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Comprehensive Objective Physics For Iit Jee Neet Competitive Exams Volume 2 II Narinder Kumar Compress
Comprehensive Objective Physics For Iit Jee Neet Competitive Exams Volume 2 II Narinder Kumar Compress
Objective
PHYSICS
For Competitive Examinations
Volume—II
Comprehensive
Objective
PHYSICS
For Competitive Examinations
Volume—II
By
NARINDER KUMAR
M.Sc. PES (I)
Department of Physics
S.D. Govt. College
Ludhiana
&
GOLDEN BELLS
(AN IMPRINT OF LAXMI PUBLICATIONS PVT. LTD.)
l BANGALORE l CHENNAI l COCHIN l GUWAHATI l HYDERABAD
l JALANDHAR l KOLKATA l LUCKNOW l MUMBAI l RANCHI
NEW DELHI
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GBC-5009-495-OBJECTIVE PHYSICS II
C—129/06/06
PHYSICS
Volume—I
Comprehensive Objective Physics is essential for all the students preparing for various Engineering & Medical En-
trance Examinations given below and also for students preparing for other State Services Exams.
• IIT—JEE
• AIIMS
• DPMT
• BVP, Pune
• CPMT, U.P.
• JEE, Orissa
• CEE, Assam
• CEE, Kerala
• AFMC, Pune
• CMC, Vellore
• CBSE—AIEEE
• CBSE—PMT
• UPSEAT, U.P.
• PET/PMT, M.P.
• BHU, Varanasi
• CMC, Ludhiana
• CEET, Haryana
• CET, Karnataka
• MGIMS, Wardha
• JEE, West Bengal
• PET/PMT, Rajasthan
• DCE, NSIT, Delhi
• JIPMER, Pondicherry
• Aligarh Entrance Exam.
• Manipal Entrance Exam.
• GGSIP University, Delhi
• EAMCET, Andhra Pradesh
• CET/TNPCEE, Tamil Nadu
• Indian School of Mines, Dhanbad
• MLNR, Engineering Entrance Exam.
• CET/PMT, Punjab & UT Chandigarh
• Birla Institute of Technology Mesra, Ranchi
• Other State Level Competitive Examinations
List of Chapters in Volume—I and Volume—II
Volume—I
Volume—II
Unit XI ELECTROSTATICS
Unit XII CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Unit XIII MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM
Unit XIV ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
Unit XV OPTICS
Unit XVI DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS
Unit XVII ATOMIC NUCLEUS
Unit XVIII SOLIDS AND SEMICONDCUTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND
PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION
3 Practice Papers
3 Model Test Papers based on Full Syllabus
PREFACE TO THE SECOND EDITION
There is no dearth of competition books for engineering and medical entrance examinations. But there is no single
book which completely satisfies the intelligent student. The present book is a serious attempt in this direction. We have
left no stone unturned to get ‘EXTREMELY SATISFACTORY’ grade from the readers of the book.
Some salient features of the book are as under :
(i) No superfluous question. Only those questions have been included which have either been already set in different
examinations or are expected to be set.
(ii) Most systematic presentation. It is the only book in the market which has systematically categorised the study
material of each unit. The study material has been clearly demarcated in the following seven segments.
1. SYNOPSIS
2. SET I [Contains MCQs based on Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms, Important Formulae etc.]
3. SET II [Contains MCQs based on Important Basic Concepts, Application of Formulae and Brain Teasers]
4. SET III [Contains MCQs with more than one correct alternative]
5. SET IV [Contains MCQs based on Typical Numerical Bank]
6. SELF-EVALUATION TEST I [Contains Expected Questions for Forthcoming Examinations]
7. SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
In addition to the above, ‘Knowledge Plus’ has also been included at some places.
(iii) Time-saving solutions. Special techniques have been used in solving questions. These techniques have been high-
lighted at different places in the book. If the reader tries to grasp these techniques, considerable time will be saved.
The book has been divided into two volumes. The divisions are as under :
Units
Volume—I I—X
Topics included
Mathematical Tools ; Introduction, Units, Measurements and Dimension ; Description of Motion in One Dimension ;
Description of Motion in Two and Three Dimensions (Vectors ; Motion in Two and Three Dimensions) ; Laws of
Motion ; Work, Energy and Power ; Rotational Motion (Circular Motion ; Centre of Mass and Rotational Mechanics) ;
Gravitation ; Properties of Matter (Elasticity ; Fluids at Rest ; Surface Tension ; Fluids in Motion ; Kinetic Theory
of Gases) ; Heat and Thermodynamics ; Oscillations and Waves.
Units
Volume—II XI—XVIII
Topics included
Electrostatics ; Current Electricity ; Magnetic Effect of Current and Magnetism ; Electromagnetic Induction and
Alternating Current ; Optics ; Dual Nature of Matter and Radiations ; Atomic Nucleus ; Solids and Semiconductor
Devices, Electromagnetic Waves and Principles of Communication.
3 Practice Papers are designed in such a way so as to enable the students to evaluate their skills in Volume—I and
Volume—II separately.
Model Test Papers based on full syllabus are included in Volume—II for Self Assessment.
Utmost effort has been made to make this book as best as possible. But it is our firm conviction that there is always
a scope for improvement. So, we invite your suggestions for the further improvement of the book. It would be our
earnest endeavour to incorporate all good suggestions in the next edition.
—AUTHORS
CONTENTS
Unit XI ELECTROSTATICS
11. Electrostatics
Unit XV OPTICS
15. Optics Set IV : MCQs based on Typical Numerical 602
• Synopsis 429 Bank (Exclusively for Engineering
Entrance Tests)
• Question Bank with Answers/Solutions
• Self-Evaluation Test I with Answers/ 613
Set I : MCQs based on Memory Work, Hard 448 Solutions (Expected Questions for
Facts, Important Terms, Important Forthcoming Examinations)
Formulae etc.
• Self-Evaluation Test II with Answers/ 620
Set II : MCQs based on Important Basic 502
Solutions
Concepts, Application of Formulae,
Brain Teasers
Set III : MCQs with one or more than one 593
Correct Alternative
3. ________________________________ by __________________________
Names and addresses of Physics teachers under whose guidance you are preparing for the competitions :
1. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________
3. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
*Please give full address of the Coaching Institute and Physics Teacher, with telephone numbers.
Comprehensive Objective Physics—Volume—I
UNIT XI
ELECTROSTATICS
l Frictional electricity l Charges and their conservation l Coulomb’s law l Forces be-
tween two point electric charges l Forces between multiple electric charges l Superposition
principle and continuous charge distribution l Electric field and its physical significance l Electric
field due to a point charge l Electric field lines l Electric dipole l Electric field due to a
dipole and behaviour of dipole in a uniform electric field l Electric potential-Physical
meaning l Potential difference l Electric potential due to a point charge l A dipole and sys-
tem of charges l Equipotential surfaces l Electrical potential energy of a system of two point
charges and of electric dipoles in an electrostatic field l Electric flux l Statement of Gauss’s
theorem and its applications to find field due to an infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field inside and outside) l Conductors
and insulators l Presence of free charges and bound charges inside a conductor l Dielectrics
and electric polarisation l General concept of a capacitor and capacitance l Combination of
capacitors in series and in parallel l Energy stored in a capacitor l Capacitance of a parallel
plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates l Van de Graff generator.
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 10 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
ELECTROSTATICS
SYNOPSIS
1. The existence of two types of charges was discovered 13. Electric field intensity at general point due to a dipole
by Du Fay. is :
2. It was Benjamin Franklin who first assigned positive
1 p
and negative signs to the charges. E= 3 cos2 θ + 1
4 πε0 r 3
3. The fact that like charges repel each other and unlike
charges attract each other can be easily demonstrated Here, θ is the angle between the line joining the ob-
by using pith balls. servation point with the mid-point of the dipole and
4. Electric charge is additive, quantised and conserved. the axial line of the dipole.
5. According to Coulomb’s law of electrostatics, 14. Torque experienced by an electric dipole in uniform
→ → →
1 q1q2 electric field is : τ = p × E .
F=
4 πε r 2 15. The time period of angular SHM of a dipole of mo-
Here, ε = ε0εr , where the letters have usual meanings. ment of inertia I and dipole moment p in electric field
6. When a dielectric is introduced between two point E is
charges, the force between the two point charges is
reduced. I
T = 2π .
7. A material is suitable for use as dielectric if its dielec- pE
tric constant and dielectric strength has large val- 16. According to Gauss’ law in electrostatics, Electric flux,
z
ues.
→ → n
8. 1 emu of charge = c esu of charge 1
or 1 emu of charge = 3 × 1010 esu of charge.
φE =
E
E . dS =
ε0 ∑q i
i= 1
9. 1 coulomb of charge = 3 × 109 statcoulomb, 1 abcoulomb
17. Dimensional Formulae of Electric Field E and
= 10 coulomb.
Electric Flux φ
10. 1 abcoulomb = 10 coulomb.
11. Electric field intensity at a point on the axial line of [Force] [MLT −2 ]
[E] = = = [MLT–3 A–1]
the electric dipole is : [Charge] [ AT]
1 2 pr [φ] = [E] [Area] = [MLT –3 A–1] [L2]
E=
4 πε (r − l2 )2
2 = [ML3 T –3 A–1]
where p is the electric dipole moment, “2l” is the length 18. The electric field due to infinite line charge of linear
of the dipole and r is the distance of the observation 1 2λ
charge density λ is .
point from the mid-point of the dipole. 4 πε 0 r
12. Electric field intensity at a point on the equatorial 19. The electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge
line of the electric dipole is :
σ
1 p is , where σ is surface density of charge.
E= 2ε 0
4 πε (r2 + l2 )3 / 2
3
4 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
z
4 πε 0 R 2
1 λdl
V= 1 Qr
4 πε 0 l r (iii) Electric field (at r < R) =
4 πε 0 R 3
24. If the charge is distributed uniformly over an area S
and σ is the charge per unit area, then Note that E ∝ r.
V=
1
4 πε 0 z
S
σdS
r
(iv) Electric potential (at r > R) =
1 Q
4 πε0 r
25. If the charge is uniformly distributed over a volume 1 Q
V and ρ is the charge per unit volume, then (v) Electric potential (at r = R) = .
z
4 πε0 R
1 ρdV
V= . 34. Charged Spherical Conductor of Charge Q and
4 πε 0 V r Radius R
26. Electric potential due to an electric dipole at point on 1 Q
the axial line of the dipole is : (i) Electric field (at r > R) =
4 πε 0 r 2
1 p 1 Q
V= (ii) Electric field (at r = R) =
4 πε 0 r − l2
2
4 πε 0 R2
27. Electric potential due to an electric dipole at point on (iii) Electric field (at r < R) = 0
equational line is zero. 1 Q
28. Electric potential at a general point due to dipole is : (iv) Electric potential (at r > R) =
4 πε0 r
1 p cos θ 1 Q
V= (v) Electric potential (at r = R) = .
4 πε 0 r2 4πε0 R
29. The electric lines of force and equipotential surfaces 1 Q
constitute a mutually perpendicular network. (vi) Electric potential (at r < R) =
4πε0 R
30. No work is required to be done in moving a charge
over an equipotential surface. Note that the electric potential at every point in-
31. Equipotential surfaces indicate regions of strong and side the conductor is the same as on the surface of the
weak electric fields. conductor.
32. Short dipole 35. Uniformly Charged Ring of Radius r
(i) Potential at equator is zero 1 qx
(i) Electric field at a point on the axis =
1 p 4 πε 0 (r 2 + x2 )
(ii) Electric field at a point on equator =
4 πε 0 r 3 Here x is the distance of the observation point from
the centre of the ring.
1 p
(iii) Potential at a point on axial line = (ii) Electric field at the centre of the charged ring is
4 πε 0 r 2 zero.
1 2p 1 q
(iv) Electric field at a point on axial line = . (iii) Potential at a point on the axis = .
4 πε 0 r 3 4 πε0 r + x2
2
ELECTROSTATICS 5
36. Potential at a point, inside an uniformly charged non-
conducting sphere of charge Q and radius R, at a dis-
1 Q (3R 2 − r 2 )
tance r is .
4 πε0 2 R3 +q –q
H 4πε 0 2lJK
=
4 πε0 2l
.
1 p1 p2
‘ ’.
44. Electrostatic potential energy is the product of charge 4 πε0 r3
and electrostatic potential. 49. The electric force between F
45. The electrostatic self-energy of a charged dielectric two short dipoles of dipole
moments p 1 and p 2, when ®
1 3 q2 they are mutually perpen- p1 ®
sphere of charge q and radius r is . p2
4 πε 0 5r
1 2 p1 p2
dicular, is ± .
46. Method of Electrical Images 4 πε 0 r4
F
1 q2 1 p1 p2
= Couple on p2 is . The potential energy is
4 πε0 (2l)2 4 πε0 r 3
zero.
6 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
4 3 4
Then, n × πr = πR 3
3 3
or R = n1/3 r
or C = n1/3c
Also, Q = nq
Dividing,
Q nq
= 1/3
C n c Fig. 5
or V′ = n2/3 V
Sol. The semi-circle shown in Fig. 5 is an equipo-
67. SPLITTING A DROP OF CHARGE Q AND
tential line. So, VPA = VPB = VPC. Since W = QV, therefore
RADIUS R
WA = W B = W C
(i) Suppose the drop is split into n drops, each of ra-
dius r. Let q, v and c be the charge, potential and So, (c) is the right choice.
capacity respectively of each small drop. Illustration 2. In the Fig. 6, the capacitance of each
4 4 capacitor is 3 µ F. The effective capacitance between A and B
Now, n × πr 3 = πR 3
3 3 is
or n1/3 r = R
or n1/3 c = C [∵ capacity ∝ radius]
C
or c = 1/ 3
n
q Q × n1/ 3 V
(ii) Again, v = = = 2/ 3
c nC n
(iii) Let σ and σ′ represent the surface charge densi- Fig. 6
ties of the large drop and small drop respectively.
Q q (a) 3/4 µ F (b) 3 µ F
σ= 2 , σ′ = (c) 6 µ F (d) 5 µ F.
4 πR 4 πr 2
σ Q 4 πr 2 nq × r 2 nr 2 [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
= × = 2 = 2 / 3 2 = n1/3
σ ′ 4 πR 2
q R ×q n r Sol. The equivalent circuit of the given circuit is :
σ
or σ′ = 1/3
n
(iv) Let E and E′ represent the electric fields of the
large drop and small drop respectively.
σ σ′
Then, E= and E′ =
ε0 ε0
E′ σ ′ ε 0
Now, = × Fig. 7
E ε0 σ
Capacity of lower branch is
σ′ σ 1
= = =
σ n1/3 σ n1/3 6×3 18
µF i.e., µF or 2 µF
E 6+3 9
or E′ = 1/3
n
Effective capacity between A and B
ILLUSTRATIONS = (3 + 2) µF = 5 µF
Illustration 1. Consider the situation of Fig. 5. The So, (d) is the right choice.
work done in taking a point charge Q from P to A is WA,
from P to B is WB and from P to C is WC. Illustration 3. The variation of electric field with
(a) WA < WB < WC (b) WA > WB > WC distance x from the centre of a uniformly charged dielectric
sphere of radius “a” is given by
(c) WA = WB = WC (d) WA ≥ WB < WC .
8 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
E E closed loop. So, (b) and (d) are ruled out. Again, like charges
repel.
So, (c) is the correct choice.
Illustration 5. In P
Fig. 10 are shown three
d
parallel plates, each of area
A ; the separations are Q d
a a
x x
equal and of magnitude d.
(A) (B)
With the outer plates Wire
E
shortcircuited, the capaci-
Fig. 10
tance between P and Q is
(a) ε0 A/d (b) ε0 A/(2d)
(c) 2ε0 A/d (d) 2πε0 A/d.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996]
Sol. The given arrangement is equivalent to a paral-
a x a x lel combination of two capacitors.
(C) (D)
So, (c) is the right choice.
Illustration 6. Consider q
Fig. 8
+ –
the situation shown in the Fig. 11.
(a) [A] (b) [B] + –
The capacitor A has a charge q
(c) [C] (d) [D]. on it whereas B is uncharged. The + – S
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997] charge appearing on the capaci- + –
Sol. Inside the sphere, E varies linearly with distance tor B a long time after the switch A B
from the centre, outside inversely as square of this distance. is closed, is Fig. 11
So, (a) is the right choice. (a) zero (b) q/2
Illustration 4. Three positive charges of equal value (c) q (d) 2q.
q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The [IIT Screening 2001]
resulting lines of force should be sketched as in Sol. Conditions for flow of charge are not suitable.
Negative charge is bound charge.
So, (a) is the right choice.
Illustration 7. In the cir- V1 V2
cuit of Fig. 12, the steady state
voltages V 1 and V2 are respec-
tively : 3 mF 2 mF
(a) 12 V, 18 V
(b) 18 V, 12 V 30 V
(c) 15 V, 15 V Fig. 12
(d) 30 V, 30 V.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996]
Sol. C1V1 = C2V2
2 V2
or 3V1 = 2V2 or V1 =
3
Now, V1 + V2 = 30
Fig. 9 2 V2
+ V2 = 30
[IIT Screening 2001] 3
Sol. In (a), electric lines of force end on positive charge. 90
So, (a) is ruled out. In (b) and (d), electric lines of force form or V2 = volt = 18 V
5
ELECTROSTATICS 9
Fig. 14 N Q
mg 2ε 0 + T sin
+
qE
or σα tan θ mg
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1994]
So, (a) is the right choice. Fig. 16
Sol. Charge on 4 µF distributed over 6 µF.
So, (b) is the right choice.
Illustration 10. Two metal spheres of capacitances
C1 and C2 carry some charges. They are put in contact
10 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
COULOMB’S LAW & ELECTRIC FIELD 7. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform
→ → →
electric field E , with p parallel to E . It is then rotated
1. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be by an angle θ. The work done is
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (a) pE sin θ (b) pE cos θ
(c) 0.2 (d) 5. (c) pE(1 – cos θ) (d) pE(1 – sin θ).
2. The dielectric constant K of an insulator cannot be [Kerala PMT 1999]
(a) 2 (b) 10
8. A cube of side ‘b’ has charge ‘q’ at each of its vertices.
(c) 5 (d) ∞. The electric field at the centre of the cube will be
3. If F is the force between two point charges submerged
q q
in a medium of dielectric constant K , then on with- (a) (b)
drawing the medium, the force between the charges b2 2b2
becomes 32 q
(c) (d) Zero.
(a) F √K (b) FK b2
F F [Karnataka CET 2000]
(c) (d) . [Pb. PMT 2002]
K K
9. An electric field can deflect
4. With a rise in temperature, the dielectric constant K
(a) X-rays (b) neutrons
of a liquid
(c) α-particles (d) γ-rays.
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) constant (d) none of these. 10. Who of the following was the first to measure force
5. A solid non-conducting sphere of radius R has elec- between charged bodies ?
tric charge uniformly distributed throughout its vol- (a) Franklin (b) Miletus
ume. The electric field at distance r (r < R) from the (c) Newton (d) Coulomb.
centre varies as 11. The SI unit of electric field strength is ......
1 (a) N C –1 (b) coulomb
(a) r (b)
r
(c) abcoulomb (d) newton.
1
(c) (d) 1 . [TNPCEE 2001] 12. Three small spheres, each carrying a positive charge
r2 r3
6. Two identical metal balls with charges + 2Q and – Q Q, are placed on the circumference of a circle of ra-
are separated by some distance, and exert a force F dius ‘r’ to form an equilateral triangle. The electric
on each other. They are joined by a conducting wire, field intensity at the centre of the circle will be
which is then removed. The force between them will 3Q 3Q
(a) (b)
now be r r2
(a) F (b) F/2 Q
(c) (d) zero. [EAMCET 1983]
(c) F/4 (d) F/8. 2 r2
[Haryana PMT 2002]
ELECTROSTATICS 11
13. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q2 q q2 q
(c) + 3 sin θ (d) + 3 cos θ.
q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uni- b2 a 2 b2 a 2
form electric field E. If its dipole moment is along [AIEEE 2003]
the direction of the field, the force on it and its po-
18. Two identical conducting balls having positive
tential energy are respectively
charges q1 and q2 are separated by a distance r. If
(a) q . E and p . E they are made to touch each other and then sepa-
(b) zero and minimum rated to the same distance, the force between them
(c) q . E and maximum will be
(d) 2q . E and minimum. [All India PM/PD 2004] (a) less than before (b) same as before
14. In the basic Cs Cl crystal Cs
+
Cs
+ (c) more than before (d) zero.
structure, Cs + and Cl – ions + [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
+ Cs
are arranged in a bcc configu- Cs – a
19. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric
Cl
ration as shown in Fig. 17. Cs
+
Cs
+
field experiences
The net electrostatic force ex- Cs
+ a (a) Both, a torque and a net force.
+
erted by the eight Cs+ ions on a Cs
(b) Only a force but no torque.
the Cl– ion is : Fig. 17
(c) Only a torque but no net force.
1 4 e2 1 16 e2 (d) No torque and no net force. [AIIMS 2003]
(a) (b)
4 π ∈o 3a2 4 π ∈o 3 a2
20. A charged oil drop is suspended in a uniform field of
1 32 e2 3 × 10 4 V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The
(c) (d) Zero. [AIIMS 2004]
4 π ∈o 3 a2 charge on the drop will be (Take the mass of the charge
15. The magnitude of electric intensity E is such that an = 9.9 × 10–15 kg and g = 10 m/s 2)
electron placed in it would experience an electrical (a) 1.6 × 10–18 C (b) 3.2 × 10–18 C
force equal to its weight. E is given by (c) 3.3 × 10–18 C (d) 4.8 × 10–18 C.
e [AIEEE 2004]
(a) mge (b)
mg 21. An electric dipole is placed in an uniform electric field
→ →
mg 2 E such that the dipole moment p makes an angle
e g
(c) (d) . [CPMT 1995] →
e m2 β (≠ 0) with E . The force and torque acting on the
16. Three charges are placed A +Q dipole are respectively given by
at the vertices of an equi- → → →→ → →
(a) 0, p × E (b) p. E, p × E
lateral triangle of side ‘a’
→ → → → → →
as shown in Fig. 18. The (c) p × E, 0 (d) p × E, E × p .
force experienced by the 22. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric
charge placed at the ver- –Q +Q field will experience
a
tex A in a direction normal B C
(a) only a force (b) only a torque
to BC is : Fig. 18
(c) both force and torque (d) neither force nor torque.
(a) Q2/(4π∈0a2) (b) – Q2(4π∈0a2)
23. An electric line of force is leaving a charged spheri-
(c) zero (d) Q2/(2π∈0a2) cal conductor. What is the angle between the surface
[AIIMS 2003] and the electric line of force ?
17. Three charges – q1, + q2 y (a) 0° (b) 30°
– q3
and – q 3 are placed as (c) 45° (d) 90°. [Bihar PMT 1999]
shown in Fig. 19. The x- 24. A large isolated metal sphere of radius r carries a
component of the force on a
fixed charge. A small charge is placed at a distance d
– q1 is proportional to q
from its surface. It experiences a force which is
q q b (a) independent of r and d
(a) 2 − 3 sin θ
b2 a 2 – q1 + q2 x (b) proportional to r2 + d2
q q Fig. 19 (c) proportional to r2
(b) 2 − 3 cos θ
b2 a 2 (d) inversely proportional to (r + d)2.
12 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
→
33. Which of the following is a sure test of electrification ?
25. A dipole of electric dipole moment p is placed in a
→ (a) attraction (b) repulsion
uniform electric field of strength E . If θ is the angle (c) induction (d) friction.
→ →
between positive directions of p and E, then the 34. The angle between electric dipole moment and the
potential energy of the electric dipole is largest when electric field strength due to it on the axial line is :
θ is (a) 0° (b) 90°
(a) zero (b) π /2 (c) 180° (d) None of these.
(c) π (d) π /4. [Pb. PMT 1995]
26. Two plates are 1 cm apart and the potential differ- 35. A positive point charge Q is brought near an isolated
ence between them is 10 volt. The electric field be- metal cube. Which of the following is correct ?
tween the plates is (a) The cube becomes negatively charged
(a) 10 N C–1 (b) 500 N C–1 (b) The cube becomes positively charged
(c) 1000 N C–1 (d) 250 N C–1. (c) The interior becomes positively charged and the surface
becomes negatively charged
27. A charged particle moves with a speed v in a circular
path of radius R around a long uniformly charged (d) The interior remains charge free and the surface gets
non-uniform charge distribution.
conductor
1 [Haryana PMT 1997]
(a) v ∝ R (b) v ∝
R 36. A simple pendulum of time period T is suspended
1 above a large horizontal metal sheet with uniformly
(c) v ∝ (d) v is independent of R.
R distributed positive charge. If the bob is given some
28. A spherical charged conductor has surface density σ negative charge, its time period of oscillation will be
of charge. The electric field on its surface is E. If the (a) > T (b) < T
radius of the sphere is doubled keeping the surface (c) T (d) proportional to its amplitude.
density of charge unchanged, then the electric field [AIIMS 1994]
on the surface of the new sphere will be 37. Charge Q is divided into two parts which are then
(a) E/4 (b) E/2
kept some distance apart. The force between them
will be maximum if the two parts are
(c) E (d) 4 E. [Pb. PMT 1998] (a) Q/2 each (b) Q/4 and 3Q/4
29. A cube of side 5 cm has a charge of 6 C. The surface (c) Q/3 and 2Q/3
density of charge is (d) e and (Q – e), where e = electronic charge.
(a) 100 C m–2 (b) 200 C m–2 [AFMC 1999]
(c) 300 C m–2 (d) 400 C m–2. 38. An electric charge residing on a body produces
30. A positively charged ball hangs from a silk thread. (a) an electric field only (b) a magnetic field only
We put a positive test charge q0 at a point and meas- (c) both electric and magnetic field
ure F/q0. Now, can be predicted that the electric field (d) neither electric nor magnetic field.
strength E 39. Lightning conductor
(a) > F/q0 (b) < F/q0 (a) conducts the charge to the Earth
(b) repels the charge on clouds
(c) = F/q0 (d) cannot be estimated.
(c) removes the clouds
[CPMT 1989] (d) none of the above.
31. If the gold leaves of an electroscope diverge still apart 40. A hollow sphere of charge does not produce an elec-
when a test body is brought near it, then the test tric field at any
body has (a) interior point (b) outer point
(a) a small amount of charge (c) point beyond 2 metre (d) point beyond 10 metre.
(b) no charge [MNR 1985]
(c) a charge of the same nature as already on the leaves 41. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform
(d) a charge of the opposite nature as already on the leaves. surface charge density is
32. The dielectric constant of a metal is (a) zero (b) outer point
(a) zero (b) one (c) directly proportional to the distance
(c) K (d) + ∞. (d) none of the above. [CMC LDH 1993]
ELECTROSTATICS 13
42. A positively charged glass rod is brought near the (a) The particle will not move at all
disc of uncharged gold leaf electroscope. The leaves (b) The particle will move along the straight line
diverge. Which of the following statements is correct ? (c) The particle would move along the circular line of force
(a) No charge is present on the leaves (d) Given data is not sufficient to arrive at any conclusion.
(b) Positive charge is induced on the leaves [AFMC 1998]
(c) Negative charge is induced on the leaves
49. ‘All charge on a conductor must reside only on its
(d) Positive charge is induced on one leave and negative on outer surface’. This statement is true
the other.
(a) in all cases
1
43. Two charges of 1 nC and 4 nC are placed m apart. (b) for only solid and hollow spherical conductors
2
The ratio of the Coulomb forces experienced by the (c) for hollow spherical conductors only
two charges is (d) for conductors which do not have any sharp points.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 9 →
(c) 9 : 1 (d) 1 : 81.
50. Charge Q is given a displacement r = ai + bj in an
→
44. Two charges q1 and q2 separated by a dielectric of electric field E = E i + E j . The work done is
1 2
dielectric constant 4 repel each other with a force of
(a) Q(E1a + E2b) (b) Q (E1a) 2 + (E2b) 2
10 N. Another charge q3 is placed between q1 and q2
1 2 2 2 2
(c) Q(E1 + E2 ) a2 + b2 (d) Q (E1 + E2 ) a +b .
such that the distance of q3 from q1 is times the
4
[BHU 1994]
distance of q3 from q2 . Now, the force of repulsion
between q1 and q2 is 51. An uncharged metal object M is insulated from its
(a) 10 N (b) 10 q1 surroundings. A positively charged metal sphere S
is then brought near to M. Which diagram best illus-
4 q2 10 q1
(c) × 10N (d) . [AMU 1993] trates the resultant distributions of charge on S and
q1 q2 M?
45. When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral
metal plate, the electric charge on it is (coulomb)
(a) 10+19 (b) + 1.6
(c) – 1.6 (d) 10–19.
[Karnataka CET 1999]
46. Two charged spherical conductors, each of radius R,
are at a distance r from each other. The charge on
the first is + q and on the second is – q. If r > 2R,
then the force of attraction is numerically
1 q2 1 q2
(a) equal to (b) more than
4 πε 0 r 2 4 πε 0 r 2
1 q2
(c) less than
4 πε 0 r 2
r
(d) more or less depending upon .
R
→
47. An electron moves with velocity v in x-direction. An
electric field acts on it in y-direction. The force on
the electron acts in
(a) + ve direction of Y-axis (b) – ve direction of Y-axis
(c) + ve direction of Z-axis (d) – ve direction of Z-axis.
48. An electric line of force in xy plane is given by x2 + y2
= 1. A unit positive charge, initially at rest, at the
Fig. 20
point x = 1, y = 0 in the xy plane, is released.
14 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
52. A positive charge and a negative charge of equal (c) Their accelerations will be equal.
magnitude are placed at a short distance apart. (d) The magnitudes of their accelerations will be equal.
Which diagram best represents the associated electric [WB JEE 1999]
field ? 58. Proton is nearly 1836 times more massive than the
electron. The Coulomb force of repulsion between two
protons separated by a finite distance is F. The elec-
trostatic force between two electrons separated by
+ – + – the same distance is
F
(a) F (b)
1837
1837
(c) 1837 F (d) F. [BHU 2002]
( a) (b) 4
59. A thin metallic spherical shell carries a charge Q on
it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of the shell
and another charge q1 is placed outside it as shown
+ – + – in Fig. 22. All the three charges are positive.
(c) (d)
Fig. 21
55. A million electron are added to a pith ball. Its charge (c) remains the same (d) become zero.
is [Bharati Vidyapeeth 1997]
(a) – 1.6 × 10 –12 coulomb (b) – 1.6 × 10 –13 coulomb 61. Which of the following graphs represents the rela-
(c) – 1.6 × 10 –18 coulomb (d) – 1.6 × 10 coulomb. tionship between the force F between two point charges
56. A charge is uniformly distributed over a large iron and the distance r between them ?
plate. The electric field at a point close to the centre Y Y
of the plate is 40 Vm–1. If the iron plate is replaced by
a copper plate of the same geometrical dimensions
and carrying the same charge, then the electric field
at the same point will be :
(a) 1 Vm–1 (b) 10 Vm–1
F F
(c) 40 Vm–1 (d) 80 Vm–1. [BHU 1996]
57. A proton and an electron are placed in a uniform
electric field. Which of the following is correct ? O r X O r X
(a) The electric forces acting on them will be equal. (a) (b)
(b) The magnitudes of the forces will be equal.
ELECTROSTATICS 15
Y Y (a) 3 F (b) 2 F
ELECTRIC POTENTIAL q q
(a) (b)
ε0 6ε 0
ELECTRIC FLUX & GAUSS’S LAW
71. An electron travelling in a region of electrostatic q q
(c) (d) .
potential V1 passes into a region of higher potential ε0 l2 4π ε0 l2
V2 . Then the change in its kinetic energy is propor- [TNP CEE 2002]
tional to
78. There is 40 units of positive charge at the centre of a
(a) (V2 – V1)1/2 (b) (V2 – V1)
circle of radius 10 m. The work done in moving 4
(c) (V2 – V1)2 (d) (V2 – V1)/V1. unit of charge around the circle once is
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005] (a) Zero (b) 40 units
→
72. If electric intensity E is along the X-axis, then the (c) 400 units (d) 4 unit.
equipotential surfaces are parallel to 79. Fig. 26 shows a distribution S
(a) XOY plane (b) XOZ plane of charges. The flux of elec-
tric field due to these +q –q
(c) YOZ plane (d) None of these.
charges through the surface
[AIIMS 2002] S is
+q
73. As per Fig. 25, a point charge y (a) 3q/∈o (b) 2q/∈o
+ q is placed at the origin O. (c) q/∈o (d) zero. Fig. 26
A
Work done in taking another [AIIMS 2003]
point charge – Q from the point 80. Equipotential surfaces associated with an electric field
A [Co-ordinates (0, a)] to an- which is increasing in magnitude along the x-direc-
other point B [co-ordinates (a, x
tion are:
O
0) along the straight path AB B (a) Planes parallel to yz-plane.
is : Fig. 25 (b) Planes parallel to xy-plane.
F − qQ 1 I F qQ 1 I (c) Planes parallel to xz-plane.
(a) GH 4π ∈0 a2 JK 2a (b) GH 4π ∈0 a2 JK 2a
(d) Coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around the x-axis.
F qQ 1 I
(c) G
a
[AIIMS 2004]
H 4π ∈0 a2 JK 2
(d) Zero. 81. A charge q is placed at the centre of
[All India PM/PD 2005] the open end of a cylindrical vessel
(Fig. 27). The flux of the electric field
74. The ratio of electric potential due to an electric di-
through the surface of the vessel is
pole in the end-on position to that in the broad side-
(a) zero (b) q/ε0 Fig. 27
on position for the same distance from it, is
(a) ∞ (b) 2 (c) q/2ε0 (d) 2q/ε0 . [RPMT 1997]
(c) 1 (d) zero. [AIIMS 2001] 82. An electron which is initially at rest is accelerated
through a potential difference of one volt. The en-
75. A closed surface encloses an electric dipole. The total
ergy acquired by the electron is
normal electric induction over this closed surface is
(a) 10 –19 J (b) 1.6 × 10 –19 erg
q q
(a) − (b) (c) 1.6 × 10 –19 J (d) zero.
ε0 ε0
83. A charge of 10 coulomb is moved along an equipoten-
q−q q+q
(c) (d) . [AFMC 1993] tial surface having a potential of 2 volt. The work
ε0 ε0
done is
76. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
(a) 10 Joule (b) zero
surface respectively is φ1 and φ2 , the electric charge
inside the surface will be (c) 2 joule (d) 20 joule.
(a) (φ1 + φ2)ε0 (b) (φ2 – φ1)ε0 84. Which of the following is equivalent to SI unit of
(c) (φ1 + φ2)/ε0 (d) (φ2 – φ1)/ε0 . [AIEEE 2003] potential ?
77. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube (a) N m C–1 (b) N2 m C–1
of side l. The electric flux through one of its faces will (c) N3 m C –2 (d) N m.
be
ELECTROSTATICS 17
85. A sphere is constructed around a positive point charge 93. S1 and S2 are two equipotential surfaces on which
q. The work done in moving a unit positive charge the potentials are not equal. Which of the following
on this sphere is numerically equal to is incorrect ?
(a) capacity of sphere (b) potential of sphere (a) S1 and S2 cannot intersect.
(c) infinity (d) zero. (b) S1 and S2 cannot both be plane surfaces.
86. Two copper spheres of the same radii, one hollow (c) In the region between S1 and S2, the field is maximum
and the other solid, are charged to the same poten- where they are closest to each other.
tial. Which of the two will hold more charge ? (d) A line of force from S1 to S2 must be perpendicular to both.
(a) A (b) B [BHU 2002]
(c) Solid sphere cannot hold any charge 94. In bringing an electron towards the second electron,
(d) Both the spheres will hold the same charge. the electrostatic potential energy of the system
87. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nu- (a) increases (b) decreases
cleus (Z = 50) of radius 9.0 × 10 –15 m is (c) remains the same (d) becomes zero.
(a) 9 V (b) 9 × 105 V 95. A tin nucleus has charge + 50e. If the proton is at
(c) 8 × 106 V (d) 80 V. a distance 10 –12 m from the nucleus, then the
88. An external agency carries ‘–5 C’ of charge from in- potential V at this position is [charge on the proton
finity to a point in an electrostatic field and performs = 1.6 × 10–19C]
100 joule of work. The potential at the given point is (a) 14.4 × 104 volt (b) 7.2 × 104 volt
(a) 10 V (b) – 10 V (c) 7.2 × 108 volt (d) 14.4 × 108 volt.
(c) 20 V (d) – 20 V. [AFMC 1991]
89. The tangent at any point of an equipotential surface 96. Relation between E and V is
makes an angle θ with the electric intensity vector at →
dV
that point such that (a) E = − (b) E = − K × V
dr
z
(a) θ = 0° (b) θ = 90°
→ → → →
(c) θ = 120° (d) θ = 180°. (c) V 2 = − E. dl (d) V = − E × dl.
90. The electric potential at a point on the axis of an
electric dipole depends on the distance x of the point 97. Earth’s surface is considered to be at
from the mid-point of the dipole as (a) zero potential (b) negative potential
1 1 (c) infinite potential (d) positive potential.
(a) ∝ (b) ∝
x2 x3 98. A charge Q is placed at the mouth of a conical flask.
1 1 The flux of the electric field through the flask is
(c) ∝ 4 (d) ∝ 3 / 2 .
x x Q
(a) zero (b)
ε0
91. Two small spheres, each carrying a charge q, are
Q Q
placed R metre apart. If one of the spheres is taken (c) (d) < .
2ε0 2ε 0
around the other one in a circular path, then the
work done will be equal to [CMC LDH 2002]
(a) Force between them × R 99. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 are given
the same charge. The ratio of their potentials will be
(b) Force between them/2nR
r r
(c) Force between them × 2nR (a) 2 (b) 1
r1 r2
(d) Zero.
r1 r2
(c) (d) .
92. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a 1 + r2 1 + r1
uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis. 100. In a region with uniform electric field, the number of
The total flux for the curved surface of the cylinder lines of force per unit area is E. If a spherical metallic
is given by conductor is placed in this region, the number of lines
(a) 2πR2E (b) πR2LE2 of force per unit area inside the conductor will be
πR 2 + πR 2 (a) E (b) more than E
(c) (d) zero.
EL (c) less than E (d) zero.
18 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
→
101. An electric dipole of dipole moment p placed in uni- (a) charge potential
→
form electric field E will have minimum potential (b) uncharged zero
→ →
energy if the angle between p and E is (c) uncharged negative
111. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such 118. The electric flux through a hemisphere of radius R,
that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The poten- placed in an uniform electric field of intensity E par-
tial at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere allel to the axis of its circular plane is
is (a) 2π R E (b) 2π R2 E
(a) zero (b) 10 V 4
(c) π R2 E (d) π R3 E.
(c) 4 V (d) 10/3 V. [MP PMT 1996] 3
[Himachal PMT 2002]
112. Two conducting spheres of radii R 1 and R 2 are
charged with charges Q1 and Q 2 respectively. On 119. Two identical rings, each of radius r, are co-axially
bringing them in contact, there is placed. The distance between their centres is r. Same
(a) no change in the energy of the system charge Q is placed on each ring. The work done in
(b) an increase in the energy of the system if Q1R2 ≠ Q2R1
moving a test charge from the centre of one ring to
that of the other is
(c) always a decrease in energy of the system
(d) a decrease in energy of the system if Q1R2 ≠ Q2R1 1 2 q0 Q
(a) . (b) zero
[MP PMT 2001] 4 π ε0 r
138. Three capacitors of capacities C1 , C2 , C3 are con- 144. The internal and external radii of a cylindrical con-
nected in series. Their total capacity will be denser are both doubled. Its capacity will be
(a) C1 + C2 + C3 (b) 1/(C1 + C2 + C3) (a) reduced to zero (b) reduced to half
(c) doubled (d) unchanged.
(c) (C−11 + C2−1 + C3−1) −1 (d) None of these.
[AIIMS 1996]
[All India PM/PD 1997]
→
145. A capacitor which has a capacitance of 1 farad will
139. The magnitude of electric field E in the annular region (a) be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1 ampere
of a charged cylindrical capacitor (b) store 1 coulomb of charge at a potential difference of 1 volt
(a) is same throughout. (c) gain 1 joule of energy when 1 coulomb of charge is stored
(b) is higher near the outer cylinder than near the inner on it
cylinder. (d) discharge in 1 second when connected across a resistor of
(c) varies as 1/r where r is the distance from the axis. resistance 1 ohm. [Haryana PMT 1998]
(d) varies as 1/r 3 where r is the distance from the axis. 146. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C,
[IIT 1996] carrying charge Q with potential difference V between
140. In the circuit C its plates, may be obtained by calculating the area
shown, the under an appropriate graph. Which graph shows the
equivalent ca- correct relationship between a pair of the quantities
pacitance be- C, Q and V, and in addition shows a shaded area
tween the points P which corresponds to the energy stored in the ca-
Q
P and Q is C C C pacitor ?
(a) C/5 V C
(b) C/3
C
(c) C/2 Fig. 32
(d) C. [BHU 1997]
141. In a parallel-plate capacitor, the region between the
plates is completely filled by a dielectric slab. The
capacitor is charged from a battery and then discon-
nected from it. The dielectric slab is now taken out.
Q Q
Which of the following is correct ? (a ) (b)
(a) The potential difference across the capacitor is reduced. C C
(b) The potential difference across the capacitor is increased.
(c) The energy stored in the capacitor is reduced.
(d) No work is done by an external agent in taking the slab
out. [EAMCET 2002]
142. A parallel-plate capacitor is charged from a battery
and then disconnected from it. The separation between
the plates is now doubled. Which of the following is 1/V V
false ? (c) (d)
(a) The potential difference between the plates will be dou- Fig. 33
bled.
147. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K = 5 is cov-
(b) The electric field between the plates of the capacitor will
not change. ered from all sides with a metallic foil. This system
(c) The energy of the capacitor doubles. is introduced into the space of a parallel plate capaci-
(d) Some work will have to be done by an external agency tor of capacitance of 10 pF. The slab fills almost the
in pulling apart the plates. entire space between the plates, but does not touch
(e) None of the above. the plates. The capacitance will become nearly
143. The capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius r (a) infinity (b) zero
is proportional to (c) 2 pF (d) 50 pF.
(a) r2 (b) r
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991]
(c) 1/r (d) 1/r3.
22 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
148. What is the area of the plates of a 3 F parallel plate 156. A parallel plate capacitor has circular plates of 0.08
capacitor, if the separation between the plates is m radius and 1.0 × 10 –3 m separation. If a potential
5 mm ? difference of 100 volt is applied, the charge will be
(a) 1.7 × 109 m2 (b) 4.5 × 109 m2 (a) 4.8 × 10–10 C (b) 1.8 × 10–8 C
(c) 9.3 × 109 m2 (d) 12.9 × 109 m2. (c) 11.8 × 10–20 C (d) 0 C. [Dhanbad 1994]
149. In a charged capacitor, the energy is stored in 157. When a slab of dielectric material is introduced be-
(a) the electric field between the plates tween the parallel plates of a capacitor which remains
(b) the edges of the capacitor plates connected to a battery, then charge on plates relative
(c) positive charges to earlier charge
(d) both in positive and negative charges. (a) is less
[Karnataka CET 2000] (b) is same
150. The capacity of a metallic sphere of radius 90 cm is (c) is more
(a) 10.9 F (b) 10.9 µF (d) may be less or more depending on the nature of the mate-
(c) 100 pF (d) 190 pF. rial introduced.
151. Three identical capacitors are combined differently. 158. A capacitor with air as the dielectric is charged to a
For the same voltage to each combination, the one potential of 100 volt. If the space between the plates
that stores the greatest energy is is now filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant
(a) Two in parallel and the third in series with it 10, the potential difference between the plates will be
(b) Three in series (c) Three in parallel (a) 1000 V (b) 100 V
(d) Two in series and third in parallel with it. (c) 10 V (d) 0 V. [AFMC 2002]
[MANIPAL 1999] 159. Two capacitors, each of capacity 2 µ F, are connected
152. Two capacitors of equal capacity are first connected in parallel. This system is connected in series with a
in parallel and then in series. The ratio of the total third capacitor of 12 µ F capacity. The equivalent ca-
capacities in the two cases will be pacity of the system will be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (a) 16 µF (b) 13 µF
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4. (c) 4 µF [MP PET 1990]
(d) 3 µF.
153. If E be the electric intensity of an electrostatic field, 160. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 5 µ F.
then the electrostatic energy density is proportional When a glass plate is placed between the plates of the
to 1
(a) E (b) E2 conductor, its potential becomes th of the original
8
(c) 1/E2 (d) E3. value. The value of dielectric constant will be
[Pb. PMT 2000] (a) 1.6 (b) 5
154. The capacitance of a metallic sphere will be 1 µF, if (c) 8 (d) 40.
its radius is nearly 161. The expression for the capacity of the capacitor formed
(a) 9 km (b) 10 m by compound dielectric placed between the plates of
(c) 1.11 m (d) 1.11 cm. a parallel plate capacitor as shown in Fig. 35 will be
155. Three equal capacitors, each with capacitance C, are (area of plate = A)
connected as shown in Fig. 34. Then the equivalent
cpacitance between A and B is
Fig. 34
(a) C (b) 3C
C 3C
(c) (d) . [CMC LDH 1999] Fig. 35
3 2
ELECTROSTATICS 23
ε0A ε0 A 10 mF 10 mF
(a)
FG d1 + d2 + d3 IJ (b)
FG d1 + d2 + d3 IJ
H K 1 K2 K3 K H K 1 + K 2 + K3 K 5 mF
F AK 1 + AK 2 + AK 3 I .
C
ε A(K 1K 2K 3 )
(d) ε 0 G
(c) 0
H d1 d2 d3 JK
A B
d1d2 d3
[MP PET 1996] 10 mF
162. In Fig. 36, capacitor C1 is first charged to a potential
Fig. 37
V so that it stores an energy E0 . It is then discon-
nected from battery and connected to C2 by closing (a) 1500 V (b) 1000 V
the switch S. The two capacitors now store energies (c) 500 V (d) 400 V.
E1 and E2 respectively. Which of the following rela- 166. Minimum number of capacitors of 2 µ F capacitance
tions is correct ? each required to obtain a capacitor of 5 µF will be
(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six. [BHU 1999]
167. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 12 pF. If
the area of both the plates is doubled and the dis-
tance between them is reduced to half, the capacity
of the condenser will be
Fig. 36
(a) 124 pF (b) 48 pF
(a) E0 = E1 + E2 (c) 196 pF (d) 136 pF.
(b) E0 > E1 + E2
[Manipal 2000]
(c) E0 < E1 + E2
168. Five capacitors of 10 µ F capacity each are connected
(d) Law of energy conservation fails in this system.
to a dc potential of 100 volt as shown in Fig. 38. The
[WB JEE 2002]
equivalent capacitance between the points A and B
163. Two capacitors of capacities C1 and C2 are connected will be equal to
in series and potential difference V is applied across (a) 40 µF (b) 20 µF
the combination. Then the potential difference across (c) 30 µF (d) 10 µF.
C1 will be
C2 C1 + C2
(a) V (b) V
C1 C1
C2 C1
(c) V (d) V .
C1 + C2 C1 + C2
164. Two condensers of capacities C and 2C are connected
in parallel and then connected in series with a third
condenser of capacity 3C. The combination is charged
with V volt. The charge on condenser of capacity C is
(in coulomb)
1 Fig. 38
(a) CV (b) CV
2 169. The equivalent capacity between the points A and B
3 in the following Fig. 39 will be
(c) 2 CV (d) CV.
2
[Haryana PMT 1999]
3 µF 3 µF 13 µF
165. In the given circuit, if point C is connected to the
Earth and a potential of + 2000 V is given to the A B
point A, then the potential at B is
Fig. 39
24 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 19 µF (b) 11 µF
(c) 14.5 µF (d) 16 µF. 174. Fig. 42 represents the electric
field between two metal plates.
170. Which one of the following methods will reduce the Which of the graphs given repre-
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor ? sents the variation of force on a
(a) Connecting another capacitor in series with this positive charge as it is moved
(b) Reducing the potential difference between the plates from point a to point b ?
(c) Introducing a dielectric slab between the plates
(d) Introducing a metal plate of suitable thickness.
Fig. 42
[AMU 2002]
171. A thin metal plate is inserted between
the plates of a parallel plate capaci-
tor of capacitance C in such a way
that its edges touch the two plates.
The capacitance now becomes
C 2C
(a) (b)
2 3
C
(c) (d) ∞.
6 Fig. 40
[AIIMS 1997]
172. A slab of copper of thickness y is inserted in between
the plates of parallel plate capacitor as shown in
Fig. 41. The separation between the plates is d.
If y = d/2, then the ratio of capacities of the capaci-
tor after and before inserting the slab is
Fig. 43
175. In a parallel-plate capacitor, the region between the
plates is filled by a dielectric slab. The capacitor is
connected to a battery and the slab is taken out.
Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Some charge is drawn from the battery
(b) Some charge is returned to the battery
Fig. 41
(c) The potential difference across the capacitor is reduced
(a) 2 :1 (b) 2 : 1 (d) No work is done by an external agent in taking the slab
out. [BHU 1998]
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 . [EAMCET 1997] 176. A parallel plate capacitor is filled with a uniform di-
173. A parallel-plate capacitor is connected to a battery. A electric. Maximum charge that can be given to it does
not depend upon
metal sheet of negligible thickness is placed between
(a) dielectric constant of the dielectric
the plates. The sheet remains parallel to the plates of
(b) dielectric strength of the dielectric
the capacitor. Which of the following is correct ?
(c) separation between the plates
(a) The battery will supply more charge.
(d) area of the plates.
(b) The capacitance will increase. 177. Three capacitors of capacitance 6 µ F each are avail-
(c) The potential difference between the plates will increase. able. The minimum and maximum capacitance,
(d) Equal and opposite charges will appear on the two faces of which may be obtained are
the metal plate. [EAMCET 2002] (a) 6 µF, 18 µF (b) 3 µF, 12 µF
(c) 2 µF, 12 µF (d) 2 µF, 18 µF.
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1995]
ELECTROSTATICS 25
178. Two spherical conductors A 179. While a capacitor remains connected to a battery, a
and B of radii a and b(b > a) dielectric slab is slipped between the plates :
are placed concentrically in (a) The potential difference between the plates is changed
air. The two are connected by (b) Charges flow from the battery to the capacitor
a copper wire as shown in Fig. A (c) The electric field between the plates increases
44. The equivalent capacitance
(d) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases.
of the system is B [Karnataka CET 2001]
4 πε0 ab
(a) (b) 4πε0 (a + b) Fig. 44
b− a
(c) 4πε0b (d) 4πε 0a. [MNR 1995]
Answers (Set I)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d)
9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c)
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d)
33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (e) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (e)
65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (c)
73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (d)
89. (b) 90. (a) 91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (a)
97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (a)
105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c) 111. (b) 112. (d)
113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (d) 128. (b)
129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (b) 136. (c)
137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (d) 141. (b) 142. (e) 143. (b) 144. (d)
145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (c) 151. (c) 152. (c)
153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (d) 160. (c)
161. (a) 162. (b) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (c) 166. (b) 167. (b) 168. (d)
169. (a) 170. (a) 171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (c) 175. (b) 176. (c)
177. (d) 178. (c) 179. (b)
26 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solutions (Set I)
19. Due to unequal and opposite forces, there is a net force
For 1 and 2. and torque.
For the case of an insultor, the following val- 20. qE = mg
ues of K are not allowed.
mg 9.9 × 10−15 × 10
(i) Negative values or q= = C = 3.3 × 10–18 C.
E 3 × 104
(ii) Values less than 1
(iii) 0 25. U = – pE cos θ
(iv) ∞. U will be maximum when cos θ = – 1 i.e., θ = π.
10V
3. Removal of dielectric medium increases the force by a 26. |E|=
1
m
factor of K. 100
6. When the two balls are connected by a conducting = 1000 NC–1
wire, the net charge is (2Q – Q) i.e., Q. Since, the
mv2 λ
balls are identical therefore charge Q gets shared 27. =q
equally between the two balls. R 2πε 0R
Now, F ∝ 2Q2 …(i) Clearly, v is independent of R.
FG Q IJ 2
For 28
F′ ∝
H 2K …(ii)
1 Q 1 Q
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get E= 2
=
4 πε0 R ε 0 4 πR 2
F ′ Q2 1 1 σ
= × 2
= or E=
F 4 2Q 8 ε0
F If σ is constant, then the electric field on the surface
or F′ = . of the sphere does not depend upon the radius of the
8
8. The result follows from considerations of symmetry. sphere.
13. The forces on the dipole are equal and opposite. So,
the net force is zero. 6C
29. σ= −2
→ → → → 6 × 5 × 10 × 5 × 10−2 m2
Again, since p and E are parallel. So, U(= – p . E ) is
minimum. 1
=× 104 C m–2
14. The correct choice is (d). It follows from considera- 25
tions of symmetry. = 400 C m–2
mg 30. Due to electrostatic induction, there will be a slight
15. eE = mg or E =
e decrease in the positive charge of the charged ball.
16. The force will be parallel to BC. No force perpendicu-
E0
lar to BC. 32. K=
E
q1q2
17. Clearly, the x-component of total force 2 The value of E in a metal is zero.
b → →
q q q 34. In the case of axial line, both p and E are in the
is proportional to 22 + 32 sin θ
b a q1q3 same direction.
2
a 35. It is a simple concept of electrostatic induction.
18. In the first case, F ∝ q1q2
Fig. 45 Fe
FG q + q2 IJ 2 36. g′ = g +
m
H K
1
In the second case, F ∝
2 Clearly, due to increase in the effective value of accel-
FG q + q IJ 2
eration due to gravity, T will be reduced T ∝
LM 1 OP .
H 2 K
1 2 > q1q2
MN g PQ
ELECTROSTATICS 27
37. F ∝ q(Q – q)
FG 1 IJ . This eliminates
F will be maximum when
q=Q–q
61. Graph should be non-linear F ∝
r H 2 K
(a) and (b). Again, F should be very large when r is
Q very small. Also, F should be very small when r is
or 2q = Q or q = . very large. This decides in favour of (d).
2
45. q = ne For 62
q = 1019 × 1.6 × 10–19 C = 1.6 C.
46. Think in terms of electrostatic induction.
The electric field at a point on the equato-
rial line is opposite to the direction of the di-
→ →
47. Fy = − e E y . pole moment of the dipole.
48. Note that the equation x2 + y2 = 12 is the equation of
circle. 63. The result follows from considerations of symmetry.
This equation is purely hypothetical. 64. Charges will be induced on the metal plates A and B
as shown.
Think !
Can we have circular electric lines of force ?
1 1 Q2 8 × 10−18 × 8 × 10−18
Clearly, rmin. (i) ∝ Q2 (ii) ∝ (iii) ∝ . 132. W = = J
m v2 2C 2 × 100 × 10 −6
V = 32 × 10–32 J.
116. E= 133. Q = CV, V is constant.
r
or V = rE Q1 C1
∴ =
U = q0V = q0rE. Q2 C2
30 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a
136. The network is equivalent to
145. Capacitance of a capacitor C, by definition, is equal to
Q
C=
V
where Q is the stored charge, V is the potential differ-
ence across the capacitor.
Thus capacitor of 1 farad will store 1 coulomb of charge
at a potential difference of 1 volt.
Q 1
146. C = i.e., V = Q and energy stored in a capacitor
z
Fig. 50 V C
=2
FG 2C × C IJ = 4C
H 2C + C K 3
=
1
C z Q dQ =
1 Q2 1
2 C 2
1
= CV 2 = QV .
2
147. Metal shield is like K = ∞.
137. When dielectric is removed, capacity is reduced.
ε0A
148. C=
1 1 1 1 d
138. = + +
Cs C1 C2 C3 Cd
A=
1 ε0
= C1−1 + C2−1 + C3−1
Cs 3 × 5 × 10 −3
= m2 = 1.7 × 109 m2.
or Cs = [C1−1 + C2 −1 + C3−1] –1 8.85 × 10 −12
140. Think in terms of Wheatstone Bridge.
Can you keep this 3 F capacitor in your house ?
Q2 Q2
141. Ui = , Uf =
2 KC 2C 149. Field is a storehouse of energy.
150. C = 4πε0R
Uf > Ui
This eliminates (c) and (d). 90 × 10−2
C = F
Again, we know that 9 × 109
V0 or C = 10–10 F
= K or V0 = KV
V = 100 × 10–12 F = 100 pF
This decides in favour of (b).
1
142. (a) Q = CV 151. U= CV 2
2
Q is unchanged ; C is halved ; clearly V will be or U∝C (∵ V is given to be constant.)
doubled.
ELECTROSTATICS 31
U will be maximum when C is maximum. Maximum 162. Since there would be a flow of charges and consequent
capacity is obtained in the case of parallel combina- loss of energy, therefore
tion of three capacitors. (E1 + E2) < E0 or E0 > (E1 + E2).
152. Cp = 2 C C1C2
163. Total capacity =
C C1 + C2
Cs =
2 C1C2
Total charge = V
Cp 2C C1 + C2
= = 4.
Cs C In series combination, the charge on each individual
2 capacitor is the same as the charge on the series com-
1 bination.
153. u= ε E2 So, potential difference across C1
2 0
∴ u ∝ E2. C1C2 V 1 C2
154. C = 4πε0R = . = V.
C1 + C2 C1 C1 + C2
C 164. Clearly, the potential difference V gets equally divided
R=
4 πε0 between the parallel combination (of C and 2 C) and
= 9 × 109 × 1 × 10–6 m capacitor of capacity 3 C.
= 9 × 103 m = 9 km
155. The given network is a parallel combination of three
capacitors.
22
156. A= × 0.08 × 0.08 m2
7
d = 10–3 m
166. The required arrangement is shown below. 171. If a conducting path is provided between the two plates
of a capacitor, then any amount of charge may be
given to the capacitor. [This is of course only a
theoretical statement].
172. Effective distance is halved. Capacity is doubled.
173. Since the thickness of the metal sheet is to be taken
as zero therefore (a) and (b) are ruled out. Again, since
the battery remains connected therefore (c) is ruled
out.
174. F = qE
Since E is uniform therefore F is constant.
Fig. 54
175. When slab is taken out, C is reduced. V constant. Q ∝
A 2A C. So, Q has to be reduced. Thus, some charge will be
167. C∝ , C′ ∝ returned to the battery.
d d/2
A C′ Qmax
or C′ ∝ 4
; = 4 176. = Dielectric strength. Clearly, Qmax. does not
d C Kε 0 A
or C′ = 4 × 12 pF = 48 pF. depend upon the separation between the plates.
168. Think in terms of Wheatstone bridge. 177. Cmax. = 3 × 6 µF = 18 µF
169. The given network is a parallel combination of 6
Cmin. = µF = 2 µF.
capacitors. 3
178. All the charge given to the inner sphere shall flow to
For 170
the outer sphere. So, the given system is equivalent
O Capacity does not depend upon the applied volt- to a single spherical conductor of radius b.
age.
O Introduction of dielectric slab/metal plate increases Q
179. V=
capacity. C
V is to be kept constant ; C is increased ; Q has to
increase.
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
O Two point charges + 8q and – 2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point on the x axis
at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero is
L
(a) 4L (b) 8L (c) (d) 2L. [AIEEE 2005]
4
Ans. (d)
Electric field cannot be zero at any point between A and B. This is because both
8q A B – 2q
the fields will act in the same direction. x=L
x=0
Electric field cannot be zero at a point to the left of A because the electric field of L l
charge 8q shall always dominate the electric field of charge “– 2q”.
Fig. 55
So, electric field can be zero only at a point to the right of charge “– 2q”. Suppose
electric field is zero at a distance l to the right of point B.
1 2q 1 8q
Now, 2
= or 4l2 = (L + l)2 or 2l = L + l or l = L
4 π ∈0 l 4π ∈0 (L + l)2
Distance from A is 2L.
ELECTROSTATICS 33
MCQs
based on
SET II
189. Two copper balls, each weighing 10 g, are kept in air C. The direction of rotation is anti-clockwise. If the
10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms is angle of rotation θ is measured with reference to a
transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb line which is perpendicular to the electric field, then
force between them is (atomic weight of copper is 63.5) the variation of τ with θ is best represented by curve
(a) 2.0 × 1010 N (b) 2.0 × 104 N (see Fig. 59)
(c) 2.0 × 108 N (d) 2.0 × 106 N.
[Karnataka CET 2002]
190. Two identical point charges are placed at a separa-
tion of r. P is a point on the line joining the charges,
at a distance x from any one charge. The field at P is
E. E is plotted against x for values of x from close to
zero to slightly less than r. Which of the following
best represents the resulting curve ?
Fig. 59
E E (a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV.
O x r x r
193. The insulation property of air breaks down at 3 × 106
O
V m– 1. The maximum charge that can be given to a
(a ) (b) sphere of diameter 5 m is nearly
(a) 2 × 10– 2 C (b) 2 × 10– 3 C
(c) 2 × 10– 4 C (d) 2 × 10– 5 C.
194. In Figs. 60 (a) and 60 (b), a particle with small charge
E x E – q is free to move up or down, but not sideways near
r x r
O O a larger fixed charge Q. The small charge q is in
equilibrium because in the positions shown, the
electrical upward force is equal to the weight of the
particle. Which of the following is correct ?
(c) (d )
Fig. 57
216. The dielectric strength of air at NTP is 3 × 106 V m– 1. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998]
Then the maximum charge that can be given to a 222. A charge + q is placed at each of the points x = x0 , x
spherical conductor of radius 3 m is = 3x0 , x = 5x0 , ......., ad infinitum on the x-axis, and
(a) 3 × 10– 1 C (b) 3 × 10– 2 C a charge – q is placed at each of the points x = 2x0 , x
(c) 3 × 10– 3 C (d) 3 × 10– 4 C . = 4x0, x = 6x0 ...... ad infinitum. Here x0 is a positive
217. In the previous question, the maximum potential up constant. Take the electric potential at a point due to
to which the conductor can be charged, is a charge Q at a distance r from it to be Q/(4πε0 r).
(a) 9 × 103 V (b) 9 × 106 V Then the potential at the origin due to the above sys-
(c) 9 × 107 V (d) 9 × 108 V. tem of charges is
218. A infinite number of charges, each numerically equal q
(a) 0 (b)
to q and of the same sign, are placed along the x-axis 8πε0 log e 2
at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x = 8 and so on. Then the q log e 2
(c) ∞ (d) .
electrical potential at x = 0 due to this set of charges, 4πε 0 x0
is [IIT Screening 1998]
2q 223. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long
(a) 2q (b)
5 straight wire of radius 1 mm. The charge per cm
4q 4q length of the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical
(c) (d) . surface of radius 50 cm and length 1 m symmetri-
3 5
cally encloses the wire as shown in the Fig. 67. The
219. When a charge of 3 C is placed in a uniform electric
total electric flux passing through
field, it experiences a force of 3 × 103 N. Within this
the cylindrical surface is
field, potential difference between two points sepa-
Q
rated by a distance of 0.01 m is (a)
ε0
(a) 10 V (b) 102 V
100Q
(c) 103 V (d) 3 × 103 V. (b)
ε0
220. A point charge q is placed at one corner of a cube of 10Q
edge a. The flux through each of the cube faces is (c)
(πε 0 )
q q 100Q
(a) (b) (d) . [MP PET 2001]
ε0 16 ε 0 (πε 0 )
Fig. 67
q q 224. A ball of mass 1 g and charge 10 –8
C moves from a
(c) (d) . [DCE 2002]
24 ε 0 48 ε 0 point A whose potential is 600 V to the point B whose
potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at the point B is
221. Charge on the outer sphere is q and the inner sphere
is grounded. Then the charge q′ on the inner sphere 20 cm s– 1. The velocity of the ball at the point A is
is q′, for (r2 > r1) (a) 16.7 cm s– 1 (b) 16.7 m s– 1
(c) 2.8 cm s– 1 (d) 2.8 m s– 1.
[Karnataka CET 2001]
225. Two spherical conductors of radii 4 m and 5 m are
charged to the same potential. If σ1 and σ2 be the
respective values of the surface density of charge on
σ
the two conductors, then the ratio 1 is
σ2
25 16
(a) (b)
16 25
5 4
(c) (d) .
4 5
[Karnataka CET 1998]
Fig. 66
38 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
z
228. The ratio of the forces between two small conducting
r=0 → →
spheres charged to constant potentials in (a) air (b) a value of − E. dr (r = 0 being the centre of the
medium of K = 2 is r=∞
V E V
(c) 2 E and (d) and .
2 2 2
V V [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
235. A particle A has charge + q and particle B has charge
R R + 4q with each of them having the same mass m.
O r O r When allowed to fall from rest through the same
(a ) (b) electric potential difference, the ratio of their speeds
vA
will become
vB
ELECTROSTATICS 39
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 when a charge of 40 nano-coulomb is moved from
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1. [MNR 1991] infinity to a point which is at a distance of 2 cm from
the surface of the sphere is
236. The electric potential V at any point x, y, z (all in
metre) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric (a) 14.4 π (b) 28.8 π
field at the point (1 m, 0 m, 2 m) in V m– 1 is (c) 144 π (d) 288 π.
(a) 8 along negative x-axis [EAMCET 2003]
(b) 8 along positive x-axis 242. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a
(c) 16 along negative x-axis charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of
(d) 16 along positive x-axis. [IIT 1992 ; MP PMT 2001] the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P a
40 cm
q3 is moved along the arc of a
represents the electric lines of forces ? circle of radius 40 cm from C
to D. The change in the poten-
q2
(a) (b) tial energy of the system is q1
A 30 cm B D
q3
k , where k is : Fig. 73
4πε 0
(a) 8 q2 (b) 6 q1
(c) (d)
(c) 8 q1
(d) 6 q2. [All India PM/PD 2005]
Fig. 72 244. A, B, C, D, P and Q are
points in a uniform
[IIT Screening 2003] electric field. The
239. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 µC. potentials a these points
Through what potential difference must it be are V (A) = 2 volt. V (P) =
accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a speed of V (B) = V (D) = 5 volt. V
10 m/s ? (C) = 8 volt. The electric
(a) 50 kV (b) 5 V field at P is
(c) 50 V (d) 5 kV. (a) 10 V m– 1 along PQ
[All India PM/PD 2004] (b) 5 V m– 1 along PC
240. The inward and outward electric flux from a closed (c) 15 2 V m– 1 along PA Fig. 74
surface are respectively 8 × 103 and 4 × 103 units.
(d) 5 V m– 1 along PA.
Then the net charge inside the closed surface is
(a) – 4 × 103 coulomb (b) 4 × 103 coulomb [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
245. Twenty seven drops of water of the same size are
− 4 × 10 3 equally and similarly charged. They are then united
(c) coulomb (d) – 4 × 103 ε0 coulomb.
ε0 to form a bigger drop. By what factor will the electri-
[KCET 2003] cal potential change ?
(a) 9 times (b) 27 times
241. A charged sphere of diameter 4 cm has a charge
density of 10 –4 coulomb/cm2. The work done in joule (c) 6 times (d) 3 times.
[MP PET 1991, 94]
40 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
λ λ Qq
(a) (b) (c) (d) Escape is not possible.
4ε0 4 π 2ε 0 r 4 πε 0 mR 2
q
LM1 1
OP 2ε0 ε0
264. The electron and protons in a singly ionised helium
(a)
MMN
4 π ∈0 R
−
R 2 + d 2 PQ
P (b) zero
atom are bound at a distance of 2Å. The electrostatic
q M1
L 1
OP potential energy of the system is
(a) – 13.6 eV (b) – 14.4 eV
2π ∈0 M R P
(c) − (d) qR/4π∈0 d2.
MN R 2 + d 2 PQ (c) – 27.2 eV (d) – 40.8 eV.
[AIEEE 2005] 265. The electrostatic potential at a distance of 40 cm from
258. The electric potential in a region along the X-axis the centre of a charged metal sphere of radius 50 cm
is 18 volt. The charge carried by the sphere is
varies with x according to the relation V (x) = 4 +
5x2. Then the incorrect statement is (a) 1 mC (b) 1 µC
(a) potential difference between the points x = 1 and x = – 2 is (c) 1 nC (d) 1 pC.
15 volt →
(b) force experienced by a one coulomb charge at x = – 1 m will 266. Given : E = (10 i + 7j)
Vm– 1. The electric flux through
2
1m area in XZ plane is
be 10 N
(c) the force experienced by the above charge will be towards (a) 10 V m (b) 7 V m
+ x-axis (c) 100 V m (d) 49 V m.
(d) a uniform electric field exists in this region along the x-axis. 267. If electrostatic potential varies inversely as square of
[AMU 2002] distance of observation point from source charge, then
259. Two charges, each equal to 1 µC, are placed at the the electric field strength at infinity will be
vertices A and B of a triangle ABC. The product of (a) zero (b) negative
AC and BC is 30 cm2. The sum of the sides AC and (c) imaginary (d) unpredictable.
BC is 10 cm. The potential at C is
CAPACITORS
(a) 3 × 105 V (b) 6 × 105 V
(c) 9 × 105 V (d) 18 mV. 268. A parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric constant 3
260. Eight charged water drops, each with a radius of filling the space between the plates is charged to a
1 mm and a charge of 10–10 C, coalesce to form a potential difference V. The battery is then discon-
single drop. The potential of the big drop is nected and the dielectric slab is withdrawn and re-
(a) 3.6 V (b) 36 V placed by another dielectric slab of dielectric constant
(c) 360 V (d) 3600 V. 2. The ratio of energy stored in the capacitor before
and after replacing the dielectric slab by new one is
261. Given : electric potential, φ = x2 + y2 + z2. The modu-
lus of electric field at (x, y, z) is 3 9
(a) (b)
2 4
(a) 2 (x + y + z) (b) 2 x2 + y2 + z2 4 2
(c) (d) .
(c) 2x + y + z (d) xyz. 9 3
262. A spherical conductor of radius R is charged with Q 269. The combined capacity of the parallel combination of
units of negative charge. The escape velocity of a par- two capacitors is four times their combined capacity
ticle of mass m and charge q from the surface of this when connected in series. This means that their ca-
conductor is pacities are
Qq Qq (a) equal (b) infinite
(a) (b) (c) 0.5 µF and 1 µF (d) 1 µF and 2 µF.
2πε 0 mR 4 πε 0 R
42 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
270. Eight small drops, each of radius r and having same (a) decreases (b) does not change
charge q, are combined to form a big drop. The ratio (c) becomes zero (d) increases.
between the potential of the bigger drop and the [Karnataka CET 1999]
smaller drop is 277. Electrical energy stored in the given network is
(a) 1 : 8 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 8 : 1. C2
271. 1000 small water drops, each of radius r and charge
q, coalesce together to form one spherical drop. The C1
C3
V
275. The equivalent capacitance of three capacitors of ca- Fig. 80. Area of each
pacitance C1, C2 and C3 connected in parallel is 12 plate is A m 2 and the d K1 K2
units and the product of C1 , C2 , C3 is 48. When the separation is d metre.
capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in parallel, the
The dielectric constants
equivalent capacitance is 6 units. Then the
capacitances are are K 1 and K 2 respec- B
(a) 1, 5, 6 (b) 1.5, 2.5, 8 tively. The capacitance
Fig. 80
(c) 2, 3, 7 (d) 2, 4, 6. in farad, between A and
[Karnataka CET 1999] B, will be
ε A ε A
276. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential (a) 0 (K 1 + K 2 ) (b) 0 (K 1 + K 2 )
d 2d
difference V. After disconnecting the battery, the dis-
tance between the plates of the capacitor is increased ε0A ε0A
(c) 2 (K 1 + K 2 ) (d) (K 1 − K 2 ) .
using an insulating handle. As a result, potential dif- d 2d
ference between the plates [Pb. PMT 1999]
ELECTROSTATICS 43
280. Three capacitors, each of capacitance 15 µF, are con- 284. Two parallel plate air filled capacitors, each of ca-
nected in series. This combination is connected to a pacitance C, are joined in series to a battery of emf V.
battery of 100 V. The charge drawn from the battery The space between the plates of one of the capacitors
is is then completely filled up with a uniform dielectric
having dielectric constant K. The quantity of charge
(a) 5 × 10– 4 C (b) 15 × 10– 4 C
which flows through the battery is
(c) 25 × 10– 4 C (d) 30 × 10 – 4 C.
[PCET 1998]
FG IJ
CV K − 1 FG IJ
CV K + 1
(a) 2 µF (b) 3 µF 3
(a) 0 (b) CV 2
(c) 8 µF (d) 4 µF. [KCET 2003] 2
290. A network of four capacitors of
1
capacity equal to C1 = C, C 2 = (c) CV 2 (d) CV 2.
2
2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are con- C2
ducted to a battery as shown in 296. In Q. 295, the potential of B is
C3 C1
Fig. 83. The ratio of the charges (a) 0 (b) V
on C2 and C4 is : C4 (c) 3V (d) V/3.
3 7
(a) (b) 297. In Q. 295-296, the total electrostatic energy stored in
22 4
both the capacitors before and after the introduction
22 4
(c) (d) . V of the dielectric is
3 7
[All India PM/PD 2005] Fig. 83 5 3
(a) (b)
291. In the electric circuit, ca- 3 5
pacitance of each capaci- 2 9
tor is 1 µ F. The effective (c) (d) .
9 2
capacitance between the
points A and B is (in µ F) [IIT 1983, modified]
2 3 298. The equivalent capacity between A and B of the net-
(a) (b) work shown in Fig. 86 is
3 2
1 (a) 1 µF (b) 2 µF
(c) (d) 6. Fig. 84
6 (c) 3 µF (d) 4 µF.
[Karnataka CET 1998]
292. 125 identical drops, each charged to the same poten-
tial of 50 V, are combined to form a single drop. The
potential of the new drop will be
(a) 50 V (b) 250 V
(c) 500 V (d) 1250 V. [MP PET 1997]
293. What fraction of the energy drawn from the charg-
ing battery is stored in a capacitor ?
(a) 100% (b) 75%
(c) 50% (d) 25%.
[Karnataka CET 2002]
294. Fig. 85 shows two identi- S Fig. 86
cal parallel plate capaci- 299. For the arrangement
tors connected to a bat- of capacitors shown in
tery with the switch S V C C Fig. 87, the equivalent
A B
closed (see Fig. 85). The capacitance between P
total energy stored in the and Q is
capacitors is Fig. 85 (a) 4 µF
1 (b) 10 µF
(a) 0 (b) CV 2
2 (c) 2 µF Fig. 87
(c) CV 2 (d) 2 CV 2. (d) 7 µF.
295. In Q. 294, the switch is now opened and the free space 300. A capacitor when filled with a dielectric K = 3 has
between the plates of the capacitors is filled with di- charge Q0 , voltage V0 and field E0 . If the dielectric is
electric of dielectric constant 3. Now, the energy of A replaced with another one having K = 9, the new
is values of charge, voltage and field will be respectively
ELECTROSTATICS 45
(a) 3Q0, 3V0, 3E0 (b) Q0, 3V0, 3E0
V0 V0 E0
(c) Q0 , , 3E0 (d) Q0 , , .
3 3 3
[Manipal 1998]
301. The area of the plates of a parallel plate condenser is
A and the distance between the plates is 10 mm. There
are two dielectric sheets in it, one of dielectric con-
stant 10 and thickness 6 mm and the other of dielec-
tric constant 5 and thickness 4 mm. The capacity of
the condenser is 8 capacitors
12 2
(a) ε0A (b) ε 0 A A B
35 3
Fig. 88
5000
(c) ε0A (d) 1500 ε0A. [AFMC 1998]
7 (a) 1 µF (b) 2 µF
302. A 10 µ F capacitor is charged to a potential difference (c) 0 µF (d) ∞.
of 50 V and is connected to another uncharged ca- 308. Force of attraction between the plates of a parallel
pacitor in parallel. Now the common potential differ- plate capacitor is
ence becomes 20 volt. The capacitance of second ca-
pacitor is q2 q2
(a) (b)
(a) 10 µF (b) 20 µF 2ε 0 AK Kε 0 A
322. A variable capacitor and an electroscope are connected 328. n identical droplets are charged to V volt each. If
in parallel to a battery. The reading of the electro- they coalesce to form a single large drop, then the
scope would be decreased by potential of the large drop will be
1. Increasing the area of overlap of the plates. V
(a) Vn (b)
2. Placing a block of paraffin wax between the plates. n
(c) Vn1/3 (d) Vn2/3.
3. Decreasing the distance between the plates.
[Karnataka CET 2000, 1995 ; MP PMT 2001]
4. Decreasing the battery potential.
329. The distance between the plates of a parallel plate
State :
condenser is 4 mm and potential difference is 60 volt.
(a) If only (1), (2) and (3) are correct If the distance between the plates is increased to 12
(b) If only (1) and (3) are correct mm, then
(c) If only (2) and (4) are correct (a) the potential difference will remain unchanged
(d) If only (4) is correct. (b) the potential difference will become 20 volt
323. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are placed in (c) the potential difference of the condenser will become 180
volt
series and connected to a constant voltage source of
(d) the charge on condenser will reduce to one-third.
V volt. If one of the capacitors is completely immersed
in a liquid of dielectric constant K, then the potential 330. Two capacitors of capacitances C and 2C, are charged
difference between the plates of the other capacitor to potential differences V and 2V respectively. If the
will change to two positive plates are connected together and the
two negative plates are connected together, then this
K K +1
(a) V (b) V system of capacitors
K+1 K
(a) gains charge but loses energy
2K K+1
(c) V (d) V. (b) gains energy but loses charge
K +1 2K
(c) loses both energy and charge
324. Two capacitors, each having capacitance C and break-
(d) loses charge but energy remains constant
down voltage V, are joined in series. The capacitance
and breakdown voltage of the combination are (e) loses energy but charge remains constant.
respectively 331. An isolated parallel-plate capacitor of plate area A,
(a) 2 C and V (b) 2 C and 2 V plate separation d and capacitance C (= ε A/d) is found
C V C to lose charge slowly by conduction through the
(c) and (d) and 2 V.
2 2 2 dielectric, which has resistivity ρ. What is the
325. If the capacitors in the previous question are joined resistance of the dielectric ?
in parallel, the capacitance and the breakdown volt- ρε
(a) (b) ρCε
age of the combination will be C
εC ρC
(a) 2 C and 2 V (b) C and 2 V (c) (d)
ρ ε
(c) 2 C and V (d) C and V.
ρ
326. Force acting upon a charged particle kept between (e) .
Cε
the plates of a charged capacitor is F. If one of the 332. Two condensers A and B of capacities 0.3 µ F and
plates of the capacitor is removed, then the force act- 0.6 µ F respectively are connected in series. The com-
ing on the same particle will be bination is connected across a potential of 6 volt. The
(a) F (b) 0 ratio of energies stored by the condensers A and B
will be
F
(c) 2F (d) . [MP PMT 1991] (a) 2 (b) 4
2
1 1
327. Eight mercury droplets, each having a radius of (c) (d) .
2 4
10– 3 m and a charge of 0.066 pC each, merge to form
one drop. The potential of the drop is 333. Three capacitors, each of capacitance 1 µ F, are con-
nected in parallel. To this combination, a fourth ca-
(a) 1.2 V (b) 2.4 V
pacitor of capacitance 1 µ F is connected in series.
(c) 3.6 V (d) 4.8 V. The resultant capacitance of the system is
48 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
367. A capacitor of capacity 100 µµ F is charged to 100 372. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are connected
volt. After disconnecting it from battery, it is con- in series to a battery of 100 V. A dielectric slab of
nected in parallel with another condenser. If the fi- dielectric constant 4.0 is inserted between the plates
nal potential is 30 volt, then the capacity of the sec- of second capacitor. The potential difference across
ond condenser will be nearly the first and second capacitors will now be respec-
(a) 233 µF (b) 233 µµF tively
(c) 233 F (d) 233 M F. (a) 50 V, 50 V (b) 80 V, 20 V
Y
[MP PMT 1992]
X
C5 = 20 µF 386. The distance between the circular plates of a parallel
plate condenser 40 mm in diameter, in order to have
C4 = 6 µF
same capacity as a sphere of radius 1 metre is
(a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.1 mm
Fig. 106 (c) 1.0 mm (d) 10 mm.
[MP PET 1992]
ELECTROSTATICS 53
C2 V 2 V 2d
(c) (d) . [MP PMT 1999]
d2 C
13 48
(a) F (b) F
18 13
1 240
(c) F (d) F. [BHU 1997]
31 71
396. In the circuit shown in Fig. 114, the equivalent ca-
pacitance between the points A and B is
3 µF
Fig. 116
A B (a) 60 V (b) 45 V
2 µF 15 µF 6 µF
(c) 40 V (d) 30 V. [MQIMS 2002]
4 µF
400. Four metallic plates, each with surface area of one
side A, are placed at a distance d from each other.
Fig. 114 The plates are connected as shown in Fig. 117. Then
10 15 the capacitance of the arrangement between A and B
(a) µF (b) µF is
3 14
2 25
(c) µF (d) µF . [DCE 1994]
5 9
397. Two identical capacitors
are connected as shown in
Fig. 115. Charge on each I
capacitor is q0 . A dielec-
2V0
tric slab is now introduced K
between the plates of one II
of the capacitors so as to
fill the gap, the battery re- Fig. 117
maining connected. The Fig. 115
3ε 0 A 2ε 0 A
charge on each capacitor will now be (a) (b)
d d
2 q0 q0 2 ε0 A 3 ε0 A
(c) (d) .
(a) (b) 3 d 2 d
1 1
1+ 1+ 401. A rectangular parallel-plate capacitor has a dielec-
K K
tric slab which partially fills the space between the
2q0 q0 plates as shown in Fig. 118. The energy of the capaci-
(c) (d) .
1+ K 1+ K tor with charge Q is
[All India PM/PD 1998]
398. A box is known to contain three identical capacitors b
wired together in a circuit containing no other com-
ponents. Two wires lead from this circuit to the out-
side of the box and the measured capacitance between d
403. Refer to network shown in Fig. 120. The effective Fig. 120
capacitance between a and b is C
(a) C (b)
2
C C
(c) (d) .
3 4
268. (d) 269. (a) 270. (c) 271. (c) 272. (c) 273. (d) 274. (c) 275. (d)
276. (d) 277. (b) 278. (c) 279. (b) 280. (a) 281. (c) 282. (a) 283. (a)
284. (a) 285. (b) 286. (d) 287. (c) 288. (c) 289. (d) 290. (a) 291. (a)
292. (d) 293. (c) 294. (c) 295. (b) 296. (d) 297. (b) 298. (a) 299. (a)
300. (d) 301. (c) 302. (d) 303. (d) 304. (d) 305. (c) 306. (a) 307. (b)
308. (b) 309. (b) 310. (a) 311. (c) 312. (c) 313. (c) 314. (c) 315. (a)
316. (c) 317. (c) 318. (c) 319. (a) 320. (d) 321. (c) 322. (d) 323. (a)
324. (d) 325. (c) 326. (d) 327. (b) 328. (d) 329. (c) 330. (e) 331. (a)
332. (a) 333. (d) 334. (b) 335. (b) 336. (b) 337. (a) 338. (a) 339. (a)
340. (b) 341. (d) 342. (c) 343. (a) 344. (a) 345. (b) 346. (c) 347. (b)
348. (a) 349. (b) 350. (a) 351. (c) 352. (d) 353. (c) 354. (a) 355. (c)
356. (b) 357. (a) 358. (a) 359. (d) 360. (a) 361. (d) 362. (b) 363. (d)
364. (a) 365. (c) 366. (d) 367. (b) 368. (a) 369. (b) 370. (d) 371. (d)
372. (b) 373. (a) 374. (a) 375. (b) 376. (a) 377. (a) 378. (d) 379. (a)
380. (b) 381. (c) 382. (d) 383. (c) 384. (a) 385. (b) 386. (b) 387. (c)
388. (a) 389. (c) 390. (c) 391. (d) 392. (b) 393. (c) 394. (c) 395. (d)
396. (a) 397. (a) 398. (b) 399. (d) 400. (c) 401. (c) 402. (b) 403. (c)
56 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a=
F qE
=
GH 2 JK
m m
For equilibrium, FBD + FC = FO
q Et
v = at = 1 2 Q2 1 Q2 1 2 qQ
m 2
+ 2
=
4π ε0 a 4 π ε 0 2a 4 π ε 0 a2
Kinetic energy
Q = 2q or 2q = Q
1 q Et LM OP 2
E2q2 t2 .
or 2Q+
2 2
(2 2 + 1)
= m
2 m N Q =
2m
or q=
Q
(1 + 2 2 ) .
197. Consider the equilib- A 4
rium of charge Q at A. Q q Q
4Qq 4 q2
2 200. = − or Q = – q.
Qq Q d l2 l2
=−
d2 4d2
2d
Q
or q= − Fig. 122
4
198. From considerations of Y
symmetry, we find that
the net force on Q is di- (0, a) – q
rected towards O. As Q
approaches O, this force Q
Fig. 125
O
increases. As Q moves to (2a, 0)
the left of O, the force is 201. If the charges are arranged according to the option
again directed towards O. (0, – a) – q (d), the electric fields due to P and S and due to Q and
So, the motion is not T add to zero, while due to U and R will be added up.
Y′
SHM. Clearly, the motion 202. Electric field intensity at any point inside the charged
is oscillatory in nature. Fig. 123 sphere is zero.
199. Consider the equilibrium of charge – Q at A. 203. 1 q 1 ne
E= =
FB 4 π ε 0 R 2 4 π ε0 R 2
FBD
1
FC or n = E × 4π ε0R2 ×
–Q –Q e
FD D
A 1 1
= 0.036 × × 0.1 × 0.1 ×
FO q 9 × 10 9
1.6 × 10 −19
a 5
O = 2.5 × 10 .
9 × 109 q1q2
B C 204. F = N
–Q –Q 0.20 × 0.20
Fig. 124
58 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
F′ =
1 H 2K H 4 K = 0.9 × 10–18 C m–2
215. Following two arguments shall decide the right choice.
4π ε0 d2
(i) Acceleration is zero at the origin and also at points
1 3 q2 3F which are far away from the origin.
or F′ = = .
4 π ε 0 8 d2 8 (ii) The directions of acceleration on the two sides of
207. Enclosed charge the origin are opposite.
4Q Qr 3 9 × 109 × Q max.
= × πr 3 = 3 216. 3 × 106 = or Qmax. = 3 × 10–3 C.
4 3×3
πR 3 3 R
3 9 × 109 × 3 × 10−3
3 217. Vmax. = volt
1 Qr 3
Now, E =
4 πε 0 K R 3 r 2 = 9 × 106 volt.
1 Qr . q q q q
= 218. V= + + + + ......
4πε 0 K R 3 1 2 4 8
208. Negative charge will be induced. LM
1 1 1 OP
N
V = q 1 + + + + ......
2 4 8 Q
ELECTROSTATICS 59
1 C1VR22 R1 R22 R2 5 .
V= q or V = 2q = = × = =
1
1− C2 VR 12 R 2 R12 R 1 4
2
226. r = 4 cm = 4 × 10–2 m
3 × 103 N q = – 4 × 10–8 C
219. E= = 103 N C–1
3C
9 × 109 × 4 × 10 −8
dV V= − V
103 = or dV = 10 volt 4 × 10 −2
0.01
= – 9000 V
220. Following arguments shall decide the right choice.
227. Distance in the direction of electric field is the effec-
(i) At each corner, 8 cubes can be placed symmetri-
tive distance.
q
cally. So, flux linked with each cube will be . 228. To keep potential constant, charge has to be increased
8ε 0 by a factor of K.
(ii) Out of the six faces of the cube, the flux linked
q 1 q1q2
with three faces is zero. So, the flux of is to be Now, F=
8ε 0 4 πε 0 r 2
shared by the remaining three faces. 1 (K q1)(K q2 )
and F′ =
221. Potential at the surface of inner sphere = 0 (grounded) 4 πε0 K r2
1 q 1 q′ 1 K q1q2
+ =0 or F′ =
4 πε0 r2 4πε 0 r1 4 πε 0 r2
− qr1 Again, F 1 1
⇒ q′ = . = =
F′ K 2
r2
q LM 1 1 OP 229. r2 + r2 = 2 or 2r2 = 2
222. V=
4 πε 0 x0 N
1 + + + ......
3 5 Q or r = 1 cm
r r
−
q LM
1 1 1
+ + + ......
OP Now, 1 2 3 q
+ + + =0
N
4 πε0 x0 2 4 6 Q or
1 1 1 1
q = – 6 esu Ö2 cm
V=
q LM 1 1 1 1 1
1 − + − + − + ......
OP Fig. 127
4 πε0 x0 N 2 3 4 5 6 Q 230.
→ ∂φ ∂φ ∂φ
E=− i− j− k
q ∂x ∂y ∂z
or V= log e 2 ∂ 2
4 πε0 x0 Now, Ex = − (x y + yz) = – 2xy
∂x
x2 x 3 x 4 ∂ 2
log (1 + x) = x – + − + ...... Ey = − (x y + yz) = – x2 – z
2 3 4 ∂y
∂ 2
1 Ez = − (x y + yz) = – y.
223. ΦE = × enclosed charge ∂z
ε0
1 100 Q E= E x 2 + E y2 + E z 2
= × Q × 100 =
ε0 ε0 = 4 x2 y2 + ( x2 + z2 ) + y2
1 At (1, 3, 1),
224. × 10–3 [0.22 – v2] = 600 × 10–8
2 E= 4 × 12 × 32 + (12 + 1)2 + 32
or 0.04 – v2 = 1200 × 10–5 = 0.012
or v2 = 0.04 – 0.012 = 0.028 = 36 + 4 + 9 = 49 = 7 units.
z
9 × 109 × 1 × 10−10 r
232. V= volt = 1.8 volt. → →
0.5 241. W = – q0 E . dS
1 Q 1 Q ∞
233. V= +
z z
4 πε 0 R 4 πε 0 r 4 × 10 −2 4 × 10 −2
σR 2 q σR 2 1
or V=
1 QLM R+
Q
r
OP = – q0
ε0r 2
dr = – 0
ε0 r2
dr
N
ε0 4 π R 2 4 πr 2 Q ∞ ∞
4 × 10 −2
σ q0 σR 2 1 q0 σR 2 1
= (R + r). =– − = ×
ε0 ε0 r ∞ ε0 4 × 10−2
234. When charges – 2Q and + Q are placed at B and C
q0 σR 2 4π
respectively, =
4 π ε0 4 × 10 −2
V′ =
1 LM
Q 2Q Q
− +
OP = zero
4 πε0 a aN a Q 40 × 10−9 × 10−4 × 104 × (2 × 10 −2 )2
× 4 × 9 × 109 π
This settles in favour of (a). = J
4 × 10−2
1
235. m vA2 = qV
2 40 × 4 × 10−4 × 36π
= J
4 × 10−2
1
m vB2 = 4qV = 14.4π J.
2
Only option d is the correct statement about the elec-
vA 2 qV vA 2 1 vA 1 tric potential at a point as in statement (4).
Dividing, = or = or =
2
vB 4 qV vB2 4 vB 2 242. Total potential at P = Potential at P due to charge q
236. V = 4x2 on the surface of the sphere + Potential at P due to
charge Q at the centre of the shell
dV
= 8x 1 q 1 Q
dx = +
4 π ε 0 R 4 π ε 0 R/2
dV
− = – 8x or E = – 8x q 2Q
dx = + .
or E = – 8(1) = – 8 V m–1. 4 π ε0 R 4 π ε 0R
Clearly, the electric field is 8 V along negative x-axis. 1 q1LM q
+ 2
OP
237. In Gauss’s law, the electric field is due to all the
charges present whether inside or outside the Gaussian
243. VC =
N
4 πε0 0.40 0.50 Q
surface. 1 LM q + q OP
1 2
238. Electric field can not be present inside the metal.
VD =
4 πε0 N 0.40 0.10 Q
Moreover, the electric field and equipotential surfaces
are perpendicular. VD – VC =
q2 LM 1 − 1 OP
1
4 πε0 N 0.1 0.5 Q
239. qV = mv2
2 q2 8q2
= (10 – 2) =
mv 2 4πε0 4 πε0
or V=
2q 8q2 q3
Work done =
2 × 10−3 × 10 × 10 4πε0
= volt
2 × 2 × 10−6 dV
244. Field = − .
= 50 kilo volt. dr
ELECTROSTATICS 61
VA − VP 2e
Field at P = 251. Potential of spheres = ±
AP C
3 30 4e 4e
= = Potential difference = =
0.1 2 2 C 4 πε 0 r
4 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 9 × 109
= 15 2 V m–1 = V
0.09 × 10 −3
4 4 = 640 × 10–7 V = 64 µV.
245. 27 × πr3 = πR3 or R = 3r
3 3 252. Electric field at a point on axial line is twice the elec-
V ′ 27 q r tric field on the equatorial line. The directions are
= × = 9.
V 3r q opposite.
253. Potential at a point on the axial line is not zero. Po-
σ 2σ σ
246. EP = (− k) + (− k) + (− k) tential at a point on the equatorial line is zero.
2ε 0 2ε 0 2 ε0
dV λ dV
=
LM σ +
σ
+
σ OP e− kj 254. E= −
dr 2πε 0 r
=−
dr
N 2ε ε 0 2ε 0 Q
z z
Vb b
0 λ λ 1
or dV = − dr or dV = − dr
=
2σ
ε0
− k e j 2πε 0 r
Va
2πε 0
a
r
λ
−2V or Vb – Va = − [loge b – loge a]
247. Ex = − = – 100 V m–1 2πε0
− 2 × 10−2 m
λ b
−2V or Va – Vb = log e .
Ey = − = 200 V m–1 2πε 0 a
1 × 10 −2 m
LM 2 − 3 − 4 + 5 OP = 0
Time-saving solution
255. V = 9 × 109
Nr r r rQ
Clearly, x-component is Electric fields due to the all the charges shall not can-
negative and y-compo- cel out because of different directions.
nent is positive. 256. Charge = πrλ
1 πrλ λ
V= or V = .
Fig. 128 4 πε 0 r 4ε 0
1 q 1 q
2000 257. Potential at C1 = −
248. E= N C–1 = 400 N C–1 4 πε 0 R 4 πε0
5 R + d22
Now, V = Er = 400 ×
2
V=8V q 1 LM 1 OP +d
2
MN PQ
2
100 = − R R R
4 πε 0 R R2 + d2
C1V1 + C2 V2 Potential at C2
C1 d C2
249. Common potential, V =
C1 + C2 1 −q 1 q
= + +q d –q
q1 + q2 4 πε 0 R 4 πε 0 2
R + d2
or V= Fig. 129
n π ε0 r1 + 4 π ε 0 r2
1 q1 + q2 q LM 1 1 OP
or V =
4 πε 0 r1 + r2
=
4 πε 0 MN− R + R + d2
2 PQ
250. Maximum length of string = 3l q 2 LM 2 OP
Maximum enclosed charge = 3 lλ
Potential difference =
4 πε 0 R
−
MN R2 + d2 PQ
∴ Φ= 3lλ.
q LM
1 2 OP
ε0 =
2 πε 0 RMN
−
R 2 + d2 PQ
62 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
279.
ε A/2
C1 = K1 0
ε A
= K1 0 =
K CV CV
− =
CV 2K
−1
LM OP
d 2d K+1 2 2 K +1 N Q
C2 = K2
ε0 A/2 ε A
= K2 0 CV K − 1 FG IJ
d 2d
ε0A
=
2 K +1 H K
Now, C = C1 + C2 or C = (K1 + K2) 1
2d × 40 × 10− 6 × 3000 × 3000
285. P= 2 kW
15
280. C= µF = 5 µF 2 × 10−3 × 1000
3
Q = (5 µF) (100 V) = 500 µC = 90 kW.
= 500 × 10–6 C 286. For n plates joined alternately, there will be (n – 1)
capacitors in parallel.
= 5 × 10–4 C
∴ equivalent capacity = (n – 1) C
281. Two capacitors in series would give 1 µF. The third
capacitor in parallel with this series combination 4 3 4
287. πR = 8 × πr3 or R = 2r or C = 2c.
would give 3 µF. 3 3
A ε0 A
ε0 288. C=
2 = ε0A K 1 d
d− +
d
282. C1 = K1
d d 2 2 2K
A
ε0 ε0A ε0A 4 ε0A
C2 = K2 d2 = K 2
or C=
d FG
1 IJ =
3 d
(given)
2
d
2
1+
H
K K
ε0
A
2 = K ε0A
1 FG
1 3 IJ 1 3
C3 = K3
d 3
d
∴
2
1+
H
K
=
4 K or 1 + =
K 2
2
1 3 1
C2 and C3 are in series. or = − 1= or K = 2.
C23 = ε 0
LM
A K2 K3 OP K 2 2
289. Parallel combination of 2 µF and 2 µF gives 4µF. It is
N
d K 2 + K3 Q in series with 4 µF. This gives 2 µF. Again, series
Now, C1 and C23 are in parallel. combination of 4 µF and 4 µF gives 2 µF.
ε A L K K O 1 1 1 1
∴ C123 =
ε0 A K 1
d 2
+ 0
M P
d NK + K Q 2
2 3
3
290.
C123
= + +
C 2C 3C
64 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 11 6C 4×8
= or C123 = 4 µF and 8 µF are in series. Capacity is µF i.e.,
C123 6C 11 4+8
32 8
6 CV µF i.e., µF
Q123 = 12 3
11
8 8
In series combination, charges on individual capaci- µF and µF are in parallel.
9 3
tors are the same as on the combination. 8 8 32
Capacity of parallel combination is + i. e., µF .
6 CV 9 3 9
∴ Q2 = 32 32
11 Now, µF and µF are in series .
Again, Q4 = C4V = 4CV 23 9
32 32
Q2 6 CV 3 ×
∴ = = Series capacity is 23 9 µF
Q4 11 × 4 CV 22 32 32
+
291. The given arrangement is a series combination of 23 9
1 µF and 2 µF
32 × 32 1024
2 i.e., µF or µF or 1 µF.
∴ C= µF 288 + 736 1024
3
299. 4 µF and 4 µF are in series. Combined capacity is 2
4 4 µF. This 2 µF is in parallel with given 2 µF. This
292. πR3 = 125 × πr3 or R = 5r or C = 5c
3 3 gives 4 µF.
125q 5q 300. It is understood that the battery is “disconnected”.
= So, the charge Q0 remains constant. Again dielectric
V v
constant is increased by a factor of 3. So, both poten-
V = 25 v = 25 × 50 volt = 1250 volt
tial difference and electric field are reduced by a factor
1 of 3.
293. Note that QV is 50% of QV.
2 ε0A
301. C=
1 t1 t
294. Energy = (2C) V2 = CV2 + 2
2 K1 K2
1 t1 6 × 10−3
295. Energy of A = (3C) V2. Now, = = 6 × 10–4
2 K1 10
V V
296. V′ =
= t2 4 × 10−3
K 3 and = = 8 × 10–4
K2 5
297. Total energy stored before dielectric, Ei = CV 2
Total energy stored after dielectric 104 ε 0 A 1000 × 10 ε0 A
∴ C= or C =
3 1 V FG IJ 2
3 1
14 14
Ef =
2
CV 2 + (3C)
2 3 H K =
2
CV 2 + CV 2
6 or C=
5000
7
ε0A.
FG 3 + 1IJ FG 10 IJ = 5 CV 302. C1 = 10 µF, V1 = 50 V, V = 20 V
= CV 2
H 2 6K = CV 2
H 6K 3 2
C1V1 + C2 V2
V=
Ei CV 2 3 C1 + C2
= = .
Ef 5 2 5
CV 10 × 50 + 0
3 20 =
72 10 + C
298. Capacity of 6 µF and 12 µF in series = µF = 4 µF
18 or 200 + 20 C = 500 or 20 C = 300
This 4 µF is in parallel with 4 µF. Total capacity is or C = 15 µF.
8 µF.
303. The given capacitor (without dielectric) is a series com-
8
This 8 µF and 1 µF are in series. Capacity is µF. bination of two capacitors, each of capacity 20 µF.
9 After the introduction of dielectric, the capacity of one
2 µF and 2 µF are in parallel. Capacity is 4 µF.
ELECTROSTATICS 65
becomes 40 µF while the capacity of the other remains 311. The four plates are alternately connected. They form
20 µF. three capacitors in parallel. Capacity of each capaci-
40 × 20 800 ε0A 3 ε0 A
Now, C= µF or C = µF tor is . So, the net capacity is .
40 + 20 60 d d
40 µF 1 Q2
= = 13 µF. 312. U =
3 3 2C
C V + C2 V2 U Q2 1 Q2 Q2
304. V= 1 1 = or × = or K = 5.
C1 + C2 5 2 KC 5 2C 2 KC
20 × 500 + 10 × 200
= volt 1
20 + 10 313. H= CV 2
2
10000 + 2000
= volt 1
30 =× 2 × 10–6 × 200 × 200 joule
2
12000 = 4 × 10–2 joule
= volt = 400 volt.
30 314. If V be the potential difference across each capacitor,
3000 V then
305. Number of capacitors in a row = =6
500 V 6V + 3V = 72 – 36 = 36 or V = 4 volt
1 315. At time t, the system may be regarded as a parallel
Capacity of one row = µF combination of two capacitors :
6
2
Number of rows = = 12
1/6
∴ Required number of capacitors is 6 × 12 i.e., 72.
306. The maximum and minimum values correspond to
parallel and series combination.
1 1 1
307. C = 1+ + + + ......
2 4 8
1
= µF = 2 µF
1
1−
2
σ
308. E=
ε0
Fig. 131
q
E= (i) Capacitor of area bvt having air between its plates.
Kε 0 A
F = qE (ii) Capacitor of area of b(l – vt) having dielectric be-
tween the plates.
q2
F= .
Kε 0 A ε0 bvt K ε0b(l − vt)
∴ C= +
309. Increase in energy d d
1 ε0 b
= C (V22 – V12) or C= [vt + Kl – Kvt]
2 d
ε0 b
1 or C= [Kl – (K – 1) vt].
= × 6 × 10–6 (400 – 100) = 9 × 10–4 J d
2
316. If V be the potential at D, then
310. The energy drawn from the source may partly be con-
sumed by connecting wires and also by the internal V1 − V C2
= or C1V1 – C1V = C2 V – C2 V2
resistance of the source. Capacity depends on geometri- V − V2 C1
cal dimensions and not on the applied voltage. The or C1V1 + C2V2 = (C1 + C2)V
potential difference across the capacitor will be equal C1V1 + C2 V2
to the terminal potential difference. or V=
C1 + C2
66 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2C 3 3
CBC = + = 3 µF
U 1 C2 0.6 2 2
∴ = = = 2.
U 2 C1 0.3 CAB 4
∴ =
333. Capacity of parallel combination = 3 µF CBC 3
3×1 3 340. The capacity is increased by a factor of K( = 5).
Now, C= = µF.
3+1 4 Q2 U W0
Now, U′ = = = .
10 2(5C0 ) 5 5
334. C1 = 2 × µF = 10 µF
2 ε 0 πr 2
341. Capacity, C =
10 d
C2 = 4 × µF = 20 µF
2 After the dielectric is introduced
C = C1 + C2 = 30 µF. Effective area
335. The energy EC transferred from the charged capaci- πr 2 3πr 2
tor to the flash tube is given by = πr 2 − =
4 4
EC =
1
CV 2 = Pt 3πr2
Capacity of air condenser = ε0
2 4d
where C is the capacitance of the capacitor
πr2
V is the potential difference of the capacitor Capacity with dielectric = 6ε0
4d
P is the average power delivered to the tube
t is the total flash time. ε0 πr 2 9C
Total capacity =(3 + 6) =
4d 4
1
∴ C (1000) 2 = (1000)(0.04) 342. B has 3-fold capacitance. So, 3 : 1 voltage sharing
2 between A and B.
⇒ C = 80 µF 343. In the first case, Q = 12 µF × 60 V = 720 µC
336. If C′ represents the capacity of the individual capaci- In the second case,
tor, then
720 µC
C′ V= = 60 volt
C= or C′ = 8C 12 µF
8 σ q
Cp = 8 × 8C = 64 C. 344. E= =
Kε 0 KAε0
337. Total charge, Q = 2 × 150 × 10–6 C
1000
345. Number of capacitors in a row = =4
0.30 250
C1 + C2 = F
9 × 109 Capacity of one row =
8
= 2 µF
−6 9
4
300 × 10 × 9 × 10 16
∴ V= volt = 9 × 106 volt Number of rows = =8
0.30 2
Total number of capacitors = 4 × 8 = 32
68 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
∴ C=
C1 C2 LM
2ε A K 1 K 2
= 0
OP 368. Initial total charge = 2CV + CV = 3 CV
C1 + C2 d N
K1 + K2 Q Final total charge = 2 CV′ + KCV′
3V
1 1 1 1 1 6+2+1 Equating, CV′ (2 + K) = 3 CV or V′ =
364. = + + or = K+2
Cs 3 9 18 Cs 18 ε0A dC d ε0 A FG IJ
or
1
=
9
=
1
or Cs = 2 µF
369. C=
x
or
dt
=
dt x H K
Cs 18 2 d FG 1IJ − 2ε 0 A dx − 2ε 0 A
Again, Cp = (3 + 9 + 18) µF = 30 µF
= ε0A
dt H xK =
x2 dt
=
x2
v
Cs 2 1 dc 1
= = clearly, ∝
C p 30 15 dt d 2
9 × 4.5
ab 370. C= µF or C = 3 µF
365. When outer sphere is earthed, C1 = 4πε0 13.5
b−a Q = CV = 3 × 12 µC = 36 µC
4 πε 0 ab Potential difference across 4.5 µF
When inner sphere is earthed, C2 = 4πε0b + 36
b−a = V=8V
4.5
C2 – C1 = 4πε0b
366. An equivalent of the given arrangement is shown in Time-saving solution
Fig. 133 (b).
V1 C2 9 2 8
= = = =
V2 C 1 4.5 1 4 Fig. 134
1
– – – – – – a
+ + +2+ + + 371. Effective separation is halved. Capacity is doubled.
+ + + + + +
– – – 3– – –
– – – – – –
b
Time-saving solution of Q. 372
+ + +4+ + +
C2 4
=
C1 1
(a) V2 1 20
= =
V1 4 80
70 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
373. The given capacitors are connected in parallel. 383. The equivalent of the given circuit is as under :
2 2
374. d–2+ + 1.6 = d or = 0.4
K K
2
or K= = 5.
0.4
FG IJ2
2
375.
H K
ε 0π
100
= 4πε0
10
d 100
1 1
4
= or d = 10–3 m.
d × 10 10 Fig. 138
376. It is a case of parallel combination of two capacitors.
rr 4 × 12
377. C = 4πε0 K 2 1 Capacity of upper branch = µF
r2 − r1 4 + 12
6 108 × 10−4 48
= × F = 24 × 10–11 F µF = 3 µF
=
9 × 109 3 × 10−2 16
= 240 × 10–12 F = 240 pF. Total capacity = (3 + 2) µF = 5 µF
378. Capacity of series combination 384. The equivalent of the given network is :
1
= µF
2
FG 1 IJ
Total capacity = 1 +
H 2
µF
K Fig. 135
= 1.5 µF.
1200
379. (0.2 + 1) V = 0.2 × 600 or V = volt
12
= 100 volt
380. K increased by a factor of 4. So, capacity increased by
a factor of 4. Fig. 139
1
381. 3=3–1+ +d
2
d = 0.5 mm
New separation = (3 + 0.5) mm = 3.5 mm.
382. Consider balanced Wheatstone Bridge.
Fig. 140
Fig. 136
Fig. 141
Parallel combination of C and 2C gives 3C.
385.
LM 3 × 6 OP 5000 = (3 + 6) V or V=
10000
≈ 1111 V.
N3 + 6Q 9
Fig. 137
ELECTROSTATICS 71
ε0A A 3 µF 6 µF
386. 4πε0r = or d =
d 4πr
π (20 × 10−3 )2 −6
= m = 400 × 10 m A B
4π × 1 4
–6
= 100 × 10 m = 10 m –4
2 µF 4 µF
= 10–1 mm = 0.1 mm.
387. 2 × 200 = [2 + C] 20 or 2 + C = 20 or C = 18 µF
V Fig. 143
388. Electric field =
d
V 2 µF
Electric field due to one plate =
2d
QV CV 2
Force = = .
2d 2d A B
4 4
389. 2× πr3 = πR3 or R = 21/3 r 4/3 µF
3 3
or C′ = 21/3 C = 1.26 C. Fig. 144
390. Charge that flows from battery to capacitor
= (K – 1) CV FG 4 IJ 10
= (5 – 1) 10 × 12 µC = 480 µC
C = 2+
H 3 K µF =
3
µF
2.5
393. A=1A
I= 2q0 2q0
=
2.5 K+1 = 1
V = 1 × 2 volt = 2 volt 1+
K K
Q = CV 398. 3C = 30 (for parallel combination)
= 5 µF × 2 volt = 10 µC C = 10 µF
394. Q same ; CV = constant ; C less, V more
C
20 Again, = 30 (for series combination)
395. Parallel combination of [8F, 4F] and 4F gives F. 3
3
1 1 3 1 or C = 90 µF
Now, = + +
C 12 20 16 Clearly, we have to consider
series-parallel combination.
1 20 + 36 + 15 1 71 Consider a capacitor connected
or = or =
C 240 C 240 in parallel with a series com-
240 bination of two capacitors. Fig. 145
or C= F.
71 3C
396. The equivalent of the given network is : Now, = 30 or C = 20 µF
2
3 mF 6 mF Q Q Q 2Q
399. + + = 60 or = 60
2C C 2C C
Q
A B or = 30 volt
C
2 mF 4 mF
400. The equivalent of the given arrangement is shown
here.
Fig. 142
72 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Q2 Q2
U= =
2C 2ε 0 b
[Kl − (K − 1) a]
d
Q2 d
=
2ε 0b [Kl − (K − 1)a]
Fig. 146 402. Potential difference across the series combination of 3
µF and 6 µF = 60 volt
Capacity of parallel arrangement is 2C. So, we have
V1 C2 V1 6 2
to find the capacity of series combination of C and 2C. Now, = ; = =
V2 C1 V2 3 1
∴ Equivalent capacity
V1 2 40
(C) (2C) 2C2 2C 2ε A = =
= = = = 0 V1 + V2 3 60
C + 2C 3C 3 3d
This leads us to the right choice.
401. The given arrangement is a parallel combination of
two capacitors (i) air capacitor and (ii) dielectric
capacitor.
Note the special technique used in the solu-
tion of Q. 402.
ε0ba
Capacity of air capacitor =
d C
403. Capacity of each row =
ε b(l − a) 3
Capacity of dielectric capacitor = K 0
d C C C
Total capacity, Total capacity of three rows = + + =C
3 3 3
C= 0
ε ba Kε0b (l − a)
+ FG C IJ C2
d d
Cab =
(C)
H 2K = 2 = C
ε 0b ε b C 3C 3
= [a + K(l – a)] = 0 [Kl – (K – 1) a] C+
d d 2 2
ELECTROSTATICS 73
MCQs
SET III
with
More than one correct alternative
404. A parallel plate capacitor is connected across a bat- (c) During the process, a work is done by external force
tery. A dielectric slab is introduced between the plates, (d) During the process, the internal energy of the battery
the battery is still connected to the plates. Which of shall not change.
the following is incorrect ? 408. A dielectric slab of thickness d is inserted in a paral-
(a) Potential difference remains unchanged lel plate capacitor whose negative plate is at x = 0
(b) Charge on the plates is increased and positive plate is at x = 3d. The slab is equidistant
(c) The electric field is increased enormously from the plates. The capacitor is given some charge.
(d) The energy is decreased. As x goes from 0 to 3d,
(a) the magnitude of the electric field remains the same
405. The electric field and the electric potential at a point (b) the direction of the electric field remains the same
are E and V respectively. Which of the following is
(c) the electric potential increases continuously
incorrect ?
(d) the electric potential increases at first, then decreases and
(a) If E = 0, V must be zero (b) If V = 0, E must be zero
again increases. [IIT 1998]
(c) If E ≠ 0, V cannot be zero (d) If V ≠ 0, E cannot be zero.
409. Which of the following statements about an electric
406. In a parallel-plate capacitor of plate area A, plate sepa- field is correct ?
ration d and charge Q, the force of attraction be- (a) The electric field strength due to a point charge varies as
tween the plates F is proportional to 1/r2 where r is the distance from the charge.
(a) C (b) V 2 (b) Electric field strength is a vector quantity.
1 (c) The electric field strength at a point is a measure of the
(c) (d) All of these.
d force exerted on a unit positive charge at that point.
407. Identical dielectric (d) The electric field strength is zero at all points where the
slabs are inserted potential is zero.
into two identical ca- (e) The electric field strength at a point is a measure of the
pacitors A and B. potential gradient at that point.
These capacitors
410. Mark out the wrong options :
and a battery are
(a) The total charge of the universe is constant.
connected as shown
in Fig. 147. Now, (b) The total positive charge of the universe is constant.
the slab of capacitor (c) The total negative charge of the universe is constant.
B is pulled out with (d) The total number of charged particles in the universe is
battery remaining Fig. 147 constant.
connected. Which of the following is correct ? 411. A deutron and α-particle are placed in an electric
(a) During the process, the charge on the combination begins field. The forces acting on them are F1 and F2 , and
to decrease their accelerations are a1 and a2 respectively. Which
(b) Finally, charge on capacitor B will be same as on capacitor of the following is correct ?
A (a) F1 = F2 (b) F1 ≠ F2
(c) a1 = a2 (d) a1 ≠ a2
74 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
412. The electric potential decreases uniformly from (a) If Q1 changes, both E and φ will change
120 V to 80 V as one moves on the X-axis from (b) If Q2 changes, E will change but φ will not change
x = – 1 cm to x = + 1 cm. The electric field at the (c) If Q1 = 0 and Q2 ≠ 0 then E ≠ 0 but φ = 0
origin
(d) If Q1 ≠ 0 and Q2 = 0 then E = 0 but φ ≠ 0.
(a) must be equal to 20 V/cm
(b) may be equal to 20 V/cm 418. Following operations can be performed on a capaci-
(c) may be greater than 20 V/cm tor :
(d) may be less than 20 V/cm. X – connect the capacitor to a battery of emf E
413. Four charges, all of the same magnitude, are placed Y – disconnect the battery
at the four corners of a square. At the centre of the
Z – reconnect the battery with polarity reversed
square, the potential is V and the field is E. By suit-
able choices of the signs of the four charges, which of W – insert a dielectric slab in the capacitor.
the following can be obtained ? (a) In XYZ (perform X, then Y, then Z) the stored electric
(a) V = 0, E = 0 (b) V = 0, E ≠ 0 energy remains unchanged and no thermal energy is de-
veloped.
(c) V ≠ 0, E = 0 (d) V ≠ 0, E ≠ 0.
(b) The charge appearing on the capacitor is greater after the
414. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate
action XWY than after the action XYW.
separation d is charged to potential difference V and
then the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric (c) The electric energy stored in the capacitor is greater after
constant K is then inserted between the plates of the the action WXY than after the action XYW.
capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates. If (d) The electric field in the capacitor after the action XW is
Q, E and W denote respectively the magnitude of the same as that after WX.
charge on each plate, the electric field between the
419. A metal sphere of radius r, carrying charge q, lies
plates (after the slab is inserted), and work done on
inside an uncharged conducting shell of radius 2r. If
the system, in question, in the process of inserting
the slab, then they are joined by a metal wire,
ε AV ε K AV q
(a) Q = 0 (b) Q = 0 (a) charge shall flow from the sphere to the shell.
3
d d
2q
V ε AV 2
(d) W = 0
1 FG IJ (b) charge shall flow from the sphere to the shell
(c) E =
Kd 2d
1−
K
.
H K 3
(c) charge q shall flow from the sphere to the shell
[IIT 1991]
q2
415. Two large, parallel conducting plates are placed close (d) amount of heat will be produced.
16πε 0 r
to each other. The inner surfaces of the two plates
420. Which of the following quantities do not depend on
have surface charge densities + σ and – σ. The outer
the choice of zero potential or zero potential energy ?
surfaces are without charge. The electric field has a
magnitude of (a) potential at a point
(a) 2σ/ε0 in the region between the plates (b) potential difference between two points
(b) σ/ε0 in the region between the plates (c) potential energy of a two-charge system
(c) σ/ε0 in the region outside the plates (d) change in potential energy of a two-charge system.
(d) zero in the region outside the plates. 421. A ring with a uniform charge q and radius r, is placed
in the yz plane with its centre at the origin.
416. From the following statements for equipotential sur-
(a) The field at the origin is zero.
face, the correct statement is
(a) The potential difference between two points on the sur- q
(b) The potential at the origin is k .
face is zero r
(b) The direction of electric intensity is perpendicular to the q
(c) The field at the point (x, 0, 0) is k .
surface at that point x2
(c) No work is done in moving the charge on the surface q
(d) The field at the point (x, 0, 0) is k .
(d) The shape of the surface is always spherical. R2 + x2
417. Charges Q1 and Q2 lie inside and outside respectively 422. Correct statement is
of a closed surface S. Let E be the electric field at any (a) Condensers connected in series have the same charge
point on S and φ be the flux of electric field over the (b) Condensers connected in parallel have the same potential
closed surface. Which of the following is correct ? difference
ELECTROSTATICS 75
(c) Condensers connected in series, the potential across the 425. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a certain volt-
condenser of lowest capacity is also lowest age. Now, if the dielectric material (with dielectric
(d) In parallel connection of condensers, the charge on the constant k) is removed, then which of the following
condenser of least capacity is minimum. is incorrect ?
423. A parallel-plate capacitor is charged from a cell and (a) The capacitance increases by a factor k.
then isolated from it. The separation between the (b) The electric field reduces by a factor k.
plates is now increased. Which of the following is (c) The voltage across the capacitor decreases by a factor k.
correct ?
(d) The charge stored in the capacitor increases by a factor k.
(a) The force of attraction between the plates will decrease
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001]
(b) The field in the region between the plates will not change
426. Potential difference across a capacitor is doubled.
(c) The energy stored in the capacitor will increase
Which of the following is correct ?
(d) The potential difference between the plates will decrease.
(a) The capacity remains unchanged.
424. Charges q1 and q2 are placed inside and outside re-
(b) The charge on the capacitor is doubled.
spectively of an uncharged metallic shell. Their sepa-
(c) The field between the plates of the capacitor is doubled.
ration is r. Which of the following is correct ?
q1q2 (d) The energy associated with the capacitor becomes four
(a) The force on q1 is zero. (b) The force on q1 is k times of its initial value.
r2
q1q2
(c) The force on q2 is k . (d) The force on q2 is zero.
r2
Answers (Set III)
404. (c), (d) 405. (a), (b), (c), (d) 406. (a), (b), (c), (d) 407. (a), (b), (c) 408. (b), (c)
409. (a), (b), (c), (e) 410. (b), (c), (d) 411. (b), (c) 412. (b), (c) 413. (a), (b), (c), (d)
414. (a), (c), (d) 415. (b), (d) 416. (a), (b), (c) 417. (a), (b), (c) 418. (b), (c), (d)
419. (c), (d) 420. (b), (d) 421. (a), (b) 422. (a), (b), (d) 423. (b), (c)
424. (a), (c) 425. (a), (b), (c), (d) 426. (a), (b), (c), (d)
412. The electric field may or may not be along X-axis. XYW
413.
–q +q –q –q Q constant.
(c) WXY
C more, Q more
XYW
C more, Q same.
+q –q +q +q (d) In both the cases, the electric field is reduced by a
(a ) (b) factor of K.
Fig. 148 Fig. 149 419. (c) Charge resides on the outer surface.
q2
(d) Initial energy =
+q +q +q –q 2 × 4πε 0r
q2
Final energy =
2 × 4 πε0 (2r)
=
1
CV 2 1 − LM OP
1 (c) Following two arguments shall decide the correct-
2 KN Q ness of this choice.
ε 0 AV 2
=
LM1 − 1 OP . (i) Due to electrostatic induction, there will be charge
2d N KQ on the outer surface.
(ii) For an external point, the charge on the sphere
415. In the region between the plates,
behaves as if concentrated at the centre.
σ σ σ
E= + or E = 425. Capacitance will decrease. Both the electric field and
2ε 0 2ε 0 ε0 voltage shall increase. Again, Q = CV. Since C de-
416. Equipotential surfaces and electric lines of force con- creases therefore Q decreases.
stitute a mutually perpendicular network. 426. (a) Capacity is independent of potential difference.
417. Note that the electric field is due to all charges inside
(b) Q = CV ; Since V is doubled therefore Q is doubled.
the closed surface as well as outside.
418. (a) Thermal energy will be evolved due to flow of cur- V
(c) E = ; V is doubled ; E is doubled.
rent. d
(b) XWY 1
(d) U = CV 2 ; V is doubled ; U is quadrupled.
V constant ; C increased, Q increased 2
ELECTROSTATICS 77
SET IV MCQs
based on
TYPICAL NUMERICAL BANK
(Exclusively for Engineering Entrance Tests)
427. The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is 10 432. In the previous question, the electrical intensity at
µ F and it is given a charge of 40 µC. The electrical x = 0, is
energy stored in capacitor is 2q
(a) 2q (b)
(a) 8 × 10–3 erg (b) 8 × 102 erg 3
(c) 8 × 103 erg (d) 20 × 103 erg. 4q 4q
(c) (d) .
3 5
FG 10 IJ 433. The capacities of two conductors are C1 and C2 and
428. Electric charges of
H 3K × 10 –9 coulomb are placed
their respective potentials are V1 and V2 . If they are
at each of the four corners of a square of side 0.08 m. connected by a thin wire, then the loss of energy will
The potential at the intersection of the diagonals is be given by
(a) 900 volt (b) 900 2 volt C1C2 (V1 + V2 ) C1C2 (V1 − V2 )
(a) (b)
(c) 150 2 volt (d) 1500 2 volt. 2(C1 + C2 ) 2(C1 + C2 )
429. A particle of mass 0.002 kg and a charge 1 µC is held
C1C2 ( V1 − V2 )2 (C1 + C2 ) (V1 − V2 )
at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface at a (c) (d) .
2(C1 + C2 ) C1C2
distance of 1 m from a fixed charge of 1 mC. If the
particle is released, it will be repelled. The speed of 434. The capacities and connection of five capacitors are
the particle when it is at a distance of 10 m from the shown in the Fig. 152. The potential difference be-
fixed charge is tween the points A and B is 60 volt. Then the equiva-
(a) 60 m s–1 (b) 75 m s–1
lent capacity between A and B and the charge on 5
µF capacitance will be respectively
(c) 90 m s–1 (d) 100 m s–1.
430. A charged oil drop of mass 2.5 × 10 –7 kg is in space
between the two plates, each of area 2 × 10 –2 m2, of a
parallel plate capacitor. When the upper plate has a
charge of 5 × 10 –7 C and the lower plate has an equal
negative charge, the oil drop remains stationary. The
charge of the oil drop is : [Take g = 10 m s–2]
(a) 9 × 10 –1 C (b) 9 × 10 –6 C
(c) 8.85 × 10 –13 C (d) 1.8 × 10 –14 C.
431. An infinite number of charges, each numerically equal Fig. 152
to q but consecutive charges having opposite sign, (a) 44 µF, 300 µC (b) 16 µF, 150 µC
are placed along the x-axis at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x =
(c) 15 µF, 200 µC (d) 4 µF, 50 µC. [IIT 1984]
8 ...... and so on. Then the electrical potential at x =
435. Five identical plates, each of area A are joined as
0 due to this set of charges is
shown in the Fig. 153. The distance between the plates
2q
(a) 2q (b) is d. The plates are connected to a p.d. of V volts.
3
The charge on plates 1 and 4 will be
4q 4q
(c) (d) .
3 5
78 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
CE
(a) CE (b)
R2
CE R 1 CE R 2
(c) (d) .
R2 + r R2 + r
439. In the Fig. 156, charge and the potential difference
across the 4 µ F capacitor will be nearly
Fig. 153
ε AV 2ε 0 AV − ε 0 AV 2ε 0 AV
(a) 0 , (b) ,
d d d d
ε 0 AV − 2ε 0 AV − ε 0 AV − 2ε 0 AV
(c) , (d) , .
d d d d
[IIT 1984]
436. The numerical value of the charge on each plate of
the capacitor (see Fig. 154) is
Fig. 156
(a) 600 µC, 150 volt (b) 300 µC, 75 volt
(c) 800 µC, 200 volt (d) 580 µC, 145 volt.
440. A capacitor of 4 µ F charged to 50 V is connected to
another capacitor of 2 µF charged to 100 V with plates
of like charges connected together. The total energy
before and after connection in multiples of (10 –2 J) is
(a) 1.5 and 1.33 (b) 1.33 and 1.5
(c) 3.0 and 2.67 (d) 2.67 and 3.0.
[MP PMT 1992]
Fig. 154 441. The area of each plate of a parallel plate capacitor is
100 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 1 mm.
(a) 6 µC (b) 12 µC It is filled with mica of dielectric 6. The radius of the
(c) 18 µC (d) 3 µC. equivalent capacity of the sphere will be
437. A charged soap bubble of radius R and surface ten- (a) 47.7 m (b) 4.77 m
sion σ is in equilibrium with outside and inside pres- (c) 477 m (d) 4.7 km.
sures equal. The charge on the soap bubble is
442. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is sur-
(a) 32ε 0 π 2R 3σ (b) 128 ε 0π 2R 3σ rounded by an uncharged concentric conducting hol-
low spherical shell. Let the potential difference be-
(c) 128 ε 0 π 2R 3σ (d) 32 ε 0 π 2R 3σ . tween the surface of the solid sphere and that of the
438. Refer to the circuit shown in Fig. 155. The charge on outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is
the plates of the capacitor C is now given a charge of 3Q, the new potential differ-
ence between the same two surfaces is
(a) V (b) 2V
(c) 4V (d) – 2V. [IIT 1989]
→
443. Given : E = E0 xi. Consider an imaginary cubical
volume of edge l, with its edges parallel to the axes of
coordinates. The charge inside this volume is
(a) zero (b) ε0E0 l3
1 1
(c) E l3 (d) ε E l2.
ε0 0 6 0 0
Fig. 155
[Vardhman 2002]
ELECTROSTATICS 79
444. A parallel plate A/2 A/2 447. A hollow charged metal sphere has radius r. If the
capacitor of potential difference between its surface and a point
area A, plate K1 K2 d/2 at distance 3r from the centre is V, then the electric
separation d field intensity at distance 3r from the centre is
d
and capacitance V V
C is filled with (a) (b)
K3 6r 4r
three different V V
(c) (d) .
dielectric mate- A = Area of plates 3r 2r
A
rials having di- 448. Two identical thin rings, each of radius R metre, are
electric con- Fig. 157 co-axially placed at a distance R metre apart. Q1 cou-
stants K1 , K2 and K3 as shown in Fig. 157. If a single lomb and Q 2 coulomb are the charges uniformly
dielectric material is to be used to have the same spread on the two rings. The work done in moving a
capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric con- charge q from the centre of one ring to that of the
stant K is given by other is
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 (a) zero (b) q(Q1 – Q2) ( 2 – 1)/ 2 4πε0R
(a) = + + (b) = +
K K 1 K 2 2K 3 K K 1 + K 2 2K 3
2 q (Q 1 + Q 2 ) q(Q1 + Q 2 ) ( 2 + 1)
K 1K 2 (c) (d) .
(c) K = + 2K 3 (d) K = K1 + K2 + 2K3 . 4 πε 0R 2 . 4 πε 0R
K 1 + K2
[IIT 1992]
[IIT Screening 2000]
449. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners
445. Three charges Q,
of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the two
+ q and + q are
opposite corners of the square. If the resultant elec-
placed at the ver-
tices of a right an- tric field on Q is zero, then
gled isosceles tri- q
(a) Q = – (b) Q = − 2 2 q
angle as shown in 2 2
Fig. 158. The net
electrostatic en- (c) Q = – 2q (d) Q = 2 2 q .
ergy of the con- 450. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow
figuration is zero spheres of radii r and R (> r) such that the surface
Fig. 158
if Q is equal to densities are equal. The potential at the common cen-
−q − 2q tre is
(a) (b)
1+ 2 2+ 2 Q(R 2 + r 2 ) Q
(a) (b)
(c) – 2q (d) + q. 4 πε 0 (R + r) R+r
Q(R + r )
[IIT Screening 2000] (c) zero (d) .
4 πε 0 (R 2 + r 2 )
446. Due to a charge inside the cube, the electric field is :
(Fig. 159) Ex = 600x1/2, Ey = 0, Ez = 0. The charge [IIT 1981]
inside the cube is nearly 451. A capacitor is filled with two dielectrics of the same
dimensions but of dielectric constants 2 and 3 as
Y shown first in (a) and then in (b). The ratio of the
capacitances in the two arrangements is
0.1 m
O 2
2 3
X 3
0.1 m
Z (a) (b)
Fig. 160
Fig. 159
(a) 25 : 24 (b) 24 : 25
(a) 600 µC (b) 60 µC
(c) 12 : 13 (d) 13 : 12.
(c) 7 µµC (d) 6 µµC.
80 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
452. A capacitor of capacity C is connected with a battery (a) VAB = 100 volt, VBC = 100 volt
of potential V in parallel. The distance between its (b) VAB = 75 volt, VBC = 25 volt
plates is reduced to half at once, assuming that the (c) VAB = 25 volt, VBC = 75 volt
charge remains the same. Then to charge the capaci-
(d) VAB = 50 volt, VBC = 50 volt. [IIT 1979]
tor upto the potential V again, the energy given by
the battery will be 457. The resultant capacitance between A and B in the
(a) CV 2/4 (b) CV 2/2 following network is equal to
(c) 3CV 2/4 (d) CV 2.
453. 100 capacitors, each having a capacity of 10 µF, are
connected in parallel and are charged by a potential
difference of 100 kV. The energy stored in the capaci-
tors and the cost of charging them, if electrical en-
ergy costs 108 paise per kWh, will be
(a) 107 joule and 300 paise (b) 5 × 106 joule and 300 paise
(c) 5 × 106 joule and 150 paise
(d) 107 joule and 150 paise. [MP PET 1996]
454. In the circuit shown
here C1 = 6 µ F, C2 = 3
µ F and battery B = 20 Fig. 163
V. The switch S 1 is (a) 1 µF (b) 3 µF
first closed. It is then (c) 2 µF (d) 1.5 µF.
opened and after-
458. Four capacitors are connected as shown in Fig. 164.
wards S 2 is closed.
The approximate charge and potential across 8 µF
What is the final
capacitance will be respectively
charge on C2 ?
Fig. 161
(a) 120 µC (b) 80 µC
(c) 40 µC (d) 20 µC.
455. The electric field at the centre of an uniformly charged
ring is zero. What is the electric field at the centre of
a half ring if the charge on it be Q and its radius be R ?
1 Q 1 Q
(a) × (b) ×
4 πε 0 πR 2 4 πε 0 R 2
1 2Q 1 2Q Fig. 164
(c) × (d) × .
4πε 0 πR 2 4 πε 0 R 2
(a) 320 µC ; 40 volt (b) 400 µC ; 50 volt
456. In fig. 162, what is the potential difference between (c) 213 µC ; 27 volt (d) 360 µC ; 45 volt.
the point A and B and between B and C respectively
459. A charge q is uniformly distributed over the volume
in steady state ?
of a sphere of radius R. Assuming the dielectric con-
3 mF 1 mF stant to be unity throughout, the potential at the
B
centre of the sphere will be
9q 3 1 q
3 mF 1 mF (a) (b) . .
4πε 0R 2 4 πε 0 R
7q 1 1 q
(c) (d) . . .
1 mF 4πε 0R 7 4πε 0 R
10 W [Vardhman 2001]
460. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = – a and
x = + a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed
A 20 W C
100 V at the origin. The change in the electrical potential
Fig. 162
energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance
x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to
ELECTROSTATICS 81
(a) x (b) x2 R2 − R1 R2 + R1
(a) (b)
(c) x3 (d) 1/x. R 1R 2 R 1R 2
[IIT Screening 2002] R 1R 2 R 1R 2
(c) (d) .
461. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance R1 + R2 R2 – R1
C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and the [MP PET 2001]
other to V2 . The negative ends of the capacitors are 466. Consider a parallel plate ca-
connected together. When the positive ends are also pacitor of capacity 10 µ F (mi-
connected, the decrease in energy of the combined cro-farad) with air filled in the
system is gap between the plates. Now
1 1 one half of the space between
(a) C(V12 – V22) (b) C(V12 + V22)
4 4 the plates is filled with a di-
1 1 electric of dielectric constant
(c) C(V1 – V2)2 (d) C(V1 + V2)2.
4 4 4, as shown in Fig. 166. The
[IIT Screening 2002] capacity of the capacitor
changes to Fig. 166
462. Two identical metal plates are given positive charges
Q1 and Q2 ( < Q1 ) respectively. If they are now brought (a) 25 µF (b) 20 µF
close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with (c) 40 µF (d) 5 µF. [MP PET 2001]
capacitance C, the potential difference between them 467. Electric potential is given by : V = 6x – 8xy2 – 8y +
is 6yz – 4z2. Electric field at the origin is
(a) (Q1 + Q2)/(2C) (b) (Q1 + Q2)/C
(a) − 6i + 8 j (b) 6i − 8 j
(c) (Q1 – Q2)/C (d) (Q1 – Q2)/(2C).
(c) i + j (d) zero.
[IIT Screening 1999]
468. Figures given below represent roughly the electric
463. Two capacitors C1 = 2 C1 C2
lines of force due to three positive point charges of
µF and C2 = 6 µ F in
equal value. Guess the possibly correct representa-
series, are connected
tion.
in parallel to a third
capacitor C3 = 4 µ F.
This arrangement is C3
then connected to a
battery of emf = 2V, 2V
as shown in Fig. 165.
How much energy is
lost by the battery in Fig. 165
charging the capacitors ?
(a) 22 × 10 –6 J (b) 11 × 10 –6 J
FG 32 IJ × 10 FG 16 IJ × 10 ( a) (b)
H3K H3K
(c) –6 J (d) –6 J.
(a) Introducing a dielectric slab 496. A potential difference of 150 V is applied to two par-
(b) Introducing a metal plate of suitable thickness allel metal plates. If an electric field of 5000 Vm–1 is
(c) Reducing the potential difference produced between the plates, the plate separation is
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm
(d) Connecting another capacitor in series.
(c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm.
493. Fig. 172 shows three arrangements of an electron e
and two protons p, p. Which of the following is incor- 497. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential
rect ? V. The flux of the electric field through a closed sur-
face enclosing the capacitor is
D CV
(a) zero (b)
ε0
d d D
2CV CV
p e p (c) (d) .
e p p ε0 2ε 0
(a) (b)
498. Fig. 173 shows four situations in which charged par-
e D
ticles are at equal distances from the origin. The mag-
p
nitude of the net electric field at the origin is
d
Y Y
– 5q – 5q
p
(c)
2q – 3q 3q – 2q
Fig. 172
O X O X
(a) The net electrostatic force on the electron due to the pro-
tons is largest in arrangement b.
(b) The net electrostatic force on the electron due to the pro-
(a) (b)
tons is smallest in arrangement b.
(c) In arrangement c, the angle between the net electrostatic
Y Y
force on the electron and the line labelled d is less than –q
45°.
(d) The net electrostatic force on the electron due to the pro-
4q –q q – 4q
tons is largest in arrangement a.
O X O X
494. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. A
metal sheet of negligible thickness is placed between
the plates. The sheet remains parallel to the plates of 5q 4q
the capacitor. Which of the following is correct ?
(c) (d)
(a) The battery will supply more charge.
(b) The capacitance will increase. Fig. 173
(c) The potential difference between the plates will increase.
(a) same in all situations (b) maximum in (a)
(d) Equal and opposite charges will appear on the two faces of (c) maximum in (b) (d) same in (c) and (d).
the metal plate.
499. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery
495. The electric field outside a charged long straight wire which is then disconnected. Then, the distance be-
5000 tween the plates is decreased. Which of the following
is given by E = – Vm–1. It is radially inward.
r is incorrect ?
The value of VB – VA is : [Given rB = 60 cm and rA = (a) The charge increases.
30 cm]
(b) The potential difference decreases.
(a) 5000 loge 2 volt (b) 0 V (c) The electric field remains unchanged.
(c) 2 V (d) 2500 V. (d) The stored energy decreases.
ELECTROSTATICS 85
4 × 9 × 109 ×
10
× 10 −9 FG q + q + q + ......IJ − FG q + q + q + ......IJ
= 3 volt
431. V=
H 1 4 16 K H 2 8 32 K
0.04 × 2 q
12000 q 2
= × 2 volt = 1500 2 volt. V= −
4×2 1 1
1− 1−
4 4
1 1 q1q2 1 q1q2
429. mv2 + = 4q 4q 8q − 4q 4q 2q
2 4πε 0 r2 4 πε 0 r1 V= − = = =
3 6 6 6 3
1
mv2 =
1 LM
1 1 OP q FGq q IJ
or
2 4 πε 0
q1q2 −
N
r1 r2 Q 432. E=
12 H
+ 2 +
4 162
+ ......
K
1 FG q + q + q IJ
or
2
× 0.002 × v2 −
H 2 8 32
2 2 2
+ ......
K
q
=
9 × 109 × 10− 6 × 10−3 1
−
LM
1 OP q 4
1 1 10 N Q =
1
−
1− 1−
1
16 16
2×9×9
or v2 = 16 q q 16 16 q 3 4 q
0.002 × 10 = − × = × = .
15 4 15 15 4 5
1 1 433. Refer to Comprehensive Physics for class XII.
or v2 = 2 × 9 × 9 × −3
×
2 × 10 10 434. 10 µF, 5 µF, and 9 µF are in parallel. The combined
or v2 = 9 × 9 × 102 or v = 90 m s–1 capacity of the parallel combination is 24 µF.
Now, 12 µF, 24 µF and 8 µF are in series.
86 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
∴ = + + 439. = + +
C 12 24 8 C 20 8 12
1 12 + 6 + 18 1 6 + 15 + 10 120
or = or = or C = µF
C 144 C 120 31
144 120
or C= µF or C = 4 µF Now, Q = CV = × 300 µC
36 31
Total charge = 4 µF × 60 V = 240 µC Charge across 4 µF
240 µC 120 × 300
Again, voltage across 24 µF is or 10 V = µC = 580.6 µC
24 µF 31 × 2
∴ Charge on 5 µF capacitor Voltage across 4 µF
= 5 µF × 10 V = 50 µC. 580.6
= V = 145.15 V.
ε A 4
435. C12 = 0
d 440. Total energy before connection
ε 0 AV 1
q1 = C12V = = × 4 × 10–6 × 50 × 50
d 2
ε0 A 1
Now, C23 = + × 2 × 10– 6 × 100 × 100
d 2
ε0 A
C34 = = 5 × 10–3 + 10 × 10–3
d = 15 × 10–3 = 1.5 × 10–2 J
C23 and C34 are connected in parallel.
If V be the common potential after connection, then
2ε 0 A
∴ C14 = (4 + 2)V = 4 × 50 + 2 × 100
d
2ε 0 AV or 6V = 200 + 200
Charge on plate 4 = −
d 400 200
or V= volt or V = volt
This charge is negative because plate 4 is connected 6 3
to the negative terminal of the source of emf. Total energy after connection
436.
5V
I= =1A 1 FG IJ
200
2
5Ω =
2
(4 + 2)
3H K × 10− 6
Voltage across 4 Ω = 4 × 1 volt = 4 volt
200 × 200
Combined capacity of series combination of 3 µF and =3× × 10− 6
3×3
3
3 µF = µF 40000
2 = × 10– 6 = 1.33 × 10–2 J.
3
3
Charge = µF × 4 volt = 6 µC K ε0 A
2 441. = 4πε0 R
d
4σ (Surface charge density)2
437. = KA
R 2ε 0 R=
4πd
4σ 1 Q2 6 × 100 × 10−4 × 7
= = m = 4.77 m
R 2ε 0 16 π 2R 4 4 × 22 × 1 × 10−3
or Q2 = 128 ε0 π2R3σ 442. Let a and b represent the radii of the sphere and shell
respectively.
or Q = 128ε0 π 2R 3σ .
1 Q 1 Q
E V= −
438. I= 4 πε 0 a 4πε 0 b
R2 + r
ER2 or V=
Q LM1 1
−
OP
Voltage across R2 = IR2 =
R2 + r N
4 πε 0 a b Q
Q = CV When charge ‘– 3Q’ is given to the shell,
Q =
CE R 2
. V′sphere =
1 LM
Q − 3Q
+
OP
R2 + r 4 πε0 aN b Q
ELECTROSTATICS 87
or V′shell =
1 LM
Q − 3Q
+
OP 445.
Qq
+
q2 Q q
+ =0
4 πε0 b N b Q 2a a a
Q
Now, V′sphere – V′shell or +q+Q=0
=
1 LM
Q 3Q Q 3Q
− − +
OP 2
LM OP
4πε0 a Nb b b Q or Q
1
+1 =–q
N Q
1 LM Q − Q OP = V . 2
=
4πε 0 Na bQ or Q=
1+ 2
− 2q
or Q =
− 2q
2+ 2
443. Net flux = E0(x + l)l2 – E0xl2 = E0l3
1
446. q = 600 0.2 × 0.1 × 0.1 – 600 0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1
ε0
q = 8.85 × 10–12 × 6[ 0.2 − 0.1 ]
q = 53.1 × 10–12 [0.447 – 0.316]
q = 53.1 × 0.131 × 10–12 C
q ≈ 7 µµ C.
O 1 q q LM OP
1 3q − q
x 447. V=
4 πε0 r 3r
−
N or V =
Q
4 πε0 3r
x+l 1 2q
or V=
4 πε 0 3r
Fig. 174 1 q
Again, E=
4 πε 0 9r 2
Using Gauss’s law,
E 1 3 1 V
1 = × = or E =
q = E0l3 or q = ε0 E0l3 V 9r 2 6r 6r
ε0 448. Potential at the centre of ring II
ε A/2 K ε A
444. C1 = K1 0 or C1 = 1 0 √2 R
d/2 d
K ε A
C2 = 2 0 R
d
K ε A 2K 3ε 0 A
C3 = 3 0 =
d/2 d
I II
ε A
C12 = C1 + C2 = 0 (K1 + K2) Fig. 175
d
C12C3 1 Q2 1 Q1
Now, C123 =
C12 + C3 = +
4πε 0 R 4 πε 0 2R
ε0 A 2K 3ε0 A Potential at the centre of ring I
(K 1 + K 2 )
or C123 = d d 1 Q1 1 Q2
ε0 A 2K 3 ε 0 A = +
(K 1 + K 2 ) + 4πε 0 R 4πε 0 2R
d d
Potential difference
2K 3ε 0 A
or Kε 0 A
=
(K 1 + K 2 )
d =
1 Q1LM
+
Q2 Q
− 2 −
Q1 OP
d K 1 + K 2 + 2K 3 4πε 0 R N 2R R 2R Q
2K 3 (K 1 + K 2 ) =
1 LM Q 1 − Q2 Q1 − Q2
−
OP
or K=
K 1 + K 2 + 2K 3 4πε 0 N R 2R Q
1 K 1 + K 2 + 2K 3 1 (Q 1 − Q 2 )( 2 − 1)
or = =
K 2K 3 (K 1 + K 2 ) 4 πε 0 2R
1 1 1 q(Q1 − Q2 )( 2 − 1)
or = + . Work done =
K 2K 3 K 1 + K 2 2 4πε 0R
88 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
z
In fig. (b) +
FG 2ε A IJ FG 3ε A IJ
2
E= d E cos θ
H d/2 K H d/2 K
0 0
π
C′ = −
2 ε 0 A 3ε 0 A 2
+ π
z
d/2 d/2 +
2
ε0A 1 dq
6 E= cos θ
d/2 4 πε 0 R 2
C′ = −
π
5 2
π
z
12ε0 A +
C′ = 2
5d 1 dl Q
= cos θ
C 5ε 0 A 5d 25 4πε 0R 2 πR
= × = −
π
C′ 2d 12ε 0 A 24 2
π
z
452. Following arguments shall decide the right choice. +
2
(i) Distance is halved. Capacity is doubled. R Rdθ cos θ
=
(ii) Since charge remains the same and capacity is 4π ε 0R 2
2
π
R
−
V 2
doubled therefore potential become . π
2 +
(iii) To restore potential to V, an additional charge CV Q 2
= sin θ
should be given to the capacitor. 4π ε 0R 2
2
−
π
2
ELECTROSTATICS 89
Q LM
π π FG IJ OP = 1 2Q ∴ V18 =
2
× 40 =
80
V ≈ 27 V
= 2
4π ε 0R 2
sin − sin −
2N 2 H K Q 4πε 0 πR 2
3 3
456. 3 µF and 3 µF are in par- 80 640
Q8 = 8 µF × V= µC ≈ 213 µC
allel. So, the combined 3 3
capacity is 6 µF. 1 µF and 459. Potential at the centre due to thin spherical shell of
1 µF are in parallel. So, radius r and thickness dr, dV
the combined capacity is
1 4 πr 2 dr ρ ρ
2 µF. = = r dr
4 πε 0 r ε0
Now, 6 µF and 2 µF are
in series. Their combined Fig. 178 Potential due to given sphere
z
R R
6×2 12 3 ρ ρ r2
capacity is µF i.e., µF or µF. It is in = r dr =
6+2 8 2 ε0 ε0 2
parallel with 1 µF. Thus, the combined capacity is 0 0
FG 3 + 1IJ µF i.e., 5 R2
2
ρ R 1 q
= =
H2 K 2
µF ε0 2 ε 0 4 πR 3 2
3
Now, Q = CV
3 1 q
=
5 2 4πε 0 R
µF × 100 V = 250 µC
=
2 1 2qq′
Charge in 6 µF – 2 µF branch 460. Ui =
4 πε 0 a
3
= µF × 100 V = 150 µC q q′ q
2 X′ X
–a O +a
150
∴ VAB = V = 25 V
6 Fig. 180
VBC = (100 – 25) V = 75 V
457. The equivalent of the given network is : Uf =
qq′ 1LM+
1 OP
N
4 πε 0 a + x a − x Q
∆U =
qq′ LM 1 + 1 − 2 OP
4 πε 0 N a + x a − x aQ
=
qq′ LM a(a − x) + a(a + x) − 2(a 2
− x2 ) OP
4 πε 0 MN 2
a( a − x ) 2
PQ
qq′ 2 x2
=
4 πε0 a(a2 − x 2 )
Fig. 179
Neglecting x2 in comparison to a2
This network is equivalent to a series combination of
qq′
three capacitors, each of capacity 3 µF. So, the com- ∆U = x2 or ∆U ∝ x2.
2πε0 a3
bined capacity is 3 µF i.e., 1 µF. 461. Loss of energy
3
458. In the given network, 6 µF, 4 µF and 8 µF are in
parallel. Their combined capacity is 18 µF. It is in
1 1 V + V2
C V12 + V22 − (2C) 1
LM OP 2
z
= 150 pF. rB rB
488. Q1 = 1500 µC, Q2 = 100 µC, − 5000
495. VB – V A = − dr = 5000 log r
15 r
rA rA
C1 = µF = 1 µF, C2 = 1 µF
15
Q + Q2 1600 µC = 5000 [loge rB – loge rA] = 5000 log e rB
Now, V= 1 = = 800 V. rA
C1 + C2 2 µF
60
489. By symmetry, the field at the centre would be zero if = 5000 loge = 5000 loge 2 volt.
there is a charge q at the vacant corner. So, electric 30
field due to this imaginary charge must be equal and V V
496. E=
or d =
opposite to the combined electric field of all the four d E
given charges. 150 15000
→ → or d= m or d = cm = 3 cm.
490. ∆S on cylindrical surface perpendicular to E . 5000 5000
→ → 497. Net charge enclosed is zero.
∴ Σ E . ∆S = 0 . 498. Determine fields in each case.
491. Note that the angle at O1 is 120°. Since only one-
499. When distance is decreased, capacity is increased ; V
third of the ring is inside the sphere therefore the
is constant ; charge increased.
q
charge enclosed by the sphere = . Now, use Gauss’s
3
law.
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
O The electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere of radius R as a function of the distance from its centre is
represented graphically by :
E E E E
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O R r O R r O R r O R r
Fig. 180
[AIIMS 2004]
1
Solution. Inside the sphere, E ∝ r. Outside the sphere, E ∝ . So, (b) is the right choice.
r2
O A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance ‘C’. It is discharged through a small coil of resistance wire embedded
in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity ‘s’ and mass ‘m’. If the temperature of the block is raised by
‘∆T ’, the potential difference ‘V ’ across the capacitance is
2 ms∆T ms∆T mC∆T 2 mC∆T
(a) (b) (c) (d) [AIEEE 2005]
C C s s
Ans. (a)
Explanation. 1 C V 2 = ms∆T or V = 2 m s ∆T
2 C
92 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on UNIT XI
1. A point charge q is situated at X between two parallel 3. A gold nucleus (radius r) is represented by the
plates which have a potential difference V and carry symbol 197 Au. Taking e as the elementary charge and
79
charges + Q and – Q. What is the electric field ε0 as the permittivity of free space, what is the elec-
strength at X ? tric field strength at the surface of an isolated gold
nucleus ?
79 e
(a) zero (b)
4 πε0 r 2
197 e 79 e2
(c) (d)
2
4 πε 0 r 4 πε0 r 2
197 e2
(e) .
4 πε0 r 2
8. The diagram shows electric field lines around two 12. 64 drops, each having the capacity C and potential
isolated point charges P and Q. At X, the field V, are combined to form a big drop. If the charge on
strength is zero. the small drop is q, then the charge on the big drop
will be
(a) 2q (b) 4q
(c) 16q (d) 64q.
13. Which of the following plates should be inserted be-
tween the plates of a parallel plate capacitor in order
to obtain maximum capacitance ?
P Q
x (a) 4 mm thick glass plate (K = 7)
(b) 0.20 mm thick mica plate (K = 6)
(c) 2.0 cm thick amber plate (K = 2)
(d) All will give the same capacity.
14. Fig. 185 shows some
of the electric field
Fig. 184
lines corresponding
Which of the following statements is true ? to an electric field.
(a) Q is a smaller charge than P because X is closer to P than Q The figure suggests
that Fig. 185
(b) Field strength is always proportional to the distance from
X (a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC
(c) The potential at Q is less than the potential at P (c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB.
(d) The field lines show that both charges are positive 15. A body acquires positive charge. This means that the
(e) The potential at X is zero.
body
(a) has gained protons (b) has gained positrons
9. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight
(c) has gained α-particles (d) has lost electrons.
(a) remains precisely constant [MGIMS 1997]
(b) increases slightly 16. Three point charges, as
(c) decreases slightly shown, are placed at the
(d) may increase slightly or may decrease slightly. vertices of an isosceles
right angled triangle.
[MGIMS 2002]
Which of the numbered
10. You are travelling in a car during thunder storm. In vectors coincides in direc-
order to protect yourself from lightning, you would tion with the electric field
prefer to at the mid-point of the hy-
Fig. 186
(a) remain in the car potenuse ?
(b) take shelter under a tree (a) 1 (b) 2
(d) get out of the car and stand in some open space. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993]
[JIPMER 2001] 17. A capacitor of capacity C has charge Q and stored
energy is W. If the charge is increased to 2Q, the
11. A parallel plate capacitor has charge Q coulomb, po-
stored energy will be
tential V volt and energy E joule. A dielectric slab is
(a) 2W (b) W/2
now inserted between the two plates. Then
(c) 4W (d) W/4.
(a) V and E both decrease
(b) V and E both increase 18. The capacity of a parallel plate air condenser is 2
µµF. If the distance between the plates is 4 cm and
(c) V decreases, E increases
the area of each plate is 0.01 m2, the value of permit-
(d) V increases, E decreases.
tivity of air and its units are respectively
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999]
94 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 8 × 10–12 ; farad metre–1 25. Let V and E be the potential and the field respec-
(b) 5 × 10–13 ; farad metre–1 tively at a point. Which of the following assertions is
(c) 8 × 10–12 ; farad-metre correct ?
(d) 5 × 10–13 ; farad-metre. [MP PET 1990] (a) If V = 0, E must be zero. (b) If V ≠ 0, E cannot be zero.
(c) If E ≠ 0, V cannot be zero. (d) None of these.
19. The charge given to a hollow sphere of radius 5 cm is
20 stat coulomb. The potential inside it will be [AFMC 1998]
(a) Zero (b) 4 esu 26. The intensity of electric field at a point between the
(c) – 4 esu (d) 100 esu. plates of a charged capacitor
(a) is directly proportional to the distance between the plates
20. A pellet carrying charge of 0.5 coulomb is acceler-
ated through a potential of 2,000 volt. It attains a (b) is inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
kinetic energy equal to (c) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance be-
(a) 1000 erg (b) 1000 joule tween the plates
(c) 1000 kWh (d) 500 erg. (d) does not depend upon the distance between the plates.
21. A light bulb, a capacitor [MP PET 1996]
and a battery are con- 27. On bringing 0.4 coulomb of electric charge from in-
nected together as finity to the point P, the work done is 20 joule. Then
shown here, with switch the potential at P will be
S initially open. When (a) 50 volt (b) 8 volt
the switch S is closed, (c) 1000 volt (d) 160 volt.
which one of the follow-
Fig. 187 [Pb. PMT 1998]
ing is true ?
(a) The bulb will light up for an instant when the capacitor 28. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and
starts charging. then brought in contact, then
(b) The bulb will light up when the capacitor is fully charged. (a) the total energy of the two spheres is conserved
(c) The bulb will not light up at all. (b) the total charge on the two spheres is conserved
(d) The bulb will light up and go off at regular intervals. (c) both the total energy and charge are conserved
[MP PMT 1995] (d) the final potential is always the mean of the original
potentials of the two spheres.
22. Value of potential at a point due to a point charge is
[Bharti Vidyapeeth 2000]
(a) inversely proportional to square of the distance
29. A condenser of capacitance 10 µ F has been charged
(b) directly proportional to square of the distance
to 100 volt. It is now connected to another uncharged
(c) inversely proportional to the distance condenser in parallel. The common potential becomes
(d) directly proportional to the distance. [MP PET 1996] 40 volt. The capacitance of another condenser is
23. A spring-block system undergoes vertical oscillation (a) 15 µF (b) 5 µF
above a large horizontal metal sheet with uniform (c) 10 µF (d) 16.6 µF. [MP PET 1992]
positive charge. The time period of the oscillation is
30. A capacitor having capacitance C is charged to a volt-
T. If the block is given a charge Q, its time period of
age V. It is then removed and connected in parallel
oscillation will be
with another identical capacitor which is uncharged.
(a) T (b) > T The new charge on each capacitor is now
(c) < T (a) CV (b) CV/2
(d) > T if Q is positive and < T if Q is negative. (c) 2CV (d) CV/4. [MP PET 1990]
[MNR 1997] 31. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity C which
24. A charge of 10 –9 C is placed on each of the 64 identi- has been raised to a potential V is given by
cal drops of radius 2 cm. They are then combined to
1 1
form a bigger drop. The potential of the bigger drop (a) CV (b) CV 2
2 2
is
(a) 7.2 × 103 V (b) 7.2 × 102 V 1
(c) CV (d) . [RPMT 1999]
2VC
(c) 1.44 × 102 V (d) 1.44 × 103 V.
32. When two charged conductors are connected by a
[MP PET 1997]
thin wire, the change in electrical potential energy
will not occur, if
ELECTROSTATICS 95
(a) the capacity of two conductors is equal 40. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charg-
(b) the potential of two conductors is equal ing battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the
(c) the charge on the two conductors is the same capacitor are moved further apart by means of insu-
(d) for both the conductors, the value of C/V is the same.
lating handles, then
(a) the charge on the capacitor increases
[RPMT 2000]
(b) the voltage across the plates decreases
33. Two condensers of capacities 1 µ F and 2 µ F are con-
(c) the capacitance increases
nected in series and the system is charged to 120
volt. Then the potential difference on 1 µ F capacitor (d) the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases.
will be [IIT 1987 ; MP PMT 1996]
(a) 40 V (b) 60 V 41. A table tennis ball which has been covered with con-
(c) 80 V (d) 120 V. [RPMT 2001] ducting paint is suspended by a silk thread so that it
hang between two plates, out of which one is earthed
34. Capacitors connected in series have
and other is connected to a high voltage generator.
(a) same difference of potential across each capacitor
This ball
(b) numerically the same charge on each plate of all capacitors
(a) is attracted towards high voltage plate and stays there
(c) C = C1 + C2 + C3
(b) hangs without moving
(d) None of the above. [TNPCEE 2001] (c) swings backward and forward hitting each plate in turn
35. What is the effect on soap bubble when some charge (d) is attracted to earthed plate and stays there.
is given to it ?
[All India PM/PD 1994]
(a) Its size is increased. (b) Its size is decreased.
42. An electron (charge = 1.6 × 10 –19 coulomb) is acceler-
(c) There is no effect on size. (d) The bubble collapses.
ated through a potential of 1,00,000 volt. The energy
[DCE 2001] acquired by the electron is
36. The electric field at the origin is along the positive X- (a) 1.6 × 10–24 joule (b) 1.6 × 10–14 erg
axis. A small circle is drawn with the centre at the (c) 0.53 × 10 –14
joule (d) 1.6 × 10–14 joule.
origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C and D hav-
[MP PET 1989]
ing co-ordinates (a, 0), (0, a), (– a, 0), (0, – a) respec-
tively. Out of the points on the periphery of the cir- 43. Two charges are placed a finite distance apart. If a
cle, the potential is minimum at glass slab is placed between them, force between them
(a) A (b) B
will
(a) be zero (b) increase
(c) C (d) D.
(c) decrease (d) remain the same.
[Bharti Vidyapeeth 2001]
44. If the potential difference across the ends of a capaci-
37. Work done in moving a positive charge on an equipo-
tor of capacity 4 µ F is 1.0 kilovolt, then its electrical
tential surface is
potential energy will be
(a) finite, positive but not zero
(a) 4 × 10–3 erg (b) 2 erg
(b) finite, negative but not zero
(c) 2 joule (d) 4 joule. [DCE 2001]
(c) zero
45. The energy of a charged conductor is given by the
(d) infinite. [Himachal PMT 1998]
expression (q = charge on the conductor and c = its
38. The work done in carrying a charge of 5 µC from a capacity)
point A to a point B in an electric field is 10 mJ. The
potential difference (VB – VA ) is then q2 q2
(a) (b)
(a) + 2 kV (b) – 2 kV 2c c
(c) + 200 V (d) – 200 V. (c) 2qc (d) q .
[Kurukshetra CEE 1996] 2c2
39. A hollow metallic sphere of radius 3 cm is charged so [MP PMT 1989]
that potential on its surface becomes 5 volt. The po- 46. Three capacitors of capacity 10 µ F, 5 µ F and 5 µ F
tential at the centre of sphere will be (in volt) are connected in parallel. The total capacity will be
(a) Zero (b) 5 (a) 10 µF (b) 5 µF
(c) 3 (d) 10. [MP PET 1995] (c) 20 µF (d) None of these.
[MP PET/PMT 1988]
96 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
47. A particle has a mass 400 times than that of the elec- 49. Faraday’s ice-pail experiment shows that
tron and charge is double than that of a electron. It (a) charge resides on the outside of a conductor
is accelerated by 5 V of potential difference. Initially (b) a gold leaf electroscope deflects more if a charge similar to
the particle was at rest. Then its final kinetic energy its own charge is brought near it
will be (c) magnetism is a form of electrical phenomenon
(a) 5 eV (b) 10 eV (d) charge consists of an excess of or lack of electrons.
(d) 100 eV (d) 2000 eV.
[All India PM/PD 1994]
[MP PMT 1990]
50. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and
48. The capacity of a conductor in the presence of dielec- B. The electric potential at the points between A and
tric medium B (excluding these points) is studied while moving
(a) increases with dielectric medium from A to B. The potential
(b) decreases with dielectric medium (a) continuously increases (b) continuously decreases
(c) proportional to the square root of dielectric constant (c) increases then decreases (d) decreases then increases.
(d) remains unchanged. [AMU 1996] [AIIMS 1998]
Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (e) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c)
17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a)
25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (b)
33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a)
49. (a) 50. (d)
Solutions
1. The electric field strength in a parallel-plate capaci- 4. Force F between two small charged spheres at a dis-
tor with applied voltage of V and separation d is given tance r apart is given by
by 1 Q 1Q 2
F=
V 4 πε r 2
E= .
d where Q1 and Q2 are charges on the charged spheres.
2. Plate P2 is charged by the process of electrostatic in- FG Q Q IJ
H 4πε K
⇒ log F = log 1 2 – 2 log r
duction. The free induced positive charge is neutral-
ised by electrons flowing up from the Earth surface.
The graph of log F against log r is thus a straight line
of gradient equal to – 2.
While negative induced charge is a bound
5. Since electric field strength E at a point is defined as
charge, the positive induced charge is a free charge.
dV
the negative of the potential gradient , we have
3. Electric field strength E at distance dx
r from the centre of the nucleus is dV
E= −
79e dx
E=
4 πε0r 2 Thus, in the direction indicated by an electric field
line (x-direction), the potential must decrease (dV ↓)
[Charge with the nucleus is 79e.]
for increasing x (∆x ↑).
Fig.188
ELECTROSTATICS 97
6. Potential is work done per unit charge. 14. Crowding of electric lines of force represents a strong
8. From the diagram, we can conclude that electric field.
15. Positive charge means deficiency of electrons.
16. Fields due to – Q and + Q add up to NW side ; that
due to 2Q has same value but on NE side.
Sum northward.
Q2
17. W =
Fig. 189 2C
(a) Q is the larger charge because X is closer to P Q is doubled, W is quadrupled.
than Q ε 0 × 0.01
18. 2 × 10–12 =
qP qQ q F I
r
2 4 × 10 −2
When EP = EQ =
4 πεrP 2
=
4 πεrQ2 qQ GH JK
, ∴ P = P
rQ 2 × 10 −12 × 4 × 10 −2
or ε0 = F m–1
Since rQ > rP, then qQ > qP 0.01
(b) Field strength is always proportional to the in- = 8 × 10–12 F m–1
verse squared distance from X as it can be readily
Q
seen from the expression in (a). 19. V=
(c) The potential at P or Q is infinitely large since the
C
potential at the location of an isolated charge is 20
V= esu = 4 esu
theoretically infinite. 5
(d) Both charges are positive since the field lines are 20. U = qV = 0.5 × 2000 joule = 1000 joule
radially outwards from the charges. 21. Initially capacitor acts like a short-circuit and finally
(e) The potential at X is not zero and is given by like an open switch.
qP qQ 23. Period of oscillation of a spring is independent of the
VX = + . ‘effective value of acceleration due to gravity’.
4 πεrP 4πεrQ
9. During rubbing, there is a transfer of electrons. 4 4
24. 64 × π × 23 = πR3
10. Electrostatic shielding is required. 3 3
11. On introducing the dielectric slab, C increases, Q re- R = 2 × 4 cm = 8 cm
mains constant, hence V decreases (Q = VC) and E
also decreases (E = Q2/2C). 9 × 109 × 64 × 10−9
Now, V= volt
12. Add up the charges on the individual drops. 8 × 10−2
ε0A = 7.2 × 103 volt
13. C=
t
d −t+ σ
K 26. E = ; Clearly, E is independent of the distance
ε0
ε 0A between the plates.
C=
FG t IJ
H
d− t−
K K 27. V =
W 20
= volt =
200
volt = 50 volt.
q 0.4 4
C would be minimum if t – t is minimum.
K 28. Conservation of charge.
4 24 29. 10 × 100 = (10 + C) 40
(a) 4 – = = 3.4
7 7 1000
or C + 10 = or C = (25 – 10) µF
0.2 40
(b) 0.2 – = 0.013
6 or C = 15 µF
20 V
(c) 20 – = 10 30. CV = (2 C)V′ or V′ =
2 2
Clearly, (b) is the right choice. CV
∴ New charge on each capacitor is .
2
98 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
10 × 10 −3
38. VB – VA = volt = 2 kV.
5 × 10 −6
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is :
2 πq 4 πq
(a) (b)
6 (4πε 0 ) 6 (4πε 0 )
πq q
(c) (d) [All India PM/PD 2003]
6 (4πε 0 ) 6 (4πε 0 )
q
Solution. Using Gauss’s law, ΦE =
ε0
q 4 πq
Flux through one face, φ= =
6ε 0 6(4 πε 0 )
So, (b) is the right choice.
l Three capacitors each of capacity 4 m F are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is 6 µ F.
This can be done by
(a) connecting all of them in series (b) connecting them in parallel
(c) connecting two in series and one in parallel (d) connecting two in parallel and one in series.
[All India PM/PD 2003]
Solution. It is a parallel combination of 2 µF and 4 µF.
This gives 6 µF. 4 F 4 F
So, (c) is the right choice.
4 F
Fig. 190
ELECTROSTATICS 99
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XI
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
1. A sphere of 4 cm radius is suspended within a hollow (a) 1.2 × 10–33 N (b) 6.0 × 10–32 N
sphere of 6 cm radius. The inner sphere is charged to (c) 7.5 × 10–17 N (d) 3.8 × 10–15 N
a potential 3 esu when the outer sphere is earthed. (e) 7.5 × 10 –15
N.
The charge on the inner sphere is
6. In the circuit shown, a capacitor of capacitance 3 µ F
1 is charged from a batery of emf 6 V with the switch
(a) esu (b) 30 esu
4 connected to terminal P.
(c) 36 esu (d) 54 esu. [MP PMT 1991] Q
P
2. The capacitance of a spherical condenser is 1 µ F. If
the spacing between the two spheres is 1 mm, then
the approximate radius of the outer sphere is
6V
(a) 3 m (b) 5 cm
3 mF 6 mF
(c) 6 m (d) 30 cm.
3. The radii of the inner and outer spheres of a con-
denser are 9 cm and 10 cm respectively. If the dielec-
Fig. 192
tric constant of the medium between the two spheres
is 6 and charge on the inner sphere is 18 × 10 –9 cou- The switch is now connected to Q. This charges the
lomb, then the potential of inner sphere will be, if the 6 µ F capacitor from the 3 µ F one.
outer sphere is earthed, What is the new potential difference across the com-
(a) 18 V (b) 30 V bination ?
(c) 90 V (d) 180 V. (a) 1 V (b) 2 V
4. A 20 µ F capacitor is charged by a constant current (c) 4 V (d) 6 V.
of 10 mA. If the capacitor is initially uncharged, how 7. Charge is sprayed on to the belt of a Van de Graff
long does it take for the potential difference across generator by a sharp needle P (maintained at + 5 kV)
the capacitor to reach 300 V ? and is transferred to the dome via a second sharp
(a) 6.0 × 10–4 s (b) 0.60 s needle Q, connected to the interior of the dome as
shown in figure below.
(c) 15 s (d) 1.5 × 104 s
(d) 6.0 × 105 s.
5. The potential en-
ergy E P of an
electron in a uni-
form electric field
between two cha-
rged plates 0.02
m apart varies
with displace-
ment x from one Fig. 191
of the plates as
shown in Fig. 191. Fig. 193
What is the force on the electron ?
100 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
+ –
X Y
Battery
Fig. 194
8. The energy density in the electric field created by a
point charge falls off with the distance from the point Fig. 196
charge as
If the sphere is initially placed in contact with X as
1 1 shown in the diagram, which statement best de-
(a) (b)
r r2 scribes its subsequent motion ?
(a) It remains in contact with plate X
1 1 (b) It moves to plate Y and sticks to it
(c) (d) .
r3 r4 (c) It moves back and forth continuously, touching each plate
in turn
9. An oil drop of weight mg is observed to float freely
between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, the (d) It moves to point O and quickly comes to rest there
plates being horizontal. The lower plate carries a (e) It oscillates as a simple pendulum.
charge of + Q. The area of each plate is A and the 12. In a system used for spraying cars, a car body is
separation between the plates is d. In cgs system, the positively charged. Neutral droplets of paint are then
charge on the drop is
ELECTROSTATICS 101
attracted to the car because the positive car body capacitance of
induces charge on the droplets of paint. the system is C.
Which diagram best shows the charge pattern ? When a light-
ning flash of
+ mean current I
– + –
+
+ and time dura-
– + – +
+ tion t occurs,
+ +
– + – + + + the electric field
+ Fig. 199
+ – + strength be-
Paint droplet + – tween cloud and Earth is reduced by
Car body
It It
(a ) (b) (a) (b)
Ch C
+ –
+ – + It
(c) (d) CIt
+ – + – + h
+ + – + CIt
– (e) .
+ h
+ – – +
15. Dust particles may be ex- air only
– + – +
+
tracted from air using
(c) (d ) the electric field between
a wire and a metal cyl-
Fig. 197 inder. The electric field wire
13. Which circuit could be used to measure the capaci- removes electrons from
tance of a capacitor using the reed switch S ? some air molecules, thus cylinder
forming ions. These ions
then become attached to
dust particles. The
S
S
mA charged dust particles
then move to the inside
V mA air and dust
V of the cylinder.
Fig. 200
Which combination of
ion charge and potentials must apply ?
(a ) (b)
ion charge wire potential cylinder potential
S S (a) positive + 10 kV 0
mA
(b) positive 0 + 10 kV
V
mA V (c) negative 0 + 10 kV
(d) negative – 10 kV 0
(c) (d )
16. The diagram
100 V 40 V – 20 V – 80 V
shows a uni-
S
form electric
V mA
field in which
the lines of equal
electric field
potential are
spaced 2.0 cm
(e) apart.
line of equal
Fig. 198 What is the 2.0 cm 2.0 cm 2.0 cm potential
value of the elec-
14. A thundercloud and the Earth’s surface may be Fig. 201
tric force which
regarded as a pair of charged parallel plates separated is exerted on a charge of + 5.0 µC when placed in the
by a distance h as shown in the diagram. The field ?
102 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 6.0 × 10– 6 N (b) 1.5 × 10 –2 N 19. A metal sphere of radius 0.1 m was insulated from
(c) 3.0 × 10 N 3
(d) 6.0 × 10 N.
8 its surroundings and given a large positive charge. A
17. Four identical capacitors are connected as shown : small charge was brought from a distant point to a
point 0.5 m from the sphere’s centre. The work done
P against the electric field was W and the force on the
small charge in its final position was F. If the small
charge had been moved to only 1 m from the centre
of the sphere, what would have been the values for
the work done and the force ?
Q work done force
(a) W/4 F/4
(b) W/4 F/2
(i) (ii) (c) W/2 F/4
S (d) W/2 F/2
R (e) W/2 F/√2.
20. An isolated, solid metal sphere of radius R is given
an electric charge. Which one of following best repre-
sents the way in which the density of the charge var-
ies with distance r from the centre of the sphere ?
(iii) (iv)
charge charge
Fig. 202 density density
Which of the following lists the arrangements in or-
der of decreasing capacitance ?
(a) PRSQ (b) PSRQ
(c) QRSP (d) QSRP.
18. Two large plane parallel conducting plates are situ-
ated 40 mm apart as shown. The potential difference 0 R r 0 R r
between the plates is V. (a ) (b)
What is the potential difference between point X and charge charge
point Y ? density density
40 mm
Y 0 R r 0 R r
(c) (d )
0 +V
25 mm
15 charge
mm density
X
15 mm 20 mm 5
mm
Fig. 203
15 20 0 R r
(a) V (b) V
40 40 (e)
25 40
(c) V (d) V. Fig. 204
40 40
ELECTROSTATICS 103
21. Fig. 205 shows the impor- What is the direction of the resultant electric field at
tant components of a large the fourth corner ?
Van de Graff generator op-
erating in air at atmos-
pheric pressure. When the
electric field strength at the
sphere’s surface exceeds
the breakdown field of the
air, the sphere discharges
by sparking. Which one of
the following determines
the maximum potential at-
tained by the sphere ?
(a) the emf of the battery P
Fig. 205
(b) the radius of curvature of Fig. 207
the point Q
(a) A (b) B
(c) the speed of the belt R
(c) C (d) D
(d) the distance of the point S from the belt
(e) E.
(e) the radius of the sphere T.
22. Fig. 206 shows a 25. A point charge is brought in an electric field. The
charged conductor electric field at a nearby point,
resting on an insu- (a) will increase if the charge is positive
lating stand. (b) will decrease if the charge is negative
If at a point P the (c) may increase if the charge is positive
charge density is σ, (d) may decrease if the charge is negative.
the potential is V and 26. Which one statement is correct ? A parallel plate air
the electric field condenser is connected with a battery. Its charge,
strength is E, what potential, electric field and energy are Q0 , V0 , E0 and
are the values of Fig. 206 U0 respectively. In order to fill the complete space
these quantities at point Q ? between the plates a dielectric slab is inserted, the
charge density potential electric intensity battery is still connected. Now the corresponding
(a) >σ >V >E values Q, V, E and U are in relation with the initially
(b) >σ V >E stated as :
(c) <σ V E (a) Q > Q0 (b) V > V0
(d) <σ V <E (c) E > E0 (d) U > U0. [IIT 1985]
(e) <σ <V < E. 27. A spherical conductor A lies inside a hollow spheri-
23. In discussing electric fields, the terms electric field cal conductor B. Charges Q 1 and Q2 are given to A
strength, electric potential and potential gradient are and B respectively.
used. Which one of the following statements about (a) Charge Q1 will appear on the outer surface of A.
these terms is correct ? (b) Charge – Q1 will appear on the inner surface of B.
(a) Unit potential gradient exists between any two points if
(c) Charge Q2 will appear on the outer surface of B.
one joule of work is done in transporting one coulomb of
charge between the points. (d) Charge Q1 + Q2 will appear on the outer surface of B.
(b) The electric potential at a point is the force on unit positive 28. A closed surface S is constructed
charge placed at that point. around a conducting wire con-
(c) Electric potential and potential gradient are both scalar nected to a battery and a switch
quantities. (Fig. 208). As the switch is closed,
(d) Electric field strength at a point is the work done in bring- the free electrons in the wire start
ing unit positive charge from infinity to the point. moving along the wire. In any
(e) The potential gradient at a point is numerically equal to time interval, the number of elec-
the electric field strength at that point. trons entering the closed surface
24. Point charges, each of magnitude Q, are placed at S is equal to the number of elec-
Fig. 208
three corners of a square as shown in the diagram. trons leaving it. On closing the
104 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solutions
4×6 7. The potential V of the dome is given by
1. C= esu of capacity
6−4 Q
V=
or C = 12 esu of capacity C
V = 3 esu of potential Where Q = charge on the dome.
Q = CV = 36 esu of charge. C = capacitance of the dome.
4 πε 0rarb Thus, potential V of the dome is directly proportional
2. C= to the charge arrives on it. When the belt starts to
rb − ra
move at a steady speed, charge is transferred to the
1 r2 dome at a constant steady rate. Hence, potential V
1 × 10 –6 = or r2 = 9 or r = 3 m. increases linearly with t, i.e.,
9 × 109 1 × 10 −3
4 πε 0K rbra 6 0.09 × 010
. λt
3. C= = F V=
rb − ra 9 × 109 0.01 C
= 0.6 × 10–9 F where λ is the rate at which charge is transferred to
the dome, t is the time taken.
Q 18 × 10−9 1
V= = volt = 30 volt. 8. u ∝ E2 and E ∝ .
C 0.6 × 10−9 r2
4. If V is the potential difference across the capacitor of 9. qE = mg
capacitance C at time t, the constant current I charg- mg mgε 0 mg( 4 πε 0 )A
ing the capacitor is given by or q= = =
E σ 4 πQ
Q CV mgA
I ==
t t For cgs system, q = .
4πQ
where Q is the charge stored on the plate
10. The rate at which the potential difference V across
Given I = 10 mA, C = 20 µF, V = 300 V the capacitor is falling is given by
Time taken is
dQ dV
I= =C
( 20 × 10−6 )( 300) dt dt
10 × 10–3 = or t = 0.60 s.
t where C is the capacitance of the capacitor, I is the
5. The force on the electron is the gradient of the graph constant current leaving the capacitor.
of the potential energy EP versus the displacement x. Given I = 20 µA, C = 10 µF, we have
Mathematically, we may write
dV dV
∆EP dEP 20 µ = (10 µ) or = 2 Vs–1.
F = – =− dt dt
∆x dx Over a period of 40 s the potential difference across
Hence, force on the electron is given by the capacitor falls by 40(2) V or 80 V.
FG 1.5 − 0 IJ × 10 −16 1.5 × 10 −16 11. The conducting sphere acquires charge in its initial
F= −
H 0 − 0.02 K N =
0.02
N
position. Once it is released, it moves to plate Y and
keeps in contact with Y momentarily until it loses all
= 7.5 × 10–15 N.
its charge and becomes negatively charged. Its weight
6. Initially at switch position P, the capacitor of capaci- and the repulsive force of plate Y causes it to swing to
tance 3 µF is charged to 6 V carrying a charge of plate X and keeps in contact again with plate X mo-
q = CV = 3 × 6 = 18 µC. mentarily and becoming positively charged. The
When at switch position Q, by conservation of charge, sphere once again moves to plate X carrying positive
the voltage V across the two capacitors is thus given charges and it thus moves back and forth continu-
by ously, touching each plate in turn.
q = q1 + q2 = C1V + C2V = (C1 + C2)V 12. Positive charges on the metal surface of car attracts
18 the negative charges in the droplet towards the drop-
⇒ 18 = (3 + 6)V ⇒ V = = 2 volt let’s surface nearest to the car, and expels the posi-
9
106 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
tive charges in the droplet away from the car and Case Capacitance
causes these positive charges distribute themselves
P 4C
on the right surface in the droplet as illustrated in
1
diagram d. Q 4 C
13. The capacitor has to be connected to a supply when it 2
R 5
C
is charged in order that there is flow of current to the
capacitor plates. At discharge, the charged capacitor 3
S 4 C
has to be connected to a passive load (resistor or de-
vice of resistance) to allow the flow of charge from the where C is the capacitance of the four identical ca-
capacitor. pacitors.
(a) Capacitor cannot discharge because it is switched The arrangement in order of decreasing capacitance
to an open circuit (voltmeter). is thus PSRQ.
(b) Capacitor cannot discharge because it is switched 18. The electric field between the two conducting plates
to an open circuit. is constant and given by
(c) Capacitor cannot charge up because it is not con- V
nected to a supply. E=
d
(d) Capacitor cannot charge up because it is not con- where V = potential difference between the plates
nected to a supply.
d = distance between the plates = 40 mm
(e) Capacitor is able to charge up and discharge be- The work required to carry a test charge q0 from point
cause of power source and load connection. X to point Y is thus given by
14. Change in electric field strength, W = q0VXY = (q0E) dXY
∆V where VXY = potential difference between X and Y
∆E =
h dXY = effective distance between points X and Y
But change in potential between thunder cloud and = 20 mm
Earth’s surface, ∆V =
∆Q
and change in charge, ∆Q FG d IJ V = 20 V .
H d K 40
XY
C i.e., VXY = EdXY =
= It.
19. Since the test charge q is small enough that it does
Hence, electric field strength E has reduced by an
not disturb the original field distribution of the charged
amount
metal sphere, we may assume the metal sphere of
∆E = ∆V = ∆Q = It . positive charge Q to be a positive point charge located
h Ch Ch at its centre. Hence, work done W against the field
15. When the ions are attached to dust particles, these and the force F at a point 0.5 m away from the charge
dust particles become positively charged. If these are Q are
attracted to the cylinder surface due to the electric R|W = Qq
field set up between the wire and the cylinder, the
wire must have a higher potential than that of the |S 4πε (0.5) 0
cylinder. ||F = Qq
Thus, (a) gives the best combination of ion charge T 4πε (0.5)0
2
and the potentials of the wire and cylinder. Now, the distance apart is 1 m, the corresponding
16. The electric field strength E is equal numerically to work done W′ and F′ are then given by
the gradient of the potential, i.e., Qq FG IJ
0.5 W
E=
V
=
60
= 3.0 × 103 V/m
W′ =
4 πε 0 (1)
=
1H K
W=
2
d 2 × 10−2 Qq
=G
F 0.5 IJ
F
2
|S 4πε R 0
2 electric field must be
along the diagonal of
45° +Q
Q
where Q is the charge on the sphere’s surface ant field due to E1 E3 =
8πε0d
2 d
R is the radius of the sphere T. and E2 is
We may thus relate V to E by the equation V = RE. Q 2
E4 = .
At a given value of E, the maximum potential V is 4 πε 0 d2
limited by R, radius of the sphere. The net resultant +Q –Q
22. The surface of the conductor is an equi-potential sur- electric field due to Fig. 211
face since there is free flow of electrons within the the three charges is
conductor. Thus potential at Q is the same as that at
P. That is VP = VQ = V. Q 2 Q
E4 – E3 = 2
−
The electric field E at a point on the equi-potential 4 πε 0 d 8πε 0 d2
surface of the conductor is inversely proportional to
the square of radius of curvature r at that point. That Q
= (2 2 − 1) in the direction B.
is 8πε 0 d 2
1 26. Refer to synopsis.
E∝ 2 .
r 27. Think in terms of electrostatic induction.
Since point Q has a larger radius of curvature than 28. The net charge is unchanged.
that at point P, the electric field at Q is less than that
29. Net charge enclosed is zero.
at P. That is
30. V same ; C more ; Q more.
EQ < EP = E.
Furthermore, the charge density at a point is propor- 31. Due to change in capacity, V would change. Note that
tional to the electric field at that point on the couductor Q remains same.
surface. The charge density σQ at point Q is thus less 1 1
than that at point P. That is 32. (a) qE × 2a = m(2v)2 – mv2
2 2
σQ < σP = σ.
23. Correct descriptions about the terms electric field 3mv2
E=
strength, electric potential and potential gradient are 4 qa
as follows : (b) P = Fv = qEv
(d) Electric field strength E at a point is the negative
F 3mv I v = 3 mv
2 3
33. The diagram shows the electric field distribution from Hence, EQ > EP.
the point charge (positive) at Y to the earthed metal 34. The given system is equivalent
sheet X. to a system shown in Fig. 213.
The point closer to the point charge Y has higher po- Net electric dipole moment
tential and hence its field strength is higher than the
= 3 p = 3 ql .
other point further away from Y.
Fig. 213
35. It has the dimensions of energy per unit volume.
LM 1 ε E OP = [energy]
2
∴
N 2 Q [volume]
0
[ML2T −2 ]
= = [ML –1 T–2].
[L3 ]
Fig. 212
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
→
l An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force F
between the two is ?
e2 e2
(a) K r (b) – K r
r2 r3
e2 → e2 → 1
(c) K r (d) – K 3
r (where K = ) [All India PM/PD 2003]
3 r 4πε 0
r
Solution. Use coulomb’s law. Also, the force vector and r are oppositely directed.
So, (b) is the right choice.
l A charged particle ‘q’ is shot towards another charged particle ‘Q’, which is fixed, with a speed ‘v’. It approaches ‘Q’
upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed of ‘2v’, the closest distance of approach would be
q Q
v r
Fig. 214
(a) r/2 (b) 2r (c) r (d) r/4. [AIEEE 2004]
1 K qQ
Solution. mv2 =
2 r
1
m(2v)2 =
K qQ
or 4
LM 1 mv OP = K qQ
2
or
4KqQ K qQ
= or r′ =
r
2 r′ N 2 Q r′ r r′ 4
So, (d) is the right choice.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
l Electric Current l Flow of electric charges in a Metallic Conductor l Drift velocity and mobility
and their relation with electric current l Ohm’s law l Electrical Resistance l V-I
characteristics l Exceptions of Ohm’s law (Non-linear V-I Characteristics) l Electrical resistivity and
conductivity l Classification of materials in terms of conductivity l Superconductivity (elementary
idea) l Carbon Resistors l Colour code for carbon resistors l Combination of resistances—Series
and Parallel l Temperature–dependence of resistance l Internal resistance of a cell l Potential
difference and emf of a cell l Combination of cells in Series and in Parallel l Kirchhoff ’s Laws—
Illustration by simple applications l Wheatstone Bridge and its application for temperature
measurements l Metre Bridge—special case of Wheatstone Bridge l Potentiometer—principle and
applications to measure potential difference, and for comparing emfs of two cells l Electric
Power l Thermal effects of current and Joule’s law l Chemical effects of current l Faraday’s
laws of electrolysis l Electro-chemical cells—Primary (Voltaic, Leclanche, dry, Daniel) l Secondary—
Rechargeable cells (Lead accumulator, Alkali accumulators) l Solid states cells l Thermoelectricity—
Origin l Elementary ideas of Seebeck, Thomson and Peltier Effects l Thermocouple l Thermo
emf l Neutral and Inversion Temperatures
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 20 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
C-11\IITS\C12-1 CDR-12-1
CHAPTER 12
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
SYNOPSIS
111
C-11\IITS\C12-1 CDR-12-1
112 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
I2 I2
R R
R2
Fig. 1
R 1I
Similarly, I2 =
R 1 + R2 R R
19. A SPECIAL WINDOW ON SOME USEFUL NET-
WORKS R
(i) Equivalent resistance between adjacent corners
Fig. 5
2R
=
3 THINK IT OVER !
Polygon of n sides
Equivalent resistance between adjacent corners
R R
(n − 1) R
=
n
THINK IT OVER !
R R A Polygon of n sides made from a wire of resistance R.
Equivalent resistance between adjacent corners
(n − 1) R
=
n2
R
Fig. 4
114 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(viii) Effective resistance between the ends of a diago- are ± 5% and ± 10% respectively. If there is no colour,
nal = R. it indicates a tolerance of 20%.
R The first two rings or strips from the end give
the first two significant figures of resistance
in ohm. While the colour of the first ring on the ex-
treme left represents the first significant figure, the
R R second ring represents the second significant figure.
The third ring indicates the decimal multiplier
i.e., the number of zeros that will follow the two sig-
nificant figures.
R The last ring indicates the tolerance in percent
Fig. 9
about the indicated value i.e., it represents the
percentage accuracy.
(ix) If a wire of resistance R is bent in the form of a 21. Ohmic conductors are those conductors which obey
circle, then the effective resistance between the Ohm’s law.
ends of the diameter is R.
22. Non-ohmic conductors are those conductors which do
(x) Skeleton cube made from 12 wires, each of resist- not obey Ohm’s law.
ance R.
23. The variation of resistance of a metallic conductor
(a) Equivalent resistance between diagonally with temperature is given by :
5R Rt = R0(1 + αt)
opposite corners =
6 where R0 is the resistance at 0°C, Rt is the resistance
(b) Equivalent resistance between adjacent at t°C and α is the temperature coefficient of resist-
ance.
7R
corners = . 24. The temperature at which a substance loses all its
12
resistance is called critical temperature and the
(xi) If a skeleton cube is made from 11 wires, then phenomenon is called superconductivity.
equivalent resistance between the corners of the 25. The relation between internal resistance r, emf E,
7R terminal potential difference V and external resist-
vacant edge is .
5 E−V
ance R is : r = R.
20. COLOUR CODE FOR CARBON RESISTANCES V
Letter as Colour Number Multiplier Colour Tolerance 26. When the cell is sending current through the exter-
an aid to nal resistance, then
memory V = E – Ir.
B Black 0 10 0 Gold ± 5% 27. When the cell is being charged,
B Brown 1 10 1 Silver ± 10% V = E + Ir.
28. When n cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r,
R Red 2 10 2 No ± 20%
are connected in series, then the current is given by
colour
O Orange 3 10 3 nE
I= .
nr + R
Y Yellow 4 10 4
29. When internal resistance is negligible, then the cells
G Green 5 10 5
are connected in series to get maximum current.
B Blue 6 10 6 30. For a series combination of cells, the following state-
V Violet 7 10 7 ments apply :
G Grey 8 10 8 (i) The emf of the battery is equal to the sum of the
individual emf’s of the various cells.
W While 9 10 9
(ii) The current in each cell is the same and is identi-
The multipliers in the case of gold and silver are 10–1 cal with the current in the entire series arrange-
and 10–2 respectively. The tolerances (percentage ment.
accuracy or reliability) in the case of gold and silver
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 115
(iii) The total internal resistance of the battery is equal 42. For the determination of the internal resistance of a
to the sum of the individual internal resistances. cell with the help of potentiometer,
31. For a parallel arrangement of identical cells, the fol- l1 − l2
lowing statements are true : r= R.
l2
(i) The emf of the battery is the same as the emf of a
Here l1 and l2 are the balancing lengths correspond-
single cell.
ing to the emf E and terminal potential difference V
(ii) The reciprocal of the total internal resistance is respectively. R is the resistance of the shunt across
equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the resistances the cell.
of the individual cells.
(B) THERMAL EFFECT OF CURRENT
(iii) The current in the external circuit is divided
43. In actual practice, the measurement of electric cur-
equally among the cells.
rent does not include individual measurements of
32. When n cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r, charge and time. The electric current is generally
are connected in parallel, then the current is given by measured by its magnetic effect, chemical effect, heat-
E ing effect etc.
I= . 44. When a current I flows through a passive resistor R
r
R+ for time t, heat Q is produced such that
n
33. When external resistance is negligible, then the cells Q = I2Rt
are connected in parallel to get maximum current. This is Joule’s law of heating.
34. If n cells are connected in a row and m such rows are 45. LAW OF TIME
connected in parallel, then the current is given by Keeping R and I constant, if Q1 and Q2 are the heats
nE produced during times t1 and t2 respectively, then it
I= . will be observed that
nr
R+
m Q1 t1
=
35. When external resistance is comparable to internal Q2 t2
resistance, then the cells are connected in mixed group-
ing to get maximum current. 46. LAW OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
36. According to Kirchhoff ’s current law, the algebraic Keeping R and t constant, if Q1 and Q2 are the heats
sum of currents meeting at a junction is zero. produced by currents I1 and I2 respectively, then it
This law is based on law of conservation of charge. will be observed that
37. According to Kirchhoff ’s voltage law, the algebraic
Q1 I12
sum of potential drops and emfs along any closed path =
Q 2 I22
in a network is zero. This law is based on law of con-
servation of energy.
47. LAW OF RESISTANCE
38. Condition for a Wheatstone bridge to be balanced is :
Keeping I and t constant, if Q1 and Q2 are the heats
P R produced in resistances R1 and R2 respectively, then
= .
Q S
Q1 R1
39. In the case of a metre bridge, the unknown resistance =
Q2 R2
100 − l
is given by X = R , where l represents the bal- 48. In a passive resistor
l
ancing length and R is the resistance. V V
(i) V = IR : I = ,R=
40. In the case of potentiometer, the potential difference R I
V across any length is proportional to the length l. volt = ohm × ampere
41. For comparing emfs with the help of potentiometer, (ii) Power consumed
E1 l1 = heat developed per second, in watt
= . Here l1 and l2 are the balancing lengths ob-
E2 l2
V2
tained with cells of emfs E1 and E2 respectively. P = I2R = IV =
R
116 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(iii) Heat developed in time t. 56. According to Faraday’s second law of electrolysis, the
Electrical energy consumed masses of different substances produced in electrolysis,
= Heat developed in joule by the same quantity of electricity, are proportional
to their equivalent masses.
V2
I2Rt = IVt = t m1 E1
R =
m2 E2
49. In any device whatever
Electrical power consumed E
57. = F, where F is Faraday constant. It is the quan-
= Power developed in other forms Z
P = IV tity of charge required to liberate one gram equiva-
lent of the substance. Its value is 96500 C mol–1.
watt = ampere × volt
58. Electrolysis of CuSO4
50. MAXIMUM POWER RATING OF A RESISTOR
At the cathode
It is the maximum power that can be dissipated with-
out overheating the device. When this rating is ex- Cu++ ions drift to the cathode and are neutralised by
ceeded, the resistance may change unpredictably. In the electrons flowing in from the negative terminal to
more extreme cases, the resistor may melt or even the external source.
explode. In practical applications, the power rating of Cu++ + 2e– → Cu
a resistor is just as important a characteristic as its At the anode
resistance value. Cu dissolves into the solution producing Cu++ and
2e–, the latter flowing to the positive terminal of the
V2
51. Electrical energy = VIt = t = I2Rt source.
R
Cu → Cu++ + 2e–
The practical unit of electrical energy is kWh.
In effect, copper is dissolved off the anode and depos-
1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J ited at the cathode.
52. The material of a heater element should have high 59. Electrolysis of water
resistivity and high melting point.
At the cathode :
53. The material of a fuse wire should have high resistiv-
4H2O + 4e– → 4OH– + 2H2
ity and low melting point.
At the anode :
54. The heat produced in a conductor is independent of
2H2O – 4e– → 4H+ + O2
the direction of current.
In the electrolyte, H+ and OH– diffuse away towards
(C) CHEMICAL EFFECT OF CURRENT the opposite electrodes and neutralise.
55. According to Faraday’s first law of electrolysis, the 4H+ + 4OH– → 4H2O
mass m of a substance deposited at the cathode or The net reaction is
dissolved off the anode in electrolysis is proportional 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
to the charge Q passing through the electrolyte. which requires 2.9 eV per molecule.
m ∝ Q, m = ZQ = ZIt
Here Z is called electrochemical equivalent.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 117
60. A COMPARATIVE STUDY OF DIFFERENT CELLS
S. No. Cell Anode Cathode Electrolyte emf Internal resistance Special comment
1. Simple Cu Zn dil. H2SO4 1.08 V depends upon defects Defects : Local action and
Voltaic Polarisation
(Primary)
2. Daniel Cu Zn dil. H2SO4 1.08 V 1 Ω to 4 Ω CuSO4 solution is depolariser
(Primary)
3. Leclanche C Zn NH4Cl 1.5 V 0.25 Ω to 4 Ω MnO2 is depolariser
(Primary)
4. Dry C Zn NH4Cl 1.5 V 0.25 Ω to 4 Ω MnO2 is depolariser
5. Lead PbO2 Pb dil. H2SO4 1.8 V to 0.01 Ω to 0.001 Ω Energy efficiency is nearly
accumulator (Spongy 2.2 V 80 %.
lead)
6. Alkali Ni + NiO2 FeO2 KOH 1.25 V to 0.01 Ω Efficiency is nearly 60%
accumulator 1.35 V
7. Cadmium Hg Hg + Cd CdSO4 1.00 V 500 Ω Hg2SO4 is depolariser
t t t
∴ Vt n = Vtt2 + Vt 3 + Vtt4 + ....... + Vt n
1 1 2 3 n−1
Fig. 12
(ii) Law of successive metals (also called the law The current through resistance R1 is
of intermediate metals). (a) 0.1 A (b) 0.2 A
The insertion of an additional metal or metals into (c) 0.3 A (d) 0.4 A. [BCET 2002]
any thermoelectric circuit does not change the effective emf
Sol. Loop AOBA
of the circuit, provided that both the ends of each such con-
ductor are at the same temperature.
If A and B are the extreme metals, and C, D, E, .....,
K are the intermediate metals, then
Fig. 14 Fig. 16
(a) 2Rr/(R + r) (b) 8R(R + r)/(3R + r) (a) V (b) V/2
(c) 2r + 4R (d) 5R/2 + 2r. (c) V/3 (d) 2V/3.
[IIT Screening 2002] [IIT Screening 2001]
Sol. Considerations of symmetry lead us to the re- Sol. 2 V – 2 IR – IR – V = 0
moval of the cross-pieces, each of resistance 2R. So, we have
V
a parallel combination of 4R, 2r and 4R. If Rp is the equiva- or I=
3R
lent resistance, then
For the upper loop, V + VC – IR – V = 0
1 1 1 1 V
= + +
R p 4R 2r 4R or VC = IR =
3
1 1 1 1 R+r So, (c) is the right choice.
or = + or = Illustration 6. An ammeter and a voltmeter are
R p 2R 2 r Rp 2Rr
joined in series to a cell. Their readings are A and V respec-
2Rr tively. If a resistance is now joined in parallel with the volt-
or Rp =
R+r meter,
So, (a) is the right choice. (a) A will increase, V will decrease
Illustration 4. (b) A will decrease, V will increase
In the given circuit, it (c) both A and V will decrease
is observed that the (d) both A and V will increase.
current I is independ- [Karnataka CET 2002]
ent of the value of the
Sol. Effective resistance decreases, current increases,
resistance R 6 . Then
and voltage decreases.
the resistance values
must satisfy So, (a) is the right choice.
Fig. 15 Illustration 7. A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A
through a 2 Ω resistor and a current of 0.3 A through a 7 Ω
(a) R1R2R5 = R3R4R6
resistor. The internal resistance of the cell is
1 1 1 1 (a) 2.0 Ω (b) 1.2 Ω
(b) + = +
R5 R6 R1 + R2 R3 + R4 (c) 1.0 Ω (d) 0.5 Ω.
(c) R1R4 = R2R3 [Karnataka CET 2002]
(d) R1R3 = R2R4 = R5R6 . [IIT Screening 2001]
120 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2ER 2 W
4
E= 3
R + R1 + R 2 E, R1 E, R2
or R + R1 + R2 = 2R2 Fig. 17 6W
i
or R = R2 – R1
So, (c) is the right choice.
Illustration 10. In the circuit, the galvanometer G Fig. 19
shows zero deflection. If the batteries A and B have negligi- 18 V 5V
ble internal resistance, the value of the resistor R will (a) (b)
5 9
be
9V 5V
(c) (d) .
500 35 18
G [All India PM/PD 2005]
2V
A Sol. The given network is balanced Wheatstone bridge.
12 V
B
R So, we have a parallel combination of 6 Ω and 9 Ω. This
6×9 18
gives Ω i.e. Ω.
6+9 5
Fig. 18 V 5V
Now, i = =
(a) 1000 Ω (b) 500 Ω 18/5 18
(c) 100 Ω (d) 200 Ω. [AIEEE 2005] So, (d) is the right choice.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 121
Illustration 13. When a wire of uniform cross-sec- N2
tion a, length l and resistance R is bent into a complete ∴ = 4 or N2 = 36 or N = 6
9
circle, resistance between any two of diametrically opposite
So, (b) is the right choice.
points will be
Illustration 16. A heater coil is cut into two equal
R R parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat
(a) (b)
8 2 generated will now be
R (a) halved (b) one-fourth
(c) 4 R (d) .
4 (c) four times (d) doubled. [AIEEE 2005]
[All India PM/PD 2005] V2
Sol. Q= t
R R R R
Sol. The parallel combination of and gives . When R is halved, then Q is doubled.
2 2 4
So, (d) is the right choice. So, (d) is the right choice.
B1 B2
Illustration 14. A 100 W bulb B1 , Illustration 17. The resistance of hot tungsten fila-
and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B 3 , are con- ment is about 10 times the cold resistance. What will be the
nected to a 250 V source, as shown in the resistance of 100 W and 200 V lamp when not in use ?
Fig. 20. Now W1 , W2 and W3 are the output (a) 200 Ω (b) 400 Ω
powers of the bulbs B1 , B2 and B3 , respec- B3
(c) 20 Ω (d) 40 Ω. [AIEEE 2005]
tively. Then
Sol. Rhot = 10 Rcold
(a) W1 > W2 = W3
2
(b) W1 > W2 > W3 250 V Rhot = V = 200 × 200 = 400 Ω
(c) W1 < W2 = W3 P 100
(d) W1 < W2 < W3 . 400
Fig. 20 ∴ Rcold = Ω = 40 Ω
10
[IIT Screening 2002]
So, (d) is the right choice.
V 2 V2
Sol. R1 = , R2 = = R3 Illustration 18. A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand
100 60 a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of
(250)2 (250)2 the fuse wire is :
∴ W3 = ; W2 = R ;
R3 (R 1 + R2 )2 2 (a) 0.4 Ω (b) 5 Ω
(250)2 (c) 0.04 Ω (d) 0.2 Ω.
W1 = R
(R 1 + R 2 )2 1 [All India PM/PD 2005]
W3 : W2 : W1 = 64 : 25 : 15 Sol. P = I2R
So, (d) is the right choice. P 1
Illustration 15. A wire of length L and 3 identical
or R=
2
= Ω = 0.04 Ω
I 5×5
cells of negligible internal resistances are connected in se- So, (c) is the right choice.
ries. Due to the current, the temperature of the wire is raised
Illustration 19. Two voltameters, one of copper and
by ∆T in a time t. A number N of similar cells is now con-
another of silver, are joined in parallel. When a total charge
nected in series with a wire of the same material and cross-
q flows through the voltameters, equal amount of metals
section but of length 2L. The temperature of the wire is
are deposited. If the electrochemical equivalents of copper
raised by the same amount ∆T in the same time t. The
and silver are z1 and z2 respectively the charge which flows
value of N is
through the silver voltameter is
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 9. z2 z1
(a) q (b) q
[IIT Screening 2001] z1 z2
V2 q q
Sol. t = mc∆T (c) (d) . [AIEEE 2005]
R z z1
1+ 2 1+
For the given data, V 2 ∝ Rm z1 z2
Now, (3V)2 ∝ Rm 1
Sol. m = zq, z ∝
(NV)2 ∝ (2R)(2m) q
122 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
z1 q2 Sol. θn – θ0 = θi – θn
= or θ0 = 2θn – θi
z2 q1
= (2 × 300 – 620)°C
Now, q = q1 + q2
= – 20°C
q q
= 1 +1 So, (d) is the right choice.
q2 q2
Illustration 21. The emf developed by a thermo-
q z couple is measured with the help of a potentiometer and
= 2 +1
q2 z1 not by a moving coil millivoltmeter because
q (a) the potentiometer is more accurate than the volt-
or q2 = meter.
z2
+1
z1 (b) the potentiometer is more sensitive than voltme-
So, (c) is the right choice. ter.
Illustration 20. The temperature of inversion of a (c) the potentiometer makes measurement without
thermocouple is 620°C and the neutral temperature is 300°C. drawing any current from the thermocouple.
What is the temperature cold junction ? (d) measurement using a potentiometer is simpler
(a) 20°C (b) 40°C than with a voltmeter.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
(c) 320°C (d) – 20°C.
Sol. Note that emf is the terminal potential differ-
[All India PM/PD 2005]
ence when no current is drawn from the source.
Clearly, (c) is the right choice.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 123
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
R
CURRENT ELECTRICITY (a) nR (b)
n
1. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer. n R
(c) (d) . [MP PMT 1998]
The percentage increase in resistance will be R n2
(a) 0.2 (b) 2 8. In the circuit below, bulb B does not light although
(c) 1 (d) 0.1. [MP PMT 2000] ammeter A indicates that the current is flowing. Why
2. In a potentiometer experiment the balancing with a does the bulb not light ?
cell is at length 240 cm. On shunting the cell with a
resistance of 2 Ω , the balancing length becomes
120 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is
A
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω B
(c) 0.5 Ω (d) 1 Ω. [AIEEE 2005]
3. How many electrons per second constitute a current Variable
resistor Switch
of one micro ampere ?
(a) one electron (b) 10 –6 electrons Battery
Fig. 25
126 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Fig. 30
(a) S1 (b) S2
(c) Both S1 and S2 (d) Neither S1 nor S2.
[Pb. PMT 1999]
128 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 3 V (b) 15 V
(c) – 5.1 V (d) + 5.1 V.
[CMCLDH 1999]
62. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R.
If its length and radius are both doubled, then
(a) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will
remain unchanged.
Fig. 31 (b) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will
be doubled.
58. The diagram shows two squares, X and Y, cut from
a sheet of metal, of uniform thickness t. X and Y (c) the resistance and the specific resistance will both remain
have sides of length L and 2L respectively. unchanged.
X Y (d) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance
2L
will be halved. [All India PM/PD 2004]
63. N identical cells, each of emf E and internal resist-
t
L 2L ance r, are joined in series to form a closed circuit.
L t One cell A is joined with reverse polarity. The poten-
tial difference across each cell except A is
2E FG N – 1IJ E
(a) (b)
(a)
N
(b)
H N K
FG N IJ E (d) FG
N – 2I
H N JK E .
Fig. 32
Fig. 33
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 129
67. A group of N cells whose emf var- 1
I (d)
30 (E – 0.5i)
, where i is the current in the potentiometer
ies directly with the internal re- r1 100
sistance as per the equation N r r2
2 wire. [AIEEE 2003]
N
EN = 1.5 rN are connected as 72. The potential difference between the terminals of a
shown in Fig. 34. The current I r3 cell in open circuit is 2.2 volt. With resistance of 5 ohm
in the circuit is : r4 3 across the terminals of a cell, the terminal potential
(a) 5.1 A (b) 0.51 A 4 difference is 1.8 volt. The internal resistance of the
(c) 1.5 A (d) 0.15 A Fig. 34 cell is
[KCET 2003] 9 10
(a) ohm (b) ohm
10 9
68. A potentiometer has uniform potential gradient. The
specific resistance of the material of the potentiometer 7 12
(c) ohm (d) ohm [KCET 2003]
wire is 10 –7 ohm metre and the current passing 12 7
through it is 0.1 ampere. The cross-section of the 73. Resistors, each of value 1 Ω , are arranged as shown
wire is 10–6 m2 . The potential gradient along the in Fig. 36. The equivalent resistance between points
potentiometer wire is A and B is
(a) 10–6+ Vm–1 (b) 10–4 Vm–1
(c) 10 Vm
–8 –1
(d) 10–2 Vm–1. [KCET 2003] A B
69. A wire of length L is drawn such that its diameter is
reduced to half of its original diameter. If the initial
resistance of the wire were 10 Ω, its new resistance
would be : Fig. 36
(a) 40 Ω (b) 80 Ω
1 1
(c) 120 Ω (d) 160 Ω [AIIMS 2003] (a) Ω (b) Ω
2 5
70. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity (ρ) of a
semiconductor is represented by 5
(c) Ω (d) none of the above
4
(a) (b)
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2004]
74. A battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance
is connected to two resistors of resistances R1 and
R2 as shown in the circuit diagram.
O O
T T
(c) (d) R1
E
O O R2
T T
Fig. 35
[AIIMS 2004] Fig. 37
71. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm and
What is the potential difference across the resistor of
the emf of its standard cell is E volt. It is employed resistance R2 ?
to measure the emf of a battery whose internal re-
E(R 1 + R 2 ) ER 2
sistance is 0.5 Ω. If the balance point is obtained at (a) (b)
R1 R1 + R2
l = 30 from the positive end, the emf of the battery is
30 E 30 E E(R 1 + R 2 ) ER 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
100 100.5 R2 R1
30 E ER1
(c) (e) .
(100 – 0.5) R1 + R2
130 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c) equal in both the cases. (c) 2 J and 4 J respectively (d) 2 J and 2 J respectively.
(d) in the ratio 1002 : 902. 105. If the length of the filament of a heater is reduced by
95. The fuse wire is made up of 10%, the power of the heater will
(a) Lead-tin alloy (b) tungsten (a) increase by about 9% (b) increase by about 11%
(c) increase by about 19% (d) decrease by about 10%.
(c) copper (d) nichrome.
96. Fuse wire is a wire of [MNR 2002]
(a) high resistance and high melting point 106. A 2 kW boiler used for 1 h every day consumes the
(b) high resistance and low melting point following electrical energy in 30 days
(c) low resistance and low melting point (a) 60 units (b) 120 units
(d) low resistance and high melting point. (c) 15 units (d) none of the above.
[All India PM/PD 2003] [Karnataka 1993]
97. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across a 107. Two bulbs which consume powers P1 and P2 are con-
110 volt mains supply. The power consumed will be nected in series. The power consumed by the combi-
(a) 1000 watt (b) 750 watt nation is
(c) 500 watt (d) 250 watt [AIEEE 2003] (a) P1 + P2 (b) P1P2
98. If a 30 V, 90 W bulb is to be worked in 120 V line, the (c) P1P2 /(P1 + P2) (d) 2P1P2 /(P1 + P2).
resistance to be connected in series with the bulb is
[MNR 1999]
132 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
108. Which statement describes the electrical potential (a) 4m (b) m/2
difference between two points in a wire carrying a (c) m/4 (d) 2m.
current ? 114. Two electroplating cells, one silver and another alu-
(a) The force required to move a unit positive charge between minium, are connected in series. After 30 minute op-
the points. eration, the number of silver atoms deposited to the
(b) The ratio of the energy dissipated between the points to number of aluminium atoms deposited is
the current. (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
(c) The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to (c) 9 : 1 (d) 1 : 9.
the current.
115. The ratio of the number of hydrogen to that of oxy-
(d) The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to
gen atoms liberated in the electrolysis of acidulated
the charge moved. water is
109. Two cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r, (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2
are connected in parallel across a resistor R. The (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1.
power delivered to the resistor is maximum if R is
116. A charge of 4.8 × 10 5
C passes through an electro-
equal to
lytic solution of copper sulphate. The number of Cu++
r ions liberated from the electrolyte is
(a) (b) r
2 (a) 3 × 1024 (b) 1.5 × 1024
(c) 2r (d) 0.[AFMC 1997]
(c) 7.68 × 10 –14 (d) 1.25 × 1013.
110. Consider the following passage, which contains an
117. To deposit two litre of hydrogen at 11.2 atmosphere
error. ‘In POOR conductors ELECTRICAL energy is
from acidulated water, the charge that must be passed
transferred by lattice VIBRATIONS. These travel through is
through the specimen as WAVES which are SCAT- (a) 11.2 C (b) 22.4 C
TERED by the lattice as they progress through it’.
(c) 96.5 kC (d) 193 kC.
What is the error ?
118. A certain charge liberates 0.8 g of oxygen. The same
(a) POOR should be METALLIC.
charge will liberate
(b) ELECTRICAL should be THERMAL. (a) 0.8 g of silver (b) 10.8 g of silver
(c) VIBRATIONS should be IMPERFECTIONS. (c) 108 g of silver (d) 108/0.8 g of silver.
(d) WAVES should be PHOTONS. 119. Faraday constant
(e) SCATTERED should be REFRACTED. (a) depends on the amount of the electrolyte
(b) depends on the current in the electrolyte
CHEMICAL AND THERMOELECTRIC (c) is a universal constant
EFFECTS OF CURRENT (d) depends on the amount of charge passed through the elec-
trolyte.
111. If 1 A of current is passed through CuSO4 solution 120. In a copper voltameter, mass deposited in 30 s is
for 10 s, then the number of copper ions deposited at m g. If time-current graph is as shown (see Fig. 38),
the cathode will be then ECE of copper is
(a) 1.6 × 1019 (b) 3.125 × 1019
(c) 4.8 × 1019 (d) 6.2 × 1019.
112. Silver and zinc voltameter are connected in series
and same current is passed through both of them for
same time. If x kg of silver is liberated, then the
amount of zinc liberated will be nearly
(a) x (b) x/5
(c) x/3 (d) x/2.
113. In an electroplating experiment, m g of silver is de-
posited when 4 A current flows for 2 minutes. The Fig. 38
amount (in g) of silver deposited by 6 A of current for (a) m (b) m/2
40 s will be (c) 0.1 m (d) 0.6.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 133
121. Electric current is passed through the following so- Peltier effect is caused
lutions. In which case hydrogen will be liberated at (a) due to both A and B.
the cathode ? (b) due to A but not due to B.
(a) Sugar (b) Sodium hydroxide (c) due to B but not due to A.
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Copper sulphate.
(d) neither due to A nor due to B. [AIIMS 1998]
[Pb. PMT 2002]
129. In an electrolysis experiment, a current I passes
122. If 1 mole of electrons contains 6.02 × 10 23 electrons, through two different cells in series, one containing
then the value of Faraday constant F in C mol–1 is a solution of CuSO 4 and the other a solution of
96320 AgNO 3 . The rate of increase of the weights of the
(a) (b) 96320 × 2
2 cathodes in the two cells will be
(c) 96320 (d) 6.6 × 1019. (a) in the ratio of the densities of Cu and Ag
123. According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, the (b) in the ratio of the atomic weights of Cu and Ag
amount of decomposition is proportional to (c) in the ratio of half the atomic weight of Cu to the atomic
(a) 1/time for which current passes weight of Ag
(b) electrochemical equivalent of the substance (d) in the ratio of the half atomic weight of Cu to half the
atomic weight of Ag. [Haryana PMT 2002]
(c) 1/current
(d) 1/electrochemical equivalent.CAPACI[MP PMT 1993]
130. If 1.5 A current liberates x kg of ions, the ions liber-
ated by 6.0 A of current will be
124. The amount of ions liberated by 96500 C of charge
(a) x/4 kg (b) x/2 kg
passed through the electrolyte is called
(c) 2x kg (d) 4x kg.
(a) electrochemical equivalent
(b) chemical equivalent [CMC LDH 1994]
(c) gram equivalent (d) none of the above. 131. In electrolysis, if the duration of the passage of cur-
[Pb. PMT 2001] rent is doubled, the mass liberated is
(a) doubled (b) halved
125. E.C.E.’s of copper were determined by taking copper
(c) increased four times (d) remains the same.
sulphate and copper chloride as electrolytes. If Z1
and Z2 are the E.C.E.’s determined in the two cases, [CMC LDH 2001]
then 132. To deposit one litre of hydrogen at 22.4 atmosphere
(a) Z1 = Z2 (b) Z1 > Z2 from acidulated water, the quantity of electricity that
(c) Z1 < Z2 (d) Z1 = 1/Z2. must pass through is
[Himachal PMT 2000] (a) 1 coulomb (b) 22.4 coulomb
126. What determines the emf between the two metals (c) 96500 coulomb (d) 193000 coulomb.
placed in an electrolyte ? [All India PM/PD 1999]
(a) Relative position of metals in the electrochemical series 133. The electrochemical equivalent of a material depends
(b) Distance between them on
(c) Strength of electrolyte (a) the nature of the material
(d) Nature of electrolyte. [Pb. PMT 2000] (b) the current through the electrolyte containing the mate-
rial
127. How much electric charge should pass through acidu-
(c) the amount of charge passed through the electrolyte
lated water to release 22.4 litre of hydrogen at NTP ?
(d) the amount of this material present in the electrolyte.
(a) 6.02 × 1023 C (b) 193 k C
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1998]
(c) 22.4 C (d) 1 C. [MANIPAL 1994]
134. Same current passed through different electrolytes
128. Consider the following two statements :
for given time liberates ions in proportional to their
(A) Free-electron density is different in different met- (a) electrochemical equivalent
als. (b) chemical equivalent
(B) Free-electron density in a metal depends on tem- (c) atomic masses
perature. (d) atomic numbers. [BHU 1996]
134 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
135. Given that chemical equivalent of a substance is E. 144. In the Peltier effect there is conversion of
To obtain its electrochemical equivalent we should (a) electrical into heat energy at the junction
multiply E with the ECE of (b) electrical into heat energy all along the length of the
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen thermocouple wires
(c) Hydrogen (d) None of the above. (c) heat into electrical energy at the junctions
[Haryana PMT 1999] (d) None of the above cases. [MGIMS 2001]
136. To deposit one kg equivalent of an element at an elec- 145. Neutral temperature of a thermocouple is
trode, one needs a charge equal to
(a) constant
(a) one C (b) one absolute C
(b) increases with increase in the temperature of cold junction
(c) one stat C (d) 96500000 C.
(c) decreases with increase in the temperature of cold junc-
[BHU 1998]
tion
137. What carries current in an electrolyte ? (d) decreases with decrease in the temperature of cold junc-
(a) Electrons only (b) – ve ions only tion [JIPMER 2002]
(c) + ve ions only (d) Both + ve and – ve ions.
146. If Tc ,Tn and Ti denote the temperatures of cold junc-
[Haryana PMT 2000] tion, neutral temperature and inversion temperature
138. Mass of the ions liberated during electrolysis by 1 A of a thermocouple respectively, then
current in one second is called (a) Tc + Ti = Tn (b) Ti – Tc = 2Tn
(a) equivalent weight (b) chemical equivalent
(c) Tc + Ti = 2Tn (d) Tc – Ti = 2Tn.
(c) electrochemical equivalent
[MP PET 2001]
(d) None. [MANIPAL 1998]
147. In copper-iron thermocouple, the direction of ther-
139. An electrolysis experiment is stopped and the bat-
tery terminals are reversed moelectric current is from
(a) The electrolysis will stop. (a) copper to iron at cold junction
(b) The rate of liberation of material at the electrode will in- (b) iron to copper at cold junction
crease. (c) iron to copper at both junctions
(c) The rate of liberation of material will remains the same. (d) copper to iron at both junctions. [JIPMER 2002]
(d) Heat will be produced at a greater rate.
148. Peltier coefficient for the junction of a pair of metals
[AIIMS 2000] is proportional to
140. The mass of a substance liberated when a charge ‘q’ (a) absolute temperature of the junction
flows through an electrolyte is proportional to
(b) square of absolute temperature of the junction
(a) q (b) 1/q
1
(c) q2 (d) 1/q2. [EAMCET 1996] (c)
temperature of the junction
141. The thermoelectric power at the neutral temperature
1
is (d) .
square of absolute temperature of the junction
(a) – ve (b) zero
[MP PMT 1993]
(c) + ve (d) infinity.
149. In Peltier effect, heat evolved or absorbed at the junc-
142. What is the nature of graph between temperature and tion is proportional to
thermo emf ?
(a) current (b) current
(a) Hyperbola (b) Straight line
(c) Parabola (c) (current)2 (d) (current)0.
151. Inversion temperature for a thermocouple is the tem- 154. The negative Zn pole of a Daniell cell, sending a con-
perature at which thermo-emf stant current through a circuit, decreases in mass
(a) increases (b) remains unchanged by 0.13 g in 30 minute. If the electrochemical equiva-
(c) reverses in sign (d) changes erratically. lents of Zn and Cu are 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the
increase in the mass of the positive Cu pole in this
[BHU 2001]
time is
152. The neutral temperature for a thermocouple is 300°C.
(a) 0.242 g (b) 0.180 g
If the temperature of cold junction is 30°C, the inver-
(c) 0.141 g (d) 0.126 g [AIEEE 2003]
sion temperature is :
(a) 600°C (b) 570°C 155. The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is 3.3 × 10–7
(c) 630°C (d) 550°C
kg per coulomb. The mass of the metal liberated at
the cathode when a 3 A current is passed for 2 sec-
(e) 500°C [Kerala PMT 2003]
ond will be
153. At the temperature of inversion, the emf in a ther- (a) 6.6 × 10–7 kg (b) 9.9 × 10–7 kg
mocouple is :
(c) 19.8 × 10–7 kg (d) 1.1 × 10–7 kg
(a) half its maximum value (b) maximum
[AIEEE 2004]
(c) minimum (d) reaches infinity
(e) zero [Kerala PMT 2003]
Answers (Set I)
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (e)
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b)
57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (e) 61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d)
65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (b)
73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (c)
89. (c) 90. (a) 91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b)
97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (b) 101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (d)
105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (a) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (c)
113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (b)
129. (c) 130. (d) 131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (c) 136. (d)
137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (a) 141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (c) 144. (a)
145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (c) 151. (c) 152. (b)
153. (e) 154. (d) 155. (c)
136 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solutions (Set I)
1. Volume is conserved. 0.1% longer means 0.1% reduc- 16. Typically, below 12 V, the charge carriers are elec-
tion in cross-sectional area. trons emitted by the cathode which has a heater ele-
Percentage increase in resistance = 0.1 + 0.1 = 0.2. ment. The neon lamp will not produce light but can
act as a diode.
l1 − l2 240 − 120
2. r = R = × 2 Ω = 2 Ω. Above 12 V, the noble gas (argon, neon, etc.) breaks
l2 120
down into positive ions and electrons. Then there are
3. Number of free electrons per second two charge carriers. To produce visible light, ionisa-
10−6 tion is required.
= = 6.25 × 1012.
1.6 × 10 −19 17. Since no current flows through the circuit, all the
voltage drops across the bulb that has a broken fila-
1
6. Rp = Ω = 0.1 Ω. ment. i.e., X = 240 V, Y = 0 V.
10
20. Parallel combination reduces resistance.
R
7. Resistance of each part is . 21. Apply Kirchhoff ’s current law.
n
R/n R 5J
Rp = = 2. 23. E= = 0.5 JC–1 = 0.5 V.
n n 10 C
8. It is a case of weak current. 24. Ionisation of electrolyte.
1 1 1 I
9. = + = 1 or Rp = 1 Ω 25. Drift speed, vd = ; Since A is not constant there-
Rp 2 2 neA
fore vd is not constant.
l/2 1 1
Aliter. R′ = ρ or R′ = R = × 4 Ω = 1 Ω.
2a 4 4 E−V 6−4
26. r= = Ω = 1 Ω.
10. Alloys have high resistivity. So, they are unsuitable I 2
for making connecting wires. 27. Refer to synopsis.
11. (i) all three in series (3R)
28. 12 = 0 – V or V = – 12 volt.
FG R IJ
(ii) all three in parallel
H 3K 29. Balanced Wheatstone bridge.
FG 3 RIJ 30.
1 10
= or R =
r
(iii) two in parallel, in series with third
H2 K R r 10
(iv) two in series and third parallel to combination 31. Potentiometer method is a ‘null’ method.
FG IJ
2 33. It is a case of parallel combination of three resistances.
H K
3
R .
34. By Kirchhoff’s second law, the total current entering
12. The situation resembles the flow of water in a pipe. a node must be equal to the total current leaving the
Increased pressure makes water flow faster but does node. The current equations associated with the given
not change water density. figures are summarised as follows.
13. Resistance of a metal decreases with decrease of tem- Figure Current Equation
perature. Resistance of a semiconductor increases with
decrease of temperature. α is + ve for metals and – ve A I1 + I3 + I4 = I2
for semiconductors. B I4 = I1 + I2 + I3
14. The resistivity of alloys is greater than that of met- C I1 + I2 = I3 + I4
als.
D I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 = 0
15. I × 10 = 5
5 E I2 + I4 = I1 + I3
I= A
10
35. Balanced Wheatstone bridge.
I = 0.5 A.
Again, parallel combination of 6r and 6r.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 137
E – 100
36. E = I(R + r) or r = R 54. = 1 or n = 10.
I n2
55. Resistivity is a property of the material. It does not
50 100
= − 10 = − 10 depend upon the geometrical dimensions.
4.5 9
56. When diameter is doubled, cross-sectional area is in-
10 creased by a factor of 4. Since both l and a are in-
= Ω = 1.1 Ω
9 creased by a factor of 4 therefore there is no effect on
2l the resistance.
37. R′ = ρ = R.
2a 57. Temperature of a thermistor increases as the poten-
39. Voltage across 8.5 Ω tial difference across it increases. As temperature
= 8.5 × 10 V = 85 V rises, resistance of the thermistor decreases and hence
Voltage across bulb graph A best illustrates its I-V relationship.
= 42 V 58. The resistance of the square X is given by
Total voltage L ρ
RX = ρ =
= (85 + 42) V = 127 V. Lt t
1.5 1.5 where ρ is the resistivity of the metal.
40. 3= or r = Ω
r 3 Similarly, for RY ,
1 2L ρ
or r = Ω = 0.5 Ω. RY = ρ = same as before.
2 (2L)t t
20
41. R = Ω = 10 Ω. RX
2 Hence, = 1.
44. Use colour code. RY
45. It is a parallel combination of 4 Ω and 2 Ω.
l1 − l2 560 − 412
4×2 8 4 59. r = R = × 10 Ω
∴ Rp = Ω= Ω= Ω l2 412
4+2 6 3
= 3.59 Ω ≈ 3.6 Ω
46. Current flowing away from junction a = 4A
Current flowing towards junction b = 3A X 3 3
60. = or X = × 5 Ω = 7.5 Ω
Now, I + 1.3 = 3 5 2 2
or I = (3 – 1.3)A = 1.7 A 61. (VA – VB ) – 6 – 3 × 2 + 9 – 3 × 0.7 = 0
47. When resistances are connected in parallel, the po- or VA – VB = 5.1
tential difference across each resistance is the same or VB – VA = – 5.1 volt.
as across the combination. 2l R
48. Note that null methods are more accurate than de- 62. R′ = ρ =
4a 2
flection methods. There will be no effect on specific resistance.
49. What is the equation which represents the balance NE − 2E (N − 2)E
condition ? Does that equation contain any of the given 63. I= =
Nr Nr
factors ? For 2 remember that it is the ratio of the
resistances of the two sections of the slide wire that is (N − 2)E
V = E – Ir = E − r
important. Nr
50. When the switch S2 is closed, the whole of current LM
= E 1−
N−2 OP =
2E
shall flow through the connecting wire only which is
supposed to have zero resistance.
N N Q N
r
51. In parallel combination, the combined resistance is 64. R= or r = nR
less than the least resistance. n
Rs = nr or Rs = n (nR) = n2R
V 60
52. R= = Ω = 4 Ω. 65. Thermistors are devices having high temperature
I 15 coefficient of resistivity. The negative temperature
1 1 coefficient types are made from a mixture of oxides of
53. R′ = R= R.
4 2 16 iron, nickel and cobalt with small amounts of other
substances.
138 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
66. The given arrangement is a parallel combination of 77. Since water is to be boiled in lesser time therefore
2R and 2R. This gives an equivalent resistance of R. more heat is required to be produced.
n(n + 1) n(n + 1) V2
67. ΣEn = 1.5r ; Σrn = r We known that P =
2 2 R
ΣEn 1
I= = 1.5 A In the given problem, V is constant. ∴ P ∝
Σrn R
For more P, R should be less. So, l should be less.
V
68. Potential gradient =
l 78. Ampere-hour efficiency = ampere-hour on discharge .
ampere-hour on charge
IR I l Iρ
= = ρ = P
l l a a 80. P = VI, I = 500 W, 100 V 100 V
V
0.1 × 10−7 500 W
= −6
Vm −1 = 10 –2 Vm–1 or I= =5A 5A R
10 100 V
Now, 5 R = 100 200 V
l l×A ρV 1
69. R = ρ =ρ = 2 or R ∝ or R = 20 Ω
A A×A A D4 Fig. 39
81. Pt = mc θ
If D is halved, R is increased by a factor of 16. So, 1000 × t = 10 × 4200 × 10
new resistance is 160 Ω.
10 × 4200 × 10
70. At low temperatures, the resistivity is very large. As t= s or t = 420 s
temperature increases, the resistivity decreases. 1000
71. Using the principle of potentiometer, P0
82. Pt =
V∝l 1 + αt
V l l 30 P0
∴ = or V = E= E Pt ′ =
E L L 100 1 + αt′
72. Fall of potential = 2.2 V – 1.8 V = 0.4 V P0
1000 =
Ir = 0.4 1 + 1000 α
1.8 P0
× r = 0.4 Pt′ =
5 1 + 400 α
2 20 10 Pt ′ 1 + 1000 α
or r= Ω = Ω = Ω =
1.8 18 9
1000 1 + 400 α
E−V Pt′ = 1000(1 + 1000 α) (1 + 400 α)–1
Aliter r= R
V Pt′ = 1000(1 + 1000 α) (1 – 400 α)
2.2 − 1.8 10
= ×5Ω= Ω Pt′ = 1000(1 + 600 α)
1.8 9
74. Current in R1 and R2 is given by = 1000(1 + 600 × 1.4 × 10–4 )
= 1000 × 1.0840 W = 1.084 × 103 W.
E
I= 4
R1 + R 2
1
Potential difference across the resistor of 83. Combined resistance = 3 Ω = Ω
8 2
ER 2 3
resistance R2 = IR2 = .
R1 + R 2
V2 3 × 3 × 60
75. Resistance of 40 W bulb is maximum, current is same Energy = t = J = 60 × 3 × 3 × 2 J
in series connection. R /
12
84. When current is doubled, heating effect becomes four
V2 V2 1
76. P= or R = or R ∝ times. Now, Q ∝ ∆T
R P P
So, ∆T becomes four times.
r2 200
∴ = = 2 or r2 = 2r1 85. P ∝ I2. % decrease in power = 2 × 0.5% i.e., 1%.
r1 100
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 139
V2 l V2
86. P = . If P is more, R is less. R = ρ . For less R, ‘a’ 105. P=
R a l
is more. So, 100 W bulb has thicker element. ρ
a
87. Fine wire has more resistance. So, heat produced is
1
more, in series connection. P∝
l
88. Alloys are used for making standard resistance coils
because of high resistivity and low temperature coef- 1
P′ ∝
ficient of resistance. 10
l− l
nV 2 V 2P P 100
89. Total resistance = , Power = =
P nv2 n P′ l
=
V 2
1 P2 R 1 P l− 1 l
91. P= or P ∝ ∴ = 10
R R P1 R 2
92. Due to increase in resistance, the current decreases. P ′ 10
=
Again, P = I2R. Note that I2 is the dominant term. P 9
210 × 5 × 60 FG P′ − 1IJ × 100 = FG 10 − 1IJ × 100
93. Heat in calories =
4.2
= 15000
HP K H9 K
94. Resistance decreases. Current increases. Current is
P′ − P 100
the dominant term. × 100 = ≈ 11
P 9
V2 106. 2 kW × 30 h = 60 kWh = 60 units.
97. P = . If V is halved, P is reduced by a factor of 4.
R 107. R = R1 + R2
1000 V2 V2 V 2 1 1 1
So, new power is W i.e. 250 W. = + or = +
4 P P1 P2 P P1 P2
V 2 30 × 30 P1P2
98. R = = Ω = 10 Ω or P= .
P 90 P1 + P2
P 90 108. For an electrical potential dif- I
I= = A =3A ference of V between two points
V 30
To work with 120 V line, in a wire carrying current I, V
the power dissipated P is given Fig. 40
120 by
3= or R = 30 Ω
10 + R
P
99. Pt = mSθ Power, P = IV or V =
I
or 836 t = 1 × 4200 × 30 i.e., the ratio of power dissipated between the points
4200 × 30 to the current = V = electrical potential difference.
or t= s ≈ 150 s
836 109. The condition for delivering maximum power is that
2 2 2 2 the external resistance is equal to internal resistance.
V V a V πr
100. P= or P = =
R ρl ρl 110. The corrected passage should read. ‘In POOR conduc-
101. P = 200 × 3.75 W = 750 W ≈ 1 hp tors THERMAL energy is transferred by lattice VI-
P BRATIONS. These travel through the specimen as
102. P = VI ; I = WAVES which are SCATTERED by the lattice as they
V
progress through it’.
250 × 1000
I= A = 25 A 111. Q = 10 coulomb
10000
103. Power lost = 25 × 25 × 10 W = 6250 W = 6.25 kW n × 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 10
1 10
104. U= CV2 or n = × 1019
2 3.2
1 = 3.125 × 1019
= × 100 × 10–6 × 200 × 200 J = 2 J
2
140 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Five equal resistances, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in Fig. 41. A C
battery of V volt is connected between A and B. The current flowing in AFCEB will be
V V R
(a) (b)
R 2R
R F R
2V 3V
(c) (d) [All India PM/PD 2004]
R R A
R B
Solution. Using the principle of Wheatstone bridge, the given network reduces to a
parallel combination of 2R and 2R. So, (b) is the right choice. D R E
Fig. 41
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 141
MCQs
based on
Important Basic Concepts
SET II
+
Application of Formulae
+
Brain Teasers
Average time allowed per question is 50 seconds.
(c) all resistances in the circuit are doubled 167. A piece of copper is to be shaped into a conductor of
(d) resistances R1 and R2 are interchanged. minimum resistance. The possible values of length
[WB JEE 2001] and diameter are
(a) l, d (b) 2l, d
162. In the circuit shown in Fig. 44, the total resistance
between points X and Y is R0 . The value of resist- l d
(c) , 2d (d) 2l, .
ance R is 2 2
168. The effective resistance between A and B in the net-
work of Fig. 46 is
Fig. 44
R0
(a) R0 (b)
3
R Fig. 46
(c) 0 (d) 3 R0.
2
[WB JEE 2002] 4 3
(a) Ω (b) Ω
163. How many 2.1 V cells with internal resistance 0.20 Ω 3 2
each are to be connected in series to obtain a battery 8
(c) 7 Ω (d) Ω .
so that a conductor of resistance 6.0 Ω would carry a 7
current of 1.5 A ? 169. In Fig. 47, two cells
(a) 4 (b) 5 have equal emf E but
(c) 6 (d) 7. [Pb. PMT 1993] internal resistances
164. A non-conducting ring of radius r has charge q dis- are r 1 and r 2 . If the
tributed uniformly over it. If it rotates with an angu- reading of voltmeter
lar velocity ω, the equivalent current is is zero, then relation
between R, r 1 and r2
qω 2π
(a) (b) is
2π qω
(a) R = r1 – r2
qω Fig. 47
(c) (d) q r ω . (b) R = r1 + r2
2π r
(c) 2 r1 – r2 (d) r1 r2.
[All India PM/PD 1993]
170. B is a 1.5 V, 0.30 A, 5.0 Ω torch bulb working prop-
165. A resistance whose printed value is 2 Ω is observed erly in the circuit shown. The combined resistance of
to have an actual resistance of 2.1 Ω. What length of R and B, between the points X and Y, is
wire of resistance 21 Ω m– 1 must be connected in
parallel with the coil in order that the combined re-
sistance shall be exactly 2 Ω ?
(a) 1 m (b) 0.5 m
(c) 2 m (d) 4 m.
[CMC Vellore 2002]
166. What is the resistance of
the hexagonal circuit
shown in Fig. 45 ?
(a) 1 Ω
Fig. 48
(b) 0.5 Ω
(c) 0.25 Ω (a) 0.45 Ω (b) 1.0 Ω
(d) 0.125 Ω. (c) 3.0 Ω (d) 5.0 Ω. [AIIMS 1994]
171. Four resistors 40 Ω, 60 Ω, 90 Ω and 110 Ω are con-
nected as shown to a battery of emf of 4 V and negli-
Fig. 45
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 143
gible internal resistance. Now, the value of VB–VD across the terminals of the battery when a load re-
is : sistance R ( = r) is connected to its terminals ?
(a) 2E volt (b) E volt
E E
(c) volt (d) volt.
2 4
177. In the network shown in
Fig. 51, each resistance
is equal to 2 Ω . The re-
sistance between the
points A and B is
(a) 1 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 3 Ω
Fig. 49
(d) 2 Ω. [BHU 2001]
(a) – 0.2 V (b) 0.2 V 178. A copper wire of resist- Fig. 51
(c) 1 V (d) 0.1 V. [BHU 1997] ance R is cut into ten parts of equal length. Two pieces
172. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the each are joined in series and then five such combina-
tions are joined in parallel. The new combination will
network in Fig. 50 is
have a resistance
R
(a) R (b)
4
R R
(c) (d) . [MP PET 1998]
5 25
179. A student connects four cells in series but one cell
has its terminals reversed. If the internal resistance
1
of each cell is Ω , the load resistance is 1 Ω and
4
each cell has an emf of 1.5 volt, then the current
flowing in the circuit is given by
(a) 1.5 A (b) 2 A
Fig. 50
(c) 2.5 A (d) 9 A. [WBJEE 1999]
4 3
(a) Ω (b) Ω 180. In the circuit, the reading
3 2 of the ammeter is (assume
(c) 3 Ω (d) 2 Ω. internal resistance of the
173. Six 1.1 V cells with internal resistance 3.0 Ω each battery be zero)
are connected in three parallel branches of two cells 40
each. If the resistance of external circuit is 2.0 Ω, (a) A
29
then the current is Fig. 52
10
(b) A
(a) 0.33 A (b) 0.44 A 9
(c) 0.55 A (d) 0.66 A. 5
(c) A (d) 2 A. [AMU 1996]
[Haryana PMT 1995] 3
181. In the previous question, if the internal resistance of
174. A cell of emf 4 V, when short-circuited, gives a cur-
the battery is 1 ohm, then what is the reading of
rent of 8 A. The internal resistance of the cell is
ammeter ?
(a) 0.5 Ω (b) 1 Ω
5 40
(c) 2 Ω (d) 4 Ω. (a) A (b) A
3 29
175. An electron in the potentiometer wire experiences a 10
force of 3.2 × 10 –19 N. The length of the potentiometer (c) A (d) 1 A. [AFMC 1999]
9
wire is 4 m. The emf of battery across the wire is 182. A letter ‘A’ is constructed of a uniform wire with re-
(a) 1.6 V (b) 3.2 V sistance 1.0 Ω per cm. The sides of the letter are
(c) 4.8 V (d) 8 V. 20 cm and the cross-piece in the middle is 10 cm long.
176. A battery of internal resistance r having no load re- The apex angle is 60°. The resistance between the
sistance has an emf E volt. What is the observed emf ends of the legs is
144 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
n n+1 Fig. 56
(c) (d) . (a) 2 Ω (b) 30 Ω
n+1 n
2
186. A potential divider is used to give outputs of 2 V and (c) 6 Ω (d) Ω. [DPMT 2001]
3
3 V from a 5 V source, as shown in Fig. 54. 189. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is
drawn through a series of “dies” to reduce its diam-
eter to half its original value, its resistance will be-
come
(a) two times (b) four times
(c) eight times (d) sixteen times.
[EAMCET 2001]
190. Equivalent resistance
between A and B will 3W 3W
be a b
(a) 2 ohm
(b) 18 ohm 3W 3W
Fig. 54 3W 3W
(c) 6 ohm
Which combination of resistances, R1 , R2 , R3 gives (d) 3.6 ohm.
the correct voltages ? A 3W 3W B
Fig. 57
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 145
191. The resistance of the series combination of two 198. An electric current is passed through a circuit
resistances is S. When they are joined in parallel the containing two wires of the same material, connected
total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the minimum in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in
possible value of n is 4 2
(a) 2 (b) 3 the ratio of and , then the ratio of the currents
3 3
(c) 4 [AIEEE 2004]
(d) 1 passing through the wires will be
192. Two wires of the same dimensions but resistivities (a) 8/9 (b) 1/3
ρ1 and ρ2 are connected in series. The equivalent re-
(c) 3 (d) 2 [AIEEE 2004]
sistivity of the combination is :
199. Thirteen resistances, R R
ρ + ρ2 each of resistance R ohm,
(a) 1 (b) ρ1 + ρ2
2 are connected in the cir-
R R
(c) 2(ρ1 + ρ2) (d) ρ1 ρ2 [KCET 2003] cuit as shown in Fig. 60. R R
The effective resistance
193. Two cells with the same emf E and different internal between A and B is
A R B
resistances r1 and r2 are connected in series to an R R
external resistance R. The value of R so that the po- 4R R R
(a) Ω (b) 2 R Ω
tential difference across the first cell be zero is 3
A C
B
E1 Fig. 65
G
(a) 0.5 Ω (b) 1.03 Ω
E2 (c) 1.53 Ω (d) 0.53 Ω. [Pb. PMT 1997]
Fig. 63 210. A number of 100 volt lamps connected in parallel are
(a) to the left of C (b) to the right of C
fed by a 130 V battery having an internal resistance
of 2.6 ohm. If the resistance of each lamp is 200 ohm
(c) at C itself (d) nowhere on AB.
and the resistance of conducting wires is 0.40 ohm,
[MP PMT 1995]
the number of lamps which the battery can light
205. A potential difference V is applied to a conductor of properly is
length l and radius r. When potential difference is
(a) 15 (b) 18
doubled, the drift velocity is
(a) halved (b) unchanged (c) 20 (d) 25. [JIPMER 2000]
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled. 211. G1 , G2 , G3 are the conductances of the three conduc-
206. In the previous question, when l is doubled without tors. When they are joined in series, their equivalent
changing the potential difference, then the drift ve- conductance will be
locity is 1 1 1
(a) G1 + G2 + G3 (b) + +
(a) halved (b) unchanged G1 G 2 G3
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled. G 1G 2G 3
(c) (d) None of these.
207. In Q. 205, when the radius is quadrupled without G 1 + G2 + G3
changing the potential difference, and the length of
the conductor, then the drift velocity is 212. The masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio
(a) halved (b) unchanged
of 1 : 3 : 5. and their lengths are in the ratio of
5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistances is
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled.
(a) 125 : 15 : 1 (b) 5 : 3 : 1
208. In the circuit shown in Fig. 64, the current through
4 Ω resistor is (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 15 : 125.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 147
213. What is the ammeter reading in the circuit of Fig. 66 ? (a) 20 ohm (b) 10 ohm
(c) 5 ohm (d) 15 ohm.
[All India PM/PD 2001]
10 V
219. The equivalent resistance of the following infinite
5W network of resistances is
A
5W
Fig. 66
(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.5 A
(c) 1.0 A (d) 2.0 A.
214. A voltmeter of range 0–100 mV is calibrated with the
help of a potentiometer having 4 m wire. It gives full Fig. 68
scale deflection, when connected across the two ends
of the wire. If it reads 35 mV when connected across (a) less than 4 Ω (b) 4 Ω
1.41 m of the wire, what is the error in the reading ? (c) more than 4 Ω but less than 12 Ω
(a) 1 mV (b) 0.5 mV (d) 12 Ω. [BHU 1994]
(c) 0.25 mV (d) No error. 220. Six equal resistances, each of 6 Ω,
215. A straight conductor of uniform cross-section car- are joined to form a network as
ries a current I. Let s be the specific charge on an shown in Fig. 69. The resistance be-
electron. The momentum of all the free electrons per tween any two corners is
unit length of the conductor due to their drift veloc- (a) 2 Ω (b) 3 Ω
ity only, is (c) 4 Ω (d) 5 Ω. Fig. 69
(a) I/s (b) I s 221. A cell of emf E volt with no internal resistance is
F II2
(c) G J
connected to a wire whose cross-section changes. The
H sK (d) I/s . [WB JEE 2002] wire has three sections of equal length. The middle
section has a radius a whereas the radius of the outer
216. How many times will the total resistance of ‘n’ iden-
two sections is 2a. The ratio of the potential differ-
tical resistors be increased if the parallel arrange-
ence across the section AB to the potential difference
ment is changed to series arrangement ?
across the section CA is
(a) n times (b) n2 times
E
(c) n times (d) n3 times. [AIIMS 2001]
217. Two non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel.
Consider the following statements :
(i) The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
(ii) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either C l A l B l
of the two internal resistances.
Fig. 70
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong (a) 5 (b) 4
(c) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4. [EAMCET 1995]
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong. [MP PMT 1999] 222. In the circuit shown, the value of
218. What resistor 14 V
should be con-
nected in parallel
with the 20 Ω resis-
tor in branch ADC 20 W B 10 W
in the circuit
shown so that the A C
potential difference
between B and D 20 W D 5 W
Fig. 71
may be zero ? Fig. 67
148 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) R = 15 Ω (b) R = 30 Ω V V
(c) E = 36 V (d) E = 180 V.
[DPMT 2002]
223. The current flowing through a coil of resistance 800
Ω is to be reduced by 80%. What value of shunt should
be connected across the coil ?
(a) 200 Ω (b) 80 Ω
(c) 8 Ω (d) 10 Ω. (c) I (d) I
[CMC Vellore 1999]
Fig. 73
224. The four arms of a Wheatstone Bridge have the fol-
lowing resistances : AB = 6 Ω, BC = 3 Ω, CD = 6 Ω, 227. In Fig. 74, the reading of the ammeter A, when the
DA = 12 Ω . The galvanometer is of 10 Ω resistance. internal resistance of the battery is zero, is
The potential difference of 2 V is maintained across
AC. The current through the galvanometer is
Fig. 74
20 20
(a) A (b) A
3 12
20 FG
20 20 IJ
(c)
4
A (d)
3H +
12
A.
K
228. In Q. 227, the reading of the ammeter A, when the
internal resistance of the battery is 2 ohm is
Fig. 72
(a) 5 A (b) 3 A
(a) 8.7 mA (b) 7.8 mA (c) 1 A (d) 4 A.
(c) 8.7 A (d) 0 A. [EAMCET 1990] 229. Fig. 75 represents a load consisting of three identical
225. A battery has an emf of 12 V and an internal resistance resistances connected to an electric energy source of
of 0.5 Ω. When an external 5.5 Ω resistor is connected emf 12 V and internal resistance 0.6 Ω . The amme-
across the terminals of the battery, the potential ter reads 2 A. The magnitude of each resistance is
difference between the terminals will be
(a) 12 V (b) 11.5 V
(c) 11 V (d) 2 V. [Pb. PMT 1997]
226. The potential difference across the terminals of a cell
varies with the current drawn from the cell accord-
ing to the graph
V V
Fig. 75
(a) 3.6 Ω (b) 7.2 Ω
(c) 16.2 Ω (d) 10.8 Ω.
(a) I (b) I [Himachal PMT 2001]
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 149
230. Refer to the network of Fig. 76. Potential difference 237. Three similar light A
VA – VB is bulbs are connected to
a constant-voltage dc +
A
supply as shown in the –
+
diagram. Each bulb op-
2W –
3W erates at normal
brightness and the am-
meter (of negligible re-
Fig. 77
2A D C sistance) registers a
steady current.
3W 2W
The filament of one of the bulbs breaks. What hap-
pens to the ammeter reading and to the brightness
B of the remaining bulbs ?
Fig. 76 ammeter reading bulb brightness
(a) increases increases
(a) + 2 V (b) + 1V
(c) – 1 V (d) + 4 V (b) increases unchanged
231. A wire has resistance 12 Ω. It is bent in the form of a (c) unchanged unchanged
circle. The effective resistance between the two points (d) decreases unchanged
on any diameter of the circle is (e) decreases decreases.
(a) 3 Ω (b) 6 Ω
238. The current in the circuit shown in Fig. 78 is
(c) 12 Ω (d) 24 Ω.
232. A metal block has length 2 m, width 1 m and thick-
ness 0.5 m. If the resistance across the length is R,
then the resistance across the thickness is
(a) R/16 (b) R/8
(c) R/4 (d) 4 R.
233. The efficiency of a modern lead accumulator is of the
order of
(a) 20 % (b) 50 % Fig. 78
(c) 70 % (d) 100 %. (a) 8.31 A (b) 6.82 A
234. An electric toaster draws 4.8 A, an electric iron draws (c) 4.92 A (d) 2 A.
10.2 A and an electric refrigerator draws 3.5 A from
a 220 volt mains. The three appliances are connected 239. There is a current of 40 ampere in a wire of 10 –6
in parallel. All the three appliances are to be oper- square metre area of cross-section. If the number of
ated at the same time. The current-carrying capacity free electrons per cubic metre is 1029, then the drift
of the fuse should be velocity is
(a) 8 A (b) 10 A (a) 250 mm s–1 (b) 25.0 mm s–1
(c) 13 A (d) 18.5 A. (c) 2.50 mm s–1
235. Five cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r, (d) 125 mm s–1.
are connected in series. If, due to oversight, one cell 240. In the circuit shown in P Q
is connected wrongly, then the equivalent emf and
Fig. 79, P ≠ R. The reading
the internal resistance of the combination is S
of galvanometer is same
(a) 3 E and 5 r (b) 3 E and 3 r
with switch S open or closed.
(c) 5 E and 4 r (d) 5 E and 5 r.
Then R
236. Into how many equal parts is it necessary to cut a G
(a) IR = IG (b) IP = IG
81 Ω conductor so as to obtain a resistance of 1 Ω by
(c) IQ = IG (d) IQ = IR.
connecting these parts in parallel ?
(a) 9 (b) 20 [IIT 1999]
V
(c) 41 (d) 81.
Fig. 79
150 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Fig. 83
(a) 2 Ω (b) 3 Ω
(c) 6 Ω (d) 9 Ω. [AMIU 2000]
253. A current I flows in a wire of circular cross-section
with the free electrons travelling with a drift velocity
v. The drift velocity of electrons when a current 2 I
flows in another wire of twice the radius and of the
same material is
(a) v/2 (b) v
(c) 2 v (d) 2 v. [CMC LDH 1997]
254. A wire of resistance 36 Ω is bent in the form of an
Fig. 86
equilateral triangle. The resistance between two ver-
tices is is found at Z. After switch S1 has remained closed
(a) 12 Ω (b) 24 Ω for some time, it is found that the contact at Z must
(c) 8 Ω (d) 36 Ω. be moved towards Y to maintain a balance. Which of
the following is the most likely reason for this ?
255. In the circuit E1 R1 (a) The cell V1 is running down.
shown here, E 1 =
E2 = E3 = 2 V and (b) The cell V2 is running down.
R1 = R2 = 4 Ω. The (c) The wire XZ is getting warm and its resistance is increas-
current flowing be- E2 ing.
tween points A and A B (d) The resistor R1 is getting warm and increasing in value.
B through battery (e) Polarisation is affecting the emf of V2.
E2 is [Associated Examination Board, Hampshire]
E3 R2
(a) Zero
259. The potentiometer in Q. 258 is balanced as before
(b) 2 A from A to B with S3 open. S3 is then closed and the balance point
Fig. 84
(c) 2 A from B to A again found. What happens to the balance length XZ
(d) None of the above. [MP PET 2001] when S3 is closed if the internal resistance of the cell
256. Two cells A and B, each V2 is NOT negligible ?
of emf 2 V, are connected (a) No change occurs
in series to an external re- (b) XZ increases, the increase being greatest for large values
sistance R = 1 ohm. If the of R2
internal resistance of cell (c) XZ increases, the increase being greatest for small values
A is 1.9 Ω and that of B is of R2
0.9 Ω, what is the poten- (d) XZ decreases, the decrease being greatest for large values
tial difference between the of R2
Fig. 85
terminals of cell A ? (e) XZ decreases, the decrease being greatest for small values
(a) 2 V (b) 3.8 V of R. [Oxford and Cambridge Schools
(c) Zero (d) None of the above. Examination Board]
[MP PET 2001]
152 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
260. An ideal ammeter (zero resistance) and an ideal volt- (a) 3.75 V, 7.5 V (b) 3.75 V, 3.75 V
meter (infinite resistance) are connected as shown. (c) 4.25 V, 7.5 V (d) 4.25 V, 4.25 V.
The ammeter and voltmeter readings are 264. In the above question, the net emf is
(a) 8 V (b) 12 V
(c) 2 V (d) 4 V.
265. The current in the circuit of Fig. 121 is
(a) 0.5 A anticlockwise (b) 0.5 A clockwise
(c) 1 A anticlockwise (d) 1 A clockwise.
266. In Q. 263, the potential difference between A and B is
(a) 4 V (b) 8 V
(c) 2 V (d) 1 V.
267. In the circuit shown in
Fig. 90, the resistance R
Fig. 87 is increased. What will be
the effect on the galva-
(a) 6.25 A, 3.75 V (b) 3.00 A, 5 V
nometer reading if the
(c) 3.00 A, 3.75 V (d) 6.00 A, 6.25 V. internal resistance of the
[RPET 1998] battery is zero ?
261. Two resistors of resistances 200 kΩ and 1 MΩ re- (a) It will not change.
spectively form a potential divider with outer junc- Fig. 90
(b) It will increase.
tions maintained at potentials of + 3 V and – 15 V. (c) It will decrease. (d) Data is inadequate.
268. In the above question, if the battery has a finite value
of internal resistance, then what will be the effect on
galvanometer reading ?
(a) It will not change. (b) It will increase.
Fig. 88
(c) It will decrease. (d) Data is inadequate.
What is the potential at the junction X between the
269. Three 10 Ω , 2 W resistors are connected as in Fig.
resistors ?
91. The maximum possible voltage between points A
(a) + 1 V (b) 0 V
and B without exceeding the power dissipation lim-
(c) – 0.6 V (d) – 12 V. its of any of the resistors is
262. N identical cells, each of emf E and internal resist-
ance r, are joined in series. Out of these, n cells are
wrongly connected, i.e., their terminals are connected
in reverse of that required for series connection. The
emf and internal resistance of the resulting battery
are respectively
(a) (N – n) E, (N – n)r (b) (N – 2n) E, (N – 2n)r Fig. 91
(c) (N – 2n) E, Nr (d) (N – n) E, Nr.
(a) 5 3 V (b) 3 5 V
[TNPCEE 2002]
5
263. In the circuit (c) 15 V (d) V.
3
shown in Fig. 89,
the cells E1 and E2 270 Two uniform wires A and B are of same metal and
have emfs 4 V and have equal masses. The radius of A is twice that of B.
8 V and internal The total resistance of A and B when connected in
resistances 0.5 Ω parallel is
and 1 Ω respec- (a) 4 Ω when the resistance of wire A is 4.25 Ω
tively. Then the (b) 5 Ω when the resistance of wire A is 4 Ω
potential differ-
(c) 4 Ω when the resistance of wire B is 4.25 Ω
ence across E1 and
E2 will be Fig. 89 (d) 5 Ω when the resistance of wire A is 4 Ω. [CEE 1994]
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 153
Fig. 94
10 10
(a) Ω (b) Ω
3 17
(c) 40 Ω (d) 45 Ω. [TNPCEE 2001]
279. The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of re-
Fig. 93 sistance shown in Fig. 95, between A and B, is
(a) 0.414 A (b) 0.828 A
(c) 1.656 A (d) 0.207 A.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
274. An electrical cable of copper has just one wire of ra-
dius 9 mm. Its resistance is 5 Ω. This single wire is
replaced by 6 different well-insulated copper wires,
each of radius 3 mm. The total resistance of the ca-
ble would now be equal to
(a) 7. 5 Ω (b) 45 Ω
(c) 90 Ω (d) 270 Ω.
275. The electric intensity E, current density j and spe-
cific resistance k are related to each other through
Fig. 95
the relation
(a) 6 ohm (b) 8 ohm
(c) 16 ohm (d) 24 ohm.
[TNPCEE 2000]
154 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Fig. 98
(a) 8.0 cm (b) 56.0 cm
(c) 64.0 cm (d) 72.0 cm.
[JIPMER 1999]
288. Two resistances 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in
series across a battery of emf 10 V and negligible
internal resistance. To increase the current from the
battery to double the value, a resistance of R must be
Fig. 96 connected across the combination. R is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (a) 100 Ω (b) 150 Ω
284. A battery formed of three lead-acid storage cells in 289. The equivalent resistance of three parallel resistors
series, each having emf 2.2 V, is charged at a rate of is 30 Ω. Their resistances are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5.
100 A. The potential difference across its terminals The resistances of the resistors are
is measured to be 7.6 V. This same battery is now (a) 30 Ω, 90 Ω, 150 Ω (b) 23 Ω, 69 Ω, 115 Ω
used to deliver a current of 100 A. Its new terminal (c) 46 Ω, 138 Ω, 230 Ω (d) 4 Ω, 12 Ω, 20 Ω.
voltage is 290. Four cells, each of emf 2 V and internal resistance
(a) 9.6 V (b) 5.6 V 1 Ω, are in series across an external resistance of 6
(c) 4.5 V (d) 18.7 V. [AMU 2001] Ω . The current in the external resistance is
285. In Fig. 97, a fuse in one of the bulbs causes all the (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.5 A
other to go out. Which bulb has fused ? (c) 0.8 A (d) 1.33 A.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 155
291. Two copper wires whose masses are 8 g and 12 g 297. One metre long metallic wire is broken into two un-
have lengths in the ratio 3 : 4. Their resistances are equal parts P and Q. The part P is uniformly ex-
in the ratio of tended into another wire R. Length of R is twice the
(a) 27 : 128 (b) 27 : 32 length of P and the resistance of R is equal to that of
(c) 16 : 9 (d) 4 : 9. Q. The ratio of the resistances of P and R is
(a) 1: 4 (b) 1: 2
292. In the circuit shown in
(c) 3 : 2 (d) None of these.
Fig. 99, the total current 2W 6W
supplied by the battery is [Roorkee 1996]
3W
(a) 2 A 298. In a potentiometer experiment, it is observed that no
6V current flows through the galvanometer when the
(b) 4 A 1.5 W
terminals of the cell are connected across 52 cm of
(c) 1 A the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a
(d) 6 A. Fig. 99 resistance of 5 Ω , a balance is observed when the cell
[AIEEE 2004 ; DPMT 1998, Modified] is connected across 40 cm of the wire. The internal
resistance of the cell is
293. In the above question, the current through the 6 Ω
200
resistor, is (a) 5 Ω (b) Ω
52
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
52
(c) 0.5 A (d) 4 A. (c) Ω (d) 1.5 Ω.
8
294. Three resistances, each of 3 Ω , are connected together 299. A battery of four cells in series, each having an emf
in different manners. Each time the combination is of 1.4 V and an internal resistance of 2 Ω, is to be
used at the same potential difference of V volt. The used to charge a small 2 V accumulator of negligible
ratio of the maximum and minimum currents ob- internal resistance. The charging current is
tained in combination will be (a) 0.1 A (b) 0.2 A
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 0.3 A (d) 0.45 A.
(c) 1 : 9 (d) 1 : 3. [Haryana PMT 2001]
295. In the circuit shown in Fig. 100, every resistance has 300. In the circuit shown in Fig. 102, the current I has a
24 ohm value. The resistance between terminals P value equal to
and Q is 15 W
4W
I 2W 15 W
15 W
4W
E = 10 V
r=1W
Fig. 100 A
(a) C and D are equal (b) B is higher than at A 308. A wire has a resistance of 10 ohm. What will be its
(c) C is higher than at B (d) A is lower than at B. resistance if it is stretched by one tenth of its origi-
302. A solid metal cube having resistance of 4 Ω between nal length ?
its two opposite faces is cut into 64 equal-sized small (a) 12.1 ohm (b) 14.2 ohm
cubes. The resistance of one such small cube between (c) 10 ohm (d) 10.1 ohm.
two opposite faces is [TNPCEE 1999]
(a) 4 Ω (b) 8 Ω 309. The specific resistance of manganin is 50 × 10 –8 Ω m.
(c) 12 Ω (d) 16 Ω . The resistance of a cube of length 50 cm will be
303. A battery of 6 V is connected to the terminals of a (a) 10 –6 Ω (b) 2.5 × 10 – 5 Ω
three-metre long wire of uniform thickness and re- (c) 10 – 8 Ω (d) 5 × 10 – 4 Ω.
sistance of the order of 100 Ω. The potential differ- [MGIMS 2000]
ence between two points separated by 50 cm on the
310. Read the following statements
wire is
Y : The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with
(a) 1 V (b) 1.5 V
increase of temperature.
(c) 2 V (d) 3 V.
Z : In a conducting solid, the rate of collisions be-
304. The current I in the given circuit is tween free electrons and ions increases with in-
crease of temperature.
Select the correct statement(s) from the follow-
ing :
(a) Y is true but Z is false (b) Y is false but Z is true
(c) Both Y and Z are true
(d) Y is true and Z is the correct reason for Y. [IIT 1993]
311. What is the current flowing through 2 Ω resistance
shown in Fig. 105 ?
Fig. 104
1 1
(a) A (b) A
45 15
1 3
(c) A (d) A. [RPMT 2001]
10 5
305. There are 8 equal resistances R. Two are connected
in parallel. Such four groups are connected in series.
The total resistance of the system will be
(a) R/2 (b) 2 R
(c) 4 R (d) 8 R. [MP PMT 1987] Fig. 105
Fig. 106
(a) 12 V (b) 15 V
(c) 20 V (d) 30 V
(e) 40 V.
315. Fig. 107 shows a network of 9 identical resistors.
The resistance of the whole circuit is 1.5 Ω . The re- Fig. 109
sistance R is (a) the 3 Ω resistor is 0.50 A (b) the 3 Ω resistor is 0.25 A
(c) the 4 Ω resistor is 0.50 A (d) the 4 Ω resistor is 0.25 A.
[IIT 1998]
319. A potentiometer is connected with a battery of con-
stant emf. The emf of cadmium cell is 1.0182 volt
and is balanced by 33.94 cm length of potentiometer.
The potential gradient of the potentiometer wire is
(a) 0.03 V cm–1 (b) 3 V cm–1
(c) 30 V m–1 (d) 1.0182 V m–1.
[JIPMER 1998]
320. When a current I is flowing through a conductor, the
Fig. 107 drift velocity is v. If 2I current flows through the
(a) 1.1 Ω (b) 3.3 Ω same metal but having double the area of cross-
(c) 1.4 Ω (d) 1.8 Ω. [MGIMS 1999] section, then the drift velocity will be
(a) v/4 (b) v/2
316. The potential difference between points A and B of
network shown in Fig. 108 is (c) v (d) 4v. [EAMCET 2000]
158 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
321. In the given circuit, the current in the 2 ohm resistor is (a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8.
326. The current in a circuit having an external resist-
ance of 3.75 Ω is 0.5 A. When a resistance of 1 Ω is
introduced into the circuit, the current becomes 0.4 A.
The emf of the power source is
(a) 4 V (b) 3 V
(c) 2 V (d) 1 V.
Fig. 110 327. In the previous question, the internal resistance of
(a) 1.4 A (b) 1.2 A the source is
(c) 0.4 A [DPMT 2000]
(d) 1.0 A. (a) 1 Ω (b) 0.85 Ω
322. The resistance between A and B (see Fig. 111) of the (c) 0.5 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω.
network is 328. A current flows in a wire of circular cross-section
with the free electrons travelling at drift velocity v.
What is the drift velocity for the same current in a
wire of the same material but of half the radius ?
v v
(a) (b)
4 2
(c) v (d) 2v
(e) 4v.
329. A 1 µF capacitor
holding a charge of
Fig. 111 1 × 10 –5 C is con-
nected to a 10 Ω re-
R R
(a) (b) sistor via a switch.
2 3 Fig. 113
What current will
(c) 6 R (d) 2 R.
flow after the switch is closed ?
323. A battery of 20 cells (each having emf 1.8 V and in-
(a) zero (b) 10–5 A
ternal resistance 0.1 Ω) is charged by 220 V and the
(c) 1 A (d) 10– 1 A
charging current is 15 A . The resistance to be put in
the circuit is (e) 10 A.
(a) 10.27 Ω (b) 12.27 Ω 330. AB is a potentiomet- R 2V
(c) 8.62 Ω (d) 16.24 Ω. er wire of length
100 cm and its re-
324. Fig. 112 represents a part of closed circuit. The po-
sistance is 10 Ω. It A 40 cm B
tential difference (VA – VB ) is
is connected in se-
ries with a resistance
R = 40 Ω and a bat- E
Fig. 114
tery of emf 2 V and
negligible internal resistance. If a source of unknown
emf E is balanced by 40 cm length of the potentiometer
Fig. 112 wire, then the value of E is
(a) 24 V (b) 0 V (a) 0.8 V (b) 1.6 V
(c) 6 V (d) 18 V. (c) 0.08 V (d) 0.16 V. [MP PET 2001]
325. 32 cells, each of emf 2 V, are connected in series and 331. In the network of resistances shown in Fig. 115, the
kept in a box. Externally, the combination shows a effective resistance between A and B is
potential difference of 56 V. The number of cells re-
versed in the connection is
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 159
Fig. 115
5 8
(a) R (b) R
3 3
(c) 5 R (d) 8 R. [AMU 1999]
332. When a conductor of cross-sectional area 5.0 × 10 –6 Fig. 118
m2 carries a current of 6.0 A, the drift velocity of the
(a) 60 Ω (b) 30 Ω
conduction electrons is 1.2 × 10 – 4 m s–1.
(c) 15 Ω (d) 90 Ω. [EAMCET 1999]
What is the number density (number per unit vol-
ume) of the conduction electrons ? 336. Fig. 119 shows a network of resistors. Each resist-
(a) 4.0 × 10 –28 m – 3 (b) 6.3 × 1028 m – 3 ance is of value 2 Ω. The equivalent resistance be-
(c) 1.6 × 10 –27 m – 3 (d) 1.3 × 1034 m – 3 tween A and B is
(e) 2.5 × 10 27 m – 3.
333. What is current I in the circuit shown in Fig. 116 ?
A
Fig. 119
Fig. 120
(a) 2 R (b) 4 R
(c) 10 R (d) 5 R/2.
[Haryana PMT 1998]
338. Two cells A and B of elec- E1
tromotive forces 1.3 V A
and 1.5 V respectively are
Fig. 117 arranged as shown in V
Fig. 126
(a) 0.3 A (b) 0.4 A
(c) 0.5 A (d) 0.6 A.
Fig. 123 [Himachal PMT 1998]
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 161
346. A and B are two points on a 350. Two cells of emfs E1 and E2 (E1 > E2 ) are connected
uniform ring of resistance R. as shown in Fig. 129.
∠ AOB = θ, where O is the
centre of the ring. The equiva-
lent resistance between A and
B is
Fig. 129
R
(a) (2 π − θ) θ When a potentiometer is connected between A and B,
4π2
Fig. 127 the balancing length of the potentiometer wire is
R
(b) × (2 π − 1) θ 300 cm. On connecting the same potentiometer be-
4π2 tween A and C, the balancing length is 100 cm. The
(2π − θ) θ
(c) R (d) R . [Pb. PMT 1996] E1
4π 2π ratio is
E2
347. The potential difference between the points P and Q
in the electric circuit shown in Fig. 128 is (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2.
[All India PM/PD 1997]
351. Three resistances of values 2 Ω , 3 Ω and 6 Ω are to
be connected to produce an effective resistance of 4
Ω. This can be done by connecting.
(a) 6 Ω resistance in series with the parallel combination of 2 Ω
and 3 Ω
(b) 3 Ω resistance in series with the parallel combination of 2 Ω
and 6 Ω
(c) 2 Ω resistance in series with the parallel combination of 3 Ω
and 6 Ω
(d) 2 Ω resistance in parallel with the parallel combination of
3 Ω and 6 Ω. [Karnataka CET 2001]
352. Five resistances are connected as shown in the
Fig. 128 Fig. 130. The equivalent resistance between A and C
(a) 4.5 V (b) 12 V is
(c) 24 V (d) 8 V.
2W 3W
[Karnataka CET 1999]
348. Three similar cells, each of emf 2 V and internal re- A 7W C
sistance r Ω , send the same current through an ex-
ternal resistance of 2 Ω , when connected in series or
4W 6W
in parallel. The strength of the current flowing
through the external resistance is Fig. 130
(a) 0.75 A (b) 1 A 10
(a) Ω (b) 22 Ω
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A. 3
[Karnataka CET 1999] (c) 15 Ω (d) 10.6 Ω.
349. A cylindrical metal wire of length l and cross-sec- [Karnataka CET 2001]
tional area S has resistance R, conductance G, resis- 353. Refer to the circuit shown in Fig. 131.
tivity ρ and conductivity σ. Which one of the follow-
ing expressions for σ is valid ?
GR ρlG
(a) (b)
ρ SR
Rl GS
(c) (d)
S l
ρR
(e) .
G
Fig. 131
162 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
25 W
0 0
(b) 475 Ω
0 B
0 V 0 V 0 V (c) 32 Ω
(a) (b) (c)
(d) 20 Ω. [WB JEE 1999] Fig. 135
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 163
Fig. 139
Fig. 137
(a) 14 Ω and 40 Ω (b) 40 Ω and 14 Ω
Which one of the graphs in Fig. 138 shows how the (c) 40 Ω and 30 Ω (d) 14 Ω and 30 Ω.
current density J varies along XY ? [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001]
J J 367. What is the effective resistance between points A and
B?
Fig. 140
0 0
X (a) Y X Y (a) 4R /3 (b) R
(b)
(c) 2R/3 (d) R/2.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001]
164 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2W
(d)
2W
M
P Q
1W
(e)
Fig. 141
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A Fig. 143
(c) 1.5 A (d) 3 A. 371. In the circuit shown in Fig. 144, what is the value of
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999] the unknown resistor R so that the total resistance
369. Three resistors are connected as shown in Fig. 142. of the circuit between points P and Q is also equal to
The points X and Y are connected to a source of di- R?
rect current.
The ratio I1/I3 is
Fig. 144
Fig. 142
(a) 3 Ω (b) 39 Ω
R3 + R1 R2 + R 1
(a) (b) (c) 69 Ω (d) 10 Ω. [MP PET 2001]
R1 R1
372. The equivalent resistance between points A and B in
R 2R 3 the circuit shown in Fig. 145 is
(c)
R 1 (R 2 + R 3 )
(d) dependent on the internal resistance of the source and
independent of R1.
370. In which one of the following arrangements of resis-
tors does the meter M, which has a resistance of 2 Ω,
gives the largest reading when the same potential Fig. 145
difference is applied between points P and Q ?
(a) 5 R (b) 2 R
1W 2W R 6R
M (c) (d) . [MP PET 2001]
P Q 2 5
(a)
373. In the circuit shown in Fig. 146, resistors X and Y,
each of resistance R, are connected to a 6 V battery
1W 1W of negligible internal resistance. A voltmeter, also of
resistance R, is connected across Y.
M M
P Q P Q
2W 2W
(b) (c)
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 165
(a) 111 V (b) 250 V
(c) 125 V (d) 333 V
X
(e) 200 V.
376. A standard cell of emf 1.02 V is used to find the
6V
potential difference across the wire XY as shown in
voltmeter of Fig. 149. It is found that there is no current in the
Y V
resistance R galvanometer when the sliding contact is at S, l1 from
X and l2 from Y.
What is the potential difference across XY ?
Fig. 146
What is the reading of the voltmeter ?
(a) zero (b) between zero and 3 V
(c) 3 V (d) between 3 V and 6 V
(e) 6 V.
374. Fig. 147 shows a simple potentiometer circuit for
measuring a small emf produced by a thermocouple.
The metre wire PQ has a resistance of 5 Ω and the
driver cell has an emf of 2.00 V. If a balance point is
obtained 0.600 m along PQ when measuring an emf
of 6.00 mV, what is the value of the resistance R ?
Fig. 149
F l2 I V
(a) 1.02 V (b) 1.02 GH l1 JK
F l1 + l2 I V Fl I
(d) 1.02 G 1 J V
(c) 1.02 GH l2 JK H l2 K
Fl + l I
(e) 1.02 G 1 2 J V .
H l1 K
377. If the conductivity of the fuse wire is doubled, the
safe current will be
1
(a) 2 times (b) times
Fig. 147 2
(a) 95 Ω (b) 995 Ω 1
(c) times (d) 2 times.
(c) 195 Ω (d) 1995 Ω 2
(e) 495 Ω. [EAMCET 1998]
375. A constant voltage dc source is connected, as shown 378. In the circuit shown in Fig. 150, there is a current of
in Fig. 148, across two resistors of resistances 400 3 A in the 2 Ω resistor.
kΩ and 100 kΩ. What are the values of the current I delivered by,
What is the reading of the voltmeter, also of resist- and the voltage V across the power supply ?
ance 100 kΩ, when connected across the second re-
sistor as shown ?
1000 V
dc supply
V
100 kW
400 kW 100 kW
Fig. 150
Fig. 148
166 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
I (in A) V (in V) 20 minute. When the other coil is used, the same
quantity of water takes 30 minute to boil. How long
(a) 3 10.5
will it take for the same quantity of water to boil if
(b) 4 9
the two coils are connected in series ?
(c) 4 12
(a) 25 minute (b) 12 minute
(d) 12 18
(c) 50 minute (d) 40 minute.
THERMAL EFFECTS OF CURRENT 385. In the previous question, have long will it take for
the same quantity of water to boil if the two coils are
379. A tap supplies water at 22°C. A man takes 1 litre of connected in parallel ?
water per minute at 37°C from the geyser. The power (a) 50 minute (b) 25 minute
of the geyser is
(c) 12 minute (d) 18 minute.
(a) 525 W (b) 1050 W
386. A fuse wire with a circular cross-sectional radius of
(c) 1575 W (d) 2100 W.
0.2 mm blows with a current of 5 A. For what value
380. Three equal resistors, connected in parallel with a
of current, another fuse wire made from the same
battery, together dissipate 90 W of power. What power
material but with cross-sectional radius of 0.3 mm
will be dissipated if the same resistances are con-
blow ?
nected in series with the same battery ?
3
10 (a) 5 A (b) 5 × A
(a) 10 W (b) W 2
3
3 27
(c) 90 W (d) 30 W. (c) 5 × A (d) 5 × A.
2 8
381. In the circuit shown in Fig. 151, the heat produced in
5 Ω resistor due to current flowing in it is 10 cal s–1. 387. You are given a resistance wire of length 50 cm and a
The heat produced in 4 Ω resistor is battery of negligible resistance. In which of the fol-
lowing cases is largest amount of heat generated ?
(a) When the wire is connected to the battery directly.
(b) When the wire is divided in two parts and both the parts are
connected to the battery in parallel.
(c) When the wire is divided in four parts and all the four parts
are connected to the battery in parallel.
(d) When only half the wire is connected to the battery.
388. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of
Fig. 151 a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in
it. The heat developed is doubled if
(a) 1 cal s–1 (b) 2 cal s–1
(a) both the length and radius of wire are halved
(c) 3 cal s–1 (d) 4 cal s–1. [IIT 1985]
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled
382. An immersion heater is rated 418 W. It should heat
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled
a litre of water from 10°C to 30°C in nearly :
(a) 144 s (b) 100 s (d) the length of the wire is doubled. [IIT 1980]
(c) 200 s (d) 400 s. 389. If 2.2 kW power is transmitted through a 10 Ω line at
22,000 V, the power loss in the form of heat will be
383. The maximum power rating of a 20 Ω resistor is
21 kW. The resistor is connected directly across a (a) 0.1 W (b) 1 W
300 V DC source. Now, (c) 10 W (d) 100 W. [MP PMT 1998]
(a) the resistor will be damaged 390. A house is served by a 220 V supply line. In a circuit
(b) the resistor will not be damaged protected by a fuse marked “9 ampere”, the maxi-
(c) the resistor will develop a power of 9 kW mum number of 60 W bulbs that can be safely con-
(d) none of the above.
nected in parallel is
(a) 11 (b) 22
384. An electric kettle has two coils. When one coil is con-
(c) 33 (d) 44.
nected to the AC mains, water in the kettle boils in
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 167
391. Let H1 be the heat generated per second in the fila- 397. Three equal resistances, each of 10 ohm, are con-
ment of 100 W, 250 V lamp and H2 be that in fila- nected as shown in Fig. 153. The maximum power
ment of 200 W, 250 V lamp. Which of the following is consumed by each resistance is 20 W. What is the
correct ? maximum power that can be consumed by the com-
(a) H1 = 2H2 (b) H1 = 4H2 bination ?
(c) 2H1 = H2 (d) 4H1 = H2.
[Pb. PMT 1995]
392. Two bulbs of 500 W and 300 W are manufactured to
operate on a 220 V line. If their resistances are R1
R1
and R2 respectively, the value of is
R2
Fig. 153
5 3
(a) (b)
3 5 (a) 5 W (b) 15 W
25 9 (c) 30 W (d) 60 W.
(c) (d) . [MP PET 1999]
9 25 [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2003]
393. The two head-lamps of a car are in parallel. They 398. The three resistances of equal value are arranged in
together consume 48 W with the help of a 6 V bat- the different combinations shown below. Arrange
tery. The resistance of each bulb is them in increasing order of power dissipation.
(a) 0.67 Ω (b) 3.0 Ω
i i
(c) 4.0 Ω (d) 1.5 Ω. (I) (II)
394. An electric kettle has two coils. When one coil is con-
nected to the A.C. mains, the water in the kettle boils
in 60 minutes. When the other coil is used, the same i i
quantity of water takes 40 minutes to boil. How long (III) (IV)
will it take for the same quantity of water to boil if
two coils are connected in parallel ?
(a) 24 min (b) 12 min Fig. 154
(c) 5 min (d) 1 min. (a) III < II < IV < I (b) II < III < IV < I
395. Three bulbs B1 , B2 (c) I < IV < III < II (d) I < III < II < IV
and B 3 are con- [IIT Screening 2003]
nected to the 399. Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first in
mains as shown in series and then in parallel. Each time the combina-
Fig. 152. How will tion is connected to a 220 volt ac supply line. The
the brightness of power drawn by the combination in each case respec-
bulb B1 be affected tively will be
if B2 or B3 are dis- (a) 50 watt, 100 watt (b) 100 watt, 50 watt
connected from the Fig. 152 (c) 200 watt, 150 watt (d) 50 watt, 200 watt
circuit ?
[All India PM/PD 2003]
(a) Bulb B1 become brighter.
(b) Bulb B1 become dimmer. 400. An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of
(c) No change occurs in the brightness. the coils is connected to an a.c. source, the water in
the kettle boils in 10 minute. When the other coil is
(d) Bulb B1 becomes brighter if bulb B2 is disconnected and
dimmer if bulb B3 is disconnected. used the water boils in 40 minute. If both the coils
396. Two bulbs of wattage 25 and 100 respectively, each are connected in parallel, the time taken by the same
rated at 220 volt, are connected in series with the quantity of water to boil will be
supply of 440 volt. Which bulb will fuse ? (a) 8 minute (b) 4 minute
(a) 100 watt bulb (b) 25 watt bulb (c) 25 minute (d) 15 minute
(c) None of them (d) Both of them.
[All India PM/PD 2003]
[MNR 1988]
168 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
401. Which of the plots shown in Fig. 155 may represent power in R in circuit (i)
the thermal energy produced in a resistor in a given What is the ratio ?
power in R in circuit (ii)
time as a function of the electric current ?
(a) 9.0 (b) 7.2
(c) 5.4 (d) 3.0
(e) 1.8.
406. Two identical batteries, each of emf 2 V and internal
resistance 1 Ω, are available to produce heat in a
resistance R = 0.5 Ω by passing a current through it.
The maximum Joulean power that can be developed
across R using these batteries is
(a) 1.28 W (b) 2.00 W
8
(c) W (d) 3.2 W.
9
Fig. 155 407. Two wires of the same material and having same
(a) a (b) b uniform area of cross-section are connected in series
(c) c [MP PMT 1999]
(d) d. in an electrical circuit. The masses of the wires are
m and 2m. When a current I flows in the circuit, the
402. When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rat-
heats produced by them in a given time are in ratio
ing are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
power drawn by them will be
(a) 180 watt (b) 10 watt (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4.
(c) 20 watt (d) 60 watt 408. The main supply voltage to a room is 120 V. The
[All India PM/PD 2004] resistance of the lead wires is 6 Ω. A 60 W bulb is
already giving light. What is the decrease in voltage
403. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at
across the bulb when a 240 W heater is switched on ?
220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resist-
(a) no change (b) 10 V
ance of a 60 W bulb for use in India is R, the resist-
(c) 20 V (d) more than 10 V.
ance of a 60 W bulb for use in USA will be
(a) 2 R (b) R /4 409. A battery of 10 cells is being charged with a power
(c) R /2 (d) R supply of 150 V. The charging current is 10 A . If the
[All India PM/PD 2004] emf of each cell is 2 V, the internal resistance of each
cell is 0.1 Ω , then the power supplied by the charger
404. A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V for 8 hour
when the current flowing is 10 A. The battery on is
discharge supplies a current of 5 A for 15 hour. The (a) 10 W (b) 20 W
mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14 V. The (c) 150 W (d) 1500 W.
“Watt-hour” efficiency of the battery is 410. A 250 V and 1000 W electric heater and five 250 V
(a) 80% (b) 90% and 100 W bulbs are connected in parallel. On con-
(c) 87.5% (d) 82.5%
necting this combination with 250 V power supply,
[All India PM/PD 2004] the current from the mains will be
405. Three identical cells, each having an emf of 1.5 V (a) 0.5 A (b) 5 A
and a constant internal resistance of 2.0 Ω, are con-
nected in series with a 4.0 Ω resistor R, firstly as in (c) 6 A (d) 15 A.
circuit (i), and secondly as in circuit (ii). 411. The resistors P, Q and R in the circuit have equal
resistance.
(a) 4.5 V (b) 1.5 V 429. Two 1000 W heaters when connected in parallel across
(c) 2.67 V (d) 13.5 V. [MP PMT 1999] 220 V supply produce heat Q1 in time t. If they are
connected in series across the same power supply,
423. A 25 W, 220 V bulb and a 100 W, 220 V bulb are
joined in series and connected to the mains. Which the heat produced in the same time is Q2. What is
bulb will glow brighter ? Q1/Q2 ?
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
(a) 25 W bulb (b) 100 W bulb
(c) 2 (d) 4.
(c) first 25 W bulb and then 100 W bulb
430. Four equal resistors, when connected in series, dis-
(d) both will glow with same brightness. [MP PMT 1999] sipate 5 W power. If they are connected in parallel,
424. A generator produces 100 kW of power at a potential the power dissipated will be
difference of 10 kV. The power is transmitted through (a) 80 W (b) 60 W
cables of total resistance 5 Ω. What is the power loss (c) 40 W (d) 20 W.
in the cables ? 431. Two resistors 2R and R are connected in series in an
(a) 50 W (b) 250 W electric circuit. The ratio of Joule heat in 2R to that
(c) 500 W (d) 1,000 W in R is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 9
(e) 50,000 W.
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1.
425. Fig. 160 shows a network of three resistances. When
432. Two resistors having equal resistances are joined in
some potential difference is applied across the net-
series and a current is passed through the combina-
work, the thermal powers dissipated by A , B and C
tion. Neglect any variation in resistance as the tem-
are in the ratio
perature changes. In a given time interval,
(a) equal amounts of thermal energy must be produced in the
resistors
(b) unequal amounts of thermal energy may be produced
(c) the temperature must rise equally in the resistors
(d) the temperature must rise unequally in the resistors.
[MP PMT 1999]
Fig. 160
433. In one ordinary electric heater, if the length of the
(a) 2 : 3 : 4 (b) 2 : 4 : 3 coil is reduced to half, a given quantity of water will
(c) 4 : 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2 : 4. [MGIMS 1998] boil in
(a) more time (b) less time
426. A 220 V and 700 W electric kettle and four 220 V and
(c) same time
100 W bulbs are connected in parallel. On connecting
(d) a time which depends upon the resistivity of the wire.
this combination with 220 V electric supply, the total
[Karnataka 1993]
current will be
434. An electric bulb is designed to draw P 0 power at
(a) 5.5 A (b) 6.9 A
V0 voltage. If the voltage is V, it draws P power. Then,
(c) 5.0 A (d) 0.15 A.
V0 V
(a) P = P0 (b) P = P0
427. Water boils in an electric kettle in 15 minute after V V0
switching on. If the length of the heating wire is de-
F V I2 P FG V0 IJ 2 P0 .
creased to 2/3 of its initial value, then the same
amount of water will boil with the same supply volt-
(c) P =
GH V0 JK 0 (d) P =
HVK
age in [Karnataka CET 2001]
(a) 8 minute (b) 10 minute 435. A 1000 W immersion heater is used to boil 1 litre of
(c) 12 minute (d) 15 minute. water at 20°C. How long will it take to boil water if
428. An electric heater of resistance 6 Ω is run for 10 60% of the available energy is radiated to surround-
minute on a 120 V line. The energy liberated in this ings ?
period of time is (a) 14 minute (b) 16 minute
(a) 7.2 × 103 J (b) 14.4 × 105 J (c) 18 minute (d) 20 minute.
(c) 43.2 × 104 J (d) 28.8 × 104 J.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 171
436. The same mass of copper is drawn into two wires 444. By means of electric immersion heater connected to
3 mm and 5 mm thick. The two wires are connected 240 V mains, it is required to heat 100 litre of water
in series and current is passed through them. The from 20°C to 70°C in 2 hours. Assuming no heat loss,
ratio of heats produced in the two wires is the current necessary to effect this is
(a) 12/13 (b) 21/8 (a) 6.1 A (b) 12.2 A
(c) 19/7 (d) 625/81. (c) 18.4 A (d) 28.4 A.
437. A house is served by a 220 V supply line. In a circuit 445. A given resistor cannot carry currents exceeding 20 A,
protected by a fuse marked 10 A, the maximum without exceeding its maximum power dissipation
number of 100 W lamps in parallel that can be turned ratings. By forced air cooling suppose that we in-
on is crease the rate at which heat can be carried away by
(a) 66 (b) 33 a factor of 3. Now the maximum current that the
(c) 22 (d) 11. resistor can carry is
438. It takes 16 minute to boil some water in an electric
(a) 20 / 3 A (b) 20 A
kettle. Due to some defect, it becomes necessary to
remove 10% turns of heating coil of the kettle. After (c) 20 3 A (d) 60 A.
repairs, how much time will it take to boil the same 446. The effective wattage of 100 W, 60 W and 40 W lamps
mass of water ? connected in series, is equal to
(a) 13.7 minute (b) 14.4 minute
(a) 200 W (b) 124 W
(c) 17.7 minute (d) 20.9 minute.
(c) 120 W (d) 600/31 W.
439. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio
of 1 : 3 are connected in series. The powers dissi- 447. Three equal resistors are connected as shown in
pated in them have the ratio Fig. 161. The maximum power consumed by each re-
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 sistor is 18 W. Then maximum power consumed by
(c) 1 : 6 (d) 3 : 1. the combination is
440. A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length and
only one of them is used in the heater. The ratio of
the heat produced by this half-coil to that by the origi-
nal coil is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 Fig. 161
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1.
(a) 18 W (b) 27 W
441. An electric kettle, rated 2.1 kW, contains 1 kg of wa-
(c) 36 W (d) 54 W.
ter. Assuming no heat loss and neglecting the ther-
mal capacities of the kettle, how long will it take to 448. A 100-W bulb and a 25-W bulb are designed for the
start to boil the water if its initial temperature is same voltage. They have filaments of the same length
and material. The ratio of the diameter of the 100-W
20°C ?
bulb to that of the 25-W bulb is
(a) 200 s (b) 160 s
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 120 s (d) 80 s.
442. You have three appliances, each of 500 W, running (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2. [AMU 1997]
on 220 V a.c. : (i) an electric lamp, (ii) an electric iron 449. The resistors P, Q and R in the circuit (Fig. 162)
(iii) an electric room heater. The electrical resistance have equal resistance. If the battery is supplying a
total power of 12 W, what is the power dissipated as
is
heat in resistor R ?
(a) maximum for electric lamp
(b) maximum for the heater
(c) maximum for electric iron
(d) same for all.
443. How long will it take to heat 2 litre of water from
25°C to 100°C in an electric kettle taking 5 A from a
220 V supply ?
(a) 2078 s (b) 136 s
(c) 573 s (d) 32 s. Fig. 162
172 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 2 W (b) 6 W 455. A copper refining cell consists of two parallel copper
(c) 3 W (d) 8 W plate electrodes 5 cm apart and 1m square, immersed
(e) 4 W. in a copper sulphate solution of resistivity 1.2 × 10 –2
450. All bulbs in fig. 163 are identical. Which bulb lights ohm metre. Then the potential difference which must
more brightly ? be established between the plates to provide a con-
stant current to deposit 0.66 kg of Cu on cathode in
one hour is nearly : Given : Z = 3.3 × 10 –7 kg C –1.
(a) 0.61 V (b) 0.33 V
(c) 33 V (d) 1.5 V.
456. The thermo emf of a thermocouple is 25 µV/°C at
room temperature. A galvanometer of 40 ohm resist-
ance, capable of detecting current as low as 10–5 A, is
connected with the thermocouple. The smallest tem-
perature difference that can be detected by this sys-
Fig. 163
tem is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 20° C (b) 16° C
(c) 3 (d) 4.
(c) 12° C (d) 8° C [AIEEE 2003]
[Haryana PMT 1997]
457. An ammeter in series with a silver voltameter reads
0.81 A. If the weight of Ag deposited in 20 minutes is
CHEMICAL AND THERMOELECTRIC 1.071 g, the error in the reading of the ammeter is
EFFECTS OF CURRENT Given : ECE of Ag = 0.001118 gC –1.
(a) + 0.012 A (b) – 0.012 A
451. A dry cell of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.10 Ω
(c) + 0.12 A (d) – 0.12 A.
is connected across a resistor in series with a very
low resistance ammeter. When the circuit is switched 458. The thermo emf produced in a thermocouple is
3 microvolt per degree centigrade. If the temperature
on, the ammeter reading settles to a steady value of
2.0 A. The steady rate of (i) chemical energy con- of the cold junction is 20°C and the thermo emf is
0.3 milli volt, the temperature of the hot junction is
sumption of the cell (ii) energy dissipation inside the
cell (iii) energy dissipation inside the resistor (iv) (a) 80° C (b) 100° C
power output of source is (c) 120° C (d) 140° C [EAMCET 2003]
(a) (i) 3W (ii) 0.4 W (iii) 2.6 W (iv) 2.6 W 459. The thermo emf of a thermocouple varies with the
(b) (i) 0.4 W (ii) 3 W (iii) 2.6 W (iv) 2.6 W temperature θ of the hot junction as E = aθ + bθ2 in
(c) (i) 2.6 W (ii) 0.4 W (iii) 9 W (iv) 1 W volt where the ratio a/b is 700°C. If the cold junction
(d) None of these. is kept at 0°C, then the neutral temperature is
452. If 100 kWh of energy is consumed at 33 V in a copper (a) 1400°C
voltameter, what is the mass of copper liberated ? (b) 350°C
Given : ECE of Cu = 0.33 × 10 –6 kg C –1. (c) 700°C
(a) 3.6 kg (b) 3.3 kg
(d) No neutral temperature is possible for this thermocouple.
(c) 1 kg (d) 1 m g.
[AIEEE 2004]
453. A Leclanche cell supplies a current of 1 A for
10 minute. ECE of hydrogen = 104 × 10 –7 g C –1. Mass 460. A silver voltameter of resistance 2 ohms and a 3 ohm
of hydrogen liberated is resistor are connected in series across a cell. If a re-
(a) 624 × 10 – 5 g (b) 1248 × 10 –5 g sistance of 2 ohm is connected in parallel with the
(c) 1872 × 10 –5 g (d) 2496 × 10 –4 g. voltameter, then the rate of deposition of silver
454. A Daniel cell has an internal resistance of 1.2 Ω. The (a) decreases by 25% (b) increases by 25%
ratio of amounts of heat produced in the cell for each (c) increases by 37.5% (d) decreases by 37.5%.
gram of Zn consumed in the short-circuit to that [Haryana PMT 1996]
when the external resistance of 1.2 Ω is connected in 461. A Leclanche cell supplies a current of one ampere for
circuit is one hour. Atomic weight of
(a) 2 (b) 1
Manganese = 55 ; Oxygen = 16 ; Zinc = 65
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 173
473. The unit of Peltier coefficient is 478. Two similar thermocouples, made of dissimilar met-
(a) JC–1 (b) JA–1 als A and B are connected as shown in Fig. 165
(c) JV–1 (d) None of these. through a key K and a sensitive galvanometer G.
[RPMT 1998] One of the thermocouples is dipped in a hot bath
maintained at temperature t2 and the other in a cold
474. The unit of Thomson coefficient is
bath at temperature t 1. When the key is pressed, a
(a) joule per coulomb (b) joule per volt
deflection is seen in the galvanometer because
(c) joule per watt (d) joule per coulomb per K.
[AIIMS 1997]
475. A thermocouple is connected across a galvanometer
of resistance 30 Ω. One junction is immersed in wa-
ter at 373 K and the other in ice at 273 K. The emf of
the thermocouple is 90 µV for each 1 K difference in
temperature between the junctions, and the thermo-
couple resistance is 6 Ω.
What current will flow in the galvanometer ?
(a) 1.8 µA (b) 250 µA
(c) 300 µA (d) 1.5 mA
(e) 1.8 mA.
476. Consider the following statements regarding a ther-
mocouple.
(A) The neutral temperature does not depend on the
Fig. 165
temperature of the cold junction.
(B) The inversion temperature does not depend on (a) An emf of the order of a few microvolt is generated which
the temperature of the cold junction. is proportional to (t2 – t1)
(a) Both A and B are correct. (b) An emf is generated the value of which will depend upon
the temperature of the hot bath only
(b) A is correct but B is wrong.
(c) B is correct but A is wrong. (c) An emf of about one volt is generated which will be propor-
tional to (t2 – t1)
(d) Both A and B are wrong. [DPMT 1999]
(d) An emf of a few microvolt is generated which will be pro-
477. A thermocouple produces a thermo emf of 40 µV/K.
portional to t2 only. [AIIMS 1996]
A thermopile is made using 150 such thermocouples.
The temperature of the two junctions is 20°C and 479. When a current passes through a wire whose parts
40°C. The thermo emf generated in the thermopile is are maintained at different temperatures, evolution
(a) 12 mV (b) 1.2 mV or absorption of heat all along the length of wire is
known as
(c) 120 mV (d) 0.24 V.
(a) Joule effect (b) Seebeck effect
[Himachal PMT 1996]
(c) Peltier effect (d) Thomson effect.
[AFMC 1996]
212. (a) 213. (d) 214. (c) 215. (a) 216. (b) 217. (c) 218. (a) 219. (c)
220. (b) 221. (b) 222. (d) 223. (a) 224. (d) 225. (c) 226. (c) 227. (c)
228. (b) 229. (c) 230. (b) 231. (a) 232. (a) 233. (c) 234. (d) 235. (a)
236. (a) 237. (d) 238. (d) 239. (c) 240. (a) 241. (b) 242. (d) 243. (d)
244. (d) 245. (a) 246. (a) 247. (d) 248. (d) 249. (a) 250. (d) 251. (a)
252. (a) 253. (a) 254. (c) 255. (b) 256. (c) 257. (a) 258. (a) 259. (e)
260. (b) 261. (b) 262. (c) 263. (c) 264. (d) 265. (a) 266. (d) 267. (a)
268. (b) 269. (b) 270. (a) 271. (a) 272. (d) 273. (a) 274. (a) 275. (b)
276. (a) 277. (d) 278. (a) 279. (b) 280. (b) 281. (d) 282. (d) 283. (c)
284. (b) 285. (a) 286. (b) 287. (b) 288. (d) 289. (c) 290. (c) 291. (b)
292. (b) 293. (c) 294. (b) 295. (a) 296. (d) 297. (a) 298. (d) 299. (d)
300. (a) 301. (a) 302. (d) 303. (a) 304. (d) 305. (b) 306. (a) 307. (d)
308. (a) 309. (a) 310. (c) 311. (b) 312. (b) 313. (c) 314. (a) 315. (b)
316. (c) 317. (b) 318. (d) 319. (a) 320. (c) 321. (d) 322. (b) 323. (a)
324. (d) 325. (b) 326. (c) 327. (d) 328. (e) 329. (c) 330. (d) 331. (a)
332. (b) 333. (d) 334. (a) 335. (c) 336. (b) 337. (d) 338. (b) 339. (a)
340. (b) 341. (a) 342. (b) 343. (c) 344. (a) 345. (d) 346. (a) 347. (d)
348. (a) 349. (a) 350. (d) 351. (c) 352. (a) 353. (b) 354. (a) 355. (c)
356. (a) 357. (b) 358. (a) 359. (b) 360. (c) 361. (c) 362. (b) 363. (b)
364. (b) 365. (b) 366. (a) 367. (d) 368. (b) 369. (d) 370. (c) 371. (c)
372. (c) 373. (b) 374. (b) 375. (a) 376. (e) 377. (a) 378. (c) 379. (b)
380. (a) 381. (b) 382. (c) 383. (b) 384. (c) 385. (c) 386. (d) 387. (c)
388. (b) 389. (a) 390. (c) 391. (c) 392. (b) 393. (d) 394. (a) 395. (b)
396. (b) 397. (c) 398. (a) 399. (d) 400. (a) 401. (d) 402. (c) 403. (b)
404. (c) 405. (a) 406. (b) 407. (b) 408. (d) 409. (d) 410. (c) 411. (a)
412. (d) 413. (b) 414. (c) 415. (c) 416. (a) 417. (c) 418. (b) 419. (d)
420. (b) 421. (d) 422. (d) 423. (a) 424. (c) 425. (c) 426. (c) 427. (b)
428. (b) 429. (d) 430. (a) 431. (c) 432. (a) 433. (b) 434. (c) 435. (a)
436. (d) 437. (c) 438. (b) 439. (b) 440. (d) 441. (b) 442. (d) 443. (c)
444. (b) 445. (c) 446. (d) 447. (b) 448. (b) 449. (a) 450. (a) 451. (a)
452. (a) 453. (a) 454. (a) 455. (b) 456. (b) 457. (a) 458. (c) 459. (d)
460. (b) 461. (a) 462. (c) 463. (a) 464. (c) 465. (b) 466. (b) 467. (c)
468. (d) 469. (b) 470. (e) 471. (a) 472. (b) 473. (a) 474. (d) 475. (b)
476. (b) 477. (c) 478. (a) 479. (d)
176 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
A B
1W
Y¢
Fig. 170 Fig. 171
1W
Fig. 172
4
34 Fig. 174
∴ Rp = = Ω
4
+1 7 The equivalent of the above network is a parallel com-
3
bination of 3 Ω, 4 Ω and 6 Ω
Since the two segments are in series therefore the
4 8 1 1 1 1
combined resistance is 2 × Ω or Ω. = + +
7 7 R 3 4 6
169. V = E – Ir1, V = 0
1 8+6+4 24 4
∴ E = Ir1 = or R = Ω= Ω.
R 24 18 3
Total emf = Ir1 + Ir1 = 2Ir1
Total resistance = R + r1 + r2 173. Total emf = 2.2 volt
6
2Ir1 Total internal resistance = Ω=2 Ω
Now, I= 3
R + r1 + r2
Total resistance = 2 Ω + 2 Ω = 4 Ω
or R + r1 + r2 = 2r1
or R = 2r1 – r1 – r2 or R = r1 – r2
170. VXY = 1.5 volt
Voltage across 3 Ω = 4.5 volt
Now, 4.5 = I × 3
4.5
I= A = 1.5 A
3
VXY = 1.5 RXY 2Ω
1.5 = 1.5 RXY or RXY = 1 Ω
Fig. 175
40
171. VB = V – ×4 or VB = V – 1.6 2.2 11
100 Current, I = A= A = 0.55 A.
4 20
178 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
E 182.
174. I =
r
4 4
8= or r = Ω = 0.5 Ω
r 8
3.2 × 10−19 × 4
175. E= volt = 8 volt
1.6 × 10 −19
E E
176. V=E– R or V = E – R
R+r R+R
E E
or V=E– or V =
2 2
177. Balanced Wheatstone Bridge.
R
178. Resistance of each part is . When two such parts Fig. 177
10 The equivalent of the above network is :
R
are connected in series, then the resistance is . Now,
5
R
five resistances, each of value , are connected in
5
parallel.
R
∴ Combined resistance is .
25 Fig. 178
179. Total resistance in the circuit
20 × 10
F 1 I
= G 4 × + 1J
Parallel combination of 20 Ω and 10 Ω gives
20 + 10
H 4 K Ω=2 Ω
200
Total emf = 1.5 × 2 V = 3 V Ω i.e., Ω.
30
3V 200 20 80
Current, I = = 1.5 A Now, R = 10 + + 10 = 20 + = Ω = 26.7 Ω.
2Ω 30 3 3
180. Voltage across 5 Ω = 10 V 183. E ∝ 125
10 V ∝ 100
∴ I=
A =2A
5 E 125 5 I (R + r) 5
4×5 29 = = , =
181. Total resistance = + 1= Ω V 100 4 IR 4
4+5 9
2+r 5
10 × 9 90 = or 8 + 4r = 10 or 4r = 2
Current, I = Ω= A 2 4
29 29
1
4 × 90 40 or r= Ω = 0.5 Ω
Current through 5 Ω = A= A 2
29 × 9 29
184. emf = 6 V ; Total resistance = 6 Ω
I1 R 2 I1 R2 6
= or = I= A=1A
I2 R 1 I R1 + R2 6
For direction of current, look for the direction of emf
of cell of 10 V.
E
185. I=
nr + r
E
I=
(n + 1) r
Fig. 176
V = E – Ir Fig. 179
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 179
E l
V=E– r R = (ρ1 + ρ2 )
nr + r A
LM
V = E 1−
1 OP or
V
=
n Again,
2l
R=ρ
N n+1 Q E n+1 A
Comparing, 2ρ = ρ1 + ρ2
186. For resistors in series connection, current (I) is the
same through the resistors. In other words, ratio of 1
or ρ = (ρ1 + ρ2 )
the voltage drop across each resistor with its resist- 2
ance is the same. That is, 193. V = E – Ir1
5−3 3−2 2 2E
I= = = or V = E− r
R1 R2 R3 r1 + r2 + R 1
i.e. R1 : R2 : R3 = 2 : 1 : 2. But V = 0 (given)
187. Resistance is halved. Current is doubled.
2Er1
R 30 ∴ E=
188. = = 3 or R = 6 Ω. r1 + r2 + R
2 10
or r1 + r2 + R = 2r1 or R = r1 – r2
l
189. R=ρ nE E
πd 2 194. =
R + nr R + r
4 n
When d is halved, l will be quadrupled. nE nE
or =
So, R is increased by a factor of 16. R + nr nR + r
190. Equivalent resistance between a and b is 3 Ω. Νοw, or R + nr = nR + r
the equivalent of the given network is or (n – 1) r = (n – 1)R
or r=R
6×3 18
195. Resistance, R = Ω= Ω=2Ω
6+3 9
3
I=
A = 1.5 A
2
Fig. 180 196. New length is 2l, if the original length is l. Clearly,
9×6 54 18 a
RAB = Ω= Ω= Ω = 3.6 Ω. the new cross-sectional area is , if a is the initial
9+6 15 5 2
cross-sectional area. This is because the volume of
R1R 2
191. S = R1 + R2, P = the wire has to remain constant.
R1 + R 2
2l
∵ S = n P, Now, R′ = ρ = 4R
a/2
nR1R2 Increase in resistance = 4R – R = 3R
∴ R1 + R2 =
R 1 + R2
3R
or (R1 + R2)2 = nR1R2 Percentage increase in resistance = × 100 = 300.
R
For minimum value of n, R1 = R2 197. BC, CD and BA are the known resistances. The un-
∴ (2R1)2 = nR12 known resistance is to be connected between A and D.
or n = 4
I 1 R 2 ρL 2 F IFA I
l
192. R1 = ρ1 , R2 = ρ2
l 198. =
I2 R 1
=
A2
A
× 1 =
ρL 1
L2
L1
GH JK GH A JK
1
2
3 F 2I
A A 2
I1 L 2 πr12 L2 r12
= G J
4 H 3K
R = R1 + R2 or = =
I2 L1 πr22 L1r22
l l
R = ρ1 + ρ2 3 4 1
A A = × =
4 9 3
180 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG 5 × 15 + 1.25IJ Ω = FG 75 + 1.25IJ Ω
260. Total resistance =
H 5 + 15 K H 20 K
Fig. 184 = (3.75 + 1.25) Ω = 5 Ω
255. For loop (1) 2 + 2 – 4I1 = 0 20
I= A=4A
or 4I1 = 4 or I1 = 1 A 5
15
2V
4W
Current through 5 Ω = ×4A =3A
I1 20
1 Voltmeter reading = Potential drop across 1.25 Ω
I1 + I2 I1
= 4 × 1.25 volt = 5 volt
A B 261. Current I through the resistors is
I1 + I2
2V 3 − ( − 15)
I2 2 I2 I= mA = 0.015 mA
200 + 1000
4W I2 Potential at X is thus
2V
Vx = 3 – (200 × 103)(0.015 × 10–3) = 0
Fig. 185
184 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2 × 10 −7 × 1 × 10 −2 m m
280. R= Ω = 2 × 10–7 Ω But d= or V =
1 × 100 × 10 −4 V d
l2d
2 × 10−7 × 100 × 10−2 ∴ R=ρ
281. R= Ω = 2 × 10–3 Ω m
1 × 10 −4
R1 l12 m2 12 3 × 3 27
6 2R = × = × =
282. = ⇒ R = 3 Ω R 2 m1 l22 8 4 × 4 32
5 2+R
283. Both the length and cross-sectional area are doubled. 2×6 12
292. R26 = Ω= Ω
So, resistance remains unaffected. 2+6 8
284. 7.6 = 3 × 2.2 + 100 r 3
R26 = Ω
7.6 − 6.6 1 2
or r= Ω= Ω It is in series with 1.5 Ω. This gives 3 Ω. It is in
100 100
1 3
Again, V = 6.6 – 100 × = 5.6 volt parallel with 3 Ω. This gives Ω i.e. 1.5 Ω.
100 2
285. A simple examination of the circuit leads us to the 6
I= A=4A
right choice. 1.5
2 1 I1 2
286. I= A= A 293. =
20 10 2 8
1 2
Now, V= × 15 volt = 1.5 volt or I1 = A = 0.5 A
10 4
Potential gradient I1 6W
1.5 3
= V cm–1 = V cm–1
1000 2000
2A
287. E1 ∝ 64
E1 – E2 ∝ 8 2W
E2 ∝ l Fig. 186
∴ 64 – l = 8 294. Rmax. = 9 Ω
or l = 64 – 8 = 56 cm Imax 9
Rmin. = 1 Ω or =
10 1 Imin 1
288. I= A= A
300 30 295. The given network is equivalent to the network shown
1 10 (300 + R ) in Fig. 187 So, the net resistance is (12 + 8 + 6) Ω i.e.
Now 2× = 26 Ω.
30 300 R
or 2R = 300 + R or R = 300 Ω.
1 1 1 1 Fig. 187
289. = + +
30 k 3k 5k 48 × 20
296. Potential difference across PQ = V = 3.2 V
1 15 + 5 + 3 15k 30 300
or = or = 297. Length is doubled. So, area of cross-section is halved.
30 15 k 23 1
298. E ∝ 52
or k = 46 V ∝ 40
So resistances are 46 Ω, 138 Ω and 230 Ω.
E 52 I (R + r ) 52
290. E = 8 volt, R = 10 Ω = or =
V 40 IR 40
8
I= A = 0.8 A R + r 52 r 52
10 = or 1+ =
R 40 R 40
l l×l l2
291. R=ρ =ρ or R = ρ r 12 12 3
a l×a V or = or r = ×5Ω= Ω = 1.5 Ω
R 40 40 2
186 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
4 × 1.4 − 2 3.6 −8
299. I= A= A = 0.45 A 309. R = ρ = 50 × 10 × 2 Ω = 10–6 Ω
4×2 8 l 1
10 310. When temperature of a semiconductor is increased,
300. I= A more holes and free electrons are generated.
15 4
+ +2+1 311. Equivalent resistance of parallel combination is
3 2
10 10 4×2 8 4
= A= A= 1A Ω i.e. Ω or Ω. Ratio of voltage drops is
5+2+3 10 4+2 6 3
4
301. Slope of V – I graph gives resistance ; CD is a straight 1: or 3 : 4. So, voltage across parallel combination
line. 3
4E 4E 2E
302. L3 = 64 l3 is . Current through 2 Ω = = .
7 7×2 7
L 312. Note that 3 Ω and 16 Ω represent minimum and
L = 4l or l =
4 maximum values of the combinations.
l 313. Number of parallel resistances
Again, R=ρ
a Total current to be carried
For the case of a cube of each side l1 , =
Current - carrying capacity of individual resistor
l ρ
R=ρ or R = 4
l 2
l = =4
1
Since l is reduced by a factor of 4 therefore R is in- 10
creased by a factor of 4. So, new resistance is 4 × 4 Ω Resistance of parallel combination = Ω = 2.5 Ω
4
i.e. 16 Ω. Clearly, two such units are required to be connected
6V in series. So, total resistance is 5 Ω.
303. Potential gradient = = 2 V m–1
3m 200
314. Effective resistance across voltmeter = = 100 kΩ
Potential difference between two points separated by 2
1 1 Total resistance across dc supply = 400 + 100
m= × 2 = 1 volt = 500 kΩ
2 2
2 30 3 100
304. I = 5 × 10 A = A= A Thus the voltage across the voltmeter = (60 V)
50 5 500
5 + 10 = 12 V.
R 315. An equivalent of the given network is as under :
305. Resistance of parallel combination is
2
R
Total resistance of series combination = 4 × = 2 R.
2
306. I = 1.6 × 10–19 × 6 × 1015 A = 0.96 × 10 –3 A = 0.96 m A.
1.6 × 10 −19
307. I = A = 1.07 × 10–3 A. Note that the value
1.5 × 10 −16
of radius is not required.
LM l OP = al 10a
308.
N
a′ l +
10 Q or a′ =
11
Fig. 188
l′ l 2R 2 2R
Now, R′ = ρ and R = ρ Combination of 2R and R gives or .
a′ a 3R 3
R ′ l′ a 11 11 2R 5R
The series combination of and R gives .
= × = × = 1.21 3 3
R a′ l 10 10
So, the network reduces to a parallel combination of
or R′ = 1.21 × 10 Ω = 12.1 Ω
5R 5R
, R and .
3 3
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 187
5R 3 5R
Rp = or =
11 2 11
33 Fig. 189
10 R = 33 or R = Ω = 3.3 Ω.
10
R
2 20 4 It is a parallel combination of R and .
316. I= A= A= A 2
7.5 75 15
FG R IJ
R2
Current in upper branch (R)
2H 2K
R
FG
1 4 2 IJ ∴ Rp =
R
=
3R
=
3
=
H
2 15
A =
15
A
K R+
2 2
2 20 4 220 − 20 × 1.8
VAB = 10 × volt = volt = volt 323. 15 =
15 15 3 20 × 0.1 + R
15 × 30 184
317. R+ = 20 15 [2 + R] = 220 – 36 = 184 or 2 + R =
15 + 30 15
450 184 184 − 30
R = 20 – or R= –2= Ω
45 15 15
R = 10 Ω 154
Ω = 10.27 Ω
=
9 15
318. Total resistance = 9 Ω ; current I = A=1A 324. VA + 3 – 3 – 18 = VB or VA – VB = 18 volt
9
At A, this current is to be distributed between 8 Ω 325. 56 = 32 × 2 – 2n × 2
and the resistance of the remainder circuit which is 8 4n = 64 – 56 = 8 or n = 2
Ω. The current will be equally distributed. So, cur- E
326 & 327. Using I= , we get
1 R+r
rent entering B = A. This current will be distrib-
2 E
uted equally between 8 Ω and the resistance of the 0.5 = …(i)
remaining circuit which is 8 Ω. So, current through 3.75 + r
1 E
4 Ω resistor is A i.e. 0.25 A. 0.4 = …(ii)
4 4.75 + r
1.0182 V Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
319. Potential gradient = = 0.03 V cm–1
33.94 cm 5 4.75 + r
=
I 4 3.75 + r
320. vd =
neA or 18.75 + 5r = 19 + 4r
Both I and A are doubled. So, drift velocity remains or r = 19 – 18.75 = 0.25 Ω
unchanged.
E
321. Condition for balanced Wheatstone Bridge is satis- From Eq. (i), 0.5 =
3.75 + 0.25
fied. So, there will be no current through the galva-
nometer. or E = 4 × 0.5 V = 2 V
I(12) 328. The current I is related to drift velocity v and cross-
Now,
30
= sectional area A by
1.4 12 + 30
I = nAve
1.4 × 30 where e is the charge of 1.6 × 10–19 C.
or I(12) = A=1A
42 n is the number density of the conduction
electrons.
188 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Since I is held constant, we have 333. Total resistance of the parallel combination of 2 Ω
1 1 1 2×6 12 3
v ∝ = or v ∝ . and 6 Ω is Ω i.e. Ω or Ω.
A πr 2 r 2 2+6 8 2
Now, the radius of the wire is half, we have 3
Now, I= A=2A
vA r2
3/2
= 2 = 22 = 4 ⇒ vA = 4 v. 334. The equivalent of the given network is as under :
v rA
329. The voltage across the capacitor is
Q 1 × 10−5
V= = = 10 V
C 1 × 10−6
Thus, the current flowing through the resistor after
the switch is closed will be
V 10
I= = A=1A
R 10
Fig. 191
330. Suppose source of unknown emf is not connected.
The parallel combination of 10 Ω and 10 Ω gives 5 Ω.
2 2 1
Then, I= A= A= A 335. The equivalent of the given network is as under :
10 + 40 50 25
Voltage across 40 cm length of wire
1 10 4
= × × 40 = volt = 0.16 volt
25 100 25
Clearly, E = 0.16 volt
331. Using principle of balanced Wheatstone Bridge, we
arrive at the following equivalent network.
Fig. 192
Fig. 190
FG 25 IJ 4 K = FG 25 IJ 4 = 20 V
Fig. 194
v=
H 1K + 4 KK H 5 K
3R Thus, the limits are 0 and 20 V.
It is a series combination of R and .
2 344. The current density at P is higher than at Q. For the
This gives 5R . same current flowing through the metallic conductor
2 PQ, the cross-sectional area at P is narrower than at
338. IrB = 0.05 Q. The resistance per unit length r is given by
IrA = 0.15 1
r=ρ
rB 1 A
Dividing, =
rA 3 where ρ is the resistivity.
or rA = 3rB A is the cross-sectional area of the conductor
PQ.
1 1 1 1 1 + 3 + 6 10 1
339. = + + = = = Thus, r is inversely proportional to cross-sectional area
R 60 20 10 60 60 6
A of the conductor.
or R=6Ω
6 3×9 27 9
Now, 1 × 6 = 60 I or I = A = 0.1 A 345. R39 = Ω = Ω = Ω
60 3+9 12 4
Total resistance
l
340. R = ρ 9 1 10
πr 2 = + = Ω = 2.5 Ω
4 4 4
l
Now, l′ × π (nr)2 = l × πr2 or l′ = 1.5 3
n2 Now, I= A= A = 0.6 A
2.5 5
l′ ρl 1
R′ = ρ = = R R
π (nr) 2 2
n π (n r )2 2
n4 346. Resistance/length =
2πr
341. In one second, the belt has travelled through the point R Rθ
for a distance v m. Thus, the particular point has Resistance of shorter segment = (rθ) =
2πr 2π
swept through a surface area of vw m2. As a conse-
quence, the charges removed through the point is R
Resistance of longer segment = (r) (2π – θ)
wv σ in one second. Thus, the current collected through 2πr
the point is wv σ. It is the case of a parallel combination.
4×6 24 Rr θ (2π − θ) R
342. R46 = Ω= Ω = 2.4 Ω ∴ Rp = or Rp = (2π – θ)θ.
4+6 10 2πr θ + 2π − θ 4 π2
1 1 1 1 347. Thinking in terms of balanced Wheatstone Bridge,
= + +
R 468 4 6 8 3 Ω resistance is not to be considered.
8 × 16 128 16
1 12 + 8 + 6 Now, R= Ω = Ω or Ω.
= 8 + 16 24 3
R 468 48
3 16
48 24 Again, V = IR = × volt = 8 volt
or R468 = Ω= Ω = 1.85 Ω 2 3
26 13 6 2
348. Is = ; Ip =
In series combination, I is constant. So, V is more for 2 + 3r r
higher resistance. 2+
3
190 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
10 × 1.5
358. I =
10 × 1
20 +
5
15 15 x
I= A= A = 0.68 A
20 + 2 22
dx b
359. 5 = R0 [ 1 + 50 α] … (1)
6 = R0 [ 1 + 100 α]
5 1 + 50 α
=
6 1 + 100 α
6 + 300 α = 5 + 500 α Fig. 197
1 dx
or 1 = 200 α or α = dR = ρ
200 4 πx2
z z
From Eq. (1), 5 = R0 1 + 50 ×
N 200 Q R=
a
ρ
dx or R =
ρ
a
x −2 dx
4 πx 2
or 5 = R0 LM1 + 1 OP b
4π
b
N 4Q ρ x −2 + 1 a
ρ 1 LM OP a
or
5×4
R0 = Ω=4Ω
R=
4π − 2 + 1
b
or R = –
4π x N Q b
5
360. The number density n of conduction electrons in the R= LM
ρ 1 1 OP or R =
ρ a−b
copper is a characteristic of the copper and is about N
4π b a
−
Q 4 π ab
1029 at room temperature for both the copper rod X 363. Clearly, E2 = IY
and the thin copper wire Y. 12
2= Y or 500 + Y = 6 Y
Both X and Y carry the same current I since they are 500 + Y
joined in series. or 5Y = 500 or Y = 100 Ω
From I = nAvq 364. The current I through the resistance wire XY is the
where q is the electron charge of 1.6 × 10–19 C, same. Since the wire is uniform, its cross-sectional
v is the drift velocity in the conductor, area A is constant throughout its length. Hence, the
A is the cross-sectional area of the conductor. current density,
We may conclude that rod X has a lower drift velocity I
J=
of electrons compared to wire Y since rod X has a A
larger cross-sectional area. This is so because the elec- is also uniform through the wire XY.
trons in X collide more often with one another and 365. Q = at – bt2
with the copper ions when drifting towards the posi-
tive end. Thus, the mean time between collisions of dQ
= a – 2bt or I = a – 2bt
the electrons is more in X than in Y. dt
2500 Clearly, the current decreases linearly with time.
361. Parallel combination of 100 Ω and 25 Ω gives When I = 0, a – 2bt = 0
125
Ω i.e. 20 Ω. a
Now, 120 Ω and 120 Ω are in parallel. The combined or 2bt = a or t =
2b
resistance is 60 Ω. Now, we have a parallel combina-
tion of 160 Ω and 40 Ω. dI
Again, = – 2b.
160 × 40 6400 dt
∴ R= Ω= Ω = 32 Ω
160 + 40 200 366. Potential difference across 20 Ω = 20 × 1 = 20 volt
362. Consider a spherical shell of radius x and thickness = Potential difference across R2
dx. Its resistance is given by
192 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Current in R2 = 0.5 A 1 1 1 1
372. = + +
20 Rp R 2R 2R
R2 = = 40 Ω
0.5 1 2 + 1+ 1
or =
Potential difference across R1 = 69 – 20 = 49 V Rp 2R
20 2R R
Current in R1 = 0.5 A + A + 1 A = 3.5 A or Rp = or Rp =
10 4 2
373. The circuit may be redrawn as follows :
49
∴ R1 = = 14 Ω
3.5 I I I
R
367. Effective resistance = (2 R)// R // (2R) = R // R = .
2 R R
6V I
368. Current = =2A 6V 3
3Ω 2 º 6V
º
6V 2R
1
R R 2R
I I
=
LM OP
0.3
3/ 2
or I = 5 ×
27
A
N Q
4A
1A 6W
5 0.2 8
6V
Fuse wire
Fig. 200
I2Rt = 2πrl ht where h is heat lost by radiation per
Voltage across the power supply unit area per unit time.
= 6 V + 6 V = 12 V ρl
I2 t = 2 πr lht
379. Pt = mSθ πr 2
or I2 ∝ r3 or I ∝ r3/2.
1 × 4200 × 15
P= W = 1050 W
60
387. Option (c) is a case of minimum resistance and maxi-
Problem of geyser and water mum current.
Use Pt = mSθ l
388. R = ρ ; When both l and r are doubled, resistance
Take S = 4200 J/kg/°C. πr 2
is halved. Current is doubled.
V2 3V 2 V2
380. 90 = = or = 30 P 1 FG 1 IJ 2
R/3 R R 389. I= =
V 10
A, P =
H 10 K × 10 W = 0.1 W
H V K H 1.5 K
1
= 32 = 9
(I) Req = R + R + R = 3 R 2
(II) Req = 2R/3 406. For maximum power, internal resistance = 0.5 Ω
(III) Req = R/3 So, the batteries should be connected in parallel.
(IV) Req = 3R/2 2
I= =2A
∴ Increasing order of power dissipation 0.5 + 0.5
III < II < IV < I 1
P=2×2× W=2W
399. When connected in series, each bulb gets 110 V. 2
V2 R1 m1 a22
P= . V halved. P becomes one-fourth. So, each 407. = ×
R R 2 a12 m2
100 Fm I Fa I 2
FG 1IJ (1)
bulb gets
4
W i.e., 25 W.
= GH m JK GH a JK
1
2
2
1
=
H 2K 2 =
1
2
So total power consumed by series combination is
50 W. Q1 I 2R 1t 1
= =
In parallel combination, each bulb gets 220 V. So, Q2 I 2 R 2 t 2
each bulb consumes 100 W. Power drawn by combi-
nation is 200 W. Relation between resistance, mass and
tt 10 × 40 cross-sectional area
400. tp = 1 2 = = 8 minute
t1 + t2 10 + 40 l×a V
R=ρ or R = ρ
401. U ∝ I2. a× a a2
V 2 (200)2 R=ρ
m
=
ρ m LM OP
402. The resistance of each bulb =
P
=
60
Ω . When
da2 d a2 N Q
three identical bulbs are connected in series, their m
I∝
(200) 2 a2
resultant resistance, Rre = 3 ×Ω
60
120 × 120
∴ Power drawn by bulbs, when connected across 408. R60 = Ω = 240 Ω
60
V2 (200)2
200 V supply, P = = W = 20 W 60 W
R re (200)2
3×
60
(220)2
403. In India, P=
R
(110)2 120 V
In USA, P′ = , But P = P′
R′ Fig. 201
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 195
120 120 1
Current = A= A
240 + 6 246 Total resistance = 125 2
1
Voltage across bulb +1
2
120
= × 240 volt = 117.1 volt 1 2 125
246 = 125 × × = Ω
2 3 3
250 × 3
I= A = 6 A.
125
411. Let the resistances of P, Q and R be r.
The total resistances across the battery is thus
r 3
rtotal = r + = r.
2 2
Current through P,
Power 12 8
IP = = 3
= .
rtotal r r
2
Current through R,
1 2
I= IP = .
Fig. 202 2 r
120 × 120 Power dissipated in R is thus
R240 =
240
Ω = 60 Ω
FG 2 IJ r = 2 W
Resistance of parallel combination
PR = I2 r =
H rK
60 × 240 l × l ρ l2
= Ω = 48 Ω 412. R=ρ =
60 + 240 a×l V
Total resistance = (48 + 6) Ω = 54 Ω m m
But d= or V =
V d
120
Current I= A ρ l2 d
54 ∴ R=
Voltage across parallel combination m
R1 1
120 =
= × 48 volt = 106.7 volt R2 4
54
P1 R 2 4 P1
Change in voltage = (117.1 – 106.7) V = 10.4 V. = = or =4
P2 R 1 1 5
409. Power supplied by charger = 150 V × 10 A = 1500 W. or P1 = 20 W
410. Resistance of heater 413. Energy consumed = 10 × 50 × 30 × 10 Wh = 150 kWh.
250 × 250 125 Q1 R 1 2R 4
= = Ω = = =
1000 2 414.
Q2 R2 R/2 1
Resistance of 1 bulb
415. If I is the current drawn from the source, then
250 × 250 total power delivered = I2 (r + R)
= Ω = 625 Ω
100 Power delivered to the lamp with resistance R = I2R
Resistance of 5 bulbs connected in parallel ∴ Fraction of the total power delivered to the lamp
625
= Ω = 125 Ω I2R R
5 = 2
=
I (r + R) r+R
or Power = I2R
196 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
In series, circuit I is common i.e. power ∝ R. 424. Current produced by the generator is given by
R 100 kW
∴ Power fraction to lamp = . I= = 10 A
r+R 10 kV
150
= A=5A
6
196
Current through 4 Ω = A=7A
4
Now, E = 5 [ 6 + r] = 7 [ 4 + r]
or 30 + 5r = 28 + 7r Fig. 203
or 2r = 2 or r = 1 Ω.
FG 2 IIJ 2
FG 1 IIJ 2
419. Power dissipated in a resistor of resistance R with a
current flow of I is given by
Ratio is
H3 K 3R :
H3 K 6R : I2R
V2 P P0 100 × 4200 × 50
434. P= or = = A = 12.2 A
R V 2
V0 2 240 × 2 × 60 × 60
40 445. I∝ Q
435. × 1000 × t = 1 × 4200 × 80
100
42 × 80 1 1 1 1
42 × 80 446. = + +
or t= s= min = 14 min. P 100 60 40
4 4 × 60
l×a V 1 6 + 10 + 15 600
= or P = W
436. R=ρ =ρ 2 P 600 31
a×a a
447. If power consumed in resistor I is 18 W, then power
ρm ρm 1 18
or R= or R = or R ∝
da2 L πD OP
dM
2 2 D4 consumed in each resistor II and III is
4
W.
MN 4 PQ
Q1 R 1 D24 54 625
= = = =
Q2 R2 D14 34 81
220 × 10
437. Number of lamps = = 22.
100
V2 V2 Fig. 204
438. Q= t or Q = t or t ∝ l
R l
ρ ∴ Total power consumed
a
10% reduction in length means 10% reduction in time. FG 18 18 IJ
90 144
H
= 18 +
4
+
4 K
W = 27 W.
455. m = ZIt, V = IR
D1 100 2
∴
D2
=
25
= 4 =
1 ∴ m=Z
LM V OP t
449. Let resistors P, Q and R have resistor r. The effective
NRQ
resistance across the source is
m=Z M
L V A OP t m ρl
Reff = r + r // r = r +
( r) ( r) r 3r
=r+ =
or
N ρl Q or V =
Z At
r+r 2 2
0.66 × 1.2 × 10 −2 × 5 × 10 −2
Current drawn from the source is Is2 Reff = 12 Now, V= volt
3.3 × 10 −7 × 1 × 3600
12 8
⇒ Is = = A. 0.66 × 1.2 × 50
Reff r = volt = 0.33 volt.
3.3 × 36
Since Q and R have equal resistance r, each draws a
456. If θ is the small temperature difference,
1 2 then E = 25 θ × 10 –6 volt
current of I which is given by I = I = A
2 s r or IR = 25 θ × 10 –6
Heat dissipation in R can now determined which is or 10 × 40 = 25 θ × 10 –6
–5
given by −5
or θ = 10 × 40 = 400 ° C = 16°C
FG 2 IJ r = 2 W. 25 × 10 −6 25
Power dissipated as heat = I2r =
H rK 457. m = ZIt or I =
m
450. Maximum current flows through bulb. Zt
451. (i) Rate of chemical energy consumption 1.071
or I= A
= 1.5 × 2 W = 3 W 0.001118 × 20 × 60
(ii) Rate of energy dissipation inside the cell or I = 0.798 A
= 2 × 2 × 0.1 W Ammeter reading = 0.81 A
(iii) Rate of energy dissipation inside the resistor Error is reading = (0.81 – 0.798) A = + 0.012 A.
= (3 – 0.4) W = 2.6 W dV
458. σ= or dV = σ dT
(iv) Power output of source = (3 – 0.4) W = 2.6 W dT
∫ dV = σ(T2 – T1) or V = σ(T2 – T1)
Some useful facts or 3 × 10–4 = 3 × 10–6 (T2 – 20)
EI represents rate of chemical energy consumption or 100 + 20 = T2 or T2 = 120°C
of the cell. 459. E = aθ + bθ2
I2r represents the rate of energy dissipation inside
the cell.
dE
At neutral temperature, =0
(EI – I2r) represents the power output of the source
dθ
of emf. dE a
∴ = a + 2b θn = 0 or θn = −
dθ 2b
Z VIt
452. m = ZIt or m =
V or θn = −
1
× 700 °C = – 350°C LM∵ a
= 700° C
OP
0.33 × 10− 6 × 100 × 1000 × 3600
= kg
2 N b Q
33 As θc = 0°C,
3.3 × 36 ∴ θn > 0°C
= kg = 3.6 kg
33 But here, θn < 0°C, ∴ No neutral temperature is
453. m = ZIt possible for this thermocouple.
m = 104 × 10–7 × 1 × 10 × 60 g 460. Initial resistance = (2 + 3) Ω = 5 Ω
= 624 × 10 –5 g FG 2 × 2 + 3IJ
454. Current in the first case is twice of the current in the
second case.
Final resistance =
H2+2 K Ω=4Ω
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 199
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
Six equal resistances are connected between points P, Q and R as shown in the Fig. 207.
P
Then the net resistance will be maximum between
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R
(c) P and R (d) any two points [IIT Screening 2004]
R/3 R R/2
Solution. (i) Q R
Fig. 207
P R Q
Fig. 208
R R 5R
Series combination of and gives . Net resistance is
3 2 6
FG 5R IJ R
H6K or
5R 2
×
6
or
5R
or 0.45 R
5R 6 11 R 11
+R
6
200 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
R P R/3
FG R IJ FG 4R IJ
(ii)
H KH 3 K
In this case, net resistance is 2 or
4R 2
×
3
or
4R
or
2
R i.e. 0.28 R
4R 2 × 3 7R 2×7 7
R+
Q R 3
R/2
Fig. 209
R Q R/2
FG 3R IJ FG R IJ
(iii) In this case, net resistance is
H 2 K H 3K or
R
×
6
or
3R
or 0.27 R
3R R 2 11 11
+
P R 2 3
R/3
Fig. 210
Clearly, (a) is the right choice.
Ideal gas is contained in a thermally insulated and rigid container and it is heated through a resistance 100 Ω by
passing a current of 1 A for five minute, then change in internal energy of the gas is
(a) 0 kJ (b) 30 kJ (c) 10 kJ (d) 20 kJ. [IIT Screening 2005]
Sol. 2
∆Q = ∆U = I R∆t = 1 × 1 × 100 × 5 × 60 J = 30 KJ
∆W = 0
Now, ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W = ∆U = 30 KJ
So, (b) is the right choice.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 201
480. When a potential difference is applied across, the cur- 484. Two voltmeters P and Q give the same reading when
rent passing through connected across a resistor X in a current-carrying
(a) an insulator at 0 K is zero circuit. But when connected across another resistor
(b) a semiconductor at 0 K is zero Y, the reading comes much lower in P than in Q. If
(c) a metal at 0 K is finite P, Q, X, Y represent the respective resistances, the
(d) a p-n diode at 300 K is finite, if it is reversebiased. data shows that
[IIT 1999] (a) X << Y (b) X << P
481. Which of the following statements is true ? (c) P << Q (d) Y << P.
(a) Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance and is meas- [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
ured in siemen
485. Two conductors, made of the same material, have
(b) Ohm’s law is not applicable at very low and very high lengths L and 2L, but have equal resistances. The
temperatures
two are connected in series in a circuit in which cur-
(c) Ohm’s law is applicable to semiconductors
rent is flowing. Which of the following is/are correct ?
(d) Ohm’s law is not applicable to electron tubes, discharge
(a) the potential difference across the two conductors is the
tubes and electrolytes.
same.
482. The resistances in Wheat-
(b) the electron drift velocity is larger in the conductor of
stone’s Bridge circuit
length 2L.
shown in the Fig. 212 have
different values and the (c) The electrical field in the first conductor is twice that in
current through the galva- the second.
nometer is zero. If all ther- [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
mal effects are negligible,
486. A copper strip AB and an iron strip AC are joined at
the current through the
A. The junction A is maintained at 0°C and the free
galvanometer will be zero,
when ends B and C are maintained at 100°C. There is a
Fig. 212
(a) the battery emf is doubled
potential difference between
(b) the battery and galvanometer are interchanged (a) the two ends of the copper strip
(c) all resistances in the circuit are doubled (b) the copper end and the iron end at the junction
(d) resistances R1 and R2 are interchanged. (c) the two ends of the iron strip
483. A current passes through a wire of nonuniform cross- (d) the free ends B and C.
section. Which of the following quantities are inde-
487. In a typical Wheatstone’s network, the resistances in
pendent of the cross-section ?
cyclic order are P = 10 ohm, Q = 5 ohm, S = 4 ohm
(a) the charge crossing in a given time interval
and R = 4 ohm. For the bridge to balance
(b) drift speed
(a) 5 ohm should be connected in parallel with Q
(c) current density
(b) 5 ohm should be connected in series with Q
(d) free-electron density.
202 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MCQs
based on
SET IV
493. Twelve wires of equal resistance x are connected to (a) The Aluminium wire is 3.9 times longer.
form a cube. The effective resistance between two di- (b) The Steel wire is 1.9 times longer.
agonal ends will be (c) The Aluminium wire is 12.6 times longer.
5 6 (d) The Steel wire is 4.2 times longer.
(a) x (b) x
6 5 497. A metal wire of specific resistance 64 × 10 –6 Ω cm
(c) 3x (d) 12x. [RPET 1999] and length 198 cm has a resistance of 7 Ω. The radius
494. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of the wire will be
of a cell by potentiometer, it is found that the bal- (a) 2.4 cm (b) 0.24 cm
ance point is at a length of 2 m when the cell is shunted (c) 0.024 cm (d) 24 cm.
by a 5 Ω resistance ; and is at a length of 3 m when 498. The circuit diagram shows a network of resistors,
the cell is shunted by a 10 Ω resistance. The internal each of resistance R.
resistance of the cell is
(a) 1.5 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 15 Ω (d) 1 Ω. [KCEE 1996]
495. In the Fig. 216, the potential difference across the
cell
Fig. 217
What is the current in Y ? 503. The equivalent resistance between points A and B of
an infinite network of resistances each of 1 Ω con-
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1.0 A
nected as shown, is
(c) 2.0 A (d) 4.0 A
(e) 8.0 A.
500. Two wires P and Q, each of the same length and the
same material, are connected in parallel to a battery.
The diameter of P is half that of Q.
What fraction of the total current passes through P ?
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.33
Fig. 222
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.50.
(a) Infinite (b) 2 Ω
501. In Fig. 219, the resistance be-
tween points A and B is R. Both 1+ 5
(c) Ω (d) Zero.
the circle and the diameter are 2
A B
made of uniform wire of resist- [Kurukshetra CEE 1996]
ance 1 × 10 –4 ohm per metre. 504. A conducting liquid fills a cylindrical metal case to a
The length AB is 2 metre. The depth x as shown in the Fig. 223.
value of R is Fig. 219
2
(a) × 10 –4 ohm (b) 2π × 10 –4 ohm
3 metal rod
(c) 14.56 × 10 –4 ohm (d) 0.88 × 10 –4 ohm.
cylindrical
502. A wire of length l tapers uniformly from end P to end metal case
Q with the diameter at P twice that at Q.
insulating
base
Rr Fig. 226
(c) Rr (d) .
2
507. It is well known that resistance of the filament of an 509. A thermocouple is connected across a galvanometer
electric bulb changes with temperature. If an electric of resistance 30 Ω. One junction is immersed in wa-
bulb rated 220 volt, 100 watt is connected to a source ter at 373 K and the other in ice at 273 K. The emf of
of voltage 220 (0.8) volt, then the actual power will be the thermocouple is 90 µV for each 1 K difference in
(a) (100)(0.8) watt temperature between the junctions, and the thermo-
(b) (100)(0.8)2 watt couple resistance is 6 Ω.
(c) more than 100 × (0.8) watt but less than 100 watt What current will flow in the galvanometer ?
(d) more than 100 × (0.8)2 watt but less than 100 × 0.8 watt. (a) 1.8 µ A (b) 1.5 mA
(c) 250 µ A (d) 1.8 mA
[CPMT 1989]
(e) 300 µ A.
508. The diagram shows three resistors of resistances 4Ω,
10 Ω and 6 Ω connected in series. A potential differ- 510. In the diagram, the variable resistor R can be ad-
ence of 10 V is maintained across them, with point Q justed over its full range from zero to 107 Ω.
being earthed.
Fig. 227
l l ρl2
Fig. 228 496. R= ρ × or R =
a l V
Now, apply Kirchhoff’s laws to the mesh 1 – 2 – 6 – 5
m m
– 1 and 5 – 6 – 7 – 8 – 5. But d= or V =
V d
Aliter. The given network may be redrawn as under. 2
∴ R = ρl d
m
In the given problem, ρsls2ds = ρal lal2 dal
lal 2 ρ ds
or
2
= s
ls ρal dal
lal2 0.15 × 10−6 × 7.8 × 103
or = = 15.48
ls2
0.028 × 10−6 × 2.7 × 103
or lal or lal = 3.9 ls.
= 15.48
Fig. 229 ls
E–V l ρl ρl
494. r = r 497. R=ρ = or r2 =
V a πr 2 πR
12 V
6Ω
Fig. 231
12
I is thus given by, I = =2A
6
⇒ I
Current through Y is hence or 1.0 A.
2
500. Resistance of a wire is given by
l 4l
R=ρ =ρ
A πD2
or
5V
I = IQ + IP =
4R
wire Q wire P
V
Fig. 230 R 4R
Fig. 232
Fig. 234
Q= GH R + r JK i
Q= G
F E I rt 2
H r + r JK
R 2
or R–1= or R – 1 = R
R+1 i
or R2 –R–1=0 R r
Equating, =
2
− (− 1) ± 1 + 4 1+ 5 (R + ri ) (r + ri )2
or R= Ω= Ω.
2 2 R(r + ri)2 = r(R + ri)2
504. If a source is connected across the metal rod and R (r + ri) = r (R + ri)
the metal case, current entering the metal rod from
the source will pass through the liquid and return- r R + ri R = R r + ri r
ing to the source through the metal case. Assume
or ri [ R − r ] = R r − r R
that the radius of the metal rod is a and the radius
of the metal case is b. or ri [ R − r ] = Rr [ R − r ]
For a thin cylindrical sheet of thickness ∆y, the in-
or ri = Rr .
cremental resistance is given by
210 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Fig. 237
Fig. 236
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Eels are able to generate current with biological cells called + – 0.15 V 0.25
electroplaques. The electroplaques in an eel are arranged in 100
rows, each row stretching horizontally along the body of the fish
containing 5000 electroplaques. The arrangement is suggestively 5000 electroplaques per row 100
shown in Fig. 239. Each electroplaques has an emf of 0.15 V and rows
internal resistance of 0.25 Ω.
The water surrounding the eel completes a circuit between the
head and its tail. If the water surrounding it has a resistance of
500 Ω, the current an eel can produce in water is about: + – + –
(a)1.5 A (b) 3.0 A
(c) 15 A (d) 30 A [AIIMS 2004]
500
0.15 × 5000 750 750 Fig. 239
Solution. I = = A≈ A = 1.5 A
0.25 × 5000 500 + 12.5 500
500 +
100
So, (a) is the right choice.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 211
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on UNIT XII
1. Three 4 ohm resistances are connected in the form of 7. In a conductor, 4 coulomb of charge flows for 2 sec-
a triangle. The effective resistance between any two ond. The value of electric current will be
corners is (a) 4 V (b) 4 A
(a) 8/3 Ω (b) 16 Ω (c) 2 A (d) 2 V.
(c) 64 Ω (d) infinite. 8. Three resistors are connected to form the sides of a
2. Three resistances of one ohm each are connected in triangle ABC. The resistance of side AB is 20 Ω, of
parallel. Such connection is again connected with side BC 30 Ω and of side CA 50 Ω. The effective re-
2/3 Ω resistor in series. The resultant resistance will sistance between points A and B is
be (a) 40 Ω (b) 16 Ω
5 3 (c) 32 Ω (d) 64 Ω.
(a) Ω (b) Ω
3 2 9. In the circuit shown, the electrical resistance between
2 points A and B is
(c) 1 Ω (d) Ω. [MP PMT 1985]
3
3. A cell is connected with an external resistance R.
Then its terminal voltage is
(a) always equal to its emf
(b) always less than its emf
(c) may be less or more depends on the direction of current
through resistance
(d) may be less or more, depends on the internal resistance of
cell whether it is less or more than the resistance R.
4. A metallic wire of 40 Ω resistance is drawn to double
its length. Its new resistance will be
(a) 20 Ω (b) 160 Ω
(c) 80 Ω (d) 320 Ω. [MP PET 1996]
5. Two cells of emfs
1.8 V and 2 V and
1.8 V, 0.6 Ω
internal resistances
0.6 Ω and 0.4 Ω are
connected as
shown in figure. 2 V, 0.4 Ω
What will be the
Fig. 241
reading of the ideal
voltmeter shown in V (a) 24 ohm (b) 12 ohm
Fig. 240 ? (c) 18 ohm (d) 9 ohm.
Fig. 240
(a) 4.8 V 10. In the network shown in Fig. 242,
(b) 1.92 V the ring has zero resistance. The
(c) 2.2 V (d) 2.8 V. equivalent resistance between the
6. On increasing the temperature of a conductor, its points A and B is
resistance increases because (a) 2 R (b) 4 R
(a) relaxation time decreases (c) 7 R (d) 10 R. Fig. 242
(b) mass of the electrons increases 11. The wire of the potentiometer has resistance 4 ohm
(c) electron density decreases and length 1 m. It is connected to a cell of emf 2 V
(d) none of the above.
212 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
and internal resistance 1 ohm. The current flowing 18. Four resistors are connected as shown in Fig. 244.
in the potentiometer wire is The voltage between points A and B is 18 V. The
(a) 0.1 A (b) 0.4 A current in 6 Ω resistor is
(c) 0.2 A (d) 0.8 A.
12. The resistivity of a wire
(a) increases with the length of the wire
(b) decreases with the area of cross-section
(c) decreases with the length and increases with the cross-
section of wire
(d) none of the above. [MP PMT 1984]
13. A dry cell has an emf of 1.5 V and an internal resist-
ance of 0.05 Ω. The maximum current obtainable Fig. 244
from this cell for a very short time interval is
(a) 1.7 A (b) 2.5 A
(a) 30 A (b) 300 A
(c) 0.8 A (d) 5 A.
(c) 3 A (d) 0.3 A. [KCEE 1996]
19. We have three conductors of 10 Ω each. To get a
14. In a neon gas discharge tube, 2.9 × 1018 Ne+ ions 15 Ω resistance using all the three we should connect
move to the right through a cross section of the tube (a) all the three in series
each second, while 1.1 × 1018 electrons move to the
(b) all the three in parallel
left in this time. The current is
(c) by connecting two of them in series and the third one in
(a) 1 A to the right (b) 0.288 A to the left
parallel with them
(c) 288 A to the left (d) 0.64 A to the right.
(d) by connecting two conductors in parallel and the third in
15. The reading of ammeter A in the circuit shown be- series.
low is 20. A cell of emf E is connected with an external resist-
ance R. The potential difference across cell is V. The
4Ω
internal resistance of cell will be
4V A (E – V)R (E – V)R
4Ω
(a) (b)
E V
4Ω
(V – E)R (V – E)R
(c) (d) . [MNR 1987]
V E
4Ω
21. Four arc lamps rated for a voltage of 40 V and a
current of 15 A each are connected in series with one
Fig. 243 another and a resistor in a circuit at a voltage of
220 V. The resistance of the resistor is
(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.50 A
(a) 140 Ω (b) 9 Ω
(c) 0.75 A (d) 4 A.
(c) 112 Ω (d) 4 Ω.
16. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by
22. The value of current I in the given circuit is
(a) increasing the emf of the cell
(b) increasing the length of the potentiometer wire
(c) decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire
(d) none of the above.
17. N identical cells are connected to form a battery.
When the terminals of the battery are joined directly
(short-circuited), current I flows in the circuit. To
obtain the maximum value of I
(a) all the cells should be connected in series
(b) all the cells should be connected in parallel
(c) two rows of N/2 cells each should be connected in parallel Fig. 245
(d) N rows of N cells each should be connected in paral- (a) 3 A (b) 13 A
lel, given that N is an integer. (c) 23 A (d) – 3 A.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 213
23. All the edges of a block with parallel faces are un- (a) 20 W (b) 60 W
equal. Its longest edge is twice its shortest edge. The (c) 100 W (d) 200 W.
ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance be- 31. What is immaterial for an electric fuse wire ?
tween parallel faces is
(a) Length (b) Diameter
(a) 1.5 (b) 4
(c) Specific resistance (d) Current flowing through it.
(c) 7.5
32. In antimony-bismuth thermocouple, the direction of
(d) Data is inadequate because the length of the third edge is
thermoelectric current is from
not specified.
(a) Antimony to bismuth at cold junction
24. The equivalent resistance between the points X and
(b) Bismuth to antimony at cold junction
Y of the following Fig. 246 is
(c) Antimony to bismuth at both junctions
(d) Bismuth to antimony at both junctions.
33. n identical cells, each of emf E and internal resist-
ance r, are joined in series to form a closed circuit.
The potential difference across any one cell is
(a) zero (b) E
E n−1
(c) (d) E.
Fig. 246 n n
34. The resistance between points A and B in the circuit
(a) 10 Ω (b) 22 Ω
is
(c) 20 Ω (d) 50 Ω.
25. The resistance of 20 m long wire is 5 ohm. The wire
is stretched to a uniform wire of 40 m length. The
resistance now will be
(a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 20 Ω (d) 200 Ω.
26. How much electrical energy in kilowatt hour is con-
sumed in operating ten 60 W bulbs for 10 hours per
day in a month of 30 days ?
(a) 18 (b) 180
(c) 1800 (d) 1800. Fig. 247
27. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 200 W. Power 17
consumed by it when operated at 110 V is (a) 19 Ω (b) Ω
3
(a) 25 W (b) 50 W
23
(c) 75 W (d) 90 W. (c) Ω (d) 15 Ω.
7
28. Two heater wires of equal resistance are first con- 35. If the resistivity of a potentiometer wire be ρ and
nected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of the area of cross section be A, then what will be the po-
heats produced in the two cases is tential gradient along the wire ? Given : I is the cur-
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 rent through the potentiometer wire.
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4. (a) Iρ/A (b) I/ρA
29. A toaster produces more heat than a light bulb when (c) IA/ρ (d) IAρ.
they are connected in parallel. Which of the follow- 36. In the network shown below, the equivalent resist-
ing statements is true ? ance between A and B is
(a) Toaster has more resistance than the light bulb.
(b) Toaster has less resistance than the light bulb.
(c) Both have equal resistance.
(d) Toaster will not be in working order after some time.
30. Two electric lamps of 100 W each are connected in
parallel. The power consumed by the combination
will be Fig. 248
214 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b)
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (a)
33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (d)
216 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solutions
E1 − E2
I=
r1 + r2
1. V = E1 – Ir1
E1 − E2
= E1 − r1
r1 + r2
R′ = 4 ρ
LM l OP
N aQ Fig. 260 Fig. 261
R′ = 4R = 4 × 40 Ω = 160 Ω. 20 × 80 1600
R= Ω= Ω = 16 Ω.
E1r2 + E2r1 20 + 80 100
5. V= 9. The upper and lower units of the network are bal-
r1 + r2
anced Wheatstone Bridges. So, cross-piece resistances
1.8 × 0.4 + 2 × 0.6 of 12 Ω are not to be considered. So, the given net-
or V= volt
0.4 + 0.6 work is redrawn as under.
= (0.72 + 1.2) volt = 1.92 volt.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 217
14. n = 2.9 × 1018 + 1.1 × 1018
n = 4 × 1018
q ne
Now, I= =
t t
4 × 1018 × 1.6 × 10−19
I= A
1
I = 0.64 A
The direction of this current is in the direction of flow
of positive charges i.e., to the right.
15. The given circuit may be re-
drawn as under :
Total resistance
Fig. 262 FG 4 + 4 IJ Ω = 16
Using symmetry considerations, the above network
=
H 3K 3
Ω
20. V = IR, E = I(R + r), 25. Length is doubled. Resistance will be increased by a
E R+r factor of 4.
=
V R 10 × 60 × 10 × 30
26. Energy consumed = kWh = 180 kWh.
r E r E 1000
or 1 + = or = −1 27. Voltage is halved. Power is reduced by a factor of 4.
R V R V
28. In the first case, resistance is 2R. In the second case,
E– V
or r= R R
V resistance is .
2
40 8 Q1 V 2 R/2 1
21. Resistance of each lamp = Ω= Ω = × =
15 3 Q 2 2R V 2 4
32 V2
Total resistance = R + 29. P=
3 R
R is less. P is more.
220
15 = 30. The powers are added up
32
R+
3 nE E
33. I = =
32 220 44 nr r
or R+ = =
3 15 3 E
V = E – Ir = E –r=E–E=0
44 − 32 12 r
or R= or R = Ω = 4 Ω.
3 3 34. The given network can be redrawn as follows :
22. Applying Kirchhoff ’s current law at the junction a,
Fig. 268
E1r2 + E2r1
= …(i)
r1 + r2
Again, V = E2 + Ir2
E1 − E2
V = E2 + r2
r1 + r2
Fig. 270
E2r1 + E2r2 + E1r2 − E2r2 E r + E1r2
or V= = 21
E r1 + r2 r1 + r2
I=
5 Which is same as (i)
Note that one cell shows discharging action and
the other shows charging action.
6 20 80 40
44. = or R = kΩ = kΩ ≈ 13 kΩ.
4000 R 6 3
45. The given network is a parallel combination of three
resistances, each of value 1 Ω.
Fig. 271 1
∴ Ω
R=
E 3
I′ = 46. The given network is a parallel combination of 30 Ω
4
and 30 Ω. So, the equivalent resistance is 15 Ω.
E
Current through voltameter = 47. With 72 Ω in series, current through 30 Ω resistance
8
Percentage decrease in current 2 1
is = A.
E E 48 + 72 + 30 75
− 300
3 Potential difference across 30 Ω is 0.4 V.
= 5 8 × 100 = × 5 × 100 = = 37.5
E/5 5×8 8 ∴ Potential difference across 48 Ω is 1.6 V.
m 1.6 1
Since m = ZIt therefore is also 37.5%. ∴ Total current = A
t =
48 30
∴ Current through R
220 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG 1 − 1 IJ A = 1 A FG 1 × 12000IJ Ω
=
H 30 75 K 50 49. Parallel combination of
H4 K and 6000 Ω
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Express which of the following setups can be used to verify Ohm’s law ?
A A V
V V
(a) (b) A (c) (d)
V A
Fig. 273
l In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the metre bridge if AC corresponding to null
deflection of galvanometer is x, what would be its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled ? R1 R2
(a) x (b) x/4
G
(c) 4x (d) 2x [IIT Screening 2003]
A C B
Solution. If radius is changed, then there is no effect on ratio of resistances. So, balance x
point is not affected. Thus, (a) is the correct choice.
Fig. 274
l Two batteries, one of emf 18 volt and internal resistance 2 Ω and the other of emf 12 volt and
V
internal resistance 1 Ω, are connected as shown in Fig. 275. The voltmeter V will record a
reading of :
(a) 30 volt (b) 18 volt 2W
(c) 15 volt (d) 14 volt. [All India PM/PD 2005] 18 V
6 1W
Solution. Net emf = 6 V ; Total resistance = 3 Ω ; Current, I = A =2A
3 12 V
For 18 V cell, V = (18 – 2 × 2) volt = 14 volt Fig. 275
For 12 V cell, V = (12 + 2 × 1) volt = 14 volt
So, (d) is the right choice.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 221
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XII
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
Fig. 278
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 3 A (d) 4 A.
4. V-I graphs for a conductor
(Platinum wire) at tempera-
tures T 1 and T 2 are as
shown in Fig. 279. T2 – T1
is proportional to
Fig. 276
(a) cos 2θ
(a) 4 Ω (b) 2 Ω (b) sin 2θ
(c) 3 Ω (c) cot 2θ
(d) emf of a cell is required to find the value of X. (d) tan 2θ. Fig. 279
2. The potential difference across 8 Ω resistance is 48 V 5. When the external resistance of a circuit is 10 Ω, the
as shown in the Fig. 277. The value of potential dif- current in it is 10 A. When the resistance becomes
ference across X and Y points will be
20 Ω, the current drops to 8 A. The external resist-
X 3Ω ance corresponding to a 4 A current is
(a) 70 Ω (b) 62 Ω
(c) 58 Ω (d) 96 Ω. [WB JEE 2001]
20 Ω 30 Ω 60 Ω
6. The resistance of a wire is 20 ohm. It is so stretched
that the length becomes three times. Then the new
24 Ω 8Ω 48 V resistance of the wire will be
(a) 6.67 Ω (b) 60.0 Ω
(c) 120 Ω (d) 180.0 Ω. [MP PET 1989]
Y 1Ω 7. The potential difference V across a filament lamp is
Fig. 277 related to the current I by V = 2I + 8I 2. The lamp is
connected in one arm of a Wheatstone bridge and
(a) 160 V (b) 128 V other arms are each of constant resistance 4 Ω . The
(c) 80 V (d) 62 V. potential difference which must be applied to the
3. Six resistors, each of 10 Ω, are connected to a 5 volt bridge so that it is balanced is
battery as shown in the Fig. 278. The reading of am- (a) 1 V (b) 2 V
meter is (c) 4 V (d) 8 V.
222 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
23. Four resistances carrying a current as shown are 28. The room-temperature resistivity of a typical semi-
immersed in a box containing ice at 0°C. How conductor is several orders of magnitude greater than
much ice must be put in the box every 10 minute that of a typical metal. This is because
to keep the average quantity of ice in the box (a) the drift velocity of charge carriers in a semiconductor is
constant ? Given : J = 4 joule/cal and latent heat very much less than in a metal.
of ice = 100 cal g –1. (b) charge carriers collide with the lattice much more fre-
quently in a semiconductor than in a metal.
(c) the number density of charge carriers is much less in a
semiconductor than in a metal.
(d) in a semiconductor, the effect of electrons flowing in one
direction is almost cancelled by the flow of holes in the
Fig. 285 other ; in a metal, there are only electrons to be considered.
(a) 0.5 kg (b) 0.75 kg (e) impurities are deliberately introduced into semi-
(c) 1 kg (d) 1.5 kg. conductors, and these increase the resistivity.
24. A 2 V potentiometer is used to determine the inter- 29. Two resistors having equal resistances are joined in
nal resistance of a 1.5 V cell. The balance point of the series and a current is passed through the combina-
cell in the open circuit is 75 cm. When a resistor of tion. Neglect any variation in resistance as the tem-
10 Ω is connected across the cell, the balance point perature changes. In a given time interval,
shifts to 60 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is (a) equal amounts of thermal energy must be produced in the
(a) 2.5 Ω (b) 3.5 Ω resistors
(c) 4.5 Ω (d) 9.5 Ω. (b) unequal amounts of thermal energy may be produced
25. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r sends a (c) the temperature must rise equally in the resistors
current I through an external resistance R. Which of (d) the temperature may rise equally in the resistors.
the following is correct ?
224 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
30. The charge flowing in a conductor varies with time as What is the value of the direct current I when the
1 2 1 3 current Ig through the milliammeter is 8 mA ?
q = at – bt + ct , (a) 8 mA (b) 14 mA
2 6
where a, b, c are all positive constants. Now, the cur- (c) 20 mA (d) 24 mA
rent (e) 40 mA.
(a) has an initial value a 34. Three resistors of resistances 1 Ω , 2 Ω and 3 Ω re-
(b) attains a minimum value after time b/c spectively are used to make the combinations X, Y
(c) attains a maximum value after time b/c and Z as shown in the diagrams.
(d) has zero value at all times.
31. Two electric bulbs A and B are designed for the same
voltage. Their power ratings are PA and PB respec-
tively, with PA > PB . If they are joined in series across
a power supply
(a) A will draw more power than B
(b) B will draw more power than A
(c) A and B will draw the same power
(d) the ratio of powers drawn by them will depend on the
applied voltage. Fig. 287
32. For a household electric circuit, mark the false state- Which of the following gives the combinations in or-
ments der of increasing resistance ?
(a) All electric appliances drawing power are joined in parallel (a) XYZ (b) XZY
(b) A switch may be either in series or in parallel with the (c) YXZ (d) ZXY
appliance which it controls (d) ZYX.
(c) If a switch is in parallel with an appliance, it will draw 35. Refer to the circuit shown in Fig. 288. Which of the
power when the switch is in the ‘off ’ position following is correct ?
(d) If a switch is in parallel with an appliance, the fuse will
blow off when the switch is put ‘on’.
33. The current that passes through a certain diode var-
ies with the potential difference across it as shown in
Fig. 286 (a) below. PQ is a straight line. Two such
diodes are conencted in parallel with a milliameter
of resistance 100 Ω , as shown in Fig. 286 (b).
current/mA
Q
10 Fig. 288
(a) The heat dissipated in 4 Ω resistance is more than that
dissipated in 12 Ω resistance.
(b) Maximum heat is dissipated in 3 Ω resistance.
P
(c) The heat dissipated in 12 Ω resistance is more than that
0 0.5 1.0 p.d./V A dissipated in 4 Ω resistance.
I Ig
100 Ω (d) The power dissipated in 3 Ω resistance is 3 W.
(a) (b)
Fig. 286
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 225
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (a), (c), (d) 26. (a), (b) 27. (b), (d) 28. (b), (c) 29. (a), (d) 30. (a), (b) 31. (b) 32. (b)
33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a), (b)
Solutions
X 1/ 2 1 5
1. = = 3. Current through each resistace = = 0.5 A
16 4 8 10
8 X = 16 Total current through four resistances to the right of
or X=2Ω ammeter
= 4 × 0.5 A = 2 A.
1 1 1 1 4. R2 – R1 = tan(90° – θ) – tan θ
2. = + +
R p 20 30 60 R2 – R1 = cot θ – tan θ
1 3 + 2+1 6 R0[1 + α t2] – R0[1 + αt1]
= =
Rp 60 60 cos θ sin θ
= −
or Rp = 10 Ω sin θ cos θ
24 × 8 cos2 θ − sin 2 θ 2 cos 2θ
Again, Rp′ = Ω =6Ω = =
24 + 8 sin θ cos θ sin 2θ
The given network may be redrawn as under : or R0 α (t2 – t1) = 2 cot 2θ
or (t2 – t1) ∝ cot 2θ
or (T2 – T1) ∝ cot 2θ
E
5. = 10
r + 10
E
=8
r + 20
r × 20 10 5
= =
r + 10 8 4
5r + 50 = 4r + 80
Fig. 289 E
r = 30 Ω, = 10 or E = 400 volt
Voltage per ohm 40
48 400
= V=8V Again, 4=
6 R + 30
Total resistance = 20 Ω or 4 R + 120 = 400 or 4 R = 280
Voltage between X and Y or R = 70 Ω.
6. 2
R′ = 3 × 20 Ω = 180 Ω
= 20 × 8 V = 160 V
7. V = 2 I + 8 I2
Note the special time-saving technique
used here. Va V LM OP LM OP
V
=2 a +8 a
2
R=
ρ
4π z a
b
(l −2 )dl
R= −
ρ 1 1
−
LM OP
4π b a N Q
ρ b−a Fig. 293
R= .
4 π ab
R
22. Resistance/length =
2πr
Resistance of shorter section between A and B
Fig. 291
R Rθ
= (rθ) =
This is further equivalent to the following. 2 πr 2π
Resistance of longer section between A and B
R
=r (2π − θ)
2πr
Both sections are in parallel.
R θ(2π − θ)
∴ Resistance =
2π (θ + 2π − θ)
Fig. 292 R θ( 2π − θ ) Rθ
= = ( 2π − θ ) .
3R 2π 2π 4 π2
1×
R +1 10 × 5
Now, R= 23. Total resistance =2× Ω
3R 10 + 5
1+
R +1 100 20
Ω= = Ω
3R R +1 15 3
or R= × or 4 R + 1 = 3
R + 1 4R + 1 20 1
Q = 10 × 10 × × 10 × 60 × cal = 105 cal
2 3 4
or 4 R = 3 – 1 or R = Ω = 0.5 Ω. 5 3
4 m = Q = 10 = 103 g = 10 kg = 1 kg
d
L 100 103
20. I= (q) = a – 2bt
dt l1 − l2
24. r= R
Clearly, current decreases with time. l2
a 75 − 60 15
When I = 0, t = r= × 10 = Ω = 2.5 Ω
2b 60 6
∴ Q=
z a / 2b
( a − 2 bt )2 r dt
25. Heat produced per unit time in R = I2R
E R
z
0
= (I)(I) R = I
R = EI
a / 2b R+r R+r
Q= (a2 r + 4 b2t 2 r − 4 abtr) dt
0 Heat produced per unit time in battery
= a2 r
LM a OP + 4b r × 1 LM a OP
2
3
LM OP
1 a E r
N 2b Q 3 N ab Q 2
− 4 ab r ×
N Q
2 2b
= I2r = I
R+r
r = EI
R+r
.
228 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a 2.50 V2 V2
26. θn = – =– = – 208.3°C 31. P= or R =
b 0.012 R P
Since PA > PB, ∴ RA < RB
2 × 2.50
Again, θi = – = – 416.3°C. In series combination, Q ∝ R
0.012
∴ QA < QB or QB > QA.
27. In a semiconductor, the increase in thermal energy of
32. Parallel connections and series switching.
the valence electrons due to temeperature rise enables
33. Potential difference across the milliammeter is (8
more of them to break the covalent bonds and become
mA)(100 Ω) or 0.8 V.
free electrons. Thus, more electron-hole pairs are
produced which can act as carriers of current. Hence, From the graph, we notice that the diode nearest to
the ammeter is reversed bias and hence, no current
the electrical resistance of a semiconductor decreases
passes through this diode. The diode further away
with temperature rise. from the ammeter is forward biased with potential
28. In semiconductors, there is a narrow forbidden band difference of 0.8 V. From the graph, it can be easily
between the valence and conduction band. At room determine that the current this diode draws is
temperature, only some valence electrons have suffi-
FG 0.8 − 0.5 IJ 10 = 6 mA. Hence, the total direct current
cient thermal energy to reach the conduction band
where they may become conduction electrons. H 1.0 − 0.5 K
through the diodes and the ammeter is 14 mA.
In metal, however, the valence and conduction bands
can overlap. The electrons in the overlapping region
of energy are conduction electrons. Since, there is a
larger number of conduction electrons in metals than 34.
in semiconductors, metals are thus good conductors
and have low resistivity.
29. Both I and R are same. So, Q is same. The rise in
temperature is to be determined by physical dimen- Fig. 294
sions. Since physical dimensions may or may not be
the same therefore the rise in temperature may or
may not be the same.
d 1
30. I= (q) = a – bt + × c × 3t2
dt 6
Fig. 295
ct2
= a – bt +
2
When, t = 0, I = a
dI c
= − b + × 2t = – b + ct
dt 2
For I to be maximum or minimum,
Fig. 296
dI
=0
dt 4 3 11
Now, Ω< Ω< Ω and hence, only XZY gives
b 3 2 5
∴ – b + ct = 0 or ct = b or t = the combinations in order of increasing resistance.
c
d 2I V2
Now, = c 35. For (a) think in terms of P = .
dt2 R
So, I is minimum. For (b), note that the whole of the current flows throgh
3 Ω.
UNIT XIII
l Concept of magnetic field l Oersted’s experiment l Biot-Savart law l Magnetic field due
to an infinitely long current carrying straight wire and a circular loop l Ampere’s circuital law and
its application to straight and toroidal solenoids l Force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic
and electric fields l Cyclotron l Force on current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic
field l Forces between two parallel current-carrying conductors l Definition of ampere l Torque
experienced by a current loop in a uniform magnetic field l Moving coil galvanometer–its current
sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and voltmeter l Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its
magnetic dipole moment l Magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron l Magnetic field
intensity due to magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along the axis and perpendicular to the axis l Torque
on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field l Bar magnet as an equivalent
solenoid l Magnetic field lines l Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic elements l Para-, dia-
and ferro-magnetic substances with examples l Electromagnets and Permanent magnets
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 25 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
C-11\IITS\C13-1
CHAPTER 13
SYNOPSIS
z z
4. The magnetic effect of the current was discovered by → →
→ → → µ0 I dl × r
Oersted in 1820. It was mathematically explained by B= dB or B =
Biot-Savart. 4π r3
5. The search for a magnetic monopole (something which
11. Biot-Savart law is an inverse square law and is the
may be called magnetic charge on the ‘lines’ of elec-
magnetic analogue of Coulomb’s law.
tric charge) has failed. All known magnetic fields have
z
been found to be produced either by electric currents →
→ 1 r
or by atomic magnetic moments associated with an- E = dq
gular moments of charged particles or by time-depend- 4 πε 0 r3
ent electric fields (produced by accelerated electric 12. Magnetic field at a point in the direction of current is
charges). zero.
→
6. The magnetic field is described by the vector B called 13. If we know the magnetic field at a point due to a cur-
magnetic induction, flux density or simply vector field. rent element, then we can vectorially add up the fields
→
due to different current elements which make up the
7. The magnetic field dB at a distance r from a current conductor. Thus, we can know the magnetic field B
→ at a point due to a current-carrying conductor.
element of length dl carrying a current I is given by
14. The equation of Biot-Savart law is analogous to the
→ → equation of the electric field for a point charge. The
→ µ0 I dl × r
dB = magnetic field obeys the inverse square law of dis-
4π r3 tance just like the electric field of a point charge. How-
µ0 ever, there is a difference between the two. The source
Here is exactly 10 –7 T mA–1. of the magnetic field is not ‘some counterpart of elec-
4π
tric charge’. While the electric charge (source of elec-
tric field) is a scalar, the current element (source of
231
C-11\IITS\C13-1
232 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
magnetic field in the problem under consideration) is “Look into the coil along B
a vector. its axis. If the current is
15. The direction of magnetic field depends on direction of flowing anti-clockwise,
current and magnitude depends on the magnitude of then the magnetic field is
current. towards the viewer. If
16. The magnetic field is produced by the motion of charge the current is flowing
clockwise, then the field B
only and not by stationary charges.
(a) (b)
17. In case of current carrying conductor, magnetic field is away from the viewer”.
Fig. 2
is computed either with the help of Biot-Savart law or 24. Magnetic lines of force due to the circular current-
Ampere’s circuital law. carrying loop are shown in Fig. 3.
18. The magnetic field at a distance r from a straight
current-carrying conductor of finite length is
d c
µ I
B = 0 [sin φ1 + sin φ2]
4 πr
I
r f2 a b
f1
Fig. 3
In both the cases, the magnetic field at the centre of per unit length of the solenoid and I is the current
the coil is along the normal to the plane of the coil. flowing through the solenoid.
28. The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular
1
current-carrying coil is given by At one end of the solenoid, B = µ 0n I .
2
µ 0 NIr 2
B= 30. If the solenoid is of finite length L and the point is on
2 (r 2 + x 2 )3 / 2 the perpendicular bisector of its axis, then
where N is the number of turns, r is the radius of the coil
and x is the distance of the observation point from the centre L
B = µ0 n I
of the coil. L + 4R 2
2
Special Cases :
Here, R is the radius of the solenoid
Case I. At the centre of the loop, x = 0
31. If the solenoid is of finite length and the point is on its
µ 0NIr 2 µ NI axis but near one end, then
∴ B= or B = 0
2r 3 2r
µ0 L
In terms of area A (= πr2) of the circular current loop, B= nI
the above result may be written as under : 2 L + R2
2
µ 0NIAµ 0 NIA µ 2NIA 32. The variation of field with distance along the axis of
B= = or B = 0
2r(πr ) 22π r 3 4 π r3 the solenoid is shown in Fig. 7.
The quantity NIA is known as the magnetic dipole
moment M of the current loop. B
µ 2M
∴ B= 0 3 m0nI
4π r
Case II. If the observation point is far far away from
the coil, then r << x. So, r2 can be neglected in comparison to
x 2.
µ 0NIr 2 – L/2 O L/2
∴ B=
2 x3 Fig. 7
µ NIA µ 0 2NIA
In terms of area, B = 0 = 33. The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is given
2π x3 4 π x3
by M = NIA, where N is the number of turns, I is the
µ 2M
In terms of magnetic dipole moment, B = 0 3 current flowing through the coil and A is the face-
4π x
area of the loop.
The variation of B on the axis of the coil is shown 34. The Lorentz magnetic force experienced by a charge
→
here. q moving in uniform magnetic field B is given by
→ → →
B Fm = q ( v × B) .
→
| Fm | = Bqv sin θ
→ →
where θ is the smaller angle between v and B .
35. Magnetic forces are very much weaker than electro-
static forces.
x=0 x → → →
36. In the equation Fm = q ( v × B) , the angle between
Fig. 6 → → → → →
(i) Fm and v is 90° (ii) Fm and B is 90° (iii) Fm and
→ → → → →
29. The magnetic field induction due to a long current- plane of v × B is 90° (iv) Fm and v × B is zero, if q is
carrying solenoid at a point well within the solenoid positive.
is given by B = µ0nI, where n is the number of turns
234 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
37. DIMENSIONAL EXPRESSION OF B direction of magnetic field. It will move with uniform axial
Fm speed of v|| i.e. v cos θ in the direction of the magnetic field.
Fm = Bqv sin θ or B = The superposition of uniform circular motion and
qv sin θ
uniform linear motion will make the path of the charged
[MLT −2 ] →
[B] = = [MA–1T–2] particle helical. The axis of the helix will be parallel to B .
[AT] [LT −1]
Pitch of helix = linear distance covered in a time equal
38. When a charged particle moves perpendicular to a to the period of revolution of the charged particle.
magnetic field, the kinetic energy remains unchanged
but the momentum changes. 2πm
= v|| × T = v cos θ ×
39. A PARTICLE OF MASS m AND CHARGE q IS Bq
PROJECTED INTO A UNIFORM MAGNETIC
→ → 40. MOVING CHARGE IN PERPENDICULAR MAG-
FIELD B WITH A VELOCITY v MAKING AN NETIC AND ELECTRIC FIELDS
→
ANGLE θ WITH B . The total Lorentz force acting on an electron moving
→ → →
Resolve v into two rectangular components : v|| (= v with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B and a uni-
→ → → → →
cos θ) in the direction of the magnetic field and v⊥ ( = v sin θ) form electric field E are given by F = – e (E + v × B) .
in a direction perpendicular to that of the magnetic field. → →
If v and B are mutually perpendicular and if the
→
® plane containing them is itself perpendicular to E , then the
v → → →
® electric force – e E and the magnetic force – e ( v × B) act
v^ ®
q → →
B along the same line. If we adjust E and B in such a way
→ → →
® that E = – v × B , then the electron travels undeflected from
v||
its original direction.
→ →
Fig. 8 For given values of E and B , the above equation will
→
be satisfied only for a certain speed v such that
Due to v⊥ alone, the charged particle will experience E
a force Bqv⊥ sin 90° i.e. Bqv⊥. Since this force is perpendicu- v=
B
lar to the velocity vector therefore it can change only the →
direction of motion of the charged particle. Thus, the charged 41. The force experienced by a current element I dl placed
→ →
particle shall follow a circular path due to v⊥ alone. If r be in a magnetic field B is given by
the radius of the circular path, then → → →
dF = I (dl × B)
mv⊥ 2 → → →
Bqv⊥ = or F = I ( l × B) or F = BI l sin θ
r
(i) When sin θ = 0 or θ = 0° or 180°, the force on the
Bqr
or v⊥ = current element F = 0 i.e. a current element in a magnetic
m field does not experience any force if the current in it is
v⊥ Bq collinear with the field.
Angular velocity, ω = =
r m ®
B
ω Bq
Frequency, f= = ®
2π 2πm Idl
q = 0°
1 2 πm
Time period, T= = (a)
f Bq
So, the charged particle will complete one revolution q = 180°
®
2πm Idl
in time .
Bq (b)
→ →
Since the angle between and B is zero therefore
v|| Fig. 9
the charged particle will not experience any force in the
θ = 0 or 180°
F = 0 (minimum)
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 235
(ii) When sin θ = 1 or θ = 90°, the force on the current Weight of balancing mass m = mg
element will be maximum, F = IB dl i.e. the force on a cur-
µ 0 2I2l
rent element in a magnetic field is maximum In equilibrium position, = mg
( = BI dl) when it is perpendicular to the field. 4π r
→
or I=
LM 4 π mg r OP 1/2
B
N 2µ l Q
0
FG IJ
Y – – – – –
C–
–
2
1 1 Bqrm
– – – – –
d
mvm2 = m
H K
c
= ®
2 2 m O
®
+ vd I –
X Fm + VH
a´ b´
1 B2 q2 rm2 Z + + +
+ D+
+ + +
= + + + +
d´
2 m c´
Fig. 15
238 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
61. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ELECTRIC AND MAG- (iii) Wire of infinite length in +∞
NETIC FORCES both sides
In this case, θ1 = 90°
S.No. Electric Force Magnetic Force
and θ2 = 90°
Electric force on a charged Magnetic force on a charged I
1.
∴ At P,
particle is always collinear particle is always perpendicu- r
P
with the field. lar to the field. µ I
B= 0 (sin 90° + sin 90°)
2. Electric force (qE) is inde- Magnetic force is velocity- 4π r
pendent of the state of rest dependent i.e. acts only when
or the motion of the charged the charged particle is in I
B = 2 × 10–7 –∞
particle. motion. r Fig. 20
3. Electric force does work in Magnetic force does no work
displacing the charged when the charged particle is (iv) When wire is terminated r
P
particle. displaced. near the point.
→ →
Magnetic force,
In this case, θ1 = 0°
4. Electric force, F = q E
→ → → and θ2 = 90°
F = q ( v × B)
∴ At P,
= q v B sin θ
µ0 I
When θ = 0° B= (sin 0° + sin 90°)
4π r
Force = 0 (min)
When θ = 90°
I ∞
F = qvB (max) ∴ B = 10–7 Fig. 21
r
5. Electric force may or may not Magnetic force is always non-
be non-central. central.
a
P
P² x
x P P¢
I A I B
I a
x r–x
r Fig. 27
Fig. 25 (x) Magnetic field at P
BP =
µ 0I 1
+
LM
1 OP ∞
2π x r − xN Q
B
Direction of magnetic field at P′ is perpendicular to
the plane of the paper and directed upwards. I
BP′ =
µ 0I 1
−
LM
1 OP r
2π x r + xN Q 45°
45°
P
BP″ =
µ 0I 1
−
LM
1
.
OP O I A ∞
2π x r + xN Q Fig. 28
(viii) Magnetic field due to current in ABCD at P
= Magnetic field due to AO
+ Magnetic field due to OB
= 2 × Magnetic field due to AO
µ0 I
=2× (sin 90° + sin 45°)
4π r
µ 0 I (1 + 2 )
= × 2.
4π r 2
(xi) Magnetic field at P
a
I P I F
Fig. 26 B E
A
= Magnetic field due to AB + Magnetic field due to BC
a a
+ Magnetic field due to CD
I
µ0 I
=0+ (sin φ1 + sin φ2) + 0 C D
4π r 2a
µ0 I Fig. 29
= (sin φ1 + sin φ2).
4π r
= Magnetic field due to AB + Magnetic field due to
(ix) Magnetic field at the centre of the square BC + Magnetic field due to CD + Magnetic field
Fµ 4I I due to DE + Magnetic field due to EF.
=4× GH 4π0
2a
JK
240 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
µ0 I
= (8 a2 + b2 )
4 π ab I π
A
a
B (xvii) Here θ = 60° =
3
Fig. 30
µ0 I
C ∴ B=
12 r
(Normal to the plane of
(xiii) Magnetic field at the figure and outward)
centre of the equilateral trian- I
gle Fig. 35
P
FG µ bI IJ
H 4π a K
0
=3 A B
I
a
(xviii) Magnetic field at
Fig. 31
centre O = 0.
O
P
I
µ0 F 2I I (Normal to the
=
4π GH 3a
JK A I B plane of the paper
a downwards)
Fig. 32 Fig. 37
(xx)
B µ I
= 0 1+
LM1 OP
(xv) Magnetic field at the cen-
I
(At O) 4r N
π Q
B E (Normal to the plane of
tre of the pentagon paper downwards)
L µ 4I sin 36° × tan 36°OP
P
=5 M 0
N 4π a Q
C I D
a
Fig. 33 Fig. 38
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 241
B= B2 + B2 I1
O
B2
(xxiii) B µ I
= 0 1+
1 LM OP = 2 B= 2
µ 0 nI
(At O) 2r π N Q 2r
µ0 nI
(Normal to the plane of or B = Fig. 46
paper upwards) 2r
Fig. 41
(xxiv) B
= 0 +
LM
µ I n1 n2 OP r1
r2
I
(xxix) B µ Iθ 1 1
= 0 −
LM OP
(At O) 2 r1 N
r2 Q O
I (At O) 4 r1 r2N Q
where n 1 and n 2 are the (Direction of B will be nor-
number of turns in the coil. mal to the plane of paper up-
when n1 = n2 = n, wards)
µ0 nI 1 1
+
LM OP Fig. 42 Fig. 47
then B =
2 r1 r2 N Q ILLUSTRATION OF A BAD PROBLEM WHICH GIVES
→ UNNECESSARY ‘MENTAL STRESS’.
Direction of B will be normal to the plane of the paper
upwards. Illustration 1. A proton moving with a constant
velocity passes through a region of space without change in
(xxv) B µ nI 1 1
= 0 −
LM OP its velocity. If E and B represent electric and magnetic fields
(At O) 2
→
r1 r2 N Q respectively, this region of space may not have :
(a) E = 0, B = 0 (b) E = 0, B ≠ 0
Direction of B will be nor- (c) E ≠ 0, B = 0 (d) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0.
mal to the plane of the pa-
Sol. (a) If E = 0 and B = 0,
per upwards. Fig. 43
then no force ; hence straight You can save your time
(xxvi) Helmholtz Coils path. Think of Newton’s first law by thinking on the lines
of motion. of ‘may have’ and then
Magnetic field at the centre
rejecting the options so
µ 0 NI (b) If E = 0, then no force obtained.
= 0.72 due to electric field.
R
The field over a small region If B ≠ 0, then the charge may be moving parallel to
around a point mid-way bet- magnetic field. So, no force due to magnetic field.
ween the coils is uniform. Fig. 44
242 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
µ 0i1 re m
Adding, = 20 ∴ = e
2πr rp mp
µ 0i2
Subtracting, = 10 So, (b) is the right choice.
2πr
Illustration 11. A moving coil galvanometer has
i1 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions
Dividing, =2
i2 per milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per
So, (c) is the right choice. millivolt. In order that each division reads 1 volt, the re-
Illustration 8. A circular coil of radius 20 cm hav- sistance in ohm needed to be connected in series with the
ing 50 turns carries a current of 2 A. The magnetic moment coil will be :
of the coil is (a) 9995 (b) 99995
(a) 0.4 π A m2 (b) 4π A m2 (c) 10 5 (d) 10 3 [AIEEE 2005]
(c) 40 π A m2 (d) 400 π A m2. Sol. Current required for full scale deflection, Ig
[Pb. PMT 2002] 150
= mA = 15 mA
Sol. M = NIA 10
= 50 × 2 × π (0.20)2 A m2 Voltage corresponding to full scale deflection
= 4π A m2. 150
= mV = 75 mV
So, (b) is the right choice. 2
Illustration 9. A straight conductor carrying a 75 mV
direct current 3I ampere is split into 2I and I as shown in Galvanometer resistance, G = =5Ω
15 mA
Fig. 51. Then the magnetic
2I Voltage to be measured = 150 V
induction B at the centre of
the circular loop of radius r V = Ig (R + G)
r
metre is 3I V
or R= –G
(a) zero O Ig
(b) infinite 150
= –5
µ0 I I 15 × 10−3
(c) tesla = 10000 – 5 = 9995 Ω
2 πr Fig. 51
So, (a) is the right choice.
µ I
(d) 0 . Illustration 12. Two thin, long parallel wires, sepa-
4r rated by a distance ‘d’ carry a current of i. A is the same
µ 0 (2I) µ 0I direction. They will
Sol. B= − (a) repel each other will a force of µ0i2/(2πd2)
4r 4r
(b) attract each other with a force of µ0i2/(2πd2)
µ 0I µ 0I (c) repel each other with a force of µ0i2/(2πd)
B= (2 – 1) or B =
4r 4r (d) attract each other with a force of µ0i2/(2πd).
So, (d) is the right choice. [AIEEE 2005]
Illustration 10. Electron and proton having masses F µ 0 2 I1I2 µ i2
me and mp respectively enter the region of a uniform, per- Sol. = = 0
l 4π d 2πd
pendicular magnetic field with same velocity. The ratio of
the radii of their circular paths inside the field is Since like currents attract therefore force is attractive.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) me : mp So, (d) is the right choice.
Illustration 13. Two concentric coils each of radius
(c) mp : me (d) me : m p . equal to 2 π cm are placed at right angles to each other.
3 ampere and 4 ampere are the currents flowing in each coil
mv2 mv respectively. The magnetic induction in Weber/m 2 at the
Sol. Bqv = or r =
r Bq centre of the coils will be
v, B and q are constants. (µ0 = 4π × 10–7 Wb/A.m)
∴ r∝m (a) 7 × 10 –5 (b) 5 × 10 –5
(c) 10 –5 (d) 12 × 10 – 5. [AIEEE 2005]
244 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
77. (i) Magnetic flux density at a point on the equatorial Case (ii) If θ = 180°, i.e., if the dipole is displaced
line of magnetic dipole is given by through 180° from its stable equilibrium position, then
µ0 M W = MB (1 – cos 180°) = 2MB
B=
4 π (r2 + l2 )3 / 2 83. The potential energy of a magnetic dipole placed in a
uniform magnetic field is given by
(ii) If the observation point is far far away, then
→ →
µ M U = M .B.
B= 0 3
4π r 84. Magnetic lines of force are continuous closed curves.
(iii) The direction of magnetic field is opposite to the 85. Electric lines of force are discontinuous.
direction of magnetic dipole moment of the mag- 86. If declination is ignored, then the horizontal compo-
net. nent of earth’s magnetic field is from geographic south
78. (i) Magnetic flux density, due to a magnetic dipole, at to geographic north.
a general point is given by 87. Just as the direction of electric dipole moment is from
µ0 M negative charge to positive charge, the direction of
B= 1 + 3 cos2 θ magnetic dipole moment of a magnet is from south to
4 π r3
north.
(ii) For axial line, θ = 0°; For equatorial line, θ = 90º.
88. There are three magnetic elements of earth : declina-
(iii) If θ′ is the angle which B makes with OP (pro-
tion, dip and horizontal component of earth’s mag-
1 netic field.
duced), then tan θ′ = tan θ
2
89. Declination is the angle between the magnetic merid-
B ian and the geographic meridian.
´
90. Angle of dip is the angle through which the N-pole
P dips down with reference to the horizontal.
r
M
BV BH BV
91. tan δ = , cos δ = sin δ =
BH B B
S O N
92. B = BH 2 + B V 2
Fig. 52
93. APPARENT DIP
79. The magnetic field due to a short bar magnet at a If the plane of the scale of the dip circle is not in the
distance r on its axial line is twice the magnetic field
magnetic meridian, then the needle will not indicate the
at the same distance on its equatorial line.
correct direction of the earth’s magnetic field. The angle
80. GAUSS’S THEOREM IN MAGNETISM
z
made by the needle with the horizontal is called the
→ → →
B (r) . dS = 0 apparent dip.
s
→ → Suppose the dip circle is set at an angle α to the mag-
The magnetic field B (r) may be due to some mag- netic meridian. Effective horizontal component in this plane
netic dipole or due to superposition of any number of will be BH cos α. However there will be no effect on the verti-
magnetic fields. cal component BV. Now, the apparent dip δ′ will be given by
81. Torque experienced by a magnetic dipole placed in
BV BV 1
uniform magnetic field is given by tan δ′ = or tan δ′ = .
→ → →
BH cos α BH cos α
r = M×B.
BV
82. Work done in turning a magnetic dipole through an But = tan δ, where δ is the true dip
angle θ from its stable equilibrium position is given BH
by W = MB (1 – cos θ). tan δ
Case (i) If θ = 90°, i.e., if the dipole is displaced or tan δ′ =
cos α
through 90° from its stable equilibrium position, then
W = MB (1 – cos 90°) or W = MB
246 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
94. COMBINED FIELD OF BAR MAGNET AND Magnetic field due to the magnet is given S
EARTH, NEUTRAL POINT by
Case I. Magnetic axis of the magnet in the mag-
µ0 2Mr
netic meridian, N-pole of the magnet towards the B=
North of Earth. 4 π (r 2 − l2 )2 r
N
BH
At the neutral point,
µ0 2Mr
= BH
4 π (r 2 − l2 )2 B
Fig. 56
N 95. THE TANGENT LAW
H mH
X X mF × NT = mH × ST N mF
ST q q
S
or F=H
NT F
S
or F = H tan θ mF T
Fig. 55
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 247
I I
T1 = 2π and T2 = 2π
MB1 MB2
S N
T1 B2 T12 B2
Dividing, = or =
T2 B1 T22 B1
99. RELATION BETWEEN B AND H
B = µH
Fig. 60
248 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
M = IA N S 0° 0° W E
The direction of dipole moment is perpendicular to 90°
the face area and along the axis of the loop. According to S
right hand rule, it is directed from south to north i.e. out-
Fig. 61
wards from north.
→ → Magnetic field due to the mag-
In vector form, M = IA = IAn net at the location of the needle, Note that the mag-
netic needle is in the
Here n is a unit vector perpendicular to the plane of µ0 2Mr end-on position of
the loop. B=
4 π (r − l2 )2
2
the bar magnet.
The SI unit of dipole moment is A m2. It is the mag- Now, B = BH tan θ
netic moment of one turn loop of an area one square
metre when a current of one ampere is flowing µ0 2Mr
∴ = BH tan θ
through it. 4 π (r 2 − l2 )2
105. ATOM AS A MAGNETIC DIPOLE (ORBITAL M 4 π (r 2 − l2 )2 tan θ
MAGNETIC MOMENT OF AN ELECTRON) or =
BH µ 0 2r
→ e →
In vector form, M=− L All the quantities on the right-hand side are known.
2m
The negative sign indicates that the direction of the M
So, can be determined.
magnetic moment is opposite to the direction of the angular BH
momentum. Tan-B Position
According to Bohr’s theory, an electron (in an atom) (broad side-on position)
is permitted to revolve only in that orbit for which the angu- The arms of the
lar momentum (mr2 ω) is an integral multiple of h/2π. magnetometer are kept in
the magnetic north-south
h direction. The magneto-
∴ mr2 ω = n , N
2π meter box is rotated in its 90°
plane till the pointer reads
where n = 1, 2, 3, ...... 0° 0° W E
0—0. The bar magnet is
e nh eh placed as shown. The de- 90°
Now, M= × or M = n S
2 2πm 4πm flection θ of the needle is
eh noted. The distance r of the
Least value of magnetic moment = magnet from the centre of
4πm
the box is also noted.
This least value is considered as one Bohr magneton.
Magnetic field due to N S
eh the magnet at the location
1 Bohr magneton =
4πm of the needle, Fig. 62
1.6 × 10 −19
× 6.6 × 10 −34 µ M
B= 0 2
= A m2 4 π (r + l2 )3 / 2
4 × 3.142 × 9.1 × 10−31
= 9.2 × 10–24 A m2
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 249
M
1. Pole strength m Am 10 [M0LT 0A]
2l
2. Magnetic dipole moment M IA A m2 103 [M0L2T 0A]
3. Magnetic flux φB BA Wb 108 [ML2T –2A–1]
F
4. Magnetic flux density B T 104 [ML0T –2A–1]
qv
B
5. Magnetising force or magnetic field intensity H A m–1 4π × 10–3 Oe [M0L–1T 0A]
µ
M m
6. Intensity of magnetisation I or A m–1 10–3 [M0L–1T 0A]
V a
B
7. Magnetic permeability of medium µ H m–1 107 [MLT –2A–2]
H
µ B
8. Relative magnetic permeability µr or — — —
µ0 B0
I
9. Magnetic susceptibility χm — — —
H
(vi) For ferromagnetic substances, µr >>1. For para- Note. The hysteresis loss of the material of a permanent mag-
magnetic substances, µr > 1. For diamagnetic sub- net is immaterial. This is because the permanent magnet need not be
stances, µr < 1. taken through cycles of magnetisation and demagnetisation.
(vii) If B and B0 represent magnetic inductions in mag- 111. CAN STEEL BE USED FOR MAKING PERMA-
netic material and in free space, then
NENT MAGNETS ?
(a) for ferromagnetic substance, B >> B0
Steel does not meet all the requirements for being
(b) for paramagnetic substances, B > B0
used as a permanent magnet. However, it is generally used
(c) for diamagnetic substances, B < B0. for making a permanent magnet.
(viii) Ferromagnetic substances are strongly magnet-
Steel does not have high saturation magnetisation.
ised in the direction of the applied magnetic field.
But the strength of the magnet is increased by making it
Paramagnetic substances are weakly magnetised
in the direction of the applied magnetic field. Dia- laminated. Also, steel does not have high coercivity. In recent
magnetic substances are weakly magnetised in a times, alloys of high retentivity and high coercivity have
direction opposite to the direction of the applied been developed. Examples : Alini and Alnico.
magnetic field. 112. DISTINGUISHING FEATURES OF SOFT IRON
(ix) In the case of ferromagnet- AND STEEL
ic substances, I is in the
direction of H and has a S. No. Parameter Soft iron Steel
large value. I – H curve is I
shown in Fig. 65. 1. Intensity of High Low
H
magnetisation (I)
Fig. 65
2. Magnetic High Low
permeability (µ)
(x) In the case of paramag-
netic substances, I is in 3. Magnetic High Low
the direction of H and has I susceptibility (χm)
a small value. I – H curve
4. Retentivity High Low
is shown in Fig. 66. H
Fig. 66 5. Coercivity Low Slightly larger
than that of
soft iron
(xi) In the case of diamagnetic
substances, I is in a direc- 6. Hysteresis Loss Low High
tion opposite to H and has I
H 7. Area of hysteresis loop Less More
a small value. I – H curve
is shown in Fig. 67. 8. Utility in electro- in permanent
Fig. 67 magnet magnet
(xii) Susceptibility of every magnetic material is inde-
113. SOFT MAGNETIC MATERIALS
pendent of magnetising field H.
These materials generally have low retentivity, low
109. FOUR IMPORTANT PROPERTIES OF THE MA- coercivity and small hysteresis loss. These are suitable for
TERIAL OF AN ELECTROMAGNET
temporary magnetism. These are used for making cores of
1. Low retentivity transformers, motors, generators and electromagnets. Ex-
2. High value of saturation magnetisation amples : soft iron, mu-metal and stalloy.
3. Low coercivity 114. HARD MAGNETIC MATERIALS
4. Small hysteresis loss.
These materials generally have high retentivity, high
Note. Soft iron is highly suitable for making electromagnets.
coercivity and large hysteresis loss. These are suitable for
110. THREE IMPORTANT PROPERTIES OF THE permanent magnetism. Permanent magnets of electric me-
MATERIAL OF A PERMANENT MAGNET ters and loudspeakers are made of hard magnetic materials.
1. High retentivity Examples : Steel and Alnico.
2. High saturation magnetisation
3. High coercivity.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 251
2rH
Sol. K =
µ0 N
Since both r and N are doubled therefore K would
remain unchanged. So, (a) is the right choice.
Illustration 20. The time of vibration of a dip nee-
dle vibrating in the vertical plane in the magnetic meridian
is 3 second. When the same magnetic needle is made to
vibrate in the horizontal plane, the time period of vibration
is 3 2 second. The angle of dip is
Fig. 68 (a) 30° (b) 45°
The area of the hysteresis loop is a measure of the (c) 60° (d) 90°. [JIPMER 2002]
energy dissipated per cycle per unit volume of the specimen.
I BH
Sol. 3 = 2π
ILLUSTRATIONS INDICATING LATEST EXAMI- MB φ
NATION TRENDS
Illustration 16. A magnetic needle is kept in a non- I
3 2 = 2π B
uniform magnetic field. It experiences MBH
(a) a force but not a torque
(b) a force and a torque 3 BH
Dividing, = Fig. 69
(c) neither a force nor a torque 3 2 B
(d) a torque but not force. [AIEEE 2005]
1 BH
Sol. (b) =
2 B
Illustration 17. If a magnetic needle is vibrated at
neutral point, its time period will be 1
or cos φ = or φ = 60°
(a) Zero (b) Infinity 2
(c) any value (d) T. [Pb. PMT 2002] So, (c) is the right choice.
(a) I > III > II > IV (b) I > II > III > IV (c) Motion remains S.H. with time period = 4T
(c) I > IV > II > III (d) III > IV > I > II (d) Motion remains S.H. and period remains nearly
[IIT Screening 2003] constant [All India PM/PD 2003]
→ →
Sol. U = – M.B I
Sol. Time period of bar magnet T = 2π where,
So, (c) is the right choice. MH
Illustration 28. The most appropriate I-H curve for mL2
I is moment of inertia = where, m is mass of the magnet
a paramagnetic substance is 12
+I E D mL2
∴ T = 2π ⇒ T∝ m
12 MH
C
∴ If mass is quadrupled then T becomes twice.
O H
So, (b) is the right choice.
B
Illustration 30. If the magnetic dipole moment of
–I A an atom of diamagnetic material, praramagnetic material
and ferromagnetic material are denoted by µd, µ p and µf
Fig. 73 respectively, then :
(a) OA (b) OB (a) µp = 0 and µf ≠ 0
(c) OC (d) OD (b) µd = 0 and µp ≠ 0
(e) OE [Kerala PMT 2003] (c) µd ≠ 0 and µp = 0
(d) µd ≠ 0 and µp = 0 [All India PM/PD 2005]
Sol. Paramagnetic has small susceptibility.
Sol. The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) in a
So, (c) is the right choice.
ferromagnetic material passes a dipole moment, as in a para-
Illustration 29. A bar magnet is oscillating in the magnetic material.
Earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) of a dia-
period and motion if its mass is quadrupled ? magnetic material do not passess a permanent dipole mo-
T ment of their own.
(a) Motion remains S.H. with time period = Clearly, (b) is the right choice.
2
(b) Motion remains S.H. with time period = 2T
254 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
(a) 2n B (b) n2 B
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT
(c) n B (d) 2 n2 B [AIEEE 2004]
1. A current of I ampere flows along an infinitely long 6. Two parallel beams of positrons moving in the same
straight thin conductor. The magnetic induction at direction will
any point on the axis of the conductor is (Given : (a) repel each other.
radius of conductor = r).
(b) not interact with each other.
(a) ∞ (b) 0
(c) attract each other.
µ 2I µ I
(c) 0 (d) 0 . (d) be deflected normal to the plane containing the two beams.
4π r 4π r
[AIIMS 2004]
2. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field
in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the 7. A proton and an α-particle, moving with the same
velocity, enter into a uniform magnetic field, acting
(a) speed of the particle remains unchanged
normal to the plane of their motion. The ratio of the
(b) direction of the particle remains unchanged radii of the circular paths described by the proton
(c) acceleration remains unchanged and α-particle is
(d) velocity remains unchanged. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
[All India PM/PD 2003] (c) 1 : 16 (d) 4 : 1 [AIIMS 2004]
3. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have 8. A charge moves in a circle perpendicular to a mag-
(a) a high resistance in series with its coil netic field. The time period of revolution is independ-
(b) a low resistance in parallel with its coil ent of
(c) a low resistance in series with its coil (a) magnetic field (b) charge
(d) a high resistance in parallel with its coil (c) mass of the particle (d) velocity of the particle.
[All India PM/PD 2004] [CMC Vellore 1995]
4. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long 9. A circular coil of radius R carries an electric current.
straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic induc- The magnetic field due to the coil at a point on the
tion at any point inside the tube is axis of the coil located at a distance r from the centre
of the coil, such that r >> R, varies as
µ 0 2i
(a) . T (b) zero (a) 1/r (b) 1/r3/2
4π r
(c) 1/r 2
(d) 1/r3 [AIIMS 2004]
2i
(c) infinite (d) T [AIEEE 2004] 10. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic field per-
r pendicularly. Both have same kinetic energy. Which
5. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a of the following is true ?
circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the centre (a) Trajectory of electron is less curved.
of the coil is B. It is then bent into a circular loop of (b) Trajectory of proton is less curved.
n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil (c) Both trajectories are equally curved.
will be (d) Both move on straight line path. [MP PET 1999]
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 255
11. Two very long, straight and parallel wires carry steady 17. A solenoid of 1.5 m length and 2.0 cm radius pos-
currents I and – I respectively. The distance between sesses 10 turns per cm. A current of 5 A is flowing
the wires is d. At a certain instant of time, a point through it. The magnetic field induction inside sole-
charge q is at a point equidistant from the two wires noid is
in the plane of the wires. Its instantaneous velocity v (a) 2π × 10 –3 T (b) 2π × 10 –5 T
is perpendicular to this plane. The magnitude of the (c) 2π × 10 –2 gauss (d) 2π × 10 –5 gauss.
force due to the magnetic field acting on the charge 18. A positive charge is moving upwards vertically. It
at this instant is enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The
force on the charge will be towards
µ 0Iqv µ 0Iqv
(a) (b) (a) north (b) south
2πd πd
(c) east (d) west.
2µ 0Iqv
(c) (d) 0. 19. A wire of length L carrying a current I is bent in the
πd
form of a circle. The magnetic moment is
[IIT 1998 ; National Standard Exam. in
(a) πIL2 (b) IL/4π
Physics 2001]
(c) IL2/4π (d) IL2/2π.
12. The magnetic moment of a current (I) carrying cir-
20. Which of the following graphs correctly represents
cular coil of radius (r) and number of turns (n) varies
the variation of energy density u near the mid-point
as of a long current-carrying conductor with magnetic field
(a) 1/r2 (b) 1/r B?
(c) r (d) r2 [AIIMS 2004]
13. A proton moving in a perpendicular magnetic field
possesses energy E. The magnetic field is increased
8 times. But the proton is constrained to move in the
path of same radius. The kinetic energy will increase
(a) 1/8 times (b) 8 times
(c) 16 times (d) 64 times.
14. A cell is connected between two points of a uniformly
thick circular conductor. The magnetic field at the
centre of the loop will be
(a) zero (b) µ0/2a (i1 – i2)
(c) µ0/2a (i1 + i2) (d) µ0/a (i1 + i2).
15. A straight wire of length π2 m is carrying a current of
2 A and the magnetic field due to it is measured at a Fig. 74
point distant 1 cm from it. If the wire is to be bent 21. A current-carrying power line carries current from
into a circle and is to carry the same current as be- west to east. What will be the direction of the mag-
fore, the ratio of the magnetic field at its centre to netic field at a point above the wire ?
that obtained in the first case would be (a) east to west (b) west to east
(a) 1 : 100 (b) 100 : 1 (c) north to south (d) south to north.
(c) 1 : 50 (d) 50 : 1. 22. The magnetic field inside a toroidal solenoid of ra-
16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform dius R is B. If the current through it is doubled and
speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre its radius is also doubled keeping the number of turns
per unit length the same, the magnetic field produced
of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional
by it will be
to :
B B
v v (a) (b)
(a) (b) 4 2
B B (c) 2B (d) 4B.
B B π
(c) (d) .
v v 23. A circular arc of wire subtends an angle at the
2
[All India PM/PD 2005] centre. If it carries a current I and its radius of
256 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
→
curvature is R, then the magnetic field at the centre 30. A proton is moving with velocity v in a direction
of the arc is →
opposite to the direction of magnetic field B . The
µ 0I µ 0I
(a) (b) magnetic force experienced by the proton is
2R R
(a) Bev (b) – Bev
µ 0I µ 0I
(c) (d) . [BHU 1999] (c) Bv [AMU 2000]
(d) zero.
8R 4R
24. A charged particle is released from rest in a region of 31. An electron accelerated through a potential differ-
steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields which ence V passes through a uniform transverse mag-
are parallel to each other. The particle will move in a netic field and experiences a force F. If the accelerat-
(a) straight line (b) circle ing potential is increased to 2V, the electron in the
same magnetic field will experience a force
(c) helix (d) cycloid. [IIT 1999]
(a) F (b) F/2
25. An electron is moving along positive x-axis. To get it
moving on an anti-clockwise circular path in x-y (c) 2F (d) 2F. [AFMC 2001]
plane, a magnetic field is applied 32. A conductor of length 1 m carrying a current of 1 A
(a) along positive y-axis (b) along positive z-axis is placed parallel to a magnetic field of 1 gauss. The
(c) along negative y-axis (d) along negative z-axis. magnetic force acting on the conductor is
(a) zero (b) 1 newton
[MP PMT 1999]
(c) 10–4 newton (d) 1 dyne.
26. The magnetic field at the centre O of the semi-circle
[Fig. 75] due to each straight portion is [Bharati Vidyapeeth 2002]
33. A current-carrying loop is placed in a uniform mag-
netic field. The torque acting on it does not depend
upon
I (a) shape of the loop (b) area of the loop
O (c) value of the current (d) magnetic field.
L L [Manipal 1995]
Fig. 75 34. A charged particle of energy 15 eV moves through a
µ 0I perpendicular magnetic field. The energy of the par-
(a) zero (b) ticle on emerging out of the magnetic field is
4R
µ 0I (a) 15 eV (b) > 15 eV
(c) (d) infinity.
2R (c) < 15 eV
27. In Q. 26, the magnetic field at O due to semi-circle (d) may be more or less than 15 eV depending on the sense of
alone is the applied field. [AFMC 2002]
µ 0I 35. A neutron, a proton, an electron and an α-particle
(a) zero (b)
4R enter a region of uniform magnetic field with equal
µ 0I velocities. The magnetic field is perpendicular to pa-
(c) (d) infinity.
2R per and directed into the paper. The tracks of parti-
28. In Q. 26, the magnetic field at O due to whole of the cles are labelled in Fig. 76. The neutron follows the
wire [Fig. 74] is track
µ 0I
(a) zero (b)
4R C
µ I × × × ×
(c) 0 (d) infinity.
2R × × × × × ×
29. An experiment investigates the variation of the force × × × × ×
F between two long, parallel current-carrying × B × × × ×
conductors a distance d apart. A straight-line graph × × × × ×
should be obtained on plotting A
× × × × D ×
(a) F against d (b) F against 1/d
× × × × ×
(c) F against 1/d2 (d) log F against d
× × × × × ×
(e) F against log d. [AIIMS 2002]
Fig. 76
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 257
49. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a con- 55. To convert a moving coil galvanometer into an am-
stant current I. It is placed in a uniform magnetic meter, one has to connect
→ →
field B such that B is perpendicular to the plane of (a) a small resistance in series
the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop is (b) a small resistance in parallel
(a) BIr (b) 2πrIB (c) a high resistance in series
(c) zero (d) πrIB. (d) a high resistance in parallel. [JIPMER 1994]
[IIT 1983 ; MP PMT 1999] 56. An electric current i enters and leaves a uniform cir-
50. Which of the following particles will experience maxi- cular wire of radius a through diametrically oppo-
mum magnetic force (magnitude) when projected with site points. A charged particle q moving along the
the same velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field ? axis of the circular wire passes through its centre at
(a) electron (b) proton speed v. The magnetic force acting on the particle
(c) He+ (d) Li++. [CMC LDH 2002] when it passes through the centre has a magnitude
51. A circular loop of area 1 cm2, carrying a current of
(a) qv µ 0i (b) qv µ 0i
10 A, is placed in a magnetic field of 0.1 T perpen- 2a 2 πa
dicular to the plane of the loop. The torque on the µ 0i
loop due to the magnetic field is (c) qv (d) zero. [Pb. PMT 2002]
a
(a) zero (b) 10–4 Nm 57. An electron continues to move in a straight line while
(c) 10–2 N m (d) 1 N m.[CMC LDH 2001] passing through magnetic field. Choose the correct
52. A small coil lies in- statement.
side a larger coil. The (a) It is never possible.
two coils are horizon- (b) It is possible if B is perpendicular to the direction of the
tal, concentric and motion of the electron.
View from
carry currents in the above (c) It is possible if B is parallel to the direction of motion of the
same sense. The electron.
small coil will experi-
(d) It is possible if B is at 45° to the direction of motion of the
ence
electron. [Himachal PMT 2000]
(a) a torque about a hori-
zontal axis Fig. 78 58. An electron of charge 1.6 × 10–19 C and mass 1.0 ×
(b) a torque about a vertical axis 10–30 kg, moves in a circular orbit with a speed of 5.0
(c) an upward force along the axis × 106 m s–1 under the influence of a field of magnetic
(d) a downward force along the axis
flux density 2.0 × 10–2 T. What force, in N, does it
experience ?
(e) no resultant force. [AIIMS 2001]
→ (a) 1.6 × 10–44 (b) 6.4 × 10–28
53. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is (c) 3.2 × 10–24 (d) 1.6 × 10–14.
subjected to a field of magnetic induction in the nega-
[MNR 1997]
tive X-direction. As a result, the charge will
59. A proton beam is going from north to south and an
(a) remain unaffected
electron beam is going from south to north. Neglect-
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y-Z plane
ing the earth’s magnetic field, the electron beam will
(c) retard along X-axis be deflected
(d) move along a helical path around X-axis.
(a) towards the proton beam
[CMC LDH 1994] (b) away from the proton beam
54. A charged particle is situated in a region of space (c) upwards (d) downwards.
and it experiences a force only when it is in motion. [All India PM/PD 2002]
It can be deduced that the region encloses
60. The material used for the suspension wire of a mov-
(a) both an electric field and a gravitational field.
ing coil galvanometer is
(b) both a magnetic field and an electric field.
(a) tungsten (b) platinum
(c) both a magnetic field and a gravitational field.
(c) phosphor bronze (d) manganin.
(d) a magnetic field only.
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2001]
(e) an electric field only. [BHU 1996]
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 259
61. Two parallel long wires, each carrying a current of The distance between the wires is doubled and the
1 A, are 0.5 m apart. The force per unit length ex- I
erted by one wire on the other is current is decreased to . The force they exert on
3
µ0 µ0 one another, now is
(a) N (b) N
4π 3π (a) F/6 (b) F/9
µ µ (c) 2F/3 (d) F/18. [DPMT 2000]
(c) 0 N (d) 0 N . [AFMC 1996]
2π π
70. An ammeter gives full scale deflection when current
62. A current is passed through a straight wire. The
of 1.0 A is passed in it. To convert it into 10 A range
magnetic field established around it has its lines of
ammeter, the ratio of its resistance and the shunt
force
resistance will be
(a) circular in shape (b) oval in shape and endless
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 10
(c) straight (d) None of these.
(c) 1 : 11 (d) 9 : 1. [AMU 1993]
[BHU 1994]
71. Fig. 79 shows a rectangu- Z
63. Protons are shot perpendicular to a magnetic field. lar coil of cross-sectional
(a) Magnetic field will have no influence on the motion of area A placed in a uniform
→ I
protons
magnetic field B directed O Y
(b) Protons will continue to move in the same direction but
along Z-axis. The torque
will gain momentum
on coil is
(c) Protons will continue to move in the opposite directions
(a) ABI along + ve Y-axis
but will gain momentum
(b) ABI along – ve Y-axis
(d) They will bend in an arc of a circle. [BHU 2001] (c) ABI along + ve X-axis X
Fig. 79
64. Weber ampere per metre is equal to (d) zero.
(a) joule (b) newton 72. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely
(c) henry (d) watt. [DPMT 1999] long, straight and thin-walled pipe. Then
(a) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same
65. A rectangular coil of area A of N turns has a current but not zero.
I flowing in clockwise direction when looked at from (b) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero.
above. The magnetic moment associated with it
(c) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe.
(a) points upwards (b) points vertically downwards
(d) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the
(c) is zero (d) is directly proportional to A2. pipe. [Himachal PMT 1994]
[Pb. CET 2000] 73. Which one of the following is not deflected by a mag-
66. To measure total charge displaced through its ter- netic field ?
minals, we use (a) Positron (b) α-particle
(a) an ammeter (b) a tangent galvanometer (c) β-rays (d) γ-rays. [BHU 1993]
(c) a ballistic galvanometer (d) a magnetometer. 74. A straight conductor of length 0.3 metre is placed in
[CMC LDH 1999] a uniform magnetic field of induction 8 × 10–4 tesla
67. If a copper rod carries a direct current, the magnetic parallel to the lines of force. A current of 2.5 ampere
field associated with the current will be flows through it. The mechanical force acting on the
(a) only inside the rod (b) only outside the rod conductor is
(c) both inside and outside the rod (a) 6 newton (b) 6 × 10–4 newton
(d) neither inside nor outside the rod. [Manipal 2001] (c) 3 × 10–4 newton (d) zero. [Manipal 1994]
68. A current is flowing north along a power line. The 75. An electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and
direction of magnetic field above it, neglecting the electric (E) fields are mutually perpendicular to one
earth’s field, is another. Then
(a) north (b) east (a) it will always move in the direction of B
(c) south (d) west. [AFMC 1998] (b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possess circular motion
69. Two long, thin wires distant a apart exert a force F
on one another when current through each wire is I. (d) it can go undeflected also. [Pb. CET 1993]
260 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
76. A charged particle enters in a strong magnetic field. (c) The magnetic field is at 45° with the plane of the coil.
Then its kinetic energy (d) Always in any orientation. [MP PMT 1995]
(a) increases (b) decreases 84. An electron is travelling horizontally towards east.
(c) remains constant A magnetic field in vertically downward direction
(d) first increases and then becomes constant. exerts a force on the electron along
[MP PMT 2001] (a) east (b) west
77. An electron is revolving in a circular orbit of radius r (c) north (d) south. [EAMCET 1984]
in a hydrogen atom. The angular momentum of the 85. The expression for the torque acting on a coil having
electron is l. The dipole moment associated with it is area of cross-section A, number of turns n, placed in
(a) (e/m) l (b) (e/2m) l a magnetic field of strength B, making an angle θ
(c) (m/e) l (d) (2m/e) l. with the normal to the plane of the coil, when a cur-
[All India PM/PD 1993] rent i is flowing in it, will be
78. An α-particle moves at right angles to a uniform (a) n i AB tan θ (b) n i AB cos θ
magnetic field of 0.5 T with a speed of 5 × 106 m s–1. (c) n i AB sin θ (d) n i AB. [MP PET 1996]
The force experienced by α-particle is 86. An electron enters a magnetic field whose direction
(a) 4 × 10 –13 N (b) 8 × 10 –13 N is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron. Then
(c) 4 × 10 –11 N (d) 8 × 10 –11 N. (a) the speed of the electron will increase ;
79. A circular loop carrying a current is replaced by an (b) the speed of the electron will decrease ;
equivalent magnetic dipole. A point on the axis of the (c) the speed of the electron will remain the same ;
loop is now on (d) the velocity of the electron will remain the same.
(a) end-on position (b) broad side-on position [MP PMT 1996]
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b). 87. The pole pieces of the magnet used in a pivoted coil
[MNR 1998] galvanometer are
80. To make the field radial in a moving coil galvano- (a) plane surfaces of a bar magnet
meter, (b) plane surfaces of a horse-shoe magnet
(a) the number of turns in the coil is increased (c) cylindrical surfaces of a bar magnet
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe (d) cylindrical surfaces of a horse-shoe magnet.
(c) poles are cut cylindrically [MP PMT 1996]
(d) coil is wound on aluminium frame. [MP PET 1993] 88. Two straight parallel wires situated at a distance a,
81. A magnetic field carry currents i 1 and i 2 in the same direction. The
(a) always exerts a force on a charged particle force of attraction between them is
(b) never exerts a force on a charged particle (a) independent of a (b) inversely proportional to a2
(c) exerts a force, if the charged particle is moving across the (c) proportional to (i1 + i2) (d) proportional to (i1 × i2).
magnetic field lines [Himachal PMT 1995]
(d) exerts a force, if the charged particle is moving along the 89. An infinite straight conductor carrying current 2I is
magnetic field lines. [MP PET 1994] split into a coil of radius r as shown in Fig. 80. The
82. A proton and an electron both moving with the same magnetic field at the centre of the coil is
velocity v enter into a region of magnetic field di- I
rected perpendicular to the velocity of the particles.
They will now move in circular orbits such that
(a) their time periods will be same 2I 2I
(b) the time period for proton will be higher O
(c) the time period for electron will be higher
(d) their orbital radii will be same. [MP PET 1995] I
83. A current-carrying rectangular coil is placed in a
Fig. 80
uniform magnetic field. In which orientation, the coil
will not tend to rotate ? µ 0 2 (π + 1) µ 0 2 (π − 1)
(a) (b)
(a) The magnetic field is parallel to the plane of the coil. 4π r 4π r
(b) The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the coil. µ 0 (π + 1)
(c) (d) zero. [Pb. PMT 1993]
4π r
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 261
90. To reduce the range of voltmeter, its resistance needs a force of 25 N. The distance between the magnets is
to be reduced. A voltmeter has resistance R0 and reduced by a factor of 4. Now, the force of repulsion
range V. Which of the following resistances when con- will be
nected in parallel will convert it into a voltmeter of (a) 4 × 25 N (b) 4 × 4 × 25 N
range V/n ? (c) 4 × 4 × 4 × 25 N (d) 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 25 N.
(a) n R0 (b) (n + 1) R0
97. A magnet of magnetic moment M is rotated through
(c) (n – 1) R0 (d) None of these. 360° in a magnetic field. The work done is
91. A current-carrying small loop behaves like a small (a) MH (b) 2 MH
magnet. If A be its area and M its magnetic moment, (c) 2πMH (d) zero.
the current in the loop will be
98. At a certain place, the horizontal component of earth’s
(a) M/A (b) A/M
magnetic field is 3 times the vertical component.
(c) MA (d) A2M.
The angle of dip at the place is
[MP PMT/PET 1998] (a) 75° (b) 60°
92. The magnetic induction at any point due to a long (c) 45° (d) 30°.
straight wire carrying a current is
99. A compass needle is placed at the magnetic pole of
(a) proportional to the distance from the wire earth. It
(b) inversely proportional to the distance from wire (a) points south-east (b) points east-west
(c) inversely proportional to the square of the distance from (c) may stay in any direction (d) becomes vertical.
the wire
100. The magnetic induction and the magnetic field in-
(d) does not depend on distance. [MP PMT/PET 1998] side the iron core of an electromagnet is 1.07 Wb
93. A proton, charge (+ e coulomb) enters in a magnetic m–2 and 150 Am–1. Then, the relative permeability of
field of strength B (B tesla) making an angle 30° with iron is
the direction of magnetic field with speed v. The mag-
107
. 10 −7
netic force on the proton is (a) (b)
150 4π
(a) evB (b) zero
1.07 10 −7 1.07 107
(c) ∞ (d) evB/2. (c) × (d) × .
150 4π 150 4π
94. The magnetic field at 101. The magnetic moment of atomic neon is
the centre of the cube
1
of edge of length a is (a) zero (b) µ
2 B
(a) zero 3
(c) µB (d) µB .
µ0i 2
(b) 8 ×
a 2 102. Which of the following is ferromagnetic ?
(a) aluminium (b) quartz
(c) 8 × µ 0 i 2 (c) nickel (d) bismuth.
a
µ0 i 103. A dip circle is so set that it moves freely in the mag-
Fig. 81
(d) 12 × . netic meridian. In this position, the angle of dip is
2×a 2
40°. Now, the dip circle is rotated so that the plane
in which the needle moves makes an angle of 30°
MAGNETISM with the magnetic meridian. In this position, the
needle will dip
µ0 N (a) 40° (b) 30°
95. In a tangent galvanometer, = 1. Then the value
r (c) > 40° (d) < 40°.
of H is
104. A permanent magnet
K
(a) K (b) (a) attracts all substances
2
(b) attracts only magnetic substances
K K
(c) (d) . [Pb. PMT 1994] (c) attracts magnetic substances and repels all non-magnetic
3 16
substances
96. Two short magnets placed along the same axis with
their like poles facing each other repel each other with (d) attracts non-magnetic substances and repels magnetic sub-
stances. [CMC LDH 1997]
262 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
105. Which of the following demonstrates that earth has at a point in tan B position at a distance x from the
a magnetic field ? middle of magnet is
(a) The earth is surrounded by an ionosphere (a shell of (a) 100 gauss (b) 400 gauss
charged particles). (c) 50 gauss (d) 200 gauss.
(b) A large quantity of iron ore is found in the earth.
113. A small piece of unmagnetised substance gets repelled
(c) The intensity of cosmic rays (stream of charged particles when it is brought near a powerful magnet. The sub-
coming from outer space) is more at the poles than at the
stance can be
equator. [JIPMER 1995]
(a) paramagnetic (b) ferromagnetic
106. A pivoted magnetic needle makes 12 oscillations in (c) non-magnetic (d) diamagnetic.
one minute. How many oscillations per minute will
114. The hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent
it make if its pole strength is increased four times ?
magnet is
(a) 12 (b) 24
(a) short and wide (b) tall and narrow
(c) 6 (d) 48. [JIPMER 1993]
(c) tall and wide (d) short and narrow.
107. Pick out the statement which is not true.
115. A dip needle in a plane perpendicular to the mag-
(a) A Tangent galvanometer cannot be used in the polar region.
netic meridian will remain
(b) A short magnet is used in a tangent galvanometer since a (a) vertical (b) horizontal
long magnet would be heavy and may not move easily.
(c) in any direction
(c) Measurements with the tangent galvanometer will be more
(d) inclined at 45° with horizontal. [MP PMT 1995]
accurate when the deflection is around 45°.
(d) While taking readings with a tangent galvanometer, the 116. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very
readings are repeated by reversing the current to take effectively from outside fields by placing it inside a
care of the fact that the plane of the coil may not be ex- box of
actly along the earth’s magnetic meridian. (a) teak wood (b) plastic material
[Karnataka CET 2001] (c) a metal of high conductivity
108. The value of angle of dip is zero at the magnetic equa- (d) soft iron of high permeability. [CMC LDH 1993]
tor because on it 117. A magnetic needle suspended horizontally by an
(a) V and H are equal (b) the value of V and H is zero unspun silk fibre, oscillates in the horizontal plane
because of the restoring force originating mainly from
(c) the value of V is zero (d) the value of H is zero.
(a) the torsion of the silk fibre
[MP PET 2001]
(b) the force of gravity
109. The total intensity of earth’s magnetic field is given (c) the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
by
(d) all the above factors. [All India PM/PD 1994]
(a) I = V + H (b) I = V/H
118. A magnetic needle vibrates in a vertical plane paral-
(c) I = V 2 + H2 (d) I = H/V. lel to the magnetic meridian about a horizontal axis
[CMC Vellore 1993] passing through its centre. Its frequency is f. If the
110. The magnetic field on poles is plane of oscillation is turned about a vertical axis by
(a) only vertical (b) only horizontal
90°, the frequency of its oscillation in vertical plane
will be
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these.
(a) f (b) > f
[DPMT 1993]
(c) < f (d) zero.
111. Magnetic lines of force
119. The tangent galvanometer, when connected in series
(a) always intersect (b) are always closed
with a standard resistance, can be used as
(c) tend to crowd far away from the poles of magnet
(a) an ammeter (b) a voltmeter
(d) do not pass through vacuum.
(c) a wattmeter
[Haryana PMT 1994]
(d) both an ammeter and a voltmeter. [MP PET 1994]
112. The magnetic field due to a short magnet at a point
120. A line passing through places having zero value of
in tan A position at a distance x cm from the middle
magnetic dip is called
point of the magnet is 200 gauss. The magnetic field
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 263
(a) Isoclinic line (b) Aclinic line (c) induction effect of the sun
(c) Agonic line (d) Isogonic line. (d) interaction of cosmic rays with the current of earth.
[Pb. CET 1997] [CMC LDH 1999]
121. The Mariner’s compass is provided with Gimbals 130. Dip is the angle which the total intensity of earth’s
arrangement so as to magnetic field at a place makes with
(a) give a direct value of dip (a) vertical (b) horizontal
(b) give a direct reading of declination (c) magnetic equator (d) geographic equator.
[BHU 1995]
(c) keep the needle always horizontal. 131. Magnetic susceptibility x is defined as
122. The magnetic moment of a magnet is 5 A m2. If the (a) I/H (b) H/I
pole strength is 25 A m, what is the length of the (c) I × H (d) I2/H2.
magnet ? 132. The magnetic susceptibility for a diamagnetic mate-
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm rial is
(c) 25 cm (d) 1.25 m. (a) small and negative (b) small and positive
(c) large and positive (d) large and negative.
123. The north pole of earth’s magnet is near the geo-
graphical 133. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(a) east (b) west (a) Bismuth (b) Antimony
(c) Chromium (d) Water.
(c) north (d) south.
[Pb. PMT 1997]
124. Gauss is the unit of
(a) magnetic flux density (b) magnetic flux
134. Which of the following is suitable for the core of the
electromagnets ?
(c) magnetic induction.
(a) Air (b) Soft-iron
125. Current I is flowing in a circular loop of area A placed (c) Steel (d) Cu-Ni alloy.
in a magnetic field B. The maximum couple acting
[DPMT 1994]
on it is
(a) IA/B (b) IBA
135. A ferromagnetic material is placed in an external
magnetic field. The magnetic domains
(c) B/IA (d) IB/A. [BPET 1999]
(a) increase in size (b) decrease in size
126. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic mo- (c) may increase or decrease in size
ment M and pole strength m units is broken into two (d) have no relation with the field. [AIIMS 1994]
at the middle. The magnetic moment and pole
136. Twists of suspension fibre should be removed in vi-
strength of each piece will be
bration magnetometer so that
(a) M/2, m/2 (b) M, m/2
(a) time period be less (b) time period be more
(c) M/2, m (d) M, m. [AFMC 1993] (c) magnet may vibrate freely
127. The unit of intensity of magnetisation is (d) cannot be said with certainty.
(a) A m–1 (b) A m2
137. Of the following, the most suitable material for
(c) A m (d) Wb m–1. making permanent magnet is
128. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian (a) Steel (b) Soft iron
when it shows an angle of dip θ at a place. The dip (c) Copper (d) Nickel.
circle is rotated through an angle β in the horizontal 138. The arms of a deflection magnetometer in the tan-
plane and then it shows an angle of dip θ′. Now, gent B position are placed along
tan θ′ (a) the east-west direction (b) the north-south direction
is
tan θ (c) the north east-south west direction
1 1 (d) the north west-south east direction.
(a) (b)
cos β sin β
139. The magnetism of the magnet is due to
1
(c) (d) cos β. (a) the spin motion of electron
tan β
(b) earth
129. The magnetic field of earth is due to
(c) presence of big magnet inside the earth
(a) a magnetic dipole buried at the centre of the earth
(b) motion and distribution of some material in and outside (d) cosmic rays. [JAT Assam 1999]
the earth
264 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
140. The magnetic field due to short magnetic dipole of (a) 2M/d3 (b) M/d2
magnetic moment M at a point on the axis of the (c) M/d3 (d) 2M/d2.
dipole and at a distance d from it is given by 149. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field.
(a) M/d3 (b) 2M/d3 The field is increased till the magnetisation becomes
(c) M/d2 (d) 2M/d2. [CPMT 1994] constant. If the temperature is now decreased, the
141. In the case of a bar magnet, lines of magnetic induc- magnetisation
tion (a) will increase (b) decrease
(a) start from the north pole and end at the south pole (c) remains constant (d) may increase or decrease.
(b) run continuously through the bar and outside 150. Tangent galvanometer is used to measure
(c) emerge in circular paths from the middle of the bar (a) Steady currents (b) Current impulses
(d) are produced only at north pole like ray of light from a bulb. (c) Magnetic moments of bar magnets
[CPMT 1995] (d) Earth’s magnetic field. [MP PET 1993]
142. The time period of a freely suspended magnet does 151. The substances for which the value of magnetic per-
not depend upon meability is just more than unity are called
(a) length of the magnet (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic
(b) the pole strength of the magnet (c) ferromagnetic (d) suspended.
(c) the horizontal component of magnetic field of the earth [Pb. CET 1994]
(d) the length of the suspension 152. A long magnet is cut in two parts in such a way that
143. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a small bar mag- the ratio of their lengths is 2 : 1. The ratio of pole
net in the end-on position to that in broad side-on strengths of both the sections is
position for the same distance from it is (a) equal (b) in the ratio of 2 : 1
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) in the ratio of 1 : 2 (d) in the ratio of 4 : 1.
158. There is no couple acting when two bar magnets are 165. Magnetic lines of force
placed coaxially since (a) cannot intersect at all (b) intersect at infinity
(a) there are no forces on the poles (c) intersect within the magnet
(b) the forces are ⊥ to each other
(d) intersect at the neutral point. [MNR 1993]
(c) the forces are || and the lines of action coincide
166. If a diamagnetic solution is poured into a U-tube and
(d) the forces are || and the lines of action do not coincide with
one arm of this U-tube placed between the poles of a
each other. [Bharati Vidyapeeth 1996]
strong magnet with the meniscus in a line with the
159. A magnetic needle suspended by a silk thread is vi- field, then the level of the solution will
brating in the earth’s magnetic field. If the tempera-
(a) rise (b) fall
ture of the magnet is increased by 500°C, then
(c) oscillate slowly (d) remain as such.
(a) the time period decreases
(b) the time period remains unchanged
[All India PM/PD 1995]
(c) the time period increases (d) the needle stops vibrating. 167. At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is
[Pb. CET 1995] (a) 45° (b) 30°
160. What happens to the force between magnetic poles (c) Zero (d) 90°. [CPMT 1991]
when their pole strength and the distance between 168. Lines of force due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field
them are both doubled ? are
(a) Force increases to two times the previous value (a) parallel and straight (b) elliptical
(b) No change (c) concentric circles (d) curved lines.
(c) Force decreases to half the previous value
[CPMT 1985]
(d) Force increases to four times the previous value.
169. When the S-pole of a bar magnet points towards the
[Haryana PMT 1995] north and the N-pole towards the south, the null
161. Two magnets A and B are identical in mass, length points are at the
and breadth but have different magnetic moments. (a) N and S pole
In a vibration magnetometer, if the time period of B (b) normal bisector of the magnetic axis
is twice the time period of A. The ratio of the mag-
(c) magnetic centre (d) magnetic axis.
netic moments MA/MB of the magnets will be
[AFMC 1995]
(a) 1/2 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 1/4. [MP PET 1990] 170. The core of an electromagnet is made of soft iron
because soft iron has
162. Above Curie temperature, a paramagnetic substance
(a) small susceptibility and small retentivity
becomes
(b) large susceptibility and small retentivity
(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic
(c) large density and large retentivity
(c) ferromagnetic (d) super conductor.
(d) small density and large retentivity. [CPMT 1990]
[AFMC 1994]
171. The arms of a deflection magnetometer in the tan-
163. The magnetic field due to a magnetic dipole of mag-
gent A position are placed along
netic moment M at a point at a distance d from its
(a) the east-west direction (b) the north-south direction
centre on a line inclined at an angle θ with the axis is
given by (c) the north east-south west direction
(a) the compass needle does not produce a strong magnetic (a) zero (b) 45°
field (c) 90° (d) 180°.
(b) the galvanometer does not have a large size 180. Force between two identical bar magnets whose cen-
(c) the moment of inertia is large tres are r metre apart is 4.8 N, when their axes are in
(d) the compass needle moves in the region of uniform mag- the same line. If separation is increased to 2r, the
netic fields. [CMC LDH 1996] force between them is reduced to
174. Two short magnets placed along the same axis with (a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N
their like poles facing each other repel each other with (c) 0.6 N (d) 0.3 N. [AIIMS 1995]
a force which varies inversely as 181. Of dia, para and ferromagnetism, the universal prop-
(a) distance (b) square of distance erty of all substances is
(c) cube of distance (d) fourth power of distance. (a) diamagnetics (b) paramagnetics
(c) ferromagnetics (d) all of these.
[CMC Vellore 1999]
175. A magnet of magnetic moment M is freely suspended 182. Domain formation is the necessary feature of
in a uniform magnetic field of strength B. The work (a) diamagnetism (b) paramagnetism
done in deflecting the magnet through an angle θ is (c) ferromagnetism (d) all of these. [BHU 1997]
given by 183. Property possessed by ferromagnetic substance only
(a) MB (b) MB sin θ is
(c) MB cos θ (d) MB (1 – cos θ). (a) attracting magnetic substances
[MP PMT 1996, 1999] (b) hysteresis
176. The strength of the magnetic field in which the mag- (c) susceptibility independent of temperature
net is of a vibration magnetometer is oscillating is (d) directional property. [Karnataka CET 1999]
increased to 4 times its original value. The frequency
184. The incorrect statement regarding the lines of force
of oscillation would then become : →
of the magnetic field B is
(a) twice (b) four times
(a) Magnetic intensity is a measure of lines of force passing
(c) half (d) one-fourth.
through unit area held normal to it.
[All India PM/PD 2000] (b) Magnetic lines of force form a closed curve.
177. Magnetic field of a magnet is similar to which of the (c) Inside a magnet, its magnetic lines of force move from the
following ? north pole of a magnet towards its south pole.
(a) Magnetic field of a straight wire carrying current (d) Due to a magnet, magnetic lines of force never cut each
(b) Magnetic field of a straight wire carrying alternating cur- other. [MP PET 1999]
rent 185. The lines joining the places of the same horizontal
(c) Magnetic field due to a coil of wire carrying current intensity are known as
(d) Magnetic field due to coiled wire carrying alternating cur- (a) Isogonic lines (b) Aclinic lines
rent. [Pb. CET 2000] (c) Isoclinic lines (d) Agonic lines
178. In sum and difference method, the ratio of M1 and (e) Isodynamic lines. [BHU 1998]
M2 is given by
186. The magnetic susceptibility of material is 7.54 ×
M T 2 + T22 M T 2 − T22 10–3. The nature and relative permeability of the sub-
(a) 1 = 12 (b) 1 = 12
M2 T1 − T22 M2 T1 − T22 stance is
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic, 1.0075
M1 T22 + T12 M1 T22 − T12
(c) = (d) = . (c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these.
M2 T22 − T12 M2 T22 + T12
[CMC Vellore 1996]
[Manipal 1997]
→ 187. Temperature above which a ferromagnetic substance
179. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in a becomes paramagnetic is called
→
uniform magnetic field of induction B such that it (a) Critical temperature (b) Boyle’s temperature
→
makes an angle θ with B . Then the position of stable (c) Debye’s temperature (d) Curie temperature.
equilibrium of the magnet is given by θ equal to [JIPMER 1997]
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 267
188. Which of the following has highest magnetic perme- 196. The magnet can be completely demagnetised by
ability ? (or magnetic permeability is maximum for) (a) heating it slightly
(a) Paramagnetic substances (b) Diamagnetic substances (b) dropping it into ice cold water
(c) Ferromagnetic substances(d) Vacuum. (c) a reverse field of appropriate strength
[CMC LDH 1995] (d) breaking the magnet into small pieces.
189. If a magnet is divided into 2n parts by cutting along 197. The angle of dip at the magnetic equator is
lines parallel to length, then pole strength of each (a) 0° (b) 45°
part will be (c) 30° (d) 90°.
(a) Same (b) 1/n times 198. The direction of earth’s magnetic field at a place is
(c) 1/2n times (d) 1/4n times. (a) from north to south (b) from south to north
[All India PM/PD 1996] (c) from magnetic north to south
190. Vibration magnetometer is used for comparing (d) from magnetic south to north.
(a) Magnetic field (b) Earth’s field 199. For which of the following substances, the magnetic
(c) Magnetic moments (d) All of these. susceptibility is independent of temperature
[MP PET/PMT 1988] (a) diamagnetics only (b) paramagnetics only
191. When a south pole is placed in the magnetic field of a (c) ferromagnetics only
north pole, the south pole moves towards the north (d) diamagnetics and paramagnetics both.
pole and its potential energy 200. At a neutral point in the neighbourhood of a bar mag-
(a) decreases (b) increases net placed in earth’s magnetic field,
(c) remains unchanged (d) gets doubled. (a) the magnetic field of the magnet is zero
[AMU 1996] (b) the fields of the earth and the magnet are equal in magni-
tude and oppositely directed
192. The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material is K at
27°C. At what temperature will its susceptibility be (c) a magnetic compass needle will point perpendicular to the
0.5 K ? bar magnet
(a) 54°C (b) 327°C (d) a magnetic compass needle will align itself parallel to the
bar magnet.
(c) 600°C (d) 237°C.
201. The desirable properties for making permanent mag-
[Pb. PMT 1997]
nets are
193. Magnets cannot be made from which of the following
(a) high retentivity and high coercive force
substances ?
(b) high retentivity and low coercive force
(a) Iron (b) Nickel
(c) low retentivity and high coercive force
(c) Copper (d) All of these.
(d) low retentivity and low coercive force. [AIIMS 1997]
[Bihar PET 1984]
202. µ and k stand for the permeability and magnetic sus-
194. The meniscus of a liquid contained in one of the limbs
ceptibility of a susbtance. It is a paramagnetic if
of a narrow U-tube is placed between the pole pieces
(a) µ = 1.00002 and k = 1.71 × 10–6
of an electromagnet with the meniscus in a line with
the field. The liquid is seen to rise to line. This (b) µ = 1.00002 and k = – 1.71 × 10–6
indicates that the liquid is (c) µ = 1.71 × 106 and k = 1.0002
(a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic (d) µ = 1.0002 and k = 1.71 × 10–6.
(c) diamagnetic (d) non-magnetic. 203. The error in measuring the current with a tangent
[MNR 1994] galvanometer is minimum when the deflection is
about
195. A magnet is placed in iron powder and then taken
(a) 0° (b) 30°
out. Then maximum iron powder is at
(c) 45° (d) 60°. [MP PET 2001]
(a) some away from north pole
(b) some away from south pole 204. A current of 2 ampere produces a deflection of 30° in
(c) the middle of the magnet a tangent galvanometer. A deflection of 60° will be
(d) the end of the magnet. produced in it by a current of
268 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
205. Before using the tangent galvanometer, its coil is set [All India PM/PD 2003]
in 212. The Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is based on
(a) magnetic meridian the phenomenon of
(a) Nuclear magnetic resonance.
(b) perpendicular to magnetic meridian
(b) Electron spin resonance.
(c) at angle of 45° to magnetic meridian
(c) Electron paramagnetic resonance
(d) It does not require any setting. [MP PMT 2001]
(d) Diamagnetism of human tissues. [AIIMS 2004]
206. The angle of dip at a place on the earth gives
213. A frog can be levitated in a magnetic field produced
(a) the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the
(b) the location of the geographic meridian frog. This is possible because the body of the frog
(c) the vertical component of the earth’s field behaves as
(d) the direction of the earth’s magnetic field. (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic.
[MP PET 1994]
[AIIMS 2003]
207. Out of the following, which is non-magnetic ? 214. The material used for permanent magnet has
(a) Zinc (b) Steel (a) low retentivity, high coercivity
(c) Copper (d) Cobalt. (b) high retentivity, low coercivity
208. The ultimate individual unit of magnetism in any (c) high retentivity, high coercivity
magnet is called magnetic (d) low retentivity, low coercivity
(a) North pole (b) South pole [Karnataka CET 2003]
(c) Dipole (d) Quadrupole. 215. Liquid oxygen remains suspended between two pole
209. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet faces of a magnet because it is
(a) are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet (a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(b) are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet (c) ferromagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic
Answers (Set I)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (a)
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 269
33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (e) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (e) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b)
65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (d) 71. (d) 72. (b)
73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (d)
89. (d) 90. (d) 91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (d)
97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (b)
105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (a) 111. (b) 112. (a)
113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (c) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (a)
129. (b) 130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (c) 136. (c)
137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (a) 140. (b) 141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (a)
145. (c) 146. (d) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (c) 150. (a) 151. (a) 152. (a)
153. (d) 154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (d) 160. (b)
161. (c) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (a)
169. (d) 170. (b) 171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (d) 175. (d) 176. (a)
177. (c) 178. (c) 179. (a) 180. (d) 181. (a) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (c)
185. (e) 186. (b) 187. (d) 188. (c) 189. (c) 190. (d) 191. (a) 192. (b)
193. (c) 194. (b) 195. (d) 196. (c) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (a) 200. (b)
201. (a) 202. (a) 203. (c) 204. (d) 205. (a) 206. (d) 207. (a) 208. (c)
209. (a) 210. (b) 211. (a) 212. (a) 213. (b) 214. (c) 215. (b) 216. (b)
217. (c).
Solutions (Set I)
1.
z → →
B . dl = µ0 × 0 = 0.
+ A common misconception
∴ B2 µ 0I 2 π × 1 × 10 −2 = 0.02 = 1
= ×
B1 π µ 0I 50
mv2
Bqv = = mrω2 µ0 I
r 16. B=
LM 4π 2 OP 2r
or mr
MN T2
PQ = Bqv B=
µ0 e
2r T
Can you say that T depends upon v ? If no, why ?
µ 0 ev
B=
2 r 2 πr
µ 0IR 2
9. B = v v
2(R 2 + r 2 )3 / 2 or r2 ∝ or r ∝
B B
If r >> R, then R2 can be neglected in comparison to
N
r2. 17. B = µ0 I
l
2
µ 0IR 1
∴ B= or B ∝ 4 π × 10 −7 × 10 × 5
2r 3 r3 = T = 2π × 10–3 T.
1 × 10 −2
mv2
10. Bqv = 18. Apply Fleming’s left hand rule.
r
mv 19. M = IA = Iπr2
Bq = L
r But L = 2πr or r =
p 2m Ek 2π
or Bq =
r
or Bq =
r LM L OP 2
2m Ek
∴ M = Iπ
N 2π Q
or r= IL2
Bq
or M= .
4π
In the given problem, B, Ek and q are constants.
B2
∴ m r∝ 20. u =
2µ 0
m is more for proton. r is more. So, trajectory is less
or u ∝ B2
curved.
The graph is a symmetric parabola about u-axis and
11. Velocity is parallel or anti-parallel to magnetic field.
passing through the origin.
So, force experienced is zero.
21. Applying right hand thumb rule.
12. M = NIA or M = NI(πr2) or M ∝ r2
22. B = µ0 nI
mv p 2m E k B ∝ I.
13. Bq = = =
r r r
LM OP
1 µ 0I µ I
= 0
or r=
2m Ek
23. B =
4 2R N Q 8R
Bq 24. Magnetic field exerts zero force on stationary charge.
⇒ Ek ∝ B2 25. For the paticle to move
along anticlockwise path, Note the special tech-
14. Magnetic fields due to two parts will be equal and nique adopted in this
opposite. force should be along j . solution.
µ 0I Velocity is along i .
15. B1 =
2π × 1 × 10−2 → → →
Now Fm = – e ( v × B)
µ 0I
Again, B2 = In terms of unit vectors only,
2r
But 2πr = π2 j = – (i × ?)
or j = ? × i
or 2r = π
Clearly ? is k .
∴ B2 = µ 0 I 26. The magnetic field at a point on the axis of the cur-
π
rent element is zero.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 271
FG IJ = µ I .
1 µ 0I 43. Applying Fleming’s left hand rule.
27.
2 2R H K 4R 0
44. Two solenoids in contact coaxially and have the same
current direction act like one long solenoid. If the end
28. Magnetic field at O due to straight wires is zero. flux density is B, the centre density is 2B.
29. It can be shown that the force F between two long, or
parallel current-carrying conductors a distance d apart
The two ends in contact have the same current sense,
µ 0I1I2l therefore the flux densities add in magnitude. These
is F =
2 πd two ends become the centre with density B.
where I1I2 are the currents in the conductors and l 45. Magnetic lines of force are parallel to circular loop.
is the length of each conductor. 47. When θ = 90°, then sin θ has maximum value.
Hence, force F should be plotted against 1/d in order 48. For inside points, enclosed current is zero.
30.
to obtain a straight-line graph.
Fm = Bqv sin θ
In the given problem, θ = 0°.
z → →
B . dl = 0.
49. The magnetic force on each element is balanced by an
31. F = Bqv equal and opposite magnetic force on the diametri-
cally opposite element.
1 2eV
But mv2 = eV or v = 50. Fm = Bqv
2 m
Fm ∝ q.
2eV → → →
∴ F = Bq 51. τ = I (A × B)
m
In the given problem,
F∝ V → →
A || B .
F′ ∝ 2V
52. The larger coil induces magnetic flux density B on
F′ the small coil in the direction pointing into the paper
= 2 or F′ = 2 F.
F as shown by the cross signs. The magnetic flux den-
→ → → sity in turn induce forces on the small coil which are
32. F = I ( l × B) all radially outwards from the small coil.
→ → →
If l || B , then F = 0.
33. Torque does not depend upon shape of coil.
34. Magnetic field does no work.
35. Neutron follows straight path. This is because of zero
force.
mv2
36. Bqv =
r
mv Fig. 82
or r= or r ∝ m
Bq The net resultant force is nil because the force on one
Proton has less mass. So, r is less. point of the small coil is always counter balanced by a
37. NBIA = kθ or I ∝ θ. force of same magnitude on the opposite point along
38. B = µ0nI. Clearly, B does not depend upon radius. the diameter of the small coil.
39. The force on electron will be opposite to the direction → → →
53. Fm = q ( v × B)
of electric field.
→ →
1 v and B are anti-parallel.
40. B ∝ .
r →
41. The electrostatic force dominates the magnetic force. ∴ Fm = 0.
42. r = 0.5 × 10–2m, I = 10 A 54. In an electric field (E), the charged particle (q) will
µ 0I 4 π × 10 × 10−7 always experience a force (qE) whether or not it is in
B= = T = 4π × 10–4 T motion.
2r 2 × 0.5 × 10−2
272 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
GM FG IJ 71.
→ →
τ = NI (A × B)
→
In a gravitational field g =
R2 H K
, the charged parti-
→ → →
Since A || B , ∴ τ = 0.
cle of certain mass (m) will always experience a force
72. No enclosed current.
FG GMm IJ whether or not it is in motion.
H R K 2
73. γ-rays are uncharged.
→ → →
On the other hand, the charged paticle (q) will experi- 74. F = I ( l × B)
→ → →
ence a force (qvB) only when it is in motion (velocity Since l || B , ∴ F = 0.
of v) if it is placed in a magnetic field (B).
75. If Bev = eE, then the electron shall move undeflected.
55. The small resistance is called shunt resistance.
76. Since the work done by magnetic field is zero there-
→ → →
56. B || v ∴ Fm = 0 fore the kinetic energy remains constant.
57. When charge moves parallel to magnetic field, mag- 77. M = IA
netic force is zero. e
M = πr2
58. Fm = Bqv T
= 2 × 10–2 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 5 × 106 N ev
M= × πr2
= 1.6 × 10–14 N. 2πr
evr
M =
+ – 2
l
But l = mvr or r =
59. The two beams constitute mv
like currents. Like currents + – ev l
∴ M = ×
attract. 2 mv
e
+ – or M = l.
2m
78. q = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 C
Fig. 83 B = 0.5 T
µ 0 2I1I2 µ 2 × 1× 1 v = 5 × 106 m s–1
µ
61. F= = 0 = 0N Fm = Bqv
4π r 4π 1/2 π
63. The magnetic force shall become centripetal force. = 0.5 × 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 5 × 106 N
64. F = BIl = 8 × 10–13 N.
Now, 1Wb m–2 A m = 1Wb A m–1 = 1 N. 79. The orientations of the magnetic dipole and current
→ loop are perpendicular.
65. Upper face SOUTH. M from south to north.
2πm
68. Apply Right hand thumb rule. 82. T =
Bq
I2 1A T ∝ m
69. F ∝ A
r Since proton has larger mass therefore time period is
FG I IJ 2
1 more.
F′ ∝
H 3K ×
2r
10 A
9A S
83.
→ →
τ = I ( A × B)
→
F → → →
F′ ∝ . Fig. 84 Since A || B , ∴ τ = 0.
18
84. Consider an analogous situation. Assume that a posi-
RA 9 tive charge is travelling due west. Now, apply
70. = Fleming’s left hand rule.
S 1
86. Magnetic field cannot change the speed of the charged
particle.
+ In parallel combination, the currents 89. Magnetic fields are equal in magnitude and opposite
divide themselves in the inverse ratio in direction.
of resistances.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 273
90. For reducing the range of a voltmeter, we have to 100. 1.07 = µ0µr × 150
reduce the resistance in series with the galvanom- 1.07
eter. This cannot be achieved by connecting a resist- or µr =
µ0 × 150
ance in parallel with the voltmeter.
1.07 1.07 107
= = × .
+ The range of a voltmeter can only be 4 π × 10 −7
× 150 150 4π
increased. It cannot be decreased.
BV tan δ
103. tan δ′ = =
BH cos θ cos θ
91. M = IA
cos θ < 1, tan δ′ > tan δ
M
I= . δ′ > δ.
A
µ I 1 MB
92. B = 0 106. ν=
2πr 2π I
1 When pole strength is increased four times, M is also
B∝ .
r increased four times.
93. F = Bqv sin 30° Clearly, ν is doubled.
Bev 107. A short magnet is used because the magnetic field is
=.
2 uniform over only a small region.
94. Magnetic fields due to two sections cancel out.
112. The magnetic field in tan B position is half of the
2rH magnetic field in tan A position.
95. K =
µ0 N 115. In the given plane, BH = 0.
µ 0N 116. Magnetic screening.
=1 (given)
r 117. Horizontal oscillations due to BH.
K = 2H 118. In the given plane, B is effective. In a plane perpen-
K dicular to the given plane, only BV exists. Also, f ∝
or H=
2 B ; BV < B ; f ′ < f.
1 122. M = m × 2l
96. F ∝ 4 .
r M 5 1
or 2l = = M = m = 20 cm.
m 25 5
+ Force between two magnets is inversely
proportional to the fourth power of the + Note that l represents half-length of the
distance between them.
magnet and not the complete length.
97. The magnet is back to original position.
BV tan θ
128. tan θ′ = =
BH cos β cos β
+ An interesting fact. No work done, if
θ = 2nπ, where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...... I
147. T = 2π MBH
BV BV 1 At poles, BH = 0
98. tan δ = = =
BH 3 BV 3 T = ∞.
δ = 30°. 148. Here it is assumed that d is very large.
99. At the magnetic pole of earth, BH = 0. 149. If the temperature is decreased, the thermal vibra-
tions will be reduced. So, there would be no negative
+ In a compass needle, the magnetic nee- effect on magnetisation.
dle oscillates in the horizontal plane.
+ Note that an increase in temperature
promotes “disorder”.
274 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing into y
B
the plane of the paper as shown in Fig. 85. The loop will have a tendency to Ä
l A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω is converted to ammeter with a resistance of 0.1 Ω. The galvanometer shows
full scale deflection with a current of 100 µA. Then the minimum current in the circuit for full scale deflection of
galvanometer will be
(a) 100 mA (b) 10.01 mA
(c) 1.001 mA (d) 0.1001 mA. [IIT Screening 2005]
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. = + or = − = − = 10 – 0.01
Ra G S S R a G 0.1 100
1 100
or = 9.99 or S = Ω
S 999
GI g GI g
Now, S= or I – Ig =
I − Ig S
MCQ
based on
SET II
Important Basic Concepts
+
Application of Formulae
+
Brain Teasers
Average time allowed per question is 50 seconds.
spectively and having the 231. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular
A
same charge are moving loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance
in a plane. A uniform of 4 cm from the centre is 54 µT. What will be its value
magnetic field exists per-
B at the centre of the loop ?
pendicular to this plane. (a) 125 µT (b) 150 µT
The speeds of the particles (c) 250 µT (d) 75 µT [AIEEE 2004]
are vA and vB respectively 232. A proton, a deuteron and α-particle with the same K.E.
and the trajectories are as Fig. 89 enter a region of uniform magnetic field B moving at
shown in Fig. 89. Then right angles to the field. What is the ratio of the radii of
(a) mA vA < mB vB (b) mA vA > mB vB their circular paths ?
(c) mA < mB and vA < vB (d) mA = mB and vA = vB. (a) 1 : 2 :1 (b) 1 : 2 : 2
[IIT Screening 2001]
(c) 2 :1:1 (d) 2 : 2 : 1.
227. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a
233. A β-particle moving with a
spiral with inner and outer radii a and b respectively.
speed of 106 m s–1 enters into
When a current I passes through the coil, the magnetic
B = 0.2 T
a region of uniform magnetic
field at the centre is
field of 0.2 T. The force expe-
µ 0 NI 2µ 0NI rienced by the β-particle is
(a) (b) 30°
b a (a) 2.77 × 10–14 N
µ 0NI b µ 0I N b (b) 1.6 × 10–14 N
(c) ln (d) ln . Fig. 91
2(b − a) a 2(b − a) a (c) 5.54 × 10–14 N
[IIT Screening 2001] (d) 2.77 × 1014 N.
228. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. 234. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry
A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a deflection of one currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. They exert a
division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltme- force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is
ter having a range of 25 volt, it should be connected increased to two times and its direction is reversed.
with a resistance of The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of
(a) 245 Ω as a shunt (b) 2550 Ω in series the force between them is
(c) 2450 Ω in series (d) 2500 Ω as a shunt 2F F
(a) − (b)
[All India PM/PD 2004] 3 3
229. A uniform wire is bent in the B F
(c) – 2F (d) − [AIEEE 2004]
form of a circle of radius R. A C 3
current I enters at A and A
235. The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating in a
leaves at C as shown in magnetic field of 1 T is approximately
O
Fig. 90. If the length ABC is
(a) 28 MHz (b) 280 MHz
half of the length ADC, the
magnetic field at the centre O D (c) 2.8 GHz (d) 28 GHz [AIIMS 2004]
will be Fig. 90
278 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
236. A 100 turns coil shown in figure carries a current of 243. A magnetic field of 0.004 k tesla exerts a force of 4i + 3j
2 A in a magnetic field B of 0.2 Wbm– 2. The torque × 10–10 N on a particle having charge of 10–9 C and
acting on the coil is moving in x-y plane. The velocity of particle is
A B (a) (75 i + 100 j ) m s–1 (b) (75 i − 100 j ) m s–1
(c) (− 75 i + 100 j) m s–1 (d) (− 75 i − 100 j ) m s–1.
[MNR 1996]
10 cm
N S
244. A wider conductor strip of width l is bent into a slen-
der tubing of radius r with its two ends forming two
plane extensions. A current I flowing through it gives
D 8 cm C magnetic field in tubular portion given by
Fig. 92 µ 0I µ 0I
(a) (b)
2 πr 2l
(a) 0.32 Nm tending to rotate the side AD out of the page
(b) 0.32 Nm tending to rotate the side AD into the page µ 0I µ 0I
(c) (d) . [MNR 1998]
(c) 0.0032 Nm tending to rotate the side AD out of the page πl l
(d) 0.0032 Nm tending to rotate the side AD into the page. 245. At a distance of 10 cm from a long straight wire carry-
[MP PET 1997] ing current, the magnetic field is 0.04 T. At the dis-
237. A square conducting loop of length L on a side carries tance of 40 cm, the magnetic field will be
a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop (a) 0.01 T (b) 0.02 T
is (c) 0.08 T (d) 0.16 T. [MP PMT 1997]
(a) independent of L
246. A wire of length L is shaped into a circle and then bent
(b) proportional to L2
in such a way that the two semi-circles are perpendicu-
(c) inversely proportional to L
lar. What is the magnetic moment of the system when
(d) linearly proportional to L. [MNR 1995]
current I flows through the system ?
238. A beam of protons with a velocity of 4 × 105 m s–1 en-
ters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T at an angle of 2 L2 I 3 L2 I
(a) (b)
60° to the magnetic field. The radius of the helical path 8π 4π
taken by the proton beam is nearly
(a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm L2 I L2 I
(c) (d) . [MNR 2000]
4π 2π
(c) 8 mm (d) 12 mm.
239. In the previous question, the period of revolution is 247. A loop of flexible conducting wire of length l lies in
magnetic field of B normal to plane of loop. A current I
(a) 2.185 × 10 –8 s (b) 21.85 × 10 –8 s
is passed through loop. The tension developed in wire
(c) 21 s (d) 21 m s.
to open up is
240. In Q. 238, the pitch of the helix is π BIl
(a) 4 mm (b) 40 mm (a) BIl (b)
2 2
(c) 43.7 mm (d) 100 mm. BIl
(c) (d) BIl. [Pb. PMT 2000]
241. The magnetic field at two points on the axis of a circu- 2π
lar coil at distances of 0.05 m and 0.2 m from the cen- 248. A wire is bent into three
tre are in the ratio 8 : 1. The radius of the coil is successive quadrants.
(a) 0.1 m (b) 1.0 m The quadrant ab lies in
the xy plane, bc in yz
(c) 0.2 m (d) 0.15 m.
plane and ca in the zx
[Karnataka CET 2001] plane. What is the mag-
242. A milliammeter of range 10 mA has a coil of resistance netic moment of this sys-
1 Ω. To use it as a voltmeter of range 10 V, the resist- tem if a current I flows
ance that must be connected in series with it is through it ? Given : r =
(a) 9 Ω (b) 99 Ω radius of each quadrant.
(c) 999 Ω (d) 1000 Ω. Fig. 93
(d) 5 × 10 –5 N m–1 to the right 272. A beam of ions with velocity 2 × 105 m s–1 enters nor-
(e) 5 × 10 –5 N m–1 to the left. mally into a uniform magnetic field of 4 × 10–2 T. If the
[Northern Ireland Schools specific charge of the ions is 5 × 107 C kg–1, the radius
Examination Council] of the circular path described will be
269. The magnetic lg (B/µT) (a) 0.10 m (b) 0.16 m
field intensity B
(c) 0.20 m (d) 0.25 m. [JIPMER 1998]
along the axis of a 2.0
small bar magnet 1.7 273. A proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic
was measured at 1.4 field perpendicularly with the same speed. If proton
various distance x 1.1 takes 25 µs to make 5 revolutions, then the periodic
from the magnet time for the α-particle would be
1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 lg (x/m)
along the axis. (a) 50 µ s (b) 25 µ s
The results gave Fig. 101
the graph shown in Fig. 101. (c) 10 µ s (d) 5 µ s. [MP PET 1993]
It can be deduced from the graph that B is proportional 274. A certain device used the Hall effect in a semiconduc-
to tor to measure magnetic fields. A particular increase
in temperature results in an increase of 2% in the
(a) x–3 (b) x–2
number of charge carriers in the semiconductor. The
(c) e –3x
(d) e2x
sensitivity of the device
(e) x2. [AIIMS 2000] (a) increases by 4% (b) increases by 2%
270. Two solenoids P and Q rns (c) is unchanged (d) decreases by 2%
0 tu
of equal length but dif- 3 0
(e) decreases by 4%. [AIIMS 1995]
ferent numbers of Q
turns, are arranged s 275. A proton and a deuteron both having the same kinetic
turn ×
coaxially as shown in 20 0 energy, enter perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic
Fig. 102. P has 200 P field B. For motion of proton and deutron on circular
turns and Q has 300 path of radius Rp and Rd respectively, the correct state-
turns. ment is
There is a current of (a) Rd = 2 Rp (b) Rd = R p / 2
Fig. 102
1 A in Q. What must be (c) Rd = Rp (d) Rd = 2Rp.
the current in P in order that there is no resultant field [MP PET 1995]
at X midway between the coils ?
276. The diagram shows A
2 3
(a) A (b) A three long straight
3 4 wires P, Q and R nor-
4 mal to the plane of the B
(c) 1 A (d) A P Q
3 paper. Wires P and R
3 carry currents directed
(e) A. [Cambridge Local Examinations
2 into the plane of the
Syndicate] C
paper, and wire Q car- E
271. Two moving-coil galvanometers X and Y are connected ries a current directed D
in series and a current passes through. Their readings out of the paper. All R
are found to be full scale for X and half scale for Y. three currents have the Fig. 103
Given that their scales are identical and their restor- same magnitude.
ing springs of the same strength, but that X’s coil is Which arrow best shows the direction of the resultant
twice as large in area and has twice the number of turns force on wire P ?
compared with Y’s coil, the magnetic field strength of (a) A (b) B
X’s magnet compared with Y’s magnet is (c) C (d) D
1 1
(a) 4 (b) 2
(e) E. [All India PM/PD 1999]
(c) 1 (d) 2 277. The radius of the earth is 6.4 × 106 m and its magnetic
(e) 4.
moment is 6.4 × 10 21 A m2. If it is assumed that this
moment is due to a current carrying loop suspended
[London Schools Examination Department] along the magnetic equatorial line, then the value of
the current will be nearly
282 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
290. An electron (mass = 9 × 10 –31 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10 –19 297. A beam consisting of protons and electrons moving at
C) moving with a velocity of 106 m s–1 enters a region the same speed goes through a thin region in which
where magnetic field exists. If it describes a circle of there is a magnetic field perpendicular to the beam.
radius 0.10 m, the magnetic field must be The protons and the electrons
(a) 1.8 × 10 –4 T (b) 5.6 × 10 –5 T (a) will go undeviated.
(c) 14.4 × 10 –5 T (d) 1.3 × 10 –6 T. (b) will be deviated by the same angle and will not separate.
[BPMT 1992] (c) will be deviated by different angles and hence separate.
291. The coil of a galvanometer consists of 100 turns and (d) will be deviated by the same angle but will separate.
effective area of 1 cm2. The restoring couple is 10 –8 N [Himachal PMT 1999]
m rad –1. The magnetic field between the pole pieces is 298. Fig. 105 shows two
5 T. The current sensitivity of this galvanometer will long conducting wires
be placed at right angles.
(a) 5 × 104 rad/µ A (b) 5 × 10–6 per A They carry currents as
(c) 2 × 10–7 per A (d) 5 rad/µ A. indicated. Assume IA
[MP PMT 1997] that 1 ampere current
292. A charge q coulomb moves in a circle at n revolutions in a long wire pro- d
per second and the radius of the circle is r metre. Then duces magnetic field
magnetic field at the centre of the circle is B′ at a distance d from X d
2πq 2πq the wire. The strength 2A
(a) × 10 –7 N A–1 m–1 (b) × 10 –7 N A–1 m–1 and direction of field
nr r
2πnq 2πq at a point X marked in
(c) × 10 –7 N A–1 m–1 (d) N A–1 m–1. Fig. 105 will be Fig. 105
r r
293. A charged particle of mass m and charge q describes (a) 3B′ into the plane of paper
circular orbit of radius r in a uniform magnetic field of (b) B′ into the plane of paper
strength B. The frequency of revolution is (c) B′ out of the plane of paper
Bq Bq (d) 3B′ out of the plane of paper.
(a) (b)
2πm 2πrm [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996]
2πm Bm 299. If 10% of the current passes through a moving coil gal-
(c) (d)
2πq
. [MP PET 1997]
Bq vanometer of resistance 99 Ω, then the shunt resist-
294. The resistance of 1 A ammeter is 0.018 Ω. To convert it ance will be
into 10 A ammeter, the shunt resistance required will (a) 9.9 Ω (b) 11 Ω
be (c) 10 Ω (d) 9 Ω.
(a) 0.18 Ω (b) 0.0018 Ω [MP PET 1999 ; Karnataka CET 2003]
(c) 0.002 Ω (d) 0.12 Ω. [MP PET 1992] 300. A long solenoid has 800 turns per metre length of sole-
295. A galvanometer of resistance 25 Ω gives full scale de- noid. A current of 1.6 A flows through it. The magnetic
flection for a current of 10 mA. It is to be changed into induction at the end of the solenoid on its axis is
a voltmeter of range 100 V by connecting a resistance (a) 16 × 10 –4 T (b) 8 × 10 –4 T
of ‘R’ in series with galvanometer. The value of resist- (c) 32 × 10 T
–4
(d) 4 × 10 –4 T.
ance R is
[MP PET 1999]
(a) 10000 Ω (b) 10025 Ω
301. In hydrogen atom, the electron is making 6.6 × 1015
(c) 975 Ω (d) 9975 Ω. [Manipal 2002] rev s–1 around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.528
296. Two straight parallel wires, both carrying 10 ampere Å. The magnetic moment (in A m2) will be
in the same direction, attract each other with a force of (a) 1 × 10 –15 (b) 1 × 10 –10
1 × 10 –3 N. If both currents are doubled, the force of
(c) 1 × 10 –23 (d) 1 × 10 –27. [MP PET 1999]
attraction will be
302. Two thin parallel wires separated by a distance b are
(a) 1 × 10 –3 N (b) 2 × 10 –3 N
carrying current I ampere each. The magnitude of the
(c) 4 × 10 –3 N (d) 0.25 × 10 –3 N.
force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
[MP PET 1994]
284 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
I
µ 0I2 µ 0 I2
(a) (b)
b2 2πb I I
µ 0I µ 0I
(c) (d) . [IIT 1986]
2 πb 2 πb2
303. A length of wire carries a steady current. It is bent first 90°
314. In the above question, with what resistance the galva- 321. An ammeter of 5 ohm resistance can read 5 mA. If it is
nometer should be shunted so as to convert it into an to be used to read 100 volt, how much resistance is to
ammeter that can measure currents up to 2.5 A ? be connected in series ?
(a) 4 × 10 –1 Ω (b) 4 × 10 –2 Ω (a) 19.9995 Ω (b) 199.995 Ω
(c) 4 × 10 Ω–3
(d) 4 × 10 Ω.
–4
(c) 1999.95 Ω (d) 19995 Ω.
315. A galvanometer gives a full-scale deflection when a cur- [MP PMT 2000, 1996 ; MP PET 1991]
rent of 2 mA flows through it and the potential differ- 322. The radius of curvature of the path of the charged par-
ence across its terminals is 4 mV. Which of the follow- ticle in a uniform magnetic field is directly proportional
ing resistors would be most suitable to convert it to give to
a full-scale deflection for a current of 1 A ?
(a) the charge on the particle
(a) 0.004 Ω on series (b) 0.004 Ω in parallel
(b) the momentum of the particle
(c) 0.50 Ω in series (d) 500 Ω in series
(e) 500 Ω in parallel. (c) the energy of the particle
[London Schools Examination Department] (d) the intensity of the field. [MNR 1995]
316. In Fig. 109, there are two semicircles of radii r1 and r2 323. A proton (mass = m and charge = e) of energy 2 MeV is
in which a current I is flowing. The magnetic induc- moving in a circular path in a magnetic field. What
tion at the centre O will be should be the energy of deuteron (mass = 2m and charge
µ 0I = +e), so that it describes the circular path of same ra-
(a) (r1 + r2 )
r r1 dius in the same magnetic field ?
µ 0I (a) 1 MeV (b) 2 MeV
(b) (r1 − r2 )
4 (c) 4.0 MeV (d) 0.5 MeV.
F I
µ 0I r1 + r2 O
(c) GH
4 JK
r1r2
I r2 324. A current I is flowing a loop of
radius r as shown in Fig. 110.
µ I Fr −r I
q
The magnetic induction inten-
(d) 0 G 2 1 J . Fig. 109
4 H r1r2 K sity at the centre O will be
317. An electron moves in a circular arc of radius 10 m at a µ oIθ 2µ oI sin θ
(a) (b) O
constant speed of 2 × 107 m s–1 with its plane of motion 4 πr 4πr 2 r
normal to a magnetic flux density of 10 –5 T. The specific (c)
2µ oI sin θ
(d)
µ oI sin θ
.
charge of the electron is 2r 4r Fig. 110
(a) 2 × 10 C kg
2 –1
(b) 2 × 10 C kg
5 –1 325. Two concentric circular coils of ten turns each are situ-
(c) 5 × 106 C kg –1 (d) 2 × 1011 C kg –1. ated in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm and 40
cm and they carry respectively 0.2 A and 0.3 A current
[Haryana PMT 1997]
in opposite direction. The magnetic field in Wb m–2 at
318. A proton, a deuteron and an α-particle accelerated the centre is
through the same potential difference enter a region of
µ0 5
uniform magnetic field, moving at right angles to B. (a) (b) µ0
80 4
What is the ratio of their K.E. ?
(a) 2 : 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 2 : 1 7 35
(c) µ0 (d) µ 0 . [MP PMT 1994]
4 4
(c) 1 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 2.
319. In the above problem, if the radius of the proton’s cir- 326. An electron and a proton enter region of uniform mag-
cular path is 10 cm, what is the radius of deuteron’s netic field in a direction at right angles to the field with
path ? the same kinetic energy. They describe circular paths
of radii re and rp respectively. Then
(a) 10 cm (b) 10 2 cm
(a) re = rp (b) re < rp
(c) 10 / 2 cm (d) 20 cm.
(c) re > rp
320. In Q. 318, what is the radius of the path of the α-parti-
(d) r e may be less than or greater than rp depending on the
cle ? direction of the magnetic field.
(a) 10 cm (b) 10 2 cm [Manipal MEE 1995]
(c) 10 / 2 cm (d) 20 cm.
286 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(d) 2.6 × 10–4 N to the left. [MP PET 1997] (a) zero (b) µ0I/4πa
332. Two very thin metallic wires placed along X and Y- (c) µ0I/2πa (d) µ0I/ 2 2 πa.
axis carry equal currents as shown in Fig. 112. AB and [JIPMER 1999]
CD are lines at 45° with the axes with origin of axes at 336. The dimension of the magnetic field intensity B is
O. The magnetic field will be zero on the line (a) MLT –2 A–1 (b) MT –2 A–1
(c) ML2TA–2 (d) M2LT –2A–1.
[MP PET 2001]
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 287
337. A wire is bent in the form of a I 342. A long wire A carries a current of 10 A. Another long
circular arc with a straight wire B, which is parallel to A and separated by 0.1 m
portion AB. Magnetic induc- from A, carries a current of 5 A in the opposite direc-
tion at O when current I is O tion to that in A. What is the magnitude and nature of
flowing in the wire, is the force experienced per unit length of B ?
r q q r
µ 0I (a) Repulsive force of 10–4 N m–1
(a) (π – θ + tan θ)
2r (b) Attractive force of 10–4 N m–1
A C B
µ I (c) Repulsive force of 2π × 10–5 N m–1
(b) 0 (π + θ – tan θ) Fig. 114
2 πr (d) Attractive force of 2π × 10–5 N m–1. [MP PET 2000]
µ I µ I
(c) 0 (π – θ + tan θ) (d) 0 (– tan θ + π – θ). 343. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of
2 πr 2r
radius r carrying current I is B1. The field at the centre
338. Due to 10 ampere of current flowing in a circular coil
of another coil of radius 2r carrying same current I is
of 10 cm radius, the magnetic field produced at its cen-
tre is 3.14 × 10 –3 T. The number of turns in the coil will B1
B2. The ratio is
be B2
(a) 5000 (b) 100 1
(a) (b) 1
(c) 50 (d) 25. [MP PET 1996] 2
339. The magnetic field at O due to current in the infinite (c) 2 (d) 4. [MP PET 2001]
wire forming a loop as shown in Fig. 115 is 344. An arbitary shaped closed coil is made of a wire of
length L and a current I ampere is flowing in it. If the
I →
φ1 φ2 plane of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic field B ,
the force on the coil is
θ1 θ2 d
(a) Zero (b) IBL
I I
1
O (c) 2 IBL (d) IBL. [MP PMT 2001]
2
Fig. 115 345. A current I flows in a circular coil of radius r. If the
µ 0I µ 0 2I coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field B with its
(a) (cos φ1 + cos φ2) (b) (tan θ1 + tan θ2) plane parallel to the field, magnitude of the torque that
4 πd 4π d
acts on the coil is
µ0 I µ0 I
(c) (sin φ1 + sin φ2) (d) (cos θ1 + sin θ2). (a) Zero (b) 2πrIB
4π d 4π d
(c) πr2IB (d) 2πr2IB. [MP PET 2001]
340. Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are per-
pendicular to each other and carry currents i1 and i2. 346. A current of 5 A is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 m. A
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P force of 7.5 N acts on it when it is placed in a uniform
magnetic field of 2 T. The angle between the magnetic
at a distance d from the point O in a direction perpen-
field and the direction of the current is
dicular to the plane ABCD is
(a) 30° (b) 45°
µ0 µ0
(a) (i1 + i2 ) (b) (i1 − i2 ) (c) 60° (d) 90°. [MP PET 1997]
2 πd 4 πd
µ0 µ0 Fi1i2 I 347. A proton moves from left to right with a velocity v in
(c)
2 πd
(i12 + i22 )1/2 (d) GH
2πd i1 + i2
. JK horizontal direction. The proton enters a region of space
where electric field E is vertically downwards. What
[AIIMS 1996] should be the direction and magnitude of magnetic field
341. Two infinite, thin, straight wires 1 2 B so that the proton moves undeflected ?
1 m apart carry currents as (a) Horizontal B ⊥ to v and v = E/B
shown in Fig. 116. The distance (b) Horizontal B ⊥ to v and any magnitude
of a point from wire 1, in between (c) E, v and B should be mutually perpendicular
the two wires ; where the net mag- I 4I
(d) B of magnitude E/v and parallel to v. [AFMC 1997]
netic field is zero, is 1m
(a) 0.25 m 348. Two wire loops PQRSP formed by joining two semicir-
(b) 0.2 m
cular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current I as
shown in Fig. 117. The magnitude of magnetic induc-
(c) 0.33 m
Fig. 116 tion at centre C is
(d) 0.5 m.
288 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) (µ /4) I M
L R 1 − 1 OP µ0FG IJ LM
1 1 OP (c) 0.1 T (d) 1.6 T.
0
N R 2 R1 Q (b)
4 H K N
I −
R1 R2 Q 355. A current of 1 A is passed through a straight wire of
L 1 − 1 OP
(c) µ 0 I M (d) µ0I (1/R1).
length 2.0 m. The magnetic field at a point in air at a
N R 2 R1 Q distance of 3 m from either end of wire and lying on the
axis of wire will be
[IIT 1983 ; Karnataka CET 2002]
(a) zero (b) µ0/8π
349. A straight wire of length 0.5 m and carrying a current
(c) µ0/4π (d) µ0/2π.
of 1.2 A placed in a uniform magnetic field of induc-
tion 2 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the 356. A proton and an alpha particle enter a uniform mag-
length of the wire. The force on the wire is netic field normally with the same velocity. The period
(a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N of revolution of the α-particle will be
(a) two times that of proton
(c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N. [BHU 1998]
(b) three times that of proton
350. A current of 2 A flows in a long, straight wire of radius
(c) four times that of proton
2 mm. The intensity of magnetic field at the axis of the
wire is (d) same as that of proton.
FG µ0 IJ × 10 tesla FG µ0 IJ × 10 357. Magnetic field induction at the centre of coil of 50 turns,
(a) H πK 3
(b) H 2π K 3
tesla radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of 2 A is
F 2µ0 IJ × 10 tesla
(c) GH
(a) 0.5 × 10 –5 T (b) 1.25 × 10 –4 T
π K
3
(d) Zero. [MP PET 2001] (c) 3 × 10 T–5
(d) 4 × 10 –5 T.
351. A charged particle of mass m [All India PM/PD 1999]
P Q
having kinetic energy K enters 358. A power line lies along the east-west direction and car-
into the region of a uniform ries a current of 10 A. The force per metre due to the
magnetic field between two earth’s magnetic field of 10 –4 T is
plates P and Q as shown in (a) 10 –5 N (b) 10 –4 N
Fig. 118. The charged particle q
(c) 10 –3 N (d) 10 –2 N. [Roorkee 1992]
just misses hitting the plate Q.
359. A voltmeter having resistance of 50 × 103 Ω is used to
The magnetic field in the region
measure the voltage in a circuit. To increase the range
between the two plates is
d of measurement 3 times, the additional series resistance
(a) mK/qd
Fig. 118 required is
(b) 2mK/qd (a) 105 Ω (b) 150 K Ω
(c) mK / qd (d) 2m K /qd . (c) 900 K Ω (d) 9 × 106 Ω.
352. A circular coil ‘A’ has a radius R and the current flow- [MP PMT 2001]
ing through it is I. Another circular coil ‘B’ has a ra- 360. In a circuit 5 percent of total current passes through a
dius 2R and if 2I is the current flowing through it, then galvanometer. If resistance of the galvanometer is G,
the magnetic fields at the centre of the circular coils then value of the shunt is
are in the ratio of (i.e. BA to BB) (a) 19 G (b) 20 G
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 G G
(c) (d) . [MP PMT 2001]
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 1. 20 19
361. A proton moving with a speed of 107 m s–1 enters the
[All India PM/PD 1993]
region of a uniform, perpendicular magnetic field of
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 289
0.4 T. The radius of the circular path described by pro- 366. A wire carrying Z
ton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10 –27 kg) a current of I A
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.25 mm has the shape
(c) 4 mm (d) 4.25 mm. shown in Fig. C
120. The radius
[CMC Vellore 1998] R
R of the curved
362. A galvanometer has a resistance of 25 ohm and a maxi- part of the wire
D
B O
mum of 0.01 A current can be passed through it. In is 100 mm. The
Y
363. A proton of energy 200 MeV enters the magnetic part AB of the X
Fig. 120
field of 5 T. If direction of field is from south to north wire is
and motion is upward, the force acting on it will be µ 0I µ 0I
(a) (b)
(a) zero (b) 1.6 × 10–10 N 2 πR πR
(c) 3.2 × 10–8 N (d) 1.6 × 10–6 N. µ 0I µ 0I
(c) (d) .
[Rajasthan PET 1997] 4 πR 4R
364. Magnetic field due to 0.1 A current flowing through a 367. The magnetic field induction at O due to wire DE in
circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 1000 turns at the cen- Q. 366 is
tre of the coil is
µ 0I µ 0I
(a) 2 × 10–1 T (b) 4.31 × 10–2 T (a) (b)
2 πR 4 πR
(c) 6.28 × 10–4 T (d) 9.81 × 10–4 T.
µ 0I µ 0I
365. A long hollow metallic cylinder of radius R has a cur- (c) (d) .
πR 4R
rent I ampere flowing throught it. The magnetic field
induction at a distance r from the axis varies as shown 368. Magnetic field induction at O due to semi-circular por-
in tion of wire in Q. 366 is
(a) i (b) ii µ 0I µ 0I
(a) (b)
(c) iii (d) iv. 2 πR 4 πR
µ 0I µ 0I
(c) (d) .
πR 4R
369. In Q. 366, the total magnetic induction at O is
µ 0I
(a) µ0I (b)
B B 4 πR
µ 0I µ 0I
(c) ×4 (d) 4 + π2 .
4 πR 4 πR
r r
R R 370. A particle with 10–11 C of charge and 10 –7 kg mass is
(i) (ii) moving with a velocity of 108 m s–1 along the y-axis. A
uniform static magnetic field B = 0.5 T is acting along
the x-direction. The force on the particle is
(a) 5 × 10 –11 N along i (b) 5 × 103 N along k
B B
(c) 5 × 10 –11 N along – j (d) 5 × 10 –4 N along – k .
[MP PMT 1997]
371. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They
R r R r
carry steady equal currents flowing out of the plane of
(iii) (iv) the paper as shown in Fig. 121. The variation of mag-
netic field B along the line XX′ is given by
Fig. 119
290 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
393. The B-H curves (a) and (b) 399. When a bar magnet is placed at 90° to a uniform mag-
shown in the Fig. 125 are as- B a netic field, it is acted upon by a couple which is maxi-
sociated with mum. For the couple to be half of the maximum value,
(a) a diamagnetic and a paramag- b the magnet should be inclined to the magnetic field at
netic substance respectively H an angle of
(b) a paramagnetic and a
(a) 45° (b) 30°
ferromagnetic substance re-
spectively (c) 15° (d) 0°.
(c) soft iron and steel respectively 400. A magnetised wire of magnetic moment M and length l
(d) steel and soft iron respec- Fig. 125
is bent in the form of a semi-circle of radius r. Now, the
tively. new magnetic moment is
394. At a certain place, the angle of dip is 50° and the hori- 2M
zontal component of earth’s field is 0.15 T. A beam of (a) M (b)
π
protons is moving vertically upwards with a speed M π
of 3 × 105 m s–1. The force on a proton is [cos 50° = 0.6, (c) (d) .
π M
sin 50° = 0.8]
401. Two bar magnets A and B of the same mass, size and
(a) 4.93 × 10–15 N (b) 5.88 × 10–15 N
shape when suspended one after the other in the stir-
(c) 8.60 × 10–15 N (d) 7.2 × 10–15 N. rup of a vibration magnetometer make 10 vibrations
395. To keep a small magnetic needle perpendicular to mag- and 12 vibrations in one minute respectively. The ratio
netic field at two places A and B, the couples required of their magnetic moments is
are τa and τb respectively. The ratio of magnetic fields (a) 36 : 25 (b) 5 : 6
at two places is
(c) 25 : 36 (d) 6 : 5.
τa τb
(a) (b) 402. A very small magnet is placed in the magnetic merid-
τb τa
ian with its S-pole pointing north. The null point is
1
(c) τb τa (d) . obtained at a distance of 20 cm from the centre of mag-
τb τ a
net. If the earth’s magnetic field at this point is
396. Two magnetic north poles, N 0.3 gauss, the magnetic moment of magnet is
each of m ampere metre, are
(a) 8.0 × 102 emu (b) 2.4 × 103 emu
placed at the two vertices of an
equilateral triangle of side a. a a (c) 1.2 × 10 emu3
(d) 8 × 103 emu.
The resultant magnetic induc- 403. A magnet of magnetic moment 50 i A m2 is placed
tion at the third vertex is →
along the x-axis in a magnetic field B = (0.5 i + 3.0 j )
µ0 m µ0 2m N a
(a) (b) T. The torque acting on the magnet is
4 π a2 4π a 2
Fig. 126 (a) 175 k N m (b) 150 k N m
µ 3m µ 4m
(c) 0 (d) 0 2 . (c) 75 i N m (d) 25 37 k N m.
4π a2 4π a
397. In the previous question,if one N pole is replaced by S [MP PMT 2000]
pole, then the resultant magnetic induction at the third 404. A bar magnet used in a vibration magnetometer is
vertex is heated so as to reduce its magnetic moment by 19%.
The periodic time of the magnetometer will
µ0 m µ0 2m (a) increase by 19% (b) decrease by 19%
(a) (b)
4 π a2 4π a2
(c) increase by 11% (d) decrease by 11%.
µ0 3m µ 4m [MP PMT 2001]
(c) (d) 0 2 .
4π a2 4π a 405. The earth’s magnetic field at a certain place has a hori-
398. Two north poles of pole strengths 0.4 A m and 6.4 A m zontal component 0.3 gauss and the total strength
are separated by 10 cm. The distance of the neutral 0.5 gauss. The angle of dip is
point from 0.4 A m is 3 3
(a) tan–1 (b) sin–1
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm 4 4
4 3
(c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm. [AMU 1997] (c) tan–1 (d) sin–1 . [MP PMT 1995]
3 5
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 293
406. A tangent galvanometer has a coil with 50 turns and 413. A current of 3 A is flowing in a plane circular coil of
radius equal to 4 cm. A current of 0.1 A is passing radius 4 cm and having 20 turns. The coil is placed in
through it. The plane of the coil is set parallel to the a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Wb m–2. Then, the di-
earth’s magnetic meridian. If the value of the earth’s pole moment of the coil is
horizontal component of the magnetic field is 7 × 10 –5 (a) 3000 A m2 (b) 0.3 A m2
tesla and µ0 = 4π × 10 –7 WbA–1m–1, then the deflection (c) 75 A m 2
(d) 300 A m2.
in the galvanometer needle will be
[MP PMT 2001]
(a) 45° (b) 48.3°
414. In the previous question, the P.E of the magnetic di-
(c) 50.7° (d) 52.7°. [MP PMT 1993] pole in the position of stable equilibrium is
407. A magnet of magnetic moment 20 cgs units is freely (a) – 1500 J (b) – 0.15 J
suspended in a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 cgs units. (c) + 0.15 J (d) + 1500 J.
The amount of work done in deflecting it by an angle of
415. In Q. 413, to hold the current-carrying coil with nor-
30° in cgs units is
mal to its plane making an angle of 90° with the direc-
(a) 6 (b) 3 3 tion of magnetic induction, the necessary torque is
(c) 3 (2 – 3) (d) 3. [MP PET 1991] (a) 1500 N m (b) 0.15 N m
408. At a place, the horizontal component and the total (c) 15 N m (d) 150 N m.
magnetic induction due to earth are 3 × 10 –5 weber per 416. A magnet is suspended in such a way that it oscillates
metre 2 and 6 × 10 –5 weber per metre2. Then the angle in the horizontal plane. It makes 20 oscillations per
of dip is minute at a place where dip angle is 30° and 15 oscil-
(a) 0° (b) 30° lations per minute at a place where dip angle is 60°.
(c) 45° (d) 60°. The ratio of earth’s magnetic field at two places is
409. In Q. 408, the vertical component of the earth’s mag- (a) 3 3 : 8 (b) 16 : 9 3
netic induction at that place, is
(c) 4 : 9 (d) 2 2 : 3.[MP PMT 1991]
(a) 3 × 10 –5 T (b) 27 × 10 –5 T
417. The angle of dip at a place is 40.6° and the vertical
(c) 6 × 10 –5 T (d) 9 × 10 –5 T.
component of the earth’s magnetic field is 6 × 10 –5 tesla.
410. A coil of 100 turns and area 2 × 10 –2 m2 is pivoted The earth’s magnetic field at this place is [Take sin
about a vertical diameter in a uniform magnetic field 40.6° = 0.6]
and carries a current of 5 A. When the coil is held with
(a) 7 × 10 –5 tesla (b) 6 × 10 –5 tesla
its plane in north-south direction, it experiences a cou-
(c) 5 × 10 –5 tesla (d) 10 –4 tesla.
ple of 0.3 N m. When the plane is east-west, the corre-
sponding couple is 0.4 N m. The value of magnetic in- 418. Fig. 127 shows a short magnet
duction is [Neglect earth’s magnetic field] executing small oscillations in
(a) 0.2 T (b) 0.3 T a vibration magnetometer in
18A
(c) 0.4 T (d) 0.05 T. earth’s magnetic field having
horizontal component 24 µ T.
411. The value of horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
The period of oscillation is 0.1
field at a place is 0.35 × 10 –4 T. If the angle of dip is K
s. When the key K is closed, an
60°, the value of vertical component of earth’s magnetic 0.2 m
upward current of 18 A is es-
field is nearly
tablished as shown. The new
(a) 0.10 × 10 –4 T (b) 0.2 × 10 –4 T Fig. 127
time period is
(c) 0.40 × 10 T
–4
(d) 0.61 × 10 –4 T.
(a) 0.1 s (b) 0.2 s
412. The flux through a certain toroid changes from 0.65 m (c) 0.3 s (d) 0.4 s.
Wb to 0.91 m Wb when the air core is replaced by an-
419. A magnet of magnetic moment M oscillating freely in
other material. The relative permeability and perme-
earth’s horizontal magnetic field makes n oscillations
ability of material are respectively
per minute. If the magnetic moment is quadrupled and
(a) 1.40, 5.6π × 10 –7 H m–1 (b) 1.4, 0
the earth’s field is doubled, the number of oscillations
(c) 0, 1.4 (d) 4π × 10 –7 H m–1. made per minute would be
294 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
446. A short magnet of moment 6.75 A m2 produces a neu- from its centre on opposite sides. The ratio of the mag-
tral point on its axis. If the horizontal component of netic fields at A and B will be approximately equal to
earth’s magnetic field is 5 × 10 –5 Wb m–2, then the dis- (a) 1 : 9 (b) 2 : 9
tance of the neutral point should be (c) 27 : 1 (d) 9 : 1. [CPMT 1989]
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm 454. The workdone in turning a magnet of magnetic mo-
(c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm. [AIIMS 1998] ment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian is n times
447. Two small magnets, each of magnetic moment 10 A m2, the corresponding workdone to turn it through an an-
are placed end-on position 0.1 m apart from their cen- gle of 60°. The value of n is given by
tres. The force acting between them is (a) 2 (b) 1
(a) 0.6 × 107 N (b) 0.06 × 107 N (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4. [AMU 1999]
(c) 0.6 N (d) 0.06 N. [AMU 1998] 455. When two tangent galvanometers of the same coil ra-
448. The period of oscillation of a bar magnet in a vibration dii are connected in series, a flow of current in them
magnetometer is 2 second. The time period of oscilla- produces deflections of 60° and 45°. The ratio of the
tion of a bar magnet whose magnetic moment is four number of their turns will be
times that of the first magnet is 4 3
(a) (b)
(a) 1 second (b) 4 second 3 1
(c) 2 second (d) 1/2 second. [CPMT 1997] 3+1 3+1
(c) (d) . [MP PMT 1999]
449. The magnetic field on the axis of a short bar magnet is 1 3−1
1 tesla at a point at a distance of 10 cm from its centre. 456. A short magnetic needle is pivoted in a uniform mag-
What will be the field at a point on its axis at a dis- netic field of strength 1 T. When another magnetic field
tance of 20 cm from its centre ? of strength 3 T is applied to the needle in a perpen-
(a) 0.5 T (b) 2 T dicular direction, the needle deflects through an angle
(c) 0.25 T (d) 0.125 T. [Pb. CET 1998] θ, where θ is
(a) 45° (b) 90°
450. The time period of oscillation of a bar magnet sus-
pended horizontally along the magnetic meridian is T0 . (c) 60° (d) 30°.
If this magnet is replaced by another magnet of the [Karnataka CET 1999]
same size and pole strength, but with double the mass, 457. At a certain place, the horizontal component B0 and
the new time period will be the vertical component V0 of the earth’s magnetic field
are equal in magnitude. The total intensity at the place
(a) T0/2 (b) T0/ 2
will be
(c) 2 T0 (d) 2T0. [DPMT 1997] (a) B0 (b) B02
451. A thin magnetic needle vibrates in the horizontal plane (c) 2B0 (d) 2 B0. [MP PMT 1999]
with a period of 4 second. The needle is cut into two 458. A compass needle placed at a distance r from a short
halves by a plane normal to magnetic axis of the nee- magnet in tan A position shows a deflection of 60°. If
dle. Then the period of vibration of each half needle is the distance is increased to r(3)1/3 then the deflection
approximately of the compass needle, is
(a) 4 second (b) 2 second (a) 30° (b) 60 × 31/3
(c) 8 second (d) 1 second. (c) 60 × 3 2/3
(d) 60 × 33/3.
[MP PMT 1997, 1999] [Himachal PMT 2001]
452. If the ratio of earth’s magnetic field is 2 : 3, then the 459. A magnet of moment 4.0 A m2 is held in a uniform
ratio of time periods of a magnet will be magnetic field 5.0 × 10 –4 T with the magnetic moment
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 9 : 4 vector making an angle of 30° with the field. The work
done in increasing the angle from 30° to 45° is nearly
(c) 4 : 9 (d) 3: 2.
(a) 3.18 × 10 –4 J (b) 4.3 × 10 –4 J
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1999] (c) 7.3 × 10 –4 J (d) zero.
453. Points A and B are situated perpendicular to the axis [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
of a 2 cm long bar magnet at large distances x and 3x
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 297
460. If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30° to the mag- their centres 40 cm east and 50 cm west of magnetic
netic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle of 60° needle. If the needle remains undeflected, the ratio of
with the horizontal. The true value of dip is their magnetic moments M1 : M2 is
FG 2 IJ FG 3 IJ (a) 4 : 5 (b) 16 : 25
(a) tan–1
H 3K (b) tan–1
H 2K (c) 64 : 125 (d) 2 : 5 . [MP PET 1990]
(c) tan–1 (3) (d) tan–1 (2). 467. Three identical bar magnets, N S
[Himachal PMT 2002] each of magnetic moment M, are
461. The time period of a vibration magnetometer is T0 . Its placed in the form of an equilat-
magnet is replaced by another magnet whose moment eral triangle with north pole of
one touching the south pole of the
of inertia is 3 times and magnetic moment is 1/3 of the S N
other (Fig. 129). The net manetic
initial magnet. The time period now will be N S
moment of the system is
(a) 3T0 (b) T0 Fig. 129
(a) zero (b) 3M
(c) T0 / 3 (d) T0 /3. [MP PMT 2000] (c) 3M/2 (d) M 3 .
462. A bar magnet A of magnetic moment MA is found to 468. The pole strength of a bar magnet is 48 A m and the
oscillate at a frequency twice that of magnet B of mag- distance between its poles is 25 cm. The moment of the
netic MB when placed in a vibrating magnetometer. couple by which it can be placed at an angle of 30°
We may say that with the uniform magnetic field of flux density 0.15 N
(a) MA = 2 MB (b) MA = 8 MB A–1 m–1 will be
(c) MA = 4 MB (d) MB = 8 MA. (a) 12 N m (b) 18 N m
[Haryana PMT 1999] (c) 0.9 N m (d) None of these.
463. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is 469. The period of oscillation of a magnet at a place is
suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent mag- 4 second. When it is remagnetised, so that the pole
→
net such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a cur- strength becomes 4 times the initial value, the period
rent i in the triangle a torque τ act on it, the side l of the of oscillation in second is
tirangle is : (a) 1/2 (b) 1
1 (c) 2 (d) 4. [EAMCET 2003]
FG IJ
1
F
(b) 2 G
τ I 2
(a) 2
3
τ 2
H K
Bi H J
3 Bi K
470. Two short bar magnets of magnetic moments M each
are arranged at the opposite corners of a square of side
d such that their centres coincide with the corners and
2 F τ I
(c) G J
3 H Bi K
(d)
1 τ
3 Bi
. their axes are parallel. If the like poles are in the same
direction, the magnetic induction at any of the other
[All India PM/PD 2005] corners of the square is
464. A certain amount of current when flowing in a prop- µ0 M µ0 2 M
(a) (b)
4 π d3 4π d3
erly set tangent galvanometer, produces a deflection of
µ0 M 2
45°. If the current be reduced by a factor of 3 , the (c) (d) µ 0 M .
deflection would 4 π 2 d3 4 π 2 d3
(a) decrease by 30° (b) decrease by 15° [EAMCET 2003]
(c) increase by 15° (d) increase by 30°.
471. Fig. 130 shows the north-south line
and a bar magnet at 45° from it
[MP PMT 1996] with its polarity shown. The neu-
465. Two normal uniform magnetic field contain a mag- tral points would occur approxi-
netic needle making an angle 60° with F. Then the ra- mately along the line
F (a) OA
tio of is
H
(b) OB
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) OC
(c) 3 :1 (d) 1 : 3.
(d) OD. Fig. 130
466. Two short magnets with their axes horizontal and per-
pendicular to the magnetic meridian are placed with [National Standard Exam. in
Physics 1994]
298 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
472. Two identical thin bar magnets, each of length l and 475. A tangent galvanometer has a coil of 25 turns and a
pole strength m, are placed at right angle to each other radius of 15 cm. The horizontal component of the earth’s
with north pole of one touching south pole of the other. magnetic field is 3 × 10 –5 T. The current required to
The magnetic moment of the system is produce a deflection of 45° in it, is
(a) ml (b) 2ml (a) 0.29 A (b) 1.2 A
(c) 3.6 × 10 A
–5
(d) 0.14 A. [MP PMT 2000]
(c) 2 ml (d) ml/2.
476. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 60 A m2 is di-
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2000]
rected towards the geographical north at a place. It
473. At a place, the horizontal and vertical components of experiences a torque of 1.2 × 10 –3 N m. If the earth’s
the earth’s field are 4.5 × 10 –5 T and 6 × 10 –5 T horizontal component of that place is 40 µ Wb m–2, then
respectively. The total field of the earth at that place is the angle of declination at that place will be
..... × 10 –5 T.
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(a) 1.5 (b) 7.5
(c) 60° (d) 90°. [Roorkee 1982]
(c) 9.0 (d) 10.5.
477. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width
474. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a pe-
and breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a vi-
riod of oscillation equal to T. Now it is broken into two
bration magnetometer is 2 s. The magnet is cut along
equal halves (each having half of the original length)
its length into three equal parts and these parts are
and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the same
then placed on each other with their like poles together.
T′ The time period of this combination will be
field. If its period of oscillation is T ′, the ratio is
T 2
(a) 2 3 s (b) s
1 1 3
(a) (b) 2
4 2 2
(c) 2 s (d) s [AIEEE 2004]
1 3
(c) (d) 2 [AIEEE 2003]
2
362. (d) 363. (b) 364. (c) 365. (a) 366. (c) 367. (b) 368. (b) 369. (d)
370. (d) 371. (b) 372. (c) 373. (c) 374. (a) 375. (d) 376. (c) 377. (a)
378. (a) 379. (c) 380. (d) 381. (d) 382. (a) 383. (b) 384. (d) 385. (a)
386. (b) 387. (c) 388. (d) 389. (c) 390. (c) 391. (c) 392. (b) 393. (c)
394. (d) 395. (a) 396. (c) 397. (a) 398. (a) 399. (b) 400. (b) 401. (c)
402. (c) 403. (b) 404. (c) 405. (c) 406. (b) 407. (c) 408. (d) 409. (b)
410. (d) 411. (d) 412. (a) 413. (b) 414. (b) 415. (b) 416. (b) 417. (d)
418. (b) 419. (c) 420. (c) 421. (a) 422. (b) 423. (b) 424. (a) 425. (c)
426. (d) 427. (c) 428. (c) 429. (a) 430. (b) 431. (c) 432. (b) 433. (a)
434. (a) 435. (a) 436. (a) 437. (c) 438. (d) 439. (b) 440. (b) 441. (d)
442. (d) 443. (c) 444. (a) 445. (b) 446. (c) 447. (c) 448. (a) 449. (d)
450. (c) 451. (b) 452. (d) 453. (c) 454. (a) 455. (b) 456. (c) 457. (d)
458. (a) 459. (a) 460. (b) 461. (a) 462. (c) 463. (b) 464. (b) 465. (d)
466. (c) 467. (a) 468. (c) 469. (c) 470. (a) 471. (a) 472. (c) 473. (b)
474. (c) 475. (a) 476. (a) 477. (c).
z F I = FG 1 + 16 IJ
b 3/ 2 3/ 2
µ I N 1 B′ x2
B= 0
2 b−a
a
r
dr
B GH JK H 9 K
= 1+ 2
r
µ I N
B= 0 log e r
b
F 25 I = FG 5 IJ = 125
=G J
3/ 2 3
2 b− a a
H 9 K H 3 K 27
µ0 NI 125 125
B= [loge b – loge a] or B′ = B= × 54 µT = 250 µT
2(b − a) 27 27
µ 0 NI b mv2 mv p 2 m Ek
B= loge . 232. Bqv = or r = or r = =
2(b − a) a Bq
r Bq Bq
µ 0I
4π
2 H K
B′ = 1
2r Clearly, B ∝ .
L
B′ ( r 2 + x 2 ) 3 / 2 238. v⊥ = 4 × 105 × sin 60°
=
B r3 = 2 3 × 105 m s–1
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 301
V
242. R= –G
Ig l/2
10 T cos q T cos q
= −3
–1
10 × 10 q q
q
= (1000 – 1) Ω = 999 Ω. r
T T
→ → →
243. F = q( v × B) ⇒ (4i + 3 j) × 10–10 T sin q T sin q
→
Fig. 134
= 10–9 [ v × 0.004 k ]
302 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2Tl / 2 T mv2 mv
∴ BIl = 2Tθ or BIl = or BI = 257. = Bqv or r =
r r r Bq
l 258. The magnetic fields due to both the currents are along
But 2πr = l or r= ‘– Z-axis’. So, they add up to give a net magnetic field
2π
along ‘– Z-axis’.
T2π BIl
∴ BI = or T =
l 2π mv2 mv
→
259. = Bqv or r =
r Bq
248. M net = M k + M i + M j
∴ Mnet = M2 + M2 + M2 p 2m E k
or r= or r =
Bq Bq
πr 2 3 πr 2 I
= 3 ×I× =
4 4 2m qV
r=
GI g Bq
249. S=
I − Ig
1 2mV
GI G r=
S= or S = B q
nI − I n−1
15 I 2 × 9 × 10−31 × 12000
250. S= = 15 Ω. = 103 m
2I − I . × 10−19
16
GI g 1.5 × 10–1 m
251. S= =3×
I − Ig
= 0.3 × 1.5 × 100 cm = 36.74 cm.
S(I − I g ) 5 [100 − 4]
or G= = BI
Ig 4 260. (hρg) a2 = BIa or h =
ρga
5
= × 96 Ω = 120 Ω. 1 µ 0I 4 π × 10 −7 × 9
4 261. B= = N A–1 m–1
6 2r 12 × 10 × 10 −2
µ 0I1I2 = 9.43 × 10–6 N A–1 m–1.
252. F= l
2πr
µ 0I 4 π × 10 −7 × 10
−7 262. B= =
4π × 10 × 10 × 2 2πr 2 π × 5 × 10 −2
= × 2 N = 8 × 10–5 N.
2π × 10 × 10−2 = 4 × 10–5 T = 0.4 gauss
2 Now B= 0.42 + 0.32 gauss
253. Magnetic field due to bigger coil = T=1T
2
= 0.16 + 0.09 gauss = 0.5 gauss.
Now, magnetic fields of 2 T and 1T are oppositely di-
rected. So, net field is 1 T. 263. The direction of the current is given by left hand rule.
E N 4π × 10 −7 × 1000 × 5
254. B= 264. B = µ0 I= T
v l 20 × 10−2
= 0.031 T.
600 V 1
= −3
× 6 −1 1
3 × 10 m 2 × 10 m s 265. Bend = [0.031] T = 0.0155 T.
2
= 10 –1 T = 0.1 T 266. Remember that the magnetic flux density along the
µ 0I µ 0I axis of a solenoid is proportional to (i) the number of
255. −
2r 2πr turns per unit length, (ii) the current. Work out what
µ 0I FG
1 IJ µ 0I (π − 1) the turns ratio of Y to X will be, not forgetting that
=
2r
1−
πH K =
2πr
. the circumference of Y is twice that of X. Then con-
sider the turns per unit length for Y compared to X.
Bq Finally remember that the product of turns per unit
256. ν=
2πm length and current must be the same for X as for Y if
Out of the given particles, Li+ has maximum mass. they are to have equal field strengths.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 303
6.4 × 10 21 mv
I= A = 4.976 × 107 A 290. r=
3.14 × 6.4 × 6.4 × 10 12 Bq
≈ 5 × 107 A.
278. The magnetic flux density near the middle of the sole- mv 9 × 10−31 × 106
B= = T
noid parallel to the axis is rq 0.10 × 1.6 × 10 −19
µ 0NI = 56.25 × 10–6 T = 5.6 × 10–5 T.
B= . 291. kα = NBIA
l
Cross-sectional area of the solenoid is A. α NBA
or =
Thus, magnetic flux through the cross-section in this I k
region is
100 × 5 × 1 × 10−4
µ NIA = rad A–1
Φ = BA = 0 . 10−8
l
= 500 × 104 rad A–1
279. Fm = Bqv sin θ = 5 × 106 rad A–1 = 5 rad/µA.
= 1.5 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 2 × 107 sin 30° N
µ 0I µ0 q
= 2.4 × 10–12 N. 292. B= or B =
2r 2r T
mv
280. r= 4 π × 10−7 × q
Bq B= n
2r
If v is doubled, then r is doubled.
281. The tension shall change because of magnetic force. 2πnq
B= × 10–7 N A–1 m–1.
282. Due to B|| , the path should be straight. Due to B⊥, the r
path should be circular. The combination of the two mv2
293. Bqv = or Bqr = mv or Bqr = mrω
paths will be helical. r
283. Apply right hand palm rule. Bq Bq
or 2πν = or ν = .
284. No force on PQ and SR. m 2πm
Force on PS or QR = BIl GI g 0.018 × 1
294. S= = Ω = 0.002 Ω.
=2× 10–2 × 2 × 0.25 N = 10–2 N I − Ig 10 − 1
τ = 10–2 N × 0.4 m = 4 × 10–3 N m. 295. V = Ig(R + G)
Bqv V 100
285. a=
m or R= –G = – 25
Ig 10 × 10−3
2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 × 3.4 × 107 = (10000 – 25) Ω = 9975 Ω.
= m s −2
1.67 × 10 −27 296. F ∝ I1 I2
= 6.5 × 1015 m s–2. When both I1 and I2 are doubled, the force is increased
286. V = IR, I constant, V ∝ R, clearly if R is doubled, V is by a factor of 4.
doubled. 297. Note that protons and electrons are oppositely
So, R + 100 = 1000 or R = 900 Ω. charged.
298. The magnetic fields due to both the currents are into
µ 0NI 4π × 10−7 × 100 × 0.1 the plane of paper and add up.
287. B= = T
2r 2 × 5 × 10−2 299. 10 × 99 = 90 S or S = 11 Ω.
= 4π × 10–5 T 1
300. B = × 4π × 10–7 × 800 × 1.6 T = 8 × 10–4 T.
288. G = 7 Ω, Ig = 1.0 A, V = 10 volt 2
10 = 1(7 + R) or R = 3 Ω. 301. M = evA
µ 0I 2Br 2 × 7 × 10−5 × 5 × 10−2 22
289. B = , I= = A = 1.6 × 10–19 × 6.6 × 1015 × × (0.528 × 10–10)2 A m2
2r µ0 4 π × 10−7 7
= 5.6 A. = 9.25 × 10–24 = 0.9 × 10–23 ≈ 1 × 10–23 A m2.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 305
4
F µ0 (I) (I) µ 0I2
302. = = . G 5
l 2πb 2 πb 312. = =4
4 1
303. Number of turns doubled, B doubled ; Radius halved, 5
B again doubled, Net effect : B increased by a factor or G = 16 Ω
of 4. Again, combined resist-
mv2 mv ance of 4 Ω and 2 Ω is
304. Bqv = or r= 4 Fig. 136
r Bq Ω
3
p 2mEk 4 x
or r= =
Bq Bq x G
Now, = 3 1A
1 − x 16
π2mEk
Area = πr2 = x 4 1
B2 q2 or = =
1 − x 48 12 1–x 4
Clearly, area ∝ Ek. W
or 1 – x = 12x 3
305. In general, V = Ig(G + R)
or 1 = 13x Fig. 137
V
In the given problem, ‘V’ = nV, Ig = 1
G or x=
13
V
nV = (G + R) or Gn = G + R or R = (n – 1)G. 313. V = Ig(R + G)
G
V 2.5
mv2 R= –G = – 10
306. Bqv = Ig 1 × 10−3
r
Bqr = (2500 – 10) Ω = 2490 Ω.
v= or mv = Bqr
m GI g 10 × 1 × 10 −3
Bqr is constant. 314. S= = Ω
I − Ig (2.5 − 1) × 10 −3
∴ mv = constant
me ve 10−2
∴ mpvp = meve or vp = . = Ω = 4 × 10–3 Ω.
mp 2.5
3 µ 0I LM OP
1 µ 0I LM OP 315. G=
4 × 10−3
Ω=2Ω
307. B=
4 2a
+
N Q
4 2b
.
N Q 2 × 10−3
3µ 0I µ 0I GI g 2 × 2 × 10−3
B= + . S= =
8a 8b I − Ig (1 − 2) × 10−3
r
308. Distance of straight conductor from O = 4 × 10 −3
2 = Ω ≈ 0.004 Ω.
(1 − 0.002)
B=
µ 0I × 2 µ 0I
2 πr
+
π
2r 2 × 2π 316. B=
µ 0I µ 0I
+ or B =
LM
µ 0I 1
+
1 OP
µ 0 2I LM πOP
4 r1 4 r2 N
4 r1 r2 Q
or B=
4π r N 2+
4 Q
.
=
LM
µ0I r2 + r1 . OP
309. Magnetic field at O is the sum of the magnetic fields 4 Nr1 r2 Q
due to semi-circle and semi-infinite wire.
mv2 e v e 2 × 107
317. Bev = or = or = C kg–1
GI g 100 × 10 × 10 −3
r m rB m 10 × 10−5
310. S= = ≈ 0.1 Ω.
I − Ig 10 − 10 × 10−3 = 2 × 1011 C kg –1.
311. W = 2MB or W = 2NIAB 318. Ek = qV
In the given problem, V is constant
22
= 2 × 50 × 2 × (4 × 10–2)2 × 0.1 J = 0.1 J. ∴ Ek ∝ q.
7
306 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
GI g 25 × 0.01 0.25 25 µ 0I = µ 0 e µ 0 ne
362. S = = = Ω = Ω. 376. B= .
I − Ig 10 − 0.01 9.99 999 2r 2r T = 2r
1 2eV µ I
377. B= 0
363. mv2 = eV or v = 2r
2 m
I ∝ Br
Fm = Bqv
I1 1 1 1
6 −19
∴ = × = .
2 × 200 × 10 × 16
. × 10 I2 3 2 6
= 5 × 1.6 × 10–19 N
. × 10−27
167 µ 0I
378. B=
= 1.6 × 10 –10 N. 2r
µ q µ × 2 × 1.6 × 10−19
4 π × 10 −7
× 1000 × 0.1 B= 0 = 0 T = 10–19 µ0 T.
364. B = T = 2π × 10 –4 T 2r T 2 × 0.8 × 2
2 × 0.1
379. τ = MB sin θ
= 2 × 3.14 × 10 –4 T = 6.28 × 10 –4 T.
τ and B are constants
365. No field inside the cylinder.
∴ M sin θ = constant
366 to 369. Think in terms of magnetic fields due to (i) semi-
infinite wire (ii) semi-circular wire. ∴ pm sin θ = 3 pm sin (90° – θ)
Also, the magnetic fields due to straight and semi- or tan θ = 3 or θ = 60°.
circular portions are perpendicular. 380. τ = MB sin θ
→ → →
370. F = q ( v × B ) = 10–11 (108 j × 0.5 i ) = 5 × 10–4 (− k) . τ and M are constants.
371. At the mid-point of the line joining the conduc- ∴ B1 sin 15° = B2 sin (60° – 15°)
→ or B1 sin 15° = B2 sin 45°
tors, B = 0. As we come close to the wires, the magni-
tude of B increases. The direction of magnetic fields B1 sin 15°
∴ B2 = .
on opposite sides of a wire will be opposite. Again, sin 45°
→
B = 0, as r → ∞. 381. (a) 2 M (b) zero
372. Electric field is along + x direction. So, the positive (c) zero (d) 3 M.
ions will acquire velocity along + x direction. The nega- 382 to 384. Point is on the axial line of M sin λ.
tive ions will acquire velocity along – x direction.
→
For + ve ion, v = vi , ‘q’ = + q
→ R
For – ve ion, v = – vi , ‘q’ = – q –l
90 V
→ → → l
Again, F m = q ( v × B) . Both will be deflected along
→
– y-axis because B = Bk .
l
sin
M
M
373. 10 = 1 × 10–3 [R + 1]
or 104 – 1 = R or R = 9,999 Ω. (a) (b)
This should be connected in series.
Fig. 142
mv2
374. Bqv =
r 2M sin λ H
V= 3
p 2m Ek R
r= = Point is on the equatorial
Bq Bq
line of M cos λ. R
rα 4
= =1 M cos λ
rp 2 ∴ H=
R3
This alone decides (a). V M cos λ
µ I Now, tan δ =
375. B = 0 H Fig. 143
2r M cos λ R3
−11 or tan δ = ×
B × 2r 12.56 × 2 × 5.2 × 10 R3 2M sin λ
I= = A = 1.04 × 10–3 A.
µ0 4 × 3.14 × 10 −7
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 309
I × 100
392. τ = MB sin θ T′ = 2π
81 MB
τ and B are constants.
10
Now, 3 sin θ = 1 × sin (90° – θ) T′ = T
9
1 Percentage increase
or tan θ = or θ = 30°.
3 10
393. The hysteresis loss for soft iron is low. On the other −1
1
hand, hysteresis loss for steel is high. = 9 × 100 = × 100 ≈ 11.
1 9
310 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
= × = 16 : 9 3 .
= 3(2 – 3 ) cgs units. 9× 3 2
408 & 409. BH = 0.3 gauss 417. BV = B sin δ
B = 0.6 gauss BV 6 × 10 −5
or B = or B = T
sin δ sin 40.6°
BV = 0.62 − 0.32 = 0.9 × 0.3 gauss
6 × 10−5
27 = T = 10–4 T.
= 0.27 gauss = × 10–4 T = 27 × 10–5 T 0.6
10
−7
B 27 × 10 −5 µ 0I = 4π × 10 × 18
418. B= T = 18 µ T
tan δ = V = = 3 2πr 2π × 0.2
BH 3 × 10 −5
δ = 60°. I
N Now, T = 2π
410. NBIA sin θ = τ ...(1) B MBH
θ
N, B, I and A are constants. I
90–θ and T′ = 2π
∴ sin θ ∝ 0.3 W E M(BH − B)
cos θ ∝ 0.4 Dividing
3 T′ BH
tan θ = S = T′ 24
4 or = =2
T BH − B T 24 − 18
From Eq. (1), Fig. 144
T′ = 2 × 0.1 s = 0.2 s.
τ
B= 1 MB
NIA sin θ 5 419. n=
0.3 × 5
3 2π I
B= T
100 × 5 × 2 × 10−2 × 3 q 1 (4 M) (2B)
n′ = or n′ = 2 2 n.
= 0.05 T. 4 2π I
3
sin q = 420. Longitudinal and transverse positions refer to axial
5
and equatorial positions.
Fig. 145
BV 421. W = MB(1 – cos θ)
411. tan δ =
BH = 104 × 4 × 10–5(1 – cos 60°)
or BV = BH tan δ = 0.35 × 10–4 × tan 60° = 2 × 10–1 J
= 0.35 × 1.732 × 10–4 T = 0.61 × 10–4 T. = 0.2 J.
0.91 422. µ = µ0(1 + χ) or µ = 4π × 10–7 (1 + 599)
412. µr = = 1.4
0.65 or µ = 7.536 × 10–4 T m A–1
µ = µ0 µr = 4π × 10–7 × 1.4 H m–1 B = µ H = 7.536 × 10–4 × 1200 T
= 5.6π × 10–7 H m–1. φ = BA = 7.536 × 10–4 × 1200 × 0.2 × 10–4 Wb
= 1.81 × 10–5 Wb.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 311
22 2 × 6.75 2 × 6.75
435. M = 24 × 0.75 × × 0.035 × 0.035 A m2 446. 5 × 10–5 = 10–7 × or r3 =
7 r3 500
= 6.93 × 10–2 A m2. = 27 × 10–3 m
FG 1 IJ or r = 3 × 10–1 m = 0.3 m = 30 cm.
436. W = MB(1 – cos 60°) = MB 1 −
H 2 K µ 0 6 MM′ 6 × 10 × 10
MB 447. F = 4 = 10–7 N = 0.6 N.
= or MB = 2 W 4π r 0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1
2
1
3 448. T ∝
τ = MB sin 60° = (2 W) = 3 W. M
2
When M is increased by a factor of 4, T is halved.
437. BH = B cos δ
1
BH 0.50 1 449. B ∝
or B= = = oersted. r3
cos δ cos 30° 3
When r is doubled, B is reduced by a factor of 8.
60
438. T = s=2s 450. I is increased by a factor of 2. So, T0 is increased by a
30
factor of 2 .
When B is doubled, T is reduced by a factor of 2.
2 1 m FG IJ FG l IJ 2
I
T′ =
2
s= 2 s. 451. I′ =
12 2 H K H 2K or I′ =
8
T′ 1 M M I′ I×2
439. = × = 2 or T′ = 2T = 2 × 1.5 s = 3 s. Also, M′ = or T′ = 2π = 2π
T M/4 1 2 M′ B 8 × MB
440. W = MB(1 – cos 180°) = 2 MB. 1 1
= T = 4 s = 2 s.
µ M µ M2 2 2
441. B = 0 31 or B= 0
4π r 4 π (2r)3 I
452. T = 2π
M1 M2 M1 1 . MB
Equating, = or =
r3 8 r3 M2 8 T1 B2 3
= = .
2M M x 3
x T2 B1 2
442. = 3 or 3 = 2 or = 21/3.
x3
y y y 1
453. B∝ .
443. Effect on magnetic dipole moment r3
m 2l 1 454. MB(1 – cos 90°) = n MB(1 – cos 60°)
2
M′ =
× = M
2 4 FG 1 IJ
Effect on moment of inertia
or 1 = n 1 −
H 2 K or n = 2.
mass l FG IJ 2
N 1 tan 60° 3
I′ =
4
×
2 H K =
1
I
455. =
N 2 tan 45°
=
1
.
12 16
456. 3 = 1 × tan θ or tan θ = 3 or θ = 60°.
Effect on time period
457. B2 = BH2 + BV2 = B02 + B02 = 2B02 or B = 2 B0.
1
I×4 µ 0 2M
16 T
T′ = 2π = . 458. = tan θ or d3 tan θ = constant.
MB 2 4 π d3
N 4 × 103 × 12 × 10−2 ∴ r3 tan 60° = 3r3 tan θ or 3 = 3 tan θ
444. I = 4 × 103 or I = A = 8 A.
l 60 1
445. Steel or an alloy Alnico (Al + Ni + Co) is used for mak- or tan θ = or θ = 30°.
3
ing permanent magnets. Hysteresis loss is high. More-
459. W = – MB(cos θ2 – cos θ1)
over, coercivity is high and retentivity is low.
= – 4 × 5 × 10–4 [cos 45° – cos 30°]
Soft iron is used for electromagnets. Retentivity is
high. Coercivity is low. = – 20 × 10–4 [0.707 – 0.866] = 3.18 × 10–4 J.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 313
F I
1
µ0 M Fig. 148
4τ B2 = (along AB)
l=G J
2
or
H 3 BiK
4 π d3
µ0 M
F I Resultant, B = B1 – B2 =
1
τ 4 π d3
GH J
2
3 BiK
or l=2
471. Drawing loops from magnetic N pole towards S, one
464. I ∝ tan θ or I ∝ tan 45° finds that only OA somewhere the loop direction falls
along earth’s NS line and opposed to it in direction.
I
∝ tan θ 472. Magnetic moments are equal in magnitude and per-
3
pendicular to each other.
tan θ 1 1 473. B2 = BH2 + BV2 = (4.5 × 10–5)2 + (6 × 10–5)2
= or tan θ = or θ = 30°
tan 45° 3 3
= 4.52 + 62 × 10–5 T = 20.25 + 36 × 10–5 T
Decrease = 45° – 30° = 15°.
F
60°
= 56.25 × 10–5 T = 7.5 × 10–5 T.
465. H = F tan 60°
H= 3F H mass × (length)2
474. Moment of inertia =
12
F 1
= . When magnet is divided into two equal halves, mass
H 3
Fig. 147 is reduced by a factor of 2 and length is also reduced
by a factor of 2.
M1 d13 40 × 40 × 40 64
466. = = = . 1
M2 d23 50 × 50 × 50 125 So, new moment of inertia is th of the initial mo-
8
ment of inertia.
314 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
µ 0NI 2rH 477. Note that the magnet is cut along length and not
=H or I =
2r µ0 N perpendicular to length.
M
2 × 15 × 10 −2 × 3 × 10 −5 Magnetic moment of each part =
= A = 0.29 A. 3
4 π × 10 −7 × 25
I
Moment of inertia of each part =
τ 3
476. τ = MB sin θ or sin θ =
MB Magnetic moment of given combination
1.2 × 10−3 M
= = 3× =M
= 0.5 or θ = 30°. 3
60 × 40 × 10−6
I
Moment of inertia of combination = 3 × =I
3
I
T′ = 2π =T=2s
MB
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant when a charge + Q at point
y
→
P has velocity v , as shown, the force on the charge is :
(a) along oy (b) along ox (c) opposite to ox (d) opposite to oy.
Q
x
Sol. The magnetic field due to the wire is along negative z axis. The corresponding P ® O
→
v
→ → → → →
unit vector is – k . For v , the unit vector is i . Using F = Q ( v × B) , we find F is in
I
the direction of i × (− k) or k × i or j i.e. in the positive direction of y-axis.
So, (a) is the right choice.
Fig. 149
l P, Q and R are long straight wires in air, carrying currents as shown in Fig. 150. The force
P Q R
on Q is directed
(a) to the left (b) to the right
(c) perpendicular to the plane of the diagram (d) along the current in Q. 20 A 40 A 60 A
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
Sol. The magnetic fields due to both the current-carrying wires P and R are directed into
the plane of the figure at Q and exert a force on Q to the left.
So, (a) is the right choice. Fig. 150
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 315
478. A microammeter has a resistance of 100 Ω and a full 482. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes
scale range of 50 µ A. It can be used as a voltmeter or as through a region of space without any change in its
a higher range ammeter provided a resistance is added velocity. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic
to it. Pick the current range and the resistance combi- fields respectively, this region of space may have
nations.
(a) E = 0, B = 0 (b) E = 0, B ≠ 0
(a) 50 V, 10 k Ω in series (b) 10 V, 200 k Ω in series
(c) 5 mA, 1 Ω in parallel (d) 10 mA, 1 Ω in parallel.
(c) E ≠ 0, B = 0 (d) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0. [IIT 1985]
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002] 483. A particle of charge + q and mass m moving under the
479. A proton (mass m and charge + e) and an alpha parti- influence of an uniform electric field E i and a uniform
cle (mass 4m and charge + 2e) are projected with same magnetic field B k follows a trajectory from P to Q as
kinetic energy at right angles to a uniform magnetic shown in Fig. 151. The velocities at P and Q are v i
field. Which one of the following statements will be in- and – 2v j respectively. Which of the following
correct ? statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) The alpha particle will be bent in a circular path with a
Y
smaller radius than that of the proton.
(b) The radius of the path of the alpha particle will be greater
than that of the proton.
(c) The alpha particle and the proton will be bent in a circu- ^
P v ^i Ei
lar path with the same radius.
(d) The alpha particle and the proton will go through the a
field in a straight line. [CPMT 1993] Q
480. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region con- ^ O 2a X
taining electric and magnetic fields, Bk
^
– 2v j
→ →
(a) E must be perpendicular to B
→ →
(b) v must be perpendicular to E Z
→ →
(c) v must be perpendicular to B Fig. 151
(d) E must be equal to vB.
3 mv2
481. The magnetic field at the origin, due to a current ele- (a) E =
→ → 4 qa
ment i dl placed at a position r , is
LM
3 mv3 OP
(a)
→ →
µ 0i dl × r
→
µ i r × dl
(b) − 0
→ (b) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is
4 MN
a PQ
4π r3 4π r3 (c) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is zero
→ → → → (d) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero.
µ i r × dl µ i dl × r
(c) 0 (d) − 0 . [IIT 1991]
4π r 3 4π r3
316 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
484. Which of the following pairs has quantities of the same axis oscillates with period T. If the polarities of the
dimensions ? magnet are reversed, the period of oscillation of the nee-
(a) magnetic field B and magnetising field intensity H dle becomes 2T. If F is field due to the magnet at the
(b) magnetic field B and intensity of magnetisation I needle and H is horizontal component of earth’s mag-
(c) magnetising field intensity H and intensity of magneti- netic field, F/H is given by
sation I (a) 5/3 (b) 3/5
(d) longitudinal strain and magnetic susceptibility.
(c) 4 (d) 1/4.
485. A bar magnet NS is placed horizontally with its axis
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
north-south. A free magnetic needle P placed along its
MCQs
based on
SET IV
486. Consider two straight long parallel conductors spaced 491. The magnetic potential at a point distant 10 cm from
50 cm apart and carrying oppositely directed currents ; the middle point of a magnetic dipole on a line inclined
the first 20 A and the second, 24 A. The observation at an angle of 60° with the axis is 3 emu. Then the
point is separated from the first conductor by a distance magnetic moment of the magnet is
of 40 cm and from the second by 30 cm. The magnetic (a) 300 abampere cm2 (b) 600 abampere cm2
field induction at the observation point is [Given : 3.56 (c) 30 abampere cm 2
(d) 60 abampere cm2.
≈ 1.88] 492. An electron revolves in a circular orbit in a plane per-
(a) 188 × 10 –7 T (b) 1.88 × 10 –7 T pendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction
1.88 6 × 10–5 weber per metre2. Then the time period of revo-
(c) 2 × 1.88 T (d) T.
2 lution is
487. In the previous question, the magnetic field strength at (a) 5.9 × 10 –5 s (b) 5.9 × 10 –7 s
the observation point is nearly (c) 5.9 × 10 s
–9
(d) 5.9 × 10 –11 s.
(a) 0.15 A m–1 (b) 1.5 A m–1 493. A proton of mass m and charge q is accelerated by a
(c) 15 A m–1 (d) 150 A m–1. potential difference V in a perpendicular magnetic field
488. A horizontal rod of mass 10 g and length 10 cm is placed B occupying space d. The sine of deviation of proton
on a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 60° with the from initial direction is
horizontal, with the length of the rod parallel to the q q
edge of the inclined plane. A uniform magnetic field of (a) Bd (b) Bd
2 mV
2 mV
induction B is applied vertically downwards. If the cur-
rent through the rod is 1.73 A, the value of B for which q 2q
(c) Bd (d) Bd .
the rod remains stationary on the inclined plane is mV mV
[Given : g = 10 m s–2] 494. A uniform magnetic field with a slit system as shown
1 in Fig. 152 is to be used as a momentum filter for high
(a) 1.73 T (b) T
1.73
(c) 1 T (d) 0.5 T.
→
489. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of a circu- B
lar current-carrying wire and the magnetic field at the
centre of a square formed with the same length of wire
when same current flows through it is
(a) π : 8 2 (b) π2 : 8 2
(c) π : 4 (d) 2π : 9.
490. A current of 1 A is flowing in the sides of an equilateral
triangle of side 4.5 × 10 –2 m. Magnetic field at centroid
is Source Detector
(a) 4 × 10 –5 T (b) 8 × 10 –5 T
(c) 12 × 10 –5 T (d) 16 × 10 –5 T. Fig. 152
318 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
energy charged particles. With a field B Tesla, it is 501. Three long, parallel, straight wires X, Y and Z are
found that the filter trasmits α-particles each of energy placed in the same plane in a vacuum as shown in Fig.
5 MeV. The magnetic field is increased to 2 B tesla and 153. Given that the force per unit length between two
deuterons are passed into the filter. The energy of each long, parallel, straight wires placed 10 cm apart, each
deutron transmitted by filter is carrying a current of 1 A, is 2 × 10–6 N m–1, what is the
(a) 14 MeV (b) 10 MeV net force per unit length acting on Z ?
(c) 28 MeV (d) 2 MeV. 1A X
495. A circular current-carrying coil has a radius R. The
distance from the centre of the coil, on the axis, where 10 cm
1
the magnetic induction will be th of its value at the 2A Y
8
centre of the coil, is
10 cm
R
(a) 3R (b) 1A Z
3
(c) R2 (d) R8.
Fig. 153
496. A bar magnet suspended by a horse’s hair lies in the
magnetic meridian when there is no twist in the hair. (a) 3.0 × 10 –6
Nm–1
(b) 3.5 × 10 –6 N m–1
On turning the upper end of the hair through 150° from (c) 4.0 × 10 –6 N m–1 (d) 4.5 × 10 –6 N m–1
the meridian, the magnet is deflected through 30° from (e) 5.0 × 10 –6
Nm .
–1
Y Y
90°
–∞ i +∞
P Q S
90°
u u
R
O I X O I X
–∞
(a) (b)
Fig. 158
Y Y
(a) 1/2 (b) 1
(c) 2/3 (d) 2.
[IIT Screening 2000]
509. A metallic block carrying current I is subjected to a
u →
u uniform magnetic induction B as shown in Fig. 159.
→
The moving charges experience a force F given by .....
which results in the lowering of the potential of the face
O I X O I X
....... Assume the speed of the carriers to be v.
(c) (d)
Fig. 156
Fig. 159
Fig. 157
320 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) evB k , ABCD (b) evB k , EFGH (a) 0.50 gauss (b) 0.25 gauss
(c) 0.05 gauss (d) 0.005 gauss.
(c) – evB k , ABCD (d) – evB k , EFGH.
515. A wire ABCDEF (with each side of length L) bent as
[IIT 1996]
shown in Fig. 161 and carrying a current I is placed in
510. Two particles, each of mass m and charge q, are a uniform magnetic induction (field) B parallel to posi-
attached to the two ends of a light rigid rod of length tive Y direction. The force experienced by the wire is
2 R. The rod is rotated at constant angular speed about
a perpendicular axis passing through its centre. The Z
D
ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic moment of the
system and its angular momentum about the centre of C I
the rod is E
q q F
(a) (b)
2m m Y
2q q O
(c) (d) . [IIT 1998]
m πm A
B
511. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I
in the negative z direction. The magnetic vector field X
→
B at a point having coordinates (x, y) in the z = 0 plane Fig. 161
is
(a) BIL in positive Y-direction
µ I ( yi − xj) µ I ( xi + yj) (b) BIL in positive Z-direction
(a) 0 (b) 0
2π ( x 2 + y2 ) 2π ( x 2 + y2 ) (c) 3 BIL (d) zero. [IIT 1990]
µ I ( xj − yi) µ I ( xi − yj) 516. A non-planar loop of con-
(c) 0 (d) 0 .
2π ( x 2 + y2 ) 2π ( x 2 + y2 ) ducting wire carrying a z
[IIT Screening 2002] current I is placed as y
shown in Fig. 162. Each of I
512. Fig. 160 shows a cur- I the straight sections of the
rent-carrying wire.
loop is of length 2a. The
The magnetic field in-
magnetic field due to this x
duction at O is r b
loop at the point P (a, 0, a) 2a
LM OP
O a
µ 0I 3 points in the direction Fig. 162
(a) π+1
N Q
4 πr 2
r
1 1
(− j + k) (− j + k + i)
µ 0I L 3 O d (a) (b)
c
2πr MN 2
(b) π + 1P 2 3
Q Fig. 160 1
(i + j + k)
1
(i + k) .
µ 0I L 3 O
(c) (d)
πr MN 2 PQ
(c) 3 2
[IIT Screening 2001]
µ I L 3 O 517. A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a con-
(d) 0 M1 − πP .
2π r N 2 Q stant velocity v along the positive x direction. It enters
513. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments a region containing a uniform magnetic field B directed
1.0 A m2 each, placed at a separation of 2 m with their along the negative z direction, extending from x = a to
axis perpendicular to each other. The resultant mag- x = b.The minimum value of v required so that the par-
netic field at a point midway between the dipoles is ticle can just enter the region x > b is
(a) qbB/m (b) q(b – a)B/m
(a) 5 × 10–7 T (b) 5 × 10–7 T
(c) qaB/m (d) q(b + a)B/2m.
(c) 10–7 T (d) None of these.
[IIT Screening 2002]
[Roorkee 1995]
518. Surface charge density on a
514. A uniform magnetic needle is suspended from its centre ν
ring of radius a and width d
by a thread. Its upper end is now loaded with a mass is σ. If it rotates with fre-
of 50 milligram when the needle becomes horizontal. If quency ν about its own axis, σ
the strength of each pole is 98.1 ab-ampere × cm and the magnetic induction at cen- a
g is 981 cm/s2, then the vertical component of the earth’s tre is
magnetic induction is Fig. 163
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 321
2π × 0.30
90°
µ FG 20 IJ + FG 24 IJ
2 2 θ mg
B= 0
2π H 0.4 K H 0.3 K 30
cm
Fig. 166
4π × 10−7 24 A
= 2500 + 6400 µ 0I µ 0 πI µ 0 πI
2π Fig. 165 489. B = = =
2r 2πr l
= 2 × 10–7 8900
µ 0I
= 2 × 94.3 × 10–7 = 188.6 × 10–7 T ≈ 188 × 10–7 T. Again, B′ = 4 ×
l FG IJ
× 2 sin 45°
487. H =
188 × 10 −7
A m–1 = 15 A m–1.
4π
8 H K
4 π × 10 −7
8µ 0I 1 8 2 µ 0I
488. For equilibrium, = ×2× =
πl 2 πl
mg
BIl cos θ = mg sin θ or B = tan θ B µ 0 πI πl π2
Il Now = × = .
B′ l 8 2 µ 0I 8 2
10 × 10 −3 × 10 × 1.73
= T = 1 T.
1.73 × 10 × 10 −2
322 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
4.5 × 10−2 Ed 1 × 1 4 × 2 × 2
490. tan 60° = Now = × =2
2r Eα 1 2×2×2
∴ Ed = 2Eα = 2 × 5 MeV = 10 MeV.
µ 0IR 2 1 µ 0I
495. =
2(R 2 + x 2 )3 / 2 8 2R
2(R 2 + x2 )3 / 2
16 R =
R2
60° r
or 16 R3
= + 2(R2 x2)3/2 or 8R3 = (R2 + x2)3/2
30°
or 2R = (R2 + x2)1/2 or 4R2 = R2 + x2
4.5 × 10–2 m or x = 3 R.
2
496. MB sin 30° = k(150° – 30°) = 120 k ...(1)
Fig. 167 Again, MB sin 90° = k(θ – 90°) ...(2)
4.5 × 10−2 (2)
or r= gives
2 tan 60° (1)
µ0 × 1 × 2 tan 60° K(θ − 90° ) MB × 2
B=3× [2 sin 60°] =
4 π × 4.5 × 10 −2 120 K MB × 1
3 × 10−7 × 200 3 or 240 K = K(θ – 90°) or θ = 240 + 90 = 330°.
or B= ×2× 3× = 4 × 10–5 T.
4.5 2 µ 0NIr 2 µ 0NI
497. B= or B0 =
M cos θ 2(r 2 + h2 )3 / 2 2r
491. V=
r2 µ 0 NI µ 0 NIr 2
B0 – B = −
M cos 60° 2r 2(r 2 + h2 )3 / 2
3=
10 × 10
abampere cm2
=
LM
µ 0NI 1
− 2
r2 OP
or M = 600 abampere cm2. 2MNr ( r + h2 ) 3 / 2 PQ
492. T =
2πm
=
2 × 3.14 × 9.1 × 10 −31 LM OP
µ NI M 1 PP
Bq 6 × 10 −5 × 1.6 × 10 −19 2
= 0
M −
r
1.67 × 10 −27 × 10 6 Y
B2
= m 506. u=
0.104 × 1.6 × 10 −19 2µ 0
= 0.1 m v µ 0 NI
But B=
2πm v|| 2r
T=
Bq B
1 µ 02N 2I2
∴ u=
2π × 1.67 × 10−27 60° 2µ 0 4 r2
= s ∴ u∝I 2
0.104 × 1.6 × 10−19 O v⊥ X
–7
Clearly, the graph between u and I will be a parabola
= 2π × 10 s. Fig. 169 which is symmetric about the u-axis and which passes
500. Fm = Bqv through the origin.
1 2qV d r
But mv2 = qV or v = 507. sin 45° = or d = r sin 45° =
2 m r 2
2qV There will be no magnetic field due to ab.
∴ Fm = Bq
m Magnetic field due to ac,
B2q2 r 2 µ 0I µ 0I µ 0I
mv p 2 mE B= = =
502. r = = = or E = 2πd 2πr sin 45° 2 πr
Bq Bq Bq 2m
→ → →
Ep 1 2 508. H 1 = BPQ + BQR
= × =2
Ed 1 1 × 1 →
∴ Ep = 2Ed = 2 × 50 KeV = 100 KeV. But BQR = 0, because M lies on RQ.
→ →
µ I 3π 3µ I ∴ H1 = BPQ
503. B = 0 = 0 .
2R 2 × 2π 8R → → →
2 Again H 2 = BPQ + BQS
µ 0NIr
504. B = 1
2( r 2 + x 2 ) 3 / 2 But current in QS = × current in PQ
Fr d2 I 3/ 2 2
By (2 r)2
GH 2
+
4 JK ∴
→
BQS =
1→
BPQ
= × 2
Bx (4 r 2 + d2 )3 / 2 r2 → 3→
4 (4 r 2 + d2 )3 / 2 ∴ H2 = BPQ
4 1 2
= 3/ 2 = = .
4 (4 r 2 + d2 )3 / 2 8 2 3 H1 2
505. Whatever may be the shape of the curved conductor ∴ H2 = H or = .
2 1 H2 3
between A and C, force would be the same as on the
→ → →
straight conductor AC. 509. F = q( v × B)
If electrons are the charge carriers, then
324 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
→ → → 1m
F = − e ( v × B) B2
→
F = − e (− vi × Bj ) S
→
F = Bevk S N
P B1
Since the force is directed along z-axis therefore the
1m N
electrons shall move towards ABCD. So, there will be
lowering of the potential of face ABCD.
Fig. 172
[Note that ABCD is perpendicular to x-axis.]
2q 2qω qω B= B12 + B22 = 5 × 10–7 T.
510. I= = 2qν = =
T 2π π 514. Torque due to weight = W × l
qω Deflecting torque due to magnetic field
M= × πR2 or M = qωR2
π = mBV (2l)
Again L = 2(mR2)ω
For equilibrium,
M qωR 2 q
Now = = . W
L 2(mR 2 )ω 2m mBV (2l) = W × l or BV =
→
2m
511. Magnetic field |B|
50 × 10−3 × 981
= gauss = 0.25 gauss.
µ 0I P 2 × 98.1
= →
2 π x2 + y 2 B 515. Following arguments shall decide the right choice :
O
Unit vector perpendicular (i) Current-carrying conductors FE and BA are par-
→ allel to magnetic field. So, they do not experience
to position vector OP is
any force.
yi − xj Fig. 171 (ii) Conductors ED, DC and CB are perpendicular to
2 2 the magnetic field. So, they experience forces, each
x +y
equal to BIl.
→ µ 0I
∴ B = ( yi − xj) . (iii) Forces on ED and CB cancel out.
2 π ( x 2 + y2 )
(iv) Applying right hand rule for the cross product of
512. Point O is on the axis of ab. So, ab would not contrib-
vectors or right hand screw rule, we find that the
ute any magnetic field at O. Again, dc is semi-infinite
force on DC is along Z-axis.
current-carrying wire.
516. Magnetic induction at (a, 0, a) due to loop in xy plane
µ 0I
∴ Bdc = is in + k direction. Due to loop in yz plane, the mag-
2πr netic field will be in + i direction. Due to both the
It is directed upwards.
→
1
3 loops, the direction of B will be (i + k) .
Again, the circular wire between b and c is th por- 2
4
tion of complete circle. mv2 Bqr Bq(b − a)
517. Bqv = or v = or vmin. = .
3 µ 0I r m m
∴ Bbc = 518. Consider an element of radius
4 2r
It is directed upwards. x and thickness dx
Net magnetic field at O, B dq = (2π x dx) σ
µ 0I 3 µ 0I
+ =
µ I
= 0 1+
3π LM OP Corresponding current
dx
.
N Q
x
4 πr 4 2 r = dqν = 2π x σ νdx
4 πr 2
513. P is on axial line of first magnet. µ 0 [2π x σ νdx]
dB =
µ0 2 × 1 2x Fig. 173
∴ B1 = = 2 × 10–7 T dB = µ0 π σ νdx
4 π 13
z
r
P is on the equatorial line of the second magnet.
B= µ 0 π σ νdx
µ 1
B2 = 0 3 = 10–7 T r−d
4π 1
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 325
Fig. 175
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of uniform cross-section of radius a and carrying a steady current is
represented by:
B B B B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a r a r a r a r
Fig. 176
[AIIMS 2004]
Sol. Magnetic field at a point outside the straight conductor is
1
B∝
(r > a)
r
Magnetic field at a point lying inside the conductor is
B ∝ r (r < a)
So, (a) is the right choice.
l An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of the
required shunt is
(a) 0.09 Ω (b) 0.03 Ω (c) 0.3 Ω (d) 0.9 Ω [AIEEE 2003]
GI g 0.81 × 1 0.81
Sol. S = = Ω= Ω = 0.09 Ω
I − Ig 10 − 1 9
So, (a) is the right choice.
326 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on UNIT XIII
(a) a force into the plane of the paper 13. A charged particle is moved along a magnetic field line.
(b) a force out of the plane of the paper The magnetic force on the particle is
(c) a force towards P (a) along its velocity (b) opposite to its velocity
(d) a force away from P (c) perpendicular to its velocity
(e) no force in any direction. (d) zero. [CMC LDH 2000]
10. Two parallel conductors carry equal sinusoidal alter- 14. When a tangent galvanometer is properly set, then the
nating currents differing in phase by π rad. Which one
two magnetic fields acting on the horizontal plane are
of the following graphs shows how F, the mutual force
(a) earth’s horizontal component and the field due to cur-
of attraction, varies with time t ?
rent in the coil
(b) earth’s horizontal component and earth’s vertical com-
ponent
(c) earth’s field and the field due to compass needle
(d) earth’s vertical component and the field due to current
in the coil. [AMU 2001]
15. If an electron describes half a revolution in a circle of
radius r in a magnetic field B, the energy required by it
is
1
(a) zero (b) mv2
2
1
(c) mv2 (d) πr × Bev.
4
16. An electric field of 1500 V m–1 and a magnetic field of
0.4 Wb m–2 act on a moving electron to produce no field.
The speed of the electron is
1500 0.4
(a) m s–1 (b) m s–1
0.4 1500
1
(c) m s–1 (d) 1500 × 0.4 m s–1.
1500 × 0.4
17. A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a mag-
netic field and a current flows in the wire. Then
(a) the wire will experience a force along the direction of mag-
Fig. 180 netic field.
11. Which of the following particles will describe the small- (b) the wire will not experience any force.
est circle when projected with the same velocity perpen- (c) the wire will experience a torque.
dicular to a magnetic field ? (d) the wire will experience a perpendicular force.
(a) electron (b) proton 18. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the X-axis
a a
(c) He+
(d) Li . +
from x = – to x = and carries a steady current I.
2 2
12. Four copper wires of same The magnetic field due to the section PQ at a point
B
length and same cross-sec- X = + a will be
tional area are connected in (a) proportional to a (b) proportional to a2
the form of a square ABCD. a
1
On passing currents in them A
a a
C (c) proportional to (d) zero.
O a
as shown in Fig. 181, the mag-
a 19. A proton is projected horizontally eastward in a uni-
netic field at the centre O of the
square is form magnetic field which is horizontal and southward
(a) Zero D in direction. The proton will be deflected
µ I (a) upward (b) downward
(b) 4 . 0
2π a (c) southward (d) northward.
2µ 0 I µ 0I Fig. 181
(c) (d) . [AFMC 2002]
2πa 2 πa
328 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
20. In Fig. 182, a straight conductor 24. In a coaxial, straight cable, the central conductor and
carrying current is shown. The di- the outer conductor carry equal currents in opposite
rection of the magnetic field at P directions. The magnetic field is zero
is P
(a) outside the cable
(a) normal to the plane of the paper, (b) inside the inner conductor
downwards
(c) inside the outer conductor
(b) normal to the plane of the paper,
upwards (d) in between the two conductors.
Fig. 182
(c) to the left of the plane of the pa- 25. An electron and proton of equal momentum enter a
per uniform magnetic field normal to the lines of force. If
(d) to the right of the plane of the paper. the radii of circular paths be re and rp respectivity, then
21. An electron is moving with a speed of 108 m s –1 r re m p
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of intensity (a) e = 1 (b) =
rp rp me
B. Suddenly intensity of the magnetic field is reduced
to B/2. What is the radius of the path if the original r mp r me
(c) e = (d) e = .
radius is r ? rp me rp mp
(a) No change (b) r/2
26. Fig. 184 represents an area A = 0.5 m2 situated in a
(c) 2r (d) r/9.
uniform field B = 2.0 T and making an angle of 60°
[MP PET 1993] with respect to the magnetic field. The value of the mag-
22. Of the following graphs, the one which shows the rela- netic flux through the area A would be equal to
tionship between the resistance R of a multirange mov-
ing coil voltmeter and its voltage range V is
B
60°
Fig. 184
3
(a) 2.0 Wb (b) Wb
2
(c) 3 Wb (d) 0.5 Wb.
[MP PMT 1999]
27. The sensitiveness of a moving coil galvanometer can
be increased by decreasing
(a) the number of turns in the coil
(b) the area of the coil
(c) the magnetic field
(d) the couple per unit twist of the suspension.
Fig. 183 [MP PMT 1996]
(a) a (b) b 28. A circular coil of wire carries a P
(c) c (d) d. current ; PQ is part of a very long
23. A vertical wire carries a current in upward direction. wire carrying a current and
An electron beam sent horizontally towards the wire passing close to the circular coil.
will be deflected If the directions of the currents
are those as shown in Fig. 185,
(a) towards right (b) towards left
what is the direction of the force
(c) upwards (d) downwards. Q
acting on PQ ?
[Haryana PMT 2001] Fig. 185
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 329
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d)
9. (e) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a)
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 331
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (a)
33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (b).
Solutions
1. Fm = Bqv sin θ 9. The current in P induces magnetic
Whether v = 0 or θ = 0, Fm = 0. field B along the circumference of
2. 5 = 0.01 [15 + R] or R = (500 – 15) Ω = 485 Ω. the circular coil of wire carrying a
clockwise current I as shown in
3. The direction of the resultant field for each of the given
Fig. 192. Since the magnetic field
case : current flow is tabulated in the table below
B is parallel to the current I in each
part of the wire Q, the wire thus ex-
into the out of resultant
page the page magnetic field periences no force (F = BIl sin θ, Fig. 192
θ = 0 ⇒ F = 0) in any direction.
A W and X Y and Z ←0
10. The force per unit length F/l between the two parallel
B W and Y X and Z (zero) l 0 conductors carrying sinusoidal alternating currents
C W and Z X and Y 0↓
differing in phase by π, say I0 sin ωt and I0 sin (ωt + π)
respectively and are at a distance d apart is given by
D X and Z W and Y (zero) l 0
µ0
E Y and Z W and X 0→
F/l = − I 2 sin2 (ωt)
2 πd 0
which is appropriately represented in graph d.
NBA
4. Current sensitivity = mv2 mv
k
11. Bqv = or r =
Clearly, increase of B increases sensitivity. r Bq
5. It is a case of semi-infinite current-carrying wire. In the given problem, r ∝ m.
6. Following table summarises the directions of the mag- 12. Magnetic fields due to ABC and ADC are equal in
netic fields produced by the various currents at loca- magnitude and opposite in direction.
tions P or Q 13. θ = 0°, Fm = Bqv sin 0° = 0.
15. No work is done.
Current Magnetic field
E 1500
At P into the plane At O in the direction 16. v = = m s–1.
of the diagram opposite to OX B 0.4
→ →
At P out of the plane At O in the direction OX 17. l | | B .
of the diagram 18. Magnetic field at a point on the axis is zero.
At Q into the plane At O in the direction OY 19. Apply Fleming’s left hand rule.
of the diagram
20. Apply right hand thumb rule.
At Q out of the plane At O in the direction
of the diagram opposite to OY 1
21. r ∝ .
At P parallel to OX At O into the plane
B
of the diagram 22. V = IR.
23. Apply Fleming’s left hand rule.
7. Fp = 2Fα
mv p
25. r = =
v1 4 Bq Bq
Bqv1 = 2 B(2q) v2 or = .
v2 1 In the given problem, p, B and q are constants.
332 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 φ
26. φ = B A cos θ = 2 × 0.5 × Wb = 0.5 Wb. 42. B = , φ = BA
2 A
So, SI unit is T m2.
NBA
27. Sensitivity =
k ∆mgl
43. ∆mg × l = NBIA or B =
If k is decreased, the sensitivity can be increased. NIA
B1
28. Magnetic field due to circular coil is perpendicular to µ 0I
plane and directed upwards. Now, use Fleming’s left 44. B1 = B2 =
2 πa 60°
hand rule. −7
4 π × 10 × 10 B2
µ NI 4π × 10−7 × 10 × 0.5 = T
33. B= 0 = T 2π × 0.1
2r 2 × 2 × 10−2 = 2 × 10–5 T
3.14
= × 10–4 T = 1.57 × 10–4 T. Now B= 3 × 2 × 10–5 T A B
2 Fig. 194
=2 3 × 10–5
T.
µ 0I 45. In y and z, equal division of current. Equal and oppo-
34. B = × 2 sin 60°
4 π (a cos 60° ) a site magnetic fields.
µ 0I 3 µ 0I 46. The rod is in non-uniform magnetic field.
= tan 60° = 60°
2πa 2πa µ 0I
47. B1 = B2 =
Applying right hand thumb rule, 2 πa
we find that the magnetic field
is perpendicular to the plane and
B1
directed inwards. a
θ
Fig. 193 B1 sin θ
µ 0I 120° µ 0I θ
35. B = × = 2d +
2a 360° 6 a θ B2 sin θ
Applying right hand palm rule, we find that the mag- a θ
netic field is directed perpendicular to the plane and B2
outwards.
36. Net magnetic field
=
3 µI µ 0 I
− = 0
LM
µ I 3 1
−
OP
.
Fig. 195
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XIII
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
1. A thin wire carrying a cur- 6. Two parallel wires carry currents of 20 A and 40 A in
rent of 8 A is bent as shown opposite directions. Another wire carrying a current
in Fig. 196. The curvature antiparallel to 20 A is placed midway between the two
radius is 10 cm. The magni- wires. The magnetic force on it will be
tude of the force vector act- O (a) towards 20 A
ing on a unit length of the Fig. 196 (b) towards 40 A
thin wire at O is
(c) zero
(a) 0.20 mN m–1 (b) 20 N m–1
(d) perpendicular to the plane of the currents.
(c) 200 N m–1 (d) 200.1 × 10 –19 N m–1.
7. A plotting compass is placed near a solenoid.
2. A metal wire of mass m slides without friction on two
When there is no current in the solenoid, the compass
rails spaced at a distance d apart. The track lies in a
needle points due north as shown in Fig. 197.
vertical uniform field of induction B. A constant cur-
rent I flows along one rail, across the wire and back
down the other rail. The velocity of the wire as a func-
tion of time, assuming it to be at rest initially is
(a) BId (b) BIdt
BIdt
(c) Bm Idt (d) .
m X Y
3. The plane of a rectangular loop of wire with sides 0.05 m
Fig. 197
and 0.08 m is parallel to a uniform magnetic field of
induction 1.5 × 10 –2 T. A current of 10 A flows through When there is a current from X to Y, the magnetic field
the loop. If the side of length 0.08 m is normal and the of the solenoid at the compass is equal in magnitude to
side of length 0.05 m is parallel to the lines of induc- the Earth’s magnetic field at that point.
tion, then torque is (in N m) In which direction does the plotting compass set ?
(a) 0 (b) 6000
A B C D
(c) 6 × 10 –4 (d) 1.2 × 10–2.
4. The magnetic field midway between two parallel cur-
rent-carrying wires, carrying currents I and 2I is B. If
the current in the wire with current I is switched off, Fig. 198
the magnetic field will become
(a) A (b) B
(a) B/3 (b) 2B
(c) C (d) D.
(c) B/2 (d) B/4.
8. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 50 Ω
5. An ammeter has a resistance of 5.0 Ω. It can measure
and gives a full-scale deflection for 10 mA. How could
a maximum current of 1.5 A. Its range may be increased
it be converted into an ammeter with a full-scale de-
to 6.0 A by using a shunt of
flection for 1 A ?
(a) 3/5 Ω (b) 5/3 Ω
50 50
(c) 8/3 Ω (d) 3/8 Ω. (a) Ω in series (b) Ω in parallel
99 99
[All India PM/PD 1999] (c) 0.01 Ω in series (d) 0.01 Ω in parallel.
334 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
9. A wire of length 3.0 cm is placed at right angles to a at a speed of 3.0 × 106 m s–1. If a proton of mass
magnetic field of flux density 0.040 T. The wire carries 1.8 × 10–27 kg were to move in a circle of the same
a current of 5.0 A. radius and if it were acted upon by the same mag-
netic field, then its speed will be
× × × × × × × (a) 3.0 × 106 m s–1 (b) 1.5 × 103 m s–1
4
(c) 6 × 10 m s –1
× × × × × × ×
region of uniform (d) cannot be estimated from the given data.
× × × × × × ×
magnetic flux 14. A milliammeter has a resistance of 12 Ω and gives a
× × × × × ×
5.0 A full-scale deflection for a current of 0.01 A. The instru-
× × × × × × × ment is to be converted into a voltmeter reading up to
× × × × × × × 3 V. The resistance that must be put in series with it is
(a) 102 Ω (b) 288 Ω
Fig. 199 (c) 300 Ω (d) 412 Ω.
15. A charged particle moves in a region having a uniform
What is the magnitude of the force which the field ex-
magnetic field and a parallel uniform electric field. At
erts on the wire ?
some instant, the velocity of the particle is perpendicu-
(a) less than 0.006 N (b) 0.0060 N lar to the field direction. The path of the particle will
(c) greater than 0.006 N but less than 0.6 N be
(d) 0.60 N (e) greater than 0.6 N. (a) a straight line
10. Two identical coils carry equal currents, have a com- (b) a circle
mon centre, and their planes are at right angles to each (c) a helix with uniform pitch
other. What is the ratio of the magnitudes of the result- (d) a helix with non-uniform pitch.
ant magnetic field at the centre and the field due to one 16. Consider a long, straight wire of cross-sectional area A
coil alone ? carrying a current i. Let there be n free electrons per
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 unit volume. An observer places himself on a trolley
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1. moving in the direction opposite to the current with a
11. A long straight wire XY lies in i
X speed v = and separated from the wire by a dis-
the same plane as a square loop nAe
tance r. The magnetic field seen by the observer is very
of wire PQRS which is free to P Q
nearly
move. The sides PS and QR are
initially parallel to XY. µ0 i
(a) (b) zero
2πr
The wire and loop carry steady
currents as shown in Fig. 200. µ0 i 2µ 0 i
(c) (d) . [MP PET 1994]
S R πr πr
What will be the effect on the
loop ? 17. A meter of resistance 5 Ω, fitted with a shunt resist-
Y
ance of 1 Ω, is in a circuit in which the current is 0.09
(a) It will move towards the long Fig. 200
wire.
A. The combined resistance of the meter and the shunt
(b) It will move away from the long
is
wire. 1
(a) 6 Ω (b) Ω
(c) It will rotate about an axis parallel to XY. 5
(d) It will be unaffected. 5 6
(c) Ω (d) Ω .
(e) It will contract. 6 5
12. A bar magnet 8 cm long is placed in the magnetic me- 18. In the above question, the potential difference across
ridian with the N-pole pointing towards geographical the meter is
north. Two neutral points separated by a distance of (a) 0.45 V (b) 0.075 V
6 cm are obtained on the equatorial axis of the magnet. (c) 0.54 V (d) 0.09 V.
If eBh = 3.2 × 10–5 tesla, then the pole strength of the
19. In Q. No. 17, the current through the shunt is
magnet is
(a) 0.018 A (b) 0.45 A
(a) 5 abampere cm (b) 10 abampere cm
(c) 0.54 A (d) 0.075 A.
(c) 2.5 abampere cm (d) 20 abampere cm.
20. A battery is connected between two points A and B on
13. An electron of mass 0.90 × 10–30 kg under the action the circumference of a uniform conducting ring of
of a magnetic force moves in a circle of 2.0 cm radius radius r and resistance R. One of the arcs AB of the
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 335
ring subtends and angle θ at the centre. The value of nBIl sin θ
the magnetic induction at the centre due to the current
nBIl sin θ
in the ring is
θ
(a) Proportional to 2 (180° – θ) N S N S
θ
(b) Inversely proportional to r
nBIl sin θ
(c) Zero, only if θ = 180°
nBIl sin θ
(d) Zero for all values of θ. [IIT 1996]
21. A magnet when placed perpendicular to a uniform field (c) (d )
of strength 10 –4 Wb m–2, experiences a couple of moment
4 × 10 –5 N m. What is its magnetic moment ? nBIl
(a) 0.4 A m 2
(b) 0.2 A m2
N S
q a
l B C
2a
Fig. 203
direction
of current µ 0I 2 µ 0I
(a) (b) −
4 πa 8π a
Fig. 201 8 µ 0I 2 µ 0I
(c) − (d) .
2 πa 8 πa
nBIl cos θ
25. Two ions have equal masses but one is singly-ionised
nBIl cos θ and the other is doubly-ionised. They are projected from
θ the same place in a uniform magnetic field with the
N
θ
S N S same velocity perpendicular to the field.
(a) Both ions will go along circles of equal radii
nBIl cos θ
(b) The circle described by the singly-ionised charge will have
nBIl cos θ a radius double that of the other circle.
(c) The two circles do not touch each other
(a ) (b)
(d) The two circles touch each other.
336 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
26. If a charged particle projected in a gravity-free room 32. There will be a force of repulsion between
deflects, (a) two parallel stream of electrons moving in the opposite
(a) there must be an electric field direction
(b) there must be a magnetic field (b) two parallel wires carrying current in the opposite
(c) both fields cannot be zero direction
(d) both fields can be non-zero. (c) two parallel electron streams going in the same direction
27. A long, straight wire of radius R carries a current dis- (d) two parallel wires carrying current in the same direc-
tributed uniformly over its cross-section. The magni- tion.
tude of the magnetic field is 33. A steady electric current is flowing through a cylindri-
(a) maximum at the axis of the wire cal conductor.
(b) minimum at the axis of the wire (a) The electric field at the axis of the conductor is zero
(c) maximum at the surface of the wire (b) The magnetic field at the axis of the conductor is zero
(d) minimum at the surface of the wire. (c) The electric field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero.
28. A long straight current-carrying wire is along X-axis. (d) The magnetic field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero.
There are points in the YZ plane such that 34. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) the directions of magnetic field are same (a) A magnetic dipole experiences maximum torque when it
(b) the directions of magnetic field are opposite is placed normal to the magnetic field
(c) the field may be regarded as uniform (b) The magnetic moment of a ring of radius R, carrying
(d) current at those points is non-zero. charge q, rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane
29. Susceptibility is positive for of the ring and passing through the centre of the ring is
(a) paramagnetic substances 1
ωq R2
(b) ferromagnetic substances 2
(c) The relation between angular momentum and magnetic
(c) non-magnetic substances
moment is true for every finite size body.
(d) diamagnetic substances. [CPMT 1990] (d) The minimum potential energy of a magnetic dipole is
30. In SI, the unit for magnetic moment is zero.
(a) T J –1 (b) J T –1 35. A charged particle goes undeflected in a region con-
(c) A m –1 (d) N m T –1. taining electric and magnetic field. It is possible that
31. Mark out the correct options : → → → →
(a) Diamagnetism occurs in all materials. (a) E | | B , v | | E
(b) Diamagnetism results from the partial alignment of per- → →
manent magnetic moment. (b) E is not parallel to B
(c) The magnetising field intensity H is always zero in free → → → →
space. (c) v | | B but E is not parallel to B
(d) The magnetic field of induced magnetic moment is oppo- → → → →
site to the applied field. (d) E | | B but v is not parallel to E .
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b)
9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a)
17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (e) 24. (b)
25. (b, d) 26. (c, d) 27. (b, c) 28. (a, b) 29. (a, b) 30. (b, d) 31. (a, d) 32. (a, b)
33. (b, c) 34. (a, b, c) 35. (a, b).
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM 337
Solutions
µ 0I 4 π × 10 − 7 × 8 the resultant field is B as indicated in the diagram.
1. B= = T = 8π × 10 –6 T Deflection of needle in compass is thus best illustrated
4r 4 × 10 × 10 −2
in diagram A.
F = BIl
F 64 π
= BI = 8π × 10 –6 × 8 N m–1 = mN m–1
l 1000
= 0.20 mN m–1
2. F = BId
BId
acceleration =
m
BIdt
Velocity =
m Fig. 206
3. F = BIl = 1.5 × 10–2 × 10 × 0.08 N = 1.2 × 10–2 N
50 × 10 × 10 −3 0.5 × 100 50
8. S = Ω= Ω = Ω.
0.05 m 1 − 10 × 10 −3 99 99
9. Force acting on wire has a magnitude given by
0.08 m
10 A
Fig. 204
20A
20A 40A
r r
Fig. 205
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a
uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field when the particle completes one full
circle is
F Mv I 2π R
2
(a) BQv2πR (b) GH R JK (c) zero (d) BQ2πR [AIEEE 2003]
l A wire of certain length carries a steady current. It is first bent to form a circular coil of one turn. The same wire is
next bent to form a circular coil of three turns. The ratio of magnetic induction at the centre of the coil in the two cases
is
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 9 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 1 [Kerala PMT 2003]
Sol. Ist case :
Number of turns in the coil = 1
l
∴ 1 × 2πr1 = l (length of wire) or r1 =
2π
µ0 n1I µ 0I µ πI
B1 = = = 0
2r1 2(l / 2π) l
IInd case :
Number of turns in the coil = 3
l
∴ 3 × 2πr2 = l or r2 =
6π
µ0 n2I 3µ 0I 9µ 0πI
B2 = = =
2r2 2(l / 6π) l
∴ B1 = B2 = 1 : 9
So, (b) is the right choice.
UNIT XIV
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
l Electromagnetic induction l Faraday’s law l Induced emf and current l Lenz’s law l Eddy
currents l Self and mutual inductance l Alternating currents l Peak and rms value of alternating
current/voltage l Reactance and impedance l LC oscillations l LCR series circuit (Phasor
diagram) l Resonant circuits and Q-factor l Power in AC circuits l Wattless current l AC
generator and Transformer
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 10 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
SYNOPSIS
S. Time in terms Angle θ between the normal Position of coil w.r.t. Magnetic flux φ Induced emf
No. of period of to the plane of the coil magnetic field
revolution and the direction of
T magnetic field
T
2. 90° Plane of coil parallel to B 0 NBAω (max. value)
4
T
3. 180° Plane of coil normal to B NBA (max. value) 0
2
3T
4. 270° Plane of coil parallel to B 0 – NBAω
4
5. T 360° Plane of coil normal to B NBA (max. value) 0
1
E= Bl2ω where ω is the uniform angular velocity of the rotating rod.
2
8. MOTION OF A CONDUCTOR IN A MAGNETIC FIELD AND FORMULAE FOR MOTIONAL EMF, IN-
DUCED CURRENT AND INDUCED CHARGE
All the important data is summarised in the following table :
dφ
1. Induced emf E=– open or closed No volt
dt
1 dφ
2. Induced current I=– closed Yes ampere
R dt
1
3. Induced charge dQ = – dφ closed Yes coulomb
R
E2 B2l 2v2
4. Power required to pull a loop out of a P= = I2 R = open or closed Yes watt
R R
magnetic field (= Induced power)
× × × × × × × × ×
F B
× × × × × × 2× × × I
× × × × × × × × ×
×F × × × × × × × ×
1
× × × × × × × × l
× × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × ×
F v
× × × × × × 3× × ×
Fig. 4
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 345
l When a straight conductor of length l moves with 11. SELF-INDUCTANCE OF A PLANE COIL
constant velocity v in a magnetic field B, the induced
emf, E = Blv when l and v are both 90° to B. µ 0πN2r
L= henry
l When l or v is parallel to B, then E = 0.
2
l Fleming’s left hand rule is used to determine the di- 12. SELF-INDUCTANCE OF A SOLENOID
rection of force on a current-carrying conductor.
l Fleming’s right hand rule is used to determine the
µ 0N2 A
L=
direction of induced current/induced emf. l
Stretch the Motion of
If no iron or similar material is nearby, then the value
thumb and the first two conductor of self-inductance depends only on the geometrical factors
fingers of your right (length, cross-sectional area, number of turns).
hand in mutually per- Thumb A coil having a sufficiently high inductance is called
pendicular directions. If First ‘inductor’ just as a conductor having a high resistance is
the first finger points in finger called ‘resistor’ and a condenser of high capacitance is called
the direction of the mag- ‘capacitor’.
netic field, the thumb in Field
the direction of motion of 13. ENERGY ASSOCIATED WITH SELF-INDUCT-
the conductor, then the ANCE
central finger points in Central dW = – EIdt, where E is the induced emf
the direction of the in- finger dI
duced emf or induced dW = L Idt = LIdI
Current dt
current in the conductor The total work done in maintaining a steady current
[Fig. 5]. Fig. 5
I0 in the coil is given by
z z
Illustration 1. State (Yes/No) whether emf is in- I0 1
duced in the following cases : W= dW = LIdI = LI02
(i) A conductor falling freely in NS direction. 0 2
(ii) A conductor falling freely in EW direction. If I0 = 1, then L = 2W.
(iii) A metallic satellite orbiting in a plane which is So, the self-inductance of a coil is equal to twice the
also the equatorial plane of earth. work done in establishing unit current in the coil.
(iv) A metallic satellite orbiting in a plane inclined to 14. To calculate emf induced at break is, in general, a
the equatorial plane of earth. complicated business. But it can be easily done for
(v) Aeroplane/Train moving horizontally. one important practical circuit. In order to prevent
Answer. (i) No (ii) Yes (iii) No (iv) Yes (v) Yes. sparking at the contacts of the switch in an inductive
Explanation. (i) l || BH and v || BV circuit, a capacitor is often connected across them.
(ii) v, l and BH are mutually perpendicular When the circuit is broken, the current continues to
(iii) v || BH, l || v (iv) Resolve v into two rectangular flow for a brief time by charging the capacitor. Since
components the current does not decay rapidly therefore back emf
(v) Axle of train and wings of aeroplane shall decide. never rises so high as to cause sparking.
The energy equation for such a circuit is
9. RELATION BETWEEN HENRY AND ABHENRY
1 1
CV2 = LI2.
1 volt 108 abvolt 2 2
1 henry = =
1 ampere / second 1 abampere / second 15. The coefficient of coupling of two coils is a measure of
10
or 1 henry = 109 abhenry the coupling between the two coils. If L1 and L2 are
the coefficients of self-induction of the two coils and M
The smaller units of self-inductance are millihenry
is the coefficient of mutual induction of the two coils,
and microhenry.
then the coefficient of coupling is given by
1 mH = 10–3 H and 1 µH = 10–6 H
M
K= .
10. RELATION BETWEEN HENRY AND WEBER L1L2
In Fig. 7, the value of coefficient of coupling is mini-
φ 1 Wb
L= ∴ 1H= = 1 Wb A–1 mum. This value is maximum in Fig. 8. In Fig. 9, it
I 1A has intermediate value.
Note. The value of coefficient of coupling is always less
than one.
346 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l If the cross-sectional areas of two co-axial solenoids are different, then the cross-sectional area of the inner solenoid is
to be considered in the numerical calculation of mutual inductance.
l If the lengths of the two co-axial solenoids are different, then the length of the bigger solenoid is to be considered in the
numerical calculation of M.
H 2 r JK
0 p p 2.718
s
p or I = I0 (1 – 0.368) = 0.632 I0
But φ = MIp The time constant of LR circuit is the time dur-
ing which the current grows from zero to 0.632 times
µ 0N p N s the maximum value.
∴ M= A = k NpNs
2 rp (iii) I-t graph for growth of current in LR cir-
cuit
where k is a constant which depends upon the area of the
coils.
H
I = I0 1 − e
K
L
Fig. 7
Fig. 6
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 347
(iv) Theoretically, current takes infinite time to grow (ii) When t = CR (time constant), then
to its maximum value.
FG 1IJ
19. DECAY OF CURRENT IN LR CIRCUIT
Q = Q0 (1 – e–1) = Q0 1 −
H e K
(i) Helmholtz equation for the decay of current is as FG 1 IJ = Q
under : H
= Q0 1 −
2.718 K 0 (1 – 0.368) = 0.632 Q0
R
− t The time constant of CR circuit is the time taken
I = I0 e L
by the capacitor to get charged to 0.632 times the
L maximum charge.
(ii) When t = (time constant), then I = 0.368 I0. (iii) Q-t graph for charging of capacitor in CR
R
circuit
The time constant of LR circuit may also be
defined as the time taken by the current to fall from
maximum to 0.368 times the maximum value of
current.
(iii) I-t graph for decay of current in LR circuit
I0
Fig. 10
L2 > L1 (iv) The current at any instant during the charging of
Current
Fig. 8
Average/Virtual values of AC
(i) Average or mean value of alternating current over posi-
2
tive half cycle is I or 0.637 I0 or 63.7% I0.
π 0
(ii) Average or mean value of alternating current over nega-
2
Fig. 12 tive half cycle is – I or – 0.637 I0 or – 63.7% I0.
π 0
(vi) I-t graph for discharging of capacitor. (iii) Average or mean value of alternating current over one
complete cycle is zero.
(iv) Average or mean value of alternating emf over positive
2
half cycle is E or 0.637 E0 or 63.7% E0.
π 0
(v) Average or mean value of alternating emf over negative
2
half cycle is – E or – 0.637 E0 or – 63.7% E0.
π 0
(vi) Average or mean value of alternating emf over one com-
plete cycle is zero.
1
(vii) Virtual value of alternating current is times (or
2
0.707 times) the peak value of current.
1
(viii) Virtual value of alternating emf is times (or 0.707
2
Fig. 13 times) the peak value of emf.
H
amount of charge in a circuit in the time of half cycle i.e.
K
2
Explanation.
2A
as is sent by the given alternating current in the same cir- 22 + 22 + 22
Iv = A
cuit in the same time FG i.e. IJ .
T 3 Fig. 14
H 2K =2A
Fig. 20
Fig. 21
Fig. 17
Illustration 4. What would be the effect on current
Illustration 3. What would be the effect on current in a purely inductive AC circuit if the frequency of the alter-
in a purely resistive AC circuit if the frequency of the alter- nating emf is increased ?
nating emf is increased ? Ans. Current will decrease.
Ans. No effect. Explanation. When frequency is increased,
Explanation. R is not affected by the frequency of FG = E IJ
v
the applied voltage.
XL ( = 2πf L) increases. So Iv
H XK L
decreases.
29. POWER IN A PURELY INDUCTIVE CIRCUIT Illustration 6. What would be the effect on current
The average power consumed over one full cycle is in a purely capacitive AC circuit if the frequency of the al-
zero. ternating emf is increased ?
Ans. Current increases.
30. AC THROUGH A CAPACITOR
Explanation. When the frequency is increased,
C FG = 1 IJ FG = E IJ
H 2πfC K
(i) If I = I0 sin ωt, then v
FG π IJ
XC decreases. So, Iv
H XK C
increases.
E = E0 sin ωt −
H 2 K 32. POWER IN A PURELY CAPACITIVE CIRCUIT
Fig. 23 The power consumed over one cycle is zero.
(ii) The variation of E E = E0 sin wt
33. AC THROUGH LR CIRCUIT
and I with ωt is shown be-
low. In this representation,
L R
E = E0 sin ωt E, I If I = I 0 sin ωt,
®
FG π IJ wt then
and I = I0 sin ωt +
H 2 K E = E0 sin (ωt + φ)
If I = I 0 sin ωt,
(a) (b) then
Fig. 27 E = E0 sin (ωt + φ)
Ans. Capacitor allows alternating current to flow
through it but does not allow direct current to flow through. Fig. 30
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 351
39. Phasor representations. Let us consider the phasor 1
diagram of Fig. 31. It shows the maximum current (iii) When Lω = , then
Cω I E
I0, the current I and the phase angle (ωt – φ) at any tan φ = 0 or φ = 0°.
instant of time. In this case, the current
Fig. 32 shows three phasors representing the voltages and emf are in the same phase
across the three circuit elements at any instant of time. [Fig. 36].
Fig. 36
H
R 2 + Lω −
Cω K
FG 1 IJ 2
The term R2 + Lω −
H Cω K represents the effective
Fig. 33
Special Cases
1 E
(i) If Lω > , then φ is
Cω
+ ve. f
In this case, the emf leads I
the current by a phase angle φ. This
is represented vectorially in Fig. Fig. 34
34.
1 Fig. 37 Fig. 38
(ii) If Lω < , then φ is I
Cω
– ve. ∴ =V2 VR2
+ (VL – VC)2
f
In this case, the emf lags be- Thus, if VR is 40 volt, VL is 60 V and VC is 30 V, then
hind the current by a phase angle E V ≠ 40 + 60 + 30 volt, i.e., V ≠ 130 volt.
φ. This is represented vectorially in
Fig. 35. Fig. 35 But V= ( 40)2 + ( 60 − 30)2 volt = 50 volt
352 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
I ( Lω ) − I G
H Cω K Lω −
1 H
R 2 + Lω −
Cω K
tan φ = or tan φ = Cω
IR R Special Cases
41. POWER IN LCR CIRCUIT
Case (i) If the AC circuit contains pure resistance,
Average power over complete cycle, then φ = 0°.
W E0I0 E I
Pav = = cos φ = 0 × 0 cos φ = EvIv cos φ Ev
2
T 2 2 2 ∴ Pav = EvIv cos 0° = EvIv =
R
R
Also, Pav = EvIv Case (ii) If the AC circuit contains pure inductance,
F
+ G Lω −
1 I
2
then φ = 90°. ∴ Pav = 0
R2
H Cω JK Case (iii) If the AC circuit contains pure capacitance,
then φ = 90°. ∴ Pav = 0
Ev
or Pav = Ev × Case (iv) If the AC circuit contains L and R, then
FG 1 IJ 2
H
R2 + L ω −
Cω K cos φ =
R
2 R + L2ω 2
2
R Ev R
× =
F
+ G Lω −
1 I
2
FG 1 IJ 2
2
H Cω JK
R Ev R
R 2
H
R 2 + Lω −
Cω K ∴ Pav = EvIv
R2 + L2ω 2
=
R + L2ω 2
2
R 2
Ev R
ent power or virtual power. cos φ = ∴ Pav =
1 1 1
Lw
in kVA.
f
cos φ is called the power fac-
R
tor of LCR circuit. Its value var-
ies from zero to 1. Fig. 39
S.No. AC circuit containing emf and correspond- Opposition Phase relation between Average Power factor
ing current offered emf and current power
43. WATTLESS CURRENT OR IDLE CURRENT So, there is no phase difference between current and
If the voltage and current differ in phase by π/2, then voltage.
This is case of resonance in AC circuit.
power factor, cos φ = cos 90° = 0
1 1 1
In this case, the current has no power. Such a cur- Now, Lω = or ω2 = or (2πf)2 =
Cω LC LC
rent is, therefore called wattless current. Since this cur-
rent does not perform any work therefore this current may 1 1
or f2 = or f =
also be called idle current. (2π )2 LC 2 π LC
44. RESONANCE
(a) Series Resonance Circuit
A series resonance circuit is that circuit in which in-
ductance L, capacitance C and resistance R are connected in
series. The impedance of this circuit has a minimum value
and the current through the circuit is maximum.
FG
R 2 + Lω −
1 IJ 2
Impedance in LCR circuit, Z =
H Cω K
1
Lω −
The phase angle φ is given by tan φ = Cω
R
1
When Lω = , then Z = R
Cω
In this case, LCR circuit is a purely resistive circuit Fig. 40
and has no impedance. The current in the circuit is maxi- which gives the frequency at which resonance occurs. This
mum. frequency is called series resonance frequency or simply,
Also, tan φ = 0 or φ = 0° resonance frequency. It is denoted by fR. The variation of
current with frequency is as shown in Fig. 40.
354 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(b) Parallel Resonance Circuit The peak of the curve corresponds to maximum power
In this circuit, coil of in- Pm at ωr. It is further clear from the graph that P is small
ductance L and a capacitor of for very low and very high frequencies.
capacitance C are connected in (ii) Half maximum power points. The points A
parallel with the source of AC and B on the graph of Fig. 43 have special significance. These
supply as shown in Fig. 41. Par-
points are known as ‘half maximum power points’. This is
allel resonance circuits are used
due to the fact that power corresponding to these points is
in radio receivers for the pur-
pose of tuning. A brief analyti- one-half of that corresponding to the peak of the graph.
cal treatment of parallel reso- Fig. 41 The ratio of resonance frequency and band width is
nant circuit is given here : known as quality factor (Q).
E0 FG π E IJ
+ 0 sin ωt +
π FG IJ ωr ω L
Current, I =
XL H
sin ωt −
2 XC K 2 H K ∴ Q=
2∆ω
= r
R
F 1 + 1I
= E0 cos ωt − GH X X JK
L C
Q factor is a measure of the sharpness of resonance.
Resonance will be sharp if the value of bandwidth (2∆ω) is
F 1 + CωIJ
cos ωt G −
small. This is of course possible only when the power-
= E0
H Lω K frequency curve falls steeply around ω = ωr.
(iii) Variation of current amplitude with angu-
1
When = Cω, then I = 0. lar frequency. Fig. 44 shows a graph of angular frequency
Lω
So, at parallel resonance fre- ω versus current amplitude I0. At the resonance frequency
ωr, we get the maximum current amplitude (Iom). Points
F = 1 I , the current is
quency GH 2π LC JK Fig. 42
where I0 =
Iom
are half maximum power points.
2
zero.
Clearly, parallel resonant circuit offers maximum
impedance at parallel resonant frequency. Parallel resonant
circuits are called rejector or filter circuits or anti-resonance
circuits.
Fig. 44
There are many radio stations in the world which S. No. Step-down transformer Step-up transformer
relay programmes on different but close frequencies. If the
Q-factor of the receiver circuit is not sufficiently high, then 1. It decreases the alternat- It increases the alternating
ing voltage. (Es < Ep) voltage. (Es > Ep)
it would be very difficult to tune them separately. As an
example, the Q-value should be of the order of 100 in a me- 2. Secondary current is Secondary current is weaker
dium wave receiver set. stronger than primary than primary current.
current. (Is > Ip) (Is < Ip)
46. TRANSFORMER
3. The number of turns in the The number of turns in the
primary is more than the secondary is more than the
number of turns in the number of turns in the pri-
secondary. (Np > Ns) mary. (Ns > Np)
This current is of reasonable small value because of (iv) Efficiency of Motor delivering maximum out-
the increased resistance. As the motor starts picking up speed, put
we go on reducing the value of R, till at full speed R may be e
zero. In any model, the starter is automatic in functioning We know that η=
E
so that as we stop the motor, the moving arm of the starter
E
swings back automatically to the high R side. Thus the mo- When output is maximum, e=
tor is saved from damage. This is the need of the starter 2
resistance. E/2 1 1
∴ η= = or η = × 100 = 50%
(ii) Efficiency. It is ratio of the output mechani- E 2 2
cal power to the input mechanical power. So, a motor delivering maximum output has an effi-
Let, R = resistance of armature coil, E = applied emf, ciency of only 50%.
e = back emf, I = current in the armature (v)
E−e S. No. Generator/Dynamo Electric Motor
Now, I=
R
Electric power supplied by the external source i.e. in- 1. It converts mechanical en- It converts electrical energy
ergy into electrical energy. into mechanical energy.
put electrical power = EI
Power wasted as heat = I2R 2. It is based on the principle It is based on the fact that a
∴ Output mechanical power = EI – I2R of electromagnetic induc- torque acts on a current-car-
tion. rying coil placed in magnetic
I(E − IR) E − IR
∴ efficiency, η= = field.
EI E
e 3. Coil is rotated in a mag- A coil is placed in a magnetic
or η= (∵ e = E – IR) netic field to induce emf in field. A current is passed
E the coil. through the coil to rotate it.
back emf 4. The armature coil consists The armature coil consists of
∴ efficiency = of a large number of turns a large number of turns of in-
applied emf
of insulated copper wire. sulated copper wire.
It is clear from the above equation that the efficiency
increases with increase in back emf. If the back emf is equal
ILLUSTRATIONS INDICATING LATEST EXAMINA-
to the applied emf, then the efficiency is maximum i.e. 100%.
TION TRENDS
(iii) Condition for maximum output mechanical
power Illustration 7. As P
Q
Output mechanical power = EI – I2R shown in the Fig. 46, P and Q
are two coaxial conducting
= I(E – IR) = eI (∵ e = E – IR) loops separated by some dis- E
FG E − eIJ tance. When the switch S is
=e
H R K closed, a clockwise current IP
flows in P (as seen by E) and
S
Illustration 8. Two circular coils can be arranged (a) free electrons in the conductor drift from higher
in any of the three situations shown in Fig. 47. Their mu- potential end to lower potential end.
tual inductance will be (b) free electrons in the conductor drift from lower
potential end to higher potential end.
(c) free electrons in the conductor do not drift along
its length, since there is no electric field inside
the conductor.
(A) (B) (C) (d) free electrons in the conductor do not drift along
Fig. 47
its length, since the force on each electron due to
the electric field is balanced by the force produced
(a) maximum in situation (A) on it by the magnetic field.
(b) maximum in situation (B) [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002]
(c) maximum in situation (C) Explanation. There is an electric field in the con-
(d) the same in all situations. [IIT Screening 2001] ductor.
Explanation. Maximum flux linkage in (a) is maxi- So, (a) is the right choice.
mum. Illustration 12. A short-circuited coil is placed in a
So, (a) is the right choice. time-varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated
Illustration 9. A metallic due to the current induced in the coil. If the number of
square loop ABCD is moving in turns were to be quadrupled and the wire radius halved,
its own plane with velocity v in a A B the electrical power dissipated would be
uniform magnetic field perpen- (a) halved (b) the same
dicular to its plane as shown in
v (c) doubled (d) quadrupled
Fig. 48. An electric field is induced
[IIT Screening 2002]
(a) in AD, but not in BC D C
2
(b) in BC, but not in AD e dB l
Explanation. P = , e = – NA ,R∝ 2
(c) neither in AD nor in BC R dt r
Fig. 48
(d) in both AD and BC. N2 r 2
∴ P∝
[IIT Screening 2001] l
→ →
Explanation. In the case of AB and DC, l || v . So, Clearly, P is unchanged when N is doubled and r is
no induced emf. halved.
So, (d) is the right choice. So, (d) is the right choice.
6W
Illustration 10. The figure × × × × × × × × Illustration 13. In the A
shows a wire sliding on two parallel × × × × × × × × circuit shown in Fig. 50, the a.c.
l v
conducting rails placed at a separation × × × × × × × source gives a voltage V = 20 cos 5 mH, 4 W 50 mF
× × × × × × × ×
l. A magnetic field B exists in a direc- (2000 t). Neglecting source resist-
× × × × × × × ×
tion perpendicular to the plane of the ance, the voltmeter and amme-
rails. The force required to keep the Fig. 49 V
ter readings will be
wire moving at a constant velocity v will be Fig. 50
(a) 0V, 0.47 A
µ Bv
(a) evB (b) 0 (b) 1.68 V, 0.47 A
4π l
(c) Blv (d) zero. (c) 0 V, 1.4 A (d) 5.6 V, 1.4 A.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002] [KCET 2002]
Explanation. No change in flux. So, no force is Explanation. XL = Lω = 5 × 10–3 × 2000 Ω = 10 Ω
required. 1 1 106
XC = = = = 10 Ω
So, (d) is the right choice. Cω 50 × 10−6 × 2000 105
Illustration 11. A conductor of length l is moving Clearly XL = XC. This is a case of resonance.
→
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction B 20 2
→
Iv = = = 2 A = 1.44 A
and perpendicular to its length with a uniform velocity v . 2 × 10 2
As a result, an emf ε = Blv is induced between its ends. Voltmeter reading = 1.4 × 4 volt = 5.6 volt.
Under this condition, So, (d) is the right choice.
358 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
10. A copper ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet 17. What voltage is developed across the axle of the wheels
is dropped through the ring with its length along the of a train ? Given : speed of train = 72 km h–1, the
axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling mag- horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field = 0.40
net is × 10 –4 T, angle of dip = 30°, length of axle = 1.5 m.
(a) equal to that due to gravity
20 × 0.4 × 1.5 × 10 −4
(b) less than that due to gravity (a) volt (b) 3 × 20 × 0.4 × 5 × 10 –4 V
3
(c) more than that due to gravity
(c) 0 (d) 0.4 × 10 –4 × 72 × 0.1 V.
(d) depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the
[Pb. CET 1997]
magnet. [MP PMT 2001 ; MP PET 1990]
18. A coil of area 5 cm2
and having 20 turns is placed in
11. In an induction coil, the coefficient of mutual induc-
a uniform magnetic field of 103 gauss. The normal to
tion is 4 henry. It a current of 5 ampere in the pri-
1 the plane of the coil makes an angle of 60° with the
mary coil is cut off in s, the emf at the termi- magnetic field. The flux in maxwell through the coil
1500
nals of the secondary coil will be is
(a) 15 kV (b) 60 kV (a) 105 (b) 5 × 104
(c) 10 kV (d) 30 kV. (c) 2 × 104 (d) 5 × 103. [CPMT 1998]
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1997] 19. When a metallic sphere is moved in a magnetic field,
12. The coefficient of mutual induction of two coils is it gets heated due to
6 mH. If the current flowing in one coil is 2 ampere, (a) direct current (b) eddy currents
then the induced emf in the second coil will be (c) alternating current (d) additional current.
(a) 12 mV (b) 3 mV
20. When a magnet is being moved towards a coil, the
(c) 3 V (d) zero. [Pb. CET 1996] induced emf does not depend upon
13. Direction of induced emf is determined by (a) the number of turns of the coil
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) Fleming’s right hand rule (b) the motion of the magnet
(c) Maxwell’s rule (d) Ampere’s rule of swimming.
(c) the magnetic moment of the magnet
[SCRA 1996]
(d) the resistance of the coil. [Manipal 1996]
14. The momentum in mechanics is expressed as m × v.
The analogous expression in electricity is 21. If the rate of change of current in the coil is unity,
(a) I × Q (b) I × V
then the induced emf is equal to
(a) coefficient of self-induction
(c) L × I (d) L × Q. [BITS 1994]
(b) magnetic flux linked with the coil
15. A copper ring is sus-
pended by a thread in (c) number of turns in the coil
a vertical plane. The (d) thickness of the coil.
north pole of a magnet 22. The ‘henry’ is a unit of
is brought near the
(a) capacitance (b) magnetic field
ring in horizontal di-
rection as shown in Fig. 51 (c) inductance (d) resistance.
Fig. 51. What will be ef- [CMC Vellore 1993]
fect on the ring ? 23. Keeping all other factors same, the number of turns
(a) Ring will be attracted towards the magnet
of a coil is doubled. The magnetic flux linked with
(b) Ring will be repelled away the coil is
(c) Ring will make simple harmonic motion (a) doubled (b) halved
(d) No change in the position of ring. [WB JEE 1995] (c) trebled (d) quadrupled.
16. The average emf induced in a coil in which the cur- [JIPMER 1995]
rent changes from 2 ampere to 4 ampere in 0.05 sec-
24. Induction furnace is based on the heating effect of
ond is 8 volt. What is the self inductance of the coil ?
(a) eddy current (b) magnetic field
(a) 0.1 H (b) 0.2 H
(c) electric field (d) gravitational field.
(c) 0.4 H (d) 0.8 H. [MP PMT 1986]
[AFMC 2002]
360 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
25. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field 34. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is
which changes from B0 to 4 B0 in time interval t. The being brought closer to a vertical conducting coil along
emf induced in the coil will be the perpendicular direction. The direction of the in-
(a) 3 A0 B0/t (b) 4 A0 B0/t duced current in the conducting coil will be
(c) 3 B0/A0t (d) 4 B0/A0t. [MNR 2002] (a) Horizontal (b) Vertical
(c) Clockwise (d) Anticlockwise.
26. To reduce the loss of energy as heat due to eddy
currents, the soft iron core is laminated. The angle [MP PMT 1994]
between the planes of these sheets and the magnetic 35. Which of the following does not depend upon the
induction is magnetic effect of some sort ?
(a) zero (b) 45° (a) Moving coil galvanometer (b) Hot wire ammeter
(c) 60° (d) 90°. [MP PMT 1985] (c) Dynamo (d) Electric motor
27. When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, the [AFMC 1993]
direction of induced emf changes once in each 2
36. A coil of area 80 cm and 50 turns is rotating with
(a) 1 revolution (b) 1 revolution 2000 revolutions per minute about an axis perpen-
4 2
dicular to a magnetic field of 0.05 T. The maximum
(c) 1 revolution (d) 2 revolutions.
value of the emf developed in it is
[MP PMT 1991]
10π
28. A current increases from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 sec- (a) 200 π V (b) V
ond in a coil of 5 mH. Then the magnitude of the 3
induced emf will be 4π 2
(a) 0.005 V (b) 0.05 V (c) V (d) V. [MP PMT 1994]
3 3
(c) 0.5 V (d) 5 V.
37. Fig. 52 shows two bulbs B1 and B2 , resistor R and
[MP PET/PMT 1998]
an inductor L. When the switch S is turned off,
29. The unit of magnetic flux is
(a) Wb m–2 (b) Wb
(c) H (d) Am–1.
[MP PMT 1994 ; MP PET 1995]
30. The current passing through a choke coil of 5 henry
is decreasing at the rate of 2 A s–1. The emf develop-
ing across the coil is
(a) 10 V (b) – 10 V
(c) 2.5 V (d) – 2.5 V. [MP PMT 1990]
31. In a circuit, the induced emf increases if
(a) the flux linked are more
(b) the rate of change of flux is greater
(c) there is no change in the flux Fig. 52
(d) none of the above. [Manipal 1994] (a) both B1 and B2 die out promptly.
32. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation (b) both B1 and B2 die out with some delay.
of (c) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay.
(a) Charge (b) Momentum
(d) B2 dies out promptly but B1 with some delay.
(c) Mass (d) Energy.
[MP PMT 2000] [CPMT 1998]
33. A metallic rod falls under gravity with ends pointing 38. An emf of 5 volt is produced by a self inductance,
in the direction east and west. Then when the current changes at a steady rate from 3 to
(a) an emf is induced in it as it cuts H 2 ampere in 1 millisecond. The value of self induct-
(b) no emf is induced at all ance is
(c) two emf’s of equal but opposite signs are induced giving no (a) zero (b) 5 henry
net emf.
(c) 5000 henry (d) 5 millihenry.
(d) the gravitational field opposes its downward motion.
[BHU 1994] [MP PMT 1991]
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 361
39. An electron moves along the Y Y
line AB, which lies in the
same plane as a circular loop
of conducting wire as shown
in the diagram. What will be
the direction of current ind- |e| |e|
uced if any, in the loop ? Fig. 53
(a) No current will be induced
(b) The current will be clockwise O 1 2 X O 1 2 X
(c) The current will be anticlockwise t t
(d) The current will change direction as the electron pass by. (c) (d)
× × × × × ×
Fig. 54 Fig. 56
Blv Blv
Y Y (a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise
R R
2Blv
(c) anticlockwise (d) zero. [IIT 1989]
R
46. “The direction of the induced current in a circuit is
|e| |e| always such that it opposes the cause due to which it
is produced.” This Law is named as
(a) Ohm’s law (b) Lenz’s law
O 1 2 X O 1 2 X
(c) Kirchhoff ’s law (d) Faraday’s law.
t t
[MP PET 1996]
(a) (b)
362 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
47. An emf of 100 millivolt is induced in a coil when the 50. A copper ring is suspended by a long, light rod piv-
current in another nearby coil becomes 10 ampere oted at X so that it may swing as a pendulum, as
from zero in 0.1 second. The coefficient of mutual shown in the diagram below. An electromagnet is
induction between the two coils will be mounted so that the ring passes over it as it swings.
(a) 1 millihenry (b) 10 millihenry
The ring is set into oscillation with switch K open.
(c) 100 millihenry (d) 1000 millihenry.
What happens to the motion after switch K has been
[MP PET 1996] closed ?
48. X and Y are solenoids wound on cardboard tubes. X (a) The periodic time will decrease.
carries a constant current I as shown below and
(b) The amplitude will increase because the ring is acceler-
moves with constant speed away from Y along the ated towards the magnet.
common axis of the two tubes.
(c) The ring will be brought to rest with the rod inclined to the
As a result of electromagnetic induction, a current
vertical.
will flow in the straight wire MN and there will be a
force between X and Y. Which one of the following X
correctly describes both the current and the force ?
Suspending rod
X
Copper ring
Electromagnet
I
K
Fig. 58
(d) The oscillation will continue at constant amplitude while
the battery can supply energy
(e) The oscillation will be heavily damped.
M N 51. The diagram represents an aircraft of length l, wing-
span, x, flying horizontally at speed v in a region
Fig. 57 where the Earth’s magnetic field, of uniform flux
Nature and direction of Nature of density B, is inclined at an angle θ to the Earth’s
current in straight wire MN force surface.
(a) diminishing, N to M attraction
(b) diminishing, M to N repulsion
(c) diminishing, N to M repulsion
(d) constant, M to N repulsion
(e) constant, N to M attraction. x
49. A 10 m long copper wire while remaining in the east-
west horizontal direction is falling down with a speed
of 5.0 ms–1. If the horizontal component of the earth’s l
v
magnetic field is 0.3 × 10 –4 weber/m2, the emf devel- θ
oped between the ends of the wire is
(a) 0.15 volt (b) 1.5 volt B
Which expression gives the magnitude of the emf gen- 55. An artificial satellite with a metal surface is moving
erated between the wingtips by electromagnetic in- about the earth in a circular orbit. A current will be
duction ? induced in the satellite, if
(a) Blv sin θ (b) Bxv (a) the plane of the orbit coincides with the plane of the equa-
tor.
(c) Blv (d) Bxv sin θ.
(b) the plane of the orbit is inclined to the plane of the equator.
52. In Fig. 60 (a) and Fig. 60 (b), two air-cored solenoids (c) the plane of the orbit coincides with the plane of satellite
P and Q have been shown. They are and the speed of satellite is more than 8 km/s
(d) the plane of the orbit coincides with the plane of the equa-
tor and the speed of satellite is less than 8 km s–1.
[AIIMS 2001]
56. A force of 10 newton is required to move conducting
loop through a non uniform magnetic field at 2 m s–1.
The rate of production of internal energy in watt in
loop is
Fig. 60 (a) (10/2) × 2 (b) 10/2
(c) 10 (d) 10 × 2.
placed near each other. In Fig. 60 (a), when Ip , the
current in P, changes at the rate of 5 A s–1, an emf of [All India PM/PD 1993]
2 mV is induced in Q. The current in P is then 57. A solenoid has n turns. Its coefficient of self induct-
switched off, and a current changing at 2 A s–1 is fed ance L varies with n as
through Q as shown in diagram. What emf will be (a) L ∝ n (b) L ∝ n2
induced in P ? (c) L ∝ n–1 (d) L ∝ n–2. [DPMT 2000]
(a) 8 × 10 –4 V (b) 2 × 10 –3 V 58. A conducting rod y Q
(c) 5 × 10 –3 V (d) 8 × 10 –2 V PQ move parallel to
× × ×
(e) 8 × 10 –1 V. x-axis in a uniform
magnetic field, ®
53. When the current in a coil is reduced uniformly from v
pointing in the nega- × × ×
20 A to zero in 0.50 s, an emf of 4.0 V is induced in a
tive z-direction. The
nearby coil. What is the value of the mutual induct-
end P of the rod gets × × ×
ance between the two coils ?
(a) 0.10 H (b) 0.40 H (a) positively charged P
O x
(c) 2.5 H (d) 40 H (b) negatively charged Fig. 61
(d) None of the above. [CMC LDH 2002] [Kerala PMT 2003]
62. A rectangular coil ABCD is rotated anticlockwise with 66. In an ideal parallel LC circuit, the capacitor is charged
a uniform angular velocity about the axis shown in by connecting it to a dc source which is then discon-
the figure. The axis of rotation of the coil as well as nected. The current in the circuit
the magnetic field B are horizontal. The induced emf (a) becomes zero instantaneously.
in the coil would be minimum when the plane of the (b) grows monotonically.
coil (c) decays monotonically.
(d) oscillates instantaneously. [AIIMS 2003]
67. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on
the capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when
the energy is stored equally between the electric and
magnetic field is
Q
(a) Q (b)
2
Q Q
(c) (d) [AIEEE 2003]
3 2
(c) V0 = V/ 2 (d) V0 = 2V XC XC
(e) V0 = V.
101. Two sinusoidal voltages of the same frequency are
shown in Fig. 68. f f
(c) (d )
Fig. 69
105. Power factor is one for 110. The armature current in a DC motor is maximum
(a) pure resistor (b) pure inductor when the motor has
(c) pure capacitor (a) picked up maximum speed
(d) either an inductor or a capacitor. (b) just started
106. A capacitor of capacitance 1µ F is used in an alter- (c) intermediate speed
106 (d) just been switched off.
nating current circuit of frequency Hz. The
2π 111. A step-down transformer is employed to reduce the
capacitative reactance is main supply of 200 V to 11 V. The primary draws 5A
106 of current and the secondary draws 90 A. The effi-
(a) 10–6 Ω (b) Ω
2π ciency of the transformer is
1 (a) 95% (b) 90%
(c) Ω (d) 1 Ω.
2π (c) 88% (d) 40%. [MP PMT 2001]
200 112. The armature of a DC motor has 20 Ω resistance. It
107. An AC source is of volt, 50 hertz. The value of
2 draws a current of 1.5 A when run by 200 V DC sup-
1 ply. The value of back emf induced will be
voltage after second from the start is
600 (a) 150 V (b) 170 V
200 (c) 180 V (d) 190 V.
(a) 200 volt (b) volt
2
113. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce en-
(c) 100 volt (d) 50 volt.
ergy losses due to
[JIPMER 1994] (a) Eddy currents (b) Hysteresis
108. An inductor L, a capacitor C and ammeters A1, A2 (c) Resistance in winding (d) None of these.
and A3 are connected to an oscillator in the circuit as
[Karnataka CET 2001 ; MP PMT 2000]
shown in Fig. 70. When the frequency of the oscillator
is increased, then at resonant frequency, the ammeter 114. Large transformers, when used for sometime, become
reading is zero in the case of hot and are cooled by circulating oil. The heating of
transformer is due to
C (a) heating effect of current alone.
A1 (b) hysteresis loss alone.
(c) both the hysteresis loss and heating effect of current.
(d) none of the above. [MP PMT 2001]
A2
115. If the angular speed of rotation of an armature of
L
A3 alternating current generator is doubled, then the
induced electromotive force will be
(a) twice (b) four times
(c) eight times (d) sixteen times.
Fig. 70 116. There is a current of 10 milliampere through an ideal
choke coil when connected to 220 volt, 50 hertz sup-
(a) Ammeter A1 (b) Ammeter A2
ply. The power consumed is
(c) Ammeter A3 (d) all the three ammeters.
(a) zero (b) 220 × 10 × 10–3 watt
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2001]
220 × 103
(c) 220 × 50 watt (d) watt.
10
ELECTRICAL MACHINES AND DEVICES [BHU 1999]
109. The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when 117. The armature of an eight polar dynamo rotates mak-
ing 750 revolutions per minute. The frequency of AC
(a) the motor has picked up maximum speed.
produced is
(b) the motor has just started moving.
(a) 8 Hz (b) 4 Hz
(c) the speed of motor is still on the increase.
(d) the motor has just been switched off. (c) 12.5 Hz (d) 50 Hz.
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 369
118. A device which converts electrical energy into me- 124. A transformer steps down 200 volt to 22 volt to operate
chanical energy is a device with an impedance of 220 ohm. Then the
(a) induction coil (b) electric motor current drawn from the mains by the primary of the
transformer, is
(c) generator (d) dynamo.
(a) 1 A (b) 0.1 A
[Karnataka 1999] (c) 0.01 Α (d) 0.001 A.
119. The ratio of the number of turns in primary and sec- [All India PM/PD 1997]
ondary coils of a transformer is 1 : 20. The ratio of 125. In a transformer, the number of turns of primary
the currents in the primary and secondary coils will coil and secondary coil are 5 and 4 respectively. If
be 220 V is applied on the primary coil, then the ratio of
(a) 1 : 20 (b) 20 : 1 primary current to the secondary current is
(c) 1 : 400 (d) 400 : 1. (a) 9 : 5 (b) 5 : 9
120. Energy is stored in the choke coil in the form of (c) 5 : 4 (d) 4 : 5. [BHU 2001]
(a) Heat (b) Electric energy 126. The number of twins in primary and secondary
windings of a transformer are 1000 and 100
(c) Magnetic energy (d) Electro-magnetic energy.
respectively. If 200 V dc voltage is impressed across
[MP PMT 2000] the primary terminals, the voltage across the
121. In a step-up transformer, the turns ratio is 1 : 2. A secondary terminals is
Leclanche cell (emf 1.5 V) is connected across the
primary. The voltage across the secondary is
(a) 3.0 V (b) 0.75 V
(c) zero (d) 1.5 V. [MP PMT 2000]
122. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to
(a) increase the secondary voltage.
(b) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents.
(c) make it light weight.
(d) make it robust and strong. [AIEEE 2003]
123. The ratio of the secondary to the primary turns in a
transformer is 3 : 2 and the output power is P. Ne-
glecting all power losses, the input power must be
(a) P/2 (b) P
Fig. 71
(c) 2P/3 (d) 3P/2
(a) zero (b) 22 V
[Karnataka CET 2003] (c) 220 V (d) 2200 V.
Answers (Set I)
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (d)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a)
49. (d) 50. (e) 51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d)
57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (d)
370 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (d)
73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b)
89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c)
97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b) 101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (a)
105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (a) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (d)
113. (a) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (a).
Solutions (Set I)
1. P = Fv = BIlv = 1.25 × 10–3 × 50 × 0.1 × 1 W 6. Length is parallel to BH. So, no induced emf due to
= 6.25 × 10–3 W = 6.25 mW BH. Velocity vector is parallel to BV. So, no induced
emf due to BV.
+ An interesting alternative
1 2E 2×1
P = EI = (Blv) I 7. E = LI2 or L = 2 = H = 200 H.
2 I 0.1 × 0.1
µ 0I µ
2. B = = 0 qn + Current I corresponding
8. L =
µ 0N2 A
2r 2r to circulating charge l
2 rB I = q ν, where ν is frequency.
or q= µ0, A and l are constants.
µ0n
∴ L ∝ N2
∆φ
4. Induced emf, V = ∴ LB = 2 × 2 × LA = 4 × 6 mH = 24 mH
∆t
Q ∆φ 1 1
Current, I = = × 9. emf developed = Bωl2
∆t ∆t R 2
Where Q is the total charge in time ∆t 1
= × 0.2 × 10 −4 × 5 × 1 × 1 V
∆φ 2
∴ Q=
R = 50 × 10 –6 V = 50 µV
5. i = i1 + i2
10. Induced current opposes the motion of the magnet.
5
11. E = 4 volt = 4 × 5 × 1500 = 30000 V = 30 kV.
1/1500
12. Steady current cannot produce induced emf.
LMNote that dI = 0OP
N dt Q
14. φ = LI
Mass and velocity are analogous to inductance and
current respectively.
Fig. 72 15. Use Lenz’s law.
e e e 1 1 1 2
= + or = + 16. 8 = L
ωL ωL1 ωL2 L L1 L2 0.05
L1L2 8 × 0.05
or L= . L= H = 0.2 H.
L1 + L2 2
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 371
34. The face of the coil facing the magnet has to acquire
north polarity to repel the magnet. This is possible if
Y
the induced current is anti-clockwise.
35. Hot wire instruments are based on heating effect of
current.
I I
–4
2000
36. E0 = NBAω = 50 × 0.05 × 80 × 10 × 2π × V
60 M N
4π Fig. 73
= volt.
3 As X moves away from coil Y in the direction indi-
37. Note that an inductance is present with B2. cated by the arrow, the flux φ linking coil Y decreases
2−3 due to decrease in B. The decrease in φ causes an emf
38. 5 = – L = 1000 L or L = 5 × 10–3 H = 5 mH. E induced in coil Y and hence a current flows in the
1 × 10−3
coil. By Lenz’s law, the induced current is as shown.
39. Apply lenz’s law. Thus, it flows from N to M in coil Y. Since the flux
change of magnetic flux linkages φ eventually reduced to zero, the current in
40 & 41. Induced charge = . Y thus diminishes to zero eventually. The nature of
resistance
force is attractive since the flux φ is decreased due to
372 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
the movement of coil X. The magnetic force tends to is the case when the north pole of the magnet moves
hold coil X in its original position to maintain the away from the coil.
flux φ. → →
55. In (b), the angle between v and B is non-zero. So, a
49. E = Blv = 0.3 × 10–4 × 10 × 5 volt = 1.5 × 10–3 volt current is induced.
= 1.5 mV. 56. P = Fv.
50. When the switch K is closed, current flows through 57. Self-inductance is directly proportional to the square
the electromagnet thus sets up a magnetic flux den- of the number of turns.
sity B in the electromagnet. When copper ring passes 58. Following are the two ways to arrive at the correct
over the electromagnetic, the flux φ linking the ring choice :
which is directly proportional to B and the area of the (i) Use Fleming’s Right Hand Rule and find direc-
copper ring, changes with time. By Lenz’s law, the tion of induced emf.
induced emf in the copper ring opposes it motion and → → →
hence the oscillation of the copper ring is heavily (ii) Use Fm = q ( v × B )
damped. The copper ring will eventually come to a 59. With the increase in the time rate of change of flux,
stop with the rod vertically downward. both the induced emf and current increase. But the
51. By Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, the induced charge does not depend upon time. So, it would
induced emf is given by remain the same.
H Cω JK
R 2 123. Input power = Output power.
22 × 22
1 124. Ip × 220 = or Ip = 0.01 A.
For a purely resistive circuit, Lω – =0 220
Cω
∴ Power factor = 1. Ip ns 4
125. = = .
1 1 1 Is np 5
106. XC = = = Ω = 1 Ω.
Cω 2πf C 106 126. Transformer is essentially an AC device.
2π × × 10 −6
2π
1
107. E = E0 sin ωt = 2 Ev sin 2π × 50 × volt
600
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 375
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l When the current changes from + 2A to – 2A in 0.05 second, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of
self-induction of the coil is
(a) 0.1 H (b) 0.2 H (c) 0.4 H (d) 0.8 H [AIEEE 2003]
4
Sol. 8=L or L = 2 × 0.05 H = 0.1 H
0.05
So, (a) is the right choice.
l The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by φ = 5t3 – 100t + 300, the emf induced in the coil
at t = 2 second is
(a) 40 V (b) – 40 V (c) 300 V (d) 140 V [Karnataka CET 2003]
d
Sol. E= − (φ) = – (15t2 – 100)
dt
Et = – (15 × 2 × 2 – 100) V = 40 V
So, (a) is the right choice.
l One conducting U tube can slide inside another as shown in figure, maintaining electrical × × × B
× A ×
contacts between the tubes. The magnetic field ‘B’ is perpendicular to the plane of the
v
figure. If each tube moves towards the other at a constant speed V, then the emf induced ×
× ×
v
in the circuit in terms of B, l and V where l is the width of each tube, will be × × × ×
(a) 2BlV (b) zero (c) – BlV (d) BlV D × × × C
[AIEEE 2005]
Fig. 75
Sol. Two emfs, each of value BlV, are produced. Both the emfs tend to send current in the
same direction. So, they are added up.
So, (a) is the right choice.
π
l The phase difference between the alternating current and emf is . Which of the following cannot be the constituent
2
of the circuit ?
(a) L alone (b) L, C (c) R, L (d) C alone [AIEEE 2005]
π
Sol. The presence of R forbids a phase difference of .
2
So, (c) is the right choice.
l A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be
(a) 0.125 (b) 1.25 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.8 [AIEEE 2005]
R 12
Sol. cos φ = = = 0.8
Z 15 Z
So, (d) is the right choice.
R
Fig. 76
376 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MCQs
based on
Important Basic Concepts
SET II
+
Application of Formulae
+
Brain Teasers
Average time allowed per question is 50 seconds.
Bπ r 2 ω (Bπrω 2 )2
(c) (d) [AIEEE 2004]
2R 8R
t t
129. The inner loop has an area
of 5 × 10–4 m2 and a resist-
ance of 2 Ω. The larger cir- Fig. 78
cular loop is fixed and has [IIT Screening 2004]
1A
a radius of 0.1 m. Both the 1A
133. A copper rod of length l is rotated about the end
loops are concentric and
perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with
coplanar. The smaller loop
constant angular velocity ω. The induced emf between
is rotated with an angular
its two ends is
velocity of ω rad s–1 about Fig. 77 (a) zero (b) Bωl2
its diameter. The flux
1 1
linked with the smaller loop is (c) Bωl2 (d) Bωl2.
2 4
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 377
134. A circuit has a self-inductance of 1 henry and carries a 139. The mutual inductance between two coils is 1.25 henry.
current of 2 A. To prevent sparking when the circuit is If the current in the primary changes at the rate
switched off, a capacitor which can withstand 400 V is of 80 ampere/second, then the induced emf in the
used. The least capacitance of the capacitor connected secondary is
across the switch must be (a) 12.5 V (b) 64.0 V
(a) 12.5 µ F (b) 25 µ F (c) 0.016 V (d) 100.0 V. [MP PET 1990]
(c) 50 µ F (d) 100 µ F. 140. A small magnet is along the axis of a coil and its
135. A coil of wire of a certain radius has 600 turns and a distance from the coil is 80 cm. In this position, the
self-inductance of 108 mH. The self-inductance of a IInd flux linked with the coil is 4 × 10 –5 weber. If the coil is
similar coil of 500 turns will be displaced 40 cm towards the magnet in 0.08 second,
(a) 74 mH (b) 75 mH then the induced emf produced in the coil will be
(a) 0.5 mV (b) 1 mV
(c) 76 mH (d) 77 mH. [MP PMT 1990]
(c) 7 mV (d) 3.5 mV. [MNR 1997]
136. The coefficient of mutual-inductance of two circuits A
and B is 3 mH and their respective resistances are 141. The magnetic flux linked with a coil is changed from
10 ohm and 4 ohm. How much current should change 1 weber to 0.1 weber in 0.1 s. The induced emf is
in 0.02 second in the circuit A, so that the induced cur- (a) 9 V (b) 10 V
rent in B should be 0.006 ampere ? (c) 0.009 V (d) 91 V.
(a) 0.24 A (b) 1.6 A
142. In Q. 141, the induced charge is (given that the resist-
(c) 0.18 A (d) 0.16 A.
ance of the coil is 10 ohm)
[CMC Vellore 2001] (a) 9 C (b) 0.9 C
137. Two coils,a primary of 400 turns and a secondary of (c) 0.09 C (d) 0.009 C.
20 turns are wound over an iron core of length 20 π cms
143. A coil whose diameter is 0.40 m is in a variable mag-
and cross-section of 2 cms radius. If µr = 800, then the
netic field. As the magnetic induction of the field
coefficient of mutual induction is approximately changes by 127.4 T during 2 s, an emf of 200 V is in-
(a) 1.6 × 107 H (b) 1.6 × 10 –2 H duced in the coil. Then the number of turns in the coil
(c) 1.6 × 103 H (d) 1.6 H. [AFMC 2000] is approximately
138. A circuit ABCD is held perpendicular to uniform mag- (a) 20 (b) 25
netic field of B = 5 × 10 –2 T extending over the region (c) 30 (d) 50. [AIIMS 1999]
PQRS and directed into the plane of the paper. The 144. The coefficient of mutual induction of two circuits is
circuit is pulled out of the field at a uniform speed of 4 mH. If in a circuit, the current changes by 0.60 am-
0.2 m s–1 for 1.5 s. During this time, the current in the pere to 0.61 ampere in 0.002 second, then induced emf
5 Ω resistor is in the second circuit will be
(a) 0.8 V (b) 0.008 V
P Q
(c) 0.02 V (d) 0.2 V. [AMU 1998]
0.5 m
A B 145. Two different coils have self-inductances L1 = 8 mH
and L2 = 2 mH. The current in one coil is increased at
® 5W
0.3 m B a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also
increased at the same constant rate. At a certain in-
–1
0.2 m s
stant of time, the power given to the two coils is the
D C
same. At that time, the current, the induced voltage
S R and the energy stored in the first coil are I1, V1 and W1
respectively. The corresponding values for the second
Fig. 79 coil are I2 , V2 and W2 , at the same instant, respectively.
(a) 0.6 mA from B to C (b) 0.9 mA from B to C Now,
I 1 I
(c) 0.9 mA from C to B (d) 0.6 mA from C to B. (a) 1 = (b) 1 = 4
I2 4 I2
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
I 2 I
(c) 1 = (d) 1 = 1.
I2 1 I2
378 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
146. In Q. 145, × B × × × × ×
V1 1 V1 × × × × × × ×
(a) = (b) =4 P
V2 4 V2
× × × × × × ×
®
V 2 V v M
(c) 1 = (d) 1 = 1. × × × × × × ×
V2 1 V2 N
× × × × × × ×
147. In Q. 145,
W2 W1 × × Q × × × ×
(a) =4 (b) =4
W1 W2 Fig. 80
W1 W1 (a) plate M will be positively charged
(c) =1 (d) = 2.
W2 W2 (b) plate N will be positively charged
148. Flux φ in weber in a closed circuit of resistance 10 Ω (c) both plates will be similarly charged
varies with time t in second according to the equation (d) no charge will be collected on plates. [CPMT 1997]
φ= 6t2 – 5t + 1 153. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils if a current of
What is the magnitude of the induced current at 3 ampere in one coil causes the flux in the second coil
of 2000 turns to change by 6 × 10–4 weber per turn of
1 the secondary coil is
t= s?
4 (a) 6 × 10–4 H (b) 2 × 10–4 H
(a) 1.2 A (b) 0.8 A (c) 0.4 H (d) 4 H. [BHU 1996]
(c) 0.6 A (d) 0.2 A.
154. A 50 turns circular coil has a radius of 3 cm. It is kept
149. Two coils X and Y are placed in a circuit such that in a magnetic field acting normal to the area of the
when current changes by 2 A in coil X, the magnetic coil. The magnetic field B is increased from 0.10 T to
flux changes by 0.4 Wb in Y. The mutual inductance of 0.35 T in 2 m s. The average induced emf in the coil is
the two coils is (a) 1.77 V (b) 17.7 V
(a) 0.2 Wb (b) 0.2 H
(c) 177 V (d) 0.177 V. [MP PET 1994]
(c) 0.3 H (d) 0.3 Wb.
155. There is an aerial 1 m long in a car. It is moving from
150. A straight conductor of length 4 metre moves at a speed east to west with a velocity 100 km h–1. If the horizon-
of 10 m s–1 when the conductor makes an angle of 30° tal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.18 × 10–4
with the direction of magnetic field of induction 0.1 T. T, then induced emf is
Then the induced emf is (a) 0.50 mV (b) 0.25 mV
(a) 1 volt (b) 2 volt (c) 0.75 mV (d) 1 mV. [JIPMER 1997]
(c) 4 volt (d) 8 volt. [BHU 2001] 156. A circular iron core supports N turns. If a current I
151. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.005 H. The cur- produces a magnetic flux φ across the core’s cross
rent changes in the first coil according to equa- section, then the magnetic field energy is
tion I = I0 sin ωt where I0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π 1
radian per second. The maximum value of emf in the (a) NIφ (b) NIφ
2
second coil (in volt) is
(c) N2Iφ (d) NI2φ. [WB JEE 1997]
(a) 2 π (b) 5 π
157. A search coil of 1000 turns, resistance 5 Ω and cross-
(c) π (d) 4 π.
sectional area 5 cm2 is connected in series with a gal-
[All India PM/PD 1998] vanometer of resistance 45 Ω. The coil is placed in be-
152. A rod PQ is connected to the capacitor plates. The rod tween the pole pieces of an electromagnet. When the
is placed in a magnetic field (B) directed downward coil is withdrawn from the pole pieces in 1 ms, the
perpendicular to the plane of the paper. If the rod is charge flowing in galvanometer is 2 mC. The magnetic
→
pulled out of magnetic field with velocity v as shown field of the electromagnet is
in Fig. 80 (a) 0.1 T (b) 0.2 T
(c) 102 T (d) 2 × 102 T. [DPMT 1999]
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 379
158. A horizontal telegraph wire 2.5 km long runing east 166. An electric current I is passed
and west is a part of a circuit whose resistance is 35 Ω. through a circular loop of
The wire falls to the ground from a height of 10 m. If folded copper wire as shown
g = 9.8 m s–2 and eBh = 2 × 10 –5 T, then the current in Fig. 81. The magnetic in-
induced in the circuit is duction at the centre of the
(a) 0.7 A (b) 0.02 A loop will be
(c) 0.01 A (d) 0.04 A. [AFMC 1996] (a) zero
2µ 0 I
159. A coil having an area 2 m2 is placed in a magnetic (b)
field which changes from 1 Wb/m2 to 4 Wb/m2 in a r I I
interval of 2 second. The emf induced in the coil will be µ 0I Fig. 81
(c)
(a) 4 V (b) 3 V r
µ 0I
(c) 1.5 V (d) 2 V. [AMU 1996] (d) . [National Standard Exam.
2r
160. If a current of 3.0 A flowing in the primary coil is re- in Physics 2000]
duced to zero in 0.001 second, then the induced emf in 167. The self-induced emf in a 0.1 H coil when the current
the secondary coil is 15000 V. The mutual inductance in it is changing at the rate of 200 ampere/second is
between the two coils is (a) 125 V (b) 20 V
(a) 0.5 H (b) 5 H
(c) 8 × 10 –4 V (d) 8 × 10 –5 V.
(c) 1.5 H (d) 10 H.
[MP PAT 1990]
[MP PMT 1989, 91]
168. A coil of area 100 cm2 has 500 turns. Magnetic field of
161. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its centre
0.1 weber/metre2 is perpendicular to the coil. The field
with 10 revolutions per second in a uniform magnetic
is reduced to zero in 0.1 second. The induced emf in the
field of 0.1 tesla with its plane perpendicular to the
field. The emf induced across the radius of disc is coil is
π 2π (a) 1 V (b) 5 V
(a) volt (b) volt
10 10 (c) 50 V (d) Zero. [MP PMT 1991]
(c) π × 10 –2 volt (d) 2π × 10 –2 volt. 169. If a current of 2 ampere gives rise a magnetic flux of
[MP PAT 1990] 5 × 10–5 weber through a coil having 100 turns, then
162. A magnet is moved towards a coil (a) quickly (b) slowly, the magnetic energy stored in the medium surround-
then the induced emf is ing the coil is
(a) larger in case (a) (b) smaller in case (a) (a) 5 J (b) 5 × 10 –7 J
(c) equal in both cases (c) 5 × 10 –3 J (d) 0.5 J. [Pb. CET 1999]
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil.
170. An emf of 6 V is introduced in a given coil when the
163. In Q. 162, the induced charge is current in it changes at the rate of 30 A/min. The in-
(a) larger in case (a) (b) smaller in case (b) ductance of the coil is
(c) equal in both cases (a) 0.2 H (b) 5 H
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil. (c) 12 H (d) 180 H.
164. In Q. 162, the work done is [All India PM/PD 1999]
(a) larger in case (a)
171. The magnetic flux through a coil varies with time as
(b) smaller in case (b)
φ = 5t2 + 6t + 9. The ratio of emf at t = 3 s to t = 0 s will be
(c) equal in both cases
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 6
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the material of the coil.
(c) 6 : 1 (d) 9 : 1.
[CPMT 1985]
[All India PM/PD 2002]
165. The inductance of a closed-packed coil of 400 turns is
172. A rectangular coil 0.20 m × 0.10 m, of 100 turns, ro-
8 mH. A current of 5 mA is passed through it. The mag-
tates in a magnetic field of 3 × 10 –3 T with a frequency
netic flux through the coil is approximately
of 20 Hz, about an axis normal to the magnetic field.
(a) 0.1 µ0 Wb (b) 0.2 µ0 Wb
What is the maximum value of induced emf ?
(c) 1.0 µ0 Wb (d) 2.0 µ0 Wb.
(a) 0.12 π V (b) 0.18 π V
[Himachal PMT 2001]
(c) 0.24 π V (d) 0.30 π V. [AMU 2002]
380 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
173. When the number of turns in a coil is doubled without 180. Fig. 82 shows a short coil wound over the middle part
any change in the length of the coil, its self-inductance of a long solenoid.
becomes
(a) four times (b) doubled
(c) halved (d) squared.
[CMC Vellore 2000]
174. An air-cored coil has a self-inductance of 0.1 H. A soft-
iron core of relative permeability 1000 is introduced
and the number of turns is reduced to 1/10th. The value
of self-inductance now is
(a) 0.1 H (b) 1 mH Fig. 82
182. In a circular conducting coil, when current increases 186. A coil having 500 square loops, each of side 10 cm, is
from 2 A to 18 A in 0.05 s, the induced emf is 20 V. The placed normal to a magnetic field which increases at a
self-inductance of the coil is rate of 1.0 Ts–1. The induced emf (in volt) is
(a) 62.5 mH (b) 6.25 mH (a) 0.1 (b) 0.5
(c) 50 mH (d) None of these. (c) 1.0 (d) 5.0. [CPMT 1990]
[MP PET 2001] 187. Which of the following statements, about a solenoid, is
correct ?
183. A galvanometer is connected to the secondary coil. The
(a) When a current flows through a solenoid, it has ten-
galvanometer shows an instantaneous maximum
dency to increase its radius if no external magnetic field
deflection of 7 divisions when current is started in the exists in the space.
primary coil of the solenoid. Now if the primary coil is
(b) When a current flows through a solenoid, it always pos-
rotated through 180°, then the new instantaneous sesses tendency to increase its radius if an external
maximum deflection will be magnetic field exists in the space.
(a) 7 units (b) 0 units (c) When a current flows through a solenoid, it always pos-
(c) 14 units (d) 21 units. [CPMT 1991] sesses tendency to decrease its radius if an external
magnetic field exists in the space.
184. At a place, the value of horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field H is 2 × 10 –5 weber/m2. A me- (d) None of the above. [AIIMS 2002]
tallic rod AB of length 2 m placed in East-West direc- 188. A mutual inductor
tion, having the end A towards east, falls vertically consists of two coils X
downward with a constant velocity of 50 m/s. Which and Y as shown in
end of the rod becomes positively-charged and what is Fig. 86 in which one
the value of induced potential difference between the quarter of the mag-
netic flux produced
two ends ? Fig. 86
by X links with Y, giv-
(a) End A, 3 × 10 –3 millivolt (b) End A, 3 millivolt ing a mutual inductance M.
(c) end B, 3 × 10 –3 millivolt (d) End B, 2 millivolt. What will be the mutual inductance when Y is used as
[MP PET 1996] the primary ?
185. A square metal wire loop of side 10 cm and resistance (a) M/4 (b) M/2
1 Ω is moved with constant velocity v0 in a uniform (c) M (d) 2M
magnetic field of induction B = 2 Wb m–2, as shown in (e) 4M.
Fig. 85. The magnetic field lines are perpendicular to 189. A square coil of 0.01 m2 area is placed perpendicular
the plane of loop and directed into the paper. The loop to the uniform magnetic field of induction 10 3 T. The
is connected to network of resistors, each of value 3 Ω. magnetic flux linked with the coil is
The resistance of lead wires is negligible. The speed of (a) 10 Wb (b) 10 –5 Wb
loop so as to have a steady current of 1 mA in the loop (c) Zero (d) 100 Wb.
is [MP PMT 2001]
190. A conducting wire xy of length l and mass m is sliding
× × × × v0 without friction on vertical conducting rails ab and cd
3W 3W as shown in Fig. 87.
× × × × P 3W
a R c
× × × ×
O
3W 3W
× × × ×
x y
l
Fig. 85
(a) 2 m s–1 (b) 2 cm s–1 b d
(c) 10 m s–1 (d) 20 m s–1.
Fig. 87
[CMC LDH 2000]
382 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
mgR mgR
(c) 2 2
(d) . [MNR 1991]
B l B2l
191. Consider the situation × × × × × ×
shown in Fig. 88. The A
× × × × × × × Fig. 90
wire AB is slid on
×v ×
fixed rails with a con-
× × × × × R µ 0 A(N1/N 2 ) µ 0A(N1N2 )
(a) (b)
stant veloicty. If the × × × × × × × L L
wire AB is replaced by ×B
× × × × ×
µ 0AN12N2
(c) µ0A N1N2 L (d) .
semi-circular wire, Fig. 88 L
the magnitude of in- [MNR 1994]
duced emf will 194. Magnetic flux φ (in weber) linked with a closed circuit
(a) increase (b) decrease of resistance 10 Ω varies with time t (in second) as
(c) remain the same φ = 5t2 – 4t + 1
(d) increase or decrease depending on whether the semi- The induced electromotive force in the circuit at t = 0.2
circle buldges towards the resistance or away from it. second is
[MP PMT 1999] (a) 0.4 V (b) – 0.4 V
192. A dc electric motor that has a permanent magnet as its (c) – 2.0 V (d) 2.0 V. [MP PMT 2001]
field magnet is joined to a battery of constant emf and 195. Two coils have mutual inductance M. The second coil
negligible internal resistance. When the motor is used (of negligible resistance) is connected to a resistor of
to drive various loads, the corresponding values of its resistance R and the current in the first coil is changed
speed of rotation ω and the current I passing through at a steady rate dI/dt. What is the power dissipated in
it are measured. Which one of the following graphs most the resistor ?
nearly shows how I varies with ω ?
M2
(a) (dI/dt)2 (b) M2R (dI/dt)2
I I I R
R M
(c) (dI/dt)2 (d) (dI/dt)
M R
(e) M2R (dI/dt).
196. Current in a coil changes at a constant rate of 2 A in 50
0 0 0 ms. A back-emf of 4 V is induced in the coil. What is
0 w 0 w 0 w
the self-inductance of the coil ?
(a) (b) (c)
(a) 0.025 H (b) 0.10 H
(c) 0.40 H (d) 40 H
I I
(e) 160 H.
197. An aluminium ring hangs vertically from a thread with
its axis pointing east-west. A coil is fixed near to the
ring and coaxial with it.
0 0
0 w 0 w
thread
(d) (e)
N
Fig. 89
193. A long solenoid of length L, cross section A having N1 Common
W E
turns has wound about its centre a small coil of N2 axis
turns as shown in Fig. 90.Then the mutual inductance coil ring
S
of two circuits is
Fig. 91
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 383
Fig. 92 Fig. 94
At which of the following values of t is the magnitude 201. A conducting wire of mass m
of the emf induced in the coil is maximum ? slides down two smooth con-
T T ducting bars, set at an angle
(a) (b) θ to the horizontal as shown
8 4
in Fig. 95.
3T T
(c) (d) The separation between the
8 2
bars is equal to l. The system
3T is located in a uniform mag-
(e) .
4 netic field of induction B, per- Fig. 95
199. Two pure inductors, each of self inductance L, are con- pendicular to the plane of the
nected in parallel but are well separated from each sliding wire and bars. The velocity of the wire is
other. Then the total inductance is mg R sin θ mg R sin θ
(a) (b)
(a) L (b) 2L B 2l 2 Bl 3
(c) L/2 (d) L/4. [MNR 1991] mg R θ mg R sin θ
(c) (d) .
200. The magnetic flux φ through a coil varies with time t B2l5 Bl 4
as shown in Fig. 93. [WB JEE 2000]
202. A short bar magnet passes at a steady speed right
through a long solenoid. A galvanometer is connected
across the solenoid.
Fig. 93
Which graph best represents the variation of the gal- 206. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a
vanometer deflection θ with time t ? large square loop of wire of side L (L >> l). The loops
are coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual
inductance of the system is proportional to
(a) l/L (b) l2/L
(c) L/l (d) L2/l. [IIT 1998]
207. The current flowing in a coil of self inductance 0.4 mH
is increased by 250 mA in 0.1 s. The emf induced will be
(a) + 1 volt (b) = 1 volt
(c) + 1 mV (d) – 1 mV.
[MP PMT 1994]
TRANSIENT CURRENT
AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
(c) 2 (d) Zero. [MP PET 1995] (e) if 3 only. [London School of Examinations]
214. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 Ω. When an 218. In the circuit shown below, what will be the reading of
AC signal of frequency 1000 Hz is fed to the coil, the the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A ?
applied voltage leads the current by 45°. What is the
inductance of the coil ?
(a) 10 mH (b) 12 mH
(c) 16 mH (d) 20 mH. [EAMCET 1999]
215. In the circuit of Fig.
100, the AC source has
voltage 20 cos (ωt) volt
with ω = 2000 rad/s.
The amplitude of the
current will be nearest Fig. 102
to
Fig. 100 (a) 800 V, 2 A (b) 300 V, 2 A
(a) 2 A (b) 3.3 A
(c) 220 V, 2.2 A (d) 100 V, 2 A.
(c) 2/ 5 A (d) 5 A. [Manipal 2002]
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995] 219. The reactance of a coil when used in the domestic AC
216. In a circuit, if the rms voltage of the AC supply remains power supply (220 volt 50 cycles per second) is 50 ohm.
constant when the frequency is varied between 50 Hz The inductance of the coil is nearly
and 50 kHz, which of the graphs below best illustrates (a) 2.2 H (b) 0.22 H
the variation of current through the ammeter with fre- (c) 1.6 H (d) 0.16 H. [MP PMT 2000]
quency ?
220. An rms voltage of 110 V is applied across a series cir-
cuit having a resistance 11 Ω and impedance 22 Ω.
The power consumed is
(a) 275 W (b) 366 W
I I I
(c) 550 W [BHU 2002]
(d) 1100 W.
f f f 221. An inductor, a capacitor and a resistor are connected
(a) (b) (c) in series to an AC supply. When measured with an AC
voltmeter, the potential difference acros the inductor,
capacitor and resistor are respectively 90 volt, 60 volt
and 40 volt. Then the supply voltage is
I I (a) 190 volt (b) 100 volt
(c) 130 volt [DPMT 2002]
(d) 50 volt.
f f 222. In a LCR circuit having L = 8.0 Henry, C = 0.5 µF and
(d) (e) R = 100 Ω in series, the resonance frequency is
Fig. 101 (a) 900 radian s–1 (b) 500 Hz
[London School of Examinations] (c) 700 radian s–1 (d) None of these.
[CPMT 1990]
386 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
V0I0
(a) 30 V (b) 10 3 V (a) V0I0 (b)
2
(c) 20 V (d) 10 2 V. V0I0
(c) (d) zero. [Manipal 2001]
2
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
236. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V = 240
232. An alternating current of 1.5 mA rms and angular sin 120 t volt, where time t is in second. The frequency
frequency ω = 100 rad s–1 flows through a 10 kΩ resistor and rms voltage are
and a 0.50 µ F capacitor in sereis. The rms potential
(a) 19 Hz and 120 volt (b) 19 Hz and 170 volt
difference across the capacitor is
(c) 60 Hz and 240 volt (d) 754 Hz and 170 volt.
(a) 4.8 V (b) 15 V
[CPMT 1994]
(c) 30 V (d) 34 V
237. An AC circuit consists of an inductor of inductance
(e) 190 V.
0.5 H and a capacitor of capacitance 8 µF in series.
[Oxford and Cambridge Schools Examination] The current in the circuit is maximum when the angu-
233. In the circuit shown in Fig. 106, the rms currents I1 , I2 lar frequency of AC source is
and I3 are altered by varying the frequency f of the (a) 5000 rad s–1 (b) 4000 rad s–1
oscillator. The output voltage of the oscillator remains (c) 2 × 105 rad s–1 (d) 500 rad s–1.
sinusoidal and has a fixed amplitude. [CPMT 1995]
238. In a series LCR circuit, R = 10 Ω and the impedance
Z = 20 Ω. Then the phase difference between current
and voltage is
(a) 45° (b) 90°
(c) 60° (d) 30°.
[Karnataka 1999]
239. An rms current of 0.6 A flows when an inductance of
40 mH is connected to an AC source of 0.24 V (rms).
The angular frequency of the source is
(a) 1 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s
(c) 5 rad/s (d) 103 rad/s.
Fig. 106 Fig. 107 [CMC LDH 2002]
Which curves in Fig. 107 indicate correctly the varia- 240. An inductor of 2 henry and a resistance of 10 ohm are
tions with frequency of the currents I1 , I2 and I3 ? connected in series with a battery of 5 volt. The initial
I1 I2 I3 rate of change of current is
(a) Q Q Q (a) 0.5 A s–1 (b) 2.0 A s–1
(b) R Q Q (c) 2.5 A s–1 (d) 0.25 A s–1.
(c) Q P R
(d) Q R P
[MP PMT 2001]
(e) P Q Q. 241. A 1 M Ω resistor and an initially uncharged 10 µF
234. A resistance of 20 Ω is connected to a source of an capacitor are connected in series with a switch and a
alternating potential V = 220 sin (100 πt). The time 100 V dc supply. What are the charge Q on the capacitor
taken by the current to change from its peak value to and the charging current I immediately after the switch
rms value, is is closed ?
(a) 0.2 s (b) 0.25 s Q/C I/A
(c) 2.5 × 10 –3 s (d) 2.5 × 10 –3 s. (a) 0 0
power
power
Fig. 114 259. A shunt generator has a field resistance of 240 Ω and
an armature resistance of 0.6 Ω. The generator gets
254. A sinusoidal alternating supply is connected across the
overheated if the armature loss just exceeds 240 W.
terminals of a resistor causing energy to be dissipated Maximum armature current is
390 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG 20 + 138 IJ A 138
269. In Q. 268, the current in the primary coil is
(c)
H 240 K (d) 20 ×
240
A. (a) 9 A
(c) 1 A
(b) 10 A
(d) 4.5 A.
262. In Q. 259, the efficiency of the generator is 270. In Q. 268, the copper loss in the primary coil is
138 × 19.425 138 × 0.575 (a) 100 W (b) 700 W
(a) × 100 (b) × 100
150 × 20 150 × 20 (c) 200 W (d) 1000 W.
138 19.425 271. In Q. 268, the copper loss in the secondary coil is
(c) × 100 (d) × 100.
150 20 (a) 100 W (b) 700 W
263. In a step-up transformer, the turns ratio is 1 : 10. A (c) 200 W (d) 1000 W.
resistance of 200 ohm connected across the secondary
272. In Q. 268, the current in the secondary coil is
is drawing a current of 0.5 A. What is the primary volt-
(a) 45 A (b) 46 A
age and current ?
(a) 50 V, 1 A (b) 10 V, 5 A (c) 10 A (d) 0 A.
(c) 25 V, 4 A (d) 20 V, 2 A. 273. In Q. 268, the resistance of the secondary coil is nearly
[MP PET 2000] (a) 0.01 Ω (b) 0.1 Ω
264. A 50 Hz alternating current of peak value 1 ampere (c) 0.2 Ω (d) 0.4 Ω.
flows through the primary coil of a transformer. If the 274. An electric motor has a back emf of 110 V and arma-
mutual inductance between the primary and secondary ture current of 90 A. The armature is making 24.5 revo-
be 1.5 henry, then the peak value of the induced voltage lutions per second. The torque on the armature is
is 110 × 90 2 π × 24.5
(a) 75 V (b) 150 V (a) Nm (b) Nm
2π × 24.5 110 × 90
(c) 225 V (d) 300 V. [Pb. CET 1998]
π × 24.5 90 π
265. The number of turns in the primary coil of a trans- (c) Nm (d) N m.
110 110 × 24.5
former is 200 and the number of turns in the second-
275. An electric motor runs on a DC source of emf 200 volt
ary coil is 10. If 240 volt AC is applied to the primary,
and draws a current of 10 ampere. If the efficiency is
the output from the secondary will be
40%, then the resistance of the armature is
(a) 48 V (b) 24 V
(a) 5 ohm (b) 12 ohm
(c) 12 V (d) 6 V. (c) 120 ohm (d) 160 ohm.
[All India PM/PD 2000] [Haryana PMT 2001]
266. A simple electric motor has an armature resistance of 276. The diagram shows an iron-cored transformer assumed
one ohm and runs from a DC source of 12 volt. When to be 100% efficient. The ratio of the secondary turns to
unloaded, it draw a current of 2 ampere. When a cer- the primary turns is 1 : 20.
tain load is connected, its speed becomes one-half of its
unloaded value. Then the current in ampere it draws
is
Primary
(a) 7 (b) 6
240 V coil 6.0 W
(c) 2 (d) 4. [CMC Vellore 1998] Secondary
coil
267. A dynamo dissipates 20 watt when it supplies a cur-
rent of 4 A through it. If the terminal potential differ-
ence is 220 volt, then the emf produced is Fig. 115
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 391
A 240 V ac supply is connected to the primary coil and (a) 200 V (b) 40 V
a 6.0 Ω resistor is connected to the secondary coil. (c) 1000 V (d) zero V.
What is the current in the primary coil ? 284. In Q. 283, if the efficiency is 100%, then the current in
(a) 0.10 A (b) 0.14 A the primary coil is
(c) 2.0 A (d) 40 A. (a) 10 A (b) 0.4 A
277. A DC motor has an internal resistance 4 ohm. It is (c) 2 A (d) 0 A.
operated at 220 volt and draws 5 A current. The back 285. In a laboratory experiment to test a transformer, a stu-
emf produced is dent used the circuit shown in the diagram to take meas-
(a) 80 V (b) 160 V urements.
(c) 200 V (d) 120 V.
278. In the above problem, the power given to the motor is Ip Is
A A
(a) 550 W (b) 100 W
(c) 1000 W (d) 1100 W.
Np Ns
Vp Vs
279. In Q. 277, the useful mechanical power developed is turns turns
(a) 550 W (b) 100 W
(c) 1000 W (d) 1100 W.
280. When an electric motor is run at 120 volt, 10 A current
Fig. 116
flows through it and the induced back emf is 115 V.
What will be the current flowing in the coil at the time Two of the original entries in the student’s results ta-
of switch off ? ble are missing as shown :
(a) 230 A (b) 10 A
(c) 240 A (d) zero.
Vp/V Ip/mA Np turns Vs/V Is/mA Ns turns
281. An electric motor driven from a constant voltage sup- 240 2.0 ? ? 50 50
ply is used to raise a load. If the load is increased, which
one of the following sets of changes occurs ? Assuming the transformer was 100% efficient, what are
speed of rotation induced emf in coil current in coil the missing results ?
(back emf) Np turns Vs/V
(a) decreases decreases increases (a) 2 6000
(b) increases increases decreases (b) 50 9.6
(c) decreases decreases decreases (c) 480 1.0
(d) increases decreases increases (d) 1250 9.6
(e) decreases increases decreases (e) 1250 240.
282. A generator produces 100 kW of power at a potential 286. An ideally efficient transformer has a primary power
difference of 10 kV. The power is transmitted through input of 10 kW. The secondary current when the trans-
cables of total resistance 5 Ω. How much power is dis- former is on load is 25 ampere. If the primary : second-
sipated in the cables ? ary turns ratio is 8 : 1, then the potential difference
(a) 50 W (b) 250 W applied to the primary coil is
(c) 500 W (d) 1000 W 104 × 82 104 × 8
(a) V (b) V
(e) 50000 W. 25 25
283. A step-up transformer operates on a 200 volt line and 104 104
(c) V (d) V. [AFMC 2002]
supplies a current of 2 ampere. The ratio of primary 25 × 82 25 × 8
and secondary winding is 1 : 5. The output voltage in
the secondary is
392 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
dφ NBA dI 30 1
157. dq = or dq = 170. = A s −1 = A s − 1
R R dt 60 2
−3 1
dq × R 2 × 10 × 50
or B= = T = 0.2 T. Now, 6 = L × or L = 12 henry.
NA 1000 × 5 × 10−4 2
d
158. E = B 2gh l = 2 × 10 –5 2 × 9.8 × 10 × 2.5 × 103 V 171. E=– (φ) = – (10t + 6)
dt
= 2 × 14 × 2.5 × 10 –2 V = 0.7 V Et = 3s = – (10 × 3 + 6) = – 36
0.7 Et = 0s = – 6
I= A = 0.02 A.
35 − 36
2 × 4 − 2 ×1 8−2 Required ratio is or 6.
159. E = = volt = 3 volt. −6
2 2 172. E0 = NBA ω
dI E 15000 E0 = 100 × 3 × 10–3 × 0.20 × 0.10 × 2π × 20 V
160. E = M or M = =
dt dI/dt 3 = 0.24 π volt.
0.001
µ 0 π N2r
15000 1 173. L=
= × H = 5 H. 2
3 1000 When N is doubled, r would be halved.
161. E =
1
× 0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1 × 2 × π × 10 volt FG IJ
r
2
= π × 10 –2 volt. L′ =
µ 0 π (2N)2
2H K
2
162. More the rate of change of magnetic flux, larger is the µ 0 πN 2 r
induced emf. L′ = 2 or L′ = 2 L
2
163. Induced charge does not depend upon time.
µ N2 A
1 174. 0.1 = 0
164. W = LI 2 l
2
Induced current is more in case (a). So, work done is
µ0 A NLM OP 2
1000
more in case (a).
L = µr
l 10N Q or L =
100
× 0.1 H = 1 H.
or φ= Wb = 10 –7 Wb
400 176. The inductance acts as a
4 π × 10 −7
1 short-circuit. The whole of the
= Wb = µ Wb ≈ 0.1 µ0 Wb. current flows through the in-
4π 4π 0
ductance. Since no current
166. The two loops produce equal and opposite magnetic
flows through the bulb there-
fields.
fore the bulb does not glow.
167. E = 0.1 × 200 volt = 20 volt.
168. φ = 500 × 0.1 × 100 × 10 –4 = 0.5 Wb NBA Fig. 117
177. q=
0.5 R
E= volt = 5 volt.
0.1 qR 32 × 10 −6 × 200
or B= = T = 0.566 T.
1 NA . × ( 6 × 10−3 )2
100 × 314
169. E= LI 2
2 178. E = 1.5 × 10–3 × 10 × 10 volt = 0.15 volt.
Nφ dφ
But Nφ = LI or L = 179. E=–N = – 100(3t2 – 2) × 10–3
I dt
∴
LM OP I
1 Nφ 2 1 (E)t = 2s = – 100 (3 × 4 – 2) × 10–3 V = – 1 V.
E=
2 IN Q or E =
2
NφI
180. The induced emf is directly proportional to
1 dB dI
or E= × 100 × 5 × 10–5 × 2 J = 5 × 10–3 J. = µ0n .
2 dt dt
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 395
µ 0I Bvl mg R
181. Magnetic field at centre of large coil = 190. BIl = mg or B l = mg or v = 2 2 .
2R R B l
Magnetic flux linked with 191. Shape is immaterial. Only the end points are relevant.
smaller coil 192. The back-emf E induced in the armature coil of the
µ I motor is related to the current Ia from the source of
= 0 × πr2
2R potential difference V by the equation :
φ µ 0 πr 2
M= = V−E
I 2R Ia = where Ra = armature coil resistance.
Ra
r2
∴ M∝ . Now the back-emf is proportional to the angular speed
R Fig. 119
of the armature coil ω
E 20
182. L= = H or E = kω, where k is the constant of proportionality.
dI/dt 16 /0.05
Thus, we have
20 × 0.05
= H = 62.5 × 10–3 H = 62.5 mH. V k
16 I= − ω
R a Ra
183. When coil is rotated through 180°, the rate of change
of magnetic flux is doubled. a linear equation such that the current I from the
source decreases linearly with the speed of rotation ω
184. | E | = BHlv
of the motor. That is best represented by graph e.
= 2 × 10–5 × 2 × 50 volt
µ 0N1I1
= 2 × 10 –3 volt 193. φ2 = N2B1A or φ2 = N2 A
L
= 2 millivolt
Using Fleming’s left µ 0 N1N2 A
or φ2 = I1
hand rule, we find that L
Fig. 120
electrons shall experi- µ 0 N1N2 A
ence force towards A. B will be deficient in electrons. Comparing with φ2 = MI1, we get M = .
L
So, B will be positively charged.
194. ∴ E = – (10t – 4)
185. Effective resistance is 4 Ω.
At t = 0.2 second, E = – (10 × 0.2 – 4) volt
E Blv IR E = 2 volt.
I= = or v =
R R Bl 195. The induced emf on the second coil is given by
1 × 10 −3 × 4 dI
or v= −2
m s–1 E=M .
2 × 10 × 10 dt
or v = 0.02 ms–1 = 2 cm s–1. Hence the power dissipated in the resistor R is given
186. | E | = 500 × 100 × 10 –4 × 1 = 5 volt by
187. Due to magnetic field of the solenoid, the wire experi- E2 M2 dI FG IJ 2
N B 2l2v mg R sin θ
Now, = mg sin θ or v = .
R B2 l 2
f
202. The variation of θ can be described in the stages :
B W E (i) When the magnetic bar enters the solenoid, by
Lenz’s law, the current in the coil is induced such
that it opposes the increase in flux due to the
magnetic field by the magnetic bar. The induced
S
current is indicated by the deflection θ as in the
Fig. 121
diagram.
the coil linking the ring. The motion of the ring will be
such that, by Lenz’s law, it opposes the sudden in-
crease in flux linkage from the west. Hence, the ring
moves towards E (east).
198. Assume the area of the flat coil of copper wire to be A.
Then the flux linking the coil is
FG 2 πt IJ
φ = BA = B0A sin
HTK
Thus, the induced emf in the coil is given by
dφ 2πB0 A 2 πt FG IJ
E=–
dt
=−
T
cos
T H K Fig. 122
2µ 0 I 2 2 2 µ 0I Fig. 124
T
= × = 212. Clearly, = 5 × 10–3 s or T = 2 × 10–2 s
πL 2 πL 4
Magnetic flux linked with small square loop of side l, φ 1
ν= × 102 Hz = 50 Hz.
2
2 2 µ 0I 2
= l 10
πL 213. I0 = A = 1 A.
If M be the mutual inductance, then 10
214. Clearly, XL = R
2 2 µ 0 l2
φ = MI ∴ M = or L × 2 × 3.14 × 1000 = 100
πL
398 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
100
or L= H 223. V= 2002 + 1502
2 × 3.14 × 1000
= 15.9 × 10–3 H = 15.9 mH ≈ 16 mH. or V = 10 400 + 225 volt = 250 volt.
215. Lω = 5 × 10–3 × 2000 = 10 Ω 224. At 50 Hz, Lω = R ; At 100 Hz, Lω = 2R.
So, current remains unchanged in R. However, it be-
1 1 100 comes half in L.
= −6
= Ω = 10 Ω
Cω 50 × 10 × 2000 10
225. V = 52 + (10 − 10)2 = 5 volt.
1 226. T can change C continuously but S can change L only
Since Lω = ,
Cω by steps.
∴ Z = R = 6 + 0.1 + 4 = 10.1 Ω 1
227. VC ∝ and VL ∝ f.
E 20 f
I0 = = A ≈ 2 A.
Z 10.1 ωL 10 × 01
.
228. tan φ = = =1
216. I is maximum at a certain frequency. This frequency R 1
is called resonance frequency.
∴ φ = π/4.
217. VC and I are 90° out of phase. So, ‘1’ is wrong. VR and
I are in same phase. c 3 × 108
229. ν= = Hz = 106 Hz
218. Voltages across L and C cancel out. λ 300
So, voltage across R is 220 V. 1 1
ν= ⇒ ν2 = 2
2π LC 4 π LC
220
Again, I0 = A = 2.2 A.
100 1
or L=
22 4 π ν2 C
2
219. 50 = L × 2 × × 50
7 1
or L= H
7 4 × 9.87 × 1012 × 2.4 × 10−6
L= H = 0.16 H.
44
220. P = Ev Iv cos φ 10−6
= H = 0.01 × 10–6 H = 10–8 H.
4 × 9.87 × 2.4
Ev R
P = Ev 230. The inductance offers large opposition to AC but small
Z Z opposition to DC. This small opposition to DC is due
Ev2R 110 × 110 × 11 to the fact that the coil is not resistanceless.
or P= 2 = W = 275 W.
Z 22 × 22
231. V= 102 + ( 20 − 10)2
1600 + 900 volt = 50 volt. 232. The given circuit is a series CR circuit. Determine the
or V=
capacitive reactance. ‘rms’ potential difference = rms
1 current × capacitive reactance.
222. ν= Hz 233. Reactance of the inductor L is given by XL = 2πf L.
2 × 3.14 8 × 0.5 × 10−6
∴ rms current through the inductor L is I2
103 V 1
= Hz = 79.6 Hz = ∝ where V is the rms of the supply voltage.
4 × 3.14 2πfL f
So, (b) is ruled out
1 1
Again, ω = rad s–1 Reactance of the capacitor C is given by XC = .
2πfC
8 × 0.5 × 10−6
∴ rms current through the capacitor is
103
= rad s–1 = 500 rad s–1
2 V
I3 = = 2πf CV ∝ f.
So, (a) and (c) are ruled out. XC
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 399
The total current I1 is given by I1 = I2 + I3 abruptly. Thus, immediately after the switch is
FG V − 2πf CVIJ . closed, the capacitor remains unchanged and hence
=
H 2 πf L K Q (t = 0) = 0 C.
The charging current I can be computed as follows :
Thus, I2 is best represented by curve R. t
I3 is best represented by curve P. V0 − τ
I= e
R
I1 is best represented by curve Q.
where τ = time constant = RC
234. Both V and I are in same phase. So, let us calculate
V0 = 100 V dc
the time taken by the voltage to change from peak
value to rms value. R = resistance = 1 MΩ
Now, 220 = 220 sin 100 πt1 V0 100
At t = 0, I = = 10 –4 A.
π 1 R 1 × 106
or 100 πt1 = or t1 = s
2 200
242. VL = 2202 − 1322 volt
220
Again, = 220 sin 100 πt2
2 = ( 220 + 132) ( 220 − 132) volt
1 π = 352 × 88 volt = 30976 volt = 176 volt.
or = sin 100 πt2 or 100 πt2 =
2 4 5
1 243. The rms current is Irms = (A).
or t2 = s 2
400 The mean power developed across a resistive load of
Required time = t1 – t2
2
10 Ω = Irms R =
FG 5 IJ 2
=
1
−
1
=
2 −1
=
1
s H 2K × 10 = 125 W.
200 400 400 400
244. Let R be the resistance of the resistor and if we repre-
= 2.5 × 10–3 s sent the current by I = I0 sin (2πft), the power dissi-
235. P = Vv Iv cos φ pated in the resistor is then given by
Here, power factor = 1 Power, P = I2R
V0 I0 V0I0 1 2
∴ P= . = . = I02R sin2 (2πft) = I R [1 – cos (4 πft)]
2 2 2 2 0
236. ω = 120, 2πν = 120 i.e. variation of power as function of time has a fre-
120 60 × 7 quency double that of the current function.
ν= = Hz ≈ 19 Hz. 245. e = E – iR
2π 22
Clearly, the graph is a straight line with negative
1 1
237. ω = = = 500 rad s–1. slope.
LC 0.5 × 8 × 10− 6 1
246. If Lω = , then Z = 0.
R 10 1 Cω
238. cos φ = = =
Z 20 2 1
φ = 60°. 247. Reactance of the capacitor is XC =
2 πfC
239. Ev = Iv XL = Lω Iv 1
= = 723 Ω
Ev 24 2π (100)( 2.2 × 10−6 )
ω= = rad s–1 = 103 rad s–1.
Iv L 0.6 × 40 × 10−3 The rms value of the current is thus
dI V (rms) 12
240. E – L = RI I= = = 16.6 mA or 17 mA.
dt XC 723
At t = 0, I = 0 1
248. Clearly, Lω =
dI dI E 5 Cω
∴ E=L or = = A s–1 = 2.5 A s–1.
dt dt L 2 So, circuit would behave as a purely resistive circuit.
241. By conservation of energy, the voltage/charge on an Ev 200
initially uncharged capacitor can be increased Iv = = = 2 A.
R 100
400 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
249. When the switch is closed (at t = 0 s), no current flows, During the negative cycle of the alternating voltage
voltage drop across the inductor is the same as the supply, there is a break in continuity due to removal
supply voltage of 16 V. Hence, by writing down the of the diode X. Hence, no potential difference across
voltage equation for the circuit, we have PQ is observed.
dI
V = RI + L
dt
dI
⇒ 1.6 = 4I + 0.20
dt
where I is the current drawn from the source.
At t = 0 s, I = 0, we thus have
dI dI 1.6
16 = 0.20 or (t = 0+) = = 8.0 A s–1.
dt dt 0.2
F t I
250. GG
I = I0 1 − e
−
τ
JJ
H K Fig. 126
t
t dI LI0 − τ The observation of the potential difference across PQ
dI I 0 − τ or E = L = e
= e dt τ on the oscilloscope is best represented by graph (b).
dt τ
254. Since the current in the resistor is half-wave rectified
t t t
LE − τ LE − τ
− by the diode current in series with the resistor, the
= e = L e = Ee τ
τR 1
R
R rms value for the current is that of the original
2
14 14 value.
251. i = A≈ = 10 A
2 1.4
Original rms current = I
120 value current
252. V= [2 sin 100 πt cos 100 πt] power dissipation,
2 I0 2
P=I R
or V = 60 sin 200 πt
Comparing with V = V0 sin ωt,
V0 = 60 volt and ω = 200 π t/s
or 2πν = 200 π or ν = 100 Hz
253. During the positive cycle of the alternating voltage
supply, the diode nearest to P on the upper branch
and the diode nearest to O at the lower branch are Original current in resistor
turned on and potential difference across PQ is near
to follow that of the input waveform. Fig. 127
Current
rms current =
I0 1 2 1
I = I
√2 √2
t/s
Fig. 128
Fig. 125
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 401
Thus, the power dissipation in the resistor with recti-
fied current flow is now LM
138 20 −
138 OP
F 1 IIJ R = 1 (I R) = P
2 (iv) Efficiency = N 240 Q
× 100
P =G 150 × 20
2
H 2 K 2
L 2
F I R 138 × 19.425
I = I G1 − e JJ − t = × 100 .
255. 0GH K
L 150 × 20
263. Vs = IsR = 0.5 × 200 = 100 volt
F I R R
I = I G1 − e J
e −1 e −1
− t − t Vp np 1
e 0G
H 0J
K
or
e
L = 1−e L
Vs
=
ns
=
10
1 1 R Vs 100
or = R or t=1 or Vp = = V = 10 V
e t L 10 10
eL
L 60 Ip ns
or t= = s = 2 s. Again = = 10
R 30 Is np
1 or Ip = 10 Is = 10 × 0.5 A = 5 A.
256. f=
2π LC 1
264. T = s.
c 1 50
= For the current to rise from zero to peak value,
λ 2π LC
T 1
3 × 108 1 required time is i.e. s.
= 4 200
300 π 2π L × 10−6 1−0
Now, E = 1.5 V
1/200
1
(2 × 106)2 = = 1.5 × 200 V = 300 V.
10−6 L
Ns 10
265. Es = × Ep = × 240 volt = 12 volt.
1 1 Np 200
or 10 –6L = × 10 –12 or L = × 10 –6
4 4
12 − e
or L = 2.5 × 10 –7 H. 266. 2 = or e = 10 volt
1
Lω When speed is halved, the induced emf is also halved.
257. tan φ =
R ∴ e′ = 5 volt
100 12 − 5
0.5 × 2 × π × Now, I= A = 7 A.
π = 1 or φ = 45°. 1
=
100 267. 20 = 42 × R
20
258. I = 32 + 42 , A = 25 A = 5 A. or R= Ω
16
Note. Think in terms of heating effect of current.
I = 4A
259 to 262. (i) 240 = I2 × 0.6 ∴ V = E – IR
240 20
or I2 = = 400 or I = 20 A or 220 = E – 4 ×
0.6 16
(ii) V = 150 – 20 × 0.6 or E = 225 volt.
= (150 – 12) volt = 138 volt
Es N 1
(iii) Current in the load resistance 268 to 273. (i) = s =
Ep N p 5
= Armature current – Field current
FG 138 IJ or Es =
1
× 1000 volt = 200 volt
= 20 −
H 240 K A 5
402 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Two coils have self-inductances L1 = 4 mH and L2 = 1 mH respectively. The currents in the two coils are increased at
the same rate. At a certain instant of time, both coils are given the same power. If I1 and I2 are the currents in the two
coils, at that instant of time respectively, then the value of (I1/I2) is
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1. [EAMCET 2003]
dI
Sol. P = EI or P = L I
dt
dI
Both P and are constants
dt
∴ LI = constant
I1 L 2 1
∴ = =
I 2 L1 4
So, (b) is the right choice.
l The self inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In order to impart maximum power at 50 Hz, it should be
connected to a capacitance of
(a) 2 µ F (b) 1 µ F (c) 8 µ F (d) 4 µ F. [AIEEE 2005]
1
Sol. ν=
2π LC
1 1
50 = or 2500 =
2π 10C 40 π 2C
1
or C= F = 10 –6 F = 1 µF
2500 × 40 × 10
So, (b) is the right choice.
l A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its
steady state value in
(a) 0.3 s (b) 0.15 s (c) 0.1 s (d) 0.05 s. [AIEEE 2005]
I0
Sol. L = 300 × 10 –3 H ; R = 2 Ω ; I =
2
−R
t
Using I = I0 (1 – e L )
−R −R
I0 t 1 L
t
= I0 (1 − e L ) or =1– e
2 2
−R −R
L
t 1 L
t −R
or e = or e =2 or t = loge 2 = 0.693
2 L
287. An AC source rated 100 V (rms) supplies a current of 290. A series LCR circuit is operated at resonance. Which of
10 A (rms) to a circuit. The average power delivered by the following statements is correct ?
the source (a) Impedance is minimum.
(a) must be 1000 W (b) may be 1000 W
(b) Voltage across R is minimum.
(c) may be greater than 1000 W
(c) Power transferred is maximum.
(d) may be less than 1000 W.
(d) Current amplitude is minimum.
288. In the AC circuit shown in Fig. 130, the supply voltage
291. A wire lmn moves
has a constant rms value V but variable frequency f.
along the bisector
At resonance, the circuit
of angle θ with
constant velocity
v in a uniform
magnetic field B
perpendicular to
the plane of the
paper and di- Fig. 131
rected down-
wards. Which of the following is correct ?
θ
(a) The effective length between l and n is 2L sin .
2
Fig. 130 θ
(b) The emf between a and b is 2B Lv sin .
2
(a) has a resonant frequency 500 Hz.
(c) The shape is immaterial. End points are important.
V (d) Data is not adequate.
(b) has a current I = .
R
292. In Fig. 132, a charged capacitor discharges when the
(c) has a voltage across the capacitor which is 180° out of switch is closed. In Fig. 133, an uncharged capacitor is
phase with that across the inductor.
V
(d) has a current I = .
R2 +
1 1 FG IJ 2
+
π π H K
289. A resistance of 1000 Ω, capacitance of 1.0 µF and an
inductance of 2 H are connected in series with a source
of 200 sin 1000 t volt. Mark the correct statement(s)
(a) Current = 0.1 A (b) Impedance = 1414 Ω
(c) Power factor = 0.707
(d) The voltage leads the current by 45°. Fig. 132
4
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 405
1 1 θ
289. XC = = Ω So, effective length is 2 L sin.
Cω 10−6 × 1000 2
= 103 Ω = 1000 Ω 292. The graph of θ versus time is the graph for the charg-
ing of a uncharged capacitor C through a resistor R in
XL = Lω = 2 × 1000 Ω
series.
= 2000 Ω
For the given circuit arrangements, only meter V3
Now,
Fig. 135 records the charging of the capacitor C.
Z= 10002 + ( 2000 − 1000)2 Ω 293. (a) Impedance is purely resistive.
(b) No phase difference between current and emf.
= 2 × 1000 Ω = 1.414 × 1000 Ω = 1414 Ω
(c) The sum of the voltages across L and C is zero.
200 (d) Q-factor is a measure of the voltage amplification.
I= A = 0.1 A
2 × 2 × 1000 294. Think in terms of sine curves of current and emf.
R 1000 1 R
Power factor, cos φ = = = = 0.707 295. cos φ =
Z 2 × 1000 2 Z
Also φ = 45°. R
When circuit is purely resistive, cos φ = =1
290. At resonance, impedance is minimum, current is maxi- R
mum, voltage across R is maximum and power trans- 0
ferred is maximum. When circuit is purely inductive, cos φ = = 0.
XL
θ y 100
291. sin = 296. I= A
2 L
30 + ( 60 − 20)2
2
θ
or y = L sin 100 100
2 or I= A= A=2A
900 + 1600 50
Fig. 136 R 30
Power factor, cos φ = = = 0.6.
Z 50
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A charged particle moves along the line AB which lies in the same plane of a circular loop
of conducting wire as shown in Fig. 137. Then,
(a) no current will be induced in the loop.
(b) the current induced in the loop will change its direction as the charged particle passes
by.
(c) the current induced will be anticlockwise.
A B
(d) the current induced will be clockwise. [Karnataka CET 2003] Fig. 137
Sol. Charge flowing along AB constitutes a current. According to Right hand thumb rule,
magnetic field passing through the loop, due to current I, will be perpendicular to the
plane of the page pointing upwards. The direction of current in the loop will be such as to
oppose the increase of this field (Lenz’s law).
So, (d) is the right choice.
A I I B
Fig. 138
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 407
MCQs
based on
SET IV
z
dt
move to ‘ + Z’ direction. So, the net magnetic flux E2 a2 T
through the xy plane will be zero. Now dQ = dt ⇒ Q = (T − 2t)2 dt
zL
R R 0
298. Shape immaterial. End points M and Q are important.
a2 T 2
Effective length = 2R. Induced emf = Blv = B(2R)v. or Q= (T + 4t 2 − 4 Tt) dt
MN z z z
Using Lenz’s law, we find that current flows clockwise. R 0
So, it would flow from Q to M. a2 T
T2 dt + 4
T
t2 dt − 4 T
T
tdt
OP
Clearly, Q is at a higher potential.
or Q=
R 0 0 0 Q
F EI E
Work done/time = EI = E G J =
2
B2l2v2 a2 L
MM
4T 3 F T I OP
− 4T G
2
H RK R H 2 JK PQ
299. = . 3
or Q= R T + 3
R
N
300. The peak of the emf reads 1.5 cm. Since the Y-sensi-
tivity is set to 10 V cm–1, this correspond to a peak
LM
a2 4 T 3
− T3
OP
a2 T 3 a2 T 3
value of (1.5) (10) or 15 V. Similarly, the period of the
or Q =
R 3 MN R 3 PQ or Q =
or Q =
3R
.
wave reads 1 cm or corresponds to 0.5 ms since the 303. Let us consider dN number of turns of radius r and
time-base is set at 0.5 ms cm–1. Thus, the frequency of thickness dr. If dE is the corresponding induced emf,
1 then
the wave is or 2000 Hz.
0.5 ms d d
|dE| = dN (πr2B) or |dE| = πr2dN (B sin ωt)
µ NI µ NI dt dt 0
301. φ = BA or φ = 0 × πr2 or φ = 0 πr
2r 2 or |dE| = πr2ω B0 dN cos ωt
µ NI µ I N
or φ= 0 (2πr) or φ = 0 [N × 2πr] or |dE| = πr2ω B0 cos ωt dr
4 4
z
a
µ 0Il
or φ= N a
4 |E| = πω B0 cos ωt r 2 dr
Neither I nor l changes. So, φ is unchanged. a 0
N a3 1
= πω B0 cos ωt = π Na2 B0 ω.
a 3 3
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 409
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on UNIT XIV
1. Refer to circuit of Fig. 154. E = 10 V, R1 = 2 Ω, R2 = 6. Which voltmeter will give zero reading at resonance ?
3 Ω, R3 = 6 Ω and L = 5H. The current I1 just after
L C
pressing the switch S is R
10 10
(a) A (b) A
4 5 V1 V2
10 10 V3
(c) A (d) A.
12 6
2. In Q. 1, the current I1 long after pressing the switch S
is
Fig. 144
(a) V1 (b) V2
(c) V3 (d) None.
7. For a fixed inductance, increasing the capacitance of a
tuning radio set, a listener will be tuning to stations of
(a) higher f (b) lower λ
(c) lower f (d) None of these.
8. An emf will be induced between the ends of the conduc-
tor shown in Fig. 145 when conductor moves in the
direction.
Fig. 143
M
10 10
(a) A (b) A L
4 5
10 10 Q
(c) A (d) A. N S
12 6
3. In Q. 1, the current I2 long after pressing the switch S
P
is
10 10 Fig. 145
(a) A (b) A
4 5 (a) P (b) Q
10 10 (c) L (d) M. [AIIMS 1992]
(c) A (d) A.
12 6
9. The dimensions of magnetic flux are
4. In Q. 1, the current I1 just after releasing the switch S
(a) MLT –2 A–2 (b) ML2T –2 A–2
is
(c) ML2T –1 A–2 (d) ML2T –2 A–1.
10 10
(a) A (b) A [MP PMT 1994]
4 5
10 10. The equivalent inductance of two inductances is
(c) 0 A (d) A. 2.4 henry when connected in parallel and 10 henry
6
when connected in series. The difference between the
5. In Q. 1, the current I2 just after releasing the switchs is
two inductances is
10 10 (a) 2 henry (b) 3 henry
(a) A (b) A
4 5 (c) 4 henry (d) 5 henry.
10
(c) A (d) zero. [MP PMT 2000]
12
410 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
11. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives a steady The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the
deflection because coil. The emf generated in it is
(a) eddy currents are produced in the conducting frame over (a) 104 V (b) 1.2 V
which the coil is wound.
(c) 1.0 V (d) 10–2 V.
(b) its magnet is very strong.
[MP PMT 1994]
(c) its pointer is very light.
20. A coil of resistance R and inductance L is connected to
(d) its frame is made of ebonite. [MP PMT 1994]
a battery of E volt emf. The final current in the coil is
12. The time required for a current to attain the given value
E E
in a DC circuit containing L and R, depends upon (a) (b)
R L
(a) R only (b) L only
E EL
L (c) (d) .
(c) R 2 + L2 R 2 + L2
R
(d) the applied potential difference. 21. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on
a table without touching each other. Loop A carries a
13. Two circuits have coefficient of mutual induction of
current which increases with time. In response, the loop-
0.09 henry. Average emf induced in the secondary by a
B,
change of current from 0 to 20 ampere in 0.006 second
(a) remains stationary (b) is attracted by the loop A
in the primary will be
(a) 120 V (b) 180 V (c) is repelled by the loop A
(c) 200 V (d) 300 V. [MP PET 1992] (d) rotates about its CM, with CM fixed. [IIT 1999]
14. An emf of 12 volt is induced in a given coil when the 22. The variation with time of the current through, and of
current in it changes at the rate of 48 ampere per the potential difference across, a resistor are shown
minute. The self inductance of the coil is below.
(a) 0.25 henry (b) 15 henry
(c) 1.5 henry (d) 9.6 henry.
[MP PMT 2000]
15. An inductance of negligible resistance whose reactance
is 22 Ω at 200 Hz is connected to 200 V, 50 Hz power
line. The value of inductance is
(a) 17.5 H (b) 1.75 H
(c) 0.175 H (d) 0.0175 H.
16. A circuit has an inductance of 10 mH and a resistance
of 10 Ω. It is connected to a DC source of emf 100 V. The Fig. 146
value of steady state current is Which graph best represents the variation with time of
(a) 0 (b) 0.1 A the power dissipated in the resistor ?
(c) 10 A (d) 104 A.
17. Which of the following is not an application of eddy
currents ?
(a) Induction furnace (b) Galvanometer damping
(c) Speedometer of automobiles
(d) X-ray crystallography.
18. In a coil of area of 10 cm2 and 10 turns, the magnetic
field is directed perpendicular to the plane and is chang-
ing at the rate of 108 gauss s–1. The resistance of the
coil is 20 Ω. The current in the coil will be
(a) 5 A (b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.05 A (d) 5 × 108 A.
19. The magnetic field in a coil of 100 turns and 40 cm2
area is increased from 1 tesla to 6 tesla in 2 second.
Fig. 147
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 411
23. In an AC circuit, the current lags behind the voltage by 32. AC can be measured with the help of
π/3. The components in the circuit are (a) hot wire ammeter (b) hot wire voltmeter
(a) R and L (b) R and C (c) moving coil galvanometer
(c) L and C (d) Only R. (d) tangent galvanometer.
[MP PMT 2000] 33. A hot wire ammeter reads 10 A in an AC circuit. The
24. The voltage of an AC source varies with time accord- peak value of current is
ing to the equation (a) 10 2 A (b) 5 πA
V = 100 sin 100 πt cos 100 πt 10
2
where t is in second and V is in volt. The (c) A (d) A. [KCET 2000]
π 2
(a) the peak voltage of the source is 100 volt. 34. The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with
(b) the peak voltage of the source is 50 volt. time as φ = 3t2 + 4t + 9. The magnitude of induced emf
(c) the peak voltage of the source is 100/ 2 volt. at t = 2 second is
(a) 9 V (b) 16 V
(d) the frequency of the source is 50 hertz.
[MP PMT 2000] (c) 3 V (d) 4 V. [KCET 2000]
25. The voltage measured across the AC main terminals is 35. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in
210 V. Then the peak to peak variation of voltage be- series with an AC source. As the frequency of the source
tween the terminals will be is slightly increased from a very low value, the reac-
tance
(a) 210 2 V (b) 420 V (a) of the inductor increases (b) of the resistor increases
(c) 420 2 V (d) 420 / 2 V. (c) of the capacitor increases (d) of the circuit increases.
26. Current in a circuit is wattless if 36. Two coils A and B having turns 300 and 600 respec-
(a) current is alternating tively are placed near each other. On passing a current
(b) inductance in the circuit is zero of 3.0 A in A, the flux linked with A is 1.2 × 10 –4 Wb
(c) resistance in the circuit is zero. and with B it is 9.0 × 10 –5 Wb. The mutual inductance
(d) resistance and inductance both are zero. of the system is
27. Energy required to establish a current of 4 A in a self- (a) 2 × 10 –5 H (b) 3 × 10 –5 H
inductance L = 200 mH is (c) 4 × 10 –5
H (d) 6 × 10 –5 H.
(a) 0.16 J (b) 0.40 J
[MP PMT 2001]
(c) 0.80 J (d) 1.6 J.
37. Primary coil of a transformer (turns ratio 1 : 1) is con-
28. When 100 volt DC is applied across a solenoid, a cur- nected to AC source E = E0 sin ωt. Then the form of
rent of 1 A flows in it. When 100 volt AC is applied secondary voltage during one complete cycle will be
across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 A. If the
frequency of AC source is 50 Hz, the impedance and
the inductance of solenoid are
(a) 100 Ω and 0.93 H (b) 100 Ω and 0.86 H
(c) 200 Ω and 0.55 H (d) 200 Ω and 1.0 H.
29. If the instantaneous current in an AC circuit is given
by i = 2 cos (ωt + φ) ampere, then the rms value of the
alternating current is
(a) 0 A (b) 2A
(c) 2 A (d) 2 2 A.
30. A series LCR AC circuit contains L = 8.0 H, C = 0.5 µF,
and R = 100 Ω. Then the resonant frequency will be
(a) 5 rad s–1 (b) 50 rad s–1
(c) 500 rad s –1
(d) 1500 rad s–1. Fig. 148
31. The frequency of AC is 50 Hz. How many times current
(a) A (b) B
becomes zero in one second ?
(c) C (d) D.
(a) 25 times (b) 50 times
(c) 100 times (d) 200 times. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998]
412 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
38. A 200 volt DC motor draws current 5 A at start, but 41. In series LCR AC circuit, the capacitance is changed
only 3 A while it is running. The back emf developed is from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the
(a) 200 × 3/5 volt (b) 200 × 5/3 volt inductance should be changed from L to
(a) L/4 (b) L/2
(c) 200 × 1/3 volt (d) 200 × 2/5 volt.
(c) 2L (d) 4L.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
39. A solenoid of length l metre has self inductance L henry. 42. In series LCR circuit, the voltages across R, L and C
are shown in the circuit. The voltage of applied source
If number of turns is doubled, its self inductance
is
(a) remains same (b) becomes 2L henry
L
(c) becomes 4L henry (d) becomes henry.
2
[MP PMT 2001]
40. Fig. 149 shows current versus time t in a primary cir-
cuit, and Fig. 150 shows conceivable emf ε induced in
the secondary for the changes in Fig. 149. The correct
one among them is
Fig. 151
(a) 10 V (b) 50 V
(c) 70 V (d) 110 V.
43. The potential difference V and current i flowing through
an instrument in an AC circuit are given by V = 5 cos
ωt volt and i = 2 sin ωt ampere respectively. Then the
power dissipated in the instrument is
(a) 0 W (b) 2.5 W
(c) 5 W (d) 10 W.
44. A train is moving towards north with a speed of 180
Fig. 149 kilometre per hour. If the vertical component of the
earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10 –4 T, the emf induced
in the axle 1.5 m long is
(a) 15 mV (b) 1.5 mV
(c) 5.4 mV (d) 54 mV. [KCET 2001]
45. In the circuit shown in Fig. 152, neglecting source
resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter readings will
respectively be
R = 30 W XL = 25 W XC = 25 W
A
Fig. 150 240 V, 50 Hz
(a) p (b) q
Fig. 152
(c) r (d) s.
(a) 150 V, 3 A (b) 0 V, 3 A
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995]
(c) 0 V, 8 A (d) 150 V, 8 A. [KCET 2001]
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 413
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c)
17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (a)
33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (d).
Solutions
1. R3 and L are not to be considered. I2 1 1 I2 1
= = or =
10 10 I 2 + I3 2 + 1 3 I1 3
Now, I= A= A.
2+3 5 1 1 10 10
or I1 = ×
I2 = A= A.
2. L is not to be considered. This is because the current 3 3 4 12
has become steady. 4 & 5. Resistance ‘reacts’ immediately. Inductance ‘reacts’
3×6 18 slowly.
R23 = Ω= Ω=2Ω 6. At resonance, the series combination of L and C gives
3+6 9
zero impedance.
R123 = (2 + 2) Ω = 4 Ω
10
I1 = A.
+ At resonance, the voltages across L and C
4 are equal but opposite in phase.
3. We have to distribute I1 between 3 Ω and 6 Ω
I2 3 1 1
= = 7. f=
I3 6 2 2π LC
When C increases, f decreases.
414 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
42. V2 = VR2 + (VL – VC)2 49. Power is dissipated only in the ohmic resistance.
or V2 = 402 + (50 – 20)2 50. VC = VL suggests resonance. Purely resistive circuit.
or V2 = 1600 + 900 = 2500 Applied emf = VR = 10 volt.
or V = 50 volt.
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l The time taken by AC of 50 Hz in reaching from zero to the maximum value is
(a) 50 × 10 –3 s (b) 5 × 10 –3 s (c) 1 × 10 –2 s (d) 2 × 10 –2 s [Karnataka CET 2003]
1 1 1
Sol. t = T= = s = 5 × 10–3 s
4 4 ν 200
So, (b) is the right choice.
416 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XIV
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
E E
O l X O l X
(a ) (b)
E E
O l X O l X
(c) (d )
O l X
(e)
Fig. 159
Fig. 157
3. A capacitor discharges through a resistance wire with 6. A uniformly wound solenoidal coil of self inductance
time constant τ1. When the wire is replaced by another 1.8 × 10 –4 henry and resistance 6 ohm is broken up
wire of the same material and length but double the into two identical coils. These identical coils are then
diameter, the time constant is τ2. What is the ratio connected in parallel across 12 V battery of negligible
τ1 : τ2 ? resistance. The steady state current through the bat-
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 tery is
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 (a) 8 A (b) 4 A
(e) 1 : 4. (c) 6 A (d) 2 A. [IIT 1989]
4. A capacitor of capacitance 1.0 µF carries a charge of 7. A coil of wire having finite inductance and resistance
15 mC. It is discharged through a 25 Ω resistor. What has a conducting ring placed coaxially within it. The
is the maximum current during the discharge ? coil is connected to a battery at time t= 0, so that a time-
(a) 0.60 A (b) 1.2 A dependent current I1 (t) starts flowing through the coil.
(c) 300 A (d) 600 A If I2 (t) is the current induced in the ring, and B (t) is
the magnetic field at the axis of the coil due to I1 (t),
(e) 1200 A.
then as a function of time (t > 0), the product I2 (t) B (t)
5. In the circuit shown in Fig. 160, the potential differ- (a) increases with time (b) decreases with time
ence V across the capacitor C is measured using a volt-
(c) does not vary with time (d) passes through a maximum.
meter of infinite resistance. HK and LM are parallel
fine wires. [IIT Screening 2000]
8. A uniform but time -
varying magnetic field
B(t) exists in a circu-
lar region of radius a
and is directed into the
plane of the paper as
shown in Fig. 162. The
magnitude of the in-
duced electric field at
point P at a distance r
Fig. 160 from the centre of the Fig. 162
A missile is projected in such a way as to break HK circular region
and then LM at times t1 and t2 respectively. Which (a) is zero (b) decreases as 1/r
graph best represents the variation of V with time t ? (c) increases as r (d) decreases as 1/r2.
[IIT Screening 2000]
V V V
9. A rectangular coil of
wire, initially placed
as shown in Fig. 163,
is rotated with
constant angular
O t1 t2 t O t1 t2 t O t1 t2 t velocity in a magnetic
(a ) (b) (c) field which acts in the
direction of XX′. The
V V sinusoidal emf rep-
resented by Fig. 164 Fig. 163
is observed to be
produced across the emf
ends of the coils.
O t1 t2 t O t1 t2 t Which one of the
(d ) (e) following movements
would have given this 0
0 time
Fig. 161 result ?
Fig. 164
418 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
dr
(c) 2πrB (d) zero.
dt
15. Sliding contact in circuit shown in Fig. 167 is pulled to
the right continuously so that the resistance in the cir-
cuit is continuously increasing. Value of resistance at
the instant shown is 4 Ω. Now, which of the following
is correct ?
9 mH
Fig. 165
F
1 πω a2B I2 FG IJ
1 πω B
(a)
2RGH 2 JK (b)
H K
2R 2a2
1 F πω 2 B I 1 F πω B2 I
2R GH 2a JK 2R GH 2a JK
(c) (d) .
2V
X X
e t e t
O O
(c) (d )
What would be the effect on the trace of linking the coils 21. The bob of a simple pendulum
by a soft-iron core ? is replaced by a magnet. The os-
height of trace number of cycles on screen cillations are set along length of
(a) increases increases the magnet. If a copper coil is
(b) increases stays the same now added so that one pole of
(c) stays the same increases the magnet passes in and out of
(d) stays the same stays the same.
it, and the coil is short-
20. XY is a boundary region separating two regions as circuited, the effect will be
shown in Fig. 170. There is no magnetic field in region (a) increases of amplitude
I but a uniform magnetic field in region II. ACD is a
(b) decreases of period
semi-circular conductor of radius r lying in region I. It
is rotated with a constant angular speed ω about an (c) no effect on period
(d) quicker dying of oscillations. Fig. 172
axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane
of the page. Which one of the following graphs [Fig. 171] [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
represents correctly the variation of induced emf with
time ?
420 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
22. A pair of coils of turns n1 and n2 are kept close together. ing quantity ?
If a current passing through the first is reduced at rate (a) Curve I for R (b) Curve II for current I
r, an emf 2 mV is developed across the other coil. If the (c) Curve III for XL (d) Curve IV for XC.
second coil carries current which is then reduced at
the rate 3r, the emf produced across the first coil will
be
(a) 6n1/n2 mV (b) 6n2/n1 mV2
(c) 6 mV (d) 3/2 mV.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
23. Assuming that the magnetic field B due to a current-
carrying solenoid is uniform throughout the volume V
of the solenoid, then the magnetic energy stored in the
solenoid is
Fig. 173
B2 B2
(a) (b) [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001]
µ0 2µ 0
B2 29. The bulbs B1 and B2 , as shown in Fig. 174, are identi-
(c) V (d) Data is not sufficient. cal.
2µ 0
24. An alternating current is given by
B2
i = i1 cos ωt + i2 sin ωt. L = 10 mH
The rms current is given by
i1 + i2 i1 + i2
(a) (b) B1
2 2
500 µF
i12 + i2 2 i12 + i2 2
(c) (d) .
2 2
25. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for
deciding the mutual inductance of two coils ?
220 V, 50 Hz
(a) The number of turns of each coil.
(b) The shape of each coil. Fig. 174
(c) Current through each coil.
(a) B2 will be brighter than B1
(d) Separation between the coils.
(b) As frequency supply voltage is increased, brightness of
26. To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy, one
B1 will increase and that of B2 will decrease
can use
(c) Their brightness will be the same
(a) DC dynamo (b) AC dynamo
(d) Only B2 will glow because the capacitor has infinite im-
(c) motor (d) transformer.
pedance.
27. Resonance occurs in a series LCR circuit when the fre-
30. In an AC series circuit, the instantaneous current is
quency of the applied emf is 1000 Hz. Then
zero when the instantaneous voltage is maximum. Con-
(a) when f = 900 Hz, the circuit behaves as a capacitive cir-
nected to the source may be a
cuit
(a) pure inductor (b) pure capacitor
(b) the impedance of the circuit is maximum at f = 1000 Hz
(c) pure resistor
(c) at resonance the voltage across L and voltage across C
(d) combination of an inductor and a capacitor.
differ in phase by 180°.
31. The current in a LR circuit builds up to 3/4th of its
(d) if the value of C is doubled, resonance occurs at f = 2000
steady state value in 4 second. The time constant of
Hz. [National Standard Exam. in
this circuit is
Physics 1997]
1 2
28. In a series LCR circuit, different physical quantities (a) s (b) s
ln 2 ln 2
vary with frequency ω. Which of the following curves
represent correct frequency variation of the correspond- 3 4
(c) ln 2 s (d) ln 2 s.
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 421
32. An inductive reactance, XL = 100 Ω, a capacitive reac- (a) the bulb stops glowing
tance, XC = 100 Ω and a resistance, R = 100 Ω, are (b) momentarily the bulb becomes dim and then stops glow-
connected in series with a source of 100 sin 50 t volt. ing
(c) momentarily the bulb becomes very bright and then stops
Mark the correct statement(s).
glowing
(a) The net impedance of the circuit is 100 Ω
(d) the bulb continues to glow for some time and then stops
(b) The maximum voltage across the series is 100 V glowing. [National Standard Exam. in
(c) The maximum voltage across the capacitor is 100 V Physics 2000]
(d) The maximum voltage across the inductance is 100 V. 35. For the circuit shown in Fig. 176 the ammeter A2 reads
33. A solenoid coil of length l with n turns has self induct- 1.6 A and ammeter A3 reads 0.4 A. Then
ance L. If both n and l are doubled, the self inductance
will be
(a) L (b) 2L
(c) L/2 (d) 4L.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001]
34. For the circuit ar-
rangement shown in
Fig. 175, the circuit
is switched on and
the variable resist-
ance is adjusted
such that the bulb Fig. 176
just glows. Now if 4 2π
(a) ω0 = (b) f2 =
the circuit is LC LC
switched off Fig. 175 (c) the ammeter A1 reads 1.2 A
(d) the ammeter A1 reads 2 A.
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (d) 5. (e) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (e) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a)
17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (a), (b), (d) 26. (a), (b) 27. (a), (c) 28. (a), (c) 29. (a), (b) 30. (a), (b), (d) 31. (b) 32. (a), (b), (c), (d)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c).
Solutions
1. The potential difference across a resistor is propor- φ = BA
tional to the current. Each time that the input changes
R|(µ nI ) A cos ωt for x near t (centre of the solenoid)
S| µ nI A cos ωt
from low to high, C charges up thus taking a current 0 0 2
= 0 0
that drops to zero as C charges. When the input
changes from high to low, C discharges. So, a discharge T 2 for x = 0 or t (ends of the solenoid)
current flows through R (in the reverse direction to where A is the cross-sectional area of the coil
the charging current). n is the number of turns per meter.
2. The magnetic flux along the axis of the solenoid is given I0 cos ωt is the alternating current with am-
by plitude I0.
422 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Thus, the emf induced in the search coil varies with 6. We are interested in the steady-state current. So, let
its position is given by us focus our attention only on resistance.
dφ
R|[ωµ nI A] sin ωt for x near
0 0
t Each ‘half coil’ has a resistance of 3Ω. Combined re-
S|L ωµ nI A O sin ωt for x = 0, t
2
E=– = sistance is 1.5 Ω.
TMN 2 PQ
dt 0 0
12
∴ I0 = A = 8 A.
1.5
The amplitude of the emf induced is the one in brack-
ets [ ] which is most appropriately represented by 7.
LM
I1(t) = I0(t) 1 − e
−
R
t OP
MN PQ
L
graph d.
Note. The amplitude of the induced emf at the two ends is
half of that at the centre of the solenoid. LM
B(t) = B0 1 − e
−
R
t OP
MN PQ
L
3. The time constants τ1 and τ2 are given by
RS τ
1 = CR1 R
Tτ2 = CR2 I2(t) =
d
dt
B R − t
[ B(t )] = 0 e L
L
where C is the capacitance of the capacitor.
R1 is the resistance of the wire with time constant τ1. B 2R − LM R
t −
2R
t OP
Now, I2(t) B(t) = 0
MN PQ
e L −e L
R2 is the resistance of the wire with time constant τ2. L
Since resistance R is inversely proportional to the
square of the diameter d (or area) of the wire, we have At t = 0, I2 (t) B (t) = 0
z
R2 d1 1
→ → dφ dB
Hence, the ratio τ2 : τ1 is given by 8. E . dl = or E × 2πr = A
dt dt
τ 2 R1 1
= = or 1 : 4. dB a 2 dB 1
τ1 R2 4 or E × 2πr = πa2 or E = or E ∝ .
dt 2r dt r
4. The voltage across the capacitor before discharge takes
9. The flux linkage in the coil is given by
place is
Q 15 × 10 −3
V= = = 15 × 103 V
C 1.0 × 10 −6
The maximum current during the discharge is the cur-
rent flowing through the resistor of 25 Ω immediately
after the switch is closed.
V 15 × 10 −3
∴ Imax = = = 600 A.
R 25
5. During the time from O to t1 second, the potential dif-
ference across the capacitor is the same as the volt-
age of the source.
Between time t1 to t2 second when HK is broken, dis-
charge of capacitor C through resistor in branch LM
Fig. 177
occurs.
During this period, the potential difference V decays φ = BNA cos θ
exponentially. where N is the number of turns in the coil.
After time t2 second when LM is also broken, the dis- A is the cross-sectional area of each turn
charge from C stops and the potential difference V B is the magnetic field in XX′ direction.
maintains constant at the same level just before t2. Thus, the induced emf E in the coil is given by
This variation of V is best represented in graph e. dφ dθ
E=– = + (BAN sin θ)
dt dt
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT 423
which is dependent on the value of sin θ and the angu- For each of the cases (A to E), the values of cos θ and
dθ dθ
lar speed . may be summarised as follows :
dt dt
A. rotation of a quarter revolution changes from θ to π/2 rad changes from 0 to 1 increases from 0 to
dθ
about axis YY′ = ω = constant maximum
dt
angular velocity
Fig. 178
d d 1 LM FG
πa 2 ω cos ωt
IJ OP 11. When a constant potential difference is applied across
N H K
10. e=– [φ] = – B a solenoid of inductance L, the induced emf across the
dt dt 2 Q coil E is given by the equation
1
= πBa2ω sin ωt dI
2 E=L
e dt
i= where L = constant of proportionality = inductance
R
Thermal power at any instant = e i of the coil, L.
F eI = e 2
LM
1 1 OP 2 dI
= rate of change of current through the coil.
= (e)
H RK R =
R 2NπBa 2 ω sin ωt
Q dt
z
opposite to that linking the right-half circle of coil.
I0 = = steady state current through the solenoid.
R → → dφ
F F 17. E . dl = [Ignoring –ve sign]
12. φ = BA, F = Bqv, B = or φ = A dt
qv qv
d π r 2 dB r dB
2 ∴ E × 2πr = [πr2B] or E = =
Nm dt 2 πr dt 2 dt
SI unit is
As ms−1 1 dB
F = QE = rQ
Nm 2 dt
or or 1 kg m s–2 m A–1 or kg m2 s–2 A–1.
A 1 2 dB
13. All the spokes are in parallel. τ = Fr = r Q .
2 dt
14.
15.
|E|=
I=
E 2
d
dt
[B × πr2] = 2πrB
= A = 0.5 A
dr
dt
.
18.
z → →
E . dl = −
Clearly, E ≠ 0
dφ
dt
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Input power at 22000 V is to be stepped down to 220 V by a transformer with a winding of 4400 turns in the primary.
What should be the number of turns in the secondary of the transformer ?
(a) 440 (b) 44 (c) 220 (d) 5 [Kerala PMT 2003]
Ns 220
Sol. = or Ns = 44
4400 22000
So, (b) is the right choice.
UNIT XV
OPTICS
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 30 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
OPTICS
SYNOPSIS
429
C-11\IITS\C15-1 CDR\C-151a
430 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(iv) Illuminance is directly proportional to the efficiency 30. Radiant flux through an area is the total amount of
of the light source, provided the sources have the energy flowing normally per second through that area.
same input energy. It includes all radiations whether visible or not. It
20. Phot or centimetre candle is the illuminance produced represents the radiant power of the source.
at the inner surface of a sphere of one centimetre 31. Radiant flux is measured in watt.
radius when a source of one candela is placed at its 32. The luminous flux per unit radiant flux is called
centre. luminous efficiency.
21. The intensity of illumination of surface is called Total luminous flux
1 phot (or a centimetre candle) if it is held at a distance 33. Luminous efficiency = .
of 1 cm from a source of one candela in such a way Total radiant flux
that light rays fall normally on the surface. 34. The efficiency of a light source is the ratio of the lumi-
22. Lux or metre candle is the illuminance produced at nous flux emitted and the input electrical power.
the inner surface of a sphere of one metre radius when 35. The efficiency of a light source is the ratio of the out-
a source of one candela is placed at its centre. put power in the visible region to the input electrical
23. The intensity of illumination of a surface is called power.
1 lux (or a metre candle) if it is held at a distance of 36. The unit of luminous efficiency is lumen/watt.
1 m from a source of one candela in such a way that 37. The efficiency of an electric bulb is nearly four times
light rays fall normally on the surface. Its symbol less as compared to the efficiency of a fluorescent tube.
is lx. So, for the same consumption of power, the amount of
24. 1 phot = 1 lm cm–2 light received from a bulb is four times less than the
1 lux = 1 lm m–2 amount of light received from a fluorescent tube.
25. Relation between phot and lux 38. RATIO OF INTENSITIES OF ILLUMINATION AT
THE CENTRE AND EDGE OF A CIRCULAR
1 phot = 1 lm cm–2 = 1 lm (10–2m)–2 = 104 lm m–2
TABLE
1 phot = 104 lux
I
26. Relationship between illuminance and EC = θ
luminous intensity I for a point source h2
2
r +
I cos θ
p I cos θ h
E= EE =
h
2
r 2 r2 + h2
^n
If the surface is perpen- I h
dicular to the light beam, = × E
r r + h2
2
r + h2
2 C r
then θ = 0° and cos θ = cos
θ
0° = 1. Ih
In that case, or EE = Fig. 2
(r + h2 )3 / 2
2
I O
E=
Now, EC I (r 2 + h 2 ) 3 / 2
r 2 = 2 ×
Fig. 1 EE h Ih
27. Lambert’s cosine law
(r 2 + h2 )3 / 2
(r 2 + h2 )3 / 2 r F I
2 3 /2
∴ E ∝ cos θ
The illuminance of the surface is directly proportional h3
= 2 3/ 2
(h )
= 1+ 2
h
. = GH JK
to the cosine of the angle of inclination i.e., the angle 39. RATIO OF INTENSITIES OF ILLUMINATION AT
between the direction of the central ray and the nor- THE CENTRE AND CORNER OF A SQUARE
mal to the surface. TABLE
28. At noon, the rays of light fall normally. So, θ = 0°. I
2
h
EO = θ
This increases E considerably.
+ 2
2
h2
l
MN 2 PQ
l
Lambert’s cosine law, the intensity of heat radiation 2
O 2
on the surface of earth will be maximum in December
and minimum in June. So, in the southern LMh 2
+
l2 OP 3/ 2
= N
M +
2 PQ = N
M +
2 PQ = 1+
LM l2 OP 3/ 2
.
tion is 2φ. Thus, the reflected ray is turned through
h3 [ h2 ]3 / 2 MN 2 h2 PQ twice the angle described by the mirror.
42. When three plane mirrors are at right angles to each
40. RATIO OF INTENSITIES OF ILLUMINATION AT
other, one image is produced by each plane mirror
A POINT ON THE CENTRE OF THE EDGE AND
and one by each of the three pairs of combination of
THE CORNER OF SQUARE TABLE
two mirrors each.
I cos θ1 Ih 43. The image in a plane mirrorr undergoes depth inver-
EC = = 3
r12 r1 sion. So, the time on the image clock is as much ahead
h q1
l2 q2
of 12 hour zero minute as the time on actual clock is
But 2
r1 = h2 + behind 12 hour zero minute.
4 r2
r1 44. The size of the mirror has no effect on the nature of
Ih C¢
∴ EC = the image. However, it affects the brightness of the
LMh 2 l O
+ P
2 3/ 2 image.
MN 4 PQ
C
45. NUMBER OF IMAGES FORMED BY TWO IN-
CLINED PLANE MIRRORS
I cos θ2 Ih
EC′ = = Consider two plane mirrors inclined to each other at
r22 r23 an angle θ degrees. When an object is placed between
Fig. 4 them, multiple images are formed. This is due to
l2
But r22 = h2 + multiple successive reflections.
2
360
Ih If is even, then the number of images is given by
∴ EC′ = θ
LMh 2
+
l2 OP 3/ 2
360
MN 2 PQ n=
θ
–1
360
LMh 2
+
l2 OP 3/ 2
LM h 2 l2 OP 3/ 2 If
θ
is odd, then the following two situations arise :
Now, EC = Ih
×N
M 2 PQ =M
+
2 PP (i) If the object lies symmetrically, then
LMh MM h
PPQO
3/ 2 l2
EC ′
2
+
l2 Ih
N
2
+ PQ n=
360
–1
MN 4
4 θ
(ii) If the object lies asymmetrically, then
41. ROTATING A MIRROR 360
A ray of light striking the mirror at an angle of inci- n=
θ
dence θ is reflected at the same angle. The deviation
i.e. the angle between incident and reflected rays is 360
If the two plane mirrors are parallel, then n =
180° – 2θ. 0
= ∞. So, infinite number of images is formed in this
If the direction of the incident ray is unchanged and
case.
the mirror is rotated through an angle φ, then each of
Angle between two mirrors, θ 15° 30° 45° 60° 72° 90° 120° 180° 360°
360
24 12 8 6 5 4 3 2 1
θ
Number of images
A′
F B P B′
61. The refractive index of denser medium w.r.t. rarer 64. The optical fibres can transmit light beam from one
medium is the reciprocal of the refractive index of end to the other due to the repeated total internal
rarer medium w.r.t. denser medium. reflections even if the fibre is bent or twisted.
1 65. The optical illusion that water is present at some dis-
aµb = . tant place is called inferior mirage. This generally
µ
b a
occurs on very hot summer days. This is due to total
62. The ray of light will leave the parallel glass slab at internal reflection.
the same angle at which it entered the glass slab on
66. The optical illusion of objects floating in air is called
the opposite side. However, it gets laterally displaced.
superior mirage. It is also known as looming. This
t sin (i1 − r1) occurs in very cold regions. This is due to total inter-
Lateral displacement =
cos r1 nal reflection.
Here i1, is the angle of incidence, r1 is the angle of 67. The refractive index of denser medium b w.r.t. rarer
refraction and t is the thickness of the slab. medium a is the ratio of real depth and apparent
depth.
63. The angle of incidence in the denser medium for which
the angle of refraction is 90° is called critical angle. Real depth
aµb =
Apparent depth
1
µ= Apparent depth
sin ic or bµa = .
Real depth
434 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
68. For refraction from rarer to denser medium 76. The distance of the second principal focus of a lens
from its optical centre is called the second principal
µ1 µ 2 µ 2 − µ 1
+ = . focal length of the lens.
−u v R
69. For refraction from denser to rarer medium
µ2 µ µ − µ2
+ 1= 1 . F2
−u v R C F2 C
µ 2R F I
f2 =
µ 2 − µ1
1
f2
= (µ − 1)
1
GH
−
1
R1 R2
JK
µ 2 − µ1 77. Linear magnification produced by a lens,
Power of refracting surface, P =
(in dioptre).
R v f −v f
71. FORMULA FOR MAGNIFICATION IN THE m= = = .
u f f +u
CASE OF REFRACTION AT SPHERICAL SUR-
FACES
In the case of convex lens, linear magnifica-
µ v tion is negative in the case of real image and
Transverse magnification, m = 1 .
µ 2v positive in the case of virtual image.
72. LENS MAKER’S FORMULA FOR THIN LENS In the case of concave lens, magnification is
1 F I F1 I always positive.
f
= (µ – 1)
1
GH
−
1
R1 R 2
JK or P = (µ – 1) GH R
1
−
1
R2
JK
.
78. POWER OF A LENS
73. First Principal focus of a lens is that point on the 1
principal axis of the lens at which if an object is placed, P=
f
the image would be formed at infinity.
Since focal length of a converging lens is positive there-
74. The distance of the first principal focus of a lens from fore its power is positive. Similarly, the power of a diverging
its optical centre is called the first principal focal length lens is negative.
of the lens. Opticians express the power of a lens in terms of a
unit called the dioptre. It is regarded as the SI unit of optical
power.
The power of a lens is said to be one dioptre if the focal
F1
F1 length of the lens is 1 metre.
C C
100
When focal length is in cm, P =
dioptre.
f
f1 f1
79. LENS EQUATION/LENS FORMULA
1 1 1
Fig. 5 Fig. 6 − =
v u f
F I This equation holds good for both convex and concave
1
f1
= (µ − 1)
1
− GH
1
R1 R 2
JK lenses, whether the image formed is real or virtual.
80. DISPLACEMENT METHOD FOR FINDING THE
75. Second principal focus of a lens is that point on the FOCAL LENGTH/POWER OF A CONVEX LENS
principal axis of the lens where the image is formed (i) In this method, the distance between the object
when the object is at infinity. and the screen must be greater than 4 f, where f is the focal
length of the convex lens.
OPTICS 435
(ii) The image on the screen can be formed correspond- 2 2
1 1 1
ing to two different positions of the lens. = − = −
f v u D + d − (D − d)
(iii) Fig. 9 shows the magnified image of size I1 for the
position L1 of the lens. [Note that object distance is taken as negative.]
I1 v 1 2 2
m1 = = …(1) or = +
O u f D+d D−d
u v
1 2D − 2d + 2D + 2d
or =
O f D2 − d 2
I1 1 4D D2 − d 2
or = 2 or f=
L1 f D − d2 4D
Fig. 9 4D
Also, P=
(iv) Fig. 10 shows the diminished image of size I2 for D − d2
2
Adding,
1 1 1 1 …(1)
v u + = −
f1 f2 v u
L1 L2
d
D
Fig. 10
L1 L2
I u
m2= 2 = …(2) O I I1
O v
From (1) and (2), u v
v1
I1I2 v u
= × =1
O2 u v
I 1I2 Fig. 11
or O=
If the given combination is replaced by a single lens of
I1 v v v2 (D + d)2 focal length F which forms the image of the given point object
Also, = × = 2 =
I2 u u u (D − d)2 at I, then
m1 v2 1 1 1 …(2)
(v) = = −
m2 u2 F v u
(vi) d = v – u and D = v + u 1 1 1
Comparing (1) and (2), = +
D+d F f1 f2
2v = D + d or v =
2
If P is the power of the combination, then P = P1 + P2
D−d where P1 and P2 are the powers of the individual lenses.
Again, 2u = D – d or u =
2
436 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
A
beyond between f and 2f real inverted m<1 negative
2f (u > 2f) (f < v < 2f) diminished
F B´ 2F
B 2F F
A´
B F 2F
2F F B´
A´
A´
A´
between at a distance virtual erect m>1 positive
optical centre greater than the magnified
and focus object distance A
(u < f) and on the same B´ F
side as object 2F F B
(v > u)
OPTICS 437
83. Concave Lens
at infinity at focus virtual erect m<1 positive
(u = ∞) (v = f) diminished
B F B´
84. A substance in which the speed of a wave varies with For an achromatic combination of two prisms,
wavelength is said to exhibit dispersion. (µv – µr)A + (µv′ – µr′) A′ = 0
85. The phenomenon of splitting a ray of white light into Also, ωδ + ω′δ′ = 0.
its constituent colours (wavelength) is called dispersion. 97. Dispersion without deviation
86. The band of colours, from red to violet, that emerges δ + δ′ = 0
from the prism is called spectrum. (µ – 1)A + (µ′ – 1)A′.
87. The difference in the deviations suffered by two colours 98. A prism is a wedge-shaped body made from a trans-
in passing through a prism gives the angular parent refracting medium bounded by two plane
dispersion for these colours. surfaces inclined to each other at some angle.
88. Angular dispersion is defined as the rate of change of 99. The line along which the refracting faces of the prism
angle of deviation with wavelength. meet is called the refracting edge of the prism.
89. The angle between the emergent rays of any two
100. The angle between the two refracting faces of the prism
colours is called angular dispersion between those
is called the angle of the prism. It is denoted by A.
colours.
101. The minimum value of the angle of deviation of a ray
90. Angular dispersion = δv – δr = (µv – µr) A
of light passing through a prism is called angle of
91. The dispersive power of the material of a prism for minimum deviation.
any two colours is defined as the ratio of the angular
102. The refractive index of the material of the prism is
dispersion for these two colours to the mean deviation
given by :
produced by the prism.
It may also be defined as dispersion per unit deviation. FG A + δ IJ
H 2 K
m
δ − δ r µv − µ r sin
92. Dispersive power = v =
δ µ−1
µ=
F AI
sin G J
Here, δ = v
δ + δr
and µ = v
µ + µr H 2K
2 2
103. In the position of minimum deviation,
93. Chromatic aberration = ω f.
A + δm A
94. The condition for achromatism is : i= and r =
ω1 ω2 2 2
+ = 0. 104. Inside a prism, the refracted ray bends towards the
f1 f2
base.
95. Spherical aberration can be minimised by using two
105. Dense hot gases and white hot solids give continuous
plano-convex lenses separated by a distance d such
spectrum.
that
106. Line spectrum is given by substances in atomic states.
d = f1 – f2.
Examples : sodium vapour lamp, mercury vapour lamp
96. Deviation without dispersion
and gases in discharge tubes.
438 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
eye as seen through the telescope to the angle sub- The adjustment of the telescope shown in Fig. 15 is
tended by the object as seen directly, when both the called normal adjustment.
object and the image are at infinity. Length of telescope = fo + 4fa + fe
(a) When the final image is formed at infinity
fo
Magnifying power =
fe
fo
fe
If the final image is formed at the least distance of
distinct vision, then magnifying power is
α
α
Fo, Fe
FG
fo f IJ
C1 I β C2
feH1+ e .
D K
114. GALILEAN TELESCOPE
E Length of telescope tube is fo – fe , where fo and fe
t
O
ag
ea represent the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece
Im inity
in f respectively. Magnifying power is the ratio of the focal lengths
of the objective and eyepiece.
Fig. 13
fo
M=–
fe
Clearly, for high angular magnification, the objective
should have a large focal length and the eyepiece a small
focal length. It may be noted that the separation of the lenses
is fo + fe.
(b) When the final image is formed at the least distance
of distinct vision O E
fe
fo
C Fe Fo C´ Fig. 16
α
α I β The main disadvantage of the Galileo telescope is that
the field of view of this telescope is small as compared to the
I´
other terrestrial telescope and the astronomical telescope.
D 115. PRISM BINOCULAR
Fig. 14 O
fo f FG IJ
M=–
fe
1+ e .
D H K P1
A1
2fa
Fo E
B B1
Fig. 17
2fa
A
Auxiliary 116. In YDSE, the distance of nth bright fringe from the
lens Eyepiece
nDλ
Objective centre of interference pattern is , where D is the
d
Fig. 15
440 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
distance of the screen from the slits and d is the dis- produce separate images of two objects very close to-
tance between the two coherent sources producing gether is called resolving power. The term “resolv-
interference. ing power” is used in two senses : (1) when the pur-
117. In YDSE, the distance of nth dark fringe from the pose is to see as separate two objects close together or
(2n + 1)Dλ when the fine structure is seen in a microscope or
centre of the interference pattern is . telescope ; and (2) when the purpose is to see two spec-
2d
tral lines as distinct from each other.
Dλ
118. In YDSE, the fringe width is . 128. Resolving power of a lens. The resolving power of
d
a lens is its ability to resolve two points that are close
119. If a thin film of mica of thickness t is introduced in to each other. In other words, the resolving power of a
the path of one of the interfering rays, then the shift lens is its ability to separate the images of two points
D that are close together. The resolving power is directly
of the central bright fringe is (µ – 1) t. However,
d proportional to the aperture of the lens and inversely
there is no effect on fringe width. So, the fringe pat- proportional to the wavelength of light used. Thus,
tern remains unchanged. increasing the aperture of the lens increases its
120. In diffraction due to a single slit, the condition for nth resolving power since it decreases the diameter of the
secondary minimum is diffraction disc and thus two images can be closer
d sin θn = nλ together without overlapping by as much as the radius
121. The condition for nth secondary maximum is : of the disc.
129. Resolving power of an optical instrument. The
λ
d sin θn = (2n + 1) resolving power of an optical instrument is the angle
2 subtended at the objective by two point objects which
122. In diffraction at a single slit, the secondary maxima are just resolved. Smaller the angle, higher is the
are less intense than central maximum. resolving power of the optical instrument. The resolv-
123. Fresnel distance is that distance from the slit at which ing power may also be defined as the ratio of wave-
the spreading of light due to diffraction becomes equal length λ to the smallest difference in wavelength dλ
to the size of the slit. It is generally denoted by DF or that can be resolved.
ZF . 130. Rayleigh criterion. According to Rayleigh criterion,
124. According to Malus’ law, I = I0 cos2
θ where θ is the when the central maximum in the diffraction pattern
angle between the planes of transmission of analyser of one point source falls over the first minimum in
and polariser. the diffraction pattern of the other point source, then
125. According to Brewster’s law, µ = tan ip, where ip is the two point sources are said to have been resolved
the polarising angle. by the optical instrument.
126. Eye as an optical instrument has a limitation. 131. Resolving power of a microscope. The resolving
When two objects or their images are very close power of microscope is its ability to form separate im-
together, then it may not be possible for the eye to see ages of two point objects lying close together. It is
them as separate. The eye can see two objects as sepa- determined by the least distance between two point
rate only if the angle subtended by them at the eye is objects which can be distinguished. This distance is
greater than 1′. This is on the assumption that the λ
pupil of the eye is nearly 2 mm in diameter. given by ∆d = , where λ is the wavelength of
2µ sin θ
127. Need of telescope or microscope with reference
light used to illuminate the object and µ is the refrac-
to resolution and resolving power. If two nearby
tive index of the medium between the object and the
objects subtend an angle less than 1′ at the eye, they
objective. The angle θ is the half-angle of the cone of
cannot be seen as separate. However, they may be
light from the point object i.e. it is the angle which a
seen as separate from each other by using either a
marginal ray makes with the axis of the microscope.
lens or a telescope or a microscope or prism etc. The
The term µ sin θ is called the numerical aperture of
method of seeing such objects as separate is called
the objective.
resolution. The ability of an optical instrument to
OPTICS 441
Name of Year Name of Recti- Reflec- Refrac- Double Inter- Diffrac- Polarisa- Disper- Photo Compton
theory scientist linear tion tion refrac- ference tion tion sion electric effect
propaga- tion effect
tion
Corpus- 1675 Newton Yes Yes Yes No No No No No No No
cular theory
of light
Wave theory 1678 Huygens Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes No No
of light
Electro- 1873 Maxwell Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes No No
magnetic
wave theory
of light
Quantum 1905 Einstein Yes Yes Yes No No No No No Yes Yes
theory of
light
Dual theory 1923 de Broglie Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes
of light
EA ( 2 r) 2
Sol. = 30°
EB I r
(2r)2
A
r
x
r
1 1 2×2 Fig. 21
= × × = 2
2 2 1 B x
Fig. 19
Now, tan 30° =
So, (d) is the right choice. 0.2
0.2
Illustration 2. Two plane mirrors A and B are or x = 0.2 tan 30° = m
aligned parallel to each other, as shown in Fig. 20. A light 3
Total number of reflections
2Ö3 m B Total length 2 3× 3
= = = 30.
x 0.2
So, (b) is the right choice.
30°
0.2 m
Illustration 3. The focal length of a concave mir-
ror is f and the distance from the object to the principal
A focus is p. The ratio of the size of the real image to the size
Fig. 20 of the object is
442 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) f/p (b) (f/p)2 Sol. It is a simple question based on factual informa-
(c) (f/p)1/2 (d) p/f. tion.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005] So, (a) is the right choice.
Illustration 8. An equi-convex
Sol. The object distance is (f + p) and the magnifica-
glass lens has a focal length f and power
v P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves
tion is .
u by a plane normal to the principal axis.
So, (a) is the right choice. Then the focal length of each half piece is :
Illustration 4. The distance between an object and (a) P (b) P/2
a screen is 1 m. A lens produces an image on the screen (c) 2/P (d) Zero.
when placed at either of the positions 0.40 m apart. The Fig. 22
[AMU 2003]
power of the lens is nearly :
(a) 2.4 D (b) 4.8 D FG 2 IJ
(c) 7.2 D (d) 9.6 D. [SCRA 1994]
Sol. P = (µ – 1)
H RK
4D P′ = (µ – 1) FG 1 IJ
Sol. P=
D2 − d2 H RK
4×1 4 P′ 1 P
= = D = 4.76 D ≈ 4.8 D Dividing, = or P′ =
1 − 0.4 2
0.6 × 1.4 P 2 2
f
Sol. m =
f +u
(a) R1 R2 (b) R ∞
20
–2=
20 + u
R1 ≠ R2
or – 40 – 2u = 20 or – 2u = 20 + 40 = 60
or u = – 30 cm
So, (b) is the right choice.
(c) R R (d) R ∞
Illustration 12. An observer can see through a pin-
hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown
in Fig. 23. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When
Fig. 25
the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2h, he can
[IIT Screening 2002]
see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of
the liquid is FG 1 − 1 IJ
Sol. dP = dµ
H R RK = 0.
D
h
µ1 µ2 µ3 µ4
2h
C
Fig. 23 B
FG 1.5 − 1IJ FG 1 1 I
JK
1 1 1
= + =
1
+
1
=−
2
–5=
H 1 K HR 1
−
R2 f u v − 40 − 40 40
−5 1 1 40
= − or f=– cm = – 20 cm
0.5 R 1 R2 2
So, (c) is the right choice.
1 1
or − = – 10 Illustration 18. Refractive index
R1 R2
of glass is 1.5 and that of water 4/3. A
F 1.5 − 1IJ
B A
P = GH
light ray incident normally on the face AB q
Again,
1.6 K (– 10)
of the glass prism shown in the figure is
(− 0.1) (− 10) 5 totally reflected to reach the face BC if
= = D (a) θ ≥ sin–1 8/9
1.6 8 C
So, (e) is the right choice. (b) θ ≤ sin–1 2/3
Illustration 16. A thin concave and a thin convex (c) θ ≥ sin–1 2/3
lens are in contact. The ratio of the magnitude of power of Fig. 28
(d) θ ≤ sin–1 8/9.
two lenses is 2/3 and focal length of combination is 30 cm,
then the focal length of individual lenses are [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
(a) – 15 cm, 10 cm (b) – 75 cm, 50 cm Sol. Angle of incidence on the hypotenuse face of the
prism is θ which must be greater than or equal to critical
(c) 75 cm, – 50 cm (d) 75 cm, 50 cm. angle θc = sin–1 8/9.
[IIT Screening 2005] So, (a) is the right choice.
P′ 2 f −2 3 Illustration 19. By placing a convex lens of focal
Sol. =− , = or f ′ = – f
P 3 f′ 3 2 length equal to 15.0 cm between an object and a screen sepa-
rated by a distance of 75.0 cm, the sizes of the images ob-
1 1 1 tained are 6.0 cm and 2/3 cm. The size of the object must
Now, = +
F f f′ be
1 1 2 3−2 1 (a) 2.0 cm (b) 4.0 cm
= − = =
30 f 3 f 3f 3f (c) 3.0 cm (d) 1.5 cm.
or 3f = 30 cm or f = 10 cm [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
3 Sol. Use the formula :
Again, f′=– × 10 cm = – 15 cm
2 Size of image = d1d2 , where d1 and d2 are the sizes
So, (a) is the right choice.
of reduced and magnified images.
Illustration 17. A tank So, (a) is the rigth choice.
of height 33.25 cm is completely 15 cm
Illustration 20. A given ray of light suffers mini-
filled with liquid (µ = 1.33). An
object is placed at the bottom of mum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms
Q and R of identical shape and of the same material as P
tank on the axis of concave 25 cm 33.25
mirror as shown in the Fig. 27. are now added as shown in Fig. 29. The ray will now suffer
Image of the object is formed 25
cm below the surface of the
Fig. 27 Q
liquid, then focal length of the
mirror is P R
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 25 cm. Fig. 29
[IIT Screening 2005] (a) greater deviation (b) no deviation
RD RD 33.25 (c) same deviation as before
Sol. µ = , AD = = cm = 25 cm
AD µ 1.33 (d) total internal reflection.
[IIT Screening 2001 ; Karnataka CET 2003]
For concave mirror,
Sol. Since the ray suffers minimum deviation in prism
u = – 40 cm, v = – 40 cm, f = ?
P therefore the ray becomes parallel to the base of the prism.
OPTICS 445
Again, prisms Q and R are of the same shape and same (a) parabola (b) straight line
material therefore the deviation remains the same as before. (c) circle (d) hyperbola.
So, (c) is the right choice. [AIEEE 2005]
Illustration 21. Two parallel light Sol. S2P – S1P = constant P
rays are incident at one surface of a prism 30° This is the equation of a hy-
as shown in Fig. 30. The prism made of perbola with focii S1 and S2. S1
glass of refractive index 1.5. The angle
So, (d) is the right choice.
between the rays as they emerge is nearly 30° S2
(a) 19° (b) 37° Fig. 32
(c) 45° (d) 49°. Fig. 30 Illustration 25. In YDSE, an electron beam is used
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005] to obtain interference pattern. If speed of electron is in-
Sol. If angle of emer- creased then
gence is r, then sin r = 0.75 B r (a) no interference pattern will be observed.
giving r = 48° 36′. f (b) distance between two consecutive fringes will
Referring to the figure q A increase.
φ = 120° – 48° 36′ = 71° 24′ (c) distance between two consecutive fringes will
giving decrease.
C
θ = 180° – 2(71° 24′) (d) distance between two consecutive fringes remains
≈ 37° same. [IIT Screening 2005]
Fig. 31 Sol. De-Broglie wavelength of electron,
So, (b) is the right
choice. h
Illustration 22. In Young’s double slit experiment, λ=
mv
the fringe width is β. If the entire arrangement is placed in
When v increases, λ decreases.
a liquid of refractive index n, the fringe width becomes
β λD
(a) nβ (b) ∴ Fringe width decreases.
n+1 d
So, (c) is the right choice.
β
(c) (d) β/n. Illustration 26. In young’s double slit experiment
n−1
the angular position of a point on the central maxima whose
[Karnataka CET 2003]
intensity is one-fourth of maximum intensity is
Dλ ′ Dλ β
Sol. β′ = = = . (a) sin–1 (λ/d) (b) sin–1 (λ/2d)
d dn n
So, (d) is the right choice. (c) sin–1 (λ/3d) (d) sin–1 (λ/4d).
Illustration 23. In an interference experiment, third [IIT Screening 2005]
bright fringe is obtained at a point on the screen with a φ
Sol. I = I0 cos2
light of 700 nm. What should be the wavelenght of the light 2
source in order to obtain 5th bright fringe at the same point ? I0 φ
= I0 cos2
(a) 630 nm (b) 500 nm 4 2
(c) 420 nm (d) 750 nm φ 1
or cos =
[Karnataka CET 2003] 2 2
nDλ φ π
Sol. yn = ; nλ = constant or cos = cos
d 2 3
∴ 5 × λ = 3 × 700 2π
or φ=
3 × 700 3
or λ= nm = 420 nm
5 2π 2π
So, (c) is the right choice. Now, (d sin θ) =
λ 3
Illustration 24. A young’s double slit experiment λ
or d sin θ =
uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the interfer- 3
ence fringes formed on a screen is
446 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Sol. 50 % of light is not transmitted. z-components are absorbed, half the intensity I0 of the
So, (d) is the right choice. original light is lost. The intensity I of the emerging
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
In each question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below
it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as :
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) If A is true but R is false.
(D) If both A and R are false.
(E) If A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A). Light waves can be polarised.
Reason (R). Light waves are transverse in nature.
2. Assertion (A). Light waves propagate in straight lines and case shadows of the obstacles.
Reason (R). Ordinarily, the diffraction of light is almost negligible.
589
3. Assertion (A). The wavelength of light coming from a sodium source is 589 nm. Its wavelength in water is nm.
1.33
Reason (R). Frequency of light remains unchanged as light travels from one medium to another medium.
4. Assertion (A). The blue light received from the sky is completely polarised.
Reason (R). When unpolarised light is scattered by small particles, the scattered light is partially polarised.
Key 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (E)
448 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
1. Our eye is most sensitive for which of the following [MANIPAL 2001]
wavelength ? 7. The illumination on a screen 5 metre away from a
(a) 4500 Å (b) 5500 Å source of light is 10 lux. What is the luminous
(c) 6500 Å
intensity of the source ?
(a) 5 candela (b) 10 candela
(d) Equally sensitive for all wavelengths of visible spectrum.
(c) 50 candela (d) 250 candela.
[MANIPAL 1994]
[MANIPAL 2002]
2. Luminous intensity of a source depends upon
(a) its distance from the observation point
8. The distance between a point source of light and a
screen is made twice. The intensity of light will be
(b) colour of light emitted
(a) four times its initial value (b) twice its initial value
(c) area of surface on which light falls
(c) half of its initial value (d) one-fourth of its initial value.
(d) none of the above factors.
[MANIPAL 1995]
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1995]
9. A point source of light moves in a straight line paral-
3. The sensitivity of eye varies with wavelength of light. lel to a plane table. Consider a small portion of the
The eye is most sensitive with ordinary intensity in table directly below the line of movement of the
the source. The illuminance at this portion varies with
(a) red light (b) blue light its distance r from the source as
(c) yellow-green light (d) red-green light. 1 1
(a) ∝ (b) ∝
[BHU 1995] r r2
4. What is the ratio of luminous intensity of two sources, 1 1
(c) ∝ (d) ∝ . [AIIMS 2000]
which produce shadows of equal intensities at dis- r3 r4
tances 25 cm and 50 cm from the photometer screen ? 10. Light from a point source falls on a screen. If the
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 separation between the source and the screen is
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1. increased by 1%, the illuminance will decrease
[Himachal PMT 1996] (nearly) by
5. The surface area of a frosted electric lamp is 40 cm2. (a) 0.5% (b) 1%
Its illumination at distance of 1 m is 2 lm m–2. What (c) 2% (d) 4%. [AIIMS 2002]
is the luminous flux from the lamp ? 11. A point source of 25 candela is placed at the focus of
(a) 2 π lm (b) 4π lm a convex lens of focal length 5 m. Then the illumi-
(c) 8 π lm (d) 10 π lm . [AMU 1997] nance on a screen placed normal to the emergent
6. If we double the aperture of a photographic camera, beam of light is
the new exposure time should be
OPTICS 449
(a) 1 lux (b) 1 phot 20. The unit of luminous efficiency of electric bulb is
(c) 5 lux (d) 5 phot. (a) watt (b) lumen
[CMC LDH 1993] (c) lumen/watt (d) lux. [CMC LDH 1997]
21. A point isotropic light source emits a flux φ = 1257 lm
12. A standard 48-cd lamp placed 36 cm from the screen
in all directions. What is the intensity I of the light of
of a photometer produces the same illumination there this source ?
as a lamp of unknown intensity located 45 cm away.
(a) 60 cd (b) 100 cd
The luminous intensity of the latter lamp is
(c) 80 cd (d) 120 cd.
(a) 48 cd (b) 45 cd
22. Two stars situated at the distances of 1 and 10 light
(c) 48 × 45 cd (d) 75 cd. [AFMC 2000] years respectively from the earth appear to posses
13. The luminous intensity of a light source is 500 can- the same brightness. The ratio of their real bright-
dela. The intensity of illumination on a surface placed ness is
at a distance of 10 m when light is falling normally is (a) 1 : 10 (b) 1 : 100
(a) 1 lux (b) 2 lux (c) 10 : 1 (d) 100 : 1.
(c) 3 lux (d) 5 lux. [BHU 1998] 23. The unit of luminous intensity is
(a) watt (b) photon
14. The light from an electric bulb is incident on a surface
normally. If the surface is inclined at an angle of 60° (c) candle power (d) candela.
with this position, then illuminance will be [Pb. PMT 1993]
(a) reduced to one half (b) increased to double 24. A 50 W lamp has a luminous intensity of 25 candela.
(c) trebled (d) quadrupled. Then its efficiency is
(a) 3.14 lumen W–1 (b) 6.28 lumen W–1
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1997]
(c) 12.56 lumen W–1 (d) 9.42 lumen W–1.
15. Inverse square law for illuminance is valid for
(a) Isotropic point source (b) Cylindrical source
[BHU 1993]
(c) Search light (d) All types of sources. 25. As the wavelength is increased from violet to red,
the luminosity
[Haryana PMT 1998]
(a) continuously increases (b) continuously decreases
16. Five lumen/watt is the luminous efficiency of a lamp (c) increases then decreases (d) decreases then increases.
and its luminous intensity is 35 candela. The power
of the lamp is [AIIMS 1994]
(a) 80 watt (b) 176 watt 26. The intensity produced by a long cylindrical light
source at a small distance r from the source is
(c) 88 watt (d) 36 watt.
proportional to
[MP PMT 1996] 1 1
(a) (b)
17. The time required for making a print at a distance of r2 r3
0.25 metre from a 60 watt lamp is 5 second. If the (c)
1
(d) none of these.
distance is increased to 40 cm, the time required in r
second to make a similar print is [AIIMS 1996]
(a) 3.1 (b) 8 27. What is the illumination at a distance of 2 m from a
(c) 12.8 (d) 16. 100 candela lamp ?
(a) 50 lux (b) 25 lux
[All India PM/PD 1994]
(c) 12.5 lux (d) none of the above.
18. A lux is equal to [AFMC 1997]
(a) 1 lumen/m2 (b) 1 lumen/cm2 28. Fig. 33 shows a glowing mercury tube. The intensities
(c) 1 candela/m2 (d) 1 candela/cm2. at points A, B and C are related as
[CPMT 1999] (a) B > C > A (b) A > C > B
19. A 400 cd lamp is separated by a distance of 1.0 m (c) B = C > A (d) B = C < A.
from a screen. At what distance behind the lamp
should a plane mirror parallel to the screen be placed
for the illuminance at the screen centre to increase
● ● ●
by 100 lux ? C A B
(a) 1 m (b) 0.5 m
Fig. 33
(c) 0.25 m (d) 0.75 m. [BHU 2001] [AIIMS 2001]
450 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
29. Three light sources A, B and C emit equal amount of (a) increased by 4% (b) decreased by 4%
radiant energy per unit time. The wavelengths emit- (c) increased by 2% (d) decreased by 2%.
ted by the three sources are 450 nm, 555 nm and 700 38. An electric bulb emits 68.5 lumen W–1. Its luminous
nm respectively. The brightness sensed by an eye for efficiency is
the sources are XA, XB and XC respectively. Then,
(a) 2.5% (b) 5%
(a) XA > XB, XC > XB (b) XA > XB, XB > XC
(c) 10% (d) 20%. [MANIPAL 1997]
(c) XB > XA, XB > XC (d) XB > XA, XC > XB.
39. In a photometer, two sources of light when placed at
[AIIMS 1998]
30 cm and 50 cm respectively produce shadows of equal
30. An isotropic source produces a light flux of 6π lumen. intensities. Their candle powers are in the ratio of
What is the candela-rating of this source ?
9 16
(a) 1.5 candela (b) 2 candela (a) (b)
25 25
(c) 2.5 candela (d) 3 candela. 3 5
(c) (d) .
[Pb. PMT 1997] 5 3
31. In a cinema hall, the distance between the projector [Himachal PMT 1997]
and the screen is increased by 2.5%. The intensity of 40. An isotropic source of 2 candela produces a light flux
illumination on the screen will be decreased by equal to
(a) 2.5% (b) 5% (a) 2 π lumen (b) 4 π lumen
(c) 7.5% (d) 9.5%. (c) 6 π lumen (d) 8 π lumen.
32. In a room containing smoke particles, the intensity 41. The one parameter that determines the brightness of
due to a source of light will a light source sensed by an eye is
(a) follow the law of inverse square (a) energy of light entering the eye per second
(b) fall off faster with distance from the source than the inverse (b) wavelength of the light
square
(c) total radiant flux entering the eye
(c) increase with distance from the source than the inverse
(d) total luminous flux entering the eye. [DCE 1998]
square
(d) remain constant at all distances. 42. A book can be read if it is placed at a distance
of 50 cm from a source of 1 candela. At what distance
33. A lamp is hanging at a height of 40 cm from the
should the book be placed if the source is of 16
centre of the table. If its height is increased by 10 cm,
candela ?
the illuminance of the table will decrease by
(a) 8 m (b) 4 m
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 2 m (d) 1 m. [Pb. PMT 1996]
(c) 27% (d) 36%.
43. The unit of luminous flux is
34. A point source of 36 candela is placed at the focus of
a convex lens of focal length 6 metre. Then the illu- (a) candela (b) lux
mination on a screen placed normal to the emergent (c) phot (d) lumen. [AMU 1995]
beam of light is
(a) 1 lux (b) 6 lux
REFLECTION
(c) 1/6 lux (d) 216 lux. 44. A man run towards the plane mirror at 2 m s–1. The
35. A point source of 100 candela is held 5 metre above a relative speed of his image w.r.t. him will be
sheet of blotting paper which reflects 75 per cent of (a) 2 m s–1 (b) 4 m s–1
light incident upon it. Then the illuminance on the (c) 8 m s–1 (d) 10 m s–1.
blotting paper is 45. A concave mirror has a focal length of 2 metre in
(a) 4 lux (b) 4 phot vacuum. What would be its focal length when used
(c) 3 lux (d) 3 phot. in a medium of refractive index 2.759 ?
(a) 2 m (b) 2 × 2.759 m
36. In Question Number 35, the luminance of the blot-
ting paper is 2
(c) m (d) Data is not complete.
(a) 4 lux (b) 4 phot 2.759
(c) 3 lux (d) 3 phot. 46. A child walks towards a fixed plane mirror at a speed
37. In a cinema hall, the distance between the projector of 5 km h–1. The velocity of the image is
and the screen is increased by 2%. The intensity of (a) 5 km h–1 (b) – 5 km h–1
illumination on the screen will be (c) 10 km h–1 (d) – 10 km h–1.
OPTICS 451
47. The time taken by a ray of light in travelling from 57. A dice is placed with its one edge parallel to the prin-
one point to another is cipal axis between the principal focus and the centre
(a) minimum (b) maximum of curvature of a concave mirror. The shape of the
(c) zero (d) data is inadequate. image is
(a) cube (b) cuboid
[Haryana PMT 1995]
(c) barrel (d) spherical.
48. A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of numer-
als in its dial. On the adjoining wall, there is a plane 58. A person standing in front of a mirror finds his im-
mirror and the image of the clock in the mirror indi- age larger than himself. This implies that the mirror
cates the time 4.20. Then the time on the clock is is
(a) plane (b) convex
(a) 7.40 (b) 4.20
(c) concave (d) cylindrical.
(c) 2.40 (d) 4.07.
59. The largest distance of the image from a convex mirror
49. In a plane mirror, an object is 0.5 m in front of the
mirror. The distance between object and image is of focal length 10 cm can be
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (a) 20 cm (b) infinite
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror (a) plane or convex (b) plane or concave
(c) convex mirror (c) necessarily convex (d) necessarily concave.
(d) combination of mirrors and lenses. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002]
66. For a real object, a convex mirror always forms an 74. A spherical mirror forms an image of magnification
image which is 3. The object distance, if focal length of mirror is 24
(a) real and inverted (b) virtual and inverted cm, may be
(c) virtual and erect (d) real and magnified. (a) 32 cm, 24 cm (b) 32 cm, 16 cm
(c) 32 cm only (d) 16 cm only.
67. You stand with your nose 20 cm in front of a plane
mirror. Your right eye is blue and your left eye is 75. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one another at an
green. Which of the following is correct ? angle of 40°. A point object is placed in between them.
The number of images formed due to reflection at
(a) Your eye should focus at 40 cm.
both mirrors is
(b) You would see a green right eye.
(a) Infinite (b) 9
(c) You would see a blue left eye. (c) 8 (d) 6. [Haryana PMT 1996]
(d) All of the above. 76. A light ray incident normally on a plane mirror suf-
68. A convex mirror forms an image one-fourth the size fers a deviation of
of the object. If object is at a distance of 0.5 m from (a) Zero (b) π/2
the mirror, the focal length of mirror is (c) π (d) 2π.
(a) 0.17 m (b) – 1.5 m 77. A concave mirror of focal length f forms an image of
(c) 0.4 m (d) – 0.4 m. the same size as the object. The distance of the object
from the mirror is
69. A dentist has a small mirror of focal length 16 mm.
(a) f (b) f/2
He views the cavity in the tooth of a patient by hold-
ing the mirror at a distance of 8 mm from the cavity. (c) 2f (d) 4f.
The magnification is 78. The sun (diameter d) subtends an angle θ radian at
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 the pole of a concave mirror of focal length f. The
diameter of the image of sun formed by mirror is
(c) 2 (d) 3.
θ
70. A concave mirror has radius of curvature of 1 m. (a) θf (b) f
2
Light from a distant star is incident on the mirror.
θ
The distance of the image of the star from the mirror (c) 2θf (d) f .
π
is 79. A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The image will
(c) 2 m (d) 0.25 m. form at
[JIPMER 1997] (a) infinity (b) pole
71. It is necessary to illuminate the bottom of a well by (c) 15 cm behind the mirror
reflected solar beam when the light is incident at an (d) no image will be formed. [EAMCET 2002]
angle of α = 40° to the vertical. At what angle β to the 80. A candle is placed before a thick plane mirror. When
horizontal should a plane mirror be placed ? looked obliquely in the mirror a number of images
(a) 70° (b) 20° are seen from the surfaces of the plane mirror. Then
(c) 50° (d) 40°.[AMU 2003] (a) first image is brightest (b) second image is brightest
72. A small object is placed 10 cm in front of a plane (c) third image is brightest
mirror. If you stand behind the object, 30 cm from (d) all images beyond second are brighter.
the mirror and look at its image, for what distance [EAMCET 2003]
must you focus your eyes ?
(a) 20 cm (b) 60 cm 81. A boy stands in front of a plane mirror with his hand
at 0.3 m from the mirror. In order to see the image
(c) 80 cm (d) 40 cm.
of his hand clearly, he must focus his eyes at a dis-
[Karnataka CET 2001] tance of
73. A person 6 feet in height can see his full size erect (a) 0.3 m (b) 0.45 m
image in a mirror 2 feet in height. This mirror has to (c) 0.6 m (d) 0.75 m.
be
OPTICS 453
82. Which of the following cannot produce a virtual (d) Two images will be formed, one due to each exposed half.
image ? [Karnataka CET 1991, 2001]
(a) Plane mirror (b) Concave mirror 89. An endoscope is employed by a physician to view the
(c) Convex lens internal parts of a body organ. It is based on the
(d) All of the above can produce a virtual image. principle of :
83. If two mirrors are kept at 60° to each other, then the (a) refraction (b) reflection
number of images formed by them is (c) total internal reflection (d) dispersion [AIIMS 2004]
(a) 5 (b) 6 90. The critical angle for light going from medium X into
(c) 7 (d) 8. [AIEEE 2002] medium Y is θ. The speed of light in medium X is v.
84. How many images of himself does an observer see if The speed of light in medium Y is
two adjacent walls of rectangular room are mirror (a) v (1 – cos θ) (b) v/cos θ
surfaced ? (c) v cos θ (d) v/sin θ
(a) 3 (b) 5 (e) v sin θ.
(c) 7 (d) 9. 91. One surface of a lens is convex and the other is con-
85. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a cave. If the radii of curvature are r1 and r2 respec-
concave mirror of radius of curvature 0.6 m. Which tively, the lens will be convex, if
of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) r1 > r2 (b) r1 = r2
(a) The image is formed at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror. (c) r1 < r2 (d) r1 = 1/r2.
(b) The image formed is real. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999]
(c) The image is 1.5 times the size of the object.
92. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2
(d) The image formed is virtual and erect.
and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting
REFRACTION surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards. A
beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from
86. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness ‘t’
the other face will retrace its path after reflection
and refractive index ‘n’. If c is the velocity of light in
vacuum, then the time taken by light to travel the from the mirrored surface if its angle of incidence on
thickness of the plate will be the prism is
(a) nt/c (b) t/nc (a) 60° (b) 0°
(c) tc/n (d) c/nt. (c) 30° (d) 45°
[MP PMT 1996, 1999, 2001] [All India PM/PD 2004]
87. Monochromatic light of wavelength λ1 travelling in 93. An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the
medium of refractive index n1 enters a denser medium object becomes invisible, it should
of refractive index n2. The wavelength in the second (a) behave as a perfect reflector.
medium is
(b) absorb all light falling on it.
Fn I
(a) λ 1 G 1 J
Fn I
(b) λ 1 G 2 J (c) have refractive index one.
H n2 K H n1 K (d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the
F n − n1 I
(d) λ 1 G 2
[AIIMS 2004]
H n1 JK
surrounding fluid.
(c) λ1
94. A, B and C are three optical media of respective criti-
F n − n1 I .
(e) λ 1 G 2
cal angles C1 , C2 and C3 . Total internal reflection of
H n2 JK light can occur from A to B and also from B to C but
88. How will the image formed by a convex not from C to A. Then the correct relation between
lens be affected, if the central portion of the critical angles is
the lens is wrapped in black paper, as (a) C1 < C2 < C3 (b) C3 > C1 > C2
shown in the Fig. 34 ? (c) C1 = C2 = C3 (d) C1 > C2 > C3.
(a) No image will be formed. [Karnataka CET 1997]
(b) Full image will be formed but it is less bright. 95. A converging lens has a focal length of 1 m. The
(c) Full image will be formed but without the minimum distance between a real object and its real
central portion. Fig. 34 image formed by this lens is
454 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(d) frequency, wavelength and velocity. (c) water into glass (d) glass into water.
(c)
1
(d) 4µ2.
[MP PMT 1994 ; NCERT 1997]
1µ 4 137. The length of the optical path of two media in contact
131. A light ray of frequency ν and wavelength λ enters a of lengths d1 and d2 of refractive indices µ1 and µ2
3 respectively is
liquid of refractive index . The ray travels in the
2 (a) µ1d1 + µ2d2 (b) µ1d2 + µ2d1
liquid with
FG 2 IJ λ d1d2 d1 + d2
(a) frequency ν and wavelength H 3K (c)
µ 1µ 2
(d)
µ 1µ 2
.
F 3I
(b) frequency ν and wavelength GH JK λ
138. A thin double convex lens has radii of curvature each
2 of magnitude 40 cm and is made of glass with
(c) frequency ν and wavelength λ µ = 1.65. The focal length of the lens is nearly
FG 3 IJ ν and wavelength λ. (a) 30 cm (b) 31 cm
(d) frequency
H 2K (c) 40 cm (d) 41 cm.
132. A converging lens is used to form an image on a 139. Two lenses of powers + 12 D and – 2 D are placed in
screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by contact. What will be the focal length of combination ?
an opaque screen, (a) 10 cm (b) 12.5 cm
(a) half the image will disappear. (c) 16.6 cm (d) 8.33 cm.
(b) complete image will be formed. [MNR 1987 ; MP PET 1990]
(c) intensity of the image will increase. 140. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a
(d) intensity of the image will decrease. [IIT 1986] convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The image is formed
on the other side of the lens at a distance
OPTICS 457
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm 148. A convex lens makes a real image 4 cm long on a
(c) 40 cm (d) 30 cm. screen. When the lens is shifted to a new position
without disturbing the object, we again get a real
141. A monochromatic beam of light passes from a denser
image on the screen which is 16 cm tall. The length
medium into a rarer medium. As a result, of the object must be
(a) its velocity increases. (b) its velocity decreases. (a) 1/4 cm (b) 8 cm
(c) its frequency decreases. (d) its wavelength decreases. (c) 12 cm (d) 20 cm. [MP PET 1991]
142. The minimum distance between an object and its real 149. A convex lens and a concave lens of 10 cm focal length
image using a convex lens of focal length f is combine. The combination lens behaves as
(a) zero (b) 2f (a) convex lens (b) concave lens
(c) 4f (d) 6f. (c) as a slab of glass (d) as convex mirror.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989] 150. When an object placed before a convex lens between
143. What happens to the speed, frequency and wavelength its focal length F and infinity is displaced towards
of light when it enters glass from air ? 2F, then its image on the other side
speed frequency wavelength (a) moves from 2F towards infinity and increases in size
(b) moves from F to 2F and decreases in size
(a) decreases increases unchanged
(c) moves from 2F to F and decreases in size
(b) increases unchanged increases
(d) moves from F to 2F and increases in size.
(c) unchanged decreases decreases
(d) decreases unchanged decreases. 151. A concave lens has a focal length of 20 cm. A
convergent beam of light converges to a point 20 cm
144. Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is
behind the concave lens on the principal axis. The
minimum for image is formed at
(a) red (b) green (a) Infinity (b) 20 cms
(c) yellow (d) violet. (c) 10 cms (d) 40 cms.
145. In Fig. 36, the liquids L1 , 152. A ray of light passes through a plane glass slab of
L2 and L3 have refractive thickness t and refractive index µ. The angle between
indices 1.55, 1.50 and 1.20 the incident and emergent ray is
respectively. Therefore, (a) 0° (b) 30°
L1 L2 L3
the arrangement corre- (c) 45° (d) 90°.
sponds to 153. The critical angle for a ray of light suffering total
(a) biconvex lens internal reflection will be smallest for light travel-
(b) biconcave lens ling from
Fig. 36
(c) concavo-convex lens (a) water to air (b) glass to air
(d) convexo-concave lens (c) glass to water (d) water to glass.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000] 154. A double convex air bubble in water would behave as
146. A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave a
lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same (a) divergent lens (b) convergent lens
axis with the distance d between them. If a parallel (c) concave mirror (d) plane mirror.
beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, 155. The focal length of a lens depends on
then distance d in cm will be (a) the radii of curvature of its surfaces.
(a) 25 (b) 15 (b) the refractive index of its material.
(c) 30 (d) 50. (c) the refractive index of the medium surrounding the lens.
[IIT 1985 ; MNR 1990] (d) all the above factors. [BHU 2002]
147. For a plano-convex lens made of glass (µ = 1.5), the 156. A mark at the bottom of a beaker 0.1 m deep appears
relation between focal length f, and radius of curva- raised by 0.01 m when the beaker is filled till brim
ture R is with a liquid. Refractive index of liquid is
(a) R/2 = f (b) f = R (a) 10 (b) 1/10
(c) f = 3R/2 (d) f = 2R. (c) 9/10 (d) 10/9.
458 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
157. If ε0 and µ0 are respectively the electric permittivity 164. A bucket contains some transparent liquid and its
and the magnetic permeability of free space, ε and µ depth is 40 cm. On looking from above, the bottom
the corresponding quantities in a medium, the appears to be raised up by 8 cm. The refractive index
refractive index of the medium is of the liquid is
µε (a) 5/4 (b) 5
µε
(a) (b) (c) 4/5 (d) 8/5.
µ 0ε 0 µ0 ε0
165. When a monochromatic ray of light travels from a
µ0ε0 µµ 0 medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refrac-
(c) (d) .
µε εε 0 tive index n2 (n2 > n1), its
158. The radii of curvature of the two surfaces of a lens (a) speed increases by a factor n2/n1
are 20 cm and 30 cm and the refractive index of the (b) speed decreases by a factor n2/n1
material of the lens is 1.5. If the lens is concave-convex, (c) frequency decreases by a factor n2/n1
then the focal length of the lens is (d) wavelength increases by a factor n2/n1.
(a) 24 cm (b) 10 cm
166. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of
(c) 15 cm (d) 120 cm. the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one
159. A rod of flint glass when immersed in carbon lens is 20 cm, then the power of the other lens will be
disulphide becomes almost invisible because (a) 1.66 D (b) 4.00 D
(a) flint glass gets dissolved in carbon disulphide. (c) – 1.00 D (d) – 3.75 D. [CPMT 1991]
(b) flint glass has the same refractive index as carbon 167. In displacement method, the lengths of images in
disulphide.
two positions of lens between object and screen are
(c) of total internal reflection. 9 cm and 4 cm respectively. The length of object must
(d) of scattering of light. be
160. Using a convex lens, a clear image of a candle flame (a) 6.25 cm (b) 3/2 cm
is produced on a screen. How many other clear images (c) 6 cm (d) 36 cm. [CPMT 1993]
can be received on this screen if only the lens is to be
shifted ? 168. A concave lens is used to form an image of a real
(a) A large number (b) Only one more object. The maximum distance of the image from the
(c) Two more (d) None.
optical centre is
(a) 4 f (b) 2 f
161. A convergent beam of light converges to a point
20 cm behind a concave lens on the principal axis. (c) f (d) ∞ .
An inverted image of the same size is formed. Then 169. A real object is placed in front of a concave lens of
the focal length of the lens is focal length f, at a distance equal to f from the lens,
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm then the image is formed at
(c) 40 cm (d) 30 cm.
(a) infinity (b) a distance 2/f
162. A lens forms a virtual image 4 cm away from it when
(c) a distance f/2 (d) a distance 2f.
an object is placed 10 cm away from it. The lens is a
...... lens of focal length ...... 170. A ray of light passes from glass having a refractive
(a) concave, 6.67 cm (b) concave, 2.86 cm index of 1.6, to air. The angle of incidence for which
(c) convex, 2.86 cm the angle of refraction is twice the angle of incidence
(d) may be concave or convex, 6.67 cm.
is
FG 4 IJ FG 3 IJ
163. If the space between the lenses in the lens
combination shown were filled with water,
(a) sin–1
H 5K (b) sin–1
H 5K
what would happen to the focal length and FG 5 IJ FG 2 IJ .
power of the lens combination ?
(c) sin–1
H 8K (d) sin–1
H 5K
1
Focal Length Power 171. A convex lens of focal length m forms a real,
3
(a) Decreased increased
inverted image twice in size of the object. The distance
(b) Decreased unchanged
Fig. 37 of the object from the lens is
(c) Increased unchanged (a) 0.5 m (b) 0.166 m
(d) Increased decreased. (c) 0.33 m (d) 1 m.
OPTICS 459
172. An object is placed at a distance of f/2 from a convex 177. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact
lens of focal length f. The image will be and coaxial. The combination is equivalent to a single
(a) at one of the foci, virtual and double its size lens of power
(b) at 3f/2, real and inverted f1 f2 1
(a) (b) ( f1 + f2 )
(c) at 2f, virtual and erect (d) none of these. f1 + f2 2
[CPMT 1997] f1 + f2
(c) (d) f1 f2 .
173. Consider an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature f1 f2
R and focal length f. If f > R, the refractive index µ of 178. A convex lens forms an image of an object placed
the material of the lens 20 cm away from it at a distance of 20 cm on the
(a) is greater than zero but less than 1.5 other side of the lens. If the object is moved 5 cm
(b) is greater than 1.5 but less than 2.0
towards the lens, the image will move
(a) 5 cm towards the lens (b) 5 cm away from the lens
(c) is greater than one but less than 1.5
(c) 10 cm towards the lens (d) 10 cm away from the lens.
(d) none of these.
179. A converging lens is to project image of a lamp
174. Two convex lenses placed A B
in contact form the 4 times the size of the lamp on a wall at a distance of
image of a distant object 10 m from the lamp. The focal length of the lens is
at P. If the lens B is (a) 1.6 m (b) 2.67 m
moved to the right, the (c) 4.4 m (d) – 1.6 m.
P
image will
180. A thin lens produces an upright image of the same
(a) move to the left
size as the object. Then from the optical centre of the
(b) move to the right lens, the distance of the object is
(c) remain at P Fig. 38
(a) Zero (b) 4f
(d) move either to the left or right, depending upon focal
(c) 2f (d) f/2.
lengths of the lenses.
181. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a
175. A double convex thin lens made of glass (refractive
diverging lens in water. The refractive index of the
index, µ = 1.5) has both radii of curvature of magni-
material of the lens is
tude 20 cm. Incident light rays parallel to the axis of
(a) equal to unity (b) equal to 1.33
the lens will converge at a distance L such that
(c) between unity and 1.33 (d) greater than 1.33.
(a) L = 20 cm (b) L = 10 cm
[CPMT 1991]
(c) L = 40 cm (d) L = 20/3 cm. [MNR 1991]
182. A convex lens of focal length f 1 is placed in contact
176. The distance v of the real image formed by a convex
with a concave lens of focal length f2 . The combina-
lens is measured for various object distances u. A
tion will act as a convex lens if
graph is plotted between v and u. Which one of the
following graphs is correct ? (a) f1 > f2 (b) f1 = f2
(c) f1 < f2 (d) f1 > 2f2.
v
183. For a spherical surface of radius of curvature R, sepa-
rating two media of refractive indices µ1 and µ2, the
(a) (b) two principal focal lengths are f1 and f2 respectively.
Which one of the following relations is correct ?
(a) f1 = f2 (b) f2/µ2 = f1/µ1
u
(c) f2/µ2 = – f1/µ1 (d) f2/µ1 = f1/µ2.
v
v 184. Time taken, by light to pass through a water-filled
l metre long pipe when speed of light in air is c and
refractive index of water is µwater , is
(c) (d)
µ water × l × 10 −8 µ water × l × 10 −8
(a) (b)
2 3
u u
l 10 −8 l µ water
Fig. 39 (c) × (d) .
3 µ water 3 × 106
460 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
185. The image of an object formed by a device is always (a) u > f > v (b) v > f < u
virtual and small. The device may be (c) less than u as well as v (d) more than u as well as v.
(a) convex lens (b) concave mirror 191. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive
(c) a glass plate (d) concave lens. index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then
[CPMT 1993] its focal length will
186. A fish is vertically below a flying bird moving (a) become zero. (b) become infinite.
vertically down towards water surface. The bird will (c) become small, but non-zero.
appear to the fish to be (d) remain unchanged. [All India PM/PD 2003]
192. An equiconvex lens is cut Y
into two halves along (i)
XOX′ and (ii) YOY′ as
shown in Fig. 42 . Let f,
f ′, f ″ be the focal lengths X′ X
of the complete lens, of O
each half in case (i), and
of each half in case (ii),
respectively.
Fig. 40 Y′
Choose the correct state- Fig. 42
(a) moving faster than its real speed and also away from the ment from the follow-
real distance.
ing :
(b) moving faster than its real speed and nearer than its real
(a) f ′ = f, f ″ = 2f (b) f ′ = 2f, f ″ = f
distance.
(c) f ′ = f, f ″ = f (d) f ′ = 2f, f ″ = 2f.
(c) moving slower than its real speed and also nearer than its
real distance. [All India PM/PD 2003]
(d) moving slower than its real speed and away from the real 193. An object is placed in air at a distance of 1 m from
distance.
the curved end of a long glass rod (µ = 1.5). The image
187. A convex lens is placed in contact with a mirror as of an object placed in air is formed inside the glass
shown. If the space rod. The image formed is erect and half the size of
between them is filled
the object. The curved end of the rod is
with water, its power will
(a) convex, of radius of curvature 0.5 m.
(a) decrease
(b) concave, of radius of curvature 0.5 m.
(b) increase Fig. 41
(c) remain unchanged (c) convex, of radius of curvature 6 m.
(d) increase or decrease depending on the focal length. (d) concave, of radius of curvature 6 m.
188. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm and concave lens 194. A screen is placed at a distance 100 cm away from an
of focal length 20 cm are kept 5 cm apart. The focal illuminated object. A convex lens is placed between
length of the equivalent lens is the source and the screen and it is attempted to form
120 the image of the source on the screen. If no position
(a) cm (b) 18 m
13 could be obtained, the focal length of the lens
40 (a) must be less than 25 cm (b) must be greater than 50 cm
(c) 30 cm (d) cm.
3 (c) must be greater than 25 cm
189. Decreasing the radii of the two surfaces of a double (d) must be equal to 25 cm.
convex or double concave lens
195. In the above problem, if only one such position is
(a) increases its focal length (b) decreases its focal length obtained, then the focal length of the lens
(c) neither increases nor decreases the focal length (a) must be less than 25 cm (b) must be greater than 50 cm
(d) increases or decreases the focal length depending upon (c) must be greater than 25 cm
change.
(d) must be equal to 25 cm. [JIPMER 2001, modified]
190. A convex lens forms a real image of an object placed 196. A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging
at a distance u from the lens, at a distance v from it. lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away
The focal length f of the lens is from the lens on the other side on its principal axis,
the intensity of light
OPTICS 461
(a) remains constant (b) continuously increases (a) depends upon the material of the prism.
(c) continuously decreases (b) depends upon both material and angle of prism.
(d) first increases and becomes maximum at the focus then (c) depends only upon refracting angle of prism.
decreases. [CMC Vellore 1998, modified] (d) is same for all colours of white light. [MP PET 1999]
205. The black lines in the solar spectrum during solar
DISPERSION AND ABERRATIONS eclipse can be explained by
(a) Planck’s law (b) Kirchoff’’s law
197. To obtain achromatic combination of convex and
(c) Boltzmann’s law (d) Solar disturbances.
concave lens, the two lenses chosen should have
[MP PMT 1989]
(a) equal power (b) equal refractive indices
206. Fraunhoffer lines are produced by
(c) equal dispersive powers
(a) the element present in the photosphere of sun.
(d) equal product of their powers and dispersive powers.
(b) the elements present in the chromosphere of the sun.
198. An achromatic combination of lenses produces (c) the vapour of the element present in the chromosphere of
(a) highly enlarged image (b) coloured images the sun.
(c) images in black and white (d) the carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere.
(d) images unaffected by variation of refractive index with 207. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces
wavelength. of a prism of angle 30° and refractive index 2 . The
199. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 and of mate- angle of deviation of the ray is
rials with dispersive powers ω1 and ω2 when placed (a) 0° (b) 12.5°
in contact, form an achromatic combination if (c) 15° (d) 22.5°.
ω1 ω2 [Karnataka CET 2001]
(a) ω1 + ω2 = 0 (b) + =0
f1 f2 208. The dispersive power of the material of prism is given
by
(c) f1 + f2 = 0 (d) ω 1 × f1 + ω 2 × f2 = 0 .
µv + µr
(a) (b) µ vµ r
[CPMT 1995] 2
200. For a thin positive lens, fr , fv and fm are the focal µ−1 dµ
(c) (d) .
lengths for red, violet and mean colours respectively. µv − µr µ−1
Then, 209. A white ray of light is passing through a parallel glass
(a) fr = fv (b) fr < fv slab. The emergent ray
(a) undergoes dispersion only.
f
(c) fr > fv (d) fr = m . (b) undergoes deviation only.
fv
(c) undergoes both dispersion and deviation.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998]
(d) neither undergoes dispersion nor deviation.
201. Light from sodium lamp is passed through sodium
vapours. The spectrum of transmitted light consists 210. When white light is allowed to pass through sodium
of vapour, the spectrum of the rays so obtained will be
(a) only continuous spectrum.
(a) a line at 5890 Å (b) a line at 5896 Å
(b) on the background of continuous spectrum few black strips.
(c) sodium doublet lines (d) no spectral features.
(c) on the background of the continuous spectrum, some black
[MP PET 1989] lines.
202. Continuous emission spectrum is obtained from (d) on the black background some more intensive yellow lines.
(a) incandescent bulb (b) carbon arc 211. When white light passes through the achromatic
(c) red hot solid (d) all of these. combination of prisms, then what is observed ?
203. The number of different colours, according to fre- (a) Only deviation (b) Only dispersion
quency in a spectrum, is (c) Deviation and dispersion (d) None of these.
(a) 5 (b) 6 [MP PMT 1989]
(c) 7 (d) infinite. 212. Colour of light having maximum speed in air is
204. The refracting angle of a prism A is small. The correct (a) red (b) yellow
statement for the dispersive power of a prism is that (c) violet (d) blue.
dispersive power
[Karnataka CET 1997]
462 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
213. In any band of the band spectrum, there are (c) have different anisotropic properties while travelling
(a) Only two lines (b) No lines through the prism
(c) Infinite number of lines (d) None of these. (d) travel with different speeds. [MP PET 1993]
214. At the time of total solar eclipse, the spectrum of 222. If the refractive indices of crown glass for red, yellow
solar radiation would be and violet colours are respectively µr , µy and µv, then
(a) A large number of dark Fraunhofer lines the dispersive power of this glass would be
(b) A less number of dark Fraunhofer lines µv − µ y µv − µr
(a) (b)
(c) No lines at all µr − 1 µy − 1
(d) All Fraunhoffer lines changed into brilliant colours. µv − µ y µv − µr
[MP PMT 1990] (c) (d) −1.
µ y − µr µy
215. Solar spectrum is an example of
[MP PMT 1996]
(a) band absorption spectrum
(b) line absorption spectrum 223. Dispersive power depends upon
(a) The shape of prism (b) Material of prism
(c) continuous absorption spectrum
(c) Angle of prism (d) Height of the prism.
(d) continuous emission spectrum.
[Karnataka CET 1999] 224. Continuous spectrum is not due to
(a) Hydrogen flame (b) Electric bulb
216. A neon sign does not produce
(c) Kerosene oil lamp flame (d) Candle flame.
(a) Line spectrum (b) An emission spectrum
225. Rainbow is formed due to
(c) An absorption spectrum (d) Photons.
(a) scattering and refraction
[MP PET 1996]
(b) total internal reflection and dispersion
217. When seen in green light, the saffron and green
(c) reflection only
portions of our National Flag will appear to be
(d) diffraction and dispersion. [CBSE PMT 2000]
(a) black (b) black and green respectively
226. Two lenses have powers P1 and P2 respectively and
(c) green
their dispersive powers are ω1 and ω2 respectively.
(d) green and yellow respectively. [Manipal MEE 1995] They will together form an achromatic combination
218. Missing lines in a continuous spectrum reveal if
(a) defects of the observing instrument (a) ω1 P1 = ω2 P2 (b) ω1 P1 + ω2P2 = 0
(c) ω1 + P1 = ω2 + P2 (d) ω1 – P1 = ω2 – P2.
(b) absence of some elements in the light source
(c) presence in the light source of hot vapours of some
227. At sunrise or sunset, the sun looks more red than at
elements
mid-day because
(a) the sun is hottest at these times
(d) presence of cool vapours of some elements around the
(b) of the scattering of light
light source. [MP PET 1995]
(c) of the effects of refraction
219. Line spectrum contains information about
(d) of the effects of diffraction. [AFMC 1995]
(a) The atoms of the prism (b) The atoms of the source
228. If refractive indices for the material of the prism
(c) The molecules of the source
are µv = 1.6 and µr = 1.4, then the dispersive power
(d) The atoms as well as molecules of the source. will be
[MP PET 1995] (a) 3 (b) 1.6
220. In impure spectrum, (c) 0.4 (d) 1.
(a) order of colours is reverse 229. When white light passes through a glass prism, one
(b) order of colours is irregular gets spectrum on the other side of the prism. In the
emergent beam, the ray which is deviating least is
(c) colours are overlapped (d) no colours is present.
(a) Violet ray (b) Green ray
221. We use flint glass prism to disperse polychromatic (c) Red ray (d) Yellow ray.
light because lights of different colours
230. The spectrum of molecular form of the substance is
(a) travel with same speed called
(b) travel with same speed but deviate differently due to the (a) Band spectrum (b) Line spectrum
shape of the prism (c) Absorption spectrum (d) Continuous spectrum.
OPTICS 463
231. An achromatic combination is to be obtained using a 239. Line spectrum was first of all theoretically explained
convex and concave lens. The two lenses chosen by
should have (a) Swan (b) Fraunhoffer
(a) Their powers equal (b) Their refractive indices equal (c) Kirchoff (d) Bohr.
(c) Their dispersive powers equal 240. The width of the spectrum obtained by prism does
(d) The product of their powers and dispersive powers equal. not depend upon
[MP PMT 1998] (a) Angular dispersion (b) Material of the prism
232. An achromatic combination of lenses is formed by (c) Angle of the prism (d) Incident angle.
joining 241. Band spectrum is produced by
(a) 2 convex lenses (b) 2 concave lenses (a) H (b) He
(c) 1 convex lens and 1 concave lens (c) H2 (d) Na. [CPMT 1978]
(d) convex lens and plane mirror. [BHU 1995] 242. Out of a convex, a plano-convex and a concave lens
233. The angle of deviation is the angle between the of equal focal length, which one can obtain a sharp
(a) incident and refracted rays image of an object ?
(b) incident ray and the normal (a) Any lens (b) The convex lens
(c) refracted ray and the normal (c) Plano-convex lens (d) The concave lens.
(d) incident and the emergent rays. 243. To remove the chromatic aberration, the combina-
234. Solar spectrum at the time of total solar eclipse is tion of lenses should be such that
(a) FR + FV = 0 (b) FR > FV
(a) line emission spectrum (b) band absorption spectrum
(c) FR < FV (d) FR – FV = 0.
(c) continuous emission spectrum
(d) line absorption spectrum. [Karnataka CET 2000] [MP PET 1900]
235. The spectrum of iodine gas under white light will be 244. Let spherical aberration and chromatic aberration
(a) only violet (b) bright lines
be denoted by S and C respectively. In case of a concave
mirror
(c) only red lines
(a) S and C both may be present
(d) some black bands in continuous spectrum.
(b) both S and C do not exist.
236. A prism CANNOT be used
(a) to produce divergence of rays. (c) S may be present but C cannot exist.
(b) to produce dispersion of light. (d) C may be present but S cannot exist.
(c) to turn the direction of a ray through 90°. 245. The angle of refraction of a prism is 4.5° and its
(d) to turn the direction of a ray through 180°. refractive index is 1.52. The angle of minimum
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000] deviation will be
(a) 1.5° (b) 2.34°
237. If fV and fR are the focal lengths of a convex lens for
violet and red light respectively and FV and FR are (c) 4.5° (d) 2°.
the focal lengths of a concave lens for violet and red 246. In the formation of primary rainbow, the sunlight
light respectively, then we must have rays emerge at minimum deviation from rain-drop
after
(a) fV > fR and FV > FR (b) fV < fR and FV > FR
(a) one internal reflection and one refraction
(c) fV > fR and FV < FR (d) fV < fR and FV < FR.
(b) one internal reflection and two refractions
[CBSE PMT 1996] (c) two internal reflections and one refraction
238. Two lenses of powers P1 and P2 placed in contact (d) two internal reflections and two refractions.
form an achromatic doublet. The ratio of their [MP PET 1989]
dispersive powers is
247. In solar spectrum while going from violet colour to
P1 P2 red colour, for every coloured ray
(a) (b)
P2 P1 (a) deviation decreases, refractive index decreases
(b) deviation decreases, refractive index increases
P1 P2
(c) (d) . (c) deviation increases, refractive index increases
P2 P1
(d) none of the above.
464 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
248. Refractive index is (c) a convex lens of smaller focal length and concave lens of
(a) directly proportional to wavelength of light large focal length.
(b) inversely proportional to wavelength of light (d) both cannot be concave.
(c) inversely proportional to square of wavelength of light 257. In order to reduce the spherical aberration in optical
(d) directly proportional to the square of wavelength of light.
instruments, one should use
(a) Plano-convex lenses (b) Concave lenses
249. Finger prints on paper are identified by sprinkling
fluorescent powder on it and observing it under (c) Spherical mirrors (d) Plane mirrors.
(a) Mercury light (b) Sun light 258. Fig. 43 represents three cases of a ray passing through
(c) Infrared light (d) Ultraviolet light. a prism of refracting edge A. The case corresponding
to minimum deviation is
[MP PMT 1989]
250. Chromatic aberration of a lens is
(a) not dependent of focal length
(b) directly proportional to focal length
(c) inversely proportional to focal length
1 2 3
(d) inversely proportional to dispersive power.
[MP PMT 1989] Fig. 43
251. Two thin lenses of the same material and mean focal (a) 1 (b) 2
lengths f1 and f2 form an achromatic combination (c) 3 (d) none of these.
when the lenses are placed co-axially at a distance
[CPMT 1989]
apart such that
259. White light is incident on thin-walled hollow glass
2 f1 f2 2 f1 f2
(a) d = (b) d = prism. The emergent light is
f1 + f2 f1 − f2
(a) White
f +f
(c) d = 1 2 (d) d = f1 – f2. (b) Coloured with violet deviated least
2
(c) Coloured with red deviated least
252. What will be the colour of sky as seen from the earth,
if there were no atmosphere ? (d) None of the above.
(a) Black (b) Blue 260. Two lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are available.
(c) Orange (d) Red. [MP PMT 1992] What must be the separation between them so as to
minimise spherical aberration ?
253. The dispersive power is maximum for the material
(a) f1 + f2 (b) f1 – f2
(a) Flint glass (b) Crown glass
f1 f2
(c) Mixture of both (d) None of these. (c) f1f2 (d) .
f1 + f2
254. Fraunhofer lines are obtained in
261. Refractive index, frequency and deviation are maxi-
(a) Solar spectrum
mum for
(b) The spectrum obtained from neon lamp (a) green colour (b) red colour
(c) Spectrum from a discharge tube (c) violet colour (d) black colour.
(d) None of the above. [MP PMT 1989] 262. Light is dispersed by a prism because
255. The defect in the image arising because of marginal (a) it is made of glass. (b) it is triangular.
and paraxial rays undergoing different deviations in (c) refractive index of the prism material is different for
a lens is known as different colours.
(a) distortion (b) spherical aberration (d) light is of seven colours.
(c) coma (d) chromatic aberration. 263. The spectrum of light emitted by a glowing solid is
256. Tick the wrong statement : (a) continuous spectrum. (b) line spectrum.
To obtain a convex achromatic combination of two (c) band spectrum. (d) absorption spectrum.
lenses of the same material placed at some suitable
264. By placing the prism in minimum deviation position,
distance amongst the component lenses,
images of the spectrum
(a) both may be convex.
(a) become inverted. (b) become broader.
(b) a convex lens of greater focal length and concave lens of
(c) become distinct. (d) become intensive.
smaller focal length.
OPTICS 465
265. Just before the time of sun-set, the sun appears to be 272. The refractive index of a given piece of transparent
bigger because quartz is greatest for
(a) the sun changes its shape at that time (a) Red light (b) Violet light
(b) of the scattering of light (c) of the effects of refraction (c) Green light (d) Yellow light.
(d) of the effects of diffraction. [NCERT 1971] 273. Presence of calcium in sun is estimated because
(a) absorption lines of calcium are present in solar spectrum.
266. Which of the following is true statement ?
(b) emission spectrum lines of calcium are present in solar
(a) The order of colours in the primary and the secondary spectrum.
rainbows is the same
(c) calcium is present in earth’s atmosphere.
(b) The intensity of colours in the primary and the secondary (d) calcium is present in sun rays.
rainbows is the same
274. When white light passes through a hollow prism, then
(c) The intensity of light in the primary rainbow is greater
(a) there is no dispersion and no deviation
and the order of colours is the same than the secondary
rainbow (b) dispersion but no deviation
(c) deviation but no dispersion
(d) The intensity of light for different colours in primary rain-
bow is greater and the order of colours is reverse than the (d) there is dispersion and deviation both.
secondary rainbow. [MP PMT 1987]
267. Emission spectrum of CO2 gas 275. When a prism is placed in the position of minimum
(a) is a line spectrum (b) is a band spectrum deviation, the ray of light within the prism
(c) is a continuous spectrum (a) goes parallel to the base.
(d) does not fall in the visible region. [MP PET 1992] (b) goes perpendicular to the base.
(c) makes minimum angle with the base.
268. For pure spectrum, the emergent rays should be
focussed by an achromatic lens so that (d) direction is not fixed relative to the base.
(a) intensity of the spectrum may be increased 276. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive
index of material of a prism is cot A/2. The angle of
(b) all light rays may be focussed at one point
minimum deviation is
(c) spherical aberrations can be removed (a) 180° – 3 A (b) 180° + 2 A
(d) same-coloured rays may be focussed. (c) 90° – A (d) 180° – 2 A.
269. In a thin prism of glass (refractive index 1.5), which 277. In the position of minimum deviation, when a ray of
of the following relations between the angle of mini- yellow light passes through the prism, then its angle
mum deviations δm and angle of refraction r will be of incidence is
correct ? (a) less than the emergent angle
(a) δm = r (b) δm = 1.5 r (b) greater than the emergent angle
r (c) sum of angle of incidence and emergent angle is 90°
(c) δm = 2r (d) δm = . [MP PMT 1990]
2 (d) equal to the emergent angle.
270. In deviation without dispersion, 278. If the refractive indices of a prism for red, yellow and
(a) all the coloured rays will be parallel to the incident ray violet colours be 1.61, 1.63 and 1.65 respectively, then
(b) all the coloured rays will be mutually parallel but not par- the dispersive power of the prism will be
allel to the incident ray 1.65 − 1.62 1.62 − 1.61
(a) (b)
(c) the direction of different coloured rays will be different 1.61 − 1 1.65 − 1
(d) all the rays of different colours will coincide together but
1.65 − 1.61 1.65 − 1.63
not parallel to the incident ray. (c) (d) .
1.63 − 1 1.61 − 1
271. When light emitted by a white hot solid is passed
[MP PET 1991]
through a sodium flame, the spectrum of the emer-
gent light will show 279. The chromatic aberration in a lens is because of
(a) the D1 and D2 bright yellow lines of sodium (a) some manufacturing defect
(b) two dark lines in the yellow region (b) the large size of the lens
(c) all colours from violet to red (c) the object being very close to the lens
(d) no colours at all. [MP PMT 1992] (d) dispersion of light in the lens material.
466 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
280. The angle of minimum deviation for a prism is 40° 286. Which of the following element was discovered by
and the angle of the prism is 60°. The angle of inci- study of Fraunhoffer lines ?
dence in this position will be (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(a) 10° (b) 20° (c) Helium (d) Ozone.
(c) 50° (d) 100°. [MP PAT 1990] 287. The refractive index (µ) of a material varies with
281. Which one of the following represents correctly the wavelength (λ) as
variation of angle of deviation (δ) with angle of inci- (a) µ = Aλ + B (b) µ = A + Bλ2
dence (i) for refraction at prism ? (c) µ = A + B/λ2 (d) µ = A + B/λ4.
δ δ 288. The angle of prism is 6° and its refractive index for
green light is 1.5. If a green ray passes through it,
the deviation will be
(a) 30° (b) 15°
(a) (b)
(c) 9° (d) 3°.
289. A thin prism of glass is placed in air and water
i i successively. If aµ g = 3/2 and aµ w = 4/3, then the
O O
δ ratio of the deviations produced by the prism for a
d small angle of incidence when placed in air and water
is
(a) 9 : 8 (b) 4 : 3
(c) (d) (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 1.
290. The failure of the paraxial and marginal rays pass-
O
i i ing through the same point on reflection at a spheri-
O
cal mirror or refraction through a lens is known as
Fig. 44 (a) chromatic aberration (b) spherical aberration
282. In dispersion without deviation, (c) astigmatism (d) coma.
(a) the emergent rays of all the colours are parallel to the 291. Chromatic aberration in the formation of images by
incident ray. a lens arises because
(b) yellow coloured ray is parallel to the incident ray.
(a) of non-paraxial rays
(c) only red coloured ray is parallel to the incident ray.
(b) radii of curvatures of the two sides are not the same
(d) all the rays are parallel, but not parallel to the incident
ray. (c) of the defect in grinding
283. A convex lens, a glass prism and a solid sphere all (d) the focal length varies with wavelength.
are made of the same glass. The dispersive power 292. A combination is made of two lenses of focal length f
will be and f ′ in contact. The dispersive powers of the mate-
(a) in the solid sphere and prism rial of the lenses are ω and ω′. The combination is
(b) in the lens and solid sphere achromatic when
(c) only in prism (d) in all the three. (a) ω = ω0, ω′ = 2 ω0, f ′ = 2f
[CPMT 1986] f
(b) ω = ω0, ω′ = 2 ω0, f ′ =
284. Minimum deviation is observed with a prism having 2
angle of prism = 60°, angle of deviation = 30°, angle FG f IJ
of incidence = i and angle of emergence = e. We have
(c) ω = ω0, ω′ = 2ω0, f ′ = – H 2K
(a) i = 45°, e = 30° (b) i = 30°, e = 45° (d) ω = ω0, ω′ = 2 ω0, f ′ = – 2f.
(c) i = 45°, e = 45° (d) i = 30°, e = 30°. 293. Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced by
285. The angle of minimum deviation of a flint glass prism (a) using a monochromatic light
relative to crown glass prism having the same angle (b) using a doublet combination
of refraction for the same wavelength will be
(c) using a circular annular mask over the lens
(a) less (b) greater
(d) increasing the size of the lens.
(c) equal
(d) depends upon incidence angle. 294. A real image of a distant object is formed by a plano-
convex lens on its principal axis. Spherical aberration
OPTICS 467
(a) is absent 303. Longitudinal chromatic aberration for an incident
(b) is smaller if the curved surface of the lens faces the object parallel beam of a lens of unit focal length is numeri-
(c) is smaller if the plane surface of the lens faces the object cally equal to
(d) is the same whichever side of the lens faces the object. (a) its focal length (b) one
295. What is the angle of incidence for an equilateral prism (c) its dispersive power (d) infinity.
of refractive index 3 so that the ray is parallel to 304. Sodium lamps are used in foggy conditions because:
the base inside the prism ? (a) yellow light is scattered less by the fog particles.
(a) 30° (b) 45° (b) yellow light is scattered more by the fog particles.
(c) 60° (d) either 30° or 60°. (c) yellow light is unaffected during its passage through the
296. Two lenses in contact form an achromatic doublet. fog
Their focal lengths are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then their (d) wavelength of yellow light is the mean of the visible part of
dispersive powers must be in the ratio the spectrum [AIIMS 2004]
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3
305. Two convex lenses of same focal length are made of
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 3 : 2.
crown and flint glass respectively. The axial chro-
297. A prism of refractive index µg deviates the incident matic aberration is
ray towards its base. If it is immersed in a transpar-
(a) equal for the two lenses.
ent liquid of refractive index µl such that µl > µ g ,
then the prism would (b) greater for the crown glass lens.
(a) deviate the ray towards its base (c) greater for the flint glass lens.
(b) deviate the ray away from its base (d) sometimes greater for crown glass lens and sometimes for
(c) not deviate the ray at all flint glass lens.
(d) nothing can be said.
298. A combination of a convex and a concave lens of same OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
focal length is made. The combination behaves as
306. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image
(a) an achromatic converging lens
is
(b) an achromatic diverging lens
(a) virtual, inverted and magnified
(c) an achromatic cylindrical lens
(b) real, inverted and diminished
(d) an achromatic plane slab.
(c) virtual, erect and magnified
299. Line spectrum contains information about
(d) virtual, erect and diminished
(a) the atoms of the prism (b) the atoms of the source
(c) the molecules of the source (e) real, inverted and magnified. [Kerala PMT 2003]
(d) the atoms as well as molecules of the source. 307. The numerical value of the length of a Galileo tel-
[MP PET 1995] escope for normal vision is (assuming f o and fe as
300. When a lens forms coloured images of a point object positive length)
emitting white light, the separation between the violet (a) fo + fe (b) fo – fe
and red images on the principal axis is known as (c) fo/fe (d) fo × fe.
(a) chromatic aberration (b) axial chromatic aberration 308. The largest telescope in the world has a reflector with
(c) transverse chromatic aberration an aperture 200″, to get
(d) spherical aberration. (a) low dispersive power (b) least spherical aberration
301. The mean focal length of a lens is 15 cm. If the dis- (c) high resolving power
persive power of its material is 0.02, the axial chro- (d) high accommodation power.
matic aberration produced by the lens is
309. The resolving limit of healthy eye is about
(a) 0.0013 cm (b) 0.60 cm
(a) 1′ (b) 1″
(c) 0.30 cm (d) none of these.
1
302. For two lenses of the same material to achieve achro- (c) 1° (d) . [MP PET 1999]
60″
matism, one should put them
(a) in contact (b) a finite distance part 310. If fo and fe are the focal length of the objective and
eye-piece respectively for a telescope, its magnifying
(c) in any manner (d) nothing is certain.
power is
468 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 90 cm from the eye 80 cm (b) objective should have small focal length and the eye-piece
should have large focal length.
(b) infinity 80 cm
(c) both should have large focal lengths.
(c) infinity 90 cm
(d) the objective should have large focal length and eye-piece
(d) least distance of distinct vision 80 cm
should have small focal length.
(e) least distance of distinct vision 90 cm.
470 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
two slits in the Young’s double-slit interference ex- (c) bright fringe is formed at the centre and violet fringes are
periment. When a thin film of mica is interposed in closer to the centre than red fringes.
the path of one of the interfering beams, then (d) fringes of same colour are clearly observed.
(a) the fringe width increases 379. Which one of the following statements must be true
(b) the fringe width decreases about two waves of monochromatic light arriving at
(c) the fringe width remains the same but the pattern shifts a point on a screen if the waves are coherent ?
(d) the fringe pattern disappears [AIIMS 2004] (a) They are in phase.
375. Coherent light is incident on two fine parallel slits S1 (b) They have a constant phase difference.
and S2 as shown in Fig. 45. If a dark fringe occurs at (c) They have both travelled paths of equal length.
P, which of the following gives possible phase differ- (d) They have approximately equal amplitudes.
ences for the light waves arriving at P from S1 and 380. A double slit arrangement produces interference
S2 ? fringes for sodium light (λ = 589 nm) that have an
angular separation of 3.50 × 10–3 radian. For what
wavelength would the angular separation be 10%
greater ?
S1 (a) 527 nm (b) 648 nm
P (c) 722 nm (d) 449 nm.
S2
381. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of
central maximum is I0 . If one slit is closed, the in-
tensity at the same site is
I
(a) I0 (b) 0
Fig. 45 16
I I
(a) 2 π, 4 π , 6 π ... (b) 1/2 π, 5/2 π, 9/2 π ... (c) 0 (d) 0 . [Pb. PMT 1999]
4 2
(c) π, 3 π, 5 π ... (d) 1/2 π, 3/2 π, 5/2 π ...
382. In the pattern of interference fringes, we observe
(e) π, 2 π, 3 π ...
(a) the fringes of different width.
376. If white light is used in Young’s double slit experi- (b) the fringes of equal width.
ment,
(c) the fringes of equal width near the centre only.
(a) a very large number of coloured fringes can be seen
(d) the fringes of unequal width near the centre only.
(b) a very large number of coloured fringes with a central
383. A monochromatic beam of light is used to illuminate
white fringe can be seen
the two slits in Young’s Experiment. Fringes are seen
(c) very few coloured fringes can be seen, with first order
on the screen. When a thin glass plate is interposed
violet fringes being closer to the central white fringe
in one of the beams, then
(d) very few coloured fringes can be seen with first order red
(a) fringes width increases (b) fringe width decreases
fringes being closer to the central white fringe.
(c) fringe pattern disappears
[Karnataka CET 2001]
(d) fringe width remains the same.
377. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998]
require two sources which emit radiation
(a) of the same frequency and having a definite phase 384. Soap bubble appears coloured due to the phenom-
relationship. enon of
(b) of nearly the same frequency. (a) interference. (b) diffraction.
(c) of the same frequency. (c) dispersion. (d) reflection. [AFMC 1995]
(d) of different wavelengths. 385. I is the intensity due to a source of light at any point
[Karnataka CET 1990, 1993 ; AIEEE 2003] P on the screen. If light reaches the point P via two
different paths (a) direct (b) after reflection from a
378. In a double slit experiment, white light is used. Then
plane mirror then path difference between two paths
(a) dark and bright fringes are formed alternately.
is 3λ/2, the intensity at P is
(b) white fringe is formed at the centre and red f.ringes are (a) I (b) zero
farther to the centre than violet fringes.
(c) 2I (d) 4I.
OPTICS 473
386. Imagine a Young’s double slit experiment using elec- (a) no interference
tron waves produced by an electron gun. To increase (b) interference with only the bright bands
the width of the interference fringes, (c) interference with only the dark bands
(a) accelerating voltage in electron gun should be decreased. (d) a slight increase in the fringe width.
(b) accelerating voltage in electron gun should be increased. 394. Intensity of maximum due to interference between
(c) distance between the slits should be increased. two waves of equal amplitude is ...... times that due
(d) distance between slits and screen should be decreased. to a single wave.
387. If the intensities of the two interfering beams in (a) 2 (b) 4
Young’s double slit experiment be I1 and I2 , then the (c) 6 (d) 8.
contrast between the maximum and minimum 395. Fringe width observed in the Young’s double slit
intensity is good when experiment is β. If the frequency of the source is
(a) I1 is much greater than I2 (b) I1 is much smaller than I2 doubled, the fringe width will
(c) either I1 or I2 is zero (d) I1 = I2. (a) remain β. (b) become β/2.
388. If the Young’s double slit experiment is performed (c) become 2β. (d) become 3β/2.
with white light, then [Karnataka CET 1995]
(a) the central maximum will be white
396. In an interference experiment, the spacing between
(b) there will not be completely dark fringe successive maxima or minima is
(c) the fringe next to the central will be red λd λD
(d) the fringe next to the central will be violet. (a) (b)
D d
389. Two coherent beams of light of same wavelength su- dD λd
perpose in a certain region of space. If the intensity (c) (d) .
λ 4D
of one beam is 4 times that of the other, then the
397. In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance
ratio of intensity at a bright point to that at a dark
point is between the two slits is 0.1 mm and the wavelength
of light used is 4 × 10–7 m. If the width of the fringe
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
on the screen is 4 mm, then the distance between
(c) 5 : 3 (d) 9 : 1.
screen and slit is :
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
(a) 0.1 mm (b) 1 cm
390. Two interfering beams of monochromatic light have
(c) 0.1 cm (d) 1 m
intensities in the ratio of 16 : 9. The ratio of the maxi-
(e) 10 m.
mum to the minimum intensity of fringe system
formed on the screen is 398. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 × 10–7 m
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 25 : 7 illuminates a pair of slits 1 mm apart. The separation
(c) 256 : 81 (d) 49 : 1.
of nearest bright fringes in the interference pattern
on a screen 2 m away is
391. In double slit experiment, for light of which colour,
(a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.5 mm
the fringe width will be minimum ?
(c) 0. 1 mm (d) 1.0 mm.
(a) Violet (b) Red
(c) Green (d) Yellow. [MP PMT 1994]
[Karnataka CET 1992]
392. Which of the following decides about the contrast 399. In Young’s double slit experiment, yellow light is
between bright and dark fringes in an interference replaced by red light of the same intensity. The fringe
experiment ? width shall
(a) wavelength (a) increase (b) decrease
(b) distance between two coherent sources (c) remain unchanged (d) become zero.
(c) fringe width (d) intensity ratio. 400. If the distance between the slits is halved and distance
between the slits and screen is also halved, then the
393. Interference is observed in a chamber containing air.
The experiment is performed now after evacuating fringe width will be
the chamber. On careful observation, we shall now (a) same (b) doubled
see (c) four times (d) halved.
474 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
401. Young’s experiment establishes that With which two waves is interference possible ?
(a) light consists of waves. (b) light consists of particles. (a) In (i) and (iii) (b) In (i) and (iv)
(c) light consists of neither particles nor waves. (c) In (iii) and (iv)
(d) light consists of both particles and waves. (d) Not possible with any combination.
[MP PET 1994] 409. If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude
402. Interference fringes are obtained using two coherent respectively, on superposition, produce a resultant
sources whose intensities are in the ratio 4 : 1. Then wave of the same amplitude, the waves differ in phase
the ratio of the intensities of the bright and dark by
bands is (a) π/3 (b) 2π/3
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 5 : 1 (c) π/4 (d) zero.
(c) 9 : 1 (d) 25 : 9. 410. In Young’s experiment, the ratio of maximum to
[Karnataka 1990] minimum intensities of the fringe system is 4 : 1.
The amplitudes of the coherent sources are in the
403. When monochromatic light is replaced by white light
ratio
in Fresnel’s biprism arrangement, the central fringe
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
is
(a) dark (b) white (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1. [MP PET 2000]
(c) coloured (d) none of these. 411. The displacements of interfering light waves are
y1 = 4 sin ωt and y2 = 3 sin (ωt + π/2). What is the
404. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s
amplitude of the resultant wave ?
double slit experiment is replaced by monochromatic
blue light of the same intensity (a) 5 (b) 7
(a) fringe width will decrease. (c) 1 (d) zero.
(b) fringe width will increase. [Rajasthan PMT 1996]
(c) fringe width will remain unchanged. 412. If the source of light used in a Young’s Double Slit
(d) fringes will become less intense. [CBSE PMT 1992] Experiment is changed from red to blue, then
(a) the fringes will become brighter.
405. A double slit arrangement produces fringes for light
of λ = 5890 Å which are 0.2° apart. If the whole (b) consecutive fringes will come closer.
416. If Young’s interference experiment be performed in The linear separation of fringes on a screen placed in
water instead of air, then the focal plane of the lens is
(a) fringes will be smaller in number. (a) 3 mm (b) 4 mm
(b) fringes will be broader. (c) fringes will be narrower. (c) 2 mm (d) 1 mm.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991]
(d) no fringes will be obtained.
423. In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act
417. Two light waves having the same wavelength λ in
as coherent sources of equal amplitude A and of
vacuum are in phase initially. Then the first ray
wavelength λ. In another experiment with the same
travels a path of length L1 through a medium of
set-up, the two slits are sources of equal amplitude A
refractive index µ1. The second ray travels a path of
and wavelength λ, but are incoherent. The ratio of
length L2 through a medium of refractive index µ2.
intensity of light at the mid-point of the screen in the
The two waves are then combined to observe
first case to that in the second case is
interference effects. The phase difference between the
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
two, when they interfere, is
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1.
2π 2π
(a) (L 1 − L 2 ) (b) (µ 1L 1 − µ 2L 2 )
λ λ 424. In a double slit experiment, interference is obtained
(c)
2π
(µ 2L 1 − µ 1L 2 ) (d)
LM
2π L 1 L 2
− .
OP from electron waves produced in an electron gun
supplied with voltage V. If λ is wavelength of the beam,
λ N
λ µ 1 µ2 Q D is the distance of screen, d is the spacing between
418. Young’s double slit experiment gives interference by coherent sources, h is Planck’s constant, e is charge
division of on electron and m is mass of electron, then fringe
(a) wavelength (b) frequency width is given as
(c) phase (d) wavefront. hD 2hD
419. The light from a sodium vapour lamp passes through (a) (b)
2 meV d meV d
a single narrow slit and then through two close par-
hd 2 hd
allel narrow slits. The single slit lies on the perpen- (c) (d) .
2 meV D meV D
dicular bisector of the line joining the two close par-
allel slits. An observer looking towards the lamp 425. The path difference between two interfering waves
through the double slit will see corresponding to a phase difference π is
(a) a continuous yellow band (b) a continuous black band (a) λ (b) 3λ
(c) alternate black and yellow bands (c) λ/2 (d) λ/4. [JAT (Assam) 1999]
(d) a coloured spectrum. 426. In Young’s double slit interference experiment, if the
420. If torch is used in place of monochromatic light in slit separation is made 3 folds, the fringe width
Young’s experiment, what will happen ? becomes
(a) Fringe will occur as from monochromatic source. (a) 6 fold (b) 3 fold
(b) Fringe will appear for a moment and then it will disappear. (c) 3/6 fold (d) 1/3 fold. [CPMT 1985]
(c) No fringes will appear. 427. A thin film of air between a plane glass plate and a
(d) Only bright fringe will appear. convex lens is irradiated with parallel beam of mono-
chromatic light and is observed under a microscope.
421. The width of one of the two slits in a Young’s double
You will see
slit experiment is 2 times that of the other. Assume
(a) field crossed over by concentric bright and dark rings.
that the amplitude of wave coming from a slit is
proportional to the slit width. The ratio of maximum (b) field crossed over by parallel bright and dark fringes.
to minimum intensity in the interference pattern will (c) complete darkness. (d) uniform brightness.
be 428. Two light sources are said to be coherent if they are
(a) 2 (b) 3 obtained from
(c) 6 (d) 9. (a) two independent point sources emitting light of the same
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991] wavelength
422. Light of wavelength λ = 5890 Å falls on a double slit (b) a single point source (c) a wide source
arrangement having separation d = 0.2 mm. A thin (d) two ordinary bulbs emitting light of different wavelengths.
lens of focal length f = 1 m is placed near the slits. [MP PET 1996]
476 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
429. Two coherent sources of light produce destructive (c) cannot be obtained by any of these sources
interference when phase difference between them is (d) since contrast suffers when sources 3 and 4 are used so
(a) 2π (b) π coherence cannot be obtained by using sources 3 and 4.
(c) π/2 (d) 0. [MP PET 1996] 438. In Young’s double slit experiment, the band width of
fringe is independent of
430. In a biprism experiment, if the equal angles of the
two component prisms are slightly increased, the (a) distance between the coherent sources
fringes pattern will (b) distance of the screen from the sources
(a) remain unchanged (b) shrink (c) wavelength of light emitted by the sources
(c) gets enlarged (d) remains unchanged. (d) order of the fringe.
431. In Young’s double slit experiment, if one of the slit is 439. As a result of interference of two coherent sources of
closed fully, then in the interference pattern light, energy is
(a) a bright slit will be observed, no interference pattern will (a) redistributed and the distribution does not very with time
exist (b) increased
(b) the bright fringes will become more bright (c) redistributed and the distribution changes with time
(c) the bright fringes will become fainter (d) decreased. [KCET 2003]
(d) none of the above. 440. The fringe width in Young’s double slit experiment
432. For constructive interference to take place between can be increased if we decrease
two monochromatic light waves of wavelength λ, the (a) the separation of the slits (b) width of the slits
path difference should be (c) distance between slit and screen
λ λ (d) wavelength of light.
(a) (2n – 1) (b) (2n – 1)
4 2 441. Two sources of light are said to be coherent if waves
λ produced by them have the same
(c) nλ (d) (2n + 1) .
2 (a) wavelength. (b) amplitude.
433. If L is the coherence length and c the velocity of light,
(c) frequency and constant phase difference.
then the coherent time is
(d) amplitude and same wavelength.
L
(a) cL (b)
c 442. The Young’s experiment is first performed with
c 1 sodium light and then replaced with neon light of
(c) (d) . [MP PMT 1996] the same intensity. Which of the following effects will
L Lc
434. Interference can be observed with the help of a be noticed ?
(a) spectrometer (b) biprism (a) The fringes will disappear.
(c) photometer (d) prism. (b) The fringes will become less distinct.
435. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of (c) The fringe width will increase.
light at a point on the screen where the path differ- (d) The fringe width will decrease.
ence is λ = I. The intensity of light at a point where 443. Two powerful 100 W bulbs are used to study the in-
the path difference becomes λ/3 is terference of light. How will interference pattern be
I I affected ?
(a) (b)
4 3 (a) Fringes will become narrow.
I
(c) (d) I. (b) Fringes will become broader.
2
(c) It would vanish.
436. In a biprism experiment, when the set up is shifted
from air to the inside of a still, clear lake water, the (d) Pattern will be coloured green- yellow.
fringe pattern 444. If one of the two slits of a Young’s double slit experi-
(a) disappears (b) gets shrunk ment is painted so that it transmits half the light
(c) gets enlarged (d) remains unchanged. intensity as the second slit, then
437. Sources 1 and 2 emit lights of different wavelengths (a) the fringe system will altogether disappear
whereas 3 and 4 emit lights of different intensities, (b) the bright lines will become brighter and the dark fringes
the coherence will become darker
(a) can be obtained by using sources 1 and 2 (c) both dark and bright fringes will become darker
(b) can be obtained by using sources 3 and 4 (d) dark fringes will become brighter and bright fringes darker.
OPTICS 477
445. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a thin film is (a) dispersion (b) diffraction
introduced in the path of one interfering ray. Now, (c) interference (d) refraction [AIIMS 2004]
the fringe width shall
452. Pick out the correct statements
(a) decrease (b) increase
(a) diffraction is exhibited by all electromagnetic waves but
(c) remain unchanged (d) become zero. not by mechanical waves
446. Young’s double slit experiment is being performed in (b) diffraction cannot be observed with a plane polarised light
air. The fringe width is β. What shall be the fringe (c) the limit of resolution of a microscope decreases with
width if the whole apparatus is immersed in a liquid increase in the wavelength of light used
of refractive index µ ? (d) the width of central maximum in the diffraction pattern
(a) β (b) µβ due to single slit increases as wavelength increases.
β [National Standard Exam.n in Physics 1997]
(c) (d) 0.
µ 453. A lens of focal length f gives diffraction pattern of
Fraunhofer type of a slit having width a. If wave-
DIFFRACTION length of light is λ , the distance of first dark band
and next bright band from axis is given by
447. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experi-
ment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is a λ
(a) f (b) f
replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will λ a
reveal λ
(a) that the central maximum is narrower. (c) (d) aλf. [MNR 1995]
af
(b) more number of fringes.
454. If white light is used in diffraction at a single slit, the
(c) less number of fringes.
central maximum will be
(d) no diffraction pattern. [IIT Screening 1999]
(a) white (b) coloured
448. In a spectrometer experiment, monochromatic light (c) black (d) none of these.
is incident normally on a diffraction grating having
4.5 × 105 lines per metre. The second order line is 455. At the first minima, the path difference between two
seen at an angle of 30° to the normal. What is the waves starting from the two ends of a slit in a single
wavelength of the light ? slit Fraunhofer diffraction experiment is
(a) 200 nm (b) 556 nm λ
(a) (b) λ
(c) 430 nm (d) 589 nm 2
(e) 500 nm. 3
(c) (d) 2λ. [CMC LDH 2000]
449. A diffraction grating is ruled with 600 lines per mil- 2λ
limetre. When monochromatic light falls normally
456. The penetration of light into the region of geometrical
on the grating, the first-order diffracted beams are
shadow is called
observed on the far side of the grating each making
(a) polarisation (b) interference
an angle of 15° with the normal to the grating.
What is the frequency of the light ? (c) diffraction (d) refraction. [CPMT 1999]
(a) 1.2 × 1013 Hz (b) 4.7 × 1013 Hz 457. Bending of light about corner of the obstacle’s sharp
(c) 1.9 × 1014 Hz (d) 3.6 × 1014 Hz edge is called
(e) 7.0 × 1014 Hz. (a) deviation (b) dispersion
450. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant (c) polarisation (d) diffraction.
source falls on a single slit 1.00 mm wide and the 458. The conditions for obtaining Fraunhofer diffraction
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen from a single slit is that the light wavefront incident
2 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes on the slit should be
on either side of the central bright fringe is (a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm (c) elliptical (d) planar.
(c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm. [Pb. PMT 1998] 459. For producing a broad central maximum by diffrac-
451. When a compact disc is illuminated by a source of tion from a single slit,
while light, coloured ‘lanes’ are observed. This is due (a) slit must be narrow (b) slit must be broad
to (c) source must be narrow (d) sources must be broad.
478 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
460. To observe diffraction, the size of an obstacle (c) sound is perceived by the ear
(a) should be of the same order as wavelength (d) sound waves are longitudinal.
(b) should be much larger than the wavelength [Karnataka CET 1995, 2000]
(c) has no relation to wavelength 467. The wavelength of light can be experimentally found
using
(d) should be exactly λ/2. [CPMT 1982]
(a) ripple tank (b) diffraction grating
461. While both light and sound show wave character, (c) plane mirror (d) glass prism.
diffraction (bending round corners) is much harder
[Karnataka CET 1989, 1992]
to observe in light. This is because
468. In the experiment of diffraction at a single slit, if the
(a) speed of light is far greater slit width is decreased, the width of the central maxi-
(b) wavelength of light is far smaller mum
(c) light does not require a medium (a) decreases in Fresnel diffraction but increases in
Fraunhofer diffraction.
(d) waves of light are transverse.
(b) increases in Fresnel diffraction but decreases in
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992] Fraunhofer diffraction.
462. For a single slit of width d, the first diffraction mini- (c) decreases in both Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction.
mum using light of wavelength λ will occur at an (d) increases in both Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction .
angle of [Karnataka CET 2001]
FG λ IJ FG λ IJ 469. The frequency of light can be experimentally found
(a) sin–1
H 2d K (b) sin–1
H dK using
FG d IJ FG 2d IJ . (a) ripple tank (b) diffraction grating
(c) sin–1
HλK (d) sin–1
HλK (c) plane mirror (d) glass prism.
463. Direction of the first secondary maximum in the [Karnataka CET 1988]
Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern at a single slit is given
470. Fig. 47 represents the intensity distribution produced
by (a is the width of the slit)
on a screen by the diffraction of light.
λ 3λ
(a) a sin θ = (b) a cos θ =
2 2
Intensity
3λ
(c) a sin θ = λ (d) a sin θ = .
2
[Karnataka 1999]
464. An opaque object 10 cm wide casts a shadow when
placed in a beam of light but has little effect on a
beam of sound emitted by a small source of frequency
500 Hz. This is because
(a) sound is a pressure wave whereas light is an electromag-
netic wave O
distance across screen
(b) sound travels much more slowly than light
Fig. 47
(c) sound waves are longitudinal whereas light waves are
transverse This can be achieved by using
(d) sound waves have a much longer wavelength than light (a) one single wavelength and a single slit
waves. (b) one single wavelength and a double slit
465. The phenomenon of diffraction of light was discov- (c) two separate wavelengths and a single slit
ered by (d) two separate wavelengths and a double slit
(a) Garibaldi (b) Fresnel (e) two separate wavelengths and a diffraction grating.
(c) Newton (d) Huygens. 471. A parallel beam of wavelength λ = 450 × 10–9 m passes
[Karnataka CET 1997, 2000] through a long slit of width 2 × 10–4 m. The angular
466. Diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of divergence for which most of light is diffracted is
sound waves than in the case of light waves because (a) 5.4 × 10–4 rad (b) 4.5 × 10–3 rad
(a) sound waves are of longer wavelength (c) 3.5 × 10 rad –3
(d) 2.8 × 10–4 rad.
(b) sound waves are mechanical waves [JIPMER 1995]
OPTICS 479
472. Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d. 479. Polarisation of light takes place due to many proc-
The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a esses. Which of the following will not cause polarisa-
screen at a distance D. The linear width of the prin- tion ?
cipal maxima is then equal to the width of the slit. D (a) Reflection (b) Double refraction
equals (c) Scattering (d) Diffraction
d 3λ (e) Absorption [Kerala PMT 2003]
(a) (b)
2λ d 480. A ray of light is incident on a glass plate at an angle
d2 2λ2 of 60°. What is the refractive index of glass if the
(c) (d) .
2λ 7d reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each
[All India PM/PD 2002] other ?
473. Diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of blue (a) tan 60° (b) cot 60°
light. What happens if red light is used in place of (c) sin 60° (d) cos 60°.
blue light ? [CMC Vellore 1999]
(a) Bands become broader and farther apart. 481. Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. Now
(b) Bands become narrower and crowded. one of them is rotated through an angle of 45°. The
(c) No change. (d) Bands disappear. percentage of incident light now transmitted through
474. Given : width of aperture = 3 mm and λ = 500 nm. the system is
For what distance ray optics is good approximation ? (a) 15% (b) 25%
(a) 18 m (b) 18 nm (c) 50% (d) 60%
(c) 18 Å (d) 18 light years. (e) 75%. [Kerala PMT 2003]
475. In diffraction experiment with light waves, the size 482. A polariser reduces the intensity of an unpolarised
of obstacle in path should be of the order of light by
(a) 1 mm (b) 0.1 mm (a) 80% (b) 60%
(c) 10 mm
–4
(d) 1 cm. (c) 50% (d) 40%.
476. If in the experiment of diffraction at a single slit, the 483. Consider the following statements A and B and iden-
width of slit is equal to twice the wavelength of light tify the correct answer.
used, the angle of diffraction for the first minimum A. Polarised light can be used to study the helical
will be surface of nucleic acids.
(a) 30° (b) 45° B. Optic axis is a direction and not any particular
(c) 60° (d) 90°. line in the crystal.
477. When a monochromatic beam of light is passed (a) A and B are correct
through a plane transmission grating at normal (b) A and B are wrong
incidence, the position of the direct image is obtained (c) A is correct but B is wrong
at D. The diffracted images A (d) A is wrong but B is correct. [EAMCET 2003]
and B correspond to first and 484. Unpolarised light is incident on a dielectric of refrac-
second order diffraction. What
tive index 3 . What is the angle of incidence if the
shall happen if the source is D A B reflected beam is completely polarised ?
replaced by a source of longer
wavelength ? Fig. 48 (a) 30° (b) 45°
(a) A and B shall shift away from D. (c) 60° (d) 75°.
(b) A and B shall shift towards D. 485. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming light of
intensity I0 . Now the intensity of light passing
(c) All the three shall shift to the right.
through polaroid after polarisation would be
(d) All the three shall shift to the left.
(a) I0 (b) I0/2
POLARISATION (c) I0/4 (d) zero.
486. A polaroid is being used as an analyser of plane
478. A Nicol prism can be used polarised light. In one complete rotation of the crystal,
(a) only to analyse polarised light the maximum intensities will be observed only
(b) for producing and analysing polarised light (a) once (b) twice
(c) only to produce polarised light (c) thrice (d) data is inadequate.
(d) none of the above. [AlI India PM/PD 1994]
480 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
487. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is to- 495. A beam of light AO is in- A B
tally polarised for reflection from air to glass (refrac- cident on a glass slab (µ =
tive index n), is 1.54) in the direction
O
(a) tan–1 (1/n) (b) sin–1 (1/n)
shown. The reflected ray 33° 33°
OB is passed through a Glass slab
(c) sin–1 (n) (d) tan–1 (n) [AIEEE 2004] Nicol prism. On viewing
Fig. 49
488. Unpolarised light converts to partially or plane pola- through a Nicol prism, we
rised light by many processes. Which of the follow- find on rotating the prism that
ing does not do that ? (a) the intensity is reduced down to zero and remains zero
(a) reflection (b) diffraction (b) the intensity reduces down somewhat and rises again
(c) double refraction (d) scattering. (c) there is no change in intensity
(d) the intensity gradually reduces to zero and then again
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
increases.
489. If the light is polarised by reflection, then the angle 496. A ray of unpolarised light is incident on a glass plate
between reflected and refracted light is at the polarising angle of incidence 57°. Now,
(a) π (b) π/2 (a) both the reflected and transmitted rays will be completely
(c) 2π (d) π/4. polarised
490. If a wave can be polarised, it must be (b) the reflected ray will be completely polarised and
transmitted ray will be partially polarised
(a) an electromagnetic wave (b) a longitudinal wave
(c) the reflected ray will be partially polarised and transmitted
(c) a sound wave (d) a stationary wave ray will be completely polarised
(e) a transverse wave. (d) both the reflected and the transmitted rays will be partially
491. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass plate. Part polarised.
of it is reflected and part is refracted. The reflected 497. Which effect provides direct experimental evidence
and refracted rays can be perpendicular to each other that light is a transverse, rather than a longitudinal
for wave motion ?
(a) no angle of incidence (a) Light can be diffracted.
(b) Two coherent light waves can be made to interfere.
(b) angle of incidence equal to 90°
(c) The intensity of light from a point source falls off inversely
(c) more than one angle of incidence
as the square of the distance from the source.
(d) only one angle of incidence. [CMC Vellore 2003] (d) Light can be polarised.
492. When light is incident from air to glass at an angle 498. Polaroid sheets are often used for making sun glasses.
57°, the reflected beam is completely polarised. If the This is because polaroid glasses
same beam is incident from water to glass, the angle (a) cut off glare
of incidence at which reflected beam is completely (b) absorb more light than coloured glasses
polarised will be (c) are light-weight
(a) θ = 57° (b) θ > 57° (d) remove the polarisation of direct sunlight.
(c) θ < 57° (d) cannot be determined. [Karnataka CET 1989]
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001] 499. θ is the polarising angle for two optical media, whose
critical angles are C1 and C2. Then the correct relation
493. Waves that cannot be polarised are
is
(a) electromagnetic waves (b) light waves
sin C2 sin C2
(c) longitudinal waves (d) transverse waves. (a) sin θ = (b) θ =
sin C1 sin C1
[KCET 2003] sin C1 sin C1
(c) tan θ = (d) sin θ = .
494. The phenomenon of rotation of plane polarised light sin C2 sin C2
is called [Karnataka CET 1997]
(a) Kerr effect (b) double refraction 500. If a wave can be polarised, it must be
(a) an electromagnetic wave (b) a longitudinal wave
(c) optical activity (d) dichroism. [KCET 2003]
(c) a progressive wave (d) a stationary wave
(e) a transverse wave.
OPTICS 481
501. When light incident on a refracting surface is polar- (a) stationary (b) moving towards earth
ised by reflection, then angle between the refracted (c) moving away from earth (d) Information is incomplete.
and reflected rays is 509. When there is a relative motion of an observer from
(a) 45° (b) 48° a source of light, the apparent change in its wave-
(c) 90° (d) 98°. length is termed as
[Karnataka CET 1984] (a) Raman effect (b) Seebeck effect
(c) Doppler’s effect (d) Gravitational effect.
502. The correct expression relating polarising angle and
510. If the context of Doppler effect in light, the term red
refractive index is
shift signifies
(a) µ sin ip = 1 (b) µ cot ip = 1
(a) decrease in frequency (b) increase in frequency
(c) µ tan ip = 1 (d) µ cosec ip = 1.
(c) decrease in intensity (d) increase in intensity.
[Karnataka CET 1984]
503. If the speed of light and the polarising angle for a MISCELLANEOUS
given medium are cm and i respectively, then from
511. When light waves travel from one medium into an-
Brewster’s law we find
other, its
(a) cm = cosec i (b) cm = cosh i (a) velocity does not change
(c) cm = cos i (d) cm = c × cot i. (b) wavelength does not change
[Karnataka CET 1985] (c) frequency does not change
504. The experimental proof that light is a transverse wave (d) velocity, frequency and wavelength do not change
may be obtained through (e) velocity, frequency and wavelength changes
517. Which one of the following waves is longitudinal 526. One cannot see through fog because
wave ? (a) fog absorbs light
(a) Radio wave (b) X-ray (b) light is scattered by the droplets in fog
(c) Sound wave (d) Light wave. (c) light suffers total reflection at the droplets in fog
[Karnataka CET 1989] (d) the refractive index of fog is infinity. [AFMC 2002]
518. Lights of different colours propagates through vacuum 527. Intensity of scattered light is
(a) with the velocity of air (b) with different velocities (a) equal to the wavelength.
(b) proportional to the square of wavelength.
(c) with the velocity of sound
(c) proportional to the fourth power of wavelength.
(d) having the equal velocities.
(d) inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength.
519. The ratio of the refractive index of red light to blue
528. Which of the following methods can be used to meas-
light in air is
ure the speed of light in laboratory ?
(a) less than unity (b) equal to unity
(a) Roemer method (b) Fizeau method
(c) greater than unity (c) Focault method (d) Michelson method.
(d) less as well as greater than unity depending upon the 529. Which of the following characters of light show in-
experimental arrangement. [CPMT 1978] terference and diffraction ?
520. θ is the optical rotation produced by sugar solution (a) transverse nature (b) wave nature
of concentration C and taken in a glass tube of length (c) particle nature (d) ray nature.
0.2 m and radius r. Then the solution is transferred 530. The locus of all the points in the same state of vibra-
to another glass tube of length 0.3 m and radius r tion in the same phase according to wave theory is
and the remaining space is filled with distilled wa- known as
ter. The optical rotation produced by this solution is (a) a wavefront (b) a half wave zone
(a) 3θ (b) 2 θ (c) a full wave zone (d) nothing can be said.
(c) θ (d) 1.5 θ. 531. On reflection from a denser to a rarer medium, a
[Karnataka CET 1999] wave suffers a path difference of
521. Newton postulated his corpuscular theory on the basis (a) λ/2 (b) λ/4
of (c) λ (d) zero.
(a) dispersion of white light 532. It is possible to distinguish between transverse and
(b) rectilinear propagation of light longitudinal waves by studying the property of
(c) colours of thin films (d) Newton’s rings. (a) interference (b) diffraction
[Karnataka CET 2001] (c) reflection (d) polarisation.
522. Optically active substance among the following is 533. A cylindrical wavefront is spreading out from a line
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Quartz source such as a long narrow slit. When the wavefront
is at a distance r from the source, the amplitude is
(c) Tourmaline (d) Calcite.
proportional to
[Karnataka CET 1997]
1 1
523. Laser is a device to produce (a) (b)
r r
(a) a beam of white light (b) coherent light
1 1
(c) microwaves (d) X-rays. (c) 2 (d) 3 / 2 .
r r
[Karnataka CET 1989]
[All India PM/PD 2001]
524. For a certain light, there are 2 × 103 waves in 1.5
534. If there were no atmosphere, then the length of the
mm in air. The wavelength of light is day on the earth will
(a) 75 Å (b) 750 Å (a) decrease (b) increase
(c) 750 nm (d) 75 × 10–7 m. (c) remain the same (d) depend upon the weather.
525. In Question no. 524, the frequency of the light is [AFMC 2003]
(a) 4 × 105 Hz (b) 4 × 1016 Hz 535. Red colour seems red because
(c) 4 × 1017 Hz (d) 4 × 1014 Hz. (a) it is coated red (b) absorbs red colour
[CMC Vellore 2002, modified] (c) scatters red colour (d) reflects red colour.
OPTICS 483
536. Wavelength of laser beam can be used as a standard 545. The velocity of light was first determined by
of (a) Gallileo (b) Newton
(a) angle (b) time (c) Roemer (d) Michelson.
(c) length (d) temperature.
546. Light passes through a closed cylindrical tube con-
537. Which of the following statements indicates that light taining a gas. If the gas is gradually pumped out, the
waves are transverse ? speed of light inside the tube will
(a) Light waves can travel in vacuum.
(a) increase (b) decrease
(b) Light waves show interference.
(c) remain constant
(c) Light waves can be polarsed.
(d) first increase and then decrease. [BHU 1994]
(d) Light waves can be diffracted.
547. Signals of danger are made red because
[MP PMT 1995 ; AFMC 1996]
(a) our eye is most sensitive for red colour
538. Which of the following phenomena is not explained
(b) scattering is minimum for red colour
by Huygens’ construction of wavefront ?
(c) scattering is maximum for red colour
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection
(d) red colour is internationally accepted colour for danger.
(c) Diffraction (d) Origin of spectra.
548. A book looks red when seen through a piece of red
539. A calcite crystal is placed over a dot on a piece of
glass. Then the cover must be of
paper and rotated. On seeing through the calcite, one
(a) Red colour (b) White
will see
(c) Green (d) Red or white.
(a) one dot
[CPMT 1987]
(b) two stationary dots
549. If a cloth of red colour is seen in the light of mercury
(c) two rotating dots
vapour lamp, it will appear
(d) one dot rotating about the other.
(a) Black (b) Red
540. µ (refractive index) depends upon (c) Yellow (d) Blue. [CPMT 1986]
(a) angle of prism (b) wavelength of light
550. Crossed lenses are
(c) intensity of light (d) amplitude of light
(a) two lenses mutually at right angles so as to form a cross
(e) all of the above. (b) a convex and a concave lens placed together
541. Which of the following is not common to light and (c) specially designed pair of lenses, their radii of curvature
sound waves ? are such that rays passing through every zone, undergo
(a) interference (b) diffraction same amount of deviation
(c) coherence (d) polarisation. (d) two cylindrical lenses. [AIIMS 1997]
542. Beams of red light and green light are sent on the 551. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
same site of the screen. Now, the screen will appear surface of prism of small angle A and emerges
(a) yellow (b) violet normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive
(c) green (d) black. index of the material of the prism is µ, the angle of
543. A wavefront AB passing A D incidence is nearly equal to
through a system C (a) µA (b) A/µ
C
emerges as DE. The system (c) µA/2 (d) A/2µ.
?
C could be [All India PM/PD 1992]
E
(a) a slit B
Fig. 50 552. Light takes 8 minute 20 second to reach from sun on
(b) a biprism the earth. If the whole atmosphere is filled with wa-
(c) a prism (d) a glass slab. ter, the light will take the time (aµw = 4/3)
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990] (a) 8 minute 20 second (b) 8 minute
544. The wavefronts of light coming from a distant source (c) 6 minute 11 second (d) 11 minute 6 second.
of unknown shape are nearly 553. Ray optics is valid, when characteristic dimensions
(a) plane (b) elliptical are
(c) cylindrical (d) spherical. (a) of the order of one millimeter
[JIPMER 1993] (b) much larger than the wavelength of light
484 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c) much smaller than the wavelength of light 562. According to corpuscular theory of light, the differ-
(d) of the same order as the wavelength of light. ent colours of light are due to
[All India PM/PD 1994] (a) different electromagnetic waves
554. To an observer on the earth, the stars appear to (b) different force of attraction among the corpuscles
twinkle. This can be ascribed to (c) different size of the corpuscles
(a) the fact that stars do not emit light continuously (d) none of the above.
(b) frequent absorption of star light by their own atmosphere
563. The equation of a light wave is written as y = A sin
(c) frequent absorption of star light by the earth’s atmosphere
(kx – ωt). Here, y represents
(d) the refractive index fluctuations in the earth’s atmosphere.
(a) displacement of ether particles
[Himachal PMT 1998]
(b) pressure in the medium (c) density of the medium
555. Blue colour of sea water is due to
(d) electric field. [AIIMS 1995]
(a) Reflection of light and scattering of light from water particles
564. Fig. 51 shows a wavefront P passing through two
(b) Bottom of sea is blue
systems A and B, and emerging as Q and then as R.
(c) Large depth of sea water
The systems A and B could, respectively, be
(d) Sea water is saltish.
556. Though quantum theory of light can explain a
number of phenomena observed with light, it is nec-
essary to retain the wave nature of light to explain
the phenomenon of R
Answers (Set I)
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d)
9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c)
17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (b)
33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d)
57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a) 61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b)
65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (d)
73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (b)
486 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (b)
89. (c) 90. (d) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (b)
97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (b) 101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (b)
105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (b) 111. (a) 112. (b)
113. (a) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (a) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (c)
129. (b) 130. (c) 131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (b)
137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (a) 140. (a) 141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (d) 144. (d)
145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (d) 151. (a) 152. (a)
153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (b)
161. (b) 162. (a) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (d) 167. (c) 168. (c)
169. (c) 170. (b) 171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (c) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (d)
177. (c) 178. (d) 179. (a) 180. (a) 181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (c) 184. (b)
185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (a) 188. (d) 189. (b) 190. (c) 191. (b) 192. (a)
193. (a) 194. (c) 195. (d) 196. (d) 197. (d) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (c)
201. (d) 202. (d) 203. (d) 204. (a) 205. (b) 206. (c) 207. (c) 208. (d)
209. (d) 210. (c) 211. (a) 212. (a) 213. (c) 214. (d) 215. (b) 216. (c)
217. (b) 218. (d) 219. (b) 220. (c) 221. (c) 222. (b) 223. (b) 224. (a)
225. (b) 226. (b) 227. (b) 228. (c) 229. (c) 230. (a) 231. (d) 232. (c)
233. (d) 234. (a) 235. (d) 236. (a) 237. (b) 238. (b) 239. (d) 240. (d)
241. (c) 242. (c) 243. (d) 244. (c) 245. (b) 246. (b) 247. (a) 248. (c)
249. (d) 250. (b) 251. (c) 252. (a) 253. (a) 254. (a) 255. (b) 256. (b)
257. (a) 258. (c) 259. (a) 260. (b) 261. (c) 262. (c) 263. (a) 264. (c)
265. (c) 266. (d) 267. (b) 268. (d) 269. (a) 270. (d) 271. (b) 272. (b)
273. (a) 274. (a) 275. (a) 276. (d) 277. (d) 278. (c) 279. (d) 280. (c)
281. (d) 282. (b) 283. (d) 284. (c) 285. (b) 286. (c) 287. (c) 288. (d)
289. (d) 290. (b) 291. (d) 292. (d) 293. (c) 294. (b) 295. (c) 296. (a)
297. (b) 298. (d) 299. (b) 300. (b) 301. (c) 302. (b) 303. (c) 304. (a)
305. (c) 306. (e) 307. (b) 308. (c) 309. (a) 310. (c) 311. (a) 312. (b)
313. (d) 314. (b) 315. (b) 316. (d) 317. (a) 318. (c) 319. (a) 320. (b)
321. (a) 322. (b) 323. (b) 324. (c) 325. (a) 326. (b) 327. (b) 328. (a)
329. (b) 330. (c) 331. (c) 332. (d) 333. (b) 334. (b) 335. (a) 336. (b)
337. (a) 338. (b) 339. (d) 340. (a) 341. (a) 342. (a) 343. (d) 344. (d)
345. (d) 346. (b) 347. (a) 348. (d) 349. (a) 350. (b) 351. (b) 352. (b)
353. (d) 354. (a) 355. (d) 356. (a) 357. (c) 358. (a) 359. (a) 360. (d)
361. (c) 362. (c) 363. (c) 364. (a) 365. (d) 366. (b) 367. (c) 368. (a)
369. (b) 370. (b) 371. (d) 372. (b) 373. (b) 374. (c) 375. (c) 376. (c)
377. (a) 378. (b) 379. (b) 380. (b) 381. (c) 382. (b) 383. (d) 384. (a)
385. (b) 386. (a) 387. (d) 388. (d) 389. (d) 390. (d) 391. (a) 392. (d)
393. (d) 394. (b) 395. (b) 396. (b) 397. (d) 398. (d) 399. (a) 400. (a)
401. (a) 402. (c) 403. (b) 404. (a) 405. (a) 406. (a) 407. (c) 408. (d)
OPTICS 487
409. (b) 410. (b) 411. (a) 412. (c) 413. (b) 414. (c) 415. (d) 416. (c)
417. (b) 418. (d) 419. (c) 420. (c) 421. (d) 422. (a) 423. (c) 424. (a)
425. (c) 426. (d) 427. (a) 428. (b) 429. (b) 430. (b) 431. (a) 432. (c)
433. (b) 434. (b) 435. (a) 436. (b) 437. (b) 438. (d) 439. (a) 440. (a)
441. (c) 442. (c) 443. (c) 444. (d) 445. (c) 446. (c) 447. (a) 448. (b)
449. (e) 450. (d) 451. (b) 452. (d) 453. (b) 454. (a) 455. (b) 456. (c)
457. (d) 458. (d) 459. (a) 460. (a) 461. (b) 462. (b) 463. (d) 464. (d)
465. (a) 466. (a) 467. (b) 468. (d) 469. (b) 470. (a) 471. (b) 472. (c)
473. (a) 474. (a) 475. (c) 476. (a) 477. (a) 478. (b) 479. (d) 480. (a)
481. (b) 482. (c) 483. (a) 484. (c) 485. (b) 486. (b) 487. (d) 488. (b)
489. (b) 490. (e) 491. (d) 492. (c) 493. (c) 494. (c) 495. (d) 496. (b)
497. (d) 498. (a) 499. (c) 500. (e) 501. (c) 502. (b) 503. (d) 504. (a)
505. (a) 506. (b) 507. (c) 508. (b) 509. (c) 510. (a) 511. (c) 512. (b)
513. (c) 514. (b) 515. (c) 516. (d) 517. (c) 518. (d) 519. (a) 520. (c)
521. (b) 522. (b) 523. (b) 524. (c) 525. (d) 526. (b) 527. (d) 528. (c)
529. (b) 530. (a) 531. (a) 532. (d) 533. (a) 534. (a) 535. (d) 536. (c)
537. (c) 538. (d) 539. (d) 540. (b) 541. (d) 542. (a) 543. (c) 544. (a)
545. (c) 546. (a) 547. (b) 548. (d) 549. (b) 550. (c) 551. (c) 552. (d)
553. (b) 554. (d) 555. (a) 556. (b) 557. (d) 558. (b) 559. (b) 560. (d)
561. (d) 562. (c) 563. (d) 564. (b) 565. (b) 566. (b) 567. (d) 568. (c)
569. (a) 570. (b) 571. (d) 572. (b) 573. (a) 574. (b) 575. (b) 576. (b)
577. (d) 578. (a) 579. (d) 580. (a).
Solutions (Set I)
I1 r12 25FG IJ1
2 1
4. = 2=
I2 r2 50 H K
=
4
10. E∝
r2
5. φ = 4πI = 4π × 2 lm = 8π lm. 25
11. E= = 1 lux.
6. When the aperture is doubled, the light-gathering 52
power becomes four times. So, the time of exposure
becomes one-fourth. I1 FG
45 cm IJ 2
I1 r12 30 × 30 9
or = 2 = =
luminosity
I2 r2 50 × 50 25
Relative
47. According to Fermat’s principle of least time, the light 57. Lateral magnification is different from axial magnifi-
takes minimum time to travel from one point to an- cation.
other even after a number of reflections or refractions. 60.
48. In a plane mirror, the image undergoes depth inver-
sion. So, the time in the image clock is as much ahead
of 12 hours zero minute as the time on the actual O O¢ I¢ I
clock is behind 12 hours zero minute. So, time on 10 cm 10 cm
actual clock is 12 h 0 min – 4h 20 min x y
Observer
= 7h 40 min.
x + y – 10
49. Note that the image shall be formed at a distance of Fig. 57
0.5 m from the mirror.
As is clear from Fig. 57 the distance of image with
50. Note that convex mirror is used as reflector for street
reference to observer reduces by 10 cm in one second.
lighting but concave mirror is used as reflector in
1 1 1
table lamps. 61. + =
v − 600 20
51. Total deviation
= (180° – 2α) + (180° – 2β) 1 31
or =
= 360° – 2(α + β) v 600
But 90° – α + 90° – β + θ 600
or v= cm = 19.35 cm.
31
β
β
= 180° 90 – β
α
or θ = α + β α v 600 1 1
62. m=− =– × =
u 31 − 600 31
∴ Total deviation θ 90 – α
= 360° – 2θ Breadth of image
Fig. 54 1
= × 200 cm = 6.45 cm
52. The size of the image is the same as the size of the 31
object. 1
Height of image = × 160 cm = 5.16 cm.
31
53. 1 1 1
63. + =
O I O I u v f
1 du 1 dv
x x
− 2 dt
− 2 =0
x–v x–v u v dt
dv v2 du
Fig. 55 or =− 2
dt u dt
As is clear from Fig. 55, the new distance is 2x – 2v. 1
The distance of image from object is reduced by an = − × 31
31 × 31
amount 2v in one second.
54. Deviation = 180° – 2i = 180° – 60° = 120° 1
=– m s–1
31
55. = – 0.032 m s–1.
64.
Fig. 56
Fig. 58
490 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
65. Clearly, plane mirror and convex mirror cannot pro- if m = + 3, then
duce inverted image.
− 24
67. Based on properties of a plane mirror. 3=
− 24 − u
f 1 f
68. m= = = or – 24 – u = – 8 or u + 24 = 8
f −u 4 f − (− 0.5)
or u = (8 – 24) cm = – 16 cm
or 4f = f + 0.5 or 3f = 0.5 If m = – 3, then
0.5 − 24
or f= m = 0.17 m. –3=
3 − 24 − u
f − 16 − 16
69. m= = = =2 u + 24 = – 8
f −u − 16 − (− 8) −8 or u = – 32 cm.
Note. That the mirror used is concave mirror. Note that the magnification is greater than one. So,
70. Image is at principal focus. mirror cannot be convex.
R 1
f= = − m = 0.5 m 360 360
2 2 75. − 1= − 1 = 9 − 1 = 8.
θ 40
71. Clearly, i + r = i + i = 140°
76. δ = 180° – 2(0°) = 180°
or i = 70°
= π radian
Clearly, plane mirror makes an angle of 20° with ver-
tical and 70° with horizontal.
78.
θ
d
40°
θ
I
20°
70°
70° Fig. 61
I f
=
d u
d
or I=f or I = θf.
Fig. 59 u
72. Clearly, the distance of image from observer is 40 cm. 1 1 1
79. + =
− 30 v 30
1 2 1
O I or = =
v 30 15
Observer
10 cm 10 cm or v = 15 cm.
73. The image is erect and diminished. So, the mirror is 80. The first image is due to reflection from the front
necessarily convex. surface i.e. unpolished surface of the mirror. So, only
a small fraction of the incident light energy is reflected.
In the case of concave mirror, the image is
The second image is due to reflection from polished
erect and magnified.
surface. So, a major portion of light is reflected. Thus,
the second image is the brightest.
f
74. m=
f −u
OPTICS 491
90. Clearly, X is denser medium.
Let us knock out a common misconception Medium x
about this question. sin θ 1 speed v
Now = θ
Whether the first image is brightest or the second sin 90° µ
Y X
one is brightest shall be determined only by the v 90°
angle of incidence. If angle of incidence is large, = X µY = Medium y
v′
the reflectance will be maximum. Maximum light speed v′
v
will be reflected from the front surface. So, the first or v′ = .
image will be brightest. sin θ Fig. 62
1 F 1 1I
= (µ − 1) G − J
81. The distance of image from the boy is 0.6 m. 91.
f Hr r K 1 2
360 F 1 1I
For lens to be convex, G − J > 0
83. n= − 1= 5
60
84. Angle between two mirrors is 90°.
Hr r K 1 2
1 1
0.6 or > or r1 < r2
85. (a) f =− m = – 0.3 m = – 30 cm r1 r2
2
92. Clearly, r = 30°
1 1 1
+ = sin i
v − 10 − 30 Now, µ=
sin 30°
1 1 1
= − 2 = 2 sin i
v 10 30
1
1 3−1 or sin i = or i = 45°
= 2
v 30
93. If the refractive index of two media are same, the sur-
30 face of separation does not produce reflection or re-
or v= cm = 15 cm.
2 fraction which helps in visibility.
v 15 94. Clearly, A is denser than B and B is denser than C.
(c) m=– =− = 1.5 .
u − 10 ∴ µ1 > µ 2 > µ 3
(d) Object lies between principal focus and pole. ∴ C1 < C2 < C3.
So, the image is virtual and erect. 95. Minimum distance between an object and its real
image is 4f i.e. 4 × 1 m = 4 m.
t nt
86. Time = = .
c c 1
96. sin ic =
n µ
c νλ λ µ is more. sin ic is less. ic is less.
87. n1 = = =
v1 νλ 1 λ1
3 × 1010
97. µ= = 1.5
c νλ λ 2 × 1010
n2 = = =
v2 νλ 2 λ 2
FG 1 − 1 IJ
Now,
n1 λ 2
=
101. P = (1.5 – 1)
H 0.25 ∞ K
n2 λ 1 P = 0.5 × 4 D = 2 D
Fn I λ
or λ2 = GH n JK
1
2
1 102.
I
=
O u
v
medium. F n − 1IJ f , | u | =
u=−G
n−1
107. Using the relation apparent depth =
real depth
, we
or H n K n
f.
µ
get apparent depth + Magnification is positive in the case of virtual
3.5 8 image.
= + = (2 + 6) cm = 8 cm.
7/4 4/3
1 1 100 100
1 1 1 1 f1 + f2 125. P= + = +
= f f f1 f2 20 25
108. = + or or f = 12 .
f f1 f2 f f1 f2 f1 + f2 = (5 + 4) D = 9 D
109. λg =
λ a 7200 Å
= = 4800 Å FG 1IJ
µ 1.5
126. The letters are raised through a distance t 1 −
H µ K
,
1 − 20 1 FG IJ
1
=
2 − 20 + u
128.
30
= (µ − 1)
H K
10
or – 20 + u = – 40 1
or µ − 1=
or u = – 40 + 20 3
or u = – 20 cm.
1 4
122. Power of system or µ = 1+ = = 1.33
3 3
1 1 d 1 1 0.75
= + − = + − 3
f1 f2 f1 f2 1 − 0.25 (1)(− 0.25) 129. Apparent depth = cm = 2 cm
1.5
=1–4+3=–3+3=0 So, the microscope has to be raised upward by 1 cm.
OPTICS 493
130. 2µ1 × 3µ2 × 4µ3 d 1 1 4−1 3
= − = =
v1 v2 v3 100 5 20 20 20
= × × or d = 15 cm
v2 v3 v4
1 1 1 FG IJ
v
= 1 = 4 µ1 =
1 147.
f
= (1.5 − 1) −
R ∞ H K
v4 1µ 4 1 1
or = or f = 2R
c νλ f 2R
131. µ= =
v νλ ′ 148. O = I1I2 = 4 × 16 cm
3 λ 2λ = 8 cm
= or λ′ =
2 λ′ 3 100 100
149. P= − =0
Note that the frequency remains unchanged. 10 10
132. Light-gathering power of the lens is reduced. So, the 1 1 1
151. − =
intensity of the image decreases. v u f
134. ‘‘Light travels faster in rarer medium’’. This alone 1 1 1 1 1
decides in favour of option (b).
= + = + =0
v u f 20 − 20
8 ⇒ v = ∞.
135. Apparent depth = m = 6 m.
4 152. The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
3 1
153. sin ic =
136. Based on conditions of total internal reflection. µ
137. Optical path is the product of refractive index and Largest µ. Minimum value of sin ic. Minimum ic.
geometrical path. 154. The medium surrounding the air lens is denser.
1 2 FG IJ 155. Think of lens-maker’s formula.
138.
f
= (1.65 − 1)
40 H K 156. Apparent shift
FG 1 IJ ; 0.01 = 0.1 FG 1 − 1IJ
or
1 0.65
f
=
20
or f =
20
0.65
cm H
= t 1−
µ K H µK
1 0.01 1
= 30.77 cm ≈ 31 cm. or 1– = =
µ 0.10 10
139. P = (12 – 2)D = 10 D
1 1 9
1 or = 1− =
1 µ 10 10
= 10 or f = m = 10 cm.
f 10 10
140. Note that the object is at 2F. or µ=
9
141. Light travels faster in rarer medium. c
157. Refractive index =
1 b v
144. sin ic = and µ = a + 2
µ λ 1 µε µε
= × =
For violet, λ minimum, µ maximum, sin ic minimum, µ 0 ε0 1 µ 0 ε0
ic is minimum. F I
145. As seen from a rarer medium (L2 or L3) the interface 158.
1
f
GH
= (µ − 1)
1
−
1
R1 R 2
JK
L1L2 is concave and L2L3 is convex. The divergence
produced by concave surface is much smaller than 1 1 1 FG IJ
the convergence due to the convex surface. Hence the
arrangement corresponds to concavo-convex lens.
f
= (1.5 − 1) −
20 30 H K
1 FG
30 − 20 IJ
146. P=
1
+
1
−
d
f1 f2 f1 f2
f
= 0.5
600 H K
1 1 10 1
1 1 d or = × = or f = 120 cm.
0= − − f 2 600 120
20 5 20(− 5)
494 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG 1 IJ 1 1 or
v f
v=–f
f f
8 = 40 1 −
H µ K or
5
= 1−
µ
v −f
1 4 5 Again, m= = =2
or = or µ = u − f /2
µ 5 4 Clearly, the image is virtual and double the size.
165. When light travels from rarer to denser medium, the
1 2 FG IJ
n
speed of light decreases by a factor of µ. µ = 2 .
n1
173.
f
= (µ − 1)
R H K
R
100 100 1 or f =
166. = + 2(µ − 1)
80 20 f2
Now, f>R
1 100 100
or = − = (125
. − 5) D R
f2 80 20 ∴ >R
2(µ − 1)
or power = – 3.75 D
1
167. O= I1I 2 = 9 × 4 cm = 6 cm or > 1 or 2(µ – 1) < 1
2(µ − 1)
1 1 1
169. − = 1
v −f −f or µ–1<
2
1 2 f
or =− or v = – FG 1 IJ
v f
sin i
2 or µ < 1+
H 2 K
170. g µa = or µ < 1.5.
sin r
174. Power of the system decreases due to separation
1 sin i between the lenses. So, the focal length increases.
=
aµ g sin 2i
1 FG IJ
2
1
=
sin i
or
1
=
10 5
=
175.
f
= (µ − 1)
RH K
1.6 2 sin i cos i 2 cos i 16 8
1 F 2I
= (1.5 − 1) G J
or
1
=
cos i 4
5
or cos i =
4
5
f H RK
1 2
Now, sin i = 1 − cos2 i or = 0.5 × or f = R
f R
OPTICS 495
Since the object is at infinity therefore the image would 3 × 10 8 l µl
be formed at focus. 184. = or t= × 10−8
µ t 3
176. Think in terms of rectangular hyperbola.
µ 1 µ2 µ2 − µ1
1 1 186. + =
177. P= + −u v R
f1 f2
For a plane surface, R = ∞
f1 + f2
or P= µ1 µ2
f1 f2 ∴ + =0
−u v
178. Clearly, 2f = 20 cm
µ2 µ1 µ 1
or f = 10 cm or = or =
v u v u
Now, u = – 15 cm, v = ?
or v = µu
f = 10 cm
Clearly, to the fish, the bird appears farther than its
1 1 1
− = actual distance.
v − 15 10
dv du
1 1 1 1 1 1 Again, =µ
or + = or = − dt dt
v 15 10 v 10 15 or Apparent speed of bird
1 3−2 1
or = = = refractive index × actual speed of bird.
v 30 30
187. The power of the given system is a combination of the
or v = 30 cm
positive power of the convex lens, negative power of
The change in image distance is (30 – 20) cm the plano-concave lens of water and zero power of the
i.e. 10 cm. plane mirror. Clearly, the power of the system
v decreases.
179. m=
u 1 1 1 5
188. = + −
v F 10 − 20 10(− 20)
–4= or v = – 4u
u
1 1 1 5
Now, v – u = 10 or –5u = 10 = − +
or u=–2m F 10 20 200
v=8m 1 20 − 10 + 5 200
= or F= cm
1 1 1 F 200 15
Again, = − 40
f v u = cm.
3
or
1 1
= −
1
or
1 1 1 1+ 4 5
= + = = 1 FG IJ
2
f 8 −2 f 8 2 8 8 189.
f
= (µ − 1)
RH K
8 If R decreases, f decreases.
or f = m = 1.6 m.
5
F I
180. m=
f 191.
1
f
= (1 − 1) GH
1
−
1
R1 R 2
JK
f +u
f 1
1= or f + u = f or =0 ⇒ f =∞
f +u f
or u = 0. 192. In the first case, neither the radii of curvature nor
181. Since the lens behaves as a converging lens in air the material of the lens is affected.
therefore the refractive index of the material of the In the second case,
lens is greater than 1. Since the lens behaves as a
1 FG IJ
1
diverging lens in water therefore the refractive index
of the material of the lens is less than 1.33. f″ H K
= (µ − 1)
R
182. If focal length of convex lens is less, then power of 1 F 2I 1
= (µ − 1)G J =
1
convex lens will be more. or
f″ 2 H R K 2f or f ″ = 2 f.
496 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
197. Condition for achromatism is 259. The outer faces of the prism
behave like hollow plates.
ω ω′ ω ω′
+ =0 or =− or Pω = – P′ω′.
f f′ f f′
1 1 1 Fig. 63
199. = +
F f1 f2 269. δm = (µ – 1)A = (1.5 – 1)(2r) = r
dF − df1 df2 274. See solution 259.
– = −
F2 f12 f22 FG A + δ IJ
H 2 K
m
sin
(For combination to be achromatic, dF = 0) A
276. cot = A
ω1 ω2 2 sin
df1 − df2
∴ – + = 0 or + =0 2
f12 f22 f1 f2
FG IJA A + δm
207. The angle of incidence on the second face is clearly
30°.
or
H
cos
K2
= sin
2
1 1 F π A I F A + δ IJ
sin G − J = sin G
1 sin 30°
H2 2K H 2 K
or m
= or sin e = 2× =
µ sin e 2 2
or e = 45° π A A δm
or − = +
2 2 2 2
Now, δ = i + e – A = 0 + 45° – 30° = 15°
or δ m = π − 2A
c c
212. v= = or δm = 180° – 2A
µ a+ b
λ2 60° + 40°
280. i= = 50°
2
λ is maximum for red. So v is maximum for red.
283. Dispersive power depends on the nature of the
1.6 + 1.4 3 material.
228. µ= = = 1.5
2 2 284. In minimum deviation position, the angle of incidence
is equal to angle of emergence.
µv − µr 1.6 − 1.4 0.2
ω= = = = 0.4 . 288. δm = (1.5 – 1) 6° = 3°.
µ−1 1.5 − 1 0.5
3 FG IJ
237. We can arrive at the right choice if we take into
δm 2
−1 A
H 1 K
account the sign convention. 289.
δ′ m
=
FG
3 3
= ×8=4
2 IJ
238. For achromatism,
ω1P1 + ω2P2 = 0
2 4H
× −1 A
K
292. For achromatic combination of two thin lenses in con-
ω1 P tact,
or ω1P1 = – ω2P2 or =− 2
ω2 P1 ω ω′ ω ω′
+ =0 or =−
242. When the curved surface of a plano-convex lens faces f f′ f f′
the incident rays, the total deviation of the rays is f′ ω′ f′ 2ω0
or =− or =− =−2 or f ′ = – 2f.
distributed at both the surfaces. This reduces spherical f ω f ω0
aberration and improves the sharpness of the image.
FG 60° + δ IJ
H 2 K
m
243. FR – FV represents longitudinal chromatic aberra- sin
tion. 295. 3=
sin G
F 60° IJ
244. There is no dispersive medium. H2K
245. δm = (µ – 1)A 3 F 60° + δ IJ
= sin G
H 2 K
m
= (1.52 – 1)4.5° = 0.52 × 4.5° = 2.34° 2
Now, fo + fe = 44 Fig. 64
fo 11fo fo
or fo + = 44 or = 44 or fo = 40 cm. 339. Look for maximum value of .
10 10 fe
498 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
341. Smaller the focal lengths of the objective and eye-piece, where
higher is the magnifying power of the compound mi- m = positive integers, m = 0 1, 2, ...
croscope. In other words, the objective and eye-piece
1 FG IJ
should have large optical powers.
344. Converging lens L is used as a magnifying glass to
phase difference = m+
2
2π
H K
view the object O. An erect, magnified image is ob- = 2 mπ + π, m = 0, 1, 2.
tained when the object O is near to L than its focal 376. For the central fringe, all the colours have zero path
length, and the observer has to move the lens until difference.
the image at I is situated at his or her near point = D nDλ
from the eye. Again, yn =
d
λ is least for violet.
L 377. Think in terms of coherent sources.
nDλ
378. yn = .
h′ d
h For red colour, λ is more.
λ
I O 380. Angular separation =
F d
For angular separation to be 10% greater, λ should be
D 10% greater.
FG 589 IJ
Fig. 65
New wavelength is 589 +
H 10
nm
K
or (589 + 58.9) nm i.e. 647.9 nm i.e. 648 nm.
fe
345. m= 381. I0 α (a + a)2
u − fe
When objective is replaced by a slit, or I0 ∝ 4a2
u = fo + fe Again, I ∝ a2
l f 1 L I0 I0
∴ = e = or m = ∴ = 4 or I=
L fo m l I 4
400. β′ =
H 2K =
Dλ
= β. or
I = I0 + I0 + 2 I0 cos 0°
I = 4I0
d d
2 In the second case,
a1 2 I′ = I0 + I0 = 2I0
402. =
a2 1 I 4I0 2
∴ = =
Imax. (2 + 1) 9 2 I′ 2I0 1
= =
Imin. (2 − 1)2 1 Dλ
424. β=
404. There is a decrease of wavelength. d
3 h
405. New wavelength is times the old wavelength. So, and λ=
4 2meV
3 425. Phase difference 2π corresponds to a path difference of
the new angular separation is × 0.2° or 0.15°.
4 λ.
406. Note that phase difference is β1 – β2. Dλ β
426. β′ = =
407. Phase difference of 2π corresponds to path difference 3d 3
λ 429. Condition for destructive interference is that the phase
of λ. So, unit phase difference corresponds to .
2π difference should be an odd multiple of π.
Clearly, the phase difference φ corresponds to a path
λ 1
difference of φ . 430. β∝
2π α
408. If phase difference is time-dependent, the waves can- When α is increased, β decreases.
not be coherent. So, interference is not possible.
431. Two coherent sources are required to produce inter-
409. a2 = a2 + a2 + 2a2 cos θ ference.
1 2π 432. The condition for constructive interference is that the
or cos θ = – or θ = 120° = rad.
2 3 path difference should be an even multiple of λ/2.
a1 + a2 2 φ
410. = 435. I ∝ 4a2 cos2
a1 − a2 1 2
a1 3 In the first case, φ = 2π
3a2 = a1 or =
a2 1 ∴ I ∝ 4a2 ...(1)
500 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
In each question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it.
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as :
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) If A is true but R is false.
(D) If both A and R are false.
(E) If A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A). The bees cannot only distinguish unpolarised light from polarised light but can also determine the
direction of polarisation.
Reason (R). The human eye does not distinguish between an unpolarised light and a polarised light.
2. Assertion (A). The diffraction of light can be observed if the size of the obstacle or aperture is of the order of
10–7 m.
Reason (R). The order of wavelength of visible light is 10–7 m. [AIIMS 2001]
3. Assertion (A). In Young’s double slit experiment, the interference pattern disappears when one of the slits is closed.
Reason (R). Interference occurs due to the superposition of light waves from two coherent sources.
[HPMT 2000]
4. Assertion (A). Average energy in the interference pattern is the same as it would be if there were no interference.
Reason (R). Interference is the only rare phenomenon in which law of conservation of energy does not hold good.
[AIIMS 1997]
Key 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C).
502 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MCQs
based on
SET II
(a) By 0.019 h (b) By 0.038 h 609. A source of 500 candela is placed at the centre of a
(c) By 0.057 h (d) By 0.14 h. [MNR 1997] piece spherical surface of area 0.5 m2. If the radius of
603. In a grease spot photometer, light from a lamp with the surface be 5 m, the luminous flux through the
dirty chimney is exactly balanced by a point source surface is
distant 10 cm from the grease spot. On clearing the (a) 5 lumen (b) 10 lumen
dirty chimney, the point source is moved 2 cm to (c) 25 lumen (d) 50 lumen.
obtain a balance again. Then the percentage of light
[Pb. CET 1994]
absorbed by the dirty chimney is nearly
(a) 64% (b) 36% 610. An ordinary 100 watt source of light P radiates iso-
(c) 44% (d) 56%.
tropically, and a 2 mW laser source Q emits in a cone
of semiangle 10–4 radian. The intensity ratio IQ/IP of
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2000]
the beams is close to
604. A photographic plate is placed directly in front of a (a) 4π/5 (b) (4π/5) × 103
small diffused source in the shape of a circular disc.
(c) (4/5) × 104 (d) 8 × 103.
It takes 12 s to get a good exposure. If the source is
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
rotated by 60° about one of its diameters, the time
needed to get the same exposure will be 611. To prepare a print with 40 watt lamp at 25 cm, it
(a) 6 s (b) 12 s
requires 3 second. If the distance is increased to
50 cm, how much time will it require to prepare the
(c) 24 s (d) 48 s. [AIIMS 2002] print ?
605. An electric bulb is hanging over a table at a height of (a) 6 s (b) 9 s
1 m above it. The illuminance on the table directly (c) 12 s (d) 15 s. [Manipal 1998]
below the bulb is 40 lux. The illuminance at a point
612. A lamp is hanging along the axis of a circular table of
on the table 1 m away from the first point will be
radius r. It is desired that the intensity of illumina-
about
tion at the edge of the table be 1/8th of that at its
(a) 10 lux (b) 14 lux centre. To achieve this, the height at which the lamp
(c) 20 lux (d) 28 lux. should be placed is
[Himachal PMT 2002] (a) r/ 2 (b) r/ 3
606. In a yard, at the same height of 3.0 m, three 200 cd
(c) r/3 (d) r 3 .
lamps hang. All the lamps are arranged at distance
of 2.5 m from each other. The approximate [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002]
illuminance under each lamp is 613. If the distance between the projector and the screen
(a) 22 lux (b) 32 lux is decreased by 25%, the intensity of illumination
(c) 42 lux (d) 12 lux. will be increased by
(a) 12.5% (b) 25%
[Haryana PMT 2001]
(c) 50% (d) more than 75%.
607. An underground tunnel has a circular cross section.
[Haryana PMT 2000]
An electric lamp is placed at the upper point of the
arch. Then the ratio of the illumination produced by 614. A lamp hanging 4 metre above the table is lowered
the lamp at the lowest point and a point lying on the by 1 metre. The illumination on the table
intersection of the horizontal diameter with the cir- (a) decreases by 25% (b) increases by 25%
cumference of the circular cross section of the tunnel (c) decreases by 77.7% (d) increases by 77.7%.
is [Karnataka CET 2003]
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2.
REFLECTION
[All India PM/PD 1998] 615. A perfectly reflecting mirror has an area of 1 cm 2.
608. A small lamp is hung at a height of 8 feet above the Light energy is allowed to fall on it for one hour at
centre of a round table of diameter 16 feet. The ratio the rate of 10 W cm –2. The force that acts on the
of intensities of illumination at the centre and at mirror is
points on the circumference of the table will be (a) 2.4 × 10–4 N (b) 1.34 × 10–7 N
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3.35 × 10–8 N (d) 6.7 × 10–8 N.
(c) 2 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 2. [Pb. CET 1995]
OPTICS 505
616. With a concave mirror, an object is placed at a dis- 623. A convex mirror has a focal length f. A real object is
tance x1 from the principal focus, on the principal placed at a distance f/2 in front of it from the pole.
axis. The image is formed at a distance x2 from the The mirror produces an image at
principal focus. The focal length of the mirror is (a) infinity (b) f
x + x2 (c) 2f [Pb. PMT 2001]
(d) f/3.
(a) x1 x2 (b) 1
2 624. A concave mirror of focal length 200 cm is used to
x1 obtain the image of the sun which subtends an angle
(c) (d) x1x2 . of 30′ . Then the diameter of the image of the solar
x2
disc is
617. A convex mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. A real
(a) 13.48 cm (b) 1.75 cm
object is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of the
(c) 9.87 cm (d) 20.0 m.
mirror from the pole. The mirror produces an image
at [Haryana PMT 1997]
(a) infinity (b) 20 cm 625. A beam of light of wavelength λ is totally reflected at
normal incidence by a plane mirror. The intensity of
(c) 40 cm (d) 10 cm .
the light is such that photons hit the mirror at a rate
618. Two vertical plane mirrors are inclined at an angle n. Given that the Planck constant is h, the force ex-
of 60° with each other. A ray of light travelling hori- erted on the mirror by this beam is
zontally is reflected first from one mirror and then
(a) nhλ (b) nh/λ
from the other mirror. Then the resultant deviation
(c) 2nhλ (d) 2nλ/h
is
(a) 60° (b) 120° (e) 2nh/λ.
(c) 180° (d) 240°. [Pb. PMT 2000] 626. The focal length of a concave mirror is 12 cm. Where
should an object of length 4 cm be placed so that an
619. A man has a concave shaving mirror of focal length image 1 cm long is formed ?
0.2 m. How far should the mirror be held from his (a) 48 cm (b) 3 cm
face in order to give an image of two fold magnifica- (c) 60 cm (d) 15 cm.
tion ? 627. The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. Where
(a) 0.1 m (b) 0.2 m an object must be placed to form an image magnified
(c) 0.3 m (d) 0.4 m. two times when the image is real ?
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1996] (a) 30 cm from the mirror (b) 10 cm from the mirror
(c) 20 cm from the mirror (d) 15 cm from the mirror.
620. A concave mirror, forms a real image of an object. If
the whole arrangement is immersed in water. Then 628. In the previous question, if the magnified image is
the image will virtual, then the distance of the object from the mir-
ror must be
(a) disappear (b) shift towards the mirror
(a) 30 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) shift away from the mirror (c) 20 cm (d) 15 cm.
(d) not suffer any change in position. 629. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999] 20 cm is half the size of the object. Then, the distance
of the object from the mirror is
621. A mirror forms a real image of unit magnification.
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm
Its nature is
(c) 30 cm (d) 60 cm.
(a) plane (b) parabolic
630. A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors
(c) convex (d) concave.
inclined at a certain angle undergoes a deviation of
[Karnataka 1999] 300°. The number of observable images is
622. A luminous object is placed 20 cm from the surface (a) 60 (b) 12
of a convex mirror. A plane mirror is set so that the (c) 11 (d) 5.
virtual images formed in the two mirrors coincide. If 631. An object 3 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a
the plane mirror is at a distance of 12 cm from the concave mirror of focal length 9 cm at a distance of
object, then the focal length of the convex mirror is 12 cm from it. What is the nature and size of the
(a) 10 cm (b) 5 cm image ?
(c) 20 cm (d) 40 cm. [AMU 2001] (a) real, 9 cm (b) virtual, 9 cm
(c) real, 1 cm (d) virtual, 1 cm.
506 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
632. An object 5 cm tall is placed 10 cm from a convex (a) real and will remain at C
mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. What is the (b) real and located at a point between C and ∞.
nature and size of the image ? (c) virtual and located at a point between C and O
(d) real and located at a point between C and O.
(a) real, 3 cm (b) virtual, 7.5 cm
[IIT 1998]
(c) virtual, 3 cm (d) real, 7.5 cm.
640. An object is placed asymmetrically between two plane
633. A ray of light travelling parallel to the principal axis
mirrors inclined at an angle of 72°. The number of
of a concave mirror strikes the mirror at an angle of
images formed is
incidence θ. If radius of curvature of the mirror is R,
(a) 5 (b) 4
then after reflection, the ray meets the principal axis
at a distance x from the centre of curvature. Then x (c) 2 (d) infinite.
is 641. It is desired to photograph the image of an object
R R placed at a distance of 3 m from a plane mirror. The
(a) (b) camera which is at a distance of 4.5 m from the mir-
2 2 tan θ
ror should be focussed for a distance of
R R
(c) (d) . [MNR 1998] (a) 3 m (b) 4.5 m
2 cos θ 2 sin θ
(c) 6 m (d) 7.5 m.
634. A man 180 cm high stands in front of a plane mirror.
His eyes are at a height of 170 cm from the floor. 642. A cubical room is formed with six plane mirrors. An
Then the minimum length of the plane mirror for insect moves along the diagonal of the floor with
him to see his full length image is uniform speed. The velocities of its image in two
(a) 90 cm (b) 180 cm adjacent walls are 20 2 cm s–1. Then the velocity of
(c) 45 cm (d) 360 cm. the image formed by the roof is
635. In the previous question, the lower edge of the mirror (a) 20 cm s–1 (b) 20 2 cm s–1
should be above the ground at a height of
(c) 40 cm s–1 (d) 10 2 cm s–1.
(a) 85 cm (b) 90 cm
(c) 170 cm (d) 180 cm.
643. A plane glass mirror of thickness 3 cm of material of
636. A man 2 m tall stands 5 m in front of a large vertical 3
µ = is silvered on the back surface. When a point
plane mirror. Then the angle subtended at his eye by 2
his image in the plane mirror is object is placed 9 cm from the front surface of the
(a) 0.4 radian (b) 0.2 radian mirror, then the position of the brightest image from
(c) 0.2 degree (d) 0.4 degree. the front surface is
637. Rays of light striking a horizontal plane mirror at (a) 9 cm (b) 11 cm
45° get reflected from a second mirror horizontally. (c) 12 cm (d) 13 cm. [EAMCET 2003]
The angle of inclination of the second mirror with 644. A convergent beam of light converges to a point 20 cm
the first mirror is behind the convex mirror on the principal axis. An
(a) 45° (b) 60° inverted image of the same size is formed coincident
(c) 67° 30′ (d) 135°. with the virtual object. Then, the focal length of the
638. An object is placed at a distance of 2f from a concave convex mirror is
mirror of focal length f. Light reflected from the (a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm
mirror falls on a plane mirror. The distance of the (c) 40 cm (d) 30 cm.
plane mirror from the concave mirror equals f. The [CMC Vellore 1999]
distance of the final image (due to reflection at both
645. Two parallel plane mirrors M1 and M2 have a length
concave and plane mirror) from the concave mirror
of 2 m each and are 10 mm apart. A ray of light is
is
incident on one end of mirror M2 at an angle of 30°.
(a) f (b) f/2
The number of reflections light undergoes before
(c) 2f (d) Zero. [Pb. PMT 1996] reaching the other end is
639. A concave mirror is placed on a horizontal table, with (a) 173 (b) 134
its axis directed vertically upwards. Let O be the pole (c) 80 (d) 20.
of the mirror and C its centre of curvature. A point [CMC Vellore 2001]
object is placed at C. It has a real image, also located 646. Sun subtends an angle of 0.5° at the centre of curva-
at C. If the mirror is now filled with water, the image ture of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 15 m.
will be
OPTICS 507
The diameter of the image of the sun formed by the 653. A cube of side 2 m is placed in front of a concave
mirror is mirror of focal length 1 m with its face A at a distance
(a) 8.55 cm (b) 7.55 cm of 3 m and face B at a distance of 5 m from the mirror.
(c) 6.55 cm (d) 5.55 cm. [DCE 2003] The distance between the images of face A and B and
647. A convex mirror has a focal length 20 cm. A conver- height of images of A and B are respectively.
(a) 1 m, 0.5 m, 0.25 m (b) 0.5 m, 1 m, 0.25 m
gent beam of light converges to a point 20 cm behind
(c) 0.5 m, 0.25 m, 1 m (d) 0.25 m, 1 m, 0.5 m.
the convex mirror on the principal axis. The image is
formed at
(a) infinity (b) 20 cm 2m
B A
(c) 40 cm (d) 10 cm. [EAMCET 2000]
2m
648. A point source of light B is placed at a distance L in
3m
front of the centre of a mirror
B
of width d hung vertically on
a wall. A man walks in front d
of the mirror along a line
Fig. 67
parallel to the mirror at a
distance 2L from it as shown [JIPMER 2000]
in Fig. 66. The greatest L 654. An object is placed 21 cm in front of a concave mirror
distance over which he can 2L
of radius of curvature 10 cm. A glass slab of thickness
see the image of the light
Fig. 66 3 cm and µ = 1.5 is then placed close to the mirror in
source in the mirror is
the space between the object and the mirror. The
d
(a) (b) d position of final image formed is
2
(c) 2d (d) 3d. (a) – 3.94 cm (b) 4.3 cm
[IIT Screening 2000] (c) – 4.93 cm (d) 3.94 cm. [AMU 2003]
649. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one another at an 655. A vehicle has a driving mirror of focal length 30 cm.
angle θ. The incident ray on mirror M1 is parallel to Another vehicle of dimensions 2 × 4 × 1.75 m3 is 9 m
mirror M 2. The reflected ray from M 1 undergoes away from the mirror of first vehicle. Position of the
reflection at mirror M2. The final reflected ray is second vehicle as seen in the mirror of first vehicle is
parallel to mirror M1. Angle θ is nearly
(a) 30° (b) 45° (a) 30 cm (b) 60 cm
(c) 60° (d) 90°. [MANIPAL 2002] (c) 90 cm [Pb. PMT 1995]
(d) 9 m.
650. A spherical mirror forms diminished virtual image 656. A ray of light makes an angle of 20° with the horizon-
of magnification 1/3. Focal length is 18 cm. The tal and strikes a plane mirror which is inclined at an
distance of the object is angle θ to the horizontal. The angle θ for which the
(a) 18 cm (b) 36 cm reflected ray becomes vertical, is
(c) 48 cm (d) ∞. (a) 40° (b) 80°
[All India PM/PD 1999] (c) 55° (d) 100°. [Pb. CET 1996]
651. The field of view is maximum for 657. Fig. 68 shows two plane
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror mirrors and an object O
(c) convex mirror (d) cylindrical mirror. placed between them. What O
[Orissa 1995] will be distance of the first 8 cm 2 cm
three images from the mir-
652. An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the
ror M2 ?
pole of a convex mirror and a plane mirror is set so
(a) 2 cm, 8 cm, 14 cm
that the virtual images formed by two mirrors do M1 M2
not have any parallax. The plane mirror is 20 cm (b) 2 cm, 12 cm 18 cm
Fig. 68
from the object. The focal length of the mirror is (c) 2 cm, 18 cm, 22 cm
(a) 37.5 cm (b) – 7.5 cm (d) 2 cm, 24 cm, 38 cm. [MNR 2001]
(c) – 37.5 cm (d) + 75 cm. [AMU 2002] 658. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a
concave mirror, the image is formed at a distance of
508 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
10 cm. if the object is moved with a speed of 9 m s–1, 665. Two plane mirrors are placed at
the speed with which image moves is right angle to each other. A ray
(a) 0.1 m s–1 (b) 1 m s–1 strikes one mirror at an angle
(c) 3 m s–1 (d) 9 m s–1. of incidence i, such that it is also
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001] reflected from the second
659. Two plane mirrors are in- mirror. The reflected ray is
M2
clined to one another at an (a) parallel to the ray incident on the
angle of 60°. A ray is inci- first mirror and the two are in the
dent on mirror M 1 at an opposite directions. Fig. 70
angle i. The reflected ray (b) inclined at an angle 2i with ray incident on first mirror.
from mirror M2 is parallel i
i (c) parallel to the ray incident on the first mirror and the two
to mirror M1 as shown in 60° are in the same direction.
Fig. 69. The angle of inci- O M1
dence i is (d) inclined at an angle i with incident ray on first mirror.
Fig. 69
(a) 20° (b) 10° [CMC Vellore 1998]
(c) 30° (d) 40°. [AFMC 1995] 666. A spherical mirror forms a real image of a point object
660. A person standing in the centre of a room, 12 m high placed in front. The distance of the image and object
looks into a plane mirror fixed on the wall. Then the from the mirror is 30 cm and 0.2 m respectively. The
minimum length of the plane mirror for him to see the focal length and nature of the mirror are
full length image of the wall behind him, is equal to (a) 120 mm ; concave (b) 120 mm ; convex
(a) 12 m (b) 8 m (c) 60 cm ; concave (d) 60 cm ; convex.
(c) 4 m (d) 6 m. [MNR 1999]
[All India PM/PD 1993]
667. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of
661. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 1.6 m has an a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u
object placed at a distance of 1 m from it. The image from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is
is formed at a distance of equal to
(a) 8/13 m in front of the mirror
(b) 8/13 m behind the mirror
FG u − f IJ 1/2 FG f IJ 1/2
(c) 4/9 m in front of the mirror
(a) b
H f K (b) b
Hu− f K
(d) 4/9 m behind the mirror. [AMU 1993] F u − f IJ
(c) b G (d) b G
F f IJ 2 .
662. In the above question the magnification is H f K H f − uK [IIT 1988]
(a) 4/9 (b) – 4/9 668. An object 5 cm tall is placed 1 m from a concave
(c) 9/4 (d) 8/13. spherical mirror which has a radius of curvature of
663. The sun has a diameter of 864100 mile and is on an 20 cm. The size of the image is
average at a distance of 92900000 mile from the earth. (a) 0.11 cm (b) 0.50 cm
A concave mirror of radius 6 m is used to obtain its (c) 0.55 cm (d) 0.60 cm.
image. The diameter of the image of the solar disc is [CMC LDH 2002]
(a) 28 m (b) 28 cm
669. A concave mirror is used to form an image of the
(c) 28 mm (d) 28 × 10–1 mm.
Sun on a white screen. If the lower half of the mirror
[PB.CET 1998] were covered with an opaque card, the effect on the
664. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an image image on the screen would be
1/n th of the size of the object. The distance of the (a) negligible
object from the mirror is
(b) to make the image less bright than before
f (c) to make the upper half of the image disappear
(a) (b) (n – 1) f
n−1 (d) to make the lower half of the image disappear
F n − 1IJ f.
(d) G (e) to prevent the image from being focussed.
(c) nf – 1
H n K
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002]
OPTICS 509
670. From a spherical mirror, the graph of 1/v vs 1/u is 675. A small piece of wire bent into an L shape with up-
right and horizontal portions of equal lengths, is
v 1/v placed with the horizontal portion along the axis of
the concave mirror whose radius of curvature is
10 cm. If the bend is 20 cm from the pole of the mir-
ror, then the ratio of the lengths of the images of the
upright and horizontal portions of the wire is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 1
(a) yellow, orange, red 10 cm. If the eye is placed 60 cm to the right of the
Fig. 73
(b) violet, indigo, blue lens at a distance h below the principal axis, then the
(c) all colours (d) all colours except green. maximum value of h to see the image will be
[IIT Screening 2004] (a) 0 (b) 5 cm
685. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere (c) 2.5 cm (d) 10 cm.
of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance [MP PMT 1999]
of the virtual image from the surface of the sphere is 691. A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a rarer
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm medium at an angle of incidence i. The reflected and
(c) 6 cm (d) 12 cm refracted rays make an angle of π/2 with each other.
[IIT Screening 2004] If the angles of reflection and refraction are r and r′,
686. A convex lens of refractive index n behaves as a con- then the critical angle will be
vex lens of smaller power in a liquid of refractive (a) tan–1 (sin i) (b) sin–1 (sin r)
index n1 and as a concave lens in another liquid of (c) sin–1 (tan i) (d) sin–1 (tan r′).
refractive index n2. The relation between n, n1 and
[MP PMT 1999]
n2 is
692. Two optical media of refractive indices n1 and n2 con-
(a) n2 > n > n1 (b) n2 < n < n1
tain x and y waves of the same colour in the same
(c) n = n1 = n2 (d) n > n1 > n2. thickness. Then their relative refractive index 1n2 is
[Karnataka 1999] equal to
687. A clear transparent glass sphere (µ = 1.5) of radius R y
(a) x – y (b)
is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25. A x
parallel beam of light incident on it will converge to y−x x
(c) (d) .
a point. The distance of this point from the centre x y−x
will be [Karnataka 1999]
OPTICS 511
693. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses, (a) 60° (b) 45°
each having focal length of 40 cm, are placed against (c) 90° (d) 180°.
each other to form a common convex lens. The dis- [CMC Vellore 2000]
tance from this lens at which an object must be placed 699. By how much an ink dot appears to be raised when
to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification covered by a glass plate 4.5 cm thick if the velocity of
equal to unity is light in glass is 2 × 1010 cm s–1 and in air 3 × 1010 cm
(a) 80 cm (b) 40 cm s–1 ?
(c) 20 cm (d) 16 cm. [MP PMT 1999] (a) 1.5 cm (b) 3 cm
694. An equiconvex lens of glass of focal length 0.1 metre (c) 4.5 cm (d) 0.
is cut along a plane perpendicular to principal axis 700. A ray of light enters a rectangular glass slab of
into two equal parts. The ratio of focal lengths of
refractive index 3 at an angle of incidence 60°. It
new lenses formed is
travels a distance of 5 cm inside the slab and emerges
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
out of the slab. The perpendicular distance between
(c) 2 : 1 [MP PET 1999]
(d) 2 : 1/2. the incident and the emergent rays is
695. A lens of refractive index n is put in a liquid of refrac- 5
tive index n′. If focal length of lens in air is f, its focal (a) 5 3 cm (b) cm
2
length in liquid will be
3
fn′ (n − 1) f (n′ − n) (c) 5 cm (d) 5 cm.
(a) (b) 2
n′ − n n′ (n − 1)
701. Rays from a lens are converging towards a point.
n′ (n − 1) fn ′n What thickness t of glass (µ = 1.5) must be interposed
(c) (d) . [MP PET 1999]
f (n′ − n) n − n′ in order that the image shall be shifted away through
696. Refractive index of water relative to air is 1.33 and
1″
that of an oil with respect to air is 1.45. The refrac- ?
tive indices of oil with respect to water and of water 8
with respect to oil are 3′′ 3′′
(a) (b)
(a) 0.91, 1.09 (b) 1.09, 0.92 4 8
(c) 0.75, 1.07 (d) 1.07, 0.75. 3′′ 2′′
(c) (d) .
[Pb. CET 1993] 7 7
702. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on the
697. A fish in a pond of water (µ = 1.33) views the setting
refracting face of a prism (angle 75°). It passes through
sun. According to fish, the sun makes an angle of
the prism and is incident on the other face at the
(with the horizon) :
critical angle. If the refractive index of the prism is
[sin–1 (1/1.33) = 48.6°]
2 , then the angle of incidence on the first face of
(a) 0° (b) 90°
the prism is
(c) 48.6° (d) 41.4°. [AFMC 1993]
(a) 15° (b) 30°
3 FG IJ (c) 45° (d) 60°.
698. A ray of light travelling in glass µ =
2 H
is incident
K 703. A layer of benzene (µ = 1.5) 6 cm deep floats on water
on a horizontal glass air surface at the critical angle FG µ = 4 IJ , 4 cm deep. When viewed vertically through
4 FG IJ H 3K
θC . If a thin layer of water µ =
3 H K
is now poured on
air, the apparent distance of the bottom of the vessel
the glass air surface, the angle at which the ray below the free suface of benzene is
emerges into air at the water-air surface is (a) 14 cm (b) 7 cm
Water (c) 21 cm (d) 3.5 cm.
704. The focal length of a convex lens is f. An object is
placed at a distance x from its first focal point. The
R
Glass ratio of the size of real image to that of the object is
R f x2
(a) 2
(b)
x f
f x
(c) (d) .
Fig. 75 x f
512 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
705. A point source is located 275 cm below the surface of 711. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a
a lake. The area of the surface that transmits all the plane boundary. The speed of light in medium A is
light that emerges from the surface is 2.0 × 108 m s–1 and in medium B is 2.5 × 108 m s–1.
(a) 0.304 m2 (b) 3.04 m2 The critical angle for which ray of light going from A
(c) 30.5 m2 (d) 304 m2. to B is totally internally reflected is
(a) sin–1 1/2 (b) sin–1 2/5
706. A plano-convex lens when silvered on the plane side
(c) sin–1 5/2 (d) sin–1 4/5.
behaves like a concave mirror of focal length 60 cm.
However, when silvered on the convex side it behaves 712. A fish is a little away be- Air
water
low the surface of a lake.
like a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. Then the θ
If the critical angle is 49°
refractive index of the lens is
49°, then the fish could
(a) 3.0 (b) 1.5 see things above water
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.0. [MNR 2002] surface within an angu-
Fig. 77
707. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a lar range of θ° where
convex lens of focal length 10 cm. On the other side (a) θ = 49° (b) θ = 98°
of the lens, a convex mirror is placed at its focus 1
(c) θ = 24 ° (d) θ = 90°.
such that the image formed by the combination coin- 2
cides with the object itself. The focal length of the 713. A light source placed at the bottom of a water beaker
convex mirror is 9 cm deep forms an illuminated circle of radius 11
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm cm at its surface. If the depth of the water in the
beaker is increased to 18 cm, the radius of the illumi-
(c) 15 cm (d) 30 cm. [AMU 2000]
nated circle will be
708. ACB is a right-angled prism with other angles as 60° (a) 16 cm (b) 30 cm
and 30°. Refractive index A B (c) 22 cm (d) 44 cm.
of prism is 1.5. AB has a 60° 30°
[CMC LDH 1998]
thin layer of liquid on it as
714. What is the relation be-
shown. Light falls nor- µ3
C tween refractive indices
mally on the face AC. For
µ1, µ2 and µ3 if the behav- µ1 µ2
total internal reflection, Fig. 76
iour of light rays is as
maximum refractive index
shown in Fig 135.
of liquid is
(a) µ3 < µ2, µ2 = µ1
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.3
(b) µ2 < µ1, µ2 = µ3
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.6. [AMU 2001] Fig. 78
(c) µ3 < µ2 < µ1
709. The distance between the convex lens and plane (d) µ3 > µ2 > µ1.
mirror is 5 cm. The parallel rays of light are incident
715. A lens of power + 2 D is placed in contact with a lens
on the convex lens. After reflection from the plane
mirror, the final image is formed at the optical centre of power – 1D. The combination will behave like
of the lens. The focal length of the lens is (a) convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (b) convergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(c) 40 cm (d) 5 cm. (c) divergent lens of focal length 50 cm
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1999] (d) divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. [RPMT 1995]
710. A rectangular block of glass of refractive index µ and 716. A ray of light falls on the surface of a spherical glass
thickness d is placed over an ink dot made on a piece paper weight making an angle alpha with the normal
of paper lying on a table. When viewed from above, and is refracted in the medium at an angle beta. The
the dot will appear to be raised by an amount given
angle of deviation of the emergent ray from the di-
by
rection of the incident ray is
d d
(a) (µ – 1) (b) (µ + 1) (a) (alpha – beta) (b) (beta – alpha)
µ µ
1
µd µd (c) (alpha – beta) (d) 2 (alpha – beta).
(c) (d) . 2
(µ − 1) (µ + 1) [MP PET 1995]
OPTICS 513
717. Shown in the Fig. 79 here µ = 1.5 µ = 1.6 723. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm and
is a convergent lens placed 15 cm are separated by 25 cm. The optical interval or
inside a cell filled with a separation between the two lenses is
liquid. The lens has focal (a) 0 (b) ∞
length + 20 cm when in air f + f2
and its material has (c) f1 + f2 (d) 1 .
d
refractive index 1.50. If the
724. A bird in air looks at a fish vertically below it and
liquid has refractive index
inside water. x is the height of the bird above the
1.60, the focal length of the
surface of water and y is the depth of the fish below
system is Fig. 79 the surface of water. The distance of the fish as ob-
(a) + 80 cm (b) – 80 cm served by the bird is : (Given : µ = refractive index of
(c) – 24 cm (d) – 100 cm. water w.r.t. air)
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991, 1994] y
(a) x + y (b) x +
718. Light is incident from a medium into air at two µ
possible angles of incidence (1) 20° and (2) 40°. In the (c) µx + y (d) µx + µy.
medium, the light travels 3 cm in 0.2 ns. The ray
will 725. In the previous question, the distance of the bird as
(a) suffer total internal reflection in both cases 1 and 2
observed by the fish is
(b) suffer total internal reflection in case 2 only y
(a) x + y (b) x +
µ
(c) have 100% transmission in case 1
(c) µx + y (d) µx + µy.
(d) have partial reflection and partial transmission in case 2.
726. An air bubble in a glass slab (µ = 1.5) is 6 cm deep as
719. A liquid of refractive index 1.6 P Q
viewed from one face and 4 cm deep as viewed from
is introduced between two iden-
the other face. The thickness of the glass slab is
tical plano-convex lenses in two
(a) 6.67 cm (b) 10 cm
ways P, Q as shown. If lens ma-
(c) 15 cm (d) Data is incomplete.
terial has refractive index 1.5,
the combination is 727. The focal length of a convex lens of glass (µ = 1.5) is
(a) convergent in both 2 cm. The focal length of the lens when immersed in
a liquid of refractive index 1.25 will be
(b) divergent in both
(a) 5 cm (b) 2.4 cm
(c) convergent in Q only
Fig. 80 (c) 1 cm (d) 4 cm.
(d) convergent in P only.
728. A and B are two identical beakers. Beaker A is filled
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
till brim with liquid (µ = 1.3) and beaker B is filled
720. Two convex lenses of powers 4 D and 6 D are sepa- with some liquid (µ = 1.6). Both beakers are viewed
rated by a distance of
1
m. The power of the optical from directly above. The ratio of the apparent depths
6
of A and B is
system so formed is
(a) 1.3/1.6 (b)1.6/1.3
(a) – 6 D (b) + 6 D
(c) 1 (d) 1.3 × 1.6.
(c) 10 D (d) 2 D .
[JIPMER 1996]
721. A concave lens of focal length 1 metre produces an
1 729. Monochromatic light of wavelength λ gets refracted
image times the size of the object. The distance, in from vacuum to a medium of refractive index µ. The
y ratio of the wavelength of the incident and the
metre, of the object from the lens is
refracted wave is
(a) y (b) y + 1
(a) 1 : µ (b) 1 : 1
1
(c) y – 1 (d) . (c) µ : 1 (d) µ2 : 1. [AFMC 1998]
y
730. The distance between an object and a screen is
722. For two different positions of the lens in the displace-
ment method, the sizes of the images are 1 unit and 100 cm. A lens produces an image on the screen when
3 unit. The size of the object is placed at either of the two positions 40 cm apart. The
(a) 4 unit (b) 3 units power of the lens is nearly
(a) 3 D (b) 5 D
(c) 3 units (d) 2 units.
(c) 7 D (d) 9 D.
514 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
731. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the sur- 739. The critical angle between an equilateral prism and
5 air is 42°. If the incident ray is perpendicular to the
face of water of µ = . The minimum diameter of a refracting surface, then
3
(a) after deviation, it will emerge from the second refracting
disc, which should be placed over the source, on the surface
surface of water to cut off all light coming out of
(b) it is totally reflected on the second surface and emerges out
water, is perpendicularly from third surface in air
(a) 1 m (b) 6 m
(c) it is totally reflected from the second and third refracting
(c) 4 m (d) 3 m.
surfaces and finally emerges out from the first surface
732. The radius of curvature of convex surface of a thin (d) it is totally reflected from all the three sides of prism and
plano-convex lens is 15 cm and µ is 1.6. The power of never emerges out. [MP PMT 1986]
the lens is
740. Angle of prism is A and its one surface is silvered.
(a) + 1 D (b) – 2 D
Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on first
(c) + 3 D (d) + 4 D. surface return back through the same path after
733. A convexo-concave lens has faces of radii 3 cm and suffering reflection at second silvered surface.
4 cm respectively and is made of glass of µ = 1.6. The Refractive index of the material of prism is
focal length of the lens is (a) 2 sin A (b) 2 cos A
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm 1
(c) 40 cm (d) 50 cm. (c) cos A (d) tan A. [AIIMS 1995]
2
734. Two symmetric double convex lenses A and B have 741. A luminous object is separated from a screen by a
the same focal length but the radii of curvature dif- distance D. What is the greatest focal length a lens
fer so that RA = 0.9 RB. If µA = 1.63, then µB is could have to focus the object on the screen ?
(a) 1.1 (b) 1.5 D D
(a) (b)
(c) 1.6 (d) 1.7. 4 2
(c) D (d) 4D.
735. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of
refractive index µ . The angle of incidence is twice the [Karnataka CET 2001]
angle of refraction. Angle of incidence is 742. The focal length of a plano-convex lens is equal to its
FG IJ µ µ radius of curvature. The value of the refractive index
(a) cos–1
H K 2
(b) 2 cos–1
2
of its material is
F µI
(c) 2 sin G J
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.6
H 2K–1
(d) 2 sin–1 (µ). (c) 1.5 (d) 2.
736. When a ray is refracted from one medium into another [Karnataka CET 1997]
medium, the wavelength changes from 6000 Å to 743. Light of wavelength 500 nm travelling with a speed
4000 Å. The critical angle for a ray from second 2.0 × 108 m s–1 in a certain medium enters another
medium will be medium of refractive index 5/4 times that of the first
(a) cos–1 (2/3) (b) sin–1 (2/3) medium. What are the wavelength and speed in the
(c) tan (3/2)
–1
(d) sin–1 (2/ 13 ). second medium ?
737. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from wavelength/nm speed/m s–1
a medium to vacuum is 30°, the velocity of light in (a) 400 1.6 × 108
the medium is (b) 400 2.5 × 108
(a) 3 × 10 m s 8 –1
(b) 1.5 × 10 m s
8 –1
(c) 500 2.5 × 108
(c) 6 × 108 m s–1 (d) 3 × 108 m s–1. (d) 625 1.6 × 108
[AMU 1996] (e) 625 2.0 × 108.
738. The relation between n1 and 744. Light passes from air into a liquid. The angle of
n2 if the behaviour of light incidence is 60°. The deviation produced is 15°. The
ray is as shown in the Fig. 81 refractive index of the liquid is
n1 n2
is (a) 1.5 (b) 1.33
(a) n2 > n1 (c) 1.22 (d) 1.63.
(b) n1 > > n2 Lens 745. The angle of refraction of a prism is 35°. The critical
(c) n1 > n2 Fig. 81 angle is 30°. A ray should pass through a prism such
(d) n1 = n2. [Karnataka CET 2000]
OPTICS 515
that there should not be total internal reflection. The 750. A parallel beam of light falls axially on a thin con-
minimum angle of incidence should not be less than verging lens of focal length 20 cm. The emergent light
(a) 30° (b) 20° falls or a screen placed 30 cm beyond the lens. An
(c) 15° (d) 10°. opaque plate with a triangular aperture, side 1 cm, is
in contact with the lens. See Figs. 83 (a) and (b).
[All India PM/PD 1997]
f = 20 cm
746. A hollow double concave lens is made of very thin
transparent material. It can be filled with air or either Triangular
aperture
of two liquids L1 or L2 having refractive indices n1
and n2 respectively (n2 > n1 > 1). The lens will diverge
a parallel beam of light if it is filled with Opaque
(a) air and placed in air (b) air and immersed in L1 plate Screen Aperture side
1.0 cm
(c) L1 and immersed in L2 (d) L2 and immersed in L1. 30 cm
(a) (b)
[IIT Screening 2000]
747. Two thin lenses are placed 5 cm apart along the same Fig. 83
axis and illuminated with a beam of light parallel to Which one of the following diagrams best shows to
that axis. The first lens in the path of the beam is a appearance of the patch of light seen on the screen.
converging lens of focal length 10 cm whereas the
second is a diverging lens of focal length 5 cm. If the
second lens is now moved towards the first, the emer-
gent light
(a) remains parallel (b) remains convergent
(c) remains divergent
(d) changes from parallel to divergent. 1.5 cm 1.0 cm 0.5 cm
(e) changes from convergent to divergent. (a) (b) (c)
748. Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined
together in three different ways as shown in Fig. 82.
The ratio of the focal lengths in three cases will be
0.5 cm 1.5 cm
(d) (e)
Fig. 84
(i) (ii) (iii) 751. A lens forms a real image of an object. The distance
from the object to the lens is x cm and that from the
Fig. 82 lens to the image is y cm. The graph (Fig. 85) shows
(a) 2 : 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 the variation of y with x. It can be deduced that the
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 : 1. lens is
[CMC LDH 1994]
10
749. An object is placed 30 cm to the left of a diverging
lens whose focal length is of magnitude 20 cm. Which
one of the following correctly states the nature and 20
position of the virtual image formed ?
nature of image distance from lens 40
(a) inverted, enlarged 60 cm to the right
(b) erect, diminished 12 cm to the left 20
(a) converging and of focal length 10 cm. 1. speed of light in medium Y is 3 times that in
(b) converging and of focal length 20 cm. medium X.
(c) converging and of focal length 40 cm 2. speed of light in me-
0.2
(d) diverging and of focal length 20 cm. dium Y is 1/ 3 times
Sin r
(e) diverging and of focal length 10 cm. that in medium X.
30° Sin i
[London Schools Exam. Deptt.] 3. total internal reflec- 0 0.2 0.4
tion will occur above a
752. The focal power in dioptres of the contact combina- certain i value. Fig. 88
tion of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm and a (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
concave lens of focal length 25 cm is
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only.
(a) 4 (b) 0.25
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989]
(c) 6 (d) 10. 757. A thin symmetric convex lens of refractive index 3/2
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989] and radius of curvature 30 m is put in water
753. The distance between an object and a divergent lens FG refractive index = 4 IJ . Its focal length is
is ‘m’ times the focal length of the lens. The linear
magnification produced by the lens will be equal to
H 3K
(a) 0.15 m (b) 0.30 m
(a) m (b) 1/m
(c) 0.45 m (d) 1.20 m.
(c) m + 1 (d) 1/(m + 1).
[All India PM/PD 1996]
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001]
758. A 16 cm long image of an object is formed by a con-
754. Fig. 86, shows positions of an
vex lens on a screen. On moving the lens towards the
image I of an object ‘O’ formed
screen, a 9 cm long image is formed again on the
by a lens. This is possible if
screen. The size of the object is
(a) a convex lens is placed to the left Ι
O (a) 9 cm (b) 11 cm
of O
Fig. 86 (c) 12 cm (d) 13 m.
(b) a concave lens is placed to the left
of O. [Bharati Vidyapeeth 2001]
(c) a convex lens is placed between O and I 759. A convex lens of focal length 12 cm is made of glass
3
(d) a concave lens is placed to the right of I. of µ = . What will be its focal length when immersed
2
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000] 5
in liquid of µ = ?
755. A liquid of Refractive index 1.6 4
Glass (a) 6 cm (b) 12 cm
is contained in the cavity of a
(c) 24 cm (d) 30 cm. [MP PMT 1995]
glass specimen of refractive index
1.5 as shown in Fig. 87. If each 760. The wavelength of light in two liquids ‘x’ and ‘y’ is
of the curved surfaces has a
Liquid 3500 Å and 7000 Å. Then the critical angle of x rela-
radius of curvature of 0.20 m, the tive to y will be
Fig. 87
arrangement behaves as a (a) 60° (b) 45°
(c) 30° (d) 15°.
(a) converging lens of focal length 0.25 m.
(b) diverging lens of focal length 0.25 m. [Himachal PMT 2001]
(c) diverging lens of focal length 0.17 m. 761. Fig. 89 (a) shows two plano-
(d) converging lens of focal length 0.72 m. convex lenses in contact as
shown. The combination has
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
focal length 24 cm. Fig. 89 (b)
756. Light is incident from a medium X at angle of shows the same with a liquid
incidence i and is refracted into a medium Y at angle introduced between them. If
of refraction r. The graph sin i versus sin r is shown refractive index of glass of the
in Fig. 88. Which of the following conclusions would lenses is 1.50 and that of the
fit the situation ? liquid is 1.60, the focal length
(a) (b)
of system in Fig. 89 (b) will be
Fig. 89
OPTICS 517
(a) – 120 cm (b) 120 cm 767. In a slide show programme, the image on the screen
(c) – 24 cm (d) 24 cm. has an area 900 times that of the slide. If the dis-
tance between the slide and the screen is x times the
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995]
distance between the slide and the projector lens, then
762. When a lens made of glass (refractive index 1.5) is (a) x = 30 (b) x = 31
immersed completely in water (refractive index 1.3) 1
its focal length changes from f to (c) x = 500. (d) x = .
30
(a) (15/13)f (b) (15/4)f [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000]
(c) (13/4)f (d) (5/3)f. 768. For a colour of light, the wavelength in air is 6000 Å
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989] and in water the wavelength is 4500 Å. Then the speed
763. Fig. 90 shows different (II)
of light in water will be
(III) (a) 5.0 × 1014 m s–1 (b) 2.25 × 108 m s–1
graphs in case of a thin con-
vex lens for the formation (I) (c) 4.0 × 10 m s8 –1
(d) Zero.
of a real image. ‘u’ and ‘v’ (IV) [Haryana PMT 1999]
y
are the object and image
769. A combination of two thin lenses with focal lengths
distances respectively. Find f1 and f2 respectively forms an image of distant ob-
out the correct identifica- ject at distance 60 cm when lenses are in contact.
tion for the different com- The position of this image shifts by 30 cm towards
x
binations from the the combination when two lenses are separated by
Fig. 90
followings 10 cm. The corresponding values of f1 and f2 are
(a) graph I, if x is ‘v’ and y is ‘u/v’ (a) 30 cm, – 60 cm (b) 20 cm, – 30 cm
(b) graph II, x is ‘u’ and y is ‘v’ (c) 15 cm, – 20 cm (d) 12 cm, – 15 cm.
(c) graph III, if x is ‘v’ and y is ‘v/u’ [AIIMS 1995]
(d) graph IV, if x is ‘1/u’ and y is ‘1/v’.
770. The image of a star (effectively a point source) is made
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2001] by a convergent lens of focal length 50 cm and diam-
764. A parallel beam of light falls normally on the plane eter of aperture 5.0 cm, if the lens is ideal, and the
surface of a Plano convex lens of refractive index effective wavelength in image formation is taken as
3/2. If the radius of the curved surface of the lens is 5 × 10–5 cm, the diameter of the image formed will be
20 cm, the beam will be focussed at which of the nearest to
following distances from the lens ? (a) zero (b) 10–6 cm
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 10 cm–5
(d) 10–3 cm.
(c) 40 cm (d) 50 cm. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1994]
[CMC Vellore 1995] 771. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave
765. The velocity of light in a medium is half its velocity lens of focal length f are mounted coaxially 5 cm apart.
in air. If a ray of light emerges from such a medium Parallel beam of light incident on the convex lens
into air, the angle of incidence, at which it will be emerges from the concave lens as a parallel beam.
totally internally reflected, is Then f in cm is
(a) 15° (b) 30° (a) 35 (b) 25
(c) 45° (d) 60°. [BHU 2000] (c) 20 (d) 15. [MANIPAL 1999]
766. A thin equiconvex lens has focal length 10 cm, 772. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall.
refractive index 1.5. One of its faces is now silvered, It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall, for its
and for an object placed at a distance u in front of it, two different positions. The area of the source of light
the image coincides with the object. The value of u is is
A1 + A2
(a) 10 cm (b) 5 cm (a) A 1A 2 (b)
2
(c) 20 cm (d) 15 cm.
A1 − A2 1 1
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1988] (c) (d) + .
2 A1 A 2
[All India PM/PD 1995]
518 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
A
773. A glass prism has refractive index 2 and refracting 0.8 × 10 −14 sin θ = 0.8
angle 30°. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism µ(λ) = 1.20 + θ
λ2
is silvered. A beam of monochromatic light will
Which of the following statements
retrace its path if its angle of incidence on the
is correct ?
unsilvered refracting surface of the prism is
(a) Light of λ = 400 nm undergoes total
(a) 0 (b) π/6 internal reflection B C
(c) π/4 (d) π/3. (b) Light of λ = 500 nm undergoes total
Fig. 91
[All India PM/PD 1992] internal reflection
(c) Neither of the two wavelengths undergo total internal
774. When a glass slab is placed on a cross made on a
reflection
sheet, the cross appears raised by 1 cm. The thick-
(d) Both wavelengths undergo total internal reflection.
ness of the glass is 3 cm. The critical angle for glass
[All India PM/PD 1995]
is
(a) sin–1 (0.33) (b) sin–1 (0.5) 781. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a printed
page lying on a horizontal surface. Then the mini-
(c) sin–1 (0.67) (d) sin–1 ( 3 /2). mum value of refractive index of glass for which the
775. A diver at a depth of 12 m in water (µ = 4/3) sees the letters on the page are not visible from any of the
sky in a cone of semivertical angle vertical faces of the block is
(a) sin–1 (4/3) (b) tan–1 (4/3) (a) equal to 2 (b) more than 2
(c) sin–1 (3/4) (d) 90°. [MP PMT 1995] (c) less than 2 (d) > = < 2.
776. A diminished image of an object is to be obtained on [CMC LDH 1996]
a screen 1.0 m from it. This can be achieved by 782. The sun subtends an angle of 30′ on the surface of
appropriately placing the earth. A convex lens of focal length 100 cm is
(a) a convex mirror of suitable focal length used to form its image. The diameter of the image of
(b) a concave mirror of suitable focal length the solar disc is
(c) a concave lens of suitable focal length (a) 1.74 cm (b) 0.87 cm
(d) a convex lens of suitable focal length less than 0.25 m. (c) 0.435 cm (d) 100 cm.
783. If a ray of light in a denser medium strikes a rarer
[IIT 1995]
medium at an angle of incidence i, the angles of re-
777. Light of λ = 589 nm traverses a tank of height 20.06 m flection and refraction are respectively r and r′. If
first filled with glycerine (µ = 1.47) and then carbon the reflected and refracted rays are at right angles to
disulphide. The difference in the times taken to each other, the critical angle for the given pair of
traverse the tank is 1.07 × 10 –8 s. The refractive index media is
of carbon disulphide is (a) sin–1 (tan r′) (b) sin–1 (tan r)
(a) 1.60 (b) 1.62 (c) tan–1 (sin i) (d) cot–1 (tan i).
(c) 1.58 (d) 1.63. [BHU 1997] [Karnataka CET 2003]
778. Monochromatic light of frequency 5 × 1014 Hz travel- 784. A light wave enters from I medium into II medium.
ling in vacuum enters a medium of refractive index Its velocity in second medium is double that in I
1.5. Its wavelength in the medium is medium. For the phenomenon of total internal re-
(a) 4000 Å (b) 5000 Å flection to take place, the angle of incidence must be
(c) 6000 Å (d) 5500 Å. greater than a certain value. This value is
[MP PET 1995 ; MP PMT 1995] (a) 20° (b) 30°
779. The power of a thin convex lens (ang = 1.5) is + 5.0 D. (c) 45° (d) 60°. [AMU 1994]
When it is placed in a liquid of refractive index anl , 785. A fish rising vertically
then it behaves as a concave lens of focal length up towards the surface
100 cm. The refractive index of the liquid anl will be of water with speed 3
(a) 5/3 (b) 4/3 m s –1 observes a bird
diving vertically down
(c) 3 (d) 5/4. towards it with speed
780. Parallel beam containing light of λ = 400 nm and 9 m s –1. The actual
500 nm is incident on a prism as shown in Fig. 91. velocity of bird is :
The refractive index µ of the prism is given by the LM
Given : µ =
4 OP Fig. 92
relation
N 3 Q
OPTICS 519
A A
(a) 4.5 m s–1 (b) 5.4 m s–1
(c) 3.0 m s–1 (d) 3.4 m s–1. 90° 90°
[CMC LDH 1994] 45°
45° 45° 45°
786. A point source S is placed at the bot-
n=3
tom of different layers as shown in n=2 B (a) C B (b) C
Fig. 93. The refractive index of n=1
bottommost layer is µ0. The refrac- A A
S
tive index of any other upper layer 90° 90°
Fig. 93
is
45° 45°
µ0
µ(n) = µ0 – where n = 1, 2, ...... 45° 45°
4n − 18
B (c ) C B (d ) C
A ray of light starts from the source S as shown.
Total internal reflection takes place at the upper Fig. 94
surface of a layer having n equal to [EAMCET 1985]
(a) 3 (b) 5 791. An equiconvex lens is made from glass of refractive
index 1.5. If the radius of each surface is changed
(c) 4 (d) 6. [WB JEE 1997]
from 5 cm to 6 cm, then the power
787. A fish, looking up through the water, sees the out- (a) remains unchanged (b) increases by 3.33 D
side world contained in a circular horizon. If the re- (c) decreases by 3.33 D (d) decreases by 5.5 D.
4 [JIPMER 1994]
fractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm
3 792. A convex lens produces an image of a real object on a
below the surface of water, the radius of the circle in 1
centimetre is screen with a magnification of . When the lens is
2
12 × 3 moved 30 cm towards the object, the magnification
(a) (b) 12 × 3 × 5
5 of the image on the screen is 2. The focal length of
the lens is
12 × 3 (a) 30 cm (b) 60 cm
(c) (d) 12 × 3 × 7 .
7 (c) 20 cm (d) 15 cm.
[Karnataka CET 2003 ; AIEEE 2005] [Himachal PMT 1994]
788. A concave lens with unequal radii of curvature made 793. A layered lens as shown in Fig. 95 is
of glass (µg = 1.5) has a focal length of 40 cm. If it is made of two types of transparent
immersed in a liquid of refractive index µl = 2, then materials indicated by different
(a) it behaves like convex lens of 80 cm focal length. shades. A point object is placed on
its axis. The object will form
(b) it behave like a convex lens of 20 cm focal length.
(a) 1 image (b) 2 images
(c) its focal length becomes 60 cm
(c) 3 images (d) 9 images.
(d) nothing can be said. [EAMCET 1999] [BHU 1996] Fig. 95
789. A fish in water sees an object 24 cm above the surface 794. An object is put at a distance of 5 cm from the first
of water. The height of object above the surface of focus of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. If a real
water that will appear to fish is image is formed, its distance from the lens will be
(a) 24 cm (b) 32 cm (a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm
(c) 18 cm (d) 48 cm. [CPMT 1993] (c) 25 cm (d) 30 cm. [AMU 1995]
795. A lens has a power of 10 D, when placed in air. When
790. The refractive index of a material of a prism of angles
45° – 45° – 90° is 1.5. The path of the ray of light 4 FG IJ
incident normally on the hypotenuse side is shown
it is immersed in water µ =
3 H K
, the change in power
796. The first focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm. An (a) x (b) x
object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the first m1 − m2 m1 + m2
principal focus. The lens produces an image on the x x
(c) (d) .
other side at a distance of 20 cm from the second (m1 − m2 ) 2 (m1 + m2 ) 2
principal focus. Then the second focal length is
[WB JEE 1996]
(a) 30 cm (b) 10 cm
803. A ray of light is incident nor-
(c) 17.5 cm (d) 35 cm. [AFMC 1994] mally on the first refracting
A
797. An object is placed 1 metre in front of the curved face of the prism of refract- 90°
surface of a plano-convex lens whose plane surface is ing angle A. The ray of light
silvered. A real image is formed in front of the lens comes out at grazing emer-
at a distance of 120 cm. Then the focal length of the gence. If one half of the prism
lens is (shaded position) is knocked 90°
off, the same ray will
(a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm
(a) suffer a deviation of A/4
(c) 109.1 cm (d) 110.0 cm. Fig. 96
(b) not emerge out of the prism
[CMC Vellore 1994]
FG 1 sin A / 4IJ
798. The apparent thickness of a thick plano-convex lens
is measured once with the plane face upward and
(c) emerge at an angle of sin–1
H2 K
then with the convex face upwards. The value will be F1 I
(d) emerge at an angle of emergence sin G sec A / 2J .
H2 K
–1
30°
refractive index 1.5 as shown in (a) 0.65 m (b) 0.91 m
Fig. 98. The angle between the (c) 1.05 m (d) 7.3 m. [Roorkee 1996]
emergent rays is nearly
30° 814. A cube made of a material of refractive index µ2 is
(a) 19° (b) 37° immersed in a liquid of refractive index µ1. A ray of
(c) 45° (d) 49°. light is incident on face AB
Fig. 98
at an angle i as shown. To- A
i
B
810. Two thin equi-convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm tal internal reflection just
and 20 cm are placed inside a thin-walled glass box takes place on face BC. r
with curved sides, side by Then sin i is equal to m
side, such that these are
2
µ2 90° – r
tightly fitted inside. The (a)
µ1
glass is then filled with water
LMF µ2 I 2 OP
MNGH µ1 JK + 1PQ
and used as a lens. Determine f1 f2 D
a
C
(b)
the position of an object so Fig. 100
that an image twice the size
of the object is formed due F µ1 I 2 − 1 F µ2 I 2 − 1
to this lens combination. Fig. 99
(c) GH µ 2 JK (d) GH µ1 JK
µglass = 3/2 and µwater = 4/3
[Roorkee 1995]
(a) 10 cm, 15 cm (b) 12 cm, 4 cm
815. Two transparent slabs have identical geometrical
(c) 15 cm, 5 cm (d) 8 cm, 3 cm. dimensions. One is made of material A of refractive
[EAMCET 1993] index 1.5 and the other is made of two materials B
811. A converging lens placed between an object and and C, the ratio of their lengths being 1 : 2. The
screen forms sharp image of an object on a screen. A refractive index of C is 1.6. If monochromatic parallel
glass slab of refractive index µ is inserted between beams passing through the slabs have the same
number of waves, the refractive index of B is
the object and the lens. In order to obtain the sharp
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.3
image on the screen again, the lens has to be dis-
(c) 1.1 [CPMT 1997]
(d) 1.5.
placed by a distance x. The thickness of glass slab is
µ+1
816. An object and a screen are fixed at a distance d apart.
(a) µx/µ + 1 (b) When a convex lens of focal length f is moved be-
x
tween the object and the screen, sharp images of the
(c) x
RS µ + 1UV (d)
µx
. [JIPMER 2003] object are formed on the screen for two positions of
T µ W µ−1
the lens. The magnifications produced in the two
812. A microscope is focussed on a mark in the bottom of positions are m1 and m2 . Then
a beaker when partly filled with some liquid. The 1
(a) m1 = (b) | m1 | – | m2 | = 1
microscope reading is found to be R1. The travelling m2
microscope is now focussed for the surface of the (c) d ≤ 2f (d) d > 4f.
liquid and the reading is found to be R2. Some more [CML LDH 2003]
liquid is now poured in the beaker and the experiment 817. A bird in air looks at a fish vertically below it and
is repeated. The corresponding readings are now R3 inside water in a tank. If the distances of the fish as
and R4. Then the refractive index of liquid is estimated by bird is S1 and that of bird as estimated
by the fish is S2 then the refractive index of liquid µ
is
522 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c)
C 836. A thin prism P1 with angle 4° and made from glass
V
F of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another thin
prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to
produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of
V
the prism P2 is
(a) 2.6° (b) 3°
C
(d) R (c) 4° (d) 5.33°. [IIT 1990]
F
837. Which of the following diagrams is a correct presen-
tation of deviation and dispersion of light by prism ?
Fig. 103
838. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism (a) red (b) orange
such that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle (c) pink (d) none of these.
of emergence and the latter is equal to (3/4)th the [CPMT 1988]
angle of the prism. The angle of deviation will be
845. If the refractive indices of crown glass for red, yellow
(a) 45° (b) 39°
and violet colours are 1.5140, 1.5170 and 1.5318
(c) 20° (d) 30°. [MP PMT 1999] respectively and for flint glass these are 1.6434, 1.6499
839. A prism (µ = 1.5) has the refracting angle of 30°. The and 1.6852 respectively, then the dispersive powers
deviation of a monochromatic ray incident normally for crown and flint glasses are respectively
on its one surface will be (a) 0.034 and 1.0 (b) 0.034 and 0.064
(sin 48°36′ = 0.75) (c) 0.064 and 0.034 (d) 1.3 and 0.064.
(a) 18° 36′ (b) 20° 30′
846. For a prism of refractive index 3 , the angle of the
(c) 18° (d) 22° 1′.
prism is equal to the angle minimum deviation. The
[MP PMT/PET 1988]
value of the angle of the prism is
840. The refractive index of a prism for a monochromatic
(a) 45° (b) 30°
wave is 2 and its refracting angle is 60°. For mini- (c) 60° (d) 50°. [Karnataka 1999]
mum deviation, the angle of incidence will be
847. The dispersion for a medium of wavelength λ is D.
(a) 30° (b) 45°
Then the dispersion for wavelength 2λ will be
(c) 60° (d) 75°.
(a) D/8 (b) D/4
[MP PMT 1989, 92 ; CPMT 1993]
(c) D/2 (d) D. [MP PET 1989]
841. A light ray is incident upon
a prism in minimum devia- 848. Angle of minimum deviation for a prism of refractive
tion position and suffers a index 1.5 is equal to the angle of prism. The angle of
deviation of 34°. If the prism is (cos 41° = 0.75)
shaded half of the prism is (a) 62° (b) 41°
knocked off, the ray will (c) 82° (d) 31°.
Fig. 106
(a) suffer a deviation of 34°
[MP PET/PMT 1988]
(b) suffer a deviation of 68°
(c) suffer a deviation of 17° (d) not come out of the prism. 849. To obtain a convex achromatic combination with two
lenses in contact, it is necessary to combine
[MP MPT 1992]
(a) two convex lenses of different materials
842. If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power
(b) one convex and the other concave but of same material
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) a convex lens of higher dispersive power with a concave
(c) does not change
lens of lower dispersive power
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the angle
(d) a convex lens of lower dispersive power with a concave lens
of the prism is less than or greater than 60°.
of higher dispersive power.
[MP PMT 1995, modified]
850. A convex lens has a mean focal length of 20 cm. The
843. A thin prism P1 of angle of prism 4° and refractive
dispersive power of the material of the lens is 0.02.
index 1.525 is combined with another thin prism P2
Then the longitudinal chromatic aberration for an
of refractive index 1.70 for dispersion without devia-
tion. The angle of prism of P2 is object at infinity is
(a) 0.20 cm (b) 0.40 cm
(a) 5.33° (b) 4°
(c) 0.80 cm (d) 1.0 cm.
(c) 3° (d) 2.6°. [MP PET 1999]
851. The dispersive powers of the materials of the two
844. Fig. 107 shows the view through the
lenses are in the ratio 4 : 3. If the achromatic combi-
eye-piece of a prism spectrometer
nation of these two lenses in contact is a convex lens
with its slit illuminated by the
of focal length 60 cm, then the focal lengths of the
source of light emitting three
component lenses are
wavelengths corresponding to X G Y (a) – 20 cm and + 25 cm (b) 20 cm and – 25 cm
yellow (Y), green (G) and an
unknown colour (X). The colour at Fig. 107 (c) – 15 cm and + 20 cm (d) + 15 cm and – 20 cm.
X may be [CPMT 1989]
OPTICS 525
852. Consider the following two statements (a) White (b) Red coloured
(A) Line spectra contain information about atoms. (c) Violet (d) Yellow.
(B) Band spectra contain information about molecules. 860. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism
(a) Both A and B are wrong (b) A is correct but B is wrong. such that the angle of incidence and the angle of
(c) B is correct but A is wrong.
emergence are both equal to 3/4th of the angle of
prism. The angle of minimum deviation is
(d) Both A and B are correct.
(a) 15° (b) 30°
853. Light is incident at an angle of 60° on a prism of
(c) 45° (d) 60°.
which the refracting angle of prism is 30°. The angle
between the incident and the emergent rays is also 861. A parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident
30°. The refractive index of material of prism will be at one surface of an equilateral prism. Angle of inci-
dence is 55° and angle of emergence is 46°. The angle
(a) 2 (b) 2 3
of minimum deviation will be
(c) 2 (d) 3. (a) less than 41° (b) equal to 41°
854. The difference between angle of minimum deviation (c) more than 41° (d) none of these.
of violet and red rays in the spectrum of white light 862. The refractive indices of flint glass for violet, yellow
from a prism is 2°. If angle of minimum deviation of and red colours are 1.632, 1.620 and 1.613 respec-
mean ray is 48°, the dispersive power of the material tively. If the mean focal length of the lens is 10 cm,
of the prism is the axial chromatic aberration is nearly
(a) 0.0832 (b) 0.0416 (a) 30 mm (b) 3 mm
(c) 24 (d) 48. [MP PMT 1990] (c) 0.3 mm (d) 6 mm.
855. The focal length of a thin convex lens for red and 863. It is desired to make a converging achromatic com-
blue rays are 100 cm and 96.8 cm respectively. The bination of mean focal length 50 cm by using two
dispersive power of the material of the lens is lenses of materials A and B. If the dispersive powers
(a) 0.968 (b) 0.98
of A and B are in ratio 1 : 2, then focal lengths of the
convex and the concave lenses are respectively
(c) 0.0325 [MP PET 1990]
(d) 0.325.
(a) 25 cm and 50 cm (b) 50 cm and 25 cm
856. A parallel beam of white light falls on a combination (c) 50 cm and 100 cm (d) 100 cm and 50 cm.
of a concave and a convex lens both of the same ma-
terial. Their focal lengths are 15 cm and 30 cm re- 864. White light is passed through a prism of angle 5°. If
spectively for the mean wavelength in white light. the refractive indices for the red and blue colours are
On a screen, a coloured pattern is formed with 1.641 and 1.659 respectively, what is the angle of dis-
persion between them ?
(a) violet at inner edge and red at outer edge
(a) 5° (b) 2°
(b) violet at outer edge and red at inner edge
(c) 0.09° (d) 0.9°.
(c) yellow at the outer edge
865. The angle of prism is 60°. What is the angle of inci-
(d) violet and red images coincide. dence for minimum deviation ? The refractive index
857. The minimum deviation produced by a hollow prism of material of prism is 2 .
filled with a certain liquid is found to be 30°. The (a) 45° (b) 60°
light ray is also found to be refracted at angle of 30°.
FG 2 IJ . [CPMT 1993]
The refractive index of the liquid is (c) 30° (d) sin–1
H 3K
(a) 2 (b) 3
866. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is combined with
3 3 a concave lens of focal length 30 cm to obtain an
(c) (d) . [MP PET 1991]
2 2 achromatic combination. If the dispersive power of
858. Angle of glass prism is 60° and refractive index of the the material of the convex lens is 0.02, then the dis-
material of the prism is 1.414. What will be the angle persive power of the material of the concave lens, is
of incidence so that ray should pass symmetrically (a) 0.02 (b) 0.01
through prism ? (c) 0.04 (d) 2.02 .
(a) 38° 61′ (b) 35° 35′
867. Angle of a prism is 30° and its refractive index is 2
(c) 45° (d) 53° 8′.
and one of the surfaces is silvered. At what angle of
859. A convex lens of focal length 0.1 m is illuminated incidence, a ray should be incident on one surface so
with a parallel beam of white light. Then the image that after reflection from the silvered surface, it re-
obtained at a distance of 0.1 m from the lens is traces its path ?
526 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
881. In the previous question, to obtain the best view, the 888. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-lens of a
distance between the observer’s eye and the eye-lens microscope are 1.6 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The
should be distance between the two lenses is 21.7 cm. If the
(a) zero (b) 19.2 mm final image is formed at infinity, the distance between
the object and the objective lens is
(c) 20.0 mm (d) 20.8 mm
(a) 1.8 cm (b) 1.70 cm
(e) 24.0 mm.
(c) 1.65 cm (d) 1.75 cm.
[London Schools Examination Department] 889. A compound microscope has an objective and eye-
882. An astronomical telescope consists of an objective of piece as thin lenses of focal lengths 1 cm and 5 cm
focal length 60 cm and an eye-piece of focal length respectively. The distance between the objective and
5 cm. It is focussed on a distant object such that the the eye-piece is 20 cm. The distance at which the ob-
rays emerging from the eye-lens are parallel. The ject must be placed in front of the objective if the
object subtends an angle of 2° at the objective. The final image is located at 25 cm from the eye-piece, is
angular width of the image is numerically
(a) 10° (b) 24° (a) 95/6 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 48° (d) 54°. (c) 95/89 cm (d) 25/6 cm.
[CMC Vellore 1996] 890. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image
883. A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and is
an eye-piece of focal length 5 cm. It is focussed for (a) virtual, erect and magnified
distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away from the ob- (b) real, erect and magnified
jective. Then the optical length of the telescope is (c) real, inverted and magnified
(a) 200/3 cm (b) 25/6 cm (d) virtual, erect and reduced.[IIT Screening 2000]
(c) 425/6 cm (d) 375/6 cm. 891. A telescope is adjusted for parallel rays. The distance
884. In Question No. 883, the linear magnification, m, between the objective and the eye-piece is observed to
produced by the telescope is numerically be 20 cm. The magnifying power of telescope is 9.
The focal lengths of the lenses are
1
(a) (b) 6 (a) 11 cm, 9 cm (b) 9 cm, 11 cm
3
(c) 2 (d) 16. (c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 18 cm, 2 cm.
885. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is [AFMC 1997]
adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the 892. In representing the objective and eye-piece of a tel-
objective and the eye-piece is found to be 20 cm. The escope in diagrams, one has the options as follows
focal lengths of the lenses are (assuming a single lens presentation for the eye-piece)
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm P : objective : large aperture and thin
(c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm. Q : objective : large aperture and thick
[MP PMT 1986] R : eye-piece : large aperture and thick
886. For an astronomical telescope used in normal ad- S : eye-piece : small aperture and thick
justment, objective and the eye-piece are separated The best representation would be with
by a distance of 55 cm. If the magnifying power of (a) P and R (b) P and S
the telescope is 10, the power of the objective is (c) Q and R (d) Q and S.
(a) 5 D (b) 50 D
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995]
(c) 2 D (d) 0.5 D.
893. The focal length of a simple convex lens used as a
887. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnifi- magnifier is 10 cm. For the image to be formed at a
cation of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The sepa- distance of distinct vision D = 25 cm, the object must
ration between the objective and the eye-piece is be placed away from the lens nearly at a distance of
36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The (a) 5 cm (b) 7 cm
focal lengths of the objective fo and fe of the eye-piece
(c) 8 cm (d) 16 cm. [CPMT 1996]
are
(a) fo = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm (b) fo = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
894. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-lens of a
telescope are 100 cm and 10 cm respectively. If the
(c) fo = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm (d) fo = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm.
final image is formed at the least distance of distinct
[CMC Ludhiana, 1996 ; IIT 1989] vision, the magnifying power of the telescope is
528 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
6000 Å, then the number of fringes obtained in the 945. In a biprism experiment, by using light of wavelength
same field of view is 5000 Å, 5 mm wide fringes are obtained on a screen
(a) 1.5 (b) 90 1.0 m away from coherent sources. The separation
(c) 40 (d) 60. between two coherent sources is
939. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with (a) 1.0 mm (b) 0.1 mm
blue light and green light of wavelengths 4360 Å and (c) 0.05 mm (d) 0.01 mm.
5460 Å respectively. If y is the distance of 4th maxima
[MP PMT 1998]
from the central one, then
(a) yb = yg (b) yb > yg 946. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width
is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole apparatus is im-
yb 5460
(c) yb < yg (d) = . mersed in water of refractive index 4/3 without dis-
y g 4360
turbing the geometrical arrangement, the new fringe
940. The distance between two slits is 1 mm, wavelength width will be
of light used is 7000 Å and distance between slit and
(a) 0.30 mm (b) 0.40 mm
screen is 1 m. Then distance between 3rd black and
5th bright fringe is (c) 0.53 mm (d) 450 micron.
(a) 1.75 cm (b) 1.75 mm [CBSE PMT 1990]
(c) 1.05 mm (d) 0.875 mm. 947. Fig. 110 shows a double
941. A Young’s Double slit experiment is performed using slit experiment. P and Q nλ X
light of wavelength λ = 5000 Å, which emerges in are the slits. The path P
phase from two slits 3 × 10–7 m apart. A transparent lengths PX and QX are
(n + 2)λ
sheet of thickness t = 1.5 × 10–7 m is placed over one nλ and (n + 2) λ respec-
of the slits. The refractive index of the material of
tively, where n is a Q
this sheet is µ = 1.17. The central maximum of the
whole number and λ is
interference pattern appears at
the wavelength. Taking Fig. 110
(a) 3.50° (b) 8.84°
the central fringe as
(c) 8.48° (d) 4.88°.
zero, what is formed at
942. In two separate setups of the Young’s double slits
X?
experiment, fringes of equal width are observed when
lights of wavelengths in the ratio 1 : 2 are used. If the (a) First bright (b) First dark
ratio of the slit separation in two cases is 2 : 1, the (c) Second bright (d) Second dark.
ratio of distances, between the plane of slits and the
948. Two slits, 4 mm apart, are illuminated by light of
screen, in the two setups is
wavelength 6000 Å. What will be the fringe width on
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
a screen placed 2 m from the slits ?
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1.
(a) 0.12 mm (b) 0.3 mm
943. The two coherent sources with intensity ratio β pro-
duce interference. The fringe visibility will be (c) 3.0 mm (d) 4.0 mm.
(c) the intensity of minima will increase fringe of longer wavelength coincides with (n + 1)th
(d) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe. bright fringe of shorter wavelength. The value of n is
951. In Young’s experiment, the ratio of maximum and (a) 1 (b) 2
minimum intensities in the fringe system is 9 : 1. (c) 3 (d) 4.
The ratio of amplitudes of coherent sources is 957. In a Young’s experiment on interference, the distance
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 between the slits is d. The screen is at a distance D
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1. from the slits. If a bright fringe is formed, opposite
to a slit, on the screen then the order of fringe is
952. In the Young’s double slit experiment, a mica strip of
thickness t and refractive index µ is introduced in d2 2λD
(a) (b)
the ray from first source S1. By how much distance 2λD d2
fringe pattern will be displaced ? d 2d
(c) (d) .
λD λD
d D
(a) (µ − 1)t (b) (µ − 1)t 958. An interference is observed due to two coherent
D d
sources A and B separated by a distance 4λ along Y-
d D axis where λ is wavelength of source. A detector D is
(c) (d) (µ − 1) .
(µ − 1)D d moved along the positive X-axis. The number of points
on the X-axis excluding the points x = 0 and x = ∞ at
[Rajasthan PMT 1996] which maximum will be observed is
953. One slit of a double slit experiment is covered by a (a) 3 (b) 4
thin glass plate of refractive index 1.4, and the other (c) 5 (d) 6.
by a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.7. The point
959. Sodium light (λ = 6 × 10–7 m) is used to produce
on the screen where the central maximum fell before
interference pattern. The observed fringe width is
the glass plates were inserted is now occupied by what 0.12 mm. What is the angle between the two interfer-
had been the fifth bright fringe before. Assume the ing wave trains ?
plates to have the same thickness t and λ = 480 nm. (a) 3 × 10–3 rad (b) 4 × 10–3 rad
Then the value of t is
(c) 5 × 10–3 rad (d) 6 × 10–3 rad.
(a) 12.4 µm (b) 14.8 µm
960. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe pat-
(c) 8 µm (d) 3.2 µm. tern is observed on a screen placed at a distance D.
954. A parallel beam of light of wavelength greater than The slits are separated by d and are illuminated by
3500 Å falls on a double slit in a Young’s double slit light of wavelength λ. The distance from the central
experiment. It is found that wavelengths 4000 Å and point where the intensity falls to half the maximum
6000 Å are absent at a distance of 32 mm from the is
position of central maximum and the order of the λD λD
(a) (b)
interference at this point for the two wavelengths 3d 2d
differs by 8. If the distance between the slit and the λD λD
(c) (d) .
screen is 1 m, the separation between the two slits is d 4d
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.3 mm 961. Two coherent light waves propagate with a diver-
(c) 0.12 mm (d) 0.18 mm. gence angle θ < < 1. Waves have equal amplitude.
Distance between neighbouring maxima is
955. In Young’s experiment, the source slit S and the two
slits A and B are horizontal. With slit A above B, the λ
(a) λθ (b)
fringes are observed on a vertical screen K. The opti- θ
cal path length from S to B is increased very slightly, (c) λθ 2 (d) λ sin θ.
without changing the optical path length from S to 962. The intensity of light from one source is double of
A. Consequently, the fringe system on K the other coherent source in a double slit experiment.
(a) moves horizontally to the right The ratio of destructive to constructive interference
in the obtained pattern is
(b) moves horizontally to the left
1
(c) moves vertically downward (a) 34 (b)
34
(d) moves vertically upward.
1
(c) 17 (d) .
956. In Young’s double slit experiment, two lights of wave- 17
length 4800 Å and 6000 Å are used. The nth bright
OPTICS 533
963. In Young’s double slit experiment, carried out with wedge will 10th dark fringe be observed by reflected
light of wavelength λ = 5000 Å, the distance between light ?
the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.2 mm
the slits. The central maximum is at x = 0. The third (c) 0.3 mm (d) 0.4 mm.
maximum (taking central maximum as zeroth maxi- 970. White light may be considered to be a mixture of
mum) will be at x equal to waves of λ ranging between 3900 Å and 7800 Å. An
(a) 1.67 cm (b) 1.5 cm oil film of thickness 10,000 Å is examined normally
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm. by the reflected light. If µ = 1.4, then the film appears
[CBSE PMT 1992] bright for
964. A wedge-type air film is formed between the top face (a) 4000 Å, 4667 Å, 5600 Å, 7000 Å
of a crystal and a plane glass plate held a little above (b) 4308 Å, 5091 Å, 6222 Å
it. On shining the film with light of wavelength 6 × (c) 4000 Å, 5091 Å, 5600 Å
10–5 cm a number of interference fringes are observed. (d) 4667 Å, 6222 Å, 7000 Å.
On heating the crystal, the fringes start shifting. If
971. In Fig. 111, P and Q are identical radiators to f waves
we can detect a shift of one-fifth of a fringe-width,
the least count of measuring change in crystal height that are in phase and of the P
is, in 10–5 cm units, same wavelength λ. The radia-
(a) 6 × 4/5 (b) 6 × 2/5 tors are separated by dis- d
(c) 6/5 (d) 6/10. tance d = 3.00 λ. What is the
largest distance from P, along
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
the x-axis, for which fully de- Q
965. In Young’s double slit experiment, the phase differ- Fig. 111
structive interference occurs ?
ence between the light waves reaching third bright
(a) 8.75 λ (b) 2.5 λ
fringe from the central fringe will be
(a) Zero (b) 2π (c) 4.5 λ (d) 11.25 λ.
(c) 4π (d) 6π. [MP PMT 1994] 972. In an interference pattern, at a point, we observe the
16th order maximum for λ 1 = 6000 Å. What order
966. In a Young’s experiment λ = 4000 Å fringes observed will be visible here if the source is replaced by light of
have a width β. The light illuminating the setup now wavelength λ2 = 4800 Å ?
has λ = 6000 Å and the separation between the inter- (a) 16 (b) 18
fering sources is halved. What is the ratio of the dis-
(c) 20 (d) 24.
tance between the screen and the interfering sources
before and now if the fringe width remains unaltered ? 973. The path difference between two interfering waves at
a point on screen is 70.5 times the wavelength. The
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/1
point is
(c) 3/4 (d) 2/3. [IIT 1996] (a) dark (b) bright
967. In a certain double slit experimental arrangement, (c) not possible (d) green in colour.
interference fringes of width 1.0 mm each are ob- 974. What is the difference between B P
served when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keep- PA and PB ? D
A
ing the set up unaltered, if the source is replaced by B
λ D
another source of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe width (a) (b) λ B
2
will be B
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 1.0 mm 3λ
(c) (d) 2λ.
2 Fig. 112
(c) 1.2 mm (d) 1.5 mm.
968. In Young’s double slit experiment, using sodium 975. Green light of wavelength 5100 Å from a narrow slit
is incident on a double slit. If the overall separation
light (λ = 5898 Å), 92 fringes are seen. If given colour
of 10 fringes on a screen 3 m away is 3 cm, then the
(λ = 5461 Å) is used, how many fringes will be seen ?
double slit separation is
(a) 62 (b) 67
(a) 0.051 mm (b) 0.51 mm
(c) 85 (d) 99.
(c) 5.1 mm (d) 5.1 cm.
[Rajasthan PET 1996] 976. In a Young’s interference experiment, the nth maxi-
969. A glass wedge of angle 0.01 radian and µ = 1.5 is mum with wavelength λ 1 is at a distance y1. With
illuminated by monochromatic light of wavelength λ
6000 Å falling normally on it. At what distance from wavelength λ2, it is at a distance y2. Then, 1 =
λ2
534 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
y1 y2 (a) 2I (b) 4I
(a) (b)
y2 y1 (c) 5I (d) 7I.
2 [IIT Screening 2001]
y12 y
(c) (d) 22 . 982. In a Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are
y2 2 y1
observed to be formed in a certain segment of the
977. In a Young’s experiment, the distance of the second screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If
dark band is observed to be at a distance of 0.3 cm the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, number
from the central bright band. The distance of the 4th of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen
bright band from the centre is is given by
(a) 0.2 cm (b) 0.4 cm (a) 12 (b) 18
(c) 0.6 cm (d) 0.8 cm. (c) 24 (d) 30.
978. A thin wedge-shaped air film is trapped between two [IIT Screening 2001]
glass plates, as shown in Fig. 113, and a parallel beam 983. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 Å
of monochromatic light is incident normally on it. and 5200 Å, is used to obtain interference fringes in
The fringes observed are Young’s double slit experiment. Suppose the mth
bright fringe due to 6500 Å coincides with nth bright
fringe due to 5200 Å at a minimum distance from
the central maximum. Then
(a) m = 4 ; n = 5 (b) m = 5 ; n = 4
(c) m = 8 ; n = 10 (d) m = 10 ; n = 8.
[Karnataka CET 2001]
Glass
θ plates 984. In the set up shown in Fig. 115, both tubes T1 and T2
contain air having refractive index µ and a maxima
Fig. 113 is observed at O. The fringe system displaces upwards
(a) of irregular shape (b) straight by n = 15 fringes when T1 is filled with ammonia.
Length of tube is l and wavelength of light is λ. Re-
(c) circular (d) hyperbolic.
fractive index of ammonia is
979. In Young’s double slit experiment on interference,
the ratio of the intensities of a bright band and a
dark band is 16 : 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of the T1 S1
interfering waves is
1
(a) (b) 4 O
4
5 T2 S2
(c) (d) 16.
3
[Karnataka CET 1998] Slits
980. A thin slice is cut out of a glass Fig. 115
cylinder along a plane parallel
to its axis. The slice is placed 15λ 15λ
(a) µ + (b) µ −
on a flat glass plate as shown l l
in Fig. 114. The observed in- λ FG λ IJ .
terference fringes from this
(c) 15µ +
l
(d) 15 µ +
H l K
combination shall be Fig. 114
985. In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits are
(a) straight (b) circular at a distance d apart. Interference pattern is observed
(c) equally spaced on the screen at a distance D from the slits. At a
(d) having fringe spacing which increases as we go outwards point on the screen directly opposite one of the slits,
[IIT Screening 1999] a dark fringe is observed. The wavelength of wave is
nearly
981. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I inter-
d D
fere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase (a) (b)
D d
difference between the beams is π/2 at point A and π
at point B. Then the difference between the resultant d2 D
(c) (d) .
intensities at A and B is D d2
OPTICS 535
986. Fig. 116 here shows P and Q as two equally intense 989. In Fresenel biprism experiment, the distance between
coherent sources emitting radiations of wavelength the source and the screen is 1 m and that between
20 m. The separation PQ is 5 m, and phase of P is the source and the biprism is 10 cm. The wavelength
ahead of the phase of Q by 90°. A, B and C are three of light used is 6000 Å. The fringe width obtained is
distant points of observation equidistant from the 0.03 cm and the refracting angle of biprism is 1°. The
mid-point of PQ. The intensity of radiations at A, B, refractive index of the material of the biprism is
C will bear the ratio (a) 1.531 (b) 1.573
B (c) 1.621 (d) 1.732.
990. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation
between slits is 2 × 10 –3 m whereas the distance of
screen from the plane of slits is 2.5 m. Light of wave-
lengths in the range 2000 to 8000 Å is allowed to fall
on the slits. The wavelengths in the visible region
C P Q A that will be present on the screen at 10 –3 m from
Fig. 116 central maximum is
(a) 3500 Å (b) 4000 Å
(a) 0 : 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 : 0
(c) 6000 Å (d) 5000 Å.
(c) 0 : 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 : 0.
991. To obtain the central maximum at the centre, a mica
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1994] sheet of refractive index 1.5 is introduced. Which of
987. Two coherent sources separated by distance d are the following is correct ?
radiating in phase having wavelength λ. A detector
moves in a big circle around the two sources in the d
S1
plane of the two sources. The angular position of
n = 4 interference maxima is given as S
d
−1 nλ 4λ
(a) sin (b) cos−1
d d
d λ S2
(c) tan −1 (d) cos −1 .
4λ 4d
988. Two coherent monochromatic waves of equal ampli- D(>>d)
tude are brought together to interfere on a screen.
Which one of the following graphs correctly repre- Fig. 118
sents the variations of intensity with position x across
(a) The thickness of sheet is 2( 2 – 1)d in front of S1
the pattern of fringes ?
(b) The thickness of sheet ( 2 + 1)d in front of S2
Intensity
Intensity
Intensity
(a) 3/2 (b) 7 999. The central fringe of the interference pattern produced
(c) 15 (d) 24. by the light of wavelength 6000 Å is found to shift to
994. The distance between two slits is 0.03 cm. A screen is the position of 4th bright fringe after a glass sheet of
placed at a distance of 1.5 m where an interference refractive index 1.5 is introduced. The thickness of
pattern is observed in which fourth bright fringe is glass sheet would be
at 1 cm from the central maximum. The wavelength (a) 4.8 µm (b) 8.23 µm
of light used will be (c) 14.98 µm (d) 3.78 µm.
(a) 7000 Å (b) 6000 Å 1000. In Young’s double slit experiment, the interference
(c) 5000 Å (d) 4500 Å. pattern is observed to have an intensity ratio between
995. Coherent light is incident on two fine parallel slits S1 bright and dark fringes as 9 : 1. This implies that
and S2. A dark fringe occurs when the phase differ- (a) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 units
ence between the two waves from S1 and S2 is and 5 units.
F 2n + 1IJ π rad
(c) G
(d) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 units
H 2 K (d) (2n + 1) π rad. and 1 units. [Pb. PMT 1996]
1001. A thin sheet of glass (µ = 1.5) of thickness 6 micron
996. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength introduced in the path of one of interfering beams in
3 m. One beam reaches the observer directly and the a double slit experiment shifts the central fringe to a
other after reflection from a water surface, travelling position previously occupied by fifth bright fringe.
1.5 m extra distance and with intensity reduced to Then the wavelength of light used is
1/4, as compared to intensity due to the direct beam (a) 6000 Å (b) 3000 Å
alone. The resultant intensity will be (c) 4500 Å (d) 7500 Å.
(a) (1/4) fold (b) (3/4) fold 1002. In a double slit experiment, the separation between
(c) (5/4) fold (d) (9/4) fold. the slits is d and distance of the screen from slits is
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998] D. If the wavelength of light used is λ and I is the
intensity of central bright fringe, then intensity at
997. Fig. 119 shows two coherent distance x from central maximum is
sources S1 and S2 emitting at
F π2 xd I FG πxd IJ
wavelength λ. The separation
S1S2 is 1.5λ and S1 is ahead of
S1
θ
(a) I cos2 GH λD JK (b) I2 sin2
H 2λD K
phase by π/2 relative to S2 . Two FG πxd IJ FG πxd IJ .
H λD K H λD K
S2 (c) I cos2 (d) I sin2
of the maxima must occur in
Fig. 119
directions given by sin–1. 1003. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel
1 1 glass slab at a point A as shown. It undergoes partial
(a) 0, (b) 1,
2 2 reflection and refraction. At each reflection, 25% of
1 1 1 1 incident, energy is reflected. The rays AB and A′B′
(c) , − (d) , − .
6 2 2 6
Imax.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993] undergo interference. The ratio is
Imin.
998. In Fig. 120, two point
sources S1 and S2 emit P B B¢
waves of same wave- I
length ; S 2 lags in A
phase behind S1 by 2πp
A A¢
radian. If there is a
S1
maximum in the di- S2
rection P 1 , the dis- Fig. 120
tance S1 A must (with
n an integer) be C
(a) (n – p)λ (b) (n + p)λ
(c) nλ + p (d) (n – 1/2) λ + p.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996]
Fig. 121
OPTICS 537
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 used. What will be the distance between two consecu-
(c) 7 : 1 (d) 49 : 1. tive bright bands if blue light of wavelength 4500 Å is
used ?
1004. In a Young’s double slit interference experiment, one
(a) 0.3 mm (b) 0.4 mm
slit happens to have its width 4 times that of the
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.8 mm.
other. Assuming that intensity of outcoming light is
proportional to slit width, the ratio of the maximum 1010. A person sets up Young’s experiment using a sodium
to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is lamp and placing two slits 1 metre from a screen.
The person is not sure of slit separation and he var-
5
(a) 9 (b) ies the separation and finds that the interference
3 fringes disappear if the slits are too far apart. The
25
(c) 3 (d) . 1°
9 angular resolution of his eye is . How far apart
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992] 60
are the slits when he just cannot see the interference
1005. The slits in a Young’s double slit experiment have pattern ?
equal widths and the source is placed symmetrically
[λ = 5890 Å]
relative to the slits. The intensity at the central fringe
(a) 5 mm (b) 4.01 mm
is I0 . If one of the slits is closed, the intensity at this
(c) 2.025 mm (d) 3.025 mm.
point will be
1011. In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act
I
(a) I0 (b) 0 as coherent sources of equal amplitude A and wave-
4
length λ. In another experiment with the same setup,
I
(c) 0 (d) 4I0. [MP PMT 1999] the two slits are sources of equal amplitude A and
2 wavelength λ but are incoherent. The ratio of the in-
1006. Fig. 122 shows a tensity of light at the mid-point of the screen in the
double slit experi- Y
first case to that in the second case is
ment. P and Q are nλ (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
the two coherent (c) 4 : 1 (d) none of these.
P
sources. The path 1012. Fig. 123 shows Young’s double slit apparatus. S1 and
)λ
lengths PY and QY +4 S2 are coherent sources emitting light of wavelength
(n
are nλ and (n + 4) λ λ. Light waves are
Q
respectively where n emitted from S 1 P
is a whole number and S2 in phase. A
and λ is wavelength. point P on the
S1
Taking the central screen corresponds
Fig. 122 to position of 5th
bright fringe as
zero, what is formed at Y ? maximum. What is S2
the phase difference
(a) First Bright (b) First Dark
between waves when Fig. 123
(c) Fourth Bright (d) Second Dark.
they arrive at P ?
1007. In a biprism experiment, the distance of 20th bright (a) 5 π (b) 9 π
band from the centre of interference pattern is 8 mm.
(c) 10 π (d) 15 π.
The distance of 30th bright band from the centre is
1013. A student is
(a) 10 mm (b) 12 mm
asked to measure
(c) 14 mm (d) 16 mm.
the wavelength
1008. Two coherent waves of intensities I and 4I interfere of monochro-
S2
at a point. The resultant intensity is 3I. Then the matic light. He L S1 5 cm M
phase difference between the two waves at the point sets up the appa- S3
is ratus shown in
(a) 0° (b) 60° Fig. 124. S 1 , S 2
(c) 90° (d) 120°. and S3 are nar- 60 cm
1009. Distance between two consecutive dark bands is row parallel slits.
10 cm
0.4 mm when yellow light of wavelength 6000 Å is L is a sodium
Fig. 124
538 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
lamp. M is micrometer eye-piece. The student fails to 1019. In the Young’s slits arrangement shown, a pattern of
observe interference fringes. You would advise him equally spaced, parallel fringes appears on a screen
to placed at S.
(a) decrease the distance between S2 and S3 Which quantity, if increased, would cause the sepa-
(b) increase the widths of the slits ration of the fringes to increase ?
(c) replace L by a source of white light
(d) replace M by a telescope. Double
Single
1014. What is the least thickness of a soap film which will slit
slit
S
appear black when viewed with sodium light (λ =
589.3 nm) reflected perpendicular to the film ? Given :
y
µ of soap solution = 1.38.
(a) 213.5 nm (b) 428 nm d
Light
(c) 617 nm (d) 10000 Å. y
source
1015. Under which of the following sets of conditions will
the separation of the bright fringes of a double-slit
interference pattern be greatest ?
distance distance wavelength
x l
between from slits of source
slits to screen
(a) small small short Fig. 125
DIFFRACTION
1029. Light of wavelength 520 × 10–9 m falls normally on a
Fig. 126
plane diffraction grating having 5 × 103 lines per cm.
If, as shown in Fig. 126, the light is then allowed to The maximum number of images seen is
fall on a screen and if n is a positive integer, the (a) 5 (b) 50
condition for destructive interference at Q is that (c) 4 (d) 121.
(a) (l1 – l2) = (2n + 1) λ/2 (b) (l3 – l4) = (2n + 1)λ/2 1030. Light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a
(c) (l1 + l3) – (l2 + l4) = nλ slit. The first minimum of the diffraction pattern is
(d) (l1 + l3) – (l2 + l4) = (2n + 1)λ/2. formed at a distance of 5 mm from central maxi-
1025. A converging lens of long focal length is placed on a mum. The screen is situated at a distance of 2 m
plane mirror and illuminated normally with mono- from the slit. The slit width is
chromatic light so that interference fringes (Newton’s (a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.8 mm
rings) are visible. (c) 0.4 mm (d) 2.0 mm.
If the mirror is gradually separated from the lens, 1031. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident
(a) the ring system is unchanged normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is
(b) the central spot is unchanged but the distances between formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the di-
the other rings increase until they vanish from the field of rection of the incident beam. At the first minimum
view. of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between
(c) the central spot is unchanged but the distances between the rays coming from the two edges of the slit is
the other rings decrease until they merge. (a) 0 (b) π/2
(d) new rings ‘appear’ from the centre (c) π (d) 2π. [IIT 1998]
(e) rings ‘disappear’ at the centre. 1032. In a Fraunhoffer diffraction experiment at a single
1026. In Fig. 127, CP represents a Q O R slit using light of wavelength 400 nm, the first mini-
wavefront and AO and BP, the θθ
mum is formed at an angle of 30°. Then the direction
corresponding two rays. Find the d θ of the first secondary maximum is
condition on θ for constructive in- C
−1 FG 4 IJ
terference at P between the ray BP
and reflected ray OP.
A
P
(a) tan H 3K (b) 60°
−1 F 3 I FG 3 IJ
(c) sin GH JK
−1
(a) cos θ = 3λ/2d
(b) cos θ = λ/4d
B
Fig. 127
4
(d) tan H 4K
[Karnataka CET 1997]
(c) sec θ – cos θ = λ/d (d) sec θ – cos θ = 4λ/d.
[IIT Screening 2003]
540 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1033. The distance between the first and the sixth minima 1039. A beam of monochromatic light of wavelength λ falls
in the diffraction pattern of a single slit is 0.5 mm. normally on a diffraction grating of line spacing d. If
The screen is 0.5 m away from the slit. If the wave- θ is the angle between the second-order diffracted
length of light used is 5000 Å, then the slit width will beam and the direction of the incident light, what is
be the value of sin θ ?
(a) 5 mm (b) 2.5 mm
(a) λ/d (b) d/λ
(c) 1.25 mm (d) 1.0 mm.
(c) 2λ/d (d) 2d/λ
1034. A slit 5 cm wide is irradiated normally with (e) d/2λ.
microwaves of wavelength 1.0 cm. Then the angular
spread of the central maximum on either side of 1040. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength
incident light is nearly λ is incident normally on a diffraction grating G.
(a) 1/5 radian (b) 4 radian The angle between the directions of the two second-
(c) 5 radian (d) 6 radian. order diffracted beams at P1 and P2 is α, as shown in
the diagram below.
1035. In a diffraction grating experiment, the first order
image of the 435.8 nm blue light from a commercial
P1
mercury vapour discharge lamp occurred at an an-
gle of 15.8°. A first order red line was also observed
at 23.7°, thought to be produced by an impurity in
the mercury.
G
The wavelength of red lines of various elements are
listed below. Which element is the impurity in the
α
mercury lamp ?
element wavelength/nm
(a) zinc 636.0
(b) cadmium 643.3
(c) hydrogen 656.3
(d) neon 670.8 P2
(e) caesium 697.8.
1036. A narrow slit of width 1 mm is illuminated by Fig. 128
monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The What is the spacing of the lines on the grating ?
distance between the first minima on either side on a
4λ 2λ
screen at a distance of 2 m is (a) (b)
sin α sin α
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm
λ 2λ
(c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm. [IIT 1994] (c) (d)
sin α sin (α/2)
1037. Monochromatic light of wavelength λ is incident nor-
λ
mally on a diffraction grating consisting of alternate (e) .
sin (α/2)
opaque strips of width a and transparent strips of
width b. The angle between the emerging zero-order 1041. Consider Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern obtained
and first-order spectra depends on with a single slit illuminated at normal incidence. At
(a) a, b and λ (b) a and λ only the angular position of the first diffraction minimum
(c) b and λ only (d) a and b only the phase difference (in radian) between the wavelets
(e) λ only. from the opposite edges of the slit is
1038. When monochromatic light of wavelength 5.0 × 10–7 π π
(a) (b)
m is incident normally on a plane diffraction grat- 4 2
ing, the second-order diffraction lines are formed at (c) π (d) 2π. [IIT 1995]
angles of 30° to the normal to the grating. 1042. Light of wavelength λ is incident normally on a dif-
What is the number of lines per millimetre of the fraction grating for which the slit spacing is equal to
grating ? 3λ.
(a) 250 (b) 500 What is the sine of the angle between the second order
(c) 1000 (d) 2000 maximum and the normal ?
(e) 4000.
OPTICS 541
1 1 1047. Monochromatic light of wavelength λ is incident
(a) (b)
6 3 normally on a single slit RS of width a. The diffraction
2 pattern is formed on a screen PP′. The first minimum
(c) (d) 1
3 of this pattern makes an angle θ with the direction of
3 the incident light, as shown in Fig. 130.
(e) .
2
1043. A monochromatic plane wave of speed X
P
Monochromatic
c and wavelength λ is diffracted at a P light
small aperture. The diagram illus- R
trates successive wavefronts. θ
After what time will some portion S
of the wavefront XY reach P ?
3λ 2λ Y
(a) (b) P′
2c c
3λ 4λ Fig.129 Diffraction
(c) (d) pattern
c c
6λ Fig. 130
(e) .
c
Description for Questions 1044 and 1045 . Which one of the following gives the correct expres-
Theory of diffraction of waves tells that any beam sions both for the path difference (SP—RP) and for
limited in transverse width by an amount d shows sin θ ?
an extra angular spread λ/d besides the spread oth- (SP—RP) sin θ
erwise expected. Here λ is the wavelength of the waves. (a) λ/2 λ/2a
Typical examples are a telescope lens of aperture dia (b) λ/2 λ/a
d receiving light, or a circular disc of dia d oscillat- (c) λ/2 2λ/a
ing normal to itself and emitting sound waves ; in (d) λ λ/2a
each case angular spread λ/d occurs besides what (e) λ λ/a.
the geometry would suggest. 1048. Fig. 131 here shows a wavefront of light of wave-
Now answer questions 1044 and 1045 : length λ incident normally on a slit of width d. For a
distant observation point at inclination θ, the dis-
1044. A coastal guardship uses 50 cm dia disc to send sound
turbances from the ends A and B are represented by
waves of λ = 2 mm to make undersea studies. At
the ‘amplitude vectors’ (phasors) P and Q respectively.
200 m distance, the accuracy with which it can lo-
The angle ∆φ is given by
cate objects is nearest to
(a) 5 m (b) 1 m w
1063. Light is incident from vacuum on the surface of a (a) 1, 3 only (b) 2, 4 only
medium of reflective index µ. If the angle of incidence (c) 3, 4 only (d) all four.
obeys the relation i = tan–1 (µ), the angle between the [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993]
reflected and refracted rays is 1069. An unpolarised beam of light is incident on a group
(a) 30° (b) 45° of four polarising sheets which are arranged in such
a way that the characteristic direction of each polar-
(c) 90° (d) 135°.
ising sheet makes an angle of 30° with that of the
1064. Light from a denser medium 1 passes to a rarer me- preceding sheet. The % age of incident light trans-
dium 2. When the angle of incidence is θ, the reflected mitted by first polariser will be
and refracted rays are mutually perpendicular. The (a) 100% (b) 50%
critical angle will be (c) 25% (d) 12.5%.
(a) sin–1 (cot θ) (b) sin–1 (tan θ) 1070. Six polarisers are arranged in series with each
(c) sin–1 (cos θ) (d) sin–1 (sec θ). polariser making an angle 30° with the preceding one.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000] If unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident upon
the first polariser, what is the intensity of light emerg-
1065. A plane polarised beam of in- E ing from the final polariser ?
tensity I is incident on a P 243
9 3 I0 I0
polariser with the electric vec- (a) (b)
132 1024
tor inclined at 30° to the Optic A 243
axis of the polariser. Light com- (c) I0 (d) Nearly zero.
2048
ing out of the polariser passes 30°
30° 1071. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 W m –2 passes
through an analyser whose op- through three polarisers such that the transmission
tic axis is inclined at 30° to that axis of the last polariser is crossed with the first. If
Fig. 133 the intensity of emerging light is 3 W–2 m2, what is
of polariser. Intensity of light
coming out of the analyser is the angle between the transmission axes of the first
two polarisers ?
9 3
(a) I (b) I (a) 30° (b) 45°
16 4
(c) 60° (d) 90°.
1 3
(c) I (d) I. 1072. Four polaroids are placed such that the optic axis of
4 2 each is inclined at an angle of 30° with the optic axis
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997] of the preceding one. If unpolarised light of intensity
1066. Suppose θ is the polarising angle for a transparent I0 falls on the first polaroid, then the light transmitted
medium and the speed of light in that medium is v. from the fourth is
Then according to Brewster law 1
(a) I0 (b) I0
(a) θ = cot–1 (v/c) (b) θ = cos–1 v 16
(c) θ = sin–1 v (d) θ = cosec–1 v. (c) 0.21 I0 (d) 0.93 I0.
[Karnataka CET 1987] 1073. Linearly polarised light is incident at Brewster angle
on the surface of a medium. If the incident beam is
1067. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass polarised parallel to the plane of incidence, then the
plate of refractive index 1.55 at the polarising angle. parallel component of light is
The angle of refraction is
(a) partly refracted (b) completely refracted
(a) 57° 11′ (b) 32° 49′
(c) completely reflected (d) completely absorbed.
(c) 147° 11′ (d) 0°.
1068. A beam of light is passed through a polariser and an 1074. Refractive indices of a crystal for ordinary and spe-
analyser. The latter is then set for maximum inten- cial rays are 1.5442 and 1.5533 respectively. The thick-
sity of transmission. To reduce the intensity to 14 1
ness of a wave plate of the crystal for light of wave-
fraction, one tries four ways of turning the analyser 4
(A) and polariser (P) length 5893 Å is
(a) 1.02 × 10–4 m (b) 1.00 × 10–6 m
1. A + 20°, P – 40°, 2. A + 75°, P + 15°,
(c) 1.16 × 10–5 m (d) 1.61 × 10–5 m.
3. A – 60°, P – 0°, 4. A 0°, P – 60°.
Here + and – stand for clockwise and anti-clockwise 1075. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60°.
turning. Which one will work ? If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
to each other, then the index of refraction of glass is
544 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
669. (b) 670. (b) 671. (c) 672. (a) 673. (a) 674. (c) 675. (b) 676. (a)
677. (b) 678. (b) 679. (d) 680. (c) 681. (a) 682. (b) 683. (c) 684. (a)
685. (c) 686. (a) 687. (b) 688. (b) 689. (c) 690. (c) 691. (c) 692. (b)
693. (b) 694. (a) 695. (a) 696. (b) 697. (d) 698. (c) 699. (a) 700. (b)
701. (b) 702. (c) 703. (b) 704. (c) 705. (c) 706. (b) 707. (b) 708. (b)
709. (a) 710. (a) 711. (d) 712. (b) 713. (c) 714. (a) 715. (b) 716. (d)
717. (d) 718. (b) 719. (c) 720. (b) 721. (c) 722. (c) 723. (a) 724. (b)
725. (c) 726. (c) 727. (a) 728. (b) 729. (c) 730. (b) 731. (b) 732. (d)
733. (a) 734. (d) 735. (b) 736. (b) 737. (b) 738. (a) 739. (b) 740. (b)
741. (a) 742. (d) 743. (a) 744. (c) 745. (a) 746. (d) 747. (d) 748. (b)
749. (b) 750. (d) 751. (a) 752. (c) 753. (d) 754. (d) 755. (b) 756. (c)
757. (d) 758. (c) 759. (d) 760. (c) 761. (a) 762. (c) 763. (d) 764. (c)
765. (b) 766. (b) 767. (b) 768. (b) 769. (b) 770. (d) 771. (d) 772. (a)
773. (c) 774. (c) 775. (c) 776. (d) 777. (d) 778. (a) 779. (a) 780. (a)
781. (a) 782. (b) 783. (b) 784. (b) 785. (a) 786. (c) 787. (c) 788. (a)
789. (b) 790. (a) 791. (c) 792. (c) 793. (b) 794. (d) 795. (d) 796. (a)
797. (c) 798. (c) 799. (b) 800. (b) 801. (b) 802. (a) 803. (d) 804. (b)
805. (d) 806. (b) 807. (a) 808. (b) 809. (b) 810. (c) 811. (d) 812. (d)
813. (c) 814. (d) 815. (b) 816. (a) 817. (c) 818. (d) 819. (c) 820. (c)
821. (b) 822. (b) 823. (a) 824. (c) 825. (b) 826. (b) 827. (c) 828. (c)
829. (a) 830. (a) 831. (c) 832. (b) 833. (b) 834. (a) 835. (b) 836. (b)
837. (c) 838. (d) 839. (a) 840. (b) 841. (c) 842. (b) 843. (c) 844. (d)
845. (b) 846. (c) 847. (a) 848. (c) 849. (d) 850. (b) 851. (d) 852. (d)
853. (d) 854. (b) 855. (c) 856. (a) 857. (a) 858. (c) 859. (d) 860. (b)
861. (a) 862. (b) 863. (a) 864. (c) 865. (c) 866. (c) 867. (c) 868. (b)
869. (b) 870. (a) 871. (a) 872. (b) 873. (a) 874. (d) 875. (a) 876. (b)
877. (a) 878. (b) 879. (e) 880. (c) 881. (d) 882. (b) 883. (c) 884. (c)
885. (a) 886. (c) 887. (d) 888. (d) 889. (c) 890. (c) 891. (d) 892. (b)
893. (b) 894. (a) 895. (c) 896. (a) 897. (b) 898. (b) 899. (b) 900. (c)
901. (c) 902. (b) 903. (a) 904. (b) 905. (c) 906. (b) 907. (a) 908. (b)
909. (a) 910. (d) 911. (c) 912. (b) 913. (c) 914. (c) 915. (a) 916. (a)
917. (a) 918. (d) 919. (d) 920. (b) 921. (c) 922. (a) 923. (c) 924. (d)
925. (a) 926. (c) 927. (a) 928. (b) 929. (b) 930. (a) 931. (d) 932. (d)
933. (d) 934. (a) 935. (a) 936. (d) 937. (a) 938. (c) 939. (c) 940. (b)
941. (d) 942. (a) 943. (a) 944. (a) 945. (b) 946. (a) 947. (c) 948. (b)
949. (c) 950. (b) 951. (c) 952. (b) 953. (c) 954. (b) 955. (c) 956. (d)
957. (a) 958. (a) 959. (c) 960. (d) 961. (b) 962. (b) 963. (b) 964. (d)
965. (d) 966. (b) 967. (c) 968. (d) 969. (b) 970. (b) 971. (a) 972. (c)
973. (a) 974. (d) 975. (b) 976. (a) 977. (d) 978. (b) 979. (c) 980. (a)
981. (b) 982. (b) 983. (a) 984. (a) 985. (c) 986. (d) 987. (b) 988. (c)
989. (b) 990. (b) 991. (a) 992. (d) 993. (b) 994. (c) 995. (d) 996. (d)
997. (d) 998. (b) 999. (a) 1000. (d) 1001. (a) 1002. (c) 1003. (d) 1004. (a)
1005. (b) 1006. (c) 1007. (b) 1008. (d) 1009. (a) 1010. (c) 1011. (b) 1012. (c)
1013. (a) 1014. (a) 1015. (c) 1016. (d) 1017. (a) 1018. (d) 1019. (d) 1020. (a)
1021. (e) 1022. (b) 1023. (a) 1024. (d) 1025. (e) 1026. (b) 1027. (c) 1028. (c)
1029. (c) 1030. (a) 1031. (d) 1032. (c) 1033. (b) 1034. (a) 1035. (b) 1036. (d)
1037. (a) 1038. (b) 1039. (c) 1040. (d) 1041. (d) 1042. (c) 1043. (c) 1044. (b)
1045. (b) 1046. (c) 1047. (e) 1048. (c) 1049. (c) 1050. (b) 1051. (b) 1052. (b)
1053. (d) 1054. (a) 1055. (a) 1056. (a) 1057. (d) 1058. (c) 1059. (a) 1060. (b)
1061. (c) 1062. (b) 1063. (c) 1064. (b) 1065. (a) 1066. (a) 1067. (b) 1068. (d)
OPTICS 547
1069. (b) 1070. (c) 1071. (a) 1072. (c) 1073. (b) 1074. (d) 1075. (b) 1076. (b)
1077. (b) 1078. (a) 1079. (b) 1080. (b) 1081. (c) 1082. (a) 1083. (a) 1084. (c)
1085. (c) 1086. (c) 1087. (a) 1088. (b) 1089. (c) 1090. (d) 1091. (c) 1092. (c)
1093. (c) 1094. (d) 1095. (a) 1096. (c) 1097. (a) 1098. (b) 1099. (a) 1100. (c)
1101. (a) 1102. (d) 1103. (a).
1 4
or =
x 100 − x
250 × 2.5 250 × 3.5
or 5x = 100 or x = 20 cm E= +
3
( 2 × 2.5) (3.52 + 2.52 )3 / 2
I cos 60°
583. 5 × 10−4 =
200 × 200
or I = 5 × 10–4 × 4 × 104 × 2 q
= 40 cp. q
2
Luminous flux
×
3.
584. Power of lamp =
2.
2
5
5
×
m
3.5
2.
2
5
4 πI 4 π × 30 120π
m
= = = = 24π watt.
5 5 5
3I 2I 2.5
585. =
1.2 × 1.2 (1.2 − x)2 2.5
586. Luminous flux in lumen
Fig. 134 Fig. 135
3 × 0.685
= lm
1.50 × 10−3 625 875
=+ = 14.14 + 10.99 = 25.13 lux
= 1.370 × 103 lm. 44.2 79.6
25 592. The fluorescent tube is to be regarded as a line source.
587. Light falling in 8 second = × 8. The wavefront is cylindrical. The flux 4πI passes
162
through the curved surface of area 2πrl.
In the second case, total amount of light falling in t
4πI 2I
40 Illuminance = =
second = ×t 2πrl rl
242
Equating, we get the result. 2 × 100
= lux = 40 lux
588. In the given problem, it is understood that the light 5×1
I 593. The image clearly coincides with the source. If E and
beam is perpendicular to the surface. So, E = 2 .
r E′ represent illuminance with and without mirror
Again, E is given to be constant. So, I ∝ r2. respectively, then
I1 4×4 1
= =
I2 12 × 12 9
548 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1500 1500
598. =
4π 4 × 3.142
= 119.35 ≈ 120 cd
599. Power of lamp
luminous flux
r r =
luminous efficiency
or luminous flux
= 12 × 10 = 120 lumen
Luminous flux over a solid angle of π steradian
Fig. 136 120
lumen = 30 lumen
=
2 4
E 2I/r 2
= = I I I
E′ I/r 2 1 600. E1 = 2 , E2 = 2 + 2
r r 9r
594. Note that the beam of light is parallel.
E1 I 9r2 E2 10
I cos θ = 2 × or =
595. Eedge = 2 2 E2 r 10 I E1 9
r +h
I h θ I 50
= × 601. × 20 = 2 × 10
4
√r
r 2 + h2 1 h
2
r 2 + h2 h
+h
or I = 100 cd d
2
Ih
= I I I
( r 2 + h2 ) 3 / 2 602. + cos 45° = h
√2 h
r
h2 2 h2 (h − d)2
100 × 2 45°
Now, Eedge =
9 LM
3/ 2
OP Fig. 137
1+
1
=
h2
4
+4
N Q 2 2 ( h − d )2
Fig. 138
=
200 × 8
=
1600 FG h−d IJ 2 2 2 2.828
(25)3 / 2 125
or
H h K = =
2 2 + 1 3.828
100 25 h−d
Again, = 2 or h′ = 1 m or =
22 h′ 0.74 = 0.86
h
25 × 1 25 × 8 200
Now, E′ edge = = = d
9 FG
3 /2
(13)3/2
(IJ
13)3 / 2 or
h
= 1 – 0.86 = 0.14 or d = 0.14 h
4
+1
H K I1 64
200 1600 603. =
Again, = x× I2 100
(13)3 / 2 125
I1 64
125 125 1– = 1−
or x= = I2 100
8 (13)3 / 2 374.97
125 1 I2 − I1 36 I2 − I1
≈ = or = or × 100 = 36
375 3 I2 100 I2
Ecentre I (r 2 + h2 )3 / 2 I I cos 60°
596. = 2 × 604. × 12 = t or t = 24 s
2
Eedge h Ih r r2
FG 1 + 1IJ 3/2
I
(r + h ) 2 2 3/ 2 H4 K F 5I
= G J
3/2 605. 40 =
1× 1
or I = 40 cd
=
h3
=
13 H 4K 40 × 1 40 20
36 80 Again, E= 2 2 3/2
= =
597. t1 = × 10 (1 + 1 ) 8 2
3×3 2×2
= 10 2 = 10 × 1.414 = 14.14 lux.
200 × 9
or t1 = s = 50 s
36
OPTICS 549
606. Let us consider illuminance under B1 B2 B3
2E
B2. 2.5 m 2.5 m
615. Force = rate of change of momentum =
c
200 200 × 3
E = 2 +2× 3m
2 × 10
3 [2.52 + 32 ]3 / 2 = N = 0.67 × 10–7 N = 6.7 × 10–8 N
200 1200 3 × 108
= + Fig. 139
9 59.55 1 1 1
= 22.22 + 20.15 616. + =
u v f
= 42.37 ≈ 42 lux.
607. Refer to illustrations. 1 1 1 f − x2 + f − x1 1
+ = or =
2 2 3/ 2 f − x1 f − x2 f ( f − x1)( f − x2 ) f
Ecentre I (r + h )
608. = 2 ×
Eedge h Ih or f 2 – fx2 – fx1 + x1x2 = 2f2 – f(x1 + x2)
(r 2 + h2 )3 / 2 F1 + r I
2 3 /2 or f 2 = x1x2 or f = x1 x2
=
h3
= GH h JK
2 This is Newton’s mirror formula.
LM 64 OP 3/ 2
+ Never give sign to the unknown quantity.
= 1+
N 64 Q =2 2
0.5 1 1 1
609. ∆ω = 617. + =
5×5 − 20 v 20
Luminous flux = I ∆ω
0.5 1 2 1
or = = or v = 10 cm.
= 500 × lumen = 10 lumen v 20 10
5×5
610. The total solid angle is 4π. For a cone of semi-angle θ,
618.
the solid angle is πθ2. If these are clear, the rest follows.
Laser intensity is 4/θ2 times larger on this account : 60°
directionality of laser versus isotropicity of ordinary
30 °
°
60°
30
light.
611. 40 40
2
×3= t
25 502 30°
°
40 × 3 × 50 × 50 60° 60° 30
or t= s = 12 s
25 × 25 × 40
Fig. 140
612. Intensity ∝ 1/d2
∴ Iedge (r2 + h2) = Icentre (h2). δ = 2 (180° – 2 × 30°)
613. If r is the initial distance, then the new distance is = 2 (180° – 60°) = 240°
3r f
. 619. m=
4 f −u
I′ 16 FG I′ − 1IJ × 100 = FG 16 − 1IJ × 100
I
=
9 HI K H9 K 2=
− 0.2
− 0.2 − u
700
= = 77.77 0.2
9 or 2= or 0.4 + 2u = 0.2
0.2 + u
I′ 16
614. = or 2u = 0.2 – 0.4 = – 0.2
I 9
or u = – 0.1 m.
I′ 16 620. Reflections are not affected by medium.
− 1= −1
I 9 621. In the case of plane mirror, the size of image is the
I′ − I 7 I′ − I 700 same as the size of object.
or = or × 100 = = 77.77.
I 9 I 9
550 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
633. 637.
q
R q
2 q
p–
q 2q
x
Fig. 143
Fig. 145
x R x R 2θ + 45° = 180° or 2θ = 135° or θ = 67.5°
= or =
sin θ sin(π – 2θ) sin θ sin2θ
638.
x R R
or = or x=
sin θ 2 sin θ cos θ 2 cos θ
+ A common misconception
R
f = is valid under all situations! This I1
2
is incorrect. This relation is true only if the aper-
ture of the mirror is small. f f
360° 10 mm
640. n= =5 tan 60° =
72° x
10 mm 10
360 3= or x= mm
Note that is odd and object lies asymmetrically. x 3
θ
20
2x = mm.
641. 3
Number of reflections
2000 × 3
= = 100 × 1.732 = 173.2.
20
O I
1 π
3m 3m 646. θ= × radian
2 180
Diameter of image
4.5 m =θ
focal length
7.5 m
or Diameter of image
Fig. 148
1 π 15
×
= × × 100 cm = 6.55 cm.
642. v cos 45° = 20 2 2 180 2
v 1 1 1
= 20 2 647. + =
or or v = 40 cm s–1 20 v 20
2
1
The velocity of the image formed by the roof is the or =0 ⇒ v = ∞ .
same as the velocity of insect. v
648. ∆s IAB and ICD are similar.
So, (c) is the correct choice.
C
643. A thick glass mirror produces a number of images.
There is an apparent shift of actual silvered surface
towards the unsilvered face. A
Effective distance of the reflecting surface from
F
I E
d 3 O
unsilvered face = = cm = 2 cm.
µ 3/2
B
Distance of point object from effective reflecting sur-
face = 9 cm + 2 cm = 11 cm.
D
Distance of image from point object = 11 cm + 11 cm
Fig. 150
= 22 cm.
Distance of image from unsilvered face = (22 – 9) cm CD IE 3L
= 13 cm. = = =3
AB IF L
CD = 3AB = 3d
+ The second image is the brightest because 649.
this is produced as a result of first reflection at
the silvered face. θ
90 – θ
1 1 1 1 1 θ 90
644. + = or = or f = 10 cm. –θ
20 20 f f 10
645.
90 – θ
–θ
90
30° 10 mm θ θ θ
60°
Fig. 151
x
Fig. 149 θ + θ + θ = 180° or 3θ = 180° or θ = 60°
OPTICS 553
650. Clearly, the given mirror is a convex mirror.
v1 −3 FG IJ FG − 1IJ 2 = –1 m
m=
f or I1 = −
u
O=−
2 H KH 3K
f −u
I2 v
Again, =− 2
1 18 O v
= or 3 × 18 = 18 – u
3 18 − u
FG − 5 IJ FG 1 IJ 2 = – 0.5 m.
or u = –2 × 18 cm or u = – 36 cm. or I2 = −
H 4 K H − 5K
652. 654. Due to glass slab, increase in path
= (µ – 1) t = (1.5 – 1) 3 cm = 1.5 cm
P I
∴ u′ = – (21 + 1.5) cm
or u′ = – 22.5 cm
1 1 1
O Now, + =
− 22.5 v − 5
15 cm 1 1 1 1 5 − 22.5
20 cm or = − or =
20 cm v 22.5 5 v 22.5 × 5
25 cm 22.5 × 5
or v=− cm or v = – 6.43 cm.
17.5
Fig. 152
Geometrical distance
Clearly, the distance of I from P is 15 cm. = – (6.43 – 1.5) cm = – 4.93 cm.
Now, u = – 25 cm, v = 15 cm,
1 1 1 1 1 1
f = ? 655. + = or = +
− 900 v 30 v 900 30
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = or = + 1 1 + 30 900
u v f f − 25 15 or = or v= cm ≈ 30 cm.
v 900 31
1 −3+5 75
or
f
=
75
or f = cm = 37.5 cm + Do not be confused by some useless data
2
in the problem.
653. For A
u = – 3 m, v1 = ?, f = – 1 m
656.
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
= − = − = − 1= −
v1 f u −1 −3 3 3 –θ
90°
20°
3
or v1 = − m
2 90°
–θ
For B
90°
1 1 1 1 1 4
= − or = − 1= −
v2 − 1 − 5 v2 5 5
θ 90°
5
or v2 = − m
4 Fig. 153
3 FG 5IJ 90 – θ + 90 + 20 + 90 – θ = 180°
Now, v1 − v2 = −
2
− −
H 4 K or –2θ + 110° = 0 or θ = 55°
3 5 1
=− + =− m = – 0.25 m
2 4 4
I1 v
Again, =− 1
O u
554 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
660. A′ A
657.
C M
I3 I2 8 cm 2 cm I1
G F
O E
8 cm 2 cm
10 cm
D
12 cm
B′ B
N
Fig. 156
M1 M2
As ECD and EA′ B′ are similar.
Fig. 154 CD EF EF 1
= or CD = × A ′ B′ = AB
I1 is the image, of O, formed by M2. It is at a distance A ′ B′ EG EG 3
of 2 cm from M2. 1
= × 12 m = 4 m
3
I2 is the image of O formed by M1. Its distance from
M1 is 8 cm. Distance from M2 is 18 cm. 1.6
661. f = m = 0.8 m, u = − 1 m
2
I3 is the image of I1 formed by M1. Distance of I1 from
1 1 1 10 18 9
M1 is 12 cm. Distance of I3 from M1 is 12 cm. Dis- = − = + 1= =
tance of I3 from M2 = (12 + 10) cm = 22 cm. v 0.8 − 1 8 8 4
4
1 1 1 or v= m
658. + = 9
u v f 4
v 4
du dv dv du 662. m=– =− 9 =
− 2
− 2
=0 or − 2
= 2 u −1 9
u v v u
I f
2 663. =
v O u
or dv = − du
u2 f 6/2
I= ×O = × 864100 m
10 × 10 u 92900000
=− × 9 m s –1 = – 1 m s–1 = 0.0279 m = 27.9 mm ≈ 28 mm.
30 × 30
f
664. m=
659. M2 f −u
1 f
60° = or f − u = nf
30° n f −u
60° 30°
or – u = nf – f = (n – 1) f
665.
i
i
i i – i
90°
60° 90° – i
M1
90°
θ
90° –
Fig. 155 θ
θ
60° + 60° + 90° – i = 180°
or i = 30°
Fig. 157
OPTICS 555
90° + 90° – i + 90° – θ = 180° sin i tan i x 15 24
673. µ= ≈ = =
or i + θ = 90° or θ = 90° – i sin r tan r x 24 15
1 1 1 1 1
666. = + = + C
f u v − 0.2 − 0.3 r
− 0.3 − 0.2 − 0.50
= =
0.06 0.06
0.06 6
or f =− m =− × 1000 mm = – 120 mm.
0.50 50
FG f IJ 2 i
667. Length of image =
H f − uK b
r
1 1 1
+ + =
u v f x
du dv P
− 2 − 2 =0
u v Fig. 158
dv du 2
dv v 674. The angle subtended at the centre of curvature is
or − 2 = 2 or =− 2 clearly one radian. So, the field of view is 2 radian.
v u du u
675. For upright portion
668. f = – 10 cm, O = 5 cm,
− 10
u = – 100 cm, I = ? f −5
m= = 2 =
I f − 10
= f −u − (− 20) − 5 + 20
O f −u 2
− 10 − 10 −5 1
I= ×5 = × 5 cm = =−
− 10 − ( − 100) 90 15 3
= – 0.55 cm FG 1IJ 2
1
669. Image will still be formed on the white screen but
For horizontal portion, magnification is −
H 3K i. e.
9
.
with less intensity.
−13
1 1 1 1 1 1 Required ratio is = − 3: 1
670. + = or =− + 19
u v f v u f
f
Now, compare with y = mx + c. 676. m=
f −u
1 1 1
671. + = −f
u v f 2= or −2 f − 2u = − f
− f −u
1 1 1 1 2 f
+ = or = or v= −f
−f v f v f 2 or 2f + 2u = f or 2u = – f or u =
2
672. For concave mirror
1 30
15 677. = or 120 = 30 – u
u=− cm, v = ? 4 30 − u
2
or u = (30 – 120) cm = – 90 cm
10
f =− cm = – 5 cm 360°
2 678. =4
90°
1 1 1 1 1
= − = − n=4–1=3
v f u − 5 − 15/2
679. Let u=–x
1 2 −1
=− + = 1 1 1
5 15 15 + =–
− x − x − 10 12
or v = – 15 cm
1 1 1
Clearly, the position of the final image is on the pole or + =
of the convex mirror. x x + 10 12
556 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
x + 10 + x 1 1.5 R
or = or v= = 6R
x( x + 10) 12 0.25
2 x + 10 1
or 2
=
x + 10 x 12
or x2 + 10x = 24x + 120
or x2 – 14x – 120 = 0
x2 – 20x + 6x – 120 = 0
or x(x – 20) + 6(x – 20) = 0 4R
or x + 6 = 0 or x – 20 = 0
6R
or x = – 6 or x = 20
∴ u = – x = 6 or – 20 cm Fig. 159
− 30 µ 2 µ1 µ − µ2
Now, m = = − 15
. Again, + = 1
− 20 −u v R
680. Think in terms of rectangular hyperbola. 1.5 125
. 1.25 − 15
.
I f + =
= − 4R v −R
681.
O f −u 1.25 1 1.5 2.5
f or = + =
I= × 4 cm = 2 cm v 4R 4R 4R
f − ( − f) 1.25 × 4R 5R
or v = =
682. nth order image formed by one mirror is at a distance 2.5 2.5
a or v = 2R
of (2n – 1) from this mirror. Distance from centre = 3R.
2
nth order image formed by the second mirror is at a 688. i > ic
a 45° > ic
distance of (2n – 1) from this mirror. or sin 45° > sin ic
2
a a 1
Required distance is (2n − 1) + a + (2n − 1) = 2na. or > sin ic
2 2 2
360 360 1 1
683. n= −1 or 3= −1 or > or 2 < n
θ θ 2 n
360 or n> 2
or =4 or θ = 90°
θ 689. The effective focal length is given by
684. λR > λG > λV
1 2 1
µR < µG < µV = +
F fl fm
(ic)R > (ic)G > (ic)V
It follows from VIBGYOR that the critical angles for 1 FG
1 1 1 IJ
yellow, orange and red are greater than the critical
angle for green. This decides in favour of (a).
But
fl
= (1.5 − 1)
H +
∞ 30
=
60 K
685. The rays from the object fall normally on the surface or 2 1
= Fig. 160
of the sphere and emerge undeviated. fl 30
686. For the case of concave lens, n2 > n. Again, R = 30 cm
For the case of convex lens of smaller power, n1 < n or
n > n1. R
fm = = 15 cm
2
687. µ1 µ2 µ2 − µ1
+ =
−u v R 1 1 1
Now, = +
1.25 1.5 1.5 − 1.25 1.5 0.25 F 30 15
+ = or =
− (− ∞) v R v R 1 1+ 2 3 1
or = = = or F = 10 cm
F 30 30 10
OPTICS 557
To have a real image of the size of the object, the 1 1
object must be placed at the centre of curvature of the 697. sin ic = = or ic = 48.6°
µ 1.33
equivalent mirror. Angle with horizon = 90° – 48.6° = 41.4°
So, the required distance is 2 × 10 cm i.e. 20 cm.
698. µ g sin θ c = µ 1 sin 90°
690. or µ g sin θ c = 1
When water is poured,
O 20 cm
40 cm µ w sin r = µ g sin θ c
5 cm
h or µ w sin r = 1
Again, µ a sin θ = µ w sin r
1 2
705. r or = (µ − 1 + 1)
F R
ic ic or R
F= Fig. 168
2µ
h
−R
ic Now, − 20 =
2µ
or 40 µ = R ...(2)
Dividing (1) by (2), we get
Fig. 165 120 (µ − 1) R
= =1
r 40µ R
tan ic = or 120 (µ – 1) = 40 µ
h
1 or 120 µ – 40 µ = 120
Also sin ic = µ or 80 µ = 120
µ
1
1 120 3
tan ic = or µ= = = 1.5
2
ic 80 2
µ −1
µ
2
–1
r 1 30 cm
∴ = 707.
h 2 Fig. 166
µ −1
h
or r=
2
µ −1 20 cm
2
3.14 × 2.75 × 2.75
Required area = πr2 = πh
O I
=
2
µ −1 16
−1
9
3.14 × 2.75 × 2.75 × 9 2 15 cm 10 cm
= m
7
= 30.5 m2 Fig. 169
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
706. = + + − =
F fl fl fm v −15 10
1 2 1 1 1 1 1 3−2
= + or = − or =
F fl fm v 10 15 v 30
or v = 30 cm
1 1 1 FG IJ
or
F
= 2 (µ − 1)
R
+
∞ H K Clearly, the rays coming from the convex lens should
fall normally on the convex mirror. In other words,
R the rays should be directed towards the centre of cur-
or Fig. 167
F= vature of the convex mirror.
2 (µ − 1)
∴ 2f = 20 cm or f = 10 cm.
OPTICS 559
FG 4 IJ Also
1
= sin θC or θC = 30°
ic = sin −1
H 5K 2
0.5 1 1 FG IJ
712. The angular range is clearly twice the critical angle.
r
719. In P, power =
R
× 2 + 0.6 − −
R R H K
713. tan ic = r
1 1.2
h = − , which is negative. So, P is a divergent com-
or r = h tan ic R R
h bination.
or rαh ic
ic 0.5 1
h is doubled, r is doubled. In Q, power = × 2 − 0.6 × , which is positive. So,
R R
Q is a convergent combination.
Fig. 172 1 1 1 d
720. = + −
714. The central ray goes undeviated. F f1 f2 f1 f2
So, µ2 = µ1. P = P1 + P2 – dP1P2
Also, µ3 < µ2. 1
=4+6– ×4×6=6D
6
560 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
F I
727.
1
2
GH
= (1.5 − 1)
1
−
1
R 1 R2
JK =–
1
20 Fig. 177
1 F 1.5
=G
I F 1 − 1 IJ
− 1J G
or f = – 20 cm
f H 1.25 K HR R K F I
1 f (1.5 − 1) (1.25)
1 2
734.
1
f
= (1.63 − 1)
2
RA
GH JK
× =
2 1 1.5 − 1.25 1 2
= (µB − 1)
f 0.5 × 1.25 f RB
or =
2 0.25 2 2
Equating, (µB – 1) = 0.63 ×
1.25 RB RA
or f = cm = 5 cm .
0.25 2 (µ B − 1) 0.63 × 2
or =
d RB 0.9 R B
728. Apparent depth of A=
1.3 0.63 0.63
d or µB – 1 = or µB = 1 +
Apparent depth of B= 0.9 0.9
1.6 or µB = 1.7
d 1.6 1.6 sin i sin i
Ratio of apparent depths is × or
1.3 d 1.3 735. µ= ; µ=
sin r i
sin
2
OPTICS 561
Hence, λ2 = 400 nm
60° c2 = 1.6 × 108 m s–1
744. Clearly, r = 60° – 15° or r = 45°
sin 60° 3 2
Fig. 178 Now, µ= or µ= ×
sin 45° 2 1
At the second surface, the angle of incidence is greater
than critical angle. So, light is totally reflected at the 3
or µ= = 1.2247
second surface. As is clear from the ray diagram, the 2
light emerges out perpendicularly from the third sur-
1
face. 745. µ= =2
sin 30°
740. Using Snell’s law,
A
2 sin i = 1 × sin 90°
A
°– 1
90
sin i =or i = 30°
2A A 2
746. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is
greater than the refractive index of the surrounding
medium, then a concave lens would behave as a con-
cave lens.
Fig. 179
562 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
747.
10 cm (20) (30)
⇒ v=−
5 cm 5 cm 20 + 30
= – 12 cm (to the left of the diverging lens.)
750.
Screen
to ¥
Triangle
Fig. 180 aperture
20 cm 10 cm
At 5 cm from the first lens, the second lens has a f
virtual object (image of the first lens) at its focal length.
Fig. 183
The emergent rays are therefore parallel.
The image on the screen is real and inverted.
< 5 cm > 5 cm The size of the image on the screen has aperture size
given by
FG 10 IJ = 0.5 cm
.
size = 10
H 20 K
Divergent light beam
1 1 1 1 5−6
Focal length = m = – 0.25 m Now, = − =
−4 F 24 20 120
sin r 1 or F = – 120 cm
= tan 30° =
756.
sin i 3
762.
1 FG 2 IJ
sin i f
= 0.5
H RK
or = 3 or µ =
sin r
3
1 FG 15. − 1IJ FG 2 IJ 1 2 2
So, speed of light in Y is 3 times less. f′
=
H 13. K H R K or
f′
=
13 R
F3 I 1 f′ 0.5 × 13 13
1 G JF 2I
= 2 − 1J G J
Now, × = or f′ = f
f G4
757. f 1 2 4
GH 3 JK H 30 K 763.
1 1 1
+ =
F3 3 I F 1 I
= G × − 1J G J
1 1
u v f
H 2 4 K H 15 K =
8
×
15 or
v
+ 1=
v
or
1
+ 1=
x
or f = 120 cm = 1.20 m u f y f
So, the graph cannot be a straight line. So, (a) is not
758. O= 16 × 9 cm = 12 cm
true.
1 FG 3 − 1IJ FG 2 IJ Graph II indicates that increase in u increases v which
12 H 2 K H RK
759. =
is not true. So, (b) is not true.
1 1 1
F3 I Again, + =
1 G2
= G − 1J G J
JF 2I u v f
f
GH 54 JK H R K v v
+ =
u v
v
f
x
Dividing, f = 1 R y+1=
12 0.2 × 2 f
R Graph should be linear. So, (c) is ruled out.
f 1 120 1 1 1
or = or f = cm = 30 cm Again, + =
12 0.4 4 u v f
3500 1 1 1
760. sin ic = = If = y, =x and
7000 2 u v
ic = 30° then we get a straight line. So, (d) is true.
761. Since the refractive index of the liquid is greater than 764.
the refractive index of glass therefore the focal length 1 F 1 − 1I
of the system has to be negative. So, options b and d
are excluded. f
GH R R JK
= (µ − 1)
1 2
1 F3 I F 1 1 IJ
= G − 1J G −
1 2
f H2 K H ∞ −20 K
Now, = (1.5 − 1)
24 R
or R = 24 cm 1 1 1
Again, for liquid concave lens, = × or f = 40 cm
f 2 20 Fig. 184
1 2 FG IJ 1
f
= − (1.6 − 1)
24 H K 765. vm =
2
c
1 3 1 c c
=− × µ= = =2 1
vm 1 or =2
f 5 12 c sin ic
2
1 1 1
or =− or f = – 20 cm sin ic =
f 20 or or ic = 30°
2
564 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 FG 2 IJ 1 1 f1 1 600 − f12
766.
10
= (1.5 − 1)
H RK or
60
=
f1
−
600
or
60
=
600 f1
1 1 2 or 600f1 = 36000 – 60 f12
or = × or R = 10 cm
10 2 R
or 60f12 + 600f1 – 36000 = 0
1 1 1 1
Again, = + + or f12 + 10 f1 – 600 = 0
F fl fl fm
1 2 2 or f12 + 30f1 – 20f1 – 600 = 0
= +
F fl R or f1(f1 + 30) – 20 (f1 + 30) = 0
1 2 2 4 2 or f1 = 20 cm or – 30 cm
or = + = =
F
10 10 10 5 600 − 600
Now, f2 = − cm or
5 20 − 30
or F= cm = 2.5 cm
2 or f2 = – 30 cm or 20 cm
The combination behaves like a concave mirror of focal 770. Angular radius of image
length 2.5 cm. λ
Clearly, u = 2 × 2.5 cm = , diameter = 10–5 radian,
aperture
or u = 5 cm
Diameter of image is 2f times.
767. m = 30
771. Clearly, power of system is zero.
v + u = xu
1 1 5
v ∴ 0= + −
or + 1= x or m + 1 = x 20 f 20 f
u
1 15
or x = 31 or − = or f = –15 cm
20 20 f
c
768. µ=
v 772. O= I1 I 2
λ O2 = I1 I2
Also, µ=
λ′
O2 = A1 A2 = A1 A2
c λ
Equating, = 773. A = r1 + r2
v λ′
v λ′ λ′ 30° = r1 + 0
or = or v = c or r1 = 30°
c λ λ
4500 sin i 30°
= × 3 × 108 m s–1 Now, = 2
6000 sin 30°
r1
= 2.25 × 108 m s–1 1
or sin i = 2×
1 1 1 2
769. = + ...(1) 1
60 f1 f2
or sin i =
1 1 1 10 2
= + − Fig. 185
or i = 45°
30 f1 f2 f1 f2
1 1 10 10 1 1
FG IJ 1
or
30
=
60
−
f1 f2
or
f1 f2
=
60
−
30
774. 1= 3 1−
H µK
1 1 1 1 2 3
10 1− 2 1 or 1− = or = 1− = or µ =
or = =− or f1 f2 = – 600 µ 3 µ 3 3 2
f1 f2 60 60
1 3
600 Now, =
or f2 = – sin ic 2
f1
2
ic = sin −1
FG 2 IJ
From (1),
1
=
60 f1
1
+
−
1
600
or sin ic =
3
or
H 3K
f1 or ic = sin–1 (0.67)
OPTICS 565
1 r 0.8 × 10−14
775. sin ic = Again, µ2 = 1.20 +
µ
e500 × 10 j
2
−9
1
sin ic = h ic
0.8
43 or µ2 = 1.20 +
ic 25 θ
3 or µ2 = 1.20 + 0.032
or sin ic =
4 or µ2 = 1.232
ic = sin −1
FG 3 IJ Fig. 186
1
θ
or
H 4K or
sin ic ′
= 1.232
776. Convex mirror and concave lens do not form real im-
age. For concave mirror, if image distance is greater 1
or sin ic ′ = = 0.81
than object distance, the image will be enlarged. So, 1.232
only convex lens can be used for the purpose. or ic = sin–1 (0.81)
20.06 µ 20.06 × 1.47 = 54.26°
777. − = 1. 07 × 10 −8 Now, sin θ = 0.8 Fig. 187
3 × 1083 × 108
3 × 1. 07 or θ = 53.13°
3.21
or µ − 147
. = or µ = 1.47 + This angle is clearly greater than critical angle corre-
20 . 06 20.06
sponding to wavelength 400 nm. So, light of 400 nm
or µ = 1.47 + 0.16 or µ = 1.63
wavelength undergoes total internal reflection.
778. Wavelength in vacuum, λ
781. (90° – ic) + (90° – ic) + 90°
ic
3 × 108 = 180°
= 14
× 1010 Å = 0.6 × 104 Å ic
5 × 10 or 2 ic = 90° – ic
9 0°
ic
= 6000 Å or ic = 45° 90° – i c
λ 1
Now, µ= µ=
λ′ sin 45° Fig. 188
λ 6000 1
or λ′ = = Å = 4000 Å = = 2
µ 1.5 1
779. FG 2 IJ 2
5 = (15
H RK
. − 1)
782.
I 1
= ×
π
F 15. − 1IJ FG 2 IJ
–1= G
f 2 180
H n K H RK or I=
π
360
× 100 cm = 0.873 cm
0.5 n
Dividing, – 5 = 1 sin i
1.5 − n 783. = r′
or – 7.5 + 5n = 0.5n or – 7.5 = – 4.5n µ sin r ′ 90°
But r + r′ = 90°
75 5
or n= = or r′ = 90° – r i r
45 3
sin r′ = sin (90° – r)
0.8 × 10−14
780. µ1 = 1.20 + = cos r
e400 × 10 j −9 2
or sin r′ = cos i
Fig. 189
0.8 × 10−14 1 sin i
or µ1 = 1.20 + ∴ =
400 × 400 × 10−18 µ cos i
0.8 1
or µ1 = 1.20 + or µ1 = 1.20 + 0.05 or = tan i or sin ic = tan i = tan r
16 µ
or µ1 = 1.25 or ic = sin–1 (tan r)
1 c c
= 1.25 µ= = =2
sin ic 784.
v c2
1
or sin ic = = 0.8 or ic = 53.13°
1.25
566 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
r
1 1 1
=2 or sin ic = or ic = 30°
sin ic 2 µ
∴ r=h h ic ic
785. Effective height of the bird as seen by the fish, Y 1
1− 2
= y + µ y′ µ
Bird
Fig. 191
h
dY dy dy′ y′ =
= +µ
dt dt dt µ2 − 1
4 dy′ 12 12 × 3
= = cm
9 = 3+ y 16 7
3 dt −1
9
dy′ 6 × 3
F I
Fish
18
or = =
dt 4 4 Fig. 190 788. −
1
40
= (1.5 − 1)
1
−
1
R1 R 2
GH JK
9
= 4.5 m s–1
= 1 1 1
2 − =−
R 1 R2 20
∴ Actual velocity of bird
1 FG
1.5 IJ FG − 1 IJ
786. When
= 4.5 m s–1
n = 1,
Now,
f
=
2 H−1
K H 20 K
0.5 F 1 I
µ (1) = µ 0 −
µ0 or
1
f
=− G− J
2 H 20 K
4 × 1 − 18
1 1
µ (1) > µ0 or = or f = 80 cm
f 80
When n = 2,
It behaves like a convex lens of focal length 80 cm.
µ0
µ (2) = µ0 − 789. Apparent height of object
4 × 2 − 18
4
µ (2) > µ0 = × 24 cm = 32 cm
3
When n = 3,
µ0
+ Note that when fish looks at the object in air,
µ (3) = µ0 − AD
4 × 3 − 18 µ= or AD = µ × RD
µ(3) > µ0 RD
When n = 4,
1 2
µ0 790. sin ic = =
µ (4) = µ0 − 1.5 3
4 × 4 − 18 2 FG IJ
µ (4) > µ0 or ic = sin −1
3 H K
= sin–1 (0.6667) = 41.8°
When n=5 The angle of incidence on face AC is 45° which is
µ0 clearly greater than 41.8°.
µ (5) = µ0 −
5 × 4 − 18 FG 200 IJ
µ (5) < µ0 791. P = (1.5 – 1)
H5K = 20 D
Clearly, the total internal reflection shall take place
P′ = (1.5 – 1) GH
F 200 IJ
6 K
at the top of a layer having n = 4. = 16.67 D
r
787. tan ic = or r = h tan ic Decrease in power
h
= 20 D – 16.67 D
sin ic sin ic
or r=h or r = h = 3.33 D
cos ic 1 − sin 2 ic f
792. m=
1 f +u
But sin ic =
µ 1 f
Now, =
2 f +u
OPTICS 567
Now, 2f = f + u or u = f 1 6+5 11
=− =−
f F 600 600
Again, 2=
f + (u − 30) 1 2 1 2
Now, = + =
f f F fl fm fl
or 2= or 2 =
f + ( f − 30) 2 f − 30 or fl = 2F
or 4f – 60 = f 600
or fl = 2 ×
or 3f = 60 or f = 20 cm 11
793. Note that two refractive indices are involved. [Negative sign is not to be used here]
1 1 1
794. − = 1200
v u f or fl = = 109.1 cm
11
1 1 1
− = 798. µ2 µ1 µ1 − µ 2
v −15 10 + =
−u v R
1 1 1 1 −2+3 In the first case,
or =− + or =
v 15 10 v 30
µ 1 µ − µ2
or v = 30 cm + = 1 =0
−d −v ∞
1 µ
or =
−v d
+ F1 d
v=−
or
µ
Fig. 194
In the second case,
Fig. 192 µ 1 1− µ
+ =
F1 I − d − v′ −R
795. 10 = (1.5 – 1) GH R −
1
R2
JK 1
= −
µ 1− µ
1 or
1 1 10 − v′ d R
or − = = 20 m 1 1 µ −1
R 1 R 2 0.5 or = +
FG 1.5 − 1IJ 20 D − v′ − v R
Again, P=
H 4/3 K Clearly,
1
>
− v′ − v
1
P = GH
F 4.5 − 4 IJ 20 D = 5 × 0.5 D
4 K
or 1 1 Fig. 195
or <
v′ v
= 2.5 D or v′ > v
Change in power
1 2FG IJ
= (2.5 – 10) D
= – 7.5 D
799.
0.2
= (1.5 − 1)
R H K
R = 0.2 m
796. f1 f2 = x1 x2
x1 x2 15 × 20 FG 15. − 1IJ FG 2 IJ
f2 =
f1
=
10
cm = 30 cm –1=
H µ K H RK
797. u = –100 cm
v = – 120 cm F 1.5 − 1IJ FG 2 IJ
–1= G
F=?
or
H µ K H 0.2 K
1 1 1 1 1.5 1.5 1 9
= + or − = − 1 or = 1− =
F u v 10 µ µ 10 10
1 1
= + 15
− 100 − 120 or µ= = 1.67
9
Fig. 193
568 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Hµ K 1
f
v
sin i sin i or mf = f – v or m = 1 −
But = µ2 or sin r = f
sin r µ2
F 1 − sin i I ≥ µ
2 2 or
v
m= −+1
∴ GH µ JK µ2
2
1
2
2 or 2
µ2 − sin i ≥ 2
µ 12 f
For the case of real image, magnification is negative
or – sin2 i ≥ µ12 – µ22 or sin2 i ≤ µ22 – µ12 v
∴ – m = − v + 1 or m = − 1
or sin i ≤ µ2 − 2
µ 12 or i ≤ sin −1
µ2 −2
µ 12 f f
Comparing with y = mx + c, we find that reciprocal of
Clearly, the maximum value of i is sin −1 µ 22 − µ 12 . focal length f equals the slope of the graph.
v u v2 − u2 v+u FG IJ 1
= tan θ =
b c
802. m1 – m2 = −
u v
=
uv
= (v − u)
uv H K ∴
f c
or f =
b
1 1 1 v+u 806. A = r1 + r2
But = + = ∴ 30° = r1 + 0°
f u v uv 30°
or r1 = 30°
v−u
∴ m1 – m2 = or m1 – m2 = x sin i
f Now, = 2
f sin 30°
i 30°
x 1
or f= or sin i = 2×
m1 − m2 2
1
sin A 1 or sin i =
803. = 2 Fig. 199
sin 90° µ A
or i = 45°
1 807.
sin A = µ2 = 1.5
µ A 90°
sin A 2 1
= P x O x
Q
sin r µ Fig. 197
µ1 = 1
Fig. 200
OPTICS 569
µ1 µ2 µ2 − µ1 or r = 48.6°
+ = (iii) θ = r – i = 18.6°
−u v R
Required angle = 2 × 18.6° = 37.2°
1.5 1.5 − 1
1
+ = 1 3FG IJ FG 2 IJ
− ( − x)
1 3 1
x R 810.
f1
=
2 H
−1
K H RK
+ = 1 1
x 2 x 2R or = or R = 10 cm
5 1 f1 R
= or x = 5R
2 x 2R 1 3FG 2 IJ
a
f2
=
2 H
−1
R′ K
808. or R′ = f2 = 20 cm
FG IJ FG 1 − 1 IJ
25 b A 90° – i
1 4
Now, =
H
−1
K H −10 20 K
i c
i f3 3
90° – 2i
1 1 2+1 1
d i¢ or =− =−
i¢ f3 3 20 20
90° – q 1 1 1 1
Now, = + +
F f1 f2 f3
q q 1 1 1 1
or = + − or F = 10 cm
F 10 20 20
For real image
m=–2
Fig. 201
f
From ∆ abc, A + 90° + 90° – i = 180° Now, m=
f +u
or i=A 10
Now, complementary angles at point d. θ = 2 i –2=
10 + u
∴ θ = 2A
or 10 + u = – 5 or u = –15 cm
only (b) satisfies this.
For virtual image
m =+2
809. 30° 10
i r Now, +2= or 10 + u = 5
i θ 10 + u
or u = 5 – 10 or u = – 5 cm
θ
t FG 1IJ
H K
θ 811. t− =x or t 1− =x
µ µ
µx
or t=
µ−1
812. The following arguments shall lead us to the right
choice.
Fig. 202 (i) In the first case, the apparent depth is R2 – R1. So,
Following arguments lead us easily to the right choice. real depth is µ(R2 – R1).
(i) Angle between any two lines is the same as the (ii) Depth of additional liquid poured is R4 – R2.
angle between their perpendiculars. (iii) Total real depth is (R4 – R2) + µ (R2 – R1)
∴ i = 30° (iv) Total apparent depth = R4 – R3
1 sin 30° 1.5
= 0.75 Total real depth
(ii) = or sin r = (v) µ =
1.5 sin r 2
Total apparent depth
570 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 2 1 µ 3.2
813. = + or = 1.5 −
F fl fm 3 3
1 µ−1LM 2 OP or
µ 4.5 − 3.2 1.3
= = or µ = 1.3
F
=2
R N
+
R Q 3
v
3 3
u
1 2µ 816. m1 = and m2 =
= u v
F R
1
R Clearly, m1 =
F= m2
2µ Fig. 203
y2
R×4 817. Distance as estimated by the bird, S1 = y1 +
0.3 = µ
2×7
Distance as estimated by the f is h, S2 = y2 + µy1
0.3 × 14 4.2
or R= m= m = 1.05 m S2 y2 + µy1
4 4 Now, =
S1 y
814. 90 – r = ic y1 + 2 B
µ µy1
sin (90 – r) = sin ic y1
or cos r = sin ic S 2 µy2 + µ 2 y1
or =
1 1 S1 µy1 + y2 y2
or 1 − sin 2 r = or 1 − sin 2 r = S2 µ( y2 + µy1) µ
1 µ2
µ2
or = y2
µ1 S1 y2 + µy1 F
F
µ 12 S2
or 1 – sin2 r = or µ= Fig. 204
µ 22 S1
sin i µ 818. Clearly, A = ic + ic = 2 ic
But = 1µ 2 = 2 A A
sin r µ1 or ic =
2
or sin r = µ 1 sin i
µ2 1 ic ic
µ=
sin ic
µ 12 sin 2 i µ 12
∴ 1− = 2 1
µ 22 µ2 or µ=
A Fig. 205
µ 2 sin2 i µ2 sin
or − 1 2 = − 1 + 12 2
µ2 µ2
A A
µ 12 sin2 i µ 12 sin2 + cos2
or = 1 − 2 2
µ 22 µ 22 or µ=
A
sin 2
µ 22 2
or sin2 i = −1
µ 12
A
1 + cot 2
Fµ I 2 or µ=
2
or sin i = GH µ JK
2
1
−1
819.
nλ
815. l = n λ′ =
µ
or µl=nλ
In the given problem, nλ = constant I1 O I
∴ µ l = constant
l 2l
∴ 1.5 l = µ + 1.6
3 3
µ 3.2 Fig. 206
or 1.5 = +
3 3
OPTICS 571
FG A + A IJ Angular dispersion 2°
1.5 =
sin
H 2 K 854. Dispersive power =
Deviation
=
48°
= 0.0416
A 855. ωfy = fr – fv
sin
2
fr − fv f − fv 100 − 96.8 3.2
A A ω= = r = =
2 sin cos fy fr + fv 100 + 96.8 98.4
3 2 2
= 2 2
2 A
sin = 0.0325
2
A 3 A 857. A = r1 + r2 = 30° + 30° = 60°
or cos= = 0.75 or
2 4 2
= cos −1 (0.75)
FG A + δ IJ FG 60° + 30° IJ
A
= 41°
sin
H 2 K
m
=
sin
H 2 K
or
2
or A = 82° Now, µ=
F AI
sin G J
sin
60°
849. ω1P1 + ω2P2 = 0 H 2K 2
Clearly, if power is more, dispersive power is less. sin 45° 1 2
Note that the achromatic combination shall be con- = = × = 2
sin 30° 2 1
vex if the convex lens has larger power.
858. A = r1 + r2 = 2r
850. Longitudinal chromatic aberration = ω f
A 60°
= 0.02 × 20 cm = 0.40 cm or r= = = 30°
2 2
ω1 ω2 sin i 1 1
851. + =0 Now, = 2 or sin i = 2=
f1 f2 sin 30° 2 2
ω1 ω or i = 45°
=− 2 860. i + e = A + δm
f1 f2
or δm = i + i – A = 2i – A
f2 ω 3 1 3
or =− 2 =− or =− 3A 3A A 60°
f1 ω1 4 f1 4 f2 =2× –A = −A= = = 30°
4 2 2 2
1 1 1 861. A+δ=i+e
Now, = +
60 f1 f2 or δ = i + e – A or δ = 55° + 46° – 60°
1 3 1 1 1 3 or δ = 41°
or =− + or = − Clearly, δm < 41°
60 4 f2 f2 60 f2 4 f2
862. µv = 1.632, µ = 1.620,
1 4−3 1
or = = or 4f2 = 60 µr = 1.613, fr – fv = ω f
60 4 f2 4 f2
or f2 = 15 cm
µv − µ r 1.632 − 1.613
= f = × 10
µ−1 1.620 − 1
1 3 1
Again, =− =−
f1 4(15) 20 0.019
= × 10 cm = 0.3 cm = 3 mm
0.620
or f1 = – 20 cm
853. i+e=A+δ ω1 1
863. =
60° + e = 30° + 30° or e = 0° ω2 2
So, light emerges out normally. f1 ω 1
Now, =− 1 =− or f2 = – 2f1
∴ r2 = 0 f2 ω2 2
∴ r1 = A = 30°
Now, 1 1 1
= +
sin 60° F f1 f2
Now, µ=
sin 30°
1 1 1
= +
3 2 50 f1 − 2 f1
or µ= × or µ = 3
2 1 1 −2+1 1
or = =
50 − 2 f1 2 f1
574 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 1 1 1 4−1 3 200
Now, = + or = = or v0 = cm
F f1 f2 v0 200 200 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 For eye-piece,
or = + or = −
10 − 2 f2 f2 10 f2 2 f2 1 1 1
− =
1 1 ve ue fe
or = or f2 = 5 cm
10 2 f2 1 1 1
− =
Now, f1 = – 2 (5) cm = – 10 cm − 25 ue 5
878. The condition for achromatism is : 1 1 1 1 − 1−5
or =− − or =
ω1P1 + ω2P2 = 0 ue 25 5 ue 25
ω1P1 = – ω2P2 25
or ue = – cm
ω1 P 6
or =− 2
ω2 P1 200 25
Now, L = v0 + |ue| = +
Now, P1 + P2 = 2 D 3 6
or 5 + P2 = 2 or P2 = – 3 D 400 + 25 425
= cm = cm
ω1 −3 3 6 6
∴ =− =
ω2 5 5 v0 ve
879. When the parallel beam of white light passes through 884. M = M0 × Me = ×
u0 ue
the metal vapour, energy is absorbed by the metal if
the photon energy hf is sufficient to excite the atom to 200 25 × 6
= × =2
one of its higher levels. When the atom returns to its 3 × 200 25
ground state, it emits the same wavelength as the
fo
photon but equally in all directions. So the intensity 885. M=
of the radiation in the incident (original) direction is fe
reduced. A dark line is thus seen whose wavelength fo
is that of the absorbed photon. 9= or fo = 9fe
fe
880. fo + fe = 500 mm Also, L = fo + fe or 20 = fo + fe
or fo = (500 – 20) mm = 480 mm or 20 = 9fe + fe or 20 = 10 fe
fo 480 or fe = 2 cm
M= = = 24 .
fe 20 ∴ fo = 9 × 2 cm = 18 cm
881. The best position for the eye is eye-ring. All the light 886. fo + fe = 55
that enters the objective from the object must pass
out through the eye-ring. Usually, the telescope is
fo
m = 10 ; = 10 or fo = 10fe
designed to make the eye-ring diameter no larger than fe
1 1 1 Now, 10 fe + fe = 55
the eye-pupil width. Use − = for the eye-piece, or 11fe = 55 or fe = 5 cm
v u f
fo = 10 × 5 cm = 50 cm
with the objective acting as the object.
100
1 1 1 480 Power of objective = D =2D
= − = 50
v 20 500 20 × 500
887. Same as previous question.
1000 888. L = v0 + fe
or v = mm = 20.8 mm.
48 21.7 = v0 + 2.5
fo β
882. M= ,M= 1 1 1
fe α or v0 = 19.2 cm or − =
19.2 u0 1.6
fo 60
∴ β= α= 2° = 24°
fe 5 1 10 10 1 120 − 10 110
or − = − or − = =
883. For objective u0 16 192 u0 192 192
1 1 1 1 1 1 192
− = or = − or u0 = − cm = – 1.75 cm
v0 − 200 50 v0 50 200 110
576 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG IJ
fo f 908. The wrong statements a, c, d and e are amended as
904. M=–
H K
fe
1+ e
D follows :
50 F 5I
(a) The telescope has a long focus objective.
M=–
5
G
H 1+ J
25 K
(b) The final image in the telescope is at infinity and is consid-
ered virtual.
50 30 (c) The separation is more than the focal sum in the micro-
M=– × = − 12
5 25 scope.
(d) The telescopic intermediate image is not magnified.
50 cm
(e) The final image is at infinity in the telescope, and at the
near point of the eye in the microscope.
909. Since the final image is formed at infinity therefore
a = 32¢ B² B¢ the image produced by the objective must be at a dis-
32¢ b tance of 3 cm from the eye-piece. The distance of this
image from objective lens is therefore (15 – 3) cm i.e.,
12 cm.
A¢
Again,
1 1 1
− =
12 u0 2
A²
1 1 1 1− 6 − 5
25 cm
or = − = =
u0 12 2 12 12
Fig. 214 12
or u0 = − cm = – 2.4 cm
β 5
M= 1.22 λ
α
910. dθ =
tan β A ″ B″ /25 a
M= =
tan α A ′ B′ /50 d 1.22 × 6000 × 10 −10
=
A ″ B″ 50 38.6 × 104 × 103 5
12 = ×
25 A ′ B′ 1.22 × 6 × 38.6
or d= m = 56.51 m
32° 5
or A′′ B′′ = 6A′ Β′ = 6 × 50 × tan
60 911. In the first case, the image will be formed at a dis-
= 300 × tan (0.5333) tance of 80 cm from the objective.
300 × 9.308 × 10–3 = 2.7924 cm In the second case,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −1 1
906. − = − = or = +
v0 − 1.25 1.2 v0 (− 40) 0.8 v0 40 0.8
1 1 1 1 1.25 − 1.2 1 − 0.8 + 40
or = − or = or =
v0 1.2 1.25 v0 1.2 × 1.25 v0 32
1 0.05 32
= 150 or v0 = m or v0 = 0.8163 m
or or v0 = cm = 30 cm 39.2
v0 150
. 5
or v0 = 81.63 cm
v0 30
Mo = = Clearly, the eye-piece shall have to be drawn out
u0 − 1.25 through a distance of (81.63 – 80) i.e., 1.63 cm.
Mo = – 24
3.5 × 103 3.5 180°
912. α= radian = ×
D 25 3.8 × 105 3.8 × 100 π
Me = =
fe 3 3.5 × 180 × 7°
=
25 38 × 100 × 22
M = – 24 ×
3 fo 400
Also, M= = = 40 ;
M = – 200 fe 10
907. Order 4 cm for eye-piece always. 40 × 35 × 180 × 7°
For maximum F/f the choice is (a). β= = 21.1° ≈ 21°.
35 × 100 × 22
578 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
200 FG
5 IJ t is same.
M=–
5
1+
25H K d22 d12
= 2
f22 f1
FG 1 IJ 6 d1
M = – 40 1 +
H 5 K
= – 40 ×
5
= – 48
d2 =
f1
f2 = 5 × 15 = 3 cm
25
fo 200 1 1 1
(2) M= =− = – 40 921. = −
fe 5 f v u
f2 1 f1 1 − 80 FG IJ
924. t∝
d2 f2
×
1
=−
120 1 H K
“f” f f1 2
means that the diameter of aperture is . =
2 2 f2 3
1 f2 P1 3
Now, ∝ =
100 fFG IJ
2
P2 2
2 H K 1
−
1
=
1
1 931.
v − 54 4
or ∝4 ...(1)
100 1 1 1 1 50
f2 = − or =
Again, t∝ v 4 54 v 4 × 54
fFG IJ
2
4 × 54
8 H K or v=
50
cm or v = 4.32 cm
or t ∝ 64 ...(2) = 43.2 mm
Dividing (2) by (1), So, displacement is 3.2 mm away from the film.
64
= 16 or t =
16
s 1 f2 1
100 t = ∝ ∝4
4 100 932.
100 f FG IJ
2 or
100
...(1)
925.
1 1 1
= − 2 H K
f v u
f2
1 1 1 Again, t∝ or t α 16 ...(2)
= − or
1
=
1
−
1
FG f IJ 2
f − 100 − 25
1 4−1
f
1
25 100
3
H 4K
or = or = t 16
f 100 f 100 = =4 4
1 4 or t = s
100 100
or f= cm 100
3
1
100 × 3 933. f = m = 50 cm
P= =3D 2
100
v f 50 1 1 1 1 1 1
m= = = 1 Now, = − or = −
926. = 50 v − 25 v 50 25
u u 2000 × 100 4000
1 1 1 1 1− 2
927. = − or = or v = – 50 cm
f − 40 − ∞ v 50
or f = – 40 cm This is the near point of the eye.
100 100 1 1 1 1 1 1
P= =− D = − 2.5 D Again, = − or = −
f 40 50 v − 40 v 50 40
928. The shape (curvature) and therefore the focal length 1 4−5
of the lens can be modified somewhat by the ciliary or = or v = – 200 cm
v 200
muscles. As an example, when the muscle is relaxed,
This is the new near point.
the focal length is about 2.5 cm and (for a normal eye)
objects at infinity are in sharp focus on the retina. Again, 1 1 1
= −
When the object is brought closer to the eye, in order f − 200 − 25
to maintain the same image–lens distance (≈ 2.5 cm),
the focal length of the eye-lens becomes shorter by the 1 1 1 1 − 1+ 8 7
or =− + or = =
action of the ciliary muscles. This property of the eye f 200 25 f 200 200
is called accomodation. 200
1 1 1 or f = cm
= − 7
929.
f1 − 80 − ∞ 100 × 7 D
P= = 3.5 D
1 1 1 200
= −
f2 − 120 − ∞
580 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 1 1 (2 × 3 − 1) Dλ
934. = − or f = – 150 cm 940. y3 ′ =
f − 150 − ∞ 2d
100 2 5Dλ
D = − D = – 0.67 D y5 =
P= d
− 150 3
Now, y5 – y3′
1 1 1 −1 1 1
935. − = or = − 5Dλ 5Dλ Dλ FG 5 IJ
v u f
−1 v− f
u f v
− fv
=
d
−
2d
=
d
5−
H 2 K
or = or u= 5Dλ 5 × 1 × 7000 × 10−10
u fv v− f = = m
2d 2 × 1 × 10−3
fv
or u= = 17.5 × 10–4 m = 1.75 mm.
f −v
941. d sin θ = nλ = (µ – 1)t
I v v
= = (µ − 1)t
O u fv or sin θ =
f −v d
I f −v O f (1.17 − 1) 1.5 × 10−7
or = or = = = 0.085
O f I f −v 3 × 10−7
or θ = sin–1 (0.085) = 4.876°
If
or O= D1λ 1
f −v 942. β=
936. Let nth minima of 400 nm coincide with mth minima d1
of 560 nm. Then D λ
β= 2 2
(2n – 1) 400 = (2m – 1) 560 d2
⇒
2n − 1 7 14 21
= = = Now, D1λ 1 = D2λ 2
2m − 1 5 10 15 d1 d2
i.e. 4th minima of 400 nm coincides with 3rd minima F IFλ I = 2 × 2 =4
of 560 nm. or D1
D2
d
= 1
d2
GH JK GH λ JK 1 1
2
1
The location of this minima is
I1 a12 a1
7(1000)(400 × 10−6 ) 943. β= = or = β
mm = 14 mm I2 a22 a2
2 × 0.1
Next, 11th minima of 400 nm will coincide with 8th Fringe visibility
minima of 560 nm. Imax. − Imin. (a + a2 )2 − (a1 − a2 )2
= = 1
The location of this minima is Imax. + Imin. (a1 + a2 )2 + (a1 − a2 )2
21(1000)(400 × 10 −6 ) 4 a1a2 2a a
mm = 42 mm = 2 2
= 2 1 22
2 × 0.1 2 (a1 + a2 ) a1 + a2
∴ Required distance = 28 mm a1
2
I1 1 a1 1 a2 2 β
937. = ; = = =
I2 9 a2 3 a12 β+1
+1
Imin. (3 − 1)2 4 1 a22
= = =
Imax. (3 + 1)2 16 4 944. δ = (µ – 1) A a δ
δ
d d
Also, δ=
+ Intensity is proportional to width of slit. 2a
2
∴ d
60 × 4 = (µ − 1)A
938. n′ × 6000 = n × 4000 or n′ = = 40 2a
6 or d = 2a (µ – 1)A Fig. 216
nDλ
939. yn = Dλ
d β=
d
Lesser the value of λ, lessr the value of yn.
OPTICS 581
Dλ Dλ yd yd
or β= or 2 aβA = 952. − (µ − 1) t = nλ or = (µ − 1) t + nλ
2a(µ − 1) A µ−1 D D
Dλ Dλ For n = 0,
or µ–1= or µ = 1 +
2 aβA 2 aAβ D(µ − 1)t
y=
Dλ Dλ d
945. β= or d= 953. Net path difference introduced
d β
= (1.7 – 1)t – (1.4 – 1)t = 0.3t
1 × 5000 × 10 −10 When the path difference is λ, the shift on the screen
= m = 1000 × 10–7 m
5 × 10 −3
= 10–4 m = 10–4 × 103 mm = 0.1 mm is
Dλ
d
b = βg .
4 β
946. λ is reduced by a factor of . When path difference is 0.3t, shift on screen is × 0.3t
3 λ
4
So, β is reduced by a factor of . β 5λ
3 But × 0.3t = 5β or t =
λ 0.3
β 3
β′ = = β = 3 × 0.4 mm 5 × 480 × 10−9
4/3 4 4 = m = 8000 × 10–9 m
0.3
= 0.3 mm = 8 × 10–6 m = 8 µm
947. Note that the path difference is 2λ.
(2n + 1)Dλ
−10 954. yn =
Dλ 2 × 6000 × 10 2d
948. β= = m
d 4 × 10 −3 2dyn 2dyn
or 2n + 1 = or 2n = −1
=3× 10–4
m =3× 10–4 × 103 mm Dλ Dλ
= 0.3 mm 2dyn 1 dyn 1
or n= − or n = −
λ 4 µt 2Dλ 2 Dλ 2
949. 2 µt = (2n + 1) or λ =
2 2n + 1 dyn 1
Now, n1 = −
Dλ 1 2
4 × 1 × 0.45 × 10 −6 × 1010
or λ= Å
2n + 1 dyn 1
n2 = −
Dλ 2 2
1.8 × 104 18000
= Å = Å dyn dyn
2n + 1 2n + 1 n1 – n2 = −
Dλ 1 Dλ 2
Taking n = 1,
18000 or n1 – n2 = dyn 1 − 1
LM OP
λ=
3
Å = 6000 Å
D λ1 λ2 N Q
950. β=
Dλ
or 8 =
d × 32 × 10 −3 1010
−
LM
1010 OP
d
λ smaller, β less.
1 MN
4000 6000 PQ
951.
Imax. b a + a2
= 1
g 2
or d=
8 × 4000 × 6000
2000 × 1010 × 32 × 10−3
m
I min. b a1 − a2 g 2
= 3 × 106 × 10–10 m = 3 × 10–4 m
9 ba +a g
2 = 3 × 10–4 × 103 mm = 0.3 mm
= 1 2 a1 + a2 3
1 ba −a g
2 or = yd yd
1 2 a1 − a2 1 955. + (µ − 1)t = nλ or = − (µ − 1)t + nλ
D D
or a1 + a2 = 3a1 – 3a2 or 4a2 = 2a1
When n = 0,
a1 4 2
or = = D(µ − 1)t
a2 2 1 y=–
d
582 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
H D JK
d d/D θ
–D
2
a22
FG a + 1IJ 2
L 1d OP − D d
1
= D M1 +
2 2 Fig. 217 962. Imax.
= 1
b
a + a2 g 2
=
Ha K
2
MN 2 D 2
PQ = 2D I min. b
a1 − a2 g 2
a22
FG a − 1IJ
1
2
d2 d2
Ha K
2
Now, nλ = or n =
2D 2Dλ FG a 1 IJ 2
Ha K
A
or AD = nλ + BD
2
or AD = nλ + xn 4λ
Now, AD2 = AB2 + BD2 I1 2 a1
I1 = 2I2, = , = 2
or (nλ + xn)2 = (4λ)2 + xn2 B D X I2 1 a2
=
5.827
= 34
I min. e 2 − 1j 0.171
(16 − n2 ) λ2
or 2nλxn = (16 – n2)λ2 or xn = I min. 1
2nλ or =
Imax. 34
15λ2
For n = 1, x1 = = 7.5λ 963.
nDλ 3 × 200 × 5000 × 10 −8 cm
2λ yn = =
d 0.2 × 10 −1
(16 − 4)λ2 = 1.5 cm
For n = 2, x2 = or x2 = 3λ
2×2×λ
1
(16 − 9)λ2 7λ 964. Air film ; So 2∆t = × 6 × 10−5 cm
For n = 3, x3 = = 5
6λ 6
For n = 4, xn = 0 6
That gives ∆t =
in units given.
Thus, there are only three points where maximum is 10
observed. 965. Path diff. 3λ corresponds to phase difference 6π.
Dλ Also, φ = 3nπ
959. β=
d Here, n = 3. ∴ φ = 6π
D × 6 × 10−7 D 0.12 × 10−3 Dλ
0.12 × 10–3 = or = 966. β=
d d 6 × 10−7 d
d 6 × 10 −7 D1λ 1 D2λ 2
or θ= = = 50 × 10–4 =
D 0.12 × 10−3 d1 d2
= 5 × 10–3 radian.
D1 λ 2 d1 D1 λ 2 d1
φ = × or = ×
960. I = I0 cos2 D2 d2 λ 1 D2 λ 1 d2
2
I0 φ 6000 2 3
= I0 cos2 = × =
2 2 4000 1 1
OPTICS 583
967. β′ λ′ 6000 6 λ
= = = 973. ∆ = 70.5 λ = 141
β λ 5000 5 2
6 λ
or β′ = × 1 mm = 1.2 mm Path difference is odd multiple of . So, the point is
5 2
dark.
968. n × 5461 = 92 × 5898
974. Shift on screen = 2 β
92 × 5898
or n= ≈ 99 So, corresponding change in path difference = 2λ
5461
969. 2µt = nλ 3
975. β= = 0.3 cm
t 10
nλ a Dλ
t= Now, β=
2µ x d
Fig. 219 300 × 5100 × 10−8
10 × 6000 × 10 −10
= m ∴ 0.3 =
2 × 1.5 d
= 2 × 104 × 10–10 m = 2 × 10–6 m 300 × 5100 × 10 −8
or d= cm
t t 2 × 10−6 0.3
Now, α= or x = = = 51 × 10–3 cm = 51 × 10–2 mm
x α 0.01
= 2 × 10–4 m = 2 × 10–4 × 103 mm = 0.51 mm
= 0.2 mm nDλ 1
976. y1 =
λ d
970. 2µt = (2n + 1) λ1 y1
2 nDλ 2 =
y2 = or
4µt d λ 2 y2
λ=
2n + 1 (2n + 1)Dλ
977. y n′ =
4 × 1.4 × 10,000 2d
λ= Å
2n + 1 (2 × 1 + 1)Dλ Dλ 0.6
0.3 = or = = 0.2 cm
56000 2d d 3
λ= Å
2n + 1 nDλ
Now, yn = = 4 × 0.2 cm = 0.8 cm
λ = 56000 Å, 18666.7 Å, 11200 Å, 8000 Å, 6222.2 Å, d
5091 Å, 4307.7 Å out of these wavelengths only the Imax. 16
last three belong to visible region. 979. =
I min. 1
λ
971. Path difference = x 2 + d2 − x = a1 + a2 4
2 =
x
a1 − a2 1
λ
Now, x 2 + d2 − x = 2a1 5
2 = a1 5
or
=
λ 2a2 3 a2 3
or x 2 + d2 = x +
2 d 980. Straight fringes are obtained because locus of same
2 2
2 x +d path difference gives lines which are parallel to the
λ
or x2 + d2 = x2 + + xλ axis of the cylinder.
4
981. IA = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 cos φ
λ2
or d2 − = xλ π
4 Fig. 220 IA = I + 4I + 2 I × 4I cos
2
d2 λ
or x= − or 9λ – 0.25λ = 8.75λ IA = 5I
λ 4
Again, IB = I + 4I + 2 I × 4I cos π = 5I – 4I = I
16 × 6000
972. n × 4800 = 16 × 6000 or n = = 20 982. n × 400 = 12 × 600
4800
12 × 600
or n= = 18
400
584 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
nDλ π
983. yn = difference between waves arriving at B is . Now,
d 2
nλ = constant π
I = 4I0 cos2 = 2I0. In the direction of C, the distur-
∴ m × 6500 = n × 5200 4
π π
m 5200 4 bances have a phase difference of + i.e. π. Since
= = 2 2
n 6500 5 the disturbances are 180° out of phase therefore the
yd intensity at C is zero.
984. + (µ – µ′)l = 0
D 987. ∆ = nλ
or
yd
D
= – (µ – µ′)l or y =
D
d
b
µ′ − µ l g d cos θ = nλ
θ
nλ δ2 δ1
cos θ =
or 15β =
D
d
b
µ′ − µ l g or
15Dλ
d
=
D
d
µ′ − µ l b g d
4λ
15λ or cos θ =
or 15λ = (µ′ – µ)l or µ′– µ = d Fig. 222
l
FG 4λ IJ
or µ′ = µ +
15λ
l
or θ = cos–1 HdK
988. Refer to sin2 term in intensity equation.
D2 + d2 − D
D
985. Path difference =
989. Refer to sol. 944
For dark fringe,
Dλ
λ µ = 1+
D2 + d 2 − D = d 2 aAβ
2 2 2
D +d
λ 1 × 6000 × 10 −10
or D2 + d 2 = D + µ = 1+
π
2 2 × 10 × 10 −2 × × 0.03 × 10−2
Fig. 221 180
2 λ2
or D2 + d2 = D + + Dλ 6 × 10−4 × 7 × 180
4 or µ = 1+
or
LM
Dλ = d2 Neglecting
λ2 OP or λ =
d2
2 × 22 × 0.03
µ = 1 + 0.5727 or µ = 1.5727 = 1.573
MN 4 PQ D
or
nDλ
Time-saving solution 990. yn =
d
λ
D2 + d 2 − D = n × 2.5 × λ
2 10–3 =
2 × 10−3
eD + d j
2 2 1/2
− D=
λ
2
10 − 3 × 2 × 10 −3
F dI
D G1 +
2 1/2
λ F 1 d2 I or λ= m
H D JK
λ n × 2.5
2
−D=
2
or D 1+GH 2 D2 JK
−D=
2
0.8 × 10−6
2 2
d or λ = m
or 1 d λ or λ = n
=
2 D 2 D
20
0.8 × 10 −6 × 1010 Å
986. Separation = 5 m ; λ = 20 m ; So, separation is m or λ=
4 n
λ π 0.8 × 104 8000
i.e. , P is ahead of Q by a phase of i.e. ahead in or λ= Å or λ =
4 2 n n
λ For n= 1, λ = 8000 Å
path by . So, in the direction A, intensity is largest
2 For n= 2, λ = 4000 Å
(4I0). Thus, options (a) and (c) are eliminated. Phase
For n= 3, λ = 2666.7 Å
Clearly, 4000 Å is the right choice.
OPTICS 585
FG 2π IJ S
991. d 998. Data require HλK 1 A – 2πp = 2πn.
That leads to S1 A = (n + p)λ
d β
999. 4β = (µ – 1) t
2d λ
4λ 4 × 6000 × 10 −10
or t= = m
µ−1 1.5 − 1
Fig. 223
= 48 × 0–7 m = 4.8 × 10–6 m = 4.8 µm
2 d – d = (µ – 1)t 1000.
ba
1 g
+ a2
2
=
9
or
a1 + a2 3
=
2 a1 4 a1 2
992. Only one image of slit, no interference. or = or =
2a2 2 a2 1
993. n × 6000 = 10 × 4200
10 × 4200 I1 4
or n= or n = 7 or =
6000 I2 1
nDλ β (µ − 1)t
994. yn = 1001. (µ – 1) t = 5β or λ =
d λ 5
4 × 1.5 × 100 × λ
1= (1.5 − 1) 6 × 10−6 3
0.03 = = × 10–6 m
5 5
0.03 0.03
or λ= cm or λ = × 108 Å = 0.6 ×10–6 m = 0.6 × 10–6 × 1010
600 600
or λ = 5000 Å = 6000 Å
995. Phase difference is odd multiple of π. 1002. For the central bright fringe
λ I = I1 + I 1 + 2 I1 I2 cos 0°
996. Extra distance travelled = . Due to reflection from
2 I
or I = 2I1 + 2I1 = 4I1 or I1 =
λ 4
denser medium, extra path travelled is . Total path
2 Now, for distance x on screen, from central maximum,
difference is λ. Corresponding phase difference is 2π.
xd
Let I be intensity of the direct beam. Then, intensity path difference =
D
I
of reflected beam is . 2π xd
4 Corresponding phase difference, φ = .
λ D
I I Now,
Now, I′ = I + + 2 I × cos 2π
4 4
I I I I 2π xd
I′ = + +2 × cos
5I 2I 4 4 4 4 λ D
or I′ = + ×1
4 2 I I 2πxd
or I′ = + cos
9I 2 2 λD
I′ =
4 FG
I 2πxd IJ
9
or I′ =
2 H 1 + cos
λD K
So, the resultant intensity is . IF IJ
I′ = GH 2 cos
4 πxd πxd
K
2
or or I′ = I cos2
π 2 λD λD
997. Phase lag of light from S2 is 3π sin θ +
. For maxima 1
2 1003. Intensity of AB, I1 = I
this is n . 2π. In the range available we have 4
−5 −1 1 3
sin θ = , and . I
6 6 2 Intensity of AC =
4
586 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG IJ = 3 I
1 3 β 4500 45
Intensity of CA′ = H K 16
4 4
I =
0.4 6000
or β =
60
× 0.4 mm = 0.3 mm.
3F 3 I β Dλ λ λ
= G IJ =
9 1010. θ= = = or d =
Intensity of A′ B′, I2 H
4 16 K 64
I D dD d θ
1 5890 × 10 −10
I I1 1 64 16 =
Now, I1 4 or 1 π
= = × = ×
I2 9 I2 4 9 9 60 180
I
64
a1 4 5890 × 10 −10 × 60 × 180
or = = m
a2 3 π
a12
FG a IJ 2 = 0.00202 m = 0.202 cm.
b g
1
Imax. a + a2
= 1 =
2
Ha 2
+1
K 1011. In the first case, the intensity is 4I and in the second
case, the intensity is 2I. So, the ratio is 4I : 2I i.e.
Imin. (a1 − a2 )2
a12
FG a
1
− 1J
I 2
2 : 1.
Ha2 K 1012. Path difference corresponding to 5th maximum is 5λ.
FG 4 + 1IJ 2
The corresponding phase difference is 10π.
=
H3 K =
49 Dλ
FG 4 − 1IJ 2 1 1013.
d
β=
H3 K For less d, β more
I1 4
1004. = nλ
I2 1 1014. 2µt = nλ or t=
2µ
a12 4
= λ 589.3
a22 1 tleast = = nm = 213.5 nm
2µ 2 × 1.38
a1 2
= 1015. It can be shown that the separation of the bright
2 1 fringes of a double-slit interference pattern is given
2 by
Imax. a1 + a2
d i 32 9
= = =
Imin. b
a1 − a2
2
g 12 1
1005. I0 ∝ (a + a)2 or I0 ∝ 4a2 A
Bright yn + 1
fringes
Again, I ∝ a2 yn
d
I0 I0
=4 or I =
I 4 B
1007. y ∝ n L
Screen
8 ∝ 20
y30 ∝ 30 Fig. 224
y30 30 3
∴ = = or y 30 = 12 mm. Lλ
8 20 2 yn +1 – yn =
d
1008. 3I = I + 4I + 2 I × 4I cos φ
where L is the distance from slits to screen.
or – 2I = 2 × 2I cos φ d is the distance between slits.
1 λ is the wavelength of source.
or cos φ = – or φ = 120°.
2 Thus, separation can be increased by increasing L,
1009. 0.4 ∝ 6000 decreasing d or using a source of longer wavelength
β ∝ 4500 λ.
OPTICS 587
b
y 1024. Path difference should be an odd multiple of
λ
2
.
1019. It can be shown that the separation of the fringes of a 1025. The forming of Newton’s rings is due to the interference
double-slit interference pattern is given by of light between converging lens and the flat plane
λl mirror. When the mirror is gradually separated from
fringe separation = the lens, the path difference of the light between
d
To increase fringe separation, one could converging lens and the flat plane mirror increases.
Hence, the bright and dark rings, though concentric
(i) increase wavelength of light or decrease its
frequency. with the point of contact, T, shrink towards their
centre T as their redii decrease. Eventually, the
(ii) increase the distance l or/and
Newton’s rings disappear at the point of contact, T.
(iii) decrease the distance d between slits. O
1026. The following arguments shall
−9
λ 500 × 10 180 × 7° lead us to the right choice.
1020. = × = 0.0143°
d 2 × 10 −3 22
d
θθ
(i) cos =
1021. OP
d
d
A or OP = cos θ = d sec θ
θ
d (ii) Treat OC as the component
of OP C
B P
OC = OP cos 2θ A
= d sec θ cos 2 θ Fig. 226
L
(iii) Path difference = (d sec θ + d sec θ cos 2θ)
Fig. 225 Corresponding phase difference
To increase the separation of the fringes, we can 2π
= (d sec θ + d sec θ cos 2θ) .
(i) increase the distance (L) between the screen and λ
the slits. (iv) Effective phase difference
(ii) decrease the distance (d) between the two slits. 2π
= (d sec θ + d sec θ cos θ) +π
(iii) decrease the width of each slit. λ
588 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(v) For constructive interference 1031. The phase difference between the wavelets from the
2π
2π top and bottom edges of the slit is d sin θ, where d
(d sec θ + d sec θ cos 2θ) + π = (2n)π λ
λ is the width of the slit.
LM d + d (2 cos 2
θ − 1)
OP 2π The first minimum of the diffraction pattern occurs
or
N cos θ cos θ Q λ
+ π = (2n)π
at sin θ = .
λ
d
2π 2π λ
or (2 d cos θ) + π = 2nπ ∴ Required phase difference is d i.e. 2π.
λ λ d
400 × 10−9
4 d cos θ 1032. sin 30° =
or + 1 = 2n d
λ
1 400 × 10−9
4 d cos θ or = or d = 800 × 10–9 m
or = (2n − 1) 2 d
λ 3λ
(2n − 1)λ Again, sin θ =
2d
or cos θ =
4d 3 × 400 × 10−9 3
λ sin θ = or sin θ =
If n = 1, cos θ = 2 × 800 × 10−9 4
4d
FG IJ
3
1027.
β
(µ – 1)t
λ
= nβ or θ = sin–1 H K
4
5Dλ 5Dλ
(µ − 1)t (1.5 − 1) 2 × 10 −6 1033. y= or d =
or = n or n = d y
λ 500 × 10−9
1 5 × 0.5 × 5000 × 10−10
= × 10 = 2 = m
5 0.5 × 10−3
So, the central maximum shall shift upward by = 25 × 10–4 m = 25 × 10–1 mm
2 fringes. = 2.5 mm
1028. When path difference changes by λ, the shift of cen- λ 1
tral maximum will be equal to one fringe width β. 1034. Angular spread on either side = = radian.
d 5
β 1035. The first order image of the 435.8 nm (λ1) blue light
Shift corresponding to unit path difference is . Shift
λ occurred at an angle of 15.8° (θ1). If d is the grating
β spacing, then
corresponding to path difference (µ – 1) t is (µ – 1) t.
λ 435.8 nm
1029. (a + b) sin θn = nλ d sin θ1 = λ1 or d = = 1600.56 nm
sin 15.8°
Here n is the order of the spectrum and (a + b) is the Thus, the wavelength (λ2) of red line of the impurity
grating element. in the mercury is
For maximum value of n, sin θn = 1 d sin θ2 = λ2 where θ2 = 23.7°.
a+b ⇒ λ2 = (1600.56) (sin 23.7°) = 643.3 nm
∴ (a + b) = nλ or n =
λ Hence, the impurity is cadmium and the associated
1 1 red line’s wavelength is 643.3 nm
Now, n = ×
5000 520 × 10−9 × 102 1036. d sin θ = λ, dθ = λ,
A
104 λ
= = 3.846 ≈ 4 θ=
2600 d
nDλ 600 × 10−9 θ
1030. yn = θ=
B
d −3 D
1 × 10
1 × 2 × 5000 × 10−10 Fig. 227
5 × 10–3 = = 6 × 10–4 radian
d
Distance between minima = 2AB
−6
10 1 = 2D tan θ = 2Dθ = 2 × 2 × 6 × 10–4 m
or d= = m
5 × 10−3 5000 = 24 × 10–4 m = 2.4 mm.
1
= mm = 0.2 mm.
5
OPTICS 589
1037. The spacing of the slits on a diffraction grating d is
P
given by
A
d=a+b
O
The angle θ between the emerging zero-order and first- B O′
order spectra is given by
λ λ λ FG IJ
sin θ = =
d a+b
or θ = sin–1
a +b H K
Hence, θ is dependent on a, b and λ. Fig. 229
1038. When monochromatic light passes through a plane For P to be a minimum, the phase difference of sec-
diffraction grating, bright or principal maxima are ondary waves from O and A (or B) is π (out of phase).
obtained when Hence, the phase difference between the wavelets from
d sin θ = nλ the opposite edges is 2π.
d = spacing of lines. 1042. The sine of the angle between the second order maxi-
where λ = wavelength of light. mum and the normal is given by
n = order of bright image. d sin θ = nλ
We have θ = 30°, n = 2, λ = 5.0 × 10–7 m 2λ 2λ 2
sin θ = = =
∴ d=
e
2 5.0 × 10 −7
j = 2 × 10
−6
m
or
d 3λ 3
[∵ n = 2, d = 3λ]
1043. Distance between successive wavefronts is a wave-
sin 30°
length λ. Thus between wavelength XY and point P,
Hence number of lines per millimetre of the grating the path difference is 3λ.
is
3λ
1 1 Time taken from plane XY to reach P is thus t =
× 10−3 = × 106 × 10−3 = 500 c
d 2
2
1039. 1044. Angular spread ≈ 2 × rad
500
4
Linear spread = × 200 m = 1.6 m
θ
500
This is nearest to 1m.
1.5
1045. Angle subtended by filament = = 10−3
150
Fig. 228 6 × 10 −5
Spread due to diffraction = = 2 × 10–5 rad
In general, the angle of diffraction θ of the nth-order 3
diffraction beam is related to the spacing d by So, ratio is 50.
d sin θ = nλ 1046. d sin 30° = 5900 × 10–10
2λ or d = 2 × 5900 × 10–10 m
∴ sin θ = if n = 2.
d = 118 × 10–8 m = 1.18 × 10–6 m
1040. If d is the spacing of the lines on the grating, then the
= 1.18 micron.
angle θ of the nth order diffracted beams measured
1047.
with respect to the line normal to the grating is given
by P
d sin θ = nλ R
α
Now, θ= and n = 2. A θ
2
FG IJ
a d
α 2λ B
∴ d sin
H K
2
= 2λ or d =
α FG IJ
H K
S
sin P′
2
1041. The diagrammatic representation of the given prob-
lem is shown in Fig. 229. Fig. 230
590 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Let the centre of the slit RS be d. The first dark band 1053. 2d sin θ = nλ
will be formed at an angle θ to the incident beam if 2 × d sin 32° = λ
the path difference of light from the strip just below R Also, 2 × d sin θ = 2λ
λ
and the strip-just below d is , where λ is the sin θ 2λ
2 Dividing, = or sin θ = 2 sin 32°
wavelength of the light. This happens for all pairs of sin 32° λ
corresponding strip in Rd and dS because the path
= 2 × 0.529 = 1.059
λ
difference of exists. Hence, there is no light in But sin θ cannot be greater than 1.
2
direction θ when So, there is no second order diffraction.
1054. (a + b) sin θn = nλ
λ
dA = or SB = 2dA = λ 1
2 sin θn = 3 × 5400 × 10–8
i.e., SP – RP = SB = λ 2000
SB λ or sin θn = 2000 × 3 × 5400 × 10–8
Now, sin θ = sin ∠dRA = = or sin θn = 0.324
RS a
1048. In diffraction/interference theory, two contributions or θn = sin–1 (0.324)
like A cos ωt and B cos (ωt + α) are represented by two
2λ 2 × 6328 × 10−10
vectors of lengths A and B with angle α to get the 1055. sin θ = =
resultant amplitude with the correct phase. Since the d 0.2 × 10 −3
disturbances are along the same line, these are not = 6328 ×10–6
vectors in the ordinary sense of the term. These are or θ = sin–1 (0.006328) = 0.36°
called phase vectors or phasors. Phase difference
I0
2π 1056. Required intensity is I0 cos2 45° or .
= (d sin θ). Moreover, anticlockwise is taken as 2
λ
I0 I 3
+ ve. 1057. I= cos2 30° = 0 ×
2 2 4
1049. Resolving power of the eye is given by
3 I 3
λ = I0 or =
R = 1.22 ×D [d is diameter of eye lens] 8 I0 8
d
500 × 10 −9 × 4 × 105 I0
= 1.22 × m 1058. I1 = I0 cos2 45° =
5 × 10 −3 2
= 48.8 m ≈ 50 m I0 I
Again, I2 = cos2 45° = 0
1.22λ 2 4
1050. dθ =
a 2π 2 × 3.14
1059. T= = s
y ω 31.4
Also, dθ =
D = 0.2 s
y 1.22λ 1.22 λ D Energy transmitted/revolution
∴ = or y =
D a a FG I AIJ 0.2
H2 K
0
1051. d sin θ = nλ = (IA)T =
nλ 1 × 6500 × 10 −10
d= = 10−3 × 0.2
sin θ sin 30° = = 10–4 J
2
= 130 × 10–8 m = 130 × 10–8 × 106 micron
I 2
= 1.3 micron 1060. I = 0 cos 30°
2
2Dλ I 3
1052. Width of central maximum = I = 0 ×
d 2 4
2 × 2.5 × 6000 × 10 −10 3I0
= m I =
6 × 10 −3 8
= 5 ×10–4 m = 5 ×10–4 × 103 mm I
= 0.375
= 5 ×10–1 mm = 0.5 mm. I0
OPTICS 591
I
× 100 = 0.375 × 100 = 37.5 I0 FG IJ
3
5
I0
I =
2
×
4H K
1061. Half the intensity is transmitted. 243 I0
1063. µ = tan i I =
2048
sin i I0
µ = 1071. I= cos2 θ cos2 (90 – θ)
cos i 2
sin i 32
Also, µ= or 3 = cos2 θ sin 2 θ
sin r 2
FG π − iIJ 3
∴ sin r = cos i or sin r = sin H2 K or
16
= cos2 θ sin2 θ
π π 3
or r= − i or i + r = = 90° or = 4 cos2 θ sin2 θ
2 2 4
sin (90 − θ) 3
90° – θ or = sin2 2θ
1064. 2µ1 = sin θ 4
medium 2
2µ1 = cot θ 3
1
medium 1 or sin 2θ = or 2θ = 60°
2
2µ1 =
θ θ
sin c or θ = 30°
∴ c = sin–1 (tan θ). I0
1072. I= cos2 30° × cos2 30° × cos2 30°
Fig. 231 2
I0 FG IJ
3
3
1065. Amplitude decreases by a factor of cos θ i.e., by a factor
3 9
I =
2
×
4H K
of . So, intensity decreases by a factor . 27 I0
4 16 I =
128
1066. µ = tan θ
I = 0.21 I0
c v
= tan θ or cot θ = λ
v c 1074. t =
FG v IJ 4(µ′ − µ)
or θ = cot–1 H cK t=
5893 × 10 −10
= 1.61 × 10–5 m.
1067. tan i = 1.55 or i = tan–1 (1.55) = 57.17° 4(1.5533 − 1.5442)
1075. µ = tan 60°
sin 57.17° 0.84
= 1.55 or = 1.55
sin r sin r µ = 3
0.84 ∆ν v v
or sin r = = 0.5419 1076. = or ∆ν = ν
1.55 ν c c
or r = sin–1 (0.5419) = 32.81° 0.2c
= × 4 × 107 Hz = 0.8 ×107 Hz
= 32° 48.6′ ≈ 32° 49′. c
I0 ∴ ν′ = ν – ∆ν = 4 × 107 – 0.8 × 107
1068. In (1), θ = 60°, I = I0 cos2 60° = .
4 = 3.2 × 107 Hz.
In (2), θ = 75° – 15° = 60°, ∆λ v
1077. =
I λ c
I = I0 cos2 60° = 0 . In (3), θ = 60°,
4 ∆λ 6 × 107
= = 0.2
I0 I λ 3 × 108
I= . In (4), θ = 60°, I = 0 .
4 4 or ∆λ = 0.2 × 4600 Å = 920 Å
λ′ = 4600 Å + 920 Å = 5520 Å
1070. I=
I0
2
ecos2 30° j 5
v 0.8c
1078. ∆λ = λ = 5500 × = 4400 Å.
c c
592 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
v 10 6 1 ∆ν
1079. ∆λ = λ = × 5700 Å = 19 Å. 1086. va = × ×c
c 3 × 10 8 2 ν
∆λ 0.05 1 3 × 103
1080. v = c = × 3 × 108 m s–1 = 1.5 × 105 m s–1. = × × 3 × 10 8 ms–1 = 50 m s–1
λ 100 2 9 × 109
1081. Apparent frequency increases. Apparent wavelength
decreases. 6000
1087. d = n × 6000 = (n + 1)
1.0003
1.5 × 10 6
1082. ∆λ = × 5000 Å = 25 Å. n+1 1
3 × 108 or = 1.0003 or = 0.0003
n n
1083. Firstly, the car is the source and at the cliff, one ob-
6000 6000 × 10−10
serves f. Now, d= Å = × 103 mm
Secondly, the cliff is now source. Its 0.0003 3 × 10−4
emitted frequency is f ′ and ob- Source = 2 mm.
server is now the driver who ob- 1088. θ 9.9 ∵ 1 dm = 10 cm
c= =
serves f ′. ls 20
× 66
As source and observer are moving Observer 10
in same direction, = 0.075 g cm–3 = 75 g litre–1.
v + v0 Fig. 232 4πnd cθ
∴ f′= f 1090. c = or n =
v − vs θ 4 πd
v + v0 3 × 10 8 × 48 π × 10 −3
or 2f = f or n= × 60
v − vs 4 π × 6000
or 2v – 2v0 = v + v0 [As vs = v0] = 36000 rotations/min.
v θ
or v0 = 1091. 2= or θ = 80°
3 1 × 40°
1084. Since wavelength of blue light is less than 5500 Å
c 3 × 108
therefore apparent frequency increases. So, the star 1092. vg = = m s–1 = 2 × 108 m s–1
is moving towards the earth. µ 3/2
0.4 x 4 × 10−3
1085. vs = × 3 × 108 m s–1 = 1.2 × 106 m s–1 t= = s = 2 × 10–11 s.
100 vg 2 × 108
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
In each question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just
below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as :
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) If A is true but R is false.
(D) If both A and R are false.
(E) If A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A). Plane polarised light is passing through a rotating polaroid. On viewing through the polaroid, we
find that the intensity of light is twice maximum and twice zero in one complete rotation.
Reason (R). In Huygens’ wave theory, the locus of all points in the same state of vibration is called a wavefront.
[HPMT 1997]
2. Assertion (A). Optically active substances are those substances which rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised
light.
Reason (R). Intensity of light changes when the light is polarised.
3. Assertion (A). If light is polarised by reflection, then the angle between reflected and refracted rays is 180°.
Reason (R). Brewster’s law : µ = tan ip.
Key 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (E).
OPTICS 593
MCQs
SET III
with
More than one correct alternative
1104. When a ray of light enters a denser medium, (a) I (θ) = I0 for θ = 0° (b) I (θ) = I0/2 for θ = 30°
(c) I (θ) = I0/4 for θ = 90°
(a) its frequency increases
(d) I (θ) is constant for all values of θ.
(b) its wavelength decreases 1108. Huygens’ principle of secondary wavelets may be used
(c) its velocity decreases to
(d) it may suffer a total internal reflection. (a) find the velocity of light in vacuum
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999] (b) explain the particle behaviour of light
(c) find the new position of a wavefront
1105. If polaroids are to be used to avoid glares of oncom-
(d)explain Snell’s law.
ing light, then
1109. The focal length of the objective of a compound
(a) visibility will decrease microscope is f0 and its distance from the eye-piece is
(b) transmittivity of windshield will decrease L. The object is placed at a distance u from the
(c) vehicles will move slowly objective. For proper working of the instrument
(a) L < u (b) L > u
(d) cost will increase.
(c) f0 < L < 2f0 (d) L > 2f0.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999]
1110. Which of the following is correct ?
1106. White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a (a) The number of images observable between two parallel
Young’s double slit experiment. The separation plane mirrors is infinite.
between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance (b) Field of view is more for convex mirror as compared to
d (≥ b) from the slits. At a point on the screen directly plane mirror and concave mirror.
in front of one of the slits, certain wavelengths are (c) A diminished virtual image cannot be produced by plane
missing. Some of these missing wavelengths are mirror or concave mirror.
(a) λ = b2/d (b) λ = b2/3d (d) A diminished virtual image can be obtained by a convex
mirror.
(c) λ = 2b2/d (d) λ = 2b2/3d. [IIT 1984]
1111. Two convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm and 20 cm
1107. In an interference arrangement respectively placed coaxially are separated by some
similar to Young’s double slit S1 distance d. The whole system behaves like a concave
experiment, the slits S1 and S2 d/2 lens. The possible value (s) of d is/are
are illuminated with coherent θ (a) 25 cm (b) 20 cm
microwave sources, each of fre- (c) 40 cm (d) 45 cm.
quency 106 Hz. The sources are d/2 1112. A convex lens forms a real image of a point object
synchronised to have zero phase S2 placed on its principal axis. If the upper half of the
difference. The slits are sepa- lens is covered, then
rated by distance d = 150 m. The Fig. 233
(a) the image will be shifted downward
intensity I (θ) is measured as a function of θ, where θ (b) the image will be shifted upward
is defined as shown. If I0 is maximum intensity, then (c) the image will not be shifted
I (θ) for 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90° is not given by (d) the intensity of the image will decrease.
594 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1113. In an experiment with a lens, the object distance u object 20 cm high is located at a distance of 4 m from
versus image distance v data were obtained. Which the convex lens. Which of the following is correct ?
of the following graphs will be linear ? (a) The real inverted image of height 3.8 cm is formed behind
the concave lens.
(a) 1/v versus 1/u (b) uv versus (v – u)
(b) The distance of the image from the convex lens is nearly
(c) v/u versus v (d) v versus u. 63 cm.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990] (c) The distance of the image from the convex lens is 17 cm.
1114. Which of the following quantities increases when (d) The virtual and erect image of height 7.5. cm is formed in
front of concave lens at a distance of 37 cm from the con-
wavelength is increased ? Consider only the
vex lens.
magnitudes.
1119. How much water should be filled in a container, 21
(a) The power of a converging lens
cm in height, so that it does not appear to be half-
(b) The focal length of a converging lens
filled when viewed from the top of the container ?
(c) The power of a diverging lens Given : refractive index of water = 4/3.
(d) The focal length of a diverging lens. (a) 18.0 cm (b) 10.5 cm
1115. A narrow beam of white light goes through a slab (c) 12.0 cm (d) 14.0 cm.
having parallel faces. 1120. A liquid of refractive index
(a) The light never splits in different colours. 1.62 is placed between two
(b) The emergent beam is white.
plano-convex identical
lenses, the medium of
(c) The light inside the slab is split into different colours.
which has refractive index
(d) The light inside the slab is white. 1.54. Two possible arrange-
1116. A convex lens forms a real image, on a screen, of an ments P and Q are shown. P Q
object, the magnification being 0.5. The object and Which of the following is in-
Fig. 235
correct ?
the image distances are so changed that a real im-
(a) The system divergent in P and convergent in Q.
age equal in size to the object is formed. If the dis-
(b) The system is convergent in P and divergent in Q.
placement of object is 20 cm, then
(c) The system is convergent in both.
(a) the focal length of the lens is 20 cm
(d) The system is divergent in both.
(b) the initial distance of the object from the lens is 60 cm
1121. An optical instrument used for angular magnifica-
(c) the initial distance of the image from the lens is 30 cm tion has a 25 D objective and a 20 D eye-piece. The
(d) the final distance of the image from the lens is 25 cm. tube length is 25 cm when the eye is least strained.
1117. When light incident in a medium at an angle i is Which of the following is correct ?
refracted into a second medium at an angle r, the (a) The instrument is a telescope.
graph of sin i vs sin r is as shown in Fig. 234. Which (b) The instrument is a microscope.
of the following is correct ? (c) The angular magnification produced is 10.
(a) The velocity of light in sec- (d) The angular magnification produced is 20.
1122. The brightness-producing capacity of a source
ond medium is 3 times
(a) does not depend on its power
the velocity of light in the
(b) does not depend on the wevelength emitted
Sin r
first medium.
(b) The velocity of light in the (c) depends on its power
first medium is 3 times (d) depends on the wavelength emitted.
the velocity of light in sec- 1123. A Young’s double slit experiment is performed with
30°
ond medium. O Sin i white light.
(c) The critical angle is given (a) The central fringe will be white.
Fig. 234
1 (b) There will not be a completely dark fringe.
by sin i c =
3 (c) The fringe next to the central will be red.
(d) The fringe next to the central will be violet.
1
(d) The critical angle is given by sin ic = . 1124. When we see an object, the image formed on the
2
retina is
1118. A convex lens of power 2 D and a concave lens of
(a) real (b) virtual
power 1.5 D are spaced apart coaxially by 40 cm. An
(c) erect (d) inverted.
OPTICS 595
1125. An object is placed at the principal focus of a conver- (a) frequency of light remains constant.
gent lens and moves away from the lens slowly. Its (b) velocity of light increases by 1.5 times.
distance as measured from the principal focus is x.
(c) frequency of light increases by 1.5 times.
The image distance is measured from the second fo-
cus of the lens, and called x′. In the graph (Fig. 236) (d) wavelength (λ) of light decreases by 1.5 times.
the ordinate could mean : 1130. A planet is observed by an astronomical refracting
telescope having an objective of focal length 16 m
and an eye-piece of focal length 2 cm. Which of the
following is correct ?
A B C
(a) The distance between the objective and the eye-piece is
16.02 m
(b) The angular magnification of the planet is–800.
O x O x O x (c) The image of the planet is inverted
(d) The objective is larger than the eye-piece. [IIT 1992]
1131. Which of the following form (s) a virtual and erect
E
image for all positions of the object ?
D
(a) convex lens (b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror (d) concave mirror.[IIT 1996]
O x O x 1132. Two lenses, one concave and the other convex of same
power, are placed such that their principal axes coin-
Fig. 236 cide. If the separation between the lenses is x, then
(a) x′ for curve B (b) xx′ for curve E (a) real image is formed for x = 0 only
(c) magnification for curve D (b) real image is formed for all values of x
(d) reciprocal magnification for curve A. (c) system will behave like a glass plate for x = 0
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996] (d) virtual image is formed for all values of x other than zero.
1126. In which of the following the final image is erect ? 1133. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Simple microscope (b) Compound microscope (a) Interference of light is evidence for transverse wave char-
(c) Astronomical telescope (d) Galilean telescope. acter of light
1127. A light wave can travel (b) Sunlight reflected from calm water surface at a slant an-
gle would show partial polarisation
(a) in vacuum (b) in vaccum only
(c) Rainbow appears because of scattering of light
(c) in a material medium (d) in a material medium only.
(d) The scheme of a source of light S and two narrow and
1128. Mark the correct options.
near slits A, B shown below is not adequate to obtain
(a) The luminous efficiency of a monochromatic source is al- interference on the right side of A, B.
ways greater than that of a white light source of same
power.
(b) The luminous efficiency of a monochromatic source of
wavelength 555 nm is always greater than that of a white
light source of same power. A
(c) The illuminating power of a monochromatic source of
S
wavelength 555 nm is always greater than that of a white B
light source of same power.
(d) The illuminating power of a monochromatic source is al-
ways greater than that of a white light source of same
power. Fig. 237
1129. When a beam of light with wavelength, λ = 6000 Å, [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
travelling in air, enters a glass medium whose 1134. A ray of light passes from a denser to a rarer medium.
refractive index is 1.5, then At the surface of separation the angle of incidence is
596 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c) the reflected ray rotates through an angle 2θ. 1142. In case of spherical mirrors, indicate the quantities,
which are independent of the paraxial ray assumption.
(d) the incident ray is fixed.
(a) Pole (b) Focus
1138. Which of the following is correct regarding a convex
(c) Radius of curvature (d) Principal axis.
lens ?
1143. If white light is used in a Young’s double-slit experi-
(a) The object or its image which is closer to the lens is always
ment,
smaller.
(a) bright white fringes are formed at the centre of the screen
(b) The real object and its real image always lie on different
(b) fringes of different colours are observed clearly only in
sides of the lens.
the first order
(c) It never forms real image of a virtual object. (c) the first-order violet fringes are closer to the centre of the
(d) The object and its real image cannot come closer to 4f. screen than the first-order red fringes
1139. Interference fringes with light of wavelength λ fall- (d) the first-order red fringes are closer to the centre of the
screen than the first-order violet fringes.
ing along near normal to an air film are observed to
be as shown in Fig. 238. One of the faces of the film is 1144. In a single slit Fraunhofer diffraction experiment
setup,
known to be plane. From the fringes, one may con-
(a) if the distance between the screen and the slit is increased,
clude that
the angular width of the central maximum does not change
(a) the other face is also a plane face.
(b) if the wavelength is reduced, the angular width of maxima
(b) the other face is a cylindrical one. increases
(c) the air thickness difference between points P and Q can (c) if the wavelength is reduced, the minima shift toward the
only be 2λ. central maxima
(d) the air thickness difference between points Q and R is λ/2. (d) at the position of minima, the waves from the two ends of
the slit interfere constructively.
OPTICS 597
1145. Which of the following quantities related to a lens (a) Fig. 239 (I) shows deviation without dispersion
depend on the wavelength or wavelengths of the inci- (b) Fig. 239 (II) is for showing dispersion without deviation
dent light ? (c) In Fig. 239 (I), prism P is of flint glass and Q of crown glass
(a) Power (b) Focal length (if these two are the only options)
(c) Chromatic aberration (d) Radii of curvature. (d) In Fig. 239 (III) a transverse screen at P would show violet
1146. A diminished image of an object is to be obtained on at centre, red outside.
a screen 1.0 m from it. This can be achieved by ap- [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
proximately placing
1149. P1 and P2 are identical prisms arranged as shown in
(a) a convex mirror of suitable focal length
Fig. 240. A ray of white light incident on one face of
(b) a concave mirror of suitable focal length
P1 undergoes dispersion and falls on one face of P2.
(c) a convex lens of focal length less than 0.25 m
Then
(d) a concave lens of suitable focal length. [IIT 1995]
1147. By properly combining two prisms made of different
materials, it is possible to Red
(a) have dispersion without average deviation
White
(b) have deviation without dispersion
Violet P2
(c) have both dispersion and average deviation
(d) have neither dispersion nor average deviation.
P1
1148. Which of the following is correct ?
P Q
(III)
Fig. 239
= d MG 1 + d J
HN K − 1PQ
2
or I = I0 cos2
π
2
or I = 0
L b − 1OP = b
= d M1 +
2 2 For θ = 0°, I = I0
MN 2d PQ 2d
2 Again, intensity is dependent on angle θ.
b2 λ 1 1 1 d 1 3 d
For darkness, = (2n – 1) 1111. = + − or = −
2d 2 F 10 20 200 F 20 200
For F to be negative,
b2 b2
or (2n – 1) λ = or λ = d 3
d (2 n − 1) d
> or d > 30 cm.
2 200 20
b
For n = 1, λ = 1 v
d 1116. – =
2 2 u
b
For n = 2, λ = . u
3d or u = – 2 v or v = –
φ 2
1107. I = I0 cos2 1 1 1 −2 1 1
2 Now, − − = or − =
2π yd 2π d D tan θ u u f u u f
Here, φ= or φ = −
λ D λ D 2
2π 3 1
or φ= d tan θ or – = or u = – 3f
λ u f
π d tan θ
∴ I = I0 cos2 In the second case, magnification is 1. Clearly, the
λ
y object distance is ‘– 2f ′.
c
But d = 150 m and λ = Clearly, the displacement of the object is f.
ν θ
D ∴ f = 20 cm so (a) is OK.
3 × 108
or λ = m Fig. 242 Now, initial distance of object from the lens
106
= – 60 cm
= 300 m
So, (b) is OK
π × 150 × tan θ
∴ I = I0 cos2 Initial distance of image from the lens
300
π tan θ u − 60
or I = I0 cos2 =– =– cm = 30 cm
2 2 2
π So, (c) is OK
For θ = 30°, I = I0 cos2 tan 30°
2 Final distance of image from the lens = 2f
π = 2 × 20 cm = 40 cm
= I0 cos2 = I0 cos2 52° = 0.4 I0
2 3 So, (d) is NOT OK.
OPTICS 599
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum deviation,
which of the following in true ?
(a) PQ is horizontal (b) QR is horizontal
(c) RS is horizontal Q R
SET IV MCQs
based on
TYPICAL NUMERICAL BANK
(Exclusively for Engineering Entrance Tests)
1150. A 60 watt bulb is hang over the centre of a table 4′ × 4′ (a) 16 s (b) 36 s
at a height of 3′. The ratio of the intensities of illumi- (c) 46 s (d) 24 s. [DCE 2003]
nation at a point on the centre of the edge and the 1154. An isotopic point source of light is suspended h me-
corner of the table is tre vertically above the centre of a circular table of
17 2 radius r metre. Then the ratio of illuminance at the
(a) (b) centre to that at the edge of the table is
13 1
F r2 I F h2 I
F 17 I
(c) GH JK × 60
F 17 I 3 / 2 .
(d) G J
GH h2 JK
(a) 1 + GH
(b) 1 +
r2
JK
13 H 13 K
F r2 I 3/ 2
(c) G 1 +
F h2 I 3 / 2 .
H h2 JK
(d) G 1 +
H r 2 JK
1151. Fig. 248 shows a lamp of luminous intensity 72
candela hanging at a height of 1.20 m over a table
and at a distance of
1155. In Question Number 1154 for the illuminance at the
0.80 m from a wall.
On the wall, there edge of the table to be maximum, the height h from
hangs a small mirror
0.8 m the table is
1.20 m
so that the distance of r
(a) 2r (b)
the mirror from the 1m 2
centre of the lamp is r
1 m. The approximate (c) (d) 2 (r).
2
illuminance on the 1156. What path the ray of Q
table under the lamp light PQ would follow
will be Fig. 248
after getting reflected
(a) 30 lx (b) 40 lx from the second mir-
(c) 50 lx (d) 61 lx. ror ?
1152. In the above question how will be illuminace change (a) Parallel to PQ
(b) Perpendicular to PQ
if the mirror is removed ? P
(c) Parallel to first mirror
(a) It will decrease by 31.5 lx (b) It will increase by 31.5 lx
(d) Data is inadequate. Fig. 249
(c) It will decrease by 10.8 lx (d) It will decrease by 2.1 lx.
1153. The exposure time required for photographing an 1157. Two mirrors, each 1.6 m long, are facing each other.
object illuminated by a 100 W bulb at a distance The distance between the mirrors is 20 cm. A light
of 1 m is 8 s. What is the exposure time if two 100 W ray is incident on one end of one of the mirrors at an
bulbs at distances of 3 m and 4 m from the object angle of incidence of 30°. How many times is the ray
being illuminated are used if the total luminous reflected before it reaches the other end ?
energy flux over photographic plate remains (a) 1 (b) 3
unchanged ? (c) 7 (d) 14.
OPTICS 603
1158. Refer to Fig. 250. The angle from the object, then the focal length of the convex
at which the ray is incident 60° mirror is
on the second mirror is (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
(a) 10° (c) 20 cm (d) 40 cm.
50°
(b) 20° 1165. An illuminated object is placed at a distance D from
(c) 30° a screen. When a convex lens is placed at position A,
(d) 40°. a sharp magnified image is formed on the screen.
Fig. 250 When the lens is shifted by a distance d to another
1159. In the previous question, what is the angle at which position B, a sharp but diminished image is formed
the ray is incident on the first mirror after being on the screen. The ratio between the sizes of the two
reflected from the second mirror ? images will be
(a) 30° (b) 0° D2 (D + d ) 2
(a) (b)
(c) 70° (d) infinity. d2 (D − d ) 2
1160. A point object is placed at a distance of 500 mm from
D FG D + d IJ .
a concave mirror length 200 mm. If the object is moved
towards the mirror by 100 mm, the image moves by
(c)
d
(d)
H D − dK
a distance of 1166. For a medium in the form
(a) 67 mm towards mirror of sphere, rays starting
(b) 67 mm away from the mirror from one end of a diameter
in a small cone emerge
(c) 10 mm towards mirror
from the opposite surface as
(d) 10 mm away from the mirror. a parallel beam. The refrac-
1161. A candle flame 3 cm high is placed at distance of 3 m tive index of material of the
from a wall. How far from the wall must a concave sphere is Fig. 251
mirror be placed in order that it may form an image (a) 3/2 (b) 2/3
of the flame 9 cm high on the wall ?
(c) 1/2 (d) 2/1.
(a) 225 cm (b) 300 cm
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
(c) 450 cm (d) 150 cm.
1162. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 60 cm is 1167. A ray of light is incident on a convex lens of focal
placed at the bottom of a tank containing water upto length 80 cm. The incident light is parallel to the
a height of 20 cm. The mirror faces upwards with its principal axis and is at a height of 10 cm above the
axis vertical. Solar light falls normally on the sur- principal axis. The deviation produced by the lens is
face of water and the image of the sun is formed. If a ...... Given : lens is very thin.
4 1
µw = , then with the observer in air, the distance of (a) (b) 8
3 8
the image from the surface of water is
(c) 80 × 10 (d) 45°
(a) 30 cm (b) 10 cm
1168. A double convex lens has a focal length of 25 cm in
(c) 7.5 cm above (d) 7.5 cm below.
air. When it is dipped into a liquid of refractive index
1163. A concave mirror forms on a screen a real image of
4
twice the linear dimensions of the object. Object and , its focal length increases by 75 cm. The refractive
3
screen are then moved until the image is three times
index of the material of the lens is
the size of the object. If the shift of the screen is 25 cm,
then the focal length of the mirror is 4 3
(a) (b)
(a) 5 cm (b) 16.66 cm 3 4
(c) 25 cm (d) 37.5 cm. 25 × 3 × π × 2
(c) 1.5 (d) .
1164. A luminous object is placed 20 cm from the surface .4 × 75
of a convex mirror and a plane mirror is set so that
1169. Fig. 252 shows a glass prism of refractive index 1.5
the virtual images formed in the two mirrors coin-
cide. If the plane mirror is at a distance of 15 cm immersed in water. A ray of light is shown to be
incident on the face AC. After reflection from AC, it
604 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
f1 f2 f1( f2 + d) ∆2
(a) X = ,y=∆ (b) X = ,Y= A D
f1 + f2 f1 + f2 − d f1 + f2
f1 f2 + d( f1 − d) ∆( f1 − d) αmax n1 n2
(c) X = , Y=
f1 + f2 − d f1 + f2 − d
f1 f2 + d( f1 − d) B C
(d) X =
f1 + f2 − d
, Y = 0. [IIT 1993]
1179. A diverging beam of light from a point source S hav- Fig. 256
ing divergence angle α, falls symmetrically on a glass
slab as shown in Fig. 255. The angles of incidence of LM n1 cos F sin−1 n2 I OP LMn cos F sin−1 1 I OP
(a) sin–1
MN n2 GH n1 JK PQ (b) sin MN 1 GH n2 JK PQ
–1
the two extreme rays are equal. If the thickness of
the glass slab is t and the refractive index is n, then
the divergence angle of the emergent beam is F n1 I F n1 I .
S
(c) sin–1 GH n2 JK (d) sin –1
GH n2 JK
[IIT Screening 2000]
α
1182. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both
surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On immersion
in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave
as a
(a) convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
i i (b) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(c) divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(d) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R.
n t
[IIT Screening 1999]
1183. A long cylindrical tube containing water is closed by
Fig. 255 an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm in air. A
(a) zero (b) α point source is placed along the axis of the tube
outside it at a distance of 21 cm from the lens. If the
FG 1 IJ FG 1 IJ . refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5 and
(c) sin–1 H nK (d) 2 sin–1 H nK 4
that of water is , then the image is formed at what
[IIT Screening 2000] 3
distance inside the tube ?
1180. A film of air is enclosed between a pair of thin
(a) 30 cm (b) 40 cm
microscope slides and the combination is then
(c) 50 cm (d) 70 cm.
inserted in water. A ray of white light is projected
through water and the light reflected by thin film of 1184. µ for the material of a 60° prism is 1.5. Given :
air sandwiched between the two slides is received on 2 3
a screen. If the angle of incidence of the ray on the sin 42° ≈ and sin 49° ≈ . The angle of incidence
3 4
film is gradually decreased from 90°, the reflected for minimum deviation is nearly
light will (a) 30° (b) 49°
(a) turn red and then vanish (c) 38° (d) 28°.
(b) remain white and then vanish
1185. In Q. 1184, the angle of minimum deviation is nearly
(c) remain white at all angles of incidence (a) 30° (b) 49°
(d) turn blue and then vanish. (c) 38° (d) 28°.
1181. A rectangular glass slab ABCD, of refractive index 1186. In Q. 1184, the angle of incidence for maximum
n1, is immersed in water of refractive index n2 (n1 > deviation is nearly
n2 ). A ray of light is incident at the surface AB of the (a) 30° (b) 49°
slab as shown in Fig. 256. The maximum value of
(c) 128° (d) 28°.
the angle of incidence αmax such that the ray comes
out only from the other surface CD is given by 1187. An isosceles prism of angle 120° has a refractive in-
dex of 1.44. Two parallel monochromatic rays enter
606 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
the prism parallel to each other in (c) the fringe pattern moved towards X
air as shown in Fig. 257. The rays (d) the fringe pattern moved towards Y
emerging from the opposite faces (e) the separation of the fringes decreased in the region OY
120°
(a) are parallel to each other but was unchanged in the region OX.
(b) are diverging 1190. White light covers the range of wavelengths from 400
(c) make an angle 2(sin–1 (0.72) – 30°) nm to 700 nm. A diffraction grating with 6 × 105
with each other lines per metre is placed at right angles to a ray of
(d) make an angle 2 sin–1 (0.72) with Fig. 257 white light and produces the first and second order
each other. [IIT 1995] spectra shown in Fig. 260. The figure is not drawn to
1188. A glass sphere of radius r = 5 × 10–2 m has a small scale.
bubble 2 × 10–2 m from its centre. The bubble is viewed
along a diameter of the sphere from the side on which
Grating Second
it lies. Refractive index of glass is 1.5. Distance from Red
order
surface at which the bubble will appear is Blue spectrum
Red
β First
White Blue
light α order
spectrum
X
Observer’s
eye
r
Fig. 260
Fig. 258
The angle between the red and blue ends of the spec-
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 5.2 cm
trum is α for the first order spectrum and β for the
(c) – 5.2 cm (d) – 2.5 cm.
second order spectrum. How do α and β compare ?
1189. The diagram below (Fig. 259) illustrates an experi-
(a) α < 21 β (b) α = 2 β
mental arrangement that produces interference
fringes with a double slit. (c) α = 21 β (d) α > 2 β
X (e) α = β.
1191. A narrow beam of monochromatic light falls at nor-
mal incidence on a diffraction grating. Third-order
S1 diffracted beams are formed at angles of 45° to the
original direction. What is the highest order of dif-
O
S2
fracted beam produced by this grating ?
(a) 3 rd (b) 4 th
Monochromatic (c) 5 th (d) 6th.
Screen
source
Y
1192. Plane-polarised radio-waves are transmitted by a
Thin glass plate vertical aerial. The amplitude of the waves is A when
they reach a receiving aerial which is tilted from the
Fig. 259 vertical at an angle θ in the plane perpendicular to
the direction of arrival. The power delivered by the
When slit S2 was covered with a very thin plate of aerial to the receiver is proportional to
glass as shown, (a) A2 cos2 θ (b) A cos θ
(a) the separation of the fringes increased (c) zero (d) A sin θ
(b) the separation of the fringes decreased (e) A2 sin2 θ.
OPTICS 607
LM 9 + 16 OP 3/ 2
= M
L 17 O 3/ 2 i i
16 P = M P
2
MN 9 + 4 PQ N 13 Q
i
72 72 × 1.20
1151. E = + 90° – i
1.20 2
[1.22 + 1.62 ]3/2 1.6 m P
90° – i
86.4
= 50 + i
8
1.20 m
2
= 50 + 10.8 1.6
2 +
= 60.8 ≈ 61 lx 1.2
q
Fig. 261
Fig. 262
1152. When the mirror is removed, the contribution of the
‘‘image’’ will disappear. x
1157. tan 30° = cm
1153. If the two photographic prints have to receive the 20
same luminous energy flux,
1
I1 I2 or x = 20 × cm
3
× t1 = × t2
r12 r2 2
20
100 FG 100 + 100 IJ 100 × 8 Distance covered in one reflection = cm
12
×8= H3 4 K
2 2 t2 or t2 =
100 100
+ Total number of reflections
3
9 16
100 × 8 × 9 × 16 160 3
t2 = s = 46 s. = = 13.856 ≈ 14.
2500 20
608 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 1 1
x = +
v 500 − 200
1 1 1 2−5
= – =
30° v 500 200 1000
20 cm
1000
v= – cm
3
30° Again, u′ = – 400 mm
f = – 200 mm
v′ = ?
1 1 1
+ =
Fig. 263 v′ u′ f
θ′ θ B 1000 200
= – 400 = – mm
3 3
40° θ′
A = – 66.67 mm. = – 67 mm.
50°
v
50° 1161. m=–
u
θ″ − ( x + 300) x + 300
–3=– or –3=–
C
i
−x x
or – 3x = – x – 300 or – 2x = – 300
or x = 150 cm
Fig. 264 Distance of wall from the mirror = (150 + 300) cm =
450 cm.
In ∆ABC, θ″ + 140° + 20° = 180° 1162. Focal length of concave
θ″ = 180° – 160° I1
mirror = 30 cm
θ″ = 20° In the absence of mirror, I
Now, i + θ″ = 90° the image would be formed
or i = 90° – 20° = 70°. at a distance of 30 cm
1160. u = – 500 mm from the mirror or at a dis- 30 cm
tance of 10 cm from the
f = – 200 mm
water surface.
v = ?
3 v
1 1 1 Now, =
+ = 4 10
v u f Fig. 265
30
1 1 1 or v= cm
=– + 4
v u f
= 7.5 cm
OPTICS 609
v µ2 µ µ − µ2
1163. m=– + 1 = 1
u −u v R
v µ 1 1− µ
–2=– Substituting values, + =
u − (− 2R) ∞ −R
v µ 1− µ
or v = 2u or u = or = or – µ = 2 – 2µ or µ = 2.
2 2 −1
1 1× 2 1 1 3 h 10 cm 1
= + or = ...(1) 1167. δ= = =
f v v f v f 80 cm 8
Again, – 3 = –
v + 25 1
∝ (µ – 1) ;
1
α FG 3µ − 1IJ
u
1168.
25 100 H4 K
v + 25
or –3=– or v + 25 = 3 u 1169. The incident ray in the prism has also an angle of
u incidence θ. This follows from geometrical construc-
1 1 3
∴ = + µw
f v + 25 v + 25 tion. Clearly, θ > ic or sin θ > sin ic or sin θ > .
µg
1 4
or = ...(2) 1170. For convex lens
f v + 25
From (1) and (2), 1 1 1
− =
v − 24 15
3 4
= 1 1 1 8−5 1
v v + 25 or = – = =
3v + 75 = 4v or v = 75 cm v 15 24 120 40
1 or v = 40 cm
4
From = n(2), f = or f = 25 cm. For concave lens
100
1164. 1 1 1
– =
80 − d 40 − d − 30
40 − d − 80 + d 1
=−
(80 − d)(40 − d) 30
I
− 40 −1
O =
80 × 40 − 120d + d 2 30
2
d – 120d + 3200 = 1200
or d2 – 120d + 2000 = 0
15 cm 5 cm
10 cm or d2 – 100 d – 20d + 2000 = 0
20 cm or d(d – 100) – 20 (d – 100) = 0
Fig. 266
or d = 20 cm or 100 cm
Now, u = – 20 cm, v = 10 cm, f = ? The given data eliminates the possibility of 100 cm
1 1 1 distance.
= +
f v u FG D IJ FG D IJ
1
=
1
+
1
or
1
=
2−1
1171. (2R – t)t = H 2K H 2K
f 10 − 20 f 20 D2
or 2Rt – t2 = 2R – t
or f = 20 cm 4
Neglecting t2,
I1 v I2 u I1 v
2
FG D + d IJ 2
D2
1165. = , = ,
O u O v I2 u
= 2
H D − dK 2Rt =
4
D/2
t
D/2
1172. (2R – 0.3) 0.3 = 3 × 3 A parallel beam is incident on lens O. It would have
2R – 0.3 = 30 formed image at its focus at point A. For lens O1, A
2R = 30 + 0.3 acts as a virtual object, at a distance ( f1 – d) from
2R = 30 cm
2R – 0.3 lens O1. The final image is formed at B. For lens O1,
R = 15 cm u = + ( f1 – d), v = ?
1 FG IJ
1 3 cm 3 cm 1 1 1
f
= (1.5 – 1) H K
15 0.3
cm
Now,
v
–
f1 − d
=
f2
or f = 30 cm 1 1 1 f2 + ( f1 − d)
3 Fig. 268 or = + =
v f2 ( f1 − d) f2 ( f1 − d)
1173. µ= = 1.5
2 f2 ( f1 − d)
∴ v =
( f1 + f2 − d)
Note that some useless data is there.
1174. r = R sin α
r′ (= BC) = R sin α′
O1 A1 B1
Now, sin α′ = µ sin α y
r′ r O B y
=µ or r′ = µr
R R A
D−d D+d v
1175. u = and v =
2 2
1 1 d
1 (f1 – d)
Now, − = f1
v u f x
2 2 1
– = Fig. 270
D+d − (D − d) f
2 2 1 Now X=d+v
+ =
D+d D−d f f2 ( f1 − d) d( f1 + f2 − d) + f2 ( f1 − d)
=d+ =
1 D− d+D+ d ( f1 + f2 − d) ( f1 + f2 − d)
or =2
f (D + d)(D − d)
df1 − d2 + f1 f2 d( f1 − d) + f1 f2
1 4D = =
or = 2 or D2 – d2 = 4Df f1 + f2 − d f1 + f2 − d
f D − d2
Transverse distance of A from lens O1 is ∆. This is to
or d2 = D2 – 4Df or d2 = D(D – 4f ) be treated as size of object. The final image formed is
or d = D(D − 4 f ) at a distance y from the axis of lens O1. If magnifica-
tion is m.
1 1 1 1
1176 & 1177. = + + v y
F fl fl fm m= =
u (− ∆)
1 1 FG IJ + 1
F
= 2(µ – 1)
r HK ∞ y=–∆
v
u
=–∆
f2 ( f1 − d)
( f1 + f2 − d)( f1 −d)
r
or F= f2
2(µ − 1) =–∆
f1 + f2 − d
Radius of curvature of the mirror
∆ f2
2r r Fig. 269 Now Y=∆–|y|=∆–
= 2F = = f1 + f2 − d
2(µ − 1) µ−1
1178. The final image is formed at point B having co-ordi- =∆
LM1 −
f2
=
OP
∆( f1 − d)
.
nates (X, Y). N f
1 + f2 − d Q
f1 + f2 − d
1179. Emergent rays are parallel to incident rays.
OPTICS 611
1180. When the angle of incidence is decreased from 90°, 1 1 1
the critical angle of incidence for red will be reached Adding, = −
v 2R 28
first.
When the angle of incidence is further decreased, a 1 FG
1 1 IJ
stage is reached when the angle of incidence becomes
Again,
10
= (1.5 – 1) +
H
R R K
equal to the critical angle for blue. So, it is the blue
colour which is finally seen after which the light or R = 10 cm
vanishes. 1 1 −1
∴ =
sin α max n1 v 20 28
1181. =
sin r n2 or v = 70 cm
π
But, r + θc =
2
A+D Fig. 272
θc sin
1184 to 1186. µ= 2
A
sin
r 2
αmax
A+D A
or sin = µ sin
2 2
A+D
Here = Angle of incidence
2
Fig. 271 A+D 3 60° FG IJ
3 3 1
or r =
π
– θc
∴ sin
2
=
2
sin
2
=
2H K
sin 30° =
2
×
2
2 A+D 3
FG π − θ IJ sin
2
=
4
or sin r = sin
H2 K c = cos θc
∴
A+D ~
49°
sin α max n1 n1 2
∴ = or sin αmax = cos θc i.e. Angle of incidence ≈ 49°
cos θ c n2 n2
αmax = sin–1
LM n 1 O
cos θ P
A + D ≈ 98°
60° + D ≈ 98°
or
Nn 2
c
Q D ≈ 38°
n2 Fn I
But sin θc =
n1
or θc = sin–1 GH n JK
2 i.e. Angle of minimum deviation = 38°
1 π π
LM n F F n I I OP . For maximum deviation, either i1 =
2
or i2 =
2
∴ αmax = sin –1 cos G sin
MN n
1
2H
−1
GH n JK JK PQ
2
1 Let i2 =
π
2
1 F 1.5 − 1IJ FG − 2 IJ = 2
= G Then r2 = Critical angle = c
1182.
fm H 1.75 K H R K 7R r2 = 42°
7R But r1 + r2 = 60°
or fm = = 3.5 R
2 ∴ r1 = 18°
Clearly, the concave lens would behave as a conver-
gent lens of focal length 3.5 R. sin i1
= µ or sin i1 = µ sin r1
sin r1
1183. 1.5 1 1.5 − 1
− = 3 3
v1 u R = sin 18° = (0.31)
2 2
1.33 1.5 1.33 − 1.5 or sin i1 = 0.466 or i1 ~ 28°.
− =
v v1 −R
612 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1187. Fig. 273 shows A Similarly, the angle of diffraction θBn for the blue light
∠i = ∠A = 30° i r is given by
i
δ
According to Snell’s law d1 sin θBn = n λB
120°
n1 sin i = n2 sin r θ where λB = wavelength of blue light (450 to 500 nm)
≈ 500 nm
or sin r = 1.44 sin 30° i δ
FG IJ
λB
1
= 1.44 × = 0.72 B
∴ θB1 = sin–1
dH K= sin–1 (0.30) ≈ 17°
2
Fig. 273 FG 2λ IJ
HdK
B
∠δ = ∠r – ∠i θB2 = sin–1 = sin–1 (0.60) ≈ 37°
= sin–1 (0.72) – 30°
α and β can now be determined as follows :
∠θ = 2δ = 2 {sin–1 (0.72) – 30°}.
α = θR1 – θB1 = 25° – 17° = 8°
1 1.5 1 − 1.5
1188. − = β = θR2 – θB2 = 57° – 37° = 20°
v −3 −5 1
or simplification, v = – 2.5 cm. hence, 2α = 16° < 20° = β or α < β.
2
1189. With no glass plate, the path difference between waves 1191. When monochromatic light passes through a plane
reaching O from S1 and S2 is zero, i.e. S1O = S2O, so diffraction grating, bright or principal maxima are
there is a bright fringe at O. The refractive index for obtained from
glass is about 1.5. If the light rays from S2 travel a d sin θ = nλ
length of d in the glass, then the light rays from S1
where d = spacing of lines.
have to travel an equivalent path length of 1.5 d in
λ = wavelength of light.
x n = order of bright image.
n = 3 occurs at 45°.
Given
S1 λ 1
∴ d sin 45° = 3λ or = sin 45°
d 3
FG IJ
O
S2 λ n n
Thin glass
Plate
O′ hence sin θ = n
d
=
H K
3
sin 45° =
3 2
Screen Since maximum angle allowed is 90°, the highest or-
y der of diffracted beam is thus given by
Fig. 274 n = truncated integer of 3 2 = 4.
air in order to arrive at the screen in phase as indi- i.e. highest order nmax = 4.
cated in the diagram. Thus the path difference be- 1192.
tween S1O′ and S2O′ is 0.5 d in order that the light
rays arrive at O′ in phase. This principle applies to
other fringes on the screen. Hence, the fringe pat- A
tern moves towards Y.
1190. The angle of diffraction θRn for nth order diffraction Acos θ
pattern of the red light is given by θ
d sin θRn = n λR
1
where d= m
6 × 105
λR = wavelength of red light (650 to 700 nm) Fig. 275
≈ 7.0 × 10–7 m The amplitude of the plane-polarised radio-waves at
FG λ IJ = sin (0.42) ≈ 25° the receiving aerial is reduced by a factor of cos θ as
H dK
R
∴ θR 1 = sin–1 –1 depicted in the diagram. Since intensity or power is
proportional to the square of the amplitude at receiv-
FG 2λ IJ = sin (0.84) ≈ 57° ing end, the power delivered by the aerial to the re-
H dK
R –1
θR 2 = sin–1 ceiver is proportional to
A2 cos2 θ.
OPTICS 613
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on UNIT XV
[Expected Questions for Forthcoming Examinations]
1. A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass contrast between the maximum and minimum
block of refractive index 2 is incident on the glass- intensity is good when
air surface at an angle of incidence of 45°. The refrac- (a) I1 is much greater than I2
tive index of air is 1. Under these conditions, the ray (b) I1 is much smaller than I2
(a) will emerge into the air without any deviation (c) either I1 or I2 is zero (d) I1 = I2.
(b) will be reflected back into the glass 9. The velocity of light emitted by a source S observed
(c) will be absorbed by an observer O, who is at rest with respect to S is
(d) will emerge into the air with an angle of refraction equal c. If the observer moves towards S with velocity v,
to 90°. the velocity of light as observed will be
2. A candle is placed in front of a concave mirror. The (a) c + v (b) c – v
image of candle is formed on a wall at a distance of
v2
2 m from the candle. The size of the image is 6 times (c) c (d) 1− 2 .
that of the candle. The distance of the candle from c
the mirror is 10. A film projector magnifies a 3 cm × 2 cm film strip
(a) 1.6 m (b) 2.4 m on a screen. If the linear magnification is 10, the area
(c) 2 m (d) 0.4 m. of the magnified film on the screen is
3. In Q. No. 2, the focal length of the mirror used is (a) 6 cm2 (b) 60 cm2
(a) 0.343 m (b) 0.48 m (c) 600 cm2 (d) 6000 cm2.
(c) 3.43 cm (d) 4.8 cm. [MP PMT 1996]
4. The two adjacent walls and the ceiling of a rectangu- 11. A locality is photographed from an aeroplane, flying
lar room are mirror-surfaced. The number of images at a height of 2000 m, with a camera whose focal
of himself that an observer sees is length is 50 cm. The ratio of the linear size of the
(a) 2 (b) 4 image to the size of the object, is nearly
(c) 6 (d) 8. (a) 1 : 40 (b) 1 : 1000
5. A sound wave travels from air to water. The angle of (c) 1 : 4000 (d) 1 : 10000.
incidence is α1 and the angle of refraction is α2. As- 12. We cannot see the shadow of the bird flying high in
suming Snell’s law to be valid. the air because
(a) α2 < α1 (b) α2 > α1 (a) the umbra of the image becomes very large and faint
(c) α2 = α1 (d) α2 = 90°. (b) the umbra vanishes altogether and penumbra becomes
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999] too faint to be observed
(c) the shadow changes its position very quickly as the bird
6. The apparent wavelength of the light from a star
flies
moving away from the earth is 0.01% more than its
(d) the umbra and penumbra overlap.
real wavelength. Then the velocity of star is
(a) 60 km s–1 (b) 15 km s–1
13. A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of numbers
on its dial. On the opposite wall, there is a mirror,
(c) 150 km s–1 (d) 30 km s–1.
and the image of the clock in the mirror, if read,
7. An aeroplane is flying at a height 1500 m. It has a indicates the time as 8.20. What is the time on the
camera having convex lens of focal length 45 cm and clock ?
photographic plate 30 cm × 30 cm. How much area (a) 3.40 (b) 4.40
on the ground can be photographed at one time ? (c) 5.20 (d) 4.20.
(a) 103 m2 (b) 105 m2
14. Which of the following can produce a virtual image
(c) 104 m2 (d) 106 m2. larger than the object ?
8. If the intensities of the two interfering beams in (a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror
Young’s double slit experiment be I1 and I2 , then the (c) plane mirror (d) concave lens.
614 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
15. Which of the following can produce a parallel beam (b) the wavelengths are not equal.
of light if a point source of light is given ? (c) the amplitudes are not equal.
(a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror (d) none of the above.
(c) concave lens 22. A laser beam may be used to measure very large
(d) two plane mirrors inclined at 90° to each other. distance because
16. Which of the following graphs depicts correctly the (a) it is unidirectional (b) it is coherent
variation of magnification with object distance for a (c) it is monochromatic (d) it is not absorbed.
concave mirror ?
23. A piece of green glass when heated in dark will appear
(a) (b) to be
(a) red (b) green
21. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the two slits are 30. The critical angle for total internal reflection of light
illuminated with separate sources, no interference going from medium I to medium II is given by the
pattern is observed because 5
relation tan i c = . The refractive index of the I
(a) there will be no constant phase difference between the 9
two waves. medium with respect to the medium II is
OPTICS 615
(a) 1.89 (b) 1.67 38. Light incident on an air-glass boundary is partially
reflected, and partially refracted. A person measures
156 106
(c) (d) . the angles of reflection (r) and refraction (r′) for vari-
0.5 5
ous angles of incidence (i). The graph will not be a
31. Which of the following happens when a monochro- straight line if he plots
matic light wave passes from air to glass ? (a) i versus sin r′ (b) i versus r
(a) Both the frequency and wavelength decrease.
(b) Frequency increases and wavelength decreases. (c) sin i versus sin r (d) sin r versus sin r′.
(c) Frequency remains the same but wavelength decreases. 39. A photon of light enters a block of glass after travel-
(d) Frequency and wavelength are unchanged. ling through vacuum. The energy of the photon on
32. The velocity of light is minimum in entering the glass block
(a) vacuum (b) glass (a) increases because its associated wavelength decreases.
(c) diamond (d) water. (b) decreases because the speed of the radiation decreases
33. The difference between light waves and sound waves (c) stays the same because the speed of the radiation and the
is associated wavelength do not change
(a) light waves in air are transverse while sound waves in air (d) stays the same because the frequency of the radiation
are longitudinal. does not change.
(b) light waves in air are longitudinal while sound waves in (e) stays the same because, although the speed of the
air are transverse. radiation and its wavelength both increase, they do so by
(c) light waves in air may be longitudinal or transverse but the same factor.
sound waves in air are always longitudinal. 40. Michelson-Morley’s experiment was designed to test
(d) light waves in air are transverse only while sound waves the validity of
in air may be longitudinal or transverse. (a) ether hypothesis (b) length contraction
34. A beam of light is partially reflected and partially (c) mass variation (d) time dilation.
refracted from a surface. The angle between reflected
41. A small angle prism has a prism angle A = 4° and
and the refracted light is 90°. The angle of refraction
is 30°. Then angle of incidence must be 3
refractive index = . It is placed with its base hori-
(a) 60° (b) 78° 2
(c) 75° (d) 50°.
zontal in front of a vertical mirror. A horizontal ray
of light passes through the prism and is reflected
35. A glass prism has refractive index 1.5 and the re-
back from the mirror. By what angle the mirror
fracting angle is 90°. If a ray falls on it at an angle of
incidence of 30°, then the angle of emergence will be should be rotated so that the reflected ray becomes
(a) 60° (b) 30°
horizontal ?
(c) 45° (a) 1° (b) 4°
(d) the ray will not emerge out of this prism. (c) 6° (d) 8°.
36. Light in air is incident on the surface of a liquid tank. 42. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a com-
The reflected and refracted rays are mutually bination of convex lens of focal length 40 cm in con-
perpendicular. If the angle of incidence is 60°, the tact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The
refractive index of the liquid is power of this lens combination in diopter is
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.73 (a) + 1.5 (b) – 1.5
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.4. (c) + 6.67 (d) – 6.67.
37. A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a [IIT 1997 (Cancelled paper)]
screen. A plane parallel plate of glass whose thick-
43. An equi-convex glass lens (Fig. 277 A) has a focal
ness in the direction of the beam = t, refractive index
= µ, is introduced in the path of the beam. The con- length f and power P. It is cut into two symmetrical
vergence point is shifted by halves (Fig. 277 B) by a plane containing the principal
FG 1 IJ away FG 1 IJ away axis. The two parts are as shown in (Fig. 277 C).
H µK
(a) t 1 −
H µK
(b) t 1 + Then the power of the each part is
F 1I
(c) t G 1 − J nearer
F 1I
(d) t G 1 + J nearer.
H µK H µK
616 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Fig. 278
Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d)
9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b ) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (c)
OPTICS 617
Solutions
1. Using Snell’s law, 3
or m=
2 sin 45° = 1 sin θ or sin θ = 1 or θ = 90°. 10000
30 3
2. m=– v Now, = or O = 105 cm
u O 10000
or O = 103 m.
– 6 = – v or v = 6u Required area = 103 m × 103 m = 106 m2
u
Clearly, 5u = 2 or u = 0.4 m. 9. The velocity of light does not depend upon the velocity
of the observer.
10. Area of film = (10 × 3) × (10 × 2) cm2
= 30 × 20 cm2 = 600 cm2
f f
11. m= ≈
f −u −u
50 1
= = .
2000 × 100 4000
u 13. The required time can be obtained by subtracting the
given time from 12 h 0 minute.
F I
6u
1
Fig. 280 17.
f
= (µ – 1)
1
−
1
R1 R 2
GH JK
1 1 1
3. + = b
u v f µ=a+
λ2
1 1 1 1 10 10
+ = or =– – 1
− 0.4 − 2.4 f f 4 For red light, λ maximum ; µ minimum ; mini-
24 f
1 10 + 60 mum, f maximum.
or =–
f 24 wµ
µg 3/2 9
25. g = = =
24 µw 4/3 8
or f =– m = – 0.343 m.
70 λ 4200
4. One image is produced by each of the plane mirrors 28. λ′ = = Å
µ 4/3
and one by each of the three pairs of combination of
12600
two mirrors each. So, total number images is 3 + 3 = Å = 3150 Å
i.e. 6. 4
5. Sound travels faster in water as compared to that in 5
30. tan ic = 6
air. 9 10
2 or
So, α2 is greater. 5
sin ic = 2 +5
5
λ′ − λ v ∆λ v 106 9
6. = or =
λ c λ c 1
µ= ic
0.01 v sin ic
or = or v = 10–4 × 3 × 108 m s–1 9
100 c
106 Fig. 281
or v = 3 × 104 m s–1 = .
or v = 30 × 103 m s–1 = 30 km s–1 5
c
32. µ=
v
c
v=
µ
Higher the value of µ, lesser is the value of v. 2°
1 1 2 e
Again, sin ic = = = or ic = 41.8° 60° r1 r2
1.5 15 3 r2 θ
10
r2 > ic
So, the light would suffer total internal reflection and
not emerge out of the prism.
45. The rays of light, after refraction through the lens, 48 to 50. As shown in Fig. 285, two images are formed.
must fall normally on the mirror. In other words, the
rays of light should come out of the lens as parallel
beam. Clearly, the pin must be at the principal focus I1
of the lens.
C1
46. In the presence of water, the power of the lens de-
creases and the focal length increases. O
d
C2
1 1 1
47. − =
v u f
I2
dv F du IJ
– G−
–
v2 H uK 2
=0 u v
dv du Fv I
2 Fig. 285
or –
v2
=–
u 2
or dv = du GH u JK
2
1 1 1
Now, − =
1 1 1 v u f
Again, − =
v − 20 12 1 1 1 1 1 1
or – = or = –
1 1 1 5−3 2 v − 0.3 0.2 v 0.2 0.3
or = − = =
v 12 20 60 60 1 0.3 − 0.2
or = or v = 0.6 m
or v = 30 cm v 0.2 × 0.3
FG 30 IJ 2
9
Using triangles OC1C2 and OI1I2, we get
Now, dv = 1
H 20 K =
4
cm = 2.25 cm. d
c1c2
=
u+v
u
d 0.3 + 0.6
or =
2 × 0.0005 0.3
or d = 3 × 2 × 0.0005 = 0.003 m.
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A beam of light composed of red and green rays is incident obliquely at a point on the face of a rectangular glass
slab. When coming out on the opposite parallel face, the red and green rays emerge from
(a) two points propagating in two different parallel directions
(b) one point propagating in two different directions
(c) one point propagating in the same direction
(d) two points propagating in two different non parallel directions. [All India PM/PD 2004]
Sol. Refractive index of glass is different for different colours.
So, (a) is the right choice.
620 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XV
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
1. In a river 2 m deep, a water level measuring post 5. Fig. 287 on the left below shows two coherent sources
embedded into the river stands vertically with 1m of S 1, S2 with separation equal to the wavelength of
it above the water surface. If the angle of inclination emission. They emit in the same phase. Fig. 288 show
of the sun above the horizon is 30°, the length of the four polar graphs in which the intensity in direction
shadow of the post on the bottom surface of the river θ is shown by the length of radius vector in that di-
is : (Given : µ for water = 4/3). rection. Which of the polar graphs represents
schematically the correct intensity distribution ?
30°
1m
q q
2m
q (a) (b)
S1 S2
l
Fig. 287 q
q
Fig. 286
(a) 1.44 m (b) 2.44 m
(c) 3.44 m (d) 4.44 m.
(c) (d )
2. The principal section of glass prism is an isosceles
∆PQR with PQ = PR. The face PR is silvered. A ray Fig. 288
is incident perpendicularly on face PQ and after two
reflections, it emerges from base QR, normal to it. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991]
The angle QPR of prism is 6. The distance between two point sources of light is
(a) 6° (b) 16° 24 cm. Where should a convex lens of focal length 9
(c) 26° (d) 36°. cm be placed so that the images of both sources are
3. In a circularly polarised light, the location of the head formed at the same point ?
of the electric vector always lies on a (a) 18 cm or 6 cm (b) 10 cm or 14 cm
(a) circle (b) ellipse
(c) 16 cm or 8 cm (d) 9 cm or 15 cm.
(c) helix (d) parabola.
7. A convex lens forms a real image of a point object
4. Suppose all the electric vectors of all the wave trains
placed at a distance of 0.5 m. The image is also at a
in a given beam of light oscillate in a definite orienta-
distance of 0.5 m from the lens. Mid-way between
tion. Such a light beam is
the lens and the image a convex mirror is placed. It
(a) yellow (b) green
is found that there is no parallax between the object
(c) helix (d) linearly polarised.
OPTICS 621
Fig. 292
Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b), (c) 26. (a), (c) 27. (a), (d) 28. (b),(c),(d) 29. (a),(b),(c),(d) 30. (a), (c) 31. (a), (d) 32. (c)
33. (c) 34. (a), (c) 35. (a),(b),(c),(d).
624 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solutions
1. α + β + β = 180°
30° or 2β + α = 180°
A
Now 90° – 2α + β + 90° = 180°
60° 1 m
60° or β = 2α
B
∴ 5α = 180° or α = 36°.
x2 C
r 5. Polar graphs for intensity distribution in interference.
π
2m 2m Maxima along θ = 0 and , only choice (c).
2
E
6.
D
x1 x2
I 1, I 2
Fig. 294
Using Snell’s law, S1 S2
x2
4 sin 60° 3
= =
3 sin r 2 sin r
x1 x
3 3
sin r = Fig. 296
8
Clearly, one image is real and the other image is
27 37
cos r = =1− virtual.
64 8
1 1 1
3 3 8 3 3 Using lens equation − = , we get
tan r = × = v u f
8 37 37
Now, x1 = 2 tan r 1 1 1 1 1 1
– = and − =
3 x − x1 f x x2 −f
2×3 3 6 3
= = =6 = 1.71 m
37 37 37 1 1 2
Subtracting, + =
Again, x2 = 1 tan 60° = 3 = 1.73 m x1 x2 f
Length of shadow = x1 + x2 = 3.44 m. 1 1 2
2. or + =
P x1 24 − x1 9
α
24 2
or =
24 x1 − x12 9
α
α or 108 = 24x1 – x12
90° – 2α or x12 – 24x1 + 108 = 0
or x12 – 18x1 – 6x1 + 108 = 0
2α or x1 (x1 – 18) – 6 (x – 18) = 0
90° – 2α or (x1 – 6)(x1 – 18) = 0
2α
or x1 = 6 cm or 18 cm.
7. The ray coming from the lens and incident on the
β β mirror must retrace its path so that there is no paral-
Q R
lax between the object and the image formed by con-
vex mirror. This is possible only if 2f = 0.25 m
Fig. 295
OPTICS 625
1 1 1 1
Case II. = + +
F fl fl fm
1 2 1
or = +
F fl fm
1 FG µ − 1IJ + 2
or
F
=2
H R K R
0.25 m 1 2 Fig. 300
or = (µ – 1 + 1)
F R
Fig. 297
or f = 0.125 m. R R
C or F = or 2µ =
8. For image to be coincident 2µ F
with the object, the light
−R R
after refraction from the or 2µ = or 2µ = ...(ii)
lens, must fall normally − 10 10
on the mirror. The rays Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
36 cm
1 2
or =
F fl
15 cm
1 L µ − 1OP
=2 M
40 cm
or
F N R Q Fig. 301
R Now, note that ‘‘u = 2f ’’ clearly, the distance between
or F= Fig. 299
2(µ − 1) the lens and the mirror
−R = (40 – 15) cm = 25 cm
– 30 =
2(µ − 1) 12. In this problem, the image formed by the lens should
R bt at the pole of the mirror.
or 2(µ – 1) = ...(i)
30
626 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 10 − 15 1 5
or = or =–
f 150 f 150
or f = – 30 cm
16. f1 = 30 cm, f2 = – 20 cm
d = 10 cm
1 1 1 1
= + −
F f1 f2 f1 f2
1 1 1 10
Fig. 302 = – +
F 30 20 30 × 20
1 FG IJ
2 1
=
1 1 1
13.
f
= (µ – 1)
RH K F
−
30 20 60
+
= (1.5 – 1) FG IJ
1 2−3+1
1 2 or = =0
10 H RK F 60
So, power of system is zero.
or R = 10 cm
17. Size of image
1
F
=
1
+
1
10 10 10
+
2
Fig. 303 FG f IJ 2
1 2 1 1 1
= m2 × length of object =
Hu− f K b
or = + = + or F = 2.5 cm
F 10 5 5 5 18.
The image would coincide with the object if the object A
distance is equal to 2F.
i.e. 2 × 2.5 cm or 5 cm. 90° ic 90°
14. µ = tan i ic
3 sin i Ö3
= 3
2 sin r
3 i
or sin r = sin i 2 Fig. 306
2
A = r1 + r2
3 Fig. 304
Now, tan i = A = ic + ic
2
A = 2ic
3
sin i = 19. Let us consider the maximum value of i. This is clearly
13
90°.
2 3 2 So, r1 = ic Also, r2 > ic
∴ sin r = × = A
3 13 13 Clearly, r1 + r2 > 2ic
15. 10 cm or A > 2ic
A i
or > ic r1
2 r2
A
I
I′ or sin > sin ic
2
B C
A 1
15 cm or sin > Fig. 307
2 µ
20 cm
1 A 1
Fig. 305 or < sin or µ >
µ 2 A
For concave lens, sin
2
u = 10 cm, v = 15 cm, f = ? A
or µ > cosec .
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
Now, = − or = −
f v u f 15 10
OPTICS 627
20. We do not want total internal reflection at AC. 23. The light reflected from P now arrives at the surface
So, r2 < i2 A S in the time taken for the octagonal mirror M to
rotate through 45° (π/4) if M is rotating at its small-
Now, r1 + r2 = A
est angular velocity, ω0.
or r2 = A – r1
L
or ic > A – r1 i
r1 s.
Time taken for light to travel from P to S =
r2 c
or r1 > A – ic
Time taken by M to rotate through an angle of π/4
Now, sin r1 > sin (A – ic)
But 1 × sin i = µ × sin r1 B C π/4 π
Fig. 308 = =
ω0 4 ω0
sin i
or sin r1 =
µ ∴ Smallest angular velocity, ω0 is given by
sin i π L πc
∴ > sin (A – ic) = or ω0 = rad s–1.
µ 4ω 0 c 4L
or sin i > µ sin (A – ic) 24. δ = (µ – 1) A = (1.5 – 1) 3° = 1.5°
or sin i > µ [sin A cos ic – cos A sin ic]
or
LM
sin i > µ sin A 1 −
1
− cos A
1 OP
MN µ2 µ PQ a b 1.5°
2
sin i > [ µ − 1 sin A – cos A]
2
or i > sin–1 [ µ − 1 sin A – cos A] 1.5°
21. δm = i + e – A 1.5°
= 2i – A = 2(2r) – A = 2A – A = A
FG A + δ IJ
H 2 K
m
sin
Now, µ= Fig. 309
A
sin
2 Angle with reference to incident light ab
FG
A+A IJ = 180° – 1.5° = 178.5°
or µ=
sin
H 2 K 27. The phase difference between (i) and (ii) is time-inde-
A pendent. The phase difference between (iii) and (iv) is
sin
2 also time-independent. The phase difference between
sin A A (i) and (iii) and also between (ii) and (iv) is time de-
or µ= or µ = 2 cos
A 2 pendent. So, coherence is not possible.
sin
2 28. Luminous intensity is luminous flux per unit solid
A A 1 angle.
or 2 = 2 cos or cos =
2 2 2 Total radiant flux is the total energy of radiation emit-
A ted by a source per unit time. Power is energy / time.
or = 45° or A = 90°.
2 Relative luminosity of a wavelength is the ratio of
22. δ = (µ – 1) A = (1.5 – 1) 4° = 2° luminous flux of a source of given wavelength and
The angle between reflected ray and incident ray is luminous flux of a 555 nm source of the same power.
4°.
fo
When a mirror turns through an angle θ, the reflected 31. M= and L = fo + fe
ray turns through twice that angle. fe
∴ 2θ = 4° or θ = 2° Both the equations are satisfied by (a) and (d)
628 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l The refractive index of an equilateral prism is 3 . The angle of incidence at which the deviation is minimum is
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75° (e) 15° [Kerala PMT 2003]
FG A + δ IJ
H 2 K
m
sin
Sol. For minimum deviation, µ = A
sin
2
FG
60° + δ m IJ
sin
H2 K
3 60° + δ m FG IJ
3=
sin
60° or
2
= sin
2 H K
2
FG 60° + δ IJ 60° + δ m δ +A
H 2 K
m
or sin 60° = sin or 60° = or δm = 60° = 2i – A or i = m = 60°
2 2
So, (c) is the right choice.
l One of the refracting surfaces of a prism of refractive index 2 is silvered. The angle of the prism is equal to the
critical angle of a medium of refractive index 2. A ray of light incident in the unsilvered surface passes through
the prism and retraces its path after reflection at the silvered face. Then the angle of incidence on the unsilvered
surface is
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° [EAMCET 2003]
FG 1 IJ = sin FG 1IJ = 30°
Sol. Critical angle = sin −1
H 2K
−1
H µK
∴ Angle of prism = 30°
A = r1 + r2 or 30° = r1 + 0 or r1 = 30°
sin i sin i 1
µ= or 2= or sin i = or i = 45°
sin ri sin 30° 2
So, (c) is the right choice.
UNIT XVI
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 10 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
SYNOPSIS
Stopping potential, V 0
Y
ν0
O X
Frequency (ν)
current (in µA)
Photoelectric
W0
e
Y′
Fig. 3
O Light intensity, I X 4. LAWS OF PHOTOELECTRIC EMISSION
(i) For a given material, there is a certain minimum
Fig. 1 frequency of radiation known as the threshold frequency,
such that if the incident radiation has a frequency below
2. EFFECT OF POTENTIAL this threshold, no photoelectric emission will ever take place,
however intense the radiation may be and for whatever length
of time we may expose the material to this radiation.
I (in µA)
631
C-11\IITS\C16-1
632 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(iv) The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous the velocity of light. Further, according to quantum theory,
process. The time interval between the falling of radiation E = hν, where ν is the frequency of radiation and ‘h’ is Planck’s
on the photoelectric surface and the ejection of photoelec- constant. Combining the two, we get
trons is of the order of 10–9 second. E = hν = mc2
5. EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC EQUATION But c = νλ for waves. Thus for a quantum of light
(photon), we get
1
mvmax 2 = hν – φ 0 c h
2 E=h. = mc2 ; giving us λ =
λ mc
Discussion. (i) If ν < ν0 then v2 is a negative quan-
The product of mass and velocity is the momentum p.
tity. So, the velocity v of the emitted photoelectron is imagi-
nary. Thus, no photoelectric emission is possible in this case. h
∴ λ=
From here, we get concept of threshold frequency as that p
frequency below which no photoelectric emission is possible.
Thus a quantum (particle) having a momentum p is
(ii) If ν > ν0 then v2 is a positive quantity. So, photo-
associated with a wavelength λ.
electric emission shall take place. Higher the intensity of
incident light, greater will be the number of available pho- This relation was for a photon and it proved true ex-
tons and consequently, greater will be the number of emit- perimentally. It now occurred to de-Broglie that what is true
ted photoelectrons. So, the photoelectric current will be in- for a photon, may also be true for a material particle of mass
creased. m moving with velocity v (not c).
(iii) K.E. of emitted electron = h(ν – ν0) h
So, the K.E. of the photoelectron is directly propor- λ= (∵ p = mv)
mv
tional to the frequency of incident radiation. The frequency
should, of course, be greater than threshold frequency. This means that a material particle of mass m mov-
c ing with a velocity v, can be considered as a wave of length λ,
(iv) c = νλ or =ν
λ given by the above relation. This is de-Broglie wave equa-
1 hc tion. It firmly establishes the aspect of unity of matter ;
∴ mvmax 2 = – φ0
2 λ since the momentum p can be associated only with a parti-
If λ is decreased, the kinetic energy shall increase. cle, while λ is associated only with a wave.
Thus, smaller the wavelength λ, greater will be the kinetic Discussion
energy and hence greater will be the velocity of emitted elec- 1
tron. (i) λ α i.e. if v = 0, λ = ∞.
v
(v) Photoelectric emission is a ‘knock-out’ process in
Thus, the matter waves are associated with mate-
which a single photon of energy hν knocks out an electron
rial particles only if they are in motion.
1
with energy mvmax 2 . Increase in the intensity of incident 1
2 (ii) λ α . Smaller the mass of the particle, higher is
m
radiation simply means an increase in the number of incident the wavelength associated with it.
photons. Thus, many photons of the same frequency will
1
simply knock out as many electrons of the same kinetic (iii) λ α . Larger the momentum of the particle,
energy. As a result, there is an increase in photoelectric p
shorter is the wavelength.
current. But the photoelectrons, though increased in number,
will all have the same energy as given by Einstein’s equation. (iv) Wavelength associated with a material particle is
independent of the charge of the particle.
(vi) An increase in the frequency of the incident radia-
tion increases the energy of the emitted electrons as given 7. BOHR’S POSTULATE OF MOMENTUM OF STA-
by Einstein’s equation. An increase in frequency does not TIONARY NON-RADIATING ORBITS
increase the number of photoelectrons. This means that the 2πr = nλ
photocurrent willl not increase because the photocurrent
depends simply upon the number of photoelectrons. Thus, h
But λ=
the increase in frequency has no effect on the magnitude of mv
photocurrent. nh h
∴ 2πr = or mvr = n
6. DE-BROGLIE WAVE EQUATION mv 2π
According to Einstein relation of mass-energy equiva-
Fig. 4
lence, E = mc2, where m is the mass of the particle and c is
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 633
h 12.3
λ= Å = 0.71 Å
λ= 2 me V 300
634 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
1. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly 7. When a beam of light is used to determine the posi-
reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the tion of an object, the maximum accuracy is achieved
surface is if the light is
(a) Ec (b) 2E/c (a) polarised (b) of longer wavelength
(c) E/c (d) E/c 2
[AIEEE 2004] (c) of shorter wavelength (d) of high intensity
2. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the [AIIMS 2003]
plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photo elec- 8. The satellites in the orbit are coated with platinum
trons from a metal Vs the frequency, of the incident due to its
radiation gives a straight line whose slope (a) low work function (b) high work function
(a) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal (c) low melting point (d) low cost.
used
9. The work function of a metal is 1.65 eV. The thresh-
(b) depends on the intensity of the radiation
old wavelength is
(c) depends on the nature of the metal used
(a) 2000 Å (b) 8000 Å
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity
of the radiation [AIEEE 2004] (c) 4000 Å (d) 7500 Å.
3. The phenomenon inverse to photoelectric effect is : 10. Of the following properties, the photon does not
(a) Compton effect (b) Raman effect
possess
(a) rest mass (b) momentum
(c) pair production (d) production of X-rays
(e) production of electrons from a heated filament (c) energy (d) frequency. [BHU 1997]
[Kerala PMT 2003] 11. Photoelectric effect was discovered by
4. What wavelength must electromagnetic radiation (a) Hertz (b) Hallwach
have if a photon in the beam is to have the same (c) Lenard (d) Millikan. [BHU 2003]
momentum as an electron moving with speed v ? 12. If the distance of 100 watt lamp is increased from a
h photo cell, the saturation current ‘i’ in the photocell
(a) (b) mvh
mv varies with the distance d as
(c) mvr (d) Not possible. (a) i α d2 (b) i α d
5. The numerical value of hc is 1 1
(c) i α (d) i α . [AFMC 2000]
(a) 12.4 eVÅ (b) 12375 eVÅ d d2
(c) 931 MeVÅ (d) 1.6 eVÅ. 13. A cathode ray tube is operated at 10 kV. What will be
6. In a positive ray discharge tube, the pressure is of the energy of cathode rays in eV ?
the order of (a) 10 keV (b) 100 keV
(a) 10–3 cm of mercury (b) 10–7 cm of mercury (c) 1 keV (d) 0.1 keV.
(c) 1 cm of mercury (d) 0.1 cm of mercury. 14. It takes 4.2 eV to remove one of the least tightly bound
electrons from a metal surface. When UV photons of
638 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a single frequency strike a metal, electrons with ki- (a) 4 hν0 (b) 3 hν0
netic energies ranging from 0 to 2.6 eV are ejected. hν0 hν0
The energy of incident photon is (c) (d) .
4 2
(a) 2.6 eV (b) 6.8 eV 24. A photosensitive plate is illuminated by green light
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 13.6/4 eV. and photoelectrons are emitted with maximum kinetic
15. Light of wavelength 6200 Å falls on a metal having energy 4 eV. If the intensity of the incident radiation
photoelectric work function 2 eV. What is the value is reduced to one-fourth of the original value, then
of stopping potential ? the maximum K.E. of the photoelectrons will be
(a) 0 V (b) 2 V (a) 0.1 eV (b) 1 eV
(c) 3 V (d) 1.2 heV. (c) 4 eV (d) 16 eV.
16. Light of frequency 4.5 times the threshold frequency 25. According to wave theory of light, photo-emission
is incident on photo-sensitive material. If the fre- would take place at a frequency
quency is halved and intensity is doubled, then the
(a) < ν0 (b) > ν0
photo-current becomes
(a) quadrupled (b) doubled (c) ν0 (d) Any of these.
(c) halved (d) zero. 26. Which of the following is true for discharge of elec-
tricity through a gas ?
17. The free electrons from a metal surface can be taken
out by the process (a) All positive particles have same charge.
(a) Thermionic emission (b) Field emission (b) All negative particles have same charge.
(c) Photoelectric emission (d) Any of the above method. (c) All positive particles in a given gas have always the same
18. Dual nature of radiation is shown by mass.
(a) Diffraction and reflection (b) Refraction and diffraction (d) All positive particles have the same speed.
(c) Photoelectric effect alone [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995]
(d) Photoelectric effect and diffraction. [MP PET 1991] 27. Consider light of given intensity and frequency fall-
19. In a photoelectric cell, illuminated with a certain ra- ing on a substance that emits photoelectrons. The
diation, the minimum negative anode potential with intensity is decreased to one-third its value and the
respect to emitting metal required to stop the elec- frequency increased by three times. Consequently the
tron is 2 V. The maximum kinetic energy of photo- velocity of the photoelectrons will
electrons is (a) increase (b) decrease
(a) 0 eV (b) 1 eV (c) increase or decrease depending on the exact values of the
(c) 2 eV [AFMC 2003]
(d) 4 eV. new intensity and frequency
20. Neglecting variation of mass with velocity, the wave- (d) remain the same.
length associated with an electron having a kinetic
28. The mass of a photon at rest is
energy E is proportional to
(a) 1 a.m.u. (b) 1.67 × 10–35 kg
(a) E1/2 (b) E
(c) 9 × 10–31 kg (d) Zero.
(c) E–1/2 (d) E–2 [CMC LDH 2003]
29. For a given speed, which of the following has the
21. Light of wavelength λ falls on a metal having work
shortest de-Broglie wavelength ?
function hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only
(a) electron (b) proton
if
(a) λ ≥ λ0 (b) λ ≥ 2λ0 (c) deutron (d) α-particle.
(c) λ ≤ λ0 (d) λ < λ 0/2. 30. Consider electrons and protons accelerated in a
vacuum tube across the same potential difference.
22. The energy of a photon corresponding to visible light
of maximum wavelength is nearly Which of the following is true ?
(a) 1 eV (b) 1.6 eV (a) protons have smaller momentum
23. The photoelectric threshold frequency of a metal is (c) protons have larger kinetic energy
ν0 . When light of frequency 4ν 0 is incident on the (d) protons and electrons have same kinetic energy.
metal, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995]
photoelectrons is
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 639
31. The velocity of different ions of same mass and charge 39. For a given kinetic energy, which of the following
in a positive ray will vary because has the smallest de-Broglie wavelength ?
(a) they are accelerated to different extent (a) electron (b) proton
(b) some ions are attracted and others are retarded (c) α-particle. [MP PMT 1999]
(c) they have different initial velocities 40. The slope of graph showing variation of frequency of
(d) they are accelerated through different distances. incident light with stopping potential for a given
32. Which of the following is correct ? surface will be
(a) A point mass, whether at rest or in unifrom motion, can- h
(a) h (b)
not be accompanied by matter waves. e
(b) Only a charged particle at rest is accompanied by matter (c) eh (d) e.
waves. 41. If in a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of
(c) Only an accelerated charged particle is accompanied by incident radiation is reduced from 6000 Å to 4000 Å,
matter waves. then
(d) A moving particle, whether charged or uncharged, is al- (a) stopping potential will decrease.
ways accompanied by matter waves. (b) stopping potential will increase.
33. Graph of maximum kinetic energy of the photo-elec- (c) kinetic energy of emitted electrons will decrease.
trons against ν, the frequency of the radiation inci-
(d) the value of work function will decrease.
dent on the metal, is a straight line of slope equal to
(a) work function (b) stopping potential 42. An electron is moving on a circular path of radius r
with speed v in a transverse field B. e/m for it will be
h
(c) (d) h. v B
e (a) (b)
Br rv
34. Mass of a photon of frequency ν is given by vr
hν h (c) Bvr (d) . [MP PMT 1999]
(a) m = (b) m = B
c λ 43. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic field per-
hν hν2 pendicularly. Both have same kinetic energy. Which
(c) m = 2 (d) m = .
c c of the following is true ?
[Karnataka 1999] (a) Trajectory of electron is less curved.
35. A photon behaves as if it had a mass equal to (b) Trajectory of proton is less curved.
hν hν (c) Both trajectories are equally curved.
(a) (b)
c c2 (d) Both move on straight line path. [MP PET 1999]
c2 44. Which of the following graphs correctly represents
(c) (d) hνc.
hν the variation of particle momentum with associated
36. A point source of light is used in a photoelectric ef-
de-Broglie wavelength ?
fect. If the source is removed farther from the emit-
ting metal, the stopping potential
(a) will increase (b) will decrease
(c) will remain constant
p p
(d) will either increase or decrease. [JIPMER 2003]
37. A photo-sensitive material would emit electrons if
excited by photons beyond a threshold. To overcome l l
threshold, one would increase (a) (b)
(a) frequency of light (b) intensity of light
(c) wavelength of light
(d) voltage applied to light source.
38. An electron and a proton have the same de-Broglie p p
wavelength. Then the kinetic energy of the electron
is
(a) Zero (b) infinity l l
(c) (d )
(c) equal to the kinetic energy of the proton
Fig. 10
(d) greater than the kinetic energy of the proton.
640 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
45. An electron is moving with velocity v. It enters a 51. A tiny particle of mass 10–13 kg moving with a veloc-
→
region of uniform magnetic flux density B , and uni- ity of 10 cm s –1 is associated with a wave of wave-
→ → → length
form electric field E . E and B are mutually perpen-
(a) 6.62 × 10–18 cm (b) 6.62 × 10–12 cm
dicular. The velocity v will not remain constant un-
→ (c) 6.62 × 10 cm –2
(d) 6.62 × 10–34 cm.
less v is
→ → 52. The photo-electrons emitted from a surface of sodium
(a) perpendicular to E and parallel to B
→ → metal are such that
(b) perpendicular to B (c) parallel to E (a) they all are of the same frequency
→ → B
(d) perpendicular to E and to B and of magnitude (b) they have the same kinetic energy
E
→ → E (c) they have the same de-Broglie wavelength
(e) perpendicular to E and to B and of magnitude . (d) they have their speeds varying from zero to a certain maxi-
B
[London Schools Examination Department] mum. [MP PMT 1992]
46. In Compton scattering relative to original photon, 53. The study of discharge of electricity through gases
the photon scattered from a collision with a free elec- led to the discovery of
tron has higher (a) structure of atom (b) spectral lines
(a) energy (b) momentum (c) proton (d) electron.
(c) frequency (d) wavelength.
54. The photoelectric effect is based on the conservation
[MANIPAL 1998]
of
47. Emission of electrons from a metal plate illuminated (a) mass (b) energy
with monochromatic electromagnetic radiation will
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum.
always take place provided
(a) the radiation is sufficiently intense. [MAHE 1997]
(b) the work function of the plate is less than the energy of a 55. An ultraviolet light source causes the emission of
single photon and the plate is uncharged. photoelectrons from a zinc plate. A more intense
(c) the wavelength of the radiation exceeds a minimum value. source of the same wavelength would give
Maximum No. of electrons/
(d) the plate is always negatively charged.
energy/electron second
(e) the plate is freshly cleaned.
(a) more the same
[London Schools Examination Department]
(b) the same more
48. The stopping potentials are V1 and V2 with incident (c) the same the same
lights of wavelengths λ1 and λ 2 respectively. Then (d) more more
V1 – V2 = (e) less more
hc λ 1λ 2 hc 1F 1 I [Scottish Examination Board]
(a)
e λ1 – λ2
(b) GH
–
e λ1 λ2 JK 56. Threshold wavelength for a metal is 5200 Å. Photo-
electrons will be ejected if it is irradiated by a light
he 1F 1 I he from
(c) GH
–
c λ1 λ2
JK (d)
cλ 1 λ 2
(λ 1 – λ 2 ) .
(a) 50 watt infrared lamp (b) 1 watt infrared lamp
49. The de-Broglie wavelength λ of a particle with mass (c) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp (d) 0.5 watt infrared lamp.
m and kinetic energy E is given by [IIT 1982 ; MP PMT 1992]
2mE 57. A photon of frequency ν has a momentum associated
(a) λ = h 2mE (b) λ =
h with it. If c is the velocity of light, this momentum is
h hE hν hν
(c) λ = (d) λ = (a) (b)
2 c
2mE 2mE c
ν
[AIIMS 2001] (c) (d) hνc.
c
50. The photoelectric effect can be understood on the basis
of 58. The momentum of an electron of wavelength 100 Å
(a) wave theory of light only is
(b) electromagnetic theory of light only (a) 6.6 × 1026 kg m s–1 (b) 6.6 × 10–23 kg m s–1
(c) quantum theory of light only
(c) 6.6 × 10–26 kg m s–1 (d) 6.6 × 1023 kg m s–1.
(d) None of the above.
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 641
59. In Einstein’s photoelectric equation (Ek = hν – φ0), Ek frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the
refers to photo current becomes
(a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons. (a) quadrupled (b) doubled
(b) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. (c) halved (d) zero. [EAMCET 1991]
(c) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. 67. The best metal to be used for photoemission is
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. (a) potassium (b) sodium
[All India PM/PD 1997] (c) cesium (d) lithium.
60. The electrons are emitted in the photoelectric effect [EAMCET 2001]
from a metal surface 68. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric experiment
(a) only if the frequency of the incident radiation is above a is doubled, the stopping potential will
certain threshold value. (a) be doubled (b) be halved
(b) only if the temperature of the surface is high. (c) become more than double
(c) at a rate that is independent of the nature of the metal. (d) become less than double. [BHU 2002]
(d) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency of
69. The photons in a radio wave of wavelength 3 × 104 cm
the incident radiation. [MP PET 1992]
have an energy
61. If the wavelength of light incident on the surface of a (a) 6.6 × 10–28 J (b) 6.6 × 10–40 J
metal is decreased, the maximum velocity of emitted
(c) 19.86 × 10–34 J (d) 2.2 × 10–38 J.
photo-electrons will
(a) decrease (b) increase 70. Light of frequency ν is incident on a substance of
threshold frequency ν0 (ν 0 < ν). The energy of the
(c) not change
emitted photo-electron will be
(d) initially decrease and then increase.
(a) h (ν – ν0) (b) h/ν
62. Light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on a metal
(c) he (ν – ν0) (d) h/ν0. [MP PET 2000]
plate whose work function is 2 eV. The maximum
71. A photon of energy hν is absorbed by a free electron
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons would
of a metal having work function φ < hν
be
(a) The electron is sure to come out.
(a) 2.0 eV (b) 1.5 eV
(b) The electron is sure to come out with a kinetic energy
(c) 1.1 eV (d) 0.5 eV. [BHU 1996] hν – φ.
63. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth (c) Either the electron does not come out or it comes out with
Bohr orbit is related to the radius R of the orbit as a kinetic energy hν – φ.
(a) n λ = n R (b) nλ = 3/2π R (d) It may come out with a kinetic energy less than hν – φ.
(c) n λ = 2π R (d) n λ = 4π R.
[EAMCET 2003]
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2000]
72. The retarding potential for having zero photo-elec-
64. A source of light is placed at a distance of 1m from a
tron current
photo cell and cut off potential is found to be V0 . If
(a) is proportional to the wavelength of incident light
the distance is doubled, the cut off potential will be
(b) increases uniformly with the increase in the wavelength
V0
(a) 2 V0 (b) of incident light
2
V0 (c) is proportional to the frequency of incident light
(c) V0 (d) [CMC LDH 2000]
4 (d) increases uniformly with the increase in the frequency of
65. The equation E = pc is valid incident light wave. [MP PMT/PET 1988]
(a) for an electron as well as for a photon. 73. When light falls on a metal surface, the maximum
(b) for an electron but not for a photon. kinetic energy of the emitted photo-electrons depends
(c) for a photon but not for an electron. upon
(d) neither for an electron nor for a photon. (a) the time for which light falls on the metal
[Pb. PMT 2003] (b) frequency of the incident light
66. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency (c) intensity of the incident light
is incident on photosensitive material. If the (d) velocity of the incident light. [MP PET 1992, 93]
642 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
74. In a series of photoelectric y (e) the reduction in radiation intensity with distance from a
emission experiments on a cer- point source.
tain metal surface, possible re- 79. Which graph shows how the energy E of a photon of
lationships between the follow- light is related to its wavelength λ ?
ing quantities were investi-
gated : threshold frequency fo ,
frequency of incident light fo , E E
light intensity P, photocurrent 0
I, maximum kinetic energy of 0 x
photoelectrons Tmax. Fig. 11
Two of these quantities, when plotted as a graph of y
against x, give a straight line through the origin. O O
0 λ 0 λ λ
Which of the following correctly identifies x and y (a) (b)
with the photoelectric quantities ?
x y E E
(a) I fo
(b) f T max
(c) P I
(d) P T max
O O
75. J.J. Thomson’s cathode-ray tube experiment dem- 0 (c) λ 0 (d ) λ
onstrated that
Fig. 12
(a) cathode rays are streams of negatively charged ions.
(b) all the mass of an atom is essentially in the nucleus. 80. Which curve shows the relationship between the
(c) the e/m of electrons is much greater than the e/m of protons. energy E and the wavelength λ of a photon of electro-
magnetic radiation ?
(d) the e/m ratio of the cathode-ray particles changes when a
different gas is placed in the discharge tube.
[All India PM/PD 2003] E E E
82. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first (c) equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit.
Bohr orbit is (d) equal to the circumference of the first orbit.
(a) equal to one-fourth the circumference of the first orbit. [KCET 2000]
(b) equal to half the circumference of the first orbit.
Answers (Set I)
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (d)
33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (e) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c)
57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c)
65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (e)
81. (e) 82. (d).
Solutions (Set I)
E 13. W = qV
1. Pi =
c 14. Energy of incident photon
If the surface is perfectly reflecting, then = (4.2 + 2.6) eV = 6.8 eV
E 15. Energy corresponding to 6200 Å
Pf =
c
12375
2E = eV = 1.996 eV ≈ 2eV
Change = 6200
c Clearly, the electron is emitted with zero kinetic
2. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation energy. So, the stopping potential is zero.
KEmax = hν – φ0
16. Photoelectric current is directly proportional to
Compare it with straight line equation, y = mx + c intensity of incident light.
Clearly, slope of the line in the graph is h, the Planck’s
constant In these problems, ensure that when the
7. The maximum accuracy in finding the position of an frequency is reduced, it does not fall below
object using a light beam is achieved, when the light the threshold frequency.
beam used is of shorter wavelength. If the wavelength
is longer, the spread in the wave will be more. h h h
20. λ= = =
9. Wavelength in Å mv p 2mE
12375 12375 ∴ λ∝E –1/2
.
= = = 7500 Å
Energy in eV 1.65 1
23. mv2max. = 4hν0 – hν0 = 3 hν0
12. Photoelectric current is directly proportional to 2
intensity of incident light. Also, intensity of light is 24. Intensity has no effect on maximum kinetic energy of
inversely porportional to square of distance. photoelectrons.
644 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
30. In vacuum, no collisions are supposed to occur. So, wrongly, you will arrive at the wrong choice. For ex-
the kinetic energies of protons and electrons are the ample, a freshly cleaned plate will only exhibit photo-
same. So, (d) true. (c) is then clearly invalid. For (a) electric emission if the radiation frequency is greater
than a certain minimum value. So, if the radiation
2E
and (b) use p = 2mE and v = . frequency is less than the minimum value (threshold
m frequency), then emission does not occur. So, (e) is
1 out.
33. mv2max = hν – φ0
2 48. eVs = hν – φ0
Compare with y = mx – c. hν
Vs = – φ0
36. When the position of source of light is changed, the e
intensity of light incident on the metal will change. hc
Vs = – φ0
Intensity has no effect on stopping potential. eλ
37. For photoelectric effect, the frequency of incident light hc
V1 = – φ0
should be greater than threshold frequency. eλ 1
h hc
38. λ= V2 = – φ0
2mE eλ2
mE = constant hc 1 F 1 I
Mass of electron is less; E more
V1 – V2 = GH
–
e λ1 λ2
JK
1 h h
39. λ∝ 49. λ= =
m mv p
h h
40. eVs = hν – φ0 or Vs = ν – φ0 λ=
e 2mE
Compare with y = mx – c.
h
41. Wavelength reduced; frequency increased, stopping 51. λ=
mv
potential increased .
6.62 × 10 –34
mv2 e v = × 100 cm
42. Bev = or = 10 –13 × 10 × 10 –2
r m rB
mv = 6.62 × 10–18 cm
43. r= 55. Intensity of incident light is energy per second per
Be
p unit area of the beam. Increased intensity of the same
2mE k
r= or r = wavelength means more photons of the same energy.
Be Be
r∝ m 12375
56. φ0 = eV = 2.3798 eV ≈ 2.4 eV
Proton has greater mass; larger radius of trajectory; 5200
less curved. Energy of infrared lamp is less than 2.4 eV.
hν
Larger the curvature, lesser is the 57. E = mc2 = hν or mc =
c
radius of curvature.
58. h
λ=
h p
44. λ=
p 6.6 × 10 –34
h
1 p= = kg m s–1
λ∝ λ 100 × 10 –10
p = 6.6 × 10–26 kg m s–1
So, graph between λ and p is a rectangular hyperbola. 62. Energy corresponding to 4000 Å
45. Take the help of Fleming’s Left Hand rule. 12375
= eV = 3.09 eV = 3.1 eV
46. Reduced energy, higher wavelength. 4000
47. The key to the question is in the words “...... will al- Maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons
ways take place provided”. You may well know all the = (3.1 – 2) eV = 1.1 eV
relevant facts. But if you interpret the question
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 645
63. Only those orbits are allowed for which the circum- The rate of emission of photoelectrons (i.e. photocurrent)
ference is an integral multiple of λ. depends proportionally on the rate of incident photons.
2πR = nλ 76. When distance is doubled, intensity becomes one-
64. When distance is increased, the intensity is reduced. fourth. So, the number of photoelectrons becomes one-
But intensity has no effect on cut-off potential. fourth.
66. When the given frequency is halved, the frequency 77. UV radiation is more energetic than visible light.
becomes less than threshold frequency. So, no photo- 78. The emission of the photoelectrons from the metal
emission.
surface can only be explained by Einstein’s particle
67. Low work function (photon) theory.
68. eVs = hν – φ0
hc
eVs′ = 2hν – φ0 79. Photon energy, E = hf = in the usual notation,
λ
Vs ′ 2hν – φ 0
= 1
Vs hν – φ0 hence E ∝ .
λ
Clearly, Vs′ > 2 Vs
80. Each photon has associated with it an energy E given
69. λ = 3 × 104 cm = 3 × 104 × 108 Å
by
= 3 × 1012 Å
12375 hc
Now, energy in eV = E = hf =
3 × 10 12 λ
energy in joule where f = frequency of the electromagnetic wave
12375 × 1.6 × 10 –19 radiated.
= = 6.6 × 103 × 10–31
3 × 10 12 λ = wavelength of the electromagnetic
= 6.6 × 10–28 J radiation.
1 1
70. mv2max = hν – hν0 = h (ν – ν0) Thus E∝ since h and c are constants.
2 λ
71. Maximum kinetic energy is hν – φ. 81. By quantum theory of radiation, electromagnetic
74. radiation is assumed to consist of particles called
Photocurrent I
photons, each of which carries a packet of quantum
of energy and the amount of energy carried was equal
to hf, where f is the frequency of the radiation and h
is the Planck’s constant.
Light intensity P Thus, photon is the name given to a quantum of
O electromagnetic radiation.
Fig. 14
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal surface whose work function is 2 eV. The minimum reverse
potential to be applied for stopping the emission of electron is :
(a) 2 V (b) 4 V (c) 6 V (d) 8 V [AIIMS 2004]
1
Sol. mv2 max = hν – φ0 = (4 – 2) eV = 2 eV
2
When stopping potential is applied, no electron will reach the cathode and the current will becomes zero
1
∴ mv2 max
eV0 = or eV0 = 2 eV ⇒ Stopping potential = 2 V
2
So, (a) is the right choice.
646 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MCQs
based on
SET II
Important Basic Concepts
+
Application of Formulae
+
Brain Teasers
83. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated through (a) 0.95 × 107 m s–1 (b) 1.9 × 107 m s–1
the same potential difference. The ratio of de-Broglie (c) 3.78 × 107 m s–1 (d) 5.67 × 107 m s–1.
wavelength of the proton to that of the α-particle will 89. In an experiment on photo-electric effect, stopping
be potential is 1.0 V when light of wavelength 6520 Å is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 incident on the emitting surface. The stopping po-
tential is 2.9 V for light of wavelength 3260 Å. The
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 2 : 1 work function of the metal is
[National Standard Exam. inPhysics 1989] (a) 0.9 eV (b) 1.9 eV
(c) 5.8 eV
84. Light of wavelength λ strikes a photoelectric surface
and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy K. If K (d) Cannot be deduced from the given data.
is to be increased to exactly twice its original value, [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
the wavelength must be changed to λ′ such that 90. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron of speed
0.5 km s–1 is
λ λ
(a) λ′ < (b) λ′ > (a) 1.5 × 10–6 m (b) 1.5 × 10–8 m
2 2
(c) 1.5 × 10–10 m (d) 1.5 × 10–12 m.
λ λ
(c) λ > λ′ > (d) λ′ = 91. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, an oil drop of
2 2
radius r and charge Q is held in equilibrium between
85. Lights of two different frequencies whose photons have the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor when
energies 1eV and 2.5 eV respectively, successively il- the potential difference is V. To keep a drop of radius
luminate a metal of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio 2r and charge 2Q in equilibrium between the plates,
of maximum speeds of the emitted electrons will be the potential difference V′ required is
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 4 (a) 8 V (b) 4 V
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1. (c) 2 V (d) V.
86. If E1, E2 and E3 are the respective kinetic energies of 92. The de-Broglie wavelength of a 1 kg object moving
an electron, an alpha particle and a proton, each hav- with speed of 1 m s–1 is
ing the same de-Broglie wavelength, then
(a) 6.6 × 10–34 m (b) 6.0 × 10–34 m
(a) E1 > E3 > E2 (b) E2 > E3 > E1
(c) 6.6 × 10–10 m (d) 6.0 × 10–10 m.
(c) E1 > E2 > E3 (d) E1 = E2 = E3.
93. The diagram shows a charged oil drop between two
87. If h is Planck’s constant, then the momentum of a horizontal plates connected to a high voltage source
photon of wavelength 0.01 Å is V. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(a) 10–2 h (b) h 1. If the drop is stationary, then it must carry a
(c) 102 h (d) 1012 h. positive charge.
88. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference of 2. If the drop is falling at ‘terminal velocity’, then a
1000 volt. Its velocity will be resultant force must be acting on it.
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 647
2me
(a) 1 (b)
mα
+ me
me
(c) (d) . [MNR 1994]
mα 2mα
+
98. When radiation is incident on a photoelectron emit-
Oil drop V
ter, the stopping potential is determined to be 9 V.
– Assuming the charge to mass ratio e/m for electron
–
to be 1.8 × 10 11 C kg –1, the maximum velocity of
ejected electron is found to be in m s–1
(a) 1.8 × 106 (b) 6 × 105
(c) 8 × 105 (d) 10 × 105.
b a
photo-sensitive surface for (c) 181 × 10–15 Hz (d) None of the above.
three different radiations.
101. A metal surface of work function 1.07 eV is irradi-
Let I a , I b and I c be the
ated with light of wavelength 332 nm. The retarding
intensities and fa , fb and O Anode potential potential required to stop the escape of photo-elec-
fc be the frequencies for
Fig. 16 trons is
the curves a, b and c re-
(a) 4.81 eV (b) 3.74 eV
spectively.
(a) fa = fb and Ia ≠ Ib (b) fa = fc and Ia = Ic (c) 2.66 eV (d) 1.07 eV. [MP PMT 1992]
(c) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (d) fb = fc and Ib = Ic 102. The mass of a particle is 400 times than that of an
electron and the charge is double. The particle is ac-
[IIT Screening 2004]
celerated by 5 V. Initially the particle is at rest. Then
95. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy its final kinetic energy will be
of a proton. The energy of the photon is E. Let λ1 be (a) 5 eV (b) 10 eV
the de-Broglie wavelength of the proton and λ2 be the
(c) 100 eV (d) 2000 eV.
wavelength of the photon. The ratio λ 1 /λ 2 is
[MP PMT 1990]
proportional to
(a) E° (b) E1/2 103. 5 V of stopping potential is needed for the photo elec-
trons emitted out of the surface of work function
(c) E–1
(d) E–2
2.2 eV by the radiation of wavelength
[IIT Screening 2004]
(a) 1719 Å (b) 3444 Å
96. A photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal having (c) 861 Å (d) 3000 Å.
work function 2 eV. The maximum K.E. of photo-
104. The work function of tungsten is 4.5 eV. The thresh-
electrons is equal to
old frequency is
(a) 1.4 eV (b) 1.7 eV
(a) 1.09 × 1015 Hz (b) 0.91 × 1015 Hz
(c) 5.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV. [MP PET 1991] (c) 1.09 × 10–15 Hz (d) 1 × 1016 Hz.
97. The ratio of momenta of an electron and an α-parti- 105. If a surface has work function of 3.00 eV, the longest
cle which are accelerated from rest by a potential wavelength of light which will cause the emission of
difference of 100 V is electrons is
648 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 4.876 × 10–7 m (b) 5.998 × 10–7 m (a) 0.3 V (b) 0.6 V
(c) 4.125 × 10–7 m (d) 6.847 × 10–7 m. (c) 1.2 V (d) 2.4 V.
[AMU 2003] [MP PMT 1994]
106. A proton when accelerated through a potential dif- 113. Work function of nickel is 5.01 eV. When ultraviolet
ference of V volt has a wavelength λ associated with radiation of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on it,
it. An α-particle, in order to have the same λ,must be
electrons are emitted. What will be the maximum
accelerated through a potential difference of
velocity of emitted electrons ?
(a) V volt (b) 4V volt
(a) 3 × 108 m s–1 (b) 6.46 × 105 m s–1
V
(c) 2V volt (d) volt. (c) 10.36 × 105 m s–1 (d) 8.54 × 106 m s–1.
8
114. In Fig. 17, A and B are two horizontal metal plates
107. An electron of mass m when accelerated through a
separated by insulating plugs. The region between A
potential difference V has de-Broglie wavelength λ .
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton and B is evacuated. An electron of mass ‘m’ remains
of mass M accelerated through the same potential at rest inside the chamber. If a proton of mass “M”
difference will be replaces electron under similar conditions, then the
proton
m m
(a) λ (b) λ
M M
M M
(c) λ (d) λ . A
m m
[All India PM/PD 1995]
108. The momentum of a photon is 2 × 10–16 g cm s–1. Its e V
energy is
(a) 0.61 × 10–26 erg (b) 2.0 × 10–26 erg
B
(c) 6 × 10–6 erg (d) 6 × 10–8 erg.
109. The kinetic energy of the electron is E when the inci-
dent wavelength is λ . To increase the K.E. of the
electron to 2E, the incident wavelength must be Fig. 17
(a) 2 λ (b) λ/2 (a) continues to remain at rest
hcλ hcλ eE
(c) (d) . (b) acquires an acceleration in the upward direction
E λ + hc Eλ − hc m
110. The radiations of 500 nm liberate photo-electrons from FG Mg – eE IJ in the downward
the cesium surface of work function 1.8 eV. The en-
(c) acquires an acceleration
H M K
direction
ergy of electron is F m + M IJ g in the downward
(d) acquires an acceleration GH
(a) 3.28 eV (b) 1.36 eV M K
(c) 0.68 eV (d) 0.6 eV. direction.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997]
111. The work function of a metal is 1.6 × 10–19 J. When
the metal surface is illuminated by the light of wave- 115. The work functions for tungsten and sodium are
4.5 eV and 2.3 eV respectively. If the threshold
length 6400 Å, then the maximum kinetic energy of
wavelength λ for sodium is 5460 Å, the value of λ for
emitted photo-electrons will be (Planck’s constant
tungsten is
h = 6.4 × 10–34 Js)
(a) 5893 Å (b) 10683 Å
(a) 15 × 10–19 J (b) 2.8 × 10–19 J
(c) 2791 Å (d) 528 Å . [MP PET 1990]
(c) 1.5 × 10–19 J (d) 1.5 × 10–19 eV.
116. Light of wavelength 4000 Å falls on a photosensitive
[MP PMT 1989] metal and a negative 2 V potential stops the emitted
112. When the light source is kept 20 cm away from a electrons. The work function of the material (in eV)
photo cell, stopping potential 0.6 V is obtained. When is approximately
source is kept 40 cm away, the stopping potential (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19C, c = 3 × 108 m s–1
will be
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 649
(a) 1.1 (b) 2.0 B – into the
plane of paper
(c) 2.2 (d) 3.1 . [MP PET 1995]
117. The radio transmitter operates on a wavelength of
1500 m at a power of 389.6 kilowatt. Then the fre-
quency corresponding to this wavelength is
(a) 500 kHz (b) 200 kHz
–e v
(c) 100 kHz (d) 400 kHz.
[All India PM/PD 2002] E
120. Silver has a work function of 4.7 eV. When ultraviolet 124. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium
surface (work function 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in
light of wavelength 100 nm is incident upon it, a
joule of the fastest electron emitted is nearly
potential of 7.7 volt is required to stop the
(a) 3.2 × 10–21 (b) 3.2 × 10–19
photoelectrons from reaching the collector plate. The
(c) 3.2 × 10–17 (d) 3.2 × 10–15.
potential required to stop photo electrons when light
[MP PET 1990]
of wavelength 200 nm is incident upon silver is
125. Work function of a metal is 2.51 eV. Its threshold
(a) 1.5 V (b) 1.85 V
frequency is
(c) 1.95 V (d) 2.37 V. [Manipal 2002] (a) 5.9 × 1014 Hz (b) 6.5 × 1014 Hz
121. Let nr and nb be respectively the number of photons (c) 9.4 × 1014 Hz (d) 6.08 × 1014 Hz.
emitted by a red bulb and a blue bulb of equal power Background for Questions 126 to 129
in a given time. Then For photons of wavelength λ in vacuum, the linear
(a) nr = nb (b) nr < nb momentum p is given by
(c) nr > nb p = h/λ
(d) The information is insufficient to get a relation between nr De-Broglie gave the idea that for material particles
and nb [AIIMS 2002] of momentum p, there should be an associated wave
122. Electrons travelling at a velocity of 2.4 × 106 m s–1 whose wavelength is given by λ = h/p.
enter a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields For photons, the energy is given by
as shown in Fig. 18. If the electric field is 3.0 × 106 E = hν
V m–1, and the flux density of the magnetic field is whereas the kinetic energy of particles (with speed
1.5 T, the electrons upon entering the region of the well below c) is related to p through
crossed fields will E = p2/2m.
Now answer the questions given below.
650 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
126. λ is proportional to 1
(a) (b) 1
(a) 1/E for both photons and particles 2
(c) 2 (d) 2
(b) 1/E for photons : 1/ E for particles
(e) 4. [Southern Universities Joint Board for
(c) 1/ E for both photons and particles
School Examinations Bristol]
(d) 1/ E for photons ; 1/E for particles. 133. A monochromatic light is used in an experiment on
127. If the de-Broglie wavelength is λo for protons acceler- photoelectric effect. The stopping potential
ated through 100 V, that for alpha particles acceler- (a) is related to the mean wavelength.
ated through the same voltage will be (b) is related to the longest wavelength.
(a) λo (b) λo/2 (c) is related to the shortest wavelength.
(d) is not related to the wavelength.
(c) λo/2 2 (d) λo/4.
134. The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric
128. If λo stands for mid-wavelength in the visible region, effect is kept vertically above the emitter plate. Light
the de-Broglie wavelength for 100 V electrons is source is put on and a saturation photocurrent is
nearest to recorded. An electric field is switched on which has a
vertically downward direction.
(a) λo/5 (b) λo/50
(a) The photocurrent will increase.
(c) λo/500 (d) λo/5000.
(b) The kinetic energy of the electrons will increase.
129. For a particle of mass m enclosed in a one-dimen-
(c) The stopping potential will decrease.
sional box of length L, the de-Broglie concept would
(d) The threshold wavelength will increase.
lead to stationary waves, with nodes at the two ends.
135. Four elements A, B, C, D, have work functions 2,
The energy values allowed for such a system (with n
2.4, 2.8, 3.2 eV. Light of wave length 4000 Å is incident
as integers) will be
on them. The elements which emit photo electrons
h2 h2 are
(a) 2
n2 (b) n2 (a) A, B, C, D (b) A, B, C
8mL 4 mL
(c) A, B (d) A.
h h2 2 136. Two metal plates having a potential difference of 800 V
(c) n (d) n .
4 mL 4 mL2 are 0.02 m apart horizontally. A particle of mass
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991] 1.96 × 10–15 kg is suspended in equilibrium between
the plates. If e is the elementry charge, then charge
130. The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect cor- on the particle is
responds to a wavelength of 5000 Å. Its work func- (a) e (b) 3e
tion is
(c) 6e (d) 8e. [MP PET 1999]
(a) 1 Joule (b) 4 × 10–19 joule
137. An electron accelerated under a potential difference
(c) 3 × 10–19 joule (d) 2 × 10–19 joule. V volt has a certain wavelength λ . Mass of the proton
131. The threshold frequency for certain metal is ν0. When is 2000 times the mass of the electron. If the proton
light of frequency 2ν0 is incident on it, the maximum has to have the same wavelength λ , then it will have
velocity of photoelectrons is 4 × 106 m s–1. If the fre- to be accelerated under a potential difference of
quency of incident radiation is increased to 5ν0, then (a) V volt (b) 2000 V volt
the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be V
(c) volt (d) 2000 V volt.
2000
(a) 4/5 × 106 m s–1 (b) 2 × 106 m s–1
[Himachal PMT 2002]
(c) 8 × 106 m s–1 (d) 2 × 107 m s–1.
138. In a photoelectric experiment, electrons are ejected
132. A beam of α-particles and protons of the same kinetic
from metals X and Y by light of frequency f. The
energy E enters a uniform magnetic field at right potential difference V required to stop the electrons
angles to the field lines so that the particles bend on is measured for various frequencies. If Y has a greater
circular paths. The ratio of path radius for α-particles work function than X, which graph illustrates the
and path radius for protons is equal to expected results ?
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 651
If the experiment were repeated with light of twice
V V V
X X Y the intensity but the same wavelength, which of the
X graphs below would best represent the new relation
Y Y
between I and V ? (In these graphs, the result of the
0 0 0 original experiment is indicated by a broken line.)
0 f 0 f 0 f
(a) (b) (c)
I I
V V
Y Y
X X
0 0
0 f 0 f O V O V
(d ) (e)
(a) (b)
Fig. 19 I
Fig. 20
[UGET 1998]
652 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
145. In Q. 144, if Vs is the stopping potential in the first 150. When a metallic surface is illuminated by light of
case, then the stopping potential in the second case frequency 8 × 1014 Hz, a photoelectron of energy 0.5 eV
will be is emitted. When the same surface is illuminated by
(a) Vs (b) 3 Vs light of frequency 12 × 10 14 Hz, photoelectron of
(c) 9 Vs (d) 12 Vs. [EAMCET 2001] maximum energy 2 eV is emitted. The work function
is
146. A stopping potential of 0.82 volt is required to stop
(a) 0.5 eV (b) 1.5 eV
the photoelectrons emitted from a metallic surface
by light of wavelength 4000 Å. The stopping poten- (c) 2.5 eV (d) 3.5 eV.
tial for wavelength 3000 Å will be [Haryana PMT 2002]
(a) 1.85 V (b) 2.85 V 151. In Q. 150, the value of Planck’s constant is
(c) 3.0 V (d) 4.1 V. [Pb. PMT 2002] (a) 6.0 × 10–34 J s (b) 6.3 × 10–34 J s
147. An ultraviolet radiation source causes the emission (c) 6.4 × 10–34 J s (d) 6.6 × 10–34 J s.
of photoelectrons from a zinc plate. 152. In a photoelectric experiment, the potential difference
How would the maximum kinetic energy Ek of the V that must be maintained between the illuminated
photoelectrons and the number of photoelectrons surface and the collector so as just to prevent any
emitted per second n be affected by substituting a
electrons from reaching the collector is determined
more intense source of the same wavelength ?
for different frequencies f of the incident illumination.
Ek n
The graph below is obtained.
(a) decreased increased
(b) unchanged unchanged V
(c) unchanged increased
V1
(d) increased unchanged
(e) increased increased.
148. Light quanta of energy 3.5 × 10–19 J fall on the cath-
ode of a photocell. The current through the cell is
just reduced to zero by applying a stopping potential
of 0.25 V.
0
What is the work function energy of the cathode ? f0 f1 f
(a) 2.9 × 10–19 J (b) 3.1 × 10–19 J
Fig. 23
(c) 3.5 × 10–19 J (d) 3.9 × 10–19 J
(e) 6.4 × 10–19 J. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons
emitted at frequency f1 ? [The symbol e represents
149. In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, an evacu-
ated photocell with a pure metal cathode is used. the charge on an electron and h is the Planck con-
Which graph best represents the variation of y, the stant]
minimum potential difference needed to prevent cur- (a) hf1 (b) V1 (f1 – fo)
rent from flowing, when x, the frequency of the inci- (c) h (f1 – fo) (d) V1
dent light, is varied ?
(e) eV1 (f1 – fo).
155. A student connects a photocell to supply and finds (a) h 2m E (b) 2mE /h
that when the cell is exposed to monochromatic (c) h/ mE (d) h/ 2mE
radiation, a current flows only when the potential
(e) h 2/ mE .
difference across the cell is less than 1.6 V. What is
the maximum energy of the emitted electrons ? 161. In Davisson-Germer experiment, the correct relation
between angle of diffraction φ and glancing angle θ is
(a) 1.0 × 10–19 J (b) 2.6 × 10–19 J
φ φ
(c) 4.8 × 10–11 J (d) 1.6 J (a) θ = 90° – (b) θ = 90° +
2 2
(e) 1.0 × 10+19 J. φ
156. Which one of the following graphs could represent (c) θ = (d) θ = φ. [JIPMER 2002]
2
the distribution P(E) of energies E of α-particles emit- 162. If E and λ represent the energy and wavelength re-
ted from a given source ? spectively of an electron, then the graph between log
λ and log E will have
P(E) P(E) P(E) (a) positive slope (b) negative slope
(c) zero slope (d) infinite slope.
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2002]
0 0 0 163. The energy of an electron of de-Broglie wavelength
0 E 0 E 0 E 1 Å is
(a) (b) (c)
(a) 150.5 eV (b) 15.05 eV
P(E) P(E) (c) 1.505 eV (d) 0.1505 eV.
[CMC Vellore 2002]
164. A beam of monochromatic radiation falls on to a metal
0 0 X and photoelectrons are emited. The rate of emis-
0 (d ) E 0 (e) E sion of photoelectrons will be doubled if
(a) a beam of double the intensity is used
Fig. 24
(b) radiation of double the frequency is used
157. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a nitrogen
(c) radiation of double the wavelength is used
molecule at atmospheric pressure and temperature
27°C will be nearly (d) the thermodynamic temperature of the metal is doubled
(a) 0.1 Å (b) 0.2 Å (e) a metal with a work function half that of X is substituted
for X.
(c) 0.3 Å (d) 0.4 Å.
158. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutrons in thermal 165. The work function for aluminium is 4.125 eV. The
equilibrium is cut-off wavelength for photoelectric effect for Alu-
minium is
30.8 3.08
(a) Å (b) Å (a) 300 nm (b) 200 nm
T T
(c) 420 nm (d) 150 nm. [KCET 2001]
0.308 0.0308
(c) Å (d) Å. [BHU 2001] 166. Two radiations containing photons of energy twice
T T
and five times the work function of a metal are inci-
159. The intensity of a beam of monochromatic light is dent successively on the metal surface. The ratio of
doubled. Which one of the following represents the the maximum velocities of the emitted electrons in
corresponding change, if any, in the momentum of the two cases will be
each photon of the radiation ?
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4
(a) increased fourfold (b) doubled
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1. [KCET 2000]
(c) the same (d) halved
167. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two masses
(e) reduced fourfold.
m1 and m2 with non-zero velocities. The ratio of de-
160. What is the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of
λ1
mass m and kinetic energy E ? Broglie wave lengths of the particles is
λ2
[h is the Planck constant.]
654 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 12.4 × 103 Å (b) 2.4 × 103 Å (c) 4.65 × 10–19 J (d) 2.65 × 1019 J.
[CPMT 2002]
(c) 0.4 × 102 Å (d) 1000 Å.
[CMC Vellore 2001] 182. An important spectral emission line has a wavelength
of 21 cm. The corresponding photon energy is
175. The distance between two consecutive atoms of the
crystal lattice is 1.227 Å. The maximum order of dif- (a) 5.9 × 10–11 eV (b) 5.9 × 10–8 eV
fraction of electrons accelerated through 104 volt is (c) 5.9 × 10–6 eV (d) 5.9 × 10–4 eV .
(a) 1 (b) 5 [CMC Vellore 1999]
(c) 10 (d) 20.
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 655
183. If the energy of a photon corresponding to a wave- (a) 400 pm (b) 200 pm
length of 6000 Å is 3.32 × 10–19 J, the photon energy pm
pm
(in J) for a wavelength of 4000 Å will be (c) (d) . [CMC LDH 2002]
200 400
(a) 4.98 × 10–19 (b) 4.98 × 10–16
186. A 20 amu atom emits photon of 6.6 Å while making a
(c) 49.8 × 10–19 (d) 2.21 × 10–19 . [BHU 1999]
transition from excited state to ground state. The
184. The de-Broglie wavelength of helium atom at a tem- recoil energy of the atom will be
perature of 89°C, will be (a) 1.5 × 10–23 J (b) 3.5 × 10–23 J
(a) 0.47 Å (b) 0.58 Å
(c) 5.1 × 10–23 J (d) 7.5 × 10–23 J.
(c) 0.66 Å (d) 0.73 Å. [BHU 2000]
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 1999]
185. If the momentum of electron is changed by pm , then
the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes
by 0.50%. The initial momentum of electron will be
h F
λ ′ E + φ0 I
λα =
2mα (2e)V
Dividing, GH
λ 2E + φ0
JK or
λ′
λ
<1
12375 1
or λ in Å = ≈ 1719 mv2max = hν – φ0
7.2 2
= (1.93 – 1) eV = 0.93 eV
φ0
104. φ0 = hν0 or ν0 = = 0.93 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = 1.5 × 10–19 J
h
112. Intensity of light has no effect on stopping potential.
4.5 × 1.6 × 10 –19 12375
or ν0= Hz = 1.09 × 1015 Hz
6.6 × 10–34 113. Energy corresponding to 2000 Å = eV = 6.2 eV
2000
12375 Maximum kinetic energy
105. λ in Å = = 4125
3 = (6.2 – 5.01) eV = 1.19 eV
λ in metre = 4125 × 10–10 m = 4.125 × 10–7 m
1
h Now, × 9.1 × 10–31 × v2max.
106. λ = ; In the given problem, mq V = constant 2
2 mqV = 1.19 × 1.6 × 10–19
V 1.19 × 1.6 × 10 –19 × 2
∴ 4 × 2 V′ = 1 × 1 × V or V′ = or v2max. =
8 9.1 × 10 –31
h or v2max. = 0.418 × 1012 = 41.8 × 1010
107. λ=
mv or vmax. = 6.46 × 105 m s–1
h 114. Electron at rest gives mg = eE
λ= h
or λ′ = Downward force on proton
2meV 2MeV
= Mg + eE = Mg + mg
λ′ m m (M + m) g
= or λ′ = λ
λ M M = (M + m)g ; a =
M
108. E = pc hc
E = 2 × 10–16 × 3 × 1010 erg 115. φ0 = hν0 =
λ0
= 6 × 10–6 erg
or φ0λ0 = constant
hc
109. E= – φ0 2.3 × 5460
λ 4.5 × λ = 2.3 × 5460 or λ = Å
4.5
hc 2hc hc = 2790.7 Å ≈ 2791 Å.
2E = – φ0 or – 2φ0 = – φ0
λ′ λ λ′ 12375
116. – φ0 = 2 eV
4000
hc 2hc hc 2hc hc
or = – φ0 or = +E– or φ0 = (3.1 – 2) eV = 1.1 eV
λ′ λ λ′ λ λ
c
hc hc hc Eλ + hc 117. c = νλ , ν =
or =E+ or = λ
λ′ λ λ′ λ
3 × 108 1
hcλ ν= Hz = × 106 Hz
λ′ = 1500 5
or
Eλ + hc = 0.2 × 106 Hz = 2 × 105 Hz
110. λ = 500 nm = 500 × 10–9 × 1010 Å = 200 × 103 Hz = 200 kHz
= 5000 Å hc
118. E= – φ0
Energy corresponding to 5000 Å λ/2
12375 hc FG
2hc 3hc IJ
=
5000
eV = 2.475 eV 2E =
λ/3
– φ0 or 2
λ H– φ0 =
λ K
– φ0
658 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
F current produced by P IJ
1 Where m is the mass of the the particle(s)
= G
2
frequency f and hence the wavelength λ of the incident of the negative potential difference which just stops
light by the equation the electrons with maximum energy from reaching
A. V is called the stopping potential. Therefore,
hc
Ek = hf – w0 = – w0 ...(1) eV = Emax. …(2)
λ
From (1) and (2), we have
where c = speed of light.
eV = Emax. = h(f – fo)
w0 = work function of the material = mini-
mum kinetic energy needed to free an h h
V= (f – f0) or y = (x – x0)
electron out of the material. e e
For incident wave of the same wavelength, the maxi- RSVf UV is replaced by RS xyUV .
mum kinetic energy Ek of the photoelectrons remains
where
TW TW
unchanged as easily deduced from equation (1). The variation of V (or y) is thus a straight line of
The higher the intensity of the incident wave, the h
gradient , when it is plotted against f (or x). The
more the number of photons incident on the zinc plate e
surface ; and hence more photoelectrons would be emit- curve has a minimum value of zero at frequency f (or
ted. Thus the number of photoelectrons emitted per x) at f0. It is best represented in graph b.
second n would be increased for a more intense source. 150. 8 × 1014 h = φ0 + 0.5
148. The Einstein’s photoelectric equation is 12 × 1014 h = φ0 + 2
Emax. = hf – W0 12 φ +2
Dividing, = 0
where E max. is the maximum kinetic energy of 8 φ 0 + 0.5
electrons 3 φ +2
= 0
hf is the incident photon energy 2 φ0 + 0.5
W0 is the work function of the photocell 3φ0 + 1.5 = 2φ0 + 4
If Vs is the stopping potential necessary to stop the or φ0 = 2.5 eV
electrons with maximum energy from reaching the 2.5 + 0.5
anode, then 151. h= × 1.6 × 10–19 Js
8 × 1014
eVs = Emax. = 6 × 10–34 Js
From the equations, we may write 152. The work function φ of the metal is given by
eVs = hf – W0 φ = hf0
⇒ (1.6 × 10–19) (0.25) = 3.5 × 10–19 – W0 where f0 is the threshold frequency of the metal below
∴ W0 = 3.5 × 10–19 – 0.4 × 10–19 which no emisson of electron is obtained.
= 3.1 × 10–19 J The Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by
149. By Einstein’s particle (photon) theory, the maximum eV = Emax. = hf – φ
kinetic energy Emax. of the emitted electrons from the = hf – hf0 = h(f – f0)
cathode is proportional to the frequency f of the light. where Emax. = maximum kinetic energy of electrons
This is expressed in the Einstein’s photoelectric equa- V = stopping potential for the electrons
tion below Therefore, eV1 = Emax. = h(f1 – f0)
Emax. = hf – φ0 = hf – hf0 hc
hc
= h(f – f0) ....(1) 153. eVs = – φ0 or eVs + φ0 =
λ λ
where h is the Planck’s constant, hc
or λ=
φ0 is the work function of the metal and is related to eVs + φ0
the threshold frequency fo by φ0 = hfo . It is the mini- hc
Now, λ1 =
mum amount of work or energy necessary to take a eVs1 + φ 0
free electron out of the metal against the attractive hc λ 2 eVs1 + φ0
forces of surrounding positive ions. λ2 = or =
eVs2 + φ 0 λ 1 eVs2 + φ0
At a particular negative potential difference V applied
. + φ0
4500 13 9 1.3 + φ0
to the anode A, the current becomes zero. This is value = or =
4000 0.9 + φ0 8 0.9 + φ0
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 661
or φ0 = 8 × 1.3 – 9 × 0.9 or φ0 = (10.4 – 8.1) eV 159. If the intensity of a beam of monochromatic light is
= 2.3 eV doubled but its frequency f and hence its wavelength
154. P = nhν λ remains unchanged, then the number of photons
per unit area of cross-section of the beam of light per
P Pλ IAλ unit time is also doubled. But the momentum P of
n= or n = or n =
hν hc hc each photon of the rediation is the same and is given
by
10 –10 × 10 –6 × 5.6 × 10 –7
= = 282.8 ≈ 283 h
6.6 × 10 –34 × 3 × 10 8 P=
155. The value of 1.6 V is the stopping potential Vs which λ
just stops the electrons with maximum energy Emax. 160. By de-Broglie’s theory, the wavelength λ of a particle
from being detected as current flow. Thus of mass m and momentum P is given by
Emax. = eVs = (1.6 × 10–19) (1.6) h h
= 2.56 × 10–19 J = 2.6 × 10–19 J λ= =
P mv
156. By de-Broglie’s theory and quantum theory of energy,
where ν is the velocity of the particle
the momentum p and E of α-particles emitted from a
source are given by Now, the kinetic energy E of the particle is related to
h its mass m and speed ν by the equation below.
E = hf ; p =
λ 1
hc E= mv2
Hence, E = hf = = pc = mc2 2
λ
⇒ 2mE = (mv)2
where m is the mass of the α-particles
Thus, the momentum p is related to energies E or ∴ P = mv = 2mE
mass m by Hence, the wavelength λ is related to mass m and
E kinetic energy E by
p = = mc
c h
λ=
which is proportional to the mass of the α-particles. 2mE
The distribution p of energies E of α-particles emitted
from a given source is thus best represented in graph
161. 2θ + φ = 180°
c.
or 2θ = 180° – φ
157. h θ
λ= φ φ
3mkT or θ = 90° –
2 θ
6.62 × 10–34
= m
3 × 28 × 1.67 × 10 –27 × 1.38 × 10–23 × 300 h Fig. 25
162. λ=
2mE
6.62 × 10 –34 6.62 × 10 −34 1
= m = m log λ = log h – log (2mE)
10 –25 58075.9 241 × 10 −25 2
= 0.02746 × 10–9 m Clearly, the straight line has a negative slope.
= 0.2746 × 10–10 m = 0.27 Å ≈ 0.3 Å 12.27
163. λ= Å
158. h V
λ=
2mkT 12.27 × 12.27
V= = 150.5 volt
6.62 × 10 –34 1
= m
2 × 1.67 × 10–27 × 1.38 × 10–23 T So, energy is 150.5 eV.
164. By Einstein’s particle (photon) theory, the number of
6.62 × 10 –34 3.079
photoelectrons emitted per unit area of cross-section
= −25
m= × 10–9 m
2.15 × 10 T T of the beam of light per unit time is proportional to its
30.79 30.8 intensity. Thus, the rate of emission of photoelectrons
= Å≈ Å will be doubled if the beam of light has its intensity
T T
doubled.
662 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
hc hc ∴ LM 2E OP E
e
E ph2
165. φ0= hν0 =
λ0
or λ0 =
φ0
2
Nv Q
2 e =
c2
2
or
12375
× 10–10 × 109 nm 4E e2 E ph E e2 v2
λ0 = or = or =
4.125 v2 c2 E ph2 4 c2
12375 Ee v
or λ0 = nm = 300 nm or =
41.25 E ph 2 c
1 c
166. 2 φ0 = φ0 + mv12
2 172. Ee 4 1
= =
1 E ph 2c 8
or φ0 = mv12 ...(1)
2 h2
1 Ee 2 h2 λ h
Also, 5 φ0 = φ0 + mv22 173. = 2mλ = × =
2 E ph hc 2mλ 2
hc 2mλc
1 λ
or 4 φ0 = mv22 ...(2)
2 6.6 × 10 –34
=
Dividing (1) by (2), 2 × 9.1 × 10 –31 × 1.2 × 10–10 × 3 × 108
v12 φ0 1 1
v1 1 = 0.1 × 10–1 =
2
= = or = 100
v2 4 φ0 4 v2 2
mc2 E hν hν h
h 174. p = mc = = = = =
167. λ= c c c νλ λ
mv
E h hc
Here 0 × M = m1v1 + m2v2 Now, = or E=
c λ λ
Clearly, m1v1 = – m2v2
In magnitude, mv = constant hc 6.6 × 10 –34 × 3 × 108
or λ= = × 1010 Å
λ1 1
E 1 × 1.6 × 10 –19
∴ = .
λ2 1 = 12.375 × 103 Å
175. d sin θ = nλ
0.286
168. λ= Å d sin θ
E(in eV) n=
λ
0.286
E(in eV) = d d 1.227 104
0.4 nmax. == = V= = 10
λ 12.27 12.27 10
E(in eV) = 0.51
V
0.286 hc
169. λ= Å
E(in eV) λ ph E c 2m
176. = = 2mE = c
0.286 λe h E E
λ= Å ≈ 9.1 × 10–3 Å 2mE
1000
λp 13.6
mα vα 4 1 177. Energy of electron in nth orbit, En = – 2 eV
170. = = × = 1: 1 n
λα m pvp 1 4
For first Bohr orbit,
h hc n=1
171. λ= =
2mE e E ph E1 = – 13.6 eV
For second Bohr orbit,
E2 ph n=2
or 2mEe =
c2
13.6 λ1 E2
E2 = – eV or =
1 2E 4 λ2 E1
But Ee = mv2 or m = 2 e
2 v
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 663
λ1 1 hc
= λ1 1 183. E1 =
λ2 4 ∴ = λ1
λ2 2
hc
E ph 2c 2c E2 =
178. = = = 4. λ2
Ee v c/2
E2 λ 1
hc 1 =
179. = mv2 E1 λ 2
λ 2
180. Ek = hν – φ0 or Ek′ = 2hν – φ0 λ1
E2 = × E1
FG φ0 IJ λ2
Ek ′ 2hν – φ0
= =
H
2 hν –
2 K 184. λ=
h
Ek hv – φ0 hν – φ0 3mkT
Ek ′ ∆pm
Clearly >2 or Ek′ > 2Ek 185. p= λ
Ek ∆λ
2
181. hν = (Ek)max. p2 h
186. E= =
hc 2m 2mλ2
182. E = hν =
λ
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission
from this substance is approximately :
(a) 310 nm (b) 400 nm (c) 540 nm (d) 220 nm. [AIEEE 2004]
hc hc
Sol. =W or λlongest =
λ W
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
or λlongest = m ≈ 310 nm
4.0 × 1.6 × 10−19
So, (a) is the right choice.
l The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstein’s
equation, the metals which will emit photo-electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are :
(a) None (b) A only (c) A and B only (d) All the three metals.
[All India PM/PD 2005]
12400
Sol. Energy corresponding to 4100 Å = eV = 3.02 eV
4100
Since work functions for metals A and B are less than 3.02 eV therefore A and B will emit photo-electrons.
So, (c) is the right choice.
187. Fig. 26 shows the results of an experiment involving (c) Photoemission occurs when light of appropriate frequency
photoelectric effect. The graphs A, B, C, D relate to but minimum intensity is incident.
light beam having different wavelengths. (d) The charge of photoelectrons is quantised.
190. A source of light is at a distance “s” from metal plate.
i (Current) The plate emits electrons having stopping potential
“V”. Then the wrong statements are
A
(a) V decreases as s increases
B (b) V decreases as s decreases
C (c) V increases when frequency of light is increased
D (d) V alters if metal is changed.
191. Photoelectric effect support quantum nature of light
because
O V (a) there is minimum frequency of light below which no photo-
Retarding Accelerating
electrons are emitted
(b) electric charge of photoelectrons is quantised
Fig. 26
(c) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends
(a) Beam B has highest frequency. only on the frequency of light and not on its intensity
(b) Beam C has longest wavelength.
(d) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the
(c) Beam A has the highest rate of photoelectric emission. photoelectrons leave the surface immediately.
(d) Photoelectrons ejected by beam B have the highest [IIT 1987]
momentum.
192. Fig. 27 shows a Photo cell
Light
188. When a monochromatic point source of light is at a
photo cell circuit.
distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut-off
voltage and the saturation current are respectively The cathode of the C
0.6 V and 18.0 mA. If the same source is placed 0.6 m photo cell is illumi-
A
away from the photocell, then nated by a mono-
(a) the stopping potential will be 0.2 V chromatic light. If
(b) the stopping potential will be 0.6 V the intensity is kept
Fig. 27
(c) the saturation current will be 2.0 m A constant and the fre-
quency of the incident light is increased, then the
[IIT 1992]
(d) the saturation current will be 6.0 m A.
(a) photo electric current in the circuit increases.
189. Which one of the following statements is not in sup-
port of the quantum nature of light ? (b) photo electric current in the circuit decreases.
(a) There is a minimum frequency of light below which no (c) maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons increases
photoelectrons are emitted. (d) photo electric current in the circuit can be reduced to zero,
(b) The maximum K.E. of photoelectrons depends only on the when the polarity of the terminals is reversed.
frequency of light and not on the intensity.
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 665
193. Which of the following phenomena can be explained (a) the work function of A is 2.25 eV
only on the basis of quantum theory of light ? (b) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(a) Energy spectrum of black body radiation (c) TA = 2.00 eV (d) TB = 2.75 eV. [IIT 1994]
(b) Atomic spectra (c) Photoelectric effect
195. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?
(d) Doppler effect.
(a) Maximum velocity of photoelectrons depends on frequency
194. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of and intensity of the incident light
a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum (b) Maximum velocity of photoelectrons depends only on the
kinetic energy TA eV and de-Broglie wavelength λA. frequency of the incident light.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons lib- (c) Photoelectric current increases with increase in intensity
erated from another metal B by photons of energy of incident light.
4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50)eV. If the de-Broglie wave- (d) Photoelectric current is independent of the intensity of
length of these photoelectrons is λB = 2λA, then the incident light.
187. (a), (b), (c), (d) 188. (b), (c) 189. (a), (d) 190. (a), (b) 191. (a), (c), (d) 192. (c), (d) 193. (a), (b), (c) 194. (a), (b), (c)
195. (b), (c).
SET IV MCQs
based on
TYPICAL NUMERICAL BANK
(Exclusively for Engineering Entrance Tests)
196. A stream of photons is impinging normally on a com- 199. A radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880
pletely absorbing screen in vacuum. If irradiance (en- kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons
ergy/area/time) is I, then the pressure on the screen emitted per second is
is (a) 0.075 × 10–34 (b) 1.71 × 1031
I c (c) 13.27 × 1034 (d) 1327 × 1034.
(a) (b)
c I 200. What wavelength is corresponding to a beam of
(c) cI (d) zero . electrons whose kinetic energy is 100 eV ?
197. How many red photons (wavelength λ) must strike a (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J,
totally reflecting screen per second at normal inci- me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
dence, if the exerted force is to be 1N ?
(a) 4.8 Å (b) 3.6 Å
λ 2λ (c) 1.2 Å (d) 2.4 Å . [MP PET 1991]
(a) (b)
h h 201. Light of wavelength 0.6 µm from a sodium lamp falls
λ on a photo cell and causes the emission of photoelec-
(c) (d) infinity. tron for which the stopping potential is 0.5 volt. With
2h
light of wavelength 0.40 µm from a mercury vapour
198. When a certain matallic surface is illuminated with
lamp, the stopping potential is 1.5 volt. Then the work
light of wavelength λ , the stopping potential is 3V0 .
When the same surface is illuminated with light of function in electron volt of the photocell surface is
(a) 0.75 eV (b) 1.5 eV
wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V 0. The
threshold wavelength for this surface is (c) 3 eV (d) 02.5 eV.
(a) 6λ (b) 4λ 202. If 5% of energy supplied to a bulb is radiated as vis-
ible light, how many quanta are emitted per second
λ by 100 watt lamp ? Assume wavelength of visibile
(c) (d) 8λ.
4 light as 5.6 × 10–5 cm
(a) 1.4 × 10–19 (b) 2.0 × 10–4
(c) 2.0 × 10 4
(d) 1.4 × 1019.
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
O According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and
the frequency of incident radiation is
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
Fig. 28
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on UNIT XVI
[Expected Questions for Forthcoming Examinations]
Current
be the maximum K.E. of the ejected electron when a causes photoelectric a
photon of wavelength λ is absorbed by the atom ? effect from a small
hc hc metal plate. Which of b
(a) (b) − 13.6 eV the curves in Fig. 29
λ λ c
(c) 13.6 eV (d) Ec 2 MeV. may represent the d
saturation photo-
2. An electron is accelerated through a potential differ-
current as a function
ence of V volt. It has a wavelength λ associated with Distance
of the distance be-
it. Through what potential difference an electron must
tween the source and Fig. 29
be accelerated so that its de-Broglie wavelength is
the metal ?
the same as that of a proton ? Take mass of proton to
be 1837 times larger than the mass of electron. (a) A (b) B
(a) V volt (b) 1837 V volt (c) C (d) D. [AMU 2003]
V 9. For some material, the threshold wavelength is 400
(c) volt (d) 1837 V volt. nm. The work function is
1837
3. The electric eye is (a) 3.1 eV (b) 3.1 J
(a) burglar alarm (b) fire alarm (c) 6.2 eV (d) 1.8 eV. [AMU 1996]
(c) television (d) photo electric cell. 10. Let p and E denote the linear momentum and energy
4. The energy of a photon of wavelength λ is given by respectively of a photon. If the wavelength is
(a) hλ (b) chλ decreased,
(c) h/λ (d) hc/λ. (a) both p and E increase
(b) p increases and E decreases
5. When green light is incident on the surface of metal,
(c) p decreases and E increases
it emits photo-electrons but there is no such emis-
sion with yellow colour light. Which one of the col- (d) both p and E decrease. [AIIMS 2000]
ours can produce emission of photoelectrons ? 11. The rest mass of the photon is
(a) Orange (b) Red (a) 0 (b) ∞
(c) Indigo (d) none of the above. (c) between 0 and ∞ (d) equal to that of an electron.
6. The maximum wavelength of radiation that can pro- [MP PET 1994]
duce photoelectric effect in a certain metal is 200 nm. 12. Assuming photoemission to continue to take place,
The maximum kinetic energy acquired by electron the factor by which the maximum velocity of the emit-
due to radiation of wavelength 100 nm will be ted photoelectrons changes when the wavelength of
the incident radiation is increased four times, is
(a) 12.4 eV (b) 6.2 eV
1
(c) 100 eV (d) 200 eV. [MP PMT 1994] (a) 4 (b)
4
7. A cesium photocell with a steady potential difference 1
(c) 2 (d) .
of 60 V across it is illuminated by a small bright 2
light placed 1 m away. When the same light is placed [Assume work function to be negligible]
2 m away, the electrons crossing the photocell 13. The photocurrent in an experiment on photoelectric
(a) each carry one-quarter of their previous momentum effect increases if
(b) each carry one-quarter of their previous energy (a) the intensity of the source is increased.
(c) are one-quarter as numerous (b) the exposure time is increased.
(d) are half as numerous. (c) the intensity of the source is decreased.
(d) the exposure time is decreased.
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2001]
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 669
14. The photoelectrons emitted from a given cathode on 21. The work function of a metal is hν 0. Light of fre-
the incidence of a given monochromatic beam of light quency ν falls on this metal. The photoelectric effect
have will take place only if
(a) an energy spread with a lower limit. (a) ν ≥ ν0 (b) ν > 2ν0
(b) an energy spread with an upper limit. (c) ν < ν0 (d) ν < ν0 / 2.
(c) an energy spread with no sharp limits. 22. The energy of a photon is 3 × 10–19 J. Its momentum
(d) a definite energy only. is
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990] (a) 10–27 kg m s–1 (b) 9 × 10–11 kg m s–1
15. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident on (c) 10–11 kg m s–1 (d) 3 × 10–7 kg m s–1.
the cathode of a photoelectric cell. The work function 23. In a dark room of photography, generally red light is
of the cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order to reduce used. The reason is
the photocurrent to zero, the voltage of the anode (a) most of the photographic films are not sensitive to red
relative to the cathode must be made light
(a) – 4.2 V (b) – 9.4 V (b) the frequency for red light is low and hence the energy hν
of photons is less
(c) – 17.8 V (d) + 9.4 V.
(c) (a) and (b) both
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
(d) none of the above.
16. In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, a charged oil drop
24. X-rays are used to irradiate sodium and copper sur-
falls at speed 10 units without field, and rises at speed
faces in two separate experiments and stopping po-
6 units under a vertical electrical field E. Under a
tential determined. The stopping potential is
field E/2, its speed will be
(a) equal in both cases (b) greater for sodium
(a) 18 units (b) 16 units
(c) greater for copper (d) infinite in both cases.
(c) 14 units (d) 12 units.
25. The strength of a photoelectric current depends upon
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1994] (a) frequency of incident radiation.
17. The photoelectric threshold for some material is 200 (b) intensity of incident radiation.
nm. The material is irradiated with radiations of
(c) angle of incident radiation.
wavelength 400 nm. The maximum kinetic energy of
(d) distance between anode and cathode.
the emitted photoelectrons is :
26. The idea of the quantum nature of light has emerged
(a) 2 eV (b) 1 eV
in an attempt to explain
(c) 0.5 eV (d) There is no photoemission.
(a) the thermal radiations of a black body.
18. The human eye can barely detect a yellow light (b) the interference of light.
(λ = 6000 Å) that delivers 1.7 × 10–18 W to the retina. (c) radioactivity. (d) thermionic emission.
The number of photons per second falling on the eye
27. The kinetic Energy of most energetic electrons emitted
is nearest to
from a metallic surface is doubled when the
(a) 5 × 109 (b) 500 wavelength λ of the incident radiation is changed
(c) 50 (d) 5. from 400 nm to 310 nm. The work function of the
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996] metal is
19. The momentum of a photon is p. The frequency asso- (a) 0.9 eV (b) 1.7 eV
ciated with it is given by (c) 2.2 eV (d) 3.1 eV.
(a) pc/h (b) ph/c 28. Stopping potential depends
(c) hc/p (d) h/pc. (a) only upon the energy of incident photon.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989] (b) only on the work function of the metal.
20. Sodium surface is illuminated by ultraviolet and vis- (c) on the difference in energy of incident photon and work
function of metal.
ible radiation successively and the stopping poten-
(d) on the sum of energy of incident photon and work func-
tial determined. This stopping potential is tion of metal.
(a) equal in both cases. 29. How many photons are emitted per second by a
(b) more with ultraviolet light. 5 mW laser source operating at 632.8 nm ?
(c) more with visible light (a) 1.6 × 1016 (b) 1.6 × 1013
(d) varies randomly. (c) 1.6 × 1010 (d) 1.6 × 103.
670 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
30. Fig. 30 shows the 37. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect.
2
plot of the stopping 1.656 Light of wavelength λA falls on plate A and λB falls on
potential versus plate B. λA = 2λB. The maximum K.E. of the photo-
Vs
the frequency of the 1
35 electrons are KA and KB respectively. Which one of
(in volt)
the following is true ?
light used in an
(a) 2KA = KB (b) KA = 2KB
experiment on 1 2 3 4 5
photoelectric effect. ν (c) KA < KB/2 (d) KA > 2KB.
14
h (x10 Hz) [All India PM/PD 1993]
The ratio is Fig. 30
e 38. An electron of charge ‘e’ coulomb passes through a
(a) 10–15 V s (b) 2 × 10–15 Vs potential difference of V volt. Its energy in ‘joule’ will
(c) 3 × 10–15 V s (d) 4.14 × 10–15 V s. be
31. In the previous question, the work function is (a) V/e (b) eV
(a) 00.212 eV (b) 0.313 eV (c) e/V (d) V. [MP PET 2000]
(c) 0.414 eV (d) 0.515 eV. 39. An electron is accelerated through a potential differ-
32. The use of photoelectric cells in cinema depends upon ence of 200 volt. If e/m for the electron be 1.6 × 1011
the fact that the number of electrons produced is pro- coulomb/kg, then the velocity acquired by the elec-
portional tron will be
(a) directly to the wavelength of light (a) 8 × 106 m s–1 (b) 8 × 105 m s–1
(b) inversely to the wavelength of light (c) 5.9 × 106 m s–1 (d) 5.9 × 105 m s–1.
(c) to the intensity of light (d) to the charge of electron. [MP PET 2000]
33. If the wavelength of incident radiation in a photo- 40. In Millikan’s experiment, an oil drop having charge
electric experiment is decreased from 6000 Å to q gets stationary on applying a potential difference V
4500 Å, in between two plates separated by a distance ‘d’.
(a) the photoelectric current may stop The weight of the drop is
(b) the photoelectric current will increase d
(a) q Vd (b) q
(c) the stopping potential will decrease V
q V
(d) the stopping potential will increase. (c) (d) q . [MP PMT 2001]
Vd d
34. The variation of photoelectric current given by the
41. Electron volt is a unit of
photocell with the intensity of light is given by a graph
(a) potential (b) charge
which is
(a) a parabola (c) power (d) energy.
(b) a straight line with positive slope passing through the origin [MP PMT 2001]
(c) a straight line with positive slope with intercept on cur- 42. Light of frequency ν is incident on a certain photo-
rent axis electric substance with threshold frequency ν0. The
(d) a straight line with negative slope. work function for the substance is
35. In order to increase the kinetic energy of ejected pho- (a) hν (b) hν0
toelectrons, there should be an increase in (c) h (ν – ν0) (d) h (ν + ν0).
(a) intensity of radiation (b) wavelength of radiation [MP PMT 2001]
(c) frequency of radiation 43. A particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated
(d) both the wavelength and intensity of radiation. through a potential difference of V volt. Its energy
[MP PMT 1987] will be
(a) qV (b) mqV
36. When a photon of light falls on a metal, it is absorbed
through a distance before ejection of photoelectron. F qI
(c) GH JK V (d)
q
. [MP PET 2001]
This distance is given by m mV
(a) charge on an electron 44. The metal surface is illuminated by a light of given
intensity and frequency to cause photo emission. If
(b) charge to mass ratio of electron
the intensity of illumination is reduced to one-fourth
(c) work function of the emitter
of its original value, then the maximum kinetic en-
(d) Planck’s constant. ergy of emitted photoelectrons will be
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 671
1 (a) V (b) V
(a) th of original value (b) unchanged
16
(c) twice the original value (c) V3 (d) V7/2.
(d) four times the original value. [MP PMT 1990] 48. The maximum velocity of electrons emitted from a
45. In photoelectric effect, metal surface is v. What would be the maximum ve-
locity if the frequency of incident light is increased
(a) light energy is converted into heat energy.
by a factor of 4 ?
(b) light energy is converted into electric energy.
(a) 2v (b) > 2v
(c) light energy is converted into sound energy.
(c) < 2v (d) between 2v and 4v.
(d) electric energy is converted into light energy.
49. The work function of a substance is 4 eV. What is
46. A photon of light enters water after travelling through the approximate longest wavelength of light that can
vacuum. The energy of the photon on entering water cause photo-emission ?
(a) remains the same because frequency does not change (a) 309 nm (b) 209 nm
(b) remains the same because the associated wavelength does (c) 109 nm (d) 9 nm.
not change
50. If the energy of a photon is 25 eV and the work func-
(c) increases because associated wavelength decreases
tion of the material is 7 eV, then the value of stop-
(d) decreases because speed decreases. ping potential is
47. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is (a) 3 V (b) 9 V
V. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of electron (c) 18 V (d) 27 V.
to the minimum wavelength of X-ray is directly pro-
portional to
Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d)
9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a)
17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (c)
33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (a) 50. (c).
Solutions
1. Ek = hν – 13.6 eV. 6. λ0 = 2000 Å
h 1 12375 12375
2. λ= mv2 max. = − = 12.375 – 6.187
2mqV 2 1000 2000
mV = constant = 6.188 eV ≈ 6.2 eV
V 7. Intensity and hence photoelectric current is inversely
1837 V′ = 1 × V or V′ = volt proportional to square of distance.
1837
4. E = hν. 8. Saturation current is inversely proportional to the
square of distance.
hc
E= 9. λ0 = 4000 Å
λ
12375
5. V I B G Y O R φ0 = eV = 3.09 eV = 3.1 eV.
4000
672 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
=
10−24
≈5 N
2 λB 2Q 2
−
2
2 × 10 −25 KB
∴ KA < .
mc2
E hν 2
19. p = mc = = =
c c c
pc + Note the special technique used in the
or ν =
h solution of this problem.
20. The frequency of ultraviolet radiation is more than
W
the frequency of visible radiation. 38. V=
q
hν W = qV = eV.
22. p=
c
3 × 10 −19 1 2eV
p= kg m s–1 39. mv2 = eV or v =
3 × 108 2 m
p = 10–27 kg m s–1 = 2 × 1.6 × 1011 × 200 m s–1
24. Sodium has low work function. So, maximum kinetic
= 8 × 106 m s–1.
energy is more in the case of sodium. Thus, stopping
potential is more for sodium. qV
40. mg = qE =
12375 d
27. Ek = – φ0 = 3.1 – φ0 41. It is the energy acquired by an electron when acceler-
4000 ated through a potential difference of 1 volt.
12375
2Ek = – φ0 = 3.99 – φ0 42. φ0 = hν0.
3100
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 673
W v′ 2 4 hν − φ 0
43. V= or W = qV. =
q v2 hν − φ 0
44. The maximum kinetic energy does not depend upon
intensity. v′ 2 4 [ hν − φ0 ] + 3φ0
2 =
46. E = hν v hν − φ0
h hc v′ 2 3φ0
47. λ= ; = eV or =4+
2meV λ min. v 2
hν − φ0
hc h λ
λ× = eV or ∝ V Clearly, v′ > 2v.
λ min. 2meV λ min.
1 12375
48. mv2 = hν – φ0 49. Å = 3094 Å = 309.4 nm.
2 4
1 50. eVs = 25 eV – 7 eV or Vs = 18 volt.
mv′ 2 = 4hν – φ0
2
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having the same wavelength, it implies that they have
the same:
(a) energy (b) momentum (c) velocity (d) angular momentum. [AIIMS 2003]
h
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength, λ =
p
As electron and photon are having the same wavelength λ and h is a constant, therefore momentum of both of them
will be the same.
So, (b) is the right choice.
l For a given kinetic energy which of the following the smallest de-Broglie wavelength ?
(a) electron (b) proton (c) neutron
(d) deuteron (e) α-particle. [Kerala PMT 2003]
h h
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength, λ = =
p 2mE
1
For a given kinetic energy, λ ∝
m
As α-particle has largest mass (out of five given particles), therefore it has the smallest de-Broglie wavelength.
So, (e) is the right choice.
1
l A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m away. When the same source of light is placed m
2
away, the number of electrons emitted by photocathode would
(a) increase by a factor of 2 (b) decrease by a factor of 2.
(c) increase by a factor of 4 (d) decrease by a factor of 4. [AIEEE 2005]
1
Sol. Intensity ∝
(distance)2
Since distance is halved therefore intensity is increased by a factor of 4. Moreover photoelectric current and hence
number of photoelectrons is proportional to intensity.
So, (c) is the right choice.
674 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XVI
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
10. If a surface has a work function 4.0 eV, what is the This means that
maximum velocity of electrons liberated from the sur- (a) the emission of photoelectrons is stopped
face when it is irradiated with ultra violet radiation (b) the photoelectrons are emitted but are reabsorbed by the
of wavelength 0.2 µm ? emitter metal
(a) 4.4 × 105 m s–1 (b) 8.8 × 107 m s–1 (c) the photoelectrons are accumulated near the collector
(c) 8.8 × 10 m s
5 –1
(d) 4.4 × 107 m s–1. plate
11. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for a metal (d) the photoelectrons are dispersed from the sides of the
surface is 6600 Å. The work function for this is apparatus.
(a) 1.87 V (b) 1.87 eV 17. Given h = 6.6 × 10 –34 Js. The momentum of each
(c) 18.7 eV (d) 0.18 eV. [MP PET 1991] photon in a given radiation is 3.3 × 10–29 kg m s–1.
The frequency of radiation is
12. An image of the sun is formed by a lens, of focal
length of 30 cm, on the metal surface of a photoelec- (a) 3 × 10 Hz (b) 6 × 1010 Hz
tric cell and a photoelectric current I is produced. (c) 7.5 × 1012 Hz (d) 1.5 × 1013 Hz.
The lens forming the image is then replaced by an- 18. The radio transmitter operates on a wavelength of
other of the same diameter but of focal length 15 cm. 1500 m at a power of 400 kilowatt. The energy of
The photoelectric current in this case is radio-photon in joule is
I (b) I (a) 1.32 × 10–24 J (b) 1.32 × 10–28 J
(a)
2 (c) 1.32 × 10–26 J (d) 1.32 × 10–32 J.
(c) 2I (d) 4I.
19. The work function of a metallic surface is 5.01 eV.
13. A modern 200 watt sodium street lamp emits yellow The photo-electrons are emitted when light of wave-
light of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% length 2000 Å falls on it. The potential difference ap-
efficient in converting electrical energy to light, the
plied to stop the fastest photo-electrons is [h = 4.14 ×
number of photons of yellow light it emits per second 10–15 eVs]
is
(a) 1.2 V (b) 2.24 V
(a) 6.2 × 1020 (b) 3 × 1019
(c) 3.6 V (d) 4.8 V.
(c) 1.5 × 1020 (d) 6 × 1018.
20. What is the angular momentum of an electron of de-
14. In a photoemissive cell, with exciting wavelength λ,
Broglie wavelength λ ? Given : r is the radius of orbit.
the fastest electron has speed V. If the exciting wave-
length is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest rh 2rh
(a) (b)
emitted electrons will be λ λ
(a) V (4/3)1/2 (b) V (3/4)1/2 3rh 4rh
(c) (d) .
(c) less than v (4/3)1/2 (d) greater than V(4/3)1/2. λ λ
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1994] 21. A photon of wavelength 0.1 Å is emitted by a helium
15. Photo-cells have three kinds atom. The recoil energy of the atom as a consequence
of the emission of photon is
1. photoemissive cells
(a) 0.05 eV (b) 1.05 eV
2. Photovoltaic cells
(c) 2.05 eV (d) 3.05 eV.
3. photoconductive cells
22. A monochromatic source of light is placed at a large
Which of the following statements is true ? distance d from a metal surface. Photoelectrons are
(a) 1 and 2 need vacuum for functioning. ejected at rate n, the kinetic energy being E. If the
(b) 1 and 3 need external voltage for working. source is brought nearer to distance d/2, the rate
(c) only 1 and 3 are useful for light intensity measurements. and kinetic energy per photoelectron become nearly
(d) both 2 and 3 are used for solar cells. (a) 2n and 2E (b) 4n and 4E
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993] (c) 4n and E (d) n and 4E.
16. When stopping potential is applied in an experiment [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
on photoelectric effect, no photocurrent is observed.
676 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
23. In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, one of the drops The two particles
falls at speed v without field and rises at speed 2v (a) move with the same speed
with field E applied. If the field is made E/2, the (b) move with the same linear momentum
drop will (c) move with the same kinetic energy
(a) fall with speed v/4 (b) rise with speed v/2 (d) have fallen through the same height.
(c) rise with speed 3v/2 (d) remain steady.
28. In Millikan’s experiment on photoelectric effect, the
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995] stopping voltage (V) was measured for light of differ-
24. Which of the following has greatest associated pho- ent wavelengths λ. Which of the following are true ?
ton energy ? (a) V versus 1/λ graph was a straight line
(a) Yellow light from a sodium vapour lamp. (b) For different surfaces, the straight lines came out as
(b) A γ-ray emitted by a radioactive nucleus. parallel
(c) A radiowave emitted by the antenna of a commercial radio (c) The straight line always had a positive intercept on V axis
station. (d) The slope of the straight line gave hc/e.
(d) A microwave beam emitted by airport traffic control radar. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991]
25. In Millikan’s experimental graphs of Fig. 32 regard- 29. If the wavelength of light in an experiment on photo-
ing photoelectric effect, which of the following state- electric effect is doubled,
ments holds true ? (a) the photoelectric emission will not take place
(b) the photoelectric emission may or may not take place
(a) x-axis shows wavelength of light used
(c) the stopping potential will increase
(b) y-axis shows the kinetic energy of the slowest among the
electrons ejected (d) the stopping potential will decrease.
(c) the intercept on the x-axis is proportional to the work- 30. Light from a monochromatic source is incident nor-
function of the cathode mally on a small photo sensitive surface S having
work function Φ. If power of the source is W and a is
(d) the two graph lines for different cathodes are always
the distance between the source and S, then
parallel.
(a) the number of photons striking the surface per unit time
FG WλS IJ
Ek
will be H
4 πhca2 K
(b) the maximum energy of the emitted electrons will be
? 1
ν (hc – λΦ)
λ
(c) the stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic
e
photons will be (hc – λΦ)
λ
Fig. 32 (d) photo emission occurs only if 0 ≤ λ ≤ hc / Φ.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002]
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1995]
31. Electrons are emitted from a metal plate when yel-
26. Which of the following is correct ? low light is incident on its surface. Then
(a) The number of photo-electrons emitted increases if the (a) electrons will be certainly emitted from it if red light is
intensity of incident light is increased. incident on its surface
(b) The maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted in pho- (b) electrons will be certainly emitted from the plate when
toelectric effect increases with the increase in the fre- violet light is incident on its surface
quency of incident light.
(c) when blue light is incident, electrons will be emitted and
(c) The graph between the frequency of incident light and maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons will be
the stopping potential is a straight line. greater
(d) The photo-electrons emitted from metal surface are such (d) when blue light is incident, electrons will be emitted and
that their velocity lies between zero and a finite maximum. maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons will be
27. In which of the following situations the heavier of smaller.
the two particles has smaller de-Broglie wavelength ? [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000]
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 677
32. Shining light of wavelength λ and intensity I on a 34. Which one of the following is/are true for cathode
surface S produces photoelectrons at rate R and with rays ?
maximum kinetic energy E. Consider the following (a) They are electromagnetic waves.
statements for the effect of changing one parameter (b) They travel in straight line.
at a time (c) They have kinetic energy.
1. doubling I always doubles R
(d) They produce fluorescence in certain substances.
2. doubling I does not change E at all
35. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected
3. making λ half always makes E more than 2-fold
from a photometer when it is irradiated with radia-
The true statements are
tion of wavelength 4000 Å is 1 eV. If the threshold
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
energy of the surface is 1.9 eV, then
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) all three.
(a) maximum kinetic energy will increase if the intensity of
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991] radiation is increased.
33. When the intensity of a light source is increased
(b) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons, when it is
(a) the number of photons emitted by the source in unit time
irradiated with 50000 Å photons, will be 0.42 eV.
increases
(c) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons, when it is
(b) the total energy of the photons emittd per unit time
irradiated with 5000 Å photons, will be 0.42 eV.
increases
(d) the longest wavelength which will eject the photoelec-
(c) more energetic photons are emitted
trons from the surface is nearly 6500 Å.
(d) faster photons are emitted.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a)
9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (c), (d) 26. (a), (b), (c), (d) 27. (a), (c), (d) 28. (a), (b), (d) 29. (b), (d) 30. (a), (b), (d) 31. (b), (c) 32. (d)
33. (a), (b) 34. (b), (c), (d) 35. (c), (d).
Solutions
1. Momentum imparted per unit time = np 6.6 × 10 −34
p= kg m s–1
nh 5000 × 10 −10
=
λ = 1.32 × 10–27 kg m s–1
nh
Acceleration = 5. Energy received by the eye,
mλ
2. Intensity reduced ; current reduced. nhc
E=
Frequency increased ; stopping potential increased. λ
3.
h 5 × 104 × 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108
λ= =
2 mqV 5000 × 10−10
1 = 0.2 × 10–13 Wm–2
λ∝
m 1
So, eye is more sensitive by a factor = 5.00.
Lesser mass, larger λ. 0.200
h 1
4. p= 6. mv2 = 26 × 1.6 × 10–19
λ 2
678 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2 × 26 × 1.6 × 10 −19 4
v2 = 14. hν is made fold.
9.1 × 10 −31 3
v = 9.14 × 1012 or v = 3 × 106 m s–1
2 4
So, (hν – φ0) greater than times.
7. If n be the number of photons/s, then 3
nhc 15. Only 2 used for solar cells. Only 1 needs vacuum. All
= 10 × 103 three may be used for 1 measurement. That leaves
λ
(b) true.
or n= 10 × 103 × 300 hν pc
17. p= or ν =
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 c h
3 × 106 1 3.3 × 10−29 × 3 × 108
= = × 1032 = 1.5 × 1031 or ν= Hz
6.6 × 3 × 10−26 6.6 6.6 × 10−34
φ0 = 1.5 × 1013 Hz
8. φ0 = hν0 or ν0 =
h 12375
18. Energy corresponding to 1500 m = eV
1500 × 1010
3.3 × 1.6 × 10−19
= Hz = 8 × 1014 Hz = 8.25 × 10–10 eV
6.6 × 10−34
= 8.25 × 10–10 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
1 hc
9. mv2 max.= − φ0 = 1.32 × 10–28 J
2 λ
19. eV = hν – φ0
1
mv2max. = 12375 eV − 1 eV
2 FG 12375 − 5.01IJ
1
3000 eV = H 2000 K eV
mv2 max. = 3.125 × 1.6 × 10–19 or V = (6.1875 – 5.01) eV
2
= 1.18 V ≈ 1.2 V
2 × 3.125 × 1.6 × 10−19 rh
vmax. = ≈ 106 m s–1 20. L = mvr = pr =
9.1 × 10−31 λ
10. Energy corresponding to 0.2 × 10–6 m or 0.2 × 10–6 × p2 h2
21. E= =
1010 Å 2m 2mλ2
12375 (6.62 × 10 −34 )2 1
or 2000 Å = = 6.1875 eV = × eV
2000 2 × 4 × 1.67 × 10 −27 −10 2
× (0.1 × 10 ) 1.6 × 10−19
1 43.82 × 10 −68
mv2 max. = (6.1875 – 4) eV = = 2.05 eV
2 21.376 × 10 −68
2 × 2.1875 × 1.6 × 10 −19 22. Kinetic energy is same, that settles for (c).
or v2max. =
9.1 × 10 −31 Intensity 4-fold, so n 4-fold.
or vmax. = 0.769 × 1012 = 0.876 × 106 23. Field change 0 to E makes v change from –v to +2v,
= 8.76 × 105 m s–1. E
total change + 3v. So field change 0 to will mean
2
12375 + 3v
11. φ0 = eV = 1.875 eV v
6600 velocity change i.e. from – v to + .
2 2
12. In both the cases, the intensity is same. 25. (a) No. It shows ν (b) No, it is for the fastest electrons
25 ejected (c) Yes. W = hν′ with ν′ as intercept (d) Yes,
13. Effective power = × 200 W = 50 W
100 the slope is h (Planck’s constant).
nhc hc
Now, 50 = nhν = 28. (a) eV = − φ 0 . Hence true
λ λ
50λ (b) W changes; slope same. True
n=
hc W
(c) Intercept will be − . False
50 × 0.6 × 10−6 e
n= = 1.5 × 1020.
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATIONS 679
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity 2.25 × 108 m s–1 is equal to the wavelength of a
photon. The ratio of kinetic energy of the particle to the energy of the photon is
Given : (velocity of light is 3 × 108 m s–1)
(a) 1/8 (b) 3/4 (c) 5/8 (d) 7/8 [EAMCET 2003]
E1 hv λ v E1 2.25 × 10 8 225 3
Sol. = × = or = = =
E2 λ hc c E2 3 × 108 300 4
So, (b) is the right choice.
l If the kinetiic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) 2 (d) [AIEEE 2005]
2 2
h h h
Sol. λ= = =
mv p 2m E k
1
λ∝
Ek
1
λ′ ∝
2Ek
λ′ 1
=
λ 2
So, (b) is the right choice.
l A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, hν0 . If photons of energy 2hν0 fall on this surface, the
electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m s–1. When the photon energy is increased to 5 h ν0 , then
maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be :
(a) 2 × 107 m s–1 (b) 8 × 106 m s–1 (c) 2 × 106 m s–1 (d) 8 × 105 m s–1 [All India PM/PD 2003]
1
Sol. mv2max. = hν – φ0
2
1
m × 4 × 106 × 4 × 106 = 2hν0 – hν0 = h ν0
2
1 1 1
Again, m × v2max. = 5hν0 – hν0 = 4hv0 or m × v2max. = 4 × m × 4 × 106 × 4 × 106
2 2 2
or vmax. = 8 × 106 m s–1
So, (b) is the right choice.
UNIT XVII
ATOMIC NUCLEUS
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 15 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
ATOMIC NUCLEUS
SYNOPSIS
1. RUTHERFORD’S ALPHA SCATTERING Thomson model of atom and it ultimately led to the rejection
EXPERIMENT of Thomson model. The backward scattering led Rutherford
to conclude that the whole of the positive charge and nearly
the entire mass of the atom were concentrated in an ex-
Fluorescent screen
Z e2 cot θ / 2
b=
1FG IJ
4 πε 0
2 H
mvi2
K
No. of α-particles scattered
1 1 (Ze) (2e)
LM ∵ Electrostatic OP
2
mu2 =
4 πε 0 r0 MNP.E. = 4πε1 . q rq PQ
0
1 2
Scattering angle
1 4Ze2
or r0 =
Fig. 2 4 πε 0 mu2
(ii) A few α-particles were deflected through 180° i.e. 1 2Ze2 1 2Ze2
Again, r0 = = .
they were scattered in the backward direction. This back- 4 πε0 1 mu2 4 πε0 E k
ward scattering of α-particles was inconsistent with the 2
683
C-11\IITS\C17-1
684 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
3. BOHR’S THEORY OF HYDROGEN ATOM This is the radius of the lowest orbit and is known as
The electrostatic force Bohr radius.
of attraction between the nu- Velocity of Electron
cleus and the electron is
nh 1 n2 h2
given by –e v= and r =
2πmr k 4 π 2me2
e2 F +e
nh × k × 4π 2me2
F=k 2πe2
r2 ∴ v= or v=k
2πm × n2 h2 nh
This force provides the v r
necessary centripetal force to 2 πe2
the electron. In general, vn = k
nh
mv2 e2 Fig. 3
FG IJ e2 F IF IJ
JK GH
=k 2 2π 1 1
∴
r r or vn =
1
n
(ke2)
hH K or vn =
n 4 πε 0 h/2π GH K
where m is the mass of the electron and v is the velocity of
Let us now estimate how close the speed of electron in
the electron. Since the nucleus is nearly 2000 times heavier
hydrogen atom is to the speed of light in vacuum. Multiply-
than the electron therefore it is reasonable to assume that
ing the numerator and denominator of the above equation
the nucleus remains at rest.
by c, we get
ke2
∴ mv2 =
r
...(1)
F I
GG e 2
J
FG IJ JJJ
c
nh vn =
But mvr = (Bohr’s postulate) n 4πεGG h
H K K
2π
H
0
2π
c
r=
1 n2 h2
2 π 2me4 F1 1 I
But
k 4 π 2me2 or W = k2
h 2 GH n 1
2
−
n2 2 JK ...(3)
2π 2me 4 2π 2me4 F1 1 I
En = – k2c2
n 2h 2 c 2
or ν = k2
h 3 GH n 1
2
−
n2 2 JK
F I 2 If c is the velocity of light in vacuum and λ is the
1 mc2 GG e JJ 2
wavelength of radiation emitted, then
F1 I
GGH 4πε FGH 2hπ IJK c JJK 2π 2me4
or En = – c 1
2 n2
0 λ
= k2
h3
GH n 1
2
−
n K
J 2
2 [∵ ν = c/λ]
1 mc2 2 1 2π 2me4 F1 1 I
or En = –
2 n2
α or
λ
= k2
ch3
GH n 1
2
−
n K
J 2
2
understanding the origin of spectral lines. Various spectral Balmer series is so named because it was discovered
lines of different frequencies are produced for different val- by Balmer in 1885. The first four lines of Balmer series lie in
ues n1 and n2. The spectrum of the hydrogen atom was de- the visible region of the spectrum. As many as twenty-nine
termined first in the late nineteenth century. At that time, lines belonging to Balmer series have been detected. This
the few lines in the visible region were noted by Balmer, a
series goes to the ultraviolet region of the spectrum.
school teacher in Switzerland.
(iii) Paschen series. The spectral lines of this series
(i) Lyman series. The spectral lines of this series
correspond to the transition of an electron from some higher
correspond to the transition of an electron from some higher
energy state to the innermost orbit (n = 1). energy state to an orbit having n = 3.
For Lyman series, n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3, 4, .... For Paschen series, n1 = 3, n2 = 4, 5, 6, .....
The wave numbers and the wavelengths of the spec- The wave numbers and the wavelengths of the spec-
tral lines constituting the Lyman series are given by tral lines constituting the Paschen series are given by
F I 1 F1 1 I
ν=
1
λ
1 1
=R 2 − 2
1 n2
GH JK ν=
λ GH
=R 2 − 2
3 n2
JK
Paschen series is so named because it was discovered
Lyman series was first predicted by Bohr. This series
by Paschen. Just like other series, this series was first pre-
lies in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum. It is not visible
with naked eye. But it can be photographed. This series was dicted by Bohr. Paschen series lies in the infrared region of
first photographed by T. Lyman of Harvard University in the spectrum and is invisible.
1916. (iv) Bracket series. The spectral lines of this series
(ii) Balmer series. The spectral lines of this series correspond to the transition of an electron from a higher
correspond to the transition of an electron from some higher energy state to the orbit having n = 4.
energy state to an orbit having n = 2. For this series, n1 = 4 and n2 = 5, 6, 7, ....
For Balmer series, n1 = 2, n2 = 3, 4, 5, .... The wave numbers and the wavelengths of the spec-
The wave numbers and the wavelengths of spectral tral lines constituting the Bracket series are given by
lines constituting the Balmer series are given by
F I 1 F1 1 I
1 1 1
ν= =R 2 − 2 GH JK
ν=
λ GH
=R 2 − 2
4 n2
JK
λ 2 n2
This series lies in the infrared region of the spectrum.
(v) Pfund series. The spectral lines of this series
correspond to the transition of electron from a higher energy
state to the orbit having n = 5.
s
erie
s 1 F1 1 I
Balm
er s ν=
λ GH
=R 2 − 2
5 n2
JK
This series lies in the far infrared region of the
n=1 spectrum.
Pa
sch (vi) Humphery series. For this series, n1 = 6 and
n=2 en
ser
ies n2 = 7, 8, ...
n=3
All the above spectral series have been shown in
Br
ack
n=5
ies
n=6
trum speaks of the brilliant success of Bohr’s work. Niels
n=7 Bohr was awarded the 1922 Nobel Prize for Physics for this
Fig. 4
work.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 687
2π 2me4 0 n=¥
We know that En = – k2 n=7
n2 h2 n=6
0.54 n=5
Now, k = 9 × 109 N m2 C–2, Pfund
series
m = 9 × 10–31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, 0.85 n=4
Bracket
h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s series
W (Energy in eV)
2.15 × 10−18
or En = – joule – 3.4 n=2
n2 Balmer
series
2.15 × 10 −18
or En = – eV
n2 × 1.6 × 10−19
[∵ 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J] Thick arrows show
series limits.
13.6
or En = – eV
n2
This equation gives the binding energy of the electron
in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom. The negative sign signi-
fies that the electron is bound to the nucleus.
For n = 1 (K shell), we get the energy E1 of the ground
state. 1.6 n=1
Lyman
series
13.6
∴ E1 = – eV = – 13.6 eV
12 Fig. 5
This ground state energy of the hydrogen atom gives 6. ENERGY QUANTISATION
the ionisation energy of the atom. This is the minimum The process of restricting the possible values
amount of energy required to remove an electron from n = 1 of a physical quantity to a set of discrete values is
to n = ∞. For hydrogen atom, its value is 13.6 eV. Thus, if an called quantisation. We know that a stretched string can
energy of 13.6 eV is given to the electron in the hydrogen oscillate only in definite stationary states whose frequencies
atom, then the electron will be knocked out completely from are determined by elastic properties and boundary condi-
the atom. In other words, atom will be ionised. It may be tions. Since both ends of a stretched string clamped at its
ends must remain forever at rest therefore the wavelengths
clearly noted that the ionisation energy (13.6 eV) is only
of the allowed stationary states are related to the length of
numerically equal to the ground state energy (– 13.6 eV).
the string. The allowed wavelengths are given by
Normally, the hydrogen atom will be in its ground
2L
state. It is nearest to the nucleus and has size given by Bohr λ=
radius. When the hydrogen atom receives energy by proc- n
esses such as electron collisions, the electron can make a where L is the length of the string and n = 1, 2, 3, 4, .....
transition to states with higher energy which are therefore In order to understand discretisation in quantum
called the excited states. physics, let us make use of de-Broglie hypothesis i.e., parti-
For n = 2 (L shell), we get energy E2 of the atom when cles are wavelike. Let us postulate that just like a vibrating
the electron is in the second orbit. string, a free particle of mass m confined to a line of length L
can have only those values of the momentum for which the
13.6
E2 = –
22
eV = –
13.6
4
eV = – 3.4 eV
de-Broglie wavelength belongs to the set λ =
LM 2L OP
N n Q
. It follows
In this case, (A – Z) = N is the same. For example, the neutron is equal to the average kinetic energy of hydrogen
Cl 37 and 39 are isotones. This is because number of
17 19 K molecules in the moderator. Thus, the neutrons are now in
neutrons in chlorine (= 37 – 17 = 20) and number of thermal equilibrium with the molecules of the moderator.
neutrons in potassium (= 39 – 19 = 20) are same. These are termed as ‘thermal neutrons’ . Obviously, these
12. PROPERTIES OF NEUTRONS are quite slow neutrons having a low energy. These are used
Among its properties, the following may be listed : to split up heavy nuclei like uranium etc.
(i) Neutrons are fundamental constituents of a nu- 14. MASS DEFECT
cleus (all except hydrogen). Inside a nucleus, neutrons stay ∆m = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn] – M
for ever ; but as a projected particle outside it, it exists for a
As an example, let us consider the mass defect in the
short time only. The ‘half-life’ of a neutron is about 13 min-
case of deuteron. It is an isotope of hydrogen. It contains one
utes. A neutron, which is free to move, decays into a proton,
proton and one neutron.
an electron and a new particle called ‘anti-neutrino’. Thus,
1
mp = mass of proton = 1.007825 amu
0n → 1H1 + –1 e
+ ν. 0
mn = mass of neutron = 1.008665 amu
(ii) In nuclei of heavier elements, the number of neu-
mp + mn = 2.016490 amu
trons is greater than the number of protons. It is this abun-
dance of neutrons which makes the elements stable. If, how- M = mass of deuteron = 2.014103 amu
ever, the number of protons increases, due to Coulomb re- Mass defect, ∆m = mp + mn – M = 0.002387 amu
pulsion, the stability of that nucleus decreases. 15. BINDING ENERGY
(iii) Since neutrons are uncharged particles, therefore The binding energy is related to mass defect by Ein-
these are neither affected by external magnetic or electric stein’s mass-energy relation. If ∆m be the mass defect, then
fields nor by the presence of protons when they enter or Binding energy = ∆m c2 where c is the speed of light.
penetrate the nucleus. Thus, neutrons are almost ideal In the case of deuteron,
‘bullets’ for performing experiments on artificial
Binding energy = 0.002387 × 931 MeV = 2.22 MeV
transmutations.
Thus, an energy of 2.22 MeV is required to separate
(iv) Depending upon their speed, neutrons are put in by an infinite distance a neutron from proton. This has been
two categories, (a) fast neutrons and (b) slow neutrons. Both confirmed experimentally.
are fully capable of penetrating a nucleus and causing artifi-
16. NUCLEAR FORCES
cial disintegration in the nucleus. An example of a high speed
neutron is (i) Nuclear forces are ordinarily attractive.
1 198 198 (ii) Nuclear forces are charge-independent.
0n + 80Hg → 79Au + 1H1
(iii) Nuclear forces are short-range forces.
Here mercury is converted into gold by artificial trans-
(iv) Nuclear forces are spin-dependent.
mutation, on being bombarded with high speed neutrons.
Proton is given out. An example of a slow speed neutron is (v) Nuclear forces show saturation properties.
1 (vi) Nuclear forces are non-central forces.
0n + 5B10 → 3Li7 + 2He4
Boron bombarded with neutron gives lithium and Force Relative strength
α-particle is given out. Gravitational force 1
13. THERMAL NEUTRONS Coulomb’s force 1036
Fast neutrons can be converted into slow neutrons by
Nuclear force 1038
letting them pass through materials, which decrease their
speed. Such materials are known as ‘moderators’. Essentially,
17. BINDING ENERGY CURVE
these moderators are rich in hydrogen atoms-like paraffin,
Fig. 6 shows binding energy curve. The average bind-
deuterium oxide (heavy water) etc. This slowing down of the
ing energy per nucleon is plotted against mass number for
speed takes place on the well-known laws of kinematics. When naturally occurring nuclei.
two particles of the same mass collide (here neutron and
Fig. 7 shows binding energy curve for light nuclei on
proton in the hydrogen of the moderator), their velocities are a magnified scale.
interchanged. Thus, the speed of a neutron is slowed down,
Following are the special features of binding energy
while the speed of the proton or the hydrogen in the moderator curve.
is increased. This process goes on till the kinetic energy of
690 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(i) The binding energy per nucleon of very light strongly bound) as compared to their neighbours. It is
nuclides such as 1H2 is very small. interesting to note that the mass numbers of these nuclides
are multiples of 4 and they contain equal number of protons
Region of
max. stability and neutrons. Each of these nuclei can be formed by adding
an α-particle to the preceding nucleus.
Fusion Fission
(iv) After mass number 20, there is a gradual increase
in binding energy per nucleon. The maximum value is
9
8.8 reached at A = 56. This value is 8.8 MeV. Clearly, the iron
nucleus (26Fe56) is the most stable.
e
8 cd
b
a
Average B.E./Nucleon (in MeV)
This relation shows that a material with a half-life The activity of a radioactive substance is said
period T changes in quantity from N0 to N in time t. to be one curie if it undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations
per second.
22. FORMULA FOR NUMBER OF ATOMS LEFT
BEHIND AFTER n HALF LIVES 1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations/s
Let N 0 be the number of atoms of a radioactive Smaller units are millicurie and microcurie.
substance in the beginning. After time T, the number of 1 millicurie = 3.7 × 107 disintegrations/s
N
atoms left will be . After a time 2T, the number of atoms 1 microcurie = 3.7 × 104 disintegrations/s
2
1 N0 FG IJ . After a time 3T, the number
1
2
(ii) The rutherford (Rd). The activity of a radio-
left will be
2
×
2 H K
i.e., N0
2 active substance is said to be one rutherford if it
undergoes 106 disintegrations per second.
1 F 1I F 1I 2
× N G J i.e., N G J . Proceeding
3
of atoms left will be
2 H 2K 0 H 2K 0
1 rutherford = 106 disintegrations s–1
Smaller units are millirutherford and microrutherford.
in the same way, the number of atoms left behind after n
1 millirutherford = 103 disintegrations s–1
FG 1IJ n
half-lives will be N0
H 2K . 1 microrutherford = 1 disintegration s–1
(iii) The becquerel (Bq). The activity of a radioac-
FG 1IJ n tive substance is said to be one becquerel if it under-
∴ N = N0
H 2K goes 1 disintegration per second.
1 becquerel = 1 disintegration s–1
If t is the time corresponding to n half-lives, then Relation between different units
t 1 curie = 3.7 × 104 rutherford = 3.7 × 1010 becquerel.
t = n T or n=
T 25. ALPHA DECAY
As the parent nucleus ZXA is at rest before it undergoes of conservation of energy itself. We cannot even say that the
alpha-decay, alpha-particles are emitted with fixed energy, ‘energy difference’ is taken away by γ-rays because there is
which can be calculated by applying the principles of no emission of γ-radiation in the example under considera-
conservation of energy and momentum. Let vHe and vY be tion. In addition to this difficulty, even the law of conserva-
the velocities of the alpha-particle and the daughter nucleus, tion of momentum seems to be violated.
A–4 . The principle of conservation of momentum gives
Z–2Y All these difficulties were overcome in 1933 by
mYvY = mHe vHe ...(3) Wolfgang Pauli who proposed that a second particle is also
By equating the sum of kinetic energies of the nu- emitted and assigned theoretically the following properties
cleus Y and the alpha particle to the energy released in the to this particle :
alpha-decay, we have another equation (i) zero rest mass (ii) zero charge
1 1 1
m v2 + m v2=Q ...(4) (iii) a spin equal to .
2 He He 2 y y 2
By substituting for vy from eq. (3) in eq. (4), you can Enrico Fermi developed the theory of this new parti-
easily obtain cle and called it neutrino. It was later on found that two
1 mY kinds of neutrinos are involved in beta decay, the neutrino
m v2 = Q ...(5) and the antineutrino. In the ordinary beta decay, it is an
2 He He m y + mHe
antineutrino that is emitted.
− A – 4 amu and mHe ~
If we substitute my ~ − 4 amu in n → p + e + ν
eq. (5), the kinetic energy carried by the alpha-particle can
be approximated by the relation Note. The process of beta-decay is a characteristic of nuclei
having a large proportion of neutrons.
1 ( A − 4)
KEHe = m v2 ~ Q ...(6) 27. GAMMA DECAY
2 He He − A
Just like an excited atom, an excited nucleus can make
In the decay of 86Rn222, Q = 5.587 MeV and KEHe a transition to a state of lower energy by emitting a photon.
= 5.486 MeV. The velocity of the alpha-particle emitted by
222 can be easily estimated from its kinetic energy. The energies of the atomic states of hydrogen are of the order
86Rn of electron volts. So, the wavelength of light emitted in atomic
2 × 5.486 × 1.6 × 10 −13 m s–1 transitions correspond to photons having energy of the order
vHe = of electron volts. On the other hand, the energies of the
4.00 × 1.66 × 10−27
nuclear states are of the order of million electron volts. So,
= 1.63 × 107 m s–1 the photons emitted by nuclei can have energy of the order of
26. BETA DECAY several million electron volts. The wavelength of photons of
such energy is a fraction of an angstrom. The short
It is a process in which an electron is emitted by a
wavelength electromagnetic waves emitted by nuclei are
nucleus. It is difficult to understand this process because
called the gamma rays. Most radio isotopes, after an alpha-
there are strong arguments against the presence of electron
decay or a beta-decay, leave the daughter nucleus in an
in the nucleus. However, this difficulty is solved if we as-
excited state. An excited nucleus is denoted by an asterisk
sume that (i) a neutron inside the nucleus breaks up into a
after its usual symbol. Thus, 38Sr87*, refers to 38Sr87 in an
proton and an electron (ii) the electron is ejected from the
excited state.
nucleus immediately after its creation. In other words, we
have assumed that the neutron within the beta-emitting Excited nuclei return to their ground states by emit-
nucleus is radioactive just like a free neutron. ting photons whose energies correspond to the energy differ-
ences between the various initial and final states in the tran-
If we study the energy distribution of electrons emit-
sitions involved. The photons emitted by nuclei range in en-
ted in the β-decay of 83Bi210, it is observed that the energy
ergy upto several MeV. These are traditionally called gamma
varies between zero and 1.17 MeV. It is of course very rare
rays.
that the emitted electron has an energy of 1.17 MeV. Most of
the electrons have an energy of 0.15 MeV. This presents Fig. 9 (a) shows the beta decay of 12Mg27 to 13Al27. The
another serious difficulty in the proper understanding of the half life of the decay is 9.5 min and it may take place to
process of beta-decay. For every 89Bi210 decay, the same mass either of the two excited states of 13Al27. The resulting 13Al27*
vanishes but very few emitted electrons possess an energy of nucleus then undergoes one or two gamma decays to reach
1.17 MeV. This creates doubts about the validity of the law the ground state.
694 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
ke2 ke2
or v2 = or (rw)2 = 12
mr mr
14 1
ke2 ke2 E∝ –
or w2 = or (2πf 2) = 16 n2
mr 3 mr 3
ke2 1
or 4λ2f 2 = or f 2 ∝
mr 3 r3 Fig. 13
696 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
5.
Sr. No. Name of the Region Lower Upper Longest wavelength in terms Value of longest wavelength
spectral series state state of R λmax.
Series limit in terms Value of shortest wavelenght
of R λmin.
4 22
1. Lyman Ultra violet 1 2 = 1212.1 Å (121.2 nm)
3R 3R
1 12
∞ = 909.1 Å (90.9 nm)
R R
36 6 2
2. Balmer Visible 2 3 = 6545.4 Å (654.5 nm)
5R 5R
4 22
(Broadly speaking) ∞ = 3636.4 Å (363.6 nm)
R R
144 122
3. Paschen Infra red 3 4 = 18701.3 Å (1870.1 nm)
7R 7R
9 32
∞ = 8181.8 Å (818.2 nm)
R R
400 202
4. Brackett Infra red 4 5 = 40404.0 Å (4040.4 nm)
9R 9R
16 42
∞ = 14545.4 Å (1454.5 nm)
R R
900 302
5. Pfund For Infra red 5 6 = 74380.0 Å (7438.0 nm)
11R 11R
25 52
∞ = 22727.2 Å (2272.7 nm)
R R
Note : All values have been calculated by taking R = 1.1 × 107 m–1.
6. Quantum Numbers. Quantum numbers are the (iii) The total number of possible values is n.
numbers required to completely specify the position, (iv) It is also sometimes called azimuthal quantum
orbital angular momentum and configuration of elec- number.
trons in the presence of an external magnetic field (v) It determines the orbital angular momentum of
and electron-spin. the electron and also the shape of the orbit.
If spin-orbit interaction is not considered, then in the (vi) It gives the number of subshells associated with
presence of strong magnetic field, following four quan- the orbit i.e. the number of subshells associated
tum numbers are considered : with a particular value of n.
Principal quantum number (n) (vii) For n = 1, l has only one value i.e. l = 0.
(i) It is associated with radius, size of orbit and also For n = 2, l has two values l = 0, 1.
the energy levels of electron. For n = 3, l has three values l = 0, 1, 2.
(ii) Its value can be 1, 2, 3, …... ∞ (viii) The various subshells or values of l are also desig-
Orbit angular momentum quantum number (l) nated by letters s, p, d, f, ...... . For l = 4 and
(i) It is associated with energy levels, shapes etc. of higher values, the letters follow alphabetical or-
orbitals. der after f i.e. l = 4 is designated as g, l = 5 is
(ii) Its value can be 0, 1, 2, 3, ...... (n – 1). designated as h and so on.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 697
(ix) The magnitude L of the orbital angular momen- The probability that an active nucleus decays by the
→
tum L of an electron in an atom is quantised i.e. first process in a time interval it is λ1dt.
The probability that an active nucleus decays by the
it can have only certain values. These values are
second process is λ2dt.
h The probability that the active nucleus either decays
L = l (l + 1) .
2π by the first process or by the second process is λ1dt + λ2dt.
Magnetic quantum number (me ) If λ is the effective decay constant, then
(i) It is associated with the orientation of electron λ dt = λ1 dt + λ2 dt
orbits in the presence of magnetic field. In the or λ = λ1 + λ2
presence of magnetic field, only those orientations log e 2 log e 2 log e 2 1 1 1
of the electron orbits are possible for which me = l ∴
= + or = +
t t1 t2 t t1 t2
cos θ is a whole number. 1 t2 + t1
or = or t = t1t2
(ii) It can have values from – l to l, including 0. t t1t2 t1 + t2
(iii) The total number of values is (2l + 1).
Magnetic spin angular momentum quantum number FOOD FOR THOUGHT !
(ms or s)
Can you convert the above relation into
(i) It represents the clockwise or anticlockwise spin a relation for mean lives ?
of the electron in the presence of magnetic field. In
other words, it represents the direction of spin of 0.693 τ 1 × 0.693 τ2
0.693 τ =
the electron in the direction of magnetic field or 0.693 τ 1 + 0.693 τ2
opposite to it. τ τ
or τ= 1 2 .
(ii) It has only two possible values. τ 1 + τ2
If the spin-orbit interaction is considered, then in
addition to principal quantum number and orbital ILLUSTRATIONS
angular momentum quantum number, we also Illustration 1. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the fol-
consider the following two quantum numbers. lowing in a sequence :
Total angular momentum quantum number (J) α, β–, β–, α, α, α, α, α, β–, β–, β+, α, β+, α.
(i) It is associated with the total angular momentum The Z of the resulting nucelus is.
(orbital and spin) of the electron. (a) 74 (b) 76
(ii) Its values are l ± s. (c) 78 (d) 82. [AIEEE 2003]
Total magnetic quantum number (mj) Sol. Decrease in Z due to emission of 8 α-particles = 16
(i) It is associated with total angular momentum of Increase in Z due to emission of 4 β-particles = 4
electron in the direction of magnetic field. Decrease in Z due to emission of 2 positrons = 2
(ii) Its values are from – J to + J. ∴ Z of resultant nucleus = 92 – 16 + 4 – 2 = 78
(iii) Its maximum possible values are (2J +1). So, (c) is the right choice.
7. For hydrogen-like atoms Illustration 2. Nucleus A is converted into C
through the following reactions
(rn )H
(i) vn = Z(vn)H (ii) rn = A→B+α [ α – alpha particle
Z –
B→C+2β β– – electron]
(iii) En = Z2(En)H.
Then,
8. Effective half-life of a radioactive nucleus de- (a) A and B are isotopes (b) A and C are isobars
caying by two different processes
(c) A and B are isobars (d) A and C are isotopes.
Let t1 be the half-life for the first process and t2 the [Karnataka CET 2003]
half-life for the second process. Let t be the effective
Sol. A and C have the same charge number.
half-life of the nucleus.
So, (d) is the right choice.
log e 2
Decay constant for first process, λ 1 =
t1 Illustration 3. A radioactive substance decays to
1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of the
log e 2
Decay constant for second process, λ 2 = radioactive substance expressed in days is
t2
698 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Sol. The momentum of the system remains the same (a) 0.0305 J (b) 0.0305 erg
before and after decay. This is in accordance with the princi-
(c) 28.4 MeV (d) 0.061 u.
ple of conservation of momentum.
Given helium nucleus mass = 4.0015 u
Now, 4u + 234v = 238 × 0
[All India PM/PD 2003]
4u Sol. Mass defect
or 234v = – 4u or v= –
234 = 2 mP + 2 mN – mHe
So, (c) is the right choice. = 2 × 1.0073 + 2 × 1.0087 – 4.0015
Illustration 5. A radioactive sample at any instant
= 0.0305
has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute.
After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Binding energy
Then, the decay constant (per minute) is = (931 × mass defect) MeV
(a) 0.8 ln 2 (b) 0.4 ln 2 = (931 × 0.0305) MeV
(c) 0.2 ln 2 (d) 0.1 ln 2. [AIEEE 2003] = 28.4 MeV (∵ 1 amu = 931 MeV)
Sol. N = N0 e–λt So, (c) is the right choice.
dN Illustration 8. A hypothetical radioactive nucleus
= – λN0 e–λt
dt decays according to the following series
– 5000 = – λN0 e–λ × 0 α β– α γ
A → A1 → A2 → A3 → A4
– 1250 = – 1 N0 e–λ × 5
If the mass number and atomic number of A are re-
1250 5000 spectively 180 and 72, then the atomic number and mass
or e–5λ = or e5λ = =4
5000 1250 number of A4 will be respectively
or 5λ = loge 4 = 2 loge 2 (a) 69, 171 (b) 70, 172
2 (c) 68, 172 (d) 69, 172.
or λ= loge 2 = 0.4 loge 2
5 [Karnataka CET 2003]
So, (b) is the right choice. Sol. Two α-particles decrease mass number by 8. So,
Illustration 6. In the nuclear fusion reaction mass number is (180 – 8) = 172. Charge number is decreased
2H by 4. So, charge number is (72 – 4) or 68. Emission of β-
1
+ 31 H → 42 He + n, given that the repulsive potential en-
particle increases charge number by 1. So, the charge number
ergy between the two nuclei is ~ 7.7 × 10–14 J, the tempera- of A4 is (68 + 1) i.e. 69. Note that the emission of γ-ray changes
ture at which the gases must be heated to initiate the reac- neither mass number nor charge number.
tion is nearly
So, (d) is the right choice.
[Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K]
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 699
Illustration 9. What fraction of a radioactive (a) 1 photon with energy 10.2 eV and an electron
material will get disintegrated in a period of two half-lives ? with energy 1.4 eV
(a) Whole (b) Half (b) 2 photon with energy 10.2 eV
(c) One-fourth (d) Three-fourth. (c) 2 photon with energy 1.4 eV
[MP PET 2000] (d) one photon with energy 3.4 eV and 1 electron with
energy 1.4 eV. [IIT Screening 2005]
N0 N0
Sol. N= = Sol. 10.2 eV photon on collision will excite H-atom
22 4
to first excited state but hydrogen atom will return to
1 3
Fraction disintegrated = 1 – = ground state before next collision. Second photon will provide
4 4
So, (d) is the right choice. ionisation energy to hydrogen atom. So, electron will be
ejected with energy 1.4 eV.
Illustration 10. Fig. 14 shows some energy levels
of an atom. If the transition E3 to E2 gives emission of So, (a) is the right choice.
ultraviolet radiation, which of the following transitions Illustration 13. If a star converts all of its Helium
could give infra red radiation ? into oxygen nucleus, find the amount of energy released
per nucleus of oxygen. He = 4.0026 amu, O = 15.9994 amu
E4 (a) 7.26 MeV (b) 7 MeV
E3 (c) 10.24 MeV (d) 5.12 MeV.
[IIT Screening 2005]
E2 Sol. E = [4 × 4.0026 – 15.9994] × 931 MeV
= [16.0104 – 15.9994] × 931 MeV
E1
= 0.011 × 931 MeV = 10.24 MeV
So, (c) is the right choice.
Fig. 14
Illustration 14. A singly ionised helium ion and a
(a) E4 to E3 (b) E3 to E1
hydrogen ion are accelerated from rest through a potential
(c) E4 to E2 (d) E2 to E1 . difference V to velocities uHe and uH respectively. The ratio
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989] uHe/uH is equal to
Sol. E4 – E3 = – 0.85 – (– 1.5) (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
= (1.5 – 0.85) eV = 0.65 eV
(c) 2 (d) 2.
This energy is compatible with the infra red region of
the spectrum. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
So, (a) is the right choice. Sol. The given ions have the same charge and accel-
Illustration 11. Nuclear fusion is possible erate through the same potential difference. Both gain the
(a) only between light nuclei. same kinetic energy. It is to be noted that helium is four
(b) only between heavy nuclei. times as heavy as hydrogen ion.
(c) between both light and heavy nuclei. So, (b) is the right choice.
(d) only between nuclei which are stable against β-decay. Illustration 15. The radioactive emissions which
produce an isotope of the original nucleus are
[AIIMS 2003]
(a) one alpha and four beta
Sol. It follows from the binding energy curve that
nuclear fusion is possible only between light nuclei. (b) one alpha and two beta
So, (a) is the correct choice. (c) one alpha and one beta
Illustration 12. A photon of energy 10.2 eV collides (d) two alpha and one beta.
inelastically with a Hydrogen atom in ground state. After [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2005]
a certain time interval of few micro seconds another photon Sol. Emission of one alpha reduces atomic number
of energy 15.0 eV collides inelastically with the same by 2 whereas that of one beta increases if by one.
hydrogen atom, then the observation made by a suitable So, (b) is the right choice.
detector is
700 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Illustration 16. The intensity of gamma radiation (a) 5 fermi (b) 4 fermi
from a given source is I. On passing through 36 mm of lead, (c) 8 fermi (d) 6 fermi. [AIEEE 2005]
I
it is reduced to . The thickness of lead which will reduce Sol. R = R0 A1/3
8
the intensity to
I
will be R2 LM OP
125
1/3
5
(a) 12 mm
2
(b) 18 mm
R1
=
27N Q =
3
5 5
(c) 9 mm (d) 6 mm. or R2 =R1 = × 3.6 fm = 6 fm
3 3
[AIEEE 2005]
So, (d) is the right choice.
Sol. I′ = I e–µx
Illustration 19. A nuclear transformation is denoted
I
or eµx = by X(n, α) 73 Li . Which of the following is the nucleus of
I′
I element X ?
or µx = loge . 11
I′ (a) 4 Be (b) 95 Be
I×8 10
Now, 36 µ = loge = 3 loge 2 (c) 5 B (d) 12
C6 . [AIEEE 2005]
I
I×2 Sol. X + 0n1 → 3Li7 + 2He4
x µ = loge
I ⇒ X is 5B10
or x log e 2 1 So, (c) is the right choice.
= =
36 3 log e 2 3
Illustration 20. The dia-
36 gram shows the energy levels for n=4
or x= mm = 12 mm n=3
3 an electron in a certain atom.
So, (a) is the right choice. Which transition shown repre- n=2
Illustration 17. Starting with a sample of pure 66 Cu, sents the emission of a photon
7 with the most energy ?
of it decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The corresponding (a) II (b) I n=1
8 I II III IV
half-life is (c) IV (d) III.
1 Fig. 15
[AIEEE 2005]
(a) 7 minute (b) 5 minute
2
(c) 15 minute (d) 10 minute. 13.6 z2
Sol. En = – eV
[AIEEE 2005] n2
N0 k
Sol. N= or En = – eV
2 t/ T1 / 2 n2
N 1 k k k
= E1 = – eV, E2 = – , E4 = –
N0 215 / T1/ 2 1 4 16
7 1 k FG IJ
k
1– =
8 215 / T1/ 2
Now, E2 – E1 = –
4
– −
1H K
1 1 k 3k
= =k– =
2 3
2 15 / T1 / 2 4 4
15 k FG IJ
k
∴ T1/ 2 =
3
= 5 minute E4 – E2 = –
16
− −
H K
4
So, (b) is the right choice. k k 3k
= − =
Illustration 18. If radius of the 27 4 16 16
13 Al nucleus is
125
Clearly, (E2 – E1) > (E4 – E2)
estimated to be 3.6 Fermi then the radius of 52 Te nucleus
So, (d) is the right choice.
be nearly
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 701
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
1. If in a nuclear fusion process, the masses of the fus- (a) both kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) increase
ing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the result- (b) both KE and PE decrease
ant nucleus be m3 , then (c) PE increases, KE decreases
(a) m3 = | m1 – m2 | (b) m3 < (m1 + m2) (d) PE decreases, KE increases.
(c) m3 > (m1 + m2) (d) m3 = m1 + m2. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990]
[All India PM/PD 2004] 5. An alpha particle colliding with one of the electrons
2. The dependence of binding energy per nucleon, BN , in a gold atom loses
on the mass number A is represented by (a) most of its momentum
(b) about one-third of its momentum
(c) little of its energy
(d) most of its energy.
BN BN [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1996]
6. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a
A = 56 A A = 124 A neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy B, con-
(a) (b)
tains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z)
of the nucleus is given by (Given : c is the velocity of
light.)
(a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
9. Fig. 17 represents in simplified form some of the en- 16. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
ergy levels of the hydrogen atom. The energy axis (a) Radioactive materials which emit beta particles contain
has a linear scale. electrons inside their nuclei.
E4
(b) When an atom emits an electron in ionisation, its atomic
number increases by 1.
E3
(c) In X-ray emission, there is wavelengthwise distribution of
intensity with a definite upper limit of wavelength beyond
E2
Increasing which the intensity is zero.
energy
(d) In a cathode ray tube, if the accelerating voltage is in-
creased, the sensitivity (transverse deflection per unit volt
on the deflecting plates) decreases.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991]
E1 238 absorbs a neutron. The product emits an elec-
17. 92 U
Fig. 17
tron. This product further emits an electron. The
result is
If the transition of an electron from E4 to E2 were (a) Pu239 (b) Pu239
associated with the emission of blue light, which tran- 94 90
(c) Pu237
(d) Pu237.
sition could be associated with the absorption of red 93 94
(a) PE increases, TE decreases cleus emits a β + particle. The respective atomic and
(b) PE decreases, TE increases mass number of the final nucleus will be
(c) PE increases, TE increases (a) Z – 3, A – 4 (b) Z – 1, A – 4
(d) PE decreases, TE decreases. (c) Z – 2, A – 4 (d) Z, A – 2.
37. During a negative beta decay, 44. In a beryllium atom, if a0 be the radius of the first
(a) an electron which is already present within the nucleus is orbit, then the radius of the second orbit will be
ejected. a0
(a) 2a0 (b)
(b) a neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron. 2
a0
(c) a part of binding energy of the nucleus is converted into (c) 4a0 (d) .
an electron. 4
45. The difference between U 235 and U 238 atom is that
(d) an atomic electron is ejected. [IIT 1987]
(a) U238 contains 3 more protons.
38. The series limit wavelength of the Lyman series for (b) U238 contains 3 more protons and 3 more electrons.
hydrogen atom is given by (c) U238 contains 3 more neutrons and 3 more electrons.
(a) 16/R (b) 9/R (d) U238 contains 3 more neutrons.
(c) 4/R (d) 1/R. 46. The velocity of electron in an atom according to Bohr’s
39. In a mean life of a radioactive sample, theory is
(a) about 1/3 of substance disintegrates. 1 nh
(a) (b)
(b) about 2/3 of the substance disintegrates. 2πmr 2πmr
(c) 2πmr (d) none of these.
(c) about 90% of the substance disintegrates.
47. The average number of prompt neutrons produced
(d) almost all the substance disintegrates.
per fission of U235 is
[MP PMT 2000] (a) more than 5 (b) 3 to 5
40. For principal quantum number n = 3, the possible (c) 2 to 3 (d) 1 to 2. [MP PMT 2000]
values of orbital quantum number ‘l’ are
48. A nuclear reaction given by ZXA → Z+1Y
A + –1e
0 + ν
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 0, 1, 2, 3
represents
(c) 0, 1, 2 (d) –1, 0, +1.
(a) β-decay (b) γ-decay
[MP PMT 2001]
(c) fusion (d) fission.
41. One reaction which might be used for controlled nu- [All India PM/PD 2003]
clear fusion is shown
7 49. In a cancer therapy unit, patients are given treat-
Li + 21 H → 2 ( 42 He) + X
3 ment from a certain radioactive source. This source
What is particle X ? has a half-life of 4 years. A particular treatment re-
(a) an α-particle (b) an electron quires 10 minutes of irradiation when the source is
first used.
(c) a neutron (d) a proton.
How much time is required for this treatment, using
42. In order to trace the line of a water-pipe buried 0.4 m
the same source, 2 years later ?
below the surface of a field, an engineer wishes to
(a) 7 minutes (b) 10 minutes
add a radioactive isotope to the water.
(c) 14 minutes (d) 20 minutes.
Which sort of isotope should be chosen ?
50. What was the fissionable material used in bomb
emitter half-life dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945 ?
(a) β a few hours (a) Uranium (b) Neptunium
(b) β several years (c) Beryllium (d) Plutonium. [MNR 1985]
(c) γ a few hours
51. The half-life period and the mean life period of a
(d) γ several year.
radioactive element are denoted respectively by T h
43. When it disintegrates, a certain radioactive nuclide and Tm , then
P emits γ-radiation and a single α-particle, forming a (a) Th = Tm (b) Th > Tm
daughter product Q. Which one of the following state- (c) Th < Tm (d) Th ≥ Tm.
ments is true ?
52. The ionisation energy of a hydrogen-like atom is 9
(a) P and Q are isotopes of the same element.
Rydberg. The radius of first orbit of this atom, as
(b) The mass number of P is one more than that of Q. compared to the radius of first orbit of hydrogen
(c) The mass number of P is one less than that of Q. atom, will be
(d) P has more protons in its nucleus than Q. (a) one-fourth (b) half
(e) The atomic number of P is less than that of Q. (c) one-third (d) three times. [BHU 1999]
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 705
53. The spectral series of hydrogen which lies entirely in 61. The ratio of wavelength of first line of Lyman series
the ultraviolet part is of doubly ionised lithium atom to that of the first
(a) Lyman (b) Balmer line of Lyman series of deuterium (1H2) will be
(c) Paschen (d) Pfund. [MP PET 2000] (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
54. Pick out the statement which is true. (c) 9 : 1 (d) 1 : 9. [Manipal 1999]
(a) The energy released per unit mass is more in fission than 62. There are seven orbitals in a subshell. Then the value
in fusion. of l for it will be
(b) The energy released per atom is more in fusion than in (a) 4 (b) 3
fission. (c) 2 (d) 1. [Pb. PMT 2000]
(c) The energy released per unit mass is more in fusion and 63. Fig. 18 shows the principle of a simple form of mass
that per atom is more in fission. spectrometer. Ions are passed through narrow slits,
(d) Both fission and fusion produce same amount of energy S1 and S2 , and into a velocity selector. The selected
per atom as well as per unit mass. ions, after passage through the slit S3 , are deviated
[Karnataka CET 2001] by the uniform magnetic field.
55. In nuclear fission, the percentage of mass converted
S1 S2 S3
into energy is about Path of Region of
ions magnetic
(a) 10% (b) 0.01%
field
(c) 0.1% (d) 1%.
[Karnataka CET 2002] Velocity
selector
56. If E1 is the energy released per unit mass in nuclear
fusion and E2 that in nuclear fission, then
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 = – E2 P
57. The radioactive decay of the certain nuclide is gov- Which of the following quantities must be the same
erned by the following relationship for all ions arriving at point P ?
charge
dn (a) charge (b)
= – λn where λ = 2.4 × 10–8 s–1 mass
dt (c) kinetic energy (d) mass
What is the half-life of the nuclide ? (e) momentum.
(a) 2.9 × 107 s (b) 1.3 × 107 s
64. 238 U decays through a series of transformations to
(c) 1.2 × 10–8 s (d) 3.4 × 10–8 s 92
(e) 8.0 × 10–8 s. a final stable nuclide. The particles emitted in the
58. Which of the following is not a mode of radioactive successive transformations are
decay ? α β β α α
(a) positron emission (b) electron capture Which nuclide is not produced during this series of
(c) fusion (d) alpha decay. transformations ?
228 234
59. The energy required to knock out the electron in the (a) 88 Ra (b) 91Pa
third orbit of an atom is equal to 230 234
(c) 90 Th (d) 92 U .
13.6
(a) 13.6 eV (b) eV 65. The order of the size of nucleus and Bohr radius of
9
13.6 3 an atom respectively is
(c) – eV (d) – eV. (a) 10–14 m, 10–10 m (b) 10–10 m, 10–8 m
3 13.6
60. Which of the following is true ? (c) 10 –20
m, 10 –16
m (d) 10–8 m, 10–6 m.
(a) Lyman series is a continuous spectrum. [MP PMT 2001]
(b) Paschen series is a line spectrum in the infra red. 66. Two electrons in an atom are moving in orbits of
(c) Balmer series is a line spectrum in the ultraviolet. radii R and 9R respectively. The ratio of their fre-
(d) the spectral series formula can be derived from the
quencies will be
Rutherford model of the hydrogen atom. (a) 1 : 8 (b) 8 : 1
(c) 1 : 27 (d) 27 : 1. [BHU 1998]
706 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
67. The value of wavelength of radiation emitted due to What fraction remains undecayed after 24 days ?
transition of electrons from n = 4 to n = 2 state in 1
(a) 0 (b)
hydrogen atom will be 128
5R 16 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36 3R 64 32
36 3R 1
(c) (d) . (e) . [London Schools Examination
5R 16 16
Department]
[All India PM/PD 2001]
75. The activity from a radioactive source is found to
68. Half-life of radioactive element depends upon fall by 0.875 of its initial activity in 210 s. What is the
(a) amount of element present half-life of the source ?
(b) temperature (c) pressure (a) 30 s (b) 60 s
(d) nature of element. [AMU 1993] (c) 70 s (d) 105 s
69. Fusion reaction takes place at about (e) 120 s.
(a) 3 × 10 2 K (b) 3 × 10 3 K 76. In which of the following systems will the wavelength
(c) 3 × 10 4 K (d) 3 × 10 6 K. corresponding to n = 2 to n = 1 be minimum ?
[CMC Vellore 1998] (a) hydrogen atom (b) deuterium atom
70. A radioactive isotope has a decay constant λ and a (c) singly ionised helium (d) doubly ionised lithium.
molar mass M. Taking the Avogadro constant to be [Himachal PMT 1997]
L, what is the activity of a sample of mass m of this 77. The passage of γ-ray photons through materials some-
isotope ? times results in pair production, i.e., the transfor-
λmL mation of a γ-ray photon into a positron and an elec-
(a) λmML (b)
M tron (each of mass m). What is the maximum wave-
λML mL
length of γ-ray photons for which pair production is
(c) (d) possible ?
m λM
1 1
mλ (a) (b)
(e)
ML
. 2mch 2mc2 h
Answers (Set I)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d)
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (d)
33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c)
57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (a)
65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (a)
73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (d).
Solutions (Set I)
1. When two light nuclei are combined to form a heavy 8. When an electron and positron combine, they annihi-
nucleus, there occurs a small mass defect. In other late each other and energy is released.
words, the mass of the heavy nucleus turns out to be E = mc2 = 2 × 9.1 × 10–31 × (3 × 108)2 J ≈ 1.6 × 10–13 J.
less than the sum of the masses of two light nuclei. 9. Frequency ν of electromagnetic radiation is related to
This small mass defect results in the release of a huge the energy change ∆E of an atom by the equation
amount of energy according to the relation ∆E = ∆m c2. hc
2. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum (≈ 8.8 ∆E = hν =
λ
MeV) for the nucleus having mass number 56.
h is the Planck constant.
So, this nucleus is most stable i.e., iron is the most
Here λ is the wavelength of the electromagnetic ra-
stable element of periodic table.
diation.
4. As r increases, potential energy increases (this part
c is the speed of light.
is widely understood). For kinetic energy remember
Blue light has a higher frequency than the red light
the extreme : at very high orbits kinetic energy tends
and hence if absorption of red light is to occur, the
to zero.
corresponding change in energy level should be smaller.
5. Due to large mass ratio, very little energy transfer
Thus the possible transitions associated with the ab-
(result of conservation of momentum and energy,
sorption of red light are either E2 to E3 or E3 to E4.
both.)
708 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
13 & 14. rn =
LM
1 1 n2 h2 OP atom is En = Z2 (En)H
MN
Z K 4 π 2me2 PQ Z2 =
− 54.4
=4 or z = 2
2 − 13.6
n
or rn ∝
Z Clearly, ion is He+.
16. (a) False. Beats are generated by n to p conversion in 28. n → p + e + ν
the nucleus.
Clearly, the daughter nucleus has one more proton.
(b) False. Z is related to nuclear charge, not net charge
of atom/ion. 29. Electron is bound to the nucleus. So, total energy is
negative.
(c) Upper limit is for frequency, not wavelength. False.
(d) Faster electrons, less time through the plates, so 31. The emission of antineutrino is a must for the valid-
sensitivity falls. True. ity of different laws.
17. 92U238 + 0n1 → 92U239 32. Widest gap, maximum frequency, minimum wave-
→ –1e0 + 93Np239 → e– + 94Pu239 length.
F 1I
9
34. Smallest aiming error, largest interaction.
=A G J
A T1/ 2
H 2K
0
0 Hence, largest deflection (180°).
3
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 709
36. Wavelength and not the Intensity depends on volt- 45. U235 and U238 are isotopes of uranium. The difference
age. β decay includes positron emission. Moderator in it is only due to the number of neutrons; the number
does not slow down the rate of chain reaction. of protons are the same.
37. Since an electron cannot live inside the nucleus there- nh nh
fore it comes out of the nucleus. 46. mvr = or v =
2π 2πmr
1 1 LM 1 OP 1 47. During a fission event, in general, two or three neu-
38.
λ
=R 2 −
1 N ∞ Q or λ =
R
.
trons are emitted. If the total number of neutrons
emitted in a large number of events is divided by the
39. N = N0 e–λt
1
number of events, the average comes out to be around
−λ
λ 1 2.47. We say that on an average 2.47 neutrons are
N = N0 e = N
e 0 emitted in each fission event. As a round figure, we
N 1 may say 2.5 neutrons are emitted.
= = 0.3679 49. If N0 is the initial particles of the radioactive source,
N0 2.718
then
Fraction of the element that disappears
dN FG IJ
2
= (1 – 0.3679) = 0.63 ≈ .
initial activity
dt 0 H K
= − λN 0
3 where N = N0 e–λt ; t in years.
40. The orbital quantum number l has possible values 0, ln 2
1, 2, ......,(n – 1). The total number of possible values λ= ; half-life = 4 years.
4
is n.
Number of radioactive particles needed for the
If n = 3, then the possible values are 0, 1, 2. treatment is
41. By conservation of mass number and atomic number, FG dN IJ 10
the nuclear reaction equation may be re-written as N=
H dt K 0
×
4 × 365 × 24 × 60
7 Li
3
+ 21 H → 2 e j
4
2 He + 01 n 10λN0
= ...(1)
Thus particle X is a neutron. 4 × 365 × 24 × 60
42. A γ radioactive isotope of short half-life should be cho- Two years later, the activity remained is
sen. Lead water pipes can prevent the penetration of
FG dN IJ
γ rays and its half-life of a few hours can have no harm-
ful effects on humans and yet can be detected through
H dt K 2
= – λN2 = – λN0e –2λ.
the leakage of pipes. If t minutes is needed for the same treatment, then
43. The reaction can be represented by FG dN IJ t
AP
Z
→
A –4
Z–2
Q + 4
2
He + γ-radiation
N=
H dt K 2
×
4 × 365 × 24 × 60
44. rn =
1
(rn )H or rn =
LM
1 1 n 2 h2 OP – 235 or plutonium – 239. In the nuclear bomb, the
Z MN
Z K 4 π 2me2 PQ fission reaction of uranium – 235 (or plutonium – 239)
is deliberately allowed to go out of control. This
1 4πε 0 n2 h2 ε 0 n2 h2 produces an enormous amount of energy in a very
or rn = or rn =
Z 4π 2 me2 Zπme2 short time. The atom bomb based on the fission of
2 uranium – 235 was dropped on city of Hiroshima in
or rn ∝ n or r2 n22 Z Japan on 6th August, 1945 during the second world
= × 12
Ζ r1 Z2 n1 war. Another atom bomb based on the fission of
r2 plutonium – 239 was dropped on the city of Nagasaki
or = 4 or r2 = 4ao. in Japan three days later on 9th August 1945.
r1
710 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
α β β α α
Th Th 64. 238
U → 234 Q → 234 R → 234 S → 230 T → 226 Pb
51. = 0.693 or <1 or Th < Tm 92 90 91 92 90 88
Tm Tm
228 Ra
is not produced during this series of transfor-
52. EZ = EH Z2 88
mations.
9 = 1 × Z2 or Z = 3
1 1
f ∝ 3/ 2 or f ′ ∝
Now, rZ =
rH
Z
or rZ =
rH
3
66.
R 9R
3/ 2
b g
Dividing, f f
53. Lyman series lies in the ultraviolet region of the spec- = 93 / 2 or = 27
f′ f′
trum. It is not visible with naked eye. But it can be
1 LM1 1 OP 1 1 LM
1 OP
photographed. This series was first photographed by
T. Lyman of Harvard University in 1916.
67.
λ
=R
MN −
n12 n22 PQ or
λ
=R −
4 16 N Q
57. The half-life of the nuclide is related to the decay con- 1 L 4 − 1OP
=RM λ=
16
stant λ by the equation λ N 16 Q or
3R
ln 2 0.693 0.693 70. The given sample of radioactive isotope of mass m
T1/2 = = = = 2.9 × 107 s . mL
λ λ 2.4 × 10 −8 contains number of undecayed radioactive parti-
M
60. Paschen series lies in the infra red region of the spec- cles. From the law of radioactive decay, its activity A
trum and is invisible. is given by
LM OP FG mL IJ = − λmL
61. 1
λ
= RZ2
1
n12
1
− 2
MNn2 PQ
A=−λ
HMK M
LM OP 1 L 1 1O
= R M − P or 1
1
λ Li
1
1 2
1
= R × 32 2 − 2
N Q
71.
λ min. N1 ∞Q
2 λ min. =
R
1
= R × 12
LM 1 − 1 OP 72. L=n
h
λ D1 N1 2 Q
2 2
2π
2 × 6.62 × 10 −34
λ Li 1 L= Js or L = 2.11 × 10–34 J s
Dividing, = 2 × 3.14
λ D1 9
1
74. The radioactive element has of a given quantity
62. m = 2l + 1 8
that remains after 12 days. After 24 days, or in addi-
7 = 2l + 1 or 2l = 6 or l = 3. tional 12 days, the fraction that remains undecayed
63. For a given magnetic field B and electric field E, the is
velocity of the ions pass through the slit S3 is of
preselected value given by FG 1IJ FG 1IJ 1
E H 8K H 8K or
64
v=
B 75. The activity from the redioactive source has fallen to
Trasversing at this speed, the ions arrive at point P (1 – 0.875) or 0.125 of its initial activity. This corre-
provided that FG 1IJ 3
mv2
sponds to
H 2K of its initial activity or the passage of
= qvB 3 half-lives. Hence, the half-life of the source is
R
1
where R is the radius associated with the circular (210 s) or 70 s
3
path taken by the ions
v q 1
⇒ 76. λ∝ for hydrogen-like atoms
= Z2
RB m
Z maximum, λ minimum.
Hence, for a given magnetic field B and the selected
velocity v, all ions will arrive at point P (same R) if 77. The energy of the positron and the electron E is re-
the quantity q/m or charge/mass is the same. lated to the frequency f of the γ-ray photon by the
equation
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 711
⇒ 2mc2 = h
c
82.
1
=R
1 LM 1
− 2
OP
λ λ n12
MN
n2 PQ
∴ λ=
hc
=
h
1 L 1 1 OP
=RM − 1 LM 1 OP
2 mc2 2 mc
80. Eliminate the background radioactivity, the actual
λ max. N1 2 Q 2 2 or
λ max.
= R 1−
N 4 Q
count rates for living wood is 60 counts/min while 4
or λ max. = .
that of the specimen is 15 counts/min. 3R
Since the half-life of 14C is 5700 years, it takes 5700
1
years to decay from 60 counts/min to (60) or
2
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones ?
(a) 34Se74, 31Ga71 (b) 20Ca40, 16S32 (c) 42Mo92, 40Zr92 (d) 38Sr84, 38
Sr86 [All India PM/PD 2005]
74 71
Sol. Same number of neutrons in 34 Se and 31Ga .
So, (a) is the right choice.
l Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy of per nucleon in them :
(a) increases with mass number at low mass numbers.
(b) increases with mass number at high mass numbers.
(c) decreases with mass number at low mass numbers.
(d) decreases with mass number at high mass numbers. [All India PM/PD 2005]
Sol. For nuclei having A > 56, binding energy per nucleon gradually decreases.
So, (d) is the right choice.
712 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MCQs
based on
SET II
Important Basic Concepts
+
Application of Formulae
+
Brain Teasers
83. If the electron in an hydrogen atom jumps from an 88. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit
orbit with level ni = 3 to an orbit with level nf = 2, the of hydrogen atom. Given : the Rydberg’s constant
emitted radiation has a wavelength given by R = 105 cm –1. The frequency in Hz of the emitted
R 36 radiation will be
(a) λ = (b) λ =
6 5R 3 3
(a) × 105 (b) × 1015
6 5R 16 6
(c) λ = (d) λ = . [AIIMS 1997]
R 36 9 3
84. The energy change is greatest for a hydrogen atom (c) × 1015 (d) × 10 16 .
16 4
when its state changes from
[CMC Vellore 1997]
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
14 N is 14.003074 u
(c) n = 4 to n = 3 (d) n = 5 to n = 4. 89. Given that the atomic mass of 7
85. Two radioactive isotopes P and Q have half-lives of and that the sum of the atomic masses of 1H
and
1
10 minutes and 15 minutes, respectively. Freshly
13 C
prepared samples of each isotope initially contain the 6 is 14.011179u, it would be reasonable to suppose
same number of atoms as one another. After 30 that the nuclear reaction
the number of atoms of P 1
minutes, the ratio the number of atoms of Q will be 1
H + 13
7
C → 14
7
N
(a) 0.5 (b) 2.0 (a) can only happen if there is a net supply of energy.
(c) 1.0 (d) 3.0 (b) could not take place at all.
(e) 0.25. [Associated Examination Board, (c) could occur only in conditions of zero gravity, i.e. of ‘weight-
Hampshire] lessness’.
(d) must involve the emission of a further unchanged atomic
86. A certain radioactive element has half-life of 4 days.
particle.
The fraction of material that decays in two days is,
(e) will result in the emission of energy.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/ 2 [Cambridge Local Exam. Syndicate]
(c) 2 (d) e j
2 −1 / 2. 90. The band spectra (characteristic of molecular spe-
cies) is due to emission of radiation in
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998]
(a) gaseous state (b) liquid state
87. In the disintegration series
(c) solid state (d) all of three states.
238 α β−
U → ZA Y ,
→ X
92 [AFMC 1997]
The values of Z and A respectively will be 91. In Fig. 19, E 1 to E6 represent some of the energy
(a) 92, 236 (b) 88, 230 levels of an electron in the hydrogen atom
(c) 90, 234 (d) 91, 234. [MP PMT 2001]
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 713
E6 – 0.38 ev 97. The frequency of emission line for any transition in
– 0.54 ev
E5 positronium is x times the frequency for the corre-
– 0.85 ev
E4 sponding line in the case of H-atom, where x is
E3 – 1.5 ev (a) 2 (b) 1/ 2
E2 – 3.4 ev (c) 1/2 2 (d) 1/2 .
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993]
98. The orbiting speed vn of e– (the same as for e+) in the
E1 – 13.6 ev
nth orbit in the case of positronium is x-fold com-
Fig. 19
pared to that in nth orbit in hydrogen atom, where x
has the value
Which one of the following transitions produces a
(a) 1 (b) 2
photon of wavelength in the ultra-violet region of the
electromagnetic spectrum ? (c) 1/ 2 (d) 2.
[1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J.] [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993]
(a) E2 — E1 (b) E3 — E2 99. If the wavelength of photon emitted due to transi-
(c) E4 — E3 (d) E5 — E4 tion of electron from third orbit to first orbit in a
(e) E6 — E5. hydrogen atom is λ, then the wavelength of photon
emitted due to transition of electron from fourth or-
92. The second line of Balmer series has wavelength
bit to second orbit will be
4861 Å. The wavelength of the first line of Balmer
series is 128 25
(a) λ (b) λ
(a) 1216 Å (b) 6563 Å 27 9
36 125
(c) 4340 Å (d) 4101 Å. (c) λ (d) λ.
7 11
93. The electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from ground
[Bharati Vidyapeeth 2002]
state to the higher energy state where its velocity is
reduced to one-third its initial value. If the radius of 100. The first spectral line of sodium atom is 5890 Å. The
the orbit in the ground state is r, the radius of new first excitation potential of sodium is
orbit will be (a) 3.7 V (b) 2.1 V
(a) 3r (b) 9r (c) 10.2 V (d) 4.1 V.
r r 101. The initial activity of a certain radioactive isotope
(c) (d) . [JIPMER 2003] was measured as 16000 counts per minute. Given
3 9
94. In the case of thorium (A = 232 and Z = 90), we ob- that the only activity measured was due to this iso-
tain an isotope of lead (A = 208 and Z = 82) after tope and that its activity after 12 hours was 2100
some radioactive disintegrations. The number of α counts per minute, its half-life, in hours, is nearest
and β particles emitted are respectively to
(a) 6, 3 (b) 6, 4 (a) 9.0 (b) 6.0
(c) 5, 5 (d) 4, 6. (c) 4.0 (d) 3.0
95. Which of the following parameters are the same for (e) 2.0. [Oxford Local Examinations]
all hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their ground 102. Transitions between three energy levels in a
states ? particular atom give rise to three spectral lines of
(a) radius of the orbit (b) speed of the electron wavelengths, in increasing magnitudes, λ 1, λ2 and
(c) energy of the atom λ 3. Which one of the following equations correctly
relates λ1, λ2 and λ3 ?
(d) orbital angular momentum of the electron.
(a) λ1 = λ2 – λ3 (b) λ1 = λ3 – λ2
[Pb. PMT 2002]
96. In the ground state of positronium, the e – to e + 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = + (d) = −
distance is x times the Bohr radius, where x has the λ1 λ2 λ 3 λ1 λ 3 λ 2
value 1 1 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (e) = − .
λ1 λ 2 λ3
(c) 22 (d) 2 2 . 103. Which of the following is true when Bohr gave his
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993] model for hydrogen atom ?
714 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
122. An atom makes a transition from a state of energy 128. If N0 is the original mass of the substance of half-life
E2 to one of lower energy E1. period t1/2 = 5 years, then the amount of substance
Which of the following gives the wavelength of the left after 15 years is
radiation emitted in terms of the Planck’s constant (a) N0/8 (b) N0/16
h and the speed of light c ? (c) N0/2 (d) N0/4. [AIEEE 2002]
E2 − E1 hc hc
(a) (b) − 129. The rest mass of the deuteron, 2 H , is equivalent to
hc E2 E1 1
146. Atomic mass number of an element is 232 and its (a) R/E (b) E/V
atomic number is 90. The end product of this radio- (c) RE [KCET 2002]
(d) VR.
active element is an isotope of lead (atomic mass 208 154. In a sample of radioactive material, what percentage
and atomic number 82). The number of α and β par- of the initial number of active nuclei will decay dur-
ticles emitted is ing one mean life ?
(a) α = 3, β = 3 (b) α = 6, β = 4 (a) 69.3% (b) 63%
(c) α = 6, β = 0 (d) α = 4, β = 6. (c) 50% (d) 37%. [KCET 2002]
147. An electron in H-atom makes a transition from n = 3 155. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species
to n = 1. The recoil momentum of H-atom will be having equal number of atoms initially. The mean
(a) 6.45 × 10–27 N s (b) 6.8 × 10–27 N s life time of one species is τ and that of the other is 5τ.
(c) 6.45 × 10–24 Ns (d) 6.8 × 10–24 N s. The decay products in both cases are stable. A plot is
[BHU 1994] made of the total number of radioactive nuclei as a
function of time. Which of the following figures best
148. The frequency of revolution of electron in nth orbit is
represents the form of this plot ?
fn. If the electron makes a transition from nth orbit
(a) (b)
to (n–1)th orbit, then the relation between the fre- N N
quency (ν) of emitted photon and fn will be
(a) ν = fn2 (b) ν = fn
1
(c) ν = (d) ν = fn. [AFMC 2000]
fn
149. If n >> 1, then the dependence of frequency of a pho- τ t τ t
ton, emitted as a result of transition of electron from (c) (d)
N N
nth orbit to (n – 1)th orbit, on n will be
1 1
(a) ν ∝ (b) ν ∝ 2
n n
1 1
(c) ν ∝ (d) ν ∝ .
n3 ν3
[Haryana PMT 2001] τ t τ t
174. The force acting on the electron in a hydrogen atom 182. A sample of hydrogen is bombarded by electrons.
depends on the principal quantum number as Through what potential difference should the elec-
1 trons be accelerated so that second line of Balmer
(a) F ∝ n2 (b) F ∝
n2 series be emitted ?
1 (a) 2.55 V (b) 10.2 V
(c) F ∝ n4 (d) F ∝ 4 . [AFMC 1995] (c) 12.09 V (d) 12.75 V. [AMU 2002]
n
175. If the rest mass of electron or positron is 0.51 MeV, 183. The mass defect due to nuclear fission is 0.1%. The
then the kinetic energy of each particle in the electron- energy released on account of fission of 1 kg mass
positron pair production by a γ-photon of 2.42 MeV will be (in kWH)
will be (a) 2.5 × 10–7 (b) 2.5 × 107
(a) 0.3 MeV (b) 1.9 MeV (c) 2.5 × 109 (d) 2.5 × 105.
(c) 0.7 MeV (d) 1.5 MeV. [CMC LDH 2003]
[Manipal 1995] 184. The minimum energy to ionise an atom is the energy
176. In Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of required to
α-particles scattered at 60° is 5 × 106. The number of (a) add one electron to the atom.
α-particles scattered at 120° will be (b) excite the atom from its ground state to its first excited
3 state.
(a) 15 × 106 (b) × 106 (c) remove one outermost electron from the atom.
5
5 (d) remove one innermost electron from the atom.
(c) × 106 (d) none of these. (e) remove all the electrons from the atom.
9
[BHU 2003] 185. A stationary thoron nucleus (A = 200, Z = 90) emits
177. The energy released as a result of mutual interaction an alpha particle with kinetic energy Ea. What is the
of proton and antiproton will be kinetic energy of the recoiling nucleus ?
Ea Ea
(a) 1.862 eV (b) 1.862 KeV (a) (b)
108 110
(c) 1.862 MeV (d) 1.862 GeV.
Ea E
[CMC LDH 1994] (c) (d) a
55 54
178. The kinetic energy of an electron in the fourth orbit (e) Ea.
of lithium atom will be 186. The fraction of a radioactive material which remains
(a) 0.85 eV (b) 1.70 eV active after time t is 9/16. The fraction which remains
(c) 7.65 eV (d) 9.36 eV. active after time t/2 will be
[Haryana PMT 2003] 4 7
(a) (b)
179. The speed of electrons in the second orbit of Be3+ ion 5 8
3 3
will be (c) (d) . [JIPMER 2002]
5 4
c 2c
(a) (b) 187. The half-life of a radioactive substance, as compared
137 137 to its mean life, is nearly
3c 4c
(c) (d) . (a) 30% (b) 60%
137 137
(c) 70% (d) 100%.
[Himachal PMT 2000]
[Himachal PMT 2002]
180. The potential energy of an electron in the fifth orbit
of hydrogen atom is 188. The rate of decay of a radioactive element at any
(a) 0.54 eV (b) – 0.54 eV
instant 103 disintegrations per second. If the half-life
of the element is 1 second, then the rate of decay
(c) 1.08 eV (d) – 1.08 eV.
after one second will be
[Manipal 1996] (a) 500 per s (b) 1000 per s
181. If the radius of an orbit is r and the velocity of elec- (c) 250 per s (d) 2000 per s. [AMU 2003]
tron in it is v, the frequency of electron in that orbit
189. If R is the Rydberg constant for Hydrogen, the wave
will be
number of the first line in the Lyman series is
2π
(a) 2πrv (b) R
vr (a) (b) 2R
2
vr v R 3R
(c) (d) . [Manipal 2003] (c) (d) . [KCET 2000]
2π 2πr 4 4
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 721
190. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 (a) 449 years (b) 399 years
were not allowed in nature, the number of possible (c) 109 years (d) 9 years.
elements would have been [CMC Vellore 2003]
(a) 32 (b) 60
198. An archaeologist analyses a wooden sample of pre-
(c) 64 (d) 4. historic structure and finds that the ratio of C14 to
[KCET 2003 ; MP PET 1999 ; IIT 1983] ordinary carbon in it is only one-fourth of that in the
191. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The cells of living plants. If the half-life of C 14 is 5700
time between 20% and 80% decay will be years, then the age of the wood will be
(a) 40 minutes (b) 20 minutes (a) 22,807 years (b) 5709 years
(c) 25 minutes (d) 30 minutes. [KCET 2003] (c) 2458 years (d) 11,403 years.
192. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest emits [MNR 1999]
an α-particle. If the Q value of the reaction is 199. The percentage of quantity of a radioactive material
5.5 MeV, calculate the kinetic energy of the α-particle that remains after 5 half-lives will be
(a) 4.4 MeV (b) 5.4 MeV (a) 31% (b) 3.125%
(c) 5.6 MeV (d) 6.5 MeV. [IIT 2003] (c) 0.3% (d) 1%. [Pb. PMT 2003]
193. For an electron in the second orbit of Bohr Hydro- 200. A hydrogen-like atom emits radiations of frequency
gen atom, the moment of linear momentum is 2.7 × 1015 Hz when it makes a transition from n = 2
(a) πh (b) 2πh to n = 1. The frequency emitted in a transition from
h 2h n = 3 to n = 1 will be
(c) (d) . [KCET 2003] (a) 1.8 × 1015 Hz (b) 3.2 × 1015 Hz
π π
194. Let the potential energy of hydrogen atom in the (c) 4.7 × 105 Hz (d) 6.9 × 1015 Hz.
ground state be zero. Then its total energy in the [CMC Vellore 2002]
first excited state will be
201. Radiation from a radioac-
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 13.6 eV tive source enters an evacu-
(c) 23.8 eV (d) 27.2 eV. [KCET 2001] ated region in which there
195. The graph represents the decay of a newly-prepared is a uniform magnetic field
sample of radioactive nuclide X to a stable nuclide Y. perpendicular to the plane Y
The half-life of X is τ. The growth curve for Y inter- of the diagram. This region X
sects the decay curve for X after time T. is divided into two by a
sheet of aluminium about Aluminium
Number
of atoms X 1 mm thick. The curved,
Fig. 28
Y horizontal path followed by
the radiation is shown in Fig. 28.
Which of the following correctly describes the type of
radiation and its point of entry ?
type of radiation point of entry
0 T Time
(a) alpha X
Fig. 27 (b) alpha Y
What is the time T ? (c) beta X
(a) τ/2 (b) ln (τ/2) (d) beta Y
(c) τ (d) ln (2τ) (e) gamma X.
(e) 2τ. 202. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays
according to the scheme
196. The decay constant of radium is 4.28 × 10–4 per year.
Its half-life will be α β α γ
A → A1 → A2 → A3 → A4
(a) 2000 year (b) 1240 year If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180
(c) 63 year (d) 1619 year. and 72 respectively, then what are these numbers for
197. The mean lives for α- and β-decay of radioactive sub- A4 ?
stance are 1620 years and 405 years respectively. In (a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70
3 (c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70.
how much time will its th fraction will decay, if it
4
[CMC LDH 1993]
simultaneously emits α- and β-particles ?
722 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
203. The intensity of γ-rays from a source (I0 ) reduces to 210. The wavelengths of first lines of Balmer series of hy-
I0/8 after passing through 48 mm thick sheet of lead. drogen, He+ and Be3+ are λ1 , λ2 and λ3 respectively.
The thickness of the sheet for obtaining intensity equal The ratio of these wavelengths will be
to I0/2 will be (a) 1 : 4 : 16 (b) 1 : 2 : 4
(a) 48 mm (b) 24 mm (c) 16 : 4 : 1 (d) 4 : 2: 1. [JIPMER 1998]
(c) 16 mm (d) 8 mm. [MNR 1996] 211. If there are N nuclear particles in a nucleus of radius
204. The orbital velocity of electron in the ground state is R, then the number of nuclear particles in radius 3R
v. If the electron is excited to energy state – 0.54 eV, will be
its orbital velocity will be (a) N (b) 2N
v (c) 27 N (d) 21/3 N. [Pb. CET 1998]
(a) v (b)
3 212. The mass numbers of helium and sulphur are 4 and
v v 32 respectively. The ratio of the nuclear radii of sul-
(c) (d) . [WB JEE 1994]
5 7 phur and helium will be
205. If 10% of a radioactive substance decays in every 5 (a) 32 (b) 8
years, then the percentage of the substance that will
have decayed in 20 years will be (c) 2 [Pb. PMT 1999]
(d) 2.
(a) 40% (b) 50% 213. At time t = 0, some radioactive gas is injected into a
(c) 65.6 % (d) 34.4%. [EAMCET 1992]
sealed vessel. At time T, some more of the same gas
is injected into the same vessel.
206. A stationary 238 U nucleus decays by α emission
Which one of the following graphs best represents
generating a total kinetic energy T
the variation of the logarithm of the activity A of the
238
U → 234
Th + 42 α gas with time t ?
92 90
What is the kinetic energy of the α particle ? In A In A
(a) slightly less than T/2
(b) T/2
(c) slightly less than T
(d) slightly greater than T.
207. The graph (Fig. 29)
T t T t
shows the number 3
(a) (b)
of particles N t 2 In A In A
In Nt
emitted per
1
second by a
0
radioactive source 0 20 40 60
as a function of Time, t
time t Fig. 29
T t T t
The relationship between Nt and t is (c) (d)
(a) Nt = 1000 e–20t (b) Nt = 20 e20t In A
(c) Nt = 3 e–0.05t (d) Nt = 20 e–0.05t
(e) Nt = 1000 e0.05t.
208. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303
amu. What is the binding energy per nucleon for
helium in MeV ?
(a) 28 (b) 7 T t
(e)
(c) 4 (d) 1.
209. The radioactivity of a certain radioactive element Fig. 30
drops to 1/64 of its initial value in 30 second. Its half
life is 214. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 amu
(a) 2 second (b) 4 second and 1.0073 amu respectively. If the neutrons and
(c) 5 second (d) 6 second.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 723
protons combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha 222. An α-particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered by a ura-
particles) of mass 4.0015 amu, the binding energy of nium nucleus at an angle of 180°. The distance of
the helium nucleus will be : (1 amu = 931 MeV) closest approach of α-particles to the nucleus will be
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV (a) 5.3 × 10–14 cm (b) 5.3 × 10–10 cm
(c) 27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV. (c) 5.3 × 10–14 m (d) 5.3 × 10–10 m.
215. The masses of two radioactive substances are same 223. The minimum wavelength of Paschen series of hy-
and their half-lives are 1 year and 2 years respec- drogen atom will be
tively. The ratio of their activities after six years will (a) 18,700 Å (b) 970 Å
be (c) 1,022 Å (d) 8,182 Å.
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1
[Haryana PMT 1998]
(c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1.
224. The ratio of area of orbit of first excited state of elec-
216. An excited hydrogen atom returns to the ground tron to the area of orbit of ground level, for hydro-
state. The wavelength of emitted photon is λ . The gen atom, will be
principal quantum number of the excited state will (a) 16 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
be
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 2 : 1.
F λR IJ 1/2
(a) G
F λR + 1IJ 1/2
(b) G F RI
H λR − 1K H λR K 225. The graph of log GH R JK versus A (R = radius of a
0
L
(d) M
O 1/2 nucleus and A = mass number) is
N λR (λR + 1) PQ .
1
(c) λR (λR + 1) 1/2 (a) a circle (b) an ellipse
(c) a parabola (d) a straight line.
[Manipal 1998]
[AIIMS 1998]
217. The radius of the nucleus 8O16 is 3 × 10–15 m. The
density of this nucleus will be 226. An α-particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through
(a) 2.35 × 10–17 kg m–3 (b) 3.35 × 1017 kg m–3 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of clos-
est approach is of the order of
(c) 2.35 × 1017 kg m–-3 (d) 3.35 × 10–17 kg m–3 .
(a) 10–12 cm (b) 10–10 cm
[AMU 1998]
(c) 1 Å (d) 10–15 cm. [AIEEE 2004]
218. If the magnitude of energy of the electron in nth Bohr
orbit is En and Jn is its angular momentum, then 227. The equations
1 dN
(a) En ∝ Jn3 (b) En ∝ = − λN and N = N0 e–λt
−3 dt
Jn
1 describe how the number N of undecayed atoms in a
(c) En ∝ Jn2 (d) En ∝ . sample of radioactive material, which initially (at
Jn 2
t = 0) contained N 0 undecayed atoms, varies with
[CMC LDH 1997]
time t. Which one of the following statements about
219. What is the relationship between the decay constant λ is correct ?
λ and the half-life t1/2 of a radioactive isotope ? (a) λδt gives the fraction of atoms present which will decay in
(a) λ = t1/2 (b) λ = 1/t1/2 the next small time interval δt.
(c) λ = t1/2 ln2 (d) λ = (ln2 )/t1/2 (b) λ is the time needed for N to fall from N0 to the value N0/e.
1 (c) λ is equal to the half-life of the sample.
(e) λ = .
t1/2 ln2 (d) λ is the number of atoms left after a time equal to e second.
220. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which (e) λ is the chance that any one atom will still be undecayed
have their velocities in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of after one second.
their nuclear sizes will be 228. A nucleus of mass number A, originally at rest, emits
(a) 31/2 : 1 (b) 1 : 21/3 an α-particle with speed v. The daughter nucleus re-
(c) 21/3 : 1 (d) 1 : 31/2. [AIEEE 2004] coils with a speed.
221. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of (a) 2v/(A + 4) (b) 4v/(A + 4)
atoms is 8 × 104. Its half-life period is 3 year. The (c) 4v/(A – 4) (d) 2v/(A – 4).
number of atoms 1 × 104 will remain after interval [AIIMS 2004]
(a) 9 years (b) 8 years 229. The maximum wavelength of Brakett series of hy-
(c) 6 years (d) 24 years. drogen atom will be
724 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (d) 130. (c)
131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (d) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (a)
139. (c) 140. (d) 141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b)
147. (a) 148. (d) 149. (c) 150. (a) 151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (d) 154. (b)
155. (d) 156. (a) 157. (d) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (a) 161. (d) 162. (b)
163. (c) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (d)
171. (d) 172. (c) 173. (c) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (c) 177. (d) 178. (c)
179. (b) 180. (d) 181. (d) 182. (d) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (d) 186. (d)
187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (d) 190. (b) 191. (a) 192. (b) 193. (c) 194. (c)
195. (c) 196. (d) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (b) 201. (d) 202. (a)
203. (c) 204. (c) 205. (d) 206. (c) 207. (d) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (c)
211. (c) 212. (c) 213. (b) 214. (a) 215. (a) 216. (a) 217. (c) 218. (d)
219. (d) 220. (b) 221. (a) 222. (c) 223. (d) 224. (a) 225. (d) 226. (a)
227. (a) 228. (c) 229. (d) 230. (a) 231. (b) 232. (c) 233. (a) 234. (a)
235. (c) 236. (c) 237. (c) 238. (a) 239. (d) 240. (c) 241. (a).
27 27
or
1
=R
1LM
−
1 OP
or
1 3
or λ1 =
20
× λ2 =
20
× 4861 Å = 6562.4 Å.
λ′ N
4 16 Q λ′
=R×
16
1 c 1 16
93. v= or v ∝ or λ′ = R
137 n n 3
λ ′ 16 8R 128
Since v is reduced to one-third therefore = × or λ′ = λ.
λ 3R 9 27
n =3
12375
Now, r ∝ n2. 100. = 2.1 eV
5890
94. Decrease in mass number = 232 – 208 = 24 So, first excitation potential is 2.1 V.
24 101. A = A0 e–λt ; 2100 = 16000 e–12λ ; e12λ = 7.6 ; 12λ = loge
Number of α-particles emitted = =6
4
2 1
Due to emission of 6 α-particles, decrease in charge 7.6 = 2 ; λ = = ;
number = 12. 12 6
But decrease in charge number is 8. Clearly, 4 β par- 0.6931 × 6
T= ≈ 4.
ticles are emitted. 1
95. L = mvr = m k
LM 2 π Ze 2 OP LM 1 n h OP
2 2
102. Let the three energy levels
be E1, E2 and E3. The wave-
E3
λ3
MN nh PQ MN k 4π mZe PQ
2 2 lengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 of the E2
spectral lines correspond to
nh the three energy transitions
= λ2 λ1
2π are depicted as shown. By
Clearly, L is constant. quantum theory, the energy
change E is directly related
K 1 FG IJ to the frequency f and hence E1
96. Bohr radius a0 =
m
. Changing m to µ = m leads
2 H K it is inversely proportional to Fig. 31
to modified value 2a0. (This is not from e– to centre of the wavelength λ of the elec-
mass, but from e– to e+ ). tromagnetic radiation as stated in the equation be-
97. Rydberg constant determines the frequencies. We low.
have R = K m. So modified R is half of H-atom.
hc 1
K . Since modified m is half, and modified r E = hf = or E∝
98. mvn2= n λ λ
rn (Given λ1 < λ2 < λ3)
is double, vn remains the same as in H-atom.
Thus, for the three wavelengths, we have
me m p
|| hc
µ=
me + mp
, where mp is the positronium mass, T E3 – E1 =
λ1
...(3)
which is equal to me. With this, one may treat Now, E3 – E1 = (E3 – E2) + (E2 – E1)
the electron going round the positron, and ap- 1 1 1
hc hc hc
ply the equations used for hydrogen atom case. ⇒ = + ⇒ = + .
λ1 λ3 λ2 λ 1 λ 2 λ 3
λ′ = 4
LM 1 OP e
Clearly,
NR Q or λ′ = 4λ. or m∝
E
106. Tissue paper is capable of absorbing α-particles. Now, m1 e 2000 1
decide what contribution to the initial corrected count ∴ = × = .
m2 3000 2e 3
rate of 176 s–1 is made by α-particles. Then determine
what the contribution will be from the α-particles af- 112. For first line of Balmer series
ter 12 days. Now, consider the contribution to the
1 LM
1 1
=R 2 − 2
OP 1 LM
1 1 OP
initial corrected count rate made by β-particles. What
contribution will β-particles make after 12 days ? Then λ 2N 3 Q or
λ
=R −
N
4 9 Q
add the two contributions (of each component after 12
or
1
=RM
L 9 − 4 OP = 5R or λ =
36
days) to give the final answer. Use the fact the 12
days is a whole number of half-lives in both cases ; λ N 36 Q 36 5R
after one half-life, the contribution drops to 50% ; 1 LM
1 1 OP
after two half-lives, the contribution drops to 25% of
the initial value, etc.
For first line of Lyman series
λ′ 1N
=R 2 − 2
2 Q
N FG IJ = FG 1IJ
1
n 5
1 1
= R 1−
1LM OP
107.
N0
=
H K H 2K
2
=
32 λ′ 4 N Q
N 100 1 3R 4
× 100 = ≈ 3. = or λ′ =
N0 32 λ′ 4 3R
108. The wavelengths of the hydrogen spectrum could be λ′ 4 5R 20
Now, = × =
arranged in a series named after its discoverer. The λ 3R 36 108
ultraviolet was the Hyman series obtained when
energy of the atom falls to the lowest energy level 20
λ′ = × 6563 Å = 1215.4 Å.
E1 (– 13.6 eV) corresponding to n = 1. The visible 108
spectrum known as the Balmer series is obtained for 115. The first three transitions from the left fall in the
energy falls to the first excited state E2 (– 3.4 eV) Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum which corre-
corresponding to n = 2. The infra red spectrum known sponds to ultraviolet radiation.
as the Paschen series is obtained for energy falls to The fourth transition falls in the Balmer series of the
the second excited state E3 (– 1.5 eV) corresponding to spectrum which corresponds to the visible light
n = 3. emission.
728 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
F eI
2
or ν= k
for α-particle is 2e or 0.4998 G J .
H uK
h 3
MN n (n − 1) PQ
2 2
144.
4.0015 u
Let t = 0 , M0 = 10 g or ν = k2
2π2me4 LM (2n − 1) OP
F 1I
h3 N n (n − 1) Q
2 2
= 2G J
t=2τ
H λK [given] If n is very large, then
2π 2me4 2n
−λ 2
di ν = k2 ×
Then from, M = M0 e–λt = 10 e λ
h 3
n4
F 1I
= 10 G J
2
or ν=
4 π 2 k2 me4
= fn
H eK = 1.35 g n3 h3
N 165. = 3
or 22 = 2 4T
= N0 e −10 λt 4
e 24T
N e − λt 3
= − 10λt e10 λt or 8T = 3 or T =
s.
N e or e = 8
e eλt 166. Mass of nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of
or e = e9λt or 9λt = 1 the constituent particles.
1 1 1
or t = 167. = t
9λ 16
2 100
ke2 or
1 1
= t / 100 or 4 =
t
158. Ek = 4
2r 2 2 100
or t = 400 µs.
ke2
Ep = − 168. In γ-decay, neither A nor Z changes.
2r
169. Note that infrared radiation has lesser energy than
As the hydrogen atom makes transition to the ground
ultraviolet radiation.
state, r decreases.
Ek increases, Ep and E decrease. ke2
170. Ep = −
159. T2 ∝ r3 and r ∝ n2 r
∴ T2 ∝ n6 or T ∝ n3
ke2
T1 FG IJ
n
= 1
3 E=–
2r
T2 H K
n2 Ep = 2E
Ep = 2(– 13.6) eV = – 27.2 eV.
Fn I
8=G J 1
3
n1 Potential energy of electron in the ground state of Li2+
Hn K 2
or
n2
=2
ion is – 32 × 27.2 eV or – 244.8 eV.
160. M = IA = efπr 2 171. R = R0 A1/3
= 1.6 × 10–19 × 1016 × 3.14 × (0.5 × 10–10)2 A m2 R = 1.2 × 10–15 (64)1/3 m
= 1.256 × 10–23 A m2 R = 4.8 × 10–15 m.
172. Binding energy
n(n − 1) 4(4 − 1)
161. = =6 = [4 × 1.008 + 5 × 1.009 – 9.012] × 931
2 2
= [4.032 + 5.045 – 9.012] 931 MeV
= 0.065 × 931 MeV.
732 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
0.065 × 931 1 c
B.E./nucleon = MeV v = 4× ×
9 137 2
= 6.724 MeV.
2c
173. Required energy v=
137
LMFG − 13.6 IJ − FG − 13.6 IJ OP × 9 13.6
=
NH 9 K H 1 K Q 180. E=–
52
eV
L
= M13.6 −
13.6 O E = – 0.544 eV
9 PQ
9 = 8 × 13.6 eV
N Ep = – 2 × 0.544 eV = – 1.088 eV.
12375 181. v = rω
Wavelength = Å = 113.7 Å v
8 × 13.6 v = r × 2πν or ν = .
2πr
mv2 182. 13.6 – 0.85 = 12.75 eV
174. F=
r So, 12.75 V is the required potential difference.
1
But v∝ and r ∝ n2
183. 0.1 1 × 3 × 108 × 3 × 108 kWh
n E= ×
100 103 × 3600
1
F∝ . = 2.5 × 107 kWh.
n4
184. The minimum energy to ionise an atom is the energy
2.42 − 1.02 required to excite an electron in the atom from its
175. = 0.7 MeV
2 ground state corresponding to n = 1, to its ionisation
1 level corresponding to n = ∞. If the electron is given
176. N∝ an amount of energy equal to the ionisation energy,
θ
sin4 the electron is just able to become a ‘free’ electron and
2
the atom is about to be ionised. When this occurs, one
θ 60° outermost electron from the atom is just about to be
sin4 1 sin 4
N2 2 N2 2 removed from the atom. Much higher energy is nec-
= or =
N1 sin 4 θ 2 5 × 106 sin 4 120° essary to free an innermost electron from the atom
2 2 because this will occur only after the outer electrons
are all removed.
or N2 sin 4 30°
6
= 185. The α-particle emitting radioactive gas, Thoron – 220,
5 × 10 sin 4 60°
decays to Radium – 216 and emits and α-particle. The
FG 1IJ FG 2 IJ
4 4
=
5
× 106 .
reaction can be represented by
or N2 = 5 × 106 ×
H 2K H 3 K 9 220
90
Th → 4
2
He + 216
66
Ra
177. ∆E = 2mpc2 By conservation of momentum, we have momentum
= 2 × 931 MeV = 1862 MeV of α-particle = momentum of recoiling nucleus Ra
= 1.862 × 109 eV = 1.862 GeV. vR ma 4 1
⇒ mava = mRvR ⇒ = = =
ke 2 va mR 216 54
178. (i) Ek = The kinetic energy of Ra, ER is related to the kinetic
2r
energy of alpha particle Ea by the equation below
ke2
E=– 1
2r ER
mR vR2
mR F I F v I =Fm I F m I
2 2
∴ Ek = – (– E) Ea
= 2
1
mava 2
=
ma GH JK GH m JK GH m JK GH m JK
R
a
R
a
a
R
Now, kinetic energy in fourth orbit of lithium atom 2
13.6 ma 1
= 9× eV = 7.65 eV.
16 = =
mR 54
LM 1 c OP Ea
179. v=Z
N 137 n Q ∴ ER =
54
.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 733
will be shifted by 27.2 eV. So, the total energy in the
FG IJ
t
9 1 T first excited state will be (– 3.4 + 27.2) eV or 23.8 eV.
186.
16
=
2H K 195. By the law of conservation of mass, the total mass
N F 1I
t number is constant before and after the reaction. In
=G J
2T
N 0 H 2K other words, the total number of active atoms decay-
ing from nuclide X must be equal to the number of
F N I = FG 1IJ
2 t/ T
F NI 2 atoms in nuclide Y. That is
GH N JK H 2 K
0
or GH N JK
0
=
9
16
NY + NX = N
where N is the initial number of active atoms in
N 3 nuclide X,
or =
N0 4 N X is the number of active atoms that remain
in nuclide X
Note the special technique used in solving and N Y is the number of atoms in nuclide Y.
a typical problem. At time T, the number of atoms in Y is equal to the
number of atoms remaining in nuclide X.
187. T = 0.693 τ 1
∴ NY = NX = N. But NX = Ne–λt
T 2
= 0.693
τ where λ is the decay constant of nuclide X and is given
Percentage is 69.3. ln 2
by .
A 2 N2 τ
188. =
A 1 N1 At t = T,
A2 1 1000 1
= or A2 = = 500 s–1 NY = NX = N = Ne–λT
3 2 2
10 2
1 LM
1 1
=R 2 − 2
OP ⇒ eλT = 2
189.
λ 1N 2 Q ⇒ λT = ln 2 or T =
ln 2
=τ
or
1 L 1O
= R M1 – P or
1 3R
λ
λ N 4Q λ
=
4
196. T1/2 =
0.693
year
3R 4.28 × 10 −4
wave number, ν =
4 = 1619.15 year ≈ 1619 year.
190. N = ∑2n2 N0
197. N = N0 e–λt or eλt =
N = 2 (12 + 22 + 32 + 42) N
= 2 (1 + 4 + 9 + 16) = 2 × 30 = 60.
N0 1 N
20 1 1 1 1 1 or λt = loge or t= log e 0
191. = or = or = N λ N
80 2 t/20 4 2t/ 20 22 2t/ 20
τα τβ 4
t or t = log e
or =2 or t = 40 minute. τ α + τβ 1
20
192. Applying conservation of momentum and conservation τ α τβ
of energy, or t = 2.303 × log 10 4
τ α + τβ
KEα = 5.4 MeV.
h τα τβ
193. L = 2× or t = 2 × 2.303 log 10 2
2π τα + τβ
h
L=. 2 × 2.303 × 0.3010 × 1620 × 405
π or t = years
1620 + 405
194. Potential energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state
is ‘– 27.2 eV’. If the potential energy in the ground = 449.2 years.
state is taken as zero, then the whole energy spectrum
734 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
ν = cZ R M 2
L 1 − 1 OP I
MN n n PQ
1
2
2
2 Now, 48 ∝ loge 8
d ∝ loge 2
2.7 × 10 = cZ R M −
L 1 1 OP d log e 2
N1 2 Q
15 2
2 2 Dividing, =
48 log e 23
ν = cZ R M −2 L 1 1 OP 48
N1 3 Q
2 2 or d
=
48 3
1 or d =
3
mm = 16 mm.
1 13.6 13.6
1− 204. En = – or n2 = –
ν 9 = 8 × 4 = 32
= n2 − 0.54
2.7 × 1015 1 − 1 9 3 27 or n2 = 25.2 or n = 5 (nearly)
4
v
32 ∴ vn = .
or ν= × 2.7 × 1015 Hz = 3.2 × 1015 Hz. 5
27
201. γ-rays are electromagnetic waves of which no 205. N = N0 e–λt
deflection is observed when a beam of γ-rays is allowed N
to pass through a magnetic field. Since the presence = e− λt
N0
of magnetic field deflects the path of the radiation,
particularly near X, the radiation must either be α- N0
particles or β-particles. = eλ t
N
α-particles can be cut out by the thin aluminium sheet
about 1 mm thick which is not the case here. Hence, N0
λt = loge
we conclude that the radiation must be β-particles. N
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 735
1 N 1
t = log e 0 ⇒ ln Nt – ln 20 = – t [ln 20 = 3.00]
λ N 20
N0 Nt
t ∝ loge ⇒ ln = − 0.05 t
N 20
100 Hence, Nt = 20 e–0.05t.
5 ∝ loge
90 208. Binding energy/nucleon
N0 0.0303 × 931
20 ∝ loge = MeV = 7.05 MeV.
N 4
Dividing, A 1
209. =
A0 2t/ T
100
log 10 1 1 1 1
5 90 = 30 / T
= or =
20 N 64 2 26 230 / T
log 10 0
N 30 30
or =6 or T = s = 5 s.
N0 10 N0 FG IJ
10
4 T 6
or log 10
N
= 4 log 10
9
or
N
=
H K
9 210. Since λ ∝ 2 ,
Z
1
N 9FG IJ 4 1 1 1
∴ λ1 : λ2 : λ3 :: 2 : 2 : 2
or
N0
=
10 H K = 0.6561
1 2 4
1 1 1
Percentage of substance that decays or : : or 16 : 4 : 1.
1 4 16
= (1 – 0.6561) × 100 = 34.39.
211. Number of particles ∝ volume ∝ R3
206. Let the kinetic energy of the α-particle be Eα and that
of the thorium Th be Eth. N′ 3R FG IJ 3
1 N′ = 27 N.
Eα
mαvα 2
mα vα F IF I
2
212. R = R0 A1/3
= 2 = GH JK GH JK
...(1)
Eth 1
mthvth2 mth vth Rsulphur FG 32 IJ 1/3
2
By conservation of momentum the momentum of the Rhelium
=
H 4K
= (8)1/3 = 2.
α-particle and that of the recoiling thorium Th must 213. The rate at which the atoms decays from the radioac-
be equal. Thus tive gas is proportional to the number of atoms present
να m in the gas by the equation
mανα = mthνth or = th ...(2)
dN
νth mα = − λN
Subst. (2) into (1), we have dt
where λ is the radioactive decay constant
Eα mα F IFm I 2
mth 234
Eth
=
mth GH JK GH m JK th
α
=
mα
=
4
= 58.5 From which we obtain
N = N0e–λt
Thus, the kinetic energy of the α-particle expressed and hence ln N = – λt loge N0
as the fraction of the total kinetic energy T is given where N0 is the initial number of atoms in the gas at
by t = 0.
58.5 58.5 It is a straight line of negative gradient with magni-
Eα = T= T = 0.98 T tude λ when ln N is plotted against t.
1 + 58.5 59.5
Thus, from t = 0 to t = T, the logarithmic of number
which is slightly less than T.
of atoms ln N decreases uniformly at the rate of λ for
207. The graph can be represented by the linear equation the time period from t = 0 to t = T. When more of the
as follows : same gas is injected into the vessel, the number of
ln N t − 3 0−3 atoms present increases instantaneously and the de-
=
t−0 60 − 0 cay of atoms takes place at the same rate λ which is
best represented in graph (b).
736 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 2 1 1 2 Ze 2
=
× = . 222. r0 =
8 1 4 4 πε0 E k
216.
1 1
= R 1− 2
LM OP 9 × 109 × 2 × 92 (1.6 × 10−19 )2
λ n N Q =
5 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19
m
1 1 1 1
or = 1− 2 or = 1− = 5.29 × 10–14 m.
λR n2
n λR
1 1 LM
1 OP 1 R
or
1
2
=
λR − 1
or n2 =
λR
λR − 1
223.
λ
=R 2 −
3 ∞N Q or =
λ 9
n λR
9 9
F λR IJ
n= G
1/ 2 or λ=
R
=
1.1 × 107
m
or
H λ R − 1K .
M 9 × 1010 9000
= Å = Å = 8181.8 Å
217. Density, ρ = 1.1 × 107 1.1
V
16 × 1.66 × 10 −27 ≈ 8182 Å.
= kg m −3 224. A ∝ r2
4
3
× 3.14 × 3 × 10 e j
−15 3
Also r ∝ n2
= 2.35 × 1017 kg m–3. ∴ A ∝ n4
1
218. En ∝ , Jn ∝ n A 1 24
n2 = = 16 .
A 2 14
1
∴ En ∝ . R
J n2 225. R = R0 A1/3 or = A 1/3
219. The activity of a radioactive isotope is given by R0
N = N0 e–λt R 1
log = loge A
where N0 = initial activity eR 0 3
λ = decay constant Comparing with y = mx, we find that the graph is a
When the activity is decayed to half of its initial value straight line.
of half-life t1/2. 226. At closest approach, all the kinetic energy of the α-
1 − λt particle will be converted into the potential energy of
N0 = N0 e 1 / 2
2 the system,
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 737
∴ 5MeV =
1 q1q2
229. 1 LM
1 1 OP
4 πε 0 r λ 4N
=R 2 − 2
5 Q
Z1 × Z2 e2 1
=RM
L 1 − 1 OP
5 × 106 × e = 9 × 109 ×
r λ N 16 25 Q
or r=
9 × 109 × 92 × 2 × 1.6 × 10−19 1
=RM
L 9 OP 16 × 25
5 × 106 λ N 16 × 25 Q or λ =
9R
or r = 5.3 × 10–14 m = 5.3 × 10–12 cm.
16 × 25 × 1010
dN or λ= Å = 40.4 × 103 Å.
227. From the equations = − λN and N = N0 e–λt , we 9 × 1.1 × 107
dt
may state that
230.
1 1 1
= 1.1 × 107 2 − 2
LM OP
(a) λδt gives the fraction of atoms present which will
decay in the next small time interval δt. This is
975 × 10 −10 1 n N Q
1 1
dN or 1− =
evident from the equation = – λN since for n2 975 × 1.1 × 10−3
N
small time interval δ t.
1 103
or = 1−
δN δN n2
975 × 1.1
= − λN ⇒ – = λδt
dt N
1 1
(b) t = is the time needed for N to fall from N0 to = 1 − 0.9324
λ n2
N
the value 0 . 1 1
e = 0.067599 or n2 = = 14.8
1 n2 0.067599
This is obtained by substituting t = into or n = 3.846 ≈ 4.
λ
–λt
N = N0e which gives E1 FG
E IJ E1 E1 3E1
N0
231. E4 – E2 = −
16 H
− − 1
4 K =
4
−
16
=
16
N = N0e–λ(1/λ) = N0 e−1 =
e 3E1 16E
or E= or E1 = .
(c) the half-life of the sample is given by 16 3
0.693 N
T1/2 = 232. = e − λt
λ N0
(d) the number of atoms left after a time equal to e
N0
seconds is given by = eλ t
N
N = N0e–λt ≠ λ
N0
(e) λ gives the fraction of atoms that has decayed af- loge = λt
N
δN
ter one second from the equation – = λδt for 1 1 N N0
N or t = log e 0 or t ∝ log e
δN λ N N
second λ = – .
N N0
A or t ∝ log 10
228. X → YA–4 + α N
(Parent nucleus) (Daughter nucleus)
8
As the parent nucleus is at rest, then according to 6 ∝ log10
1
conservation of momentum
0 = mYvY + mαvα N0
10 ∝ log10
or 0 = (A – 4)vY + 4v N
4v N0
or vY = – log 10
A−4 Dividing, N = 10
8 6
The negative sign indicates the recoil speed of daugh- log 10
1
ter nucleus.
738 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
or N0 5 1 24 25
log 10 = log 10 23 = R or λ =
N 3 λ 25 24 R
N0 25 × 1010 25000
or log10 = log10 25
N or λ= Å = Å
24 × 1.1 × 10 7 24 × 1.1
N0 N 1 = 946.96 Å ≈ 947 Å.
or = 25 = 32 or =
N N 0 32 237. Energy of photon = E3 – E2
Fraction that decays = 1 −
1
=
31
. LM − 13.6 + 13.6 OP eV = 13.6 LM − 1 + 1 OP eV
13.6Z2
32 32 =
N 3 2
2 Q
2
N 9 4Q
233. E=− eV 5
n2 = 13.6 × eV = 1.9 eV.
36
13.6 × 2 × 2 4 × 12 48
E=− eV = – 13.6 eV. 238.
4 T= = =3
4 + 12 16
234. Binding energy per nucleon for 21 H is 1.1 MeV N 1 1 1
= = =
∴ Binding energy = 2.2 MeV N0 212 / 3 24 16
Binding energy per nucleon for 42 He is 7 MeV N 100
× 100 = = 6.25 .
∴ Binding energy = 28 MeV N0 16
Energy released = [28 – 2 × 2.2] MeV 239. The half-life of the given radioactive sample is 140
days. In 420 days, there will be three half-lives.
= 23.6 MeV.
Therefore, (d) is correct.
FG 1IJ n
N FG IJ
1
n
235. N = N0
H 2K or
N0
=
2H K 240. eV =
hc
λ
or V =
hc
λe
25 1FG IJ n
6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108
100
=
2 H K or n = 2 or V=
0.2 × 10 −9 × 1.6 × 10 −19
volt » 6.2 kilo volt.
∴ Total time in which radium change to 25 g 241. From law of conservation of linear momentum
= 2 × 1600 years = 3200 years. v1 m2
=
n(n − 1) v2 m1
236. = 10
2 4
ρ × πr23 r3 8
On simplification, n = 5 v1 3
or = = 23 = .
Now,
1 LM
= R 1−
1 OP v2 ρ × 4 πr 3 r1 1
N Q
1
λ 25 3
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of Energy i.e. EA < EB < EC . If λ1 , λ2
and λ3 are wave lengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which
of the following relations is correct ?
λ1λ 2
(a) λ3 = (b) λ3 = λ1 + λ2 (c) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0 (d) λ32 = λ12 + λ22 [All India PM/PD 2005]
λ1 + λ 2
Sol. EC – EA = (EC – EB) + (EB – EA) ...(C)
hC hC hC
= + ...(B)
λ3 λ1 λ2
1 1 1
or = + ...(A)
λ3 λ1 λ2
1 λ + λ1 λ 1λ 2
or = 2 or λ3 =
λ3 λ 1λ 2 λ1 + λ2
So, (a) is the right choice.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 739
242. When an electron in the hydrogen atom moves from (b) the thick concrete shield is used to slow down the speed of
the second orbit to the third orbit, fast-neutrons
(a) both kinetic and potential energy decrease (c) heavy water (or graphite) moderates the activity of the
reactor.
(b) P.E. increases and K.E. decreases
(d) out of U238 and U235 natural uranium has less than 1% of
3
(c) the angular velocity increases by a factor U 235.
2
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
27
(d) the period of revolution increases by a factor . 247. Let An be the area enclosed by the nth orbit in a hy-
8
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1997] drogen atom. The graph of ln (An/A1) against ln (n)
243. When a photon stimulates the emission of another (a) will pass through the origin
photon, the two photons have (b) will be a straight line with slope 4
(a) same energy (b) same direction (c) will be a monotonically increasing non-linear curve
(c) same phase (d) same wavelength. (d) will be a circle.
244. A nitrogen nucleus 7N14 absorbs a neutron and can 248. 235
92 U is ‘α’(alpha) active. Then in a large quantity of
transform into lithium nucleus 3Li7 under suitable
the element
conditions, after emitting
(a) the probability of a nucleus disintegrating during one sec-
(a) 4 protons and 3 neutrons
ond is lower in the first half-life and greater in the fifth
(b) 5 protons and 1 negative beta particle half-life
(c) 2 alpha particles and 2 gamma particles (b) the probability of a nucleus disintegrating during one sec-
(d) 1 alpha particle, 4 protons and 2 negative beta particles ond remains constant for all time
(e) 4 protons and 4 neutrons. (c) every nucleus must integrate by the lapse of the average
245. It is observed that only 0.39% of the original radio- life of the population
active sample remains undecayed after eight hours. (d) quite an appreciable quantity of U235 will remain even
Hence after the average life
(a) the half-life that substance is 1 hour (e) the energy of the emitted ‘α’ particle is less than the disin-
(b) the mean life of the substance is 1/log 2 hour tegration energy of the U235 nucleus.
(c) decay constant of the substance is (log 2)/hour 249. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, for
(d) if the number of radio active nuclei of this substance at a the electron in the nth permissible orbit
given instant is 108 then the number left after 30 min. 1
(a) linear momentum ∝
n
would be 2 × 10 9 .
(b) radius of orbit ∝ n
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 2002] 1
(c) kinetic energy ∝
246. In a Nuclear reactor n2
(a) the chain reaction is kept under control by rods of cad- (d) angular momentum ∝ n.
mium, whose going in reduces the rate [National Standard Exam. in Physics 2000]
740 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
250. Which of the following products in a hydrogen atom 251. In case of radioactive radiations
are independent of the principal quantum number (a) some are not deviated by electric and magnetic fields
n? The symbols have their usual meanings (b) some carry negative charge
(a) vn (b) Er (c) all are electromagnetic waves
(c) En (d) vr. (d) all produce X-rays when suddenly stopped.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1999]
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l A radioactive material has a half-life of one hour. Then the fraction of the material that remains without disinte-
gration at the end of 4 hours is :
1 1 1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) (e)
2 4 8 16
[Kerala PMT 2003]
Solution. Number of half-lives, n = 4
N FG IJ = FG 1IJ
1
n 4
1
N0
=
H K H 2K
2
=
16
So, (e) is the right choice.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 741
SET IV MCQs
based on
TYPICAL NUMERICAL BANK
(Exclusively for Engineering Entrance Tests)
252. In hydrogen atom, the transition takes place from n = 3 259. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is
to n = 2. If Rydberg’s constant is 1.09 × 107 per metre, 5.3 × 10 –11 m. When struck by an electron, its radius is
the wavelength of the light emitted is found to be 21.2 × 10 –11 m. The principal quantum
(a) 6606 Å (b) 4861 Å number of the final state will be
(c) 4340 Å (d) 4101 Å. (a) 1 (b) 2
253. An alpha particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through (c) 3 (d) 4. [UGET 1999]
180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of the
260. The wavelength of the first line of Balmer series is 6563
closest approach is of the order of
Å. The Rydberg’s constant is
(a) 10 –15 cm (b) 10 –13 cm
(a) 1.09 × 105 per m (b) 1.09 × 106 per m
(c) 10 –12 cm (d) 10 –19 cm.
(c) 1.097 × 107 per m (d) 1.09 × 108 per m.
[JIPMER 1996]
261. A Hydrogen atom and a Li++ ion are both in the second
254. Certain radio-active substance reduces to 25% of its
excited state. If lH and lLi are their respective electronic
value in 16 days. Its half-life is
angular momenta, and EH and ELi their respective en-
(a) 32 days (b) 8 days
ergies, then
(c) 64 days (d) 28 days. [WB JEE 1997]
(a) lH > lLi and |EH| > |ELi |
255. The wavelength of radiation required to excite an elec-
(b) lH = lLi and |EH| < |ELi|
tron from first to third Bohr orbit in a doubly ionised
lithium atom will be (c) lH = lLi and |EH| > |ELi|
(a) 113.74 m (b) 113.74 cm (d) lH < lLi and |EH| < |ELi|. [IIT Screening 2002]
(c) 113.73 Å (d) 113.74 mm. [MNR 2000] 262. Imagine an atom made up of a proton and a hypotheti-
256. What is the age of an ancient wooden piece if it is known cal particle of double the mass of the electron but hav-
that the specific activity of C14 nuclide in it amounts to ing the same charge as the electron. Apply the Bohr atom
3 model and consider all possible transitions of this hy-
of that in freshly felled trees ? Given : the half-life of pothetical particle to the first excited level. The longest
5
14
C nuclide is 5570 years. wavelength photon that will be emitted has wavelength
(a) 1000 years (b) 2000 years λ (given in terms of the Rydberg constant R for the hy-
(c) 3000 years (d) 4000 years. drogen atom) equal to
257. A helium atom, a hydrogen atom and a neutron have 9 36
(a) (b)
masses of 4.003 u, 1.008 u and 1.009 u (unified atomic 5R 5R
mass units), respectively. Assuming that hydrogen at- 18 4
(c) (d) .
oms and neutrons can fuse to form helium, what is the 5R R
binding energy of a helium nucleus ? [IIT Screening 2000]
(a) 2.01 u (b) 2.014 u 263. The electric potential between a proton and an electron
(c) 1.017 u (d) 0.031 u r
is given by V = V0 ln r , where r0 is a constant. Assum-
(e) 0.0031 u. [London Schools Examination 0
Department] ing Bohr’s model to be applicable, write variation of rn
258. How many revolutions does an electron complete in one with n, n being the principal quantum number.
second in the first orbit of hydrogen atom ? (a) rn ∝ n (b) rn ∝ 1/n
(a) 6.67 × 10 15
(b) 100 (c) rn ∝ n2 (d) rn ∝ 1/n2 .
(c) 1000 (d) 1. [UGET 1998] [IIT Screening 2003]
742 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
3 259. rn ∝ n2
256. N = N0 e–λt
5 0 n′ 2 21.2 × 10 − 11 n′ 2
5 = or =4
eλt = n2 5.3 × 10 − 11 n2
3
n′ 2
5 5 or =4 or n′ = 2.
loge eλt = log e or λt = log e 12
3 3
1 5 1 1LM 1 OP
or t = log e
λ 3
260.
λ 2 N
=R 2 − 2
3 Q
T 0.693 1 L 1 1O
= R M − P or
1 5
=
0.693
× 0.5 T=
λ
or
λ N4 9Q λ
=R
36
5570 × 0.5 36 36
= years = 4018.7 years or R= = m–1
0.693 5λ 5 × 6563 × 10−10
≈ 4000 years.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 743
36000 1 9−4 1 5R
= × 107 m–1 = 1.097 × 107 m–1. or =R or =
5 × 6563 λ 36 λ 36
h 36
261. L=n or λ=
2π 5R
L same. 1
Again, λ∝
2
Z × 13.6 m
(En)Li = –
n2 Mass of hypothetical hydrogen atom is double.
13.6 1 36 18
(En)H = – 2 ∴ λ′ = × =
n 2 5R 5R
Clearly | EH | < | ELi |. − du mv2
1 1 F1 I 263. |F| =
dr
=
r
262.
λ
=R −GH
n12 n22
JK v0 r
⇒ v= which is a constant
For longest wavelength, m
n1 = 2, n2 = 3 nh
mvnrn =
1 1 LM
1 OP 1 1 1LM OP 2π
λ
=R 2 − 2
2 3 N Q or
λ
=R
4
−
N
9 Q rn ∝ n .
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
In each question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just
below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as :
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) If A is true but R is false.
(D) If both A and R are false.
(E) If A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A). Outside the nucleus, neutron is an unstable particle. Its half-life is nearly 12 minutes.
Reason (R). Outside the nucleus, deuterons are not available.
2. Assertion (A). A neutron and a proton kept together can form a deuteron only if their spins are parallel to each
other.
Reason (R). Nuclear forces are spin-dependent.
3. Assertion (A). The positive value of packing fraction implies a large value of binding energy.
Reason (R). The divergence of the nuclear mass from the nearest whole number per nucleon is called packing
fraction.
Key 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (E)
l The atomic number (Z) of an element whose kα wavelength is λ is 11. The atomic number of an element whose kα
wavelength is 4λ is equal to
(a) 6 (b) 11 (c) 44 (d) 4 [IIT Screening 2005]
1
Sol. For kα , ν ∝ (z – 1) or ∝ (z – 1)
λ
or λ∝ 1 or (z – 1)2 λ = constant
2
( z − 1)
(z – 1)2 (4λ) = (11 – 1)2 λ or z–1=5 or z = 6
So, (a) is the right choice.
744 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
SELF-EVALUATION TEST I
Based on Unit XVII
[Expected Questions for Forthcoming Examinations]
(c) x (d) none of these. (b) always more than its atomic number
(c) sometimes equal to its atomic number
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1991]
(d) sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic
12. Two electrons are revolving around a nucleus at dis- number. [All India PM/PD 2003]
tances ‘r’ and ‘4r’. The ratio of their periods is
21. Three photons coming from excited atomic-hydrogen
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 sample are picked up. Their energies are 12.1 eV, 10.2
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 8. eV and 1.9 eV. These photons must come from
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1998] (a) a single atom (b) two atoms
(c) three atoms
13. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioac-
tive substances during their decay ? (d) either two atoms or three atoms.
(a) electrons (b) protons 22. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of the hydrogen
13.6
(c) neutrinoes (d) helium nuclei. atom is given by En = – eV .
n2
[AIEEE 2003]
The energy required to raise an electron from the first
14. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer orbit to the second orbit will be
series (a) 10.2 eV (b) 12.1 eV
(a) it need not emit any more photon.
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 3.4 eV.
(b) it may emit another photon in the Paschen series.
23. In the above problem, the energy required to ionise hy-
(c) it must emit another photon in the Lyman series.
drogen atom is
(d) it may emit another photon in the Balmer series. (a) 10.2 eV (b) 13.6 eV
[KCET 2002] (c) 12.1 eV (d) 3.4 eV.
23
15. The sodium nucleus 11
Na contains 24. In question no. 22, the wavelength of the light emitted
(a) 11 electrons (b) 12 protons when the electron jumps from second to the first orbit is
(c) 23 protons (d) 12 neutrons. (a) 6563 Å (b) 4101 Å
(c) 4861 Å (d) 1212 Å.
[MP PET 2001]
25. The wavelength of the second line of Balmer series in
16. The order of the size of nucleus and Bohr radius of an
the hydrogen spectrum is 4861 Å. The wavelength of
atom respectively are the first line is
(a) 10–14 m, 10–10 m (b) 10–10 m, 10–8 m
27 20
(c) 10–20 m, 10–16 m (d) 10–8, 10–6 m. (a) × 4861 Å (b) × 4861 Å
20 27
[MP PET 2001]
(c) 20 × 4861 Å (d) 4861 Å.
17. A nucleus of mass 218 amu in free state decays to emit 26. If the mass of mu-meson is 207 times the mass of an
an alpha particle (mass 4 amu). The kinetic energy of electron, then the ratio of the radius of a mu-meson
the alpha particle is found to be 6.7 MeV. The recoil ground state orbit to that of corresponding electron or-
energy of the daughter nucleus (in Mev) is bit is nearly
(a) 6.7 × 4/214 (b) 6.7 × (4/214)2 1 FG 1 IJ 2
(c) 6.7 × 4/218 (d) 6.7 × (4/218)2 . (a)
207
(b)
H 207 K
{National Standard Exam. in Physics 1990] (c) 207 (d) (207)2.
746 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
27. In the previous question, the ratio of the ionisation po- 35. If radiations of all wavelengths from ultraviolet to infra
tential of the mu-meson in its ground state level to that red is passed through hydrogen gas at room tempera-
of the corresponding electron is nearly ture, absorption lines will be observed in
1 1 (a) Balmer series (b) Lyman series
(a) (b) 2 (c) both Lyman and Balmer series
207 (207)
(c) 207 (d) (207)2. (d) Lyman, Balmer and Paschen series. [KCET 2001]
28. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionisation 36. In the nuclear reaction 7N14 + 2He4 → X + 1H1 the
nucleus X is
potential ?
(a) 8N16 (b) 8N17
(a) 168 O (b) 147 N (c) 16 [KCET 2000]
(d) 8O17.
8O
(c) 133 Cs (d) 40 Ar . [AIEEE 2003] 37. Two alpha-particles with equal energies are fired
55 18
towards the nucleus of a gold atom.
29. The density of nucleus in kg/m3 is of the order of
Which diagram could represent their paths (in the plane
(a) 104 (b) 109 of the paper ?
(c) 1013 (d) 1017. [MP PMT 2000]
30. 1 amu is equivalent to A B
(a) 1.6 × 10–12 J (b) 1.6 × 10–19 J
(c) 1.5 × 10–10 J (d) 1.5 × 10–19 J.
[MP PET 2001] Gold nucleus Gold nucleus
31. A nucleus has a nucleon number A, a proton number Z,
and a binding energy B. The masses of the neutron and C D
proton are mn and mp , respectively, and c is the speed
of light. The mass of the nucleus is given by the expres-
sion
Gold nucleus Gold nucleus
(a) (A – Z)mn + Zmp – B/c2 (b) (A + Z)mn + Zmp + B/c2
(c) Amn + Zmp – B/c2 (d) Amn + Zmp + B/c2. Fig. 33
32. In order to trace the line of a water-pipe buried about (a) A (b) B
half a metre below the surface of a field, an engineer (c) C (d) D.
proposes to add a radioactive isotope to the water. Which
38. Which sketch graph best represents the variation of bind-
sort of isotope should he choose ? ing energy per nucleon with nucleon number ?
Emitter Half-life
(a) α a few hours Binding Binding
energy energy
(b) β a few hours per per
(c) β several years nucleon nucleon
(d) γ a few hours
Nucleon number Nucleon number
(e) γ several years.
(a) (b)
33. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from
(a) inner orbits of atoms Binding Binding
(b) free electrons existing in nuclei energy energy
per per
(c) decay of a neutron in a nucleus nucleon nucleon
(d) photon escaping from the nucleus. [IIT 2001]
Nucleon number Nucleon number
34. An atom of mass number A and atomic number Z emits
(c) (d)
successively an α-particle, β-particle and γ-rays. The
mass number and atomic number of the end product Fig. 34
are 39. Fig. 35 shows the principle of a simple form of mass
(a) A, Z + 1 (b) A – 1, Z – 4 spectrometer. Ions are passed through narrow slits S1
(c) A – 4, Z – 1 (d) A – 4, Z + 2. and S2 and into a velocity selector. The selected ions,
[KCET 2000] after passage through the slit S3 ,are deviated by the
uniform magnetic field.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 747
47. An event on a distant star causes the emission of a burst (c) As the photon moves out against strong gravitational at-
of radiation containing β-particles, γ-rays and light. traction, its energy decreases. So, frequency is expected
Which one of the following statements about the order to decrease. This is called gravitational shift.
in which these radiations arrive at, the Earth is (d) The neutrons emitted in fission need not be slowed down
correct ? to cause further fission.
(a) the light would arrive first 49. The ionising power is
(b) the γ-rays would arrive first
(a) same in all the three (b) maximum in α-particles
(c) the light and the γ-rays would arrive together, ahead of
(c) maximum in β-particles (d) maximum in γ-rays.
the β-particles
(d) the light and the β-particles would arrive together, ahead 50. The difference of energies between first two energy level
of the γ-rays of hydrogen atom is 10.2 eV. The same energy differ-
(e) all three would arrive together. ence for an atom with charge number 10 and mass
48. Which of the following is incorrect ? number 20 will be
(a) Fission yields greater energy per atom. (a) 2040 eV (b) 1020 eV
(b) Fusion yields greater energy per unit mass. (c) 510 eV (d) 102 eV.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a)
17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (d)
33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d)
49. (b) 50. (b).
Solutions
1 10− 14 FG 1 − 1 IJ c.
1.
10
× 3 × 108 =
t
5. Frequency = R
H2 ∞ K2 2
10 − 14 × 10 1 4
t= s= × 10–21 s. Hence, λ=
3 × 10 8 3 R
2. Cathode rays are streams of fast moving electrons. 1 F1 − 1I
3. – 13.6 + 10.2 = – 3.4 eV
6.
λ
∝ GH n n JK
1
2
2
2
− 13.6 13.6
= – 3.4 or n2 = =4 FG 1 − 1 IJ
n2 3.4
λ min. H2 3 K = 5.
2 2
or n=2
λ max.
=
FG 1 − 1 IJ 9
Increase in angular momentum =
h
2π
H 2 ∞K
2
14
N + 42 He → 178 O + 11 H 13.6 13.6
7 22. E=– 2 – (– 13.6) = –
+ 13.6
2 4
Hence the emitted particle is a proton.
= (13.6 – 3.4)eV = 10.2 eV
9. The amplifier is installed to amplify the pulse voltage
23. Ionisation energy + (– 13.6eV) = 0
generated across the high resistor R in the tube due to
or Ionisation energy = 13.6 eV.
the sudded ‘discharge’ occcurs between the anode and
cothode in the tube. 24. 1 LM
1 1 OP
The counter (scaler) counts the actual number of pulses λ
=R −
1 4N Q
from the Geiger Miller tube. On the other hand a 1 3 4
=R× or λ =
ratemeter gives directly the average number of pulse λ 4 3R
per second or count rate from the tube. Only state-
4 × 1010
ment d gives corectly the function of one of the compo- or λ= Å = 1212 Å.
3 × 1.1 × 107
nents (ratemeter) in the Geiger-Miller tube.
11. Event and observer in same frame, hence no change in 1 LM
1 1
=R 2 − 2
OP
value.
25.
λ2 2 N4 Q
12. T2 ∝ R3 1 L 1 1 OP
=RM −
TR FG IJ
R
3/ 2
FG 1IJ 3/2 λ2 N 4 16 Q
T4R
−
4RH K =
H 4K 1 L3O
= R M P or λ2 =
16
λ 2 N 16 Q 3R
=
1
Again,
1
=RM
L 1 − 1 OP
8
λ 1 N2 3 Q2 2
14. For Balmer series, the electron is finally still in the
excited state. It has to reach the ground state by emit-
1 L 1 1O
=RM − P
ting a photon. λ1 N4 9Q
15. 23 – 11 = 12. 1 5R 36
= or λ1 =
17. Momentum conservation p(daughter) = p(alpha) in λ 1 36 5R
p2 λ 1 36 3R 27
magnitude. Since K.E = therefore the correct = × = × 4861 Å
2m λ 2 5R 16 20
choice is (a).
27
18. Becquerel is the SI unit of redioactivity. or λ1 =× 4861 Å.
20
1 Bq = 1 decay/s 1
26. r∝
1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 Bq. m
19. Since nuclear density is constant therefore mass ∝ 27. Ionisation potential ∝ m
volume. 28. 133 Cs largest size ; Electrons in outermost orbit “maxi-
55
20. Mass number = atomic number + number of neutrons. mum” away from the nucleus. So, easy ionisation ;
In the case of hydrogen, the number of neutrons is zero. minimum potential.
So, mass number = atomic number 30. 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
So, mass number is sometimes equal to atomic number. Now, E = 1.66 × 10–27 × 3 × 108 × 3 × 108 J
21. If the electron jumps from n3 level to n1 level, then = 1.49 × 10–10 J.
photon of energy 12.1eV is emitted. 31. The neutron number is A – Z. By considering the bind-
ing energy of the nuclide, we may write.
If the electron jumps from n3 level to n2 level, then 1.9
[(A – Z)mn + Zmp – mass of the-nucleus]c2 = B.
eV photon is emitted. If the electron jumps from n2
B
level to n1 level, then 10.2 eV photon is emitted. Clearly i.e., mass of the nucleus = (A – Z)mn + Zmp – 2 .
these transitions are possible in minimum two atoms c
32. Among the three types of radiation, γ-rays can
and maximum three atoms.
penetrate metal much better than the α-particles and
750 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
14N
6 2. the total charge number is constant before and af-
6Li ter the reaction.
4
We check that the mass number is 238 before the de-
2 2H 238
cay of 92 U takes place and increases to 239 after the
238
O 20 60 100 220 240 decay of 92 U has taken place which does not agree
Mass number, 4
with the law of conservation of mass. Hence, the decay
238 239
Fig. 37 of 92 U to 93 Np
by β-emission is not possible.
Variation of binding energy per nucleon with mass number.
43. 1
=R
1 1
−
LM OP
Excluding the nuclei lighter than 12C, we can see from
the diagram that the average binding energy per nu-
λ1 4 9 N Q
1 R×5 36
cleon. E/A, is fairly constant for the great majority of = or λ1 =
nuclei. The average value is about 8 MeV per nucleon. λ1 36 5R
The peak occurs at approximately the iron nucleus 56Fe
Again,
1
=R
1
=
R LM OP or λl =
4
which is therefore one of the most stable nuclei. λl 4 4 N Q R
39. The ions emitting from S3 must have the same veloc- λ1 36 R 9
E = × =
ity v = , after which they undergo circular path with λl 5 R 4 5
B
radius r given by 9
or λ1 =
× 3646 Å = 6562.8 Å.
mv m FG IJ FG v IJ = FG m IJ FG E IJ 5
r=
B1q
=
q H K H B K H q K H BB K
1 1
44. The following statements are true for α- particles or
X-rays or both.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 751
(a) They cause ionisation of the air when they pass 46. Disintegration of the radioactive isotope occurs
through it. exponentially according to the equation
(b) only X-rays can be detected after passing through
a few millimetres of aluminium. dN
A= = − λN
(c) only α-particles can be deflected by electric fields. dt
(d) only α-particles can be deflected by magnetic fields. A is the activity or rate of decay.
(e) only X-rays are used industrially for the photo- where λ is the decay constant.
graphic detection of flaws in metal castings. N is the number of disintegrating atoms.
45. When the nucleus of an atom absorbs one of the at- When it becomes a stable nuclide, no further disinte-
om’s orbital electrons, its total mass (nucleon) number gration is possible and hence activity A has to be zero.
A is constant before and after the event occurs. The
proton number Z is reduced by 1 since absorption of 47. Both light and γ-rays travel at speed of light since they
an electron of its own has increased the neutron are electromagnetic waves. β-particles are fast mov-
number by 1. ing electrons at high speed near to speed of light. There-
Therefore, M and N are the atoms before and after the fore, both the light and the γ-rays would arrive together,
event, then the event can be written as ahead of the β-particles.
A 0 A 50. 100 × 10.2 = 1020 eV.
ZM + −1X → Z − 1N
which is best represented by equation in (a).
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Radioactive nuclei that are injected into a patient collect at certain sites within its body, undergoing radioactive decay
and emitting electromagnetic radiation. These radiations can then be recorded by a detector. This procedure provides
an important diagnostic tool called
(a) Gamma camera. (b) CAT scan.
(c) Radiotracer technique. (d) Gamma ray spectroscopy. [AIIMS 2003]
Solution. Radiotracer technique is being widely used for diagnostic tests. For example, to know the exact position
where the haemorrhage has taken place in the body, blood labelled with radioisotope chromium 51Cr is injected into
the patient. If there is no haemorrhage, the radioactivity is distributed throughout the circulatory system. But if
there is a haemorrhage, there will be a marked increase of radioactivity in the region where haemorrhage is taking
place.
So, (c) is the right choice.
SELF-EVALUATION TEST II
Based on UNIT XVII
DIRECTIONS :
(i) MCQs 1 to 24 have one correct alternative.
(ii) MCQs 25 to 30 have more than one correct alternative.
(iii) MCQs 31 to 35 have one or more than one correct alternative.
1. The possible number of values of magnetic orbital quan- 6. A hydrogen atom moving with velocity u collides
tum number m can take are inelastically with another hydrogen atom at rest. Both
(a) 2l – 1 (b) 2l the atoms are in the ground state before collision. The
(c) 2l + 1 (d) 3l + 1. minimum value of u, so that one of the atoms get ex-
cited, will be
2. Electrons emitted by a hot filament pass down a tube
(a) 3.25 × 106 m s–1 (b) 9.25 × 105 m s–1
containing hydrogen and are then collected by an an-
ode which is maintained at a positive potential with (c) 6.25 × 10 m s
4 –1
(d) 6.25 × 103 m s–1.
respect to the filament. The gas near the anode is found 7. Masses to two isobars 29Cu64 and 30Zn64 are 63.9298u
to emit monochromatic ultra-violet radiation. The ra- and 63.9292u respectively. It can be concluded from
diation is monochromatic because these data that
(a) the nuclei emitting it are identical. (a) both the isobars are stable.
(b) the atoms emitting it each contain only one electron. (b) Zn64 is radioactive decaying to Cu64 through β-decay.
(c) the electrons gain only enough energy to raise the hy- (c) Cu64 is radioactive, decaying to Zn64 through γ-decay.
drogen atoms to their first excited state. (d) Cu64 is radioactive, decaying to Zn64 through γ-decay.
(d) the potential difference between the filament and the [IIT 1997]
anode is less than the ionisation potential of hydrogen.
8. The existence of energy levels within atoms can be dem-
(e) the energy of the electrons is less than the energy of a
quantum of light.
onstrated directly by observing that
(a) atoms can emit line spectra .
3. The radius of the shortest orbit in a one-electron system
(b) photoelectrons are only emitted for wavelengths greater
is 18 pm. It may be
than a critical wavelength .
(a) hydrogen (b) deuterium
(c) some α-particles are reflected back through very large
(c) He+ (d) Li++. angles by atoms in a solid .
4. The wavelength of radiation emitted is λ0 when an elec- (d) X-rays with frequencies up to a certain maximum are
tron in Hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to emitted by a target .
second. If in the Hydrogen atom itself, the electron jumps (e) atoms in a solid diffract electrons in the same way as
from fourth orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of crystals diffract X-rays .
emitted radiation will be 9. The wavelength of yellow line of sodium is 5896 Å. Its
16 20 wave number will be
(a) λ (b) λ (a) 50883 × 1010 per second (b) 16961 per cm
25 0 27 0
27 25 (c) 17581 per cm (d) 50883 per cm.
(c) λ (d) λ . [MP PET 2001]
20 0 16 0 [MP PET 2001]
5. The deviation of α-particles by thin metal foils through 10. In a mass-spectrometer, an ion of mass m and charge q
angles that range from 0° to 180° can be explained by enters a region of uniform magnetic field acting
(a) scattering from free electrons perpendicularly to the original line of flight. The
(b) scattering from bound electrons resulting path is
(c) diffuse reflections from the metals surface (a) circular and of radius proportional to m/q.
(d) scattering from small but heavy regions of positive charge (b) circular and of radius proportional to q/m.
(c) helical and of radius proportional to q/m.
(e) diffraction from the crystal lattice.
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 753
(d) parabolic with a displacement from the original path pro- 13. Binding energy per
20. The count rate of activity of a radioactive sample of a tained between them. A
very large population decreased from 1024 to 128 in 3 collimated beam of sin-
minutes. Then the rate of disintegration at the end of 5 gly charged positive ions
minutes is is injected at S1 Fig. 44
(a) 96 (b) 64 Given that the incident beam contains ions of different
(c) 48 (d) 32. masses and speeds, the beam which emerges at S3 con-
21. The elastic collision between an alpha-particle and a tains only ions that have the same
stationary helium atom was observed in a cloud cham- (a) mass (b) specific charge
ber. Given that all three tracks in each diagram lie in (c) speed (d) kinetic energy
the plane of the paper, which one of the following dia-
(e) momentum.
grams could illustrate the tracks obtained ?
24. Fig. 45 shows a graph of the binding energy per nu-
cleon for a number of naturally-occurring nuclides plot-
ted against their mass number.
9
a a
Binding energy per nucleon/MeV
8 27
Al
13
(a) (b) 7 238
23 U
Na 92
6 11
a a 4
(c) (d)
3
2
a
(e) 2
1 H
1
(d) 27 Al will not spontaneously emit an alpha particle to 28. In a nuclear fission,
13
(a) in elements of high atomic mass number , energy is re-
23
become 11 Na . leased
(b) linear momentum and total energy are conserved, but
(e) 238
92
U is the stable end-point of a number of radioactive not angular momentum
series.
(c) linear momentum, angular momentum and total energy
25. A large population of radioactive nuclei starts are conserved
disintegrating at t = 0. At time t, if N = number of parent (d) the probability of neutron being absorbed by a fission-
nuclei present, D = the number of daughter nuclei able nucleus increases when the neutrons are slowed
present and R = rate at which the daughter nuclei are down.
produced, then the correct representation will be 29. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) Heavy nuclei have more number of protons than neu-
trons.
(b) Heavy nuclei have more number of neutrons than pro-
tons.
N D (c) Heavy nuclei are likely to undergo fission than fusion.
(d) Heavy nuclei are more likely to undergo fusion than
fission.
30. When the atomic number A of the nucleus increases,
t t (a) initially the neutron-proton ratio is constant = 1
(a) (b) (b) initially neutron-proton ratio increases and later decreases
(c) initially binding energy per nucleon increases and later
decreases
(d) the binding energy per nucleon increases when the
R neutron-proton ratio increases.
D
N 31. The probability of disintegration per second of a nucleus
in a given radio-active sample
(a) increases proportional to the life time lived by the nucleus
(b) decreases with the life time lived
t t
(c) (d) (c) is independent of the life time lived
(d) depends upon the total number of identical nuclei present
Fig. 46 in the sample.
32. Which of the following is correct for a nuclear reactor ?
26. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct ?
(a) A typical fission is represented by
(a) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum of
the rest masses of its separated nucleons. 92
U235 + 0n1 → 56
B143 + 36Kr93 + energy
(b) Heavy water (D2O) is used as moderator in preference to
(b) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the
ordinary water (H2O) because H may capture neutrons,
sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons.
while D would not do that.
(c) In nuclear fusion, energy is released by fusing two nu-
(c) Cadmium rods increase the reactor power when they go
clei of medium mass (approximately 100 amu).
IN, and decrease when they go OUTWARDS
(d) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation
(d) Slower neutrons are more effective in causing fission than
of a very heavy nucleus.
faster neutrons in the case of U(235).
27. The instability of the nucleus can be due to various
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1993]
causes. An unstable nucleus emits radiations if possi-
ble to transform into less unstable state. Then the cause 33. An electron orbiting around the nucleus of an atom
and the result can be (a) has a magnetic dipole moment
(a) a nucleus of excess nucleons is α active (b) exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it
by the nucleus
(b) an excited nucleus of excess protons is β active
–
34. A negative charge is revolving around a fixed positive 35. Fig. 47 shows Bohr orbit of
charge in a circular orbit. If the classical idea of an electron in H-atom, the elec-
accelerating charge radiating energy is valid, then the tron going clockwise. The mag-
negative charge will netic field is normal to the or-
(a) spiral towards the positive charge, with increasing bit and into the plane of paper
kinetic energy (away from observer). Now,
(b) spiral towards the positive charge with potential energy which of the following is cor-
Fig. 47
decreasing at a faster rate than increase in its kinetic rect ?
energy (a) The orbital angular momentum is into the plane of pa-
(c) spiral away from the positive charge and finally escape per.
from the binding of the positive charge (b) The orbital magnetic moment is out of the plane of pa-
(d) revolve around the positive charge with increasing fre- per.
quency of revolution. (c) The orbital frequency in presence of this magnetic field
is higher than the normal value in Bohr orbit.
(d) The Bohr orbits of all the H-atoms in a sample would
align the same way in the given magnetic field.
[National Standard Exam. in Physics 1992]
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (e) 12. (e) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c)
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (a), (b), (c), (d) 26. (a), (d) 27. (a), (c), (d) 28. (a), (c), (d) 29. (b), (c) 30. (a), (c) 31. (c), (d) 32. (b), (d)
33. (a), (b), (c), (d) 34. (a), (b), (d) 35. (a), (b), (c).
Solutions
2. Before Bohr’s theory of separate energy levels of the Thus monochromatic ultraviolet radiation is observa-
hydrogen atom, it was found that the wavelengths of tion because the electrons gain only enough energy to
the hydrogen spectrum could be arranged in a formula raise the hydrogen atoms to their first excited state
or series named after its discoverer. The visible spec- corresponding to n = 2.
trum was the Balmer series, the ultraviolet was the 3. Radius of shortest orbit of hydrogen atom
Lyman series and the infra red was the Paschen se- = 0.53 × 10–10 m = 53 × 10–12 m
ries.
= 53 pm
Bohr’s theory of energy levels accounted for all the se-
Radius of hydrogen-like atom
ries
(1) the ultraviolet series, for example, is obtained when Radius of hydrogen atom
=
energy of the atom falls to the lowest energy level Z
E1 (– 13.6 eV) correspond to n = 1. 53
∴ Z= ≈ 3.
(2) the visible spectrum is obtained for energy falls to 18
the first excited state E2 (– 3.4 eV) corresponding 1 LM
1 1OP
to n = 2. 4.
λ0 2N
=R 2 – 2
3 Q
(3) the infra red spectrum is obtained for energy falls
to the second excited state E3 (– 1.5 eV) correspond- 1 L 1 1 O 5R
=RM – P =
ing to n = 3. λ0 N 4 9 Q 36
ATOMIC NUCLEUS 757
36 v2
R= qBv = m
5λ0 r
1 1 LM
1 OP where v is the speed of the ion of mass m and charge q
Again,
λ
=R 2 – 2
2 4N Q mv m FG IJ FG v IJ which is directly proportional
1 36 4–1
∴ r=
qB
=
q H K H BK
= ×
λ 50λ 0 16 m
to .
1 36 × 3 q
= λ0
λ 5 × 16 11. Red line has a wavelength λt of about 0.7 µm which is
longer than that of green light λg at about 0.55 µm
1 27 20
= λ 0 or λ = λ0 c
λ 20 27 From f = where c is the speed of light, red line thus
5. The deviation of α-particles by thin metal foils through λ
angles that range from 0° to 180° was found in an ex- has a lower frequency ft compared to that of green line
fg. Since energy change E due to transition between
periment conducted by Geiger and Marsden in 1890 to
levels gives rise to electromagnetic radiation is
investigate the scattering of α-particles. The scatter-
proportional to its frequency f where E = hf, the energy
ing of α-particles is due to presence of small but highly
change for the red line must be smaller than that of
concentrated positive charge at the heart or centre of the green line. The possible transitions for the red line
the atom. Those particles very close to the nucleus are are the E2 to E1, E3 to E2,E4 to E2 and E4 to E3 to E3
deflected through a large angle since the repulsive force transitions.
is then very big. hc
6. Loss in energy in inelastic collision The energy change for the red line is Et =
λ
1 m1m2 (6.63 × 10 –34 ) (3 × 108 )
= (u1 – u2 )2
2 m1 + m2 =
0.7 × 10–6
1 m 2 mu2 = 2.84 eV
= u =
2 2 4 hc
The energy change for the green line is Eg =
λ
mu2
Now = 10.2 × 1.6 × 10–19 (6.63 × 10 –34 ) (3 × 108 )
4 =
0.55 × 10–6
4 × 10.2 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.62 eV
or u= –27 m s–1
1.67 × 10 Et 2.84
=
= 6.25 × 104 m s–1 Now E g 3.62 ≈ 0.8
7. 64 → 30Zn64 + –1e0
29Cu Thus, the line drawn on the diagram corresponds to
In beta decay, atomic number increases by 1 whereas the energy change Et for the red line should be about
atomic mass number remains unchanged. 0.8 times the length of the line drawn for the transi-
8. The fact that the emission spectrum of an atom has tion from E3 to E1 for the green line.
lines that are separated is experimental evidence for Thus, the red line must be produced by the transition
the existence of separate or ‘quantised’ energy levels from E2 to E1.
in atom.
12. The perpendicular fields of magnetic B and electric E
1 108 pull on the ions in opposite directions.
9. ν= = cm–1
5896 × 10 –8 5896 When equal, electric force qE = magnetic force Bqv
= 16960.6 cm–1 ≈ 16961 cm–1. E
or E = Bv ∴ v =
10. Since the force is always normal to the velocity of the B
ion and is constant, the resulting path is a circular This arrangement of perpendicular electric and mag-
one. The radius r of the curve is computed from the netic fields is therefore called a ‘velocity selector’ since
magnetic centripetal force. Thus it only allows ions through S3 which have the same
velocity V equals to E/B.
758 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
about 80 undergoes fusion with any other nucleus, 35. (a) Yes, r × p is into plane of paper.
the binding energy per nucleon of the product (b) Yes, because of –ve charge sign.
nucleus is increased and there is again loss of → → → →
potential energy by the fusion process. Thus, energy (c) v × B is away from centre, q v × B is thus towards
is released as the kinetic energy of the product the centre. Hence, frequency increases.
nucleus when light nuclei are fused together. (d) No, there will be distribution, though more towards
(d) As explained in (c), the light sodium nucleus Na alignment.
can be fused together with the α-particle to produce
KNOWLEDGE PLUS
l Characteristic X-rays are produced due to :
(a) transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with target atoms.
(b) transition of electrons from higher to lower electronic orbits in an atom.
(c) heating of the target.
(d) transfer of energy in collision of electrons with atoms in the target. [AIIMS 2003]
Solution. When high energy electron hits the target and takes out an electron from inner orbit, there is a possibility
of an outer electron to fall down to fill up that vacancy. When such a transition of electron takes place from higher
energy level to lower energy level, the difference of energy between the two levels is given off in the form of radiation
known as characteristic X-rays.
So, (b) is the right choice.
UNIT XVIII
UNIT DETAILS
2. Illustrations 15 Plus
4. Self-Evaluation Tests 2
SYNOPSIS
1. INTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTOR energy required to detach this fifth electron from the atom is
It is a pure semiconductor i.e. it is free from impuri- of the order of only 0.05 eV for silicon. It is considerably less
ties. In this semiconductor, the valence band and the conduc- than the energy required to break a covalent bond. This small
tion band are separated by nearly 1 eV. The energy gap in the amount of energy is easily provided by the thermal agitation
case of silicon is 1.1 eV. In the case of Germanium, it is 0.74 of the crystal. Thus, the fifth valence electron can move about
eV. In terms of energy bands, the position of a semiconductor almost as freely as an electron in a metal—almost free because
lies between a metallic conductor and an insulator. it is always having a weak interaction with the parent atom.
Silicon and Germanium are the best examples of semi- The force of attraction between the positively charged (+ 5)
conductors because these are the most widely used semicon- impurity ion and this mobile electron is weakened by the
ductors. dielectric constant of the medium. This means that such
electrons from impurity atoms will have energies slightly less
2. DOPING A SEMICONDUCTOR
than the energies of electrons in the conduction band. In the
Following are the three different methods of doping a
energy band picture, the energy state corresponding to the
semiconductor.
fifth valence electron is in the forbidden gap and is slightly
(i) The crystal is heated in an atmosphere containing below the conduction band. The energy level is indicated by
dopant atoms. The dopant atoms diffuse into the hot crystal. the dashed line in Fig. 2. This level is called the donor level.
(ii) The impurity atoms are added in the molten state
of semiconductor. Valence
electrons
(iii) The intrinsic semiconductor is bombarded by ions +4 +4 +4
of impurity atoms.
Covalent Free
bond
3. N-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR electron
763
C-11\IITS\C18-1
764 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
When the fifth valence In a P-type semiconductor, holes are the majority
Conduction
electron is transferred to the cond- band charge carriers and the free electrons are the minority charge
uction band, the parent impurity carriers.
atom becomes positively charged Donor
Like in an N-type semiconductor, a P-type semicon-
immobile ion. In this way, each level ductor also satisfies the relation
impurity atom donates a free Valence pn = pi ni = ni2
electron to the semiconductor. Such band
For each impurity atom, there is a free hole in the va-
impurity elements are called lence band but there is no corresponding generation of free
donors. It is for this reason that N- Fig. 2 electron in the conduction band. So, p > pi but n < ni.
type semiconductor is sometimes
called donor-type semiconductor. 6. FORWARD-BIASED PN JUNCTION DIODE
While the holes of the P-side are repelled by the posi-
4. CARRIER CONCENTRATION IN N-TYPE SEMI- tive terminal of the battery, the electrons of the N-side are
CONDUCTOR repelled by the negative terminal of the battery.
If n and p represent the electron and hole concentra- P N
tions respectively in N-type semiconductor, then it can be
shown that – – – – – + + + + +
np = ni pi = ni2 – – – – – + + + + +
– – – – – + + + + +
where ni and pi are the intrinsic values.
– – – – – + + + + +
5. P-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR
When an elemental semiconductor of Group IV such
as Si or Ge is doped with a trivalent impurity (an element of
Group III such as Indium, Boron or Gallium), we get P-type
+ –
semiconductor. Fig. 5
– – – – – + + + + +
– – – – – + + + + +
– – – – – + + + + +
– – – – – + + + + +
Depletion region
Fig. 3 Fig. 4
diode and only a few nA for ance of the diode is almost independent of the applied volt-
silicon diode). It remains age. The corresponding region of the forward characteristic is
small and approximately called linear region.
constant for all voltages less
than the breakdown voltage 12. LIMITATIONS OF A DIODE
V z . At breakdown, the Fig. 8 (i) A diode merely converts AC into DC and its input
current increases rapidly for and output circuits are not separate.
small increases in voltage. (ii) A diode cannot give amplification i.e., diode cannot
This is because the covalent bonds near the junction increase the amplitude of the signal.
break down and a large number of electron-hole pairs are
liberated. The breakdown voltage is also called Zener voltage 13. ZENER DIODE
(after the American physicist, Clarence Zener). Zener diode is a PN P N
10. RELATION BETWEEN V AND I FOR A PN junction diode specially de-
JUNCTION DIODE—A QUANTITATIVE STUDY signed to work only in the re-
The current I flowing in a PN junction diode is related verse breakdown region. Fig. 9
to the voltage V applied across the diode by the following Fig. 9 shows the symbolic repre-
relation. sentation of a Zener diode.
766 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Zener diode is made from highly doped P and N type The current is carried by holes inside the transistor and
semiconductors. Its power rating is kept high so that it is not by electrons in the external circuit.
damaged by the large reverse current. The voltage across such In the emitter-base external circuit, the flow of elec-
a diode remains constant. trons is from P to N. So, the conventional current IE flows
The Zener diodes are used for making constant volt- from N to P. In the collector-base external circuit, the flow of
age power supplies. An experimental arrangement employ- electrons is from base to collector. So, the conventional cur-
ing Zener diode is shown in Fig. 10. The Zener diode is con- rent IC flows from collector to base. The difference between IE
nected to fluctuating voltage supply through a resistor R. This and IC is the base current IB. It flows in the direction of IE.
resistor is called dropping resistor. The constant voltage out- The relation between the three currents is as under :
put is taken across a load resistance RL connected in parallel
IE = IB + IC
with the diode.
R 15. WORKING OF NPN TRANSISTOR
Emitter Collector
junction junction
N N P N
NPN
Fluctuating Constant E C
RL voltage supply
voltage supply
P
B
IE IB IC
IE IC
IB
Fig. 10
– + – + – + – +
VEB VCB VEB VCB
14. WORKING OF PNP TRANSISTOR
The emitter-base junction is always forward-biased with (a) (b)
the help of voltage VEB. The collector-base junction is always
reverse biased with the help of voltage VCB. Fig. 12
The holes in the emitter are pushed into the base by The working of the NPN transistor can be studied with
the electrostatic influence of the positive terminal of the the help of the circuit shown in Fig. 12. While Fig. 12 (a) gives
battery of voltage VEB. Since the base is thin and only slightly the block diagram, Fig. 12 (b) is the equivalent circuit in which
doped therefore only a few holes (say, 1%) combine with the symbol of NPN transistor has been used. The emitter
electrons in the base. So, the base current IB is small. junction is forward-biased with the help of the emitter-base
battery of voltage VEB. The collector junction is reverse biased
Emitter
junction
Collector with the help of collector-base battery of voltage VCB.
junction
P N P The electrons in the emitter are pushed into the base.
PNP Since the base is thin and only slightly doped therefore a very
E C
small fraction (say, 1%) of the incoming electrons combine
e with the holes. Moreover, the electrons are rushing towards
B the collector.
IE IC
IE IC IB The electrons collected by the collector move towards
IB
the positive terminal of the collector-base battery. The defi-
e
+ – + – ciency of these electrons is made up by the electrons released
+ – + – VEB VCB from the negative terminal of the emitter-base battery. Thus,
VEB VCB
we conclude that the current is carried by electrons both in the
(a) (b) external circuit as well as inside the transistor.
Fig. 11 IE = IC + IB
SOLIDS AND SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION 767
16. TRANSISTOR AS COMMON BASE AMPLIFIER If we assume that 5% of emitter current appears as
(i) NPN Transistor as Common Base Amplifier base current due to electron-hole combination in base, then
95% of the emitter current flows as collector current.
NPN IB = 5% of IE = 0.05 IE
IE E C IC
and IC = 95% of IE = 0.95 IE
IC
B
–
ICRL
The collector current IC flowing through the load re-
RL sistance RL produces a potential drop ICRL across the load
VCB
+
IC resistance RL. This voltage drop ICRL is clearly in opposition
IB +
Input to the applied voltage VCC.
VCC
Output signal
signal ∴ Net collector voltage, VCB = VCC – ICRL ...(1)
–
IC (Amplified)
– +
When the input signal (signal to be amplified) is fed to
IE IC
VEE the emitter-base circuit, it will change the emitter voltage
and hence the emitter current. This, in turn, will change the
Fig. 13 collector current. This will vary the collector voltage VCB in
accordance with equation (1). This variation of collector volt-
IB = 5% of IE = 0.05 IE
age will appear as an amplified output.
and IC = 95% of IE = 0.95 IE
Phase relationship between the output and in-
The collector current IC flowing through the load re- put signals
sistance RL produces a potential drop ICRL across the load
When PNP transistor is used as common base
resistance RL. This voltage drop ICRL is clearly in opposition amplifier, the output and input signals are in the same
to the applied voltage VCC. phase. The output signal (amplified signal) follows exactly
∴ Net collector voltage, VCB = VCC – ICRL ...(1) all the variations of the input signal.
When the input signal (signal to be amplified) is fed to
17. VARIOUS GAINS IN COMMON BASE
the emitter-base circuit, it will change the emitter voltage AMPLIFIER
and hence the emitter current. This, in turn, will change the
(1) Current amplification factor or current gain
collector current. This will vary the collector voltage VCB in
Its value depends upon whether the current is direct
accordance with equation (1). This variation of collector volt-
current or alternating current.
age will appear as an amplified output.
(i) dc current gain (α αdc)
Phase relationship between the output and in-
It is the ratio of the collector current (I C) to the
put signals
emitter current (IE) at constant collector voltage.
When NPN transistor is used as common base
FI I
amplifier, the output and input signals are in the same
phase. The output signal (amplified signal) follows exactly
αdc = GH I JK
C
E V
CB
all the variations of the input signal. The d.c. current gain is always less than one. Its value
(ii) PNP Transistor as Common Base Amplifier generally varies from 0.95 to 0.98.
(ii) ac current gain (α αac)
IE PNP It is the ratio of change in collector current (∆ ∆IC)
IC
E C to the change in emitter current (∆ ∆IE) at constant col-
+
lector voltage.
B RL ICRL
F ∆I I
IB
VCB
–
– ∴ αac = GH ∆I JK
C
E V
Input CB
VCC
signal Output signal (2) ac voltage gain
It is the ratio of change in output voltage to the
+
IC (Amplified)
IE + – I IC change in input voltage. It is denoted by Av.
VEE E
∆VCB
ac voltage gain, Av =
Fig. 14 ∆Vi
Using Kirchhoff’s first law, IE = IB + IC. Let R 0 and R i represent the output and input
resistances respectively of the amplifier circuit.
768 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
∆IC F I FR I and hence the emitter current. This, in turn, will change the
Then, Av =
∆IC × R o
∆IE × R i
or Av =
∆IE
GH JK GH R JK
o
i
collector current. This will vary the collector voltage VCB in
accordance with equation (1). This variation of collector voltage
or Av = αac × Resistance gain will appear as an amplified output.
(3) ac power gain Phase relationship between the output and input
It is the ratio of change in output power to the signals
change in input power. When NPN transistor is used as common emitter
ac power gain change in output power amplifier, the output and input signals are 180° out of
=
change in input power phase.
= Av × αac IC
∆I2C × R o F ∆I I 2
Ro PNP +
Again, power gain =
∆I2E × Ri
= GH ∆I JK
C
E
×
Ri
B
C
E RL I CR L
= α2ac × resistance gain VCE
Since the current gain is less than one therefore the –
–
IE
power gain is less than the voltage gain. Input VCC
Output signal
signal (Amplified)
18. TRANSISTOR AS COMMON EMITTER AMPLI-
+
FIER
IC
(i) NPN Transistor as Common Emitter Amplifier
– + IB
VBB
IC
NPN – Fig. 16
IB C
B
I CR L Using Kirchhoff’s first law, IE = IB + IC .
RL
E If we assume that 5% of emitter current appears as
VCE + base current due to electron-hole combination in base, then
+
IE 95% of the emitter current flows as collector current.
Input Output signal
signal
VCC
(Amplified) IB = 5% of IE = 0.05IE
–
and IC = 95% of IE = 0.95IE
+ – IB IC The collector current IC flowing through the load re-
VBB
sistance RL produces a potential drop ICRL across the load
resistance RL. This voltage drop ICRL is clearly in opposition
Fig. 15
to the applied voltage VCC .
Using Kirchhoff ’s first law, IE = IB + IC. ∴ Net collector voltage, VCE = VCC – ICRL ...(1)
If we assume that 5% of emitter current appears as When the input signal (signal to be amplified) is fed to
base current due to electron-hole combination in base, then the base-emitter circuit, it will change the base voltage and
95% of the emitter current flows as collector current. hence the base current. This, in turn, will change the collec-
IB = 5% of IE = 0.05 IE tor current. This will vary the collector voltage VCE in accord-
and IC = 95% of IE = 0.95 IE ance with equation (1). This variation of collector voltage will
The collector current IC flowing through the load re- appear as an amplified output.
sistance RL produces a potential drop ICRL across the load Phase relationship between the output and in-
resistance RL. This voltage drop ICRL is clearly in opposition put signals
to the applied voltage VCC. When PNP transistor is used as common emitter
∴ Net collector voltage, VCE = VCC – ICRL ...(1) amplifier, the output and input signals are 180° out of
When the input signal (signal to be amplified) is fed to phase.
the base-emitter circuit it will change the base-emitter voltage
SOLIDS AND SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION 769
19. VARIOUS GAINS IN COMMON EMITTER Since the current gain is larger than one therefore the
AMPLIFIER power gain is also larger than the voltage gain.
(1) Current amplification factor or current gain 20. RELATION BETWEEN α AND β
Its value depends upon whether the current is direct (i) for ac values
current or alternating current. In both the common base and common emitter circuits,
(i) dc current gain (β
βdc) the emitter current is the sum of the collector current and the
base current.
It is the ratio of the collector current (IC) to the
∴ IE = IB + IC
base current (IB) at constant collector voltage. or ∆IE = ∆IB + ∆IC or ∆IB = ∆IE – ∆IC
FI I ∆IC
βdc = GH I JK
C
B V
∆I
βac = C =
∆IC
=
∆IE
=
αac
CE
The dc current gain is much larger than one. Its value ∆IB ∆IE − ∆IC 1 − ∆IC 1 − αac
generally varies from 15 to 50. ∆IE
(ii) ac current gain (ββac) (ii) for dc values
It is the ratio of change in collector current (∆ ∆IC) IC IC I /I α dc
βdc = = = C E =
to the change in base current (∆ ∆IB) at constant collector I
IB IE − IC 1 − C 1 − αdc
voltage. IE
F ∆I I
∴ βac = GH ∆I JK
C
B V
21. HOW TO CONVERT A NUMBER FROM DECI-
MAL SYSTEM TO BINARY SYSTEM ?
CE
For converting a decimal number to a binary number,
(2) ac voltage gain
we use a method called double method. This method is
It is the ratio of change in output voltage to the summed up below :
change in input voltage. It is denoted by Av. Go on dividing the number and the successive quotients
by 2 till the quotient is zero. Write the remainders obtained in
∆VCE
ac voltage gain, Av = successive divisions in the reverse order. This combination of
∆Vi remainders represents the required number in the binary
Let R 0 and R i represent the output and input system.
resistances respectively of the amplifier circuit. Illustration 1. Let us find the binary equivalent of (8)10 .
∆IC × R o
Then Av = 2 8
∆IB × R i
F ∆I I F R I
=G
2 4–0 The remainders in reverse order are 1, 0, 0 and 0.
H ∆I JK GH R JK
C o
or Av 2 2–0 So, the required binary number is 1 0 0 0.
B i
2 1–0
or Av = βac × Resistance gain
(3) ac power gain 0–1
It is the ratio of change in output power to the
change in input power. ∴ (8)10 = (1 0 0 0)2
This equation could also be written as :
ac power gain =
change in output power
(8)decimal = (1 0 0 0)binary
change in input power
Illustration 2. Let us find the binary equivalent of
∆VCE × ∆IC ∆VCE F I F ∆I I
=
∆Vi × ∆IB
=
∆Vi
GH JK GH ∆I JK
C
B
(23)10 .
2 23
= A0 × βac
2 11 – 1
∆I2C × R o
Again, power gain = 2 5–1 The remainders in reverse order are 1, 0, 1, 1 and 1.
∆I2B × Ri
FG ∆I IJ
C
2
Ro
2 2–1 So, the required binary number is 1 0 1 1 1.
=
H ∆I K
B Ri
× 2 1–0 ∴ (23)10 = (1 0 1 1 1)2
22. HOW TO WRITE THE DECIMAL EQUIVALENT OF When count at a particular place increases to highest
A GIVEN BINARY NUMBER ? digit of the system, 1 is to be added to the next place. This 1
In order to understand this conversion, let us first which is to be added to the next place is called carry.
refresh our memory about the ‘weightage’ that we give to Let us now apply the concept of carry to binary num-
different digits used to represent a number in the decimal bers. When 1 is added to 1, the result increases beyond the
system. As an illustration, let us consider a number 3425. highest available digit i.e., 1 in the binary system. So, we write
The following table gives the weightage of different digits in 0 and carry 1 to the next column.
this number. ∴ 1 + 1 = 10
Let us now learn the technique of finding the binary
digit weightage
equivalent of a fractional decimal number. The given frac-
5 100 Clearly, tional decimal number is to be continuously multiplied by 2,
2 101 3425 = 3 × 103 + 4 × 102 + 2 × 101 + 5 × 100 recording each time a carry in the integer position.The process
4 102 is to be continued till we get either enough bits of binary equiva-
lent or zero.This carries in the forward order would give the
3 103
binary equivalent.
As is clear from the above table, a digit in ‘unit place’ Illustration 5. Let us determine the binary equivalent
has a lesser weightage than a digit in the ‘tens place’ and so of (0.625)10
on. 0.625 × 2 = 1.25 = 0.25 with a carry of 1
Let us now turn our attention to the weightage of dif- 0.25 × 2 = 0.50 = 0.50 with a carry of 0
ferent digits in a binary number. In a binary number, as we
0.50 × 2 = 1.00 = 0 with a carry of 1
proceed from right to left, the magnitude of the digit
So, the binary equivalent is (0.101)2.
as converted to decimal system increases by a factor of
Note. While the point used in decimal fraction is called deci-
2 for each digit.
mal point, the point used in binary fraction is called binary point.
Illustration 3. A binary number 1 0 1 1 1 means
1 × 20 + 1 × 21 + 1 × 22 + 0 × 23 + 1 × 24 24. THE OR GATE
So, it would be written as 1 + 2 + 4 + 0 + 16 = 23 in the The truth table is as under :
base of ten.
A B Y
∴ (1 0 1 1 1)2 = (23)10
0 0 0
Note. In a binary number, the first digit from the extreme
right is called the least significant bit (LSB). Similarly, the first 0 1 1
digit from the extreme left is called the most significant bit (MSB). 1 0 1
Illustration 4. A binary number 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 means 1 1 1
1 × 20 + 0 × 21 + 1 × 22 + 1 × 23 + 0 × 24
The OR operation is denoted by + in Boolean algebra.
+ 0 × 25 + 1 × 26 + 1 × 27.
∴ A+B=Y
So it would be written as 1 + 0 + 4 + 8 + 0 + 0 + 64 +
128 = 205. It is read as ‘Y equals A OR B’.
The OR gate can
23. HOW TO CONVERT A FRACTIONAL DECIMAL A
have any number of
NUMBER INTO A BINARY NUMBER ?
inputs and one output.
In order to understand the method of this conversion, However, for the sake of Y
B
let us first understand the mathematical technique of “carry” simplicity and conveni-
in the decimal number system. Suppose the speedometer of ence, we are considering
your scooter reads 00999. When the scooter covers the next a two-input OR gate. The Fig. 17
kilometre, the reading is 01000. Clearly, when 1 is added to 9 logic symbol is shown in
in the unit place, we get zero in the unit place. Now, 1 is to be Fig. 17.
added to 9 in the tens place. So, we conclude the following :
If either input A or B or both are high (1), then the OR
gate gives a high output, otherwise the output is low (0).
SOLIDS AND SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION 771
A B Y 0 0 0 1
0 0 0 0 1 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0 1
1 0 0
1 1 1 0
1 1 1
The truth table A
The AND operation is denoted by ( . ) in Boolean corresponding to the Y
Algebra. NAND gate can be ob- B
∴ A.B=Y tained by logically using
Fig. 21
It is read as ‘Y equals A AND B’. the truth table of AND
The AND gate and NOT gates.
A
can have any number of The logic symbol of NAND gate is shown in Fig. 21.
inputs but only one out- Notice how the symbol is the same for the AND gate but with
put. For the sake of sim- Y a small circle at the output. This small circle is always taken
plicity and convenience, B to indicate a NOT or INVERTER operation.
we shall consider a two- Fig. 18 The NAND gate is expressed as
input AND gate. The Y = A . B or simply AB and is read as NOT A AND
logic symbol is shown in Fig. 18.
B.
An AND gate gives a high output (1) if input A and
The truth table for NAND gate :
input B are both high (1) ; otherwise the output is low.
An AND gate gives a high output (1) if input A and Input Input Output
input B are both high (1) ; otherwise the output is low. A B Y
26. THE NOT GATE 0 0 1
The truth table is as under :
0 1 1
Input (A) Output (Y)
1 0 1
0 1
1 1 0
1 0
The NAND gate is a very useful gate in itself. But it is
The function of the NOT widely used because all other gates can be constructed using
(inverter) gate can be repre- only NAND gates. As an example, if a NOT gate is needed, it
sented briefly by the Boolean ex- A Y can be made from a NAND gate in two ways :
pression as
A =Y + V(1)
Fig. 19
where A means A (bar). A
In words “not A equals Y”. Y
B
27. THE NAND (NOT AND) GATE
Fig. 22
A
(a) One input such as A is permanently tied (connected)
Y´ Y high so that A is 1 in the truth table. In this case, the only
B lines possible are lines 3 and 4, so if B is high, the output Y is
low (0) and if B is low, Y is high (1).
Fig. 20
772 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(b) Both inputs may be tied (connected) together so Truth table of NOR gate
that inputs A and B must both be high or low together (Fig. 23).
A B Y
This means that only lines 1 and 4 of the truth table are pos-
sible and so, if A and B are both high, Y is low. If A and B are 0 0 1
both low, Y is high. However, this method is not a good elec- 0 1 0
tronic practice and should not be used.
1 0 0
A 1 1 0
Y
B 29. EOR GATE OR XOR GATE
This EOR gate is an abbreviation of exclusive OR gate.
Fig. 23 Its symbol is shown in Fig. 26. Its truth table is as follows :
28. THE NOR (NOT OR) GATE A B Y
It is equivalent to an OR gate followed by a NOT gate
0 0 0
(INVERTER), i.e., all the outputs of the OR gate are inverted
(changed from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0). So, the truth table for the NOR 0 1 1
gate is opposite to the OR gate.
1 0 1
A 1 1 0
Y´ Y
The EOR gate gives a high output if either input A or
B
input B but not both are high. Otherwise, it gives a low input.
The output Y given by the EOR gate is given by
Fig. 24 Y=A B + A B
When the output Y′ of an OR gate is connected to the
A
input of a NOT gate, the circuit is termed as the NOR gate.
The truth table of a NOR gate is obtained from the truth tables
of OR and NOT gates as shown. Y
Truth table B
A B Y′ Y
Fig. 26
0 0 0 1
30. AMPERE—MAXWELL’S CIRCUITAL LAW
z
0 1 1 0
→ → dφE
1 0 1 0 B . dl = µ 0I + µ 0ε 0
dt
1 1 1 0
31. MAXWELL’S EQUATIONS
The logic symbol of a NOR gate is shown in Fig. 25.
I. Maxwell’s first equation z →
E . dS =
→ q
ε0
Fig. 25
III. Maxwell’s third equation
z C
→ →
E . dl = −
d
dt z
S
→ →
B . dS
32. THE SPECTRUM OF ELECTROMAGNETIC where µ0 and ε0 are the permeability and permit-
RADIATION tivity respectively of free space.
6. Speed of electromagnetic waves in a material me-
Frequency Name of Photon Wavelength, dium is given by :
Hz Radiation Energy, eV m
1
v=
µε
22
10
7 –13
21 10 10
10
Gamma Rays 6 –12
where µ and ε are the absolute permeability and
10 10
the absolute permittivity respectively of the me-
20
10
dium.
5 –11
10
19 10 10
X-Rays
10
18 10
4
10
–10
7. Electromagnetic waves obey the principle of su-
17 10
3
10
–9
per-position.
10
16 10
2
10
–8 8. Electromagnetic waves carry energy as they propa-
10 Ultraviolet
Visible
–7 gate through space. This energy is divided equally
10
15 10 10 → →
0 –6 between E and B .
10
14 10 10
–1 –5 9. Electromagnetic waves can transfer energy as well
13 10 10
10 Infrared
–2 –4
as momentum to objects placed in their path.
10
12 10 10 → →
–3 –3 10. The relative magnitudes of E and B in empty space
11 10 10
10
–4 –2
are related by
10
10 Microwave 10 10
E
c=
–5 –1
10
9 10 10 .
–6
10
0 B
10
8
TV, FM 10
7 10
–7
10
1 34. ELEMENTS OF A COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
10
6 10
–8
10
2 Fig. 28 depicts the elements of a communication sys-
10 Standard Broadcast
–9 3 tem. There are three essential parts of any communication
5 10 10
10
Radio Frequency –10 4
system, the transmitter, transmission channel and receiver.
10
4 10 10 Each part plays a particular role in signal transmission, as
10
3 10
–11
10
5
follows :
The receiver operates on the output signal from the The audio frequencies range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
channel in preparation for delivery to the transducer at the Suppose a frequency of 20 kHz is to be radiated directly into
destination. Receiver operations include amplification to com- space. For this,
pensate for transmission loss. These also include demodula- 3 × 108
Length of antenna = m = 15000 m = 15 km.
tion and decoding to reverse the signal-processing performed 20 × 103
at the transmitter. Filtering is another important function This is too long an antenna to be constructed practi-
at the receiver. cally. So, it is impracticable to radiate audio signal directly
Fig. 28 represents one-way or simplex (SX) trans- into space.
mission. Two-way communication of course requires a Let us now calculate the length of the antenna if a
transmitter and receiver at each end. A full-duplex (FDX) carrier wave of, say, 1000 kHz is used to carry the signal.
system has a channel that allows simultaneous trans- 3 × 108
mission in both directions. A half-duplex (HDX) system allows Length of antenna = m = 300 m
106
transmission in either direction but not at the same time. An antenna of 300 m length can be easily constructed.
35. ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF 2. Wireless communication
DIGITAL COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS OVER One desirable feature of radio transmission is that it
ANALOG COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS should be carried without wires (i.e.,) radiated into space. At
(a) A common format for encoding different kinds of audio frequencies, radiation is not practicable because the
message signals (e.g., speech signal, video signal, computer efficiency of radiation is poor. However, efficient radiation
data etc.) for the purpose of transmission. of electrical energy is possible at high frequencies (> 20
(b) An improved security of message. kHz). For this reason, modulation is always done in commu-
(c) Increased immunity to noise and external inter- nication systems.
ference. 3. Operating range
(d) Flexibility in configuring digital communication The energy of a wave depends upon its frequency. The
systems. greater the frequency of the wave, the greater is the energy
Disadvantages possessed by it. As the audio signal frequencies are small,
these cannot be transmitted over large distances if radiated
(a) Increased transmission bandwidth
directly into space. The only practical solution is to modu-
(b) Increased system complexity. late a high frequency carrier wave with audio signal and
36. UNDESIRABLE EFFECTS IN THE COURSE OF permit the transmission to occur at this high frequency (car-
SIGNAL TRANSMISSION rier frequency).
(a) Attenuation 38. AMPLITUDE MODULATION
(b) Distortion In amplitude modulation, only the amplitude of the
(c) Interference carrier wave is changed in accordance with the intensity of
(d) Noise. the signal. However, the frequency of the modulated wave
37. MODULATION remains the same as the carrier frequency. Fig. 29 shows
The velocity of electromagnetic waves is 3 × 108 m s–1. the principle of amplitude modulation, (i) shows the audio
On the other hand, the velocity of sound waves is 332 m s–1. electrical signal, whereas (ii) shows the carrier wave of con-
Clearly, sound waves cannot be used to transmit intelligence stant amplitude and (iii) shows the amplitude modulated
to far off places. Only the electromagnetic waves can do the wave.
job. Note that the amplitude of both positive and negative
Modulation is extremely necessary in communication half cycles of carrier wave are changed in accordance with
system due to the following reasons : the signal. For instance, when the signal is increasing in
1. Practical Antenna Length (L) the positive sense, the amplitude of carrier wave also
When free space is the communication channel, an- increases. On the other hand, during negative half cycle of
tennas radiate and receive the signal. Theory shows that the signal, the amplitude of carrier wave decreases. Amplitude
the antennas operate effectively only when their dimensions modulation is done by an electronic circuit called modulator.
are of the order of the magnitude of wavelength of the signal The following points are worth noting in amplitude
being transmitted. modulation :
v 3 × 108 (i) The amplitude of the carrier wave changes accord-
Now, L=λ= = Hz ing to the intensity of the signal.
ν ν
SOLIDS AND SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION 775
(ii) The amplitude variation of the carrier wave is at The amplitude of the carrier remains unchanged at
the signal frequency fs . all times. In other words, the amplitude of the modulated
(iii) The frequency of the amplitude modulated wave re- wave remains the same as the amplitude of the carrier wave.
mains the same, i.e., carrier frequency, fc . The frequency of the carrier is made to fluctuate sym-
metrically above and below its unmodulated frequency. As
es es an example, a carrier frequency, of 1000 kHz may be caused
to swing between 925 kHz and 1075 kHz or any other amount
t t chosen in accordance with the signal voltage. In frequency
modulation, the deviation of the carrier frequency from its
average value is proportional to the instantaneous amplitude
(i) Signal (ii) Carrier of the modulating signal. When the signal voltage is zero,
the carrier frequency is unchanged. When the signal
e
approaches its positive peaks, the carrier frequency is
increased to maximum as indicated by the closely spaced
cycles. However, during the negative peaks of signal, the
t carrier frequency is reduced to minimum as shown by widely
spaced cycles.
41. NECESSITY OF FREQUENCY MODULATION
1. Various electrical machines and noises cause am-
(iii) AM Wave plitude disturbance in the transmission of ampli-
tude-modulated wave. This makes the reception
Fig. 29
noisy. So, there is a need for different type of modu-
39. DISADVANTAGES OF AMPLITUDE MODU- lation which can reduce the noise factor. Frequency
LATION modulation (FM) was proposed as a means of im-
(i) Low efficiency proving the signal-to-noise ratio of a radio system.
(ii) Noisy reception The first practical system was put forward in 1936
(iii) Small operating range as an alternative to AM in an effort to make radio
(iv) Reproduction is not of high fidelity. transmissions more resistant to noise.
40. FREQUENCY MODULATION 2. Fidelity or audio quality of amplitude modulated
transmission is poor. This type of transmission is
also not good for musical programmes. There is a
Modulating need to eliminate amplitude-sensitive noise. This
Wave is possible if we eliminate amplitude variation. In
other words, there is a need to keep the amplitude
of the carrier constant. This is precisely what we
Fig. 30
do in frequency modulation.
42. PULSE MODULATION
Frequency Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM). The
Modulation modulating signal is sampled at the basic rate, usually 1/2
fm , where fm is the maximum value. The amplitude of the
Fig. 31
modulation determines the amplitude of the transmitted
pulse. The band width will be great for exact pulse waveform,
but may be reduced by a low-pass filter, thereby somewhat
rounding the pulses. As long as the amplitude at the pulse
intervals is preserved, no distortion will be introduced.
Fig. 32
776 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Projected
path
PDM
Ionised layer
PCM
Fig. 33 Actual
Virtual
Actual height
Pulse-position modulation (PPM). The timing path height
or position of the pulse is varied around a fixed mean value
and conforms to the signal amplitude at the time of sam-
Ground surface
pling. A positive signal may set the pulse ahead, a negative
signal will set the pulse behind the reference time. In recep- Fig. 34
tion, the pulse shape received is not important. The time of
arrival is the only information necessary for interpretation A wave will be bent downward provided that the rate
of the signal. of change of ionisation density is sufficient.
(ii) The maximum usable frequency, or MUF, is
Pulse-duration modulation (PDM). It is also
also a limiting frequency, but this time for some specific
referred to as pulse-width modulation. It varies the pulse
angle of incidence other than the normal. In fact, if the angle
length or duration around a fixed value. This may be done
of incidence is θ, it follows that
by shifting either the leading or trailing edge, or both, as a
function of the sampled amplitude. Greater channel band critical frequency
MUF = = fc sec θ
width is required than for PAM. Design must be co-ordinated cos θ
to prevent overlap of the variable length pulses in multiplex This is the so-called secant law, and it is very useful
use. The reception of such a wave is simple. The information in making preliminary calculations for a specific MUF.
can be recovered from the demodulated pulses by passing Strictly speaking, it applies only to a flat Earth and a flat
them through a low-pass filter. reflecting layer.
Pulse-code modulation (PCM). It translates the (iii) The skip distance is the shortest distance from
sampled amplitude data into a code. The code is transmitted a transmitter, measured along the surface of the Earth, at
as a succession of pulses and spaces. The system enjoys which a sky wave of fixed frequency (more than fc) will be
greater freedom from noise and interfering signals than is returned to Earth.
possible with most other pulse systems.
45. HEIGHT OF TRANSMITTING ANTENNA
43. MODEM
A modem (a modulator/demodulator) lets you connect If the broadcast is made from a height h above the
your computer to a standard telephone line so that you can ground, no reception by direct signals is possible beyond the
SOLIDS AND SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION 777
points A and B. The distance Illustration 7. The electrical circuit used to get
P
( or ) upto which signals smooth DC output from a rectifier circuit is called
can be received can be calculated (a) Filter (b) Oscillator
in terms of h and the radius R (c) Logic gates (d) Amplifier.
of the Earth. h [Karnataka CET 2000, 2003]
In the right-angled trian- Sol. ‘Filter’ filters out the fluctuations in the output
gle CBP, O of the rectifier.
CP2 = CB2 + BP2 So, (a) is the right choice.
But CP = R + h Illustration 8. In the case of constants α and β of a
R
and PB ≈ OB = d A B transistor
R
∴ (R + h)2 = R2 + d2 (a) α = β (b) β < 1 α > 1
or R2 + h2 + 2Rh = R2 + d2
C (c) αβ = 1 (d) β > 1 α < 1.
or d2 = h2 + 2Rh Fig. 35 [Karnataka CET 2003]
It is clear from this equation that if h is large, d will Sol. The value of β may range from 15 to 50. On the
other hand, the value of α varies from 0.95 to 0.98.
be large. This explains as to why the television broadcasts
are made from tall antennas. So, (d) is the right choice.
Illustration 9. A n-p-n transistor conducts when
46. RADIO FREQUENCY BANDS (a) both collector and emitter are positive with respect
Band Frequency Wavelength
to the base
range range (b) collector is positive and emitter is negative with
respect to the base
Extremely low frequency (ELF) < 3 kHz > 100 km
(c) collector is positive and emitter is at same pot-
Very low frequency (VLF) 3-30 Hz 10-100 km ential as the base
Low frequency (LF) 30-300 kHz 1-10 km (d) both collector and emitter are negative with
respect to the base. [All India PM/PD 2003]
Medium frequency (MF) 300 kHz-3 MHz 100 m-1 km
Sol. Only a positive collector can collect free electrons
High frequency (HF) 3-30 MHz 10-100 m from the emitter.
Very high frequency (VHF) 30-300 MHz 1-10 m So, (b) is the right choice.
Illustration 10. In a n-p-n transistor circuit, the
Ultra high frequency (UHF) 300 MHz-3 GHz 10 cm-1 m
collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted
Superhigh frequency (SHF) 3-30 GHz 1-10 cm reach the collector, the emitter current (I E) and base cur-
Extremely high frequency (EHF) 30-300 GHz 1 mm-1 cm rent (IB) are given by
(a) IE = 11 mA ; IB = 1 mA
ILLUSTRATIONS (b) IE = 1 mA ; IB = 11 mA
Illustration 6. Suppose the base J1 J2
(c) IE = 9 mA ; IB = – 1 mA
of the PNP transistor is left unconnected.
In which direction would the current flow P N P
P
(d) IE = – 1 mA ; IB = 9 mA.
in the transistor ? [Karnataka CET 2001]
(a) Towards J1 100
Sol. IE = × 10 mA ≈ 11 mA
(b) Towards J2 90
(c) Away from J2 Now, IB = IE – IC = (11 – 10) mA
Fig. 36
= 1 mA
(d) The current would not flow.
So, (a) is the right choice.
Sol. With the base unconnected, there would be no
current flowing through the transistor in any direction. This Illustration 11. If a full wave rectifier circuit is op-
is because if we tend to flow the current from E to C, the erating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in
junction J2 is reverse-biased. If we tend to flow the current the ripple will be
from C to E, the junction J1 would become reverse-biased. (a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
So, (d) is the right choice. (c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz.
[All India PM/PD 2003 ; AIEEE 2005]
778 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
MCQs
SET I
based on
Memory Work, Hard Facts, Important Terms,
Important Formulae etc.
1. Which logic gate is represented by the following com- (c) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is
bination of logic gates ? increased.
(d) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased.
A [AIEEE 2004]
y 6. Of the diodes shown in Fig. 38, which one is reverse
biased ?
B
(a) (b) +5V
Fig. 37 R R
(c) remains the same. (d) becomes zero. 19. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than
[AIIMS 1998] the drift current in magnitude
(a) if the junction is forward-biased.
14. The Boolean expression for AND gate is
(a) A + B = Y (b) A . B = Y (b) if the junction is reverse-biased.
(c) if the junction is unbiased.
(c) A = Y (d) A . B = Y. [AMU 2000]
(d) in no case. [Bharati Vidyapeeth 1999]
15. A capacitor is to be used to provide smoothing for a
20. The possible number of crystal lattices is
half wave rectifier. In which of the following diagrams
is capacitor correctly connected ? (a) 14 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 3.
21. A crystal lattice is
(a) a random arrangement of atoms in a crystal.
(c) A = Y (d) A . B = Y .
0
[Himachal PMT 1998] t
28. Fig. 40 shows a full-wave rectifier with a smoothing
capacitor. Fig. 42
29. If ne and nh are the number of electrons and holes in
a semiconductor heavily doped with phosphorus, then
Input (a) ne >> nh (b) ne << nh
(c) ne ≤ nh (d) ne = nh.
I1 [MP PMT 2000]
I2 30. Which of the following physical properties is the same
along all directions in an isotropic solid ?
I3 (a) Refractive index (b) Electrical conductivity
(c) Thermal conductivity (d) All of these.
Load
31. S m–1 is the unit of
Fig. 40 (a) hole mobility (b) electron mobility
(c) electrical conductivity (d) none of these.
The currents I1 and I3 vary with time as shown in
Fig. 41. Which of the graphs a – e shown in Fig. 42 32. On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a
best represents the variation with time of the current P-N junction diode, current
I2 ? (a) increases slowly (b) remains fixed
(c) suddenly increases (d) decreases slowly.
I1 [MP PMT 1994]
33. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between
the valence band and conduction band is of the order
of
0 t
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV
I3 (c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV. [MP PET 1996]
34. P-N junction is said to be forward biased, when
(a) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the P-semicon-
0 t ductor and negative pole to the N-semiconductor.
(b) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the N-semicon-
Fig. 41 ductor and negative pole to the P-semiconductor.
782 COMPREHENSIVE OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c) the positive pole of the battery is connected to N-semicon- Which set of diagrams shows these traces most accu-
ductor or P-semiconductor. rately ?
(d) a mechanical force is applied in the forward direction.
c.r.o.1 c.r.o.2 c.r.o.3
[MP PET 1994]
35. The valency of an impurity element added to germa-
nium crystal in order to convert in into P-type semi- A
conductor is
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 3. B
[Himachal PMT 2000]
36. The majority and minority charge carriers in N-type
semi-conductors are respectively C
(a) electrons and electrons. (b) electrons and holes.
(c) holes and electrons. (d) holes and holes.
D
37. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is
(a) from the n-side to the p-side.
(b) from the p-side to the n-side.
Fig. 44
(c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-
biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased. (a) A (b) B
(d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward- (c) C (d) D.
biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased.
[Haryana PMT 1997] 40. An intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero of tem-
perature behaves as
38. For germanium crystal, the forbidden energy gap in
joule is (a) an insulator. (b) a metallic conductor.
(a) 1.12 × 10–19 (b) 1.76 × 10–19 (c) a superconductor. (d) a semiconductor.
(c) 1.6 × 10–19 [MP PET 2000]
(d) Zero. [National Standard Exam. in Physics 1989]
39. Fig. 43 shows three circuits used to rectify an alter- 41. Iron and silicon wires are heated from 30°C to 50°C.
nating current. A cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.) with The correct statement is that
fixed settings of time-base and Y-gain is connected in
(a) resistance of both wires increases.
turn as shown and produces a different trace in each
case. (b) resistance of both wires decreases.
(c) resistance of iron wire increases and that of silicon wire
decreases.
(d) resistance of iron wire decreases and that of silicon wire
c.r.o.
1 increases. [MP PET 1995]
42. The electrical resistance of the following decreases
with rise in temperature
(a) Metals (b) Semiconductors
(c) Gold (d) Constantan.
c.r.o.
2 [MP PET 1994]
43. A P-N junction has a thickness of the order of
(a) 1 cm (b) 1 mm
(c) 10–6 cm (d) 10–12 cm. [BITS 1990]
44. Platinum and silicon are heated upto 250°C and after
then cooled. In the process of cooling,
(a) resistance of platinum will increase and that of silicon will
c.r.o decrease.
3
(b) resistance of silicon will increase and that of platinum will
decrease.
Fig. 43
SOLIDS AND SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES, ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION 783
IC
58. In the study of transistor as amplifier, if α = and
IE
IC
β= , where IC, IB and IE are the collector, base and
IB (a) (b)
emitter currents, then
1− α 1+ α
(a) β = (b) β =
α α
α α
(c) β = (d) β = . (c) (d)
1− α 1+ α
Fig. 50
[All India PM/PD 2000]
63. Repetitive use of which of the following can help in
59. In an N-type semiconductor, donor valence band is
making many digital circuits ?
(a) above the conduction band of the ho