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IGCSE

Chemistry
Past papers

Dr. Maha Faried


2

‫عمرو خالد قنديل‬/‫صدقة جارية لروح املرحوم د‬


Hello superstars!
There is nothing better than the happy rush of adrenaline when you realize that
all your hard work has paid off. That moment of confusion followed by days and
days of happiness and gratefulness is above everything else. You realize that you
are one step closer to achieving your dreams, and being a part of a community
you are proud of. You will be an important decision maker in the future of the
society, as well as be remembered for all your hard and dedicated work.
However, there will be bumps and trips in the road, but they are tests to
distinguish the ones who can bounce back higher than those who need a stop to
recharge. Always remember it is okay to be both.
No one puts expectations and pressure on you except yourself. It’s with sheer
and utter determination that you run along the path to success, its going to be
hard, but hardship always makes the taste of success after you reach the finish
line even sweeter. It’s all in your hands, so no matter what you choose, all the
credit goes to you. It is with complete and overflowing honor and happiness that
we present to you this Chemistry classified, that works along Dr. Maha Faried’s
charitable and honorable IGCSE course, with everything in honor of the late Dr.
Amr Kendeel, who left us all too early, may God rest his soul in peace. And just
like how everyone who knew him would testify that he was a light leading
everyone foreward, I hope that even after his death, he continues to influence
people’s lives and lead them to the better.
“I still struggle with the same problems as ten years ago. I succeed in small
matters, but the real goal remains unattainable, even though it sometimes
seems palpably close. It is hard yet rewarding, hard because the goal is beyond
my abilities, but rewarding because it makes one oblivious to the distractions of
everyday life.” ~ Albert Einstein.
Good Luck to All.
Content
0620/21/M/J/1_____1 0620/21/M/J/20__293
0620/22/M/J/17___17 0620/22/M/J/20__309
0620/23/M/J/17___33 0620/23/M/J/20__325
0620/21/O/N/17___49 0620/21/O/N/20__341
0620/22/O/N/17___65 0620/22/O/N/20__357
0620/23/O/N/17___81 0620/23/O/N/20__373
0620/21/M/J/18___97 0620/21/M/J/21__389
0620/22/M/J/18__113 0620/22/M/J/21__405
0620/23/M/J/18__129 0620/23/M/J/21__421
0620/21/O/N/18__145 0620/21/O/N/21__437
0620/22/O/N/18__161 0620/22/O/N/21__453
0620/23/O/N/18__177 0620/23/O/N/21__469
0620/21/M/J/19__193 0620/21/M/J/22__485
0620/22/M/J/19__209 0620/22/M/J/22__501
0620/23/M/J/19__229 0620/23/M/J/22__517
0620/21/O/N/19__245 0620/21/O/N/22__533
0620/22/O/N/19__261 0620/22/O/N/22__549
0620/23/O/N/19__277 0620/23/O/N/22__565
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8889844006*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB17 O6_0620_21_VI_LIL/FP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

1
2

1 Small crystals of purple KMnO4 (Mr = 158) and orange K2Cr2O7 (Mr = 294) were placed at the
centres of separate petri dishes filled with agar jelly. They were left to stand under the same
physical conditions.

After some time, the colour of each substance had spread out as shown.

dish 1 dish 2

KMnO4 K2Cr2O7

The lengths of the arrows indicate the relative distances travelled by particles of each substance.

Which statement is correct?

A Diffusion is faster in dish 1 because the mass of the particles is greater.


B Diffusion is faster in dish 2 because the mass of the particles is greater.
C Diffusion is slower in dish 1 because the mass of the particles is smaller.
D Diffusion is slower in dish 2 because the mass of the particles is greater.

2 Pure water has a boiling point of 100 °C and a freezing point of 0 °C.

What is the boiling point and freezing point of a sample of aqueous sodium chloride?

boiling point / °C freezing point / °C

A 98 –2
B 98 2
C 102 –2
D 102 2

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

2
3

3 A chromatogram obtained from the chromatography of four substances is shown.

Which substance has an Rf value of 0.6?

solvent front

10.5 cm

5.8 cm 6.3 cm
5.5 cm 5.2 cm
baseline
A B C D

4 Sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.

Which statements describe what happens to the sodium atoms in this reaction?

1 Sodium atoms form positive ions.


2 Sodium atoms form negative ions.
3 Sodium atoms gain electrons.
4 Sodium atoms lose electrons.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

5 Diamond is extremely hard and does not conduct electricity.

Which statement explains these properties?

A It has a lattice of positive carbon ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.


B It has delocalised electrons and each carbon atom forms three covalent bonds with other
carbon atoms.
C It has no delocalised electrons and each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds with other
carbon atoms.
D It has strong ionic bonds between each carbon atom.

6 Which statement about metals is not correct?

A Metals are malleable because the metal ions can slide over one another.
B Metals conduct electricity because electrons can move through the lattice.
C Metals consist of a giant lattice of metal ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D Metals have high melting points because of the strong attraction between the metal ions.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17 [Turn over

3
4

7 Aluminium reacts with fluorine.

xAl (s) + y F2(g) → zAl F3(s)

Which values of x, y and z balance the equation?

x y z

A 1 2 1
B 2 3 2
C 3 2 3
D 4 3 4

8 Carbon monoxide burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide.

2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)

Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced from 14 g of carbon monoxide?

A 22 g B 28 g C 44 g D 88 g

9 Which statement about electrolysis is correct?

A Electrons move through the electrolyte from the cathode to the anode.
B Electrons move towards the cathode in the external circuit.
C Negative ions move towards the anode in the external circuit.
D Positive ions move through the electrolyte towards the anode during electrolysis.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

4
5

10 The reactivity series for a number of different metals is shown.

most reactive least reactive


magnesium zinc iron copper silver platinum

The diagram shows different metal strips dipped into an electrolyte.

metal strip metal strip

electrolyte

Which pair of metals produces the highest voltage?

A copper and magnesium


B magnesium and platinum
C magnesium and zinc
D silver and platinum

11 Some properties of four fuels are shown in the table.

Which fuel is a gas at room temperature and makes two products when it burns in a plentiful
supply of air?

melting point boiling point


fuel formula
/ °C / °C

A hydrogen H2 –259 –253


B methane CH4 –182 –164
C octane C8H18 –57 126
D wax C31H64 60 400

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17 [Turn over

5
6

12 Which statements about exothermic and endothermic reactions are correct?

1 During an exothermic reaction, heat is given out.


2 The temperature of an endothermic reaction goes up because heat is taken in.
3 Burning methane in the air is an exothermic reaction.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Chlorine reacts with ethane to produce chloroethane and hydrogen chloride.

H H H H

H C C H + Cl Cl H C C Cl + H Cl

H H H H

The reaction is exothermic.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–Cl +340
C–C +350
C–H +410
Cl –Cl +240
H–Cl +430

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –1420 kJ / mol
B –120 kJ / mol
C +120 kJ / mol
D +1420 kJ / mol

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

6
7

14 When sulfur is heated it undergoes a ......1...... change as it melts.

Further heating causes the sulfur to undergo a ......2...... change and form sulfur dioxide.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A chemical chemical
B chemical physical
C physical chemical
D physical physical

15 A student was investigating the reaction between marble chips and dilute hydrochloric acid.

gas syringe

bung

marble
chips 25 cm3 of dilute
hydrochloric acid

Which changes slow down the rate of reaction?

temperature concentration surface area


of acid of acid of marble chips

A decrease decrease decrease


B decrease decrease increase
C increase decrease decrease
D increase increase increase

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17 [Turn over

7
8

16 Nitrogen, hydrogen and ammonia gases are placed inside a container. The container is then
sealed. After some time, an equilibrium forms.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

Which statement describes the equilibrium in this container?

A The amount of ammonia remains constant from the moment the container is sealed.
B The amounts of ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen in the container are always equal.
C The rate of formation of ammonia is equal to the rate of decomposition of ammonia.
D The rate of formation of ammonia is faster than the rate of decomposition of ammonia.

17 An example of a redox reaction is shown.

Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+.


B Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+.
C Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+.
D Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+.

18 Zinc oxide is amphoteric.

Which row describes the reactions of zinc oxide?

reaction with
reaction with
aqueous
hydrochloric acid
sodium hydroxide

A key
B = reaction occurs
C = reaction does not occur
D

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

8
9

19 Which row shows how the hydrogen ion concentration and pH of ethanoic acid compare to those
of hydrochloric acid of the same concentration?

ethanoic acid compared to


hydrochloric acid
hydrogen ion
pH
concentration

A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower

20 A pure sample of the insoluble salt barium carbonate can be made using the method given.

step 1 Dissolve barium chloride in water.


step 2 Separately dissolve sodium carbonate in water.
step 3 Mix the two solutions together.
step 4 Filter the mixture.
step 5
step 6 Dry the residue between two sheets of filter paper.

Which instruction is missing from step 5?

A Heat the residue to dryness.


B Heat the residue to the point of crystallisation.
C Place the filtrate in an evaporating basin.
D Wash the residue with water.

21 Substance X reacts with warm dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas which decolourises
acidified aqueous potassium manganate(VII).

Substance X gives a yellow flame in a flame test.

What is X?

A potassium chloride
B potassium sulfite
C sodium chloride
D sodium sulfite

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17 [Turn over

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10

22 Which element is less reactive than the other members of its group in the Periodic Table?

A astatine
B caesium
C fluorine
D rubidium

23 The elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.

carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead
flerovium

What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

A The proton number of the elements increases.


B The elements become more metallic.
C The elements have more electrons in their outer shells.
D The elements have more electron shells.

24 Why are weather balloons sometimes filled with helium rather than hydrogen?

A Helium is found in air.


B Helium is less dense than hydrogen.
C Helium is more dense than hydrogen.
D Helium is unreactive.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

10
11

25 Metal X is added to a colourless aqueous solution of the sulfate of metal Y.

A coloured solution is formed and metal Y is deposited at the bottom of the beaker.

Which row describes elements X and Y and their relative reactivity?

type of element relative reactivity

A X is a transition element X is more reactive than Y


B X is a transition element Y is more reactive than X
C Y is a transition element X is more reactive than Y
D Y is a transition element Y is more reactive than X

26 Element E:

• forms an alloy

• has a basic oxide

• is below hydrogen in the reactivity series.

What is E?

A carbon
B copper
C sulfur
D zinc

27 Zinc metal is extracted from its ore zinc blende in a similar method to that used to extract iron
from hematite.

In which way is zinc extraction different from iron extraction?

A Carbon and carbon monoxide are the main reducing agents.


B Hot air at the base of the furnace reacts with coke to keep the furnace hot.
C The metal is removed as a vapour at the top of the furnace.
D The metal oxide is added into the top of the furnace.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17 [Turn over

11
12

28 Stainless steel is an alloy of iron and other metals. It is strong and does not rust but it costs much
more than normal steel.

What is not made from stainless steel?

A cutlery
B pipes in a chemical factory
C railway lines
D saucepans

29 The diagram shows some uses of water in the home.

1 2 3

For which uses is it important for the water to have been treated?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

30 Oxides of nitrogen are found in polluted air.

Which statement about oxides of nitrogen is correct?

A Oxides of nitrogen are formed by the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen during the fractional
distillation of liquid air.
B Oxides of nitrogen are formed in a car engine by the reaction of petrol with nitrogen from the
air.
C Oxides of nitrogen are removed from exhaust gases by reaction with carbon dioxide in a
catalytic converter.
D Oxides of nitrogen are removed from exhaust gases by reduction in a catalytic converter.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

12
13

31 Photosynthesis and respiration are important natural processes.

Which statement is correct?

A Carbon dioxide is formed by the reaction of glucose with water during photosynthesis.
B Carbon dioxide is removed from the air by respiration.
C Glucose reacts with water to form oxygen during respiration.
D Photosynthesis produces glucose and oxygen.

32 Which row gives the conditions for the Haber process?

pressure
temperature / °C catalyst
/ atm

A 200 2 V2O5
B 200 450 Fe
C 450 200 Fe
D 500 250 V2O5

33 Which statement about sulfuric acid is correct?

A It is made by the Haber process.


B It is made in the atmosphere by the action of lightning.
C It reacts with ammonia to produce a fertiliser.
D It reacts with copper metal to produce hydrogen gas.

34 Which statement is not correct?

A Converting limestone into lime is a thermal decomposition reaction.


B Flue gas desulfurisation is a neutralisation reaction.
C In the extraction of iron, calcium carbonate is converted into calcium oxide.
D Slaked lime is added to soil as a fertiliser.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17 [Turn over

13
14

35 Which fraction of petroleum is not matched to its correct use?

fraction use

A bitumen making roads


B gasoline fuel for cars
C kerosene fuel for ships
D naphtha chemical industry

36 The diagram shows the structures of two organic molecules.

H H H H O H

H C C O H H C C C C H

H H H H H H

Which statement about these molecules is not correct?

A They are both alcohols.


B They both produce carbon dioxide and water when they burn in oxygen.
C They contain different functional groups.
D They have the same general formula.

37 The diagram shows part of the molecule of a polymer.

H H H H H H H H H

C C C C C C C C C

H H H H H H H H H

Which diagram shows the monomer from which this polymer could be manufactured?

A B C D
H H H H H H H

H C H H C C H C C H C C O H

H H H H H H H

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

14
15

38 Ethanol is manufactured by fermentation or by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene.

Which statement is correct?

A Fermentation uses a higher temperature than the catalytic addition of steam to ethene.
B Fermentation uses a non-renewable resource.
C The catalytic addition of steam to ethene produces purer ethanol than fermentation.
D The catalytic addition of steam to ethene uses a biological catalyst.

39 The structure of an ester is shown.

H H O
H C C C H

H H O C H

Which row is correct?

names of the carboxylic acid and


name of ester
the alcohol used to form the ester

A methyl propanoate methanoic acid and propanol


B methyl propanoate methanol and propanoic acid
C propyl methanoate methanoic acid and propanol
D propyl methanoate methanol and propanoic acid

40 Keratin is a protein that is found in human hair.

Keratin is chemically broken down to produce amino acids.

What is the name of this chemical process?

A catalysis
B hydration
C hydrolysis
D polymerisation

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/M/J/17

15
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2017
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/M/J/17
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

16
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6632393932*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 06_0620_22/2RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

17
2

1 Small crystals of purple KMnO4 (Mr = 158) and orange K2Cr2O7 (Mr = 294) were placed at the
centres of separate petri dishes filled with agar jelly. They were left to stand under the same
physical conditions.

After some time, the colour of each substance had spread out as shown.

dish 1 dish 2

KMnO4 K2Cr2O7

The lengths of the arrows indicate the relative distances travelled by particles of each substance.

Which statement is correct?

A Diffusion is faster in dish 1 because the mass of the particles is greater.


B Diffusion is faster in dish 2 because the mass of the particles is greater.
C Diffusion is slower in dish 1 because the mass of the particles is smaller.
D Diffusion is slower in dish 2 because the mass of the particles is greater.

2 Impurities change the melting and boiling points of substances.

Sodium chloride is added to a sample of pure water.

How does the addition of sodium chloride affect the melting point and boiling point of the water?

melting point boiling point

A increases increases
B increases decreases
C decreases increases
D decreases decreases

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

18
3

3 The diagram shows a chromatogram of four substances.

Which substance has an Rf value of approximately 0.32?

solvent front
19 cm

14 cm
12 cm

6 cm

4 cm

baseline
0 cm
A B C D

4 Which element does not form a stable ion with the same electronic structure as argon?

A aluminium
B chlorine
C phosphorus
D potassium

5 Graphite and diamond are both forms of the element carbon.

Which row shows the number of other carbon atoms that each carbon atom is covalently bonded
to in graphite and diamond?

graphite diamond

A 3 3
B 3 4
C 4 3
D 4 4

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17 [Turn over

19
4

6 Which statement describes metallic bonding?

A The attraction between a lattice of negative ions and delocalised protons.


B The attraction between a lattice of positive ions and delocalised electrons.
C The attraction between delocalised protons and electrons.
D The attraction between oppositely charged ions.

7 Which equations are balanced?

1 Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

2 ZnCO3 + 2HCl → ZnCl 2 + CO2 + 2H2O

3 Mg(NO3)2 + NaOH → Mg(OH)2 + 2NaNO3

4 CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

8 Calcium carbide, CaC2, reacts with water to form ethyne, C2H2, and calcium hydroxide.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l) → C2H2(g) + Ca(OH)2(s)

Which volume of ethyne is produced when 6 g of water react completely with calcium carbide?

A 4 dm3 B 8 dm3 C 36 dm3 D 72 dm3

9 Which statement about electrolysis is correct?

A Electrons move through the electrolyte from the cathode to the anode.
B Electrons move towards the cathode in the external circuit.
C Negative ions move towards the anode in the external circuit.
D Positive ions move through the electrolyte towards the anode during electrolysis.

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

20
5

10 The reactivity series for a number of different metals is shown.

most reactive least reactive


magnesium zinc iron copper silver platinum

The diagram shows different metal strips dipped into an electrolyte.

metal strip metal strip

electrolyte

Which pair of metals produces the highest voltage?

A copper and magnesium


B magnesium and platinum
C magnesium and zinc
D silver and platinum

11 Which statement about fuels is correct?

A Heat energy can only be produced by burning fuels.


B Hydrogen is used as a fuel although it is difficult to store.
C Methane is a good fuel because it produces only water when burned.
D Uranium is burned in air to produce energy.

12 Which statements about exothermic and endothermic reactions are correct?

1 During an exothermic reaction, heat is given out.


2 The temperature of an endothermic reaction goes up because heat is taken in.
3 Burning methane in the air is an exothermic reaction.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17 [Turn over

21
6

13 The equation for the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine is shown.

H2(g) + Cl 2(g) → 2HCl (g)

The reaction is exothermic.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

Cl –Cl +240
H–Cl +430
H–H +436

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –1536 kJ / mol
B –184 kJ / mol
C +184 kJ / mol
D +246 kJ / mol

14 A gas is produced when calcium carbonate is heated.

Which type of change is this?

A chemical
B exothermic
C physical
D separation

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

22
7

15 A student was investigating the reaction between marble chips and dilute hydrochloric acid.

gas syringe

bung

marble
chips 25 cm3 of dilute
hydrochloric acid

Which changes slow down the rate of reaction?

temperature concentration surface area


of acid of acid of marble chips

A decrease decrease decrease


B decrease decrease increase
C increase decrease decrease
D increase increase increase

16 The reaction used to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is reversible.

An equilibrium can be established between ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen.

Which statement describes the equilibrium?

A Both the forward reaction and the backward reaction have the same rate.
B The rate of the backward reaction is greater than the rate of the forward reaction.
C The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the backward reaction.
D The forward and backward reactions have both stopped.

17 An example of a redox reaction is shown.

Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+.


B Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+.
C Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+.
D Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+.

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17 [Turn over

23
8

18 Which type of oxide is aluminium oxide?

A acidic
B amphoteric
C basic
D neutral

19 Which statements about a weak acid, such as ethanoic acid, are correct?

1 It reacts with a carbonate.


2 It does not neutralise aqueous sodium hydroxide solution.
3 It turns red litmus blue.
4 It is only partially ionised in aqueous solution.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

20 Silver chloride is a white solid which is insoluble in water.

Which statement describes how a sample of pure silver chloride can be made?

A Add aqueous silver nitrate to aqueous sodium chloride and then filter.
B Add aqueous silver nitrate to dilute hydrochloric acid, evaporate and then crystallise.
C Add silver carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid, evaporate and then crystallise.
D Add silver to dilute hydrochloric acid, filter and then wash the residue.

21 Dilute sulfuric acid is added to two separate aqueous solutions, X and Y. The observations are
shown.

solution X white precipitate


solution Y bubbles of a colourless gas

Which row shows the ions present in the solutions?

solution X solution Y

A Ba2+ CO32–
B Ca2+ Cl –
C Cu2+ CO32–
D Fe2+ NO3–

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

24
9

22 Which element is less reactive than the other members of its group in the Periodic Table?

A astatine
B caesium
C fluorine
D rubidium

23 The elements oxygen and sulfur are in the same group of the Periodic Table.

Which statement about oxygen and sulfur is not correct?

A They are non-metals.


B They have giant covalent structures.
C They have six electrons in their outer shells.
D They react together to form an acidic oxide.

24 Why are weather balloons sometimes filled with helium rather than hydrogen?

A Helium is found in air.


B Helium is less dense than hydrogen.
C Helium is more dense than hydrogen.
D Helium is unreactive.

25 Which process is involved in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende?

A Cryolite is added to lower the melting point of zinc blende.


B Molten zinc blende is electrolysed.
C Zinc blende is heated with carbon.
D Zinc blende is roasted in air.

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17 [Turn over

25
10

26 Element E:

• forms an alloy

• has a basic oxide

• is below hydrogen in the reactivity series.

What is E?

A carbon
B copper
C sulfur
D zinc

27 A list of metals is shown.

aluminium
copper
iron
magnesium
silver
zinc

Which metal will displace all of the other metals from aqueous solutions of their salts?

A aluminium
B iron
C magnesium
D zinc

28 Stainless steel is an alloy of iron and other metals. It is strong and does not rust but it costs much
more than normal steel.

What is not made from stainless steel?

A cutlery
B pipes in a chemical factory
C railway lines
D saucepans

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

26
11

29 The diagram shows some uses of water in the home.

1 2 3

For which uses is it important for the water to have been treated?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

30 The carbon cycle includes the processes combustion, photosynthesis and respiration.

Which row shows how each process changes the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

combustion photosynthesis respiration

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases increases
D increases increases decreases

31 Which statement about the conditions used in the Haber process is not correct?

A A high temperature is used because the forward reaction is exothermic.


B A high pressure is used because there are fewer moles of gas in the products than in the
reactants.
C An iron catalyst is used to increase the rate of the forward reaction.
D The unreacted hydrogen and nitrogen are recycled to increase the amount of ammonia
produced.

32 Which chemical reaction decreases pollution in the air?

A S + O2 → SO2

B N2 + O2 → 2NO

C 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O

D 2NO + 2CO → 2CO2 + N2

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17 [Turn over

27
12

33 Which statement about sulfuric acid is correct?

A It is made by the Haber process.


B It is made in the atmosphere by the action of lightning.
C It reacts with ammonia to produce a fertiliser.
D It reacts with copper metal to produce hydrogen gas.

34 Statements about methods of manufacture and uses of calcium oxide are shown.

1 It is manufactured by reacting acids with calcium carbonate.


2 It is manufactured by heating calcium carbonate.
3 It is used to desulfurise flue gases.
4 It is used to treat alkaline soil.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

35 The industrial fractional distillation of petroleum is shown.

refinery gas

gasoline fraction

naphtha fraction

kerosene fraction

diesel oil

fuel oil fraction

petroleum Y

lubricating fraction
and bitumen

Which process happens at Y?

A burning
B condensation
C cracking
D evaporation

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

28
13

36 Which statement about homologous series is not correct?

A Alkenes have the same general formula, CnH2n+2.


B Each member of the homologous series of alkanes differs from the next by CH2.
C The members of a homologous series all have similar chemical properties.
D The members of a homologous series all have the same functional group.

37 The diagram shows part of the molecule of a polymer.

H H H H H H H H H

C C C C C C C C C

H H H H H H H H H

Which diagram shows the monomer from which this polymer could be manufactured?

A B C D
H H H H H H H

H C H H C C H C C H C C O H

H H H H H H H

38 Ethanol is manufactured by fermentation or by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene.

What is an advantage of ethanol manufacture by fermentation instead of by the catalytic addition


of steam to ethene?

A Ethanol manufactured by fermentation is purified by distillation.


B Ethanol manufacture by fermentation produces purer ethanol.
C Ethanol manufacture by fermentation uses large areas of land.
D Ethanol manufacture by fermentation uses renewable resources.

39 The formula of an ester is CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH2CH3.

Which acid and alcohol react together to make the ester?

acid alcohol

A butanoic acid butanol


B butanoic acid propanol
C propanoic acid butanol
D propanoic acid propanol

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17 [Turn over

29
14

40 Polyesters and polyamides are types of synthetic polymer.

Which statements are correct?

1 They are made by addition polymerisation.


2 They are made by condensation polymerisation.
3 The monomers from which they are made are unsaturated hydrocarbons.
4 The monomers from which they are made contain reactive functional groups at their
ends.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

30
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/M/J/17

31
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2017
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/M/J/17
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

32
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0971587250*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 06_0620_23/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

33
2

1 Small crystals of purple KMnO4 (Mr = 158) and orange K2Cr2O7 (Mr = 294) were placed at the
centres of separate petri dishes filled with agar jelly. They were left to stand under the same
physical conditions.

After some time, the colour of each substance had spread out as shown.

dish 1 dish 2

KMnO4 K2Cr2O7

The lengths of the arrows indicate the relative distances travelled by particles of each substance.

Which statement is correct?

A Diffusion is faster in dish 1 because the mass of the particles is greater.


B Diffusion is faster in dish 2 because the mass of the particles is greater.
C Diffusion is slower in dish 1 because the mass of the particles is smaller.
D Diffusion is slower in dish 2 because the mass of the particles is greater.

2 A compound, X, has a melting point of 71 °C and a boiling point of 375 °C.

Which statement about X is correct?

A It is a liquid at 52 °C and a gas at 175 °C.

B It is a liquid at 69 °C and a gas at 380 °C.

C It is a liquid at 75 °C and a gas at 350 °C.

D It is a liquid at 80 °C and a gas at 400 °C.

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

34
3

3 A student used chromatography to analyse a green food colouring.

The chromatogram obtained is shown.

solvent front
blue spot

yellow spot

baseline

The table lists some yellow food dyes and their Rf values.

Which yellow food dye does the green food colouring contain?

yellow food dye Rf value

A Quinolene Yellow 0.48


B Sunset Yellow 0.32
C tartrazine 0.69
D Yellow 2G 0.82

4 The electronic structures of atoms Q and R are shown.

Q R

Q and R form an ionic compound.

What is the formula of the compound?

A QR7 B Q2R4 C QR D Q7R

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17 [Turn over

35
4

5 Which substance is a macromolecule?

A ammonia
B carbon dioxide
C diamond
D water

6 The diagram shows metallic bonding.

Which labels are correct?

X Y

A atomic nucleus outer electron


B metal atom mobile electron
C metal ion mobile electron
D positive ion negative ion

7 Aqueous iron(III) sulfate and aqueous sodium hydroxide react to give a precipitate of
iron(III) hydroxide and a solution of sodium sulfate.

What is the balanced equation for this reaction?

A Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) + Na2SO4(aq)

B Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + 3NaOH(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq)

C Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Fe(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq)

D 2Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 4Fe(OH)3(s) + 6Na2SO4(aq)

8 The equation for the reaction between sodium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid is shown.

Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2

What is the maximum volume of carbon dioxide produced when 26.5 g of sodium carbonate react
with dilute hydrochloric acid?

A 6 dm3 B 12 dm3 C 18 dm3 D 24 dm3

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

36
5

9 Which statement about electrolysis is correct?

A Electrons move through the electrolyte from the cathode to the anode.
B Electrons move towards the cathode in the external circuit.
C Negative ions move towards the anode in the external circuit.
D Positive ions move through the electrolyte towards the anode during electrolysis.

10 The reactivity series for a number of different metals is shown.

most reactive least reactive


magnesium zinc iron copper silver platinum

The diagram shows different metal strips dipped into an electrolyte.

metal strip metal strip

electrolyte

Which pair of metals produces the highest voltage?

A copper and magnesium


B magnesium and platinum
C magnesium and zinc
D silver and platinum

11 Heat energy is produced when hydrocarbons burn in air.

Which equations represent this statement?

1 C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O

2 C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O

3 CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17 [Turn over

37
6

12 Which statements about exothermic and endothermic reactions are correct?

1 During an exothermic reaction, heat is given out.


2 The temperature of an endothermic reaction goes up because heat is taken in.
3 Burning methane in the air is an exothermic reaction.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Hydrogen and chlorine react to form hydrogen chloride.

The reaction is exothermic.

H2(g) + Cl 2(g) → 2HCl (g)

The overall energy change for this reaction is –184 kJ / mol.

The table gives some of the bond energies involved.

bond energy in
bond
kJ / mol

H–Cl +430
H–H +436

What is the energy of the Cl–Cl bond?

A –240 kJ / mol
B –190 kJ / mol
C +190 kJ / mol
D +240 kJ / mol

14 Which changes are physical changes?

1 melting ice to form water


2 burning hydrogen to form water
3 adding sodium to water
4 boiling water to form steam

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

38
7

15 A student was investigating the reaction between marble chips and dilute hydrochloric acid.

gas syringe

bung

marble
chips 25 cm3 of dilute
hydrochloric acid

Which changes slow down the rate of reaction?

temperature concentration surface area


of acid of acid of marble chips

A decrease decrease decrease


B decrease decrease increase
C increase decrease decrease
D increase increase increase

16 Hydrogen is produced when methane reacts with steam.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which conditions produce the highest yield of hydrogen?

pressure temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17 [Turn over

39
8

17 An example of a redox reaction is shown.

Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+.


B Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+.
C Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+.
D Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+.

18 Which oxide is amphoteric?

A Al 2O3 B CaO C Na2O D SO2

19 Chloric(I) acid, HCl O, is formed when chlorine dissolves in water. It is a weak acid.

What is meant by the term weak acid ?

A It contains fewer hydrogen atoms than a strong acid.


B It is easily neutralised by a strong alkali.
C It is less concentrated than a strong acid.
D It is only partially ionised in solution.

20 Silver nitrate reacts with sodium chloride to produce silver chloride and sodium nitrate. The
equation for the reaction is shown.

AgNO3(aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + NaNO3(aq)

How is silver chloride separated from the reaction mixture?

A crystallisation
B distillation
C evaporation
D filtration

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

40
9

21 Aqueous sodium hydroxide reacts with an aqueous solution of compound Y to give a green
precipitate.

Aqueous ammonia also reacts with an aqueous solution of compound Y to give a green
precipitate.

In each case the precipitate is insoluble when an excess of reagent is added.

Which ion is present in Y?

A chromium(III)

B copper(II)

C iron(II)

D iron(III)

22 Which element is less reactive than the other members of its group in the Periodic Table?

A astatine
B caesium
C fluorine
D rubidium

23 Ununseptium (atomic number 117) is a man-made element that is below astatine in Group VII of
the Periodic Table.

What is the expected state of ununseptium at room temperature?

A a diatomic gas
B a liquid
C a monatomic gas
D a solid

24 Why are weather balloons sometimes filled with helium rather than hydrogen?

A Helium is found in air.


B Helium is less dense than hydrogen.
C Helium is more dense than hydrogen.
D Helium is unreactive.

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17 [Turn over

41
10

25 Which equation from the zinc extraction process shows the metal being produced by reduction?

A ZnO + C → Zn + CO

B 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

C Zn(g) → Zn(l)

D Zn(l) → Zn(s)

26 Element E:

• forms an alloy

• has a basic oxide

• is below hydrogen in the reactivity series.

What is E?

A carbon
B copper
C sulfur
D zinc

27 The section of the reactivity series shown includes a newly discovered element, symbol X.

The only oxide of X has the formula XO.

Ca
Mg
Fe
X
H
Cu

Which equation shows a reaction which occurs?

A Cu(s) + X2+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + X(s)

B 2X(s) + Cu2+(aq) → 2X+(aq) + Cu(s)

C X(s) + Fe2O3(s) → 2Fe(s) + 3XO(s)

D X(s) + 2HCl (aq) → XCl 2(aq) + H2(g)

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

42
11

28 Stainless steel is an alloy of iron and other metals. It is strong and does not rust but it costs much
more than normal steel.

What is not made from stainless steel?

A cutlery
B pipes in a chemical factory
C railway lines
D saucepans

29 The diagram shows some uses of water in the home.

1 2 3

For which uses is it important for the water to have been treated?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

30 The carbon cycle describes how carbon dioxide gas is added to or removed from the
atmosphere.

Which row describes the movement of carbon dioxide during each process?

photosynthesis combustion respiration


A added to the added to the removed from
atmosphere atmosphere the atmosphere
B added to the removed from added to the
atmosphere the atmosphere atmosphere
C removed from added to the added to the
the atmosphere atmosphere atmosphere
D removed from added to the removed from
the atmosphere atmosphere the atmosphere

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17 [Turn over

43
12

31 Which row gives the catalyst for the Haber process and the sources of the raw materials?

source of source of
catalyst
hydrogen nitrogen

A iron electrolysis fertiliser


B iron methane air
C vanadium pentoxide methane air
D vanadium pentoxide methane fertiliser

32 Petrol burns in a car engine to produce waste gases which leave through the car exhaust.

One of these waste gases is an oxide of nitrogen.

Which statement describes how this oxide of nitrogen is formed?

A Carbon dioxide reacts with nitrogen in the catalytic converter.


B Nitrogen reacts with oxygen in the car engine.
C Nitrogen reacts with oxygen in the catalytic converter.
D Petrol combines with nitrogen in the car engine.

33 Which statement about sulfuric acid is correct?

A It is made by the Haber process.


B It is made in the atmosphere by the action of lightning.
C It reacts with ammonia to produce a fertiliser.
D It reacts with copper metal to produce hydrogen gas.

34 Two equations are shown.

reaction 1 CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

reaction 2 CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2

Which terms describe reactions 1 and 2?

reaction 1 reaction 2

A reduction hydration
B reduction hydrolysis
C thermal decomposition hydration
D thermal decomposition hydrolysis

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

44
13

35 Fuel oil, gasoline, kerosene and naphtha are four fractions obtained from the fractional distillation
of petroleum.

What is the order of the boiling points of these fractions?

highest boiling point → lowest boiling point

A fuel oil → kerosene → gasoline → naphtha


B fuel oil → kerosene → naphtha → gasoline
C gasoline → naphtha → kerosene → fuel oil
D naphtha → gasoline → kerosene → fuel oil

36 Butane and methylpropane are isomers with molecular formula C4H10.

Which statements are correct?

1 They have similar chemical properties.


2 They have the same general formula.
3 They have the same structural formula.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

37 The diagram shows part of the molecule of a polymer.

H H H H H H H H H

C C C C C C C C C

H H H H H H H H H

Which diagram shows the monomer from which this polymer could be manufactured?

A B C D
H H H H H H H

H C H H C C H C C H C C O H

H H H H H H H

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17 [Turn over

45
14

38 Ethanol can be produced by fermentation or by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene.

Which row shows an advantage and a disadvantage for each process?

catalytic addition
fermentation
of steam to ethene
advantage disadvantage advantage disadvantage
A batch slow continuous fast
process reaction process reaction
B fast continuous pure ethanol renewable
reaction process formed raw material
C renewable batch pure ethanol slow
raw material process formed reaction
D renewable impure ethanol fast finite raw
raw material formed reaction material

39 The structure of an ester is shown.

H H O
H C C C H H

H H O C C H

H H

Which alcohol and carboxylic acid produce this ester?

alcohol carboxylic acid

A ethanol ethanoic acid


B ethanol propanoic acid
C propanol ethanoic acid
D propanol propanoic acid

40 How can the amino acids in a protein be separated and identified?

A Add a locating agent to the protein.


B Hydrolyse the protein and then use chromatography.
C Polymerise the protein and then add a locating agent.
D Use chromatography on a solution of the protein.

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

46
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/M/J/17

47
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2017
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/M/J/17
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

48
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1790619835*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 11_0620_21/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

49
2

1 Which process causes the greatest increase in the distance between particles?

A condensation
B freezing
C melting
D sublimation

2 A student put 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a conical flask.

The student added 2.5 g of solid sodium carbonate and measured the change in temperature of
the mixture.

Which apparatus does the student need to use to obtain the most accurate results?

A balance, measuring cylinder, thermometer


B balance, pipette, stopwatch
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D burette, pipette, thermometer

3 The results obtained from a chromatogram are shown.

distance travelled / cm

solvent 5.0
substance X 3.0
substance Y 2.5

Which row gives the Rf values of substance X and substance Y?

Rf (X) Rf (Y)

A 0.5 0.6
B 0.6 0.5
C 1.6 2.0
D 2.0 1.6

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

50
3

4 Two statements about silicon(IV) oxide are given.

1 It is a hard substance.
2 It has a macromolecular structure with strong covalent bonds.

Which is correct?

A Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.


B Both statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.
C Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct.
D Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is not correct.

5 Which statement explains why isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties?

A They have a different number of neutrons in the nucleus.


B They have the same number of neutrons in the nucleus.
C They have the same number of outer shell electrons.
D They have the same number of protons as neutrons.

6 Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the outer shell electron arrangement in a molecule of
nitrogen?

A B C D

N N N N N N N N

7 The equation for the reaction between barium chloride solution and dilute sulfuric acid is shown.

BaCl 2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

Which row shows the state symbols for this equation?

BaCl 2 H2SO4 BaSO4 2HCl

A (aq) (aq) (s) (aq)


B (aq) (l) (s) (aq)
C (l) (aq) (s) (l)
D (aq) (l) (aq) (l)

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

51
4

8 A compound is analysed and found to contain 85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen.

What is its empirical formula?

A CH B CH2 C C2H4 D C6H

9 Which statements about the electrolysis of concentrated copper(II) chloride are correct?

1 Electrons are transferred from the cathode to the copper(II) ions.

2 Electrons move round the external circuit from the cathode to the anode.
3 Chloride ions are attracted to the anode.
4 Hydroxide ions transfer electrons to the cathode.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

10 Which metal combination produces the highest voltage reading in the cells shown?

A B

V V

Fe Cu Zn Cu

C D

V V

Cu Cu Mg Cu

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

52
5

11 The compound hydrazine is used as a rocket fuel. It has the structural formula shown.

H H

N N

H H

One of the reactions of hydrazine is shown. This reaction is exothermic.

N2H4 → N2 + 2H2

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
in kJ / mol

H–H +436
N–H +390
N–N +160
N≡N +945

What is the energy change for this reaction?

A –339 kJ / mol B –97 kJ / mol C +97 kJ / mol D +339 kJ / mol

12 Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

A The energy absorbed for bond breaking is greater than the energy released by bond
formation.
B The energy absorbed for bond breaking is less than the energy released by bond formation.
C The energy released by bond breaking is greater than the energy absorbed for bond
formation.
D The energy released by bond breaking is less than the energy absorbed for bond formation.

13 The mass of a beaker and its contents is plotted against time.

Which graph represents what happens when sodium carbonate reacts with an excess of dilute
hydrochloric acid in an open beaker?

A B C D

mass mass mass mass

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

53
6

14 Copper(II) oxide reacts with hydrogen.

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

Which row is correct?

oxidising agent reducing agent

A H2 CuO
B CuO H2
C H2O Cu
D Cu H2O

15 Ethanoic acid reacts slowly with calcium carbonate.

Which statements explain why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction?

1 The activation energy of the reaction is decreased.


2 There is an increase in collision rate.
3 The particles have more energy.
4 There will be fewer successful collisions.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

16 Methane reacts with steam to produce hydrogen and carbon monoxide.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CH4(g) + H2O(g) 3H2(g) + CO(g)

The reaction is reversible. The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which changes in temperature and pressure increase the equilibrium yield of carbon monoxide?

temperature pressure

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

54
7

17 Some properties of four oxides are listed.

Oxide 1 reacts with both acids and alkalis to form salts.

Oxide 2 reacts with acids to form salts but does not react with alkalis.

Oxide 3 reacts with alkalis to form salts but does not react with acids.

Oxide 4 does not react with acids or alkalis.

Which row describes the oxides?

oxide 1 oxide 2 oxide 3 oxide 4

A amphoteric acidic basic neutral


B amphoteric basic acidic neutral
C neutral acidic basic amphoteric
D neutral basic acidic amphoteric

18 What is not a typical characteristic of acids?

A They react with alkalis producing water.


B They react with all metals producing hydrogen.
C They react with carbonates producing carbon dioxide.
D They turn blue litmus paper red.

19 Zinc sulfate is made by reacting an excess of zinc oxide with dilute sulfuric acid.

The excess zinc oxide is then removed from the solution.

Which process is used to obtain solid zinc sulfate from the solution?

A crystallisation
B dissolving
C filtration
D fractional distillation

20 What is used to test for chlorine?

A a glowing splint
B damp litmus paper
C limewater

D potassium manganate(VII) solution

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

55
8

21 Which statements about the trends across a period of the Periodic Table are correct?

1 Aluminium is more metallic than sodium.


2 Beryllium is more metallic than carbon.
3 Boron is more metallic than lithium.
4 Magnesium is more metallic than silicon.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

22 Astatine is an element in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

Astatine is ......1...... reactive than iodine.

The melting point of astatine is ......2...... than the melting point of iodine.

Astatine is ......3...... in colour than bromine.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A less higher darker


B less lower lighter
C more higher darker
D more lower lighter

23 Which row describes the properties of a typical transition element?

forms coloured can act as


melting point
compounds a catalyst

A high no no
B high yes yes
C low no yes
D low yes no

24 Why is argon gas used to fill electric lamps?

A It conducts electricity.
B It glows when heated.
C It is less dense than air.
D It is not reactive.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

56
9

25 What is a property of all metals?

A conduct electricity
B hard
C low melting points
D react with water

26 Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of aluminium oxide.

Which statement is not correct?

A Aluminium ions are oxidised at the cathode.


B Carbon dioxide is made at the anode.
C Cryolite is added to lower the melting point of the aluminium oxide.
D The electrodes are made from graphite.

27 Which row describes how the metals are used?

mixed with zinc used to


to form brass galvanise iron

A aluminium tin
B aluminium zinc
C copper tin
D copper zinc

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

57
10

28 Information about the nitrates and carbonates of two metals, Q and R, is shown.

appearance solubility in water effect of heat


nitrate of Q white solid soluble colourless gas evolved which
relights a glowing splint
carbonate of Q white solid soluble no reaction
nitrate of R white solid soluble brown gas evolved
carbonate of R white solid insoluble colourless gas evolved which
turns limewater milky

Which statement is correct?

A Q is calcium and R is magnesium.


B Q is magnesium and R is sodium.
C Q is potassium and R is copper.
D Q is sodium and R is calcium.

29 The flow chart shows stages in the treatment of river water to produce drinking water.

river settling stage stage drinking


water tank X Y water

What occurs at stages X and Y?

X Y

A distillation chlorination
B distillation filtration
C filtration chlorination
D filtration distillation

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

58
11

30 Four iron nails had different metals wrapped around them.

The nails were placed in an open dish filled with water and left for a week.

Which iron nail has no protection against rusting?

A B
wrapped wrapped
in aluminium in copper

D C
wrapped wrapped
in zinc in magnesium

31 Ammonia is made by the Haber process.

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

What are the sources of the nitrogen and hydrogen used in the Haber process?

nitrogen hydrogen

A fertilisers reacting methane with steam


B fertilisers the air
C the air reacting methane with steam
D the air the air

32 Which process does not produce carbon dioxide?

A combustion of alkanes
B photosynthesis
C respiration
D thermal decomposition of limestone

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

59
12

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 40 200 Fe
B 40 200 V2O5
C 400 2 Fe
D 400 2 V2O5

34 Some marble chips (calcium carbonate) are heated strongly and substances X and Y are formed.

Substance X is a white solid that reacts with water, giving out heat. Substance Y is a colourless
gas.

What are substances X and Y?

X Y

A calcium chloride oxygen


B calcium hydroxide carbon dioxide
C calcium oxide carbon dioxide
D calcium sulfate oxygen

35 The structures of some organic molecules are shown.

1 2 3 4

H H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 H

C C H C C H H C C H H C C CH3

H3 C CH3 H CH3 H H H H

Which structures represent an alkane with four carbon atoms?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

60
13

36 Some of the fractions obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum are used as fuels for
vehicles.

Which two fractions are used as fuels for vehicles?

A bitumen fraction and gasoline fraction


B bitumen fraction and naphtha fraction
C gasoline fraction and kerosene fraction
D kerosene fraction and lubricating fraction

37 X, Y and Z are three hydrocarbons.

X CH2=CH2 Y CH3–CH=CH2 Z CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

What do compounds X, Y and Z have in common?

1 They are all alkenes.


2 They are all part of the same homologous series.
3 They all have the same boiling point.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 The diagram shows a reaction sequence.

X Y Z
carbon dioxide
butane ethene ethanol
and water

Which row names the processes X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A cracking fermentation respiration


B cracking hydration combustion
C distillation fermentation respiration
D distillation hydration combustion

39 Which pair of compounds can be used to prepare CH3CH2COOCH2CH3?

A ethanoic acid and ethanol


B ethanoic acid and propanol
C propanoic acid and ethanol
D propanoic acid and propanol

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

61
14

40 The structure of a synthetic polymer is shown.

O O O O O

C C N N C C N N C

H H H H

The structure shows that it is a ......1...... . It is formed by ......2...... polymerisation.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A polyamide addition
B polyamide condensation
C polyester addition
D polyester condensation

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

62
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0620/21/O/N/17

63
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2017
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/O/N/17
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

64
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*4951844726*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 11_0620_22/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

65
2

1 The diagram shows the arrangement of particles in the three states of matter.

P Q R

Solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) sublimes to gaseous carbon dioxide.

Which row describes the initial and final states?

initial final
state state

A P R
B Q P
C R P
D R Q

2 During an experiment a measurement is recorded in cm3.

Which apparatus is used?

A balance
B measuring cylinder
C stopclock
D thermometer

3 A student carried out paper chromatography on a mixture of amino acids.

The student sprayed the dried chromatogram with a locating agent.

What is the function of the locating agent?

A to dissolve the amino acids


B to form coloured spots with the amino acids
C to preserve the amino acids
D to stop the amino acids reacting

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

66
3

4 Which row describes silicon(IV) oxide?

has a is an conducts
giant structure acidic oxide electricity

A
B
C
D

5 Why do isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties?

A They have the same nucleon number.


B They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell.
C They have the same number of neutrons in the nucleus.
D They have the same number of protons as neutrons.

6 Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the outer shell electron arrangement in a molecule of
carbon dioxide?

A B

O C O O C O

C D

O C O O C O

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17 [Turn over

67
4

7 The equation for the reaction between phosphorus and oxygen is shown.

xP4 + yO2 → zP2O5

Which values of x, y and z balance the equation?

x y z

A 1 5 2
B 1 10 2
C 2 5 2
D 2 10 1

8 The relative molecular mass of an alcohol is 88.

Its percentage composition by mass is: C, 54.5%; H, 9.1%; O, 36.4%.

Which row shows the empirical formula and molecular formula for this alcohol?

empirical formula molecular formula

A C2H4O C2H4O
B C2H4O C4H8O2
C C4H8O2 C4H8O2
D C4H8O2 C2H4O

9 Which statements about the electrolysis of concentrated copper(II) chloride are correct?

1 Electrons are transferred from the cathode to the copper(II) ions.

2 Electrons move round the external circuit from the cathode to the anode.
3 Chloride ions are attracted to the anode.
4 Hydroxide ions transfer electrons to the cathode.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

68
5

10 Which metal combination produces the highest voltage reading in the cells shown?

A B

V V

Fe Cu Zn Cu

C D

V V

Cu Cu Mg Cu

11 The equation for the combustion of methane is shown.

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

The energy change for the combustion of methane is –890 kJ / mol.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H +410
O=O +496
H–O +460

What is the bond energy of the C=O bond?

A +49 kJ / mol B +841 kJ / mol C +1301 kJ / mol D +1335 kJ / mol

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17 [Turn over

69
6

12 Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

A The energy absorbed for bond breaking is greater than the energy released by bond
formation.
B The energy absorbed for bond breaking is less than the energy released by bond formation.
C The energy released by bond breaking is greater than the energy absorbed for bond
formation.
D The energy released by bond breaking is less than the energy absorbed for bond formation.

13 The mass of a beaker and its contents is plotted against time.

Which graph represents what happens when sodium carbonate reacts with an excess of dilute
hydrochloric acid in an open beaker?

A B C D

mass mass mass mass

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

14 Copper metal donates electrons to silver ions.

Zinc metal donates electrons to copper ions.

What is the strongest reducing agent?

A copper ions
B copper metal
C silver ions
D zinc metal

15 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.

1 The activation energy becomes lower.


2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

70
7

16 The formation of sulfur trioxide from sulfur dioxide is a reversible reaction.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which changes would increase the equilibrium yield of SO3?

1 increasing the pressure


2 lowering the temperature
3 decreasing the concentration of oxygen

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

17 Some properties of four oxides are listed.

Oxide 1 reacts with both acids and alkalis to form salts.

Oxide 2 reacts with acids to form salts but does not react with alkalis.

Oxide 3 reacts with alkalis to form salts but does not react with acids.

Oxide 4 does not react with acids or alkalis.

Which row describes the oxides?

oxide 1 oxide 2 oxide 3 oxide 4

A amphoteric acidic basic neutral


B amphoteric basic acidic neutral
C neutral acidic basic amphoteric
D neutral basic acidic amphoteric

18 What is not a typical characteristic of acids?

A They react with alkalis producing water.


B They react with all metals producing hydrogen.
C They react with carbonates producing carbon dioxide.
D They turn blue litmus paper red.

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17 [Turn over

71
8

19 Copper(II) sulfate can be prepared by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to sulfuric acid.

Why is an excess of copper(II) carbonate added?

A to ensure all the copper(II) carbonate has reacted


B to ensure all the sulfuric acid has reacted
C to increase the rate of reaction

D to increase the yield of copper(II) sulfate

20 Compound P reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce a gas that turns limewater milky.

What is P?

A sodium carbonate
B sodium chloride
C sodium hydroxide
D sodium sulfate

21 Which statement about nitrogen and phosphorus is not correct?

A Both are in the same group of the Periodic Table.


B Both are in the same period of the Periodic Table.
C Both are non-metals.
D Both have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.

22 Sodium and rubidium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which statement is correct?

A Sodium atoms have more electrons than rubidium atoms.


B Sodium has a lower density than rubidium.
C Sodium has a lower melting point than rubidium.
D Sodium is more reactive than rubidium.

23 Which properties do the elements chromium, iron and vanadium have in common?

1 They all conduct electricity.


2 They, or their compounds, can act as catalysts.
3 They all form coloured compounds.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

72
9

24 Why is argon gas used to fill electric lamps?

A It conducts electricity.
B It glows when heated.
C It is less dense than air.
D It is not reactive.

25 What is a property of all metals?

A conduct electricity
B hard
C low melting points
D react with water

26 Aluminium is extracted from bauxite by electrolysis.

Which row shows the anode material and the anode reaction?

anode material anode reaction

A carbon Al 3+ + 3e– → Al
B carbon 2O2– → O2 + 4e–
C steel Al 3+ + 3e– → Al
D steel 2O2– → O2 + 4e–

27 Which statement about the metal zinc is not correct?

A It forms an oxide more readily than iron.


B It is manufactured by the electrolysis of zinc blende.
C It is used to make brass.
D It is used to prevent iron from rusting.

28 Calcium nitrate decomposes when it is heated.

What is the equation for the thermal decomposition of calcium nitrate?

A 2Ca(NO3)2 → 2CaO + O2 + 4NO2

B Ca(NO3)2 → Ca(NO2)2 + O2

C Ca(NO3)2 → Ca + O2 + 2NO2

D Ca(NO3)2 → Ca + 3O2 + N2

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17 [Turn over

73
10

29 The flow chart shows stages in the treatment of river water to produce drinking water.

river settling stage stage drinking


water tank X Y water

What occurs at stages X and Y?

X Y

A distillation chlorination
B distillation filtration
C filtration chlorination
D filtration distillation

30 An experiment to investigate the effect of galvanising iron is shown.

X Y
pure iron galvanised iron

air

water

The experiment is left for seven days.

What happens to the water level in tubes X and Y?

tube X tube Y

A falls rises
B no change no change
C rises falls
D rises no change

31 Which metal is used as a catalyst in the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia?

A iron
B nickel
C platinum
D vanadium

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

74
11

32 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A combustion of fossil fuels


B decomposition of carbonates
C photosynthesis
D respiration

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 40 200 Fe
B 40 200 V2O5
C 400 2 Fe
D 400 2 V2O5

34 Some marble chips (calcium carbonate) are heated strongly and substances X and Y are formed.

Substance X is a white solid that reacts with water, giving out heat. Substance Y is a colourless
gas.

What are substances X and Y?

X Y

A calcium chloride oxygen


B calcium hydroxide carbon dioxide
C calcium oxide carbon dioxide
D calcium sulfate oxygen

35 The structures of four organic compounds are shown.

S T U V

H H H H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C H H C C H C C

H H H H H H H C C H H H

H H

Which compounds are unsaturated?

A S only B T and U C U only D V only

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17 [Turn over

75
12

36 Which statement is not correct?

A Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons.


B The main constituent of natural gas is ethane.
C The naphtha fraction of petroleum is used for making chemicals.
D When natural gas burns in air, carbon dioxide and water are formed.

37 X, Y and Z are three hydrocarbons.

X CH2=CH2 Y CH3–CH=CH2 Z CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

What do compounds X, Y and Z have in common?

1 They are all alkenes.


2 They are all part of the same homologous series.
3 They all have the same boiling point.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 The diagram shows a reaction sequence.

X Y Z
carbon dioxide
butane ethene ethanol
and water

Which row names the processes X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A cracking fermentation respiration


B cracking hydration combustion
C distillation fermentation respiration
D distillation hydration combustion

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

76
13

39 The structure of an ester is shown.

H H O H H

H C C C O C C H

H H H H

Which substances react to form this ester?

A ethanol and ethanoic acid


B ethanol and propanoic acid
C propanol and ethanoic acid
D propanol and propanoic acid

40 A polymer can be made from methyl propene.

H CH3

C C

H CH3

Which diagram shows the structure of the polymer?

A B
H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 H H H H H H

C C C C C C C C C C C C

H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

C D
H H CH3 CH3 CH3 H H CH3 H CH3 H CH3

C C C C C C C C C C C C

H H CH3 CH3 CH3 H H CH3 H CH3 H CH3

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

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14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

78
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0620/22/O/N/17

79
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2017
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/O/N/17
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

80
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7280088800*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 11_0620_23/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

81
2

1 Which statement describes sublimation?

A Particles moving slowly past each other speed up and move further apart.
B Particles vibrating next to each other become mobile and move slowly past each other.
C Particles vibrating next to each other start to move rapidly and move further apart.
D Rapidly moving particles slow down and move closer together.

2 25 cm3 of an alkali are added to 20 cm3 of an acid. The temperature change is measured.

Which apparatus is not needed in the experiment?

A 25 cm3 measuring cylinder


B 100 cm3 beaker
C balance
D thermometer

3 The painkiller paracetamol is synthesised from 4-aminophenol.

Chromatography was carried out on an impure sample of paracetamol. The results are shown
(not drawn to scale).

solvent front
0.35 cm
key
0.26 cm S = impure sample of paracetamol
P = pure paracetamol
0.17 cm
baseline
S P

The sample of paracetamol was contaminated with 4-aminophenol only.

What is the Rf value of 4-aminophenol?

A 0.49 B 0.65 C 0.74 D 1.35

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

82
3

4 Which compound is silicon(IV) oxide?

melting point good electrical good electrical


/ °C conductor when solid conductor when molten

A –73 no no
B 801 no yes
C 1495 yes yes
D 1710 no no

5 Carbon has three naturally occurring isotopes, 12C, 13C and 14C.

Which statement explains why the isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They have the same number of electrons in the first shell.


B They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell.
C They have the same number of neutrons in the nucleus.
D They have the same number of protons as neutrons.

6 Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the outer shell electron arrangement in a molecule of
carbon dioxide?

A B C D

O C O O C O O C O O C O

7 The equation represents the reaction between solid magnesium oxide and dilute
hydrochloric acid to form magnesium chloride and water.

MgO + 2HCl → MgCl 2 + H2O

Which row shows the state symbols for hydrochloric acid, magnesium chloride and water?

HCl MgCl 2 H2O

A (aq) (aq) (l)


B (aq) (l) (l)
C (l) (aq) (aq)
D (l) (l) (aq)

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17 [Turn over

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4

8 A compound contains 34.5% calcium, 24.1% silicon and 41.4% oxygen by mass.

What is its empirical formula?

A Ca2SiO3 B CaSiO3 C CaSi2O3 D CaSiO6

9 Which statements about the electrolysis of concentrated copper(II) chloride are correct?

1 Electrons are transferred from the cathode to the copper(II) ions.

2 Electrons move round the external circuit from the cathode to the anode.
3 Chloride ions are attracted to the anode.
4 Hydroxide ions transfer electrons to the cathode.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

10 Which metal combination produces the highest voltage reading in the cells shown?

A B

V V

Fe Cu Zn Cu

C D

V V

Cu Cu Mg Cu

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

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5

11 Some bond energies are shown in the table.

bond bond energy


in kJ / mol

H–H +436
O=O +496
H–O +460

Hydrogen reacts with oxygen. The reaction is exothermic.

2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –3208 kJ / mol
B –908 kJ / mol
C –472 kJ / mol
D –448 kJ / mol

12 Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

A The energy absorbed for bond breaking is greater than the energy released by bond
formation.
B The energy absorbed for bond breaking is less than the energy released by bond formation.
C The energy released by bond breaking is greater than the energy absorbed for bond
formation.
D The energy released by bond breaking is less than the energy absorbed for bond formation.

13 The mass of a beaker and its contents is plotted against time.

Which graph represents what happens when sodium carbonate reacts with an excess of dilute
hydrochloric acid in an open beaker?

A B C D

mass mass mass mass

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

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6

14 Silver chloride reacts when it is exposed to light.

Which row shows what happens to the silver in this process?

half-equation type of reaction

A Ag → Ag+ + e– oxidation
B Ag → Ag+ + e– reduction
C Ag+ + e– → Ag oxidation
D Ag+ + e– → Ag reduction

15 Which statement about the effect of concentration and temperature on the rate of a reaction is
not correct?

A If the concentration of a reactant is increased, the rate of reaction increases because more
particles have sufficient energy to react.
B If the concentration of a reactant is increased, the rate of reaction increases because there
are more collisions between particles per second.
C If the temperature is increased, the rate of reaction increases because there are more
collisions between particles per second.
D If the temperature is increased, the rate of reaction increases because more particles have
sufficient energy to react.

16 The following reaction has reached equilibrium in a closed system.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which row shows the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium mixture?

reaction rate amount of SO2 amount of SO3

A increases decreases increases


B increases increases decreases
C unchanged decreases increases
D unchanged increases decreases

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7

17 Some properties of four oxides are listed.

Oxide 1 reacts with both acids and alkalis to form salts.

Oxide 2 reacts with acids to form salts but does not react with alkalis.

Oxide 3 reacts with alkalis to form salts but does not react with acids.

Oxide 4 does not react with acids or alkalis.

Which row describes the oxides?

oxide 1 oxide 2 oxide 3 oxide 4

A amphoteric acidic basic neutral


B amphoteric basic acidic neutral
C neutral acidic basic amphoteric
D neutral basic acidic amphoteric

18 What is not a typical characteristic of acids?

A They react with alkalis producing water.


B They react with all metals producing hydrogen.
C They react with carbonates producing carbon dioxide.
D They turn blue litmus paper red.

19 Three solids, P, Q and R, all react with dilute sulfuric acid to produce zinc sulfate.

P and R produce gases during the reaction.

The gas produced when P reacts will not burn. The gas produced when R reacts will burn.

What are P, Q and R?

P Q R

A zinc zinc hydroxide zinc carbonate


B zinc carbonate zinc zinc oxide
C zinc carbonate zinc hydroxide zinc
D zinc oxide zinc carbonate zinc

20 Which ion forms a green precipitate with aqueous sodium hydroxide that dissolves in an excess
of aqueous sodium hydroxide?

A Ca2+ B Cr3+ C Cu2+ D Fe2+

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8

21 A period of the Periodic Table is shown.

group I II III IV V VI VII VIII

element R S T V W X Y Z

The letters are not their chemical symbols.

Which statement is correct?

A Element R does not conduct electricity.


B Elements R and Y react together to form an ionic compound.
C Element Z exists as a diatomic molecule.
D Element Z reacts with element T.

22 Some properties of element X are shown.

melting point in °C 98
boiling point in °C 883
reaction with cold water gives off H2 gas
reaction when heated with oxygen burns to give a white solid

In which part of the Periodic Table is X found?

A Group I
B Group VII
C Group VIII
D transition elements

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

88
9

23 The table gives some properties of an element.

melting point in °C 3422


appearance of the element grey
appearance of the chloride of the element dark blue
density in g / cm3 19.2
electrical conductivity when solid good

Which other property would you expect this element to have?

A acts as a catalyst
B brittle
C forms an acidic oxide
D highly reactive with water

24 Why is argon gas used to fill electric lamps?

A It conducts electricity.
B It glows when heated.
C It is less dense than air.
D It is not reactive.

25 What is a property of all metals?

A conduct electricity
B hard
C low melting points
D react with water

26 Aluminium is obtained by the electrolysis of a mixture of aluminium oxide and cryolite.

Why is cryolite used?

A as a catalyst to speed up the process


B as a coolant to prevent the process getting too hot
C as a solvent for aluminium oxide
D as the main source of aluminium ions

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17 [Turn over

89
10

27 Metal M is mixed with copper to produce brass.

What is M?

A chromium
B nickel
C vanadium
D zinc

28 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly.

Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only.

The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner.

What is metal Q?

A calcium
B copper
C sodium
D zinc

29 The flow chart shows stages in the treatment of river water to produce drinking water.

river settling stage stage drinking


water tank X Y water

What occurs at stages X and Y?

X Y

A distillation chlorination
B distillation filtration
C filtration chlorination
D filtration distillation

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

90
11

30 A piece of zinc is attached to the hull of a steel boat. Steel is an alloy of iron.

Which statement explains why the zinc prevents the iron from rusting?

A Zinc is less reactive than iron, and iron is less likely to lose electrons than zinc.
B Zinc is less reactive than iron, and iron is more likely to lose electrons than zinc.
C Zinc is more reactive than iron, and iron is less likely to lose electrons than zinc.
D Zinc is more reactive than iron, and iron is more likely to lose electrons than zinc.

31 The Haber process for making ammonia is carried out at a temperature of 450 °C and a pressure
of 200 atmospheres in the presence of a catalyst.

Which statement is not correct?

A Lowering the pressure increases the rate at which ammonia is produced.


B Lowering the temperature slows down the rate at which ammonia is produced.
C Maintaining a very high pressure is very difficult and needs expensive equipment.
D The reaction is a reversible reaction which can proceed forwards and backwards.

32 Which process does not produce carbon dioxide?

A combustion of methane
B photosynthesis
C respiration
D thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 40 200 Fe
B 40 200 V2O5
C 400 2 Fe
D 400 2 V2O5

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17 [Turn over

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12

34 Some marble chips (calcium carbonate) are heated strongly and substances X and Y are formed.

Substance X is a white solid that reacts with water, giving out heat. Substance Y is a colourless
gas.

What are substances X and Y?

X Y

A calcium chloride oxygen


B calcium hydroxide carbon dioxide
C calcium oxide carbon dioxide
D calcium sulfate oxygen

35 The structure of compound R is shown.

H H H

H C C C OH

H H H

What is R?

A propane
B propanoic acid
C propanol
D propene

36 Fuel oil and naphtha are two fractions obtained from petroleum.

What are the major uses of these fractions?

fuel oil naphtha

A jet fuel making chemicals


B jet fuel making roads
C ship fuel making chemicals
D ship fuel making roads

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

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13

37 X, Y and Z are three hydrocarbons.

X CH2=CH2 Y CH3–CH=CH2 Z CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

What do compounds X, Y and Z have in common?

1 They are all alkenes.


2 They are all part of the same homologous series.
3 They all have the same boiling point.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 The diagram shows a reaction sequence.

X Y Z
carbon dioxide
butane ethene ethanol
and water

Which row names the processes X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A cracking fermentation respiration


B cracking hydration combustion
C distillation fermentation respiration
D distillation hydration combustion

39 The structure of an ester is shown.

H H O

H C C C H H H H

H H O C C C C H

H H H H

Which combination of carboxylic acid and alcohol produces this ester?

carboxylic acid alcohol

A butanoic acid ethanol


B butanoic acid propanol
C ethanoic acid butanol
D propanoic acid butanol

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17 [Turn over

93
14

40 The equation shows the formation of a polymer called Kevlar.

n HOOC COOH + n H 2N NH2

– H2 O

O O

C C N N

H H n

Which row describes Kevlar?

how the polymer is formed type of polymer

A addition polymerisation polyamide


B addition polymerisation polyester
C condensation polymerisation polyamide
D condensation polymerisation polyester

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

94
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0620/23/O/N/17

95
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2017
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/O/N/17
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

96
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1264661612*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 13 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB18 06_0620_21/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

97
2

1 A student investigated the diffusion of ammonia gas, NH3, and hydrogen chloride gas, HCl.

Two sets of apparatus were set up as shown at room temperature and pressure.

source of damp red source of damp blue


ammonia gas litmus paper hydrogen chloride gas litmus paper

apparatus 1 apparatus 2

The damp red litmus paper in apparatus 1 changed colour after 30 seconds.

How long does it take for the damp blue litmus paper to change colour in apparatus 2?

A 64 seconds
B 30 seconds
C 21 seconds
D The blue litmus paper would not change colour.

2 Chromatography is a technique used to separate coloured dyes.

Which dye has an Rf value of 0.7?

solvent front

baseline
A B C D
dyes

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/M/J/18

98
3

3 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure exactly 26.3 cm3 of a liquid?

A B C D

4 The ‘lead’ in a pencil is made of a mixture of graphite and clay.

‘lead’

When the percentage of graphite is increased, the pencil slides across the paper more easily.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Graphite has a high melting point.


B Graphite is a form of carbon.
C Graphite is a lubricant.
D Graphite is a non-metal.

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/M/J/18 [Turn over

99
4

5 Chlorine exists as two common isotopes, 35Cl and 37Cl.

Information about these two isotopes is shown.

number of number of number of


protons neutrons electron shells
35
Cl 17 18 3
37
Cl 17 20 3

Which statement explains why the two isotopes are of the same element?

A Both have the same number of electron shells.


B Both have the same number of protons.
C Both have 7 outer shell electrons.
37
D Cl has 2 more neutrons than 35Cl.

6 Which substance is not a macromolecule?

A diamond
B graphite

C silicon(IV) oxide
D sulfur

7 Copper is a metallic element.

Which statements about copper are correct?

1 Copper is malleable because layers of ions are in fixed positions and cannot move.
2 The structure of copper consists of negative ions in a lattice.
3 Copper conducts electricity because electrons can move through the metal.
4 Electrons hold copper ions together in a lattice by electrostatic attraction.

A 1 and 2 B 2, 3 and 4 C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

8 The equation for the combustion of ethane is shown.

2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O

Which volume of carbon dioxide, at room temperature and pressure, is formed when 0.5 moles of
ethane burn?

A 48 dm3 B 24 dm3 C 12 dm3 D 6 dm3

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/M/J/18

100
5

9 A solution of ethanoic acid, CH3COOH, has a concentration of 2 mol / dm3.

Which statement about this solution is correct?

A 20 g of ethanoic acid is dissolved in 10 cm3 of water.


B 30 g of ethanoic acid is dissolved in 250 cm3 of water.
C 60 g of ethanoic acid is dissolved in 1 dm3 of water.
D 120 g of ethanoic acid is dissolved in 2 dm3 of water.

10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which statement is correct?

A A reduction reaction occurs at the positive electrode.


B The blue colour of the solution becomes darker.
C The concentration of copper ions in the solution decreases.
D The mass of the negative electrode increases.

11 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

What are the ionic half-equations for the reactions that take place at each electrode?

positive electrode negative electrode

A 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–


B 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O
C 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
D 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O 2H+ + 2e– → H2

12 Plant cells use energy from sunlight for photosynthesis.

Which row describes and explains the energy change that occurs?

type of
explanation
energy change

A endothermic less energy is released making bonds than is absorbed to break bonds
B endothermic more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed to break bonds
C exothermic less energy is released making bonds than is absorbed to break bonds
D exothermic more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed to break bonds

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6

13 Hydrogen bromide decomposes to form hydrogen and bromine. The equation is shown.

2HBr(g) → H2(g) + Br2(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table. The reaction is endothermic.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

Br–Br +193
H–Br +366
H–H +436

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A +263 kJ / mol B +103 kJ / mol C –103 kJ / mol D –263 kJ / mol

14 Which row describes the effects of increasing both concentration and temperature on the
collisions between reacting particles?

increasing concentration increasing temperature


A more collisions per second only more collisions per second only
B more collisions per second and more more collisions per second only
collisions with sufficient energy to react

C more collisions per second only more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react

D more collisions per second and more more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react collisions with sufficient energy to react

15 The formation of sulfur trioxide is a reversible reaction.

The equation is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions produce the highest equilibrium yield of sulfur trioxide?

pressure temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

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7

16 Chlorine displaces iodide ions from potassium iodide.

Cl 2 + 2I– → I2 + 2Cl –

What is the oxidising agent?

A chloride ions
B chlorine
C iodide ions
D iodine

17 Which statement about oxides is correct?

A A solution of magnesium oxide has a pH less than pH 7.


B A solution of sulfur dioxide has a pH greater than pH 7.
C Magnesium oxide reacts with nitric acid to make a salt.
D Sulfur dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to make a salt.

18 Which solution has the lowest pH?

A 0.1 mol / dm3 ammonia solution


B 0.1 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid
C 0.1 mol / dm3 lithium hydroxide
D 0.1 mol / dm3 nitric acid

19 A student mixes silver nitrate and barium chloride to form a white precipitate of silver chloride.

The equation is shown.

2AgNO3 + BaCl 2 → 2AgCl + Ba(NO3)2

Which row describes the solubility of the salts?

soluble insoluble
A silver nitrate barium chloride, barium nitrate
and silver chloride
B silver nitrate and barium chloride barium nitrate and silver chloride
C silver nitrate, barium chloride silver chloride
and barium nitrate
D silver nitrate, barium chloride barium nitrate
and silver chloride

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8

20 Which methods are suitable for preparing both zinc sulfate and copper(II) sulfate?

1 reacting the metal oxide with warm dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
2 reacting the metal with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
3 reacting the metal carbonate with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

21 Which element is in the same period of the Periodic Table as silicon?

A germanium
B scandium
C sodium
D strontium

22 Which statement about the halogens is correct?

A A sample of bromine reacts with potassium chloride solution.


B A sample of bromine reacts with potassium iodide solution.
C A sample of chlorine has a higher density than a sample of bromine.
D A sample of chlorine is a darker colour than a sample of bromine.

23 Which row shows the catalytic activity of transition elements and their compounds?

catalytic activity of catalytic activity of compounds of


transition elements transition elements

A good good
B good poor
C poor good
D poor poor

24 The following statements are made about the metals copper, iron, magnesium and zinc.

1 Their oxides are acidic.


2 They all conduct electricity in the solid state.
3 They all have high melting points.
4 They all react with dilute acids to form hydrogen.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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9

25 Silver is a less reactive metal than cadmium.

Cadmium is a less reactive metal than barium.

Which statement is correct?

A Barium does not react when heated with silver oxide.


B Cadmium displaces barium from a solution of barium chloride.
C Cadmium displaces silver from a solution of silver nitrate.
D Cadmium reacts when heated with barium oxide.

26 Aluminium metal is extracted from aluminium oxide using electrolysis.

Which statement about the extraction process is not correct?

A A large amount of electricity is required.


B Molten cryolite is used to dissolve the aluminium oxide.
C Oxygen gas is released which reacts to form carbon dioxide.
D The negative electrodes burn away and have to be replaced.

27 Which statement explains why aluminium is used in the manufacture of aircraft?

A It conducts heat well.


B It has a low density.
C It is a good conductor of electricity.
D It is easy to recycle.

28 Dry air is passed over hot copper until all the oxygen has reacted.

dry air copper

heat

The volume of gas at the end of the reaction is 120 cm3.

What is the starting volume of dry air?

A 132 cm3 B 152 cm3 C 180 cm3 D 570 cm3

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10

29 A steel bicycle which had been left outdoors for several months was starting to rust.

What would not reduce the rate of corrosion?

A Remove the rust and paint the bicycle.


B Remove the rust and store the bicycle in a dry shed.
C Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with a clean, damp cloth.
D Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with an oily cloth.

30 Which statements about water are correct?

1 Household water contains dissolved salts.


2 Water for household use is filtered to remove soluble impurities.
3 Water is treated with chlorine to kill bacteria.
4 Water is used in industry for cooling.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

31 Ammonia is manufactured by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen in the Haber process.

Which row describes the sources of hydrogen and nitrogen and the conditions used in the
manufacture of ammonia in the Haber process?

source of source of temperature of pressure of


hydrogen nitrogen reaction / °C reaction / atm

A air natural gas 250 2


B air natural gas 250 200
C natural gas air 450 2
D natural gas air 450 200

32 Which statements about the carbon cycle are correct?

1 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by respiration.


2 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by combustion of coal.
3 Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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11

33 Which statement about sulfur and its compounds is not correct?

A Sulfur dioxide is used as a food preservative.

B Sulfur dioxide turns acidified aqueous potassium manganate(VII) from purple to colourless.

C Sulfur forms a basic oxide.


D Sulfur is used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid.

34 Which process is used to convert limestone (calcium carbonate) into lime?

A electrolysis
B fractional distillation
C incomplete combustion
D thermal decomposition

35 What is not the correct use of the fraction named?

name of fraction use

A fuel oil making waxes


B gas oil fuel in diesel engines
C kerosene jet fuel
D naphtha making chemicals

36 Which reaction is not a reaction which alkenes undergo?

A bromination
B hydration
C hydrogenation
D hydrolysis

37 Which substances can be obtained by cracking hydrocarbons?

A ethanol and ethene


B ethanol and hydrogen
C ethene and hydrogen
D ethene and poly(ethene)

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12

38 Ethanol is produced by fermentation or from ethene.

What is a disadvantage of producing ethanol by fermentation?

A Distillation is needed to purify the ethanol produced.


B Fermentation uses glucose from plants.
C Fermentation is catalysed by enzymes in yeast.
D Fermentation occurs at a low temperature and pressure.

39 Which structural formula represents methyl propanoate?

A CH3CH2COOCH3
B CH3COOCH2CH2CH3
C CH3CH2CH2COOCH3
D HCOOCH2CH2CH3

40 Which row describes addition polymerisation and condensation polymerisation?

addition polymerisation condensation polymerisation


A monomers have a C=C double bond monomers have a C=C double bond
and the polymer is the only product and the polymer is the only product

B monomers have a C=C double bond the monomers react to form the
and the polymer is the only product polymer and a small molecule

C the monomers react to form the monomers have a C=C double bond
polymer and a small molecule and the polymer is the only product

D the monomers react to form the the monomers react to form the
polymer and a small molecule polymer and a small molecule

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13

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14

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15

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/M/J/18

111
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2018
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/21/M/J/18
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

112
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2609976664*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 13 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB18 06_0620_22/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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2

1 A gas is released at point X in the apparatus shown.

damp Universal Indicator paper

Which gas turns the damp Universal Indicator paper red most quickly?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C hydrogen chloride, HCl
D sulfur dioxide, SO2

2 A chromatography experiment was done to separate a mixture of four substances.

The Rf values measured for these substances were 0.3, 0.5, 0.8 and 0.8.

Which diagram shows the chromatogram obtained?

A B C D

solvent front

baseline

3 Which piece of apparatus cannot be used to collect and measure the volume of gas produced in
an experiment?

A burette
B gas syringe
C measuring cylinder
D pipette

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3

4 The ‘lead’ in a pencil is made of a mixture of graphite and clay.

‘lead’

When the percentage of graphite is increased, the pencil slides across the paper more easily.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Graphite has a high melting point.


B Graphite is a form of carbon.
C Graphite is a lubricant.
D Graphite is a non-metal.

5 Which pair shows particles with the same chemical properties?


23 23 +
A 11 M and 11M

23 24
B 11 M and 11M

23 23
C 11 M and 12 M

24 + 24 +
D 11M and 12 M

6 Which substances have similar structures?

A diamond and graphite

B diamond and silicon(IV) oxide

C graphite and poly(ethene)

D graphite and silicon(IV) oxide

7 Which substance is not a macromolecule?

A diamond
B graphite

C silicon(IV) oxide

D sulfur

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4

8 The equation for the reaction between potassium carbonate and nitric acid is shown.

K2CO3 + 2HNO3 → 2KNO3 + H2O + CO2

Which volume of carbon dioxide is produced from 69 g of potassium carbonate?

A 6 dm3 B 12 dm3 C 24 dm3 D 48 dm3

9 A solution of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, has a concentration of 0.03 mol / dm3.

Which mass of sodium carbonate is dissolved in 1 dm3 of this solution?

A 1.06 g B 3.18 g C 10.60 g D 31.80 g

10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which statement about the electrolysis is not correct?

A An oxidation reaction occurs at the positive electrode.


B The current is carried through the electrolyte by ions.
C The negative electrode gains mass.

D The number of copper(II) ions in the electrolyte decreases.

11 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

What are the ionic half-equations for the reactions that take place at each electrode?

positive electrode negative electrode

A 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–


B 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O
C 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
D 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O 2H+ + 2e– → H2

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5

12 Which diagram is a correctly labelled energy level diagram for an endothermic reaction?

A B

products products

overall
activation
energy energy
overall energy energy
change activation
energy
energy
change
reactants reactants

progress of reaction progress of reaction

C D

activation
reactants reactants energy

overall activation overall


energy energy energy
energy energy
change change

products products

progress of reaction progress of reaction

13 The equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H +410
C=O +805
O–H +460
O=O +496

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –818 kJ / mol B –359 kJ / mol C –323 kJ / mol D +102 kJ / mol

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6

14 Which row describes the effects of increasing both concentration and temperature on the
collisions between reacting particles?

increasing concentration increasing temperature


A more collisions per second only more collisions per second only
B more collisions per second and more more collisions per second only
collisions with sufficient energy to react
C more collisions per second only more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react
D more collisions per second and more more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react collisions with sufficient energy to react

15 Sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen at 2 atmospheres pressure. The forward reaction is exothermic.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The reaction reaches equilibrium. The pressure is then doubled.

How and why does the amount of sulfur trioxide formed change?

amount of sulfur trioxide reason

A decreases the forward reaction is exothermic


B decreases there are fewer molecules on the right
C increases the forward reaction is exothermic
D increases there are fewer molecules on the right

16 Iron(II) chloride solution reacts with chlorine gas.

The equation is shown.

2FeCl 2(aq) + Cl 2(g) → 2FeCl 3(aq)

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions.


2 Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
3 Fe2+ ions each lose an electron.
4 Cl 2 molecules are reduced to Cl – ions.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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7

17 Which statement about oxides is correct?

A A solution of magnesium oxide has a pH less than pH 7.


B A solution of sulfur dioxide has a pH greater than pH 7.
C Magnesium oxide reacts with nitric acid to make a salt.
D Sulfur dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to make a salt.

18 Which statement about acids and bases is correct?

A A base is a donor of hydrogen ions.


B An acid is an acceptor of protons.
C A strong acid is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D A weak acid cannot be used to neutralise a strong base.

19 The solubility of some salts is shown.

chloride nitrate sulfate carbonate

barium soluble soluble insoluble insoluble


lead(II) insoluble soluble insoluble insoluble
potassium soluble soluble soluble soluble
zinc soluble soluble soluble insoluble

Which two aqueous solutions produce an insoluble salt when mixed together?

A barium chloride and zinc nitrate

B barium nitrate and lead(II) nitrate

C lead(II) nitrate and potassium carbonate

D potassium nitrate and zinc sulfate

20 Which methods are suitable for preparing both zinc sulfate and copper(II) sulfate?

1 reacting the metal oxide with warm dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
2 reacting the metal with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
3 reacting the metal carbonate with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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8

21 Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct?

A Elements in the same group have the same number of electron shells.
B It contains elements arranged in order of increasing proton number.
C Metals are on the right and non-metals are on the left.
D The most reactive elements are at the bottom of every group.

22 Chlorine, bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

Which statement about these elements is not correct?

A The colour gets darker down the group.


B The density increases down the group.
C They are all gases at room temperature and pressure.
D They are all non-metals.

23 Which row describes the properties of a transition element?

property 1 property 2

A forms colourless compounds acts as a catalyst


B forms colourless compounds low electrical conductivity
C high density acts as a catalyst
D high density low electrical conductivity

24 Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and other metals.

Which row is correct?

stainless steel resists


stainless steel is
corrosion better than
harder than pure iron
pure iron

A
B
C
D

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9

25 Metal X is more reactive than metal Y. Metal Y is more reactive than metal Z.

Which statement is correct?

A When metal X is placed in a solution of Y sulfate, there is no reaction.


B When metal X is placed in a solution of Z sulfate, a reaction occurs.
C When metal Y is placed in a solution of Z sulfate, there is no reaction.
D When metal Z is placed in a solution of X sulfate, a reaction occurs.

26 Which statement about the industrial extraction of zinc is correct?

A Cryolite is added to lower the melting point.


B Molten zinc oxide is electrolysed.
C Zinc oxide is heated with coke.
D Zinc sulfide is heated with coke.

27 Which row describes the use of an alloy and the property upon which the use depends?

alloy use property

A mild steel cutlery resistant to corrosion


B mild steel machinery strong
C stainless steel cutlery low density
D stainless steel machinery good conductor of electricity

28 Dry air is passed over hot copper until all the oxygen has reacted.

dry air copper

heat

The volume of gas at the end of the reaction is 120 cm3.

What is the starting volume of dry air?

A 132 cm3 B 152 cm3 C 180 cm3 D 570 cm3

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10

29 A steel bicycle which had been left outdoors for several months was starting to rust.

What would not reduce the rate of corrosion?

A Remove the rust and paint the bicycle.


B Remove the rust and store the bicycle in a dry shed.
C Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with a clean, damp cloth.
D Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with an oily cloth.

30 Which statements about water are correct?

1 Household water contains dissolved salts.


2 Water for household use is filtered to remove soluble impurities.
3 Water is treated with chlorine to kill bacteria.
4 Water is used in industry for cooling.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

31 Ammonia is manufactured by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen in the Haber process.

Which row describes the sources of hydrogen and nitrogen and the conditions used in the
manufacture of ammonia in the Haber process?

source of source of temperature of pressure of


hydrogen nitrogen reaction / °C reaction / atm

A air natural gas 250 2


B air natural gas 250 200
C natural gas air 450 2
D natural gas air 450 200

32 Which statements about the carbon cycle are correct?

1 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by respiration.


2 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by combustion of coal.
3 Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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11

33 Which row describes the uses of sulfur and sulfur dioxide?

sulfur sulfur dioxide

A extraction of aluminium food preservative


B extraction of aluminium water treatment
C manufacture of sulfuric acid food preservative
D manufacture of sulfuric acid water treatment

34 Limestone is used in many industrial processes.

In which process is it not used?

A manufacture of alkenes
B manufacture of cement
C manufacture of iron
D manufacture of lime

35 What is not the correct use of the fraction named?

name of fraction use

A fuel oil making waxes


B gas oil fuel in diesel engines
C kerosene jet fuel
D naphtha making chemicals

36 Which statement about alkenes is not correct?

A They decolourise aqueous bromine.


B They only contain the elements carbon and hydrogen.
C They react with hydrogen to form alkanes.
D They react with steam to produce carboxylic acids.

37 Which substances can be obtained by cracking hydrocarbons?

A ethanol and ethene


B ethanol and hydrogen
C ethene and hydrogen
D ethene and poly(ethene)

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12

38 Two processes used for the large-scale production of ethanol are shown.

process 1 A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is used to produce


ethanol.
process 2 A compound containing carbon and hydrogen only is used to produce
ethanol.

Which statement is correct?

A Process 1 uses a renewable starting material.


B Process 1 is done at a very high temperature.
C Process 2 involves fermentation.
D Process 2 is done at room temperature.

39 What is the name of the organic product of the reaction shown?

CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH →

A ethyl ethanoate
B ethyl methanoate
C methyl ethanoate
D methyl propanoate

40 Which two compounds react together to form a condensation polymer?

A HOCH2CH2OH and CH3COOH


B HOCH2CH2OH and CH3NH2
C HOCH2CH2OH and H2NCH2CH2NH2
D HOCH2CH2OH and HOOCCH2CH2COOH

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14

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© UCLES 2018 0620/22/M/J/18

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15

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/M/J/18

127
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2018
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/22/M/J/18
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

128
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8762427084*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 06_0620_23/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

129
2

1 Ammonia gas is reacted with hydrogen chloride gas using the apparatus shown.

Solid ammonium chloride is produced.

long glass tube solid ammonium chloride

cotton wool soaked cotton wool soaked


in ammonia solution in hydrogen chloride
solution

Which statement explains why the solid ammonium chloride is formed nearer to the
hydrogen chloride?

A Ammonia solution is a base and hydrogen chloride solution is an acid.


B Ammonia molecules diffuse more slowly than hydrogen chloride molecules.
C Hydrogen chloride has a greater molecular mass than ammonia.
D Hydrogen chloride moves by Brownian motion.

2 Paper chromatography is done in the same way with three different mixtures of dyes. Each
mixture contains at least one of the dyes W, X, Y and Z.

The Rf values of the dyes in the three mixtures are shown.

Rf values from Rf values from Rf values from


dye
mixture 1 mixture 2 mixture 3

W 0.15 0.15 0.15


X 0.00 0.00 0.00
Y 0.50 0.50 0.50
Z 0.00 0.91 0.91

Which conclusion is correct?

A Dye W is nearest the solvent front and is present only in mixture 1 and mixture 3.
B Dye X has travelled furthest up the chromatography paper.
C Dye Y is the only dye present in all three mixtures.
D Dye Z is nearest the solvent front and is found in only two of the mixtures.

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

130
3

3 Solid R reacted with dilute sulfuric acid.

The initial temperature of the dilute sulfuric acid and the final temperature of the solution are
shown.

25 25

20 20

15 15

10 10

initial temperature final temperature


of the dilute of the solution (°C)
sulfuric acid (°C)

What was the change in temperature in °C?

A –6 B –4 C 4 D 6

4 The ‘lead’ in a pencil is made of a mixture of graphite and clay.

‘lead’

When the percentage of graphite is increased, the pencil slides across the paper more easily.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Graphite has a high melting point.


B Graphite is a form of carbon.
C Graphite is a lubricant.
D Graphite is a non-metal.

5 Iron has an atomic number of 26. It occurs as the isotopes 54Fe, 56Fe, 57Fe and 58Fe.

Which statement explains why these isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They have similar mass numbers.


B They have the same number of electrons in their outer shells.
C They have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
D They have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

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131
4

6 How many silicon atoms are bonded to each oxygen atom in a crystal of silicon(IV) oxide?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

7 Which substance is not a macromolecule?

A diamond
B graphite

C silicon(IV) oxide
D sulfur

8 An experiment was done to determine the formula of a hydrocarbon, CxHy.

10 cm3 of the gaseous hydrocarbon, CxHy, was burned in an excess of oxygen to form 20 cm3 of
carbon dioxide and 30 cm3 of water vapour.

What is CxHy?

A CH4 B C2H4 C C2H6 D C3H8

9 4.00 g of solid sodium hydroxide is added to water to make a solution with a concentration of
0.200 mol / dm3.

What is the volume of water used?

A 0.5 cm3 B 20 cm3 C 500 cm3 D 2000 cm3

10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which statement is correct?

A Oxygen gas is produced at the positive electrode.


B The blue colour of the solution gradually fades.
C The concentration of copper ions in the solution stays the same.
D The mass of the negative electrode decreases.

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132
5

11 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

What are the ionic half-equations for the reactions that take place at each electrode?

positive electrode negative electrode

A 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–


B 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O
C 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
D 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O 2H+ + 2e– → H2

12 Information about two reactions is given.

• The neutralisation reaction between citric acid and sodium hydrogencarbonate is endothermic.

• The displacement reaction between magnesium and carbon dioxide is exothermic.

Which statements about the two reactions are correct?

1 The energy of the products formed in the neutralisation reaction is greater than the
energy of the reactants.

2 The energy of magnesium and carbon dioxide is greater than the energy of
magnesium oxide and carbon.

3 In an exothermic reaction, the energy required to break the bonds is greater than the
energy released when the new bonds are formed.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Ethene reacts with hydrogen. The equation is shown.

CH2=CH2 + H2 → C2H6

The bond energies are shown in the table. The reaction is exothermic.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–C +350
C=C +610
C–H +410
H–H +436

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –560 kJ / mol B –124 kJ / mol C +486 kJ / mol D +5496 kJ / mol

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133
6

14 Which row describes the effects of increasing both concentration and temperature on the
collisions between reacting particles?

increasing concentration increasing temperature


A more collisions per second only more collisions per second only
B more collisions per second and more more collisions per second only
collisions with sufficient energy to react
C more collisions per second only more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react
D more collisions per second and more more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react collisions with sufficient energy to react

15 In the Contact process, sulfur dioxide is converted into sulfur trioxide in a reversible reaction.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions give the highest yield of sulfur trioxide at equilibrium?

pressure
temperature
/ atmospheres

A 0.5 high
B 0.5 low
C 1.5 high
D 1.5 low

16 The equation for a redox reaction is shown.

2Fe3+ + Zn → 2Fe2+ + Zn2+

Which statements are correct?

1 Fe3+ is reduced to form Fe2+.


2 Zn oxidises the Fe3+ ions.
3 Fe3+ is an oxidising agent.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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7

17 Which statement about oxides is correct?

A A solution of magnesium oxide has a pH less than pH 7.


B A solution of sulfur dioxide has a pH greater than pH 7.
C Magnesium oxide reacts with nitric acid to make a salt.
D Sulfur dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to make a salt.

18 The equation represents an equilibrium in aqueous ammonia.

NH3(aq) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq)

How does aqueous ammonia behave in this reaction?

A as a strong acid
B as a strong base
C as a weak acid
D as a weak base

19 An excess of aqueous sodium sulfate was added to aqueous barium chloride and the mixture
was filtered.

Which row shows the identity of the residue and the substances present in the filtrate?

residue substances in filtrate

A barium sulfate barium chloride and sodium chloride


B barium sulfate sodium chloride and sodium sulfate
C sodium chloride barium chloride and sodium sulfate
D sodium chloride barium sulfate and sodium sulfate

20 Which methods are suitable for preparing both zinc sulfate and copper(II) sulfate?

1 reacting the metal oxide with warm dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
2 reacting the metal with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
3 reacting the metal carbonate with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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135
8

21 Which element is classified as a non-metal in the Periodic Table?

A calcium
B chlorine
C chromium
D copper

22 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Element Q has a low boiling point, low density and does not conduct electricity.

Which element is Q?

A
B

C D

23 Which row describes a typical transition element?

density melting point boiling point colour of


in g / cm3 in °C in °C oxide

A 0.97 98 883 white


B 2.64 769 1382 white
C 3.10 –7 59 yellow
D 8.96 1085 2562 red

24 Which diagram represents a solid alloy?

A B C D

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136
9

25 The ionic equations for four reactions are shown.

Z + X2+ → Z2+ + X

Z + 2W+ → Z2+ + 2W

X + 2W+ → X2+ + 2W

Y + Z2+ → Y2+ + Z

What is the order of reactivity of the four metals, W, X, Y and Z?

most least
reactive reactive

A W X Z Y
B X W Y Z
C Y Z X W
D Z W X Y

26 Which equation represents the first stage in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende?

A 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

B ZnS + H2O → ZnO + H2S

C ZnO + CO → Zn + CO2

D ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O

27 Which statement explains why aluminium is used to manufacture aircraft?

A It has a low density.


B It is a good conductor of electricity.
C It is a good conductor of heat.
D It is ductile.

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137
10

28 Dry air is passed over hot copper until all the oxygen has reacted.

dry air copper

heat

The volume of gas at the end of the reaction is 120 cm3.

What is the starting volume of dry air?

A 132 cm3 B 152 cm3 C 180 cm3 D 570 cm3

29 A steel bicycle which had been left outdoors for several months was starting to rust.

What would not reduce the rate of corrosion?

A Remove the rust and paint the bicycle.


B Remove the rust and store the bicycle in a dry shed.
C Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with a clean, damp cloth.
D Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with an oily cloth.

30 Which statements about water are correct?

1 Household water contains dissolved salts.


2 Water for household use is filtered to remove soluble impurities.
3 Water is treated with chlorine to kill bacteria.
4 Water is used in industry for cooling.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

138
11

31 Ammonia is manufactured by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen in the Haber process.

Which row describes the sources of hydrogen and nitrogen and the conditions used in the
manufacture of ammonia in the Haber process?

source of source of temperature of pressure of


hydrogen nitrogen reaction / °C reaction / atm

A air natural gas 250 2


B air natural gas 250 200
C natural gas air 450 2
D natural gas air 450 200

32 Which statements about the carbon cycle are correct?

1 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by respiration.


2 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by combustion of coal.
3 Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

33 Element Z forms an oxide, ZO2. Three uses of ZO2 are listed.

● bleaching agent

● killing bacteria

● manufacturing an important acid

What is Z?

A carbon
B lead
C nitrogen
D sulfur

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139
12

34 Limestone is an important material with many uses.

Limestone is heated to produce ......1...... and carbon dioxide.

This reaction is called ......2...... .

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A lime neutralisation
B lime thermal decomposition
C slaked lime neutralisation
D slaked lime thermal decomposition

35 What is not the correct use of the fraction named?

name of fraction use

A fuel oil making waxes


B gas oil fuel in diesel engines
C kerosene jet fuel
D naphtha making chemicals

36 Methane, ethane and propane belong to a family of hydrocarbons called alkanes.

What is the general formula of an alkane?

A CnH2n B CnH2n+1 C CnH2n–1 D CnH2n+2

37 Which substances can be obtained by cracking hydrocarbons?

A ethanol and ethene


B ethanol and hydrogen
C ethene and hydrogen
D ethene and poly(ethene)

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

140
13

38 Which row describes an advantage and a disadvantage of making ethanol by fermentation?

advantage disadvantage

A uses a renewable resource occurs at a slow rate


B needs a high temperature produces impure ethanol as a product
C produces pure ethanol as a product needs a high temperature
D occurs at a slow rate uses a non-renewable resource

39 Which esters have the molecular formula C5H10O2?

1 ethyl propanoate
2 propyl ethanoate
3 butyl methanoate
4 methyl butanoate

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

40 A polymer linkage contains carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen atoms.

Which row about the polymer is correct?

type of
formed by
polymer

A polyamide addition polymerisation


B polyamide condensation polymerisation
C polyester addition polymerisation
D polyester condensation polymerisation

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

141
14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

142
15

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

143
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2018
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/23/M/J/18
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

144
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*4207030076*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 11_0620_21/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

145
2

1 When smoke particles are observed with a microscope they are seen to move around randomly.
This is called Brownian motion.

What causes Brownian motion?

A diffusion of the smoke particles


B molecules in the air hitting the smoke particles
C sublimation of the smoke particles
D the smoke particles hitting the walls of the container

2 The diagrams show four pieces of laboratory equipment.

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

Which equipment is essential to find out if dissolving a salt in water is an exothermic process?

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

A
B
C
D

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18

146
3

3 Iodine, I, has a lower relative atomic mass than tellurium, Te, but is placed after it in the
Periodic Table.

Te I

Which statement explains why iodine is placed after tellurium in the Periodic Table?

A Iodine has fewer neutrons than tellurium.


B Iodine has fewer protons than tellurium.
C Iodine has more neutrons than tellurium.
D Iodine has more protons than tellurium.

4 Which statement about the isotopes of an element is correct?

A Their physical properties are different because they have different proton numbers.
B Their atomic masses are different because they have different numbers of electron shells.
C They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of electrons in
their outer shells.
D They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of neutrons in
their nuclei.

5 Which two molecules contain the same number of electrons?

A Cl 2 and SO2
B CH4 and H2O
C CO and NH3
D CO2 and HCl

6 Which statement describes the lattice structure of a metal?

A The lattice consists of alternating positive ions and negative ions.


B The lattice consists of neutral atoms arranged in layers.
C The lattice consists of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D The lattice consists of neutral atoms in a ‘sea of electrons’.

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18 [Turn over

147
4

7 Which gas sample contains the most molecules?

A 24 dm3 of carbon dioxide, CO2


B 4 g of hydrogen, H2
C 36 dm3 of hydrogen chloride, HCl
D 14 g of nitrogen, N2

8 A student mixed together 25.0 cm3 of 1.00 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid and 25.0 g of
calcium carbonate.

2HCl (aq) + CaCO3(s) → CaCl 2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

What is the maximum volume of carbon dioxide gas that could be collected at room temperature
and pressure?

A 300 dm3 B 6.00 dm3 C 0.600 dm3 D 0.300 dm3

9 Iron can react with sulfur to form two ionic compounds.

The iron is present as Fe2+ in one compound and as Fe3+ in the other compound.

The sulfur ion is present as S2– in both compounds.

What are the formulae of the two compounds?

A FeS and Fe2S3


B FeS and Fe3S2
C FeS2 and Fe3S2
D FeS2 and Fe2S3

10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using carbon electrodes.

What is the product at each electrode?

product at the product at the


positive electrode negative electrode

A copper oxygen
B hydrogen oxygen
C oxygen copper
D oxygen hydrogen

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18

148
5

11 The diagram shows a circuit used to electrolyse aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

power supply
+ –

3 4

+ –
copper electrodes

1
aqueous
2
copper(II) sulfate

Which arrows indicate the movement of the copper ions in the electrolyte and of the electrons in
the external circuit?

copper ions electrons

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

12 Methane burns in an excess of oxygen. The equation is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H +410
C=O +805
O–H +460
O=O +496

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A +818 kJ / mol
B +102 kJ / mol
C –359 kJ / mol
D –818 kJ / mol

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6

13 The equation for the formation of ammonia is shown.

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

The energy level diagram for the reaction is shown.

activation
energy
= +250 kJ / mol
total energy
N2 + 3H2 released
energy
= –342 kJ / mol
energy
change
2NH3

progress of reaction

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –592 kJ / mol
B –92 kJ / mol
C +92 kJ / mol
D +592 kJ / mol

14 The effects of a change in conditions on a chemical reaction are listed.

1 The total number of collisions per minute increased.


2 The number of effective collisions per minute increased.
3 The average energy of the particles increased.

Which change in conditions caused all of these effects?

A addition of a catalyst
B increasing the concentration of a solution of a reactant
C increasing the surface area of a solid reactant
D increasing the temperature

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7

15 When BiCl 3 reacts with water, a white precipitate of BiOCl is formed. The equation for the
reaction is shown.

BiCl 3(aq) + H2O(l) BiOCl (s) + 2HCl (aq)

Which statements are correct?

1 The reaction is reversible.


2 When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to the reaction mixture, more of the white
precipitate forms.
3 When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to the reaction mixture, more of the white
precipitate forms.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

16 An excess of iron(II) chloride is added to acidified potassium manganate(VII).

Which statements are correct?

1 The purple colour disappears.

2 Iron(II) is reduced to iron(III).

3 Manganate(VII) ions are oxidised to manganese(II) ions.

4 Potassium manganate(VII) is an oxidising agent.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

17 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element forms an oxide that reacts with dilute acid to form a salt and water?

I II III IV V VI VII VIII

A B
C D

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8

18 Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to solid Q in a test-tube.

A gas is produced which turns damp red litmus blue.

What is Q?

A aluminium
B ammonia
C ammonium chloride
D sodium nitrate

19 Potassium hydroxide is a base.

Which statement describes a reaction of potassium hydroxide?

A Chlorine is formed when it is heated with ammonium chloride.


B It turns Universal Indicator green.
C It reacts with an acid to produce a salt and water.
D It turns methyl orange red.

20 Some general rules for the solubility of salts in water are listed.

● Carbonates are insoluble (except ammonium carbonate, potassium carbonate and


sodium carbonate).

● Chlorides are soluble (except lead(II) chloride and silver chloride).

● Nitrates are soluble.

● Sulfates are soluble (except barium sulfate, calcium sulfate and lead(II) sulfate).

Which substances produce an insoluble salt when aqueous solutions of them are mixed?

A barium chloride and magnesium nitrate


B calcium chloride and ammonium nitrate
C silver nitrate and zinc chloride
D sodium carbonate and potassium sulfate

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9

21 Elements in Group I of the Periodic Table react with water.

Which row describes the products made in the reaction and the trend in reactivity of the
elements?

products trend in reactivity

A metal hydroxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group


B metal hydroxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group
C metal oxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group
D metal oxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group

22 The equation shows the reaction between a halogen and aqueous bromide ions.

X2 + 2Br– → 2X– + Br2


......1...... ......2...... ......3......

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A chlorine brown colourless


B chlorine colourless brown
C iodine brown colourless
D iodine colourless brown

23 An inert gas R is used to fill weather balloons.

Which descriptions of R are correct?

number of outer shell


structure of gas R
electrons in atoms of R

A 2 diatomic molecules
B 2 single atoms
C 8 diatomic molecules
D 8 single atoms

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10

24 A student heated copper(II) carbonate and copper(II) nitrate in separate test-tubes.

Both compounds decomposed.

Which row shows the gases produced from each reaction?

copper(II) carbonate copper(II) nitrate

A carbon dioxide nitrogen dioxide only


B carbon dioxide oxygen only
C carbon dioxide oxygen and nitrogen dioxide
D oxygen oxygen and nitrogen dioxide

25 Metal X reacts with steam but not with cold water.

What is X?

A calcium
B copper
C sodium
D zinc

26 Which row shows uses of the metals listed?

aluminium copper mild steel

A aircraft manufacture food containers cutlery


B cutlery electrical wiring chemical plant
C electrical wiring aircraft manufacture cooking utensils
D food containers cooking utensils car bodies

27 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion.

Iron objects must be protected from corrosion.

Why does aluminium resist corrosion?

A Aluminium does not form ions easily.


B Aluminium does not react with water or air.
C Aluminium has a protective oxide layer.
D Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series.

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18

154
11

28 Which statement describes the role of iron in the Haber process?

A It is used as a catalyst.
B It is used as a reducing agent.
C It is used to condense the ammonia gas into a liquid.
D It is used to increase the yield of ammonia.

29 Which statement about air pollutants is not correct?

A Carbon monoxide is formed from the complete combustion of petroleum.


B Lead compounds are formed from some types of petrol.
C Oxides of nitrogen are formed from the combustion reactions inside car engines.
D Sulfur dioxide is formed from the combustion of coal.

30 Argon is a noble gas used to fill light bulbs.

What is the approximate percentage of argon in air?

A 1% B 20% C 79% D 99%

31 The diagrams show experiments involving the rusting of iron.

tube P tube Q tube R

oil
iron nails

water water boiled to anhydrous


remove the air calcium chloride
to dry the air

A student predicted the following results.

1 In tube P, the iron nails rust.


2 In tube Q, the iron nails do not rust.
3 In tube R, the iron nails do not rust.

Which predictions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18 [Turn over

155
12

32 A diagram of the carbon cycle is shown.

carbon
dioxide
X

W X

plants animals dead Y


organisms

fossil
fuels

Which processes are represented by the letters W, X and Y?

W X Y

A photosynthesis combustion respiration


B photosynthesis respiration combustion
C respiration combustion photosynthesis
D respiration photosynthesis combustion

33 Which statement about sulfur or one of its compounds is correct?

A Sulfur occurs naturally as the element sulfur.


B Sulfur dioxide is used to kill bacteria in drinking water.
C Sulfuric acid is a weak acid.
D Dilute sulfuric acid is a dehydrating agent.

34 Which reaction is endothermic?

A CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

B CaO + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2O

C 2Ca + O2 → 2CaO

D Ca + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18

156
13

35 Which equation representing a reaction of methane is correct?

A CH4 + Cl 2 → CH3Cl + HCl

B CH4 + Cl 2 → CH4Cl 2

C CH4 + Cl 2 → CH2Cl 2 + H2

D 2CH4 + 2Cl 2 → 2CH3Cl + Cl 2 + H2

36 Which two compounds are molecules which both contain a double bond?

A ethane and ethanoic acid


B ethane and ethanol
C ethene and ethanoic acid
D ethene and ethanol

37 Ethanol can be formed by:

1 fermentation
2 reaction between steam and ethene.

Which of these processes use a catalyst?

1 2

A
B
C
D

38 When the alcohol CH3CH2CH2OH reacts with the carboxylic acid CH3CH2CH2COOH an ester is
formed.

What is the name and structural formula of this ester?

name structural formula

A butyl propanoate CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH2CH3


B butyl propanoate CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH2CH3
C propyl butanoate CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH2CH3
D propyl butanoate CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH2CH3

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18 [Turn over

157
14

39 A solution of ethanol and water is left to stand in an open beaker in a warm room for three weeks.

Which statement explains what happens to the ethanol in the solution?

A The ethanol is dehydrated to ethene.


B The ethanol is hydrolysed to ethene.
C The ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid.
D The ethanol is reduced to ethanoic acid.

40 The structure of a polymer is shown.

H CH3 H CH3 H CH3

C C C C C C

H CH3 H CH3 H CH3

Which monomer is used to make this polymer?

A B C D

CH3 CH3 CH3 H H CH3 CH3 H

C C C C C C C C

H H H CH3 CH3 H CH3 H

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18

158
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/21/O/N/18

159
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2018
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/O/N/18
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

160
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9042823184*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0620_22/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

161
2

1 Oxygen and fluorine are gaseous elements next to each other in the Periodic Table.

Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, oxygen diffuses ......1...... than fluorine
because its ......2...... is less than that of fluorine.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A faster molecular mass


B faster reactivity
C slower molecular mass
D slower reactivity

2 The diagrams show four pieces of laboratory equipment.

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

Which equipment is essential to find out if dissolving a salt in water is an exothermic process?

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

A
B
C
D

45
3 How many neutrons are present in the atom 21 X ?

A 21 B 24 C 45 D 66

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

162
3

4 Two naturally occurring isotopes of oxygen are 16O and 17O.

Which statement is correct?

A Both isotopes react with iron to form rust.


B Neither isotope reacts with iron to form rust.
C Only 16O reacts with iron to form rust.
D Only 17O reacts with iron to form rust.

5 How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?

A 5 B 6 C 8 D 10

6 Potassium bromide and methanol are both compounds.

Their melting points are different.

Which row is correct?

substance with the


reason why the melting points are different
higher melting point
A methanol the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions
is greater than the attractive forces between molecules
B methanol the attractive forces between molecules is greater
than the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions
C potassium bromide the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions
is greater than the attractive forces between molecules
D potassium bromide the attractive forces between molecules is greater
than the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions

7 Which gas sample contains the smallest number of molecules?

A 4 g of helium
B 16 g of oxygen
C 28 g of carbon monoxide
D 28 g of nitrogen

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18 [Turn over

163
4

8 The equation for the reaction between calcium carbonate and dilute nitric acid is shown.

CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

25 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute nitric acid.

Which mass of calcium nitrate and which volume of carbon dioxide is produced at room
temperature and pressure?

mass of volume of
calcium nitrate / g carbon dioxide / dm3

A 29 6
B 29 12
C 41 6
D 41 12

9 The formulae of some ions are shown.

positive ion negative ion

Ti4+ PO43–
Al 3+ SO42–
Mg2+ NO3–
K+ Cl –

Which formula is not correct?

A Al 3(SO4)2 B K3PO4 C Mg(NO3)2 D TiCl 4

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

164
5

10 Concentrated aqueous copper(II) chloride is electrolysed using copper electrodes as shown.

power supply

+ –
copper electrodes

aqueous copper(II) chloride

What happens to the mass of each electrode during this process?

positive electrode negative electrode

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18 [Turn over

165
6

11 The diagram shows a circuit used to electrolyse aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

power supply
+ –

3 4

+ –
copper electrodes

1
aqueous
2
copper(II) sulfate

Which arrows indicate the movement of the copper ions in the electrolyte and of the electrons in
the external circuit?

copper ions electrons

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

12 Hydrogen peroxide, H–O–O–H, decomposes to form water and oxygen.

2H2O2(g) → 2H2O(g) + O2(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table. The reaction is exothermic.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

O–H +460
O–O +150
O=O +496

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –346 kJ / mol B –196 kJ / mol C +196 kJ / mol D +346 kJ / mol

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

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7

13 The equation for the formation of ammonia is shown.

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

The energy level diagram for the reaction is shown.

activation
energy
= +250 kJ / mol
total energy
N2 + 3H2 released
energy
= –342 kJ / mol
energy
change
2NH3

progress of reaction

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –592 kJ / mol
B –92 kJ / mol
C +92 kJ / mol
D +592 kJ / mol

14 The rate of reaction between magnesium ribbon and 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 25 °C to
produce hydrogen gas is measured.

In another experiment, either the concentration of the hydrochloric acid or the temperature is
changed. All other conditions are kept the same.

Which conditions increase the rate of reaction?

A 1 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 25 °C

B 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 10 °C

C 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 20 °C

D 3 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 25 °C

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18 [Turn over

167
8

15 Methanol is prepared by the reversible reaction shown.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions produce the highest equilibrium yield of methanol?

temperature pressure

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

16 The thermite reaction can be used to produce iron from iron(III) oxide.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

2Al + Fe2O3 → 2Fe + Al 2O3

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Aluminium is the oxidising agent.


2 Aluminium is less reactive than iron.
3 Electrons are transferred from aluminium to iron.

4 The iron in the iron(III) oxide is reduced.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

17 In which row are the oxides correctly identified?

acidic basic

A magnesium oxide, calcium oxide sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide


B magnesium oxide, sulfur dioxide carbon dioxide, calcium oxide
C sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide calcium oxide, magnesium oxide
D sulfur dioxide, magnesium oxide calcium oxide, carbon dioxide

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

168
9

18 When dilute sulfuric acid is added to solid X, a colourless solution is formed and a gas is
produced.

What is X?

A copper(II) oxide

B sodium oxide
C copper(II) carbonate
D sodium carbonate

19 A few drops of methyl orange are added to a reaction mixture.

During the reaction, a gas is produced and the methyl orange turns from red to orange.

What are the reactants?

A aqueous sodium hydroxide and ammonium chloride


B aqueous sodium hydroxide and calcium carbonate
C dilute hydrochloric acid and magnesium
D dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide

20 Some general rules for the solubility of salts in water are listed.

● Carbonates are insoluble (except ammonium carbonate, potassium carbonate and


sodium carbonate).

● Chlorides are soluble (except lead(II) chloride and silver chloride).

● Nitrates are soluble.

● Sulfates are soluble (except barium sulfate, calcium sulfate and lead(II) sulfate).

Which substances produce an insoluble salt when aqueous solutions of them are mixed?

A barium chloride and magnesium nitrate


B calcium chloride and ammonium nitrate
C silver nitrate and zinc chloride
D sodium carbonate and potassium sulfate

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18 [Turn over

169
10

21 Elements in Group I of the Periodic Table react with water.

Which row describes the products made in the reaction and the trend in reactivity of the
elements?

products trend in reactivity

A metal hydroxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group


B metal hydroxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group
C metal oxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group
D metal oxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group

22 The equation shows the reaction between a halogen and aqueous bromide ions.

X2 + 2Br– → 2X– + Br2


......1...... ......2...... ......3......

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A chlorine brown colourless


B chlorine colourless brown
C iodine brown colourless
D iodine colourless brown

23 An inert gas R is used to fill weather balloons.

Which descriptions of R are correct?

number of outer shell


structure of gas R
electrons in atoms of R

A 2 diatomic molecules
B 2 single atoms
C 8 diatomic molecules
D 8 single atoms

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

170
11

24 Heating copper(II) carbonate produces copper(II) oxide and carbon dioxide.

Heating the copper(II) oxide formed with carbon produces copper.

Which processes are involved in this conversion of copper(II) carbonate to copper?

A sublimation followed by oxidation


B sublimation followed by reduction
C thermal decomposition followed by oxidation
D thermal decomposition followed by reduction

25 Four metals, W, X, Y and Z, are separately reacted with water and dilute hydrochloric acid.

The results are shown.

metal
W X Y Z

reaction with water fizzes no reaction fizzes no reaction


vigorously
reaction with dilute fizzes no reaction fizzes fizzes
hydrochloric acid violently

What is the order of reactivity of the four metals starting with the least reactive?

least reactive most reactive

A X W Z Y
B X Z W Y
C Y W Z X
D Y Z W X

26 Which statement about the uses of metals is not correct?

A Aluminium is used in aircraft because of its strength and good electrical conductivity.
B Copper is used in electrical wiring because of its good electrical conductivity.
C Stainless steel resists corrosion and is used to make cutlery.
D Transition elements are often used as catalysts.

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18 [Turn over

171
12

27 Bauxite contains aluminium oxide.

Aluminium is extracted from aluminium oxide by electrolysis.

Why is cryolite added to the electrolytic cell used to extract aluminium?

A Cryolite prevents the carbon anodes being burned away.


B Cryolite removes impurities from the bauxite.
C Cryolite increases the rate at which aluminium ions are discharged.
D Molten cryolite dissolves the aluminium oxide.

28 Which statement about the Haber process is correct?

A The hydrogen used is obtained from the air.


B The nitrogen used is obtained from nitrates in the soil.
C Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to make ammonia.
D The reaction takes place at room temperature and pressure.

29 Which statements about sulfur dioxide pollution are correct?

1 It increases the pH of rivers.

2 It damages limestone buildings.

3 It causes respiratory problems.

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

30 Argon is a noble gas used to fill light bulbs.

What is the approximate percentage of argon in air?

A 1% B 20% C 79% D 99%

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

172
13

31 The diagrams show experiments involving the rusting of iron.

tube P tube Q tube R

oil
iron nails

water water boiled to anhydrous


remove the air calcium chloride
to dry the air

A student predicted the following results.

1 In tube P, the iron nails rust.


2 In tube Q, the iron nails do not rust.
3 In tube R, the iron nails do not rust.

Which predictions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

32 In the carbon cycle, which two processes add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

A combustion and carbonate formation


B combustion and photosynthesis
C combustion and respiration
D respiration and photosynthesis

33 Which statement about sulfur or one of its compounds is correct?

A Sulfur occurs naturally as the element sulfur.


B Sulfur dioxide is used to kill bacteria in drinking water.
C Sulfuric acid is a weak acid.
D Dilute sulfuric acid is a dehydrating agent.

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18 [Turn over

173
14

34 What is not a use of lime?

A It is used as a bleach in the manufacture of wood pulp.


B It is used to desulfurise flue gases.
C It is used to neutralise acidic industrial waste.
D It is used to treat acidic soil.

35 Which equation representing a reaction of methane is correct?

A CH4 + Cl 2 → CH3Cl + HCl

B CH4 + Cl 2 → CH4Cl 2

C CH4 + Cl 2 → CH2Cl 2 + H2

D 2CH4 + 2Cl 2 → 2CH3Cl + Cl 2 + H2

36 Which two compounds are molecules which both contain a double bond?

A ethane and ethanoic acid


B ethane and ethanol
C ethene and ethanoic acid
D ethene and ethanol

37 Ethanol can be formed by:

1 fermentation
2 reaction between steam and ethene.

Which of these processes use a catalyst?

1 2

A
B
C
D

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

174
15

38 Ethanol is manufactured from ethene.

What is an advantage of this process?

A It is a continuous process.
B It has high labour costs.
C It needs high temperature and pressure.
D It uses non-renewable materials.

39 Which reaction can be used to make ethanoic acid?

A oxidation of ethanol
B oxidation of ethene
C reduction of ethanol
D reduction of ethene

40 The structure of an addition polymer is shown.

H OH H OH H OH

C C C C C C

H H H H H H

Which monomer is used to make this polymer?

A B C D

OH OH OH H OH H H

H C H H C C H C C C C

H H H HO H H OH

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/22/O/N/18

175
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2018
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/O/N/18
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

176
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9404328925*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 11_0620_23/5RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

177
2

1 Gases are separated from liquid air by fractional distillation. The boiling points of four gases are
shown.

Which gas is both monatomic and a liquid at –200 °C?

boiling
gas
point / °C

A argon –186
B helium –269
C neon –246
D nitrogen –196

2 The diagrams show four pieces of laboratory equipment.

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

Which equipment is essential to find out if dissolving a salt in water is an exothermic process?

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

A
B
C
D

3 Which statement describes isotopes?

A Isotopes of the same element have different electron arrangements.


B Isotopes of the same element have different nuclear charges.
C Isotopes of the same element have nuclei with masses that are the same.
D Isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons.

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/O/N/18

178
3

4 X and Y are both atoms.

X and Y have the same chemical properties as each other.

Which row describes the atomic structures of X and Y?

X Y
protons neutrons electrons protons neutrons electrons

A 6 6 6 6 6 7
B 6 6 6 6 8 6
C 6 6 6 16 16 16
D 7 6 7 6 6 7

5 Which covalent molecule contains two atoms bonded together by exactly four shared electrons?

A N2 B C3H8 C CH3OH D CH3COOH

6 The formula of ammonia is NH3.

Which statement about a molecule of ammonia is correct?

A The bonding in a molecule of ammonia is ionic.


B The nitrogen atom has a noble gas configuration, the hydrogen atoms do not.
C The nitrogen atom shares all of its electrons with hydrogen atoms.
D There are six shared electrons in a molecule of ammonia.

7 Which gas sample has the greatest mass?

A 5.0 moles of Cl 2
B 10.0 moles of O2
C 15.0 moles of N2
D 20.0 moles of H2

8 Which sample of magnesium chloride, MgCl 2, contains the same number of moles as
69.6 g of potassium sulfate, K2SO4?

A 19.0 g B 28.5 g C 38.0 g D 47.5 g

9 Iron(III) chromate is a yellow solid. It contains the ions Fe3+ and CrO42–.

What is the formula of iron(III) chromate?

A FeCrO4 B Fe3(CrO4)2 C Fe2CrO4 D Fe2(CrO4)3

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4

10 Electrolysis of copper(II) sulfate can be done using either carbon electrodes or copper
electrodes.

Which statement describes what happens at the positive electrode?

A Copper is deposited if the electrode is made from carbon.


B Copper is deposited if the electrode is made from copper.
C Oxygen gas is produced if the electrode is made from carbon.
D Oxygen gas is produced if the electrode is made from copper.

11 The diagram shows a circuit used to electrolyse aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

power supply
+ –

3 4

+ –
copper electrodes

1
aqueous
2
copper(II) sulfate

Which arrows indicate the movement of the copper ions in the electrolyte and of the electrons in
the external circuit?

copper ions electrons

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

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5

12 Ethene burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water vapour.

H H
C C + 3 O=O → 2 O=C=O + 2 H–O–H
H H

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C=C +610
C–H +410
O=O +497
C=O +805
O–H +460

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –2959 kJ / mol
B –2313 kJ / mol
C –1319 kJ / mol
D –399 kJ / mol

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6

13 The equation for the formation of ammonia is shown.

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

The energy level diagram for the reaction is shown.

activation
energy
= +250 kJ / mol
total energy
N2 + 3H2 released
energy
= –342 kJ / mol
energy
change
2NH3

progress of reaction

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –592 kJ / mol
B –92 kJ / mol
C +92 kJ / mol
D +592 kJ / mol

14 Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with 1 g of limestone.

Which conditions produce the fastest rate of reaction?

A 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid and a single lump of limestone


B 4 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid and a single lump of limestone
C 4 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid and small pieces of limestone
D 4 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid and powdered limestone

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7

15 The reversible reaction between methane and steam is shown.

CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which changes in pressure and temperature move the equilibrium to the right?

pressure temperature

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

16 The equation for the reaction between zinc and copper(II) oxide is shown.

Zn + CuO → ZnO + Cu

Which row shows the oxidising agent and the reducing agent?

oxidising agent reducing agent

A CuO Cu
B CuO Zn
C Zn CuO
D Zn ZnO

17 The results of some experiments with sulfur dioxide are shown.

experiment description result

1 mix with dilute hydrochloric acid does not react


2 mix with concentrated sodium hydroxide a salt forms
3 add Universal Indicator Universal Indicator
turns purple
4 add acidified aqueous purple solution
potassium manganate(VII) turns colourless

Which results are correct?

A 1, 2 and 4 B 2, 3 and 4 C 1 and 2 only D 3 and 4 only

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18 A white precipitate is produced when small amounts of two colourless solutions are mixed
together.

Which pairs of solutions produce a white precipitate?

1 sodium hydroxide and zinc nitrate


2 sodium hydroxide and aluminium chloride
3 barium chloride and sulfuric acid
4 acidified barium nitrate and potassium sulfate

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 2 only

19 Solution Q is warmed with ammonium chloride.

In a separate experiment, solution Q is added to methyl orange.

Which observations show that solution Q is basic?

warmed with added to


ammonium chloride methyl orange

A gas is produced turns red


B gas is produced turns yellow
C no reaction turns red
D no reaction turns yellow

20 Some general rules for the solubility of salts in water are listed.

● Carbonates are insoluble (except ammonium carbonate, potassium carbonate and


sodium carbonate).

● Chlorides are soluble (except lead(II) chloride and silver chloride).

● Nitrates are soluble.

● Sulfates are soluble (except barium sulfate, calcium sulfate and lead(II) sulfate).

Which substances produce an insoluble salt when aqueous solutions of them are mixed?

A barium chloride and magnesium nitrate


B calcium chloride and ammonium nitrate
C silver nitrate and zinc chloride
D sodium carbonate and potassium sulfate

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9

21 Elements in Group I of the Periodic Table react with water.

Which row describes the products made in the reaction and the trend in reactivity of the
elements?

products trend in reactivity

A metal hydroxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group


B metal hydroxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group
C metal oxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group
D metal oxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group

22 The equation shows the reaction between a halogen and aqueous bromide ions.

X2 + 2Br– → 2X– + Br2


......1...... ......2...... ......3......

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A chlorine brown colourless


B chlorine colourless brown
C iodine brown colourless
D iodine colourless brown

23 An inert gas R is used to fill weather balloons.

Which descriptions of R are correct?

number of outer shell


structure of gas R
electrons in atoms of R

A 2 diatomic molecules
B 2 single atoms
C 8 diatomic molecules
D 8 single atoms

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10

24 Heating copper(II) carbonate produces copper(II) oxide and carbon dioxide.

Heating the copper(II) oxide formed with carbon produces copper.

Which colour changes are observed during these reactions?

A green → black → brown

B green → white → brown

C blue → black → silver

D blue → white → brown

25 Calcium reacts with cold water to produce hydrogen.

Lead reacts slowly when heated in air to form an oxide but has almost no reaction with steam.

Silver does not react with either air or water.

Zinc reacts when heated with steam to produce hydrogen.

What is the order of reactivity starting with the least reactive?

least reactive most reactive

A calcium lead zinc silver


B calcium zinc lead silver
C silver lead zinc calcium
D silver zinc lead calcium

26 Which row describes the use of a metal and the property upon which the use depends?

metal use property

A aluminium aircraft bodies aluminium is a heat conductor


B aluminium cooking utensils aluminium has a low density
C copper cooking utensils copper has a high density
D copper electrical wiring copper is a good conductor of electricity

27 Which statement about the manufacture of aluminium by electrolysis is correct?

A Aluminium ions are oxidised to aluminium by gaining electrons.


B Aluminium is extracted from its ore hematite.
C Molten cryolite is used to dissolve the aluminium oxide.
D Oxygen is formed at the negative electrode.

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11

28 Ammonia is manufactured by the Haber process from nitrogen and hydrogen.

Which row gives the main sources of these two gases?

hydrogen nitrogen

A air air
B air natural gas
C natural gas air
D natural gas natural gas

29 Which equation represents the incomplete combustion of propane, C3H8?

A 2C3H8 + 7O2 → 6CO + 8H2O

B C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

C 2C3H8 + 11O2 → 6CO + 16H2O

D C3H8 + 7O2 → 3CO2 + 8H2O

30 Argon is a noble gas used to fill light bulbs.

What is the approximate percentage of argon in air?

A 1% B 20% C 79% D 99%

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12

31 The diagrams show experiments involving the rusting of iron.

tube P tube Q tube R

oil
iron nails

water water boiled to anhydrous


remove the air calcium chloride
to dry the air

A student predicted the following results.

1 In tube P, the iron nails rust.


2 In tube Q, the iron nails do not rust.
3 In tube R, the iron nails do not rust.

Which predictions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

32 Which statement about the carbon cycle is correct?

A Animals and plants need carbon dioxide for respiration.


B Combustion of plants and natural gas produces carbon dioxide.
C Plants produce glucose from carbon dioxide and oxygen.
D Oxygen is produced by both animals and plants.

33 Which statement about sulfur or one of its compounds is correct?

A Sulfur occurs naturally as the element sulfur.


B Sulfur dioxide is used to kill bacteria in drinking water.
C Sulfuric acid is a weak acid.
D Dilute sulfuric acid is a dehydrating agent.

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13

34 Which equation represents the formation of lime?

A CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

B CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2

C Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2

D Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

35 Which equation representing a reaction of methane is correct?

A CH4 + Cl 2 → CH3Cl + HCl

B CH4 + Cl 2 → CH4Cl 2

C CH4 + Cl 2 → CH2Cl 2 + H2

D 2CH4 + 2Cl 2 → 2CH3Cl + Cl 2 + H2

36 Which two compounds are molecules which both contain a double bond?

A ethane and ethanoic acid


B ethane and ethanol
C ethene and ethanoic acid
D ethene and ethanol

37 Ethanol can be formed by:

1 fermentation
2 reaction between steam and ethene.

Which of these processes use a catalyst?

1 2

A
B
C
D

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14

38 Sugar can be fermented to produce ethanol.

Some of the stages in the process to produce and purify ethanol are listed.

1 Leave in a warm place.


2 Add yeast.
3 Fractionally distil the solution.
4 Dissolve the sugar in water.
5 Filter to remove the yeast.
6 Crush some sugar cane.

What is the correct order of these stages?

A 4→6→2→1→5→3

B 6→4→1→2→5→3

C 6→4→2→1→3→5

D 6→4→2→1→5→3

39 Which statement about ethanoic acid is correct?

A It contains a –C2H5 group.


B It is a strong acid.
C It is formed by the reduction of ethanol.
D It reacts with alcohols to form esters.

40 The structure of a polymer is shown.

H Cl H Cl H Cl

C C C C C C

H Cl H Cl H Cl

Which monomer is used to make this polymer?

A B C D

Cl Cl Cl H Cl Cl H Cl H Cl H

C C C C C H C C C C H C C

H H Cl Cl Cl Cl H Cl H

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15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/O/N/18

191
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2018
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/O/N/18
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

192
Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7311411163*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_0620_21/3RP
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2

1 Which statement explains why ammonia gas, NH3, diffuses at a faster rate than
hydrogen chloride gas, HCl ?

A Ammonia expands to occupy all of the space available.


B Ammonia has a smaller relative molecular mass than hydrogen chloride.
C Ammonia is an alkali and hydrogen chloride is an acid.
D Ammonia molecules diffuse in all directions at the same time.

2 2.00 g of powdered calcium carbonate is added to 50.0 cm3 of hydrochloric acid.

Which apparatus is used to measure the calcium carbonate and the hydrochloric acid?

calcium carbonate hydrochloric acid

A balance burette
B balance thermometer
C pipette burette
D pipette thermometer

3 The measurements from a chromatography experiment using substance F are shown. The
diagram is not drawn to scale.

solvent front

distance moved by F

100 mm
90 mm

55 mm

15 mm
baseline

What is the Rf value of F?

A 0.55 B 0.61 C 0.90 D 1.64

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3

19
4 Which statement about an atom of fluorine, 9 F, is correct?

A It contains more protons than neutrons.


B It contains a total of 28 protons, neutrons and electrons.
C Its isotopes contain different numbers of protons.
D Its nucleus contains 9 neutrons.

5 Which row describes the formation of single covalent bonds in methane?

A atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms gain a


noble gas electronic structure
B atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms have the same number
of electrons in their outer shell
C electrons are transferred from one both atoms gain a
atom to another noble gas electronic structure
D electrons are transferred from one both atoms have the same number
atom to another of electrons in their outer shell

6 Which statement describes the structure of an ionic compound?

A It is a giant lattice of oppositely charged ions.


B It is a giant lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea’ of electrons.
C It is a giant molecule of oppositely charged ions.
D It is a simple molecule of oppositely charged ions.

7 Propane burns in oxygen.

C3H8 + xO2 → 3CO2 + yH2O

Which values of x and y balance the equation?

x y

A 5 4
B 7 4
C 10 8
D 13 8

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4

8 A tablet contains 0.080 g of ascorbic acid (Mr = 176).

What is the concentration of ascorbic acid when one tablet is dissolved in 200 cm3 of water?

A 9.1 × 10–5 mol / dm3

B 4.5 × 10–4 mol / dm3

C 9.1 × 10–2 mol / dm3

D 2.3 × 10–3 mol / dm3

9 Which statement about the electrolysis of copper(II) sulfate solution using carbon electrodes is
correct?

A A colourless gas is produced at the anode.


B A colourless gas is produced at the cathode.
C The colour of the electrolyte remains the same.
D The mass of both electrodes remains constant.

10 Aluminium metal is extracted from aluminium oxide by electrolysis.

Which ionic half-equation describes a reaction that occurs at the named electrode?

ionic half-equation electrode

A 2O2– → O2 + 2e– anode


B Al 3+ + 3e– → Al anode
C 2O2– → O2 + 4e– cathode
D Al 3+ + 3e– → Al cathode

11 Which statement about the hydrogen fuel cell is not correct?

A Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.


B Hydrogen is oxidised.
C The reaction that takes place is endothermic.
D Water is the only product.

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5

12 Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to produce ammonia.

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

The reaction is exothermic. The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

N≡N 945
H–H 436
N–H 390

What is the energy change for this reaction?

A –1473 kJ / mol
B –87 kJ / mol
C 87 kJ / mol
D 1473 kJ / mol

13 Which change in reaction conditions increases both the collision rate and the proportion of
molecules with sufficient energy to react?

A addition of a catalyst
B increasing the concentration of a reactant
C increasing the surface area of a reactant
D increasing the temperature of the reaction

14 When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid
remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns.

Which process describes these changes?

A combustion
B corrosion
C neutralisation
D reversible reaction

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15 The graph shows how the yield of product in a reversible reaction changes as the temperature
and pressure are changed.

All reactants and products are gases.

reactants products

yield of
product 300 °C

100 °C

pressure

Which row is correct for this reversible reaction?

side of reaction forward


with fewer moles reaction

A reactant exothermic
B reactant endothermic
C product endothermic
D product exothermic

16 Which changes represent oxidation?

1 2I– → I2 + 2e–

2 Cr(VI) → Cr(III)

3 Fe(II) → Fe(III)

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

17 Nitrogen(I) oxide, N2O, nitrogen(II) oxide, NO, and carbon monoxide, CO, are all non-metal
oxides.

They do not react with acids or bases.

Which statement is correct?

A They are acidic oxides.


B They are amphoteric oxides.
C They are basic oxides.
D They are neutral oxides.

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18 The positions of elements W, X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table are shown.

Y
X Z

Which elements form basic oxides?

A W, X and Y B W and X only C Y only D Z only

19 Ethanoic acid is a weak acid.

Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.

Which statements are correct?

1 Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions.


2 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid.
3 Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid.
4 Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

20 The properties of an element are shown.

electrical conductivity density reaction with water


high low reacts violently with cold water

Which element has these properties?

A B
C
D

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21 Which statement about elements in Group I and Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct?

A Bromine reacts with potassium chloride to produce chlorine.


B Iodine is a monatomic non-metal.
C Lithium has a higher melting point than potassium.
D Sodium is more reactive with water than potassium.

22 Which statement about elements in Group VIII of the Periodic Table is correct?

A They all have a full outer shell of electrons.


B They all react with Group I elements to form ionic compounds.
C They are all diatomic molecules.
D They are all liquids at room temperature.

23 The diagrams show the structure of two substances used to make electrical conductors.

X Y

Which statement correctly describes X and Y?

A X is a pure metal and Y is a compound.


B X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy.
C X is a solid and Y is a liquid.
D X is harder and stronger than Y.

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9

24 Three metal compounds, P, Q and R, are heated using a Bunsen burner.

The results are shown.

P colourless gas produced, which relights a glowing splint


Q colourless gas produced, which turns limewater milky
R no reaction

Which row shows the identity of P, Q and R?

P Q R

A magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate potassium nitrate


B magnesium carbonate potassium nitrate potassium carbonate
C potassium nitrate magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate
D potassium nitrate potassium carbonate magnesium carbonate

25 Zinc is extracted from its ore, zinc blende, using two chemical reactions.

1 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

2 2ZnO + C → 2Zn + CO2

Which substance is reduced in reactions 1 and 2?

reaction 1 reaction 2

A O2 C
B O2 ZnO
C ZnS C
D ZnS ZnO

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26 Four metals, zinc, M, copper and magnesium, are reacted with aqueous solutions of their
nitrates.

The results are shown.

magnesium M copper zinc


metal
nitrate nitrate nitrate nitrate

magnesium key
zinc = reacts
M = no reaction
copper

What is the order of reactivity of these four metals starting with the most reactive?

A copper → zinc → M → magnesium

B copper → M → zinc → magnesium

C magnesium → M → zinc → copper

D magnesium → zinc → M → copper

27 Why is aluminium used to make containers for storing food?

A It conducts electricity.
B It has a high melting point.
C It is resistant to corrosion.
D It is strong.

28 Water can be treated by filtration then chlorination.

Which uses do not need water of this quality?

1 water for cooling in industry


2 water for washing clothes
3 water for drinking

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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11

29 Oxides of nitrogen are formed in car engines and are a source of air pollution.

To decrease this pollution, catalytic converters are fitted to car exhausts.

What happens to the oxides of nitrogen in the catalytic converter?

A combustion
B cracking
C oxidation
D reduction

30 The diagram shows an experiment to investigate how paint affects the rusting of iron.

P Q
iron painted iron

air

water

What happens to the water level in tubes P and Q?

tube P tube Q

A falls rises
B no change rises
C rises falls
D rises no change

31 Ammonia is manufactured by the Haber Process.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions maximise the yield of ammonia?

pressure temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

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32 The carbon cycle is shown.

atmospheric
carbon dioxide
X
respiration
decomposition Y

Z green plants
dead
organic matter

death and excretion

animals

Which row describes processes X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A respiration combustion photosynthesis


B respiration photosynthesis combustion
C photosynthesis combustion respiration
D photosynthesis respiration combustion

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 25 2 iron
B 25 200 iron
C 450 2 vanadium(V) oxide
D 450 200 vanadium(V) oxide

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13

34 The diagram represents a lime kiln used to heat limestone to a very high temperature.

waste gases

lime kiln

limestone

fuel in fuel in

air in air in

What leaves the kiln at X?

A calcium carbonate
B calcium hydroxide
C calcium oxide
D calcium sulfate

35 Which fuel could be gasoline?

Is it obtained
from petroleum?

yes no

Is it used as Is it used as
fuel for cars? fuel for cars?

yes no yes no

A B C D

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14

36 Why is ethanol a member of the homologous series of alcohols but propane is not?

A Ethanol has two carbon atoms per molecule but propane has three.
B Ethanol can be made from ethene but propane is obtained from petroleum.
C Ethanol is a liquid but propane is a gas.
D Ethanol contains the same functional group as other alcohols but propane does not.

37 Chlorine reacts with methane.

Which statements are correct?

1 The reaction takes place in the dark.


2 The reaction of chlorine with methane forms chloromethane.
3 Chloromethane reacts with chlorine to produce dichloromethane.
4 The reaction of chlorine with methane is an addition reaction.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

38 Which statements about aqueous ethanoic acid are correct?

1 Ethanoic acid contains the functional group –COOH.


2 Ethanoic acid reacts with carbonates to produce hydrogen.
3 Ethanoic acid turns Universal Indicator paper blue.
4 Ethanoic acid has a pH lower than pH 7.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 4 D 2 and 4

39 The structure of an ester is shown.

CH3 C

OCH2CH2CH3

What is the name of the ester?

A ethyl propanoate
B methyl propanoate
C propyl ethanoate
D propyl methanoate

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15

40 The structure of a polymer is shown.

O O O O

Which type of polymer is shown and by which process is it formed?

type of polymer formed by

A carbohydrate addition polymerisation


B carbohydrate condensation polymerisation
C polyester addition polymerisation
D polyester condensation polymerisation

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/M/J/19

207
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2019
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/M/J/19
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

208
Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6592304997*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 20.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB19 06_0620_22/3RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

209
2

1 The apparatus shown is set up. After 20 minutes a white ring of ammonium chloride is seen at
position Y.

cotton wool soaked in cotton wool soaked in


concentrated concentrated
ammonia solution hydrochloric acid
Y

white ring of
ammonium chloride

Which statement about the molecules of ammonia and hydrogen chloride is correct?

A Molecules in ammonia have a larger Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more slowly.
B Molecules in ammonia have a larger Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more quickly.
C Molecules in ammonia have a smaller Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more slowly.
D Molecules in ammonia have a smaller Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more quickly.

2 A student measures 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid accurately.

Which apparatus is most suitable?

A beaker
B measuring cylinder
C burette
D dropping pipette

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

210
3

3 The chromatogram of solutions of two metal ions, P and Q, is shown.

solvent front

baseline

P is coloured. A locating agent is used to find the position of Q.

The Rf value of each solution is calculated.

P is a ......1...... element and has an Rf value ......2...... than that


of Q.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A non-transition greater
B non-transition smaller
C transition greater
D transition smaller

31
4 What is an isotope of 15 E ?

31 33 31 33
A 14 E B 15 E C 16 E D 16 E

5 Which row describes the formation of single covalent bonds in methane?

A atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms gain a


noble gas electronic structure
B atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms have the same number
of electrons in their outer shell
C electrons are transferred from one both atoms gain a
atom to another noble gas electronic structure
D electrons are transferred from one both atoms have the same number
atom to another of electrons in their outer shell

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

211
4

6 Which statement describes the structure of an ionic compound?

A It is a giant lattice of oppositely charged ions.


B It is a giant lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea’ of electrons.
C It is a giant molecule of oppositely charged ions.
D It is a simple molecule of oppositely charged ions.

7 Calcium metal reacts with water to form a solution of calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Which equation is correct?

A Ca(s) + H2O(aq) → CaOH(aq) + H(g)

B Ca(s) + 2H2O(aq) → Ca(OH)2(s) + 2H2(g)

C Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)

D Ca(s) + H2O(l) → CaOH(l) + H(g)

8 25.0 cm3 of 0.100 mol / dm3 aqueous sodium hydroxide is neutralised by 24.6 cm3 of dilute
sulfuric acid.

What is the concentration of the dilute sulfuric acid?

A 0.0508 mol / dm3


B 0.0984 mol / dm3
C 0.102 mol / dm3
D 0.203 mol / dm3

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

212
5

9 The diagram shows the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of X using inert electrodes.

power
supply

– +

aqueous
solution of X

Hydrogen is produced at the cathode and chlorine is produced at the anode.

What is X?

A concentrated copper(II) chloride solution

B concentrated hydrochloric acid


C dilute hydrochloric acid
D dilute sodium chloride solution

10 Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis as shown.

graphite anode

steel case

– + + –
aluminium oxide
dissolved in molten cryolite

graphite cathode

molten aluminium

Which row shows the ionic half-equations at the cathode and the anode?

cathode anode

A Al 3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2– → O2 + 4e–


B Al 3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2– + 4e– → O2
C Al 3+ + 3e– → Al 2O2– → O2 + 4e–
D Al 3+ + 3e– → Al 2O2– + 4e– → O2

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

213
6

11 Fuel cells are used as energy sources in cars.

Which row gives a fuel used in a fuel cell and the products formed?

fuel in a fuel cell products formed

A hydrogen carbon dioxide and water


B hydrogen water only
C petrol carbon dioxide and water
D petrol water only

12 Two elements, X and Y, react together to form a covalent molecule as shown.

The reaction is exothermic.

X2(g) + Y2(g) → 2XY(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy in
bond
kJ / mol

X–X 436
Y–Y 242
X–Y 431

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A +184 kJ / mol B –184 kJ / mol C +247 kJ / mol D –247 kJ / mol

13 Which change in reaction conditions increases both the collision rate and the proportion of
molecules with sufficient energy to react?

A addition of a catalyst
B increasing the concentration of a reactant
C increasing the surface area of a reactant
D increasing the temperature of the reaction

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

214
7

14 When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid
remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns.

Which process describes these changes?

A combustion
B corrosion
C neutralisation
D reversible reaction

15 The equation for the manufacture of ethanol is shown.

C2H4(g) + H2O(g) C2H5OH(g)


ethene steam ethanol

What is the effect of doubling the pressure on this reaction?

A decreases the rate of formation of ethanol


B increases the yield of ethene
C decreases the rate of formation of ethene
D increases the yield of ethanol

16 The ionic equation for the reaction of aqueous potassium bromide with chlorine gas is shown.

2Br – + Cl 2 → Br2 + 2Cl –

Which statement is correct?

A Bromide ions are oxidised by gaining electrons.


B Bromide ions are oxidised by losing electrons.
C Chlorine is oxidised by gaining electrons.
D Chlorine is oxidised by losing electrons.

17 Which type of oxide are carbon monoxide and aluminium oxide?

carbon monoxide aluminium oxide

A acidic amphoteric
B acidic basic
C neutral amphoteric
D neutral basic

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

215
8

18 The positions of elements W, X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table are shown.

Y
X Z

Which elements form basic oxides?

A W, X and Y B W and X only C Y only D Z only

19 Which row shows the difference between a weak acid and a strong acid?

weak acid strong acid

A fully ionised partially ionised


B concentrated dilute
C dilute concentrated
D partially ionised fully ionised

20 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Y Z

Which row describes the properties of X, Y and Z?

good conductor high melting


of electricity point

A X Z
B Y Z and X
C Y and Z Z
D Z and X X

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

216
9

21 The melting points and boiling points of the elements of Group I of the Periodic Table are shown.

melting point boiling point


element
/ °C / °C

lithium 181 1330


sodium 98 883
potassium 63 759
rubidium 39 688
caesium 28 671

Which pair of elements are liquid at 800 °C?

A caesium and rubidium


B potassium and sodium
C lithium and sodium
D potassium and caesium

22 The electronic structures of helium, neon and argon are shown.

He Ne Ar

Which row describes these gases?

reactivity form of the gas electronic structure

A reactive monoatomic incomplete outer shell of electrons


B unreactive diatomic complete outer shell of electrons
C unreactive diatomic incomplete outer shell of electrons
D unreactive monoatomic complete outer shell of electrons

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

217
10

23 The diagrams show the structure of two substances used to make electrical conductors.

X Y

Which statement correctly describes X and Y?

A X is a pure metal and Y is a compound.


B X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy.
C X is a solid and Y is a liquid.
D X is harder and stronger than Y.

24 A student heated the carbonates and nitrates of sodium and copper.

The results are shown.

compound heated gases released solid formed

1 sodium carbonate carbon monoxide sodium oxide


2 copper(II) carbonate carbon dioxide copper
3 sodium nitrate oxygen only sodium nitrite
4 copper(II) nitrate nitrogen dioxide and oxygen copper(II) oxide

Which rows describe the correct results?

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 3 and 4 D 4 only

25 Zinc is extracted from its ore, zinc blende, using two chemical reactions.

1 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

2 2ZnO + C → 2Zn + CO2

Which substance is reduced in reactions 1 and 2?

reaction 1 reaction 2

A O2 C
B O2 ZnO
C ZnS C
D ZnS ZnO

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

218
11

26 Four metals, zinc, M, copper and magnesium, are reacted with aqueous solutions of their
nitrates.

The results are shown.

magnesium M copper zinc


metal
nitrate nitrate nitrate nitrate

magnesium key
zinc = reacts
M = no reaction
copper

What is the order of reactivity of these four metals starting with the most reactive?

A copper → zinc → M → magnesium

B copper → M → zinc → magnesium

C magnesium → M → zinc → copper

D magnesium → zinc → M → copper

27 Which property of aluminium makes it useful in the manufacture of aircraft?

A conducts electricity
B high boiling point
C low density
D silver colour

28 The exhaust gases from cars contain oxides of nitrogen.

How are these oxides of nitrogen formed?

A Nitrogen and oxygen from the air react together at the high temperatures in the engine.
B Nitrogen and oxygen from the petrol react together in the car exhaust.
C Nitrogen from the petrol reacts with oxygen at the high temperatures in the engine.
D Nitrogen reacts with oxygen from the air in the catalytic converter.

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

219
12

29 Water can be treated by filtration then chlorination.

Which uses do not need water of this quality?

1 water for cooling in industry


2 water for washing clothes
3 water for drinking

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

30 Some of the processes involved in the carbon cycle are shown.

1 glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

2 carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

3 methane + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

What are the names of these processes?

1 2 3

A combustion respiration photosynthesis


B photosynthesis combustion respiration
C respiration combustion photosynthesis
D respiration photosynthesis combustion

31 The diagram shows an experiment to investigate how paint affects the rusting of iron.

P Q
iron painted iron

air

water

What happens to the water level in tubes P and Q?

tube P tube Q

A falls rises
B no change rises
C rises falls
D rises no change

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

220
13

32 Ammonia is produced in the Haber process.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions of temperature and pressure produce the highest yield of ammonia?

temperature pressure

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 25 2 iron
B 25 200 iron
C 450 2 vanadium(V) oxide
D 450 200 vanadium(V) oxide

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

221
14

34 The diagram represents a lime kiln used to heat limestone to a very high temperature.

waste gases

lime kiln

limestone

fuel in fuel in

air in air in

What leaves the kiln at X?

A calcium carbonate
B calcium hydroxide
C calcium oxide
D calcium sulfate

35 Which fuel could be gasoline?

Is it obtained
from petroleum?

yes no

Is it used as Is it used as
fuel for cars? fuel for cars?

yes no yes no

A B C D

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

222
15

36 Which statement about homologous series is not correct?

A All homologous series are hydrocarbons.


B Members of a homologous series have the same functional group.
C Members of a homologous series have similar chemical properties.
D The alkanes are an example of a homologous series.

37 In bright sunlight, ethane and chlorine combine in substitution reactions.

Which compound is not formed in these reactions?

A C2H3Cl B C2H5Cl C C2H4Cl 2 D HCl

38 What are the properties of aqueous ethanoic acid?

reacts with
decolourises turns damp red
calcium carbonate to
bromine water litmus blue
make carbon dioxide

A
B
C
D

39 The structures of four molecules are shown.

1 2 3 4

O H H H H H H O

H C H C OH H C C C OH H C C C

OH H H H H H H OH

Which molecules react together to form the ester propyl methanoate?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19 [Turn over

223
16

40 But-1-ene has the structure CH3CH2CH=CH2.

What is the structure of poly(but-1-ene)?

A B C D

H H H H H CH2CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 CH2CH3

C C C C C C C C C C

H H H H H H H H H H
n n n n

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

224
17

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

225
18

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

226
19

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/M/J/19

227
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2019
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
20

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/M/J/19
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

228
Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2518966734*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 06_0620_23/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

229
2

1 Hydrogen chloride gas (Mr = 36.5) is released at P in the apparatus shown.

The Universal Indicator paper turns red after 38 s.

Universal
Indicator paper

The experiment is repeated using sulfur dioxide (Mr = 64).

What is the result for sulfur dioxide?

Universal Indicator time for Universal Indicator


turns to change colour / s

A blue 26
B blue 51
C red 26
D red 51

2 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure 24.8 cm3 of gas produced during a reaction?

A beaker
B conical flask
C measuring cylinder
D pipette

3 Rf values are used to identify unknown substances using paper chromatography.

Which statements about Rf values are correct?

1 Rf values are always less than 1.0.

2 Rf value = distance travelled by solvent ÷ distance travelled by unknown substance.

3 The higher the Rf value, the further the unknown substance travels.
4 Rf values are not affected by the solubility of the unknown substance.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

230
3

4 The structure of an atom is shown.

key
= electron
7p n = neutron
8n p = proton

Which element is the atom an isotope of?

A nitrogen
B oxygen
C phosphorus
D titanium

5 Which row describes the formation of single covalent bonds in methane?

A atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms gain a


noble gas electronic structure
B atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms have the same number
of electrons in their outer shell
C electrons are transferred from one both atoms gain a
atom to another noble gas electronic structure
D electrons are transferred from one both atoms have the same number
atom to another of electrons in their outer shell

6 Which statement describes the structure of an ionic compound?

A It is a giant lattice of oppositely charged ions.


B It is a giant lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea’ of electrons.
C It is a giant molecule of oppositely charged ions.
D It is a simple molecule of oppositely charged ions.

7 When propane burns in air, carbon dioxide and water are formed.

What is the chemical equation for this reaction?

A C3H8 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

B C3H8 + 3O2 → 3CO2 + H2O

C C3H8 + 4O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

D C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19 [Turn over

231
4

8 What is the concentration of a solution that contains 25.0 g NaOH in 500 cm3 of water?

A 0.125 mol / dm3


B 0.800 mol / dm3
C 1.25 mol / dm3
D 3.20 mol / dm3

9 An aqueous solution of copper(II) sulfate was electrolysed using copper electrodes.

power
supply

copper – + copper
cathode anode

aqueous
copper(II) sulfate

Which equation for the reaction at the anode is correct?

A Cu → Cu2+ + 2e–

B Cu + 2e– → Cu2+

C Cu2+ → Cu + 2e–

D Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu

10 In the manufacture of aluminium by electrolysis, aluminium oxide is dissolved in molten cryolite.

Why is cryolite used?

A It lowers the melting point of the aluminium.


B It makes the aluminium a better conductor.
C It removes impurities from the aluminium.
D The mixture has a lower melting point than pure aluminium oxide.

11 Which statement about a fuel cell in a car is correct?

A The fuel cell produces heat, which powers the car.


B The fuel cell is supplied with hydrogen directly from the air.
C The only emission from a fuel cell is nitrogen gas, which is non-polluting.
D The fuel cell produces electricity, which powers an electric motor.

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

232
5

12 Methane burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H 410
C–O 360
C=O 805
O–H 460
O–O 146
O=O 496

What is the energy change for this reaction?

A –818 kJ / mol B –102 kJ / mol C +102 kJ / mol D +818 kJ / mol

13 Which change in reaction conditions increases both the collision rate and the proportion of
molecules with sufficient energy to react?

A addition of a catalyst
B increasing the concentration of a reactant
C increasing the surface area of a reactant
D increasing the temperature of the reaction

14 When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid
remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns.

Which process describes these changes?

A combustion
B corrosion
C neutralisation
D reversible reaction

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19 [Turn over

233
6

15 A reaction between nitrogen and oxygen is shown. The forward reaction is endothermic.

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

Which change increases the equilibrium yield of nitrogen monoxide, NO?

A decreasing the pressure


B decreasing the temperature
C increasing the pressure
D increasing the temperature

16 Which changes represent reduction?

1 Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl –

2 Mn(VII) → Mn(II)

3 sulfate(IV) → sulfate(VI)

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

17 Which statement about carbon monoxide and aluminium oxide is correct?

A Carbon monoxide and aluminium oxide are both amphoteric.


B Carbon monoxide and aluminium oxide are both neutral.
C Carbon monoxide is amphoteric but aluminium oxide is neutral.
D Carbon monoxide is neutral but aluminium oxide is amphoteric.

18 The positions of elements W, X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table are shown.

Y
X Z

Which elements form basic oxides?

A W, X and Y B W and X only C Y only D Z only

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

234
7

19 Solutions of acid R and acid S have the same concentration.

The same volume of each acid at the same temperature is reacted with the same mass of
magnesium ribbon.

The volume of hydrogen produced is measured.

The results are shown.

volume of R
hydrogen
S

0
0 time

Which statement about the reactions is correct?

A Acid S reacts faster than acid R.


B The final volume of hydrogen produced in each reaction is different.
C Acid R is a stronger acid than acid S.
D Acid S is a stronger acid than acid R.

20 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

X Y Z

Which row describes W, X, Y and Z?

metal non-metal

A X W, Y and Z
B X and Y W and Z
C W and Z X and Y
D W, Y and Z X

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19 [Turn over

235
8

21 Which statement about the properties of elements in Group I and in Group VII is correct?

A Bromine displaces iodine from an aqueous solution of potassium iodide.


B Chlorine, bromine and iodine are diatomic gases at room temperature.
C Lithium, sodium and potassium are soft non-metals.
D Lithium, sodium and potassium have an increasing number of electrons in their outer shells.

22 Gas G has 10 electrons. Gas H has eight more electrons than gas G. Both gases are
monoatomic.

Which statement about G and H is correct?

A Both gases are in the same group of the Periodic Table.


B Both gases are in the same period of the Periodic Table.
C Both gases are very reactive.
D Gas G has a higher atomic mass than gas H.

23 The diagrams show the structure of two substances used to make electrical conductors.

X Y

Which statement correctly describes X and Y?

A X is a pure metal and Y is a compound.


B X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy.
C X is a solid and Y is a liquid.
D X is harder and stronger than Y.

24 Magnesium nitrate, magnesium hydroxide and magnesium carbonate all decompose when
heated.

Which statement about these decomposition reactions is correct?

A Magnesium carbonate decomposes to release carbon dioxide and oxygen.


B Magnesium hydroxide decomposes to release hydrogen and oxygen.
C Magnesium hydroxide decomposes to release water vapour.
D Magnesium nitrate decomposes to release oxygen only.

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

236
9

25 Zinc is extracted from its ore, zinc blende, using two chemical reactions.

1 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

2 2ZnO + C → 2Zn + CO2

Which substance is reduced in reactions 1 and 2?

reaction 1 reaction 2

A O2 C
B O2 ZnO
C ZnS C
D ZnS ZnO

26 Four metals, zinc, M, copper and magnesium, are reacted with aqueous solutions of their
nitrates.

The results are shown.

magnesium M copper zinc


metal
nitrate nitrate nitrate nitrate

magnesium key
zinc = reacts
M = no reaction
copper

What is the order of reactivity of these four metals starting with the most reactive?

A copper → zinc → M → magnesium

B copper → M → zinc → magnesium

C magnesium → M → zinc → copper

D magnesium → zinc → M → copper

27 Aluminium is used to make containers for storing food.

Which property makes it suitable for this use?

A conducts heat
B low density
C resists corrosion
D shiny surface

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237
10

28 Water can be treated by filtration then chlorination.

Which uses do not need water of this quality?

1 water for cooling in industry


2 water for washing clothes
3 water for drinking

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

29 Catalytic converters in car exhausts change polluting gases into non-polluting gases.

Which statements about oxides of nitrogen and car engines are correct?

1 The nitrogen in oxides of nitrogen comes from compounds in petrol.


2 The oxygen in oxides of nitrogen comes from the air in the car engine.
3 Catalytic converters convert oxides of nitrogen into nitrogen and other gases.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

30 The diagram shows an experiment to investigate how paint affects the rusting of iron.

P Q
iron painted iron

air

water

What happens to the water level in tubes P and Q?

tube P tube Q

A falls rises
B no change rises
C rises falls
D rises no change

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

238
11

31 Which row about the carbon cycle is correct?

process for removing process for returning


carbon dioxide from carbon dioxide to
the atmosphere the atmosphere

A photosynthesis combustion of hydrocarbons


B photosynthesis cracking of hydrocarbons
C respiration combustion of hydrocarbons
D respiration cracking of hydrocarbons

32 Ammonia is manufactured in an exothermic reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

What is the effect of lowering the temperature on the rate of formation and equilibrium yield of
ammonia?

rate of formation equilibrium yield

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 25 2 iron
B 25 200 iron
C 450 2 vanadium(V) oxide
D 450 200 vanadium(V) oxide

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239
12

34 The diagram represents a lime kiln used to heat limestone to a very high temperature.

waste gases

lime kiln

limestone

fuel in fuel in

air in air in

What leaves the kiln at X?

A calcium carbonate
B calcium hydroxide
C calcium oxide
D calcium sulfate

35 Which fuel could be gasoline?

Is it obtained
from petroleum?

yes no

Is it used as Is it used as
fuel for cars? fuel for cars?

yes no yes no

A B C D

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13

36 Which statements about homologous series are correct?

1 All members have similar chemical properties.


2 All members have the same molecular mass.
3 Ethane and ethene are members of the same homologous series.
4 Ethane and propane are members of the same homologous series.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

37 Which type of reaction takes place when methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of
ultraviolet light?

A addition
B cracking
C polymerisation
D substitution

38 Which statement about aqueous ethanoic acid is correct?

A It reacts with metal carbonates to form salts, hydrogen and water.


B It reacts with metal oxides to form salts and oxygen.
C It reacts with reactive metals to form salts and hydrogen.
D It turns damp red litmus paper blue.

39 The structure of ester W is shown.

H O

H C C H

H O C H

Which row gives the names of ester W and the carboxylic acid and alcohol from which it is made?

name of ester W carboxylic acid alcohol

A ethyl methanoate ethanoic acid methanol


B ethyl methanoate methanoic acid ethanol
C methyl ethanoate ethanoic acid methanol
D methyl ethanoate methanoic acid ethanol

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19 [Turn over

241
14

40 A section of a polymer is shown.

H H O H H O H H O H H O

O C C O C C C C O C C O C C C C

H H H H H H H H

How many different types of monomer units formed this section of polymer?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

242
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/M/J/19

243
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2019
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/M/J/19
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

244
Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8533346900*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 13 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB19 11_0620_21/3RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

245
2

1 Samples of four gases are released in a room at the same time.

The gases are carbon dioxide, CO2, hydrogen chloride, HCl, hydrogen sulfide, H2S, and nitrogen
dioxide, NO2.

Which gas diffuses fastest?

A carbon dioxide
B hydrogen chloride
C hydrogen sulfide
D nitrogen dioxide

2 A student is asked to measure the time taken for 0.4 g of magnesium carbonate to react
completely with 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid.

Which pieces of apparatus does the student need?

A balance, stop-clock, pipette


B balance, stop-clock, thermometer
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D stop-clock, pipette, thermometer

3 Four different food colourings are analysed using chromatography.

The results are shown on the chromatogram. The diagram is not drawn to scale.

Which food colouring contains a component with an Rf value of 0.3?

solvent front
10 cm

8 cm

6 cm

4 cm

2 cm
baseline
A B C D

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246
3

4 Which statement about an ionic compound is not correct?

A It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.


B It has a high melting point due to strong attractive forces between ions.
C It has a regular lattice of oppositely charged ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D The ionic bonds are formed between metallic and non-metallic elements.

52
5 An isotope of chromium is represented by 24 Cr .

Which statement about an atom of this isotope of chromium is correct?

A It contains 24 electrons.
B It contains 24 neutrons.
C It contains 28 protons.
D It contains 52 neutrons.

12 14
6 Element X has two isotopes, 6X and 6X.

Which statement about these isotopes is correct?

A They have different chemical properties because they have different numbers of neutrons.
B They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of outer shell
electrons.
C They have the same nucleon number because the sum of the number of protons and
electrons is the same.
D They have different positions in the Periodic Table because they have different numbers of
neutrons.

7 How are the structures of diamond and silicon(IV) oxide similar?

A Molecules of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide are held together by weak attractive forces.

B They both contain atoms arranged in planes held together by weak bonds.
C They both contain ions that are free to move.

D The carbon in diamond and the silicon in silicon(IV) oxide each have four covalent bonds.

8 Which statement describes the structure of copper?

A It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.


B It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of protons’.
C It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of protons’.

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4

9 Four fertilisers are each supplied in 100 kg bags.

Which fertiliser supplies the greatest mass of nitrogen per 100 kg bag?

A ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3


B ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4
C ammonium sulfate, (NH4)2SO4
D urea, CO(NH2)2

10 Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2O + CO2

1.00 g of calcium carbonate is added to 50.0 cm3 of 0.0500 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid.

Which volume of carbon dioxide is made in this reaction?

A 30 cm3 B 60 cm3 C 120 cm3 D 240 cm3

11 Which rows correctly show cathode and anode products from the electrolysis of the named
electrolyte?

electrolyte cathode product anode product

1 copper(II) sulfate solution copper oxygen


using copper electrodes
2 molten lead(II) bromide lead bromine
3 dilute sodium bromide solution hydrogen oxygen
4 copper(II) sulfate solution hydrogen oxygen
using carbon electrodes

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

12 What are the ionic half-equations for the electrode reactions during the electrolysis of
concentrated aqueous sodium chloride?

anode cathode

A Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl – H2 → 2H+ + 2e–


B 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
C H2 → 2H+ + 2e– Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl –
D 2H+ + 2e– → H2 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–

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5

13 Which statements about endothermic reactions are correct?

1 The energy of the products is greater than the energy of the reactants.
2 The energy of the reactants is greater than the energy of the products.
3 The temperature of the surroundings increases during the reaction.
4 The temperature of the surroundings decreases during the reaction.

A 1 and 3 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

14 Which gases are used to generate electricity in a fuel cell?

A carbon dioxide and oxygen


B hydrogen and methane
C hydrogen and oxygen
D methane and carbon dioxide

15 Which is a chemical change?

A boiling water
B cooking an egg
C dissolving sugar
D melting ice cubes

16 The rate of reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid is increased by increasing
the concentration of the acid.

How does this affect the reacting particles?

proportion of particles with


collision rate of particles
sufficient energy to react

A increases increases
B increases stays the same
C stays the same increases
D stays the same stays the same

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249
6

17 Dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, is converted into nitrogen dioxide, NO2, in a reversible reaction.

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which conditions give the highest equilibrium yield of nitrogen dioxide?

pressure
temperature
/ atmospheres

A 2 high
B 2 low
C 50 high
D 50 low

18 The equation for the reaction between iron(II) sulfate and bromine is shown.

6FeSO4 + 3Br2 → 2Fe2(SO4)3 + 2FeBr3

Which row identifies the oxidising agent and the reducing agent?

oxidising agent reducing agent

A Br2 FeSO4
B FeSO4 Br2
C FeBr3 Fe2(SO4)3
D Fe2(SO4)3 FeBr3

19 Which statement about amphoteric oxides is correct?

A They are made by combining an acidic oxide with a basic oxide.


B They react with water to give a solution of pH 7.
C They react with both acids and bases.
D They do not react with acids or bases.

20 Carbonic acid is a weak acid formed when carbon dioxide dissolves in water.

What is the pH of the solution?

A 1 B 5 C 7 D 9

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250
7

21 A method used to make copper(II) sulfate crystals is shown.

1 Place dilute sulfuric acid in a beaker.


2 Warm the acid.

3 Add copper(II) oxide until it is in excess.


4 Filter the mixture.
5 Evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to form.
6 Leave the filtrate to cool.

What are the purposes of step 3 and step 4?

step 3 step 4

A to ensure all of the acid has reacted to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
B to ensure all of the acid has reacted to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide
C to speed up the reaction to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
D to speed up the reaction to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide

22 Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt.

Which process is not used to prepare a pure sample of this salt?

A crystallisation
B drying
C filtration
D precipitation

23 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element is used to provide an inert atmosphere?

A
B
C
D

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8

24 Which pair of elements reacts together most violently?

A chlorine and lithium


B chlorine and potassium
C iodine and lithium
D iodine and potassium

25 Which pair of compounds shows that transition elements have variable oxidation states?

A Cr2O3 and CrBr3


B CuSO4 and CuCl 2
C Fe2O3 and FeCl 2

D NiO and NiCl 2

26 Some properties of substance X are listed.

● It conducts electricity when molten.


● It has a high melting point.
● It burns in oxygen and the oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with pH 11.

What is X?

A a covalent compound
B a macromolecule
C a metal
D an ionic compound

27 Which statement is correct?

A Aluminium is used in the manufacture of aircraft because it has a high density.


B Copper is used for cooking utensils because it is a good conductor of heat.
C Mild steel is used for car bodies because it is resistant to corrosion.
D Stainless steel is used for cutlery because it is a conductor of electricity.

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19

252
9

28 Iron rusts but aluminium does not easily corrode.

Which statement explains why aluminium does not easily corrode?

A It is an alloy.
B It is below iron in the reactivity series.
C It is not a transition element.
D Its surface is protected by an oxide layer.

29 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium is correct?

A Aluminium is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide.


B Hematite is mainly aluminium oxide.
C Molten cryolite is used to raise the melting point of the aluminium oxide.
D Oxygen gains electrons at the anode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide.

30 River water contains soluble impurities, insoluble impurities and bacteria.

River water is made safe to drink by filtration and chlorination.

Which statement is correct?

A Filtration removes bacteria and insoluble impurities, and chlorination removes soluble
impurities.
B Filtration removes insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
C Filtration removes soluble and insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
D Filtration removes soluble impurities and bacteria, and chlorination removes insoluble
impurities.

31 Which physical property is used to separate the nitrogen and oxygen from air?

A boiling point
B density
C electrical conductivity
D molecular mass

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253
10

32 The apparatus shown is set up and left for a week.

damp iron wool

air

water

Which diagram shows the level of the water at the end of the week?

A B C D

33 Which statement about the carbon cycle is correct?

A Carbon is absorbed from the atmosphere by combustion and released into it by respiration.
B Carbon is absorbed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis and released into it by
combustion.
C Carbon is absorbed from the atmosphere by both respiration and combustion.
D Carbon is released into the atmosphere by both photosynthesis and respiration.

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19

254
11

34 Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3...... is used as a catalyst.

1 2 3

A ammonia Contact iron


B ammonia Haber vanadium(V) oxide
C sulfuric acid Contact vanadium(V) oxide
D sulfuric acid Haber iron

35 Which process is used to obtain lime from limestone?

A cracking
B fractional distillation
C neutralisation
D thermal decomposition

36 Petroleum is separated by fractional distillation.

Which statement about the fractions produced is correct?

A Bottled gas for heating and cooking is obtained from the naphtha fraction.
B Diesel oil is used as a fuel for jet aircraft.
C Substances used to make polishes are obtained from the lubricating fraction.
D The kerosene fraction contains many useful waxes.

37 Which products are obtained by the cracking of an alkane?

alkene hydrogen water

A
B
C
D

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19 [Turn over

255
12

38 Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene and by fermentation.

Which statement describes an advantage of fermentation compared to the catalytic addition of


steam to ethene?

A Fermentation is a more rapid reaction.


B Fermentation produces a purer product.
C Fermentation uses a higher temperature.
D Fermentation uses renewable resources.

39 The diagram shows the structure of a monomer and of the polymer made from it.

H H H H

n C C C C

H H H H
n

What are the monomer and polymer?

monomer polymer

A ethane poly(ethane)
B ethane poly(ethene)
C ethene poly(ethane)
D ethene poly(ethene)

40 Which polymers possess the same linkage?

A nylon and protein


B protein and starch
C starch and nylon
D nylon and Terylene

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19

256
13

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19

257
14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19

258
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0620/21/O/N/19

259
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2019
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/21/O/N/19
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

260
Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8743391895*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 11_0620_22/4RP
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2

1 The rate of diffusion of a gas depends on its molecular mass and the temperature.

Which combination of molecular mass and temperature gives the slowest rate of diffusion?

molecular mass temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

2 A student is asked to measure the time taken for 0.4 g of magnesium carbonate to react
completely with 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid.

Which pieces of apparatus does the student need?

A balance, stop-clock, pipette


B balance, stop-clock, thermometer
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D stop-clock, pipette, thermometer

3 Substance Q was investigated using chromatography.

The chromatogram is shown. The diagram is not drawn to scale.

solvent front

129 mm
114 mm

83 mm

baseline
13 mm Q

What is the Rf value of Q?

A 0.60 B 0.64 C 0.69 D 0.72

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3

4 Which statement about an ionic compound is not correct?

A It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.


B It has a high melting point due to strong attractive forces between ions.
C It has a regular lattice of oppositely charged ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D The ionic bonds are formed between metallic and non-metallic elements.

5 What is the total number of electrons in one molecule of ammonia, NH3?

A 6 B 8 C 10 D 11

6 Rubidium has two isotopes, 85


37 Rb and
87
37 Rb .

Which statement explains why both isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They have the same number of protons.


B They have the same number of outer shell electrons.
C They have different numbers of neutrons.
D They have different mass numbers.

7 Which statement about the structure and properties of silicon(IV) oxide is not correct?

A It has a giant structure similar to that of diamond.


B It has a high melting point due to the strong attractive force between molecules.
C There are strong covalent bonds between silicon and oxygen.

D There are no free electrons, so silicon(IV) oxide does not conduct electricity.

8 Which statement describes the structure of copper?

A It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.


B It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of protons’.
C It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of protons’.

9 Phosphorus reacts with oxygen to form phosphorus(III) oxide as shown.

4P(s) + 3O2(g) → 2P2O3(s)

Which mass of phosphorus(III) oxide is produced from 6.2 g of phosphorus?

A 1.1 g B 5.5 g C 11.0 g D 22.0 g

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10 Calcium carbonate is heated. Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas are formed.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

225 kg of calcium carbonate is heated until there is no further change in mass.

The yield of calcium oxide is 85 kg.

What is the percentage yield?

A 37.8% B 47.2% C 67.5% D 85.0%

11 The diagram shows a simple cell.

voltmeter
wire

metal P metal Q

dilute
sulfuric acid

Which pair of metals produces the largest voltage?

metal P metal Q

A magnesium iron
B magnesium copper
C zinc iron
D zinc copper

12 What are the ionic half-equations for the electrode reactions during the electrolysis of
concentrated aqueous sodium chloride?

anode cathode

A Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl – H2 → 2H+ + 2e–


B 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
C H2 → 2H+ + 2e– Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl –
D 2H+ + 2e– → H2 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–

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5

13 The temperature of the water in two beakers, X and Y, is measured as 21.5 °C.

5 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in the water in beaker X. The temperature changes to 18.0 °C.

5 g of calcium oxide is dissolved in the water in beaker Y. The temperature changes to 29.4 °C.

Which types of process are occurring in beakers X and Y?

X Y

A endothermic endothermic
B endothermic exothermic
C exothermic endothermic
D exothermic exothermic

14 Which gases are used to generate electricity in a fuel cell?

A carbon dioxide and oxygen


B hydrogen and methane
C hydrogen and oxygen
D methane and carbon dioxide

15 Which row identifies a chemical and a physical change?

chemical change physical change

A boiling ethanol burning ethanol


B burning ethanol evaporating ethanol
C dissolving ethanol in water burning ethanol
D evaporating ethanol dissolving ethanol in water

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6

16 A sample of dilute nitric acid is added to lumps of limestone in a conical flask. The conical flask is
placed on a balance and the loss in mass is measured.

A second sample of nitric acid of a different concentration is separately tested. All other
conditions are kept the same.

The loss in mass in 1 minute at each concentration of nitric acid is shown.

concentration loss in mass in


in mol / dm3 1 minute / g

0.5 0.15
1.0 0.25

Which row describes and explains the results obtained using 1.0 mol / dm3 nitric acid compared
with 0.5 mol / dm3 nitric acid?

description explanation

A decrease in reaction rate decrease in particle collision energy


B decrease in reaction rate increase in particle collision rate
C increase in reaction rate increase in particle collision rate
D increase in reaction rate increase in particle collision rate and collision energy

17 When carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen, methanol is formed.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which statements are correct?

1 There are more moles of gas on the left-hand side of the reaction.
2 Increasing the temperature increases the amount of methanol at equilibrium.
3 Increasing the pressure increases the amount of methanol at equilibrium.
4 Increasing the initial amount of hydrogen decreases the amount of methanol at
equilibrium.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only

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7

18 In the blast furnace, iron is formed when iron(III) oxide reacts with carbon monoxide in a redox
reaction.

Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

Which substance is the oxidising agent and which substance is the reducing agent?

oxidising agent reducing agent

A CO Fe2O3
B CO2 Fe
C Fe CO2
D Fe2O3 CO

19 Which oxide is classified as an amphoteric oxide?

A aluminium oxide
B calcium oxide

C copper(II) oxide

D nitrogen oxide

20 Which statement describes the properties of hydrochloric acid?

A Carbon dioxide is produced when limestone reacts with hydrochloric acid.


B Hydrogen is produced when sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid.
C Methyl orange turns yellow in strong hydrochloric acid.
D Red litmus paper turns blue when dipped into hydrochloric acid.

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21 A method used to make copper(II) sulfate crystals is shown.

1 Place dilute sulfuric acid in a beaker.


2 Warm the acid.

3 Add copper(II) oxide until it is in excess.


4 Filter the mixture.
5 Evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to form.
6 Leave the filtrate to cool.

What are the purposes of step 3 and step 4?

step 3 step 4

A to ensure all of the acid has reacted to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
B to ensure all of the acid has reacted to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide
C to speed up the reaction to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
D to speed up the reaction to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide

22 Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt.

Which reaction produces a mixture from which lead(II) sulfate is obtained by filtration?

A adding solid lead(II) carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid

B adding solid lead(II) hydroxide to dilute sulfuric acid


C adding metallic lead to dilute sulfuric acid

D adding aqueous lead(II) nitrate to dilute sulfuric acid

23 Helium is a noble gas.

Which statement about helium is correct?

A It has eight electrons in its outer shell.


B It is a diatomic gas.
C It is reactive.
D It is used for filling balloons.

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9

24 Which pair of elements reacts together most violently?

A chlorine and lithium


B chlorine and potassium
C iodine and lithium
D iodine and potassium

25 Iron(II) ions can be oxidised to iron(III) ions by hydrogen peroxide.

Which statement explains why iron is a transition element?

A Iron is a transition element because it can be oxidised.


B Iron is a transition element because it has variable oxidation states.
C Iron is a transition element because it takes part in redox reactions.
D Iron is a transition element because it reacts with chlorine.

26 Some properties of substance X are listed.

● It conducts electricity when molten.


● It has a high melting point.
● It burns in oxygen and the oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with pH 11.

What is X?

A a covalent compound
B a macromolecule
C a metal
D an ionic compound

27 Which row describes the uses of aluminium, copper and mild steel?

aluminium copper mild steel

A aircraft bodies electrical wiring car bodies


B car bodies cooking utensils electrical wiring
C electrical wiring aircraft bodies food containers
D food containers aircraft bodies cooking utensils

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10

28 The properties of four metals are listed.

● Metal W does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.


● Metal X reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
● Metal Y displaces metal X from an aqueous solution of its ions.
● Metal Z reacts with water and dilute hydrochloric acid.

What is the order of reactivity of the metals?

most least
reactive reactive

A W X Y Z
B W Y X Z
C Z X Y W
D Z Y X W

29 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium from aluminium oxide is correct?

A Aluminium is formed at the positive electrode during electrolysis.


B Pure aluminium oxide is dissolved in molten cryolite.
C Pure aluminium oxide is electrolysed using aluminium as the positive electrode.
D Pure aluminium oxide is heated with carbon to form carbon dioxide and aluminium.

30 River water contains soluble impurities, insoluble impurities and bacteria.

River water is made safe to drink by filtration and chlorination.

Which statement is correct?

A Filtration removes bacteria and insoluble impurities, and chlorination removes soluble
impurities.
B Filtration removes insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
C Filtration removes soluble and insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
D Filtration removes soluble impurities and bacteria, and chlorination removes insoluble
impurities.

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11

31 Which process is used to separate nitrogen and oxygen from air?

A chromatography
B evaporation
C filtration
D fractional distillation

32 The apparatus shown is set up and left for a week.

damp iron wool

air

water

Which diagram shows the level of the water at the end of the week?

A B C D

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12

33 The diagram represents an outline of the carbon cycle.

carbon dioxide
photosynthesis in the atmosphere
Y
respiration
X
plants
animals power stations

death and
excretion

organic waste

fossil fuels

Which processes are X and Y?

X Y

A combustion respiration
B decomposition respiration
C photosynthesis combustion
D respiration combustion

34 Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3...... is used as a catalyst.

1 2 3

A ammonia Contact iron


B ammonia Haber vanadium(V) oxide
C sulfuric acid Contact vanadium(V) oxide
D sulfuric acid Haber iron

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13

35 Which statement about limestone and lime is correct?

A Limestone combines with water to produce slaked lime.


B Lime is obtained from limestone by oxidation.
C Lime is used in the desulfurisation of flue gases.
D Lime is used in the treatment of alkaline soil.

36 Some fractions obtained from petroleum are listed.

position collected
fraction use in the
fractionating column

1 gasoline waxes and polishes below refinery gas


2 bitumen making roads above kerosene
3 kerosene jet fuel below gasoline
4 refinery gas heating and cooking above gasoline

Which rows are correct?

A 1, 3 and 4
B 2, 3 and 4
C 3 and 4 only
D 4 only

37 Which products are obtained by the cracking of an alkane?

alkene hydrogen water

A
B
C
D

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38 Ethanol is produced by fermentation or by the reaction of ethene with steam.

Which row is correct?

by fermentation from ethene

A uses a temperature of 100 °C uses a temperature of 350 °C


B needs yeast as a catalyst does not need a catalyst
C very slow reaction very fast reaction
D high yield of ethanol low yield of ethanol

39 The diagram shows the structure of a monomer and of the polymer made from it.

H H H H

n C C C C

H H H H
n

What are the monomer and polymer?

monomer polymer

A ethane poly(ethane)
B ethane poly(ethene)
C ethene poly(ethane)
D ethene poly(ethene)

40 The structure of a naturally occurring polymer, X, is shown.

H O H O

N C N C N C

H O

What is X?

A an amino acid
B a carbohydrate
C a protein
D a sugar

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15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0620/22/O/N/19

275
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2019
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/22/O/N/19
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

276
Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0520730636*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 11_0620_23/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

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2

1 Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature?

A carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide


B carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C chlorine and fluorine
D nitrogen and oxygen

2 A student is asked to measure the time taken for 0.4 g of magnesium carbonate to react
completely with 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid.

Which pieces of apparatus does the student need?

A balance, stop-clock, pipette


B balance, stop-clock, thermometer
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D stop-clock, pipette, thermometer

3 A substance is separated using chromatography.

The chromatogram is shown.

solvent front
P

R baseline

Which statement is not correct?

A P has a higher Rf value than Q.


B P, Q and R are all soluble in the solvent.
C R is the most soluble substance.
D The Rf value of P is less than 1.

4 Which statement about an ionic compound is not correct?

A It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.


B It has a high melting point due to strong attractive forces between ions.
C It has a regular lattice of oppositely charged ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D The ionic bonds are formed between metallic and non-metallic elements.

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3

5 The numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons present in the atoms P, Q, R and S are shown.

number number number


atom
of protons of neutrons of electrons

P 4 5 4
Q 5 6 5
R 6 6 6
S 6 7 6

Which atoms are isotopes of the same element?

A P and Q only B Q and R only C R and S only D P and S only

6 Carbon has three isotopes, 12C, 13C and 14C.

Why do all three isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They all have the same atomic mass.


B They all have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.
C They all have the same number of electron shells.
D They all have the same number of nucleons.

7 Silicon(IV) oxide is a covalently bonded compound.

Which statements are correct?

1 Silicon atoms form four single bonds in silicon(IV) oxide.

2 Oxygen atoms form two double bonds in silicon(IV) oxide.

3 Silicon(IV) oxide has a high melting point.

4 Silicon(IV) oxide contains one silicon atom and four oxygen atoms.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

8 Which statement describes the structure of copper?

A It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.


B It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of protons’.
C It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of protons’.

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4

9 Magnesium carbonate decomposes on heating to form magnesium oxide and carbon dioxide as
shown.

MgCO3 → MgO + CO2

How much magnesium carbonate is needed to make 5.0 g of magnesium oxide?

A 3.5 g B 4.0 g C 6.5 g D 10.5 g

10 90 g of glucose is dissolved in water.

The glucose solution is fermented.

C6H12O6 → 2CO2 + 2C2H5OH


glucose, Mr = 180 ethanol, Mr = 46

After the fermentation finishes, 6.8 g of ethanol is obtained from the solution.

What is the percentage yield of ethanol?

A 7.4 B 7.6 C 14.8 D 29.6

11 The diagram shows a simple cell.

voltmeter
wire

metal P copper

dilute
sulfuric acid

Which metal P produces the smallest voltage?

A calcium
B iron
C magnesium
D zinc

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5

12 What are the ionic half-equations for the electrode reactions during the electrolysis of
concentrated aqueous sodium chloride?

anode cathode

A Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl – H2 → 2H+ + 2e–


B 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
C H2 → 2H+ + 2e– Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl –
D 2H+ + 2e– → H2 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–

13 An energy level diagram for a reaction is shown.

energy

progress of reaction

Which statement and explanation about this reaction are correct?

statement explanation

A the reaction is endothermic the products have more energy than the reactants
B the reaction is endothermic the products have less energy than the reactants
C the reaction is exothermic the products have more energy than the reactants
D the reaction is exothermic the products have less energy than the reactants

14 Which gases are used to generate electricity in a fuel cell?

A carbon dioxide and oxygen


B hydrogen and methane
C hydrogen and oxygen
D methane and carbon dioxide

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6

15 A sequence of changes involving sulfur is shown.

change 1 change 2
S(s) S(l) SO2(g)

Which row describes the changes?

change 1 change 2

A chemical chemical
B chemical physical
C physical chemical
D physical physical

16 Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Which statement about the particles in the reaction is correct?

A Increasing the concentration of dilute hydrochloric acid increases the collision rate but has no
effect on the activation energy.
B Increasing the concentration of dilute hydrochloric acid increases the collision rate and the
activation energy.
C Increasing the temperature of the reaction increases the activation energy.
D Increasing the temperature of the reaction causes all collisions to lead to a reaction.

17 Two molecules of nitrogen dioxide combine in a reversible reaction to form dinitrogen tetroxide.

The forward reaction is exothermic.

2NO2(g) N2O4(g)

Which changes in reaction conditions would both increase the amount of dinitrogen tetroxide at
equilibrium?

A decreasing the temperature and decreasing the pressure


B decreasing the temperature and increasing the pressure
C increasing the temperature and decreasing the pressure
D increasing the temperature and increasing the pressure

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7

18 Chlorine displaces bromine from aqueous potassium bromide.

The ionic equation for the reaction is shown.

Cl 2 + 2Br– → 2Cl – + Br2

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A Bromide ions act as an oxidising agent.


B Bromide ions are oxidised when electrons are lost.
C Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
D Chlorine is reduced when electrons are lost.

19 Which substance is a neutral oxide?

A aluminium oxide
B carbon monoxide
C sulfur dioxide
D zinc oxide

20 Which statements about dilute sulfuric acid are correct?

1 It turns red litmus paper blue.

2 It reacts with magnesium(II) oxide to form magnesium(II) sulfate and water.

3 It reacts with magnesium to form magnesium(II) sulfate and carbon dioxide.


4 Its pH is below pH 7.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only

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21 A method used to make copper(II) sulfate crystals is shown.

1 Place dilute sulfuric acid in a beaker.


2 Warm the acid.

3 Add copper(II) oxide until it is in excess.


4 Filter the mixture.
5 Evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to form.
6 Leave the filtrate to cool.

What are the purposes of step 3 and step 4?

step 3 step 4

A to ensure all of the acid has reacted to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
B to ensure all of the acid has reacted to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide
C to speed up the reaction to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
D to speed up the reaction to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide

22 Lead(II) iodide is formed as a precipitate in the reaction shown.

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)

Which method is used to separate the lead(II) iodide from the mixture?

A crystallisation
B distillation
C evaporation
D filtration

23 Which statement describes a gas which is in Group VIII of the Periodic Table?

A A colourless gas that helps substances burn.


B A pollutant gas present in car exhausts.
C A gas that is less dense than air and makes a ‘pop’ sound with a lighted splint.
D A gas that is used in lamps.

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9

24 Which pair of elements reacts together most violently?

A chlorine and lithium


B chlorine and potassium
C iodine and lithium
D iodine and potassium

25 Iron reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form iron(II) chloride, FeCl 2. Iron reacts with chlorine
to form iron(III) chloride, FeCl 3.

Which property of transition elements is shown by this information?

A Transition elements have high melting points.


B Transition elements can act as catalysts.
C Transition elements have variable oxidation states.
D Transition elements have coloured compounds.

26 Some properties of substance X are listed.

● It conducts electricity when molten.


● It has a high melting point.
● It burns in oxygen and the oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with pH 11.

What is X?

A a covalent compound
B a macromolecule
C a metal
D an ionic compound

27 Which statement about metals and their uses is correct?

A Aluminium is used in the manufacture of aircraft because it has a high density.


B Copper is used to make cooking utensils because it is a poor conductor of heat.
C Mild steel is used to make car bodies because it is brittle and breaks easily.
D Stainless steel is used to make cutlery because it is resistant to corrosion.

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28 Which word equation represents a reaction which occurs?

A sodium oxide + carbon → sodium + carbon dioxide

B sodium oxide + iron → sodium + iron(II) oxide

C iron(II) oxide + copper → iron + copper(II) oxide

D iron(III) oxide + carbon → iron + carbon dioxide

29 Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis?

A It changes bauxite to aluminium oxide.


B It decreases the melting point of the aluminium.
C It dissolves the aluminium oxide.
D It protects the anodes from corrosion.

30 River water contains soluble impurities, insoluble impurities and bacteria.

River water is made safe to drink by filtration and chlorination.

Which statement is correct?

A Filtration removes bacteria and insoluble impurities, and chlorination removes soluble
impurities.
B Filtration removes insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
C Filtration removes soluble and insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
D Filtration removes soluble impurities and bacteria, and chlorination removes insoluble
impurities.

31 How are oxygen and nitrogen separated from air?

A chromatography
B condensation and filtration
C crystallisation
D fractional distillation

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11

32 The apparatus shown is set up and left for a week.

damp iron wool

air

water

Which diagram shows the level of the water at the end of the week?

A B C D

33 The following processes are part of the carbon cycle.

1 photosynthesis
2 combustion
3 respiration

Which processes decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/O/N/19 [Turn over

287
12

34 Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3...... is used as a catalyst.

1 2 3

A ammonia Contact iron


B ammonia Haber vanadium(V) oxide
C sulfuric acid Contact vanadium(V) oxide
D sulfuric acid Haber iron

35 Which type of reaction occurs when lime is manufactured from limestone?

A combustion
B neutralisation
C redox
D thermal decomposition

36 Which statement is correct?

A Bitumen is used as a fuel for ships.


B Coal, natural gas and oxygen are all fuels.
C Hydrogen is the main constituent of natural gas.
D Petroleum is separated into useful substances by fractional distillation.

37 Which products are obtained by the cracking of an alkane?

alkene hydrogen water

A
B
C
D

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/O/N/19

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13

38 Ethanol is made by fermentation of sugars and by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene.

What are two advantages of making ethanol by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene rather
than by fermentation of sugars?

A faster reaction and renewable raw materials


B purer product and faster reaction
C renewable raw materials and continuous process
D uses more energy and forms a purer product

39 The diagram shows the structure of a monomer and of the polymer made from it.

H H H H

n C C C C

H H H H
n

What are the monomer and polymer?

monomer polymer

A ethane poly(ethane)
B ethane poly(ethene)
C ethene poly(ethane)
D ethene poly(ethene)

40 Proteins and starch are both natural polymers.

Both proteins and starch are hydrolysed by dilute acids.

What are the products of hydrolysis of proteins and of starch?

products of products of
hydrolysis of proteins hydrolysis of starch

A amines and carboxylic acids simple sugars


B amines and carboxylic acids alcohols and carboxylic acids
C amino acids simple sugars
D amino acids alcohols and carboxylic acids

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/O/N/19

289
14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/O/N/19

290
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0620/23/O/N/19

291
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2019
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/23/O/N/19
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

292
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4599385782*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
• The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0620_21/2RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

293
2

1 A mixture of ice and water is left to stand and the ice melts.

Which row describes what happens as the ice is melting?

temperature of mixture energy changes

A increases average kinetic energy of particles increases


B increases energy is used to overcome attractive forces
C stays the same average kinetic energy of particles increases
D stays the same energy is used to overcome attractive forces

2 Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water?

A 25 cm3 beaker
B 25 cm3 pipette
C 50 cm3 burette
D 50 cm3 measuring cylinder

3 The chromatogram for an unknown dye is shown.

solvent front

12 cm
15 cm
9 cm

2 cm

What is the Rf value of the dye?

A 0.60 B 0.64 C 0.75 D 0.82

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

294
3

4 The atomic number and nucleon number of a potassium atom are shown.

potassium atom

atomic number 19

nucleon number 39

How many protons, neutrons and electrons are in a potassium ion, K+?

protons neutrons electrons

A 19 20 18
B 19 20 20
C 20 19 18
D 20 19 19

5 The electronic structures of two atoms, P and Q, are shown.

P Q

P and Q combine together to form a compound.

What is the type of bonding in the compound and what is the formula of the compound?

type of bonding formula

A ionic PQ
B ionic PQ2
C covalent PQ2
D covalent PQ

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20 [Turn over

295
4

6 Which row contains a description of metallic bonding and a property that is explained by
reference to metallic bonding?

description of property explained by


metallic bonding metallic bonding
A a lattice of negative ions a metal will react with an
in a sea of electrons acid, producing hydrogen
B a lattice of negative ions a piece of a metal can be
in a sea of electrons moulded into different shapes
C a lattice of positive ions a metal will react with an
in a sea of electrons acid, producing hydrogen
D a lattice of positive ions a piece of a metal can be
in a sea of electrons moulded into different shapes

7 Which statement explains why methane has a lower boiling point than water?

A Methane has weaker covalent bonds than water.


B Methane has weaker attractive forces than water.
C Methane molecules are heavier than water molecules.
D Methane molecules have more bonds than water molecules.

8 A solution of iron(III) sulfate reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide to form a red–brown
precipitate.

What is the balanced equation, including state symbols, for the reaction?

A FeSO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Fe(OH)2(s) + Na2SO4(aq)

B FeSO4(l) + 2NaOH(l) → Fe(OH)2(s) + Na2SO4(l)

C Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Fe(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq)

D Fe2(SO4)3(l) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Fe(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(l)

9 The Haber process is a reversible reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The reaction has a 30% yield of ammonia.

Which volume of ammonia gas, NH3, measured at room temperature and pressure, is obtained
by reacting 0.75 moles of hydrogen with excess nitrogen?

A 3600 cm3 B 5400 cm3 C 12 000 cm3 D 18 000 cm3

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

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5

10 Dilute aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using platinum electrodes.

What is the half-equation for the reaction at the cathode?

A 2H+ + 2e– → H2

B Na+ + e– → Na

C 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–

D 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–

11 The electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate, using inert electrodes, is shown.

+ –

aqueous copper(II) sulfate

Which statement about a reaction at an electrode is correct?

A Copper ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.


B Copper ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.
C Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.
D Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20 [Turn over

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6

12 The equation for the complete combustion of methane gas is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

Bond energies are shown.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H 412
H–O 463
C=O 743
O=O 498

What is the overall energy change, in kJ / mol, for the above reaction?

A –1192 B –694 C +694 D +1192

13 Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct?

1 Water is formed as the only waste product.


2 Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products.

3 The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.


4 The overall reaction is endothermic.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

14 Which diagram represents a chemical change?

A B

C D

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

298
7

15 The rate of reaction between calcium carbonate chips and hydrochloric acid is studied by
collecting the volume of gas released in one minute at different temperatures.

A graph of rate of reaction against temperature is shown.

80
70
60
50
rate of reaction 40
cm3 / min
30
20
10
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
temperature / °C

Which statement fully explains why increasing the temperature has this effect on the rate?

A The kinetic energy of the particles increases so the collisions are harder.
B The number of collisions between particles increases.
C The activation energy needed for the particles to react is reduced.
D There are more frequent collisions between particles with enough energy to react.

16 The equation shows the equilibrium between dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, and nitrogen dioxide,
NO2.

The colours of the reactant and product are also shown.

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
colourless brown

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which statement is not correct?

A At equilibrium the concentrations of the reactant and the product are constant.
B At equilibrium the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
C When the pressure is increased a darker brown colour is seen.
D When the temperature is increased a darker brown colour is seen.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20 [Turn over

299
8

17 The equations for two reactions of iodide ions are shown.

reaction 1 2I–(aq) + H2O2(aq) → I2(aq) + 2OH–(aq)

reaction 2 I–(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgI(s)

Which statement is correct?

A Both reactions are redox reactions.


B Neither reaction is a redox reaction.
C Only reaction 1 is a redox reaction.
D Only reaction 2 is a redox reaction.

18 The graph shows how the pH of a solution changes as an acid is added to an alkali.

acid + alkali → salt + water

Which letter represents the area of the graph where both acid and salt are present?

A
14 B

C
pH
7

D
0
volume of acid added

19 Which statement describes a weak acid?

A It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.


B It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.
C It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

300
9

20 The apparatus shown is used to prepare aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

filter paper
stirrer
excess of solid X
solid X

Y aqueous
copper(II) sulfate

heat

What are X and Y?

X Y

A copper aqueous iron(II) sulfate


B copper(II) chloride dilute sulfuric acid
C copper(II) oxide dilute sulfuric acid
D sulfur aqueous copper(II) chloride

21 Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt.

Which method is suitable for obtaining solid lead(II) sulfate?

A Mix aqueous lead(II) nitrate and aqueous potassium sulfate, heat to evaporate all of the
water, collect the solid and then wash and dry it.

B Mix aqueous lead(II) nitrate and aqueous potassium sulfate, filter, collect the filtrate,
crystallise, then wash and dry the crystals.

C Mix aqueous lead(II) nitrate and dilute sulfuric acid, filter, then wash and dry the residue.

D Titrate aqueous lead(II) hydroxide with dilute sulfuric acid, crystallise, then wash and dry the
crystals.

22 A Group I metal (lithium, sodium or potassium) is reacted with a Group VII element (chlorine,
bromine or iodine).

Which compound is formed when the Group I metal of highest density reacts with the Group VII
element of lowest density?

A lithium chloride
B potassium chloride
C potassium iodide
D lithium iodide

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20 [Turn over

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10

23 The properties of the element titanium, Ti, can be predicted from its position in the Periodic Table.

Which row identifies the properties of titanium?

can be used conducts electricity forms coloured


has low density
as a catalyst when solid compounds

A
B
C
D

24 A balloon is filled with helium. Helium is a noble gas and makes the balloon rise up in the air.

The density of air is 1.23 g / dm3.

Which gas is helium?

density in g / dm3 reaction with oxygen

A 0.0899 burns rapidly


B 0.179 does not react with oxygen
C 1.78 does not react with oxygen
D 3.75 does not react with oxygen

25 Which property is shown by all metals?

A They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon.


B They conduct electricity.
C They form acidic oxides.
D They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

302
11

26 Sodium nitrate is a white crystalline solid that decomposes on heating.

sodium nitrate

heat

Which row describes the decomposition products formed when sodium nitrate is heated strongly?

solid products gaseous products

A sodium nitrite NO2 and O2


B sodium nitrite O2 only
C sodium oxide NO2 and O2
D sodium oxide O2 only

27 Molten iron from the blast furnace contains impurities.

The process of turning the impure iron into steel involves blowing oxygen into the molten iron and
adding calcium oxide.

What are the reasons for blowing in oxygen and adding calcium oxide?

blowing in oxygen adding calcium oxide

A carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
B carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it
C iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
D iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it

28 Element Y reacts with copper(II) oxide to form copper.

Element Y will not react with zinc oxide. Copper has no reaction with zinc oxide.

What is the order of reactivity of these three elements, most reactive first?

A Cu → Y → Zn

B Cu → Zn → Y

C Zn → Cu → Y

D Zn → Y → Cu

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12

29 Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water?

A It boils at 100 °C.


B It has a pH value of 7.

C It turns blue cobalt(II) chloride pink.

D It turns white copper(II) sulfate blue.

30 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A combustion
B decomposition
C photosynthesis
D respiration

31 Ammonia is manufactured by the Haber process.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

What are the conditions used in the Haber process?

temperature pressure
/ °C / atm

A 400 100
B 400 300
C 20 300
D 20 100

32 Coating iron helps to prevent rusting.

Which coating will continue to protect the iron even when the coating is damaged?

A copper
B paint
C plastic
D zinc

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

304
13

33 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).

1 manufacture of cement
2 manufacture of iron
3 treating alkaline soils

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

34 The Contact process is used to manufacture concentrated sulfuric acid and consists of four steps.

Which step involves a catalyst?

A production of sulfur dioxide gas


B production of sulfur trioxide gas
C production of oleum
D production of concentrated sulfuric acid

35 Which row about the production of ethanol by fermentation is correct?

raw materials energy requirement rate of reaction

A non-renewable high slow


B renewable low slow
C non-renewable low fast
D renewable high fast

36 Which statement about homologous series is correct?

A Members of a homologous series have the same structural formula.


B Members of a homologous series all have similar chemical properties.
C Members of a homologous series all have similar physical properties.
D Members of all homologous series are hydrocarbons.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20 [Turn over

305
14

37 Increasing the number of atoms in one molecule of a hydrocarbon increases the amount of
energy released when it burns.

What is the correct order?

less energy more energy


released released

A ethene ethane methane


B ethene methane ethane
C methane ethane ethene
D methane ethene ethane

38 Some properties of an organic compound J are listed.

● It is a liquid at room temperature.


● It is soluble in water.
● A solution of J reacts with calcium carbonate to form carbon dioxide.
● A solution of J has a pH of 3.

In which homologous series does J belong?

A alkane
B alkene
C alcohol
D carboxylic acid

39 Ethane, C2H6, reacts with chlorine in a substitution reaction.

What are the products of this reaction?

A chloroethane and hydrogen


B chloroethane and hydrogen chloride
C chloroethene and hydrogen
D chloroethene and hydrogen chloride

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

306
15

40 Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic?

1 carbohydrates
2 nylon
3 proteins
4 Terylene

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/M/J/20

307
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2020
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/M/J/20
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

308
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8601179553*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
• The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0620_22/2RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

309
2

1 A mixture of ice and water is left to stand and the ice melts.

Which row describes what happens as the ice is melting?

temperature of mixture energy changes

A increases average kinetic energy of particles increases


B increases energy is used to overcome attractive forces
C stays the same average kinetic energy of particles increases
D stays the same energy is used to overcome attractive forces

2 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure 25.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide?

A B C D

3 Paper chromatography is used to determine the Rf values for four different food colourings.

Which food colouring has an Rf value of 0.6?

solvent front
25

20

15
distance
/ cm
10

5
baseline
0
A B C D

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/M/J/20

310
3

4 The diagram shows the electronic structure of a particle with a nucleon number (mass number) of
40.

e e
e e
e
e e e e
e e 40 e e
e
e e
e e

The table shows the suggestions that three students, 1, 2 and 3, made to identify the particle.

student
1 2 3

particle Ar Cl Ca2+

Which students are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

5 The electronic structures of two atoms, P and Q, are shown.

P Q

P and Q combine together to form a compound.

What is the type of bonding in the compound and what is the formula of the compound?

type of bonding formula

A ionic PQ
B ionic PQ2
C covalent PQ2
D covalent PQ

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/M/J/20 [Turn over

311
4

6 Which statement about the structure of a metal explains why metals are malleable?

A The electrons can move freely throughout the lattice.


B The layers of metal ions can slide over each other.
C The metal ions are positively charged.
D There is a strong force of attraction between the metal ions and the electrons.

7 The bonding, structure and melting point of sodium chloride and sulfur dichloride are shown.

compound bonding structure melting point / °C

sodium chloride ionic giant lattice 801


sulfur dichloride covalent simple molecular –121

Why does sulfur dichloride have a lower melting point than sodium chloride?

A The covalent bonds in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the attractive forces between
molecules in sodium chloride.
B The covalent bonds in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the ionic bonds in sodium chloride.
C The attractive forces between molecules in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the attractive
forces between molecules in sodium chloride.
D The attractive forces between molecules in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the ionic bonds
in sodium chloride.

8 Lead(II) nitrate, Pb(NO3)2, reacts with potassium iodide, KI, to form a yellow precipitate, PbI2,
and a soluble salt, KNO3.

What is the equation for the reaction?

A Pb(NO3)2 + KI → PbI2 + KNO3

B Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + KNO3

C 2Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3

D Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3

9 The Haber process is a reversible reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The reaction has a 30% yield of ammonia.

Which volume of ammonia gas, NH3, measured at room temperature and pressure, is obtained
by reacting 0.75 moles of hydrogen with excess nitrogen?

A 3600 cm3 B 5400 cm3 C 12 000 cm3 D 18 000 cm3

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/M/J/20

312
5

10 Electrolytes can be broken down by electrolysis.

Which rows are correct for each electrolyte?

reaction product
electrolyte
at cathode at anode

1 dilute aqueous sodium chloride 2H+ + 2e– → H2 oxygen


+ –
2 concentrated hydrochloric acid 2H + 2e → H2 chlorine
2– –
3 molten aluminium oxide 2O → O2 + 4e aluminium
4 concentrated aqueous sodium bromide Na+ + e– → Na bromine

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

11 The electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate, using inert electrodes, is shown.

+ –

aqueous copper(II) sulfate

Which statement about a reaction at an electrode is correct?

A Copper ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.


B Copper ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.
C Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.
D Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.

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6

12 Methane burns in excess oxygen.

The equation is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

Bond energies are shown.

bond energy
bond
/ kJ mol–1

C=O 805
C–H 410
O=O 496
O–H 460

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A (4 × 410 + 2 × 496) – (2 × 805 + 4 × 460)

B (2 × 805 + 2 × 460) – (410 + 2 × 496)

C (410 + 2 × 496) – (805 + 2 × 460)


D (410 + 496) – (805 + 460)

13 Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct?

1 Water is formed as the only waste product.


2 Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products.

3 The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.


4 The overall reaction is endothermic.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

14 Which list contains only chemical changes?

A melting, evaporating, dissolving


B rusting, freezing, subliming
C neutralisation, polymerisation, combustion
D boiling, condensing, distillation

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7

15 The results of adding excess marble chips (calcium carbonate) to hydrochloric acid at 50 °C and
at 30 °C are shown. Only the temperature is changed.

50 °C

volume of 30 °C
carbon dioxide
given off / cm3

0
0 time / s

Which row describes the reacting particles at 30 °C compared to those at 50 °C?

collision rate collision energy

A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower

16 Methane reacts with steam and an equilibrium is reached.

CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which row shows how the amount of hydrogen at equilibrium changes when the pressure or
temperature is changed as indicated?

change in change in amount of


temperature pressure hydrogen

A decrease no change increase


B increase no change decrease
C no change increase decrease
D no change decrease decrease

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8

17 When aqueous iron(III) chloride is added to aqueous potassium iodide a chemical reaction
occurs and iodine is formed.

Which statement is correct?

A Iodide ions are oxidised, they gain electrons in this reaction.


B Iodide ions are oxidised, they lose electrons in this reaction.

C Iron(III) chloride is oxidised in this reaction.

D Neither iodide ions nor iron(III) chloride is oxidised in this reaction.

18 The graph shows how the pH of a solution changes as an acid is added to an alkali.

acid + alkali → salt + water

Which letter represents the area of the graph where both acid and salt are present?

A
14 B

C
pH
7

D
0
volume of acid added

19 Which statement describes a weak acid?

A It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.


B It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.
C It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.

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9

20 The apparatus shown is used to prepare aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

filter paper
stirrer
excess of solid X
solid X

Y aqueous
copper(II) sulfate

heat

What are X and Y?

X Y

A copper aqueous iron(II) sulfate


B copper(II) chloride dilute sulfuric acid
C copper(II) oxide dilute sulfuric acid
D sulfur aqueous copper(II) chloride

21 Which process is not used in the preparation of an insoluble salt?

A filtration
B washing
C crystallisation
D drying

22 Which statement about Group I and Group VII elements is correct?

A Group VII elements are monoatomic non-metals.


B Lithium is more reactive with water than caesium.
C The melting points of Group I metals increase down the group.
D Potassium bromide reacts with chlorine to produce an orange solution.

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10

23 The properties of the element titanium, Ti, can be predicted from its position in the Periodic Table.

Which row identifies the properties of titanium?

can be used conducts electricity forms coloured


has low density
as a catalyst when solid compounds

A
B
C
D

24 Which diagram shows a mixture of noble gases?

A B C D

25 Which property is shown by all metals?

A They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon.


B They conduct electricity.
C They form acidic oxides.
D They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen.

26 Many metal carbonates decompose when they are heated.

Which row describes what happens when potassium carbonate, calcium carbonate and
copper(II) carbonate are heated using a Bunsen burner?

decomposes does not decompose at


decomposes easily
with difficulty Bunsen temperatures

A calcium carbonate copper(II) carbonate potassium carbonate


B copper(II) carbonate calcium carbonate potassium carbonate
C copper(II) carbonate potassium carbonate calcium carbonate
D potassium carbonate calcium carbonate copper(II) carbonate

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11

27 Molten iron from the blast furnace contains impurities.

The process of turning the impure iron into steel involves blowing oxygen into the molten iron and
adding calcium oxide.

What are the reasons for blowing in oxygen and adding calcium oxide?

blowing in oxygen adding calcium oxide

A carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
B carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it
C iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
D iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it

28 Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions.

In which solution does a displacement reaction occur?

A copper(II) sulfate

B magnesium sulfate
C sodium sulfate
D zinc sulfate

29 Which statement about pure water is not correct?

A It condenses at 100 °C.

B It freezes at 0 °C.

C It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue.

D It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue.

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12

30 Three processes in the carbon cycle are shown.

1 Methane reacts with oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water.


2 Carbon dioxide and water are absorbed and used by plants to make oxygen.
3 Oxygen is used by living things to release energy.

Which processes have taken place?

1 2 3

A combustion photosynthesis respiration


B combustion respiration photosynthesis
C photosynthesis combustion respiration
D respiration photosynthesis combustion

31 In the Haber process, nitrogen and hydrogen are reacted to make ammonia.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions produce the maximum yield of ammonia?

pressure temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

32 Which process, used to prevent iron from rusting, involves sacrificial protection?

A alloying
B electroplating
C galvanising
D painting

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13

33 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).

1 manufacture of cement
2 manufacture of iron
3 treating alkaline soils

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

34 One of the reactions used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid is shown.

2SO2 + O2 2SO3

Which catalyst is used to increase the rate of this reaction?

A iron

B manganese(IV) oxide

C vanadium(V) oxide
D nickel

35 Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene
with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst.

What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?

A A continuous production process is used.


B A non-renewable raw material is used.
C The product is very pure.
D The rate of reaction is very high.

36 Which statement about compounds in the same homologous series is correct?

A They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of carbon
atoms.
B They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of carbon
atoms.
C They have different chemical properties because they have different numbers of carbon
atoms.
D They have different physical properties because they have different numbers of carbon
atoms.

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14

37 Increasing the number of atoms in one molecule of a hydrocarbon increases the amount of
energy released when it burns.

What is the correct order?

less energy more energy


released released

A ethene ethane methane


B ethene methane ethane
C methane ethane ethene
D methane ethene ethane

38 An organic compound, P, reacts with zinc to produce a gas, Q.

What are P and Q?

P Q

A ethanoic acid carbon dioxide


B ethanoic acid hydrogen
C ethanol carbon dioxide
D ethanol hydrogen

39 Alkanes undergo substitution reactions in the presence of UV light.

Which equation represents a substitution reaction of ethane?

A C2H6 + Cl 2 → C2H4 + 2HCl

B C2H6 + Cl 2 → C2H5Cl + HCl

C C2H6 + Cl 2 → C2H4Cl 2 + H2

D C2H6 + HCl → C2H5Cl + H2

40 Which substances are natural polymers?

1 proteins
2 carbohydrates
3 nylon
4 poly(ethene)

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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15

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/M/J/20

323
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2020
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/22/M/J/20
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

324
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*1657199694*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
• The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0620_23/3RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

325
2

1 A mixture of ice and water is left to stand and the ice melts.

Which row describes what happens as the ice is melting?

temperature of mixture energy changes

A increases average kinetic energy of particles increases


B increases energy is used to overcome attractive forces
C stays the same average kinetic energy of particles increases
D stays the same energy is used to overcome attractive forces

2 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure 13.7 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid?

A balance
B burette
C conical flask
D pipette

3 Chromatography is carried out on a mixture of three substances. The chromatogram is sprayed


with a locating agent. The result is shown.

solvent front

baseline

What are possible reasons why the chromatogram shows only two spots?

1 One of the substances in the mixture is insoluble in the solvent.


2 The locating agent did not react with one of the substances in the mixture.
3 Two of the substances in the mixture have the same Rf values.
4 The Rf value of one of the substances is too small.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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3

4 The structure of an atom of element X is shown.

key
5p = electron
6n n = neutron
p = proton

What is element X?

A boron
B carbon
C sodium
D sulfur

5 The electronic structures of two atoms, P and Q, are shown.

P Q

P and Q combine together to form a compound.

What is the type of bonding in the compound and what is the formula of the compound?

type of bonding formula

A ionic PQ
B ionic PQ2
C covalent PQ2
D covalent PQ

6 Caesium is a metal in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which description of the bonding in caesium is correct?

A electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions


B electrostatic attraction between positive metal ions and mobile electrons
C neighbouring metal atoms sharing pairs of electrons
D strong attractive forces between atoms

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4

7 Why does magnesium oxide, MgO, have a very high melting point?

A There is a very strong double bond between magnesium and oxygen.


B There is a very strong attractive force between the magnesium oxide molecules.
C The oxide ions are strongly attracted to positive ions.
D The magnesium ions are strongly attracted to a sea of electrons.

8 Aluminium metal reacts with iron(III) oxide to form aluminium oxide and iron.

Which chemical equation for the reaction between aluminium and iron(III) oxide is correct?

A FeO + Al → Al O + Fe

B Fe2O + 2Al → Al 2O + 2Fe

C Fe2O3 + Al → Al 2O3 + Fe

D Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al 2O3 + 2Fe

9 The Haber process is a reversible reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The reaction has a 30% yield of ammonia.

Which volume of ammonia gas, NH3, measured at room temperature and pressure, is obtained
by reacting 0.75 moles of hydrogen with excess nitrogen?

A 3600 cm3 B 5400 cm3 C 12 000 cm3 D 18 000 cm3

10 Which row describes the reactions during the electrolysis of dilute aqueous sodium chloride?

anode (+) reaction cathode (–) reaction

A H2 → 2H+ + 2e– 2H2O + O2 + 4e– → 4OH–


B 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–
C 2H2O + O2 + 4e– → 4OH– H2 → 2H+ + 2e–
D 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2

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5

11 The electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate, using inert electrodes, is shown.

+ –

aqueous copper(II) sulfate

Which statement about a reaction at an electrode is correct?

A Copper ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.


B Copper ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.
C Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.
D Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.

12 Ethene gas, C2H4, is completely burned in excess oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.

The equation for this exothermic reaction is shown.

C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O

The table shows the bond energies involved in the reaction.

bond energy
bond
(kJ / mol)

C=C 614
C–H 413
O=O 495
C=O 799
O–H 467

What is the total energy change in this reaction?

A –954 kJ / mol
B –1010 kJ / mol
C –1313 kJ / mol
D –1369 kJ / mol

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6

13 Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct?

1 Water is formed as the only waste product.


2 Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products.

3 The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.


4 The overall reaction is endothermic.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

14 In which tube is a physical change taking place?

A B C D

water water dilute dilute


hydrochloric hydrochloric
acid acid

iron nail magnesium calcium


sodium
carbonate
chloride

15 A chemical reaction occurs when the reacting particles collide.

Which reaction conditions would produce the greatest rate of particle collisions?

concentration reaction
of acid temperature

A decrease decrease
B no change increase
C increase increase
D increase no change

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7

16 At room temperature, the conversion of nitrogen dioxide, NO2, into dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, is
reversible.

2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
brown colourless
gas gas

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which changes cause the equilibrium to shift to the left?

pressure temperature

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

17 The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous copper(II) sulfate is shown.

Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu

Which statement is correct?

A The oxidation state of the oxidising agent has changed from 0 to +2.
B The oxidation state of the reducing agent has changed from 0 to +2.
C The oxidation state of the reducing agent has changed from +2 to 0.
D This is not a redox reaction. The solution changes from colourless to blue.

18 The graph shows how the pH of a solution changes as an acid is added to an alkali.

acid + alkali → salt + water

Which letter represents the area of the graph where both acid and salt are present?

A
14 B

C
pH
7

D
0
volume of acid added

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8

19 Which statement describes a weak acid?

A It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.


B It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.
C It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.

20 The apparatus shown is used to prepare aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

filter paper
stirrer
excess of solid X
solid X

Y aqueous
copper(II) sulfate

heat

What are X and Y?

X Y

A copper aqueous iron(II) sulfate


B copper(II) chloride dilute sulfuric acid
C copper(II) oxide dilute sulfuric acid
D sulfur aqueous copper(II) chloride

21 Which two compounds would react together to form the insoluble salt lead(II) chloride?

compound solubility in water

1 lead(II) nitrate yes


2 lead(II) sulfate no
3 silver chloride no
4 sodium chloride yes

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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9

22 The elements in Group I include lithium, sodium and potassium.

Which statements about these elements are correct?

1 Sodium is denser than lithium.


2 Lithium has a lower melting point than potassium.
3 Potassium is a relatively soft metal.
4 Sodium is less reactive than lithium but more reactive than potassium.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

23 The properties of the element titanium, Ti, can be predicted from its position in the Periodic Table.

Which row identifies the properties of titanium?

can be used conducts electricity forms coloured


has low density
as a catalyst when solid compounds

A
B
C
D

24 Which statement about the noble gases is correct?

A Argon is used in light bulbs and balloons.


B Helium reacts with oxygen in the air.
C They all have full outer electron shells.
D They are all diatomic molecules.

25 Which property is shown by all metals?

A They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon.


B They conduct electricity.
C They form acidic oxides.
D They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen.

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10

26 A salt is heated strongly. The only products are a white solid and a colourless gas.

What is the salt?

A copper(II) carbonate

B potassium carbonate
C calcium nitrate
D sodium nitrate

27 Molten iron from the blast furnace contains impurities.

The process of turning the impure iron into steel involves blowing oxygen into the molten iron and
adding calcium oxide.

What are the reasons for blowing in oxygen and adding calcium oxide?

blowing in oxygen adding calcium oxide

A carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
B carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it
C iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
D iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it

28 P, Q, R and S are four metals.

P displaces Q from a solution of its sulfate.

Q reacts with hydrochloric acid and can be extracted from its ore using carbon.

R does not react with hydrochloric acid.

The carbonate of S does not decompose when heated strongly.

What is the order of reactivity of the metals, starting with the most reactive?

most least
reactive reactive

A R P Q S
B R Q P S
C S P Q R
D S Q P R

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11

29 Which substances can be used to detect the presence of water?

1 cobalt(II) chloride

2 copper(II) sulfate

3 litmus
4 methyl orange

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

30 Which processes increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

1 burning ethanol

2 farming cattle

3 growing trees

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

31 Hydrogen and nitrogen react to form ammonia in the Haber process.

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which statements about the process are correct?

1 Nitrogen is obtained from the air.


2 Increasing the temperature of the reaction increases the yield of ammonia.
3 Increasing the reaction pressure increases the yield of ammonia.

4 Vanadium(V) oxide is used as a catalyst.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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12

32 The diagram shows the positions of sacrificial anodes on the steel hull of a yacht.

anodes

Which metal is used to make the anodes?

A calcium
B copper
C sodium
D zinc

33 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).

1 manufacture of cement
2 manufacture of iron
3 treating alkaline soils

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

34 Which reaction in the Contact process is catalysed by vanadium(V) oxide?

A S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)

B 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)

C SO3(g) + H2SO4(l) → H2S2O7(l)

D H2S2O7(l) + H2O(l) → 2H2SO4(l)

35 Ethanol is produced by:

1 the catalytic addition of steam to ethene


2 fermentation.

Which statement is correct?

A Both processes require similar amounts of energy.


B Both processes use a catalyst.
C Process 1 uses a renewable resource.
D Process 2 produces the purest ethanol.

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13

36 Which statement about a homologous series is correct?

A All members have the same general formula.


B All members have the same molecular formula.
C All members have similar physical properties.
D Members show a trend in their chemical properties.

37 Increasing the number of atoms in one molecule of a hydrocarbon increases the amount of
energy released when it burns.

What is the correct order?

less energy more energy


released released

A ethene ethane methane


B ethene methane ethane
C methane ethane ethene
D methane ethene ethane

38 A small quantity of a solid chemical is added to a large excess of aqueous ethanoic acid.

No bubbles of gas are seen and the solid dissolves to give a colourless solution.

What was the solid chemical?

A calcium hydroxide

B copper(II) oxide

C magnesium
D sodium carbonate

39 Alkanes undergo substitution reactions with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light.

Which equation shows a reaction of this type?

A C3H6 + Cl 2 → C3H6Cl 2

B C3H8 + Cl 2 → C3H6Cl 2 + H2

C C3H8 + 2Cl 2 → C3H6Cl 2 + 2HCl

D C3H6 + Cl 2 → C3H5Cl + HCl

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/M/J/20 [Turn over

337
14

40 Which statement about carbohydrates and proteins is correct?

A Carbohydrates and proteins are constituents of food.


B Carbohydrates and proteins are natural polymers used to make larger molecules called
monomers.
C Carbohydrates and proteins are synthetic polymers.
D Carbohydrates and proteins cause pollution as they are non-biodegradable.

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/M/J/20

338
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/M/J/20

339
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2020
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/23/M/J/20
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

340
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3070598259*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0620_21/5RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

341
2

1 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?

A H2 B NH3 C CH4 D CO2

2 A mixture of colourless amino acids is separated using chromatography.

The solvent used is propanol.

The chromatogram is sprayed with a locating agent.

Which row describes the purpose of the propanol and the locating agent?

purpose of propanol purpose of locating agent


A to make the individual to prevent the amino acids
amino acids visible moving any further
B to move the amino acids up to make the individual
the chromatography paper amino acids visible
C to move the amino acids up to prevent the amino acids
the chromatography paper moving any further
D to prevent the amino acids to make the individual
moving too far up the paper amino acids visible

3 Which piece of apparatus can only measure a single fixed volume?

A 250 cm3 beaker


B 50 cm3 burette
C 100 cm3 measuring cylinder
D 25 cm3 pipette

4 In the chromatography experiment shown, which label represents the solvent front?

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/O/N/20

342
3

5 The atomic structure of four particles are shown.

electrons protons neutrons

P 18 17 18
Q 18 17 20
R 17 17 18
S 17 17 20

Which particles have the same chemical properties?

A P and R only B P and S C P, Q and R D R and S

6 The arrangements of the electrons in two ions formed from elements X and Y are shown.

X Y

n = 20 n = 20
p = 19 p = 17

Which equation represents the reaction between elements X and Y?

A X2 + 2Y  2X+ + 2Y–

B X2 + 2Y  2X– + 2Y+

C 2X + Y2  2X+ + 2Y–

D 2X + Y2  2X– + 2Y+

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343
4

7 Which diagram shows the outer shell electron arrangement in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?

A B

H H

H C O H H C O H

H H

C D

H H

H C O H H C O H

H H

8 Which statement about silicon dioxide, SiO2, is correct?

A It conducts electricity because it contains free electrons.


B It is a macromolecule with four oxygen atoms bonded to each silicon atom.
C It is a simple covalent molecule.
D Its structure is similar to graphite.

9 Rubidium is in Group I of the Periodic Table and bromine is in Group VII.

Rubidium reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound.

Which row shows the electron change taking place for rubidium and the correct formula of the
rubidium ion?

electron change formula of ion formed

A electron gained Rb+


B electron gained Rb–
C electron lost Rb+
D electron lost Rb–

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5

10 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?

A All bonds between the atoms are weak.


B It conducts electricity.
C It has a low melting point.
D Layers in the structure can slide over each other.

11 Sodium carbonate reacts with sulfuric acid to form carbon dioxide, water and a sodium salt.

An incomplete equation for the reaction is shown.

Na2CO3 + H2SO4  CO2 + H2O + ..................

What is the formula of the sodium salt?

A Na2(SO4)2 B Na(SO4)2 C Na2SO4 D NaSO4

12 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.

When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

A a neutron
B a proton
C an atom of carbon-12
D an atom of hydrogen-1

13 What is the empirical formula of an oxide of iron, formed by reacting 2.24 g of iron with 0.96 g of
oxygen?

A FeO B Fe2O C Fe2O3 D Fe3O4

14 Which reaction takes place at the cathode during the electrolysis of molten nickel(II) chloride?

A Cl 2 + 2e–  2Cl –

B 2Cl –  Cl 2 + 2e–

C Ni  Ni2+ + 2e–

D Ni2+ + 2e–  Ni

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6

15 Sodium nitrate is added to water in a beaker and stirred until it dissolves.

At the end of the experiment, the beaker feels cold.

Which row describes the reaction?

temperature type of
of solution reaction

A decreases endothermic
B decreases exothermic
C increases endothermic
D increases exothermic

16 Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy?

A coal
B hydrogen
C natural gas
235
D U

17 Ethene reacts with hydrogen to form ethane.

H H H H

C C + H H → H C C H

H H H H

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–C +350
C–H +410
H–H +436
C=C +614

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –290 kJ / mol
B –120 kJ / mol
C +120 kJ / mol
D +290 kJ / mol

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7

18 A sign displayed in a flour mill is shown.

DANGER
Explosion
Hazard

No
Smoking

No Open
Flames

Which statement explains why there is a danger of explosion in a flour mill?

A Flour burns very quickly because it is a fine powder.


B Flour is a catalyst for combustion.
C Flour mills get hot and speed up the rate of combustion.
D The combustion of flour is exothermic.

19 A student investigates the effect of concentration on the rate of reaction between


calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid. He follows the method shown.

● Place 1 g of calcium carbonate in a conical flask.


● Add excess hydrochloric acid.
● Let the reaction continue until no more gas is made.
● Repeat the experiment with different concentrations of hydrochloric acid.

Which essential step has been left out of the method if he is to work out the rate of the reaction?

A heating the reaction mixture


B placing a bung in the flask
C timing the reaction
D using a catalyst

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8

20 The reaction between sulfur dioxide and oxygen is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The reaction is exothermic.

Which of the changes shifts the position of equilibrium to the right?

1 Increase the concentration of oxygen.


2 Increase the pressure.
3 Increase the temperature.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

21 The reaction between chlorine and bromide ions is a redox reaction.

Cl 2 + 2Br –  2Cl – + Br2

What is the change in oxidation state of the reducing agent in this reaction?

A –2 to 0 B –1 to 0 C 0 to –1 D 0 to +1

22 What is a characteristic of acids?

A Acids turn methyl orange indicator yellow.


B Acids have a high pH value.
C Acids react with ammonium salts to give ammonia gas.
D Acids react with carbonates to produce salts.

23 Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.

Which row describes the reactions of zinc oxide?

reaction reaction
with alkalis with acids

A
B
C
D

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9

24 A student carries out an experiment to prepare pure magnesium sulfate crystals.

The diagram shows the first stage of the preparation.

stirrer

magnesium
carbonate

dilute sulfuric acid

He adds magnesium carbonate until no more reacts.

Which process should he use for the next stage?

A crystallisation
B evaporation
C filtration
D neutralisation

25 Elements P and Q have the same number of electron shells.

Q has more electrons in its outer shell than P.

Which statements are correct?

1 P and Q are in the same group of the Periodic Table.


2 P and Q are in the same period of the Periodic Table.
3 P has a greater tendency to form positive ions than Q.
4 The oxides of Q are more basic than those of P.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

26 The positions of four elements in the Periodic Table are shown.

Which element is a gas that displaces iodine from sodium iodide?

C D
A

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10

27 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant.

For safety reasons, an inert gas is used.

Which gas is suitable?

A argon
B hydrogen
C methane
D oxygen

28 A strip of aluminium is placed into a test-tube containing aqueous lead(II) nitrate and left for
several minutes.

Aluminium is higher than lead in the reactivity series.

strip of
aluminium

no change

Pb(NO3)2 solution

Which statement explains why lead is not displaced by this strip of aluminium?

A A thin insoluble layer of aluminium nitrate forms on the aluminium.


B Nitrate ions are reduced in aqueous solution.
C The ionic bonds between lead and nitrate ions are too strong.
D There is an unreactive oxide layer on the aluminium.

29 Which statements about the metal zinc are correct?

1 It is extracted from the ore bauxite.


2 It is used to galvanise steel.
3 It is used to make the alloy brass.
4 It reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas.

A 2 and 3 only B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

30 What is the symbol of the metal used in the manufacture of aircraft because of its strength and
low density?

A Al B Cu C Fe D Zn

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/O/N/20

350
11

31 Ammonia is manufactured using the Haber process.

Which statement about this process is correct?

A The catalyst used for this reaction is vanadium pentoxide.


B The hydrogen used is extracted from air.
C Using a high pressure increases the yield of ammonia.
D Using a high temperature increases the yield of ammonia.

32 Iron can be protected from rusting by attaching a piece of a more reactive metal, e.g. magnesium,
to the iron.

Which equation represents the reaction that takes place?

A Fe(s)  Fe2+(aq) + 2e–

B Fe2+(aq) + 2e–  Fe(s)

C Mg(s)  Mg2+(aq) + 2e–

D Mg2+(aq) + 2e–  Mg(s)

33 Which row describes two uses of sulfur dioxide?

use 1 use 2

A bleaching paper pulp neutralising acidic industrial waste


B bleaching paper pulp preserving food and drink
C extracting iron from hematite neutralising acidic industrial waste
D extracting iron from hematite preserving food and drink

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12

34 Part of the carbon cycle is shown.

combustion

Q R
glucose CO2 plant CH4

What are processes P, Q and R?

P Q R

A decomposition respiration photosynthesis


B respiration photosynthesis decomposition
C respiration decomposition photosynthesis
D photosynthesis respiration decomposition

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/O/N/20

352
13

35 The structures of four organic molecules are shown.

1 2

H H H H H H H

H C C C H H C C C C H
H H H H H
H C H H C H

H C H H

3 4

H H H H

H C C C H H C H
H H
H
H C H H C H H C C C H

H H H H
H C H

Which molecules are structural isomers of structure 1?

A 2 and 4 B 2 only C 3 and 4 D 3 only

36 Which chemical equation for the substitution of an alkane with chlorine is correct?

A C3H8 + Cl 2  C3H7Cl + HCl

B C3H6 + Cl 2  C3H6Cl 2

C C3H8 + Cl 2  C3H6Cl 2 + H2

D C3H6 + Cl 2  C3H5Cl + HCl

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14

37 Propene is an alkene that reacts with bromine, steam and hydrogen as shown.

H H

C C C H

H H H

bromine steam hydrogen

J K L

What are the products of these reactions?

J K L

A bromopropane propanol butane


B dibromopropane propanoic acid propane
C dibromopropane propanol propane
D bromopropane propanoic acid butane

38 The flow chart shows the preparation of ethanol and some important chemistry of ethanol.

fermentation process Y
substance X ethanol carbon dioxide + substance Z

What are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A yeast combustion oxygen


B glucose combustion steam
C glucose polymerisation water
D yeast fermentation glucose

39 Which statements about aqueous ethanoic acid are correct?

1 It is an alkane.
2 It reacts with sodium carbonate to form carbon dioxide.
3 It changes the colour of litmus solution from blue to red.
4 It is a hydrocarbon.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/O/N/20

354
15

40 The structure of a polymer is shown.

H H

C C

H CH3
n

Which monomer forms this polymer?

A ethane
B ethene
C propane
D propene

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0620/21/O/N/20

355
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2020
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/O/N/20
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

356
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4506129529*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0620_22/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

357
2

1 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?

A H2 B NH3 C CH4 D CO2

2 A chromatography experiment is carried out to analyse the pigments present in four different
types of leaf. The student carrying out the experiment forgot to complete his table of results,
which is shown.

distance
number of colour of distance travelled
plant travelled by
pigments identified from the origin by Rf value
leaf the solvent
identified pigments each pigment (cm)
front (cm)

green green: 3.0 green: 0.81


maple F 3.7
/ yellow yellow: 3.1 yellow: 0.83
green green: 2.5 green: 0.78
laurel 2 G
/ yellow yellow: 2.5 yellow: 0.78
green green: 2.9 green: 0.83
lime 3 / yellow 3.5 yellow: 3.0 yellow: 0.86
/ orange orange: 2.7 yellow: 0.77
green green: 2.8 green: 0.80
ash 3 / yellow 3.5 yellow: 3.0 yellow: H
/ orange orange: 2.7 orange: 0.77

Which row identifies the values of F, G and H?

F G H

A 2 3.2 0.80
B 3 3.5 0.83
C 2 3.2 0.86
D 3 3.5 0.78

3 Which statement about isotopes is correct?

A They have different proton numbers.


B They have different chemical properties.
C They have the same nucleon number.
D They have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

358
3

4 In the chromatography experiment shown, which label represents the solvent front?

5 Different methods of separation rely on substances having different properties.

Which property does distillation make use of?

A boiling point
B colour
C particle size
D solubility in different solvents

6 The arrangements of the electrons in two ions formed from elements X and Y are shown.

X Y

n = 20 n = 20
p = 19 p = 17

Which equation represents the reaction between elements X and Y?

A X2 + 2Y  2X+ + 2Y–

B X2 + 2Y  2X– + 2Y+

C 2X + Y2  2X+ + 2Y–

D 2X + Y2  2X– + 2Y+

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20 [Turn over

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4

7 Which row identifies compounds that contain single covalent bonds only, double covalent bonds
only or both single and double covalent bonds?

single covalent bonds double covalent bonds both single and


only only double covalent bonds

A C2H4 CH3OH CO2


B CH3OH C2H4 CO2
C CH3OH CO2 C2H4
D CO2 C2H4 CH3OH

8 Ethyl methanoate, HCOOC2H5, burns in excess oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.

The equation is shown.

2HCOOC2H5 + xO2  6CO2 + 6H2O

What is the value of x?

A 2 B 7 C 9 D 18

9 Rubidium is in Group I of the Periodic Table and bromine is in Group VII.

Rubidium reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound.

Which row shows the electron change taking place for rubidium and the correct formula of the
rubidium ion?

electron change formula of ion formed

A electron gained Rb+


B electron gained Rb–
C electron lost Rb+
D electron lost Rb–

10 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?

A All bonds between the atoms are weak.


B It conducts electricity.
C It has a low melting point.
D Layers in the structure can slide over each other.

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

360
5

11 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.

When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

A a neutron
B a proton
C an atom of carbon-12
D an atom of hydrogen-1

12 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium


chloride.

The solution, which contains H+ (hydrogen), Na+ (sodium), Cl – (chloride) and OH– (hydroxide)
ions, is electrolysed.

The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas.

What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?

A The colour changes from blue to green.


B The colour changes from blue to red.
C The colour changes from green to blue.
D The colour changes from green to red.

13 What is the empirical formula of an oxide of iron, formed by reacting 2.24 g of iron with 0.96 g of
oxygen?

A FeO B Fe2O C Fe2O3 D Fe3O4

14 The combustion of methane is exothermic.

CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A The energy needed to break the bonds in methane and oxygen is greater than the energy
released in making new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
B The energy needed to break the bonds in methane and oxygen is less than the energy
released in making new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
C The energy released in breaking bonds in methane and oxygen is greater than the energy
needed to make new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
D The energy released in breaking bonds in methane and oxygen is less than the energy
needed to make new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20 [Turn over

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6

15 Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in a fuel cell.

2H2 + O2  2H2O

The reaction is exothermic.

286 kJ of energy is released for every mole of water formed.

Which volume of hydrogen gas, measured at room temperature and pressure, would react with
oxygen with the release of 7000 J of energy?

A 587 cm3 B 1175 cm3 C 587 dm3 D 1175 dm3

16 Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy?

A coal
B hydrogen
C natural gas
235
D U

17 Nitrogen, N2, and hydrogen, H2, can be converted into ammonia, NH3, using a catalyst.

What is the purpose of the catalyst?

A to increase the amount of ammonia produced


B to increase the rate of reaction
C to reduce the amount of reactants needed
D to reduce the rate of reaction

18 Ammonia is produced by the Haber process. The equation is shown.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which statement is correct?

A Increasing pressure decreases the yield of ammonia, but speeds up the reaction.
B Increasing temperature decreases the yield of ammonia, but speeds up the reaction.
C Increasing the concentration of hydrogen and nitrogen results in a lower yield of ammonia.
D Increasing the temperature increases the yield of ammonia and speeds up the reaction.

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7

19 During the manufacture of sulfuric acid, sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide.

2SO2 + O2  2SO3

Which type of reaction is this?

A displacement
B neutralisation
C oxidation
D thermal decomposition

20 The equation for a redox reaction is shown.

2FeSO4 + Cl 2 + H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl

Which element is reduced?

A chlorine
B iron
C oxygen
D sulfur

21 The equation shows a reaction between aqueous hydrogen bromide and aqueous ammonia.

HBr(aq) + NH3(aq)  NH4+(aq) + Br–(aq)

Which statement describes the role of aqueous hydrogen bromide?

A It is a catalyst.
B It is a reducing agent.
C It is a proton acceptor.
D It is a proton donor.

22 The equations for three reactions are shown.

1 Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq)  PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

2 2AgNO3(aq) + CuI2(aq)  Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgI(s)

3 CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l)

Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20 [Turn over

363
8

23 Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.

Which row describes the reactions of zinc oxide?

reaction reaction
with alkalis with acids

A
B
C
D

24 A student carries out an experiment to prepare pure magnesium sulfate crystals.

The diagram shows the first stage of the preparation.

stirrer

magnesium
carbonate

dilute sulfuric acid

He adds magnesium carbonate until no more reacts.

Which process should he use for the next stage?

A crystallisation
B evaporation
C filtration
D neutralisation

25 Which row about elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

statement 1 statement 2
A two elements in the same group metals are on the
have similar chemical properties left of the table
B two elements in the same group metals are on the
have similar chemical properties right of the table
C two elements in the same period metals are on the
have similar chemical properties left of the table
D two elements in the same period metals are on the
have similar chemical properties right of the table

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

364
9

26 A new element oxfordium, Ox, was discovered with the following properties.

electrical formula bonding in a


solubility
conduction of element molecule of Ox2

insoluble in water doesn’t conduct Ox2 Ox Ox

In which group of the Periodic Table should the new element be placed?

A Group III
B Group V
C Group VII
D Group VIII

27 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant.

For safety reasons, an inert gas is used.

Which gas is suitable?

A argon
B hydrogen
C methane
D oxygen

28 Transition elements can have variable oxidation states.

Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states?

A Cr2O3 and Cr2(SO4)3


B Cu2O and CuCO3
C ZnS and ZnSO4
D NiO and Ni(NO3)2

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20 [Turn over

365
10

29 Which diagram best represents the structure of a substance that is a good conductor of electricity
at 25 C?

A B C D

– + – +
+ – + –
– + – +

30 Why is aluminium metal unreactive with air?

A It is covered with a layer of oxide.


B It is low in the reactivity series.
C It is produced by electrolysis of its oxide.
D It melts at a high temperature.

31 The apparatus used for the extraction of aluminium oxide by electrolysis is shown.

carbon
anodes
– +

carbon lining solution of


as cathode aluminium oxide
in molten cryolite

molten aluminium
collects at the bottom

Which equation represents a reaction taking place at the anode?

A O + 2e–  O2–

B 2O2–  O2 + 4e–

C Al 3–  Al + 3e–

D Al 3+ + 3e–  Al

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

366
11

32 The results of tests on solid S and its aqueous solution are shown.

tests on solid S tests on aqueous solution of S


effect of aqueous effect of
effect of heat
sodium hydroxide aqueous ammonia

brown gas given off, white ppt., soluble in white ppt., soluble in
together with a gas which excess, giving a excess, giving a
relights a glowing splint colourless solution colourless solution

What is S?

A aluminium nitrate
B aluminium sulfate
C zinc sulfate
D zinc nitrate

33 Part of the carbon cycle is shown.

combustion

Q R
glucose CO2 plant CH4

What are processes P, Q and R?

P Q R

A decomposition respiration photosynthesis


B respiration photosynthesis decomposition
C respiration decomposition photosynthesis
D photosynthesis respiration decomposition

34 The element sulfur is found in a number of different minerals.

Which mineral contains the greatest percentage by mass of sulfur?

A barite, BaSO4
B galena, PbS
C gypsum, CaSO4
D pyrite, FeS2

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20 [Turn over

367
12

35 Which structure represents a molecule of ethanol?

A B C D

H H H H H H H O
H C C H C C H C C O H H C C

H H H H H H H O H

36 Which structures are structural isomers of each other?

1 2

H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C C H

H H H H H H
H C H
H

3 4

H H H H H H

H C C C H H C C C H

H H H H
H C H H C H
H H

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

37 Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene?

A CH3CH3 B CH2BrCH2Br C CH3CH2OH D CH3CH2CH3

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

368
13

38 The flow chart shows the preparation of ethanol and some important chemistry of ethanol.

fermentation process Y
substance X ethanol carbon dioxide + substance Z

What are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A yeast combustion oxygen


B glucose combustion steam
C glucose polymerisation water
D yeast fermentation glucose

39 Which statement about nylon and Terylene is correct?

A Nylon and Terylene are made from monomers with C=C bonds.
B Nylon and Terylene contain the same linkage.
C Nylon is a polyester.
D Terylene is made from two different monomers.

40 Which diagram represents the structure of a protein?

O O O O

A C C N N C C

H H

O O O O

B C C O O C C

C O O O

H O H O

D N C N C N C

H O

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

369
14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

370
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0620/22/O/N/20

371
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2020
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/22/O/N/20
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

372
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7788486228*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0620_23/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

373
2

1 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?

A H2 B NH3 C CH4 D CO2

2 When a dark grey solid element is heated, it changes directly into a purple gas.

Which word describes this change?

A boiling
B evaporation
C melting
D sublimation

3 Nickel(II) sulfate is a green solid that is soluble in water.

Which method is used to obtain a pure sample of nickel(II) sulfate crystals from a mixture of
nickel(II) sulfate and sand?

A Heat the mixture with water and distil it to give nickel( II) sulfate.

B Heat the mixture with water and leave it to crystallise.

C Heat the mixture with water and filter off the nickel(II) sulfate.

D Heat the mixture with water, filter and allow the solution to crystallise.

4 In the chromatography experiment shown, which label represents the solvent front?

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

374
3

5 Molecules containing only non-metal atoms are covalently bonded.

The formulae of four covalently bonded molecules are given below:

1 nitrogen, N2
2 carbon dioxide, CO2
3 ethene, C2H4
4 methanol, CH3OH

Which of the molecules contain double bonds?

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 4 only

6 The arrangements of the electrons in two ions formed from elements X and Y are shown.

X Y

n = 20 n = 20
p = 19 p = 17

Which equation represents the reaction between elements X and Y?

A X2 + 2Y  2X+ + 2Y–

B X2 + 2Y  2X– + 2Y+

C 2X + Y2  2X+ + 2Y–

D 2X + Y2  2X– + 2Y+

7 Magnesium reacts with sulfuric acid.

What are the formulae of the products formed in this reaction?

A MgSO4 and H2
B MgSO4 and H2O
C Mg(SO4)2 and H2
D Mg(SO4)2 and H2O

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20 [Turn over

375
4

8 Sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.

Which row describes the bonding in the three substances?

sodium chlorine sodium chloride

A covalent covalent covalent


B covalent metallic ionic
C metallic covalent ionic
D metallic metallic covalent

9 Rubidium is in Group I of the Periodic Table and bromine is in Group VII.

Rubidium reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound.

Which row shows the electron change taking place for rubidium and the correct formula of the
rubidium ion?

electron change formula of ion formed

A electron gained Rb+


B electron gained Rb–
C electron lost Rb+
D electron lost Rb–

10 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?

A All bonds between the atoms are weak.


B It conducts electricity.
C It has a low melting point.
D Layers in the structure can slide over each other.

11 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.

When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

A a neutron
B a proton
C an atom of carbon-12
D an atom of hydrogen-1

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

376
5

12 What is the empirical formula of an oxide of iron, formed by reacting 2.24 g of iron with 0.96 g of
oxygen?

A FeO B Fe2O C Fe2O3 D Fe3O4

13 Electrolysis is carried out on dilute aqueous potassium bromide.

Which products are formed at the anode and the cathode?

anode cathode

A bromine hydrogen
B bromine potassium
C hydrogen bromine
D hydrogen potassium

14 Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy?

A coal
B hydrogen
C natural gas
235
D U

15 Ethanol is used as a fuel.

ethanol + oxygen  carbon dioxide + water

Which statements are correct?

1 The reaction is endothermic.


2 The products have more energy than the reactants.
3 The oxygen for this reaction comes from the air.
4 The temperature of the reaction mixture rises during this reaction.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20 [Turn over

377
6

16 The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen releases 486 kJ / mol of energy.

2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(g)

The bond energy of H–H is 436 kJ / mol and that of H–O is 464 kJ / mol.

What is the bond energy of O=O?

A 430 kJ / mol
B 458 kJ / mol
C 498 kJ / mol
D 984 kJ / mol

17 Which reaction of hydrochloric acid is a redox reaction?

A 2Na + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2

B Na2O + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O

C NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O

D Na2CO3 + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O + CO2

18 Which reaction is an example of a photochemical reaction?

A glucose forming carbon dioxide and water


B magnesium reacting with oxygen
C potassium reacting with water
D silver chloride forming silver metal

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

378
7

19 An excess of calcium carbonate is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, X.

The carbon dioxide gas given off is collected and its volume recorded at regular time intervals.

Line X on the graph shows the results obtained.

The experiment is repeated using dilute hydrochloric acid, Y.

Line Y on the graph shows the results obtained.

80

Y
60

X
volume of
gas / cm3 40

20

0
0 50 100 150 200
time / s

Which statement about the two hydrochloric acid samples, X and Y, is correct?

A They had the same volume but Y had higher concentration.


B They had the same concentration but Y had a larger volume.
C X had a higher concentration but Y had a larger volume.
D Y had a higher concentration but X had a larger volume.

20 Period 3 of the Periodic Table contains the elements sodium to argon.

Element Q is a non-metal from this period.

Which statement about Q is correct?

A It conducts electricity.
B It has a lower proton number than sodium.
C It has electrons in only three shells.
D It is malleable.

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20 [Turn over

379
8

21 Which metal has variable oxidation states?

A aluminium
B calcium
C copper
D sodium

22 An aqueous cation reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide to form a white precipitate.

The precipitate is insoluble in excess sodium hydroxide.

What is the aqueous cation?

A aluminium ion
B calcium ion
C chromium ion
D zinc ion

23 Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.

Which row describes the reactions of zinc oxide?

reaction reaction
with alkalis with acids

A
B
C
D

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

380
9

24 A student carries out an experiment to prepare pure magnesium sulfate crystals.

The diagram shows the first stage of the preparation.

stirrer

magnesium
carbonate

dilute sulfuric acid

He adds magnesium carbonate until no more reacts.

Which process should he use for the next stage?

A crystallisation
B evaporation
C filtration
D neutralisation

25 Which statement about the halogens and their compounds is correct?

A The colour of the element gets lighter going down Group VII.
B The elements get less dense going down Group VII.
C When chlorine is added to sodium iodide solution, iodine is formed.
D When iodine is added to sodium bromide solution, bromine is formed.

26 Elements in Group II of the Periodic Table show the same trends in their reaction with water and
their density as Group I.

Which row shows how the properties of barium compare with calcium?

reaction
density
with water

A faster higher
B faster lower
C slower higher
D slower lower

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20 [Turn over

381
10

27 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant.

For safety reasons, an inert gas is used.

Which gas is suitable?

A argon
B hydrogen
C methane
D oxygen

28 An experiment is performed to determine the order of reactivity of metals X and Y compared to


lead.

Strips of each metal were added to separate test-tubes containing aqueous lead(II) nitrate,
Pb(NO3)2.

The results are shown.

no change dark layer

Pb(NO3)2(aq)

metal X metal Y

What is the order of reactivity, least reactive first?

A Pb  X  Y

B X  Y  Pb

C X  Pb  Y

D Y  Pb  X

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

382
11

29 The equation for the reaction between iron(III) oxide and carbon monoxide is shown.

Fe2O3 + xCO  yFe + zCO2

Which values of x, y and z balance the equation?

x y z

A 2 2 2
B 2 3 3
C 3 1 3
D 3 2 3

30 Which process is used to separate oxygen from liquid air?

A chromatography
B distillation
C filtration
D fractional distillation

31 What is the catalyst in the Haber process?

A Fe B Ni C Pt D V2O5

32 Ammonia is manufactured in an exothermic reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

What is the effect of lowering the pressure on the rate of formation of ammonia and percentage
yield of ammonia at equilibrium?

rate of formation percentage yield

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20 [Turn over

383
12

33 Part of the carbon cycle is shown.

combustion

Q R
glucose CO2 plant CH4

What are processes P, Q and R?

P Q R

A decomposition respiration photosynthesis


B respiration photosynthesis decomposition
C respiration decomposition photosynthesis
D photosynthesis respiration decomposition

34 Which row shows the conditions used for the manufacture of sulfuric acid in the Contact process?

pressure / atm temperature / C catalyst

A 250 200 vanadium(V) oxide


B 2 450 vanadium(V) oxide
C 250 200 iron
D 2 450 iron

35 Which calcium compound does not neutralise an acid soil?

A calcium oxide
B calcium sulfate
C calcium hydroxide
D calcium carbonate

36 Which product is obtained when bromine reacts with propene, CH3CH=CH2?

A CH3CH=CHBr
B CH3CBr=CHBr
C CH3CH2CHBr2
D CH3CHBrCH2Br

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

384
13

37 Propanol is oxidised by acidified potassium manganate(VII) in a similar way to ethanol.

Which compound is produced by the oxidation of propanol with acidified potassium


manganate(VII)?

A CH3CH2OH
B CH3CH2CH2OH
C CH3COOH
D CH3CH2COOH

38 The flow chart shows the preparation of ethanol and some important chemistry of ethanol.

fermentation process Y
substance X ethanol carbon dioxide + substance Z

What are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A yeast combustion oxygen


B glucose combustion steam
C glucose polymerisation water
D yeast fermentation glucose

39 Which equation represents the formation of poly(propene) from propene?

A B

CH3 H CH3 H H H H H

n C C C C n C C C C

H H H H n H H H H n

C D

CH3 H CH3 H CH3 H H H H

n C C C C n C C C C C

H H H H n H H H H H n

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20 [Turn over

385
14

40 Which type of linkage joins the amino acids in a protein?

A B C D

O C O
C C O
C N O

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

386
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0620/23/O/N/20

387
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2020
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/23/O/N/20
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

388
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6593451513*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_0620_21/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

389
2

1 A gas is released at point P in the apparatus shown.

damp universal indicator paper

Which gas turns the damp universal indicator paper red most quickly?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C hydrogen chloride, HCl
D sulfur dioxide, SO2

2 A mixture is separated using the apparatus shown.

mixture

funnel

filter paper

What is the mixture?

A aqueous copper(II) sulfate and aqueous sodium chloride

B aqueous copper(II) sulfate and copper


C copper and sulfur
D ethanol and ethanoic acid

3 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?

A A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper.


B Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents.
C The solvent should cover the baseline.
D The baseline should be drawn in pencil.

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/M/J/21

390
3

4 Element X has 7 protons.

Element Y has 8 more protons than X.

Which statement about element Y is correct?

A Y has more electron shells than X.


B Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X.
C Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X.
D Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X.

5 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons.

What is Q?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C methane, CH4
D water, H2O

6 The arrangement of particles in each of two solids, S and T, are shown.

S T

What are S and T?

S T

A diamond silicon(IV) oxide


B diamond sodium chloride
C graphite silicon(IV) oxide
D graphite sodium chloride

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/M/J/21 [Turn over

391
4

7 Which statement about metals is correct?

A Metals conduct electricity when molten because negative ions are free to move.
B Metals conduct electricity when solid because positive ions are free to move.
C Metals are malleable because the bonds between the atoms are weak.
D Metals are malleable because the layers of ions can slide over each other.

8 Two elements, P and Q, are in the same period of the Periodic Table.

P and Q react together to form an ionic compound. Part of the lattice of this compound is shown.

P+ Q–

Q– P+

Q– P+

P+ Q–

Which statement is correct?

A An ion of P has more electrons than an ion of Q.


B Element P is non-metallic.
C P is to the left of Q in the Periodic Table.
D The formula of the compound is P4Q4.

9 2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M.

What is the relative atomic mass of M?

A 48 B 96 C 128 D 192

10 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride
and molten lead(II) bromide.

What would happen in both experiments?

A A halogen would be formed at the anode.


B A metal would be formed at the cathode.
C Hydrogen would be formed at the anode.
D Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode.

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11 What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten
lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?

A Pb2+ + 2e–  Pb

B 2Br –  Br2 + 2e–

C Br2 + 2e–  2Br –

D Pb  Pb2+ + 2e–

12 The complete combustion of propane is exothermic.

The equation for this reaction is shown.

C3H8 + 5O2  3CO2 + 4H2O

Which energy level diagram represents the complete combustion of propane?

A B

C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O


energy energy
3CO2 + 4H2O C3H8 + 5O2

progress of reaction progress of reaction

C D

3CO2 + 4H2O C3H8 + 5O2


energy energy
C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O

progress of reaction progress of reaction

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6

13 Which equation represents a reaction that takes place in a fuel cell?

A C + O2  CO2

B 2H2 + O2  2H2O

C CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O

D C3H8 + 5O2  3CO2 + 4H2O

14 When sulfur is heated it undergoes a ......1...... change as it melts.

Further heating causes the sulfur to undergo a ......2...... change and form sulfur dioxide.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A chemical chemical
B chemical physical
C physical chemical
D physical physical

15 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.

1 The activation energy becomes lower.


2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

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7

16 An example of a redox reaction is shown.

Zn + Cu2+  Zn2+ + Cu

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+.


B Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+.
C Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu 2+.
D Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu 2+.

17 Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct?

A Both the forward and the backward reactions are proceeding at the same rate.
B Neither the forward nor the backward reaction is proceeding.
C The amount of product present is no longer affected by changes in temperature or pressure.
D The amount of product present is only affected by a change in pressure.

18 Element X forms an oxide, XO, that neutralises sulfuric acid.

Which row describes X and XO?

element X nature of oxide, XO

A metal acidic
B metal basic
C non-metal acidic
D non-metal basic

19 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid.

Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction
mixture?

1 crystallisation
2 filtration
3 chromatography
4 distillation

A 1 and 4 B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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8

20 Some reactions of element M are shown.

burn add water


element M oxide of M solution

add to purple acidified add blue litmus


potassium manganate(VII)

goes colourless goes red

What is element M?

A carbon
B iron
C magnesium
D sulfur

21 In which equation is the underlined reactant acting as a base?

A CH3COO– + H3O+  CH3COOH + H2O

B NH4+ + OH–  NH3 + H2O

C CO2 + 2H2O  H3O+ + HCO3–

D H+ + OH–  H2O

22 Why is helium used to fill balloons?

A Helium is monoatomic.
B Helium is in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.
C Helium has a full outer electron shell.
D Helium is less dense than air.

23 Which elements in the table are transition elements?

element property

E forms E3+ ions only


F forms F+ and F2+ ions
G forms only white salts
H used in catalytic converters

A E and G B E and H C F and G D F and H

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9

24 Element R forms a covalent compound R2Si with silicon.

Which row describes R?

metallic or group number in


non-metallic character the Periodic Table

A metallic II
B metallic VI
C non-metallic II
D non-metallic VI

25 Some properties of metal J are listed.

● J does not react with cold water.


● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon.

What is J?

A copper
B iron
C magnesium
D sodium

26 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly.

Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only.

The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner.

What is metal Q?

A calcium
B copper
C sodium
D zinc

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10

27 Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium?

A bauxite and cryolite


B bauxite and hematite
C cryolite and zinc blende
D hematite and zinc blende

28 Different types of steel alloys are manufactured by changing the percentage of carbon in the
alloy.

The properties of four steel alloys are shown.

alloy percentage of strength of hardness of


mixture carbon in the alloy the alloy the alloy

1 0.00 to 0.20 high low


2 0.21 to 0.30 high medium
3 0.31 to 0.40 medium high
4 0.41 to 1.50 low high

What are the properties of the steel alloy containing 0.23% of carbon?

strength hardness

A high low
B low high
C high medium
D medium high

29 Ammonia is made by reacting nitrogen with hydrogen in the Haber process.

The equation for the process is shown.

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

Which changes in reaction conditions would produce a greater yield of ammonia?

1 adding more iron catalyst


2 increasing the reaction pressure
3 increasing the particle size of the iron catalyst

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 D 2 and 3

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11

30 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A combustion of fossil fuels


B fermentation
C photosynthesis
D respiration

31 Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?

A calcium oxide
B iron

C manganese(II) oxide

D vanadium(V) oxide

32 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas.

The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly.

What is Z?

A calcium
B calcium carbonate
C calcium hydroxide
D calcium oxide

33 What is the structure of butanoic acid?

A CH3CH2CO2H
B CH3CH2CH2CO2H
C CH3CH2CH2CH2CO2H
D CH3CH2CH2CO2CH3

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12

34 Compound Z contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Molecules of compound Z have four hydrogen atoms and two carbon atoms.

Compound Z can be made by oxidation of an alcohol.

What is compound Z?

A ethene
B ethanol
C ethanoic acid
D methyl methanoate

35 Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct?

A Butane and butene are structural isomers.


B Compounds in the same homologous series have the same general formula.
C Compounds in the same homologous series have the same molecular formula.
D Structural isomers have different molecular formulae.

36 Which statement about alkanes is correct?

A They burn in oxygen.


B They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
C They contain double bonds.
D They contain ionic bonds.

37 What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation?

A The process is very fast.


B The ethanol requires no separation.
C The raw materials used are renewable.
D There are no other products formed.

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38 P, Q, R and S are four organic compounds.

P is an unsaturated hydrocarbon.

Q burns but otherwise is unreactive.

R contains a C–C single bond and a C=C double bond.

S undergoes addition polymerisation.

Which compounds are alkenes?

A P and R only B P, R and S C P, Q and S D Q, R and S

39 The structure of a synthetic polymer is shown.

O O O O O

C C N N C C N N C

H H H H

The structure shows that it is a ......1...... . It is formed by ......2...... polymerisation.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A polyamide addition
B polyamide condensation
C polyester addition
D polyester condensation

40 Which substance is a natural polymer?

A ethene
B Terylene
C nylon
D protein

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15

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/M/J/21

403
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2021
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/M/J/21
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

404
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4675923471*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_0620_22/2RP
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2

1 A gas is released at point P in the apparatus shown.

damp universal indicator paper

Which gas turns the damp universal indicator paper red most quickly?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C hydrogen chloride, HCl
D sulfur dioxide, SO2

2 A mixture of colourless compounds is separated using chromatography.

Which type of reagent is used to detect these compounds after separation?

A a dehydrating agent
B a locating agent
C an oxidising agent
D a reducing agent

3 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?

A A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper.


B Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents.
C The solvent should cover the baseline.
D The baseline should be drawn in pencil.

4 Element X has 7 protons.

Element Y has 8 more protons than X.

Which statement about element Y is correct?

A Y has more electron shells than X.


B Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X.
C Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X.
D Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X.

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3

5 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons.

What is Q?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C methane, CH4
D water, H2O

6 Information about four substances E, F, G and H is shown.

melting point / C electrical conductivity

E 1710 does not conduct when solid


F 3500 conducts when solid
G 120 does not conduct
H 801 conducts when molten

E, F, G and H are graphite, poly(ethene), sodium chloride and silicon(IV) oxide but not in that
order.

What are E, F, G and H?

E F G H

A graphite poly(ethene) silicon(IV) oxide sodium chloride


B sodium chloride graphite poly(ethene) silicon(IV) oxide
C poly(ethene) sodium chloride graphite silicon(IV) oxide
D silicon(IV) oxide graphite poly(ethene) sodium chloride

7 Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic
bonds.

How are the ionic bonds formed?

A Electrons are transferred from Group VII atoms to Group I atoms.


B Electrons are shared between Group I atoms and Group VII atoms.
C Electrons are lost by Group I atoms and Group VII atoms.
D Electrons are transferred from Group I atoms to Group VII atoms.

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8 Some information about particles P, Q, R and S is shown.

nucleon number of number of


number neutrons electrons

P 12 6 6
Q 24 12 10
R 16 8 10
S 14 8 6

Which two particles are isotopes of the same element?

A P and Q B P and S C Q and R D R and S

9 Chlorine gas will react with iron metal.

Exactly 21.3 g of chlorine reacts with 11.2 g of iron.

How many iron atoms react with 30 molecules of chlorine?

A 10 B 15 C 20 D 30

10 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride
and molten lead(II) bromide.

What would happen in both experiments?

A A halogen would be formed at the anode.


B A metal would be formed at the cathode.
C Hydrogen would be formed at the anode.
D Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode.

11 A reaction involving aluminium is shown.

xAl + yO2 + 6H2O  xAl (OH)3

Which values of x and y balance the equation?

x y

A 2 3
B 3 2
C 3 4
D 4 3

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12 Four different fuels are used to heat a beaker of water, for the same amount of time, using the
apparatus shown.

thermometer

stirrer

screen to
reduce draughts

200 g of water
spirit burner

fuel

The initial temperature of the water and the temperature after heating by the fuel are recorded.

Which fuel releases the most heat energy?

initial temperature temperature after


/ C heating / C

A 17 46
B 24 52
C 26 61
D 30 62

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13 An excess of calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. The volume of
carbon dioxide produced is measured at regular time intervals. The results are shown as
experiment 1.

The experiment is repeated with only one change to the reaction conditions.

The results are shown as experiment 2.

experiment 2

experiment 1
volume
of CO2

time

Which change is made in experiment 2?

A The concentration of the acid is increased.


B The volume of acid is increased.
C The mass of calcium carbonate is increased.
D The calcium carbonate is powdered.

14 When sulfur is heated it undergoes a ......1...... change as it melts.

Further heating causes the sulfur to undergo a ......2...... change and form sulfur dioxide.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A chemical chemical
B chemical physical
C physical chemical
D physical physical

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15 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.

1 The activation energy becomes lower.


2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

16 An example of a redox reaction is shown.

Zn + Cu2+  Zn2+ + Cu

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+.


B Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+.
C Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu 2+.
D Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu 2+.

17 When bismuth(III) chloride, BiCl 3, reacts with water, a white precipitate of bismuth(III)
oxychloride, BiOCl, is formed. The equation for the reaction is shown.

BiCl 3(aq) + H2O(l) BiOCl (s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl –(aq)

The reaction is in equilibrium.

Which changes cause the white precipitate to dissolve?

1 adding acid
2 adding water
3 adding sodium chloride solution

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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8

18 Element X forms an oxide, XO, that neutralises sulfuric acid.

Which row describes X and XO?

element X nature of oxide, XO

A metal acidic
B metal basic
C non-metal acidic
D non-metal basic

19 Information about the solubility of salts is shown.

salt solubility

chlorides soluble (except for lead(II) chloride and silver chloride)


nitrates soluble
sulfates soluble (except for barium sulfate and lead(II) sulfate)

Aqueous solutions of which two compounds would produce a precipitate when added together?

A Ba(NO3)2 and CaCl 2


B CuSO4 and Zn(NO3)2
C KCl and Na2SO4
D Pb(NO3)2 and MgSO4

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9

20 The equation shows the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen.

2 H–H + O=O  2 H–O–H

The bond energies are shown.

bond energy
in kJ / mol

H–H 436
O=O 495
O–H 463

Which row shows the energy change and the type of reaction?

energy change
type of reaction
in kJ / mol

A 441 exothermic
B 441 endothermic
C 485 exothermic
D 485 endothermic

21 Burning fossil fuels releases sulfur dioxide which leads to acid rain.

Which ion in the rain water causes it to be acidic?

A H+ B OH– C O2– D SO42–

22 Which statement about the trends shown by the elements of Period 3 in the Periodic Table is not
correct?

A The elements become less metallic across the period.


B The group number increases across the period.
C The number of electron shells increases across the period.
D The number of outer electrons increases across the period.

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10

23 The diagram shows the positions of elements E, F, G and H in the Periodic Table.

G
H
E
F

Which statements about elements E, F, G and H are correct?

1 E has a higher density than F.


2 E has a higher melting point than F.
3 G has a darker colour than H.
4 G has a lower melting point than H.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

24 When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one
electron.

Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction?

A Transition elements have variable oxidation states.


B Transition elements form a stable 1+ ion.
C Transition elements are oxidising agents.
D Transition elements can act as catalysts.

25 A piece of aluminium is dropped into dilute hydrochloric acid.

No immediate reaction is observed.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Aluminium does not neutralise acids.


B Aluminium is a non-metal so does not react with acids.
C Aluminium is below hydrogen in the reactivity series.
D Aluminium is covered in an unreactive oxide layer.

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26 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly.

Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only.

The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner.

What is metal Q?

A calcium
B copper
C sodium
D zinc

27 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis.

Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis?

A Al 3+ + 3e–  Al

B Al 3+  Al + 3e–

C 2O2–  O2 + 4e–

D 2O2– + 2e–  O2

28 Mild steel consists mostly of iron. Mild steel can be prevented from rusting by a process called
galvanising.

Copper is not a very strong metal, however if it is mixed with a suitable metal a strong alloy called
brass is produced.

Which statement is correct?

A Copper corrodes very quickly when wet and brass does not.
B Copper is mixed with zinc to produce brass.
C Galvanising mild steel changes it from a pure metal into an alloy.
D When a steel object is galvanised this means it is coated with a thin layer of tin.

29 Water is used for the irrigation of crops and for drinking water.

For which uses must water be chlorinated?

irrigation drinking

A
B
C
D

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30 Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?

A air
B limestone
C petroleum
D water

31 Ammonia is made in the Haber process.

Which conditions are used in the Haber process?

temperature pressure
catalyst used
/ C / atmospheres

A 450 200 iron


B 450 5 vanadium(V) oxide
C 200 450 iron
D 200 5 vanadium(V) oxide

32 Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere?

A combustion
B decomposition
C photosynthesis
D respiration

33 The equations represent two reactions, P and Q, of lime (calcium oxide).

P CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3

Q CaO + SO2  CaSO3

In which processes do the reactions occur?

P Q

A extraction of iron extraction of iron


B extraction of iron flue gas desulfurisation
C flue gas desulfurisation extraction of iron
D flue gas desulfurisation flue gas desulfurisation

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13

34 Which statement about ethanol is not correct?

A Ethanol can be made by fermentation.


B Ethanol is oxidised to make ethanoic acid.
C Ethanol reacts with oxygen exothermically, making it a good fuel.
D Ethanol reacts with propanoic acid to make propyl ethanoate.

35 Which pair of formulae represents two alkanes?

A CH4 and C8H18


B C2H6 and C5H8
C C3H6 and C5H12
D C10H8 and C4H8

36 Which statement about alkanes is correct?

A They burn in oxygen.


B They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
C They contain double bonds.
D They contain ionic bonds.

37 Which statements about ethanoic acid are correct?

1 It is a strong acid.
2 It reacts with ethanol to form an ester.
3 It has the formula CH3COOH.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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14

38 The flow chart shows how petroleum may be turned into a plastic.

process process process


1 saturated 2 unsaturated 3
petroleum plastic
hydrocarbon hydrocarbon

What are processes 1, 2 and 3?

process 1 process 2 process 3

A cracking fractional distillation polymerisation


B cracking polymerisation fractional distillation
C fractional distillation cracking polymerisation
D fractional distillation polymerisation cracking

39 The structure of a synthetic polymer is shown.

O O O O O

C C N N C C N N C

H H H H

The structure shows that it is a ......1...... . It is formed by ......2...... polymerisation.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A polyamide addition
B polyamide condensation
C polyester addition
D polyester condensation

40 Which substance is a natural polymer?

A ethene
B Terylene
C nylon
D protein

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15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/M/J/21

419
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2021
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/M/J/21
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

420
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*5240957555*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_0620_23/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

421
2

1 A gas is released at point P in the apparatus shown.

damp universal indicator paper

Which gas turns the damp universal indicator paper red most quickly?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C hydrogen chloride, HCl
D sulfur dioxide, SO2

2 A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1.

X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2.

Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1.

Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3?

A boiling of liquid X
B condensation of gaseous X
C evaporation of liquid X
D sublimation of solid X

3 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?

A A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper.


B Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents.
C The solvent should cover the baseline.
D The baseline should be drawn in pencil.

4 Element X has 7 protons.

Element Y has 8 more protons than X.

Which statement about element Y is correct?

A Y has more electron shells than X.


B Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X.
C Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X.
D Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X.

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422
3

5 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons.

What is Q?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C methane, CH4
D water, H2O

6 Which statement explains why metals are malleable?

A The atoms release electrons to become cations.


B The electrons are free to move.
C The electrons and the cations are attracted to each other.
D The layers of ions can slide over each other.

7 Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?

A They have different numbers of electrons.


B They have different numbers of neutrons.
C They have different numbers of protons.
D They have the same mass number.

8 The element silicon has the same structure as diamond.

Which statement about silicon is correct?

A Every silicon atom is bonded to three other atoms only.


B Silicon has a high melting point.
C Silicon is a good conductor of electricity.
D Silicon is used as a lubricant.

9 Three ionic compounds of vanadium have the formulae V2O, VCl 2 and V2O3.

What is the charge on the vanadium ion in each compound?

V2O VCl 2 V2O3

A +1 –2 +2
B +1 +2 +3
C +2 –2 +2
D +2 +2 +3

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423
4

10 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride
and molten lead(II) bromide.

What would happen in both experiments?

A A halogen would be formed at the anode.


B A metal would be formed at the cathode.
C Hydrogen would be formed at the anode.
D Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode.

11 The equation for the decomposition of calcium carbonate is shown.

CaCO3  CaO + CO2

What mass of calcium oxide is produced when 10 g of calcium carbonate is heated?

A 4.4 g B 5.0 g C 5.6 g D 10.0 g

12 Gas syringe X contains 100 cm3 of hydrogen bromide gas, HBr.

Gas syringe Y contains 100 cm3 of carbon dioxide gas. The volume of each gas is measured at
room temperature and pressure.

Which statement is correct?

A The mass of HBr is less than the mass of CO2.


B The number of molecules of HBr equals the number of molecules of CO2.
C The gas in syringe X contains more atoms than the gas in syringe Y.
D The number of moles of HBr is more than the number of moles of CO2.

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424
5

13 Which simple cell produces the most electrical energy?

A B

V V

magnesium zinc iron zinc

key

V = voltmeter

C D

V V

magnesium copper iron copper

14 When sulfur is heated it undergoes a ......1...... change as it melts.

Further heating causes the sulfur to undergo a ......2...... change and form sulfur dioxide.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A chemical chemical
B chemical physical
C physical chemical
D physical physical

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425
6

15 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.

1 The activation energy becomes lower.


2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

16 An example of a redox reaction is shown.

Zn + Cu2+  Zn2+ + Cu

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+.


B Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+.
C Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu 2+.
D Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu 2+.

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21

426
7

17 The equation for the decomposition of hydrogen iodide is shown.

2HI  H2 + I2

Some bond energies are shown.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

H–H 440
I–I 150
H–I 300

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –290 kJ / mol B –10 kJ / mol C +10 kJ / mol D +290 kJ / mol

18 Element X forms an oxide, XO, that neutralises sulfuric acid.

Which row describes X and XO?

element X nature of oxide, XO

A metal acidic
B metal basic
C non-metal acidic
D non-metal basic

19 Aqueous solutions of sodium sulfate and barium chloride are mixed.

Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl 2(aq)  BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl (aq)

Which process is used to separate a sample of barium sulfate from the reaction mixture?

A precipitation
B filtration
C evaporation
D distillation

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21 [Turn over

427
8

20 Information about element J is shown.

● Its atoms have four electrons in their outer shell.


● It is a non-metal.
● Its oxide has a macromolecular structure.
● It has a high melting point.

What is J?

A beryllium
B carbon
C silicon
D sulfur

21 Which property is shown by transition elements?

A low density
B low melting point
C variable oxidation state
D white compounds

22 Helium and neon exist as monoatomic gases at room temperature and pressure.

statement 1 Helium and neon have eight electrons in their outer shell.
statement 2 Helium and neon are unreactive.

Which option is correct?

A Statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.


B Statement 1 is correct and explains statement 2.
C Statement 1 is correct, but does not explain statement 2.
D Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.

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9

23 What are possible effects of an inadequate water supply during a drought?

1 crop failure
2 wastage of water
3 human disease
4 death of farm animals

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1, 3 and 4 D 3 and 4 only

24 Which statement explains why galvanising prevents iron from rusting?

A Zinc is more reactive than iron and corrodes in preference to iron.


B Zinc is more reactive than iron and loses electrons less easily than iron.
C Zinc is less reactive than iron and corrodes in preference to iron.
D Zinc is less reactive than iron and loses electrons more easily than iron.

25 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly.

Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only.

The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner.

What is metal Q?

A calcium
B copper
C sodium
D zinc

26 Which compounds are released by the extraction of zinc from zinc blende and by respiration?

extraction of zinc respiration

A CO2 and SO2 CO2 only


B CO2 and SO2 CO2 and H2O
C CO2 only CO2 only
D CO2 only CO2 and H2O

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429
10

27 Which gas is an air pollutant that causes acid rain?

A argon
B carbon monoxide
C methane
D nitrogen dioxide

28 Ammonia is made from nitrogen and hydrogen. The equation for the reaction is shown.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions give the greatest equilibrium yield of ammonia?

temperature pressure
/ C / atm

A 200 15
B 200 150
C 500 15
D 500 150

29 Which reaction does not occur during the extraction of iron from hematite in a blast furnace?

A C + O2  CO2

B CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3

C CO2 + C  2CO

D 4Fe + 3O2  2Fe2O3

30 Which substance is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact
process?

A iron
B nickel
C phosphoric acid

D vanadium(V) oxide

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21

430
11

31 Metal X is a good conductor of electricity and is used for electrical wiring.

Metal Y is used to make an alloy which is resistant to corrosion and is used to make cutlery.

Metal Z is light and strong and is used in the manufacture of aircraft.

What are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A aluminium iron copper


B copper iron aluminium
C aluminium copper iron
D copper aluminium iron

32 The formulae of two compounds of manganese are MnO2 and KMnO4.

In these two compounds the oxidation state of potassium is +1 and the oxidation state of oxygen
is –2.

What are the oxidation states of manganese in each of these two compounds?

MnO2 KMnO4

A +2 +3
B +2 +7
C +4 +3
D +4 +7

33 Which statement about calcium carbonate is correct?

A It is made by the thermal decomposition of limestone.


B It is used to neutralise alkaline soils.
C It is a reactant in the test for carbon dioxide.
D It is used to remove impurities in iron extraction.

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431
12

34 Ethanol is reacted with acidified potassium manganate(VII).

Which row describes the type of reaction and the type of organic compound formed?

type of reaction organic compound

A oxidation carboxylic acid


B oxidation alkene
C dehydration carboxylic acid
D dehydration alkene

35 The diagrams show the structural formulae of four compounds.

1 2

H H H H H H H H

H C C C C C H H C C C C C H

H H H H H H H H H
H C H

3 4

H H H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C C C C H

H H H H H H H
H C H H C H

H H

Which two compounds are structural isomers?

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

36 Which statement about alkanes is correct?

A They burn in oxygen.


B They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
C They contain double bonds.
D They contain ionic bonds.

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21

432
13

37 How much hydrogen is needed to react completely with 0.02 moles of butene to make butane?

A 0.24 dm3 B 0.48 dm3 C 0.96 dm3 D 1.20 dm3

38 What is an advantage of the fermentation process for producing ethanol compared with the
catalytic addition of steam to ethene?

A Fermentation requires less heat energy.


B Ethanol from fermentation needs to be distilled.
C Raw materials for fermentation are non-renewable.
D The fermentation process is carried out in batches rather than continuously.

39 The structure of a synthetic polymer is shown.

O O O O O

C C N N C C N N C

H H H H

The structure shows that it is a ......1...... . It is formed by ......2...... polymerisation.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A polyamide addition
B polyamide condensation
C polyester addition
D polyester condensation

40 Which substance is a natural polymer?

A ethene
B Terylene
C nylon
D protein

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21

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14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21

434
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/M/J/21

435
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2021
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/M/J/21
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

436
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3450275905*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
• The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0620_21/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

437
2

1 Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C.

A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and
at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours.

What happens to the sample of decane?

A It boils.
B It evaporates.
C It melts.
D It sublimes.

2 A student put exactly 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a conical flask.

The student added 2.5 g of solid sodium carbonate and measured the change in temperature of
the mixture.

Which apparatus does the student need to use?

A balance, measuring cylinder, thermometer


B balance, pipette, stopwatch
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D burette, pipette, thermometer

3 A student separates sugar from pieces of broken glass by dissolving the sugar in water and
filtering off the broken glass.

filtrate

What is the filtrate?

A broken glass only


B broken glass and sugar solution
C pure water
D sugar solution

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

438
3

4 Which statement explains why metals conduct electricity when solid?

A They have atoms which are free to move.


B They have electrons which are free to move.
C They have molecules which are free to move.
D They have positive ions which are free to move.

5 Which description of brass is correct?

A alloy
B compound
C element
D non-metal

6 The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon monoxide is shown.

Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)

What is the maximum mass of iron that can be made from 480 g of iron(III) oxide?

A 56 g B 112 g C 168 g D 336 g

7 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?

A They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together.


B They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together.
C They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules.
D They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice.

8 Which statement about carbon is correct?

A Diamond and graphite both have simple molecular structures.


B Diamond and graphite are both used to make cutting tools.
C Each carbon atom in diamond is bonded to three other carbon atoms.
D Graphite conducts electricity and has a giant covalent structure.

9 The formula of an aluminium ion is Al 3+.

What is the formula of aluminium sulfate?

A Al 2SO4 B Al (SO4)2 C Al 2(SO4)3 D Al 3(SO4)2

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21 [Turn over

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4

10 Which statements about the products of electrolysis, using inert electrodes, are correct?

1 When molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed, bromine is formed at the cathode.

2 When dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed, oxygen is formed at the anode.


3 When concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed, sodium is formed at
the cathode.
4 When concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed, chlorine is formed at the
anode.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

11 Chlorine reacts with ethane to produce chloroethane and hydrogen chloride.

H H H H

H C C H + Cl Cl H C C Cl + H Cl

H H H H

The reaction is exothermic.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–Cl +340
C–C +350
C–H +410
Cl –Cl +240
H–Cl +430

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –1420 kJ / mol
B –120 kJ / mol
C +120 kJ / mol
D +1420 kJ / mol

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

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5

12 Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets and is also used in hydrogen fuel cells.

Which statements are correct?

1 Both uses produce water vapour.


2 Burning hydrogen produces polluting gases.
3 A fuel cell produces electricity.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Which statements about the effect of increasing the temperature on the rate of a reaction are
correct?

1 It increases the rate of a reaction.


2 It increases the activation energy.
3 It increases the frequency of collisions.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

14 Ammonia is made by reacting nitrogen with hydrogen.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which changes in temperature and pressure decrease the yield of ammonia?

temperature pressure

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

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6

15 X is a pink solid.

Y is a blue solid.

When X is heated, water is produced and the solid turns blue.

When water is added to Y, the solid turns pink.

What are X and Y?

X Y

A anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride hydrated cobalt(II) chloride


B hydrated cobalt(II) chloride anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride
C anhydrous copper(II) sulfate hydrated copper(II) sulfate
D hydrated copper(II) sulfate anhydrous copper(II) sulfate

16 Iron(II) chloride solution reacts with chlorine gas.

The equation is shown.

2FeCl 2(aq) + Cl 2(g) → 2FeCl 3(aq)

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions.


2 Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
3 Fe2+ ions each lose an electron.
4 Cl 2 molecules are reduced to Cl – ions.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

17 Which row describes the properties of an acid?

property 1 property 2

A proton acceptor pH less than 7


B proton acceptor pH more than 7
C proton donor pH less than 7
D proton donor pH more than 7

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7

18 Which element forms an amphoteric oxide?

A aluminium
B carbon
C magnesium
D silicon

19 Copper(II) chloride crystals are made by adding solid copper(II) carbonate to dilute
hydrochloric acid until no more dissolves.

Which process is used to obtain pure copper(II) chloride crystals from the mixture?

A distillation of the mixture


B evaporation of the mixture
C filtration followed by drying of the residue
D filtration followed by evaporation of the filtrate

20 Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic
character.

Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period?

A The atoms have more electrons in their outer shells.


B The atoms more readily gain electrons to form negative ions.
C The atoms more readily lose electrons to form positive ions.
D The charge on the nucleus of each atom gets larger.

21 A period of the Periodic Table is shown.

group I II III IV V VI VII VIII

element R S T V W X Y Z

The letters are not their chemical symbols.

Which statement is correct?

A Element R does not conduct electricity.


B Elements R and Y react together to form an ionic compound.
C Element Z exists as a diatomic molecule.
D Element Z reacts with element T.

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8

22 Group VII elements show trends in their physical properties going down the group.

element X Y Z

chlorine –101 –34 0.003


bromine –7 59 3.1
iodine 114 184 4.9

Which row shows the missing headings for the properties in the table?

X Y Z

A density in g / cm3 boiling point in °C melting point in °C


B melting point in °C boiling point in °C density in g / cm3
C boiling point in °C density in g / cm3 melting point in °C
D boiling point in °C melting point in °C density in g / cm3

23 Some properties of two metals, G and H, are shown.

metal G metal H

the formula of the chloride is GCl high melting point


reacts with cold water has more than one oxidation state

Which row about metals G and H is correct?

metal G metal H

A in Group I of the Periodic Table in Group II of the Periodic Table


B in Group I of the Periodic Table transition metal
C in Group II of the Periodic Table in Group I of the Periodic Table
D in Group II of the Periodic Table transition metal

24 The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.

Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?

A They all have eight electrons in their outer shells.


B They all have full outer shells.
C They are all gases.
D They are all monoatomic.

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

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9

25 Which statement is correct for all metals?

A They conduct electricity when molten.


B They gain electrons when they form ions.
C They have a low density.
D They have a low melting point.

26 Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct?

A Aluminium is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis.


B Aluminium is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis.
C Iron is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis.
D Iron is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis.

27 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion.

Iron objects must be protected from corrosion.

Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?

A Aluminium does not form ions easily.


B Aluminium does not react with water or air.
C Aluminium has a protective oxide layer.
D Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series.

28 Which statements about the thermal decomposition of copper(II) nitrate are correct?

1 A brown gas is given off.


2 A gas which relights a glowing splint is given off.
3 The solid residue is an acidic oxide.

A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21 [Turn over

445
10

29 Covering iron with zinc prevents the iron from rusting even when the zinc is scratched.

Covering iron with tin prevents the iron from rusting, but when the tin is scratched the iron
underneath starts to rust.

Which statement is correct?

A Both tin and zinc prevent iron from rusting by sacrificial protection.
B Both tin and zinc prevent iron from rusting by stopping water and carbon dioxide reaching the
iron.
C Tin is more reactive than iron and prevents iron from rusting until it is scratched.
D Zinc loses electrons more easily than iron and prevents iron from rusting by corroding first.

30 Which statements about the Haber process are correct?

1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation.
2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane.

3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide.

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

31 Which raw material is used in the Contact process?

A air
B ammonia
C carbon
D nitrogen

32 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory.

Which substance is removed by the lime?

A ammonia
B sodium chloride
C sodium hydroxide
D sulfuric acid

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

446
11

33 An alkane molecule of molecular formula C8H18 undergoes cracking. The equation for the
reaction is shown.

C8H18 → Q + 2R

Substance R has two carbon atoms per molecule and decolourises aqueous bromine.

What is substance Q?

A butane
B butene
C ethane
D ethene

34 Fuel X produces carbon dioxide and water when it is burned in air. So does fuel Y.

What could X and Y be?

X Y

A C H2
B C C8H18
C CH4 H2
D CH4 C8H18

35 Which molecule contains only single covalent bonds?

A propane
B propanoic acid
C propene
D propyl propanoate

36 Alkanes react with chlorine to form chloroalkanes.

Which statement about the reactions of alkanes with chlorine is correct?

A Alkanes react with chlorine by addition.


B The gaseous product turns red litmus blue.
C The chlorine atom in chloroethane is covalently bonded.
D The general formula of the chloroalkanes is CnH2nCl.

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21 [Turn over

447
12

37 Part of the structure of a very large molecule is shown.

H OH H H H OH H H

C C C C C C C C

H H H OH H H H OH

Which term describes the small unit used to make this molecule?

A hydrocarbon
B monomer
C polymer
D saturated

38 Propene reacts with steam to form propanol.

C3H6(g) + H2O(g) → C3H7OH(g)

Which type of reaction takes place?

A addition
B condensation
C oxidation
D substitution

39 Which statement about aqueous ethanoic acid is correct?

A It reacts with magnesium to produce a salt and hydrogen.


B It reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce a salt and hydrogen.
C It reacts with ammonium salts to produce ammonia.
D It turns red litmus blue.

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

448
13

40 The diagram shows the partial structure of Terylene.

O O O

C O O C C O

From which pair of compounds is it made?

O O

A HO C C OH + HO OH

O O

B HO C OH + HO C OH

O O

C HO OH + HO C C OH

O O O O

D HO C C OH + HO C C OH

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

449
14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

450
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0620/21/O/N/21

451
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2021
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/O/N/21
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

452
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8181221372*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0620_22/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

453
2

1 An experiment is set up as shown.

cotton wool soaked cotton wool soaked


in ammonia in hydrochloric acid

After several minutes, a white ring of ammonium chloride appears as shown.

ammonium chloride

Which statement explains the observation after several minutes?

A Ammonia gas diffuses faster than hydrogen chloride gas because its molecules have a lower
molecular mass.
B Ammonia gas diffuses faster than hydrogen chloride gas because its molecules have a
higher molecular mass.
C Ammonia gas diffuses slower than hydrogen chloride gas because its molecules have a
lower molecular mass.
D Ammonia gas diffuses slower than hydrogen chloride gas because its molecules have a
higher molecular mass.

2 A student put exactly 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a conical flask.

The student added 2.5 g of solid sodium carbonate and measured the change in temperature of
the mixture.

Which apparatus does the student need to use?

A balance, measuring cylinder, thermometer


B balance, pipette, stopwatch
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D burette, pipette, thermometer

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

454
3

3 A student separates sugar from pieces of broken glass by dissolving the sugar in water and
filtering off the broken glass.

filtrate

What is the filtrate?

A broken glass only


B broken glass and sugar solution
C pure water
D sugar solution

27
4 How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in one atom of the isotope 13 Al ?

protons neutrons electrons

A 13 13 13
B 13 14 13
C 14 13 13
D 14 14 13

5 Which description of brass is correct?

A alloy
B compound
C element
D non-metal

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21 [Turn over

455
4

6 Some properties of diamond are shown.

1 It is very hard.
2 Every atom forms four bonds.
3 It does not conduct electricity.

Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

7 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?

A They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together.


B They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together.
C They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules.
D They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice.

8 Which substance is described as a macromolecule?

A ammonia
B graphite
C iron
D sodium chloride

9 The equation for the reaction of sodium with water is shown.

2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2

What is the volume of hydrogen gas, measured at r.t.p., produced when 18.4 g of sodium reacts
with excess water?

A 9.6 dm3 B 15.0 dm3 C 19.2 dm3 D 30.0 dm3

10 Iron can be electroplated with zinc to make it resistant to corrosion.

Which row about electroplating iron with zinc is correct?

positive electrode negative electrode


electrolyte
(anode) (cathode)

A iron zinc iron nitrate


B iron zinc zinc nitrate
C zinc iron iron nitrate
D zinc iron zinc nitrate

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

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5

11 Chlorine reacts with ethane to produce chloroethane and hydrogen chloride.

H H H H

H C C H + Cl Cl H C C Cl + H Cl

H H H H

The reaction is exothermic.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–Cl +340
C–C +350
C–H +410
Cl –Cl +240
H–Cl +430

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –1420 kJ / mol
B –120 kJ / mol
C +120 kJ / mol
D +1420 kJ / mol

12 Chlorine gas is bubbled into aqueous potassium iodide.

What is the ionic equation for the reaction that takes place?

A Cl + I–  Cl – + I

B Cl 2 + 2I–  Cl 2– + I2

C Cl 2 + 2I–  2Cl – + I2

D Cl 2 + 2I–  2Cl – + 2I

13 Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed.

Which equation represents the reaction at the cathode?

A Na+ + e–  Na

B 2O2–  O2 + 4e–

C 2H+ + 2e–  H2

D 2Cl –  Cl 2 + 2e–

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21 [Turn over

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6

14 Which statements about hydrogen are correct?

1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released.


2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated.
3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 3 only

15 Solid X is heated strongly.

The colour of the solid changes from blue to white.

What is solid X?

A anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride

B calcium carbonate

C hydrated copper(II) sulfate

D lead(II) bromide

16 Iron(II) chloride solution reacts with chlorine gas.

The equation is shown.

2FeCl 2(aq) + Cl 2(g)  2FeCl 3(aq)

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions.


2 Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
3 Fe2+ ions each lose an electron.
4 Cl 2 molecules are reduced to Cl – ions.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

17 Which statements about acids and bases are correct?

1 An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen.


2 A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia.
3 An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide.
4 Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

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7

18 Oxide 1 is a solid that reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Oxide 2 is a gas that reacts with sodium hydroxide solution.

What are the formulae of the oxides?

oxide 1 oxide 2

A CaO MgO
B MgO NO2
C NO2 SO2
D SO2 CaO

19 Which reaction is a photochemical reaction?

A addition of bromine to propene


B esterification of ethanol and ethanoic acid
C oxidation of ethanol
D substitution of methane with chlorine

20 The equation shown represents a reaction at equilibrium.

m and n represent the balancing numbers for the reactant and product respectively.

mP(g) nQ(g)

A high temperature increases the concentration of Q.

A high pressure increases the concentration of Q.

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A The forward reaction is exothermic and m is greater than n.


B The forward reaction is exothermic and m is less than n.
C The forward reaction is endothermic and m is greater than n.
D The forward reaction is endothermic and m is less than n.

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21 [Turn over

459
8

21 A period of the Periodic Table is shown.

group I II III IV V VI VII VIII

element R S T V W X Y Z

The letters are not their chemical symbols.

Which statement is correct?

A Element R does not conduct electricity.


B Elements R and Y react together to form an ionic compound.
C Element Z exists as a diatomic molecule.
D Element Z reacts with element T.

22 All metal nitrates are soluble in water.

All metal chlorides are soluble except silver and lead.

All metal carbonates are insoluble except sodium and potassium.

Which aqueous solutions produce a precipitate when mixed together?

1 silver nitrate + sodium carbonate


2 silver nitrate + sodium chloride
3 barium nitrate + potassium chloride

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

23 Which row describes properties of transition elements?

property 1 property 2 property 3

A coloured compounds high density variable oxidation states


B high density high melting point one oxidation state
C high melting point coloured compounds one oxidation state
D low melting point high density variable oxidation states

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

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9

24 The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.

Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?

A They all have eight electrons in their outer shells.


B They all have full outer shells.
C They are all gases.
D They are all monoatomic.

25 Which statement is correct for all metals?

A They conduct electricity when molten.


B They gain electrons when they form ions.
C They have a low density.
D They have a low melting point.

26 Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite.

Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made?

A Carbon monoxide reduces aluminium oxide forming carbon dioxide and aluminium.
B Carbon is burned in the blast furnace to release heat energy.
C Oxygen made in the process reacts with the carbon electrode.
D The ore of aluminium undergoes thermal decomposition.

27 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion.

Iron objects must be protected from corrosion.

Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?

A Aluminium does not form ions easily.


B Aluminium does not react with water or air.
C Aluminium has a protective oxide layer.
D Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series.

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21 [Turn over

461
10

28 Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting?

1 Zinc is more reactive than iron.


2 Zinc is less reactive than iron.
3 Zinc can form alloys with iron.
4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

29 Which conditions are used in the Haber process?

temperature pressure
/ C / atmospheres

A 100 10
B 450 10
C 450 200
D 1000 500

30 Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas?

A acid rain on limestone buildings


B combustion of wood
C digestion in cows
D zinc reacting with sulfuric acid

31 Which reaction involving sulfur dioxide is correct?

A It is produced during the extraction of zinc from zinc blende.


B It reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum.
C It reacts with sulfur to form sulfur trioxide.

D It turns an acidified solution of potassium manganate(VII) purple.

32 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory.

Which substance is removed by the lime?

A ammonia
B sodium chloride
C sodium hydroxide
D sulfuric acid

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

462
11

33 What is the structure of the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propanol?

A B
H H O H H O

H C C C H H H C C C
H
H H O C C H H H C
H H
H H C
H
O

C D
H O H O

H C C H C C H H H
H
H C H O C C C H
H H
C H H H
H H
C
H
O

34 Fuel X produces carbon dioxide and water when it is burned in air. So does fuel Y.

What could X and Y be?

X Y

A C H2
B C C8H18
C CH4 H2
D CH4 C8H18

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21 [Turn over

463
12

35 The structures of four organic molecules are shown.

H
H O H H
O
H C Cl H C O H H C C O H
H C H
H H H
H

How many different homologous series are represented by these molecules?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

36 Which statement about ethene is correct?

A It has the chemical formula C2H6.


B It burns in excess oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water.
C It reacts with Br2 to produce an orange solution.
D It reacts with oxygen to form ethanol.

37 Ethanol is manufactured by fermentation of sugars or by catalytic hydration of ethene.

Which row states an advantage of each method?

fermentation hydration

A produces purer ethanol is a batch process


B produces purer ethanol is a continuous process
C uses a renewable resource is a batch process
D uses a renewable resource is a continuous process

38 Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct?

1 They contain both single and double bonds.


2 They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown.
3 They can be manufactured by cracking.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

464
13

39 Which polymers have the same linkage between monomer units?

A carbohydrate and polyamide


B carbohydrate and polyester
C protein and polyamide
D protein and polyester

40 The diagram shows the partial structure of Terylene.

O O O

C O O C C O

From which pair of compounds is it made?

O O

A HO C C OH + HO OH

O O

B HO C OH + HO C OH

O O

C HO OH + HO C C OH

O O O O

D HO C C OH + HO C C OH

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

465
14

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

466
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0620/22/O/N/21

467
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2021
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/O/N/21
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

468
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*1626974827*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 11_0620_23/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

469
2

1 Brownian motion and the diffusion of gases provide evidence for the particulate nature of matter.

Which row identifies an example of Brownian motion and how molecular mass determines the
rate of diffusion of gas molecules?

Brownian motion diffusion


A pollen grains in water are heavier gas molecules
seen to move randomly diffuse more quickly
B pollen grains in water are lighter gas molecules
seen to move randomly diffuse more quickly
C salt dissolves faster in heavier gas molecules
hot water than in cold water diffuse more quickly
D salt dissolves faster in lighter gas molecules
hot water than in cold water diffuse more quickly

2 A student put exactly 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a conical flask.

The student added 2.5 g of solid sodium carbonate and measured the change in temperature of
the mixture.

Which apparatus does the student need to use?

A balance, measuring cylinder, thermometer


B balance, pipette, stopwatch
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D burette, pipette, thermometer

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/O/N/21

470
3

3 A student separates sugar from pieces of broken glass by dissolving the sugar in water and
filtering off the broken glass.

filtrate

What is the filtrate?

A broken glass only


B broken glass and sugar solution
C pure water
D sugar solution

4 The nucleus of a particular atom consists of nineteen particles.

Nine of them are positively charged and ten of them are uncharged.

Which statement about this nucleus is correct?

A The nucleus has a nucleon number of nine.


B The nucleus has a nucleon number of ten.
C The nucleus has a proton number of nine.
D The nucleus has a proton number of ten.

5 Which description of brass is correct?

A alloy
B compound
C element
D non-metal

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/O/N/21 [Turn over

471
4

6 A Group I element combines with a Group VII element and forms an ionic bond.

Which row shows how the electronic structures change?

Group I element Group VII element


before after before after
bonding bonding bonding bonding

A 2,8,1 2,8,2 2,7 2,6


B 2,8 2,7 2,8 2,8,1
C 2,8,1 2,8 2,7 2,8
D 2,8 2,8,1 2,8 2,7

7 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?

A They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together.


B They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together.
C They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules.
D They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice.

8 Which diagram shows the outer electron arrangement in a molecule of carbon dioxide?

A B C D

O C O O C O O C O O C O

9 Aluminium oxide is an ionic compound containing Al 3+ ions and O2– ions.

Aluminium hydroxide is an ionic compound containing Al 3+ ions and OH– ions.

In which row are the formulae for aluminium oxide and aluminium hydroxide correct?

aluminium aluminium
oxide hydroxide

A Al 2O3 Al (OH)3
B Al 3O2 Al OH3
C Al 2O3 Al OH3
D Al 3O2 Al (OH)3

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10 Effervescence is observed at the negative electrode (cathode) during the electrolysis of


concentrated aqueous sodium chloride.

Which element is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)?

A chlorine
B hydrogen
C oxygen
D sodium

11 The energy level diagram for a chemical reaction is shown.

products
energy

reactants

progress of reaction

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A The reaction is endothermic and energy is given out to the surroundings.


B The reaction is endothermic and energy is taken in from the surroundings.
C The reaction is exothermic and energy is given out to the surroundings.
D The reaction is exothermic and energy is taken in from the surroundings.

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12 Chlorine reacts with ethane to produce chloroethane and hydrogen chloride.

H H H H

H C C H + Cl Cl H C C Cl + H Cl

H H H H

The reaction is exothermic.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–Cl +340
C–C +350
C–H +410
Cl –Cl +240
H–Cl +430

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –1420 kJ / mol
B –120 kJ / mol
C +120 kJ / mol
D +1420 kJ / mol

13 What is the concentration of the solution when 31.8 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, is dissolved
in water to make a solution of 250 cm3?

A 0.075 mol / dm3


B 0.30 mol / dm3
C 1.2 mol / dm3
D 1.5 mol / dm3

14 A fuel cell is used to generate electricity.

Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell?

A hydrogen and methane


B hydrogen and oxygen
C nitrogen and methane
D nitrogen and oxygen

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15 Sulfuric acid is manufactured using the Contact process. One of the reactions is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

statement 1 The equation has more molecules on the left-hand side than on the
right-hand side.
statement 2 Using a higher pressure shifts the equilibrium to the left.
statement 3 Higher temperatures increase the rate of reaction.
statement 4 Increasing the temperature shifts the equilibrium to the right.

Which alternative is correct?

A Statement 1 is correct and explains statement 2.


B Statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.
C Statement 2 and statement 4 are correct.
D Statement 3 is correct and explains statement 4.

16 Iron(II) chloride solution reacts with chlorine gas.

The equation is shown.

2FeCl 2(aq) + Cl 2(g)  2FeCl 3(aq)

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions.


2 Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
3 Fe2+ ions each lose an electron.
4 Cl 2 molecules are reduced to Cl – ions.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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17 Excess dilute hydrochloric acid is added to equal masses of powdered calcium carbonate in two
separate experiments.

Two different concentrations of hydrochloric acid are used. The temperature in both experiments
is the same.

The results show the change in mass of the reaction flask measured over time.

mass of
reaction 1.0 mol / dm3 HCl
flask

2.0 mol / dm3 HCl


0
0 time

Why is the rate of reaction for the 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid slower?

collision energy collision rate

A lower higher
B lower lower
C same as for 2.0 mol / dm3 higher
D same as for 2.0 mol / dm3 lower

18 Basic oxides are neutralised by acidic oxides.

Which element forms an oxide that neutralises calcium oxide?

A hydrogen
B magnesium
C sodium
D sulfur

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19 Four solid oxides are added to dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide.

Which row describes an amphoteric oxide?

hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide

A key
B = reacts
C = does not react
D

20 Which row describes an acid and an oxidising agent?

acid oxidising agent

A proton acceptor electron acceptor


B proton acceptor electron donor
C proton donor electron acceptor
D proton donor electron donor

21 A period of the Periodic Table is shown.

group I II III IV V VI VII VIII

element R S T V W X Y Z

The letters are not their chemical symbols.

Which statement is correct?

A Element R does not conduct electricity.


B Elements R and Y react together to form an ionic compound.
C Element Z exists as a diatomic molecule.
D Element Z reacts with element T.

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22 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

J K
L M N

Which pairs of the elements J, K, L, M and N react together to form a product with a 1 : 1 ratio?

A J and L K and M
B J and M K and N
C J and N K and L
D J and N K and M

23 Which property is shown by transition metals but not shown by Group I metals?

A good electrical conductivity


B good thermal conductivity
C loss of electrons to form positive ions
D variable oxidation states

24 The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.

Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?

A They all have eight electrons in their outer shells.


B They all have full outer shells.
C They are all gases.
D They are all monoatomic.

25 Which statement is correct for all metals?

A They conduct electricity when molten.


B They gain electrons when they form ions.
C They have a low density.
D They have a low melting point.

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26 Chromium is a more reactive metal than iron but less reactive than zinc.

Which statements are correct?

1 Chromium does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.


2 Chromium oxide is reduced when it is heated with carbon.
3 Chromium reacts with zinc oxide to form zinc.
4 Chromium reacts with steam to form hydrogen gas.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

27 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion.

Iron objects must be protected from corrosion.

Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?

A Aluminium does not form ions easily.


B Aluminium does not react with water or air.
C Aluminium has a protective oxide layer.
D Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series.

28 Which statement describes how oxides of nitrogen are formed in a car engine?

A Nitrogen from the air reacts with oxygen from petrol.


B Nitrogen from the air reacts with oxygen from the air.
C Nitrogen from petrol reacts with oxygen from petrol.
D Nitrogen from petrol reacts with oxygen from the air.

29 Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron.

Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting.

Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting?

A Magnesium oxidises instead of iron.


B Magnesium stops air and water getting to the iron.
C The magnesium forms an alloy with iron which does not corrode.
D The magnesium reacts with rust as soon as it is formed.

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12

30 Which process is used to produce hydrogen for the Haber process?

A electrolysis of water
B reacting aluminium with sodium hydroxide
C reacting iron with sulfuric acid
D reacting methane with steam

31 One of the steps in manufacturing sulfuric acid in the Contact process is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

Which catalyst is used to increase the rate of this reaction?

A aluminium oxide
B iron
C phosphoric acid

D vanadium(V) oxide

32 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory.

Which substance is removed by the lime?

A ammonia
B sodium chloride
C sodium hydroxide
D sulfuric acid

33 What is the structure of propanol?

A B
H H O H O

H C C C O H H C C O H

H H H

C D
H H H H H

H C C C O H H C C O H

H H H H H

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34 Fuel X produces carbon dioxide and water when it is burned in air. So does fuel Y.

What could X and Y be?

X Y

A C H2
B C C8H18
C CH4 H2
D CH4 C8H18

35 What is the main constituent of natural gas?

A hydrogen
B carbon monoxide
C methane
D nitrogen

36 Which statement describes the members of a homologous series?

A compounds with the same physical properties


B compounds containing the same functional group
C compounds containing the same number and type of bonds
D compounds obtained from the same raw material

37 The structures of two compounds are shown.

H H O H H O

H C C O C H C C C

H H H H H O H

Which statements about these compounds are correct?

1 They have the same molecular formula.


2 They have similar chemical properties.
3 They are structural isomers.

A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 1 and 3

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38 Some reactions of substance Q are shown.

add steam
under pressure
and a catalyst add bromine
ethanol is made Q 1,2-dibromoethane
is made
add hydrogen
and a catalyst

What is P?

A ethane
B ethanoic acid
C ethene
D poly(ethene)

39 Proteins and starch are natural polymers.

Which row identifies the method of polymerisation of proteins and starch?

proteins starch

A addition addition
B condensation condensation
C addition condensation
D condensation addition

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40 The diagram shows the partial structure of Terylene.

O O O

C O O C C O

From which pair of compounds is it made?

O O

A HO C C OH + HO OH

O O

B HO C OH + HO C OH

O O

C HO OH + HO C C OH

O O O O

D HO C C OH + HO C C OH

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0620/23/O/N/21

483
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2021
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/O/N/21
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

484
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*9070200185*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_0620_21/RP
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1 Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature?

A carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide


B carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C chlorine and fluorine
D nitrogen and oxygen

2 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute
sulfuric acid.

Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment?

1 stop-clock
2 measuring cylinder
3 thermometer
4 balance

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4

3 The numbers of protons and neutrons and the electronic structures of four particles, W, X, Y and
Z, are shown.

number of number of electronic


protons neutrons structure

W 8 8 2,8
X 8 10 2,6
Y 8 8 2,6
Z 10 8 2,8

Which particles have the same chemical properties?

A W and Y B W and Z C X and Y D X and Z

4 Which substance should be pure for the intended use?

A a drug for curing disease


B limestone for iron extraction
C petroleum for fractional distillation
D water for washing a car

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5 Metals and ionic compounds have similarities and differences in their structure and properties.

Which row about metals and ionic compounds is correct?

similarity difference

A both contain positive ions only ionic compounds contain anions


B both contain positive ions ionic compounds conduct using a ‘sea of electrons’
C both are malleable only ionic compounds contain anions
D both are malleable ionic compounds conduct using a ‘sea of electrons’

6 Which diagram represents the outer-shell electron arrangement in a nitrogen molecule?

A B C D

N N N N N N N N

7 The equation for the reaction between barium chloride and dilute sulfuric acid is shown.

BaCl 2 + H2SO4  BaSO4 + 2HCl

Which row shows the state symbols for this equation?

BaCl 2 H2SO4 BaSO4 2HCl

A (aq) (aq) (s) (aq)


B (aq) (l) (s) (aq)
C (l) (aq) (s) (l)
D (aq) (l) (aq) (l)

8 The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of
the element with the mass of one atom of element Q.

What is Q?

A carbon
B chlorine
C hydrogen
D oxygen

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9 The equation for the reaction between aqueous lead(II) nitrate and aqueous sodium chloride is
shown.

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaCl (aq)  PbCl 2(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)

If 100 cm3 of aqueous lead(II) nitrate of concentration 0.1 mol / dm3 is reacted with an excess of
aqueous sodium chloride, which mass of lead(II) chloride is obtained?

A 1.16 g B 2.42 g C 2.78 g D 3.31 g

10 The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated aqueous
sodium chloride using carbon electrodes.

+ – + –
electrode 1 electrode 2 electrode 3 electrode 4

concentrated concentrated aqueous


hydrochloric acid sodium chloride

At which electrodes is hydrogen produced?

A electrode 1 only
B electrodes 1 and 3
C electrode 2 only
D electrodes 2 and 4

11 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction at the cathode?

A Cu  Cu2+ + 2e–

B Cu2+ + 2e–  Cu

C 2H+ + 2e–  H2

D 2O2–  O2 + 4e–

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12 Which row identifies a chemical change and a physical change?

chemical change physical change

A boiling ethanol burning ethanol


B burning ethanol evaporating ethanol
C dissolving ethanol in water burning ethanol
D evaporating ethanol dissolving ethanol in water

13 The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous
hydrogen iodide is shown.

H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)

The reaction is exothermic.

Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic?

A Energy is released when H–H and I–I bonds are broken.


B The bond energies of the reactants are larger than the bond energies of the products.
C The products are at a higher energy level than the reactants.

D More energy is released when two HI bonds are formed than is used when the H–H and I–I
bonds are broken.

14 Acidified aqueous silver nitrate is added to a test-tube containing aqueous chloride ions.

The test-tube is then left in direct sunlight.

Which row describes the observations and explains what happens to the reaction mixture?

observation on adding observation after


explanation
aqueous silver nitrate leaving in sunlight

A yellow precipitate precipitate dissolves silver chloride forms


B yellow precipitate precipitate turns grey silver ions are reduced
C white precipitate precipitate dissolves silver chloride forms
D white precipitate precipitate turns grey silver ions are reduced

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15 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.

What happens during the reaction?

A The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder.

B The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter.

C The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder.

D The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter.

16 Aqueous iron(III) chloride, FeCl 3, reacts with aqueous potassium iodide, KI.

vFeCl 3 + wKI  xFeCl 2 + yKCl + I2

Which statements are correct?

1 In the balanced equation, v, w, x and y have the same value.


2 Potassium iodide is an oxidising agent.
3 A dark brown solution is produced in the reaction.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 2 and 3

17 Which statement about acids is correct?

A A strong acid has a higher pH than a weak acid of the same concentration.
B A strong acid is a proton acceptor.
C A weak acid is a proton donor.
D A weak acid is fully ionised in aqueous solution.

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18 The oxides of two elements, X and Y, are separately dissolved in water and the pH of each
solution tested.

oxide tested pH of solution

X 1
Y 13

Which information about X and Y is correct?

oxide is oxide is
metal non-metal
acidic basic

A X Y X Y
B X Y Y X
C Y X X Y
D Y X Y X

19 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base.

A soluble salt is formed.

How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?

A crystallisation  evaporation  filtration

B evaporation  crystallisation  filtration

C filtration  crystallisation  evaporation

D filtration  evaporation  crystallisation

20 The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1.

Which statements about Z are correct?

1 It is a metal.
2 It has two outer-shell electrons.
3 It is in Period 3.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

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21 Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.

carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead

What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

A The proton number of the elements increases.


B The elements become more metallic.
C The elements have more electrons in their outer shell.
D The elements have more electron shells.

22 Element M forms both M+ and M2+ ions.

In which part of the Periodic Table is M placed?

A Group I
B Group II
C Group III
D transition elements

23 In the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis, cryolite is added to the bauxite ore.

Which row describes the role of cryolite and gives the ionic half-equation at the cathode?

role of cryolite ionic half-equation at the cathode

A catalyst Al 3+ + 3e–  Al
B catalyst Al 3+ + 3e–  3Al
C lowers melting point of electrolyte Al 3+ + 3e–  Al
D lowers melting point of electrolyte Al 3+ + 3e–  3Al

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24 Mild steel is galvanised to prevent corrosion of the iron.

Which statements about galvanising are correct?

1 Galvanising prevents corrosion because the zinc forms an alloy.


2 If the coating is damaged, water and oxygen do not corrode the iron.
3 Zinc is a sacrificial metal and corrodes in preference to iron.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 2 and 3

25 Which diagram represents the arrangement of the outer-shell electrons of a noble gas?

A B C D

26 Which statements about the general properties of metals are correct?

1 They are good conductors of heat and electricity.


2 They have low melting points.
3 They react with dilute acids to form a salt and water.
4 They react with oxygen to form basic oxides.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

27 Reactions of three metals and their oxides are shown.

add dilute heat


metal hydrochloric acid metal oxide
to metal with carbon

1 key
2 = reacts
3 = does not react

What is the order of reactivity of these metals, from most reactive to least reactive?

A 123 B 132 C 213 D 231

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28 Three metal compounds, J, K and L, are heated using a Bunsen burner.

The results are shown.

J colourless gas produced, which relights a glowing splint


K colourless gas produced, which turns limewater milky
L no reaction

Which row identifies J, K and L?

J K L

A magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate potassium nitrate


B magnesium carbonate potassium nitrate potassium carbonate
C potassium nitrate magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate
D potassium nitrate potassium carbonate magnesium carbonate

29 The diagram shows the uses and treatment processes of muddy river water.

process 1 process 2
muddy river water clear river water disinfected water

use 1 use 2

Which row identifies uses 1 and 2 and processes 1 and 2?

use 1 use 2 process 1 process 2

A drinking watering crops chlorination filtration


B drinking watering crops filtration chlorination
C watering crops drinking chlorination filtration
D watering crops drinking filtration chlorination

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30 The equation for the manufacture of ammonia in the Haber process is shown.

3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which row describes the effect of the stated change on the reaction rate and the yield of
ammonia?

change effect on reaction rate effect on yield of ammonia

A decrease pressure increases decreases


B decrease temperature decreases increases
C increase pressure increases decreases
D increase temperature increases increases

31 Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth.

Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?

A Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4


B Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4
C KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4
D KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4

32 The flow chart shows part of the process for the manufacture of sulfuric acid and its electrolysis.

electrolysis

gas 2

concentrated dilute
gas 3
sulfuric acid sulfuric acid

gas 1

What are gases 1, 2 and 3?

gas 1 gas 2 gas 3

A sulfur dioxide hydrogen sulfur trioxide


B sulfur dioxide oxygen sulfur trioxide
C sulfur trioxide hydrogen sulfur dioxide
D sulfur trioxide oxygen sulfur dioxide

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33 Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct?

1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII).

2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates.

3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach.

4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

34 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?

A calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide


B calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide
C calcium oxide and carbon dioxide
D calcium oxide and carbon monoxide

35 The structure of ester W is shown.

H O

H C C H

H O C H

Which row gives the names of ester W and the carboxylic acid and alcohol from which it is made?

name of ester W carboxylic acid alcohol

A ethyl methanoate ethanoic acid methanol


B ethyl methanoate methanoic acid ethanol
C methyl ethanoate ethanoic acid methanol
D methyl ethanoate methanoic acid ethanol

36 Ethanol is made industrially by the fermentation of glucose or by the catalytic addition of steam to
ethene.

Which statement describes an advantage of fermentation compared to catalytic addition?

A Ethanol is the only product of fermentation.


B Fermentation uses a batch process but catalytic addition is continuous.
C Fermentation uses a higher temperature than catalytic addition.
D Fermentation uses a renewable resource.

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37 Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed.

● It boils at 65 C.
● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix.
● It does not react with sodium carbonate.
● It has no effect on bromine water.

What is L?

A ethanol
B hexane
C hexene
D ethanoic acid

38 A molecule of compound P contains two carbon atoms and four hydrogen atoms.

Which row represents P?

name of reacts with


Mr
compound aqueous bromine

A ethane 30
B ethene 16
C ethene 28
D ethene 28

39 The reaction of ethanol with acidified potassium manganate(VII) is shown.

KMnO4
CH3CH2OH CH3COOH
H+

Which type of reaction is taking place?

A addition
B condensation
C hydrolysis
D oxidation

© UCLES 2022 0620/21/M/J/22 [Turn over

497
14

40 Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide?

A nylon
B poly(ethene)
C protein
D Terylene

© UCLES 2022 0620/21/M/J/22

498
15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0620/21/M/J/22

499
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2022
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/M/J/22
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

500
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2772444271*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 06_0620_22/2RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over

501
2

1 Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature?

A carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide


B carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C chlorine and fluorine
D nitrogen and oxygen

2 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute
sulfuric acid.

Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment?

1 stop-clock
2 measuring cylinder
3 thermometer
4 balance

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4

3 A chromatogram of a single substance T is shown.

solvent front

3
1 4
2
baseline

Which measurements are used to find the Rf value of T?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

4 X and Y are two different elements.

X and Y have the same number of nucleons.

Which statement about X and Y is correct?

A They have the same physical properties.


B Their atoms have the same number of electrons.
C They are in different groups of the Periodic Table.
D They have different relative masses.

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

502
3

5 The diagrams show the structures of three macromolecules P, Q and R.

P Q R

What are P, Q and R?

P Q R

A diamond silicon(IV) oxide graphite


B graphite diamond silicon(IV) oxide
C silicon(IV) oxide diamond graphite
D silicon(IV) oxide graphite diamond

6 Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the arrangement of outer shell electrons in a molecule of
hydrogen chloride?

A B C D

H Cl H Cl H Cl H Cl

7 The equation for the reaction between barium chloride and dilute sulfuric acid is shown.

BaCl 2 + H2SO4  BaSO4 + 2HCl

Which row shows the state symbols for this equation?

BaCl 2 H2SO4 BaSO4 2HCl

A (aq) (aq) (s) (aq)


B (aq) (l) (s) (aq)
C (l) (aq) (s) (l)
D (aq) (l) (aq) (l)

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22 [Turn over

503
4

8 Methane and steam react in the presence of a catalyst.

CH4(g) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + 3H2(g)

0.5 mol of methane reacts completely with 0.5 mol of steam.

What is the volume of carbon monoxide and hydrogen produced, measured at room temperature
and pressure?

volume volume
of CO / dm3 of H2 / dm3

A 0.5 1.5
B 1.0 3.0
C 12.0 12.0
D 12.0 36.0

9 A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144.

What is element X?

A copper, Cu
B gadolinium, Gd
C sulfur, S
D tellurium, Te

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

504
5

10 The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated aqueous
sodium chloride using carbon electrodes.

+ – + –
electrode 1 electrode 2 electrode 3 electrode 4

concentrated concentrated aqueous


hydrochloric acid sodium chloride

At which electrodes is hydrogen produced?

A electrode 1 only
B electrodes 1 and 3
C electrode 2 only
D electrodes 2 and 4

11 The diagram shows the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate using inert electrodes.

Which arrow shows the movement of electrons in the circuit?

power
supply
A B

anode cathode

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6

12 Which row identifies a chemical change and a physical change?

chemical change physical change

A boiling ethanol burning ethanol


B burning ethanol evaporating ethanol
C dissolving ethanol in water burning ethanol
D evaporating ethanol dissolving ethanol in water

13 Which statements explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of
reaction?

1 It increases the collision rate of particles.


2 It lowers the activation energy.
3 A greater proportion of the colliding molecules have the required activation energy.
4 There are more particles per unit volume.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

14 When the colourless gas N2O4 is heated, it forms the brown gas NO2.

When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless.

Which type of reaction is described by these observations?

A decomposition
B displacement
C reduction
D reversible

15 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.

What happens during the reaction?

A The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder.

B The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter.

C The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder.

D The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter.

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

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7

16 Which arrow on the energy level diagram shows the overall energy change for an endothermic
reaction?

C
products
energy A
D
reactants B

progress of reaction

17 When a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell is in operation, a different reaction happens at each electrode.

at the hydrogen electrode H2  2H+ + 2e–

at the oxygen electrode O2 + 2H2O + 4e–  4OH–

The electrons that are lost at the hydrogen electrode travel through the external circuit to the
oxygen electrode, where they are gained by the oxygen and water.

A hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell is operated for a period of time and four moles of oxygen molecules
are consumed.

Which mass of hydrogen is consumed?

A 2.0 g B 4.0 g C 8.0 g D 16.0 g

18 The oxides of two elements, X and Y, are separately dissolved in water and the pH of each
solution tested.

oxide tested pH of solution

X 1
Y 13

Which information about X and Y is correct?

oxide is oxide is
metal non-metal
acidic basic

A X Y X Y
B X Y Y X
C Y X X Y
D Y X Y X

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8

19 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base.

A soluble salt is formed.

How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?

A crystallisation  evaporation  filtration

B evaporation  crystallisation  filtration

C filtration  crystallisation  evaporation

D filtration  evaporation  crystallisation

20 Substance J takes part in a redox reaction.

In the reaction, J gains electrons.

Which statement is correct?

A J is the oxidising agent and it is oxidised in the reaction.


B J is the oxidising agent and it is reduced in the reaction.
C J is the reducing agent and it is oxidised in the reaction.
D J is the reducing agent and it is reduced in the reaction.

21 Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.

carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead

What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

A The proton number of the elements increases.


B The elements become more metallic.
C The elements have more electrons in their outer shell.
D The elements have more electron shells.

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

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9

22 Which statement about acids is correct?

A Acids are proton acceptors.


B Acids transfer electrons to bases in aqueous solution.
C Hydrochloric acid reacts with ammonium hydroxide to produce ammonia.
D Ethanoic acid partially ionises in aqueous solution.

23 Which elements have both a high melting point and variable oxidation states?

A alkali metals
B transition elements
C halogens
D noble gases

24 Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Chlorine, bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

Which row identifies the least dense of these elements in each group?

Group I Group VII

A lithium chlorine
B lithium iodine
C potassium chlorine
D potassium iodine

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22 [Turn over

509
10

25 The reactions of metals P, Q, R and S are shown.

reaction reaction with reduction of the


metal
with water hydrochloric acid metal oxide with carbon

P no reaction no reaction reduced


Q slow vigorous no reaction
R vigorous vigorous no reaction
S very slow vigorous reduced

What is the order of reactivity of the metals?

least most
reactive reactive

A P S Q R
B P Q S R
C R S Q P
D R Q S P

26 The number of protons and the number of neutrons in the atoms of elements X, Y and Z are
shown.

number of number of
protons neutrons

X 6 6
Y 7 6
Z 8 10

Which statement about the elements is correct?

A X and Y are isotopes of the same element.


B Z forms an ion with a +2 charge.
C X and Z react together to form an ionic compound.
D X, Y and Z are non-metals.

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

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11

27 Which diagram represents the arrangement of atoms in an alloy?

A B C D

28 Three metal compounds, J, K and L, are heated using a Bunsen burner.

The results are shown.

J colourless gas produced, which relights a glowing splint


K colourless gas produced, which turns limewater milky
L no reaction

Which row identifies J, K and L?

J K L

A magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate potassium nitrate


B magnesium carbonate potassium nitrate potassium carbonate
C potassium nitrate magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate
D potassium nitrate potassium carbonate magnesium carbonate

29 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed.

1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon.


2 Condense zinc vapour.
3 Vaporise the zinc.
4 Roast zinc ore in air.

In which order are the processes carried out?

A 1234

B 4312

C 4132

D 1432

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22 [Turn over

511
12

30 Which process uses sacrificial protection to prevent steel from rusting?

A galvanising
B oiling
C copper plating
D painting

31 Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth.

Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?

A Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4


B Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4
C KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4
D KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4

32 Which processes produce carbon dioxide?

1 respiration
2 photosynthesis
3 fermentation
4 combustion of hydrogen

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

33 Which reaction in the Contact process requires the use of a catalyst?

A S + O2  SO2

B 2SO2 + O2  2SO3

C SO3 + H2SO4  H2S2O7

D H2S2O7 + H2O  2H2SO4

34 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?

A calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide


B calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide
C calcium oxide and carbon dioxide
D calcium oxide and carbon monoxide

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

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13

35 The structure of ester W is shown.

H O

H C C H

H O C H

Which row gives the names of ester W and the carboxylic acid and alcohol from which it is made?

name of ester W carboxylic acid alcohol

A ethyl methanoate ethanoic acid methanol


B ethyl methanoate methanoic acid ethanol
C methyl ethanoate ethanoic acid methanol
D methyl ethanoate methanoic acid ethanol

36 Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol.

What is X?

A ethanoic acid
B glucose
C hydrogen
D steam

37 Alkenes can be produced by cracking large hydrocarbon molecules to form smaller hydrocarbon
molecules.

Which equations represent possible reactions when tetradecane, C14H30, is cracked?

1 C14H30  C2H6 + C3H6 + C4H8 + C5H10

2 C14H30  H2 + C2H4 + C3H6 + C4H8 + C5H10

3 C14H30  C2H6 + 4C3H6

4 C14H30  C2H6 + C3H8 + C9H18

A 1 only B 1 and 4 C 1, 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22 [Turn over

513
14

38 The structures of some hydrocarbons are shown.

1 2 3 4
H H H
H H H H H H H
H C C H H C H
H C C C H H C C C C H
H H H
H
H H H H H H H
H C C H H C C C H

H H H H H

Which statement about the hydrocarbons is correct?

A 1 and 2 have a different general formula.


B 1 and 4 are in different homologous series.
C 2 and 3 are structural isomers.
D 3 and 4 have the same empirical formula.

39 Ethane reacts with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light.

Which substances are produced in the reaction?

1 2 3 4
H H H H

H H H C C Cl H C C H H Cl

H H Cl Cl

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

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15

40 Which polymer structure has the same linkages as Terylene?

A B

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 O

C C O C C C

C H n H H n
O OH

C D

H CH3 CH3 O CH3 CH3

N C C C C C O

H H n H H n

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/M/J/22

515
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2022
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/M/J/22
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

516
Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3981974951*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_0620_23/RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over

517
2

1 Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature?

A carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide


B carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C chlorine and fluorine
D nitrogen and oxygen

2 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute
sulfuric acid.

Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment?

1 stop-clock
2 measuring cylinder
3 thermometer
4 balance

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4

3 Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide?

A They are brittle, with a low melting point, and are insoluble in water.
B They are hard, with a high melting point, and are electrical insulators.
C They are malleable, with a high melting point, and are electrical conductors.
D They are soft, with a low melting point, and are electrical insulators.

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/M/J/22

518
3

4 Paper chromatography is used to separate four different coloured inks, W, X, Y and Z, and an
unknown ink T.

The chromatogram is shown.

solvent front

baseline
W X Y Z T

Which inks are present in ink T?

A W and X B W and Y C X and Z D Y and Z

5 Particle P has an atomic number of 18, a mass number of 40 and no overall charge.

Particle Q has an atomic number of 19, a mass number of 40 and a single positive charge.

Which statement is correct?

A They are isotopes of the same element.


B They are both ions.
C Q has more neutrons than P.
D They have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.

6 Which statement about the properties of metals is correct?

A Metals are malleable because the layers of positive ions can slide over each other.
B Metals conduct electricity when solid because the positive ions move freely through the
metal.
C Metals conduct electricity because there is a strong force of attraction between the positive
ions and the delocalised electrons.
D Metals have a high melting point because the positive ions attract each other strongly.

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/M/J/22 [Turn over

519
4

7 The equation for the reaction between barium chloride and dilute sulfuric acid is shown.

BaCl 2 + H2SO4  BaSO4 + 2HCl

Which row shows the state symbols for this equation?

BaCl 2 H2SO4 BaSO4 2HCl

A (aq) (aq) (s) (aq)


B (aq) (l) (s) (aq)
C (l) (aq) (s) (l)
D (aq) (l) (aq) (l)

8 A 0.5 g sample of calcium carbonate is reacted with excess dilute hydrochloric acid.

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq)  CaCl 2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

Which volume of CO2 is produced at r.t.p.?

A 0.12 dm3 B 0.18 dm3 C 0.24 dm3 D 12 dm3

9 Aluminium is manufactured from aluminium oxide by electrolysis.

Which row shows the ionic half-equations at each electrode and describes the role of cryolite in
the process?

reaction at anode reaction at cathode role of cryolite

A 2O2–  O2 + 4e– Al 3+ + 3e–  3Al catalyst


B Al 3+ + 3e–  Al 2O2–  O2 + 4e– solvent for aluminium oxide
C 2O2–  O2 + 4e– Al 3+ + 3e–  Al solvent for aluminium oxide
D Al 3+ + 3e–  3Al 2O2–  O2 + 4e– catalyst

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/M/J/22

520
5

10 The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated aqueous
sodium chloride using carbon electrodes.

+ – + –
electrode 1 electrode 2 electrode 3 electrode 4

concentrated concentrated aqueous


hydrochloric acid sodium chloride

At which electrodes is hydrogen produced?

A electrode 1 only
B electrodes 1 and 3
C electrode 2 only
D electrodes 2 and 4

11 Which statement about fuels is correct?

A Coal and ethanol are examples of non-renewable energy sources.


B Hydrogen and oxygen can be reacted to produce an electric current.
C Large amounts of energy are taken in by a fuel when it burns.
D Radioactive isotopes are burned to produce heat.

12 Which row identifies a chemical change and a physical change?

chemical change physical change

A boiling ethanol burning ethanol


B burning ethanol evaporating ethanol
C dissolving ethanol in water burning ethanol
D evaporating ethanol dissolving ethanol in water

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/M/J/22 [Turn over

521
6

13 Metal M reacts with steam and produces gas G.

Which row identifies gas G and the type of reaction when metal M reacts with steam?

gas G type of reaction

A hydrogen redox
B hydrogen neutralisation
C oxygen redox
D oxygen neutralisation

14 Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of the
reaction?

A A greater proportion of the particles have the activation energy so there are more successful
collisions.
B Particles have more energy so there are more frequent collisions.
C There are more particles in the same volume so there are more frequent collisions.
D The particles move more quickly so there are more frequent collisions.

15 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.

What happens during the reaction?

A The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder.

B The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter.

C The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder.

D The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter.

16 Which statement explains why lime is added to soil?

A to decrease the pH of acidic soil


B to decrease the pH of alkaline soil
C to increase the pH of acidic soil
D to increase the pH of alkaline soil

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/M/J/22

522
7

17 Sulfur dioxide is bubbled through water containing litmus.

sulfur dioxide

water and litmus

Which row describes and explains what happens to the litmus?

observation explanation

A it turns blue sulfur dioxide is a basic oxide


B it turns blue sulfur dioxide is an acidic oxide
C it turns red sulfur dioxide is an acidic oxide
D it turns red sulfur dioxide is a basic oxide

18 The oxides of two elements, X and Y, are separately dissolved in water and the pH of each
solution tested.

oxide tested pH of solution

X 1
Y 13

Which information about X and Y is correct?

oxide is oxide is
metal non-metal
acidic basic

A X Y X Y
B X Y Y X
C Y X X Y
D Y X Y X

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19 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base.

A soluble salt is formed.

How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?

A crystallisation  evaporation  filtration

B evaporation  crystallisation  filtration

C filtration  crystallisation  evaporation

D filtration  evaporation  crystallisation

20 Which ion forms a precipitate that dissolves in excess with both aqueous ammonia and with
aqueous sodium hydroxide?

A calcium ion, Ca2+

B copper(II) ion, Cu2+

C iron(III) ion, Fe3+

D zinc ion, Zn2+

21 Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.

carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead

What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

A The proton number of the elements increases.


B The elements become more metallic.
C The elements have more electrons in their outer shell.
D The elements have more electron shells.

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9

22 W, X, Y and Z are elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table.

The numbers of outer-shell electrons in an atom of each element are shown.

number of
element
outer-shell electrons

W 1
X 2
Y 7
Z 8

Which elements are non-metals?

A W, X and Y B W and X only C Y and Z D Z only

23 Selenium is an element in Group VI.

Group VI elements follow similar trends to Group VII elements.

Which statement about selenium is correct?

A It has a higher density than sulfur.


B It has a lower melting point than sulfur.
C It has six electron shells.
D It is a monoatomic element.

24 Which row describes the properties of a typical transition element?

melting used as
density
point catalyst

A high high yes


B high low no
C low high yes
D low low no

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10

25 Which row describes an atom of a noble gas?

number of number of number of


protons neutrons electrons

A 2 2 0
B 2 2 2
C 8 8 8
D 8 8 10

26 Some properties of four elements, P, Q, R and S, are shown.

Solid P reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen.


Solid Q does not conduct electricity.
Solid R is used to make saucepans because it is a good conductor of heat.
Solid S reacts with oxygen to form a compound where atoms of S share electrons with
atoms of oxygen.

Which elements are metals?

A P and R B P and S C Q and R D Q and S

27 Which substance is used to reduce zinc oxide in the manufacture of zinc?

A carbon
B carbon dioxide
C hydrogen
D sulfur dioxide

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11

28 Three metal compounds, J, K and L, are heated using a Bunsen burner.

The results are shown.

J colourless gas produced, which relights a glowing splint


K colourless gas produced, which turns limewater milky
L no reaction

Which row identifies J, K and L?

J K L

A magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate potassium nitrate


B magnesium carbonate potassium nitrate potassium carbonate
C potassium nitrate magnesium carbonate potassium carbonate
D potassium nitrate potassium carbonate magnesium carbonate

29 Nitrogen oxide, NO, is formed in the engine of petrol-powered cars.

One constituent of petrol is octane, C8H18.

Nitrogen oxide is removed from exhaust fumes by catalytic converters.

Which row identifies the reactants that produce nitrogen oxide and a reaction that removes it in a
catalytic converter?

reactants that produce NO reaction that removes NO

A octane + one gas found in air 2NO + 2CO  N2 + 2CO2


B octane + one gas found in air NO + CO2  NO2 + CO
C two gases found in air 2NO + 2CO  N2 + 2CO2
D two gases found in air NO + CO2  NO2 + CO

30 A magnesium block is attached to iron to prevent it from rusting.

Which statement about this method of rust prevention is correct?

A Magnesium corrodes instead of iron because it is more reactive.


B Magnesium prevents oxygen from reaching the iron.
C The iron does not rust because it has a greater tendency to form ions than magnesium.
D This method of rust prevention is called galvanising.

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12

31 Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth.

Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?

A Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4


B Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4
C KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4
D KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4

32 Which processes increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air?

1 combustion of hydrogen
2 combustion of methane
3 photosynthesis by plants
4 thermal decomposition of limestone

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

33 In the Contact process, sulfur dioxide is converted into sulfur trioxide.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

What is the effect of lowering the pressure on the rate of formation and percentage yield of
sulfur trioxide at equilibrium?

rate of percentage
formation yield

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?

A calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide


B calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide
C calcium oxide and carbon dioxide
D calcium oxide and carbon monoxide

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13

35 The structure of ester W is shown.

H O

H C C H

H O C H

Which row gives the names of ester W and the carboxylic acid and alcohol from which it is made?

name of ester W carboxylic acid alcohol

A ethyl methanoate ethanoic acid methanol


B ethyl methanoate methanoic acid ethanol
C methyl ethanoate ethanoic acid methanol
D methyl ethanoate methanoic acid ethanol

36 The equation for the reaction between butane, C4H10, and chlorine is shown.

C4H10 + Cl 2  C4H9Cl + HCl

Which type of reaction does butane undergo when it reacts with chlorine?

A addition
B reduction
C acid–base
D substitution

37 Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes.

Which statements about these isomers are correct?

1 They have the same molecular formula.


2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule.
3 They have a C=C bond in the structure.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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38 The hydrocarbon C12H26 is cracked to give X and Y, as shown.

C12H26  X + Y

Which statement is correct?

A If X is C6H12 then Y will react with aqueous bromine.


B If X is C10H22 then Y can be used to make a polymer.
C If X is a hydrogen molecule then Y is an alkane.
D X and Y could be structural isomers.

39 An ester, C4H8O2, is made by reacting 0.06 mol of ethanol, C2H6O, and 0.05 mol of ethanoic acid,
C2H4O2.

C2H6O + C2H4O2  C4H8O2 + H2O

0.0375 mol of the ester was made.

What is the percentage yield and the Mr of the ester?

percentage
Mr
yield / %

A 62.5 48
B 75.0 48
C 62.5 88
D 75.0 88

40 Which type of compound is made when a protein is hydrolysed?

A alkene
B amino acid
C carboxylic acid
D sugar

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15

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/M/J/22

531
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2022
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/M/J/22
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

532
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Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6240325308*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_0620_21/3RP
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2

1 The diagram shows the changes of state between a solid, a liquid and a gas.

1 2
solid liquid gas
3 4

In which changes of state is energy being given out?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

2 A coloured dye is separated by chromatography.

One component of the dye moves a distance of 13 cm and has an Rf value of 0.86.

Which distance did the solvent front move?

A 6.6 cm B 11.9 cm C 15.1 cm D 21.6 cm

3 A mixture contains salt, sand and sulfur.

Salt dissolves in water but not in xylene.

Sulfur dissolves in xylene but not in water.

Sand does not dissolve in water or xylene.

What is the order of the processes used to separate the salt, the sand and the sulfur from the
mixture?

A add water  filter  add xylene to the filtrate  filter

B add water  filter  add xylene to the residue  filter

C add xylene  filter  add water to the filtrate  filter

D add xylene  filter  add xylene to the residue  filter

4 Which statements about isotopes of the same element are correct?

1 They are atoms which have the same chemical properties because they have the
same number of electrons in their outer shell.
2 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and neutrons but
different numbers of protons.
3 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and protons but different
numbers of neutrons.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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5 Which type of structure and bonding is present in an element that is malleable and conducts
electricity?

A covalent molecular
B ionic lattice
C covalent macromolecular
D metallic lattice

6 Which statements about potassium bromide are correct?

1 It has a high melting point.


2 It dissolves in water.
3 It conducts electricity when solid.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

7 Which substance has a similar structure to silicon(IV) oxide?

A carbon dioxide
B diamond
C graphite
D sodium oxide

8 Caffeine is a stimulant found in coffee.

O CH3

H 3C C N
N C
C H
C C
N
O N

CH3

caffeine

Which formula represents caffeine?

A C7H10N4O2 B C8H10N3O2 C C8H10N4O2 D C8H11N4O2

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9 4.55 g of zinc is reacted with 50 cm3 of 2.25 mol / dm3 dilute hydrochloric acid.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

Zn + 2HCl  ZnCl 2 + H2

Which volume of hydrogen gas, at room temperature and pressure, is produced in the reaction?

A 1.35 dm3 B 1.67 dm3 C 2.70 dm3 D 3.34 dm3

10 In the electrolysis diagram, oxidation is occurring at electrode 1 and reduction at electrode 2.

battery

electrode 1 electrode 2

electrolyte

Which row shows the directions of movement of the electrons in the external circuit and of the
positive ions in the electrolyte?

direction of movement of direction of movement of


electrons in external circuit positive ions in electrolyte

A 12 12
B 12 21
C 21 12
D 21 21

11 When an acid is added to an alkali, the temperature of the reaction mixture rises.

Which words describe this reaction?

A decomposition and endothermic


B decomposition and exothermic
C neutralisation and endothermic
D neutralisation and exothermic

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12 Some properties of four fuels are shown.

Which fuel is a gas at room temperature and makes two products when it burns in a plentiful
supply of air?

melting point boiling point


fuel formula
/ C / C

A hydrogen H2 –259 –253


B methane CH4 –182 –164
C octane C8H18 –57 126
D wax C31H64 60 400

13 Ethene can undergo complete combustion, as shown.

H H

C C + 3O O 2O C O + 2H O H

H H

Some bond energies are given in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C=C 612
C–H 412
O–H 463
O=O 496

The energy change of the reaction is –1408 kJ / mol.

What is the bond energy of the C=O bond in CO2?

A 454 kJ / mol B 673 kJ / mol C 826 kJ / mol D 1619 kJ / mol

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14 A student adds excess zinc to dilute hydrochloric acid at 25 C.

The hydrogen gas produced is collected and measured at room temperature and pressure.

The results are plotted and labelled as curve X on the graph.

The experiment is repeated at 50 C with all other conditions remaining the same.

Which graph shows the results at 50 C?

volume of X
hydrogen gas C

0
0 time

15 Dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, is converted into nitrogen dioxide, NO2, in a reversible reaction.

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which conditions give the highest equilibrium yield of nitrogen dioxide?

pressure
temperature
/ atmospheres

A 2 high
B 2 low
C 50 high
D 50 low

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7

16 When magnesium is heated with zinc oxide a reaction occurs.

The equation is shown.

Mg + ZnO  MgO + Zn

Which substance is oxidised?

A magnesium
B magnesium oxide
C zinc
D zinc oxide

17 The diagram shows an experiment.

aqueous P

tap

solid Q

A small volume of aqueous P is poured on to solid Q and the tap of the funnel closed.

Which pairs of substances cause the syringe to fill with gas?

HNO3 HCl H2SO4


and and and
Mg Cu Na2CO3

A
B
C
D

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8

18 Ethanoic acid reacts with water to produce an acidic solution.

Which row describes the roles of ethanoic acid and water in this reaction?

ethanoic acid water

A accepts a proton donates a proton


B accepts an electron donates an electron
C donates a proton accepts a proton
D donates an electron accepts an electron

19 Aqueous ammonium sulfate is made by reacting aqueous ammonia with dilute sulfuric acid.

How is solid ammonium sulfate obtained from the resulting solution?

A crystallisation
B distillation
C filtration
D solvent extraction

20 Carbon forms two oxides: carbon monoxide, CO, and carbon dioxide, CO2.

Which row describes these two oxides?

CO CO2

A acidic acidic
B acidic neutral
C neutral acidic
D neutral neutral

21 Group II elements show the same trends as Group I elements.

Which statement about elements in Group II is correct?

A The melting point of barium is higher than the melting point of calcium.
B Barium is more reactive than beryllium.
C Strontium would not react with oxygen.
D Magnesium is more dense than barium.

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22 Some information about properties of Group I elements is shown.

melting point density


element
/ C in g / cm3

lithium 181 0.53


sodium 98 0.97
potassium X
rubidium Y Z

What are the values for X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A 63 252 0.26
B 63 39 0.26
C 39 63 1.53
D 63 39 1.53

23 Which statements describe properties of transition elements?

1 They form coloured compounds.


2 They have variable oxidation states.
3 They have low densities.
4 They are volatile.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

24 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis is correct?

A Aluminium is extracted from its ore, cryolite.


B Aluminium is formed at the positive electrode.
C Bauxite is used to lower the temperature of the extraction process.
D Graphite is used for both the positive and negative electrodes.

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10

25 Copper(II) nitrate and zinc carbonate are heated strongly in separate test-tubes.

Which row identifies the gases produced?

copper(II) nitrate zinc carbonate

A oxygen and nitrogen dioxide carbon dioxide only


B oxygen and nitrogen dioxide carbon dioxide and oxygen
C nitrogen dioxide only carbon dioxide and oxygen
D nitrogen dioxide only carbon dioxide only

26 Iron from a blast furnace can be converted to steel.

Which statements about steel are correct?

1 Steel contains more carbon than the iron obtained from the blast furnace.
2 Steel is produced by blowing oxygen through the iron.
3 Calcium oxide is added to molten iron to remove basic oxides.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

27 Which metal is used to galvanise steel?

A copper
B lead
C tin
D zinc

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28 The diagram shows a stage in the purification of dirty water.

dirty water
sand
pot with holes
fine gravel in bottom

coarse gravel

Which process does this apparatus show?

A chlorination
B condensation
C distillation
D filtration

29 Which substance in polluted air damages stonework and kills trees?

A carbon dioxide
B carbon monoxide
C lead compounds
D sulfur dioxide

30 Which row explains why a high temperature and an iron catalyst are used in the manufacture of
ammonia by the Haber process?

high temperature iron catalyst

A increases the rate of the reaction increases the equilibrium yield of ammonia
B increases the rate of the reaction increases the rate of the reaction
C increases the equilibrium yield of ammonia increases the equilibrium yield of ammonia
D increases the equilibrium yield of ammonia increases the rate of the reaction

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12

31 The scheme shows four stages in the conversion of sulfur to sulfuric acid.

In which stage is a catalyst used?

stage A sulfur stage B sulfur


sulfur
air dioxide air trioxide

concentrated
stage C
sulfuric acid

concentrated stage D
oleum
sulfuric acid water

32 Which element has an oxide that is used as a food preservative?

A helium
B hydrogen
C iron
D sulfur

33 Which substance gives off carbon dioxide on heating?

A lime
B limestone
C limewater
D slaked lime

34 Which formula represents ethanol?

A CH3CH3 B CH2CH2 C CH3CH2OH D CH3COOH

35 Which statement about structural isomers is correct?

A They have the same structure but different reactivity.


B They have the same general formula but a different number of carbon atoms in their
molecules.
C They have the same structure but different relative molecular masses.
D They have different structures but the same numbers of each type of atom.

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13

36 Which formula is the same in methanol, ethanol and propanol?

A empirical formula
B general formula
C molecular formula
D structural formula

37 Ethene reacts with water under suitable conditions.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A The product of this reaction has an Mr of 46.


B The reaction produces two different products.
C The reaction occurs when ethene gas is bubbled into cold water in the presence of an acid
catalyst.
D The reaction is a redox reaction.

38 Ethanoic acid is made by reacting ethanol with acidified potassium manganate(VII).

Which type of reaction occurs when ethanol reacts with acidified potassium manganate(VII)?

A displacement
B fermentation
C oxidation
D neutralisation

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14

39 Which structure represents Terylene?

H O O O

A N C N C N C

H H

B O O O

C C O O C
C
O O O

H H O O

D N C N C N C

O H

40 The equation shows the formation of a polymer called Kevlar.

n HOOC COOH + n H 2N NH2

– H2O

O O

C C N N

H H n

Which row describes Kevlar?

how the polymer is formed type of polymer

A addition polymerisation polyamide


B addition polymerisation polyester
C condensation polymerisation polyamide
D condensation polymerisation polyester

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15

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0620/21/O/N/22

547
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2022
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/21/O/N/22
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).
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Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7173935082*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_0620_22/4RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over

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2

1 The rate of diffusion of three gases, ammonia, carbon dioxide and methane, is measured.

What is the order of the rate of diffusion of the gases from slowest to fastest?

A CO2  NH3  CH4

B CO2  CH4  NH3

C CH4  NH3  CO2

D NH3  CH4  CO2

2 Which description of Brownian motion is correct?

A random movement of particles due to bombardment by larger particles


B random movement of particles due to bombardment by smaller particles
C random movement of particles from a high concentration to a low concentration
D random movement of particles from a low concentration to a high concentration

3 The chromatogram obtained using four substances, J, K, L and M, is shown.

solvent front

baseline
J K L M

Which statement about M is correct?

A It is a mixture of J and K only.


B It is a pure substance.
C It is a mixture of J, K and L.
D It is a mixture of J, K and an unknown substance.

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4 Which statements about isotopes of the same element are correct?

1 They are atoms which have the same chemical properties because they have the
same number of electrons in their outer shell.
2 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and neutrons but
different numbers of protons.
3 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and protons but different
numbers of neutrons.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

5 Which statement about solid magnesium oxide is correct?

A It is a giant structure made up of magnesium and oxygen atoms bonded covalently.


B It is an electrical conductor with mobile magnesium ions and oxygen ions.
C Magnesium loses electrons and these electrons move freely through a lattice.
D Oxygen ions and magnesium ions are attracted to each other in a giant lattice.

6 Which molecule contains only three shared pairs of electrons?

A CH3OH B Cl 2 C H2O D N2

7 Which particles are present in the structure of metals?

1 positive ions
2 negative ions
3 shared pairs of electrons
4 mobile electrons

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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8 Caffeine is a stimulant found in coffee.

O CH3

H 3C C N
N C
C H
C C
N
O N

CH3

caffeine

Which formula represents caffeine?

A C7H10N4O2 B C8H10N3O2 C C8H10N4O2 D C8H11N4O2

9 Which sample does not contain a number of atoms equal to the Avogadro constant?

A 14 g of nitrogen, N2
B 6 g of water, H2O
C 4 g of helium, He
D 28 g of carbon monoxide, CO

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10 The electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten sodium chloride is shown.

+ –

electrode 1 + – + – electrode 2

concentrated aqueous molten


sodium chloride sodium chloride

What are the products at electrodes 1 and 2?

electrode 1 electrode 2

A chlorine chlorine
B hydrogen chlorine
C hydrogen sodium
D sodium sodium

11 When an acid is added to an alkali, the temperature of the reaction mixture rises.

Which words describe this reaction?

A decomposition and endothermic


B decomposition and exothermic
C neutralisation and endothermic
D neutralisation and exothermic

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12 Some properties of four fuels are shown.

Which fuel is a gas at room temperature and makes two products when it burns in a plentiful
supply of air?

melting point boiling point


fuel formula
/ C / C

A hydrogen H2 –259 –253


B methane CH4 –182 –164
C octane C8H18 –57 126
D wax C31H64 60 400

13 The electrical energy, or voltage, of two simple cells is measured.

V V

zinc magnesium magnesium copper

electrolyte electrolyte

cell 1 cell 2

statement 1 The voltage of cell 1 is greater than cell 2.


statement 2 Zinc is more reactive than copper.
statement 3 Magnesium is oxidised in both cells.
statement 4 Magnesium atoms lose electrons to form magnesium ions.

Which option is correct?

A All the statements are correct.


B Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
C Statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1.
D Statement 4 is correct and explains statement 3.

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14 Dilute aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using carbon electrodes.

What is the product at the anode?

A carbon dioxide
B hydrogen
C oxygen
D sodium

15 The volume of gas given off in a chemical reaction is measured over time.

The results are shown.

100
90
80
70
volume 60
of gas 50
/ cm3 40
30
20
10
0
0 2 4 6 8 10
time / s

At which time is the rate of reaction greatest?

A 0s B 4s C 6s D 10 s

16 Dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, is converted into nitrogen dioxide, NO2, in a reversible reaction.

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which conditions give the highest equilibrium yield of nitrogen dioxide?

pressure
temperature
/ atmospheres

A 2 high
B 2 low
C 50 high
D 50 low

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17 When magnesium is heated with zinc oxide a reaction occurs.

The equation is shown.

Mg + ZnO  MgO + Zn

Which substance is oxidised?

A magnesium
B magnesium oxide
C zinc
D zinc oxide

18 X and Y are oxides of two different elements.

● X reacts with water to produce aqueous solution Z.


● Z turns universal indicator paper blue.
● An aqueous solution of Y reacts with sodium carbonate to produce carbon dioxide
gas.

Which statement is correct?

A X and Y are both the oxides of metals.


B X and Y are both the oxides of non-metals.
C X is the oxide of a metal and Y is the oxide of a non-metal.
D X is the oxide of a non-metal and Y is the oxide of a metal.

19 Ethanoic acid reacts with water to produce an acidic solution.

Which row describes the roles of ethanoic acid and water in this reaction?

ethanoic acid water

A accepts a proton donates a proton


B accepts an electron donates an electron
C donates a proton accepts a proton
D donates an electron accepts an electron

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20 Copper(II) sulfate is a soluble salt.

Calcium sulfate is an insoluble salt.

Which row shows suitable reactants for preparing a pure sample of the named salt?

salt reactants

A calcium sulfate calcium carbonate + dilute sulfuric acid


B calcium sulfate aqueous calcium chloride and aqueous sodium sulfate
C copper(II) sulfate copper + dilute sulfuric acid
D copper(II) sulfate aqueous copper(II) chloride and aqueous sodium sulfate

21 Strontium displaces magnesium from molten magnesium chloride.

Bromine displaces iodine from aqueous potassium iodide.

Which row describes the change in reactivity down both Group II and Group VII of the Periodic
Table?

reactivity down the group


Group II Group VII

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

22 Elements J and K are in the same period in the Periodic Table.

J reacts with acids to produce a salt and hydrogen.

K reacts with sodium to form an ionic compound.

Which statement about J and K is correct?

A An atom of J has more electrons than an atom of K.


B J and K are both metals.
C J and K are both non-metals.
D J is to the left of K in the Periodic Table.

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23 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element has a high density, a high melting point and forms a brown oxide?

A
D
B
C

24 The reactions of four metals, W, X, Y and Z, are listed.

● Metal W displaces metal X from the oxide of metal X.


● Metal Y has a greater tendency to form positive ions than metal W.
● Aqueous ions of metal Z are reduced by metal X.

What is the order of reactivity of the metals?

least most
reactive reactive

A Y W X Z
B Y X W Z
C Z W X Y
D Z X W Y

25 Three experiments, J, K and L, are set up to investigate rusting.

J K L

water water water

mild steel painted iron stainless steel

In which experiments does rusting occur?

J K L

A key
B = yes
C = no
D

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26 Silver is below copper in the reactivity series.

Which row describes the reactions of silver?

reaction with steam reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid

A no reaction no reaction
B no reaction reacts to produce hydrogen gas
C reacts to produce hydrogen gas no reaction
D reacts to produce hydrogen gas reacts to produce hydrogen gas

27 Iron is galvanised by coating it in zinc.

Brass is made by mixing copper with zinc.

Which row gives the reasons for each of these uses of zinc?

reason for galvanising iron reason for making brass

A prevents corrosion produces a softer metal


B prevents corrosion produces a harder metal
C produces a harder metal produces a softer metal
D produces a harder metal produces a harder metal

28 The diagram shows a stage in the purification of dirty water.

dirty water
sand
pot with holes
fine gravel in bottom

coarse gravel

Which process does this apparatus show?

A chlorination
B condensation
C distillation
D filtration

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29 Which substance in polluted air damages stonework and kills trees?

A carbon dioxide
B carbon monoxide
C lead compounds
D sulfur dioxide

30 Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is a fertiliser and is added to fields to help crops grow.

Slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is an alkali and is added to fields to reduce the acidity of the soil.

Ammonium nitrate and slaked lime should not be added to a field at the same time because they
react with each other to form a gas, Z.

What is Z?

A ammonia
B hydrogen
C nitrogen
D oxygen

31 The scheme shows four stages in the conversion of sulfur to sulfuric acid.

In which stage is a catalyst used?

stage A sulfur stage B sulfur


sulfur
air dioxide air trioxide

concentrated
stage C
sulfuric acid

concentrated stage D
oleum
sulfuric acid water

32 Which element has an oxide that is used as a food preservative?

A helium
B hydrogen
C iron
D sulfur

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33 Which substance gives off carbon dioxide on heating?

A lime
B limestone
C limewater
D slaked lime

34 Which compound has the most –CH2– groups in one molecule?

A butane
B butanoic acid
C butan-1-ol
D but-1-ene

35 Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light.

Which substance is not produced in this reaction?

A B C D

H Cl

H H H Cl H C Cl H C Cl

H H

36 Ethene reacts with both hydrogen and steam.

Which row about these reactions is correct?

reactant
type of reaction catalyst used
with ethene

A hydrogen substitution phosphoric acid


B hydrogen addition nickel
C steam substitution phosphoric acid
D steam addition nickel

37 Which type of reaction occurs when ethanol is converted to ethanoic acid?

A combustion
B decomposition
C neutralisation
D oxidation

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38 Hydrolysis of polymer P produces the three compounds shown.

H N C O H H N C O H H N C O H

H O H O H O

What is the structure of polymer P?

H O H O

A N C N C N C

H O

H O H O

B N N C C N C

H O

H O H H

C N C N C N N

H O

O O H H

D C N C C N N

H O

39 Which statement about unsaturated hydrocarbons is correct?

A CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 is an unsaturated hydrocarbon.


B Ethene has more hydrogen atoms per molecule than ethane.
C Unsaturated hydrocarbons have double bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms.
D Unsaturated hydrocarbons turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown.

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40 The equation shows the formation of a polymer called Kevlar.

n HOOC COOH + n H 2N NH2

– H2O

O O

C C N N

H H n

Which row describes Kevlar?

how the polymer is formed type of polymer

A addition polymerisation polyamide


B addition polymerisation polyester
C condensation polymerisation polyamide
D condensation polymerisation polyester

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0620/22/O/N/22

563
The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2022
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/22/O/N/22
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).
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Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*9155678921*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_0620_23/4RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over

565
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2

1 Which gas diffuses the most slowly?

A CH4 B CO2 C H2 D NH3

2 The chromatogram from four different substances is shown.

Which pure substance has the largest Rf value?

A B C D

3 The structure of sodium chloride can be represented as shown.

X Y

What are X and Y?

X Y

A metal atom non-metal atom


B negative ion electron
C positive ion negative ion
D positive ion electron

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3

4 Which two particles have the same electronic structure?

A C and O2–
B F – and Na
C K+ and S2–
D Mg and Na+

5 Which statements about isotopes of the same element are correct?

1 They are atoms which have the same chemical properties because they have the
same number of electrons in their outer shell.
2 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and neutrons but
different numbers of protons.
3 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and protons but different
numbers of neutrons.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

6 What is the total number of shared electrons in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?

A 4 B 5 C 8 D 10

7 Which row about the structures and uses of diamond and graphite is correct?

structure use

A diamond has a giant covalent structure diamond is used to make electrodes


B diamond has a simple covalent structure diamond is used to make cutting tools
C graphite has a giant covalent structure graphite is used as a lubricant
D graphite has a simple covalent structure graphite is used to make cutting tools

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4

8 Caffeine is a stimulant found in coffee.

O CH3

H 3C C N
N C
C H
C C
N
O N

CH3

caffeine

Which formula represents caffeine?

A C7H10N4O2 B C8H10N3O2 C C8H10N4O2 D C8H11N4O2

9 The equation for the reaction between hydrogen sulfide, H2S, and oxygen is shown.

2H2S + 3O2  2SO2 + 2H2O

Which mass of oxygen is required to react with 5.1 g of hydrogen sulfide?

A 2.4 g B 4.8 g C 7.2 g D 14.4 g

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5

10 Which apparatus is used to plate a nickel object with silver?

A B

power power
supply supply

silver + – nickel nickel + – silver


object object

silver nitrate silver nitrate


solution solution

C D

power power
supply supply

silver + – nickel nickel + – silver


object object

nickel nitrate nickel nitrate


solution solution

11 When an acid is added to an alkali, the temperature of the reaction mixture rises.

Which words describe this reaction?

A decomposition and endothermic


B decomposition and exothermic
C neutralisation and endothermic
D neutralisation and exothermic

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12 Some properties of four fuels are shown.

Which fuel is a gas at room temperature and makes two products when it burns in a plentiful
supply of air?

melting point boiling point


fuel formula
/ C / C

A hydrogen H2 –259 –253


B methane CH4 –182 –164
C octane C8H18 –57 126
D wax C31H64 60 400

13 Dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, is converted into nitrogen dioxide, NO2, in a reversible reaction.

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which conditions give the highest equilibrium yield of nitrogen dioxide?

pressure
temperature
/ atmospheres

A 2 high
B 2 low
C 50 high
D 50 low

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14 Dilute hydrochloric acid is reacted with excess calcium carbonate and the total volume of gas is
measured at regular intervals.

The results are shown by line W on the graph.

The experiment is repeated but with one change.

The results of the second experiment are shown by line X on the graph.

volume of
X
gas collected

0
0 time

Which change is made in the second experiment?

A A catalyst is added.
B The calcium carbonate is broken into smaller pieces.
C The concentration of the dilute hydrochloric acid is increased.
D The temperature of the dilute hydrochloric acid is decreased.

15 When hydrated copper(II) sulfate is heated, it produces white copper(II) sulfate. When water is
added, the white copper(II) sulfate turns blue.

Which type of reaction is shown by these observations?

A decomposition
B displacement
C redox
D reversible

16 When magnesium is heated with zinc oxide a reaction occurs.

The equation is shown.

Mg + ZnO  MgO + Zn

Which substance is oxidised?

A magnesium
B magnesium oxide
C zinc
D zinc oxide

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17 The equation for the reaction between ethene and hydrogen is shown.

CH2=CH2(g) + H2(g)  CH3–CH3(g)

The bond energies are shown.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C=C 612
H–H 436
C–C 348
C–H 416

What is the overall energy change during this reaction?

A –284 kJ / mol
B –132 kJ / mol
C +132 kJ / mol
D +284 kJ / mol

18 Ethanoic acid reacts with water to produce an acidic solution.

Which row describes the roles of ethanoic acid and water in this reaction?

ethanoic acid water

A accepts a proton donates a proton


B accepts an electron donates an electron
C donates a proton accepts a proton
D donates an electron accepts an electron

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19 Tests are done on an aqueous solution.

a few drops of aqueous aqueous sodium hydroxide


test
sodium hydroxide are added is added in excess
precipitate dissolves to
observation white precipitate
give a colourless solution

Which cations produce these observations?

1 aluminium, Al 3+
2 calcium, Ca2+
3 zinc, Zn2+

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

20 Ammonia, NH3, dissolves in water to form a dilute solution of ammonium hydroxide, NH4OH.

The reaction is reversible and exists as an equilibrium mixture.

NH3(g) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq)

Which statement about the mixture is correct?

A All of the ammonia and water molecules have turned into ions.
B The ammonia and water molecules have stopped changing into ions.
C The concentrations of the ammonia molecules and ammonium ions are always equal.
D The rate of the formation of ammonia molecules is equal to the rate of formation of the
ammonium ions.

21 Elements E and F are in Group I of the Periodic Table.

E has a higher melting point than F.

Elements J and L are in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

J has a higher density than L.

Which elements have the highest atomic numbers in each group?

A E and J B E and L C F and J D F and L

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22 Which metal forms ions with one oxidation state?

A aluminium
B chromium
C copper
D iron

23 How does the nature of the oxides change across Period 3 from sodium to chlorine?

A basic  amphoteric  acidic

B basic  acidic  amphoteric

C amphoteric  basic  acidic

D acidic  amphoteric  basic

24 Zinc is a metal with a boiling point of 907 C.

Two methods of making zinc are shown.

heat with carbon at 1000 !C


zinc
method 1

zinc ore zinc oxide

method 2 zinc sulfate


zinc
dissolve solution electrolysis
in dilute at 35 !C
sulfuric acid

Which statement is correct?

A Carbon oxidises zinc oxide in method 1.


B Zinc vapour is produced in both methods.
C Zinc is produced at the anode in method 2.
D Zinc compounds are reduced in both methods.

25 Which statement about the reactions of metals is correct?

A Iron and carbon dioxide are produced when iron( III) oxide is heated with carbon.
B Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid producing hydrogen and chlorine.
C Potassium reacts vigorously with water producing hydrogen and an acidic solution.
D Zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid producing sulfur dioxide.

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26 12.4 g of copper(II) carbonate is heated in a test-tube. Only 50% is decomposed.

[Mr: CuCO3, 124; CuO, 80]

What will be the final mass of the substances in the test-tube?

A 9.4 g B 9.8 g C 10.2 g D 10.6 g

27 Which statement about the manufacture of ammonia is correct?

A Ammonia is manufactured by heating hydrogen and nitrogen at 50 C and 1.0 atm.


B Ammonia is obtained by heating hydrogen and nitrogen in the Contact process.
C Hydrogen for the manufacture of ammonia is extracted from air.
D The reaction between hydrogen and nitrogen to form ammonia is reversible.

28 The diagram shows a stage in the purification of dirty water.

dirty water
sand
pot with holes
fine gravel in bottom

coarse gravel

Which process does this apparatus show?

A chlorination
B condensation
C distillation
D filtration

29 Which substance in polluted air damages stonework and kills trees?

A carbon dioxide
B carbon monoxide
C lead compounds
D sulfur dioxide

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30 Petrol-fuelled cars produce oxides of nitrogen.

Which statement explains how oxides of nitrogen are formed?

A In the catalytic converter, the elements nitrogen and oxygen combine.


B Oxygen and nitrogen compounds in petrol combine in the car engine.
C The high temperatures in the engine provide oxygen and nitrogen with the activation energy
needed to react.
D In the car engine, nitrogen compounds in petrol combine with oxygen.

31 The scheme shows four stages in the conversion of sulfur to sulfuric acid.

In which stage is a catalyst used?

stage A sulfur stage B sulfur


sulfur
air dioxide air trioxide

concentrated
stage C
sulfuric acid

concentrated stage D
oleum
sulfuric acid water

32 Which element has an oxide that is used as a food preservative?

A helium
B hydrogen
C iron
D sulfur

33 Which substance gives off carbon dioxide on heating?

A lime
B limestone
C limewater
D slaked lime

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34 Which formula represents ethyl butanoate?

A CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
B CH3COOCH2CH2CH2CH3
C CH3CH2CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
D CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH2CH3

35 Methanol, CH3OH, is a member of the homologous series of alcohols.

What is the formula of the alcohol in the same homologous series which contains three carbon
atoms?

A C3H5OH B C3H6OH C C3H7OH D C3H8OH

36 Which type of compound reacts with hydrogen in an addition reaction?

A alkanes
B alkenes
C alcohols
D carboxylic acids

37 The equation for the reaction between methane and chlorine is shown.

CH4 + 4Cl 2  CCl 4 + 4HCl

Which type of reaction does methane undergo?

A substitution
B reduction
C condensation
D addition

38 Which functional groups form an amide linkage?

A H2N– and –COOH


B H2N– and H2N–
C –OH and –COOH
D –OH and H2N–

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39 The structure of propene is shown.

H H H

H C C C

H H

Which diagram represents poly(propene)?

A B C D

H H
H H H H C H H H H H C H
H H
C C C C C C
C C C C
H H H n H H n
H H n H H n

40 The equation shows the formation of a polymer called Kevlar.

n HOOC COOH + n H 2N NH2

– H2O

O O

C C N N

H H n

Which row describes Kevlar?

how the polymer is formed type of polymer

A addition polymerisation polyamide


B addition polymerisation polyester
C condensation polymerisation polyamide
D condensation polymerisation polyester

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To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0620/23/O/N/22

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The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII

© UCLES 2022
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
16

55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn

0620/23/O/N/22
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).
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