Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Physics
Physics
Waves
Question 1. Write the formula for speed of sound in solids and gases.
Answer: Speed of sound in solids,
Vs = Y/ρ−−−−√ [y = Young’s modulus of solid, ρ = density of solid]
Speed of sound in gases,
Vs = γP/ρ−−−−−√ [γP = Adiabatic Bulk modulus of gas, ρ = density of gas] .
Question 4. What are the parameters used to describe a progressive harmonic wave ?
Answer: Progressive wave equation is given y = a sin (ωt – kx)
Where ω = 2πv = 2πT; k = 2πλ
Parameters:
1. a = Amplitude
2. λ = Wavelength
3. T = Time period
4. v = Frequency
5. k = Propagation constant
6. ω = Angular frequency.
Question 7. What is the phase difference between the incident and reflected waves
when the wave is reflected by a rigid boundary ?
Answer: Phase difference between the incident and reflected waves when the wave is reflected by
a rigid boundary is radian or 180°.
Question 13. A string is stretched between two rigid supports. What frequencies of
vibration are possible in such a string ?
Answer: The possible frequencies of vibrations in a stretched string between two rigid supports is
given by
vn = (n + 12) v2l where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ……….
Question 14. If the air column in a long tube, closed at one end, is set in vibration,
what harmonics are possible in the vibrating air column ?
Answer: The possible harmonics in the vibrating air column of a long closed tube is given by
vn = [2n +1]v4l where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,
Question 15.If the air column in a tube, open at both ends, is set in vibration; what
harmonics are possible ?
Answer:The possible harmonics in vibrating air column of a long open tube is given by no
vn = nv21
where n = 1, 2, 3, ……………….
Question 1.What is optical density and how is it different from mass density ?
Answer:Optical density: Optical density is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in media. Mass
density: Mass per unit volume is defined as mass density.
Mass density of an optically denser medium is less than that of optically rarer medium.
Question 3.Define ‘power’ of a convex lens. What is its unit ? [A.P. Mar. 17, T.S. Mar. 16 MAR-
21]
Answer: Power of a lens : Power of a lens is defined as its bending ability and is measured as
reciprocal of focal length in metre.
∴ Power of a lens = 1f( in metres) =100f( in cms)
Unit → Dioptre (D)
Problems
Question 1.A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance 35 cm from a
wall. How far from the wall should an object be placed so that its real image is formed
on the wall ?
Answer:f = 10 cm, υ = 35 cm
1f=1v+1−u (using sign convention)
1u=1v−1f=135−110
1u=10−3535×10=−114
U = – 14 cm.
Distance of the object from the wall = 35 – 14 = 21cm.
Question 2.A concave mirror produces an image of a long vertical pin, placed 40cm
from the mirror, at the position of the object. Find the focal length of the mirror. [T.S.
Mar. 17, 16]
Answer:Give u = υ = 40cm
1f=1v+1u
1f=140+140
1f=240
f = 20 cm.
Question 3.A small angled prism of 4° deviates a ray through 2.48°. Find the refractive
index of the prism.
Answer:A = 4°, Dm = 2.48°
Dm = A (μ – 1)
μ – 1 = DmA=2.484 = 0.62
μ = 1 + 0.62
μ = 1.62
Question 4.What is ‘dispersion’? Which colour gets relatively more dispersed ? [Mar. 14]
Answer:Dispersion : The phenomenon of splitting of white light ipto its constituent colours, on
passing through a prism is called dispersion of light.
The deviation is maximum for violet colour.
Question 5.The focal length of a concave lens is 30 cm. Where should an object be
placed so that its image is 1/10 of its size ?
Solution: f = 30 cm, h1 = h, h2 = h10
Question 8.Draw neat labelled ray diagram of simple microscope. [PE 2015 (A.P.)]
Answer:
u = object distance
D = distance of near point.
Question 3.Write the expression for the magnetic induction at any point on the axis of a
circular current-carrying coil. Hence, obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at
the centre of the circular coil.
Answer:
1. Intensity of magnetic induction field on the axis of the circular coil B = μ0nir22(r2+x2)3/2
2. At the centre of the coil B = μ0ni2r
Question 4.A circular coil of radius T having N turns carries a current “i”. What is its
magnetic moment ?
Answer: Magnetic moment (M) = N i A
M = N i (πr2) (∵ A = πr2)
∴ M = π N i r2
Question 5.What is the force on a conductor of length L carrying a current “i” placed in
a magnetic field of induction B ? When does it become maximum ?
Answer:
1. Force on a conductor (F) = B i L sinθ
2. If θ = 90°,FMax = BiL
i.e., the direction of current and magnetic field are perpendicular to,each other, then force
is maximum.
Question 6.What is the force on a charged particle of charge “q” moving with a velocity
“v” in a uniform magnetic field of induction B ? When does it become maximum ?
Answer:
1. Force on a charged particle (F) = B q v sin θ.
2. If θ = 90°, FMax = B q v.
Question 7.Distinguish between ammeter and voltmeter. [A.P. Mar. 17; A.P. Mar.
15,MAR 22]
Answer:Ammeter
1. It is used to measure current.
2. Resistance of an ideal ammeter is zero.
3. It is connected in series in the circuits.
Voltmeter
1. It is used to measure RD between two points.
2. Resistance of ideal voltmeter is infinity.
3. It is connected in parallel in the circuits.
S = Giig−1
Question 11.How do you convert a moving coil galvanometer into a voltmeter ? [T.S.
Mar. 16, 15, 14; A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer: A high resistance is connected in series to the moving coil galvanometer, then it
converts to voltmeter.
R = vig – G
Question 12.What is the relation between the permittivity of free space e 0, the
permeability of free space m0 and the speed of light In vaccum?
Answer: Speed of light in vaccum (C) = 1μ0ε0√
Here μ0 = m0 = permeability in vaccum
ε0 = permittivity in vaccum.
Question 13.A current carrying circular loop lies on a smooth horizontal plane. Can a
uniform magnetic Held be set up in such a manner that the loop turns about the
vertical axis ?
Answer:Torque (τ) = M→×B→=iA→×B→ (M = n i A)
where i is current, A→ is area vector, B→ is magnetic field. Area vector A→ acts normal to the
loop, so torque τ⃗ cannot act along the vertical axis. The magnetic field is not set up to turn the
loop around itself.
Question 14.A current carrying circular loop is placed in a uniform external magnetic
field. If the loop is free to turn, what is its orientation when it achieves stable
equilibrium?
Answer:The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field because the
torque on the loop in this orientation is zero.
Question 15. A wire loop of irregular shape carrying current is placed in an external
magnetic field. If the wire is flexible, what shape will the loop change to ? Why ?
Answer:For a given perimeter, a circle has maximum area among all geometrical shapes. So to
maximise the magnetic flux through it will assume a circular shape with its plane normal to the
field.
Question 16.Consider a tightly wound 100 turn coil of radius 10 cm, carrying a current
of 1 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil ?
Solution: Since the coil is tightly wound we may take each circular element to have the same
radius R = 10 cm = 0.1 m. The number of turns N = 100. The magnitude of the magnetic field is
(From Eq.),
B0 = μ0I2Ri^
B = μ0NI2R=4π×10−7×102×12×10−1 = 2π × 10-4 = 6.28 × 10-4 T
Question 17.A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500
turns. It carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the
solenoid ?
Solution: The number of turns per unit length is,
n = 5000.5 = 1000 turns / m
The length l = 0.5m and radius r = 0.01 m. Thus, l/a = 50 i.e., l >> a.
Hence, we can use the long solenoid formula, namely, Eq. (B = μ 0nI)
B = μ0 n I
= 4π × 10-7 × 103 × 5 = 6.28 × 10-3 T
Question 18.A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries
a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the
coil ?
Solution: Here, n = 100, r = 8cm = 8 × 10-2 m and I = 0.40 A
The magnetic field B at the centre
B = μ04π⋅2πInr=10−7×2×3.14×0.4×1008×10−2 = 3.1 × 10-4 T
The direction of magnetic field depends on the direction of current if the direction of current is
anticlockwise. According to Maxwell’s right hand rule, the direction of magnetic field at the centre
of coil will be perpendicular outwards to the plane of paper.
Question 19.
What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying a current of 8A and
making an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T ?
Solution:
According to the question
I = 8 A, 6 = 30°, B = 0,15 T, l = 1 m
Question 1.A magnetic dipole placed in a magnetic field experiences a net force. What
can you say about the nature of the magnetic field ?
Answer: The nature of the magnetic field is uniform, magnetic dipole (bar magnet) experiences a
net force (or torque).
Question 2.Do you find two magnetic field lines intersecting ? Why ?
Answer:Two magnetic field lines never intersect. If they intersect, at the point of intersection the
field can have two directions. This is impossible. So, two field lines never intersect.
Question 3.What happens to the compass needles at the Earth’s poles ? [T.S. Mar. 17;
IPE 2014]
Answer: At the Earth poles, the magnetic field lines are converging or diverging,vertically so that
the horizontal component is negligible. Hence, the compass needle can point along any direction.
Question 5.What is the magnetic moment associated with a solenoid ? [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer:The magnitude of magnetic moment of the solenoid is, M = n × 2l × i × πa 2
where, ‘n’ is number of turns, ‘2l’ is length of the solenoid, ‘i’ is current passing through coil, and
‘a’ is area of cross section of solenoid.
Question 6.What are the units of magnetic moment, magnetic induction and magnetic
field ? [IPE 2016 (AP), (TS)]
Answer:The unit of magnetic moment (M) is ampere-meter2 (Am2).
The unit of magnetic induction (B) is tesla (T) or N/A-m.
The unit of magnetic field (B) is tesla.
Question 7.Magnetic lines form continuous closed loops. Why ? [T.S. 2017; IPE
2016(AP)]
Answer: Magnetic lines are imaginary lines. Within the magnet, they move from south pole to
north pole and outside the magnet they move from north pole to south pole. Hence, magnetic
lines form continuous closed loops.
Question 11.The force between two magnet poles separated by a distance ‘d’ in air is
‘F’. At what distance between them does the force become doubled ?
Answer:Force between two magnetic poles, F1 = F;
Distance between two magnetic poles, d1 = d
Force between two magnetic poles increased by double F2 = 2F
Distance between two magnetic poles, d2 = ?
From Coulombs law, F1d12 = F2 d22
Fd2 = 2 F d22
⇒ d22 = d22
d2 = d2√
Question 12.If B is the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular coil of one
turn of length L carrying current I then what is the magnetic field at the centre of the
same coil which is made into 10 turns ?
Answer:For first circular coil; B1 = B, n1 = 1; I1 = I; a1 = L2π
For second circular coil, B2 = ? n2 = 10; I2 = I; a2 = L2π
As B = μ0nIa22r, B ∝ n.
B2 B1=n2n1
B2 B=101
∴ B2 = 10 B
Question 13.If the number of turns of a solenoid is doubled, keeping the other factors
constant, how does the magnetic field at the axis of the solenoid change ?
Answer:
B1 = B (say); n1 = n; n2 = 2n; B2 = ?
Magnetic field at the centre of a solenoid is given by B = μ0nIa2(2l)2r3
As I, a2, 2l and r are constants, B ∝ n
⇒ B2 B1=n2n1⇒B2 B=2nn
∴ B2 = 2B
Question 14.A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10 -
4
m2 carries a current of 3.0A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar
magnet. What is its associated magnetic moment ?
Answer: Here n = 800, a = 2.5 × 10-4 m2, I = 3.0 A
A magnetic field develop along the axis of the solenoid. Therefore the current carrying solenoid
behaves like a bar magnet
m = N IA = 800 × 3.0 × 2.5 × 10-4
= 0.6 Am2 along the axis of solenoid.
Alternating Current
Very Short Answer Questions
Question 1.A transformer converts 200 V ac into 2000 V ac. Calculate the number of
turns in the ‘ secondary if the primary has 10 turns. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer: VsVp=NsNp
Vp = 200V, Vs = 2000V, Np = 10
Ns = VsVp × Np = 2000200 × 10
Ns = 100.
Question 2.What type of transformer is used in a 6V bed lamp ? [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer: Step down transformer is used in 6V bed lamp.
Question 5.Write the expression for the reactance of i) an inductor and (ii) a capacitor.
Answer:
1. Inductive reactance (XL) = ωL
2. Capacitive reactance (XC) = 1ωC
Question 6.What is the phase difference between A.C emf and current in the following:
Pure resistor, pure inductor and pure capacitor. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
1. In pure resistor A.C. e.m.f and current are in phase with each other.
2. In pure inductor, current lags behind the e.m.f. by an angle of π2 (or) 90°.
3. In pure capacitor, current leads the e.m.f by an angle π2 (or) 90°.
Question 7. Define power factor. On which factors does power factor depend ?
Answer: The ratio of true power and apparent power (virtual power) in an a.c circuit is called as
power factor of the circuit.
Power factor (cosΦ) = PPrms [∵ Prms = Vrms Irms]
Power factor depends on r.m.s voltage, r.m.s current and average power (P).
Electromagnetic Waves
Question 1.Give any one use of infrared rays. [T.S. Mar. 17; A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
1. Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the Earth warm.
2. Infrared lamps are used in physical therapy.
3. Infrared detectors are used in Earth Satellites.
4. These are used in taking photographs during the conditions of fog, smoke etc.
Question 2.How are infrared rays produced ? How they can be detected ?
Answer: Infrared rays can be produced by vibrations of atoms and molecules. These waves can
be detected by Thermopile, Bolometer, IR photographic film.
Question 3.How are radio waves produced ? How can they detected ?
Answer: Radio waves can be produced by rapid acceleration and deceleration of electrons in
aerials (conductors). These can be detected by receivers of aerials.
Question 4.If the wave length of E.M radiation is doubled, what happens to the energy
of photon ? [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer: If the wave length of electromagnetic radiation is doubled, then energy will be halved
because energy is inversely proportional to.wavelength of electromagnetic waves.
E = hυ = hc/λ ⇒ E ∝ 1/λ (∵ hc is a constant)
Answer: If the charge is accelerated both the magnetic field and electric field will change with
Space and time, then electromagnetic waves are produced.
Question 6.What is the ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vaccum ?
Answer: The ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vacuum is 1 : 1.
All electromagnetic waves travel with same speed 3 × 108 m /s in vaccum.
Question 7.What is the relation between the amplitudes of the electric and magnetic
fields in free space for an electromagnetic wave ?
Answer:
E0 = CB0
Where E0 = Amplitude of electric field.
B0 = Amplitude of magnetic field.
C = velocity of light.
Question 8.What are the applications of microwaves ? [A.P. Mar. 17; T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
1. Microwaves are used in Radars.
2. Microwaves are used for cooking purposes.
3. A radar using microwave can help in detecting the speed of automobile while in motion.
Question 9.Microwaves are used in Radars, why ? [Mar. 14]
Answer: As microwaves are of smaller wavelengths, hence they can be transmitted as a beam
signal in a particular direction. Microwaves do not bend around the comers of any obstacle
coming in their path.
Question 11.How are microwaves produced ? How can they detected ? [A.P. Mar. 16;
IPE 15]
Question 12.The charging current for a capacitor is 0.6 A. What is the displacement
current across its plates ?
Answer:
i = charging current for a capacitor = 0.6 A
i = id = ε0 = dϕBdt
∴ i = id = 0.6 A
∴ Displacement current (id) = 0.6 A.
Question 13.What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10 -10m, red
light of wavelength 6800 Å and radiowaves of wavelength 500in ?
Answer: The speed in vaccum is same for all the given wavelengths, which is 3 × 10 8 m/s.
Question 14.A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12MHz band. What is
the corresponding wavelength band ?
Answer:
λ1 = 3×1087.5×106 = 40 m
λ2 = 3×10812×106 = 25 m
Thus wavelength band is 40m to 25m.
Answer: Displacement current (Id) is equal to ε0 times to the rate of change of electric flux.
Displacement current is not the current produced due to charge carried. But it is due to varying
electric flux. It is the current in the sense that it produces a magnetic field.
Id = ε0 dϕεdt
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Question 7. Write down de-Broglie’s relation and explain the terms therein. [T.S. & A.P.
Mar. 16]
Answer: The de-Broglie wave length (λ) associated with a moving particle is related to its
momentum (p) is λ = hp=hmv, where h is planck’s constant.
Question 9.The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is
the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted ? [Mar. 11]
Answer: Cut off voltage, V0 = 1.5 V; Maximum kinetic energy, (KE)max = eV0 = e × 1.5 = 1.5eV
Question 10. An electron, an α-particle and a proton have the same kinetic energy.
Which of these particles has the shortest de Broglie wavelength ? [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer: For a particle,
de Broglie wavelength, λ = h/p
Kinetic energy, K = p2/2m
Then, λ = h/2mK−−−−√
For the same kinetic energy K, the de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle is inversely
proportional to the square root of their masses.A proton is 1836 times massive than an
electron and an a-particle (42He) four times that of a proton.
Hence, α-particle has the shortest de Broglie wavelength.
Question 12.If the wave length of electro magnetic radiation is doubled, what happens
to energy of photon ? [IPE 2015 (TS)]
Answer: E = hcλ ⇒ E ∝ 1λ, since wave length of photon is doubled, its energy becomes halved.
Question 13.In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage
versus frequency of incident light is found to be 4.12 × 10-15 V s. Calculate the value of
Planck’s constant.
Solution: Given, slope of graph tan θ = 4.12 × 10-15 V – s;
Question 14. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 ×
103 W/m2. How many photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per
second ? Assume that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550
nm.
Solution: Given, P = 1.388 × 103 W/m2; λ = 550 nm = 550 × 10-9 m ,
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 108 m/s
Energy of each photon E = hc λ=6.63×10−34×3×108550×10−9 = 3.616 × 10-19 J
No. of photons incident on the earth’s surface, N = PE=1.388×1033.66×10−19
∴ N = 3.838 × 1021 photons/m2 – s.
Question 15.Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de-
Brogile wavelength of its quantum (photon). [Mar. 14]
Answer: Wave length of electromagnetic wave of frequency v and velocity C is given by,
λ = Cv⇒λ=Cv×hh=h(hvC)=hp (∵ hvC = p)
Hence, we can say wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de-Brogile
wavelength.
Sample Problem :
Question 1.Calculate the (a) momentum and (b) dE-Brogile wavelength of the electrons
accelerated through a potential difference of 56 V. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
a) Mass of the electron, m = 9 × 10-31 kg;
Potential difference, V = 56V
Momentum of electron, mv = 2eVm−−−−−√=2×(1.6×10−19)×56×9×10−31−−−−−−−−−−−−
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ = 4.02 × 10-24kg ms-1
b) de-Broglie wavelength, λ = hp=hmv=6.62×10−344.04×10−24 = 1.64 × 10-10m
Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits
Question 1. What is an n-type semiconductor ? What are the majority and minority
charge carriers in it ?
Answer:
If a pentavalent impurity is added to pure tetravalent semiconductor, it is called n-type
semiconductor.
In n-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are electrons and minority charge
carriers are holes.
Question 2.What are intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Pure form of semiconductors are called intrinsic semiconductors.
When impure atoms are added to increase their conductivity, they are called extrinsic
semiconductors.
Question 3.What is a p-type semiconductor ? What are the majority and minority
charge carriers in it ? [A.P. & T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer: If a trivalent impurity is added to a tetravalent semiconductor, it is called p-type semi-
conductor.
In p-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are holes and minority charge carriers are
electrons.
Question 5.How is a battery connected to a junction diode in i) forward and ii) reverse
bias ?
Answer:
i) In p-n junction diode, if p-side is connected to positive terminal of a cell and n-side to negative
terminal, it is called forward bias.
ii) In a p-n junction diode, p-side is connected to negative terminal of a cell and n-side to positive
terminal, it is called reverse bias.
Question 6.What is the maximum percentage of rectification in half wave and full wave
rectifiers ?
Answer:
1. The percentage of rectification in half-wave rectifier is 40.6%.
2. The percentage of rectification in full-wave rectifiers is 81.2%.
Question 7.What is Zener voltage (Vz) and how will a Zener diode be connected in
circuits generally ?
Answer:
1. When Zener diode is in reverse biased, at a particular voltage current increases suddenly is
called Zener (or) break down voltage.
2. Zener diode always connected in reverse bias.
Question 8.Write the expressions for the efficiency of a full wave rectifier and a half
wave rectifier.
Answer:
1. Efficiency of half wave rectifier (η) = 0.406RLrf+RL
2. Efficiency of full wave rectifier (η) = 0.812RLrf+RL
Question 9.What happens to the width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode
when it is
i) forward-biased and ii) reverse biased ?
Answer:
When a p-n junction diode is forward bias, thickness of depletion layer decreases and in reverse
bias, thickness of depletion layer increases.
Question 10.
Draw the circuit symbols for p-n-p and n-p-n transistors. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Question 12.In which bias can a Zener diode be used as voltage regulator ?
Answer: In reverse bias Zener diode can be used as voltage regulator.
Question 13. Which gates are called universal gates ? [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer: NAND gate and NOR gates are called universal gates.
Queston 14. Write the truth table of NAND gate. How does it differ from AND gate ?
Answer:
Communication Systems
Question 1.What are the basic blocks of a communication system ?
Answer: Basic blocks in communication system are
1. Transmitter 2. Receiver 3. Channel
Question 6. Define modulation. Why is it necessary ? [A.P. 17; A.P., T.S. Mar. 16, T.S.
Mar. 15, Mar. 14]
Answer: Modulation : The process of combining low frequency audio signal with high frequency
carrier wave is called modulation.
Necessary: Low frequency signals cannot transmit directly. To reduce size of the antenna and to
avoid mixing up of signal from different transmitters modulation is necessary.
Quen 7. Mention the basic methods of modulation. [T.S. Mar. 15, 17, A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer: The basic methods of modulation are :
1. Amplitude modulation (AM)
2. Frequency modulation (FM)
3. Phase modulation (PM)
Qon 8.Which type of communication is employed in Mobile Phones ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer: Space wave mode of propagation is employed in mobile phones.
Textual Examples
Question 1.A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and the
height of the receiving antenna Is 50 m. What is the maximum distance between them
for satisfactory communication in LOS mode? Given radius of earth 6.4 × 10 6 m.
Solution:
dm = 2RhT−−−−−√+2RhR−−−−−√
dm = 2×64×105×32−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√+2×64×105×50 m−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√
=64 × 102 × 10−−√ +8 × 103 × 10−−√m = 144 × 102 × 10−−√m
= 45.5 km.
Question 2.A message signal of frequency 10 kHz and peak voltage of 10 volts Is used
to modulate a carrier of frequency 1 MHz and peak voltage of 20 volts. Determine
(a) modulation index
(b) the side bands produced.
Solution:
a) Modulation index = 102 = 0.5
b) The side bands are at (1000 + 10 kHz) = 1010 kHz and (1000 – 10 kHz) = 990 kHz.
Electromagnetic Induction
Answer: Eddy currents (or) Focault currents : The induced circulating currents produced in a
conductor itself due to change in magnetic flux linked with the conductor are called Eddy
currents.
Due to Eddy currents, the energy is dissipated in the form of heat energy.
Short Answer Questions (4 Marks)
Ray Optics& Optical Instruments
Question 1. Define focal length of a concave mirror. Prove that the radius of curvature
of a concave mirror is double its focal length. [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer: Focal length of concave mirror:
The distance between the focus F and the pole P of the mirror is called the focal length of the
concave mirror.
Consider a ray AB parallel to principal axis incident on a concave mirror at B and is re-flected
along BF. The line CB is normal to the mirror.
Let θ be the angle of incidence, ∠ABC = ∠BCP = θ
Draw BD ⊥ CP
In right angled ∆le
Tan θ = BDCD ……………. (1)
From ∆le BFD, Tan 2θ = BDFD ……………. (2)
Dividing eq (2) by eq (1), Tan2θTanθ=CDFD ………………….. (3)
If θ is very small, then tan θ ≈ θ and tan 2θ ≈ 2θ since the aperture of the lens is small
∴ The point B lies very close to p.
CD ≈ CP and FD ≈ FP
From eq (3), 2θθ=CPFP=Rf⇒2=Rf
R = 2f
Question 2.Define critical angle. Explain total internal reflection using a neat diagram.
[T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer: Critical angle:
When light ray travelling from denser medium to rarer medium, then the angle of incidence for
which angle of refraction in air is 90a is called critical angle.
C = sin-1 (1μ)
Total internal reflection:
When a light ray travels from denser to rarer medium, the angle of incidence is greater than the
critical angle, then it reflects into the same medium is called total internal reflection.
Explanation: Consider an object in the denser medium. A ray OA incident on XY bends away from
the normal. As the angle of incidence is increased, the angle of refraction goes on increasing. For
certain angle of incidence, the refracted ray parallel to XY surface (r = 90°).
When the angle of incidence is further increased, the ray is not refracted but is totally reflected
back in the denser medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
When a beam of light travelling from the top of a tree enters a rarer layer, it is refracted away
from the normal. As a result at the surface of layers of air, each time the angle of incidence
increases and ultimately a stage is reached, when the angle of incidence becomes greater than
the critical angle between the two layers, the incident ray suffers total internal reflection.
So it appears as inverted image of the tree is formed and the same looks like a pool of water to
the observer.
Figure shows how sun light is broken into its segments in the process and a rainbow appears. The
dispersion of the violet and the red rays after internal reflection in the drop is shown in figure.
The red rays emerge from the drops of water at one angle (43°) and the violet rays emerge at
another angle (41°). The large number of water drops in the sky makes a rain-bow. The rainbow
appears semicircular for an observer on earth.
Question 5.Why does the setting sun appear red ? [T.S. Mar. 17, Mar. 14]
Answer: As sunlight travels through the earths atmosphere, gets scattered by the large number
of molecules present. This scattering of sun light is responsible for the colour of the sky, during
sunrise and sunset etc.
The light of shorter wave length is scattered much more than light of larger wave-length.
Scattering ∝ 1λ4.
Most of blue light is scattered, hence the bluish colour of sky predominates.
At sunset (or) sunrise, sun rays must pass through a larger atmospheric distance. More of the
blue colour is scattered away only red colour which is least scattered ap-pears to come from sun.
Hence it appears red.
Question 6.With a neat labelled diagram explain the formation of image in a simple
microscope. [T.S. Mar. 16, A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:Simple microscope: It consists a single short focus convex lens. It increases the visual
angle to see an object clearly. It is also called magnifying glass (or) reading glass.
Working : The object is adjusted within the principal focus Of the convex lens to form the image
at the near point. The image is formed on same side of the object and it is virtual, erect and
magnified as shown in fig.
Magnifying power : The ratio of the angle subtended by the image at the eye to the angle
subtended by the object at the eye is called magnifying power of a simple microscope.
It is denoted by ‘m’.
m = αβ≃TanαTanβ
Question 7.What is the position of the object for a simple microscope ? What is the
maximum magnifi-cation of a simple microscope for a realistic focal length ?
Answer:When an object is placed between principal focus and optical centre of a convex lens, a
virtual and erect image will be formed on the same side of the object.
Magnifying power: It is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the image to the
angle subtended by the object at the eye.
m = αβ≃TanαTanβ
From figure OJ = IJ’, ∠IO’G = α and ∠IO’J’ = β
The above equation can be written as
m = 1 + Df …………… (2)
This shows that smaller the focal length of the lens, greater will be the magnifying power of
microscope.
Wave Optics
Question 1. Explain Doppler effect in light. Distinguish between red shift and blue shift.
[T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer: Doppler effect in light : The change in the apparent frequency of light, due to relative
motion between source of light and observer. This phenomenon is called Doppler effect.
The apparent frequency of light increases when the distance between observer and source of light
is decreasing and the apparent frequency of light decreases, if the distance between source of
light and observer increasing.
Doppler shift can be expressed as = Δvv=−vradial c
Applications of Doppler effect in light:
1. It is used in measuring the speed of a star and speed of galaxies.
2. Measuring the speed of rotation of the sun.
Red shift: The apparent increase in wave length in the middle of the visible region of the
spectrum moves towards the red end of the spectrum is called red shift.
Blue shift: When waves are received from a source moving towards the observer, there is an
apparent decrease in wave length, this is called blue shift.
Question 2. Derive the expression for the intensity at a point where interference of
light occurs. Arrive at the conditions for maximum and zero intensity. [A.P. Mar. 16;
T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer: Let y1 and y2 be the displacements of the two waves having same amplitude a and <|>
is the phase difference between them.
Question 3. Does the principle of conservation of energy hold for interference and
diffraction phenomena? Explain briefly. [Mar. 14]
Question 4. How do you determine the resolving power of your eye ? [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer: Make black strips of equal width separated by white strips. All the black strips having
same width, while the width of white strips should increase from left to right.
Now watch the pattern with one eye. By moving away (or) closer to the wall, find the position
where you can just see some two black strips as separate strips.
All black strips to the left of this strips would merge into one another and would not be
distinguishable on the other hand, the black strips to the right of this would be more and more
clearly visible.
Note the width d of the white strips and measure the distance D of the wall from eye.
Then resolution of your eye = dD
Question 5. Explain polarisation of light by reflection and arrive at Brewster’s law from it.
Answer: Polarisation of light by reflection : When unpolarized light is incident on the boundary of
a denser medium, at a particular angle of incidence the reflected light is completely plane
polarised. This incident angle is called Brewster’s angle (iB).
Brewster’s law:
When light is incident on a transparent surface at Brewster s angle, then reflected and refracted
rays are at right angles to each other.
From snell’s law, refractive index,
∴ iB + r = π2 ⇒ r = π2 – iB
n = siniBsinr=siniBsin(π2−iB)=siniBcosiB = tan iB
n = taniB, This is known as Brewster’s law.
Brewster’s law – statement: The refractive index of a denser medium is equal to tangent of the
polarising angle.
Question 6. Discuss the intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated
between two crossed polaroids. [T.S. Mar. 17; Mar. 12]
Answer: Let I0 be the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polariser P 1. Then
the intensity of light after passing through second polariser P2 will be I = I0cos2θ.
Where θ is the angle between pass axes P1 and P2. Since P1 and P2 are crossed the angle between
the pass axes of P2 and P3 will be (π2 – θ)
Hence the intensity of light emerging from P3 will be
I = I0cos2θ . cos2(π2 – θ)
= I0cos2θ . sin2θ
I = I04 sin2 2θ
∴ The transmitted intensity will be maximum when θ = π4.
Answer: Coulomb’s law – Statement: Force between two charges is proportional to the product of
the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. The force
acts along the straight line joining the two charges.
Explanation : Let us consider two charges q1 and q2 be separated by a distance r.
Question 3. Derive the equation for the couple acting on a electric dipole in a uniform
electric field.
Answer:
1. A pair of opposite charges separated by a small distance is called dipole.
2. Consider the charge of dipole are -q and +q coulomb and the distance between them is 2a.
3. Then the electric dipole moment P is given by P = q × 2a = 2aq. It is a vector. It’s
direction is from -q to +q along the axis of dipole.
4. It is placed in a uniform electric field E, making an angle θ with, field direction as shown in
fig.
5. Due to electric field force on +q is F = +.qE and force on -q is F = -qE.
6. These two equal and opposite charges constitute torque or moment of couple.
Question 4. Derive an expression for the intensity of the electric field at a point on the
axial line of an electric dipole. [A.P. Mar. 17; T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer: Electric field at a point on the axis of a dipole :
1. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two charges -q and + q separated by a distance
‘2a’ with centre ‘O’.
2. We shall calculate electric field E at point P on the axial line of dipole, and at a distance OP
= r.
3. Let E1 and E2 be the intensities of electric field at P due to charges + q and -q respectively.
Question 5. Derive an expression for the intensity of the electric field at a point on the
equatorial plane of an electric dipole. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer: Electric field intensity on equatorial line of electric dipole :
1. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two charges-q and +q separated by a distance ‘2a’
with centre at ’O’.
2. We shall calculate electric field E at P on equatorial line of dipole and at a distance OP = r.
Question 6. State Gauss’s law in electrostatics and explain its importance. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer: Gauss’s law : The total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to 1ε0 times the
net charge enclosed by the surface.
Total electric flux, Φ = ∮sE→⋅ds→=qε0
Here q is the total charge enclosed by the surface ‘S’, ∮ represents surface integral of the closed
surface.
Importance :
1. Gauss’s law is very useful in calculating the electric field in case of problems where it is
possible to construct a closed surface. Such surface is called Gaussian surface.
2. Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface, no matter what its shape or size.
3. Symmetric considerations in many problems make the application of Gauss’s law much
easier.
2. Consider a point P at a distance r from the point charge having charge + q. The electric
field at P = E = q4πε0x2
3. Workdone in taking a unit +ve charge from B to A = dV = -E.dx (-ve sign shows that the
workdone is +ve in the direction B to A, whereas the potential difference is +ve in the
direction A to B.
4. Therefore, potential at P = The amount of workdone in taking a unit +ve charge from
infinity to P
Workdone = q2 vB
But vB = 14πε0q1r
W = 14πε0q1q2r
4. This amount of workdone is stored as electrostatic potential energy (U) of a system of two
charged particles. Its unit is joule.
∴ U = 14πε0q1q2r
5. If the two charges are similar then ‘U’ is positive. This is in accordance with the fact that
two similar charges repel one another and positive work has to be done on the system to
bring the charges nearer.
6. Conversely if the two charges are of opposite sign, they attract one another and potential
energy is negative.
Question 3.Derive an expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole placed in
a uniform electric field.
Answer: Expression for potential energy of an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field :
1. Consider a electric dipole of length 2a having charges + q and -q.
2. The electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field E and it’s axis makes an angle θ with
E.
3. Force on charges are equal but opposite sign. They constitute torque on the dipole.
Question 4.Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. [A.P.
Mar. 16; T.S. Mar. 14]
Answer: Expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor:
1. P and Q are two parallel plates of a capacitor separated by a distance of d.
2. The area of each plate is A. The plate P is charged and Q is earth connected.
3. The charge on P is + q and surface charge density of charge = σ
∴ q = Aσ
opposite to the electric field and induce a net electric field within the medium opposite to
the external field. In such situation the molecules are said to be polarised.
2. Now consider a capacitor with a dielectric between the plates. The net field in the dielectric
becomes less.
3. If E0 is the external field strength and Ei is the electric field strength induced, then the net
field, E→net =E→0+E→i
(Enet) = E0 – Ei = EK where K is the dielectric constant of the medium.
Question 6. Define electric potential. Derive an expression for the electric potential due
to an electric dipole and hence the electric potential at a point (a) the axial line of
electric dipole (b) on the equatorial line of electric dipole.
Answer: Electric potential (V) : The workdone by a unit positive charge from infinite to a point in
an electric field is called electric potential.
Qeustion 7. What is series combination of capacitors. Derive the formula for equivalent
capacitance in series combination. [A.P.& T.S. Mar.15]
Answer: Series combination : If a number of condensers are connected end to end between the
fixed points then such combination is called series.
In this combination
1. Charge on each capacitor is equal.
2. P.D’s across the capacitors is not equal.
Consider three capacitors of capacitances C1, C2 and C3 are connected in series across a battery of
P.D V as shown in figure.
Let ‘Q’ be the charge on each capacitor.
Let V1, V2 and V3 be the P.D’s of three
V = V1 + V2 + V3 ……………… (1)
RD across Ist condenser V1 = QC1
RD across IIInd condenser V2 = QC2
RD across IIIIrd condenser V3 = QC3
∴ From the equation (1),V = V1 + V2 + V3
= QC1+QC2+QC3=Q[1C1+1C2+1C3]
VQ=1C1+1C2+1C3
1C=1C1+1C2+1C3 [∵ 1C=VQ
For ‘n’ number of capacitors, the effective capacitance
1C=1C1+1C2+1C3+…+1Cn
In this combination,
1. The P.D’s between each capacitor is equal (or) same.
2. Charge on each capacitor is not equal.
Consider three capacitors of capacitance C1, C2 and C3 are connected in parallel across a P.D V as
shown in fig.
The charge on Ist capacitor Q1 = C1 V
The charge on IInd capacitor Q2 = C2 V
The charge on IIIrd capacitor Q3 = C3 V
∴ The total charge Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
= C1 V + C 2 V + C 3 V
Q = V(C1 + C2 + C3) ⇒ QV = C1 + C2 + C3
C = C1 + C2 + C3 [∵ C = QV]
for ‘n’ number of capacitors connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance can be written as
C = C1 + C2 + C3 + ……………. + Cn
Qeustion 10. What is the energy stored when the space between the plates is filled
with dielectric.
a) With charging battery disconnected ?
b) With charging battery connected in the circuit ?
Problems
Question 1.
(a) Calculate the potential at a point P due to a charge of 4 × 10-7 C located 9 cm away,
(b) Hence obtain the work done in bringing a charge of 2 × 10-9 C from infinity to the point P.
Does the answer depend on the path along which the charge is brought ?
Solution:
(a) V = 14πε0Qr
= 9 × 109 Nm2 C-2 4×10−7C0.09 m
= 4 × 104 V
(b) W = qV = 2 × 10-9 C × 4 × 104V
= 8 × 10-5 J
No, work done will be path independent. Any arbitrary infinitesimal path can be resolved into two
perpendicular displacements. One along r and another perpendicular to r. The work done
corresponding to the later will be zero.
Qeustion 2. Two charges 3 × 10-8 C and -2 × 10-8 C are located 15 cm apart. At what point on the
line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero ? Thke the potential at infinity to be
zero.
Solution: Let us take the origin O at the location of the positive charge. The line joining the two
charges is taken to be x-axis; the negative charge is taken to be on the right side of the origin
fig.
Let P be the required point on the x-axis where the potential is zero. If x is the x – coordinate of
P, obviously x must be positive. (There is no possibility of potentials due to the two charges
adding up to zero for x < 0.) If x lies between O and A, we have
14πε0[3×10−8x×10−2−2×10−8(15−x)×10−2] = 0
where x is in cm. That is 3x−215−x = 0
which gives x = 9 cm
If x lies on the extended line OA, the required condition is 3x−2x−15 = 0
Which gives x = 45 cm
Thus, electric potential is zero at 9 cm and 45 cm away from the positive charge on the side of
the negative charge. Note that the formula for potential used in the calculation required choosing
potential to be zero at infinity.
Question 3. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor but has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the separation of the plates. How is
the capacitance changed when die slab is inserted between the plates ?
Solution: Let E0 = Vg/d be the electric field between the plates when there is no dielectric and the
potential difference is V0. If the dielectric is now inserted, the electric field in the dielectric will be
E = E0/K. The potential difference will then be
V = E0(14d)+E0K(34d)
= E0 d(14+34 K)=V0K+34 K
The potential difference decreases by the factor (K + 3)/K while the free charge Q 0 on the plates
remains unchanged. The capacitance thus increases,
C = Q0 V=4 K K+3Q0 V0=4 K K+3C0
Question 4. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d. as shown in fig.
Find the work required to put together this arrangement, (b) A charge q0 is brought to the centre
of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its comers. How much extra work is needed to
do this ?
Solution:
(a) Since the work done depends on the final arrangement of the charges, and not on how they
are put together, we calculate work needed for one way of putting the charges at A, B, C and D.
Suppose, first the charge +q is brought to A and then the charges -q, +q, and -q are brought to
B, C and D, respectively. The total work needed can be calculated in steps.
1. Work needed to bring charge +q to A when no charge is present elsewhere: this is zero.
2. Work needed to bring -q to B when + q is at A. This is given by (charge at B) ×
(electrostatic potential at B due to change +q at A) = -q × (q4πε0d)
3. Work needed to bring charge +q to C when +q is at A and -q is at B. This is given by –
(charge at Q × (potential at C due to charges at A and B) .
Add the work done is steps (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). The total work required is
The work done depends only on the arrangement of the charges, and not how they are
assembled. By definition, this is the total electrostatic energy of the charges.
(Students may try calculating same work/energy by taking charges in any other order they
desire and convince themselves that the energy will remain the same.)
b) The extra work necessary to bring a charge q0 to the point E when the four charges are at A,
B, C and D is q0 × (electrostatic potential at E due to the charges at A, B, C and D). The
electrostatic potential at E is clearly zero since potential due to A and C is cancelled by that due
to B and D.Hence no work is required to bring any charge to point E.
Question 5.
a) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of two charges 7μC and -
2μC (and with no external field) placed at (-9 cm, 0,0) and (9cm, 0, 0) respectively.
b) How much work is required to separate the two charges infinitely away from each ‘ other?
Solution:
(a) U = 14πε0q1q2r
= 9 × 109 × 14πε0q1q2r = -0.7 J.
(b)W = U2 – U1 = 0 – U = 0 – (-0.7)
= 0.7J.
Question 6. There is a uniform electric field in the XOY plane represented by (40i^+30j^) Vm-1. If
the electric potential at the origin is 200 V, the electric potential at the point with coordinates
(2m, 1m) is
Answer: Given, uniform Electric field intensity,
E→ = (40i^+30j^) Vm-1
Electric potential at the origin = 200V
Position vector dr→=(2i^+1j^) m
We know that,
dV = −E⃗ ⋅dr⃗ =−(40i^+30j^)⋅(2i^+j^)
Vp – V0 = -(80 + 30) = -110Volt. ’
Vp = V0 – 110 = (200 – 110) Volt = 90 Volt
∴ Potential at point P, Vp = 90Volt.
Question 7. An equilateral triangle has a side length L. A charge +q is kept at the centroid of the
triangle. P is a point on the perimeter of the triangle. The ratio of the minimum and maximum
possible electric potentials for the point P is
Answer: Charge at the centroid of an equilateral triangle = +q
The charge + q divides the line segment in ratio 2 : 1.
That means rmax = 2 and rmin = 1
Question 8. A condenser of certain capacity is charged to a potential V and stores some energy. A
second condenser of twice the capacity is to store half the energy of the first, find to what
potential one must be charged ?
Solution: (For first capacitor, C1 = C; V1 = V
And U1 = 12 C1V12 = 12 CV2 …………………. (1)
For second capacitor, C2 = 2C1 = 2C;
U2 = U12=14CV2; Let potential difference across the capacitor = V2
Then, U2 = 12 C2V22
⇒ 14 CV2 = 12 × 2C × V22
⇒ V22 = V24
∴ V2 = V2
Question 9. Three Capacitors each of capaitance 9 pF are connected in series.
a) What is the total capacitance of the combination ?
b) What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 120
V supply ?
Solution:
a) Resultant capacitance in series combination 1Cs=1C1+1C2+1C3⇒1CS=19+19+19=39=13
CS = 3pF
b) Rd across each capacitor = V3=1203 = 40V
Question 10. Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and 4 pF are connected in parallel. [A.P.
Mar. 17]
a) What is the total capacitance of the combination ?
b) Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 100 V supply.
Solution:
a) Cp = C1 + C2 + C3 = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9pF
b) For each capacitor, V is same = 100 Volt
q1 = C1V = 2 × 100 = 200pC
q2 = C2V = 3 × 100 = 300pC
q2 = C3V = 4 × 100 = 400pC
Textual Examples
Question 1.
(a) Calculate the potential at a point P due to a charge of 4 × 10-7C located 9 cm away.
(b) Hence obtain the work done in bringing a charge of 2 × 10-9C from infinity to the point P.
Does the answer depend on the path along which the charge is brought ?
Solution:
(a) V = 14πε0Qr
= 9 × 109 Nm2 C-2 4×10−7C0.09 m
= 4 × 104 V
(b) W = qV = 2 × 10-9 C × 4 × 104V
= 8 × 10-5 J
No, work done will be path independent. Any arbitrary infinitesimal path can be resolved into two
perpendicular displacements. One along r and another perpendicular to r. The work done
corresponding to the later will be zero.
Question 2. Two charges 3 × 10-8 C and -2 × 10-8C are located 15 cm apart. At what point on the
line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero ? Take the potential at infinity to be
zero.
Solution: Let us take the origin O at the location of the positive charge. The line joining the two
charges is taken to be x-axis; the negative charge is taken to be on the right side of the origin
fig.
Let P be the required point on the x-axis where the potential is zero. If x is the x – coordinate of
P, obviously x must be positive. (There is no possibility of potentials due to the two charges
adding up to zero for x < 0.) If x lies between O and A, we have
14πε0[3×10−8x×10−2−2×10−8(15−x)×10−2] = 0
where x is in cm. That is 3x−215−x = 0
which gives x = 9 cm.
If x lies on the extended line OA, the required condition is 3x−2x−15 = 0
Which gives x. = 45 cm
Thus, electric potential is zero at 9 cm and 45 cm away from the positive charge on the side of
the negative charge. Note that the formula for potential used in the claculation required choosing
potential to be zero at infinity.
Question 3. Figure (a) and (b) shows the field lines of a positive and negative point charge
respectively.
Solution:
(a) As V ∝ 1r, Vp > VQ. Thus, (Vp – VQ) is positive. Also VB is less negative than VA. Thus, VB >
VA or (VB – VA) is positive.
(b) A small negative charge will be attracted towards positive charge. The negative charge moves
from higher potential energy to lower potential energy. Therefore the sign of potential energy
difference of a small negative charge between Q and P is positive. Similarly. (PE.) A > (P.E.)B and
hence sign of potential energy differences is positive.
(c) In moving a small positive charge from Q to P, work has to be done by an external agency
against the eletric field. Therefore, work done by the field is negative.
(d) In moving a small negative charge from B to A work has to be done by the external agency.
It is positive.
(e) Due to force of repulsion on the negative charge, velocity decreases and hence the kinetic
energy decreases in going form B to A.
Question 4. Four charges are arranged at the comets of a square ABCD of side d. as shown in fig.
5.15.(a) Find the work required to put together this arrangement, (b) A charge q0 is brought to
the centre of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its comers. How much extra work is
needed to do this ?
Solution:
(a) Since the work done depends on the final arrangement of the charges, and not on how they
are put together, we calculate work needed for one way of putting the charges at A, B, C and D.
Suppose, first the charge +q is brought to A, and then the charges -q, +q, and -q are brought to
B, C and D, respectively The total work needed can be calculated in steps.
1. Work needed to bring charge +q to A when no charge is present elesewhere: this is zero.
2. Work needed to bring -q to B when +q is at A. This is given by (charge at B) x
(electrostatic .potential at B due to charge +q at A) = -q × (q4πε0 d)
3. Work needed to bring charge +q to C when +q is at A and -q is at B. This is given by –
(charge at Q × (potential at C due to charges at A and B) .
Add the work done is steps (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). The total work required is
The work done depends only on the arrangement of the charges, and not how they are
assembled. By definition, this is the total electrostatic energy of the charges.
(Students may try calculating same work/energy by taking charges in any other order they
desire and convince themselves that the energy will remain the same.)
b) The extra work necessary to bring a charge q0 to the point E when the four charges are at A,
B, C and D is q0 × (electrostatic potential at E due to the charges at A, B, C and D). The
electrostatic potential at E is clearly zero since potential due to A and C is cancelled by that due
to B and D.Hence no work is required to bring any charge to point E.
Question 5.
a) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of two charges 7µC and -
2µC (and with no external field) placed at (-9 cm, 0,0) and (9cm, 0, 0) respectively.
b) How much work is required to separate the two charges infinitely away from each other ?
c) Suppose that the same system of charges is now placed in an external electric field E =
A(1/r2); A = 9 × 105 C m-2. What would the electrostatic energy of the configuration be ?
Solution:
(a) U = 14πε0q1q2r
= 9 × 109 × 14πε0q1q2r = -0.7 J.
(b)W = U2 – U1 = 0 – U = 0 – (-0.7)
= 0.7J.
c) The mutual interaction energy of the two charges remains unchanged. In addition, there is the
energy of interaction of the two charges with the external electric field. We find,
q1V(r1) + q2V(r2) = A 7μC0.09 m + A −2μC0.09 m
and the net electrostatic energy is
q1V(r1) + q2V(r2) + q1q24πε0r12
= A 7μC0.09 m + A −2μC0.09 m
= 70 – 20 – 0.7 = 49.3J
Question 6. A molecule of a substance has a perma-nent electric dipole moment of magnitude 10 -
29
C m. A mole of this substance is polarised (at low temperature) by applying a strong
electrostatic field of magnitude 106 V m-1. The direction of the field is suddenly changed by an
angle of 60°. Estimate the heat released by the substance in aligning its dipoles along the new
direction of the field. For simplicity, assume 100% polarisation of the sample.
Solution: Here, dipole moment of each molecules = 10-29C m
As 1 mole of the substance contains 6 × 1023 molecules,
total dipole moment of all the molecules, p = 6 × 1023 × 10-29 Cm
= 6 × 10-6 C m
Initial potential energy, Ut = -pE cos θ
=-6 × 10-6 × 106 cos 0° = -6 J
Final potential energy (when θ = 60°),
Uf = -6 × 10-6 × 106 × cos 60° = – 3J
Change in potential energy
= -3 J – (-6j) = 3 J
So, there is loss in potential energy. This must be the energy released by the substance in the
form of heat in aligning its dipoles.
Question 7.
(a) A comb run through one’s dry hair attracts small bits of paper. Why ? What happens if the
hair is wet or if it is a rainy day ? (Remember, a paper does not conduct electricity.)
(b) Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But special rubber types of aircraft are made slightly
conducting. Why is this necessary ?
(c) Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have metallic ropes touching the ground
during motion. Why?
(d) A bird perches on a bare high power line, and nothing happens to the bird. A man standing on
the ground touches the same line and gets a fatal shock. Why ?
Solution:
(a) This is because the comb gets charged by friction. The molecules in the paper gets polarised
by the charged comb, resulting in a net force of attraction, if the hair is wet, or if it is a rainy day.
friction between hair and the comb reduces. The comb does not get charged and thus it will not
attract small bits of paper.
(b) To enable them to conduct charge (produced by friction) to the ground; as too much of static
electricity accumulated may result in spark and result in fire.
(c) Reason similar to (b).
(d) Current passes only when there is difference in potential.
Question 8. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a
parallelplate capacitor but has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the separation of the plates. How is
the capacitance changed when the slab is inserted between the plates ?
Solution:
Let E0 = Vg/d be the electric field between the plates when there is no dielectric and the potential
difference is V0. If the dielectric is now inserted, the electric field in the dielectric will be E = E 0/K.
The potential difference will then be
V = E0(14d)+E0K(34d)
= E0 d(14+34 K)=V0K+34 K
The potential difference decreases by the factor (K + 3)/K while the free charge Q 0 on the plates
remains unchanged. The capacitance thus increases,
C = Q0 V=4 K K+3Q0 V0=4 K K+3C0
Question 9. A network of four 10μF capacitors is connected to a 500V supply, as shown in Fig.
Determine
(a) the equivalent capacitance of the network and
(b) the charge on each capacitor, (Note, the charge on a capacitor is the charge on the plate with
higher potential, equal and opposite to the charge on the plate with lower potential.)
Solution:
(a) In the given network, C1, C2 and C3 are connected in series. The effective capacitance C’ of
these three capacitors isgivgftby
1C′=1C1+1C2+1C3
For C1 = C2 = C3 = 10 μF. C = (10/3) μF. The network has C and C4 connected in parallel. Thus,
the equivalent capacitance C of the network is
C = C’ + C4 = (103 + 10) μF = 13.3 μF
(b) Clearly, from the figure, the charge on each of the capacitors, C 1, C2 and C3 is the same, say
Q. Let the charge on C4 be Q. Now, since the potential difference c across AB is Q/C1 across BC is
Q/C2. across CD is Q/C3, we have
QC1+QC2+QC3 = 500 V
Also Q’/C4 = 500V.
This gives for the given value of the capacitances,
Q = 500 V × 103 μF = 1.7 × 10-3C and
Q’ = 500 V × 10μF = 5.0 × 10-3C
Question 10.
(a) A 900pF capacitor is charged by 100 V battery [Fig.a]. How much electrostatic energy is
stored by the capacitor ?
(b) The capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another 900 pF capacitor.
What is the electrostatic y energy stored by the system ?
Solution:
The charge on the capacitor is
Q = CV = 900 × 10-12F × 100 V
= 9 × 10-8C
The energy stored by the capacitor is
= (1/2) CV2 = (1/2) QV
= (1/2) × 9 × 10-8C × 100 V
= 4.5 × 10-6 J
(b) In the steady situation, the two capacitors have their positive plates at the same potential,
and their negative plates at the same potential. Let the common potential difference be V. The
charge on each capacitor is then Q’ = CV’. By charge conservation, Q’ = Q/2. This implies V’ =
V/2. The total energy of the system is
= 2 × 12Q’V’ = 14QV = 2.25 × 106J
Thus in going from (a) to (b), though no charge is lost; the final energy is only half the initial
energy. Where has the remaining energy gone ?
There is a transient period before the system settles to the situation (b). During this period, a
transient current flows from the first capacitor to the second. Energy is lost during this time in
the form of heat and electromagnetic radiation.
Moving Charges and Magnetism
Question 1. State and explain Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer: Consider a very small element of length dl of a conductor carrying current (i). Magnetic
induction due to small element at a point P distance r from the element.
Magnetic induction (dB) is directly proportional to i) current (i) ii) Length of the element (di) iii)
sine angle between r and dl and inversely proportional to the square of the distance from small
element to point P.
Question 3. Find the magnetic induction due to a long current carrying conductor.
Answer: Consider a long straight conductor carrying a current i. Let P be a point at a distance r
from the conductor. Let r be the radius of the circle passing through point p.
Magnetic induction is same at all points on the circle. Consider a small element of length dl.
∮B→⋅dl→=∮Bdlcosθ
Angle between B and dl is zero i.e. θ = 0
= B∮dl
∮B→⋅dl→ = B (2πr) ………………. (1)
According to Ampere’s laws
∮B→⋅dl→ = μ0i ……………. (2)
From equations (1) and (2), B (2πr) = μ0i
= μ0i2πr
Question 4. Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at the centre of a current carrying
circular coil using Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer: Consider a circular coil of radius r and carry a current! Consider a small element ‘dl’. Let
O is the centre of the coil. By using Biot – Savart’s law,
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2
Here angle dl→ and r→ is 90° (i.e., θ = 90°)
dB = μ04πidlr2 …………… (1)
As the field due to all elements of the circular loop have the same direction. The resultant
magnetic field can be obtained by integrating equation (1)
Question 5. Derive an expression for the magnetic induction of a point on the axis of a current
carrying circular coil using Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer:
Consider a circular coil of radius R and carrying a current i. Let P is a point on the axis at a
distance x from the centre O. Let r be the distance of small element (dl) from P.
From Biot – savart’s law
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2=μ04π⋅idlr2 ……………….. (1)
(∵ θ = 90° Angle between dl→ and r→)
dB can be resolved into two components dB cosθ and dB sinθ. If we consider another This also
resolved into dB cosθ and dB sinθ.
The components along the axis will add up and perpendicular to the axis will cancel.
∴ Resultant magnetic induction at P is
Question 7. What are the basic components of a cyclotron ? Mention its uses ?
Answer: Cyclotron is a device used to accelerate positively charged particles like protons, α –
particles, deutrons etc.
Question 8. Derive an expression for the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron. [A.P.
Mar. 16]
Solution: Consider an electron revolving in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v and frequency
υ. If the electron cross a point P on the circle in every revolution, then distance travelled by
electron to complete one revolution = 2πr.
No. of revolutions in one second (υ) = v2πr
The electric current (i) = Charge Time = charge × frequency
i = e × v2πr
∴ Magentic dipole moment (M) = iA (∵ N = 1)
M = ev2πr × πr2 (∵ A = πr2)
M = evr2
Moving Charges and Magnetism
Question 1. State and explain Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer: Consider a very small element of length dl of a conductor carrying current (i). Magnetic
induction due to small element at a point P distance r from the element.
Magnetic induction (dB) is directly proportional to i) current (i) ii) Length of the element (di) iii)
sine angle between r and dl and inversely proportional to the square of the distance from small
element to point P.
Magnetic induction is same at all points on the circle. Consider a small element of length dl.
∮B→⋅dl→=∮Bdlcosθ
Angle between B and dl is zero i.e. θ = 0
= B∮dl
∮B→⋅dl→ = B (2πr) ………………. (1)
According to Ampere’s laws
∮B→⋅dl→ = μ0i ……………. (2)
From equations (1) and (2), B (2πr) = μ0i
= μ0i2πr
Question 4. Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at the centre of a current carrying
circular coil using Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer: Consider a circular coil of radius r and carry a current! Consider a small element ‘dl’. Let
O is the centre of the coil. By using Biot – Savart’s law,
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2
Here angle dl→ and r→ is 90° (i.e., θ = 90°)
dB = μ04πidlr2 …………… (1)
As the field due to all elements of the circular loop have the same direction. The resultant
magnetic field can be obtained by integrating equation (1)
Question 5. Derive an expression for the magnetic induction of a point on the axis of a current
carrying circular coil using Biot-Savart’s law.
Answer:
Consider a circular coil of radius R and carrying a current i. Let P is a point on the axis at a
distance x from the centre O. Let r be the distance of small element (dl) from P.
From Biot – savart’s law
dB = μ04π⋅idlsinθr2=μ04π⋅idlr2 ……………….. (1)
(∵ θ = 90° Angle between dl→ and r→)
dB can be resolved into two components dB cosθ and dB sinθ. If we consider another This also
resolved into dB cosθ and dB sinθ.
The components along the axis will add up and perpendicular to the axis will cancel.
∴ Resultant magnetic induction at P is
Question 7. What are the basic components of a cyclotron ? Mention its uses ?
Answer: Cyclotron is a device used to accelerate positively charged particles like protons, α –
particles, deutrons etc.
Question 8. Derive an expression for the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron. [A.P.
Mar. 16]
Solution: Consider an electron revolving in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v and frequency
υ. If the electron cross a point P on the circle in every revolution, then distance travelled by
electron to complete one revolution = 2πr.
No. of revolutions in one second (υ) = v2πr
The electric current (i) = Charge Time = charge × frequency
i = e × v2πr
∴ Magentic dipole moment (M) = iA (∵ N = 1)
M = ev2πr × πr2 (∵ A = πr2)
M = evr2
Atoms
Question 1. What is impact parameter and angle of scattering ? How are they related to each
other ?
Answer:
1. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the perpendicular distance of the
initial velocity vector of the alpha particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the
particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom.
2. Scattering angle (θ) : The scattering angle (θ) is the angle between the asymtotic direction
of approach of the α – particle and the asymtotic direction in which it receeds.
3. The relation between b and θ is b = 14πε0Ze2E cot θ2 where E = K.E of α – particle
= 12 mυ2.
Question 3. Describe Rutherford atom model. What are the draw backs of this model ?
Answer: Rutherford atom model: The essential features of Rutherford’s nuclear model of the
atom or planetary model of the atom are as follows :
1. Every atom consists of tiny central core, called the atomic nucleus, in which the entire
positive charge and almost entire mass of the atom are concentrated.
2. The size of nucleus is of the order of 10-15m, which is very small as compared to the size of
the atom which is of the order of 10-10 m.
3. The atomic nucleus is surrounded by certain number of electrons. As atom on the whole is
electrically neutral, the total negative charge of electrons surrounding the nucleus is equal
to total positive charge on the nucleus.
4. These electrons revolve around the nucleus in various circular orbits as do the planets
around the sun. The centripetal force required by electron for revolution is provided by the
electrostatic force of attraction between the electrons and the nucleus.
Drawbacks : According to classical E.M. theory,
1. the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall
into the nucleus. As matter is stable, we cannot expect the atoms to collapse.
2. since the frequency of radiation emitted is the same as the frequency of revolution, the
atom should radiate a continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.
Question 4. What are the limitations of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom ? [A.P. Mar. 17; Mar. 14]
Answer: Limitations of Bohr’s theory of Hydrogen atom :
1. This theory is applicable only to simplest atom like hydrogen, with z = 1. The theory fails
in case of atoms of other elements for which z > 1.
2. The theory does not explain why orbits of electrons are taken as circular, while elliptical
orbits are also possible.
3. Bohr’s theory does not say anything about the relative intensities of spectral lines.
4. Bohr’s theory does not take into account the wave properties of electrons.
Question 6. Explain the different types of spectral series in hydrogen atom. [T.S. Mar. 16, A.P.
Mar. 15]
Answer: The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of five series.
1. Lyman series : v = Rc (112−1n2) where n = 2, 3, 4
2. Balmer series : v = Rc (122−1n2) where n = 3, 4, 5.
3. Paschen series : v = Rc (132−1n2) where n = 4, 5, 6
4. Brackett series: v = Rc (142−1n2) where n = 5, 6, 7
5. Pfund series: v = Rc (152−1n2) where n = 6, 7, 8
Semiconductor and Electronics
Question 1. What is a rectifier ? Explain the working of half wave and full Wave rectifiers with
diagrams. [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer: Rectifier: It is a circuit which converts ac into d.c. A p-n junction diode is used as a
rectifier.
Half-wave rectifier:
1. A half wave rectifier can be constructed with a single diode. The ac input signal is fed to
the primary coil of a transformer. The output signal is taken across the load resistance R L.
2. During positive half cycle, the diode is forward biased and current flows through the diode.
3. During negative half cycle, diode is reverse biased and no current flows through the load
resistance.
4. This means current flows through the diode only during positive half cycles and negative
half cycles are blocked. Hence in the output we get only positive half cycles.
5. Rectifier efficiency is defined as the ratio of output dc power to the input ac power.
η = PdcPac=0.406RLrf+RL
Where rf = Forward resistance of a diode; RL = Load resistance
The maximum efficiency of half wave rectifier is 40.6%.
Full wave rectifier : The process of converting an alternating current into a direct current is called
rectification.
The device used for this purpose is called rectifier.
1. A full wave rectifier can be constructed with the help of two diodes D 1 and D2.
2. The secondary transformer is centre tapped at C and its ends are connected to the p
regions of two diodes D1 & D2.
3. The output voltage is measured across the load resistance R L.
4. During positive half cycles of ac, the diode D1 is forward biased and current flows through
the load resistance RL. At this time D2 will be reverse biased and will be in switch off
position.
5. During negative half cycles of ac, the diode D2 is forward biased and the current flows
through RL. At this time D1 will be reverse biased and will be in switch off position.
6. Hence positive output is obtained for all the input ac signals.
7. The efficiency of a rectifier is defined as the ratio between the output dc power to the input
ac power.
η = PdcPac=0.812RLrf+RL
The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is 81.2%.
Question 2. What is a junction diode ? Explain the formation of depletion region at the junction.
Explain the variation of depletion region in forward and reverse-biased condition.
Answer: p-n junction diode: When a p-type semiconductor is suitablyjoined to n-type
semiconductor, a p-n junction diode is formed. ’
The circuit symbol of p-n junction diode is shown in figure.
Formation of depletion layer at the junction: When p-n junction is formed, the free electrons on
n-side diffuse over to p-side, they combine with holes and become neutral. Similarly holes on p-
side diffuse over to n-side and combihe with electrons become neutral.
This results in a narrow region formed on either side of the junction. This region is called
depletion layer. Depletion layer is free from charge carriers.
The n-type material near the junction becomes positively charged due to immobile donor ions
and p-type material becomes negatively charged due to immobile acceptor ions. This creates an
electric field near the junction directed from n-region to p-region and cause a potential barrier.
The potential barrier stops further diffusion of holes and electrons across the* junction. The value
of the potential barrier depends upon the nature of the crystal, its temperature and the amount
of doping.
Forward bias :
“When a positive terminal of a battery is connected to p-side and negative terminal is connected
to n-side; then p-n junction diode is said to be forward bias”.
The holes in the p-region are repelled by the positive polarity and move towards the junction.
Similarly electrons in the n-region are repelled by the negative polarity and move towards the
junction.
As a result, the width of the depletion layer decreases. The charge carriers cross the junction apd
electric current flows in the circuit.
Hence in forward bias resistance of diode is low. This position is called switch on position.
Reverse bias:
“When the negative terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and positive terminal of the
battery is connected to n-side of the p-n junction, then the diode is said to be reverse bias”.
The holes in the p-region are attracted towards negative polarity and move away from the
junction. Similarly the electrons in the n-region are attracted towards positive polarity and move
away from the junction.
So, width of the depletion layer and potential barrier increases. Hence resistance of p-n junction
diode increases. Thus the reverse biased diode is called switch off position.
Question 3. What is a Zener diode ? Explain how it is used as a voltage regulator.
Answer: Zener diode : Zener diode is a heavily doped germanium (or) silicon p-n junction diode.
It works on reverse bias break down region.
The circuit symbol of zener diode is shown in figure.
Zener diode can be used as a voltage regulator. In- general zener diode is connected in reverse
bias in the circuits.
1. The zener diode is connected to a battery, through a resistance R. The battery reverse
biases the zener diode.
2. The load resistance RL is connected across the terminals of the zener diode.
3. The value of R is selected in such away that In the absence of load R L maximum safe
current flows in the diode.
4. Now consider that load is connected across the diode. The load draws a current.
5. The current through the diode falls by the same amount but the voltage drops across the
load remains constant.
6. The series resistance ‘R’ absorbs the output voltage fluctuations, so as to maintain
constant voltage across the load.
7. The voltage across the zener diode remains constant even if the load R L varies. Thus, zener
diode works as voltage regulator.
8. If I is the input current, IZ and IL are zener and load currents.
I = IZ + IL; Vin = IR + VZ
But V0ut = VZ
∴ Vout = Vin – IR
Question 4. Explain the working of LED and what are its advantages over conventional
incandescent low power lamps.
Answer: Light emitting diode (LED) : It is a photoelectronic device which converts electrical
energy into light energy.
It is a heavily doped p-n junction diode which under forward bias emits spontaneous radiation.
The diode is covered with a transparent cover so that the emitted light may not come out.
Working : When p-n junction diode is forward biased, the movement of majority charge carriers
takes place across the junction. The electrons move from n-side to p-side through the junction
and holes move from p-side to n-side.
As a result of it, concentration of majority carriers increases rapidly at the junction.
When there is no bias across the junction, therefore there are excess minority carriers on either
side of the junction, which recombine with majority carriers near the junction.
On recombination of electrons and hole, the energy is given out in the form of heat and light.
Advantages of LED’s over incandescent lamp :
1. LED is cheap and easy to handle.
2. LED has less power and low operational voltage.
3. LED has fast action and requires no warm up time.
4. LED can be used in burglar alarm system.
Question 5. Define NAND and NOR gates. Give their truth tables. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer: NAND gate : NAND gate is a combination of AND gate and NOT gate.
NAND gate can be obtained by connecting a NOT gate in the output of an AND gate. NAND gates
are called universal gates.
1. If both inputs are low, output is high.
A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
2. If any input is low, output is high.
A = 0, B = 1, X = 1
A = 1, B = 0, X =1
3. If both inputs are high, output is low.
A = 1, B = 1, X = 0
NOR gate : NOR gate is a combination of OR gate and NOT gate when the output of OR gate is
connected to NOT gate. It has two (or) more inputs and one output.
Working : When light (E = hv) falls at the junction, electron – hole pairs are generated near the
junction. The electrons and holes produced move in opposite directions due to junction field. They
will be collected at the two sides of the junction giving rise to a photo voltage between top and
bottom metal electrodes. Top metal acts as positive electrode and bottom metal acts as a
negative electrode. When an external load is connected across metal electrodes a photo current
flows.
I-V characteristics : I – V characteristics of solar cell is drawn in the fourth quadrant of the
coordinate axes. Because it does not draw current.
Uses : They are used in calculators, wrist watches, artificial satellites etc.
Question 7. Explain the operation of a NOT gate and give its truth table. [IPE 15, T.S.]
Answer: NOT gate: NOT gate is the basic gate. It has one input and one output. The NOT gate is
also called an inverter. The circuit symbol of NOT gate is shown in figure.
Question 8. Draw an OR gate using two diodes and explain its operation. Write the truth table
and logic symbol of OR gate.
Answer: OR Gate : It has two input terminals and one output terminal. If both inputs are low the
output is low. If one of the inputs is high, or both the inputs are high then the output of the gate
is high. The truth tables of OR gate.
In truth table logic function is written as A or B ‘OR’ logic function is represented by the symbol
‘plus’.
Q=A+B
Logic gate ‘OR’ is shown given below.
Implementation of OR gate using diodes :
Let D1 and D2 be two diodes.
When A = 0, B = 0 both the diodes are reverse biased and there is no current through the
resistance. So, the potential at Q is zero i.e., Q = 0. When A = 0 or B = 0 and the other equal to
a potential of 5 V the diode whose anode is at a potential of 5 V is forward – biased and that
diode behaves like a closed switch. The output potential then becomes 5 V i.e., Q = 1. When both
A and B are 1, both the diodes are forward-biased and the potential at Q is same as that at A and
B which is 5 V i.e., Q = 1. The output is same as that of the OR gate.
Question 9. Sketch a basic AND circuit with two diodes and explain its operation. Explain how
doping increases the conductivity in semiconductors ?
Answer: AND gate : It has two input terminals and one output terminal.
If both the inputs are low (or) one of the inputs is low.
The output is low in an AND gate.
If both the inputs .are high
The output of the gate is high.
Note : If A and B are the inputs of the gate and the output is ‘Q’ then ‘Q’ is a logical
function of A and B.
AND gate Truth Tables
The logical function AND is represented by the symbol dot so that the output, Q = A.B and
the circuit symbol used for the logic gate AND is shown in Fig.
3. When the transistor is not conducting it is said to be switched off and when it is driven into
saturation it is said to be switched on.
4. We can say that a low input to the transistor gives a high output and high input gives a low
output.
5. When the transistor is used in the cutoff (or) saturation state it acts as a switch.
Problems
Question 1. In a half wave rectifier, a p-n junction diode with internal resistance 20 ohm is used.
If the load resistance of 2 ohm is used in the circuit, then find the efficiency of this half wave
rectifier.
Solution: Internal resistance (rf) = 20Ω
RL = 2kΩ = 2000 Ω
η = 0.406RLrf+RL=0.406×200020+2000×100=812×1002020
η = 40.2%.
Question 2. A full wave p-n junction diode rectifier uses a load resistance of 1300 ohm. The
internal resistance of each diode is 9 ohm. Find the efficiency of this full wave rectifier.
Solution: Given that RL = 1300 Ω
rf = 9Ω
η = 0.812RLrf+RL=0.812×13009+1300×100;η=8120×131309
η = 80.64%.
Question 3. Calculate the current amplification factor β(beta) when change in collector current is
1mA and change in base current is 20μA.
Solution: Change in collector current (∆IC) = 1mA = 10-3 A
Change in base current (∆IB) = 20 μA = 20 × 10-6 A
β = ΔICΔIB=10−320×10−6; β = 100020
β = 50
Question 4. For a transistor amplifier, the collector load resistance R L = 2k ohm and the input
resistance Ri = 1 k ohm. If the current gain is 50, calculate voltage gain of the amplifier.
Solution:
RL = 2kΩ = 2 × 103 Ω
Ri = 1kΩ = 1 × 103 Ω
β = 50.
Voltage gain (AV) = β × RLRi=50×2×1031×103
AV = 100.
Textual Examples
Question 1. C, Si and Ge have same lattice structure. Why is C insulator while Si and Ge intrinsic
semiconductors ?
Solution: The 4 bonding electrons of C, Si or Ge lie, respectively, in the second, third and fourth
orbit. Hence, energy required to take out and electron from these atoms(i.e., ionisation energy
Eg) will be least for Ge, following by Si and highest for C. Hence, number of free electrons for
conduction in Ge and Si are significant but negligibly small for C.
Question 2. Suppose a pure Si crystal has 5 × 1028 atoms m-3. It is doped by 1 ppm concentration
of pentavalent As. Calculate the number of electrons and holes. Given that n. = 1.5 × 10 16 m-3.
Solution: Note that thermally generated electrons (ni ~ 1016 m-3) are negligibly small as
compared to those produced by doping.
Therefore, ni ≈ ND.
Since nenh = ni2, The number of holes, nh = (1.5 × 1016)2 / 5 × 1028 × 16-6
nh = (2.25 × 1032)/(5 × 1022) ~ 4.5 × 109m-3
Question 3. Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and physically join it to another n-type
semiconductor to get p-n junction ?
Solution: No ! Any slab, howsoever flat, will have roughness much large than the inter-atomic
crystal spacing(~2 to 3 A°) and hence continuous contact at the atomic level will not be possible.
The junction will behave as a discontinuity for the flowing charge carriers.
Question 4. The V-I characteristics of a silicon diode are shown in the Fig. Calculate the
resistance of the diode at (a) ID = 15 mA and (b) VD = -10 V.
Question 5. In a Zener regulated power supply a Zener diode’with Vz = 6.0 V is used for
regulation. The load current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated input is 10,0 V. What should be
the value of series resistor Rs?
Solution: The value of Rs should be such that the current through the Zener diode is much larger
than the load current. This is to have good load regulation. Choose Zener current as five times
the load current, i.e., Iz = 20 mA. The total current through RS is , therefore, 24 mA. The voltage
drop across RS is 10.0 – 6.0 = 4.0 V This gives RS = 4.0V/(24 × 10-3) A = 167Ω. The nearest
value of carbon resistor is 150 Ω. So, a series resistor of 150 Ω is appropriate. Note that slight
variation in the value of the resistor does not matter, what is important is that the current
IZ should be sufficiently larger than IL.
Question 6. The current in the forward bias is known to be more (~mA) than the current in the
reverse bias (~µA). What is the reason then to operate the photodiodes in reverse bias ?
Solution: Consider the case of an n-type semiconductor. Obviously, the majority carrier density
(n) is considerably larger than the minority hole density p (i.e., n> > p). On illumination, let the
excess eletrons and holes generated be ∆n and ∆p, respectively,
n’ = n + ∆n
p’ = p + ∆p
Here n’ and p’ are the electron and hole concentrations at any particular illumination and n and p
are carriers concentration when there is no illumination. Remember ∆n = ∆p and n > > p. Hence,
the fractional change in the majority carriers (i.e., ∆n/n) would be much less than that in the
minority carriers (i.e,, ∆p/p). In general, we can state that the fractional change due to the
photo-effects on the minority carrier dominated reverse bias current is more easily measurable
than the fractional change in the forward bias current. Hence, photodiodes-are preferably used in
the reverse bias condition for measuring light intensity.
Question 7. Why are Si and GaAs are preferred materials for solar cells ?
Solution: The solar radiation spectrum received by us is shown in figure.
The maxima is near 1.5 eV. For photo-excitation, hv > E g. Hence, semiconductor with band gap
~1.5 eV or lower is likely to give better solar conversion efficiency. Silicon has E g ~ 1.1 eV while
for GaAS it is ~ 1.53 eV. In fact, GaAs is better On spite of its higher band gap) than Si because
of its relatively higher absorption coefficient. If we choose materials like CdS or CdSe(E g ~ 2.4
eV), we can use only the high energy component of the solar energy for photo-conversion and a
significant part of energy will be of no use.
The question arises: why we do not use material like pbS(Eg ~ 0.4 eV) which satisfy the condition
hv > Eg for v maxima corresponding to the solar radiation spectra ? if we do so, most of the solar
radiation will be absorbed on the top-layer of solar cell mid will not reach in or near the depletion
region. For effective electron-hole separation, due to the junction field, we want the photo-
generation to occur in the junction region only.
Question 8. From the output charactristics shown in fig, calculate the values of β ac and βdc of the
transistor when VCE is 10 V and IC = 4.0 mA.
Solution: βac = (ΔICΔIB)VCE ; βdc = ICIB
For determining βac and βdc at the stated values of VCE and IC one can proceed as follows. Consider
any two characteristics for two values of IB which lie above and below the given value of IC. Here
IC = 4.0 mA. (Choose characteristics for IB = 30 and 20μA.) At V CE = 10V
we read the two values of Ic from the graph. Then
∆IB = (30 – 20)μA = 10μA. ∆IC
= (4.5 – 3.0) mA = 1.5 mA
Therefore, βac =1.5 mA/ 10μA = 150
For determining βdc either estimate the value of IB corresponding to IC = 4.0 mA at VCE = 10V or
calculate the two values of βdc for the two characteristics chosen and find their mean.
Therefore, for IC = 4.5 mA and IB = 30 μA
βdc = 4.5 mA/30 μA = 150 and for IC = 3.0 mA/ and IB = 20 μA
βdc = 3.0 mA / 20 μA= 150
Hence, βdc = (150 + 150)/ 2 = 150
Question 9. In Fig. the VBB supply can be varied from OV to 5.0 V. The Si transistor has β dc = 250
and RB = 100 kΩ, RC = 1 KΩ, VCC = 5.0V. Assume that when the transistor is saturated, VCE = 0V
and VBE = 0.8V. Calculate
(a) the minimum base current, for which the transistor will reach saturation. Hence,
(b) determine V1 for when the transistor is ‘switched on’,
(c) find the ranges of V1 for which the transistor is ‘switched of and ‘switched on’.
Question 10. For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance
of 2.0 kΩ is 2.0 V. Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, what should
be the value of RB in series with VBB supply of 2.0 V if the dc base current has to be 10 times the
signal current. Also calculate the dc drop across the collector resistance. (Refer to Fig)
Solution: The output ac voltage is 2.0 V. So, the ac collector current i C= 2.0/2000 = 1.0 mA. The
signal current through the base is, therefore given by iB = iC/β = 1.0 mA/100 = 0.010 mA. The dc
base current has to be 10 × 0.010 = 0.10 mA
From VBB = VBE+ IB RB RB = (VBB – VBE)/IB. Assuming VBE = 0.6V
RB = (2.0 – 0.6)/0.10 = 14kΩ
The dc collector current IC = 100 × 0.10 = 10 mA.
Question 11. Justify the output waveform (Y) of the OR gate for the following inputs A and B
given in fig.
Solution: Note the following :
At t ≤ t1; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
For t1 to t2; A = 1, B = 0; Hence Y = 1
For t2 to t3; A = 1, B = 1; Hence Y = 1
For t3 to t4; A = 0, B = 1; Hence Y = 1
For t4 to t5; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
For t5 to t6; A = 1, B = 0; Hence Y = 1
For t > t6; A = 0,B = 1; Hence Y = 1
Therefore the waveform Y will be as shown in the Fig.
Question 12. Take A and B input waveforms similar to that in Example 11. Sketch the output
waveform obtained from AND gate.
Solution:
For t ≤ t1; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
For t1 to t2; A = 1, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
For t2 to t3; A = 1, B = 1; Hence Y = 1
For t3 to t4; A = 0, B = 1; Hence Y = 0
For t4 to t5; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
For t5 to t6; A = 1, B = 0; Hence Y = 0
For t > t6; A = 0,B = 1; Hence Y = 0
Based on the above, the output waveform for AND gate can be drawn as given below.
Question 13. Sketch the output Y from a NAND gate having inputs A and B given below :
Solution:
For t ≤ t1; A = 1, B = 1; Hence Y = 0
For t1 to t2; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 1
For t2 to t3; A = 0, B = 1; Hence Y = 1
For t3 to t4; A = 1, B = 0; Hence Y = 1
For t4 to t5; A = 1, B = 1; Hence Y = 0
For t5 to t6; A = 0, B = 0; Hence Y = 1
For t > t6; A = 0,B = 1; Hence Y = 1
Long Answer Questions (8 Marks)
Waves
Question 1.Explain the formation of stationary waves in stretched strings and hence deduce the
laws of transverse wave in stretched strings. [IPE]
Answer: A string is a metal wire whose length is large when compared to its thickness. A stretched string is
fixed at both ends, when it is plucked at mid point, two reflected waves of same amplitude and frequency
at the ends are travelling in opposite direction and overlap along the length. Then the resultant waves are
known as the standing waves (or) stationary waves. Let two transverse progressive waves of same
amplitude a, wave length λ and frequency v, travelling in opposite direction be given by
Question 2.Explain the formation of stationary waves in an air column enclosed in open pipe.
Derive the equations for the frequencies of the harmonics produced. [A.P. 17; IPE 2015, 2016
(TS)]
Answer: A pipe, which is opened at both ends is called open pipe. When a sound wave is sent through a
open pipe, which gets reflected by the earth. Then incident and reflected waves are in same frequency,
travelling in the opposite directions are super-imposed stationary waves are formed.
Harmonics in open pipe : To form the stationary wave in open pipe, which has two anti nodes at two ends
of the pipe with a node between them.
∴ The vibrating length (l) = half of the wavelength (λ12)
l = λ12 ⇒ λ1 = 2l
fundamental frequency v1 = vλ1 where v is velocity,of sound in air, v1 = v21 = v
For second harmonic (first overtone) will have one more node and antinode than the fundamental.
If λ2 is wavelength of second harmonic l = 2λ22 ⇒ λ2 = 212
If ‘v2’ is frequency of second harmonic then v2 = vλ2=v×22l = 2v
v2 = 2v ……………… (2)
Similarly for third harmonic (second overtone) will have three nodes and four antinodes as shown in above
figure.
If λ3 is wave length of third harmonic l = 3λ32
λ3 = 2l3
If ‘v2‘ is frequency of third harmonic then
v3 = vλ3=v×32l = 3V
v3 = 3v …………… (3)
Similarly we can find the remaining or higher harmonic frequencies i.e., v3, v4 etc., can be determined in
the same way.
Therefore the ratio of the harmonic frequencies in open pipe can be written as given below.
v : V1 : v2 = 1 : 2 : 3
Question 3.How are stationary waves formed in closed pipes ? Explain the various modes of
vibrations and obtain relations for their frequencies. [IPE 2015, 2016(A.P.), (T.S) A.P. & T.S.
Mar. 15]
Answer: A pipe, which is closed at one end and the other is opened is called closed pipe. When a sound
wave is sent through a closed pipe, which gets reflected at the closed end of the pipe. Then incident and
reflected waves are in same frequency, travelling in the opposite directions are superimposed stationary
waves are formed.
To form the stationary wave in closed pipe, which has atleast a node at closed end and antinode at open
end of the pipe, it is known as first harmonic in closed pipe. Then length of the pipe (l) is equal to one
fourth of the wave length.
∴ l = λ14 ⇒ λ1 = 4l
If ‘v1‘ is fundamental frequency then
v1 = vλ1 where ‘υ’ is velocity of sound in air
v1 = v4l = v …………….. (1)
To form the next harmonic in closed pipe, two nodes and two antinodes should be formed. So that there is
possible to form third harmonic in closed pipe. Since one more node and antinode should be included.
Then length of the pipe is equal to 34 of the wavelength.
∴ l = 3λ34 where ‘λ3‘ is wave length of third harmonic
λ3 = 4l3
where ‘X3’ is wave length of third harmonic.
If ‘v3‘ is third harmonic frequency (first overtone)
∴ v3 = vλ3=3v41
v3 = 3v …………….. (2)
Similarly the next overtone in the close pipe is only fifth harmonic, it will have three nodes and 3 antinodes
between the closed end and open end.
Then length of the pipe is equal to 54 of wave length (λ5)
∴ l = 5λ54 where ‘λ5‘ is wave length of fifth harmonic.
λ5 = 4l5
If ‘v5‘ is frequency of fifth harmonic (second overtone)
v5 = vλ5=5v4l
v5 = 5v …………….. (3)
∴ The frequencies of higher harmonics can be determined by using the same procedure. Therefore from the
Eq (1), (2) and (3) only odd harmonics are formed.
Therefore the ratio of the frequencies of harmonics in closed pipe can be written as
v1 : v3 : v5 = v : 3v : 5v
v1 : v3 : v5 = 1 : 3 : 5
Question 4.What is Doppler effect ? Obtain an expression for the apparent frequency of sound
heard when the source is in motion with respect to an observer at rest. [Mar. 17, BMP, 2016
(AP) Mar. 14, (TS)]
Answer: Doppier effect: The apparent change in the frequency heard by the observer due to the relative
motion between the observer and the source of sound is called doppier effect. When a whistling railway
engine approaches an observer standing on the platform, the frequency of sound appears to increase.
When it moves away the frequency appear to decrease.
Expression for apparent frequency when source is in motion and listener at rest:
Let S = Source of sound
O = Listener
Let ‘S’ be the source, moving with a velocity ‘υs‘ towards the stationary listener.
The distance travelled by the source in time period T = υs. T Therefore the successive compressions and
rarefactions are drawn closer to listener.
∴ Apparent wavelength λ’ = λ – υsT.
λ’ = λ – vsv [∵ υ = 1T]
= λv−vsv=v−vsv [∵ υ = vλ]
If “v'” is apparent frequency heard by the listener then v’ = vλ′ where ‘υ’ is Velocity of sound in air
v’ = v.vv−vS
Therefore the apparent frequency is greater than the actual frequency.
Similarly, if the source is away from the stationary listener then apparent frequency v’ = v.vv+vs, which is
less than the actual frequency.
Limitation : Doppler effect is applicable when the velocities of the source and listener are much less than
that of sound velocity.
Problems
Question 1.A stretched wire of length 0.6 m is observed to vibrate with a frequency of 30 Hz in
the fundamental mode. If the string has a linear mass of 0.05 kg / m find (a) the velocity of
propagation of transverse waves in the string (b) the tension in the string. [IPE 2016 (T.S)
Answer:v = 30 Hz; I = 0.6 m; μ = 0.05 kg m-1
υ = ?; T = ?
a) υ = 2vl = 2 × 30 × 0.6 = 36 m/s
b) T = υ2μ = 36 × 36 × 0.05 = 64.8 N .
Question 2.A string has a length of 0.4m and a mass of 0.16g. If the tension in the string is 70N, what are
the three lowest frequencies it produces when plucked ?
Solution:I = 0.4 m; M = 0.16g = 0.16 × 10-3 kg;
μ = M1=0.16×10−30.4 = 0.4 × 10-3 kg/m;
T = 70 N; vn = P21Tμ−−√
v1 = 121Tμ−−√=12×0.4700.4×10−3−−−−−−√ = 523 Hz
v2 = 2v1 = 2 × 523 = 1046 Hz
v3 = 3v1 = 3 × 523 = 1569 Hz
Question 3.A closed organ pipe 70 cm long is sounded. If the velocity of sound is 331 m/s, what is the
fundamental frequency of vibration of the air column ?
Solution:l = 70 cm = 70 × 10-2m; v = 331 m/s ;
v=?
v = v4l=3314×70×10−2 = 118.2 Hz.
Question 4.A steel cable of diameter 3 cm is kept under a tension of lOkN. The density of steel is 7.8 g/
cm3. With what speed would transverse waves propagate along the cable ?
Solution:T = 10 kN = 104 N
D = 3 cm; r = D2=32 cm
= 32 × 10-2m;
Question 5.A train sounds its whistle as it approaches and crosses a level crossing. An observer at the
crossing measures a frequency of 219 Hz as the train approaches and a frequency of 184 Hz as it leaves. If
the speed of sound is taken to be 340 m/s, find the speed of the train and the frequency of its whistle.
[T.S. Mar. 17]
Question 6.A rocket is moving at a speed of 200 m s-1 towards a stationary target. While moving, it emits
a wave of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the target gets reflected back to the rocket as
an echo. Calculate (1) the frequency of the sound as detected by the target and (2) the frequency of the
echo as detected by the rocket. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Solution:1) The observer is at rest and the source is moving with a speed of 200 m s -1. Since this is
comparable with the velocity of sound 330 ms-1, we must use Eq.
v = v0 [1+vSv]−1 and not the approximate
v = v0 [1 – vsv]
Since the source is approaching a stationary target, υ 0 = 0, and υs must be replaced by -υs. Thus, we have
v = v0 [1 – vsv]-1
v = 1000 Hz × [1 – 200 m s-1/330 m s-1]-1
≃ 2540Hz
2) The target is now the source (because it is the source of echo) and the rocket’s detector is now the
detector or observer (because it detects echo). Thus, υ s = 0 and υ0 has a positive value. The frequency of
the sound emitted by the source (the target) is v, the frequency intercepted by the target and not v 0,
Therefore, the frequency as registered by the rocket is
v’ = v(v+v0v)
= 2540 Hz × (200 m s−1+330 m s−1330 m s−1)
≃ 4080Hz
Textual Examples
Question 1.Given below are some examples of wave motion. State in each case if the wave motion is
transverse, longitudinal or a combination of both.
a) Motion of kink in a longitudinal spring produced by displacing one end of the spring sideways.
b) Waves produced in a cylinder containing a liquid by moving its piston back and forth.
c) Waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water.
d) Ultrasonic waves in air produced by a vibrating quartz crystal.
Solution:
a) Transverse and longitudinal
b) Longitudinal
c) Transverse and longitudinal
d) Longitudinal.
Question 2.A wave travelling along a string is des-cribed by, y(x, t) = 0.005 sin (80.0 x – 3.01), in which
the numerical constants are in SI untis (0.005 m, 80.0 rad m -1, and 3.0 rad s-1). Calculate (a) the
amplitude, (b) the wavelength, and (c) the period and frequency of the wave. Also, calculate the
displacement y of the wave at a distance x = 30.0 cm and time t = 20 s ?
Solution:On comparing this displacement equation with Eq. y (x, t)n = a sin(kx – ωt + Φ)
y(x, t) = a sin (kx – ωt).
We find
a) the amplitude of the wave is
0. 005 m = 5 mm.
b) the angular wave number k and angular frequency ω are k = 80.0 m -1 and ω = 3.0 s-1
We then relate the wavelength λ to k through Eq.
λ = 2πK
= 2π80.0 m−1 = 7.85 cm
c) Now we relate T to ω by the relation
T = 2πω
= 2π3.0 s−1
= 2.09 s
and frequency, v = 1T = 0.48 Hz
The displacement y at x = 30.0 cm and time t= 20s is given by
y = (0.005 m) sin (80.0 × 0.3 – 3.0 × 20)
= (0.005 m) sin (-36 + 12π)
= (0.005 m) sin (1.699)
= (0.005 m) sin (97°) ≃ 5 mm
Question 3.A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 5.0 × 10 -3 kg. If the .wire is under a tension
of 60 N, what is the speed of transverse waves on the wire ? [A.P. Mar. 19]
Solution:Mass per unit length of the wire,
μ = 5.0×10−3 kg0.72 m = 6.9 × 10-3 kg m-1
Tension, T = 60 N
The speed of wave on the wire is given by
υ = Tμ−−√=60 N6.9×10−3 kg m−1−−−−−−−−−−√ = 93 m s-1
Question 4.Estimate the speed of sound in air at standard temperature and pressure. The mass
of 1 mole of air is 29.0 × 10-3 kg.
Solution:We know that 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litres at STP Therefore, density of air at STP is:
ρ0 = (mass of one mole of air) / (Volume of one mole of air at STP)
= 29.0×10−3 kg22.4×10−3 m3 = 1.29 kgm-3
According to Newton’s formula for the speed of sound in a medium, we get for the speed of sound in air at
STP,
υ = [1.01×105 N m−21.29 kg m−3]1/2 = 280 m s-1
Question 5.A pipe, 30.0 cm long is open at both ends. Which harmonic mode of the pipe
resonates a 1.1 kHz source ? Will resonance with the same source be observed if one end of the
pipe is closed ? Take the speed of sound in air as 330 m s -1.
Solution:The first harmonic frequency is given by
v1 = vλ1=v2L (open pipe)
Where L is the length of the pipe. The frequency of its n th; harmonic is
vn = nv2L for n = 1, 2, 3, ……………… (open pipe)
First few modes of an open pipe are shown in Fig.
For L = 30.0 cm. υ = 330 m s-1
vn = n×330( m s−1)0.6( m) = 550 s-1
Clearly, for a source of frequency 1.1 kHz the air column will resonate at υ 2, i.e. the second harmonic.
Now if one end of the pipe is closed (Fig.), the fundamental frequency is
Question 6.Two sitar strings A and B playing the note ‘Dha’ are slightly put of tune and produce
beats of frequency 5 Hz. The tension of the string B is slightly increased and the beat frequency
is found to decrease to 3 Hz. What is the original frequency of B if the frequency of A is 427 Hz ?
Solution:Increase in the tension of a string increases its frequency. It the original frequency of B (v B) were
greater than that of A(vA) .further increase in vB should have resulted in an increase in the beat frequency.
But the beat frequency is found to decrease. This shows that v B < vA. Since vA – vB = 5 Hz, and va = 427
Hz, we get vB = 422 Hz.
Question 7.A rocket is moving at a speed of 200 m s-1 towards a stationary target. While
moving, it emits a wave of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the target gets
reflected back to the rocket as an echo. Calculate (1) the frequency of the sound as detected by the
target and (2) the frequency of the echo as detected by the rocket. [A.P. Mar. 16]
Solution:1) The observer is at rest and the source is moving with a speed of 200 ms -1. Since this is
comparable with the velocity of sound 330 ms-1, we must use Eq.
v = v0 [1+vSv]−1 and not the approximate
v = v0 [1−vsv]
Since the source is approaching a stationary target, υ 0 = 0, and υs must be replaced by -υs. Thus, we have
v = v0 (1−vSv)−1
v = 1000 Hz × [1 – 200 m s-1/330 m s-1]-1
≃ 2540Hz
2) The target is now the source (because it is the source of echo) and the rocket’s detector is now the
detector or observer (because it detects echo). Thus, υ s = 0 and υ0 has a positive value. The frequency of
the sound emitted by the source (the target) is v0, the frequency intercepted by the target and not v0,
Therefore, the frequency as registered by the rocket is
v’ = v(v+v0v)
= 2540 Hz × (200 m s−1+330 m s−1330 m s−1)
≃ 4080Hz
Current Electricity
Question 1.State Kirchhoffs law for an electrical network. Using th&se laws deduce the
condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge. [T.S. Mar. 16; 15; Mar. 14]
Answer: Kirchhoffs first law (Junction rule or KCL) : The algebraic sum of the currents at any junction is
zero.
∴ ΣI = 0
(or)
The sum of the currents flowing towards a junction is equal to the sum of currents away from the junction.
1. Kirchhoffs second law (Loop rule or KVL) : The algebraic sum of potential around any closed loop is
zero.
∴ Σ(IR) + ΣE = 0
Wheatstone bridge : Wheatstone’s bridge circuit consists of four resistances R 1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected
to form a closed path. A cell of emf is connected between the point A and C and a galvanometer is
connected between the points B and D as shown in fig. The current through the various branches are
indicated in the figure. The current through the galvanometer is I g and the resistance of the galvanometer
is G.
Applying Kirchhoffs first law at the junction D, I1 – I3 – Ig = 0 ………………. (1)
at the junction B, I2 + Ig – I4 = 0 ……………. (2)
Applying Kirchhoff s second law to the closed path ADBA,
-I1R1 – IgG + I2R2 = 0
or
⇒ I1R1 + IgG = I2R2 …………….. (3)
applying kirchhoft’s second law to the closed path DCBD,
-I3R3 + I4R4 + IgG = 0
⇒ I3R3 – IgG = I4R4 ……………….. (4)
When the galvanometer shows zero deflection the points D and B are at the same potential. So I g = 0.
Substituting this value in (1), (2), (3) and (4).
I1 = I3 ………………. (5)
I2 = I4 ……………… (6)
I1R1 = I2R2 ……………….. (7)
I3R3 = I4R4 …………….. (8)
Dividing (7) and (8)
I1R1I3R3=I2R2I4R4⇒R1R3=R2R4 [∵ I1 = I3 & I2 = I4]
∴ Wheatstone’s Bridge principle : R4 = R3 × R2R1
Question 2.State the working principle of potentiometer explain with the help of circuit diagram
how the emf of two primary cells are compared by using the potentiometer. [A.P. Mar. 16,23-
mar]
Answer: Working principle of potentiometer : The potential difference across a length of the potentiometer
wire is directly proportional to its length (or) when a steady current is passed through a uniform wire,
potential drop per unit length or potential gradient is constant,
i.e. ε ∝ l ⇒ ε = Φl where Φ is potential gradient.
Comparing the emf of two cells ε1 and ε2 :
1. To compare the emf of two cells of emf E1 and E2 with potentiometer is shown in diagram.
2. The cell (emf ε) whose internal resistance (r) is to be determined is connected across a resistance
box (R.B) through a key K2.
3. With key K2 open, balance is obtained at length l1 (AN1). Then ε = Φl1 …………… (1)
4. When key K2 is closed, the cell sends a current (I) through the resitance box (R.B).
5. If V is the terminal potential difference of the cell and balance is obtained at length l 2 (AN2).
Then V = Φ l2 ………………… (2)
6. (1)(2)⇒εV=l1l2 ……………. (3)
7. But ε = I (r + R) and V = IR. This gives
εV=(r+R)R
l1l2=(rR+1) [∵ from (3)]
∴ r = R(l1l2−1)
Question 4.Under what condition is the heat produced in an electric circuit a)directly
proportional b) inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit ? Compute the ratio of the
total quantity of heat produced in the two cases.
Answer: Expression of heat produced by electric current:
Consider a conductor AB of resistance R.
Let V = P.D applied across the ends of AB.
I = current flowing through AB.
t = time for which the current is flowing.
∴ Total charge flowing from A to B in time t is q = It. By definition of P.D, work done is carrying unit charge
from A to B = V
Total work done in carrying a charge q from A to B is
W = V × q = V It = I2 Rt (∵V = IR)
This work done is called electric work done. If this electric work done appears as heat, then amount of heat
produced (H) is given by
H = W = I2 Rt Joule.
This is a statement of Joule’s law of heating.
a) If same current flows through an electric circuit, heat is developed.
i.e., H ∝ R.
b) If same P.D applied across the the electric circuit heat is developed.
i.e., H2 ∝ 1R
c) The ratio of H1 and H2 is given by
H1H2=R1R
∴ H1H2 = R2
Problems
Question 1.A 10Ω thick wire is stretched so that its length becomes three times. Assuming that
there is no change in its density on stretching, calculate the resistance of the stretched wire.
Solution:
Given R1 = 10 Ω,
l1 = l
l2 = 3l, R2 ?
R1 = ρVl21
R2 = ρVl22
R˙2R1=(l2l1)2⇒R210=(3ll)2
∴ R2 = 10 × 9 = 90Ω.
Question 2.A wire of resistance 4R is bent in the form of a circle. What is the effective resistance
between the ends of the diameter ? [T.S. Mar. 16; Mar. 14]
Solution:Resistance of long wire = 4R
Hence the resistance of half wire = 4R2 = 2R
Now these two wire are connected in parallel. Hence the effective resistance between the ends of the
diameter
RP = R1R2R1+R2 ⇒ RP = 2R×2R2R+2R
∴ RP = R.
Question 3.Three resistors 3Ω, 6Ω and 9Ω are connected to a battery. In which of them will the power of
dissipation be maximum if:
a) They all are connected in parallel
b) They all are connected in series ? Give reasons.
Solution:Given R1 = 3Ω, R2 = 6Ω, R3 = 9Ω
a) Effective resistance in parallel is given by
1Rp=1R1+1R2+1R3=13+16+19
1RP=6+3+218
∴ RP = 1811 Ω
∴ Dissipated power in parallel,
PP ∝ 1RP ⇒ PP ∝ 1(1811)
∴ PP ∝ 1118 …………….. (1)
b) Effective resistance in series is given by
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 = 3 + 6 + 9 = 18 Ω
∴ Dissipated power in series, PS ∝ RS ⇒ PS ∝ 18
From equations (1) and (2) power dissipation is maximum in series and minimum in parallel.
Reasons:
1. In series connection, P ∝ R and V ∝ R. Hence dissipated power (P) and potential difference (V) is
more because current is same across each resistor.
2. In parallel connection, P ∝ 1R and I ∝ 1R Hence dissipated power (P) and potential difference (V) is
less because voltage is same across each resistor.
Question 4.A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1Ω at 27.5°C and a resistance of 2.7Ω at 100°C. Determine
the temperature coeff. of resistivity of silver.
Solution:For silver wire, R1 = 2.1Ω, t1 = 27.5°C
R2 = 2.7 Ω, t2 = 100°C, α = ?
α = R2−R1R1t2−R2t1=2.7−2.12.1×100−2.7×27.5=0.6210−74.25=0.6135.75
∴Temperature coefficient of resistivity
α = 0.443 × 10-2/°C
Question 5. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V gives a balance point at 35.0 cm length
of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point shifts to 63.0 cm. what is the emf
of the second cell ? [A.P. Mar. 15
Solution:
Here ε1 = 1.25 V, l1 = 35.0 cm, ε2 = ?. l2 = 63.0 cm.
As ε2ε1=l2l1 or
ε2 = ε1×l2l1=1.25×6335 = 2.25 V
Question 6.A battery of emf 2.5 V and internal resistance r is connected in series with a resistor of 45 ohm
through an ammeter of resistance 1 ohm. The ammeter reads a current of 50 mA Draw the circuit diagram
and calculate the value of r. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Solution:Circuit diagram for the given data is shown below.
Question 7.The balancing point in meter bridge experiment is obtained at 30 cm from the left. If the right
gap contains 3.5 £2, what is the resistance in the left gap? [BMP]
Solution:xR=I1100−I1⇒x3.5=3070⇒x=30×3.570=1.5
∴ x = 1.5 Ω
The resistance in the left gap in meter bridge is, x = 1.5 Ω
Question 8.The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V If the internal resistance of the
battery is 0.4Q, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery ?
Solution:Here E = 12 V, r = 0.4Ω
Maximum Current, Imax = Er=120.4 = 30 A
Question 9.A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3Ω is connected to a resistor. If the
current in the circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor ? What is the terminal voltage of the
battery when the circuit is closed ? [T.S. Mar. 15]
Solution:Here E = 10 V, r = 3Ω,1 = 0.5 A, R = ?, V = ?
I = E(R+r) or (R + r) = EI=100.5= 20 or
R = 20 – 3 = 17Ω
Terminal voltage V = IR = 0.5 × 17 = 8.5 Ω.
Question 10.If the balancing point in a meter bridge from the left is 60 cm, compare the
resistance in the left and right gaps of meter bridge.
Solution:R1R2=I1100−I1=60100−60=6040=32⇒R1R2=32
4. From the graph that the binding energy is highest in the range 28 < A < 138. The binding energy of
these nuclei is very close to 8.7 MeV
5. With the increase in the mass number the binding energy per nucleon decreases and consequently for
the heavy nuclei like Uranium it is 7.6 MeV
6. In the region of smaller mass numbers, the binding energy per nucleon curve shows the characteristic
minima and maxima.
7. Minima are associated with nuclei containing an odd number of protons and neutrons such
as 63Li,105 B,147 N and the maxima are associated with nuclei having an even number of protons and
neutrons such as 42He,126C,168O.
Significance:
8. The curve explains the relationship between binding energy per nucleon and stability of the nuclei.
9. Uranium has a relatively low binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV Hence to attain greater stability
Uranium breaks up into intermediate mass nuclei resulting in a phenomenon called fission.
10. On the other hand light nuclei such as hydrogen combine to form heavy nucleus to form helium for
greater stability, resulting in a phenomenon called fusion.
11. Iron is the most stable having binding energy per nucleon 8.7 MeV, and it neither undergoes fission per
fusion.
Question 2.What is radioactivity ? State the law of radioactive decay. Show that radioactive
decay is exponential in nature. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:1. Radioactivity : The nuclei of certain elements disintegrate spontaneously by emitting alpha (α),
beta (β) and gamma (δ) rays. This phenomenon is called Radioactivity or Natural radioactivity.
2. Law of radioactivity decay : “The rate of radioactive decay (dNdt) (or) the number of
nuclei decaying per unit time at any instant, is directly proportional to the number of nuclei (N) present at
that instant is called law of radioactivity decay”.
3. Radioactive decay is exponential in nature : Consider a radioactive substance. Let the number of nuclei
present in the sample at t = 0, be N0 and let N be the radioactive nuclei remain at an instant t.
dNdt ∝ N ⇒ dNdt = – λN
dN = – λ Ndt …………………….. (1)
The proportionality constant λ is called decay constant or disintegration constant. The negative sign
indicates the decrease in the number of nuclei.
4. From eq. (1) dNN = – λ dt ……………… (2)
5. Integrating on both sides
∫dNN=−λ∫dt
ln N = – λt + C …………….. (3)
Where C = Integration constant.
6. At t = O; N = N0. Substituting in eq. (3), we get ln N0 = C
∴ ln N = -λt + ln N0
ln N – ln N0 = – λt
ln (NN0) = – λt
∴ N = N0 e-λt
The above equation represents radioactive decay law.
7. It states that the number of radioactive nuclei in a radioactive sample decreases exponentially with time.
Sample Problems
Question 1.The half life of radium is 1600 years. How much time does lg of radium take to
reduce to 0.125g. [IPE 2016 (TS)]
Answer:Half – life of radium = 1600 years;
NN0=12n⇒0.1251=12n⇒1251000=12n⇒18=12n⇒123=12n⇒n=3
∴ Time taken = Half life × no. of Half lives = 1600 × 3 = 4800 years
Question 2.Plutonium decays with a half-life of 24,000 years. If plutonium is stored for 72,000
years, what fraction of it remains ?
Answer:Half life of plutonium, T = 24000 years; Stored time of plutonium, t = 72000 years
no. of half lives, n = tT=7200024000 = 3; Fraction of plutonium remains = NN0=12n=123=18
Question 3.Explain the principle and working of a nuclear reactor with the help of a labelled
diagram. [A.P. & T.S. Mar. 17, A.P. Mar. 16 15, Mar. 14]
Answer: Principle : A nuclear reactor works on the principle of achieving controlled chain reaction in natural
Uranium 238U enriched with 235U, consequently generating large amounts of heat.
A nuclear reactor consists of (1) Fuel (2) Moderator (3) Control rods (4) Radiation shielding (5) Coolant.
1. Fuel and clad : In reactor the nuclear fuel is fabricated in the form of thin and long cylindrical rods.
These group of rods treated as a fuel assembly. These rods are surrounded by coolant, which is used to
transfer of heat produced in them. A part of the nuclear reactor which is used to store the nuclear fuel is
called the core of the reactor. Natural uranium, enriched uranium, plutonium and uranium – 233 are used
as nuclear fuels.
2. Moderator : The average energy of neutrons released in fission process is 2 MeV. They are used to slow
down the velocity of neutrons. Heavy water or graphite are used as moderating materials in reactor.
3. Control Rods : These are used to control the fission rate in reactor by absorbing the neutrons. Cadmium
and boron are used as controlling the neutrons, in the form of rods.
4. Shielding : During fission reaction beta and gamma rays are emitted in addition to neutrons. Suitable
shielding such as steel, lead, concrete etc., are provided around the reactor to absorb and reduce the
intensity of radiations to such low levels that do not harm the operating personnel.
5. Coolant : The heat generated in fuel elements is removed by using a suitable coolant to flow around
them. The coolants used are water at high pressures, molten sodium etc.
Working : Uranium fuel rods are placed in the aluminium cylinders. The graphite moderator is placed in
between the fuel cylinders. To control the number of neutrons, a number of control rods of cadnium or
beryllium or boron are placed in the holes of graphite block. When a few 235U nuclei undergo fission fast
neutrons are liberated. These neutrons pass through the surrounding graphite moderator and loose their
energy to become thermal neutrons. These thermal neutrons are captured by 235U. The heat generated
here is used for heating suitable coolants which is turn heat water and produce steam. This steam is made
to rotate steam turbine and there by drive a generator of production for electric power.
Question 4.Explain the source of stellar energy. Explain the carbon – nitrogen cycle, proton –
proton cycle occuring in stars.
Answer: Scientists proposed two types of cyclic processes for the sources of energy in the sun and stars.
The first is known as carbon-nitrogen cycle and the second is proton-proton cylce.
1. Carbon-Nitrogen Cycle : According to Bethe carbon-nitrogen cycle is mainly responsible for the
production of solar energy. This cycle consists of a chain of nuclear reactions in which hydrogen is
converted into Helium, with the help of Carbon and Nitrogen as catalysts. The nuclear reactions are as
given below.
2. Proton – Proton Cycle: A star is formed by the condensation of a large amount of matter at a point in
space. Its temperature rises to 2,00,000°C as the matter contracts under the influence of gravitational
attraction. At this temperature the thermal energy of the protons is sufficient to form a deuteron and a
positron. The deuteron then combines with another proton to form lighter nuclei of helium 32He. Two such
helium nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus latex]{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}[/latex] and two protons
releasing a total amount of energy 25.71 MeV The nuclear fusion reactions are given below.
Problems
Question 1.Compare the radii of the nuclei of mass numbers 27 and 64.
Solution:A1 = 27; Asub>2 = 64
R1R2=[A1 A2]1/3 [∵ R = R0A1/3]
R1R2=[2764]13=34
∴ R1 : R2 = 3 : 4
Question 2.Find the energy required to split 168O nucleus into four α-particles. The mass of an a-particle is
4.002603u and that of oxygen is 15.994915u.
Solution:The energy required to split O = [Total mass of the products – Total mass of the reactants] c 2
Mass of four 42He – Mass of 168O] × c2
= [(4 X 4.002603) – 15.994915] u × c2
= [16.010412 – 15.994915] u × c2
= (0.015497) 931.5 MeV = 14.43 MeV
Question 3.A certain substance decays to 1/232 of its initial activity in 25 days. Calculate its half-life.
Solution:Fraction of substance decays
= Quantity remains Initial quantity
= 12n=132=125
∴n=5
Duration of time = 25 days
We know (n) = Duration of time Half life time
∴ Half life time = Duration of time n
255 = 5 days
Question 4.One gram of radium is reduced by 2 milli- gram in 5 years by a-decay. Calculate the half¬life of
radium.
Solution:Initial (original) mass (N0) = 1 gram
Reduced mass – 2 mg = 0.002 grams
Final mass (N)= 1 – 0.002 = 0.998 grams
t = 5 years
e-λt = NN0 ⇒ eλt = N0 N ⇒ λt = loge[latex]\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}[/latex]
λt = 2.303 log [latex]\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}[/latex]
λt = 2.303 log [latex]\frac{1}{0.998}[/latex]
= 2.303 log (1.002)
= 2.303 × 0.000868
= 0.001999
λ = 0.0019995 = 0.0003998
T = 0.693λ=0.6930.0003998 = 1733.3 years
Question 5.If one microgram of 92235U is completely destroyed in an atomhomb, how much energy will be
released ?
Solution:m = 1 μg = 1 × 10-6 g = 1 × 10-6 × 10-3 kg
= 10-9 kg
c = 3 × 108 m/s
E = mc2 = 1 × 10-9 × 9 × 106 = 9 × 107 J
Question 6.200 MeV energy is released when one nucleus of 235U undergoes fission. Find the number of
fissions per second required for producing a power of 1 megawatt.
Solution:E = 200 MeV
P = 1 × 106 W
P = nEt⇒nt=PE=106200×106×1.6×10−19
= 132 × 1018
∴ P = 0.03125 × 1018
= 3.125 × 106
Textual Examples
Question 1.Given the mass of iron nucleus as 55.85u and A = 56, find the nuclear density ?
Solution: mFe = 55.85, u = 9.27 × 10-26 kg
Nuclear density = mass volume
= 9.27×10−26(4π/3)(1.2×10−15)3×156
= 2.29 × 1017 kg m-3
The density of matter in neutron stars (an astrophysical object) is comparable to this density. This shows
that matter in these objects has been compressed to such an extent that they resemble a big nucleus.
Question 2. Calculate the energy equivalent of 1 g of substance.
Solution: Energy, E = 10-3 × (3 × 108)2 J
E = 10-3 × 9 × 1016 = 9 × 1013 J
Thus, if one gram of matter is converted to energy, there is a release of an enormous amount of energy.
Question 3.Find the energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit, first in Joules and then in MeV.
Using this, express the mass defect of 168O in MeV/c2.
Solution:1 u = 1.6605 × 10-27 kg
To convert it into energy units, we multiply it by c2 and find, that energy. equivalent
= 1.6605 × 10-27 × 2.9979 × 108 kg m2/s2
= 1.4924 × 10-10 J
= 1.4924×10−101.602×10−19 eV
= 0.9315 × 109 eV = 931.5 MeV
or, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2.
For 168O, ∆M = 0.13691 u = 0.13691 × 931.5 MeV/c 2 = 127.5 MeV/c2
The energy needed to separate 168O into hs constituents is thus 127.5 MeV/c2.
Question 4.The half-life of 23892U undergoing a – decay is 4.5 × 109 years. What is the activity
of 1 g sample of 23892U ?
Solution:T1/2 = 4.5 × 109 y
= 4.5 × 109 y × 3.16 × 107 s/y.
= 1.42 × 1017 s
One k mol of any isotope contains Avogadro’s number of atoms, and so 1 g of 23892U contains
1238×10−3 k mol × 6.025 × 1026 atoms/kmol
= 25.3 × 1020 atoms.
The decay rate R is
R = λN
= 0.693 T1/2 N = 0.693×25.3×10201.42×1017 S-1
= 1.23 × 104 S-1
= 1.23 × 104 Bq
Question 5.Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 y undergoing beta decay. What fraction of sample of
pure tritium will remain undecayed after 25 y.
Solution:By definition of half-life, half of the initial i sample will remain undecayed after 12.5 y. In the next
12.5 y, one-half of these nuclei would have decayed. Hence, one fourth of the sample of the initial pure s
tritium will remain undecayed.
Question 2.Explain the formation of stationary waves in an air column enclosed in open pipe.
Derive the equations for the frequencies of the harmonics produced. [A.P. 17; IPE 2015,
2016 (TS)]
PROBLEM A closed organ pipe 70 cm long is sounded. If the velocity of sound is 331 m/s,
what is the fundamental frequency of vibration of the air column ? MAR SUP-23
Question 3.How are stationary waves formed in closed pipes ? Explain the various modes of vibrations and
obtain relations for their frequencies. [IPE 2015, 2016(A.P.), (T.S) A.P. & T.S. Mar. 15]
Question 4.What is Doppler effect ? Obtain an expression for the apparent frequency of sound heard when
the source is in motion with respect to an observer at rest. [Mar. 17, BMP, 2016 (AP) Mar. 14, (TS)]
Current Electricity
Question 1.State Kirchhoffs law for an electrical network. Using th&se laws deduce the condition
for balance in a Wheatstone bridge. [T.S. Mar. 16; 15; Mar. 14] MAR SUP-23
Question 2.State the working principle of potentiometer explain with the help of circuit diagram
how the emf of two primary cells are compared by using the potentiometer. [A.P. Mar.
16,] MAR REG-23
Question 3.State the working principle of potentiometer. Explain with the help of circuit diagram how the
potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of the given primary cell. [A.P. & T.S.
Mar. 17, 15]
Question 4.Under what condition is the heat produced in an electric circuit a)directly proportional b)
inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit ? Compute the ratio of the total quantity of
heat produced in the two cases.
Nuclei
Question 1.Define mass defect and binding energy. How does binding energy per nucleon vary with mass
number ? What is its significance ?
Question 2.What is radioactivity ? State the law of radioactive decay. Show that radioactive decay is
exponential in nature. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Question 3.Explain the principle and working of a nuclear reactor with the help of a labelled
diagram. [A.P. & T.S. Mar. 17, A.P. Mar. 16 15, Mar. 14] MAR SUP-23, MAR REG-23
Question 4.Explain the source of stellar energy. Explain the carbon – nitrogen cycle, proton – proton cycle
occurring in stars.