0.77378
53% 0.73509
48% 0.69834
1 43% 0.66342
39% 0.63025
35% 0.59874
Correct 31% 0.56880
28% 0.54036
25% 0.51334
23% 0.48767
1 21% 0.46329
19% 0.44013
17% 0.41812
15% 0.39721
Correct 14% 0.37735
12% 0.35849
Correct
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1
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Correct
1
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#VALUE!
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0.7695 0.69255 0.623295 0.560966
BATC632
Login ID
Qs. No Questions
1 Suzuki is able to reduce its manufacturing cost using:
a. Low cost tooling

b. Low cost SPMs
c. Decent. Use cheaper raw material from Indiaralized Supply Chain
d. Using product engineering skills.
2 Above manufacturing is an example of:
a. Make -to-order
b. Assemble -to-order
c. Make -to-stock
d. All above
3 What were the two key things that XYZ management did to achieve productivity gains?
a. Increasing productivity without using additional resources.

b. Increasing in production with present resources.
c. Emphasizing volume over quality.
d. Increasing production using more overtime.
4 Bill of material can do the following:
a. Help to compute material usage

b. Locate raw material supplies
c. Reduce product scrap
d. Reduce labour overtime
5 Which one of the following is not true about products.
a. Product is a tangible output.

b. There is direct contact with customers during manufacturing of products
c. Product manufacturing employs inventory management techniques.
d. Products can be stored for later use.
The computer determines the amount of each ingredient needed, according to the quantity of biscuits ordered
6
using which source of information?
a. Supply order
b. Production order
c. Bill of material
d. Master production schedule
A measure of capacity that generally does not include adjustments for preventive maintenance or unplanned
7
downtime is called:
a. Effective capacity
b. Safe capacity
c. Potential capacity
d. Actual capacity
8 In the assembly line balancing, cycle time ( the ratio of available production time to scheduled production) is the:
a. Inverse of minimum number of works station needed

b. Sum of all task times divided by the maximum number of works - stations.
c. Minimum time that a product is allowed at each work station
d. Maximum time that a product is allowed at each work station
9 Which one is not connected to decision taken by Suzuki to make sourcing hub:
a. Product engineering skill of Indian manufacturers

b. India is located near to Japan
c. Frugal engineering concepts of Indians
d. Quality consciousness as perceived by Suzuki
10 Which of these materials will have independent demand?
a. Ingredients
b. Flavourings
c. Biscuit fillings
d. Final biscuit
11 In general, which forecasting time frame best identifies seasonal effects?
a. Short term forecasts

b. Quick time forecasts
c. Medium term forecasts
d. Long range forecasts
12 Which of the following is most relevant for job shop layout:
a. Job shop layout products standard products

b. Automobile assembly is an example of job shop layout
c. All products have to be processed through all machines
d. Similar machines are placed together in department in job shop layout
13 An order qualifier is ------?
a. A characteristic of a product or service that will contribute to winning business from customers.
b. A characteristic of a product or service that a customer does not expect.
c. A characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as a minimum standard.
d. A characteristic presents only in a high quality product or service.
What is the breakdown quantity of weekly production for this particular situation: fixed cost: Rs 1,500 per week;
14
variable cost: Rs 3 per unit; revenue: Rs 6 per unit
a. 200
b. 500
c. 600
d. 300
15 Subcontracting:
a. Is used when demand is more than capacity

b. Means firing of employees
c. Improves the utilization of machines
d. Means scheduling the workload on work centers
16 Which of the following is not included as an inventory holding cost?
a. Handling
b. Insurance
c. Storage
d. Annualized cost of material
17 In practice ----- time is not included in the utilization of the process:
a. Run time
b. Machining time
c. Set up time
d. 1 and 2
------------- forecasts are used introducing new products, have time horizon of 2-5 years and to establish new
18
facility
a. Long-range
b. Intermediate? Range
c. Short? Range
d. Demand planning
19 Which of the following is an input file necessary to run an MRP system:
a. Bill of material (BOM) file

b. Quality Management Report
c. Purchase orders
d. Machine breakdown analysis
20 Efficiency, in capacity terms is the ration of:
a. Actual output to effective capacity

b. Actual output to designed capacity
c. Actual capacity to effective capacity
d. Designed capacity to effective capacity
21 Quality in service means:
a. Cost reduction
b. Supply of excessive spares
c. Meeting customer perceptions
d. None of above
22 Which of the following is not the characteristics of safe design:
a. Should use costly components

b. Narrower tolerances result in better design and production quality
c. Design should use standard components
d. External dimensions of components should be such that they can be assembled together to make a product.
23 When calculating inventory cost, which of the following is not included as costs to place an order?
a. Phone calls
b. Clerical costs
c. Calculating quantity to order
d. Taxes
24 All of the following are possible reasons for using the first come first served rule in service systems except:
a. It is easy to apply
b. It guarantees the shortest throughput time
c. Viewed as fair by the waiting customer
d. Requires no computations
25 Which one of the following would not generally be considered an aspect of operation management?
a. Work methods
b. Securing financial resoruces
c. Maintaining quality
d. Product or services
26 Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule (MPS)?
a. Inventory record file

b. Aggregate plan
c. Bill of materials
d. Planned order schedules
27 Which of the following is not a production activity report generated by MRP?
a. Planning report
b. Exception report
c. Planned order schedule
d. Bill of materials report
28 Which of the following is not related to Johnson Rule
a. It is used for job sequencing

b. It is applied for offloading the jobs
c. The aim of Johnson's rule is to minimize the flow time from the beginning of the first job until the finish of the last
d. Johnson's rule is used when there are n jobs to schedule on two machines.
29 Which one is not Japanese related Quality Management techniques?
a. Lean manufacturing
b. Kaizen
c. Just-in-time
d. All above
30 Production Flow Analysis is the technique used to design
a. Group layout
b. Fixed position layout
c. Retail service office layout
d. Functional layout
1194645
Qs. No
1 The ability to change a product or service offering to suit customer's need is called:
a. Quality
b. Flexibility
c. Dependability
d. Speed
2 Which of the following is not a Operation strategy?
a. Product leadership
b. Building financial resources
c. Customer satisfaction
d. Operational excellence
3 Dabbawalla give code number on each lunchbox to avoid wrong deliveries. This is methodology is called:
a. Kaizen
b. Kanban
c. Poka Yoke
d. TPM
4 Subcontracting:
a. Is used when demand is more than capacity.

b. Means firing of employees
c. Improves the utilization of machines
d. Means scheduling the workload on work centers
5 Which of the following is not a method for evaluating location alternatives?
a. Transportation Method
b. Center of Gravity Method
c. Waiting Line Analysis
d. Factor Rating
6 A major disadvantage of the EDD rule is:
a. It tends to make long job wait

b. It results in higher in process inventory
c. Long jobs tend to delay other jobs
d. It does not take processing time into account
7 Economic Order Quantity is where:
a. Inventory carrying cost is zero

b. Holding cost equals ordering cost
c. Ordering cost is maximum
d. Holding cost is maximum
8 Which came last in the development of manufacturing techniques?
a. Lean Manufacturing
b. Division of Labour
c. Mass Production
d. Parts interchangeability
9 What is the breakdown quantity of weekly production for this particular situation: fixed cost: Rs 1,500 per week;
a. 200
b. 500
c. 600
d. 300
10 The typical goal used when developing a processs-oriented layout strategy is to:
a. Minimize the distance between adjacent departments

b. Maximize the job specialization
c. Minimize the material handling cost
d. Maximize the number of jobs which can be performed on the individual machine.
11 In practice ----- time is not included in the utilization of the process:
a. Run time
b. Machining time
c. Set up time
d. 1 and 2
12 Quality in service means:
a. Cost reduction
b. Supply of excessive spares
c. Meeting customer perceptions
d. None of above
13 Which of the following does not fit with an efficient supply chain?
a. Highly predictable demand

b. Product with short life cycles that change frequently
c. Low contribution margin
d. Stable product line
14 Which of the following is most closely related to the reason a firm might implement MRP?
a. So that it can order right parts in right quantity

b. To ensure appropriate quality level
c. To control the cost
d. So that it can order sufficient parts for immediate use.
15 Efficiency ratio must be greater than utilization ration because:
a. Effective capacity is larger than design capacity

b. Actual output is larger than effective capacity.
c. Designed capacity is larger than effective capacity
d. Actual outout is larger than design capac
16 Which of the following would not generally be classified as a regional factor in location decisions?
a. Location of raw materials

b. Location of markets
c. Labour supply
d. Moving expenses
17 Demand management of products includes:

a. Order entry
b. Forecasting
c. Order commitment
d. All above
18 Which of the following is not an issue dealt by an operations manager?
a. How much capacity would be required in months ahead

b. Choosing suitable location for a new facility
c. Which production/services shoulbe be offered
d. All are typical of operations decision
19 In general, which forecasting time frame best identifies seasonal effects?
a. Short term forecasts

b. Quick time forecasts
c. Medium term forecasts
d. Long range forecasts
20 Which of the following would not be considered an input in the airline business?
a. Flight crew
b. Ground equipment
c. Fuel
d. All of the above
21 Which of the following is not a production activity report generated by MRP?
a. Planning report
b. Exception report
c. Planned order schedule
d. Bill of materials report
22 Which of the following is not the characteristics of safe design:
a. Should use costly components

b. Narrower tolerances result in better design and production quality
c. Design should use standard components
d. External dimensions of components should be such that they can be assembled together to make a product.
23 Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule (MPS)?
a. Inventory record file

b. Aggregate plan
c. Bill of materials
d. Planned order schedules
24 How can the company afford to pay it workers for productivity gains?
a. By increasing the prices

b. By reducing inventory levels
c. Lesser spending on workers training and development
d. Instituting productivity linked incentives
25 Which of the following is one of the categories of manufacturing inventory?

a. Economic order inventory
b. Reorder unit
c. Just in time inventory
d. Work-in-progress
26 Which of the following is not an order winning feature?
a. Key reason for purchasing a product?

b. Product performance is just met
c. Excellent service record
d. Customer friendly features
27 How are productivity and quality related?
a. Increase in quality due to increase in production

b. Cost reduction due to fewer defectives
c. Quality makes product costly
d. Quality requires more supervision
28 Mobike is:
a. Tangible product
b. A durable product
c. Uses raw material inputs
d. All above
29 Efficiency, in capacity terms is the ratio of:
a. Actual output to effective capacity

b. Actual output to designed capacity
c. Actual capacity to effective capacity
d. Designed capacity to effective capacity
30 Economies of scale means
a. Use of ecomonic theory in manufactoring

b. Use of highly skilled manpower
c. Purchasing inputs at competitive price
d. Cost reduction per unit of output
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Correct 6X= 1500+3*x
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BATC632
Login ID 1209072
Qs. No Questions
1 According to the Rocket Model, the first step to building high-performance teams is to:
a. identify the constituencies affecting the team

b. evaluate team and individual goals
c. build buy-in for the program
d. establish expected norms
2 Which of the following statements about common sense is most likely true?
a. Effective leadership requires little more than common sense.

b. Studies show that female leaders have more common sense that male leaders
c. Acquiring common sense required being both an active and a passive follower.
d. A challenge of leadership is to know when common sense applies and when it does not.
3 Which statement about action learning is most likely FALSE?
a. Adults learn best by doing, which is basic philosophy of action learning.

b. Although action learning is a polular tool, it has not shown a high level of effectiveness in leadership development.
Action learning ofter involves assignment to a work team that addresses real-time actual challenges the company is
c.
facing.
Action learning involves attending classes, watching videotapes, and working in teams to create development plans
d.
for the firm.
4 Which of the following statement about the normative decision model is true?
a. The model shifts focus away from the leader and followers to the situation.
b. Decision tree questions focus on the problem and situational factors.
c. The model focuses of the effects of formal authority systems.
d. It is about personal opinions rather than theory.
The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and encourage younger
5
organisational colleagues is called:
a. evaluating
b. consulting
c. mentoring
d. networking
Many aspects of office arrangements can affect a leader's or follower's power. Which of the following
6
statements is true in relation to this statement?
a. Specific seating arrangements at circular tables do not affect participant's interactions.

b. Rectangular tables facilitate communication.
c. Indivudual sitting at the ends of rectangle tables often weild more power.
d. Rectangular tables minimze status differentials.
7 In the informal coaching process, a leader is most likely to inspire commitment from a follower by ----.
a. reviewing performance appraisals.

b. building a trusting relationship
c. assisting with networking
d. providing new tasks
8 In the informal coaching process, a leader is most likely to help a follower to grow skills by.
a. reviewing a 360 degree feedback

b. creating a coaching plan
c. identifying long-term career goals
d. conducting a personality assessment.
Which of the following involves participants being given a limited amount of time to priotize and respond to a
9
numner of notes, phone messages, and letters?
a. Virtual simulations
b. Role playing
c. In-basket exercises
d. Case studies
10 Situational Leadership suggests that effective leaders base behaviour upon:
a. valued rewards
b. follower maturity
c. task structure
d. leader-member relations
Which of the following statements is most likely accurate concerning the thinking-feeling dimension of the Myers-
11
Briggs Type indicator (MBTI) test?
a. Feeling leaders tend to be curious, spontaneous, and flexible.

b. Thinking leaders like to analyze, critisize, and approach decisions impersonally and objectively.
Thinking leaders like to get nervous before decisions are made and want to see only minimal data before making
c.
decisions.
Feeling leaders dislike agendas, do not mind going off on tangents, and will revisit earlier decisions if few
d.
information arises.
12 In leaderless group dicsussions, facilitators and observers rate participants and provide feedback about ---- skills.
a. supervisory
b. interpersonal
c. planning
d. time management
13 Which of the following is an intrinsic reward?
a. Compensation
b. Praise
c. Personal growth
d. Time off
Which is the reason behind the usage of the phrase "desirable oppurtunities" in one of the definitions of
14
leadership?
a. To distinguish between leadership and tyranny.

b. To distinguish between leadership and management.
c. To distinguish between leadership and followership.
d. To distinguish between leadership and situation.
People who are observing an action are much more likely than the actor to make the fundamental attribution
15
error. This is called:
a. stereotyping
b. self-serving bias.
c. ultimate attribution error.
d. actor/observer difference.
------ power is a function of the amount of knowledge one possesses relative to the rest of the members of a
16
group.
a. Reward
b. Referent
c. Coercive
d. Expert
17 Which of the following is true of the leadership definitions?
a. The field is too complex to attempt to define.

b. The first step requires resolving the differences in definitions.
c. Various definitions illustrate that many factors affect leadership.
d. Only Bennis's definition is comprehensive enough for leadership research.
18 Leadership training program for mid-level managers are LEAST likely to focus on improving ---- skills.
a. strategic planning
b. time management
c. oral communication
d. interpersonal
In the OCEAN model, the personality dimensions concerned with curiuosity, innovative thinking, and assimilating
19
new information is known as:
a. openness to experience
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. neuroticism
----- is exercised in the service of higher goals to others or organizations and often involves self-sacrifice toward
20
those ends.
a. Democracy
b. Personalized power
c. Socialized power
d. Management motivation
21 What is Hollander's approach to leadership called?
a. Participative
b. Transformational
c. Charismatic
d. Transactional
Followes are more likely to use ---- power to change their leader's behaviour if they have a relatively high amount
22
of referent power with their fellow co-workers.
a. reward
b. coercive
c. legimiate
d. expert
23 Goals are most effective when they are:
a. vaguely worded
b. challenging
c. general
d. easy
24 Which statement about leaders and managers is most likely false?
a. Leaders imitate, but managers originate.

b. Leaders focus on risk taking; managers focus on planning.
c. Leaders accept the status quo; managers challenge it.
d. Leaders develop, but managers maintain.
A leader who has extensive konwledge and experience in leading a pharmaceutical research team may feel
25 uncomfortable and unprepared when asked to lead a major fund-raising effort for a charitable institution. This
example illustrates that practical intelligence is most likely:
a. concerned with knowledge and experience

b. the ability to produce work that is novel.
c. the ability to learn new information.
d. domain specific.
Which of the following involves confronting your beliefs, inviting others to challenge you, and working on
26
personal blind spots?
a. Fundamental attribution
b. Double-loop learning
c. Self-fulfilling learning
d. Single-loop learning
According to the OCEAN model, individuals who appear to be socially clueless, insensitive, pessimistic, and
27
grumpy may be low in:
a. leadership competence
b. aggreableness
c. neuroticism
d. charisma
28 Which of the following is a conventional distinction that is made between managers and leaders?
a. Managers maintain, while leaders develop.

b. Managers innovate, while leaders administer.
c. Managers inspire, while leaders control.
d. Managers originate, while leaders imitate.
29 Which of the following statements is true of leadership and management?
a. Leadership and management have both unique functions an area of overlap.

b. A good leader can be a good manager, but the reverse is never true.
c. Leadership and management are not related due to diverse goals.
d. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all practical purposes.
30 Leadership is most associated with:
a. consistency
b. planning
c. control
d. vision
1197813
Qs. No
1 Which of the following statements concerning intelligence is most likely true?
a. Most research shows that leaders posses hgher levels of creative intelligence than the general population.
b. Most research shows that leaders posses hgher levels of analytic intelligence than the general population.
c. Most research shows that leaders posses hgher levels of practical intelligence than the general population.
d. Most research shows that creative, analytic, and practical intelligence are not interrelated.
2 Which of the following statement about leadership is most likely true?
a. Innate factors influence leadership skills more than formative experiences.

b. Research indicates that leadership skills are primarily acquired and rarely innate.
c. Individuals should be categorized, when they are young, as either leaders or non-leaders.
d. Natural characteristics or talents can offer certain leadership advantages or disadvantages.
3 In leaderless group discussions, facilitators and observers rate participants and provide feedback about ---- skills.
a. supervisory
b. interpersonal
c. planning
d. time management
4 What is a frequent lesson learned by both men and women from their career experiences?
a. Recognizing and seizing opportunities

b. Understanding personal limits
c. Perserving through adversity
d. Handling political situations
5 Which of the following statements is most likely accurate concerning the thinking-feeling dimension of the Myers-
a. Feeling leaders tend to be curious, spontaneous, and flexible.

b. Thinking leaders like to analyze, critisize, and approach decisions impersonally and objectively.
c. Thinking leaders like to get nervous before decisions are made and want to see only minimal data before making
d. Feeling leaders dislike agendas, do not mind going off on tangents, and will revisit earlier decisions if few
Many aspects of office arrangements can affect a leader's or follower's power. Which of the following
6
statements is true in relation to this statement?
a. Specific seating arrangements at circular tables do not affect participant's interactions.

b. Rectangular tables facilitate communication.
c. Indivudual sitting at the ends of rectangle tables often weild more power.
d. Rectangular tables minimze status differentials.
7 The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and encourage younger
a. evaluating
b. consulting
c. mentoring
d. networking
A leader who has developed close interpoersonal relationships with followers generally uses ----- power to
8
influence them.
a. legitimate
b. referent
c. coercive
d. reward
9 Which statement about action learning is most likely FALSE?
a. Adults learn best by doing, which is basic philosophy of action learning.

b. Although action learning is a polular tool, it has not shown a high level of effectiveness in leadership development.
c. Action learning ofter involves assignment to a work team that addresses real-time actual challenges the company is
Action learning involves attending classes, watching videotapes, and working in teams to create development plans
d.
for the firm.
10 The interactional framework for analyzing leadership includes:
a. followers, leaders, and situations.

b. individuals, groups, and organizations.
c. individual followers, groups, and leaders.
d. first - level supervisors, mid-level managers, and top-level leaders.
11 According to some leadership experts, leadership:
a. is an interpersonal relation in which others comply because they want to.

b. is the study of leaders independent of the people they interact with.
c. postulates that leaders administer rather than innovate.
d. requires that leaders accpet the status quo.
12 ----- is exercised in the service of higher goals to others or organizations and often involves self-sacrifice toward
a. Democracy
b. Personalized power
c. Socialized power
d. Management motivation
13 In the informal coaching process, a leader is most likely to help a follower to grow skills by.
a. reviewing a 360 degree feedback

b. creating a coaching plan
c. identifying long-term career goals
d. conducting a personality assessment.
14 Leadership development is enhanced when experience involves the three processes of:
a. stopping, looking, and listening.

b. perception, attribution, and learning.
c. action, observation,and reflection.
d. action, behaviour, and consequence.
15 Leadership studies programs at the university-level:

a. typically offer academic credit in the form of academic minors.
b. are increasingly popular at many liberal -arts instiutions.
c. are typically curriculum-based at public and private institutions.
d. should focus primarily on a single field of discipline, such as management.
16 The ability to control others through the fear of punishment or the loss of valued outcomes is known as:
a. expert power.
b. reward power.
c. legitimate power.
d. coercive power.
17 Leadership training program for mid-level managers are LEAST likely to focus on improving ---- skills.
a. strategic planning
b. time management
c. oral communication
d. interpersonal
18 Which of the following statement about the normative decision model is true?
a. The model shifts focus away from the leader and followers to the situation.
b. Decision tree questions focus on the problem and situational factors.
c. The model focuses of the effects of formal authority systems.
d. It is about personal opinions rather than theory.
19 Followes are more likely to use ---- power to change their leader's behaviour if they have a relatively high amount
a. reward
b. coercive
c. legimiate
d. expert
If a decision has a rational or objectively determinable "better or worse" alternative, the leader should select the
20
better alternative. This most likely refers to:
a. strategic agility
b. decision acceptance
c. problem solving
d. decision quality
21 What should leaders first assess in order to apply the situational leadership model?
a. The level of task and relationship behaviour that will likely produce successful outcomes.
b. The readiness level of the follower relative to the task to be accomplished.
c. The leader's behaviour that best suits the current situation and task.
d. The historical behaviour patterns of the leader and follower.
22 Which of the following statements is most likely true of legitimate power?
a. The head of an organization is always a true leader.

b. Legitimate authority and leadership are similar.
c. Holding a position and being a leader are synonymous.
d. Legitimate power depends on a person's organizational role.
23 Which statement about perceptual sets is most likely FALSE?
a. Perceptual sets can influence any of our senses.

b. Perceptual sets are the tendency to perceive everything.
c. Feelings and needs can trigger a perceptual set.
d. Prior experiences can cause a perceptual set.
24 Which statement about leaders and managers is most likely false?
a. Leaders imitate, but managers originate.

b. Leaders focus on risk taking; managers focus on planning.
c. Leaders accept the status quo; managers challenge it.
d. Leaders develop, but managers maintain.
25 Situational Leadership suggests that effective leaders base behaviour upon:
a. valued rewards
b. follower maturity
c. task structure
d. leader-member relations
When students respond positively to requests from teachers who are well-liked and respected, it can be inferred
26
that the teachers have:
a. expert power.
b. referent power.
c. legitimate power.
d. coercive power.
Which of the following involves participants being given a limited amount of time to priotize and respond to a
27
numner of notes, phone messages, and letters?
a. Virtual simulations
b. Role playing
c. In-basket exercises
d. Case studies
28 Which term is most often associated with the word "management"?
a. Dynamism
b. Risk-taking
c. Efficiency
d. Creativity
29 Which of the following best defines leadership?
a. Actions which focus resources to create desirable oppurtunities.

b. The process by which an agent induces a suboridinate to behave in a desired manner.
c. Directing and coordinating the work of group members.
d. The process by influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals.
30 Which of the following statements is true of leadership and management?
a. Leadership and management have both unique functions an area of overlap.

b. A good leader can be a good manager, but the reverse is never true.
c. Leadership and management are not related due to diverse goals.
d. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all practical purposes.
1 Which statement about followership styles is most likely true?

Pragmatist followers tend to be mediocre performers
2 A police officer giving a speeding ticket to a driver is most likely using:

Coercive power
3 Ideal followers are most likely to be perceived as:
Independent
4 Most intelligence and aptitude tests are good examples of:

convergent thinking
5 Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness?
Vision
Many aspect of office arragements can affect a leader's or follower's power. Which of the following statements is
6
true in relation to this statement?
Individuals sitting at the ends of rectangular tables often wield more Power
Which of the following refers to one person's actual behaviors designed to change another person's attitudes,
7
beliefs, values, or behaviors?
Influence tactics
8 Which of the following statements about high-LPC leaders is most likely true?
They are primarily satisfied by establishing and maintaining close interpersonal relationships.
9 A situation in which one's expectations or predictions help determine the very results predicted is referred to as:
self-fulfilling prophecy
What is the reason behind the usage of the phrase "desirable opportunities" in one of the definitions of
10
leadership?
To distinguish between leadership and tyranny
11 What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts.
12 In perception, which term refers to the process of assigning underlying causes to behaviors?
Attribution
13 Influence is best defined as the:

degree of actual change in a target agent's values
14 What is most likely an advantage of role playing in leadership development programs?

Provides greater transferability to the workplace
15 Which statemetn about in-groups and out-groups is most likely correct?

In-group members are loyal and committed to a leader.
Which term refers to a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which learners seek
16
relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions
Single-loop learning
17 All of the followign are accepted among the major definitions of emotional intelligence Except:
the ability to react to stressful situations and adapt appropriately to obtain positive, long-term outcomes
18 Schein's classic study of sex roles:

demonstrated how bias in sex roles stereotypes created problems for women moving up through managerial roles
19 Which of the following statements about the rational and emotional aspects of leadership is most likely false?
Good leadership involves touching others' feelings.
20
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Itae002 Test 2

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Itae002 Test 2

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BATC631

Communality represents the proportion of ------ of a particular variable that is shared

a. MAE ( mean absolute error)

7 Principal Component analysis is used for

a. Dimensionally reduction of given set of attributes

9 For data mining in general, data analyst has --------.

a. A priori hypothesis in mind for which needs to be validated.

14 In which phase, data cleaning is performed for model fitting?

a. Business and research understanding

a. Eigen values less than zero

19 Hypothesis testing with too many variables may result into

a. Underfitting the data

23 Outliers may represent in data entry

27 Which of the following methods is best for binning numerical variables?

a. Equal width binning

29 Predictive analytics is the process of

a. Just clearing data

2 Which of the following methods is least sensitive to the presence of outliers?

5 If the false positive cost increases, then ------ should decrease.

a. Sequential sum of squares

Communality represents the proportion of ------ of a particular variable that is shared

17 If the false positive cost increases, then specificity should --------.

19 In ANOVA, the F- distribution statistics F- data is calculated as the ratio of

21 In which phase of CRISP -DM, report is generated?

a. Data understanding phase

a. Linear, plane or hyperplane

28 For most of the real-world data, skewness is

a. They allow you to add dynamic data.

4 What is the purpose of using a pointer in a data table?

a. It highlights the cell that matches the source data.

5 Which of the following is the link function for logistic regression?

a. The logistic transformation

a. Customer lifetime value.

a. There is a linear relationship between the independent and dependent varialbles.

12 Which of the following is stage of Product Life Cycle?

14 An easy-to-use approach that is well-adapted to evaluating risk in certain situations is known as

16 Second step in "Customer Value analysis" is

a. Assessing quantitative importance

a. Clickstream tracking tools

18 What is the meaning of term "heteroscedasticity"?

a. The variance of the errors is not constant.

19 ------- allows you to analyze your spreadsheet data in powerful ways.

a. Data mining Templates for Visio.

a. Increase the sale

21 When the formula bar is activated, you can see

a. The Edit formula button

22 The conjoint analysis may be employed to:

a. identify important attributes that influence consumer choice.

23 The difference between a price decrease and an increase in income is that

24 A coefficient of corelation is computed to be -0.95 means that

a. The relationship between two variables is weak.

25 RFM analysis uses customer's purchasing patterns to -------.

a. 20%,100%, 20%, 150%

a. innovators, eatly adoptors, early majority, late majority, and laggards.

a. Assessing quantitative importance

4 Sales forecast graphically shown on the horizontal axis shows

a. Raw material cost

5 Which of the following is stage of Product Life Cycle?

7 Which of the following is not a stage in Rogers Model of adoption?

9 A pattern of variation of a time series that repeats every year is called:

10 Which of the following is the link function for logistic regression?

a. The logistic transformation

11 Monte Carlo simulation ensures that: