Test Pattern

English (1001CMD300522040) )1//1CMD3//522/4/)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2022-2023) 14-03-2023
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY
This Booklet contains 32 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

Important Instructions :

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking
responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
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Test Booklet with them.
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space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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: in words

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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : SYLLABUS-A
SECTION-A 5. Find the area under the shaded region for curve
Attempt All 35 questions y = 3x2 :-
1. If loge 20 = x; loge 80 = y; then loge 4 =?
y
(1) x
(2) y + x (3) y – x (4) y × x
2. Find the slope of the line shown below :-

(1) 80
(2) 26
5 − 3 −5 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 5 3 5 (3) 20
3. The value of
1 1 1 (4) 40
1+ + + +. . . . . upto ∞ is
4 16 64 6. If a vector 2^i + 3^j + 8k^ is perpendicular to the
5 4 6 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) vector 4^j − 4^i + αk^ . Then the value of α is :
4 3 5 6
dy d 2y (1) –1
4. At points P, Q and R, values of and
dx dx 2 1
are given by following expressions :- (2)
2
dy d 2y
(I) At P, = 0 and 2 = Negative 1
dx dx (3) −
dy d 2y 2
(II) At Q, = 0 and 2 = Positive
dx dx (4) 1
dy d 2y
(III) At R, = 0 and 2 = Zero 7. In figure, D⃗ equals
dx dx

Select correct alternative : (1) A⃗ (2) B⃗

(1) only (I) and (II) (2) only (II) and (III)
(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) None of these (3) A⃗ + B ⃗ (4) −( A⃗ + B ⃗ )

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8. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the following 12. A Vernier calliper has 10 division on the
vectors 2^i + 2^j − k^ and 6^i − 3^j + 2k^ :- Vernier scale which coincide with 9 division of
the main scale. The least count of the
i
^
+ 10^j − 18k^ i
^
− 10^j + 18k^
(1) −−
(2) −−
instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small
5√17 5√17 division on main scale is :-
i
^
− 10^j − 18k^ i
^
+ 10^j + 18k^ (1) 0.5 mm (2) 2 mm
(3) −−
(4) −−
5√17 5√17
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 1 mm
9. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is
100 dyne. In another system where the a 4 b2
13. A physical quantity y= has four
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, 4 1/3
(cd )

metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is :- quatities a, b, c and d. The percentage error in
a, b, c and d are 2%, 3%, 4% and 5%
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36
respectively. The error in y will be
(3) 3.6 (4) 36
(1) 6% (2) 11% (3) 12% (4) 22%
10. If frequency F, velocity V and density D are
14. The potential energy of a particle is given by the
considered fundamental units, the dimensional x
formula for momentum will be : expression U(x) = – αx + β sin . A dimensionless
γ
(1) DVF2 (2) DV2F–1 combination of the constants α, β and γ is :-
(3) D2V2F2 (4) DV4 F–3 α α2 γ αγ
(1) βγ
(2) (3) αβ
(4) β
βγ
11. A student writes following four different expressions
for the displacement 'y' in a periodic motion 15. Assertion:- A man can cross river of width d in
2πt minimum time. On increasing the river
A. y = a sin
T velocity, minimum time to cross the river by
B. y = a sin Vt man will remain unchanged.
a t
C. y = sin Reason :- As velocity of a river is
T a
a 2πt 2πt perpendicular to its width so time to cross the
D. y = [sin + cos ]
√2
–
T T river is independent of velocity of river.
Where 'a' is maximum displacement, V is the speed (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
and T is the time period; then dimensionally : is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) A and B are wrong (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(2) B and C are wrong is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) C and D are wrong (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) D and A are wrong (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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16. A train goes through a 1100 m long tunnel at a 20. A stationary man observes that the rain is
constant speed of 72 km/h. The last compartment falling vertically downward. When he starts
comes out one minute after the entry of engine in the running with a velocity of 12 km/h, he observes
tunnel. Find the length of train (including engine). that the rain is falling at an angle 60° with the
(1) 80 m (2) 100 m vertical. The actual velocity of rain is:-
– –
(3) 1200 m (4) 1000 m (1) 12√3 km/h (2) 6√3 km/h
– –
17. The acceleration of particle is given by a = 4t m/s2. (3) 4√3 km/h (4) 2√3 km/h
Then find the velocity of the particle at t = 5 second, 21. A person standing on the floor of an elevator
if it is given that the particle starts from rest :- drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of the
(1) 20 m/s (2) 30 m/s (3) 40 m/s (4) 50 m/s elevator in a time t1 if the elevator is stationary
18. A particle has a rectilinear motion and the and in time t2 if it is moving with constant
figure gives its displacement as a function of velocity. Then-
time. Which of the following statements is false (1) t1 = t2
with respect to the motion? (2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 > t2
(4) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2
22. Which of the following options is correct for
(1) Between O and A the velocity is positive the object having a straight line motion
and acceleration is negative represented by the following graph

(2) Between A and B the velocity and

acceleration are positive
(3) Between B and C the velocity is negative
and acceleration is positive
(4) Between C and D the acceleration is positive
19. The equation of motion of a projectile are given (1) The object moves with constantly
by x = 36 t metre and 2y = 96t – 9.8 t2 metre. increasing velocity from O to A and then it
The angle of projection is : moves with constant velocity.
1 4 1 3 (2) Velocity of the object increases uniformly.
(1) sin −
( ) (2) sin −
( )
5 5
(3) Average velocity is zero.
1 4 1 3
(3) sin −
( ) (4) sin −
( )
(4) The graph shown is impossible.
3 4
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23. Two particles are separated by a horizontal 26. A missile is fired for maximum range at your town
distance x as shown in figure. They are projected from a place 100 km away from you. If the missile
as shown in figure with different initial speeds. is first detected at its half way point, how much
warning time will you have ? (Take g = 10 m/s2) :-
The time after which the horizontal distance
–
between them becomes zero is : (1) 100s (2) 100√2 s
100
(3) 200 s (4) –
s
√ 2
27. Assertion :- For a boy it is difficult to run at
high speed on a rainy day.
x u
(1) (2) Reason :- Coefficient of friction μ is decreased
u 2x
due to rain.
2u
(3) (4) none of these (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
x
24. A body thrown vertically upwards with an initial the correct explanation of (A)
velocity u reaches maximum height in 6 seconds. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
The ratio of the distance travelled by the body in (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
the first second and the seventh second is :-
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) 1 : 1 correct explanation of (A)
(2) 11 : 1 28. In the shown diagram all pulleys and strings are ideal.
(3) 1 : 2 The frictional force acting on the 5 kg block is :
(4) 5 : 3
25. Two balls are thrown from top of a tower at a
speed 40 m/s. One is thrown 30° above
horizontal and one 30° below horizontal. Find
the time interval between the instants the balls
strike the ground in seconds (1) 6 N (2) 8 N (3) 4 N (4) 10 N
(g = 10 m/s2) 29. A constant force acting on a body of mass of 1 kg
(1) 1s change it's speed from 10 ms–1 to 20 ms–1 in 10 s
(2) 2s without changing direction of motion. The force
(3) 3s acting on the body is :-
(4) 4s (1) 0.5 N (2) 1 N (3) 1.5 N (4) 2 N
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30. A rocket of mass 800 kg is launched from a 33. Figure shows two blocks, each of mass m. The
gravity free space. If rate of fuel consumption system is released from rest. If acceleration of
is 300 kg/min and velocity of exhaust gases block A and B at any instant (not initially) are
is 20 m/s then the acceleration of rocket after a1 and a2 respectively, then :
1 minute will be :-
(1) 0.125 m/s2 (2) 7.55 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 0.2 m/s2
31. A block of weight 100 N is attached to a string
as shown in figure. If tension in the left and
T1 (1) a1 = a2 cosθ
right part of string is T1 and T2 then is :
T2
(2) a2 = a1 cosθ
(3) a1 = a2
(4) None of these
34. Find the tension in the string :-

1 1 –
(1) – (2) (3) √ 3 (4) 2
√ 3 2
32. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m by
applying a force P at the end of the rope the
force which the rope exerts on the block is :- (1) 100 N (2) 150 N (3) 120 N (4) 80 N
35. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are
tied together by a massless spring.A force of 200 N
P is applied on a 20 kg mass as shown in figure. At
(1)
M −m the instant shown, the acceleration of 10kg mass is
PM 12 m/s2,the acceleration of 20 kg mass is :-
(2)
M −m
Pm
(3) M +m
(1) 0 (2) 10 m/s2
PM
(4) (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 12 m/s2
M +m
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SECTION-B 38. Match the type of unit (Column A) with its
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate corresponding example (Column B) :-
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of Column-A Column-B
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (a) Base unit (i) N
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (b) Derived SI unit (ii) hp
(c) Improper unit (iii) rad
36. The angle between A⃗ and B ⃗ is θ. R⃗ = A⃗ + B ⃗
(d) Practical unit (iv) kg-wt
θ
makes an angle with A⃗. Which of the (e) Supplementary unit (v) kg
2
following is true? (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(1) A = 2B
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)
(2) 2A = B
39. A particle has initial velocity ( 2^i + 4^j )m/s

(3) AB = 1 and accelertion (−4^i − 8^j ) m/s2. The distance

travelled by particle from t = 0 to t = 1s is
–
(4) None of the above (1) √ 5m
–
(2) √ 6m
37. The component of A⃗ = ^i + ^j + 5k^
–
perpendicular to B ⃗ = 3^i + 4^j is (3) √ 7m

(4) None of these

4 ^ 3 ^
(1) − i+ j + 5k^ 40. A passenger is travelling in an open car moving
25 25
with speed 30 m/s throws a ball in forward
8 ^ 6 ^ direction. Initial velocity of ball relative to car
(2) − i− j + 5k^
25 25 is 20 m/s at 60° with horizontal. Then angle of
projection of from horizontal as seen by an
4 ^ 3 ^ observer on ground will be :-
(3) i− j + 5k^
25 25 – –

(1) tan–1 ( √3 ) (2) tan–1 ( √3 )

2 4
8 ^ 6 ^
(4) i− j + 5k^
(3) tan–1 √3 (4) tan–1 4√3
– –
25 25
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41. A student stands at the edge of a cliff 50 m 43. Assertion (A) :- Out of two measurements of
above a beach and throws a stone horizontally length ℓ = 0.7 m and ℓ = 0.70 m the second
measurement is more precise.
over the edge with a speed of 18 m/s.How long
Reason (R) :- Last digit of measurement is
after being released does the stone strike the uncertain digit.
beach below the cliff ? (Take g = 10 m/s2) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
At which angle does the stone land with the correct explanation of (A)
horizontal ? (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
−− 1 −10 (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) √20 tan
;
−
( )
correct explanation of (A)
18
44. In the diagram shown, match the following
−18
(g = 10 m/s2) Blocks are on smooth incline. F1
−− 1
(2) √20 tan
;
−
( ) and F2 are parallel to the inclined plane. The
10
motion of the blocks is along the incline surface.
−−
−− 1 − 10√10
(3) √10 tan
;
−
( )
18

−− 1 − 18
(4) √10 tan
;
−
( )
10√−−
10

42. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed

Column-I Column-II
of 1 km/h and a ship B 10 km South of A, is
(a) Acceleration of 2 kg block (p) 39 SI unit
moving Northwards with a speed of 1 km/h.
(b) Net force on 3 kg block (q) 25 SI unit
The time after which the distance between them
Normal reaction between
becomes shortest, is :- (c) (r) 2 SI unit
2 kg and 1 kg

(1) 5 h Normal reaction between

(d) (s) 6 SI unit
3 kg and 2 kg
–
(2) 5 √2 h (1) a → r; b → s; c → q; d → p
–
(2) a → p; b → r; c → q; d → s
(3) 10 √2 h
(3) a → q; b → p; c → r; d → s
(4) 0 h (4) a → s; b → p; c → q; d → r
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45. In figure shown, both blocks are released from 48. Find out normal contact force on the man :
rest. The time to cross each other is

(1) 200 N (2) 300 N

(3) 400 N (4) 500 N
49. Consider the situation as shown in the diagram.
(1) 2 second (2) 3 second
(3) 1 second (4) 4 second
46. A trolley is being pulled up an incline plane by a The coefficient of friction between the blocks
man sitting on it (as shown in figure). He applies is 0.5. The acceleration of the lower block is :-
a force of 250 N. If the combined mass of the (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 1.5 m/s2
man and trolley is 100 kg, the acceleration of the
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
trolley will be [sin15° = 0.26]
50. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m,
respectively, are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended
by a massless spring as shown in the figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B, immediately
(1) 2.4 m/s2 (2) 9.4 m/s2 after the string is cut, are respectively :-
(3) 6.9 m/s2 (4) 4.9 m/s2
47. A balloon of mass M is descending with a
constant acceleration g/3. When a mass m is
released from the balloon it starts rising with
the same acceleration g/3. The value of m is
(Assuming that its volume does not change) :-
(1) M/2 (2) M/4 (1) g, g/2 (2) g/2, g
(3) 4M (4) 2M (3) g, g (4) g/2, g/2
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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : SYLLABUS-A
SECTION-A 53. The frequency of first line of Balmer series in
Attempt All 35 questions hydrogen atom is ν0. The frequency of
51. In which of the following electron distributions corresponding line emitted by singly ionised
in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated? helium ion is :
(1) 2ν0 (2) 4ν0 (3) ν0/2 (4) ν0/4
(1) 54. Bohr's atomic model is not applicable to :-
(1) He+ (2) Li+2
(2) (3) He (4) H atom
55. The radii of two of the first four Bohr's orbit of the
hydrogen atom are in the ratio 1 : 4. The energy
(3) difference between them may be :-
(1) Either 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV
(4) (2) Either 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV
(3) Either 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV
52. Assertion : Nodal plane of px atomic orbital is (4) Either 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV
yz plane. 56. For a gas, deviation from ideal behaviour is
Reason : In px atomic orbital electron density is maximum at.
zero in the yz plane. (1) 0°C and 1.0 atm
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are true (2) 100°C and 2.0 atm
and the reason is a correct explanation of (3) –13°C and 1.0 atm
the assertion. (4) –13°C and 2.0 atm
(2) Both the assertion and reason are true but 57. At 300K, 2 moles of Helium gas and 4 moles
the reason is not a correct explanation of of hydrogen gas present in 10L of closed
the assertion. vessel then partial pressure of helium gas will
L − atm
be (R = 0.0821 )-
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false. mol − K
(1) 4.93 atm (2) 2.46 atm
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false. (3) 49.3 atm (4) 9.85 atm
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58. Gases : H2 N2 NH3 CO2 61. Two oxidation states for chlorine are found in
the compound :
Critical 33.2 126 405.5 304.1
: (1) CaOCl2 (2) KCl
temperature K K K K
From the above data what would be the (3) KClO3 (4) Cl2O7
decreasing order of liquefaction of these gases ? 62. The values of x and y in the following redox
reaction is -
(1) NH3, CO2, N2, H2
xCl2 + 6OH– → ClO3– + yCl– + 3H2O are :
(2) CO2, NH3, H2, N2 (1) x = 2, y = 4 (2) x = 5, y = 3
(3) x = 3, y = 5 (4) x = 4, y = 2
(3) NH3, N2, H2, CO2 63. A compound contains atoms of three elements
A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2,
(4) H2, N2, CO2, NH3 B is +5 and C is –2 then the possible formula of
compound is :
59. A balloon is filled with 2L air in Kota where
(1) A2(BC3)3
temperature is 27°C. What will be the volume of the
balloon when it is carried to Shimla where temperature (2) A3(BC4)2
is 0°C? (Assume atmospheric pressure is same) (3) A3(B4C)2
(1) 0 L (4) A2(BC4)3
(2) 2 L 64. If ALLEN KOTA is written by a graphite
pencil, it weighs 3.0 × 10–10 g. How many
(3) 0.55 L
carbon atoms are present in it ? (NA = 6 × 1023)
(4) 1.82 L
(1) 1.5 × 1013
60. Which of the following represents a
(2) 5 × 1012
disproportionation reaction ?
(a) Cl2 + 2 OH– → ClO– +Cl– + H2O (3) 2 × 1033
(b) Cu2O + H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + OH– (4) 1.5 × 1010
dilution
(c) 2 HCuCl2 + −−−−−→ Cu + Cu2+ + 4Cl– + 2H+ 65. The percentage of Se (at. weight = 78.4) in
with H 2 O
peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by
(1) Only a, b weight. The minimum molecular weight of
(2) Only a peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is :
(3) Only c (1) 1.568×104 (2) 1.568×103
(4) a, b, c (3) 15.68 (4) 3.136×104
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66. Combustion reaction of liquid benzene (C6H6) 70. An exothermic reaction is represented by graph :
with oxygen is as follows : (Here k is equilibrium constant)
2C6H6(ℓ) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(ℓ)
How many litres of O2 at STP would require
for combustion of 39 gram liquid benzene : (1) (2)
(1) 74 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L (3) (4)
(4) 84 L
67. Mass of one molecule of CO2 is :-
71. For the equilibrium reaction
(1) 44 g 1
A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g) + D(g)
(2) 44 × 1.67 × 10 –28
g 2
if the molar mass of A is 48 and the vapour
(3) 44 amu density at equilibrium mixture is 16, then
(4) 32 g calculate degee of dissociation of A.
68. Two separate identical containers contain Gas A 1 2
(1) (2)
(MM = 40 g mol–1) and gas B (MM = x g mol–1) 2 3
in the mass ratio 5 : 8 under similar conditions of 1 1
(3) (4)
3 4
temperature and pressure. The value of x is :-
72. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is K,
(1) 60 (2) 64
and the reaction quotient is Q. For a particular
(3) 70 (4) 72 K
reaction mixture, the ratio is 0.33. This
69. At constant temperature, the equilibrium Q
constant (KP) for the decomposition reaction. means that :
N2O4 2NO2 is expressed by (1) The reaction mixture will equilibrate to
KP = 4x P/(1 – x2) where P is pressure, x is
2
form more reactant species
degree of decomposition. Which of the
following statement is true ? (2) The reaction mixture will equilibrate to
form more product species
(1) KP increases with increase of P
(3) The equilibrium ratio of reactant to
(2) KP increases with increase of x product concentrations will be 3
(3) KP increases with decrease of x (4) The equilibrium ratio of reactant to
(4) KP remains constant with change in P or x product concentrations will be 0.33
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73. 16 g of CH4(g) and 64 g of O2(g) present in 5 Litre 79. Assertion :- Solubility of sparingly soluble salt
vessel then active mass of CH4(g) will be :- increases with increase in temperature.
(1) 0.3 M (2) 0.2 M Reason :- Enthalpy of solution is negative for
all salts.
(3) 0.4 M (4) 0.5 M
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
74. Which of the following mixture (aqueous) will Reason is a correct explanation of the
act as a buffer solution? Assertion.
(1) 0.1 mole CH3COOH + 0.1 mole HCOOH (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(2) 0.1 mole HCOOH + 0.2 mole HCOONa Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(3) 0.1 mole NaOH + 0.1 mole NaCl Assertion.

(4) 0.1 mole NH4OH + 0.2 mole C6H5–NH2 (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
75. pH of Na2S solution is :- (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

(1) >7 80. Which of the following reaction is associated

with the most negative change in entropy ?
(2) <7
(1) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
(3) 7
(2) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g)
(4) None
(3) C (s, graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
76. If degree of hydrolysis of 0.1 M NH4CN is
found to be 50%. Then degree of hydrolysis of (4) 3C2H2(g) → C6H6( ℓ)
its 0.2 M solution will be 81. At 25°C, a 0.01 mole sample of gas is
(1) 25% (2) 50% compressed from 4.0 L to 1.0 L at constant
temperature. What is the work done for this
(3) 20% (4) 10% process if the external pressure is 4.0 atm ?
77. Multiplication of pH & pOH at 25°C for neutral
(1) 1.6 × 103 J (2) 8.0 × 102 J
solution :-
(3) 4.0 × 102 J (4) 1.2 × 103 J
(1) 49 (2) 7 (3) 14 (4) 1
78. Consider the following salts. Which one(s) 82. For a reaction, Ag2O(s) → 2Ag(s) + 1 O2(g),
2
when dissolved in water will produce an acidic the value of ΔH = 132.6 kJ, ΔS = 66 JK–1. The
solution:- free energy change for the reaction will be zero
(A) NH4Cl (B) NaCl (C) NaCN (D) KNO3 at which temperature :-
(1) B and C (2) Only A (1) 200 K (2) 2009 K
(3) only C (4) B and D (3) 2023 K (4) 2029 K
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83. ΔrHº of which of the following equations represents 87. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :-
standard enthalpy of formation of C2H6 ? (1) Value of Azimuthal quantum number is
(1) 2C (diamond) + 3H2(g) → C2H6(g) same for 3d, 4d & 5d subshells.
(2) 2C (graphite) + 6H(g) → C2H6(g)
(2) Electron distribution in dxy orbitals & px
(3) 2C (diamond) + 6H(g) → C2H6(g)
(4) 2C (graphite) + 3H2(g) → C2H6(g) orbitals is in between the axis & along the
84. 200 cm3 of 0.1M H2SO4 is mixed with 150 cm3 axis respectively.
of 0.2M KOH. Find the value of evolved heat.
(3) Ψ520 represents 5dz2 orbital
(1) 1.7 KJ (2) 2.7 KJ
(3) 9.2 KJ (4) 3.2 KJ (4) In an Hydrogen atom, energy of 5d & 4f
85. If heat of combustion of methane is –100 KJ/mol subshell are same.
then calculate the heat evolved when 32 gm methane 88. Match the following gas laws with the equation
will completely burn? representing them.
Column-I Column-II
(1) 100 KJ (2) 50 KJ
Dalton's
(3) 200 KJ (4) 150 KJ (i) (a) P1 V1 = P2 V2
law
SECTION-B Boyle's t
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (ii) (b) Vt = Vo + Vo
law 273.15
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
Charle's PTotal = P1 + P2 + P3 +
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (iii)
law
(c)
.....at constant T, V
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
Gaylussac's
questions will be considered for marking. (iv) (d) P/T = constant
law
86. How many quantum of the radiation having
the frequency 4 × 1013 hertz, are required to (1) (i) → d, (ii) → a, (iii) → b, (iv) → c
melt 4 gm ice ? If the required energy to melt
the ice is 333 J/gm :- (2) (i) → c, (ii) → d, (iii) → b, (iv) → a
(1) 4.38 × 1022
(2) 5.03 × 1022 (3) (i) → c, (ii) → a, (iii) → b, (iv) → d
(3) 5.03 × 1021
(4) 8.05 × 1023 (4) (i) → a, (ii) → b, (iii) → d, (iv) → c
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89. A x : 1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is 93. Match List-I with List-II :-
contained in a vessel at 20 bar pressure. Due to List-I List-II
a hole in the vessel, the gas mixture leaks out.
12.044 × 1023
If the composition of the mixture effusing out (A) (P) 5.6 kg mass
molecules of O2
initially is 8 : 1, then the value of x will be
5.6 L H2O(ℓ) 1 mole
(1) 1 (B) (Q)
at STP atoms
(2) 4
28 g N–3 20 mole
(3) 8 (C) (R)
ions electrons
(4) 9 11.2 L N2
(D) (S) 4 gram-atoms
90. A solution of 10 ml, M/5 Mohr's salt was at STP
titrated with KMnO4 solution in acidic
medium. The amount of KMnO4 used will be : (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) 5 ml of 0.1M (1) Q P R S
(2) 10 ml of 0.1 M (2) S P R Q
(3) 10 ml of 0.5 M (3) S P Q R
(4) 20 ml of 0.02 M (4) P Q R S
91. If one mole N2H4 loss 8 mol of electrons to 94. Which of the following factors will be
oxidised into oxide only then which of the favourable for higher yields of NO in the
following oxide can be formed in this reaction ? reaction given below?
(1) NO2 N2(g) +O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
(2) NO (1) Low temperature, high pressure and high
(3) N2O concentration of N2 and O2
(4) N2O3 (2) High temperature and high concentration
92. The vapour density of a metal oxide M2Ox is of N2 and O2. The reaction remains
51. If the equivalent mass of the metal M is 9, unaffected by pressure.
then the value of x is :-
(3) High temperature, low pressure and
(1) 1 low concentration of N2 and O2
(2) 5
(4) Low temperature, high concentrations of
(3) 3 N2 and O2 and reaction remains unaffected
(4) 7 by pressure.
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95. At constant temperature and 1 atm pressure, 98. Assertion :– At constant temperature 0°C and
PCl5 dissociate 2% then at what pressure PCl5 1atm, for the change H2O(s) → H2O( ℓ ) ΔH and
dissociate 4% :- ΔE both are zero.
(Use PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)) Reason :– During isothermal process H and E
1 both always remains constant.
(1) atm
8 (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
1 is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) atm
16
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
1
(3) atm is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
2
1 (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) atm
4 (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
+
96. On adding 0.1 M solution each of Ag ,
99. 1 mol of graphite is burnt in bomb calorimeter
Ba +2 , Ca +2 ions in a Na 2 SO 4 solution,
in excess of oxygen into CO2(g) at 298 K and
species last precipited is :
1 atm pressure. On combustion temperature
(K sp BaSO 4 = 10 – 11 , K sp CaSO 4 = 10 – 6 ,
K sp Ag 2 SO 4 = 10 – 5 ) rises by 1K. If the heat capacity of the bomb
calorimeter is 20.7 kJ/K, then
(1) Ag2SO4
–1
(2) BaSO4 (1) ΔH = – 248 kJ mol

(3) CaSO4 (2) ΔU = 0

(4) All of these (3) ΔH = 0
97. In the following solutions, the concentration of –1
(4) ΔU = – 20.7 kJ mol
different acids are given, which mixture of 100. The following thermochemical reactions are given,
acid has highest pH. (Assume volume of given
1
acids are same) M+ O → MO + 351.4 kJ
2 2
1
M M M X+ O → XO + 90.8 kJ
(1) H 2 SO 4 , HN O 3 , HClO 4 2 2
10 20 10
then the heat of reaction for the following process
M M M M + XO → MO + X is given by
(2) H 2 SO 4 , HN O 3 , HClO 4
20 10 20
(1) 422.2 kJ
M M M
(3) H 2 SO 4 , HN O 3 , HClO 4 (2) 268.7 kJ
20 10 40
(3) –442.2 kJ
M M M
(4) H 2 SO 4 , HN O 3 , HClO 4
20 5 5 (4) –260.6 kJ
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SUBJECT : BOTANY

Topic : SYLLABUS-A
SECTION-A 104. Which of the following statements about
Attempt All 35 questions classification are true ?
(i) Members of a family have more common
101. (A) Properties of tissues are present in characters as compare to members of a genus.
constituent cell & do not arise as a result of (ii) Family contain less number of members as
compare to order.
interactions among constituent cells. (iii) Species of a genus have more common
(B) Properties of cellular organelles are not characterstics as compare to species of another
present in the molecular constituents of the genus.
organelles but arise as a result of interaction (iv) Division is a taxon which include relative
kingdoms.
among the molecular components comprising
the organelle. (1) i, ii and iii only (2) ii, iii and iv only
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) ii & iii only
(1) A – Correct ; B – Correct 105. Which of the following statement is incorrect
for taxonomic key ?
(2) A – Incorrect ; B – Correct (1) Key are generally analytical in nature
(2) Each statement in key is called couplet
(3) A – Correct ; B – Incorrect (3) Taxonomic keys are used for identification
of plants and animals
(4) A – Incorrect ; B – Incorrect
(4) Separate taxonomic key are required for
102. The only organism who is aware of himself is:- each taxonomic category
(1) Albugo 106. Identify the correct option for A, B and C
regarding taxonomic categories of wheat :
(2) Planaria Triticum→A→Poales→B→Angiosperm→C
(3) Hydra (1) A - Aestivum, B - Dicotyledonae, C - Plantae
(4) Human (2) A - Poaceae, B - Monocotyledonae, C - Plantae
103. Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual (3) A - Monocotyledonae, B - Aestivum,
C - Dicotyledonae
organisms with fundamental similarities called -
(4) A - Polymoniales, B - Monocotyledonae,
(1) Species C - Plantae
(2) Genus 107. Sexual reproduction by non flagellated but
similar in size gametes is in -
(3) Class (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox
(4) Order (3) Spirogyra (4) Fucus
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108. Agar-agar used to grow microbes and in preparations 112. Branched & unbranched stem are found
of ice creams and jellies is obtained from :- respectively in :
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria (1) Cedrus & Pinus (2) Pinus & Cedrus
(2) Spirulina and Oscillatoria (3) Cycas & Pinus (4) Cedrus & Cycas
(3) Fucus and Polysiphonia 113. Small specialised roots called coralloid roots are
(4) Chlorella and Spirulina associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria in :-
109. Read the given statements and select the correct (1) Pinus
option.
(2) Cycas
Statement-1 : Pteridophytes show limited
geographical distribution. (3) Cedrus
Statement-2 : Pteridophytes are mostly (4) Gnetum
homosporous. 114. Which of the following is a characteristic
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct feature of gymnosperms ?
(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect (1) The development of pollen grains take
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct place within the microsporangia.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect (2) Some gymnosperms are homosporous.
110. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to (3) The ovules are borne on megasporophylls which
inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free living, may be clustered to form the male cones.
mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes, called :- (4) All of the above.
(1) Protonema (2) Prothallus
115.
(3) Endosperm (4) Embryosac
111.

Identify the given figures :

(1) A - Cycas B - Ginkgo
Identify the plant correctly :- (2) A - Cycas B - Pinus
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus (3) A - Ginkgo B - Cycas
(3) Salvinia (4) Ephedra (4) A - Ginkgo B - Pinus
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116. Select the mismatched example with given 120. Match the column and select the correct option :
class of pteridophyte Cell
Algae Food
Class Example wall
(1) Psilopsida Psilotum Green Floridean
(i) (A) (I) Algin
algae starch
(2) Pteropsida Adiantum
Brown
(3) Sphenospsida Equisetum (ii) (B) Starch (II) Pectose
algae
(4) Lycopsida Salvinia Red Only
(iii) (C) Mannitol (III)
algae cellulose
117. Select the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes
(1) Selaginella, Salvinia (1) (i)-(B)-(II) (2) (ii)-(A)-(I)
(2) Selaginella, Lycopodium (3) (i)-(C)-(III) (4) (iii)-(C)-(II)
(3) Equisetum, Adiantum 121. Bacteria in two kingdom system of classification
is classified in :-
(4) Dryopteris, Lycopodium.
(1) Plantae
118. The first stage in moss life cycle is ....A.... and
second stage is ....B.... What is A & B respectively ? (2) Animalia
(3) Monera
(1) Leafy stage and protonema
(4) Eubacteria
(2) Protonema and leafy stage
122. Match the column-I and column-II with respect
(3) Protonema and thalloid to five kingdom classification and select the
(4) Thalloid and leafy stage correct option :-
Column-I Column-II
119. Assertion : Bryophytes are also called
a Monera i False chromosome
amphibians of plant kingdom.
Reason : Bryophytes live in soil but are b Protista ii Multicellular autotrophs
dependent on water for sexual reproduction. c Fungi iii Unicellular eukaryotes
d Plantae iv Multicellular decomposer
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Options :-
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
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123. Identify the A, B, C, D and E in the following 126. Which of the following type of organism is not
figures. included into protista kingdom ?
(1) Decomposer (2) Consumer
(3) Chemosynthetic (4) Photosynthetic
127. Which of the following is not matched correctly ?
(1) Diatoms : Silica in cell wall
(2) Euglenoids : Pellicle
(1) A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane, (3) Dinoflagellates : Red tide
C-Heterocyst, D-DNA,
(4) Slime mould : Autotrophs
E-Mucilagenous sheath
128. Which group show a great diversity in morphology
(2) A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane, C-DNA,
and habitat ?
D-Heterocyst, E-Mucilagenous sheath
(1) Bryophytes (2) Fungi
(3) A-Mucilagenous sheath,
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Algae
B-Cell membrane, C-DNA,
D-Heterocyst, E-Cell wall 129. Which of the following describes the coenocytic
condition in fungi ?
(4) A-Cell membrane, B-Cell wall, C-DNA,
(1) Uninucleate hypha without septum
D-Heterocyst, E-Mucilagenous sheath
(2) Multinucleate hypha without septum
124. Archaebacteria :-
(3) Multicellular hypha
(1) Have similar cell wall structure as other bacteria
(4) Multiciliate hypha
(2) Cannot survive in harsh habitats
130. Read the following statement (A-D)
(3) Often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin
(4) Include halophiles, thermoacidophiles and (B) Fungi are heterotrophic
methanogens
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in
125. A complex formed by an m-RNA and many association with algae as lichens and with roots
ribosomes is called :-
of higher plants as mycorrhiza
(1) Mesosome (D) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy
(2) Volutin granules How many of the above statement are correct ?
(3) Chromatophores (1) Two (2) Three
(4) Polysome (3) Four (4) One
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131. Read the following statements : 134. How many of the following occur due to
(A) Prions cause Bovine Spongiform organisms with distinct nucleus ?
Encephalopathy Cholera, Tetanus, AIDS, Red tide, Smut disease,
(B) Lichens do not grow in fresh air Mumps, Vein clearing, Rust disease in wheat
(C) Viroids have ss RNA which is of high
(1) Three (2) Four
molecular weight
(D) In mycorrhiza, fungi increase the soil (3) Two (4) Six
fertility by nitrogen fixation 135. Some characters/structures are given below.
Identify the option which is correct for above-
mentioned statements : How many of them are found in both
(1) A and B are correct pteridophyta and gymnosperms ?
(2) C and D are correct (A) Archegonium (B) Protonema
(3) A, B and D are correct (C) Rhizoids (D) Ovule
(4) Only A is correct
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Seed
132. Viruses did not find a place in five kingdom
classification because :- Options :-
(1) They are obligate parasites. (1) Two
(2) Viruses are unicellular organisms. (2) Three
(3) They can pass through bacteria proof filters.
(4) They are not truly living because they do (3) Four
not have a cell structure. (4) Five
133. Match the column A with column B and find SECTION-B
out the correct option ? This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
Column-A Column-B can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(a) Pollution indicator p.
Fungal these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
component more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(b) Mycobiont q. Viroid questions will be considered for marking.
(c) Potato spindle tuber disease r. Lichen 136. Select the correct pattern of arrangement of
(d) Nucleo protein structure s. Virus reproductive structure of Gymnosperms:-
(1) a - r, b - p, c - s, d - q (1) Spore → Sporophylls → Sporangia → Strobili
(2) a - r, b - s, c - p, d - q (2) Spores → Sporangia → Sporophylls → Strobili
(3) a - s, b - r, c - p, d - q (3) Sporangia → Sporophylls → Spores → Strobili
(4) a - r, b - p, c - q, d - s (4) Spores → Sporangia → Strobili → Sporophylls
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137. Which of the following is correctly matched ? 140. All seed bearing plants like gymnosperms &
Sexual angiosperms follow which type of alternation
Plant Cell wall Stored food
reproduction of generation :
Cellulose (1) Haplontic (2) Diplontic
(1) Fucus + Laminarin Isogamy
Caragenin (3) Diplo-haplontic (4) Haplodiplontic
Cellulose 141. Double fertilization is characteristics of only :-
+ Cyanophycean
(2) Porphyra Anisogamy (1) Bryophytes
Agar- starch
Agar
(2) Pteridophytes
Peptido- Cyanophycean
(3) Ulothrix Oogamy (3) Gymnosperms
glycan starch
Cellulose (4) Angiosperms
(4) Spirogyra + Starch Isogamy
Pectose 142. Embryo sac consists of :

138. Sexual reproduction is oogamous type and (1) one egg cell only
accompanied by complex post fertilization (2) two synergids only
development in :- (3) Three antipodal and two polar nuclei only
(1) Chlorophyceae (4) egg cell, synergids, antipodals and polar nuclei
143. Select correctly matched pair-
(2) Phaeophyceae (a) Phycomycetes - Rhizopus, Albugo
(3) Cyanophyceae (b) Ascomycetes - Neurospora, Aspergillus
(c) Basidiomycetes - Trichoderma, Puccinia
(4) Rhodophyceae (d) Deuteromycetes - Ustilago, Puccinia
139. Choose the correct statement from following (1) Only (a) and (b)
(1) The pteridophytes are found in cool, damp (2) Only (b), (c) and (d)
and shady places (3) Only (a) and (c)
(2) In Lycopsida, spore germinate to give (4) Only (b) and (c)
rise to inconspicuous, free living and
autotrophic sporophyte 144. Which of the following smallest organism
completely lack cell wall, pathogenic in animals
(3) In ferns, male and female sex organs are called
and plants and can survive with oxygen ?
Archegonia and Antheridia respectively
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria
(4) In pteridophytes gametophytes bear vascular
tissue (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma
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145. In plant (x) small specialised root other than tap 147. Arrange the following taxon in ascending order :
roots are associated with N2 fixing cynobacteria. (a) Primata (b) Hominidae
The stem are unbranced and pinnate compound (c) Chordata (d) Mammalia
leaves persist for a few year. Identify the plant (1) a → b → c → d
(x) in the given diagrams :-
(2) b → a → d → c
(3) d → b → c → a
(4) c → d → a → b
(1) (2)
148. Each category, referred to as a unit of
classification, in fact, represent a rank and is
commonly termed as-
(1) Taxon

(3) (4) (2) Manual

(3) Monograph

146. Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks (4) Hierarchy
with appropriate words :- 149. Who is known as 'The Darwin of the 20th century'?
In pteridophytes the main plant body is ___(A)____
(1) Aristotle
which bears sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like
appendages called ___(B)___. The sporangia (2) Carolus Linnaeus
produce spores by ___(C)___ and after germination (3) R.H. Whittaker
of spores, they give rise to photosynthetic
(4) Ernst Mayer
gametophytes called ___(D)___.
Choose the correct option :- 150. Find the incorrect statement from the followings -
(1) Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more
A B C D scientific basis for classification.
(1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema (2) Fungi have chitin in their wall while green
plants have cellulose.
(2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte
(3) Dinoflagellates float passively in water while
(3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus diatoms have two flagella for the same.
(4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema (4) Majority of red algae occur in marine water.
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SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : SYLLABUS-A
SECTION-A 156. In following diagram identify the structure A,
Attempt All 35 questions B, C and D :-

151. Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of :

(1) Sound producing vocal sacs
(2) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs
(3) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs
(4) Both 1 and 2
152. Find out incorrect statement about frog :-
(1) Frog never drink water
(2) They are carnivore
(3) Food is captured by the bilobed tongue
(4) Male frog have seperate anus A B C D
153. Which of the statement is wrong about frog ? Testis sac Seminal Vasa Prostate
(1)
(1) The skin is smooth and slippery due to presence with testis vasicle deferentia gland
of mucus (2) Prostate Vasa Seminal Testis sac
gland deferentia vasicle with testis
(2) The colour of dorsal side of body is pale
yellow and ventral side is olive green (3) Seminal Prostate Vasa Testis sac
vesicle gland deferentia with testis
(3) The colour Dorsal side of body is olive Vasa Testis sac Prostate Seminal
green and ventral side is pale yellow (4)
deferentia with testis gland vesicle
(4) The most common species of frog in India 157. Match the column I and II correctly w.r.t. cockroach.
is Rana tigrina Column-I Column-II
154. Role of typhlosole in the intestine of earthworm is :-
(A) Ovary (i) 10th segment
(1) To increase absorptive surface
(B) Gizzard (ii) Excretary organ
(2) To control flow of blood
Malpighian
(3) To produce digestive enzymes (C)
tubules
(iii) Grinding of food
(4) To kill bacteria
(D) Anal cerci (iv) 2-6th abdominal segment
155. In earthworm ______ pair of accessory glands
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
are present in the _____ and _____ segments.
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(1) Two, 19,21 (2) Two, 17,19 (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) Two, 15,17 (4) One, 18,19 (4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
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158. Respiratory organs in insects are. 162. Respiratory system of cockroach consists of
(1) Kidney network of ______(A)______ that open through
_____(B)____ spiracles.
(2) Malpighian tubules Identify A and B respectively from given options :
(3) Malpighian corpuscle (1) A - Book lungs, B - 10 pairs
(4) Trachea (2) A - Trachea , B - 5 pairs
(3) A - Trachea , B - 10 pairs
159. Each ovary of female cockroach consists of : (4) A - Pulmonary sac , B - 10 pairs
(1) 16 ovarioles (2) 8 ovariols 163. Tissue is defined as :-
(3) 10 ovarioles (4) 4 ovarioles (1) Different type of cells which are different
160. Colour of cockroach in tropical region is. in structure and function
(1) Blackish brown (2) Similar cells at different regions performing
many functions
(2) Bright yellow, red and green (3) A group of similar cells along with intercellular
(3) Redish-blackish-brown substances perform a specific function
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) Similar type of cells held together by
connective tissue
161. Given below are two statement : One is
164. Where is simple squamous epithelium found ?
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R) : (1) Skin (2) Blood vessels
Assertion (A) : Haemolympyh of cockroach (3) Ureters (4) Duct of glands
does not participate in respiration.. 165. Which of the following tissues is used to form
Reason (R) : Haemolymph does not have the structure given in the diagram ?
respiratory pigment.
In the light of the above statements choose the
most appropriate answer from the option given
below :
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (1) Nervous
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (2) Muscular
the correct explanation of (A) (3) Squamous
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) Glandular epithelium
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166. All connective tissues, except________secrete 169. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below
fibres of structural proteins called collagen or represent four different type of animal tissues.
elastin. Identify the correct option along with its location.
(1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Dense connective tissue
(3) Blood
(4) Adipose tissue
167. The hard and non-pliable ground substances
which gives strength to the bone is composed of :-
(1) Calcium salt

(2) Calcium salt and collagen fibres Tissue Location

(1) C PCT
(3) Calcium and magnesium
(2) D Blood vessels
(4) Elastin fibre (3) B Bronchioles
(4) A Air sacs of lungs
168. Find the correct match :-
List-I List-II 170. Which of the following statements are true
(i) Squamous epithelium A Bone about cell junctions ?
(a) Cell junctions are specialised junctions
(ii) Dense regular C-T B Skin
provide both structural and functional links
(iii) Glandular epithelium C Air sacs of lungs between its individual cells
(iv) Speciliased C.T. D Tendon (b) Cell junctions are found in the epithelium
(v) Dense irregular C.T. E Goblet cell and other tissue
(c) Tight junctions help to stop leakage of
(1) (i)-B, (ii)-E, (iii)-C, (iv)-D, (v)-A substances across a tissues
(2) (i)-C, (ii)-E, (iii)-A, (iv)-B, (v)-D (d) Adhering junctions perform comenting to
keep neighbour cells together
(3) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-E, (iv)-A, (v)-B (1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(4) (i)-E, (ii)-A, (iii)-B, (iv)-D, (v)-C (3) b and c (4) a, b c and d
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171. The labelling A, B, C, D of the following diagram 174. Which of the following well marked property
respectively :- present in sea walnuts?
(1) Bioluminescence
(2) Internal fertilization
(3) Numerous tentacles
(4) Direct development
175. Which of the following non-chordates is
A B C D
exclusively marine ?
Collagen (1) Poriferans (2) Coelenterates
(1) Fibroblast Mast cell Macrophage
fibre (3) Ctenophores (4) Platyhelminths
Collagen 176. Which of the following structure of cnidarians
(2) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
fibres help in capture of prey ?
Fat storage (1) Cnidocytes (2) Nematocytes
(3) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast
area
(3) Cnidoblast (4) All of the above
Collagen
(4) Macrophage Elastin fibre Mast cell 177. Which one of these animals is not a homoeotherm?
fibre

172. Read the following statements :- (1) Macropus (2) Rana

(1) Limb bones serve weight bearing functions (3) Camelus (4) Psittacula
(2) Cartilage is present between adjacent bones 178. Which one is an example of tailed amphibians?
of the vertebral column (1) Bufo
(3) The collagen fibre are present in rows
(2) Rana
between many anti-parallel bundle of fibres
(4) Cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in (3) Hyla
the wall of blood vesseles (4) Salamandra
How many statements are correct 179. In which of the following animal digestive
(1) One (2) Two system has two additional chambers, the crop
and gizzard ?
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) Alligater
173. Which one is also called hookworm ?
(2) Naja naja
(1) Ascaris (2) Nereis (3) Equus
(3) Fasciola (4) Ancylostoma (4) Columba
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180. Here two basic body forms of Cnidarians are given 183. In earthworm two pair testes are located in
in the figures below. Identify the correct option ? segment?
(1) 12th and 14th
(2) 14th and 16th
(3) 10th and 11th
(1) A & B are free swimming forms. (4) 21th and 22th
(2) A & B are sessile form 184. The sinus venosus of frog is located on :-
(3) A produce B asexually and B form the A
(1) Dorsal surface of heart of frog
sexually.
(4) B produce A asexually and A produces the (2) Ventral surface of heart of frog
B sexually.
(3) Dorsal surface of heart of rabbit
181. In Porifera offspring is produced _______ and
development is _______ ? (4) Ventral surface of heart of rabbit
(1) Sexually & direct.
185. Assertion :- Annelids and chordates have a
(2) Asexually & indirect.
(3) Sexually and Asexually both & direct. closed circulatory system.
(4) Sexually and Asexually both & indirect. Reason :- In annelids and chordates the blood
182. Match the columns I and II and choose the pumped by the heart is always circulated
correct combination from the options given : through a closed network of blood vessels.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
(1) Equus (i) Tree frog is a correct explanation of the Assertion
Limbless (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(2) Hyla (ii)
Amphibia is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
Poisonous (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(3) Icthyophis (iii)
nature
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False
Mammary glands
(4) Bangarus (iv) SECTION-B
present
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(1) (1)-(ii), (2)-(i), (3)-(iv), (4)-(iii) can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(2) (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii) these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(3) (1)-(iii), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i) more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(4) (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iii) questions will be considered for marking.
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 ALLEN
186. Statement-1 : Coelentrates like corals having 189. In chordates the notochord is :
hard exoskeleton. (1) Mesodermal and dorsal to nerve cord
Statement-2 : Exoskeleton of coral is formed by
calcium carbonate like salts. (2) Endodermal and dorsal to nerve cord
(1) Statement-1 & Statement-2 are correct and (3) Mesodermal and ventral to nerve cord
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation (4) Endodermal and ventral to nerve cord
of statement-1.
190. In frog, respiration takes place by:
(2) Statement-1 is correct, where Statement-2
is incorrect. (1) Only By gills
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, where Statement-2 (2) Only By lungs
is correct.
(3) Only skin
(4) Statement-1 & Statement-2 are correct and
Statement-2 is correct explanation of (4) By Buccalcavity, lungs and skin all
statement-1.
191. Choose the correct option with respect to
187. Read the following four statements A-D: characteristics of respective group.
(A) The members of subphylum vertebrata
possess notochord during the embryonic period Cyclostomes Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes
(B) In adult vertebrates notochord is replaced Sucking Terminal
(1) Ventral mouth
by a cartilagenous or bony vertebral column mouth mouth

(C) All chordates are vertebrates but all Cycloid

(2) Scale absent Placoid scale
scale
vertebrates are not chordates
Marine and
(D) All vertebrates are chordates but all (3) Marine Marine
Freshwater
chordates are not vertebrates
5-7 pairs of 4 pairs of
How many of the above statements are 6-15 pairs
(4) gills without gills With
incorrect? of gills
operculum operculum
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Three (4) All of the above Options :
188. Notochord occurs all through the length of (1) (1) and (2) are correct
body and throughout life in : (2) (1) and (4) are correct
(1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata (3) All are correct
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata (4) Only (3) is correct
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 ALLEN
192. Select the incorrect statement about the class 196. Find out the correct statement with respect to cartilage :-
Osteichthyes :- (1) Matrix is not secreted by chondrocytes
(1) Air bladder is present which helps in buoyancy. (2) Having solid and pliable intracellular
material which can not resist compression
(2) They are mostly viviparous and development
is direct. (3) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities
(3) They have four pairs of gills which are (4) At very few locations in vertebrates cartilage
covered by an operculum. replacement occur by bone
(4) Heart is two - chambered 197. How many among the following are secretions
of exocrine gland ?
193. Match the animals given under column-I with Saliva, Insulin, oxytocin, bile, ear wax, mucus,
column-II. Choose correct answer which gives pancreatic juice, digestive enzymes, milk, oil,
all the correct combinations ? thyroxine.
Column-I Column-II (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 5
(A) Ornithorhynchus (i) Blue whale 198. Vision in cockroach is.
National animal of (1) Mosaic (2) Monocular
(B) Pteropus (ii)
India (3) Binocular (4) Panoramic
(C) Balenoptera (iii) Oviparous 199. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
(D) Panthera tigris (iv) Flying fox alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth:
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv (1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard →
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i (3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard →
194. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
humans are known to occur in :- (4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop
(1) Bronchioles and fallopian tubules → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
(2) Pancreatic duct and lining of blood vessel 200. Which one is incorrect about cockroach ?
(3) Fallopian tubues and ureters
(4) Stomach lining (1) Heart is dorsal, tubular, pulsating &
13 chambered
195. _____________is not the functions of fibres of (2) 10 pair of spiracles helps in respiration
connective tissue.
(3) Phellic gland is female reproductive part
(1) Strength (2) Flexibility
(4) Seminal vesicles helps in storage of sperms
(3) Elasticity (4) Covering in male
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 NURTURE MAJOR TEST SCHEDULE AND SYLLABUS
(SESSION 2022-23)
S.NO. TEST DATE DAY SYLLABUS BATCH NAME

1 14.03.2023 TUESDAY SYLLABUS A MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY

2 22.03.2023 WEDNESDAY SYLLABUS B MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY

3 30.03.2023 THURSDAY SYLLABUS C MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY

4 02.04.2023 SUNDAY FULL SYLLABUS MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY

SYLLABUS
Syllabus Physics Chemistry Biology

Mole Concept, Atomic

Basic Mathematics Used in
Structure, Chemical & The Living World, Biological Classification,
Physics, Vectors, Units,
Ionic Equilibrium, Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom, Structural
SYLLABUS A Dimensions and
Thermodynamic & Organisation in Animals (Animal tissues,
Measurements, Kinematics,
Thermochemistry, Redox Earthworm,Cockroach and Frog.)
Laws of Motion and Friction
& B.O.G

Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of

Work, Energy and Power, Periodic Table,
Flowering Plants, Cell : The Unit of Life,
Circular Motion, Collisions Chemical Bonding,
Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division,
and Centre of Mass, p-Block,
SYLLABUS B Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and
Rotational Motion, s-Block,
Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and
Gravitation, Properties of Hydrogen and
Circulation, Excretory Products and their
Matter and Fluid Mechanics Its Compound
Elimination

THERMAL PHYSICS
(Thermal Expansion,
Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition,
Calorimetry, Heat Transfer,
IUPAC and Nomenclature, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration
KTG & Thermocynamics),
Isomerism, GOC, in Plants, Plant Growth and Development,
SYLLABUS C OSCILLATIONS
Hydrocarbon, Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control
(SHM, Damped and Forced
Enviromental Chemistry and Coordination , Sensory Organ, Chemical
Oscillations & Resonance),
Coordination and Integration
Wave Motion and Doppler's
Effect
 Read carefully the following instructions :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

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