Blood Bank Quizzes

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1. One bag of red blood cells will 1 gm/dL

increase the hemoglobin by what
amount

2. Which of the following components Fresh frozen plasma

has ALL of the coagulation factors

3. One bag of random donor platelets 5000 to 10,000/uL

will increase the platelet count by
how much

4. Which component must be stored Platelets

with constant shaking

5. If a bag of leukoreduced red blood 24 hours from the start of the wash-
cells is washed, how long is this ing procedure.
product good

6. Cryoprecipitate Antihemophilic Fac- Factor I

tor that is harvested from fresh Factor VIII
frozen plasma can be used to treat Factor XIII
which coagulation factor deficien-
cies

7. If there is no blood that is tested CMV Leukoreduced components

negative, which of the following is
considered CMV "safe"

8. If a patient receives a bag of sin- Transfuse HLA matched platelets

gle donor platelets and his platelet
count does not increase (In fact, it
sometimes decreases.), we say he
may be refractory to platelets. How
do we attempt to overcome this re-
fractoriness

9. All blood that is drawn in CPD or 42 days and no more.

CP2D can have its storage time ex-
tended by adding an additive solu-
tion (also called Adsol and Adenine
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Solution). When this is added within
72 hours of the unit's being drawn,
what will be the new expiration date

10. If a unit of whole blood is drawn in 35 days

CPDA-1, how long can it be stored
and used

11. What is the minimum hemoglobin for 12.5 g/dL

allogeneic blood donations

12. How much anticoagulant/preserva- 63 mL

tive must be in a standard bag to
draw 450 mLs of whole blood

13. What is the minimum and maximum 405 to 495 mLs

milliliters of blood that can be drawn
in a standard bag

14. What is the minimum weight to be an 110 pounds

allogeneic blood donor

15. What is the minimum hemoglobin 11 gm/dL and 33%

and hematocrit for autologous dona-
tions

16. What is the pulse range for an allo- 50 to 100 beats per minute
geneic blood donor

17. What is the systolic blood pressure Less than or equal to 180
limits for an allogeneic donor

18. What is the upper age limit at which 10 years of age

a person can have had hepatitis and
still be an allogeneic blood donor

19. If a donor is hooked to a machine Apheresis

and only one component is harvest-
ed from him, he is said to be donat-
ing by what technique
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20. A person who donates blood with Autologous

the intent that he will receive his
own blood during a future surgery is
called what kind of donor

21. If the antibody screen is positive af- An alloantibody is present

ter the addition of AHG and all cross-
matched units are compatible after
AHG, what is a probable cause

22. When a clinically significant alloan- Confirm that the donor cells are
tibody is identified in the patient's negative for the antigen specific for
serum, what is done prior to trans- the patient's antibody by testing the
fusing the unit donor cells with commercial antis-
era.
Perform a crossmatch using AHG

23. If a patient's sample is positive with Rouleaux

all cells (screens, auto, and cross-
matches) after 37oC incubation, but
negative after the addition of AHG,
what could be the cause

24. If a patient's sample is negative with The patient was incorrectly ABO
the screen cells and the autocontrol, typed.
but all the crossmatched units are
incompatible at all phases, what may
be the cause

25. If a patient's sample is negative with The patient may have an alloanti-
the screen cells and the autocontrol, body to a low frequency antigen pre-
but one of the crossmatched units is sent on that one donor's cells
incompatible after adding AHG, what
may be the cause

26. If a patient's sample is negative with The patient's serum may have
the screen cells and the autocontrol, anti-M
but one of the crossmatched units

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is incompatible at immediate spin,
what may be the cause

27. If a patient's serum sample is posi- The direct antiglobulin test on the
tive with all cells (screens, auto and patient's cells
donor cells) after the addition of
AHG, what test will be your clue that
there is something in the serum re-
acting with something in the entire
test system

28. If a patient's serum reacts with the Wash the commercial cells to re-
diluent in the commercial cells, what move the diluent and retest
can be done to resolve the problem Perform the antibody screen with the
cells from another manufacturer
Suspend the patient's cells in the
commercial diluent that accompa-
nies each panel and retest. If this is
positive, it proves that the diluent is
the problem.

29. What is the protocol for transfusing They are given O negative cells of
neonates their own Rh type

30. When a clinically insignificant al- Perform a crossmatch using AHG

loantibody is identified in the pa-
tient's serum, what is done prior to
transfusing the unit

31. What is the cause of febrile transfu- Leukoctye antibodies present in the
sion reactions patient's plasma that react with
leukocytes in the blood

32. Which of the following antibodies Anti-A1, anti-P1, anti-Jk(a)

are implicated in delayed hemolytic
transfusion reactions

33. Urticarial transfusion reactions have pruritus

no definitive cause, but it is thought hives
erythema
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IgE is involved. What are the symp-
toms

34. TRALI and TACO have similar symp- TACO patients suffer from hyperv-
toms, but they differ by which of the olemia and TRALI patients do not.
following

35. Which of the following is an ia- Transfusion Associated Circulatory

trogenic transfusion reaction(If you Overload
want to get technical, I guess you
could say they are all iatrogenic, but
your text does focus on one.)

36. What is the first procedure to be Clerical check on all the paper work.
done in the laboratory investigation
of a transfusion reaction

37. If the Direct antiglobulin test is pos- It will look mixed field microscopi-
itive due to IgG, how will this look cally and the IgG antibody must be
microscopically and what test must eluted from the cells. Test this eluate
be done to identify the IgG antibody against a panel to identify the anti-
on the cells body.

38. If a patient has febrile transfusion re- Leukoreduce the cellular products to
actions, how are future transfusions be infused.
handled

39. What must be done to prevent Irradiate the cellular products to be

graft-versus-host disease infused.

40. If a patient has anaphylactic transfu- Wash the cellular products to be in-
sion reactions, how are future trans- fused.
fusions handled

41. For both the DAT and the IAT the To remove globulins from the
cell button should be washed at least serum/plasma surrounding the cells
three times prior to adding AHG. Why

42. The amount of antigen present on A cell that is homozygous for the
a cell influences the first stage of antigen
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agglutination. Which of the following
cells has the most antigen

43. What is antihuman globulin An IgG antibody against human

globulin

44. What is the ABO type of check cells O

45. What is the first stage of agglutina- Sensitization

tion called

46. What is the purpose of the Direct To detect in vivo sensitized red blood
Antiglobulin Test (DAT) cells

47. When performing a DAT, a control The control should always be nega-
consisting of 6% albumin is run con- tive.
currently. What is the result of the
control

48. Which immunoglobulin class is the IgG

blood banker most interested in

49. Which of the following clinical appli- Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions

cations uses the DAT (HTR)

50. If a patient has anti-Fy(a) in his 35%

serum, he must receive red blood
cells that are negative for the Fy(a)
antigen. What percent of the Cau-
casian population is negative for the
Fy(a) antigen

51. If a person has the Le, se and H Only Le(a) blood group substance
genes, what substance(s) are in his
body fluids

52. Select the cell below that should Fy(a+b+)

be used for the positive control
when testing commercially prepared
anti-Fy(a)
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53. What do the following antigens have All are high frequency antigens
in common Js(b), U, I, Yt(a)

54. What do the following antibodies All are considered clinically insignifi-
have in common Anti-N, anti-P1, cant
anti-Le(a) All are usually IgM

55. What do the following antigens have All are destroyed when treated with
in common Fy(a), M, N, S an enzyme

56. What do the following antigens have All are antigens in the Kell Blood
in common k, Kp(b), Js(b) Group System
All are high frequency antigens.
All are destroyed when treated with
a thiol-reducing agent.

57. Which of the following antibodies re- Anti-M

acts best in an acidic environment

58. Which of the following blood group Lewis

systems produces antibodies that
do not cause hemolytic disease of
the newborn

59. Which of the following antibodies re- Anti-Rg

acts with the same strength through
all dilutions of the serum until it be-
comes negative

60. Which of the following lectins will Dolichos biflorus

discern group A1 cells from A2 cells

61. Upon initial typing, the cells from a Group O

person with the Bombay phenotype
will appear to be which ABO type

62. What percent cell suspension is 4%

used when testing cells for ABO anti-
gens

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63. The commercially prepared anti-A Monoclonal antibodies
and anti-B are IgM antibodies
Prepared with a colored dye added

64. If a person has the Se gene, the A D. A, B and H blood group sub-
gene and the B gene, what blood stance.
group substances will be found in
his body fluids

65. If both the mom and the dad are All of the offspring will be Group O.
Group O, what will be the ABO type
of their offspring

66. If a person has only H blood group H antigens only

substance, what antigens will be
found on his red cells

67. If a patient is blood type A, which Anti-B

of the following antibodies are in his
serum/plasma

68. Which of the following carbohy- Fucose and Galactose

drates are needed to produce blood
type B

69. If a patient is blood type O, which H antigen only

of the following antigens are on his
cells

70. False positive results and false neg- Bacterial contamination of the
ative results can be obtained by reagent
sloppy technique. Which of the fol-
lowing causes a false positive result

71. If a cell is positive for the antigens R1R2

D, C, E, c and e, what is the most
probable Rh phenotype

72. If a patient has a weakly expressed D By the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
antigen, how is it detected
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73. What antibodies in the Rh system Anti-c and anti-E

can be made by a person whose Rh
phenotype is R1R1

74. Anti-LW is negative (does not react) Rhnull cells

with which of the following cells

75. If a person's most probable Rh phe- CDe/CDe Rh: 1, 2, -3, -4, 5

notype is R1R1, what is that in Fish-
er-Race nomenclature and in Rosen-
field

76. What percent of the caucasian pop- 15%

ulation is negative for the D antigen

77. If a dad is R1R2 and the mom is rr, 100%

what percent of the offspring will be
positive for the D antigen

78. Which of the following Rh typing High protein anti-D

reagents must ALWAYS be used with
a control

79. If a cell is positive for the c and e anti- rr

gens and negative for the D, C and E
antigens, what is the most probable
Rh phenotype

80. A person can make an alloantibody exposure to a foreign antigen

as a result of through a blood transfusion
exposure to a foreign antigen
through pregnancy
exposure to a foreign antigen in the
environment

81. Choose the correct statement below Screening cells include 3 separate
regarding screening cells and panel vials and a panel includes 8-20 vials.
cells.

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82. Commercially prepared red blood typed for 18 common antigens
cells for the purpose of detecting un-
expected antibodies in serum/plas-
ma are

83. If the antibody screen is positive af- an alloantibody is present.

ter the addition of AHG and the auto-
control is negative after the addition
of AHG, this means that

84. The procedure used to detect and indirect antiglobulin test

identify clinically significant anti-
bodies is the

85. To be sure that a tech is 95% con- 3 positive and 3 negative

fident when identifying an antibody,
how many cells, at the very least,
must be positive for the antigen and
yield a positive result and how many
cells must be negative for the anti-
gen and yield a negative result

86. What is the characteristic of a clini- It is IgG.

cally significant antibody

87. Which is a low frequency antigen Js(a)

88. Which of the following antigens are Fy(a), Fy(b), S

destroyed by enzymes such as ficin
or bromelin

89. Which of the following phenotypes is Fy(a+b-)

homozygous for the Fy(a) antigen

90. What is the minimal information that Patient's full name, unique identifica-
must be on a properly labeled tube of tion number and date drawn
blood that will be used for compati-
bility testing

91. Draw the blood below the IV line

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If a patient is receiving saline by IV,
where should the phlebotomist stick
the patient

92. Which of the following methods can Add liquid thrombin to the tube of
be used to overcome a delay in clot blood
formation when a patient has a pro- Add dry thrombin to the tube of blood
longed clotting time Add glass beads to the tube of blood

93. Why is it important to check for pre- To know if a clinically significant an-
vious records tibody was identified

94. Full compatibility testing consists of ABO (cells and serum) and Rh typ-
ing of the sample and ABO cell typ-
ing of the donor
An antibody screen at 37oC and
AHG on the patient's serum/plasma
A major crossmatch consisting of
mixing patient's serum with donor
cells

95. When is it permissible to do only an When there is no history of a clini-

immediate spin crossmatch cally significant antibody and no clin-
ically significant antibody is detected
in the current sample.

96. If there is no time to determine a pa- Group O, Rh negative

tient's ABO and Rh type because he
is profusely bleeding, what ABO/Rh
type should be transfused

97. After a sample is drawn from the pa- 72 hours

tient, how long can the lab continue
to crossmatch from

98. How long must the sample be stored Seven days after the last transfusion
following a transfusion of the patient

99. 1 to 6 degrees Celsius

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At what temperature should the pa-
tient's sample and the segment from
the bag of blood be stored

100. We find ABO hemolytic disease most Group O

often in babies born to moms who
are which ABO type

101. Anti-Le(a) is usually IgM, but some- The cells of newborns are Le(a-b-)
times it can be IgG; however it will
not cause hemolytic disease of the
newborn. Why

102. What portion of the IgG molecule Fc portion

functions to move the molecule
across the placenta

103. How are the sensitized cells of the The baby's macrophages remove
unborn destroyed in vivo the sensitized cells which are de-
stroyed in his spleen.

104. What is considered a significant dif- More than a two tube difference
ference in the titer of two samples
when they are being compared

105. ABO and Rh hemolytic disease of Spherocytosis

the newborn each have unique dis-
tinguishing characteristics. Which of
the following red cell shapes is
unique to ABO HDN

106. Which of the following are essential The red blood cells must be irradiat-
criteria when transfusing the unborn ed
child The red blood cells must be as fresh
as possible (Usually no more than 5
days old)
The cells must be negative for hemo-
globin S.

107.
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If the qualitative test for a feto-ma- One because she is a candidate;
ternal bleed is negative, how many that's why the test was done.
vials of Rh Immune Globulin must be
injected into the mom

108. A mom is group O positive and Group O, Rh negative and negative

has anti-Fy(a), anti-K and anti-E. The for E, K and Fy(a) antigens
baby is group A neg and has a
positive DAT. The eluate from the
baby's cells shows anti-Fy(a). Know-
ing that any blood transfused to this
newborn must be compatible with
the mom's serum, select the correct
blood type to transfuse this infant.

109. If a Group A negative mom received Anti-D

antenatal Rh Immune Globulin at 28
weeks gestation, what is the speci-
ficity of the antibody that may be
identified in her serum at delivery?

110. Cells from which of the following Clotted—red stoppered

tubes may give a false positive DAT
due to C3 sensitizing the cells in vit-
ro?

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