Acls All

you can expect to see throughout our course.
Answers are at the bottom of the page.
1. You respond to a patient in distress and find an unresponsive male lying on

the floor gasping for air. What step should you take next?
A. Begin rescue breathing
B. Initiate CPR
C. Check pulse
D. Assume choking and perform abdominal thrusts
2. Why is proper size important when using an OPA or NPA?
A. Too large may block the airway
B. Too large may damage tissue
C. Too small may not adequately control airway
D. All of the above
3. You respond to a swimming pool where a person is floating facedown and is

unresponsive. Which action do you perform first?
A. High-Quality CPR
B. Apply AED
C. Heimlich Maneuver to clear airway
D. Suctioning
4. Asystole is a common rhythm and should be treated with all the following
EXCEPT:
A. CPR
B. Ventilations
C. Defibrillation
D. Epinephrine
5. You are treating a cardiac arrest patient. The AED is having problems
analyzing the rhythm. Which of the following is the correct response?
A. Go find another AED
B. Pause CPR to troubleshoot
C. Read the owner’s manual
D. Continue chest compressions
6. True/False: All Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) patients benefit from

supplemental oxygen, and a nasal cannula should be used.
A. True
B. False
7. Your co-worker is acting strange. Which of the following suggests the

possibility of a stroke?
A. Slurred speech
B. Dizziness
C. Arm weakness
D. All of the above

8. Which of the following are treated with synchronized shocks?
A. Unstable atrial fibrillation
B. Sinus tachycardia
C. VT without a pulse
D. VF
9. What is the correct dose for Procainamide?
A. 6 mg
B. 20-50 mg/min
C. 150 mg
D. 12 mg
10. A male patient experiences crushing chest pain. You respond and are
performing initial care. What drug should you consider giving in all Acute
Coronary Syndrome (ACS) patients?
A. Tylenol
B. Aspirin
C. Narcotic
D. High Flow O 2
Answers:
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. False
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. B
Updated 04-2022
2022 AHA ACLS Review Questions

Section 1: BLS
1. What is your priority in care for a pulseless patient?
2. What is the compression to ventilation ratio for the
pulseless patient without advanced airway?
3. How often do we switch CPR compressors?
4. How soon should compressions be started in the
pulseless patient? How long is the pulse check?
5. What is the maximum off chest time for the
pulseless patient? A common error in CPR is…
6. How much air do you use to ventilate your patient?
What does excessive ventilation cause?
7. What is the primary focus of the CPR Coach?
What role can be combined with the CPR Coach?
8. What is CCF? What is the CCF goal? What action
affects CCF the most? What action on the

monitor/defibrillator can increase CCF?
9. How often can you defibrillate a patient? What
rhythms can be defibrillated?
10. Best way to minimize interruption in chest
compressions (time off chest)?
11. What is the compression rate and depth?
12. Quantitative capnography be used for what 2 things?
What are PETCO2 readings associated with each?
13. What is a team leader’s first responsibility?
14. What should you say or do if a team member is
making a mistake?
15. What is the purpose of a rapid response team?
Section 2: Airway
1. What is ventilation rate and frequency for the adult
patient with a pulse? What happens to the heart rate
in a patient with severe hypoxia (or resp. arrest)?
2. What type of patient requires or oral pharyngeal
airway (OPA)? How do you measure for correct
size?
3. After ROSC, what is the target PETCO2 reading?
4. What is the ventilation rate on the pulseless patient
after advanced airway placement? Do you pause
compressions during ventilation with ETT?
5. Agonal breathing may be an indication of what?
6. What is the goal for stable O2 Saturations? What is
the initial treatment for O2 Saturations less than
92%?
Section 3: Blocks and Bradycardia

1. Correct treatments for all unstable bradycardias?
(Including heart blocks)
2. What IV infusions are recommended for unstable
bradycardia?
Updated 04-2022
3. What is true about the PR interval in a Second
degree type II block? Second degree Type 1?
4. Describe the relationship between the p wave and
the QRS in third-degree or complete heart block.
Section 4: Medications
1. What is preferred medication route for a pulseless
patient? 2nd choice?
2. When during the CPR cycle should meds be given?
3. What is the FIRST drug all pulseless patients get?
Dose? Frequency? How many defibs before the
first EPI?
4. What are the SECOND 2 drugs that can be given for
pulseless VT or VF rhythms? Dose? Frequency?
5. What antiarrhythmic is recommended for
polymorphic VT/torsades?
6. What is the first test to order for stable patients with
a new rhythm? What is the recommended treatment
for stable SVT? For Unstable SVT?
7. What is the recommended treatment for stable VT
with a pulse? For Unstable VT with a pulse?
8. What is first treatment option for ALL unstable
bradycardias and blocks?
9. How is closed loop communication used in

medication administration during a code?
10. What should you do/say if told to give the wrong
dose or wrong medication?
Section 5: PEA/Asystole
1. List the 5 H’s and 5 T’s (or PATCH 5MD)
2. What is the most frequent cause of PEA/Asystole?
3. Describe what PEA is.
4. How do you confirm a patient is really in asystole?
5. During a code of PeTCO2 reading of 8 could
indicate what?
What does a PeTCO2 reading that jumps to 35
during compressions indicate?
Section 6: Post Cardiac Arrest Care – After ROSC

1. What does ROSC stand for?
2. What is first treatment priority after ROSC?
3. List the other assessments done immediately after
ROSC:
4. What BP reading is the target for ROSC?
If the BP reading after ROSC is less than the target,
what is the initial treatment? 2nd tx?
Updated 04-2022
5. If a patient is non-responsive or not following
commands, what is the recommended treatment?
How Long?
Target temperature range?
6. If the 12 lead ECG shows ST elevation, what is the
treatment plan?
7. Excessive (hyper) ventilation can lead to what? After
ROSC, what is the risk of extended over- oxygenation?
8. If out of hospital arrest, what kind of hospital
should patient be transported to?
Section 7: Electric Therapy and Tachys

1. What electric therapy can be used for unstable
bradycardia?
2. Synch cardioversion can be used on what rhythms?
3. Safe defibrillation/cardioversion includes what steps?
4 Where in the rhythm is the shock delivered in
synchronized cardioversion?
5. What should your action be immediately following
defibrillation?
6. How often should we defib a pt that remain in pulseless
VT/VF? Should we ever delay defib to give meds?
Section 8: ACS
1. What is door to reperfusion time in STEMI pt?
2. What is MONA?
Doses?
3. What assessment tool is a priority in patients with
chest pain?
4. What are the contraindications to nitroglycerine
administration in pts. with chest pain?
5. What are contraindications to ASA?
6. What is a common symptom of ACS?
Section 9: CVA
1. What is the most important information needed on a
patient with stroke symptoms?

2. What is the “window of opportunity” for fibrinolytic
therapy in the CVA pt.?
3. What is the Adult Suspected Stroke Algorithm?
Who uses it?
4. Why must a non-contrast head CT be done ASAP on
pts. with stroke symptoms? How soon should it be
done?
If your hospital’s CT scanner is not operating, what
should you do?
5. Why is it important for EMS to provide prehospital
notification to the Stroke Team of arrival?
Acls test
Test your knowledge with our free ACLS Practice Test provided below in order to prepare you
for our official online exam. The practice test consists of 10 multiple-choice questions that are
derived from the ACLS provider handbook and adhere to the latest ILCOR and ECC guidelines.
1. What does the BLS Survey want you to assess which of the following?*
o Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
o Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get AED, Circulation, Defibrillation
o Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
o Circulation, Breathing, Cardiac Assessment, Drugs

 2. What amount of time should ACLS providers minimize interruptions during chest
compressions?*
o 10 seconds
o 20 seconds
o 30 seconds
o 60 seconds
 3. The ACLS Survey includes assessing which of the following?*
o Airway, Breathing, Chest Compressions, Deformity
o Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
o Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
o Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Differential Diagnosis

 4. Which of the following is NOT an element of effective resuscitation team dynamics?*
o Closed-loop communication
o Clear roles and responsibilities
o Multiple leaders of the team
o Knowing one's limitations

 5. How can hyperventilation be detrimental?*

o Increase intrathoracic pressure
o Decrease venous return to the heart
o Diminish cardiac output
o All of the above

 6. Which item is NOT a basic airway skill?*
o Head tilt-chin-lift maneuver
o Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
o Bag-mask ventilation
o Placement of laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

 7. What is the suction catheter that provides the most competent suctioning of the thick
particulate matter and oropharynx?*
o Pediatric soft flexible catheter
o Rigid catheter (Yankauer)
o Laryngeal tube
o None of the above

 8. What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?*
o Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
o Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
o Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
o Endotracheal tube (ET tube)

 9. The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR for an adult prior to placement of an
advanced airway is:*
o 30:1
o 30:2
o 15:1
o 20:2
 10. What reason is NOT valid during the critical early defibrillation for individuals
experiencing sudden cardiac arrest?*
o A common initial rhythm in out-of-hospital witnessed sudden cardiac arrest is

ventricular fibrillation (VF).
o The most effective treatment for VF is electrical defibrillation.
o The probability of successful defibrillation decreases quickly over time.
o Individuals in asystole respond well to late defibrillation.

ACLS Basics Practice Questions
Studying for Advanced Cardiac Life Support? Prepare for the Advanced Cardiac Life Support by
practicing on the ACLS Basics questions provided below. The practice questions are derived
from the ACLS provider handbook and adhere to the latest ILCOR and ECC guidelines.
1. What actions should you take after providing a shock with an AED?*
o Start CPR
o Allow time for the AED to reanalyze the rhythm
o Check for a pulse
o Provide a rescue breath

 2. What is the appropriate compression-to-ventilation ratio during single-provider CPR
where an advanced airway has yet to be placed?*
o 10:1
o 30:2
o 15:2
o 5:1
 3. During CPR on a patient with an advanced airway in place, which of the following is
true?*
o One breath every 6 seconds should be provided
o Prioritize reaching 20 or more breaths per minute
o Chest compressions should be stopped while giving breaths
o Alter between chest compressions and rescue breaths

 4. What is the most critical intervention during a witnessed sudden cardiac arrest?*
o High-quality chest compressions
o Establishing IV access
o Early defibrillation
o Early activation of the emergency response system

 5. Which of the following is true regarding suctioning attempts in ACLS interventions?*
o They should be 15-20 seconds
o They should be ten seconds or less
o They should be coupled with finger sweeps
o They should be no more than 30 seconds

 6. How often should rescue breaths be delivered in patients who are in respiratory arrest
with a perfusing rhythm?*
o Every 10 seconds
o Every 5-6 seconds
o Every 6 seconds
o Every 10-12 seconds

 7. Which of the following is not part of the initial BLS assessment?*
o Get an AED
o Activate emergency response system
o Establish IV access
o Check the patients’ level of responsiveness

 8. The success of any resuscitation attempt is built on what combination of factors?*
o High quality CPR and a through primary assessment
o High quality CPR and early defibrillation when indicated

o Thorough primary assessment and establishing IV access
o Early defibrillation when indicated and establishing IV access

 9. Which of the following is considered the most vital algorithm in the context of ACLS?
*
o Tachycardia
o Cardiac arrest
o Bradycardia
o Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

 10. How long should a carotid pulse check last during CPR before resuming
compressions?*
o 5-10 seconds
o 3-7 seconds
o 5-20 seconds
o 4-8 seconds
ACLS Tachycardia Practice Questions

practicing on the ACLS Tachycardia questions provided below. The practice questions are
1. Tachycardia does not usually cause serious signs or symptoms below what heart rate?*
o 200 bpm
o 190 bpm
o 180 bpm
o 150 bpm
 2. Unstable patients with regular narrow-complex supraventricular tachycardia can be
given what medication as synchronized cardioversion is being prepared?*
o Atropine 0.5 mg IVP
o Amiodarone 150 mg IVP
o Epinephrine 1 mg IVP
o Adenosine 6 mg IVP
 3. Which of the following is not an appropriate initial intervention when caring for a
patient presenting with primary tachycardia with a pulse?*
o Identify and treat reversible causes
o Attempt vagal maneuvers
o Monitor ECG, BP, and SpO2
o Provide oxygen if hypoxemia is observed

 4. If a patient experiencing a tachyarrhythmia becomes unstable, what is the most
important intervention to consider?*
o Antiarrhythmic medications
o Seek expert consultation
o IV fluids
o Synchronized cardioversion
 5. Which of the following scenarios calls for synchronized cardioversion?*
o An unstable patient with polymorphic VT
o A patient without a pulse
o An unstable patient with an unknown VT etiology
o An unstable patient with monomorphic tachycardia

 6. Which of the following antiarrhythmic medications should be considered alongside
vagal maneuvers for regular narrow-complex tachyarrhythmias?*
o Amiodarone
o Epinephrine
o Adenosine
o Atropine
 7. Two rounds of adenosine can be administered to attempt to convert a tachyarrhythmia
to sinus rhythm. What is the recommended dosing of adenosine in such a scenario?*
o 12 mg IVP followed by 12 mg IVP if no conversion

 8. Low-energy shocks are always delivered synchronously because if delivered
asynchronously, they have the potential to produce which of the following rhythms?*
o Atrial flutter
o Asystole
o Ventricular fibrillation
o Ventricular tachycardia
 9. If a patient is taking dipyridamole or carbamazepine, the initial dose of adenosine
should be reduced to how many mg?*
o 5 mg
o 3 mg
o 2 mg
o 4 mg
 10. What is the goal of ACLS intervention in patients with sinus tachycardia?*
o To prevent myocardial ischemia
o To prevent further deterioration of the arrhythmia
o To identify and treat the underlying systemic causes
o To provide continuous cardioversion
ACLS Ventricular Fibrillation Practice

Questions
practicing on the ACLS Ventricular Fibrillation questions provided below. The practice
questions are derived from the ACLS provider handbook and adhere to the latest ILCOR and
ECC guidelines.
1. What combination of drugs are used in the VF/pulseless VT algorithm?*
o Epinephrine, atropine, vasopressin, magnesium sulfate
o Epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, lidocaine
o Epinephrine, amiodarone, lidocaine, atropine
o Epinephrine, amiodarone, lidocaine, magnesium sulfate

 2. What is the primary ACLS treatment for VF/pulseless VT?*
o Lidocaine
o Epinephrine
o Unsynchronized shock
o Vagal maneuvers
 3. When using a monophasic defibrillator for VF/pulseless VT what is the appropriate
level of joules for the first and subsequently delivered shocks?*
o 200 Joules
o 300 Joules
o 260 Joules
o 360 Joules
 4. What should you do in VF/pulseless VT following the first unsynchronized shock?*
o Immediately resume CPR
o Perform a rhythm analysis
o Perform a pulse check
o Administer 1 mg IVP
 5. Assuming you are using a biphasic defibrillator, what is the initial energy dose for a
patient in VF/pulseless VT*
o 150-220 Joules
o 180-240 Joules
o 90-110 Joules
o 120-200 Joules
 6. How many initial shocks should be given in a patient with VF/pulseless VT?*
o 3 stacked shocks
o It depends on whether the rhythm is VF or pulseless VT
o Shocks are not indicated in the described scenario
o 1 shock
 7. You are running a code for an elderly patient who is experiencing VF. A single shock
of 120-200 Joules has been provided and CPR is performed for five cycles. What is your
next step?*
o Perform a rhythm check
o Assess breathing and circulation
o Deliver a second unsynchronized shock at the same energy level
o Administer epinephrine 1 mg IVP

 8. What is the maximum time chest compressions should be interrupted for during
ACLS?*
o 8 seconds
o 10 seconds
o 5 seconds
o 15 seconds
 9. The chest compression fraction during cardiac arrest should be at least 60%. However,
ideally, it should be greater than what value?*
o 75%
o 85%
o 80%
o 90%
 10. How long should it take a provider to work through five cycles of chest
compressions?*
o 3 minutes
o 4 minutes
o 1 minute
o 2 minutes
ACLS Pulseless Electrical Activity/Asystole

Practice Questions
practicing on the ACLS Pulseless Electrical Activity/Asystole questions provided below. The
practice questions are derived from the ACLS provider handbook and adhere to the latest ILCOR
and ECC guidelines.
1. Once IV/IO access has been established, which of the following should be administered in a
patient with confirmed PEA/asystole?*
o Adenosine 6 mg
o Epinephrine 1 mg
o Amiodarone 150 mg
o Atropine 1 mg
 2. What step occurs after CPR and pharmacotherapy in a patient with confirmed PEA?*
o Rhythm check
o Pulse check
o Cardioversion
o Transcutaneous pacing
 3. What clues might be noted during an assessment in a patient where PEA is occurring
secondary to hypovolemia?*
o Wide-complex bradycardia
o Edema in the lower limbs
o Neurological disorientation
o Progressive hypotension
 4. According to the Hs and Ts of ILCOR ACLS, which of the following combinations is
not one of the possible causes of PEA?*
o Hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, hydrogen ion (acidosis)
o Hypovolemia, thrombosis, toxins
o Hydrogen ion (acidosis), hypokalemia, tamponade
o Thrombocytopenia, hypoglycemia, hemophilia

 5. According to the ILCOR ACLS 2020-2025 guidelines, PEA is defined as:*
o Any rhythm without a palpable pulse
o Any organized or unorganized rhythm without a palpable pulse
o Any unorganized rhythm without a palpable pulse
o Any organized rhythm without a palpable pulse

 6. In addition to providing effective CPR, what is the second most important aspect of
successfully treating a patient with PEA?*
o Identifying and treating the underlying cause of the arrythmia
o Performing regular pulse checks
o Integrating pharmacotherapy as quickly as possible
o Performing transcutaneous pacing as quickly as possible

 7. PEA secondary to hypokalemia is most prominent in what patient population?*
o Individuals with a history of hypotension
o Individuals with diabetes mellitus
o Individuals using diuretics

o Individuals experiencing chest pain
 8. According to the Hs and Ts of ILCOR ACLS, the T that represents drug overdose and
chemical exposure as the cause of PEA is referring to what?*
o Tension pneumothorax
o Tamponade
o Toxins
o Thrombosis
 9. According to the Hs and Ts of ILCOR ACLS, what clue can be observed in patients
with PEA occurring secondary to toxin exposure (e.g., drug overdose)?*
o Narrow QRS complex
o Supraventricular tachycardia
o Tracheal deviation
o Prolonged QT interval
 10. Flattened T-waves, prominent U-waves, wide QRS, prolonged QT*
o Peaked T-waves, prominent U-waves, narrow QRS, prolonged QT
o Flattened T-waves, non-visible U-waves, wide QRS, shortened QT
o Flattened T-waves, prominent U-waves, wide QRS, prolonged QT
o Peaked T-waves, non-visible U-waves, narrow QRS, shortened QT
ACLS Post-Cardiac Arrest Care Practice

Questions
practicing on the ACLS Post-Cardiac Arrest Care questions provided below. The practice
ECC guidelines.
1. Which of the following post-resuscitation interventions has been shown to improve neurologic
recovery following cardiac arrest?*
o Continuous waveform capnography
o Vasopressor infusion
o Maintaining an SpO2 >94%
o Targeted temperature management

 2. When evaluating an arterial blood gas in the post-resuscitation phase, breaths-per-
minute should be titrated to achieve a partial pressure of carbon dioxide at what value?*
o 35-45 mmHg
o 40-50 mmHg
o 45-55 mmHg
o 30-40 mmHg
 3. What is the recommended volume of lactated Ringer’s solution that should be given
for the treatment of hypotension in the post-cardiac arrest phase?*
o 750 millilitres
o 1-2 litres
o 1 litre
o 500 millilitres
 4. What three medications are recommended for the treatment of hypotension in the post-
resuscitation phase?*
o Epinephrine, sotalol, labetalol
o Norepinephrine, amiodarone, sotalol

o Sotalol, dopamine, amiodarone
o Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

 5. Which of the following variables is measured by waveform capnography?*
o PaO2
o PCO2
o PaCO2
o PetCO2
 6. Which of the following variables is measured by waveform capnography?*
o Performing transcutaneous pacing as quickly as possible
o Integrating pharmacotherapy as quickly as possible
o Identifying and treating the underlying cause of the arrhythmia
o Performing regular pulse checks

 7. According to ILCOR ACLS recommendations, how long should cooling measures
persist within the post-arrest phase following spontaneous return of circulation?*
o 12-24 hours
o 36 hours
o Less than 12 hours
o At least 24 hours
 8. What is the purpose of targeted temperature management?*
o Improve the effectiveness of medications
o Keep the heart rate in a controllable range

o Protect the brain and other vital organs
o Reduce the chances of reoccurrence of cardiac arrest

 9. What does ROSC stand for?*
o Return of shock and compressions
o Return of spontaneous compression
o Return of strong circulation
o Return of spontaneous circulation

 10. Oxygen saturation levels should be maintained at what value during the post-cardiac
arrest phase?*
o >90%
o 90-95%
o 92-98%
o >97%
ACLS Acute Coronary Syndrome Practice

Questions
practicing on the ACLS Acute Coronary Syndrome questions provided below. The practice
ECC guidelines.
1. What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction?*
o Discomfort along the superior thoracic vertebral region
o Radiating pain in one of the upper limbs
o Jaw or neck pain

o Retrosternal discomfort
 2. Oxygen should be administered if SpO2 values are below what value?*
o 95%
o 90%
o 92%
o 94%
 3. A patient has presented to the emergency room with symptoms of acute coronary
syndrome. The goal is to conduct and analyze their ECG findings within how many
minutes of arrival?*
o 20 minutes
o 5 minutes
o 15 minutes
o 10 minutes
 4. What is the primary treatment focus for patients with acute coronary syndrome?*
o Seeking expert consultation
o Rapid reperfusion following STEMI presentation
o Early hospital arrival
o Rapid pharmacological intervention

 5. Which of the following arrhythmias is most commonly caused by acute myocardial
ischemia?*
o Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
o Supraventricular tachycardia
o Ventricular tachycardia
 6. Which of the following medications are used in the primary treatment of acute
coronary syndrome?*
o Morphine, ACE inhibitors, fibrinolytics
o Aspirin, morphine, nitroglycerin
o Simvastatin, aspirin, ACE inhibitors
o Heparin, nitroglycerin, morphine

 7. Which of the following interventions is crucial in the risk and treatment stratification
process of the ACLS acute coronary syndrome algorithm?*
o Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
o Using the primary assessment to identify a potential myocardial infarction
o Obtaining a family history
o Assessing pain level

 8. Percutaneous coronary intervention should be done within how many minutes of
arrival at the emergency department?*
o 30 minutes
o 60 minutes
o 90 minutes
o 120 minutes
 9. Fibrinolytic agents are often given in cases of acute coronary syndrome, but are only
effective in what percentage of patients?*
o 20%
o 30%
o 50%
o 40%
 10. According to the ILCOR ACLS acute coronary syndrome protocol, what is the
recommended dosage of oral aspirin*
o 81 mg
o 120-200 mg
o 162-325 mg
o 300 mg
ACLS Acute Stroke Care Practice Questions

practicing on the ACLS Acute Stroke Care questions provided below. The practice questions are
1. CT scan interpretation should occur within how many minutes of arrival at the emergency
department?
o 45 minutes
o 40 minutes
o 25 minutes
o 30 minutes
 2. What is the correct order of the eight Ds of stroke care?*
o Detection, dispatch, delivery, door, data, decision, drug, disposition
o Decision, delivery, dispatch, door, data, drug, detection, disposition
o Dispatch, detection, data, decision, drug, disposition, delivery, door
o Detection, decision, dispatch, drug, disposition, door, delivery, data

 3. According to the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, a stroke is identified based on
what three physical findings?*
o Facial droop, dizziness, headache
o Headache, abnormal speech, vision changes
o Headache, dizziness, facial droop
o Facial droop, arm drift, abnormal speech

 4. How long does a patient typically have between the onset of symptoms for ischemic
stroke to when fibrinolytic therapy needs to be initiated?*
o 90 minutes
o 45 minutes
o 2 hours
o 3 hours
 5. How soon should a suspected stroke patient receive an order for a non-contrast CT
scan after arriving at the emergency room?*
o Within 15 minutes
o Within 5 minutes
o Within 20 minutes
o Within 10 minutes
 6. What is the most common form of stroke?*
o Hemorrhagic
o Neurogenic
o Ischemic
o Cardiogenic
 7. How soon should a neurological assessment and CT scan be done in a suspected stroke
patient after arriving in the emergency room?*
o 25 minutes
o 15 minutes
o 20 minutes
o 30 minutes
 8. According to the ILCOR ACLS Provider Manual, fibrinolytic therapy may be given to
patients that are a minimum of how many years of age?*
o 18 years
o 21 years
o 12 years
o 15 years
 9. Anticoagulants are contraindicated for how many hours following the administration of
recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA)?*
o 36 hours
o 48 hours
o 24 hours
o 12 hours
 10. Blood pressure should be carefully monitored for 2 hours after the starting
recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA) therapy. During this period, how often
should blood pressure be assessed?
o 60 minutes
o 10 minutes
o 15 minutes
o 30 minutes
ACLS Bradycardia Practice Questions

practicing on the ACLS Bradycardia Practice questions provided below. The practice questions
are derived from the ACLS provider handbook and adhere to the latest ILCOR and ECC
guidelines.
1. What is generally considered the most clinically significant type of block in patients
experiencing symptomatic bradycardia?*
o Type II (Mobitz II)
o Type I (Mobitz I)
o First-degree AV block
o Third-degree AV block
 2. Which medications are involved in the ACLS bradycardia algorithm?*
o Norepinephrine, atropine, epinephrine
o Lidocaine, dopamine, norepinephrine
o Lidocaine, atropine, dopamine
o Atropine, epinephrine, dopamine

 3. How do the ILCOR Guidelines define bradyarrhythmia?*
o Any symptomatic rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than 50 bpm
o Any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than 50 bpm

 4. What is the primary decision point in the bradycardia algorithm?*
o Blood pressure
o Heart rate
o Adequate perfusion
o Rhythm
 5. Once it has been determined that a bradycardic patient is not adequately perfused, what
initial step needs to be taken?*
o Observe and monitor the patient
o Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
o Deliver a single unsynchronized shock at 120-200 Joules
o Administer atropine
 6. Which of the following rhythms is most likely to be associated with symptomatic
bradycardia?*
o Mobitz II (Type II)
o Atrial flutter
o Pulseless electrical activity

 7. According to the ILCOR ACLS bradycardia algorithm, what is the correct dosage for
dopamine?*
o 3-5 mcg/kg/min infusion

 8. According to the ILCOR ACLS bradycardia algorithm, what is the correct dosage for
atropine?*
o 1 mg IVP (max 4 mg total)
o 0.5 mg IVP (max 3 mg total)
o 0.5 mg IVP (max 2 mg total)
o 1 mg IVP (max 3 mg total)

 9. According to the ILCOR ACLS bradycardia algorithm, which of the following
medications should be considered in patients who are unresponsive to atropine?*
o Epinephrine
o Magnesium sulfate
o Amiodarone
o Adenosine
 10. According to the ACLS bradycardia algorithm, what is the correct dosage for
epinephrine?
o 2-4 mcg/min infusion
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ACLS Exam Version B

ACLS Exam Version B
Course
Accounting (ACLS 123)
62 Documents
University
Chamberlain University
Academic year: 2020/2021
Uploaded by:
IAN NJUGUNA
999+
Pan Africa Christian University
Comments
Please sign in or register to post comments.
 Judith1 month ago

EXCELENTE MATERIAL DE ESTUDIO

Hay1 year ago

were these the same questions as the actual exam??

Cm
Chan1 year ago

thank

TS
 TAK1 year ago

thanks

 kvy2 years ago
TANKS
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ACLS
Preview text
Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Exam Version B (50 questions)
Please do not mark on this exam. Record the best answer on the separate answer sheet.
1 should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR?
A. Perform pulse checks only after defibrillation. B. Continue CPR while the defibrillator is
charging. C. Administer IV medications only when breaths are given. D. Continue to use AED
even after the arrival of a manual defibrillator.
2 condition is an indication to stop or withhold resuscitative efforts?
A. Unwitnessed arrest B. Safety threat to providers C. Patient age greater than 85 years D. No
return of spontaneous circulation after 10 minutes of CPR
3. After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate CPR with adequate bag-mask
ventilation. The patient’s lead II ECG appears below. What is your next action?
A. IV or IO access B. Endotracheal tube placement C. Consultation with cardiology for possible

PCI D. Application of a transcutaneous pacemaker
4. After verifying unresponsiveness and abnormal breathing, you activate the emergency
response team. What is your next action?
A. Retrieve an AED. B. Check for a pulse. C. Deliver 2 rescue breaths. D. Administer a

precordial thump.
5. What is the recommendation on the use of cricoid pressure to prevent aspiration during
cardiac arrest?
A. Not recommended for routine use B. Recommended during every resuscitation attempt C.
Recommended when the patient is vomiting D. Recommended only for supraglottic airway
insertion
6 survival advantages does CPR provide to a patient in ventricular fibrillation?
A. Increases the defibrillation threshold B. Directly restores an organized rhythm C. Opposes the
harmful effects of epinephrine D. Produces a small amount of blood flow to the heart
7 is the recommended compression rate for performing CPR?
A. 60 to 80 per minute B. 80 to 100 per minute C. About 100 per minute D. At least 100 per
minute
8. EMS personnel arrive to find a patient in cardiac arrest. Bystanders are performing
CPR. After attaching a cardiac monitor, the responder observes the following rhythm
strip. What is the most important early intervention?
A. Defibrillation B. Endotracheal intubation C. Epinephrine administration D. Antiarrhythmic

administration
9. A patient remains in ventricular fibrillation despite 1 shock and 2 minutes of continuous

CPR. The next intervention is to
A. administer amiodarone. B. administer a second shock. C. administer epinephrine. D. insert an

advanced airway.
16. A team leader orders 1 mg of epinephrine, and a team member verbally acknowledges
when the medication is administered. What element of effective resuscitation team
dynamics does this represent?
A. Clear messages B. Knowing one’s limitations C. Closed-loop communication D. Clear roles

and responsibilities
17 long should it take to perform a pulse check during the BLS Survey?
A. 1 to 5 seconds B. 5 to 10 seconds C. 10 to 15 seconds D. 15 to 20 seconds
18. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the kitchen floor. You
determine that he is unresponsive and notice that he is taking agonal breaths. What is the
next step in your assessment and management of this patient?
A. Apply the AED. B. Check the patient’s pulse. C. Open the patient’s airway. D. Check for the
presence of breathing.
19 treatment or medication is appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole?
A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Defibrillation D. Transcutaneous pacing
20 AED advises a shock for a pulseless patient lying in snow. What is the next action?
A. Place a backboard beneath the patient and administer the shock. B. Move the patient off the
snow to bare ground and deliver the shock. C. Remove any snow beneath the patient and then
administer the shock. D. Administer the shock immediately and continue as directed by the
AED.
21 is the minimum depth of chest compressions for an adult in cardiac arrest?
A. 1 inch B. 1½ inches C. 2 inches D. 2½ inches
22 patient with pulseless ventricular tachycardia is defibrillated. What is the next action?
A. Check for a pulse. B. Administer an IV antiarrhythmic. C. Start chest compressions at a rate

of at least 100/min. D. Repeat the unsynchronized shock, increasing to 200 J.
23. You have completed your first 2-minute period of CPR. You see an organized,
nonshockable rhythm on the ECG monitor. What is the next action?
A. Administer normal saline at 20 mL/kg. B. Administer epinephrine at 1 mg/kg IV. C. Obtain a

blood pressure and oxygen saturation. D. Have a team member attempt to palpate a carotid pulse.
24. Emergency medical responders are unable to obtain a peripheral IV for a patient in
cardiac arrest. What is the next most preferred route for drug administration?
A. I ntraosseous (IO) B. Endotracheal (ET) C. Intramuscular (IM) D. Central venous access
25 is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for an adult in cardiac arrest?
A. At least 150/min B. At least 100/min C. Approximately 100/min D. Approximately 120/min
26. You are receiving a radio report from an EMS team en route with a patient who may
be having an acute stroke. The hospital CT scanner is not working at this time. What
should you do in this situation?
A. Contact the patient’s family to see what they would prefer. B. Have the EMS crew choose an
appropriate patient disposition. C. Accept the report and provide care within your present
capability. D. Divert the patient to a hospital 15 minutes away with CT capabilities.
27. A 53-year-old man has shortness of breath, chest discomfort, and weakness. The
patient’s blood pressure is 102/59 mm Hg, the heart rate is 230/min, the respiratory rate is
16 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry reading is 96%. The lead II ECG is displayed
below. A patent peripheral IV is in place. What is the next action?
A. Acquisition of a 12-lead ECG B. Vagal maneuvers C. Procedural sedation D. Immediate

defibrillation
28. A 49-year-old man has retrosternal chest pain radiating into the left arm. The patient is
diaphoretic, with associated shortness of breath. The blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg, the
heart rate is 110/min, the respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry value
is 95%. The patient’s 12-lead ECG shows ST- segment elevation in the anterior leads. First
responders administered 160 mg of aspirin, and there is a patent peripheral IV. The pain is
described as an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10 and is unrelieved after 3 doses of nitroglycerin. What
is the next action? A. Administer an additional dose of aspirin. B. Administer an additional
nitroglycerin tablet. C. Administer high-flow oxygen via an oxygen mask. D. Administer 2 to 4
mg of morphine by slow IV bolus.
29. A 56-year-old man reports that he has palpitations but not chest pain or difficulty
breathing. The blood pressure is 132/68 mm Hg, the pulse is 130/min and regular, the
respiratory rate is 12 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry reading is 95%. The lead II ECG
displays a wide-complex tachycardia. What is the next action after establishing an IV and
obtaining a 12-lead ECG?
A. Administration of IV epinephrine B. Seeking expert consultation C. Procedural sedation D.

Synchronized cardioversion
30. A postoperative patient in the ICU reports new chest pain. What actions have the
highest priority? A. Administer an IV fluid bolus and obtain arterial blood gas. B. Start
dopamine at 2 mcg/kg per minute and obtain a chest x-ray. C. Send blood to the laboratory for
chemistry and cardiac enzymes.
31. An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with dizziness. She now
states she is asymptomatic after walking around. Her blood pressure is 102/72 mm Hg. She
is alert and oriented. Her lead II ECG is below. After you start an IV, what is the next
action?
A. Give an IV fluid bolus. B. Give atropine and monitor for changes in mental status. C. Start an
epinephrine infusion and titrate to patient response. D. Conduct a problem-focused history and
physical examination.
32. What is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for patients suspected of having one of
the acute coronary syndromes?
A. 2 to 4 mg B. 80 to 120 mg C. 160 to 325 mg D. 400 to 600 mg
33. A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The
patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mm Hg, and a heart
rate of 190/min. The patient’s lead II ECG is displayed below.
Which of the following terms best describes this patient?
A. Sinus tachycardia B. Perfusing ventricular tachycardia C. Stable supraventricular tachycardia

D. Unstable supraventricular tachycardia
34. What is the most appropriate intervention for a rapidly deteriorating patient who has
this lead II ECG?
A. Valsalva maneuver B. Synchronized cardioversion C. Intravenous administration of

adenosine D. Immediate unsynchronized countershock
35 is the purpose of a medical emergency team (MET) or rapid response team (RRT)? A.
Providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field B. Providing diagnostic consultation
to emergency department patients C. Improving care for deteriorating patients admitted to
critical care units D. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical
deterioration
36. What is the recommended assisted ventilation rate for patients in respiratory arrest
with a perfusing rhythm? A. 4 to 6 breaths per minute B. 10 to 12 breaths per minute C. 14 to
16 breaths per minute D. 16 to 18 breaths per minute
37. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm
Hg, the heart rate is 92/min, the nonlabored respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min, and the
pulse oximetry reading is 97%. What assessment step is most important now? A. PETCO 2
B. Chest x-ray C. Laboratory testing D. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
38. Family members found a 45-year-old woman unresponsive in bed. The patient is
unconscious and in respiratory arrest. What is the recommended initial airway
management technique? A. Placing a nasopharyngeal airway B. Using an advanced airway
device C. Performing a head tilt–chin lift maneuver
39. A patient in respiratory distress and with a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg presents
with the following lead II ECG rhythm:
What is the appropriate next intervention?
A. Defibrillation B. Amiodarone 150 mg IV C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push D. Synchronized

cardioversion
40 patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm:
A. Defibrillation B. Adenosine 6 mg IV push C. Epinephrine 1 mg IV push D. Synchronized

cardioversion
41. What is the recommended energy dose for biphasic synchronized cardioversion of atrial
fibrillation?
A. 50 to 75 J B. 75 to 100 J C. 120 to 200 J D. 200 to 300 J
42. Which of the following is an acceptable method of selecting an
appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?

A. Estimate by using the size of the patient’s thumb. B. Estimate by using the formula Weight
(kg)/8 + 2. C. Measure from the thyroid cartilage to the angle of the mandible. D. Measure from
the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible.
43. Which is a contraindication to nitroglycerin administration in the
management of acute coronary syndromes?
A. Heart rate greater than 80/min B. Right ventricular infarction and dysfunction C.
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor use more than 72 hours ago D. Systolic blood pressure greater than
100 mm Hg
44. What is the recommended initial intervention for managing hypotension in
the immediate period after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)?
A. Atropine bolus B. Administration of IV or IO fluid bolus C. Placement of a central line to

monitor pulmonary wedge pressure D. Phenylephrine hydrochloride titrated to keep systolic
blood pressure >100 mm Hg
45. Which is an appropriate and important intervention to perform for a patient
who achieves ROSC during an out-of-hospital resuscitation?
A. Initiate an antiarrhythmic infusion. B. Transport the patient to a facility capable of performing

PCI. C. Replace any supraglottic airway with an endotracheal tube. D. Place a central venous
catheter for hemodynamic monitoring.
46. What is the immediate danger of excessive ventilation during the post–cardiac
arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC?
A. Oxygen toxicity B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Decreased cerebral blood flow D.

Ventilation/perfusion mismatch
47. What is the recommended target temperature range for achieving therapeutic
hypothermia after cardiac arrest?
A. 26C to 28C B. 29C to 31C C. 32 C to 34C D. 35C to 37C
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patient’s blood pressure is 102/59 mm Hg, the heart rate is 230/min, the respiratory rate
is 16 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry reading is 96%. The lead II ECG is displayed
A. Acquisition of a 12-lead ECG
B. Vagal maneuvers
C. Procedural sedation
D. Immediate defibrillation
28. A 49-year-old man has retrosternal chest pain radiating into the left arm. The
patient is diaphoretic, with associated shortness of breath. The blood pressure
is 130/88 mm Hg, the heart rate is 110/min, the respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min,
and the pulse oximetry value is 95%. The patient’s 12-lead ECG shows ST-
segment elevation in the anterior leads. First responders administered 160 mg
of aspirin, and there is a patent peripheral IV. The pain is described as an 8 on a
scale of 1 to 10 and is unrelieved after 3 doses of nitroglycerin. What is the next
action?
A. Administer an additional dose of aspirin.
B. Administer an additional nitroglycerin tablet.
C. Administer high-flow oxygen via an oxygen mask.
D. Administer 2 to 4 mg of morphine by slow IV bolus.
29. A 56-year-old man reports that he has palpitations but not chest pain or
difficulty breathing. The blood pressure is 132/68 mm Hg, the pulse is 130/min
and regular, the respiratory rate is 12 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry
reading is 95%. The lead II ECG displays a wide-complex tachycardia. What is
the next action after establishing an IV and obtaining a 12-lead ECG?
A. Administration of IV epinephrine
B. Seeking expert consultation
C. Procedural sedation
D. Synchronized cardioversion
30. A postoperative patient in the ICU reports new chest pain. What actions have
the highest priority?
A. Administer an IV fluid bolus and obtain arterial blood gas.
B. Start dopamine at 2 mcg/kg per minute and obtain a chest x-ray.
Skip to document
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 ACLS Exam Version B

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ACLS Exam Version B

ACLS Exam Version B
Course
Accounting (ACLS 123)
62 Documents
University
Chamberlain University
Academic year: 2020/2021
Uploaded by:
IAN NJUGUNA
999+
Pan Africa Christian University
Comments
Please sign in or register to post comments.

 Judith1 month ago
EXCELENTE MATERIAL DE ESTUDIO

Hay1 year ago

were these the same questions as the actual exam??

Cm
Chan1 year ago

thank

TS
 TAK1 year ago

thanks

 kvy2 years ago
TANKS
Students also viewed
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
 Final Exam - exam

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
 ENGL148 Week 2 Argument Research Essay Proposal Template

 376573541 758945609402891 724444501849569543 n

 Blood Transfusions- knowledge check
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
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 Test Bank For Gould's Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 7th Edition VanMeter and
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Related Studylists
AclsHelpful info
ACLS
Preview text
Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Exam Version B (50 questions)
Please do not mark on this exam. Record the best answer on the separate answer sheet.
1 should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR?
A. Perform pulse checks only after defibrillation. B. Continue CPR while the defibrillator is
charging. C. Administer IV medications only when breaths are given. D. Continue to use AED
even after the arrival of a manual defibrillator.
2 condition is an indication to stop or withhold resuscitative efforts?
A. Unwitnessed arrest B. Safety threat to providers C. Patient age greater than 85 years D. No
return of spontaneous circulation after 10 minutes of CPR
3. After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate CPR with adequate bag-mask
ventilation. The patient’s lead II ECG appears below. What is your next action?
A. IV or IO access B. Endotracheal tube placement C. Consultation with cardiology for possible
PCI D. Application of a transcutaneous pacemaker
4. After verifying unresponsiveness and abnormal breathing, you activate the emergency
response team. What is your next action?
A. Retrieve an AED. B. Check for a pulse. C. Deliver 2 rescue breaths. D. Administer a

precordial thump.
5. What is the recommendation on the use of cricoid pressure to prevent aspiration during
cardiac arrest?
A. Not recommended for routine use B. Recommended during every resuscitation attempt C.
Recommended when the patient is vomiting D. Recommended only for supraglottic airway
insertion
6 survival advantages does CPR provide to a patient in ventricular fibrillation?
A. Increases the defibrillation threshold B. Directly restores an organized rhythm C. Opposes the
harmful effects of epinephrine D. Produces a small amount of blood flow to the heart
7 is the recommended compression rate for performing CPR?
A. 60 to 80 per minute B. 80 to 100 per minute C. About 100 per minute D. At least 100 per
minute
8. EMS personnel arrive to find a patient in cardiac arrest. Bystanders are performing
CPR. After attaching a cardiac monitor, the responder observes the following rhythm
strip. What is the most important early intervention?
A. Defibrillation B. Endotracheal intubation C. Epinephrine administration D. Antiarrhythmic

administration
9. A patient remains in ventricular fibrillation despite 1 shock and 2 minutes of continuous

CPR. The next intervention is to
A. administer amiodarone. B. administer a second shock. C. administer epinephrine. D. insert an

advanced airway.
16. A team leader orders 1 mg of epinephrine, and a team member verbally acknowledges
when the medication is administered. What element of effective resuscitation team
dynamics does this represent?
A. Clear messages B. Knowing one’s limitations C. Closed-loop communication D. Clear roles

and responsibilities
17 long should it take to perform a pulse check during the BLS Survey?
A. 1 to 5 seconds B. 5 to 10 seconds C. 10 to 15 seconds D. 15 to 20 seconds
18. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the kitchen floor. You
determine that he is unresponsive and notice that he is taking agonal breaths. What is the
next step in your assessment and management of this patient?
A. Apply the AED. B. Check the patient’s pulse. C. Open the patient’s airway. D. Check for the
presence of breathing.
19 treatment or medication is appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole?
A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Defibrillation D. Transcutaneous pacing
20 AED advises a shock for a pulseless patient lying in snow. What is the next action?
A. Place a backboard beneath the patient and administer the shock. B. Move the patient off the
snow to bare ground and deliver the shock. C. Remove any snow beneath the patient and then
administer the shock. D. Administer the shock immediately and continue as directed by the
AED.
21 is the minimum depth of chest compressions for an adult in cardiac arrest?
A. 1 inch B. 1½ inches C. 2 inches D. 2½ inches
22 patient with pulseless ventricular tachycardia is defibrillated. What is the next action?
A. Check for a pulse. B. Administer an IV antiarrhythmic. C. Start chest compressions at a rate

of at least 100/min. D. Repeat the unsynchronized shock, increasing to 200 J.
23. You have completed your first 2-minute period of CPR. You see an organized,
nonshockable rhythm on the ECG monitor. What is the next action?
A. Administer normal saline at 20 mL/kg. B. Administer epinephrine at 1 mg/kg IV. C. Obtain a

blood pressure and oxygen saturation. D. Have a team member attempt to palpate a carotid pulse.
24. Emergency medical responders are unable to obtain a peripheral IV for a patient in
cardiac arrest. What is the next most preferred route for drug administration?
A. I ntraosseous (IO) B. Endotracheal (ET) C. Intramuscular (IM) D. Central venous access
25 is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for an adult in cardiac arrest?
A. At least 150/min B. At least 100/min C. Approximately 100/min D. Approximately 120/min

26. You are receiving a radio report from an EMS team en route with a patient who may
be having an acute stroke. The hospital CT scanner is not working at this time. What
should you do in this situation?
A. Contact the patient’s family to see what they would prefer. B. Have the EMS crew choose an
appropriate patient disposition. C. Accept the report and provide care within your present
capability. D. Divert the patient to a hospital 15 minutes away with CT capabilities.
patient’s blood pressure is 102/59 mm Hg, the heart rate is 230/min, the respiratory rate is
16 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry reading is 96%. The lead II ECG is displayed
A. Acquisition of a 12-lead ECG B. Vagal maneuvers C. Procedural sedation D. Immediate

defibrillation
28. A 49-year-old man has retrosternal chest pain radiating into the left arm. The patient is
diaphoretic, with associated shortness of breath. The blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg, the
heart rate is 110/min, the respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry value
is 95%. The patient’s 12-lead ECG shows ST- segment elevation in the anterior leads. First
responders administered 160 mg of aspirin, and there is a patent peripheral IV. The pain is
described as an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10 and is unrelieved after 3 doses of nitroglycerin. What
is the next action? A. Administer an additional dose of aspirin. B. Administer an additional
nitroglycerin tablet. C. Administer high-flow oxygen via an oxygen mask. D. Administer 2 to 4
mg of morphine by slow IV bolus.
29. A 56-year-old man reports that he has palpitations but not chest pain or difficulty
breathing. The blood pressure is 132/68 mm Hg, the pulse is 130/min and regular, the
respiratory rate is 12 breaths/min, and the pulse oximetry reading is 95%. The lead II ECG
displays a wide-complex tachycardia. What is the next action after establishing an IV and
obtaining a 12-lead ECG?
A. Administration of IV epinephrine B. Seeking expert consultation C. Procedural sedation D.

Synchronized cardioversion
30. A postoperative patient in the ICU reports new chest pain. What actions have the
highest priority? A. Administer an IV fluid bolus and obtain arterial blood gas. B. Start
dopamine at 2 mcg/kg per minute and obtain a chest x-ray. C. Send blood to the laboratory for
chemistry and cardiac enzymes.
31. An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with dizziness. She now
states she is asymptomatic after walking around. Her blood pressure is 102/72 mm Hg. She
is alert and oriented. Her lead II ECG is below. After you start an IV, what is the next
action?
A. Give an IV fluid bolus. B. Give atropine and monitor for changes in mental status. C. Start an
epinephrine infusion and titrate to patient response. D. Conduct a problem-focused history and
physical examination.
32. What is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for patients suspected of having one of
the acute coronary syndromes?
A. 2 to 4 mg B. 80 to 120 mg C. 160 to 325 mg D. 400 to 600 mg
33. A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The
patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mm Hg, and a heart
rate of 190/min. The patient’s lead II ECG is displayed below.
Which of the following terms best describes this patient?
A. Sinus tachycardia B. Perfusing ventricular tachycardia C. Stable supraventricular tachycardia

D. Unstable supraventricular tachycardia
34. What is the most appropriate intervention for a rapidly deteriorating patient who has
this lead II ECG?
A. Valsalva maneuver B. Synchronized cardioversion C. Intravenous administration of

adenosine D. Immediate unsynchronized countershock
35 is the purpose of a medical emergency team (MET) or rapid response team (RRT)? A.
Providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field B. Providing diagnostic consultation
to emergency department patients C. Improving care for deteriorating patients admitted to
critical care units D. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical
deterioration
36. What is the recommended assisted ventilation rate for patients in respiratory arrest
with a perfusing rhythm? A. 4 to 6 breaths per minute B. 10 to 12 breaths per minute C. 14 to
16 breaths per minute D. 16 to 18 breaths per minute
37. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm
Hg, the heart rate is 92/min, the nonlabored respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min, and the
pulse oximetry reading is 97%. What assessment step is most important now? A. PETCO 2
B. Chest x-ray C. Laboratory testing D. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
38. Family members found a 45-year-old woman unresponsive in bed. The patient is
unconscious and in respiratory arrest. What is the recommended initial airway
management technique? A. Placing a nasopharyngeal airway B. Using an advanced airway
device C. Performing a head tilt–chin lift maneuver
39. A patient in respiratory distress and with a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg presents
with the following lead II ECG rhythm:
A. Defibrillation B. Amiodarone 150 mg IV C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push D. Synchronized

cardioversion
40 patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm:
A. Defibrillation B. Adenosine 6 mg IV push C. Epinephrine 1 mg IV push D. Synchronized

cardioversion
41. What is the recommended energy dose for biphasic synchronized cardioversion of atrial
fibrillation?
A. 50 to 75 J B. 75 to 100 J C. 120 to 200 J D. 200 to 300 J
42. Which of the following is an acceptable method of selecting an
appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
A. Estimate by using the size of the patient’s thumb. B. Estimate by using the formula Weight
(kg)/8 + 2. C. Measure from the thyroid cartilage to the angle of the mandible. D. Measure from
the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible.
43. Which is a contraindication to nitroglycerin administration in the
management of acute coronary syndromes?
A. Heart rate greater than 80/min B. Right ventricular infarction and dysfunction C.
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor use more than 72 hours ago D. Systolic blood pressure greater than
100 mm Hg
44. What is the recommended initial intervention for managing hypotension in
the immediate period after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)?
A. Atropine bolus B. Administration of IV or IO fluid bolus C. Placement of a central line to

monitor pulmonary wedge pressure D. Phenylephrine hydrochloride titrated to keep systolic
blood pressure >100 mm Hg
45. Which is an appropriate and important intervention to perform for a patient
who achieves ROSC during an out-of-hospital resuscitation?

A. Initiate an antiarrhythmic infusion. B. Transport the patient to a facility capable of performing
PCI. C. Replace any supraglottic airway with an endotracheal tube. D. Place a central venous
catheter for hemodynamic monitoring.
46. What is the immediate danger of excessive ventilation during the post–cardiac
arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC?
A. Oxygen toxicity B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Decreased cerebral blood flow D.

Ventilation/perfusion mismatch
47. What is the recommended target temperature range for achieving therapeutic
hypothermia after cardiac arrest?
A. 26C to 28C B. 29C to 31C C. 32 C to 34C D. 35C to 37C
ACLS Pretest
Questions and Answers
Congratulations on completing the ACLS pretest!
Quiz Results: Keep studying. You're doing great!
Signup to our ACLS Certification course today for full access to our training library!
Score: 3
Percentage: 30%
Which of these is NOT a recommended pharmacological treatment for a stable patient with a
wide complex ventricular tachycardia (monomorphic)?
 Epinephrine
 Sotalol
 Amiodarone
 Procainamide
Epinephrine is the only drug listed that is not found in the algorithm for treating wide complex
ventricular tachycardia (monomorphic).
When should an unconscious patient receive only rescue breaths and not CPR?
 if the patient has a bounding pulse and is not breathing

 if the patient has a pulse and is breathing appropriately
 if the patient has no pulse and is not breathing
 if the patient has bradycardia and is breathing
Patient oxygenation should be your primary concern when there is insufficient respiratory
function in a patient with sufficient circulatory function.
What is the single most important therapy for survival of cardiac arrest?
 early pharmacological treatment

 early differential diagnosis
 early defibrillation
 early cardioversion
Studies have shown early defibrillation by emergency medical personnel dramatically improves
patient survival from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.
Where should you palpate for a pulse on an unconscious infant during CPR?
 radial pulse
 brachial pulse
 femoral pulse
 both the brachial and femoral pulses
Both the brachial and femoral arterial pulses are reliable indicators of circulation in the infant
population.
A conscious patient is diagnosed with symptomatic coronary thrombosis in the ER. What are
appropriate treatments?
 have the patient chew and swollow an aspirin

 give the patient oxygen (O2)
 give the patient nitroglycerin
 all are correct treatment options

This coincides with the mnemonic MONA for treatment of a myocardial infarction. Morphine,
Oxygen, Nitrates, Aspirin
You witness the collapse of an adult. Upon assessment he is unresponsive but is still adequately
breathing and has a pulse. You have called for the emergency response team. There is no concern
for a spinal injury. What is your next best course of action?
 begin 5 cycles of CPR

 administer oxygen by nasal canula
 place the patient in the recovery position
 perform a head tilt chin lift maneuver
Your primary concern is to maintain a patent airway in an unconscious patient that has
appropriate respiratory and circulatory function. Since there is no reason to assume spinal injury,
placing the patient in the recovery position is the most logical choice.
Which of these drugs should be avoided when a patient presents with Atrial Fibrillations with
Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW) delta waves?
 verapamil
 adenosine
 cardizem
 all of the above
AV node blockers should be avoided when a patient presents with atrial fibrillation and/or atrial
flutter with Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW). This is because these medications can
block the heart's normal electrical pathway, exacerbating the syndrome.
Which of these is the preferred advanced airway for an unconscious adult that is showing poor
ventilation with an ambu bag?
 combitube
 endotracheal tube
 laryngial mask airway
 none of the above
Endotracheal tube (ET) intubation is the gold standard for patients who are difficult to ventilate.
This is because an endotracheal tube provides an unobstructed airway that offers superior
ventilatory control, while greatly reducing the risk of aspiration.
How long should you check for a carotid pulse on an adult?
 5-10 seconds
 10-15 seconds
 at least 30 seconds
 for a full two minutes
5 to 10 seconds allows for sufficient time to accurately assess the pulse without having a
prolonged interruption between chest compression cycles. Studies have shown extended
interruptions between chest compression cycles during CPR leads to lower patient survival rates.
When should a jaw thrust be used in place of a head tilt-chin lift?
 patient has a spinal fusion between T4-T5

 patient has a C-spine injury
 patient has a foreign body airway obstruction
 patient develops angioedema from ACE inhibitor use
When performing CPR, using the jaw-thrust maneuver allows for a patent airway without
moving and risking further injury to a compromised C-spine.
ACLS Pretest
Signup to our ACLS Certification course today for full access to our training library!
Score: 3
Percentage: 30%
Which of these is NOT a recommended pharmacological treatment for a stable patient with a
wide complex ventricular tachycardia (monomorphic)?
 Epinephrine
 Sotalol
 Amiodarone
 Procainamide
Epinephrine is the only drug listed that is not found in the algorithm for treating wide complex
ventricular tachycardia (monomorphic).
When should an unconscious patient receive only rescue breaths and not CPR?
 if the patient has a bounding pulse and is not breathing

 if the patient has a pulse and is breathing appropriately
 if the patient has no pulse and is not breathing
 if the patient has bradycardia and is breathing
Patient oxygenation should be your primary concern when there is insufficient respiratory
function in a patient with sufficient circulatory function.
What is the single most important therapy for survival of cardiac arrest?
 early pharmacological treatment

 early differential diagnosis
 early defibrillation
 early cardioversion
Studies have shown early defibrillation by emergency medical personnel dramatically improves
patient survival from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.
Where should you palpate for a pulse on an unconscious infant during CPR?
 radial pulse
 brachial pulse
 femoral pulse
 both the brachial and femoral pulses
Both the brachial and femoral arterial pulses are reliable indicators of circulation in the infant
population.
A conscious patient is diagnosed with symptomatic coronary thrombosis in the ER. What are
appropriate treatments?
 have the patient chew and swollow an aspirin

 give the patient oxygen (O2)
 give the patient nitroglycerin
 all are correct treatment options
This coincides with the mnemonic MONA for treatment of a myocardial infarction. Morphine,
Oxygen, Nitrates, Aspirin
You witness the collapse of an adult. Upon assessment he is unresponsive but is still adequately
breathing and has a pulse. You have called for the emergency response team. There is no concern
for a spinal injury. What is your next best course of action?

 administer oxygen by nasal canula
 perform a head tilt chin lift maneuver
Your primary concern is to maintain a patent airway in an unconscious patient that has
appropriate respiratory and circulatory function. Since there is no reason to assume spinal injury,
placing the patient in the recovery position is the most logical choice.
Which of these drugs should be avoided when a patient presents with Atrial Fibrillations with
Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW) delta waves?
 verapamil
 adenosine
 cardizem
AV node blockers should be avoided when a patient presents with atrial fibrillation and/or atrial
flutter with Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW). This is because these medications can
block the heart's normal electrical pathway, exacerbating the syndrome.
Which of these is the preferred advanced airway for an unconscious adult that is showing poor
ventilation with an ambu bag?
 combitube
 endotracheal tube
 laryngial mask airway
Endotracheal tube (ET) intubation is the gold standard for patients who are difficult to ventilate.
This is because an endotracheal tube provides an unobstructed airway that offers superior
ventilatory control, while greatly reducing the risk of aspiration.
How long should you check for a carotid pulse on an adult?
 5-10 seconds
 10-15 seconds
 at least 30 seconds
 for a full two minutes
5 to 10 seconds allows for sufficient time to accurately assess the pulse without having a
prolonged interruption between chest compression cycles. Studies have shown extended
interruptions between chest compression cycles during CPR leads to lower patient survival rates.
When should a jaw thrust be used in place of a head tilt-chin lift?
 patient has a spinal fusion between T4-T5

 patient has a C-spine injury
 patient has a foreign body airway obstruction
 patient develops angioedema from ACE inhibitor use
When performing CPR, using the jaw-thrust maneuver allows for a patent airway without
moving and risking further injury to a compromised C-spine.
ACLS Pretest Two

Score: 2
Percentage: 20%
Your patient’s condition is unstable and their cardiac rhythm shows a narrow QRS
tachyarrhythmia, what is the correct immediate intervention for this patient?
 Attempt vagal maneuvers

 Perform cardioversion
 Administer Adenosine
 Administer Diltiazem
You are preparing to cardiovert this patient, what is the correct initial dose?
 100-200 J
 360 J
 50-100 J
 150 J
A woman arrives to the ER with supraventricular tachycardia; at present she is stable. What is
the appropriate initial intervention for this patient?
 Administer Adenosine
 Attempt vagal maneuvers
 Perform cardioversion
 Administer Cardizem
An initial dose of Adenosine given to treat a patient’s tachyarrhythmia is ineffective. What is the
correct amount given for the second dose?
 6 mg
 12 mg
 10 mg
 None of the above
What is the correct shock dose for defibrillation?
 360 J Monophasic
 360 J Biphashic
 100 J Monophasic
 100-120 J Monophasic
During cardiac arrest what is the correct dose for Epinephrine and how often can it be given?
 3 mg given every 3-5 minutes

You are performing CPR on a patient. At rhythm check you notice the patient is in PEA. What is
the correct treatment for PEA?
 Shock patient
 Stop CPR
 Give Epinephrine 1 mg as soon as possible

Following ROSC, what post-cardiac arrest measures should be taken to optimize ventilation and
oxygenation?
 Ensure adequate airway

 Use lowest inspired oxygen concentration to maintain patient's oxygen saturation at 94%
or greater
 Avoid excessive ventilation
 All of the above
True or false: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia is a non-shockable rhythm. Manage the condition
by continuing CPR and giving 1 mg Epinephrine as soon as possible.
 True
 False
A pulse check should take how long?
 At least 10 seconds
 5-10 seconds
 15 seconds or less
 As long as needed
ACLS Pretest Three


 Which of the following are used to estimate effectiveness of CPR?
o Intra- arterial pressure
o Quantitative waveform capnography
o all of the above
o none of the above

 Cardioversion is used to treat the following conditions EXCEPT?
o Atrial fibrillation
o Atrial flutter
o Symptomatic ventricular tachycardia
o Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

 What is the primary focus for a patient that suffered cardiac arrest due to STEMI?
o Cardiac reperfusion
o Targeted temperature management
o Fluid resuscitation
o None of the above

 When may fibrinolytic therapy be contraindicated in a stroke patient?
o Systolic blood pressure > 180-200 and diastolic > 100-110
o History of intracranial hemorrhage
o Recent trauma or surgery
o All of the above

 What is the time constraint for fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke patient?
o Within 1 hour of onset of symptoms
o Within 3 hours of onset of symptoms
o Within one day of onset of symptoms
o There is no time constraint

 Which of the following rhythms under the cardiac arrest algorithm are treated with
defibrillation?
o Pulseless VT and PEA
o V-fib and PEA
o Pulseless VT and V-fib
o Asystole and PEA

 True or false: The preferred method for an advanced airway is endotracheal intubation
o True
o False
 What medication is used to treat Asystole?
o Adenosine
o Epinephrine
o Beta blockers
o Atropine
 MONA is an acronym for the sequence of rapid interventions used to treat acute coronary
syndromes. What does MONA stand for?
o Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, airway
o Magnesium, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin
o Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin
o Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, adenosine

 How do you confirm placement of advanced airway device?
o Equal bilateral chest rise
o Auscultation
o Portable chest x-ray
o All of the above
ACLS Pretest Four

Score: 2
Percentage: 20%
A paramedic in the field performs a pre-hospital stroke assessment. He is assessing for all of the
following EXCEPT:
 Unusual speech
 Arm drift
 Temperature
 Facial droop
What is the correct rate for chest compressions?
 120-140 bpm
 100-120 bpm
 80-100 bpm
Within 10 minutes of arrival to the ER, which of the following need to be performed on the
stroke alert patient?
 Assess CABD
 Obtain neurological assessment
 Assess patient’s cardiac rhythm
You have a patient in cardiac arrest you are ventilating with an advanced airway, how many
respirations are given per minute?
 6-8 respirations per minute
 10 respirations per minute
 10-12 respirations per minute
 8 respirations per minute
You give Atropine for a patient with symptomatic bradycardia but it is ineffective. All are
alternative treatments EXCEPT:
 Transcutaneous pacing
 Amiodarone infusion
 Dopamine infusion
 Epinephrine infusion
You achieve ROSC in your cardiac arrest patient. You need to address and correct hypotension if
their systolic blood pressure is:
 Less than 100
 Less than 90
 More than 100
 Less than 80
When might an advanced airway be indicated?
 Inadequate ventilation
 Patient is at risk for aspiration
 Requires continued ventilatory support
You have a stable patient in SVT and vagal maneuvers were unsuccessful. What would be the
next appropriate intervention?
 Adenosine 6 mg IV
 Defibrillation 360 J monophasic
 Atropine 1 mg IV
 Transcutaneous pacing
What is the correct initial dose of Amiodarone in cardiac arrest?

 300 mg
 150 mg
 100 mg
 350 mg
You are caring for a patient with pulseless electrical activity. Which of these interventions in
incorrect.
 Monophasic defibrillation at 360 J

 Cardioversion at 50 to 100 J


ACLS Pretest Five

Score: 2
Percentage: 20%
A patient that presents with acute coronary syndrome typically has which of the following
symptoms?
 Chest pain
 Pain radiating to jaw, arm, or back
 Shortness of breath
The initial BLS survey consists of:
 Airway breathing circulation

 Circulation, airway breathing
 Appearance, breathing, circulation

Within what time of arrival to the ER should a CT scan be initiated for a stroke alert patient?
 25 min
 10 min
 30 min
A patient presents with symptomatic bradycardia. You will treat with which of the following
medications?
 Adenosine
 Atropine
 Magnesium
 Amiodarone
What is the initial dose for atropine to treat bradycardia?
 1 mg bolus
 0.5 mg bolus
 5 mg bolus
 2 mg bolus
True or False: Defibrillation should not be performed on a patient presenting with Pulseless
Electrical Activity.
 True
 False
ROSC is achieved in your cardiac arrest patient but they are unable to follow verbal commands.
What post-arrest intervention might you consider?
 Fluid resuscitation
 Targeted temperature protocols
 Increase oxygenation
How many chest compression per minute should be performed during adult CPR.
 90 to 100 BPM
 100 to 120 BPM
 80 to 90 BPM
 70 to 80 BPM
Besides Adenosine, what other pharmacological agents can be used to treat a narrow complex
QRS tachyarrhythmia?
 Beta blockers
 Diltiazem
Differential diagnosis “H& T’s” include the following EXCEPT:
 Hypovolemia
 Trauma
 Acidosis
 H&T’s include all of the above
ACLS Pretest Six

Score: 2
Percentage: 20%
What intervention is needed immediately after recognizing STEMI in an acute coronary

syndrome patient?
 Fluid resuscitation
 Coronary reperfusion
 Temperature management
Which of the following interventions are used to treat hypotension after ROSC?
 IV fluid bolus of normal saline or lactated ringers
 Epinephrine or Norepinephrine infusion
 Dopamine infusion
Which medication is correct in treating Atrial Fibrillation with Wolff Parkinson White?
 Amiodarone
 Adenosine
 Cardizem
 Digoxin
Secondary ABCD stands for?
 Airway, breathing, circulation, defibrillation

 Appearance, breathing, circulation, defibrillation
 Airway, breathing, circulation, differential diagnosis
 Appearance, breathing, circulation, differential diagnosis
You are about to give a second dose of Amiodarone during CPR. What is the correct dose?
 300 mg
 150 mg
 200 mg
 100 mg
Patient presents to the ER complaining of shortness of breath with a heart rate of 130. The
patient is conscious. Which of the following is a correct treatment option:

 Cardiovert between 50 to 100 J
Your patient presents to the ER dizzy and a little confused, with a rhythm of bradycardia with a
heart rate of 45. Which of these is an appropriate treatment:
 Provide supplemental oxygen
 Initiate external cardiac pacing
True or false: The D in secondary ABCD stands for differential diagnosis which is used to
determine potential reversible causes of arrhythmias.
 True
 False
What reversible cause (H&T’s) might you consider for a patient presenting with sudden onset of
shortness of breath, feeling anxious, and having a history of DVT?
 Hypoglycemia
 Pulmonary Thrombosis
 Coronary Thrombosis
 Cardiac Tamponade
A patient’s ECG shows peaked T waves, and the patient has a history of kidney disease. What
reversible cause (H&T’s) might you consider?
 Acidosis
 Hypokalemia
 Hyperkalemia
 Hypoglycemia
AdvancedCardiovascularLifeSupport
(ACLS)
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you can expect to see throughout our course.

Answers are at the bottom of the page.

1. You respond to a patient in distress and find an unresponsive male lying on

A. Begin rescue breathing

D. Assume choking and perform abdominal thrusts

2. Why is proper size important when using an OPA or NPA?

A. Too large may block the airway

B. Too large may damage tissue

C. Too small may not adequately control airway

D. All of the above

3. You respond to a swimming pool where a person is floating facedown and is

C. Heimlich Maneuver to clear airway

A. Go find another AED

B. Pause CPR to troubleshoot

C. Read the owner’s manual

D. Continue chest compressions

6. True/False: All Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) patients benefit from

7. Your co-worker is acting strange. Which of the following suggests the

D. All of the above

A. Unstable atrial fibrillation

9. What is the correct dose for Procainamide?

2022 AHA ACLS Review Questions

2. What is the compression to ventilation ratio for the

pulseless patient without advanced airway?

3. How often do we switch CPR compressors?

4. How soon should compressions be started in the

pulseless patient? How long is the pulse check?

5. What is the maximum off chest time for the

pulseless patient? A common error in CPR is…

6. How much air do you use to ventilate your patient?

What does excessive ventilation cause?

7. What is the primary focus of the CPR Coach?

What role can be combined with the CPR Coach?

8. What is CCF? What is the CCF goal? What action

affects CCF the most? What action on the

9. How often can you defibrillate a patient? What

rhythms can be defibrillated?

10. Best way to minimize interruption in chest

compressions (time off chest)?

11. What is the compression rate and depth?

12. Quantitative capnography be used for what 2 things?

What are PETCO2 readings associated with each?

13. What is a team leader’s first responsibility?

14. What should you say or do if a team member is

15. What is the purpose of a rapid response team?

patient with a pulse? What happens to the heart rate

in a patient with severe hypoxia (or resp. arrest)?

2. What type of patient requires or oral pharyngeal

airway (OPA)? How do you measure for correct

3. After ROSC, what is the target PETCO2 reading?

4. What is the ventilation rate on the pulseless patient

after advanced airway placement? Do you pause

compressions during ventilation with ETT?

5. Agonal breathing may be an indication of what?

6. What is the goal for stable O2 Saturations? What is

the initial treatment for O2 Saturations less than

Section 3: Blocks and Bradycardia

(Including heart blocks)