Social Science 2020-2021 Patron: Question Bank For Class X
Social Science 2020-2021 Patron: Question Bank For Class X
PATRON
OUR MENTOR
Mrs. Shahida Parveen
Asst. Commissioner KVS RO Jabalpur
Mr. Dharmendra Patle
Asst. Commissioner KVS RO Jabalpur
Mr. S. R. Meda
Asst. Commissioner KVS RO Jabalpur
Team Leaders
COURSE CONTENT
i
• Appreciate the ideas promoting
Section 2: Livelihoods, Economies and Pan Indian belongingness.
Societies: Any one theme of the following:
• Show that globalization has a long
3. The Making of a Global World history and point to the shifts within the
• The Pre-modern world process.
• The Nineteenth Century (1815-1914) • Analyze the implication of
• The Inter war Economy globalization for local economies.
• Rebuilding a World Economy: The • Discuss how globalization is
Post-War Era experienced differently by different
social groups.
ii
Unit 2: Contemporary India – II 55 Periods
Themes Learning Objectives
1. Resources and Development • Understand the value of
• Types of Resources resources and the need for their
• Development of Resources judicious utilization and
• Resource Planning in India conservation.
• Land Resources
• Land Utilization
• Land Use Pattern in India
• Land Degradation and Conservation
Measures
• Soil as a Resource
• Classification of Soils
• Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation
3. Water Resources
• Water Scarcity and The Need for Water • Comprehend the importance of
Conservation and Management water as a resource as well as
• Multi-Purpose River Projects and develop awareness towards its
Integrated Water Resources judicious use and conservation.
Management
• Rainwater Harvesting
Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter ‘Water
Resources’ to be assessed in the Periodic
Tests only and will not be evaluated in
Board Examination. However, the map items of
this chapter as given in the Map List will be
evaluated in Board Examination.
iii
4. Agriculture • Explain the importance of
• Types of farming agriculture in national economy.
• Cropping Pattern • Identify various types of farming
• Major Crops and discuss the various farming
• Technological and Institutional Reforms methods; describe the spatial
• Impact of Globalization on Agriculture distribution of major crops as well as
understand the relationship between
rainfall regimes and cropping
pattern.
• Explain various government
policies for institutional as well as
technological reforms since
independence.
6. Manufacturing Industries
• Importance of manufacturing
• Bring out the importance of
• Contribution of Industry to National
industries in the national economy as
Economy
well as understand the regional
• Industrial Location disparities which resulted due to
• Classification of Industries concentration of industries in
• Spatial distribution some areas.
• Industrial pollution and environmental • Discuss the need for a planned
degradation industrial development and
• Control of Environmental Degradation debate over the role of
government towards sustainable
development.
iv
7. Life Lines of National Economy
• Transport – Roadways, Railways, • Explain the importance of
Pipelines, Waterways, Airways transport and communication in the
• Communication ever-shrinking world.
• International Trade • Understand the role of trade and
• Tourism as a Trade tourism in the economic
development of a country.
v
5. Popular Struggles and Movements
• Popular Struggles in Nepal and Bolivia • Understand the vital role of
• Mobilization and Organization people’s struggle in the expansion of
• Pressure Groups and Movements democracy.
Note: The chapter ‘Popular Struggles and
Movements’ to be assessed in the Periodic
Tests only and will not be evaluated in
Board Examination.
6. Political Parties
• Why do we need Political Parties? • Analyse party systems in
• How many Parties should we have? democracies.
• National Political Parties • Introduction to major political
• State Parties parties, challenges faced by them and
• Challenges to Political Parties reforms in the country.
• How can Parties be reformed?
7. Outcomes of Democracy
• How do we assess democracy’s • Evaluate the functioning of
outcomes? democracies in comparison to
alternative forms of governments.
• Accountable, responsive and
legitimate government • Understand the causes for
continuation of democracy in India.
• Economic growth and development
• Distinguish between sources of
• Reduction of inequality and poverty
strengths and weaknesses of
• Accommodation of social diversity
Indian democracy.
• Dignity and freedom of the citizens
8. Challenges to Democracy
• Reflect on the different kinds of
• Thinking about challenges measures possible to deepen
• Thinking about Political Reforms democracy.
• Redefining democracy • Promote an active and
Note: The chapter ‘Challenges to
participatory citizenship.
Democracy’ to be assessed in the Periodic
Tests only and will not be evaluated in
Board Examination.
vi
Unit 4: Understanding Economic Development 50 Periods
Themes Objectives
1. Development • Familiarize with concepts of
• What Development Promises - Different macroeconomics.
people different goals • Understand the rationale for
• Income and other goals overall human development in our
• National Development country, which includes the rise of
• How to compare different countries or income, improvements in health and
states? education rather than income.
• Income and other criteria • Understand the importance of
• Public Facilities quality of life and sustainable
• Sustainability of development development.
4. Globalization and the Indian Economy • Explain the working of the Global
• Production across countries Economic phenomenon.
• Interlinking production across countries
• Foreign Trade and integration of
markets
• What is globalization?
• Factors that have enabled
Globalisation
• World Trade Organisation
• Impact of Globalization on India
• The Struggle for a fair Globalisation
5. Consumer Rights • Gets familiarized with the rights
Note: Chapter 5 ‘Consumer Rights’ to be and duties as a consumer; and legal
done as Project Work measures available to protect
from being exploited in markets.
vii
SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE NO. 087)
QUESTION PAPER DESIGN
CLASS X (2020-21)
viii
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, REGIONAL OFFICE JABALPUR
Question Bank: Social Science
CLASS: X
Part A: HISTORY
Chapter-1: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
Q 7. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain (b) Russia
(c) Prussia (d) Switzerland
Q 10. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Bismarck
(c) Mazzini (d) Duke Metternich
Q 15. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Empire.
Q 16. Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals.
(True/False)
Column A Column B
(a) French Revolution (i) brought the conservative regimes back to power
(b) Liberalism (ii) ensured right to property for the privileged class
(c) Napoleonic Code (iii) recognized Greece as an independent nation
(d) The Treaty of Vienna (iv) transfer of sovereignty from monarch to the French citizens
(e) Treaty of Constantinople (v) individual freedom and equality before law
Q 19. What did the new social group comprise of that came into being in the 19th century comprised of?
Q 20. Which dynasty was deposed during the French Revolution and later restored to power by
conservatives?
Q 21. What views did Giuseppe Mazzini have about Italy?
Q 22. How was Mazzini described by Metternich?
Q 23. How did Lord Byron contribute to the Greek war of Independence?
Q 25. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?
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Q 26. Who headed Sardinia-Piedmont?
Q 28. Name the ethnic groups who inhabited the British Isles.
Q 33. What were the measures taken by French revolutionaries forge a sense of collective identity?
Q 35. Why the 1830s were the year of great economic hardship in Europe?
Q 36. How was the history of Nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe?
Q 37. What is the other name for Napoleonic code? Write any four changes brought by this?
Q 40 Briefly explain the unification of Italy, highlight the value you learn from this?
Q 41. How had the female figures become an allegory of the nation during the 19th century in Europe?
Q 42. ‘The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardships in Europe’. Support the statement with
arguments?
Q 43. Culture had played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during the 18th
and 19th centuries. Support the statement with examples?
Q 44. “Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.”
Support the statement?
Q 45. What were Jacobin Clubs? How did their activities and campaigns help to spread the idea of
nationalism abroad? Explain?
Q 46. Write a note on Frankfurt parliament and zollverein economic union?
Q 48. Analyse the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of
collective identity amongst the French people?
Q 49. How had revolutionaries spread their ideas in many European states after 1815? Explain with
examples?
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Q50. Explain causes of conflict in the ‘Balkan area’ after 1871?
Q 51. Explain changes brought about in Europe by the Treaty of Vienna (1815)?
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Chapter-2: Nationalism in India
Q.11 When did Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Q.23 Name any two prominent industrialists during freedom struggle of India.
Q.27 Who published a Tamil folk tales “The Folklore of Southern India”?
Q.28 In “Swaraj Flag” spinning wheel in the center, representing which idea?
Q.1 Explain the reason for the Lahore session of the congress in 1929 to be called the historical session?
Q.2 Explain new economic and political situations created in India during the First World War?
Q.3 What was the Rowlatt Act? How it affected the National Movement?
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Q.4 What were the 3 local issues in which Gandhiji experimented his technique of Satyagraha during the
years 1917 – 1918? How were these issues resolved?
Q.5 How was the Non- Cooperation Movement converted into a national movement by Gandhiji? Explain?
Q.6 Mention three main proposals with reference to the Non- Cooperation Movement as suggested by
Mahatma Gandhi?
Q.8 How did the business community provide a big boost to the movement?
Q.9 Why was the Civil Disobedience Movement called off by Gandhiji?
Q.13 What was the impact of swadeshi and boycott movement on Indian industry?
Q.14 Who founded the Swaraj Party? Why was the party formed?
Q.15 Why was the Simon Commission formed? Why Indians boycott the commission?
Q.1 What were the circumstances which led to the Khilafat and the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Q.2 What was the reaction of the people against the Rowlatt Act?
Q.3 Under what circumstances the Civil Disobedience or the Salt Movement was launched? Explain.
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IMPORTANT MAP ITEMS
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2. Important Centres of Indian National Movement
a. Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters
b. Kheda (Gujarat) - Peasant Satyagrah
c. Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
d. Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident
e. Chauri Chaura (U.P.) - Calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement
f. Dandi (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement
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Chapter-3: The Making of a Global world
Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSAQ) [1 Mark]
(a) Post war the military system (b) Post war political system
Q 2. People livelihood and local economy of which one of the following was badly affected by the disease
named Rinderpest.
Q 3. Which of the following place was an important destination for indentured migrants?
Q 4. The group of powers collectively known as the Axis power during the Second World War were:
Q 7. Which of the following is the direct effect of Great Depression on Indian Trade?
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Q 8. Which of the following enabled the Europeans to conquer and control the Africans?
(a) Victory in war
(b) Control over the scarce resource of cattle
(c) Death of Africans due to rinderpest
(d) Lack of weapons in Africa to fight against the Europeans
Q 10. Until 18th century which two countries were considered the richest in the world?
(a) India and China (b) China and Japan
(c) England and France (d) England and Italy
Q 11. Why were the Europeans attracted to Africa?
(a) By its natural beauty
(b) By the opportunities for investment
(c) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth
(d) For recruitment of labour
Q 12. Transport of perishable goods over long distance was possible because of
Q 15. Before the war, was a major supplier of wheat in the world market.
Q 16. The method used by Henry Ford for faster and cheaper automobile production was known as_
Q 19. Second World War did not result in economic devastation and social disruption.
COLUNMN A COLUMN B
Great Depression IMF and World Bank
Hosay Group of developing countries
Bretton Wood institution Punjab
Canel colonies Riotous carnival
G- 77 Agricultural overproduction
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Q 21. Most Indian indentured workers came from:
Q 24. Tax imposed on a country’s imports from the rest of the world is called .
Q 25. Britain was the world’s leading economy during the pre-First World War period. (True/False)
Q 26. The IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries.
(True/False)
Q 28. Through which route the Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia?
Q 30. The introduction of which crop led the European poor to eat better and live longer?
Q 31. Name the crop that our ancestors did not know until about five centuries ago?
Q 35. Name two countries which were world's richest countries till the 18th century.
Q 37. How was the transport of perishable foods possible over long distances?
Q 38. Why did the big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?
Q 45. Name a Nobel Prize winning writer who is a descendant of indentured labour from India?
Q 46. Which West-Indies cricketers trace their roots to indentured labour migrants from India?
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Q 47. Who were 'Coolies'?
Q 49. Who were the ‘Allies’ during the First World War?
Q 55. Who were the Allies during the Second World War?
Q 63. In the context of industrial production what is meant by assembly line production?
Q 64. Which country has an effective right of veto over IMF and World Bank?
Q 66. How did silk routes link the world? Explain with three suitable examples.
Q 67. How did food habits travel from one place to another in the process of cultural exchange?
Q 68. Explain with the help of any three suitable examples that the pre-modern world changed with the
discovery of new sea routes to America.
Q 69. What were the Corn Laws? Why were the Corn Laws abolished? What were its effects?
Q 71. Why were Europeans attracted to Africa in the late nineteenth century? Mention any three reasons.
Q 72. What was rinderpest? State any two effects of rinderpest on Africa.
Q 73. How did Rinderpest help the European colonies to conquer and subdue Africa?
Q 74. Why did the European employers find it difficult to recruit labour in Africa? Give two methods they
used to recruit and retain labour.
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Q 75. Write any three factors responsible for indentured labour migration from India.
Q 76. Define the term ‘trade surplus’. How was the income received from trade surplus with India used
by British?
Q 77. What was the importance of the Indian trade for the British?
Q 78. Explain the impact of the First World War on British economy.
Q 79. How did the First World War affect the socio-economic conditions of the world? Mention any three
points
Q 80. Explain why the economy of USA was strong in the early 1920s. Would you agree that the roots of
the Great Depression lay in this ‘boom’? Give reasons for your answer.
Q 81. How did the withdrawal of US loans during the phase of the Great Depression affect the rest of the
world? Explain .
Q 83. ‘Two crucial influences shaped post-war reconstruction.’ What were these influences? Explain.
Q 86. ‘China became an attractive destination for investment by foreign MNCs in the 19th and 20thcenturies’.
Justify the statement.
Q 87. What is meant by the term ‘globalisation’? Describe the three types of movements or flows within
international economic exchange.
Q 88. Explain what we mean when we say that the world shrank in the 1500s.
Q 90. Why did thousands of people flee away from Europe to America in the 19th century? Give any three
reasons.
Q 91. Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national identity.
Q 92. Who profits from jute cultivation according to the jute growers’ lament? Explain.
Q 93. 'Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand'. Explain the statement in the light of Silk
Route.
Q 94. 'The Spanish conquest and colonization of America was decisively underway by the mid-sixteenth
century'. Explain with example.
Q 95. ‘Britain self-sufficiency in food meant lower living standards and social conflicts in the 19th century’.
Why was this so? Give reasons.
Q 96. Explain how the abolition of Corn Laws in Britain led to the emergence of a global agricultural
economy.
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Q 97. Examine the main features of global agricultural economy that emerged around 1890.
Q 98. Explain giving examples, the role played by technological inventions in transforming 19th century
world.
Q 99. Why has 19th century indenture been described as a ‘new system of slavery’? Explain.
Q 100. How far is it correct to say that “The First World War was the first modern industrial war”? Explain.
Q 101. Describe in brief the economic conditions of the post-First World War period.
Q 102. One important feature of the US economy in the 1920’s was mass production. Explain.
Q 103. Explain any five measures adopted by America for post-war recovery.
Q 105. Explain any five consequences of the Great Depression of 1929 on Indian economy?
Q 106. What were the major economic effects of the Second World War?
Q 107. What key lessons did politicians and economists learn from the interwar economic experiences?
Q 108. Describe the factors that led to the end of Britton Woods system and the beginning of globalization.
Q 110. How were the working conditions for the indentured migrants overseas? How did the different
cultural form blend into new forms?
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Source C – Silk Routes Link the World
The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the
world. The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route.
Historians have identified several silk routes, overland and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and
linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and
thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and
spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled
this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged
from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes. five centuries
ago. These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered
the vast continent that would later become known as the Americas.
Source A- Conquest, Disease and Trade
Q.1 Which problems were common in Europe until the nineteenth century?
2. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A- Indentured Labour Migration from India
The example of indentured labour migration from India also illustrates the two-sided nature of the nineteenth-
century world. It was a world of faster economic growth as well as great misery, higher incomes for some and
poverty for others, technological advances in some areas and new forms of coercion in others. In the nineteenth
century, hundreds of thousands of Indian and Chinese labourers went to work on plantations, in mines, and in
road and railway construction projects around the world. In India, indentured labourers were hired under
contracts which promised return travel to India after they had worked five years on their employer’s plantation.
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Source B- Rinderpest or the Cattle Plague
Q2. What was Rinderpest?
Source C – Food Travels
Q3. In what ways did food items offer scope for long distance cultural exchange? Explain2
3. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A- MNCs
Corporations (MNCs) are large companies that operate in several countries at the same time. The first MNCs
were established in the 1920s. Many more came up in the 1950s and 1960s as US businesses expanded
worldwide and Western Europe and Japan also recovered to become powerful industrial economies. The
worldwide spread of MNCs was a notable feature of the 1950s and 1960s. This was partly because high import
tariffs imposed by different governments forced MNCs to locate their manufacturing operations and become
‘domestic producers’ in as many countries as possible.
OR
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Chapter-4: The Age of Industrialisation
Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSAQ) [1 Mark]
Q1. The person, who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided
them money in times of need was known as:
(a) Stapler (b) Fuller
(c) Gomastha (d) Jobber
Q2 Why did Manchester export to India decline after the First World War?
(a) People were busy fighting the war.
(b) Factories closed down due to security problem.
(c) Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill the need of army.
(d) Export trade was restricted by the government.
Q3. Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?
(a) They did not know how to use these.
(b) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.
(c) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.
(d) They were scared of machines.
Q4. From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneurs make a fortune?
(a) Textile trade (b) China trade
(c) Trade in tea (d) Industries
Q5. Why were there frequent clashes between the gomastha and the weavers?
(a) The weavers hated foreigners.
(b) The gomastha forced the weavers to sell goods at a dictated price.
(c) Gomasthas were outsiders without long term social link with the village.
(d) None of the above.
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Q6. Which war materials were produced in India to supply to Britain during World War I?
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots.
Q11. In Bengal, Dwarakanath Tagore made his fortune in China Trade. (True/False)
Q12. Advertisements make the products appear desirable and necessary. (True/False)
Column A Column B
1. (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (v), (d) (iii), (e) (i)
2. (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (v), (d) (iv), (e) (i)
3. (a) (i), (b) (iv), (c) (v), (d) (iii), (e) (ii)
4. (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii), (e) (v)
Q16. Why the merchants from towns in Europe began to move countryside in seventeenth and
eighteenth centuries?
Q17. What was the first symbol of the new era in England in the late 18th century?
Q18. How did the early Indian entrepreneurs make their fortune?
Q20. Why did Britain turn to India for cotton supplies by 1860s?
Q23. Why did Britain turn to India for cotton supplies by 1860s?
Q26. G.D. Birla was a Parsi entrepreneur who built huge industrial empire in India. (True/False)
a) The use of machines, railways and steamships narrates us a story of industrialisation and development.
b) Proto industrialisation.
c) A network of commercial exchanges.
d) Regulation of a labour.
Q29. What was the result of First World War on Indian industries?
Q31. What were the problems of Indians weavers at the early 19th century?
Q32. What does the picture indicate on the famous book ‘Dawn of the century’?
Q33. How did the seasonality of employment affect the lives of Indian workers during 18th century? Explain.
Q34. What were guilds? How did they make it difficult for new merchants to set business in towns of
England? Explain.
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Q35. Explain the role played by advertisements in creating new consumers for the British products buying
them.
Q36. Why did the East India Company appoint gomashthas? Give three reasons.
Q37. Why the system of advances proved harmful for the weavers?
Q38. How did industries develop in India in the second half of the nineteenth century? Explain.
Q39. “Although wages increased somewhat in the nineteenth century, yet they could not improve the welfare
of the workers.” How far do you agree with the statement?
Q40. Why were Victorian industrialists not interested to introduce machines in England? Give reasons.
Q41. Explain the position of Indian Textiles in the international market before machines were introduced in
India.
Q42. Why did the network of export trade in textiles controlled by the Indian merchants break down by the
1750s?
Q44. How did the British market expand their goods in India?
Q46. “Historians now have come to increasingly recognised that the typical worker in the mid- nineteenth
century was not a machine operator but the traditional craftsperson and labourer.”Analyse the
statement.
Q47. By the first decade of the twentieth century a series of changes affected the pattern of
industrialization in India.” Support the statement with examples.
The consolidation of East India Company power after the 1760s did not initially lead to a decline in textile
exports from India. British cotton industries had not yet expanded and Indian fine textiles werein great demand
in Europe. So the company was keen on expanding textile exports from India. However, once the East India
Company established political power, it could assert a monopoly right to trade. It proceeded to develop a system
of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs, and ensure regular supplies of cotton
and silk goods. This it did through a series of steps.
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village went to the industrial centres in search of work. Over 50 per cent workers in the Bombay cotton
industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri, while the mills of Kanpur got most of their
textile hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur. Most often millworkers moved between the village
and the city, returning to their village homes during harvests and festivals. Over time, as news of employment
spread, workers travelled great distances in the hope of work in the mills. From the United Provinces, for
instance, they went to work in the textile mills of Bombay and in the jute mills of Calcutta.
Getting jobs was always difficult, even when mills multiplied and the demand for workers increased. The
numbers seeking work were always more than the jobs available. Entry into the mills was also restricted.
Industrialists usually employed a jobber to get new recruits. Very often the jobber was an old and trusted worker.
He got people from his village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in the city and provided them money in
times of crisis. The jobber therefore became a person with some authority and power. He began demanding
money and gifts for his favour and controlling the lives of workers. The number of factory workers increased
over time. However, as you will see, they were a small proportion of the total industrial workforce.
Q1. Why did the industrial groups in England pressurised the government to impose import duties cotton
textiles? 1
Q2. Where were most of the large scale industries located in 1911? 2
2. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade before he turned to industrial investment,
setting up six joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s. Tagore’s enterprises sank along with those of others
in the wider business crises of the 1840s, but later in the nineteenth century many of the China traders became
successful industrialists. In Bombay, Paresis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge
industrial empires in India, accumulated their initial wealth partly from exports to China, and partly from raw
cotton shipments to England. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in
Calcutta in 1917, also traded with China. So did the father as well as grandfather of the famous industrialist G.D.
Birla.
There is a problem with such ideas. Even before factories began to dot the landscape in England and Europe,
there was large-scale industrial production for an international market. This was not based on factories. Many
historians now refer to this phase of industrialisation as proto-industrialisation. In the countryside poor peasants
and artisans began working for merchants. this was a time when open fields were disappearing and commons
were being enclosed. Cottagers and poor peasants who had earlier depended on common lands for their survival,
gathering their firewood, berries, vegetables, hay and straw, had to now look for alternative sources of income.
Many had tiny plots of land which could not provide work for all members of the household. So when merchants
came around and offered advances to produce goods for them, peasant households eagerly agreed. By working
for the merchants, they could remain in the countryside and continue to cultivate their small plots. Income from
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proto-industrial production supplemented their shrinking income from cultivation. It also allowed them a fuller
use of their family labour resources.
The new industries could not easily displace traditional industries. Even at the end of the nineteenth century, less
than 20 percent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. Textiles was
a dynamic sector, but a large portion of the output was produced not within factories, but outside, within
domestic units. the pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal
industries, but they did not remain entirely stagnant either. Seemingly ordinary and small innovations were the
basis of growth in many non-mechanised sectors such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning,
furniture making, and production of implements. Technological changes occurred slowly. They did not spread
dramatically across the industrial landscape. New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists
were cautious about using it. The machines often broke down and repair was costly. They were not as effective
as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A- The Age of Industrialisation
In 1900, a popular music publisher E.T. Paull produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page
announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century’. As you can see from the illustration, at the centre of the picture is a
goddess-like figure, the angel of progress, bearing the flag of the new century. She is gently perched on a wheel
with wings, symbolising time. Her flight is taking her into the future. Floating about, behind her, are the signs of
progress: railway, camera, machines, printing press and factory.
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CHAPTER-5: Print Culture and the Modern World
Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSAQ) [1 Mark]
Q 5. Why was James Augustus Hickey persecuted by Governor General Warren Hastings?
(a) For poor editing of Bengal Gazette
(b) For publishing a lot of gossip about company’s Senior Official
(c) For publishing substandard material
(d) None of these
Q 6. By whom was ‘Sambad Kaumudi’ published in 1821?
(a) Iswer Chandra Vidyasagar (b) C.R. Das
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy (d) Swami Vivekanand
Q 7. In ancient India which of the following material was used for writing manuscripts?
(a) Parchments (b) Vellum
(c) Palm leaves (d) Paper
Q 9. was the Latin scholar who expressed deep anxiety about printed book.
Q 11. Amar Jiban was the autobiography written by Rashsundari Debi. (True/False)
Q 13. Monnocchio said “The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress”. (True/False)
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Q 15. Which one of the following is the oldest Japanese book? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Sutta Pitaka (b) Diamond Sutra
(c) Mahavamsa (d) Dipavamsa
Q 16. The reformation movement was launched against the corrupt practices of which of the following
group?
(a) Feudal Lords (b) Protestant Church
(c) Catholic Church (d) Absolute rulers
Q 20. American explorer Marco Polo brought back the knowledge of printing to Italy. (True/False)
Q 21. ‘Bengal Gazette’ the weekly magazine was brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya. (True/False)
Q 22. Where did the earliest kind of print technology i.e., the system of hand printing develop?
Q 23. Name the Chinese traditional book which was folded and stitched at the side.
Q 28. In early times how did silk and spices from China reach Europe?
Q 30. How were woodblocks used in Europe in the early fifteenth century?
Q 32. Why did the Roman Catholic Church begin to maintain an Index of Prohibited Books from 1558?
Q 36. Who said the following words: ‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual
writer!’
Q 37. What was the contribution of Richard M. Hoe to the art of printing?
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Q 40. Who brought the printing press first to Goa?
Q 43. Name two Persian newspapers which were published from 1822 onwards.
Q 44. Name the first edition of Indian religious text published in vernacular.
Q 46. What was the subject matter of the writings of Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?
Q 47. Name the book published by Rama Chadha in Punjab. What was the main theme of the book?
Q 49. What was the main topic of Jyotiba Phule’s book Gulamgiri?
Q 53. Who proclaimed printing as the ultimate and the greatest gift of God?
Q 55. Name two presses which published numerous religious texts in vernacular languages.
Q 57. How was printing culture influenced by the spread of cities and urban culture in China?
Q 60. Who brought the technology of woodblock printing to Europe? Why was it not popular in
aristocratic circles? Who purchased the wood printed books?
Q 61. Who were the people who employed scribes to write in the 14th century?
Q 64. Why did the new technology not entirely displace the existing art of producing books by hand?
Q 65. In which three ways did the printed books at first closely resemble the written manuscripts?
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Q 66. How did print bring the reading public and hearing public closer?
Q 67. Explain the role played by print in bringing about a division in the Roman Catholic Church.
Q 68. How did ideas about science, reason and rationality find their way into popular literature in the 18th
century Europe?
Q 69. Who was Menocchio? Why and how did he face the wrath of the Roman Catholic Church?
Q 71. Explain any three reasons which created a large number of new readers in the nineteenth century.
Q 72. How did Mercier describe the impact of printed word and power of reading on himself?
Q 73. What did the spread of print culture in the 19th century do to:
(a) Children (b) Workers in Europe
Q 74. Highlight any three innovations which have improved the printing technology from 19th century
onwards.
Or
Give three methods by which printed books became more accessible to people.
Q 75. What were the limitations of handwritten manuscripts in India? Explain.
Or
Explain any three features of handwritten manuscripts before the age of print in India.
Q 76. It is difficult for us to imagine a world without printed matter. Justify the statement giving any three
suitable arguments.
Q 80. How did print help connect communities and people in different parts of India? Explain with
examples.
Q 82. Why did the Ulema oppose English culture? What step did they take to counter the impact?
Q 83. What was the role of “new visual image” culture in printing in India?
Q 84. Write the name of any two women writers of India in 19th century and highlight the contribution
of anyone who wrote about the different experiences of the women.
Q 85. What was the role of cartoons and caricatures in the new forms of publications?
Q 86. How had the earliest printing technology developed in the world? Explain with examples.
Q 87. Who was Gutenberg? How did he invent the printing press? How did his invention bring a revolution
in the field of printing ideas?
Q 88. Examine the reasons for a virtual reading mania in Europe in the 18th century.
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Or
How did new form of popular literature appear in print targeting new audience in the 18th century?
Explain with examples.
Q 89. How did oral culture enter print and how was printed material transmitted orally? Explain.
Or
How did a new reading public emerge with the printing press? Explain.
Q 90. Who was Louise-Sebastien Mercier? What was his opinion on the printing press? Explain three reasons
why it is believed that print culture created the conditions within which the French Revolution occurred.
Q 93. Who was James Augustus Hickey? Name the paper edited by him? How did he describe his weekly
magazine? What did he publish in his magazine?
Q 95. What strategies were developed by printers and publishers in the 19th and 20th century to sell their
product?
Q 96. When was Deoband Seminary founded? Why? Why did it publish thousands of fatwas?
Q 97. Explain how the print media and newspapers became agencies of religious reform and public debate
in India during the early 19th century.
Q 98. ‘‘By the end of 19th century a new visual culture was taking shape.’’ Explain.
Or
Explain the effect of print technology on Indian visual culture in the 19th century.
Q 99. ‘Printing technology gave women a chance to share their feelings with the world outside.’ Support the
statement with any five suitable examples.
Q 100. What was the attitude of liberal and conservative Indians towards women’s reading? How did women
like Kailash Bashini Debi respond to this in her writings?
Q 101. Why the printed books were popular even among illiterate people?
Q 102. Examine the various innovations in print technology in the late 19th century and early 20th century.
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printed message, they could persuade people to think differently, and move them to action. This had significance
in different spheres of life.
Source C: Manuscripts before the Age of Print India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten
manuscripts – in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, as well as in various vernacular languages. Manuscripts were
copied on palm leaves or on handmade paper. Pages were sometimes beautifully illustrated. They would be
either pressed between wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation. Manuscripts continued to be
produced till well after the introduction of print, down to the late nineteenth century.
Questions:
Source A: How publishers withstand the market during the Great Depression? Source B: What motivated a
large number of children in Europe to become readers? Source C: Mention the technique of preserving the
manuscript in India.
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Question Bank: Social Science
CLASS: X
Part B: GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER 1- RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT
1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA)
II. Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?
III. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing
(a) Punjab (b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Uttarakhand
Ques.4:- Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilization, are
called?
Ques.5- Who said, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed”.
Ques.6- Define net sown area.
Ques.9- When water flows as a sheet over large area down a slope causing which type of soil erosion?
Ques.11- Which type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast?
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Ques.16- In which five year Plan period, resources planning was introduced in India?
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5 MARKS QUESTIONS (Long Answer Questions)
Ques.2- Suggest any five measures to solve the problems of land degradation in India.
Ques.3- What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas?
Ques.5- Distinguish between Khadar and Bangar. Name any two states where alluvial soils are found.
Ques.6:- Which soil is called regur soil? Explain any four characteristics of this soil.
Ques.7- What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features of this type
of soil.
Ques.8- Explain land use pattern in India and why has the land under forest not increased much since 1960-61?
Ques.9- How has technical and economic development led to more consumption of resources?
Ques.10- What is the need for the conservation of resources? Explain it in the light of Gandhiji’s
view.
Ques.11- What was the purpose of the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro Brazil in 1992? What
are the main provisions of Agenda 21 signed at this Summit?
Ques.12- Which type of soil is ideal for growth of cotton? What are the main characteristics of this type of soil?
Name some areas where they found.
Ques.13- What is soil? Analyze the four main factors which help in the formation of soil.
Map work
On the given outline map of India : Major soil Types (Identification only)
(a) Major Black soil area (b) Major Red soil area (c) Major Alluvial soil area
(d) Major Desert soil area (e) Major Forest and Mountain soil
(f) Major Laterite soil area
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Chapter -2: Forest and Wildlife
Note: This chapter to be assessed in the Periodic Test only and will
not be evaluated in Board Examination.
&
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MAP WORK- Chapter 3: Water Resources (Locating and Labelling)
Ques.1- Locate and label the following on the outline map of India.
Dams:
Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.
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CHAPTER 4- AGRICULTURE
1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA)
7. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?
14. Which type of agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools?
4) Write any three changes in Indian agriculture after the Green Revolution?
6) Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice and wheat in India.
7) Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for growth.
8) Describe the geographical conditions for the cultivation of sugarcane. Name two leading producer
states of India.
11) Enlist the various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government in the interest of
farmers.
12) The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?
1) Suggest the initiatives taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural activities.
3) Which geographical conditions are needed for the second most important cereal crop of India?
Name regions where it is grown.
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4) Why has Indian agriculture started a declining trend in food production? Explain.
5) Why subsistence agriculture is still practiced in certain parts of the country? Give reasons.
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(B) Major states of (1) Sugarcane, (2) Tea, (3) Coffee, (4) Rubber, (5) Cotton and (6) Jute.
(1) Sugarcane (2) Tea
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Chapter-5 Minerals and Energy Resources
1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA)
9. Kodema, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
a) Bauxite b) Mica c) Iron ore d) Copper
10. Which one of the following mineral is contained in the monazite sand?
12. Geographers study ..................... as part of the Earth’s crust for a better understanding of landforms.
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5) Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India? Mention any two uses of it.
6) “India is an important iron and steel producing country in the World. Yet we are not able to perform
to our full potential.” Suggest and explain any three measures to get full potential.
7) What are the uses of copper? Name the two leading copper producing states of India.
8) Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its different
forms.
9) How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestion.
10) Minerals are indispensable part of our lives. Support the statement with examples.
11) Why is mining activity often called a “Killer Industry”. Give three reasons.
13) How minerals are formed in sedimentary rocks? Name any two mineral formed due to evaporation
especially in arid region.
14) Study the given chart carefully and answer the following questions:
A. Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India?
B. What is the use of manganese?
C. What is the share of Madhya Pradesh in the production of manganese ore?
15) Write any two features of natural gas. Why is it considered an environment friendly fuel?
19) Why the use of fire wood and dung cake should be discouraged?
20) Why does solar energy in Rajasthan have greater potential as non –conventional source of energy?
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5 MARKS QUESTIONS (Long Answer Questions)
1) How is mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and environment? Explain.
2) “Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.” Support the statement with examples.
3) ‘Natural gas is an important source of clean energy’. Support the statement with examples.
4) Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?
6) How would you classify the types of coal depending on the degrees of compression?
7) Explain any five types of non- conventional sources of energy developed in India.
Map work
Minerals and Energy Resources Minerals (Identification only)
a. Iron Ore mines
• Mayurbhanj • Durg • Bailadila • Bellary • Kudremukh
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b. Coal Mines
• Raniganj • Bokaro • Talcher • Neyveli
c. Oil Fields
• Digboi • Naharkatia • Mumbai High • Bassien • Kalol • Ankaleshwar
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Power Plants (Locating and Labelling only)
a. Thermal
• Namrup • Singrauli • Ramagundam
b. Nuclear
• Narora • Kakrapara • Tarapur • Kalpakkam
Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.
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CHAPTER 6- Manufacturing Industries
1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA)
Q.1. The industries that produces goods for direct use by consumers e.g. sugar, toothpaste paper etc. are called?
a) Agro based industries b) Consumer industries c) Basic industries d) Mineral based industries.
Q.3. ......................is large, handles everything in one complex form putting together
raw material to steel making rolling and shaping.
Q.4. .....................are smaller in size, have electronic furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge
iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well.
Q.5. Where and when the first Jute mill was set up in India?
Q.6. Where and when the first successful cotton textile mill was set up in India?
Q.11. Where and when the first cement plant was set up in India?
Q.12. Which one of the following is owned and operated by Public sector?
Q.13. Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material?
Q.14. Which one of the following industries use bauxite as a raw material?
Q.15. Which one of the following industry manufactures telephone, computer etc.
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3 MARKS QUESTIONS (Short Answer Questions)
Q.1. Which physical and human factors are responsible for the location of Industries?
Q.2. Which factors are responsible for concentration of cotton textile mills in Gujrat and Maharashtra?
Q.3. What are the challenges faced by cotton textile mills in India?
Q.4. Which factors are responsible for setting up jute mills in Hugli region?
Q.6. What steps are taken up by the government of India to increase demand of jute in the market?
Q.7. Which factors are responsible for shifting of sugar mills to southern and western states?
Q.12. What are the impacts of mining on the health of the miners and the environment?
country? Q.2. NTPC has set an example of pollution free industry. Explain.
Q.3. How Integrated steel plants are different from mini steel plants? What problems does the industry face?
Q.6. India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world yet, we are not able to perform to
our full potential. Give any four reasons.
Q.7. Bring out the importance of information Technology and Electronic in India?
Q.8. What ideas justify that agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other?
Q.10. Which factors are responsible for the decentralization of cotton textile mills in India?
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Map work.
Manufacturing Industries (Locating and Labelling Only)
Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.
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Iron and Steel Plants:
g. Chennai h. Thiruvananthapuram
Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.
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CHAPTER 7-Lifelines of the National Economy
1 MARK QUESTIONS (VSA)
Q.1. Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?
Q.3 Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by east-west corridor?
a) Mumbai and Nagpur b) Mumbai and Kolkata c) Silcher and Porbandar d) Nagpur and Siligudi
The National Highways are constructed and maintained by Public Works Department (PWD).
Golden Quadrilateral super Highways are 5 lane highways connecting major metropolitan cities
of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.
Kochchi port of Karnataka export the iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines.
Paradip port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on Kolkata port.
Q.14. Which of the following National Highway is called Sher-Shah Suri Marg?
Q.15. Which port was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port?
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3 MARKS QUESTIONS (Short Answer Questions)
Q.5. Why airways is considered better in comparison to roadways and railways especially in the north-eastern
part of India?
Q.10. ‘‘Road transport in India is not competitive but complimentary to Railways.” Justify this statement
by giving three points.
Q.11. Where and why is rail transport the most convenient means of transportation?
Q.13. What is meant by trade? What is the difference between international and local trade?
Q.14. Why the means of transportation and communication are called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Q.15. Rich agriculture resources and Great Industrial activities in the Great Plains as compared with
Himalayan Mountains, further provides favourable conditions for the development of Railway. Explain?
Q.4. Which factors are responsible for the uneven distribution pattern of the railway network in India?
Q.7. Highlight the importance of radio and television as an effective means of mass communication in India.
Q.9. How do physiographic and economic factors influence the distribution pattern of Indian railway network?
Explain with example.
Q.10. Name any two navigational Rivers of India? In which part of India Inland Water ways are widely used?
Write two Merits and Demerits of Inland waterTransport.
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Q.11. Efficient network of transport and communication is a pre-requisite for local, national and global trade of
today? Explain.
Map work
Major Ports: (Locating and Labelling)
Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.
Page | 52
Question Bank: Social Science
CLASS: X
Part C: DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-ii
Chapter-1: Power sharing
1 Mark Questions (VSA)
1. How many people speak French and Dutch in the capital city of Brussels?
a) 60 percent French 40 percent Dutch b) 50% Dutch 50% French
c) 80% French 20% Dutch d) 80% Dutch 20% French
8. What is Majoritarianism?
9. Name the country which has lost peace due to Majoritarianism.
10. In which year, Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
11. What is the linguistic composition of Belgium?
12. What is civil war?
13. What do you mean by federal division of power?
14. What was a community government?
15. Where is the headquarter of European Union?
16. Which religion is followed by majority of Sinhala speaking people?
17. Which language is mainly spoken in Flemish region of Belgium?
18. Which language is spoken by the people of Wallonia region of Belgium?
19. What does the word ethnic refer to?
20. Who elects the community government in Belgium?
21. How is power shared in modern democracies?
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22. Power shared among governments at different levels is also called:
(a) Horizontal distribution (b) Vertical distribution (c) Slant distribution (d) None
23. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri
Lanka.
A. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the
minority French-speaking community.
B. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the
Sinhala-speaking majority.
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect
their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a
possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) A, B, C & D (b) A, B & D (c) C & D (d) B, C & D
24. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and against power sharing. Identify those
which are in favour of power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below? Power
sharing:
A. reduces conflict among different communities
B. decreases the possibility of arbitrariness
C. delays decision making process
D. accommodates diversities
E. increases instability and divisiveness
F. promotes people’s participation in government
G. undermines the unity of a country
Options:
(a) A, B, D, F (b) A, C, E, F (c) A, B, D, G (d) B,C, D,G
25. Consider the following two statements on power sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below:
A. Power sharing is good for democracy.
B. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Which of these statements are true and false?
Options:
(a) A is true but B is false (b) Both A and B are true
(c) Both A and B are false (d) A is false but B is true
26. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason (B): A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
27. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct option:
Page | 54
Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognized as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
28. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
3. How is power shared among different organs of the government, i.e., legislature, executives and judiciary?
4. What is majoritarianism? How it has led to alienation of majority community in Sri Lanka?
5. How is federal government better than a unitary government? Explain with examples of Belgium and Sri
Lanka.
10. Describe three demands of Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their independence?
11. Briefly explain the ways in which power sharing between different organs of the government results in the
maintenance of balance of power.
12. Mention any three provisions of the Act which passed in Sri Lanka in 1956 to establish Sinhala Supremacy.
16. State one prudential reason and one moral reason of power sharing with an example from the Indian context.
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17. What is community government?
1. What are the different forms of power sharing in modern democracies? Give example of each.
2. How are the ethnic problem solved in Belgium? Mention any four steps which were taken by the
governments to solve the problem?
3. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different political parties, pressure groups and
movements.
4. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different organs of the government.
5. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different social groups.
6. Explain the power sharing arrangement among the different levels of the government.
7. What are advantages enjoyed by the Sinhala Community in Sri Lanka? Describe the consequences.
8. What measures were adopted by the Belgium government to accommodate regional and cultural diversities?
9. What are the outcomes and the lessons we learnt from the style of governance in Sri Lanka and Belgium?
***************************************
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Chapter-2: Federalism
1 Mark Questions (VSA)
1. How many scheduled languages are recognized by the constitution?
a) Besides Hindus, there are 18 scheduled, languages.
b) Besides Hindi, there are 21 scheduled languages.
c) Besides Hindi there are 22 scheduled languages.
d) Besides Hindi there are 19 scheduled languages
6. What is federalism?
8. According to our constitution, who has the power to legislate on 'residuary' subjects?
9. How many lists of subject have been provided in the Indian Constitution?
10. The Subjects like-Defense, Banking and Communication are come under which list?
11. How many languages have been included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
13. Who can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the concurrent list?
14. Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India and the powers of the government at
that level to make laws on the subjects mentioned against each. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
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(a) State government State List
(b) Central government Union List
(c) Central and State government Concurrent List
(d) Local governments Residuary powers
15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
1. Union of India A. Prime Minister
2. State Β. Sarpanch
3. Municipal C. Governor
4. Gram Panchayat D. Mayor
1 2 3 4
(a) D A B C
(b) B C D A
(c) A C D B
(d) C D A B
17. The state governments are required to share some power and............ with local governments
bodies.
18. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
2. What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain with
an example.
3. State any two differences between the local government before and after the constitutional
amendment in 1992.
5. If agriculture and commerce are state subjects, why do we have ministers of agriculture and
commerce in the Union cabinet?
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6. What is the real reason for the successes of federalism in India?
8. What happened to the centre state relations when different parties ruled at the centre and state
levels till 1990?
9. Why is the central government of India not compelling states to adopt Hindi as their official
language?
12. Is it easy to make changes to power sharing arrangements between centre and the state? Explain.
20. “Local people know the local problems and its solutions better”. Explain.
23. What are the steps taken by our Constitution to safeguard the different languages?
24. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Union List Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country,
foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform
policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the
subjects mentioned in the Union List.
Source B: State List State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce,
agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the
State List.
Source C: Concurrent List Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government
as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession.
Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their
laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
Source A : 24 (1) How many items are listed in the Union List?
Source B : 24 (2) Which kind of subjects are listed in the state list?
Source C: 24 (3) Who makes laws in the concurrent list? It conflict occurs then what happen in the List?
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5 Mark Questions (Long answer Questions)
Q1. If federalism works in big countries, why did Belgium adopted it?
Q4. How is federalism practiced in India? Or Why has federation succeeded in India? Which three
policies adopted by India have ensured this success?
Q5. What are the key features of Federalism? Or Which five provisions of the Indian constitution make
India a full-fledged federation? Explain.
Q7. Why does the exact balance of power between the central and the state governments vary from
one federation to another? Explain with two examples.
Q8. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national
language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of
only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides
Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an
examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these
languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official
language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in
spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in
1965. However, many non-Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this
movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English
along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elite.
Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that
the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility
shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
(i) How many official languages recognised as scheduled Languages by the Constitution?
(ii) How does Constitution of India safeguard the other languages?
(iii) How does India avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in?
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Chapter-4: Gender, Religion and Caste
1 Mark Questions (VSA)
1. Which one of the following social reformers fought against caste inequalities.
(a) Periyar Ramaswami Naiker (b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
2. Which one of the following was the view of Mahatma Gandhi about religion?
(a) He was in favour of Hinduism.
(b) He was an ardent supporter of Muslim Religion.
(c) By religion, Gandhi meant for moral values that inform all religions.
(d) He said that India should adopt Christianity.
5. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. Communal politics is based on the
belief that:
Α. One religion is superior to that of others.
Β. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.
C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over others.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B and D (c) A and C (d) B and D
13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
1. A person who believes in equal rights and Α. Communalist
opportunities for women and men
2. A person who says that religion is the principal Β. Feminist
basis of community
3. A person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community C. Secularist
4. A person who does not discriminate others on the D. Castiest
basis of religious beliefs
1 2 3 4
(a) B C A D
(b) B A D C
(c) D C A B
(d) C A B D
14. Name any two countries where women’s participation in public life is very high.
(a) Sri Lanka and Nepal (b) Pakistan and Bhutan
(c) Sweden and Finland (d) South Africa and Maldives
17. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
19. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
21. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides that equal wages should be paid for equal work,
irrespective of gender and caste.
Reason (B): Women are physically weak so they are righteously paid less than men.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
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23. What is the percentage of women in Lok Sabha as recommended by women’s Reservation Bill?
25. Name any two laws that enacted by the Indian parliament for the welfare of women.
27. In which country was the “Civil Rights Movement” Started? Name any leaders related to this
movement? Why did he start this movement?
5. What do you mean by secular state? Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India
a secular state.
9. How political mobilization on the question of gender equality helps to improve women’s role in public
life? Are they successful in achieving their objective?
12. Do you agree that caste alone cannot determine election results in India?
13. How does the Constitution of India ensures that India remains a secular state?
14. Describe the positive impact of casteism with regard to political expression.
15. Is the association of political parties with social groups always bad? Give three arguments in
support of your answer.
16. Describe the negative impact of casteism with regard to political expression.
18. Discuss any four steps taken by the government towards women empowerment and gender
inequality.
19. What do you mean by gender division? How is it linked with division of labour in most of the
societies?
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20. How Casteism is dangerous to a democratic country?
21. Read the following extract taken from the textbook and answer the questions that follow:
It is indeed ridiculous and unreasonable to deny women political rights even though they enjoy the
right to property which they make use of. They perform functions and assume responsibilities
without however getting the benefits that accrue to men for the same ... Why this injustice? Is it
not a disgrace that even the stupidest cattle-herder possesses the right to vote, simply because
he is a man, whereas highly talented women owning considerable property are excluded from
this right, even though they contribute so much to the maintenance of the state?
(i) Who is the writer of the above passage?
(ii) What is the grudge (complaint) of the writer?
(iii) What example does the writer cite in support of her view point?
8. Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression in various ways even today. Assess the
statement by giving five suitable arguments.
9. What is feminist movement? What are the results of political expressions of gender divisions?
11. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
How were liberty and equality for women to be defined? The liberal politician Carl Welcker, an elected member
of the Frankfurt Parliament, expressed the following views: ‘Nature has created men and women to carry out
different functions... Man, the stronger, the bolder and freer of the two, has been designated as protector of the
family, its provider, meant for public tasks in the domain of law, production, defence. Woman, the weaker,
dependent and timid, requires the protection of man. Her sphere is the home, the care of the children, the
nurturing of the family... Do we require any further proof that given such differences, equality between the sexes
would only endanger harmony and destroy the dignity of the family?’ Louise Otto Peters (1819-95) was a
political activist who founded a women’s journal and subsequently formed a feminist political association. The
first issue of her newspaper (21 April 1849) carried the following editorial: ‘Let us ask how many men,
possessed by thoughts of living and dying for the sake of Liberty, would be prepared to fight for the freedom of
the entire people, of all human beings? When asked this question, they would all too easily respond with a
“Yes!”, though their untiring efforts are intended for the benefit of only one half of humanity – men. But Liberty
is indivisible! Free men therefore must not tolerate to be surrounded by the unfree...’ An anonymous reader of
the same newspaper sent the following letter to the editor on 25 June 1850: ‘It is indeed ridiculous and
unreasonable to deny women political rights even though they enjoy the right to property which they make use
of. They perform functions and assume responsibilities without however getting the benefits that accrue to men
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for the same... Why this injustice? Is it not a disgrace that even the stupidest cattle-herder possesses the right to
vote, simply because he is a man, whereas highly talented women owning considerable property are excluded
from this right, even though they contribute so much to the maintenance of the state?’
(i) Evaluate the role of equality for women in the development of the nation.
(ii) To what extent it is true to say that nature has created men and women to carry out
different functions?
(iii) To what extent you feel that equality helped in bringing the dignity of women in the family back?
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Chapter-6: POLITICAL PARTIES
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 Mark Questions)
Q.3) Who among the following is the founder of the bahujan samaj party?
a. Kanshi Ram b. Sahu Maharaj
c. B.R. Ambedkar d. Jyotiba Phule
Q.4) A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called a
.
Q.16) How many parties are registered with the Election Commission?
Q.17) After 1990, there was the rise of regional political parties as well as the beginning of era of ........... at the
centre.
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SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 Marks)
Q.1) Assess the importance of political parties?
Q.2) What is a multi-party system? Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain.
Q.3) What is the difference between a national party and a state party?
Q.4) Explain three functions of opposition political parties.
Q.5) ’Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy’. Analyse the statement with examples
Q.6) Examine the concept of money and muscle power in a political party.
Q.7) What is the first thing the Election Commission does after recognising a party? Does it treat every party as
equal?
Q.8) No system is ideal for all countries and all situations. Explain.
Q.9) Write a short note on one-party system.
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CHAPTER -7: OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY
Multiple choice questions (1 mark each)
Q 1) We can judge democracy by its -
a) people b) outcomes c) political parties d) none of the above
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1) Method of assessing the outcomes of democracy a) Education the citizen
2) Evaluating Indian democracy b) fundamental rights
3) Factors strengthening Indian democracy c) An alert and impartial election commission
4) Required to sustain democracy d) when some minimum expectations are not
fulfilled
1 2 3 4
a) d c b a
b) d a c b
c) d b c a
d) d a b c
Q 16) What does democracy ensure?
Q 17) Which form of government is found in most of the countries of the world?
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Q 18) What do you mean by an accountable government?
Q 20 ) Which South Asian country has always had a democratic government since independence?
Q 24) Which features of democracy are common in most countries of the world?
Q 27) Read the sources given below answer the questions that follow –
There is one respect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternative democratic
government is legitimate government. it may be slow less efficient not always very responsive for clean but a
democratic government is peoples on government that is why there is an overwhelming support from the idea of
democracy all over the world People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by then they also believe that
democracy suitable for their country.
Q 27) 1. Why democracy is better than its alternatives?
Q 27) 2. Write some drawbacks of democracy.
Q 28) What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?
Q 29) Which values make democracy better than any other form of Government? Explain.
Q 30) “A democracy must look after the interest of all not just one section support the statement with
arguments.
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Q 31) “Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice”. Justify the
statement.
Q 32) “Democracy is not approve appearing to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities”.
Analyse the statement.
Q 34) Discuss any five factors that describe the successful working of democracy in India.
government?
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Question Bank: Social Science
CLASS: X
Part D: ECONOMICS
Chapter-1: DEVELOPMENT
Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
Ques 1. What is per capita income?
Ques 4. Mention any one limitation of per capita income as an indicator of development.
Ques 6. What is the rank of India as per the HDI report of 2019?
Ques 8. Suppose there are four families in a country with per capita income of $15000. The income of
three families is $10000, $20000 and $12000. What is the income of the fourth family?
Ques12. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India?
i. Bangladesh ii. Sri Lanka iii. Nepal iv. Pakistan
Ques16. In which year the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was implemented?
Ques 2. “People have conflicting development goals”. Support the statement with suitable example.
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Ques 3. What is the main norm used by the World Bank in classifying different countries as rich and poor
countries? What are the restrictions of such norms?
Ques 4. Study the data given below and answer the Question that follow:
Some comparative data on Punjab, Kerala and Bihar:
Ques 5. What may be the development for one may be the destruction for the other.” Explain the statement
with appropriate examples.
Ques 6. Study the data given below and answer the Question that follow. Some Comparative Data on
Punjab, Kerala and Bihar
A. Which state has the highest infant mortality rate?
B. Why does this state have the highest infant mortality rate? Give two reasons.
Ques 7. Why does Kerala have a better Human Development Index ranking in comparison to Punjab? Explain
with three reasons.
Ques 8. Describe any three possible development goals of landless rural labourers.
Ques 9. “Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well” Do you agree with this
statement? Justify your answer with any three suitable arguments.
Ques 10. State the three factors other than income that are important in life.
Ques 11. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own examples
related to development.
Ques 12. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even
one person”. How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development? Discuss.
Ques 13. Why average income is taken into consideration instead of total income while making comparison
between countries?
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Ques 14. Explain the important aspects of our lives that are important than income.
Ques 1. “Though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development.”
Justify the statement.
Ques 2. What is Human Development Index? Which organization measures the HDI? Explain the three
major indicators of the HDI.
Ques 3. What is sustainable development? Suggest any three ways in which resources can be used judiciously.
Ques 5. Compare India and Sri Lanka on the basis of any three indicators of Human Development Index for
2019.
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Chapter-2: Sectors of the Indian Economy
Ques 1. Who has the ownership of the assets in the public sector?
Ques 5. In which sector are a large number of workers losing their jobs in, since 1990?
Ques 6. What was the most important sector of economic activities at the earliest stages of development?
Ques 7. Name the sector which forms the base for all other products.
Ques 8. Name the sector in which natural products are changed into other forms.
Ques 9. Name the sector which helps in the development of primary and secondary sectors.
Ques 10. Name the sector that is the largest employer in India.
(b) Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in sector.
Ques 1. How does service sector help in the development of primary and secondary sectors? Explain with
examples.
Ques 2. With the example of sugar cane, explain the interdependence of all the three sectors of economy.
Ques 3. Explain the working condition of workers in unorganized sector.
Ques 4. Explain disguised unemployment with two examples, one from urban areas and other from rural areas.
Ques 5. Distinguish between public and private sectors.
Ques 6. Explain the interdependence of all three sectors giving examples from transportation system.
Ques 7. Highlight the three factors responsible for the growth of service sector in the Indian economy.
Ques 3. Describe the provisions of the National Rural employment Guarantee Act 2005
Ques 5. Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organized and unorganized sector?
Ques12. Why is the tertiary sector becoming more important in India? Explain.
Ques13. Explain three causes of unemployment in India and suggest any two measures to reduce
unemployment in India.
Ques 14. What are the measures to protect the labourers in the unorganized sector?
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Chapter-3: Money And Credit
Ques 9. Which are the two major sources of formal loan for rural households?
Ques 2. Why can one not refuse a payment made in rupees in India?
Ques 3. Compare formal sector loans with informal sector loans regarding interest only.
Ques 4. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans necessary?
Ques 5. Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India.
Ques 6. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?
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Ques 7. How does money eliminate the need for double coincidence of wants?
Ques 8. How can money be easily exchange for goods or services? Give an example to explain.
Ques 9. ‘Credit has its own unique role for development.’ Justify the statement with arguments.
Ques 10. “Poor households still depend on informal sources of credit.” Support the statement with
examples.
Ques 11. Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their lending facilities
in rural areas? Explain.
Ques 12. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find
out the reason.
Ques 13. What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.
Ques 14. How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with an
example.
Ques 15. How is money used in everyday life? Explain with examples.
Ques 16. Explain with examples, how people are involved with the banks.
Ques 17. Explain with an example how credit plays a vital and positive role for development.
Ques 18. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? Give any three reasons.
Ques 19. How is money used as a medium of exchange? Explain with examples
Ques 20. What are the modern forms of money? Why is rupee widely accepted as a medium of
exchange? Explain two reasons.
Ques 21. What are demand deposits? How is money safe in the banks? Explain.
Ques 22. Mention any three points of distinction between formal sector loans and informal sector
loans.
Ques 23. What are the two categories of sources of credit? Mention four features of each.
Ques 24. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India?
Explain its functioning.
Ques 2. “Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.” Assess the statement.
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Ques 3. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation.” Examine the
Statement.
Ques 4. “The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.” Support the statement with
arguments
Ques 5. How do SHGs help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral? Explain with an
example.
Ques 6. Why is there a great need to expand formal sector of credit in India? Explain.
Ques 7. “Whether credit will be useful or not, depends upon the situation.” Give two different
examples in support of this statement
Ques 8. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest
any five measures.
Ques 9. What are Self-Help Groups? How do they work? Explain.
Ques 10. Why is it necessary for banks and cooperatives to extend their lending activities in rural
areas? Explain.
Ques 11. Describe any four advantages of Self-Help Groups for the poor.
Ques 12. How does the use of money make exchange of things easier? Explain with examples.
Ques 13. Why are the deposits in the banks called ‘demand deposits’? What are the benefits of
deposits with the banks?
Ques 14. What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers?
Ques 15. When does credit push the borrower into a debt-trap? Explain with the help of an example.
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Chapter-4: Globalisation and Indian Economy
Ques 7. Name the organization lay emphasize liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment.
Ques 2. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and
other resources?
Ques 3. Why had the Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after
independence? State reasons.
Ques 4.‘Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India since
1991.’ Justify the statement.
Ques 5. In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.
Ques 6. “Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement with arguments.
Ques 8. How has liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process?
Ques 9. What would happen if Government of India puts heavy tax on import of Chinese toys? Explain any
three points.
Ques 10. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.
Ques 11. Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like twenty
years from now? Give three reasons for your answer.
Ques 2. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been of advantageous to consumers.”
Justify the statement with examples.
Ques 3. Explain by giving examples how Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading their products in
different ways.
Ques 4. “Information and communication technology have played a major role in spreading out production of
services across countries”. Justify the statement with examples.
Ques 6. How did ‘Cargill Foods’ become the largest producer of edible oils in India? Explain.
Ques 7. Why did Ford Motors want to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants
across the globe? Explain.
Ques 8. Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment? What
do you think should the developing countries demand in return?
Ques 9. What is the main aim of World Trade Organisation? Explain its functions.
Ques 10. What has been the impact of globalisation on India Economy? Explain.
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Ques 11.“Globalisation has been advantageous to both consumers as well as producers.” Support the
statement with suitable examples.
Ques 12. Explain four ways in which globalisation and pressure of competition has changed the lives of workers
substantially.
Ques 13. How is foreign trade inter-connecting the markets in different countries? Explain with examples.
Ques 14. What are the various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries?
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