COLLEGE OF MEDICINE

Year Level: 1st

Academic Year 2020-2021 1st Semestral Examination
BIOCHEMISTRY

Dr. F. Madarcos – CHO Chemistry

1. Which is the parent compound of the carbohydrates?

A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Glyceraldehyde
D. Ribose

2. Which glycosidic bond forms the linear structure of glycogen?

A. α1,4
B. α1,6
C. β1,4
D β1,6

3. Which complex carbohydrate functions as an anticoagulant?

A Chondroitin SO4
B. Heparin
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Keratan SO4

Dr. C. Reportoso – Protein Chemistry

4. Cystine results from the formation of which interaction of 2 cysteines?

A. Disulfide bridge
B. Hydrophobic interactions
C. Peptide linkage
D. Salt bridge

5. What is the charged of amino acids with neutral R groups, at any pH below the pl?
A. a net negative charge
B. a net positive charge
C. no net charge
D. positive & negative charges

6. Which enzyme is responsible for the activation of all other intestinal zymogens?
A. Chymotrypsin
B. Elastase
C. Pepsin
D. Trypsin

Dr. F. Madarcos – Lipid Chemistry

7. Which constitutes the polar and hydrophilic region of a fatty acid?

A. Carboxyl end
B. Hydrocarbon chain
C. Methyl end
D. ω-carbon

8. A fatty acid belongs to the ω-3 series when there is a double bond 3 carbon away from:
A. Carbon 1
B. Carbon3
C. Carboxyl end
D. Methyl end
 9. Which is TRUE of the classification of this fatty acid 20:5Δ5,8,11,14,17?
A. Essential
B. Medium chain
C. Nonessential

Dr. F. Madarcos – Bioenergetics

10. Which nucleotide functions as the common currency of energy in the biologic system?
A. ATP
B. CTP
C. GTP
D. UTP

11. Which enzyme catalyzes the release of stored fuel in the skeletal muscles in times of immediate
energy needs?
A. Adenylate kinase
B. Creatine kinase
C. Na+-K+-ATPase
D. Pyrophosphatase

12. Which is the correct attribute of an exergonic reaction?

A. Nonspontaneous
B. Releases energy
C. Gains energy
D. Uphill reaction

Dr. F. Madarcos – Enzymology

13. An enzyme hastens a chemical reaction by:

A. Changing the reaction equilibrium.
B. Enhancing formation of a transition state.
C. Increasing amount of the enzyme.
D. Lowering the energy of activation.

14. The induced fit model of substrate-enzyme complex formation states that:
A. An allosteric effector promotes exact fit between enzyme & substrate.
B. Change in enzyme conformation enhances its catalytic activity.
C. Enzyme induces a change in the conformation of the substrate.
D. The substrate and the enzyme always fit together upon binding.

15. Which of the following is the catalytically active enzyme?

A. Coenzyme
B. Cofactor
C. Holoenzyme
D. Prosthetic group

16. Choose the correct enzyme: chemical reaction catalyzed pair:

A. Kinase: transfer of PO4 from ATP to an acceptor.
B. Ligase: transfer of double bonds within a molecule.
C. Lyases: ATP-driven condensation of two substrates.
D. Oxidoreductase: cleavage of chemical bonds via H2O.
Dr. C. Reportoso – H2O and Buffers

17. Which of the following relationship is TRUE in the Henderson Hasselbach formula?
A. As the ratio of conjugate bae to acid increases, the pH decreases
B. The hydrogen ion concentration is equal to the acid dissociation constant
C. The pH of the solution is directly proportional to the conjugate base
D. The pH of the solution is greater than the pKa of the solution

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to a buffer in a solution?
A. Buffering capacity in the ECF occurs in 3-4 days
B. Buffering is due to the H2O removed from the solution
C. Max buffer capacity is +/- 1 pH unit in each side of the pKA
D. Strong base will decrease the pH of the buffer solution

Dr. C. Reportoso – Transport System

19. The glucose transporter that is most sensitive to insulin is found in which organ?
A. Brain
B. Erythrocytes
C. Liver
D. Skeletal muscle

20. The hydrogen ion secreted into the lumen in the proximal tubule reacts with which of the following?
A. filtered bicarbonate
B. filtered phosphate
C. secreted ammonia
D. secreted bicarbonate

21. What is the CORRECT phosphate transporter : effect pair that is regulated by PTH?
A. NaPi-IIA : inhibits phosphate reabsorption
B. NaPi-IIA : stimulates phosphate reabsorption
C. NaPi-IIC : inhibits phosphate reabsorption
D. NaPi-IIC : stimulates phosphate reabsorption

Dr. F. Madarcos – Platelets/Hemostasis

22. How does Vitamin K promote blood coagulation?

A. Enhances carboxylation of glutamyl residues.
B. Increases serum calcium concentration.
C. Inhibits effects of regulatory proteins.
D. Promotes platelet activation & aggregation.

23. Which is the end product of both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation?
A. Activation of clotting factors
B. Activation of plasminogen
C. Fibrin clot dissolution
D. Fibrin clot formation

24. Platelets are involved in which of the following phases of hemostasis7

A. Fibrinolysis
B. Primary hemostasis
C. Secondary hemostasis
D. All of the above
E. B & C only
Dr. F. Madarcos – Introduction to Hormones

25. Which of the following is an amino acid-derived hormone?

A. Epinephrine
B. Insulin
C. Testosterone
D. Glucagon

26. Which compound is utilized by lipophobic hormones to mediate their intracellular effects?
A. First messengers
B. G-proteins
C. Hormone-receptor complex
D. Second messengers

27. The release of Ca2+ from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is stimulated by which of the following?
A. Calmodulin-calcium complex
B. Diacylglycerol
C. Hormone response element
D. Phosphoinositol 4,5 triPO4

28. Which of the following is a second messenger of insulin?

A. cyclic AMP
B. cyclic GMP
C. Phosphoinosito 4,5-bisPO
D. Tyrosine kinase

Dr. R. Laygo – Introduction to Immunology

29. Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placental barrier?

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

30. Which immunoglobulin is found in body secretions?

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

31. Which structure joins the monomers in IgM?

A. Amide link
B. Disulfide bond
C. Glycosidic bond
D. J-chain

32. What process/es is/are employed by antibodies to destroy antigens/microbes?

A. Neutralization & agglutination
B. Opsonization & complement activation
C. Precipitation & cell wall lysis
D. All of the above

33. The amino acids that form the antigen binding site of an immunoglobulin are localized at what region?
A. Amino-terminal region of light chain
B. Amino-terminal region of light chain & heavy chain
C. Carboxy-terminal region of light chain
D. Carboxy-terminal region of light chain & heavy chain
Dr. K. Carlos – Digestion/Absorption of Dietary Carbohydrates

34. Which glycosidic bond is present in lactose?

A. α 1,1
B. α 1,4
C. β 1,4
D. β 1,6

35. Which transporter facilitates glucose absorption at the intestinal serosal surface?
A. GLUT 1
B. GLUT 2
C. GLUT 3
D. GLUT 4

36. Which digestive enzyme cleaves limit dextrin at its nonreducing end?
A. Alpha amylase
B. Glucoamylase
C. Sucrose-isomaltase
D. Trehalase

Dr. C. Reportoso – Glycolysis, Galactose/Fructose and Mannose Metabolism

37. Why are there only 2 ATPs produced from glucose oxidation in a mature red blood?
A. 2 ATPs used in the synthesis of 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
B. 2 moles of NADH is used in lactate dehydrogenase reaction
C Only 1 mole of 1,3-phosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
D. Only 1 mole of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

38. What is the fate of cytoplasmic NADH produced in the glyceraldehyde 3P DH reaction in the liver?
A. used as coenzyme in lactate → pyruvate
B. used as coenzyme in pyruvate → lactate
C. utilizes glycerol phosphate shuttle
D. utilizes malate aspartate shuttle

39. How many molecules of ATP are formed in the energy-generation phase of glycolysis?
A 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0

40. How does fructose 6P inhibit glucokinase?

A. decreases gene transcription by binding to SREBP1c
B. increases binding of ATP to allosteric site
C. promotes binding to its regulatory protein in the nucleus
D. promotes dissociation of glucokinase from regulatory protein

41. How does glucagon repressed pyruvate kinase during fasted state?
A. dephosphorylation making it active
B. dephosphorylation making it inactive
C. phosphorylation making it active
D. phosphorylation making it inactive

42. Which of the following molecules allosterically inhibits the enzyme in the last reaction in glycolysis?
A. Alanine
B. Glycine
C. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
D. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
43. What is the biochemical basis of the formation of cataracts in a newborn with (+) Galactosemia in NBS?
A. Galactose is oxidized to galactitol
B. Galactose is reduced to galactitol
C. Glucose is oxidized to glucitol
D. Glucose is reduced to glucitol

Dr. C. Reportoso – PDH/CAC

44. Which of the enzymes of PDH complex catalyzes the removal of CO2 in the synthesis of acetyl CoA
from pyruvate?
A. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
B. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

45. How does acetyl CoA inhibit PDH?

A. Dephosphorylation and activation
B. Dephosphorylation and inactivation
C. Phosphorylation and activation
D. Phosphorylation and inactivation

46. What is the first reaction in TCA cycle?

A. Condensation of acetyl CoA & OA
B. Isomerization of citrate to isocitrate
C. Oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate
D. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate

47. How many moles of NADH is synthesized per molecule of acetyl CoA oxidized via TCA Cycle?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

48. What is the enzyme that catalyzes the sole substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle?
A. Aconitase
B. Fumarase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. Succinyl CoA synthase

Dr. F. Madarcos – ETC/Oxidative Phosphorylation

49. The process by which ATP is formed as a result of the transfer of electrons from NADH or FADH2, to O2 by
a series of electron carriers is called:
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Proton translocation
C. Reduction of conserved energies
D. Substrate level phosphorylation

50. Which electron transport chain complex synthesizes ATP from ADP and Pi?
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V

51. Which of the following compounds is an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation?

A. Amytal
B. Antimycin A
C. Cyanide
D. 2,4-dinitrophenol
52. Which of the following events refers to uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation?
A. ATP synthesis without substrate oxidation.
B. Complete oxidation of precursors/substrates.
C. Inhibition of substrate oxidation & ATP synthesis.
D. Substrate oxidation without ATP synthesis.

53. Which metabolic pathway is the major source of electrons that enter the electron transport chain?
A. Fatty acid β-oxidation
B. Glycolysis
C. Ketone body degradation
D. TCA Cycle

Dr. F. Madarcos – Glycogen Metabolism

54. What is the role of glycogen synthase in glycogenesis?

A. Adds glucose residues to a glycogen primer.
B. Converts glucose into UDP-glucose.
C. Hydrolyses the α1,4 glycosidic bonds.
D. Transfers a trisaccharide to a growing glycogen.

55. Which enzyme is deficient in von Gierke's Disease?

A. Branching enzyme
B. Debranching enzyme
C. Glucose 6-phosphatase
D. Muscle phosphorylase

56. Which is the major source of blood glucose after an overnight fast?
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Glycolysis

Dr. C. Reportoso – Gluconeogenesis

For nos. 57-61, BE. 17y/o male, has not taken any meal for almost 20 hours due to anxiety prior to college
entrance exam.

57. Which of the following molecules is the source of his metabolic fuel for gluconeogenesis?
A. Alanine
B. Fatty acid
C. Leucine
D. Palmitate

58. Carbon skeletons of glucogenic amino acids enter gluconeogenesis mainly through which intermediate pair?
A. αketoglutarate & malate
B. fumarate & succinyl CoA
C. oxaloacetate & pyruvate
D. propionyl CoA & citrate

59. Which of the following provides link between TCA and gluconeogenesis?
A. ATP formed in pyruvate carboxylase reaction
B. ATP used in pyruvate carboxylase reaction
C. GTP formed in PEPCK reaction
D. GTP used in PEPCK reaction
60. The reaction catalyzed by which enzyme in gluconeogenesis is used to replenish the citric acid pool in TCA?
A. Glucose 6-phosphatase
B. Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
C. PEP carboxykinase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase

61. When blood glucagon rise, which of the following enzyme is inactive?
A. Adenylyl cyclase
B. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
C. Phosphofructose kinase 2
D. Protein kinase A

Dr. F. Madarcos – HMP Shunt

62. Which is the major source of biochemical reductants in faty acid synthesis?
A. Extramitochondrial isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction.
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Malic enzyme-dependent cytosolic conversion of malate to pyruvate
D. Succinate dehydrogenase reaction

63. Which enzyme whose deficiency results to hemolytic anemia upon ingestion of oxidizing agents?
A. Glucose 6-phosphatase
B. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Glutathione peroxidase
D. Glutathione reductase

Dr. F. Madarcos – Uronic Acid Pathway

64. The absence of which enzyme unables humans to synthesize ascorbic acid from glucose?
A. L-gulonolactone oxidase
B. Phosphoglucomutase
C. UDP glucose dehydrogenase
D. Xylulose reductase

Dr. K. Carlos – Biologic Membranes

65. Which of the following contributes to the structure of glycosphingolipids?

A. Ceramide + fatty acid
B. Ceramide + monosaccharide
C. Sphingosine + fatty acid
D. Sphingosine + monosaccharide

66. Which fatty acid forms relatively kinked tails due to cis formation in membranes?
A. Palmitic acid
B. Saturated fatty acid
C. Steroid
D. Unsaturated fatty acid

Dr. C. Reportoso – Digestion/Absorption of Dietary Lipids

67. Which of the following is a product of lipid digestion?

A. 1-monoacylglycorol
B. Cholesterol ester
C. Fatty acid
D. Glycerol
68. Once the digestive products are absorbed, the first reaction will be catalyzed by which enzyme?
A. acylCoA monoacylglycerol acyltransferase
B. acylCoA diacylglycerol acyltransferase
C. fatty acyl-CoA hydrolase
D. fatty acyl-CoA synthetase

69. Which of the following is the action of peptide hormone secretin?

A. Decreases gastric motility
B. Stimulates bicarbonate secretion
C. Stimulates release of bile
D. Stimulates release of pancreatic enzymes

Dr. R. Laygo – Fatty Acid Synthesis

70. Which is the activated form of the malonyl utilized tor fatty acid synthesis?
A. Malonyl ACP
B. Malonyl ACP CoA
C. CDP-malonyl
D. UDP-malonyl

71. Which enzyme catalyzes the addition of one carbon to acetyl CoA to form malonyl CoA as the two-carbon
donor for fatty acid synthesis?
A. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
B. Acetyl CoA decarboxylase
C. Malonyl CoA synthase
D. Malonyl CoA synthetase

72. In what form does acetyl CoA carboxylase exist in the presence of citrate?
A. Dimeric
B. Monomeric
C. Pentameric
D. Polymeric

73. Which of the following describes the structure of fatty acid synthase?
A. Polypeptide chain with a number of subunits.
B. Two polypeptide chains arranged in a head-to-head manner.
C. Two polypeptide chains arranged in a head-to-tail manner.
D. Two polypeptide chains, each made up of 7 subunits arranged in a head-to-tail manner.

74. How many molecules of citrate are shuttled from the matrix to the cytosol to synthesize one molecule of
palmitic acid?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight

Dr. R. Laygo – TAG Metabolism

75. In which organ is the endogenous synthesis of triacylglycerol carried out?

A. Intestines
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
76. Which is a precursor for the synthesis of exogenous triacylglycerol?
A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
B. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
C. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
D. 2-monoacylglycerol

Dr. F. Madarcos – Cholesterol Metabolism

77. Which is the precursor compound of all the carbon atoms of cholesterol?
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Malonyl CoA
C. Pyruvate
D. Succinyl CoA

78. Cholesterol is a precursor in the synthesis of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Bile alts
B. Cell membranes
C. Steroid hormones
D. Vitamin K

79. Which enzyme is inhibited by statins in the treatment of patients with hypercholesterolemia?
A. Acetoacetyl CoA thiolase
B. HMG CoA reductase
C. HMG CoA synthase
D. Mevalonate kinase

Dr. F. Madarcos – Lipoprotein Metabolism

80. The transport of defines HDL as the “good” cholesterol?

A. Cholesteryl esters from the liver → extrahepatic tissues.
B. Dietary lipids from the intestines → peripheral tissues.
C. Endogenous lipids from the liver → peripheral tissues.
D. Excess lipids from the peripheral tissues → liver.

81. Which of the following is NOT a component of a lipoprotein?

A. Cholesteryl ester
B. Diacylglycerol
C. Free cholesterol
D. Phospholipid

82. Which lipoprotein whose high concentration has been demonstrated to bear an inverse relationship to
the development of atherosclerosis?
A. HDL
B. IDL
C. LDL
D. VLDL

83. Choose the CORRECT enzyme : function in lipoprotein metabolism pair:

A. HTGL : hydrolyses TAG in modified chylomicrons
B. LCAT : esterifies free cholesterol into cholesteryl ester
C. LPL : converts cholesteryl ester into free cholesterol
D. PCAT : hydrolyses chylomicron remnants

84. Choose the CORRECT lipoprotein genetic disorder : etiology pair:

A. Abetalipoproteinemia : mutations in ABCAT 1 protein gene
B. Familial combined hyperlipoproteinemia : deficient activity of MTP
C. Tangier’s Disease : overproduction of Apo B-100
D. Type I hyperlipoproteinemia : deficiency of LPL
85. Which is the fatty acid precursor of the eicosanoids?
A. Arachidonic acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Palmitoleic acid

86. Choose the CORRECT eicosanoid : physiologic function pair:

A. Isoprostanes : Inflammation & allergy
B. Leukotrienes : marker for degenerative diseases
C. PGE2 : platelet aggregation and uterine relaxation
D. TXA2 : platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

87. Which structures attached to the RBC membrane glycosphingolipids form the basis of blood typing?
A. Band proteins
B. Cholesteryl esters
C. Glycophorins
D. Oligosaccharides

88. Choose the CORRECT lysosomal storage disease : deficient degradative enzyme pair:
A. Farber's Disease : Hexoseaminidase A
B. Gaucher's Disease : Aryl sulfatase
C. Niemann-Pick's Disease : Sphingomyelinase
D. Tay-Sach’s Disease : Ceramidase

89. Which is the major surfactant component whose deficiency leads to respiratory distress in premature babies?
A. Cardiolipin
B. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
C. Phosphatidylethanolamine
D. Phosphatidylserine

90. Which is the starting substrate pair in the biosynthesis of the glycosphingolipids7
A. Alanine & succinyl CoA
B. Phenylalanine & acetyl CoA
C. Proline & malonyl CoA
D. Serine & palmitoyl CoA

Dr. C. Reportoso – β-oxidation of Fatty Acids

For nos. 91-93, refer to the beta-oxidation of CH3(CH2)14COOH

91. Which of the following molecules inhibit the rate limiting enzyme?
A. Acetate
B. Acetyl CoA
C. Malonate
D. Malonyl CoA

92. How many ATPs formed from the acylCoA DH reaction?

A. 10.5
B. 12
C. 17.5
D. 20

93. How many acetyl CoA produced in the process?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
 For nos. 94-95, refer to the beta oxidation of CH3(CH2)17COOH

94. How many ATP will be produced from the propionyl CoA that will enter the TCA cycle?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

95. Final product of the process will enter the TCA cycle as:
A. Fumarate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Succinate
D. Succinyl CoA

Dr. K. Carlos – Bile Acid Synthesis

96. Which bile acid is least reabsorbed in the enterohepatic circulation?

A. Deoxycholic acid
B. Glycocholic acid
C. Lithocholic acid
D. Taurochenodeoxycholic acid

97. Which is the rate limiting enzyme in bile acid synthesis?

A. 7α-hydroxylase
B. 12α-hydroxylase
C. HMG-CoA reductase
D. HMG-CoA synthase

98. Which enzyme is inhibited during the fed state?

A. HMG-CoA reductase
B. HMG-CoA synthase
C. Thiolase
D. Thiophorase

99. Which is the product of the step using the enzyme HMG-CoA lyase?
A. Acetoacetate
B. Acetone
C. B-hydroxybutyrate
D. HMG-CoA

100. Which carbon is NOT hydroxylated in the liver in the synthesis of chenodeoxycholic acid?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 12
D. 17

end