Candid Icse Physics 10

®
CANDID
TEACHER’S RESOURCE BOOK

A SUPPLEMENT TO
A TEXTBOOK OF
ICSE
PHYSICS
Class -10
Dr. S.C. Bhargava

N. Bharata Lakshmi
© The authors, 2023
LATEST EDITION
AP23
UNIT-1 : FORCE, WORK, POWER AND ENERGY
Chapter-1 : Force
Exercise Questions
1. What kind of motion is produced when a force is applied on a body which is
(i) free to move?
(ii) pivoted at a point?
Ans. (i) When a force is applied on a body which is free to move, translational motion is
produced.
(ii) When a force is applied on a body which is pivoted at a point, rotational motion
is produced.
2. What do you understand by moment of force? How do you measure it?
Ans. The tendency of force to turn the body on which it is applied is said to be the moment
of force. It is the product of the magnitude of force and the perpendicular distance
between the axis and the line of action of force (moment arm).
3. Write the SI and CGS units of moment of force. Is it scalar or vector?
Ans. SI unit of moment of force is Nm and its CGS unit is dyne cm.
Moment of force is a vector quantity.
4. 1 Nm = ___ dyne cm.
Ans. 1 Nm = 105 dyne cm.
5. How does the moment of force change, if the :
(i) magnitude of force applied is increased?
(ii) length of the moment arm is decreased?
Ans. (i) The moment of force increases, with increase in the magnitude of force.
(ii) The moment of force decreases, with decrease in the length of the moment arm.
6. Moment of force is also called _____ .
Ans. Moment of force is also called torque.
7. What are the two types of moments of force? Show them diagrammatically when
they act on a metre rule suspended from a rigid support at its centre.
Ans. (i) clockwise moments, (ii) anti-clockwise moments.
Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 3
Assuming the metre rule to be suspended from a rigid support at one end of the
thread and tied to its centre at the other end of the thread, the centre acts as the pivot.
First diagram indicates clockwise moment and the second one indicates anti-
clockwise moment.
8. Mention when the moments are considered negative or positive in the above question.
Ans. Clockwise moments are considered negative and anti-clockwise moments are
considered positive.
9. Give reason why
(i) the handles of a door are fixed near its free edge.
(ii) the wooden handle of a hand floor grinder is fixed near the rim of a stone.
[Hint: For a given force, if the moment arm is longer, then moment will be more.]
Ans. (i) The handles of a door are fixed near its free edge, so that moment arm is the
longest and the force required is minimum to produce the same moment.
(ii) The wooden handle of a hand floor grinder is fixed near the rim of a stone,
so that the moment arm is the longest and the force required is minimum to
produce the same moment.
10. A body is acted upon by two forces, each of magnitudes 10 N, but in opposite
direction. Find the net moment of forces, if
(i) both forces act along the same line on the body.
(ii) both forces act at two parallel lines on the body at a separation of 5 cm.
Ans. (i) When both forces act along the same line on the body, net moment is zero.
(ii) When both forces act at two parallel lines on the body at a separation of 5 cm,
the net moment = F × d = 10 × 0.05 = 0.5 Nm.
11. Define couple of forces. What is its effect? Give two examples.
Ans. Two forces which are equal in magnitude and opposite and parallel in their direction
(called unlike parallel forces), acting simultaneously at different points on a body,
constitute couple of forces.
When the couple of forces act on a body, they rotate it, for example :
(i) the steering wheel of a car,
(ii) turning of a tap.
4 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10
12. How do you measure moment of a couple? What is its SI unit?
Ans. Moment of a couple is the product of either of the forces and the perpendicular
distance between the two forces. Its SI unit is Nm.
13. Show that moment of couple is the product of either of the forces and the perpendicular
distance between the two forces.
Ans. A couple of forces is constituted by two forces that are equal in magnitude and
opposite in direction acting at two different points of a body, the lines of action of
forces being parallel as shown below.
As the consequence of the couple, a body can be set into rotation,

F1, F2 may also be called as unlike parallel forces or antiparallel forces.
If their magnitudes are equal, that is
|F1| = |F2|
then they form couple of forces. The system above rotates the beam in anti-clockwise
direction.
In the diagram shown, net moment of couple causes anti-clockwise rotation
Torque due to couple, τ = τ due to F1 + τ due to F2
τcouple = F1 × AO + F2 × BO
Let F1 = F2 = F
Then τcouple = F (AO + BO)
= F × AB
where AB is the perpendicular distance between the two forces.
Hence, τcouple = either of the forces × perpendicular distance between the forces
14. When do you say that a body is in
(i) static equilibrium? (ii) dynamic equilibrium?
Give two examples of each.
Ans. (i) When a number of forces act on a stationary body simultaneously and it continues
to be at rest, then it is said to be in static equilibrium.
Examples : The beam of a balance in its balanced state; a pendulum bob
suspended from a rigid support when it is at rest.
(ii) When a number of forces act simultaneously on a moving body and it is set into
a uniform motion, then it is said to be in dynamic equilibrium.
Examples : Small rain droplets drizzling through air; electrons revolving around
the nucleus.
15. Mention two requisites for a body acted upon by several forces to be in equilibrium.
Ans. The net force or the resultant force acting on the body must be zero and the net
moment of forces acting on it must be zero.
16. State principle of moments.
Ans. When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments is equal to the sum
of anti-clockwise moments.
17. What is the principle on which a physical balance works?
Ans. The working of physical balance is based on the principle of moments.
18. What do you understand by the term centre of gravity?
Ans. Centre of gravity is the point where the entire weight of the body appears to act. The
net moment due to gravity acting on different particles of the body about this point
is zero. If a small support is given at this point, the body will be in equilibrium; for
example, one can balance a stick on one’s finger if it is held near its centre where its
CG lies.
19. Give one factor on which the centre of gravity depends?
Ans. The CG depends on the shape or the distribution of particles having mass around it.
20. Can you change the CG of a
(i) rigid body?
(ii) non-rigid body?
Ans. (i) No, because we cannot change its shape.
(ii) Yes, because we can change its shape.
21. Draw a diagram to show CG of a
(i) rectangular lamina (ii) regular cylinder (iii) regular cone (iv) triangular lamina
(v) circular disc
Ans.
For a solid cylinder, the CG lies at its centre (r, h/2); for a cone it lies at a vertical
height of h/4 from the base; for a triangular lamina, it lies at the intersection of
medians and for a disc, it lies at its geometrical centre as shown above.
22. Should the CG always be lying on the body? Can it be outside? If so, give an
example.
Ans. No, CG need not be on the body always, in a few cases like a ring or a hollow ball,
it remains at their centre which is not a part of the body.
23. Does the CG of a body depend on the distribution of its mass around CG? Explain.
Ans. Yes, because the net moment of the gravity acting on the body depends on the
position of the particles. As the moment about the axis passing through CG is zero,
it depends on the distribution of mass around it.
24. Does the moment of force change with the shift in
(i) axis of rotation? (ii) point of application of force?
Ans. (i) Yes. It changes with the change in the axis of rotation as it changes the moment
arm which is the product of the perpendicular distance between the axis and the
force.
(ii) Yes. It changes with the change in the point of application of force as it changes
the moment arm which is the product of the perpendicular distance between the
axis and the force.
Numerical Problems
1. A force of 50 dynes acts on a rigid body such that the perpendicular distance between
the fulcrum and the point of application of the force is 75 cm. Calculate the moment
due to the force.
Ans. Moment = F × d
= 50 × 75 = 3,750 dyne-cm.
2. A force of 50 N produces a moment of 10 Nm in a rigid body. Calculate the
perpendicular distance between the point of application of the force and the turning
point.
10 = 50 × d
d = 10/50 = 0.2 m
3. A couple of 15 N force acts on a rigid body such that the arm of the couple is 85 cm.
Calculate the moment of the couple in SI units.
= 15 × [85/100] = 12.75 Nm
4. A uniform metre scale is balanced at 20 cm mark from its “zero” mark (at left end)
when a force of 100 gf. is suspended from the “zero” end. Draw the configuration
of the problem and calculate the mass of the scale, assumed concentrated at its mid-
point.
Ans. Anti-clockwise moment = 100 × 20 = 2,000 gf. cm

As the weight of the scale acts at its centre, 50 cm,
clockwise moment = W × [50 – 30] = W × 30 gf. cm

As the system is balanced,
anti-clockwise moment = clockwise moment
\ W × 30 = 2,000
or W = weight of the scale = 2,000/30 = 66.67 gf.
that is, mass of the scale = 66.67 g
5. A regular metre scale of mass 50 g is placed on a fulcrum at 40 cm mark from the
zero at left end as shown. A force of 100 gf. is suspended at 5 cm mark of the scale
to the left of fulcrum. Calculate the distance and location of a force of 80 gf. to
balance the scale.
Ans. Clockwise moment = 50 × [50 – 40] = 500 gf. cm

Anti-clockwise moment = 100 × [40 – 5] = 3,500 gf. cm
To balance the scale, given weight 80 gf. should be applied on right side of the
fulcrum at a distance, d, as the clockwise moment is less.
\ In equilibrium, equating both the moments
500 + 80 × d = 3,500
d = 3,000/80 = 37.5 cm
Hence, 80 gf. should be located at 40 + 37.5 = 77.5 cm mark on the scale.
6. A uniform wooden beam, 80 cm long and weighing 250 g is supported on a triangular
wedge as shown. Calculate the maximum force (gf.) that can be placed on left end
to balance the beam. Assume the mass of the beam to be concentrated at its mid-point.
Ans. Since the beam is 80 cm long, its CG is at 40 cm mark. Let the unknown force be F gf.
Anti-clockwise moment = F × 10 gf. cm
Clockwise moment = 250 × [40 –10] = 250 × 30 = 7,500 gf. cm
In equilibrium,
F × 10 = 7,500
or F = 750 gf.
7. A uniform metre rule balances horizontally on a knife edge placed at the 58 cm
mark when a weight of 20 gf. is suspended from one end. Draw the diagram and find
weight of the rule.
Ans. Clockwise moment = 20 × [100 – 58] = 840 gf. cm

Anti-clockwise moment = W × [58 – 50] = W × 8 gf. cm
In equilibrium, W × 8 = 840
or W = 840/8 = 105 gf.
8. A boy of 20 kgf. weights sits at one end of a 4 m long seesaw as shown. Where
should a man of 40 kgf. weight sit to balance the seesaw?
Ans. The weight of the boy = 20 kgf. = 200 N, assuming g = 10 m–2

\ Anti-clockwise moment = 200 × 2 = 400 Nm
The weight of the man = 40 kgf. = 400 N
Let the distance at which the man has to sit from the fulcrum be d
Clockwise moment = 400 × d
In equilibrium, 400 × d = 400
or d = 400/400 = 1 m
9. A metre rule is placed on a fulcrum at its mid-point. A weight of 40 gf. is placed at
the 10 cm mark and a weight of 20 gf. at the 90 cm mark.
(i) Is the rule in equilibrium? If not, how will it turn?
(ii) How can it be balanced by using an additional weight of 40 gf.?
Ans. As per the description given in the question
(i) Clockwise moment = 20 × [90 – 50] = 800 gf. cm
Anti-clockwise moment = 40 × [50 – 10] = 1,600 gf. cm
Since the two moments are not equal, it is not in equilibrium, will turn
anticlockwise.
(ii) Clockwise moment required to balance = 1,600 – 800 = 800 gf. cm
\ 800 = 40 × d, where d is the distance from the fulcrum
Giving d = 20 cm.
Hence, the weight is placed at 70 cm mark on the scale.
10. A couple of 15 N force acts on a rigid body such that the arm of the couple is 85 cm.
Calculate the moment of the couple in SI units.
Ans. Moment of couple = Either of the forces × perpendicular distance between the
two forces
= 15 × 0.85 = 12.75 Nm
11. A uniform metre scale is balanced at 20 cm mark from its “zero” mark (at left end)
when a force of 100 gf. is suspended from the “zero” end. From the configuration
of the problem, calculate the mass of the scale, assumed concentrated at its mid-
point.
Ans. Anti-clockwise moment = 100 × 20 = 2,000 gf. cm
Clockwise moment = W × [50 – 20] = 30 W gf. cm, where W is the weight
of the scale.
In equilibrium, 30 W = 2,000 or W = 66.67 gf.
Hence, mass of the scale = 66.67 g
12. A regular metre scale of mass 50 g is placed on a fulcrum at 40 cm mark from the
zero at left end. A force of 100 gf. is suspended at 5 cm mark of the scale to the left
of fulcrum. Calculate the distance and location of a force of 80 gf. to balance the
scale.
Ans. Anti-clockwise moment = 100 × [40 – 5] = 3,500 gf. cm
Clockwise moment = 50 × [50 – 40] + 80 × d, where d is the distance from
the fulcrum
In equilibrium,
500 + [80 × d] = 3,500 or d = 3,000/80 = 37.5 cm
Hence, it must be located at 40 + 37.5 = 77.5 cm mark on the scale.
13. A uniform wooden beam AB, 80 cm long is supported on a triangular wedge as
shown. Calculate the maximum force that can be placed on end A to balance the
beam. Assume the mass of the beam to be concentrated at its mid-point.
Ans. Anti-clockwise moment = 750 × [40 –10] = 22,500 gf. cm

Clockwise moment = F × 10 gf. cm
In equilibrium, F × 10 = 22,500
or F = 2,250 gf.
Chapter-2 : Unifom Circular Motion

Exercise Questions
1. What do you understand by uniform circular motion?
Ans. When a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time in a circular path, it
is said to be in uniform circular motion.
2. Can a body move with constant speed and still have acceleration? If so, mention an
example.
Ans. Yes. When a body is in uniform circular motion, it will have constant speed and it
also has centripetal acceleration towards the centre of the circular path.
3. Draw the diagram of a particle in a circular path and give the directions of its
displacement, velocity and acceleration. Also, give the direction of the force acting
on it.
Ans.

The direction of acceleration is the same as that of the force shown in the diagram and
the direction of the displacement is the same as the velocity shown in the diagram.
4. Can a body have uniform speed and variable velocity simultaneously?
Ans. Yes. A body in uniform circular motion has uniform speed and variable velocity.
5. How can you say that uniform circular motion is an accelerated motion? Name the
type of acceleration.
Ans. For a body to set into circular path, centripetal force is required. This force imparts
acceleration in the body towards the centre of the path.
6. Distinguish between uniform linear motion and uniform circular motion.
Ans. According to Newton’s first law of motion, if a body is in uniform motion in a
straight line, it does not require any force to continue its motion (due to inertia).
But in case of uniform circular motion, the body is subjected to a constant force
towards its centre. Hence, it is an accelerated motion changing its direction
continuously. Such an acceleration is called centripetal acceleration.
7. Name the force required to set a body in circular motion. Give two characteristics
of the force.
Ans. Centripetal force. It acts towards the centre of the path. Its magnitude depends on
the mass and velocity of the body and also on the radius of the path.
8. Define centripetal force.
Ans. It is the force required to set a body into circular path.
9. When a stone is tied to a string and whirled in a horizontal circle, what provides
centripetal force to it?
Ans. The centripetal force which causes the stone to take circular path is provided by the
tension in the string.
10. Explain
(i) the motion of a planet around the sun in a circular path.
(ii) the motion of an electron around the nucleus in a circular path.
Ans. (i) It is an example of uniform circular motion. The gravitational force between the
Sun and the planet provides centripetal force.
(ii) It is an example of uniform circular motion. The electrostatic force between the
nucleus and the electron provides centripetal force.
11. Differentiate between centripetal and centrifugal force.
Ans. (i) Centripetal force is the force required to set a moving object into circular path
whilst centrifugal force is the force which arises as a reaction to centripetal force
that exists only in a circular frame of reference.
(ii) Centripetal force acts radially towards the centre of the circular path whereas
centrifugal force acts radially away from the centre of the circular path.
(iii) Centripetal force is a real force which is provided by the object itself whilst
centrifugal force is a virtual or fictitious force which can be experienced only by
an object in a circular path.
12. Is centrifugal force a real force?
Ans. No. It is a virtual force which has its existence only in circular frame of reference.
13. Write two characteristics of centrifugal force.
Ans. It acts away from the centre of the circular path. Its magnitude is equal to the
centripetal force.
14. A ball is thrown off from a boy sitting on the merry-go-round. In which direction
does the ball move
(i) with respect to the boy?
(ii) with respect to an observer standing a little away from the merry-go-round?
Ans. (i) To the boy the ball appears to move away from the centre, which is radially away
from the boy.
(ii) To the stationary observer, standing a little away from the merry-go-round, it
appears to move along the tangent to the circular path of it.
15. Give two examples where centripetal force acts.
Ans. (i) The planets revolve around the Sun due to centripetal force provided by the
gravitational force between the Sun and the planet.
(ii) The electrons revolve around the nucleus due to centripetal force provided by
the gravitational force between the nucleus and the electron.
16. Explain why the stone circled in a horizontal circle or mud thrown by the wheel of
a tyre move tangentially when they are released? Do they exhibit centrifugal force
as seen by an observer?
Ans. When the stone is released or the mud is thrown off, centripetal force is ceases
to exist. Hence, it travels with its velocity at that moment which has its direction
tangent to the circular path.
The observer does not see any centrifugal force acting on the stone or on the mud
because he is not in the circular frame of reference.
17. A body is in uniform circular motion about the point ‘O’. Show
the direction of velocity and acceleration at the points P, Q, R
and S.

Ans. The direction of velocity, v, is shown in the diagram given below. The direction of
acceleration is the same as the force F indicated in the diagram.
18. Is it possible for a body to have acceleration with constant speed? What can you say
about velocity of such a body?
Ans. Yes. The direction of velocity changes continuously for such a body.
19. Define centripetal force. What is its direction?
Ans. It is the force required to set a body into circular path. It always acts towards the
centre of the path.
20. When a stone is tied to a thread and whirled in a horizontal circle, what provides
centripetal force to it? What will happen when this force is withdrawn?
Ans. The centripetal force which causes the stone to take circular path is provided by the
tension in the string. It moves tangential to its path, when the force is withdrawn.
21. Write two characteristics of centripetal force.
Ans. It acts towards the centre of the path. As it is provided by the body itself, which has
to take the circular path, its magnitude depends on the mass and velocity of the body
and also on the radius of the circular path.
Chapter-3 : Work, Energy and Power

Exercise Questions
1. Define work. Is it a scalar or vector quantity?
Ans. When a body is displaced in the direction of the force applied on it, work is said to
be done. It is a scalar quantity.
2. What is the work done
(i) when displacement s is in the direction of force F?
(ii) when displacement s is at an angle θ to the direction of force F?
Ans. Work is measured as W = F s cos θ
(i) When F and s are in the same direction, θ is zero and cos 0 is one. Therefore,
work, W = F s which is maximum.
(ii) When F and s are at an angle θ, work, W = F s cos θ.
3. Mention two cases where work done is zero.
Ans. (i) Work done is zero when F and s are at 90o to each other, as cos 90o is zero.
(ii) Work done by a force is zero if it does not displace or move the body as s is zero.
4. When does a force cause
(i) minimum work? (ii) maximum work?
Ans. (i) Minimum work done by a force is zero and it occurs at θ = 90o.
(ii) Maximum work done by a force is F s. It occurs at θ = 0o as cos 0 = 1.
5. When do you say work done by a force
(i) is positive? Give an example.
(ii) is negative? Give an example.
Ans. (i) Work done by a force is positive, if θ > 0o and < 90o, for example, a trolley pulled
by an engine.
(ii) When a force F is applied on a body and the body moves in the opposite direc-
tion of the force, then work done by the force F is said to be negative. It happens
when there is some other force which pulls the body in the opposite direction,
for example, work done by gravitational force is negative, when a ball is thrown
vertically upwards.
6. Give an example where a force causes negative work.
Ans. Work done by gravitational force is negative, when a ball is thrown vertically upwards.
7. Mention a force which causes negative work.
Ans. The work done by a frictional force is negative.
8. What is the work done by a particle in a circular path? Give reason to your answer.
Ans. Work done by a particle in circular path is zero because the centripetal force on the
particle acts along the radius of the path whereas the displacement of the particle at
any instant is along the tangent of the path. Hence, the angle between F and s is 90o.
9. Is there any work done by a planet revolving around the Sun?
Ans. Work done by the planet is zero because the centripetal force on the planet acts
along the radius of the path, whereas the displacement of the planet at any instant is
along the tangent of the path. Hence, the angle between F and s is 90o.
10. A man carrying a bag walks on a horizontal road. What is the work done by him?
What is the work done by gravitational force?
Ans. Work done by him is zero as the bag is not moving with respect to the force applied
by him. Work done by gravitational force is also zero as the bag is at the same height
from the horizontal road and there is no vertical displacement.
11. A boy carrying his school bag climbs up to the first floor. Is there any work done by
him?
Ans. No, because there is no relative displacement between the boy who applied force
and the bag.
12. A bag of mass m is carried up the stairs to a height h by a person. What is the work
done by the person in lifting the bag? What is the work done by gravitational force?
Ans. Work is done by the person (W) in lifting the bag by a height h (vertical displace-
ment) against the gravitational force, given by

W = F s cos 0 = m g h, where g is the acceleration due to gravity and mg is the grav-
itational force on the bag which is its weight.
Work done by the gravitational force is negative, given by
W=–mgh
13. What is the SI unit of work? Define.
Ans. The SI unit of work is joule. One joule is defined as the work done by a force of one
newton, when it displaces a body by one metre.
14. Obtain the relation between joule and erg?
Ans. 1 J = 1 Nm = 105 × 102 = 107 dyne cm = 107 erg.
15. What can you say about the work done (positive or negative) by a fielder in catching
a cricket ball?
Ans. Work done by the fielder is negative as the resistive force applied by the fielder
reduces the displacement of the ball.
16. When a body falls freely from a height h, what is the work done by gravitational
force?
Ans. Work done by the gravitational force is positive as the body is falling under gravity,
given by
W = m g h, where mg is the weight of the body.
17. Define energy and its SI unit.
Ans. The capacity to do work is called energy. Its SI unit is joule.
18. Which quantities are measured specifically in terms of (i) eV, (ii) kWh, (iii) cal?
Ans. (i) nuclear energy, (ii) electric energy, (iii) heat energy.
19. Define one kilowatt-hour.
Ans. One kilowatt-hour is the energy consumed by an electrical device of one kilowatt
power rating in one hour.
20. Establish the relation between kWh and joule.
Ans. 1 kWh = 103 × 60 × 60 = 3.6 × 106 Ws or J
21. 1 J = _______ cal.
1 kWh = _______ J.
Ans. 1 J = 0.238 cal.
1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J.
22. Define power and its SI unit.
Ans. Power is defined as the rate of doing work. SI unit of power is watt.
23. What are the factors on which power depends ?
Ans. Power of a machine or appliance depends on its capacity to do work (energy) and
the time taken to do work.
24. 1 hp = ___W.
Ans. 1 hp = 746 W.
25. Ws is the unit of which quantity?
Ans. 1 Ws = 1 J is the SI unit of energy.
26. Two boys A and B climb up to the second floor using a staircase. A climbs up in
2 minutes whereas B takes 3 minutes. Which one of the two does more work?
Which one has more power?
Ans. Assuming that both the boys have same weight, they have done the same work
against the gravitational force because the vertical displacement is same. A has more
power than B, as he does the same work in less time [Power µ 1/time] .
27. Distinguish between work and energy.
Ans. Work is said to be done when a force displaces the body in its direction. Energy is
the capacity to do work.
28. Which quantity does not depend on time: work, energy or power?
Ans. Work and energy do not depend on time. The quantity power depends on time.
29. Which unit is used in measuring the power of heavy machines/motors?
Ans. HP or horse power is used in measuring the power of heavy machines/motors.
Numerical Problems
1. A force of 100 N acts upon an object and displaces it by 60 cm. Calculate the work
done by the force when the displacement is
(i) in the direction of the force
(ii) at an angle of 60° with the force and
(iii) perpendicular to the force
Assume g =10 ms–2.
Ans. (i) In this case, θ = 0
W = F s cos θ = 100 × 0.6 × 1 = 60 J.
(ii) In this case, θ = 60o
W = F s cos θ = 100 × 0.6 × 0.5 = 30 J.
(iii) In this case, θ = 90o
W = F s cos θ = 0.
2. A boy of mass 30 kg runs to the first floor which is 10 m high in 5 s. Calculate
(i) the gravitational force on him
(ii) work done by him against gravity
(iii) work done by gravity on him
(iv) power spent by him
Ans. Assuming g = 10 ms–2,
(i) the gravitational force on the boy = m g = 30 × 10 = 300 N.
(ii) work done by the boy against gravity = m g h = 30 ×10 × 10 = 3,000 J.
(iii) work done by the gravity = – m g h = –3,000 J.
(iv) power spent by the boy = W/t = 3,000/5 = 600 W.
3. If 2 persons P and Q are climbing up the stairs and P covers the distance in 16 s
while Q covers the same distance in 12 s. Compare the (i) work done (ii) power
developed by P and Q.
Ans. (i) Assuming that both persons have same weight, work done by P and Q is same
because the vertical distance covered either is same.
\ WP : WQ = 1:1
(ii) Since power µ 1/time
power of P/power of Q = time taken by Q/time taken by P
= 12/16 = 3/4
4. A man spends 9 kJ of energy in displacing a box by 36 m in the direction of the force
applied by him in 2 s. Calculate (i) force applied (ii) power spent in HP by the man.
Ans. (i) F = W/s = 9,000/36 = 250 N.
(ii) P = W/t = 9,000/2 = 4,500 W = 4,500/746 = 6 HP.
5. A boy weighing 40 kgf. runs up a staircase of 25 steps, each 15 cm high in 2 minutes.
Calculate the work done and power spent.
Ans. Assuming g = 10 ms–2, force F = m g = 40 × 10 = 400 N
Vertical displacement = 25 × 0.15 = 3.75 m
W = work done against gravity = F s cos 0 = 400 × 3.75 = 1,500 J.
Power spent = W/t = 1,500/(2 × 60) = 12.5 W.
6. A pump is used to lift 600 kg of water from a depth of 50 m in 8 s. Calculate
(i) work done by the pump
(ii) power at which the pump works
(iii) the power supplied by the pump if its efficiency is 40%
Ans. (i) Work done against weight = 600 × 10 × 50 = 3,00,000 J = 300 kJ.
(ii) Power utilized by the pump = W/t = 300/8 = 37.5 kW.
(iii) Since efficiency = power utilized/power supplied = 40 %,
power supplied = 37.5 × (100/40) = 93.75 kW.
7. If the power of a motor is 30 kW, at what speed can it raise a load of 10,000 N?
Ans. Power = F v, where v is the velocity or speed. or v = P/F
\ v = 30,000 /10,000 = 3 ms–1.
8. If the power of a motor is 40 kW, how much load can it lift with a speed of
2 ms–1?
Ans. Power = F v or F = P/v = 4,00,000/2 = 20,000 N.
9. An energy of 6.4 kJ causes a displacement of 64 m in a body in the direction of the
applied force in 2.5 s. Calculate (i) the force applied, (ii) power in HP, assuming
1 HP = 746 W.
Ans. In this case W = F s cos 0 = F s
or (i) F = W/s = 6,400/64 = 100 N.
(ii) P = W/t = 6,400/2.5 = 2,560/746 = 3.43 HP.
10. A person exerts a force of 150 N in pulling a cart at a constant speed of 10 m/s.
Calculate the power exerted.
Ans. Since P = F v = 150 × 10 = 1,500 W.
11. A block is displaced by a force on a horizontal surface by 13 metres and the work
done by the force on the block is 15.6 joule. Find the magnitude of the force.
Ans. In this case W = F s cos 0 = F s
or F = W/s = 15.6/13 = 1.2 N.
12. The work done on a block through two forces in opposite directions is 120 joule.
The force in forward direction, F1, is 36 N. If the displacement of the block is 5 m,
determine the magnitude of force in the reverse direction, F2.
Ans. Given W = 120 J, s = 5 m
W = (36 – F2)/5
or 36 – F2 = 120 / 5 = 24
F2 = 36 – 24 = 12 N.
13. The energy dissipated by a lamp in two minutes is 3,000 joule. Find the power of
the lamp.
Ans. Power = Energy/Time = 3,000/(2 × 60) = 25 W
Chapter-4 : Types of Energy

Exercise Questions
1. Name and define the two types of mechanical energy.
Ans. Mechanical energy is of two types :
(i) Potential Energy : It is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position
or configuration.
(ii) Kinetic Energy : It is the energy possessed by virtue of the motion of the body.
2. Define gravitational potential energy. Give an example.
Ans. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position with respect to the surface
of the Earth is called gravitational potential energy.
3. What kind of energy is stored in
(i) a compressed spring?
(ii) a rock on a hill?
Ans. (i) Energy stored in a compressed spring is elastic potential energy.
(ii) Energy stored in a rock on a hill is gravitational potential energy.
4. Name three types of kinetic energy. Give an example of each.
Ans. (i) Translational kinetic energy, for example, a car moving on a straight road.
(ii) Rotational kinetic energy, for example, the earth rotating about its axis.
(iii) Vibrational kinetic energy, for example, vibration of a simple pendulum.
5. Obtain the formula for
(i) potential energy
(ii) kinetic energy
Ans. (i) The work done by a force in lifting an object of mass m to a height h against
gravity is given
W = Fs = mgh
This work done on a body against the gravitational pull is stored as gravitational
potential energy.
or GPE = m g h
(ii) Work done by a force in moving an object at rest is stored as kinetic energy.
Thus,
W= F×s
= mas
Now, a = (v2 – u2)/2s
Substituting
W = m × s × (v2 – u2)/2 s = m (v2 – u2)/2
Since u = 0 for a body at rest
W = m v2/2 = ½ m v2
This is defined kinetic energy of a body
or KE = ½ mv2
6. State the work-energy theorem and write the mathematical expression for it.
Ans. The theorem is stated as
“the change in the kinetic energy acquired by an object during motion is equal to the
net work done on the object”. Mathematically,
W = (m v22/2) – (m v12/2)
where W represents the work done, v1 and v2 represent initial and final velocities of
the object.
7. Show that F s = ½ mv2 – ½ mu2.
Ans. From the mathematical expression for work
W=F×s=mas
From the equation of motion v2 = u2 + 2 a s
or s = (v2 – u2)/2a
Substituting for s from above
W = m a[(v2– u 2) /2 a]
or F s = ½ mv2 – ½ mu2
8. Distinguish between potential and kinetic energy.
Ans. (i) The potential energy (PE) is by virtue of position of the body, whereas the
kinetic energy (KE) is by virtue of the motion of the body.
(ii) The potential energy (PE) depends on the mass of the body and vertical height
at which the body is placed whereas the kinetic energy (KE) depends on the
mass of the body and its speed.
9. What is the energy conversion in the following cases
(i) an arrow is released from a bow
(ii) a stone is falling from a height
(iii) two stones are rubbed against each other
(iv) burning crackers
(v) atomic reactor
(vi) thermal power station
(vii) microphone
(viii) loudspeaker
(ix) photosynthesis
(x) solar cell
(xi) digital display in a calculator or weighing machine
(xii) electric grinder
(xiii) wristwatch with needles/hands
(xiv) a motor car
Ans. (i) potential to kinetic energy
(ii) potential to kinetic energy
(iii) kinetic to heat, light and sound energy
(iv) burning crackers: chemical to heat, light and sound energy
(v) nuclear to electrical energy
(vi) heat to electrical energy
(vii) sound to electrical energy
(viii) electrical to sound energy
(ix) light to chemical energy
(x) light to electrical energy
(xi) electrical to light energy
(xii) electrical to kinetic energy
(xiii) potential to kinetic energy
(xiv) chemical to kinetic energy
10. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of
(i) nuclear energy (ii) hydro energy
(iii) solar energy (iv) wind energy
Ans. (i) Nuclear energy :
Advantages :
(a) Fuel required is very less to generate nuclear energy, that can be converted
into electrical energy.
(b) The nuclear energy converted to electrical energy relatively free from
pollution.
Disadvantages :
(a) Danger of nuclear radiation, esp. due to accidental leakage or blow-up,
resulting in danger of diseases caused by increased environmental radio-
activity.
(b) Problems associated with the safe disposal of the radioactive waste materials.
(ii) Hydro energy :
Advantages :
(a) The hydro energy generated at the hydro power plant is free from pollution.
(b) It is generated by using stored water which is a renewable source.
Disadvantages :
(a) It needs vast land areas to set up hydro power stations.
(b) The plants are located only near huge water bodies, far away from the cities
and “load centres”.
(iii) Solar energy :
Advantages :
(a) The energy generated is free from all kinds of pollution.
(b) It is generated from a renewable source of energy from the Sun.
Disadvantages :
(a) The energy is available only during the day when the Sun is shining.
(b) The initial cost may be very high; also requiring large space to set up the
plant.
(iv) Wind energy :
Advantages :
(a) The energy generated is free from pollution.
(b) It is generated from a renewable or non-conventional source, that is wind.
Disadvantages :
(a) It is available in abundance only in large, open areas and only when wind
is blowing.
(b) The wind generators in large number to generate desirable power can result
in unbearable noise pollution.
Numerical Problems
1. A bullet of an airgun weighs 10 g. When it is released from the gun its velocity is
30 ms–1. Calculate the potential energy of the spring in the gun. What kind of
potential energy is it?
Ans. By the law of conservation of mechanical energy,
PE of the spring in the gun = KE of the bullet
= ½ mv2 = ½ × 0.01 × 30 × 30 = 4.5 J
It is called elastic potential energy.
2. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 2 ms–1. Find the ratio of its initial
and final kinetic energy if its velocity is doubled.
Ans. Initial KE = ½ mv2 = ½ × 2 × 4
Final KE = ½ × 2 × 16
Initial KE/Final KE = 4/16 = 1 : 4
3. Two bodies A and B have their masses in the ratio 1 : 9. What is the ratio of their
velocities if their kinetic energies are same?
Ans. Given that KE of A = KE of B
½ mA vA2 = ½ mB vB2

\ vA /vB = mB / mA = 9 / 1 = 3 : 1
4. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1. What will be the ratio of
its initial and final KE if the body’s mass is doubled and velocity is halved?
Ans. Initial KE/Final KE = [½ × m × v2]/[½ × 2m × (v/2)2]
= 2:1
[No need to substitute the values]
5. A girl of mass 35 kg climbs up from the first floor of a building at a height of 4 m
above the ground to the third floor at a height of 12 m above the ground. What will
be the increase in her gravitational potential energy? (g = 10 ms–2)
Ans. Increase in her GPE = final GPE – initial GPE
= mg[h2 – h1] = 35 × 10 × [12 – 4]
= 2,800 J
6. A body of mass 0.2 kg falls from a height of 10 m to a height of 6 m above the
ground. Find the loss in potential energy taking place in the body. (g = 10 ms–2)
Ans. Loss in potential energy = m g [h2 – h1]
= 0.2 × 10 × [10 – 6 ] = 8 J
7. A moving body weighing 400 N (mg) possesses 500 J of kinetic energy. Calculate
the velocity with which the body is moving. (g = 10 ms-2).

Ans. KE = ½ m v2
or v= [ 2KE / m]
m = weight/g = 400 /10 = 40 kg
v= ( 2 × 500 ) / 40  = 25 = 5 ms–1
8. A body of mass 50 g has a momentum of 3,000 kg ms–1. Calculate
(i) the kinetic energy of the body
(ii) the velocity of the body
Ans. (i) KE = p2 /2m = [3,000 × 3,000]/[2 × 0.05]
= 9 × 107 J
(ii) v = p/m = 3,000/0.05 = 6 ×104 ms–1
9. A body of mass 1.50 kg is dropped from the 2nd floor of a building which is at a
height of 12 m. What is the force acting on it during its fall? (g = 9.80 ms–2).
Ans. At any position throughout its fall, the force acting on it is the gravitational force.
Therefore, force on the freely falling body = mg = 1.5 × 9.8 = 14.7 N.
Chapter-5 : Machines as Force Multipliers

Exercise Questions
1. Define a machine.
Ans.
A machine is a mechanical device that change the direction or magnitude or both of
a force necessary to move an object or change its speed.
2. How is the machine useful in the following cases
(i) a jack is used to lift a car?
(ii) wheel of a cycle is rotated by pressing its pedals?
(iii) a single fixed pulley can be used to lift a bucket full of water from a well?
Ans. (i) A jack changes the point of application of force and its direction to lift the
wheels of the car up with less effort.
(ii) By applying force on the pedals, the point of application of force and its direction
are changed conveniently.
(iii) Using a single fixed pulley the direction of the force is changed conveniently
along the gravitational pull, so that less effort is required.
3. Distinguish between an ideal and a practical machine.
Ans. In an ideal machine work output is equal to the work input and energy is not lost
in any form. Hence, its efficiency is 100%. In a practical machine work output is
always less than the work input as some energy is lost in the form of heat or sound.
Hence, its efficiency is always less than 100%.

4. Why the efficiency of a practical machine is not 100%?
Ans. In a practical machine work output is less than the work input due to loss of the input
energy due to friction etc. This results in the efficiency being a ratio of output energy
to input energy is always less than 100%.
5. Name the lever which has
(i) longer load arm and shorter effort arm
(ii) longer effort arm and shorter load arm
Ans. (i) Third order lever.
(ii) Second order lever.
6. Distinguish between a force multiplier and a speed multiplier.
Ans. A force multiplier has its mechanical advantage, MA > 1. A speed multiplier has its
MA < 1.
7. Give an example each of a first-order lever which has MA > 1 and MA < 1.
Ans. Shears is a first-order lever which has MA > 1 and scissors is a first-order lever
which has MA < 1.
8. Define a lever. What is the principle based on which it works?
Ans. A lever is a straight or bent bar which can move about an axis, passing through
fulcrum.
9. Classify the following in the type of levers they belong to:
(i) pliers, (ii) scissors, (iii) shears, (iv) lemon squeezer, (v) forceps, (vi) ice tongs,
(vii) bottle opener, (viii) crowbar
Also mention whether they are force multipliers or speed multipliers.
Ans. (i), (ii), (iii) and (viii) are first-order levers (iv) and (vii) are second-order levers and
force multipliers; (v) and (vi) are third-order levers and speed multipliers.
10. Which class lever has its
(i) MA always less than one?
(ii) MA always greater than one?
Give reasons.
Ans. (i) Third order lever has its MA < 1 because its effort arm is always less than its
load arm.
(ii) Second order lever has its MA > 1 because its load arm is always less than its
effort arm.
11. Compare a single movable pulley and a fixed pulley on the basis of their functioning.
Ans. A single movable pulley has its MA = 2, whereas a single fixed pulley has its
MA = 1.
12. Write the advantages of the combination of a single movable pulley and a single
fixed pulley over the individual pulleys. Draw the diagram of the combination.
Ans. The combination of both pulleys has MA = 2 and also the direction of effort along the
gravitational pull which reduces the net effort required. In a single movable pulley,
the effort is against the gravitational pull which increases the net effort required. In
a single fixed pulley, there is no gainin MA. The diagram of a single movable pulley
is shown below :
13. Draw the diagram of a single fixed pulley.

Ans.
14. Draw a block and tackle system of pulleys with (i) VR = 3, (ii) VR = 4.
Ans.
(i) a block and tackle system of pulleys with VR = 3,

(ii) a block and tackle system of pulleys with VR = 4.

15. Why the efficiency of a block and tackle system cannot be 100% ?
Ans. The friction between the tackle and the pulley causes energy loss and the weight of
the movable (lower) block increases the effort required. Hence, the efficiency of the
block and tackle system cannot be 100%.
16. Draw a diagram of the combination of a single fixed pulley and two movable pulleys.
What is its MA?
Ans.
Mechanical advantage of such system = 2n (where n is the no. of movable pulleys).

In the above case MA = 22 = 4.
17. Draw the schematic diagrams of the three types of lever.
Ans. Schematic diagrams of first, second and third order levers respectively are as shown:

18. Differentiate between scissors and shears as levers.
Ans. Scissors is speed multiplier. It has load arm (length of the blades) longer than the
effort arm (length of the handles) and shears is force multiplier. It has load arm
shorter than effort arm.
19. Define MA, VR and η of a simple machine and obtain the relation between them.
Ans. Mechanical advantage, MA is defined as the ratio of load to the effort. MA = L/E.
Velocity ratio, VR is defined as the ratio, velocity of the effort to the velocity of the
load. VR = VE/VL.
Efficiency, h is defined as the ratio of work output to the work input expressed as
percentage. h = WL/WE.
Relation between MA, VR and h :
Work output = Work done by the load = L × DL
Work input = Work done by the effort = E × DE
Efficiency = Work output /Work input
= (L × DL)/(E×DE)
= (L/E) × [(1/(DE/DL)]
= MA × (1/VR)
or h = MA/VR
As efficiency is expressed in percentage,
MA
h= ×100%
VR
20. Give the examples of the three classes of levers found in a human body.
Ans. Nodding of head about the neck : first order lever.
Raising the body in standing position over the toes : second order lever.
Raising some weight in the palm with fore arm : third order lever.
Numerical Problems
1. In the lever system shown, if the beam length is 1 m, calculate (i) the value of effort E,
(ii) the mechanical advantage.
Ans. (i) Using the principle of levers,

load × load arm = effort × effort arm
or L × Larm = E × Earm
15 × 40 = E × 60
\ E = 10 kgf.
(ii) Mechanical Advantage = Load/Effort
or MA = L/E = 15/10 = 1.5
2. A nut is opened by a wrench of length 20 cm. If the least force required is 2 N, find
the moment of force needed to loosen the nut.
Ans. Moment = F × d = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 Nm
3. A boy of mass 30 kg is sitting at a distance of 2 m from the middle of a seesaw.
Where should a boy of mass 40 kg sit so as to balance the seesaw?
Ans. Using the principle of levers
L × Larm = E × Earm
or 30 × 2 = 40 × dE
or dE = 1.5 m
4. A man can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N by using a lever handle of length
0.4 m. What should be the length of the handle if he is able to open it by applying a
force of 60 N?
Ans. By equating the moments of forces applied,
F1 × d1 = F2 × d2
150 × 0.4 = 60 × d2
or d2 = 1 m
5. The diagram shows a lever in use.
(i) to which class of lever does it belong?
(ii) if FA = 40 cm, AB = 60 cm, then find the mechanical advantage of the lever.
Ans. (i) Class II lever, as the load is in between the fulcrum and the effort.
(ii) MA = L/E
and using the principle of levers,
L/E = Earm/Larm
\ MA = [40 + 60]/40 = 2.5
6. A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70.0 cm mark when a mass of 0.05 kg
is hung from the 94.0 cm mark.
(i) draw a diagram of the arrangement
(ii) find the mass of the metre scale.
Ans. (i)
(ii) Using the principle of levers,

L × Larm = E × Earm
or 0.05 × [94 – 0.70] = W × [70 – 50]
or W = 0.025 × 24 = 0.06 kg
7. A block and tackle pulley system has a velocity ratio 3. Draw a labelled diagram of
this system. In the diagram, indicate clearly the points of application and directions
of the load and effort.
Ans. .
The diagram of the block and tackle system of VR = 3.

Chapter-6 : Principle of Conservation of Energy
Exercise Questions
1. Verify the law of conservation of energy in case of free fall of a body.
Ans. Verification of conservation of energy in case of a freely falling body : When a
body of mass m falls freely under gravity from a height h as shown, then at P
PE = m g h
Since the velocity is zero at point P, KE = 0
Hence, total energy, TE = PE + KE = m g h + 0 = m g h eqn. (1)
At Q,
The height from the ground = h – y
\ PE = mg (h – y)
Using the third equation of motion
v2 – u2 = 2 as
then, at Q, u = 0, s = y, a = g
\ v2 = 2 gy
and KE = ½ m(2 g y) = m g y
Hence, the total energy = mg (h – y) + m g y = m g h eqn. (2)
At R (on the ground) h= 0
\ PE = 0
and KE = ½ m (2 g h) = m g h eqn. (3)
The law is hence verified, comparing eqns. (1), (2) and (3).
2. What are the energy changes that take place when a pendulum bob swings from one
extreme position to the other. Explain with the help of a diagram.
Ans.

3. Name the force that supports the weight of the pendulum. What is its direction?
Ans. It is the tension in the string tied to the pendulum which supports the weight of the
pendulum. It acts towards the point of suspension of the string, which is vertically
upwards.
4. Name and define the type of motion of a pendulum.
Ans. The pendulum undergoes oscillatory motion. It is a to and fro motion about the
mean position.
5. What kind of energy is present at the
(i) highest point of free fall?
(ii) at the lowest point of free fall just before touching the ground?
Ans. (i) Gravitational potential energy.
(ii) Kinetic energy.
Numerical Problems
1. A ball of mass 200 g is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity at ground
of 20 ms–1. What will be its maximum potential energy as it goes up?
Ans. As the ball has only KE initially and only PE finally, using the law of conservation
of energy,
the initial KE of the ball = Final PE of the ball
or ½mv2 = ½ × 0.2 × 20 × 20 = 40 J
2. The bob of a simple pendulum attains a velocity of 5 ms–1 when at its mean position.
What will be its maximum height at the extreme vertical position if 60% of its
energy is lost in overcoming air friction ? Assume g to be 10 ms–2.
Ans. KE of pendulum at the mean position = ½ × m × v2
=½×m×5×5
Since 60% of the KE is lost as friction, only 40% of it is converted into PE.
\ 40/100 of ½ × m × 25 = m g h
or h = 0.2 × 25/10 = 0.5 m
UNIT-2 : LIGHT
Chapter-1 : Refraction of Light
Exercise Questions
1. What do you understand by refraction of light? What is the cause of it?
Ans. Refraction of light is the phenomenon due to which a light ray bends when it travels
from one transparent medium to the other. It occurs because the speed of light is
different in the media of different optical densities.

2. Will there be any change in the frequency, velocity and wavelength of light wave
during refraction?
Ans. The velocity and the wavelength of the light ray change during refraction, but the
frequency remains the same.
3. What are the values of angles of incidence and refraction when a ray of light is
incident normal to a surface ?
Ans. The angle of incidence and the angle of refraction are zero, when a ray is incident
normal to the surface.
4. State Snell’s law.
Ans. The ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a
constant for a given pair of media and is called refractive index (µ) of the given pair
of media.
5. Differentiate between absolute refractive index and relative refractive index.
Ans. Absolute refractive index of a medium is its refractive index with respect to air,
whereas relative refractive index of a medium is its refractive index with respect to
any other medium.
Also, absolute refractive index of a medium = µm /µair = c in the air/c in the medium,
where c is the speed of light.
6. Does refractive index depend on angles of incidence and refraction?
Ans. No.
7. Write the factors on which refractive index depends.
Ans. Refractive index of a medium depends on its optical density and its temperature and
also on the wavelength of the incident light.
8. Refractive index of a medium is 4/3. What do you understand by it?
Ans. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in the medium is 4/3.
9. Which material has maximum refractive index: water, plastic, diamond or glass?
Why?
Ans. Diamond has maximum refractive index as its optical density is maximum or speed
of light is least in it.
10. Draw the ray diagram of refraction through a glass slab. Label the angles. Identify
the two pairs of angles that are equal.
Ans. From the diagram shown, it is clear that angle
of incidence at the first surface and angle of
emergence are equal (exterior corresponding
angles) and also angle of refraction at the first
surface is equal to the angle of incidence at the
second surface inside the glass.

11. Define lateral displacement. Write two factors on which it depends.
Ans. Lateral displacement is the perpendicular distance between the extended incident ray
and the emergent ray in case of refraction of light through a glass slab. It increases
with increase in the angle of incidence and also with increase in the thickness of the
glass slab through which the light passes.
12. Draw the diagram of multiple images in a thick plane mirror. Why is the second
image brightest?
Ans.
The second image is brightest since it is formed due to first refraction (at the
transparent surface) and first reflection (at the opaque surface) which carries
maximum light.
13. Draw the ray diagram of refraction through glass prism at minimum deviation. What
are the conditions satisfied at this position?
Ans. At the minimum deviation position,
(i) the angle of incidence is equal to the angle
of emergence.
(ii) the refracted ray is parallel to the base of
the prism.
(iii) angle of refraction at the first surface
is equal to the angle of incidence at the
second surface (inside the glass).
14. How is refractive index related to real and apparent depth? What is vertical shift?
Ans. Refractive index is the ratio of the real depth to the apparent depth.
Vertical shift = real depth – apparent depth
15. For which colour of light the vertical shift is a maximum? Why?
Ans. Vertical shift is maximum for violet colour of light because the refractive index for
violet is maximum which means that the ray bends maximum.
Numerical Problems
1. The speed of light in air is 3 × 108 ms–1 and in glass it is 2 × 108 ms–1. Find the
refractive index of glass with respect to air and that of air with respect to glass.
Ans. Refractive index of glass with respect to air = c in air/c in glass = 3 × 108/ 2 × 108 = 3/2
Refractive index of air with respect to glass = c in glass/c in air = 2/3
2. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 50° to the normal of an equilateral prism.
Calculate the angle of minimum deviation.
Ans. Since i + e = A + D and angle of prism is 60° for an equilateral prism,
and also i = e at minimum deviation,
Substituting the values in the above equation
2i = 2 × 50° = 60° + D or D = 40°
3. A coin is dropped in a trough having water up to a depth of 18 cm. How high does it
appear to be raised ? (refractive index of water = 4/3)
Ans. Since m = Real depth/Apparent depth
apparent depth = real depth/m = 18 × 3/4 = 13.5,
vertical shift = real depth – apparent depth = 18 – 13.5 = 4.5 cm
Chapter-2 : Total Internal Reflection

Exercise Questions
1. Define critical angle. Draw a ray diagram to show it.
Ans. Critical angle is the angle of incidence in the denser medium corresponding to which
the angle of refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.
2. What are the factors on which critical angle for a pair of media depends?
Ans. Critical angle depends on the refractive index for the pair of media which in turn
depends on the wavelength of the incident light and on the temperature of the media.
3. Explain the phenomenon of total internal reflection (TIR).
Ans. Total internal reflection is the phenomenon due to which an incident ray moving
from a denser medium to rarer medium reflects back into the same medium, when
the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle for the given pair of media.
4. Write the conditions required for a ray to suffer TIR.
Ans. The ray must be moving from denser to rarer medium and the angle of incidence
must be greater than the critical angle for the given pair of media.
5. Obtain a relation between refractive index and critical angle for a given pair of
media. (take water and air as media)
Ans. Derivation of expression for critical angle :
Applying Snell’s law
A ray of light moves from water (denser) to air (rarer) as shown in the figure below,
at i = ic.
Considering refractive index of the second medium (air) with respect to the first
medium (water).
2 = a = mair /mwater
1m wm
= sin ic /sin 90°
= sin ic
Hence, absolute refractive index of water =1/sin ic.
The expression can be generalised to any medium as refractive index of denser
medium/refractive index of rarer medium = 1/sin ic.
6. What is the angle of refraction when a ray from denser medium strikes the surface
at the critical angle?
Ans. When a ray from denser medium strikes the surface at the critical angle, the angle of
refraction is 90°.
7. Give three applications of TIR in a right-angled isosceles prism.
Ans. (i) Turns a ray by 90° (periscopic effect).
(ii) Turns a ray by 180° (binocular effect).
(iii) Turns the image upside down to make it erect (in slide projector).
8. Draw the ray diagram of TIR in a right-angled isosceles prism
(i) to turn a ray by 90° (periscopic effect).
(ii) to turn a ray by 180° (binocular effect).
Ans. (i) Turning a ray by 90° using a right-angled isosceles prism. (The combination of
two such prisms can give rise to periscopic effect).

(ii) Turning a ray by 180° by using a right-angled isosceles prism. (The combination
of two such prisms can give rise to binocular effect).
9. Draw the ray diagram of TIR in a right-angled isosceles prism to get erect image of
an inverted one as used in a slide projector.
Ans. The ray diagram showing total internal reflection in a right-angled isosceles prism
to get erect image of an inverted picture as used in a slide projector.
10. Complete the following ray diagrams till the rays emerge out of the prisms, if the
critical angle of glass-air media is 42°.

Ans.

11. What is the principle of an optic fibre?
Ans. An optical fibre is a narrow glass tube which is cladded with a material of small
refractive index so that multiple total internal reflections of light that enters the tube
can take place and it can pass through the tube.
12. How is the TIR phenomenon helpful in optic fibre?
Ans. It helps the light to pass through the optical fibre without any loss of light energy and
hence to transmit the light signals to long distances effectively.
13. Write a consequence of TIR.
Ans. Formation of mirage in a desert :
Mirage is an optical illusion which occurs in deserts on hot summer days. During a
hot day, temperature of air near the earth is maximum and hence rarer or lighter. The
upper layers of air, which are relatively cool, are denser. A ray of light from the top
of a tree travels from denser to rarer and bends away from the normal. At a particular
layer, ic, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle applicable to
the boundary, total internal reflection occurs and an inverted image is formed. To
a faraway observer, the inverted image of the tree creates an optical illusion of
reflection from a pond of water.
14. Why does a cut diamond glow more brilliantly than an uncut one?
Ans. The critical angle of cut diamond can be made smaller than the uncut one so that
more TIR can take place.
Chapter-3 : Lenses
Exercise Questions
1. Identify the converging lenses in the following :
(i) plano-concave, (ii) concavo-convex, (iii) convexo-concave.
Ans. Concavo-convex lens.
2. A lens which is thin at the centre and thick at the edges is .............. type of lens.
Ans. Diverging type of lens or concave lens.
3. Define the following for a lens: optical centre, principal axis, focal length.
Ans. Optical centre is the geometric centre of the lens. Principal axis is the line passing
through the two centres of curvatures of the lens. Focal length is the distance between
the points focus and the optical centre of the lens.
4. What is an equi-convex lens? Mention the condition required for both focal lengths
of a lens to be the same.
Ans. Equi-convex lens is the convex lens having two convex surfaces of equal radius. If
the radii of curvature of both the surfaces are equal, then both the focal lengths will
be the same.
5. Write two factors on which the focal length of a lens depends.
Ans. Focal length of a lens depends on the nature of the material like its optical density of
the lens and also on the wavelength of the incident ray of light.
6. Distinguish between real and virtual image.
Ans. A real image is formed by actual convergence of rays and can be projected on a
screen.
A virtual image is formed by extending the diverging rays backwards and it cannot
be projected on a screen.
7. How do you identify concave lens by its appearance?
Ans. A concave lens is thick at the rim and thin at the centre. The image formed by it is
diminished, virtual and erect.
8. Identify the lens when
(i) the image formed by this lens to be virtual and magnified with respect to the object.

(ii) the image formed by this lens to be virtual and diminished with respect to the
object.
(iii) the lens when used in a slide projector to get inverted and magnified image.
Ans. (i) The image formed by a convex lens is virtual and magnified with respect to the
object.
(ii) The image formed by a concave lens is virtual and diminished with respect to
the object.
(iii) The convex lens when used in a slide projector gives inverted and magnified image.
9. Copy the diagram and complete it using two incident rays. Replace LL' by an
appropriate lens.
L
I
O
L¢
Ans. The lens is a convex lens as the image is formed on the other side of the lens. A ray
diagram of the lens arrangement and image formation is shown below.
10. Draw the ray diagram to show the position and nature of the image when an object
is placed at the focus of a concave lens.
Ans. The image which is erect, virtual and diminished forms in front of the concave lens,
between the object and the lens.
11. Define the power of a lens. In what unit is it expressed?

Ans. Power of a lens is its ability to bend the ray passing through it. Its unit is Dioptre.
12. How does the size of the image change as the object from infinity is moved towards
a convex lens?
Ans. The size of the image increases and becomes infinity when the object reaches the
focus.
13. Copy the diagram and draw the corresponding incident rays
(i) (ii)
Ans.
(i) convergence of rays in convex lens (ii) divergence of rays in concave lens
14. Write four applications of a convex lens.
Ans. The applications of a convex lens are :
(i) in spectacles and contact lenses to remove the defect of hypermetropia
(ii) in cameras
(iii) as magnifying glass or reading glass
(iv) microscopes and telescopes as objective lens and eye piece
15. Mention two applications of a concave lens.
Ans. The applications of concave lenses are :
(i) in spectacles and contact lenses to remove defect due to myopia.
(ii) in Galilean terrestrial telescope.
Numerical Problems
1. The power of a lens is –2.0 D. What is the nature of the lens? Find its focal length in
centimetres.
Ans. It is a concave lens because its power is negative.
Since P = 1/f or f = 1/P = 1/2 = 0.5 m or 50 cm.
2. A lens has a magnification of –2.5. Is the lens concave or convex? If the size of
object is 3 cm, find the size of its image.
Ans. It is a convex lens as the negative sign indicates an inverted image.
Since m = I/O
–2.5 = I/3
or I = –7.5 cm
3. An object is placed at a distance of 6 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length
10 cm. Find the position and nature of its image.
Ans. As the object is placed within the focal length of the lens, the image is virtual, erect
and forms behind the object.
Given, u = – 6 cm, f = 10 cm
Using the lens formula 1/f = 1/v –1/u
v = u f / [u + f] = – 60/4 = –15 cm
4. The image of an object is magnified twice when it is placed in front of a convex lens
of focal length 20 cm. What is the position and nature of its image?
Ans. As the image is simply magnified, it means the image remains erect.
Hence, by sign convention, both u and v are negative.
m = I/O = 2 = [– v]/[– u] or v = 2 u
Using the formula
f = u v/u – v = (2 u2)/(u – 2u)
\ 20 = –2 u or u = –10 cm and v = –20 cm.
Hence, the image is virtual, erect and formed behind the object on the same side of
the lens.
5. The magnification of image of an object placed in front of a convex lens is 0.5. If the
distance of the real image from the lens is 24 cm, calculate the focal length of the lens.
Ans. m = 0.5 = v/u or u = – 2 v (using sign convention)
Using the formula
F = u v/u – v = [–2 v2]/[–3 v] = 2 v/3 = 16 cm
6. A concave lens has focal length 20 cm. At what distance should the object from the
lens be placed so as to form the image at 12 cm from the lens. Also, find magnification
of the lens.
Ans. Given, f = –20 cm, v = –12 cm
Using the formula
1/f = 1/v –1/u
1/u = 1/v –1/f or u = v f / f – v
or u = 240/[–8] = –30 cm
M or m = v/u = 12/30 = 0.4
7. A convex lens forms a real image magnified by 3 times with respect to an object
placed at a distance of 6 cm from the lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens.
Ans. As m = 3 = – v/u = (–v)/(–6)
\ v = 18 cm
and f = u v/u – v = (– 6 ×18)/(– 6 – 18)
= – 108/ – 24 = 4.5 cm
Chapter-4 : Electromagnetic Spectrum
Exercise Questions
1. The range of wavelength of the visible light is
(i) 7,000 Å to 3,000 Å (ii) 8,000 Å to 3,000 Å
(iii) 7,000 Å to 4,000 Å (iv) 8,000 Å to 3,000 Å
Ans. (iii) 7,000 Å to 4,000 Å
2. The EM waves which are useful in night photography are
(i) UV rays (ii) IR rays
(iii) Gamma rays (iv) Visible rays
Ans. (ii) IR rays
3. The EM waves which are used to detect fracture of bones is
(i) UV rays (ii) X-rays
(iii) Gamma rays (iv) Visible rays
Ans. (ii) X- rays
4. Differentiate between monochromatic and polychromatic light.
Ans. A monochromatic light consists of light rays having single wavelength.
A polychromatic light consists of light rays having different wavelengths.
5. Give two properties of IR rays and one use of each property.
Ans. IR rays can produce heating effect, so they are used in therapeutic treatment.
IR rays have longer wavelength and they are not scattered by fog, so they are used
in night photography.
6. What are the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation?
Ans. They can cause skin cancer and eye diseases like cataract, if people are exposed to
UV rays for long time.
7. Why is the colour of the sky blue?
Ans. The blue colour of the sky results from the scattering of sunlight off the molecules
of the atmosphere. The scattering, called “Rayleigh scattering”, is more effective at
short wavelengths, that is, the blue end of the visible spectrum or light. Therefore, the
light scattered down towards the earth at a larger angle with respect to the direction
of the Sun’s light is predominantly in the blue end of the spectrum.
8. Why red coloured light is used at the crossroads?
Ans. Red coloured light rays scatter least. So, the intensity or the brightness of the light
received by the eyes will be maximum. Hence, it is used at the crossroads.
9. Why are the school buses painted yellow?
Ans. Our eye is more sensitive to yellow coloured light as it has the mean wavelength of
the visible range.
10. Which colour of light is seen when the size of the particles of the medium is large?
Ans. White colour is seen because the particles absorb the white light and scatter it in all
directions.
11. Differentiate between IR rays and UV rays.
Ans. (i) Infrared (IR) rays produce strong heating effect whilst ultraviolet (UV) rays
produce no heating.
(ii) IR rays do not exhibit fluorescence whereas UV rays exhibit fluorescence.

(iii) IR rays are not harmful although exposure high levels may cause skin burns;
UV rays may cause diseases like skin cancer.
(iv) IR rays do not affect a photographic plate whilst UV rays affect a photographic
film or plate.
12. Write three uses of ultraviolet light.
Ans. (i) Hospitals use UV lamps to sterilise surgical equipment and the air in operation
theatres.
(ii) Food and drug companies, too, use UV lamps to sterilise their products before
marketing.
(iii) Suitable doses of UV rays are helpful for the body to produce vitamin D, vital
for the body to absorb or metabolise calcium, and this is used by doctors to treat
vitamin D deficiency and some skin disorders in human body.
13. Draw the ray diagram of dispersion of white light through a prism and label the
colours.
Ans.
14. Why does the Sun appear red during Sunrise and Sunset?
Ans. As the red colour has least wavelength among the visible colours it scatters the
least whereas the other colours scatter away from the Sun during the sunrise and the
sunset when the angle of inclination is maximum. So, the Sun appears red at sunrise
or sunset.
15. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Ans. Rayleigh’s law of scattering states that the angle of scattering is inversely proportional
to the fourth power of the wavelength of light.
16. How does the angle of scattering through medium vary with the wavelength of light?
Ans. Angle of scattering µ1/l4 , where λ is the wavelength of light.
17. Wavelengths of red and violet colours are 8,000 Å and 4,000 Å respectively. What
are their frequencies?
Ans. Frequency of red colour = [3 × 108]/[8,000 × 1010] = 3.5 × 10– 6 Hz.
Frequency of violet colour = [3 × 108]/[4,000 ×1010] = 1.75 × 10– 6 Hz.
18. Write the relation between the frequency, wavelength and velocity of light.
Ans. Velocity of light waves = frequency × wavelength.
19. Give two applications of scattering of light.
Ans. Red light is used for danger signal. Infrared waves are used in remote control.
20. Write four common properties of EM waves.
Ans. Electromagnetic waves travel with a speed of 3 × 108 ms–1 in air and have the
following properties :
(i) they are not deflected by electric or magnetic fields
(ii) they obey the laws of reflection and refraction
(iii) they are transverse waves
(iv) they do not need any medium to travel
UNIT-3 : SOUND
Chapter-1 : Reflection of Sound Waves
Exercise Questions
1. Write three properties of sound waves.
Ans. (i) Sound waves are mechanical waves which need medium to travel.
(ii) They travel with a speed of 330 ms–1 in air.
(iii) The range of wavelength of sound is from 10–2 m to 10 m.
2. What is the audio range of frequency of sound?
Ans. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
3. Differentiate between infrasonic and ultrasonic waves. Give two sources of
production of each.
Ans. Infrasonic waves are the sound waves of frequency less than 20 Hz whereas
ultrasonic waves are the sound waves of frequency greater than 20 kHz.
Dogs and elephants can produce infrasonic waves. Simple pendulum is also a source
of infrasonic waves.
Bats and dolphins can produce ultrasonic waves. Some electronic circuits are also
the sources of ultrasonic waves.
4. Define echo.
Ans. The repeated sound heard due to its reflection from an obstacle after the original
sound is ceased is called echo.
5. What are the conditions required to hear an echo?
Ans. The distance between the source and the obstacle must be greater than 17 m. The
obstacle must be large and hard enough to reflect the sound.
6. Why echo is not heard in a small classroom whereas it is heard in large open play
grounds surrounded by walls?
Ans. The length of a classroom is generally less than 17 m due to which echo cannot be
heard distinctly.
7. How do bats and dolphins locate their prey?
Ans. Bats who invariably dwell in the dark for reason of safety etc., use the phenomenon
of echo to find prey like insects in the dark. Most bats make calls higher in pitch
up to 100 kHz that results in an echo. When the sound bounces off the object and
echo of the sound returns to the bat, the time delay helps it process how far away the
object is and the direction from which echo is heard, helps to locate the prey.
8. What do you mean by SONAR? Which kind of waves are used in it? Give two
applications of it.
Ans. SONAR is an acronym of SOund Navigation And Ranging. It involves the use of
ultrasonic waves. Sonar is used by submarines and ships to find the depth of a sea
and to trace the enemy ships from far off distance.
9. Mention two applications of echo method in medical field.
Ans. Echo cardiography and ultrasonography.
10. Distinguish between light and sound waves.
Ans. (i) Sound cannot travel in vacuum whilst light waves can travel in vacuum
(ii) Sound waves are mechanical waves whereas light waves are electromagnetic waves
(iii) Sound waves propagate as longitudinal waves whereas light waves propagate as
transverse waves
(iv) Sound waves travel at low speed [350 ms–1 (approx.) in air]; light waves travel
at tremendous speed (3 ×108 ms–1 in vacuum)
11. Give two reasons why ultrasonic waves are preferred over audible sound waves in
echo method.
Ans. Ultrasonic waves are more energetic and they do not get scattered much unlike
sound waves. So, they are preferred over sound waves in echo method.
12. Write the steps to find the speed of sound by echo method.
Ans. Let there be a source of sound S and a huge obstacle O.
Measure the distance d between S and O, which should be more than 17 m.
Start a stopwatch when a signal starts from the source and stop it when you receive
its echo. Note the time interval t.
Using the formula v = 2d/t, obtain the speed of sound.
13. Write any four applications of echo.
Ans. (i) Echo method is used in echocardiography.
(ii) Ultra sonography is used for medical purpose.
(iii) It is used in SONAR by submarines.
(iv) It is used in RADAR in air traffic control and for detection of the huge objects
around.
14. What is reverberation?
Ans. Repeated reflection of sound waves heard continuously is called reverberation.
Numerical Problems
1. A radar sends a signal to an aircraft at a distance of 30 km away and receives it back
after 2 × 10–4 s. What is the speed of the signal ?
Ans. Using the echo formula,
c = 2d/t, where c is the speed of signal, d is the distance between the source (radar)
and the obstacle (air craft) and t is the time taken to hear the echo after the signal is
sent. Substituting, c = [2 × 30,000]/[2 × 10–4] = 3 × 108 ms–1.
2. An observer stands at a certain distance away from a cliff and produces a loud
sound. He hears the echo of the sound after 1.8 s. Calculate the distance between the
cliff and the observer if the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms–1.
Ans. Using the echo formula,
v = 2d/t, where v is the speed of sound in air, d is the distance between the source
of sound and the obstacle and t is the time taken to hear the echo after the source
produces the sound. Then
340 = 2d/1.8 or d = [340 × 1.8]/2 = 306 m.
3. A man standing between two cliffs produces a sound and hears two successive
echoes at intervals of 3 s and 4 s, respectively. Calculate the distance between the
two cliffs. The speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1.
Ans. Using the echo formula, v = 2d/t,
total time taken for echo between the cliffs = 3 + 4 = 7 s
330 = 2d/7 or d = [330 × 7]/2 = 1,155 m.
4. A man standing 25 m away from a wall produces a sound and receives the reflected
sound.
(i) Calculate the time after which he receives the reflected sound if the speed of
sound in air is 350 ms–1.
(ii) Will the man be able to hear a distinct echo?
Ans. (i) Using the echo formula, v = 2d/t
350 = [2 × 25]/t or t = 50/350 = 0.14 s.
(ii) Yes. The man will be able to hear the echo distinctly as the time span is more
than 0.1 s.
5. A man stands at a distance of 68 m from a cliff and fires a gun. After what time
interval will he hear the echo, if the speed of sound in air is 340 ms–1?
Ans. Using the echo formula, v = 2d/t,
340 = [2 × 68]/t or t = 136/340 = 0.4 s.
6. Calculate the minimum distance at which a person should stand in front of a reflecting
surface so that he can hear a distinct echo. (Take speed of sound in air = 350 ms–1).
Ans. As the minimum time span to hear an echo distinctly is 0.1 s, using the echo formula,
v = 2 d/t, 350 = 2d/0.1 or d = 35/2 = 17.5 m.

7. A radar sends a signal to an aeroplane at a distance 45 km away with a speed of
3 × 108 ms–1. After how long is the signal received back from the aeroplane?
Ans. Using the echo formula, c = 2d/t, where c is the speed of signal, d is the distance
between the source (radar) and the obstacle (aeroplane) and t is the time taken to
hear the echo after the signal is sent. Then
3 × 108 = [2 × 45,000]/t or t = 90,000/[3 × 108] = 3 × 10–4s.
Chapter-2 : Vibrations
Exercise Questions
1. What do you understand by free vibrations? Give three examples of free vibrations.
Ans. The vibrations produced in a body that is capable of vibrating, when it is displaced
from its initial position are called free vibrations. The body vibrates with its natural
frequency during free vibrations.
Examples :
(i) oscillations of a pendulum (ii) vibrations of tuning fork
(iii) a vibrating string
2. Under what condition free vibrations are possible?
Ans. There should be no external force acting on the vibrating body.
3. Distinguish between damped and undamped vibrations.
Ans. (i) The undamped vibrations continue with constant amplitude with time whilst the
amplitude of damped vibrations decrease with time
(ii) The energy of damped vibrations remains constant whereas damped vibrations
exhibit loss of energy with time
(iii) Damped vibrations occur due to a restoring force with no external force acting;
undamped vibrations are subjected to external opposing forces like friction or
air resistance
4. What are forced vibrations? Give two examples.
Ans. The vibrations produced in a body due to the periodic force acting on it are called
forced vibrations.
Examples :
(i) When a guitar is played, the wooden box of the guitar, the enclosed air and the
surrounding air particles are set into forced vibrations giving rise to a loud sound
(ii) When a tuning fork is placed on a tabletop, the tabletop and the surrounding air
particles are set into forced vibrations giving rise to a loud sound
5. Differentiate between free and forced vibrations.
Ans. (i) Free vibrations result from a vibrating body in the absence of any external
resistive forces whilst vibrations of a body caused by an external periodic force
are called forced vibrations

(ii) The frequency of vibrations remains the same being the natural frequency of
vibration of the body whereas the frequency of forced vibrations would change
with the frequency of applied force
(iii) The frequency of free vibrations depends on the size, shape and structure of the
body; frequency of forced vibrations would be the same as that of the applied
force
6. What is resonance? Explain its significance.
Ans. When a body, vibrating at a given amplitude and (natural) frequency, produces forced
vibrations in another body, of the same natural frequency and usually of increased
amplitude, the phenomenon is known as resonance. The frequency is identified as
resonant frequency and forced vibrations as resonant vibrations.
At resonance, the amplitude of vibration is maximum. As the loudness is directly
proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibrations, the loudness of the sound
is also maximum.
7. Give reason for the following cases :
(i) a window glass pane breaks when an aeroplane flies above it.
(ii) a motor vehicle shakes vigorously at a certain speed.
(iii) maximum sound is heard at certain length of air column in a cylinder filled
with water when a vibrating tuning fork is placed above its open end.
Ans. (i) It occurs due to resonance between the vibrations produced in air by the
aeroplane and the forced vibrations of the window plane which causes maximum
amplitude that leads to the breaking of the glass pane
(ii) It occurs due to resonance between the vibrations produced by the moving
vehicle and the forced vibrations of its various parts resulting in maximum
amplitude, leading to the shaking of the vehicle
(iii) It occurs due to the resonance between the vibrating tuning fork and the forced
vibrations of the air column above the water in the cylinder which causes
maximum amplitude, leading to the maximum sound
8. Why does a system produce loud sound at resonance? Explain.
Ans. At resonance the amplitude of vibrations is maximum. As the loudness is directly
proportional to the square of the amplitude (L ∝ A2), the loudness of the sound is
also maximum.
9. Draw the graphs showing damped and undamped vibrations.
Ans.
(a) damped vibrations
(b) undamped vibrations

In the displacement against distance [axis y vs. axis x] graphs given above
(a) represents damped vibrations and (b) represents undamped vibrations.
10. A radio set is tuned for a certain frequency to receive proper sound from a particular
radio station. Name the phenomenon that takes place during tuning of the receiver.
Ans. Resonance between the frequency of the transmitted signal and the receiving signal
to which the radio set is tuned.
11. What kind of resonance is useful in medical field for imaging different parts of the
body?
Ans. Magnetic resonance imaging.
12. Write the full form of MRI.
Ans. Magnetic resonance imaging.
Chapter-3 : Loudness, Pitch and Quality of Sound

Exercise Questions
1. Write the three characteristics of sound.
Ans. The three characteristics of a sound are :
(i) loudness
(ii) pitch
(iii) quality
2. What are the objective properties of
(i) loudness
(ii) pitch
(iii) timbre?
Ans. The objective properties are :
(i) loudness: intensity
(ii) pitch: frequency
(iii) timbre: waveform
3. How does loudness depend on
(i) amplitude,
(ii) distance from source
(iii) density of medium.
Ans. (i) L ∝ A2, where L is the loudness of sound and A is amplitude of the sound wave
(ii) L ∝ 1/d2, where d is the distance from source
(iii) Loudness increases with increase in the density of medium
4. Define intensity of sound. What is its SI unit?
Ans. Intensity of sound is defined as the sound energy per second per unit area normal to
its propagation.

5. What is the unit in which loudness is measured?
Ans. Loudness is measured in decibels.
6. Differentiate between loudness and pitch.
Ans. Loudness depends on amplitude and is independent of its frequency.
Pitch depends on frequency and is independent of its amplitude.
7. Draw two waves of
(i) high pitch and low amplitude (ii) low pitch and high amplitude.
Ans.

(i) a wave of high pitch
(ii) a wave of low pitch and

and low amplitude high amplitude
8. Draw two waves of
(i) same amplitude and different pitch, (ii) same pitch and different amplitude.
Ans.
(i) waves of same amplitude (ii) waves of same pitch and

and different pitch different amplitude
9. Write two factors on which pitch depends and also mention how it depends on those
factors.
Ans. Pitch of a sound increases with decrease in the length of the vibrating air column. It
decreases with the increase in the thickness of the vibrating string.
10. Write two basic differences between loudness and intensity of sound.
Ans. The loudness of the sound can be perceived by the human ear and is a subjective
quantity, whereas intensity of sound is the energy per second per unit area held
normal to its propagation, which is a objective property.
11. What are the factors on which the frequency of a stretched string depends and also
mention how it depends on them?
Ans. The frequency of vibration of a stretched string(f) depends on length(l), tension(T)
and mass per unit length(m) of the string.
The frequency is :
(i) directly proportional to the square root of the tension applied ( T )
(ii) inversely proportional to the length of the string (1/l)
(iii) inversely proportional to the mass per unit length of the string (1/m)
12. What difference do you perceive in the sound when a pitcher is getting filled with water?
Ans. As the pitcher is getting filled, the vibrating air column between the tap and the
water level in the pitcher keeps decreasing and hence the pitch increases.
13. The quality of two sounds from two identical guitars will not be the same. Give reason.
Ans. It is due to the fact that the number of subsidiary waves superimposing on the
fundamental or principal note are not the same.
14. The quality of sound depends on which factor?
Ans. The quality of sound depends on the wave pattern of the sound wave, which in turn
depends on the subsidiary notes which superimpose on the fundamental or principal
wave.
15. Mention one difference between pitch and frequency.
Ans. Pitch can be perceived by human ear and is a subjective property, whereas frequency
is number of waves passing through a given point per second and is an objective
property.
16. Arrange the following in the increasing order of pitch
(i) a child’s cry, (ii) a man’s speech, (iii) A woman’s talk.
Ans. A man’s speech, a woman’s talk, a child’s cry.
UNIT-4 : ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

Chapter-1 : Electric Current
Exercise Questions
1. Define electric potential and give its SI unit.
Ans. Electric potential at a point in the electric field is the work done in moving a unit
positive charge from infinity (from outside the field) to the given point in the field.
Its SI unit is volt.
2. Distinguish between electronic current and conventional current.
Ans. Electronic current is the rate of flow of electrons from the negative terminal to the
positive terminal in a closed circuit.
Conventional current is defined as the rate of flow of charges from the positive
terminal to the negative terminal, when equivalent electronic current flows in the
opposite direction.
3. ‘The current passing through a wire is 2 A’. What do you understand by the statement?
Ans. When a charge of 2 C flows through the wire in one second, a current of 2 A is said
to pass through it.
4. Differentiate between resistance and resistivity.
Ans. Resistance of a conducting wire is its ability to oppose the flow of current through it.
Resistivity is the resistance per unit volume of the material, which is the characteristic
of the material.
5. Give four factors on which resistance of a wire depends.
Ans. (i) Length : resistance of a wire depends on its length.
(ii) Area of cross-section: resistance of a wire is inversely depends on its area of
cross-section.
(iii) Material : resistance of a wire depends on material of the wire.
(iv) Temperature: resistance of a wire depends on temperature of the wire.
6. State Ohm’s law. Write the mathematical expression for it.
Ans. Ohm’s law states that the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional
to the potential difference between the two ends of the conductor, provided the
physical conditions like temperature remain the same.
V ∝ I, where V is the potential difference across the wire and I is the current passing
through it.
7. Draw the experimental circuit to verify Ohm’s law.
Ans.
8. Draw V-I graph of Ohm’s law. What does its slope represent ?
Ans. The graph of variation in the voltage V supplied across the two ends of the conductor
and the corresponding varying current I passing through it is given below :
The slope, ∆V/∆I, represents the resistance of the conductor.

9. What is the resistivity of an insulator? Give reason to your answer.
Ans. The resistivity of an insulator is very high because it has negligible number of free
electrons in it.
10. ‘The potential difference across two terminals of a cell in a circuit is 6 V’. Explain
the statement.
Ans. If the work done in moving a unit positive charge from one terminal to the other is
6 J, then the potential difference across the terminals is said to be 6 V.
11. Give two examples where Ohm’s law is not obeyed.
Ans. (i) If the temperature of the conductor is increased, then it does not obey Ohm’s
law.
(ii) In case of semiconductors Ohm’s law is not obeyed.
12. How does the increase in temperature affect the resistance of (i) a conductor (ii) a
semi-conductor?
Ans. In case of a conductor, when the temperature increases, the resistance increases
because the collision between free electrons and the atoms of the conductor
increases.
In case of semiconductors, if the temperature increases, the resistance decreases
because the number of free electrons increase.
13. What is a superconductor? Give one advantage of it over a conductor.
Ans. A superconductor is a conductor that has zero resistance at very low temperature.
For example, mercury at 4 K. There is no power loss during the transmission of
current.
14. Differentiate between ohmic and non-ohmic conductors/resistors.
Ans. In case of ohmic conductors, the graph of I against V is linear, inclined to V-axis and
the slope indicates its resistance.
In case of non-ohmic conductors, the graph of I against V is non-linear.
15. Give three differences between series and parallel circuit.
Ans. (i) In a series circuit, the same current flows in all resistor or loads whilst in a
parallel, the PD across all the elements comprising the circuit is the same.
(ii) The sum PDs across various loads or resistors equals the supplied voltage
whereas the sum of individual currents in a parallel circuit is the total current
supplied by the battery or source of voltage.
(iii) The equivalent resistance in a series circuit is the sum of all the resistances
(Req = R1 + R2 + ... ); in a parallel circuit, the reciprocal of the equivalent circuit
is the sum of reciprocal of all the resistances (1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ...).
16. In a given set of resistors forming a series or parallel circuit which gives less
resistance? Which one gives more current?
Ans. A parallel circuit gives less resistance. It also gives more current.
17. Obtain the equivalent resistance of three resistors connected in parallel?
Ans. To derive an expression for equivalent resistance of the resistances connected in
parallel, consider the circuit
(negligible internal resistance)

In the circuit the total current is given by
I = I1 + I2 + I3 = E [1/ R1 + 1/ R2 + 1/ R3]
If R is the equivalent resistance of the circuit, the current I will be given by
I = E/R
Substituting for I from above
I = E [1/ R1 + 1/ R2 + 1/ R3]
Equating the two expressions for I and eliminating E
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/ R3
or R = 1/[1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 ]
18. Obtain the equivalent resistance of three resistors connected in series?
Ans. Consider the three resistances connected in series as shown below :
(negligible internal resistance)

In the circuit,
E = V 1 + V2 + V3
Substituting the PDs V1, V2 and V3 in terms of resistances and circuit current, I
E = I × R1 + I × R2 + I × R3
= I × (R1 + R2 + R3)
If the equivalent resistance of the circuit is R, then
E=I×R
Equating the two expressions for E and eliminating I
R = R1 + R2 + R3
19. Define (i) EMF of a cell (ii) internal resistance of a cell.
Ans. EMF (electromotive force) of a cell is the maximum potential difference between
the two terminals of the cell in an open circuit. (when the cell is not supplying a
current).
Internal resistance of a cell is the resistance offered by the electrolyte of the cell to
the flow of charges (or ions) through it.
20. Give two differences between EMF and terminal voltage of a cell.
Ans. EMF of a cell is the maximum potential difference between the two terminals of the
cell when the cell is not in use.
Terminal voltage of a cell is the potential difference between the two terminals of
the cell when the cell is in a closed circuit, supplying a current.
21. Write the relationship between EMF E, terminal voltage V and internal resistance
r of a cell when it is in use.
Ans. E = V + Ir, where I is the current passing through the cell.
22. Mention two factors which affect the internal resistance of a cell.
Ans. (i) Internal resistance increases with increase in the distance between the electrodes.
(ii) Internal resistance decreases with increase in the surface area of the electrode
plates.
23. Which cell will have more internal resistance : a new one or an old one?
Ans. An old cell has more internal resistance.
24. Out of voltmeter and ammeter, which one is connected in series and which one in
parallel in a circuit? Give reason.
Ans. A voltmeter is connected in parallel, as it measures the potential difference between
the two ends of the conductor.
An ammeter is connected in series with the conductor as it is meant to measure the
current passing through the conductor; the same current passes through it.
25. Which one has more resistance : an ammeter or a voltmeter? Give reason.
Ans. A voltmeter has more resistance. It is connected in parallel in a circuit and must
draw least current.
Numerical Problems
1. The equivalent resistance of the following circuit is 6 Ω. Find the value of
resistance X.
Ans. In the network of resistances given, 8, 9 and X Ω are in series. Let their equivalent
resistance be P. 3 and 5 Ω are in series. Let their equivalent resistance be Q. Then P
and Q are in parallel.
Using the formula for series combination,
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
P = [8 + 9 + X] Ω and Q = 3 + 5 = 8 Ω
Given that the net resistance of the network is 6 Ω.
\ Using the formula for parallel combination of resistances,
1/Rp = 1/R1 + 1/R2
or Rp = R1 × R2/R1 + R2
\ Req = PQ/P + Q
Substituting the values
6 = [17 + X] × 8/25 + X
whence X= 7Ω
2. Four resistances of values 0.5 Ω, 1.5 Ω, 4.0 Ω and 6.0 Ω, respectively, are connected
in series across a battery of 6.0 V and negligible internal resistance. Calculate
(i) the current drawn from the battery, (ii) PD across each of the resistances.
Ans. (i) Using the formula for series combination,
Req = 0.5 + 1.5 + 4 + 6 = 12 Ω
Using Ohm’s law,
I = V/R = 6/12 = 0.5 A
(ii) V1 = IR1 = 0.5 × 0.5 = 0.25 V
V2 = IR2 = 0.5 × 1.5 = 0.75 V
V3 = IR3 = 0.5 × 4 = 2 V
V4 = IR4 = 0.5 × 6 = 3 V
3. A cell of EMF 1.8 V is connected to an external resistance of 2.0 Ω, the potential
difference across the resistance being 1.6 V. Calculate the internal resistance of the
cell.
Ans. Given E = 1.8 V, R = 2 Ω, V = 1.6 V
Using the equation of Ohm’s law,
I = V/R = 1.6/2 = 0.8 A
Using the formula, E = V + Ir
or r = [E – V]/I
whence r = [1.8 – 1.6]/0.8 = 0.25 Ω
4. In the circuit shown, ammeter A reads 0.3 A. Calculate (i) total resistance of the
circuit, (ii) value of resistance R, (iii) current flowing through R.

Ans. (i) Using Ohm’s law,
Req = V/I = 6/0.3 = 20 Ω
(ii) Using the formula for parallel combination,
20 = R 60/[R + 60]
whence R = 30 Ω
(iii) Using Ohm’s law,
IR = V/R = 6/30 = 0.2 A
5. In the circuit shown, calculate (i) the main current, (ii) current in each of the parallel
circuits.
Ans (i) Total resistance, R, of the circuit

= resistance of branch A, RA + resistance of branch B, RB
or {[3 × 1.5]/[3 +1.5]} + {[6 × 12]/[6 +12]} = 1 + 4 = 5 Ω
\ Using Ohm’s law,
Main current, I = V/R = 9/5 = 1.8 A
(ii) VA = I RA = 1.8 × 1 = 1.8 V
(a) current through 1.5 Ω = VA/1.5 = 1.8/1.5 = 1.2 A
(b) current through 3 Ω = VA/3 = 1.8/3 = 0.6 A
Again, VB = IRB = 1.8 × 4 = 7.2 V
(c) current through 6 Ω = VB/6 = 7.2/6 = 1.2 A
(d) current through 12 Ω = VB/12 = 7.2/12 = 0.6 A
6. A metal wire of resistance 6 Ω is stretched so that its length is increased to twice its
original length. Calculate its new resistance. [Hint : when a wire is stretched, its
area of cross-section reduces, but its volume remains the same
Ans. Volume of the wire before it is stretched = π r12 L1 ; radius: r1, length L1
Volume of the wire after it is stretched = π r 22 L 2 ; radius: r2, length L2
Equating the two, r22/r12 = L1/L2
Using the formula ρ = [R1 π r12]/L1 = [R2 π r22]/L2,
R1/R2 = L12/L22
Given that L2 = 2 L1
R1/R2 = L12 /L22
= 1/4 or R2 = 4R1 = 4 × 6 = 24 Ω
7. Calculate the equivalent resistance between P and Q from the diagram shown:
Ans. The two 10 Ω resistors are in series and the combination is in parallel with 5 Ω resistor.
Rs = 10 + 10 = 20 Ω
Rp = [20 × 5]/[20 + 5] = 4 Ω which is in series with 3 Ω and 2 Ω.
Hence, R between P and Q = 3 + 4 + 2 = 9 Ω
8. Three resistors are connected to a 6 V battery as shown in the figure.
Calculate :
(i) the equivalent resistance of the circuit
(ii) total current in the circuit
(iii) potential difference across the 7.2 Ω resistor.
Ans. (i) 8 Ω and 12 Ω are in parallel and the combination is in series with 7.2 Ω.
Rp = [8 × 2]/[8 + 12] = 4.8 Ω
Resistance of the circuit = 7.2 + 4.8 = 12 Ω
(ii) Using Ohm’s law,
I = V/R = 6/12 = 0.5 A
(iii) PD across 7.2 Ω = IR = 0.5 × 7.2 = 3.6 V
9. Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the diagram shown.
Ans. 3 Ω and 2 Ω are in series and 6 Ω and 4 Ω are in series. The two series circuits are
in parallel,along with 30 Ω.
\ Total equivalent resistance, R is given by 1/R = 1/5 + 1/ 30 + 1/10
or R=3Ω

10. Three resistors are connected to a 12 V battery as shown in the figure.
(i) what is the current through the 8 ohm resistor?
(ii) what is the potential difference across the parallel
combination of 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistor?
(iii) what is the current through the 6 ohm resistor?
Ans. (i) In the circuit 12 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel and the

combination is in series with 8 Ω,
Rp = [12 × 6 ]/[12 + 6] = 4 Ω
Total equivalent resistance of the circuit = 8 + 4 = 12 Ω
Using Ohm’s law,
I = V/R = 12/12 = 1 A
(ii) PD across 8 Ω = I × 8 = 1 × 8 = 8 V
PD across 6 Ω and 12 Ω = 12 V – 8 V = 4 V
(iii) Current through 6 Ω = V/6 = 4/6 = 2/3 A
11. Six resistances are connected together as shown in the figure. Calculate the equivalent
resistance between the points A and B.
Ans. To the right, 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 5 Ω are in series

or Rp = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 Ω
Rs is in parallel with 10 Ω,
\ Rp = [10 × 10]/[10 + 10] = 5 Ω
Since 2 Ω and 5 Ω are in series with Rp,
Equivalent resistance of the circuit = 2 + 5 + 5 = 12 Ω
12. The equivalent resistance of the circuit diagram shown is 4 Ω. Calculate the value of x.
Ans. 5 Ω and x Ω are in series and 8 Ω and 4 Ω are in series. The combination is in
parallel with each other. Then
Rp = (5 + x) × 12/[5 + x + 12]
Given Rp = 4 Ω. Substituting
4 = [60 + 12x] / [17 + x]
whence x = 1 Ω
13. Three resistors of 6.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 4.0 Ω, respectively, are joined together as
shown in the figure. The resistors are connected to an ammeter and to a cell of EMF
6.0 V. Calculate:
(i) the effective resistance of the circuit

(ii) the current drawn from the cell.
Ans. (i) Resistors 4 Ω and 2 Ω are in series and the combination is in parallel with 6 Ω.
Rp = (4 + 2) × 6/(4 + 2 + 6) = 36/12 = 3 Ω
(ii) Using Ohm’s law,
I = V/Rp = 6/3 = 2 A
14. A cell of EMF 1.5 V and internal resistance 1.0 Ω is connected to two resistors of
4.0 Ω and 20.0 Ω in series as shown in the figure.
Calculate :
(i) current in the circuit
(ii) potential difference across the 4.0 ohm resistor
(iii) voltage drop when the current is flowing
(iv) potential difference across the cell.
Ans. (i) Resistors 4 Ω and 20 Ω are in series with each other
\ Rs = 4 + 20 = 24 Ω
Using the equation I = E/(R + r),
I = 1.5/(24 + 1) = 1.5/25 = 0.06 A
(ii) PD across 4 Ω = I × 4 = 0.06 × 4 = 0.24 V
(iii) Voltage drop Ir = 0.06 × 1 = 0.06 V
(iv) PD across the cell = IR = 0.06 × 24 = 1.44 V

15. Suggest the value of the resistance R and the method of connection to result in an
equivalent resistance of (i) 2 Ω; (ii) 10 Ω from a resistance of 6 Ω.
Ans. (i) Since the net resistance is less than any of the individual resistances in case of a
parallel combination, the unknown resistance R must be connected in parallel.
\ 2 = (R × 6)/(R + 6)
whence R =3Ω
(ii) Since the net resistance is more than any of the individual resistances in case of
a series combination, the unknown resistance R must be connected in series.
\ 10 = R + 6 or R=4Ω
Chapter 2 : Electrical Power and Energy
Exercise Questions
1. Define electric work. Write its SI unit.
Ans. It is the work done in moving the given charge from one point to the other in an
electric field. Its SI unit is volt.
2. What do you mean by electric potential energy? Write an expression for it.
Ans. The work done (W) in moving a given charge Q is stored as the electric potential
energy. It is expressed as U or W = V Q.
3. State and define the common unit of electrical energy.
Ans. The common unit of electric energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh). One kilowatt-hour is
defined as the electric energy consumed by an electrical device or a gadget of power
rating of one kW when in operation for one hour.
4. Estimate 1 kWh in terms of joules.
Ans. 1 kWh = 103 × 60 × 60 Ws = 3.6 × 106 J
5. Define watt-hour.
Ans. One watt-hour is defined as the electric energy consumed by a device or a gadget if
one watt of power when operating for one hour.
6. One hp = .............. kW.
Ans. One hp = 0.746 kW.
7. Write an expression for Joule’s law of electrical energy.
Ans. A joule of electrical energy is expressed as H = I2 R t, where H is the heat produced
in a wire of resistance R (ohm) carrying current I (A), in time t (s).
8. Mention two devices which convert electric energy into heat energy.
Ans. (i) Electric water heater (ii) Electric iron.
9. Why is that electric power supplied is always greater than the power utilised?
Ans. As some amount of power is lost in the form of undesirable heat produced across the
wires (I2R), the power utilized is always less than the power supplied.

10. Define ‘power rating’ and ‘current rating’ of an appliance or device.
Ans. Power rating of a device is the maximum electric power that can be utilised by it.
Current rating of a device is the maximum current that can be allowed to pass
through it.
11. A bulb has 40 W and 200 V written on it. How do you find its (i) current rating
(ii) resistance of the filament?
Ans. (i) Current rating = P/V = 40/200 = 0.2 A
(ii) Resistance = V2/P = 2002/40 = 1,000 Ω
12. Arrange the following in increasing rating of the electric power a television, a geyser,
an electric iron, an electric oven, a fan and a tube light.
Ans. A tube light, a fan, a television set, an electric iron, a geyser and an electric oven.
Numerical Problems
1. Calculate the current through a 60 W bulb rated for 250 V. If the supply voltage falls
to 200 V, how is the power consumed by the bulb affected, still drawing the same
current?
Ans. Using the formula, P = VI
(i) The current, I = P/V = 60/250 = 0.24 A
(ii) The power consumed at 200 V = P¢= 200 × 0.24 = 48 W.
2. An electrical appliance is designed to consume 1,000 kWh (that is 1 kW in an hour)
when connected to a supply of 220 V. If the appliance is operated for 2 hours,
calculate the energy consumed by the appliance in (i) kWh, (ii) joule.
Ans. (i) Energy consumed by the appliance = Pt = 1,000 × 2 = 2,000 Wh = 2 kWh
(ii) 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J
2 kWh = 7.2 × 106 J
3. An electric oven having a resistance of 20 ohm draws a current of 10 A. If it is
operated for 3 hours daily, calculate the weekly bill of its operation if electricity
costs ` 1.50 per kWh.
Ans. Electric energy consumed by the oven = I2 Rt
= 10 × 10 × 20 × 3 = 6,000 Wh = 6 kWh
Weekly bill = 6 × 7 × 1.5 = ` 63.00
4. Calculate the quantity of heat that will be produced in a coil of resistance 75 Ω, if a
current of 2 A is passed through it for 2 minutes.
Ans. Heat produced in the coil = I2 Rt = 2 × 2 × 75 × (2/60)
= 10 Wh = 36,000 J
5. An electric heater is rated 1,000 W-200 V. Calculate
(i) the resistance of the heating element
(ii) the current flowing through it
Ans. (i) The resistance of the heating element = R
= V2/P
= 200 × 200/1,000
= 40 Ω
(ii) Using the formula, P = VI or I = P/V = 1,000/200
=5A
6. Calculate the electrical energy consumed when a bulb of 40 W is used for 12.5 hours
every day for 30 days.
Ans. Electrical energy consumed by the bulb = P
= 40 × 12.5 × 30
= 15,000 Wh = 15 kWh
7. An electrical heater is rated 4 kW, 220 V. Find the cost of using this heater for
12 hours if one kWh of electrical energy costs ` 3.25.
Ans. Electric energy consumed by the heater = Pt
= 4 ×12 = 48 kWh
Cost of electricity = 48 × 3.25 = `156.00
Chapter-3 : Household Circuits

Exercise Questions
1. Arrange the following in the sequence in which they are utilised in the transmission
of electric power: step–up transformer, distribution-box, step-down transformer,
main fuse, power generating station, grid sub station.
Ans. Power generating station, step–up transformer, grid sub station, step-down
transformer, main fuse and distribution-box.
2. An electric oven is marked as 1,000 W, 200 V. Find the current rating and the time
in which it will consume one unit of energy.
Ans. Current rating = I = P/V =1,000 /200 = 5 A
3. Define the terms used in household electricity: (i) a fuse (ii) a switch.
Ans. (i) A fuse wire is a safety device, in the form of a thin wire (an alloy of 60% lead
and 40% tin) which protects the electric circuit from high current due to a fault
or short circuit by melting and disconnecting it from the supply.
(ii) A switch is a device which connects or disconnects the electric circuits from the
supply.z
4. What is the common feature in the above two devices?
Ans. Both are safety devices which can connect or disconnect the electric circuit from the
supply, to be connected in the live wire.
5. Why are the fuse and switch connected across live wire only and why not along the
neutral wire in the circuit?
Ans. They are always connected in the live wire to isolate the supply from a circuit or
appliance before the supply can be handled for any repair or connection.
6. What is the function of electric meter fitted in a home?
Ans. The electric meter measures and records the electrical energy consumed by the
household etc. in terms of number of units (kWh).
7. Why is a step-up transformer used at the generating station before transmission of
power onward?
Ans. A step-up transformer at the generation plant is used to raise the supply voltage to a
high value that is necessary for transmission of electric power to long distances. A
high transmission voltage also results in corresponding lower current and reduced
I2R loss.
8. Write two characteristics of (i) a fuse wire (ii) heater wire.
Ans. (i) A fuse wire has high resistivity and low melting point.
(ii) A heater wire has high resistivity and high melting point.
9. Name the materials used for a (i) fuse wire (ii) heater wire (iii) filament of a bulb.
Ans. (i) A fuse wire is made from an alloy of 60% lead and 40% tin.
(ii) A heater uses Nichrome wire (an alloy of nickel and chromium).
(iii) The filament of a bulb is made of tungsten.
10. Give the new and old colour code for live, neutral and earth wires.
Ans. In new colour code, the live wire is in brown, neutral in new and earth wire of
yellow colour.
Old code : live wire used to be red, neutral wire used to be black and earth wire used
to be green.
New code : live wire is in brown, neutral wire in light blue and earth wire is yellow.
11. Give two uses of earthing.
Ans. (i) To carry any leakage current to ground.
(ii) To divert the current from the live wire to ground in the event of a fault or short
circuit in an appliance and thus also a person against a electric shock if the
person accidently touches the faulted appliance.
12. Draw the circuit diagram of 2-way control switch for a staircase.
Ans.
Note : Both I and II

are 2-way switches
Working :
Referring to the diagram above, let
(i) the switch I is in position C2, from an immediate previous operation, whilst
switch II is in position C1, the (light) bulb is OFF.
(ii) a person climbing up from ground floor operates switch I to close to position
C1, the light gets switched ON.
(iii) on reaching first floor, the person operates switch II to close the contact to
position C2, switching OFF the light.
(iv) the person coming down after a while would close the switch II to position C1,
switching the light ON, and on reaching ground floor would operate switch I to
position C2 to switch OFF the light and so on.
13. How is the earthing done
(i) near the house (ii) in the electric appliance?
Ans. (i) The earth terminal from the household circuits is terminated to a copper plate
buried in a pit dug near the distribution board. The plate is surrounded with
charcoal and salt that is moisturized frequently to effect electric conductivity of
current flowing to the ground.
(ii) The metallic body or cover of the electric appliance is connected to the earth
terminal of the three-pin socket using a matching (3-pin) plug of appropriate
rating, that is “5 A” or “15 A”.
14. Write five safety measures to be taken while using electricity.
Ans. (i) If an individual is seen to have come in contact with a live conductor, do NOT
touch the person or the equipment; first disconnect the power source at once by
removing the fuse or pull out the plug using, for example, a leather belt.
(ii) Never touch a wet switch or a switch with wet hand, esp. when barefoot.
(iii) Ensure proper earthing or grounding in the premises all the time and connect
earth terminal of all the appliances with an appropriate 3-pin plug, esp. the
highly rated appliances such as an oven.
(iv) When trying to repair an appliance, disconnect it first from the socket; better
still, remove the fuse from that circuit or switch off the MCB of the circuit.
(v) See that the wires from the appliances are properly insulated.
15. Draw the diagram of ring system in a house showing the connections to a three way
socket, a bulb and a fan.
Ans.
Distribution
Board
16. Are the connections made in parallel or in series in a ring system? Give two
advantages of such a connection.
Ans. The connections in a ring system are made in parallel. In a parallel connection,
(i) even if one of the appliances stops functioning, the other appliances will continue
to function.
(ii) a new appliance can be connected easily to the supply wires as long as the
current does not exceed the safe limits.
17. Why is that the earth pin is made long and thick compared to the other two pins in a
three-pin plug?
Ans. The earth pin is made longer so that the earth connection is made before the other
connections to live and neutral supply wires. In case of a faulty appliance or short
circuit, the connection to the earth terminal in the socket (first) would result in
blowing of the circuit fuse and prevent damage to the appliance.
It is made thicker to allow a high (fault) current to be diverted to the ground without
the pin itself getting overheated and get stuck to the socket.
Numerical Problems
1. An electrical appliance is rated at 1,000 kVA, 220 V. If the appliance is operated for
2 hours, calculate the energy consumed by the appliance in (i) kWh; (ii) joule.
Ans. (i) Electrical energy consumed = Pt = 1 × 2 = 2 kWh (1 kVA = 1 kW)
(ii) 2 kWh = 2,000 × 3.6 × 106 J = 7.2 × 109 J
2. Two bulbs are marked 100 W, 220 V and 60 W, 110 V. Calculate the ratio of their
resistances.
Ans. Using the formula R = V2/P,
R1 = 220 × 220/100 and R2 = 110 × 110/60
\ R1/R2 = 2 × 2 × 60/100 = 12 : 5
Chapter-4 : Magnetic Effects of Current

Exercise Questions
1. What is the inference of Oersted’s experiment?
Ans. A current carrying conductor has magnetic lines of force around it. The direction of
these lines get reversed, if the direction of current is reversed in the conductor.
2. How would the magnetic field around the current carrying wire in the Oersted’s
experiment be affected if (i) the current in the circuit is increased, (ii) the direction
of the current is reversed?
Ans. (i) If the current through the wire is increased, the strength of the magnetic field
around it increases.
(ii) The direction of the magnetic field (the magnetic lines of force) is reversed.
3. State and explain Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Ans. Fleming’s left-hand rule states that if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and middle
finger of the left hand perpendicular to each other, then the thumb points towards
the direction of the magnetic force, the forefinger points towards the direction of the
magnetic field and the middle finger points towards the direction of the current.
4. Draw the diagram showing magnetic lines of force in case of a straight conductor
carrying a current.
Ans.
5. Draw the diagram showing magnetic lines of force in case of a circular coil carrying
a current.
Ans.

6. Define a solenoid and draw the diagram of it showing the direction of current and
mark the poles.
Ans. A solenoid is an electromagnetic device having large number of turns of insulated
wire wound closely on a support called a former. When a current is passed through
the wire a magnetic field is produced that is directed axially inside the solenoid.
7. What is an electromagnet? Give four uses of it.

Ans. When current passes through a solenoid with magnetic core, it acts as an
electromagnet.
8. Mention three differences between permanent magnets and electromagnets.
Ans. (i) An electromagnet consists of a coil of wire wound on a soft iron core that
becomes magnetized when a current flows through the winding whilst a
permanent magnet is made of an alloy like ALNICO.
(ii) The magnetic field strength of an electromagnet can be varied by varying current
through the winding; the strength of magnetic field of a permanent magnet is
permanent and cannot be altered.
(iii) The polarity of an electromagnet can be reversed by reversing the current
through the winding whereas the polarity of a permanent magnet is fixed and
not reversible.
9. Draw a labelled diagram and explain the principle of a DC motor (based on Flemings
left-hand rule).
Ans.

Principle of operation :
The sides of the armature carrying current in revers direction when acted upon by the
magnetic field due to magnet at right angles produce a force according to Fleming’s
left-hand rule that is perpendicular to both, the direction of current and that of the
field. The forces in the two coil sides are oppositely directed due to current flow
in opposite directions, the forces form a couple leading to developing of a torque
resulting in rotation of the armature in a particular direction.
The split ring or commutator helps to maintain direction of current in the armature
sides so as to produce torque and rotation of armature in the same direction under
the action of a unidirectional magnetic field.
10. What are the functions of (i) core (ii) split rings or commutator (iii) carbon brushes
in a DC motor?
Ans. (i) The core increases the magnetic field strength across the poles in the motor.
(ii) Split rings or commutator reverses the direction of current in the armature coil(s)
under the action of the magnetic field to maintain unidirectional rotation of the
armature.
(iii) Carbon brushes carry the current from the supply to the split rings.
11. What are the factors on which the speed of a DC motor depends?
Ans. The speed of the DC motor increases with increase in the number of turns of coil,
strength of magnetic field, current passing through the motor and area of the coil.
12. What is the material of the core used in a motor? Why is it preferred?
Ans. The core used in the motor is made of soft iron because it get magnetised and
demagnetised very fast.
13. What is the shape of the magnetic poles used in a motor? What kind of field do they
produce?
Ans. The magnetic poles are ‘concave’ shaped (curved inside). It produces radial magnetic
field in the air space between the poles.
14. State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
Ans. Faraday’s law states, “whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linking a coil,
an EMF is induced across the coil terminals”.
15. On what factors the induced EMF in a coil depends?
Ans. The induced EMF depends on the rate of change of magnetic flux surrounding it and
also on the number of turns of the coil.
16. State the rule that shows the direction of induced current in a conductor moving
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field.
Ans. “Hold the right hand stretched out with the forefinger, central finger and thumb
being mutually at right angles with respect to each other. If the forefinger points in
the direction of the field and the thumb points to the motion of the conductor, then
the central finger indicates the direction of the induced EMF”.
17. What is Lenz’s rule?
Ans. The direction of induced EMF in a coil or circuit is such as to oppose the rate of
change of flux which produces it.
18. Draw the labelled diagram and explain the principle of an AC generator (based on
Fleming’s right-hand rule).
Ans.
Working principle :
As the armature rotated by suitable means, its sides PQ and RS cut the magnetic
field due to the magnets. An EMF is induced in each coil side according to Fleming’s
right-hand rule, being of opposite sign since coil sides are oppositely placed with
respect to the uni-directional filed at a given instant.
The two EMFs add and the net voltage appears at the slip rings connected to the
armature sides, collected by the brushes and lead to a current flow in the load
(resistance).
19. What are the functions of (i) slip rings (ii) armature (iii) carbon brushes in a
generator?
Ans. (i) The slip rings carry the current produced in the coil to the load through the
carbon brushes.
(ii) The armature contains the coil in which is induced EMF as the coil conductors
cut the magnetic field of the magnets or field system.
(iii) The carbon brushes ‘pass’ on the induced EMF to the external circuit.
20. What are the factors on which the induced EMF produced in an AC generator
depends?
Ans. The induced EMF depends on the speed of rotation of the coil, magnetic field
strength, on the area of the coil and on the number of turns of the coil.
21. Compare the working of different parts of a DC motor and an AC generator.
Ans. (i) The slip rings in the generator carry the current from the coil to the brushes.
In the DC motor, split rings help carry current from the brushes to the coil.

(ii) The armature in the generator is rotated mechanically to convert mechanical
energy into electrical energy. In the DC motor, the current flowing through
the armature coils produces a torque by interaction with the magnetic field to
convert electrical energy into mechanical energy.
22. What is the function of a transformer and on what type of current does it work?
Ans. A transformer steps-up or steps-down (increases or decreases) the alternating
voltage.It works with alternating current.
23. Compare the primary and secondary coils in a (i) step-up transformer (ii) step-down
transformer.
Ans. In a step-up transformer, the secondary winding is wound with relatively thinner
wire, as it carries less current.
In a step-down transformer, the secondary winding is wound with relatively thicker
wire as it carries more current.
24. Explain the principle of working of a transformer.
Ans. The transformer works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
See the schematic of a transformer below. When an alternating voltage, V1, is
supplied to the primary coil, the current in the primary coil sets-up a time-varying
flux, f(t), in the core that is common to the secondary winding. This mutual (time-
varying) flux induces an EMF, E2, of the value that is a function of turns ratio,
N2/N1, of the two windings.
The secondary winding can be connected to a load to supply a current according to

the power rating of the transformer.
25. What are the possible losses of energy in a transformer and how can they be
minimised?
Ans. There are four types of energy loss in transformers :
(i) Heat loss : This mainly occurs in the windings due to current flow, expressed as
I2R loss where I is the current in the winding and R its resistance.
(ii) Magnetic flux loss: The entire magnetic flux set up by the primary current in
the transformer core may not link completely the secondary winding owing to
leakage of some flux resulting in ‘magnetic flux loss’.

(iii) Loss due to eddy currents : This occurs due to induction of eddy currents in
all metallic parts of the transformer resulting from time-varying magnetic field
variously. This is also a form of “I2R” loss causing heating and temperature rise
of metal parts.
(iv) Hysteresis loss : The core of a transformer experiences “hysteresis” during
magnetisation cycle, resulting from time-varying magnetic flux in the core. This
leads to hysteresis loss and temperature rise in the core.
26. What are the advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC)?
Ans. (i) The alternating current can be varied in magnitude using step-up or step-down
transformers.
(ii) The alternating current, or energy at a given voltage, can be transmitted and
distributed to consumers in more efficient and cost-effective manner.
(iii) The electric power can be supplied to consumers using AC and at different
suitable voltages.
(iv) AC motors and drives are now universally employed in industry for their better
control, protection and speed control for varied applications.
27. What are the factors on which the induced EMF in a coil in relative motion with a
bar magnet, lying along the same axis, depend?
Ans. (i) The induced EMF in a coil increases with increase in the relative speed of the
coil and the magnet.
(ii) The induced EMF increases with increase of number of turns of the coil.
28. Why soft iron core is preferred in a transformer? What is the use of laminating it?
Ans. Soft iron is preferred as the core in a transformer as its high permeability needs
small current to magnetise and reduction of energy loss.
The core is constructed using silicon steel laminations. This leads to reduction of
eddy currents and loss due to same.
29. Differentiate between step-up and step-down transformers.
Ans. (i) In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the secondary coil (Ns) are
greater than that of the primary coil (Np). Or Ns > Np.
The induced EMF induced in the secondary coil (Es) will be greater than the
supplied EMF to the primary coil (Ep). Or Es > Ep .
The (load) current from the secondary coil will be correspondingly less.
(ii) In a step-down transformer, the trend is reversed, the number of turns in the
secondary winding are less than that of the primary; the induced EMF is less;
the load current is correspondingly high.
30. Give two uses of a step-up and a step-down transformer.
Ans. (i) A step-up transformer is used near the generation stations to increase the
alternating voltage before transmission.
Small step-up transformers are used in televisions; in X-ray machines to increase
the voltage to the desired value.
(ii) A step-down transformer near a residential locality is used to bring down the
voltage supply for working of appliances and illumination etc.
Small step-down transformers are used in electronic circuits for rectifiers to
supply DC power as required.
UNIT-5 : HEAT
Chapter-1 : Calorimetry
Exercise Questions
1. Differentiate between heat and temperature.
Ans. (i) Heat is a form of energy being the total internal energy of the molecules of a
substance whilst temperature is interpreted as the degree of hotness or coldness
of a body.
(ii) Heat depends on the mass, material and temperature of the substance whereas
temperature depends on the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the body.
(iii) Heat is measured by using the principle of calorimetry; temperature is invariably
measured using a thermometer.
(iv) The SI unit of heat is joule, that of temperature is kelvin.
2. One joule = ______calories.
Ans. One joule = 0.24 calories.
3. Define one calorie.
Ans. One calorie is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of
water by 1°C (from 14.5°C to 15.5°C) at NTP.
4. Define heat capacity and write its SI units.
Ans. Heat capacity of a body is defined as the heat required to raise the temperature of the
body by 1°C. Its SI unit is JK–1.
5. Two vessels A and B are made of the same material. Vessel A is lighter than vessel B.
Which one will have more heat capacity? Why?
Ans. The vessel B has more heat capacity. As its mass is more its heat retaining capacity
is more.
6. Write two factors on which the heat capacity of a body depends.
Ans. Heat capacity of a body depends on its mass and the nature of material of which the
body is made.
7. Define specific heat and write its SI units.
Ans. The specific heat capacity of a material is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of unit mass of the substance by 1°C. Its SI unit is J kg–1K–1.

8. The specific heat of a substance is 0.4 Jkg–1K–1. What do you understand by it?
Ans. An amount of 0.4 J of heat energy is required to raise temperature of one kg of the
substance by one kelvin temperature.
9. Explain why water is preferred
(i) as coolant in car radiators.
(ii) in hot packs for fomentation.
(iii) to quench thirst.
Ans. (i) Since water has high specific heat it absorbs heat (when it is at room temperature)
from the engine of the car without much rise in temperature. Hence, it is preferred
as coolant in car radiators.
(ii) Water has high specific heat so that it can retain heat for long (when heated to
high temperature) without much loss in temperature. Hence, it is preferred in
hot packs for fomentation.
(iii) Water can absorb the heat of the body without much rise in temperature. Hence,
thirst can be quenched by drinking water.
10. Compare heat capacity and specific heat capacity.
Ans. (i) Heat capacity is the heat required to raise the temperature of the given body by
1°C whilst its specific heat capacity is the heat required to raise the temperature
of unit mass of the body by 1°C.
(ii) Heat capacity of a body depends on its mass and material whereas specific heat
capacity depends on its material.
(iii) The SI unit of heat capacity is JK–1; that of specific heat capacity is Jkg–1K–1.
11. Draw a labelled diagram of a calorimeter and give one use of it.
Ans.
A calorimeter is used to measure the specific heat capacity of a substance.

12. Why is the vessel of calorimeter made of a material of low specific heat?
Ans. The vessel of calorimeter is made of low specific heat so that it absorbs or emits
very less heat from the liquid poured in it. Hence, the heat absorbed or emitted by
the liquid in it can be measured accurately.
13. Mention two advantages of high specific heat of water.
Ans. (i) Since water has high specific heat, it absorbs heat (when it is at room temperature)
from the engine of the car, without much rise in temperature. Hence, it is
preferred as coolant in car radiators.
(ii) Since water has high specific heat, it can retain heat for long when heated to
high temperature, without much loss in temperature. Hence, it is preferred in hot
packs for fomentation.
14. Give reason why
(i) in winter season the farmers water their fields to protect the crop?
(ii) water is poured on instant burns to protect the skin?
(iii) the base of cooking pan is made thick?
(iv) the base of electric press is made heavy?
Ans. (i) Since water has high specific heat it can retain heat even in the cold surroundings
and can prevent the water in the capillaries of the plant from freezing. Hence,
the farmers water their fields to protect the crop.
(ii) Water has high specific heat and can absorbs heat without much rise in
temperature. Hence, water is poured on instant burns to protect the skin.
(iii) As the heat capacity of a body increases with increase in its mass, heat can be
retained for long by making base of the cooking pan thicker.
(iv) The heat capacity of a body depends on its mass. Hence, the base of an electric
press is made heavy to retain heat for long.
15. Write the mathematical expression relating heat absorbed and specific heat capacity.
Ans. Q = mc∆θ, where Q is the heat absorbed by the substance, m is its mass, c is the
specific heat capacity and ∆θ is the rise in temperature.
16. Does a good conductor have high or low specific heat capacity?
Ans. A good conductor has low specific heat capacity as the variation in temperature is
more with small amount of exchange of heat.
Numerical Problems
1. A hot solid of mass of 60 g at 100°C is placed in 150 g of water at 20°C. The final
steady temperature recorded is 25°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the
solid. [Specific heat capacity of water = 4,200 Jkg–1°C–1].
Ans. Heat lost by the solid = mscs[θh – θf] = 60 × cs × [100 – 25]
Heat gained by water = mwcw[θf – θc] = 150 × 4.2 × [25 – 20]
Using the principle of calorimetry,
heat lost by the solid = heat gained by the water
or specific heat of solid = cs = 150 × 4.2 × 5/60 × 75 = 0.7 Jg–1K–1
2. 200 g of hot water at 80°C is added to 300 g of cold water at 10°C. Calculate the
final temperature of the mixture of water. Consider the heat taken by the container
to be negligible. [specific heat capacity of water is 4,200 Jkg–1°C–1].
Ans. Heat lost by the hot water = mw cw[θh – θf] = 200 × 4.2 × [80 – θf ]
Heat gained by the cold water = mw cw [θf – θc] = 300 × 4.2 × [θf –10]
Heat lost by the hot water = Heat gained by the cold water
840 × [80 – θf ] = 300 × 4.2 × [θf –10]
or θf = 38°C.
3. 40 g of water at 60°C is poured into a vessel containing 50 g of water at 20°C. The
final temperature recorded is 30°C. Calculate the thermal capacity of the vessel.
(Take specific heat capacity of water as 4.2 Jg–1°C–1).
Ans. Heat lost by water = mw cw[θh – θf] = 40 × 4.2 × [60 – 30] = 5,040 J
Heat gained by cold water = mw cw [θf – θc] = 50 × 4.2 × [30 – 20] = 2,100 J
Heat gained by the vessel = mv cv [θf – θc] = H × [30 – 20] = 10 H
where H is the heat capacity of the vessel.
Heat lost by the hot water = Heat gained by the cold water + Heat gained by the
vessel
or 5,040 = 2,100 + 10H
H = 294 JK–1
4. Some hot water was added to three times its mass of cold water at 10°C and the
resulting temperature was found to be 20°C. What was the temperature of the hot
water?
Ans. Heat lost by the water = mw cw[θh – θf] = m × 4.2 × [θh – 20 ]
Heat gained by the cold water = mw cw [θf – θc] = 3m × 4.2 × [20 – 10]
Heat lost by the hot water = Heat gained by the cold water
or m × 4.2 × [80 – θf ] = 3m × 4.2 × 10
whence θh = 50°C.
5. A solid of mass 60 g at 100°C is placed in 100 g of water at 18°C. The final temperature
reached is 20°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. Specific heat of
water is 4,200 Jkg–1°C–1.
Ans. Heat lost by the hot solid = ms cs [θh – θf] = 60 × cs × [100 – 20]
Heat gained by the water = mw cw [θf – θc] = 100 × 4.2 × [20 –18]
Heat lost by the hot solid = Heat gained by the water
or specific heat of solid = cs = 840/4,800 = 0.175 Jg–1K–1

6. Water falls from a height of 50 m. Calculate the rise in temperature of water when it
strikes the bottom. Specific heat capacity of water = 4,200 Jkg–1°C–1; g = 10 ms–2.
Ans. Assuming entire potential energy lost by water converts into heat energy,
m g h = m c ∆θ
or ∆θ = g h/c = [10 × 50]/4200 = 0.119°C
Chapter-2 : Latent Heat

Exercise Questions
1. Define the term specific latent heat. Write its SI unit.
Ans. The specific latent heat of a substance is the amount of heat required or emitted
to change the state of unit mass of the substance from one state to other, without
change in temperature.
Its SI unit is Jkg–1.
2. Is there any change in temperature during change of phase of a substance?
Ans. No, there is no change in temperature during the phase change of a substance.
3. The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 336 Jg–1. What do you understand by the
statement?
Ans. The amount of heat required to change one gram of ice to water, without change in
temperature, is 336 J.
4. Draw the temperature-time graph of ice at –10°C heated to steam at 100°C. Label
the phase changes.
Ans.
5. What is the phase change (i) from liquid to vapour (ii) from solid to vapour called?
Ans. (i) Vaporization (ii) Sublimation.
6. Is there any change in the average kinetic energy of molecules during a phase
change?
Ans. Since there is no change in temperature, there is no change in the average kinetic
energy of molecules during a phase change.
7. Why does the temperature remain the same (i) during melting (ii) during freezing?
Ans. (i) As the heat absorbed during melting is utilized in increasing the intermolecular
distance, there is no change in temperature.
(ii) As the heat emitted during freezing causes decrease in the intermolecular
distance, there is no change in temperature.
8. Why cool drinks are kept in ice boxes during summer?
Ans. As the ice absorbs latent heat from the drinks to change into water without rise in its
temperature, the drinks remain cool for longer time.
9. Which one is colder: ice at 0°C or water at 0°C?
Ans. Ice at 0°C is colder as it can absorb more latent heat without rise in temperature.
10. Why does the weather become warm during a hailstorm?
Ans. During the hailstorm water droplets in the atmosphere give away the heat and convert
into ice pieces. So, the surroundings become warm.
11. Why does the surface of a lake freeze slowly in winter and not at once in cold
countries?
Ans. As the latent heat of ice is quite large, the water on the surface has to lose a lot of
heat to the surroundings in order to convert into ice. The ice which has formed keeps
floating in water being a poor conductor of heat, it decreases the rate of loss of heat
to the surroundings. Hence, it takes longer duration of time for the lake to freeze.
12. Define specific latent heat of vaporization.
Ans. The specific latent heat of a vaporization of a substance is the amount of heat
required to change the state of unit mass of a liquid to vapour, without change in
temperature.
Numerical Problems
1. Calculate the amount of heat released when 5 g of water at 20°C is changed into
ice at 0°C. Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg–1; specific heat capacity of
water = 4.2 Jg–1°C–1.
Ans. Heat released (or emitted or given out) by the water, Q = heat released to reduce its
temperature to 0°C + heat released to convert into ice at 0°C.
or mwcw ∆θ + mw L = [5 × 4.2 × (20 – 0) + (5 × 336)]
= 2,100 J
2. 40 g of ice at 0°C is used to bring down the temperature of a certain mass of water
at 60°C to 10°C. Find the mass of water used.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4,200 Jkg–1°C–1]
[Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 × 103 Jkg–1]
Ans. Using the principle of calorimetry,
heat gained by ice to convert into water and then reach the final temperature 10°C
= heat lost by water to lower its temperature from 60°C to 10°C
= mi L + mi cw (10 – 0) = mwcw (60 –10)
or (40 × 336) + (40 × 4.2 × 10) = mw × 4.2 × 50
whence mw = 72 g
3. 50 g of ice at 0°C is added to 300 g of a liquid at 30°C. What will be the final
temperature of the mixture when all the ice has melted ? The specific heat capacity
of the liquid is 2.65 Jg–1°C–1 while that of water is 4.2 Jg–1°C–1. Specific latent heat
of fusion of ice = 336 Jg–1.
Ans. Using the principle of calorimetry, heat gained by the ice to melt and then reach the
final temperature = Heat lost by the liquid or mi L + mi cw [θf – 0] = mL cL θf
(50 × 336) + (50 × 4.2 × θf) = 300 × 2.65 × (30 – θf)
whence θf = 7°C
4. A vessel of mass 80 g (specific heat capacity = 0.8 Jg–1°C–1) contains 250 g of water
at 35°C. Calculate the amount of ice at 0°C that must be added to it so that the final
temperature of the mixture would be 5°C. Assume specific latent heat of fusion of
ice to be 340 Jg–1.
Ans. Using the principle of calorimetry, heat lost by the vessel + heat lost by the water in
it = heat gained by the ice to melt and then reach the final temperature
or mv cv (35 – 5) + mw cw (35 – 5) = mi L + mi cw (5 – 0)
(80 × 0.8 × 30) + (250 × 4.2 × 30) = mi [340 + (4.2 × 5)]
whence mi = 92.57 g
UNIT-6 : MODERN PHYSICS

Chapter-1 : Radioactivity
Exercise Questions
1. What does the mass number of an element represent ?
Ans. The mass number of an element represents the sum of the number of protons and
neutrons in the nucleus of its atom.
2. What does the difference between mass number and atomic number indicate?
Ans. The difference between mass number and atomic number indicates the number of
neutrons.
3. The atomic number of an element represents the number of ____ in its nucleus.
Ans. The atomic number of an element represents the number of protons in its nucleus.
4. What are isotopes and isobars? Give an example of each.
Ans. Isotopes of an element are its variants having same number of protons but different
number of neutrons. Hence, they have same atomic number but different mass
number. For example, isotopes of Hydrogen are – Protium 1H1, Deuterium 1H2 and
Tritium 1H3.
Isobars are different elements having different number of protons and neutrons, but
the sum of the protons and neutrons the same. Hence, they have same mass number
but different atomic number. For example, 26Fe58 and 28Ni58.

5. Define radioactivity. Mention two elements which are radioactive.
Ans. Radioactivity is the phenomenon in which spontaneous emission of radiations occur
from the unstable atom of an element, which causes disintegration of the substance.
For example, Uranium–235 and Carbon–14.
6. Mention the radiations emitted by a radioactive substance which have
(i) least penetrating power (ii) least ionising power (iii) no charge.
Ans. (i) α-particles have least penetrating power.
(ii) γ-rays have least ionising power.
(iii) γ-rays have no charge.
7. Why do beta particles deflect more in an electric field than alpha particles?
Ans. Since the mass of the β-particle (electron) is less than the α-particle (He nucleus),
the momentum of β-particle is less. Hence, they deflect more than α-particle.
8. How does the composition of an element of radioactive substance change when
(i) an alpha particle is emitted from it
(ii) a beta particle is emitted
(iii) gamma rays are emitted from it ?
Ans. (i) When an alpha particle is emitted from a radioactive substance, it gives rise to
an element having its mass number (A) decreased by 4 and atomic number (Z)
decreased by 2.
(ii) When a beta particle is emitted from it, it gives rise to an element having its mass
number the same as the original element and atomic number increased by 1.
(iii) When gamma rays are emitted from an element, its mass number and atomic
number remain the same, but its nucleus will be in excited state.
9. How do gamma radiations differ from alpha and beta particles?
Ans. γ- rays are electromagnetic waves which have no rest mass. They are not particles.
10. A nucleus ZXA emits 2α particles, one β particle to form 85Y222. Find the atomic
number and mass number of X.
Ans. 85Y222 + –1β0 ® 84Y¢222
Y¢222 + 2 [2He4] ® 88X230
84
11. If a nucleus 85X214 converts into 82Y206, find the number of α and β particles emitted
from it.
Ans. To find the number of alpha particles, take the difference in the mass numbers of
both elements, 214 – 206 = 8.
As each particle reduces the mass number by 4, the total alpha particles emitted
are 2.
\ 85X214 ® 2 [2He4] + 81Y¢206
followed by 81Y¢206 ® 82Y206 + 1β0
Hence, 2α and 1β particles are emitted.
12. Compare α, β and γ radiations. Why γ radiations are not called particles?
Ans. Characteristic properties of the three radiations :
S. No. Alpha particle Beta particle Gamma rays

1. They are positively They are negatively They have no charge
charged charged
2. They possess charge of They possess charge They are neutral
+ 2e of –e
3. Mass of each particle is Mass of each particle is They have no mass
6.65 × 10–27 kg 9.1 × 10–31 kg
4. They can be stopped by They can be stopped They can be stopped
1 mm of aluminium by 1 cm of aluminium by 1 cm of lead
5. Their ionising power is Their ionising power is Their ionising power
maximum less than that of alpha is least
particles
6. Their penetrating power Their penetrating Their penetrating
is least power is more than that power is maximum
of alpha particles
13. Give two uses of each of α, β and γ radiations.

Ans. (i) Alpha particles : Used to study the atomic structure based on their high energy
to scatter and in alpha particle scattering experiments.
(ii) Beta particles : Used in to select the thickness of paper due to its high penetrating
power and in carbon dating.
(iii) Gamma radiation or rays : Used in producing better hybrid seeds and in
treating cancer by killing cancer cells.
14. Arrange α, β and γ radiations in the order of the increasing biological effect.
Ans. α-particle, β-particle, γ-rays
15. Which radiations are used
(i) to kill cancer cells
(ii) in metallic detectors
(iii) to find the width of a sheet of paper
(iv) in smoke detectors
(v) to check proper welding.
Ans. (i) γ- rays (ii) X-rays
(iii) β-particles (iv) α-particles
(v) γ- rays
16. Give two uses of X-rays and the corresponding property of the rays.
Ans. (i) X-rays are used to detect fracture of bones or presence of a bullet etc. in human
body as they can pass through the bones or a bullet.
(ii) These are used in industry for detecting faults, cracks and flaws in metal casting
as the rays cannot pass through metals.
17. Define background radiations. Give two examples each of natural and artificial
background radiations.
Ans. The radiations to which we are exposed without any radioactive source in the vicinity
are called background radiations.
Examples : cosmic rays, solar radiations.
Radiations due to the presence of C-14 and K-40 with in our body are the internal
background radiations.
Radiations emitted due to discharge of nuclear missiles and nuclear bombs, spread a
few kilometres of radius, are examples of artificial radiations.
18. Mention two radioactive isotopes and their applications.
Ans. Gamma rays emitted from Co-60 isotope used for killing cancer cells.
Beta emissions from C-14 isotope in dead plants used in carbon dating to know the
age of the plants.
19. Give two sources of X-rays.
Ans. (i) The sun is a natural source of X-rays.
(ii) X-rays can be produced artificially in coolidge tube when cathode rays hit a plate
made of a heavy metal like tungsten.
20. State three types of harmful effects of radiations emitting from a radioactive material.
Ans. (i) Short-term recoverable effects; for example, loss of hair, nausea.
(ii) Long-term irrecoverable effects; for example, cancer, leukaemia.
(iii) Genetic effects; the genes in the living cells get mutated.
21. Write two ways of safe disposal of radioactive waste.
Ans. (i) Deep burial : The waste is placed in lead boxes or casks and buried deep in
‘unused’ mines or in the pits dug deep in the soil.
(ii) Incineration: The radioactive waste is burned or incinerated using commercially-
operated incinerators developed for the purpose.
22. Mention two ways of handling the radioactive fuel.
Ans. (i) When handling radioactive fuel or material, always wear proper protective
clothing such as a coat or apron and gloves made of lead.
(ii) Use specially designed tongs when moving radioactive material around.
23. What are the safety measures to be taken to store the radioactive fuel?
Ans. Radioactive fuel must be stored in thick lead containers and placed in double walled
strong rooms.
24. Give two similarities and two differences between X-rays and γ rays.
Ans. Similarities:
(i) Both are electromagnetic waves.
(ii) Both do not possess any charge.
Differences:
(i) X-rays possess lesser energy than gamma rays.
(ii) Gamma rays take part in nuclear reactions; X-rays do not take part in nuclear
reactions.
25. Give two uses of β rays in medical field.
Ans. (i) β particle emission from strontium-90 or strontium-89 are commonly used in
treatment of eye and bone cancers.
(ii) β+ particle (positron) emission from Fluorine-18 is commonly used as a tracer for
positron emission tomography (PET) to study the path way of compounds in the
human body.
Chapter-2 : Nuclear Fission and Fusion
Exercise Questions
1. Define nuclear energy.
Ans. Nuclear energy is the energy released from the nucleus of the atoms of a radioactive
element.
2. Write three characteristics of nuclear energy.
Ans. (i) The nuclear energy is independent of charge of the nucleons.
(ii) It is stronger than electrostatic energy.
(iii) It depends on the kind of spinning (clockwise or anti-clockwise) of nucleons.
3. Write the equation that estimates nuclear energy released in a nuclear reaction.
Ans. The equation is E = mc2, where E is the energy released, m is the mass defect and c
is the speed of light.
4. What is mass defect ?
Ans. Mass defect is the difference in the mass of the nucleus and the sum of the individual
masses of its nucleons.
5. Define nuclear fission. Write the equation of it.
Ans. Nuclear fission is defined as the process in which a large amount of energy is
released, when an unstable heavy nucleus is bombarded by a fast-moving neutron
and splits into two relatively lighter nuclei.
235 1 144
92
U + 0
n → Ba + 36
Kr + 3 01 n + energy
6. Distinguish between controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Ans. (i) In a controlled chain reaction the rate of reaction can be controlled using
moderators and control rods whilst in uncontrolled chain reaction there is no
control on rate of reaction.
(ii) The energy released in controlled chain reaction can be pot to use such as
generation of electricity whereas in uncontrolled chain reaction the tremendous
energy that is released is used for destructive purpose such as in an atomic
bomb.
7. Give two ways of controlling the chain reaction in a nuclear reactor.
Ans. The two ways of controlling the chain reaction in a nuclear reactor are :
(i) by lowering the speed of neutrons.
(ii) by reducing the number of neutrons that take part in the fission.
8. What are the functions of (i) moderator (ii) control rods used in a reactor?
Ans. (i) The moderator reduces the rate of the nuclear fission by lowering the speed of
neutrons.
(ii) The controlled rods control the rate of nuclear fission by absorbing some of the
neutrons.
9. Mention the substance used as moderator in a nuclear reactor.
Ans. Heavy water is used as moderator in a nuclear reactor.
10. Which material is used for control rods in a nuclear reactor?
Ans. Cadmium or graphite rods are used for control rods in a nuclear reactor.
11. Mention in few steps how energy is released in a nuclear reactor?
Ans. In a nuclear power reactor controlled fission chain reaction is processed by using the
moderators and control rods to produce controlled amount of heat. This heat is used
to produce steam, which is used to drive steam turbines, as in a thermal power plant.
The turbines are coupled to generators producing electricity. .
12. What is the material used as fuel in a nuclear reactor?
Ans. Uranium-235 is used as fuel in a nuclear reactor.
13. What do you understand by nuclear enrichment?
Ans. Nuclear enrichment is the process of increasing the amount of U-235, in the uranium
fuel, which is fissionable.
14. Give two harmful effects of nuclear reactors.
Ans. (i) Nuclear reactors produce highly radioactive waste that if not disposed of
carefully can cause serious health hazards.
(ii) In case of an accident taking place involving the reactor, the radioactive fallout
can lead to serious environmental pollution and danger to people living around
even at a great distance.
15. Mention two advantages of a nuclear reactor.
Ans. (i) A nuclear reactor can be constructed at a convenient location close to the ‘load
centre’ unlike a hydro power sectors which are essentially located far away near
a dam requiring large reservoir of water.
(ii) The amount of fuel required is very less to produce large electrical energy.
16. Define nuclear fusion. Write the equation governing it.
Ans. Nuclear fusion is the process in which huge energy is released when two lighter
nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus.
3 2 4
2
He + 1
H → 2
He + 11 H + energy
17. What is the source of solar energy?
Ans. The Hydrogen and Helium gases present in the Sun undergo continuous nuclear
fusion which releases tremendous heat, light and electromagnetic energy.
18. Mention the fuel for nuclear fusion.
Ans. Hydrogen and Helium.
19. Compare nuclear fission and fusion.
Ans. (i) In nuclear fission a ‘large’ atom is split into ‘smaller’ elements whilst nuclear is
the process of fusing of two or more lighter elements into a large atom.
(ii) Nuclear fission involves use of a critical mass and high-speed neutrons whereas
nuclear fusion needs high density, high temperature environment.
(iii) Uncontrolled nuclear fission has been used to produce atomic bomb with
tremendous loss of lives; fusion reaction can lead to much higher destruction in
the form of hydrogen bomb.
(iv) The ‘fuel’ commonly used in nuclear fission is uranium-235; nuclear fusion
depends on the use of hydrogen isotopes, Deuterium and Tritium.
20. Which material is more fissionable U-235 or U-238? Give reason.
Ans. U- 235 is more fissionable because its nucleus is more unstable due to large value of
the ratio of number of protons and number of neutrons.
21. What is the unit used to measure nuclear energy?
Ans. The unit used to measure nuclear energy is MeV (million electron volt).
22. One amu = ............. MeV.
Ans. One amu = 931 MeV.
23. One eV = ............. J.
Ans. One eV= 1.6 × 10–19 J.
24. How much energy is released in a single fission reaction?
Ans. The energy released in a single fission reaction is 186.2 MeV or 298 × 10–13J.
25. What is the temperature required for nuclear fusion to take place?
Ans. The temperature required for nuclear fusion to take place is 106 °C.
26. What are the harmful effects of uncontrolled fission and fusion reactions?
Ans. The uncontrolled fision and fusion reactions lead to explosion of huge energy in the
form of fire and also leakage of radiations which causes many forms of destruction
all around.
Numerical Problems
1. Represent the change in the nucleus of a radioactive element when a β particle is
emitted.
Ans. A P → A D + 0 e
Z Z +1 −1
P ® parent nucleus
D ® daughter nucleus
2. A certain nucleus X has a mass number 14 and atomic number 6. The nucleus
14
X changes to 7
Y after the loss of a particle. Represent this change in the form of
an equation.
14 14 0
Ans. 6
X → 7
Y + −1
e
202
3. The nucleus 84
X emits an alpha particle and forms the nucleus Y. Represent this
change in the form of an equation.
202 198
Ans. 84
X → 82
Y + 42 He
4. Complete the following nuclear changes.
24 ....
(i) 11
Na → ....
Mg + −01e
238 234
(ii) 92
U → 90
Th + ....... + energy
24 24
Ans. (i) 11
Na → 12
Mg + −01e
238 234
(ii) 92
U → 90
Th + 42 He + energy
232
5. A thorium isotope 90
Th undergoes an α decay and changes to radium. What is the
atomic number and mass number of radium?
232 228
Ans. 90
Th → 88
Ra + 42 He
\ Radium has its atomic number: 88; mass number : 228.
6. If the radium as above undergoes further disintegration and emits two β particles,
represent the reaction in the form of an equation.
228 228
Ans. 88
Ra → 90
Th + 2  −01e 
 
27 0
7. In the nuclear reaction 12
Mg → Al + −1
e
(i) Mg emits a β particle and is transformed to aluminium. What is the atomic
number and mass number of aluminium?
(ii) If Al emits a γ ray, what is the resulting nucleus?
27 27
Ans. (i) 12
Mg → 13
Al + −01e

\ Aluminium has its atomic number : 13, mass number : 27.
27 27
(ii) 13
Al → 13
Al *
As the emission of γ ray simply leaves the nucleus of the aluminium in excited state,
there is no change in its mass number and atomic number.
8. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays according to the reaction sequence
β α α
X 
→ X1 
→ X 2 
→ X3
If the mass number and atomic number of X3 are 172 and 69, respectively, what is
the atomic number and mass number of X ?
Ans. Let X3 be named as P, X2 be named as Q and X1 be named as R. Then
172
P + 42 He → 176 176 4 180
69 71
Q ; 71
Q + 2
He → 73
R;
180 0 180
73
R + −1
e → 72
X
Hence, X has its mass number : 180, atomic number : 72
238
9. The isotope of uranium 92
U decays by alpha emission to an isotope of thorium.
The thorium decays by a beta emission to protactinium. Write down the equation to
represent these two nuclear changes.
238 234 4 234 0
Ans. 92
U → 90
Th + 2
He → 91
Pa + −1
e

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TEACHER’S RESOURCE BOOK

Dr. S.C. Bhargava

© The authors, 2023

As the consequence of the couple, a body can be set into rotation,

Ans. Anti-clockwise moment = 100 × 20 = 2,000 gf. cm

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 7

Ans. Clockwise moment = 50 × [50 – 40] = 500 gf. cm

Ans. Clockwise moment = 20 × [100 – 58] = 840 gf. cm

Ans. The weight of the boy = 20 kgf. = 200 N, assuming g = 10 m–2

Ans. Anti-clockwise moment = 750 × [40 –10] = 22,500 gf. cm

Chapter-2 : Unifom Circular Motion

12 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Chapter-3 : Work, Energy and Power

14 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Chapter-4 : Types of Energy

22 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Chapter-5 : Machines as Force Multipliers

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 23

13. Draw the diagram of a single fixed pulley.

(i) a block and tackle system of pulleys with VR = 3,

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 25

Mechanical advantage of such system = 2n (where n is the no. of movable pulleys).

Ans. (i) Using the principle of levers,

(ii) Using the principle of levers,

The diagram of the block and tackle system of VR = 3.

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 29

30 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 31

Chapter-2 : Total Internal Reflection

34 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

11. Define the power of a lens. In what unit is it expressed?

40 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

44 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 45

(a) damped vibrations

(b) undamped vibrations

Chapter-3 : Loudness, Pitch and Quality of Sound

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 47

(i) waves of same amplitude (ii) waves of same pitch and

UNIT-4 : ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

The slope, ∆V/∆I, represents the resistance of the conductor.

(negligible internal resistance)

(negligible internal resistance)

54 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Ans (i) Total resistance, R, of the circuit

56 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Ans. (i) In the circuit 12 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel and the

Ans. To the right, 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 5 Ω are in series

(i) the effective resistance of the circuit

58 Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 59

Chapter-3 : Household Circuits

Note : Both I and II

Chapter-4 : Magnetic Effects of Current

Teacher’s Resource Book for ICSE Physics - 10 65

7. What is an electromagnet? Give four uses of it.