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Nurture Course Phase MNK MNL MNM MNX Mnymajor 65540 Test PDF j1fzzkzk4p
Nurture Course Phase MNK MNL MNM MNX Mnymajor 65540 Test PDF j1fzzkzk4p
Important Instructions :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking
responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
: in words
(1) 80
(2) 26
5 − 3 −5 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 5 3 5 (3) 20
3. The value of
1 1 1 (4) 40
1+ + + +. . . . . upto ∞ is
4 16 64 6. If a vector 2^i + 3^j + 8k^ is perpendicular to the
5 4 6 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) vector 4^j − 4^i + αk^ . Then the value of α is :
4 3 5 6
dy d 2y (1) –1
4. At points P, Q and R, values of and
dx dx 2 1
are given by following expressions :- (2)
2
dy d 2y
(I) At P, = 0 and 2 = Negative 1
dx dx (3) −
dy d 2y 2
(II) At Q, = 0 and 2 = Positive
dx dx (4) 1
dy d 2y
(III) At R, = 0 and 2 = Zero 7. In figure, D⃗ equals
dx dx
metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is :- quatities a, b, c and d. The percentage error in
a, b, c and d are 2%, 3%, 4% and 5%
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36
respectively. The error in y will be
(3) 3.6 (4) 36
(1) 6% (2) 11% (3) 12% (4) 22%
10. If frequency F, velocity V and density D are
14. The potential energy of a particle is given by the
considered fundamental units, the dimensional x
formula for momentum will be : expression U(x) = – αx + β sin . A dimensionless
γ
(1) DVF2 (2) DV2F–1 combination of the constants α, β and γ is :-
(3) D2V2F2 (4) DV4 F–3 α α2 γ αγ
(1) βγ
(2) (3) αβ
(4) β
βγ
11. A student writes following four different expressions
for the displacement 'y' in a periodic motion 15. Assertion:- A man can cross river of width d in
2πt minimum time. On increasing the river
A. y = a sin
T velocity, minimum time to cross the river by
B. y = a sin Vt man will remain unchanged.
a t
C. y = sin Reason :- As velocity of a river is
T a
a 2πt 2πt perpendicular to its width so time to cross the
D. y = [sin + cos ]
√2
–
T T river is independent of velocity of river.
Where 'a' is maximum displacement, V is the speed (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
and T is the time period; then dimensionally : is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) A and B are wrong (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(2) B and C are wrong is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) C and D are wrong (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) D and A are wrong (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY 1001CMD300522040
English / 14032023 Space for Rough Work Page 3/32
ALLEN
16. A train goes through a 1100 m long tunnel at a 20. A stationary man observes that the rain is
constant speed of 72 km/h. The last compartment falling vertically downward. When he starts
comes out one minute after the entry of engine in the running with a velocity of 12 km/h, he observes
tunnel. Find the length of train (including engine). that the rain is falling at an angle 60° with the
(1) 80 m (2) 100 m vertical. The actual velocity of rain is:-
– –
(3) 1200 m (4) 1000 m (1) 12√3 km/h (2) 6√3 km/h
– –
17. The acceleration of particle is given by a = 4t m/s2. (3) 4√3 km/h (4) 2√3 km/h
Then find the velocity of the particle at t = 5 second, 21. A person standing on the floor of an elevator
if it is given that the particle starts from rest :- drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of the
(1) 20 m/s (2) 30 m/s (3) 40 m/s (4) 50 m/s elevator in a time t1 if the elevator is stationary
18. A particle has a rectilinear motion and the and in time t2 if it is moving with constant
figure gives its displacement as a function of velocity. Then-
time. Which of the following statements is false (1) t1 = t2
with respect to the motion? (2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 > t2
(4) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2
22. Which of the following options is correct for
(1) Between O and A the velocity is positive the object having a straight line motion
and acceleration is negative represented by the following graph
1 1 –
(1) – (2) (3) √ 3 (4) 2
√ 3 2
32. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m by
applying a force P at the end of the rope the
force which the rope exerts on the block is :- (1) 100 N (2) 150 N (3) 120 N (4) 80 N
35. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are
tied together by a massless spring.A force of 200 N
P is applied on a 20 kg mass as shown in figure. At
(1)
M −m the instant shown, the acceleration of 10kg mass is
PM 12 m/s2,the acceleration of 20 kg mass is :-
(2)
M −m
Pm
(3) M +m
(1) 0 (2) 10 m/s2
PM
(4) (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 12 m/s2
M +m
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY 1001CMD300522040
Page 6/32 Space for Rough Work English / 14032023
ALLEN
SECTION-B 38. Match the type of unit (Column A) with its
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate corresponding example (Column B) :-
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of Column-A Column-B
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (a) Base unit (i) N
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (b) Derived SI unit (ii) hp
(c) Improper unit (iii) rad
36. The angle between A⃗ and B ⃗ is θ. R⃗ = A⃗ + B ⃗
(d) Practical unit (iv) kg-wt
θ
makes an angle with A⃗. Which of the (e) Supplementary unit (v) kg
2
following is true? (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(1) A = 2B
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)
(2) 2A = B
39. A particle has initial velocity ( 2^i + 4^j )m/s
−− 1 − 18
(4) √10 tan
;
−
( )
10√−−
10
(4) 0.1 mole NH4OH + 0.2 mole C6H5–NH2 (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
75. pH of Na2S solution is :- (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Topic : SYLLABUS-A
SECTION-A 104. Which of the following statements about
Attempt All 35 questions classification are true ?
(i) Members of a family have more common
101. (A) Properties of tissues are present in characters as compare to members of a genus.
constituent cell & do not arise as a result of (ii) Family contain less number of members as
compare to order.
interactions among constituent cells. (iii) Species of a genus have more common
(B) Properties of cellular organelles are not characterstics as compare to species of another
present in the molecular constituents of the genus.
organelles but arise as a result of interaction (iv) Division is a taxon which include relative
kingdoms.
among the molecular components comprising
the organelle. (1) i, ii and iii only (2) ii, iii and iv only
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) ii & iii only
(1) A – Correct ; B – Correct 105. Which of the following statement is incorrect
for taxonomic key ?
(2) A – Incorrect ; B – Correct (1) Key are generally analytical in nature
(2) Each statement in key is called couplet
(3) A – Correct ; B – Incorrect (3) Taxonomic keys are used for identification
of plants and animals
(4) A – Incorrect ; B – Incorrect
(4) Separate taxonomic key are required for
102. The only organism who is aware of himself is:- each taxonomic category
(1) Albugo 106. Identify the correct option for A, B and C
regarding taxonomic categories of wheat :
(2) Planaria Triticum→A→Poales→B→Angiosperm→C
(3) Hydra (1) A - Aestivum, B - Dicotyledonae, C - Plantae
(4) Human (2) A - Poaceae, B - Monocotyledonae, C - Plantae
103. Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual (3) A - Monocotyledonae, B - Aestivum,
C - Dicotyledonae
organisms with fundamental similarities called -
(4) A - Polymoniales, B - Monocotyledonae,
(1) Species C - Plantae
(2) Genus 107. Sexual reproduction by non flagellated but
similar in size gametes is in -
(3) Class (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox
(4) Order (3) Spirogyra (4) Fucus
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY 1001CMD300522040
English / 14032023 Space for Rough Work Page 17/32
ALLEN
108. Agar-agar used to grow microbes and in preparations 112. Branched & unbranched stem are found
of ice creams and jellies is obtained from :- respectively in :
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria (1) Cedrus & Pinus (2) Pinus & Cedrus
(2) Spirulina and Oscillatoria (3) Cycas & Pinus (4) Cedrus & Cycas
(3) Fucus and Polysiphonia 113. Small specialised roots called coralloid roots are
(4) Chlorella and Spirulina associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria in :-
109. Read the given statements and select the correct (1) Pinus
option.
(2) Cycas
Statement-1 : Pteridophytes show limited
geographical distribution. (3) Cedrus
Statement-2 : Pteridophytes are mostly (4) Gnetum
homosporous. 114. Which of the following is a characteristic
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct feature of gymnosperms ?
(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect (1) The development of pollen grains take
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct place within the microsporangia.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect (2) Some gymnosperms are homosporous.
110. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to (3) The ovules are borne on megasporophylls which
inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free living, may be clustered to form the male cones.
mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes, called :- (4) All of the above.
(1) Protonema (2) Prothallus
115.
(3) Endosperm (4) Embryosac
111.
138. Sexual reproduction is oogamous type and (1) one egg cell only
accompanied by complex post fertilization (2) two synergids only
development in :- (3) Three antipodal and two polar nuclei only
(1) Chlorophyceae (4) egg cell, synergids, antipodals and polar nuclei
143. Select correctly matched pair-
(2) Phaeophyceae (a) Phycomycetes - Rhizopus, Albugo
(3) Cyanophyceae (b) Ascomycetes - Neurospora, Aspergillus
(c) Basidiomycetes - Trichoderma, Puccinia
(4) Rhodophyceae (d) Deuteromycetes - Ustilago, Puccinia
139. Choose the correct statement from following (1) Only (a) and (b)
(1) The pteridophytes are found in cool, damp (2) Only (b), (c) and (d)
and shady places (3) Only (a) and (c)
(2) In Lycopsida, spore germinate to give (4) Only (b) and (c)
rise to inconspicuous, free living and
autotrophic sporophyte 144. Which of the following smallest organism
completely lack cell wall, pathogenic in animals
(3) In ferns, male and female sex organs are called
and plants and can survive with oxygen ?
Archegonia and Antheridia respectively
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria
(4) In pteridophytes gametophytes bear vascular
tissue (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY 1001CMD300522040
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ALLEN
145. In plant (x) small specialised root other than tap 147. Arrange the following taxon in ascending order :
roots are associated with N2 fixing cynobacteria. (a) Primata (b) Hominidae
The stem are unbranced and pinnate compound (c) Chordata (d) Mammalia
leaves persist for a few year. Identify the plant (1) a → b → c → d
(x) in the given diagrams :-
(2) b → a → d → c
(3) d → b → c → a
(4) c → d → a → b
(1) (2)
148. Each category, referred to as a unit of
classification, in fact, represent a rank and is
commonly termed as-
(1) Taxon
(3) Monograph
146. Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks (4) Hierarchy
with appropriate words :- 149. Who is known as 'The Darwin of the 20th century'?
In pteridophytes the main plant body is ___(A)____
(1) Aristotle
which bears sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like
appendages called ___(B)___. The sporangia (2) Carolus Linnaeus
produce spores by ___(C)___ and after germination (3) R.H. Whittaker
of spores, they give rise to photosynthetic
(4) Ernst Mayer
gametophytes called ___(D)___.
Choose the correct option :- 150. Find the incorrect statement from the followings -
(1) Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more
A B C D scientific basis for classification.
(1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema (2) Fungi have chitin in their wall while green
plants have cellulose.
(2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte
(3) Dinoflagellates float passively in water while
(3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus diatoms have two flagella for the same.
(4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema (4) Majority of red algae occur in marine water.
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNK, MNL, MNM, MNX, MNY 1001CMD300522040
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ALLEN
SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : SYLLABUS-A
SECTION-A 156. In following diagram identify the structure A,
Attempt All 35 questions B, C and D :-
SYLLABUS
Syllabus Physics Chemistry Biology
THERMAL PHYSICS
(Thermal Expansion,
Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition,
Calorimetry, Heat Transfer,
IUPAC and Nomenclature, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration
KTG & Thermocynamics),
Isomerism, GOC, in Plants, Plant Growth and Development,
SYLLABUS C OSCILLATIONS
Hydrocarbon, Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control
(SHM, Damped and Forced
Enviromental Chemistry and Coordination , Sensory Organ, Chemical
Oscillations & Resonance),
Coordination and Integration
Wave Motion and Doppler's
Effect
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3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.