®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Structure of Atom
1 Which is not a subatomic particle.
(a) Electron (b) Proton
(c) Neutron (d) Neutrino
2. Who discovered Nucleus of atom.
(a) Ruther ford (b) Chadwick
(c) W. crooks (d) Hidek Yukawa
3. Canal rays was discovered by
(a) Goldstein (b) Faraday
(c) Moseley (d) None of these
4. The elements which electronic configuration is based upon hund’s
rule.
(a) M0 & Ag (b) Cu & Zn
(c) Hg & Au (d) Cr & Mn
5. The correct – electronic configuration of Cr is
(a) [Ar] 4s2, 3d4 (b) [Ar] 4s1, 3d5
(c) [Ar] 4s2, 3d3 (d) [Ar] 4s1, 3d10
6. The Dual nature of e was given by
(a) de - porogli (b) Bohr
(c) Moseley (d) Heisenberg
7. Any two e can not have all the quantum numbers identical this
statement was given by -
(a) Hund (b) Pauli
(c) Bohr – Burry (d) Wrang and Werner
8. According to (n + l) Rule. The sub-shell which has maximum
energy
(a) 4S (b) 3P
(c) 3Cl (d) 4P
9. The quantum number which determine size of orbital –
(a) n (b) l
(c) m (d) s

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Chemistry

10. The set of quantum numbers correctly matched.

(a) n = 4 l = 4 m = -3 s = +1/2
(b) n = 3 l = 2 m = +2 s = -1/2
(c) n = 3 l = 3 m = +1 s = +1/2
(d) n = 4 l = 3 m = +4 s = -1/2
11. The quantum number which is used to determine orientation and
shape of orbital
(a) Magnetic Q. No (b) Spin Q. No
(c) Secondary Q. No (d) Principle Q. No
12. The reaction which is correct for Bohr’s radii of nth orbit –
a0 Z 2 a0 Z
(a) r nth = (b) r nth
n2 n2
a n2
(c) r nth 0 (d) None of these
z
13. The reaction which represents energy of an e moving in Bohr’s
orbit is
 13.6 n 2  13.6 z 2
(a) (b)
z n2
 13.6 z
(c) (d) None of these
n2
14. The angular momentum of an electron can be given by.
nh h
(a) (b) l (l  1)
2 2
n 2h 2
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
2
15. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that-
  h  
h
(a) x. p   (b) x. p  
4n 4n
  h   h
(c) x. p   (d) x. p  
4n n

16. Ritz. Equations is

1 1 1  1 1
(a)   Rz 2   2 (b)  Rz 2  2  2 
2
 n1 n2    n1 n2 
1  1 1 1 1 1 
(c)  Rz  2  2  (d)  Rz 2   
  n1 n2    n1 n2 

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Chemistry

17. In hydrogen spectrum the visible region lies in between.

(a)   400  720 nm. (b)   200  400 nm.
(c)   400  1000 nm. (d)   100  200 nm.
18. The shortest wavelength in balmer series is.
(a) 400 nm. (b) 500 nm.
(c) 600 nm. (d) 450 nm.
19. Azimuthally quantum number for 3d8 & Magnetic Q.No. are
(a) l = 2 m = 2 (b) l = 2 m = -2
(c) l = 2 m = 0 (d) l = 2 m = 1
20. If n = 4 then total number of orbital’s are
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 32
21. The statement which is correct-
(a) Discovery of Nucleus is based upon  - scattering principle
(b) The orbit which has as angular moment – nh / 2 are stationary.
(c) Spin quantum number determines spin motion of electron
(d) All of these
22. The value of magnetic quantum number for highest energy
electron of chlorine is
(a) +1 (b) - 1
(c) ±1 (d) Zero
23. Oil drop experiment in determination of change over electron was
given by
(a) Mulliken (b) Milliken
(c) Mullar (d) Mond
24. The mass of proton is
(a) 1.67 × 10-31 lQ (b) 1.67 × 10lQ
27

(c) 1.67 × 10ke22 (d) None of these

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Chemistry

Answers
1 D 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 B
6 A 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 B
11 A 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B
16 B 17 A 18 A 19 C 20 C
21 D 22 C 23 B 24 A

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Chemistry
®

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Solutions
1 The concentration method which is best to express concentration
of solution.

(a) Molality (b) molarity

(c) Normality (d) formality

2. The mole fraction of ethylene glycol in a solution containing 20%

ethylene glycol. by mass

(a) 0.932 (b) 0.068

(c) .322 (d) 4.44

3. Molarity of solution containing 5gm of NaOH in 500ml of solution.

(a) 0.35 M (b) 0.25 M

(c) 0.45 M (d) 0.15M

4. Molality of 3.0gm of ethanoic acid in 75gm of benzene

(a) 0.033 (b) 0.066

(c) 0.022 (d) 0.015

5. The mass of urea required to make 2.5kg of 0.25 molal aquous

solution

(a) 37.5gm (b) 3.75gm

(c) 0.375 gm (d) 2.75gm

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Chemistry
6. The statement which is incorrect

(a) saturated solution has maximum solubility

(b) solubility of compound always increases by increasing

temperature

(c) the process of dissolution may exothermic or endothermic

(d) all

7. The statement which is correct about solubility of gas –

(a) solubility of gas  pressure of gas

(b) mole fraction of gas in solution  partial pressure

(c) the partial pressure of gas in vapour phase  mole fraction of

gas

(d) all are correct

8. How many milimoles of N2 may dissolve in 1 litre of H2O at 293 K if

partial pressure of N2 is 0.987 bar and KH = 76.48 k.bar

(a) 7.16 (b) 0.716

(c) 71.6 (d) 716

9. Anoxia is

(a) unable to think (b) unable to breathe

(c) unable to speak (d) unable to sleep

10. The relation which states Roult’s law

(a) pA = xA . P 0A (b) pB = xB.P 0B

(c) P total = xA P 0A +xB.P 0B (d) all

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Chemistry
11. Which is correct for an ideal solution

(a)   0 (b)   0

(c) T  0 (d) b & c both

12. The pair of solution which are ideal

(a) Benzene + CHCl3 (b) CH2Cl2 + CHCl3

(c) n – C6H14 + n – C7 H16 (d) none

13. The solution showing +ve deviation must follow

(a)   0 (b) V  0

(c) T  0 (d) a & c both

14. The pair of solution which undergo – ve deviation

(a) CHCl3 + acetone (b) CHCl3 + aniline

(c) H2SO4 + H2O (d) all

15. Among the following which is minimum boiling Azeotrop

(a) C2H5 – OH + CCl4 (b) HNO3 + H2O

(c) benzene + toluene (d) aniline + CHCl3

16. If V.P. of pure benzene is 0.85 bar. When a non- volatile solute of
mass 0.5gm added in 39gm of benzene then V.P. of solution is
found to be 0.845 bar. The molar mass of solute is

(a) 180 gm (b) 170 gm

(c) 190 gm (d) 199 gm

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Chemistry

17. Among the following which is not a colligative property

(a) Elevation in b.p. (b) Depression in F.p.

(c) Osmotic pressure (d) ionisation of solute

18. The freezing point of 0.1 molal aquous solution would be (kF = 1.86
kg K mol-1)

(a) 0.186 0C (b) – 0.186 0C

(c) – 1.86 0C (d) 0.0186 0C

19. The solution which has maximum boiling point

(a) 0.1 m urea (b) 0.1 m glucose

(c) 0.1 m sucrose (d) 0.1 m naphthalene

20. The F.p of solution which contains 45 gm of ethylene glycol in

600gm H2O is

(a) 2.2 0C (b) –2.2 0C

(c) –3.2 0C (d) –4.4 0C

21. Boiling point of H2O at 750 mm of Hg is 99.630C . How much

sucrose should be added in 500gm of water that it boils at 1000C

(a) 126 gm (b) 125 gm

(c) 122gm (d) 28 gm

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Chemistry
22. An unknown solute of mass 10gm dissolve in 180gm of H2O
showing R.L.V.P 0.005. The molar mass of solute is
(a) 200 (b) 199

(c) 299 (d) 150

23. A solution containing 10% glucose and 5% urea in 100 ml of

solution at 270C. The osmotic pressure of solution is

(a) 3.33 atm (b) 33.33 atm

(c) 6.66 atm (d) none

24. 2gm of C6H5 – COOH dissolve in 25gm of benzene shows a

depression in F.p by 1.62K (KF = 4.9) the percentage association of
C6H5 – COOH is (if it forms dimer in benzene)

(a) 99.2% (b) 9.92 %

(c) 90% (d)99.98%

25. Two elements of A & B form compound having formula AB2 and
AB4 when dissolve in 20gm of benzene, 1gm of AB2 lower the F.p
by 2.3K and 1gm of AB4 lowers by 1.3K (KF =5.1 K Kp mol-1) atomic
mass of A is

(a) 25.58 amu (b) 55.5 amu

(c) 35.55 amu (d) 20.58 amu

26. Calculate volume of 0.1 m HCl is required to react completely with

1gm mix. Of Na2CO3 & NaHCO3 containing equimolar amounts of
both

(a) 157.8 ml (b) 15.78 ml

(c) 1.578 ml (d) 150.78 m

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Chemistry
27. Which is are example of osmosis

(a) wilting of plants

(b) puffiness of tissue of animals

(c) water movement from soil into roots

(d) Preservation of meat by salting and adding sugars

28. The electrolyte which has more colligative properties

(a) CaCl2 (b) AlCl3

(c) Al2(SO4)3 (d) NaCl

29. Among the following which is more soluble in H2O

(a) phenol (b) glycol

(c) toluene (d) formic acid

30. A solution is obtained by mixing of 300gm 25% solution and

400gm 40% solution (w/w). The mass percentage of resulting
solution would be

(a) 68% & 32% (b) 32 % &68%

(c) 36% & 64% (d)64%&36%

31. A solution containing 30gm of non volatile solute in 90gm of H 2O

has a V.P 2.8 K further 18gm of H2O is added then new V.P.
because 2.9k Pa. at 298K. The molar mass of solute is

(a) 30gm (b) 34 gm

(c) 36gm (d) 38gm

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Chemistry
32. a 5% (w/w) of can sugar solution has F.p depression 271K.
Calculate F.p. of 5% glucose solution if F.p of H2O is 273.15K.

(a) 0.45 & 0.54 (b) 0.54 & 0.45

(c) 0.25 & 0.30 (d) 0.35 & 0.65

33. 3.42% sucrose solution to is isotonic with urea solution. The mass
of urea required is

(a) 6gm (b) 0.6 gm

(c) 0.3gm (d) none

34. The graph which is correct for CHCl3 & Acetone solution

35. The solution which has lowest F.p

(a) 0.1 molal glucose (b) 0.1 molal urea

(c) 0.1 molar glycol (d) all have same

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Chemistry
Answer Key

1 a 2 b 3 b 4 b 5 a

6 b 7 d 8 b 9 a 10 d

11 d 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 a

16 b 17 d 18 b 19 a 20 b

21 b 22 b 23 b 24 a 25 a

26 a 27 c 28 c 29 b 30 b

31 b 32 a 33 b 34 b 35 b

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Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Chemical Kinetics
1 Decomposition of NH3 on Pt surface is an example of

(a) zero order (b) 1st order

(c) 2nd order (d) none

2. Select incorrect statement

(a) Half life period of all reactions decreases with increase in

temperature

(b) Half life Pd of 1st order reaction is always constant

(c) Higher is rate constant, lesser will be energy of activation

(d) Rate of reaction whether exothermic or endothermic usually

increases with temperature

3. The rate constants of three reactions involving reactant A only

obeying I,II,III order respectively is same which of the following is
true

(a) r3 > r2 > r1 if [A] > 1 (b) r1 > r2 > r3 if [A] < 1

(c) r1 = r2 = r3 if [A] = 1 (d) all

4. Temperature coefficient of two reactions are 2 &3 which would be

correct for these reactions

(a) E a  Ea
1 2
(b) E a  Ea
1 2

(c) E a  Ea
1 2
(d) none

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Chemistry

5. if half life of a 1st order reaction is t/2 what is time period required
for completion upto 75% reaction

(a) t = 2 t/2 (b) t = 3 t/2

(c) t = 4 t/2 (d) t = 10 t/2

6. Which is an example of pseudounimolecular reaction

(a) Hydrolysis of an ester (b) inversion of cane sugar

(c) Soaponification of an ester (d) a & b both

7. The moderate reaction is

(a) Neutralisation of acid and base

(b) Precipitation of AgCl by action of AgNO3& NaCl

(c) Synthesis of HCl by action of H2& Cl2 in presence of sun light

(d) None

8. For the reaction

N2O4  2NO2 calculate rate of appearance of NO2 (in atm minute-1)

when initial pressure of N2O4 is reduced from 0.5 atm to 0.25 atm
in 5 minutes

(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2

(c) 0.25 (d) 0.3

9. If in a chemical reaction A + B + C  product when A is 1st order B

in IInd order and C in zero order if concern of each reactant is
doubled then rate of reaction becomes

(a) r2 = 4r1 (b) r2 = 8r1

(c) r2 = 16r1 (d) r2 = 2r1

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Chemistry

10. Molecularity of reaction is applicable for only

(a) elementary reactions (b) complex reaction

(c) Parallel reactions (d) Consecutive reaction

11. The reaction which an example of 2nd order

(a) 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2

(b) 2H2O2  2H2O + O2

(c) KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4  KCl +3 Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2O

(d) all

12. The reaction which is zero order

(a) H2+Cl2 

hv
2HCl (b) 2HI 
Au
H2+I2

(c) 2NH3 

Pt
N2+3H2 (d) All

13. For which part of completion of 1st of order of reaction is ten times
of half life Pd

(a) 90% (b) 99%

(c) 99.9% (d) 99.99%

14. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 103 sec-1 if 5gm of
reactant reduced to 3gm. The time period required is

(a) 250 sec (b) 300 sec

(c) 400sec (d) 275 sec

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Chemistry

15. In a reaction A + B  product

[A] [B] rate – (mol litre-1sec-1)

1. 0.20 0.30 5.07  10-5

2. 0.20 0.10 5.07  10-5

3. 0.40 0.05 1.43  10-3

On the basis of above data find order of reaction

(a) 3/2 (b) 2/3

(c) 5/2 (c) ½

16. The relation which is correct

t / 21   a1  t / 21   a2 
n1 n

(a)   (b)  
(t / 2)2  a2  (t / 2)2  a1 

t / 21   a2  t / 21   a1 
n1 n

(c)   (d)  
(t / 2)2  a1  (t / 2)2  a2 

17. For a reaction

A  product
S.No [A] t/2

1 5M 10 minutes

2 10M 5 minutes

The order of reaction is

(a) Zero (b) 2nd

(c) 1st (d) 3rd order

18. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate 10-3 sec-1. How
much time it will take for 10gm of reactant to reduce to 2.5gm

(a) 1.386  103 sec (b) 1.386  104sec

(c) 13.86  103 sec (d) none

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Chemistry

19. The half life Pd of a 1st order reaction is 60minutes the percentage
of reactant left after 240 minutes.

(a) 12.5% (b) 25%

(c) 6.25% (d) 3.75%

a
20. A  product. The ratio of was found 1/8 after 60 minutes. The
ax
rate of reaction will be if [A] = 0.1M

(a) 3.46  10-4 mol litre-1 min-1 (b) 3.46  10-3 mol litre-1 min-1

(c) 1.54  10-3 mol litre-1 min-1 (d) none

21. The rate of a reaction becomes half when volume of vessel is

doubled the order of rection is

(a) Zero (b) One

(c) Two (d) Three

22. A gaseous reaction

A2(g)  B(g) + ½ C(g) shows an increase in pressure from 100 mm to

120mm in 5mminutes. The rate of disappearance of A2 is

(a) 4 mm / min (b) 8 mm / min

(c) 16 mm / min (d) 2 mm / min

23. The graph which represents zero order

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Chemistry

24. The graph which express 1st order

25. A hydrogenation reaction is carried in presence of catalyst at the

same rate the temperature required is 400k, if catalyst lower the
activation barrier by 20 KJ/mole then activation energy of reaction
will be

(a) 50 KJ/mole (b) 100 KJ/mole

(c) 125 KJ/mole (d) 150 KJ/mole

26. Collision theory of reaction rate is mainly applicable for

(a) gaseous reactions only

(b) bimolecular reactions only

(c) for solutions in which reacting species are molecules

(d) all of the above

27. The rate of reaction can be increased by

(a) Increasing temperature (b) Decreasing surface area

(c) Increasing surface area (d) a & c both

28. For which order of reaction rate constant is independent of initial

concentration

(a) zero order (b) 1st order

(c) 2nd order (d) none

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Chemistry

29. The role of a catalyst in a reaction is

(a) To accelerate the rate of reaction

(b) To retard the rate of reaction

(c) To lower the activation energy

(d) None

30. The statement which is incorrect

(a) Threshold energy is sum of activation energy and potential

energy of reacting species

(b) The fraction of collisions can bring a chemical reaction

(c) The no. of collisions per sec per unit –volume is found to be
very low

(d) At the peak of energy barrier activated complex is formed

Answer Key

1 a 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 a

6 d 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 a

11 c 12 d 13 c 14 c 15 a

16 c 17 b 18 a 19 c 20 b

21 b 22 b 23 a 24 b 25 b

26 d 27 d 28 b 29 c 30 c

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Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Thermodynamics
1. Laws of Thermodynamics deals with energy changes

(a) microscopic system (b) macroscopic system

(c) micro and macroscopic (d) none of these

2. Isolated system is

(a) no heat and matter is transformed

(b) only heat is transformed

(c) only matter is transformed

(d) heat and matter both are transformed

3. Which is/are state variable

(a) Pressure (b) Temperature

(c) volume (d) all

4 Among the following which is/are adiabatic work

(a) H 2  H1  H (b) T2  T1  T

(c) U 2  U1  U (d) P2  P1  P

5 1ST law of thermodynamics based upon

(a) Principle of conservation of energy

(b) Principle of conservation mass

(c) Principle of conservation of energy and moles

(d) Principle of conservation of atoms

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Chemistry

6 The Relation which is correct:-

(a) ∆ U = Wad, wall is adiabatic

(b) ∆ U = - q., Thermally conducting walls
(c) ∆ U = q – w, close system
(d) All of these
7. The Process in which system and surrounding are found in
equilibrium
(a) Isothermal reversible (b) Adiabatic reversible
(c) Isobaric Process (d) Isochoric process
8. For isothermal reversible change the work done equal to.
Vi VF
(a) W = - 2.303 n RT. log (b) W = - 2.303 n RT
VF Vi

VF
(c) W = - 2.303 n RT. log (d) None of these
Vi

9. Two liters of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm. Expands

isothermally into a vaccum until its volume is 10 liters how much
work is done in this expansion
(a) Zero (b) - 80 J
(c) 80 J (d) none
10. The Relation which is correct –
(a) p ∆ V = ∆ ng RT (b) ∆ H = qp
(c) ∆ U = qv (d) All
11. If molar enthalpy change for vaporisations of one mole of H2O at 1
bar and at 1000C. is 41 kj mol-1. The change in internal energy is
when 1 mole of H2O converted into ice.
(a) 37.9 kJ mol-1 (b) 41.0 kJ mol-1

(c) Zero (d) 14.3 kJ mol-1

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Chemistry

12. Among the following which is an extensive property.

(a) Internal energy (b) Pressure

(c) Density (d) All

13. 1 gm of Graphite is burnt in bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen

at 250C and 1 atm pressure during the reaction temp rises from
250C to 260C if heat capacity of calorimeter is 20.7 kJ/K the
enthalpy change is

(a) - 1.24 × 102 kJ mol-1 (b) -2.48 × 102 kJ mol-1

(c) - 124 × 102 kJ mol-1 (d) - 248 × 102 kJ mol-1

14. The process show ∆ S = +ve

(a) a liquid crystalises into solid

(b) Temperature of crystalline solid increases from 115 to O,K

(c) 2NaHCO3(s)  Na2CO3(s) + CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)

(d) 2 H(g)  H2

15. For oxidation of iron.

4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)  2Fe2O3(s) if entropy change is - 549.4 jK-1 mol-1 at

298 K. if ∆H for reaction will be

(a) Spontaneous at 298

(b) (b) non – spontaneous at 298
(c) Spontaneous at high temp

(d) non spontaneous at high temp

16. The condition which shows spontaniety of reaction.

(a) ∆H = -ve ∆ S = - ve at low Temp.

(b) ∆H = -ve ∆ S = - ve at high Temp.

(c) ∆H =+ve ∆ S = - ve at high Temp.

(d) ∆H = -ve ∆ S = + ve at low Temp.

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Chemistry

17. If ∆H0f of CO(g) N2O(g) and N2O4(g)are 110, 393, 31 & 9.7 kJ mol-1.
The enthalpy of reaction is.

N2O4 + 3CO  N2O + 3CO2

(a) - 778 (b) - 887

(c) - 357.8 (d) - 435.7

18. At Constant temperature

(a) ∆G0 = ∆H0 – T ∆S0 (b) ∆G0 = ∆H0 + T ∆S0

(c) ∆G0 = ∆H0 ± T ∆S0 (d) ∆G0 = ∆H0 + ∆ng RT.

19. Entropy means

(a) Degree of Motion of particles

(b) Degree of ramdamnous of particles

(c) Measurement of degree of ramdamnous

(d) Degree of randam motion

20. For the reaction

2A(g) + B(g)  2D(g) ∆u0 = -10.5kJ. ∆S = - 44.1 JK-1

The free energy of reaction is :-

(a) 1.64 kJ (b) 0.164 kJ

(c) 16.4 kJ (d) None of these

21. A reaction occures spontaneously if .

(a) T ∆S > ∆H and ∆H = +ve and ∆S = -ve

(b) T ∆S = ∆H and ∆H and ∆S = +ve

(c) T ∆S < ∆H and ∆H and ∆S = +ve

(d) T ∆S > ∆H and ∆H and ∆S = +ve,

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Chemistry

22. Enthalpy change ∆H for. Reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) is – 92.38

kJ at 298K. The internal energy change ∆U at 298 K is.

(a) - 92.38 kJ (b) - 87.42 kJ

(c) - 97.34 kJ (d) - 89.9 kJ

23. Enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is – 119.5 kJ mol-1, if

resonance energy of benzene is – 150. 4 kJ mol-1 its enthalpy of
hydrogenation would be

(a) - 269 . 9 kJ mol-1 (b) - 358.5 kJ mol-1

(c) - 508.9 kJ mol-1 (d) - 208.1 kJ mol-1

24. For an ideal gas expanding adiabatically in vacuum then

(a) ∆H = 0 (b) ∆H > 0

(c) ∆H < 0 (d) None of these

25. The Quantity of heat measured for a reaction in bomb calorimeter

is equal to

(a) ∆G (b) ∆H

(c) P∆V (d) ∆ E

26. Bond dissociation energy for Cl2, I2 & ICl are 242.3, 151 and 211.3
kJ mol-1 respectively enthalpy of sublimations of I2 is 62.8
kJ/mol. The ∆Hf0 of ICl(g) is

(a) - 211.3 kJ mol-1 (b) - 14.6 kJ mol-1

(c) 16.8 kJ mol-1 (d) 33.5 kJ mol-1

27. A process is taking place at constant temperature and pressure

then

(a) ∆H = ∆E (b) ∆H = T ∆S

(c) ∆H = O (d) ∆S = O

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Chemistry

28. For the reaction A(s) + 3B(g)  4C(g) + D(l) ∆ U and ∆G are related as

(a) ∆ H = ∆ U (b) ∆ H = ∆ U + 3RT

(c) ∆ H = ∆ U + RT (d) ∆ H = ∆ U – 3RT

29. How much energy is released when 6 moles of octane is burnt in

air

If ∆H0f of CO2(g) and C8H18(g) are 490, 240 and 160 kJ mol-1
respectively.

(a) - 6.2 kJ (b) - 37.4 kJ

(c) - 35.5 kJ (d) - 20.0 kJ

30. For the reaction of one mole of Zn dust with one mole H 2SO4 acid
in bomb calorimeter, ∆ µ and w comes pound to

(a) ∆ U < 0, w = 0 (b) ∆ U< 0, w < 0

(c) ∆ U > 0, w = 0 (d) ∆ U > 0, w > 0

Answer key

1 b 2 - 3 d 4 c 5 a

6 d 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 d

11 b 12 a 13 b 14 c 15 a

16 a 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 b

21 d 22 b 23 d 24 a 25 d

26 - 27 b 28 c 29 b 30 a

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Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Equilibrium
1. For this Equilibrium Solid Liquid

Which is correct:-

(a) It occur at m. p.
(b) There is no exchange of heat to surrounding
(c) Masses of two phases remains constant
(d) All of these
2. The statement correct about Equilibrium
(a) It is applied for close system only
(b) both opposing processes occurs at different rates
(c) All measurable properties of system remains constant
(d) a and c are correct
3. Which QC >1 then
(a) Rate of Forward reaction is more than backward reaction
(b) Rate of Forward reaction is less than backward reaction
(c) Rate of Forward reaction and rate of backward reaction both
are equal
(d) It is independent of rate of reaction
4 If n  0 then

(a) Kp = Kc (b) Kp < Kc

(c) Kp > Kc (d) all are correct

5 The factor which do not effect equilibrium

(a) Catalyst (b) Concentration

(c) Pressure (d) temperature

6. Addition of an inert gas at constant volume can shift equilibrium

(a) In forward direction (b) in backward direction

(c) neither forward nor backward (d) none

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Chemistry
7. The equilibrium in which pressure has no effect
(a) H 2  I 2
(g) (g)
2HI ( g ) (b) N2  3H 2
(g) (g)
2NH3( g )

(c) CaCo3 (s)

CaO( s )  CO2( g ) d) PCl5 PCl3  Cl2

8. Favourable condition for synthesis of ammonia is

(a) Low temperature and high pressure
(b) Low temperature and low pressure
(c) high temperature and high pressure
(d) Independent of temperature and pressure
9. Acidic strength of an acid can be measured in terms of
(a) pH – value (b) p Ka – value
(c) Ka – value (d) all
10. When Kip > Ksp then solution is said to be
(a) Saturated (b) unsaturated
(c) super saturated (d) none
11. pH of 10-8 M HCl is –
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 6.98 (d) 6.58
12. pH of 0.002 M. NaOH solution is
(a) 2.6 (b) 11.3
(c) 10.4 (d) 3.4
13. The solubility of CaF2 can be given by ,
Ksp
(a) s  Ksp / 4 (b) s  3
4

Ksp
(c) s  (d) none
2

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Chemistry
14. If Ksp of MX2 is 3.2  10-11 then solubility of ions is

(a) 2  10 - 4 (b) 4  10-4

(c) 2  10 - 2 (d) 2  10-6

15. Among the following pairs which is/are acidic buffer

(a) H2SO4 + NaOH (b) KNO3 + HNO3

(c) ACONa + ACOH (d) H3PO4 + NaH2PO3

16. pH of are acidic buffer can be given by the equation

[S ] [S ]
(a) pH = pkb + log (b) pH = pka + log
[ A] [ A]

[S ] [S ]
(c) pH = pka – log (d) pH = pka + log
[ A] [ B]

17. If K1 is equilibrium constant for H2 + I2 2HI

If concern of reactants is just halved then equilibrium constant for

decomposition of HI is
1
(a) K2 = (b) K2 = K1
1
2
K1

1
(c) K2 = 1/ 2
(d) K2 = K1
K1

18. A mixture contain 0.2m. NH4Cl and 0.1 M. NH3 if Kb of NH3 is

1.8  10-5 then pH of solution is –

(a) 9 (b) 8

(c) 8.5 (d) 7.5

19. Ionic product of water at 250C is

(a) 10-12 (b) 10-14

(c) 10-13 (d) 10-15

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Chemistry
20. The relation which is correct

(a) Ka  Kb = Kw (b) Ka / Kb = Kw

(c) Kb / Ka = Kw (d) Ka – Kb = Kw

21. The molar solubility of Ni (OH)2 is 0. 1M NaOH would be if K ip = 2

 10-15

(a) 2  10-13 M (b) 2  10-12

(c) 2  10-8M (d) none

22. Ionisation of CH3COOH can be suppressed by add ion of

(a) Na2SO4 (b) NaCl

(c) NaHCO3 (d) CH3COONa

23. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 and Ag Br are1.1  10-12 an 5  10-

13. The ratios of molarities of their saturated solutions is –

(a) 90 :1 (b) 92 :1

(c) 94 :1 (d) 95 : 1

24. The aquous solution of which salt is acidic

(a) NaCl (b) NH4NO3

(c) NaCN (d) all

25. Conjugate base of HCO 3 is

(a) H2O (b) H2CO3

(c) CO3 (d) none

26. The species which acts as bronsted acid and base both .

(a) H2O (b) HCO 3

(c) NH3 (d) a & b both

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Chemistry
27. A sample of PCl5 was introduced into an evacuated vessel at 473 K.
When equilibrium was stabilised coucen of PCl5 was 0.05 m if Kc is
8.3  10-3 the con—of Cl2 & PCl3 at equilibrium is

(a) 0.02 M (b) 0.04 M

(c) 0.25 M (d) .03 M

28. At 450K Kp = 2  1010/bar for given Reaction

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) its Kc is

(a) 7.5  1011 (b) 6.5  1011

(c) 7.5  1010 (d) 7.5  108

Answer Key

1 d 2 d 3 b 4 a 5 a

6 c 7 a 8 a 9 d 10 c

11 c 12 b 13 b 14 a 15 c

16 b 17 c 18 a 19 b 20 a

21 a 22 d 23 b 24 b 25 c

26 d 27 a 28 a

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Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Redox Reaction
1. The reaction, H2S+H2O2 =S+2H2O manifests:

(a) oxidizing action of H2O2 (b) reducing nature of H2O2

(c) acidic nature of H2O2 (d) alkaline nature of H2O2

2. The oxidation number of Fe in K4Fe(CN)6 is

(a) +6 (b) +4

(c) +3 (d) +2

3. Which one of the following is a redox reaction?

(a) H2 + Br2 = 2HBr

(b) 2NaCl + H2SO4 + 2HCl

(c) HCl + AgNO3 = AgCl + HNO3

(d) NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O2

4. The conversion of K2Cr2O7 into Cr2 (SO4)3 is a process of:

(a) oxidation (b) reduction

(c) decomposition (d) substitution

5. Select the compound in which chlorine shows oxidation state +7?

(a) HClO4 (b) HClO3

(c) HClO2 (d) HClO

6. Oxidation number of fluorine in F2O is:

(a) +1 (b) +2

(c) -1 (d) -2

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Chemistry

7. In the compounds KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7, the highest oxidation state

is of the element:

(a) potassium (b) chromium

(c) oxygen (d) manganese

8. The oxidation numbers of C in CH4, CH3Cl, CH2Cl2, CHCl3, and

CCl4 are respectively

(a) +4, +2, 0, -2, -4 (b) +2, +4, 0, -4, -2

(c) -4, -2, 0, +2, +4 (d) -2, -4, 0, +4, +2

9. In which one of the following changes, there is transfer of five

electrons?

(a) MnO4  Mn 2 (b) CrO42  Cr 3

(c) MnO4  MnO2 (d) Cr2O72  2Cr 3

10. The oxidation number of chlorine in HOCl is

(a) -1 (b) zero

(c) +1 (d) +2

11. For the redox reaction MnO4  C2O42  H   Mn 2  CO2  H 2O the correct
coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are:

MnO4 C2O42 H

(a) 2 5 16

(b) 16 5 2

(c) 5 16 2

(d) 2 16 5

12. The oxidation number of phosphorus in PO43 , P4O10 and P2O74 is

(a) +5 (b) +3

(c) -3 (d) +2

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Chemistry

13. The Oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is

(a) +7 (b) +6

(c) +3 (d) +2

14. Oxidation number of ‘S’ in Na2S4O6 is

(a) +0.5 (b) 2.5

(c) +4 (d) +6

15. Which one of the following is not a redox reaction

(a) CaCO3 → CaO+CO2 (b) 2H2+O2→ 2H2O

1 1
(c) Na + H2O→NaOH+ H2 (b) MnCl3 → MnCl2 + Cl2
2 2

16. Which substance is serving as a reducing agent in the following

reaction?

14H   Cr2O72  3Ni  2Cr 3  7 H 2O  3Ni 2

(a) H2O (b) Ni

(c) H+ (d) Cr2O72

17. The oxidation state of iodine in H 4 IO6 is

(a) +7 (b) -1

(c) +5 (d) +1

18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Oxidation number of S in (NH4)2S2O8 is +6

(b) Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 is +8

(c) Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is +8

1
(d) Oxidation number of O in KO2 is 
2

Page 3
 ®

Chemistry

19. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one mole of Sn2+ ion is

(a) 1/3 (b) 3

(c) 1/6 (d) 6

20. The standard oxidation potentials, E0, for the half reactions are as:

Zn  Zn 2  2e  , E 0  0.76volt

Fe  Fe2  2e  , E 0  0.41volt

The emf of the cell Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ +Fe is

(a) +0.35 volt (b) -0.35 volt

(c) +1.17 volt (d) -1.17 volt

21. Four colourless salt solutions are placed in separate test tubes
and a strip of copper is dipped in each. Which solution finally
turns blue?

(a)Pb(NO3)2 (b) AgNO3

(c) Zn(NO3)2 (d) Cd(NO3)2

22. Among Na, Hg, S, Pt and graphite, which can be used as

electrodes in electrolytic cells having aqueous solutions:

(a) Hg and Pt (b) Hg, Pt and graphite

(c) Na, S (d) Na, Hg, S

23. The most reactive metal among the following is:

(a) Al (b) Ni

(c) Pb (d) Cu

24. The oxide which can be reduced by hydrogen is:

(a) Na2O (b) CaO

(c) K2O (d) CuO

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Chemistry

25. The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in

decreasing electropositive character is given as Mg> Al> Zn > Cu >
Ag. What will happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution
Aluminium nitrate?

(a) The spoon will get coated with aluminium

(b) An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed

(c) The solution becomes blue

(d) There is no reaction

26. In a chemical reaction, K2Cr2O7 + xH2SO4 + ySO2 → K2SO4 + Cr2

(SO4)3 + zH2O

x, y and z are

(a) 1, 3, 1 (b) 4, 1, 4

(c) 3, 2, 3 (d) 2, 1, 2

27. The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations

X, Y, Z are 0.53, -3.03 and -1.18 V respectively. The order of
reducing power of the corresponding metals is

(a) Y > Z > X (b) X > Y > Z

(c) Z > Y > X (d) Z > X > Y

28. The oxidation numbers of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively are:

(a) 0, +1 and -2 (b) +2, +1 and -2

(c) 0, +1 and +2 (d) -2, +1 and +2

29. For the decolourisation of 1 mole of KMnO4, the no. of moles of

H2O2 required is:

(a) ½ (b) 3/2

(c) 5/2 (d) 7/2

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Chemistry

30. The oxidation state of iodine in IPO4 is

(a) +1 (b) +3

(c) +5 (d) +7

31. In alkaline medium, H2O2 reacts with Fe3+ and Mn2+ separately to
give:

(a) Fe4+ and Mn4+ (b) Fe2+ and Mn2+

(c) Fe2+ and Mn4+ (d) Fe4+ and Mn2+

32. CrO5 has structure as shown:

The oxidation number of chromium in the above compound is:

(a) +4 (b) +5

(c) +6 (d) +10

33. Oxidation number s of P in PO43 ; of S in SO42 and that of Cr in

Cr2O72 are respectively:

(a) -3, +6 and +5 (b) +5, +6 and +6

(c) +3, +6 and +5 (d) +5, +3 and +6

34. Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively:

(a) +3, +5, +4 (b) +5, +3, +4

(c) +5, +4, +3 (d) +3, +4, +5

35. Oxidation state of phosphorus in cyclotrimeta phosphoric acid is:

(a) +3 (b) +5

(c) -3 (d) +2

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Chemistry

Answer key

1 a 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 a

6 c 7 d 8 c 9 a 10 c

11 a 12 a 13 b 14 b 15 a

16 b 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 a

21 b 22 b 23 a 24 d 25 d

26 a 27 a 28 a 29 c 3 b

31 c 32 c 33 b 34 d 35 b

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 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Classification of Elements and Periodicity
in Properties
.1 The law of triads was enunciated by

(a) Medelave (b) Newland

(c) lother meyer (d) Dobereiner

2. In the modern periodic table, period indicates the value of

(a) Valence principal quantum Number

(b) Azimuthal Quantum Number

(c) Atomic Number

(d) Atomic mass

3. Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the

chemistry of the element. Which one of the following factures does
not affect the valence shell.

(a) Valence principal quantum Number

(b) Nuclear mass

(c) Nuclear change

(d) Number of core electrons

4. The radii of F, F , O and O 2 are in the order of:

(a) O2- > F >F >O (b) F > O 2 >F > O

(c) O 2 > F > O > F (d) O 2 > O > F > F

5. Cl (Z = 58) is a member of

(a) s – block (b) p – block

(c) d – block (d) f – block

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Chemistry
6. The element with highest ionization enthalpy is

(a) oxygen (b) Nitrogen

(c) Carbon (d) boron

7. The first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order
of

(a) Na < Mg > Al < Si (b) Na > Mg> Al > Si

(c) Na < Mg > Al > Si (d) Na > Mg> Al < Si

8. The electronegativity of the following elements increasing in the

order of

(a) C,N,Si,P (b) N, Si, C, P

(c) Si,P,C,N (d) P, Si, N,C

9. Na+ is smaller than Na atom because

(a) Nucleus in each case contains different nucleons

(b) Sodium atom has an electron lesser than sodium ion

(c) Sodium atom has 11 electrons and sodium ion has 10 electrons

(d) The force of attraction is less in Na+ than in Na – atom

10. Which of the following is not the representative element

(a) Fe (b) K

(c) Ba (d) N

11. Which of the following element has the maximum electron gain
enthalpy?

(a) oxygen (b) Chlerine

(c) Fluorine (d) Nitrogen

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Chemistry
12. Transition metals are characterised by the properties except

(a) Variable oxidation state

(b) Colured compounds

(c) high meeting and boling points

(d) no tendency to form complexes

13. The ionic radius of a cation is always

(a) Less than atomic radus (b) more than atomic radius

(c) equal to atomic raius (d) can not be predicted

14. Which of the following has largest size

(a) Na (b) Na+

(c) Mg (d) Mg2+

15. Strongest reducing agent among the following is

(a) F (b) Cl

(c) Br (d) I

16. The elements on the right side of periodic table are

(a) non – metals (b) metals

(c) Transition elements (d) metal aids

17. Gonization enthalpy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because:

(a) Nucleus has more atlraction for electrons

(b) half filled orbitals are more stable

(c) nitrogen atom is small

(d) more penetration effect

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 ®

Chemistry
18. The outer most electronic configuration of the most electronegative
element is:
(a) ns2 np3 (b) ns2np4
(c)ns2 np5 (d) ns2np6
19. Which of the following has the lowest ionization enthalpy:
(a) Na (b) K
(c) Mg (d) Al
20. Which of the following is smallest cation
(a) Na+ (b) mg2+
(c) Ca2+ (d) Ae3+
21. Aluminium is diagonally relaled to
(a) Li (b)Si
c) Be (d) B
22. Which one is the correct order of the size of the iodine species:
(a) I > I+ >I- (b) I >I- >I+
(c) I+ > I- > I (d) I- > I > I+
23. Which of the following transition involves maximum energy?
(a) M (g)  M(g) (b)M2+ (g)  M3+(g)
(c) M+(g)  M2+(g) (d) M(g)  M+(g)
24. The process requiring the absorption of energy is :
(a) F  F (b) Cl  Cl
(c) O  O2- (d) H  H
25. Which of the following species has the highest electron gain
enthalpy
(a) F (b) O
(c) O (d) Na+
26. Element with atomic number 56 blongs to which block ?
(a) s – block (b) p – block
(c) d – block (d) f – block

27. Which is true about electronegativity order of the following

elements
(a) P > Si (b) C > N
(c) C > Br (d) Sr > Ca

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 ®

Chemistry
28. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic. Then
(a) Their sizes are same
(b) Cl ion is relatively bigger than K+ion
(c) K+ion is relatively bigger
(d) Cannot predicted
29. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following
(a) Li (b) Be
(c) B (d) C

30. According to modern periodic law variation in the properties of

elements is related to their

(a) Atomic weight (b) Nuclear weight

(c) Atomic numbers (d) Nentron – protonratio

31. Increasing order of density is

(a) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs (b) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs

(c) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li (d) K < Li < Na < Rb < CS

32. The ionic mobality of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution

(a) K+ (b) Rb+

(c) Li+ (d) Na+

33. Which one of the following sets of ions represent a collection of

isoelectronic species

(a) K+, C l , Ca2+, Sc3+ (b) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+ , Ca2+

(c) N3-, O2-, P2-, S2- (d) Li+, Na+ , Mg2+, Ca2+

34. With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has

the lowest ionization enthalpy

(a) ls2 2s2 2p3 (b) ls2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(c) ls2 2s2 2p6 (d) ls22s22p5

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 ®

Chemistry
35. An element having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d2, 4s2 blongs to

(a) d – block (b) f – block

(c) s – block (d) p – block

36. If we move from Li to F in the second period there would be

decrease in:

(a) Atomic mass (b) Atomic radii

(c) gonization enthalpy (d) electronegativity

37. Lowest gonization enthalpy in periods is shown by

(a) gnert gases (b) Halogens

(c) Alkali metals (d) Alkaline earth metals

38. The elements with atomic number 58 to 71 are called

(a) normal elements (b) transition elements

(c) Lanthanoids (d) actinoides

39. The electronic configuration of an element A is ls2, 2s2 2p5. The

formula of substance containing A will be

(a) A (b) A2

(c) A5 (d) A7

40. The most non- metallic element among the following is

(a) ls2 , 2s2 2p6 (b) ls2, 2s2 2p5

(c) ls2 2s2 2p4 (d) ls2 2s2 2p3

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 ®

Chemistry

Page 7
Answer key

1 d 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 d

6 b 7 a 8 c 9 c 10 a

11 b 12 d 13 a 14 a 15 d

16 a 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 d

21 c 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 b

26 a 27 a 28 b 29 b 30 c

31 a 32 b 33 a 34 b 35 a

36 b 37 c 38 c 39 b 40 b

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 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Chemical Bonding and Molecular
Structure
1 Electronic theory of valenay was represented by

(a) Pauling (b) Wesner

(c) Kossel and Lewis (d) Heitler and Landon

2. Most favourable conditions for elutrovalent bonding are

(a) Low gonization potential of one atom and high electron affinity
of the other atom

(b) High electron affinity and high ionization onthalpy of both the
atoms

(c) Law electron affinity and law ionization potential of both the
atoms

(d) High ionization potential of one atom and low electron affinity
of the other atom

3. The electrongativity of Caesium of 0.7 and that of . Fluorine is 4.0.

The bond formed between two is

(a) covalent (b) electrovalent

(c) coordinate (d) metallic

4. Polarisation is the distortion of the shape of an anion by the

cation. Which of the following statement is correct

(a) Maximum polarisation is done by a cation of high change

(b) A large cation is likely to bring large degree of polarisation

(c) A smaller anion is likely to undergo a high degree of

polarization

(d) Minimum polarization is done by cation of small size

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 ®

Chemistry

5. In the formation of ethylene molecule, the carbon atom makes use

of

(a) sp3 – orbitals (b) sp2 – orbitals

(c) sp – orbitals (d) none of these

6. Which of the following has a giant covalent structhre

(a) CCl4 (b) SiO2

(c) Sicl4 (d) CO2

7. Which of the following molecules are formed by p – p overlapping

(a) Cl2 (b) HCl

(c) H2O (d) NH3

8. A molecule possessing dipole moment is

(a) CH4 (b) H2O

(c) BF3 (d) CO2

9. In which of the following molecules the bond angle is maximum?

(a) CH4 (b) H2O

(c) NH3 (d) CO2

10. The compound with highest boiling point is

(a) CH3OH (b) CH3 – Br

(c) CH3Cl (d) CH4

11. The Hydrogen bond is strongest is

(a) O – H --- S (b) S – H ---- O

(c) F – H -----F (d) F – H ---O

12. The hybridization of s in SO2 is

(a) sp (b) sp2

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 ®

Chemistry

(c) sp3 (d) dsp2

13. Molecule in which the distance between two adjacent carbon

atoms is largest is

(a) benzene (b) Ethyme

(c) Ethane (d) ethane

14. Which one of the following gas highest dipole moments.

(a) SbH3 (b) AsH3

(c) PH3 (d) NH3

15. Acetylene molecule contains

(a) 5 sigma bonds

(b) 4 – sigma bonds 1π-bond

(c) 3 – sigma bonds and 2π – bonds

(d) 2 sigma and 3π – bonds

16. Among the following species, identify the is structural pairs NF3,
NO 3 ,BF3, H3O+, NH4+

(a) [NF3,NO 3 ] and [BF3,H3O+] (b) [NF3, NH+] and [NO 3 , BF3]

(c) [NF3,H3O+] and [NO 3 ,BF3] (d) [NF3,H3O+] and [NH3,BF3]

17 The structure of sulphate ion is

(a) Hexagonal (b) Square planar

(c) Trigonal (d) Tetrahedral

18. Structure of ammonia is

(a) Pylamidal (b) tetrahedral

(c) Trigonal (d) trigonal bipyramidal

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Chemistry

19. Resonance structure of a molecule should not have

(a) identical arrangement of atoms

(b) nearly same energy content

(c) the same number of paired electrons

(d) identical bonding

20. Hydrogen bonding is present in

(a) HF (b) SiF4

(c) HCl (d) HI

21. The bond that exists between NH3 and BF3 is called

(a) Electrovalent (b) Covalent

(c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogent

22. A covalent bond is likely to be formed between two elements which

(a) have similar electro negativities

(b) have low ionization energies

(c) have low meeting points

(d) form ions with a small change

23. The hybridisation of carbon atoms in

C – C single bond of CH  C – CH = CH2 is

(a) sp3 – sp3 (b) sp2 – sp3

(c) sp – sp2 (d) sp3 – sp

24. BeCl2 has zero dipole moment where as H2O has a dipole moment
because

(a) water is linear (b) H2O is bent

(c) BeCl2 is bent (d) H – Bonding is present in H2O

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Chemistry

25. Which of the following has a tetrahedrae structure?

(a) NH3 (b) K4Fe (CN)6


(c) N H 4 (d) [Ni (CN)4]2

26. Which one of the following molecule is trigonal bipyramidal?

(a) BF3 (b) CH4

(c) PCl5 (d) SF6

27. Hydrogen bonding is maximum is

(a) Ethanol (b) diethyl ether

(c) Ethyl chloride (d) Triethyl amine

28. NH3 has much higher boiling point than PH3 because:-

(a) NH3 has larger molecular weight

(b) Ammonia undergo umbrella inversion

(c) Ammonia contains ionic bond while PH3 contains covalent bond

(d) Ammonia forms hydrogen bonds

29 T- shape is exhibited by the molecule

(a) Cl F3 (b) CHCl4

(c) CCl4 (d) PCl5

30 The oo correct order of O-O bond length in O2, H2O2 and O3 is

(a) O3>H2 O2 >O2 (b) O2>H2O2 > O3

(c) O2>O3 >H2O2 (d) H2O2 >O2>O2

31. Which of the following is planar

(a) Xe F4 (b) NF3

(c) Si F4 (d) SF4

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Chemistry

32. Highest covalent character is found in

(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2

(c) CaBr2 (d) CaI2

33. Which of the following molecules /ion does not contained

unmpared electrons

(a) O2 2 (b) B2

(c) N 2 (d)O2

34. Which of the following molecules /ions are all the bonds are equal.

(a) SF4 (b) SiF4

(c) XeF4 (d) B F  us

35. Which of the following special is diamagnetic in nature.


(a) He 2 (b) H2

(c) H 2 (d) H 2

36. The no and type of bond between two carbon atoms in calcium
carbide are.

(a) One sigma, One Pi (b) One sigma, two pi

(c) Two sigma, One pi (d) Two sigma, two pi

37. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs on

central atom?

(a) ClO3- (b) XeF4

(c) SF4 (d) I3-

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Chemistry

38 In a regular octahedral molecule MX6 the number of x-M-x bonds

at 180O are

(a) Three (b) Two

(c) Six (d) Four

39. The ONO angle is maximum in

(a) NO3  (b) NO2 

(c) NO2 (d) NO2

40. According to MO theory which of the lists ranks the nitrogen

species in the terms of is increasing bond order

(a) N 22  N 2  N 2 (b) N 2  N 22  N 2

(c) N 2  N 22  N 2 (d) N 22  N 2  N 2

Answer key

1 c 2 a 3 b 4 a 5 c

6 b 7 a 8 b 9 d 10 a

11 c 12 b 13 d 14 d 15 b

16 c 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 a

21 c 22 a 23 c 24 b 25 c

26 c 27 a 28 d 29 a 30 d

31 a 32 d 33 a 34 a 35 b

36 b 37 d 38 a 39 b 40 c

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Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- The p- Block Elements
1 Catenation tendenay is weaker in nitrogen this is because:

(a) The single N – N bond is weaker than the single P – P bond

(b) The single N – N bond is stronger than the single P – P bond

(c) Nitrogen does not form Pπ – Pπ bond

(d) Nitrogen does have vacant d – orbitals

2 Nitrogen can show maximum covalency upto

(a) Three (b) four

(c) five (d) two

3 The stabilities of hydrides of nitrogen family

(a) Increases from NH3 to BiH3

(b) Do not show regular behaviour

(c) Decreases from NH3 to BiH3

(d) Cannot predicted

4 Which of the following statement is correct regarding the hydrides

of nitrogen family?

(a) Ammonia is strongest reducing agent while BiH3 is weakest

reducing agent

(b) Reducing character decreases down the group

(c) Ammonia is mild reducing agent while BiH3 is the strangest

reducing agent

(d) Reducing character can not predicted

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Chemistry
5 The correct increasing order of basic character of following NH3,
PH3 AsH3 SbH3 BiH3

(a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3

(b) PH3 < NH3< AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH4

(c) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH4< NH3

(d) BiH4 < SbH3< AsH3 < PH3 < NH3

6 Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Boiling point increases from NH3 to BiH3

(b)Boiling point decreases from NH3 to BiH3

(c) Boiling point of NH3 is higher than PH3

(d) NH3 has highest boiling point among the hydrides of nitrogen
family

7 Which of the following statement is correct regarding the hydrides

of nitrogen family?

(a) HEH angle increases as we move from NH3 to BiH3

(b) HEH angle decreases down the group
(c) HEH bond in PH3 is largest
(d) HEH angle shows irregular behaviour

8 Nitrogen in its oxides and oxo acids can show maximum oxidation
state up to

(a) + 3 (b) +4

(c) + 5 (d) +2

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Chemistry
9 Nitrogen form N2O3 and N2O5

(a) N2O5 is more acidic than N2O3

(b) N2O3 is more acidic than N2O5

(c) N2O5 is more basic than N2O3

(d) N2O3 is more basic than N2O5

10 Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) All the trioxides (E2O3) of nitrogen family are acidic

(b) E2O3 of nitrogen and phosphorus are purey acidic that of

arsenic and antimony amphoteric and those of bismuth are basic

(c) All the trioxides (E2O3) of nitrogen family are basic

(d) E2O3 of nitrogen and phosphorus are basic while all acidic

11 The correct order of acidic character

(a) N2O5 < P2O5 < As2 O5 < Sb2O5 < Bi2O5

(b) N2O5 > P2O5 > As2 O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5

(c) P2O5 > As2 O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5 > N2O5

(d) P2O5 > N2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5

12 Nitrogen does not form pentahalide due to

(a) Nitrogen does not form Pπ – Pπ bonding

(b) Nitrogen has smallest size

(c) Nitrogen does not have vacant d – orbitals

(d) Nitrogen has highest ionization anthology

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Chemistry
13 Regarding halides of nitrogen family, which of the following is
correct?

(a) Trihalides are more covalent than pentahalides

(b) pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides

(c) Trihalides and pentahalides of nitrogen family are ionic

(d) only some of pentahalides are covalent

14 Which of the following statement regarding nitrogen is correct?

(a) All the trihalides of nitrogen are stable

(b) Nitrogen forms trihalides only with iodine

(c) Only NCl3 is known to be stable

(d) Only NF3 is known to be stable

15. Among the trihalides of nitrogen family

(a) Only NF3 is ionic (b) Only NI3 is ionic

(c) Only BiF3 is ionic (d) All trihalides are ionic

16 Very pure nitrogen can be obtained:

(a) NH4Cl(aq)  NaNO2 (aq)  N2 ( g)  2H 2O(l )  NaCl(aq)

(b) ( NH4 ) 2 Cr2O7 heat


 N g  4H 2O  Cr2O3

(c) Ba(N3)2  Ba + 3N2 (g)

(d) all of the above

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Chemistry
17 Which of the following is true?

(a) Nitrogen is colourless, odouress and toxic gas

(b) gas Nitrogen is colourless, with ammonical smell

(c) Nitrogen is colourless, odousless and non-toxic

(d) None of the above

18 Which of the following about nitrogen is correct?

(a) Nitrogen is insoluble in water

(b) Nitrogen is highly soluble in water

(c) It has very low solubility in water

(d) Nitrogen is soluble only at S.T.P

19 Dinitrogen (N2) is inert at room temperature this is due to

(a) High bond dissociation enthalpy of N  N bond

(b) Nitrogen has high electronegativity

(c) Ionization enthalpy of nitrogen is very high

(d) Nitrogen does not form dπ – p π bond

20 In iron and steel industry, the inert diluent used for reactive
chemical is

(a) Dioxygen (b) Dinitrogen

(c) Dihydrogen (d) Noble gases

21 Liquid Dinitrogen is not used

(a) Refigerant (b) Preserve biological material

(c) In cryosurgery (d) Fuel in aeroplanes

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Chemistry
22 Ammonia is manufactured by Haber’s process

N2(g) + 3H2 (g)  2 NH3 (g)

1
H f  46.1KJ mol

Which of the following is optimum conditions for production of

ammonia?

(a) A pressuse of 200  105 Pa (about 200 atm)

(b) A temperature of 700 K
(c) Use of catalyst such as iron oxide with small amount of K2O and
Al2O3 to increase the rate of attaiment of equieibrium
(d) All of above

23 In ammonia

(a) It has three bond pairs , one lone pair and tetrahedral zeometry

(b) It has four bond pairs and pyramidal zeometry

(c) It has three bond pairs, one lone pair and pyramidal zeometry

(d) It has two bond pairs two lone pairs and pyramidal zeometry

24 Ammonia acts as Lewis base

(a) Due to the presence of Hydrogen atoms

(b) Due to presence of lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom

(c) It produces OH in aqueous solution

(d) Due to presence of lone pair of electrons on the hydrogen atoms

25 Ammonia is used

(a) To produce various nitrogenous compounds

(b) In manufacture of nitric acid

(c) as a refrigerant

(d) All the above

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Chemistry
26 The O.S. of nitrogen in nitrous oxide (laughing gas)

(a) +1 (b) +2

(c) + 3 (d) + 5

27 Out of the following which are neutral oxides

(a) NO2 and N2O3 (b) N2O3 and N2O5

(c) NO2 and NO (d) N2O4 and N2O5

28 NO2 dimerises

2 NO2   N2O4 this is because

cool/ heat

(a) NO2 contains odd number of valence electrons

(b) NO2 is only stable at low temperature
(c) In NO2 all the bond lengths are not same
(d) None of the above

29 What is covalenay of nitrogen in N2O5

(a) Two (b) Five

(c) Four (d) Three

30 Hyponitrous acid is

(a) HNO2 (b) HNO3

(c) H2N2O2 (d) H2N2O3

31 In large scale Nitric acid is prepared by

(a) Contact Process (b) Haber’s process

(c) Ostwald process (d) None of the above

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Chemistry
32 Laboratory grade nitric acid contains

(a) 68% of the HNO3 by mass (b) 98% of the HNO3 by mass

(c) 50 % of the HNO3 by mass (d) It is not specific

33 Concentrated nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent and

(a) Attacts all the metals

(b) Attacts only alkali and alkaline earth metals

(c) Attacts most metals except noble metals such as gold and
platinum

(d) Attacts only on gold and platinum

34 Some metals do not dissolve in Con. Nitric acid because of the

formation of a passive film of oxide on the surface. These metals
are

(a) Cu and Zn (b) Cr and Al

(c) Fe and Cu (d) Cu and Cd

35 In brown ring test

(a) Fe2+ Reduces nitrates to nitric oxide

(b) The test is carried out by adding dilute ferrous sulphate

solution

(c) Concentrated sulphuric acid is added carefully along the sides

of the test tube

(d) All the above steps involve

36 The major uses of nitric acid

(a) Manufacture of ammonium nitrate for fertiliser

(b) Manfacture of ammonium nitrates

(c) Pickling of stainless steel and etching of metals

(d) all above

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Chemistry
37 Which statement regarding white phosphorus is true

(a) It is a translucent white waxy solid

(b) It is poisonous

(c) It is insoluble in water but soluble in carbon disulphide

(d) All above are true

38 White phosphorus glows in dark this property is called

(a) Fluorosence (b) Chemiluminescence

(c) Tyndal effect (d) Electrophorsis

39 Among the three allotropes of Phosphorus

(a) Red phosphorus is most reactive due to its polymeric structure

(2) White phosphorus is most reactive because of angular strain in

the P4 molecule

(c) White phosphosus is least reactive

(d) All allotropes have same chemical reactivities

40 Which of the following is correct?

(a) White phosphorus exist in P4 tetrahedral unit where angles are

600

(b) Red phosphorus is polymeric, containing chains of P4

tetrahedra

(c) Black phosphorus has monoclinic and rhombohedral crystals

(d) all the above

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Chemistry

Answer key

1 a 2 b 3 c 4 c 5 d

6 c 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 b

11 b 12 c 13 b 14 d 15 a

16 c 17 c 18 c 19 a 20 b

21 d 22 d 23 c 24 b 25 d

26 a 27 c 28 a 29 c 30 c

31 c 32 a 33 c 34 b 35 d

36 d 37 a 38 b 39 c 40 d

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Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- The d-and f-Block Elements
1. Zinc, cadmium and mercury are not regarded as transition metals
because.

(a) These metals do not have unpaired electrons

(b) These metals are liquid at room temperature

(c) These have d10 configuration in their ground state as well as in

their common oxidation state

(d) the metals are non-conductor of electricity

2. The general electronic configuration of transition metals is

(a) ( n – 1) d0 – 10 ns 0 – 2 (b) ( n – 1) d1 – 10 ns 0 – 2

(c) ( n – 1) d1 – 10 ns 2 (d) ( n – 1) d1 – 10 ns 1– 2

3. The electronic configuration of Pd (Z = 46) is

(a) [Kr] 4d85s2 (b) [Kr] 4d105s0

(c) [Kr] 4d95s1 (d) [Kr] 4d105s2

4. Transition element which does not exhibit variable oxidation state

(a) Ti (b) Cu

(c) Cr (d) Sc

5. One of the characterstics of transition metals to form the complex

ion is

(a) Having unpaired electrons in d – sub shell

(b) Having paired electrons in d – sub shell

(c) Providing empty d – orbitals

(d) Having small charge / size ratio

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Chemistry

6 Transition metals have very high melting point

(a) Involvement of number of electrons from (n-1) d in addition to

the ns electron in the interatomic metallic bonding

(b) due to the low ionization enthalpy

(c) Presence of vacant d – orbitals

(d) Having very high charge on these metals

7 The melting point of Mn is exceptionly low due to.

(a) due to large size of Mn

(b) due to five unpaired electrons

(c) Low enthalpiy of atomisation

(d) Vacant d – orbitals

8 Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpy of atomisation

(a) small size of transition metals

(b) Large surface area

(c) Large no of unpaired electrons in their atoms

(d) vacant d- orbitals

9 Transition metal of the 3d series exhibit the largest no of oxidation

state

(a) Cr ( Z = 24) (b) Mn (Z = 25)

(c) Fe (Z =26) (d) V (Z = 23)

10 Cr 2+ is reducing while have d4 configuration

(a) Cr3+ has d5 configuration (b) C3+ has half filled t 2g orbitals

(c) Cr2+ has ds configuration (d) Cr2+ has a half filled t2g orbitals

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Chemistry

11 The E0 (M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34V)

(a) Low  i H 0 and high  Hyd H 0

(b) High  i H 0 and Low  Hyd H 0

(c) Cu2+ has stable d10 configuration

(d) Cu has stable d10 configuration

12 The correct order of oxidising power

(a) VO 2  Cr2 O72  MnO4 (b) VO 2  Cr2 O72  MnO4

(c) Cr2 O72  VO2  MnO4 (d) Cr2 O72  VO2  MnO4

13 magnetic moment of a diavalent ion in aqueous solution its

atomic number is 25

(a) 1.732 B.M (b) 1.414 B.M

(c) 2.824 B.M (d) 5.92 B.M

14 The spin only magnetic moment of M2+ (aq) ion (Z = 27)

(a) 5.92 BM (b) 3.87 B.M

(c) 1.732 B.M (d) 2.824 B.M

15 Element of lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit + 4

oxidation state

(a) cerium (Z = 58) (b) Neodynium (Z = 60)

(c) Gadoeinium (Z = 64) (d) Lutetium (Z = 71)

16 Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than

Lathanoid contraction

(a) Poor shielding effect of 4f electron

(b) Poor shielding effect of 5f electron than 4f electrons

(c) Strong shielding effect of 5f electrons than 4f electrons

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Chemistry

(d) 4f and 5f electrons have same shielding effect

17 Which statement is correct

(a) Fe2+ is stronger reducing agent than Cr2+

(b) Cr2+ is stranger reducing agent than Fe2+

(c) Both are oxidising agents

(d) Both have same reducing power

18 Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution

(a) second ionization enthalpy of Cu is very high

(b) second ionization enthalpy of Cu is very low

(c)  Hyd H for Cu2+ (aq) is much more negative than that of Cu+
(aq)

(d)  Hyd H for Cu+ (aq) is much more negative than that of Cu2+
(aq)

19 Silver atom has completely filled d – orbitals (4d10) in its ground

state

(a) It is not regarded as transition metal

(b) Ag+ has partially filled d - orbitals

(c) Ag2+ has partially filled d – orbitals

(d) Ag does not show +2 oxidation state

20 The highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or

fluoride only

(a) Oxygen and fluorine has high ionization enthalpy

(b) Oxygen and fluorine are most reactive non-metals

(c) Oxygen and fluorine have small size and high electronegativity

(d) Oxygen and fluorine has high electron affinity

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Chemistry

21 Write the electronic configuration of Lu2+

(a) [Xe] 4f 75d1 (b) [Xe] 5 f 145d1

(c) [Xe] 4f 145d1 (d) [Xe] 5f 146d2

22 Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe2+

(a) Fe2+ has stable d5 configuration

(b) Mn2+ has stable d5 configuration

(c) Fe2+ has vacant d- orbitals

(d) Mn2+ has vacant d – orbitals

23 +2 oxidation state becomes more and more stable in the first half
of the first row teansition elements

(a) Third ionization enthalpy of these metal is very high

(b) M2+ ions has High Hydration enthalpy

(c) More and more of d – orbitals are half filled

(d) none of the above

24 Oqmetal anions / oxides of the first series of the transition metals

in which the metal exhibit the oxidation state equal to its group
number

(a) MnO 24  (b) Cr2 O 72 

(c) MnO2 (d) Mn3O4

25 The most common oxidation state state of Lanthanoids is:

(a) +2 (b) +4

(c) +3 (d) +1

26 Transition metals and their compounds acts as good catralyst

(a) due to presence of vacant d – orbitals

(b) due to variable oxidation states

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Chemistry

(c) Transition metals have large surface area

(d) Due to presence of unpaired electrons

27 Out of the following oxides of transition metals which one is

amphoteric

(a) Mn2O7 (b) CrO3

(c) V2O5 (d) V2O3

28 Potassium dichromate K2Cr2O7 has a very important use in

leather industry

(a) As an oxidant for the preparation of many azo compounds

(b) As an oxidant for the preparation of carboxylic acids

(c) For the bleaching of leather

(d) It does not have any use in leather in dustry

29 The structure of chromate ion, and dichromate ion are

(a) Tetrahedral and octahedral respectively

(b) Octahedral and octahedral respectively
(c) Two tetrahedra shairing one oxygen atom
(d) Tetrahedral and two tetrahedra shairing one oxygen atom
respectively

30 Potassium per manganate (KMnO4) is used as

(a) Favourite oxidant (b) Bleaching of wood, cotton, silk

(c) decalourising of oils (d) All the above

31 The chemistry of actinoids is much more complicated due to

(a) only one oxidation state and partly because of their

radioactivity

(b) Wide range of a oxidation state and partly because of their

radioactivity

(c) due to vacant f – orbitals

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Chemistry

(d) actinoids have almost same size

32 The radii of the members of the third transition series to be very

similar to those of the corresponding elements of the second series
is due to

(a) Actinoid contraction

(b) Lanthanoid contraction

(c) due to poor shielding effect of 3d electrons

(d) due to poor shielding effect of 4d electrons

33 The colour of CuCr2O7 solution in water is green because

(a) Cr2O 72  ions are green

(b) Cu2+ ions are green

(c) both ions are green

(d) Cu2+ ions are blue and Cr2O 72  ions are yellow

34 Which oxide of Mn is acidic in Nature

(a) MnO (b) Mn2 O7

(c) Mn2O3 (d) MnO2

35 Which transition metal exhibit +8 oxidation state

(a) Cu, 2n (b) Ru, Os

(c) Ag, Au (d) Cu, Cr

36 Which alloy contains Cu and Zn?

(a) Bronze (b) Solder

(c) Gun onetal (d) Type metal

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Chemistry

37 Which is /are the properties of Interstial compounds of transition

metals

(a) They have high melting points

(b) They are very hard

(c) They are chemically inert

(d) all of above

38 Lightest transition elements is

(a) Fe (b) Sc

(c) Os (d) Co

39 Which metal has highest melting point?

(a) Pt (b) W

(c) Pd (d) Au

40 Which has the lowest melting point?

(a) Cs (b) Na

(c) Hg (d) Sn

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 ®

Chemistry

Answer key

1 c 2 d 3 4 d 5 d

6 a 7 c 8 9 b 10 b

11 d 12 b 13 d 14 b 15 a

16 b 17 b 18 19 20 c

21 c 22 b 23 c 24 b 25 c

26 c 27 c 28 a 29 30

31 b 32 b 33 d 34 b 35 b

36 c 37 38 b 39 b 40 c

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 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Coordination Compounds
1 Which of the following has secondary Valancies is four.

(a) [Ni(H2O)6] Cl2 (b) H2[PtCl2]

(c) [CO(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (d) [Pt (NH3)2cl2]

2 What is IUPAC name of the following co-ordination compound

Hg[CO(SCN)4].

(a) Mercury trioxalato chromate (III)

(b) Mercury trioxalato chromate (II)

(c) Mercury tetra thiocyanato cobaltate (II)

(d) Mercury tetra Isocyanato cobaltate (II)

3 Out of the following coordination ontities, which is chiral (Optically

active)

(a) Cis-[CrCl2(Ox)2]3- (b) trans- [CrCl2(ox)2]3-

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

4 The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr2]2- is 5.9 B.M. The

geometry of the complex ion is

(a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral

(c) Square pyramidal (d) Cannot predicted

5 What is the formula of Dichlorido bis(ethane-1,2-diamine)

Platinum (iv)Nitrate

(a) [PtCl2(en)] (NO3)2 (b) [PtCl2(en)2](NO3)2

(c) [Ptcl2(en)2](NO3)3 (d) [Ptcl(en)2] (NO3)3

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Chemistry
6 Which of the following show optical Isomerism

(a) K[Cr(H2O)2 (C2O4)2] (b) [co(NH3)5(NO2)]

(c) [Pt(NH3) (H2O)] (d) None of above

7 Which of the following will show ionization isomerism?

(a) K[Cr(H2O)2 (C2O2)] (b) [CO(NH3)5 (NO2)] (NO3)2

(c) [CO(en)3]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)Cl2]

8 Which of the following will show linkage Isomerism?

(a) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 (b) [Co(NH3)5SO4]

(c) [Co(NH3)5NO2](NO3)2 (d) [CO(en)3]Cl3

9 Co-ordination ions [Ni(CN)4]2- and [NiCl4]2- have

(a) Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic and Square planar, diamagnetic

(b) Square Planar, diamagnetic and Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic

(c) Tetrahedral, diamagnetic and square Planar, diamagnetic

(d) Square Planar, Paramagnetic and tetrahedral, Paramagnetic

10 [Ni(CO)4] is

(a) Tetrahedral and paramagnetic

(b) Tetrahedral and diamagnetic

(c) Square planar and paramagnetic

(d) Square planar and diamagnetic

11 Complex ions [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is

(a) Outer orbital complex and inner orbital complex

(b) Inner orbital complex and outer orbital complex

(c) Both are outer orbital complexes.

(d) Both are inner orbital complexes.

Page 2
 ®

Chemistry
12 No of Unparied electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)4]2- ion.

(a) Two (b) Three

(c) Four (d) Five

13 The over all complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the

[Cu(NH3)4]2+ ion, given that β4 for this complex is 2.1x1013

(a) 4.7x1014 (b)4.7x10-14

(c)5.2x10-14 (d)5.2x1014

14 Which of the following an example of ambidentate ligand

(a) COO- (b) CH2 – NH2

COO- CH2 – NH2

(c) CN (d) O H

15 The Oxidation numbers of the metal in [CoBr2(en)2]+

(a) +1 (b) +2

(c) +3 (d) +4

16 How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following

coordination entities [Cr(C2O 4)3]3- and [CoCl3(NH3)3]

(a) Nil and three (b) Nil and two

(c) Two and Nil (d) Two and Two

17 Nature of bonding in [ Fe(CN)6]4-

(a) d2sp3, octahedral, diamagnetic

(b) sp3d2, octahedral, diamagnetic

(c) d2 sp3, octahedral, paramagnetic

(d) d2sp3, octahedral, paramagnetic

Page 3
 ®

Chemistry
18 Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) [Ni (H2O)6]2+ is colourless while [Ni (CN)4]2- is green

(b) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green while [Ni (CN)4]2-colourless

(c) Both are green

(d) Both are colourless.

19 The spin only magnetic moment of the complex: K[Cr(H2O)-

2(C2O4)2].3 H2O.

(a) 1.732B.M (b) 3.0B.M

(c) 3.87B.M (d) 2.828 B.M

20 Which of the following is chelate?

(a) K4 [Mn(CN)6] (b) Cs [FeCl4]

(c) [PtCl2 (en)] (d) K4[Fe (CN)6]

21 How many ions are produced from the complex [CO (NH3)6]Cl2 in
solution

(a) 6 (b) 4

(c) 3 (d) 2

22 Among the following ions, which one has highest magnetic

moment

(a) [Cr (H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe (H2O)6]2+

(c) [Zn (H2O)6]2+ (d) [Ni (CO)4]

23 Among the following , the stable complex is

(a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(NH3)6]3+

(c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3- (d) [Fe Cl6]3-

Page 4
 ®

Chemistry
24 In the formation of K4 [Fe(CN)6] the hybridization involved is

(a) sp3d3 (b) d2 sp3

(a) d3 sp3 (b) dsp2

25 Which of the following is π – acid ligand

(a) NH3 (b) CO

(c) F (d) ethylene diamine

26 The correct structure of Fe (CO)5 is

(a) Octahedral (b) tetrahedral

(c) Square pyramidal (d) Trigonal bipyramidal

27 Which of the following shall form an octahedral complex?

(a) d4 (low spin) (b) d8 (high spin)

(c) d6 (low spin) (d) all of above

28 Fe2 (CO)9 is diamagnetic. Which of the following is the correct

reason?

(a) one Co is present as bridge group

(b) Co is a π – accepter ligand

(c) Co can form π- pond with Fe by back bonding

(d) metal – metal (Fe - Fe) bonding takes place

29 Which of the following does not obey EAN rule?

(a) [Cu (NH3)4]2+ (b) [Zn (OH)4] 2 –

(c) [Hg I4] 2 – (d) Fe (CO)5

30 Complexes with halides are generally

(a) low spin complexes (b) High spin complexes

(c) both a and b (d) neither a and b

Page 5
 ®

Chemistry
31 In Fe(CO)5, The Fe – C bond possesses

(a) gonic character (b)  – Character only

(c) π – character only (d) both  and π bond

32 How many EDTA molecules are required to make an octahedral

complex with a Ca2+ion?

(a) one (b) two

(c) six (d) three

33 Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give

(a) [Cu (CN)4]2- (b) Cu (CN)2

(c) CuCN (d) [Cu(CN)4]3-

34 Among the following, the species having square planar geometry

for central atom are

(i) XeF4 (ii) SF4

(iii) [NiCl4]2- (iv) [Pt Cl4]2-

(a) i and iv (b) i and ii

(c) ii and iii (d) iii and iv

35 The increasing order of the crystal field splitting power of some

common legends is

(a) H2O < OH  C l  F  CN (b) H2O < C l  O H  CN  F

(c) C l  F  OH  H 2 O  CN (d) F  CN  O H  C l  H 2O

36 The primary and secondary valancies of chromium in the complex

ion, dichlordio oxalato chromium (III) are respectively

(a) 3,4 (b) 4,3

(c) 3,6 (d) 6,3

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 ®

Chemistry
37 The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is the highest for

(a) [COF4]2- (b) [CO(NCS)4]2-

(c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [CoCl4]2-

38 What is (are) number (s) of unpaired electrons in the square

planar [Pt (CN)4]2-ions

(a) zero (b) 1

(c) 4 (d) 6

39 The IUPAC name of [CO (NH3)5(ONO)]2+ ion is

(a) Pentaamine nitrocobalt (III) ion

(b) Pentaamine nitritocobalt (III) ion

(c) Pentaammine nitrocobalt (IV) ion

(d) Pentaammine nitritocobalt (IV) ion

40 The non – existent metal carbonyl among the following

(a) Cr (CO)6 (b) Mn (CO)5

(c) Ni (CO)4 (d) Fe (CO)5

Page 7
 ®

Chemistry
Answer key

1 d 2 c 3 4 b 5 b

6 a 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 a

11 b 12 a 13 b 14 c 15 c

16 b 17 a 18 b 19 c 20

21 c 22 b 23 c 24 b 25 b

26 d 27 c 28 d 29 a 30 b

31 d 32 a 33 d 34 a 35 c

36 c 37 c 38 a 39 b 40 b

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 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Alcohols, Ketones and Ethers
1. Glycerol is a
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Monohydric alcohol
(c) Secondary alcohol (d) Trihydric alcohol
2. Which of following is phenolic
(a) Phthalic acid (b) Phosphoric acid
(c) Picric acid (d) Phenylacetic acid
3. An example of a compound with the functional group 'O' is
(a) Acetic acid (b) Methyl alcohol
(c) Diethyl ether (d) Acetone
4. Which of the following are known as mercaptans
(a)Thio-alcohols (b) Thio-ethers
(c) Thio-acids (d) Thio-aldehydes
5. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by
(a) Permanganate oxidation (b) Catalytic reduction
(c) Absorbing in H2 SO4 followed by hydrolysis (d) Fermentation
6. Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of the RMgX
with
(a) CO2 (b) HCHO
(c) CH3CHO (d) H2O

7. An organic compound dissolved in dry benzene evolved hydrogen on

treatment with sodium. It is
(a) A ketone (b) An aldehyde
(c) A tertiary amine (d) An alcohol
8. When an alkyl halide is allowed to react with a sodium alkoxide the
product most likely is
(a) An aldehyde (b) A ketone
(c) An ether (d) A carboxylic acid
9. Which of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with
sodium hydroxide
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Glucose (d) Acetic acid

Page 1
 ®

Chemistry
10. Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting
(a) Phenolate ions and methyl iodide
(b) Methoxide ions and bromobenzene
(c) Methanol and phenol
(d) Bromo benzene and methyl bromide
11. The strongest acid among the following aromatic compounds is
(a) ortho-nitrophenol (b) para-chlorophenol
(c) para-nitrophenol (d) meta-nitrophenol

12. When glycerine is added to a litre of water which of the following

behaviour is observed
(a) Water evaporates more easily
(b) The temperature of water is increased
(c) The freezing point of water is lowered
(d) The viscosity of water is lowered
13. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation forms
(a) Acetone (b) Ether
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetaldehyde
14. Ethylene glycol, on oxidation with per-iodic acid, gives
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Glycol
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Glycollic acid
15. Cresol has
(a) Alcoholic – OH (b) Phenolic – OH
(c) – COOH (d) – CHO
16. 23 g of Na will react with methyl alcohol to give
(a) One mole of oxygen (b) One mole of H 2
1
(c) 2
mole of H 2 (d) None of these
17. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to prepare methyl
ethyl ketone
(a) 2 - propanol (b) 1 - butanol
(c) 2 - butanol (d) Tert-butyl alcohol
18. Primary alcohols on dehydration give
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkanes
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

Page 2
 ®

Chemistry
19. Azo-dyes are prepared from
(a) Aniline (b) Benzaldehye
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Phenol
20. Compound ‘A’ reacts with PCl5 to give ‘B’ which on treatment with
KCN followed by hydrolysis gave propanoic acid as the product. What
is ‘A’
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
(c) Ethyl chloride (d) Ethyl alcohol
21. The boiling point of glycerol is more than propanol because of
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Hybridisation
(c) Resonance (d) All the above
22. Which of the following is not true in case of reaction with heated
copper at 300 o C
(a) Phenol  Benzyl alcohol (b) Primary alcohol  Aldehyde
(c) Secondary alcohol  Ketone (d) Tertiary alcohol  Olefin
23. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than that of
(a) Propane (b) Formic acid
(c) Dimethyl ether (d) None of these
24. Among the following, the compound that undergoes nitration readily
is
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Toluene
(c) Phenol (d) Nitrobenzene
25. Phenol on distillation with zinc dust gives
(a) C6 H6 (b) C6 H12
(c) C6 H5 OC6 H5 (d) C6 H5  C6 H5

26. The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on
dehydration is
CH 3
|
(a) CH 3  CH
|
 CH 2 OH (b) CH 3  C  OH
|
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3
|
(c) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH2OH (d) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3

27. In esterification of an acid, the other reagent is

(a) Aldehyde (b) Alcohol
(c) Amine (d) Water

Page 3
 ®

Chemistry
28. The compound which will give negative iodoform test is
(a) CH3 CHO (b) CH3 CH2OH
(c) Isopropyl alcohol (d) Benzyl alcohol
29. Which of the following is most acidic
(a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) m-chlorophenol (d) Cyclohexanol
30. In which of the following reaction, phenol or sodium phenoxide is
not formed
(a) C6 H5 N2Cl  alco. KOH  (b) C6 H5 OCl  NaOH 
(c) C6 H5 N2Cl  aq. NaOH  (d) H 2O
C6 H5 NNCl  


31. Dimethyl ether when heated with excess HI gives

(a) CH3 I and CH3 OH (b) CH3 I and H 2 O
(c) C2 H6  CH3 I and CH3 OH (d) CH3 I and HCHO

32. Which of the following will not react with NaOH

OH
O2 N NO2

(a) NO2 (b) C2 H5 OH

(c) CH3CONH2 (d) CH(CN)3

33. Which of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating
with an alkaline solution of iodine
(a) CH3OH (b) CH3CH2OH
(c) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (d) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3

34. At 530 K, glycerol reacts with oxalic acid to produce

(a) Allyl alcohol (b) Formic acid
(c) Glyceraldehyde (d) Glycerol monooxalate

35. Which of the following compound give yellow precipitate with I2 and
NaOH
(a) CH3OH (b) CH3CH2CH2OH
(c) C2 H5OC2 H5 (d) CH3CH2OH

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 ®

Chemistry
36. Which of the following react with benzoic acid to form ethyl
benzoate
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Cinnamic acid
(c) Sodium ethoxide (d) Ethyl chloride

37. Which of the following is used as catalyst for preparing Grignard

reagent
(a) Iron powder (b) Dry ether
(c) Activated charcoal (d) MnO2

38. Dehydration of 2-butanol yield

(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butene
(c) 2-butyne (d) Both (a) and (b)

39. On reaction with hot conc. H2 SO4 , which one of the following
compounds loses a molecule of water
(a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3 COOH

(c) CH3OCH3 (d) CH3 CH2 OH

40. Reaction of phenol with chloroform/sodium hydroxide to give o-

hydroxy benzaldehyde involves the formation of
(a)Dichloro carbene (b) Trichloro carbene
(c) Chlorine atoms (d) Chlorine molecules

41. Which is not correct

(a) Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid
(b)Ethanol is less acidic than phenol
(c) Ethanol has lower boiling point than ethane
(d)Ethyne is a non-linear molecule
42. In cold countries ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators
to
(a) Bring down the specific heat of water
(b)Lower the viscosity
(c) Reduce the viscosity
(d)Make water a better lubricant

Page 5
 ®

Chemistry
Answer Key

1 D 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 C

6 B 7 D 8 C 9 A 10 A

11 C 12 C 13 A 14 C 15 B

16 A 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D

21 A 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 A

26 B 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 B

31 B 32 B 33 A 34 A 35 D

36 A 37 B 38 D 39 D 40 A

41 A 42 A

Page 6
 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Aldehydes, Ketones and Car boxylic Acids
(Part A and B)
1. Which of the following compounds does not contain an OH group

(a) Phenol (b) Carboxylic acid

(c) Aldehydes (d) Alcohols

2. What is the compound called if remaining two valencies of a

carbonyl group are satisfied by two alkyl groups
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
(c) Acid (d) Acid chloride

3. Acetophenone is prepared from

(a) Rosenmund reaction (b) Sandmayer reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Friedel craft reaction

4. Ketones (R  C  R1 )
||
where R  R1  alkyl group. It can be obtained in one
O
step by
(a) Hydrolysis of esters
(b) Oxidation of primary alcohol
(c) Oxidation of secondary alcohol
(d) Reaction of acid halide with alcohols

5. Predict the product ‘B’ in the sequence of reaction

30% H2SO4 NaOH
HC  CH  A 
 B
HgSO4

(a) CH3COONa (b) CH3COOH

(c) CH3CHO (d) CH 3  CH
|
 CH 2CHO
OH

6. Dry heating of calcium acetate gives

(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Ethane
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetone

Page 1
 ®

Chemistry

7. Which of the following compound gives a ketone with Grignard

reagent
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Methyl cyanide (d) Methyl iodide

8. CH3COCH 3 can be obtained by

(a) Heating acetaldehyde with methanol
(b) Oxidation of propyl alcohol
(c) Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol
(d) Reduction of propionic acid

9. Glycerol reacts with potassium bisulphate to produce

(a) Allyl iodide (b) Allyl sulphate
(c) Acryl aldehyde (d) Glycerol trisulphate

10. The reagent used in Gatterman Koch aldehyde synthesis is

(a) Pb / BaSO4 (b) alkaline KMnO4
(c) acidic KMnO4 (d) CO  HCl

11. When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the

product (s) obtained is (are)

OH
(a) OH
CH –
CH
O COO  O CH2OH
(b) +
H H
O COO  O CH2OH
(c) +
H H
Cl Cl
(d) OH
OH
CH –
CH
C C
l l

Page 2
 ®

Chemistry
12. A and B in the following reactions are
B R OH
R  C  R  HCN
 A 
 C
|| KCN R CH 2 NH 2
O
CN OH
(a) A  RR' C , B  LiAlH4 (b) A  RR' C , B  NH3
OH COOH
CN
(c) A  RR' C , B  H 3 O (d) A  RR' CH2CN, B  NaOH
OH

13. Reduction of Aldehydes and Ketones to hydrocarbon take place in

the presence of
(a) Zn amalgam and HCl acid (b) Pd / BaSO4
(c) Anhydrous AlCl3 (d) Ni/Pt

14. Which of the following is incorrect

(a) FeCl3 is used in the detection of phenols
(b) Fehling solution is used in the detection of glucose
(c) Tollen’s reagent is used in detection of unsaturation
(d) NaHSO3 is used in the detection of carbonyl compounds

15. Which of the following gives aldol condensation reaction

O
||
(a) C6 H5OH (b) C6 H5  C  C6 H5
O O
|| ||
(c) CH 3 CH 2  C  CH 3 (d) (CH 3 )3 C  C  CH 3

16. Which of the following compound will undergo self aldol

condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali
(a) C6 H5 CHO (b) CH3CH2CHO
(c) CH  C  CHO (d) CH2  CH  CHO
17. Which of the following will not give iodoform test
(a) Ethanal (b) Ethanol
(c) 2-propanone (d) 3-pentanone

18. Acetaldehyde reacts with C2H5 MgCl the final product is

(a) An aldehyde (b) A ketone
(c) A primary alcohol (d) A secondary alcohol

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 ®

Chemistry
19. Aldol condensation of acetaldehyde involves the formation of which
of the following intermediate
(a) Acetate ion (b) A carbanion
(c) A carbonium ion (d) A free radical

20. One mole of an organic compound requires 0.5 mole of oxygen to

produce an acid. The compound may be
(a) Alcohol (b) Ether
(c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde

21. Aldehydes can be oxidised by

(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Fehling solution
(c) Benedict solution (d) All of these

22. CH3CH  CHCHO is oxidised to CH3CH  CHCOOH using

(a) Alkaline KMnO4 (b) Selenium dioxide
(c) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (d) All of these
23. Acetaldehyde reacts with
(a) Electrophiles only
(b) Nucleophiles only
(c) Free radicals only
(d) Both electrophiles and nucleophiles
24. The typical reactions of aldehyde is
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Nucleophilic substitution
(c) Nucleophilic addition (d) Nucleophilic elimination
25. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give urotropine. The formula
of urotropine is
(a) (CH2)6 N4 (b) (CH2)4 N3
(c) (CH2)6 N6 (d) (CH2)3 N3

26. Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished by

(a) Molisch test (b) Bromoform test
(c) Solubility in water (d) Tollen's test

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 ®

Chemistry
27. When CH3COCH3 reacts with Cl 2 and NaOH, which of the following is
formed
(a) CHCl3 (b) CCl4
(c) CCl2 H 2 (d) CH3Cl
28. Which gives difference between aldehyde and ketone
(a) Fehling's solution (b) Tollen's reagent
(c) Schiff's reagent (d) Benedict's solution
(e) All of these
29. An aldehyde on oxidation gives
(a) An alcohol (b) An acid
(c) A ketone (d) An ether

30. Which of the following products is obtained by the oxidation of

propionaldehyde
(a) Acetic acid (b) Formic acid and acetic acid
(c) Propanoic acid (d) n-propyl alcohol

31. Glucose + Tollen's reagent  Silver mirror shows

(a) Presence of acidic group (b) Presence of alkaline group
(c) Presence of ketonic group (d) Presence of aldehyde group

32. Phenylmethanol can be prepared by reducing the benzaldehyde with

(a) CH3 Br (b) Zn and HCl
(c) CH3 Br and Na (d) CH3 I and Mg

33. The compound which reacts with Fehling solution is

(a) C6H5COOH (b) HCOOH
(c) C6 H5CHO (d) CH2ClCH3

34. The aldehyde which react with NaOH to produce an alcohol and
sodium salt is
(a) HCHO (b) CH3 CHO
(c) CH3 CH2 CHO (d) CH3CH2CH2CHO

Page 5
 ®

Chemistry
35. Which of the following react with NaHSO3

(a) CH3 COCH3 (b) CH3 CHO

(c) HCHO (d) All of these

36. Fehling solution is

(a) CuSO4 + lime (b) CuSO4  NaOH(aq)
(c) CuSO4  Na2 CO3 (d) None of these

37. Wolf kishner reduction, reduces

(a) COOH group (b) C  C – group
(c) CHO group (d) O  group

38. Fats and oils are mixture of

(a) Glycerides and saturated fatty acids
(b) Glycerides and unsaturated fatty acids
(c) Glycerides of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids
(d) Only saturated and unsaturated fatty acids

39. Which one is not a glyceride

(a) Fat (b) Oil
(c) Phospholipid (d) Soaps

40. Which compound is known as oil of winter green

(a)Phenyl benzoate (b) Phenyl salicylate
(c) Phenyl acetate (d) Methyl salicylate

41. Acetoacetic ester behaves as

(a) An unsaturated hydroxy compound
(b) A keto compound
(c) Both of these ways
(d) None of these

42. Wax are long chain compounds belonging to the class

(a) Acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Esters (d) Ethers

Page 6
 ®

Chemistry
43. The general formula for monocarboxylic acids is
(a) CnHnCOOH (b) CnH2n1COOH
(c) CnH2n1COOH (d) CnH2nO2

44. Number of oxygen atoms in a acetamide molecule is

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
45. Urea is
(a) Monoacidic base (b) Diacidic base
(c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric

46. Fats and oils are

(a) Acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Esters (d) Hydrocarbons
47. Oleic, stearic and palmitic acids are
(a) Nucleic acids (b) Amino acids
(c) Fatty acids (d) None of these

48. Which of these do not contain COOH group

(a) Aspirin (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Picric acid (d) Salicylic acid

49. The most acidic of the following is

(a) ClCH2COOH (b) C6 H5COOH
(c) CD3COOH (d) CH3CH2COOH
50. Which is most reactive of the following
(a) Ethyl acetate (b) Acetic anhydride
(c) Acetamide (d) Acetyl chloride

51. Acetic acid is obtained when

(a) Methyl alcohol is oxidised with potassium permanganate
(b) Calcium acetate is distilled in the presence of calcium formate
(c) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with potassium dichromate and
sulphuric acid
(d) Glycerol is heated with sulphuric acid

Page 7
 ®

Chemistry
52. Acetic acid is manufactured by the fermentation of
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(c) Ethanal (d) Methanal

53. In the above sequence of reactions A and B are


NaCN H3O
(CH 3 )2 CO   A   B

( HCl) 

(a) (CH3 )2 C(OH)CN, (CH3 )2 C(OH)COOH (b) (CH3 )2 C(OH)CN, (CH3 )2 C(OH)2

(c) (CH3 )2 C(OH)CN, (CH3 )2 CHCOOH (d) (CH3 )2 C(OH)CN, (CH3 )2 C  O

54. Formic acid is obtained when

(a) Calcium acetate is heated with conc. H 2 SO4

(b) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate

(c) Glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 110 o C
(d) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4

55. The acid formed when propyl magnesium bromide is treated with
carbon dioxide is
(a) C3H7COOH (b) C2H5COOH
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

56. When succinic acid is heated, product formed is

(a) Succinic anhydride (b) Acetic acid
(c) CO2 and methane (d) Propionic acid

57. The compound X, in the reaction, is

CH3 MgI hydrolysis
X  Y 
 Mg(OH)I  CH 3 COOH

(a) CH3 CHO (b) CO2

(c) (CH3 )2 CO (d) HCHO

58. NaNO2 / HCl

CH 3 CONH 2     X

(a) CH3 COOH (b) CH 3 CO N H3 Cl 
(c) CH3 NH2 (d) CH3 CHO

Page 8
 ®

Chemistry
59. Acetic acid will be obtained on oxidation of
(a) Ethanol (b) Propanal
(c) Methanal (d) Glyoxal

60. What will happen if LiAlH4 is added to an ester

(a) Two units of alcohol are obtained
(b) One unit of alcohol and one unit of acid is obtained
(c) Two units of acids are obtained
(d) None of these
61. Which of the following is the strongest acid
(a) CH3COOH (b) BrCH2COOH
(c) ClCH2COOH (d) FCH2COOH

62. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because

(a) It decompose on increasing temperature
(b) It has less degree of ionisation
(c) It has – COOH group
(d) None of these

63. Which decolourises the colour of acidic KMnO4

(a) CH3 COOH (b) CH3CH2COOH

(c) COOH. COOH (d) CH3COOC2 H5

64. Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis when dissolved in

water
(a) CH3COONa (b) CH3CONH2
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) C6H5CH3

65. HCOOH shows all tests of aldehyde because

(a) It has one aldehyde group
(b) It is member of aldehyde
(c) All acids show tests of aldehyde
(d) Does not show any test

Page 9
 ®

Chemistry
66. Which one of the following orders of acid strength is correct
(a) RCOOH  HC  CH  HOH  ROH (b) RCOOH  ROH  HOH  HC  CH
(c) RCOOH  HOH  ROH  HC  CH (d) RCOOH  HOH  HC  CH  ROH

67. The order of decreasing rate of reaction with ammonia is

(a) Anhydrides, esters, ethers (b) Anhydrides, ethers, esters
(c) Ethers, anhydrides, esters (d) Esters, ethers, anhydrides
68. The principal organic product formed in the following reaction is
peroxide
CH 2  CH (CH 2 )8 COOH  HBr  

(a) CH3 CHBr(CH2 )8 COOH (b) CH2  CH(CH2 )8 COBr

(c) CH2 BrCH2 (CH2 )8 COOH (d) CH2  CH(CH2 )7 CHBrCOOH

69. Which one of the following orders is wrong with respect to the
property indicated
(a) Formic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid (acid strength)
(b) Fluoroacetic acid > chloroacetic acid > bromoacetic acid (acid
strength)
(c) Benzoic acid > phenol > cyclohexanol (acid strength)
(d) Aniline > cyclohexylamine > benzamide (basic strength)

70. An aqueous solution of urea

(a) Is neutral (b) Is acidic
(c) Is basic (d) Can act as an acid and a base

71. Which one of the following has the maximum acid strength
(a) o-nitrobenzoic acid (b) m-nitrobenzoic acid
(c) p-nitrobenzoic acid (d) p-nitrophenol

72. Benedict’s solution is not reduced by

(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Glucose (d) Acetic anhydride
73. Acetic acid reacts with PCl5 to form
(a) CH3COCl (b) CHCl2COOH
(c) CH2ClCOOH (d) CH3COOCl

Page 10
 ®

Chemistry
74. Urea upon hydrolysis yields
(a) Acetamide (b) Carbonic acid
(c) Ammonium hydroxide (d) NO2

HCN HOH
75. CH 3 CHO  A  B. The product B is
(a) Malonic acid (b) Glycolic acid
(c) Lactic acid (d) Malic acid

76. In a set reactions acid yielded a product D

SOCl2 Benzene HCN HOH
CH 3 COOH 
 A  B  C  D.
Anhr . AlCl3

(a) OH
|
(b) COOH

C  COOH CH 2  C  CH 3
| 
CH 3 OH
OH CN
(c)  (d) |
CH 2  C  CH 3 C  C H3
 |
CN OH
H
|
77. C6 H5CHO  HCN  C6 H5  C  CN
|
OH

The product would be

(a) A racemate (b) Optically active
(c) A meso compound (d) A mixture of diastereomers

78. A carboxylic acid is converted into its anhydride using

(a) Thionyl chloride (b) Sulphur chloride
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Phosphorus pentoxide

79. To which of the following groups does soap belongs

(a) Esters
(b) Amines
(c) Salts of organic higher fatty acids
(d) Aldehydes

Page 11
 ®

Chemistry
Answer Key

1 C 2 B 3 D 4 C 5 D

6 D 7 C 8 C 9 C 10 D

11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 C

16 B 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 D

21 D 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 A

26 D 27 A 28 E 29 B 30 C

31 D 32 B 33 B 34 A 35 D

36 D 37 C 38 C 39 D 40 D

41 C 42 C 43 B,D 44 A 45 A

46 C 47 C 48 C 49 A 50 D

51 C 52 A 53 A 54 C 55 A

56 A 57 B 58 A 59 A 60 A

61 D 62 B 63 C 64 C 65 A

66 C 67 B 68 C 69 D 70 A

71 A 72 D 73 A 74 B 75 C

76 A 77 B 78 D 79 C

Page 12
 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Hydrocarbons
1 Which of the following halide is 2 o
(a) Isopropyl chloride (b) Isobutyl chloride
(c) n-propyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
2. The general formula for alkyl halides is
(a) Cn H2n1 X (b) Cn H2n2 X
(c) Cn Hn1 X (d) Cn H2n X
3 Halogenation of alkanes is
(a) A reductive process (b) An oxidative process
(c) An isothermal process (d) An indothermal process
4 Silver acetate  Br2  . The main product of this reaction is
2CS

(a) CH3  Br (b) CH3COI

(c) CH3COOH (d) None of these
Cl

5 Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by

(a) Raschig process (b) Wurtz Fitting reaction
(c) Friedel-Craft’s reaction (d) Grignard reaction
6 Which compound does not form iodoform with alkali and iodine
(a) Acetone (b) Ethanol
(c) Diethyl ketone (d) Isopropyl alcohol
7 Acetone reacts with I 2 in presence of NaOH to form
(a) C2 H5 I (b) C2 H4 I 2
(c) CHI3 (d) CH3 I
8 C6 H5Cl prepared by aniline with
(a) HCl
(b) Cu2Cl 2
(c) Cl 2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl3

(d) HNO2 and then heated with Cu2Cl 2

9 The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with chloral in
the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid, is
(a) Freon (b) DDT
(c) Gammexene (d) Hexachloroethane

Page 1
 ®

Chemistry
10 Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
(c) n-butane (d) n-pentane
11 Phosgene is the common name for
(a) CO2 and PH3 (b) Phosphoryl chloride
(c) Carbonyl chloride (d) Carbon tetrachloride
12 Grignard reagent is prepared by the reaction between
(a) Zinc and alkyl halide
(b) Magnesium and alkyl halide
(c) Magnesium and alkane
(d) Magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
13 If we use pyrene (CCl4 ) in the Riemer-Tiemann reaction in place of
chloroform, the product formed is
(a) Salicylaldehyde (b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Salicylic acid (d) Cyclohexanol
14 Benzyl chloride when oxidised by pb(NO3 )2 gives
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Benzene (d) None
15 CCl4 cannot give precipitate with AgNO3 due to
(a) Formation of complex with AgNO3
(b) Evolution of Cl2 gas
(c) Chloride ion is not formed
(d) AgNO3 does not give silver ion
16 Ethyl bromide reacts with silver nitrite to form
(a) Nitroethane (b) Nitroethane and ethyl nitrite
(c) Ethyl nitrite (d) Ethane
17 Which of the following reactions leads to the formation of
chloritone
(a) CHCl3  CH3COCH3 (b) CCl4  Acetone
(c) CHCl3  KOH (d) CHCl3  HNO3
18 A  CCl4  KOH  Salicylic acid, ‘A’ in above reaction is

OH NO2
(a) (b)

CHO

(c) (d)

Page 2
 ®

Chemistry
OH
O  C2 H 5
 C2 H5 I   Product
Anhydrous (C H OH )
2 5

19
In the above reaction product is
(a) C6 H5OC2 H5 (b) C2 H5OC2 H5
(c) C6 H5OC6 H5 d) C6 H5 I

20 Which isomer of cyclohexane hexachloride is a very strong

insecticide
(a)  (b) 
(c)  (d) 
21 The set of compounds in which the reactivity of halogen atom in
the ascending order is
(a) Vinyl chloride, chlorethane, chlorobenzene
(b) Vinyl chloride, chlorobenzene, chloroethane
(c) Chloroethane, chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride
(d) Chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride chloroethane
22 In the following sequence of reactions
KOH(alc)
CH 3CH 2CH 2 Br  HBr
( A) (B)   (C), The product (C) is
KOH (aq.)

(a) Propan – 2 - ol (b) Propan – l – ol

(c) Propyne (d) Propene
23 When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the product formed is
(a) CH3  CH  CH2 (b) CH3  C  CH
(c) CH3 CH2 CH(NH2 )(Cl) (d) CH3CH2C(NH2)2
24 In alkaline hydrolysis of a tertiary alkyl halide by aqueous alkali if
concentration of alkali is doubled, then the reaction
(a) Will be doubled (b) Will be halved
(c) Will remain constant (d) Can’t say
25 Which of the following gases are poisonous
(a) CHCl3 (b) CO2
(c) None of these (d) CO
26 Allyl chloride on dehydro chlorination gives
(a) Propadiene (b) Propylene
(c) Acetylchloride (d) Acetone

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 ®

Chemistry
27 Toluene reacts with excess of Cl2 in presence of sunlight to give a
product which on hydrolysis followed by reaction with NaOH gives

COOH COONa
(a) (b)
COONa
(c) N (d) None of these
a
27 The reaction of an aeromatic halogen compound with an alkyl
halides in presence of sodium and ether is called
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(c) Wurtz-fittig reaction (d) Kolbe reaction
28 The reaction of an aeromatic halogen compound with an alkyl
halides in presence of sodium and ether is called
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(c) Wurtz-fittig reaction (d) Kolbe reaction
29 Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of
(a) Chlorine on picric acid
(b) Nitric acid on chloroform
(c) Steam on carbon tetrachloride
(d) Nitric acid on chlorobenzene
30 Reaction of alkyl halides with aromatic compounds in presence of
anhydrous AlCl3 is known as
(a) Friedal-Craft reaction (b) Hofmann degradation
(c) Kolbe’s synthesis (d) Beckmann rearrangement
31 Bottles containing C6 H5 I and C6 H5CH2I lost their original labels. They
were labelled A and B for testing. A and B were separately taken in
test tubes and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in each
tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution
was added. Substance B give a yellow precipitate. Which one of the
following statements is true for this experiment
(a) A was C6 H5 I
(b) A was C6 H5CH2I
(c) B was C6 H5 I
(d) Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary

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 ®

Chemistry
32 The major product formed in the following reaction is
CH 3
|
CH3 O
CH 3  C  CH 2 Br  
| CH3 OH
H
CH 3
|
(a) CH 3  C  CH 2 OCH 3
|
(b) CH3  C H  CH 2 CH3
|
H OCH3
CH 3 CH 3
| |
(c) CH 3  C  CH 2 (d) CH 3  C  CH 3
|
OCH 3

33 Which of these can be used as moth repellant

(a) Benzene hexachloride (b) Benzal chloride
(c) Hexachloroethane (d) Tetrachloroethane
34 Iodoform can be used as
(a) Anaesthetic (b) Antiseptic
(c) Analgesic (d) Antifebrin
35 Which of the following is an anaesthetic
(a) C2 H4 (b) CHCl3
(c) CH3 Cl (d) C2 H5 OH
36 CFx Cl y [where x + y = 4]. These compounds are not used because
(a) These are fluoro carbons
(b) These are difficult to synthesise
(c) They deplete ozone layer
(d) None of the these
37 The molecular formula of DDT has
(a) 5 chlorine atoms (b) 4 chlorine atoms
(c) 3 chlorine atoms (d) 2 chlorine atoms
38 Freon (dichlorodifluoro methane) is used
(a) As local anaesthetic
(b) For dissolving impurities in metallurgical process
(c) In refrigerator
(d) In printing industry
39 Which plastic is obtained from CHCl3 as follows
o
HF 800 C Polymerisation
CHCl 3  X  Y   Plastic
SbF3

(a) Bakelite (b) Teflon

(c) Polythene (d) Perspex

Page 5
 ®

Chemistry
40 Use of chlorofluoro carbons is not encouraged because
(a) They are harmful to the eyes of people that use it
(b) They damage the refrigerators and air conditioners
(c) They eat away the ozone in the atmosphere
(d) They destroy the oxygen layer

Answer Key

1 A 2 A 3 B 4 A 5 A

6 C 7 C 8 D 9 B 10 C

11 C 12 B 13 C 14 B 15 C

16 A 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 C

21 D 22 A 23 D 24 C 25 D

26 A 27 B 28 C 29 B 30 A

31 A 32 D 33 C 34 C 35 A

36 C 37 B 38 B 39 B 40 C

Page 6
 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Organic Compounds Containing
Nitrogen
1. Amides may be converted into amines by reaction named after
(a) Perkin (b) Claisen
(c) Hoffmann (d) Kolbe
2. Reaction CH 3CONH2   gives
NaOBr


(a) CH3Br (b) CH4

(c) CH3COBr (d) CH3 NH2

3. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic

potash on
(a) Acetamide (b) Propionamide
(c) Formamide (d) Methyl cyanide

4. Ethylamine can be obtained by the

(a) Action of NH3 on ethyl iodide (b) Action of NH3 on ethyl alcohol
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

5. When ethanol is mixed with ammonia and passed over alumina the
compound formed is
(a) C2H5 NH2 (b) C2H4

(c) C2H5OC2H5 (d) CH3OCH3

6. Which of the following reactions does not yield an amine

(a) RX  NH3  (b) RCH  NOH  [H] Na

C H OH
2 5

(c) RCN  H2O H

(d) LiAlH4
RCONH2  4 H 


7. In the following reaction, X is

NaNO2  HCl
X Brominatio
n Y    Z Boiling
 Tribromobe nzene
C2 H 5OH

(a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid

(c) Phenol (d) Aniline

Page 1
 ®

Chemistry
8. Which of the following reactions will not give primary amine
(a) CH3CONH2 
KOH .Br
  2
(b) LiAlH
CH3CN   4

(c) CH3 NC 
LiAlH

4
(d) LiAlH4
CH3CONH2  

9. Na ROH
CH 3CONH2    Z  H2O.

What is Z ?
(a) CH3CH2NH2 (b) CH3CH2 NC

(c) CH3CH2CH3 (d) NH2CONH2

10. When chlorobenzene is treated with NH3 in presence of Cu2O in xylene

at 570 K. The product obtained is
(a) Benzylamine (b) Diazonium salt
(c) Schiff’s base (d) Aniline

11. CH 3 NO2   CH 3 X, the ‘X’ contain

Sn HCl

(a) NH2 (b)  COOH

(c)  CHO (d) (CH3 CO)2 O

12. Azo-dyes are prepared from :

(a) Aniline (b) Salicylic acid

(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Chlorobenzene

13. KCN reacts readily to give a cyanide with

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Ethyl bromide

(c) Bromobenzene (d) Chlorobenzene

14. Which of the following compound is expected to be most basic

(a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
(c) Hydroxylamine (d) Ethylamine

15. Ethyl amine undergoes oxidation in the presence of KMnO4 to form

(a) An acid (b) An alcohol
(c) An aldehyde (d) A nitrogen oxide

Page 2
 ®

Chemistry
16. Reaction of primary amines with aldehyde yields
(a) Amides (b) Aldimines
(c) Nitriles (d) Nitro compounds

17. When acetamide is treated with HNO2, the gas is evolved

(a) H2 (b) O2

(c) N2 (d) CH4

18. Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and tertiary

amines by reacting with
(a) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH (b) Methyl iodide
(c) Chloroform alone (d) Zinc dust

19. Mark the correct statement

(a) Methyl amine is slightly acidic
(b) Methyl amine is less basic than NH3

(c) Methyl amine is stronger base than NH3

(d) Methyl amine forms salts with alkalies

20. In the explosive amatol, TNT is mixed with

(a) Ammonium citrate (b) Ammonium nitrate
(c) Ammonium oxalate (d) Ammonium sulphate

21. When chloroform reacts with ethyl amine in presence of alcoholic

KOH, the compound formed is
(a) Ethyl cyanide (b) Ethyl isocyanide
(c) Formic acid (d) An amide
22. Correct order of increasing basicity is
(a) NH3  C6H5 NH2  (C2H5)2 NH  C2H5 NH2  (C2H5)3 N

(b) C6H5 NH2  NH3  (C2H5 )3 N  (C2H5)2 NH  C2H5 NH2

(c) C6H5 NH2  NH3  C2H5 NH2  (C2H5)3 N  (C2H5)2 NH

(d) C6H5 NH2  (C2H5)3 N  NH3  C2H5 NH2  (C2H5)2 NH

Page 3
 ®

Chemistry
23. In reaction
HCl
CH3CN  2H  Boiling H 2O
 X 
Ether
 Y; the term Y is
(a) Acetone (b) Ethylamine
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Dimethylamine

24. In the reduction of nitrobenzene, which of the following is the

intermediate
(a) C6H5 N  O (b) C6H5 NH  NH  C6H5
O

(c) C6 H5  N  N  C6 H5 (d) C6 H5 N  N  C6 H5

25. Which one is less alkaline

(a) NO2 NH2 (b) CH3 O NH2

(c) C6 H5 NH2 (d) All of these

26. In the diazotisation of aniline with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric

acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to
(a) Suppress the concentration of free aniline available for coupling
(b) Suppress hydrolysis of phenol
(c) Insure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid
(d) Neutralize the base liberated

27. Hydrolysis of acetonitrile in acidic medium produces

(a) CH3 CH2OH (b) CH3COOH
(c) CH3 NC (d) CH3 COOCH3

28. The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution

of the compounds aniline (I) benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I
(c) II > III > I (d) I < II > III

29. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is :

(a) (CH3)2 NH  (CH3)3 N  CH3 NH2 (b) CH3 NH2  (CH3)2 NH  (CH3)3 N
(c) (CH3)3 N  (CH3)2 NH  CH3 NH2 (d) (CH3)3 N  CH3 NH2  (CH3)2 NH

Page 4
 ®

Chemistry
30. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.
NH2
NaNO2 CuCN H2 HNO2
  A   B 
 C   D

HCl Ni

The structure of product D would be

(a) C6H5CH2NH2 (b) C6 H5 NH CH2CH3

(c) C6 H5 NHOH (d) C6 H5CH2OH

31. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives

(a) Aniline (b) Nitrosobenzene

(c) N-Phenylhydroxylamine (d) p-Hydroxylaniline

32. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and :

(a) Diazonium chloride (b) o-nitro aniline
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Chlorobenzene

33. NaNO2 HCl

C6 H5 NH2  Cu2 (CN)2
 X    Y  

H 2O / H
 Z

Z is identified as :
(a) C6 H5  NH  CH3 (b) C6 H5  COOH

(c) C6 H5  CH2  NH2 (d) C6 H5  CH2  COOH

34. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some

(a) Dyes (b) Proteins
(c) Pesticides (d) Vitamins

35. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of

(a) Aliphatic 2o amine
(b)Aromatic 1o amine
(c) Aliphatic 1o amine
(d)Both aliphatic and aromatic 1o amines

Page 5
 ®

Chemistry
Answer Key

1 A 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 A

6 C 7 D 8 C 9 A 10 D

11 A 12 A 13 B 14 D 15 C

16 B 17 C 18 C 19 A 20 C

21 B 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 A

26 A 27 A 28 B 29 A 30 A

31 D 32 A 33 A 34 B 35 A

Page 6
 ®

Chemistry

NCERT Based Questions (Chemistry)

Topic:- Biomolecules

1. Which of the following monosaccharide is a pentose

(a) Galactose (b) Glucose

(c) Fructose (d) Arabinose

2. A certain compound gives negative test with ninhydrin and positive

test with Benedict's solution. The compound is
(a) A protein (b) A monosaccharide

(c) A lipid (d) An amino acid

3. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called

(a) Esterification (b) Saponification
(c) Inversion (d) Hydration

4. A carbohydrate consists of
(a) C and O (b) C, H and O
(c) C, H, N and O (d) C and H

5. Starch can be used as an indicator for the detection of traces of

(a) Glucose in aqueous solution (b) Protein in blood
(c) Iodine in aqueous solution (d) Urea in blood

6. Which of the following statements about ribose is incorrect

(a) It is a polyhydroxy compound(b) It is an aldehyde sugar
(c) It has six carbon atoms (d) It exhibits optical activity

7. Chemically 'digestion' is
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Change in bacteria
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Dehydrogenation

Page 1
 ®

Chemistry

8. Which of the following is a disaccharide

(a) Lactose (b) Starch
(c) Cellulose (d) Glucose

9. The reagent which forms crystalline osazone derivative when reacted

with glucose, is
(a) Fehling solution (b) Phenylhydrazine
(c) Benedict solution (d) Hydroxylamine

10. Canesugar on hydrolysis gives

(a) Glucose and maltose (b) Glucose and lactose
(c) Glucose and fructose (d) Only glucose

11. Glucose is a
(a) Monosaccharide (b) Disaccharide
(c) Trisaccharide (d) Polysaccharide

12. When amylases catalyse the hydrolysis of starch, the final product
obtained is chiefly
(a) Cellobiose (b) Glucose
(c) Maltose (d) Sucrose

13. Which of the following is correct statement

(a) Troleins are amino acid
(b)-hydrogen is present in fructose
(c) Starch is polymer of -glucose
(d)Amylose is compound of cellulose

14. Raffinose is
(a) Trisaccharide (b) Monosaccharide
(c) Disaccharide (d) None of these

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15. Glycolysis is
(a) Conversion of glucose to haem
(b)Oxidation of glucose to glutamate
(c) Conversion of pyruvate to citrate
(d)Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate

16. The charring of sugar, when treated with conc. H2 SO4 , is due to
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Dehydration (d) Hydrolysis

17. Which among the following is the simplest sugar

(a) Glucose (b) Cellulose
(b)Starch (d) Glycogen

18. Which is false

(a) Glucose is a disaccharide
(b)Starch is a polysaccharide
(c) Glucose and fructose are not anomers
(d)Invert sugar consists of glucose and fructose

19. Insulin is
(a) An amino acid (b) Protein
(c) A carbohydrate (d) A lipid

20. Pepsin enzyme hydrolyses

(a) Proteins to amino acids
(b)Fats to fatty acids
(c) Glucose to ethyl alcohol
(d)Polysaccharides to monosaccharides

21. The helical structure of proteins is established by

(a) Peptide bonds (b) Dipeptide bond
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Vander Waal's forces

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22. Which of the following contains the highest percentage of protein

(a) Groundnut (b) Cow's milk
(c)Egg (d) Wheat

23. The enzyme ptylin used for the digestion of food is present in
(a) Saliva (b) Blood
(c) Intestines (d) Adrenal glands

24. Proteins are composed of

(a)   amino acids (b) Carbohydrates
(c) Vitamins (d) Mineral salts

25. Which compound can exist in a dipolar (zwitter ion) state

(a) C6H5CH2CH(N  CH2)COOH (b) (CH3)2 CH.CH(NH2)COOH

(c) C6H5CONHCH2COOH (d) HOOC.CH2CH2COCOOH

26. What is the monomer of polypeptide

(a) Amino acid (b) Glucose
(c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide

27. Leucine amino acids is the

(a) Essential (b) Non-essential
(c) Aromatic (d) Basic

28. The number of essential amino acids in man is

(a)8 (b) 10
(c) 18 (d) 20

29. The decomposition of complex organic compounds into simpler

compound with the help of enzyme is known as
(a)Catabolism (b) Anabolism
(c) Fermentation (d) Metabolism

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Chemistry

30. A biological catalyst is essentially

(a)A carbohydrates (b) An amino acids
(c) A nitrogen molecule (d) Fats

31. Which of the following protein destroys the antigen when it enters in
body cell
(a) Antibodies (b) Insulin
(c) Chromoprotein (d) Phosphoprotein

32. Antibodies are

(a) Carbohydrate (b) Globular protein
(c)Immunoglobulins (d) Cellulose compounds

33. Enzymes are made up of

(a) Carbohydrates
(b)Edible proteins
(c) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates
(d)Proteins with specific structure

34. Which of the following could act as a propellant or rockets

(a)Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
(b)Liquid oxygen + liquid argon
(c) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen
(d)Liquid nitrogen +liquid oxygen

35. Which amino acid has aromatic ring

(a) Alamine (b) Glycine
(c) Tyrosine (d) Lysine

36. Which enzyme convert glucose into alcohol

(a)Invertase (b) Zymase
(c) Maltase (d) Diastase

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Chemistry

37. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it

(a) Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
(b)Forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases
(c) Functions as a catalyst for biological reactions
(d)Maintains blood sugar level

38. The bond that determines the secondary structure of proteins is or

secondary structure of protein is due to
(a) Coordinate bond (b) Covalent bond
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Peptide bond

39. The energy change produced by the combustion of food is called the
'calorific value'. The highest calorific value is given by
(a) Proteins (b) Fats
(c)Carbohydrates (d) Vitamins

40. Hydrolytic reaction of fats, with caustic soda, is known as

(a)Acetylation (b) Carboxylation
(c)Saponification (d) Esterification

41. Oleic, stearic and palmitic acids are

(a) Fatty acid (b) Amino acid
(c)Nucleic acid (d) Essential acid

42. The chemical name of vitamin C is

(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Folic acid
(c) Nicotinic acid (d) Tartaric acid

43. The segment of DNA which acts as the instructional manual for the
synthesis of the protein is
(a) Nucleoside (b) Nucleotide
(c) Ribose (d) Gene

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Chemistry

44. The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is

(a)Guanine (b) Adenine
(c)Uracil (d) Thymine

45. The harmone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen in

(a) Adrenaline (b) Insulin
(c)Cortisone (d) Bile acids

46. Codon is present in

(a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA
(c)r-RNA (c) All of these

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Chemistry

Answer Key

1 D 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 C

6 C 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 C

11 A 12 C 13 C 14 A 15 d

16 c 17 A 18 A 19 B 20 A

21 C 22 A 23 A 24 A 25 B

26 A 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 B

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