1.

The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called:
A) vital capacity.
B) tidal volume.
C) expiration.
D) inspiration.
Answer: B

2. What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of
adequate oxygen and nutrients?
A) Anaerobic
B) Aerobic
C) Hypoxic
D) Homeostatic
Answer: B

3. The seat of respiratory control is found in the:

A) nose.
B) lungs.
C) chest.
D) medulla oblongata.
Answer: D

4. A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen.

A) 21
B) 5
C) 16
D) 100
Answer: A

5. What is a patent airway?

A) A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure
the airway
B) A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway
necessary for life
C) The condition of the patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention
D) An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway
Answer: B

6. What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system measure?

A) Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide
B) High oxygen and low carbon dioxide
C) Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide
D) High oxygen and high carbon dioxide
Answer: A
 7. In the normal drive to breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated by:
A) diffusion.
B) low carbon dioxide.
C) high oxygen.
D) high carbon dioxide.
Answer: D

8. You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a
myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you
know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries?
A) Pulmonary arteries
B) Coronary arteries
C) Brachial arteries
D) Femoral arteries
Answer: B

9. Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body?
A) Platelets
B) Plasma
C) Red blood cells
D) White corpuscles
Answer: B

10. The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and
circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure.
A) systolic
B) diastolic
C) central venous
D) mean arterial
Answer: A

11. Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach?
A) Trachea
B) Venae cavae
C) Duodenum
D) Esophagus
Answer: D

12. Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during
swallowing?
A) Pharynx
B) Epiglottis
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Diaphragm
Answer: B
 13. The term lateral is best defined as:
A) under the arms.
B) toward the middle of.
C) to the back of.
D) to the side.
Answer: D

14. You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the
local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other
is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his
left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you
ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate?
You know…walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you
discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms
unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What
would you say?
A) Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can
alienate both patients and other providers.
B) Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that
all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.
C) Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear
understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion.
D) You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take
your advice and apply it.
Answer: C

15. Which of the following describes the midline of the body?

A) An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves
B) An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion
C) The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus
D) An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion
Answer: A

16. To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would
check for a pulse in which location?
A) Armpit
B) Wrist
C) Upper arm
D) Throat
Answer: B
 17. When you place your finger in an infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is an
example of which reflex?
A) Sucking
B) Palmar
C) Rooting
D) Moro
Answer: B

18. Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be
met?
A) Scaffolding
B) Bonding
C) Trust
D) Moro reflex
Answer: B

19. What is a normal heart rate for a school age child?

A) 140-160/minute
B) 80-130/minute
C) 80-120/minute
D) 70-110/minute
Answer: D

20. Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to his
environment?
A) Attitude
B) Bonding
C) Personality
D) Temperament
Answer: D

21. In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient
cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume?
A) Infancy
B) Late adulthood
C) Early adulthood
D) Middle adulthood
Answer: B
 22. You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a 1-month-old female patient that
tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your arrival, the baby
is awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the
child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient
and place your finger in her hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as the:
A) sucking reflex.
B) Moro reflex.
C) palmar reflex.
D) rooting reflex.
Answer: C

23. Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow?
A) Arteries
B) Capillaries
C) Veins
D) Arterioles
Answer: C

24. In the average adult, the sudden loss of ________ cc of blood is considered serious.
A) 150
B) 500
C) 1,000
D) 750
Answer: C

25. Which of the following should increase the EMT's suspicion of internal bleeding?
A) Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen
B) High-speed motor vehicle collision
C) Fall from a height three or more times the patient's height
D) All of the above
Answer: D

26. You are examining a 48-year-old patient who has been burned. You decide to use the
rule of palm to measure the extent of the burn. What does this mean?
A) The palm of your hand represents 1% of the body's surface area.
B) The palm of the patient's hand equals about 1% of the body's surface area.
C) The palm of the patient's hand equals 9% of the body's surface area.
D) You can only use the rule of palm for children, so you would use the rule of nines instead.
Answer: B
 27. The meatus is:
A) an orifice of the urethra.
B) in a male, the area between the scrotum and the anus.
C) the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.
D) the canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior of the body.
Answer: A

28. Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

A) An object that remains impaled in the body
B) Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding
C) Strong possibility of contamination
D) All of the above
Answer: D

29. Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion?

A) An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object
B) Flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue
C) Epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface
D) Accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling
Answer: B

30. A 37-year-old male was hit by a trolley and his foot was almost severed. It is only
connected by some skin and crushed bone. What should you do?
A) Immediately apply a tourniquet to control bleeding.
B) Complete the amputation. It will make the injury much easier to handle.
C) Because of the seriousness of the injury, wait for ALS before providing any care.
D) Apply a pressure dressing to control bleeding, stabilize the foot by splinting, apply oxygen,
and transport as a priority patient.
Answer: D

31. You are treating the amputation of three fingers on a 40-year-old male. The fingers were
torn off while he was cleaning his snow blower. You have stopped the bleeding. What
should you do with the amputated fingers?
A) Fingers cannot be reattached so you can discard them in red bag trash.
B) Because it is cold out, you merely need to wrap them in a 5 × 9 dressing and give them to the
staff at the ED.
C) Wrap them in a sterile dressing, put them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool.
D) Place the fingers directly on ice or use cold packs, as they must be kept very cold.
Answer: C
32. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be
carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Flail chest
C) Abdominal evisceration
D) Hemopneumothorax
Answer: A
 33. What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within
the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath?
A) Sucking chest wound
B) Closed tension pneumothorax
C) Open chest wound
D) Gurgling chest wound
Answer: A

34. A patient with jugular vein distention (JVD) is most likely suffering from which of the
following injuries?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Hemopneumothorax
D) Tension pneumothorax
Answer: D

35. Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

A) The object that remains impaled in the body
B) Strong possibility of contamination
C) Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding
D) All of the above
Answer: D

36. You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of
the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to
the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent
fails to arise following a 1 to 2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find
the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following
traumatic conditions?
A) Cardiac tamponade
B) Aortic dissection
C) Tension pneumothorax
D) Commotio cordis
Answer: D

37. Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should:
A) leave them alone and transport rapidly.
B) attempt to place the organs back into the abdomen.
C) cover the entire abdomen with a blanket.
D) cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.
Answer: D
 38. On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find
an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The
abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration and the bleeding is controlled. Which of
the following is the BEST approach toward managing the exposed intestines?
A) Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.
B) Gently replace the intestines after moistening with sterile saline solution.
C) Leave the abdominal contents in the place in which they were found and transport
immediately.
D) Cover the abdomen with an occlusive dressing of aluminum foil.
Answer: A

39. A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries?
A) Possible fracture of the cervical spine
B) Possible fracture of the femur
C) Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula
D) Possible fracture of the humerus
Answer: B

40. One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as
follows:
A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and
swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body
can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes
additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is
not relieved.
What is this condition called?
A) Compartment syndrome
B) Crushing syndrome
C) Perfusing syndrome
D) Fracture syndrome
Answer: A

41. There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is
NOT a general rule of splinting?
A) In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the
patient is unstable.
B) Expose the injury.
C) Assess distal CSM.
D) Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position.
Answer: A
 42. The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following
types of ambulances except:
A) Type III.
B) Type I.
C) Type IV.
D) Type II.
Answer: C
43. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher?
A) Prioritizing calls that come in
B) Providing medical direction to the responding units
C) Coordinating with other public safety agencies
D) Providing emergency instructions to the caller
Answer: B

44. You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the
following patients would receive Priority 1 transport?
A) 45-year-old with no vital signs
B) 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs
C) 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
D) 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns
Answer: C

45. Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles
per hour when the siren is sounding.
A) privately employed
B) younger
C) inexperienced
D) experienced
Answer: C

46. You are responding at emergency status to a vehicle collision in your ambulance. As you
approach an intersection with a red light in your direction, you approach cautiously,
come to a complete stop at the intersection, ensure all other drivers can see you, and
slowly ease your way through the intersection. These actions describe your abilities to:
A) follow state laws regarding emergency vehicle operations.
B) ensure your right to proceed through a red light due to the established emergency.
C) proceed with due regard for the safety of all drivers on the road.
D) predict the travel path of other drivers who have the right-of-way.
Answer: C
 47. When arriving at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you
should position the ambulance so that:
A) there is a safe area between the damaged vehicles and traffic behind the scene.
B) there is a safe area beyond the damaged vehicles.
C) you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander.
D) there is a fire truck between you and oncoming traffic.
Answer: B

48. In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous
materials emergencies?
A) Manufacturing industries
B) Farm service agencies
C) Shipping ports
D) All of the above
Answer: D

49. Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible
hazardous materials emergency?
A) Requesting special resources to respond
B) Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency
C) Establishing a safe zone
D) Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
Answer: D

50. Where is the decon corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are
decontaminated?
A) Hot zone
B) Cold zone
C) Warm zone
D) Cool zone
Answer: C

51. Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for
patints in a hazardous materials emergency?
A) Structural firefighting gear
B) HEPA mask
C) Chemical permeable gloves
D) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
Answer: D

52. What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?

A) An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response
B) An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources
C) An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
D) Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene
Answer: C
 53. When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and
downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to:
A) render the scene safe before entering the danger zone.
B) request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.
C) use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims.
D) use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution.
Answer: B

54. You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided
with a tree. You note that the driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following
is recommended by air bag manufacturers?
A) Cut away the fabric portion of the air bag to get it out of the way.
B) Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.
C) Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the air bag.
D) Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second air bag has deployed.
Answer: B

55. If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how should
you park your apparatus?
A) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center
before parking.
B) Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area.
C) Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.
D) Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.
Answer: A

56. Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision?
A) Safety lock
B) Nader jam
C) Nader pin
D) Safety pin
Answer: C

57. Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with:

A) all roof supports collapsed.
B) the trunk lid in contact with the ground.
C) the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground.
D) the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.
Answer: A
58. Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as
occurring in the United States?
A) Psychological and economic
B) Chemical and biological
C) Domestic and international
D) Violent and intimidation
Answer: C
 59. The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of
the following?
A) Ethics
B) Politics
C) Religion
D) Environmental issues
Answer: C

60. An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing.

A) 10.5%
B) 16.5%
C) 25.5%
D) 19.5%
Answer: D

61. The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors?

A) Duration of exposure
B) Distance from the source
C) Shielding from the source
D) All of the above
Answer: D

62. Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are:

A) time, decontamination, and shielding.
B) technique, distance, and serum.
C) time, distance, and shielding.
D) time, decontamination, and serum.
Answer: C

63. Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure?
A) Inhalation
B) Skin
C) Ingestion
D) All of the above
Answer: D

64. Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in
terrorist attacks?
A) Low virulence
B) Instability
C) High infectivity
D) Low potency
Answer: C
 65. Biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of
the following routes?
A) Blood
B) Gastrointestinal tract
C) Respiratory tract
D) Skin
Answer: C

66. Which of the following is NOT traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a
hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism?
A) Scene size-up
B) Containment and control
C) Assessment of the toxicological risk
D) Activation of the incident management system (IMS)
Answer: B

67. The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of
the following?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Preeclampsia
Answer: A

68. You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8
months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding. She says that her doctor was
concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as:
A) placenta disruption.
B) abruptio placenta.
C) unstable placenta.
D) placenta previa.
Answer: D

69. By which of the following means does the fetus's blood pick up nourishment from the
mother?
A) Direct circulation
B) Indirect circulation
C) Diffusion
D) Osmosis
Answer: C
 70. Your pregnant patient is in active labor. You note that her contractions are getting closer
together and much stronger as the baby moves deeper into the birth canal. The muscle
contraction mechanism that moves the baby toward birth is the same mechanism that
moves:
A) air down the bronchial tubes to the alveoli.
B) fluid into and out of the cell.
C) sweat to the surface of the skin.
D) food from the esophagus to the stomach.
Answer: D

71. You are called to assess a pregnant woman who is approximately 7 months pregnant.
She states that her pregnancy has been uneventful but she is experiencing intermittent
headaches. Her vital signs are pulse 118, respirations 22, blood pressure 138/88, and
blood sugar 148. Which of the following is true regarding a pregnant woman?
A) Her pulse rate should be lower than normal.
B) Her respirations usually remain the same during pregnancy.
C) Her blood pressure is usually higher during pregnancy.
D) Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy.
Answer: D

72. You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child.
She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to
your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom first.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A) Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to
wait until she arrives at the hospital.
B) Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left
side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately.
C) Allow the patient to use the bathroom as it will make transport, and also delivery, more
comfortable.
D) Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you
need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.
Answer: D

73. When clamping the umbilical cord, the clamp closest to the baby should be
approximately ________ inch(es) from the infant's body.
A) 3
B) 12
C) 1
D) 7
Answer: D
 74. You respond for an imminent delivery of a baby in the breech position. As you examine
the mother, you see that the umbilical cord is protruding from the opening of the cervix.
You realize that the most important care you can provide for this baby is to:
A) keep the baby off of the cord.
B) provide oxygen to the mother.
C) gently push the cord back into the vaginal space.
D) wrap the cord to prevent heat loss.
Answer: A

75. You have been called for a 2-year-old female who has fallen and is bleeding from a head
laceration. Her mother states that she was running down the hallway when she fell, striking her
head on a side table. You suspect that part of the reason she fell is that:
A) her head is proportionately larger and heavier than an adult's.
B) she has low blood sugar, making her unstable.
C) she is still new to walking and may be unstable on her feet.
D) both A and C are contributing factors.
Answer: D

76. Your patient is a 11-month-old male who began choking while his babysitter was feeding him
some sliced peaches. The child has retractions of his intercostal muscles, is drowsy, and is
grayish in color. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient?
A) Use of a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD)
B) Back slaps and chest thrusts
C) Abdominal thrusts
D) Blow-by oxygen at 10 to 15 liters per minute
Answer: B

77. Which of the following statements is true regarding the skin and body surface area of children as
compared to adults?
A) The skin of a child is thicker.
B) Children have more subcutaneous fat.
C) Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio.
D) A child is not more prone than an adult to heat loss through the skin.
Answer: C

78. Your patient has a tracheostomy and is on a ventilator. He presents in acute respiratory distress.
You assess his trach tube and it appears clear, but there is something wrong with the ventilator.
You do not notice any loose fittings or disconnected tubes. The airway is clear and he is sitting
upright. What is your next step?
A) Call the manufacturer's service hotline.
B) Try to further troubleshoot the ventilator.
C) Disconnect the patient and ventilate him with a bag-valve device.
D) Connect your oxygen tank directly to the tracheostomy tube.
Answer: C
 79. You are assessing a 67-year-old male patient who is experiencing a dissecting abdominal
aneurysm. Typically, such a patient will describe the pain as:
A) dull.
B) tearing.
C) sharp.
D) achy.
Answer: B

80. Your patient is an 80-year-old male complaining of lower back pain that radiates through
to the abdomen. He describes the pain as "ripping" in nature. He is pale, diaphoretic, and
anxious, and has a blood pressure of 210/100 mmHg, a pulse of 112 beats per minute,
and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. Which of the following conditions is
MOST likely?
A) Gallbladder disease
B) Bowel obstruction
C) Diverticulitis
D) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Answer: D

81. An elderly patient who is experiencing a myocardial infarction is more likely to

complain of which of the following symptoms than a younger patient would?
A) Shortness of breath without chest pain
B) Shortness of breath with chest pain
C) A rash caused by shingles
D) No chest pain or shortness of breath
Answer: A

82. Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?

A) Liver disease
B) Heart disease
C) Tuberculosis
D) Hypertension
Answer: C

83. You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring
system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT
partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action?
A) Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation.
B) Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation.
C) Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice.
D) Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance.
Answer: A
 84. Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have
tracheostomy tubes?
A) Tracheal tears
B) Mucus buildup
C) Air embolism
D) Tube malplacement
Answer: B

85. Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has
a tracheostomy tube?
A) Shock position
B) Prone
C) Head slightly elevated
D) Supine
Answer: C

86. A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of
the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance?
A) Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and
volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
B) Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance.
C) Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the
patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
D) Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume
while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
Answer: A

87. What is another name for the zygomatic bone?

A) Malar
B) Maxillae
C) Temporal
D) Mandible
Answer: A

88. To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached?
A) Thoracic
B) Sacral
C) Cervical
D) Lumbar
Answer: A
 89. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a
horse, has his eyes open, can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is
confused about what happened and his whereabouts?
A) 12
B) 14
C) 15
D) 13
Answer: B

90. While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that
which of the following conditions may develop?
A) Deep vein thrombosis
B) Air embolus
C) Air thrombosis
D) Deep vein embolus
Answer: B

91. Your patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped
out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was
immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries
should you suspect?
A) Cervical spine injury
B) Lumbar spine injury
C) Soft-tissue injury of the neck only
D) Thoracic spine injury
Answer: A

92. Your patient has a suspected cervical spine injury from falling from a rope swing. His
vital signs are pulse 62, respirations 20, and blood pressure 90/56. He has no feeling
below his mid-chest area but is able to breathe on his own. You should suspect:
A) cardiogenic shock.
B) hypovolemic shock.
C) neurogenic shock.
D) psychogenic shock.
Answer: C

93. Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital
stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?
A) Soft cervical collars
B) Five-pound sand bags
C) Rigid cervical collars
D) 2" × 4" wood cribbing
Answer: C
 94. Which trauma patient is the most critical?
A) Patient with decerebrate posturing
B) Patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 7
C) Patient with decorticate posturing
D) Patient who withdraws to painful stimuli
Answer: A

95. Which patient is the most unstable?

A) Unresponsive patient with hypotension
B) Patient who only responds to verbal stimuli
C) Unresponsive patient with tachycardia
D) Patient responsive to painful stimuli only
Answer: A

96. You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder. He is responsive to
painful stimuli. He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall.
He has a broken femur, a broken wrist, and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding
profusely. Which of these injuries is the highest priority?
A) Arterial bleed
B) Snoring respirations
C) Broken wrist
D) Femur fracture
Answer: A

97. You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a
height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal
precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also
because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become
increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in
heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are
about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of
the following is the BEST transport decision?
A) Call medical control for advice from the trauma center.
B) Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.
C) Continue transporting to the local hospital because you've already given report and they
accepted the patient.
D) Continue transporting to the local hospital since it's the closest facility.
Answer: B

98. Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes
over it?
A) Convection
B) Hydrodynamic cooling
C) Exposure
D) Condensation
Answer: A
 99. Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following substances?
A) Water
B) Salt
C) Magnesium
D) Water and potassium
Answer: B

100. You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not
acting right." You find a 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air
conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours
pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient
is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse
136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry, but his shirt
is wet with visible salt rings. You suspect:
A) heat cramps.
B) hypernatremia.
C) heat exhaustion.
D) myocardial infarction.
Answer: C

101. At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up?
A) After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact
B) When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance
C) As you approach the scene in the ambulance
D) When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence
Answer: C
102. Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in
establishing the size of the danger zone?
A) Presence of hazardous materials
B) Wind direction
C) Amount of equipment needed
D) Fire
Answer: C
 103. You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker
truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there
are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a
caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You
should:
A) remove the bystanders from the scene.
B) park about 50 feet from the truck.
C) consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.
D) park downwind from the tanker truck.
Answer: C

104. Which of the following BEST describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"?
A) Diagnostic ability
B) General impression
C) Clinical judgment
D) Scene safety
Answer: C

105. Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching
his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem?
A) Choking
B) Cardiac
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Digestive
Answer: B
106. What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric patient?
A) 3 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 5 seconds
D) less than 2 seconds
Answer: D

107. The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the
characteristic sounds produced is called:
A) auscultation.
B) articulation.
C) palpation.
D) pulsation.
Answer: A
 108. The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen
saturation (SpO2) is called a(n):
A) capnography.
B) sphygmomanometer.
C) end tidal CO2 meter.
D) pulse oximeter.
Answer: D

109. If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal
pink color to return to the nail bed?
A) 2 seconds
B) 4 seconds
C) 3 seconds
D) 5 seconds
Answer: A

110. The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the
assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the
opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following BEST describes this
finding?
A) Flutter segment
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Paradoxical movement
D) Intercostal retractions
Answer: C

111. When assessing a 14-year-old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle
accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming from his left forearm.
This observation is known as which of the following?
A) Sign
B) Symptom
C) Clue
D) Indication
Answer: A
112. You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He
reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not
gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use
it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood
pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. What should you do next?
A) Call immediately for ALS response.
B) Begin transport immediately.
C) Continue with vital sign assessment.
D) Take a manual blood pressure.
Answer: D
 113. What does distention refer to when describing your patient's abdomen?
A) Larger than normal
B) Softer than normal
C) Harder than normal
D) Having a sunken-in appearance
Answer: A

114. Mr. Green is complaining of severe difficulty breathing after being stung by a
bee. His wife states he has had reactions to bee stings before, but not quite this severe.
Which medications should you specifically ask him about?
A) Antihistamines
B) Inhaler
C) Nitroglycerine tablets
D) Epinephrine auto-injector
Answer: D

115. You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your
primary assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per
minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital
signs. During your reassessment, you notice that the patient's respiratory rate has
increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You
should:
A) call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler.
B) increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute.
C) assist the patient's breathing with a bag-valve mask.
D) switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.
Answer: D

116. You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered
a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving
facility will afford the patient the most privacy?
A) Using the handheld radio
B) Using the ambulance radio but not using the patient's name
C) Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury
D) Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
Answer: D

117. When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This
would be called a(n):
A) side effect.
B) contraindication.
C) untoward effect.
D) indication.
Answer: A
 118. Why would an EMT give aspirin to a patient?
A) Aspirin reduces the heart's ability to beat fast and works to prevent rapid heart rate.
B) Aspirin reduces the pain level in patients who are in pain.
C) Aspirin reduces the blood's ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in
patients suffering chest pain.
D) It is given to calm the patient by reducing the pain because stress is the real killer.
Answer: C

119. What is the reason for giving an epinephrine auto-injector in a life-threatening

allergic reaction?
A) It will help raise the patient's blood pressure and slow the heart rate.
B) It will constrict the patient's airway passages and blood vessels.
C) It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.
D) It will help dilate the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.
Answer: C

120. Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by auto-

injector?
A) Constriction of blood vessels
B) Constriction of coronary arteries
C) Dilation of coronary arteries
D) Decrease in blood pressure
Answer: A

121. Name the type of medical direction consisting of standing orders and protocols.
A) Off-line
B) Verbal
C) On-line
D) Written
Answer: A

122. The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to age and weight
is called:
A) pharmacology.
B) pharmacodynamics.
C) measurement and documentation.
D) pharmacokinetics.
Answer: B
 123. Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia?
A) Its onset is more sudden.
B) Its onset is more gradual.
C) Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
D) It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
Answer: B

124. Many diabetics today have an insulin pump. Which of the following statements
about insulin pumps is NOT true?
A) They are about the size of an MP3 player or a pager.
B) They are usually worn on the belt.
C) They have a catheter that enters into the abdomen.
D) They are usually worn around the ankle.
Answer: D

125. Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as

a result of a stroke?
A) Hemiparesis
B) Ischemia
C) Ataxia
D) Aphasia
Answer: D

126. What is epilepsy?

A) A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication.
B) A condition in which a person has an aura followed by seizure usually controlled by
medication.
C) A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only twice a year.
D) A condition in which a person has general seizures that start in childhood.
Answer: A

127. Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs?

A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds
B) Awareness of problems with color vision
C) Ability to dominate the patient
D) Control of personal habits
Answer: D
 128. You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover
on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop
the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and
begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him
to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing
the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center
your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What
is the best way to respond?
A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene.
B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally.
C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called.
D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient.
Answer: A

129. What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading
hepatitis A?
A) Respiratory droplet
B) Unprotected sex
C) Fecal-oral
D) Bloodborne
Answer: C

130. The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction.
A) delayed
B) post-traumatic
C) acute
D) cumulative
Answer: D

131. Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger?
A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate
B) Remember, respect, respond
C) Ricochet, recover, re-entry
D) Realize, react, reassess
Answer: A

132. What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
A) Personal safety
B) Identification of hazardous materials
C) Patient care
D) Safety of bystanders
Answer: A
 133. How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely
lift?
A) 300
B) 500
C) 700
D) 200
Answer: C

134. During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used,
whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal
injury?
A) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body.
B) Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders.
C) Roll the patient over.
D) Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips.
Answer: A

135. You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient
is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her
from grabbing the railing and causing you to fall?
A) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not
let go until you are finished moving her.
B) Gently tie the patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from
unconsciously grabbing the railing.
C) Use a strap to safely secure the patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of
circulation to the patient's extremities.
D) Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down.
Answer: A

136. Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work
by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient?
A) Consent for treatment of minor emergencies
B) Consent for mentally incompetent adults
C) Expressed consent
D) Implied consent
Answer: D
 137. An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle
accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only
Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she
will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the
Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by.
The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the
EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.
B) The EMT is negligent because the patient died.
C) The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.
D) The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Answer: D

138. You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene,
you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He
tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion
you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT?
A) Legal
B) Financial
C) Medical
D) Ethical
Answer: D

139. The trachea branches off at the ________ and forms two mainstem bronchi.
A) bronchioles
B) pleura
C) alveoli
D) carina
Answer: D

140. Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)?

A) They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture.
B) They do not come in pediatric sizes.
C) They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant.
D) They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex.
Answer: D

141. When suctioning the airway, suction should never be applied for longer than
________ seconds.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Answer: A
 142. Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning?
A) Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.
B) Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.
C) Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth.
D) Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.
Answer: B

143. Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the
airway of a pediatric patient?
A) The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.
B) The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult.
C) Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open
the airway than do adults.
D) Gastric distention is unlikely.
Answer: A

144. You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are
attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of
resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations
again, you should:
A) finger sweep the airway.
B) tilt the head back further.
C) perform chest thrusts.
D) ease the head forward a little.
Answer: D

145. What are the signs of hypoxia?

A) Warm dry skin, with difficulty in breathing, and hypertension
B) Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or
restlessness
C) Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion
D) Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brain and heart that is
irreversible
Answer: B

146. In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question?

A) Is he breathing?
B) Is he alive or dead?
C) Is his breathing adequate or inadequate?
D) Is he big sick or little sick?
Answer: A
 147. The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure
the change of what two gases?
A) Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide
B) High carbon monoxide and low oxygen
C) High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide
D) High carbon dioxide and low oxygen
Answer: D