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Page 1 Sample Paper 1 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 1
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Choose the odd one out from the following:


(a) Bombay Plan - 1944 (b) Second Plan - 1956
(c) Third Plan - 1962 (d) Planning Commission - 1950

2. The second five-year plan was drafted under the leadership of which of the following personalities?
(a) K. N. Raj (b) M. Visvesvaraya
(c) P. C. Mahalanobis (d) Gadgil

3. In which year was Sheikh Mujib assassinated?


(a) September 1975 (b) August 1977
(c) January 1975 (d) August 1975

4. Which of the following events was not contemporaneous to the Cold War period?
(a) Beginning of decolonisation (b) The emergence of Communist China
(c) Establishment of the United Nations (d) Establishment of the League of Nations

5. Name the party who won the first National elections in India.
(a) Peoples Democratic Front (b) It was coalition government
(c) Communist Party of India (d) Indian National Congress

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6. Assertion (A): The elections of 2004 witnessed partial revival of Congress party.
Reason (R): It could increase its seats for the first time since 1991.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

7. Which of the following statements is true about a multi-party system are true?
(i) Many political parties compete for power.
(ii) There will often be coalition government.
(iii) It can become an unstable political system at times.
(iv) All parties have the capacity to gain control of government offices.
Codes
(a) Only (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (i)

8. Assertion (A): The period between 1989 and 2014 was the era of coalition governments in India.
Reason (R): No single party gained a majority in the period between 1989 and 2014.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

9. The______election was made into an referendum on the National Emergency.


(a) 1975 (b) 1999
(c) 1980 (d) 1977

10. Arrange the following in chronological order:


(i) Indo-China War
(ii) General Musharraf got himself elected as the President
(iii) Sri Lanka got independence
(iv) LTTE was vanquished
Codes:
(a) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (b) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

11. Which justice declared Indira Gandhi’s elections to be invalid in 1975?


(a) Justice H. J. Kania (b) Justice N. V. Ramana
(c) Justice Ranjan Gogoi (d) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha

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12. When did the Chinese Revolution take place?


(a) 1949 (b) 1951
(c) 1945 (d) 1947

Section B

13. Name any two agencies of the United Nations.

14. What are the two Directive Principles of State Policy relating to foreign affairs policy?

15. What were the reasons for the dominance of Congress Party till 1967?

16. What do you mean by the non-traditional notion of security?

17. Highlight any two features of Soviet System.

18. What were the impacts of the elections of 1989 on Indian politics?

Section C

19. Mention the objectives of Nehru’s Foreign Policy. What was the strategy through which he wanted to
achieve them?

20. ‘Democracy is becoming the first choice of the people of South Asia’. Justify the statement.

21. What are the two kinds of movement that were going on in North-East India?

22. Why do some economists describe economic globalisation as recolonisation of the world?

23. “States have common but differentiated responsibilities towards environment”. Substantiate statement
giving suitable examples.

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Section D

24. Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Nepal’s transition to democracy is not complete. At the moment, Nepal is undergoing a unique moment
in its history because it is moving towards the formation of a Constituent Assembly that will write the
Constitution for Nepal. Some sections in Nepal still think that a nominal monarchy is necessary for
Nepal to retain its link with the past. The Maoist groups have agreed to suspend armed struggle. They
want the Constitution to include the radical programmes of social and economic restructuring. All the
parties in the SPA may not agree with this programme. The Maoists and some other political groups are
also deeply suspicious of the Indian Government and its role in the future of Nepal.
(i) How is Nepal is undergoing a unique movement in its history?
(a) As it is moving towards the formation of Constituent Assembly that will write the constitution.
(b) As it is moving towards uncivilised protests and movement.
(c) Due to nominal monarchy in Nepal.
(d) None of the above
(ii) Why were some political parties suspicious in Nepal?
(a) Because they were deeply suspicious regarding the role of Indian Government in the future of
Nepal.
(b) Because they were against the democratic set-up.
(c) Because they were suspicious regarding the social restructuring.
(d) All of the above
(iii) In the above passage, SPA stands for_____.
(a) State Party Alliance (b) Seven Party Alliance
(c) Six Party Alliance (d) Static Party Alliance
(iv)In which year the king of Nepal dissmissed government and abolished the parliament?
(a) 2000 (b) 2003
(c) 2002 (d) 2004

25. Study the political outline map of the India given below in which five different states have been marked
as A, B, C and D. Identify correct states and name them. Consider about the Assembly Election results
of 1967.
S. No. State Alphabet
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state where Congress did not get majority but formed government with the help of others.
(ii) The Mountaneous state where Congress got majority.
(iii) The Southern states where Congress got majority.
(iv) The North-Eastern states where Congress did not get the majority.

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26. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify any two leaders that won the 1977 elections.
(ii) What is MISA?
(iii) Why was the Congress voted out of power?

Section E

27. What were the effects of Emergency on the following aspects for our polity.
(i) Effects on civil liberties for citizens.
(ii) Impact on relationship between the Executive and Judiciary.
(iii) Functioning of Mass Media.
(iv) Working of Police and Bureaucracy.

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 O
Explain the idea of Socialism advocated by Ram Manohar Lohia.

28. What do you mean by global poverty? What are the ways which can help in reducing disparity between
the poor and the rich at the global level?
 O
Distinguish between the internal and external notion of traditional security.

29. Give examples to show that most of former Soviet republics were prone to conflicts and tensions.
 O
What was the Soviet System? Assess any four features of the Soviet system.

30. Define the process of Nation-Building. Discuss Nehru’s approach towards Nation-Building.
 O
“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more
democratic”. Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.

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Page 1 Sample Paper 2 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 2
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Arms control is an important measure of traditional security as ______.


(a) it regulates the acquisition or development of weapons
(b) it prevents the military action
(c) it is concerned with preventing a war like situation
(d) it coordinates actions to defend against military attacks

2. This conference led to the establishment of a global action plan to promote sustainable development in
1992, Brazil.
This is _______.
(a) World Summit on Sustainable Development
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Development
(c) General Assembly Special Session on the Environment
(d) UN Sustainable Development Summit

3. Which among the following is the first global treaty to explicitly address climate change?
(a) Montreal Protocol, 1987
(b) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), 1992
(c) Kyoto Protocol, 2005
(d) Paris Agreement, 2015

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4. Assertion (A) : Though the cultural ties between India and Israel from time immemorial, yet the political
relations developed after the establishment of the NDA Government in India.
Reason (R) : Leaders of both the countries have,been visiting one another’s country since 1990.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

5. In which year Bhartiya Jan Sangh was formed?


(a) 1950 (b) 1925
(c) 1975 (d) 1951

6. How many judges are there in the ‘International Court of Justice’ and what is their tenure?
(a) 15 judges with 5 years tenure (b) 15 judges with 6 years tenure
(c) 15 judges with 9 years tenure (d) 12 Judges with 9 years tenure

7. Assertion (A) The old system of social welfare in the Soviet Union automatically got destroyed.
Reason (R) The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of the people into poverty.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

8. Jayaprakash Narayan demanded the dismissal of the Congress government in Bihar because ______.
(a) to give a call for total revolution (b) to establish true democracy
(c) to protest against the government (d) he wanted to have re-elections in Bihar

9. In which province Vishal Andhra Movement was witnessed?


(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Hyderabad
(c) Madras (d) Manipur

10. Which kind of issues are related to India-Pakistan?


(a) Both countries have strategic issues like the control of Siachen glacier
(b) Both have had problems over the sharing of river waters
(c) Wars between both the countries failed to settle the Kashmir issue
(d) All of the above

11. Arrange the following in chronological order.


1. Establishment of UNESCO
2. Foundation of ILO
3. Establishment of United Nations
4. Fornication of WHO
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(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2

12. Choose the statements which are not true about India’s Nuclear Programme.
1. India’s Nuclear Programme has always been peace - oriented.
2. India’s Nuclear Programme is in favour of CTBT.
3. India is committed to be a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group.
4. India’s Nuclear Programme is to help the smaller countries of Asia.
Choose the correct option.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Section B

13. How is oil continued to be the most important resource in the global strategy? Explain with an example.

14. Why is violence between two communities considered as a threat to democracy ?

15. Highlight the most important outcomes of the Rio Summit.

16. Name the two blocs in which the world got divided after the World War II.

17. How the definition of development cane vary for different sections?

18. Highlight any two consequences of ‘Shock Therapy’?

Section C

19. What was ‘Operation Blue Star’? Why did it hurt the sentiments of the Sikh Community?

20. Was the Emergency necessary to protect Indian democracy from internal agitation? Give arguments to
support your answer.

21. Explain the economic relationship between India and China since the 1990s.

22. ‘The question of indigenous people brings the issue of environment, resources and politics together’.

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Justify the statement.

23. What are the reasons behind the rise of international terrorism?

Section D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years there has been demand to reform the UN. Two basic kinds of reforms face the UN: reform
of the organisation’s structures and processes; and a review of the issues that fall within the jurisdiction
of the organisation. The biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Related
to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security Council’s permanent and non-permanent
membership so that the realities of contemporary world politics are better reflected in the structure of the
organisation. On 1 January 1997, Kofi Annan started a process to see how to reform the UN.
(i) Which is not TRUE about the proposed reforms in the UN?
(a) The UN should be replaced by some other international body.
(b) The structures and processes of the UN need to be reformed.
(c) What all issues of UN come under the gambit of the UN.
(d) Almost all agree that the UN requires certain reforms.
(ii) The major demand for reform has been around the ________.
(a) Secretariat
(b) Trusteeship Council
(c) Security Council
(d) General Assembly
(iii)Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Security Council?
(a) Members need to increase to reflect the changing dynamics of the world.
(b) There is a demand to scrap the Security Council.
(c) There is a need to increase the Security Council members.
(d) The Security Council is one of the main organs of the UN.
(iv)Kofi Annan launched a process in ______ to see how to bring about reforms in the UN.
(a) March 1998
(b) February 1997
(c) January 1998
(d) January 1997

25. In the given outline map of South Asia, four countries have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer
book with their respective serial number of the information used and the alphabet concerned as per the
following format:
(i) The country has experienced civilian as well as military rule both.
(ii) Democracy was restored in this country in 2006.
(iii) This country is still a monarchy.
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(iv) This country is a part of India’s ‘Look East Policy via Myanmar.’
Sr. no. of the Information Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country
used
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow.

(i) When was the treaty of Maastricht signed?


(ii) Which symbol these stars are indicating?
(iii) Why does the cartoonist use the image of the ship Titanic to represent EU?

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Section E

27. Enlist any six consequences of disintegration of the Soviet Union.


 O
Why are India’s relations with Russia considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy? Explain.

28. Give an analysis of the events that took place in Tibet. How it affected the relationship between India
and China?
 O
Analyse the events that took place during the India-Pakistan war of 1965 and aftermath of the war.

29. Write a note on the 16th Lok Sabha election held in 2014.
 O
‘Coalition Governments proved to be a boon for democracy in India.’ Support this statement with any
two suitable arguments.

30. Why was the year 1967 considered as landmark year in India’s political and electoral history?
 O
Analyse any three factors which were responsible for Indira Gandhi’s achieving a thumping majority in
1971 Lok Sabha elections.

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Page 1 Sample Paper 3 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 3
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Which one of the following agency of UN is related to environmental issues?


(a) UNDP (b) UNEP
(c) UNESCO (d) UNHRC

2. Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog are true?


1. NITI Aayog acts as a ‘think tank’ of the Union Government.
2. NITI Aayog acts against terrorism.
3. NITI Aayog acts in the spirit of cooperative federalism.
4. NITI Aayog decides more role for bigger states and smaller role for smaller states.
Choose the correct option.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

3. The process of integration of different countries is called


(a) Privatisation (b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation (d) None of these

4. Which Princely State of India was the first to announce the remain as an independent state?
(a) Mysore (b) Ajmer
(c) Gwalior (d) Travancore

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5. Which country among the following is not a member of SAARC?


(a) India (b) Myanmar
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal

6. Which countries after the Second World War decided to support the foreign policy of powerful states?
(a) Underdeveloped countries (b) Developing countries
(c) Less developed countries (d) Less economically developed countries

7. Who was the founder President of the Bhartiya Jana Sangha?


(a) B R Hedgewar (b) Deen Dayal Upadhyay
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

8. Poverty in South Asia has led to a problem of ________.


(a) migration (b) insecurity
(c) terrorism (d) over-population

9. ______ period in India can be seen as a period of rising regional aspirations for autonomy.
(a) 1970s (b) 1980s
(c) 1960s (d) 1990s

10. Assertion (A): Emergency is one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics.
Reason (R) : The Constitution simply mentioned ‘Internal disturbances’ as the reason for declaring
emergency.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

11. Assertion (A) : The membership of the UN Security Council was expanded from 11 to 15 in 1965.
Reason (R) : Number of permanent members of the Security Council was changed.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Arrange the following in chronological order according to their period of prime ministership.
1. I K Gujral
2. H D Deve Gowda
3. Narsimha Rao
4. Chandrashekhar
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
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Section B

13. Highlight any one major distinction between the Soviet economy and the capitalist economy.

14. When and why did the Communist Party of India go through a major split ?

15. What does defection mean in Indian politics?

16. How the large foreign reserves can be beneficial for a country?

17. How globalisation affects investments in a country?

18. Who was J. C. Kumarappa?

Section C

19. Why can the UN not serve as a balance against the US dominance? Explain.

20. Analyse any four factors responsible for the downfall of the Janata Government in 1979.

21. How did the crisis in the East Pakistan affect India?

22. Discuss the political history that led to the formation of the European Union in 1992.

23. Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s
experience of last 30 years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.

Section D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
This phase of elected democracy lasted till 1999 when the army stepped in again and General Pervez
Musharraf removed Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif. In 2001, General Musharraf got himself elected as
the President of Pakistan. Pakistan continued to be ruled by the army, though the army rulers have held
some elections to give their rule a democratic image. Since 2008, democratically elected leaders have
been ruling Pakistan.
(i) Which year did General Pervez Musharraf remove the democratically elected government?
(a) 1999

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(b) 1998
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
(ii) In _____ General Pervez Musharraf became the President of Pakistan.
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 1999
(d) 2001
(iii)What did General Pervez Musharraf’s administration do to show the world that they are following
democracy?
(a) He took part in the UN proceedings.
(b) He held elections in the country.
(c) Pakistan had bilateral talks with India.
(d) All of the above
(iv)Since when does Pakistan continuously have democratically elected governments?
(a) 2007
(b) 1999
(c) 2008
(d) 2000

25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been shown as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify
them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book with
the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the following
format:
(i) The State that resisted its merger with the Union of India.
(ii) The State which was carved out of Assam in 1972.
(iii) The State where the Communist Party of India formed its Government in 1957.
(iv) The State which was formed in 1966.
Sr. no. of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

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26. Study the picture and answer the following questions given below.

(i) In which year and where the Earth Summit was held?
(ii) What is being shown in the above picture?
(iii) Discuss the environmental concerns in global politics.

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Section E

27. Analyse India’s stand on environmental issues.


 O
In which way resource geopolitics had led the way for ‘Neocolonialism’?

28. “Regional aspiration, regional imbalance and regionalism are a hindrance in the way of national unity of
India”. Do you agree with the statement?
 O
“Jammu and Kashmir is one of the living examples of plural society and politics.” Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

29. Examine any six consequences of disintegration of the Soviet Union.


 O
Describe the factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and threats.

30. What are the differences in the threats that people in the Third World face and those living in the First
World face?
 O
Is terrorism a traditional or non-traditional threat to security? Explain.
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Page 1 Sample Paper 4 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 4
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Globalisation is a multi-dimensional concept having manifestations like


(a) cultural (b) economic
(c) political (d) All of these

2. Which incident favoured Fast track establishment of the European Union in 1992?
(a) Disintegration of Soviet Union (b) Establishment of Warsaw Pact
(c) Emergence of NATO group (d) Emergence of NAM

3. Who became the symbol of restoration of democracy after the Emergency in India and he belonged to
Janata Party?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Ram Manohar Lohiya
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

4. UNICEF has been working in how many countries of the world?


(a) 193 (b) 190
(c) 192 (d) 194

5. Which party system does India follow?


(a) Multi-Party System
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(b) Single Party System


(c) Bi-Party System
(d) All of these

6. Indira Gandhi’s elections were declared invalid by Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha of Allahabad High Court
on______.
(a) 12th June, 1974
(b) 12th July, 1974
(c) 12th June, 1975
(d) 12th July, 1975

7. Which International body has focussed on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labour and
services?
(a) SAARC
(b) SAFTA
(c) ASEAN
(d) None of these

8. Arrange the following in a chronological order of their Prime Ministership.


1. Chandrashekhar
2. Narasimha Rao
3. HD Deve Dowda
4. VP Singh
Codes
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

9. Name the state where a non-Congress party secured a majority of its own in 1967 Assembly Polls.
(a) Delhi (b) Punjab
(c) Maharashtra (d) Madras (now Tamil Nadu)

10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about the Bangladesh War, 1971?
I The war conditions led India signing a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with USA in 1971.
II The Shimla Agreement between Lal Bahadur Shastri and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto formalised the return
of peace in July 1972.
III US and China supported Pakistan.
IV India retaliated the Pakistan Army with an attack mainly using the air force, navy and the army.
Codes
(a) Only III

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(b) Only IV
(c) Only I
(d) Only II

11. Assertion (A) Nehru was a co-Founder of the NAM.


Reason (R) The foreign policy of Independent India advocated the policy of non-Alignment to reduce
the cold war tensions.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) Migration is the movement of human resources from one state to another due to some
particular reasons.
Reason (R) Poverty in South has prompted large scale migration to North in search of a better life.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section B

13. What was the reason behind newspapers being censored during Emergency?

14. What are the two issues that dominate the politics of North-East India.

15. What do you understand by decentralised planning?

16. What is ‘Two-Nation theory’?

17. Explain any of the two principles of Nehru’s Foreign Policy.

18. What is non-Congressism?

Section - C

19. What is International Labour Organisation? Mention its objectives.

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20. What are two positive and two negative effects of globalisation? Explain.

21. Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh War of 1971.

22. Briefly discuss the relations between India and Israel.

23. Who was Jayaprakash Narayan and what did he advocate?

Section -D

24. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. America extended massive
financial help for reviving Europe’s economy under what was called the ‘Marshall Plan’. The US also
created a new Collective Security structure under NATO. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for
European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1948 to channel aid to the West European
States. It became a forum where the Western European States began to cooperate on trade and economic
issues. The Council of Europe, established in 1949, was another step forward in political cooperation.
The process of economic integration of European capitalist countries proceeded step by step leading to
the formation of the European Economic Community (EEC) in 1957.
(i) The financial help was extended by America for reviving______economy.
(a) African
(b) European
(c) Asian
(d) American
(ii) What was the collective security structure created by the US?
(a) NATO
(b) SEATO
(c) CENTO
(d) Any other
(iii)Why was the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation established?
(a) To aid the Asian states
(b) To aid the African Nations
(c) To aid the West European States
(d) None of the above
(iv)When was European Economic Community came into light?
(a) 1957
(b) 1960
(c) 1948
(d) 1949

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25. In the given outline map of world, four countries have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these on
the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with
the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the format that
follows.
Sr. No. of the Information Used Concerned Alphabet Name of the Countries
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The country Iraq invaded in August 1990.
(ii) The country in the Presidentship of Saddam Hussein.
(iii) The country referred to as a Hegemonic Power.
(iv) The Operation Infinite Reach was launched against this country.

26. Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.

(i) In which year the bipolar structure of world politics ended?


(ii) Name two association of nations emerged in Europe and Asia.
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(iii) What is indicated by the first picture?

Section - E

27. What were the two Secessionist Movements of the North-East India?
O
Explain three main causes behind the unrest in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

28. Explain the role of opposition parties in India.


O
What were the reasons behind the dominance of Congress party in the first three general elections of
India?

29. “Coalition government is good or bad for the Indian democracy”. Explain three points in support of your
answer.
O
Analyse the era of Multi-Party system in India after 1989.

30. What role India played in the Afro-Asian Unity? Explain.


O
Analyse the India-Russia relations in detail.

 ******

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Sample Paper 5
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section -A

1. Who is known for the original contribution to a Non-European Socialist Theory as a political leader?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan (b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Deendayal Upadhyaya (d) Ram Manohar Lohiya

2. The First Gulf War revealed the______.


(a) use of smart bombs
(b) vast technological gap
(c) it shows the military capability of USA
(d) All of the above

3. How can we say that NITI Aayog acts in the spirit of Cooperative Federalism?
(a) As the states work maintaining their transparency level.
(b) As it ensures equal participation of all the states in the country.
(c) As it promotes the capability of states.
(d) None of the above

4. Name the party that dominates the political affairs of Maldives.


(a) Maldivian People’s Party (b) Maldivian Majority Party
(c) Maldivian Dictatorship Party (d) Maldivian Democratic Party

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5. In which year BRICS was founded?


(a) 2004
(b) 2006
(c) 2000
(d) 2002

6. The tenure of non-permanent members in the Security Council is______.


(a) three year
(b) one year
(c) four year
(d) two year

7. In which year ASEAN established the ASEAN community comprising of three pillars?
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2004
(d) 2002

8. Which of the statements are TRUE about the impact of globalisation?


1. Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
2. Globalisation has had a uniform impact on all states and societies.
3. The impact of globalisation has been confined to the political sphere.
4. Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.
Codes
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

9. The First Summit of NAM was held at ______in September, 1961.


(a) Paris
(b) Philippines
(c) Brazil
(d) Belgrade

10. Arrange the following in a chronologist order.


1. Second General Elections
2. VV Giri elected as the President of India
3. Fourth General Elections
4. Congress (R)-CPI alliance won more seats in general elections
Codes

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(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 3, 2, 4, 1

11. Assertion (A) Global atmosphere is warming up.


Reason (R) The depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer has resulted in an increase in ultraviolet
radiation reaching the Earth.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) On 1st January, 2015, NITI Aayog was constituted with the objective of providing the
necessary and technical advice to the Union Government regarding the policy making.
Reason (R) It was formed because the National Development Council (NDC) became ineffective and
irrelevant in today’s era.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section - B

13. Mention any two measures to have good relations with Pakistan.

14. What prompted nationwide Satyagraha against Congress?

15. Identify any two outcomes of the Partition of India into India and Pakistan.

16. Differentiate between ‘one-party dominance’ and ‘one party system’.

17. What are the two models of development and which of the models were adopted by India?

18. What was the purpose of Operation Desert Storm’?

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Section-C

19. Analyse the consequences of the Chinese invasion of 1962 in hampering India’s image at home and
abroad.

20. What is UNICEF? Mention any four functions performed by it?

21. What are the major problems of ecological issues?

22. What is the difference between refugees and migrants?

23. Enlist any four features of the Congress Party.

Section-D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be unchallenged
basis of political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to
matter in world politics. The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law and order, national
security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to. States continue to be
important. Indeed, in some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation,
with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens.
(i) Globalisation has given boost to the state capacity because______.
(a) state has become more market centric in approach which is beneficial for the people
(b) state has increased its welfare capacity through globalisation
(c) it has made available advance technology to state to rule its people better
(d) None of the above
(ii) The primacy of the state continues to be unchallenged basis of______.
(a) international interests
(b) security threats
(c) welfarism
(d) political community
(iii)How do enhanced technologies enable the state to rule better?
(a) State can keep surveillance on its people.
(b) State can generate welfare policies on the basis of data.
(c) The state can collect important information about its citizens.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(iv) What are the essential functions of the state?
(a) To maintain the market economy.

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(b) To defend and secure the boundaries of the state to maintain national security.
(c) To provide justice and maintain law and order.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

25. In the give outline political map of India four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book
with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format
that follows.
S.No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state to which Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India belonged.
(ii) The state to which the former Prime Minister Morarji Desai was related.
(iii) The state to which S. Nijalingappa belonged.
(iv) The state related to former Congress President K. Kamraj.

26. Study the picture given below carefully and answer the following questions.

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(i) What does the picture depict?


(ii) Define Regionalism.
(iii) What does the arrows hitting the pigeon means?

Section-E

27. “Peace and Prosperity of countries lay in the establishment and strengthening of regional economic
organisations”. Critically analyse the statement.
O
What is Godhra riots? What were its outcomes?

28. How Bangladesh was formed as an independent nation?


O
What are the efforts which has been taken by India and Pakistan towards peace and cooperation between
both the nation?

29. Analyse the philosophy of Integral Humanism advocated by Pandit Deendayal Upadhayaya.
O
What was the major outcome of 1977 Lok Sabha elections? Explain.

30. Define the term Unipolarity. What were the outcomes of a unipolar world after 1991 that benefitted
USA?
O
What was the Gulf War of 1990?
 ******

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Page 1 Sample Paper 6 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 6
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Which of the following personality introduced the LPG model of development in India ?
(a) Dr. Pranav Mukherjee (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) V. P. Singh (d) Rajiv Gandhi

2. In which year Japan became a member of the OECD ?


(a) 1999 (b) 1964
(c) 1965 (d) 1980

3. Select the article of the Constitution under which Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status.
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 380
(c) Article 375 (d) Article 370

4. The part of Kashmir occupied by Pakistan is addressed by Pakistan as_______.


(a) Mini Kashmir (b) Gilgit
(c) Siachen (d) Azad Pakistan

5. Arrange the following in chronological order:


(i) Kargil War between India and Pakistan
(ii) Pakistan got independence
(iii) Afghanistan joined SAARC
(iv) Indo-Sri Lanka Accord

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Codes:
(a) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(c) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

6. Why did India send troops to Maldives in 1988?


(a) To stop insurgency.
(b) To stop an ethnic conflict.
(c) To crush a student’s mass movement.
(d) To end the Sri Lankan Civil War between Sri Lankan Tamil Militant groups - the LTTE and the Sri
Lankan Military.

7. What wast the vision of the Bombay Plan of 1944?


(a) Deregulated Economy (b) Capitalistic Economy
(c) Unplanned Economy (d) Planned Economy

8. Assertion (A) : Globalisation helps in increasing the wealth of rich people.


Reason (R) : Globalisation opens up ample of opportunities for foreign investors.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

9. Assertion (A) : Security relates only to extremely dangerous threats.


Reason (R) : Threats that could so endanger core values that those values would be damaged beyond
repair if we did not do something to deal with the situation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

10. Find the odd one out in the context of the UN Secretaries-General:
(a) Ban Ki-moon: focused on the Millennium Development Goals.
(b) Kofi A. Annan: created the Global Fund to fight AIDS.
(c) U Thant: worked for resolving the Cuban Missile Crisis.
(d) Boutros Boutros-Ghali: worked for the independence of Namibia.

11. Select one of the most appropriate statements about ‘Global Commons’.
(a) The global commons are outside the sovereign jurisdiction.
(b) The question of managing the global commons reflected the North-South divide.
(c) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global commons than the
countries of the South.
(d) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global
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commons.

12. Which of the following statements about EU are true?


(i) It is a highly influential regional organisation.
(ii) It has a currency of its own.
(iii) It is the world’s biggest economy with a GDP of more than $17 trillion in 2016.
(iv) It can challenge the power of the US in trade, diplomacy and military areas.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

Section B

13. Mention any two reasons due to which Janata Party won the election of 1977.

14. Explain any two common features relevant to the countries of South Asia.

15. List any two differences between the Socialist and Communist Parties.

16. What is Preventive Detention? How it was used during Emergency?

17. What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.

18. Mention any two economic consequences of globalisation.

Section C
19. The phrase Aaya Ram Gaya Ram’ signifies which concept? Explain its impact on the Indian political
system.

20. What was the task of the States Reorganisation Commission? What was its most salient recommendation?

21. How was the Planning Commission of India set-up? Mention its scope of work.

22. Why was Congress considered as an ideological coalition? Explain the various ideologies that were
present within the Congress.

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23. Do you agree with the argument that globalisation leads to cultural homogenisation?

Section D
24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The declaration on the disintegration of the USSR and the formation of the Commonwealth of Independent
States (CIS) came as a surprise to the other republics, especially to the Central Asian ones. The exclusion
of these republics was an issue that was quickly solved by making them founding members of the CIS.
Russia was now accepted as the successor state of the Soviet Union. It inherited the Soviet seat in the UN
Security Council. Russia accepted all the international treaties and commitments of the Soviet Union.
(i) Which of the states given below are not the member states of CIS?
(a) Armenia
(b) Belarus
(c) Moldova
(d) Lithuania
(ii) The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) was established in
(a) December, 1991
(b) December, 1990
(c) December, 1994
(d) December, 1993
(iii)Disintegration of USSR came as a surprise because_______.
(a) it emerged as a great power after the Second World War.
(b) it had vast energy resources.
(c) in the arms race, Soviet Union managed to match the US.
(d) All of the above
(iv)What kind of role was played by the successor of Soviet Union in the International Politics?
(a) It accepted all international treaties and commitments of the Soviet Union.
(b) It inherited the Soviet Seat in the UN Security Council.
(c) It signed treaties with the US.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

25. In the political outline map of India given below, four states have marked as A, B, C and D. Identify
these states on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer book
along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet in the map
as per the following format.
Sr. No. of the Information Used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

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(i) The state where a violent incident took place at Godhara in 2002.
(ii) The state which was earlier known as Madras.
(iii) The state which has the maximum number of seats in India in its Legislative Assembly.
(iv) The state to which former Chief Minister Laldenga belonged.

26. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) What does the cartoon represent?


(ii) What does the equations speak about?

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(iii) What is the system of governance being practiced in this country?

Section E

27. What were the major complaints related to the UN Security Council were reflected in the resolution
passed by the UN General Assembly in 1992? Describe any three criterias that have been proposed for
new permanent members of the Security Council.
 O
UN has failed in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation. What makes the
UN a essential organisation?

28. Highlight any four issues of cooperation as well as confrontation between India and Bangladesh.
 O
India and Pakistan involved in certain issues but now the two countries are well on their way to a
friendly relationship. Discuss.

29. Why could democracy not take roots in Pakistan despite the fact the both the countries India and Pakistan
share a common past?
 O
What is the conflict between India and Sri Lanka relations? Explain the efforts taken by both the countries
towards maintaining peace and cooperation in the region.

30. Alliance politics has influenced the Indian political system in recent days. Elaborate and mention atleast
four points to support your argument.
 O
How did the Emergency of 1975 benefit the Indian democratic set-up?
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Page 1 Sample Paper 7 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 7
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Which party won the first National elections in India?


(a) It was coalition government
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Peoples Democratic Front
(d) Indian National Congress

2. Which of the following carries out coordination of security and foreign policy in the ASEAN region ?
(a) Asian Regional Forum
(b) ASEAN
(c) ASEAN Regional Foundation
(d) ASEAN Regional Forum

3. Which of the following statements about the Indian National Congress (post independence) are true ?
(i) It was an all-inclusive party.
(ii) It had the ‘first of the block’ advantage.
(iii) It was a well organised party.
(iv) It had a pan India presence.
Codes
(a) (iv)(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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4. In Nepal, the largely non-violent mass movement for democracy was led by______.
(a) Seven Party Alliance
(b) Maoist parties
(c) Socialist parties
(d) Students

5. Choose the odd one out from the given options.


(a) SEBI: Mutual Funds
(b) IRDAI: Insurance
(c) NBFCs: Financial Regulator
(d) NABARD: Agriculture

6. Assertion (A): Congress lost power in the elections of 1989.


Reason (R): Congress won an overwhelming majority in the elections of 1984.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

7. Arrange the following in chronological order:


(i) Liberation of Bangladesh
(ii) Tashkent Agreement
(iii) Indus Water Treaty
(iv) Assassination of Sheikh Mujib
Codes:
(a) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

8. Assertion (A): Following the Arab-Israel War of 1973, the entire world was affected by the Oil Shock.
Reason (R): There was a massive hike in the oil prices by the Arab Nations.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

9. According to Lohia, what are the three symbols that a Party of Socialism should have?
(a) Tractor, Ballot, Prison (b) Tractor, Vote, Prison
(c) Spade, Vote, Thumb (d) Spade, Vote, Prison

10. Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1950?
(a) Hindi and Konkani (b) Marathi and Hindi
(c) Gujarati and Hindi (d) Gujarati and Marathi
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11. Who among the following acted as the chairperson of the Planning Commission?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Home Minister (d) Speaker

12. Which of the following statements about NAM are true?


(i) The Bandung Conference in 1955 later led to the establishment of the NAM.
(ii) The First Summit of the NAM was held in Belgrade in October 1961.
(iii) Jawaharlal Nehru was a co-founder of the NAM.
(iv) China was the founding member of NAM.
Codes:
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Section B

13. Highlight any two threats to a country’s security as per the traditional notion of security.

14. What does defection stand for in Indian politics? Highlight any two demerits of this practice.

15. Why did the Soviet Union disintegrate? Highlight any two arguments in support of your answer.

16. How the era of multi-party system led to the era of coalition at the centre?

17. Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956?

18. Does globalisation leads to cultural homogenisation or cultural heterogenisation or both? Justify.

Section C

19. Highlight any two sources of threats being faced by the third world countries.

20. How the movement for secession in the Mizo Hills area gained popular support? How was this problem
resolved?

21. Elaborate the change in the electoral performance of the Congress party and BJP, from the year 1984 to
2004.
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22. What is globalisation? What is the difference between globalisation and internationalisations?

23. What are the four reasons behind the formation of ASEAN?

Section D

24. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
What does independence consist of? It consists fundamentally and basically of foreign relations. That is
the test of independence. All else is local autonomy. Once foreign relations go out of your hands into the
charge of somebody else, to that extent and in that measure you are not independent.
(i) In the above passage, the statement was made at which place?
(a) In the Constituent Assembly of India
(b) In the Press Conference at his residence
(c) In the public meeting at Rashtrapati Bhawan
(d) None of the above
(ii) In which year, Jawaharlal Nehru made this statement?
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1955
(d) 1958
(iii)What is the symbol of independence of a nation?
(a) Maintaining peaceful relations with neighbours
(b) By indulging in wars to show regional supremacy
(c) Conduct of foreign relations
(d) By signing peaceful treaties
(iv)How did India maintain its independence in the Cold War period?
(a) By not joining either of the super blocs i.e. USA and USSR
(b) It adopted a new path in the form of NAM
(c) By establishing a separate identity in the international arena
(d) Both (a) and (b)

25. In the given outline map of South Asia, five countries have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify them
on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book with their
respective serial number of the information used and the alphabet concerned as per the following format.

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Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The country has experienced both civilian as well as military rule.
(ii) Democracy was restored in this country in 2006.
(iii) This country is still a monarchy.
(iv) This country is a part of India’s ‘Look East Policy via Myanmar’.

26. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify and name the person holding in his hand, the placard ‘Save democracy’.
(ii) In your opinion, the group of five persons belongs to which political party?
(iii) According to the group of five, what is the intention of the person sitting on ‘Dharna’?

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Section E

27. Elaborate about Soviet System. Mention any of the four features of the Soviet System.
 O
If the Soviet Union had not disintegrated and the world had remained bipolar, how would that situation
have affected the world politics?

28. Describe any two developments witnessed by India after 1990.


 O
Analyse the formation and objectives of NITI Aayog in present context.

29. Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council. Suggest measures to reform UNSC.
 O
Explain the establishment and objective of UNESCO, UNICEF and ILO in detail.

30. What are the three democratic upsurges that emerged in the post independence history of India? Explain.
 O
Analyse the circumstances that you think were responsible for the declaration of emergency in 1975.

 ******

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Sample Paper 8
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Which of the following countries are not a part of Paris Agreement?


(a) Yemen (b) Libya
(c) The United States of America (d) Both (a) and (b)

2. Who introduced the economic and political reform policies of Perestroika (restructuring) and Glasnost
(openness)?
(a) Boris Yeltsin (b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) Vladimir Lenin (d) Joseph Stalin

3. Choose the wrong statement.


(a) Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of the Communist Party.
(b) The Soviet Union spent hugely on technology and infrastructure.
(c) The Soviet Union never competed with the United States.
(d) The Soviet System was weakened after the invasion of Afghanistan in 1979.

4. The concept of Integral Humanism was initiated by ______.


(a) Ram Manohar Lohiya
(b) Deendayal Upadhyaya
(c) Jai Prakash Narayan
(d) None of the Above

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5. In January 2007, the two countries that joined European Union were ______.
(a) Britain and Denmark (b) Italy and France
(c) Finland and Sweden (d) Bulgaria and Romania

6. Shock Therapy is a phenomenon associated with _______.


(a) Central Asian conflicts in Tajikistan and Azerbaijan
(b) New International Economic Order
(c) US plans to root out communism
(d) stabilising the Russian currency against the US dollar

7. The disintegration of Soviet Union was one of the most important events that altered the global geopolitics
after the Second World War. Consider the following statements in this regard and choose the correct one/
(s).
1. A coup took place in 1991 that was encouraged by communist party hardliners.
2. Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in opposing this coup.
3. In December 1991, under the leadership of Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus three major
republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Assertion (A) : NITI Aayog acts in the spirit of cooperative federalism.


Reason (R) : It ensures equal participation of all states in the country.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

9. Assertion (A): Traditional security accepts confidence building as a means of avoiding violence.
Reason (R) : Confidence building is a process in which countries share ideas and information with their
rivals.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

10. The Planning Commission become ineffective and irrelevant in the 21st century in terms of ______.
(a) its unability to handle new policies
(b) coping with present challenges of development
(c) being a think tank to the Union Government
(d) its unability to function in an effective manner
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11. Who considered both capitalism and socialism equally irrelevant for Indian Society?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Ram Manohar Lohiya
(c) Deendayal Upadhyaya
(d) KM Kamraj

12. Arrange the following in chronological order.


1. Creation of Maharashtra and Gujarat
2. Creation of Andhra Pradesh
3. Creation of Meghalaya
4. Creation Codes of Nagaland
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Section B

13. What is the moderate view of economic globalisation?

14. What are the cultural consequences of globalisation?

15. How did the US perceived India’s decision of leading the Non-Aligned movement?

16. What is a mixed economy?

17. Highlight any one major distinction between the Soviet economy and the capitalist economy.

18. What were Jaya Prakash’s view about ‘India’s Communitarian Socialism’.

Section C

19. What reasons did the Government give for declaring a National Emergency in 1975?

20. What is meant by alliance building as a component of traditional security policy? What are its advantages?

21. Mention some of the recent agreements between India and Pakistan. Can we be sure that the two countries
are well on their way to a friendly relationship?
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22. Highlight some important features and functions of European Union ?

23. State the problem of Goa?

Section D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
No region exists in a vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may
try to insulate itself from non-regional powers. China and the US remain key players in South Asian
politics. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic
partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant. The demands of development and globalisation have
brought the two Asian giants closer, and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991. American
involvement in South Asia has rapidly increased after the Cold War. The US has had good relations
with both India and Pakistan since the end of the Cold War and increasingly works as a moderator in
India-Pakistan relations. Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both countries have greatly
increased the depth of American participation in the region. The large South Asian diasporas in the US
and the huge size of the population and markets of the region also give America an added stake in the
future of the regional security and peace.
(i) Which of these nations have a great influence in South Asian politics?
(a) The USA
(b) China
(c) South Africa
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(ii) Which of the following is a threat for India?
(a) Proximity between the USA and Pakistan
(b) Proximity between Pakistan and China
(c) Proximity between Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(d) None of the above
(iii)What kind of relationship has the US had with India and Pakistan since the end of the Cold War?
(a) The US has good relations with both nations
(b) The US unilaterally supports India
(c) The US unilaterally supports Pakistan
(d) None of the above
(iv)Why South Asian nations can be good partners for the USA?
(a) Liberalisation of the economy
(b) Large South Asian diaspora in the USA
(c) Economic reforms in the South Asian nations
(d) All of the above

25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book
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along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets in the map
as per the following format.
(i) The Princely State which resisted its merger with Union of India.
(ii) The state which was carved out of Punjab in 1966.
(iii) The state which was created in December 1952.
(iv) The 22nd State of the Indian Union.
Sr. no of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow.

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(i) What is the given picture seek to represent?


(ii) What were consequences of partition?
(iii) Why did partition happen?

Section E

27. How Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru shaped the foreign policy of India?
 O
Does India’s foreign policy reflect her desire to be an important regional power? Argue your case with
the Bangladesh war of 1971 as an example.

28. Highlight any three positive and three negative features each of the Soviet system in the Soviet Union.
 O
Analyse the factors responsible for the disintegration of the USSR with special reference to Perestroika
and Glasnost.

29. Mention some important steps taken for the restoration of dominance of the Congress Party after the
split in 1969.
 O
Analyse any four factors that led the Congress Party to a spectacular win in 1971 elections.

30. “The regional parties have started playing an important role in the Indian politics.” Comment.
 O
Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics.
 ******

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Page 1 Sample Paper 9 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 9
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section -A

1. Who is the Chairman of National Development Council?


(a) Chief Ministers
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) President of India

2. Israel is an important centre of power due to its principle of_______.


(a) trade relations
(b) economic relations
(c) sustaining against diversity
(d) cultural complexity

3. The party of socialism according to Lohia should have three symbols in which spade signifies_______.
(a) willingness to make sacrifices
(b) prepared to make efforts
(c) power of voting
(d) None of the above

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4. Which of the following statement about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is incorrect?


(a) He was not a part of Bardoli Satyagraha.
(b) He is known as an ‘Iron Man’ of India.
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, emerged as a major leader of the freedom movement.
(d) He was not in favour of any compromise with the territorial integrity of India.

5. India has signed FTA’s with two ASEAN members including______.


(a) Sri Lanka and Russia (b) China and Sri Lanka
(c) Singapore and Thailand (d) Philippines and Thailand

6. The circle with golden stars on the European Union’s flag signifies______.
(a) liberty and Equality
(b) solidarity and harmony between the people of Europe
(c) security and protection
(d) fraternity and Sovereignty

7. When did the ‘BJP System’ according to social scientists have started?
(a) 2019 (b) 2018
(c) 2014 (d) 2015

8. This country emerged as the strong successor of USSR. It is______.


(a) Ukraine (b) Georgia
(c) Russia (d) None of these

9. Which of the statements are TRUE about the causes of globalisation?


1. Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
2. Globalisation is caused by a particular community of people.
3. Globalisation originated in the US.
4. Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation.
Codes
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

10. Arrange the following in a chronological order.


1. India Joins the UN.
2. Yalta Conference of the Big three i.e. Rooserelt, Churchill and Stalin.
3. Tehran Conference Declaration of three powers i.e. US, Britain and Soviet Union.
4. Signing of the Atlantic Charter by US President Roosevelt and British Prime Minister Churchill.
Codes

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(a) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

11. Assertion (A) India, China and other developing countries were exempted from the requirements of the
Kyoto Protocol.
Reason (R) Their contribution to the emissions of greenhouse gases during the industrialisation period
was not significant.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) In the traditional view of security, more threat to a country’s security comes from outside
its borders.
Reason (R) The international system is rather a brutal arena in which there is no central authority capable
of controlling behaviour.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section -B

13. What is Anandpur Sahib Resolution?

14. Name any two functions of the General Assembly of the UN.

15. Who was Potti Sriramulu? What was the outcome of his indefinite fast?

16. How were the economic concerns of free India different from the economic concerns of colonial
government?

17. Explain the major difference of ideology between that of the Congress and the Bhartiya Jana Sangh.

18. State any two objectives of the UN.

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Section - C

19. Discuss the relations between India and Israel.

20. Which steps must be adopted to conserve the natural resources?

21. Explain any four features of the Communist Party of India.

22. Explain any four effects of globalisation on the economy of a country.

23. What are the non-traditional notions to security?

Section -D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The Assam movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of such movement against ‘outsiders’. The
Assamese suspected that there were huge numbers of illegal Bengali Muslim setters from Bangladesh.
They felt that unless these foreign nationals are detected and deported, they would reduce the indigenous
Assamese into a minority. There were other economic issues too. There was widespread poverty and
unemployment in Assam despite the existence of natural resources like oil, tea and coal. It was felt that
these were drained out of the state without any commensurate benefit to the people.
(i) The Assam Movement was led by the group named_______.
(a) All Assam Sabha Unit
(b) All Assam Sabha Union
(c) All India Students Union
(d) All Assam Students Union
(ii) Why did the Assamese seek the detection and deportation of the outsiders?
(a) They felt that these foreign nationals would reduce the indigenous Assamese to minority.
(b) As huge number of Bengali Muslims was a cause of concern for Assamese.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
(iii)What were the economic issues taken up as a part of the movement?
(a) Inflation
(b) Widespread poverty
(c) Unemployment
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(iv) Assam movement expresses______.
(a) regional problems
(b) violent acts

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(c) regional aspirations


(d) migration issues

25. In the give outline political map of India four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these
states on the basis of the information given below. Mark the following with respect to alphabets.
S.No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) Mark the state where Mahatma Gandhi was born.
(ii) Sarojini Naidu become the first Governor of the state.
(iii) State from which Jayaprakash Narayan belongs?
(iv) State where first non-Congress Government was formed.

26. Study the picture and answer the following questions given below.

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(i) In which year and where the Earth Summit was held?
(ii) What is being shown in the above picture?
(iii) Discuss the environmental concerns in global politics.

Section -E

27. Why is Emergency one of the most controversial phase in Indian politics?
O
Mention any three major political developments which happened in India after the Emergency in 1977.

28. Examine the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the largest economy of world by 2040.
O
What the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the world’s largest economy by 2040?

29. Examine the common issues of South Asian countries.


O
Elucidate the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka and mention any two consequences of it.

30. Mention any three pros and three cons of Soviet system in the Soviet Union.
O
Why did Soviet Union disintegrate. Give any six reasons behind it.

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Page 1 Sample Paper 10 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 10
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Whose visit to China in 1988 is seen as an important step in taking the relationship forward after the
Indo-China war of 1962 ?
(a) VP Singh’s (b) Rajiv Gandhi’s
(c) Manmohan Singh’s (d) PV Narasimha Rao’s

2. Which of the following factor has significantly contributed to the process of ‘Globalisation’.
(a) Fear of war (b) Advancement of technology
(c) Achievements of the United Nations (d) Security threats

3. Which of the following personality is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution in India’?
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien (b) Dr. William Gande
(c) Dr. Norman Borlaugh (d) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

4. Which of the following statements is/are true ?


(i) The foundation of steel plants, large dams and oil refineries was laid in the first two five year plans
of India.
(ii) The role of the private sector was highly regulated under these two plans.
Codes:
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

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5. Assertion (A): India adopted a democratic approach to the question of diversity.


Reason (R): In democracy different culture sheet can be represented.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

6. Which of the following statements about the forest movements of the South are true?
(i) Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, Continental Africa and India are included in these
movements.
(ii) Diversity is not an important trait of contemporary movements.
(iii) Forest clearing in the Third World continues at an alarming rate.
(iv) The destruction of the world’s last remaining grand forests has actually decreased in the last decade.
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

7. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment:


(i) The World Trade Organisation
(ii) Amnesty International
(iii) League of Nations
(iv) World Bank
(a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

8. Who was the ruler of princely state Jammu and Kashmir after the independence?
(a) Maharaja Man Singh (b) Maharaja Sonal Singh
(c) Maharaja Nihal Singh (d) Maharaja Hari Singh

9. Assertion (A): As the colonies became free from the late 1940s onwards, their security concerns were
often similar to that of the European powers.
Reason (R): Some of the newly-independent countries, like the European powers, became members of
the Cold War alliances.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

10. Name the person who led the struggle against the dominance of West Pakistan.
(a) SajeebWazed (b) Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman
(c) Khaleda Zia (d) Sheikh Kamal

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11. What was the immediate outcome of the reforms introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev?
(a) People of the USSR were elated with the much await reforms.
(b) Rapid development of the USSR.
(c) Independence movement across various East European countries, which were part of the USSR.
(d) USSR becomes the most developed part of the world.

12. Pick the odd one out in the context of Nepal.


(a) 2002 - king abolished parliament
(b) 1990 - king accepted new democratic constitution
(c) 2008 - monarchy is restored
(d) 2006 - there was pro-democratic movement

Section B

13. Which are the two forms of co-operative security as per its traditional notion?

14. What is meant by unipolarity and bipolarity?

15. What is meant by ‘coalition’? During which period did this type of government gain popularity for the
first time at the centre in India?

16. The first general election was a difficult task for Election Commission. Give two reasons for the same.

17. In recent years India has paid adequate attention to ASEAN. Give two points to justify the statement.

18. South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space. Do you agree
with the statement? Give two reasons for your answer.

Section C

19. What were the reasons for the rise of political violence in the North-Eastern part of India?

20. Mention any two functions of Security Council. Give two reasons why Veto power of the permanent
members of Security Council cannot be abolished.

21. The Emergency affected the party system in India, elaborate your answer with examples.

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22. “Economic globalisation is recolonisation of the world”. Substantiate the statement.

23. What was the major areas of focus of the First Five Year Plan? How was the Second Plan different form
the First Plan?

Section D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in number that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere
else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan
and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this
minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic
state. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body
politic and probably destroy it. Jawaharlal Nehru, letter to Chief Ministers, 15th October, 1947.
(i) The speaker of the given passage was_____.
(a) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Mohammad Iqbal
(ii) Why Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way?
(a) Because Muslim minority were in large number in India.
(b) Because it is their right to go anywhere i.e. to go Pakistan or stay in India.
(c) Because in a democratic set-up everyone should be given an equal opportunity.
(d) All of the above
(iii)Why this minority should be given the security and rights on the same footing as to others in a
democratic system?
(a) Because Indian democracy is based on the principles of equality, socialism, liberty and fraternity
which ensures equal rights and security.
(b) So that they can enjoy effective equality.
(c) It empowers communities and promotes the exercise of individual freedoms.
(d) It would affect the basic nature of democratic system.
(iv)In this way minority was not provided security and rights, what kind of scenario is envisaged?
(a) It will go against the secular principles of India.
(b) It may lead to the disintegration of Indian States.
(c) It may lead to a situation of riots in the country.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

25. In the given map of India four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states
on the basis of the information given below and writer their correct names in respective serial number.
Information given about the Lok Sabha election results 1977.

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Sr. No. State Alphabet


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state where India National Congress (INC) was in majority.
(ii) The state were Janata Party was in majority.
(iii) The state where other parties were in majority.
(iv) The state where left parties were in majority.

26. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

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(i) What does the cartoon represent?


(ii) What message does this cartoon convey?
(iii) Is it different from our country?

Section E

27. What does ASEAN stand for? What are the main objectives of ASEAN?
 O
Differentiate between European Union and SAARC as new centres of power.

28. What were the consequences of the partition of India in 1947.


 O
Why did Jawaharlal Nehru try to keep India, a secular country? Do you think whether the reasons were
ethical and sentimental? Give reasons for the same.

29. Explain the second phase of Indian politics towards a multi-party coalition system with reference to
general elections of 1967.
 O
Explain the philosophy of Integral Humanism given by Pandic Deendayal Upadhyaya.

30. Highlight the developments in India’s nuclear programme.


 O
Elaborate upon the formation of successive governments formed after the 1989 elections.
 ******
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Page 1 Sample Paper 11 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 11
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Which of the following is the majority of the population in the region of Kashmir ?
(a) Buddhists (b) Muslims
(c) Hindus (d) Sikhs

2. In which year a review of the implementation of the agreements at the Earth Summit in Rio was
undertaken by India?
(a) 1987 (b) 1997
(c) 1980 (d) 1990

3. Globalisation affects what we eat, drink, think and watch. What is this called?
(a) cultural globalisation
(b) ideological globalisation
(c) economic globalisation
(d) political globalisation

4. Which of the following security is about the protection of people more than the protection of states.
(a) Human
(b) Non-traditional
(c) Traditional
(d) Government

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5. Which of the following was not the provision of Punjab Accord?


(a) Withdrawn of AFSPA
(b) Tribunal for solving border dispute between Punjab and Haryana
(c) Tribunal for deciding the water dispute of Ravi- Beas river
(d) Resuming of trade between Punjab and Pakistan

6. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment:


(i) ILO
(ii) WHO
(iii) UNESCO
(iv) UNICEF
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

7. Which of the following personalities is credited to provide the first blueprint of economic planning in
India?
(a) Acharya Narendra Dev (b) M. Visvesvaraya
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Dadabhai Naoroji

8. Find the odd one out in the context of the Congress ‘Syndicate’:
(a) S. Nijalingappa of Karnataka
(b) K. Kamaraj of Tamil Nadu
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Atulya Ghosh of West Bengal

9. The ‘People’s Plan’ of 1945 was prepared by which of the following?


(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) M. N. Roy
(c) Rajagopalachari (d) John Baptista

10. Assertion (A): The Awami League was the most popular party in East Pakistan that led to the start of
the freedom movement in the region.
Reason (R): Awami League fought for the rights of Bengali Muslims.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

11. Assertion (A): Sri Lanka has the highest per capita Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in South Asia even
during the time of the civil war.
Reason (R): It has soundly managed its economic resources.
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(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

12. Which of the following statements about the 1971 general elections are true?
(i) These elections were held in January 1971.
(ii) The Congress had an alliance with Swantatra Party.
(iii) All the major opposition parties formed an electoral alliance against the Congress Party.
(iv) Indira Gandhi gave the famous slogan: ‘Garibi Hatao’.
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

Section B

13. Define cultural homogenisation. Give an example to show that its consequences are not negative.

14. What were the main reasons behind the split of Congress in 1969?

15. What are the most important outcomes of the Rio Summit?

16. ‘Emergency’ and the period around it known as the period of Constitutional crisis. Explain the statement.

17. What is the one major distinction between the Soviet economy and the capitalist economy?

18. What had been Afro-Asian unity?

Section C

19. Explain any two effects of globalisation on the culture of a country.

20. ‘Coalition governments proved to be a boon for democracy in India.’ Support this statement with the
help of most suitable arguments.

21. Describe the two reasons that led to National Jubilation (triumph) in India after the 1971 war with
Pakistan.

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22. What are the objectives of military alliances? Give an example of a functioning military alliance with
its specific objectives.

23. The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of the movements against ‘outsiders’.
Support the statement with suitable arguments.

Section D

24. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus, removed a historical
buffer between the two countries. Initially, the Government of India did not oppose this openly. But as
more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the Indian Government grew uneasy.
The Tibetan spiritual leader, the Dalai Lama, sought and obtained political asylum in India in 1959.
China alleged that the Government of India was allowing anti-China activities to take place within India.
(i) In the above passage ‘historical buffer’ means______.
(a) a country which prevents conflicts
(b) a country lying between two rival or potentially hostile powers
(c) an agreement between the countries
(d) None of the above
(ii) Why didn’t Government of India oppose the annexation of Tibet by China?
(a) Due to the Panchsheel Agreement signed between India and China.
(b) As it believed that it is the internal matter of China.
(c) China assured India that Tibet will be given greater autonomy.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(iii)Why Indian Government grew uneasy over the Tibet Issue?
(a) As Tibetan culture was suppressed by China.
(b) Due to migration from Tibet to India.
(c) As India was unable to help Tibet.
(d) All of the above
(iv)How far it was justified on the part of India to grant political asylum to Dalai Lama and thousands of
Tibetan refugees?
(a) As Dalai Lama was a known Tibetan Spiritual leader.
(b) India granted political asylum on humanitarian grounds.
(c) Dalai Lama had a political influence over India.
(d) As there were many followers in India who supported Dalai Lama.

25. In the given political outline map of South Asia, four countries have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following
format.

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Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) An important country but it is not considered to be a part of South Asia.
(ii) The country has a successful Democratic System.
(iii) This country has had both Civilian and Military rulers.
(iv) This country had Constitutional Monarchy.

26. Observe the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Who is the person in the centre of the cartoon?


(ii) What does the cartoon refer about?
(iii) How did India accommodate the demand of regional groups?

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Section E

27. Mention the limitations of USSR that led to its disintegration.


 O
What do you mean by Arab Spring? Mention any four causes of Arab Spring.

28. Explain any four challenges faced by India at the time of independence.
 O
What were the reasons and effects of accepting the demands for separate states on linguistic claims?

29. Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in Indian politics since 1980’s.
 O
Since 1989, coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological difference to
power sharing arrangement within the sphere of consensus. Explain with example.

30. What is meant by SAARC? Describe the main objectives of SAARC.


 O
Mention the factors responsible for the rise of the Chinese economy.
 ******

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Sample Paper 12
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. Global common include Earth’s _____ Antarctica, the ocean floor and the outer space.
(a) atmosphere (b) arctic region
(c) environment (d) lithosphere

2. Which of the following is incorrect about the causes of globalisation?


(a) Globalisation originated in the US
(b) It is caused by particular community of people
(c) Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation
(d) All of the above

3. Which state was the largest Princely States?


(a) Manipur
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Rajasthan

4. Which kind of body is NITI Aayog to the Union Government?


(a) Constitutional body (b) Statutory body
(c) Advisory body (d) None of the above

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5. Which of these statements about the nature of coalition politics after 2014 elections is correct?
1. From one party led coalition to multi-party coalition.
2. From multi-party coalition to one party led dominated coalition.
3. From one party led coalition to one party dominated coalition.
4. From two-party led coalition to one party dominated coalition.
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

6. Assertion (A) The real challenge to Indira Gandhi came not from the opposition but from within her
own party.
Reason (R) She had to deal with the ‘Syndicate’, a group of powerful and influential leaders from within
the Congress.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

7. Assertion (A) : The end of Soviet Bloc led to the emergence of many new countries.
Reason (R) : The Central Asian countries wanted to take advantage of their geographical location and
continue their close ties with the West, the US China and others.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

8. Arrange the following in the chronological order.


1. Establishment of the ASEAN
2. Establishment of European Union
3. Establishment of ASEAN Regional Forum
4. Establishment of Organisation for European Economic Cooperation
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

9. Which among the following statements describe that the nature of Soviet economy is wrong?
(a) Socialism was the dominant ideology
(b) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production
(c) People enjoyed economic freedom
(d) Every aspect of the economy was planned and controlled by the state

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10. With which country does India have a treaty that allows the citizens of the two countries to travel to and
work in the other country without visas and passports?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal (d) Israel

11. What does the European Union flag stands for?


(a) It stands for unity among the European people
(b) It stands for peaceful harmony among the European people
(c) It stands for completeness among the European people
(d) It stands for fraternity among the European people

12. Security as a confidence building measure means _______.


(a) encouraging violence
(b) avoiding violence
(c) arms control
(d) limit use of nuclear weapons

Section B

13. How was the U.S. benefited by the Soviet disintegration?

14. According to the guidelines of the Second Five Year Plan, how did the government try to protect the
domestic industries?

15. Name some groups which are a part of the WSF (World Social Forum)?

16. What is the relationship between traditional security and cooperation?

17. Name the two departments of defence that were established aftermath of the wars of 1962 and 1965.

18. How was the U.S. benefited by the Soviet disintegration?

Section C

19. What is BJP system? When did it started?

20. Mention the features of Kyoto Protocol.

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21. Give examples to show that most of the former Soviet Republics are prone to conflicts and tensions.

22. What were some of the resistance that Nehru faced in India for his Non-Alignment policies?

23. The Shah Commission was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Party Government. Why was it appointed
and what were its findings?

Section D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
A new chapter of peace and cooperation might evolve in South Asia if all the countries in the region
allow free trade across the borders. This is the spirit behind the idea of the SAFTA. The Agreement was
signed in 2004 and came into effect on 1 January 2006. The SAFTA aims at lowering trade tariffs. But
some of our neighbours fear that the SAFTA is a way for India to ‘invade’ their markets and to influence
their societies and politics through commercial ventures and a commercial presence in their countries.
India thinks that there are real economic benefits for all SAARC nations from the SAFTA and that a
region that trades more freely will be able to cooperate better on political issues. Some critics think
that the SAFTA is not worth for India as it already has bilateral agreements with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri
Lanka.
(i) What is the full form of SAFTA?
(a) South America Free Trade Agreement
(b) South Africa Free Trade Agreement
(c) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(d) None of the above
(ii) Why SAFTA was signed?
(a) To allow free trade among the South American nations.
(b) To increase the political interference of the nations in South Asia.
(c) To allow free trade among the South Asian nations.
(d) None of the above.
(iii)Why do some of the neighbours of India fear SAFTA?
(a) India will impact their politics
(b) India will impact their commercial ventures
(c) They fear that the economic influence of India will increase
(d) All of the above
(iv)India does not have a trade agreement with which of the following nations?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan

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25. In the given outline political map of the world, four countries have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). Identify these countries on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names
in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned
alphabets as per the format that follows:
(i) A country that did a nuclear test in the year 1998.
(ii) A communist nation during the Cold War.
(iii) A capitalist country that dropped an atomic bomb on Japan.
(iv) A communist nation initially under Mao Zedong.
Sr. no. of the Information used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Make a careful study of the image given below and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Identify the personalities in the image.


(ii) Which agreement between the two was signed?
(iii) Which articles of the Indian Constitution provided special provision to Jammu and Kashmir?

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Section E

27. What is Agenda 21? What is meant by ‘common, but differentiated responsibilities’?
 O
Describe how water scarcity across the world can lead to ‘water wars’.

28. Describe these obstacles that delayed the merger of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
 O
Describe the areas of tension that arose on different occasions after independence. Which political
aspirations were the causes of those tensions?

29. Trace the evolution of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. How does it function with the
help of its various structures and agencies?
 O
How far did the UN perform its role successfully in maintaining peace in the world? Explain.

30. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of the state in the developing countries in the light of
globalisation.
 O
How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India in turn impacting on globalisation?
 ******

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Page 1 Sample Paper 13 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 13
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section A

1. On which day, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill was passed by the NDA government in
Rajya Sabha?
(a) 1st August, 2018 (b) 5th August, 2019
(c) 6th August, 2019 (d) 9th August, 2019

2. Which judge of the Allahabad High Court declared Indira Gandhi’s election as invalid?
(a) Om Prakash Trivedi
(b) Jagmohan Lal Sinha
(c) Narain Dutt Ojha
(d) Kunj Behari Srivastava

3. _______ is the ex-officio chairperson of NITI Aayog.


(a) The President of India
(b) The Vice President of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India

4. _______ country is not considered as a part of South-Asia region.


(a) Afghanistan (b) Myanmar
(c) China (d) Sri Lanka

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5. _______ is all about who gets what, when, where and how.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Resources Geopolitics
(d) Liberalisation

6. What are the main causes of global warming?


(a) Deforestation
(b) Increased use of fossil fuels
(c) Increase intensive agriculture activities
(d) All of the above

7. Which of the following are the components of traditional security?


(a) Deterrence, Defence
(b) Balance of Power
(c) Alliance Building
(d) All of the above

8. How much is the tenure of the judges in the International Court of Justice?
(a) Five years
(b) Seven years
(c) Nine years
(d) Ten years

9. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Jayaprakash Narayan?


1. He was the first leader inpost-independence India who undertook a tirade against corruption.
2. He advocated transformation of individual, society and state.
3. His philosophy was based on the premise of Democratic Socialism and Chouburja Rajneeti.
4. He defined total revolution as a combination of 7 revolutions.
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

10. Assertion (A) : The First Five Year Plan addressed, mainly the agrarian sector including investment in
dams and irrigation.
Reason (R) : Agricultural sector was hit hardest by partition and needed urgent attention.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

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11. Assertion (A) : SAARC was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8th
December, 1985.
Reason (R) : It was established to promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and to improve their
quality of life.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Arrange the following in chronological order.


1. Formation of NDA Government
2. Appointment of Mandal Commission by Central government
3. Janta Dal Formed
4. New Economic Reforms
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

Section B

13. What was the major foundation of the foreign relations of India which is laid even in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?

14. Identify one similarity and one difference between the crisis in Punjab and Assam during the 1980s.

15. Discuss some of the limitations of the land reforms in India.

16. What do you know about Demolitions in Turkman Gate area, Delhi.

17. Explain the meaning of garage sale in the context of shock therapy.

18. “Jammu and Kashmir comprises of some social and political regions.” Support the statement with any
two examples from any two regions.

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Section C

19. Explain how global poverty is a source of insecurity?

20. Evaluate any three consequences of the emergency imposed in 1975.

21. Highlight any five steps as decided by the member states in 2005, to make the United Nations more
relevant in the changing context.

22. “Welfare State is getting replaced by market.” Analyse the reason for this change.

23. Suggest any two steps to be taken by the government to check pollution and save environment.

Section D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The 1967 election was a landmark election. The results jolted the Congress at both the national and state
levels. Many contemporary political observers described the election results as a ‘political earthquake’.
The Congress did manage to get a majority in the Lok Sabha, but with its lowest tally of seats and
share of votes since 1952. Half of the ministers of Indira Gandhi’s Cabinet were defeated. The political
stalwarts who lost in their constituencies included Kamaraj in Tamil Nadu, S.K. Patil in Maharashtra,
Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal and K. B. Sahay in Bihar.
(i) 1967 election results are called as ______.
(a) Start of coalition politics
(b) Political earthquake
(c) End of congress rule
(d) All of the above
(ii) Congress managed a victory in 1967 elections, its seat tally was _______.
(a) Lowest ever
(b) Same as earlier
(c) Highest ever
(d) None of these
(iii)Which of the following statements about the 1967 elections is true?
(a) One-fourth of the ministers of Indira Gandhi’s Cabinet were defeated.
(b) Congress won all seats.
(c) Various opposition parties came together to form anti-Congress front.
(d) There was no change in the stature of Congress.
(iv) Pick the ODD one out.
(a) Atulya Ghosh - West Bengal

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(b) Kamaraj - Tamil Nadu


(c) K. B. Sahay - Karnataka
(d) S.K. Patil - Maharashtra

25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify
these states on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer book
along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet given in the
map as per the following format.
(i) The state from which Haryana was carved out.
(ii) The state which was created in 1963.
(iii) The state from which Jharkhand was carved out.
(iv) The state which was formed by separating Telugu speaking areas from Madras (now Tamil Nadu).
Sr. no. of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

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(i) This picture symbolised the division between________and________world.


(ii) When was USSR disintegrated?
(iii) Who was the President of USSR at the time of its disintegration?

Section E

27. Describe any three important events that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969.
 O
Analyse any four factors that led the Congress Party to a spectacular win in 1971 elections.

28. Does India’s foreign policy reflect her desire to be an important regional power? Argue your case with
the Bangladesh war of 1971 as an example.
 O
Analyse any two major developments after 1980 that led to a cycle of violence in Punjab.

29. How the relationship between the India and China has evolved from the 1950s to the present times?
 O
Name all the members of the ASEAN. What purpose is served by the body?

30. Describe the main features of the Soviet system.


 O
Examine the role of Gorbachev to reform the Soviet system.
 ******

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Page 1 Sample Paper 14 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 14
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section -A

1. How many countries fought against Iraq during the First Gulf War?
(a) 34 (b) 35
(c) 32 (d) 33

2. Which are the states where Congress got majority in 1967 Assembly polls?
(a) Tripura, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra (b) Jammu and Kashmir, Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujarat, Mysore, Assam (d) All of the above

3. The superseding agency of Planning Commission of India is_____.


(a) Council of Industrial and Scientific Research (b) National Development Council
(c) NITI Aayog (d) None of the above

4. Which operation was launched against the Al-Qaeda and Talibani regime by the US?
(a) Operation Iraqi Freedom (b) Operation Desert Storm
(c) Operation Enduring Freedom (d) None of these

5. How many seats did NDA IV got in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 350 (b) 320
(c) 323 (d) 303

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6. The Planning Commission was dissolved in which year?


(a) September 2014 (b) October 2014
(c) July 2014 (d) August 2014

7. The 14th Summit of NAM was held in_____.


(a) Paris, 2005
(b) Switzerland, 2006
(c) Brussels, 2000
(d) Havana, 2006

8. Arrange the following in a correct sequence.


1. UN Sustainable Development Summit
2. UN Conference on Sustainable Development
3. General Assembly Special Session on the Environment
4. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
Codes
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 1, 2, 4, 3

9. Health epidemics are spread through _____across the countries.


(a) business and tourism (b) military operations
(c) migration (d) All of these

10. Choose the correct statement regarding positive impacts of globalisation.


1. There is increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. Improved productive efficiency and healthy competition.
3. Now jobs are created in industries set up by multinational companies.
4. There is less availability of investable funds in the from of Foreign Direct Investment.
Codes
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Assertion (A) The idea of partition was very painful as well as it was difficult to be implemented.
Reason (R) One of the difficulty emerged was that “Not all Muslim, majority areas wanted to join
Pakistan”.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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(c) A is true, but R is false.


(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) Three new states, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created in 2000.
Reason (R) Language remain the sole basis of organisation of states.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section-B

13. Describe any two objectives of Planning in India.

14. What were the goals on which everyone agreed on the eve of independence?

15. Describe any two social causes that led to Arab Spring.

16. List any two differences between the Socialist and Communist party.

17. What had been government’s approach towards the integration of Princely States?

18. Write any two characteristics of Mixed Economy Model?

Section -C

19. State the democratic transition in Nepal. How was it viewed by the other parties or organisation in
Nepal?

20. Compare the European Union with ASEAN.

21. Discuss the views against the Emergency given by the critics.

22. Mention the difference between the Capitalist and the Socialist Models of development.

23. Explain any four features of the ideology of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.

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Section - D

24. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
By 2011, the UN had 193 member states. These included almost all independent states. In the UN
General Assembly, all members have one vote each. In the UN Security Council, there are five permanent
members. These are: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France and China.
These states were selected as permanent members as they were the most powerful immediately after the
Second World War and they constituted the victory in the war.
(i) How many votes are given to each member of the General Assembly?
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Two
(d) None
(ii) Which among the following state joined the UN before 2011?
(a) South Sudan
(b) Japan
(c) Vietnam
(d) Iraq
(iii)Why only some states are part of permanent membership in the UN Security Council?
(a) Because the countries emerged victorians and powerful after the Second World War.
(b) Because these countries were colonial powers.
(c) Because these states were independent at the time of Second World War.
(d) None of the above
(iv)Wars and Peace differences between member states of US are discussed in____and_____.
(a) WHO
(b) General Assembly
(c) Security Council
(d) Both (b) and (c)

25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been shown as A, B, C and D. Identify
them on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer book with
the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following
format.
S. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) Place where Congress Session of 1920 took place.
(ii) State which was known as North-East Frontier agency.
(iii) State where Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader went on an indefinite fast that led to his death.

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(iv) State which was earlier known as Madras Presidency.

26. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify any two leaders that won the 1977 elections.
(ii) What is MISA?
(iii) Why was the Congress voted out of power?

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Section - E

27. Define climate change and discuss any three global initiatives on climate change in detail.
O
What is Kyoto Protocol? What is the importance of Kyoto Protocol? Is India a signatory to this?

28. Discuss the relationship between India and USA in the changing world order.
O
Analyse India’s role in the Non-Aligned Movement.

29. “Political parties are no longer aligned on ideological grounds in the new era of coalition politics”.
Explain.
O
Write about the establishment of Mandal Commission? Write any four recommendations of the
commission.

30. “The regional parties have started playing an important role in the Indian political system”. Reflect on
the given statement.
O
Name any three provisions of Article 370 which gives a special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Analyse the two opposite reactions provoked by this special status among the people.

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Page 1 Sample Paper 15 Political Science Class 12

Sample Paper 15
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(iii)Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words
each.
(iv) Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words
each.
(v) Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
(vi) Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170
words.
(vii) There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Section - A

1. The Headquarter of UNESCO is in______.


(a) Paris, France (b) London, United Kingdom
(c) Geneva, Switzerland (d) New York, United States of America

2. Choose the incorrect statement.


(a) ASEAN encourage negotiations over conflicts in the region
(b) ASEAN helps to accelerate economic growth
(c) ASEAN promotes regional peace and stability
(d) ASEAN encourages the practice of NATO countries

3. The influence of Arab Spring could also be seen in_______.


(a) Libya (b) Syria
(c) Yemen and Bahrain (d) All of these

4. Who took command over Pakistan after its first Constitution was framed?
(a) General Ayub Khan
(b) Hiyaqat Ayub Khan
(c) Aydul Gaffar Khan
(d) Mohammed Ali Jinnah

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5. Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from the year______.


(a) 1947 to 1972 (b) 1947 to 1961
(c) 1947 to 1975 (d) 1947 to 1971

6. When did the government remove the barriers for investment in India?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993
(c) 1990 (d) 1991

7. Which of these is not the objective of SAARC?


(a) Friendly relations among members
(b) Military Cooperation
(c) Cooperation through multilateral ways
(d) Peaceful relations among members

8. Choose the correct statement about the South Asian contuses.


1. Maldives, an island country attained full political independence from the British in 1965.
2. Nepal is a part of India’s Look East Policy that wants to link up South-East Asia through Myanmar.
3. Sri Lanka is one of India’s largest trading partners among the SAARC countries.
4. Nepal was a Hindu kingdom and became constitutional monarchy in modern period.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All are correct

9. Arrange the following in a chronological order.


1. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
2. Fall of the Berlin Wall
3. Disintegration of Solviet Union
4. Operation Enduring Freedom
Codes
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

10. The headquarter of World Health Organisation is in______.


(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, United States of America
(c) London, United Kingdom
(d) Paris, France

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11. Assertion (A) : India was opposed to the indefinite extension of NPT is 1995 and refused to sign NPT
and CTBT both.
Reason (R) : India considers these treaties to be discriminatory and is against the monopoly of five
nuclear weapon powers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

12. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is essential for the economic growth of the country.
Reason (R) : Sustainable development ensures that environment-friendly measures are adopted for
carrying out the production process.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section-B

13. When was the reorganisation of North-East India completed and how?

14. What is economic planning and its importance in the Indian context?

15. What do you mean by alliance politics?

16. Explain the term Environmental Movement or activism.

17. What is the relationship between traditional security and co-operation?

18. In your opinion, how far is India justified in choosing the policy of non-alignment?

Section-C

19. What is WTO? When was it set up and what are its functions?

20. Explain the term ‘Privy Purse’? What was the reason behind it being abolished in 1970 by Indira Gandhi?

21. How can the Euro pose a danger to the US dollar?


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22. How has globalisation enhanced the position of a state?

23. Explain any three lessons learnt from the Emergency of 1975.

Section-D

24. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into smaller principalities
of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the
states should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel, India’s Deputy Prime Minister and
the Home Minister during the crucial period, immediately after Independence, played a historic role in
negotiating with the rulers of Princely States in bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
(i) Which government has been referred to as the interim government?
(a) Regional Parties Government
(b) State Government
(c) Indian National Congress Government
(d) None of these
(ii) How the leader played a historic role in the integration of states?
(a) By not trying to control through army rule
(b) By skillfully negotiating
(c) By forcefully convincing
(d) None of the above
(iii)Why did the Muslim League oppose the Indian National Congress?
(a) It favours the idea of secularism.
(b) It beliefs in the idea of democracy.
(c) It favoured that states should be free to adopt any course they wish.
(d) All of the above
(iv)Who plays a historic role in the integration of states of India?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

25. In the given outline political map of world, four countries have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify
these on the basis of the information given below and write the correct names in your answer book along
with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that
follows.
S.No. of the Information Used Concerned Alphabet Name of the Countries
(i)
(ii)
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Page 5 Sample Paper 15 Political Science Class 12

(iii)
(iv)
(i) To which country the UN Secretary General Dag Hammarskjold-Annan belonged?
(ii) To which country the UN Secretary General Kurt Waldheim belonged?
(iii) To which country the UN Secretary General Bourtoros Boutros-Ghali belonged?
(iv) To which country the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan belonged?

26. Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.

(i) In which year the bipolar structure of world politics ended?


(ii) Name two association of nations emerged in Europe and Asia.
(iii) What is indicated by the first picture?

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Section - E

27. Was the declaration of emergency in 1975 necessary? Support your answer with three suitable arguments.
O
What are the three democratic upsurges that emersed in the post independence history of India? Explain.

28. Analyse the First Gulf War. Why was it called a computer war and a video game war?
O
Explain any six outcomes of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

29. Describe any six issues of consensus to show that in the midst fo severe competitions and conflicts a
consensus has appeared among most political parties.
O
Analyse the rise and fall of any two coalition governments from the year 1989 to 2004.

30. Explain the contribution of Jawaharlal Nehru in formulating the Foreign Policy of India.
O
Discuss the strained relationship between India and China which led to the Chinese invasion of 1962?

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CBSE Class 12th Political Science
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