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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
i) Question paper comprises of six sections, A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions.
All questions are compulsory.
ii) Section A – question number 1-20 are MCQ’s of 1 mark each.
iii) Section B – question number 21-24 are very short answer questions of 2 marks each.
Answers should not exceed 40 words.
iv) Section C – question number 25-29 are short answer questions of 3 marks each.
Answer should not exceed 60 words.
v) Section D – question number 30-33 are long answer questions of 5 marks each.
Answer should not exceed 120 words.
vi) Section E – question number 34-36 are Case Based Questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii) Section F – question number 37 is a map based question carrying 5 marks with two parts,
37(a) from history {2 marks} and 37(b) from geography {3 marks}.
viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices have to be attempted in such
questions.
ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question
wherever necessary.
SECTION – A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS) (1 x 20 = 20)
1. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the Corn Laws?
A) Restricted the import of corn to England.
B) Allowed the import of corn to England.
C) Imposed tax on corn.
D) Abolished the sale of corn.
2. Who among the following reinterpreted the message of The Bible and formulated a view of
God and Creation that enraged the Roman Catholic Church?
A) Martin Luther B) Johanne Guttenberg
C) Marco Polo D) Menocchio
3. Why was reading manuscripts not easy in India? Choose the appropriate reason from the
following options.
A) Manuscripts were written on jute cloth which
was only found in Bengal.
B) Manuscripts were widely spread out, so could not
be purchased by all.
C) Manuscripts were fragile, expensive and awkward
to handle.
D) Manuscripts were written in Hindi and Urdu only,
making it difficult to read by majority.
4. What refers to print revolution?
A) Invention of printing press.
B) Revolt of people against printed matter.
C) Making handwritten manuscripts into accordion books and widely circulating them.
D) A shift from hand printing to mechanical printing.
5. The lower horizons of the arid soil is occupied by Kankar due to increasing ____________.
A) Calcium content B) Potash content
C) Lime, Potash and Phosphorus content D) Phosphorus content
6. Project Tiger was launched in the year _____________.
A) 1973 B) 1983 C) 1993 D) 1963
7. _________ has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates back to 11th century.
A) Delhi B) Bhopal C) Bennur D) Kolhapur
8. Consider the following statements regarding majoritarian policies followed in Sri Lanka and
identify the incorrect one from the following:
A) In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language.
B) The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants.
C) New constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
D) Government conferred regional autonomy to the Tamil majority regions in Sri Lanka.
Std. 10 (Pre-Board 2022-23) -2- SOCIAL SCIENCE
9. Which one of the following subjects come under the legislation of Centre?
A) Foreign affairs B) Agriculture C) Police D) Education
10. Consider the following statements regarding religious differences expressed in politics and
identify the correct one from the following:
A) Gandhi used to say that religion can be separated from politics.
B) Women’s movement has argued that family laws of all religions discriminate against
women. They demand government to make laws more equitable for women.
C) Human rights groups in our country have asserted that there is no need for the
government to take special steps to protect religious minorities.
D) Secular principles have nothing to do with Indian politics.
11. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?
LIST 1 LIST 2
A. Union of India Governor
B. State Lieutenant Governor
C. Municipal Corporation Mayor
D. Gram Panchayat Prime Minister
12. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as
per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): India is a federation.
Reason (R): The powers of the Union and State Governments are specified in the
Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective subjects.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
13. If a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share power,
its result would be
A) It upholds the unity of the country B) It enhances the dignity of individuals
C) It undermines the unity of the country D) It upholds the freedom of citizens
14. Read the given data and find out which state has better medical facilities?
State Infant mortality rate per 1000 live births (2016)
Haryana 33
Kerala 10
Bihar 38
18. Read the information given below and select the correct option:
Both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities. This is known as double
coincidence of wants. What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy.
Double coincidence of wants is an essential feature of:
A) Economic system B) Industrial system
C) Agricultural system D) Barter system
19. Which of the following organisation supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India?
A) Canara Bank B) State Bank of India
C) Axis Bank D) Reserve Bank of India
20. Identify the incorrect statements about MNC.
A) MNC stands for Multinational Corporations.
B) An MNC is a company that owns or controls production only within one nation.
C) MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap
labour and other resources.
D) The main objective of MNC is to maximise their profit.
SECTION – B (VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS) (2 x 4 = 8)
21. Describe any two methods employed by Europeans to recruit and retain labour in Africa.
22. Briefly explain how Indian Constitution faces the challenge of Communalism.
23. Mention the significance of Bhoodan Andolan in agricultural sector of India.
(OR)
Mention any two initiatives taken by the government to ensure an increase in agricultural
production.
24. Briefly explain any two criteria used for comparing countries or states.
SECTION – C (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS) (3 x 5 = 15)
25. Describe the views of Mahatma Gandhi on untouchability. What efforts were made by him
to get dalits their rights? (1+2)
(OR)
What was the main aim of Simon Commission? Indians greeted the Commission with ‘Simon Go
Back’ slogans. Support Indian reaction with any two arguments. (1+2)
26. “There is a pressing need for using renewable energy sources in India’’. Justify the statement.
27. How are intermediate goods and services different from final goods and services?
Explain with any one example. (2+1)
28. The actual performance of democracies shows a mixed record of their performance.
Substantiate this statement.
29. In what ways does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks?
SECTION – D (LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS) (5 x 4 = 20)
30. Explain the condition of Italy before unification.
(OR)
What was Zollverein? What were its various advantages? (1+4)
31. Discuss the factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industries in and
around Chhotanagpur Plateau.
(OR)
Mention the factors responsible for the concentration of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra
and Gujarat.
Std. 10 (Pre-Board 2022-23) -4- SOCIAL SCIENCE
32. Define Political Party. What are the Challenges to Political Parties in India? (1+4)
(OR)
Give some suggestions for reforming Political parties in India.
33. Discuss the impact of globalisation on small producers in India. Support your explanation
with an example. (3+2)
(OR)
Explain the significance of information and communication technology in globalisation.
35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Today the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and
fast-moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally
developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are
complementary to each other. Today, India is well linked with the rest of the world despite its
vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways,
newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet etc., have been contributing to its socio-
economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to
the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities
and facilities for the comforts of life. For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a
limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade
and transport expanded far and wide.
35.1 Mention two ways through which the world has been converted into a large village. (1)
35.2 Why is there a need for India to interlink with the world? (1)
35.3 How does trade strengthen the economy of a country? (2)
36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Thus, two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power sharing. Firstly, power
sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way
to ensure the stability of political order. Imposing the will of majority community over others
may look like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the unity
of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings
ruin to the majority as well.
36.1 What is the second reason for power sharing? (1)
36.2 “Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the
majority as well.” Explain with an example from the book (1)
36.3 What are the outcomes of power sharing? (2)
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